Antenna MCQs

Dept. of ECE www.studymaterialz.
in
MCQ for Regulations 2017
a) resistor
b) inductor
EC8701 ANTENNAS c) capacitor
d) transistor
AND MICROWAVE Answer: d
ENGINEERING Explanation: A non linear device has the
ability to generate the harmonics of the input
sinusoidal signal. Transistor and diodes are
ECE - 7th Semeseter non linear devices and hence can be used as a
frequency multiplier.
3. The major drawback of frequency

Regulations - 2017 multipliers is that they have:
a) higher attenuation
b) complex construction methods
c) complex design
d) none of the mentioned
UNIT I INTRODUCTION Answer: c
TO MICROWAVE Explanation: Designing a good quality
frequency multiplier is more difficult since it
SYSTEMS AND non-linear analysis, matching at multiple
ANTENNAS frequencies, stability analysis and thermal
considerations. Considering all these issues
for designing a multiplier makes it very
TOPIC 1.1 MICROWAVE complex.
FREQUENCY BANDS
4. A reactive diode multiplier uses _______
as the key electronic component for
1. Oscillators operating at millimeter frequency multiplication.
wavelength are difficult to realize and are also a) zener diode
less efficient. b) light emitting diode
a) true c) varactor diode
b) false d) Gunn diode
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: As frequency increases to the Explanation: Reactive diode multipliers use
millimeter wave range, it becomes either a varactor diode or step recovery diode
increasingly difficult to build fundamental biased to present a non linear junction
frequency oscillators with good power, capacitance. Since losses in these diodes are
stability and noise characteristics. An low, the fraction of RF power converted to
alternative approach is to produce a harmonic the desired harmonic is relatively high.
of a low frequency oscillator through the use
of frequency multiplier. 5. A major disadvantage of frequency
multipliers is that they multiply the noise
2. __________ is an example for a frequency factor along with frequency.
multiplier.
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Dept. of ECE www.studymaterialz.in
a) true 8. Resistive multipliers are more efficient as

b) false compared to reactive multipliers.
a) true
Answer: a b) false
Explanation: A disadvantage of frequency
multipliers is that noise levels are also Answer: b
increased by the multiplication factor. Explanation: Resistive multipliers generally
Frequency multiplication process is a phase use forward biased Schottky-barrier diodes to
multiplication process as well, so phase noise provide non linear characteristic. Resistive
variations get multiplied by the same factor as multipliers have low efficiency but have
the frequency gets multiplied. better bandwidth.
6. If a frequency multiplier has a 9. Reactive multipliers have a disadvantage

multiplication factor of 10, then the increase that they cannot be used at very high
in noise level due to frequency multiplication frequencies and they become less efficient.
is: a) true
a) 10 dB b) false
b) 20 dB
c) 25 db Answer: a
d) 15 dB Explanation: At millimeter frequencies,
varactor diode exhibits resistive property.
Answer: b Hence, at high frequency the multiplier
Explanation: For a frequency multiplier, the becomes lossy and also does not offer high
increase in noise power is given by 20 log n, bandwidth, which is a major disadvantage.
where n is the multiplication factor of the
multiplier. Substituting in the below equation, 10. For a resistive frequency multiplier of
increase in noise level is 20 dB. multiplication factor 2, the maximum
theoretical conversion efficiency is:
7. In a diode frequency multiplier, an input a) 50 %
signal of frequency fo applied to the diode is b) 25 %
terminated with_________ at all frequencies c) 75 %
other than required harmonic. d) 12.5 %
a) real impedances
b) reactive impedance Answer: b
c) complex impedance Explanation: For a resistive frequency
d) none of the mentioned multiplier of multiplication factor 2, the
maximum theoretical conversion efficiency is
Answer: b given by 1/m2 where m is the multiplication
Explanation: In a diode frequency multiplier, factor. For a factor 2 multiplier, maximum
an input signal of frequency fo applied to the theoretical conversion efficiency is 25 %.
diode is terminated with reactive impedance
at all frequencies other than required TOPIC 1.2 PHYSICAL CONCEPT
harmonic nfo. if the diode junction
OF RADIATION
capacitance has a square –law I-V
characteristic , it is necessary to terminate
unwanted harmonics with short circuit. 1. The basic requirements of transmitting
antennas are:
a) High efficiency

b) Low side lobes two lines that chary the TEM wave
c) Large signal to noise ratio approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated so
d) Lone of the mentioned that the opened – out line act as an antenna
which lunches a free space wave.
Answer: a
Explanation: The basic requirements of a 5. The number of patterns radiation pattern
transmitting antenna are high gain and required to specify the characteristic are :
efficiency while requirements of receiving a) Three
antennas are low side lobes and large signal b) Four
to noise to ratio. c) Two
d) Five
2. _________ is a device that converts
electrons to photons or vice-versa. Answer: a
a) Antenna Explanation: The three patterns required are,
b) Electron gun θ component of the electric field as the
c) Photon amplifier function of the angles as θ and φ, the φ
d) Microwave tube component of the electric field as the function
of the angles θ and φ, the phase of these fields
Answer: a as a functions of the angle φ and θ .
Explanation: Antenna is a device that
converts electrons into photons or vice versa. 6. The beam width of the antenna pattern
A transmitting antenna converts electrons into measured at half power points is called:
photons while a receiving antenna converts a) Half power beam width
photons into electrons. b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
3. The basic equation of radiation that is d) None of the mentioned
applied to any antenna irrespective of the type
of the antenna is: Answer: a
a) iL= Qv Explanation: The beam width of an antenna
b) iQ = Lv measure at half of the maximum power
c) i/L=Q/v received by an antenna or the 3 dB beam
d) None of the mentioned width of the antenna is termed as half null
beam width.
Answer: a
Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is 7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =
given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
current, l is the length of the current element, power beam width of the antenna is:
q is the charge v is the acceleration of the a) 330
charge.
b) 660
4. When the separation between two lines that c) 12000
carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave d) None of the mentioned
tends to be radiated.
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: Half power beam width of the
antenna is obtained by equating the field
Answer: a pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
Explanation: When the separation between point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
beam width. Solving the given problem in the

same flow, half power beam width of the intensity. Unit of radiation intensity is watts
antenna is 660. per steridian or per square degree.
8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ. TOPIC 1.3 NEAR- AND FAR-
cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the
antenna is: FIELD REGIONS
a) 450
b) 900 TOPIC 1.4 FIELDS AND POWER
c) 1800 RADIATED BY AN ANTENNA
d) 1200
Answer: b TOPIC 1.5 ANTENNA PATTERN

Explanation: Half power beam width of the CHARACTERISTICS
pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of TOPIC 1.6 ANTENNA GAIN AND
beam width. Twice the half power beam EFFICIENCY
width gives the first null beam width. With
the same steps applied, the half power beam
width of the antenna is 450. First null beam TOPIC 1.7 APERTURE
width is 900. EFFICIENCY AND EFFECTIVE
AREA
9. The solid area through which all the power
radiated by the antenna is:
1. A __________ is a device that converts a
a) Beam area
guided electromagnetic wave on a
b) Effective area
transmission line into a plane wave
c) Aperture area
propagating in free space.
d) Beam efficiency
a) Transmitting antenna
b) Receiving antenna
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam area is the solid c) Radar
angle through which all of the power radiated d) Mixer
by the antenna would stream if P (θ, φ)
Answer: a
maintained its maximum value over beam
Explanation: A transmitting antenna is a
area and zero elsewhere. This value is
device that converts a guided electromagnetic
approximately equal to the angles subtended
wave on a transmission line into a plane wave
by the half power points of the main lobe in propagating in free space. It appears as an
the two principal planes.
electrical circuit on one side, provides an
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit interface with a propagating plane wave.
solid angle is called radiation intensity.
2. Antennas are bidirectional devices.
a) True
a) True
b) False
b) False
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna Explanation: Antennas can be used both as
per unit solid angle is called radiation

transmitters and receivers. As transmitters Substituting in the above expression, far field
they radiate energy to free space and as distance is 17.3 m.
receivers they receive signal from free space.
Hence, they are called bidirectional devices 6._________ of an antenna is a plot of the
as they are used at both transmitting end and magnitude of the far field strength versus
receiving end. position around the antenna.
a) Radiation pattern
3. Dipole antennas are an example for: b) Directivity
a) Wire antennas c) Beam width
b) Aperture antennas d) None of the mentioned
c) Array antennas
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: Radiation pattern of an antenna
Answer: a is a plot of the magnitude of the far field
Explanation: Dipoles, monopoles, oops, strength versus position around the antenna.
Yagi-Uda arrays are all examples for wire This plot gives the detail regarding the region
antennas. These antennas have low gains, and where most of the energy of antenna is
are mostly used at lower frequencies. radiated, side lobes and beam width of an
antenna.
4. _________ antennas consist of a regular
arrangement of antenna elements with a feed 7. Antennas having a constant pattern in the
network azimuthal plane are called _____________
a) Aperture antennas a) High gain antenna
b) Array antennas b) Omni directional antenna
c) Printed antennas c) Unidirectional antenna
d) Wire antennas d) Low gain antenna
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Array antennas consist of a Explanation: Omni directional antennas
regular arrangement of antenna elements with radiate EM waves in all direction. If the
a feed network. Pattern characteristics such as radiation pattern for this type of antenna is
beam pointing angle and side lobe levels can plotted, the pattern is a constant signifying
be controlled by adjusting the amplitude and that the radiated power is constant measured
phase excitation of array elements. at any point around the antenna.
5. A parabolic reflector used for reception 8. Beamwidth and directivity are both
with the direct broadcast system is 18 inches measures of the focusing ability of an
in diameter and operates at 12.4 GHz. The antenna.
far-field distance for this antenna is: a) True
a) 18 m b) False
b) 13 m
c) 16.4 m Answer: a
d) 17.3 m Explanation: Beamwidth and directivity are
both measures of the focusing ability of an
Answer: d antenna. An antenna with a narrow main
Explanation: Far field distance for a reflector beam will have high directivity, while a
antenna is given by 2D2/λ. D is the diameter pattern with low beam will have low
and λ is the operating signal wavelength. directivity.

9. If the beam width of an antenna in two Product of directivity and efficiency thus
orthogonal planes are 300 and 600. Then the gives the gain of the antenna to be 16.2.
directivity of the antenna is:
a) 24 2. Gain of an antenna is always greater than
b) 18 the directivity of the antenna.
c) 36 a) True
d) 12 b) False
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Given the beam width of the Explanation: Gain of an antenna is always
antenna in 2 planes, the directivity is given by smaller than the directivity of an antenna.
32400/θ*∅, where θ,∅ are the beam widths in Gain is given by the product of directivity and
radiation efficiency. Radiation efficiency can
the two orthogonal planes. Substituting in the
never be greater than one. So gain is always
equation, directivity of the antenna is 18.
less than or equal to directivity.
10. If the power input to an antenna is 100
3. A rectangular horn antenna has an aperture
mW and if the radiated power is measured to
area of 3λ × 2λ. Then the maximum
be 90 mW, then the efficiency of the antenna
directivity that can be achieved by this
is:
rectangular horn antenna is:
a) 75 %
a) 24 dB
b) 80 %
b) 4 dB
c) 90 %
d) Insufficient data c) 19 dB
d) Insufficient data
Answer: c
Answer: c
Explanation: Antenna efficiency is defined
Explanation: Given the aperture dimensions
as the ratio of radiated power to the input
of an antenna, the maximum directivity that
power to the antenna. Substituting the given
can be achieved is 4π A/λ2, where A is the
data in the efficiency equation, the efficiency
aperture area and λ is the operating
of the antenna is 90%.
wavelength. Substituting the given values in
the above equation, the maximum directivity
TOPIC 1.8 ANTENNA NOISE achieved is 19 dB.
TEMPERATURE AND G/T
area of 3λ × 2λ. If the aperture efficiency of
1. If an antenna has a directivity of 16 and an antenna is 90%, then the directivity of the
radiation efficiency of 0.9, then the gain of antenna is:
the antenna is: a) 19 dB
a) 16.2 b) 17.1 dB
b) 14.8 c) 13 dB
c) 12.5 d) 21.1 dB
d) 19.3
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Given the aperture dimensions
Explanation: Gain of an antenna is given by of an antenna, the directivity that can be
the product of radiation efficiency of the achieved is ap4π A/λ2, where A is the
antenna and the directivity of the antenna. aperture area and λ is the operating

wavelength, ap is the aperture efficiency. background noise temperature increases.

Substituting the given values in the above Also, with the increase of the elevation angle
equation, the directivity achieved is 17.1 dB. from the horizon, background noise
temperature increases.
5. If an antenna has a directivity of 16 and is
operating at a wavelength of λ, then the 8. The noise temperature of an antenna is
maximum effective aperture efficiency is: given by the expression:
a) 1.27λ2 a) radTb + (1-rad) Tp
b) (1-rad) TP
b) 2.56λ2
c) radTb
c) 0.87λ2 d) None of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The noise temperature of an
Explanation: Maximum effective aperture antenna is given by the expression radTb +
efficiency of an antenna is given by D λ2/4π, (1-rad) Tp. here, Tb is the brightness
D is the directivity of the antenna. temperature and Tp is the physical
Substituting in the equation the given values, temperature of the system. rad is the radiation
the maximum effective aperture is 1.27λ2. efficiency. Noise temperature of a system
depends on these factors.
6. A resistor is operated at a temperature of
300 K, with a system bandwidth of 1 MHz 9. Low is the G/T ratio of an antenna, higher
then the noise power produced by the resistor is its efficiency.
is: a) True
a) 3.13×10-23 watts b) False
b) 4.14×10-15 watts Answer: b
c) 6.14×10-15 watts Explanation: In the G/T ratio of an antenna,
d) None of the mentioned G is the gain of an antenna and T is the
antenna noise temperature. Higher the G/T
Answer: b ratio of an antenna better is the performance
Explanation: For a resistor noise power of the antenna.
produced is given by kTB, where T is the
system temperature and B is the bandwidth. 10._________ has a constant power spectral
Substituting in the above expression, the density.
noise power produced is 4.14×10-15 watts. a) White noise
b) Gaussian noise
7. With an increase in operating frequency, c) Thermal noise
the background noise temperature: d) Shot noise
a) Increases
b) Decreases Answer: a
c) Remains constant Explanation: Thermal noise has a power
d) Remains unaffected spectral density for a wide range of
frequencies. Its plot of frequency v/s noise
Answer: a power is a straight line parallel to Y axis.
Explanation: The plot of frequency v/s
background noise temperature shows that
with the increase of the signal frequency, the

TOPIC 1.9 IMPEDANCE impedance at microwave frequencies, they

have largely been superseded by the modern
MATCHING network analyzer in terms of accuracy,
versatility and convenience.
1. Slotted line is a transmission line
configuration that allows the sampling of: 4. If the standing wave ratio for a
a) electric field amplitude of a standing wave transmission line is 1.4, then the reflection
on a terminated line coefficient for the line is:
b) magnetic field amplitude of a standing a) 0.16667
wave on a terminated line b) 1.6667
c) voltage used for excitation c) 0.01667
d) current that is generated by the source d) 0.96
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Slotted line allows the Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1).
sampling of the electric field amplitude of a Substituting for SWR in the above equation
standing wave on a terminated line. With this for reflection co-efficient, given SWR is 1.4,
device, SWR and the distance of the first reflection co-efficient is 0.16667.
voltage minimum from the load can be
measured, from this data, load impedance can 5. If the reflection coefficient of a
be found. transmission line is 0.4, then the standing
wave ratio is:
2. A slotted line can be used to measure a) 1.3333
_____ and the distance of _____________ b) 2.3333
from the load. c) 0.4
a) SWR, first voltage minimum d) 0.6
b) SWR, first voltage maximum
c) characteristic impedance, first voltage Answer: b
minimum Explanation: SWR= (1+┌)/ (1-┌). Where ┌
d) characteristic impedance, first voltage is the reflection co-efficient. Substituting for
maximum the reflection co-efficient in the equation,
SWR is 2.3333.
Answer: a
Explanation: With a slotted line, SWR and 6. Expression for ϴ means phase angle of the
the distance of the first voltage minimum reflection co efficient r=|r|-e^jθ, the phase of
from the load can be measured, from this the reflection co-efficient is:
data, load impedance can be found. a) θ=2π+2βLmin
b) θ=π+2βLmin
3. A modern device that replaces a slotted c) θ=π/2+2βLmin
line is:
d) θ=π+βLmin
a) Digital CRO
b) generators
c) network analyzers Answer: b
d) computers Explanation: here, θ is the phase of the
reflection co-efficient. Lmin is the distance
Answer: c from the load to the first minimum. Since
Explanation: Although slotted lines used to voltage minima repeat every λ/2, any multiple
be the principal way of measuring unknown of λ/2 can be added to Lmin .

7. In the expression for phase of the reflection Answer: a

coefficient, Lmin stands for : Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌).
a) distance between load and first voltage Substituting the given values of reflection co-
minimum efficient and characteristic impedance, ZL is
b) distance between load and first voltage 47.3+j19.7Ω .
maximum
c) distance between consecutive minimas 10. If the normalized load impedance of a
d) distance between a minima and immediate transmission line is 2, then the reflection co-
maxima efficient is:
a) 0.33334
Answer: a b) 1.33334
Explanation: Lmin is defined as the distance c) 0
between the terminating load of a d) 1
transmission line and the first voltage
minimum that occurs in the transmission line Answer: a
due to reflection of waves from the load end Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌), this is the
due to mismatched termination. expression for load impedance. Normalized
load impedance is the ratio of load impedance
8. If SWR=1.5 with a wavelength of 4 cm and to the characteristic impedance, taking
the distance between load and first minima is ZLL/Z0 as 2, the reflection co-efficient is
1.48cm, then the reflection coefficient is: equal to 0.33334.
a) 0.0126+j0.1996
b) 0.0128
c) 0.26+j0.16 TOPIC 1.10 FRIIS
d) none of the mentioned TRANSMISSION EQUATION
Answer: a
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1). TOPIC 1.11 LINK BUDGET AND
Substituting for SWR in the above equation LINK MARGIN NOISE
for reflection co-efficient, magnitude of the
reflection co-efficient is 0.2. To find θ,
θ=π+2βLmin, substituting Lmin as 1.48cm, 1. Link budget consists of calculation of
a) Useful signal power
θ=86.4⁰. Hence converting the polar form of b) Interfering noise power
the reflection co-efficient into rectangular co- c) Useful signal & Interfering noise power
ordinates, reflection co-efficient is d) None of the mentioned
0.0126+j0.1996.
Answer: c
9. If the characteristic impedance of a
Explanation: The link analysis and its output,
transmission line 50 Ω and reflection the link budget consists of calculations and
coefficient is 0.0126+j0.1996, then load tabulations of useful signal power and
impedance is: interfering noise power at the receiver.
a) 47.3+j19.7Ω
b) 4.7+j1.97Ω 2. Link budget can help in predicting
c) 0.26+j0.16 a) Equipment weight and size
d) data insufficient b) Technical risk
c) Prime power requirements
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d 6. Mechanism contributing to a reduction in

Explanation: Link budget can help to predict efficiency is called as
equipment weight, size, prime power a) Amplitude tapering
requirements, technical risk and cost. Link b) Blockage
budget is one of the system manager’s useful c) Edge diffraction
document. d) All of the mentioned
3. Which is the primary cost for degradation Answer: d

of error performance? Explanation: Mechanism contributing to a
a) Loss in signal to noise ratio reduction in efficiency is called as amplitude
b) Signal distortion tapering, spillover, edge diffraction, blockage,
c) Signal distortion & Loss in signal to noise scattering, re-radiation and dissipative loss.
ratio
d) None of the mentioned 7. Space loss occurs due to a decrease in
a) Electric field strength
Answer: c b) Efficiency
Explanation: There are two primary causes c) Phase
for the degradation of error performance. d) Signal power
They are loss in signal to noise ratio and the
second is signal distortion caused by Answer: a
intersymbol interference. Explanation: Due to the decrease in electric
field strength there will be a decrease in
4. Which factor adds phase noise to the signal strength as a function of distance. This
signal? is called as space loss.
a) Jitter
b) Phase fluctuations 8. Antenna’s efficiency is given by the ratio
c) Jitter & Phase fluctuations of
d) None of the mentioned a) Effective aperture to physical aperture
b) Physical aperture to effective aperture
Answer: c c) Signal power to noise power
Explanation: When a local oscillator is used d) Losses
in signal mixing, phase fluctuations and jitter
adds phase noise to the signal. Answer: a
Explanation: The larger the antenna aperture
5. Antennas are used the larger is the resulting signal power density
a) As transducer in the desired direction. The ratio of effective
b) To focus aperture to physical aperture is the antenna’s
c) As transducer & To focus efficiency.
9. Effective radiated power of an isotropic
Answer: c radiator can be given as a product of
Explanation: Antennas are used as a) Radiated power and received power
transducer that converts electronic signals to b) Effective area and physical area
electromagnetic fields and vice versa. They c) Transmitted power and transmitting gain
are also used to focus the electromagnetic d) Receiving power and receiving gain
energy in the desired direction.
Answer: c
Explanation: An effective radiated power

with respect to an isotropic radiator EIRP can b) Radiation resistance

be defined as the product of transmitted c) Transmission impedance
power and the gain of the transmitting d) Recovery resistance
antenna.
Answer: b
10. According to reciprocity theorem, _____ Explanation: The transmission line is
and _____ are identical. connected at the center. The dipole has an
a) Transmitting power and receiving power impedance of 73 V at its center, which is the
b) Transmitting gain and receiving gain radiation resistance. At the resonant
c) Effective area and physical area frequency, the antenna appears to be a pure
d) None of the mentioned resistance of 73 V.
Answer: b 3. What happens when the radiation

Explanation: The reciprocity theorem states resistance of the antenna matches the
that for a given antenna and carrier characteristic impedance of the transmission
wavelength the transmitting and receiving line?
gain are identical. a) No transmission occurs
b) No reception occurs
c) SWR is maximum
d) SWR is minimum
UNIT II RADIATION Answer: d

Explanation: When the radiation resistance
MECHANISMS AND of the antenna matches the characteristic
DESIGN ASPECTS impedance of the transmission line, the SWR
is minimum and maximum power reaches the
antenna. This allows maximum power to be
TOPIC 2.1 RADIATION transmitted.
MECHANISMS OF LINEAR
WIRE AND LOOP ANTENNAS 4. The type of dipole antenna that has a
higher band width is called as?
a) Conical antenna
1. A dipole antenna is also called as? b) Yagi antenna
a) Marconi antenna c) Helical antenna
b) Yagi antenna d) Marconi antenna
c) Bidirectional antenna
d) Hertz antenna Answer: a
Explanation: A common way to increase
Answer: d bandwidth in the antenna is to use a version
Explanation: One of the most widely used of the dipole antenna known as the conical
antenna types is the half-wave dipole antenna. antenna. The overall length of the antenna is
This antenna is also formally known as the 0.73λ or 0.73(984)/f = 718.32/f. This is
Hertz antenna after Heinrich Hertz, who first longer than the traditional one-half
demonstrated the existence of wavelength of a dipole antenna, but the
electromagnetic waves. physical shape changes the necessary
dimensions for resonance.
2. The impedance at the center of the antenna
is known as?
a) Characteristic impedance

5. The radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole energy is directed or received. Beam width is
has the shape of a ______ measured on an antenna’s radiation pattern.
a) Doughnut
b) Sphere 8. What is the power radiated by the antenna
c) Hemisphere with gain called as?
d) Circular a) Critical power
b) Transverse power
Answer: a c) Effective radiated power
Explanation: The radiation pattern of any d) Transmitted power
antenna is the shape of the electromagnetic
energy radiated from or received by that Answer: c
antenna. Typically that radiation is Explanation: The power radiated by an
concentrated in a pattern that has a antenna with directivity and therefore gain is
recognizable geometric shape. The radiation called the effective radiated power (ERP).
pattern of a half-wave dipole has the shape of The ERP is calculated by multiplying the
a doughnut. transmitter power fed to the antenna Pt by the
power gain Ap of the antenna.
6. What is the beam width for a half wave
dipole antenna? 9. What is the radiation pattern of an isotropic
a) 90° radiator?
b) 180° a) Doughnut
c) 50° b) Sphere
d) 250° c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam width is measured Answer: b
between the points on the radiation curve that Explanation: An isotropic radiator is a
are 3 dB down from the maximum amplitude theoretical point source of electromagnetic
of the curve. The maximum amplitude of the energy. The E and H fields radiate out in all
pattern occurs at 0° and 180°. The 3-dB down directions from the point source, and at any
points are 70.7 percent of the maximum. The given distance from the point source, the
angle formed with two lines extending from fields form a sphere.
the center of the curve to these 3-dB points is
the beam width. The beam width is 90°. The 10. What is the impedance of the folded
smaller the beam width angle, the more dipole antenna?
directional the antenna. a) 50Ω
b) 100Ω
7. What does the beam width of an antenna c) 300Ω
tell us? d) 20Ω
a) Signal strength
b) Signal power Answer: c
c) Directivity Explanation: A popular variation of the half-
d) Degradation wave dipole is the folded dipole. Like the
standard dipole, it is one-half wavelength
Answer: c long. However, it consists of two parallel
Explanation: The measure of an antenna’s conductors connected at the ends with one
directivity is beam width, the angle of the side open at the center for connection to the
radiation pattern over which a transmitter’s transmission line. The impedance of this

popular antenna is 300 V, making it an 2. The antenna in which location of the feed
excellent match for the widely available 300- determines the direction of the lobe are:
V twin lead. a) Wire antenna
b) Loop antenna
11. Which of the following antennas produce c) Helical antenna
a vertical radiation pattern? d) Horn antenna
a) Dipole antenna
b) Yagi antenna Answer: a
c) Marconi antenna Explanation: In a wire antenna, the location
d) Hertz antenna of the feed determines the direction of the
lobe and the orientation of the wire
Answer: c determines the polarization. These wires can
Explanation: The same effect as dipole be thick or thin. Thickness of the wire
antenna can be achieved with a one-quarter determines the radiation resistance of the
wavelength antenna or Marconi antenna. A antenna.
vertical dipole with the doughnut-shaped
radiation pattern, in which one-half of the 3. Based on the size of the loops, loop
pattern is below the surface of the earth. This antennas are classified as small and large
is called a vertical radiation pattern. loops. This is the only classification of loop
antenna.
a) True
TOPIC 2.2 APERTURE b) False
ANTENNAS
Answer: b
Explanation: Loop antennas are classified
TOPIC 2.3 REFLECTOR based on various antenna parameters. To
ANTENNAS name a few, small and large loops, circular
and square loops, loops having single or multi
turns, loops with turns wound using a single
TOPIC 2.4 MICROSTRIP wire or multiple wires.
ANTENNAS AND FREQUENCY
INDEPENDENT ANTENNAS 4. Antenna that does not belong to the horn
antenna family among the following are:
a) Pyramidal horn
1. The members of the antenna family which b) Conical horn
are made of wires of certain value in terms of c) bi-conical horn
operating wavelength are called: d) None of the mentioned
a) Loop antennas
b) Wire antennas Answer: d
c) Dipole antenna Explanation: All of the above mentioned
d) Slot antennas antennas belong to the horn antenna family.
Horn antennas may be made of pointed or
Answer: c rounded waveguides. The waveguides may
Explanation: Wires of half wavelength are contain disc at an end or some dielectric.
termed as dipoles. Their radiation resistance
is about 73 Ω. If only half of this length is 5. Patch antennas are the antennas of small
used, then it is called quarter-wave monopole size and are made of:
with a radiation resistance of 36.5 Ω. a) Strip line

b) Microstrip lines c) Array antennas

c) Coaxial cables d) Slot antennas
d) Rectangular waveguide
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Lens antennas are complex in
Explanation: Patch antennas are microstrip nature but are able to scale wider angles. In
antennas that can be of any shape. Patch comparison to reflectors, their gain is 1 or 2
antennas can be aperture-coupled fed or dB less, but these have more lenient tolerance
proximity fed. For obtaining circular on surfaces. These have less rearward
polarization, a patch may also be doubly fed. reflection, relatively low loss and can be
easily shaped to the desired contours.
6. Reflector antennas are widely used to
modify radiation patterns of radiating 9. Lens antennas are classified into two types.
elements. One being fast antenna, the other one is:
a) True a) Slow antenna
b) False b) Delay antenna
c) Dynamic antenna
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Reflector antennas are used to
modify radiation patterns of radiating Answer: b
elements. Reflector antennas are classified Explanation: In delay lenses, the electrical
into two categories. They are passive path length is increased or the wave is
reflectors and active reflectors. Based on the retarded by the lens medium. Dielectric
type of the radiating element and the lenses and H-plane metal lenses fall in this
modification in the radiation pattern required, category.
accordingly either active or passive reflectors
are chosen. 10. The antennas which offer high operational
bandwidth and the antenna parameters are
7. The pattern of the reflector in a reflector maintained over a wide range of antennas are
antenna is called: called:
a) Primary pattern a) Wide band antennas
b) Secondary pattern b) Array antennas
c) Reflector pattern c) Parabolic antennas
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: In a reflector antenna, the feed Explanation: In this class of antennas,
pattern is called primary pattern and the constancy of impedance and radiation
pattern of the reflector is called secondary characteristics is maintained over a wide
pattern. These antennas are widely employed range of frequencies. To be wide band or
in RADARs and other types of point to point frequency independent, antennas should
communication links. expand or contract in proportion to the
wavelength.
8. ______ antennas have gain less than
reflector antennas but have more lenient 11. High directivity required in RADAR
tolerance on surfaces. communication is satisfied using this type of
a) Helical antennas antennas:
b) Lens antennas a) Wide band antennas

b) Antenna arrays of a square corner antenna is:

c) Slot antennas a) 0.4 m2
d) Patch antennas b) 0.2 m2
Answer: b c) 0.1 m2
Explanation: Higher directivity is the d) None of the mentioned
requirement in point to point communication.
This can be achieved by increasing the size of Answer: a
the antennas in terms of electrical length. Explanation: Given the directivity of the
When much high directivity is required, antenna, effective aperture of the antenna is
antenna arrays are used. given by Dλ2/4π. substituting the given
values of the variables; the effective aperture
12. The terminal impedance of a dipole of the antenna is 0.4 m2.
antenna is 710 Ω. The terminal impedance of
the slot antenna given the intrinsic impedance
of air is 377 Ω is: TOPIC 2.5 DESIGN
a) 100 Ω CONSIDERATIONS AND
b) 50 Ω APPLICATIONS.
c) 25 Ω
1. The basic requirements of transmitting
Answer: b antennas are:
Explanation: The terminal impedance ZS of a) High efficiency
b) Low side lobes
the slot is given by the relation Z02/ 4Zd) Zₒ is c) Large signal to noise ratio
the intrinsic impedance of the medium and d) Lone of the mentioned
ZD is the terminal impedance of the dipole.
Substituting the given values in the above Answer: a
equation, the terminal impedance of sot is 50 Explanation: The basic requirements of a
Ω. transmitting antenna are high gain and
efficiency while requirements of receiving
13. If the length of aperture in a pyramidal antennas are low side lobes and large signal
horn antenna is 10cm and δ for the design is to noise to ratio.
0.25. Then, the flaring angle of the pyramidal
horn is: 2. _________ is a device that converts
a) 30⁰ electrons to photons or vice-versa.
b) 25.4⁰ a) Antenna
c) 45⁰ b) Electron gun
d) 60⁰ c) Photon amplifier
d) Microwave tube
Answer: b
Explanation: The flaring angle of pyramidal Answer: a
horn is given by 2cos-1(L/L+δ). Substituting converts electrons into photons or vice versa.
the values of L and δ, flaring angle is 25.4⁰. A transmitting antenna converts electrons into
photons while a receiving antenna converts
14. If the directivity of a square corner
photons into electrons.
receiving antenna is 20 and operating at a
wavelength of 0.25m, the effective aperture

3. The basic equation of radiation that is c) Beam width

applied to any antenna irrespective of the type d) None of the mentioned
of the antenna is:
a) iL= Qv Answer: a
b) iQ = Lv Explanation: The beam width of an antenna
c) i/L=Q/v measure at half of the maximum power
d) None of the mentioned received by an antenna or the 3 dB beam
width of the antenna is termed as half null
Answer: a beam width.
Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is
given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in 7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =
current, l is the length of the current element, cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
q is the charge v is the acceleration of the power beam width of the antenna is:
charge. a) 330
b) 660
4. When the separation between two lines that
carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave c) 12000
tends to be radiated. d) None of the mentioned
a) True
Answer: b
b) False
Explanation: Half power beam width of the
Answer: a antenna is obtained by equating the field
Explanation: When the separation between pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
two lines that chary the TEM wave point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated so beam width. Solving the given problem in the
that the opened – out line act as an antenna same flow, half power beam width of the
which lunches a free space wave. antenna is 660.
5. The number of patterns radiation pattern 8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ.
required to specify the characteristic are : cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the
a) Three antenna is:
b) Four a) 450
c) Two b) 900
d) Five
c) 1800
Answer: a d) 1200
Explanation: The three patterns required are,
θ component of the electric field as the Answer: b
function of the angles as θ and φ, the φ Explanation: Half power beam width of the
component of the electric field as the function antenna is obtained by equating the field
of the angles θ and φ, the phase of these fields pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
as a functions of the angle φ and θ . point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
beam width. Twice the half power beam
6. The beam width of the antenna pattern width gives the first null beam width. With
measured at half power points is called: the same steps applied, the half power beam
a) Half power beam width width of the antenna is 450. First null beam
b) Full null beam width width is 900.

9. The solid area through which all the power b) Receiving antenna
radiated by the antenna is: c) Radar
a) Beam area d) Mixer
b) Effective area
c) Aperture area Answer: a
d) Beam efficiency Explanation: A transmitting antenna is a
Answer: a wave on a transmission line into a plane wave
Explanation: The beam area is the solid propagating in free space. It appears as an
angle through which all of the power radiated electrical circuit on one side, provides an
by the antenna would stream if P (θ, φ) interface with a propagating plane wave.
area and zero elsewhere. This value is 2. Antennas are bidirectional devices.
approximately equal to the angles subtended a) True
by the half power points of the main lobe in b) False
Answer: a
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit Explanation: Antennas can be used both as
solid angle is called radiation intensity. transmitters and receivers. As transmitters
a) True they radiate energy to free space and as
b) False receivers they receive signal from free space.
Hence, they are called bidirectional devices
Answer: a as they are used at both transmitting end and
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna receiving end.
intensity. Unit of radiation intensity is watts 3. Dipole antennas are an example for:
per steridian or per square degree. a) Wire antennas
b) Aperture antennas
c) Array antennas
UNIT III ANTENNA Answer: a

Explanation: Dipoles, monopoles, oops,
ARRAYS AND Yagi-Uda arrays are all examples for wire
APPLICATIONS antennas. These antennas have low gains, and
are mostly used at lower frequencies.
TOPIC 3.1 TWO-ELEMENT 4. _________ antennas consist of a regular

ARRAY arrangement of antenna elements with a feed
network
a) Aperture antennas
TOPIC 3.2 ARRAY FACTOR b) Array antennas
c) Printed antennas
1. A __________ is a device that converts a d) Wire antennas
transmission line into a plane wave Answer: b
propagating in free space. Explanation: Array antennas consist of a
a) Transmitting antenna regular arrangement of antenna elements with

a) 18 m b) False
b) 13 m
c) 16.4 m Answer: a
Substituting in the above expression, far field
distance is 17.3 m. 9. If the beam width of an antenna in two
orthogonal planes are 300 and 600. Then the
6._________ of an antenna is a plot of the directivity of the antenna is:
magnitude of the far field strength versus a) 24
position around the antenna. b) 18
a) Radiation pattern c) 36
b) Directivity d) 12
c) Beam width
d) None of the mentioned Answer: b
Explanation: Given the beam width of the
Answer: a antenna in 2 planes, the directivity is given by
Explanation: Radiation pattern of an antenna 32400/θ*∅, where θ,∅ are the beam widths in
is a plot of the magnitude of the far field the two orthogonal planes. Substituting in the
strength versus position around the antenna. equation, directivity of the antenna is 18.
This plot gives the detail regarding the region
where most of the energy of antenna is 10. If the power input to an antenna is 100
radiated, side lobes and beam width of an mW and if the radiated power is measured to
antenna. be 90 mW, then the efficiency of the antenna
is:
7. Antennas having a constant pattern in the a) 75 %
azimuthal plane are called _____________ b) 80 %
a) High gain antenna c) 90 %
b) Omni directional antenna d) Insufficient data
c) Unidirectional antenna
d) Low gain antenna Answer: c
Answer: b as the ratio of radiated power to the input
Explanation: Omni directional antennas power to the antenna. Substituting the given
radiate EM waves in all direction. If the

data in the efficiency equation, the efficiency Answer: a

of the antenna is 90%. Explanation: Long distance communication
requires antenna with high directivity. To
increase the directivity antenna arrays are
TOPIC 3.3 PATTERN used. With the antenna arrays, directivity and
MULTIPLICATION gain increases and beam width decreases.
4. Which of the following is false about the

TOPIC 3.4 UNIFORMLY SPACED single antenna for long distance
ARRAYS WITH UNIFORM communication?
a) Enlarging may create side lobes
1. Which of the following is false regarding b) No side lobes
Antenna array? c) High directivity is required
a) Directivity increases d) High Gain is required
b) Directivity decreases
c) Beam width decreases Answer: b
d) Gain increases Explanation: High directive antennas are
required for the long distance
Answer: b communications. The array of antennas is
Explanation: A single antenna provides low used to increase the directivity. The
gain and less directivity. To increase the directivity can be increased by increasing the
directivity antenna arrays are used. With the dimensions of antenna but it creates side
antenna arrays, directivity and gain increases lobes.
and beam width decreases.
5. The electrical size of antenna is increased
2. Electrical size of antenna is increased by by antenna array to avoid size lobes
which of the following? compared to single antenna.
a) Antenna Array a) True
b) Decreasing the coverage area b) False
c) Increasing the coverage area
d) Using a single antenna Answer: a
Explanation: Increasing the dimensions of
Answer: a antennas may lead to the appearance of the
Explanation: To increase the directivity side lobes. So by placing a group of antennas
antenna arrays are used. With the antenna together the electrical size of antenna can be
arrays, directivity and gain increases and increased. With the antenna arrays, directivity
beam width decreases. The electrical size of and gain increases and beam width decreases.
the antenna is increased by placing an array
antenna together to achieve high directivity. 6. A uniform linear array contains
_____________
3. For long distance communication, which of a) N elements placed at equidistance and fed
the property is mainly necessary for the currents of equal magnitude and progressive
antenna? phase shift
a) High directivity b) N elements at non-equidistance and fed
b) Low directivity currents of equal magnitude and progressive
c) Low gain phase shift
d) Broad beam width c) N elements at equidistance and fed currents
of unequal magnitude and progressive phase

shift 9. What is the progressive phase shift of the

d) N elements at equidistance and fed end-fire array?
currents of unequal magnitude and equal a) 0
phase shift b) 90
c) 180
Answer: a d) 60
Explanation: An array is said to be linear if
N elements are spaced equally long the line Answer: c
and is a uniform array if the current is fed Explanation: The progressive phase shift of
with equal magnitude to all elements and the end-fire array is 180°. It is a linear array
progressive phase shift along the line. High whose direction of radiation is along the axis
directivity can be obtained by antenna array. of the array. For a broadside array it is 0°.
7. Total resultant field obtained by the 10. Which of the following statement about
antenna array is given by which of following? antenna array is false?
a) Vector superposition of individual field a) Field pattern is the product of individual
from the element elements in array
b) Maximum field from individual sources in b) Field pattern is the sum of individual
the array elements in array
c) Minimum field from individual sources in c) Resultant field is the vector superposition
the array of the fields from individual elements in array
d) Field from the individual source d) High directivity can be achieved for long
distance communications
Answer: a
Explanation: The total resultant field is Answer: b
obtained by adding all the fields obtained by Explanation: The total resultant field is
the individual sources in the array. An Array obtained by adding all the fields obtained by
containing N elements has the resultant field the individual sources in the array. Radiation
equal to the vector superposition of individual pattern is obtained by multiplying the
field from the elements. individual pattern of the element. Field
pattern is the product of individual elements
8. If the progressive shift in antenna array is in array. Antenna arrays are used to get high
equal to zero then it is called _________ directivity with less side lobes.
a) Broad side
b) End-fire
c) Yagi-uda TOPIC 3.5 AND NON-UNIFORM
d) Fishbone antenna EXCITATION AMPLITUDES
Answer: a
Explanation: The total phase difference of TOPIC 3.6 SMART ANTENNAS.
the fields is given by Ѱ=kdcosθ+β
Here β is the progressive phase shift 1. The basic requirements of transmitting
⇨ β=0, array is a uniform broadside array antennas are:
⇨ β=180, array is a uniform end-fire array a) High efficiency
Yagi-uda antenna, fishbone antenna are end- b) Low side lobes
fire antenna array. c) Large signal to noise ratio
d) Lone of the mentioned

Answer: a 5. The number of patterns radiation pattern

Explanation: The basic requirements of a required to specify the characteristic are :
transmitting antenna are high gain and a) Three
efficiency while requirements of receiving b) Four
antennas are low side lobes and large signal c) Two
to noise to ratio. d) Five
2. _________ is a device that converts Answer: a

electrons to photons or vice-versa. Explanation: The three patterns required are,
a) Antenna θ component of the electric field as the
b) Electron gun function of the angles as θ and φ, the φ
c) Photon amplifier component of the electric field as the function
d) Microwave tube of the angles θ and φ, the phase of these fields
as a functions of the angle φ and θ .
Answer: a
Explanation: Antenna is a device that 6. The beam width of the antenna pattern
converts electrons into photons or vice versa. measured at half power points is called:
A transmitting antenna converts electrons into a) Half power beam width
photons while a receiving antenna converts b) Full null beam width
photons into electrons. c) Beam width
3. The basic equation of radiation that is
applied to any antenna irrespective of the type Answer: a
of the antenna is: Explanation: The beam width of an antenna
a) iL= Qv measure at half of the maximum power
b) iQ = Lv received by an antenna or the 3 dB beam
c) i/L=Q/v width of the antenna is termed as half null
d) None of the mentioned beam width.
Answer: a 7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =

Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in power beam width of the antenna is:
current, l is the length of the current element, a) 330
q is the charge v is the acceleration of the
b) 660
charge.
c) 12000
4. When the separation between two lines that d) None of the mentioned
carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave
tends to be radiated. Answer: b
a) True Explanation: Half power beam width of the
b) False antenna is obtained by equating the field
Answer: a point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
Explanation: When the separation between beam width. Solving the given problem in the
two lines that chary the TEM wave same flow, half power beam width of the
approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated so antenna is 660.
that the opened – out line act as an antenna

8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ.

antenna is:
UNIT IV PASSIVE AND
a) 450
b) 900 ACTIVE MICROWAVE
c) 1800 DEVICES
d) 1200
TOPIC 4.1 MICROWAVE
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the PASSIVE COMPONENTS:
antenna is obtained by equating the field DIRECTIONAL COUPLER,
pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power POWER DIVIDER, MAGIC TEE
point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of ATTENUATOR, RESONATOR
the same steps applied, the half power beam 1. _______________ are used in the final
width of the antenna is 450. First null beam stages of radar and radio transmitters to
increase the radiated power level.
width is 900.
a) Power amplifiers
9. The solid area through which all the power b) Oscillators
radiated by the antenna is: c) Transistors
a) Beam area d) Attenuators
b) Effective area
Answer: a
c) Aperture area
Explanation: Power amplifiers are used in
d) Beam efficiency
the final stages of radar and radio transmitters
Answer: a to increase the radiated power level. Output
Explanation: The beam area is the solid of power amplifiers are in the range of 100-
angle through which all of the power radiated 500 mW.
2. Important factors to be considered for
power amplifier design are:
a) Efficiency
b) Gain
by the half power points of the main lobe in
c) Thermal effect
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit
Answer: d
Explanation: As per the application
a) True
requirement and considering various aspects
b) False
of an amplifier like efficiency, gain, thermal
Answer: a efficiency and inter modulation distortion,
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna amplifiers need to be designed.
3. Amplifier efficiency is the ratio of RF
intensity. Unit of radiation intensity is watts
output power to DC input power. This
per steridian or per square degree.
parameter determines the performance of an
amplifier.

a) True c) 4
b) False d) 6
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Power amplifier is the primary Explanation: Class B amplifier is biased to
consumer of DC power in most hand-held conduct only during one-half of the input
wireless devices, so amplifier efficiency is an signal cycle. 2 complementary transistors are
important consideration. Amplifier efficiency operated in a class B push pull amplifier to
is the ratio of RF output power to DC input provide amplification over the entire cycle.
power.
7. Power amplifiers in the increasing order of
4. Gain of power amplifiers __________ with efficiency is:
increase in operating frequency. a) Class A, B, C
a) Increases b) Class C, A, B
b) Decreases c) Class B, A, C
c) Increases exponentially d) Efficiency of all the 3 amplifiers is the
d) Decreases exponentially same
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Silicon bipolar junction Explanation: Class A amplifiers have an
transistor amplifiers in the cellular telephone efficiency of about 50%. Class B amplifiers
band of 800-900 MHz band have power have an efficiency of about 78%, class C
added efficiencies of about 80%. But this amplifiers can achieve efficiencies up to
efficiency drops quickly with increase in the 100%. In the increasing order of efficiency, C
operating frequency. > B> a)
5. ___________ amplifiers are linear circuits, 8. Behavior of a transistor in power amplifiers

where the transistor is biased to conduct over is unpredictable at all input signal levels.
the entire range of the input signal cycle. a) True
a) Class A amplifiers b) False
b) Class B amplifiers
c) Class C amplifiers Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: A transistor behaves linearly
for signal powers below 1dB compression
Answer: a point and so, the small –signal scattering
Explanation: Class A amplifiers are linear parameters should not depend either on the
circuits, where the transistor is biased to input power level or the output termination
conduct over the entire range of the input impedance.
signal cycle. Because of this, class A
amplifiers theoretically have a maximum 9. If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V,
efficiency of 50%. and the input power supplied to the amplifier
is 0.229 V given that the DC voltage used is
6. A class B amplifier consists of _______ 38.5 V, efficiency of the power amplifier is:
transistors in order to conduct the input signal a) 25%
over the entire cycle. b) 50%
a) 1 c) 75%
b) 2 d) 35%

Answer: a c) it has low conduction band electrons

Explanation: Efficiency of a power amplifier d) less forbidden energy gap
is (Pout- Pin)/ PDc Substituting the given
values in the above expression, efficiency of Answer: d
the power amplifier is 25%. Explanation: In GaAs, the conduction band
lies directly above the top of the valence
10. If a power amplifier has an output power band. The lowest energy conduction band in
of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB, GaAs is called as primary valley. GaAs
then the input drive power is: consists of six secondary valleys. The bottom
a) 400 mW of one of the secondary valley is at an energy
b) 225 mW difference of 0.35 eV with the bottom of the
c) 229 mW primary valley in conduction band.
d) 240 mW
3. In a GaAs n-type specimen, the current
Answer: c generated is constant irrespective of the
Explanation: Input drive power required to electric filed applied to the specimen.
get an output of 10 W is Pout (dBm)- G (dB). a) true
G is the gain of the amplifier. Substituting the b) false
given values in the above equation, 229 mW.
Answer: b
Explanation: In a GaAs n-type specimen,
TOPIC 4.2 PRINCIPLES OF when the electric field applied reaches a
MICROWAVE threshold value of Eth, the current in the
SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES: specimen becomes suddenly oscillatory and
GUNN DIODES with respect to time and these oscillations are
in the microwave frequency range. This effect
1. Silicon and germanium are called is called Gunn Effect.
___________ semiconductors.
4. When the electric field applied to GaAs
a) direct gap
specimen is less than the threshold electric
b) indirect gap
field, the current in the material:
c) band gap
a) increases linearly
d) indirect band gap
b) decreases linearly
Answer: b c) increases exponentially
Explanation: The forbidden energy gap for d) decreases exponentially
silicon and germanium are respectively 1.21
Answer: a
eV in Si and 0.79 eV in germanium. Silicon
Explanation: When the electric field applied
and germanium are called indirect gap
is less than the threshold value of electric
semiconductors because the bottom of the
field, the electrons jump from the valence
conduction band does not lie directly above
band to the primary valley of the conduction
the top of the valence band.
band and current increases linearly with
2. GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN electric field.
diodes because:
5. When the applied electric field exceeds the
a) GaAs is cost effective
threshold value, electrons absorb more energy
b) It less temperature sensitive
from the field and become:
a) hot electrons

b) cold electrons b) positive resistance

c) emission electrons c) negative voltage
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: When the applied electric field Explanation: When either a voltage or
exceeds the threshold value, electrons absorb current is applied to the terminals of a sample
more energy from the field and become hot of bulk solid state compound formed by
electrons. These electrons jump into the group 5 and 3 elements of periodic table, a
lowest secondary valley in the conduction differential resistance is developed in the bulk
band. When the electrons become hot, their device. This fundamental concept is called
mobility reduces. RWH theory.
6. GaAs is used in fabricating Gunn diode. 9. The number of modes of operation for n
Gunn diode is: type GaAs is:
a) bulk device a) two
b) sliced device b) three
c) made of different type of semiconductor c) four
layers d) five
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: n-type GaAs used for
Explanation: A GUNN diode is a bulk fabricating Gunn diode has four modes of
device, that is, it does not contain any operation. They are Gunn oscillation mode,
junction but it is a slice of n-type GaAs. P- limited space charge accumulation mode, and
type GaAs does not exhibit Gunn Effect. stable amplification mode bias circuit
Hence it is a reversible and can be operated in oscillation mode.
both directions.
10. The free electron concentration in N-type
7. The electrodes of a Gunn diode are made GaAs is controlled by:
of: a) effective doping
a) molybdenum b) bias voltage
b) GaAs c) drive current
c) gold d) none of the mentioned
d) copper
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The free electron concentration
Explanation: Gunn diode is grown in n-type GaAs is controlled through effective
epitaxially onto a gold or copper plated doping so that they range from 1014 to 1017
molybdenum electrode, out of gallium per cc at room temperature. The typical
arsenide doped with silicon, tellurium or specimen of n-type GaAs has the dimensions
selenium to make it n-type. 150 µm by 150 µm.
8. When either a voltage or current is applied 11. The modes of operation of a Gunn diode
to the terminals of bulk solid state compound are illustrated in a plot of voltage applied to
GaAs, a differential ______ is developed in the Gunn diode v/s frequency of operation of
that bulk device. Gunn diode.
a) negative resistance

a) true Answer: a
b) false Explanation: The Gunn diode is mounted at
the centre of the broad wall of a shorted
Answer: b waveguide since for the dominant TE10
Explanation: A graph of plot of product of mode; the electric field is maximum at the
frequency and the length of the device plotted centre.
along y-axis versus the product of doping
concentration and length along X- axis. These 15. In a Gunn diode oscillator, the electron
are the parameters on which the four modes drift velocity was found to be 107 cm/second
of operation of Gunn diode are explained. and the effective length is 20 microns, then
the intrinsic frequency is:
12. The mode of operation in which the Gunn a) 5 GHz
diode is not stable is: b) 6 GHz
a) Gunn oscillation mode c) 4 GHz
b) limited space charge accumulation mode d) 2 GHz
c) stable amplification mode
d) bias circuit oscillation mode Answer: a
Explanation: The intrinsic frequency for a
Answer: a Gunn oscillator is given by Vd/L. Here VD is
Explanation: In Gunn oscillation mode, the the drift velocity and L is the effective length.
device is unstable due to the formation of Substituting the given values in the above
accumulation layer and field domain. This equation, intrinsic frequency is 5 GHz.
high field domain moves from cathode to
anode.
TOPIC 4.3 IMPATT DIODES,
13. The frequency of oscillation in Gunn SCHOTTKY BARRIER DIODES,
diode is given by: PIN DIODES
a) vdom/ Leff
b) Leff/ Vdom
1. The material used to fabricate IMPATT
c) Leff/ WVdom diodes is GaAs since they have the highest
d) none of the mentioned efficiency in all aspects.
a) true
Answer: a b) false
Explanation: In Gunn oscillation mode, the
frequency of oscillation is given by vdom/ Answer: b
Leff, where vdom is the domain velocity, Leff Explanation: IMPATT diodes can be
is effective length that the domain moves fabricated using silicon, germanium, GaAs or
from the time it is formed until the time a new indium phosphide. Out of these materials,
domain is formed. GaAs have highest efficiency, low noise and
high operating frequencies. But GaAs has a
14. In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode major disadvantage of complex fabrication
is inserted into a waveguide cavity formed by process and higher cost. So, GaAs are not
a short circuit termination at one end preferred over silicon and germanium.
a) true
b) false 2. When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the
breakdown voltage is applied to an IMPATT
diode, it results in:

a) avalanche multiplication a) Vd/2l

b) break down of depletion region b) Vd/l
c) high reverse saturation current
c) Vd/2πl
d) Vdd/4πl
Answer: a
Explanation: A reverse bias voltage Answer: a
exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied Explanation: The resonant frequency of an
to an IMPATT diode, a high electric field IMPATT diode is given by the expression
appears across the n+ p junction. This high Vd/2l. Here VD is the carrier drift velocity; L
field imparts sufficient energy to the holes is the length of the intrinsic region in the
and also to valence electrons to raise IMPATT diode.
themselves to the conduction band. This
results in avalanche multiplication of electron 6. If the length of the intrinsic region in
hole pair. IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift
velocity are 107 cm/s, then the drift time of
3. To prevent an IMPATT diode from the carrier is:
burning, a constant bias source is used to
a) 10-11 seconds
maintain _______ at safe limit.
a) average current b) 2×10-11 seconds
b) average voltage c) 2.5×10-11 seconds
c) average bias voltage d) none of the mentioned
d) average resistance
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The drift time of the carrier is
Explanation: Avalanche multiplication is a defined as the ratio of length of the intrinsic
cumulative process resulting in rapid increase region to the carrier drift velocity.
of carrier density. To prevent the diode from Substituting the given values in this relation,
burning due to this increased carrier density, a the drift time of the carrier is 2×10-11
constant bias source is used to maintain seconds.
average current at safe limit.
7. If the length of the intrinsic region in
4. The number of semiconductor layers in IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift
IMPATT diode is: velocity are 107 cm/s, then the nominal
a) two frequency of the diode is:
b) three a) 12 GHz
c) four b) 25 GHz
d) none of the mentioned c) 30 GHz
d) 24 GHz
Answer: c
Explanation: IMPATT diode consists of 4 Answer: b
layers according to the construction. It Explanation: Nominal frequency is defined
consists of a p+ region and n+ layers at the as the ratio of the carrier drift velocity to
two ends. In between these layers, a p type twice the length of the intrinsic region.
layer and an intrinsic region is sandwiched. Substituting the given values in the above
equation, the nominal frequency is 25 GHz.
5. The resonant frequency of an IMPATT
diode is given by:

8. IMPATT diodes employ impact ionization 11. If the critical field in a Gunn diode
technique which is a noisy mechanism of oscillator is 3.2 KV/cm and effective length is
generating charge carriers. 20 microns, then the critical voltage is:
a) true a) 3.2 V
b) false b) 6.4 V
M
c) 2.4 V
Answer: a d) 6.5 V
Explanation: IMPATT devices employ
O
impact ionization techniques which is too Answer: b
noisy. Hence in order to achieve low noise Explanation: Critical voltage of a Gunn
C
figure, impact ionization is avoided in diode oscillator is given by the expression lEc
BARITT diodes. The minority injection is where l is the effective length and Ec is the
T.
provided by punch through of the
critical field. Substituting the given values in
intermediate region.
the above equation, critical voltage is 6.4
9. An essential requirement for the BARITT volts.
O
diode is that the intermediate drift region be
completely filled to cause the punch through TOPIC 4.4 MICROWAVE TUBES:
SP
to occur. KLYSTRON, TWT
a) true
b) false
MAGNETRON.
G
Answer: b 1. The production of power at higher
Explanation: An essential requirement for frequencies is much simpler than production
the BARITT diode is that the intermediate of power at low frequencies.
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drift region be completely filled to cause the a) True

punch through to the emitter-base junction b) False
without causing avalanche breakdown of the
base collector junction. Answer: b
.B
Explanation: As frequency increases to the

10. If the RMS peak current in an IMPATT millimeter and sub millimeter ranges, it
diode is 700 mA and if DC input power is 6 becomes increasingly more difficult to
watt, with the load resistance being equal to produce even moderate power with solid state
17
2.5 Ω, the efficiency of the diode is: devices, so microwave tubes become more
a) 10.1 % useful at these higher frequencies.
b) 10.21 %
c) 12 % 2. Microwave tubes are power sources
-R
d) 15.2 % themselves at higher frequencies and can be

used independently without any other
Answer: b devices.
a) True
SE
Explanation: Efficiency of IMPATT diode is

defined as the ratio of output RMS power to b) False
the input DC power. Calculating the RMS
output power from the given RMS current Answer: b
and substituting in the equation of efficiency, Explanation: Microwave tubes are not
C
the efficiency is 10.21%. actually sources by themselves, but are high

power amplifiers. These tubes are in
conjunction with low power sources and this

combination is referred to as microwave 6. ________ is a single cavity klystron tube

power module. that operates as on oscillator by using a
reflector electrode after the cavity.
3. Microwave tubes are grouped into two a) Backward wave oscillator
categories depending on the type of: b) Reflex klystron
a) Electron beam field interaction c) Travelling wave tube
b) Amplification method d) Magnetrons
c) Power gain achieved
d) Construction methods Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Reflex klystron is a single
cavity klystron tube that operates as on
Answer: a oscillator by using a reflector electrode after
Explanation: Microwave tubes are grouped the cavity to provide positive feedback via the
into two categories depending on the type of electron beam. It can be tuned by
electron beam field interaction. They are mechanically adjusting the cavity size.
linear or ‘O’ beam and crossed field or the m
type tube. Microwave tubes can also be 7. A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier
classified as oscillators and amplifiers. is:
a) Low power gain
4. The klystron tube used in a klystron b) Low bandwidth
amplifier is a _________ type beam c) High source power
amplifier. d) Design complexity
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed field Answer: b
c) Parallel field Explanation: Klystron amplifier offers a very
d) None of the mentioned narrow operating bandwidth. This is
overcome in travelling wave tube (TWT).
Answer: a TWT is a linear beam amplifier that uses an
Explanation: In klystron amplifier, the electron gun and a focusing magnet to
electron beam passes through two or more accelerate beam of electrons through an
resonant cavities. The first cavity accepts an interaction region.
RF input and modulates the electron beam by
bunching it into high density and low density 8. In a _________ oscillator, the RF wave
regions. travels along the helix from the collector
towards the electron gun.
5. In crossed field tubes, the electron beam a) Interaction oscillator
traverses the length of the tube and is parallel b) Backward wave oscillator
to the electric field. c) Magnetrons
a) True d) None o the mentioned
b) False
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: In a backward wave oscillator,
Explanation: In a crossed field or ‘m’ type the RF wave travels along the helix from the
tubes, the focusing field is perpendicular to collector towards the electron gun. Thus the
the accelerating electric field. Since the signal for oscillation is provided by the
focusing field and accelerating fields are bunched electron beam itself and oscillation
perpendicular to each other, they are called occurs.
crossed field tubes.

9. Extended interaction oscillator is a c) Helix BWO

________ beam oscillator that is similar to d) None of the mentioned
klystron.
a) Linear beam Answer: b
b) Crossed beam Explanation: Gyratron is a microwave device
c) Parallel beam in which the frequency of operation is
d) M beam determined by the biasing field strength and
the electron velocity, as opposed to the
Answer: a dimensions of the tube itself. This makes the
Explanation: Extended interaction oscillator gyrator especially useful for microwave
is a linear beam oscillator that uses an frequencies.
interaction region consisting of several
cavities coupled together, with positive
feedback to support oscillation.
10. Magnetrons are microwave devices that UNIT V MICROWAVE

offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.
a) True DESIGN PRINCIPLES
b) False
TOPIC 5.1 IMPEDANCE
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetrons are capable of very
TRANSFORMATION
high power outputs, on the order of several
kilowatts, and with efficiencies of 80% or TOPIC 5.2 IMPEDANCE
more. But disadvantage of magnetron is that
they are very noisy and cannot maintain MATCHING
frequency or phase coherence when operated
in pulse mode. 1. Slotted line is a transmission line
configuration that allows the sampling of:
11. Klystron amplifiers have high noise a) electric field amplitude of a standing wave
output as compared to crossed field on a terminated line
amplifiers. b) magnetic field amplitude of a standing
a) True wave on a terminated line
b) False c) voltage used for excitation
d) current that is generated by the source
Answer: b
Explanation: Crossed filed amplifiers have Answer: a
very good efficiencies – up to 80%, but the Explanation: Slotted line allows the
gain is limited to 10-15 db) In addition, the sampling of the electric field amplitude of a
CFA has a noisier output than either a standing wave on a terminated line. With this
klystron amplifier or TWT. Its bandwidth can device, SWR and the distance of the first
be up to 40%. voltage minimum from the load can be
measured, from this data, load impedance can
12. ____________ is a microwave device in be found.
which the frequency of operation is
determined by the biasing field strength. 2. A slotted line can be used to measure
a) VTM _____ and the distance of _____________
b) Gyratron from the load.

a) SWR, first voltage minimum c) 0.4

b) SWR, first voltage maximum d) 0.6
c) characteristic impedance, first voltage
minimum Answer: b
d) characteristic impedance, first voltage Explanation: SWR= (1+┌)/ (1-┌). Where ┌
maximum is the reflection co-efficient. Substituting for
the reflection co-efficient in the equation,
Answer: a SWR is 2.3333.
Explanation: With a slotted line, SWR and
the distance of the first voltage minimum 6. Expression for ϴ means phase angle of the
from the load can be measured, from this reflection co efficient r=|r|-e^jθ, the phase of
data, load impedance can be found. the reflection co-efficient is:
a) θ=2π+2βLmin
3. A modern device that replaces a slotted b) θ=π+2βLmin
line is:
c) θ=π/2+2βLmin
a) Digital CRO
b) generators d) θ=π+βLmin
c) network analyzers
d) computers Answer: b
Explanation: here, θ is the phase of the
Answer: c reflection co-efficient. Lmin is the distance
Explanation: Although slotted lines used to from the load to the first minimum. Since
be the principal way of measuring unknown voltage minima repeat every λ/2, any multiple
impedance at microwave frequencies, they of λ/2 can be added to Lmin .
network analyzer in terms of accuracy, 7. In the expression for phase of the reflection
versatility and convenience. coefficient, Lmin stands for :
a) distance between load and first voltage
4. If the standing wave ratio for a
minimum
transmission line is 1.4, then the reflection
b) distance between load and first voltage
coefficient for the line is:
maximum
a) 0.16667
c) distance between consecutive minimas
b) 1.6667
d) distance between a minima and immediate
c) 0.01667
maxima
d) 0.96
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1). Explanation: Lmin is defined as the distance
Substituting for SWR in the above equation between the terminating load of a
for reflection co-efficient, given SWR is 1.4, transmission line and the first voltage
reflection co-efficient is 0.16667. minimum that occurs in the transmission line
due to reflection of waves from the load end
5. If the reflection coefficient of a due to mismatched termination.
transmission line is 0.4, then the standing
wave ratio is: 8. If SWR=1.5 with a wavelength of 4 cm and
a) 1.3333 the distance between load and first minima is
b) 2.3333 1.48cm, then the reflection coefficient is:
a) 0.0126+j0.1996

b) 0.0128
TOPIC 5.3 MICROWAVE FILTER
c) 0.26+j0.16
d) none of the mentioned DESIGN
Answer: a 1. High gain is not achievable at microwave
M
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1). frequencies using BJT amplifiers because:
Substituting for SWR in the above equation a) device construction
O
b) complex architecture
reflection co-efficient is 0.2. To find θ, c) ports are not matched at high frequencies
θ=π+2βLmin, substituting Lmin as 1.48cm, d) none of the mentioned
C
θ=86.4⁰. Hence converting the polar form of
the reflection co-efficient into rectangular co- Answer: c
T.
ordinates, reflection co-efficient is Explanation: At higher frequencies, if higher
0.0126+j0.1996. bandwidth is desired, a compromise on
maximum achievable gain is made. But at
9. If the characteristic impedance of a these higher frequencies, the ports of the
O
transmission line 50 Ω and reflection amplifier are not matched to 50 Ω.
coefficient is 0.0126+j0.1996, then load
SP
impedance is: 2. To flatten the gain response of a transistor:
a) 47.3+j19.7Ω a) biasing current has to be increased
b) 4.7+j1.97Ω b) input signal level has to increased
c) 0.26+j0.16 c) increase the operational bandwidth
G
d) data insufficient d) give negative feedback to the amplifier
Answer: a Answer: d
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Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌). Explanation: Negative feedback can be used

Substituting the given values of reflection co- to increase the gain response of the transistor,
efficient and characteristic impedance, ZL is improve the input and output match, and
increase the stability of the device.
47.3+j19.7Ω .
.B
3. In conventional amplifiers, a flat gain

10. If the normalized load impedance of a response is achieved at the cost of reduced
transmission line is 2, then the reflection co- gain. But this drawback can be overcome by
17
efficient is: using:

a) 0.33334 a) balanced amplifiers
b) 1.33334 b) distributed amplifiers
c) 0 c) differential amplifiers
-R
d) 1 d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌), this is the
SE
Explanation: In conventional amplifiers, a

expression for load impedance. Normalized flat gain response is achieved at the cost of
load impedance is the ratio of load impedance reduced gain. But this drawback can be
to the characteristic impedance, taking overcome by using balanced amplifiers. This
ZLL/Z0 as 2, the reflection co-efficient is is overcome by using two 900 couplers to
C
equal to 0.33334. cancel input and output reflections from two

identical amplifiers.

