______________________ ________________________

Roll No. of Candidate Signature of Candidate

ECAT ENTRANCE TEST - 3
Total MCQs: 100
Max. Marks: 400 Time Allowed: 100 Minutes

PHYSICS
1. Two forces of 10N and 7N are acting on a object simultaneously, the minimum value of
their resultant is.
(a) 0 N (b) 3 N
(c) 17 N (d) 1490 N
2. When a water droplet falls through air, the net force on its given by.
(a) Net force = drag force – weight (b) Net force = weight – drag force
(c) Net force = weight + drag force (d) Net force = (weight) (drag force)
3. If red light is used as compared to blue light, then fringe spacing.
(a) Increase (b) Decreases (c) Remains same (d) Becomes zero
4. The speed of sound in hydrogen is.
(a) Two time its speed in oxygen (b) Three times its speed in oxygen
(c) Four times its speed in oxygen (d) Sixteen times its speed oxygen
5. Sounds of frequency lower than 20 hertz are called.
(a) Ultra sonics (b) Infrasonic
(c) Supersonic (d) Audible sound waves
6. If a Carnot engine is working with source temperature equal to 227 C and its sink
temperature is at 87 C, its efficiency will be
(a) 20% (b) 10% (c) 28% (d) 50%
7. A person suffering from hyper metropia requires which type of spectacle
(a) Concave (b) Convex (c) Plano concave (d) Cylindrical
8. 226Ra  222Rn +…………..
88 86
(a) Li (b) He (c) U (d) N
9. The half-life of radium is about 1600 years. If 100 g radium existing now, 25 g will remain
un-decayed after
(a) 4800 years (b) 6400 years (c) 2400 years (d) 3200 years
10. Kα, X-ray photon is emitted when the hole in K  shell is occupied by the electron moves
from
(a) L  shell (b) M  shell (c) N  shell (d) None of these
11. The population inversion is in which
(a) All electrons are in excited state (b) Some electrons are in excited state
(c) Majority of electrons is in excited state (d) Some electrons are in ground state
12. In an experiment, the length of a steed rod is to be measured. For this purpose, a student
finds two different devices in the lab. Device A can measure the length with an absolute
uncertainty of 0.5cm while device B can make the same measurement with and absolute
uncertainty of 0.05 cm. for precise measurement, the student should:
(a) Use only device A to measure the length
(b) Use only device B measure the length
(c) Use the average of the measurements obtained using devices A and B
(d) Use the minimum of the measurements obtained using devices A and B

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13. Which of the following expression could be a valid expression for velocity v of ocean
waves in terms of the density of sea water (p), the depth of ocean (h), the wavelength (  )
and the acceleration of free fall (g):
g g
(a) g (b) pgh (c) (d)
h p
14. Three uniform bricks, each of length L, are stacked as shown in the figure below.

Which of the following can be a valid value of x, if the resultant system is in equilibrium?
(a) L/8 (b) L/4 (c) L/2 (d) Both A & B
15. A solar panel delivers 100 watts for one minute. How much energy does it deliver during
this period?
(a) 60 J (b) 6 KJ (c) 100 J (d) 3.6 KJ
16. When a bus is at rest, a pendulum bob hanging form the celling inside the bus is just
above a certain mark on the floor, when the bus moves in a straight line at a constant
speed of 120kh/h on the motorway, the pendulum bob:
(a) Oscillates with simple harmonic motion about its original position
(b) Stays over the mark because there is not force on the bob due to the motion
(c) Stays over the mark because the forces due to the motion is balanced by the reaction
of the thread
(d) Is behind the mark in a position where the horizontal force exerted on the bob due to
motion is equal to the horizontal component of the tension to the thread
17. A tuning fork P produces 12 beats per second with another tuning for Q if the frequency
of Q is 200 Hz, the frequency of P is:
(a) 212 Hz (b) 188 Hz (c) 2400 Hz (d) Either A or B
18. The following graph shows the variation of force F on a body with time t.

