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G R AD UAT E A PT I T UD E T E S T I N E NG I N EE R I N G
27
TOPIC-WISE
PREVIOUS
YEARS’ SOLVED YEARS
PAPERS
ELECTRONICS AND
COMMUNICATION
ENGINEERING
2020
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This book is sold subject to the condition that it shall not, by way of trade or otherwise, be lent, resold, hired out, or other-
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Registered Office: The HIVE, 3rd Floor, Metro Zone, No.44, Pillayar Koil Street, Jawaharlal Nehru Road, Anna Nagar,
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Reviewer x
Salient Features
• Includes around 27 years GATE questions arranged topic-wise.
• Gate 2019 paper with topic-wise Analysis.
• Detailed solutions for better understanding.
• Topic-wise detailed analysis of previous year questions provided for each section.
I acknowledge the help provided in compilation and by giving technical inputs by Pearson Editorial Team and many others.
Despite of our best efforts, some errors may have inadvertently crept into the book. Constructive comments and sugges-
tions to further improve the book are welcome and shall be acknowledged gratefully.
Rajiv Kapoor
Reviewers
We would like to thank the below mentioned reviewers for their continuous feedback and suggestions which has helped in
shaping this book.
Jyotsna Singh Associate Professor, Netaji Subhas Institute of Technology, Dwarka, New Delhi
S. K. Mydhili ssistant Professor (Senior Grade), SVS College of Engineering, Coimbatore,
A
Tamil Nadu
Arun Khosla Associate Professor, National Institute of Technology, Jalandhar, Punjab
Manav Bhatnagar Associate Professor, Indian Institute of Technology, New Delhi
B.V.R. Reddy Professor and Dean, USET, Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University, Dwarka, Delhi
About The Author
Rajiv Kapoor, Ph.D. in Electronics and Communication Engineering from Panjab University (Punjab Engineering College),
Chandigarh and has worked in industries of repute and also worked in Engineering institutions of repute and having a
total experience of 23 years in teaching Engineering students. He is presently working as professor in Electronics and
Communication Engineering Department at Delhi Technological University (Formerly Delhi College of Engineering). He
published more than 100 papers in the various Journals/Conferences of repute and has filed 6 patents also. He has under-
taken 21 R&D projects and is not only a strong believer but a practitioner for ‘MAKE in INDIA’. He has an endeavour to
design new products for Industries and work for society with in-depth knowledge of the subject, he has honed his skills to
foresee the obstacles of students in their quest to prepare them for these examinations (GATE, NET, etc.) and successfully
weeds them out.
Syllabus: Electronics and
Communication Engineering
Networks, Signals and Systems
Network Solution Methods: Nodal and mesh analysis; Network theorems: superposition, Thevenin and Norton’s, maxi-
mum power transfer; Wye-Delta transformation; Steady state sinusoidal analysis using phasors; Time domain analysis of
simple linear circuits; Solution of network equations using Laplace transform; Frequency domain analysis of RLC circuits;
Linear 2-port network parameters: driving point and transfer functions; State equations for networks.
Continuous-time Signals: Fourier series and Fourier transform representations, sampling theorem and applications;
Discrete-time signals: discrete-time Fourier transform (DTFT), DFT, FFT, Z-transform, interpolation of discrete-time sig-
nals; LTI systems: definition and properties, causality, stability, impulse response, convolution, poles and zeros, parallel
and cascade structure, frequency response, group delay, phase delay, digital filter design techniques.
Control Systems
Basic control system components; Feedback principle; Transfer function; Block diagram representation; Signal flow graph;
Transient and steady-state analysis of LTI systems; Frequency response; Routh-Hurwitz and Nyquist stability criteria;
Bode and root-locus plots; Lag, lead and lag-lead compensation; State variable model and solution of state equation of LTI
systems.
Electronic Devices
Energy bands in intrinsic and extrinsic silicon; Carrier transport: diffusion current, drift current, mobility and resistivity;
Generation and recombination of carriers; Poisson and continuity equations; P-N junction, Zener diode, BJT, MOS capaci-
tor, MOSFET, LED, photo diode and solar cell; Integrated circuit fabrication process: oxidation, diffusion, ion implanta-
tion, photolithography and twin-tub CMOS process.
Analog Circuits
Small signal equivalent circuits of diodes, BJTs and MOSFETs; Simple diode circuits: clipping, clamping and rectifiers;
Single-stage BJT and MOSFET amplifiers: biasing, bias stability, mid-frequency small signal analysis and frequency
response; BJT and MOSFET amplifiers: multi-stage, differential, feedback, power and operational; Simple op-amp cir-
cuits; Active filters; Sinusoidal oscillators: criterion for oscillation, single-transistor and opamp configurations; Function
generators, wave-shaping circuits and 555 timers; Voltage reference circuits; Power supplies: ripple removal and regulation.
Digital Circuits
Number systems; Combinatorial circuits: Boolean algebra, minimization of functions using Boolean identities and
Karnaugh map, logic gates and their static CMOS implementations, arithmetic circuits, code converters, multiplexers,
decoders and PLAs; Sequential circuits: latches and flip-flops, counters, shift-registers and finite state machines; Data
converters: sample and hold circuits, ADCs and DACs; Semiconductor memories: ROM, SRAM, DRAM; 8-bit micropro-
cessor (8085): architecture, programming, memory and I/O interfacing.
Communications
Random processes: Autocorrelation and power spectral density, properties of white noise, filtering of random signals
through LTI systems; Analog communications: amplitude modulation and demodulation, angle modulation and demodula-
tion, spectra of AM and FM, superheterodyne receivers, circuits for analog communications; Information theory: entropy,
mutual information and channel capacity theorem; Digital communications: PCM, DPCM, digital modulation schemes,
Syllabus: Electronics and Communication Engineering | xiii
amplitude, phase and frequency shift keying (ASK, PSK, FSK), QAM, MAP and ML decoding, matched filter receiver,
calculation of bandwidth, SNR and BER for digital modulation; Fundamentals of error correction, Hamming codes;
Timing and frequency synchronization, inter-symbol interference and its mitigation; Basics of TDMA, FDMA and CDMA.
Electromagnetics
Electrostatics; Maxwell’s equations: differential and integral forms and their interpretation, boundary conditions, wave
equation, Poynting vector; Plane waves and properties: reflection and refraction, polarization, phase and group veloc-
ity, propagation through various media, skin depth; Transmission lines: equations, characteristic impedance, impedance
matching, impedance transformation, S-parameters, Smith chart; Waveguides: modes, boundary conditions, cut-off fre-
quencies, dispersion relations; Antennas: antenna types, radiation pattern, gain and directivity, return loss, antenna arrays;
Basics of radar; Light propagation in optical fibers.
Important Tips for GATE Preparation
The followings are some important tips which would be helpful for students to prepare for GATE examination.
1. Go through the pattern (using previous years’ GATE paper) and syllabus of the exam and start preparing accordingly.
2. Preparation time for GATE depends on many factors, such as, individual’s aptitude, attitude, fundamentals,
concentration level etc., Generally rigorous preparation for four to six months is considered good but it may vary
from student to student.
3. Make a list of books which cover complete syllabus, contains solved previous year questions and mock tests for
practice based on latest GATE pattern. Purchase these books and start your preparation.
4. Make a list of topics which needs to be studied and make priority list for study of every topic based upon the marks
for which that particular topic is asked in GATE examination. Find out the topics which fetch more marks and give
more importance to those topics. Make a timetable for study of topics and follow the timetable strictly.
5. An effective way to brush up your knowledge about technical topics is group study with your friends. During group
study you can explore new techniques and procedures.
6. While preparing any subject highlight important points (key definitions, equations, derivations, theorems and laws)
which can be revised during last minute preparation.
7. Pay equal attention to both theory and numerical problems. Solve questions (numerical) based on latest exam pattern
as much as possible, keeping weightage of that topic in mind. Whatever topics you decide to study, make sure that
you know everything about it.
8. Try to use short-cut methods to solve problems instead of traditional lengthy and time consuming methods.
9. Go through previous years’ papers (say last ten years), to check your knowledge and note the distribution of different
topics. Also analyze the topics in which you are weak and concentrate more on those topics. Always try to solve
papers in given time, to obtain an idea how many questions you are able to solve in the given time limit.
10. Finish the detail study of topics one and a half month before your exam. During last month revise all the topics once
again and clear leftover doubts.
Unit I
Network Theory
Basics of Network 1 2 - 2 - 4 2 1 2 3 2 3 5 2 - - - 2 1 1 3 5 - 5 2 3 - -
Analysis
Sinusoidal Steady 1 2 1 4 2 - 1 - - 1 - 2 5 3 - 1 - 1 2 1 - 1 - 2 3 3 1 1
State
Network Theorems - 2 1 1 - - 1 2 1 1 1 1 - 2 - 2 1 1 - 2 2 2 - 4 1 1 - 1
Transient Analysis 1 - 1 - 1 1 - - - - 1 2 2 1 2 1 4 2 1 1 1 - - 3 2 - 1 -
Two Port Networks 1 - 1 - - 1 1 1 - 2 - 1 2 2 2 - 2 - 2 1 2 - - 2 3 - 1 1
Graph Theory and 1 - - - 1 - 1 1 - - 1 1 - - - 1 - - - - - 1 2 1 1 1
State Equations
Network Functions - - 1 - - - - - 1 - - 1 - 1 2 2 1 1 - - - 1 - - 2 1 - -
Chapter 1
Basics of Network Analysis
2. A connection is made consisting of resistance A in
One-mark questions series with a parallel combination of resistances B and
C. Three resistors of value 10 W, 5 W, 2 W are provided.
1. In the circuit shown in the figure, the positive angular Consider all possible permutations of the given resis-
frequency w (in radians per second) at which the mag- tors in to the positions A, B, C, and identify the con-
nitude of the phase difference between the voltages V1 figurations with maximum possible overall resistance,
π and also the ones with minimum possible overall resist-
and V2 equals ⋅radians, is ____________. [2017]
4 ance. The ratio of maximum to minimum values of the
resistances (up to second decimal place) is _________.
V2
[2017]
1Ω 1H
3. The damping ratio of a series RLC circuit can be
expressed as [2015]
100 cos ω t
∼ 1Ω V1 RC
(A) (B)
2
2 L
2L R 2C
R C 2 L
(C) (D)
2 L R C
Solution: From the given data
Let Z1 = 1 W = 1 ∠ 0° W R sL
Z2 = 1 + jw = 1 + ω ∠ θ2 Ω
2
−1 + +
Where θ 2 = tan ω V VC 1/sC
I
– –
V1 = Z1 . i(t )
V2 = Z 2 . i(t )
sL i1 i6
1/sC
R
For R = 1 Ω and currents i1 = 2 A, i4 = -1 A, i5 = -4 A,
which one of the following is TRUE?
b (a) i6 = 5 A
(b) i3 = -4 A
Z(s)
(c) Data is sufficient to conclude that the supposed
1 currents are impossible
Z(s) = {R + sL} || (d) Data is insufficient to identify the currents i2, i3 and
sC
1 i6 [2014]
( R + sL ) sC Solution: (a)
=
1
R + sL + i5
sC A
R + sL
Z(s) = 2
s LC + RCs + 1 R R
i3
R + jω L R + jω L
Z ( jω ) = −ω 2 LC + jω RC + 1 = 1 − ω 2 LC + jω RC
i2
( ) i4
B C
( R + jω L ) {(1 − ω 2 LC ) − jω RC }
i1 i6
R
Z ( jω ) =
(1 − ω LC )
2
+ (ω RC )
2 2
At A, i5 = i3 – i2
at resonance At B, −i4 = i1 – i2
Imag{Z(jω)} = 0 At C, i6 = i1 – i3
i6 + (i2 + i5) – i1 = 0
Imag(z} = 0
i6 + i1 + i4 + i5 – i1 = 0
∴ –j ωR2C + j ωL (1 – ω2LC) = 0 i6 + (2 – 1 – 4) – 2 = 0
At resonance ω = ω0 i6 = 5A
R2C = L [1 – ω 02 LC } Hence, the correct option is (a).
Chapter 1 Basics of Network Analysis | 1.5
6. The circuit shown in the figure represents a the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k > 0, the
elements of the corresponding star equivalent will be
I1 scaled by a factor of
AI1 R
Ra Rb Ra
Rb Rc RA
R2
1kΩ
Appling star –delta conversion for the given circuit
10 mA R1 2kΩ R3 4kΩ 2 mA
R1 Rb Rc K 2 ( Rb Rc )
RA′ = = = KRA
Rb + Rc + Ra K [ Rb + Rc + Ra ]
3kΩ
RA = KRA
Solution: 2.8 mA Hence, the correct option is (b).
R 2 = 1k Ω 9. In the circuit shown below, the current through the
R 2 = 1k Ω inductor is
10 mA R 1 = 2k Ω R 3 = 4k Ω 2 mA
10 mA R 1 = 2k Ω R 3 = 4k Ω 2 mA i1 Ω
1 Ω
1 0A
KVL: 1kΩ 1 0V 1 0V
1kΩ
- + + -
2kΩ 4kΩ 1 0A
2kΩ 4kΩ
20 V
8V –1 Ω 1 Ω
20 V
8V
3k
3k
(a) 2 A (b) −1
A
20 = 2I + I + 4I – 8 + 3I 1+ j 1 +j
I = 2.8 mA
(c) 1 (d) 0A [2012]
8. Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equiva- A
lent star connection as shown below. If all elements of 1+ j
1.6 | Network Theory
i1 Ω + -
1 Ω
1A 20 V
+
I 60 V
-
1 0 1 0 12 A
i
- + A + -
A
1A
Since 60 V is absorbing power, it means the current is
–1 Ω 1 Ω
entering positive terminal. Applying KCL at A,
I + i = 12
I = 12 – i value of i < 12
So, out of given options, only (a) can be the answer.
Applying KCL at node A, there will be no current in
voltage sources. Hence, the correct option is (a).
Applying KVL in upper loop, 12. A fully charged mobile phone with a 12 V battery is
good for a 10 minute talk-time. Assume that, during
1 + i + (i + 1) j1 + 1∠0° − 1∠0° = 0
the talk-time the battery delivers a constant current of
−j 2 A and its voltage drops linearly from 12 V to 10 V as
i=
1+ j shown in the figure. How much energy does the battery
deliver during this talk-time?
1− j 1
∴ Current through inductor = = (a) 220 J (b) 12 kJ
j +1 1+ j (c) 13.2 kJ (d) 14.4 J [2009]
Hence, the correct option is (c).
V(t)
1 0. The average power delivered to an impedance
(4 - j3)Ω by a current 5 cos (100 πt + 100) A is 12 V
(a) 44.2 W (b) 50 W 10 V
(c) 62.5 W (d) 125 W [2012]
Solution: (b)
Average power is equivalent to RMS power t
0 10 mn
I 5
=
I rms =
2 2 Solution: (c)
2 25 Given current I = 2A
P= I rms R = × 4 = 50W
2 2 × (12 + 10)
Hence, the correct option is (b). E = VIT = I (VT ) = 2
× 10 × 60
4Ω + 2Ω
1 12V 4Ω e0 2Ω
R R 3
-
V R C R
b
4
(a) 2 V (b) V
3
(c) 4 V (d) 8 V [2001]
The node voltages are numbered as 1, 2, 3
Solution: (c)
Number of equation = Number of nodes = 3.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
4Ω + 2Ω
1 5. The dependent current source shown in the figure
12V 4Ω e0 2Ω
5Ω
-
I b
+ 5Ω V1
A
V1 = 20 V 5 Equivalent resistance for the circuit = 4 + 4||4
-
= 4 + 2 = 6Ω.
1.8 | Network Theory
12 V2 OV
=
Total current = 2A.
6 +
- - +
∴ e0 = 2 × 4 × 4 = 2 × 16 = 4 V.
4+4 8 2V 1V
Hence, the correct option is (c).
17. If each branch of a Delta circuit has impedance 3 E=?
Z, then each branch of the equivalent Wye circuit has
impedance
Z +
(a) (b) 3 Z + -
3 -
Z 4V 5V
(c) 3 3Z (d) [2001] V1 10V
3
Solution: (a)
(a) -16 V (b) 4 V
ZΔ = 3ZY (c) -6 V (d) 16 V [2000]
Z∆ Solution: (a)
3Z ∆ = 3ZY ⇒ ZY =
3 OV
V2
Hence, the correct option is (a).
18. In the circuit of the figure, the voltage V(t) is
2V 1V
1Ω 1 1Ω
+ E
r V(t) 1H tx
e e
-
4V 5V
(a) 0.5 V (b) 3.0 V Appling KCL at node B, sum of all currents will be
(c) 3.5 V (d) 4.0 V [1998] zero. So,
i4 + i1 + i0 = 0
Solution: (c)
i4 = −i1− i0 = − 5−7
a
i4 = −12A
2L 1Ω Hence, the correct option is (b).
3
+
1V i 2L 3A
23. The voltage V in the figure is equal to____
-
4V
+ -
b
+ 2Ω +
5V -- - 4V
Applying KVL at first mess, 1 = 2i + 2(i + 3)
1 = 2i + 2i + 6
−5 = 4i + V-
−5
i= (a) 3 V (b) –3 V
4 (c) 5 V (d) None of these
−5 + 6 [1997]
Vab = 2i + 6 = 2 × = −2.5 + 6
4 Solution: (a)
Vab = 3.5 V.
+ -
Hence, the correct option is (c).
4V
22. The current i4 in the circuit of the figure is equal to____ + 2Ω +
5V -- - 4V
i 1 = 5A i 2 = 3A
B + V-
i 0 = 7A
Applying KVL in outer mesh,
5 = 4 + 4 – V.
So, V = 3V.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
A
i4 = ? i 3 = 4A 2 4. The voltage V in the figure is always equal to____
2A 2Ω
(a) 12 A (b) -12 A
(c) 4 A (d) None of these +
[1997] +
V - 5V
Solution: (b)
-
i 1 = 5A i 2 = 3A
(a) 9 V (b) 5 V
(c) 1 V (d) None of these
[1997]
Solution: (d)
Since the voltage across current source is unknown, we
A cannot apply KVL to find V.
i4 = ? i 3 = 4A Hence, the correct option is (d).
1.10 | Network Theory
25. The voltage V in the figure is [1997] of coupling being 0.1. The total inductance of the com-
bination can be
3Ω
+ (a) 0.4 H (b) 3.2 H
(c) 4.0 H (d) 4.4 H [1995]
+ + Solution: (d)
V 10V 5V
- -
Given inductance of first and second coils as L1 = 2H,
L2 = 2H and coupling coefficient as K = 0.1, let mutual
- inductance between these coils be given by M. Then
(a) 10 V (b) 15 V equivalent inductance is given as
(c) 5 V (d) None of the these Leq = L1 + L2 + 2M = 2 + 2 + 2 K L1 L2
Solution: (a)
where M = K L1 L2 = 4 + 0.1 2 × 2
3Ω = 4.4 H.
+
Hence, the correct option is (d).
V + 10 V + 5V
- -
Two-marks Questions
- 1. Consider the network shown below with R1 = 1 W, R2 =
2 W and R2 = 3 W.. The network is connected to a con-
Voltage in parallel connection remains equal. So, stant voltage source of 11 V.
V = 10 V.
R1 R1
Hence, the correct option is (a).
2 6. A DC circuit shown in the figure given below has a
R2
voltage source V, a current source I and several resis-
R1 R3 R1 +
tors. A particular resistor R dissipates a power of 4 W R3 – 11 V
when V alone is active. The same resistor R dissipates
a power of 9 W when I alone is active. The power dis-
R2
sipated by R when both sources are active will be R1 R1
+
Resistive R The magnitude of current (in amperes, accurate to two
- Network decimal places) through the source is _______. [2018]
Solution:
Resistance R1 = 1W
I Resistance R2 = 2W
(a) 1 W (b) 5 W Resistance R3 = 3W
(c) 5 W (d) 25 W [1995] Current I = ?
Solution: (d) I
( )
2 R3 R2
With both sources, P = P1 + P2 + 11 V
R1 R3 R1 –
P = (2 + 3)2 = 25 W. R2
3 4
Hence, the correct option is (d).
27. Two 2H inductance coils are connected in series and are
also magnetically coupled to each other, the coefficient R1 R1
Chapter 1 Basics of Network Analysis | 1.11
+ 11 V 5
1Ω 3Ω 3Ω 1Ω – Vc(t) = sin(5t − 45°) V
2
Vc(t) = 2.5 2 sin (5t – 45°) V
1Ω 1Ω
Hence, the correct option is (C)
3. In the given circuit, each resistor has a value equal to
1 Ω.
Req = {(1 || 1) + {1.5 || 0.5} + 0.5} What is the equivalent resistance across the terminals a
and b? [2016]
11
=
0.5 + 0.5 + 0.375 = Ω 1 1
8 (A) Ω (B) Ω
6 3
11
I = = 8 Amp 9 8
11 8 (C) Ω (D) Ω
20 15
Hence, the correct answer is 7.9 to 8.1.
Solution: Apply ∆ ↔ Y conversion to the given net-
2. For the circuit given in the figure, the voltage Vc (in
work
volts) across the capacitor is [2017]
100 kΩ
4
+ + 3
1Ω 1Ω
5 sin (5t) V 1 μF VC
– –
4 4
3 3
100 kΩ
1Ω
(A) 1.25 2 sin (5t – 0.25p)
(B) 1.25 2 sin 5t – 0.125p a
(C) 2.5 2 sin (5t – 0.25p) 1Ω
(D) 2.5 2 sin (5t – 0.125p) 4Ω 1Ω
4Ω
Solution: Consider the figure given below
4Ω
200 kΩ b
+ +
5 sin 5t VC 1 μF
– – 1Ω
Vc (t) = ?
4 4
Ω Ω
5 5
We know that:
Vc ( S )
H(S) =
Vin ( S )
4
Ω
1 5
H(S) =
1+ jω RC
1.12 | Network Theory
i1 = 0.16Vx
⎛ 4 ⎞ ⎛ 8⎞
∴ Rab = ⎜ ⎟ // ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 5 ⎠ ⎝ 5⎠ i2 = 0.2Vx
4 8 5(0.16Vx) + 8(0.2Vx) = 60
×
Rab = 5 5
4 8 Vx [0.8 + 1.6] = 60
+
5 5 Vx = 25 volts
8×4 5
Rab = × 25
25 12 i2 = = 5A
5
8
= Ω iR2 = 5 A
15
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct Answer is (5 A).
4. In the circuit shown in the figure, the magnitude of the 5. In the figure shown, the current I (in ampere) is ___ .
current (in amperes) through R2 is ____. [2016] [2016]
a
1A 5Ω
8V +
–
1Ω
1Ω 1Ω
+ 8V
–
i
1Ω
b Solution:
1A 5Ω
R1 R2
5Ω 3Ω
R3 +
+
+ 1A 4A 1Ω – 8V
– 60 V 5Ω vx
0.04 vx
– 1Ω 1Ω
O O
V1
Solution: Consider the labelled figure given below 4A + 8 V4 A
–
R1 R2 5A i
4A 1Ω
5Ω 3Ω
+
Vx 1A
60 V +
– i1
0.04 v i2 5Ω
–
100 μF a
1 kΩ 1 kΩ V0 2R R R 2R
100 μF
+
1.0 sin(ω t) V –
1 kΩ 1 kΩ b
Rab
100 μF
∴ Rab = (2R||2R)||(R||R) = (R||R||R)
Vm × 1k Vm
Vo = = (A) 5 V, 25 V (B) 10 V, 30 V
2k 2 (C) 15 V, 35 V (D) 0 V, 20 V
1 Solution: Apply nodal analysis to the given network.
∴ The peak o/p voltage = = 0.5 volts
2 V1 V1
–5 + + + 2I = 0
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.49 to 0.51). 4 4
7. In the network shown in the figure, all resistor are iden- V1
tical with R = 300 Ω. The resistance Rab (in Ω) of the + 2I = 5
network is ______. [2015] 2
V1
a But, I=
4
R R R R
R R V1 V1
R R R + =5
R = 300 Ω 2 2
R R ⇒ V1 = 5 volts
Rab R R R R
Apply KVL in 1st loop
b
V2 – 4 × 5 – V1 = 0
Solution: The given network is in balanced mode, so
V2 = 20 + 5
redraw equivalent network.
a =
25 Volts
b
Rab
100 V, 50 Hz
1.14 | Network Theory
+
(100)2 = 802 + (VL – VC)2 V1 (s) Network N Network N V2 (s)
(VC – VL)2 = 3600
-
VC – VL = 60
VC = 100 V
Hence, the correct Answer is (100).
V3 (s)
10. A Y-network has resistances of 10 Ω each in two The transfer function of the cascaded network is
of its arms, while the third arm has a resistance of V1 (s)
11 Ω. In the equivalent A-network, the lowest value (in s s2
Ω) among the three resistances is_____. [2014] (a) (b)
1+ s 1 + 3s + s 2
2 2
s s
(c) (d)
1+ s 2+s
[2014]
R1 Solution: (b)
Ra Rb
R3 1/SC 1/SC
R2 R
V1 (s) R V3 (6)
I1 I2
Rc
1
Applying KVL, R + I1 ( s) − RI 2 ( s) = V1 ( s)
RR
Ra = R1 + R2 + 1 2 SC
R3
1
RR R + SC I 2 ( s) − RI 2 ( s) = 0
Rb = R1 + R3 + 1 3
R2
V3(s) = I2(s)R
R2 R3
Rc = R2 + R3 + V ( s) s 2 R 2C 2
R1 ∴ 3 = 2 2 2
V ( s) s R C + 1 + 3RCs
Here R1 = 11Ω, R2 = 10Ω, R3 = 10Ω 1
∴Ra = Rb = 32 Ω, Rc = 29.09 Ω → lowest value R = 10 kΩ, C = 100 μF, RC = 1
11. Consider the building block called ‘Network N’ shown
V3 ( s) s2
in the figure. = 2
V1 ( s) s + 3s + 1
Let C = 100 µF and R = 10 kΩ
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Network N
1 2. In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of node
voltage V2 is
C
10 ∠0°
+−
V1 4Ω V2
V1 (s) R V2 (s)
4 ∠ 0° A –j 3 Ω 3Ω j 6Ω
Chapter 1 Basics of Network Analysis | 1.15
(a) 22 + j2 V (b) 2 + j22 V 14. The equivalent resistance in the infinite ladder network
(c) 22 - j2 V (d) 2 - j22 V [2014] shown in the figure is Re
Solution: (d) 2R R R R
+−
Re R R R R
V1 4Ω V2
4 0° j3 Ω 6Ω j6 Ω
The value Re/R is______. [2014]
Solution: 2R R R R
2R R R R
2R R R R
R R R
V1 V2 V2
V1 − V2 = 10∠0°; + + = 4∠0° R R R
−3 j 6 j 6 R R R
20 + j 24
∴V2 = = 22.09∠ − 84.8
( −1 + j ) R R
2R RR RR R
V2 = 2 – 22 j R R
R R ...
...
8 8
Hence, the correct option is (d). R RR RR
13. For the Y-network shown in the figure, the value of R1 R R ...
8
(in Ω) in the equivalent ∆-network is____. [2014] Req
Req
R1 Req
R RR
R
5Ω 3Ω R
R RR
... R
8
eq
Req
R
Req
R
Req Req
Req
7.6 Ω
Req
R + R.Req
R 2R
Req = 2R
R + Req
2R
Req = 1.618 R
R R Req
5 R
Req = 1.618 R
Req = 1 + R Req = 1.618 R
2 R
R1 Req
Req = 1.618 R
2R
5Ω
3Ω Req = 1.618 R
R
7.5 Ω
R × 1.618 R
Rin = 2 R +
R + 1.618 R
to get an open circuit voltage VYZ1 across YZ. Next, an Solution: (c)
ac voltage VYZ2 = 100 V is applied across YZ to get an
C2 C3
open circuit voltage VWX2 across WX. Then, VYZ1/VWX1,
VWX1/VYZ2 are, respectively,
W
1: 1.25
Y
X Z
C1
i1
C1 5Ω Is
2Ω l Ω
10V
(a) 2.8 and 36 (b) 7 and 119 +
(c) 2.8 and 32 (d) 7 and 80 Vs 2A
[2013] -
Chapter 1 Basics of Network Analysis | 1.17
In parallel, voltage remains same, so the voltage across 20. In the circuit shown below, the current I is equal to
1Ω remains 10 V.
10
=
i1 = 10 A j4 Ω -j4 Ω
1
+ 6Ω
Voltage across 2Ω = 10 V 14 0 A
0
10 -
∴i2 = =5A 6Ω 6Ω
2
Applying KCL at A, −2 + If + i2 + i1 = 0
IS = −13 A (a) 1.4 ∠0°A (b) 2.0 ∠0°A
VA = 10 V = VS = VA + 10 = 20V (c) 2.8 ∠0°A (d) 3.2 ∠0°A [2011]
Hence, the correct option is (d). Solution: (b)
18. The current in the 1 Ω resistor in Amps is Applying delta to star conversion,
(a) 2 (b) 3.33
(c) 10 (d) 12 [2013]
Solution: (c) j4 Ω -j4 Ω
10
Current in 1 Ω resistor is = =
I1 = 10 Amp 14 0 A
0
2Ω 2Ω
1
Hence, the correct option is (c).
19. If VA - VB = 6 V, then Vc - VD is 2Ω
R VA 2 Ω VB R
Zeq = (2 + 4j) || (2 – 4j) + 2
R R -
R R 1Ω R +
10V Zeq = 7Ω
R 2 Ω VB RR
VA V 14∠00
+ - Vc V0 I= = = 2∠0°A
5V
R
2A
-
Zeq 7
R 10V
R R 1Ω R +
(a) -5 V (b) R2 V Hence, the correct option is (b).
(c) 3 V + - Vc V(d)
0
6 V [2012] 1 1. In the circuit shown, the power supplied by the voltage
5V 2A
Solution: (a) source is
1Ω
R VA 2 Ω VB R
R R - 1Ω 1Ω
R R 1Ω R 10V
+
R + 10V
-
+ - Vc V0
5V 2A 1A
−1Ω 2A
1Ω
Since VA – VB is known, we can replace the left and right
half as shown.
(a) 0 W (b) 5 W
2Ω (c) 10 W (d) 100 W [2010]
A B
Solution: (a)
N1 1Ω N2 3+i i
3A
C 2A D 3A
+
Total current = A5A 1Ω 2Ω
through - 10V
B in anti-clock wise 2+i
1A
direction 2A
∴VCD = −5 N1 × 1 = −5V 1 Ω N2
Hence, the correct option is (a).
1Ω
3A
C 2A D
1.18 | Network Theory
j10 Ω j2 Ω
j10 Ω
R2
Va = × 10 = 5 V
1 + R2
Z R
j10 Ω Vc ( s)
H ( s) = is
Vi ( s)
Z
10k Ω 10mH
Impedance of the circuit will be given by
V0(t) 100 µ F V0(t)
Z = X L1 + X L2 + X L3 + 2 M 23 − 2 M13
Z = j5 + j2 + j2 + 2 × 10j – 2 × 10j
Z = 9 j Ω
1 6
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) 2 6 6
(b) 10
2 3. If R1 = R2 = R4 = R and R3 = 1.1 R in the bridge circuit s + 10 s + 10 s + 10 s + 106
2 3
R δL
V1(s) 1 V0(s)
SC
10k Ω 10mH
Writing in s-admin, 5
(a) W (b) 1 Ω
6
R δL
6 3
V0(s) (c) W (d)
W [2003]
V1(s) 1 5 2
SC
Solution:(a)
i
i 3
Appling KVL in given circuit a i
3
1 i
Vi ( s) = I ( s) R + sL + i
sc 3
6
I ( s) 2
Vi ( s) = ( s LC + sCR + 1) i
sc b
i
I ( s) 3
V0 ( s) =
SC Equivalent resistant can be calculated as ratio of volt-
1
V0 ( s) 1 age to current across terminal
∴ = = LC
Vi ( s) s 2 LC + sCR + 1 L 1 i i i
s2 + s + Vab = × 1 + × 1 + × 1
R LC 3 6 3
V0 ( s) 106 Vab 5
= 2 Req = = Ω
V ( s) s + 106 s + 106 i 6
i
Hence, the correct option is (d). Hence, the correct option is (a).
2 7. The current flowing through the resistance R in the cir-
25. The transfer function H ( s) = V0 ( s) of an R-L-C
cuit in the figure has the form P cos 4t, where P is
Vi ( s)
M=0.75 H
106 1/10.24 F
circuit is given by H ( s) = 2 6
.
s + 20 s + 10
The Quality factor (Q-factor) of this circuit is R=3.92 Ω
3Ω
(a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 5000 [2004]
Solution: (b) V=2cos4t +
20 V
Transfer function is given as,
106 (a) (0.18 + j 0.72)
H ( s) =
s 2 + 20 s + 106 (b) (0.46 + j 1.90)
Comparing parameters with standard equation (c) -(0 18 + j 1.90)
(d) (0.23 - 0.35 j) cos 4t [2003]
W02
f Solution: (d)
s 2 + 0 s + w02
Q Here the value of inductance is not g iven we can ignore
it
f0 f
= 20 ⇒ Q = 0 2 cos 4t
Q 20 I1 = = 0.67 cos 4t i.e.ω = 4
3
3
So f 0 = 103 ⇒ Q = 10 = 50 − jω M − j 4 × 0.75 I1
I2 = =
20 R − [ j / ωC ] 3.92 − 2.56 j
Hence, the correct option is (b). − j 3 × 0.67Cos 4t 3.92 + 2.56 j
= ×
3.92 − 2.56 j 3.92 + 2.5 j
26. Twelve 1 Ω resistances are used as edges to form a = (0.23 − 0.35 j )Cos 4t
cube. The resistance between two diagonally opposite
corners of the cube is Hence, the correct option is (d).
1.20 | Network Theory
28. If the three-phase balanced source in the figure delivers Appling KCL to calculate e0
1500 W at a leading power factor 0.844. then the value e0 − 80 e0 e0 − 16
of ZL (in ohm) is approximately + + =0
12 12 6
ZL ZL e0 = 28 V
3 PHASE
400 V
Hence, the correct option is (d).
BALANCED ZL
SOURCE 3 0. For the circuit in the figure, the voltage V0 is
2Ω 2Ω
(a) 90 ∠32.44° (b) 80 ∠32.44° +
-
-
4V 2V
(C) 80 ∠-32.44° (d) 90∠-32.44° - +
V0
[2002] 2Ω
+
Solution: (d)
Power delivered = 3VP I P COSq (a) 2 V (b) 1 V
3VP I P cos θ = 1500 (c) -1 V (d) None of these
[2000]
V V
3 L L cos θ = 1500 Solution: (d)
3 3Z L
V
15 Ω
N1 N2
(a) 0 A (b) 4 A
1Ω
(c) 1 A (d) None of these
[1997] + +5V-
10 V 4Ω 1Ω 2A
Solution: –(c) (a) -105 V (b) + 105 V
+ 4Ω 1Ω 2A (c) -15 V (d) + 15V [1993]
10 V + 4Ω 1Ω 2A
10 V –
–
Solution: (a)
+ U + 10 V - V
10 V 4Ω 1Ω 2A
– 5Ω
15 Ω
N1 N2
2.5 V 4Ω 4Ω 1Ω 2A +5V-
2.5 V 4Ω 4Ω 1Ω 2A 1Ω
2.5 V 4Ω 4Ω 1Ω 2A
2H For network 1 2H 1Ω
2Ω 1F
1Ω
1F
12 Ω 1
y1 (b) = s + +
2 s +2 Ω
1 1 1F
2Ω 1F 1F N1 +2
s 1F N1
2
2s + 2s + 1
1F N1 y1 (b) = 1F N1
2s + 1
2H 1Ω
2H 1Ω
2H 1Ω
1H
2H 2H 1Ω
1Ω 1H
2Ω 1F
1H 1H
N2
2Ω 1F N
2Ω 1F 1F N 12
N2 N2
2Ω 2Ω 1F
1F
For network 2
1 1 1+ s
y2 ( b ) = + 2H = 1Ω
1Ω 1Ω 2s + 1 1 2s + 1
2+ 1Ω
1Ω s
1H
1Ω 1Ω 1Ω
1Ω
N2
2Ω 1F
1F N3
1F N3
N3 1F N3
1F
1Ω 2H
1Ω
1Ω 12H
Ω
For network 3 2H
1Ω 2H 1Ω
1 1+ s
y3 (b) = s + = s+
1 s +1+ s
1+
N4 1
1F 1+ N
s 1F
1F N 34
2s2 + 2s + 1 1F N4
1F N4 y3 (b) =
(a) N1 and N2 (b) N2 and N4 2s + 1
(c) N1 and N3 (d) N1 and N4
[1992] 1Ω 2H
Solution: (c)
To calculate identical driving point function we need to
calculate driving point admittance for each network (for
parallel branches admittance can be easily calculated)
2H 1Ω 1F N4
2Ω 1F
For network 4
1 2s2 + s + 1
1F N1 y4 ( b ) = s + =
2s + 1 2s + 1
Hence, the correct option is (c).
2H 1Ω
1H
Chapter 1 Basics of Network Analysis | 1.23
0 0.5 1 1 (m sec)
-1 Solution:
i
2 × 0.5 +2 -2 +2 -2
=1
t I I I
0 0.5 1.5 V2 AB = VAC + VCB = × 1 + × 1 =
12 4 3
I p = 1A
I I 2I
∴VAB = V1 AB + V2 AB = + =
3 3 3
VAB 2
∴ RAB = = Ω
Five-marks Questions I 3
1. An infinite grid is built up by connecting in the manner
indicated in figure, where each branch represents one
ohm resistor. Calculate the effective resistance between
the nodes A and B.
Chapter 2
Sinusoidal Steady State
1
One-mark Questions ω= , we get the value from which the ratio
( RLC )
1. In the circuit shown, V is a sinusoidal voltage source. of IL/IR can be evaluated.
The current I is in phase with voltage V. The ratio Current across the inductor is
Vc 100Vc
amplitude of voltage across the capacitor is_______. IL = −3
⇒ IL =
jω10 × 10 ω
amplitude of voltaage across the resistor [2017]
Current across resistance will be
5Ω 5H I V V
I R = 10c ⇒ I R = c
10
At resonance,
V ∼ 5F
1 1
ω= = = 107
−9 −7
10 × 10 × 10 10
2. The figure shows an RLC circuit with a sinusoidal The required ratio of current across inductor and resist-
current source. ance is
IL 100V 107 1000 1
IR IL IC = = = = 0.316
IR V 10 10 7 10
Im sin ω t R L C
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.316).
10 Ω 10 mH 10 μF
3. A series RC circuit is connected to a DC voltage source
at time t = 0. The relation between the source voltage
At resonance, the ratio |IL|/|IR| i.e., the ratio of the mag- Vs, the resistance R, the capacitance C, and the current
nitudes of the inductor current phasor and the resistor i(t) is given below:
current phasor, is _____. [2016] t
1
Solution: Resistance R = 10 ohms
Inductance L = 10 mH
Vs = Ri (t ) +
C ∫ i (t )dt
0
Capacitance C = 10 microfarad (µF)
We know that voltage across all the elements remain Which one of the following represents the current i(t)?
constant (a) I(t)
IL +
10 mH 10 μF t
Im sin ω t 10 Ω (b)
Vc I(t)
IR
–
(c)
I(t) 1
R.
1 SC
V1 ( s) = R + I ( s) + I ( s)
SC 1
R+
t SC
(d)
I(t) 1 + SCR R
V1 ( s) = I ( s) + I ( s)
SC 1 + SCR
t 1
t Vi = V p cos ,W =
RC RC
[2014]
Solution: (a) 1 + jωCR R
Vi ( s) = I ( s) + I ( s)
I ( s) jω C 1 + jω CR
V ( s) = RI ( s) +
SC
(1 + j ) R R
V ( s) Vi ( s) = + I ( s)
I ( s) = ; V(s) = 1/5 j 1+ j
1
R+
SC V ( s)
I ( s) = (1 + j )
1 3R
I ( s) =
1 1
R s + V0 ( s) = R || I ( s)
RC SC
1 −t / RC R
i (t ) = e
R
V0 ( s) = SC I ( s)
Hence, the correct option is (a). 1
R+
SC
4. The circuit shown below is driven by a sinusoidal input
vi = Vp cos(t/RC). The steady output v0 is V1 ( s)
V0 ( s) =
3
Vi (t ) V p t
V0 (t ) = = cos
3 3 RC
W = 1/RC
Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) (Vp/3)cos(t/RC) (b) (Vp/3)sin(t/RC) 5. For a parallel RLC circuit which one of the following
(c) (Vp/2)cos(t/RC) (d) ( V p / 2 ) s i n ( t / R C ) statements is NOT correct?
[2011] (a) The bandwidth of the circuit decreases if R is
Solution: (a) increased
(b) The bandwidth of the circuit remains same if L is
increased
(c) At resonance, input impedance is a real quantity.
(d) At resonance, the magnitude of input impedance
attains its minimum value [2010]
Solution: (d)
1
B.W. = for parallel R-L-C
RC
R+ 1
SC At resonance, impedance is maximum in parallel
1
V1(s) ~ (R SC ) R-L-C.
Hence, the correct option is (d).
6. The condition on R, L and C such that the step response
y(t) in the figure has no oscillations is
1.26 | Network Theory
Solution: (a)
i(t)
V(t) R L C
1 L L
R≥
(a) R≥
(b) i(t) = V(t) . Y
2 C C
1 1
L 1 i (t ) = V (t ) + + jωC
R≥2
(c) R=
(d) R jω L
C LC
[2005] 4
i(t ) = sin 2t 3 + + j × 2 × 3
Solution: (c) 2
Z=
R C
≥1 i(t ) = sin 2t [3 − 2i + 6 j ]
2 L
i(t ) = sin 2t [3 + 4 j ]
L 4
∴R > 2 i(t ) = 5 sin 2t ∠ tan −1 = 5 sin( 2t + 53.1°)
C 3
Hence, the correct option is (c). Hence, the correct option is (a).
7. In a series, RLC circuit, R = 2 kΩ, L = 1 H, and 9. For the circuit shown in the figure, the time constant
1 RC = 1 ms. The input voltage is vi(t) = 2 sin103t. The
C= µF
400 output voltage v0(t) is equal to
R
The resonant frequency is
1
(a) 2 × 104 Hz (b) × 10 4 Hz
π Vi(t) C V0(t)
(c) 10 Hz
4
(d) 2π × 10 Hz
4
[2005]
Solution: (b)
(a) sin(103t - 45°) (b) sin(103t + 45°)
4
1 10 (c) sin(10 t - 53°)
3
(d) sin(103t + 53°)
f = = Hz
2π LC TC [2004]
Hence, the correct option is (b). Solution: (a)
8. The circuit shown in the figure, with
1 1
R = Ω, L = H, C = 3 F has input voltage V(t) = sin
3 4
2t. The resulting current i(t) is
i(t) 1
jωC
V0 (t ) = − Vi (t )
1
V(t) R L C R+
jωC
1
V0 (t ) = 2 sin 103 t
1 + jωCR
(a) 5 sin (2t + 53.1°)
(b) 5 sin (2t – 53.1°) V0(t) = sin(103 t – 450)
(c) 25 sin (2t + 53.1°) Hence, the correct option is (a).
(d) 25 sin (2t – 53.1°) [2004]
Chapter 2 Sinusoidal Steady State | 1.27
1 mA RMS
C
R L
P1 = V1 I1 cos φ
______. [2015]
4Ω 0.1 mH
P1
I1 = = 54.34∠36.86
+ V1 cos φ
10 cos ω t 1μF
(Volts) – P = VI2
I 2 = 43.47∠ − 36.86°
Solution:
We know for a RLC series circuit I = I1 + I 2 = 78.25 + j 6.25
1 L P = VI* = 230 (78.25 – j6.25)
Q=
R C
P = (18 – j1.5) KVA
1 10 −4 10 Hence, the correct option is (b).
Q = = = 2.5
4 10 −6 4
5. A periodic variable x is shown in the figure as a func-
VC = QV∠–90° tion of time. The root-mean-square (rms) value of x
is________. [2014]
|VC| = 2.5 × 10 = 25 V
Hence, the correct Answer is (24 to 26).
3. In the circuit shown, the average value of the voltage Vab
(in Volts) in steady state condition is _______. [2015]
1 μF
1 kΩ b a 1 mH 2 kΩ
– +
5π sin(5000t) Vab
5V
Solution:
0.408
T
1
0 + Vab + 0 – 5 V = 0 RMS Value =
T ∫
η 2 (t )dt
Vab = 5 V 0
jωC jωC I
2
VA =
2 + 3RCjw VA − 20∠0° VA V
+ + A =0
jω L 1 1
VA 1
Y = = jω C
2 2 + 3RCjω
− j j
1 VA +1+ = − j
A(ω ) = 20 20
4
1 1 V = − j = 1∠ − 90°
A
=
4 4 + ( qw 2 R 2C 2 ) VA
I= = 1∠ − 90° A
1
2
w= Hence, the correct option is (b).
3 RC
9. An AC source of RMS voltage 20 V with internal
Hence, the correct option is (b). impedance Zs = (1 + 2j)Ω feeds a load of impedance
7. Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils have Q fac- ZL = (7 + 4j)Ω in the figure below. The reactive power
tors q1 and q2 at the chosen operating frequency. Their consumed by the load is
respective resistance is R1 and R2. When connected in (a) 8 VAR (b) 16 VAR
(c) 28 VAR (d) 32 VAR [2009]
Chapter 2 Sinusoidal Steady State | 1.31
Solution: (b) 10 3
(a) ∠90o A
2
(b) 10 3
∠ − 90o A
2
(c) 5∠60° A
(d) 5∠-60° A [2005]
Solution: (a)
5∠0° + i1 = 10∠60°
20∠0° 10
I= = = 2∠ − 368i
(1 + 2 j ) + (7 + 4 j ) 4 + 3 j i1 = 10∠60° − 5∠0°
Reactive power = I2XL = 4 × 4 = 16 VAR 10 3
i1 = < 90° A
2
Hence, the correct option is (b).
10. In the AC network shown in the figure, the phasor volt- Hence, the correct option is (a).
age VAB (in volts) is 1 2. Consider the following statements S1 and S2
S1: At the resonant frequency the impedance of a series
R-L-C circuit is zero.
S2: In a parallel G-L-C circuit, increasing the conduct-
ance G results in increase in its Q factor.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE
(b) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE
(c) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE
(d) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE [2004]
Solution: (d)
(a) 0 (b) 5∠30° Both the statements are false.
(c) 12.5∠30° (d) 17∠30° [2007] Correct S1: At resonant frequency, impedance is mini-
Solution: (d) mum for series R-L-C
Correct S2: In parallel G-L-C, increasing G decreases ϑ
factor.
Hence, the correct option is (d).
13. An input voltage v(t ) = 10 5 cos (t + 10º) + 10 5
(t + 10°) V is applied to a series combination of resist-
ance R = 1 Ω and an inductance L = 1 H. The resulting
steady-state current i(t) in ampere is
(a) 10cos(t + 55°) + 10cos(2t + 10° + tan- 12)
(a)
(b)
=0 E = Em0
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Em
2R2 1 5. In the given figure, A1, A2 and A3 are ideal ammeters. If
A1 reads 5A, A2 reads 12 A, then A3 should read
Em
2R2 I2 R
A1
= A3
C
(c) I2 A2
=0 =
~
Em Em Em 100 sin w
E = Em0
2R2 2R2 2R2
(a) 7 A (b) 12 A
(d)
=0
(c) 13 A (d) 17 A [1993]
Em E = Em0
2R2 Solution: (c)
Em Given I A= I= 5A
1 R
2R2
I A= I= 12A
Em I2 2 C
VI
18. The resonant frequency of the series circuit shown in
VA
+ o + o figure is
+ M = 1H
+
V
o VC
o
2H 2H 2F
VR
1 1
V (a) Hz (b) Hz
4p 3 4p
1 1
(c) Hz (d) Hz
2p 10 4p 2
VC [1990]
(a) equal to the resonance frequency Solution: (b)
(b) less than the resonance frequency M = 1H
(c) greater than the resonance frequency
(d) not zero [1992]
Solution: (b)
Since the current is leading voltage, it behaves as a
2H 2H 2F
capacitive circuit.
IR I
I= Equivalent inductance will be given as
=
V R
Leq = L1 + L2 – 2M
V
Leq = 2 + 2 – 2 = 2H
1 1 1
j= = = Hz
2π LC 2π 2 × 2 4π
VC
Hence, the correct option is (b).
So, voltage across capacitor will be greater than volt- 1 9. The half-power bandwidth of the resonant circuit of
age across inductor figure can be increased by:
VC > VL
IXC > IXL
R1
XC > XL
1 C R2
> ωL
ωC L
1
ω2 < ⇒ ω < wr
LC
(a) increasing R1 (b) decreasing R1
Hence, the correct option is (b).
(c) increasing R2 (d) decreasing R2
17. In a series RLC high Q circuit, the current peaks at a
[1989]
frequency
(a) equal to the resonant frequency Solution: (a) and (d)
(b) greater than the resonant frequency Selectivity ∝ Q
(c) less than the resonant frequency
(d) none of the above is true [1991] f
Q=
B.W
Solution: (a)
In series RLC circuit at resonance frequency, imped- f 1
Q = B.W or B.W ∝
ance is minimum. So, the current is maximum. Q
Hence, the correct option is (a).
1.34 | Network Theory
1
B.W ∝
selectivity
If R1 → 0 and R1 → ∞
then circuit will have only L and C element and has
selectivity.
HPBW can be reduced by decreasing selectivity and
vice versa.
[2002]
So, by increasing series resistance R1 and decreas-
Solution:
ing parallel resistance R2 the half power BW can be
(a) Let L5 be the equivalent inductance for the combi-
increased.
nation of L3 and L4 as shown in below figure.
Hence, the correct option is (a) and (b).
0.5 F
1 1 2
1F
~ 2 sin 100t
The coupling is series aiding
1 1 1H
L5 = L3 + L4 + 2M34
0.5 F
= 1 + 4+ 4 = 9H
(a) zero (b) one (b) The circuit for calculating the equivalent induct-
(c) two (d) three [1987] ance Le across the points A and B is shown in below
figure.
Solution: (a)
Five-marks Questions
1. For network in figure, R = 1 kΩ, Ll = 2H, L2 = 5H1 L3
= 1H, L4 = 4H and C = 0.2µF. The mutual inductances
are M12 = 3 H and M34 = 2H. Determine
(a) the equivalent inductance for the combination of L3
and L4. For loop 2,
(b) the equivalent inductance across the points A and B E0
in the network. (0.5 + j 2) + E0 = I1 (1 − j )
(c) the resonant frequency of the network. 0.5
Chapter 2 Sinusoidal Steady State | 1.35
⇒E0(2 + j4) = I1(1 – j) (1) 4. A coil with a quality factor (Q) of 10 is put in series
KCL at node E2 with a capacitor C1 of 10 µF, and the combination is
found to draw maximum current When sinusoidal volt-
E0
⇒ I = I1 + (2) age of frequency 50 Hz is applied. A second capaci-
0.5 tor C2 is now connected in parallel with the capacitor.
E2 = I1(1 – j) (3) What should be the capacitance of C2 for the combined
For loop 1, circuit to act purely as a resistance for a sinusoidal
E1 = jI + E2 = 10 20° (4) excitation at a frequency of 100 Hz? Calculate the rms
current drawn by the combined circuit at 100 Hz if the
⇒ JI + I1(1 – J) = 10ej20°(5) applied voltage is 100 V(rms). [1999]
From equation (2) and (5), Solution:
jE0
(1 − j ) I1 + jI1 + = 10e j 20° (6)
0.5
⇒ I1 + 2JE0 = 10eJ20°
⇒ I1 = 10ej20° – 2jE0(7)
From equation (1) and (7),
⇒ E0(2 + J4)=(10ej20° – 2JE0
⇒ E0(4 + J6)=(1 – J)10ej20° 1
5(1 − j ) j 20° f r = 50 Hz =
⇒ E0 = e 2π LC1
2 + j3
1 1
=1.96e – j81.3°V(8) ⇒L= =
2
4π C1 (50) 2
4π × 10 × 10 −6 × 2500
2
From equation (1),
E0(2 + j4) = (1 – j1)I1 = 1.013 H.
2 + j4 ω0 L
⇒ I1 = E0 = 6.2e j 27.13° A (9) Q= = 10
1 − j1 R
C2 × 10 1
⇒ = 2.5 ⇒ ω0 =
C2 + 10 LC
⇒ 10C2 = 2.5C2 + 25 1
⇒ f0 =
⇒ 7.5 C2 = 25 2π LC
25
⇒ C2 = = 3.33 µ F R ω02 RC 2
7.5 y= +
R 2 + ω02 L2 1 + ω02 R 2C 2
V 100
∴ I rms = rms = = 3.14 A Ans
R 31.8 2 1
5. Determine the frequency of resonance and the resonant Put ω0 =
LC
impedance of the parallel circuit shown in figure. What RC
happens when L = CR2? R L
∴y = +
L = CR2? 2 L R 2C
R + 1+
C L
RC RC 2 RC
⇒y= + =
R 2C + L R 2C + L R 2C + L
1 R 2C + L
⇒ Z = =
y 2 RC
If, L = R2C
R 2C + R 2C
[1998] ∴Z = =R
2 RC
Solution:
So, at L = R2C, the circuit resonant at infinite number of
1 R − jω L frequencies.
yL = =
R + jω L R 2 + ω 2 L2 6. In the circuit of figure all currents and voltages are
R ωL sinusoids of frequency ω rad/sec.
= 2 2 2
−j (a) Find the impedance to the right of (A, B) at ω = ∞
R +ω + L R + ω 2 L2
2
rad/sec and ω = ∞ rad/sec.
1 jωC (b) If ω = ω0 rad/sec and i1(t) = Isin(ω0t)A1 where I is
yC = = positive, ω0 ≠ 0, ω0 ≠ ∞, then find I, ω0 and i2(t).
1 1 + jω RC
R+
jωC
jωC (1 − jω RC )
=
1 + ω 2 R 2C 2
ω 2 RC 2 ωC
2 2 2
+j 2 2 2
1 + ω R C 1 + ω R C
[1997]
⇒ y = yL + yC
Solution:
For resonance, Im(y) = 0
(a) At w = 0
−ω L ωC XL = ωL = 0 short circuit
⇒ + =0
R 2 + ω 2 L2 1 + ω 2 R 2C 2
1
XC = = ∞ ⇒ open circuit
2 2 2 2 2 2
ωc
⇒ L(1 + ω0 R C ) = C ( R + ω0 L )
⇒ RAB = 1||1 = 0.5Ω
2 2 2 2 2 2
⇒ L + ω0 R C L = R C + ω0 L C At ω → ∞
ω20 LC (R2C – L) = R2 C – L XL = ωL → ∞, ⇒ open circuit
1 1
⇒ ω02 = XC = = 0 ⇒ short circuit
LC ωC
Chapter 2 Sinusoidal Steady State | 1.37
V1 (t ) 190 1
i1 (t ) = = sin ωt = I sin ωt ⇒ω =
Z AB 17 RC
190 1
or f =
⇒I = A 2π RC
17
8. Write down the mesh equations of the following net-
V (t ) V (t ). jω0 10 sin ωt .i work in terms of i1(t) and i2(t). Derive the differential
i1 (t ) = = =
4 4 + jω0 4+i equation for i1(t) from these and Sove it.
1+
jω0
10 10
10 t=0
= sin(ωt + 76°) A +
17 10e-t i1(t) 1H i2(t) 5
-
R
+ + Zth = (2 || j2) = (1 + j1) Ω = 2 ∠45° Ω
Vs IL VL
– – RL = |Zth| = 2 Ω
4 × j2
Load voltage can be expressed as Vthrms = = 2 + 2i = 2 2 ∠45° V
2 + j2
VL = VS – ILR
Vth 2 2 ∠45° 2 2 ∠45°
Load power is PL = VL ⋅ IL I rms = = =
Zth + Rth 1 + j1 + 1.414 2.414 + j1
PL = (VS – ILR) IL
2 2∠45°
To get IL that maximize the power observed by the load I rms = = 1.082 ∠22.5° Amp
2.613∠22.5
dPL
=0 1
dI L Pmax = |I|2.RL = |Irms|2 .RL
2
VS – 2ILR = 0
= 1.655 watts
2ILR = VS
Hence, the correct Answer is (1.6 to 1.7).
Vs
IL = 3. In the circuit shown, the Norton equivalent resistance
2R
(in Ω) across terminals a – b is _____.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1.40 | Network Theory
2Ω 5Ω 5Ω
a
I
+
4I 2Ω 4Ω + 10 Ω
– 5V 25 1A
−
I
b
b
Req Applying KVL,
5 = 5I + 5(I + 1) + 10(I + 1)
Vt
Req = RN = 5 = 20I + 5 + 10
It
|I| = 0.5A
Applying Nodal analysis 6. A source vs (t) = wcos 100 πt has an internal impedance
Vt − 4 I Vt of (4 + j3)W. If a purely resistive load connected to this
+ + I = It source has to extract the maximum power out of the
2 2 source, its value in W should be
Vt – 4I + Vt + 2I = 2It (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 7 [2013]
⇒ 2Vt – 2I = 2It Solution: (c)
Vt R = RS2 + X S2 = 5Ω
but I= L
4
Vt Hence, the correct option is (c)
⇒ 2Vt – = 2It
2 7. The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in the given
3Vt = 4It circuit is
ib
Vt 4
=
It 3
1k Ω 99i
RN = 1.33 Ω
b
9kΩ
Hence, the correct Answer is (1.3 to 1.35).
1
4. Norton’s theorem states that a complex network con- 100 Ω
nected to a load can be replaced with an equivalent 2
impedance
(a) in series with a current source
(b) in parallel with a voltage source (a) 50 W (b) 100 W
(c) in series with a voltage source (c) 5 kW (d) 10.1 kW
(d) in parallel with a current source [2014] [2012]
Solution: (d) Solution: (a)
In parallel with current source 1k Ω A iAB
B
Hence, the correct option is (d) i i
Ith
b A
9k Ω 100k Ω
5. In the figure shown, the value of the current I (in 99i b 1V
Amperes) is_________.
Chapter 3 Network Theorems | 1.41
j30 Ω
Isc
16 0
0
25 Ω −j50
15 Ω (a) 1 W (b) 10 W
Hence, the correct option is (a) (c) 0.25 W (d) 0.5 W [2005]
9. In the circuit shown below, the value of RL such that the Solution: (c)
power transferred to RL is maximum is Vth V2 100
= = th = = 0.25 W
10 Ω 10 Ω 4 RL 4 RS 4 × 100
Hence, the correct option is (c)
10 Ω RL 1 2. A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has a source
impedance consisting of 1 W. resistance in series with
1 H inductance. The load that will obtain the maximum
+ + power transfer is
− 5 − 2V 1A
(a) 1 W resistance
(b) 1 W resistance in parallel with 1 H inductance
1.42 | Network Theory
3 kΩ 4 kΩ Two-marks Questions
A B 1. In the circuit shown in the figure, the maximum power
(in watt) delivered to the resistor R is _____. [2016]
6 kΩ 10 kΩ
4 kΩ
3 kΩ
(a) 4.00 kW (b) 4 11 kW
(c) 8.00 kW (d) 9 00 kW [1995] +
+ 100 V
+ 5V 2 kΩ V0 40 kΩ R
Solution: (a) – –
–
3 kΩ 4 kΩ
A B
Solution:
R 10 kΩ
6 kΩ 4 kΩ
+
200 V 40 kΩ R
–
RAB = 3||6 + 4||4 = 4 kΩ
Hence, the correct option is (a)
15. A generator of internal impedance, ZG, delivers maxi-
Maximum power transfer theorem states that a network
mum power to a load impedance, ZL, only if ZL = .........
will transfer maximum power to load if load impedance
[1994]
will be equal to its internal impedance, i.e., Rth. To find
Solution: RG – jXG Rth disconnect the load and deactivate all independent
Z L = ZG* sources and find the equivalent impedance across the
open circuit.
ZG = RG + JX G
VOC
so Z L = RG − JX G Rth =
I SC
16. If the secondary winding of the ideal transformer
40
shown in the circuit of figure has 40 turns, the number VOC = 200 x
of turns in the primary winding for maximum power 50
transfer to the 2 W resistor will by =
160 V
Chapter 3 Network Theorems | 1.43
ISC = 20 mA 3. In the circuit shown, the voltage Vx (in Volts) is ________.
[2015]
160
Rth = = 8k Ω 5 Vx
20
8 kΩ
+
160 V R 10 Ω
–
+
+
5A Vx 20 Ω 8Ω 0.25 Vx
2 –
⎛ 160 ⎞ –
p=⎜ xR
⎝ 8 + R ⎟⎠
Solution:
For maxima or minima
0.5 Vx
dP
=0
dR
⎡ (8 + R )2 − 2 R (8 + R ) ⎤
⎢ ⎥=0
⎢⎣ (8 + R)2 ⎥⎦
10 Ω
R=8Ω +
+
Vx 20 Ω 8Ω 0.25 Vx
Hence, at load impedance of 8 ohm network will trans- 5A
–
fer maximum power –
pmax =
(160)2 =
160 × 160 800
= = 0.8 W
4 x8 4×8 1000 Redraw the given network
0.5 Vx
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.8).