4. Bandwidth of balanced amplifier can be an Answer: b

octave or more, but is limited by the Explanation: In distributed amplifiers,
bandwidth of the coupler. cascade of N identical FETs have their gates
a) true connected to a transmission line having a
b) false characteristic impedance of Zg with a spacing
of lg while the drains are connected to a
Answer: a
transmission line of characteristic impedance
Explanation: In order to achieve flat gain
Zd, with a spacing ld.
response, balanced amplifiers use couplers to
minimize reflections. But this in turn reduces
the bandwidth of the amplifier to the coupler 8. ____________ uses balanced input and
bandwidth. output, meaning that there are 2 signal lines,
with opposite polarity at each port.
5. Coupler that is mostly used in balanced a) differential amplifier
amplifiers to achieve the required b) distributed amplifier
performance is: c) balanced amplifier
a) branch line coupler d) none of the mentioned
b) wilkinson coupler
c) lange coupler Answer: a
d) waveguide coupler Explanation: Differential amplifier uses
balanced input and outputs, meaning that
Answer: c there are 2 signal lines, with opposite polarity
Explanation: Lange couplers are broadband at each port. It has two input ports and one
couplers and are compact in size. Since the output port. The difference of the 2 input
bandwidth of a balanced amplifiers depends signals is amplified.
on the bandwidth of the coupler used. Lange
coupler is thus preferred over couplers. 9. A major advantage of differential
amplifiers is:
6. Distributed amplifiers offer very high a) high gain
_________ b) low input impedance
a) gain c) higher output voltage swing
b) bandwidth d) none of the mentioned
c) attenuation
d) none of the mentioned Answer: c
Explanation: Differential amplifiers can
Answer: b provide higher voltage swings that are
Explanation: Distributed amplifiers offer approximately double that obtained with
very high bandwidth of about 10 decade. But single ended amplifier.
higher gain cannot be achieved using
distributed amplifiers and matching at the 10. Along with a differential amplifier, 1800
ports is very important to achieve higher hybrid is used both at the input and output.
bandwidth. a) true
b) false
7. In distributed amplifiers, all the FET stages
in the amplifier are connected in series to one Answer: a
another. Explanation: A differential amplifier can be
a) true constructed using two single-ended amplifiers
b) false

and 1800 hybrids at the input and output to =0 occurs, it is possible to achieve non zero
split and then recombine the signals. output voltage for zero input voltage, thus
forming an oscillator. This is called
Barkhausen criteria.
TOPIC 5.4 RF AND
MICROWAVE AMPLIFIER 4. The necessary condition for oscillation in a
DESIGN Colpitts oscillator is:
a) C2/C1=gm/Gi
1. _________ is a non linear circuit that b) C1/C2=gm/Gi
converts DC power to an AC waveform of c) C2/C1= gm*Gi
desired frequency based on the oscillator d) None of the mentioned
design.
a) Attenuator Answer: a
b) Amplifier Explanation: The condition for sustained
c) Oscillator oscillation in a Colpitts oscillator is C2/C1 =
d) None of the mentioned gm/Gi. Here C1 and C2 are the capacitance in
the feedback network, gm is the
Answer: c
Explanation: Oscillator is a non linear circuit transconductance of the transistor and Gi is
that converts DC power to an AC waveform. the input admittance.
Most RC oscillators provide sinusoidal
outputs, which minimizes undesired 5. Colpitts oscillator operating at 50 MHz has
harmonics and noise sidebands. an inductor in the feedback section of value
0.10µH. then the values of the capacitors in
2. The transfer function of an RF oscillator is the feedback section is:
given by: a) 100 pF, 100 pF
a) A/ (1-AH (ω)) b) 100 pF, 50 pF
b) A/ (1+AH (ω)) c) 70 pF, 130 pF
c) A/ (-1+AH (ω)) d) 80 pF, 60 pF
d) 1/ (1-AH (ω))
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The equivalent value of series
Explanation: Transfer function of an RF combination of the capacitors is given by 1/
oscillator is given by A/ (1-AH (ω)). Here, A ω2L. This gives the equivalent capacitance
is the gain of the transistor multiplier used. value of 200 pF. C1C2/ (C1+C2) =200 pF. C1
H(ω) is the function representing the and C2 values can be chosen in several ways.
feedback network. In an oscillator, positive
feedback is used. One of the way is C1=C2=100 pF.
3. The criterion on which oscillations are 6. The necessary condition for oscillation in a
produced in the oscillator circuit is called: Hartley oscillator is:
a) Shannon’s criteria a) L1/L2 = gm/Gi
b) Barkhausen criteria b) L1/L2 =Gi /gm
c) Colpitts criteria c) L2L/L1 = gm/Gi
Answer: b
Explanation: When the condition 1-AH (ω)

Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Necessary condition for Explanation: Resonant frequency of Colpitts
oscillation in a Hartley oscillator is L1/L2 = oscillator is given by 1/2π√LCₒ, where C0 is
gm/Gi. Here, L1 and L2 are the inductances in the equivalent capacitance given by C1C2/
M
the feedback network and gm is the (C1+C2). Substituting and solving the
transconductance of the transistor and Gi is equation, resonant frequency is 45.9 kHz.
the input admittance.
O
10. For Colpitts oscillator, the capacitors C1
7. An inductor is operating at frequency of 50 and C2 in the feedback network are 1 µF and
C
MHz. Its inductance is 0.1 µH, and then the 25 µF respectively. Then the β value of the
series resistance associated with the inductor transistor is:
T.
is: (Qo=100) a) 35
a) 0.31 Ω b) 000.76
b) 1.32 Ω c) 25
c) 1 Ω d) 0.0025
O
d) 1.561 Ω
Answer: c
SP
Answer: a Explanation: β for a transistor is defined as
Explanation: Series resistance associated the ratio of transconductance of the transistor
with an inductor is given by ωL/Qₒ. to the input admittance, which is equal to the
Substituting in this equation, the series of an ratio of C2/C1. Substituting the given values,
G
inductor is given by 0.31.
β of the transistor is 25.
8. Hartley oscillator has inductance values of
LO
12 mH and 4 mH in the feedback section and TOPIC 5.5 MICROWAVE

a capacitor of 4 nF. Then the resonant POWER AMPLIFIER DESIGN
frequency of the circuit is:
a) 19.89 kHz
1. _______________ are used in the final
.B
b) 25 kHz
c) 45 kHz stages of radar and radio transmitters to
d) 12 kHz increase the radiated power level.
a) Power amplifiers
17
Answer: a b) Oscillators
Explanation: Resonant frequency of Hartley c) Transistors
oscillator is given by 1/ 2π√(C1 (L1 + L2)). d) Attenuators
Substituting the given values in the above
-R
Answer: a
equation, cut-off frequency is 19.89 kHz. Explanation: Power amplifiers are used in
9. Colpitts oscillator in the feedback section
to increase the radiated power level. Output
SE
has an inductance of 4 mH and capacitors of

of power amplifiers are in the range of 100-
12 nH and 4 nH. Then the resonant frequency
500 mW.
of Colpitts oscillator is:
a) 50.4 kHz 2. Important factors to be considered for
b) 35.1 kHz
C

c) 45.9 kHz a) Efficiency
d) None of the mentioned b) Gain

c) Thermal effect Answer: a

d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Class A amplifiers are linear
circuits, where the transistor is biased to
Answer: d conduct over the entire range of the input
Explanation: As per the application signal cycle. Because of this, class A
requirement and considering various aspects amplifiers theoretically have a maximum
of an amplifier like efficiency, gain, thermal efficiency of 50%.
efficiency and inter modulation distortion,
amplifiers need to be designed. 6. A class B amplifier consists of _______
transistors in order to conduct the input signal
3. Amplifier efficiency is the ratio of RF over the entire cycle.
output power to DC input power. This a) 1
parameter determines the performance of an b) 2
amplifier. c) 4
a) True d) 6
b) False
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Class B amplifier is biased to
Explanation: Power amplifier is the primary conduct only during one-half of the input
consumer of DC power in most hand-held signal cycle. 2 complementary transistors are
wireless devices, so amplifier efficiency is an operated in a class B push pull amplifier to
important consideration. Amplifier efficiency provide amplification over the entire cycle.
is the ratio of RF output power to DC input
power. 7. Power amplifiers in the increasing order of
efficiency is:
4. Gain of power amplifiers __________ with a) Class A, B, C
increase in operating frequency. b) Class C, A, B
a) Increases c) Class B, A, C
b) Decreases d) Efficiency of all the 3 amplifiers is the
c) Increases exponentially same
d) Decreases exponentially
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Class A amplifiers have an
Explanation: Silicon bipolar junction efficiency of about 50%. Class B amplifiers
transistor amplifiers in the cellular telephone have an efficiency of about 78%, class C
band of 800-900 MHz band have power amplifiers can achieve efficiencies up to
added efficiencies of about 80%. But this 100%. In the increasing order of efficiency, C
efficiency drops quickly with increase in the > B> a)
operating frequency.
8. Behavior of a transistor in power amplifiers
5. ___________ amplifiers are linear circuits, is unpredictable at all input signal levels.
where the transistor is biased to conduct over a) True
the entire range of the input signal cycle. b) False
a) Class A amplifiers
b) Class B amplifiers Answer: b
c) Class C amplifiers Explanation: A transistor behaves linearly
d) None of the mentioned for signal powers below 1dB compression
point and so, the small –signal scattering

parameters should not depend either on the power, and so is dependent on the signal
input power level or the output termination power. When noise and a desired signal are
impedance. applied to the input of a noise less network,
both noise and signal will be attenuated or
9. If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V, amplified by the same factor, so that the
and the input power supplied to the amplifier signal to noise ratio will be unchanged.
38.5 V, efficiency of the power amplifier is: 2. __________ is defined as the ratio of input
a) 25% signal to noise ratio to the output signal to
b) 50% noise ratio.
c) 75% a) Noise figure
d) 35% b) Noise temperature
c) SNRo
Explanation: Efficiency of a power amplifier
is (Pout- Pin)/ PDc Substituting the given Answer: a
values in the above expression, efficiency of Explanation: Noise figure is defined as the
the power amplifier is 25%. ratio of input signal to noise ratio to the
output signal to noise ratio of a system or a
10. If a power amplifier has an output power receiver. SNRi is the signal to noise ratio
of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB, measured at the input terminals of the device.
then the input drive power is: SNR0 is the output signal to noise ratio
a) 400 mW
measured at the output terminals of the
b) 225 mW
device.
c) 229 mW
d) 240 mW
3. The equivalent noise temperature of a
network given the noise figure of the network
Answer: c
or system is:
Explanation: Input drive power required to
a) T0(F-1)
get an output of 10 W is Pout (dBm)- G (dB).
G is the gain of the amplifier. Substituting the b) T0(F+1)
given values in the above equation, 229 mW. c) T0(F)
d) T0/F
TOPIC 5.6 LOW NOISE
AMPLIFIER DESIGN Answer: a
Explanation: The equivalent noise
temperature of a network given the noise
1. ___________ is defined as the ratio of figure of the network or system is given by
desired signal power to undesired noise T0(F-1). In this expression, F is the noise
power.
figure of the system. T0 has the value 290 K.
a) Signal to noise ratio
b) Noise to signal ratio T0 is the standard temperature considered.
c) Noise figure
d) Noise temperature 4. Noise figure can be defined for any
microwave network irrespective of any other
Answer: a constraints.
Explanation: SNR is defined as the ratio of a) True
desired signal power to undesired noise b) False

Answer: b b) 7.6 dB
Explanation: Noise figure is defined only for c) 5.6 dB
a matched input source and for a noise source d) 8.9 dB
equivalent to a matched load at a temperature
T0= 290 K. noise figure and noise Answer: a
temperature are interchangeable noise Explanation: Noise figure of a two stage
properties. cascade network is given by F1+ (F2-1)/G1.
Here F1, F2 are the noise figure of the first
5. Expression for noise of a two port network and the second stage respectively. G1 is the
considering the noise due to transmission line
gain of the first stage. Substituting the given
and other lossy components is:
values in the above equation, noise figure of
a) GkTB + GNadded
the cascade is 8.6 dB.
b) GkTB
c) GNadded 8. Noise equivalent temperature of a 2 stage
d) None of the mentioned cascade network is given by:
a) Te1 + Te2/ G1
Answer: a b) Te1 + Te1
Explanation: Expression for noise of a two
c) Te1 / Te1
port network considering the noise due to
transmission line and other lossy components d) None of the mentioned
is GkTB + GNadded. Here, G is the gain of the
Answer: a
system. Nadded is the noise generated by the Explanation: Noise equivalent temperature
transmission line, as if it appeared at the input of a 2 stage cascade network is given by Te1
terminals of the line. + Te1/ G1. Here, Te1 is the noise equivalent
6. Noise equivalent temperature of a temperature of stage 1 and Te1 is the noise
transmission line that adds noise to the noise equivalent temperature of stage 2. G1 is the
of a device is: gain of the first stage of the amplifier.
a) T (L-1)
b) T (L+1) 9. When a network is matched to its external
c) T (L) circuitry, the gain of the two port network is
d) T/L given by:
a) │S21│2
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise equivalent temperature b) │S22│2
of a transmission line that adds noise to the c) │S12│2
noise of a device is given by T (L-1). Here L
is the loss factor of the line and T is the d) │S11│2
temperature at which the system is thermal
equilibrium. Answer: a
Explanation: The gain of a two port network
7. If the noise figures of the first stage of a is given by the product of SS21 of the
two stage cascade network is 8 dB and the network and reflection co-efficient at the
noise figure of the second stage is 7 dB and source end. But when the two port network is
the gain of the first stage is 10, then the noise matched to the external circuitry, reflection
figure of the cascade is:
a) 8. 6 dB

coefficient becomes zero and gain reduces to mismatched amplifier is given by 1+ (F-1)/ (1
│S21│2. -│Г│2). Here F is the noise figure of the
amplifier, when there is an impedance
10. For a Wilkinson power divider of mismatch at the input of the amplifier; this
insertion loss L and the coupler is matched to impedance mismatch is given by Г.
the external circuitry, and then the gain of the
coupler in terms of insertion loss is: TOPIC 5.7 MICROWAVE MIXER
a) 2L
b) 1/2L DESIGN
c) L
d) 1/L 1. One condition to be satisfied in an
oscillator circuit so that stable oscillations are
Answer: b produced is:
Explanation: To evaluate the noise figure of a) positive feedback is to be achieved
the coupler, third port is terminated with b) negative feedback is to be achieved
known impedance. Then the coupler becomes c) 1800 phase shift is required between the
a two port device. Since the coupler is transistor input and output.
matched, ГS=0 and Гout=S22=0. So the d) none of the mentioned
available gain is │S21│2. This is equal to
Answer: c
1/2L from the available data.
Explanation: In an oscillator a total of 3600
11. Noise equivalent temperature of of phase shift is to be achieved in the entire
Wilkinson coupler having a gain of 1/2L is circuit to produce oscillations. The transistor
given as: used in the oscillator circuit must produce a
a) T (2L-1) phase shift of 1800 to achieve stable
b) T (2L+1) oscillations. Hence this condition has to be
c) T (2L*1) satisfied by the oscillator.
d) T / (2L-1)
2. In an oscillator, the resonant feedback
Answer: a circuit must have must have a low Q in order
Explanation: Noise equivalent temperature to achieve stable oscillation.
of the Wilkinson coupler is found using the a) true
relation b) false
T (1-G21)/G21. Substituting for G21 in the
above expression, equivalent noise Answer: b
temperature is T (2L-1). Explanation: If the resonant feedback circuit
has a high Q, so that there is random phase
12. Expression for over all noise figure of a shift with frequency, the oscillator will have
mismatched amplifier is: good frequency stability.
a) 1+ (F-1)/ (1 -│Г│2)
3. Quartz crystals are more efficient as a
b) 1
feedback network because:
c) 1+ (F-1)
a) less circuit complexity
d) (F-1)/ (1 -│Г│2) b) cost effective
c) crystals operate at high voltage levels
Answer: a d) LC circuits have unloaded Q of a few
Explanation: The overall noise figure of a hundreds

Answer: d that the crystal is used in place of an inductor

Explanation: At frequencies below a few in a Colpitts or pierce oscillator.
hundred MHz, where LC resonators seldom
have unloaded Qs greater than a few hundred. 7. In the plot of reactance v/s frequency of a
Quartz crystals have unloaded Q of about crystal oscillator, the reactance between series
10000 and have a temperature drift of resonant frequency and parallel resonant
0.001%/C0. frequency is:
a) capacitive
4. Quartz crystal and tourmaline used in b) inductive
oscillators work on the principle of: c) both capacitive and inductive
a) photo electric effect d) none of the mentioned
b) piezo electric effect
c) Raman effect Answer: b
d) black body radiation Explanation: In the plot of reactance v/s
frequency of a crystal oscillator, the reactance
Answer: b between series resonant frequency and
Explanation: Quartz crystals work on the parallel resonant frequency is inductive. In
principle of piezo electric effect. When this region between the series and parallel and
electrical energy is applied to these crystals, series resonant frequencies, the operating
they vibrate in a direction perpendicular to point of the crystal is fixed and hence can be
the application of energy producing used as part of other circuits.
oscillations.
8. In the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal,
5. A quartz crystals equivalent circuit is a LCR arm has an inductance of 4 mH and
series LCR circuit and has a series resonant capacitor has a value of 4nF, then the series
frequency. resonant frequency of the oscillator is:
a) true a) 0.25 MHz
b) false b) 2.5 MHz
c) 25 MHz
Answer: b d) 5 MHz
Explanation: A quartz crystal has an
equivalent circuit such that a series LCR Answer: a
network is in parallel with a capacitor. A Explanation: The series resonant frequency
quartz crystal thus has both series and parallel of a crystal oscillator is given by 1/√LC.
resonant frequencies. Substituting the given values of L and C in
the expression, the series resonant frequency
6. Quartz crystal is used in the is 0.25 MHz.
_______region, where the operating point of
the crystal is fixed. 9. Parallel resonant frequency of quartz
a) resistive crystal is given by:
b) inductive reactance a) 1/ √(LCₒC/(Cₒ+C))
c) capacitive reactance b) 1/√LC
d) none of the mentioned c) 1/√LCₒ
d) 1/ √(L(Cₒ+C) )
Answer: b
Explanation: Quartz crystal is always Answer: a
operated in the inductive reactance region so Explanation: Parallel resonant frequency of
an oscillator is given by√(LCₒC/(Cₒ+C)).

Here L and C are the inductance and Answer: a

capacitance in the LCR arm of the equivalent Explanation: A positive resistance implies
circuit of the crystal. Co is the capacitance energy dissipation while a negative resistance
existing in parallel to this LCR arm. implies an energy source. The negative
resistance device used in the microwave
10. The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal oscillator, thus acts as a source. The condition
has LCR arm capacitance of 12nF and Xin+ XL=0 controls the frequency of
inductance of 3mH and parallel arm oscillation. Xin is the impedance of the
capacitance of 4nF. Parallel resonant
frequency for the circuit is: negative resistance device.
a) 3 MHz
3. In a microwave oscillator, a load of 50+50j
b) 0.3 MHz
is connected across a negative resistance
c) 6 MHz
device of impedance -50-50j. Steady state
d) 9 MHz
oscillation is not achieved in the oscillator.
a) True
Answer: a
b) False
Explanation: The parallel resonant frequency
of a crystal oscillator is given by 1/
Answer: b
√(LCₒC/(Cₒ+C)). Substituting the given
Explanation: The condition for steady state
values in the equation, the parallel resonant
oscillation in a microwave oscillator is Zin=-
frequency is found to be 3 MHz.
ZL. Since this condition is satisfied in the
above case, steady state oscillation is
TOPIC 5.8 MICROWAVE achieved.
OSCILLATOR DESIGN
4. For achieving steady state oscillation, the
1. In microwave oscillators, negative condition to be satisfied in terms of reflection
resistance transistors and diodes are used in coefficients is:
order to generate oscillations in the circuit. a) Гin=ГL
a) True b) Гin=-ГL
b) False c) Гin=1/ГL
Answer: a
Explanation: In microwave oscillator, for a Answer: c
current to flow in the circuit the negative Explanation: The condition for steady state
impedance of the device must be matched oscillation to be achieved in terms of
with positive impedance. This results in reflection coefficient is Гin=1/ГL. Here Гin is
current being non-zero and generates
oscillation. the reflection coefficient towards the
reflection coefficient device and ГL is the
2. Any device with negative impedance as its reflection coefficient towards the load.
characteristic property can be called:
a) Energy source 5. A one port oscillator uses a negative
b) Energy sink resistance diode having Гin=0.9575+j0.8034
c) Oscillator (Z0=50Ω) at its desired frequency point. Then
d) None of the mentioned the input impedance of the diode is:
a) -44+j123
b) 50+j100

c) -44+j145 8. In transistor oscillators, the requirement of

d) None of the mentioned a negative resistance device is satisfied using
a varactor diode.
Answer: a a) True
Explanation: The input impedance of the b) False
diode given reflection coefficient and
characteristic impedance is Z0 (1+Гin)/ (1- Answer: b
Гin). Substituting in the given equation, the Explanation: In a transistor oscillator, a
negative resistance one port network is
input impedance is -44 +j123 Ω.
created by terminating a potentially unstable
6. If the input impedance of a diode used in transistor with impedance designed to drive
the microwave oscillator is 45-j23 Ω, then the the device in an unstable region.
load impedance is to achieve stable
9. In transistor oscillators, FET and BJT are
oscillation is:
used. Instability is achieved by:
a) 45-j23 Ω
a) Giving a negative feedback
b) -45+j23 Ω
b) Giving a positive feedback
c) 50 Ω
c) Using a tank circuit
d) 23-j45 Ω
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition for stabilized
Explanation: Oscillators require a device that
oscillation is Zin=-ZL. According to this
has high instability. To achieve this condition,
equation, the load impedance required for transistors are used with a positive feedback
stabilized oscillation is – (45-j23) Ω. The load to increase instability.
impedance is thus -45+j23 Ω.
10. In a transistor amplifier, if the input
7. To achieve stable oscillation, Zin + ZL=0 is impedance is -84-j1.9 Ω, then the terminating
the only necessary and sufficient condition to impedance required to create enough
be satisfied by the microwave oscillator. instability is:
a) True a) -84-j1.9 Ω
b) False b) 28+j1.9 Ω
c) – (28+j1.9) Ω
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The condition Zin + ZL=0 is
only a necessary condition for stable Answer: b
oscillation and not sufficient. Stability Explanation: Relation between terminating
requires that any perturbation in current or impedance and input impedance is Zs=-Rin/3.
frequency is damped out, allowing the Zs is the terminating impedance. Substituting
oscillator to return to its original state. in the given equation, the terminated
impedance is 28+j1.9 Ω.

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Microwave Engineering Questions and

Answers – Antenna Basics
This set of Microwave Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Antenna Basics”.
1. The basic requirements of transmitting antennas are:

a) High efficiency
b) Low side lobes
c) Large signal to noise ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The basic requirements of a transmitting antenna are high gain and efficiency while
requirements of receiving antennas are low side lobes and large signal to noise to ratio.
2. is a device that converts electrons to photons or vice-versa.

a) Antenna
b) Electron gun
c) Photon amplifier
d) Microwave tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Antenna is a device that converts electrons into photons or vice versa. A
transmitting antenna converts electrons into photons while a receiving antenna converts photons
into electrons.
3. The basic equation of radiation that is applied to any antenna irrespective of the type of the
antenna is:
a) iL= Qv
b) iQ = Lv
c) i/L=Q/v
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in current, l is
the length of the current element, q is the charge v is the acceleration of the charge.
4. When the separation between two lines that carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave tends
to be radiated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the separation between two lines that chary the TEM wave approaches λ the
wave tends to be radiated so that the opened – out line act as an antenna which lunches a free
space wave.
5. The number of patterns radiation pattern required to specify the characteristic are :
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three patterns required are, θ component of the electric field as the function of
the angles as θ and φ, the φ component of the electric field as the function of the angles θ and φ,
the phase of these fields as a functions of the angle φ and θ .
6. The beam width of the antenna pattern measured at half power points is called:
a) Half power beam width
b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam width of an antenna measure at half of the maximum power received by
an antenna or the 3 dB beam width of the antenna is termed as half null beam width.
7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) = cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half power beam
width of the antenna is:
a) 330
b) 660
c) 12000
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the antenna is obtained by equating the field pattern of
the antenna to 0.707 (half power point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of beam width. Solving
the given problem in the same flow, half power beam width of the antenna is 660.
8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ. cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the antenna is:
a) 450
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 1200
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the antenna is obtained by equating the field pattern of
the antenna to 0.707 (half power point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of beam width. Twice
the half power beam width gives the first null beam width. With the same steps applied, the half
power beam width of the antenna is 450. First null beam width is 900.
9. The solid area through which all the power radiated by the antenna is:
a) Beam area
b) Effective area
c) Aperture area
d) Beam efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam area is the solid angle through which all of the power radiated by the
antenna would stream if P (θ, φ) maintained its maximum value over beam area and zero
elsewhere. This value is approximately equal to the angles subtended by the half power points of
the main lobe in the two principal planes.
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit solid angle is called radiation intensity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna per unit solid angle is called radiation intensity.
Unit of radiation intensity is watts per steridian or per square degree.

Answers – Antenna Basics-2
This set of Microwave Engineering Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on
“Antenna Basics-2”.
1. As the beam area of an antenna decreases, the directivity of the antenna:

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Depends on the type of the antenna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Beam area of an antenna and the directivity of the antenna are inversely
proportional. As the beam area is reduced, the directivity increases, meaning smaller the
radiating area of the transmitting antenna, more directed is the emitted energy.
2. If an antenna radiates over half a sphere, directivity of the antenna is:

a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Since the antenna radiates over half the sphere, beam area of the antenna is 2π,
directivity of the antenna is given by 4π/ beam area. Substituting for beam area, the directivity of
the antenna is two.
3. The half power beam width of an antenna in both θ and φ are 400 each. Then the gain of the
antenna is:
a) 23
b) 25
c) 14
d) 27
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Approximate gain of an antenna is given by the expression 40000/ (HPBW) 2.
Substituting the given values in the above expression, the gain of the antenna is 25. In dB scale
the gain of the antenna is 14 dB.
4. The number N of radio transmitters or point sources of radiation distributed uniformly over the
sky which an antenna can resolve is given by:
a) 4π/ ΩA
b) 2π/ ΩA
c) π/ ΩA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resolution may be defined as equal to half the beam width between first nulls. In
the above expression the resolution N is given as 4π/ ΩA.. Here ΩA is the beam area.
5. Ideally, the number of point sources an antenna can resolve is numerically equal to:
a) Gain of the antenna
b) Directivity
c) Beam efficiency
d) Beam area
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of point source an antenna can resolve is given by 4π/ ΩA Directivity
of an antenna is mathematically given by the relation 4π/ ΩA . Numerically resolution and
directivity are equal.
6. Effective aperture is a parameter of the antenna that gives the physical aperture of the antenna.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Effective aperture defines the amount of the total aperture of the antenna that is
utilized for radiation of energy. Higher the effective aperture of an antenna, more is the aperture
efficiency.
7. Effective aperture in terms of beam area and operating wavelength is given by the relation:
a) λ2/ ΩA
b) ΩA / λ2
c) λ2× ΩA
d) No such relationship exists
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Effective aperture is given as λ2/ ΩA. Here ΩA is the beam area. If the beam area is
specified in terms of the operating wavelength λ, then effective are of the antenna can be made
operating wavelength independent.
8. of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident electric
field.
a) Effective height
b) Gain
c) Directivity
d) Loss
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At the receiving end, effective height of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the
induced voltage to the incident electric field. Otherwise, if the effective length of the receiving
antenna is known and if the induced voltage is measured, then the field strength can be
determined.
9. The directivity of an antenna in terms of the aperture efficiency and operating wavelength is
given by:
a) 4πAe/λ2
b) 2πAe/λ2
c) πAe/λ2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The directivity of an antenna in terms of aperture efficiency is given by 4πAe/λ2.
Here Ae is the aperture efficiency. λ is the operating frequency. With an increase in the effective
aperture area of an antenna, directivity of the antenna can be increased making the radiated beam
narrower.
10. A radio link has 15 W transmitter connected to an antenna of 2.5 m2 effective aperture at 5
GHz. The receiving antenna has an effective aperture of 0.5 m2 and is located at a 15 Km line of
sight distance from transmitting antenna. Assuming lossless, matched antennas, the power
delivered to the receiver is:
a) 20 µW
b) 15 µm
c) 23 µm
d) 25 µm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The power delivered to the receiving antenna is Pt (A1 A2/ r2λ2). Substituting the
given values in the above equation, the power at the receiver is 23 µm.

Answers – Antenna Family
“Antenna Family”.
1. The members of the antenna family which are made of wires of certain value in terms of
operating wavelength are called:
a) Loop antennas
b) Wire antennas
c) Dipole antenna
d) Slot antennas
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wires of half wavelength are termed as dipoles. Their radiation resistance is about
73 Ω. If only half of this length is used, then it is called quarter-wave monopole with a radiation
resistance of 36.5 Ω.
2. The antenna in which location of the feed determines the direction of the lobe are:
a) Wire antenna
b) Loop antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Horn antenna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a wire antenna, the location of the feed determines the direction of the lobe and
the orientation of the wire determines the polarization. These wires can be thick or thin.
Thickness of the wire determines the radiation resistance of the antenna.
3. Based on the size of the loops, loop antennas are classified as small and large loops. This is the
only classification of loop antenna.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Loop antennas are classified based on various antenna parameters. To name a few,
small and large loops, circular and square loops, loops having single or multi turns, loops with
turns wound using a single wire or multiple wires.
4. Antenna that does not belong to the horn antenna family among the following are:
a) Pyramidal horn
b) Conical horn
c) bi-conical horn
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the above mentioned antennas belong to the horn antenna family. Horn
antennas may be made of pointed or rounded waveguides. The waveguides may contain disc at
an end or some dielectric.
5. Patch antennas are the antennas of small size and are made of:
a) Strip line
b) Microstrip lines
c) Coaxial cables
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Patch antennas are microstrip antennas that can be of any shape. Patch antennas can
be aperture-coupled fed or proximity fed. For obtaining circular polarization, a patch may also be
doubly fed.
6. Reflector antennas are widely used to modify radiation patterns of radiating elements.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reflector antennas are used to modify radiation patterns of radiating elements.
Reflector antennas are classified into two categories. They are passive reflectors and active
reflectors. Based on the type of the radiating element and the modification in the radiation
pattern required, accordingly either active or passive reflectors are chosen.
7. The pattern of the reflector in a reflector antenna is called:

a) Primary pattern
b) Secondary pattern
c) Reflector pattern
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a reflector antenna, the feed pattern is called primary pattern and the pattern of
the reflector is called secondary pattern. These antennas are widely employed in RADARs and
other types of point to point communication links.
8. antennas have gain less than reflector antennas but have more lenient tolerance on
surfaces.
a) Helical antennas
b) Lens antennas
c) Array antennas
d) Slot antennas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lens antennas are complex in nature but are able to scale wider angles. In
comparison to reflectors, their gain is 1 or 2 dB less, but these have more lenient tolerance on
surfaces. These have less rearward reflection, relatively low loss and can be easily shaped to the
desired contours.
9. Lens antennas are classified into two types. One being fast antenna, the other one is:
a) Slow antenna
b) Delay antenna
c) Dynamic antenna
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In delay lenses, the electrical path length is increased or the wave is retarded by the
lens medium. Dielectric lenses and H-plane metal lenses fall in this category.
10. The antennas which offer high operational bandwidth and the antenna parameters are
maintained over a wide range of antennas are called:
a) Wide band antennas
b) Array antennas
c) Parabolic antennas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this class of antennas, constancy of impedance and radiation characteristics is
maintained over a wide range of frequencies. To be wide band or frequency independent,
antennas should expand or contract in proportion to the wavelength.
11. High directivity required in RADAR communication is satisfied using this type of antennas:
a) Wide band antennas
b) Antenna arrays
c) Slot antennas
d) Patch antennas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Higher directivity is the requirement in point to point communication. This can be
achieved by increasing the size of the antennas in terms of electrical length. When much high
directivity is required, antenna arrays are used.
12. The terminal impedance of a dipole antenna is 710 Ω. The terminal impedance of the slot
antenna given the intrinsic impedance of air is 377 Ω is:
a) 100 Ω
b) 50 Ω
c) 25 Ω
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The terminal impedance ZS of the slot is given by the relation Z02/ 4Zd) Zₒ is the
intrinsic impedance of the medium and ZD is the terminal impedance of the dipole. Substituting
the given values in the above equation, the terminal impedance of sot is 50 Ω.
13. If the length of aperture in a pyramidal horn antenna is 10cm and δ for the design is 0.25.
Then, the flaring angle of the pyramidal horn is:
a) 30⁰
b) 25.4⁰
c) 45⁰
d) 60⁰
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flaring angle of pyramidal horn is given by 2cos-1(L/L+δ). Substituting the
values of L and δ, flaring angle is 25.4⁰.
14. If the directivity of a square corner receiving antenna is 20 and operating at a wavelength of
0.25m, the effective aperture of a square corner antenna is:
a) 0.4 m2
b) 0.2 m2
c) 0.1 m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given the directivity of the antenna, effective aperture of the antenna is given by
Dλ2/4π. substituting the given values of the variables; the effective aperture of the antenna is 0.4
m2 .

Answers – Antenna Radiation
“Antenna Radiation”.
1. An antenna source that radiates energy uniformly in all the directions is called:
a) Isotropic source
b) Anisotropic source
c) Point source
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isotropic source radiates energy in all the direction uniformly. For such a source,
the radial component Sr of the pointing vector is independent of θ and φ. The three dimensional
power pattern of n isotropic source is a sphere.
2. Antennas that radiate energy only in a specified are called anisotropic antennas.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All physically realizable, simplest antennas also have directional properties. That is,
they radiate energy in one direction than in any other direction. Such sources are called
anisotropic point sources.
3. The expression for pointing vector of an isotropic point source at a distance „r‟ from the
source is given by:
a) P/ 4πR2
b) P/4π
c) P/ 4πR
d) P×4πR2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pointing field vector for an isotropic source is given by the expression P/
4πR2.P is the total power radiated y the source. As the distance of the point from the
source increases, the magnitude of pointing vector decreases.
4. A source has a cosine radiation-intensity pattern given by U=UM cos (θ). The directivity of
this source is:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To find the directivity of the given source, the power radiated by the given source is
found out by the method of integration. Taking the ratio of the power radiated by the given
source to the power radiated by an isotropic source gives the directivity. Following the above
steps, the directivity of the given source is 4.
5. A source has a cosine power pattern that is bidirectional. Given that the directivity of a
unidirectional source with cosine power pattern has a directivity of 4, then the directivity of the
unidirectional source is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given the directivity of unidirectional power pattern, the directivity of bidirectional
power pattern is half of it. Hence the directivity of the source is 2.
6. A source has a radiation intensity pattern given by U=UM sin θ. The directivity of the
source with this power pattern is:
a) 1
b) 1.27
c) 2.4
d) 3.4
View Answer
Answer: b
steps, the directivity of the given source is 1.27.
7. A source has a sine squared radiation intensity power pattern. The directivity of the given
source is:
a) 1.5
b) 3
c) 2.5
d) 3.5
View Answer
Answer: a
steps, the directivity of the given source is 1.5.
8. A source with a unidirectional cosine squared radiation intensity pattern is given by UMcos2
(θ). The directivity of the given source is:
a) 6
b) 8
c) 2
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: a
source to the power radiated by anisotropic source gives the directivity. Following the above
steps, the directivity of the given source is 6.
9. Considering distance as a parameter, two types of field zones can be defined around an
antenna.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Considering distance as a parameter, two types of field zones can be defined around
an antenna) .The field near the antenna is called near field or Fresnel region and the other region
is the far field that is also called as Fraunhofer region.
10. If the field strength at receiving antenna is 1 µV/m, and the effective aperture area is 0.4 m2
and the intrinsic impedance of the medium is 377 Ω, then the power received by the antenna is:
a) 1.06 pW
b) 1.06 fW
c) 2 µW
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The received power by the antenna is given by E2Ae/Zₒ. Substituting the known
values in the above equation, the power received is 1.06×10-15 watts.
Avionics Questions and Answers – Types of

Antenna – 1
This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Types of
Antenna – 1”.
1. A dipole antenna is also called as?

a) Marconi antenna
b) Yagi antenna
d) Hertz antenna
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: One of the most widely used antenna types is the half-wave dipole antenna. This
antenna is also formally known as the Hertz antenna after Heinrich Hertz, who first demonstrated
the existence of electromagnetic waves.
2. The impedance at the center of the antenna is known as?

b) Radiation resistance
c) Transmission impedance
d) Recovery resistance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The transmission line is connected at the center. The dipole has an impedance of 73
V at its center, which is the radiation resistance. At the resonant frequency, the antenna appears
to be a pure resistance of 73 V.
3. What happens when the radiation resistance of the antenna matches the characteristic
impedance of the transmission line?
a) No transmission occurs
c) SWR is maximum
d) SWR is minimum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the radiation resistance of the antenna matches the characteristic impedance
of the transmission line, the SWR is minimum and maximum power reaches the antenna. This
allows maximum power to be transmitted.
4. The type of dipole antenna that has a higher band width is called as?
a) Conical antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Marconi antenna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A common way to increase bandwidth in the antenna is to use a version of the
dipole antenna known as the conical antenna. The overall length of the antenna is 0.73λ or
0.73(984)/f = 718.32/f. This is longer than the traditional one-half wavelength of a dipole
antenna, but the physical shape changes the necessary dimensions for resonance.
5. The radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole has the shape of a

a) Doughnut
b) Sphere
c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The radiation pattern of any antenna is the shape of the electromagnetic energy
radiated from or received by that antenna. Typically that radiation is concentrated in a pattern
that has a recognizable geometric shape. The radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole has the
shape of a doughnut.
6. What is the beam width for a half wave dipole antenna?

a) 90°
b) 180°
c) 50°
d) 250°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam width is measured between the points on the radiation curve that are 3 dB
down from the maximum amplitude of the curve. The maximum amplitude of the pattern occurs
at 0° and 180°. The 3-dB down points are 70.7 percent of the maximum. The angle formed with
two lines extending from the center of the curve to these 3-dB points is the beam width. The
beam width is 90°. The smaller the beam width angle, the more directional the antenna.
7. What does the beam width of an antenna tell us?

a) Signal strength
b) Signal power
c) Directivity
d) Degradation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The measure of an antenna‟ s directivity is beam width, the angle of the radiation
pattern over which a transmitter‟ s energy is directed or received. Beam width is measured on an
antenna‟ s radiation pattern.
8. What is the power radiated by the antenna with gain called as?
a) Critical power
b) Transverse power
c) Effective radiated power
d) Transmitted power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The power radiated by an antenna with directivity and therefore gain is called the
effective radiated power (ERP). The ERP is calculated by multiplying the transmitter power fed
to the antenna Pt by the power gain Ap of the antenna.
9. What is the radiation pattern of an isotropic radiator?

a) Doughnut
b) Sphere
c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An isotropic radiator is a theoretical point source of electromagnetic energy. The E
and H fields radiate out in all directions from the point source, and at any given distance from the
point source, the fields form a sphere.
10. What is the impedance of the folded dipole antenna?

a) 50Ω
b) 100Ω
c) 300Ω
d) 20Ω
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A popular variation of the half-wave dipole is the folded dipole. Like the standard
dipole, it is one-half wavelength long. However, it consists of two parallel conductors connected
at the ends with one side open at the center for connection to the transmission line. The
impedance of this popular antenna is 300 V, making it an excellent match for the widely
available 300-V twin lead.
11. Which of the following antennas produce a vertical radiation pattern?

a) Dipole antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The same effect as dipole antenna can be achieved with a one-quarter wavelength
antenna or Marconi antenna. A vertical dipole with the doughnut-shaped radiation pattern, in
which one-half of the pattern is below the surface of the earth. This is called a vertical radiation
pattern.
Avionics Questions and Answers – Types of

Antenna – 2
This set of Avionics MCQs focuses on “Types of Antenna – 2”.
1. What is the use of loading coil?

a) Correcting resonance to a desired frequency
b) Increasing the antenna gain
c) Sideband suppression
d) Increasing the range of the antenna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a vertical antenna is made less than one-quarter wavelength, the practical
effect is a decreased inductance. The antenna no longer resonates at the desired operating
frequency, but at a higher frequency. To compensate for this, a series inductor, called a loading
coil, is connected in series with the antenna coil. The loading coil brings the antenna back into
resonance at the desired frequency.
2. Why is top hat added to antennas?

a) To increase capacitance
b) Increasing the antenna gain
c) Sideband suppression
d) Increasing the range of the antenna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A top hat is a structure that increases the capacitance to surrounding items, bringing
the antenna back into resonance. Obviously, such an arrangement is too top-heavy and
inconvenient for portable and mobile antennas. However, it is sometimes used in larger fixed
antennas at lower frequencies.
3. In a parasitic array antenna, the conductors that are not connected to the transmission line is
called as?
a) Driven element
b) Parasitic elements
c) Extra elements
d) Array elements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A parasitic array consists of a basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus
one or more additional conductors that are not connected to the transmission line. These extra
conductors are referred to as parasitic elements, and the antenna itself is referred to as the driven
element.
4. In a parasitic array the elements are shorted if they are connected to a conducting beam.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The boom does not have to be an insulator. Because there is a voltage null at the
center of a one-half wavelength conductor at the resonant frequency, there is no potential
difference between the elements and so they can all be connected to a conducting boom with no
undesirable effect. In other words, the elements are not “shorted together.”
5. Parasitic element that is typically about 5 percent longer than the half-wave dipole-driven
element is called _
a) Array element
b) Director element
c) Reflector element
d) Driven element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reflector, a parasitic element that is typically about 5 percent longer than the
half-wave dipole-driven element, is spaced from the driven element by a distance of 0.15λ to
0.25λ. When the signal radiated from the dipole reaches the reflector, it induces a voltage into the
reflector and the reflector produces some radiation of its own creating a highly focused beam in
the direction of the driven element.
6. Why is the boom of the yagi antenna connected to a metal mast and electrical ground?
a) Better signal directivity
b) Increased bandwidth
c) Lightning protection
d) To avoid short circuiting
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The centers of the parasitic elements are neutral electrically; these elements can be
connected directly to the boom. For the best lightning protection, the boom can then be
connected to a metal mast and electrical ground.
7. Which of the following is not one of the types of driven array antenna?
a) Rectilinear antenna
b) Broadside antenna
c) End fire antenna
d) log periodic antenna
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation: Each element in a driven array antenna receives RF energy from the transmission
line, and different arrangements of the elements produce different degrees of directivity and gain.
The three basic types of driven arrays are the collinear, the broadside, and the end-i re. A fourth
type is the wide-bandwidth log-periodic antenna.
8. What is the length of the shortest element in the yagi antenna?

a) One quarter the wavelength of the highest frequency
b) One quarter the wavelength of the lowest frequency
c) One half the wavelength of the highest frequency
d) One half the wavelength of the lowest frequency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The lengths of the driven elements vary from long to short and are related
logarithmically. The longest element has a length of one-half wavelength at the lowest frequency
to be covered, and the shortest element is one-half wavelength at the higher frequency. The
spacing is also variable.

Answers – Antenna Gain and Efficiency
“Antenna Gain and Efficiency”.
1. A is a device that converts a guided electromagnetic wave on a transmission line

into a plane wave propagating in free space.
c) Radar
d) Mixer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A transmitting antenna is a device that converts a guided electromagnetic wave on a
transmission line into a plane wave propagating in free space. It appears as an electrical circuit
on one side, provides an interface with a propagating plane wave.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Antennas can be used both as transmitters and receivers. As transmitters they
radiate energy to free space and as receivers they receive signal from free space. Hence, they are
called bidirectional devices as they are used at both transmitting end and receiving end.
3. Dipole antennas are an example for:

a) Wire antennas
c) Array antennas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dipoles, monopoles, oops, Yagi-Uda arrays are all examples for wire antennas.
These antennas have low gains, and are mostly used at lower frequencies.
4. antennas consist of a regular arrangement of antenna elements with a feed network

b) Array antennas
c) Printed antennas
d) Wire antennas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Array antennas consist of a regular arrangement of antenna elements with a feed
network. Pattern characteristics such as beam pointing angle and side lobe levels can be
controlled by adjusting the amplitude and phase excitation of array elements.
5. A parabolic reflector used for reception with the direct broadcast system is 18 inches in
diameter and operates at 12.4 GHz. The far-field distance for this antenna is:
a) 18 m
b) 13 m
c) 16.4 m
d) 17.3 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Far field distance for a reflector antenna is given by 2D2/λ. D is the diameter and λ
is the operating signal wavelength. Substituting in the above expression, far field distance is 17.3
m.
6. of an antenna is a plot of the magnitude of the far field strength versus position
around the antenna.
b) Directivity
c) Beam width
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the magnitude of the far field strength
versus position around the antenna. This plot gives the detail regarding the region where most of
the energy of antenna is radiated, side lobes and beam width of an antenna.
7. Antennas having a constant pattern in the azimuthal plane are called

a) High gain antenna
b) Omni directional antenna
d) Low gain antenna
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Omni directional antennas radiate EM waves in all direction. If the radiation pattern
for this type of antenna is plotted, the pattern is a constant signifying that the radiated power is
constant measured at any point around the antenna.
8. Beamwidth and directivity are both measures of the focusing ability of an antenna.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Beamwidth and directivity are both measures of the focusing ability of an antenna.
An antenna with a narrow main beam will have high directivity, while a pattern with low beam
will have low directivity.
9. If the beam width of an antenna in two orthogonal planes are 300 and 600. Then the directivity
of the antenna is:
a) 24
b) 18
c) 36
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given the beam width of the antenna in 2 planes, the directivity is given by
32400/θ*∅, where θ,∅ are the beam widths in the two orthogonal planes. Substituting in the
10. If the power input to an antenna is 100 mW and if the radiated power is measured to be 90
mW, then the efficiency of the antenna is:
a) 75 %
b) 80 %
c) 90 %
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Antenna efficiency is defined as the ratio of radiated power to the input power to
the antenna. Substituting the given data in the efficiency equation, the efficiency of the antenna
is 90%.

Answers – Antenna Gain and Efficiency
“Antenna Gain and Efficiency”.
1. A is a device that converts a guided electromagnetic wave on a transmission line

into a plane wave propagating in free space.
c) Radar
d) Mixer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A transmitting antenna is a device that converts a guided electromagnetic wave on a
transmission line into a plane wave propagating in free space. It appears as an electrical circuit
on one side, provides an interface with a propagating plane wave.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Antennas can be used both as transmitters and receivers. As transmitters they
radiate energy to free space and as receivers they receive signal from free space. Hence, they are
called bidirectional devices as they are used at both transmitting end and receiving end.
3. Dipole antennas are an example for:

a) Wire antennas
c) Array antennas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dipoles, monopoles, oops, Yagi-Uda arrays are all examples for wire antennas.
These antennas have low gains, and are mostly used at lower frequencies.
4. antennas consist of a regular arrangement of antenna elements with a feed network

b) Array antennas
c) Printed antennas
d) Wire antennas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Array antennas consist of a regular arrangement of antenna elements with a feed
network. Pattern characteristics such as beam pointing angle and side lobe levels can be
controlled by adjusting the amplitude and phase excitation of array elements.
5. A parabolic reflector used for reception with the direct broadcast system is 18 inches in
diameter and operates at 12.4 GHz. The far-field distance for this antenna is:
a) 18 m
b) 13 m
c) 16.4 m
d) 17.3 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Far field distance for a reflector antenna is given by 2D2/λ. D is the diameter and λ
is the operating signal wavelength. Substituting in the above expression, far field distance is 17.3
m.
6. of an antenna is a plot of the magnitude of the far field strength versus position
around the antenna.
b) Directivity
c) Beam width
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the magnitude of the far field strength
versus position around the antenna. This plot gives the detail regarding the region where most of
the energy of antenna is radiated, side lobes and beam width of an antenna.
7. Antennas having a constant pattern in the azimuthal plane are called

a) High gain antenna
b) Omni directional antenna

d) Low gain antenna
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Omni directional antennas radiate EM waves in all direction. If the radiation pattern
for this type of antenna is plotted, the pattern is a constant signifying that the radiated power is
constant measured at any point around the antenna.
8. Beamwidth and directivity are both measures of the focusing ability of an antenna.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Beamwidth and directivity are both measures of the focusing ability of an antenna.
An antenna with a narrow main beam will have high directivity, while a pattern with low beam
will have low directivity.
9. If the beam width of an antenna in two orthogonal planes are 300 and 600. Then the directivity
of the antenna is:
a) 24
b) 18
c) 36
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given the beam width of the antenna in 2 planes, the directivity is given by
32400/θ*∅, where θ,∅ are the beam widths in the two orthogonal planes. Substituting in the
10. If the power input to an antenna is 100 mW and if the radiated power is measured to be 90
mW, then the efficiency of the antenna is:
a) 75 %
b) 80 %
c) 90 %
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Antenna efficiency is defined as the ratio of radiated power to the input power to
the antenna. Substituting the given data in the efficiency equation, the efficiency of the antenna
is 90%.

Answers – Wireless Communication
“Wireless Communication”.
1. Most of the wireless systems today operate at a frequency of about:

a) 800 MHz
b) 100 MHz
c) 80 MHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: With all advancement in wireless communication today, the need of the hour is
higher data rates of transmission and reception. These higher data rates can be achieved only at
microwave frequency range and in giga hertz frequency range.
2. Point to point communication systems use low gain antennas for communication.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In point to point communication a single transmitter communicates with a single
receiver. Such systems use high gain antennas to maximize received power and minimize
interference with other radios.
3. In this method of wireless communication, communication happens only in one direction:

a) Simplex
b) Duplex
c) Half duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In simplex systems, communication happens only in one direction that is from the
transmitter to the receiver. Examples for this type of communication include radio, television and
paging systems.
4. The power density radiated by an isotropic antenna is given by the relation:

a) Pt/4πR2
b) Pt/4R2
c) Pt/R2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An isotropic antenna radiates energy equally in all the directions. Hence, the power
density radiated at a distance R is given by the relation Pt/4πR2.
5. The power received by a receiving antenna given that Pt is the transmitted power is:
a) GrGtλ2pt/ (4πR)2
b) Gtλ2pt/ (4πR)2
c) Grλ2pt/ (4πR)2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The power received by a receiving antenna given that Pt is the transmitted power is
GrGtλ2pt/ (4πR)2. Here Gr is the gain of the receiving antenna; Gt is the gain of the transmitting
antenna. R is the distance between the transmitting and receiving antenna.
6. If the distance between a transmitting station and receiving station is 1 Km and if the antennas
are operating at a wavelength of 5 cm, then the path loss is:
a) 108 dB
b) 12 dB
c) 45 dB
d) 48 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Path loss is given by the expression 20 log (4πR/λ) in db. Substituting the given
values in the above expression, the path loss is 108 dB.
7. The amount of power by which the received power must be greater than the threshold level
required to maintain a minimum quality of service is called
a) Line loss
b) Link budget
c) Link margin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Link margin is the amount of power by which the received power must be greater
than the threshold level required to maintain a minimum quality of service. Link margin signifies
the minimum amount of power required to sustain communication maintaining a minimum
quality of service.
8. Link margin that is used to account for fading effects is called fade margin.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Link margin that is used to account for fading effects is called fade margin. Satellite
links operating at frequencies of above 10 GHz require a fading margin of about 20dB or more to
account for attenuation during heavy rain.
9. One of the most important requirements of a radio receiver is high gain.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Radio receivers must have very high gain of about 100 dB in order to detect the
very low power level of the received signal to a level near its original baseband value.
10. A radio receiver operating at microwave frequencies must have very high selectivity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Today, most of the applications use wireless communication at microwave
frequency. Hence space is a sea of EM waves. In order to receive only the desired signal in the
desired range of frequencies, the radio receiver must have high sensitivity.