The area under the graph represents:

(a) Change in velocity (b) Change in momentum
(c) Change in acceleration (d) Change in kinetic energy
19. A steel ball held a short distance h above the surface of a liquid, in a deep tank, is released
which one of the following does NOT affect the terminal velocity of the ball in the liquid?
(a) Distance h (b) Viscosity of the liquid
(c) Diameter of the sphere (d) Density of the liquid
20. Two skaters of equal mass, facing each other and holding hands with arms outstretched,
as spinning at angular velocity w abut a vertical axis midway between them. It they move
does together so that they halve their separation, their new angular velocity is:
(a) w/2 (b) w (c) 2 w (d) 4 w
21. A person stands on a weighing scale in a lift going upwards with constant velocity. If the
weight of the person under normal circumstances is W, the weight shown by the weighing
scale in the lift will be?
(a) Less than W (b) More than W (c) Equal to W
(d) Maybe less than or greater than W depending of the lift
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22. A pendulum is oscillating in simple harmonic motion. Which of the following graphs
correctly shows the variation of its acceleration a with respect to the displacement x from
the centre of its path?

23. A simple pendulum with length l is known to oscillate with a period T seconds. If the
length of the pendulum is increased to 21 and the maximum displacement of the
pendulum remains the same, the total energy of the system will:
(a) Decrease (b) Increase
(c) Remain same
(d) Will increase or decrease depending on the mass of the pendulum bob
24. Two copper wires of lengths I and 2l are stretched by a force F. If the cross sectional area
of wire of length I is A, what is the cross sectional area of the wire of length 2l if the
extension in both wires is same?
(A) A/2 (B) A (C) 2A (D) 4A
25. The temperature of 1 Kg of hydrogen gas is the same as that of 1 kg of helium gas if:
(a) The gases have same internal energy
(b) The gas molecules have the same root mean square speed
(c) The gas molecules have the same mean translational kinetic energy
(d) All of these
26. A wire loop is placed in between the poles of a magnet as shown in the figure below.

If the wire loop is rotated clockwise around the axis, which of the following statements
regarding the instantaneous current in the PQ segment is correct?
(a) The direction of current will be form P t Q
(b) The direction of current will be from Q to P
(c) There will be no current
(d) The direction of current in PQ segment will depend of the resistance of the load
27. A source initially contains No nuclei of a radioactive nuclide. How many of these nuclei
have decayed after a time interval of three half-lives?
(a) N0/8 (b) 7N0/8 (c) N0/2 (d) 15N0/16

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28. The electrons in a cathode-ray tube are accelerated from cathode to anode by a potential
difference of 2000 V. if this potential difference is increased to 8000 V, the electrons will arrive
at the anode with.
(a) Twice the kinetic energy and four times the velocity
(b) Four times the kinetic energy and sixteen times the velocity
(c) For times the kinetic energy and twice the velocity
(d) Sixteen times the kinetic energy and four times the velocity
29. Three similar light bulbs are connected to a constant voltage DC supply as shown in the
diagram. Each bulb operates at normal brightness and an ammeter of negligible
resistance registers a steady current.

One more similar light bulb is connected in parallel to the three bulbs. What happens to
the ammeter reading and the brightness of the four bulbs?
(a) Ammeter reading increases, bulb brightness increases
(b) Ammeter reading increases, bulbs brightness remains unchanged
(c) Ammeter reading remains unchanged, bulbs brightness remain unchanged
(d) Ammeter reading deceased, bulb brightness remain unchanged
30. The truth table shown in figure if implemented by:

(a) NOR gate (b) ANG gate (c) OR gate (d) XOR gate
CHEMISTRY FLT-3
31. How many moles of Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.5 moles of oxygen atoms?
(a) 0.02 (b) 3.125 x 10-2 (c) 6.25 x 10-2 (d) 2.5x 10-2
32. All are locating agents except
(a) rubeanic acid (b) Ninhydrin (c) Carbon disulphide(d) hydrogen sulphide
33. The limiting line of Balmer series lies in
(a) UV region (b) IR region (c) Visible region (d) X-Rays region
34. For which ion the enthalpy change of hydration likely to be the most exothermic
Ionic radius (nm) Charge an ion
(a) 0.065 +2
(b) 0.095 +1
(c) 0.135 +2
(d) 0.169 +1
35. By lowering the conc. of reactant to half in a reaction, the half life doubles. The order of
reaction is:
(a) zero (b) 1st (c) 2nd (d) 3rd
36. By doubling the concentration of potassium hydroxide in SN2 mechanism, the rate:
(a) remains same (b) becomes double (c)becomes 4 times (d) lower to half

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37. Which of the following alkanes would have the highest boiling point?