Vx 10 Ω Vx/4
– +
2. For the circuit shown in the figure, the Thevenin equiva-
lent voltage (in Volts) across terminals a–b is _______. + Vx
[2015] 5A 20 Ω 8Ω
– 4
3Ω a
12 V 1A 6Ω
Applying Nodal analysis.
b
Vx Vx + 5Vx − 0.25Vx
–5 + + =0
Solution: 20 10
3Ω
a
100 = Vx + 2{5.75 Vx}
12 V 1A 6 Ω Vth Vx = 8 V
Hence, the correct Answer is (7.95 to 8.05).
b
4. In the circuit shown in the figure, the angular frequency
Apply Nodal analysis:
w (in rad/s), at which the Norton equivalent imped-
Vth − 12 V ance as seen from terminals b-b' is purely resistive,
− 1 + th = 0 is______.
3 6
1Ω 1F
2(Vth – 12) – 6 + Vth = 0 b
+
3Vth – 24 – 6 = 0 0.5H
0 cosωt (Volts)
Vth = 10 volts -
b
Solution: (c) 4Ω 4Ω
For finding, Vth, I2 = 0 _
Vx +
+
V1 _ 100 V RL
8
(a) 2.4 W (b) W
3
j4
VL1 = × Vs = 80∠90° (c) 4 W (d) 6 W [2009]
j4 + 3
Solution: (c)
Vth = 10VL1 + (3 + 6 j ) I 2 = 800∠90° For maximum power transfer, RL = Req
Hence, the correct option is (c) Applying a source of 1V, we have
6. Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the Vx
4Ω
_ + I1
value of R for which maximum power is transferred
from circuit A to circuit B is
4Ω 4Ω I
2Ω R I − I1 +
1Y
+ + _
10V −j1Ω 3V
_ _
1 = 4I1 + Vx
Circuit A Circuit B Vx = 4(I – I1)
1
∴ Req = = 4−2
(a) 0.8 W (b) 1.4 W I
(c) 2 W (d) 2.8 W [2012] Hence, the correct option is (c)
For RTH :- V
X
1Ω
L
+ 1Ω 2Ω 1A
2i _
Y
Chapter 3 Network Theorems | 1.45
Solution: (a) I1
+ a +
1 0.5l1 5Ω _10V
Zeq = ( s + 1) || 1 + = 1 b
s _
Hence, the correct option is (a)
9. For the circuit shown in the figure, the Thevenin volt- (a) 5 V and 2 W (b) 7.5 V and 2.5 W
age and resistance looking into X–Y are (c) 4 V and W (d) 3 V and 2.5 W[2005]
1Ω Solution: (b)
X 5Ω
I
+ I1
2i _ 1Ω 2A 2Ω + +
a
0.5l1 5Ω _10V
b
_
Y
1 + 2i − V = V + V
10 Ω 5Ω
2 V+1
X
1 + 2i = 2.5 V 1 Ω
i
i = V ⇒ 1++ 20 = 2.5
1Ω
V 2A 2Ω
2i _
0.5V = 1 Rth = 5||5 = 2.5Ω
V = 2 Hence, the correct option is (b)
Y
V 11. In the network of the figure, the maximum power is
Rth = = 2Ω delivered to RL if its value is
1
1.46 | Network Theory
I1 13. Use the data of the figure (a). The current I in the circuit
of figure (b) will be ____.
40 Ω
R2 R2
0.5 l1 20 Ω RL +
R1 R3 R1 R3
50V
− + +
R4 20V
10V 2A i =? R4
40 (a) (b)
(a) 16 W (b) Ω
3 (a) –2 A (b) 2 A
(c) –4 A (d) + 4 A [2000]
(c) 60 W (d) 20 W [2002]
Solution: (c)
Solution: (a)
Since the N/W is reciprocal and linear, doubling voltage
Short–circuit the independent voltage source and apply
will double current
1A sauce in place of RL
i = −4A.
I1 14. The Thevenin equivalent voltage VTH appearing
40 Ω
between the terminals A and B of the network shown in
0.5l1 20 Ω IA the figure is given by
3Ω A
100 0 V
V 0
0.5 J1 + 1 = I1 + j2 −j6 j4 VTH
20
V
0.5 J1 + =1 B
20
V V (a) j16(3 – j4) (b) j16(3 + j4)
0.5 + =1 (c) 16(3 + j4) (d) 16(3 – j4) [1999]
40 20
V + 4V = 80 Solution: (a)
3Ω
V = 16 V A
V
Rth = = 16Ω
1
0
100 0
j2 −j6 j4 VTH
Hence, the correct option is (a)
12. In the figure, the value of the load resistor R which
B
maximizes the power delivered to it is
V = 100∠0°
10 Ω 1H
4j
Vth = 100∠0°×
3+ 4 j
Emcos10t
V2 e jul volts
−
+
SOURCE R =1 Ω (a) Find the Thevenin equivalent of the sub circuit faced
+ 1 by the capacitor across the terminals A, B.
SOURCE −
2 (b) Find Vc(t), t > 0, given vc(0) = 0.
(c) Find i(t), t > 0. [2000]
1.48 | Network Theory
4
i∞ = = 1A
4
τ = RC = 6 sec
i(t) = i∞ + (i0+ – i∞)e–t/τ
VC(σ) = VC(0+) = OV
2
Vc(∞) = 2V = 1 + − 1 e −t / b
3
τ = RthC = 3 × 2 = 6 sec. (Time constant)
1
= 1 − e −t / 6 Aa
3
Chapter 4
Transient Analysis
Vc(t) = Vf + (Vi – Vf) e–t/T
One-mark Questions
= 10 + ( 4 − 10)e − t /T
1. The switch has been in position 1 for a long time and Now consider the figure given below
abruptly changes to position 2 at t = 0.
4Ω 2Ω
3Ω 1 2 4Ω 2Ω
t=0 2Ω
+ +
10 V 2Ω Vc 2Ω 5A
–
0.1 F –
Req
Req = 4 + 2 = 6 Ω
If time t is in seconds, the capacitor voltage Vc (in volts) Time constant
for t > 0 is given by [2016]
(A) 4(1 – exp (–t/0.5)) T = RC = 6 × 0.1 = 0.6 sec
(B) 10 – 6 exp (–t/0.5) The voltage across capacitor can be expressed as
(C) 4(1 – exp (–t/0.6) Vc(t) = 10–6 ⋅ e(–t/0.6)
(D) 10 – 6 exp (–t/0.6) Hence, the correct option is (D).
Solution: As we know that capacitor gets S.C. when 2. In the circuit shown, the current I flowing through the
AC supply is used and remain O.C when the supply is 50 Ω resistor will be zero if the value of capacitor C (in
in form of DC. Here the voltage appearing across C will µF) is ______. [2015]
not die out immediately after switching, instead it will
decay exponentially as given in the expression below. 50 Ω 1 mH 1 mH
3Ω I
+ 1 mH
5π sin(500t) C
10 V 2Ω VC
Solution:
Given network is
– 50 Ω 1 mH 1 mH
I
For time t < 0:
VC = 10 × 2/5 = 4V
V(t) 1 mH C
Vc(0–) = 4 V
For t > 0 :
at t = 0 + :
Zeq
Vc (0 + ) = 4 V
For time t → ∞ Find the equivalent impedance in S-domain
Z2 =
{
SL SL + 1 }2
SC = SL S LC + 1{ } τ = Req.C
Req = (3||2) = 1.2 Ω
SL + SL + 1 2S 2 LC + 1
SC 5
But, given I = 0 C= F
6
So Z2(s) = ∞ or open circuit
5 6
∴ 2S2 LC + 1 = 0 RC = ×
6 5
Sub S = jω and L value
τ = 1 sec
ω = 5000
Vc(t) = 4 + {0 – 4}.e–t/1
–2 ω2LC + 1 = 0
Vc(t) = 4 {1 – e–t} volts
1
LC = at t = 1 sec
2ω 2
Vc(1) = 4 {1 – e–1} = 2.528 V
1
C=
2 Lω 2 Hence, the correct Answer is (2.48 to 2.58).
1
C= −3 4. For maximum power transfer between two cascaded
2 × 1 × 10 × 25 × 106
sections of an electrical network, the relationship
C = 0.02 × 10–3 F between the output impedance Z1 of the first section to
the input impedance Z2 of the second section is
C = 20 µF
(a) Z1 = Z1 (b) Z2 = -Z1
Hence, the correct Answer is (20). (c) Z2 = Z1* (d) Z2 = -Z1*
3. In the circuit shown, switch SW is closed at t = 0. [2014]
Assuming zero initial conditions, the value of Vc(t) (in Solution: (c)
Volts) at t = 1 sec is _____ [2015] Z 2 = Z1* for MPT
t=0
3Ω Hence, the correct option is (c).
+
SW
5. In the figure shown, the ideal switch has been open for
10 V 2Ω 5 vc(t)
6
F a long time. If it is closed at t = 0, then the magnitude
– of the current (in mA) through the 4 kW resistor at t =
0+ is_________. [2014]
Solution: Given all initial conditions are zero
5kΩ 4kΩ 1kΩ
For t < 0, switch was opened
So VC (0–) = 0 V
10V + 10 µF t=0 1mH
-
For t > 0; switch was closed
at t = 0+
Solution: 1.25 mA
VC (0+) = VC(0–) = 0 V
At t = 0−
If t → ∞
5kΩ 4kΩ 1kΩ
circuit is in steady state
3Ω i
+ 10V
10 V 2Ω VC(∞ )
– 10 V
i= = 1 mA
10 kΩ
2 × 10
VC (∞) = = 4V At t = 0 switch gets
2+3 5kΩclosed4kΩ 1kΩ
V
10V 5V
5kΩ 4kΩ 1kΩ
i
10V
+ +
10V 5V
4 µF
VI(t) 4K 1 µF VI(t)
5 – –
I= = 1.25 mA
4
(a) 8e-1/0.004 volts
6. In the following figure, C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors.
(b) 8(1 - e-t/0.004) volts
C1 had been charged to 12V before the ideal switch S is
closed at t = 0. The current i(t) for all t is (c) 8 u(t) volts
(d) 8 volts [2006]
S t=
0
Solution: (c)
As R1C1 = R2C2
Z2
C1 C2
V0 = V1 (t ) = 0.8 ×10 u(t )
i(t) Z1 + Z 2
V0 = δ u( −1)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) zero 9. A 2 mH inductor with some initial current can be
(b) a step function represented as shown below where s is the Laplace
(c) an exponentially decaying function Transform variable. The value of initial current is
(d) an impulse function [2012]
Solution: (d)
I(s)
R = 0 ⇒ T = 0 ⇒ capacitor allows sudden change of
voltage through it when impulse response is found i.e.
excitation = δ(t) 0.002s
1.52 | Network Theory
1H 1 1 1 1
I ( s) = = − ×
s( 2 + s) s s + 2 2
V(t) i(t) 2Ω 1
i (t ) = 1 − e −2t
2
At t = 0, i(t) = .5
Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a) 1 1. In the figure, the switch was closed for a long time
before opening at t = 0 The voltage Vx at t = 0 + is
t=0
2.5A
20 Ω
5H
(b)
20 Ω
– +
Vx
(a) 25 V (b) 50 V
(c) -50 V (d) 0 V [2002]
Solution: (c)
Steady state, iL(0−) = 2.5A
V
(c)
2.5A
20 Ω
2.5A
20 Ω
– V +
∴V = −2.5 × 20 = −50V
(d)
The circuit is given. Assume that the switch S is in posi-
tion 1 for a long time and thrown to position 2 at t = 0.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
12. A ramp voltage, v(t) = 100 t volts, is applied to a RC
differentiating circuit with R = 5 kΩ and C = 4µF. The
maximum output voltage is
(a) 0.2 volt (b) 2.0 volts
(c) 10.0 volts (d) 50.0 volts
[1994]
[2004] Solution: (b)
Solution: (c) dv
= = 2V
V RC
1 dt
V1 (t ) = U (t ) → V1 ( s) =
s Hence, the correct option is (b).
Chapter 4 Transient Analysis | 1.53
S –
1Ω 1H
10 V +
– 1 mH 10 μF VC
+
Solution: Consider the figure given below The steady state magnitude of the capacitor voltage Vc
200 kΩ
(in volts) is _____.[2016]
Solution: Inductance L = 1 mH,
Voltage Vc = 10 × 10–6 F,
+ Resistance R = 1 ohm
1V 1H
– Energy from inductor transfers to capacitor
1 2 1
LI = CV 2
2 2
As per circuit diagram given above we have 1 1
× 10 −3 × 100 = × 10 × 10 −6 × Vc2
IL (o–) = IL (o+) = 0 2 2
For time t > 0: Vc = 10 4 = 100 volts
As t → ∞
1 Hence, the correct Answer is (100 volts).
IL (∞) =
A 4. In the circuit shown, the switch SW is thrown from
2
position A to position B at time t = 0. The energy (in µJ)
L 1
t = = = 0.5 sec taken from the 3 V source to charge the 0.1 µF capaci-
R 2 tor from 0 V to 3 V is [2015]
We know that: SW
3V 120 Ω B A
i(t) = IO (1– e–t /t )Amp
t=0
=
0.5 (1 –e–t/0.5) 0.1 μF
At t = 0.5 sec
IL (0.5) = 0.5 (1– e–1) (A) 0.3 (B) 0.45
= 0.316 (C) 0.9 (D) 3
Hence, the correct answer is 0.284 to 0.348. Solution: For t < 0:
2. The switch in the circuit, shown in the figure, was open at t = 0 , the switch connected to position A
–
For t > 0:
5Ω
i(t) at t = 0+. The switch was connected to position B.
VC(0+) = VC(0–) = 0 V
t=0
5Ω
↑ 10 A If t → ∞,.VC(∞) = 3 V
2.5 H τ = Rc = 120 × 0.1 × 10–6 = 12 µ sec
{ } { }
VC(t) = Vo 1 − e − t τ = 3. 1 − e − t τ volts
1.54 | Network Theory
dVc (t )
iC(t) = C .
dt
⎧d⎫
{ }
= 3 × 0.1 × 10 −6 ⎨ ⎬ 1 − e − t τ
⎩ dt ⎭
0.3 × 10 −6 − t τ
ic (t ) =
τ
e{ }
0.3 − t τ
ic(t) = .e 5 2
12 (a)
I (t ) = (1 − e −t /τ ), τ = m sec
3 3
We know Instantaneous power of source = V(t) ⋅ i(t)
5 2
⎧ 0.3 ⎫ I (t ) =
(b) (1 − e −t /τ ), τ = m sec
P(t) = 3. ⎨ ⋅ e − t τ ⎬ 2 3
⎩ 12 ⎭
5
0.3 − t τ I (t ) = (1 − e −t /τ ), τ = 3 m sec
(c)
= ⋅e 3
4
5
∞ ∞
0.3 − t τ I (t ) =
(d) (1 − e −t /τ ), τ = 3 m sec
E = ∫ p.dt = ∫ ⋅e 2
4
0 0 [2014]
0.3 0.3
= {τ } = × 12 μ J Solution: (a)
4 4
E = 0.9 µJ
5
V ( s) −
Applying KCL, 6 + V ( s) + V ( s) = 0
R1 R2 SC
R1 = 1 kΩ, R2 = 2 kΩ, C = 1 μF
[2014]
1 5
Solution: 10 mF V ( s) 1 + + s =
2 6
For series R-L-C, θ = 1 L V ( s) =
5
R C 3
s s+
R C 2
ξ=
2 L 10 10
V ( s) = +
3s 3
2 C
2 3 3 +
ξ =1⇒ = 2
R L
10 − t
2
4 V (t ) = 1 − e 3
=C = L 10 mF 3
R2
V (t ) 5 − t
3
6. In the figure shown, the capacitor is initially uncharged. i (t ) = = 1 − e 2 mA
Which one of the following expressions describes the R2 3
current I(t) (in mA) for t > 0?
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Chapter 4 Transient Analysis | 1.55
V= 5=
ix
500
= 31.25V i = 0.75A (t = 0) = 0.375 A
x L
16 2
At t = ∞ iL = 0.5A (t = ∞)
8. In the circuit shown below, the initial charge on the
− tR
capacitor is 2.5 mC, with the voltage polarity as indi-
iL (t ) = i(∞) + i(0) − i(∞) e
L
cated. The switch is closed at time t = 0. The current i(t)
tR
at a time t after the switch is closed is −
iL (t ) = 0.5 − 0.125e
L
∑
n
(a) ( −1) tu(t − nT )
n=0
100 1 ∝
I ( s) = ×
s 1
; C = 16 μF
eq
u (t ) + 2
(b) ∑ (−1) u(t − nT )
n
+ 5 n =1
Sceq ∝
i (t ) =
100 −t ×1250
×e
tu(t ) + 2
(c) ∑ (−1) (t − nT )u(t − nT )
n =1
n
5
∝
i(t ) = 20e −1250t
∑
(d) 0.5 − e
− ( t − 2 nT )
+ 0.5e −( t − 2 nT −T )
11. The time domain behaviour of an RL circuit is repre- n=0 [2008]
sented by Solution: (c)
di The waveform of voltage VC(t) is as shown:
L + Ri = V0 (1 + Be− Rt/L sin t )u(t )
dt
V0
For an initial current of i(0) = the steady-state value
R
of the current is given by
V
(a) i(t ) → 0
R
2V0 VC(t) = tu(t) – 2(t – T) u(t – T) + 2(t – 2T) u(t – 2T)
i(t ) →
(b) ∞
R
V
VC (t ) = tu(t ) + 2 ∑ (−1) (t − nT )u(t − nT )
n
i(t ) → 0 (1 − B )
(c) n =1
R Hence, the correct option is (c)
V0 Common Data for Questions 9 and 10
i(t ) →
(d) (1 + B)
R The following series RLC circuit with zero initial con-
[2009] ditions is excited by a unit impulse function δ(t).
Chapter 4 Transient Analysis | 1.57
Solution: (b)
1 s
VR ( s) = =
1 2
s + s +1
s +1+ s
1 1
s+ −
VR ( s) = 2 2
2 2
13. For t > 0, the output voltage Vc(t) is 1 3
s + +
1 3 2 2
(a) 2 − 2t − t
e −e 2
3 1 1
s+
1
VR ( s) = 2 − 2
(b) 2 - 2t 2 2
te 1 3
2
1 3
3 s + + s + +
2 2 2 2
1
3
2 − t
(c) e 2 cos t
3t 1 −t / 2 3t
3 2 VR (t ) = e −t / 2 cos = sin
2
e
2 3
1
2 − 2t 3
(d) e sin
2
t Hence, the correct option is (b).
3
[2008] 15. In the circuit shown, Vc is 0 volts at t = 0 sec. For t > 0,
Solution (d) the capacitor current ic(t), where t is in seconds, is given
1 1 by
VC ( s) = ×
s 1
+ s +1
s
1/s 1
1× 2
= 2
s + s +1 ( s + s + 1)
s
1
VC ( s) = 2 (a) 0.50 exp (-25 t) mA
2
1 3
s + 2 + 2 (b) 0.25 exp (-25 t) mA
(c) 0.50 exp (-12.5 t)mA
3t (d) 0.25 exp (-6.25 t) mA [2007]
2 −1 / 2
VC (t ) = sin
2
e
3 Solution: (a)
We know that i(t ) = i(∞) + [i(0) − i(∞)]e −t / PC
Hence, the correct option is (d).
At infinity capacitor will behave as output and i(∞) = 0
14. For t > 0, the voltage across the resistor is
For finding i(0), S.C. the capacitor.
− 3 − t
1
1
(a) e 2 − e 2 ∴ iC (0) =
10
= 0.5 mA
3
20
1
− t 3t 1 3t T = ReqC ( 20 || 20) kΩ × 4 …F = 40 ms
(b) e 2 cos −
2
sin
2 3 −25t
∴ iC (t ) = 0.5e mA
1
2 − t 3t Hence, the correct option is (a).
(c) e 2 sin
3 2
16. A square pulse of 3 volts amplitude is applied to C-R
1 circuit shown in the figure. The capacitor is initially
2 − t 3t
cos uncharged. The output voltage V2 at time t = 2 sec is
2
(d) e 2
3 (a) 3 V (b) -3 V
(c) 4 V (d) -4V
[2008]
1.58 | Network Theory
-V (b)
(a) -V
2R R
-V
(c) (d) zero [2003]
4R
Solution: (a)
In steady state,
[2005]
As RC = 100 μs ⇒ steady state will be reached in
i1 (t) = i2(t) = 0
approx. 500 μs and at 2s, it will be in state.
VC (0−) = V
∴VC = 3V, V2 = −VC = −3V
At t = 0+
Hence, the correct option is (b).
17. The circuit shown in the figure has initial current 1L (0)
= 1 A through the inductor and an initial voltage vc(0-)
= -1 V across the capacitor. For input v(t) = u(t), the
Laplace transform of the current i(t) for t > 0 is
−V
∴4 =
2R
Hence, the correct option is (a).
19. I1 (s) and I2 (s) are the Laplace transforms of i1 (t) and
i2 (t), respectively. The equations for the loop currents
s s+2 I1 (s) and l2 (s) for the circuit shown in the figure, after
(a) 2 (b) 2 the switch is brought from position 1 to position 2 at t
s + s +1 s + s +1
= 0, are
s−2 s−2 1
(c) 2 (d) 2 [2004] R + Ls + Cs − Ls
I ( s)
V
s + s +1 s + s +1 (a) 1 = s
1 I ( s)
Solution: (b) − Ls R + 2 0
Cs
∞
di 1
V (t ) = Ri(t ) + L
dt
(t ) +
C∫i(t )dt 1
R + Ls + Cs − Ls
I ( s)
V
−
0 (b)
1 = s
1 I 2 ( s)
I (1) VC (0 + ) − Ls R+ 0
V ( s) = RI ( s) + sLI ( s) − LI (0 −1 ) + + Cs
SC s
1
s+2 R + Ls + Cs − Ls I1 ( s) − V
∴ I ( s) =
s
s2 + s + 1
(c) =
1 I 2 ( s)
Hence, the correct option is (a). − Ls R + Ls + 0
Cs
Chapter 4 Transient Analysis | 1.59
∞
1
R + Ls + Cs
− Ls I1 ( s) V
∫
E = i 2 Rdt = 16J
(d) = s 0
1 I 2 ( s)
− Ls R + Ls + 0 Hence, the correct option is (b).
Cs
2 1. The voltage VC1, VC2 and VC3 across the capacitors in the
[2003]
circuit in figure, under steady state, are respectively.
Solution: (c)
(a) 80 V, 32 V, 48 V (b) 80 V, 48 V, 32 V
(c) 20 V, 8 V, 12 V (d) 20 V, 12 V, 8
[1996]
KVL in loop 1:-
Solution: (b)
I (b) R + V + I (b). 1 + J ( s) − I ( s) OL = 0 At steady state, L → S.C. and C → O.C.
SC
1 1 1 2
s
KVL in loop 2:-
1
I 2 ( s) − I1 ( s) sL + I 2 ( s) R + I 2 ( s). = 0 (2)
SC
∴From (1) and (2)
1
R + sL + SC − sL I1 ( s) −V
VC1 = 100 ×
40
= 80 V
= s 50
1 I 2 ( s)
− sL R + sL + 0 3
SC V
C2 = 80 × = 48V
2+3
Hence, the correct option is (c).
VC3 = 80 − 48 = 32V
20. In the circuit of the figure the energy absorbed by the 4
W resistor in the time interval Hence, the correct option is (b).
2 2. For the compensated attenuator of figure, the impulse
response under the condition
R1C1 = R2C2 is
(a) 36 Joules
(b) 16 Joules
(c) 256 Joules
(d) None of the above [1997]
1
Solution: (b) (a) R2 [1 − e R1C1 ]u(t )
R1 + R2
VC (∞) = 10V R2
V2 (t ) =
(b) δ (t )
VC (0) = σ V R1 + R2
VR = 10 – 6 = 4V R
(c) 2 u(t )
IR = 1A R1 +R2
i(t ) = i(∞)t + [i(0) − i(∞)]e −t / PC R
1
(d) 2 e R1C1u (t )
t /δ R1 + R2
i (t ) ∞ = e
[1992]
1.60 | Network Theory
Solution: (b)
V2 (b) Z 2 ( s)
Five-marks Questions
=
V1 (b) Z 2 ( s) + Z1 ( s)
1. The switch in figure, has been in position 1 for a long
R2 time and is then moved to position 2at = 0.
Z 2 ( s) =
SC2 R2 + 1 (a) Determine Vc(0+) and IL(0+)
dv (t )
R1 (b) Determine c at t = 0+
Z1 (b) = dt
SC1 R1 + 1 (c) Determine Vc(t) for t > 0.
R1C1 = R2C2
V2 ( s) R2
∴ =
V1 ( s) R1 + R2
R2
V2 (t ) = δ (t )
R1 + R2
Hence, the correct option is (b).
[2002]
23. A 10 Ω resistor, a 1 H inductor and 1 µF capacitor are
connected in parallel. The combination is driven by a 2. The circuit shown in figure is operating steady–state
unit step current. Under the steady-state condition, the with switch S1 closed. The switch S1 is opened at t = 0.
source current flows through: (a) Find iL (0+)
(a) the resistor (b) Find e1 (O+).
(b) the inductor (c) Using nodal equations and Laplace transform ap-
(c) the capacitor only proach, find an expression for the voltage across
(d) all the three elements [1989] the capacitor for all t > 0.
Solution: (b)
In steady state, current flows through the inductor
Hence, the correct option is (b).
24. If the Laplace transform of the voltage across a capaci-
1
tor of value of F is
2 [2001]
s +1 Solution: at t = 0−
VC ( s) =
s + s2 + s + 1
3
8( S 2 + 8S + 32) 16 S
= −
S ( S 2 + 8S + 32) S ( S 2 + 8S + 32) (a) Find V0 for t ≤ 0 and as t → ∞.
(b) Write an expression for V0 as a function of time for
8 16 0 < t < ∞.
= − 2
5 S + 8S + 32 (c) Evaluate V0 at t = 25 µsee. [1999]
1.62 | Network Theory
Solution:
(a) At steady state capacitor behave as open circuit
V0– = 2 × 5 = 10V
(b) V0t = V0–=10V
10 20
V∞1 = 2 × ×5 = 3 V
10 + 5
V∞ due to 25V
5 125 25 (1) Current increases monotonically with time.
V∞11 = 25 × = = (2) Current decreases monotonically with time.
5 + 10 15 3
(3) Current remains constant at V/R
V∞ = V1∞ + V11∞
(4) Current first increases, then decreases.
= 20 + 25 = 15V (5) No current can ever flow. [1996]
3 3 6. The circuit shown in figure below, is initially in its
VC(t) = V∞(V0 – V∞)e–t/τ steady–state. The switch is opened at t = 0.
= 15 + (10 – 15)e−t/t (i) Determine the initial voltage, Vc(0), across the ca-
pacitor, and the initial current, iL(0–), through the
= 15 – 5e−t/t inductor.
τ = Req C (ii) Calculate the voltage, vL(t), across the inductors for
10 t > 0.
τ = × 2.5 × 10 −6
3
25
= × 10 −6 = 8.33 × 10 −6
3
VC(t) = 15 – 5e–t/833 × 10–6
=15 – 5e–1.2 × 105tV
5 –6
(c) V0(25µsec) = 15–5e–1.2 × 10 × 25 × 10
V0 = 15 – 5 (0.05)
= 14.75 V
[1994]
5. Match each of the items A, B and C on the left, with
an appropriate item on the right. In toe circuit shown Solution: (i) At steady state
in Figure (a) to (c), assuming initial voltages across
capacitors and currents through the inductors to be
zero at the time of switching (t = 0), then at any time
t > 0,
12
iL (0 − ) == 4A
1+ 2
VC(0) = 2 × iL(0−) = BA
(ii) for t > 0, drawing the equivalent circuit in s–do-
main
2 Vc(s)
104 2
s
12 10s
s
VL(s)
+ +
8/s 40
- -
Chapter 4 Transient Analysis | 1.63
[1991]
Solution:
10
i0− = i0+ = 5 = 2 A
i∞ = 0
Req = R1 + R2 = 5 + 5 = 10Ω
[1993]
L = 2H
Solution:
L 2 1
5 τ= = =
i0+ = = 1.67 mA R 10 5
3k
i(t) = i∞ + (i0+ – i∞)e–t/τ
i∞ = 0 = 0 + (2 – 0) e−t/15
τ = RC = 2e−5t; + ≥ 0
C = 0.5ϑ or i(t) = 2.e−5tu(t)
Chapter 5
Two Port Networks
According to reciprocity theorem
One-mark Questions Response
= Constant
1. Consider the two-port resistive network shown in the fig- Excitation
ure. When an excitation of 5 V is applied across Port 1, V
∴ = contant
and Port 2 is shorted, the current through the short circuit I
at Port 2 is measured to be 1 A (see(a) in the figure). V V
∴ 1= 2
Now, if an excitation of 5 V is applied across port 2, I1 I 2
and Port 1 is shorted (see (b) in the figure), what is the 5 5
current through the short circuit at Port 1? [2019] =
I2 1
1Ω 2Ω
∴ I 2 = 1 Amp
Port 1 RΩ Port 2 Hence, the correct option is (C)
2. Consider the sequence x[n] = anu[n] + bn u[n], where
u[n] denote the unit step sequence and 0 < |a| < |b| < 1.
1Ω 2Ω The region of convergence (ROC) of the z transform of
x[n] is [2016]
1A (A) |z| > |a| (B) |z| > |b|
5V +
– RΩ
(C) |z| < |a| (D) |a| < |z| < |b|
(a) Given x [ n] = a n ⋅ u ( n) + b n ⋅ u ( n)
Solution:
1Ω 2Ω
It is a right-sided signal.
1Ω 2Ω
1A RΩ + 5V ∴ ROC z > b
–
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Chapter 5 Two Port Networks | 1.65
⎡7 + j 4 0.5 ⎤
(D) ⎢ 30.5 7 − j 4 ⎥ 1‘ 2‘
⎣ ⎦
Solution: 4 −2 1 −0.5
(a)
S (b)
S
Za Zb −2 4 −0. 5 1
+ +
1 0.5 4 2
(c)
S (d)
S
V1 Zc V2
0.5 1 2 4
– – [2010]
1.66 | Network Theory
DR + A B + ARL n:1
(c) L (d)
BRL + C D + CRL
[2006] 1
(a)
n (b)
n
Solution: (d)
I1 I2 (c) 1
n2 (d) [2005]
n2
V1 V2
Solution: (b)
I 2 V1 n
For transformer, = =
J1 V2 1
ABCD parameters will be written by
V1 = AV2 – BI2 V1 = AV2 – BI2
I1 = CV2 – DI2 and V2 = −I2RL I1 = CV2 – DI2
V1 AV2 − BI 2 − AI 2 RL − BI 2 V1 I1 V2 1
= = = A = =
n, D = =
I1 CV2 − DI 2 −CI 2 RL − DI 2 V2 I =0 I 2 V =0 V1 n
2 2
E1 5Ω 10 Ω E2
r0 β I1 r0
Chapter 5 Two Port Networks | 1.67
(a) -0.2 mho (b) 0.1 mho 12. The short-circuit admittance matrix of a two-port net-
(c) -0.05 mho (d) 0.05 mho [2001] work is
Solution: (c) 0 −1 / 2
V1 20 Ω V2 1 / 2 0
Q 0
− −
CLK
(a) -1/2 (b) +1/2 A
(c) -3/2 (d) +3/2 [1999]
Solution: (a) (A) A = 1 A=0
A=0
I1 I2
Q=0 Q=1
+ +
R R A=1
(B) A=0
V1 R V2 A=0
A=1
− −
Q=0 Q=1
Solution: Solution:
I(t)
C
v(t) +
– R R
D Q 1
C
B C
ClK Q 0
R
ClK V(t) = 2 sin (1000t)
A
R=1K
C = 1mF
B = AQ + AQ Using Y to D conversion for the viner circuit.
+
D = B⋅Q
C/3
= AQ + AQ ⋅ Q C/3
= A⊕ Q + Q R
R C/3
( )
(D) 2 sin(1000 t) + 2 cos(1000 t) i t = 3 sin 1000t + cos 1000t
Hence, the correct optiojn is (A).
Chapter 5 Two Port Networks | 1.69
1000 Ω 9
I(t)
T
for t =
C 2
Vs +
–
1
t=0
i (1.5) =
9
[ 3 − 1.5]
2
2
Where R0 = 1 W and C = 1 F. We are also given that T = 1 3 1
= × = = 0.25
3 R0C and the source voltage is VS = 1 V. If the current 9 2 4
at time t = 0 is 1 A, then the current I(t), in amperes, at
Hence, the correct answer is 0.25.
time t = T/2 is _____ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
[2019] 4. The ABCD matrix for a two-port network is defined by:
Solution: ⎡ v1 ⎤ ⎡ A B ⎤ ⎡ V2 ⎤
i(t) R(t) ⎢ I ⎥ = ⎢C D ⎥ ⎢ − I ⎥
⎣ 1⎦ ⎣ ⎦⎣ 2⎦
+ I1 2Ω 2Ω I2
Vs +
– Vc
– + +
t=0
V1 5Ω V2
t
R (t ) = R0 1 − 0 ≤ t ≤ T – –
T
R0 = 1Ω The parameter B for the given two – port network (in
C = 1F ohms, correct to two decimal places) is ______.[2018]
T = 3R0C Solution: Consider the figure given below
VS = 1V I1 2Ω 2Ω I2
+ +
t
R (t ) = 1⋅ 1 −
3 V1 5Ω V2
1
R (t ) ⋅ i (t ) = ∫ i (t ) dt = VS – –
C TA TB
t
1 − ⋅ P (t ) + ∫ i (t ) dt = 1.
From the above figure
3 ⎡ ZA ⎤
On differentiation w.r. to t ⎢1 + Z ZA ⎥
TA = ⎢ B ⎥
t di (t ) i (t ) ⎢ 1 ⎥
1 − 3 dt − 3 = −i (t ) ⎢ Z 1 ⎥
⎣ B ⎦
di (t ) ⎡1.4 2 ⎤
(3 − t ) + 2i = 0 TA = ⎢ ⎥
dt ⎣0.2 1 ⎦
di −2
= dtt ⎡2 2⎤
i (3 − t ) TB = ⎢
⎥
⎣0 1 ⎦
Integrating path sides we get
ln i = 2 ln (3 − t ) + ( nCC ) . T = [TA ][TB ]
i (t ) = C (3 − t )
2
⎡ 2.8 4.8⎤
T = ⎢ ⎥
i ( o) = 1 A ⎣0.4 1.4 ⎦
1.70 | Network Theory
3Ω –
6Ω
Input port Output port
Z22 = (3 || 6)
= 2Ω
6Ω V1 V
Z12 = =− 2
I2 I2
⎡ 2 −2⎤ ⎡ 2 2⎤
⎢ −2 2 ⎥ (B)
(A) ⎢ 2 2⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ = −2 Ω
⎡9 −3⎤ ⎡ 9 3⎤ Hence, the correct option is (A).
⎢6 9 ⎥ (D)
(C) ⎢6 9 ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 6. The 2-port admittance matrix of the circuit shown is
given by [2015]
Solution: 5Ω
3Ω
10 Ω 10 Ω
Input port Output port
V1 3Ω 6Ω
3Ω 6 24
(a)
9 8
(b)
42 9
3Ω 3Ω 8 24
1 2
(c) 42 6
(d)
9 6
6 24
6 60
2Ω
2
1
2Ω 2Ω [2014]
Solution: (c)
Applying Y to Z conversion
Solution:
3Ω 10 Ω
For parallel combination, equivalent admittance is
given by [Y] = [Y1] + [Y2]
1 1 −1 6Ω
3 + 3 3
[ y1 ] =
−1 1 1
+
3 3 3
9Ω 6Ω
1 1 −1 [Z ] =
+ 2 6Ω 24Ω .
[ y2 ] = 2 2
−1 1 1
+
Hence, the correct option is (c)
2 2 2 Common Data for Questions 3 and 4
5 −5 With 10 V dc connected at port A in the linear nonre-
3 ciprocal two-port network shown below, the following
6
∴ [ y] = were observed.
−5 5 (i) 1 W connected at port B draws a current of 3 A.
6 3
(ii) 2.5 W connected at port B draws a current of 2 A.
5 5 +
I1 = V1 − V2
3 6
A B
−5 5
I 2 = V1 + V2 −
6 3
When I2 = 0 then I1 = 4A
(a) 1/90 (b) -1/90 V1 = 6V1 V2 = 6V
(c) -1/99 (d) -1/11 [2011] V1 6
Solution: (d) =
Z11 = = 1.5
I1 I =0 4
Y parameters can be written as 2
I2 = Y21V1 + Y22V2 V2 6
= Z 21 = = 1.5
−V2 I1 I =0 4
V2 = −I2RL = −100I2 ⇒ I 2 = 2
100
−V2 1.s 4.s
\ = 0.01V1 + 0.1V2 [Z ] =
100 1.s 1.s
Solution: (a) 15. For the lattice circuit shown in the figure, Za = J2W
Z Z and Zb = 2Q. The values of the open circuit impedance
h11 = Z11 − 12 21 = −3 parameters
Z 22
− Z 21 Z Z11 Z12 are
h21 = = −1
Z 22 Z 21 Z 22
V1
=
h12 = 3 Zb
V2 I =0
1 1 3
I2
h22 = 0.67 Za
V2 I1 = 0
−3 3 Za
[h] =
−1 0.67
2 4
Hence, the correct option is (a)
Zb
14. The h parameters of the circuit shown in the figure are
I1 10 Ω I2
1 − j 1 + j
(a)
+ + 1 + j 1 + j
V1 20 Ω V2 1− j 1+ j
(b)
−1 + j 1 − j
− −
(c)
1 + j 1 + j
0.1 0.1 10 −1 1 − j 1 − j
(a)
(b)
−0 . 1 0 . 3 −1 0.05 1 + j −1 + j
(d) [2004]
30 20 10 1 −1 − j 1 + j
(c)
(d)
Solution: (d)
20 20 −1 0.05
Za + Zb Za − Zb
[2005] 2 2
Solution: (d) For lattice N/W [ Z ] =
Za − Zb Za + Zb
I1 I2 2 2
10 Ω
Za = 2j, Zb = 2Ω
+ + 1 + j −1 + j
[Z ] =
V1 20 Ω V2 −1 + j 1 + j
Hence, the correct option is (d)
- -
16. The impedance parameters Z11 and Z12 of the two-port
V1 = 30I1 + 20I2 network in the figure are
V2 = 20I1 + 20I2 1 2
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω
I2 = −20I1 + V2 and I2 = h21I1 + h22V2
1Ω 1Ω
1
∴ h21 = −20 = −1, h22 =
20 20
1 2
20(V2 − 20 I1 )
V1 = 30 I1 + Z11 = 2.75 W and Z12 = 0.25W
(a)
20
Z11 = 3W and Z12 = 0.5 W
(b)
V1 = 10I1 + V2
Z11 = 3Q and Z12 = 0.25 W
(c)
∴ h11 = 10, h12 = 1 Z11 = 2.25 W and Z12 = 0.5 W
(d) [2003]
Hence, the correct option is (d)
1.74 | Network Theory
V 2Ω
1 2
Solution: 2Ω
(a) 1Ω 3Ω
2Ω E1 = 6I1 + 4I2 – 10E1 ⇒ 11E1 = 6I1 + 4I2
Ω
Using Δ-Y conversion
1 6 4 6
2Ω
E1 = J1 + I 2 ⇒ Z11 = Ω
2Ω 11 11 11
V
11 2 2
2Ω 1Ω 3Ω
2Ω E2 = 4J1 + 4I2 – 10E1
1Ω 6 4
2Ω E2 = 4 I1 + 4 I 2 − 10 J1 + J2
11 11
1 2
60 40
E2 = 4 I1 + 4 I 2 − J1 − J2
11 11
2Ω 0.5 Ω 0.5 Ω 2Ω
−16 4I −16
E2 = J1 + 2 ⇒ Z 21 = Ω
11 11 11
0.25 Ω
Hence, the correct option is (c)
2Ω 0.5 Ω 0.5 Ω 2Ω
1 8. In the circuit of the figure given below, the equivalent
impedance seen across terminals A, B is
0.25 Ω
Z + Z3 Z3
∴ [Z ] = 1 A 2Ω 4Ω
Z3 Z 2 + Z3 j3 Ω
Zeq
2.75 0.25
[Z ] =
0.25 2.75 2Ω
−j4 Ω
B 4Ω
Hence, the correct option is (a)
17. The Z parameters Z11 and Z21 for the two-port network
(a) (16/3) W
in the figure are
(b) (8/3) W
(c) (8/3 + 12 j) W
I1 2Ω I2 (d) None of the above [1997]
4Ω Solution: (b)
E1 E2
Z1 Z3
= ⇒ Bridge is balanced
10E1 Z2 Z4
8
∴ Zeq = ( 2 || 4) + ( 2 || 4) = Ω
3
−6 16
Z11 =
(a) Ω; Z 21 = Ω Hence, the correct option is (b)
11 11
19. For a two-port network to be reciprocal,
6 4
(b)
Z11 = Ω; Z 21 = Ω (a) z11 = z22 (b) y21 = y12
11 11 (c) h21 = -h12 (d) AD - BC = 0
(c) 6 −16 [1992]
Z11 = Ω; Z 21 = Ω
11 11 Solution: (b) and (c)
4 4 y11 = y12
Z11 = Ω; Z 21 = Ω
(d) [2001]
11 11 h = −h for reciprocal N/W
21 12
Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (b) and (c)
2 0. Two two-port networks are connected in cascade. The
I1 2Ω I2
combination is to be represented as a single two-port
4Ω
network. The parameters of the network are obtained
E1 E2 by multiplying the individual
10E1 (a) z-parameter matrices
(b) h-parameter matrices
(c) y-parameter matrices
(d) ABCD parameter matrices [1991]
Chapter 5 Two Port Networks | 1.75
Solution: Using star–delta conversion 3. Find the current–transfer–ratio, I2/I2 for the network
shown in below figure. Also mark all branch currents.
[1995]
Solution:
[1995]
Solution: ly = lx
lY = lX
V2 = 0→
[1994]
Chapter 5 Two Port Networks | 1.77
V1 1× i1 + 3i1′ + 0 [1996]
h11 = = =y
I1 il Solution:
I 2 I1
h=
21 = = 1
I1 I 2
i′1=0
lx = 0
2ix = 0
1× Rin 1 + Rin + Rin
Rin = 1 + =
1 + Rin 1 + Rin
R2in + Rin = 1 + 2Rin
R2 – Rin – 1 = 0
in
+1 ± 1 + 4 1 ± 5
Rin = =
2 2
V1 = 4I1 + V2
I2 = I1 + 05V2 Rin cannot be negative
1+ 5
Rin = Ω
2
6. The open circuit impedance matrix Zoc of a three–ter-
minal two–port network with A as the input terminal, B
as the output terminal, and C as the common terminal,
2 5
is given as [ Zoc ] =
3 7
Write down the short circuit admittance matrix YSC of
V1 = 1V the network viewed as a two–port network, but now
V2 = − 3L2 taking B as the input terminal, C as the output terminal
l1 = l1 – 1.5 I2 and A as the common terminal. [1996]
2.5 l2=l1 Solution: V1 = 2I1 + 5I2
V2 = 3I1 + 7I2
V −2.5V2
I1 = 2.5 − 2 =
3 3
V1 = 4I1 + V2
−25V2 −10V2
1 = 4 + V2 = + V2
3 3
[2001]
8. Consider the network in figure 1.
(a) Find its short–circuit admittance parameters. −10
(b) Find the open–circuit impedance Z22. V2 = I1
3
I1
⇒ y12 = = −0.3
V2
2
I x = I1
3
V2
⇒ I1 + I 2 = + 2I x
10
V2 4
= + I1
10 3
[2002]
Chapter 5 Two Port Networks | 1.79
V2 1 I2
⇒ I 2 = + I1 ⇒ y22 = =0
10 3 V2
V2 1 −3 0.3 −0.3
= + V2 ∴ [ y ] = Ans.
10 3 10 0.1 0
⇒ I2 = 0
y11 0.3
Z 22 =
(b) = = 10Ω Ans.
| y | 0.03
Chapter 6
Graph Theory and
State Equations
One-mark Questions [3
⎡3S + 13⎤
−2] ⎢ ⎥
H(s) = ⎣ − S + 2 ⎦ = 9S + 39 + 2S − 4
1. The network is described by the model is ( S − 2) ( S + 4 ) ( S − 2) ( S + 4 )
x1 = 2x1 – x2 + 3u 11S + 35
∴ H (s) =
x2 = – 4x2 – u ( S − 2) ( S + 4 )
y = 3x1 – 2x2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
2. In the following graph, the number of trees (P) and the
⎛ Y (s) ⎞ number of cut–sets (Q) are
The transfer function H(s) ⎜ = ⎟ is [2015]
⎝ U (s)⎠ (1)
11s + 35 11s − 35
(A) (B)
( s − 2) ( s + 4 ) ( s − 2) ( s + 4 )
11s + 38 11s − 38 (2) (3)
(C) (D)
( )( )
s − 2 s + 4 ( − 2) ( s + 4 )
s
⎡ 2 −1⎤ (4)
Solution: A = ⎢ ⎥
⎣0 −4 ⎦ (a) P = 2, Q = 2 (b) P = 2, Q = 6
⎡3⎤ (c) P = 4, Q = 6 (d) P = 4, Q = 10
B = ⎢ ⎥ ; C = [3 −2]
⎣ −1⎦ [2008]
D = 0, we know Solution: (c)
H(s) = C. (SI – A)–1. B + D Hence, the correct option is (c)
⎡S − 2 1 ⎤ For given graph, number of tree can be calculated as
(SI – A) = ⎢
⎣ 0 S + 4 ⎥⎦ (1)
1
( SI − A) = .adj ( SI − A)
−1
SI − A
|SI – A| = (S – 2) (S + 4)
(2) (3)
1 ⎡ S + 4 −1 ⎤
(SI – A)-1 =
SI − A ⎢⎣ 0 S − 2⎥⎦
→
1 ⎡ S + 4 −1 ⎤ ⎡ 3 ⎤
∴ H (s) = . [3 −2] ⎢ (4)
( S − 2) ( S + 4 ) ⎣ 0 S − 2⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ −1⎥⎦
Chapter 6 Graph Theory and State Equations | 1.81
Number of trees = 4
[2004]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(4)
(d)
d 2i di Solution: (c)
2 2 + 2 + i(t ) = sin t
(a) Number of independent loops or mess is given by
dt dt
e = b – (n – 1)
d 2i di
(b) 2 + 2 + 2(t ) = cos t b = e + (n – 1) = 5 + (7 – 1) = 5 + 6
dt dt
b = 11
(c) d 2i di Hence, the correct option is (c)
2 2 + 2 + i(t ) = cos t
dt dt
7. The number of independent loops for a network with n
d 2i di nodes and b branches is
(d) + 2 + 2(t ) = sin t [2003]
dt 2 dt (a) n–1
(b) b–n
Solution: (c) (c) b–n+1
Appling KVL for given loop (d) independent of the number of nodes [1996]
Solution: (c)
sin t = 2i + 2di + idt
dt ∫ The number of independent loops for a network with n
nodes and b branches is b – (n – 1) = b – n + 1.
Differentiation:–
Hence, the correct option is (c)
2di(t ) 2d 2 i(t )
cos t = + + i (t )
dt dt 2 Two-marks Questions
Hence, the correct option is (c)
1. Relative to a given fixed tree of a network,
5. Identify which of the following is NOT a tree of the
(a) Link currents form an independent set
graph shown in the figure
(b) Branch currents form an independent set
a
(c) Link voltages form an independent set
(d) Branch voltages form an independent set [1992]
1 2 3 Solution:(a)
b c
Link current forms an independent set.
f Hence, the correct option is (a)
d e g
h Five-marks Questions
4 5
1. Refer to the circuit shown in figure
(a) begh (b) defg
(c) adhg (d) aegh [1999]
Solution: (c)
a
1 2 3
g
Choosing the voltage vc(t) across capacitor, and the
d
current iL(t) through the inductor as state variables, i.e.
Vc (t )
[ X (t )] =
h
5 iL (t )
4
(c) does not form closed loop. So adhg is not a tree. Write the state equation in the from
Hence, the correct option is (c) d
dt [x(t)] = [A ][ × ( t ) + [B][ u(t)] and find [A], [B] and
6. A network has seven nodes and five independent loops.
The number of branches in the network is [u(t)]. [1996]
(a) 12 (b) 12
(c) 11 (d) 10 [1998]
Chapter 6 Graph Theory and State Equations | 1.83
= −4 VC − 2 iL + 1 E (3)
3 3 3
From eq (2) and (3), we get
(a) Write the state equations. 4 2
− −
VC 3 3 VC 1/ 3
X X1 = + [E E]
1
iL 1 1 iL 1/ 6
−
X 2 = A X 2 + B[e(t )] 3 3
X 3 X 3
Chapter 7
Network Functions
One-mark Questions R
+ +
V ( s)
1. The transfer function 2 of the circuit shown below V1
is V1 ( s) C
R1 V0
− −
s2 0.1s 2
= + +
0.2 s 0.2 s 0.2 s
1 10
V0 = RL (finite value) = 5s + + (2)
2 s
VS RL + RS
by comparing (1) and (2)
R = 2Ω
C = 5F
L = 0.1H
Hence, the correct option is (d)
2. Two series resonant filters are as shown in the figure.
Let the 3-dB bandwidth of Filter 1 be B1 and that of
Filter 2 be B2. The value of B1B2 is
At ω = 1
LC
Two-marks Questions
1. The driving point impedance of the following network
Solution: (d) 2( S + 3)
R ∴ Z (S ) = 2
Bandwidth of series RLC circuit = S + 2S + 2
L
R R Hence, the correct option is (b)
B1 = ; B2 =
L1 L2 4. Indicate True/False and give reason for the following
question.
4R
B2 =
L1 5
Z ( s) = represents the input impedance of a net-
2
s +4
B1 1 work. [1994]
=
B2 4 Solution: FALSE.
Hence, the correct option is (d) For Z(s) to represent the input impedance of a pas-
3. The driving-point impedance Z(s) of a network has the sive network, the numerator and denominator degrees
pole-zero locations as shown in the figure. If Z(0) = 3, should not differ by more than 1.
then Z(s) is 5. The necessary and sufficient condition for a rational
function of s, T(s), to be a driving point impedance of
an RC network is that all poles and zeros should be
(a) simple and lie on the negative real axis of the s-
plane
(b) complex and lie in the left half of the s-plane
(c) complex and lie in the right half of the s-plane
(d) Simple and lie on the positive real axis of the s-
plane [1991]
Solution: (a)
Simple and lie on the negative real axis of the s-plane.
3( s + 3) 2( s + 3)
(a) 2 (b) The poles and zeros of the ZRC(s) should be simple and
s + 2s + 3 2
s + 2s + 2 alternate on the negative real axis of the s-plane.
3( s - 3) 2( s - 3) Hence, the correct option is (a)
(c) 2 (d)
2
s - 2s - 2 s - 2s - 3 6. A driving point admittance function has pole and zero
[2003] locations as shown below. The range of s for which the
Solution: (b) function can be realized using passive elements is
From pole –zero diagram Impedance function can be
written as,
K (S − Z )
Z ( s) =
( S − P1 )( S − P2 )
K ( S + 3)
=
( S + 1 + j )( S + 1 − j )
K ( S + 3)
Z (S ) =
( S + 1) 2 − J 2
(a) σ < - 1 (b.) σ > 1
K ( S + 3)
= (c) σ < 1 (d) σ > - 1 [1988]
( S + 1) 2 + 1 Solution: (b)
Z(0) ω =0 = 0 Function can be realized when
σ −1 > 0
3K
⇒ =3⇒ k = 2 σ>1
2
Hence, the correct option is (b)
Unit II
SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
1 Mark Questions - - 5 6 3 2 11 3 3 4 3 4 3 6 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 7 4 3 3 4 5 3 3 4 3 3 3 3 3 4
2 Marks Questions 3 4 - 1 1 2 - 2 3 1 5 3 6 6 3 3 8 5 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 4 1 3 4 3 2 6 3 6 6 3
5 Marks Questions - 2 1 2 4 1 1 - 3 1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Total Marks 6 18 10 18 25 11 16 7 24 11 13 10 15 18 9 7 18 13 8 11 8 13 12 9 11 12 7 9 11 10 7 15 9 15 15 10
Greedy Method 2 2 1 1 1 - 2 2 2 - 1 1 - 1 - - - 1 - 1 - - - - - - 2 1 2 1 -
Dynamic Programming 2 2 1 2 2 3 4 1 1 - 2 5 5 6 1 2 6 3 - - 2 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 1 - -
P and NP Concepts - 4 2 3 2 3 1 1 3 1 2 1 - - 2 1 - 2 2 5 1 4 2 - - - 2 1 - - 1
Miscellaneous Topics - - 1 1 - - 2 - - - - - 2 - 2 - - 2 - - - 1 1 - 1 1 2 2 1 1 1
Chapter 1
Basics of Signals and
Systems
(B) f(x)
One-mark Questions
1. Consider the random process –5 0 +5 x
X(t) = U + Vt
Where U is a zero-mean Gaussian random variable and
V is a random variable uniformly distributed between 0 (C) f(x)
E [x (t)] = E[U + 2 V]
–5 +5
= E[U] + 2 E[V] 0 x
E [U] = 0
∞
Solution: F(x) is an implicit function here and from
E[V ] = ∫
−∞
f v (V )dv
the given figure, f(x) is linear so the result will be in
2 quadratic form. Thus option (c) is correct with –ve
1
= ∫ dv = 1 peak.
2
0 Hence, the correct option is (C).
∴ E[ x(t )] = 0 + 2(1) = 2 3. Which one of the following is an Eigen function of
Hence, the correct answer is (1.9 to 2.1). the class of all continuous time, linear, time invariant
systems (u(t) denotes the unit step function)? [2016]
2. Consider the plot of ƒ(x) versus x as shown below
(A) e jω 0 t u(t ) (B) cos (ω0t)
f(x)
+2
(C) e jω 0 t (D) sin (ω0t)
Solution: e is an Eigen function and also continu-
jωot
–5 0 +5 x
–2
ous, time invariant and linear out of all given option. So
option (C)
Suppose F(x) = f −5x ƒ(y) dy. Which one of the following Hence, the correct option is (C).
sin( 4π t )
is a graph of F(x)? [2016] 4. The energy of the signal x(t) = is _____.
4π t [2016]
(A) f(x)
Solution: The given signal is
sin ( 4π t )
–5 0 +5 x x (t ) = is
4π t
2.4 | Signals and Systems
According to Parseval’s identity, Energy content of x(t) is The filter can be used to approximate a [2016]
∞ ∞
1 (A) low-pass filter (B) high-pass filter
∫ × (ω ) dω
2
∫
2
x(t ) dt =
2π (C) band-pass filter (D) band-stop filter
−∞ −∞
Solution: x[n] → unit delay → x[n – 1]
sin at F .T ⎧1. ω <a
For ←⎯⎯ → Pa (ω ) = ⎨ from the figure
πt ⎩0, ⎧ 1ω >a
1 sin 4π T F .T ⎪ ω < 4π y[n] = 5x[n] – 5x[n – 2]
For ←⎯⎯ → Pa (ω ) = ⎨ 4
4 πt ⎪0,
⎩ ω > 4π y(z) = 5x(z) – 5z–2 X(z)
So
Y ( z)
1
+4π
⎛ 1⎞
2
1 1 H(z) = = 5 − 5 z −2
Energy of x(t) =
2π ∫ ⎜⎝ 4 ⎟⎠ dω = 2π × 16 (8π ) X ( z)
−4π
Putting z = ejω
1
= = 0.25
4 H(ejω) = 5(1 – e–j2ω)
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.25).
As frequency vary from –∞ to +∞, ω varies from –π to +π
sin(t ) sin(t )
5. If the signal x(t) = * with * denoting the At low frequency ω = –π
πt πt
convolution operation, then x(t) is equal to
( )
H e j (−π ) = 5 (1 – 1) = 0
[2016]
At high frequency 2 = π
sin(t ) sin( 2t )
(A)
πt
(B)
2π t ( )
H e j (π ) = 5 (1 – 1) = 0
2 π
2sin(t ) ⎛ sin(t ) ⎞ At intermediate frequency ω =
(C) (D)
⎜⎝ ⎟ 2
πt πt ⎠
⎛ jπ ⎞ ⎛ π
− j 2× ⎞
Solution: We know that convolution of two sinc pulses H ⎜ e 2 ⎟ = 5 ⎜1 − e 2 = 5 (1 – ( –1)) = 10
⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
is again sinc pulse
The given signal is So it is band pass filter
sin(t ) sin(t ) Hence, the correct option is (C).
x(t) = ∗
πt πt 7. Input x(t) and output y(t) of an LTI system are related
sin(t ) by the differential equation y″(t) – y′(t) – 6y(t) = x(t).
Let, x1(t) = If the system is neither causal nor stable, the impulse
πt
response h(t) of the system is [2015]
x(t) = x1(t) ∗ x2 (t) 1 1
(A) e3t u ( −t ) + e −2t u ( −t )
5 5
X(ω) = X1(ω). X2 (ω) = X1(ω)
1 3t 1
(B) − e u ( −t ) + e −2t u ( −t )
∴ X(ω) = X1(ω) 5 5
1 1
x(t) = x1(t) =
sin(t ) (C) e3t u ( −t ) − e −2t u (t )
πt 5 5
1 1
Hence, the correct option is (A). (D) − e3t u ( −t ) − e − u (t )
5 5
6. The direct form structure of an FIR (finite impulse
response) filter is shown in the figure Solution: y″(t) – y(t) – 6y(t) = x(t)
By taking laplace transforms on both the sides
Unit Unit
x[n] S2Y(S) – Y(S) – 6Y(S) = X(S)
delay delay
∫ 1 ⋅ e dt + ∫ −1 ⋅ e − jw0 kt dt
∞
⇒ ak = − jk w0 t
1 t=0
2p 0 d (t ) =
(c) and ∫ d (t ) dt = 1
0 otherwise
1
−∞
1 2
1 e − jk w0 t 1 e − jk w0 t ∞ t=0 ∞
= k w0 + d (t ) =
(d) and ∫ d (t ) dt = 1
2p − j 0 2p j k w0 1 0 otherwise −∞
1 Solution: (d)
= [ 1 − 2e − jkw0 + 2e − 2 jkw0 ]
2p j kw0 d (t ) is an impulse fxn with infinite amplitude at t = 0
and zero amplitude for other values and also the area
1 1 − 2e − j k n / 2 + 2 e − 2 j k p / 2 ∴ w 0 = p under an impulse function is equal to 1.
kw0
2p j 2 Hence, the correct option is (d).
2.6 | Signals and Systems
13. The function x(t) is shown in the figure. Even and odd 1
parts of a unit step function u(t) are respectively.[2005] ⇒ x (t )
2
x(t) 1
∴ xo ( t ) = x( t )
2
1
Hence, the correct option is (a).
t 1 4. The power in the signal
0
p
−1 s( t ) = 8 ( cos ) 20 p t − + 4 sin(15p t ) is [2005]
2
(a) 40 (b) 41
1 1 −1 1 (c) 42 (d) 82
(a) , x( t ) (b) , x (t )
2 2 2 2 Solution: (a)
For a sinusoidal signal Am cos wmt or Am sin wmt
1 −1 −1 −1
(c) , x(t ) (d) , x(t ),
2 2 2 2 Am2
Power =
2
Solution: (a)
82 4 2
x(t )
∴ Power = + = 32 + 8 = 40
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (a).
1
15. Let d (t) denote the delta function. The value of the
∞
t 3t
integral ∫ d (t ) cos 2 dt is
−∞
[2001]
(a) 1 (b) -1
Unit step function
p
For even function, even part is given as, (c) 0 (d)
2
x (t ) + x ( −t ) Solution: (a)
Now, xe (t ) = for a function u(t)
2 As for function f (t)
u (t ) + u ( − t ) 1 ∞
xe (t ) = =
2 2 ∫
−∞
f (t ) d (t ) dt = f (o)
u (−t ) 1/2 ∞
3t 3× 0
So, ∫ d (t ) cos 2 dt = cos2
=1
1 ⇒ −∞
Hence, the correct option is (a).