Answers – Noise Characteristics of Receivers
“Noise Characteristics of Receivers”.
1. The noise power will determine the maximum detectable signal level for a receiver.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The noise power will determine the minimum detectable signal level of the receiver
for a given transmitter power, maximum range of a communication link. There is a limit on the
maximum noise that can be associated with a signal in spite of which the signal can be recovered
from the noise.
2. Equivalent noise temperature of a transmission line connecting the antenna to the receiver is:
a) TP (LP-1)
b) TP (LP + 1)
c) TP/ (LP-1)
d) TP / (LP +
1) View
Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transmission line connecting the antenna to the receiver has a loss of LT and is
at a physical temperature TP. its noise equivalent temperature is given by TP (LP-1).
3. In a receiver, if the noise figure of the mixer stage in the receiver is 7 dB, then the equivalent
noise temperature is given that the receiver is operating at 290 K:
a) 1163 K
b) 1789 K
c) 1000 K
d) 1234 K
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Equivalent noise temperature for a given noise figure is given by To (FM-1). FM is
the noise figure in dB. Substituting the given values for noise figure and temperature, noise
equivalent temperature is 1163 K.
4. If a transmission line connecting the antennas to the receiver has a loss of 1.5 dB, given the
physical temperature is 270C, noise equivalent temperature is:
a) 123 K
b) 145 K
c) 345 K
d) 234 K
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The noise equivalent temperature of the transmission line is given by TP(LP-1).
Converting the value from dB scale and substituting, noise equivalent temperature is 123 K.
5. Given that the antenna efficiency is 0.9, equivalent brightness temperature is 200 K; physical
temperature is 300 K, noise temperature of an antenna is:
a) 220 K
b) 210 K
c) 240 K
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise temperature of an antenna is given by rad Tb + (1- rad) TP. Tb is the
equivalent brightness temperature and TP is the physical temperature. Substituting the given
values, noise temperature of the antenna is 210 K.
6. If a receiver is operating at a bandwidth of 1 MHz and has antenna noise temperature of 210
K, then the input noise power is:
a) -90 dBm
b) -115 dBm
c) -56 dBm
d) -120 dBm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Input noise power is given the expression kBTa) Here k is the Boltzmann‟ s
constant, B is the operational bandwidth of the antenna and TA is the antenna noise temperature.
Substituting in the above expression, input noise power is -115 dBm.
7. Antenna noise temperature of a system is 210 K, noise temperature of transmission line is 123
K, loss of a transmission line connecting the antenna to receiver is 1.41 and noise temperature of
the receiver cascade is 304 K. then the total system noise temperature is:
a) 840 K
b) 762 K
c) 678 K
d) 1236 K
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total system noise temperature is given by the expression TA+TTL+LTTREc)
TA is the antenna noise temperature, TTL is the transmission line noise temperature, TREC is
the noise temperature of receiver cascade. Substituting the given values, total system noise
temperature is 762 K.
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8. If the received power at antenna terminals is -80dBm, and if the input noise power is -115
dBm, then the input SNR is:
a) 45 dB
b) -195 dB
c) -35 dB
d) 35 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Input SNR of a system is (Si-Ni) in dB. Substituting the given signal power and
noise power in dB, input SNR of the system is 35 dB.
9. A receiver system is operating at a bandwidth of 1 MHz and has a total system noise
temperature of 762 K. then the output noise power is:
a) -110 dBm
b) -234 dBm
c) -145 dBm
d) -124 dBm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Output noise power of a receiver system is kBTsys. B is the operating bandwidth
and Tsys is the total system noise temperature. Substituting the given values in the given
equation, output noise power is -110 dBm.
10. If the received power at the antenna terminals is Si=-80 dBm and the output noise power is -
110 dBm then the output signal to noise ratio is given by:
a) 30 dB
b) -30 dB
c) 35 dB
d) -35 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Output signal to noise ratio in dB is given by (So-No). Substituting the given values
in the above equation, the output SNR is 30 dB.
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Antenna & Wave Propagation
1) What is the wavelength of Super high frequency (SHF) especially used in Radar &
satellite communication?
a. 1 m – 10 m
b. 1 cm – 10 cm
c. 10 cm – 1 m
d. 0.1 cm – 1 cm
ANSWER: 1 cm – 10 cm
2) Which among the following is an application of high frequency?
a. SONAR
b. Subsurface communication
c. Radio navigation
d. Facsimile
ANSWER: Facsimile
3) Wave front is basically a locus of points acquiring similar
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. Wave equation
ANSWER: Phase
4) In which kind of waveform is the phase velocity defined?
a. Sinusoidal
b. Rectangular
c. Square
d. Triangular
ANSWER: Sinusoidal
5) Which among the following is/are not present in free space?
a. Solid bodies
b. Ionized particles
c. Interference of normal radiation & radio wave propagation
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
6) Power density is basically termed as power per unit area
a. Reflected
b. Refracted
c. Radiated
d. Diffracted
ANSWER: Radiated
7) If the path difference of two waves with single source traveling by different paths to
arrive at the same point, is λ/2, what would be the phase difference between them?
a. β x (λ/2)
b. β / (λ/2)
c. β + (λ/2)
d. β – (λ/2)
ANSWER: β x (λ/2)
8) Which ionization layer exists during day time & usually vanishes at night due to highest
recombination rate?
a. D-region
b. Normal E-region
c. Sporadic E-region
d. Appleton region
ANSWER: D-region
9) What is the possible range of height for the occurrence of sporadic E-region with
respect to normal E-region?
a. 20 km – 50 km
b. 45 km – 85 km
c. 90 km – 130 km
d. 140 km – 200 km
ANSWER: 90 km – 130 km
10) F2 layer of appleton region acts as a significant reflecting medium for frequency
radio waves
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. All of the above
ANSWER: High
11) The knowledge of which parameter is sufficient for deriving the time varying
electromagnetic field?
a. Electric field intensity

b. Magnetic field intensity
c. Current density
d. Power density
ANSWER: Current density
12) According to Webster’s dictionary, what is an antenna?
a. Impedance matching device

b. Sensor of electromagnetic waves
c. Transducer between guided wave & free space wave
d. Metallic device for radiating or receiving radio waves
ANSWER: Metallic device for radiating or receiving radio waves
13) Under which conditions of charge does the radiation occur through wire antenna?
a. For a charge with no motion

b. For a charge moving with uniform velocity with straight & infinite wire
c. For a charge oscillating in time motion
d. All of the above
ANSWER: For a charge oscillating in time motion
14) In a non-isotropic directional antenna, which radiating lobe axis makes an angle of
180° w.r.t. major beam of an antenna?
a. Minor lobe
b. Side lobe
c. Back lobe
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Back lobe
15) At which angles does the front to back ratio specify an antenna gain?
a. 0° & 180°
b. 90° & 180°
c. 180° & 270°
d. 180° & 360°
ANSWER: 0° & 180°
16) Which among the following defines the angular distance between two points on each
side of major lobe especially when the radiation drops to zero?
a. Half power beam width (HPBW)

b. First null beam width (FNBW)
c. Side lobe level (SLL)
d. Front to back ratio (FBR)
ANSWER: First null beam width (FNBW)
17) If an observation point is closely located to the source, then the field is termed as
a. Induced
b. Radiated
c. Reflected
d. Far-field
ANSWER: Induced
18) Which waveform plays a crucial role in determining the radiation pattern of the
dipole/wire antennas?
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Frequency
d. Phase
ANSWER: Current
19) How are the infinitesimal dipoles represented in terms of antenna length and signal
wavelength?
a. l ≤ (λ /50)
b. (λ/50 ) < l ≤ (λ /10)
c. l = λ/2
ANSWER: l ≤ (λ /50)
20) In flared transmission line, the radiation phenomenon increases due to in
flaring
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stability
ANSWER: Increase
21) Which pattern is generated due to plotting of square of amplitude of an electric field?
a. Field Pattern
b. Voltage Pattern
c. Power Pattern
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Power Pattern
22) In an electrically small loops, the overall length of the loop is one-tenth of a
wavelength.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
ANSWER: Less than
23) On which factor/s do/does the radiation field of a small loop depend?
a. Shape
b. Area
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Area
24) From the radiation point of view, small loops are radiators
a. Poor
b. Good
c. Better
d. Excellent
ANSWER: Poor
25) According to the directivity of a small loop, which value of ‘θ’ contributes to achieve
the maximum value of radiation intensity (Umax)?
a. 0°
b. 90°
c. 180°
d. 270°
ANSWER: 90°
26) In which kind of array configuration, the element locations must deviate or adjust to
some nonplaner surface like an aircraft or missile?
a. Linear
b. Planer
c. Conformal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Conformal
27) What is the nature of radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?
a. Spherical
b. Dough-nut
c. Elliptical
d. Hyperbolic
ANSWER: Spherical
28) In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar
excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum radiation.
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Voltage
ANSWER: Phase
29) Which among the following is regarded as a condition of an ordinary endfire array?
a. α < βd
b. α > βd
c. α = ±βd
d. α ≠ ±βd
ANSWER: α = ±βd
30) Which mode of propagation is adopted in HF antennas?
a. Ionospheric
b. Ground wave
c. Tropospheric
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Ionospheric
31) For which band/s is the space wave propagation suitable over 30 MHz?
a. VHF
b. SHF
c. UHF
d. All of the above
32) If the tower antenna is not grounded, which method of excitation is/are applicable for
it?
a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Series
33) In ungrounded antennas, if an excitation is applied directly across the base insulator,
then on which factor/s would the voltage across the insulator depend?
a. Power delivered to antenna

b. Power factor of impedance
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Both a and b
34) Which among the following exhibits perpendicular nature in TEM wave?
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Direction of propagation
d. All of the above
35) Which equations are regarded as wave equations in frequency domain for lossless
media?
a. Maxwell’s
b. Lorentz
c. Helmholtz
d. Poisson’s
ANSWER: Helmholtz
36) If the magnetic field component of a plane wave in a lossless dielectric is H = 50 sin (2π
x 106 t – 6x) azmA/m , what will be the wave velocity?
a. 1.047 x 106 m/s

b. 1.257 x 106 m/s
c. 2.50 x 106 m/s
d. 3 x 106 m/s
ANSWER: 1.047 x 106 m/s
37) In an electrical circuit, which nature of impedance causes the current & voltages in
phase?
a. Reactive
b. Resistive
c. Capacitive
d. Inductive
ANSWER: Resistive
38) Which type of ground wave travels over the earth surface by acquiring direct path
through air from transmitting to receiving antennas?
a. Surface wave
b. Space wave
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Space wave

39) After which phenomenon/phenomena do the waves arrive at the receiving antenna in
ionospheric propagation?
a. Reflection or Scattering
b. Refraction
c. Defraction
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Reflection or Scattering
40) By which name/s is an ionospheric propagation, also known as?
a. Sea wave propagation

b. Ground wave propagation
c. Sky wave propagation
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Sky wave propagation
41) According to Snell’s law in optics, if a ray travels from dense media to rarer media,
what would be its direction w.r.t the normal?
a. Towards
b. Away
c. Across
d. Beside
ANSWER: Away
42) Which mechanism/s is/are likely to occur in mid-frequency operation corresponding

to ionospheric region?
a. Only Reflection
b. Only Refraction
c. Partial reflection & refraction
ANSWER: Partial reflection & refraction
43) Which among the following plays a primary role in generation of conduction current
in an ionosphere due to presence of electric field?
a. Ions
b. Motion of electrons
c. Neutral molecules
ANSWER: Motion of electrons
44) Which type of wire antennas are also known as dipoles?
a. Linear
b. Loop
c. Helical
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Linear
45) Which antennas are renowned as patch antennas especially adopted for space craft
applications?
a. Aperture
b. Microstrip
c. Array
d. Lens
ANSWER: Microstrip
46) Which conversion mechanism is performed by parabolic reflector antenna?
a. Plane to spherical wave

b. Spherical to plane wave
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Spherical to plane wave
47) Which antenna radiating region/s has/have independent nature of angular field
distribution over the distance from the antenna?
a. Reactive near-field region

b. Fresnel region
c. Fraunhofer region
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Fraunhofer region
48) Sterdian is a measurement unit of
a. Point angle
b. Linear angle
c. Plane angle
d. Solid angle
ANSWER: Solid angle
49) According to the geometry, how many sterdians are present in a full sphere?
a. π/2
b. π
c. 2π
d. 4π
ANSWER: 4π
50) The vector magnetic potential shows the inverse relationship with its ----
a. Source
b. Distance of point from the source (R)
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Distance of point from the source (R)
51) In retarded potentials, what factor of time delay is generally introduced in A & V
equations?
a. R + c
b. R – c
c. R/c
d. R x c
ANSWER: R/c
52) In the solutions of inhomogeneous vector potential wave equation, which component
exists if the source is at origin and the points are removed from the source (Jz = 0)?
a. Inward
b. Outward
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Outward
53) If a half-wave dipole operates at 300 MHz with λ = 0.5m & D0 = 1.643, what will be its
effective area?
a. 0.032 m2
b. 0.047 m2
c. 0.65 m2
d. 0.99 m2
ANSWER: 0.032 m2
54) Dipole antenna is symmetrical in nature where the two ends are at equal potentials
with respect to point
a. Initial
b. Eventual
c. Mid
ANSWER: Mid
55) Which term is regarded as an inductive field as it is predictable from Biot Savart law
& considered to be of prime importance at near field or the distance close to current
element?
a. 1/ r
b. 1/ r2
c. 1/ r3
d. 1/ r4
ANSWER: 1/ r2
56) What is the nature of current distribution over the small dipoles?
a. Spherical
b. Rectangular
c. Triangular
d. Square
ANSWER: Triangular
57) For receiving a particular frequency signal, which tuning component must be used by
the loop to form a resonant circuit for tuning to that frequency?
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Resistor
d. Gyrator
ANSWER: Capacitor
58) If the radius of loop is λ/ 20 in a free space medium,what will be the radiation
resistance of 8-turn small circular loop?
a. 0.7883 Ω
b. 50.45 Ω
c. 123.17 Ω
d. 190.01 Ω
ANSWER: 123.17 Ω
59) What is the far-field position of an electric short dipole?
a. Along x-axis
b. Along y-axis
c. Along z-axis
d. Along xy plane
ANSWER: Along z-axis
60) What would happen if the rms value of induced emf in loop acquires an angle θ = 90°?
a. Wave is incident in direction of plane of the loop with induced maximum voltage
b. Wave is incident normal to plane of the loop with no induced voltage
c. Wave is incident in opposite direction of plane of the loop with minimum voltage
ANSWER: Wave is incident normal to plane of the loop with no induced voltage
61) If a linear uniform array consists of 9 isotropic elements separated by λ/4, what would
be the directivity of a broadside array in dB?
a. 6.53 dB
b. 7.99 dB
c. 8.55 dB
d. 9.02 dB
ANSWER: 6.53 dB
62) If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many shape patterns are
generated with no minor lobes?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
ANSWER: 8
63) What kind of beamwidth is/are produced by Chebyshev arrays for given side lobe
level (SLL)?
a. Widest
b. Narrowest
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Narrowest
64) If the length of elements of an array is greater than λ/2, which will be the operating
region of an array?
a. Transmission line region

b. Active region
c. Reflective region
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Reflective region
65) Which angle of rhombic antenna represents one half of included angle of two legs of
one wire?
a. Apex angle
b. Tilt angle
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Tilt angle
66) Which among the following is not a disadvantage of rhombic antenna?
a. Requirement of large space

b. Reduced transmission efficiency
c. Maximum radiated power along main axis
d. Wastage of power in terminating resistor
ANSWER: Maximum radiated power along main axis
67) Why are beverage antennas not used as transmitting antenna?
a. Low radiation resistance

b. Low radiation efficiency
c. Both a and b
68) Which kind of polarization is provided by helical antennas?
a. Plane
b. Elliptical
c. Circular
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Circular
69) According to depth of penetration, what is the percentage proportion of attenuated

wave w.r.t its original value?
a. 17%
b. 27%
c. 37%
d. 57%
ANSWER: 37%
70) Linear polarization can be obtained only if the wave consists of
a. Ex
b. Ey
c. Both Ex & Ey & in phase
d. Both Ex & Ey & out of phase
ANSWER: Both Ex & Ey & in phase
71) When an electromagnetic wave travels from transmitter to receiver, which factor/s
affect/s the propagation level?
a. Curvature of earth
b. Roughness of earth
c. Magnetic field of earth
d. All of the above
72) For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less is the
a. Attenuation
b. Phase velocity
c. Propagation constant
d. Tilt angle
ANSWER: Attenuation
73) On which factors of earth does the magnitude of tilt angle depend in surface wave?
A. Permittivity
B. Conductivity
C. Resistivity
D. Reflectivity
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: A & B
74) What is the direction of varying orientation of polarized surface wave at the earth
surface in a wave tilt mechanism?
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Diagonal
d. Opposite
ANSWER: Vertical
75) Which layer has the atmospheric conditions exactly opposite to that of standard
atmosphere?
a. Depression layer
b. Regression layer
c. Inversion layer
d. Invasion layer
ANSWER: Inversion layer
76) If the maximum electron density for F-layer in ionosphere is 4 x 106 electrons/cm3,
then what will be the critical frequency of EM wave for F-layer?
a. 4 MHz
b. 9 MHz
c. 18 MHz
d. 25 MHz
ANSWER: 18 MHz
77) According to Secant law, which frequency is greater than critical frequency by a
factor of secθi?
a. MUF
b. LUF
c. OWF
d. UHF
ANSWER: MUF
78) How is the effect of selective fading reduced?
A. By high carrier reception

B. By low carrier reception
C. By single side band system
D. By double side band system
a. A & C
b. B & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: A & C
79) In lens antenna, what kind of wave energy is transformed into plane waves?
a. Convergent
b. Divergent
c. Contingent
d. Congruent
ANSWER: Divergent
80) What is the functioning role of an antenna in receiving mode?
a. Radiator
b. Converter
c. Sensor
d. Inverter
ANSWER: Sensor
81) In radio communication link, what is the shape/nature of waves generated by

transmitting antenna?
a. Spherical
b. Plane
c. Triangular
d. Square
ANSWER: Spherical
82) Which among the following elucidate the generation of electromagnetic waves?
A. Ampere’s law
B. Faraday’s law
C. Gauss’s law
D. Kirchoff’s law
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: A & B
83) If an antenna draws 12 A current and radiates 4 kW, then what will be its radiation
resistance?
a. 22.22 ohm
b. 27.77 ohm
c. 33.33 ohm
d. 39.77 ohm
ANSWER: 27.77 ohm
84) Under which conditions of two unit vectors, the polarization loss factor (PLF) is equal
to unity?
a. Perpendicular
b. Perfectly aligned
c. Angle inclination (Ψp)
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Perfectly aligned

85) Which property/ies of antenna is/are likely to be evidenced in accordance to
Reciprocity theorem?
a. Equality of impedances
b. Equality of directional patterns
c. Equality of effective lengths
d. All of the above
86) Self impedance of an antenna is basically _
a. Its input impedance during the removal of all other antennas

b. Its impedance by taking into consideration the consequences of other antennas
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Its input impedance during the removal of all other antennas
87) In solution evaluation process of inhomogeneous vector potential wave equation, if

points are completely removed from the source, then by which factor does the time varying
field & static solution differ?
a. e-jkr
b. ejkr
c. e-jk/r
d. e(jk + r)
ANSWER: e-jkr
88) The concept of magnetic vector potential finds its major application in deriving
expression of magnetic field intensity especially for
a. Real fields
b. Imaginary fields
c. Complex fields
ANSWER: Complex fields
89) A dipole carries r.m.s. current of about 300A across the radiation resistance 2 Ω.
What would be the power radiated by an antenna?
a. 90 kW
b. 135 kW
c. 180 kW
d. 200 kW
ANSWER: 180 kW
90) What is/are the major applications of an infinitesimal dipole that contribute/s to its
analysis?
a. Field pattern estimation due to any length of antenna

b. Improvement in radiation resistance by increasing dipole length
c. Both a and b
91) What is /are the advantages of using ferrite loops?
A. Increase in Magnetic field intensity

B. Increase in radiation resistance
C. Decrease in Magnetic field intensity
D. Decrease in radiation resistance
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: A & B
92) In an electrically large loop, an overall length of the loop is equal to
a. λ/2
b. λ
c. λ/10
d. λ/50
ANSWER: λ
93) How do the elements of an active region behave?
a. Inductive
b. Capacitive
c. Resistive
ANSWER: Resistive
94) By how many times is an input impedance of a folded dipole at resonance greater than
that of an isolated dipole with same length as one of its sides?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
ANSWER: 4
95) Which mode of radiation occurs in an helical antenna due to smaller dimensions of
helix as compared to a wavelength?
a. Normal
b. Axial
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Normal
96) A rectangular horn antenna operating at 4GHz has the wavelength of 0.075m and gain
of about 13dBi. What will be its required capture area?
a. 0.0149 m2
b. 0.0475 m2
c. 0.5521 m2
d. 0.9732 m2
ANSWER: 0.0149 m2

a. Spherical
b. Dough-nut
c. Elliptical
d. Hyperbolic
ANSWER: Spherical
excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum
radiation.
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Voltage
ANSWER: Phase
a. α < βd
b. α > βd
c. α = ±βd
d. α ≠ ±βd
ANSWER: α = ±βd
a. Ionospheric
b. Ground wave
c. Tropospheric
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Ionospheric
a. VHF
b. SHF
c. UHF
d. All of the above
it?
a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Series
then on which factor/s would the voltage across the
insulator depend?
c. Both a and b
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
d. All of the above
media?
a. Maxwell’s
b. Lorentz
c. Helmholtz
d. Poisson’s
ANSWER: Helmholtz
a. Surface wave
b. Space wave
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Space wave
b. Refraction
c. Defraction
d. All of the above
a. Towards
b. Away
c. Across
d. Beside
ANSWER: Away
110) Which mechanism/s is/are likely to occur in mid-frequency operation corresponding to
ionospheric region?
a. Only Reflection
b. Only Refraction
a. Ions
a. Linear
b. Loop
c. Helical
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Linear
applications?
a. Aperture
b. Microstrip
c. Array
d. Lens
ANSWER: Microstrip
c. Both a and b
b. Fresnel region
d. All of the above
116) The vector magnetic potential shows the inverse relationship with its
a. Source
----
c. Both a and b
117) In the olutions of inhomogeneous vector potential wave equation, which
component exists if the source is at origin and the points are removed
from the source (Jz = 0)?
a. Inward
b. Outward
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Outward
effective area?
a. 0.032 m2
b. 0.047 m2
c. 0.65 m2
d. 0.99 m2
ANSWER: 0.032 m2
a. Spherical
b. Rectangular
c. Triangular
d. Square
ANSWER: Triangular
120) For receiving a particular frequency signal, which tuning component must be
used by the loop to form a resonant circuit for tuning to that
frequency?
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Resistor
d. Gyrator
ANSWER: Capacitor
121) If the radius of loop is λ/ 20 in a free space medium,what will be the
radiation resistance of 8-turn small circular loop?
a. 0.7883 Ω
b. 50.45 Ω
c. 123.17 Ω
d. 190.01 Ω
ANSWER: 123.17 Ω
a. Along x-axis
b. Along y-axis
c. Along z-axis
d. Along xy plane
124) If a linear uniform array consists of 9 isotropic elements separated by λ/4, what
would be the directivity of a broadside array in dB?
a. 6.53 dB
b. 7.99 dB
c. 8.55 dB
d. 9.02 dB
ANSWER: 6.53 dB
125) If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many shape
patterns are generated with no minor lobes?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
ANSWER: 8
126) What kind of beamwidth is/are produced by Chebyshev arrays for given side lobe level
(SLL)?
a. Widest
b. Narrowest
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Narrowest
region of an array?
b. Active region
d. All of the above
128) According to Siegel and Labus, antennas can be treated as
(A) Earthed transmission line

(B) Closed transmission line
(C) Opened out transmission line
(D) Shorted transmission line
ANSWER: Opened out transmission line
129)Triatics are
(A) Supports for antenna conductors

(B) Small height antennas directly mounted on ship, jeeps etc.
(C) The towers or masts, which are used as radiators
(D) The towers or masts, which are not used as radiators
ANSWER: The towers or masts, which are not used as radiators

130) Which one of the following statement is true for log periodic antenna?
(A) Frequency dependent antenna

(B) Frequency independent antenna
(C) Directional antenna
(D) None of the above
ANSWER: Frequency independent antenna
131) Let the directivity of a microwave antenna be 900. The maximum effective aperture will
be
(A) 716.19 λ ²
(B) 71.619 λ ²
(C) 7.1619 λ ²
(D) 71619 λ ²
ANSWER: 71.619 λ ²
132) Circular polarization is formed in
(A) Helical antenna

(B) Yagi-Uda antenna
(C) Parabolic antenna
(D) Dipole antenna
ANSWER: Helical antenna

133) Consider a vertical earthed antenna. This antenna will be resonant when its physical
height will be
(A) λ / 4
(B) λ
(C) λ / 2
(D) 2 λ
ANSWER: λ / 4
134) In loop antennas the radiation pattern formed is
(A) Semicircle
(B) Circle
(C) Cardiod
ANSWER: Cardiod
135) Which of the following statement is true for bandwidth of an antenna?
(A) Inversely proportional to 1 / Q²

(B) Directly proportional to Q²
(C) Directly proportional to Q
(D) Inversely proportional to Q
ANSWER: Inversely proportional to Q
136) What should be the height of an antenna in order to consider it to be in free space?
(A) 2λ
(B) > 5λ
(C) < 3λ
(D) λ
ANSWER: > 5λ
137) Radiation efficiency of an antenna is given by

(A) Directivity / Maximum power gain
(B) Maximum power gain / Directivity
(C) Radiation resistance / Antenna resistance
(D) Antenna resistance / Radiation resistance
ANSWER: Radiation resistance / Antenna resistance
138) For Yagi-Uda array the term that is not applicable is

(A) Good bandwidth
(B) High gain
(C) Folded dipole
(D) Parasitic elements
ANSWER: High gain
139) Consider a pyramidal horn antenna whose mouth height is 10λ. Horn is fed by a
rectangular waveguide with TE?? mode. The length of an antenna will be
(A) 62.5 λ
(B) 12.5 λ
(C) 5 λ
(D) 42.5 λ
ANSWER: 62.5 λ
140) The crossed dipoles in a turnstile antenna are excited with voltages
(A) In phase with each other
(B) 180° out of phase with each other
(C) 120° out of phase with each other
(D) 90° out of phase with each other
ANSWER: 90° out of phase with each other
141) The effect of skip distance in frequency is
(A) It decreases with increase in frequency
(B) It increases with increase in frequency
(C) It increases with decrease in frequency
(D) It decreases with decrease in frequency
ANSWER: It increases with increase in frequency
142) The electromagnetic waves get absorbed in the atmosphere. The absorption of
electromagnetic waves mainly depends on
(A) Distance from the transmitter
(B) The polarization of waves
(C) The frequency in use
(D) All of the above
ANSWER: The frequency in use
143) The critical frequency of a wave is 30 MHz and departing angle is 60°. The MUF is
given to be
(A) 60 MHz
(B) 15 MHz
(C) 120 MHz
(D) 30 MHz
ANSWER: 60 MHz
144) The frequency for satellite communication should be

(A) More than the critical frequency
(B) Less than the critical frequency
(C) Equal to the critical frequency
ANSWER: More than the critical frequency
145) The fluctuation in the received signal strength at the receiver or a random variation in
the received signal is known as
(A) Absorption
(B) Cycling
(C) Fluctuation
(D) Fading
ANSWER: Fading
146) is not between F2 layer and D layer

(A) G region
(B) E layer
(C) F1 layer
ANSWER: G region
147) The abnormal variation in ionosphere is

(A) Ionospheric storm
(B) Seasonal variation
(C) Diurnal variation
ANSWER: Ionospheric storm
148) As one moves away from the transmitter, the ground waves eventually disappears
because of
(A) Maximum single hop distance limitation
(B) Loss of line-of-sight condition
(C) Tilting
(D) Interference from the sky waves
ANSWER: Tilting
a. Induced
b. Radiated
c. Reflected
d. Far-field
ANSWER: Induced
150) Which auxiliary functions assist in solving the radiation problem by evaluation of E &
H using sources J & M?
a. Scalar potentials
b. Vector potentials
c. Gradient potentials
d. Divergence potentials
ANSWER: Vector potentials

ECE Objective Questions { Antenna }
Home (/index.php) // Electronics and Communication Engineering (Electronics-and-
Communication-Engineernig.php) // Antenna
1. The number of lobes on each side of a 3 X resonant antenna is
A.3
B.6
C.2
D.1
Answer => A Discuss in Forum
2. A quarter-wave monopole at a frequency of one MHz has a length of

metre.
A.1
B.75
C.150
D.300
Answer => B Discuss in Forum
3. A parasitic element of an array is one which
A. is directly connected to the transmitter output

B. is spaced X18 from driven element
C. increases signal strength in its own direction
D. acts as a reflector or director depending on whether it is longer or shorter than the
driven element
Answer => D Discuss in Forum
4. A half-wave dipole at a frequency of 100 MHz has a length of metre.
A.100
B.3
C.1.5
D.0.75
Answer => C Discuss in Forum
5. Which statement regarding end-fire array is wrong?
A. there is no radiation at right angles to the plane of the array

B. it has a dipole spacing of X/2
C. it is called a linear resonant dipole array
D. it has narrow bandwidth
6. Radiation resistance of a half-wave folded dipole is ohm.
A.72
B.144
C.288
D.216
7. Which statement ragarding the Yagi-Uda antenna is wrong?
A. it is an array consisting of a driven element and parasitic elements arranged

collinearly and closely
B. it has extremely high gain
C. it has a folded dipole as the driven element
D. it is often employed as VHF television receiving antenna
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8. Antennas commonly used for microwave links are
A. loop antennas
B. log-periodic antennas
C. paraboloidal dishes
D. rhombic antennas
9. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of
A. polystyrene
B. glass of low refractive index
C. paraboloid surfaces
D. dielectric media having large refractive index
10. The radiation field of an antenna varies as
A.7.2
B. ?r
C.1
D. None of the above
11. A parabolic antenna is commonly used at
A. 500 kHz
B. 50 MHz
C. 5000 MHz
D. 50 Hz
12. A loop antenna is commonly used for
A. radar
B. direction finding
C. satellite communication
D. aeronautical Engg.
13. Which one of the following is a low-gain but omnidirectional antenna?
A. discone
B. log-periodic
C. loop
D. helical
14. Which one of the following is not a wide-band antenna?
A. Marconi
B. hehcal
C. rhombic
D. folded dipole
Page 2 of 20
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1 (/Electronics-and-Communication/Antenna.php?pn=1) 2
15. Top-loading is sometimes used with an antenna is order to
A. decrease its input impedance

B. increase its height
C. decrease its radiation resistance
D. increase its effective height
16. One of the main reasons why dielectric lens antennas are preferred to
parabolic reflector is that they
A. have no primary antenna mount to obstruct radiations

B. can be zoned to reduce weight
C. have low dielectric losses
D. have large frequency range
17. The radiation pattern of a parabolic antenna is
A. omni-directional
B. a figure of eight
C. highly directional
18. Which of the following term does not apply to a discone antenna?
A. broadband
B. unidirectional
C. omnidirectional
D. constant-angle
19. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to

the dipole is a
A. null
B. circle
C. figure of eight
D. none of the above
20. Consider an isotropic radiator radiating a power of 1 watt. At a

distance of 1 metre, the power per unit area will equal W/m2.
A.1
B. 4n
C. 1/4n
D. 2n
21. A Yagi antenna is used for
A. very large bandwidth

B. high forward gain
C. omnidirectional gain
D. All the above
Page 3 of 20
22. Broadcasting antennas are generally type
A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. either of the above
23. Parabolic and lens antennas are extensively used for
A. shortwaves
B. microwaves
C. medium frequency waves
D. all of the above
24. The television receiver antennas are usually
A. parabolic dish type

B. helical antennas
C. dipoles
25. The radiation pattern of parabolic antenna is
A. a figure of eight
B. highly directional
C. omni-directional
26. The radiation pattern of loop antenna is
A. cardiod
B. circle
C. semi-circle
27. A helical antenna produces radiation which is
A. circularly-polarised
B. omni-directional
28. Regarding Yagi-uda antenna which of the following statements is

incorrect?
A. It has a folded dipole as the driven element

B. It has extremely high gain
C. It is often employed as VHF television receiving antenna
D. It is an array consisting of a driven element and parasitic elements arranged
collinearly and closely
Page 4 of 20
29. An antenna above its critical frequency is
A. resistive
B. capacitive
C. inductive
D. any of the above
30. Forantenna, the length is X14.
A. Hertz
B. Dipole
C. Marconi
D. Discone
31. Microwave signals transmitted towards the sky are
A. unable to reach the ionosphere because of strong absorption in the lower

atmosphere
B. strongly reflected by the ionosphere
C. strongly absorbed by the ionosphere
D. transmitted through the ionosphere
32. Anomalous propagation is caused by which of the following?
A. Troposcatter
B. Super-refractive duct
C. Metereological factors
33. For antenna the length is X/2.
A. Monopole
B. Hertz
C. Discone
34. A rhombic antenna is a
A. resonant antenna
B. non-resonant antenna
35. The bandwidth of a parabolic dish antenna
A. is independent of the dish diameter

B. decreases with decrease in the dish diameter
C. decreases with increase in the dish diameter
Page 5 of 20
36. Fading in ship to ship communication can be reduced by using which

of the following?
A. Space diversity
B. Frequency diversity A more directional antenna
C. A broad band antenna
D.
37. In a turnstile antenna, the crossed dipoles are excited with voltages
A. in phase with each other

B. 45? out of phase with each other
C. 60? out of phase with each other
D. 90? out of phase with each other
38. In which of the following short-term fading is commonly observed?
A. Troposcatter communication
B. Ground wave propagation
C. Satellite communication
D. All of the above
39. For a satellite tracking at VHF, helical antenna is often used because
of
A. Faraday effect
B. super refraction
C. ionospheric refraction
D. troposcatter
40. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the

atmosphere than the others is called
A. a window
B. a critical frequency
C. a resonance is the atmosphere
D. a gyro-frequency range
41. Waveguide feeders are pressurised to
A. detect faults
B. reduce noise
C. reduce loss
D. prevent ingress of moisture
42. In a wave guide the angle between electric and magnetic fields is
A. 0?
B. 45?
C. 90?
D. 180?
Page 6 of 20
43. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
A. maneuverability
B. good front-to-back ratio
C. broad bandwidth
D. circular polarization
44. For the same size of antenna dish more gain will be provided at
A. 4 MHz
B. 6 MHz
C. 12 MHz
D. 16 MHz
45. The attenuation in waveguides near the cut off frequency is
A. zero
B. very low
C. very high
D. infinite
46. antenna is best excited from a wave guide.
A. Discone
B. Helical
C. Biconical
D. Horn
47. In which of the following fields application of the microwaves is the

largest?
A. Cooking
B. Research
C. Industrial heating
D. Communication
48. Lene antennas used for microwaves are usually made of
A. paraboloid surfaces
B. polystyrene
C. dielectric media having large refreactive index
D. glass of low refractive index
49. A duplexer is used to
A. connect a receiver and a transmitter to the same antenna

B. connect two transmitters to the same antenna
C. feed more than one receiver from a signal antenna
Page 7 of 20
50. Which of the following is not a reason for the use of antenna coupler?
A. To discriminate against harmonics

B. To make the antenna link resistive
C. To prevent reradiation of the local oscillator
D. To provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedances
51. An antenna is synonymous to which of the following ?
A. Transformer
B. Reflector
C. Regulator
D. Generator
52. Waveguides are generally used above
A. 200 MHz
B. 600 MHz
C. 1000 MHz
D. 200 GHz
53. Which of the following is an essential condition for antenna array to

be linear?
A. Any two individual antennas of the array must not be in the same direction
B. Individual antennas of the array must be of equal size
C. Individual antennas of the array must be equally spaced along a straight line
54. constitute the loss resistance of an antenna.
A. Loss in earth connections

B.(d) Dielectric loss
C. Leakage loss in insulation
D. All of the above
55. Which of the following antennas are commonly used for microwave

links?
A. Rhombic antennas
B. Loop antennas
C. Log periodic antennas
D. Parabolloidal dishes
56. A log periodic antenna is a antenna.
A. directional
B. frequency dependent
C. frequency independent
Page 8 of 20
57. can make the antenna electrically longer.
A. Vertical polarization
B. Capacitive top loading
C. Series capacitor
D. All of the above
58. The bandwidth of an antenna is
A. directly proportional to Q2
B. directly proportional to Q
C. inversely proportional to Q
D. inversely proportional to 1/Q3
59. With reference to ?Triatics' which of the following statements is

correct?
A. These are supports for antenna conductors

B. These are the towers or masts which are not used as radiators
C. These are small height antennas directly mounted on jeeps, ships etc.
D. none of these
60. An antenna coupler is used due to all of the following reasons except
to
A. discriminate against harmonics

B. provide the output amplifier with correct load impedance
C. prevent reradiation of the local oscillator
D. make the antenna look resistive
61. The gain of an isotropic antenna is
A. 2 db
B. 5 db
C. 10 db
D. 15 db
62. antenna is the standard reference antenna for the directiveness.
A. Isotropic
B.Elementry doublet
C. Rhombic
D. Half-wave dipole
63. An earthmat is used with antennas due to all the following reasons
except
A. improvement of the radiation patternof the antenna

B. provision of an earth for the antenna
C. protection of personnel working underneath
D. impossibility of good ground connection
Page 9 of 20
64. An antenna is a device
A. that converts electromagnetic energy into an RF signal

B. that converts RF signal into electromagnetic energy
C. that converts guided electomagnetic waves into free space electromagnetic waves
and vice versa
D. none of these
65. The directive gain of antenna is defined as the
A. ratio of the average radiated power to the radiated power in a given direction
B. ratio of the radiation intensity in a given direction to that of the radiation intensity in
the same direction due to a hypothetical isotropic radiator that radiates the same total
power
C. ratio of the radiation intensity in a given direction due to a hypothetical isotropic
radiator to the radiation intensity in the the samedirection due to the actual antenna
D. none of these
66. Directivity of an antenna is
A. same as its directive gain

B. directive gain expressed in decibels
C. the maximum value of its directive gain
D. none of these

67. An antenna having a higher 'Q' has
A. a higher bandwidth structure of horizontally polarised electromagnetic waves

B.vertically polarised electromagnetic waves
C.circularly polarised electromagnetic waves
D. none of these
68. Refer to the antenna Fig. 13.1. It is
A. a log-periodic antenna
B. a driven array
C. a broadside parasitic array
D. Yagi-antenna
69. an antenna placed in the horizontal plane produces
A. horizontally polarised electromagnetic waves

B.verticallypolarised electromagnetic waves
C. elliptically polarised electromagnetic waves
D. none of these
70. A Yagi antenna in the horizontal plane produces
A. an end fire directional pattern

B. a broadside directional pattern
C. a figure eight directional pattern
D. none of these
Page 10 of 20
71. A seven element parasitic array of the Yagi type to be used as a TV

receiving antenna would preferably have
A. two dipoles, three reflectors and two directors

B. two dipoles, four directors and one reflector
C. one dipole, four directors and two reflectors
D. one dipole, five directors and one reflector
72. Most commonly used antenna type with TV receivers is the
A. V-antenna
B. rhombic antenna
C. loop antenna
D. yagi antenna
73. Electrical length or effective length of an antenna is
A. same as its physical length

B. greater than its physical length
C. smaller than its physical length
D. none of these
74. An added capacitance
A. increases the effective length of the angenna

B. decreases the effective length of the antenna
C. has no effect on antenna's length
D. none of these
75. An added inductance
A. decreases the resonant frequency of the antenna

B. increases the resonant frequency of the antenna
C. compensates for parasitic capacitances
D. none of these
76. An antenna to be used for a band of frequencies from 60 to 65 MHz

was designed for 65 MHz. The tuning element required is
A. a variable inductance
B. a variable capacitance
C. a fixed capacitance
D. none of these
77. Gain of a non-resonant V-antenna is
A. same as that of a non-resonant rhombic antenna

B. less than that of a non-resonant rhombic antenna
C. greater than that of a non-resonant rhombic antenna
D. none of these
Page 11 of 20
78. AV-antenna consists of
A. two wires with an apex angle of 45?

B. two (X/2) long wires with an apex angle of 45?
C. two (V4) long wires with an apex angle of 45?
D. none of these
79. One of the following is an non-resonant antenni
A. The folded dipole

B. The endfire array
C. The broadside array
D. The rhombic antenna
80. One of the following antenna types is best excited from a waveguide
A. Horn antenna
B. Helical antenna
C. Biconical antenna
D. Log-periodic antenna
81. Top loading is used with antennas to
A. increase the effective height

B. reduce the effective height
C. increase the bandwidth
D. increase the input capacitance
82. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
A. large bandwidth
B. large gain
C. circular polarization
D. maneuverability
83. The antenna of Fig. 13.2(a) produces
A. horizontal polarised waves

B. circularly polarised waves
C. vertically polarised waves
D. none of these
84. Fig. 13.3 shows the power densit radiation pattern of a certain

antenna. The beamwidth of the antenna is
A.an upper bandwidth
B. a lower bandwidth
C. a flat response
D. none of these
Page 12 of 20
85. A non-resonant antenna is characterized bY
A. antenna being terminated in a resistance

B. the presence of only the forward travelling wave and absence of standing waves
C. a unidirectional radiation pattern
D. (a), (b) and (c)
86. A resonant antenna is characterised by
A. the presence of standing waves

B. a unidirectional, highly directional radiation pattern
C. a bidirectional radiation pattern
D. (a) and (c)
87. One of the following antennas can be used for direction finding
A. Half wave dipole

B. Loop antenna
C. Broadside antenna array
D. End fire antenna array
88. Microwave antennas have
A. high gain
B. high front to back ratio
C. high input impedance
D. low input impedance
89. An antenna that radiates 5 kW in its optimum direction and 50 watts in

the opposite direction has a front to back ratio of
A. 20 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 10 dB
D. none of these
90. A resonant antenna is a system with
A. zero SWR
B. a very high SWR
C. a very low SWR
D. none of these
91. Most of the man made noise has
A. circular polarization
B. horizontal polarization
C. vertical polarization
D. elliptic polarisation
Page 13 of 20
92. That portion of a plane near the antenna, Perpendicular to the

direction of radiation, through which major part of radiation passes is
called
A. near field region

B. antenna aperature
C. effective antenna diameter
D. effective radiating area
93. The region of the field of antenna where the angular field distribution
is essentially independent of radial distance from the antenna is called the
A. near field region

B. induction field region
C. crossover region
D. far field region
94. According to Siegel and Labus, antenna can be treated as
A. closed transmission line

B. shorted transmission line
C. earthed transmission line
D. opened-out transmission line

95. A radio antenna 1 cm diameter conductor is stretched horizontally 10
meres above the ground. The capacitance of antenna per unit length
neglecting end effects will be nearly
A. 0.67 pF
B. 6.7 pF
C. 6.7 RF
D. 67 tF
96. The directive gain of an antenna is given by
A. 20?
B.(c) 60?
C. (b) 40?
D. 30?
97. In case of antenna the ratio of the power radiated in the desired
direction to the power radiated in the opposite direction is known as
A. transmission efficiency
B. front to back ratio
C. loss coefficieny
98. Front to back ratio can be increased by
A. sacrificing gain
B. increasing size of conductor
C. using materials of high conductivity
D. all of the above
Page 14 of 20
99. The maximum effective aperture of a short dipole is nearly
A. 0.00119 X.2
B.0.0119 X2
C.0.119 X2
D. 1.19 X2
100. The maximum effective aperture of a microwave antenna which has a

directivity of 900, wil be
A.71.619 X2
B.716.19X2
C.7161.9 X2
D.71619 X2
101. The gain of an antenna with a circular aperture of diameter 3 metres

at a frequency of 5 GHz, will be
A.2.4674
B.24.674
C.246.74
D.24674

102. The radiation resistance of a ?16 wire dipole in free space will be
nearly
A.1 SI
B.3 n
C. 13 SZ
D. 30 SI
103. The total field produced by an antenna array system at a great

distance from it is
A. sum of the fields produced by the individual antennas of the array system
B. directional gain of antenna
C. linear antenna gain
D. vector sum of the fields produced by the individual antennas of the array system.
104. A broad side array is shown in Fig. 13.4 in which the elements are
placed at equal distancdes. The direction of maximum radiation is
represented by
A. AA
B. BB
C. CC
D.DD
105. The radiation pattern of two element collinear array is represented in
A. figure A
B. figure B
C. figure C
D. figure D
Page 15 of 20
106. In binomial arrays the elimination of secondary lobes takes place
A. at the cost of directivity

B. at the cost of gain
C. both (a) and (b) above
107. The transmitting antennas for lower frequencies (below 500 kHz) are
generally
A. vertically grounded wire type

B. horizontal suspended wire type
C. parabolic reflector type
D. any of the above
108. In Fig. 13.6 the voltage distribution on a vertical earthed antenna is

represened by
A. curve A
B. curve B
C. curve C
D. curve D
109. In the Fig. 13.6 the current distribution is represented by
A. curve A
B. curve B
C. curve C
D. curve D
110. When the height of a vertical earthed antenna is less than ?
A. the base input impedance will be capacitive

B. the base input impedance will be purely resistive
C. the base input impedance will be inductive
D. the base input impedance will be negligibly small
111. For VLF antennas radiation resistance is usually of the order of
A. less than one ohm

B. 13 to 20 ohms
C. around 100 ohms
D. more than 200 ohms
112. A folded dipole antenna is conveniently connected to
A. shielded line
B. two wire line
C. coaxial line
D. flat ribbon type transmission line
Page 16 of 20
113. Antenna radiation effeciency can be increased by
A. reducing radiation resistance of the system

B. increasing radiation resistance of the system
C. providing effective earthing
D. any of the above
114. The effective height of an antenna is slightly greater than physical

height because
A. wave velocity in conductor is less than its velocity in free space

B. wave velocity in conductor is more than its velocity in free space
C. resistance of conductor is less than that of free space
115. The advantage of Marconi antenna over the ungrounded antenna is

that
A. only one fourth of the height is required as compared to undergrounded antenna

B.one half of the height is required as compared to ungrounded antenna
C. no capacitance that is required
116. In series excitation of a tower antenna
A. voltage is applied between the upper part of the vertical radiator and tower is
insulated from ground
B.voltage is applied between the lower part of the vertical radiator and tower is
insulated from ground
C. voltage is applied only to the top T conductor and tower is insulated from ground.
117. Induction and radiation fields are equal at a distance equal to 6
A. 7,
B. 6 X
C.X
D.(c) ? 6
118. The effective length of a tower radiator is
A.2n
B. le =21
C. = it
119. Which of the following antenna is best guided by a waveguide?
A. Biconical
B. Horn
C. Helical
D. Discone
Page 17 of 20
120. Which antenna does not depend on frequency?
A. Yagi-Uda
B. Folded-dipole
C. Log periodic antenna
121. The parabolic and lens antennas are used extensively at
A. SW
B. MW
C. Microwaves
D. All of the above
122. The radiation pattern of helical antenna (axial mode) is represented

by
A. figure A
B. figure B
C. figure C
D. figure D
123. In E-plane metal plate lens antenna
A. travelling wave fronts are retarded

B. tavelling wave front are accelerated
C. travelling wave front remains unaffected
124. In H-plane metal plate lens the travelling wave front is
A. totally retarded
B. retarded
C. accelerated
D. neither accelerated nor retarded
125. Antenna radiation efficiency is given by Radiation resistance
A. Antenna resistance
B. Antenna resistance
C. Radiation resistance
D.Maximum power gain
126. Antenna aperture efficiency is given by
A. DX2
B.47cDX2
C. 47cA
D. 4nA
Page 18 of 20
127. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
A. reduce the size of the main reflector

B. increase the gain of the system
C. increase the beam width of the system
D. allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point
128. Zoning is used with adielectric antenna in order to
A. permit pin-point focusing

B. reduce the bulk of the lens
C. increase the bandwidth of the lens
D. correct the curvature of the wave front from a horn that is too short
129. The numbered statements at the left are to be matched with the

lettered statements at the right(1) Sky wave-(a) Parasitic element,(2)
Antenna feed-(b) Delta match,(3) Reflector-(c) Long-wire antenna,(4)
Rhombic antenna (d) Ionosphere Which of the following represents the
correct matching :
A. 1 ? a, 2 ? c, 3 ? d, 4 ? b
B. 1 ? b, 2 ? a, 3 ? d, 4 ? c
C. 1 ? c, 2 ? b, 3 ? c, 4 ? d
D. 1 ? d, 2 ? b, 3 ? a, 4 ? c

130. The null of a loop antenna occurs with
A. a broadside signal
B. a signal off the ends
C. either of (a) or (b) above
131. A half wave dipole has maximum response in
A. broadside direction
B. off the ends
C. either of (a) or (b) above
132. The night effect is most prominent in
A. adcock antenna
B. loop antenna
C. vertical antenna
133. Which of the following statement is true?
A. A parasitic reflector is in the front of the dipole

B. The director is always in the back of the dipole
C. A Yagi antenna uses a reflector and directors
D. A reflector cannot be used with a folded dipole
Page 19 of 20
134. The power gain of a half wave dipole with respect to an isotropic

radiator is
A. 1 db
B.2.15 db
C. 3 db
D. 6 db
135. The numbered statements at the left are to be matched with the

lettered statements at the right(1) Loop antenna (a) Flat line (2) Folded
dipole (b) 30011(3) SWR of 1(c) Sharp broad side full(4) VHF band (d) 30
to 300 MHz Which of the following represents the matching pairs?
A. 1 ? a, 2 ? b, 3 ? c, 4 ? d
B. 1 ? d, 2 ? c, 3 ? b, 4 ? a
C. 1 ? c, 2 ? b, 3 ? a, 4 ? d
D. 1 ? b, 2 ? c, 3 ? a, 4 ? d
136. The discone antenna is
A. a useful direction finding antenna

B. used as a radar receiving antenna
C. useful as a UHF receiving antenna
D. circular polarized like other circularly antenna

137. An antenna gain of four times in voltage is how many dB?
A. 4 db
B. 6db
C. 8 db
D. 12 db
138. The slotted waveguide antenna
A. has slots cut in the waveguides wall to disturb current

B. has slots cut in the waveguides wall that do not disturb current
C. can have slots cut only in the wide wall
D. can have slots cut only in the narrow wall.
139. Consider a lossless antenna with a directive gain of +6dB. If 1 mW of

power is fed to it the total power radiated by the antenna will be
A. 4 mW
B. 1 mW
C. 7 mW
D. 1/4 mW
140. A television receiving antenna that has to use two parasitic elements
in addition to the driven foldeddipole would preferrably use
A. 2 directors
B. 2 reflectors
C. one director and one reflector
D. none of these
Page 20 of 20
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Antenna and Wave Propagation Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
MCQ quiz on Antenna and Wave Propagation multiple choice questions and answers on antenna and wave propagation MCQ questions quiz on antenna and
wave propagation objectives questions with answer test pdf. Professionals, Teachers, Students and Kids Trivia Quizzes to test your knowledge on the
subject.
Antenna and Wave Propagation MCQ Questions and Answers Quiz
1. Antennas convert
A. Photons to electrons
B. electrons to photons
C. Both a and b 
D. none
Answer-1  Post-Your-Explanation-1
2. Radiation pattern is .............. dimensional quantity
A. Two
B. three 
C. Single
D. none
3. .............. is also called as 3-dB bandwidth
A. FNBW
B. HPBW 
C. Both a and b
D. none
4. Antennas are of .............. types
A. Two
B. four
C. Infinite 
https://www.objectivequiz.com/objective-questions/electronics/antenna-and-wave-propagation 1/8
D. none
5. Which of the following is true
A. Time changing current radiates

B. accelerated charges radiates
C. Both a and b 
D. none
6. One steradian is equal to .............. square degrees
A. 360
B. 180
C. 3283 
D. 41253
7. .............. is independent of distance
A. Poynting vector
B. radiation intensity 
C. Both a and b
D. none
8. The minimum value of the directivity of an antenna isâ€¦â€¦â€¦.
A. Unity 
B. zero
C. Infinite
D. none
9. Directivity is inversely proportional toâ€¦â€¦â€¦
A. HPBW
B. FNBW
C. Beam area 
D. Beam width
10. Gain is always .............. than directivity
A. Greater
B. lesser 
C. Equal to
D. none
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Objective Quiz
Healthy Mind

11. Directivity and Resolution are ..............
A. Different
B. same 
C. Both a and b
D. none
12. Effective aperture is always .............. than Physical aperture.
A. Higher
B. lower 
C. Both a and b
D. none
13. .............. Theorem can be applied to both circuit and field theories
A. Equality of patterns
B. Equality of impedance
C. Equality of effective lengths
D. Reciprocity theorem 
14. Antenna temperature considers .............. parameter into account
A. Directivity
B. gain 
C. Beam area
D. beam efficiency
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15. Radiation resistance of antenna is ..............
A. Physical resistance
B. Virtual Resistance 
C. Both a and b
D. none
16. Antenna aperture is same as ..............
A. Length
B. width
C. Area 
D. volume
17. The source of scalar potential is
A. Charge density 
B. Current density
C. Both a and b
D. none
18. The source of vector potential is
A. Charge density
B. Current density 
C. Both a and b
D. none
19. R/v is called ..............
A. Radiation to voltage ratio

B. resistance to velocity ratio
C. Propagation delay 
D. none
20. Which condition makes coupled equations into uncoupled equations
A. Retarded
B. Helmholtz
C. Lorentz gauge 
D. none
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Healthy Mind

21. Alternating current element is given by
A. I dl
B. I dl cos?t 
C. I dl sin?t
D. I
22. .............. potential is used to find the field components of current element
A. Scalar Potential, V
B. Vector Potential, A 
C. Both a and b
D. None
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Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Antenna & Wave Propagation
a. 1 m – 10 m
b. 1 cm – 10 cm
c. 10 cm – 1 m
d. 0.1 cm – 1 cm
a. SONAR
c. Radio navigation
d. Facsimile
ANSWER: Facsimile
3) Wave front is basically a locus of points acquiring similar
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. Wave equation
ANSWER: Phase
a. Sinusoidal
b. Rectangular
c. Square
d. Triangular
ANSWER: Sinusoidal
a. Solid bodies
d. All of the above
6) Power density is basically termed as power per unit area
a. Reflected
b. Refracted
c. Radiated
d. Diffracted
ANSWER: Radiated
a. β x (λ/2)
b. β / (λ/2)
c. β + (λ/2)
d. β – (λ/2)
ANSWER: β x (λ/2)
recombination rate?
a. D-region
b. Normal E-region
d. Appleton region
ANSWER: D-region
a. 20 km – 50 km
b. 45 km – 85 km
c. 90 km – 130 km
d. 140 km – 200 km
10) F2 layer of appleton region acts as a significant reflecting medium for frequency
radio waves
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. All of the above
ANSWER: High

c. Current density
d. Power density
12) According to Webster’s dictionary, what is an antenna?


d. All of the above
a. Minor lobe
b. Side lobe
c. Back lobe
ANSWER: Back lobe
a. 0° & 180°
b. 90° & 180°
c. 180° & 270°
d. 180° & 360°
ANSWER: 0° & 180°

a. Induced
b. Radiated
c. Reflected
d. Far-field
ANSWER: Induced
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Frequency
d. Phase
ANSWER: Current
wavelength?
a. l ≤ (λ /50)
b. (λ/50 ) < l ≤ (λ /10)
c. l = λ/2
20) In flared transmission line, the radiation phenomenon increases due to in
flaring
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stability
ANSWER: Increase
a. Field Pattern
b. Voltage Pattern
c. Power Pattern
d. All of the above
22) In an electrically small loops, the overall length of the loop is one-tenth of a
wavelength.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
ANSWER: Less than
a. Shape
b. Area
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Area
24) From the radiation point of view, small loops are radiators
a. Poor
b. Good
c. Better
d. Excellent
ANSWER: Poor
25) According to the directivity of a small loop, which value of ‘θ’ contributes to achieve
a. 0°
b. 90°
c. 180°
d. 270°
ANSWER: 90°
a. Linear
b. Planer
c. Conformal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Conformal
a. Spherical
b. Dough-nut
c. Elliptical
d. Hyperbolic
ANSWER: Spherical
excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum radiation.
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Voltage
ANSWER: Phase
a. α < βd
b. α > βd
c. α = ±βd
d. α ≠ ±βd
ANSWER: α = ±βd
a. Ionospheric
b. Ground wave
c. Tropospheric
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Ionospheric
a. VHF
b. SHF
c. UHF
d. All of the above
it?
a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Series

c. Both a and b
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
d. All of the above
media?
a. Maxwell’s
b. Lorentz
c. Helmholtz
d. Poisson’s
ANSWER: Helmholtz
x 106 t – 6x) azmA/m , what will be the wave velocity?
a. 1.047 x 106 m/s

b. 1.257 x 106 m/s
c. 2.50 x 106 m/s
d. 3 x 106 m/s
ANSWER: 1.047 x 106 m/s
37) In an electrical circuit, which nature of impedance causes the current & voltages in
phase?
a. Reactive
b. Resistive
c. Capacitive
d. Inductive
ANSWER: Resistive
a. Surface wave
b. Space wave
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Space wave

b. Refraction
c. Defraction
d. All of the above

d. All of the above
a. Towards
b. Away
c. Across
d. Beside
ANSWER: Away
42) Which mechanism/s is/are likely to occur in mid-frequency operation corresponding

to ionospheric region?
a. Only Reflection
b. Only Refraction
a. Ions
a. Linear
b. Loop
c. Helical
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Linear
applications?
a. Aperture
b. Microstrip
c. Array
d. Lens
ANSWER: Microstrip

c. Both a and b

b. Fresnel region
d. All of the above
48) Sterdian is a measurement unit of
a. Point angle
b. Linear angle
c. Plane angle
d. Solid angle
ANSWER: Solid angle
a. π/2
b. π
c. 2π
d. 4π
ANSWER: 4π
a. Source
c. Both a and b
equations?
a. R + c
b. R – c
c. R/c
d. R x c
ANSWER: R/c
a. Inward
b. Outward
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Outward
effective area?
a. 0.032 m2
b. 0.047 m2
c. 0.65 m2
d. 0.99 m2
ANSWER: 0.032 m2
with respect to point
a. Initial
b. Eventual
c. Mid
ANSWER: Mid
element?
a. 1/ r
b. 1/ r2
c. 1/ r3
d. 1/ r4
ANSWER: 1/ r2
a. Spherical
b. Rectangular
c. Triangular
d. Square
ANSWER: Triangular
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Resistor
d. Gyrator
ANSWER: Capacitor
a. 0.7883 Ω
b. 50.45 Ω
c. 123.17 Ω
d. 190.01 Ω
ANSWER: 123.17 Ω
a. Along x-axis
b. Along y-axis
c. Along z-axis
d. Along xy plane
a. 6.53 dB
b. 7.99 dB
c. 8.55 dB
d. 9.02 dB
ANSWER: 6.53 dB
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
ANSWER: 8
level (SLL)?
a. Widest
b. Narrowest
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Narrowest
region of an array?

b. Active region
d. All of the above
one wire?
a. Apex angle
b. Tilt angle
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Tilt angle


c. Both a and b
a. Plane
b. Elliptical
c. Circular
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Circular

a. 17%
b. 27%
c. 37%
d. 57%
ANSWER: 37%
70) Linear polarization can be obtained only if the wave consists of
a. Ex
b. Ey
d. All of the above
72) For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less is the
a. Attenuation
b. Phase velocity
d. Tilt angle
ANSWER: Attenuation
A. Permittivity
B. Conductivity
C. Resistivity
D. Reflectivity
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: A & B
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Diagonal
d. Opposite
ANSWER: Vertical
atmosphere?
a. Depression layer
b. Regression layer
c. Inversion layer
d. Invasion layer
76) If the maximum electron density for F-layer in ionosphere is 4 x 106 electrons/cm3,
then what will be the critical frequency of EM wave for F-layer?
a. 4 MHz
b. 9 MHz
c. 18 MHz
d. 25 MHz
ANSWER: 18 MHz
77) According to Secant law, which frequency is greater than critical frequency by a
factor of secθi?
a. MUF
b. LUF
c. OWF
d. UHF
ANSWER: MUF

a. A & C
b. B & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: A & C
a. Convergent
b. Divergent
c. Contingent
d. Congruent
ANSWER: Divergent
a. Radiator
b. Converter
c. Sensor
d. Inverter
ANSWER: Sensor

a. Spherical
b. Plane
c. Triangular
d. Square
ANSWER: Spherical
A. Ampere’s law
B. Faraday’s law
C. Gauss’s law
D. Kirchoff’s law
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: A & B
resistance?
a. 22.22 ohm
b. 27.77 ohm
c. 33.33 ohm
d. 39.77 ohm
ANSWER: 27.77 ohm
to unity?
a. Perpendicular
d. All of the above

d. All of the above
86) Self impedance of an antenna is basically _

c. Both a and b

a. e-jkr
b. ejkr
c. e-jk/r
d. e(jk + r)
ANSWER: e-jkr
expression of magnetic field intensity especially for
a. Real fields
b. Imaginary fields
c. Complex fields
89) A dipole carries r.m.s. current of about 300A across the radiation resistance 2 Ω.
a. 90 kW
b. 135 kW
c. 180 kW
d. 200 kW
ANSWER: 180 kW
analysis?

c. Both a and b

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: A & B
92) In an electrically large loop, an overall length of the loop is equal to
a. λ/2
b. λ
c. λ/10
d. λ/50
ANSWER: λ
a. Inductive
b. Capacitive
c. Resistive
ANSWER: Resistive
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
ANSWER: 4
a. Normal
b. Axial
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Normal
a. 0.0149 m2
b. 0.0475 m2
c. 0.5521 m2
d. 0.9732 m2
ANSWER: 0.0149 m2

a. Spherical
b. Dough-nut
c. Elliptical
d. Hyperbolic
ANSWER: Spherical
excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum
radiation.
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Voltage
ANSWER: Phase
a. α < βd
b. α > βd
c. α = ±βd
d. α ≠ ±βd
ANSWER: α = ±βd
a. Ionospheric
b. Ground wave
c. Tropospheric
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Ionospheric
a. VHF
b. SHF
c. UHF
d. All of the above
it?
a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Series
then on which factor/s would the voltage across the
insulator depend?
c. Both a and b
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
d. All of the above
media?
a. Maxwell’s
b. Lorentz
c. Helmholtz
d. Poisson’s
ANSWER: Helmholtz
a. Surface wave
b. Space wave
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Space wave
b. Refraction
c. Defraction
d. All of the above
a. Towards
b. Away
c. Across
d. Beside
ANSWER: Away
ionospheric region?
a. Only Reflection
b. Only Refraction
a. Ions
a. Linear
b. Loop
c. Helical
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Linear
applications?
a. Aperture
b. Microstrip
c. Array
d. Lens
ANSWER: Microstrip
c. Both a and b
b. Fresnel region
d. All of the above
a. Source
c. Both a and b
117) In the olutions of inhomogeneous vector potential wave equation, which
component exists if the source is at origin and the points are removed
from the source (Jz = 0)?
a. Inward
b. Outward
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Outward
effective area?
a. 0.032 m2
b. 0.047 m2
c. 0.65 m2
d. 0.99 m2
ANSWER: 0.032 m2
a. Spherical
b. Rectangular
c. Triangular
d. Square
ANSWER: Triangular
120) For receiving a particular frequency signal, which tuning component must be
used by the loop to form a resonant circuit for tuning to that
frequency?
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Resistor
d. Gyrator
ANSWER: Capacitor
121) If the radius of loop is λ/ 20 in a free space medium,what will be the
radiation resistance of 8-turn small circular loop?
a. 0.7883 Ω
b. 50.45 Ω
c. 123.17 Ω
d. 190.01 Ω
ANSWER: 123.17 Ω
a. Along x-axis
b. Along y-axis
c. Along z-axis
d. Along xy plane
124) If a linear uniform array consists of 9 isotropic elements separated by λ/4, what
would be the directivity of a broadside array in dB?
a. 6.53 dB
b. 7.99 dB
c. 8.55 dB
d. 9.02 dB
ANSWER: 6.53 dB
125) If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many shape
patterns are generated with no minor lobes?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
ANSWER: 8
126) What kind of beamwidth is/are produced by Chebyshev arrays for given side lobe level
(SLL)?
a. Widest
b. Narrowest
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Narrowest
region of an array?
b. Active region
d. All of the above
128) According to Siegel and Labus, antennas can be treated as
(A) Earthed transmission line

(B) Closed transmission line
(C) Opened out transmission line
(D) Shorted transmission line
ANSWER: Opened out transmission line
129)Triatics are
(A) Supports for antenna conductors

(B) Small height antennas directly mounted on ship, jeeps etc.
(C) The towers or masts, which are used as radiators
(D) The towers or masts, which are not used as radiators
ANSWER: The towers or masts, which are not used as radiators

130) Which one of the following statement is true for log periodic antenna?
(A) Frequency dependent antenna

(B) Frequency independent antenna
(C) Directional antenna
ANSWER: Frequency independent antenna
131) Let the directivity of a microwave antenna be 900. The maximum effective aperture will
be
(A) 716.19 λ ²
(B) 71.619 λ ²
(C) 7.1619 λ ²
(D) 71619 λ ²
ANSWER: 71.619 λ ²
132) Circular polarization is formed in
(A) Helical antenna

(B) Yagi-Uda antenna
(C) Parabolic antenna
(D) Dipole antenna
ANSWER: Helical antenna

133) Consider a vertical earthed antenna. This antenna will be resonant when its physical
height will be
(A) λ / 4
(B) λ
(C) λ / 2
(D) 2 λ
ANSWER: λ / 4
134) In loop antennas the radiation pattern formed is
(A) Semicircle
(B) Circle
(C) Cardiod
ANSWER: Cardiod
135) Which of the following statement is true for bandwidth of an antenna?
(A) Inversely proportional to 1 / Q²

(B) Directly proportional to Q²
(C) Directly proportional to Q
(D) Inversely proportional to Q
ANSWER: Inversely proportional to Q
136) What should be the height of an antenna in order to consider it to be in free space?
(A) 2λ
(B) > 5λ
(C) < 3λ
(D) λ
ANSWER: > 5λ
137) Radiation efficiency of an antenna is given by

(A) Directivity / Maximum power gain
(B) Maximum power gain / Directivity
(C) Radiation resistance / Antenna resistance
(D) Antenna resistance / Radiation resistance
ANSWER: Radiation resistance / Antenna resistance
138) For Yagi-Uda array the term that is not applicable is

(A) Good bandwidth
(B) High gain
(C) Folded dipole
(D) Parasitic elements
ANSWER: High gain
139) Consider a pyramidal horn antenna whose mouth height is 10λ. Horn is fed by a
rectangular waveguide with TE?? mode. The length of an antenna will be
(A) 62.5 λ
(B) 12.5 λ
(C) 5 λ
(D) 42.5 λ
ANSWER: 62.5 λ
140) The crossed dipoles in a turnstile antenna are excited with voltages
(A) In phase with each other
(B) 180° out of phase with each other
(C) 120° out of phase with each other
(D) 90° out of phase with each other
ANSWER: 90° out of phase with each other
141) The effect of skip distance in frequency is
(A) It decreases with increase in frequency
(B) It increases with increase in frequency
(C) It increases with decrease in frequency
(D) It decreases with decrease in frequency
ANSWER: It increases with increase in frequency
142) The electromagnetic waves get absorbed in the atmosphere. The absorption of
electromagnetic waves mainly depends on
(A) Distance from the transmitter
(B) The polarization of waves
(C) The frequency in use
ANSWER: The frequency in use
143) The critical frequency of a wave is 30 MHz and departing angle is 60°. The MUF is
given to be
(A) 60 MHz
(B) 15 MHz
(C) 120 MHz
(D) 30 MHz
ANSWER: 60 MHz
144) The frequency for satellite communication should be

(A) More than the critical frequency
(B) Less than the critical frequency
(C) Equal to the critical frequency
ANSWER: More than the critical frequency
145) The fluctuation in the received signal strength at the receiver or a random variation in
the received signal is known as
(A) Absorption
(B) Cycling
(C) Fluctuation
(D) Fading
ANSWER: Fading
146) is not between F2 layer and D layer

(A) G region
(B) E layer
(C) F1 layer
ANSWER: G region
147) The abnormal variation in ionosphere is

(A) Ionospheric storm
(B) Seasonal variation
(C) Diurnal variation
ANSWER: Ionospheric storm
148) As one moves away from the transmitter, the ground waves eventually disappears
because of
(A) Maximum single hop distance limitation
(B) Loss of line-of-sight condition
(C) Tilting
(D) Interference from the sky waves
ANSWER: Tilting
a. Induced
b. Radiated
c. Reflected
d. Far-field
ANSWER: Induced

ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION 2015
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

UNIT-1: ANTENNA BASICS
1. Antennas convert ----------------------to--------------------- [ ]
a) Photons to electrons b) electrons to photons
c) Both a and b d) none
2. Antennas are of -------------- types [ ]
a) Two b) four
c) Infinite d) none
3. Which of the following is true [ ]
a) Time changing current radiates b) accelerated charges radiates
4. Radiation pattern is ---------------- dimensional quantity [ ]
a) Two b) three
c) Single d) none
5. ------------- is also called as 3-dB bandwidth [ ]
a) FNBW b) HPBW
6. One steradian is equal to --------------- square degrees [ ]
a) 360 b) 180
c) 3283 d) 41,253
7. --------------is independent of distance [ ]
a) Poynting vector b) radiation intensity
8. The minimum value of the directivity of an antenna is………. [ ]
a) Unity b) zero
c) Infinite d) none
9. Directivity is inversely proportional to……… [ ]
a) HPBW b) FNBW
c) Beam area d) Beam width
10. Gain is always -------------than directivity [ ]
a) Greater b) lesser
c) Equal to d) none
11. Directivity and Resolution are------------ [ ]
a) Different b) same
12. Effective aperture is always ----------- than Physical aperture. [ ]
a) Higher b) lower
13. --------------Theorem can be applied to both circuit and field theories [ ]
a) Equality of patterns b) Equality of impedance
c) Equality of effective lengths d) Reciprocity theorem
14. Antenna temperature considers--------parameter into account [ ]
a) Directivity b) gain
c) Beam area d) beam efficiency
15. Radiation resistance of antenna is------------- [ ]
a) Physical resistance b) Virtual Resistance
UNIT WISE BIT BANK –K.RAVEENDRAM.Tech.,MISTE.,MISOI. Page 1

16. Antenna aperture is same as----------- [ ]
a) Length b) width
c) Area d) volume
17. The source of scalar potential is [ ]
a) Charge density b) Current density
18. The source of vector potential is [ ]
a) Charge density b) Current density
19. R/v is called------------- [ ]
a) Radiation to voltage ratio b) resistance to velocity ratio
c) Propagation delay d) none
20. Which condition makes coupled equations into uncoupled equations [ ]
a) Retarded b) Helmholtz
c) Lorentz gauge d) none
ANSWERS:
Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER
1 C 11 B
2 C 12 B
3 C 13 D
4 B 14 B
5 B 15 B
6 C 16 C
7 B 17 A
8 A 18 B
9 C 19 C
10 B 20 C


UNIT-2: THIN LINEAR WIRE ANTENNAS
1.Alternating current element is given by [ ]
a)I dl b) I dl cosωt
c) I dl sinωt d) I
2. ---------potential is used to find the field components of current element [ ]
a) Scalar Potential, V b) Vector Potential, A
c) Both a and b d) None
3. -------- is basic building block for any practical antenna [ ]
a) Current element b) Monopole
c) Dipole d) Loop
4. The HΦ Component will consists of----------field. [ ]
a) Radiation b) Induction
c) Both a and b d) All
5. The Eθ Component will consists of---------- [ ]
a) Radiation b) Induction
c) Electro static d) All
6. The Er Component will consists of---------- [ ]
a) Induction b) Electro static
c) Both a and b d) All
7. The induction and radiation fields of current element are equal at distance of ------ [ ]
a) λ/2 b) λ/4
c) λ/6 d) λ/10
8. The radiation resistance of current element is given by [ ]
a) Rr = 80П2(dl/λ)2 b) Rr = 20П2(dl/λ)2
2 2
c) Rr = 10П (dl/λ) d) None
9. The radiation resistance of short dipole is given by [ ]
a) Rr = 80П2(dl/λ)2 b) Rr = 20П2(dl/λ)2
2 2
10. The radiation resistance of short monopole is given by [ ]
a) Rr = 80П2(dl/λ)2 b) Rr = 20П2(dl/λ)2
2 2
TRUE OR FALSE QUESTIONS
11. The radiation resistance of current element is applicable to dipoles up to
height of λ/8 only. [ ]
12. The radiation resistance of current element is applicable to mono poles up to

height of λ/4 only. [ ]
13. The radiation resistance of current element is applicable to
dipoles up to height of λ/2 only. [ ]
14. The radiation resistance of λ/2 dipole is 36.5 Ω [ ]
15.The radiation resistance of λ/4 Monopole is 73 Ω [ ]

FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS

16. The Eθ Component of current element is given by------------
17. The Er Component of current element is given by------------
18. The HΦ Component of current element is given by------------
19. The main application of Loop Antenna is--------------------
20. The Directivity of Loop Antenna is --------------------
Q. No. ANSWER
16
17
18
19 Direction Finding
20 1.5


UNIT-3: ANTENNA ARRAYS
1. If the individual antennas of the array are spaced equally along a straight line.
Then It is ------------array. [ ]
a) Linear. b) Non-Linear.
c) Both a and b. d) None.
2. Linear array is a system of ------spaced elements. [ ]
a) Un equally. b) equally.
3. In a Uniform Linear array all elements are fed with a
current of ----------amplitude [ ]
a) Equal. b) Unequal.
4. In a Broad side array the radiation is along----------- [ ]
a) X-direction. b) Y-direction.
5. In a end- fire array the radiation is along ----------- [ ]
6. In increased end- fire array the radiation is along----------- [ ]
7. Which array is also called as Hansen-Woodyard array. [ ]
a) Broad side. b) End-fire.
c) Increased End-Fire . d) Binomial.
8. Which array is also called as Stone’s array. [ ]
a) Broad side. b) End-fire.
c) Increased End-Fire. d) Binomial.
9. Hansen-Wood yard array is a --------array [ ]
10. Stone’s array is a --------array [ ]
11. The radiation pattern of broad side is array is along the normal direction
Of array axis. [ ]
12. The Binomial array is a linear array. [ ]
13. All coefficients of elements in Binomial array are same [ ]
14.Minor lobes will exist in Linear antennas. [ ]
15. In resulatant or total radiation pattern The phases will be multiplied using
Multiplication of patterns Principle. [ ]


16. Hansen-Wood yard Array is a -----------------array.
17. The currents in Non linear are ----------------
18. Binomial array was invented by-------------------
19. The amplitudes will be ----------- in the resultant pattern using principle of multiplication of
Patterns.
20. The phases will be ----------- in the resultant pattern using principle of multiplication of
Patterns.
ANSWERS:
1 A 11 TRUE
2 B 12 FALSE
3 A 13 FALSE
4 B 14 TRUE
5 A 15 FALSE
6 A 16 LINEAR
7 C 17 Out of phase
8 D 18 Stone
9 A 19 Multiply
10 B 20 Addup


UNIT-4: VHF, UHF and MW ANTENNAS-I
1. Microwave frequency range is------- [ ]
a) above 30MHZ b) above 300MHZ
C) above 200MHZ d) above 2000MHZ.
2. Yagi-Uda antenna consists of----- [ ]
a) Folded Dipole b) Reflector
C) Director d) All above
3. The radiation resistance of folded dipole of equal radii is---------- [ ]
a) 657Ohms b) 292 Ohms
C) 300 Ohms d) 277 Ohms
4. The radiation resistance of folded dipole of unequal radii (r2=2r1) is---------- [ ]
a) 657Ohms b) 292 Ohms
C) 300 Ohms d) 277 Ohms
5. The helix is having the geometry of ------------ [ ]
a) straight wire b) cirle
C) cylinder d) All above.
6. The radiation pattern of helix in Axial mode is----------- [ ]
a) Bi directional b) Uni directional
C) 4 lobed d) Omni directional
7. The radiation pattern of helix in Normal mode is----------- [ ]
a) Bi directional b) Uni directional
C) 4 lobed d) Omni directional
8. In Normal mode of operation the length of the helix is------------- [ ]
a) >λ b) <λ
C) =λ d) none
9. In Axial mode of operation the length of the helix is------------- [ ]
a) >λ b) <λ
C) =λ d) none
10. Horn antennas used in the frequency range of---------- [ ]
a) VHF b) UHF
C) SHF d) MW
11. Yagi_Uda array is a parasitic array. [ ]
12. The reflector is longer than the folded dipole in Yagi-Uda antenna. [ ]
13. The director is shorter than the Folded dipole in Yagi-Uda antenna. [ ]
14. Stone invented Helical Antenna. [ ]
15. Mushaike invented Horn antenna. [ ]


16. Radiation pattern of Yagi-Uda array is--------directional
17. Helical antenna was invented by-------------
18. The path difference in horn antennas must be----------
19. The horn antennas are used in the frequency range of---------
20. The impedance of wave guides will be ----------than Transmission lines.
ANSWERS:
1 C 11 TRUE
2 D 12 TRUE
3 B 13 TRUE
4 A 14 FALSE
5 D 15 FALSE
6 B 16 Unidirectional
7 A 17 John.D.Kraus
8 B 18 small
9 C 19 MW
10 D 20 higher


UNIT-5: VHF, UHF and MW ANTENNAS-II
1.Micro strip antenna was first introduced by …………. [ ]
A). Marconi
B). Hertz
C). Munson
D). Cassegrain
2.The widely used shape for patch antennas is …………. [ ]
A). Rectangular
B). Circular
C). Elliptical
D).Parabolic
3.The efficiency of Micro strip antenna is …………………. [ ]
A). High
B). Very high
C). infinite
D). Low
4.For square corner reflector the flaring angle is……………………. [ ]
A). 30 degrees
B). 60 degrees
C). 90 degrees
D). 180 degrees
5.The no. of images formed for a square corner reflector, using method of images are…[ ]
A). 3
B). 5
C). 7
D). 6
6.The no. of images formed for a 30 degrees corner reflector, using method of
Images are……….. [ ]
A). 3
B). 5
C). 7
D). 6
7.The no. of images formed for a 60 degrees corner reflector, using method of
images are……….. [ ]
A). 3
B). 5
C). 7
D). 6
8. A single narrow beam of radiation results in square corner reflector for
spacing of s=……….. [ ]
A). 2λ

B). λ
C). 3λ/2
D). λ/2
9. Two narrow beams of radiation results in square corner reflector for
spacing of s=……… [ ]
A). 2λ
B). λ
C). 3λ/2
D). λ/2
10. Three narrow beams of radiation results in square corner reflector for
spacing of s=……….. [ ]
A). 2λ
B). λ
C). 3λ/2
D). λ/2
TRUE 0R FALSE
11. A parabola is a three dimensional curve. [ ]
12. A paraboloid is a three dimensional curve. [ ]
13. Fermat’s principle must be followed to get a plane wave front from
the dish antenna. [ ]
14. In any dish antenna arrangement the parabolic reflector will acts as
primary antenna [ ]
15. In any dish antenna arrangement the parabolic reflector will acts as
secondary antenna [ ]
FILL IN THE BLANKS

16. The directivity of the paraboloid is---------------------
17. The generally used feed antenna for paraboloids is---------------------
18. The horn and hyperbola are used in--------------------feed of dish antennas.
19. The disadvantage (draw back) of parabolic reflector is----------------
20.The parabolic antenna operates in the frequency range of---------------

ANSWERS:
1 C 11 FALSE
2 A
12 TRUE
3 D
4 C
13 TRUE
5 A
6 C 14 FALSE
7 B
15 TRUE
8 D
9 B
10 C
Q. No. ANSWER
16 9.87(d/λ)2
17 HORN ANTENNA
18 CASSEGRAIN
19 SPILLOVER EFFECT
20 MW OR GHZ


UNIT-6: Lens Antennas
1.Electrical path length is increased in-------------lens antennas. [ ]
a) Fast b)Delay.
c) Both a and b. d)None.
2. Electrical path length is decreased in------------ lens antennas. [ ]
a) Fast b)Delay.
3. E plane metal-plate lens are of --------type. [ ]
a) Fast b)Delay.
4. H plane metal-plate lens are of --------type. [ ]
a) Fast b)Delay.
5. The following is the example of dielectric material. [ ]
a) Lucite. b)Polystyrene.
6. All dielectric materials will have the refractive index of --------- [ ]
a) unity. b)Less than unity.
c) Greater than unity. d)None.
7. The design equation of lens antennas is given by [ ]
a)
b)

8. All metals will have the refractive index of --------- [ ]
a) unity. b)Less than unity.
c) Greater than unity. d)None.
9. By zoning the lens refractive index will…… [ ]
a) change. b) not change.
10. In dielectric lens, difference in electrical path length may be caused
due to ………… [ ]
a) Length. b)Width.
c) Thickness. d)None.