38. The mechanism for the reaction of propene with HOCl (Cl2 + H2O) will proceed through
which of the following intermediates?

39. In the following sequence of reactions,

KOH atc.
 A  B 
CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Br   
HBr
 C 
KOH  a q . 
The product (c) is:
(a) Propene (b) Propyne (c) Propan-1-ol (d) Propan-2-ol
40. Methyl chloride on treatment with potassium cyanide followed by hydrolysis yields:
(a) HCOOH (b) CH3COOH (c) CH3CN (d) CH3COOK
41. Which of the following is isoelectronic with ammonia?
(a) •CH3 (b) +CH3 (c) –CH3 (d) ••CH2
42. Which compound is a product of the hydrolysis of CH3COOC3H7 by boiling in aqueous
sodium hydroxide?

(a) CH3OH (b) C3H8 (c) C3H7OH (d) C 3 H 7 COO N a
43. H+ concentration when the solution has pH equal to zero
(a) 10-14 (b) 1 (c) 10-7 (d) 10-2
44. Which one is not used for distinction of aldehydes and ketones?
(a) NaHSO3 (b) Sod. Nitropruside
(c) Fehling solution (d)Benedict’s solution
45. The highest boiling point elevation is for the solution of 0.1 M of
(a) Urea (b) C6H12O6 (c) KCl (d) MgCl2
46. In a first order reaction the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.4M to 0.2M in
15 minutes. The time taken for concentration change from 0.1M to 0.025M is
(a) 15minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 7.5 minutes (d) 60 minutes
47. Moving down in group of the binding energies of metals:
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) no regular trend
48. Methyl carbocation has a geometry
(a) Pyramidal (b) Linear (c) Triangular (d) Pentagonal1
49. It is non-benzenoid
(a) Benzene (b) Anthracene (c) Aniline (d) Pyridine
ZnCl
50. CH3CH2OH+HX 2  CH3CH2X
The correct reactivity order for reactivity of the above reaction is
(a) HCl>HBr> HI (b) HI >HBr>HCl (c) HI >HCl>HBr (d) HBr> HI >HCl
51. The acid present in lemon juice is
(a) citric acid (b) acetic acid (c) HCOOH (d) lactic acid
52. Which among the following have triple bonds
(I) NO3- (II) HCN (III) CO (IV) CH3CN
(a) Only (I),(II) and (III) (b) Only (I),(II) and (IV)
(c) Only (II),(III) and (IV) (d) Only (I),(III) and (IV)

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53. A single chloride free radical can destroy how many ozone molecules
(a) 100 (b) 1000 (c) 100000 (d) 10
54. How many zones through which the charge passes in a rotary kiln?
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
55. Which compound shows H-bonding?
(a) C2H6 (b) CH3-O-CH3 (c) C2H5CI (d) C2H5OH
56. 12 g magnesium is treated with dil. H2SO4. The amount of hydrogen gas produced in the
reaction is:
(a) 2 g (b) 1.5 g (c) 1 g (d) 2 g
57. The reactivity order of alkyl halides for a particular alkyl group is
(a) F > CI > Br>I (b) I > Br> CI > F
(c) CI > Br > F > I (d) Br > I > CI > F
58. Which of the following is isomeric to pentane
(a) 1-methylcyclobutane (b) 2,3-dimethylbutane
(c) 2,2-dimethylpropane (d) 1,1-dimethylcyclopropane
59. The value of joule-Thomson coefficient for ideal gases is
(a) Zero (b) +ve
(c) -ve (d) None of these
60. For a given mass of gas if pressure is reduced to half and temperature is increased two
times, then the volume would be come
V
(a) (b) 2V 2
4
(c) 6V (d) 4V