16. If a signal f (t) has energy E, the energy of the signal f
(2t) is equal to [2001]
1 E
∴ x e (t ) = (a) E (b)
2 2
(c) 2 E (d) 4 E
For odd function,
Solution: (b)
x0 (t ) − x0 ( −t ) u(t ) − u( −t ) 1 ∞
now x0 (t ) = = = x (t ) E= ∫f
2
( t ) dt
2 2 2 −∞
E 1 = ∫ f 2 ( 2t ) dt
1/2 ∞
∞
du E
= ∫f =
2
0
(u)
−∞
2 2
−1/2 Let 2t = u
Then 2 dt = du
∴ E1 = E/ 2
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Chapter 1 Basics of Signals and Systems | 2.7
⎛ t − 1⎞
17. A system with an input x(t) and output y(t) is described A signal g(t) is defined by g(t) = x ⎜ .The average
⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
by the relation: y(t) = T × (t). This s ystem is________. power of g(t) is _____
[2000] Solution: g(t) =
(a) linear and time invariant
g(t)
(b) linear and time varying
(c) non-linear and time invariant
(d) non-linear and time varying
Solution: (b) –2
y(t) = tx(t) –6 –4 0 2 4 6 8 10 t
Let x (t) = x1 (t); then y (t) = t x1 (t).
Similarly for x (t) = x2 (t) ∴ y2 (t) = tx2 (t) –3
∴ y1 (t) + y2 (t) = t [x1 (t) + x2 (t)](1)
Now let x (t) = x1 (t) + x2 (t)
+∞
then y (t) = t [x1 (t) + x2 (t)](2) 1
∫ g (t ) dt
2
Now average power = Lim
As equations (1) and (2) are equal, so it follows super- T →∞ T
−∞
position principle.
Now let x′(t) → ax (t) ⎧ 3
⎪ − x + 3, 0 ≤ t ≤ 4
Then y′(t) = at x (t) Now g(t)T = ⎨ 2
Also a y (t) = at x (t) ⎪⎩ 0 4≤ t ≤ 6
Hence, homogeneity is also satisfied, so, linear system
Period T = 6
Also y (t - to) = (t - to) x(t - to)
4
So, the system is a time varying system. 1 ⎛ 3 ⎞
Hence, the correct option is (b).
So Pav = ∫
60
⎜⎝ − x + 3⎟⎠ dx
2
4
1 ⎡9 2 ⎤
Two-mark Questions = ∫ ⎢ x + 9 − 9x⎥
6 0 ⎣4 ⎦
⎛ 2π ⎞
1. Consider the signal f(t) = 1 + 2 cos(p t) + 3sin ⎜ t +
⎝ 3 ⎟⎠ 1 ⎡ 9 x3 9x2 ⎤
4
⎛π π⎞ = ⎢ . + 9x − ⎥
4 cos ⎜ t + ⎟ , where t is in seconds. Its fundamen- 6 ⎣4 3 2 ⎦0
⎝2 4⎠
tal time period, in seconds, is _____. [2019] 1 ⎡9 4×4×4 9 ⎤
= ⎢ . + 9 × 4 − × 4 × 4⎥
Solution: 6 ⎣4 3 2 ⎦
2Πt Πt Π 1
f (t ) = 1 + 2 cos Πt + 3 sin + 4 cos + = [48 + 36 − 24 × 3]
3 2 4 6
T1
T2 T3
= 14 – 12 = 2
2Π 2Π 2Π Hence, the correct Answer is (2).
T1 = = 2; T2 = = 3; T3 = =4
Π 2Π Π
3 2 3. Let h(t) denote the impulse response of a causal system
f(t) 1
with transfer function .
s +1
T = LCM (T1 , T2 , T3 )
Consider the following three statements
= LCM ( 2, 3, 4) S1: The system is stable
= 12 S2:
n(t +1)
is independent of t for t > 0
Hence, the correct answer is 12. n(t )
2. The waveform of a periodic signal x(t) is shown in the S3: A non-causal system with the same transfer function
figure. [2015] is stable.
x(t)
For the above system [2014]
(a) only S1 and S2 are true.
3
(b) only S2 and S3 are true.
–2 1 4 (c) only S1 and S3 are true
t
–4 –3 –1 2 3 (d) S1, S2 and S3 are true.
–3
2.8 | Signals and Systems
1 − d F ( s)
T ( s) = t . f (t ) ↔
s +1 ds
h(t ) = L−1 [T ( s)] = e −1 d 1 −[ −( 2 s + 1)]
− = 2
That is, a decaying exponential, so the system is stable. ds ( s + s + 1) ( s + s + 1) 2
2
h(t + 1) e − ( t +1) 2s + 1
= − t = e −1 =
h(t ) e ( s + s + 1) 2 2
1 f
sy ( f ) =
(c) sx for the system to be causal. All poles must lie on
2 2 the left half plane. So, for making the system causal s =
1 f j 2p f 2, zero should be added.
sy ( f ) =
(d) sx e
2 2 Hence, the correct option is (b).
7. A causal LTI system has zero initial conditions and
Solution: (c) impulse response h(t). Its input y(t) and output x(t) are
In case of PSD, no effect of shifting takes place. related through the linear constant coefficient differen-
for x(t ) PSD
→ sx ( f ) tial equation.
1 d 2 y(t ) a dy (t )
x( 2t ) → s x ( f / 2)
PSD + + a 2 y (t ) = x (t )
2 dt 2 dt
Let another signal g(t) be defined as
1
x( 2t − 1) → sx ( f / 2) t
2 dh (t )
g (t ) = a 2 ∫ h(t ) dt + + ah(t )
1 dt
s y ( t ) → s x ( f / 2) 0
2
If G(s) is the Laplace transform of g(t), then the num-
Hence, the correct option is (c). ber of poles of G(S) is______. [2014]
1 Solution: 1
5. The unilateral Laplace transform of f(t) is .
s2 + s + 1
Which one of the following is the unilateral Laplace d 2 y(t ) a dy (t )
+ + a 2 y (t ) = x (t )
transform of g (t) = t . f (t)? [2014] dt 2 dt
−s −( 2 s + 1) ( s 2 + a s + a 2 ) y ( s) = x ( s)
(a) 2 (b)
( s + s + 1) 2 ( s 2 + s + 1) 2 y ( s) 1
H ( s) = = 2
s 2s + 1 x ( s) s + a s + a 2
(c) 2 (d)
( s + s + 1) 2 ( s 2 + s + 1) 2 t
dn (t )
Solution: (d) Now g(t) = a 2 ∫ h (t ) dt + + h(t )
0
dt
1
f (3) =
s2 + s + 1
Chapter 1 Basics of Signals and Systems | 2.9
a 2 Properties
G ( s) = + s + a H ( s) P1 = linear but not time invariant
s
P2 = Time invariant but not linear
a 2 + s2 +a s 1 1 P3 = linear and time invariant
= × 2 = sw Relations
s s + as + a 2
s
R1 = y (t) = t2x(t)
Number of poles at G(s) = 1.
R2 = y (t ) = t x(t )
8. The impulse response of a continuous time system is
given by h(t ) = d (t − 1) + d (t − 3). The value of the step R3 = y(t ) = x(t )
response at t = 2 is [2013] R4 = y (t) = x (t - s)
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3 (a) (P1, R1), (P2, R3), (P3, R4)
(b) (P1, R2), (P2, R3), (P3, R4)
Solution: (b) (c) (P1, R3), (P2, R1), (P3, R2)
step response = ∫ Impulse response, dt (d) (P1, R1), (P2, R2), (P3, R3)
∴ step response = u (t-1) + u (t-3) Solution: (a)
At t = 2 step response = u (1) + u(- 1) R1 = y(t) = t2x(t)
As u(t) = 0 for t < 0 ∴u (-1) = 0 a1y1 (t) + a2y2 (t) = t2 [a1x1 (t) + a2x2 (t)]
Hence step response = 1. ∴ Linear system
Hence, the correct option is (b). y(t - t0) = (t - t0)2x(t - t0)
Not time invariant
9. The input x(t) and output y(t) of a system are related as
t R2 : y(t ) = t | x(t ) |
y(t ) = ∫ x(t ) cos(t )dt . The system is [2012] This system is not linear and also time variant
(a) time
−∞ invariant and stable
R3 : y(t) = |x(t)|
(b) stable and not time invariant This system is not linear as if a -ve then ay(t) can be
(c) time invariant and not stable -ve but |ax (t)| = +ve
(d) not time invariant and not stable y (t - t0) = |x (t - t0)
Solution: (d) ∴ No delay, invariant system
t
R4 = y(t) = x(t - 5)
a1y1(t) + a2y2(t) = a1x1(t- 5) + a2x2(t- 5)
y 1 ( t )x =( t − t0 ) = ∫ x( t − t
−∞
0 ) cos( 3 ( t − t0 )) dt
So, linear system
t Also y(t - t0) = x(t - t0 - 5)
y 1 ( t ) = ∫ x( t − t0 )cos( 3 ( t − t0 )) dt So, time-invariant system.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
t − t0
11. A system with input x[n] and output y[n] is given as
y ( t − t0 ) = ∫ x( t )cos( 3t ) dt
5
−∞ y[ n ] = sin p n × ( n ) x[n]. The system is [2006]
∴ System is time variant 6
Also for an I/p like as shown (a) linear, stable and invertible
(b) non-linear, stable and non-invertible
x(t ) (c) linear, stable and non-invertible
(d) linear, unstable and invertible
Solution: (c)
For linearity
5
x( n) = x1 ( n) ⇒ y1 ( n) = sin pn x1 ( n)
6
x(t) cosw0 t will be +ve and hence y(t) will be infinite,
and so an unstable system. 5
For x( n) = x2 ( n) ⇒ y2 ( n) = sin pn x2 ( n)
Hence, the correct option is (d). 6
10. Let x(t) be the input and y(t) be the output of a con- If
tinuous time system. Match the system properties P1, P2, 5
and P3 with system relations R1, R2, R3, R4. [2008] x( n ) = x1 ( n ) + x2 ( n ) ⇒ y( n ) = sin pn
6
( x1 ( n ) + x2 ( n ))
2.10 | Signals and Systems
Solution: (a)
∴ y( n) = y1 ( n) + y2 ( n)
I
Also ay (n) = F[ a x (n)] As the signal is varying at different time instances,
∴ Linear system P
so it is a time variant system.
Also for a bounded I/P we get bounded o/p Also y(n) = x(n + 1), so it depends on future values,
So, stable system I
Now if n = 0, y(n) = 0 hence a non-casual system. For a bounded this sys-
P
n = 2, y(n) = 0 tem provides bound of P. So, it is stable
I
If for different values of , y (n) is same then the sys- Also, this satisfies homogeneity and super position the-
tem is non-invertible. P orem and so it is linear.
Hence, the correct option is (c). Hence, the correct option is (a).
12. Consider the sequence x[n] = [–4 – 5j1 + 2j 4]. 14. An excitation is applied to a system at t = T and its
The conjugate anti-symmetric part of the sequence is response is zero for –∞ < t < T. Such a system is a
[2004] [1991]
⇒ x (a)
CAS ( n ) = [ −4 − 2 ⋅ 5 j 2 j 4 − 2 ⋅ 5 j ] (a) non-causal system
(b) [ -j + 1 j2 -5] (b) unstable system
(c) [-j5 j2 0] (c) causal system
(d) [-4 1 4] (d) unstable system
Solution: (a) Solution: (c)
For a conjugate anti-symmetric part For a system whose o/p is zero at the instant as t < T
I
x ( n ) − x *( − n ) when the is applied on T is termed as causal system.
x CAS ( n ) = P
2 Hence, the correct option is (c).
⇒ x( n) = [ −4 − 5 j 1 + j 2 4]
⇒ x *( − n) = [4 1 − j2 − 4 + 5 j]
Five-marks Question
1. A system having a unit impulse response h(n) = u(n) is
x( n) − x *( − n) 5 5 excited by a signal x(n) = a n u(n). Determine the output
⇒ = −4 − j 2 j 4 − j
2 2 2 y(n) [1996]
⇒x CAS ( n ) = [ −4 − 2 ⋅ 5 j 2 j 4 − 2 ⋅ 5 j ] Solution:
∞
Hence, the correct option is (a). y ( n) = x ( n) * h( n) = ∑ h( k ) . x ( n − k )
1 3. Let P be linearity, Q be time invariance, R be c ausality k = −∞
and S be stability. A discrete time system has the input– given, x(n) = a nu(n)
output relationship. h(n) = u(n)
n
x( n) n ≥1 y (n) = ∑ a n − k for n ≥ 0,
So,
y ( n) = o n=o k =0
x( n + 1) n ≤ −1
n
a n +1 − 1
= a n ∑ a −k = n≥0
where x(n) is the input and y(n) is the output. The above k =0 a −1
system has the properties [2003] = 0 n < 0
(a) P, S but not Q, R
(b) P, Q, S, but not R
(c) P, Q, R, S
(d) Q, R, S but not P
Chapter 2
LTI Systems Continues
and Discrete
Which one of the following statements is true about the
One-mark Questions system?
(A) It is causal and stable
1. Let the input be u and the output be y of a system, and (B) It is casual but not stable
the other parameters are real constants. Identify which (C) It is not casual but stable
among the following systems is not a linear system: (D) It is neither casual nor stable
[2018]
Solution:
d3 y d2 y dy du d 2u
(A) 3 + 2 + a2 + a3 y = b3u + b2 + b1 2 y {n} =
dt dt dt dt dt nx{n}; for 0 ≤ n ≤ 10
(with initial rest conditions) x{n} − x{n − 1}; otherwise
t
y (t) =
(B) ∫ e a(t − r ) β u(τ )dτ The output in both the case is depending on either the
0 present or past values of input, so it is causal and in
(C) y = au + b, b ≠ 0 both the cases, bounded input will lead to bounded out-
(D) y = au put, Hence, stable.
Solution: 4. Consider the following statements about the linear
Hence, the correct option is (C) dependence of the real valued functions y1 = 1, y2 = x
and y3 = x2 over the field of real numbers.
2. A discrete-time all-pass system has two of its poles at
0.25∠0° and 2∠30°. Which one of the following state- I. y1, y2, and y3 are linearly independent on -1 ≤ x ≤ 0
ments about the system is TRUE? [2018] II. y1, y2, and y3 are linearly dependent on 0 ≤ x ≤ 1
(A) It has two more poles at 0.5∠30° and 4∠0°. y1, y2, and y3 are linearly independent on 0 ≤ x ≤ 1
III.
(B) It is stable only when the impulse response is two- IV. y1, y2, and y3 are linearly dependent on -1 ≤ x ≤ 0
sided.
(C) It has constant phase response over all f requencies. Which one among the following is correct? [2017]
(D) It has constant phase response over the entire (A) Both I and II are true
z-plane. (B) Both I and III are true
(C) Both II and IV are true
Solution:
(D) Both III and IV are true
Hence, the correct option is (B)
Solution: Given y1 = 1, y2 = x, and y3 = x2
3. Consider a single input and single output discrete-time
For -1 ≤ x ≤ 0 or 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, the linear combination of y1,
system with x[n] as input and y[n] as output, where the
y2, and y3, ay1 + by2 + cy3 = 0 only when a = b = c = 0
two are related as: [2017]
\ y1, y2, and y3 are linearly independent on -1 ≤ x ≤ 0
n x [ n] , as well as on 0 ≤ x ≤
y [ n] = for 0 ≤ n ≤ 10
x [ n] − x [ n − 1] , \ Both I and III are true Choice (B)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
2.12 | Signals and Systems
1
the output of steady state is _________ [2014]
= ∑ 1.5 = 1.5 + 1.5 Solution: 0
n = 0 x (t ) = −3e −2t u (t )
= 3
Now Energy of x1[n] = Energy of x2[n] s−2
H (s ) =
+∞ s +3
∑ α (0.5) u [n]
n
So 3 = −3
n = −∞ x (s ) =
∞ s+2
= ∑ α (0.5)
n
s − 2 −3
n= 0 Lt y (t ) = Lt Sy (s ) = Lt S =0
x →∞ y →0 y →0
s + 3 s + 2
Chapter 2 LTI Systems Continues and Discrete | 2.13
11. The sequence x[n] = 0.5nu[n], where u[n] is the unit Solution: (c)
For a causal and stable system, all poles must lie within
step sequence, is convolved with itself to obtain y[n.]
+∞ |s| = 1.
Then ∑ y [n ] is ____________
n = −∞
[2014] Hence, the correct option is (c).
2.14 | Signals and Systems
∴ b should be greater than 0, i.e. +ve 18. Convolution of x(t + 5) with impulse function
Hence, the correct option is (d). d(t - 7) is equal to [2002]
16. Which of the following can be impulse response of a (a) x(t - 12) (b) x(t + 12)
causal system? (c) x(t - 2) (d) x(t + 2)
(a) h(t) Solution: (c)
x (t + 5) ⊗ d (t − 7) = x (t − 2)
[f (t ) ⊗ d (t − t 0 ) = f (t − t 0 )]
t Hence, the correct option is (c).
(b) h(t)
1 9. The unit impulse response of a linear time-invariant
system is the unit step function u(t). For t > 0, the
response of the system to an excitation e−atu(t), a > 0
will be [1998]
t
1
(c) h(t)
(a) ae−at (b) a 1− e
− at
( )
(c) a(1 − e−at) (d) 1 − e−at
Solution: (b)
t y (t ) = u (t ) ⊗ e − at u (t )
(d) h(t) [2005] ∞
∫ u(t )e
− at
= u (t −)dt
−∞
t1
e − at
t
1
= ∫ e dt =
− at
= 1 − e − at
a
t
0
−a 0
Solution: (b)
For a causal system h(t) = 0 for t < 0. Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (b). 2 0. Let h(t) be the impulse response of a linear time in
17. The impulse response h[n] of a linear time-invariant sys- variant system. Then the response of the system for any
tem is given by input u(t) is [1995]
h[n] = u[n + 3] + u[n - 2] - 2u[n - 7], t
where u[n] is the unit step sequence. The above system ∫ h(t )u(t − t )dt
(a)
0
is [2004]
(a) stable but not causal d
t
∫ h (t )u(t − t )dt
2
2 (d)
0
1
Solution: (a)
7
y (t ) = x (t ) ⊗ h (t )
h(n)
−3 2 = u (t ) ⊗ h (t )
∞
1 1 − jω 1 − j 2ω
Two-marks Questions H (ω ) = + e + e
3 3 3
1. Two discrete-time signals x [n] and h [n] are both non- 2π
zero only for n = 0, 1, 2 and are zero otherwise. It is if ω = ; H (ω ) = 0
3
given that x [0] = 1, x[1] = 2, x[2] = 1, h[0] = 1.
Let y [n] be the linear convolution of x [n] and h [n]. So, w = 2.0943 rad/sec
Given that y [1] = 3 and y [2] = 4, the value of the Hence, the correct answer is (2.05 to 2.15).
expression (10y [3] + y[4]) is ________. [2017]
3. A continuous time signal x(t) = 4 cos (200 p t) + 8 cos
Given x( n) = {1, 2,1}
Solution: (400 p t), where t is in seconds, is the input to a linear
time invariant (LTI) filter with the impulse response
↑
h( n) = {1, b, c} 2 sin ( 300π t )
h(t ) = , t≠0
↑ πt
600, t = 0
using cross table method
1 b c Let y (t) be the output of this filter. The maximum value
of y(t ) is ____________. [2017]
Solution: The Frequency response of the filter can be
1 1 c
b given as
2
H (ω )
2
−300π 0 300π ω
y(0) = 1; given y (1) = 3
In the input x(t) = 4 cos (200pt) + 8 cos (400pt) only the
⇒2+b=3 ⇒b=1 first component is passed through the system.
given y (2) = 4 Output of the system is
⇒2b+c+1=4 y(t) = 8cos (200pt)
⇒c=4–2–1 y (t ) = 8
⇒c=1
Hence, the correct answer is (7.9 to 8.1).
y (3) = b + 2c = 3
4. Consider an LTI system with magnitude response
y (4) = c = 1
H( f ) =
10y (3) + y (4) = 10 × 3 + 1 = 31. f
1− f ≤ 20 and phase response arg
Hence, the correct answer is (31 to 31). 20
2. Let h [n] be the impulse response of discrete-time lin- 0, f > 20
ear time invariant (LTI) filter. The impulse response is {H ( f )} = −2 f
1 1 1
given by=h(0) = ; h[1=
] ; h[2] = ; and h[n] 0 for n
3 3 3 If the input to the system is
< 0 and n >2. π π π
x(t ) = 8 cos 20π t + + 16 sin 40π t + + 24 cos 80π t +
Let H (w) be the discrete-time fourier transform 4 8 16
(DTFT) of h[n], where w is normalized angular fre-
π π π
quency in radians. Given that H(w0) x=(t0) = 8 cos
and w0π<t + + 16 sin 40π t + + 24 cos 80π t + then the aver-
0 < 20
p, the value of w0 (in radians) is equal to _________. 4 8 16
[2017] age power of the output signal y(t) is ___________.
[2017]
Solution: Given
1 1 1 5. The transfer function of a causal LTI system is H(s) =
h[0] = ; h[1] = ; h[2] = 1/s. If the input to the system is x(t ) = [sin(t ) /π t ]u(t ),
3 3 3
∞
H (ω ) = ∑ h ( n ) e − jω n where u(t) is a unit step function, the system output y(t)
n −∞ as t → ∞ is ___________. [2017]
2.16 | Signals and Systems
π⎞ IT0I = 0
⎛
H(3ω0) = 2cos(3ω0) = 2cos ⎜ 3 × ⎟ = −2
⎝ 3⎠ ∴ so it is not observable
H(–3ω0) = 2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Chapter 2 LTI Systems Continues and Discrete | 2.17
9. The impulse response of an LTI system can be obtained So h[n] is real for all n
by [2015] Hence, the correct option is (A).
(A) Differentiating the unit ramp response. ∞
(B) Differentiating the unit step response. 12. For a function g(t), it is given that ∫ g( t ) = e jwt dt = we −2 w
2
Re(z)
∫ y (t )e
− jwt
dt =
–0.5 0.5 −∞
jw
x –0.5 x
for w = 0
1
∫ y (t )dt =
−
j
= −j
(A) h[n] is real for all n Hence, the correct option is (b).
(B) h[n] is purely imaginary for all n
(C) h[n] is real for only even n 13. Consider a discrete-time signal
(D) h[n] is purely imaginary for only odd n n for 0 ≤ n ≤ 10
x [n ] =
Solution: According to pole zero pattern 0 otherwise
Z4 If y[n] is the convolution of x[n] with itself, the value of
H(z) = y[n] is ___________ [2014]
⎡( Z + 0.5)2 + . (0.5)2 ⎤ ⎡( Z − 0.5)2 + (0.5)2 ⎤
⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦
Solution: 10
4
Z4 Z
= 2 = 4 n for 0 ≤ n ≤ 10
( )( 2
Z + 0.5 − Z Z + 0.5 + Z ) Z + 0.25 x [n ] =
0 otherwise
h(n) = x(n)
H(z) = 1 – 0.25 Z–4 ….
∞ n
Now 14. Let y[n] denote the convolution of h[n] and g[n], where
h[0] = 1 h[n] = (1/2)nu[n] and g[n] is a causal sequence. If y[0]
= 1 and y[1] = ½, then g[1] equals [2012]
2.18 | Signals and Systems
(a) 0 (b) ½
If the input to the above system is the sequence
(c) 1 (d) 3/2 e jpn/4, then the output is [2004]
Solution: (a) (a) 4 2e jpn / 4 (b) 4 2e - jpn / 4
n
(c) 4ejpn/4 (d) −4ejpn/4
1
h ( x ) = u ( n ) g ( n ) = x ( n )u ( n ) Solution: (d)
2
y[0] = 1 y[1] 1/2 g[1] = ?
( )
y ( n ) = H e jw .e jpn / 4 [As per the concept of eigen vec-
tors]
∞ n−k
1
y [n ] = g ( n ) ⊗ h( n ) = ∑ x (k )u(k ) 2
k =−∞
u(n − k )
H e jw =( ) ∑ h(n)e
∞
− jwn
n = −∞
n n−k
y ( n ) = ∑ x ( k )(1/ 2) = −2 2e jw − 2 2e jw + 4 2e −2 jw + 4 2e 2 jw
k =0
= −2 2 × 2 cos w + 8 2 cos 2w
1
y ( 0) = x ( 0) = x ( 0) = 1 = −4 2 cos w + 8 2 cos 2w
2
p
1
1
1− k
1 1 ( )
w = = H e jw = −4 2 .
1
= −4
y (1) = ∑ x ( k ) = x (0) + x (1) 4 2
k =0 2 2 2
∴ y( n ) = −4 e jpn / 4
1 1
= + x (1) ∴ x( 1 ) = 0
2 2 Hence, the correct option is (d).
x=
( 1 ) g=
(1) 0 1 7. The impulse response functions of four linear sys-
tems S1, S2, S3, S4 are given, respectively, by h1(t) = 1
Hence, the correct option is (a).
h2(t) = u(t)
1 5. A discrete time linear shift-invariant system has an
impulse response h[n] with h[0] = 1, h[1] = −1, h[2] = 2, u (t )
and zero otherwise x[n] with x[0] = x[2] = 1 and zero oth- h3 (t ) = h4 (t ) = e −3t u (t )
t +1
erwise. The number of non-zero samples in the output
sequence y[n] and the value of y[2] are, respectively, where u(t) is the unit step function. Which of these sys-
[2008] tems is time invariant, causal and stable? [2001]
(a) 5, 2 (b) 6, 2 (a) S1 (b) S2
(c) 6, 1 (d) 5, 3 (c) S3 (d) S4
Solution: (d) Solution: (d)
1, −1, 2 h1(t) → non-causal
h( n ) = h2(t) → time-variant
↑ h3(t) → time-variant
1, 0,1 h4(t) → all conditions satisfied
x (n) = Hence, the correct option is (d).
↑
18. Let u(t) be the step function. which of the waveforms in
y ( n ) = x ( n ) ⊗ h( n ) the figure corresponds to the convolution of u(t) - u(t
- 1) with u(t) - u(t - 2)? [2000]
1, −1, 3, −1, 2
y (n) =
↑ (a)
∴ Number of non-zero samples = 5
y[2] = 3.
Hence, the correct option is (d). 0 1 2
t
16. The impulse response h[n] of a linear time-invariant
system is given as
(b) 1
−2 2 n = 1, −1
h[ n ] = 4 2 n = 2−2
0, otherwise
0 1 2 3
t
Chapter 2 LTI Systems Continues and Discrete | 2.19
1/2
0 1.5 2 3
(d)
1 0 2 6 t (sec) [1990]
1
(a) 0 (b)
2
0 1 3 3
(c) (d) 1
2
Solution: (b)
Solution: (b)
u(t)−u(t −1) u(t)−u(t −2)
y (t ) = h (t ) ⊗ x (t )
1 1 dy (t ) dx (t )
= h (t ) ⊗
dt dt
t t
0 1 0 2 dx(t)/dt
When two rectangular waveforms of different widths
1
are convolved, then the result is a trapezoidal waveform
with the slope equal to the product of amplitudes of 6
both signals given and the width of the constant ampli- 0
tude starts from upper hand limit of width signal.
−1
1
⇒ d (t ) − d (t − 6)
t dy
0 1 2 3 ∴ (t ) = x (t ) − x (t − 6)
dt
Hence, the correct option is (b).
dy(t)/dt
1 9. The impulse response and the excitation function of
a linear time-invariant causal system are shown in
Figures (a) and (b), respectively. The output of the sys- 1/2
tem at t = 2 sec is equal to
6
h (t) t
0 2
1 1
2
dy (t ) 1 1
y (t ) = ∫ = dt = ∫ dt =
dt 0
4 2
0 6 t (sec)
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Chapter 3
Fourier Series
So that, signal is odd and half wave symmetric. In the
One-mark Questions resulting fourier series expansion, a0 and an will exist
only for odd harmonics (due to half wave symmetry)
1. Let x (t) be a periodic function with period T = 10. The
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Fourier series coefficients for this series are denoted by
ak, that is ⎛ π n⎞
3. Let x [ n] = 1 + cos ⎜ ⎟ be a periodic signal with
≈
2π
jk t ⎝ 8⎠
x(t) = ∑ ∞K =−∞ ak e T
period 16. Its DFS coefficients are defined by ak =
The same function x(t) can also be considered as a 1 15 ≈ ⎛ π ⎞
periodic function with period T 1 = 40. Let bk be the ∑ x [ n] exp ⎜⎝ − j 8 kn⎟⎠ for all k. the value of the
16 n = 0
Fourier series coefficients when period is taken as T1.
coefficient a31 is _________. [2015]
If ∑ ∞K =−∞ ak = 16, then ∑ ∞K =−∞ a \ bk is equal to
[2018] ⎛ π n⎞
(A) 256 (B) 64 X[n] = 1 + cos ⎜ ⎟
Solution: ∵ N = 16
⎝ 8⎠
(C) 16 (D) 4
2π 2π n
j −j
Solution: We know that change in time period does e 16 +e 16
not change the fourier series coefficients =1+
2
∞ ∞
∑ ∑
2π n 2π n
∴ bk = ak = 16 1 j 16 1 − j 16
k = −∞ k = −∞
=1+ e + e
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (C) 1 1
2. A periodic signal x(t) has a trigonometric Fourier series a0 = 1, a1 = , a–1 =
2 2
expansion
So a0+16 = a16 = 1
∞
x(t ) = ao + ∑ ( an cos nω0 t + bn sin nω0 t ) a–1+16 = a15 =
1
n −1 2
If x (t) = -x (-t) = -x (t - p/w0), we can conclude that 1
a31 = a16+15 = a15 =
[2017] 2
(A) an are zero for all n and bn are zero for n even Hence, the correct Answer is (0.48 to 0.52).
(B) an are zero for all n and bn are zero for n odd
(C) an are zero for n even and bn are zero for n odd 4. The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function
(D) an are zero for all n odd and bn are zero for n even does not have the [2011]
(a) dc term
Solution: Given x(t) = - x (-t) means the signal is odd (b) cosine term
π (c) sine terms
x(t ) = − x t − , which says that the signal is half
ω0 (d) odd harmonic terms
wave symmetric. Solution: (c)
For an even function bn = 0 ∴ no sine terms are present.
T
Condition for half wave symmetry is x(t ) = − x t ± Hence, the correct option is (c).
2
5. The Fourier series of a real periodic function has only
P. Cosine terms if it is even
Chapter 3 Fourier Series | 2.21
Solution: (c) For the three statements above which one of the follow-
For even periodic fxnbn = 0 ing is correct? [2017]
∴ Sine terms are not present. (A) Only II and III are true
Hence, the correct option is (c). (B) Only I and III are true
12. The RMS value of a rectangular wave of period T, hav- (C) Only III is true
ing a value of +V for a duration T1(< 7) and –V for the (D) Only I is true
duration T – T1 = T2 equals: [1995] Solution: Fundamental period T = 1 s. w0 = 2p time
T1 - T 2 scaling property of complex fourier series says that
(a)
V (b) V x(t ) ↔ ak
T
V T1 x( at ) ↔ ak
(c) (d) V
2 T T
and ω0 → α (ω0 )
2
But T →
Solution: (a) α
V x(t ) ←
→ ak
x(3t ) ←
→ ak
T1
ω0 ←
→ 3( 2π ) = 6π
−V
I and III are true.
n = −∞ p2 1 1
= 1 + 2 + 2 +
1 8 3 5
for an impulse function C k =
T0
1 1 p2
∞ ∴ 1+ + + =
1 32 5 2 8
∴ f (t ) =
T0
∑e
n = −∞
jkw 0t
3 pf 2
-
e 2
(b)
where u[n] denotes the unit step sequence, and the val-
ue of A is _____ [2014] e -p |f |
(c)
2
2 2 ⇒ So, H( f ) = 4e−j4p f
g (t ) = e − pt ←
F ⋅T
→ e − pf = G (w )
Hence, the correct option is (c).
2 2 2
o/p Y (w ) = G (w ) ⋅ G (w ) = e − pf ⋅ e − pf = e −2pf t
Hence, the correct option is (d). 8. The Fourier transform of F{e−tu(t)} is equal to
1 1 + j 2pf
5. A function is given by f(t) = sin2t + cos 2t. Which of the . Therefore, F is [2002]
following is true? [2009] t + j 2pt
1 (a) efu( f ) (b) e−fu( f )
(a) f has frequency component of 0 and H3 (c) e u(−f ) (d)
f
e−fu(−f )
2p
1 Solution: (d)
(b) f has frequency component of 0 and H 3 t
p Given f (t ) = e −t u (t ) ←
F ⋅T
→
1 + 2pf ⋅ j
1 1
(c) f has frequency component of and H 3 From duality property,
2p p
t F ⋅T
1 1 ← → f (t ) = e − f u ( −f )
(d) f has frequency component of 0, and H 3 1 + 2pj
2p p
Hence, the correct option is (d).
Solution: (b)
9. A linear phase channel with phase delay Tp and group
1 delay Tg must have [2002]
Given f (t ) = (1 − cos 2t ) + cos 2t
2 (a) Tp = Tg = constant
Frequency components are f1 = 0 (b) Tp ∝ f and Tg∝ f
w2 2 1 (c) Tp = constant and Tg∝ f
=
f2 = = H3
2p 2p p (d) Tp ∝ f and Tp = constant, ( f denotes frequency)
Hence, the correct option is (b). Solution: (a)
6. Let x(t) ↔ x( jw) be Fourier transform pair. The Fourier For a distortionless system, phase is given by q(w) =
transform of signal x(5t−3) in terms of x( jw) is given −wt0
as [2006] −q(w )
then phase delay T p = = t0
w
1 j 3w Jw 1 − j 35w jw dq(w )
(a) e 5 X (b) e X and group delay =Tg = t0
5 5 5 5 dw
So, Tp = Tg = constant.
1 1 j 3w J w
J w (d) Hence, the correct option is (a).
(c) e − j 3w X 5 e X
5 5 5 2
10. The Fourier transform of signal x(t) = e - Bt is of the
Solution: (a) following form where A and B are constants: [2000]
Using scaling and shifting property (a) A e - B f (b) A ⋅ e − Bf 2
x(t) ↔x( jw) (c) A + B | f 2| (d) A ⋅ e − Bf
3 1 J w j 35w Solution: (b)
X 5 t − = × e
2
Given f (t ) = e − Bt (1)
5 5 5 F ⋅T
Let f (t ) ← → F (w )
Hence, the correct option is (a). Differentiating equation (1) both side.
7. Let x(t) be the input to a linear time-invariant system. df (t ) 2
⇒ F (f ) = e
− pf 2
3
= Gaussion pulse Normalized Gaussian pulse is defined as x (t ) = e −pt
Fourier transfer will be
Hence, the correct option is (b). 2 2
x (t ) = e − pt ←
F ⋅T
→ e − pf = X (t ) ⇒ Gaussian pulse
11. A signal x(t) has a Fourier transform x(w). If x(t) is a Hence, the correct option is (c).
real and odd function of t, then x(w) is [1999] 15. The ACF of a rectangular pulse of duration T is:[1998]
(a) a real and even function of w (a) a rectangular pulse of duration T
(b) an imaginary and odd function of w (b) a rectangular pulse of duration 2T
(c) an imaginary and even function of w (c) a triangular pulse of duration T
(d) a real and odd function of w (d) a triangular pulse of duration 2T
Solution: (b) Solution: (d)
Example of real and odd function of t is ACF for signal x(t) is given by.
x(t) = A sin w0t
R(t) = x(d ) * x (−d )
then Fourier transform of x(t) R (t)
x(d ) x(−d )
x (w ) = A jp [d (w + w 0 ) − d (w − w 0 )] ⇒ Imaginary and 1
odd function w 1 1
= * =
Hence, the correct option is (b).
0 T −T −T 0 T
12. The Fourier transform of voltage signal x(t) is x( f ).
The unit of |x( f )| is [1998] 2T
(a) Volt (b) Volt-sec
(c) Volt/sec (d) Volt2- = Triangular pulse of
duration 2T
Solution: (b)
Fourier transform of signal x(t) is given as Hence, the correct option is (d).
1 6. The function f(t) has Fourier transform g(w). The
x (f ) ∫ x (t ) ⋅ e − j 2pft dt Fourier transform g(t) [1997]
−
∫ g (t )e
− J wt
g (t ) = dt , is
if x(t)→ volt, −
V olt V olt
then x( f )→ Volt-sec → → 1 1
( 1S ec ) Hertz f ( -w )
(a) f (É ) (b)
Hence, the correct option is (b). 2p 2p
2pf ( -w )
(c) (d) name of these
13. The Fourier transform of function x(t) is X(t). The Solution: (c)
dx (t )
Fourier transform of will be [1998] Using duality property of Fourier transform
dt
F ⋅T
f (t ) ← → g (w ) .
(a) dx (f ) (b)
j2p f x( f )
dt Then Fourier transform of g(t)
x (f ) F ⋅T
g (t ) ← → 2p f ( −w )
(c)
x( f ) (d)
jf Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (b)
1 7. The Fourier transform of a real valued time signal has
dx (t ) [1996]
→( j 2pf ) x (f ). (a) odd symmetry
dt
(b) even symmetry
2.28 | Signals and Systems
wn (1 − x 2 ) + x 4 − x 2 + 1
(b)
X (iw ) =
−
∫ x (t ) ⋅ e − Jwt dt .
wn (1 − 2x 2 ) + 4x 4 − 4x 2 + 2
(c)
Taking conjugate on both sides,
*
wn (1 − 2x 2 ) − 4x 4 − 4x 2 + 2
(d)
⇒ X * ( jw ) = ∫ x (t ) ⋅ e − Jwt dt = ∫ x * (t ) ⋅ e + Jwt = X ( −J w )
− −
Solution: (d)
Given transfer function
19. The 3-dB bandwidth of a typical second-order s ystem Solution: x[n] = 6 δ [n + 2] + 3 δ [n + 1] + 8 δ [n] + 7
with the Transfer function[1994] δ [n – 1] + 4 δ [n – 2]
x[n] = {6, 3, 8, 7, 4} its DTFT π is X(ejω)
Chapter 4 Fourier Transforms | 2.29
∫ sin c
2
2. The value of the integral (5t ) is [2014] h2(t )
−
Solution:
0.2
⇒
=
Let =
f (t ) sin c (5t ) Sa(5pt ) 2sa (2ω)
(∵ sin c (t ) = Sa(pt )) t
−2 0 +2
Fourier transform of Sa (t) is given as
T F ⋅T ⇒ H 1 (J w ) = 2 cos w = e Jw 1 + e Jw ( −1)
TSa t ⋅ ←→ 2pGT (w )
2
So, H (J w ) = e Jw H 2 (J w ) + e − Jw H 2 (J w )
T
= 5p ⇒ T = 10p Or h (t ) = h2 (t + 1) + h2 (t − 1)
2
2À
⇒ 10pSa(5pt ) ←→ G10p (w )
5
2 1
⇒ ESDf = F (w )
h (t) = sa h (o) = 1
1 1/2
Ef = ∫
−
f 2 (t )dt =
2À ∫
−
ESDf dw
F(ω ) = G10π(ω ) 1
−3 −1 1 3
= F(ω )
1/5
Hence, the correct option is (a).
4. Consider a system whose i/p and o/p y are related by
ω the equation
−5π 5π
1
5p
1
2
1 1 1
y (t ) =
∫ x (t − t )h(2t )dt , and h(t) is shown in graph
⇒ ∫ sin c (5t )dt =
2À −∫5p 5
dw = × × 10p = = 0.2
2
−
−
2p 25 5
h(t )
(a) 0 ⇒ x (w) = 0
(b) 2−0.2cos (2t − 0.125p) So e Jw − e−Jw = 0
(c) 2−0.25cos (2t − 0.125p) ⇒ e2Jw = f ⇒ w = p, 2p or 0.p
(d) 2−0.5cos (2t − 0.25p) Hence, the correct options are (a) and (c).
Solution: (d) 8. The 3-dB bandwidth of the LOW-pass signal, e−t u (t),
Given input x(t) = 2cos2t where u(t) is the unit step function, is given by [2007]
1
(a) H z
then x (w ) = 2p [d (w − 2) + d (w + 2)] 2p
1 1
⇒ H (w ) = (b) 2 - 1 Hz
1 + Jw 2p
o/p = (c) ∞
(d) 1 Hz
1
y (w ) = H (w ) ⋅ x (w ) =
2 + jw
[( 2p )[d (w − 2) + d (w + 2)]] Solution: (a)
1
p p Laplace transform of e −t u (t ) ←
L ⋅T
→
= [d (w − 2) + d (w + 2)] − j [d (w − 2) − d (w + 2)] (s + 1)
2 2
t
cos 2t sin 2t 2 1 1 ∴ Magnitude at 3dB frequency =
= + = cos 2t + sin 2t
2 2
2
2 2 2
1 1 1 1
= 2−0.5 ⋅ cos( 2t − 0.25p ) ⇒ = = ⇒ w = 1 real or f = Hz
2 s + 1 1+ w 2 2p
Hence, the correct option is (d). Hence, the correct option is (a).
6. The frequency response H(w) of this system in terms of 9. The output y(t) of a linear time-invariant system is
angular frequency w, is given by H(w) = [2008] related to its input x(t) by the equation y(t) = 0.5 x (t − td
+ T ) + x(t − td) + 0.5x (t − td + T ). The filter transfer
1 sin(w ) function H(w) of such system is given by [2005]
(a) (b)
1 + 2Jw w (a) (1 + coswT ) e−Jwtd
(b) (1 + 0.5 coswT ) e−Jwtd
1 jw
(c) (d) (c) (1 − coswT ) e−Jwtd
1+ jw 2 + jw (d) (1 − 0.5 coswT ) e−Jwtd
Chapter 4 Fourier Transforms | 2.31
Group-2
1. Fourier representation is continuous and periodic 0
2. Fourier representation is discrete and periodic 0.1 m sec
3. Fourier representation is continuous and periodic [2004]
4. Fourier representation is discrete and periodic (a) D.C. (b) 12 kH3 sinusoid
(c) 9 kH3 sinusoid (d) 14 kH3 sinusoid
(a) E − 3, F − 2, G − 4, H − 1
(b) E − 1, F − 3, G − 2, H − 4 Solution: (a)
(c) E − 1, F − 2, G − 3, H − 4 Time period for pulse train To = 0.1 msec = 10-4 sec
(d) E − 2, F − 1, G − 4, H − 3 1
f0 = = 10 kH 3
Solution: (c) T0
Continuous and aperiodic signal has continuous and Fundamental fg in cos2 (4p × 103t) is = 4kH3
periodic representation.
Continuous and periodic signal has discrete and peri-
odic representation.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
11. For a signal x(t), the Fourier transform is x( f ), then
the inverse Fourier Transform of x(3f + 2) is given by −4 kHz 0 4 kHz 0 10 kHz 30 kHz
[2005] So only at ‘0’ we get output after convolution. (only odd
1 t − j 4p 13 harmonics are present)
(a) × e j 3pt (b)
1 t
× e
2 2 3 3 ↑ Constant in time domain.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
3 × (3t)e − j4pt (d)
(c) x(3t + 2) 14. Let x(t) and y(t) (with Fourier transforms x( f ) and y( f )
respectively) be related as shown in the figure [2004]
Solution: (b)
x(t) y(t)
Scaling and translation property for Fourier transform
pair are given as. 1
F ⋅T 1 f
⇒ x (at ) ← → ×
| a | a t
−2 −1 0
t
F ⋅T − J 2pft 0 −2 0 2
⇒ x (t − t 0 ) ←
→ x (f )e
2 1 t − J 4p 3t −1
× 3 f + = × ⋅ e
3 3 3
Hence, the correct option is (b).
2.32 | Signals and Systems
−1 f −1 f j 2pf Solution: (c)
(a) x e − J 2pf (b) x e
2 2
1
2 2 Given, H (w ) =
1 + wRC
f f
x e j 2pf (d)
(c) − x ⋅ e − j 2pf and qw = − tan −1 ( RCw )
2 2
from equation (1) 4.19
Solution: (b)
put a value of R, C and w to calculate tg
From the plot, y(t) can be represented as
y (t ) = − x ( 2(t ) + 1) dq(w ) RC
tg = = ,
x (t x−(t 0−) t← x→(fx)(ef−)Je2p−ftJ02pft 0 : t 0 :=t 0−=1 −1 dw 1 + R 2C 2w 2
Using property: 0 )
→
←
put R = 103, C = 1 × 10−6f = 100H3
1 f So tg = 0.717 ms.
x (at ) ←
→ × a = −2
a a Hence, the correct option is (c).
−1 f J 2pf . 17. If Fourier transform of deterministic signal g(t) is G( f ),
So, y (f ) = × e
2 2
then
(1) the Fourier transform of g(t − 2) is
Hence, the correct option is (b). (2) the Fourier transform of g(t/2) is
15. Let H( f ) denote the frequency response of the (a) G ( f )·e−J4pf (b) G (2f )
RC-LPF. Let f1 be the highest frequency such that (c) 2G (2f ) (d) G ( f−2)
| H (f 1 ) | Match each of the items (1) and (2) on the left with the
o ≤ | f | ≤ f1: ≥ 0.95 then f1 (in H3) is [2003]
H (o ) most appropriate item a, b, c, or d on the right. [1997]
(a) 327.8 (b) 163.9 Solution: (1 − a, 2 − c)
(c) 52.2 (d) 104.4 F ⋅T
Given g (t ) ← → G (f )
Solution: (c) F ⋅T
then g (t − 2) ← → e − j 2p 2f G (f ) = G (f ) ⋅ e − j 4pf
Rc-LPF can be given as
R t F ⋅T 1 f
and g ← → G = 2G ( 2f )
2 ( 12) 12
Vi C Vo
18. Match each of items A, B and C with an appropriate
item from 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. [1995]
List-I
(A) Fourier transform of a Gaussian function
Transfer function will be given by.
(B) Convolution of rectangular pulse with itself
1 (C) Current through an inductor for a step input volt-
vo j 2pf ⋅ c t age.
= = (1)
vi t 1 + j 2pf ⋅ RC List-II
R+
J ⋅ 2pf ⋅ c (1) Gaussian function
(2) Rectangular pulse
1
H (f ) = , H (o ) = 1 (3) Triangular pulse
1 + j 2pfRC (4) Ramp function
⇒ cutoff filter is cancelled at point where magnitude is (5) Zero
5% of maximum value. Solution: (A − 1, B − 3, C − 4)
| H (f 1 ) | 1 (A) Gaussian pulse is given as f(t) = e−p t 2
So, = ≥ 0.95.(2)
| H (o ) | 1 + 4p f 2 R 2C 2
2
So, e − pt ←
F ⋅T 2
→ e − pf
2
Put a value of R and C, and find f1 ⇒f1max = 52.2Hz. (B) Conversion of a rectangular pulse with a rectangu-
Hence, the correct option is (c). lar pulse is a triangular pulse.
16. Let tg ( f ) be the group delay function of the given (C) Current through an inductor is given by
RC-LPF and f2 = 100H3. Then tg( f2)(ms) [2003] 1
L∫
(a) 0.717 (b) 7.17 iL = V dt
(c) 71.7 (d) 4.505
Chapter 4 Fourier Transforms | 2.33
1 1
So, i L =
L ∫ u (t )dt = r (t )
L 2m2T
3
19. Sketch the waveform (with properly marked axis) at the
output of a match filter matched for a signal S(t), of
duration T, given by
0 T T ST
2T
A for 0 ≤ t ≤
3
S (t ) = 20. If G( f ) represents the Fourier transform of a Signal
0 2T
for ≤ t ≤T g(t), which is real and odd symmetric in time, then
3 [1993]
[1992]
Solution: (a) G ( f ) is complex
y(t) (b) G ( f ) is imaginary
(c) G ( f ) is real
2m2T
(d) G ( f ) is real and non-negative
3 Solution: (b)
We take a real and odd symmetric signal as exempla,
and verify its properties.
t
0 T T ST Let f(t) = −eat u(−t)+ e−at u(t)
e−a(t)
t
µ
real and odd symmetric.
taking Fourier transform
t
0 T 2T T 0
S(T-t) 1 1 1 2J w
= =− + = 2
h(t) 1 + aJ a − Jw a + Jw a + w 2
2Jw
So, F(w) = ⇒ poorly imaginary and odd.
a2 + w 2
µ
Hence, the correct option is (d).
2 1. The magnitude and phase function for a distortionless
t filter should, respectively, be[1990]
0 T 2T T
(Magnitude) (Phase)
3 3
(a) Linear Constant
The output of the matched filter y(t)
(b) Constant Constant
y(t) = S(t)*h(t)
(c) Constant Linear
=> dy (t ) = s (t ) * dh(t ) = u(t ) − u t − 2T * S t − T − d (t − T ) (d) Linear Linear
3 3
dt dt Solution: (c)
T 5T For distortionless filter
= u t − − u (t − T ) − u (t − T ) + u t −
3 3
T 5T f (t ) → h(t ) or h (w ) → A ⋅ f (t − t 0 )
= u t − − 2u (t − T ) − u t −
3 3 If Fourier transform of function f(t) →F(w),
t then Fourier transform of A·f(t − t0) → A F(w)·e−Jwt0
u T 5T
=> y (t ) = ∫ t − 3 − 2u(t − T ) + u t − 3 dt
y (w )
−
So , H (w ) = = A ⋅ e − J wt 0
T 5T x (w )
= r t − − 2r (t − T ) + r t −
3 3
2.34 | Signals and Systems
Taking Inverse Fourier transform of H(w) 2. The Fourier transform G(w) of the signal g(t) in figure
h (t) = A d (t − t0). 1 is given as:
Taking magnitude and phase of H(w)
1 jw
|H(w) = A| and ∠ H(w) = −w t0 G (w ) =
(e − jw e jw − 1). Using the information,
as H(w) = A ⇒ constant (Magnitude Response) w2
and the time-shifting and time-scaling properties, de-
and ∠H(w) = −w t0 ⇒ Linear (Phase Response)
termine the Fourier transform of signals in figures (2),
Hence, the correct option is (c).
(3) and (4).[2000]
g (t)
Five-marks Questions
1. A periodic signal g(t) is shown in figure. Determine the 1
PSD of g(t).[2001]
g(t)
t
−1
1 g 1(t)
t 1
−2π −π / 2 π /2 2π 4π (sec)
Solution:
g(t) is a periodic signal with, T0 = 2p t
1
1 1 g 2(t)
f0 = =
T0 2p
1 1
w 0 = 2p f 0 = × 2p = 1 rad/sec
2p
Express g(t) as a Fourier series, t
−1 0
∞
g (t ) = ∑e
n = −∞
m e j 2p nf0 t g 3(t)
1
T0 1
∫e
− j 2 np f0 t
Cn = dt
T0 0
g 1(t + 1/2)
t0
1
1 Rxx (t ) =
T0 ∫ x(t ) . d (t − t )dt
0
1
x(t ) y (t)
= ∫ sin(upt − 2p t) dt − ∫ sin 2p , dt
1 d T0 0 0
2π dt
1 0 T
Rxy (t ) = sin(2pt ) ∫ dt
Solution: 2 0
Given signal is periodic with T0 = 1 sec
1
(a) and f0 = 1 Hz ACF = sin(2pt)
2
2.36 | Signals and Systems
Rxy(0) = 0 y (t )
1 1 p 1
Rxy = sin = A2T
4 2 2 2
t
4. Consider a rectangular pulse g(t) existing between −T +T
T T
t=− and . Find and sketch the pulse obtained
2 2 g (t ) F
.T
→ G ( f ) = AT sin c ( fT )
by convolving g(t) with itself. The Fourier transform
of g(t) is a sine function. Write down the Fourier trans- y(y) = G( f ) . G( f ) = A2T 2 sin c2 ( f T )
form of the pulse obtained by the above convolution. x(t) = cos 2p
[1998]
Solution: 5. A signal 3 sin(p f0t) + cos(3p f0t) is applied to an RC low
T pass filter of 3 dB cut-off frequency f0. Determine and
Given that, g(t) = A t≤
2 plot the output power spectrum and also calculate the
= 0 otherwise. total input and output normalized power. [1996]
g(t) Solution:
x(t ) RC / Oω
A y (t)
Pass filter
1 f
d ∴ H( f ) = , LH ( f ) = − tan −1
Let, y1 (t ) = g (t ) * g (t ) then, y (t ) = ∫ y1 (t )dt f f0
dt t 1+ J
f0
T T
y1 (t ) = g (t ) * Af t + − g ( f ) * Af t −
2 2 1
q1 = − tan −1 at f = f 0
2 2
T T
⇒ y1 (t ) = Ag t + − Ag t −
2 2 3
q 2 = − tan −1 at f = 3 f 0
2 2
x(t)
1
H( f ) = ,
2
A2 f
1+
fb
T
t 1 2 f0
−T H ( f1 ) = = at f =
2 5 2
1
1+
−A2 2
y (t ) = ∫ y1 (t )dt
Chapter 4 Fourier Transforms | 2.37
3 f0 So(t )
1 2
H ( f2 ) = = at f 0 =
2
13 2
3
1+ 50/26 50/26
2
18/10 18/10
So output y( f )
2 2
y( f ) = 3 × sin(p f 0 f + q1 ) + 5 cos (3p f 0 tPq 2)
5 13 −3f0 /2 −f0 /2 0 f0 /2 3f0 /2
the input periodic signal consists of 1st harmonic 6. An input signal A exp(−at) with a > 0 is applied to a
3
2 causal filter, the impulse response of which is A exp(−
of f0/2 having power = = 4.5 W at). Determine the filter output sketch it as a function of
2
time and label the important points. [1996]
2
5 Solution:
Power of 3rd harmonic = = 12.5
2 A
Input x(t) = Ae −t u (t ) F
.T .
→ x( f ) =
the input power spectral is given by, a + j 2p f
Impulse response
9 f f
f i (t ) = f f − 0 + f f + 0 1
2 2 2 h( f ) = Ae −a tu (t ) F
.T .
→H( f ) =
a + j 2p f
25 3 f 25 3f
+ f f − 0 + f f + 0
4 2 4 2
x(t ) h (t) y (t)
18 f f
S0 (t ) = f f − 0 + f f + 0
10 2 2 ym ym = A2/αe
50 3 f0 3 f0 tm = 1/α
+ f f − 2 + f f − 2
26
tm
Si (t )
d
25/4 25/4 y (t ) = 0 at t = tm
dt
9/4 9/4
1
Solving, tm =
a
7. A signal v(t) = [1 + m(t) cos(wct) is detected using So the spectrum of V0(t) for fm < f < fm is the addition of
a square law detector, having the characteristic three spectrum
v0 = v2. If the Fourier transform of m(t) is constant, 0.5 m(f ) + m(f )
M0, extending from −fm to + fm, sketch the Fourier
transform of v0(t) in the frequency range −fm < f < fm. m1 (f ) = m0(1+ m0fm)
[1995]
mg = m0(1+ 0.5m0fm)
Solution: 0.5
1
e − at u (t ) F
.T
→ F (w ) =
f a + jw
m(t )
1
Input energy spectrum density, ( ESD) x = | F (w ) |2 =
a +w2
2
mo 1
( ESD) x = | F (w ) |2 =
a2 + w 2
∞
1 1
Input signal energy Ex = ∫ | F (w ) dw =
2
f 2p −∞
2a
−fm +fm
Output spectrum density
b2 1
0.5 m(f ) + m(f )
| y (w ) |2 = | H (w ) |2 | F (w ) |2 = × 2
(w + b ) (a + w 2 )
2 2
jp f 0 f f
Gg ( f ) = f f − 0 e − jp − f f + 0 e jp
0.5 4 2 2
jp f0 f f
f = − f f − 0 + f f + 0
−fo +fo 4 2 2
jp f 0 f0 f0
d y1 ( f ) = G1 (t ) − G2 (t ) = f f − − f f +
h1 (t ) = [( f 0 sin c(2p f 0 t )] F
.T
→ 2 2 2
dt
e jp f0 +2p j 20 t − j 2p 20 t
f f
H1(t) = j2pf × 0.5 = jp f | f | ≥ f0 y1 (t ) = e −e
= 0 | f | > f0 2
In the input, x(t) there are two terms with frequencies w0 w t
2f0 and f0/2, the term with frequency 2f0 will not pass =− sin 0
2 2
through the block with impulse response. H1(t) or trans-
fer function H(t) as its cut-off frequency is f0. given from block 3
t
w t 1 f f
cos 0 → f f − 0 + f f + 0
2 2 2 2
h3 (t ) = u (t ) = ∫
−∞
f (t )dt
2.40 | Signals and Systems
Solution: (c) 1
Given h (t) = t u (t) 6. The unilateral Laplace transform of f(t) is .
S + S +1
2
Taking LT on both sides The unilateral Laplace transform of tf(t) is [2012]
e −S S −( 2S + 1)
X (S ) = (1) (a) 2 (b)
S (S + S + 1) 2 (S 2 + S + 1) 2
Input x(t) = u (t − 1) −S ( 2S + 1)
(c) 2 (d)
Taking LT on both sides (S + S + 1) 2 (S 2 + S + 1) 2
Solution: (d)
e −S
X (S ) = (2) 1
S L[ f (t )] = = f (S )
S2 + S +1
Y (S ) d
∴ H (S ) = ∴ L [t f (t )] = ( −1)1f (S )
X (S ) dS
∴Y (S ) = H (S ) ⋅ X (S ) d 1
= −1 2
dS S + S + 1
Equation value of H(S) & X(S) from (1) and (2)
taking inverse Laplace transform −1 ( 2S + 1)
= − 2 2
( 2S + 1) = 2
(S + S + 1) (S + S + 1) 2
(t − 1) 2
y (t ) = u (t − 1) Hence, the correct option is (d).
2
7. If the unit step response of a network is (1− e at ), then
Hence, the correct option is (c). its unit impulse response is [2011]
5. Assuming zero initial condition, the response (a) − at
ae (b) −1 − at
a e
y (t) of the system given below to a unit step input u (t)
is [2013] (c) (1 − a −1 )e −at (d) (1− a )e −at
Solution: (a)
1 Given unit step response S(t) (1− e at )
u(S) Y(S )
S For a given response, unit impulse response is
ds(t )
(a)
u (t) (b)
t u (t) h(t ) =
dt
t2 d (1 − eat )
e−tu (t)
(c) u (t) (d) = = ae −at
2 dt
Solution: (b) Hence, the correct option is (a).
8. If the Laplace transform of a signal y (t) is
Y (S ) 1
H (S ) = = 1
u( S ) S Y(S ) = , then final value is____. [2007]
S ( S − 1)
x (t ) = u (t ) {unit step input} (a) −1 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) unbounded
Taking Laplace transform on both sides Solution: (d)
Here final value theorem will not be applicable as all of
1
X (S ) = system are not lining left half of s-plane,
S ∴ S = 1 is right S-plane pole.
Y (S ) = H (S ) ⋅ X (S ) ∴ unbounded.
Hence, the correct option is (d).
1 1 1
= × = 2 9. The Laplace transform of i (t) is given by
S S S
Taking inverse Laplace transform 2
I (S ) = , As t → ∞, the value of i (t) tends to
y (t ) = t u (t ) S (S + 1)
[2003]
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Chapter 5 Laplace Transforms | 2.43
2 p
= lim S ⋅ = 2. 13. If L( f (t )) = , then the value of lim f (t )
S →0 S ( S + 1) s2 + w 2 t →∞
[1998]
Hence, the correct option is (c). (a) cannot be determined
10. The transfer function of a system is given by (b) is zero
1 (c) is unity
H(s) = 2 . The Impulse response of the system (d) is infinite.
S (S − 2)
is [2001] Solution: (a)
(a) (t2 * e−2t) u(t) (b) (t * e2t) u(t) w I ⋅ L ⋅T
(c) (t − e−2t) u(t) (d) (t − e−2t) u(t) F (s ) = ← → f (t ) = sin wt
S2 +w2
Solution: (b)
Taking inverse Laplace transfer to calculate impulse re- ⇒ lim f (t ) = sin wt = lie between −1 and +1 cant de-
sponse t →∞
termined.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
1 −1 1 1
h (t ) = L−1 [H (S )] = L−1 2 =L 2× 14. The Laplace transform of eat ⋅ cos(at ) is equal to
S (S − 2) S S − 2
[1997]
= (t ∗ e 2t )u (t )
(s − a ) (s + a )
Hence, the correct option is (b). (a) (b)
(s − a ) 2 + a 2 (s + a ) 2 + a 2
1 1. Given that
1
(c) (d) None of these
S +2 S 2 +1 (s − a ) 2
L (f (t )) = 2 , L [ g (t )] =
S +1 (S + 3)(S + 2)
Solution: (a)
t Laplace transform of cosatu(t) is given as
h (t ) = ∫ f (t )g (t − T )dT . The L [h(t)] is [2000]
0 L ⋅T S
cos(at )u (t ) ← →
S +a2
2
S 2 +1
(a)
S +3 Multiplying by eat will result shifting in frequency do-
main
1
(b)
S +3 (s − a )
e at cos(at ) u (t ) ←
L ⋅T
→
S +1 2
(S + 2) (s − a ) 2 + a 2
(c) + 2
(S + 3)(S + 2) S + 1 Hence, the correct option is (a).