11. All antenna measurements are accurate. [ ]
12. All antenna measurements will be done in the far field [ ]
13. Cylindrical coordinate system will be choosed for all antenna measurements. [ ]
14. For better antenna measurements the tolerance value must be as large as possible. [ ]
15. Anechoic chamber can be preferred for antenna measurements. [ ]

16. Frii’s transmission formula is………………….
17. Comparision method for measurement of antenna gain is also called as………………….
18. The formula for gain using comparision method is…………………….
19. In two antennas method the assumption is…………………….
20. In the case of circular or elliptical polarizations the the total antenna gain is given by GAUT
=…………………….
Q.NO. ANSWER Q.NO. ANSWER
1. b
11. FALSE
2. a
3. a 12. TRUE
4. b
13. FALSE
5. c
6. c 14. FALSE
7. a
15. TRUE
8. b
9. b
Q.NO. ANSWER
10. c
16. PR=PTGTGR(λ/4ΠR)2
17. Gain-Transfer
18. GAUT= (PAUT/Pref) Gref
19. GR=GT
20. GH+GV


UNIT-7&8: Wave Propagation
1) The troposphere is extends up to a height of ----------------- [ ]

A) 5km B) 10km
C) 15km D) 20km
2) For small distances the earth can be considered as ------------------region [ ]
A) flat B) curved
C) conductor D) dielectric
3) For large distances the earth can be considered as ------------------region [ ]
A) flat B) curved
C) conductor D) dielectric
4) In general the earth will acts as a ------------------- [ ]
A) leaky resistor B) leaky inductor
C) leaky capacitor D) leaky transistor
5) According to Rayleigh if R>10, the reflecting surface will be considered as………….. [ ]
A) smooth region B) rough region
C) both a &b D) none
6) According to Rayleigh if R<0.1, the reflecting surface will be considered as………….. [ ]
A) smooth region B) rough
C) both a &b D) none
7) The line of sight (LOS) distance is the distance travelled by the …………….wave. [ ]
A) diffracted B) scattered
C) reflected D) direct
8) The phenomenon of reduction of signal strength due to variation in refractive
index is called………….. [ ]
A) wave tilting B) fading
C) diffraction D) scattering
9) The E-Layer of Ionosphere exists between [ ]
A) 40 to 90 km B) 90 to 140 km
C) 140 to 250 km D) 250 to 400 km
10) The F2-Layer of Ionosphere exists between [ ]
A) 40 to 90 km B) 90 to 140 km
C) 140 to 250 km D) 250 to 400 km
11) Critical frequency is the lowest frequency that returns from Ionosphere at
vertical frequency. [ ]
12) Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is the highest frequency that returns from Ionosphere Other than
vertical frequency. [ ]

13) The frequency below which the entire power gets absorbed is referred to as the Maximum Usable
Frequency (MUF). [ ]
14) The frequency at which there is optimum return of wave energy is called the Optimum Frequency
(OF). [ ]
15) Virtual height is always lesser than the Actual height. [ ]

16) The horizon of the earth, d0 is given by--------------
17) In ground or surface wave propagation the electric field at the receiving point is given by is given
by………….
18) In free space the power received is given by Pr=………….
19) The basic path loss for general communication is given by………………………
20) The relation between Critical Frequency and MUF is……………….
Q.NO. ANSWER Q.NO. ANSWER
1 C
11 FALSE
2 A
12 TRUE
3 B
4 C 13 FALSE
5 B 14 TRUE
6 A
15 FALSE
7 D
8 B
9 B
10 D

DE20 ELECTRONIC SWITCHING SYSTEM
TYPICAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

PART-I
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1. The number of point to point links required in a fully connected network for 50
entities is
(A) 1250 (B) 1225
(C) 2500 (D) 50
Ans: (C)
Q.2. For a non blocking cross bar configuration, taking N as the number of subscribers,
there will be ______number of cross points and _______number of switches for
establishing connections when all the subscribers are engaged.
2 2
(A) N/2, N (B) N , N/2
2 3
(C) 2N, N (D) N/2, N
Ans: (B)
Q.3. Echo suppressor is detrimental to full duplex operation because

(A) It disables one of the two pairs in a four-wire trunk line when a signal is
detected on the other pair.
(B) It enables one of the two pairs in a four-wire trunk line when a signal is
detected on the other pair.
(C) It activates both the pairs of a four-wire trunk line.
(D) It is independent of line conditions.
Ans: (A)
Q.4. Telephone companies normally provide a voltage

voltage of __________to power
telephones.
(A) +24 volts DC (B) -24 volts DC
(C) +48 volts DC (D) -48 volts DC.
Ans: (D)
Q.5. The situation when both transmitter and receiver have to work in tandem is referred
to as
(A) parallel (B) serial
(C) synchronous (D) asynchronous
Ans: (C)
Q.6. Common channel signalling______________

signalling______________
(A) Uses the speech or data path for signaling.
(B) Does not use the speech or data path for signaling.
(C) Needs no additional transmission facilities.
(D) Finds it difficult to handle signaling during speech.
󰀱

Ans: (C)
Q.7. A large numbers of computers in a wide geographical area can be efficiently

connected using
(A) twisted pair lines
(B) coaxial cables
(C) Communication satellites
(D) all of the above
Ans: (D)
Q.8. Which transmission mode is used for data communication along telephone
te lephone lines?
(A) Parallel (B) Serial
(C) Synchronous (D) Asynchronous
Ans: (B)
Q.9. A sample rate of ________is required for a good quality representation of telephone
conversation.
(A) 4500 times per second.
(B) 700 integer sample points per minute.
(C) 50 times per second per mile of distance travelled.
(D) 8000 times per second.
Ans: (C)
Q.10. The ________is a circuit-switched network, while the ______is a packet-switched

network.
(A) Telephone, ATM (B) SONET and FDDI
(C) Satellite, Telephone (D) FDDI and SONET
Ans: (A)
Q.11. A Master group consists of

(A) 12 voice channels. (B) 24 voice channels
(C) 60 voice channels. (D) 300 voice channels
Ans: (D)
Q.12. Direct inward dialling is used as a feature in

(A) PSTN. (B) PBX.
(C) EPABX. (D) VPN.
Ans: (C)
Q.13. Trunks are the lines that run between

(A) Subscribers and exchange
(B) switching system
system and power plant
(C) Local area network.
(D) Switching stations.
󰀲

Ans: (D)
Q.14. Traffic Capacity is given by

(A) Switching capacity × Theoretical maximum load
(B) Switching capacity / Theoretical maximum load
(C) Theoretical maximum load / switching capacity
(D) Theoretical maximum load × Switching capacity
Ans: (A)
Q.15. In a time multiplexed
multiplexed space
space switching system, one speech sample
sample appears
appears every
(A) 125 micro sec (B) 20 msec
(C) 125 msec (D) 1 sec
Ans: (A)
Q.16. ISDN handles data pertaining to

(A) All digital services (B) Speech and Video
(C) Computer data only (D) Speech only
Ans: (A)
Q.17. A star connected intermediate exchange is known as a

(A) Repeater exchange
(B) Hub exchange
(C) Private branch exchange
(D) Tandem exchange
Ans: (B)
Q.18. Time synchronization is necessary in

(A) FDM. (B) TDM.
(C) WDM. (D) Quadrature multiplexing
Ans: (B)
Q.19. In a frame transmission, CRC stands for

(A) Code Renewable Check
(B) Cyclic Redundancy Check
(C) Control and Refresh Code
Code
(D) Cyclic Refreshing of CPU
Ans: (B)
Q.20. In a LAN network every system is identified by

(A) Name (B) MAC address
(C) IP Address (D) Serial number given by manufacturer
Ans: (C)
Q.21. An off-hook signal will repeat for a/an ________duration.
󰀳

(A) finite
(B) infinite
(C) duration of 40 seconds
(D) duration of 80 seconds
Ans: (A)
Q 22. cent ered around ________Hz.

Typical human voice is centered
(A) 200-400 (B) 280-3000
(C) 400-600 (D) 1400-1800
Ans: (B)
Q 23. Using_________each connected device is assigned a time slot whether or not the
device has any thing to send.
(A) WDM (B) FDM
(C) TDM (D) STDM
Ans: (C)
Q.24. When a switch capacity is full, calls coming into that switch are said to be____.
(A) open (B) shorted
(C) blocked (D) shunted
Ans: (C )
Q.25. Using ______ARQ, a sending modem must wait for a return ACK for each sent
block before sending the next block.
(A) discrete (B) efficient
(C) continuous (D) delivered
Ans: (A )
Q.26. A/An ______network is typically a company network that connects multiple

company locations into a single network.
(A) local area (B) enterprise
(C) campus wide (D) protocol.
Ans: (B)
Q.27. Ethernet 10 Base 2 is an example of ______network topology.

(A) Bus (B) Ring
(C) Star (D) Mesh
Ans: (A )
Q.28. The______electro mechanical switch (developed

(developed in 1938)
1938) had
had fewer moving parts
than earlier switches.
(A) No. 1ESS (B) Strowger
(C) Step-by-step (D) Crossbar
󰀴

Ans: (D )
Q.29. Side tone is the speech heard by

(A) the receiving
receiving subscriber
(B) both the receiving and calling
c alling subscriber
(C) by on looker
(D) by calling subscriber
Ans: (D)
Q.30. Busy hour traffic is the
(A) maximum average simultaneous traffic.
(B) traffic during peak hour.
(C) traffic when all subscribers are engaged.
(D) the duration of maximum calls.
Ans: (B)
Q.31. The final selector is connected to the

(A) calling subscriber. (B) switching network.
(C) called subscriber. (D) line finder.
Ans: (C)
Q.32. In a DTMF phone a dialling of 8 generates

(A) 1336 Hz- 770 Hz (B) 1209 Hz - 1477 Hz
(C) 1209 Hz- 941 Hz (D) 1336 Hz-852 Hz
Ans: (D)
Q.33. SPC stands

(A) Standard Protocol Control
(B) Stored Program Control
(C) Signaling and switching Centre
(D) Signaling Process Center
Ans: (B)
Q.34. For two stage network the switching elements for M inlets with r blocks and N
outlets with s blocks is given by
(A) Ms + Nr (B) Mr + Ns
(C) (M + N) (r + s) (D) (M + N)rs
Ans: (A)
Q.35. As per Nyquist criterion the sampling rate is

(A) 2fs (B) (1/2)fs
(C) (1/2fs) (D) (2/fs)
Where fs is the signal frequency
Ans: (A)
󰀵

Q.36. Common channel signalling in SS7 is

(A) out band control channel.
(B) in band control channel.
(C) speech control channel.
(D) none of the above.
Ans: (B)
Q.37. Broad Band ISDN handles data rate of about

(A) 64 kbps (B) 100 mbps
(C) 5.4 mbps (D) 2.048 mbps
Ans: (A)
Q.38. MAC address helps in

(A) multimedia access control.
(B) media access control.
(C) mobile access control.
(D) master access point control
Ans: (B)
Q.39. Telex is a
(A) Telephone Service between various subscribers
(B) Tele printer Service between various subscribers
(C) Television Service between various subscribers
(D) Telegraph Service between various subscribers
Ans: (B)
Q.40. The bandwidth requirement of a telephone channel is

(A) 3 KHz (B) 15 KHz
(C) 5 KHz (D) 25 KHz
Ans: (A)
Q.41. Distortion caused on telephone line by an adjacent one is called

(A) Cross Fire (B) Inductive Disturbance
(C) Cross Talk (D) None of these
Ans: (C)
Q.42. Erlang is used to

(A) Measure busy period (B) Give total busy period in minutes
(C) Measure average
average call rate (D) Indicate total call period
Ans: (A)
Q.43. The grade of service is measured in

(A) Percentage (B) Number
(C) Fractional Number (D) Logarithmic Number
󰀶

Ans: (C)
Q.44. Network with point-to-point link is known as

(A) Fully Connected Network (B) Half Connected
Connected Network
(C) Duplex Connected Network (D) None of these
Ans: (A)
Q.45. SPC is used for

(A) Carrying Exchange Control Functions
(B) Carrying Subscriber Control Functions
Subscriber Control
(C) Exchange Hardware
(D) Signalling Purpose
Ans: (A)

(A) subscribers and exchange
exchange (B) switching system and power plant
(C) Local Area Network (D) switching systems
Ans: (B)
Q.47. Example of circuit switching and S&F (Stored and

a nd Forward) switching is
(A) Telephone and Post of Telegraph
(B) Video Signal Post or Telegraph
(C) Digital Signal Post or Telegraph
(D) None of above
Ans: (A)
Q.48. Network Layer is used for

(A) Breaking up the data
data in frames for transmission
(B) Deal with Error correction
(C) Automatic Recovery of Procedure
(D) Physical Architecture
Ans: (D)
Q.49. Call request signal is:

(A) Seize signal
(B) Idle state signal
(C) Line identification signal
(D) Called subscriber alert signal
Ans: (A)
Q.50. Telephone Traffic is measured in

(A) Seconds. (B) Hours.
(C) Erlang (D) Pulses per minute.
Ans: (C)
󰀷

Q.51. In step
step by step switching line finders
finders are connected to the
(A) Calling subscriber. (B) Switching network.
(C) Called subscriber. (D) Between exchanges.
Ans: (A)
Q.52. In a DTMF phone, digits are represented by:

(A) Orthogonal frequencies.
(B) Orthogonal Phases.
(C) Orthogonal codes.
(D) Orthogonal pulses.
Ans: (A)
Q.53. Companding helps in reducing __________ with respect to signal:

(A) Interference (B) Signal overloading
(C) Non linearity (D) Quantization noise
Ans: (D)
Q.54. SS7 Protocol uses:

(A) Out of band signalling.
(B) Associated signalling.
(C) Speech control signalling.
(D) No signalling.
Ans: (A)
Q.55. MAC is the abbreviation for:

(A) Multimedia access control
(B) Media access control
(C) Mobile access control
(D) Master access point control
Ans: (B)
Q.56. The CCITT standard bandwidth for speech is:

(A) 20000 Hz (B) 15000 Hz
(C) 7000 Hz (D) 3400 Hz
Ans: (D)
Q.57. Maximum channel utilization in a LAN is defined by frame time (t f ) and
propagation time (tp). It is defined by
(A) t p t f (B) t f t p
(C) 1 + t f t p (D) t f t p + t f

Ans: (D)
Q.58. The function of ARQ in a network protocol is to:
󰀸

(A) Auto request (B) Acknowledge

(C) Address request (D) Abort
Ans: (A)
Q.59. Engaged tone is generated in the:

(A) Telephone instrument of calling subscriber
(B) Telephone instrument of called subscriber
(C) Exchange
(D) Repeater
Ans: (C)
Q.60. One Erlang is equal to

(A) 3600 CCS
(B) 36 CCS
(C) 60 CCS
(D) 24 CCS
Ans: (A)
Q.61. The analog signal needs to be sampled

sampled at a minimum sampling rate of:
(A) 2fs (B) 1/(2fs)
(C) fs/2 (D) 2/fs
Ans: (A)
Q.62. In a time division space switch the size of the control memory is N and its Width:
Log10M (B) Loge M
(A)
(C) LogN M (D) Log2 M
Where N are the outlets and M the number of data samples
Ans: (It should be 2 log2[N]
Q.63. In a single stage network:

(A) There is no redundancy
(B) There is redundancy
(C) Alternative cross points are available
(D) Alternative paths are available
Ans: (B)
Q.64. Signalling transfer point (STP) exist in

(A) Strowger exchange (B) SS7
(C) Local area network (D) PABX
Ans: (B)
Q.65. ARQ is transmitted in the event of:
󰀹

(A)
(A) Loss of signal (B) Error in received data
(C) Improve reliability (D) During time out
Ans: (B)
Q.66. Computer to computer communication is:

(A) Simplex (B) Duplex
(C) Half Duplex (D) Both Duplex and Half Duplex
Ans: (B)
Q.67. A distributed network configuration in which all data/information pass through a

central computer is
(A) Bus network (B) Star network
(C) Ring network (D) Point to point network
Ans: (B)
Q.68. An important terminal that is required between DTE and PSTN is

(A) Server (B) MODEM
(C) Relay (D) Network card
Ans: (B)
Q.69. Traffic Handling Capacity is given by

(A) Switching capacity × Theoretical maximum load
(B) Switching capacity / Theoretical maximum load
(C) Theoretical maximum load / Switching capacity
(D) Theoretical maximum load
load + Switching
Switching capacity
Ans: (B)
Q.70. Traffic Intensity can be measured in

(A) Erlangs (B) CCS
(C) CM (D) All of the above
Ans: (D)

(A) Subscribers and exchange
(B) Switching system and power plant
(C) Local area network
(D) Switching stations
Ans: (D)
Q.72. Packet switching is used for

(A) Credit card verification
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) The internet and the World Wide Web
󰀱󰀰

Ans: (D)
Q.73. Analog signals can be ________by combining them with a carrier frequency
(A) Carried (B) Transported
(C) Multiplexed (D) Mixed
Ans: (C)
Q.74. The Signalling connection control part (SCCP) and message transfer part (MTP)
together are referred to as
(A) Signal Switching Points (SSPs)
(B) Signal Transfer
Transfer Points (STPs)
(C) Signal Control Points (SCPs)
(D) Network service
service part (NSP)
Ans: (D)
State True or False

Q.75. A two stage non-blocking
non-blocking network rrequires
equires twice the number of switching
switching elements
as the single stage non-blocking network.
(A) TRUE (B) FALSE
Ans: (A)
Q.76. The larger the Grade Of Service,

Service, the worse
worse is the service given
(A) TRUE (B) FALSE
Ans: (A)
Q.77. A certain amount of side tone is essential in telephone

telephone communication
(A) TRUE (B) FALSE
Ans: (A)
Q.78. Sky wave Communication is prone to fading

(A) TRUE (B) FALSE
Ans: (A)
󰀱󰀱

PART-II
DESCRIPTIVES
Q.1. With neat diagrams explain the configuration of a step-by-step switching system.
(10)
Ans:
The schematic diagram for such an exchange is given in Fig. Each subscriber is
connected to a single rotary pre-selector switch at the exchange, the outputs from
this switch being connected to a bank of two-motion switches known as ‘group
selectors’. The out-puts from the pre-selector switches of a whole group of
subscribers are connected together in parallel as that group of subscribers share a
single bank of group selectors. When a subscriber lifts his telephone, the cradle
switch causes a circuit to be completed back to the telephone exchange, signaling
that the subscriber wishes to make a call. This causes the pre-selector switch to step
around until it finds a free group selector. The pre-selector switch then stop in this
position and the group selector is ‘seized’ by the subscriber wishing to make a call.
FIG – 1000 Line Exchange
On seizing the group selector, the subscriber dials his first digit and the selector
switch moves up to the appropriate row on the switch contact array. Each final
selector has the possibility of connection to 100 lines. The 1000 lines are therefore
divided into 10 groups of 100 each, the group being identified by the first digit in
the subscriber’s number. The vertical motion of the group selector therefore selects
a final selector in the group associated with the first digit dialed. Each individual
row of contacts, or levels, of the group selector is connected to a bank of final
selectors associated with a particular group of 100 line numbers. Having dialed the
first digit to select the appropriate group, the group selector arm then automatically
rotates in the vertical direction until it finds a free final selector. In the final
selector, both directions of motion are under the control of the subscriber’s dial and,
after dialing two further digits, connection is established, providing the called
subscriber’s to answer his telephone.
Q.2 What is store

store program control (SPC)?
(SPC)? Give the organization of centralized SPC.
switc hing. (10)
Discuss the advantages of SPC automation in telephone switching.
󰀱󰀲

Ans:
In stored program control systems, a program or set of instructions to the
computer is stored in its memory and the instructions are executed automatically
one by one by the processor. Carrying out the exchange control functions through
programs stored in the memory of a computer led to this name.
There are two approaches
a pproaches to organizing stored program control:
1. Centralized: In this control, all the control equipment is replaced by a single
processor which must be quite powerful.
2. Distributed: In this control, the control functions are shared by many
processors within the exchange itself.
FIG - Typically Centralized SPC Organization
In centralized SPC, dual processor architecture may be configured to operate in one

of three modes:
1. Standby mode: In this mode, one processor is active and the other is on sta
standby,
ndby,
both hardware and software wise. The standby processor brought online when
active processor fails. An important requirement of this configuration is the
ability of the standby processor to reconstitute the state of the exchange system
when it takes over the control.
2. Synchronous duplex mode: In synchronous duplex mode, hardware coupling is
provided
and comparebetween the two
the results processors which
continuously. executeoccurs,
If a mismatch the same
theset of instructions
faculty processor
is identified and taken out of service immediately. When the system is operating
normally, the two processors have the same data in their memories at all the
times and receive all information from the exchange environment.
3. Load Sharing mode; In load sharing operation, an incoming call is assigned
randomly or in a predetermined order to one of the processors which then
handles the call right through completion. Thus both the processors are active
simultaneously and share the load and the
t he resources dynamically.
Advantages of SPC:
(i) Easy to control
control
(ii) Easy to maintain
(iii) Flexible
(iv) Wide range of services can be provided to customers.
󰀱󰀳

(v) Increase level of automotive in switching
Q.3. What isis time division switching? With the help of block diagram explain basic time
division time switching method. (10)
Ans:
Time Division Switching: A switching element can be shared by number of
simultaneously active speech circuits. This is the principle of time division
switching. Obviously, with the way the switching elements are shared in time
division switching, much greater savings can be achieved in the number of
switching elements when compared to multistage
m ultistage space division switching.
Basic Time Division Switching: The functional blocks of a memory based time
division switching switch is shown in Fig. and its equivalent circuit in Fig. In this
organisation, the data coming in through the inlets are written into the data memory
and later read out to the appropriate outlets. The incoming and outgoing data are
usually in serial form whereas the data are written into and read out of the memory
in parallel form. It, therefore, becomes necessary to perform serial-to-serial
conversion and parallel-to-serial conversion at the inlets and outlets respectively.
For convenience, the data-in and data-out parts of the MDR are shown separately
for the data memory in Fig. 6.5 although in reality, MDR is a single register . Since
there is only one MDR, a gating mechanism is necessary to connect the required
inlet/outlet to MDR. This is done by the in-gate and out-gate units.
FIG – Simple PAM Time Division Switching.

Sw itching.
Q.4. What are

are wired and wireless transmission
transmission systems?
systems? Expl
Explain
ain the mechanisms of
propagation of radio communication. (6)
󰀱󰀴

Ans:
Transmission Systems: Modern long distance transmission systems can be placed
under three broad categories:
1. Radio Systems
2. Coaxial cable systems
3. Optical fibre systems
Radio communication deals with electronic radiation of electromagnetic energy
from one point to another through the atmosphere or free space. It is possible only
in a certain position of the electromagnetic frequency spectrum. Presently, this
portion includes frequencies from 9 kHz to 400 GHz. While there are international
allocations for the radio spectrum up to 275 GHz, most of the commercial uses take
place between 100 kHz and 20 GHz. Very few experimental systems have been
operated beyond 100 GHz.
Different layers of the atmosphere play a role in propagating radio waves. The
atmosphere consists of four layers. Of the four layers, the ionosphere and
troposphere are useful for radio communication in certain
ce rtain frequency ranges. Certain
other radio frequencies pass straight through the atmosphere and can be beamed
towards satellites placed in the interplanetary space. Depending on the mechanism
of propagation, radio communication can be placed under four categories:
1. Sky wave or ionosphere communication
2. Line-of-sight (LOS) microwave communication limited by horizon.
3. Troposphere scatter communication
4. Satellite communication.
Q.5. What are the end-to-end layers of OSI

OSI structure? Explain
Explain the
the transport
transport llayer
ayer in detail.
(8)
Ans:
The layers 4-7 of ISO-OSI reference model communicate with peer entities in the
end systems. There is no communication with entities in the intermediate systems.
In this sense, layers 4-7 are often called end-to-end layers. These are Transport
layer, Session layer, Presentation layer and Application
Applicati on layer respectively.
Transport Layer: The transport layer controls an and
d ensures the end-to-end integrity
of the data message propagated through the network between two devices, which
provides for the reliable, transparent transfer of data between two end points .
Transport layer responsibilities include message routing, segmenting, error
recovery, and two types of basic services to an upper-layer protocol: connectionless
oriented and connectionless. The transport layer is the highest layer in the OSI
hierarchy in terms of communications and may provide data tracking, connection
flow control, sequencing of data, error checking, and application addressing and
identification.
Q 6. Explain the terms topology and access methods used in LANs.

LANs. Discuss the
CSMA/CD and CSMA/CA protocols. (10)
Ans:
(i) LAN topologies: Network topology is a physical schematic which shows
interconnection of the many users. There are four
fo ur basic topologies as under:
(a) Direct Connection or one to all topology
(b) Star topology
(c) Bus Topology
(d) Ring topology
󰀱󰀵

(ii) Access methods used in LAN:

i. Switched access: It is used in LANs
LANs that are assigned
assigned around CBXs.
CBXs.
Electronic switching is techniques are used to provide access.
ii. Multiple access: In multiple access schemes such as CSMA, whenever
a station gets ready for transmission,
transmission, it first listens to the bus to see if there is
any ongoing transmission. If there is one, the new transmission is not initiated
until the bus becomes free. This ensures that an ongoing transmission is not
corrupted by a new transmission.
tra nsmission.
iii. Token passing access: In this scheme, a token packet is introduced to
the network. This packet continues to circulate through the network as long as
no user accepts it. When a user works to transmit he waits for the token packet
to reach him and accepts the token, this acceptance removes the token packet
from the network.
(iii) CSMA/CD: It is an access method used primarily with LANs configured in a

bus topology. With CSMA/CD, any station (node) can send send a message to any
other station (or stations) as long as the transmission medium is free of
transmissions from other stations. Stations monitor (listen to) the line to
determine if the line is busy. If the station has a message to transmit but the
line is busy, it waits for an idle condition before transmitting its message. If
two stations transmit at the same time, a collision occurs. When this happens,
the station first sensing
sensing the collision sends a special jamming signal to all
other stations on the network. All stations then cease transmitting (back off)
and wait a random period of time before attempting a retransmission. The
random delay time for each station is different, and therefore, allows
for prioritizing the stations on the network. If successive collisions occur, the
back off period for each station is doubled. With CSMA/CD stations must
contend for the network. A station is not guaranteed access to the network. To
detect the occurrence of a collision, a station must be capable of transmitting
and receiving simultaneously. CSMA/CD is used by most LANs configured in
a bus topology. Ethernet is an example of a LAN that uses CSMA/CD.
CSMA/CA: It belongs to a class of protocols called multiple access methods.
CSMA/CA stands for: Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision
Avoidance. In CSMA, a station wishing to transmit has to first listen to the
channel for a predetermined amount of time so as to check for any activity on
the channel. If the channel is sensed "idle" then the station is permitted to
transmit. If the channel is sensed as "busy" the station has to defer its
transmission. This is the essence of both CSMA/CA and CSMA/CD. In
CSMA/CA (Local Talk), once the channel is clear, a station sends a signal
telling all other stations not to transmit, and then sends its packet. In Ethernet
802.3, the station continues to wait for a time, and checks to see if the channel
is still free. If it is free, the station transmits, and waits for an acknowledgment
signal that the packet was received
Q.7 Write short note on Associated vs. Common channel signaling. (8)
Ans:
Associated vs Common channel signalling:
The out band signalling suffers from the very limited bandwidth. Both are capable
of having only a small signal repertoire. The trend in modern networking is to
provide enhanced signalling facilities for the subscriber, the switching system and
󰀱󰀶

the telephone administration. Such a need is met by common channel signalling

which may be common channel signalling which may be implemented in two ways:
channel associated mode4 and channel non associated mode. In the former, the
common signalling channel closely tracks the trunk groups along the entire length
of a connection. In the letter, there is no close or simple assignment of control
channels to trunk groups. These modes are illustrated in Fig. In the associated mode
of operation shown in Fig. The signalling paths for the speech paths A-B, A-C-B
and B-D are A-B, A-C-B and B-D respectively. The term ‘associated signalling’ in
the CCS should not be confused with in channel signalling. The signalling in CCS
associated mode is still done on a separate signalling channel; only that the
signalling path passes through the same set of switches as does the speech path.
Network topologies of the signalling network and the speech network are the same.
The advantages of the scheme are the economic implementation and simple
assignment of trunk groups to signalling channels.
FIG – Channel Associated Signaling
FIG – Non Associated Signaling.
Q.8. What are the different tones used in strowger telephony? Explain with the help of
waveforms and the timings. (8)
Ans:
Dial Tone: This tone is used to indicate that the exchange is ready to accept dialed
digits from the subscriber. The subscriber should start dialing only after hearing the
dialing tone. Sometimes, however, a few seconds may elapse before the dial tone is
heard. This happens particularly in common control exchanges which use shared
resources for user interfaces. The dial tone is a 33 Hz or 50 Hz or 400 Hz
󰀱󰀷

continuous tone as shown in Fig. The 400 Hz signal is usually modulated with 25
Hz or 50 Hz.
When the called party line is obtained, the exchange control equipment sends out
the ringing current to the telephone set of the called party. This ringing current has
the familiar double-ring pattern. Simultaneously, the control equipment sends out a
ringing tone to the calling subscriber, which has a pattern similar, that of the
ringing current as shown in Fig. The two rings in the double ring pattern are
separated by a time gap of 0.2 s and two double ring patterns by a gap of 2 s. The
ring burst has duration of 0.4 s. The frequency of the ringing tone is 133 Hz or 400
Hz,
Busy tone pattern is shown in Fig. It is a bursty 400 Hz signal with silence period in
between. The burst and silence duration have the same value of 0.75 s or 0.375 s. A
busy tone is sent to the calling subscriber whenever the switching equipment or
junction line is not available to put through the call or the called subscriber line is
engaged. Fig. shows the number unobtainable tone which is continuous 400 Hz
signal. This tone may be sent to the calling subscriber due to a variety of reasons
such as the called party line is out of order or disconnected, and an error in dialing
leading to the selection of a spare line. In some exchanges the number unobtainable
tone is 400 Hz intermittent with 2.5 s on period and 0.5 s off period.
The routing tone or call-in-progress tone is a 400 Hz or 800 Hz intermittent
pattern. In electromechanical systems, it is usually 800 Hz with 50 percent duty
ratio and 0.5 s on/off period. In analog electronic exchanges it is a 400 Hz pattern
with 0.5 s on period and 2.5 s off period. In digital exchanges, it has 0.1 s on/off
periods at 400 Hz. When a subscriber call is routed through a number of different
type of exchanges, one hears different call-in-progress tones as the call progresses
through different exchanges. Fig. shows a routing tone pattern.
FIG – Signaling Tones in Automatic Exchange
Q.9. Using a combination of uniselectors and two motion selectors, draw a schematic of
of
thousand line exchange and explain its working. (8)
Ans:
The schematic diagram for such an exchange is given in Fig. Each subscriber is
connected to a single rotary pre-selector switch at the exchange, the outputs from
󰀱󰀸

this switch being connected to a bank of two-motion switches known as ‘group

selectors’. The out-puts from the pre-selector switches of a whole group of
subscribers are connected together in parallel as that group of subscribers share a
single bank of group selectors. When a subscriber lifts his telephone, the cradle
switch causes a circuit to be completed back to the telephone exchange, signaling
that the subscriber wishes to make a call. This causes the pre-selector switch to step
around until it finds a free group selector. The pre-selector switch then stops in this
position and the group selector is ‘seized’ by the subscriber wishing to make a ccall.
all.
FIG – 1000 Line Exchange
In a 1000
from 000 line exchange,
to 999. each the
On seizing subscriber has a 3 digit
group selector, identification
the subscriber number
dials starting
his first digit
and the selector switch moves up to the appropriate row on the switch contact
array. Each final selector has the possibility of connection to 100 lines. The 1000
lines are therefore divided into 10 groups of 100 each, the group being identified by
the first digit in the subscriber’s number. The vertical motion of the group selector
therefore selects a final selector in the group associated with the first digit dialed.
Each individual row of contacts, or levels, of the group selector is connected to a
bank of final selectors associated with a particular group of 100 line numbers.
Having dialed the first digit to select the appropriate group, the group selector arm
then automatically rotates in the vertical direction until it finds a free final selector.
In the final selector, both directions of motion are under the control of the
subscriber’s dial and, after dialing two further digits, connection is established,
providing the called subscriber’s to answer his telephone.
te lephone.
Q.10. Name the switching schemes used

used in a digital exchange. How call processing
takes place? (8)
Ans:
The different switching systems used are:
1. Strowger Switching System
2. Cross bar Switching.
3. Electronic Switching System.
Basic Call Procedure: Fig. Shows a simplification diagram
diagram illustrating how
how two
telephone sets (subscribers) are interconnected through a central office dial switch.
Each subscriber is connected to the switch through a local loop. The switch is most
likely some sort of an electronic switching system (ESS machine). The local loop
are terminated
office at the calling
ends to switching and called station s in telephone sets and at the central
machines.
󰀱󰀹

FIG - Telephone Call Procedure
When the calling party’s telephone set goes off hook (i.e., lifting the handset off the
cradle), the switch hook in the telephone set is released, completing a dc path
between the tip and the ring of the loop trough the microphone .The ESS machine
senses a dc current in the loop and recognizes this as an off-hook condition.
Completing a local telephone call between two subscribers connected to the same
telephone switch is accomplished through a standard set of procedure that includes
the 10 steps listed next.
1. Calling station goes off hook.
2. After detecting a dc current flow on the loop, the switching machine
returns an audible dial tone to the calling station, acknowledging that the
caller has access to the switching machine.
3. The caller dials the destination telephone number using one of the two
methods: Mechanical dial pulsing or, more likely, electronic dual-tone multi
frequency (Touch-Tone) signals.
4. When the switching machine detects the first dialled number, it removes
the dial tone from the loop.
5. The switch interprets the telephone number and then locates the loop for
the destination telephone number.
6. Before ringing the destination telephone , the switching machine tests the
destination loop for dc current to see if tt is idle (on hook) or in use (off
hook). At the same time, the switching machine locates a signal path through
the switch between the two local loops.
7. (a) If the destination telephone is off hook, the switching machine sends a
station busy signal back to the calling station.
(b) If the destination telephone is on hook, the switching machine sends a
ringing signal to the destination telephone on the local loop and the same
time sends a ring back signal to the calling station to give the caller some
assurance that something is happening.
8. When the destination answers answers the telephone, itit completes the loop,
loop,
causing dc current to flow.
󰀲󰀰

9. The switch recognizes the the dc current

current as the station answering the
telephone. At this time, the switch removes the ringing and ring-back signals
and completes the path through the switch, allowing the calling and called
parties to begin conversation.
10. When either end goes on hook, the switching machine detects an open
circuit on that loop and then drops the connections through the switch.
Q.11. How speech

speech is transmitted in a digital switching
switching environment using PCM/TDM?
(8)
Ans:
A digital carrier system is a communications system that uses digital pulses rather
than analogue signals to encode information. Fig shows the block diagram for a
digital carrier system. This digital carrier system T1 uses PCM-encoded samples
from 24 voice band channels for transmission over a single metallic wire pair or
optical fibre transmission line. Each voice-band channel has a band width of
approximately 300 Hz to 3000 Hz. Again, the multiplexer is simply a digital switch
with 24 independent inputs and one time division multiplexed output. The PCM
output signals from the 24 voice-band channels are sequentially selected and
t ransmission line.
connected through the multiplexer to the transmission
When a T1 carrier system, D-type (digital) channel banks perform the sampling,
encoding and multiplexing of 24 voice-band channels,
channels, each channel contains
contains an
eight-bit PCM code and is sampled 8000 times a second. Each channel is sampled at
the same rate. Fig. shows the channel sampling sequence for a 24-channel T1 digital
carrier system. As the Fig. shows each channel is sampled once each frame but not at
the same time. Each channel’s sample is offset from the previous channel’s sample
by 1/24 of the total frame time. Therefore, one 64-kbps PCM-encoded sample is
transmitted for each voice-band channel during each frame (a frame time of 1/8000
= 125 µs). Later, an additional bit (called the framing bit) is added to each frame.
The framing bit occurs once per frame (8000-bps
(8000-bps rate) and is recovered
recovered in the
receiver, where it is used to maintain frame and sample synchronization between the
TDM transmitter and receiver.
FIG – Two-channel PCM-TDM system
󰀲󰀱

Q.12. How does one arrive at the probability

probability of availability of free lines during the busy
hour? How can this be improved? (8)
Ans:
One can arrive at the probability of free lines during busy hour by using the delay
probability of the exchange. The delay probability indicates the delay that a caller
may face before his call can be completed. In a delay system the caller is made to
wait till a free line is made available for the completion
c ompletion of the call. This leads to ca
call
ll
delay. Improvement can be made if the system is treated as a loss system instead of
a delayed system. In a loss system, the caller has to repeat a call till the call is
established. This reduces the delay by releasing a caller from the queue until there is
repeated action.
Blocking probability can be useful. The blocking probability P is defined as the
probability that all the servers in system are busy. When all the servers are busy, no
further traffic can be carried by the system and the arriving subscriber’s traffic is
blocked. At the first instance, it may appear that the blocking probability is the same
sa me
measure as the GOS. The probability that all the servers are busy may well
represent the fraction of the calls lost, which is what the GOS is all about.
Q.13. What are the different types of

of distributing frames used in exchanges?
exchanges? Explain their
their
importance. (8)
Ans:
The different distribution frames used in exchange are shown in figure. Every
subscriber in a telephone network is connected generally to the nearest switching
office by means of a dedicated pair of wires. Subscriber loop refers to this pair of
wires. It is unwisely to run physically independent pairs from every subscriber
premises to the exchange. It is far easier to lay cables containing a number of pairs
of wires for different geographical locations and run individual pairs as required by
the subscriber premises.
FIG – Cable Hierarchy For Subscriber Loops.
Generally four levels of cabling are used as shown in Fig. At the subscriber end, the
drop wires are taken to a distribution point. The drop wires are the individual pairs
that run into the subscriber premises. At the distribution point, the drop wires are
connected to wire pairs in the distribution cables. Many distribution cables from
nearby geographical locations are terminated on a feeder point where they are
󰀲󰀲

connected to branch feeder cables which, in turn, are connected to the main feeder
cable. The main feeder cables carry a larger number of wire pairs, typically 100-
2000,than the distribution cables which carry typically 10-500 pairs. The feeder
cables are terminated on a main distribution frame (MDF) at the exchange. The
subscriber cable pairs emanating from the exchange are also terminated on the
MDF.
Q.14. What is meant by common control? Explain all the categories that are served by
by
Common Control switching. (8)
Ans:
In some switching systems, the control subsystem may be an integral part of the
switching network itself. Such system is known as direct control switching
systems. Those systems in which the control subsystem is outside the switching
network are known as common control switching system. Strowger exchanges are
usually direct control systems, whereas crossbar and electronic exchanges are
common control system. All stored program control systems are common control
systems. Common control is also known as indirect control or register control.
Common Control Switching System: A functional block diagram of a common
control switching system
system is shown in FFig.
ig. The control functions in a switching
system may be placed under four broad categories:
c ategories:
(a) Event monitoring.

(b) Call processing.
(c) Charging.
(d) Operation and maintenance
Events occurring outside the exchange at the line units, trunk junctions and inter
exchange signaling receiver/sender units are all monitored by control subsystem.
Typical events include all request and call release signals at the line units. The
occurrences of the events are signaled by operating relays which initiate control
action. The control subsystem may operate relays in the junctions, receivers/senders
and the line units, and thus command these units to perform certain functions.
Events monitoring may be distributed. For examples, the line units themselves may
initiate control actions on the occurrence of certain line events.
When a subscriber goes off-hook, the event is sensed, the calling location is
determined and market for dial tone, and the register finder is activated to seize a
free register. Identity of the calling line is used to determine the line category and
the class of service to which the subscriber belongs. A register appropriate to the
line category is chosen, which then sends out the dial tone to the subscriber, in
readiness to receive the dialing information. As soon as the initial digits (usually 2-
5) which identify the exchange are received in the register, the register continues to
receive the remaining digits.
󰀲󰀳

The initial translator determines the route for the call through the network and
decides whether a call should be put through or not. It also determines the charging
methods and the rates applicable to the subscriber
subscriber . Initial translation may also take
into account instructions from the operating personnel and information regarding
the status of the network.
FIG - Common Control Switching System
If a call is destined to a number in an exchange other than the present one

processing the digits, the initial translator generates the require routing digits and
passes them on to the register sender. Here the digits corresponding to the
subscriber identification are concatenated and the combined digit pattern is
transmitted over the trunks to the external exchange. Register sender uses
appropriate signaling technique, depending on the requirements of the destination
exchange. If the call is destined to a subscriber within the same exchange, the digits
are processed by the final translator. The translation of directory number to
equipment number takes place at this stage. The final translator determines the line
unit to which
category a call must
information may be connected
influence and theand
charging category of theestablishment.
connection called line. The
In
some practical implementations, both initial and final code translator functions are
performed by a single translator.
Controlling the operation of the switching network is an important function of the
common control subsystem. This is done by marking the switching elements at
different stages in accordance with a set of binary data defining the path and then
commanding the actual connection of the path. Path finding may be carried out at
the level of the common control unit or the switching network.
Q.15 Explain the working of broad band ISDN. (8)
Ans:
BISDN Configuration: Fig. shows how access to the BISDN network is
accomplished. Each peripheral device is interfaced to the access node of a BISDN
network through a broadband distant terminal (BDT). The BDT is responsible for
󰀲󰀴

electrical to optical conversion, multiplexing of peripherals, and maintenance of the

subscriber’s local system. Excess nodes concentrate several BDT’s into high speed
optical fiber line directed through a feeder point into a service node. Most of the
control function for system excess is managed by the service node, such as call
processing, administrative function and switching and maintenance functions. The
functional modules are interconnected in a star configuration and include switching,
administrative, gateway, and maintenance modules. The interconnection of the
function module is shown in Fig. The central control hub acts as the end user
interface for control signaling and data traffic maintenance. In essence, it oversees
the operation of the modules.
FIG - BISDN Functional Module Interconnection
Subscriber terminal near the control office may by pass the excess nodes entirely
and the directly connected to the BISDN network through a service node. BISDN
nodes that used optical fiber cables can utilize much wider band width and
consequently, have higher transmission rates and offer more channel handling
capacity than ISDN systems.
Q.16. What is the need of a hybrid in telephone networks? How does it work? (8)
Ans:
Digital exchanges require receive and
a nd transmit signals on separate two-wire ci
circuits.
rcuits.
This calls for two-wire to four-wire conversion. Such a conversion is normally
required for trunk transmissions in analog exchanges. The circuit that performs 2-
wire to 4-wire conversion is called Hybrid. A transformer based hybrid circuit is
shown in Fig. The main function of a hybrid is to ensure that there is no coupling of
signal from the input to the output in the 4-wire circuit. The operation of the circuit
is as follows: The input signal is coupled to the B and F windings equally. Through
the C winding, the input is coupled to the 2-wire circuit. The same signal when it
flows through the balanced 2-wire couples the signal to winding D through winding
C. The signal induced in B flows through E and induces a current in D that opposes
the current induced by F. If the impedance ZB exactly matches that of the 2-wire
circuit, the effect of input signal on the output winding D is completely nullified. In
a similar way, the input signal from the subscriber end is completely nullified from
coupling into the winding A.
󰀲󰀵
󰀲󰀵


FIG – Two-wire to 4-wire Transformer Hybrid
Q.17 What layers are covered under end to end layer connectivity? Explain briefly the
function of each one of them. (8)
Ans:
The layers 4-7 of ISO-OSI reference model communicate with peer entities in
the end systems. There is no communication with entities in the intermediate
systems. In this sense, layers 4-7 are often called end-to-end layers. These are
Transport layer, Session layer, Presentation layer and Application layer
respectively.
1. Transport Layer:
 It is responsible for establishing a network independent communication
path suitable for the particular terminal equipments (e.g. providing the
appropriate data rate and end-to-end error control). It thus relieves the user
from being concerned with such details.
 In a packet switched network, the transport entity breaks up a long user
message into packets to march the network capabilities. The packets are
reassembled at the receiving end to reconstruct the user message.
 End-to-end flow control & end-to-end error recovery are also the functions
of transport layer.
2. Session Layer:
 The session layer is used to allow users to identify themselves when
waiting access to the network.

 This is concerned with setting up and maintaining an operational session
between terminals. E.g. “signing on” at the commencement of a task and
“signing off” at its end.
 The main function of the session layer is to organize different sessions
between cooperating entities and perform all related functions like
synchronization, failure management , control etc. for the successful
execution of a session.
 Another facility offered by the session layer is known as Activity
management.
3. Presentation Layer:
 This is concerned with the format of the data represented, in order to
overcome difference in representation of the information as supplied to one
terminal and required at the other. Its purpose is to make communication
over the network machine independent.
󰀲󰀶

 Itresolves the syntax differences by encoding data into standard abstract

notation that is valid throughout the network. Thus file format differences,
data representations, data structure are resolved using a standard notation.
4. Application Layer:
 As the highest layer in the OSI reference model, the application layer
provides services to the users of OSI environment. The layer provides
following services:
1. Electronic mail or message handling service
2. Directory services
3. Cost allocation
4. Determination of quality of service
5. File transfer and management
6. Editors and terminal support services
7. Telematic services like videotext.
Q.18 Write short notes on:

i. Stored Program Control.
ii. Congestion.
iii. Common channel signaling.
iv. PSTN. (4 × 4)
Ans.
(i) Stored Program Control: In centralized control, all the control equipment is
replaced by a single processor which must be quite powerful. It must be capable of
processing 10 to 100 calls per second, depending on the load on the system, and
simultaneously performing many other ancillary tasks. A typical control
configuration of an ESS using centralized SPC is shown in Fig. A centralized SPC
configuration may use more than one processor for redundancy purposes.
In almost all the
t he present day electronic switching systems using centralized control,
c ontrol,
only a two-processor configuration is used. A dual processor architecture may be
configured to operate in one of three modes:
(i) Standby mode
(ii) Synchronous duplex mode
(iii) Load Sharing mode
(ii) CONGESTION: It is uneconomic to provide sufficient

sufficient equipment to carry
carry all
the traffic that could possibly be offered to a telecommunication system. In a
telephone exchange it is theoretically possible for every subscriber to make a call
simultaneously. A situation can therefore
therefore arise when all the trunks
trunks in a group
group of
󰀲󰀷

trunks are busy, and so it can accept further calls. This state is known as
congestion. In a message-switched system, calls that arrive during congestion wait
in a queue until an outgoing trunk becomes free. Thus, they are delayed but not
lost. Such systems are therefore called queuing systems or delay system. In a
circuit-switched system, such as a telephone exchange, all attempts to make calls
over a congested group of trunks are successful. Such systems are therefore called
lost-call systems. In a lost-call system the result of congestion is that the traffic
actually carried is less than the traffic offered to the system.
(iii) Common channel signalling. Signaling systems link the variety of switching
systems, transmission systems and subscriber equipments in telecommunication
network to enable the network to function as a whole. Three forms of signaling are
involved in a telecommunication network:
1. Subscriber loops signaling.
2. Intra exchange or register signaling
3. Interexchange or inter register signaling
In a telephone network, subscriber loop signaling depends upon the type of a
telephone instrument used. The intra exchange signaling is internal to the
switching system and is heavily dependent upon the type and design of a switching
system. It varies from one model to another even with the same manufacturer. This
signaling does not involve signaling system of the type required on the switching
network. When interexchange signaling takes place between exchanges with
common
of control subsystems,
Inter register signaling isit the
is called Inter of
exchange register signaling.
address digits The main
which purpose
pass from
exchange to exchange on a link by link basis. Network wide signaling also involves
end to end signaling between the originating exchange and the terminating
exchange. Such a form of of signaling is called line signaling.
signaling. CCS does nnot
ot use the
speech or the data path for signaling. It uses a separate common channel for
passing control signals for a group of trunks or information paths. It gives the
following advantages:
(i) Information can be exchange between the processors much more
rapidly than when channel associated signaling is used.
(ii) As a result, a much wider repertoire of signals can be used and this
enables more services to be provided to customers.
(iii) Signals can be added or changed by software modification to provide
new services.
(iv) There is no longer any need for line signaling equipments on every
junction which results in a considerable
considerable cost saving.
(v) Since there is no line signaling, the junctions can be used for calls from
B to A in addition to calls from A to B. Both way working requires
fewer circuits to carry the traffic than if separate groups of junctions are
provided from A to B and from B to A.
(vi) Signals relating to a call can be sent while the call is in progress. This
enables customers to alter connections after they have been set up. For
example a customer can transfer a call elsewhere, or request a third
party to be connected in to an existing connection.
(iv) PSTN the Public Switched Telephone Network: The Public Switched
Telephone Network (PSTN) accommodates two types of subscribers: public and
private. Subscribers to the private sector are customers who lease equipment,
transmission media
permanent basis. The(facilities), andare
leased circuits service from
designed and telephone
configuredcompanies
for their useon a
only
and are often referred to as private line circuits or dedicated line circuits. For
󰀲󰀸

example, large banks do not wish to share their communication network with other
users, but it is not effective for them to construct their own networks. Therefore,
banks lease equipment and facilities from public telephone companies and
essentially operate a private telephone or data network within the PSTN. The public
telephones companies are sometime called providers, as they lease equipment and
provide service to other private companies, organizations, and government
agencies. Most metropolitan area networks (MANs) and wide area networks
(WANs) utilize private line data circuits and one or more service provider.
Subscribers to the public sector of the PSTN share equipment and facilities that are
available to all the public subscribers to the network. This equipment is
appropriately called common usage equipment, which includes transmission
facilities and telephone switches. Anyone with a telephone number is a subscriber
to the public sector of the PSTN. Since subscribers to the public network are
interconnected only temporarily through switches, the network is often
appropriately called the public switched telephone network (PSTN) and sometimes
simply as the dial-up network. It is possible to interconnect telephones and modems
with one another over great distance in fraction of a second by means of an
elaborate network comprised of central offices, switches, cables (optical and
metallic), and wireless radio systems that are connected by routing nodes (a node is
a switching point). When someone talks about the public switched telephone
network, they referring to the combination of lines and switches that from a system
of electrical routes through the network.

