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))E ‫ نموذج‬-‫امتحان التصوير اإلشعاعي لحملة البكالوريوس‬

Radiography Technology Bachelor Degree(BSc.) Examination


Exam Number: (BSc-E)

Select the best answer:

1- One of the following effects is not caused by ultrasound:


A. Heating
B. Cavitations
C. Mechanical
D. Thermal
E. Ionization
2- The innominate bone is comprised of the pubis, ilium, and:
A. Ileum
B. Glenoid
C. Ischium
D. Femur
E. Sacrum
:Blood leaves the right ventricle of the heart and enters the lung by the way of the -3
A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Vena cava
D. Carotid artery
E. Pulmonary vein
4- The area of high signal in MRI image appears as:
A. Black
B. White
C. Dark grey
D. Grey
E. Dark black
5- One of the following devices does not produce x-rays:
A. Mobile x-ray machine
B. C.T. machine
C. MRI
D. Dental x-ray machine
E. Fluoroscopy machine
6-The extreme outermost lower corner of each lung is called:
A. Costopherenic angle
B. Apex
C. Base
D. Hilar region
E. Middle lobe
7- The structure on an U/S image that produces a non-uniform echo texture is known
as:

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A. Hyperechoic
B. Hypoechoic
C. Homogeneous
D. Heterogeneous
E. Echogenic
8- The basic projection of mastoid is:
A. Lateral 25 caudal and AP oblique
B. Lateral 25 degrees cephalic and AP oblique
C. Towne and lateral
D. Postero-anterior and lateral
E. PA and AP oblique
9-Three-inch mastoid cone would increase:
A. Density
B. Contrast
C. Detail visibility
D. Magnification
E. Distortion
10- An inrta-oral film is used in the following view:
A. Styloid process
B. Optic foramen
C. Lateral nose
D. Pubic symphysis
E. Mandibular symphysis
11- …………is a diagnostic test that uses a small amount of radioactive material
(tracer) to assess the efficiency of the pumping action of the heart:
A. Lymphoscintigram
B. SONAR
C. A radionuclide ventriculogram (RVG)
D. Doppler
E. Magnetic resonance
12-If the patient starts to vomit on the x-ray table, the Technologist should:
A. Sit the patient up
B. Turn the patient's head to one side, avoiding aspiration
C. Bend the patient's legs
D. Turn the patient in prone position
E. Turn the patient in erect position
13-The use of motion in a radiograph can be utilized to the best advantage in the
following:
A. Oblique view of sternum
B. PA view of ankle
C. Oblique view of Ribs
D. Lateral view of sacrum
E. AP view of cervical (3-7)
14-In radial deviation the wrist is turned:
A. Inward
B. Upward

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C. Downward
D. Medially
E. Outward
15- The recommended collimation for imaging lung nodules in CT is approximately:
A. 1 mm
B. 2-4 mm
C. 5-7 mm
D. 7-8 mm
E. 8-10 mm
16-The portion of the pelvis that articulates with the femur to form the hip joint is
called the:
A. Glenoid
B. Acromion
C. Malleolus
D. Acetabulum
E. Trochantar
17-The size and shape of the spleen, liver, and kidneys are best visualized in which of
the following views of the abdomen:
A. Right anterior oblique
B. Anterior and posterior supine
C. Lateral view
D. Anteroposterior view with horizontal beam
E. Waters view
18-Which of the following parts would you x-ray if a patient comes to your
department with a requisition questioning a trimalleolar fracture:
A. Facial bones
B. Acoustic meatus
C. Knee
D. Ankle
E. Upper and lower teeth
19-We do semi recumbent position in case of:
A. Very thick patient
B. Children
C. Routine
D. Pregnant
E. Adult patient
20-The first CT image was demonstrated by:
A. Alan Cormack
B. Raymond Damadian
C. Geodfrey Houndsfield
D. Frank Lauterbur
E. Larry Rothenberg
:The name of the heel bone is the-21
A. Talus
B. Navicular
C. Calcaneus

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D. Big toe
E. Cuboid

22- The exposure factors recommended for chest examination of a young patient are:
A. 60-70 Kv and short time
B. 100-120 Kv and short time
C. 70-100 Kv and medium time
D. 100-120 Kv and long time
E. 60-70 Kv and long time
23- In Towne view of skull the orbito-meatal line will be:
A. Perpendicular to film
B. Parallel to the film
C. 45o to the film
D. 35o to the film
E. 30o to the film
24-Poor screen contact reduces:
A. Density
B. Contrast
C. Distortion
D. Definition
E. Density and contrast
25-The sharpness of detail in a radiograph primarily depends on the following except:
A. The mass
B. The size of the focal spot
C. The target-film distance
D. Immobilization
E. The object -film distance
26-If we do a radiograph for the knee joint with 10 mAs and we get an over exposed
film, which of the following changes will improve the image when we repeat:
A. Increase to 15 mAs
B. Decrease to 7 mAs
C. Decrease to 3 mAs
D. Increase to 20 mAs
E. mAs has no effect
:To demonstrate arthritis in hands we do ball catcher view which is-27
A. Antero-posterior both hands
B. Postero-anterior both hands
C. Lateral both hands
D. Posterior oblique both hands
E. Anterior oblique both hands
28- An angiogram shows the:
A. Jejunum
B. Ureters
C. Bile ducts
D. Lymph nodes
E. Blood vessels