(d) None of these
Solution: (b) 2( s + 1)
15. If L( f (t )) = then f(0t) and f(∞) are given by
h (t) shows convolution of f (t) and g (t) and convolu- s 2 + 2s + 5
tion in time domain equivalent to multiplication in s- [1995]
domain (a) 0, 2 respectively
(b) 2, 0 respectively
1 (c) 0, 1 respectively
∴ L[h(t )] = L[ f (t )] × L[ g (t )] =
S +3 (d) 2/5, 0 respectively.
Hence, the correct option is (b). Solution: (b)
1 2. If L( f (t )) = F ( s), then L( f (t − T )) is equal to [1999] S 2( s + 1)
(a) eST F(S) (b) e−ST F(S) f (ot ) ≠ lim
s →∞ s 2 + 2s + 1
F (s ) F (s ) =2
(c) ST (d)
1+ e 1− e −ST
2.44 | Signals and Systems
+∞
∫ g (t ) e dt
− st
1 G(s) =
−∞
+∞
0
So G(0) = ∫ g (t ) dt = area under g(t)
T/2 T 3T/2 2T t −∞
2π 6.28
1 = = = 0.155
F(s) =
(A) 1 + 4π 2
40.4384
1 + e − sT 2
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.14 to 0.16).
1
F(s) =
(B) 4. Let the signal f(t) = 0 outside the interval [T1, T2], where
⎛ − sT
⎞ T1 and T2 are finite. Furthermore, | f(t)| < ∞. The region
s ⎜1 + e 2 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ of convergence (RoC) of the signal’s bilateral Laplace
transform F(s) is [2015]
1 (A) a parallel strip containing the j Ω axis.
F(s) =
(C)
(
s 1 − e − sT )
(B) a parallel strip not containing the j Ω axis.
(C) the entire s-plane.
1 (D) a half plane containing the j Ω axis.
F(s) =
(D)
1− e − sT Solution: For a finite duration time signal, ROC of
Solution:
Given periodic signal Laplace transform is entire S-plane.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
⎧1 0 < t ≤ T 2
f (t ) = ⎨ 5. A system is described by the following differential
⎩0 T 2 < t ≤ T equation, where u(t) is the input to the system and y(t)
Laplace transform for periodic signal is is the output of the system
T
1 y ′(t ) + 5y (t ) = u (t )
∫ f (t )e
− st
F ( s) = dt
1 − e − sT
0 When y(o) = 1 and u(t) is a unit step function, y(t) is
1
T 2 [2014]
∫ 1⋅ e
− st
= dt (a) 0.2 + 0.8 e−5t
1 − e − ST
0 (b) 0.2 − 0.2 e−5t
T (c) 0.8 − 0.2 e−5t
1 ⎡ e − st ⎤ 2 (d) 0.8 − 0.8 e−5t
= ⎢ ⎥
1 − e − ST ⎣ − s ⎦ 0 Solution:(a)
1 1 Given y ′(t ) + 5y (t ) = u (t )
. . ⎛ e 2 − 1⎞
− sT
=
1− e − ST
S ⎝ ⎠ taking Laplace transform
⎛1 − e − sT 2 ⎞ ⎛1 − e − sT 2 ⎞ 1
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ SY (s ) − y (o ) + 5Y (s ) = ( y (0) = 1)
= = S
(
s 1 − e − ST ) s ⎛1 − e
⎝
− ST
2⎞ ⎛1 + e − ST 2 ⎞
⎠⎝ ⎠ (S + 5)Y (S ) − 1 =
1
S
1 1
= ⇒ (S + 5)Y (S ) − 1 = + 1
(
s 1 + e − ST / 2 ) S
(1 + S ) 1 (S + 1)
Y (S ) = × =
Hence, the correct option is (B). S (S + 5) S (S + 5)
3. Consider the function g(t) = e–t sin (2πt) u(t) where u(t)
is the unit step function. The area under g(t) is _______. Taking partial fraction
[2015] A B (S + 1)
+ =
Solution: g(t) = e sin(2 π t) u(t)
–t
S (S + 5) S (S + 5)
2.46 | Signals and Systems
S ⋅ 2(S + 1)
= =0
≡f (t )dÄ (d)
(c)
0
1
S
[F (S ) − f (o )]
S 2 4S + 7
Hence, the correct option is (b). Solution: (b)
9. A continuous time LTI system is described by L ⋅T
Given f (t ) ← → F ( s ),
d 2 y (t ) 4dy (t ) 2dx (t ) t
F ( S ) f −1 (o+ ) F ( S )
+ + 3y (t ) = + 4 x (t ).
dt 2 dt dt then ∫ f (t )dt = + = .
0
S S S
Assuming zero initial condition, the response y(t) of the
above system for the input f (o + ) shows initial conditions, which are zero.
−1
x (t ) = e −2t u (t ) is given by [2010] Hence, the correct option is (b).
11. Consider the function of f(t) having Laplace transform
(e t − e 3t )u (t )
(a)
w
(e − t − e −3t) u(t )
(b) F (s ) = 2 0 2 Re {S } > 0
S + w0
(e − t + e −3t ) u(t )
(c) The final value of f(t) would be______. [2006]
(e + e )u (t )
(d) t 3t (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) −1 ≤ f(∞) ≤ 1 (d) ∞
Solution: (b)
Given equation Solution: (c)
w0
d 2 y(t ) 4 dy(t ) 2dx(t ) Given F (s ) =
2
+ + 3 y (t ) = + 4 x (t ) S + w 02
2
dt dt dt
f(t )
−1 +1 s
π 2π 3π 4π −J1
0 t
Chapter 5 Laplace Transforms | 2.49
(a) low-pass K (s 2 + w 02 )
(b) high-pass H (s ) = [1988]
S 2 + (w 0 / Q )s + w 02
(c) all pass
(d) band-pass (a) all pass filter (b) low pass filter
(c) band pass filter (d) notch filter
Solution: (c)
The pole zero pattern shown is symmetrical about im- Solution: (d)
aginary axis. Such property is shown by all pass filter. K (s 2 + w 02 )
Given that H (s ) =
Hence, the correct option is (c). w
S 2 + 0 s + w 02
19. The voltage across an impedance in a network is v(s) Q
= z(s) I (s), where v(s), z(s) and I (s) are the Laplace put H(∞) = K, H(∞) ≠0
transform of the corresponding time functions v(t), z(t)
and i(t). The voltage v(t) is [1991] K (1 + 0)
H (∞) = = K, H (∞) ≠ 0
1+ 0 + 0
v(t) = z(t)−i(t)
(a)
t
So, the given transfer function is a notch filter.
v (t ) = ∫ i (t ) ⋅ z (t − T )dT
(b) Hence, the correct option is (d).
0 22. The Laplace transform of function f(t) u(t), where f(t) is
t periodic with period T, is A(s) times the Laplace trans-
v (t ) = ∫ i (t ) ⋅ z (t + T )dT
(c) form of its first period, then [1988]
0
1
(d) v (t ) = z (t ) + i (t ) (a) A(s) = S (b) A (s ) =
1 − e −Ts
Solution: (c) 1
Multiplication of two functions in frequency domain is (c) A (s ) = +Ts
(d) A (s ) = e Ts
1+ e
equivalent to convolution in time domain
Solution: (b)
t
(s + 2) Let e −p f
⋅T
⋅T 1 f1 (t − nT ) 1 → e − nTs F1 ( s)
Given that x (d )
→ u (t ) 1 → x (s ) =
s ∞
F1 ( s)
⋅T
f (t )u(t ) 1 → F ( s) = ∑ e − nTs F1 ( s) =
Y (s ) 1 4 1 − e −Ts
⇒ H (s ) = ⇒ Y (s ) = X (s ) ⋅ H (s ) = ⋅ n= 0
X (s ) s (s + 2)
1
1 1 f (t )u(t )
→ × transform of first period of f(t)
Y (s ) = 2 − 1 − e − sT
s ( s + 2) u(t)
Taking Inverse Laplace transform on both side, 1
A (S ) =
y (t ) = 2[1 − e −2t
]u (t ). 1 − e Ts
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (a).
2 3. Laplace transform of the function tu(t) and sin tu(t) is,
2 1. Specify the filter type if its voltage transfer function
respectively: [1987]
H(s) is given by
2.50 | Signals and Systems
1 S 1 1 Solution:
(a) 2 , 2 (b) , (a)
S S +1 S S 2 +1
x(t )
1 1 S
(c) 2 , 2 (d)
S, 2
S S +1 S +1
Solution: (c) 1
Laplace transform of function f(t) is given as
t
∞ 0 1 2
∫
− st
F |S| = f (t )e dt
−∞ x( s ) − 4 y1 ( s ) − 3 y ( s )
y1 ( s ) =
y(t) = tu(t) s
y1 ( s )
∞ ∞
y(s) = , ⇒ y1(s) = sy(s)
∫ tu(t ) ⋅ e dt = ∫ t ⋅ e − st dt
− st
F (S ) = 2
−∞ 0
x( s ) − 4sy ( s ) − 3 y ( s )
∞ ∞ ⇒
dt = [0 − 0] − e
t ⋅ e − st ∞ e − st − st s
⇒ F (S ) = − ∫ 1⋅
( −S ) 0 0 ( −S ) S 2 0 1 1 1
= − e.e − t + e3 e −3t u (t − 1)
−1 1 3 2 6
⇒ F ( S ) = 2 [0 − 1] = 2
S S 1 1 1
− − e 2 e − t + e6 e −3t u (t − 2)
When f(t) = sin at·u(t) 3 2 6
1 Transform function,
similarly for sin t u(t) the transform is
S +1
2
1 1 1
= − e − (t −1) + e −3(t −1) u (t − 1)
3 2 6
1
2. A sinusoidal signal, v(t) = A sin(t), is applied to an ideal
t full-wave rectifier. Show that the Laplace transform of
0 1 2
the output can be written in the form,
Chapter 5 Laplace Transforms | 2.51
A A −p s
V0 (s ) = cot h(as ) V1 (t ) L
.T .
→ V1 ( s ) = V ( s ) + e
s +12
s +1 2
p
where a is a constant. Determine the value of a. A A −
V1 ( s ) = + e s
[1995] ( s 2 + 1) ( s 2 + 1)
Solution: p2s −ps
−ps
e + e
2
π t
2π 3π A p s p
V0 ( s ) = cot h , So, a =
s2 + 1 2 2
s +1
V0 (t ) 3
x(t)
2
A
1
π 2π t
3π
0
T 2T 3T 4T 5T 6T t
−1
−2
V1(t)
−3
Solution:
π
x(t) is expressed as,
(t −π )
x(t) = u(t) − 3u(t − T) + 4u(t − 2T) − 4u(t − 4T) + 2
−4 / s
1 3e −Ts 4e −2Ts e 4 e 2e − sTs
So, x( s ) = − + − +
π t s s s s s
0 2π 3π
1
V1(t) = V(t) + V(t − p) = 1 − 3e −Ts + 4e −2Ts − 4e −4Ts + 2e − sTs
s
A − ps
V (t − p ) L
.T
→ e
s2 + 1
Chapter 6
Z-Transform
(C) z-plane Imaginary
One-mark Questions axis
2
1. Let H(z) be the z-transform of a real-valued discrete- |z| = 1
⎛ 1⎞
time signal h(n). If p(z) = H(z) H ⎜ ⎟ has a zero at z = 0.5
⎝ z⎠
1 1
+ j and p(z) has a total of four zeros, which one of
2 2 –2 –0.5 0.5 2 Real axis
the following plots represents all the zeros correctly?
[2019]
(A) z-plane Imaginary
–2
axis
2
(D) z-plane Imaginary
|z| = 1 axis
2
0.5
1
|z| = 1
–0.5
–2 0.5 2 Real axis
–0.5
–2
–1
(B) z-plane Imaginary
–2
axis
2
1
Solution: P ( z ) = H ( z ) ⋅ H
|z| = 1 z
0.5 1 1
Zero at z = + j
z 2
–2 0.5 2 Real axis if z is zero, z will also be zero
–0.5
z = 1 + 1 1 1
j = − j
2 2 2 2
–2
Chapter 6 Z-Transform | 2.53
1 1 −1
also & will also be zero ∴ Re s[ f ( z )] =
z z z =− 1 125
1 1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
− j
1 1
= × 2 2 = 1− j 3. A continuous time function x(t) is periodic with period
z 1 1 1 1
+ j − j T. The function is sampled uniformly with a sampling
2 2 2 2 period Ts. In which one of the following cases is the
1 sampled signal periodic? [2016]
= 1+ j
z (A) T = 2 Ts (B) T = 1.2 Ts
Hence, the correct option is (D). (C) Always (D) Never
1 Solution: As we know that in Nyquist theorem,
2. The residues of a function f ( z ) = are
( z − 4)( z + 1)3 Fs ≥ 2Fm
[2017] or Tm ≥ 2Ts
−1 −1 1 −1 or T ≥ kTs
(A) and (B) and Hence, the correct option is (B).
27 125 125 125
s( z )
−1 1 1 −1 4. For f(z) = 2 the residue of the pole at z = 0 is ____.
(C) and (D) and z
27 5 125 5 [2016]
sin Z
Given f(Z) =
Solution:
1 Z2
Given f ( z ) =
Solution:
( z − 4)( z + 1)3 Z = 0 is a pole of order 2 for f(Z);
z = 4 and z = −1 are the singularities of f (z) the residue of f(Z) at Z = a is given by,
z = 4 is a simple pole of f(z) 1 ⎡ d n −1 ⎤
Lt ⎢ n −1 ( Z − a) n f ( Z ) ⎥
∴Re s[ f ( z )] = Lt [( z − 4) f ( z )] ( n − 1)! Z → a ⎣ dZ
z=4 z→4 ⎦
1 Here, Z = a = 0 and n = 2;
= Lt ( z − 4). 3
z→4
( z − 4)( z + 1) ∴ Res [f(Z)] = Z = 0
1 1 ⎡ d ⎡ 2 sin Z ⎤ ⎤
= Lt = Lt ( Z − 0)
z → 4 ( z + 1)3
( 2 − 1)! Z →0 ⎢⎣ dZ ⎢⎣ 2 ⎥⎥
Z ⎦⎦
1 ⎡ d ⎤
= =Lt (sin Z ) ⎥
( 4 + 1)3 Z →0 ⎢
⎣ dZ ⎦
1 =
Lt cosZ
∴Re s[ f ( z )] = Z →0
z=4 125
=
1
z = −1 is a pole of order 3 for f (z)
Hence, the correct Answer is (1).
1 Lt d 3−1
∴ Re s[ f ( z )] = 3−1 (( z + 1) f ( z ))
3
5. A discrete-time signal x[n] = δ[n – 3] + 2δ [n – 5] has
z =−1 (3 − 1)! z ⇒ − 1 dz z–transform X(z). If Y(z) = X(–z) is the z–transform of
another signal y[n], then [2016]
1 d2 1
= Lt 2 z − 4 (A) y[n] = x[n] (B) y[n] = x[–n]
2 z → −1 dz (C) y[n] = –x[n] (D) y[n] = –x[–n]
1 2
= z Lt Solution: We know the z-transform a n ⋅ x( n) ↔ X ( Z /a)
2 → −1 ( z − 4)3
(–1)n ⋅ x(n) ↔ X(–Z)
1 2
= 3 given x(n) = δ[n– 3] + 2δ[n– 5]
2 ( −1 − 4)
and
2.54 | Signals and Systems
Y[Z] = X [–Z] n n
⎡1⎤ ⎡2⎤
(C) 5 ⎢ ⎥ u [ n] − 5 ⎢ ⎥ u [ n]
∴ y[n] = (–1)n ⋅ x[n] 3 ⎣ ⎦ 3 ⎣ ⎦
y[n] = (–1)n [δ [n– 3] + 2δ[n– 5]] ⎡2⎤
n
⎡1⎤
n
5 ⎢ ⎥ u [ n] − 5 ⎢ ⎥ u [ n]
(D)
∴ y[n] = – δ[n– 3]– 2δ[n– 5] 3 ⎣ ⎦ 3 ⎣ ⎦
or y[n] = – (δ[n– 3]+2δ[n– 5] Solution:
W[n]
=
–x[n] x[n] +
Z–1
=
–x[n].
1 –5/3
Hence, the correct option is (C). + + y[n]
If the ROC is z < 0.2, then the impulse response of the 1 + z −1 + z −2 + … < ∞
system is z −1 < 1 → z > 1
(a) (0.2)nu[n] (b) (0.2)nu[−n − 1]
Hence, the correct option is (a).
(c) −(0.2) u[n] (d)
n
−(0.2)nu[−n − 1]
2 0. The z-transform F(z) of the function
Solution: (d)
f(nT) = anT is_____. [1999]
z z z
H (z ) = ,| z |< 0.2 (a) T (b)
z − 0.2 z −a z + aT
1 1 z z
H (z ) = −1
← → ⋅r <1 (c) −T (d)
1 − 0.2z 1− r z −a z + a−T
0.2 Z−1< 1 ⇒ |z| > 0.2 Solution : (a)
But given ROC is |z| < 0.2 f ( nT ) = anT
Hence, the correct option is (d). ∞ ∞
Solution: (b) ∑ d (n − k ) is
k =0
x ( z ) = z 4 + z +2 − 2z + 2 − 3z −4 z z
(a) (b)
h( n ) = 2d ( n − 3) z - aT z + aT
h( z ) = 2z −3 z z
(c) (d)
y ( z ) = h( z ) ⋅ x ( z ) z -a -T
z + a−T
y ( z ) = 2z −3 ( z 4 + z 2 − 2z + 2 − 3z −4 ) Solution: (*)
Given Signal
y ( z ) = 2z + 2z −1 − 4 z −2 + 4 z −3 − 6 z −7
∞
y ( n ) = 2[d ( n + 1) + d ( n − 1) − 2d ( n − 2) + 2d ( n − 3) − 3d ( n − 7)]
x ( n ) = ∑ S ( n − k ) = S ( n ) + S ( n − 1) + S ( n − 2) + …
k =0
At n = 4 y(4) = 0
x ( z ) = 1 + z −1 + z −2 + …
h ( n ) = −(0.2) n u ( − n − 1) 1 z
= −1
=
Hence, the correct option is (b). 1− z z −1
2.58 | Signals and Systems
Two-mark Questions 2. For the discrete-time system shown in the figure, the
poles of the system transfer function are located at
1. A continuous time filter with transfer function H(s) = [2015]
2s + 6
2
is converted to a discrete time filter with X[n] + + Y[n]
s + 6s + 8
2 z 2 − 0.5032 z
transfer function G(z) = 2 so that the
z − 0.5032 z + k –1 5
impulse response of the continuous time filter, sam- 6 6
pled at 2 Hz, is identical at the sampling instants to the
impulse response of the discrete time filter. The value Z –1 Z –1
of k is _____. [2016]
1
Solution: To find the Inverse Laplace of transfer (A) 2, 3 ,3 (B)
2
function H(s) we need to calculate the values using par-
1 1 1
tial fraction formula as given below: (C) , (D)
2,
2 3 2
2 s +6
H(s) = 2
s + 6s + 8
5 1
Y[n] =
Solution: y [n – 1] − y [ n − 2] + x [ n]
A B 6 6
H(s) = +
( s + 2) s + 4 By taking z transform on both sides
A = H(s) ⋅ (s + 2) at s = −2 ⎡ 5 1 ⎤
Y ( z ) ⎢1 − Z −1 + Z −2 ⎥ = X (z)
2 ⎣ 6 6 ⎦
A = = 1
2
Y (z) 1 1
B = H(s) (s + 4) at s = −4 = ⇒=
X ( z ) ⎛ 5 −1 1 −2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 −1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 −1 ⎞
−2 ⎜⎝1 − z + z ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝1 − z ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝1 − z ⎟⎠
B = = 1 6 6 2 3
−2
1 1
Now we have So poles are at Z = ,
1 1 2 3
H(s) = + Hence, the correct option is (C).
s+2 s+4
3. Two causal discrete-time signals x[n] and y[n] are
h(t) = ILT {H(S)} = (e−2t + e−4t)u(t)
related as y[n] = ∑ m = 0 x [ m] . If the z-transform of y[n]
n
1 1 2
We know that, TS = = is , the value of x[2] is _____. [2015]
fs 2 z ( z − 1)
2
H(Z) = +
Z −e −1
Z − e −2 2 X (z) Z X (z)
⇒ = =
=
Z
+
Z
Z ( Z − 1)
2
(1 − Z )
−1
( Z − 1)
Z − 0.367 Z − 0.135 2 Z −3
So X(z) =
2
Z − 0.135Z + Z − 0.367 Z
=
2 (1 − Z ) −1
2
Z − 0.5032 Z + 0.049 x[n] = 2 u[n – 3]
2 Z − 0.5032 Z
2
= So at n = 2
Z 2 − 0.5032 Z + 0.049
x[2] = 0
∴ K = 0.049
Hence, the correct Answer is (0).
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.049).
Chapter 6 Z-Transform | 2.59
8. Two systems H1(z) and H2(z) are connected in c ascade 2. A discrete-time LTI system is stable if the ROC of
as shown below. The overall output y(n) is the same as its system function includes the unit circle, |z| = 1
the input x(n) with a one unit delay. The transfer func-
tion of the second system H2(z) is [2011] 1 −1 1 −1
1 − 4 z + 1 − 2 z
(1 − 0.4 z −1 ) H (z )
x (n) → H1 (z ) = → H 2 (z ) → y (n) 1 −1 1 −1
(1 − 0.6 z −1 ) 1 − 4 z + 1 − 2 z
(a)
(
1 − 0.6z −1
(b) −1
)
z −1 (1 − 0.6z −1 ) 1 1
⇒ H (z ) = +
( )
z −1 1- 0.4z −1 (1 − 0.4z ) 1 1
1 − z −1 1 − z −1
4 2
z (1 − 0.4z )
−1
(1 − 0.4z )
−1 −1
(c) (d) 1
(1 − 0.6z ) z (1 − 0.6z )
−1 −1 −1 For ROC: |z| > , the system is stable and causal
2
Solution: (b) 1
For ROC: |z| < , ROC does not include unit circle.
y [n ] = x [n −1] 4
So system is not stable.
Taking Z-transform both sides
1
y ( z ) = z −1 × ( z ) For ROC: , ROC does not include unit circle. So sys-
4
y (z ) tem in not stable
= z −1
x (z ) 1
Also ROC is not the exterior of z = . So it is not
For cascaded system causal. 2
n ( z ) − n1 ( z ) ⋅ n 2 ( z ) Hence, the correct option is (c).
−1 −1
(1 − 0.4 z ) (1 − 0.6zz ) 1 0. A system with transfer function H(z) has impulse h(n)
z −1 = n2 (z ) ∴ n2 (z ) = defined as h(2) = 1, h(3) = −1 and h(k) = 0 otherwise.
(1 − 0.6 z −1 ) (1 − 0.4 z −1 )
Consider the following statements [2009]
Hence, the correct option is (b). S1: H(z) is a low-pass filter
9. The transfer function of a discrete time LTI system is S2: H(z) is an FIR filter.
given by [2010] Which of the following is correct?
3 (a) Only S2 is true
2 − z −1
4 (b) Both S1 and S2 are false
H (z ) =
3 −1 1 −2 (c) Both S1 and S2 are true, and S2 is a reason
1− z + z
4 8 for S1
(d) Both S1 and S2 are true, but S2 is not a reason for S1
Consider the following statements:
S1: The system is stable and causal for Solution: (a)
1 h(2) = 1
ROC: z > h(3) = −1
2
S2: The system is stable but not causal for h(k) = otherwise
1 h(k)
ROC: z <
4
S3: The system is neither stable nor causal 1
1 1 3
for ROC: < z < k
4 2 2
Which one of the following statements is valid? −1
(a) Both S1 and S2 are true
(b) Both S2 and S3 true
(c) Both S1 and S3 are true ⇒It is an FIR filter and not a low pass filter.
(d) S1, S2 and S3 are all true Hence, the correct option is (a).
Solution: (c) Statement for Linked Answer Questions 8 and 9.
1. A discrete time LII system is causal if the ROC of In the following network, the switch is closed at
its system function is the exterior of a circle, in- t = 0- and the sampling starts from t = 0. The s ampling
cluding infinity. frequency is 10 Hz.
Chapter 6 Z-Transform | 2.61
−0.05 −1 Solution: (c)
For e z < 1
⇒ |z| >e−0.05 2 y ( n ) = ay [n − 2] − 2x [n ] + bx [n − 1]
⇒
5z Taking z-transform
x(z) =
z − e −0.05
2 y ( z ) = ay ( z )z −2 − 2x ( z ) + bx ( z )z −1
Pole should be inside unit circle
y ( z ) 2 − az −2 = z ( z )[bz −1 − 2]
a
<1 y ( z ) bz −1 − 2
2 = =T ⋅F
x ( z ) 2 − az −2
| a |< 2
Hence, the correct option is (c). For stable B can have only value
12. The sample x(n)(n = 0,1,2, ...) is given by [2008]
(a) 5(1−e−0.05n) a
2 − az −2 = 0 ⇒ z =
(b) 5e−0.05n 2
(c) 5(1−e−5n)
(d) 5e−5n Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (b) 1 5. If the impulse response of a discrete-time system is
Using the voltage divider rule h[n] = −5nu[−n − 1], then the system function H(z) is
equal to [2002]
5 −z
200 × 103 (a) and the system is stable
V R (S ) = z −5
200 × 103 + 1 S z
10 × 10 −6 S (b) and the system is stable
z −5
10
= = 5e −0.5tt −z
2S + 1 (c) and the system is unstable
z −5
2.62 | Signals and Systems
C (z ) =
−1
1 z 1− z (
−4
)
. Its final value is
1
(a) −1 ; z > 1 (b)
1− z
1
1 − az −1
; z >a
(
4 1 − z −1 2 ) 1
(c) 1 for all z (d) ; z <a
(a) 1/4 (b) zero 1 − az −1
Solution: (b)
(c) 1.0 (d) infinity
Solution: (c) x ( nT ) = an , nT ≥ 0
= 0, nT < 0, a > 0
1 z −1 (1 − z −4 )
C (z ) =
nT )) = aa >
n
4 (1 − z −1 ) 2 xx (( nT = aan uu (( nn ),
), > 00
Final value theorem xx (( nn )) = a n
n u ( m ),
= a u ( m ), aa >> 00
zz
lim x ( n ) = lim(1 − z −1 )x ( z )
n →∞ z →1
aann uu (( mm )) == z − a ⋅⋅ || zz ||>
>|| aa ||
z −a
1 z −1 (1 − z −4 ) 11
= lim (1 − z −1 ) =
xx (( zz )) = ; | z |> a
z →1 4 (1 − z −1 ) 2 − aazz −−11 ; | z |> a
11 −
1 z −1 (1 − z −4 ) 0 Hence, the correct option is (b).
= lim −1
→
z →1 4 (1 − z ) 0 19. Consider the system shown in the figure below. The
transfer function Y(z)/X(z) of the system is
For apply L-hospital rule
x(k) Σ Σ y (k )
1
1−
lim x ( n ) = lim
1 1 z 4
= lim
1 z −1
4
( )
z −1
n →∞ z →1 4 z 1 z →1 4 z 4 ( z − 1)
1
z−
−b a
1 4z 3
lim x ( n ) = lim
n →∞ z →1 4 5z 4 − 4 z 3 [1988]
1
= ×4 =1 1 + bz −1
1 + az −1 (b)
4 (a)
1 + bz −1 1 + az −1
Final value = 1 1 + az −1 1 − bz −1
Hence, the correct option is (c). (c) −1 (d)
1 − bz 1 + az −1
Chapter 6 Z-Transform | 2.63
Solution: (a) Solution:
y1(z) y1(z) Given, x(n) = 1 n = 0
+
x(k) Σ Σ y(k) Σ =0n≠0
+ So, x(n) = f(n)
z −1 z −1
f (n) ←
z .T
→1
−b a −b
1
So, y2 ( z ) = H ( z ).x( z ) = H ( z ).1. = H ( z ) =
( z + 1) 2
y 1 (z ) 1
= z
x ( z ) (1 + bz −1 ) (1)
u (n) ←
Z .T
→
z −1
y (z )
Now, 2d z z
y 1 (z ) nu (n) ←
Z .T
→− =
dz 2 − 1 ( z − 1) 2
y1(k) +
Σ y(k)
−z
+ ( −1) n nu (m) ←
Z .T
→
( z + 1) 2
z −1
−1
( −1) n −1 (n − 1)u (n − 1) →
a (2 + 1) 2
Five-marks Questions
D −3 1
1. In figure, a linear time invariant discrete system is 5
shown. Blocks labelled D represent unit delay ele-
ments. For n < 0, you may assume that x(n), y1(n), y2(n) D D
are all zero.
Solution:
+ y1(n)
x(n) Σ D D y2(n) + y1(n)
− x(n) Σ D D y2(n)
−
−
2
2
1
1
(a) Find the expression for y1(n) and y2(n) in terms of
x(n). (a) y1(n) = x(n − 1) − 2y1 (n − 1) − y1 (n − 2)
(b) Find the transfer function Y2(z)/X(z) in the y2(n) = y1(n − 1) = x(n − 2) − 2y1 (n − 2) − y2 (n − 1)
z- domain. y3(n) = y(n − 2) − 2y2 (n − 1) − y2 (n − 2)
(c) If x(n) = 1 at n = 0 = 0 otherwise
(b) y2(n) + 2y2(n − 1) + y2(n − 2) = x(n − 2)
Find y2(n). [1997] taking Z-transform of both sides.
2.64 | Signals and Systems
D 5 −3 1
D D
Chapter 7
DTFT and DFT
(c) In-place computation requires storage of only 2N
One-mark Questions node data.
(d) Computation of a butterfly requires only one com-
1. Consider two real sequences with time-origin marked plex multiplication.
by the bold value, Solution: (d)
x1[n] = {1, 2, 3, 0}, x2[n] = {1, 3, 2, 1} For an N point FFT algorithm with N = 2m, computation
of a butterfly requires only one complex multiplication
Let X1(k) and X2(k) be 4-points DFTs of x1[n] and x2[n], and two complex additions.
respectively. Hence, the correct option is (d).
Another sequence x3[n] is derived by taking 4-point
n
inverse DFT of X3(k) = X1(k) X2(k). 1
3. Let x (n ) = u (n ), y (n ) = x 2 (n ) and Y (e ) be
jw
Two-marks Questions ⎛ j2 ⎞
W6 = exp ⎜ – ⎟ In the figure, what should be the
1. It is desired to find a three-tap causal filter which gives ⎝ 6⎠
zero signal as an output to an input of the form value of the coefficients a1, a2, a3 in terms of W6 so the
X[1] is obtained correctly? [2019]
jπ n ⎞ ⎛ jπ n ⎞
x[n] = c1 exp ⎛⎜ – ⎟ + c2 exp ⎜⎝ ⎟ x(0) + x(3)
⎝ 2 ⎠ 2 ⎠ x[0] X[0]
x(0) – x(3) a1
Where c1 and c2 are arbitrary real numbers. The desired x[3] X[1]
three-tap filter is given by and –1
x(2) + x(4) a2
h[0] = 1, h[1] = a, h[2] = b
x[1] X[2]
h[n] = 0 for n < 0 or n > 2. x(2) – x(4)
x[4] a3 X[3]
What are the values of the filter taps a and b if the out-
put is y[n] = 0 for all n, when x[n] is as given above? x(2) + x(5)
x[2] X[4]
[2019]
X[n] n=0 y[n] = 0 x[5] X[5]
–1 x(2) – x(5)
h[n] = {1, a, b}
Π Π W64 = −W61
−j n j n
For input X[n] = C1e 2 + C2 e 2
W65 = −W62
output y[n] = 0 if
From the graph we have
Π
H W = − = 0
X (1) = X ( 0) − X (3) a1 + X (1) − X ( 4) a2
2
Π + X ( 2) − X (5) a3
−j
1 + ae 2 + be − iΠ = 0
on companion we get
1 − aj − b = 0
a1 = 1
1 − b − aj = 0
a2 = W61
1− b = 0 a = 0 a = W62
3
b = 1 a = 0 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 3. Let h[n] be a length-7 discrete-time finite impulse
2. Consider a six-point decimation-in-time. Fast Fourier response filter, given by
Transform (FFT) alogorithm, for which the signal-flow h[0] = 4 h[1] = 3, h[2] = 2 h[3] = 1
graph corresponding to X[1] is shown in the figure. Let h[–1] = –3, h[–2] = –2, h[–3] = –1
Chapter 7 DTFT and DFT | 2.67
and h[n] is zero for n ≥ 4. A length-3 finite impulse Using the following identities
response approximation g[n] of h[n] has to be obtained DFT
x[n] ←⎯⎯ → X [k ]
such that
⎡ n ⎤ DFT
π x1 [n] = x ⎢ ⎥ ←⎯⎯ → X (3k ] = X 1 [k ]
( ) – G (e )
2
⎣s⎦
∫
jω jω
E(h, g) = H e dω
−π X 1 [k ] = [12, −2 j , 0, 2 j ,12, −2 j , 0, 2 j ,12, −2 j , 0, 2 j ]
=
4.5 – 1.5 = 3 x[n]. The coefficients {ak} are non-zero when k = Bm
± 1, where m is any integer. The value of B is ______.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.9 to 3.1. [2014]
5. The Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) of the 4 point Solution: 10
sequence Discrete time Fourier series
x[n] = {x[0], x[2], x[3]} = {3, 2, 3, 4} is n −1 2p
jk n
x[k] = {x[0], x[1], x[2], x[3]} = {12, 2j, 0, –2j} x ( n )∑ ake n
k =0
2À 2p
If x1[k] is the DFT of the 12 point sequence x1[n] = −J j n
= a−1e n
+ a0 + a1e n (1)
x [8]
{3, 0, 0, 2, 0, 0, 3, 0, 0, 4, 0, 0} the value of 1
x1 [11] 1 − J5 n 1 J p5 n
x (n) = e + e
is ____ [2016] 2j 2j
Solution:
pn
x[n] = {3, 2, 3, 4} Also x ( n ) = sin
5
x1[n] = {3, 0, 0, 2, 0, 0, 3, 0, 0, 4, 0, 0} 2p p
Where N = 10, = ⇒ N = 10
x1[n] = X[n/3] N 5
2.68 | Signals and Systems
1 −1 1 1 1 1
By comparing, a1 = and a9 = a − 1 = 1 − j −1 j
2J 2j
as, the TFS Coeff. ak is also periodic with N = 10
[p q r s] =
1 −1 1 −1
a1 = a11 = a21 …
1 j −1 − j
a1 = a9 = a19 …
Given that ak is non-zero for k = Bm ±1 = [( p + q + r + s) ( p − jq − pr + s)
( p − q + r − s) p + jq − r − js]
Bm ± 1 = 1 9…
−1 11… = l 2 b2 g 2
d 2
From (1) and (2)
For m = 0 for m =1
To satisfy this condition, B must be ‘10’ where ‘m’ is p + q + r + s = ( a 2 + c 2 + 2bd ) + ( 2ab + 2cd )
any integer. + (b 2 + d 2 + 2ac) + ( 2ad + 2bc)
8. The DFT of a vector [a b c d ] is the vector = (a + b + c + d )2 = a2
[a b g d ]. Consider the product.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
a b c d 9. The first six points of the 8-point DFT of a real valued
d a b c sequence are 5, 1 −j3, 0, 3 −j4, and 3 + j4. The last two
[ p q r s ] = [a b c d ] c d a b points of the DFT are respectively. [2011]
(a) 0, 1 −j3 (b) 0, 1 + j3
b c d a
(c) 1 + j3, 5 (d) 1 −j3, 5
The DFT of the vector [ p q r s] is a scaled versions of Solution: (b)
[2013] Given x(n) → real
x(k) → conjugate symmetric
a 2 b
(a) 2
g 2 d 2
⇒ x [k ] = x ∗ [n − k ]
a b g d
(b) n=8
[a + b b + d d + g g + a ]
(c) ⇒ x [k ] = x ∗ [8 ⋅ k ]
x [6] = x ∗ [8 − 6] = x ∗ [2] = 0
[a b ‡ d ]
(d)
x [7] = x ∗ [8 − 7] = x ∗ [1] = 1 + j 3
Solution: (a) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Given DFT of vector [a, b, c, d ] is [a, b, g, d] 1 0. The four-point discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) of a
i.e. discrete time sequence {1, 0, 2, 3} is [2009]
(a) [0, −2 + 2j, 2, −2 − 2j]
l 1 1 1 1 a a +b +c +d
g 1 − j −1 j b a (b) [2, 2 + 2j, 6, 2 − 2j]
= = − jb −c + jd (c) [6, 1 − 3j, 2, 1 + 3j]
b 1 −1 1 −1 c a −b +c −d (d) [6, −1 + 3j, 0, −1 − 3j]
d 1 j −1 − j d a + jb −c − jd Solution: (d)
Given q Point DFT of sequence {1, 0, 2, 3} is given by
a b c d
d 1 1 1 1 1 1 + 2 + 3 6
a b c 1 − j −1 j 0 1 − 2 + 3 j −1 + 3 j
[ p q r s ] [
= a b c d ] c d a b
(1) = =
1 −1 1 −1 2 1 + 2 − 3 0
b c d a
1 j −1 − j 3 1 − 2 − 3 j −1 − 3 j
a2 + bd + c 2bd ab + ab + cd + cd 2ac + b 2 + d 2 2ad + 2bc
(2) Hence, the correct option is (d).
DFT of pqrs is given as: 1 1. {x(n)} is a real-valued periodic sequence with a
period N. x(n) and X(k) form N-point Discrete Fourier
Transform (DFT) pairs. The DFT Y(k) of the sequence
[2008]
Chapter 7 DTFT and DFT | 2.69
1 N −1 (b)
y (n) =
N
∑ x (r ) x (n + r ) is
r =0
2
(a) |X(K)|2
1 1
1 N −1
(b) ∑ X (r )X i ( k + r ) 1/2 1/2
N r =0
1 N −1
(c) ∑ X (r )X ( k + r ) −3 −1 1 3 5 n
N r =0
(d) 0 (c)
2
Solution: (a)
DFT of y(n) = |x(k)|2
Hence, the correct option is (a). 1 1
∫ X (e ) d w (d)
jw
of x[n]. The value of is [2007]
2
-p
(a) 5 (b) 10 p
(c) 16 p (d) 5 + j 10 p 1 1
−2 −1 0 1 2 n
(d) e 2 [cos 2w + 2 cos w + 2]
Solution: (c)
n Given y(2n) = x(n– 1)
13. The sequence y ( n ) = x − 1 for n even will be = 0,
2
for n odd [2005] From graph f ( n ) = y ( 2n )
(a) 1
2
=
f ( n + 1) + f ( n ) + 2f ( n − 1)
2
1
1 1
+ f ( n − 2) + f ( n − 3)
Taking 2-transform
2
1/2 1/2
1 1
F(z ) = z + 1 + 2z −1 + z −2 + z −3
2 2
−2 0 2 4 6 n
2.70 | Signals and Systems
⎧ 1 3 ⎫ After multiplication
= ⎨2 × .log 2 8 + 2 × .log 2 8 ⎬
⎩ 8 8 3⎭
⎧1 3 ⎫
= ⎨ × 3 + × 1.414⎬
⎩4 4 ⎭
= 1.81 bits/symbols
Information rate can be calculated as –0.2 –0.1 0 0.1 0.2 f
R = n × fm × H
=2 × 100 × 1.81 So Nyquist sampling rate = 2 × 0.2
= 200 × 1.81 = 362.0 bits/sec =
0.4 samples/sec
Hence, the correct Answer is (362.0 bits/sec). Hence, the correct Answer is (0.39 to 0.41).
4. Consider a continuous-time signal defined as
5. A sinusoidal signal of 2 kHz frequency is applied to
⎛ sin (π t 2) ⎞ ∞ a delta modulator. The sampling rate and step-size ∆
x(t) = ⎜ ⎟ ∗ ∑ δ (t − 10 n)
⎝ (π t 2) ⎠ n = −∞ of the delta modulator are 20,000 samples per second
and 0.1 V, respectively. To prevent slope overload, the
Where ‘*’ denotes the convolution operation and t is maximum amplitude of the sinusoidal signal (in Volts)
in seconds. The Nyquist sampling rate (in samples/sec) is [2015]
for x(t) is ______. [2015] 1 1
(A) (B)
2π π
sin (π 2) +∞
2
x(t) =
Solution:
(π t 2)
⊗ ∑ δ (t −10n) (C) (D)
π
π
n = −∞
As we know that convolution in time domain is equal to Solution: As we know that in delta modulator to
multiplication in frequency domain prevent slope overload
+∞ +∞
F .T 1 Δ sm(t )
So ∑ δ (t −10n) ↔ 10 ∑ δ ( f − kf s ) TS
≥
dt
n = −∞ n = −∞
+∞
1 Δ
= ∑ δ ( f − kf s )
10 n = −∞ TS
≥ Aω m
Where, ∆ = step size
1 1 +∞
and Fs =
Ts
= 0.1 ∑ δ ( f − 0.1k )
10 n = −∞
Ts = sampling period
A = Amplitude of message signal.
t∞ +∞
1 m = frequency of message signal
ω
So ∑ δ ( t −10n ) ←⎯⎯
F .T
→
10
∑ δ ( f − 0.1k )
n = −∞ n = −∞
0.1 × 20,000 = A × 2π × 2 × 103
sin (π t z ) 1
F .T
←⎯⎯ → ∴ A=
(π t z ) 2π
Hence, the correct option is (A).
⎡ π⎤
6. The signal cos ⎢10π t + ⎥ is ideally sampled at a sam-
⎣ 4⎦
pling frequency of 15 Hz. The sampled signal is passed
–1
4
+1
4
f ⎛ sin (π t ) ⎞
through a filter with impulse response ⎜ cos
⎝ π t ⎟⎠
+∞ ⎛ π⎞
⎜⎝ 40π t − ⎟⎠ . The filter output is [2015]
∑ δ (t −10n) ←⎯⎯
F .T
→ 2
n = −∞
15 ⎛ π⎞
(A) cos ⎜ 40π t − ⎟
2 ⎝ 4⎠
15 ⎛ sin (π t ) ⎞
1
⎛ π⎞
(B) ⎜ ⎟ cos ⎜10π t + ⎟
2 ⎝ πt ⎠ ⎝ 4⎠
0.1 0.2 0.3
Chapter 8 Sampling | 2.73
(f S ) min = 2 × 5 = 10 kH 3 . 0
f
−W W
So f S ≥ 10 kH 3
Hence, the correct option is (a). (a) attention of high frequencies in reproduction
(b) attention of low frequencies in reproduction
11. The transfer function of a zero-order-hold system is (c) greater aliasing errors in reproduction
[1998] (d) no harmful effects in reproduction
1 1
(a) (
s 1+ e
− sT
)
(b) s 1− e
(
− sT
) Solution: (a)
X(t) X(t) = |τ sin(1+τ)|
1 + (1 / s)e − sT
1 − (1 / s)e − sT (d)
(c)
F.T
Solution: (b)
The impulse response h(t) of zero-order hold system is t t
h(t) = U(t) −U(t−T)
As pulse width t is increased, the width 1/T of the first
1 1 −ST (1 − e −ST ) lobe of spectrum is decreased.
So, H (s ) = − e =
s s S
S 2 +1 eS eS eS
Hence, the correct option is (b). Y (S ) = × = =
S 2 + 2S + 1 S 2 + 1 S 2 + 2S + 1 (S + 1) 2
12. Flat top sampling of low pass signals [1998] Take inverse Laplace Transform
(a) gives rise to aperture effect
(b) implies oversampling y (t ) = (t + 1)e − (t +1)
(c) leads to aliasing S ⋅ eS
(d) introduce delay distortion y ( ) = lim SY (S ) = lim =0
s →0 s → 0 (S + 1) 2
Chapter 8 Sampling | 2.75
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.049). 7. A 1 kHz sinusoidal signal is ideally sampled at 1500
samples/sec and the sampled signal is passed through
s2 + 1 an ideal low-pass filter with cut-off frequency 800 Hz.
5. An LTI system having transfer function and
s + 2s + 1
2 The output signal has the frequency [2004]
input x(t) = sin(t + 1) are in steady state. The output is (a) zero Hz (b) 0.75 kHz
sampled at a rate w s rad/s to obtain the final output (c) 0.5 kHz (d) 0.25 kHz
{y(k)}. Which of the following is true? [2009] Solution: (c)
(a) y is zero for all sampling frequencies w s Given fs = 1.5 kHz,
(b) y is non-zero for all sampling frequencies w s fm = 1 kHz
(c) y is non-zero for w s > 2 but zero for w s < 2 available frequency components = nfs ± fm
(d) y is zero for w s > 2 but non-zero for w s < 2 So, 1 kHz, 2.5 kHz, 0.5 kHz.
Solution: (a) ∴LPF has fe = 0.8 kHz.
So only 0.5 kHz will be at o/p.
s2 +1 Hence, the correct option is (c).
X (s ) → H (s ) = → X (s )
s + 2s + 1
2
8. The transfer function of a zero-order hold is [1988]
x(t) = sin (t + 1) →w = 1 1− exp( −Ts )
(a) (b) 1/s
Laplace transform s
w 1 es (c) 1 (d) 1/[ − exp( −Ts)]
X (s ) = es = 2 2 es = 2
s +w
2 2
1 +s s +1 Solution: (a)
Given Impulse response of system is
⇒y(s) = H(s)*(s)
Hence, the correct option is (a). h (t ) = u (t ) − u (t − T ), T→ sampling period.
Chapter 8 Sampling | 2.77
ω n2 = 4
w = 3 rad/sec, steady-state output will be zero.
⇒ ωn = 2 rad/sec Hence, the correct option is (c)
ω n2 Y ( s) s
∴ T(s) = 3. A system with the transfer function =
s 2 + 2ζω n s + ω n2 X ( s) s + p
4 p
∴ T(s) = has an output y(t ) = cos 2t − for the input signal
2
s + 2s + 4 3
p
Hence, the correct option is (D). x(t ) = p cos 2t − . Then, the system parameter p is
3
3.4 | Control Systems
7. The transfer function of a tachometer is of the form step u(t) is applied at the input of the system. At steady
K state, the output has constant value of 1. The impulse
(a) Ks (b) response of this system is
s
(a) [exp (-2t) + exp (-4t)] u(t)
K K
(c) (d) [1998] (b) [-4exp (-2t) + 12 exp(-4t)-exp(-t)] u(t)
( s + 1) s ( s + 1) (c) [-4exp (-2t) + 12 exp(-4t)] u(t)
Solution: (a) (d) [-0.5exp (-2t) + 1.5 exp(-4t)] u(t) [2008]
The tachometer input is assumed to be shaft position. Solution: (c)
Thus, it differentiates shaft position to angular rate given transfer function
and multiplies it by the gain, So, transfer function of a
k ( s + 1)
tachometer is of Ks. G ( s) =
( s + 2)( s + 4)
Hence, the correct option is (a)
8. The transfer function of a linear system is the Unit step input, R( s) = 1
(a) ratio of the output, v0(t) and input vi(t). s
(b) ratio of the derivatives of the output and the input. Output C(s) = R(s) . G(s)
(c) ratio of the Laplace transform of the output and
∴ Lt s c( s) = 1
that of the input with all initial conditions zeros. s →0
(d) none of these [1995]
s.k ( s + 1)
Solution: (c) ⇒ Lt =1
s →0 s( s + 2)( s + 4)
Given a linear system, the transfer function, G(s), of the
system is the ratio of the transform of the output to the k
⇒ =1
transform of the input with all initial conditions zero. 8
Hence, the correct option is (c) ∴ k = 8
9. Tachometer feedback in a d.c. position control system 8( s + 1)
enhances stability. State True or False. [1994] G ( s) =
( s + 2)( s + 4)
Solution: True
Applying partial fraction
Tachometers are electromechanical devices that con-
8( s + 1) A B
vert mechanical energy into electrical energy. It is a = +
derivative feedback. So, it adds zero at origin. Hence, it ( s + 2)( s + 4) s + 2 s + 4
improves the damping characteristics of the system. 8 (s + 1) = A (s + 4) + B (s + 2)
Let S = −4
Two-marks Questions −24 = −2B ∴ B = 12
1. Negative feedback in a closed-loop control system does Let S = −2
not [2015] ⇒ −8 = 2A ∴ A = −4
(A) reduce the overall gain
(B) reduce bandwidth −4 12
∴ G ( s) = +
(C) improve disturbance rejection
s+2 s+4
(D) reduce sensitivity to parameter variation
g(t) = (−4e−2t + 12e−4t) u(t)
Solution: Negative feedback effects in closed loop
which is the impulse response of the system.
system:
(i) Reduces the overall gain Hence, the correct option is (c)
(ii) Bandwidth increases 3. The frequency response of a linear time-invariant sys-
tem is given by
(iii) Reduces sensitivity to parameter variation
(iv) Reduces noise effect 5
H( f ) = .
(v) Improves disturbance rejection ratio 1 + j10p f
Hence, the correct option is (B). The step response of the system is
(a) 5 (1-e-5t) u (t) (b) 5 (l - e-t/5) u(t)
2. A linear, time-invariant, causal continuous time system
has a rational transfer function with simple poles at s
1
( )
(c) 1 − e −5t u(t ) (d)
5
1
( s + 5)( s + 1)
= -2 and s = -4, and one simple zero at s = -1. A unit
[2007]
3.6 | Control Systems
(d) a 2 + 4b , a 2 + 4b [2006] 1
R( s) =
s
Solution: (c) 1 1
For the given transfer function. ∴ Output C ( s) = H ( s).R( s) = .
( s + 1) s
1
G1 ( s) = Solving by partial fraction
s 2 + as + b
Chapter 1 Basics | 3.7
.1 A B Let S = −2
⇒ = +
s( s + 1) s s + 1 2 = B(−2)(−1)
∴ 2 = 2B ∴ B = 1
1 = A (S + 1) + BS
1 1 2
Let S = 0 ∴ y ( s) = + −
s s + 2 s +1
1=A ∴A=1
Let S = −1 Taking inverse Laplace transform
1 = −B ∴ B = −1 y(t) = [1 + e−2t – 2e−t] u (t).
Hence, the correct option is (a)
1 1
Output c( s) = − 8. An electrical system and its signal-flow graph repre-
s s +1
sentations are shown in figures (a) and (b), respectively.
= (1 − e−t) u(t) The values of G2 and H, respectively, are
When t = ∞ at steady state
V0(s)
Output = 1 Z1(s) Z2(s)
Hence, the correct option is (c)
7. A system described by the following differential equa-
d2 y dy V1(s) Z3(s) Z4(s)
tion
2
+3 + 2 y = x(t ) is initially at rest. For input I1(s) I2(s)
dt dt
x(t) = 2u(t), the output y(t) is
(a) (l - 2 e-t + e-2t) u(t)
(b) (l + 2e-t -2e-2t) u(t)
(c) (0.5 + e-t +1.5e-2t) u(t)
(d) (0.5 + 2e-t + 2e-2t) u(t) [2004]
Solution: (a)
d2 y dy
Differential equations: +3 + 2 y = x (t )
dt 2 dt
Taking Laplace transform on both sides.
⇒ s2y(s) + 3sy(s) + 2y(s) = x(s)(i)
Z3 ( s) − Z3 ( s)
Input given: x(t) = 24(t) (a) ,
Z 2 ( s) + Z3 ( s) + Z 4 ( s) Z1 ( s) + Z3 ( s)
2
x ( s) = − Z3 ( s) − Z3 ( s)
5 (ii) (b) ,
Z 2 ( s) − Z3 ( s) + Z 4 ( s) Z1 ( s) + Z3 ( s)
Sub value of x(s) in equation (i)
Z3 ( s) Z3 ( s)
2 (c) ,
∴ ( s 2 + 3s + 2) y( s) = Z 2 ( s) + Z3 ( s) + Z 4 ( s) Z1 ( s) + Z3 ( s)
s
− Z3 ( s) Z3 ( s)
2 (d) , [2001]
y ( s) = Z 2 ( s) − Z3 ( s) + Z 4 ( s) Z1 ( s) + Z3 ( s)
s( s + 2)( s + 1)
(iii)
Solution: (c)
Using partial fraction
Applying KVL in both loop,
2 A B C
= + + for 1st loop
s( s + 1)( s + 2) s s + 2 s + 1
Vi(s) = I1(s) Z1(s) + [I1(s) – I2(s)]Z3(s)
⇒ 2 = A(s + 2)(s + 1) + B(s)(s + 1) + C(s)(s + 2) ⇒ Vi(s) = I1(s) [Z1(s) + Z3(s)] – I2(s) Z3(s)
Let S = 0 V1 ( s) I ( s) − I 2 ( s) Z3 ( s)
⇒ = 1
2 = A(2) ∴ A = 1 Z1 ( s) + Z3 ( s) ????
Let S = −1
Vi ( s) I ( s) + Z3 ( s)
2 = C(−1) (+1) I1 ( s) = + 2
Z1 ( s) + Z3 ( s) Z1 ( s) + Z3 ( s)
2 = −C ∴ C = −2 (i)
3.8 | Control Systems
+ KT – 1 1
G1G2 V3(s) θ (s)
Ra + Las + Js + B S
G=
(A) –
1+ G1 H1
G1G2
G=
(B) Kb
1+ G1G2 + G1 H1
3.10 | Control Systems
−1 G ( s)
Forward path gain = =
s ( Js + B ) 1 + G ( s) H ( s)
∆1 = 1 1
( s + 1)
s
− K b . KT ∴ z ( s) = =
and Individual loop gain L1 = 1 s s( s + 2)
( Js + B ) ( Ra + La s) 1+ ×
s s +1
P1 Δ1
H (s) = Hence, the correct option is (d)
Δ 5. Consider the following block diagram in the figure.
1 + K b . KT ( Js + B ) ( Ra + La s) + K b KT
Δ= =
( Js + B ) ( Ra + La s) ( Js + B ) ( Ra + La s)
−1 s ( Js + B )
⇒ H (s) =
Δ
−1 ( JS + B ) ( Ra + La s)
H (s) = × C ( s)
S ( JS + B ) ( Js + B ) ( Ra + La s ) + K b .KT The transfer function is
R( s)
Impulse response H(s)
− ( B ) ( Ra ) G1G2
G1 G2 + G1 + 1
h(∞) = Lt S .H ( s ) = (a)
1 + G1 + G2
(b)
S →0 ( B ) ( Ra ) + K b .KT
Given KT = 1 N-m/A, Ra = 1 Ω, La = 0.1 M, J = 5 kg-m2, G1
G1 G2 + G2 + 1
(c) (d)
B = 1 N-m/ (rad/sec) and KB = 1 V 1 + G1 + G2
−1 × 1
h (∞ ) = = − 0.5 [2014]
1×1+ 1×1 Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct Answer is (–0.51 to –0.49).
4. For the following system,
Solution: (d)
1 1
Z ( s) = Q ( s) −
s + 1 s + 1 ⇒
=0
So Q(s) = R(s) – 0 = R(s) Hence, the correct option is (d)
Q( s) R( s)
y ( s) = =
s +1 s +1 8. Signal flow graph is used to find
(a) Stability of the system
Y ( s) 1
= (b) Controllability of the system
R( s) s + 1 (c) Transfer function of the system
Hence, the correct option is (b) (d) Poles of the system.
[1995]
7. The equivalent of the block diagram in the figure is
Solution: (c)
given as
Transfer function of the system
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Two-marks Questions
1. The block diagram of a system is illustrated in the figure
shown, where X(s) is the input and Y(s) is the output.
Y (s)
The transfer function H(s) = is [2019]
(a) X (s)
– s +
+ Y(s)
1
X(s) ∑ ∑
s
– 1 +
s
(b)
s2 + 1
(A) H(s) =
2s2 + 1
s2 + 1
(B) H(s) =
s3 + 2 s 2 + s + 1
3.12 | Control Systems
1 Solution: (a)
(C)
1 + G1G2 H1 + G3G4 H 2 + G2G3 H 3 Using Mason’s gain formula
+ G1G2G3G4 H1 H 2 C PK ∆ K
=
1 R ∆
(D)
1 G1G2 H1 G3G4 H 2 G2G3 H 3 ∆ = 1 – [−2s−1 – 2s−2 – 4 – 4s−1]
+ G1G2G3G4 H1 H 2 2 2 4 5s 2 + 6 s + 2
∆ = 1+ + 2 +4+ =
–H3 s s s s2
1
As P1 = s −2 = 2
s
1 X1 X3 1 X4 C(s) 1
P2 =
R(s) G1 X2 G2 G3 X5 G4 s2
∆1 = 1 ∴ ∆2 = 2
–H1 –H2
1 1
×1 + ×1
Solution: From the SFG y( s) ΣPK ∆ K 2 s
= = s 2
no. of forward paths = 1 u( s) ∆ 5s + 6 s + 2
forward path gain P1 = G1 G2 G3 G4 s2
∆1 = 1 – {gain of non-touching loop gains} y ( s) s +1
⇒ =
= 1 – 0 = 1 u( s) 5s 2 + 6 s + 2
Individual loop gains:-
Hence, the correct option is (a)
L1 = –G1 G2 H1
6. The signal flow graph that DOES NOT model the plant
L2 = –G3 G4 H2
transfer function H(s) is
L3 = –G2 G3 H3 (a)
Two non-touching loop gains:-
L1 L2 = G1 G2 G3 G4 H1 H2
(b)
∆ = 1 – {L1 + L2 + L3} + L1 L2
∆ = 1 + {G1G2H1} + G3G4H2
+ G2 G3 H3 + G1 G2 G3 G4 H1H2 (c)
C ( s) P1 Δ1
=
R( s) Δ
Hence, the correct option is (B).
(d)
5. The signal flow graph for a system is given below. The
Y ( s) [2011]
transfer function for this system is
U ( s) Solution: (d)
Which is not equal to H(s)
100
Y ( s) 100
= =
U ( s) 100 s( s 100)
s +1 s +1
(a) 2 (b) 2
Hence, the correct option is (d)
5s + 6 s + 2 s + 6s + 2
7. The gain margin of the system under closed loop unity
s +1 s +1 100
(c) 2 (d) negative feedback is G ( s) H ( s) =
s + 4s + 2 2
5s + 6 s + 2 s( s + 10) 2
[2013]
3.14 | Control Systems
10. In the signal flow graph of the below figure y/x equals Solution: (c)
Using Masson’s gain formulae
C PK ∆ K
=
R ∆
C G1G2G3G4
(a) 3 =
R 1 − [−G1 − G2 − G3 − G4 ] + [G1G3 + G1G4 + G2G3 + G2G4 ]
(b) 5/2
(c) 2 C G1G2G3G4
(d) None of the above [1997] =
R 1 − [−G1 − G2 − G3 − G4 ] + [G1G3 + G1G4 + G2G3 + G2G4 ]
Solution: (c)
Using Masson’s gain formula C G1G2G3G4
=
R (1 + G1 + G2 )(1 + G3 + G4 )
C PK ∆ K
=
R ∆ Hence, the correct option is (c)
C 5 × 2 ×1 10 10 1 3. In the signal flow graph shown in the below figure, X2 =
⇒ = = = =2 TX1 where T is equal to
R 1 − ( −4) 1 + 4 5
Hence, the correct option is (c)
1 1. .In the signal flow graph of the gain c/r will be
10 10 Remaining node R5
(a) 2 (b) 2
s + s + 10 s + 11s + 10
10 10
(c) 2 (d)
s + 9 s + 10 2
s + 2 s + 10
[1987]
Solution: (b)
10 ∴node equation at l2
s( s + 1) l2 = l1t12 + l3t35t52 + l2t25t52 + l4t42
10
1+ ×s ⇒l2(1 – t25t52) = e1t12 + e3t35t52 + e4t42
C ( s) s( s + 1)
=
R( s) 10 t12 t35t52 t 42
1+ ⇒ e2 = e1 + e3 + e4
s( s + 1) 5
1 − t 25 52 1 − t 25t52 1 − t 25t52
×1
10 Reduced signal flow graph.
1+ ×s
s( s + 1)
10
∴ C ( s ) s ( s + 1) + 10 s 10
= = 2
R( s) 10 s + 11s + 10
1+
s( s + 1) + 10 s
Hence, the correct option is (b)
y2 a(1 + d )
Solution: ∴ =
y1 1 + d + eg + bcg + deg
y3 ae(1 + d ) + abc
∴ =
y1 1 + d + eg + bcg + deg
3. A feedback control system is shown in figure
Chapter 2 Block Diagram and SFG | 3.17
σ jω ××Pole O
σ jω
× Pole
s-plane o Zero × Pole jω
s-planejω o Zero
o Zero × Pole
(C) jω × Pole
s-plane o Zero
× O σ s-plane
(a) Lead
o Zero O × compensator
× O σ
s-plane
× O O × σ jω (b)
× Pole O ×Lag × compensator
O σ
jω × Pole × O O × σ o Zero (c) PID compensator
s-plane
o Zero (d) Lead-lag compensator [2009]
ne (D) jω
O ××Pole
× O σ
le ×
O σ s-plane o Zero Solution: (d)
ro
The given plot is for a Lead log compensator
O × × O σ
σ Hence, the correct option is (d)
Solution: It is evident that from pole zero configura- 4. A PD controller is used to compensate a system.
tion Choice (A) satisfies phase lag compensator. Compared to the uncompensated system, the compen-
sated system has
2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) a higher type number
[2017]
(b) reduced damping
(A) Leading compensator is used to reduce the settling
(c) higher noise amplification
time.