Q.19 What is time multiplexed space switching? With a neat diagram explain its
operation. (8)
Ans:
Time division switches where an inlet or an outlet corresponded to a single
subscriber line with one speech sample appearing every 125 µs on the line. Such
switches are used in local exchanges. We now consider switches that are required in
transit exchanges. Here, the inlets and outlets are trunks which carry time division
multiplexed data streams. We call such switches time multiplexed switches. A time
multiplexed time division space switch is shown in Fig. There are N incoming
trunks and N outgoing trunks, each carrying a time division multiplexed stream of
M samples per frame. Each frame is of 125-µs time duration. In one frame time, a
total of MN speech samples have to be switched. One sample duration, 125/M
microseconds, is usually referred to as a time slot. In one time slot, N samples are
switched. Fig shows an output-controlled switch. The output is cyclically scanned.
There is a 1-to-M relationship between the outlets and the control memory
locations, i.e. there are M locations in the control memory corresponding to each
outlet.
󰀲󰀹


FIG – Time Multiplexing Space Switch
The control memory has MN words. If we view the control memory as M blocks of
N words each, a location address may be specified in a two dimensional
form,(i,j),where i is the block address and j is the word within the block.
block. We have
1< i < M and 1< j < N. The block address i corresponds to the time slot i and and the
word address j to the outlet j. The first N locations of the control memory
correspond to the first time slot, the next N locations, i.e. locations N + 1 to 2N
when addressed linearly, or locations (2,1) to (2,N) when addressed in a two
dimensional form, correspond to the time slot 2 and so on. Therefore, if the location
(i,j) contains an inlet address k, it implies that inlet k is connected to the outlet j
during the time slot i. The number of trunks that can be supported on this switch is
given by N =125/ Mt , Where t is the switching time including memory accessaccess time
per inlet-outlet pair.
Q.20. What are the major systems of a telecommunication network? Discuss in detail the
subscriber loop systems. (8)
Ans:
The major systems of any telecommunication network may consist of the
following major systems:
1. Subscriber end instruments or equipments
2. Subscriber loop systems
3. Switching Systems
4. Transmission systems
5. Signalling systems
Subscriber Loop System: Every subscriber in a telephone network is connected
generally to the nearest switching office by means of a dedicated pair of wires.
Subscriber loop refers to this pair of wires. It is unwidely to run physically
independent pairs from every subscriber premises to the exchange. It is far
fa r easier to
lay cables containing a number of pairs of wires for different geographical
locations and run individual pairs as required by
b y the subscriber premises.
󰀳󰀰

Generally four levels of cabling are used as shown in fig. At the subscriber end, the
nearby geographical
connected locations
to branch feeder arewhich,
cables terminated onare
in turn, a feeder point
connected to where they
the main are
feeder
2000, than the distribution cables which carry typically 10-500 pairs. The feeder
MDF.
Q.21. Classify data networks. Explain

Explain with the help of Nyquist
Nyquist theorem, the data
data rate
limitations in PSTN’s. Give an account of modems used in data transfer. Explain
their importance and list some of the V-series recommendations. (14)
Ans:
Classifications of Data Network:
Data Networks are classified according to their geographical coverage:
• Wide area networks (WANs)
• Metropolitan area networks(MANs)
• Local area networks (LANs)
Data rates in PSTNs: A voice channel in a PSTN is band limited with a nominal
bandwidth of 3.1 kHz. A first-cut estimate of this can be obtained from Nyquist’s
theorem which applies to noiseless channels
c hannels and states:
R = 2H log V bps
Where
R = maximum data raterate
H = bandwidth of the channel
V = number of discr
discrete
ete levels in the signal
signal
󰀳󰀱


FIG – Baud Rates and Bit Rates
For a 3-kHz channel, and a binary signal, the maximum data rate works out to be
600 bps, if the channel is ideal. In a practical channel, the maximum rate would
come down. By increasing the number of levels used to represent the signal, the bit
rate may be increased arbitrarily in a noiseless channel. It is important to recognize
that the actual number of signal transitions is still limited to the binary level limit;
the effective bit rate
rate goes up with more than two signal
signal levels as each signal level
can now represent a group of two or more bits. The maximum rate of signal
transitions that can be supported by a channel is known as baud rate or symbol rate.
In a channel where noise is present, there is an absolute maximum limit for the bit
rate. This limit arises because the difference between two signal levels becomes
comparable to the noise level when the number of signal level is increased. Claude
Shannon extended Nyquist’s work to the case of noisy channels affected by random
or thermal noise. Shannon’s result states;
R = H log (1+S/N)
Where R= the maximum bit rate obt obtainable
ainable
H= bandwidth of the channel
S/N = signal to noise ratio.
Modem : Modems are generally provided by network operators (Department of
Telecommunication in India) or by vendors who are not necessarily the
manufacturers of computer systems. Hence, there is a need to standardize the
interface between the modem and the computer equipment. CCITT terminology for
the modem is data circuit terminating equipment (DCE), and for the computer it is
data terminal equipment (DTE). DCE is often referred to as data communication
equipment, outside CCITT. It is important to recognize that DCE and DTE are
generic terms and may be applied to a variety of equipments not necessarily only to
modems or computers. For example, a DTE may be a terminal, workstation or a
computer, and a DCE may be a modem or a computer based node in a data network.
A series of standards, known as V- series, has been defined by CCITT for
interfacing DTEs to DCEs operating with PSTNs. The series also defines a variety
of DCEs using different modulation techniques and operating at different speeds
using either a leased PSTN or dial-up line Examples of DTE-DCE interface
standards and other standards related to data transmission on PSTN are:
V.5 Standardization of data signaling rates for synchronous data transmission in the
PSTN
󰀳󰀲

V.24 DTE-DCE interface and control signals

V.28 DTE-DCE electrical characteristics
cha racteristics for unbalanced double-current interchange
circuits.
V.53 Limits for the maintenance of telephone type circuits used for data
transmission.
Q.22. What is Grade

Grade of service
service and blocking probability?
probability? What are delay systems in
telecommunication networks? (8)
Ans:
Grade of service: In loss systems, the traffic carried by the network is generally
lower than the actual traffic offered to the network by the subscribers. The overload
traffic is rejected and hence it is not carried by the network. The amount of traffic
rejected by the network is an index of the quality of the service offered by the
network and is termed as grade of service (GOS) and is defined as the ratio of lost
traffic to offered traffic. Offered traffic is the product of the average number of calls
generated by the users and the average holding time per call. GOS is given by
GOS = A-A0 / A0

Where
A= offered traffic
A0 =0=
A-A carried traffic
lost traffic
Blocking Probability: The blocking probability P is defined as the probability that

all the servers in system are busy. When all the servers are busy, no further traffic
can be carried by the system and the arriving subscribers’ traffic is blocked. At the
first instance, it may appear that the blocking probability is the same measure as the
GOS. The probability that all the servers are busy may well represent the fraction of
the calls lost, which is what the GOS is all about.
ab out.
Delay System: A class of telecommunication networks, such as data networks,
places the call or message arrivals in a queue in the absence of resources, and
services them as and when resources become available. Servicing is not taken up
until the resources become available. Such systems are known as Delay Systems.
Delay Systems are analyzed using queuing theory which is sometimes known as
waiting line theory. Delay Systems in telecommunications include the following:
• Message Switching
• Packet Switching
• Digit Receiver access
• Automatic Call distribution
• Call Processing
Q.23 What are single stage

stage and multistage networks?
networks? Compare
Compare the strengths and
weaknesses of each. (6)
OR
List the major difference in single stage, two stage and three stage Networks. Also
discuss their blocking characteristics. (8)
󰀳󰀳

Ans:
Single Stage Vs. Multistage Network.
Sr.
Single Stage Multi Stage
No.
Inlet to outlet connection is through a single Inlet to Outlet connection is through
1.
cross point. multiple cross points
Use of single cross point per connection Use of multiple cross points may
2.
results in better quality link. degrade the quality of a connection.
Same cross point can be used
Each individual cross point can be used for establish connection between a
3.
only one inlet/outlet pair connection.
c onnection. number of inlet/outlet pairs.
A specific connection may be

A specific cross point is needed
nee ded
established by using
4. for each specific connection.
sets of cross points.
If a cross points fails, associated

Alternative cross-points and
connection cannot be establish-
5. paths are available.
There is no redundancy.
Cross points are inefficiently used. Only

one cross point in each row or column of a
square or triangular switch matrix is even
Cross points are used
6. in use , even if all the lines are active.
Efficiently
Number of cross points is Number of cross points

7. Prohibitive is reduced significantly
A large number of cross points

There is no capacitive
in each inlet/outlet leads to
8. loading problem
capacitive loading.
The network is non blocking

bl ocking The network is blocking
9. in character in character
10. Time for establishing a call is less. Time for establishing a call is more.
Q.24. Explain the basic

basic architecture of
of digital switc
switching
hing systems. Explain in detail
companding. (8)
Ans:
A simple N X N time division space switch is shown in Fig. The switch can be
represented in an equivalence form as a two-stage network with N X 1 and 1 X N
switching matrices
network has for interconnecting
one link the first and second stages
the two respectively
stages. as shown in
Each inlet/outlet is Fig. The
a single
speech circuit corresponding to a subscriber line. The speech is carried as PAM
󰀳󰀴

analogue samples or PCM digital samples, occurring at 125-µs intervals. When

PAM samples are switched in a time division manner, the switching is known as
analogue time division switching. If PCM binary samples switched, then the
switching is known as digital time division switching. In Fig, the interconnected by
a suitable control mechanism and the speech sample transferred from the inlet to the
outlet.
FIG – Switching Structure
FIG - Two – stage Equivalence

Equivalence
Companding: Companding is the process of compressing and expanding. It

consists of compressing the signal at the transmitter and expanding it at the
receiver. The modulating signal to be transmitted is passed through an amplifier
which has correctly adjusted non linear transfer characteristic, favoring small
amplitude signals. These are the artificially large when they are quantized and so
the effect of quantizing noise upon them is reduced. The correct amplifier relations
are restored at the receiver by expander. It is desirable to agree to some standard for
companding in order to realize hardware efficiencies and to permit sending and
receiving by a variety of users. The most common application of companding is in
voice transmission. North America and Japan have adopted a standard compression
curve known as µ law companding. The law µ companding formula is given by
Vout = ( Vmax X In (1+ µ Vin / Vmax) / In (1+ µ )
Where
Vmax = Maximum uncompressed modulating input amplitude.
amplitude.
Vin = Amplitude of the input signal at particular instant
instant at time
time
󰀳󰀵

µ = Parameter used to define the amount of compression

compression
Vout = Compressed output voltage.
FIG – Companding Curves for PCM
Q.25. Describe the various signalling techniques. Compare

Compare in-channel
in-channel signalling
signalling with
common channel signaling, which is more advantageous. (8)
Ans:
Signaling systems
systems link the variety of
of switching systems,
systems, transmission systems and
subscriber equipments in telecommunication network to enable the network to
function as a whole.
Three forms of signaling are involved
i nvolved in a telecommunication network:
1. Subscriber loop signaling.
telephone instrument used.
The intra exchange signaling is internal to the switching system and is heavily
dependent upon the type and design of a switching system .It varies from one model
to another even with the same manufacturer. This signaling does not involve
signaling system of the type required on
o n the switching network.
When interexchange signaling takes place between exchanges with common
control subsystems, it is called Inter register signaling. The main purpose of Inter
register
exchangesignaling
on a linkisby
thelink
exchange of address
basis. Network digits
wide whichalso
signaling passinvolves
from exchange to
end to end
signaling between the originating
originating exchange an
and
d the terminating exchange. Such a
form of signaling is called line signaling. CCS does not use the speech or the data
path for signaling. It uses a separate common channel for passing control signals
for a group of trunks or information
In Channel Common Channel

Trunks are held up during Trunks are not required for
signaling. Signaling
Signal repertoire is Extensive signal repertoire is
limited. possible.
Interference between voice No interference as the two
and Channels are physically separate.
Control signals may occur.
Separate signaling Only one set of signalling
󰀳󰀶

equipment is required for equipments is required for a whole

each trunk and hence group of trunk Circuits and
expensive. therefore CCS
is economical
The voice channel being

the control channel, there Control Channel is in general
is a possibility of potential in accessible to users.
misuse by the customers.
Signaling is relatively
Signaling is significantly fast.
slow.
Speech circuit reliability is There is no automatic test of the
assured. speech circuit.
It is difficult to change or There is flexibility to change or
add signals. add signals.
It is difficult to handle
Signals during speech.
signaling during
There is freedom to handle
speech period.
Reliability of the signaling Reliability of the signaling

path is not
Path is critical.
Critical.
Common channel signaling is better than In-channel signaling.
Q 26 Explain the following terms: progressive

progressive control, common
common control and stored
stored
program control. (6)
Ans:
(i) Progressive Control: Step by step system
system is an example of progressive
progressive control.
The connection is set up in stages, in response to the digits dialed and each step in
setting up the connection is controlled by relays mounted on the selector which
operates at the input stage.
(ii) Common Control: Those systems in which the control subsystem is outside
the switching network are known as common control switching system. Strowger
exchanges are usually direct control systems, whereas crossbar and electronic
exchanges are common control system. All stored program control systems are
common control systems. Common control is also known as indirect control or
register control.
(iii) Stored Program Control: Modern digital computers use the stored
programmed concept. Here, a program or a set of instructions to the computer is
stored in its memory and the instructions are executed automatically one by one by
the processor. Carrying out the exchange control functions through programs stored
in the memory of a computer led to the nomenclature stored program control
(SPC). An immediate consequence of program control is the full-scale automation
of exchange functions and the introduction of a variety of new services to users.
Common Channel Signaling (CCS), centralized maintenance and automatic fault
󰀳󰀷

diagnosis, and interactive human-machine interface are some of the features that
have become possible due to the
t he application of SPC to telephone switching
Q.27. Explain what is DTMF signalling. (6)
Ans:
Dual Tone Multi Frequency (DTMF) was first introduced in 1963 with 10 buttons
in Western Electric 1500 –type telephones. DTMF was originally called Touch-
Tone. DTMF is a more efficient means than dial pulsing for transferring telephone
numbers from a subscriber’s location to the central office switching machine.
DTMF is a simple two-of –eight encoding scheme where each digit is represented
by the linear addition of two frequencies. DTMF is strictly for signaling between a
subscriber’s location and the nearest telephone office or message switching center.
DTMF is sometimes confused with another two-tone signaling system called multi
frequency signaling (Mf), which is a two-of-six code designed to be used only to
convey information between two electronic switching machines.
Fig. shows the four-row-by-four column keypad matrix used with a DTMF keypad.
As the figure shows, the keypad is comprised of 16 keys and eight frequencies.
Most household telephones, however, are not equipped with the special-purpose
keys located in the fourth column (i.e., the A, B, C, and D keys). Therefore, most
household telephones actually use two-of-seven tone encoding scheme. The four
vertical
941 Hz, frequencies
and the four (called the frequencies
horizontal low group frequencies) are group
(called the high 697 Hz, 852 Hz, and
frequencies) are
1209 Hz, 1336 Hz,1477 Hz, and 1633 Hz. The frequency tolerance of the
oscillators is + .5%. As shown in Figure, the digits 2 through 9 can also be used to
represent 24 of the 26 letters (Q and Z are omitted). The letters were originally
used to identify one local telephone exchange from another.
FIG - DTMF Keypad Layout.
Q.28 Write short notes

(i)Telephone hand set and it’s working.
(ii) CPU based exchange (8)
Ans:
(i) A standard telephone set is comprised of a transmitter, a receiver, and electrical
network for equalization, associated circuitry to control side tone levels and to
regulate signal power, and necessary signalling circuitry. In essence, a telephone set
󰀳󰀸

is an apparatus that creates an exact likeness of sound waves with an electric

current. Fig 8-4 shows the functional block diagram of a telephone set. The
essential components of a telephone set are the ringer circuit, on/off hook circuit,
equalizer circuit, hybrid circuit, speaker, microphone,
mic rophone, and a dialing circuit.
Ringer Circuit: The purpose of the ringer is to alert the destination party of
incoming calls. The audible tone from the ringer must be load enough to be heard
from a reasonable distance and offensive enough to make a person want to answer
the telephone as soon as possible. In modem telephones, the bell has been placed
with an electronic oscillator connected to the speaker..
On/off hook circuit: The on/off hook circuit (some times called a switch hook) is
nothing more than a simple single-throw, double-pole (STDP) switch placed across
the tip and ring. The switch is mechanically connected to the telephone handset so
that when the telephone is idle (on hook), the switch is open. When the telephone is
in use (off hook), the switch is closed completing and electrical path through the
microphone between the tip and ring of the local loop.
Equalizer circuit: Equalizers are combination of passive components (resistors,
capacitors and so on) that are used to regulate the amplitude and frequency response
of the voice signals.
Speaker: In essence, the speaker is the receiver for the telephone. The speaker
converts electrical signals received from the local loop to acoustical signals(sound
waves) that can be heard and understood by a human being. The speaker is
connected
enclosed intothethe local of
handset loop
thethrough thealong
telephone hybrid network.
with The speaker is typically
the microphone.
Microphone: For all practical purposes, the microphone is the transmitter for the
telephone. The microphone converts acoustical signals in the form of sound
pressure waves from the caller to electrical signals that are transmitted into
telephone net-work through the hybrid network. Both the microphone and the
speaker are transducers, as they convert one form of energy into another form of
energy. A microphone converts acoustical energy first to mechanical energy and
then to electrical energy.
Hybrid network : The hybrid network (sometimes called a hybrid coil or duplex
coil) in a telephone set is a special balanced transformer used to convert a two-wire
circuit(the local loop) in to a four wire circuit(the telephone set) and the vice-versa,
thus enabling full duplex operation over a two wire circuit. In essence, the hybrid
network separates the transmitted signals from the received signals. Outgoing voice
signals are typically in the 1-V to 2-V range, while incoming voice signals are
typically half that value. Another function of the hybrid network is to allow a small
portion of the transmit signal to be returned to the receiver in the form of a sidetone.
In sufficient sidetone causes the speaker to raise his voice, making the telephone
conversation seem unnatural. Too much sidetone causes the speaker to talk too
softly, thereby reducing the volume that the listener receives.
󰀳󰀹


FIG – Functional Block Diagram Of a Standard Telephone Set.
Dialing Circuit: The dialing circuit enables the subscriber to output signals
representing digits, and this enables the caller to enter the destination telephone
number. The dialing circuit could be a rotary dialer, which is nothing more than a
switch connected to a mechanical rotating mechanism that controls the number and
duration of the on/off condition of a switch. However, more than likely, the dialing
circuit is either an electronic dial-pulsing circuit or a Touch-Tone keypad, which
sends various combinations of tones representing the called digits.
(ii) CPU Based Exchange : In centralized control, all the control equipment is
replaced by a single processor which must be quite powerful. It must be capable of
processing 10 to 100 calls per second, depending on the load on the system, and
simultaneously performing many other ancillary tasks. A typical control
configuration of an ESS using centralized SPC is shown in Fig. A centralized SPC
configuration may use more than one processor for redundancy purposes. Although
there are a large number of services which can be offered by CPU based exchange,
they may be grouped under four broad categories.
ca tegories.
FIG - Typically CPU Based Exchange

E xchange
1. Services associated with the calling subscribers and designed to reduce the time
spent on dialing and the number of dialing errors.
2. Services associated with the called subscriber and designed to increase the call
completion rate.
3. Services involving more than two parties.
4. Miscellaneous services.
These new
ones are as services
follows: are known as supplementary services and some of the prominent
󰀴󰀰

Category 1:
• Abbreviated dialing
• Recorded number calls or no dialing calls
ca lls
• Call back when free.
Category 2:
• Call forwarding
• Operator answer.
Category 3:
• Calling number record
• Call waiting
• Consultation hold
• Conference calls.
Category 4:
• Automatic alarm
• STD barring
• Malicious call tracing
A subscriber issues commands to an exchange to activate or deactivate a service,
record or clear data in the subscriber line data area or solicit an acknowledgement
from the exchange. As an example, a user may enable or disable STD facility on his
line by using a command. A command may or may not have data associated with it.
The number of digits in the data, when present, may vary depending upon the
command. As a result, subscriber commands
commands are designed to be of of variable length
necessitating the use of an end-of-command symbol
Q.29. Explain the terms.

(i) Register marker.
(ii) Conditional selection. (6)
Ans:
(i) Register marker: Strowger selectors perform counting and searching.
However, the crossbar switch has no ‘intelligence’. Something external to the
switch must decide which magnets to operate. This is called a Register Marker.
Since it takes less than a second to operate the switch, a marker can control many
switches and serve many registers. Thus, even a large exchange needs few markers.
This is further stage of common control, which we shall call centralized control.
(ii) Conditional selection: When a marker is instructed to set up a connection
from a given incoming trunk to a given outgoing trunk, this also defines the link to
be used and the select and bridge magnets to be operated to make the connection.
The maker does not make the connection until it interrogated the busy/free
condition of the outgoing trunk and of the relevant link. Only if both are found to
be free does it operate the switches. This is called Conditional Selection.
Q.30. In a hundred-line exchange 24 two-motion selectors are used. Draw the schematic
you suggest for this exchange and explain its working. How many simultaneous
calls can be made during peak hour in this exchange? (10)
Ans:
The desired schematic for 100 lines exchange with 24 two motion selectors is
shown in Fig.
󰀴󰀱


FIG – 100 Line – Exchange.
In the case, 24 simultaneous calls can be put through the switch . Typically, a 24-
outlet uniselector is used as a selector hunter. Each of the 24 outlets is connected to
one two-motion selector. Thus, a subscriber has access to all the 24 two-motion
selectors in the system. The corresponding outlets of all the selector hunters are
commoned and thus, all subscribers have access to all the two-motion selectors.
This scheme is shown in Fig. The call establishment in this scheme takes place in
two steps. Firstly, when the subscriber lifts his receiver handset, his uniselector
hunts through the contact positions and seizes a free two-motion selector. At the
next step, the two-motion selector responds to the dial pulses for appropriate
connection.
Q.31. Compare electromechanical switching system with electronic switching system.

(6)
Ans:
Sr.
Electromechanical Switching
No Electronic Switching System
System
.
1. Makes use of electronic switching
Makes use of electromechanical
elements such as diodes/
switches transistors.
2. Less space required and less
Require large space
bulks.
3. Regular maintenance required Less maintenance required
4. Common control is used Computer control is used
5. Cannot provide additional Can provide enhanced services to
services to customers customers.
Q.32. What is centralized

centralized SPC, what are its modes of operation; explain the working of
any one of these? (8)
Ans:
In centralized control, all the control equipment is replaced by a single processor
which must be quite powerful. It must be capable of processing 10 to 100 calls per
second, depending on the load on the system, and simultaneously performing many
󰀴󰀲

other ancillary tasks. A typical control configuration of an ESS using centralized

SPC is shown in Fig. A centralized SPC configuration may use more than one
processor for redundancy purposes. In almost all the present day electronic
switching systems using centralized control, only a two-processor configuration is
used. Dual processor architecture may be configured to operate in one of three
modes:
a. Standby mode
b. Synchronous duplex mode
c. Load Sharing mode
FIG - Typically Centralized SPC Organization.
Standby mode of operation is the simplest of dual processor configuration

operations. Normally, one processor is active and the other is on standby, both
hardware and software wise. The Standby processor is brought online only when
the active processor fails. An important requirement of this configuration is the
ability of the standby processor to reconstitute the state of the exchange system
when it takes over the control, i.e. to determine which of the subscribers and trunks
are busy or free, which of the paths are connected through the switching network
etc. In small exchanges, this may be possible by scanning all the status signals as
soon as the standby processor is brought into operation. In such a case, only the
calls which are being established at the time of failure of the active processor are
disturbed. In large exchanges,
exchanges, it is not possible to
to scan all the status signals within
a reasonable time. Here, the active processor copies the status of the system
periodically, say every five seconds, into a secondary storage. When a switch over
occurs, the online processor loads the most recent update of the system status from
the secondary storage and continues the operation. In this case, only the calls which
changed status between the last update and the failure of the active processor are
disturbed. Fig. shows a standby dual processor configuration with a common
backup storage. The shared secondary storage need not be duplicated and simple
unit level redundancy would suffice.
󰀴󰀳


FIG - Standby Dual Processor Configuration.
Q.33. Explain the

the architecture
architecture of
of SS
SS7
7 and
and compar
comparee with seven-layer OSI architecture.
(8)
Ans:
A block schematic diagram of the CCITT no. 7 signaling system is shown in fig.
Signal messages are passed from the central processor of the sending exchange to
the CCS system. This consists of the microprocessor based subsystem.
The signaling control subsystems, the signaling termination
ter mination subsystem and the error
control subsystem. The signaling control subsystem structures the messages in the
appropriate format and queues them for transmission. When there are no messages
to send, it generates filler messages to keep the link active. Messages then passed to
the signaling termination sub system, where complete signal units (SU) are
assembled using sequence numbers and check bits generated by the error control
subsystem. At the receiving terminal, the reverse sequence is carried out. The levels
are as follows:
Level 1: The Physical Layer
Level 2: The Data Link Level
Level 3: The signaling network level
Level 4: The User Part
FIG – Block Schematic Diagram of CCITT

CCIT T No.7 Signally System
The relationship between these levels and the layers of the OSI model is shown in
Fig. The user part encompasses layers 4 to 7 of the OSI model.
󰀴󰀴

FIG – Relationship between CCITT No.7 Functional levels and OSI layers
Level 1 is the means of sending bit streams over a physical path. It uses times lot
16 of a 2 M bit/s PCM system
system or times slot 24 of a 1.5 M bit/s system.
system.
Level 2 performs the functions of error control, link initialization, error rate
monitoring, flow control and delineation of messages.
Level 3 provides the functions required for a signaling network. Each node in the
network has a single point odd, which is a 14 bit address. Every message contains
point codes of the originating and terminating nodes for those messages.
Levels 1 to 3 form the message transfer part (MTP) of CCITT no. 7 .
Level 4 is the user part. This consists of the processes for handling the service being
supported by the signaling system. The message transfer part is capable of
supporting many different user parts. So far, three have been defined: the telephone
user part (TUE), the data user part(DUP) and the (ISDN) user part (ISDN-UP).
Q.34. What are different

different control function categories, explain, how they help in signalling
and control. (8)
Ans:
switching network itself. Such system is known as direct control switching
system is shown in Fig. The control functions in a switching
system may be placed under four
f our broad categories:
i. Event monitoring.
ii. Call processing.
iii. Charging.
iv. Operation and maintenance
󰀴󰀵

Typical events include all requests and call release signals at the line units. The
action. The control subsystem may operate relays in the junctions, receivers/senders
and the line units, and thus command these units to perform certain functions.
Events monitoring may be distributed. For examples, the line units themselves may
initiate control actions on the occurrence of certain line events.
When a subscriber goes off-hook, the event is sensed, the calling location is
determined and market for dial tone, and the register finder is activated to seize a
free register. Identity of the calling line is used to determine the line category and
the class of service to which the subscriber belongs. A register appropriate to the
line category is chosen, which then sends out the dial tone to the subscriber, in
readiness to receive the dialing information. As soon as the initial digits (usually 2-
5) which identify the exchange are received in the register, the register continues to
receive the remaining digits. The initial translator determines the rroute
oute for the call
through the network and decides whether a call should be put through or not. It also
determines the charging methods and the rates applicable to the subscriber.
subscriber. Initial
translation may also take into account instructions from the operating personnel and
information regarding the status of the network.

exchange. If the call is destined to a subscriber within the same exchange, the digits
are processed by the final translator. The translation of directory number to
equipment number takes place at this stage. The final translator determines the line
unit to which a call must be connected and the category of the called line. The
category information may influence charging and connection establishment. In
performed by a single translator.
󰀴󰀶

Controlling the operation of the switching network is an important function of the

common control subsystem. This is done by marking the switching elements at
different stages in accordance with a set of binary data defining the path and then
commanding the actual connection of the path. Path finding may be carried out at
the level of the common control unit or the switching network.
Q.35. Show how finite state machine model helps in designing a switching system and
give a typical example. (8)
Ans:
Switching system basically belongs to the class of finite state machines (FSM)
which are asynchronous in nature and follows a sequential logic for their operation.
They can be modeled by using a combinational part and a memory part as shown in
Fig.. In FSM , the status of the output circuits not only depends upon the inputs but
also upon the current state of the machine. Asynchronous sequential operation gives
rise to many problems due to transient variations that may occur in the logic circuits
and memory elements. Clocked synchronous operation shown in Fig. overcome
such problems.
FIG – FSM Model.
Q.36. Through two block diagrams explain the difference between Space division
division and
time division switching. (8)
Ans:
Space and Time Switching:
Space Switches: Connections can be made between incoming and outgoing PCM
highways by means of a cross point matrix of the form shown in Fig. However,
different channels of an incoming PCM frame may need to be switched by different
cross points in order to reach different destinations. The cross point is therefore a
two-input AND gate. One input is connected to the incoming PCM highway and the
other to a connection store that produce a pulse at the required instant. A group of
cross points gates can be implemented as an integrated circuit, for example by using
a multiplexer chip.
󰀴󰀷


FIG – Space Switch.
Fig. shows a space switch with k incoming and m outgoing PCM highways, Each
carrying n channels. The connections store for each column of cross points is a
memory with an address location for each time-slot, which stores the number of the
cross points to be operated in that time slot. This number is written into the address
by the controlling processor in order to setup the connection. The numbers are read
out cyclically, in synchronism with the incoming PCM frame. In each time slot, the
number stored at the corresponding store address is read out and decoding logic
converts this into a pulse or a single lead to operate the relevant cross point.
Since a cross point can make a different connection in each of the n time-slots, it is
equivalent to n cross points in a space division network. The complete space switch
is thus equivalent to n separate k x m switches in a space division switching
network.
Time Switches: The principle of a time switch is shown in Fig. It connects an
incoming n channel PCM highway to an outgoing n channel PCM highway. Since
any incoming channel can be connected to any outgoing channel, it is equivalent to
space division cross point matrix with n incoming and n outgoing trunks, as shown
in Fig. Time-slot interchange is carried out by means of two stores, each having a
storage address for every channel of the PCM frame. The speech store contains the
data of each of the incoming time-slots (i.e. its speech sample) at a corresponding
address. Each address of the connection store corresponds to a time slot on the
outgoing highway. It contains the number of the time-slot on the incoming
highways whose sample is to be transmitted in that outgoing time-slots.
Information is read into the speech store cyclically in synchronism with the
incoming PCM systems; however, random access read out is used .The connection
store has cyclic read out, but writing in is non cyclic. To establish a connection, the
number (X of the time-slot of an incoming channel is written into the connection
store at the address corresponding to the selected outgoing channel (Y ).During
each cyclic scan of the speech store ,the incoming PCM sample from channel X is
written into address X. During each cyclic scan of the connection store, the number
X is read out at the beginning of time-slot Y. This is decoded to select address X of
the speech store, whose contents are read out and sent over the outgoing highway.
󰀴󰀸


FIG – Time Switch
Q.37. Explain the CCITT hierarchical

hierarchical structure of sswitching
witching and routing using
using block
schematic. (8)
Ans:
Hierarchical network are capable of handing heavy traffic where required, and at the
same time use minimal number of trunk groups. A 5-level switching hierarchy is
recommended by CCITT as shown in Fig. In a strictly hierarchical network, traffic
from subscriber A to subscriber B and vice-versa flows through the highest level of
hierarchy, viz. Quaternary centres in Fig. A traffic route via the highest level of
hierarchy is known as the final route. However, if there is a high traffic intensity
between any pair of exchanges, direct trunk groups may be established between
them as shown by dashed lines in Fig.. These direct routes are known as high usage
routes. Wherever high usage routes exist, the traffic is primarily routed through
them. Overflow traffic, if any, is routed along the hierarchical path. No overflow is
permitted from the final route. In Fig. The first choice routing for traffic between
subscribers A and B is via the high usage route across the primary centres. The
second and the third choice route and the final route are also indicated in Fig. A
hierarchical system of routing leads to simplified switch design. Three methods are
commonly used for deciding on the route for a particular connection:
1. Right-through routing.

2. Own-exchange routing.

3. Computer-controlled routing.
󰀴󰀹

In right-through routing the originating exchange determines the complete route

from source to destination. No routing decisions are taken at the intermediate
routes. In the absence of a computer, only a predetermined route can be chosen by
the originating exchange. However, there may be more than one predetermined
route and the originating node may select one out of these, based on certain like
time of the day, even distribution of traffic etc.
Own-exchange routing or distributed routing allows alternative routes to be chosen
at the intermediate nodes. Thus the strategy is capable of responding to changes in
traffic loads and network configurations. Another advantage of distributed routing
is that when new exchanges are added, modifications required in the switch are
minimal.
Computers are used in network with common channel signaling (CCS) features. In
CCS, there is a separate computer-controlled signaling network. With computers in
󰀵󰀰

position, a number of sophisticated route selection methods can be implemented.

Computer based routing is a standard feature in data networks. A strictly
hierarchical network suffers from serious drawback i.e. its poor fault tolerance
future.
Q.38. What are the advantages of CCS over in-channel signalling? (8)
Ans:
The advantages of CCS over in-channel signalling are listed below:
a. Information can be exchange between the processors much more rapidly
than when channel associated signaling is used.
b. As a result, a much wider repertoire of signals can be used and this
enables more services to be provided to customers.
c. Signals can be added or changed by software modification to provide new
services.
d. There is no longer any need for line signaling equipments on every
junction which results in a considerable
considerable cost saving.
e. Since there is no line signaling, the junctions can be used for calls from B
to A in addition to calls from A to B. Both ways working requires fewer
circuit to carry the traffic than if separate groups of junctions are provided
from A to B and from B to A.
f. Signals relating to a call can be sent while the call is in progress. This
enables customers to alter connections after they have been set up.
g. Signals can be exchanged between processors for functions other than call
processing, for example for maintenance or network management
purposes.
Q 39. What is a Modem? What is the need of MODEM in data communication? Explain
at least one modulation technique used for high speed modems. (10)
Ans:
Modems are essentially used to interface digital circuits to transmit information on
analogue channels like telephone systems. Modem (from modulator-demodulator)
is a device that modulates an analogue carrier signal to encode digital information,
and also demodulates such a carrier signal to decode the transmitted ininformation.
formation.
The goal is to produce a signal that can be transmitted easily and decoded to
reproduce the original signal data.Modems can be used over any means of
transmitting analog signals. Two main modulation schemes are currently being used
to implement ADSL: carrier less amplitude/ phase (CAP) a single carrier
modulation scheme based on quadrature amplitude modulation (OAM); and a nd discrete
multi-tone (DMT), a multichannel modulation scheme. The choice between them
naturally depends on how well they perform in the presence of impairments on the
existing copper twisted –pair access cabling (see side bar), because these can limit
the transmission capacity. In addition, high bit rate services carried by ADSL must
not interfere with other services. In essence, multicarrier modulation superimposes
a number of carrier modulated waveforms to represent the input bit stream. The
transmitted signal is the sum of these sub-channels (or tones), which have the same
band width and equally spaced center frequencies. The number of tones must be
large enough to ensure good performance. In practice, a value of 256 provides near
optimum performance while ensuring manageable implementation complexity.
󰀵󰀱

Need of Modem: Modems are used to interface

interface computers, computer networks
networks and
other terminal equipment to telecommunication lines and radio channels. The word
Modem is a contraction derived from the words modulator and demodulator. The
modems at the transmitting station changes the digital output from the computer or
other data terminal equipment to a form which can be easily sent via a
communication circuit, while the receiving modem reverse the process. Modems
differ in rate of data transmission, modulation methods and bandwidth and
standards have been developed to provide compatibility between various
manufacturers’ equipment and systems.
FSK – Frequency Shift Keying: In this technique the frequency of the carrier
signal is changed according to the data. The transmitter sends different frequencies
for a “I” than for a “0” as shown in Fig. The disadvantages of this technique are that
again (as it was with amplitude modulation) the rate of frequency
fr equency changes is limited
by the bandwidth of the line, and that distortion caused by the lines makes the
detection even harder than amplitude
a mplitude modulation.
FIG – FSK
Q.40. What are the advantages and disadvantages of

of packet switching over circuit
switching? (6)
Ans:
The comparison of packet switching and circuit switching showing advantages and
disadvantages of packet switching over circuit switching is given
below:
Circuit Switching Packet Switching

Dedicated transmission path. No dedicated transmission path
Transmission of data. Transmission of packets.
Operate in real time. Near real time.
Message not stored. Message held for short time
Path established for entire Route established for each packet
message.
Call setup delay. Packet transmission delay.
Busy signal if called party busy. No busy signal.
Blocking may occur. Blocking cannot occur
User responsible for message-loss Network may be responsible
re sponsible for each
󰀵󰀲

protection. packet but not for entire message.

No speed or code conversion. Speed and code conversion.
Fixed bandwidth transmission. Dynamic use of bandwidth.
No overload bits after initial setup Overload bits in each packet.
delay.
Q.41. Explain crossbar exchange, with all call processing steps and diagrams (8)
Ans:
The basic idea of crossbar switching is to provide a matrix of n x m sets of contacts
with only n + m activators or less to select one of the n x m sets of contacts. This
form of switching is also known as coordinate switching as the switching contacts
are arranged in a x-y-plane. A diagrammatic representation of a cross point
switching matrix is shown in Fig. There is an array of horizontal and vertical wires
shown by solid lines. A set of vertical and horizontal contact points are connected to
these wires. The contact points form pairs, each pair coconsisting
nsisting of a bank
bank of three
or four horizontal and a corresponding bank of vertical contact points. A contact
point pair acts as a cross point switch and remains separated or open when not in
use. The contact points are mechanically mounted (and electrically insulated) on a
set of horizontal and vertical bars shown as dotted lines. The bars, in turn, are
attached to a set of electromagnets.
FIG - 3 X 3 Crossbar Switching
When an electromagnetic energized, the bar attached to it slightly rotates in such a

way that the contact points attached to the bar move closer to its facing contact
points but do not actually make any contact. Now if an electromagnet in the
vertical direction is energized, the corresponding bar rotates causing the contact
points at the intersection of the two bars to close. This happens because the contact
points move towards each other. For example, if electromagnets M2 and M3’ are
energized, a contact is established at the cross point 6 such that the subscriber B is
connected to the subscriber C.
Q.42. Explain simple telephone communication

communication sy
system
stem with circuit and equation of
of
current flow in microphone? (8)
󰀵󰀳


Ans:
Simple Telephone Communication: In the simplest form of a telephone circuit,
there is one way communication involving two entities, one receiving (listening)
and the other transmitting
t ransmitting (talking).
FIG - A Simplex Telephone Circuit
Simplex communication: The microphone and the earphone are the transducer
elements of the telephone communication system. Microphone converts speech
signal to electrical signals and the earphone converts the electrical signals into
audio signals. Most commonly used microphone is carbon microphone. Carbon
microphones do not produce high fidelity signals, but give out strong electrical
signals at acceptable quality levels for telephone conversation. In carbon
microphones, a certain quantity of small carbon granules is placed in a box. Carbon
granules conduct electrically and the resistance offered by them is dependent upon
the density with which they are packed. One side the box is covered is flexible and
is mechanically attached to a diaphragm. When sound waves impinge on the
diaphragm, it vibrates, causing the carbon granules to compress or expand, thus
changing the resistivity offered by the granules. If a voltage is applied to the
microphone, the current in the circuit varies according to the vibration of the
diaphragm.
When the sound waves impinge on the diaphragm, the instantaneous resistance of
the microphone is given by
ri = r0 – r sin ωt
Where
r0 = Quiescent resistance
re sistance of the microphone when there is no speech signal.
r = Maximum variation
variation in resistance
resistance offered by the carbon
carbon granules, r < r0 .
The negative sign indicates that when the carbon granules are compressed the
resistance decreases and vice versa. Ignoring impedances external to the
microphone in the circuit given in Fig. without loss of generality, the instantaneous
current in the microphone is given by
-1
i = V/(r0 – r sin ωt) = I0(1 – m sin ωt)
Where
I0 = V/r0 = Quiescent current
current in the microphone .
m = r/r0 , m < 1
By binomial theorem, the Eq. may be expanded as
2 2
i = I0 (1+ m sin ωt + m sin ωt + ….)
If the value of m is sufficient small, which is usually the case in practice, higher-
order terms can be be ignored in the above Eq. Giving thereby
i = I0 (1+ m sin ωt)
󰀵󰀴

Thus, the carbon granule microphone acts as a modulator of the direct current I
which is analogous to the carrier wave in AM system. The quantity m is equivalent
to the modulation index in AM.
Q.43. Find the

the total number of
of link L having five
five entities? Explain differences
differences between
folded and non-folded network. (8)
Ans:
Folded network: When all the inlets/outlets are connected
connected to the subscriber lines,
the logical connection appears as shown in Fig. In this case, the output lines are
folded back to the input and hence the network is called a folded network. Four
types of connection may be established:
e stablished:
1. Local call connection between two subscribers in the system.
2. Outgoing call connection between a subscriber and an outgoing trunk.
3. Incoming call connection between an incoming trunk and a local
subscriber.
4. Transit calls connection between an incoming trunk and an outgoing
trunk.
In a folded network with N subscriber, there can be a maximum of N/2
simultaneous calls or information interchanges.
FIG – Folded Network
Non-Folded Network: In a switching network, all the inlet/outlet connection may

be used for inter exchange transmission. In such a case, the exchange does not
support local subscribers and is called a transit exchange. A switching network of
this kind is shown in Fig. and is called a non-folded network. In non-folded network
with N inlets and N outlets, N simultaneous information transfers are possible.
Consequently, for a non-folded network to be non-blocking, the network should
support N simultaneous switching paths.
FIG – Non-Folded Network
Q.44. List all seven layer

layer of OSI model
model and describe function of application
application layer.
layer.
(8)
󰀵󰀵

Ans:
The layers of OSI model are as follows:
(1) The Physical Layer: This defines an interface in terms of the connections,
voltage levels and data rate, in order for signals to be transmitted bit by bit.
(2) The link Layer: This provides error detection and correction for a link to
ensure that the exchange of data is reliable. It may require the data stream to
be divided into blocks, called packets, for inserting error-checking bits or for
synchronization. However, transparency is preserved for the data bits in these
blocks.
(3) The network layer: This is concerned with the the operation of the network
between the terminals. It is responsible for establishing the corrections
between the appropriate network nodes.
(4) The transport layer: This is responsible for establishing a network
independent communication path suitable for the particular terminal
equipments (e.g. providing the appropriate data rate and end-to-end error
control). It thus relieves the user
u ser from being concerned with such details.
(5) The session layer: This is concerned with setting up and maintaining an
operational session between terminals. For example, ‘signing on’ at the
commencement of a task and ‘signing off ’ at its end.
(6) The presentation layer: This is concerned with the format of the data
presented, in order to overcome difference in representation of the information
as supplied to one terminal and required at the other. Its purpose is to make
communication over the network
ne twork machine-independent.
(7) The application layer: This defines the nature of the task to be performed. It
supplies the user with the applications programs needed. Examples include
electronic mail, word processing, banking transactions, etc.
Q.45. Explain topology

topology method used in LAN technology in detail. (8)
Ans:
LAN Topologies: Network topology is a physical schematic which shows
interconnection of the many users. There are four
fo ur basic topologies as under:
(i) Direct Connection or one to all topology
(ii) Star topology
(iii) Bus Topology
(iv) Ring topology
(i) Direct connection or one to one topology: In the one to all topology, there is a
path between every node and every other node. The number of paths required is
2
defined by the equation P = (n -n)/2, where n is number of nodes and P, total
number of paths. Thus number of paths increases considerably as the number of
nodes increases. Each node must be physically able to connect to paths to every
other node so a very large connector and associated interface support circuitry is
needed at each node. Adding a new node requires major rewiring and affects the
software that manages communications for the system.
(ii) Star Topology: In Star topology, all user nodes are connected to central node
point that interconnects all the individual users links and nodes. Data flows from
one node, through the star centre to the desired receiving node. The Central node is
like a large switch which routes the data from the input line to the output line.
Advanced central nodes can have multiple switching paths, so several paths exist at
the same time. This topology is used in a telephone system central office. Addition
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of a new user node requires running only a single link from the star centre to the
user without disturbing any other node.
(iii)Bus Topology: This topology shares a single link or path way among all users.
This common single path way is known as bus. In this topology, the link serves as
a high way for all data signals, and users connect on to the bus at their node
location. In bus configurations, network control is not centralized to a particular
node. Here control is distributed among all nodes connected to the LAN. Data
transmission on a bus network is usually in the form of small packets containing
user addresses and data. When one node/user desires to transmit data to another
station, it monitors the bus to determine if it is currently being used. If no other
nodes/users are communicating over the network, the monitoring node/user can
start to transmit its data. Each node must monitor all transmission on the network
and determine which are intended for them.
(iv) Ring Topology: In ring topology, all user nodes are connected with the
physical path acting as links of a chain and the last user node is connected back to
the first node. A signal going on to the next node must be processed by the first
node, which then passes it through to the next node. Adding a new user requires
breaking the ring temporarily, inserting the new node and then reestablishing the
complete ring path.
FIG - Networks Topologies
Q.46. What is Traffic Engineering? Define the term busy

busy hour, traffic intensity
intensity and grade
of service. (8)
Ans:
Traffic engineering provides the basis for analysis and design of
telecommunication network to carry a given traffic at a particular loss probability.
It provides a means to determine the quantum of common equipments required to
provide a particular level of service.
Busy Hour: Continuous 1- hour period lying wholly in the time in interval
terval concerned,
for which the traffic volume or the number of calls attempts is greatest.
Traffic Intensity: The traffic load on a given network may be on the local
switching unit, interoffice trunk lines or other common subsystem. For analytical
treatment in this termed

are collectively text, allas
theservers.
common In sub systems
other of a telecommunication
publications network
the term link or Trunk is
used. The traffic on the network may then be measured in terms of the occupancy
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of the servers in the network. Such a measure is called the traffic intensity which is
defined as:
A = period for which a server is occupied/ Total period of observation
Grade of Service: In loss systems, the traffic carried by the network is generally
network and is termed as grade of service (GOS) and is defined as the ratio of lost
generated by the users and the average holding time per call. GOS is given by
GOS = A-A0 / A0
Where
A= offered traffic
A0 = carried traffic
A-A0= lost traffic
Q.47. Discuss briefly subscriber loop

loop system. Give some technical specification
specification for
subscriber lines. (8)
Ans:
Subscriber Loop System: Every subscriber in a telephone network is connected
generally to the nearest switching office by means of a dedicated pair of wires.
Subscriber loop refers to this pair of wires. It is un widely to run physically
independent pairs from every subscriber premises to the exchange. It is far easier to
lay cables containing a number of pairs of wires for different geographical
locations and run individual pairs as required by the subscriber premises.
Generally four levels of cabling

ca bling are used as shown in Fig. At the subscriber end, the
nearby geographical locations are terminated on a feeder point where they are
connected to branch feeder cables which, in turn, are connected to the main feeder
2000, than the distribution cables which carry typically 10-500 pairs. The feeder
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MDF.
Subscriber pairs and exchange pairs are interconnected at the MDF by means of
jumpers. The MDF thus provides a flexible interconnection mechanism which is
very useful in reallocating cable pairs and subscriber numbers. The technical
specifications for subscriber lines include:
1. Diameter of wire
2. D.C. resistance per Km
3. Attenuation per Km
Q.48. Discuss different Routing plan adopted in a Telephone network. (8)
Ans:
Hierarchical networks are capable of handing heavy traffic where required, and at
the same time use minimal number of trunk groups. Three methods are used for
deciding on the route for a particular connection:
1. Right – through routing
2. Own-exchange routing.
3. Computer-controlled routing.
In right-through routing the originating exchange determines the complete route
from source to destination. No routing decisions are taken at the intermediate
routes. In the absence of a computer, only a predetermined route can be chosen by
the originating exchange. However, there may be more than one predetermined
route and the originating node may select one out of these, based on certain like
time of the day, even distribution of traffic etc.
Own-exchange routing or distributed routing allows alternative routes to be
chosen at the intermediate nodes. Thus the strategy is capable of responding to
changes in traffic loads and network configurations. Another advantage of
distributed routing is that when new exchanges are added, modifications required in
the switch are minimal.
Computers are used in network with common channel signaling (CCS) features. In
CCS, there is a separate computer-controlled signaling network. With computers in
position, a number of sophisticated route selection methods can be implemented.
Computer based routing is a standard feature in data networks.
Q.49. How does a touch tone receiver differs from pulsed dial receiver? Explain
Explain with
schematic. (8)
Ans:
Pulse dialing:
1. Generated through make and break contact.
2. DC Current pulse is generated.
3. Each number is separated by a short pause to prevent overlapping.
4. Codes are unary except for 0.
5. Dial is rotary.
6. Dial is slow moving.
DTMF Dialing
1. Uses push buttons
2. Uses 8 different frequencies in pairs.
3. 16 different characters can be represented.
4. The frequencies used prevent generating of harmonics.
5. Each number is represented by a high signal & low signal
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D
Dual
ual Tone Multi Frequency (DTMF) was wa s first iintroduced
ntroduced in 1963 with 10 buttons
in Western Electric 1500 –type telephones. DTMF was originally called Touch-
Tone. DTMF is a more efficient means than dial pulsing for transferring telephone
numbers from a subscriber’s location to the central office switching machine.
mac hines.
keys located in the fourth column (i.e. , the A,B,C, and D keys). Therefore, most
vertical frequencies (called the low group frequencies) are 697 Hz, 852 Hz, and 941
Hz, and the four
f our horizontal frequencies (called the high group frequencies) are 1209
Hz, 1336 Hz, 1477 Hz, and 1633 Hz. The frequency tolerance of the oscillators is
+ .5%. As shown in Fig., the digits 2 through 9 can also be used to represent 24 of
the 26 letters (Q and Z are omitted). The letters were originally used to identify one
local telephone exchange from another.
FIG - DTMF Keypad Layout
Dial Pulses: Dial pulsing (sometimes called rotary dial pulsing) is the method
originally used to transfer digits from a telephone set to the local switch. Pulsing
digits from a rotary switch began soon after the invention of the automatic
switching machines. The concept of dial pulsing is quite simple and is depicted in
Fig. The process begins when the telephone set is lifted off hook, completing a path
for current through the local loop. When the switching machine detects the off-hook
condition, it responds with dial tone. After hearing the dial tone, the subscriber
begins the dial pulsing digits by rotating a mechanical dialing mechanism and then
letting it returns to its rest position. As the rotary switch returns to its rest position,
it outputs a series of dial pulses corresponding to digit dialed.
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When a digit is dialed, the loop circuit alternately opens (breaks) and closes
(makes) a prescribed number of times. The number of switch make/break sequences
corresponds to the digit dialed (i.e., the digit 3 produces three switch openings and
three switch closers).
Dial pulses occur at 10 make/break cycles per second (i.e., a period of 100 ms per
pulse cycle). For example, the digit 5 corresponds to five make/break cycles lasting
a total of 500ms. The switching machine senses and counts the number make/break
pairs in the sequence.
Fig. Dial Pulsing Sequence
The break time is nominally 61 ms, and the make time is nominally 39ms. Digits
are separated by idle period of 300 ms called the inter digit time. It is essential that
the switching machine recognize the inter digit time so that it can separate the
pulses from successive digits. The central office switch incorporates a special time-
out circuit to ensure that the break part of dialing pulse is not misinterpreted as the
phone being returned to its on-hook (idle) condition.
Q.50. How numbering

numbering plan is achieved in modern telephony? Give the structure with
example. (8)
Ans:
The objective of numbering plan is to uniquely identify every subscriber
connected to a telecommunication network. A numbering plan may be open, semi-
open or closed. An open-numbering plan permits wide variation in the number of
digits to be used to identify a subscriber within a multi exchange area or within a
country. This plan is used in countries equipped extensively with non-Director
Strowger switching systems. In such cases the numbering scheme is usually an
exact image of the network structure changes. A semi-open plan permits number
lengths to differ by almost one or two digits. Today, this scheme is the most
common and is used in many countries including India. In closed numbering plan
or the Uniform numbering scheme, the number of digits in a subscriber number is
fixed. An international numbering plan or world numbering plan has been defined
by CCITT in its recommendations E.160-E.163. For numbering purposes, the
world is divided into zones as shown in Fig. Each zone is given a single digit
code. For the European zone two codes have been allotted because of the large
number of countries within this zone. Every international telephone number
consists of two parts as shown in Fig. The country code contains one, two or three
digits, the first digit being the zone code in which the country lies.. In cases where
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an integrated numbering plan already covers an entire zone, the countries in that
zone are identified by the single digit zone code itself.
The existence of world numbering plan places restriction on the national
numbering plan of each country. The number of digits in an international
subscriber number is limited to an absolute maximum of 12. In practical, with a
few exceptions, world numbers are limited to 11 digits. As a result, the number of
digits available for a national numbering plan is 11-N, where N is the number of
digits in the country code.
In general, a national number consist of three parts as shown in Fig. The area or
the trunk code identify a particular numbering area or the multi exchange area of
the called subscriber, and thus determine the routing for a trunk call and a charge
for it. According to CCITT international usage, a numbering area is identified as
that area in which any two subscriber use identical dialing procedure to reach any
other subscriber in the network. An exchange code identifies a particular exchange
within a numbering area. It determine the routing for incoming trunk call from
another numbering area or for a call originating from one exchange and destined to
another in the same numbering area. Subscriber line number is used to select the
called subscriber line at the terminating exchange. In CCITT terminology, the
combination of the exchange code and the subscriber line number is known as the
subscriber number which is the number listed ini n the telephone directory.
FIG – World Numbering Zones
FIG – International Telephone Number
FIG – National Telephone Number

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Q.51. What are the different

different ways of designing
designing 100 line exch
exchange
ange using uni selector and
two motion selectors?
selectors? Show at least three variations. Which
Which is the best
best option?
(8)
Ans:
Here three different designing methods for 100 line exchange are discussed:
Design 1: Here, Strowger switching system is designed using one two-motion
selector for each subscriber. A subscriber is assigned a number in the range 00-99,
and the same number is used to identify the two-motion selector assigned to him.
The 100 outlets of each two-motion selector are numbered as per the scheme given
in table. The corresponding outlets in all the 100 two-motion selectors are
commoned and folded back to the corresponding inlets. For example, a subscriber
with 87 as his number is assigned the two-motion selector 87. The outlet 87 which
th th
corresponds to this subscriber is connected to the 7 contact in the 8 vertical
position of all the two-motion selectors and folded back to his inlet. The
arrangement is shown in Fig. If subscriber 23 dials 87, his two motion selector 23
would step vertically 8 times corresponding to the first digit and would step
horizontally 7 times to reach the contact to which the subscriber 87 is connected.
This switch is non- blocking and uses only one stage of switching elements. Since
the two-motion selector is activated by the calling party, the call is terminated only
when the calling party disconnects the line. If a two-motion selector goes out of
order, the subscriber connected to it will not be able to make any outgoing calls but
can receive incoming calls. The design parameters of this switch are:
S =100, SC =50, K = 1, TC =1,
EUF = 0.5, C= 200, CCI =25, PB =0.
FIG - 100-Line exchange with one two-motion selector per subscriber
Design 2: Instead of 100 two-motion selectors as in the case of Design 3, let us
consider only 24 two-motion selectors. In the
t he case, 24 simultaneous calls can be put
through the switch. The 24 two-motion selectors are shared by all the hundred
users. The corresponding outlets of the two-motion selectors are commoned as in
the previous case. It is implicitly assumed here that the average peak-hour traffic is
24 simultaneous calls. Typically, a 24-outlet uniselector is used as a selector hunter.
Each of the 24 outlets is connected to one two-motion selector. Thus, a subscriber
has access to all the 24 two-motion selectors in the system. The corresponding
outlets of all the selector hunters are commoned and thus, all subscribers have
access to all the two-motion selectors. This scheme is shown in Fig. The call
establishment in this scheme takes place in two steps. Firstly, when the subscriber
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lifts his receiver handset, his uni selector hunts through the contact positions and
seizes a free two-motion selector. At the next step, the two-motion selector
responds to the dial pulses for appropriate connection. The design parameters of this
system are:
FIG – 100-Line exchange with selector finder
Design 3: In this design, there are 24 line finders. If any of the 100 subscribers has
to get access to any of the 24 two-motion selectors, it is essential that every line
finder is capable of reaching any of the 100 subscribers. In other words, each line
finder must have 100 outlets. For this purpose, two motion selectors have to be used
as line finders. The configuration is shown in Fig. The corresponding outlets of the
line finders are commoned. Similarly, the outlets of the numerical selectors are also
commoned.
When the start condition is received, the line finder is caused to hunt vertically until
the wipers reach a marked level. The vertical hunting is then stopped and the
horizontal hunt commences to find a particular marked contact in that level. It may
be noted that in the extreme case, the line finder may have to take 20-steps -10
vertical and 10 horizontal –before a line is found. The line finders are made to step
automatically, using interrupter contact mechanism. When the line finder locates the
subscriber line, the start condition is removed, the allotter switch steps on to the
next free line finder in readiness for further calls, and the numerical selector sends
out the dial tone to the subscriber in readiness to receive dialing pulses. Thereafter
the establishment of the connection proceeds in the
t he usual manner.
Obviously, Design 3 is by far the best for a 100-line exchange. If we had used uni
selectors as line finders, it would have been necessary to divide subscriber’s line
into small groups of, say 24 each. Such designs involving groupings, function
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efficiently only under certain specific traffic conditions and generally lead to higher
blocking probabilities.
FIG – 100-Line exchange with two-motion line finders
Q.52. What are transmission bridges?

bridges? How do they help in satisfying the connectivity? (8)
satisfying
Ans:
A typical transmission bridge is shown in Fig. The series capacitance and the shunt
inductances of the two relays provide a high-pass filter to transmit the AC speech
signals, while the relays respond independently to the DC loop/disconnect signals
from the calling and called customer.
FIG – Transmission Bridge
Q.53. Explain FDM and show how CCITT

CCITT standards help in building the base band?
(8)
Ans:
Frequency Division Multiplexing: It is the process of combining several
information channels by shifting their signals to different frequency groups within
the spectrum so that they can be transmitted simultaneously over common
transmission facility.
The bandwidth of a telephone speech signal is rather less than 4 kHz. Where as the
available bandwidth on unloaded cables pair, is well above 100 kHz. It is therefore
possible, using modulation techniques, to divide up the cable bandwidth so that a
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number of telephone speech paths can be carried simultaneously along a single

cable pair. The normal arrangement consists of 24 telephone channels per cable
pair, the modulation into 24 channels being carried out in the two stages. In the first
stage, 12 channels are multiplexed together to form what is commonly known as a
basic group. The basic group arrangement is shown in Fig. Each of the 12 telephone
tele phone
signals are single side-band amplitude modulated on to carriers spaced at 4 kHz
intervals from 64 kHz to 108 kHz. The lower side-band (LSB) is used in each case.
The 12 base-band signals are therefore translated into the frequency band from 60
kHz 108 kHz as shown. The block diagram for the channel translating equipment is
given in Fig. To form a 24-channel system, to basic groups are taken together. One
basic group (B) is transmitted directly as it stands. The other basic group (A) is
amplitude modulated on to a carrier are 120 kHz and the lower side-band is taken so
as to occupy the frequency range from 12 kHz to 60 kHz as shown in Fig. by using
two stages of modulation for basic group A, it is possible to reduce the physical size
of the component required for the LSB filters of the Fig., since the lowest cut- off
frequency required is at 64 kHz rather than 12 kHz if the whole block of 24
channels were assembled together in one stage of modulation.
FIG – Basic Group Arrangement
FIG – Channel Translating Equipment
Q.54. Draw a centralized SPC organization and explain how it works under load sharing
operation. (8)
Ans:
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processor for redundancy purposes. In almost all the present day electronic
switching systems using centralized control, only a two-processor configuration is
used. A dual processor architecture may be configured
configured to operate in one of three
modes:
(i) Standby mode
(ii) Synchronous duplex mode
(iii) Load Sharing mode
In load sharing operation, an incoming call is assigned randomly or in a

predetermined order to one of the processors which then handles the call right
through completion. Thus both the processors are active simultaneously and share
the load and the
t he resources dynamically.
FIG - Load sharing Processor Configuration
Q.55. Explain the process of inter-register signalling. (8)
Ans:
Registers are used in common control exchanges to store and analyze routing data.
They are provided on a common basis is a single register provides routing data for
a number of speech circuits. Once a call has been setup, the register is then made
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available to set up other calls. Inter register refers to signaling between two
registers of different exchanging.
Signaling systems link the variety of switching systems, transmission systems and
function as a whole. Three forms of signaling are involved in a telecommunication
network:
telephone instrument used. The inter exchange signaling is internal to the
common control subsystems, it is called Inter register signaling. The main purpose
of Inter register signaling is the exchange of address digits which pass from
exchange to exchange on a link by link
li nk basis. Network wide signaling also involves
exchange. Such a form of signaling is called line signaling. CCS does not use the
speech or the data path for signaling. It uses a separate common channel for passing
control signals for a group of trunks or information paths.
FIG – End-to-end Signaling
For a multi link connection in a network of register- controlled exchanges, a

register in the originating exchange receives address information from the calling
customer and sends out routing digits. Each succeeding register both receives and
sends out routing digits, until the terminating exchange is reached. This sequence
of operation introduces post-dialing delay. An inter-register signaling system
cannot be used for seize, answer and clear signals. No register is connected when
an incoming seize signal is received, since it is the signal which initiate a
connection to a register. The register is released after it has set up a connection
through its clear

answer and exchange andEither
signals. sent in-bloc
out routing digits;signaling
or overlap therefore,
mayit be
cannot
used.receive
In en-
bloc signaling, the complete address information is transferred from one register to
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the next as signal string of digit. Thus, no signal is sent out until the complete
address information has been received. In overlap signaling, digits are sent out as
soon as possible. Thus, some digits may be sent before the complete address has
been received and signaling may take place before the complete address has been
received and signaling may take place simultaneously on two links (i.e. the signal
overlap). The enables subsequent registers to start digit to analyses earlier than is
possible with en-bloc signaling and this reduces post-dialing delay. Either link-by-
link signaling or end-to-end signaling may be employed. In link-by-link signaling,
information exchange only between adjacent registers in a multi link connection as
shown by Fig. In end-to-end signaling, the originating register controls the setting
up of a connection until it reaches its final destination, as shown in Fig. Each
transit register receives only the address information required to select the
outgoing route to the next exchange in the connection. Having performed its task,
it is released and the originating register signals to the next register.
Q.56. What do you mean by by numbering and addressing? Draw the ISDN
ISDN address
structure and explain how the addressing works? (8)
Ans:
Numbering and Addressing: In telephone and data networks, the end equipments
are more often single units than multiple devices units like PABX or LAN.
Historically, a telephone, a computer, or a terminal has been the predominant end
equipment. The numbering system for these networks has also evolved to identify
single equipment end points. In ISDN, multiple devices at the end points are more
of a norm than single units, in view of the multiple services environment. It then
becomes necessary to identify a specific end equipment, e.g. facsimile or computer,
to render the service. Identifying the specific equipments in a two-level process;
first the end point is identified as in the case of telephone or data networks and then
the equipment at the end point. ISDN addressing structure provides for this
requirement. The component of the ISDN address which is used to identify the end
points is known as the ISDN number, and the component for identifying the
specific equipment at the end point is called the ISDN sub address.
The numbering plan for ISDN is evolved using the following guidelines:
1. It is based on, and is an enhancement of, the telephone numbering plan. It is
independent of the nature of the services (e.g. voice, facsimile or data) or the
performance characteristics of the connection (e.g. 32 kbps voice or 64 kbps
voice).
2. It is independent of routing, i.e. the numbering or addressing does not specify the
intermediate exchanges through which the services is to be put through.
3. It is a sequence of decimal digits. No alphabet or other characters are permitted
as part of the address.
4. Its design is such that interworking between ISDNs requires only the use of
ISDN number and no other additional digits or addressing signals.
Address Structure: The ISDN address structure is shown in Fig. ISDN number
part has a maximum of 15 digits and the ISDN sub address part a maximum of 40
digits. National destination code is like an area code in telephony network and is of
variable length. ISDN subscriber number is the one normally listed in the
directories. It is the number to be dialed to reach a subscriber in the same
numbering area. An ISDN number is a unique worldwide address and
unambiguously identifies an end point connection. This end point may be:
1. single
single S or T reference point,
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2. one
one to many T reference points at the same site, and
3. one
one of many S reference points using direct inward dialing feature.
A single S or T reference point may also be addressed by multiple ISDN numbers.
This feature is generally used in internetworking.
FIG – ISDN Address Structure
A sub address, although a part of the ISDN address, is not considered as an

integral part of the numbering scheme.
scheme. The sub address is carried in a separate
field in the user-network interface message. It may or may not be present in a call
setup message.
equipment Thedestination
at the sub addresswhich
is generally transparent
analyses the sub to the network
address and it for
information the
routing to the appropriate terminal.
t erminal. A typical address using both ISDN number and
the sub address is shown in Fig. Here, an ISDN number identifies a T reference
point and a sub address one of the many S reference points. Alternatively, as
reference point may also be addressed by using direct inward dialing (DID)
feature.
Fig – Example of ISDN Addressing.
Q.57. What are concentrators? Explain how it helps in connecting

connecting number
number of subscribers.
(8)
Ans:
In rural areas, subscribers are generally dispersed. It is both unnecessary and
expensive to provide a dedicated pair for every subscriber. Three techniques are
used to gain on the number pairs:
1. Parity lines
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2. Concentrators
3. Carrier Systems.
In the first technique, two or more subscribers are connected to the one line which
is termed parity line. This scheme is not used commonly as it has a number of
drawbacks. Only one subscriber at a time can use the line. Selective ringing is
difficult and privacy is not maintained. Dialing between two subscribers on the
same line is not possible.
In the second technique, a concentrator expander (CE) is used near the cluster of
users and another one at the exchange end as shown in Fig.
Only a few junction lines are run between the CEs which have switching capability.
Typically, a ratio of 1:10 between the junction lines and the subscriber lines is used.
The CE at the exchange end remotely powers and controls the CE at the subscriber
end.
FIG – Concentrator-expander connection for dispersed subscribers.
Q.58. Give the operation of

of different
different topologies used in local area network bring out
out their
advantages and disadvantages. (8)
Ans:
LAN topologies: Network topology is a physical schematic which shows
interconnection of the many users. There are four basic topologies as under:
(i) Direct Connection or one to all topology
(ii) Star topology
(iii) Bus Topology
(iv) Ring topology
Direct connection
path between everyor oneand
node to one
everytopology: In the
other node. Theone to all of
number topology, there is isa
paths required
2
defined by the equation P = (n -n)/2, where n is number of nodes and P, total
number of paths. Thus number of paths increases considerably as the number of
nodes increases. Each node must be physically able to connect to paths to every
other node so a very large connector and associated interface support circuitry is
needed at each node. Adding a new node requires major rewiring and affects the
software that manages communications for the system.
Star Topology: In Star topology, all user nodes are connected to central node
node point
that interconnects all the individual users links and nodes. Data flows from one
node, through the star centre to the desired receiving node. The Central node is like
a large switch which routes the data from the input line to the output line. Advanced
central nodes can have multiple switching paths, so several paths exist at the same
time. This topology is used in a telephone system central office. Addition of a new
user node requires running only a single link from the star centre to the user without
disturbing any other node.
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Bus Topology: This topology shares a single link or path way among all users. This
common single path way is known as bus. In this topology, the link serves as a high
way for all data signals, and users connect on to the bus at their node location. In
bus configurations, network control is not centralized to a particular node. Here
control is distributed among all nodes connected to the LAN. Data transmission on
a bus network is usually in the form of small packets containing user addresses and
data. When one node/user desires to transmit data to another station, it monitor the
bus to determine if it is currently being used. If no other nodes/users are
communicating over the network, the monitoring node/user can start to transmit its
data. Each node must monitor all transmission on the network and determine which
are intended for them.
Ring Topology: In ring topology, all user nodes are connected with the physical
path acting as links of a chain and the last user node is connected back to the first
node. A signal going on to the next node must be processed by the first node, which
then passes it through to the next node. Adding a new user requires breaking the
ring temporarily, inserting the new node and then reestablishing the complete ring
path. Rings also have simpler protocols than buses. In bus configurations, each node
must monitor the bus constantly to see if there are any messages for it or to see if
the bus is clear before transmitting. The ring uses a simpler scheme.
FIG - Networks Topologies
Q.59 Write short note on Quantization.
Ans:
Quantization: This is the first step in PCM. The total amplitude range of the
modulating signal is divided into a number of standard levels known as
quantization levels at equal intervals as shown in Fig. These levels are then
transmitted in binary code. Hence, the actual number of these standard levels is a
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power of two such as 4, 8,16,32,64,128 etc. For the sake of simplicity, Fig shows
only eight levels, however practical systems use 128 levels or even higher. A new
signal is generated by producing, for each sample, a voltage level corresponding to
the mid-point level of the standard level in which the sample falls. Thus if a range
of 0-4 V were divided into four 1V standard levels and the signal was sampled
when it was 2.8V , the quantizer will output a voltage of 2.5 V, and hold that level
until the next sampling time 2.5 V corresponds to the midpoint of the third
standard level. This result in a stepped wave form which follows the contour of the
modulating signal. This discritisation of the modulating signal is known as
Quantization. Fig. 11.10 shows the modulating signal m(t) and quantized signal
(mq(t)) when eight standard levels are used. The quantized wave forms are an
approximation to the original signal. The difference between the two wave forms
amounts to noise added to the signal by the quantization process. The error
introduced so is known as quantizaton error.
FIG - Modulating Signal and Quantized Signal
Q.60. Describe the nature

nature of signals produced
produced on the subscriber’s
subscriber’s loop by a pulse dialer,
dialer,
and a touch tone dialer. (8)
Ans:
keys located in the fourth column (i.e. , the A,B,C, and D keys). Therefore, most
vertical frequencies (called the low group frequencies) are 697 Hz, 852 Hz, and
941 Hz, and the four horizontal frequencies (called the high group frequencies) are
1209 Hz, 1336 Hz, 1477 Hz, and 1633 Hz. The frequency tolerance of the
oscillators is + .5%. As shown in Fig., the digits 2 through 9 can also be used to
󰀷󰀳

represent 24 of the 26 letters (Q and Z are omitted). The letters were originally
used to identify one local telephone exchange from another.
FIG - DTMF Keypad Layout
Dial Pulses: Dial pulsing (some times called rotary dial pulsing) is the method
originally used to transfer digits from a telephone set to the local switch. Pulsing
digits from a rotary switch began soon after the invention of the automatic
switching machines. The concept of dial pulsing is quite simple and is depicted in
Fig. The process begins when the telephone set is lifted off hook, completing a
path for current through the local loop. When the switching machine detects the
off-hook condition, it responds with dial tone. After hearing the dial tone, the
subscriber begins the dial pulsing digits by rotating a mechanical dialing
mechanism and then letting it returns to its rest position. As the rotary switch
returns to its rest position, it outputs a series of dial pulses corresponding to digit
dialed. When a digit is
i s dialed, the loop circuit alternately opens (breaks) and closes
(makes) a prescribed number of times. The number of switch make/break
sequences corresponds to the digit dialed (i.e., the digit 3 produces three switch
openings and three switch closers). Dial pulses occur at 10 make/break cycles per
second (i.e., toa five

corresponds period of 100 ms
make/break per lasting
cycles pulse cycle).
a total For example,
of 500ms. Thethe digit 5
switching
machine senses and counts the number make/break pairs in the sequence.
Fig. Dial Pulsing Sequence

󰀷󰀴


The break time is nominally 61 ms, and the make time is nominally 39ms. Digits
are separated by idle period of 300 ms called the inter digit time. It is essential that
the switching machine recognize the inter digit time so that it can separate the
pulses from successive digits. The central office switch incorporates a special time-
out circuit to ensure that the break part of dialing pulse is not misinterpreted as the
phone being returned to its on-hook (idle) condition.
Q.61. Draw a 100 line

line exchange
exchange using two motion selectors and explain, how switching
takes place in it. (8)
Ans:
In a 100 line exchange, each subscriber is assigned a 2 digit telephone number
between 00 and 99. This number identifies the group selector value and the final
selector values. As the dialing of the telephone number is done the corresponding
group selector and then the final selector levels are switched.The desired schematic
for 100 lines exchange with 24 two motion selectors is shown in Fig.
FIG – 100 Lines – Exchange
In the case, 24 simultaneous calls can be put through the switch. Typically, a 24-
outlet uniselector is used as a selector hunter. Each of the 24 outlets is connected
to one two-motion selector. Thus, a subscriber has access to all the 24 two-motion
selectors in the system. The corresponding outlets of all the selector hunters are
commoned and thus, all subscribers have access to all the two-motion selectors.
This scheme is shown in Fig. The call establishment in this scheme takes place in
two steps. Firstly, when the subscriber lifts his receiver handset, his uniselector
hunts through the contact positions and seizes a free two-motion selector. At the
next step, the two-motion selector responds to the dial pulses for appropriate
connection.
Q.62. How time slot

slot interchange
interchange switch works in time multiplexed time switching,
explain using schematic. (8)
Ans:
The switches for which the inlets and outlets are trunks which carry time division
multiplexed data streams. Such switches are called time multiplexed switches.
󰀷󰀵

A tim
timee multiplexed time
t ime division space switch is shown in Fig... There are N
incoming trunks and N outgoing trunks, each carrying a time division multiplexed
stream of M samples per frame. Each frame is of 125-µs time duration. In one
frame time, a total of MN speech samples have to be switched. One sample
duration, 125/M microseconds, is usually referred to as a time slot. In one time slot,
N samples are switched. Fig shows an output-controlled switch. The output is
cyclically scanned. There is a 1-to-M relationship between the outlets and the
control memory
corresponding locations,
to each outlet. i.e. there are M locations in the control memory
FIG – Time Multiplexing Space Switch
The control memory has MN words. If we view the control memory as M blocks of
N words each, a location address may be specified in a two dimensional
form,(i,j),where i is the block address and j is the word within the block.
block. We have
1< i < M and 1< j < N. The blockblock address i corresponds to the time slot i and
and the
word address j to the outlet j. The first N locations of the control memory
correspond to the first time slot, the next N locations, i.e. locations N + 1 to 2N
when addressed linearly, or locations (2,1) to (2,N) when addressed in a two
dimensional form, correspond to the time slot 2 and so on. Therefore, if the location
(i,j) contains an inlet address k, it implies that inlet k is connected to the outlet j
during the time slot i. The number of trunks that can be supported on this switch is
given by
N =125
Mt2
Where t is the switching time including memory access time per inlet-outlet pair.
Q.63. What are different control function

function categories, explain how they help in signalling
signalling
and control. (8)
Ans:
switching network itself. Such system are known as direct control switching
󰀷󰀶


system is shown in Fig. The control functions in a switching
system may be placed under four
f our broad categories:
(a) Event
(b) monitoring.
Call processing.
(c) Charging.
(d) Operation and maintenance
Typical events include all requests and call release signals at the line units. The
action. The control subsystem may operate relays in the junctions,
receivers/senders and the line units, and thus command these units to perform
certain functions. Events monitoring may be distributed. For examples, the line
units themselves may initiate control actions on the occurrence of certain line
events. When a subscriber goes off-hook, the event is sensed, the calling location
is determined and market for dial tone, and the register finder is activated to seize
a free register. Identity of the calling line is used to determine the line category
and the class of service to which the subscriber belongs. A register appropriate to
the line category is chosen, which
whic h then sends out the dial tone to the subscriber, in
readiness to receive the dialing information. As soon as the initial digits (usually
2-5) which identify the exchange are received in the register, the register
continues to receive the remaining digits. The initial translator determines the
route for the call through the network and decides whether a call should be put
through or not. It also determines the charging methods and the rates applicable to
the subscriber. Initial translation may also take into account instructions
instructions from the
operating personnel and information regarding the status of the network.