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29- In lumber vertebrate projections we select:
A. High mA with high Kv
B. Short time with low mA
C. Increase F.F.D
D. Long exposure time and low mA
E. Long exposure time and high mA
30- We do chasser lapine position in Ba-enema to demonstrate:
A. Ascending colon
B. Descending colon
C. Rectum
D. Rectosigmoid
E. Sigmoid
31-Which of the following is a radiographic examination of the fluid-containing spaces
of brain:
A. Carotid angiography
B. Venography
C. Pneumoencephalography
D. Angiocardiography
E. H.S.G
32-The artificial contrast material used most frequently in studies of the vascular
system is:
A. Iodine
B. Barium
C. Air
D. Carbon dioxide
E. Sodium
33- To demonstrate urinary bladder full of contrast media in I.V.P investigation the
central ray is:
A. Perpendicular to film
B. 30o caudal
C. 15o cephalic
D. 15o caudal
E. 30o cephalic
34- The traditional unit used to measure radiation exposure in air is:
A. Rad
B. Roentgen
C. Milliampere
D. Gray
E. Sievert
35- The specific organ in both genders that receives the greatest dose in A.P upper
G.I.T projections is:
A. Lungs
B. Ovaries
C. Testes
D. Bone marrow
E. Kidneys

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36- If an electron is added or removed from an atom the atom is then called:
A. beta particle
B. Little bag of marbles
C. Neutron
D. Proton
E. Ion
37- The developer acts on the emulsion causing the image to become:
A. Visible
B. Latent
C. Permanent
D. Invisible
E. No effect
38- The cathode in a rotating anode tube has:
A. One filament
B. Two filaments
C. Three filaments
D. Four filaments
E. No filament
39- The efficiency of a grid is strongly related to the:
A. Grid radius
B. Inter-spacing material
C. Lines per inch
D. Lines per cm
E. Grid ratio
40-The term (projection) when applied to CT, refers to:
A. Speed of image acquisition
B. A data set representing x-ray attenuation in the patient
C. The size of the x-ray beam projected on the patient
D. The shape of the x-ray beam projected on the patient
E. The mathematics of image reconstruction
41- In anteroposterior view of forearm in case of injury the epicondyles of humerus
should be:
A. At right angle to the film
B. Near as possible and equidistance to the film
C. Crossing each other
D. 60 degree to the film
E. Far as possible to the film
42- The following is a characteristic of fourth-generation CT imager:
A. Multielement detector array
B. Fan beam
C. Fixed detector array
D. Rotate-translate motion
E. One second imaging time
43- The routine patient position in CT procedure is:
A. Prone
B. Supine

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C. Rt. lateral decubitus
D. Lt. lateral decubitus
E. Erect
44- All of these are types of RF coils used in magnetic resonance imaging except:
A. The volume coil
B. The surface coil
C. The phased coil
D. The solenoid coil
E. The oil coil
45-The compound used in fluoroscopic screens as a fluorescent agent is:
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Zinc oxide
C. Zinc sulfide
D. Zinc cadmium sulfide
E. Silver sulfide
46- One absolute contra-indication for MRI is:
A. Sickle cell crisis
B. Pregnancy
C. Intracranial aneurysm clips
D. Cardiac pacemaker
E. Very sick patients
47-The mastoid process is part of this bone:
A. Occipital bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Zygoma
E. Mandible
48- The contrast media used in imaging the central nervous system by MRI is:
A. Gastro-grafine
B. Ba-sulphate
C. Castor oil
D. Biligram
E. Gadolinium
49- One megahertz (1 MHz) is equal to:
A.10 KHz
B.100 KHz
C.1000 KHz
D.10000 KHz
E.100000 KHz
50- The reflected sound waves are called:
A. Ultrasound
B. Echoes
C. Attenuation sound
D. SONAR
E. Media
51- If a radiograph of AP foot reveals that metatarso-phalangeal joints are not open the

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error is:
A. High Kv used
B. High mAs used
C. Medial rotation
D. Central ray is not angled correctly
E. Patient movement
52- The temperature in ultrasound room should be in the range of:
A. 20-25ºC
B. 5-10ºC
C. 30-35ºC
D. 35-40ºC
E. 10-15ºC
53- Ring artifacts are characteristic of which CT system:
A. Second generation
B. Third generation
C. Fourth generation
D. Electron beam
E. Spiral
54- On longitudinal ultrasound scan, the prostate appears …………. to urinary
bladder:
A. Anterior
B. Above
C. Right
D. Left
E. Posterior
55-A drip infusion study is an examination of the:
A. Fallopian tubes
B. Bile ducts
C. Renal pelvis
D. Salivary ducts
E. Para nasal sinuses
56- How long is it advised for patients treated with I131 to delay conception?
A. One year
B. Three months
C. One month
D. 6 months
E. 10 months
57- A quenching gas is commonly used in which type of radiation detector?
A. Proportional counters
B. TLD
C. Ge(Li) detectors
D. Ionization chambers
E. Geiger-Muller counters
58-Fractures of the facial bones are better demonstrated by:
A. Angiography
B. Intraosseous

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C. Arthrography
D. Laminagraphy
E. Myelography
59- The term attenuation refers to:
A. Absorption only
B. Scattering only
C. Absorption and scattering of both X-rays and gamma-rays
D. X-ray absorption only
E. Moving of radiation through human body
60- All of these are image acquisition techniques in MRI except:
A. Spin-echo (SE)
B. Spin-echo- fat sat (SE)
C. Inversion recovery
D. Gradient recall echo (GRE)
E. Time repetition

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