(d) larger transient overshoot [2003]
(B) Lag compensator is used to reduce the steady state
error. Solution: (c)
(C) Lead compensator may increase the order of a sys- When bandwidth increases then signal-to-noise ratio
tem decreases and system become more prone to noise.
(D) Lag compensator always stabilizes an unstable
Hence, the correct option is (c)
system.
Chapter 3 Compensators and Controllers | 3.19
5. The transfer function of a phase lead controller is (a) 2 rad/s (b) 3 rad/s
1 + 3Ts . The maximum value of phase provided by this (c) 6 rad/s (d) 1 3 rad/s
1 + Ts [2012]
controller is Solution: (a)
(a) 90° (b) 60°
For phase to be maximum
(c) 45° (d) 30° [1998]
∂p
Solution: (d) =0
∂
w
For lead compensator
a (1 + T ′s) 1 + 3Ts 1 1
T.F. = = a − b =0
1 + a T ′s 1 + Ts
w2 w2
1+ 2 1+ 2
So T ′ = 3T a b
a T ′ = T 1 2
⇒ −
=0
a 3T ′ = T 1+ w 2
w +4 2
1 w2 + 4 – 2 – 2w2 = 0
a =
3 w2 = 2
1 w = 2 rad/sec
−1 1 − a
−1
1− 3
fmax = sin = sin Hence, the correct option is (a)
1+ a 1 + 1 3. A unity negative feedback closed loop system has a
3 plant with the transfer function
1 1
= sin −1 = 30° G ( s) = and a controller Gc(s) in the feed
2 2
s + 2s + 2
forward path. For a unit step input, the transfer function
Hence, the correct option is (d)
of the controller that gives minimum steady-state error
is
Two-marks Questions s +1
Gc ( s) =
(a) ,
Common Data for Questions 1 and 2: s+2
The transfer function of a compensator is given as s+2
Gc ( s) =
(b) ,
s+a s +1
Gc ( s) =
s+b
( s + 1)( s + 4)
Gc ( s) =
(c) ,
1. Gc (s) is a lead compensator if ( s + 2)( s + 3)
(a) a = 1, b = 2
(b) a = 3, b = 2 (d) 2
Gc ( s) = 1 + + 3s,
(c) a = -3, b = -1 5
(d) a = 3, b = 1 [2012] [2010]
Solution: (a) Solution: (d)
s+a
given Gc ( s) =
Steady-state error
s+b S R( s)
ess = Lt
phase P = tan−1(w/a) − tan−1(w/b) s →0 1 + G ( s)Gc ( s)
for load comparators phase must be positive
r(t) = G (t)
w w
∴ > ⇒a<b 1
a b R( s) =
s
∴ a = 1, b = 2
1
Hence, the correct option is (a) s.
s 1
∴ ess = Lt = Lt
2. The phase of the above lead compensator is maximum s →0 1 + G ( s)Gc ( s) s →0 1 + G ( s)Gc ( s)
at
3.20 | Control Systems
10. The transfer function of a simple RC network function- 2. A lead compensator network includes a parallel con-
ing as a controller is: tribution of R and C in the feed-forward path. If the
s + z1 s+2
Gc ( s) = transfer function of the compensator is Gc(s) = ,
s + p1 s+4
the value of RC is _______ [2015]
The condition for the RC network to act as a phase lead
controller is: Solution:
Given
(a) p1 < z1 (b) p1 = 0
(c) p1 = z1 (d) p1 > z1 [1990] s+2
GC(s) =
Solution: (d) s+4
s + z1 0.5 {1 + 0.5s} ⎧ 1 + sτ ⎫
G ( s) = G(s) = = K.⎨ ⎬
s + p1 (1 + 0.25s) ⎩1 + βτ s ⎭
−1 w −1 w
τ = 0.5 sec
∴ q = tan − tan
z
1 p1 Hence, the correct Answer is (0.5).
For phase lead controller
θ>0 Five-marks Questions
w w
tan −1 − tan −1 > 0 1. A unity feedback system has the plant transfer function
z1 p1 1
G P (s ) =
w w (s+1)(2s+1)
tan −1 ⇒ tan −1
z1 p1 (a) Determine the frequency at which the plant has a
phase lag of 90°.
⇒ p1 > z1 (b) An integral controller with transfer function
k
G c (s ) = is placed in the forward path of the
Two-marks Questions s
feedback system.
1. The transfer function of a first – order controller is
given as Find the value of k such that the compensated system
has an open loop gain margin of 2.5.
K (s + a)
Gc(s) = (c) Determine the steady state errors of the compen-
s+b sated system to unit-step and unit-ramp inputs.
where K, a and b are positive real numbers. The condi- [2002]
tion for this controller to act as a phase lead compensator Solution:
is [2015] (a) ∴ θ = - 90°
a < b (B)
(A) a>b ω 2ω
K < ab (D)
(C) K > ab θ = − tan −1 − tan −1
1
1
−1 −1
K (s + a) ⇒ −90 = − tan (ω ) − tan ( 2ω )
Given GC(s) =
Solution:
(s + b) ⇒ tan −1 (ω ) + tan −1 ( 2ω ) = 90
Given it is a phase lead controller, so zero is dominating ω + 2ω
1 − 2ω = tan 10 = ∞
Im
⇒1 − 2ω2 = 0
1
–σ –b –a σ ω= rad/sec
2
(b) given G(s) = GP(s). GC(s)
1 k k
G ( s) = × =
∴ a < b ( s + 1)( 2 s + 1) s s( s + 1)( 2 s + 1)
Hence, the correct option is (A). ∴ ωPC = −90° − tan −1 (ω ) − tan −1 ( 2ω )
= −180°
Chapter 3 Compensators and Controllers | 3.23
1 Solution:
ωPC = rad/sec
2 Transfer function of PD controller (G1) = Kp+ SkD
k Transfer function of power amplifier (G2) = k
| G ( jω ) |ωPC = Transfer function of process
1 1 1
j i + 1 2 + 1
2 2 2 1
(G3 ) =
gain margin G(Gm) = 2.5 s( s + 1)
1 k ( k p + skD )
= Gm ∴ G ( s) = G1G2G3 =
∴ (G ( jω ) ) s( s + 1)
ω PC
1 1 G ( s)
∴ (G ( jω ) )ω = = = 0.4 Overall transfer function =
PC Gm 2.5 1 + G ( s)
k ( k p + skD )
k
= 0.4 C ( s) s( s + 1) k ( k p + sk D )
∴ = = 2
( )
∴ 1 1 2
+1 ( 2) 2 + 1 R( s) 1 + k ( k p + skD ) s + s + ( k p + skD )k
2 2 s( s + 1)
1 C ( s) +kD s
R = 0.4 × ( 3 )( 3) = 2
2 R( s) s + s(1 + kk D ) + kk P
3
k = 0.4 ×
= 0.6 ∴As tw characteristics equation
2 2 2
k p = lim G ( s) H ( s) s + 2ξωn s + ωn = 0
(c)
s →0
1
∴given τ = =1
k ξ cos n
= Lt =∞
s →0 s( s + 1)( 2 s + 1)
1
ωn =
1 ξ
ess = =0
1+ kp given ξ = 0.707
∴Poles
kv = Lt S (G ( s) H ( s)
s →0
s1 and s2 = s = ξωn 1 − ξ 2
k
= Lt = k = 0.6
s →0 ( s + 1)( 2 s + 1) s = −1 ± j1.41 1 − (0.707) 2
s= −1 ± j1.41 × 0.07
1 1 10
e=
ss = = = 1.667
s= −1 ± j
kv 0.6 6
∴s1 = −1 + j
2. For the feedback control system shown in the figure, s2= −1 – j
1
the process transfer function is G P ( s) = , and C ( s) k ( k p + k D s)
s(s + 1) = 2
(b) R( s) s + s(1 + kk ) + kk
D P
the amplification factor of the power amplifier is K > 0.
the design specifications required for the system, time Characteristics equation
constant is 1 sec and a damping ratio of 0.707. = s2 + s(1 + k0k) + kkp
2ξωn = 1 + kk D
∴1 + kkD = 2 × 1 – 2
0⇒kkD = 1
given k = 1
1.kp = 2
(a) Find the desired locations of the closed loop poles.
kp = 2
(b) Write down the required characteristic equation
for the system. Hence determine the PD controller 1.kD =1
transfer function Gp(s) when K = 1. kD = 1
(c) Sketch the root-locus for the system. [2001]
3.24 | Control Systems
kP + kDs = 2 + s × 1 = s + 2 dk
k (kD s + k p ) As ds = 0
(c) G ( s) =
s( s +1) ∴−2s2 – s – 4s – 2 + s2 + 5 = 0
k ( s + 2) ∴s2 + 4s + 2 = 0
=
s( s + 1) −4 ± 16 − 8
∴s =
∴Number of pole(p)= 2 2
And number of Zero(z) = 1 s = −2 ± 2
∴p -z = 2 – 1 = 1 s = −0.6, −3.4
180°
∴θ = = 180°
1
Breakaway point
k ( s + 2)
1+ =0
s( s + 1)
dk ( s + 1)( 2 s − 1) − ( s 2 − 5)(1)
∴ =
ds ( s + 2) 2
Chapter 4
Time Response Analysis
( S + 1)
One-mark Questions k p = Lt p = ∞(‘P’ must be ≥ 1)
s ( s + 2)( S + 3)
s→o
1. Consider P(s) = s3 + a2s2 + a1s + a0 with all real coef- 1
e= = 6 (for unit reamp input)
ficients. It is known that its derivative pI(s) has no real ss
kv
roots. The number of real roots of p(s) is
[2018] 1
kv = Lt SG ( S ) H ( S ) =
(A) 0 (B) 1 6
(C) 2 (D) 3 s→0
Solution:
As per problem ( S + 1) 1
kv = Lt S . P = → for P = 1
p(s) = S + a2s + a1s + a0
3 2 S ( S + 2)( S + 3) 6
s→0
derivative of above will be pI(s) = 0 has no real roots, so
∴P =1
it is imaginary complex conjugates. (2nd order system)
It is 3rd order system so remaining one root must be Hence, the correct answer is (0.99 to 1.01).
a real root. 3. Match the inferences X, Y and Z about a system, to the
Hence, the correct option is (B) corresponding properties of the elements of first col-
umn in Routh’s table of the system characteristic equa-
2. The open loop transfer function
tion [2016]
( s + 1)
G ( s) = p X: The system is P: When all elements are
s ( s + 2)( s + 3) stable positive
where p is an integer, is connected in unity feedback Y: The system is Q: When any one element
configuration as shown in the figure. unstable is zero
Z: The test breaks R: When there is a change
G (s) down in sign of coefficients
+
− (A) X → P, Y → Q, Z → R
(B) X → Q, Y → P, Z →R
Given that the steady-state error is 0 for unit step input (C) X → R, Y → Q, Z → P
and is 6 for unit ramp input, the value of the parameter (D) X → P, Y → R, Z → Q
p is __________. [2017] Solution: From the RH criterion:
Solution: X → P
1 Y → R
ess = ( For unit step input ) Z → Q
1+ kp
K p = 1 + G ( S ) H ( s) = ∞( For ess to bee ‘o’) Change in sign shows that system is unstable. The sys-
s→0 tem is stable when all the elements of Routh array are
+ve. When any row of Routh array becomes zero, then
it indicates that breakdown has occurred.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
3.26 | Control Systems
For unity feedback control H(s) = 1 one sign change 1 root in RHS of S-plane and 2 roots
As we know that are on imaginary axis
∴ so only two poles exist in LHS of s-plane
S .R( s)
∴ ess = lt Hence, the correct Answer is (2).
s →0 1 + G ( s) H ( s)
8. In the circuit shown, the initial voltages across the
1 capacitors C1 and C2 are 1 V and 3 V, respectively. The
Given R(s) = (for unit step input)
s switch is closed at time t = 0. The total energy dissi-
1 1 pated (in Joules) in the resistor R until steady state is
∴ ess = lt = =0 reached, is _____ [2015]
s →0 2 ∞
1+ t=0
s( s + 1) R = 10 Ω
Applying RH criterion + 1 + 3
– s I – s
s5 1 3 −4 1 1
C1 C2 s
4 3s
s 2 6 8
s3 0( 2) 0(3)
12 − 6 3 −1
s2 −8
2 S 2
I(s) = =
1 9 + 16 10 + 1 + 1 ⎛ 4⎞
s s 3s ⎜10 s + ⎟
3 ⎝ 3⎠
s0 −8 i(t) = ILT{I(s)}
5
So A(s) = 0 ∞
∫ i (t ) .R.dt
2
Energy dissipated =
2s4 + 6s2 – 8 = 0 0
∞
s4 + 3s2 – 8 = 0 1 −4 15t
=∫ .e .10.dt= 1.5 J
s4 + 3s2 – 8 = 0 25
0
(a) 16 (b) 4
(d)
(c) 2 (d) 1 [2014]
Solution: (c)
Closed transfer function of the given system
4
C ( s) s( s + 4) 4
= = 2 (i)
R( s) 4 s + 4s + 4
1+
s( s + 4)
[2011]
Standard transfer function Solution: (a)
kwn2 Given differential equation
(ii)
s 2 + 2x wn + wn2 d2 y dy
100 − 20 + y = x (t )
Comparing equation (i) and (ii) dt 2 dt
wn2
=4 Take Laplace transform on both sides
x ( s)
wn = 2 rad/sec 100 s 2 y( s) − 20 s y( s) + y( s) =
s
Hence, the correct option is (c).
1
d2 y
dy y ( s) s
1 1. The differential equation 100 2 − 20 + y . x(t) ⇒ =
dt dt x( s) (100 s 2 − 20 s + 1)
describes a system with an input x(t) and an output y(t).
y ( s) 1 1
The system which is initially relaxed is excited by a ⇒ = =
unit step input. The output y(t) can be represented by x( s) s(10 s − 1)(10 s − 1) s(10 s − 1) 2
the waveform
1 1
∴Poles are = 0, ,
(a) 10 10
Systems are unstable, poles lie on right-hand side
Hence, the correct option is (a).
1 2. Step responses of a set of three second-order under-
damped systems all have the same percentage over-
shoot. Which of the following diagrams represents the
poles of three systems?
(b) (a)
Chapter 4 Time Response Analysis | 3.29
(b) 6
6
wn2 = ∴ wn =
k k
1
2x wn =
k
6 1
⇒ 2 × 0.5 × =
k k
6 1
(c) ⇒ = 2
k k
1
⇒k=
6
Hence, the correct option is (c).
1 4. If the characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is
s2 + 2s + 2 - 0, then the system is
(a) overdamped
(b) critically damped
(d) (c) underdamped
(d) undamped [2001]
Solution: (c)
s2 + 2s + 2 = 0
∴ s2 + 2ζwn + wn2 = 0
1
2ζwn = 2 x=
wn
2
[2008] wn = 2
Solution: (c) ζ < 1 (underdamped)
Maximum overshoot depends on and Hence, the correct option is (c).
−xp 1−x 2 1 5. For a second-or der system with the closed-loop trans-
∴ mp = e
fer function
where x = cos −1 q 9
T ( s) = the settling time for 2 per cent
∴θ is the angle made by pole from negative real axis. 2
s + 4s + 9
For mp to be same, θ is made same.
band, in seconds, is
Hence, the correct option is (c). (a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
13. Consider a system with the transfer function (c) 3.0 (d) 4.0 [1999]
s+6 . Its damping ratio will be 0.5 when Solution: (b)
G ( s) = 2
Ks + s + 6 9
the value of K is T ( s) = 2
s + 4s + 9
(a) 2/6 (b) 3
(c) 1/6 (d) 6 [2002] ∴ wn2 = 9 ∴ h
Solution: (c)
wn = 3
s+6 s+6
G ( s) = 2 = 2ζwn = 4
k s +s+6 2 s 6
ks + + ∴ζwn = 2
k k
4 4
Characteristics equation ∴ ts = = =2
x wn 2
s2 + 2ζwn + wn2 given ζ = 0.5
on comparing Hence, the correct option is (b).
3.30 | Control Systems
22. The final value theorem is used to find the (A) Four left half plan (LHP) roots
(a) steady-state value of the system output (B) One right half plane (RHP) root, one LHP root and
(b) initial value of the system output two roots on the imaginary axis.
(c) transient behaviour of the system output (C) Two RHP roots and two LHP roots.
(d) none of these. [1995] (D) All four roots are on the imaginary axis.
Solution: (a) Solution: S4 1 1 1
The final value theorem is used to find the steady-state S23 0 0 0
value of the system. S2 1/2 1 0
23. The poles of a continuous time oscillator are…… S1 -6 0 0
[1994] S0 1 0 0
Solution: Pure imaginary. No. of sign changes = 2
The poles of a continuous time oscillator are pure No. RHP = 2
imaginary.
No of symmetric with respect of origin = 4
\ No of LHP = 2
Two-marks Questions No of imaginary axis Poles = 0
1. For a unity feedback control system with the forward Hence, the correct option is (C).
K
path transfer function G(s) = . 3. In the circuit shown, the voltage VIN (t) is described by:
s( s + 2)
The peak resonant magnitude Mr of the closed-loop 0, for t < 0
VIN (t )
frequency response is 2. The corresponding value of 15 volts, for ≤ 0
the gain K (Correct to two decimal places is _______.
where t is in seconds. The time (in seconds) at which the
[2018]
current I in the circuit will reach the value 2 Amperes is
Solution: The transfer function is given as ___________. [2017]
K
G(s) =
s( s + 2) 1Ω I
⎛ K ⎞ 2 1
CLTF = ⎜ 2 ⎟; ξ = = +
⎝ s + 2s + K ⎠ 2 K K
peak resonant magnitude can be calculated using VIN (t) 1H 2H
1
Mr = =2
2ξ 1 − ξ 2 −
1
=2 Solution: From the given data
⎛ 1 ⎞ 1 For t < 0
2⎜ ⎟ 1 −
⎝ K⎠ K
Vin (t ) = 0 V, so I (0 − ) = 0 amp
⎛ 1 ⎞ K −1 For t > 0:-
1 = 4 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ K⎠ K At t = 0+, I (0+) = I (0-) = 0A
Simplifying the above expression we get As t →∞
K = 4 K − 1 i(∞) = 15 A.
K2 = 16 (K – 1) 2
Leq = (2 || 1) = H
K2 – 16K + 16 = 0 3
R =1Ω
K = 14.9282 x K = 1.071
L 2
K = 14.9282 is valid. ∴ τ = = sec
R 3
Hence, the correct answer is 14 to 17. ∴ is (t ) = i(∞) + {i(0) − i(∞)}.e − t /τ
2. Which one of the following options correctly describes i(t ) = 15[1 − e −1.55t ]
the locations of the roots of the equation s4 + s2 + 1 = 0
on the complex plane? [2017]
3.32 | Control Systems
3
1× is(t )
but I (t ) =
1+ 2
= 5.[1 − e −1.5t ] Amg ∑ ak cos ( kωot + ϕk )
(C)
k =1
2
given i(t) = 2 A Then t = ?
2 = 5 [I – e-1.5t]
∑ ak cos ( kωot + ϕk )
(D)
k =1
e-1.5 t = 0.6 Solution: If R, L, C are in series, and unit values R = 1,
t = 0.34 sec. L = 1, C = 1 then the transfer function of the system
Hence, the correct answer is (0.3 to 0.4). 1 1
4. A unity feedback control system is characterized by the H(s) = R + sL + = 1+ s +
Cs s
2( s + 1)
open-loop transfer function G ( S ) = 3 s + s2 + 1 s2 + s + 1
s + ks 2 + 2 s + 1 = =
s s
The value of k for which the system oscillates at 2 rad/s
is ____________. [2017] At ω = kωo, H( jω) will be in the form of M < ϕ
Solution: Given, open-loop transfer function y(t) = H( jω) x(t)
2( s + 1)
G (S ) = 3
3
s + Ks 2 + 2 s + 1 = ∑ ak M ⋅ cos ( kωo t + ϕ )
k =1
\ Characteristic equation is 1 + G (S) = 0
2( S + 1) 3
1+ 3 =0 = ∑ bk M .cos ( kωo t + ϕ )
S + KS 2 + 2S + 1 k =1
⇒ S 3 + KS 2 + 4 S + 4 = 0
Where ak ≠ bk.
Form Routh Table
Hence, the correct option is (A).
4
S3 1 6. A first order low pass filter of time constant T is excited
with different input signals (with zero initial conditions
3 up to t = 0), Match the excitation signals X, Y, Z with
S2 K
the corresponding time responses for t ≥ 0: [2016]
4K − 3 0 −
t
S1 X: Impulse P: 1 – e T
K
0 ⎛ −t
⎞
S 3 0 Y: Unit step Q: t – T ⎜1− e T ⎟
For the system to oscillate at ωmar = 2 rad/s, all S1 row ⎝ ⎠
−t
of elements are to be zero.
Z: Ramp R: e T
4 K mar − 3
∴ =0 (A) X → R, Y → Q, Z → P
K mar (B) X → Q, Y → P, Z → R
3 (C) X → R, Y → P, Z → Q
⇒ K ma r = = 0.75 (D) X → P, Y → R, Z →Q
4
Hence, the correct answer is (0.75). Solution: r(t) c(t)
h(t)
5. A network consisting of a finite number of linear resis-
tor (R), inductor (L) and capacitor (C) elements, con- c(t) = r(t) ⋅ h(t)
nected all in series or all in parallel, is excited with a
source of the form. [2016] C(s) = R(s) ⋅ H(s)
3
X → R, Y → P, Z → Q
∑ ak cos (kω 0t )
k =1 Hence, the correct option is (C).
where ak ≠ 0, ω0 ≠ 0 7. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback
The source has nonzero impedance. Which one of the control system is given by
following is a possible form of the output measured
K
across a resistor in the network? G(s) = .
3
s ( s + 2)
∑ bk cos ( kωot + ϕk )
(A) where bk ≠ ak, ∀ k
For the peak overshoot of the closed loop system to a
k =1
4 unit step input to be 10% the value of K is _______.
∑ bk cos ( kωot + ϕk )
(B) where bk ≠ 0, ∀ k [2016]
k =1
Chapter 4 Time Response Analysis | 3.33
Solution:
Transfer function is given as 1
9. In the feedback system shown below G(s) = .
G(S) =
K (s 2
+ 2s )
S ( S + 2) The step response of the closed loop system should
− ξπ have minimum settling time and have no overshoot.
1− ξ2
Given Mp% = e × 100 +
r k G (S) y
−ξπ
= ln (0.1) –
1 − ξ2
The characteristic eqn of this system is 1 + G(s)H(S) = The required value of gain k to achieve this is ___
0
[2016]
i.e. s2 + 2s + k = 0
S 1
0(4) 0 2F 3Ω
S0 -2
3 – sign changes hence 3 roots on right half of s – plane. Solution: From the given data, the circuit is in steady
state before t = 0.
From the Routh array, we observed that one row is
completely zero, which shows that break down has At t = 0–, circuit is in steady state so in steady state
occurred and there are 3 sign changes in the 1st column capacitors open circuit.
indicating the instability.
Hence, the correct Answer is (3).
3.34 | Control Systems
i(o) S3 1 2k + 3
VC +
1 2Ω S2 2k 4
–
1Ω 2Ω
S1 2k(2k + 3) – 4 0
12 V + I=0 2k
– +
VC – 3Ω
2
S0 4
Here G ( s) = k = 4 ; H ( s) = 2 ;
s+2 s+2 s+4
1
R( s) =
Which one of the following compensators C(s) achieve s
this?
1
1 0.03 s.
(a) 3 (b) 5 + 1 s
s + 5 s ess = Lt
s →0 4 2
1+ ×
s+8 s+2 s+4
(c) 2(s + 4) (d) 4
s+3
1 1 1
[2014] = = =
4 2 1+1 2
Solution: (c) 1+ ×
2 4
1
G ( s) = ∴ess = 0.5
( s + 1)( s + 2)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
H(s) = 1 15. The characteristic equation of a unity negative feed-
G ( s) 1 back system is 1 + KG(s) = 0. The open loop transfer
∴ T ( s) = = function G(s) has one pole at 0 and two poles at -1. The
1 + G ( s) H ( s) 1 + ( s + 1)( s + 2)
root locus of the system for varying K is shown in the
1 figure.
T ( s) = 2 (i)
s + 3s + 3
Standard transfer function
kwn2
(ii)
s 2 + 2x wn s + wn2
w( s) 10 −3.82
as = . When connected in feedback as (b) 2
Va ( a) 1 + 10 s s + 1.91s + 1.91
shown below, the approximate value of Ka that will −2.24
reduce the time constant of the closed loop system by (c) 2
s − 2.59 s + 1.12
one hundred times as compared to that of the open-loop
system is −3.82
(d) 2
[2009]
s − 1.91s + 1.91
Solution: (b)
Given steady-state value = −2
∴transfer function should be under damped for these
(a) 1 (b) 5 properties.
(c) 10 (d) 100 [2013]
Chapter 4 Time Response Analysis | 3.37
2ζ wn = 20
(2) 20
x= = 1.67
2×6
t
∴Q is over damped
For R = 36
2
s + 12 s + 36
∴ wn2 = 36 wn = 6
2ζwn =12
12
x= =1
2×6
3.38 | Control Systems
Solution (a): R( s)
= Lt s.
Only (a) satisfies the given conditions. s →0 1 + G ( s)
2 0.
The transfer function of a plant is
1
= Lt given (finite)
5 s →0 s(1 + G ( s))
T ( s) = . The second-order approxi-
( s + 5)( s 2 + s + 1) ∴ kv = Lt s G ( s)
s →0
mation of T(s) using dominant pole concept is
1 5 1 1
(a) (b) ess = Lt = 5% =
( s + 5)( s + 1) ( s + 5)( s + 1) s →0 s G ( s) 20
25.
The transfer function of a system is
100 . For a unit-step input to the sys-
G ( s) =
( s + 1)( s + 100)
tem the approximate settling time for 2% criterion is
(b) (a) 100 sec (b) 4 sec
(c) 1 sec (d) 0.01 sec [2002]
Solution: (b)
100
G ( s) =
( s + 1)( s + 100)
Taking dominant pole consideration, s = −100 pole is
100
not taken. G ( s) = , it is a 1st order system
s +1
3.40 | Control Systems
e −t Let s = −a
0
e at =
(b) −1
te −t
e −t −aA = 1 ∴A=
a
x1 −1 1 0 x1 0
1 1 1 1
x2 = 0 −1 0 + x2 + 4 ∴ C ( s) = − ∴ C (t ) = [1 − e − at ]
x3 0 0 −2 x3 0 a s s + a a
(c)
x1 Hence, the correct option is (b).
[1999] 2 8. The response of an LCR circuit to a step input is
u; y = 1 1 1 x2
(a) Overdamped
xs3 (b) Critically damped
Solution: (d) (c) Oscillatory
x1 −1 1 0 x1 0 If the transfer function has
(1) poles on the negative real axis
x2 = 0 −1 0 x2 + 4 4
x 0 0 −2 x3 0 (2) poles on the imaginary axis
3 (3) multiple poles on the positive real axis
−1 1 0 (4) poles on the positive real axis
(5) Multiple poles on the negative real axis.
∴ A = 0 −1 0
[1994]
0 0 −2
Solution: (a) overdamped → 1 (poles on the negative
For type 2, Ramp input real axis)
kv = Lt s G ( s) k
s →0 =1
s( s + 1)
kv = ∞ (b) critically damped → 5 (multiple poles on the nega-
1 tive real axis.
ess = =0
kv ζ=1
(c) oscillatory → 2 (poles on the imaginary axis)
Hence, the correct option is (d). ξ=0
2 7. The unit impulse response of a linear time invariant s = ± jwn
system is the unit step function u(t). For t > 0, the
Hence, the correct option is (a).
response of the system to an excitation e-at u(t), a > 0
will be
Chapter 4 Time Response Analysis | 3.41
29. Match the following codes with List-I with List-II: Solution: (a)
List-I 4(1 + 2 s)
G ( s) =
(a) Very low response at very high frequencies s 2 ( s + 2)
(b) Overshoot
(c) Synchro-control transformer output Unit ramp i.e. H(s) = 1
List-II kv = Lt sG ( s) H ( s)
s →0
(1) Low pass systems
(2) Velocity damping s 4(1 + 2 s)
= Lt
(3) Natural frequency s →0 s 2 ( s + 2)
(4) Phase-sensitive modulation
(5) Damping ratio. [1994] 4(1 + 2 s)
= Lt =∞
Solution: s →0 s( s + 2)
(a) very low response at very high frequencies → low
pass system. A A
ess = = =0
(b) over shoot → damping ratio kV ∞
(c) synchro-control transformer output → phase-sen-
Hence, the correct option is (a).
sitive modulation.
3 2. The steady-state error of a stable 'type 0' unity feedback
Solution :(c)
system for a unit step function is
Damping ratio ζ is 0 <ζ< 1 1
(a) 0 (b)
For under damped system, roots or poles are 1+ KP
Hence, the correct option is (a). 1
(c) ∞ (d)
30. A second-order system has a transfer function given by KP
x1 (t ) + 2 x1 (t ) = u(t )
[1990]
If the system, initially at rest, is subjected to a unit
Solution: (b)
step input at t = 0, the second peak in the response will
occur at The steady-state error of a stable ‘type 0’ unity feed-
(a) πsec (b) π/3sec 1
back system for a unit step function is .
(c) 2π/3 sec (d) π/2 sec. [1991] 1+ kp
Solution: (a) Hence, the correct option is (b).
25
G ( s) =
s 2 + 8s + 25 33. A critically damped, continuous-time, second order
2 system, when sampled, will have (in Z domain)
∴ wn = 25 (a) a simple pole
wn = ± 5 (b) double pole on real axis
2ζwn = 8 (c) double pole on imaginary axis
(d) a pair of complex conjugate poles. [1988]
ζ = 8 = 0.8
Solution: (b)
wd = wn 1 − x 2 = 5 1 − (0.8) 2 = 3 2nd order system when sampled
For 2nd peak n = 3 ζ=1
np 3p ∴s = −ζwn, −ζwn
tp = = = p sec
wd 3 ∴s = −wn, −wn
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (a).
3 1. A unity-feedback control system has the open-loop 3 4. The unity feedback system shown in the figure has:
transfer function a1 = 0, a2 ≠ 0, a3 ≠ 0,. If the input to
the system is a unit ramp, the steady-state error will be
(a) 0 (b) 0.5
(c) 2 (d) Infinity [1991]
3.42 | Control Systems
ωd = ωn 1 − ξ 2
ωd = 3.6 1 − (0.42) 2
ωd = 3.27 rad/sec
2π
ωd = = 3.27
T
2π
Time period(T) = = 1.92 sec
(a) Find the closed loop transfer function. 3.27
(b) Find the minimum value of G for which the step 2. For figure shows the block diagram representation of a
response of the system would exhibit an overshoot, control system. The system in block A has in impulse
as shown in figure. response hA(t) = e-tu(t). The system in block B has an
(c) For G equal to twice this minimum value, find the impulse response.
time period T indicated in the figure. T = 1.96 sec.
[2000] hB(t) = e-2tu(t). The block 'k' is an amplifier by a factor k.
For the over all system the input is x(t) and output y(t).
Solution:
(a) Close loop transfer function
G
s( s + 3) G
H ( s) = G
= 2 (1)
1+ s + 3s + G
s( s + 3)
Chapter 4 Time Response Analysis | 3.43
⎛ K ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞
G(s) = ⎜ K P + I ⎟ ⎜
Solution: .
Solution: Charecterstic equation of the given function ⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ s ( s + 2) ⎟⎠
is
S3 + 3S2 + 2S + K = 0
G(s) =
( K I + K P s)
Applying Routh-Herrvitz critereas s 2 ( s + 2)
S3 1 2
Characteristic equation is
S2 3 K
6−K = 0 S 3 + 2S 2 + KpS + KI = 0.
6−K
S 1 0 K =6 Apply RH criterion:
3
S0 S3 1 KP
K
2. A linear time invariant (LTI) system with the transfer S2 2 KI
K ( s 2 + 2 s + 2) 2Kp – KI
function G ( s) = is connected in unity S1 0
s 2 − 3s + 2
feedback configuration as shown in the figure. [2017] S0 KI2
Chapter 5 Stability Analysis | 3.47
s2 A (k + 1) (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3 [2008]
a(2 + k ) − ( k + 1)
s1 =0 Solution: (c)
9
Characteristic equation is
s° (k + 1)
g(s) = s5 + 2s4 + 3s3 + 6s2 + 5s + 3
k +1
for oscillation, a(2 + k ) − ( k + 1) = 0 ⇒ a = 1 g ′( z ) = 3 z 5 + 5 z 4 + 6 z 3 + 3 z 2 + 2 z + 1
9 k+2 Put s = ,
z
3.48 | Control Systems
−1 w ⇒ w 2pc = 1
⇒ −180 = −90 − tan 2 rad/sec.
1+ w
1
So, G ( s) H ( s) = 2 2
(a) K < -1 (b) -1 < K < 1 (1 − w 2 ) + jw
(c) 1 < K < 3 (d) K < -3 [2002]
Solution: (d) at wpc = 1 rad/sec.
k ∴G.M. = −20 log1 = 0
Y ( s) s k Hence, the correct option is (b)
Given = =
R( s) g k s − (3 + k ) 19. The feedback control system in the figure is stable.
1− +
s s −
for system to be stable. −
3 + k < 0
k < −3
−
Hence, the correct option is (d)
17. The characteristic polynomial of a system (a) for all K ≥ 0 (b) only is K ≥ 0
is q(s) = 2s5 + s4 + 4s3 + 2s2 + 2s + 1. The system is (c) only if 0 ≤ K < 1 (d) only if 0 ≤ K ≤1
(a) stable
(b) marginally stable [2001]
(c) unstable Solution: (c)
(d) oscillatory [2002] Given transfer function
Solution: (c) k ( s − 2)
RH – table, G1G2 ( s + 2) 2
T .F = =
s5 2(1) 4(2) 2(1) 1 + G1G2 H k ( s − 2)( s − 2)
1+
s4 1 2 1 ( s + 2) 2
s3 0 0 0 k ( s − 2)
s
2 =
( s + 2) 2 + k ( s − 2) 2
S
Characteristic equation is = s2 + 4 + 4s + ks2
s0
– 4ks + 4k
In the third row all coefficients are zero. So, different
or (1 + k)s2 + 4(4 – 4k)s + 4k + 4 = 0
rows
RH – table.
d 4
( s + 2 s 2 + 1) = 0 s = ± j, s = ± j s2 (1 + k) (4k + 4)
ds
Chapter 5 Stability Analysis | 3.51
S k(4 – 4k) 0 12 − A
for stability > 0 ⇒ 0 < A< 12
S 4(k + 1) 3
for system to be stable.
Hence, the correct option is (c)
k(4 – 4k) > 0 ⇒ k < 1 and k ≥ 0.
also, (k + 1) > 0 ⇒ k> −1 23. An electromechanical closed-loop control system has
the following characteristic equation: s3 + 6K s2 +
so 0 ≤ k < 1
(K + 2)s + 8 = 0, where K is the forward gain of the
Hence, the correct option is (c) system. The condition for closed loop stability is:
2 0. A system described by the transfer function (a) K = 0.528 (b) K = 2
1 (c) K = 0 (d) K = -2.258
H ( s) = 3 [1990]
s + a s + Ks + 3 is stable.
2
s0 Ti 0
For stability 1st column should be positive
∴Ti – T > 0
Ti > T
Hence, the correct option is (d)
2 5. Consider a characteristic equation given by
s4 + 3s3 + 5s2 + 6s + K + 10
(a) Find the transfer function of the system and its
The condition for stability is characteristic equation.
(a) K > 5 (b) -10 < K (b) Use the Routh-Hurwitz criterion to determine the
(c) K > -4 (d) -10 < K < -4 range of K for which the system is stable.
[1988] [2001]
Solution: (d) Solution:
Characteristics equation
s4 + 3s3 + 5s2 + 6s + k + 10
using R – H criterion
s4 1 5 k + 10
s3 3 6 0
s 3
2
k + 10 0
−12 − 3k
s1
3 k ( s + 1)
∴ G1 ( s) =
s0 k + 10 s
For stable system, all coefficients in 1st column are 1/s 1
positive Gs ( s ) = =
1 ( s + 3)
−12 − 3k 1+ × 3
∴ >0 s
3
∴ G(s) = G1(s) × G2(s)
−12 – 3k > 0 k ( s + 1) 1
= ×
3k < −12 s ( s + 3)
k < −4 C ( s) G ( s)
∴ T.F. =
and R( s) 1 + G ( s) H ( s)
k + 10 > 0
1
k > −10 where H ( s) =
( s + 0.1)
so the value of k lies between
−10 < k < −4. k ( s + 1) 1
×
Hence, the correct option is (d) C ( s) s ( s + 3)
∴ =
R( s) 1 k ( s + 1) 1
1+ × ×
( s + 0.1) s ( s + 3)
Chapter 5 Stability Analysis | 3.53
298 2 C ( s) G (i)
s + k = 0 (from s2) ∴ = 2
20 R( s) s + 3s + G
One-mark Questions K
Given OLTF G(s) =
Solution:
s ( s + 1) ( s + 3)
1. For the system shown in the figure, s = –2.75 lies on the
root locus if K is _______. [2015] Characteristic equation is 1 + G(s) H(s) = 0
X(S) + Y(S)
s(s2 + 4s + 3) + K = 0
s+3
∑ K
– s+2 s3 + 4s2 + 3s + K = 0
Apply RH criterion,
10 S3 1 3
S2 4 K
Solution:
From the given block diagram 12 − k
S1 0
K ( s + 3) ( s + 2) K ( s + 3) 4
T(s) = = S0 K
10 K ( S + 3) ( s + 2) + 10 K ( s + 3)
1+ Given K > 0.
( s + 2) It is crossing imaginary axis let S1 row all zeros.
K ( s + 3)
T(s) = 12 − k
(10 K + 1) s + (2 + 30 K )
∴
4
= 0 ⇒ K = 12
But given S = –2.75 is on Root locus so it must satisfy Hence, the correct Answer is (12).
the magnitude condition. 3. The root locus plot for a system is given below. The
|T(s)| = 1 at S = –2.75 open loop transfer function corresponding to this plot
is given by
K (0.25)
=1
(10 K + 1) ( −2.75) + 2 + 30 K
K (0.25) = – 27.5 K – 2.75 + 2 + 30 K
–2.5K = – 0.75
K = 0.3
( s + 1)
G ( s) H ( s) = K
(b)
s( s + 2)( s + 3) 2
1
G ( s) H ( s) = K
(c)
s( s − 2)( s + 2)( s + 3)
( s + 1)
G ( s) H ( s) = K
(d) [2011]
s( s + 2)( s + 3)
(a) only if 0 ≤ K ≤ 1
Solution: (b)
(b) only if 1 < K < 5
From the plot we can observe that one pole terminates (c) only if K > 5
at zero at −1 and three poles terminate to ∞. It means (d) if 0 ≤ K < 1 or K > 5 [2001]
there are four poles and 1 zero. There are two poles at
Solution: (d)
−3 on both sides. It means there are two poles at –3.
For overdamping roots of characteristics equation
Hence, the correct option is (b)
should lie on –ve axis and be unequal.
K Hence, the correct option is (d)
4. Given G ( s) H ( s) = , the point of inter-
s( s + 1)( s + 3) 7. If the open-loop transfer function is a ratio of a numer-
section of the asymptotes of the root loci with the real ator polynomial of degree 'm' and a denominator poly-
nomial of degree 'n,' then the integer (n-m) represents
axis is the number of
(a) -4 (b) 1.33 (a) breakaway points (b) unstable poles
(c) -1.33 (d) 4 [2004] (c) separate root loci (d) asymptotes
Solution : (c) [1994]
ΣP − ΣZ −1 − 3 Solution: (d)
Centroide = = = −1.33
P−Z 3 Difference between poles and zeros will give number
of asymptotes.
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Hence, the correct option is (d)
5. Which of the following points is NOT on the root
locus of a system with the open-looptransfer function
G ( s) H ( s) =
K Two-marks Questions
s( s + 1)( s + 3) 1. The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback
(a) s = - j 3 (b)
s = - 1.5 control system is
(c) s = - 3 (d) s = - ∞ [2002] K
G(s) = 2 .
Solution: (b) s + 5s + 5
The value of K at the breakaway point of the feedback
control system’s root locus plot is [2016]
Solution: Now we have transfer function as
K
G(s) = .
s 2 + 5s + 5
The characteristics equation for open loop TF is
1 + G(S)H(S) = 0
Root locus lies where number of poles and zeros to
right half of the pole is odd. S
2
+ 5S + 5 + K = 0
∴ s = −1.5 does not lie on root locus. K = –S 2 – 5S – 5
Hence, the correct option is (b)
To find break away point differentiate the above equa-
6. The root-locus diagram for a closed-loop feedback sys- tion w.r.t s, that is
tem is shown in the figure. The system is overdamped
dK
=0
ds
Chapter 6 Root Locus | 3.57
⇒ –2 S – 5 = 0 s +1
(a)
( s + 2)( s + 4)( s + 7)
S = –2.5
K = –(–2.5)2 – 5(–2.5) – 5 s+4
(b)
( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 7)
=
1.25
Break away point is that point in root locus where two s+7
(c)
complex poles are present causing the break away ( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 4)
Hence TF has break away point at S = –2.5 at k = 1.25 ( s + 1)( s + 2)
(d) [2014]
Hence, the correct Answer is (1.25). ( s + 7)( s + 4)
2. An open-loop transfer function of a plant in a unity
Solution: (b)
K (s + 4)
feedback configuration is given as ( s ) = . Since the root locus always emerges from the break-
( s + 8) s 2 − 9 ( ) away points, i.e., when two poles are at a part of same
The value of the gain K(>0) for which -1 + j2 lies on the root locus lie. So, σ = −1 and −2 surely be poles.
root locus is ______ [2015] We also know root locus terminates at zero. So
s = −4 is zero and s = −7 is a pole.
K (S + 4)
G(s) =
Solution: ( s + 4)
( s + 8) ( s 2 − 9 ) ∴ T ( s) =
( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 7)
3. In the root locus plot shown in the figure, the pole/zero Re(s)
marks and the arrows have been removed. Which one o x
of the following transfer functions has this root locus?
± 2 and 0°
(a) (b) ± 2 and 45°
dk (b)
= 0,
ds
So, (s2 – 2s + 2) (2s + 2) – (s2 + 2s + 2) (s – 1) = 0
⇒s=± 2
Angle of departure is
fD = 180° + f
Where f = Σq z − Σf p − 135
(c)
fD = 180 − 135 = 45°
Hence, the correct option is (b)
5. A unity feedback control system has an open-loop
K
transfer function G ( s) = 2
.
s( s + 7 s + 12)
dk k
= −(3s 2 + 10 s + 6) G ( s) = ,. The root locus plot of the
ds ( s + 0.1)( s + 0.2)
dk system is of the form. [1992]
for break away point. =0 (a)
ds
or 3s + 10s + 6 = 0 ⇒ s = −0.784, −2.55
2
−2 − 3 −5
Centroid = = = −1.66
−3 3
p p
angle of asymptotes = (2k + 1) = (2k + 1) (b)
p−z 3
p 5p
= ,p ,
3 3
So break away point is (−0.784, 0) as −2.55 does not lie
on R.L.
Hence, the correct option is (d)
8. Consider the points s1 = -3 + j4 and s2 = -3 - j2 in the
s-plane. Then, for a system with the open-loop transfer
function
K
G ( s) H ( s) =
( s + 1) 4
(c)
(a) s1 is on the root locus, but not s2
(b) s2 is on the root locus, but not s1
(c) both s1 and s2 are on the root locus
(d) neither s1 nor s2 is on the root locus [1999]
Solution: (b)
s1 = −3 + 4j
k k
G ( s) H ( s) = 4
=
( −3 + 4 j + 1) ( −2 + 4 j ) 4
∠ G (s) H (s) = -4 tan -1(-2) = -4.66°≠ odd multiple of π
So, s1 does not lie on root locus
s2 = −3 – j2
(d)
k k
G ( s) H ( s) = =
( −3 − j 2 + 1) 4 ( −2 − 2 j ) 4
∠ G (s) H (s) = -4 [tan -1(1)] = - p = odd multiple of π
So, s2 lies on root locus.
Hence, the correct option is (b)
9. Given a unity feedback system with open-loop transfer
function.
3.60 | Control Systems
k ( s + 1) Solution : (b)
⇒ G ( s) H ( s) =
s( s + 2)( s + 3) k
Given T.F = 2
s + (3 − k )( s + 1)
poles = 0, −2, −3, zeros = −1
( −2 − 3) − ( −1) root locus plot will be
centroid = = −2 = ( −2, 0)
3 −1
Hence, the correct option is (b)
1 1. The transfer function of a closed loop system is
K
T ( s) =
s 2 + (3 − K )( s + 1)
Where K is these forward path gain, the root locus plot
of the system is: [1990]
(a)
Hence, the correct option is (b)
1 2. The OLTF of a feedback system is G(s) H(s)
K ( s + 1)( s + 3)
= .
s2 + 4s + 8
The root locus for the same is [1989]
(a)
(b)
Chapter 6 Root Locus | 3.61
(b)
Fig. (b)
(c)
(a)
1 + (0.5s + 1)(10 s + 1)
K
(b)
( s + 2)( s + 0.1)
K
(c)
1 + K (0.5s + 1)(10 s + 1)
K
(d) [1988]
K + 0.2(0.5s + 1)(10 s + 1)
(d)
Solution: (d)
k
G ( s) =
( s + 0.1)( s + 2)
K .G ( s)
T.F =
1 + K .G ( s)
k
( s + 0.1)( s + 2)
T .F . =
k
1+
Solution: (a) ( s + 0.1)( s + 2)
Answer (b) and (d) are wrong as root locus is sym- k
T .F . =
metrical about real axis, and (c) is wrong as root locus ( s + 0.1)( s + 2) + K
direction is from poles to zero.
Hence, the correct option is (a) k
T .F . =
13. Consider a closed-loop system shown in figure (a) ( s + 0.1)( s + 2) + K
below. The root locus for it is shown in figure (b). The k
closed loop transfer function for the system is T .F . =
k + 0.2(1 + 10 s)(1 + 0.5s)
R(s) + c(l)
K G(s) k
T .F . =
k + ( s + 0.1) ( s + 2)
k
=
k + (0.2) (1 + 10 s)(1 + 0.5s)
Fig. (a) Hence, the correct option is (d)
Chapter 7
Frequency Analysis
(A) P : Open Circuit Q : Short Circuit, R : Matched
One-mark Questions Load
(B) P : Open Circuit Q : Matched Load, R : Short
1. For an LTI system, the Bode plot for its gain is as illus- Circuit
trated in the figure shown. The number of system poles (C) P : Short Circuit Q : Matched Load, R : Open
Np and the number of system zeros Nz in the frequency Circuit
range 1 Hz ≤ f ≤ 107 Hz is [2019] (D) P : Short Circuit Q : Open Circuit , R : Matched
Gain (dB) Load
–20
100 dB/d Solution: We know that he constant resistance circle, r
ec.
= 0 and the constant reactance circle, x = 0 pass through
–6
0d
B/d
B/
ec z = r + jx = 0
de
.
c.
ec
0d
1+ ω2 ω 2 –11.4 –89.4
M= , ϕ = − tan −1 ω − tan −1 3 –21.5 –151
16 + 4ω 2 2
5 –32.8 –167
ω=0 ω=a 10 –45.3 –174.5
1 1
∠0 ∠ − 180°
4 2 The unit step response of the system approaches a
steady state value of _______. [2015]
–1 + j.0
1
1 1 G(s) =
Solution:
2 4 MS 2 + BS + K
1
Since, (–1,0) lies on the left and is not encircled there- for Unit step response R(s) =
s
for the system is stable and no of encirclement is 0.
1
Hence, the correct option is (A). C(s) = R(s) ⋅ G(s) =
5. The polar plot of the transfer function G(s) =
10 ( s + 1) ( 2
s Ms + Bs + K )
s + 10 Steady state value (or) F.V
for 0 ≤ ω < ∞ will be in the [2015]
= Lt s.C(s) = 1/K
S →0
(A) first quadrant (B) second quadrant
Find the ‘K’ value from the given table
(C) third quadrant (D) fourth quadrant
1
10 ( s + 1) G ( jω ) =
Given Gc(s) =
Solution: − M ω + jBω + K
2
( s + 10)
1
Zero is dominating, so it is a lead network. |G( jω)| =
(K − ω M )
2
+ ( Bω )
2 2
⎧ω ⎫ ⎧ω ⎫ If ω = 1
Φ = ∠Gc ( jω) = tan–1 ⎨ ⎬ − tan −1 ⎨ ⎬ any value of
⎩1⎭ ⎩10 ⎭
0 ≤ ω ≤ ∞. 20 log |G( jω)|| = –16
Φ → positive value so, it is in 1st quadrant.
|G( jω)| = 0.158
3.64 | Control Systems
B
= 0.30
K−M
B2 = 0.0923 (K – M)2
40 = (1.0923)(K – M)2
K – 4M = 0.038
4(K – M = 6.05)
One pole exhibits −20 dB/dec slope; so four pole exhib- (a)
its a slope of −80 dB/decade.
PM = 180 + ∠GH w = w
gc
from the given transfer function
w gc −1 gc
w −1 gc
w
∠G ( jw ) = − tan −1 − tan − tan
0.1 1 10
or ∠G ( jw ) = −84.289° − 45° − 5.711° = −135°
∴from equations (ii) and (iii), we get phase margins
PM = 180 – 135 = 45°.
(b)
Hence, the correct option is (a).
9. The Bode plot of a transfer function G(s) is shown in
the figure below:
(c)
32 32
(c) (d) 2 [2013]
s s
(d)
Solution : (b)
10 rad/s to 1 rad/s is 1 decade 32 – (−8) = 40 dB
So, the slope is 40 dB/decade. It means there are two
poles at origin, which means either option (b) or option
(d) is correct, put w = 1 rad/sec in both.
39.8
20 log 2 = 32 dB
(1)
32
20 log = 30.1dB
12 Solution: (a)
So option (b) is correct. G(jw) = 5 + jw
Hence, the correct option is (b).
G ( jw ) = 25 + w 2
10. For the transfer function G(jω) = 5 + jω, the corre-
sponding Nyquist plot for positive frequency has the at, w = 0 G (f ) = 25 = 5
form [2011]
Hence, the correct option is (a).
3.66 | Control Systems
11. For the asymptotic Bode magnitude plot shown below, (d)
the system transfer function can be
10 s + 1 100 s + 1
(a) (b) Solution: (d)
0.1s + 1 0.1s + 1
1
100 s 0.1s + 1 Let be a lag network.
(c) (d) [2010] s +1
10 s + 1 10 s + 1
Solution: (a) At w = 0, Mag = ∞ ∠ = tan −1 0 = 0
s At w = ∞ Mag = 0, ∠ = − tan −1 (∞) = −90°
k 1 +
0.1
T.F., G ( s) H ( s) = If in the direction of w increasing phase shift is decreas-
s
1 + 10 ing system is lag network.
Here, 20 log k = 0, k = 1 Hence, the correct option is (d).
13. In the figure, the Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer
10 s + 1
So G ( s) H ( s) = function G(s)H(s) of a system is shown. If G(s)H(s) has
0.1s + 1 one right-hand pole, the closed-loop system is
Hence, the correct option is (a).
12. Which one of the following polar diagrams correspond
to a lag network? [2005]
(a)
wn 1 − 2x 2
(a)
wn (1 − x 2 ) + x 4 − x 2 + 1
(b)
(a) 0 (b) 1 wn (1 − 2x 2 ) + 4x 4 − 4x 2 + 2
(c)
(c) 2 (d) 3 [2001]
Solution :(a) (d)
wn (1 − 2x 2 ) − 4x 4 − 4x 2 + 2 [1994]
N = 0, (1 encirclement in CW direction and other in
ACW). Solution: (c)
P = 0 (no pole in right half)
For example, wn (1 − 2x 2 ) + 4x 4 − 4x 2 + 2
N=P–Z
Z=P–N=0 Hence, the correct option is (c).
So, no roots on RH of s-plane.
Hence, the correct option is (a). 19. The open loop frequency response of a system at two
15. In the Bode-plot of a unity feedback control system, the particular frequencies is given by : 1.2 ∠-180° and
value of phase of G(jω) at the gain cross over frequency 1.0 ∠-190°. The closed loop unity feedback control is
is -125°. The phase margin of the system is then______ [1994]
(a) -125° (b) -55° Solution: at 180° → |GH| = 1.2
(c) 55° (d) 125° [1998] 1 1
Solution: (c) G.M = 20 log = 20 log = −1.6 dB
GH 1.2
f = −125°
at |GH| = 1 → f = −190°
P. M. = 180 + φ = 180° – 125 = 55°
Hence, the correct option is (c). P.M. = 180° + f = 180 – 190 = −10°, since both GM
and PM are negative so system is unstable.
1 6. The Nyquist plot of a loop transfer function G(jω)
H(jω) of a system encloses the (1 -, j0) point. The gain
margin of the system is
(a) less than zero (b) zero Two-marks Questions
(c) greater than zero (d) infinity [1998] 1. The figure below shows the Bode magnitude and plots
Solution: (a) n0
of a stable transfer function G(s) =
A system is unstable when Nyquist plot of G(jw) H(jw) S s + d2
s2 + d1s + d0
encloses the point (−1 + j0) and gain margin of unstable
[2018]
system is always –ve. Therefore, the gain margin of the
given system is less than zero.
G( jω )
Hence, the correct option is (a).
17. Non-minium phase transfer function is defined as the 36 dB
transfer function 20 dB
(a) which has zeros in the right-half s-plane 0 dB ω
(b) which has zeros only in the left-half s-plane + ∑ k G(s)
–
(c) which has poles in the right-half s-plane
∠G( jω)
(d) which has poles in the left-half s-plane [1995] 0°
Solution: (a)
–180°
The non-minimum phase transfer function is defined as –270°
the transfer function which has zeros in the right half of
s-plane.
3.68 | Control Systems
20 log K < – 20
+ j 5.43K G(s)-plane
log K < – 1
K < 0.1
−j ω
Hence, the correct answer is 0.1.
ω =0
2. The Nyquist plot of the transfer function Re G
−K 2K
K
G ( s) = +j ω
( s + 2 s + 2)( s + 2)
2
does not encircle the point (-1 + j0) for K = 10 but does
encircle the point (-1 + j0) for K = 100. Then the closed − j 5.43K
loop system (having unity gain feedback) is [2017]
(A) Stable for K = 10 and stable for K = 100
(B) Stable for K = 10 and unstable for K = 100 Nyquist Plot of G(s)
(C) Unstable for K = 10 and stable for K = 100
(D) Unstable for K = 10 and unstable for K = 100 If 0<K<1, then the number of poles of the closed-
loop transfer that lie in the right-half of the s-plane is
Solution: The above problem can be solved by RH [2017]
criteria. (A) 0 (B) 1
C . E = S3 + 2S2 + 2S2 + 4S + 2S + 4 + K = 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
C . E = S3 + 4S2 + 6S + 4 + K = 0 Solution: Given open-loop transfer function
For the system to be stable 10 k ( S + 2)
24 > (4 + k) G(S ) =
S 3 + 3S 2 + 10
(4 + k) < 24
Characteristice equation is 1 + G (S) =0
0 < K < 20
10 k ( S + 2)
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1+ =0
S 3 + 3S 2 + 10
3. A unity feedback control system is characterized by the ⇒ S 3 + 3S 2 + 10 KS + ( 20 K + 10) = 0
10 K ( s + 2)
open-loop transfer function G ( s) = 3 Form Routh Table
s + 3s 2 + 10
S3 1 10 K
The Nyquist path and the corresponding Nyquist plot 3
S 2
2 K + 10
of G(s) are shown in the figure below. 10 k − 10
S 1
0
3
S 20 k + 10 0
0
Chapter 7 Frequency Analysis | 3.69
10 K − 10
> 0 ⇒ k >1 0°
0.01 0.1 1 10 100 ω
3 rad/s
20 K + 10 > 0 ⇒ K > −1 –45°
2
\ If K > 1 → The closed-loop system is stable If 0 < K –135°
< 1 → The closed-loop system is unstable. The number
of sign changes in the first column of routh table are = –225°
2.
–270°
\ The number of poles of the closed-loop transfer
function that lie in the Right-half of S-plane are = 2 The value of p1 is _____. [2016]
Hence, the correct option is (C). Solution: As we know that phase of the system is
⎛ω ⎞ −1 ⎛ ω ⎞ −1 ⎛ ω ⎞
4. In the feedback system below G(s) =
1 ϕ = − tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ − tan ⎜ 10 ⎟ − tan ⎜ p ⎟
( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 3) ⎝ 0. 1 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ 1⎠
. [2016] Phase margin = 180 + phase of a system
At ω = 1, phase of a system – 135°
+
r k G (S) y Pm = 180 – 135° = 45°
–
At ω = 1,
The positive value of k for which the gain margin of the ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
loop is exactly 0 dB and the phase margin of the loop is − tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ − tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ − tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ = 45°
⎝ 0.1⎠ ⎝ 10 ⎠ ⎝ p1 ⎠
exactly zero degree is _____.
⎛ 1⎞
Solution: Gain margin = 0 dB tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ = −135° ⇒ p1 = 1
⎝ p1 ⎠
Phase = –180° Hence, the correct Answer is (1).
On equating the gain to 0 we get 6. Consider the Bode plot shown in the figure. Assume
that all the poles and zeros are real-valued.
20 log ⎡⎢ ω 2 +1 ω 2 + 4 ω 2 + 9 ⎤
=0 ⎥⎦
⎣
k
10
Given G(s) =
Solution:
s ( s + 10 )
P.M = 180° + Φ If the system is connected in a unity negative feedback
configuration, the steady-state error of the closed loop
Φ = ⇒ G( jω) at ω = ωgc system, to a unit ramp input, is________.
at ω = ωgc |G( jω)| = 1 [2014]
10 Solution :
=1
ω ω 2 + 100
100 = ω2 (ω2 + 100)
ω4 + 100 ω2 – 100 = 0
Let ω2 = x
X 2 + 100X – 100 = 0
X1 = 0.99, X2 = –100
ω2 = 0.99 ω → +ve only
ωgc = 0.9948 rad/sec 20 − 0
⎧ω ⎫ −20 dB =
Φ = –90° – tan–1 ⎨ ⎬ log 0.1 − log w gc
⎩10 ⎭
Φ = –90° – 5.682 where 26.02 w = 0.1 = 20 log k − 20 log 0
Φ = –95.682
PM = 180° + Φ or, k = 1.99 ~ 2
P.M = 84.3178° 20( s + 2)
so, G ( s) =
2 s( s + 10)
Hence, the correct Answer is (84 to 84.5).
A
Steady-state error for ramp input is ess =
8. The phase margin in degrees of ka
⇒ ka = lim sG ( s)
10 s →0
G ( s) = calculated using
( s + 0.1) + ( s + 1)( s + 10) From equation (iii)
the asymptotic Bode plot is_____. [2014] 10( s + 2)
ka = lim s × =2
10 s →0 s( s + 10)
Solution : s s s
0.1× 10 + 1 + 1 + 1 1
0.1 1 10 ∴ ess = = 0.5
2
10
= 1 0. The asymptotic Bode plot of a transfer function is as
s s s shown in the figure. The transfer function G(s) corre-
0.1 + 1 1 + 1 10 + 1
sponding to this Bode plot is
Amount of shift = 20 log k = 20 log 10 = 20 dB
Chapter 7 Frequency Analysis | 3.71
12. The gain and phase margins of G(s) for closed loop
stability are
(a) 6 dB and 180° (b) 3 dB and 180°
(c) 6 dB and 90° (d) 3 dB and 90°
[2009]
Solution: (c)
1 1
Gain margin = 20 log = 20 log
x 0.5
= 20 log 2 = 6 dB
and phase margin = 90°
1 Hence, the correct option is (c).
(a)
( s + 1)( s + 20) 13. The asymptotic Bode plot of a transfer function is as
1 shown in the figure. The transfer function G(s) corre-
(b) sponding to this Bode plot is
s( s + 1)( s + 20)
100
(c)
s( s + 1)( s + 20)
100
(d) [2007]
s( s + 1)(1 + 0.05s)
Solution: (c)
k
k 20
G ( s) = =
s( s + 1)( s + 20) s
s(1 + s) 1 +
20 1
(a)
Bode plot is in (1 + ST) form. ( s + 1)( s + 20)
= −20 log w + 20 log k = |60 dB|w= 0.1 1
(b)
Solving ⇒ k = 100 s( s + 1)( s + 20)
100 100 100
So G ( s) = = (c)
s( s + 1)(1 + 0.05s) s( s + 1)( s + 20) s( s + 1)( s + 20)
100
(d) [2007]
s( s + 1)(1 + 0.05s)
Solution: (c)
k
k 20
Hence, the correct option is (c). G ( s) = =
s( s + 1)( s + 20) s
Common Data for Question 11 and 12 s(1 + s) 1 +
20
The Nyquist plot of a stable transfer function G(s) is
shown in the figure. We are interested in the stability Bode plot is in (1 + ST) form.
of the closed loop system in the feedback configuration = −20 log w + 20 log k = |60 dB|w= 0.1
shown Solving ⇒ k = 100
11. Which of the following statement is true? 100 100
(a) G(s) is an all-pass filter So G ( s) = =
s( s + 1)(1 + 0.05s) s( s + 1)( s + 20)
(b) G(s) has a zero in the right-half plane
(c) G(s) is the impedance of a passive network
(d) G(s) is marginally stable [2009]
Solution: (b)
From the plot, G(s) has a zero in the right half of plane.