󰀷󰀷


exchange. If the call is destined to a subscriber within the same exchange, the
digits are processed

equipment by the
number takes final
place at translator.
this stage. The
The translation of directory
final translator number
determines to
the line
unit to which a call must be connected and the category of the called line. The
category information may influence charging and connection establishment. In
performed by a single translator. Controlling the operation of the switching
network is an important function of the common control subsystem. This is done
by marking the switching elements at different stages in accordance with a set of
binary data defining the path and then commanding the actual connection of the
path. Path finding may be carried out at the level of the common control unit or the
switching network.
Q.64. Explain the following: (8)

(i) Busy Hour
(ii) Peak Busy
Busy Hour
(iv) Time consistent Busy Hour
(v) Traffic intensity
Ans:
(i) Busy Hour: Continuous 1-hour period lying wholly in the time interval
concerned for which the traffic volume or the number of calls attempts is greatest.
(ii) Peak Busy Hour: The busy hour each day; it usually varies from day to day,
or even a number of days.
(iii) Time consistent Busy Hour: The 1-hour period starting at the same time each
day for which the average traffic volume or the number of call attempts is greatest
over the days under consideration.
(iv) Traffic intensity: The traffic on the network may then be measured in terms
of the occupancy
intensity which is of the servers
defined as: in the network. Such a measure is called the traffic
A0 = Period for which a server is
i s occupied
Total period of observation
Q.65. Explain the principles

principles of operation of
of centralized SPC and distributed SPC
SPC and
compare their performance. (8)
Ans:
processor for redundancy purposes there are two approaches to organizing stored
program control:
󰀷󰀸

Centralized: In this control, all the control equipment is replaced by a single

Distributed: In this control, the control functions are shared by many processors
within the exchange itself.
In centralized SPC, dual processor architecture may be configured to operate in one
of three modes:
Standby mode: In this mode, one processor is active and the other is on standby,
both
activehardware
processorand
fails.software wise. requirement
An important The standbyofprocessor brought online
this configuration when
is the ability
of the standby processor to reconstitute the state of the exchange system when it
takes over the control.
Synchronous duplex mode: In synchronous duplex mode, hardware coupling is
provided between the two processors which execute
e xecute the same set of instructions and
compare the results continuously. If a mismatch occurs, the faculty processor is
identified and taken out of service immediately. When the system is operating
normally, the two processors have the same data in their memories at all the times
and receive all information from the
t he exchange environment.
Load Sharing mode; In load sharing operation, an incoming call is assigned
randomly or in a predetermined order to one of the processors which then handles
the call right through completion. Thus both the processors are active
simultaneously and share the load and the resources dynamically.
FIG - Typically Centralized SPC

SPC Organization .
Q.66. Draw the schematic of

of a CCS
CCS and explain,
explain, giving advantages. (8)
giving its advantages.
Ans:
Signaling systems link the variety of switching systems, transmission systems and
function as a whole. Three forms of signaling are involved in a telecommunication
network:
telephone instrument used. The intra exchange signaling is internal to the
󰀷󰀹


common control subsystems, it is called Inter register signaling. The main purpose
of Inter register signaling is the exchange of address digits which pass from
exchange to exchange on a link by link basis. Network wide signaling also involves
exchange. Such a form of signaling
signaling is called line signaling. CCS does not use the
speech or the data path for signaling. It uses a separate common channel for passing
control signals
It gives the for a groupadvantages:
following of trunks or information paths.
1. Information can be exchange between the processors much more rapidly
than when channel associated signaling is used.
2. As a result, a much wider repertoire of signals can be used and this enables
more services to be provided to customers.
3. Signals can be added or changed by software modification to provide new
services.
4. There is no longer any need for line signaling equipments on every junction
which results in a considerable
c onsiderable cost saving.
5. Since there is no line signaling, the junctions can be used for calls from B to
A in addition to calls from
f rom A to B. Both way
wa y working requires fewer circuits
to carry the traffic than if separate groups of junctions are provided from A
to B and from B to A.
6. Signals relating to a call can be sent while the call is in progress. This
enables customers to alter connections after they have been set up. For
example a customer can transfer a call elsewhere, or request a third party to
be connected in to an
a n existing connection.
7. Signals can be exchanged between processors for functions other than call
processing, for example for maintenance or network management purposes.
Q.67. What is the difference between message switching and packet switching, explain
typical packet switching network configuration. (8)
Ans.
The main difference between message switching and packet switching is given
below:
MessageofSwitching
Transmission messages Packet Switching
Transmission of packets
Message Stored Message held for short time

Route established for each Route established for each packet
message
Blocking cannot occur Blocking cannot occur
Network responsible for lost Network may be responsible for
messages each packet but not for entire
message.
Packet Switching: In packet switching the nodes handle much smaller data length
than are found in message switching. The message is divided before transmission
into a series of sections of data called data packets having a length of few thousand
bits. This technique has a number of advantages. First, the short packets experience
minimum delay in progress through the network. The method used is still a store
󰀸󰀰

and forward process but since the packets are small they are quickly copied by each
node and require little memory space. Second by appending a sequence number to
each packet as well as its destination address the nodes are able to interleave
packets from several different sources and this leads to more efficient use of the
transmission media. Fig. shows how this interleaving can function.
Fig. Interleaving of packets in network
Two approaches are applied to the way in which this stream of mixed packets is
handled by nodes. These concepts are known as datagram and the virtual circuit.
Q.68. Explain CSMA/CD

CSMA/CD and CSMA/CA protocols
protocols used
used in LAN’s,
LAN’s, discuss
discuss its advantages
and limitations. (8)
Ans:
CSMA/CD: It is an access method used primarily with LANs configured in a bus
topology. With CSMA/CD, any station (node) can send a message to any other
station (or stations) as long as the transmission medium is free of transmissions
from other stations. Stations monitor (listen to) the line to determine if the line is
busy. If the station has a message to transmit but the line is busy, it waits for an idle
condition before transmitting its message. If two stations transmit at the same time,
a collision occurs. When this happens, the station
station first sensing
sensing the collision sends a
special jamming signal to all other stations on the network. All stations then cease
transmitting (back off) and wait a random period of time before attempting a
retransmission. The random delay time for each station is different, and therefore,
allows for prioritizing the stations on the network. If successive collisions occur, the
back off period for each station is doubled. With CSMS/CD stations must contend
for the network. A station is not guaranteed access to the network. To detect the
occurrence of a collision, a station must be capable of transmitting and receiving
simultaneously. CSMA/CD is used by most LANs configured in a bus topology.
Ethernet is an example of a LAN that uses CSMA/CD and is described later in this
chapter. Another factor that could possibly cause collision with CSMA/CD is
propagation delay. Propagation delay is the time it takes a signal to travel from a
source to destination. Because of propagation delay, it is possible for the line to
appear idle when, in fact, another station is transmitting a signal that has not yet
reached the monitoring station.
󰀸󰀱

CSMA/CA: It belongs to a class of protocols called multiple access methods.

CSMA/CA stands for: Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance. In
CSMA, a station wishing to transmit has to first listen to the channel for a
predetermined amount of time so as to check for any activity on the channel. If the
channel is sensed "idle" then the station is permitted to transmit. If the channel is
sensed as "busy" the station has to defer its transmission. This is the essence of both
CSMA/CA and CSMA/CD. In CSMA/CA (Local Talk), once the channel is clear, a
station
packet. sends a signal
In Ethernet telling
802.3, all other
the station stations to
continues notwait
to transmit,
for a time,and
andthen sends
checks its
to see
if the channel is still free. If it is free, the station transmits, and waits for an
acknowledgment signal that the packet was received
Q.69. Describe the architecture of

of SS7
SS7 common channel signaling
signaling network with the help
of a neat labeled diagram. (8)
Ans:
A block schematic diagram of the CCITT no. 7 signalling system is shown in fig.
Signal messages are passed from the central processor of the sending exchange to
the CCS system. This consists of the microprocessor based subsystem.
The signaling control subsystems, the signaling termination subsystem and the error
control subsystem. The signaling control subsystem structures the messages in the
appropriate format and queues them for transmission. When there are no messages
to send, it generates filler messages to keep the link active. Messages then passed to
the signaling termination sub system, where complete signal units (SU) are
assembled using sequence numbers and check bits generated by the error control
subsystem. At the receiving terminal, the reverse sequence is carried out. The levels
are as follows:
Level 1: The Physical Layer
Level 2: The Data Link Level
Level 3: The signaling network level
Level 4: The User Part
The relationship between these levels and the layers of the OSI model is shown in
Fig. The user part encompasses layers 4 to 7 of the OSI model.
Level 1 is the means of sending bit streams over a physical path. It uses times lot 16
of a 2 Mbit/s PCM system or times slot 24 of a 1.5 M bit/s system.
Level 2 performs the functions of error control, link initialization, error rate
monitoring, flow control and delineation of messages.
Level 3 provides the functions required for a signaling network. Each node in the
network has a single point odd, which is a 14 bit address. Every message contains a
point code of the originating and terminating nodes for that messages.
Levels 1 to 3 form the message transfer part (MTP) of CCITT no. 7 .
Level 4 is the user part. This consists of the processes for handling the service being
supported by the signaling system. The message transfer part is capable of
supporting many different user parts. So So far, three have been defined:
defined: the telephone
user part(TUE), the data user part (DUP) and the (ISDN) user part (ISDN-UP).
󰀸󰀲


FIG – Block Schematic Diagram of CCITT
CCIT T No.7 Signally System
Q.70. Explain how presentation

presentation layer helps
helps in establishing and processing
processing data in End to
End layers. (8)
Ans:
The purpose of the presentation layer is to represent information to the
communicating application entities in a way that preserves the meaning while
resolving syntax differences. Syntax differences are resolved by encoding
application data into a standard abstract notation that is valid throughout the
network. Thus, file format differences (e.g IBM format or DEC format) ,data
representation differences( e.g ASCII or EBCDIC) or data structure differences are
all resolved by using a standard notation. Data transformation and formatting may
include data compression, encryption etc. There are two aspects associated with
network wide handling of a variety of data in a standard form, and second, the
transmission of data as a bit stream across the network.
This layer translates between different formats and protocols resenting functions
data file formatting, encoding, encryption and decryption of data messages,
dialogue procedures,
procedures, data compression algorithms etc. This layer performs code
and character set translation. And formatting information and determines the
display mechanism for message.
Q.71. Discuss the classifications of switching systems. In what way is stored program
control superior to hard wired control?
c ontrol? (8)
Ans:
The classifications of switching systems are given in the block diagram below:
󰀸󰀳

The SPC gains superiority over hard wired due to following points:
SPC Hard Wired Control

Flexible Not Flexible
Slower Faster
More expensive for Less expensive for
moderate processing Moderate, simple and fixed
functions Processing functions
Easier to implement, Difficult to implement,
Complex Processing Complex processing functions
functions
Introducing new services Introducing new services is
is easy not easily possible
Easier to maintain Difficult to maintain
Q.72. Discuss the various functions of telephone switching systems. (8)
Ans:
Functions of telephone switching systems are:
(i) Attending: The system must be continually monitoring all lines to detect call
requests. The calling signal is sometimes called seize signal.
(ii) Information receiving: In addition to receiving calls and clear signals the
system must receive information from the caller as to the called line required.
This is called address signal.
(iii) Information Processing: The system must process the t he information received, in
order to determine the action performed and to control these actions.
(iv) Busy testing: Having processed the received information to determine the
required outgoing circuit the system must make a busy test to determine whether it
is free or already engaged on another call.
(v) Interconnection: For a call between two customers, three connection are made
in the following sequence:
(a) A connection to the calling terminal
(b) A connection to the called terminal
(c) A connection between the two terminals
(vi) Alerting: having made the connections, system sends a signal to alert the
called customer, e.g. by sending ringing current to a customer’s telephone.
(vii) Supervision: After the called terminal has answered, the system continues to
monitor the connection in order to be able to clear it down when the call has ended.
(viii) Information sending: If the called customer’s line is located on another
exchange the additional function of information sending is required. The
originating exchange must signal the required address to the terminating exchange
(and possibly to intermediate exchanges if the call is to be routed through them)
Q.73. With the help of a neat diagram explain

explain the conf
configuration
iguration of a step by step
switching system (8)
󰀸󰀴

Ans:
Configuration of a step by step switching system:
A step by step switching system may be constructed using uni-selectors or two

motion selectors or a combination of both. The wiper contacts of these selectors
move in direct response to dialled pulses or other signals like off hook from the
subscriber telephone. The wiper steps forward by one contact at a time and
moves by as many contacts (takes as many steps) as the no of dialled pulses
received or as required to satisfy certain signalling conditions Hence the name
step by step switching is given to this method.
A step by step system has three major parts as shown in the figure:
1. Line Equipment part: It consists of selector hunters or line finders which
represent two fundamental ways in which a subscriber gains access to
common switching resources. A selector hunter searches and seizes a
selector from the switching matrix part. There is one selector hunter for
every subscriber. Line finders are associated with the first set of selectors
in switching matrix part and there is one line finder for each selector in
the set. As the name implies, a line finder searches and finds the line of a
subscriber to be connected to the first selector associated with it.
2. Switching matrix part: It consists of one or more sets of two motion
selectors known as first group selectors, second group selector, and so on.
The larger the exchange size, the larger the no. of group selector stages.
3. Connector part: It comprises one set of two motion selectors known as
final selectors.
Q.74. Discuss the advantages of automatic switching systems over manual switching
system. (8)
Ans:
Automatic switching systems have a no. of advantages over the manual exchanges:
1. In a manual exchange, the subscriber needs to communicate with the operator
and a common language becomes an important factor. On the other hand, the
operation of automatic exchange is language independent.
2. A greater degree of privacy is obtained in automatic exchanges as no operator is
normally involved in setting up and monitoring a call.
3. Establishment and release of calls are faster in automatic exchanges. In manual
exchange, operator takes a few minutes to notice the end of conversation and
release the circuits.
󰀸󰀵

4. In an automatic exchange, the time required to establish a call remains more or

less of same order irrespective of the load on the system or the time of the day.
In manual systems this may not be true.
Q.75. Discuss the basic structure

structure and principle of operation of
of Time Slot Interchange
Interchange
(TSI) switch with the help of a neat diagram. (8)
Ans:
Time multiplexed time switch permits time slot inter changing. In TSI, a speech
sample input during one time slot may be sent to the output during a different time
slot. Such an operation necessarily implies a delay between the reception and the
transmission of the sample.
This operation can be explained
e xplained with ref. to above figure.
1. M channels are multiplexed on each trunk
2. The time slot duration is given by t TS =125/M The time slot counter is
incremented at the
provides location end of
address foreach time
control slot. The
memory content
and data of the counter
me mory.
memory.
3. Data memory and control memory accesses take place simultaneously in
the beginning of the time slot. Thereafter , the contents of the control
memory are used as the address of the data memory and the data read out
to the output trunk
4. The input sample is available for reading in at the beginning of the time
slot and the sample is ready to be clocked in on the output stream at the
end of the time slot.
Q.76. Explain the following design parameters

S, SC, TC, C, CCI, EUF, K, TS (8)
Ans:
S: Total no. of switching elements
A good design must attempt to minimize the no. of switching elements
SC: Switching capacity
󰀸󰀶

Max. no. of simultaneous calls that can be supported by the switching system
TC: Traffic handling capacity
Traffic Handling Capacity is given by Switching capacity / Theoretical max.
load
C: Cost of switching system
C = S X CS + CC + CCh
where CS, CC, CCh are cost per switching element,
ele ment, cost of the common control
systemCost
CCI: and capacity
cost of theindex
common hardware respectively.
CCI = switching capacity/cost per subscriber line
EUF: Equipment utilization factor
EUF=No. of switching elements in operation when the SC is fully utilized/total
no. of switching elements in the system
K: Number of switching stages
TS: Call setup time
TS = TST X K + TO
Where TO is the time required for function other than switching and Tst is average
switching time per stage.
Q.77 A three stage network is realized by using switching matrices of size p x s in stage
1, r x r matrices in stage 2 and s x p matrices in stage 3. Using the Lee's
probability graph show that the Blocking Probability for the three stage network is
given by
[
PB = 1 − (1 − α / k )2 ] s Where k =
= s / p and α = Inlet utilization factor (8)
Ans:
LEE'S Graph for a Three Stage Network
For a three stage network;

One path from input to output=2 links in series=link between stage 1 and stage 2+
link between stage 1 and stage 2
Let β = probability that a link is busy
So 1- β = probability that a link is free
i.e. the probability that a particular link (e.g. 1-2) from first stage to second stage is
Available = l- β.
Similarly The probability that a particular link (e.g.2-3) from second stage to third
l- β
stage is available = l-β
So probability that both of these links are available = (l- β) (1- β)= (1- β)2
󰀸󰀷

2
Probability that a particular path is busy = [1-(1- β) ]
Now there are S parallel paths between input and output, so probability that all of
them are busy = [l-[1-β[l-[1-β)2]S = PB
Therefore 5
P B = 1 − (1
(1 − β )2 
If α = Inlet utilization factor, i.e. probability that an inlet at first stage is busy

α s
Then β = s , putting
p putting p = k
S
α   α  2 
β = so P B = 1 − 1 −  
k   k  
Q.78. Explain SPC. Also discuss the different modes of Centralized SPC. (8)
Ans:
In stored program control systems, a program or set of instructions to the computer
is stored in its memory and the instructions are executed automatically one by one
by the processor. Carrying out the exchange control functions through programs
stored in the memory of a computer led to this name. There are two approaches to
organizing stored program control:
1. Centralised: In this control, all the control equipment is replaced by a single
2. Distributed: In this control, the control functions are shared by many
processors within the exchange itself.
In centralised SPC, dual processor architecture may be configured to operate in
one of three modes:
a. Standby mode: In this mode, one processor is active and the other is
on standby, both software and hardware wise. The standby processor
brought online when active processor fails. An important
i mportant requirement of this
configuration is the ability of the standby processor to reconstitute the state
of the exchange system when it takes over the control.
b. Synchronous duplex mode:

In synchronous duplex mode, hardware coupling is provided between the
two processors which execute the same set of instructions and compare the
results continuously. If a mismatch occurs, the faulty processor is identified
󰀸󰀸

and taken out of service immediately. When the system is operating

normally, the two processors have the same data in their memories at all
the times and receive all
al l information from the exchange environment.
c. Load sharing mode: In load sharing operation, an incoming call is

assigned randomly or in a predetermined order to one of the processors
which then handles the call right through completion. Thus both the
processors are active simultaneously and share the load and the resources
dynamically.
Q.79 Discuss the various enhanced services that can be made available to the subscribers
because of stored program control. (8)
Ans:
One of the immediate benefits of stored program control is that a host of new
services can be made available to the subscriber. They can be grouped under four
categories:
1. Services associated with the calling subscriber and designed to reduce the
time spent on dialling and the number of dialling errors.
• Abbreviated dialling
• Recorded number calls or no dialing calls
• Call back when free
󰀸󰀹

2. Services associated with the called subscriber and designed to increase the
call completion rate.
• Call forwarding
• Operator answer
3. Services involving more than two parties.
• Calling number record
• Call waiting
•• Consultation hold
Conference calls
4. Miscellaneous
• Automatic alarm
• STD Barring
• Malicious call tracing
Q.80. With reference

reference to telephone traffic, explain the following terms
GOS, BHCA, CCR, BHCR (8)
Ans:
GOS: in loss systems, the traffic carried by the network is generally lower than
the actual traffic offered to the network by the subscribers. The overload traffic is
rejected and hence not carried by the network. The amount of traffic rejected by the
network is an index of the quality of the network. This is termed as GOS and is
defined as the ratio of lost
lost traffic to offered traffic.
BHCA: The number of call attempts in the busy hour is called Busy hour call
attempts (BHCA), which is an imp. Parameter in deciding the processing capability
of a common control or SPC system of an exchange
CCR: Call completion rate is defined as the ratio of the no. of successful calls to
the no. of call attempts.
BHCR: Busy hour calling rate is defined as the average no. of calls originated by a
subscriber during the busy hour.
Q.81. What are the advantages

advantages of Hierarchical Networks?
Networks? Discuss the 5-level
5-level switching
hierarchy recommended by CCITT. (8)
Ans:
Hierarchical networks are capable of handling heavy traffic where required, and at
the same time use minimal number of trunk groups. In a strictly hierarchical
network, traffic from subscriber A to Subscriber B and vice versa flows through the
highest level of hierarchy i.e. quaternary centres. A traffic route via the highest
level of hierarchy is known as final route
01. End offices are the switching offices to which individual subscribers are
directly connected
02. Toll offices are the switching offices used to interconnect the end offices.
Intercity calls are routed via toll office.
03. A very populous
populous area, such as a large
large city will have many end offices. Much
of the traffic involves calls between subscribers in the city and hence
between end offices. To facilitate this end office to end office traffic a
Tandem switching office may be provided for one group of end offices.
󰀹󰀰


󰀹󰀱

Q.82. What are End-to-End

End-to-End layers in ISO-OSI reference model? Explain
Explain briefly the
function of each one of them. (8)
Ans:
The layers 4-7 of ISO-OSI reference model communicate with peer entities in the-
end systems. There is no communication with entities
e ntities in the intermediate systems. In
this sense, layers 4-7 are often called end-to-end layers. These are Transport layer.
Session layer, Presentation layer and Application layer respectively.
1. Transport Layer:
(i) It is responsible for establishing a network independent communication path
suitable for the particular terminal equipments (e.g. providing the appropriate
data rate and end-to-end error control). It thus relieves the user from being
concerned with such details
(ii) In a packet switched network, the transport entity breaks up a long user
message into packets to match the network capabilities. The packets are
reassembled at the receiving end to reconstruct the user message.
(iii) End-to-end flow control & end-to-end error recovery are also the functions
of transport layer.
2. Session Layer:
i. The session
wanting layer
access is network.
to the used to allow users to identify themselves when
ii. This is concerned with setting up and maintaining an operational session
between terminals. E.g. "signing on" at the commencement of a task and
"signing off at its end.
iii. The main function of-the session layer is to organize different sessions
between cooperating entities and perform all related functions like
synchronization, failure management, control etc. for the successful
execution of a session
iv. Another facility offered by the session layer is known as Activity
management.
3. Presentation Layer;
i. This is concerned with the format of the data represented, in order to
overcome difference in representation of the information as supplied to one
terminal and required at the other. Its purpose is to make communication
over the network machine independent.
ii. It resolves the syntax differences by encoding data into standard abstract
notation that is valid throughout the network. Thus file format differences,
data representations, data structure are resolved using a standard notation.
4. Application Layer:
As the highest layer in the OSI reference model, the application layer provides
services to the users of OSI environment. The layer provides following services:
i. Electronic mail or message handling service
ii. Directory services
iii. Cost allocation
iv. Determination of quality of service
v. File transfer and management

vi. Editors
vii. andservices
Telematic terminallike
support services
videotext.
󰀹󰀲
Q.83. What are the basic approaches

approaches to the design of subscriber access
access to Strowger
systems? Describe them. (8)
Ans:
A step by step switching system has three major parts as shown in Fig . The line
equipment part consists of selector hunters or line finders and the other two parts
consist of selectors. The selector hunter and line finders represent two fundamental
ways in which a subscriber gains access to common switching resources. The
selector hunter scheme is sometimes called subscriber uniselector scheme as there is
a dedicated uniselector for each subscriber in the system. Line finders are associated
with the first set of selectors in the switching matrix part and there is one line finder
for each selector in the set. The line equipment part is also known as preselector
stage. The selector hunters and line finders are generically referred to as
preselectors.
The switching matrix part consists of one or more sets of two-motion selectors
known as first group selector, second group selector, and so on. The larger the
exchange size, the larger is the number of group selector stages. The connectors part
comprises one set of two-motion selectors known as final selectors.
FIG - Configuration of a Step-by-step Switching System
The selector hunter and line finder schemes are illustrated in the trunking diagrams
shown in Fig in selector hunter based approach, when a subscriber lifts his hand set,
the interrupter mechanism in his selector hunter gets activated and the wiper steps
until a free first group selector is found at the outlet. The status of the first group
selector, free or busy, is known by a signal in one of the bank contacts of the selector
hunter. Once a free first selector is sensed, the interrupter is disabled and the first
selector is marked ‘busy’. Then, the first selector sends out a dial tone to the
subscriber via the selector hunter which simply provides an electrical path. The first
selector is now ready to receive the dialing pulses from the subscriber. It is possible
that two selector hunters land on the same free first selector simultaneously and
attempt to seize it. This is resolved by suitable seizure circuit.
󰀹󰀳
FIG - Subscriber Access to Strowger Switching System
In the case of line finder based approach, the off-hook signal is sensed by all the
line finds us. Then the interrupter mechanism of one of tthehe finders, whose associated
first selector is free, gets activated and the line finder wiper steps until it reach the
contact on to which the subscriber is terminated. On finding the line, the concerned
first selector sends out the dial tone to the subscriber in readiness to receive the dial
pulses. The selection of one of the line finders out of many free line finders, is
achieved by means of an allotter switch in the start circuit of the line finders as
shown in Fig. When a subscriber lifts his receiver, the start signal from his relay in
passed to the particular line finders via the common start circuit and the allotter
󰀹󰀴
switch. The line finder then commences to hunt for the calling line. As soon as the
calling line is found, the allotter switch steps to next free line finders. In effect, the
line finder and the associated first selector to be used for the next future call is
selected in advance by the allotter circuit. In practical designs, several allotter switch
are provided in the system to serve calls that may originate in quick succession or
simultaneously.
󰀹󰀵
PART-III
NUMERICALS
Q.1. Calculate the maximum access time that can be permitted for the data and control
memories in a TSI switch with a single input and single output trunk multiplexing
2500 channels. Also, estimate the cost of the switch and compare it with that of a
single stage space division switch. (6)
Ans:
3
tm = 125 X 10 = 25 ns
2500 X 2
C= 2 X 2500 = 5000 units
This switch is non blocking and supports full availability. An equivalent single stage
space division which uses a matrix of 2500 X 2500. Hence, the cost of such a switch
is 6.25 million units
Cost advantage of time switch = 6.25 X 106 = 1250
5000
Q.2 A subscriber makes three phone calls of 3 minutes, 4 minutes and 2 minutes duration
in a one hour period. Calculate the subscriber traffic in erlangs, CCS and CM. (6)
Ans:
Subscriber traffic in erlangs = busy period
period = 3 +4+2 = 0.15 E
total period 60
Traffic in CCS = (3+4+2) X 60 = 540 = 5.4 CCS

100 100
Traffic in CM = 3+4+2 = 9 CM.
Q.3. In a national transmission system, the characteristic impedances of the 4-wire circuit
and the 2-wire circuit are 1200 Ω and 1000 Ω 7 respectively. The average phase
velocity of the signal in the circuit is 3 × 10 m/s. If the largest distance of a
connection is 300 km, determine the return loss and round trip delay for echo. (6)
Ans:
RL = 20 log Z4+ Z2 dB
Z4- Z2
Where
RL = return loss
Z4 = impedance of
of the 4-wire
4-wire circuit
Z2 = impedance of the 2-wire circuit
RL = 20 log 2200 = 20.8 dB

200
Round trip delay 103 = 10 ms
delay for echo = 300 X 10
7
3 X 10
󰀹󰀶
Q.4.. A three stage network is designed with the following parameters:

M=N=512, p= q = 16 and α = 0.65 . Calculate the blocking probability of the
network, if s=16. Symbols carry their usual meanings. (8)
Ans:
The blocking probability
PB = [1-(1- α /k)2]s
Where
α =0.65
k=p/s =16/16 =1
P B = [ 1-(1- 0.65)2]16
2 16
[ 1-(0.35) ] = 0.123 Ans.
Q.5. Discuss grade of service. During busy hour, 1500 calls were offered to a group of
trunks and 8 calls were
were lost. The average call duration was 120 seconds. Calculate
the traffic offered, traffic lost, Grade of service and total duration of congestion. (8)
Ans:
(i) Grade of service: In loss systems, the traffic carried by the network is generally
network. This is termed Grade of Service (GOS) and is defined as the ratio of lost
generated by the users and the average holding time per call.. Accordingly , GOS is
given by
GOS = A-A0
A
Where
A= offered traffic
A-A0= lost traffic
(ii) we know that
Traffic offered = A = Ch = 1500 x 2 = 50 E
T 360
Traffic lost = 8 x 2 = 4 E
6/30 15 = 0.26 E
Grade of service = Number of call lost
Number of calls offered
= 8__
1500
Duration of congestion
congestion = Grade of service x 1 h
= 8__ x 3600 = 96 = 19.2 sec.
1500 5
Q.6. In a 10000 line exchange, 0000 to 2999 is allotted to x group of subscribers

subscribers,, out of
which 40% are active during busy hour. The remaining numbers
numbers are domestic
domestic
numbers out of which 20% are active.
active. Each group consists of 100 subscribers.
subscribers.
Determine the number of final selectors required. (8)
󰀹󰀷
Ans:
Number of simultaneous calls for X group = 40 per group.
Number of simultaneous calls for domestic subscriber group = 5 per group
Total number of final selectors required = 3 x 20 + 7 x 5 = 95.
Q.7. Calculate the number of trunks that can be supported on a time multiplexed
multiplexed space
switch given that, 32 channels are multiplexed in each stream, while the control
memory access time is 100 ns and the bus switching and transferring time is 100 ns
per transfer. (6)
Ans:
We know that N =125/ Mt
Where N = number of incoming
i ncoming or outgoing trunks
M = sample per frame
t = switching time including memory access time per inlet outlet pair.
For M = 32
The total switching time = 100 + 100 = 200 ns.
Therefore N = 125
32 x 200 x 10 = 20
Q.8. An exchange
exchange uses
uses a –40 V battery to drive
drive subscriber
subscriber lines. A resistance
resistance of 250 ohms
is placed in series with the battery to protect it from short circuits. The subscribers
are required to use a standard telephone set which offers a dc resistance of 50 ohms.
The microphone requires 23mA for proper functioning given DC resistance of 133
ohms/km, find the farthest distance from the exchange at which the subscriber can be
located (6)
Ans:
Let R be the line loop resistance, using the relation
I = V/R
The value of R can be calculated as
23 x 10 = 40
(250+50+R)
R = 1439
For 26 AWG wire R =133.89
Loop length= 1439/133.
Therefore, the farthest distance at which the subscriber can be located is
10.74/2 = 5.37 km
Q.9. A group
group of 20
20 servers
servers carry traffic of 10 erlangs. If the average duration of a call is
three minutes, calculate the number of calls put through by a single server and the
group as a whole in a one hour period. (6)
Ans:
Traffic per server= 10/20 =0.5 E
i.e. a server is busy for 30 minutes in one hour
Number of calls put through by one server= 30/3 = 10 calls
Total number of calls put through by the group=
group= 10 x 20
20 = 200 calls
󰀹󰀸
Q.10. An amplifier has an input resistance

resistance of 600 ohms and a resistive load of 75 ohms.
ohms.
When it has an rms input voltage of 100 mV, the rms output current is 20mA. Find
the gain in dB. (6)
Ans:
Input power is P = (100 x 10 ) /600 W = 16.7 W
Output Power is P = (20 x 10 ) x 75 W = 30 m W
Gain is P 30 x 10
P 16.67 x 10
10 log 1.8 +10 log = 2.6 + 30 = 32.6 dB.
Q.11. A three stage switching structure

structure supports 100 inlets and 400 outlets.
outlets. Find the
number of cross points, and the number of primary and secondary switches used in
the design. (6)
Ans:
We know that
m=M and n= N
M+N M+N
m = 100
1. if m
m=5,
=5, n=20, there are :
20 primary switches of size 5 x 5
5 secondary switches of size 20 x 20
20 tertiary switches of size 5 x 20
2. if m = 4, n =16,
=16, there
there are:
25 primary switches of size 4 x 4
4 secondary switches of size 25 x 25
25 tertiary switches of size 4 x 16
Q.12. Define congestion and grade of service. In a particular exchange during busy hour
1200 calls were offered to a group of trunks, during this time 6 calls were lost. The
average call duration being 3 minutes Calculate
(i) traffic offered in erlangs’
(ii) traffic lost
(iii) grade of service and
(iv) period of congestion (8)
Ans:
(i) Congestion: It is uneconomic to provide sufficient equipment to carry all the
traffic that could possibly be offered to a telecommunication system. In a telephone
exchange it is theoretically possible for every subscriber to make a call
simultaneously. A situation can therefore arise that all the trunks in a group of trunks
are busy, and so it can accept further calls. This state is known as congestion. In a
message-switched system, calls that arrive during congestion wait in a queue until an
outgoing trunk becomes free. Thus, they are delayed but not lost. Such systems are
therefore called queuing systems or delay system. In a circuit-switched system, such
as a telephone exchange, all attempts to make calls over a congested group of trunks
󰀹󰀹
are successful. Such systems are therefore called lost-call systems. In a lost-call
system the result of congestion is that the traffic actually carried is less than the
traffic offered to the system. We may therefore
t herefore write:
(ii) Grade of Service: In loss systems, the traffic carried by the network is
generally lower than the actual traffic offered to the network by the subscribers. The
overload traffic is rejected and hence it is not carried by the network. The amount of
traffic rejected by the network is an index of the quality of the service offered by the
generated by the users and the average holding time per call. Accordingly, GOS is
given by
Where
A= offered traffic
A-A0= lost traffic
(iii) Solution:
(a) 󰁴󰁲󰁡󰁦󰁦󰁩󰁣 󰁯󰁦󰁦󰁥󰁲󰁥󰁤 󰁩󰁮 󰁥󰁲󰁬󰁡󰁮󰁧󰁳󲀙
A= Ch/T =1200 x 3/60 = 60 E
(b) 󰁴󰁲󰁡󰁦󰁦󰁩󰁣 󰁬󰁯󰁳󰁴
1194 x 3/60 = 59.7 E
(c) 󰁧󰁲󰁡󰁤󰁥 󰁯󰁦 󰁳󰁥󰁲󰁶󰁩󰁣󰁥
6 x 3/60 = 0.3 E
(d) 󰁰󰁥󰁲󰁩󰁯󰁤 󰁯󰁦 󰁣󰁯󰁮󰁧󰁥󰁳󰁴󰁩󰁯󰁮
B= 6/1200 = 0.005
0.005 x 3600 = 18 seconds.
Q.13. In a two stage network there are 512 inlets

inlets and outlets, r=s=24.
r=s=24. If the probability that
a given inlet is active is 0.8, calculate:
(i) The switching elements
(ii) Switching capacity
(iii) Blocking probability (6)
Ans:
N =M =512 , α =0.8 , r=s=24
(i) The number of switching elements:
S= Ms + Nr = 512 x 24 +512 x24
(ii) Switching Capacity
SC =rs =24 x 24
(iii) Blocking Probability
PB = M α (s-1)-((M/r-1)) α
rs(s-1)
= 512 x 0.8(23) –(512/24-1)0.8
–(512/24-1)0.8 = 0.7
24 x 24 (23)
Q.14. In a subscriber
subscriber loop that contains a series
series resistance of 300 ohms
ohms to protect
protect the
batteries in the exchange,
exchange, a normalized telepho
telephone
ne draws 10 mA and its standard
input d.c. resistance is 50 ohms. Calculate the maximum distance at which a
󰀱󰀰󰀰
subscriber can get good speech reproduction if a cable of 52 ohms/km resistance is

used. If a standard hand set of 30 mA current is used what will be the change. (8)
Ans:
Let RL be the line loop resistance
Normalized Microphone current = 10 m A
Telephone set resistance = 50 Ω
Series resistance = 300 Ω
Battery voltage = 40 V
I =V/R
-3
10 x 10 = 40
(300+50+ RL)
Hence 3500 + 10 RL = 40,000
10 RL = 3650 Ω
Maximum distance from exchanging = 3650/133.89 = 27.25 Km
(ii) When hand set current = 30 mA

(iii)
-3
30 x 10 = 40 = 40
(300+50+ RL) (350+ RL)
Hence 30 (350+ RL) = 40,000

10500+30 RL = 40,000
30 RL = 29500/30 =983 Ω
For 26 AWG wire
Loop length = 983/133.89 = 7.3 km
Q.15. Calculate the blocking probably Pb in 100 line strowger switching system
system where 10
th
calls are in progress and 11 one arrives, probably that there is a call in a given
decade = 1/10 and probably that another call is destined to same decade but not to
same number = 9/98. (8)
Ans:
Probability that there is a call in a given decade =10/100
Probability that other call is destined to the same decade but not to same number =
9/98
Therefore, the blocking probability = (1/10)*(9/98)
= 0.009 Ans
Q.16. A CSMA/CD bus spans a distance of 1.5 Km. If data is 5 Mbps, What is minimum
frame size where propagation speed in LAN cable is 200 m µs . (8)
Ans:
Typical propagation speed in LAN cables = 200 m/µs
End-to-end propagation
propagation delay t = 1500/200 = 7.5 µs
Minimum frame size = 2x 7.5 x 10 x 5 x 10 = 75 bits.
Minimum frame size for CSMA/CD LAN may be expressed as
F = 10 dR
󰀱󰀰󰀱
Where d= length of the cable in km.

R= data rate in Mbps
In arriving above, propagation delay is taken to be 5 µs/km
Q.17. Define congestion and grade of service. In a particular

particular exchange during
during busy hour 900
calls were offered to a group of trunks, during this time 6 calls were lost. The average
call duration being 3 minutes. Calculate:
(i) Traffic offered in erlangs (ii) Traffic lost
(iii) Grade of service (iv) Period of congestion (8)
Ans:
Congestion:It In a telephone exchange it is theoretically possible for every
subscriber to make a call simultaneously. The cost of meeting this demand would be
prohibitive, but the probability of it happening is negligible. This situation can
therefore arise that all the trunks in a group of trunks are busy, and so it can accept
further calls. This state is known as congestion. In a message-switched system, calls
that arrive during congestion wait in a queue until an outgoing trunk becomes free.
Thus, they are delayed but not lost. Such systems are therefore called queuing
systems or delay system. In a circuit-switched system, such as a telephone exchange,
all attempts to make calls over a congested group of trunks are successful. Such
systems are therefore called lost-call systems. In a lost-call system the result of
congestion is that the traffic actually carried is less than the traffic offered to the
system.
Grade of service: In loss systems, the traffic traffic carried by the network is generally
generally
generated by the users and the average holding time per call. Accordingly, GOS is
given by
GOS = A-A0
A
Where
A= offered traffic
A-A0= lost traffic
(i) Traffic offered in erlangs Ch/T = 900X3/60 = 45 E

(ii) Traffic carried
carried = 894 X 3 = 44.7
44.7 E
60
(iii)
6×3
(c) Traffic lost = = 0.3 E
60
(iv) B = 6/900 = 0.0066
Total duration of period of congestion = 0.0066 X 3600 =24 seconds
sec onds
󰀱󰀰󰀲
Q.18 A call processor in an exchange requires 120 ms to service a complete call. What
is the BHCA rating for the processor? If the exchange is capable of carrying 700
Erlangs of traffic, what is the call completion rate? Assume an average call
holding time of 2 minutes. (8)
Ans:
Call service time= 120ms
-3
BHCA-(60X60)/(120X10 )=30,000
th =holding time 2 minutes
Ao=mean effective traffic carried by the network=700 Erlangs
Ao==Co X th ,where Co=mean effective traffic rate
So Co = Ao/ th =700/2 per minute= 21,000 calls per hour
So total call attempts in Busy Hour= 30,000
And no. of successful calls= 21,000

Therefore CCR= 21,000/30.000 = 0.7
a) resistor
b) inductor
EC8701 ANTENNAS c) capacitor
d) transistor
AND MICROWAVE Answer: d
ENGINEERING Explanation: A non linear device has the
ability to generate the harmonics of the input
sinusoidal signal. Transistor and diodes are
ECE - 7th Semeseter non linear devices and hence can be used as a
frequency multiplier.
3. The major drawback of frequency

Regulations - 2017 multipliers is that they have:
a) higher attenuation
b) complex construction methods
c) complex design
UNIT I INTRODUCTION Answer: c
TO MICROWAVE Explanation: Designing a good quality
frequency multiplier is more difficult since it
SYSTEMS AND non-linear analysis, matching at multiple
ANTENNAS frequencies, stability analysis and thermal
considerations. Considering all these issues
for designing a multiplier makes it very
TOPIC 1.1 MICROWAVE complex.
FREQUENCY BANDS
4. A reactive diode multiplier uses _______
as the key electronic component for
1. Oscillators operating at millimeter frequency multiplication.
wavelength are difficult to realize and are also a) zener diode
less efficient. b) light emitting diode
a) true c) varactor diode
b) false d) Gunn diode
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: As frequency increases to the Explanation: Reactive diode multipliers use
millimeter wave range, it becomes either a varactor diode or step recovery diode
increasingly difficult to build fundamental biased to present a non linear junction
frequency oscillators with good power, capacitance. Since losses in these diodes are
stability and noise characteristics. An low, the fraction of RF power converted to
alternative approach is to produce a harmonic the desired harmonic is relatively high.
of a low frequency oscillator through the use
of frequency multiplier. 5. A major disadvantage of frequency
multipliers is that they multiply the noise
2. __________ is an example for a frequency factor along with frequency.
multiplier.

a) true 8. Resistive multipliers are more efficient as

b) false compared to reactive multipliers.
a) true
Answer: a b) false
Explanation: A disadvantage of frequency
multipliers is that noise levels are also Answer: b
increased by the multiplication factor. Explanation: Resistive multipliers generally
Frequency multiplication process is a phase use forward biased Schottky-barrier diodes to
multiplication process as well, so phase noise provide non linear characteristic. Resistive
variations get multiplied by the same factor as multipliers have low efficiency but have
the frequency gets multiplied. better bandwidth.
6. If a frequency multiplier has a 9. Reactive multipliers have a disadvantage

multiplication factor of 10, then the increase that they cannot be used at very high
in noise level due to frequency multiplication frequencies and they become less efficient.
is: a) true
a) 10 dB b) false
b) 20 dB
c) 25 db Answer: a
d) 15 dB Explanation: At millimeter frequencies,
varactor diode exhibits resistive property.
Answer: b Hence, at high frequency the multiplier
Explanation: For a frequency multiplier, the becomes lossy and also does not offer high
increase in noise power is given by 20 log n, bandwidth, which is a major disadvantage.
where n is the multiplication factor of the
multiplier. Substituting in the below equation, 10. For a resistive frequency multiplier of
increase in noise level is 20 dB. multiplication factor 2, the maximum
theoretical conversion efficiency is:
7. In a diode frequency multiplier, an input a) 50 %
signal of frequency fo applied to the diode is b) 25 %
terminated with_________ at all frequencies c) 75 %
other than required harmonic. d) 12.5 %
a) real impedances
b) reactive impedance Answer: b
c) complex impedance Explanation: For a resistive frequency
d) none of the mentioned multiplier of multiplication factor 2, the
maximum theoretical conversion efficiency is
Answer: b given by 1/m2 where m is the multiplication
Explanation: In a diode frequency multiplier, factor. For a factor 2 multiplier, maximum
an input signal of frequency fo applied to the theoretical conversion efficiency is 25 %.
diode is terminated with reactive impedance
at all frequencies other than required TOPIC 1.2 PHYSICAL CONCEPT
harmonic nfo. if the diode junction
OF RADIATION
capacitance has a square –law I-V
characteristic , it is necessary to terminate
unwanted harmonics with short circuit. 1. The basic requirements of transmitting
antennas are:
a) High efficiency

b) Low side lobes two lines that chary the TEM wave
c) Large signal to noise ratio approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated so
d) Lone of the mentioned that the opened – out line act as an antenna
Answer: a
Explanation: The basic requirements of a 5. The number of patterns radiation pattern
transmitting antenna are high gain and required to specify the characteristic are :
efficiency while requirements of receiving a) Three
antennas are low side lobes and large signal b) Four
to noise to ratio. c) Two
d) Five
2. _________ is a device that converts
electrons to photons or vice-versa. Answer: a
a) Antenna Explanation: The three patterns required are,
b) Electron gun θ component of the electric field as the
c) Photon amplifier function of the angles as θ and φ, the φ
d) Microwave tube component of the electric field as the function
of the angles θ and φ, the phase of these fields
Answer: a as a functions of the angle φ and θ .
converts electrons into photons or vice versa. 6. The beam width of the antenna pattern
A transmitting antenna converts electrons into measured at half power points is called:
photons while a receiving antenna converts a) Half power beam width
photons into electrons. b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
3. The basic equation of radiation that is d) None of the mentioned
applied to any antenna irrespective of the type
of the antenna is: Answer: a
a) iL= Qv Explanation: The beam width of an antenna
b) iQ = Lv measure at half of the maximum power
c) i/L=Q/v received by an antenna or the 3 dB beam
d) None of the mentioned width of the antenna is termed as half null
beam width.
Answer: a
Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is 7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =
given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
current, l is the length of the current element, power beam width of the antenna is:
q is the charge v is the acceleration of the a) 330
charge.
b) 660
4. When the separation between two lines that c) 12000
carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave d) None of the mentioned
tends to be radiated.
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: Half power beam width of the
Answer: a pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
Explanation: When the separation between point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
beam width. Solving the given problem in the

same flow, half power beam width of the intensity. Unit of radiation intensity is watts
antenna is 660. per steridian or per square degree.
8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ. TOPIC 1.3 NEAR- AND FAR-
antenna is: FIELD REGIONS
a) 450
b) 900 TOPIC 1.4 FIELDS AND POWER
c) 1800 RADIATED BY AN ANTENNA
d) 1200
Answer: b TOPIC 1.5 ANTENNA PATTERN

Explanation: Half power beam width of the CHARACTERISTICS
point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of TOPIC 1.6 ANTENNA GAIN AND
beam width. Twice the half power beam EFFICIENCY
the same steps applied, the half power beam
width of the antenna is 450. First null beam TOPIC 1.7 APERTURE
width is 900. EFFICIENCY AND EFFECTIVE
AREA
9. The solid area through which all the power
radiated by the antenna is:
1. A __________ is a device that converts a
a) Beam area
b) Effective area
transmission line into a plane wave
c) Aperture area
propagating in free space.
d) Beam efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam area is the solid c) Radar
angle through which all of the power radiated d) Mixer
Answer: a
Explanation: A transmitting antenna is a
wave on a transmission line into a plane wave
by the half power points of the main lobe in propagating in free space. It appears as an
electrical circuit on one side, provides an
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit interface with a propagating plane wave.
a) True
a) True
b) False
b) False
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna Explanation: Antennas can be used both as

transmitters and receivers. As transmitters Substituting in the above expression, far field
they radiate energy to free space and as distance is 17.3 m.
receivers they receive signal from free space.
Hence, they are called bidirectional devices 6._________ of an antenna is a plot of the
as they are used at both transmitting end and magnitude of the far field strength versus
receiving end. position around the antenna.
3. Dipole antennas are an example for: b) Directivity
a) Wire antennas c) Beam width
b) Aperture antennas d) None of the mentioned
c) Array antennas
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: Radiation pattern of an antenna
Answer: a is a plot of the magnitude of the far field
Explanation: Dipoles, monopoles, oops, strength versus position around the antenna.
Yagi-Uda arrays are all examples for wire This plot gives the detail regarding the region
antennas. These antennas have low gains, and where most of the energy of antenna is
are mostly used at lower frequencies. radiated, side lobes and beam width of an
antenna.
4. _________ antennas consist of a regular
arrangement of antenna elements with a feed 7. Antennas having a constant pattern in the
network azimuthal plane are called _____________
a) Aperture antennas a) High gain antenna
b) Array antennas b) Omni directional antenna
c) Printed antennas c) Unidirectional antenna
d) Wire antennas d) Low gain antenna
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Array antennas consist of a Explanation: Omni directional antennas
regular arrangement of antenna elements with radiate EM waves in all direction. If the
a) 18 m b) False
b) 13 m
c) 16.4 m Answer: a

9. If the beam width of an antenna in two Product of directivity and efficiency thus
orthogonal planes are 300 and 600. Then the gives the gain of the antenna to be 16.2.
directivity of the antenna is:
a) 24 2. Gain of an antenna is always greater than
b) 18 the directivity of the antenna.
c) 36 a) True
d) 12 b) False
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Given the beam width of the Explanation: Gain of an antenna is always
antenna in 2 planes, the directivity is given by smaller than the directivity of an antenna.
32400/θ*∅, where θ,∅ are the beam widths in Gain is given by the product of directivity and
radiation efficiency. Radiation efficiency can
the two orthogonal planes. Substituting in the
never be greater than one. So gain is always
less than or equal to directivity.
10. If the power input to an antenna is 100
mW and if the radiated power is measured to
area of 3λ × 2λ. Then the maximum
be 90 mW, then the efficiency of the antenna
directivity that can be achieved by this
is:
rectangular horn antenna is:
a) 75 %
a) 24 dB
b) 80 %
b) 4 dB
c) 90 %
d) Insufficient data c) 19 dB
Answer: c
Answer: c
Explanation: Given the aperture dimensions
as the ratio of radiated power to the input
of an antenna, the maximum directivity that
power to the antenna. Substituting the given
can be achieved is 4π A/λ2, where A is the
data in the efficiency equation, the efficiency
aperture area and λ is the operating
of the antenna is 90%.
wavelength. Substituting the given values in
the above equation, the maximum directivity
TOPIC 1.8 ANTENNA NOISE achieved is 19 dB.
TEMPERATURE AND G/T
area of 3λ × 2λ. If the aperture efficiency of
1. If an antenna has a directivity of 16 and an antenna is 90%, then the directivity of the
radiation efficiency of 0.9, then the gain of antenna is:
the antenna is: a) 19 dB
a) 16.2 b) 17.1 dB
b) 14.8 c) 13 dB
c) 12.5 d) 21.1 dB
d) 19.3
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Given the aperture dimensions
Explanation: Gain of an antenna is given by of an antenna, the directivity that can be
the product of radiation efficiency of the achieved is ap4π A/λ2, where A is the
antenna and the directivity of the antenna. aperture area and λ is the operating

wavelength, ap is the aperture efficiency. background noise temperature increases.

Substituting the given values in the above Also, with the increase of the elevation angle
equation, the directivity achieved is 17.1 dB. from the horizon, background noise
temperature increases.
5. If an antenna has a directivity of 16 and is
operating at a wavelength of λ, then the 8. The noise temperature of an antenna is
maximum effective aperture efficiency is: given by the expression:
a) 1.27λ2 a) radTb + (1-rad) Tp
b) (1-rad) TP
b) 2.56λ2
c) radTb
c) 0.87λ2 d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The noise temperature of an
Explanation: Maximum effective aperture antenna is given by the expression radTb +
efficiency of an antenna is given by D λ2/4π, (1-rad) Tp. here, Tb is the brightness
D is the directivity of the antenna. temperature and Tp is the physical
Substituting in the equation the given values, temperature of the system. rad is the radiation
the maximum effective aperture is 1.27λ2. efficiency. Noise temperature of a system
depends on these factors.
6. A resistor is operated at a temperature of
300 K, with a system bandwidth of 1 MHz 9. Low is the G/T ratio of an antenna, higher
then the noise power produced by the resistor is its efficiency.
is: a) True
a) 3.13×10-23 watts b) False
b) 4.14×10-15 watts Answer: b
c) 6.14×10-15 watts Explanation: In the G/T ratio of an antenna,
d) None of the mentioned G is the gain of an antenna and T is the
antenna noise temperature. Higher the G/T
Answer: b ratio of an antenna better is the performance
Explanation: For a resistor noise power of the antenna.
produced is given by kTB, where T is the
system temperature and B is the bandwidth. 10._________ has a constant power spectral
Substituting in the above expression, the density.
noise power produced is 4.14×10-15 watts. a) White noise
b) Gaussian noise
7. With an increase in operating frequency, c) Thermal noise
the background noise temperature: d) Shot noise
a) Increases
b) Decreases Answer: a
c) Remains constant Explanation: Thermal noise has a power
d) Remains unaffected spectral density for a wide range of
frequencies. Its plot of frequency v/s noise
Answer: a power is a straight line parallel to Y axis.
Explanation: The plot of frequency v/s
background noise temperature shows that
with the increase of the signal frequency, the

TOPIC 1.9 IMPEDANCE impedance at microwave frequencies, they

MATCHING network analyzer in terms of accuracy,
versatility and convenience.
1. Slotted line is a transmission line
configuration that allows the sampling of: 4. If the standing wave ratio for a
a) electric field amplitude of a standing wave transmission line is 1.4, then the reflection
on a terminated line coefficient for the line is:
b) magnetic field amplitude of a standing a) 0.16667
wave on a terminated line b) 1.6667
c) voltage used for excitation c) 0.01667
d) current that is generated by the source d) 0.96
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Slotted line allows the Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1).
sampling of the electric field amplitude of a Substituting for SWR in the above equation
standing wave on a terminated line. With this for reflection co-efficient, given SWR is 1.4,
device, SWR and the distance of the first reflection co-efficient is 0.16667.
voltage minimum from the load can be
measured, from this data, load impedance can 5. If the reflection coefficient of a
be found. transmission line is 0.4, then the standing
wave ratio is:
2. A slotted line can be used to measure a) 1.3333
_____ and the distance of _____________ b) 2.3333
from the load. c) 0.4
a) SWR, first voltage minimum d) 0.6
b) SWR, first voltage maximum
c) characteristic impedance, first voltage Answer: b
minimum Explanation: SWR= (1+┌)/ (1-┌). Where ┌
d) characteristic impedance, first voltage is the reflection co-efficient. Substituting for
maximum the reflection co-efficient in the equation,
SWR is 2.3333.
Answer: a
Explanation: With a slotted line, SWR and 6. Expression for ϴ means phase angle of the
the distance of the first voltage minimum reflection co efficient r=|r|-e^jθ, the phase of
from the load can be measured, from this the reflection co-efficient is:
data, load impedance can be found. a) θ=2π+2βLmin
b) θ=π+2βLmin
3. A modern device that replaces a slotted c) θ=π/2+2βLmin
line is:
d) θ=π+βLmin
a) Digital CRO
b) generators
c) network analyzers Answer: b
d) computers Explanation: here, θ is the phase of the
reflection co-efficient. Lmin is the distance
Answer: c from the load to the first minimum. Since
Explanation: Although slotted lines used to voltage minima repeat every λ/2, any multiple
be the principal way of measuring unknown of λ/2 can be added to Lmin .