Computer – ECAT
(Full Length Test-3)
31. The HTTP is used for communication between web server and_________
(a) Gust computer (b) Browser (c) Internet (d) Host computer
32. Which of the following key is used to insert new line of the paragraph into any text
editor?
(a) Shift (b) Backspace (c) Enter (d) Tab
33. Which of the following is the most popular top level domnain?
(a) .edu (b) .gov (c) .com (d) .org
34. Which of the following represents URL address?
(a) Hotmail-com (b) pakman@yahoo.om
(c) series@hotmail.com (d) http//www.hotmail.com
35. Which of the following protocols is used by news servers?
(a) NNTP (b) HTTP (c) TCP/IP (d) FTP
36. The four numbers in an IP address are called
(a) Domain (b) TLD (c) Octal (d) Octets
37. Which of the following devices is used in banks to read cheque of customer?
(a) OMR (b) OCR (c) MICR (d) Bar-code reader
38. Which of the following scanner is used in hospitals?
(a) Image scanner (b) Cat scanner (c) Bar-code reader (d) OCR
39. CAT stands for?
(a) Computerized Axial Topography (b) Computer Axial Topography
(c) Computer Aided Topography (d) None
40. Format C is an example of virus
(a) Boot sector (b) Trojan Horse (c) Chernobyl (d) Logic Bomb
41. A virus that replicates itself is called a
(a) Bug (b) Worm (c) Vaccine (d) Bomb
42. What is the most common computer crimes of these listed below?
(a) Extortion of bank funds (b) IRS database sabotage
(c) Putting people on junk mailing lists (d) Software piracy

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43. The capability of an operating system to load multiple program into memory at a time
and to perform two or more processes concurrentely is called
(a) Multi processing (b) Multi tasking (c) Multiprogramming (d) None
44. Which of the following folders contains the administrative tools
(a) Recycle Bin (b) My Documents (c) My Computer (d) Control Pannel
45. Ctrl+Alt+Del is
(a) An invalid key combination (b) Recognized by Window only
(c) Used to close the active window (d) Both b and c
46. Which of the following text stored in clipboard?
(a) Delete text (b) Copied text (c) Repeated text (d) Entered text
47. The number of personal computer that have word processor installed is about
(a) 10 (b) 50 (c) 70 (d) 90
48. Which of the following feature of Word processor allows to insert text from on file to an
other file
(a) Macro (b) Thesaurus (c) Merge (d) Footnote
49. In which type of file the record is stored on a calculated address
(a) Sequential file (b) Random file
(c) Index sequential file (d) All
50. Which model of the database allows each record to have multiple parents and child
records?
(a) Network model (b) Relational model
(c) Hierarchical model (d) None
51. Which of the following feature of the word processor allows to spacified margins of the
documents?
(a) Macro (b) Thesaurus (c) Merge (d) Layout
52. The bar that contains the group of commands is called
(a) Menu bar (b) Status bar (c) Title bar (d) Tool bar
53. Which of the following may be a temporary file?
(a) Master file (b) Transaction file (c) Backup file (d) None
54. Which file is fast in processing?
(a) Sequential file (b) Random file
(c) Index sequential file (d) All
55. Which one is the first step toward database development?
(a) Logical design (b) Physical design (c) Data modeling (d) ERD
56. Which model is used to represent the relationship of the ERD?
(a) Network model (b) Relational model (c) Hierarchical model (d) None
57. How many parts the currency format does use?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 8
58. in h:n:s AM/PM, the “n” parameter is used to represent the…….
(a) Minutes (b) Seconds (c) Months (d) Years
59. Which error is appear when a small value is subtract with a large value?
(a) Logical error (b) Syntax error (c) Cancellation error (d) Subtraction error
60. The_______ function can be called in other same function.
(a) User-define (b) Built-in (c) Both a and b (d) None
ENGLISH
According to some estimates, if we could compile the amount of food, land, water, and
energy used to raise the 10 billion animals slaughtered each year for meat, we could use
those resources to feed every single starving person on earth. The majority of these resources
are depleted by concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs). CAFOs are factory farms
5 that mass-produce livestock—harming animals, the environment, and humans in the process.
It is true that these farming methods provide an abundant source of food and employ
thousands of workers across the country. However, CAFOs should be placed under more
stringent restrictions because of their unfair treatment of animals and the harm they do to
both the environment and humans.