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (c).
3.72 | Control Systems
14. The Nyquist plot of G(jω) H(jω) for a closed loop con- 0.2 k < 1 k < 5
trol system, passed through (-1, j0) point in the GH 2k > 1 k > 0.5
plane. The gain margin of the system in dB is equal to
0.5 < k < 5
(a) infinite (b) greater than zero
(c) less than zero (d) zero [2006] 1 > 8k
Solution: (d) 1
k< (negative sign only shows that it is on
1 8
G.M. = 20 log dB
a negative axis)
a = 1, G.M. = 0 Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (d). 1 6. Consider the Bode magnitude plot shown in the figure.
The transfer function H(s) is
1 5. The polar diagram of a conditionally stable system for
open loop gain K = 1 is shown in the figure. The open
loop transfer function of the system is known to be sta-
ble. The closed loop system is stable for
( s + 10)
(a)
( s + 10)( s + 100)
10( s + 1)
(b)
11 11 ( s + 10)( s + 100)
KK <<55and
(a) and << KK
and
22 88 2
(c) 10 ( s + 1)
11 11 ( s + 10)( s + 100)
KK << and
(b) and <<KK <<55
and
88 22
(d) 103 ( s + 100) [2004]
11
KK << and
(c) and 55<< KK
and ( s + 1)( s + 10)
88
Solution : (c)
1
K < and
(d) and K < 5 [2005] 20 log k = −20 dB
8
⇒k = 10−1 = 0.1
Solution: (b)
Zero at w = 1 and poles at w = 10, 100
k ( s + 1) 100( s + 1)
H ( s) = =
s s ( s + 10)( s + 100)
10 + 1 100 + 1
Hence, the correct option is (c).
17. A system has poles at 0 01 Hz, 1 Hz and 80 Hz; zeros
at 5 Hz, 100 Hz and 200 Hz. The approximate phase of
the system response at 20 Hz is
(a) -90° (b) 0°
(c) 90° (d) -180° [2004]
Solution: (a)
system is stable in region −0.2 to −2 and on the left side Pole at 0.01 and 1 Hz gives −180 phase. Zero at 5Hz
of −8 as number of encirclement there is zero. gives +90 phase.
Chapter 7 Frequency Analysis | 3.73
[1992]
Solution :
Corner fq = 1 rad/sec
1
=1 ⇒ T = 1
T
y = mx + c
⇒20 = 0 + c ⇒ c = 20
c = 20 log k = 20 k = 10
k 10
T.F = =
1 + TS 1 + S
( s + 0.1)3
108
(a) 2 0. The open-loop transfer function of a feedback control
( s + 10) 2 ( s + 100)
1
( s + 0.1)3 system is G ( s) ⋅ H ( s) =
107
(b) ( s + 1)3
( s + 10)( s + 100)
( s + 0.1) 2 The gain margin of the system is
108
(c) (a) 2 (b) 4
( s + 10) 2 ( s + 100) (c) 8 (d) 16 [1991]
( s + 0.1)3
109
(d) [2003] Solution: (c)
( s + 10)( s + 100) 2 wpc ⇒ −3tan−1(wpc) = −180°
Solution: (a)
w pc = 3 rad/sec
w = 0.1 to 10, +120 dB change
∴ 3 zeros at 0.1 1 1 1
G .H = x = = =
w = 10 to 100, −40 dB 1 + w 2pc
3 8
( 3)
2
[i.e., +60 to +20] change 1 +
so two poles at w = 100
1
k ( s + 0.1)3 G.M. = = 8.
⇒ T ( s) = x
( s + 10) 2 ( s + 100)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
k 2 1. From the Nicholas chart one can determine the follow-
⇒ 20 log = 140
w w =10 ing quantities pertaining to a closed loop system:
(a) Magnitude and phase
k (b) Band width
⇒ = 107
w w =10
(c) Only magnitude
(d) Only phase [1989]
∴k = 108 Solution: (a)
Hence, the correct option is (a). Nicholas chart is magnitude versus phase pilot.
19. Bode plot of a stable system is shown in figure. The Hence, the correct option is (a).
transfer function of the system is
3.74 | Control Systems
22. A system has fourteen poles and two zeros. Its high k
frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope ∴ G ( j 0) H ( j 0) = =2
p1 p2
of:
(a) -40 dB/decade (b) -240 dB/decade k = 2 p1p2
(c) -280 dB/decade (d) -320 dB/decade
k
[1987] ⇒ G ( jω ) H ( jω ) =
( jω + p1 )( jω + p2 )
Solution: (b)
Given P = 14, Z = 2, (P – Z) = 14 – 2 = 12 k
= 2
Slope = −20(P – Z) = −20(12) = −240 dB/dec. −ω + p1 p2 + jω ( p1 + p2 )
Hence, the correct option is (b). ∴ Considering imaginary axis.
10 (Real part) = Re [G(jω) H(jω)] = 0
2 3. The polar plot of G ( s) = intercepts real
s( s + 1) 2 ∴ −ω2 + p1p2 = 0
p1p2 = ω2
axis at ω= ω0. Then, the real part and ω0 are, respec-
tively, given by ω=2
(a) -2.5, 1 (b) -5, 0.5 p1p2 = 22 = 4
(c) -5, 1 (d) -5, 2 [1987] Sub value of p1p2 in equation (i)
Solution : (c) k = 2p1p2 = 2 × 4 = 8
10 ∴ Sub value of ω, k and p1p2 in equation (ii)
G ( s) = 2
,
s( s + 1) k
∴ G ( jω ) H ( jω ) = 2
∠G = −180 = −90° − 2 tan −1 ( w ) −ω + p1 p2 + jω ( p1 + p2 )
2 tan−1(w) = 45° ⇒ w = 1 8
|G (j2) H (j2)| |= =2
wpc = 1 rad/sec 2( p1 + p2 )
thus
10 10 ∴p1 + p2 = 2 (iii)
G w=w = = =5
pc w (1 + w ) 2 1(1 + 1) ∴To find p1 and p2 values
At w = w the polar plot crosses the negative real axis at ∴ (p1 – p2)2 = Re(p1, p2)2 – p1p2
−5. ⇒ (p1p2)2 = 22 – 4 × 4
Hence, the correct option is (a). ⇒ (p1 – p2)2 = 4 – 16 = −12
⇒ p1 − p2 = j 2 3 (iv)
Five-marks Questions Adding equation (iii) and (iv)
p1 + p2 = 2
1. The Nyquist plot of an all-pole second order open-
p1 – p2 = j2 3
loop system is shown in the figure is obtain the transfer
function of the system. 2 p1 = 2 + j 2 3
= 1+ j 3
Sub value of p1 in equation (iii)
p1 + p2 = 2
⇒ 2 p1 = 2 + j 2 3
p2 = 1 − j 3
8
∴ G ( s) H ( s) =
[ s + 1 + j 3 ][( s + 1 − j 3 ]
Solution:
System in type 0, order 2
8 8 8
k G ( s) H ( s) = = =
∴ G ( s) H ( s) = 2
( s + 1) − ( j 3 ) 2 2
s + 1 + 2s + 3 2
s + 2s + 4
( s + p1 )( s + p2 )
8 8 8
P1P2 = Poles G ( s) H ( s) = = 2 = 2
2 2
+ 1) − ( j 3 ) s + 1 + 2s + 3 s + 2s + 4
( s
Chapter 7 Frequency Analysis | 3.75
100 y = 6180
G(s)H(s) = e-sT. Using Nyquist criterion,
s(1 + 0.01s) ∴ As y = ω2
find the condition for the closed loop system to be ω2 = 6180
stable [1998] ωgc = 70.6 rad/sec
Solution: π
− tan −1 (ω gc 0.01)
φ = ω gcT −
100 / ω 1 + (0.01ω ) 2 2
G ( s) H ( s) = =1 −1
φ = −78.67 − 90° − tan (78.6 × 0.01)
ω = wge
φ = −78.67 − 90° − 38.17°
⇒ ω 1 + (0.01ω ) 2 = 100 = −78.67 − 128.17°
p.m. = 180 + φ
⇒ ω 2 (1 + (0.01ω ) 2 ) = 10000
= 180 + (−78.67 – 128.17°)
⇒ ω 2 (!+ 0.0001ω 2 ) = 10000 If pm is +ve, system becomes stable.
⇒ 0.0001ω4 + ω2 – 10000 = 0 Pm > 0
let ω2 = y 180° – 128.17° – 78.67 > 0
0.0001 y2 + y – 10000 = 0 180
⇒ −78.67 > −51.83
π
−1 ± 1 + 4
∴y =
0.0002 T > 0.0115
−1 ± 5
y=
0.0002
Chapter 8
State Space Analysis
2. The state variable representation of a system is given as
One-mark Questions
⎡0 1 ⎤ ⎡1 ⎤
x = ⎢
− ⎥ x; x ( 0 ) = ⎢ 0 ⎥
•
⎣ 0 1⎦ ⎣ ⎦
1. Consider the state space x1 (t ) =
realization
• y = [0 1] x
x2 (t )
0 0 x1 (t ) 0
0 −9 x (t ) + 45 u(t ), with the initial condition The response y(t) is [2015]
2 (A) sin(t) (B) 1 – et
x1 (0) 0 (C) 1 – cos(t) (D) 0
= , where u(t) denotes the unit step func- Solution: From the given state equation
x2 ( 0 ) 0
⎡0 1 ⎤ ⎡1⎤
tion. The Value of lim
x →∞
x12 (t ) + x22 (t ) is _________. A= ⎢
0 −1⎥ ; x (0 ) = ⎢ 0 ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
[2017]
Solution:
From given state space realization, y = [0 1] x
•
x1 (t ) = 0 ∴ y = x2
•
x2 (t ) = −9 x2 (t ) + 45 u(t ) (1) x(t) = F(t) ⋅ x(0)
Apply Laplace transfrom to equation (1)
F(t) = L–1 {(SI – A)–1}
SX 1 ( s) − x1 (0) = 0 ⇒ X 1 ( s) = 0 (2)
⎡ s −1 ⎤
1 ⎢ ⎥ = (SI – A)
SX 2 ( s) − x2 (0) = −9 x2 ( s) + 45 ⎣0 s + 1⎦
5
45 1 ⎡ s + 1 1⎤
( S + 9) X 2 ( S ) = F=
S s ( s + 1) ⎢⎣ 0 s ⎥⎦
45 A B 5 5
X 2 (S ) = = + = − ⎡1 s 1 s ( s + 1)⎤
S ( S + 9) S S + 9 S S + 9 F=⎢ ⎥
⎣ 0 1 ( s + 1) ⎦
Apply inverse LT to equations (2) and (3)
⎡1 S 1 s ( s + 1)⎤ ⎡1 ⎤
x1 ( t ) = 0; X (s) = ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 0 1 ( s + 1) ⎦ ⎢⎣0 ⎥⎦
x2 ( t ) = 5 u ( t ) − 5e −9t u ( t )
⎡1 s ⎤ ⎡ x ⎤
X(s) = ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ 1 ⎥
Lim x12 (t ) + x22 (t ) ⎣ 0 ⎦ ⎣ x2 ⎦
t →∞
1 0 Solution: (d)
dx
3. Consider the system = Ax + Bu with A = 0 1 x (t ) = 2 x(t ) + 2u(t )
(1)
dt
p y(t) = 0.5 x(t) (2)
and B = where p and q are arbitrary real numbers.
q taking Laplace transform of (1)
Which of the following statements about the control- s × (s) = −2 × (s) + 2u(s)
lability of the system is true? 2u( s)
(a) The system is completely state controllable for any ⇒ x ( s) =
( s + 2)
nonzero values of p and q
(b) Only p = 0 and q = 0 result in controllability Laplace transform of (1)
(c) The system is uncontrollable for all values of p and y(s) = 0.5 × (s)
q 0.5 × 2u( s)
(d) We cannot conclude about controllability from the y ( s) =
( s + 2)
given data [2009]
Solution: (c) y ( s) 1
∴ =
1 0 p u( s) ( s + 2)
A= ; B =
0 1 q
Hence, the correct option is (d)
Controllability, QC = [BAB … An – 1B] ≠ 0 6. The system mode described by the state equations
1 0 p p 0 1 0
A. B = = x = x + u, Y = 1 1 x is
0 1 q q 2 −3 1
p p (a) controllable and observable
So Qc = = 0 ⇒ uncontrollable, for all p and q (b) controllable, but not observable
q q (c) observable, but not controllable
Hence, the correct option is (c) (d) neither controllable nor observable [1999]
4. A linear system is equivalent represented by two sets of Solution: (a)
state equations. X = AX + BU and W = CW + DU.
Q0 = [BABA2B − An–1B]
The eigen values of the representations are also com-
puted as [λ] and [μ]. Which one of the following state- 0 1
A=
ments is true? 2 −3
(a) [λ] = [μ] and X = W
(b) [λ] = [μ] and X ≠ W 0
B = ; C = [1 1]
(c) [λ] ≠ [μ] and X = W 1
(d) [λ] ≠ [μ] and X ≠ W [2005] 1
Solution: (a,b) AB =
3
Eigen value of A = [λ]
Eigen value of W = [μ] 0 1
∴ Q0 = ≠0
The eigen value of a system are always unique. 1 −3 2× 2
So [λ] = [μ] ∴ Order = 2, rank = 2
But a system can be represented by different state mod- Controllable
els having different sets of state variables 2
T T T T T
x=w Q0 = [C A C C A ...]
x ≠ aw 1 0 2
Both are possible conditions. C T = , AT =
1
1 −3
5. The transfer function Y(s)/U(s) of a system described
by the state equations x (t ) = −2 x )(t ) + 2u(t ) and y(t) = 1 2
∴ Q0 = ≠0
0 5x(t) is 1 −2
(a) 0.5/(s − 2) (b) 1/(s − 2)
rank 2 observable.
(c) 0.5/(s + 2) (d) 1/(s + 2) [2002]
Hence, the correct option is (a)
Chapter 8 State Space Analysis | 3.79
⎡ −4 −1.5⎤ ⎡2⎤
Two-marks questions X = ⎢ ⎥ X + ⎢ ⎥U ,
⎣4 0 ⎦ ⎣0 ⎦
1. Let the state-space representation of an LTI system be
X (t) = Ax(t) + Bu(t), y(t) = Cx(t) + du(t) where A, B, C Y = [1.5 0.625] x.
are matrices, d is a scalar. u(t) is the input to the system
and y(t) is its output. Let B = [0 0 1]T and d = 0. Which The transfer function representation of the system is:
one of the following options for A and C will ensure [2018]
that the transfer function of this LTI system is H(s) = 3s + 5 3s − 1.875
(A) 2 (B)
1 s + 4s + 6 s2 + 4s + 6
? [2019]
s 2 + 3s 2 + 2 s + 1 4 s + 1. 5 6s + 5
(C) 2 (D)
⎡ 0 1 0 ⎤ s + 4s + 6 s2 + 4s + 6
(A) A = ⎢ 0 0 1 ⎥ and C = [0 0 1] T.F = C(SI – A)–1 ⋅ B + D
Solution:
⎢ –3 –2 –1⎥
⎣ ⎦ −1
⎡ S + 4 1.5⎤
(SI – A) = ⎢
–1
⎡ 0 1 0 ⎤
⎣ −4 S ⎥⎦
(B) A = ⎢ 0 0 1 ⎥ and C = [0 0 1]
⎢ –1 –2 –3⎥
⎣ ⎦ 1 ⎧S −1.5 ⎫
= ⎨ ⎬
S ( S + 4) + 6 ⎩ 4 S + 4 ⎭
⎡ 0 1 0 ⎤
(C) A = ⎢ 0 0 1 ⎥ and C = [1 0 0]
⎢ –1 –2 –3⎥ ⎡ S −1.5 ⎤
⎣ ⎦ ⎢ S 2 + 4S + 6 S 2 + 4S + 6 ⎥
=
⎢ ⎥ = [1.5 0.625]
⎡ 0 1 0 ⎤ ⎢ 4 S+4 ⎥
(D) A = ⎢ 0 0 1 ⎥ and C = [1 0 0] ⎢⎣ S 2 + 4 S + 6 S 2 + 4 S + 6 ⎥⎦
⎢ –3 –2 –1⎥
⎣ ⎦
⎡ S −1.5 ⎤
Solution: X (t ) = Ax (t ) + Bu (t ) ⎢ S 2 + 4S + 6 S2 + 4S + 6 ⎥ ⎡ 2⎤
⎢ ⎥
Y (t ) = Cx (t ) + Du (t ) ⎢ 4 S + 4 ⎥ ⎢⎣0 ⎥⎦
⎢⎣ S 2 + 4 S + 6 S 2 + 4 S + 6 ⎥⎦
0
B = 0 d = 0 ⎡ 2S ⎤
⎢ S 2 + 4S + 6 ⎥
1 =
[1.5 0.625] ⎢ ⎥
⎢ 8 ⎥
1 ⎢⎣ S 2 + 4 S + 6 ⎥⎦
H ( s) = 3 2
S + 3S + 2S + 1
3S + 5
From the standard four =
S + 4S + 6
2
Y (S ) b0
= Hence, the correct option is (A)
U ( S ) a3 S + a2 S 2 + a4 S + a0
3
3. A second-order LTI system is described by the follow-
ing state equations,
0 1 0 0 d
x1 (t ) − x2 (t ) = 0
A= 0 0 1 ; B = 0 ; C = [1 0 0 ] dt
− a0 − a1 − a2 b0 d
x2 (t ) + 2 x1 (t ) + 3 x2 (t ) = r (t )
dt
On complaring we get
where x1(t) and x2(t) are the two state variables and r(t)
0 1 0 denotes the input. The output c(t) = x1(t). The system is
A = 0 0 1 C = [1 0 0 ] [2017]
−1 −2 −3 (A) undamped (oscillatory)
(B) underdamped
Hence, the correct option is (C). (C) critically damped
2. The state equation and the output equation of a control (D) overdamped
system are given below:
3.80 | Control Systems
Solution:
From given state equation −1 1 0 0
•
x1 (t ) = x2 (t ) A = 0 −1 0 , B = 4 , C = 1 1 1
• 0 0 −2 0
x 2 (t ) = −2 x1 (t ) − 3 x2 (t ) + 1r (t )
Controllability
0
i
X (t ) + r (t ) 0 4 −8
x (t ) = 0 1 1
Q0 = B : AB : A B = 4 −4 4
2
−2 −3
0 0 0
A= 0 1 |Q0| = 0
−2 −3 ∴ uncontrollable.
Characterstic
is S I − A = 0
equation Observability:
S 0 − 0 1 =0 1 −1 1
0 S −2 −3
S 0 0 1 = 0 T T T 2T
Q0 = [C : C C : C C ] = 1 0 −1T
−
0 S −2 −3 1 −2 4
|Q0| = 1 ∴ observable
S −1 = 0 Hence, the correct option is (b)
2 S + 3
S −1 5. An unforced linear time invariant (LTI) system is rep-
=0
2 S + 3 resented by
equation is : S2+ 3S + 2 = 0
Charactersitic
x −1 0 x1
Roots of characterstics equation are, S = -1, -2 1 = .
\ The system is overdamped, ∵Poles are (-)ve real x2 0 −2 x2
and unequal. If the initial conditions are x1(0) = 1 and x2(0) = -1, the
Hence, the correct option is (D). solution of the state equation is
(a) x1(t) = –1, x2(t) = 2
4. Consider the state space model of a system, as given
(b) x1(t) = –e–t, x2(t) = 2e–t
below.
(c) x1(t) = –e–t, x2(t) = –2e–t
x1 −1 1 0 x1 0 (d) x1(t) = –e–t, x2(t) = –2e–t [2014]
x2 = 0 −1 0 + x2 + 4 Solution: (c)
x3 0 0 −2 x3 0 x1 −1 0 x1
=
x1 x 0 −2 x2
2
u; y = [1 1 1] x2
x1 = − x1 − 2 x2 (1)
xs3
x2 = −2 x2 (2)
The system is
(a) controllable and observable Applying Laplace transform in equations (1) and (2)
(b) uncontrollable and observable ⇒ sx1 = 1(0) −x1(s) {x1(0) = 1}
(c) uncontrollable and unobservable 1
(d) controllable and unobservable[2014] So, x1 ( s) =
s +1
Solution: (b)
or e−t = x1(t)
x1 −1 1 0 x1 0 ˙u s
⇒ sx ) = = x2(0) = −2x2(s)
x(2s(s) {x2(0) = −1}
˙s +
x2 = 0 −1 0 x2 + 4 4 2u1( s)
x 0 0 −2 x3 0 ⇒ x2( s( )s)== x (t) = e−2t
3 ( s + 2)
2 2
x1 Hence, the correct option is (c)
y = 1 1 1 x2 6. Consider the state space system expressed by the signal
x3 flow diagram shown in the figure.
Chapter 8 State Space Analysis | 3.81
a3 0 0 0 0 y2 ( s ) y2 ( s )
=
2
y2 ( s) u( s) ( s + 2)
0 0 a1a2
x1 ( s) 1 x ( s)
Qc = 0 a2 0 ⇒ = and 1 =1
1 0 0 u( s) s + 2 x1 ( s)
for controllable system |Q0| ≠ 0 y2 ( s ) 1 y ( s)
= and 2 =2
(0 − a1aa2 )
≠0 u( s) s+2 u( s)
sx1 + 2x1(s) = u( )
or
and y1(s) = x1(s)
or a1 ≠ 0
sx2(s) + 2x2(s) = u(s)
a2 ≠ 0
y2(s) = 2x2(s
Hence, the correct option is (d) x1 (t ) + 2 x1 (t ) = u(t ) )
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 12 and 13: y2(t) = 2x2(t)
The state diagram of a system is shown below described T T 1
So y = y1 y2 = 1 2 =
by the state-variable equations. 2
X = AX + Bu;
x2 ( t ) + 2 x2 ( t ) = u ( t )
y = CX + Du
x1 (t ) + 2 x2 (t ) = u(t )
x1 −2 0 x1 1
= + u (t )
x −2 0 x2 1
2
12. The block diagram of a system with one input u and
or x = [−2]x + [1]4
two outputs y1 and y2 is given below.
Hence, the correct option is (b)
13. The state variable representation of the system can be 15. A signal flow graph of a system is given below.
1 1 0
x =
(a) x + u
−1 0 2
y = 0 0.5 x
−1 1 0
x =
(b) x + u
−1 0 2
y = 0 0.5 x
1 1 0
x =
(c) x + u
−1 0 2 The set of equations that correspond to this signal flow
y = 0.5 0.5 x graph is
−1 1 0 x1 b −g 0 x1 1 0
x =
(d) x + u [2010] (a) d u
−1 0 2 x2 = g a 0 x2 + 0 0 1
dt u
y = 0.5 0.5 x x3 −a −b 0 x3 0 1 2
Solution: (b) x1 0 a g x1 0 0
d u
1 1 0
(b) x2 = 0 −a −g x2 + 0 1 1
dt u
x= x + u x3 0 b − b x3 1 0 2
1 0 2
y = [0 0.5]x x1 −a b 0 x1 1 0
d u
(c) x2 = − b −g 0 x2 + 0 1 1
Hence, the correct option is (b) dt u
x3 a g 0 x3 0 0 2
14. The transfer function of the system is
x1 −g 0 b x1 0 1
s +1 s −1 (d) x2 = g
d u
(a) 2 (b) 0 a x2 + 0 0 1
s +1 s2 + 1 dt u
x3 − b 0 −a x3 1 0 2
s −1 [2008]
(c) s + 1 (d)
2
2
s + s +1 s + s +1 Solution: (d)
[2010] x1 −g 0 b x1 0 1
d u
x2 = g 0 a x2 + 0 0 1
dt
Solution: (c)
u
x −b 0 −a x3 1 0 2
forward path gain 3
1 1 1 Hence, the correct option is (d)
P1 = 2 (0.5) = 2
s
s s
Common Data for Questions 13 and 14:
1 1
P2 = 2 (1)(0.5) = Consider a linear system whose state space rep-
s
s
resentation is x (t ) = Ax(t ) . If the initial state
Δ1 = 1 1
vector of the system is x(0) = , then the
Δ2 = 1 −2
1 1 1 1 e −2t
∆ = 1 − − − 2 = 1 + + 2 system response is x(t ) = . If the initial
s s s s −2e −2t
P1∆1 + P2 ∆ 2 s +1 1
T.F = = 2 state vector of the system changes to x(0) = .
∆ s + s +1 then the system response becomes −1
Hence, the correct option is (c) e −t
x (t ) =
−e −t
Chapter 8 State Space Analysis | 3.85
16. The eigen-value and eigen-vector pairs (λi, vi) for the Solution: (a)
system are dw
1 1 dt −1 1 w 0
(a) −1, and −2, = + 4
1 2 dia −1 −10 ia 10
dt
1 1
−2, and −1,
(b) dw
⇒ = −w + ia (1)
−1 −2 dt
dia
1 1 = −w − 10ia + 10u (2)
−1, and −2,
(c) dt
−1 −2 taking Laplace transform (1) and (2)
sw(s) = −w(s) + Ia(s)
1 1
⇒ (s + 1) w(s) = Ia(s) (3)
−2, −1 and 1, −2
(d) [2007]
⇒ sIa(s) = −w(s) – 10Ia(s) + 10 u(s)
⇒ [s2 + 11s + 11]w(s) = 10 u(s)
Solution: (a)
w ( s) 10
Sum of the eigen value = trace of the principle diagonal =
u( s) ( s 2 + 11s + 11)
matrix.
Sum = −3, only (a) satisfies.
Hence, the correct option is (a)
Hence, the correct option is (a) 19. A linear system is described by the following state
equation
17. The system matrix A is
0 1
0 1 X (t ) = AX (t ) + BU (t ),
A
1 1 −1 0
(a)
(b)
−1 1 −1 −2 The state-transition matrix of the system is
1 1 0 1 cot t sin t
(c)
(d)
(a)
−1 −2 −2 −3 − sin t cos t
[2007] − cos t sin t
(b)
Solution: (d) − sin t − cos t
Multiplication of eigen values = determinant of matrix
− cos t − sin t
∴ Det = 2 satisfies by last option. (c)
− sin t cos t
Hence, the correct option is (d)
cos t − sin t
18. The state space representation of a separately excited
(d) [2006]
cos t sin t
DC servo motor dynamics is given as
Solution: (a)
dw −1 −1
dt −1 1 w 0 f (t ) = L [SI − A]
= + u −1 −1
dia −1 −10 ia 10 s 0 0 1
−1 −1 s −1
dt = L − = L
0 s −1 0 1 s
where w is the speed of the motor, ia is the armature s 1
current and u is the armature voltage. The transfer 2
2
s + 1 s + 1 cos t sin t
w( s) = L−1 [ D = s 2 + 1] =
function of the motor is −1
U ( s)
s − sin t cos t
2 2
s + 1 s + 1
10 1
(a) 2 (b) Hence, the correct option is (a)
s + 11s + 11 2
s + 11s + 11 20. The state variable equations of a system are:
1 1. x1 = −3 x1 − x2 + u
(c) 10 s + 10 (d) 2
[2007]
2
s + 11s + 11 s + s +1 2. x2 = 2 x1 y = x1 + u
3.86 | Control Systems
diL1
L−1{( S − A) −1 . B} = [e −2t ] = e(t ) = 2iL1 − 2i2 (i)
dt
e −2t diL1
x(t ) = l At x(0) + ∴ i2 = − VC2 (ii)
dt
0
4
So sub eq (ii) in (i)
e −2t x1
x (t ) = − diL1 diL − VC2
0 x2 = e(t ) − 2iL1 − 2 1
dt 4
So, x1(t) = e−2t
x2(t) = 0 diL1 1 diL1 VC2
∴ = e(t ) − 2iL1 − −
e −2t dt 2 dt 2
−2t
y(t ) = [11] =e
0 3 diL1 1
⇒ = e(t ) − 2iL1 + Vc2
2 dt 2
e −2t e −2t − e −3t x1 (0)
x (t ) =
(c) diL1 4 1 2
0 e −3t x2 (0) ⇒ = − iL1 + VC2 + e(t ) (iii)
dt 3 3 3
x (t )
y(t ) = 1 1 1 = x1 (t ) + x2 (t ) In 3rd loop
x2 ( t )
dVC2
y(t) = e−2t x1(0) + (e−2t − e−3t) x2(0) + e−3tx2(0) ⇒ = C2 − iL3
dt
y(t) = Ae−2t
So, x1(0) = A Sub value of i2 in above equation
x2(0) = 0 diL1
dvC2 − VC2
= dt − iL3
dt 4
dVC2 1 4 1 2 1
3. ⇒ = − iL1 + VC2 + l ( p) − VC2 − iL3
4 3 3 3
dt 4
dVC2 1 1 1
⇒ = − iL1 − VC2 − iL3 + l (t )
For the circuit shown in the figure choose state vari- dt 3 6 6
(iv)
ables as x1, x2, x3 to be iL1(t), vc2(t), iL3(t). Write the state
equations diL3
⇒ = VC2 − 4iL3 (v)
i dt
x1 x 4. Obtain a state space representation in diagonal form for
i 1 the following system [1996]
x 2 = A x1 + B[e(t )] [1997]
i d3 y dy d2
x x1 3
+6 2
+11
+ 6y = 6u(t )
3 dt dt dt
Solution: The given system is
Solution: From the circuit given
d3 y d2 y dy
3
+6 2
+ 11 + 6 y = 6 u (t )
dt dt dt
⇒ s3 y( s) + 6 s 2 y( s) + 11sy( s) + 6 y( s) = 6u( s)
⇒ y(s) [s3 + 6s2 + 11s + 6] = 6u(s)
y ( s) 6
T.F. = = 3 2
u( s) s + 6 s + 11s + 6
3.90 | Control Systems
6 x1
⇒
( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 3) y( s) = 1 1 1 x2
x3
Taking partial Fraction.
6 A B C 5. From the signal flow graph shown in figure obtain the
⇒ = + +
( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 3) s + 1 s + 2 s + 3 state space model with x1, x2, x3 and x4 as state variables
and write the transfer function directly from the state
⇒ 6 = A(s + 2) (s + 3) + B(s + 1) (s + 3) + C(s + 1) (s + space model.
2)
⇒ μt s = −1
6 = A(1)(2) ∴ A = 3
let s = −2
6 = B(−1)(1) ∴ B = −6
let s = −3
6 = C(−2)(−1), ∴C=3
∴ T.F. = y( s) = A + B + C Solution: Consider the system given
u( s) s + 1 s + 2 s + 3
x1′ = x2
y ( s) 3 6 3
= − +
u( s) s + 1 s + 2 s + 3 x2′ = x3
x(t) = x1(t) + x2(s) + x3(s) x4′ = x4
y(t) = x1(t) + x2(t) + x3(t) x4 = G ( s) − 2 x 4 − 5 x3 − 7 x2 − 9 x1
3
x1 ( s) = u( s) ∴ y = x1 + 3x2 + 4x3 + 6xy
s +1
∴ State equation representation as given by
take inverse laplace transform
x1 0 1 0 0 x1 0
x1 = 3 u(t) – x1′ (t)(i)
−6 x2 = 0 0 1 0 x2 + 0 [ 0 ]
x2 ( s ) = u( s) x3 0 0 0 1 x3 0
s+2
x −9 −7 −5 −2 x4 1
4
Taking inverse laplace transform
x2′ – 2x2 = 6u(t) (ii) x1
x
x3 ( s) =
3
4( s ) [ y ] = 1 3 4 6 2
s+3 x3
x4
Taking inverse laplace transform
x3′ = −3x3 + 3u(t)(iii) y ( s) 6 s 2 + 4 s 2 + 3s + 1
T.F. = = 4
from equation (i), (ii) and (iii) x ( s) s + 2 s3 + 5s 2 + 7 s + 9
x1 −1 0 0 x1 3
x2 = 0 −2 0 x2 + −6
x 0 0 −3 x3 3
3
Unit iV
Electronic Devices
And Circuits
Chapter 1: Basic 4.3
Chapter 2: PN Junction 4.22
Chapter 3: Bipolar Junction Transistor 4.35
EXAM ANALYSIS
Exam Year 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14-1 14-2 14-3 14-4 15 16 17 18 19
Set 1 Set 2 Set 3 Set 1 Set 2 Set 3 Set 1 Set 2
1 Marks Ques. - - 4 11 - 1 2 1 - 2 1 5 3 3 4 2 4 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 1 0 3 3 4 1
2 Marks Ques. 3 1 - 2 1 4 1 1 - - - 5 7 3 4 3 4 1 4 3 3 - 3 6 4 4 1 4 1 4 3 1 4 3 3 4
5 Marks Ques. - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Total Marks 6 2 4 15 2 9 4 3 0 2 1 15 17 9 12 8 12 4 10 9 7 3 9 15 11 11 4 12 4 10 7 2 11 9 10 9
LP = DP .τ P = 36 × 10 −4
V
LP = 6 × 10–2 cm
(A) Egx > Egy > Egz Ih
(B) Egx = Egy = Egz Hole current density =
A
(C) Egx < Egy < Egz
(D) no relationship among these band gaps exists q. pno .DP
Jh = . ⎡⎣eVD VT
− 1⎤⎦
Solution: The energy band gap of a semiconductor LP
is directly proportional to the cut in voltage. More the −19 5
1.6 × 10 × 10 × 36 208 26
cut in voltage, more will be the energy band gap of the
semiconductor, therefore the relation of Eg of three
Jh =
6 × 10 −2
e −1 { }
semiconductors X, Y, Z is
Jh = 9.6 × 10 × 2980
–12
NA = 1 × 10 cm and ND = 1 × 10 cm
17 –3 15 –3 1 cm
(E ) f
17. Thin gate oxide in a CMOS process is preferably
(a) grown (b)
using (E ) v
(a) wet oxidation (b) dry oxidation
(c) epitaxial deposition Linear(d) ion implantation
[2010] (E )c
(c) (E ) (d)
1/T Solution: (b) f
λE
DryMedium
oxidationLarge
provides better isolation from impurities. (E )
The slope of the line can be used to estimate Small E
v
E
E Hence, the correct option is (b).
(a) band gap energy of silicon (Eg)
(b) sum of electron and hole mobility in silicon 18. In an n-type silicon crystal at room temperature, which
(µn + µp) of the following can have a concentration of 4 × 1019
(c) reciprocal of the sum of electron and hole mobility cm-3?
in silicon (µn + µp)-1 (a) Silicon atoms
N-well Implant source - drain diffusion (b) Holes
(d) intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon (ni)[2014]
Solution: (a) (c) Dopant atoms
(d) Valence electrons [2009]
Hence, the correct option is (a)
Solution: (c)
14. The cut-off wavelength (in µm) of light that
Passivation can be used
metallization
for intrinsic excitation of a semiconductor material of For a highly doped silicon, ratio is 1:10
3
29. The band gap of silicon at 300 K is 34. In a p-type Si simple, the hole concentration is 2.25 ×
(a) 1.36 eV (b) 1.10 eV 1015 cm–3. The intrinsic carrier concentration is 1.5×10–
(c) 0.80 eV (d) 0.67 eV [2003] 10
cm-3, and the electron concentration is
Solution: (b) (a) Zero (b) 1010 cm–3
(c) 105 cm–3 (d) 1.5 × 1025 cm–3
At 300 k, band gap of silicon is 1.1eV.
[1995]
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Solution: (c)
30. The intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon sample at
ni2=n*p [as per mass action law]
300 K is 1.5 × 1016 rn–3. If after doping, the number
2
of majority carriers is 5 × 1020/m3, the minority carrier ni 2.25 × 10 20
∴n = = = 105 atoms cm -3
density is P 2.25 × 1015
(a) 4.50 × 1011 m–3 (b) 3.33 ×104 m–3
(c) 5.00 × 1020 m–3 (d) 3.00 ×10×-5 m–3 35. A small concentration of minority carries is injected
[2003] into a homogeneous semiconductor crystal at one
Solution: (a) point. An electric field of 10 V/cm is applied across the
crystal and this moves the minority carriers a distance
ni = 1.5 × 1016 m–3 of 1 cm in 20 µsec. The mobility (in cm2 V-sec) will be
Let majority carrier be represented by N. (a) 1,000 (b) 2,000
N = 5 × 1020 m–3 (c) 5,000 (d) 500,000 [1995]
2 Solution: (c)
ni 2.25 × 1032
∴ Minority carrier density = =
N 5 × 10 20 E = 10 V/cm; d = 1 cm t = 20 µ sec.
= 4.5 × 1011m–3
d 1 106
Hence, the correct option is (a). Vd = = = cm/ sec.
t 20 × 10 −6 20
31. The units of q/kT are
(a) V (b) V-1 Vd 106 105
µ= = = = 5000 cm 2 /V- sec
(c) J (d) J/K [1997] E 20 × 10 20
Solution: (b) 36. A p-type silicon sample has a higher conductivity
q/kT = 1/VT (VT = thermal voltage) compared to an n-type silicon sample having the same
q /kT has the units V - 1. dopant concentration. Is it True or False? [1994]
Hence, the correct option is (b). Solution: False
32. The drift velocity of electrons in silicon: No, it is false because n-type sample will be having
(a) is proportional to the electric field for all values of a large number of elections whose mobility is high as
electric field compared to holes.
(b) is independent of the electric field.
(c) increases at low values of electric field and de- Two-marks question
creases at high values of electric field exhibiting
negative differential resistance. 1. A dc current of 26 µA flows through the circuit shown.
(d) increases linearly with electric field at low values The diode in the circuit is forward biased and it has an
of electric field and gradually saturates at higher ideality factor of one. At the quiescent point, the diode
values of electric field. [1995] has a junction capacitance of 0.5 nF. Its neutral region
resistances can be neglected. Assume that the room
Solution: (d)
temperature thermal equivalent voltage is 26 mV.
Drift velocity increases linearly with electric field at
low values, sub-linearly and at medium values and gets
saturated at high values.
Hence, the correct option is (d). 100 Ω
5 sin (ω t) mV
33. The probability that an electron in a metal occupies the V
Fermi level at any temperature (> K) is:
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 0.5 (d) 1.0 [1995]
Solution: (c) For w = 2 × 106 rad/s, the amplitude of the small-signal
The asked probability is 0.5. component of diode current (in µA, correct to one deci-
Hence, the correct option is (c). mal place) is _______. [2018]
2ε s 1 1
W = + V j Chapter 1 Basic | 4.9
q NA ND
Solution: 1
∴ CT α
Voltage VT = 26 mV W
Current ID = 2.6 µA CT1 W2
=
Resistance CT2 W1
V 26 mA
rd = T = = 1 KΩ 1 1
I D 26 μA CT1 + 16
= 1016
10
Impedance CT2 1 1
1 +
Xcj = = 1 kΩ 1014 1014
ωcj
1014 1
= 16
=
Xcj 10 10
∴ CT2 = 10.CT1
⎛ 1 ⎞
Z = ⎜ rd ⎟ + 100 Ω = 600 – j500 Ω constant
⎜ j ωcj ⎟⎠ 107
⎝
The amplitude of the small signal component of diode linear
is
5
= 6.4 μA
100 61
Hence, the correct answer is 6.2 to 6.6.
0 5×105 Electric field (V/cm)
2. As shown, two silicon (Si) abrupt p-n junction diodes
are fabricated with uniform donor doping concentra-
tions of N D 1 = 1014 cm −3 and N D 2 = 1016 cm −3 in the Solution:
n-regions of the diodes, and uniform acceptor d oping Drift velocity (cm/s)
concentrations of N A1 = 1014 cm −3 and NA = 1016 cm-3
2
in the p-regions of the diodes, respectively. Assuming
constant
that the reverse bias voltage is >> built-in potentials 107
of the diodes, the ratio C2/C1 of their reverse bias
capacitances for the same applied reverse bias, is linear
____________. [2017]
p n p n
1014
10 14
1016
1016
cm−3 cm−3 cm−3 cm−3
C1 C2 0 5×105 Electric field (V/cm)
Diode 1 Diode 2
We Know ∂p
J p.diff = − q.D p .
Vd = µE ∂x
J = n.q.Vd J ∂ x
p . diff = −q.D p . pno + GLo .τ P 1 −
∂x L
from the given data
∂ x
10 7 − 0 J p.diff = − q.D p .GL 0 .τ p 1 −
µ=m= = 20 ∂x L
5 × 105 − 0
q.D p .τ p .GL0
∴ J = 1× 1016 × 1.6 × 10 −19 × 20 × 5 × 1014 ∴ J P .diff =
L
= 0.032 × 5 × 10 = 1.6 × 10 A/cm
4 3 2 1.6 × 10 −19 × 100 × 10 −4 × 1017
J P .diff =
0.1× 10 −4
J = 1.6 KA/cm 2
1.6 × 10 −3
J P .diff = = 16 A/cm2
Hence, the correct answer is (1.5 to 1.7). 10 −4
4. As shown, a uniformly doped silicon (Si) bar for length Hence, the correct answer is (15.9 to 16.1).
L = 0.1 mm with a donor concentration ND = 1016 cm-3, is
5. A MOS capacitor is fabricated on p-type Si (Silicon)
illuminated at x = 0 such that electron and hole pair are
where the metal work function is 4.1 eV and electron
x
generated at the rate of GL = GL 0 1 − , 0 ≤ 0 X ≤ L, affinity of Si is 4,4 eV. Ec - EF = 0.9 eV, where Ec and
L EF are the conduction band minimum and the Fermi
where GL0 = 1017 cm-1s-1. Hole lifetime is 10-4 s, elec- energy levels of Si, respectively. Oxide ∈r = 3.9. ∈o
= 8.85 × 10-14 F/cm, oxide thickness tox = 0.1 mm and
tronic charge q = 1.6 × 10-19 C, hole diffusion coeffi-
electronic charge q = 1.6 × 10-19 C. If the measured flat
cient Dp = 100 cm2/s and low level injection condition
band voltage of this capacitor is −1 V, then the mag-
prevails. Assuming a linearly decaying steady state
nitude of the fixed charge at the oxide-semiconductor
excess hole concentration that goes to 0 at x = L, the
interface, in nC/cm2, is _________. [2017]
magnitude of the diffusion current density at x = L/2, in
A/cm2, is________. [2017] 6. An electron (q1) is moving in free space with velocity
105 m/s towards a stationary electron (q2) far away. The
Light closest distance that this moving electron gets to the
stationary electron before the repulsive force diverts its
Si (ND = 1016 cm−3) path is________ × 10-8 m.
[Given, mass of electron m = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, charge of
electron e = -1.6 × 10-19 C, and permittivity
x=0 L = 0.1 μm
ε 0 = (1/ 36π ) × 10 −9 F/m] [2017]
Solution:
From the given data
N D = 1016 cm −3 Solution:
5
=10 m/s
L = 0.1 µm = 1× 10 −5 cm q1 V →
→ r ←
x i moving i stationary
GL = GLO 1 − , 0 ≤ x ≤ L
L
GLO = 10 cm −3s −1
17
1 qq
mv 2 = 1 2 ⇒ Force Per Distance
tp = 10 s -4 2 4πε 0 r
q = 1.6 × 10-19c and Dp = 100 cm2/sec
2 × −1.6 × 10 −19 × −1.6 × 10 −19
Jp = ? r =
10 −9
P = P0 + ∆P 4π × × 9.11× 10 −31 × (105 ) 2
36π
∆P
GL = ⇒ r = 5.058 × 10−8 m
τp
∆P = GL .τ p Hence, the correct answer is (4.55 to 5.55).
7. An abrupt pn junction (located at x = 0) is uniformly
x doped on both p and n sides. The width of the deple-
P = Pno + GLo .τ P 1 −
L tion region is W and the electric field variation in the
Chapter 1 Basic | 4.11
x-direction is E(x). Which of the following figures rep- the n – side. No external voltage is applied to the diode
resents the electric field profile near the pn junction? Given: kT/q = 26 mV, ni = 1.5 × 1010 cm–3, εsi = 12ε0, ε0
[2017]
= 8.85 × 10–14F/cm, an and q = 1.6 × 10–19 C. The charge
(A) E(x)
per unit junction area (nC cm–2) in the depletion region
on the p–side is _____. [2016]
n-side p-side Solution: Number density of acceptor atoms NA =
1017 cm–3
Charge q = 1.6 10–19 C
X
(0,0) Number density of donor atoms ND = 1016 atoms cm–3
W Number density of intrinsic charge carriers ni = 1.5 ×
1010 cm–3
(B) E(x) Voltage VT = 26 mV
εsi = 12εo
n-side p-side
2ε s ⎡ 1 1 ⎤
W = ⎢ + ⎥ ⋅V j
q ⎣ N A ND ⎦
(0,0) X dw
CT = q ⋅ NA ⋅ A ⋅
W dv
(C)
Qp = –q ⋅ NA . Wp A
E(x)
⎡N ⋅N ⎤
V j = VT n ⎢ A 2 D ⎥ V .
⎣ ni ⎦
n-side p-side
Qp
= − q⋅ N A ⋅ wp
A
W
X ⎡ 10 × 1016 ⎤
17
V j = 26 × 10 −3 × ln ⎢ 20 ⎥
(0,0)
⎣ 2.25 × 10 ⎦
= 26 × 10 −3 × ln ⎡⎣ 4.44 × 1012 ⎤⎦
=
0.757 V
(D) E(x)
2 × 12 × 8.85 × 10 −14 ⎡ 1 1 ⎤
W = ⎢1017 + 1016 ⎥ × 0.757
1.6 × 10 −19 ⎣ ⎦
n-side p-side
W = 1.1054 × 10 −9
δρ
NA (cm–3) 1016 Generation rate =
τ ρo
1014
1 2
∆p = Gopt × τpo = 1.5 × 1020 × 0.1 µ
∆p = 1.5 × 1013 cm–3
Position ( μ m)
Pt = p0. exp (–t/τp)
⎛ −0.3 × 10 −6 ⎞
The magnitude of the electric field (in kV/cm) in the =
1.5 × 1013 ⋅ exp ⎜ ⎟
semiconductor due to non uniform doping is _____. ⎝ 0.1 × 10 −6 ⎠
[2016] =
7.47 × 1011 cm–3
Solution: Now using the relation
Hence, the correct option is (A).
∂P
q ⋅ DP ⋅ = q ⋅ µP ⋅ PE 1 1. A voltage VG is applied across a MOS capacitor with
∂X
metal gate and p-type silicon substrate at T = 300k.
P = NA The inversion carrier density (in number of carriers per
VT ∂P unit area) for VG = 0.8 V is 2 × 1011 cm–2. For VG = 1.3 V,
E = ⋅ the inversion carrier density is 4 × 1011 cm–2. What is
N A ∂X
the value of the inversion carrier density for VG = 1.8
d V? [2016]
⇒ ε = VT ⋅ ln {NA(X)}
dx (A) 4.5 × 1011 cm–2 (B) 6.0 × 1011 cm–2
(C) 7.2 × 1011 cm–2 (D) 8.4 × 1011 cm–2
Hence, the correct Answer is (1010 to 1.25).
Solution: The following relation can be given for com-
1 0. Consider a silicon sample at T = 300 K, with a uniform puting the value of inversion carrier density.
donor density Nd = 5 × 1016 cm–3, illuminated uniformly
such that the optical generation rate is Gopt = 1.5 × 1020 Qinv = K(VGS–VT), VGS > Vt
cm–3s–1 throughout the sample. The incident radiation
is turned off at t = 0. Assume low level injuection to be Qinv = q ⋅ Ni
valid and ignore surface effects. The carrier lifetimes
are τpo = 0.1 µs and τno = 0.5 µs. Ni → Inversion carrier density
from the given data
(i) K (0.8 – VT) ) = q × 2 × 1011
(ii) K(1.3 – VT) = q × 2 × 1011
n-type Si From (i) and (ii)
1 0.8 − VT
=
The hole concentration at t = 0 and the hole concentra- 2 1.3 − VT
tion at t = 0.3 µs, respectively, are [2016] VT = 0.3 V
(A) 1.5 × 1013 cm–3 and 7.47 × 1011 cm–3
(B) 1.5 × 1013 cm–3 and 8.23 × 1011 cm–3 and
(C) 7.5 × 1013 cm–34 and 3.73 × 1011 cm–3 K = 4.q × 1011
(D) 7.5 × 1013 cm–3 and 4.12 × 1011 cm–3
Solution: Donor density Nd = 5 × 1016 cm–3 1.6 × 10–19 × Ni = 4 × 1011 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 1.5
Optical generation rate Gopt = 1.5 × 1020 cm–3 s–1
Carrier lifetimes τpo = 0.1 µsec Ni = 6 × 1011 cm–2
Carrier lifetimes τno = 0.5 µs Hence, the correct option is (B).
Now using the relation
1 2. Consider the avalanche breakdown in a silicon P +
( )
2
ni2 1.5 × 1010 N junction. The n–region is uniformly doped with a
Na = = donor density ND. Assume that breakdown occurs when
Nd 5 × 1016 the magnitude of the electric field at any point in the
=
4.5 × 10 atoms/cm
3 3 device becomes equal to the critical field Ecrit. Assume
Ecrit to be independent of ND. If the built in voltage of
Chapter 1 Basic | 4.13
Where, Δp
∂I D ∂I D ⇒ ∆g =
gm = and gd = . τp
∂VGS ∂VDS
∴ ∆p = ∆g ⋅ τp = 1020 × 10–6 = 1014 = 10x
The threshold voltage (in volts) of the transistor is
_____. [2016] ∴ x = 14
Solution: We are given that Hence, the correct Answer is (14).
gm = 0.5 µA/V 1 7. A piece of silicon is doped uniformly with phosphorous
with a doping concentration of 1016/cm3. The expected
for VDS = 50 mV and VGS = 2 V value of mobility versus doping concentration for sili-
gd = 8 µA/V con assuming full dopant ionization is shown below.
The charge of an electron is 1.6 × 10–19 C. The con-
for VGS = 2V and VDS = 0V) ductivity (in S cm–1) of the silicon sample at 300 K is
______. [2015]
∂I D ∂I D
gm = and gd =
∂VGS ∂VDS Hole and electron mobility in silicon at 300 k
Mobility (cm2·V–1·s–1)
⎥
⎣ 2 ⎦ 1000
∂I D 800
gd =
∂VDS
{
= K 1 (VGS − VT ) ⋅1 − VDS } 600
400
Substituting the given values, we get
200
8 × 10–6 = K1 {(2 – VT) – 0}
0
µ = 1200 cm2/V-sec
0.5 × 10 −6
1
K = (ii) ∴ σ = ND ⋅ q ⋅ µn
50 × 10 −3
From Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii) we get =
1016 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 1200
8 × 10 −6 0.5 × 10 −6 8 × 50 × 10 −3 σ = 1.92 S/cm
= 2 – V =
2 − Vt 50 × 10 −3
T
0.5
Hence, the correct Answer is (1.8 to 2.0).
VT = 2 – 0.8 = 1.2 Volts 18. In the circuit shown, assume that diodes D1 and D2 are
ideal. In the steady state condition, the average voltage
Hence, the correct Answer is (1.2 Volts).
Vab (in Volts) across the 0.5 µF capacitor is _________.
1 6. An n-type silicon sample is uniformly illuminated with [2015]
light which generates 1020 electron-hole pairs per cm3
1 μF
per second. The minority carrier lifetime in the sample
is 1 µs. In the steady state, the hole concentration in the
sample is approximately 10x, where x is an integer. The D1 D2
50 sin(ω t)
value of x is _____. [2015]
0.5 μF
Solution: From the given data n-type Si sample b a
– +
e-h pair generation = 1020 pairs/cm–3/s = ∆g Vab
τp = 1 µs Solution: Given circuit is voltage doubler.
For first half cycle
D1 is on and D2 is off
Chapter 1 Basic | 4.15
1 μF
+
+
– +
Vm vin vout
– 0 0.5 T T
Vm –
–
+
(A)
0.5 μF 0 0.5 T T
For next half cycle.
1 μF
(B)
– + 0 0.5 T T
Vm
–
Vm 0
(C) 0.5 T T
+
0.5 μF
(D)
– + 0 0.5 T T
2 Vm
So Vab = 2 × 50
Solution: Where positive input cycle is applied then
=
100 V circuit can be redrawn as
19. A silicon sample is uniformly doped with donor type + +
impurities with a concentration of 1016/cm3. The elec-
tron and holemobility in the sample are 1200 cm2/V-s Vin Vout
and 400 cm2/V-s respectively. Assume complete ioniza- – –
tion of impurities. The charge of an electron is 1.6 ×
Vout = Vin
10–19 C. The resistivity of the sample (in Ω-cm) is
______. [2015] Vout = –Vin
Solution: From the given data
When negative input cycle is applied then circuit can
ND = 1016 cm–3 be redrawn as
Vout
µn = 1200 cm2/V-s
µp = 400 cm2/V-s – +
q = 1.6 × 10 –19
C Vi/p Vout = 0V
ρ = ? + –
ρ = 1/ σ Vout
σ = (n . µn + p µp)q
But n >> p (n-type)
σn ≈ n µn . q
n = ND
0 0.5T
σn ≈ ND . µn . q T
and
kT
= 26 mV . The electron concentration at 27 − 9 x = x x = 2.7 µ am
q
WN = 2.7 µ m
the edge of the depletion region on the p-side is ∴
(a) 2.3 × 109 cm-3 (b) 1 × 1016 cm WP = 0.3 µ m
(c) 1 × 10 cm
17
(d) 2.15 × 106cm-3[2014]
q
Solution: (a) Eg max = WN N D
ε
V
n po e 1.6 × 10 −19
kt = × 2.7 × 10 −4 × 1016 = 4.15 × 105 V/cm
1.04 × 10 −12
2
ni 24. Consider a silicon sample doped with ND = 1 × 1015
where n p 0 = in p-type cm–3 donor atoms. Assume that the intrinsic carrier
NA
concentration ni = 1.5 × 1010 cm–3. If the sample is addi-
2.25 × 10 20
∴ n p0 = = 2.25 × 10 4 tionally doped with NA = 1 × 1018 cm–3 acceptor atoms,
16
10 the approximate number of electrons cm–3 in the sam-
0.3 ple, at T = 300 K, will be_____.
−3
2.25 × 10 4 e 26×10 [2014]
n p =
Solution: 225.22
np = 2.306 × 109 cm–3
ND = 1015 cm–3
Hence, the correct option is (a).
NA = 1018 cm–3
2 2. Assume electronic charge q = 1.6 × 10-19C, kT/q = 25
mV and electron mobility µn = 1000 cm2/V-s. If the ∴ Net holes = (1018 - 1015) cm–3
concentration gradient of electrons injected into a = 999 × 105 cm–3
p-type silicon sample is 1 × 1021 cm4, the magnitude of 2
ni 2.25 × 10 20
electron diffusion current density (in A/cm2) is [2014] Now n = = = 225.22 cm-3
p 999 × 1015
Solution: (4000)
dn 25. An N-type semiconductor having uniform doping is
J = qDn biased as shown in the figure
dx
V
Dn
= VT ⇒ Dn = VT µ n
µn
dn N-type semiconductor
J = qµnVT = 1.6 × 10 −19 × 1000 × 25 × 10 −3 × 10 21
dx
J = 4000 A/cm2 If Ec is the lowest energy level of the conduction band,
23. When a silicon diode having a doping concentration of Ev is the highest energy level of the valance band and
NA = 9 × 1016 cm-3 on p-side and ND = 1 × 1016 cm-3 EF is the Fermi level, which one of the following rep-
on n-side is reverse biased, the total depletion width is resents the energy band diagram for the biased N-type
found to be 3 µm.Constant
Given that the permittivity of silicon semiconductor?
ln (p1) is 1.04 × 10-12 F/cm, the depletion widthb-loneathe
r p-side (Ec) (Ec)
Su in
and the maximum electric field in the depletion region, (Ef)
respectively, are (a) (b) (Ef)
(a) 2.7 µm and 2.3 × 105 V/cm (Ev) (Ev)
(b) 0.3 µm and 4.15 × 105 V/cm
(c) 0.3 µm and 0.42 × 105 V/cm Linear
(Ec)
(d) 2.1 µm and 0.42 × 105 V/cm [2014] (c) (Ef) (d)
1/T
Solution: (b) λE (Ec)
Medium Large (Ev) (Ef)
WPNA = WNND Small E E
E
Let WN = x. µm (Ev)
then WP = (3 - x) µm [2014]
16 16 Solution: (c)
(3 − x ) × 9 × 10 = x × 10
n-type SC Ef lies near to conduction band.
N-well Implant source - drain diffusion
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Passivation metallization
N-well Implant source - drain diffusion
Passivation metallization
Chapter 1 Basic | 4.17
Solution: (b)
Now σ n = nµ n Constant
σ p pµ p lnx = ) µm, n = 1014 cm–3, D = 25cm2/sec.
(p10.5
n Sub-lin
ear
14
σB σn dn 10
J = qDn = 1.6 × 10 −19 × 25 ×
= = 3 /1 dx 6.5 × 10 −4
σ σ
A p
= 8 A/cm2
σA Linear
= 1/ 3 Hence, the correct option is (b)
σ B 35. If P is Passivation, Q is
1/Tn-well implant, R is metalliza-
λE
Hence, the correct option is (b) tion and S is source/drain diffusion, then the order inMedium Large
Small
3 2. The reistivity of a uniformly doped n-type silicon sam- which they are carried out in a standard n-wellE
CMOS E E
ple is 0.5 Ω cm. If the electron mobility (µn) is 1250 fabrication process is
cm2/V-sec and the charge of an electron is 1.6 × 10-19 (a) P-Q-R-S (b) Q-S-R-P
Coulomb, the donor impurity concentration (ND) in the (c) R-P-S-Q (d) S-R-Q-P [2003]
sample is Solution: (b)
(a) 2 × 1016 cm–3 (b) 1 × 1016 cm–3 N-well Implant source - drain diffusion
(c) 2.5 × 10 cm
15 –3
(d) 2× 1015 cm–3
[2004]
Solution: (c)
Passivation metallization
ρ = 0.5 Ω-cm, µn = 1250 cm2/v-sec, q = 1.6 × 10 - 19c
1 1
σ = 0.5Ω − cm, ⇒ = Hence, the correct option is (b)
ρ N D qµn
3 6. The intrinsic carrier 1density
V at 300 K is 1.5 × 1010 cm–3
ρ 0.5 in silicon for n-type silicon doped to 2.25 × 1015 atoms
ND = = = 2.5 × 1015 / cm3 1 3
con which has the band gap of 1.12 eV is 1.1 µm. If (d) n = 1.5 × 1010, p = 1.5 × 1010 cm–3 [1997]
the longest wavelength that can be absorbed by another
Solution: (c)
material is 0.87 µm, then the band gap of this material
is ni = 1.5 × 1010/ cm3. ND = 2.25 × 1015 atoms/cm3
(a) 1.416 eV (b) 0.886 eV n ≈ ND
(c) 0.854 eV (d) 0.706 eV [2004] ∴ ni = 2.25 × 1015/ cm
Solution: (a) 2
ni 2.25 × 10 20
1.24 P= = = 105 / cm3
∴ Ea = n 2.25 × 1015
λ
Hence, the correct option is (c)
where Ea is in eV and λ in µm.
37. The electron concentration in a sample of uniformly
∴ Ea ∝ 1/ λ doped n-type silicon at 300 K varies linearly from 1017
x = 1.416 eV. cm–3 at x = 0 to 6 × 1016 cm–3 at x = 2 µrn. Assume a situ-
Hence, the correct option is (a) ation that electrons are supplied to keep this concentra-
tion gradient constant with time. If electronic charge
34. The neutral base width of a bipolar transistor, biased
is 1.6 × 10-9, Coulomb and the diffusion constant Dn =
in the active region, is 0.5 µm. The maximum electron
35cm2/s, the current density in the silicon, if no electric
concentration and the diffusion constant in the base are
field is present, is
1014 cm–3 and Dn = 25 cm2/sec, respectively. Assuming
(a) zero (b) 120 A/cm2
negligible recombination in the base, the collector
(c) +1120 A/cm (d)
2
-1120 A/cm2
current density is (the electron charge is 1.6 × 10-19
[1997]
coulomb)
(a) 800 A/cm2 (b) 8 A/cm2 Solution: (d)
(c) 200 A/cm 2
(d) 2 A/cm2 [2004] n1 = 1017/ cm3 x1 = 0
n2 = 6 × 10 / cm3 x2 = 2µm
16
Chapter 1 Basic | 4.19
ni ∝ T3/2.