7. In the expression for phase of the reflection Answer: a

coefficient, Lmin stands for : Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌).
a) distance between load and first voltage Substituting the given values of reflection co-
minimum efficient and characteristic impedance, ZL is
b) distance between load and first voltage 47.3+j19.7Ω .
maximum
c) distance between consecutive minimas 10. If the normalized load impedance of a
d) distance between a minima and immediate transmission line is 2, then the reflection co-
maxima efficient is:
a) 0.33334
Answer: a b) 1.33334
Explanation: Lmin is defined as the distance c) 0
between the terminating load of a d) 1
transmission line and the first voltage
minimum that occurs in the transmission line Answer: a
due to reflection of waves from the load end Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌), this is the
due to mismatched termination. expression for load impedance. Normalized
load impedance is the ratio of load impedance
8. If SWR=1.5 with a wavelength of 4 cm and to the characteristic impedance, taking
the distance between load and first minima is ZLL/Z0 as 2, the reflection co-efficient is
1.48cm, then the reflection coefficient is: equal to 0.33334.
a) 0.0126+j0.1996
b) 0.0128
c) 0.26+j0.16 TOPIC 1.10 FRIIS
d) none of the mentioned TRANSMISSION EQUATION
Answer: a
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1). TOPIC 1.11 LINK BUDGET AND
Substituting for SWR in the above equation LINK MARGIN NOISE
reflection co-efficient is 0.2. To find θ,
θ=π+2βLmin, substituting Lmin as 1.48cm, 1. Link budget consists of calculation of
a) Useful signal power
θ=86.4⁰. Hence converting the polar form of b) Interfering noise power
the reflection co-efficient into rectangular co- c) Useful signal & Interfering noise power
ordinates, reflection co-efficient is d) None of the mentioned
0.0126+j0.1996.
Answer: c
9. If the characteristic impedance of a
Explanation: The link analysis and its output,
transmission line 50 Ω and reflection the link budget consists of calculations and
coefficient is 0.0126+j0.1996, then load tabulations of useful signal power and
impedance is: interfering noise power at the receiver.
a) 47.3+j19.7Ω
b) 4.7+j1.97Ω 2. Link budget can help in predicting
c) 0.26+j0.16 a) Equipment weight and size
d) data insufficient b) Technical risk
c) Prime power requirements

Answer: d 6. Mechanism contributing to a reduction in

Explanation: Link budget can help to predict efficiency is called as
equipment weight, size, prime power a) Amplitude tapering
requirements, technical risk and cost. Link b) Blockage
budget is one of the system manager’s useful c) Edge diffraction
document. d) All of the mentioned
3. Which is the primary cost for degradation Answer: d

of error performance? Explanation: Mechanism contributing to a
a) Loss in signal to noise ratio reduction in efficiency is called as amplitude
b) Signal distortion tapering, spillover, edge diffraction, blockage,
c) Signal distortion & Loss in signal to noise scattering, re-radiation and dissipative loss.
ratio
d) None of the mentioned 7. Space loss occurs due to a decrease in
a) Electric field strength
Answer: c b) Efficiency
Explanation: There are two primary causes c) Phase
for the degradation of error performance. d) Signal power
They are loss in signal to noise ratio and the
second is signal distortion caused by Answer: a
intersymbol interference. Explanation: Due to the decrease in electric
field strength there will be a decrease in
4. Which factor adds phase noise to the signal strength as a function of distance. This
signal? is called as space loss.
a) Jitter
b) Phase fluctuations 8. Antenna’s efficiency is given by the ratio
c) Jitter & Phase fluctuations of
d) None of the mentioned a) Effective aperture to physical aperture
b) Physical aperture to effective aperture
Answer: c c) Signal power to noise power
Explanation: When a local oscillator is used d) Losses
in signal mixing, phase fluctuations and jitter
adds phase noise to the signal. Answer: a
Explanation: The larger the antenna aperture
5. Antennas are used the larger is the resulting signal power density
a) As transducer in the desired direction. The ratio of effective
b) To focus aperture to physical aperture is the antenna’s
c) As transducer & To focus efficiency.
9. Effective radiated power of an isotropic
Answer: c radiator can be given as a product of
Explanation: Antennas are used as a) Radiated power and received power
transducer that converts electronic signals to b) Effective area and physical area
electromagnetic fields and vice versa. They c) Transmitted power and transmitting gain
are also used to focus the electromagnetic d) Receiving power and receiving gain
energy in the desired direction.
Answer: c
Explanation: An effective radiated power

with respect to an isotropic radiator EIRP can b) Radiation resistance

be defined as the product of transmitted c) Transmission impedance
power and the gain of the transmitting d) Recovery resistance
antenna.
Answer: b
10. According to reciprocity theorem, _____ Explanation: The transmission line is
and _____ are identical. connected at the center. The dipole has an
a) Transmitting power and receiving power impedance of 73 V at its center, which is the
b) Transmitting gain and receiving gain radiation resistance. At the resonant
c) Effective area and physical area frequency, the antenna appears to be a pure
d) None of the mentioned resistance of 73 V.
Answer: b 3. What happens when the radiation

Explanation: The reciprocity theorem states resistance of the antenna matches the
that for a given antenna and carrier characteristic impedance of the transmission
wavelength the transmitting and receiving line?
gain are identical. a) No transmission occurs
c) SWR is maximum
d) SWR is minimum
UNIT II RADIATION Answer: d

Explanation: When the radiation resistance
MECHANISMS AND of the antenna matches the characteristic
DESIGN ASPECTS impedance of the transmission line, the SWR
is minimum and maximum power reaches the
antenna. This allows maximum power to be
TOPIC 2.1 RADIATION transmitted.
MECHANISMS OF LINEAR
WIRE AND LOOP ANTENNAS 4. The type of dipole antenna that has a
higher band width is called as?
a) Conical antenna
1. A dipole antenna is also called as? b) Yagi antenna
a) Marconi antenna c) Helical antenna
b) Yagi antenna d) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna Answer: a
Explanation: A common way to increase
Answer: d bandwidth in the antenna is to use a version
Explanation: One of the most widely used of the dipole antenna known as the conical
antenna types is the half-wave dipole antenna. antenna. The overall length of the antenna is
This antenna is also formally known as the 0.73λ or 0.73(984)/f = 718.32/f. This is
Hertz antenna after Heinrich Hertz, who first longer than the traditional one-half
demonstrated the existence of wavelength of a dipole antenna, but the
electromagnetic waves. physical shape changes the necessary
dimensions for resonance.
2. The impedance at the center of the antenna
is known as?

5. The radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole energy is directed or received. Beam width is
has the shape of a ______ measured on an antenna’s radiation pattern.
a) Doughnut
b) Sphere 8. What is the power radiated by the antenna
c) Hemisphere with gain called as?
d) Circular a) Critical power
b) Transverse power
Answer: a c) Effective radiated power
Explanation: The radiation pattern of any d) Transmitted power
antenna is the shape of the electromagnetic
energy radiated from or received by that Answer: c
antenna. Typically that radiation is Explanation: The power radiated by an
concentrated in a pattern that has a antenna with directivity and therefore gain is
recognizable geometric shape. The radiation called the effective radiated power (ERP).
pattern of a half-wave dipole has the shape of The ERP is calculated by multiplying the
a doughnut. transmitter power fed to the antenna Pt by the
power gain Ap of the antenna.
6. What is the beam width for a half wave
dipole antenna? 9. What is the radiation pattern of an isotropic
a) 90° radiator?
b) 180° a) Doughnut
c) 50° b) Sphere
d) 250° c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam width is measured Answer: b
between the points on the radiation curve that Explanation: An isotropic radiator is a
are 3 dB down from the maximum amplitude theoretical point source of electromagnetic
of the curve. The maximum amplitude of the energy. The E and H fields radiate out in all
pattern occurs at 0° and 180°. The 3-dB down directions from the point source, and at any
points are 70.7 percent of the maximum. The given distance from the point source, the
angle formed with two lines extending from fields form a sphere.
the center of the curve to these 3-dB points is
the beam width. The beam width is 90°. The 10. What is the impedance of the folded
smaller the beam width angle, the more dipole antenna?
directional the antenna. a) 50Ω
b) 100Ω
7. What does the beam width of an antenna c) 300Ω
tell us? d) 20Ω
a) Signal strength
b) Signal power Answer: c
c) Directivity Explanation: A popular variation of the half-
d) Degradation wave dipole is the folded dipole. Like the
standard dipole, it is one-half wavelength
Answer: c long. However, it consists of two parallel
Explanation: The measure of an antenna’s conductors connected at the ends with one
directivity is beam width, the angle of the side open at the center for connection to the
radiation pattern over which a transmitter’s transmission line. The impedance of this

popular antenna is 300 V, making it an 2. The antenna in which location of the feed
excellent match for the widely available 300- determines the direction of the lobe are:
V twin lead. a) Wire antenna
b) Loop antenna
11. Which of the following antennas produce c) Helical antenna
a vertical radiation pattern? d) Horn antenna
a) Dipole antenna
b) Yagi antenna Answer: a
c) Marconi antenna Explanation: In a wire antenna, the location
d) Hertz antenna of the feed determines the direction of the
lobe and the orientation of the wire
Answer: c determines the polarization. These wires can
Explanation: The same effect as dipole be thick or thin. Thickness of the wire
antenna can be achieved with a one-quarter determines the radiation resistance of the
wavelength antenna or Marconi antenna. A antenna.
vertical dipole with the doughnut-shaped
radiation pattern, in which one-half of the 3. Based on the size of the loops, loop
pattern is below the surface of the earth. This antennas are classified as small and large
is called a vertical radiation pattern. loops. This is the only classification of loop
antenna.
a) True
TOPIC 2.2 APERTURE b) False
ANTENNAS
Answer: b
Explanation: Loop antennas are classified
TOPIC 2.3 REFLECTOR based on various antenna parameters. To
ANTENNAS name a few, small and large loops, circular
and square loops, loops having single or multi
turns, loops with turns wound using a single
TOPIC 2.4 MICROSTRIP wire or multiple wires.
ANTENNAS AND FREQUENCY
INDEPENDENT ANTENNAS 4. Antenna that does not belong to the horn
antenna family among the following are:
a) Pyramidal horn
1. The members of the antenna family which b) Conical horn
are made of wires of certain value in terms of c) bi-conical horn
operating wavelength are called: d) None of the mentioned
a) Loop antennas
b) Wire antennas Answer: d
c) Dipole antenna Explanation: All of the above mentioned
d) Slot antennas antennas belong to the horn antenna family.
Horn antennas may be made of pointed or
Answer: c rounded waveguides. The waveguides may
Explanation: Wires of half wavelength are contain disc at an end or some dielectric.
termed as dipoles. Their radiation resistance
is about 73 Ω. If only half of this length is 5. Patch antennas are the antennas of small
used, then it is called quarter-wave monopole size and are made of:
with a radiation resistance of 36.5 Ω. a) Strip line

b) Microstrip lines c) Array antennas

c) Coaxial cables d) Slot antennas
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Lens antennas are complex in
Explanation: Patch antennas are microstrip nature but are able to scale wider angles. In
antennas that can be of any shape. Patch comparison to reflectors, their gain is 1 or 2
antennas can be aperture-coupled fed or dB less, but these have more lenient tolerance
proximity fed. For obtaining circular on surfaces. These have less rearward
polarization, a patch may also be doubly fed. reflection, relatively low loss and can be
easily shaped to the desired contours.
6. Reflector antennas are widely used to
modify radiation patterns of radiating 9. Lens antennas are classified into two types.
elements. One being fast antenna, the other one is:
a) True a) Slow antenna
b) False b) Delay antenna
c) Dynamic antenna
Explanation: Reflector antennas are used to
modify radiation patterns of radiating Answer: b
elements. Reflector antennas are classified Explanation: In delay lenses, the electrical
into two categories. They are passive path length is increased or the wave is
reflectors and active reflectors. Based on the retarded by the lens medium. Dielectric
type of the radiating element and the lenses and H-plane metal lenses fall in this
modification in the radiation pattern required, category.
accordingly either active or passive reflectors
are chosen. 10. The antennas which offer high operational
bandwidth and the antenna parameters are
7. The pattern of the reflector in a reflector maintained over a wide range of antennas are
antenna is called: called:
a) Primary pattern a) Wide band antennas
b) Secondary pattern b) Array antennas
c) Reflector pattern c) Parabolic antennas
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: In a reflector antenna, the feed Explanation: In this class of antennas,
pattern is called primary pattern and the constancy of impedance and radiation
pattern of the reflector is called secondary characteristics is maintained over a wide
pattern. These antennas are widely employed range of frequencies. To be wide band or
in RADARs and other types of point to point frequency independent, antennas should
communication links. expand or contract in proportion to the
wavelength.
8. ______ antennas have gain less than
reflector antennas but have more lenient 11. High directivity required in RADAR
tolerance on surfaces. communication is satisfied using this type of
a) Helical antennas antennas:
b) Lens antennas a) Wide band antennas

b) Antenna arrays of a square corner antenna is:

c) Slot antennas a) 0.4 m2
d) Patch antennas b) 0.2 m2
Answer: b c) 0.1 m2
Explanation: Higher directivity is the d) None of the mentioned
requirement in point to point communication.
This can be achieved by increasing the size of Answer: a
the antennas in terms of electrical length. Explanation: Given the directivity of the
When much high directivity is required, antenna, effective aperture of the antenna is
antenna arrays are used. given by Dλ2/4π. substituting the given
values of the variables; the effective aperture
12. The terminal impedance of a dipole of the antenna is 0.4 m2.
antenna is 710 Ω. The terminal impedance of
the slot antenna given the intrinsic impedance
of air is 377 Ω is: TOPIC 2.5 DESIGN
a) 100 Ω CONSIDERATIONS AND
b) 50 Ω APPLICATIONS.
c) 25 Ω
1. The basic requirements of transmitting
Answer: b antennas are:
Explanation: The terminal impedance ZS of a) High efficiency
b) Low side lobes
the slot is given by the relation Z02/ 4Zd) Zₒ is c) Large signal to noise ratio
the intrinsic impedance of the medium and d) Lone of the mentioned
ZD is the terminal impedance of the dipole.
Substituting the given values in the above Answer: a
equation, the terminal impedance of sot is 50 Explanation: The basic requirements of a
Ω. transmitting antenna are high gain and
efficiency while requirements of receiving
13. If the length of aperture in a pyramidal antennas are low side lobes and large signal
horn antenna is 10cm and δ for the design is to noise to ratio.
0.25. Then, the flaring angle of the pyramidal
horn is: 2. _________ is a device that converts
a) 30⁰ electrons to photons or vice-versa.
b) 25.4⁰ a) Antenna
c) 45⁰ b) Electron gun
d) 60⁰ c) Photon amplifier
d) Microwave tube
Answer: b
Explanation: The flaring angle of pyramidal Answer: a
horn is given by 2cos-1(L/L+δ). Substituting converts electrons into photons or vice versa.
the values of L and δ, flaring angle is 25.4⁰. A transmitting antenna converts electrons into
photons while a receiving antenna converts
14. If the directivity of a square corner
photons into electrons.
receiving antenna is 20 and operating at a
wavelength of 0.25m, the effective aperture

3. The basic equation of radiation that is c) Beam width

applied to any antenna irrespective of the type d) None of the mentioned
of the antenna is:
a) iL= Qv Answer: a
b) iQ = Lv Explanation: The beam width of an antenna
c) i/L=Q/v measure at half of the maximum power
d) None of the mentioned received by an antenna or the 3 dB beam
width of the antenna is termed as half null
Answer: a beam width.
Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is
given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in 7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =
current, l is the length of the current element, cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
q is the charge v is the acceleration of the power beam width of the antenna is:
charge. a) 330
b) 660
4. When the separation between two lines that
carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave c) 12000
tends to be radiated. d) None of the mentioned
a) True
Answer: b
b) False
Explanation: Half power beam width of the
Answer: a antenna is obtained by equating the field
Explanation: When the separation between pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
two lines that chary the TEM wave point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated so beam width. Solving the given problem in the
that the opened – out line act as an antenna same flow, half power beam width of the
which lunches a free space wave. antenna is 660.
5. The number of patterns radiation pattern 8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ.
required to specify the characteristic are : cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the
a) Three antenna is:
b) Four a) 450
c) Two b) 900
d) Five
c) 1800
Answer: a d) 1200
Explanation: The three patterns required are,
θ component of the electric field as the Answer: b
function of the angles as θ and φ, the φ Explanation: Half power beam width of the
component of the electric field as the function antenna is obtained by equating the field
of the angles θ and φ, the phase of these fields pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
as a functions of the angle φ and θ . point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
6. The beam width of the antenna pattern width gives the first null beam width. With
measured at half power points is called: the same steps applied, the half power beam
a) Half power beam width width of the antenna is 450. First null beam
b) Full null beam width width is 900.

9. The solid area through which all the power b) Receiving antenna
radiated by the antenna is: c) Radar
a) Beam area d) Mixer
b) Effective area
c) Aperture area Answer: a
d) Beam efficiency Explanation: A transmitting antenna is a
Answer: a wave on a transmission line into a plane wave
Explanation: The beam area is the solid propagating in free space. It appears as an
angle through which all of the power radiated electrical circuit on one side, provides an
by the antenna would stream if P (θ, φ) interface with a propagating plane wave.
area and zero elsewhere. This value is 2. Antennas are bidirectional devices.
approximately equal to the angles subtended a) True
by the half power points of the main lobe in b) False
Answer: a
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit Explanation: Antennas can be used both as
solid angle is called radiation intensity. transmitters and receivers. As transmitters
a) True they radiate energy to free space and as
b) False receivers they receive signal from free space.
Hence, they are called bidirectional devices
Answer: a as they are used at both transmitting end and
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna receiving end.
intensity. Unit of radiation intensity is watts 3. Dipole antennas are an example for:
per steridian or per square degree. a) Wire antennas
c) Array antennas
UNIT III ANTENNA Answer: a

Explanation: Dipoles, monopoles, oops,
ARRAYS AND Yagi-Uda arrays are all examples for wire
APPLICATIONS antennas. These antennas have low gains, and
are mostly used at lower frequencies.
TOPIC 3.1 TWO-ELEMENT 4. _________ antennas consist of a regular

ARRAY arrangement of antenna elements with a feed
network
TOPIC 3.2 ARRAY FACTOR b) Array antennas
c) Printed antennas
1. A __________ is a device that converts a d) Wire antennas
transmission line into a plane wave Answer: b
propagating in free space. Explanation: Array antennas consist of a
a) Transmitting antenna regular arrangement of antenna elements with

a) 18 m b) False
b) 13 m
c) 16.4 m Answer: a
Substituting in the above expression, far field
distance is 17.3 m. 9. If the beam width of an antenna in two
orthogonal planes are 300 and 600. Then the
6._________ of an antenna is a plot of the directivity of the antenna is:
magnitude of the far field strength versus a) 24
position around the antenna. b) 18
a) Radiation pattern c) 36
b) Directivity d) 12
c) Beam width
d) None of the mentioned Answer: b
Explanation: Given the beam width of the
Answer: a antenna in 2 planes, the directivity is given by
Explanation: Radiation pattern of an antenna 32400/θ*∅, where θ,∅ are the beam widths in
is a plot of the magnitude of the far field the two orthogonal planes. Substituting in the
strength versus position around the antenna. equation, directivity of the antenna is 18.
This plot gives the detail regarding the region
where most of the energy of antenna is 10. If the power input to an antenna is 100
radiated, side lobes and beam width of an mW and if the radiated power is measured to
antenna. be 90 mW, then the efficiency of the antenna
is:
7. Antennas having a constant pattern in the a) 75 %
azimuthal plane are called _____________ b) 80 %
a) High gain antenna c) 90 %
b) Omni directional antenna d) Insufficient data
d) Low gain antenna Answer: c
Answer: b as the ratio of radiated power to the input
Explanation: Omni directional antennas power to the antenna. Substituting the given
radiate EM waves in all direction. If the

data in the efficiency equation, the efficiency Answer: a

of the antenna is 90%. Explanation: Long distance communication
requires antenna with high directivity. To
increase the directivity antenna arrays are
TOPIC 3.3 PATTERN used. With the antenna arrays, directivity and
MULTIPLICATION gain increases and beam width decreases.
4. Which of the following is false about the

TOPIC 3.4 UNIFORMLY SPACED single antenna for long distance
ARRAYS WITH UNIFORM communication?
a) Enlarging may create side lobes
1. Which of the following is false regarding b) No side lobes
Antenna array? c) High directivity is required
a) Directivity increases d) High Gain is required
b) Directivity decreases
c) Beam width decreases Answer: b
d) Gain increases Explanation: High directive antennas are
required for the long distance
Answer: b communications. The array of antennas is
Explanation: A single antenna provides low used to increase the directivity. The
gain and less directivity. To increase the directivity can be increased by increasing the
directivity antenna arrays are used. With the dimensions of antenna but it creates side
antenna arrays, directivity and gain increases lobes.
and beam width decreases.
5. The electrical size of antenna is increased
2. Electrical size of antenna is increased by by antenna array to avoid size lobes
which of the following? compared to single antenna.
a) Antenna Array a) True
b) Decreasing the coverage area b) False
c) Increasing the coverage area
d) Using a single antenna Answer: a
Explanation: Increasing the dimensions of
Answer: a antennas may lead to the appearance of the
Explanation: To increase the directivity side lobes. So by placing a group of antennas
antenna arrays are used. With the antenna together the electrical size of antenna can be
arrays, directivity and gain increases and increased. With the antenna arrays, directivity
beam width decreases. The electrical size of and gain increases and beam width decreases.
the antenna is increased by placing an array
antenna together to achieve high directivity. 6. A uniform linear array contains
_____________
3. For long distance communication, which of a) N elements placed at equidistance and fed
the property is mainly necessary for the currents of equal magnitude and progressive
antenna? phase shift
a) High directivity b) N elements at non-equidistance and fed
b) Low directivity currents of equal magnitude and progressive
c) Low gain phase shift
d) Broad beam width c) N elements at equidistance and fed currents
of unequal magnitude and progressive phase

shift 9. What is the progressive phase shift of the

d) N elements at equidistance and fed end-fire array?
currents of unequal magnitude and equal a) 0
phase shift b) 90
c) 180
Answer: a d) 60
Explanation: An array is said to be linear if
N elements are spaced equally long the line Answer: c
and is a uniform array if the current is fed Explanation: The progressive phase shift of
with equal magnitude to all elements and the end-fire array is 180°. It is a linear array
progressive phase shift along the line. High whose direction of radiation is along the axis
directivity can be obtained by antenna array. of the array. For a broadside array it is 0°.
7. Total resultant field obtained by the 10. Which of the following statement about
antenna array is given by which of following? antenna array is false?
a) Vector superposition of individual field a) Field pattern is the product of individual
from the element elements in array
b) Maximum field from individual sources in b) Field pattern is the sum of individual
the array elements in array
c) Minimum field from individual sources in c) Resultant field is the vector superposition
the array of the fields from individual elements in array
d) Field from the individual source d) High directivity can be achieved for long
distance communications
Answer: a
Explanation: The total resultant field is Answer: b
obtained by adding all the fields obtained by Explanation: The total resultant field is
the individual sources in the array. An Array obtained by adding all the fields obtained by
containing N elements has the resultant field the individual sources in the array. Radiation
equal to the vector superposition of individual pattern is obtained by multiplying the
field from the elements. individual pattern of the element. Field
pattern is the product of individual elements
8. If the progressive shift in antenna array is in array. Antenna arrays are used to get high
equal to zero then it is called _________ directivity with less side lobes.
a) Broad side
b) End-fire
c) Yagi-uda TOPIC 3.5 AND NON-UNIFORM
d) Fishbone antenna EXCITATION AMPLITUDES
Answer: a
Explanation: The total phase difference of TOPIC 3.6 SMART ANTENNAS.
the fields is given by Ѱ=kdcosθ+β
Here β is the progressive phase shift 1. The basic requirements of transmitting
⇨ β=0, array is a uniform broadside array antennas are:
⇨ β=180, array is a uniform end-fire array a) High efficiency
Yagi-uda antenna, fishbone antenna are end- b) Low side lobes
fire antenna array. c) Large signal to noise ratio

Answer: a 5. The number of patterns radiation pattern

Explanation: The basic requirements of a required to specify the characteristic are :
transmitting antenna are high gain and a) Three
efficiency while requirements of receiving b) Four
antennas are low side lobes and large signal c) Two
to noise to ratio. d) Five
2. _________ is a device that converts Answer: a

electrons to photons or vice-versa. Explanation: The three patterns required are,
a) Antenna θ component of the electric field as the
b) Electron gun function of the angles as θ and φ, the φ
c) Photon amplifier component of the electric field as the function
d) Microwave tube of the angles θ and φ, the phase of these fields
as a functions of the angle φ and θ .
Answer: a
Explanation: Antenna is a device that 6. The beam width of the antenna pattern
converts electrons into photons or vice versa. measured at half power points is called:
A transmitting antenna converts electrons into a) Half power beam width
photons while a receiving antenna converts b) Full null beam width
photons into electrons. c) Beam width
3. The basic equation of radiation that is
applied to any antenna irrespective of the type Answer: a
of the antenna is: Explanation: The beam width of an antenna
a) iL= Qv measure at half of the maximum power
b) iQ = Lv received by an antenna or the 3 dB beam
c) i/L=Q/v width of the antenna is termed as half null
d) None of the mentioned beam width.
Answer: a 7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =

Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in power beam width of the antenna is:
current, l is the length of the current element, a) 330
q is the charge v is the acceleration of the
b) 660
charge.
c) 12000
4. When the separation between two lines that d) None of the mentioned
carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave
tends to be radiated. Answer: b
a) True Explanation: Half power beam width of the
b) False antenna is obtained by equating the field
Answer: a point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
Explanation: When the separation between beam width. Solving the given problem in the
two lines that chary the TEM wave same flow, half power beam width of the
approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated so antenna is 660.
that the opened – out line act as an antenna

8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ.

antenna is:
UNIT IV PASSIVE AND
a) 450
b) 900 ACTIVE MICROWAVE
c) 1800 DEVICES
d) 1200
TOPIC 4.1 MICROWAVE
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the PASSIVE COMPONENTS:
antenna is obtained by equating the field DIRECTIONAL COUPLER,
pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power POWER DIVIDER, MAGIC TEE
point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of ATTENUATOR, RESONATOR
the same steps applied, the half power beam 1. _______________ are used in the final
width of the antenna is 450. First null beam stages of radar and radio transmitters to
increase the radiated power level.
width is 900.
a) Power amplifiers
9. The solid area through which all the power b) Oscillators
radiated by the antenna is: c) Transistors
a) Beam area d) Attenuators
b) Effective area
Answer: a
c) Aperture area
Explanation: Power amplifiers are used in
d) Beam efficiency
Answer: a to increase the radiated power level. Output
Explanation: The beam area is the solid of power amplifiers are in the range of 100-
angle through which all of the power radiated 500 mW.
2. Important factors to be considered for
a) Efficiency
b) Gain
by the half power points of the main lobe in
c) Thermal effect
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit
Answer: d
Explanation: As per the application
a) True
requirement and considering various aspects
b) False
of an amplifier like efficiency, gain, thermal
Answer: a efficiency and inter modulation distortion,
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna amplifiers need to be designed.
3. Amplifier efficiency is the ratio of RF
intensity. Unit of radiation intensity is watts
output power to DC input power. This
per steridian or per square degree.
parameter determines the performance of an
amplifier.

a) True c) 4
b) False d) 6
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Power amplifier is the primary Explanation: Class B amplifier is biased to
consumer of DC power in most hand-held conduct only during one-half of the input
wireless devices, so amplifier efficiency is an signal cycle. 2 complementary transistors are
important consideration. Amplifier efficiency operated in a class B push pull amplifier to
is the ratio of RF output power to DC input provide amplification over the entire cycle.
power.
7. Power amplifiers in the increasing order of
4. Gain of power amplifiers __________ with efficiency is:
increase in operating frequency. a) Class A, B, C
a) Increases b) Class C, A, B
b) Decreases c) Class B, A, C
c) Increases exponentially d) Efficiency of all the 3 amplifiers is the
d) Decreases exponentially same
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Silicon bipolar junction Explanation: Class A amplifiers have an
transistor amplifiers in the cellular telephone efficiency of about 50%. Class B amplifiers
band of 800-900 MHz band have power have an efficiency of about 78%, class C
added efficiencies of about 80%. But this amplifiers can achieve efficiencies up to
efficiency drops quickly with increase in the 100%. In the increasing order of efficiency, C
operating frequency. > B> a)
5. ___________ amplifiers are linear circuits, 8. Behavior of a transistor in power amplifiers

where the transistor is biased to conduct over is unpredictable at all input signal levels.
the entire range of the input signal cycle. a) True
a) Class A amplifiers b) False
b) Class B amplifiers
c) Class C amplifiers Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: A transistor behaves linearly
for signal powers below 1dB compression
Answer: a point and so, the small –signal scattering
Explanation: Class A amplifiers are linear parameters should not depend either on the
circuits, where the transistor is biased to input power level or the output termination
conduct over the entire range of the input impedance.
signal cycle. Because of this, class A
amplifiers theoretically have a maximum 9. If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V,
efficiency of 50%. and the input power supplied to the amplifier
6. A class B amplifier consists of _______ 38.5 V, efficiency of the power amplifier is:
transistors in order to conduct the input signal a) 25%
over the entire cycle. b) 50%
a) 1 c) 75%
b) 2 d) 35%

Answer: a c) it has low conduction band electrons

Explanation: Efficiency of a power amplifier d) less forbidden energy gap
is (Pout- Pin)/ PDc Substituting the given
values in the above expression, efficiency of Answer: d
the power amplifier is 25%. Explanation: In GaAs, the conduction band
lies directly above the top of the valence
10. If a power amplifier has an output power band. The lowest energy conduction band in
of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB, GaAs is called as primary valley. GaAs
then the input drive power is: consists of six secondary valleys. The bottom
a) 400 mW of one of the secondary valley is at an energy
b) 225 mW difference of 0.35 eV with the bottom of the
c) 229 mW primary valley in conduction band.
d) 240 mW
3. In a GaAs n-type specimen, the current
Answer: c generated is constant irrespective of the
Explanation: Input drive power required to electric filed applied to the specimen.
get an output of 10 W is Pout (dBm)- G (dB). a) true
G is the gain of the amplifier. Substituting the b) false
given values in the above equation, 229 mW.
Answer: b
Explanation: In a GaAs n-type specimen,
TOPIC 4.2 PRINCIPLES OF when the electric field applied reaches a
MICROWAVE threshold value of Eth, the current in the
SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES: specimen becomes suddenly oscillatory and
GUNN DIODES with respect to time and these oscillations are
in the microwave frequency range. This effect
1. Silicon and germanium are called is called Gunn Effect.
___________ semiconductors.
4. When the electric field applied to GaAs
a) direct gap
specimen is less than the threshold electric
b) indirect gap
field, the current in the material:
c) band gap
a) increases linearly
d) indirect band gap
b) decreases linearly
Answer: b c) increases exponentially
Explanation: The forbidden energy gap for d) decreases exponentially
silicon and germanium are respectively 1.21
Answer: a
eV in Si and 0.79 eV in germanium. Silicon
Explanation: When the electric field applied
and germanium are called indirect gap
is less than the threshold value of electric
semiconductors because the bottom of the
field, the electrons jump from the valence
conduction band does not lie directly above
band to the primary valley of the conduction
the top of the valence band.
band and current increases linearly with
2. GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN electric field.
diodes because:
5. When the applied electric field exceeds the
a) GaAs is cost effective
threshold value, electrons absorb more energy
b) It less temperature sensitive
from the field and become:
a) hot electrons

b) cold electrons b) positive resistance

c) emission electrons c) negative voltage
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: When the applied electric field Explanation: When either a voltage or
exceeds the threshold value, electrons absorb current is applied to the terminals of a sample
more energy from the field and become hot of bulk solid state compound formed by
electrons. These electrons jump into the group 5 and 3 elements of periodic table, a
lowest secondary valley in the conduction differential resistance is developed in the bulk
band. When the electrons become hot, their device. This fundamental concept is called
mobility reduces. RWH theory.
6. GaAs is used in fabricating Gunn diode. 9. The number of modes of operation for n
Gunn diode is: type GaAs is:
a) bulk device a) two
b) sliced device b) three
c) made of different type of semiconductor c) four
layers d) five
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: n-type GaAs used for
Explanation: A GUNN diode is a bulk fabricating Gunn diode has four modes of
device, that is, it does not contain any operation. They are Gunn oscillation mode,
junction but it is a slice of n-type GaAs. P- limited space charge accumulation mode, and
type GaAs does not exhibit Gunn Effect. stable amplification mode bias circuit
Hence it is a reversible and can be operated in oscillation mode.
both directions.
10. The free electron concentration in N-type
7. The electrodes of a Gunn diode are made GaAs is controlled by:
of: a) effective doping
a) molybdenum b) bias voltage
b) GaAs c) drive current
c) gold d) none of the mentioned
d) copper
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The free electron concentration
Explanation: Gunn diode is grown in n-type GaAs is controlled through effective
epitaxially onto a gold or copper plated doping so that they range from 1014 to 1017
molybdenum electrode, out of gallium per cc at room temperature. The typical
arsenide doped with silicon, tellurium or specimen of n-type GaAs has the dimensions
selenium to make it n-type. 150 µm by 150 µm.
8. When either a voltage or current is applied 11. The modes of operation of a Gunn diode
to the terminals of bulk solid state compound are illustrated in a plot of voltage applied to
GaAs, a differential ______ is developed in the Gunn diode v/s frequency of operation of
that bulk device. Gunn diode.
a) negative resistance

a) true Answer: a
b) false Explanation: The Gunn diode is mounted at
the centre of the broad wall of a shorted
Answer: b waveguide since for the dominant TE10
Explanation: A graph of plot of product of mode; the electric field is maximum at the
frequency and the length of the device plotted centre.
along y-axis versus the product of doping
concentration and length along X- axis. These 15. In a Gunn diode oscillator, the electron
are the parameters on which the four modes drift velocity was found to be 107 cm/second
of operation of Gunn diode are explained. and the effective length is 20 microns, then
the intrinsic frequency is:
12. The mode of operation in which the Gunn a) 5 GHz
diode is not stable is: b) 6 GHz
a) Gunn oscillation mode c) 4 GHz
b) limited space charge accumulation mode d) 2 GHz
c) stable amplification mode
d) bias circuit oscillation mode Answer: a
Explanation: The intrinsic frequency for a
Answer: a Gunn oscillator is given by Vd/L. Here VD is
Explanation: In Gunn oscillation mode, the the drift velocity and L is the effective length.
device is unstable due to the formation of Substituting the given values in the above
accumulation layer and field domain. This equation, intrinsic frequency is 5 GHz.
high field domain moves from cathode to
anode.
TOPIC 4.3 IMPATT DIODES,
13. The frequency of oscillation in Gunn SCHOTTKY BARRIER DIODES,
diode is given by: PIN DIODES
a) vdom/ Leff
b) Leff/ Vdom
1. The material used to fabricate IMPATT
c) Leff/ WVdom diodes is GaAs since they have the highest
d) none of the mentioned efficiency in all aspects.
a) true
Answer: a b) false
Explanation: In Gunn oscillation mode, the
frequency of oscillation is given by vdom/ Answer: b
Leff, where vdom is the domain velocity, Leff Explanation: IMPATT diodes can be
is effective length that the domain moves fabricated using silicon, germanium, GaAs or
from the time it is formed until the time a new indium phosphide. Out of these materials,
domain is formed. GaAs have highest efficiency, low noise and
high operating frequencies. But GaAs has a
14. In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode major disadvantage of complex fabrication
is inserted into a waveguide cavity formed by process and higher cost. So, GaAs are not
a short circuit termination at one end preferred over silicon and germanium.
a) true
b) false 2. When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the
breakdown voltage is applied to an IMPATT
diode, it results in:

a) avalanche multiplication a) Vd/2l

b) break down of depletion region b) Vd/l
c) high reverse saturation current
c) Vd/2πl
d) Vdd/4πl
Answer: a
Explanation: A reverse bias voltage Answer: a
exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied Explanation: The resonant frequency of an
to an IMPATT diode, a high electric field IMPATT diode is given by the expression
appears across the n+ p junction. This high Vd/2l. Here VD is the carrier drift velocity; L
field imparts sufficient energy to the holes is the length of the intrinsic region in the
and also to valence electrons to raise IMPATT diode.
themselves to the conduction band. This
results in avalanche multiplication of electron 6. If the length of the intrinsic region in
hole pair. IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift
velocity are 107 cm/s, then the drift time of
3. To prevent an IMPATT diode from the carrier is:
burning, a constant bias source is used to
a) 10-11 seconds
maintain _______ at safe limit.
a) average current b) 2×10-11 seconds
b) average voltage c) 2.5×10-11 seconds
c) average bias voltage d) none of the mentioned
d) average resistance
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The drift time of the carrier is
Explanation: Avalanche multiplication is a defined as the ratio of length of the intrinsic
cumulative process resulting in rapid increase region to the carrier drift velocity.
of carrier density. To prevent the diode from Substituting the given values in this relation,
burning due to this increased carrier density, a the drift time of the carrier is 2×10-11
constant bias source is used to maintain seconds.
average current at safe limit.
7. If the length of the intrinsic region in
4. The number of semiconductor layers in IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift
IMPATT diode is: velocity are 107 cm/s, then the nominal
a) two frequency of the diode is:
b) three a) 12 GHz
c) four b) 25 GHz
d) none of the mentioned c) 30 GHz
d) 24 GHz
Answer: c
Explanation: IMPATT diode consists of 4 Answer: b
layers according to the construction. It Explanation: Nominal frequency is defined
consists of a p+ region and n+ layers at the as the ratio of the carrier drift velocity to
two ends. In between these layers, a p type twice the length of the intrinsic region.
layer and an intrinsic region is sandwiched. Substituting the given values in the above
equation, the nominal frequency is 25 GHz.
5. The resonant frequency of an IMPATT
diode is given by:

8. IMPATT diodes employ impact ionization 11. If the critical field in a Gunn diode
technique which is a noisy mechanism of oscillator is 3.2 KV/cm and effective length is
generating charge carriers. 20 microns, then the critical voltage is:
a) true a) 3.2 V
b) false b) 6.4 V
M
c) 2.4 V
Answer: a d) 6.5 V
Explanation: IMPATT devices employ
O
impact ionization techniques which is too Answer: b
noisy. Hence in order to achieve low noise Explanation: Critical voltage of a Gunn
C
figure, impact ionization is avoided in diode oscillator is given by the expression lEc
BARITT diodes. The minority injection is where l is the effective length and Ec is the
T.
provided by punch through of the
critical field. Substituting the given values in
intermediate region.
the above equation, critical voltage is 6.4
9. An essential requirement for the BARITT volts.
O
diode is that the intermediate drift region be
completely filled to cause the punch through TOPIC 4.4 MICROWAVE TUBES:
SP
to occur. KLYSTRON, TWT
a) true
b) false
MAGNETRON.
G
Answer: b 1. The production of power at higher
Explanation: An essential requirement for frequencies is much simpler than production
the BARITT diode is that the intermediate of power at low frequencies.
LO
drift region be completely filled to cause the a) True

punch through to the emitter-base junction b) False
without causing avalanche breakdown of the
base collector junction. Answer: b
.B
Explanation: As frequency increases to the

10. If the RMS peak current in an IMPATT millimeter and sub millimeter ranges, it
diode is 700 mA and if DC input power is 6 becomes increasingly more difficult to
watt, with the load resistance being equal to produce even moderate power with solid state
17
2.5 Ω, the efficiency of the diode is: devices, so microwave tubes become more
a) 10.1 % useful at these higher frequencies.
b) 10.21 %
c) 12 % 2. Microwave tubes are power sources
-R
d) 15.2 % themselves at higher frequencies and can be

used independently without any other
Answer: b devices.
a) True
SE
Explanation: Efficiency of IMPATT diode is

defined as the ratio of output RMS power to b) False
the input DC power. Calculating the RMS
output power from the given RMS current Answer: b
and substituting in the equation of efficiency, Explanation: Microwave tubes are not
C
the efficiency is 10.21%. actually sources by themselves, but are high

power amplifiers. These tubes are in
conjunction with low power sources and this

combination is referred to as microwave 6. ________ is a single cavity klystron tube

power module. that operates as on oscillator by using a
reflector electrode after the cavity.
3. Microwave tubes are grouped into two a) Backward wave oscillator
categories depending on the type of: b) Reflex klystron
a) Electron beam field interaction c) Travelling wave tube
b) Amplification method d) Magnetrons
c) Power gain achieved
d) Construction methods Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Reflex klystron is a single
cavity klystron tube that operates as on
Answer: a oscillator by using a reflector electrode after
Explanation: Microwave tubes are grouped the cavity to provide positive feedback via the
into two categories depending on the type of electron beam. It can be tuned by
electron beam field interaction. They are mechanically adjusting the cavity size.
linear or ‘O’ beam and crossed field or the m
type tube. Microwave tubes can also be 7. A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier
classified as oscillators and amplifiers. is:
a) Low power gain
4. The klystron tube used in a klystron b) Low bandwidth
amplifier is a _________ type beam c) High source power
amplifier. d) Design complexity
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed field Answer: b
c) Parallel field Explanation: Klystron amplifier offers a very
d) None of the mentioned narrow operating bandwidth. This is
overcome in travelling wave tube (TWT).
Answer: a TWT is a linear beam amplifier that uses an
Explanation: In klystron amplifier, the electron gun and a focusing magnet to
electron beam passes through two or more accelerate beam of electrons through an
resonant cavities. The first cavity accepts an interaction region.
RF input and modulates the electron beam by
bunching it into high density and low density 8. In a _________ oscillator, the RF wave
regions. travels along the helix from the collector
towards the electron gun.
5. In crossed field tubes, the electron beam a) Interaction oscillator
traverses the length of the tube and is parallel b) Backward wave oscillator
to the electric field. c) Magnetrons
a) True d) None o the mentioned
b) False
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: In a backward wave oscillator,
Explanation: In a crossed field or ‘m’ type the RF wave travels along the helix from the
tubes, the focusing field is perpendicular to collector towards the electron gun. Thus the
the accelerating electric field. Since the signal for oscillation is provided by the
focusing field and accelerating fields are bunched electron beam itself and oscillation
perpendicular to each other, they are called occurs.
crossed field tubes.

9. Extended interaction oscillator is a c) Helix BWO

________ beam oscillator that is similar to d) None of the mentioned
klystron.
a) Linear beam Answer: b
b) Crossed beam Explanation: Gyratron is a microwave device
c) Parallel beam in which the frequency of operation is
d) M beam determined by the biasing field strength and
the electron velocity, as opposed to the
Answer: a dimensions of the tube itself. This makes the
Explanation: Extended interaction oscillator gyrator especially useful for microwave
is a linear beam oscillator that uses an frequencies.
interaction region consisting of several
cavities coupled together, with positive
feedback to support oscillation.
10. Magnetrons are microwave devices that UNIT V MICROWAVE

offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.
a) True DESIGN PRINCIPLES
b) False
TOPIC 5.1 IMPEDANCE
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetrons are capable of very
TRANSFORMATION
high power outputs, on the order of several
kilowatts, and with efficiencies of 80% or TOPIC 5.2 IMPEDANCE
more. But disadvantage of magnetron is that
they are very noisy and cannot maintain MATCHING
frequency or phase coherence when operated
in pulse mode. 1. Slotted line is a transmission line
configuration that allows the sampling of:
11. Klystron amplifiers have high noise a) electric field amplitude of a standing wave
output as compared to crossed field on a terminated line
amplifiers. b) magnetic field amplitude of a standing
a) True wave on a terminated line
b) False c) voltage used for excitation
d) current that is generated by the source
Answer: b
Explanation: Crossed filed amplifiers have Answer: a
very good efficiencies – up to 80%, but the Explanation: Slotted line allows the
gain is limited to 10-15 db) In addition, the sampling of the electric field amplitude of a
CFA has a noisier output than either a standing wave on a terminated line. With this
klystron amplifier or TWT. Its bandwidth can device, SWR and the distance of the first
be up to 40%. voltage minimum from the load can be
measured, from this data, load impedance can
12. ____________ is a microwave device in be found.
which the frequency of operation is
determined by the biasing field strength. 2. A slotted line can be used to measure
a) VTM _____ and the distance of _____________
b) Gyratron from the load.

a) SWR, first voltage minimum c) 0.4

b) SWR, first voltage maximum d) 0.6
c) characteristic impedance, first voltage
minimum Answer: b
d) characteristic impedance, first voltage Explanation: SWR= (1+┌)/ (1-┌). Where ┌
maximum is the reflection co-efficient. Substituting for
the reflection co-efficient in the equation,
Answer: a SWR is 2.3333.
Explanation: With a slotted line, SWR and
the distance of the first voltage minimum 6. Expression for ϴ means phase angle of the
from the load can be measured, from this reflection co efficient r=|r|-e^jθ, the phase of
data, load impedance can be found. the reflection co-efficient is:
a) θ=2π+2βLmin
3. A modern device that replaces a slotted b) θ=π+2βLmin
line is:
c) θ=π/2+2βLmin
a) Digital CRO
b) generators d) θ=π+βLmin
c) network analyzers
d) computers Answer: b
Explanation: here, θ is the phase of the
Answer: c reflection co-efficient. Lmin is the distance
Explanation: Although slotted lines used to from the load to the first minimum. Since
be the principal way of measuring unknown voltage minima repeat every λ/2, any multiple
impedance at microwave frequencies, they of λ/2 can be added to Lmin .
network analyzer in terms of accuracy, 7. In the expression for phase of the reflection
versatility and convenience. coefficient, Lmin stands for :
a) distance between load and first voltage
4. If the standing wave ratio for a
minimum
transmission line is 1.4, then the reflection
b) distance between load and first voltage
coefficient for the line is:
maximum
a) 0.16667
c) distance between consecutive minimas
b) 1.6667
d) distance between a minima and immediate
c) 0.01667
maxima
d) 0.96
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1). Explanation: Lmin is defined as the distance
Substituting for SWR in the above equation between the terminating load of a
for reflection co-efficient, given SWR is 1.4, transmission line and the first voltage
reflection co-efficient is 0.16667. minimum that occurs in the transmission line
due to reflection of waves from the load end
5. If the reflection coefficient of a due to mismatched termination.
transmission line is 0.4, then the standing
wave ratio is: 8. If SWR=1.5 with a wavelength of 4 cm and
a) 1.3333 the distance between load and first minima is
b) 2.3333 1.48cm, then the reflection coefficient is:
a) 0.0126+j0.1996

b) 0.0128
TOPIC 5.3 MICROWAVE FILTER
c) 0.26+j0.16
d) none of the mentioned DESIGN
Answer: a 1. High gain is not achievable at microwave
M
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1). frequencies using BJT amplifiers because:
Substituting for SWR in the above equation a) device construction
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b) complex architecture
reflection co-efficient is 0.2. To find θ, c) ports are not matched at high frequencies
θ=π+2βLmin, substituting Lmin as 1.48cm, d) none of the mentioned
C
θ=86.4⁰. Hence converting the polar form of
the reflection co-efficient into rectangular co- Answer: c
T.
ordinates, reflection co-efficient is Explanation: At higher frequencies, if higher
0.0126+j0.1996. bandwidth is desired, a compromise on
maximum achievable gain is made. But at
9. If the characteristic impedance of a these higher frequencies, the ports of the
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transmission line 50 Ω and reflection amplifier are not matched to 50 Ω.
coefficient is 0.0126+j0.1996, then load
SP
impedance is: 2. To flatten the gain response of a transistor:
a) 47.3+j19.7Ω a) biasing current has to be increased
b) 4.7+j1.97Ω b) input signal level has to increased
c) 0.26+j0.16 c) increase the operational bandwidth
G
d) data insufficient d) give negative feedback to the amplifier
Answer: a Answer: d
LO
Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌). Explanation: Negative feedback can be used

Substituting the given values of reflection co- to increase the gain response of the transistor,
efficient and characteristic impedance, ZL is improve the input and output match, and
increase the stability of the device.
47.3+j19.7Ω .
.B
3. In conventional amplifiers, a flat gain

10. If the normalized load impedance of a response is achieved at the cost of reduced
transmission line is 2, then the reflection co- gain. But this drawback can be overcome by
17
efficient is: using:

a) 0.33334 a) balanced amplifiers
b) 1.33334 b) distributed amplifiers
c) 0 c) differential amplifiers
-R
d) 1 d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌), this is the
SE
Explanation: In conventional amplifiers, a

expression for load impedance. Normalized flat gain response is achieved at the cost of
load impedance is the ratio of load impedance reduced gain. But this drawback can be
to the characteristic impedance, taking overcome by using balanced amplifiers. This
ZLL/Z0 as 2, the reflection co-efficient is is overcome by using two 900 couplers to
C
equal to 0.33334. cancel input and output reflections from two

identical amplifiers.

4. Bandwidth of balanced amplifier can be an Answer: b

octave or more, but is limited by the Explanation: In distributed amplifiers,
bandwidth of the coupler. cascade of N identical FETs have their gates
a) true connected to a transmission line having a
b) false characteristic impedance of Zg with a spacing
of lg while the drains are connected to a
Answer: a
transmission line of characteristic impedance
Explanation: In order to achieve flat gain
Zd, with a spacing ld.
response, balanced amplifiers use couplers to
minimize reflections. But this in turn reduces
the bandwidth of the amplifier to the coupler 8. ____________ uses balanced input and
bandwidth. output, meaning that there are 2 signal lines,
with opposite polarity at each port.
5. Coupler that is mostly used in balanced a) differential amplifier
amplifiers to achieve the required b) distributed amplifier
performance is: c) balanced amplifier
a) branch line coupler d) none of the mentioned
b) wilkinson coupler
c) lange coupler Answer: a
d) waveguide coupler Explanation: Differential amplifier uses
balanced input and outputs, meaning that
Answer: c there are 2 signal lines, with opposite polarity
Explanation: Lange couplers are broadband at each port. It has two input ports and one
couplers and are compact in size. Since the output port. The difference of the 2 input
bandwidth of a balanced amplifiers depends signals is amplified.
on the bandwidth of the coupler used. Lange
coupler is thus preferred over couplers. 9. A major advantage of differential
amplifiers is:
6. Distributed amplifiers offer very high a) high gain
_________ b) low input impedance
a) gain c) higher output voltage swing
b) bandwidth d) none of the mentioned
c) attenuation
d) none of the mentioned Answer: c
Explanation: Differential amplifiers can
Answer: b provide higher voltage swings that are
Explanation: Distributed amplifiers offer approximately double that obtained with
very high bandwidth of about 10 decade. But single ended amplifier.
higher gain cannot be achieved using
distributed amplifiers and matching at the 10. Along with a differential amplifier, 1800
ports is very important to achieve higher hybrid is used both at the input and output.
bandwidth. a) true
b) false
7. In distributed amplifiers, all the FET stages
in the amplifier are connected in series to one Answer: a
another. Explanation: A differential amplifier can be
a) true constructed using two single-ended amplifiers
b) false

and 1800 hybrids at the input and output to =0 occurs, it is possible to achieve non zero
split and then recombine the signals. output voltage for zero input voltage, thus
forming an oscillator. This is called
Barkhausen criteria.
TOPIC 5.4 RF AND
MICROWAVE AMPLIFIER 4. The necessary condition for oscillation in a
DESIGN Colpitts oscillator is:
a) C2/C1=gm/Gi
1. _________ is a non linear circuit that b) C1/C2=gm/Gi
converts DC power to an AC waveform of c) C2/C1= gm*Gi
desired frequency based on the oscillator d) None of the mentioned
design.
a) Attenuator Answer: a
b) Amplifier Explanation: The condition for sustained
c) Oscillator oscillation in a Colpitts oscillator is C2/C1 =
d) None of the mentioned gm/Gi. Here C1 and C2 are the capacitance in
the feedback network, gm is the
Answer: c
Explanation: Oscillator is a non linear circuit transconductance of the transistor and Gi is
that converts DC power to an AC waveform. the input admittance.
Most RC oscillators provide sinusoidal
outputs, which minimizes undesired 5. Colpitts oscillator operating at 50 MHz has
harmonics and noise sidebands. an inductor in the feedback section of value
0.10µH. then the values of the capacitors in
2. The transfer function of an RF oscillator is the feedback section is:
given by: a) 100 pF, 100 pF
a) A/ (1-AH (ω)) b) 100 pF, 50 pF
b) A/ (1+AH (ω)) c) 70 pF, 130 pF
c) A/ (-1+AH (ω)) d) 80 pF, 60 pF
d) 1/ (1-AH (ω))
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The equivalent value of series
Explanation: Transfer function of an RF combination of the capacitors is given by 1/
oscillator is given by A/ (1-AH (ω)). Here, A ω2L. This gives the equivalent capacitance
is the gain of the transistor multiplier used. value of 200 pF. C1C2/ (C1+C2) =200 pF. C1
H(ω) is the function representing the and C2 values can be chosen in several ways.
feedback network. In an oscillator, positive
feedback is used. One of the way is C1=C2=100 pF.
3. The criterion on which oscillations are 6. The necessary condition for oscillation in a
produced in the oscillator circuit is called: Hartley oscillator is:
a) Shannon’s criteria a) L1/L2 = gm/Gi
b) Barkhausen criteria b) L1/L2 =Gi /gm
c) Colpitts criteria c) L2L/L1 = gm/Gi
Answer: b
Explanation: When the condition 1-AH (ω)

Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Necessary condition for Explanation: Resonant frequency of Colpitts
oscillation in a Hartley oscillator is L1/L2 = oscillator is given by 1/2π√LCₒ, where C0 is
gm/Gi. Here, L1 and L2 are the inductances in the equivalent capacitance given by C1C2/
M
the feedback network and gm is the (C1+C2). Substituting and solving the
transconductance of the transistor and Gi is equation, resonant frequency is 45.9 kHz.
the input admittance.
O
10. For Colpitts oscillator, the capacitors C1
7. An inductor is operating at frequency of 50 and C2 in the feedback network are 1 µF and
C
MHz. Its inductance is 0.1 µH, and then the 25 µF respectively. Then the β value of the
series resistance associated with the inductor transistor is:
T.
is: (Qo=100) a) 35
a) 0.31 Ω b) 000.76
b) 1.32 Ω c) 25
c) 1 Ω d) 0.0025
O
d) 1.561 Ω
Answer: c
SP
Answer: a Explanation: β for a transistor is defined as
Explanation: Series resistance associated the ratio of transconductance of the transistor
with an inductor is given by ωL/Qₒ. to the input admittance, which is equal to the
Substituting in this equation, the series of an ratio of C2/C1. Substituting the given values,
G
inductor is given by 0.31.
β of the transistor is 25.
8. Hartley oscillator has inductance values of
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12 mH and 4 mH in the feedback section and TOPIC 5.5 MICROWAVE

a capacitor of 4 nF. Then the resonant POWER AMPLIFIER DESIGN
frequency of the circuit is:
a) 19.89 kHz
1. _______________ are used in the final
.B
b) 25 kHz
c) 45 kHz stages of radar and radio transmitters to
d) 12 kHz increase the radiated power level.
a) Power amplifiers
17
Answer: a b) Oscillators
Explanation: Resonant frequency of Hartley c) Transistors
oscillator is given by 1/ 2π√(C1 (L1 + L2)). d) Attenuators
Substituting the given values in the above
-R
Answer: a
equation, cut-off frequency is 19.89 kHz. Explanation: Power amplifiers are used in
9. Colpitts oscillator in the feedback section
to increase the radiated power level. Output
SE
has an inductance of 4 mH and capacitors of

of power amplifiers are in the range of 100-
12 nH and 4 nH. Then the resonant frequency
500 mW.
of Colpitts oscillator is:
a) 50.4 kHz 2. Important factors to be considered for
b) 35.1 kHz
C

c) 45.9 kHz a) Efficiency
d) None of the mentioned b) Gain

c) Thermal effect Answer: a

d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Class A amplifiers are linear
circuits, where the transistor is biased to
Answer: d conduct over the entire range of the input
Explanation: As per the application signal cycle. Because of this, class A
requirement and considering various aspects amplifiers theoretically have a maximum
of an amplifier like efficiency, gain, thermal efficiency of 50%.
efficiency and inter modulation distortion,
amplifiers need to be designed. 6. A class B amplifier consists of _______
transistors in order to conduct the input signal
3. Amplifier efficiency is the ratio of RF over the entire cycle.
output power to DC input power. This a) 1
parameter determines the performance of an b) 2
amplifier. c) 4
a) True d) 6
b) False
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Class B amplifier is biased to
Explanation: Power amplifier is the primary conduct only during one-half of the input
consumer of DC power in most hand-held signal cycle. 2 complementary transistors are
wireless devices, so amplifier efficiency is an operated in a class B push pull amplifier to
important consideration. Amplifier efficiency provide amplification over the entire cycle.
is the ratio of RF output power to DC input
power. 7. Power amplifiers in the increasing order of
efficiency is:
4. Gain of power amplifiers __________ with a) Class A, B, C
increase in operating frequency. b) Class C, A, B
a) Increases c) Class B, A, C
b) Decreases d) Efficiency of all the 3 amplifiers is the
c) Increases exponentially same
d) Decreases exponentially
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Class A amplifiers have an
Explanation: Silicon bipolar junction efficiency of about 50%. Class B amplifiers
transistor amplifiers in the cellular telephone have an efficiency of about 78%, class C
band of 800-900 MHz band have power amplifiers can achieve efficiencies up to
added efficiencies of about 80%. But this 100%. In the increasing order of efficiency, C
efficiency drops quickly with increase in the > B> a)
operating frequency.
8. Behavior of a transistor in power amplifiers
5. ___________ amplifiers are linear circuits, is unpredictable at all input signal levels.
where the transistor is biased to conduct over a) True
the entire range of the input signal cycle. b) False
a) Class A amplifiers
b) Class B amplifiers Answer: b
c) Class C amplifiers Explanation: A transistor behaves linearly
d) None of the mentioned for signal powers below 1dB compression
point and so, the small –signal scattering

parameters should not depend either on the power, and so is dependent on the signal
input power level or the output termination power. When noise and a desired signal are
impedance. applied to the input of a noise less network,
both noise and signal will be attenuated or
9. If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V, amplified by the same factor, so that the
and the input power supplied to the amplifier signal to noise ratio will be unchanged.
38.5 V, efficiency of the power amplifier is: 2. __________ is defined as the ratio of input
a) 25% signal to noise ratio to the output signal to
b) 50% noise ratio.
c) 75% a) Noise figure
d) 35% b) Noise temperature
c) SNRo
Explanation: Efficiency of a power amplifier
is (Pout- Pin)/ PDc Substituting the given Answer: a
values in the above expression, efficiency of Explanation: Noise figure is defined as the
the power amplifier is 25%. ratio of input signal to noise ratio to the
output signal to noise ratio of a system or a
10. If a power amplifier has an output power receiver. SNRi is the signal to noise ratio
of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB, measured at the input terminals of the device.
then the input drive power is: SNR0 is the output signal to noise ratio
a) 400 mW
measured at the output terminals of the
b) 225 mW
device.
c) 229 mW
d) 240 mW
3. The equivalent noise temperature of a
network given the noise figure of the network
Answer: c
or system is:
Explanation: Input drive power required to
a) T0(F-1)
get an output of 10 W is Pout (dBm)- G (dB).
G is the gain of the amplifier. Substituting the b) T0(F+1)
given values in the above equation, 229 mW. c) T0(F)
d) T0/F
TOPIC 5.6 LOW NOISE
AMPLIFIER DESIGN Answer: a
Explanation: The equivalent noise
temperature of a network given the noise
1. ___________ is defined as the ratio of figure of the network or system is given by
desired signal power to undesired noise T0(F-1). In this expression, F is the noise
power.
figure of the system. T0 has the value 290 K.
a) Signal to noise ratio
b) Noise to signal ratio T0 is the standard temperature considered.
c) Noise figure
d) Noise temperature 4. Noise figure can be defined for any
microwave network irrespective of any other
Answer: a constraints.
Explanation: SNR is defined as the ratio of a) True
desired signal power to undesired noise b) False

Answer: b b) 7.6 dB
Explanation: Noise figure is defined only for c) 5.6 dB
a matched input source and for a noise source d) 8.9 dB
equivalent to a matched load at a temperature
T0= 290 K. noise figure and noise Answer: a
temperature are interchangeable noise Explanation: Noise figure of a two stage
properties. cascade network is given by F1+ (F2-1)/G1.
Here F1, F2 are the noise figure of the first
5. Expression for noise of a two port network and the second stage respectively. G1 is the
considering the noise due to transmission line
gain of the first stage. Substituting the given
and other lossy components is:
values in the above equation, noise figure of
a) GkTB + GNadded
the cascade is 8.6 dB.
b) GkTB
c) GNadded 8. Noise equivalent temperature of a 2 stage
d) None of the mentioned cascade network is given by:
a) Te1 + Te2/ G1
Answer: a b) Te1 + Te1
Explanation: Expression for noise of a two
c) Te1 / Te1
port network considering the noise due to
transmission line and other lossy components d) None of the mentioned
is GkTB + GNadded. Here, G is the gain of the
Answer: a
system. Nadded is the noise generated by the Explanation: Noise equivalent temperature
transmission line, as if it appeared at the input of a 2 stage cascade network is given by Te1
terminals of the line. + Te1/ G1. Here, Te1 is the noise equivalent
6. Noise equivalent temperature of a temperature of stage 1 and Te1 is the noise
transmission line that adds noise to the noise equivalent temperature of stage 2. G1 is the
of a device is: gain of the first stage of the amplifier.
a) T (L-1)
b) T (L+1) 9. When a network is matched to its external
c) T (L) circuitry, the gain of the two port network is
d) T/L given by:
a) │S21│2
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise equivalent temperature b) │S22│2
of a transmission line that adds noise to the c) │S12│2
noise of a device is given by T (L-1). Here L
is the loss factor of the line and T is the d) │S11│2
temperature at which the system is thermal
equilibrium. Answer: a
Explanation: The gain of a two port network
7. If the noise figures of the first stage of a is given by the product of SS21 of the
two stage cascade network is 8 dB and the network and reflection co-efficient at the
noise figure of the second stage is 7 dB and source end. But when the two port network is
the gain of the first stage is 10, then the noise matched to the external circuitry, reflection
figure of the cascade is:
a) 8. 6 dB

coefficient becomes zero and gain reduces to mismatched amplifier is given by 1+ (F-1)/ (1
│S21│2. -│Г│2). Here F is the noise figure of the
amplifier, when there is an impedance
10. For a Wilkinson power divider of mismatch at the input of the amplifier; this
insertion loss L and the coupler is matched to impedance mismatch is given by Г.
the external circuitry, and then the gain of the
coupler in terms of insertion loss is: TOPIC 5.7 MICROWAVE MIXER
a) 2L
b) 1/2L DESIGN
c) L
d) 1/L 1. One condition to be satisfied in an
oscillator circuit so that stable oscillations are
Answer: b produced is:
Explanation: To evaluate the noise figure of a) positive feedback is to be achieved
the coupler, third port is terminated with b) negative feedback is to be achieved
known impedance. Then the coupler becomes c) 1800 phase shift is required between the
a two port device. Since the coupler is transistor input and output.
matched, ГS=0 and Гout=S22=0. So the d) none of the mentioned
available gain is │S21│2. This is equal to
Answer: c
1/2L from the available data.
Explanation: In an oscillator a total of 3600
11. Noise equivalent temperature of of phase shift is to be achieved in the entire
Wilkinson coupler having a gain of 1/2L is circuit to produce oscillations. The transistor
given as: used in the oscillator circuit must produce a
a) T (2L-1) phase shift of 1800 to achieve stable
b) T (2L+1) oscillations. Hence this condition has to be
c) T (2L*1) satisfied by the oscillator.
d) T / (2L-1)
2. In an oscillator, the resonant feedback
Answer: a circuit must have must have a low Q in order
Explanation: Noise equivalent temperature to achieve stable oscillation.
of the Wilkinson coupler is found using the a) true
relation b) false
T (1-G21)/G21. Substituting for G21 in the
above expression, equivalent noise Answer: b
temperature is T (2L-1). Explanation: If the resonant feedback circuit
has a high Q, so that there is random phase
12. Expression for over all noise figure of a shift with frequency, the oscillator will have
mismatched amplifier is: good frequency stability.
a) 1+ (F-1)/ (1 -│Г│2)
3. Quartz crystals are more efficient as a
b) 1
feedback network because:
c) 1+ (F-1)
a) less circuit complexity
d) (F-1)/ (1 -│Г│2) b) cost effective
c) crystals operate at high voltage levels
Answer: a d) LC circuits have unloaded Q of a few
Explanation: The overall noise figure of a hundreds

Answer: d that the crystal is used in place of an inductor

Explanation: At frequencies below a few in a Colpitts or pierce oscillator.
hundred MHz, where LC resonators seldom
have unloaded Qs greater than a few hundred. 7. In the plot of reactance v/s frequency of a
Quartz crystals have unloaded Q of about crystal oscillator, the reactance between series
10000 and have a temperature drift of resonant frequency and parallel resonant
0.001%/C0. frequency is:
a) capacitive
4. Quartz crystal and tourmaline used in b) inductive
oscillators work on the principle of: c) both capacitive and inductive
a) photo electric effect d) none of the mentioned
b) piezo electric effect
c) Raman effect Answer: b
d) black body radiation Explanation: In the plot of reactance v/s
frequency of a crystal oscillator, the reactance
Answer: b between series resonant frequency and
Explanation: Quartz crystals work on the parallel resonant frequency is inductive. In
principle of piezo electric effect. When this region between the series and parallel and
electrical energy is applied to these crystals, series resonant frequencies, the operating
they vibrate in a direction perpendicular to point of the crystal is fixed and hence can be
the application of energy producing used as part of other circuits.
oscillations.
8. In the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal,
5. A quartz crystals equivalent circuit is a LCR arm has an inductance of 4 mH and
series LCR circuit and has a series resonant capacitor has a value of 4nF, then the series
frequency. resonant frequency of the oscillator is:
a) true a) 0.25 MHz
b) false b) 2.5 MHz
c) 25 MHz
Answer: b d) 5 MHz
Explanation: A quartz crystal has an
equivalent circuit such that a series LCR Answer: a
network is in parallel with a capacitor. A Explanation: The series resonant frequency
quartz crystal thus has both series and parallel of a crystal oscillator is given by 1/√LC.
resonant frequencies. Substituting the given values of L and C in
the expression, the series resonant frequency
6. Quartz crystal is used in the is 0.25 MHz.
_______region, where the operating point of
the crystal is fixed. 9. Parallel resonant frequency of quartz
a) resistive crystal is given by:
b) inductive reactance a) 1/ √(LCₒC/(Cₒ+C))
c) capacitive reactance b) 1/√LC
d) none of the mentioned c) 1/√LCₒ
d) 1/ √(L(Cₒ+C) )
Answer: b
Explanation: Quartz crystal is always Answer: a
operated in the inductive reactance region so Explanation: Parallel resonant frequency of
an oscillator is given by√(LCₒC/(Cₒ+C)).