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10 One of the key controversies surrounding factory farms is animal rights. Factory farms raise
livestock indoors, as opposed to allowing the animals to graze in fields and pastures. The
farmers favor this overcrowded environment because it maximizes profits. Providing less
space for the animals costs less money; filling pens to their maximum capacity ensures that
no space is wasted. Consequently, animal pens are often so small that larger animals cannot
15 lie down or turn around. In some cases, these small cages are beneficial for more than just
maximizing capacity: calves, for example, do not gain muscle mass in this environment. This
keeps their meat more tender, which makes it more attractive to consumers.

Livestock in CAFOs are often found living in filthy, unhygienic conditions, stimulating the
spread of diseases—such as avian flu, foot and mouth disease, and mad cow disease—among
20 other animals on the farm. In order to combat this, farmers must give the animals antibiotics.
In many cases, however, antibiotics are used for disease prevention instead of treatment. In
addition to being used to combat the spread of disease, antibiotics are also commonly used to
encourage faster growth in livestock. This overuse increases the risk of livestock developing
immunity to antibiotics, ironically making animals even more susceptible to disease. After
25 being digested, these antibiotics are released back into the environment in the form of milk,
meat, and waste, which can affect the people who eat these products or the environment
that absorbs them.

CAFOs also negatively impact the environment in the form of air and water pollution. Factory
farms contribute to air pollution issues in the United States through the release of toxic gases
30 and vapors and by burning fossil fuels to run farm machinery. These farms also have notable
consequences for the environment in terms of water pollution. One characteristic of CAFOs
that creates water pollution is the presence of a lagoon. Lagoons are artificial storage basins
where animal excrement is temporarily contained; periodically, farmers flush this waste into
ditches or nearby bodies of water. This waste combines with runoff from fertilized fields to
35 pollute the water sources surrounding CAFOs. It adds excess nutrients, pathogens, veterinary
pharmaceuticals, heavy metals, and excreted hormones to the water sources. Such pollutants
not only affect aquatic life, but can lead to severe impacts on human health.

Another negative environmental impact of factory farms is resource depletion. Factory

farming uses more land than any other agricultural or industrial enterprise in the country.
40 CAFOs consume a great deal of resources in terms of grain, energy, and land. There are far
more efficient ways of using these resources to feed people. For example, it has been
estimated that the grain used to feed livestock in the United States alone could feed up to
800 million people in one year. By contrast, the production of livestock in CAFOs is a wasteful
use of energy. While both chicken meat and soybeans are good sources of protein, producing
45 equivalent amounts of protein from chicken meat and soybeans does not require equivalent
amounts of energy: chicken meat production consumes 14 times more energy than soybean
production. Grain and energy supplies should be used more efficiently to produce food
sources other than livestock.

In order to combat the unfair treatment of animals and the risks to environmental and human
50 health, CAFOs should be placed under stricter guidelines. One such regulation would force
factory farms to adhere to air and water quality protection standards from which they have
previously been exempted, like those set forth by the Clean Water Act. Enforcing these
standards would lead to banning environmental hazards such as waste lagoons, which in turn
would reduce environmental pollution and human health liabilities.

55 Some have suggested that due to these environmental and human health concerns, factory
farms should be banned outright. Advocates for CAFOs, however, argue that factory farming
allows for lower production costs that translate into lower food prices for consumers. Organic
and free-range products, they argue, do not allow for the large-scale production of livestock;

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 prices for meat, eggs, and dairy would increase should the country shift towards organic
60 products. Although this would be an inconvenience to consumers, a price increase would
encourage people to eat a diet of less meat. This cultural change would assist in solving the
broader resource crisis as fewer grain, energy, and land resources would be needed to
support smaller-scale production. Better treatment of animals and more responsible
environmental practices would protect humans more from infectious diseases and the effects
65 of air and water pollution—a benefit everyone should embrace.
61. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) persuade readers that factory farms should be more strictly regulated to minimize the
harm they cause
(b) suggest economic alternatives to factory farms, such as organic farming and soybean
production
(c) complain about the water pollution caused by the irresponsible practice of keeping
waste lagoons on CAFOs
(d) educate readers about the pros and cons of CAFOs

62. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that animals raised on CAFOs live
indoors because
I. animals that live indoors require fewer antibiotics than animals raised outside
II. some animals raised inside produce more appealing meat
III. animals raised indoors are less expensive to maintain
(a) l only
(b) II only
(c) I and II only
(d) II and III only

63. The author describes CAFOs as having a negative impact on the environment for all of the
following reasons except
(a) animal waste pollutes water sources near factory farms
(b) exhaust from farm machinery contributes to air pollution
(c) animals that live in overcrowded environments waste energy
(d) fertilizer-rich runoff from farms contaminates the environment

64. Which of the following statements from paragraph 5 represents an opinion, as opposed to
a fact?
(a) “Factory farming uses more land than any other agricultural or industrial enterprise in
the country.”
(b) “It has been estimated that the grain used to feed livestock in the United States alone
could feed up to 800 million people in one year.”
(c) “Producing equivalent amounts of protein from chicken meat and soybeans does not
require equivalent amounts of energy.”
(d) “Grain and energy supplies should be used more efficiently to produce food sources
other than livestock.”
65. Which of the following pieces of information, if true, would best strengthen the author’s
argument in paragraph 6?
(a) People who reduce their intake of meat raised on factory farms reduce their chances of
developing high blood pressure and heart conditions.
(b) A town in North Carolina that used to be situated next to a animal waste lagoon
reported 50% fewer cases of respiratory illness after the lagoon was shut down.
(c) Factory farms that are forced to adhere to air and water quality protection standards
often report a 30% decrease in annual profits.
(d) Several animal rights groups have supported bills to force factory farms to abide by
greater environmental protection standards.

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66. In the final paragraph, the author states that meat from animals raised on factory farms is
cheaper than organic or free-range meat. The author likely admits this fact in order to
(a) provide a balanced perspective before concluding that the drawbacks of CAFO-produced
meat outweigh the economic benefits
(b) give readers enough information so that they can come to their own conclusions about
CAFOs’ benefits and drawbacks
(c) warn readers about the economic dangers that would result from shutting down CAFOs
(d) criticize supporters of CAFOs for being more concerned with the economy than the
environment

67. As used in the final paragraph, which is the best synonym for “advocates” line 56?
(a) critics
(b) founders
(c) supporters
(d) censors

68. Which of the following statements contains a valid objection to the author’s argument in
the final paragraph that he or she does not address?
(a) Not everyone wants to be a vegetarian.
(b) An increase in food prices is more than just an inconvenience for many households; it
can mean the difference between having enough to eat or not.
(c) Factory farm owners pay taxes just like everyone else, and therefore they should be
allowed input in the creation and modification of environmental policy.
(d) If farms move toward producing more organic products, food prices will likely go up.

69. Based on the information given in paragraph 3, excessive use of antibiotics can
(a) develop immunity to antibiotics among livestock
(b) reduce the required nourishing factor of the dairy products
(c) maximize farm capacity
(d) can protect animals from disease

70. The word “stringent” in line 8, most nearly means

(a) economizing
(b) damaging
(c) drastic
(d) vicious
MATHEMATICS
1 1
71. If f ( x )  x 2  2
, then f ( x )  f   
x x
1 2 1
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) x (d)
2 2x 2
3x
72.  2 x dx 
1.5
x

(a) 1.5  In  c
x
(b) c
In3  In 2
1.5
x

(c) c (d) None of these

In3
73. Let A  9,10,11,12,13 , and if f : A  N is defined as f ( x )  The highest prime factor of
N , then range of f ;
(a) 3,5,11,12,13 (b) 3,5,6,11,13 (c) 3,5,11,13 (d) 3,5,7,11,13