Chapter 1 Basic | 4.21
du
Five-marks Questions Substitute
dp
in equation (1)
e– direction
EV
Hence, the correct option is (D)
EF
3. The electric field profile in the depletion region of a p-n
junction in equilibrium is shown in the figure. Which
one of the following statements is NOT TRUE?[2015]
Chapter 2 PN Junction | 4.23
E 2p sin ωtV
=
(V/cm)
104 For negative half cycle.
10 kΩ
–0.1 0 0.5 1.0 x( μ m) + –
6π sin ω t Vab
(A) The left side of the junction is n-type and the right side π < ω t < 2π 10 kΩ 20 kΩ
is p-type
(B) Both n-type and p-type depletion regions are uniformly
doped
6π sin ω t × 10
(C) The potential difference across the depletion r e - Vab = = 3π sin ω t V
gion is 700 mV 20
(D) If the p-type region has a doping concentration of 1015 T
1
f (t ) dt
T ∫0
cm-3, then the doping concentration in the n-type region Vavg =
will be 1016 cm–3
Solution: ω ⎡ π 2π
⎤
= ⎢∫ 2π sin ω t dt + ∫ 3π sin ω t dt ⎥
E(V/cm) 2π ⎢⎣ 0 π ⎥⎦
104
ω ⎡ ( − cos ω t )π 3π ⎤
+ ( − cos ω t )π ⎥
2π
= ⎢ 2π 0
2π ⎢ ω ω ⎥
⎣ ⎦
=
2 + 3
–0.1
0
0.5 1.0 x( μ m) = 5 V
Hence, the correct Answer is (4.85 to 5.15).
From the given options 5. The built-in potential of an abrupt p-n junction is
0.75 V. If its junction capacitance (CJ ) at a reverse bias
1 (VR) of 1.25 V is 5 pF, the value CJ (in pF) when VR =
Built in potential VJ = × 104 × 102 × 1.1 × 10–6 = area
2 7.25 V is _______. [2015]
= 0.55 volts = 550 mV
Solution: From the given data
So option c is NOT correct
Built-in voltage of an abrupt p-n junction is
Hence, the correct option is (C).
4. In the circuit shown, assume that the diodes D1 and D2 Vj = 0.75 V
are ideal. The average value of voltage Vab (in Volts), If VR = 1.25 V, CJ = 5 pF
across terminals ‘a’ and ‘b’ is _________.
[2015] then VR = 7.25 V, CJ = ?
we know
εA 1
D1 D2 C = ;C α
10 kΩ W W
6π sin(ω t) a + – b
10 kΩ
vab
20 kΩ
W∝ (VR +V j )
C J1 V j + VR2
=
Solution: For positive half cycle circuit can be drawn CJ2 V j + VR1
as
2
C J 2 = 5 pF ×
8
Vab
+ – C J 2 = 2.5 pF
6π sin ω t
10 kΩ
0 < ωt < r 10 kΩ 20 kΩ Hence, the correct Answer is (2.4 to 2.6).
6. When the optical power incident on a photodiode is 10
6π sin ω t × 10 μW and the responsivity is 0.8 A/W, the photocurrent
⇒ Vab = generated (in μA) is______. [2014]
30
4.24 | Electronic Devices and Circuits
–
1 kΩ
1 kΩ
Vi
Vi P+ -region N -region
1 kΩ X 16 3
Chapter 2 PN Junction | 4.25
12. Which of the following is Not associated with a p-n Solution (b)
junction ? εA
(a) Junction capacitance C=
d
(b) Charge storage capacitance
(c) Depletion capacitance C ε 11.7 × 8.85 × 10 −12
(d) Channel length modulation [2008] = = ≈ 10 µ
A d 10 × 10 −6
Solution (d)
This is associated with FET. Hence, the correct option is (b)
Hence, the correct option is (d) 1 7. Choose proper substitutes for X and Y to make the
following statement correct. Tunnel diode and ava-
13. In a p-n junction diode under reverse bias, the magni- lanche photodiode are operated in X bias and Y bias,
tude of electric field is maximum at respectively.
(a) the edge of the depletion region on the p-side (a) X: reverse, Y: reverse
(b) the edge of the depletion region on the n-side (b) X: reverse, Y. forward
(c) the p-n junction (c) X: forward, Y: reverse
(d) the centre of the depletion region on the n-side (d) X. forward, Y forward [2003]
[2007]
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Tunnel diode → forward biased
Electric field is always max at the junction.
Avalanche photodiode → Reverse biased.
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Hence, the correct option is (c)
14. The values of voltage (VD) across a tunnel-diode cor-
18. In the figure, silicon diode is carrying a constant cur-
responding to peak and valley currents are Vp and Vv,
rent of 1 mA. When the temperature of the diode is
respectively. The range of tunnel-diode voltage VD for
20°C, VD is found to be 700 mV. If the temperature rises
which the slope of its I-VD characteristics is negative
to 40°C, VD becomes approximately equal to
would be
(a) 740 mV (b) 660 mV
(a) VD < 0 (b) 0 ≤ VD < Vp
(c) 680 mV (d) 700 mV [2002]
(c) Vp ≤ VD < Vv (d) VD ≥ Vv [2006]
Solution (c) +
The slope is negative when Vp ≤ VD < Vv 1kΩ
v0
Hence, the correct option is (c) I
+
15. A silicon p – n junction at a temperature of 20°C has +
– _ 10 V
a reverse saturation current of 10 pico-amperes (pA). _v
The reverse saturation current at 40°C for the same bias Solution (b)
is approximately For 1°C rise in temp, VD decreases by 2 mV.
(a) 30 pA (b) 40 pA
∴ for 20°C rise in temp, VD decreases by 40 mV.
(c) 50 pA (d) 60 pA [2005]
∴ VD = 660 mV.
Solution (b)
T2 −T1 Hence, the correct option is (b)
I (T 2) = I (T 1) 2 10 19. For small signal ac operation, a practical forward biased
diode can be modelled as
20 (a) a resistance and a capacitance
I ( 40°) = 10 × 2 10 = 40 PA
(b) an ideal diode and resistance in parallel
Hence, the correct option is (b) (c) a resistance and+an ideal diode in series
(d) a resistance [1998]
16. A silicon p – n junction diode under reverse bias has Solution (d) I
D
depletion region of width 10 μm. The relative permit- 1
tivity of silicon, εr = 11.7 and the permittivity of free For small signal ac operation, a practical forward biased
space ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 F/m. The depletion capacitance diode can be modelled as a resistance.
of the diode per square metre is Hence, the correct option is (d)
(a) 100 μ (b) 10 μ 20. The static characteristic Dof2 an adequately forward
(c) 1 μ (d) 20μ [2005] biased p--n junction is a straight line, if the plot is of
V
+ 20 V
4.26 | Electronic Devices and Circuits
20 mW, 600 nm 20 − 0
IL = = 20 mA
1 cm 1
1 cm I R = I z + I L = 60 + 20 = 80 mA
W∝ Vj
(A) 20 V to 28 V (B) 24 V to 36 V
(C) 18 V to 34 V (D) 22 V to 34 V
W1 Vo1
Solution: =
W2 Vo 2
R1 = 200 Ω
1 0.65
60 mA =
0.6 Vo 2
Vi +
– 20 V RL = 1 kΩ
4.28 | Electronic Devices and Circuits
Vin = 12 V
1
+ 2V
The minimum required input voltage is 12 V, but given i = 0 when diode does not conduct. So, V0 = - 5 V. –
10voltage
V D1 is in OFF mode. D2
is 10 V. So,zener diode +
Now, when diode conduct, then imax
Vin × 1k Vin 2
∴ Vo = = = 5 V. 5 − 2.7 2.3
2k 2 = = = 1.15 mA
1 kΩ V2 2
Hence, the correct Answer is (5). 5V A
–
1 kΩ
Vi
1 kΩ
+
S2: For quantum tunnelling to occur, a very narrow en- (a) 4 μm (b) 4.9 μm
ergy barrier is required. (c) 8 μm (d) 12 μm [2007]
Which of the following is correct? Solution (a)
(a) Only S2 is true
WD∝ 2
V0 + VRB 2
(b) S1 and S2 are both true but S2 is not a reason for S1
V 10k
(c) S1 and S2 are both true and S2 is a reason for S1
+∴ 2 = 0.8 + 1.2 20 V
(d) Both S1 and S2 are false [2008] 20 V
x 0 .8 + 7 .2
Solution (a)
For quantum tunnelling, very narrow depletion width is 2 2 1
desired. So, only S2 is true. = = x 4
x 8 4
Hence, the correct option is (a).
∴ Width = 4 μm
17. Group I lists four types of p – n junction diodes. Match
each device in Group I with one of the options in Group Hence, the correct option is (a)
II to indicate the bias condition of that device in its nor- 20. In the circuit shown below, the switch was connected to
mal mode of operation. position 1 at t < 0 and at t = 0, it is changed to position
Group I Group II 2. Assume that the diode has zero voltage drop and a
P. Zener diode 1. Forward bias storage time ts. For 0 < t ≤ ts, vR is given by (all in volts)
Q. Solar cell 2. Reverse bias 1
R. LASER diode
S. Avalanche photodiode
+
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-1, S-2
(b) P-2, Q-1, R-1, S-2 2
(c) P-2, Q-2, R-2, S-1
(d) P-2, Q-1, R-2, S-2 [2007] 1 kΩ V
5V A
Solution (b) 5 V
1k
2. Pinch-off voltage
Chapter 2 PN Junction | 4.31
∴ VR = 5 V 1 4
Now new VR = -5 V ∴ ε1 = x = 1 = 0.5 pF
x 1 2
Hence, the correct option is (a)
Hence, the correct option is (d)
21. Find the correct match between Group 1 and Group 2
24. Match items in Group-1 with items in Group-2, most
Group 1 suitably.
E. Varactor diode F. PIN diode
G. Zener diode H. Schottky diode Group-1
P. LED
Group 2 Q. Avalanche Photodiode
1. Voltage reference R. Tunnel diode
2. High-frequency switch S. LASER
3. Tuned circuits
4. Current controlled attenuator Group-2
(a) E-4, F-2, G-1, H-3 1. Heavy doping
(b) E-2, F-4, G-1, H-3 2. Coherent radiation
(c) E-3, F-4, G-1, H-2 3. Spontaneous emission
(d) E-1, F-3, G-2, H-4 [2006] 4. Current gain
(a) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
Solution (c) (b) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
Varactor diode is used in tuning circuits as it can act as (c) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
capacitor. (d) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3 [2003]
PIN diode can be used as current controlled attenuator. Solution (c)
Hence, the correct option is (c) LED-spontaneous emission
22. In an abrupt p – n junction, the doping concentrations LASER-coherent radiation.
on the p-side and n-side are NA = 9 × 1016 cm–3 and Hence, the correct option is (c)
ND = 1 × 1016 cm–3, respectively. The p – n junction
is reverse biased and the total depletion width is 3 μm. 2 5. At 300 K, for a diode current of 1 mA, a certain ger-
The depletion width on the p-side is manium diode requires a forward bias of 0.1435 V,
(a) 2.7 μm (b) 0.3 μm whereas a certain silicon diode requires a forward bias
(c) 2.25 μm (d) 0.75 μm [2004] of 0.718 V. Under the conditions stated above, the clos-
est approximation of the ratio of reverse saturation cur-
Solution (b) rent in germanium diode to that in silicon diode is
WNND = WPNA (a) 1 (b) 5
Let WN = x μm (c) 4 × 103 (d) 8 × 103 [2003]
WP = (3 - x) μm Solution (c)
16
x × 10 = (3 − x ) × q × 10
16
(
I = I 0 eVD h VT − 1 )
x = 27 - 9x For Ge → = 1
x = 2.7 mm Si → h = 2.
∴ Wp = 0.3 μm (VD1 h VT −1)
= I 0( Si ) e( D 2
Now I V h VT −1)
0 (Ge ) e
Hence, the correct option is (b)
0.718
2 3. Consider an abrupt p junction. Let Vbi be the built-in −1
potential of this junction and VR be the applied reverse 2×26×10 −3
I 0 (Ge) e 992211.23
bias. If the junction capacitance (Ci) is 1 pF for Vbi + VR = =
I 0 (Si ) 0.1435 248
−1
= 1 V, then for Vbj + VR = 4 V, Ci will be 26×10 −3
e
(a) 4 pF (b) 2 pF
(c) 0.25 pF (d) 0.5 pF [2004] ≈ 4000.
Solution (d) Hence, the correct option is (c)
1 2 6. A particular green LED emits light of wavelength 5490
Cj ∝ Å. The energy band gap of the semiconductor material
VRB + V0
used there is (Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10-34 J-s)
(a) 2.26 eV (b) 1.98 eV
(c) 1.17 eV (d) 0.74 eV [2003]
4.32 | Electronic Devices and Circuits
Solution (a) 30. Referring to the below figure, the switch S is in position 1 kΩ 20
1.24 1.24 1 initially and steady-state condition exists from time t I V1
EG = = = 2.26 eV = 0 to t = t0. The switch is suddenly thrown into position
λ ( µ m) 5490+× 10 −4
(eV ) 2. The current I through the 10 K resistor as a function
I
D of time t, from t = 0 is? (Give the sketch showing the
Hence, the correct option is (a) 1
magnitudes of the current at t = 0, t = t0 and t 10 = ∞).
V
27. A p – n junction in series with a 100 ohms resistor is [1991]
forwarded biased so that a current of 100 mA flows. If
the voltage across this combination is instantaneously
reversed at t = 0, current through
D2 diodes is approxi- 2
mately given by 10k I
(a) 0 mA V
(b) 100 mA
+ 20 V 20 V
(c) 200 mA (d) 50 mA [1998]
Solution (b)
Due to change in polarity of voltage, only direction of
current flow changes but magnitude remains the same. Solution: 2 mA
Hence, the correct option is (b) Due to change in polarity, J = 20 = 2 mA
10 × 1000
28. The built-in potential (diffusion potential) in a p – n 31. In a uniformly doped abrupt p – n junction, the doping
junction level of the n-side is four (4) times the doping level R1
(a) is equal to the difference in the Fermi-level of the of the p side. The ratio of the depletion layer width
two sides, expressed in volts V1 of V0
n-side verses p-side is 1 kΩ
(b) increases with the increase in the doping levels of (a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 R2 1 kΩ
the two sides (c) 1.0 (d) 2.0 [1990]
(c) increases with the increase in temperature 1
(d) is equal to the average of the Fermi levels of the Solution (a)
+ 2V
WNND = WPNA –
two sides [1993]
+
Solution (a) and (b) WN NA 1
2 = = = 0.25
kT N N WP ND 4
VT = log e A 2 D
q ni kΩ
1Hence, the correct
V option is (a)
5V A
∴ VT ↑ as NA, ND ↑
5V 3 2. The switching speed of P+ N junction (having a heavily
doped P region) depends primarily on
Also, VT is equal to the difference in Fermi-level of two (a) the mobility
sides, expressed in volts. – of minority carriers in the P+-region.
1 kΩ
(b) the lifetime of minority carriers in the P+-region
Hence, the correct option is (a) and (b) (c) the mobility of majority carriers in the N-region
29. The small signal capacitance of an abrupt P + n junc- (d) the lifetime of majority carriersVi in the N-region
tion is 1 nf/cm2 at zero bias. If the built-in voltage is [1989] 1 kΩ
1 volt, the capacitance at a reverse bias voltage of 99 Solution: (d) V0
volts is Switching speed depends upon the injected minority 0.7 V
(a) 10 (b) 0.1 carriers. So, injected minority carries in N region.
(c) 0.01 P -region (d) 100
+ [1991]
N -region
X 16
N = 10 /cm 3 Injected minority carriers are majority carriers. 2V
Solution (b) N >>A N D
n D
34. For p-n junction, match the type of breakdown with Diode D1 is in forward bias
phenomenon Diode D2 is in reverse bias
1. Avalanche breakdown
So, the current through diode D1 is forward current If
2. Zener breakdown
and current through diode D2 is
3. Punch through
A. Collision of carriers with crystal ions reverse current l0.
B. Early effect So, total current ≈ I = lf + lo
C. Rupture of covalent bond due to strong electric
I = I o e d T - 1 = I o e d T - I o
V /nV V /nV
field.
(a) 1-B. 2-A. 3-C
(b) 1-C. 2-A. 3-B
(c) 1-A. 2-B. 3-C
+
(
I = I o eVd /hVT - I o + I o ) 1 kΩ 20 kΩ
1kΩ
(d) 1-A. 2-C. 3-B v0 [1988] Vd /hVT
I =I I o e
Solution (d) +
+ I
1-A, 2-C, 3-B – _ 10 V eVd hV T
_v = 10 V D1
Io
Avalanche breakdown → Collision of carriers with
crystal ions. Vd I
= ln
Zener breakdown → Rupture of covalent bond due to hVT Io
strong electric field.
I
Punch through → Early effect. Vd = hVT ln
Io
Hence, the correct option is (d)
35. In the circuit shown below, the current voltage relation- KT I
Vd = ln {For Ge,h = 1}
ship when D1 and D2 are identical is given by (Assume q Io
Ge diodes) 1 kΩ 20 kΩ
∴ Vd = V I
V1
+ KT I
V= ln
q Io
I
D1
Hence, the correct option is (b) 10 V
ηVT V1 V0
KT I
(c)
V= sinh-1 r= 1 kΩ
q 2 lf R2 1 kΩ
KT Tl f Tl f
1 CD = =
(d)
V= [exp(-I ) - 1] [1988]
q ηVT η kT + 2V
–
CD ∝ If +
Solution (b) 2 CD ∝
KT I Hence, the correct option is (b)
V= ln 1 kΩ VA
q Io 5V
5V
–
1 kΩ
Vi
4.34 | Electronic Devices and Circuits
Five-marks Question
e −V1 / uVT − 1 = −e −V2 .nVT + 1
1. For the circuit shown in figure. D1 and D2 are identical eV1 / uVT + e 0V2 / nVT = 2
diodes with utility factor of unity. The thermal voltage
VT = 25 mV V1 + V2 = 50 mV …….. given
(a) Calculate V1 and V2. V2 = 50 – V1
(b) If the reverse saturation current of D1 and D2 are 1
and n = 1 .……. given
pA then compute the current I through the circuit
D1 D2 ∴ eV1 /VT + e −( 50 −V1 )/VT = 2
V /V V /V −50 /VT
+ − + − e 1 T + e 1 T .e =2
V1 V2
e
V1 /VT
[1 + e −50 / 25 ] = 2
V1 /VT 2
e =
50 mV 1 + e −2
V1 2
= ln = 0.566
VT 1 + e −2
[2001]
V1 = VT × 0.566 = 25 × 10−3 × 0.566
Solution: n = 1 (for Ge diode)
V1 = 14.15 mV
Diode D1 is forward bias and diode D2 is reverse bias.
V2 = 50 – 14.15 = 35.85 mV
Cut in voltage of Ge diode
Vy = 0.2 V I = I 0 eV1 / nVT − 1
(b)
∴ 0.2750 mV
So no biasing I 0 = 10 −12 Amp
Since both diodes are in series ∴ forward current of D1 n =1 given
is equal to reverse current of D2 VT = 25 mV
∴ ID =ID
F1 r2
I = 0.76 p Amp
I 0 eV1 / nVT − 1 = I 0 e −V2 / nVT − 1
Chapter 3
Bipolar Junction Transistor
Hence, there is a decrease in High frequency cut off
One-mark Questions frequency.
1. For a narrow base PNP BJT, the excess minority car- Hence, the correct option is (D).
rier concentrations (∆nE ⋅for emitter, ∆pB ⋅for base, ∆nC ⋅ 3. An npn bipolar junction transistor (BJT) is operating
for collector) normalized to equilibrium minority car- in the active region. If the reverse bias across the base-
rier concentrations ( nE 0 for emitter, pBo for base. nC0 collector junction is increased, then
for collector) in the quasi-neutral emitter, base and col- [2017]
lector regions are shown in the figure. Which one of the (A) the effective base width increases and common-
following biasing modes is the transistor operating in? emitter current gain increases
[2017] (B) the effective base width increases and common-
Carrier Concentration
pBo
(C) the effective base width decreases and common-
ΔnC
≈ emitter current gain increases
nCo (D) the effective base width decreases and common-
≈
14. For an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET, if the (c) base-emitter junction is forward biased and base-
source is connected at a higher potential than that of collector junction reverse biased
the bulk (i.e., VSB > 0), the threshold voltage VT of the (d) both the junctions are forward biased
MOSFET will [1995]
(a) remain unchanged (b) decrease
Solution (d)
(c) change polarity (d) increase
[2003] Both the junctions are forward biased.
Solution (d) Hence, the correct option is (d)
NA 2qN Aε si 19. The Ebers Moll model is applicable to
Where ϕs = VT ln and V e =
Vie Cox (a) Bipolar junction transistors (BJT)
(b) NMOS transistors
As VSB Positive, therefore voltage VT increases.
(c) Unipolar junction transistors
Hence, the correct option is (d) (d) Junction field-effect
[1995]
15. MOSFET can be used as a
Solution (a)
(a) current-controlled capacitor
(b) voltage-controlled capacitor BJT are modelled by EM model
(v) current-controlled inductor Hence, the correct option is (a)
(d) voltage-controlled inductor
20. The early-effect in a bipolar junction transistor is
[2001]
caused by
Solution: (b)
(a) Fast-turn-on
The MOSFET is a voltage-controlled capacitor. (b) Fast-turn-off
Hence, the correct option is (b) (c) large collector-base reverse bias
(d) large emitter-base forward bias
16. The effective channel length of a MOSFET in satura-
[1995 & 1999]
tion decreases with increase in
(a) gate voltage (b) drain voltage Solution (c)
(c) source voltage (d) body voltage As VCB ↑, more reverse-biasing causes the base width to
[2001] reduce, so if VCB is changed, base width can be altered.
This process is called early- effect
Solution (b)
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Increase in drain voltage decreases the channel length.
Hence, the correct option is (b) 21. The threshold voltage of an n-channel MOSFET can be
increased by
17. The break down voltage of a transistor with its base (a) increasing the channel dopant-concentration
open is BVCEO and that with emitter open is BVCBO, then (b) reducing the channel dopant concentration
(a) BVCEO = BVCBO (c) reducing the GATE oxide thickness
(b) BVCEO > BVCBO (d) reducing the channel length
(c) BVCEO < BVCBO [1994]
(d) BVCEO is not related to CBO Solution (a)
[1995] VT = VT 0 + γ 2φ f + VSB − 2φ f
Solution (c)
2qN Aε 2qN Aε
1 γ = = to x
β vCEO = β vCBO n Cox 3.45 × 10 −11
β
So, as NA ↑ γ ↑ and hence VT ↑
Where β > 1
Hence, the correct option is (a)
∴ βVCEO < βVCBO.
Hence, the correct option is (c) 22. The transit time of the current carriers through the
channel of a JFET decides its_____ characteristic.
18. A BJT is said to be operating in the saturation region if (a) source (b) drain
(a) both junctions are reverse biased (c) GATE (d) source and drain
(b) base-emitter junction is reverse biased and base [1994]
collector junction is forward biased
4.38 | Electronic Devices and Circuits
Solution (b) 10-13 mA. The transconductance of the BJT (in mA/V)
The drain decides the transit time. is____. [2014]
Hence, the correct option is (b) Solution: 5.76
2 3. Channel current is reduced on application of a more Ic I E
gm = ≈
positive voltage to the GATE of the depletion mode VT VT
n-channel MOSFET. State True/ False.
VBε
[1994] I E = I s e VT
Solution: False
Because for + ve Vas current will increase due to for- 0.7×1000
ward biasing of Gate. −13
= 10 × e
25
= 0.144 mA
Two-marks Questions 0.144
∴ gm = × 103 = 5.76 mA/V
1. The injected excess electron concentration profile in 26
the base region of an NPN BJT, biased in the active
region, is linear, as shown in the figure. If the area of 3. A depletion type N-channel MOSFET is biased in its
the emitter base junction is 0.001 cm2, µn = 800 cm2/ linear region for use as a voltage controlled resistor.
(V – s) in the base region and depletion layer widths are Assume + threshold voltageGateVTH = -0.5 V, VGS = 2.0 V, VDS
negligible, then the collector current Ic(in mA) at room = 5 V, W/L
VGS
= 100, C ox
= 10-8
F/cm2 and µn = 800 cm2V/-
+
P
gm
temperature is _________. s. The value of the resistance of the voltage controlled
resistor– (in Source
Ω) is___. tch N Drain
(Given: Thermal voltage VT = 26 mV at room tempera- [2014]
ture, electronic charge q = 1.6 × 10–19C) [2016] P
+
Solution (500)
IB
vG 1
n p n γ ds =
1014 cm–3 Excess w
µnC0 × (VGs − VT )
electron L 1 m
IE profile IC
1
= −8
= 500Ω G
800 × 10 × 100( 2.5)
1 m
D
0 gm 4. For the n-channel MOS transistor shown in figure, the
1nm
threshold voltage VTh is 0.8 V. Neglect channel length
0.5 μm 0.2 m
S 0.2 Vm = 1.6 V,
D When the drain voltage
modulation effects. D
Solution: Area of the emitter base junction A = the drain current
0.2 Im
D
wasp substrate
found to 0.2
be 0.5
m mA. If VD is
0.001 cm2, v
adjusted to be 2 V by changing the values of R and VDD,
B
µn = 800 cm2/V–S G the new value of ID (in mA) is
Charge q = 1.6 × 10-19C
VDD
VDD
Voltage VT = 26 mV
gm R
As we know that the current density for NPN t ransistor
is R=
D
dn Ι
J = q ⋅ Dn ⋅ =
dx A v G
G
−19
I = J ⋅ A = 1.6 × 10 × 800 × 26 × 10 −3 VDD
gm S M
1014
× × 0.001
0.5 × 10 −14
= 6.656 mA (a) 0.625 (b) 0.75
Hence, the correct Answer is (6.656 mA). (c) 1.125 (d) 1.5 [2014]
Solution (c)
2. A BJT is biased in forward active mode. Assume VBE =
0.7 V, kT/q = 25 mV and reverse saturation current
vG Is = I D = kn′ (VGS − VT ) 2 VDD = + 12V
R2 10 k
gm
1 m
D
1nm
0.2 m 0.2 m
D S
0.2 m p substrate 0.2 m
B
Chapter 3 Bipolar Junction Transistor | 4.39
VDD for
0.5 = kn′ (1.6 − 0.8) 2 V saturation region
DD
kn 2
R ID = VGS − VT
25
kn′ = mA/V 2 2
R = 10 k
32 D
kn
ID = = VGS − VT
Now I D′ =
25 2
(2 − 0.8 ) = 1.25 mA 2VDD
G 32
VDD ∂ ID k 10 −2
Hence, the correct option
S is (c) M = n = = 10 −1 × 0.707 = 0.0707 A / V
∂VGS 2 2
5. For the MOSFET shown in the fig-
∂ ID kn| = 102 −2 V and
ure, the threshold voltage |V
= 1 = = 10 −1 × 0. 707 = 0.0707 A / V
∂VGS 2 2
1 W 7. An ideal MOS capacitor has boron doping-concentra-
K = µC = 0.1 mA / V 2 . The value of ID
2 L tion of 1015 cm-3 in the substrate. When a gate voltage
(in mA) is____. [2014] is applied, a depletion region of width 0.5 µm is formed
+ Gate
with a surface (channel) potential of 0.2 V. Given that
VDD = + 12V
vG ε0 = 8.854 × 1014 F/cm and the relative permittivities of
VGS P
+
silicon and silicon dioxide are 12 and 4, respectively,
gm
– Source tch N
Drain the peak electric field (in V/µm) in the oxide region
R2 10 k
is______. [2014]
+
P Solution: 2.4
vG We know that peak electric field
εs
Emax = ⋅εs
ε ox
vG 1 m
R2 10 k ID
0.2 × 2 4
G Es = −16
= × 106 V / m
0.5 × 10 5
1 m
D
gm 1nm 12 4
Emax = × = 2.4 V/µ m
G
0.2 m m
0.2 4 5
D S
0.2 m p substrate 0.2 m 8. For the MOSFET M1 shown in the figure, assume W/L
VSS = – 5V B = 2, VDD = 2.0 V, µn COX = 100 µA/V2 and VTH = 0.5
vG
V. The transistor M1 switches from saturation region to
linear region when Vin (in volts) is_____.
W Drain Solution (0.9)
VDD
ID1 = ID2 VDD
gm
ID = 0.1 (0 - ( - 5) - 2)2 R
= 0.1(9) = 0.9 mA R = 10 k
D
G 6. The slope of the ID vs. VGS curve of an n-channel
MOSFET in linear region is 10-3 Ω-1 at VDS = 0.1 V. For VDD
vG
the same device, neglecting channel
G length modulation,
the slope of the I D vs. VGS (in A /V) under satura- VDD
gm S [2014] M
tion region is approximately______.
Solution: 0.0707
V 2 DS
I D = kn (VGS − VT )VDS −
2
[2014]
∂I D Solution (1.5)
= kn [VDS ] = 10 −3
v ∂VGS VDD = + 12V
ID in saturation region
G
kn × 0.1 = 10-3
kn′
kn = 10-2 = (VGs − VT ) 2
R2 2
10 k
gm
vG
R2 10 k ID
4.40 | Electronic Devices and Circuits
9. Consider two BJTs biased at the same collector cur- p--n junction is 10 nm. The relative permittivities of Si
rent with area A1 = 02 µm × v0.2
G µm and A = 300 µm.
2 and SiO2, respectively, are 11.7 and 3.9, and ε0 = 8.9 ×
Assuming that all other device parameters are identical 10-12 F/m.
kT/q = 26 mV, the intrinsic carrier concentrations is 1 ×
1 m
1010cm-3, and q = 1.6 × 10-19C, the difference between
the base-emitter voltages (in mV) of the two BJTs (i.e., G
VBE1 - VBE2) is______. [2014]
1 m
Solution: 380.28g D
1nm
m
Is ∝ Area
0.2 m 0.2 m
D S
Now Ic1 = Ic2
VBE1 0.2 m p substrate 0.2 m
η VT VBE2 /η VT
I s1e = I s2e vG B
VG
Gate
Chapter 3 Bipolar Junction Transistor | 4.41
VDD
VDD
R
R = 10 k
D
R2 10 k
gm
vG Source n W Drain
11
1 mm
m1 m
(b)
GG
G G1 m
+
P
11
1 mm
m1 m
DD
D D Gate G
gg
gmm 1nm
1nm
1nm1nm
m gm VG
0.2
0.2 m 1 m
0.2 m0.2
m Dm D 0.2 mm
0.2
gm
D
D D 1nm S 0.2
SS m
S 0.2 m
0.2 mm pp substrate 0.2 m 1− 2 / VP
0.2
0.2 m m
0.2 psubstrate
substrate 0.2
0.2 m0.2
p substrate m m
0.2 m (a) 4
S 0.2 (b) m
1−
vvvGG v
D
BB 1 /( 2VP )
G B B
G 0.2 m p substrate 0.2 m
(c) vG 1 1B
(c)
− 2 / VP
VV (d)
1 − 2 / VP ( )
( ( ))
V DD V
2 1 − 1 /( 2DD
DD
VP )DD 1 − 1/ 2 VP VV
VDD V
DD
DD
DD
gg
gmm RR
m gm R VRDD
VDD
RR
R== 10 k
R k=k10 k
=10
10
gm DD
D R
[2008]
D
Solution (b) R=V
10
V
V
k
vvvGG v D DD V
DD
DD
DD
G GG
G V −V
G
G
gm = k N ′ 1 − bi Gs VV
V VDD
vG DD V
DD MM
S S Vp
DD
(d) gg
gmm SS DD M M
m gm G
VDD
gm kN′ = trans conductance
S parameter M
kN′ ∝ w
Vbi − VGs1
1−
gm1 k Vp1
∴ = n1
gm 2 k 12VVbi − VGs 2
VV =+++ 12
−=V+V 12
n 2==
vvvGG v
G
VDD V
DD
DD DD112 V
G
Vp2
Solution (a) VDD = + 12V
vG
qN D a 2
RR
R
Vp =
10
10 kk 2a = width of tranistor
2εk
2 2 R2 10 k10
2
gg
gmm
m gm
R∴
2 Vp10
will
k be four times
gm
0 − ( −2)
1 −
gm1 1 Vp
vvvGG v =
IDIID
G G RR 10
gm210
R2 22 R 10kkk10
2 k 0 − ( −2) D ID
2
1−
vG 4Vp
R2 10 k ID
Source n W Drain
++ +
PP
P P+
Gate
Gate
GateGate VV
PVGG
+
G VG
Gate
VG
Chapter 3 Bipolar Junction Transistor | 4.43
VB ε1 − VB ε 2 Solution: (A → 3, B → 3, C → 4)
−0.693 = qN D a 2
VT (i) Vp =
2ε
VT = 26 × 10-3 V.
So, as ND ↓, VP ↓
VB ε 2 − VB ε1 ≅ 18 mV. (ii) gm ↑ means conductivity increases.
∴VBε increases by about 20 mV. 1
(iii) Transit time ∝
Hence, the correct option is (c) length of channel
27. If a transistor is operating with both of its junctions for- 30. In a transistor having finite β, forward bias across the
ward biased, but with the collector base forward bias base emitter junction is kept constant and the reverse
greater than the emitter-base forward bias, then it is bias across the collector base junction is increased.
operating in the Neglecting the leakage across the collector base junc-
(a) forward active mode tion and the depletion region generations current, the
(b) reverse saturation mode base current will ___ (increase/decrease/remains con-
(c) reverse active mode stant). [1992]
(d) forward saturation anode [1996] Solution: (decrease)
Solution: (b) As the reverse bias increases at CB (collector base)
Hence, the correct option is (b) junction, the collector current (Ic) increases and the
28. In a bipolar junction transistor (match the following). effective base width decreases. So the recombination
in base decreases.
List-I
A. The current gain increases As reverse bias ↑, base width ↓, hence IB will decrease.
B. The collector breakdown voltage increases 31. An n-channel JFET has a pinch-off voltage Vp = -5 V,
C. The cut off frequency increases VDS(max) = 20 V, and gm = 2 mA/V. The min 'ON' resist-
List-II ance is achieved in the JFET for
1. The base doping is increased and the base width is (a) VGS = -7 V and VDS = 0 V
reduced (b) VGS = 0 V and VDS = 0 V
2. The base doping is reduced and the base width is (c) VGS = 0 V and VDS = 20 V
increased (d) VGS = -7 V and VDS = 20 V [1992]
3. The base doping the base width are reduced Solution (b)
4. The emitter area is increased and the collector area For minimum γds, Vas should be +ve and large and VDS
is reduced should be minimum.
5. The base doping and the base width are increased
Hence, the correct option is (b)
[1995]
32. The ‘Pinch-off’ voltage of a JFET is 5.0 volts, its ‘cut-
Solution: (A → 3, B → 1, C → 1)
off’ voltage is
The current gain increases with the base doping base (a) (5.0)1'2 V (b) 2.5 V
width. (c) 5.0 V (d) (5.0)3/2 V [1990]
The collector breakdown voltage increase causes the Solution: (c)
base doping increase and the base width is reduced.
Cut off voltage = pinch - off voltage = 5 V.
The cut off frequency increases causes the base doping
Hence, the correct option is (c)
to increase and the base width is reduced
33. Which of the following effects can be caused by a rise
29. In a JFET
in the temperature
List-I (a) increase in MOSFET current (IDS )
A The pinch-off voltage decreases (b) increase in BJT current (IC )
B. The transconductance increases (c) decrease in MOSFET current (IDS )
C. The transit time of the carriers in the channel is re- (d) decrease in BJT current (IC ) [1990]
duced
Solution: (b) and (c)
List-II
Ic - bIb + (1 + b) ICO
1. The channel doping is reduced
2. The channel length is increased As temperature increases, ICO also increases. So, the
3. The conductivity of the channel is increased current (IC) increases in BJT with rise in temperature.
4. The channel length is reduced Mobility decreases as temperature increases.
∴
5. The GATE area is reduced [1995] T ↑ → m ↓
Chapter 3 Bipolar Junction Transistor | 4.45
As temperature increases, Ic increases due to increase 36. In MOSFET devices, the n-channel type is better than
in leakage current whereas IDS decreases due to reduc- the P-channel type in the following respects:
tion in mobility of carriers. (a) it has better noise immunity
Hence, the correct option is (b) and (c) (b) it is faster
(c) it is TTL compatible
34. In a MOSFET, the polarity of the inversion layer is the
(d) it has better drive capability [1988]
same as that of the
(a) charge on the GATE-EC-electrode Solution (b)
(b) minority carriers in the drain Due to high mobility of elections n-channel type
(c) majority carriers in the substrate MOSFET is faster.
(d) majority carriers in the source [1989] Hence, the correct option is (b)
Solution (d) 37. The pinch off voltage for an n-channel JFET is 4 V.
In MOSFET, majority carriers are responsible for When VGS = 1 V, the pinch-off occurs for VDS equal to
action. (a) 3 V (b) 5 V
Hence, the correct option is (d) (c) 4 V (d) 1 V
35. In an n-channel JFET, VGS is held constant. VDS is less [1987]
than the breakdown voltage. As VDS is increased Solution (a)
(a) conducting cross-sectional area: of the channel ‘S' Given that,
and the channel current density ’J’ both increase Vp = 4 V
(b) 'S' decreases and ‘J’ decreases
VGS = 1 V
(c) 'S' decreases and ‘J’ increases
(d) 'S' increases and ‘J’ decreases [1988] |VDS| = |Vp| - |VGS|
Solution (c) |VDS| = 4 - 1 = 3V
As VDS is increased, reverse biasing increases. So, Hence, the correct option is (a)
cross-selection area S decreases and hence current den-
sity increases.
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Unit V
analog electronics
Chapter-wise marks
distribution
Operational 6 2 1 2 1 3 1 1 6 5 3 6 4 5 2 8 4 2 3 1 2 3 5 1 2 1 8 4 3 3 -
Amplifiers
Diode Applications 2 1 - - 2 - 1 2 - 2 2 3 4 2 6 3 1 6 - 4 1 4 - - 1 1 1 6 1 3 2
BJT Analysis 2 4 4 2 4 2 7 1 5 1 2 4 1 7 6 4 4 2 6 3 3 2 3 1 3 5 5 4 4 - -
FET and MOSFET 2 - 1 1 - - 2 - - - 4 2 - 8 1 8 4 4 - 2 2 2 2 1 - - 6 7 3 2 8
Frequency Response - 1 - 2 3 - 1 4 - 2 - - 2 - - - - - - - - 2 - - - - - - - - -
Feedback Amplifiers - 1 - 1 - 2 1 3 - - 1 2 1 1 1 1 - - - - - 1 - - 1 - - - 1 - -
Oscillator Circuits - - 2 - 2 - - - 1 2 2 2 2 - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - -
Power Amplifiers - 1 1 2 - - - 1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
Multi-vibrators and - - - - - - - - - 1 - 2 - 2 - - 4 2 - - - - - - - - - 1 - - -
555 Timers
Chapter 1
Operational Amplifiers
2. For the operational amplifier circuit shown in the fig-
One-mark Questions ure, the output saturation voltage are ±15 V. The upper
and lower threshold voltages for the circuit are, respec-
1. In the circuit shown below, the op-amp is ideal and tively, [2017]
Zener voltage of the diode is 2.5 volts. At the input, unit
+ −
step voltage is applied, i.e., vIN(t) = u(t) volts. Also, at Vin
Vout
t = 0, the v oltage across each of the capacitors is zero. − +
[2018] 10 KΩ
1 μF
5 KΩ
1 KΩ 1 μF
1V – +
Vin(t) Vout(t) − 3V
+
0V
t=0
The time t, in milliseconds, at which the output voltage (A) +5 V and -5 V (B) +7 V and -3 V
vOUT crosses -10V is (C) +3 V and -7V (D) +3 V and -3 V
(A) 2.5 (B) 5 Solution:
By KCL
(C) 7.5 (D) 10 15 − VUTP VUTP − 3
=
Solution: 10 K 5K
1 μF 15 − V UTP = 2VUTP − 6
+ Vc – + 3VUTP = 21
1 KΩ 1 μF
2.5 V
1V – –
Vin(t) I 0V Vout(t) = –10 V
in + ∴VUTP = 7 V
0V
t=0
by KCL
Input current Iin = 1 mA
−15 − VLTP VLTP − 3
Now the voltage can be calculated as =
10 K 5K
1 −15 − VLTP = 2VLTP − 6
Vc = ∫ idt
C 3VLTP = −9
1 VLTP = −3V .
1× 10 −6 ∫
Vc = 1× 10 −3 t
⇒ Vc = 1000t ∴ Upper threshold voltage = +7 V
1000 t = 7.5 Lower threshold Voltage= -3 V.
t = 7.5 msec Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (C) 3. Consider the constant current shown in the figure
below. Let β represent the current gain of the transistor
5.4 | Analog Electronics
RL 8 kΩ +VCC LED
R1
– 15 kΩ
+ VB
2 kΩ
Vin –VCC
The load current I0 through RL is [2016]
⎛ β + 1⎞ Vref
(A) I0 = ⎜ Vi
⎝ β ⎟⎠ R
6v
⎛ β ⎞ Vref 4v
I0 = ⎜
(B)
⎝ β + 1⎟⎠ R 2v
⎛ β + 1⎞ Vref –2v
I0 = ⎜
(C)
⎝ β ⎟⎠ 2 R –4v
–6v
⎛ β ⎞ Vref
I0 = ⎜
(D)
⎝ β + 1⎟⎠ 2 R
The number of times the LED glows is _____.
Solution:
Re-draw the given circuit [2016]
Solution:
+
VCC R IE 10 V
Vref 10 V 100 Ω
IB
–
β 8 kΩ +VCC LED
+ R2
Vx – 15 kΩ
RL I0 = IC
R1 + VB
2 kΩ
Vin –VCC
vin 10 kΩ R
From the above data LED glows 3 times. –
Hence, the correct Answer is (3).
v0
+
5. Consider the oscillator circuit shown in the figure. The
function of the network (shown in dotted lines) consist-
ing of the 100 kΩ resistor in series with the two diodes
connected back to back is to [2016] Solution:
10 kΩ Va 10 kΩ
InF 158 kΩ
R
Vi/p 10 kΩ
158 kΩ –
InF +VCC 0V VO
+
+
– +
–VCC 22.1 kΩ
D1 Write KCL at Va
Va Va − Vo V
100 kΩ + + a = 0
R 10 k Ω 10 k Ω
D2
10 kΩ ⎡ 1 1⎤ V
⇒ Va ⎢ + ⎥ = o (a)
⎣ R 5 ⎦ 10
KCL at 0 V
0 − Vi 0 − Va
+ =0
10 k Ω 10 k Ω
Va = –Vi(b)
V+ > V– 10 nF
1 kΩ
Vi −
so Vo = + Vsat = +12 V V0
R1
Hence, the correct Answer is (11 to 12). +
8. For the voltage regulator circuit shown, the input volt-
age (Vin) is 20 V ± 20% and the regulated output volt-
age (Vout) is 10 V. Assume the opamp to be ideal. For a Solution:
3.183 kΩ
load RL drawing 200 mA, the maximum power dissipa-
tion in Q1 (in Watts) is _______. [2015] Output to input voltage ratio or gain
Vin Q1 Vout V0 Zf
=
Vi Z1
Vref 4 V + R1 RL
1
– R2 ||
sC
=−
R2 = 10 kΩ
R1
R2
1
= sC ×
1
PQ1 ( max ) = VCE (max ) × I C (max )
Solution: R2 + R1
sC
VC max = 20 + 20% = 24 V R2 1
= − ×
1 + sCR2 R1
VE = 10 V
VCE max = 14 V R2
200.4 C = 10 nF
20 ± 20% Q1 mA 10 V
Vin
0.4 mA 200 mA
1 kΩ
Vref 4V + Vi −
R1 RL R1 V0
– +
4V1 = V1
10 kΩ
1
Cut-off frequency = rad/sec.
CR2
10 × 10 kΩ
⇒ V′ = =4V
10 kΩ 1
2p × 5k =
R1 = 15 k Ω CR2
10 − 4
Current across R1 = = 0.4 mA 1
15 ⇒ 10pk =
10 × 10 −9 R2
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.7
RE Io
+15 V Q
−VEE
1kΩ
−
(a) Acm increases Vout
+ +
(b) common-mode rejection ratio increases 5V
−
(c) Ad increases
−15 V
(d) common-mode rejection ratio decreases
Solution: (b) − 15 V
(a) (b) − 0.7 V
The magnitudes of the common-mode and + 0.7 V
(c) (d) + 15 V
differential-mode gains are ACM and Ad, respectively.
Solution: (b)
− RC Since the transistor Q is a silicon transistor
ACM =
2 Re
Vout + VBE = 0
If Re is increased, then ACM decreases Vout = −VBE
1 = −0.7 V.
Ad =
g m Rc Hence, the correct option is (b).
2
If Re is increased, then Ad does not get affected 13. The circuit below implements a filter between the input
current ii and output voltage v0. Assume that the op-amp
Ad 1 2R
CMRR = = g m Rc − e is ideal. The filter implemented is a [2011]
ACM 2 RC L1
= − g m Re
R1
If Re is increased, then CMRR increased
Hence, the correct option is (b). −
11. The circuit shown represents [2014] + +
Vo
C2 + 12 V −
Vi −
Vo
R2 +
(a) Low pass filter
−12 V
R1 (b) Band pass filter
−2 V (c) Band stop filter
C1 (d) High pass filter
5.8 | Analog Electronics
Solution: (d)
30 kΩ
When w = 0 10 kΩ
inductor acts as a SC −
⇒ V0 = 0 +
and when w = ∞,
Ideal operational amplifier
inductor acts as an OC
⇒ V0 = i1R1
So, it acts as a high pass filter
Hence, the correct option is (d). R1
14. Assuming the op-amp to be ideal, the voltage gain of
the amplifier shown below is[2010] 30
(a) kΩ (b) 10 kW
4
R1
− (c) 40 kW (d) infinite
V0
+ Solution: (b)
R2
30 k
Vi +
−
R3 10 k
−
+
R R
− 2 (b)
(a) − 3
R1 R1
Ri
R R R + R3
− 2 3 (d)
(c) − 2 Connect a Vs voltage source across inverting terminal of
R1 R1
op-amp
Vs
Solution: (a) Ii =
Applying nodal analysis at non-inverting input 10 k
30 k
0 − Vi 0 − V0
+ =0
R1 R2
Ii 10 k
Vs −
R1 0V
Vi − +
V0
+
R2
Ri
R3
Vs
I/P resistance, Ri =
Ii
Vi V0 = 10 kW
⇒ + =0 Hence, the correct option is (b).
R1 R2
1 6. An ideal op-amp is an ideal [2004]
R2 (a) Voltage controlled current source
⇒ V0 = −Vi
R1 (b) Voltage controlled voltage source
(c) Current controlled current source
V0 − R2 (d) Current controlled voltage source
⇒ voltage gain =
Vi R1
Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (a). An ideal op-amp is an ideal voltage controlled voltage
1 5. The input resistance Ri of the amplifier shown in the source.
figure is [2005]
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.9
− 1 V
(a) (b) 2 V (a) square wave
+ 1 V
(c) (d) + 15 V (b) triangular wave
(c) parabolic wave
Solution: (d) (d) sine wave
Since I/P applied at the terminal O/P is +ve, and since
feedback is positive, O/P voltage gets saturated. Solution: (a)
Op amp gain is given by
+15 V
−
−R
V0 = Vi
Vo X c
+1 V +
R −Vi R
−15 V =
Xc
R
dVi
V0 = −RC
∴V0 = + 15 V dt
Hence, the correct option is (d).
R
23. If the op-amp in the figure is ideal, then Vo is [2000]
C C
Vi −
V0
sin ωt C +
V1
V0
V2 +
sin ωt C Hence, the correct option is (a).
10 KΩ
V− −
A A V0
V+ +
15 KΩ Va
50 Ω 50 Ω Ideal op-Amp
R=?
[1995]
5.12 | Analog Electronics
Solution: 33 kW SR = VP × 2pfmax
Gain at inverting terminal SR
fmax =
−
Rf 2p VP
A = −
R1
12 × 106
= = 159 kHz
−22 K 2p × 12
A− = = − 2.2
10 k
32. The frequency compensation is used in op-amps to
22 K
increase its_____. [1994 ]
10 K
Solution: Stability
V− − The frequency compensation used in Op Amp is used
Va V0 to increase the stability of op-amps.
V+ +
15 K
Two-marks Questions
R=?
1. The amplifier circuit shown in the figure is implemented
using a compensated operational amplifier (op-amp),
and has an open-loop voltage gain A0 = 105 V/V and an
A− = 2.2 open-loop cut-off frequency, fc = 8 Hz. The voltage gain
of the amplifier at 15 kHz, in V/V, is ________.[2017]
R R2 = 79 KΩ
Va = V +
R + 15
Gain at non-inverting terminal
R1 = 1 KΩ
Rf −
A+ = 1 +
R1 + VO
V0 Rf Vo
=1+ =
Va R1 R
V+
Vi ∼
R + 15
V0 22 R
= 1 + ×
V+ 10 R + 15 R1 1
β=
Solution: =
R1 + R2 50
R
A+ − 3.2
R + 15 AoL 1
AcL = =
3.2 R 1 + AoL β 50
= 2.2
R + 15 Where AcL: closed loop gain
3.2R = 2 − 2R + 33 AoL: open loop gain
R = 33 kW
105
31. An op-amp is used as a zero-crossing detector. If ∴ AcL = 80
1
maximum output available from the op-amp is ± 12 1 + (105 )
Vp−p and the slew rate of the op-amp is 12 V/m sec 80
then the maximum frequency of the input signal that = 10,008 Hz
can be applied without causing a reduction in the P−P 79 KΩ
output is [1995]
Solution:
159 kHz
1 KΩ
VPP = ± 12 V −
SR = 12V/MSec VO
+
Let V0 = VP sin wt
dV0 ∼
SR = = V pw cosw t = V pw max
dt max
max Vin
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.13
V2
+VCC
10 kΩ
V4 –
10 kΩ V0
VN – +
10 kΩ Vx 1 MΩ
–VCC
+ V0 10 kΩ
1 kΩ +VCC
V1 Vx
1 kΩ Solution: Responsivity of photodiode R = 0.8 A/W
V3
1 kΩ Photon current Ip = ?
1 kΩ
VN–1
We know that
Ip
Solution: On applying virtual GND concept we have R =
po
V+ = V– = Vx
At non-inverting terminal (applying KCL) Ip = R ⋅ Po = 0.8 × 10 μA
Vx − V1 Vx − V3 V − VN −1 Vx Vo − 0
+ + ..... + x + =0 = Ip
1k 1k 1k 1k 1M
N V0 = 1M × 8 μ = 8 V
V1 + V3 + V5 + … + VN – 1 = Vx + ⋅Vx
2
The value of the photocurrent (in µA) through the load
⎡ N⎤
⎢1 + 2 ⎥ ⋅Vx (i)
= is
⎣ ⎦
5.14 | Analog Electronics
V0 8 VN = 10 – Vc
∴ IL = = 4 = 800 μ A
10 k 10 VN = –10 + 20. e–t.
Hence, the correct Answer is (800 µA). Apply Virtual GND Concept
4. In the op-amp circuit shown, the Zener diodes Z1 and Z2 VN = Vx
clamp the output voltage V0 to +5 V or –5 V. The switch
S is initially closed and is opened at time t = 0. –10 + 20 ⋅ e–t = –1
+10 V 20 ⋅ e–t = 9
S 100 μF +10 V t = 0.798 sec.
t=0 – 470 Ω Hence, the correct Answer is (0.798 sec).
V0
10 kΩ +
5. An op-amp has a finite open loop voltage gain of 100.
–10 V z1 Its input offset voltage Vios (= +5 mV) is modelled as
–10 V shown in the circuit below. The amplifier is ideal in all
4 kΩ z2
1 kΩ other respects. Vinput is 25 mV.
0V 0V 1 kΩ 15 kΩ
The time t = t1 (in seconds) at which V0 changes state is
_____.[2016]
–
Solution: From the given data switch is closed initially
A0 = 100
and opened at t = 0.
+
for t < 0 :
+
at t = 0 − : – Vios = 5 mV
10 V +
– 470 Ω – Vinput
V0 = –5 V
+
The output voltage (in millivolts) is ____.[2016]
Vx Solution:
4 kΩ 1 kΩ 15 kΩ
1 kΩ
–
A V0
−5 × 1
Vx = = –1 V +
5
+
Vc (0–) = 0 V – Vin = 25 mV
+
For t > 0: – Vios = 5 mV
100 μF
+ A = 100,
+ –
VC 10 kΩ we know for low gain op-amps
+
– VN (since it is a non-inverting op-amp, therefore the gain
10 V 10 V
– + can be given as)
–
V0 =
{1 + R /R } × V
f 1
t → ∞ 1+
{1 + R /R1}
f
i
Vc (∞) = 20 V A
Vc(t) = 20 + [0 – 20] ⋅ e–t/τ 16
= × 30 mV
τ = R ⋅ C = 10 kΩ × 100 µF 16
1+
τ = 1 sec 100
∴ Vc(t) = 20 – 20. e–t V0 = 413.8 mV
Hence, the correct Answer is (413.8 mV).
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.15
1 – + 1
2 V0 2
After considering the virtual ground effect, we get 237.5 Ω 262.5 Ω
(let V is denoted by Vx) then
1V
100 k I
Vx ⎛ R⎞ 50 Ω
= 1+ 1
Vin ⎜⎝ sL ⎟⎠ I
Vo − R3
= From the given circuit V+ = V– = 1 V
Vx ⎛ 1 ⎞
⎜⎝ R2 + ⎟
sC ⎠ 1
Current through 50 Ω is = Amp = I
− R3 ⎛ R⎞ 50
Vo = × ⎜1 + 1 ⎟ × Vin 1
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎝ sL ⎠ Vo = [262.5 – 237.5]
⎜⎝ R2 + ⎟ 100
sC ⎠
Sub given values, we get 25
= = 250 mV
100
Vo
= −1 Hence, the correct Answer is (249 to 251).
Vin
9. The circuit shown in the figure has an ideal opamp. The
Hence, the correct Answer is (-1).
oscillation frequency and the condition to sustain the
7. In the circuit shown using an ideal opamp, the 3-dB oscillations, respectively are[2015]
cut-off frequency (in Hz) is _______. [2015]
R1
10 kΩ 10 kΩ
Vi +
R2
V0 –
0.1 μF –
Vout
10 kΩ 10 kΩ +
2C C 2R
R
5.16 | Analog Electronics
R3 5V 1 kΩ
– –
Vout V0
+ C B A 1 kΩ
1
Rf +
SW 1 kΩ
C2 R1
R2
1 kΩ
1V
Rf
The gain of the op–amp is A = I + and feedback
R3 ⎛ −1 ⎞ ⎛ −1 ⎞
Vf Solution: VOB = 5 ⎜ ⎟ + 1⎜ ⎟ = –6 V
factor B = ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎝ 1 ⎠
Vo
⎛ 1 × 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
Let Z1 = R1 + 1/SC1 and Z2 = R2 || 1/SC2 VOA = ⎜ ⎜1 + ⎟ 5 ⎜ ⎟ = − 4 V
⎝ 1 + 1⎟⎠ ⎝ 1⎠ ⎝ 1 ⎠
Z 2 × V0 Z2
Vf = ∵B= VOB −6
Z1 + Z 2 Z1 + Z 2 = = 1.5
VOA −4
Sub all values mB we get finally Hence, the correct Answer is (1.5).
jω R 2 C1 1 1. In the bistable circuit shown, the ideal opamp has satu-
B=
1 + jω ( R1C1 + R 2 C2 + R 2 C1 ) − ω 2 R1 R2C1C2 ration levels of ± 5 V. The value of R1 (in k Ω) that gives
a hysteresis width of 500 mV is ____.[2015]
But B is real quantity so equate
R2 = 20 kΩ
1 – ω2 R1R2C1C2 = 0
Thus the frequency of oscillation, R1
+
1 1
ω0 = ω0 = Vout
R1 R2C1C2 2RC vin + –
–
From the given data
R1 = 2R, R2 = R
C1 = C, C2 = 2C Solution: Hysteresis width = VTH – VTL
⎛ R ⎞ ⎛ R ⎞
And B=
R2C1 500 mV = 5 ⎜ 1 ⎟ − ( −5) ⎜ 1 ⎟
⎝ 20 k Ω ⎠ ⎝ 20 k Ω ⎠
R1C1 + R2C2 + R2C1
Substitute all values R1 = 1 k Ω
RC 1 Hence, the correct Answer is (1).
B= =
2 RC + 2 RC + RC 5
For sustained oscillation AB = 1 12. In the voltage regulator circuit shown in the figure, the
op-amp is ideal. The BJT has VBE = 0.7 V and b = 100,
1 Rf and the Zener voltage is 4.7 V. For a regulated output of
A = ∴ 1+ =5
B R3
9 V, the value of R (in W) is______. [2014]
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.17
V1 = 12 V V0 = 12 V − I2(R1 + R2)
(a)
(b)
I2R2
1 kΩ 1 kΩ (c)
I1R2
+
− − I1 ( R1 + R2 )
(d)
Solution: (c)
V2 = 47 V R
Vout = I1R2
Current does not enter the op-amp.
Solution: R2
Given
VBE = 0.7 V R1
−
B = 100 Vout
I1
Vz = 4.7 V +
I2
Vi = 12 V ie V0 = 9 V
1k
1k
Hence, the correct option is (c).
+
1 4. Assuming that the op-amp in the circuit shown is ideal,
−
Vo is given by [2014]
V
VZ = 4.7 V 3R
R
R
V1
V2 Vo
Vi + 1ki − 4.7 = 0 +
12 + i − 4.7 = 0
⇒ i = 7.3 mA
2R R
Since B is large enough
I ≅ ie = 7.3 mA
V = 4.7 V (virtual ground)
V − ieR = 0 5 5
(a) V1 − 3V2 (b)
2V1 − V2
V 2 2
⇒R=
ie 3 7 11
4.7 − Vi + V2 (d)
(c) −3V1 + V2
= 2 2 2
7.3 Solution: (d)
⇒R = 0.64 kW Applying nodal analysis,
13. In the circuit shown, the op-amp has finite input imped- V2 − V1 V2 V2 − V0
ance, infinite voltage gain and zero input–offset volt- + + =0
R 2R 3R
age. The-output voltage Vout is [2014]
R2 3R
R1 I1 R
− V1 −
Vout Vo
+ V2 +
I2 2R R
5.18 | Analog Electronics
1
thus cut-off frequency is
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10 R1C
Solution: (c) at w = 0
V0 = 0
V1 = 1(1 + 1) −2(−1) and, at w = ∞
= 2+2
= 4V R2
V0 = −Vi
Vout = 2V1 R1
= 2×4 ∴it acts as a high-pass filter.
= 8V Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (c).
17. The transfer characteristic for the precision rectifier
16. The circuit shown is a [2012] circuit shown below is (assume ideal op-amp and prac-
R2 tical diodes) [2010]
+5 V 20 V
C R1 +
+ − Output R
Input −
− + D2
4R
−5 V
Vi −
R Vo
+
D1
1
(a) low pass filter with f 3dB = rad / s
( R1 + R2 )C
1
(b) high pass filter with f 3dB = rad / s (a) V0
R1C
10
1
(c) low pass filter with f 3dB = rad / s
R1C
1 Vi
(d) high pass filter with f 3dB = rad / s −10 −5 0
( R1 + R2 ) C
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.19
Vi 5 kΩ
−10 −5 0
(c) V0
V +
−
5
5V
1.4 kΩ
Vi
0 +5
(d) V0
D2 I
4R
5 kΩ
Vi −
R Vo
+ V2
D1
V +
−
V0 = −5 + 10
= 5V +
5V
At Vi = −5 V 1.4 kΩ V3
−
V0 − 0 0 − 20 0( −10)
= +
R 4R R
V0 = –5 + 5
= 0V ⇒ V −VBE −V3 = 0
For Vi > –5 V, both diodes are conducting. So, V0 = 0 V ⇒ V = VBE + V3
∴transfer characteristics is = 0.6 + 1.4k × 1m
V0 = 0.6 + 1.4
⇒V=2V
Hence, the correct option is (d).