Here L and C are the inductance and Answer: a

capacitance in the LCR arm of the equivalent Explanation: A positive resistance implies
circuit of the crystal. Co is the capacitance energy dissipation while a negative resistance
existing in parallel to this LCR arm. implies an energy source. The negative
resistance device used in the microwave
10. The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal oscillator, thus acts as a source. The condition
has LCR arm capacitance of 12nF and Xin+ XL=0 controls the frequency of
inductance of 3mH and parallel arm oscillation. Xin is the impedance of the
capacitance of 4nF. Parallel resonant
frequency for the circuit is: negative resistance device.
a) 3 MHz
3. In a microwave oscillator, a load of 50+50j
b) 0.3 MHz
is connected across a negative resistance
c) 6 MHz
device of impedance -50-50j. Steady state
d) 9 MHz
oscillation is not achieved in the oscillator.
a) True
Answer: a
b) False
Explanation: The parallel resonant frequency
of a crystal oscillator is given by 1/
Answer: b
√(LCₒC/(Cₒ+C)). Substituting the given
Explanation: The condition for steady state
values in the equation, the parallel resonant
oscillation in a microwave oscillator is Zin=-
frequency is found to be 3 MHz.
ZL. Since this condition is satisfied in the
above case, steady state oscillation is
TOPIC 5.8 MICROWAVE achieved.
OSCILLATOR DESIGN
4. For achieving steady state oscillation, the
1. In microwave oscillators, negative condition to be satisfied in terms of reflection
resistance transistors and diodes are used in coefficients is:
order to generate oscillations in the circuit. a) Гin=ГL
a) True b) Гin=-ГL
b) False c) Гin=1/ГL
Answer: a
Explanation: In microwave oscillator, for a Answer: c
current to flow in the circuit the negative Explanation: The condition for steady state
impedance of the device must be matched oscillation to be achieved in terms of
with positive impedance. This results in reflection coefficient is Гin=1/ГL. Here Гin is
current being non-zero and generates
oscillation. the reflection coefficient towards the
reflection coefficient device and ГL is the
2. Any device with negative impedance as its reflection coefficient towards the load.
characteristic property can be called:
a) Energy source 5. A one port oscillator uses a negative
b) Energy sink resistance diode having Гin=0.9575+j0.8034
c) Oscillator (Z0=50Ω) at its desired frequency point. Then
d) None of the mentioned the input impedance of the diode is:
a) -44+j123
b) 50+j100

c) -44+j145 8. In transistor oscillators, the requirement of

d) None of the mentioned a negative resistance device is satisfied using
a varactor diode.
Answer: a a) True
Explanation: The input impedance of the b) False
diode given reflection coefficient and
characteristic impedance is Z0 (1+Гin)/ (1- Answer: b
Гin). Substituting in the given equation, the Explanation: In a transistor oscillator, a
negative resistance one port network is
input impedance is -44 +j123 Ω.
created by terminating a potentially unstable
6. If the input impedance of a diode used in transistor with impedance designed to drive
the microwave oscillator is 45-j23 Ω, then the the device in an unstable region.
load impedance is to achieve stable
9. In transistor oscillators, FET and BJT are
oscillation is:
used. Instability is achieved by:
a) 45-j23 Ω
a) Giving a negative feedback
b) -45+j23 Ω
b) Giving a positive feedback
c) 50 Ω
c) Using a tank circuit
d) 23-j45 Ω
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition for stabilized
Explanation: Oscillators require a device that
oscillation is Zin=-ZL. According to this
has high instability. To achieve this condition,
equation, the load impedance required for transistors are used with a positive feedback
stabilized oscillation is – (45-j23) Ω. The load to increase instability.
impedance is thus -45+j23 Ω.
10. In a transistor amplifier, if the input
7. To achieve stable oscillation, Zin + ZL=0 is impedance is -84-j1.9 Ω, then the terminating
the only necessary and sufficient condition to impedance required to create enough
be satisfied by the microwave oscillator. instability is:
a) True a) -84-j1.9 Ω
b) False b) 28+j1.9 Ω
c) – (28+j1.9) Ω
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The condition Zin + ZL=0 is
only a necessary condition for stable Answer: b
oscillation and not sufficient. Stability Explanation: Relation between terminating
requires that any perturbation in current or impedance and input impedance is Zs=-Rin/3.
frequency is damped out, allowing the Zs is the terminating impedance. Substituting
oscillator to return to its original state. in the given equation, the terminated
impedance is 28+j1.9 Ω.

WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
ELECTRONICS IMPORTANT MCQ PDF-Antenna & Wave Propagation 1
a. 1 m – 10 m
b. 1 cm – 10 cm
c. 10 cm – 1 m
d. 0.1 cm – 1 cm
a. SONAR
c. Radio navigation
d. Facsimile
ANSWER: Facsimile
3) Wavefront is basically a locus of points acquiring similar _______
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. Wave equation
ANSWER: Phase
a. Sinusoidal
b. Rectangular
c. Square
d. Triangular
ANSWER: Sinusoidal
a. Solid bodies
d. All of the above
6) Power density is basically termed as ________ power per unit area
a. Reflected
b. Refracted
c. Radiated
d. Diffracted
ANSWER: Radiated
a. β x (λ/2)
b. β / (λ/2)
c. β + (λ/2)
d. β - (λ/2)
ANSWER: β x (λ/2)
recombination rate?
a. D-region
b. Normal E-region
d. Appleton region
ANSWER: D-region
a. 20 km – 50 km
b. 45 km – 85 km
c. 90 km – 130 km
d. 140 km – 200 km
10) F2 layer of appleton region acts as a significant reflecting medium for _____ frequency
radio waves
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. All of the above
ANSWER: High

c. Current density
d. Power density
12) According to Webster's dictionary, what is an antenna?
d. All of the above
a. Minor lobe
b. Side lobe
c. Back lobe
ANSWER: Back lobe

a. 0° & 180°
b. 90° & 180°
c. 180° & 270°
d. 180° & 360°
ANSWER: 0° & 180°
________
a. Induced
b. Radiated
c. Reflected
d. Far-field
ANSWER: Induced
19) Which operations are performed by vector potentials (A, F) over the radiated fields (E
& H)?
a. Addition
b. Subtraction
c. Differentiation
d. Integration
ANSWER: Differentiation
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Frequency
d. Phase
ANSWER: Current
wavelength?
a. l ≤ (λ /50)
b. (λ/50 ) < l ≤ (λ /10)
c. l = λ/2
22) In flared transmission line, the radiation phenomenon increases due to ________ in
flaring
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stability
ANSWER: Increase
a. Field Pattern
b. Voltage Pattern
c. Power Pattern
d. All of the above
24) In an electrically small loops, the overall length of the loop is ______ one-tenth of a
wavelength.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
ANSWER: Less than
a. Shape
b. Area
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Area
26) From the radiation point of view, small loops are _________radiators
a. Poor
b. Good
c. Better
d. Excellent
ANSWER: Poor
27) According to the directivity of a small loop, which value of 'θ' contributes to achieve
a. 0°
b. 90°
c. 180°
d. 270°
ANSWER: 90°
a. Linear
b. Planer
c. Conformal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Conformal
a. Spherical
b. Dough-nut
c. Elliptical
d. Hyperbolic
ANSWER: Spherica
_______excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum radiation.
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Voltage
ANSWER: Phase
a. α < βd
b. α > βd
c. α = ±βd
d. α ≠ ±βd
ANSWER: α = ±βd
a. Ionospheric
b. Ground wave
c. Tropospheric
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Ionospheric
a. VHF
b. SHF
c. UHF
d. All of the above
it?
a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Series
c. Both a and b

a. 17%
b. 27%
c. 37%
d. 57%
ANSWER: 37%
2) Linear polarization can be obtained only if the wave consists of ________
a. Ex
b. Ey

d. All of the above
4) For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less is the __________
a. Attenuation
b. Phase velocity
d. Tilt angle
ANSWER: Attenuation
A. Permittivity
B. Conductivity
C. Resistivity
D. Reflectivity
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: A & B
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Diagonal
d. Opposite
ANSWER: Vertical
atmosphere?
a. Depression layer
b. Regression layer
c. Inversion layer
d. Invasion layer

8) If the maximum electron density for F-layer in ionosphere is 4 x 106 electrons/cm3, then
what will be the critical frequency of EM wave for F-layer?
a. 4 MHz
b. 9 MHz
c. 18 MHz
d. 25 MHz
ANSWER: 18 MHz
9) According to Secant law, which frequency is greater than critical frequency by a factor
of secθi?
a. MUF
b. LUF
c. OWF
d. UHF
ANSWER: MUF

a. A & C
b. B & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: A & C
a. Convergent
b. Divergent
c. Contingent
d. Congruent
ANSWER: Divergent
a. Radiator
b. Converter
c. Sensor
d. Inverter
ANSWER: Sensor

a. Spherical
b. Plane
c. Triangular
d. Square
ANSWER: Spherical
A. Ampere's law
B. Faraday's law
C. Gauss's law
D. Kirchoff's law
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. B & D
ANSWER: A & B
resistance?
a. 22.22 ohm
b. 27.77 ohm
c. 33.33 ohm
d. 39.77 ohm
ANSWER: 27.77 ohm
to unity?
a. Perpendicular
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

18) Self impedance of an antenna is basically __________
c. Both a and b

a. e-jkr
b. ejkr
c. e-jk/r
d. e(jk + r)
ANSWER: e-jkr
20) Which among the below mentioned magnetic quantities is/are dependent on
media/medium?
a. B
b. H
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: B
expression of magnetic field intensity especially for ______
a. Real fields
b. Imaginary fields
c. Complex fields
22) If J & M are active at the same time, which principle theorem is used for field
estimation?
a. Reciprocity
b. Superposition
c. Causality
d. Relativity
ANSWER: Superposition
23) A dipole carries r.m.s. current of about 300A across the radiation resistance 2 Ω.
a. 90 kW
b. 135 kW
c. 180 kW
d. 200 kW
ANSWER: 180 kW
analysis?
c. Both a and b


a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: A & B
26) In an electrically large loop, an overall length of the loop is equal to ______
a. λ/2
b. λ
c. λ/10
d. λ/50
ANSWER: λ
a. Inductive
b. Capacitive
c. Resistive
ANSWER: Resistive
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
ANSWER: 4
a. Normal
b. Axial
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Normal
a. 0.0149 m2
b. 0.0475 m2
c. 0.5521 m2
d. 0.9732 m2
ANSWER: 0.0149 m2
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
d. All of the above
media?
a. Maxwell's
b. Lorentz
c. Helmholtz
d. Poisson's
ANSWER: Helmholtz
x 106 t – 6x) az mA/m , what will be the wave velocity?
a. 1.047 x 106 m/s
b. 1.257 x 106 m/s
c. 2.50 x 106 m/s
d. 3 x 106 m/s
ANSWER: 1.047 x 106 m/s
4) In an electrical circuit,which nature of impedance causes the current & voltages in

phase?
a. Reactive
b. Resistive
c. Capacitive
d. Inductive
ANSWER: Resistive
a. Surface wave
b. Space wave
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: Space wave

b. Refraction
c. Defraction
d. All of the above
d. All of the above

8) According to Snell's law in optics, if a ray travels from dense media to rarer media,
a. Towards
b. Away
c. Across
d. Beside
ANSWER: Away

ionospheric region?
a. Only Reflection
b. Only Refraction
a. Ions
a. Linear
b. Loop
c. Helical
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Linear
applications?
a. Aperture
b. Microstrip
c. Array
d. Lens
ANSWER: Microstrip
c. Both a and b
b. Fresnel region
d. All of the above
15) Sterdian is a measurement unit of __________

a. Point angle
b. Linear angle
c. Plane angle
d. Solid angle
ANSWER: Solid angle
a. π/2
b. π
c. 2π
d. 4π
ANSWER: 4π
17) The vector magnetic potential shows the inverse relationship with its ____
a. Source
c. Both a and b
equations?
a. R + c
b. R - c
c. R/c
d. R x c
ANSWER: R/c
a. Inward
b. Outward
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Outward
effective area?
a. 0.032 m2
b. 0.047 m2
c. 0.65 m2
d. 0.99 m2
ANSWER: 0.032 m2
with respect to _____point
a. Initial
b. Eventual
c. Mid
ANSWER: Mid
element?
a. 1/ r
b. 1/ r2
c. 1/ r3
d. 1/ r4
ANSWER: 1/ r2
a. Spherical
b. Rectangular
c. Triangular
d. Square
ANSWER: Triangular
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Resistor
d. Gyrator
ANSWER: Capacitor
a. 0.7883 Ω
b. 50.45 Ω
c. 123.17 Ω
d. 190.01 Ω
ANSWER: 123.17 Ω
a. Along x-axis
b. Along y-axis
c. Along z-axis
d. Along xy plane
a. 6.53 dB
b. 7.99 dB
c. 8.55 dB
d. 9.02 dB
ANSWER: 6.53 dB
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
ANSWER: 8
level (SLL)?
a. Widest
b. Narrowest
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Narrowest
region of an array?
b. Active region
d. All of the above
one wire?
a. Apex angle
b. Tilt angle
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: Tilt angle

c. Both a and b
a. Plane
b. Elliptical
c. Circular
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Circular
1
GATE Problems in Antenna

and Wave Propogation
1) A medium wave radio transmitter operating at

Column A Column B
a wavelength of 492 m has a tower antenna of
1.Point electromagnetic source P.Highly directional
height 124m. What is the radiation resistance 2.Dish antenna Q.End fire
of the antenna? 3.Yagi-Uda antenna R.Isotropic
(A) 25 Ω (B) 36.5 Ω(C) 50 Ω (D) 73 Ω

(A) 1 → P (C) 1 → Q
2→Q 2→P
2) In a uniform linear array, four isotropic radiat-
λ 3→R 3→R
ing elements are spaced apart. The progres-
4
sive phase shift between the elements required
for forming the main beam at 60◦ off the end-
fire is (B) 1 → R (D) 1 → R
2→P 2→Q
π 3→Q 3→P
(A) −π radians (C) − radians
4
π
(B) − radians π
2 (D) − radians 7) In spherical coordinates, let âθ , âφ denote unit
8
vectors along the θ, φ directions.
3) For a Hertz dipole antenna, the Half Power
Beam Width (HPBW) in the E-plane is 100
E= sin θ cos(ωt − βr)âθ V/m
r
(A) 360◦ (B) 180◦ (C) 90◦ (D) 45◦
4) At 20 GHz, the gain of a parabolic dish antenna and

of 1 meter diameter and 70% efficiency is
(A) 15 dB (B) 25 dB (C) 35 dB (D) 45 dB 0.265

H= sin θ cos(ωt − βr)âθ A/m
r
5) For an antenna radiating in free space, the

electric field at a distance of 1 km is found to represent the electric and magnetic field com-
be 12 mV/m. Given that intrinsic impedance ponents of the EM wave at large distance
of the free space is 120πΩ, the magnitude of r from a dipole antenna, in free space. The
average power density due to this antenna at a average power (W) crossing the hemispherical
distance of 2 km from the antenna (in nW/m2 ) shell located at r = 1km, 0 6 θ 6 π2 is .........
is .......
8) The directivity of an antenna array can be

6) Match Column A with Column B. increased by adding more antenna elements, as
a larger number of elements
2
(A) improves the radiation efficiency
(B) increases the effective area of the antenna
(C) results in a better impedance matching
Fig. 1.
(D) allows more power to transmitted by the

antenna
9) An antenna pointing in a certain direction ~ average ≈ âr C0 1 cos 4 θ

~ rad = W
W
has a noise temperature of 50K. The ambient r2
temperature is 290K. The antenna is connected
to a pre-amplifier that has a noise figure of 2dB
and an available gain of 40dB over an effective
bandwidth of 12MHz. The effective input noise The radiated power density is symmetrical
temperature Te for the amplifier and the noise with respect to φ and exists only in the upper
power Pao at the output of the preamplifier, hemisphere: 0 6 θ 6 π2 ; 0 6 φ 6 2π; C0 is a
respectively, are constant. The power radiated by the antenna
(in watts) and the maximum directivity of the
(A) Te = 169.36K, (C) Te = 182.5K antenna, respectively, are
Pao = 3.73 × 10 −10
W Pao = 3.85 × 10−10 W
(B) Te = 170.8K, (D) Te = 160.62K (A) 1.5C0 , 10dB (C) 1.256C0 , 12dB
Pao = 4.56 × 10 −10
W Pao = 4.6 × 10−10 W
(B) 1.256C0 , 10dB (D) 1.5C0 , 12dB

10) Two lossless X-band horn antennas are sep-
arated by a distance of 200λ. The amplitude
reflection coefficients at the terminals of the 12) Two half-wave dipole antennas placed
transmitting and receiving antennas are 0.15 as shown in the figure are excited with
and 0.18, respectively. the maximum directiv- sinusoidally varying currents of frequency
ities of the transmitting and receiving anten- 3MHZ and phase shift of π2 between them
nas (over the isotropic antenna) are 18dB and (the element at the origin leads in phase). If
22dB, respectively. Assuming that the input the maximum radiated E-field at the point P
power in the lossless transmission line con- in the x-y plane occurs at an azimuthal angle
nected to the antenna is 2W, and that the of 60◦ , the distance d(in meters) between the
antennas are perfectly aligned and polarization antennas is .......
matched, the power (in mW) delivered to the
load at the receiver is.........
13) The electric field of a plane wave propogating
11) The far-zone power density radiated by a in a lossless non-magnetic medium is given
helical antenna is approximated as: by the following expression
3
(A) θ = 90◦ , φ = 45◦ (C) θ = 90◦ , φ = 135◦
E(z, t) = ax 5 cos(2π × 109 t + βz)

9 π (B) θ = 45◦ , φ = 90◦ (D) θ = 45◦ , φ = 135◦
+ ay 3 cos(2π × 10 t + βz − )
2
The type of the polarization is 17) A parabolic dish antenna has a conical beam
2◦ wide, the directivity of the antenna is ap-
(A) Right Hand Circular (C) Right Hand Elliptical
proximately
(B) Left Hand Elliptical (D) Linear (A) 20 dB (B) 30 dB (C) 40 dB (D) 50 dB
14) The electric field intensity of a plane wave trav- 18) The vector H in the far field of an antenna
elling in free space is given by the following satisfies
expression ~ = 0, ~ = 0,
(A) ∇.H (C) ∇.H
E(x, t) = ay 24π cos(ωt − k0 x)(V/m) ∇×H~ =0 ∇×H~ 6= 0
In this field, consider a square area 10cm
× 10cm on a plane x+y=1. The total time- ~ = ~ =
(B) ∇.H 6 0, (D) ∇.H 6 0,
averaged power (in mW) passing through the
square area is ........ ∇×H~ =6 0 ∇×H~ =0
15) Consider a wireless communication link be- 19) The radiation resistance of a circular loop of
tween a transmitter and a receiver located in one turn is 0.01Ω. The radiation resistance of
free space, with finite and strictly positive five turns of such a loop will be
capacity. If the effective areas of the transmitter
and the receiver antennas, and the distance be- (A) 0.002Ω (C) 0.05Ω
tween them are all doubled, and everything else
remains unchanged, the maximum capacity of (B) 0.01Ω (D) 0.25Ω
the wireless link
(A) increases by a factor of 2
20) An antenna in free space receives 2µW of
(B) decreases by a factor of 2 power when the incident electric field is
20mV/m rms. The effective aperture of the
(C) remains unchanged antenna is
√
(D) decreases by a factor of 2 (A) 0.0005m2 (C) 1.885m2
16) A half wavelength dipole is kept in the x-y (B) 0.05m2 (D) 3.77m2
plane and oriented along 45◦ from the x-axis.
Determine the direction of null in the radiation
pattern for 0 6 φ 6 π. Here the angle θ(0 6 21) The frequency range for satellite communica-
θ 6 π) is measured from the z-axis, and the tion is
angle φ(0 6 φ 6 2π) is measured from the
x-axis in the x-y plane. (A) 1kHz to 100kHz (C) 10MHz to 30MHz
(B) 100kHz to 10kHz (D) 1GHz to 30GHz

4
22) If the diameter of λ2 dipole antenna is increased

λ λ
from 100 to 50 , then its
(A) bandwidth increases (C) gain increases
(B) bandwidth decreases (D) gain decreases
23) For an 8 feet (2.4m) parabolic disk antenna

operating at 4 GHz, the minimum distance
required for far field measurement is closest
to
(A) 7.5 cm (C) 15 m

Fig. 2.
(B) 15 cm (D) 150 m
(A) 10 Watts (C) 0.1 Watt
π
24) Two identical antennas are placed in the θ = 2
plane as shown in Fig. 2. The elements have
equal amplitude excitation with 180◦ polarity (B) 1 Watt (D) 0.01 Watt
difference, operating at wavelength λ. The cor-
rect value of the magnitude of the far-zone 27) A mast antenna consisting of a 50 meter long
resultant electric field strength normalized with vertical conductor operates over a perfectly
that of a single element, both computed for conducting ground plane. It is base-fed at a
φ = 0, is frequency of 600 kHz. The radiation resistance
of the antenna in Ohms is:

2πs πs
(A) 2 cos (C) 2 cos
λ λ 2π 2 4π 2
(A) (C)
5 5

2πs πs
(B) 2 sin (D) 2 sin
λ λ π2 (D) 20π 2
(B)
5
25) Consider a lossless antenna with a directive 28) The radiation pattern of an antenna in spherical
gain of +6db. If 1mW of power is fed to it co-ordinates is given by
the total power radiated by the antenna will be
π
1 F (θ) = cos4 θ; 0 6 θ 6
(A) 4mW (B) 1mW (C) 7mW (D) mW 2
4
The directivity of the antenna is
26) A transmission line is feeding 1 Watt of power (A) 10dB (C) 11.5dB
to a horn antenna having a gain of 10dB. The
antenna is matched to the transmission line.
The total power radiated by the horn antenna (B) 12.6dB (D) 18dB
into the free-space is:
29) A radio wave is incident on a layer of iono-
spher at an angle of 30 degree with the verti-
5
cal. If the critical frequency is 1.2 MHz, the (A) is more effective (C) is the same
maximum usable frequency is
(A) 1.2 MHz (C) 0.6 MHz (B) is less directive (D) exhibits no directiv-
ity at all
(B) 2.4 MHz (D) 1.386 MHz

34) A transverse electromagnetic wave with circu-
lar polarization is received by a dipole antenna.
30) In a broad side array of 20 isotropic radiators, Due to polarization mismatch, the power trans-
λ fer efficiency from the wave to the antenna is
equally spaced at a distance of , the beam
2 reduced to about
width between first nulls is
(A) 51.3 degrees (C) 22.9 degrees (A) 50% (B) 35.3% (C) 25% (D) 0%
(B) 11.46 degrees (D) 102.6 degrees 35) A 1km long microwave link uses two antennas
each having 30dB gain. If the power transmit-
ted by one antenna is 1W at 3GHz, the power
31) The beam width between first null of uniform received by the other antenna is approximately
linear array of N equally spaced (element spac-
ing = d), equally excited antennas is deter- (A) 98.6µW (C) 63.4µW
mined by

N
(A) N alone and not by d (C) the ratio, (B) 76.8µW (D) 55.2µW
d
(B) a alone and not by N (D) the product, (Nd) 36) A transmittin antenna radiates 251W isotropi-
cally. A receiving antenna, located 100m away
from the transmitting antenna, has an effective
32) For a dipole antenna aperture of 500cm2 . The total received by the
(A) the radiation intensity is maximum along antenna is
the normal to the dipole axis
(A) 10µW (C) 20µW
(B) the current distribution along its length is
uniform irrespective of the length (B) 1µW (D) 100µW
(C) the effective length equals its physical 37) A person with areceiver is 5km away from
length the transmitter. What is the distance that this
person must move further to detect a 3-dB
decrease in signal strength?
(D) the input impedance is independent of the
location of the feed-point
(A) 942m (C) 4978m
33) An antenna, when radiating, has a highly di-

(B) 2070m (D) 5320m
rectional radiation pattern, when the antenna is
receiving, its radiation pattern
38) The line-of-sight communication requires the
transmit and receive antennas to face each
6
other. If the transmit antenna is vertically po-

larized, for best reception the receive antenna
should be
a) horizontally polarized
b) vertically polarized
c) at 45◦ with respect to horizontal polarization.

Fig. 3.
d) at 45◦ with respect to vertical polarization.

elements.Also calculate the angle at which the
main beam is placed for this distribution.
39) Two dipoles are so feed and oriented in
free space that they produce the following
electromagnetic waves:

zπ
f ωt−
E = 10e 3 volts/metre
x

zπ
f ωt−
Ex = j10e 3 volts/metre
(A) Write down the expression for the corre-

sponding magnectic field strength vector.
(B) Calculate the frequency of the wave.
(C) Given the complete description of the po-

larization of the wave.
40) Elements of a linear array of three equally

spaced (element spacing = 0.5λ) vertical mast
radiators, are excited as given in Fig. 3. For the
horizontal plane radiation pattern of the array,
determine the direction of the major lobe (main
lobe or principal lobe), and calculate its half-
power beam width in degrees.
41) In the radiation pattern of a 3-element array

λ
of isotropic equally spaced at distances of it
4
is required to place a null at an angle of 33.56
degrees off the end-fire direction. Calculate the
progressive phase shifts to be applied to the
Antennas
1. For a dipole antenna
(a) The radiation intensity is maximum along the normal to the dipole
axis
(b) The current distribution along its length is uniform irrespective of the
length
(c) The effective length equals its physical length
(d) The input impedance is independent of the location of the feed – point
[GATE 1994: 1 Mark]
Soln. A dipole antenna is a linear antenna, usually fed in the center and
producing maximum of radiation in the plane normal to the axis.
It is said to be short dipole when length is less than 𝝀⁄𝟒 and current
distribution is sinusoidal.
Radiation intensity is maximum along the normal to the dipole axis.
Option (a)
2. An antenna when radiating, has a highly directional radiation pattern.

When the antenna is receiving its radiation pattern
(a) Is more directive (c) Is the same
(b) Is less directive (d) Exhibits no directivity all
[GATE 1998: 1 Mark]
Soln. An antenna is a reciprocal device, whose characteristics are same
when it is transmitting or receiving.
Thus, an antenna when radiating has a highly directive radiation
pattern, the receiving antenna will also have the same pattern.
Option (c)
3. The vector 𝐻⃗ in the far field of an antenna satisfies

⃗ = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∇ × 𝐻
(a) ∇. 𝐻 ⃗ =0 ⃗ = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∇ × 𝐻
(c) ∇. 𝐻 ⃗ ≠0
⃗ ≠ 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∇ × 𝐻
(b) ∇. 𝐻 ⃗ ≠0 ⃗ ≠ 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∇ × 𝐻
(d) ∇. 𝐻 ⃗ =0
[GATE 1998: 1 Mark]
Soln. 𝛁. ⃗𝑯
⃗⃗ = 𝟎,
Since, lines of magnetic flux are continuous (closed loops)
𝛁 × ⃗𝑯
⃗⃗ = 𝑱𝑪 + 𝑱𝑫
𝑱𝑪 − 𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐝𝐮𝐜𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 𝐜𝐮𝐫𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐭
𝑱𝑫 − 𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐩𝐥𝐚𝐜𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭 𝐜𝐮𝐫𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐭
𝑱𝑫 = 𝟎
⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑱𝑪 i.e. Non Zero
𝛁×𝑯
Thus Option (c)
4. The radiation resistance of a circular loop of one turn is 0.01Ω. The

radiation resistance of five turns of such a loop will be
(a) 0.002 Ω (c) 0.05 Ω
(b) 0.01 Ω (d) 0.25 Ω
[GATE 1998: 1 Mark]
Soln. Radiation resistance of loop antenna is given by
𝜼𝑨 𝟐
𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅 = 𝟑𝟏, 𝟐𝟎𝟎 [ 𝟐 ]
𝝀
Where,
𝜼 − 𝐍𝐮𝐦𝐛𝐞𝐫 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐮𝐫𝐧𝐬
𝑨 − Area of loop
𝝀 − Operating wavelength
𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅 ∝ 𝜼𝟐
For,
1 turn loop, 𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝛀
Thus,
For 5 turn loop
𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅 = 𝟓𝟐 (𝟎. 𝟎𝟏)
= 0.25 Ω
Option (d)
5. An antenna in free space receives 2𝜇 𝑊 of power when the incident
electric field is 20 mV/m rms. The effective aperture of the antenna is
(a) 0.005 𝑚2 (c) 1.885 𝑚2
(b) 0.05 𝑚2 (d) 3.77 𝑚2
[GATE 1998: 1 Mark]
Soln. RMS value of incident Electric field (𝑬) = 𝟐𝟎 𝒎𝑽/𝒎
𝑬𝟐
Power density (𝑷𝒅 ) =
𝜼
𝟐
(𝟐𝟎×𝟏𝟎−𝟑 )
= = 𝟏. 𝟎𝟔𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔 𝒘⁄𝒎𝟐
𝟏𝟐𝟎 𝝅
Received power (𝑷𝒅 ) = 𝟐𝝁𝑾 = 𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔 𝑾

𝑷𝒓
Effective Aperture (𝑨𝑪 ) =
𝑷𝒅
𝟐×𝟏𝟎−𝟔
= = 𝟏. 𝟖𝟖𝟓𝒎𝟐
𝟏.𝟎𝟔×𝟏𝟎−𝟔
Option (c)
6. The far field of an antenna varies with distance r as

(a) 1/r (c) 1/r3
(b) 1/r2 (d) 1/√𝑟
[GATE 1998: 1 Mark]

Soln. The fields around the antenna may be divided into
(i) Near field (Fresnel Field)
(ii) Far field (Fraunhofer field)
Near field varies with distance
as 𝟏⁄
𝒓𝟐
Far field varies with distance
as 𝟏⁄
𝒓
Option (a)
7. If the diameter of a 𝜆/2 dipole antenna is increased from 𝜆/100 to 𝜆/50
then its
(a) Bandwidth increases (c) Gain increases
(b) Bandwidth decreases (d) Gain decreases
[GATE 2000: 1 Mark]
Soln. 𝝀/𝟐 dipole is a resonant (narrow band) antenna.
Gain of the antenna is directly proportional to efficiency.
𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅
Radiation efficiency (𝜼) =𝑹
𝒓𝒂𝒅 +𝑹𝑳
Where
𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅 – Radiation resistance
RL - Loss resistance
As the diameter of the dipole antenna increases (area of wire
increases) the loss resistance which is proportional to 𝟏/𝑨𝒓𝒆𝒂
decreases
Thus efficiency increases
Hence gain increases
Option (c)
8. The line – of – sight communication requires the transmit and receive

antennas to face each other. If the transmit antenna is vertically polarized
for best reception the receiver antenna should be
(a) Horizontally polarized
(b) Vertically polarized
(c) At 450 with respect to horizontal polarization
(d) At 450 with respect to vertical polarization
[GATE 2002: 1 Mark]
Soln. In line of sight (LOS) communication transmit and receive antennas
face each other and should have same polarization.
When transmitting antenna is vertically polarized, then receiving
antenna should also be vertically polarized
Option (b)
9. Consider a lossless antenna with a directive gain of +6 dB. If 1 mW of
power is fed to it the total power radiated by the antenna will be
(a) 4 mW (c) 7 mW
(b) 1 mW (d) 1/4 mW
[GATE 2004: 1 Mark]
Soln. Lossless antenna with directive gain of +6dB = 4 (In linear)
Input power to antenna = 1 mW
Power radiated by antenna = 4 mW
𝑹𝒂𝒅𝒊𝒂𝒕𝒆𝒅 𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓
Directive gain = =𝟒
𝑨𝒏𝒕𝒆𝒏𝒏𝒂 𝑭𝒆𝒆𝒅 𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓
Thus,
Radiated power 𝟒 × 𝟏 𝒎𝑾 = 𝟒 𝒎𝑾
Option (a)
10. A transmission line is feeding 1 Watt of power to a horn antenna having

a gain of 10 dB. The antenna is matched to the transmission line. The
total power radiated by the horn antenna into the free – space is
(a) 10 Watts (c) 0.1 Watt
(b) 1 Watt (d) 0.0 Watt
[GATE 2008: 1 Mark]
Soln. Power input to horn antenna = 1 W
Gain of antenna = 10 dB = 10 (Linear)
Power radiated = 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟏 = 𝟏𝟎 𝒘𝒂𝒕𝒕𝒔
Option (a)
11. For a Hertz dipole antenna, the half power beam width (HPBW) in the E
– plane is
(a) 3600 (c) 900
(b) 1800 (d) 450
[GATE 2008: 1 Mark]
Soln. Hertzian dipole is a short linear antenna, which is assumed to carry
constant current along its length.
The E0, field component is
𝑬𝜽 ∝ 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝜽
Then half power beam width (HPBW) in E- plane is as shown in Fig.
𝟏 𝜽 = 𝟗𝟎𝟎 𝟏
𝑬= 𝒂𝒕 𝜽 = 𝟏𝟑𝟓𝟎 𝑬= 𝒂𝒕 𝜽 = 𝟒𝟓𝟎
√𝟐 √𝟐
HPBW
𝜽 = 𝟏𝟖𝟎𝟎 𝜽 = 𝟎𝟎
So half power beam width is 900
12. The radiation pattern of an antenna in spherical co – ordinates is given by

𝐹(𝜃) = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝜃 ; 0 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 𝜋/2
The directivity of the antenna is
(a) 10 dB (c) 11.5 dB
(b) 12.6 dB (d) 18 dB
[GATE 2012: 1 Mark]
Soln. Given,
Radiation Pattern
𝑭(𝜽) = 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟒 𝜽 ; 𝟎 ≤ 𝜽 ≤ 𝝅⁄𝟐
Spherical coordinate system
Radiation intensity 𝑼 𝜶[𝑭(𝜽)]𝟐
= 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟖 𝜽(𝒔𝒂𝒚)
𝑼𝒎𝒂𝒙 = 𝟏
Average power radiated
𝝅⁄𝟐 𝟐𝝅
𝑾𝒓𝒂𝒅 = ∫ ∫ 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟖 𝜽 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝜽 𝒅𝜽 𝒅𝝓

𝟎 𝟎
𝟏
= ( ) 𝟐𝝅 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟗𝟕
𝟗
𝑼𝒎𝒂𝒙
𝑫𝒊𝒓𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒗𝒊𝒔𝒕𝒚 (𝑫) = 𝟒𝝅
𝑾𝒓𝒂𝒅
𝟏
𝑫 = 𝟒𝝅 . = 𝟏𝟖. 𝟎𝟐
𝟎. 𝟔𝟗𝟕
𝑫𝒊𝒓𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒗𝒊𝒕𝒚 𝒊𝒔 𝐝𝐁𝐬 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐥𝐨𝐠 𝟏𝟎 (𝟏𝟖. 𝟎𝟐) = 𝟏𝟐. 𝟓𝟓 𝒅𝑩
Option (b)
13. For an antenna radiating in free space, the electric field at a distance of 1
km is found to be 12 mV/m. Given that intrinsic impedance of the free
space is 120 πΩ, the magnitude of average power density due to this
antenna at a distance of 2 km from the antenna (in nW/m2) is _______.
[GATE 2014: 1 Mark]
Soln. Given,
Electric field E at a distance of
𝟏 𝑲𝒎 = 𝟏𝟐𝒎𝑽/𝒎
Also, we know that
𝟏
𝑬∝
𝒓
Where r is the distance where E is measured so, electric field E at a

distance of 2 Km
𝟏𝟐 𝒎 𝒗/𝒎
= = 𝟔 𝒎 𝒗/𝒎
𝟐
Also, power density due to antenna is given as
𝟏 𝑬𝟐
𝑷𝒂𝒗𝒈 =
𝟐 𝜼
𝟏 𝟔 × 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔
= .
𝟐 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝝅
= 𝟒𝟕. 𝟕 𝒏𝑾/𝒎𝟐
Answer = 𝟒𝟕. 𝟕 𝒏𝑾/𝒎𝟐
14. Match column A with column B.
Column A
1. Point electromagnetic source
2. Dish antenna
3. Yagi – Uda antenna
Column B
P. Highly directional
Q. End fire
R. Isotropic
1 2 3
(a) P Q R
(b) R P Q
(c) Q P R
(d) R Q P
[GATE 2014: 1 Mark]
Soln. 1. Point electromagnetic source radiates is all directions.
2. Dish Antenna radiates Electromagnetic Energy in any
particular direction with narrow beam width and high directivity.
3. Yagi Uda antenna is a high bandwidth antenna used for TV
reception
Option (b)
15. The directivity of an antenna array can be increased by adding more

antenna elements, as a larger number of elements
(a) Improves the radiation efficiency
(b) Increases the effective area of the antenna
(c) Results in a better impedance matching
(d) Allow more power to be transmitted by the antenna
[GATE 2015: 1 Mark]
Soln. Directivity of antenna increases by adding more antenna elements in
an antenna array.
Effective area (Ae) and Directivity are related by
𝝀𝟐
𝑨𝒆 = .𝑫
𝟒𝝅
Thus, as D increases effective aperture also increases.
Two Marks Questions

1. The electric field E and the magnetic field H of a short dipole antenna
satisfy the condition
(a) The r component of E is equal to zero
(b) Both r and 𝜃 components of H are equal to zero
(c) The 𝜃 component of E dominates the r component in the far – field
region
(d) The 𝜃 and ∅ components of H are of the same order of magnitude in
the near – field region
[GATE 1988: 2 Marks]
Soln. There are six components of electromagnetic field possible for short
dipole.
𝑯𝒓 , 𝑯𝜽 , 𝑯𝝓 , 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑬𝒓 , 𝑬𝜽 , 𝑬𝝓
Out of these six components only following three components exist
𝑬𝒓 , 𝑬𝜽 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑯∅ and other components are zero.
Thus, option (b) is correct
Also, option (c) is true.
2. Two isotropic antennas are separated by a distance of two wavelengths. If

both the antennas are fed with currents of equal phase and magnitude, the
number of lobes in the radiation pattern in the horizontal plane are
(a) 2 (c) 6
(b) 4 (d) 8
Soln. Figure shows two isotropic antennas separated by 2λ
𝟐𝝀
𝑰𝟎 𝑰𝟎
Current in both antennas is I0

𝒅 = 𝟐𝝀 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝜶 = 𝟎
𝚿 = 𝜶 + 𝜷𝒅. 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽
𝑺𝒐, 𝚿 = 𝟎 + 𝜷𝒅. 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽
𝟐𝝅
= . 𝟐𝝀. 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 = 𝟒𝝅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽
𝝀
𝚿
𝟐 𝒄𝒐𝒔 ( ) = 𝟐 𝒄𝒐𝒔(𝟐𝝅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽)
𝟐
𝜽 Varies from 0 to 2π
𝝅 𝝅 𝟐𝝅 𝟒𝝅 𝟑𝝅 𝟓𝝅
Maximum at 𝜽 = 𝟎, , , , 𝝅, , ,
𝟑 𝟐 𝟑 𝟑 𝟐 𝟑
So, the number of lobes in the radiation pattern in the horizontal
plane = 8
Option (d)
3. In a broad side array of 20 isotropic radiators, equally spaced at a distance

of 𝜆⁄2, the beam width between first nulls is
(a) 51.3 degrees (c) 22.9 degrees
(b) 11.46 degrees (d) 102.6 degrees
Soln. The array is broad side
With n= 𝟐𝟎 Isotropic radiators
Beam width between first nulls (BWFN)
𝟐ℷ
= Radians
𝒏.𝒅
𝟐𝝀 𝟏𝟖𝟎
= . Degrees
𝟐𝟎 . 𝝀⁄𝟐 𝝅
𝟑𝟔
= = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟒𝟔𝟎
𝝅
Option (b)
4. Two dissimilar antennas having their maximum directivities equal

(a) Must have their beam widths also equal
(b) Cannot have their beam widths equal because they are dissimilar
antennas
(c) May not necessarily have their maximum power gains equal
(d) Must have their effective aperture areas (capture areas) also equal
Soln. Antenna efficiency is defined as
𝑹𝒂𝒅𝒊𝒂𝒕𝒆𝒅 𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓 𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅

𝜼= =
𝑰𝒏𝒑𝒖𝒕 𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓 𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅 + 𝑹𝒍𝒐𝒔𝒔
Efficiency is also given as
𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓 𝒈𝒂𝒊𝒏 𝒈𝒑
𝜼= =
𝑫𝒊𝒓𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒗𝒆 𝒈𝒂𝒊𝒏 𝒈𝒅
Radiation resistance of two antennas may be different hence
efficiency may not be same. This indicates power gains may not be
same.
Thus, Option (c)
5. The beam width – between – first – nulls of a uniform linear array of N

equally – spaced (element spacing = d) equally – excited antennas is
determined by
(a) N alone and not by d (c) The ratio (N/d)
(b) D alone and not by N (d) The product (Nd)
Soln. A uniform linear array can be Broadside array or End fire array.
Broadside array is an array of elements for which radiation is max or
main lobe occurs perpendicular to the axis of the array.
End fire array is an array of elements for which main beam occurs
along the axis of array.
For broadside array
𝟐𝝀
Null to Null beam width =
𝑵.𝒅
𝟐𝝀
For End fire array = 𝟐√
𝑵𝒅
Where N = No. of antennas in the array

d = spacing between elements
Beam width for both the arrays is determined by the product
N.d Thus, option (d)
6. A transverse electromagnetic wave with circular polarization is received

by a dipole antenna. Due to polarization mismatch, the power transfer
efficiency from the wave to the antenna is reduced to about
(a) 50% (c) 25%
(b) 35.3% (d) 0%
Soln. Given,
A TEM wave has circular polarization. It is received by a dipole
antenna, which is linearly polarized.
There will not be any mismatch and the wave will be received
Option (d)
7. A 1 km long microwave link uses two antennas each having 30dB gain. If
the power transmitted by one antenna is 1 W at 3 GHz, the power
received by the other antenna is approximately
(a) 98.6 µ W (c) 63.4 µ W
(b) 76.8 µ W (d) 55.2 µ W
Soln. Given,
Link distance (𝑹) = 𝟏𝑲𝒎 = 𝟏𝟎𝟑 𝒎
Antenna gain (𝑮𝒕 ) = 𝟑𝟎 𝒅𝑩 = 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝑮𝒓
Power transmitted (𝑷𝒕 ) = 𝟏𝑾
Frequency = 3 GHz
Wavelength = 10 cm = 0.1 m
𝑷𝒕 𝑮𝒕
𝑷𝒅 𝒂𝒕 𝟏𝑲𝒎 =
𝟒𝝅𝑹𝟐
𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎𝟑
= 𝟑 𝟐
𝒘⁄𝒎𝟐
𝟒𝝅 × (𝟏𝟎 )
𝟒𝝅 𝑨𝒆 𝑮𝝀𝟐
𝑮= 𝒐𝒓 𝑨𝒆 =
𝝀𝟐 𝟒𝝅
𝑷𝒓 = (𝑨𝒆 )𝒓 . 𝑷𝒅
𝑮𝒓 𝑨𝟐 𝟏
= ×
𝟒𝝅 𝟒𝝅 × 𝟏𝟎𝟑
𝟏𝟎𝟑 × (𝟎. 𝟏)𝟐 𝟏𝟎−𝟐

= = = 𝟔𝟑. 𝟒𝝁𝒘
(𝟒𝝅)𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎𝟑 𝟏𝟔𝝅𝟐
Option (c)
8. A parabolic dish antenna has a conical beam 20 wide. The directivity of

the antenna is approximately
(a) 20 dB (c) 40 dB
(b) 30 dB (d) 50 dB
Soln. Directivity of Parabolic dish is approximately given by
𝟒𝟏𝟐𝟓𝟑
=
𝑩𝒆𝒂𝒎𝒘𝒊𝒅𝒕𝒉 𝜽 𝒑𝒍𝒂𝒏𝒆 × 𝑩𝒆𝒂𝒎𝒘𝒊𝒅𝒕𝒉 𝒊𝒏 𝝓 𝒑𝒍𝒂𝒏𝒆
In the given problem
𝜽𝟑𝒅𝑩 = 𝟐𝟎
𝝓𝟑𝒅𝑩 = 𝟐𝟎
𝟒𝟏𝟐𝟓𝟑
𝑫= ≊ 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎 ≅ 𝟒𝟎𝒅𝑩
𝟐×𝟐
Option (c)
9. A transmitting antenna radiates 251 W Isotopically. A receiving antenna

located 100m away from the transmitting antenna has an effective
aperture of 500 cm2. The total power received by the antenna is
(a) 10 µ W (c) 20 µ W
(b) 1 µ W (d) 100 µ W
Soln. Given,
Power transmitted by antenna (isotropically) = 251 W
Distance between antennas = 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝒎
Aperture area of receiving antenna = 500 cm 2
= 𝟓𝟎𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝒎𝟐
𝑷𝑻
Power received (𝑷𝒓 ) = × 𝑨𝒑𝒆𝒓𝒕𝒖𝒓𝒆
𝟒𝝅𝒓𝟐
𝟐𝟓𝟏
= × 𝟓𝟎𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟒
𝟒 × 𝝅 × (𝟏𝟎𝟎)𝟐
= 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝝁𝒘
Option (d)
10. For an 8 feet (2.4m) parabolic dish antenna operating at 4 GHz, the
minimum distance required for far field measurement is closest to
(a) 7.5 cm (c) 15 m
(b) 15 cm (d) 150 m
Soln. Given,
Parabolic reflector antenna
Diameter (D) = 2.4 m
Frequency (f) = 4 GHz
𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟖
𝑺𝒐, 𝝀 = 𝟗
= 𝟕. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐 𝒎
𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎
The measurement of antenna field is considered in Fraunhofer (far
field) region. At a distance
𝟐𝑫𝟐
𝑹≫
𝝀
𝟐 × (𝟐. 𝟒)𝟐
𝒐𝒓, 𝑹 = = 𝟏𝟓𝟑. 𝟔 𝒎
𝟕. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐
≅ 𝟏𝟓𝟎 𝒎
Option (d)
11. The half – power bean widths (HPBW) of an antenna in the two
orthogonal planes are 1000 and 600 respectively. The directivity of the
antenna is approximately equal to
(a) 2 dB (c) 8 dB
(b) 5 dB (d) 12 dB
Soln. Given,
Half power beam width (𝜽𝟑𝒅𝑩 ) = 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
Half power beam width (𝝓𝟑𝒅𝑩 ) = 𝟔𝟎𝟎
𝟒𝟏, 𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝟒𝟏, 𝟐𝟎𝟎
𝑫𝒊𝒓𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒗𝒊𝒕𝒚 (𝑫) = =
𝜽𝟑𝒅𝑩 . 𝝓𝟑𝒅𝑩 𝟏𝟎𝟎 × 𝟔𝟎
= 𝟔. 𝟖𝟓 ≅ 𝟖𝒅𝑩
Option (c)
12. A medium wave radio transmitter operating at a wavelength of 492 m

has a tower antenna of height 124 m. What is the radiation resistance of
the antenna?
(a) 25 Ω (c) 50 Ω
(b) 36.5 Ω (d) 73 Ω
Soln. Medium wave Radio transmitter operating at
𝝀 = 𝟒𝟗𝟐 𝒎
Height of antenna = 𝟏𝟐𝟒 𝒎 ≅ 𝝀⁄𝟒
Thus it is a quarter wave monopole hence
𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅 ≅ 𝟑𝟔. 𝟓𝛀
Option (b)
13. In a uniform linear array, four isotropic radiating elements are spaced
𝜆/4 apart. The progressive phase shift between the elements required for
forming the main beam at 600 off the end – fire is
(a) −𝜋 𝑟𝑎𝑑 (c) −𝜋/4 𝑟𝑎𝑑
(b) −𝜋/2 𝑟𝑎𝑑 (d) −𝜋/8 𝑟𝑎𝑑
Soln. Uniform linear Array of N elements radiates in either broad side or
end fire directions based on progressive phase shift, α between the
excitation sources connected to antenna elements in the Array.
The array factor is given by
𝚿 = 𝜷 𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 + 𝜶
Here distance between elements is 𝒅 = 𝝀⁄𝟒
Direction of main beam is here 600.
when 𝜽 = 𝟎, with respect to axis of array, it is end fire type
When 𝜽 = 𝟗𝟎𝟎 with respect to the axis of the array it is broad side
broadside
End Fire
Given, the main beam is 600 off end fire i.e. 𝜽 = 𝟔𝟎𝟎
𝚿 = 𝜶 + 𝜷 𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝟔𝟎𝟎 = 𝟎
𝟐𝝅 𝝀 𝟏 𝝅
𝒐𝒓, 𝜶=− . = − 𝒓𝒂𝒅
𝝀 𝟒 𝟐 𝟒
Option (c)
14. A person with a receiver is 5 km away from the transmitter. What is the
distance that this person must move further to detect a 3 – dB decrease in
signal strength?
(a) 942 m (c) 4978 m
(b) 2070 m (d) 5320 m
Soln. Distance between transmitter and person with receiver is 5 km
𝑷𝟏 𝑷𝟐
𝒙
𝑻𝒙 𝟓𝑲𝒎 𝑹𝒙
From the position P1 the person having receiver moves some distance
to detect 3 dB decrease is signal strength. Field strength at P2 is 𝟏⁄√𝟐
times field strength at position 1.
E at point P1 is E1
E at point P2 is E2 (𝑬𝟏 /√𝟐)
𝟏 𝟏
𝑬𝟏 𝜶 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑬𝟐 𝜶
𝒓𝟏 𝒓𝟐
𝑬𝟏 𝒓𝟐
=
𝑬𝟐 𝒓𝟏
𝑬𝟏 𝑬𝟏
𝒐𝒓, 𝒓𝟐 = 𝒓𝟏 = 𝒓𝟏 = √𝟐 𝒓𝟏
𝑬𝟐 𝑬𝟏 /√𝟐
𝒐𝒓 𝒓𝟐 = 𝟕. 𝟎𝟕 𝑲𝒎
Thus distance moved from point 1 to point 2 = 2070 m
Option (b)
15. Two identical antennas are placed in the 𝜃 = 𝜋/2 plane as shown in
Figure. The elements have equal amplitude excitation with 1800 polarity
difference operating at wavelength λ. The correct value of the magnitude
of the far zone resultant electric field strength normalized with that of a
single element both computer for 𝜙 = 0 is
S
𝜙
S
2 𝜋𝑠 𝜋𝑠
(a) 2 cos ( ) (c) 2 cos ( )
𝜆 𝜆
2 𝜋𝑠 𝜋𝑠
(b) 2 sin ( ) (d) 2 sin ( )
𝜆 𝜆
Soln. Normalized field strength of a uniform linear array is
𝚿
𝑬𝑻 𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝑵
=| 𝒁|
𝑬𝟎 𝚿
𝒔𝒊𝒏
𝒁
Where, N – Number of elements in the array
𝚿 − 𝜷𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝝓 + 𝜶
For the given two element array
𝑬𝑻 𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝚿
=| | = 𝟐 𝒄𝒐𝒔(𝚿/𝟐)
𝑬𝟎 𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝚿/𝟐
Where
𝚿 = 𝛂 + 𝛃𝐝 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝛟
𝟐𝝅 𝟐𝝅𝑺
=𝝅+ .𝑺 .𝟏 = 𝝅 +
𝝀 𝝀
𝑬𝑻 𝝅 𝝅𝒔 𝝅𝒔
= 𝟐 𝒄𝒐𝒔 ( + ) = 𝟐 𝒔𝒊𝒏 ( )
𝑬𝟎 𝟐 𝝀 𝝀
Option (d)
16. Two identical and parallel dipole antennas are kept apart by a distance of
𝜆/4 in the H – plane. They are fed with equal currents but the right most
antenna has phase shift of +900. The radiation pattern is given as
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

Soln. Two parallel dipoles apart
𝑰𝟎 𝑰𝟎 ∠𝟗𝟎𝟎
𝝀/𝟒
For antenna array

𝚿 = 𝜷 𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 + 𝜶
Maximum of E field occurs at 𝚿 = 𝟎
𝜶 + 𝜷 𝒅. 𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝜽 = 𝟎
𝝅 𝝅 𝝀
𝒐𝒓, + . 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 = 𝟎
𝟐 𝟐 𝟒
𝟏 + 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 = −𝟏 𝒐𝒓 𝜽 = 𝟏𝟖𝟎𝟎
Radiation pattern is
Option (d)
17. A mast antenna consisting of a 50 meter long vertical conductor operates

over a perfectly conducting ground plane. It is base – fed at a frequency
of 600 KHz. The radiation resistance of the antenna in Ohms is
2𝜋2 4𝜋2
(a) (c)
5 5
𝜋2 (d) 20 𝜋 2
(b)
5
Soln. Mast antenna is over perfectly conducting ground plane. It is hertz
dipole.
𝒅𝒍 𝟐
Radiations resistance (𝑹𝒓𝒂𝒅 ) = 𝟒𝟎𝝅𝟐 ( )
𝝀
Length of radiation = 50m

Frequency (f) = 600 KHz
Thus, wavelength (𝝀) = 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝒎
Therefore
𝟐
𝟓𝟎 𝟐 𝟐𝝅𝟐
𝑹𝒓𝒆𝒅 = 𝟒𝟎𝝅 ( ) =
𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝟓
Option (a)
18. A 𝜆/2 dipole is kept horizontally at a height of 𝜆2 ⁄2 dipole above a
perfectly conducting infinite ground plane. The radiation pattern in the
plane of the dipole (𝐸⃗ 𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑒) looks approximately as
(a) y y
(b)
z z
y y
(c) (d)
z z
Soln. A 𝝀/𝟐 dipole is kept horizontally at a height of 𝝀𝟎 /𝟐 above
conducting ground plane
𝝀𝟎 /𝟐
Conducting
Infinite ground
𝝀𝟎 /𝟐
𝟐𝝅
𝑯𝒆𝒓𝒆 𝒅 = 𝝀, 𝜶 = 𝝅, 𝒕𝒉𝒖𝒔 𝜷𝒅 = . 𝝀 = 𝟐𝝅
𝝀
𝜷𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝝓 + 𝜶
𝑨𝒓𝒓𝒆𝒚 𝑭𝒂𝒄𝒕𝒐𝒓 𝒊𝒔 = 𝒄𝒐𝒔 [ ]
𝟐
𝟐𝝅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝝓 + 𝝅
= 𝒄𝒐𝒔 [ ]
𝟐
= 𝒔𝒊𝒏(𝝅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝝓)
Option (b)
19. At 20 GHz, the gain of a parabolic dish antenna of 1 meter diameter and
70% efficiency is
(a) 15 dB (c) 35 dB
(b) 25 dB (d) 45 dB
Soln. Given,
Frequency = 20 GHz
Diameter of antenna dish = 1 meter
𝑬𝒇𝒇𝒊𝒄𝒊𝒆𝒏𝒄𝒚 (𝜼) = 𝟕𝟎%
Gain of parabolic dish antenna is given by
𝑫 𝟐
𝑮 = 𝜼 𝝅𝟐 ( )
𝝀
𝟐
𝟏
= 𝟎. 𝟕 . 𝝅𝟐 ( )
𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟖
𝟐𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟗
𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝟐
= 𝟎. 𝟕 . 𝝅𝟐 ( ) ≅ 𝟒𝟓 𝒅𝑩
𝟑
Option (d)
20. Two half – wave dipole antennas placed as shown in the figure are exited
with sinusoidal varying currents of frequency 3 MHz and phase shift of
𝜋⁄2 between them (the element at the origin leads in phase). If the
maximum radiated E – field at the point P in the x – y plane occurs at an
azimuthal angle of 600, the distance d (in meters) between the antennas is
______
Z
O Y
d
600 OP>>d
P
X
Soln. Given, Azimuth plane
Occurs at 𝜽 = 𝟗𝟎𝟎
For antenna array
𝚿 = 𝜷 𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝝓 + 𝜶
Where, d – spacing between the antenna
𝝓 – Angle between axis of array and
𝜶 – Excitation phase line of observation
Maximum of E field occurs at 𝚿 = 𝟎
Here 𝝓 = −𝟗𝟎𝟎
𝟐𝝅 𝟐𝝀 𝟐𝝅
𝜷= = =
𝝀 𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟖 𝟏𝟎𝟎
𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟖
Maximum of field occurs
At 𝚿=𝟎
i.e. 𝜷 𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝛉 + 𝛂 = 𝟎
or, 𝜷 𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝛉 = −𝛂
𝜷 𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝛉 = 𝝅⁄𝟐
𝟐𝝅
× 𝒅 × 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 = 𝝅⁄𝟐
𝟏𝟎𝟎
𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒄𝒆 𝒅 = 𝝀⁄𝟐
𝟐𝝅
× 𝒅 × 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 = 𝝅⁄𝟐
𝝀
𝝀 𝟐𝝀
𝒅 . 𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝟔𝟎 = 𝒐𝒓 𝒅 = = 𝝀⁄ 𝟐
𝟒 𝟒
𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟖
𝒘𝒉𝒆𝒓𝒆 𝝀 = = 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝒎
𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟔
21. The far – zone power density radiated by a helical antenna is

approximated as:
1
⃗⃗⃗ 𝑟𝑎𝑑 = 𝑊
𝑊 ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 ≈ 𝑎̂𝑟 𝐶0 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝜃
𝑟 2
The radiated power density is symmetrical with respect to 𝜙 and exists
𝜋
only in the upper hemisphere: 0 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ ; 0 ≤ 𝜙 ≤ 2𝜋; 𝐶0 is a constant.
2
The power radiated by the antenna (in watts) and the maximum
directivity of the antenna, respectively, are
(a) 1.5 𝐶0 , 10dB (c) 1.256 𝐶0 , 12dB
(b) 1.256 𝐶0 , 10dB (d) 1.5 𝐶0 , 12dB
Soln. Given,
Power density radiated by the antenna
𝑪𝟎
⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝒓𝒂𝒅 =
𝑾 . 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟒 𝜽 𝒂
̂𝒓 𝑾⁄𝒎𝟐
𝒓 𝟐
Given that power density of the antenna is symmetrical and is upper
hemisphere. Power radiated by the antenna
⃗⃗⃗ 𝒓𝒂𝒅 . ⃗⃗⃗⃗

𝑷𝒓𝒂𝒅 = ∮ ⃗𝑾 𝒅𝒔
𝒔
It is radiating in the upper hemisphere only
𝝅 ⁄𝟐 𝟐𝝅
𝑪𝟎
𝑷𝒓𝒂𝒅 = ∫ ∫ 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟒 𝜽 𝒓𝟐 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝜽𝒅𝜽𝒅𝝓
𝒓𝟐
𝟎 𝝓=𝟎
𝝅 ⁄𝟐 𝟐𝝅
=∫ ∫ 𝑪𝟎 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟒 𝜽 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝜽 𝒅𝜽 𝒅𝝓
𝟎 𝝓=𝟎
𝝅⁄ 𝟐
= 𝟐𝝅𝑪𝟎 ∫ 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟒 𝜽 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝜽 𝒅𝜽

𝟎
𝟐𝝅𝑪𝟎
𝑷𝒓𝒂𝒅 = = 𝟏. 𝟐𝟓𝟔 𝑪𝟎 𝒘𝒂𝒕𝒕
𝟓
𝑼𝒎𝒂𝒙
𝑫 = 𝟒𝝅 .
𝑷𝒓𝒂𝒅
Where, 𝑼𝒎𝒂𝒙
𝑼 = 𝒓𝟐 𝑾𝒓𝒂𝒅
𝑪𝟎
𝒓𝟐 . 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟒 𝜽
𝒓𝟐
𝑼 = 𝑪𝟎 𝑪𝒐𝒔𝟒 𝜽
𝑼 = 𝑪𝟎
𝟒𝝅𝑪𝟎
𝑫=
𝟏. 𝟐𝟓𝟔 𝑪𝟎
= 10
D is dB = 10 log 10
D = 10dB

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Dept. of ECE www.studymaterialz.

3. The major drawback of frequency

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a) true 8. Resistive multipliers are more efficient as

6. If a frequency multiplier has a 9. Reactive multipliers have a disadvantage

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Answer: b TOPIC 1.5 ANTENNA PATTERN

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wavelength, ap is the aperture efficiency. background noise temperature increases.

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TOPIC 1.9 IMPEDANCE impedance at microwave frequencies, they

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7. In the expression for phase of the reflection Answer: a

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Answer: d 6. Mechanism contributing to a reduction in

3. Which is the primary cost for degradation Answer: d

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with respect to an isotropic radiator EIRP can b) Radiation resistance

Answer: b 3. What happens when the radiation

UNIT II RADIATION Answer: d

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b) Microstrip lines c) Array antennas

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b) Antenna arrays of a square corner antenna is:

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3. The basic equation of radiation that is c) Beam width

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UNIT III ANTENNA Answer: a

TOPIC 3.1 TWO-ELEMENT 4. _________ antennas consist of a regular

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data in the efficiency equation, the efficiency Answer: a

4. Which of the following is false about the

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shift 9. What is the progressive phase shift of the

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Answer: a 5. The number of patterns radiation pattern

2. _________ is a device that converts Answer: a

Answer: a 7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =

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8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ.

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5. ___________ amplifiers are linear circuits, 8. Behavior of a transistor in power amplifiers

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Answer: a c) it has low conduction band electrons

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b) cold electrons b) positive resistance

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a) avalanche multiplication a) Vd/2l

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drift region be completely filled to cause the a) True

Explanation: As frequency increases to the