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 1
74. The most general solution of tan   1 and cos   is;
2
 7
(a)   n (b)   n  ( 1) ''
4 4
7
(c)   2n  (d) None of these
4
75. If y  3  3 y  5 , then value of y is;
(a) 4 (b) -4
1
(c) (d) 2
4
76. The reciprocal of 3i  4 is
1 1 1 1
(a) (3i  4) (b) ( 4  3i ) (c) ( 4  3i ) (d) (3i  4)
5 5 25 25
77. How many positive integers between 0 and 100 can be created using digits 1,2,3,4,5? ;
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 5 (d) 99
78. The sum of squares of first 20 natural numbers is;
(a) 2270 (b) 2280 (c) 2870 (d) None
3 9 27
79. Sum of series 1     ... up to infinity;
5 25 125
1
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 (c) (d) Can not be calculate
2
80. Find the area bounded by the region whose vertices (4, 5), (5, 6), (3,1);

5 7 9
(a) units (b) 2 units (c) units (d) units
2 2 2
1 2x 2
81. The graphs of f ( x )  x  4 and g ( x )   , intersects at;
2 3 3
 2  2
(a) (0,0) (b)  4,  (c)  1,  (d) (4,2)
 3  3
82. The equation of tangent to ellipse
x2 y 2
4

3

 1 at 2, 3 is; 
(a) 2 x  3 y  1  0 (b) 3 x  2 y  2 3  0
(c) 2 x  3x  0 (d) 3 x  2 y  2 3  0
83. The equation x  a y  7 x  6  0 represents;
2 2

(a) An ellipse (b) A circle

(c) A parabola (d) A hyperbola
84. If f ( x )  2 x  3 and f ( g (1))  5 , which of the following functions could be g(x)?
(a) x  1 (b) 2 x  1
(c) 2 x  1 (d) x  1
 4  2 
85. The value of tan  cos 1    tan 1    is;
 5  3 
6 16
(a) (b)
17 7
7 17
(c) (d)
16 6
1 2   3 4 
86. If A and B are 2-rowed square matrices such that A  B    and A  B   
 5 6   1 2 
then AB is equal to;
 7 5   7 5 
(a)   (b)  8 6 
 8 6   
 7 5   7  5 
(c)   (d)  
 8 6   8 6 

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 1 
87. The middle term in expansion of  x   is;
 2y 
105 x 4 105 x3
(a) (b)
36 y 2 32 y 5
105 x 4
(c) (d) None of these
32 y 6
dy
88. If y  x y , then =
dx
x2 y2
(a) (b)
y (1  y In x) x(1  x In y )
y2 y2
(c) (d)
x(1  x In x) x(1  y In x)
89. The maximum value of f ( x )  3  sin x is;
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 4 (d) 3
3
90. The area enclosed by y  sin x between x  0 and x  and x  axis is;
2
(a) 1 unit (b) 3 units
(c) 0 unit (d) 2 units
dy
91. If  y 2 , where y (0)  2 then lim y 
dx x 

(a) 6 (b) 1
(c)  (d) 0
     
92. The vectors 2 i  j  k and 4 i  2 j  10 k are;

(a) At angle of (b) Of equal magnitude
3
(c) Parallel (d) Orthogonal
93.
x 2 4 7 11
Y 3 7 13 21
The equation expressing the relationship between x and y in table is;
(a) y  2 x  1 (b) y  x  2
(c) y  2 x  1 (d) 2 x  y  7
94. The sum of the series 0.1+0.01+0.001+0.0001+…
1
(a) 0.1 (b)
9
1
(c) (d) Cannot be determined
3
95. The product of complex four fourth roots of 16 is;
(a) -16 (b) 16
(c) 4 (d) -4
96. For what value/s of  , the equation  x  4 x  16  0 , may have equal roots;
2

(a)   0 (b)   2
(c)   4 (d) Both a and c
97. rd
If tan x = cot x then possible value of x in 3 quadrant;
(a) 200 (b) 210
(c) 225 (d) 240
x
98. If log x 6  m, and log x 3  n then log x  ?
2
1
(a) log 2 x (b) 1  m  n
2
(c) 1  m  n (d) 1  m  n

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99. The solution set of x  x  2  4?
(a) 3, 0 (b) 3, 4
(c) 3, 6 (d) 3
100. Solution set of ( y  1)  4 is;
2

(a) 1,3 (b)  , 1

(c)  1,3 (d)  1,3

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