5
19. Consider the following circuit using an ideal op-amp.
Vi
−10 −5 0 The I–V characteristics of the diode is described by the
Hence, the correct option is (b). V
1 8. In the circuit shown below, the op-amp is ideal, the relation I = I 0 eVT − 1 [2008]
transistor has VBE = 0 6 V and b = 150. Decide whether
5.20 | Analog Electronics
Vi = −1 V
−
100 kΩ V0
+ R2
Vi −
R1 L V0
+
For an input voltage Vi = −1V, the output voltage V0 is
(a) 0 V (b) 0.1 V
(c) 0.7 V (d) 1.1 V
R2
Solution: (b) V0 = −Vi
R
1
1 = 10 (eV/Vt−1) At w = ∞
V0 = 0
0 − ( −1)
= ∴the circuit shown represents a low-pass filter.
100 k
Hence, the correct option is (b).
D 4k 2 1. For the op-amp circuit shown in the figure, V0 is
[2007]
Vi = −1 V 2 kΩ
−
100 kΩ V0
+ 1 kΩ
−
Vi V0
+
V 1 1 kΩ
⇒ 10 −6 e −3
− 1 = 5
25 × 10 10 1 kΩ
⇒ V = 0.06 V
⇒V = 0.06 V
V −V 1 (a) −2 V (b) −1 V (c) −0.5 V (d) 0.5 V
⇒ 0 =
4k 100 k Solution: (c)
Nodal analysis at non-inverting terminal
⇒V0 = 0.1 V
V −1 V
Hence, the correct option is (b). + =0
1 1
2 0. The op-amp circuit shown below represents a 2V = 1
[2008]
2k
C
1k
−
1V V V0
+
R2
1k
Vi −
R1 L V0 1k
+
V = 0.5 V
(a) high-pass filter
Nodal analysis at inverting terminal
(b) low-pass filter
V − 1 V − V0
(c) band-pass filter + =0
(d) band-reject filter 1 2
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.21
2V − 2 + V – V0 = 0 ln 2 = (V01−V02)/ VT
3V = 2 + V0 ⇒V01−V02 = VT ln2
⇒ 3 × 0.5 = 2 + V0 Hence, the correct option is (b).
⇒ 1.5 = 2 + V0 Linked Answer Questions 12 and 13.
⇒ V0 = −0.5 V Consider the op-amp circuit shown in the figure.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
R1
22. In the op-amp circuit shown assume that the diode cur-
rent follows the equation I = Isexp(V/VT). For Vi = 2
R1
V, V0 = V01, and for Vi = 4 V, V0 = V02. The relationship
between V01 and V02 is [2007] Vi V0
+
R
C
Vi −
2 kΩ V0
+
2m 2
⇒ − 1 V = V0
and
1s
= e −V02 /VT 1 + sCR i
taking the ratio, 2 − 1 − sCR
⇒ V = V0
1 (V − V01 )
= e 02 1 + sCR i
2 VT
5.22 | Analog Electronics
t=0
1 − sCR
⇒ V = V0 C = 1 µF
1 + sCR i S
V0 1 − sCR 1 kΩ
⇒ = −
Vi 1 + sCR P
+
Hence, the correct option is (a).
10 V
24. If Vi = V1 sin (wt) and Vo = V2 sin (wt + f), then the
minimum and maximum values of f (in radians) are,
respectively [2007] Applying kCL at node P
p p p
− and
(a) (b) 0 and 10 dV 10 −6 × VC
2 2 2 =C C =
1k dt 1 × 10 −3
p ⇒ VC = 10 V
−p and 0
(c) (d) − and 0
2 Hence, the correct option is (d).
Solution: (c)
26. The voltage e0 indicated in the figure has been meas-
Vi = V1 sin wt ured by an ideal voltmeter. Which of the following can
V0 = V2 sin (wt+ f) be calculated? [2005]
1 MΩ
V0 ( s) 1 − sCR
= −
Vi ( s) 1 + sCR
e0
+
V0 1 − sCR
∠ ( s) = ∠ 1 MΩ
VI 1 + sCR
q = −tan−1wCR –tan−1wCR
q = −2tan−1wCR (a) Bias current of the inverting input only
Minimum value of q = −p (at w → ∞). (b) Bias current of the inverting and non-inverting in-
Maximum value of q = 0 (at w = 0). puts only
Hence, the correct option is (c). (c) Input offset current only
(d) Both the bias currents and the input offset current
25. For the circuit shown in the following figure, the capac- Solution: (c)
itor C is initially uncharged. At t = 0, the switch S is
closed. The voltage VC across the capacitor at t = 1 mil- V1 = −IB1 × 1M
lisecond is______. V2 = V1 = −IB1× 1M (due to virtual ground)
C = 1 µF Drop in feedback register 1M = IR2 × 1M
S
e0 = V2 + IB2 × 1M
− +
VO e0 = −IB1× 1M + IB2 × 1M
− e0 = (IB2 − IB1) × 1M
1 kΩ
+ where (IB2 − IB1) is offset current.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
10 V
27. The op-amp circuit shown in the figure is a filter. The
type of filter and its cut-off frequency are respectively
[2005]
In the figure shown above, the op-amp is supplied with
+15 V.[2006] 10 kΩ
10 kΩ
(a) 0 V (b) 6.3 V
−
(c) 9.45 V (d) 10 V +
Vi
1 µF
Solution: (d) 1 kΩ
Capacitor is initially uncharged. At t = 0, switch ‘S’ is
closed.
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.23
V = iL RL
= 1000 rad/sec
Hence, the correct option is (c). V −V
⇒ iL = = s
2 8. In the op-amp circuit given in the figure, the load cur- RL R2
rent iL is [2004] Hence, the correct option is (a).
R1 R1 2 9. If the op-amp in the figure is ideal, the output voltage
Vs Vout will be equal to [2003]
− 5 kΩ
1 kΩ
+ 2V −
R2 Vout
3V +
R2 1 kΩ
RL 8 kΩ
iL
+ 50 V + + Solution: (b)
V1 1k 1k V
− 1 − 50 V2 1k − 50 V3 4
Open loop gain
V0
= 100
−Vi
V4 V3 V2
⇒ AV = × × 10 k
V3 V2 V1
1k
Voltage across 1k after first stage + −
Vs Vi V0
− +
1000 × 50 V1
= = 40
1250
V3
Similarly, = 40
V2 Nodal analysis at non-inverting terminal of the op-amp
∴Av = 40 × 40 × 50 = 8 × 104
AV in dB = 20 log (8 × 104) = 98 dB. Vi − VS Vi − V0
+ =0
Hence, the correct option is (c). 1 10
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.25
10Vi − 10Vs + Vi – V0 = 0 −1
CR ∫
V0 = V dt
11Vi = 10 Vs + V0
−1 − cos 100t
−11 V0 = = + 10 cos 100t V
= 10Vs + V0 10 m 100 100
100
Hence, the correct option is (a).
−111
V0 = 10 Vs
100 34. If the op-amp in the figure has an input offset voltage
of 5 mV and an open-loop voltage gain of 10,000, then
V0 −1000
⇒ = ≅ −9 V0 will be [2000]
Vs 111
+15 V
Hence, the correct option is (b).
−
33. In the figure assume the op-amps to be ideal. The out- V0
+
put V0 of the circuit is [2001]
−15 V
10 mH 10 µF
10 Ω (a) 0 V (b) 5 mV
− 100 Ω (c) +15 V or −15 V (d) +50 V or −50 V
Vs = 10 cos(100t) 1 −
+ 2 3
+ V0 Solution: (c)
I/P offset voltage = 5 mV
Open loop gain = 104
(a) 10 cos(100t) 15 V
t
10∫ cos(100t ) dt
(b) −
0
V0
t +
10 −4 ∫ cos(100t ) dt
(c)
0
−15 V
d −4
(d)
10 cos(100t )
dt
O/P voltage = 5 m × 104
Solution: (a)
= 50 V
10 mH 10 µF = 15 V (∴O/P voltage can’t go beyond ± 15 V)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
10 Ω
− 100 Ω 3 5. The output voltage V0 of the circuit shown in the figure
Vs = 10 cos(100t) −
+ V V0 is [1997]
+
10 K
5K
−
Output of first op-amp Vo
− L dVs +
V= +
2V -
R dt
100 K
−10 m 10 K
= × 10 × 100 sin (100t )
10
=
+ sin(100t)
Output of 2nd op-amp (a) −4 V (b) 6 V
(c) 5 V (d) −5.5 V
5.26 | Analog Electronics
V =
3.98 V
100 K 99
10 K
100
V1 = 4 V −
V0
V V − V0 +
100
+ =0
10 100 V2 = 4 V
11V = V0 (1) 100
V − 2 V − V0
+ =0
5 10
Total output voltage is
2V− 4 + V −V0 = 0
3V = 4 + VO (2) V0 = (V0)1 + (V0)2
3V0 = −3.96 + 3.98
= 4 + V0 = 0.02 V.
11
8V 37. An op-amp has an offset voltage of 1 mV and is ideal
⇒− 0 =4 in all other respects. If this op-amp is used in the circuit
11
shown in the figure, the O/P voltage will be (Select the
⇒ V0 = −5.5 V nearest value) [1992]
Hence, the correct option is (d). 1 KΩ
36. For the ideal op-amp circuit of figure, determine the
1 KΩ
output voltage V0. [1993]
−
Vo
+
100 Ω 99 Ω
−
+
100 Ω (a) 1 mV (b) 1 V (c) ±1 V (d) 0 V
4V
+ Vo Solution: (a)
- 100 Ω
I/P offset voltage = 1 mV
This voltage is applied to the terminal because off
set is an error and if should be positive
Solution: By calculating gain at the inverting terminal
1K
of the op-amp
1K
−99
(V0)1 = 4 × −
100 Vo
+
=
−3.96 V
99
100 Rf
− V0 (off) = Vi (off) 1 +
R1
+
1k
100 100 Vo 1 m 1 +
=
4V
+ 1k
−
=
2 mV
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.27
R
−
Vin Vout
+ Solution: If input current at inverting terminal of op-
amp is 2 mA, applying nodal analysis at node P,
2K if
l 2K
Vout = −VD = −hVT ln D (3)
ls −
2K V0
− A2 = =0
V V2 V1
+ Vout
Vin R f 100
= 1 + = 90.09
R1 100 + 1
Gain of the op-amp is given by
A2 − A1 90.09 − ( −90)
Vout 8k Ad = = = 90
= 1+ = 5 (2) 2 2
V 2k
Ac = A1+A2 = −90 + 90.09 = 0.09
V 1
= b = = 0.2
Vout 5 Ad 90
CMRR = = = 1000
Vout Ac 0.09
A= = 45
Vin − V Hence, the correct option is (c).
AB = 9 (comparable to 1) 42. If the input to the circuit of figure is a sine wave the
A 45 output will be [1990]
∴ Af = = = 4.5
1 + AB 1 + 9 Input −
output
Hence, the correct option is (d). +
R2 L R
(a) For Vi > 0, V0 = − Vi
R1
R C
(b) For Vi > 0, V0 = 0 V1 −
R V0
(c) For Vi < 0, V0 = − 2 Vi +
R1
(d) For Vi< 0, V0 = 0
Solution: (c) p
p
(a) (b)
Case 1: Vi > 0 2
∴ D1 is on
3p
(c) (d) 2p
R2
Vo
2
Solution: (c)
R1 D1 D2 L
− R=
C given
+ + V
1
Vi w=
− LC
L R
+ 100 k Ad 100
R R = × 1 + 0 = 3 = 0.1 V
2V 10 3
10
− 1k
−
+
+
R R
1k
V0
−
Five-marks Questions
100 k
1. Assume that the op-amp in the figure, ideal
Solution:
0.1 V
R
+ 100 k + − B
2V R R Vs A +
− V1 1 k − + V
V− − o
−
V2 V0
V+ +
R R
1k
100 k (a) Obtain an expression for Vo in terms of Vs, R and the
reverse saturation current Is of the transistor.
(b) If R = 1 Ω, Is = 1 pA and the thermal voltage VT =
Apply nodal analysis at node voltages V1 and V2, 25 mV, then than what is the value of the output
voltage Vo for an input voltage Vs = 1V?
V1 − 2 V1 (c) Suppose that the transistor in the feedback path is
+ =0 replaced by a p − n junction diode with a reverse
R R
saturation current of Is the p-side of the diode is
V1 = 1 V connected to node A and the n-side to node B. Then
V2 − 2 V2 what is the expression for Vo in terms Vs, R and Is?
+ =0
R R [2001]
V2 = 1 V Solution: (a) Current in resistance R is 1
Vd = V2 − V1 = 0 V VS − 0 VS
i= =
R R
V2 + V1 1 + 1
VC = = =1V i = iC = ie = I S eVbe/VT
2 2
VS V
− V −Rf = I S e be/VT
A = 0 = = −100 R
V1 V2 = 0
R1
Vbe + V0 = 0
V0 V +
R f 100 100 V0 = −Vbe
A+ = = 1 + R = 100 + 1 1 + 1 = 1000
V2 V1 = 0
V2 1
VS
= I S e −V0 /VT
R
Chapter 1 Operational Amplifiers | 5.31
V
Vd
V0 I VS I
− = ln S I S eVT − = −
VT RI S S R S
Vd V
= ln S
V VT RI S
V0 − VT ln S
RI S
V
Vd = VT ln S
1 RI S
(b) V0 = −25 × 10 −3 ln
1 × 10 −12
RIS – Vd – V0 = 0
V0 = −0.69 V
V
V Vd = RI S − V0 = VT ln s
(c) i = S RI S
R
i = i f = I f eVd /VT = Vs /R KT VS KT
V0 = RI S − ln VT = q
q RI S
V
Vd
= ln S
VT RI S (b) Using equation of V0 of part (a)
V0 + Vd = 0
Vi
V0 = −Vd 0 = (100 × 103 ) × (1 × 10 −6 ) − 25 × 10 −3 ln
100 × 103 × 1 × 10
V
V0 = −VT ln S Vi
RI S 0 = (100 × 103 ) × (1 × 10 −6 ) − 25 × 10 −3 ln
100 × 103 × 1 × 10
2. Consider the circuit given in figure using an ideal oper-
ational amplifier. ln 10 Vi = 4
e4
R
Vi =
10
+
+ V
Vi + − o Vi = 5.46 V
− + RIs
−
3. Shown that the system in figure is a double integrator.
The characteristics of the diode are given by the rela- In other words, prove that the transfer gain is given by
tion I = ls [eqV/KT −1] Vo (s) 1
= assuming ideal op-amp.
Where V is the forward voltage across the diode. Vi (s) (CRs )2
(a) Express Vo as a function of Vj assuming Vj > 0.
R R
Vs −
KT Op-amp Vo
(b) If R = 100 kΩ, Is = 1mA and = 25 mV. Find the
q +
2C
Vi for which Vo = 0. [1997]
Solution:
V − RI S C C
(a) I = S
R
Vd V R/2
I f = I s e VT − 1 = I = S − I S
R
[1995]
5.32 | Analog Electronics
Solution: 1 kΩ 2 kΩ 4 kΩ 8 kΩ
1V
R VA R VB
Vs − − −
Vo Vo
i + 1V +
+
2C
7 kΩ
1 kΩ
i C C
[1994]
R/2 Solution: By virtual short VC = 1
1K V
VA = V0 . = 0
1K + 7 K 8
By virtual short: V0 (1)
VB = 0 VA =
KCL at node A 8
VA − VS V V − VB 1k VA 2k VB 4 k VC 8k
+ A + A =0 1V
R 1 R
2CS − −
Vo
+ 1V +
2VA + 2RCs VA = VS
VA
7k
VS 1k
VA = (1)
2( RCS + 1)
1 kΩ 2 kΩ +10 V
2 kΩ
R2
2 kΩ
− 2 kΩ R1
Ra Rd A
A −
+ B C Vo −
+ Vo
+
B R1
Rb Rc R2
1V 2V
[1993]
[1992: 5 Marks]
Solution: By virtual short
Solution:
VA = 1 V VC = 2 V
Rb 100
Apply KCL at node A (a) VA = 10 × = 10 × = 5V
Ra + Rb 100 + 100
0 − VA VA − VB VA − VC Rb 100
= + VA = 10 × = 10 × = 5V
2k 2k 1k R +R 100 + 100
a b
0 − 1 1 − VB 1 − 2
= + VB = 5V
2k 2k 1k
Given op-amp is a differential amp
VB = 0
R2 12k
Apply KCL at node C So V0 = (VB − VA ) = (5 − 5) = 0
R1 10k
VC − VB VC − VA VC − V0
+ + =0 Rb
2k 1k 2k (b) VA = 10 × = 5V
Rd + Rb
V0 = 6 V
VB = 9.55 V
6. Consider the circuit shown in figure. The circuit uses an
ideal operational amplifier. Assuming that the imped- 12k
V0 = (4.55 − 5) = −0.55V
ances at nodes A and B do not load the preceding bridge 10k
circuit, calculate the output voltage V0.
(a) when Ra = Rb = Rc = Rd = 10 Ω.
(b) when Ra = Rb = Rc = 10 ohms and Rd = 120 Ω.
R2 = 12 kΩ
R1 = 10 kΩ
Chapter 2
Diodes Applications
1
T /2 T
One-mark Questions VL (avg) = ∫ 4 at + ∫ −10 at
T 0 T /2
1. In the circuit shown Vs is a square wave of period T
with maximum and minimum values of 8 V and −10 V. 1 T T
= 4 × − 10 T −
respectively. Assume that the diode is ideal and R1 = R2 T 2 2
= 50 W. 1 3T
The average value of VL is _____ volts (rounded off
=
T
[ 2T − 5T ] = −
T
= −3 V
to 1 decimal place). [2019]
2. In the figure, D1 is a real silicon pn junction diode with
R1 a drop of 0.7 V under forward bias condition and D2
is a Zener diode with breakdown voltage of –6.8 V.
+
The input Vin (t) is a periodic square wave of period T,
+8 whose one period is shown in the figure. [2017]
0 Vs +
–
R2 VL
Vin(t) 10 μF
T T
–10 2 – +14 V
D1
Solution: 0 10 Ω Vout(t)
R1 t (seconds) D2
−14 V
+
8V
+ R2 V2 0 Assuming 10 t << T, where t is the time constant of
the circuit, the maximum and minimum values of the
-10V
-
output waveform are respectively.
(A) 7.5 V and -20.5 V (B) 6.1 V and -21.9 V
For the half cycle debde is reverse biased (C) 7.5 V and -21.2 V (D) 6.1 V and -22.6 V
R1 = 50Ω 3. The figure shows the I–V characteristics of a solar cell
R2
+
VL = VS ⋅ illuminated uniformly with solar light of power 100 m
R1 + R2
W/cm2. The solar cell has an area of 3 cm2 and a fill fac-
8V + R2Ω 80 tor of 0.7. The maximum efficiency (in %) of the device
= 8⋅
50 + 50 is ____. [2016]
VL = 4 V I
-
Isc = 180 mA
For -ve half cycle debde is forward biased
+
-10V + R2 = 50Ω V2
VL = VS V
(0, 0) Voc = 0.5 V
= −10 V
-
Chapter 2 Diodes Applications | 5.35
Ι mVm = 63 mW
1 kΩ
I mVm 2k 3k 1/3
Maximum efficiency = ×100
Pin 1k kΩ 0.5
1m 1m
⇒
i kΩ
63 mW 4k 6k
= × 100 = 21% 4 kΩ 6 kΩ
300 mW
Hence, the correct Answer is (21%).
4. The diodes D1 and D2 in the figure are ideal and ⇒ current across 4 k Ω is given by
the capacitors are identical. The product RC is very
large compared to the time period of the AC voltage.
=
(
1 × 10 −3 × 6 + 1
2 )
( )( )
Assuming that the diodes do not breakdown in the
6+ 1 + 4+ 1
reverse bias, the output voltage V0 (in volt) at the steady 2 3
state is ___. [2016]
3
D1 = = 0.6 mA
5
+ Hence, the correct Answer is (0.59 to 0.61).
C
10 sin ω t 6. The figure shows a half-wave rectifier. The diode D is
R V0
ideal. The average steady-state current (in amperes)
ac – through the diode is approximately___________.
C
[2014]
D2
D
Solution:
Consider the figure given below
D1 10 sin wt
100 Ω R C 4 mF
I = 50 Hz
C +
10 sin ω t
R V0
ac
Solution: (0.1 A)
–
C
D
D2
10 sin wt
Now for positive peak diode D1 is ON and diode D2 is 100 Ω R C 4 mF
I = 50 Hz
ON, therefore
Vo = +Vc – Vc = 0
At steady state, capacitor is 0 C.
for negative peak diodes D1 and D2 are OFF, therefore
Steady-state current
Vo = 0 V
10
= = 0.1 A
Hence, the correct Answer is (0 V). 100
5.36 | Analog Electronics
7. Two silicon diodes, with a forward voltage drop of 0.7 8. The diodes and capacitors in the circuit shown are
V, are used in the circuit shown in the figure. The range ideal. The voltage v(t) across the diode D1 is
of input voltage Vi for which the output voltage Vo = Vi [2012]
is
[2014] C1 D2
V(t)
R
+ + +
cos (wt ) D1 C2
D1 D2
−
Vi Vo
+ +
−1 V − 2V −
− −
Case 1:
Vi < − 1.7
D1 → ON
When excited cos wt the clamping section clamps the
D2 → OFF
positive peak to 0 V and negative peak to −2 V.
R
+ + So whole cos wt is lower by −1 V
I/p
Vi Vo
+ +1
−1 V − p/2 p
− − cos wt
3p/2 2p
−1
V0 = −1.7 V
Case 2:
− 1.7 < Vi < 2.7 V(t )
D1 → OFF
D2 → OFF 0 cos (wt ) − 1
R −1
+ +
−2
Vi Vo
− −
Hence, the correct option is (a).
9. In the following limiter circuit, an input voltage Vi =
V0 = Vi 10sin100pt is applied. Assume that the diode drop is
∴ the range of I/P voltage Vi for which the O/P voltage 0.7 V when it is forward biased. The Zener breakdown
V0 = Vi is −1.7 V <Vi < 2.7V. voltage is 6.8 V. [2008]
Hence, the correct option is (d).
Chapter 2 Diodes Applications | 5.37
1 kΩ Solution: (c)
The correct full wave rectifier circuit is
D1
Vi D2 Vo
Z 6.8 V
Input
Output
The maximum and minimum values of the output volt-
age respectively are
(a) 6.1 V, −0.7 V Hence, the correct option is (c).
(b) 0.7 V, −7.5 V 11. The circuit shown in the figure is best described as a
[2003]
(c) 7.5 V, −0.7 V
(d) 7.5 V, −7.5 V
Solution: (c)
Output
During +ve part of Vi > 6.8 V D1 will be forward biased.
Thus net voltage = 6.8 + 0.7
=7.5 V (max)
During −ve part of Vi D2 will be forward biased
(a) bridge rectifier
D1 will be reverse biased
(b) ring modulator
Thus net voltage = −0.7 (min.)
(c) frequency discriminatory
Hence, the correct option is (c).
(d) voltage doubler
10. The correct full wave rectifier circuit is
Solution: (d)
[2007] The circuit shown in the figure is best described as a
(a) voltage doubler.
Input
Output Output
(b)
Hence, the correct option is (d).
1 2. For full wave rectification, a four diode bridge rectifier
Input
is claimed to have the following advantages over a two
Output diode circuit. [1998]
1. Less expensive transformer
(c) 2. Smaller size transformer and
3. Suitability for higher voltage application of these
(a) only (1) and (2) are true
Input (b) only (1) and (3) are true
Output (c) only (2) and (3) are true
(d) (1), (2), as well as (3) are true
(d) Solution: (d)
A four diode bridge rectifier uses the smaller size of
transformer, which is less expensive transformer and
Input these rectifiers are suitable for higher voltage applica-
Output tions, because of low P/V rating required of each diode.
Hence, the correct option is (d).
5.38 | Analog Electronics
−5.9
10 sin 314 t 10 KΩ V0
Hence, the correct option is (a).
(a) 5.9
Two-marks Questions
V0 0 1. In the circuit shown, Vs is 10 V square wave of period,
T = 4 ms with R = 500 W and C = 10 mF. The capacitor
−5.9 is initially uncharged at t = 0, and the diode is assumed
(b) 4.1
to be ideal. The voltage across the capacitor (Vc) at 3
V0 0 ms is equal to _____ volts (rounded off to one decimal
place).[2019]
−4.1
R
(c) 4.1 +10 +
V0 0 0
T T Vs +
– C VC
–10 2
−4.1 t=0 –
(d) 5.9
Solution:
V0 0
= 17.5 W VL
500 Ω
O+
Solution: (a) 0mF 10
Case 1: During +ve half cycle VS + VC
T/2 T
diode DA is forward bias, so DA is short circuit.
diode DB is reverse bias, so Diode DB is in conducting O- -10
VC
V1 5V 1 kΩ
5.9 V
Chapter 2 Diodes Applications | 5.39
The value of R and the minimum required power RMS current Irms (in mA) through the diode is _____.
dissipation rating of the diode, respectively, are Solution: AC voltage source V = 10 sin(t)
(A) 186 W and 10 m W Let RMS current Irms = I
(B) 100 W and 40 mW
Resistance R1 = 3 k Ω
(C) 100 W and 10 mW
(D) 186 W and 40 m W Resistance R2 = 6 k Ω
Solution: Resistance R3 = 9 k Ω,
R
I I I
+
IL V=
3
[ R1 ] + [ R2 ] + R3
6 3
V1 5V 1 kΩ
I I I
– =
3
[3] + 6 [6] + 3 [9]
Current IS(min) = 7 mA V = I [5Ω]
Current IL = 5 mA
V
Current IZ = 2 mA = 5Ω
I
We know that
VI(min) − 5 ⎛ Vm ⎞
IS(min) = ⎜⎝ R ⎟⎠
Rmax I rms =
2
5.7 − 5 ⎛ 10 ⎞
Rmax = = 100 Ω
7 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
5
= = 1 mA
Now we have 2
6.3 − 5 But key given
IS(max) = = 13 mA 1
100 = = 0.7
And 2
Let, i2 = i1 + iD =
V = 10 sin(t)
5.40 | Analog Electronics
V R
+ 10 V Vi
0 t RC << T (B)
(A) RC = 0.35 T
RC ≈ T (D)
(C) RC >> T
– 10 V Solution: For clamping circuit RC >> T
VC Hence, the correct option is (D).
u 7. In the circuit shown below, the knee current of the ideal
Zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 V across RL, the
0 t
minimum value of RL in Ω and the minimum power rat-
ing of the Zener diode in mW, respectively, are [2013]
The value of the ripple u (in volts) is ____.
Solution:
100 Ω
ILoad
+ 10 V
Vin + 470 μF VC IO = 1 A
–
– VZ = 5 V RL
Solution: (b) W Y X
Z
100 Ω
ILoad + 1 kΩ −
10 V
During the half cycle,
RL
all diodes are OFF & hence
VZ = 5 V
V1 V2
− + + −
5
RL min =
I L max + V −
10 − 5 5 |V1| = |V2|
I100 = = = 50 mA
100 100 V = 0 V
ILmax = I100 − Iknee During −ve half cycle
=
40 mA
5
RL min = × 100 V
40
= 125 Ω V = 0 V
Hence, the correct option is (d).
Minimum power rating of Zener should be = 50 mA ×
5 V = 250 mW Statement for Linked Answer Questions 9 and 10.
Hence, the correct option is (b). In the circuit shown below, assume that the voltage
drop across a forward biased diode is 0.7 V. The thermal
8. A voltage 1000 sinωt volts is applied across YZ. voltage Vt = kT/q = 25 mV. The small signal input Vi =
Assuming ideal diodes, the voltage measured across V cos(ωt) where Vp = 100 mV.
WX in volts, is [2013]
9900 Ω
1 kΩ
+
127 V −
W Y X IDC + Iac VDC + Vac
Z
Vi
+ 1 kΩ −
(a) sinwt 9. The bias current IDC through the diodes is [2011]
(b) (sinwt + |sin wt|)/2 (a) 1 mA (b) 1.28 mA
(c) (sinwt − |sin wt|)/2 (c) 1 5 mA (d) 2 mA
(d) 0 for all t
Solution: (a)
Solution: (d)
Drop of voltage at one diode is 0.7 V.
VYZ
12.7 − (0.7 + 0.7 + 0.7 + 0.7)
I DC =
9900
0 wt = 1 mA
5.42 | Analog Electronics
9900 Ω + V − 1Ω
+ 1Ω
127 V −
IDC + Iac VDC + Vac Vi +
− 1A
Vi
V = Vi ; Vi < 0
Case 2:
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Vi > 0
1 0. The AC output voltage vac is [2011]
(a) 0.25 cos (wt) mV (b) 1 cos (wt) mV + V −
hVT
gd =
ID
V = 1 V; Vi > 0
1 × 25 mV ∴V = min (Vi, 1)
= = 25 Ω
1 mA Hence, the correct option is (b).
The AC dynamic resistance offered by each diode = 25 Ω Common Data for Questions 12 and 13.
Consider a silicon p-n junction at room temperature
4 × 25 Ω
∴Vac = Vi ( ac) having the following parameters:
9900 + 25 Doping on the n-side = 1 × 1017 cm−3
100 Depletion width on the n-side = 0.1 μm
= 100 × 10 −3 Cos(wt ) Depletion width on the p-side = 1.0 μm
9925 Intrinsic carrier concentration = 1.4 × 1010cm−3
Vs = Cos wt mV Thermal voltage = 26 mV
Hence, the correct option is (b). Permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10−14F-cm−1
11. In the circuit given below, the diode is ideal. The volt- Dielectric constant of silicon = 12
age V is given by[2009] 12. The built-in potential of the junction [2009]
+V
(a) is 0.70 V
1Ω 1Ω (b) is 0.76 V
(c) is 0.82 V
Vi + 1A
− (d) cannot be estimated from the data given
Solution: (c)
kT N A N D
V0 = ln
(a) min (Vi, 1) (b) max (Vi, 1) q ni 2
(c) min (−Vi, 1) (d) max(−Vi, 1) N N
= VT ln A 2 D
Solution: (b) ni
Case 1:
NAxp0 = NDxn0
Vi < 0
+ V − 1017 × 0.1
⇒ NA = = 1016 cm −3
1Ω 1Ω 1
+ 1017 × 1016
Vi
− 1A V0 = 0.026 ln 14 2
(1.4 × 10 )
= 0.28 V
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Chapter 2 Diodes Applications | 5.43
13. The peak electric field in the device is [2009] Common Data for Questions 15 and 16.
(a) 0.15 MVcm−1, directed from p-region top-region A regulated power supply, shown in figure below, has
(b) 0.15 MVcm−1, directed from n-region top-region an unregulated input (UR) of 15 volts and generates a
(c) 1.80 MVcm−1, directed from p-region top-region regulated output Vout. Use the component values shown
(d) 1.80 MVcm−1, directed from n-region top-region in the figure
15 V(UR) Q1
Solution: (b)
q 1 kΩ 12 kΩ +
e= N d xn 0
∈ + 12 kΩ Vout
−q −
= N a x p0 −
∈
1.6 × 10 −19 × 1017 × 0.1 × 10 −4 6V 24 kΩ
=
12 × 8.85 × 10 −14
= 0.115 MVcm −1
15. The power dissipation across the transistor shown in
Directed from n-region to p-region.
the figure is [2006]
Hence, the correct option is (b).
14. For the Zener diode shown in the figure, the Zener volt- (a) 4.8 watts (b) 5.0 watts
age at knee is 7 V, the knee current is negligible and the (c) 5.4 watts (d) 6.0 watts
Zener dynamic resistance is 10 Ω. If the input voltage Solution: (c)
(Vi ) range is from 10 to 16 V, the output voltage (V0 ) Diode voltage
ranges from[2007] VA = 6 V
+ 6 × 36
200 Ω Vout = =9V
24
Vi V0 9
I out = = 0.9 A
10
−
VA 6
(a) 7.00 to 7.29 V (b) 7.14 to 7.29 V I= = = 0.25 mA
24 k 24 k
(c) 7.14 to 7.43 V (d) 7.29 to 7.43 V
Power dissipation across transistor = VCE × iC
Solution: (b)
VCE = 15 − 9 = 6 V
In addition to Zener diode voltage, some voltage drop
∴iC = I + iout = 0.9 A
also takes place due to dynamic resistance (10 Ω)
PD = 6 × 0.9 = 5.4 W
200 Ω
iE = I + I out 0.9 A
+
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Vi V0 1 6. If the unregulated voltage increases by 20%, the power
dissipation across the transistor Q1
− [2006]
(a) increases by 20%
For Vi = 10 V (b) increases by 50%
10 (c) remains unchanged
V0 = 7 + (10 − 7)
200 + 10 (d) decreases by 20%
= 7.14 V Solution: (b)
If unregulated power supply increases by 20% then
For Vi = 16 V VCe = 18 − 9 = 9 V
10 ic = 0.9 A
V0 = 7 + (16 − 7)
200 + 10 PD = 8.1 W
8.1 − 5.4
= 7.43 V % increase in power = = 50%
5.4
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (b).
5.44 | Analog Electronics
17. For the circuit shown below, assume that the Zener current of 0.5 mA. The maximum load current drawn
diode is ideal with a breakdown voltage of 6 volts. The from this circuit ensuring proper functioning over the
waveform observed across R is [2006] input voltage range between 20 and 30 V is
6V [2005]
1 kΩ
+
12 sin wt R VR
VL
VL = 5.8 V Load
20 – 30
−
(a) 6V
(a) 23.7 mA (b) 14.2 mA
(b) 6V (c) 13.7 mA (d) 24.2 mA
Solution: (a)
VL = 5.8 V
Iz 1k Ω IL
−12 V
(c) 12 V Iz
Vi
20 – 30 VL = 5.8 V Load
−6 V
−12 V
Variable load
12 V +
− 5V
Hence, the correct option is (b). 100 to 500 mA
10 kΩ
Regulated −
20 kΩ
DC Output
−
5.46 | Analog Electronics
−
Pz = 75 mW, PT = 7.9 W
(a)
Pz = 85 mW, PT = 8.9 W
(b) (a) 0 mA, 180 mA (b) 5 mA, 110 mA
Pz = 95 mW, PT = 9.9 W
(c)
(c) 10 mA, 55 mA (d) 60 mA, 180 mA
Pz = 115 mW, PT = 11.9 W
(d)
Solution: (c)
Solution: (c) Current through 50 Ω resistance = I
Vcc = 10 V
9−6 3
Case 1: I= = = 60 mA
50 50
20 − 10 Given that
= I = 0.5 A
20 Iz, min = 5 mA
Ic + Ib = 0.5 A, also Ic = b Ib Pz max = Iz maxVz = 300 mW
On solving, we get Ic = 0.495 A 300 × 10 −3
PT = (Vcc × Ic) 4.95 W (not given in option) I z max =
Vz
Case 2:
300 × 10 −3
= = 50 mA
30 − 10 6
= I = 1A
20
I = Iz min + IL max = Iz max + IL min
Ic + Ib = 0.5 A, also Ic = bIb 60 = 50 + IL min
On solving, we get Ic = 0.99 A means PT = 9.9 W
Hence, the correct option is (c). I L min = 10 mA
Chapter 2 Diodes Applications | 5.47
60 = 5 + IL max 1k
+
I L max = 55 mA
D1 D2
Hence, the correct option is (c). 1k Vo
2 6. The 6 V Zener diode shown below has zero Zener 1V 2V
resistance and a knee current of 5 mA. The minimum −
value of R so that the voltage across it does not fall
below 6 V is [1992] 1 V and 2 V can not be in parallel and its violation of
50 Ω KVL
So this circuit does not exist.
(B) V0 ≤ 2 V (D2 f, B and D1 f, B)
10 V 6V R 6V 1k 2V 2V 2V
+
I2 Ii o I3
+
10 Ω
(a) 1.2 kΩ (b) 50 kΩ Vi 1 k Vo
− 1V 2V
(c) 80 kΩ (d) 0 kΩ
−
Solution: (c)
Knee current, Ik = 5 mA Apply KCL
For R to be minimum, IL should be maximum and current I + I1 = I2 + I3
across the Zener diode should be minimum i.e., Ik
Vi − 2 2 −1 2 − 0
Applying KVL, + I1 = +
1k 10 1k
10 − 50I − 6 = 0
4 104 − Vi
⇒I = A = 80 mA i1 =
50 1000
IL = I − IK i ≥ 0
= 80 m - 5 m 104 − Vi
= 75 mA ≥0
1000
6 6
R= = = 80 Ω Vi ≤ 104
I L 75m
Vi ≤ 104V ⇒ V0 = 2V
Hence, the correct option is (c). Case 2: Vi ≥ 104 V, so V0 ≥ 2 V Diode D1 is forward bias
Diode D2 is reverse bias
Five-marks Questions 1 kΩ Vo Vo
Solution:
(A) Both the Diodes are ideal whom V0 is
between 1 V to 2 V 1 V ≤ V0 ≤ 2 V in this 2V
case both the diodes D1 and D2 are forward
Vi
bias 104 V
Chapter 3
BJT Analysis
VCC
One-mark Questions
R1
I2
1. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. Assume base-
to-emitter voltage VBE = 0.8 V and common-base cur-
rent gain (a) of the transistor is unity. [2017] Q1 Q2
+18 V
I1 R2
4 KΩ
44 KΩ
(B) The device parasitic capacitances, coupling capac- Voltage VBE1 = VEB2 = 0.7 V
itances and bypass capacitances behave like open
circuits. Apply KVL, we get
(C) The device parasitic capacitances, coupling capac- –2.5 + 0.7 + 0.7 + 10K(IB) + 1 = 0
itances and bypass capacitances behave like short
circuits. The base current will be
(D) The device parasitic capacitances behave like
short circuits, whereas coupling and bypass ca- 2.5 − 0.7 − 0.7 − 1 0.1
IB = = mA
pacitances behave like open circuits. 10 k 10
Solution: And the collector current will be
Low Mid-band High frequency
IC = β IB
frequency region region
Coupling Parasitic capacitances Junction Since β = 50 since IC flowing across Q2 will be
capacitors behaves like open circuit capacitors
coupling and by pass 50 × 0.1
IC = mA
capacitances behaves like 10
short circuit
=
0.5 mA
In the mid band region, an AC coupled amplifier per-
forms different operations for different capacitors. The The required voltage is
coupling capacitance and bypass capacitance becomes
VC2 = I C ×1k
short circuited in the mid band region. While the para-
sitic capacitance behaves as open circuited. The junc-
tion capacitance is not considerable in mid band gap. =
0.5 mA × 1K = 0.5 V.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct Answer is (0.5 V).
5. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. Assuming VBE1
= VEB2 = 0.7 volt, the value of the DC voltage Vc2 (in 6. An npn BJT having reverse saturation current IS = 10–15
A is biased in the forward active region with VBE =
volt) is ____. [2016]
700 mV. The thermal voltage (VT) is 25 mV and the
Vcc = 2.5 V current gain (β) may vary from 50 to 150 due to manu-
facturing variations. The maximum emitter current
(in µA) is _______. [2015]
β1=100
Q2 Solution: IS = 10–15 A = Io
β1= 50
10 kΩ VBE = 0.7 V
Vc2
1V VT = 25 mV = 0.25 V
1 kΩ
β → 50 to 150
⇒ IE(max) = ?
Solution:
Consider the figure given below
ηVT
2.5 V
I ≈ Io. eVBE = IC
VBE1 = VBE2 = 0.7 V Consider for small currents n = 1
IC = 10–15 × e0.7/0.025
2.5 V β1 =100
Ic = 1.446 mA
Q1
Q2
10 kΩ IE = (β + 1) IB
β2 = 50 1V
IB IE =
(β + 1) .I
Vc2 C
IC β
1 kΩ IE max when β = 50
5.50 | Analog Electronics
IE = 1.02 × 1.446 × 10–3 resistance Rin, and output resistance Ro for A1 and A2 are
as follows:
IE = 1.475 mA
A1: AVO = 10, Rin = 10 kΩ, Ro = 1 kΩ
Hence, the correct Answer is (1465 to 1485). A2: AVO = 5, Rin = 5 kΩ, Ro = 200 kΩ
7. In the ac equivalent circuit shown, the two BJTs are The approximate overall voltage gain vout/vin is
biased in active region and have identical parameters [2014]
with β >> 1. The open circuit small signal voltage gain
+ +
is approximately _______. [2015]
A1 A2 RL 1 KΩ Vout
Vin
− −
Vout Solution: (34.72)
+
Vin +
A1 A2 Vout RL = 1 KΩ
Vin
− −
Solution:
0.7 +
R01 R02
–
+
+ +
Vin Rin1 AV01 V1 Rin2 AV02 R2 Vo
− −
Vin V2 RL
Vout −
V0 RL
=
Vin AV02 × V2 RL + R0 2
+
0.7 – AV01 × Vin Rin L
where V2 =
Rin 2 + R01
From equations (1) and (2), we get
V0 RL Rin 2
= AV02 × AV01 × ×
⇒ Vin = 0.7 Vin RL + R0 2 Rin 2 + R01
V0 1K 5K
Vout = –0.7 ⇒ = 5 × 10 × ×
Vin 1K + 0.2 K 5 K + 1K
Vout −0.7 V0
= = –1 ⇒ = 34.72
Vin +0.7 Vin
Hence, the correct Answer is (–1.1 to –0.9). 10. In the circuit shown, the PNP transistor has |VBE| = 0 7V
8. A good current buffer has [2014] and b = 50. Assume that RB = 100 kΩ. For V0 to be 5 V,
(a) low input impedance and low output impedance. the value of RC (in kΩ) is_____. [2014]
(b) low input impedance and high output impedance.
(c) high input impedance and low output impedance. RC
(d) high input impedance and high output impedance.
Vo
Solution: (b)
A good current buffer has low input impedance and
high output impedance. RB
Hence, the correct option is (b). VEE = 10 V
rπ r0
AI RL
and AV =
Ri 10 µH 2 KΩ 1 µF
Solution: (a) Io
In a parallel RLC circuit R = 9.3 KΩ
L = 10 mH and C = 1nF
1
wg = Q1 Q2
LC (b1 = 700) (b2 = 715)
1
=
10 × 10 −6 × 10 −9
= 10 7 rad/s −10 V
~ 10 M rad/s
I0
So that for a tuned amplifier, gain is maximum at reso- I1 =
2
nant frequency.
⇒ I 0 = 2 I1
5V
Now KVL for Q1
9.3 K (I1) + 0.7 = 10
10 µH 2K 1 µF
⇒ I1 = 1 mA
C2 I 0 = 2 I1 = 2 mA
+
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Q1 15. The amplifier circuit shown below uses a silicon tran-
+ 2K Vo sistor. The capacitors CC and CE can be assumed to be
2.7 V - short at signal frequency and the effect of output resist-
2K C1 ance r0 can be ignored. If CE is disconnected from the
Vi circuit, which one of the statements is TRUE? [2010]
-
Vcc = 9V
Vcc = 9V IC
1 kr
RB = 800 k RC = 2.7 k
IB
V0
CC
CC
V0 b = 100
Vs
RE = 0.3 k CE
Collector current is given by
R1
3 − 0.2
IC = = 2.8 mA
1k
I C 2.8
Rs IB = = = 56 mA
b 50
Thus, IBmin = 56 μA is necessary to drive the transistor in
RB bre RC RL saturation.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
18. Assuming that the b of the transistor is extremely large
and VBE = 0.7 V, IC and VCE in the circuit shown in the
Hence, the correct option is (a).
figure are [2004]
16. The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of 5V
[2005] IC
(a) CC−CB (b) CE−CB
4 kΩ 2.2 kΩ
(c) CB−CC (d) CE−CC
Solution: (b) +
Cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of CE− VCE
CB. −
Hence, the correct option is (b).
1 kΩ 300 Ω
17. Assuming VCEsat = 0.2 V and b = 50, the minimum base
current (IB) required to drive the transistor in the figure
to saturation is [2004]
(a) IC = 1 mA, VCE = 4.7 V
3V (b) IC = 0.5 mA, VCE = 3.75 V
IC (c) IC = 1 mA, VCE = 2.5 V
(d) IC = 0.5 mA, VCE = 3 V.
1 kΩ
Solution: (c)
IB
5V
IC
4k 2.2 k
A
(a) 56 mA (b) 140 mA
(c) 60 mA (d) 3 mA
1k 30 C
5.54 | Analog Electronics
f
40 Hz 0.5 kHz
f
20 Hz 1 kHz
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Chapter 3 BJT Analysis | 5.55
IEE
−VEE
E
I VCC
IB ≥ c
b
C R R
IC
Vin1 Vin2
−VEE
Given Re = ∞
Hence, the correct option is (d). thus, ACM = 0
Hence, the correct option is (a).
23. The current gain of a BJT is [2001]
25. Introducing a resistor in the emitter of a common emit-
gm ter amplifier stabilizes the dc operating point against
(a) gmro (b)
ro variations in [2000]
(a) only the temperature
gm
(c)
gmrp (d) (b) only the b of the transistor
rp (c) both temperature and b
(d) none of the above
Solution: (c)
Solution: (c)
Current gain of BJT is gmgp Both variations in temperature as well as variation in b
24. In the differential amplifier of the figure, if the source 26. The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high
resistance of the current source IEE is infinite, then the frequencies because of [2000]
common-mode gain is [2000] (a) transistor capacitances
(b) high current effects in the base
5.56 | Analog Electronics
Solution: (d)
+Vcc
RL
Vi Q1 Vo
Vi
(a)
gm1 (b)
gm2
g m1 (d)
(c) g m2
The circuit of the figure is an example of feedback of
2 2
the type voltage shunt.
Solution: (a) Hence, the correct option is (d).
Q2 i0
Vo 29. From the measurement of the rise time of the O/P pulse
of an amplifier whose input is a small amplitude square
wave, one can estimate the following parameter of the
amplifier: [1998]
RL (a) gain-bandwidth product
Vi Q1 (b) slew rate
(c) upper-3-dB frequency
(d) lower 3-dB frequency
Solution: (c)
i0 0.35
gm = g m = , i ≅ Ie2 = Ic1 BW = f H =
Vi 0 tr
IC1 = bIB, Ie2 = IC1
I0 ≅ bIB1, Vi = IB1gp Upper 3- dB frequency
Hence, the correct option is (c).
i0 bI 3 0. A distorted sinusoid has the amplitude, A1, A2, A3, … of
= B1 = gm1
Vi I B1rp the fundamental, second harmonic, third harmonic,…
respectively. The total harmonic distortion is [1998]
I c1
= ( I c1 = bI B1 ) A + A3 + .....
Vi (a) 2
A1
In this cascade connection overall transconductance gm
is equal to transconductance of the first stage. A2 + A32 + .....
(b) 2
A1
Chapter 3 BJT Analysis | 5.57
Putting a capacitor across will increase the voltage gain Solution: (3.75 mA)
and decrease the I/P impedance. 12 V
This capacitor will be by pass Re thus ‘ac’ signals will
pass through capacitor Ce. 1K
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Solution: (c)
The overall band width of an n- stage turned amplifier
1K is
BWn = B 21/ n − 1
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Chapter 3 BJT Analysis | 5.59
42. For the amplifier circuit of the figure, the transistor has midband voltage gain magnitude, Av = | v0 / v1 | V /V , is
V0 ____________. [2017]
a b of 800. The mid-band voltage gain of the circuit
Vi VCC = 12 V
will be____ [1993] 73 KΩ 2Ω
RC
R1 10 μF
+15 V +
10 μF C2
C1 RL
V0
V1 2 KΩ C 8 KΩ
470 Ω RE E
200 kΩ 47 KΩ R2
100 μF
−
+
+ 6.4 µF
4.7 µF Vout Solution: DC analysis: Capacitors are open circuited
Vin 100 kΩ ac source is short circuited.
− − Vcc R2
− VBE
R1 + R2
Ic =
(a) 0 (b) < 1 (c) ≈ 1 (d) 800 RE
Solution: (c) 12 × 47
− 0.7
I c = 120
+15 V
2 KΩ
I c = 2 mA
470 Ω
200 kΩ Ic 2 mA 2
gm = = =
4.7 µF + Vt 25 mV 25
+
6.4 µF
Vout
12 V
Vin
100 kΩ
− −
2 KΩ
37 KΩ
Vi
100 K 200 K
47 KΩ 2 KΩ
Vo
470 Ω
A.C. analysis:
V Capacitors are short circuited DC source is also short
AV = 0
Vi circuited.
lB (1 + h fe ) Re iC
=
lB [hie + (1 + h fe )]Re + V0
≅1 + +
R2 Vbe 2 KΩ 8 KΩ
Hence, the correct option is (c). Vin ∼ R1 47 KΩ
−
73 KΩ −
−
Two-marks Questions
V0 = -ic(Rc || RL) Vin = nbe
1. For the DC analysis of the common-Emitter amplifier
shown, neglect the base current and assume that the V0
emitter and collector currents are equal. Given that VT Voltage Av = = gm (Rc || RL)
Vin
= 25 mV, VBE = 0.7 V and the BJT output resistance
2
r0 is practically infinite. Under these conditions the \ Av = [ 2 K || 8K ]
25
5.60 | Analog Electronics
= 1 V
VEC = VE – VC 5 KΩ
R1 33 kΩ
= 3 – 1 Vo
1 µF
= 2 V 1 µF
Vi
Hence, the correct Answer is (2).
5. In the circuit shown, I1 = 80 mA and I2 = 4 mA. R2 11 kΩ
RS 10 kΩ
Transistors T1 and T2 are identical. Assume that the
thermal voltage VT is 26 mV at 27°C. At 50°C, the value
of the voltage V12 = V1 – V2(in mV) is _______ [2015]
RE 1 kΩ C 1 µF
Vs
I2 I1
– +
V2 V1
V12 Solution: (−223.6)
RC = 5 KΩ
T2 T1
R1 = 33 k
Vo
1 µF
1 µF
Vi
Solution: From the given data
I1 = 80 mA and I2 = 4 mA
R2 11 k
RS = 10 k
VT = 26 mV at 27°C
{
I≈I e o
V ηVT
}
12 V
12 V
I1
= e( 1 2 ) T
V −V η.V
I2
5K 5K
We know 33 k
T
VT = 8.25 k
11600
at T = 273 + 50° = 323° K
323 11 k 3V
1.01 k 1.01 k
VT = = 27.844 mV
11600
⎛I ⎞
V12 = ηVT ⋅ ln ⎜ 1 ⎟ V
⎝ I2 ⎠
By applying KVL in input loop, we get
Let η = 1 (NOT given)
3 = 8.25 I B + 0.7 + 1.10 KIe
⎛ 80 ⎞
V12 = 27.844 × 10–3 ⋅ ln ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 4⎠ 8.25K
2.3 = I e + 1.01K
=
83.413 mV 201
Hence, the correct Answer is (83.5 to 84.0). 2.3 = I e × 1 − 051K
6. For the amplifier shown in the figure, the BJT param-
le = 2.2 mA
eters are VBE = 0 7 V, b = 200, and thermal voltage VT =
25 mV. The voltage gain (v0/vi) of the amplifier is____.
[2014]
5.62 | Analog Electronics
0.01 KΩ
Assume the transistor is in active region
5 − 0.7
IB active = = 86 mA
50 k
where re is given by IC active = bIB active
= 50 × 86 mA = 4.3 mA
VT Assume Re = 1 kΩ
re =
Ie 10 V
25 mV
re = = 11.36Ω 4.3 mA
2.2 mA
V0 = −5bI b (1) 1K
OFF
Vi = 2.27K I b + 0 − 01K ( I b + bI b ) (2) VC = 5.7 V
50 kΩ
From equations (1) and (2), we get 5V
4.3 mA
10 V
3K
RC
ON
VC = −2.9 V
50 kΩ 50 k
5V 5V
RB
VB = 0.7 V
It is in saturation.
(a) For RC = 1 kΩ, the BJT operates in the saturation Hence, the correct option is (b).
region.
(b) For RC = 3 kΩ, the BJT operates in the saturation 8. Consider the common-collector amplifier in the figure
region. (bias circuitry ensures that the transistor operates in for-
(c) For RC = 20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the cut-off ward active region, but has been omitted for simplicity)
region. Let IC be the collector current, VBE be the base-emitter
(d) For RC = 20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the linear re- voltage and VT be the thermal voltage. Also, gm and ro
gion. are the small-signal transconductance and output resist-
ance of the transistor, respectively. Which one of the fol-
lowing conditions ensures a nearly constant small signal
voltage gain for a wide range of values of RE? [2014]
Chapter 3 BJT Analysis | 5.63
R1 5 kΩ
gm RE << 1
(a) (b) IC RE >> VT
gm ro>1 (d)
(c) VBE>>VT 1 µF
Vi
Solution: (b) 1 µF
R2 10 kΩ Vo
RE 1 kΩ
Vin
Vout
Solution: (9.4 V)
RE DC analysis
VCC = 12 V
10. In the circuit shown below, the silicon npn transistor Q Solution: (d)
has a very high value of b. The required value of R2 in
13.7 v
kQ to produce IC = 1 mA is [2013]
12 k
VCC = 3V
C Vo
100 k
C
R1 = 500 Ω IC
10 k b = 100
Q Vi
R2 RE = 500 Ω
KVL in input loop,
Solution: (c) I C = b /B = 0.99 mA
VCC = 3V 1e = 1 mA
26 mA
∴ re = = 26Ω
R1 = 60 K
Ie
Zi = bre = 2.5k Ω
Q
100 k || 12k
R2 RE = 500 ∴ AV = = 412
26
100 k
Zi1 = Zi
1 + 412
R2 = 221Ω
3⋅ = 1.2
60 + R2
Zd 1
R2 = 40 k Ω AVS = AV
Zi1 + RS
Hence, the correct option is (c).
221
= 412
11. The voltage gain Av of the circuit shown below is 221 + 10 k
[2012]
AVS ≈ 10
13.7 volts
Hence, the correct option is (d).
12 kΩ
1 2. For the BJT Q1 in the circuit shown below, b = ∞, VBEon
= 0.7 V, VCEsat = 0.7 V. The switch is initially closed. At
C Vo time t = 0, the switch is opened. The time t at which Q1
100 Ω
leaves the active region is [2011]
C
b = 100 5v
10 Ω
Vi
0.5 mA
−5 v
Q1 5 µF
(a) |Av| ≈ 200 (b) |Av| ≈ 100 t=0
(c) |Av| ≈ 20 (d) |Av| ≈ 10
4.3 kΩ
−10 v
Chapter 3 BJT Analysis | 5.65
12 V 20 k 3k
100 k 3k CC
2
VD (t )
100 nF CC1 3k
100 nF
Vi (t)
10 k 2.3 k CE
100 kΩ
20 k 900 k 10 µF
CC1
18. The DC current gain (b) of a BJT is 50. Assuming that
IE the emitter injection efficiency is 0.995, the base trans-
10 kΩ 2.3 kΩ CE 3 kΩ port factor is [2007]
(a) 0.980 (b) 0.985
(c) 0.990 (d) 0.995
Chapter 3 BJT Analysis | 5.67
53 K IC + IB
10 K
Vc
IC
+ 5.3 K
10 V
-
CC
+ Vs
2V - 1K
−(1k || 53k ) = 49 mA
Av = Hence, the correct option is (c).
4.33
= −226.5 24. In an ideal differential amplifier shown in the figure, a
large value of (RE) [2005]
zi
Now AVs = AV VCC
zi + Rs
where zi = z1||bre RC RC
53 k
Z1 = (using Miller’s theorem)
1 − AV
53 k V1 V2
Z1 = = 233 Ω
227.5 RE
233(60 × 4.33)
∴ Z1 = −VEE
233 + (60 × 4.33)
= 122.8 Ω (a) increases both the differential and common-mode
gains.
122.8
⇒ Ans = −226.5 (b) increases the common-mode gain only.
122.8 + 5.3 k (c) decreases the differential-mode gain only.
= −5.13 (d) decreases the common-mode gain only.
Ans −5.13
Solution: (b)
20 V A
430 k 2k 1k
300
Vo
10 µF
1 − 0.7 0.3 28. In the circuit of the figure, assume that the transistor is
Ie = = = 1 mA in the active region. It has a large p and its base-emitter
300 300
voltage is 0.7 V. The value of Ic is [2000]
IC = Ie as b is large
⇒IB = 0
15 V
∴Vce = 5 − 1(2.2 + 0.3)
= 2.5 V
10 Ω RC
Hence, the correct option is (c).
lC
27. In the amplifier circuit shown in the figure, the values
of R1 and R2 are such that the transistor is operating at
VCE = 3V and IC = 1 5 mA when its b is 150. For a tran-
sistor with b of 200, the operating point (VCE, IC) is 5Ω 430 Ω
[2003]
VCC = 6 V
R1 R2
(a) Indeterminate since Rc is not given
(b) 1 mA
(c) 5 mA
(d) 10 mA
Solution: (d)
15 V
(a) (2 V, 2 mA)
(b) (3 V, 2 mA)
(c) (4 V, 2 mA) 10 kΩ RC
(d) (4 V, 1 mA) IC
Solution: (a) B
VCC = 6 V IE
R2 5 kΩ 430 Ω
VCC 4. T
he base doping concentration is increased keep-
ing the ratio of the emitter doping concentration to
IC bade doping concentration constant.
Q1 5. The collector doping concentration is reduced.
Solution:
(1 mA) Solution: (5 V)
I
Given that b is very large
10 V
2 KΩ
6.5 KΩ
10 V 5 mA 1 KΩ
VDC = ?
1.85 KΩ
1.65 KΩ
1 KΩ
So, Ic = Ie
Given that b is very large, So, the current through 1 kΩ
so IB = 0 resistance
10 × 1.65 I = 5 mA
So, V1.65 =
1.65 + 1.85 + 6.5 VDC = 10 − IR
= 1.65 V = 10 − 5 × 10−3 × 1 × 103
VDC = 5 V.
Apply KVL at I/P mesh
V1.65 = Vbe+ IeRe 35. For good stabilized biasing of the transistor of the CE
= 0.6 + Ie× 1k amplifier of figure, we should have [1990]
= 1.65 + VCC
Ie = 1 mA RC
R2
b is very large
so, Ic≅Ie +
+
I = Ic = 1 mA
R1 || R2 = RB
Vin R1 Vo
34. In the figure all transistors are identical and have a RE
high value of beta. The voltage VDC is equal to______. − −
[1991]
10 volts R
(a) E << 1
RB
R
5 mA 1 KΩ (b) E >> 1
RB
VDC = ?
RE
(c) << hFE
RB
RE
(d) >> hFE
RB
Solution: (b)
R1||R2 = RB
Chapter 3 BJT Analysis | 5.73
VCC b
S=
RC Re
b
RB + Re
Rth
RB
+ S = 1+
Re
Vbe −
Vin Re For better stability, S ≅ 1
RB
So, << 1
Re
+ VCC Re
>> 1.
RB
R2 RC
Hence, the correct option is (b).
+
+
36. Which of the following statements are correct for basic
transistor amplifier configurations?
R1
[1990]
Vin Vo
RE (a) CB amplifier has low input impedance and low cur-
− −
rent gain.
(b) CC amplifier has low output impedance and a high
Simplified self bias circuit using Thevenin’s theorem. current gain.
Thevenin open circuit voltage (c) CE amplifier has very poor voltage gain but very
Vcc R1 high input impedance.
Vth = (d) The current gain of CB amplifier is higher than the
R1 + R2
current gain of CC amplifiers.
Thevenin interval resistance Solution: (a, b)
R1 R2 In common base (CB) amplifiers I/P impedance (zi) is
Rth = R1 || R2 = = RB low and current gain (a) is also low and current gain
R1 + R2
(a) is also low.
Applying KVL to I/P mesh I
Vth = IBR + Vbe + IeRe a = c.
Ie
Put Ie = IBR + Vbe + IeRe
In common collector (CC) amplifiers O/P impedance
Vth = IBR + VB RB + Vbe + (IB + IC) Re (z0) is low and current gain (g) is high
Differentiate wrt Ic, keeping B and Vbe constant Ie
g = = 1+ b
∂I B Ib
0 = ( RB + Re ) + Re + 0
∂I c Hence, the correct options are (a, b).
∂I B − Re 37. Of the four biasing circuits shown in figure, for a BJT,
=
∂I C RB + Re indicate the one which can have maximum bias stabil-
ity [1989]
1+ b
S=
∂I VCC
VCC VCC
1− b b
∂I c
1+ b VCC
S=
Re
1+ b
RB + Re
b >> 1
Re
b >> 1
RB + Re
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5.74 | Analog Electronics
Solution: (c)
Ic (a) 198 m A/V (b) 9.9 m A/V
gm = (c) 4.95 m A/V (d) 1.98 m A/V
VT
Solution: (d)
So, if Ic↑ then gm↑
gm∝Ic
So, if the quiescent collector current Ic increases then
transconductance gm also increases.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
39. Each transistor in the Darlington pair (see the figure
below) has hFE = 100. The overall hFE of the composite C
transistor neglecting the leakage currents is [1988] C
C
Vin
B
Vin = Vgs
1c
gm ′ =
Vgs
E
gm′ = 1.98 mA/V 42. The conf iguration of cascade amplif ier is
Hence, the correct option is (d). [1987]
41. The transistor in the amplifier shown below has the fol- (a) CE−CE (b) CE−CB
lowing parameters: (c) CC−CB (d) CC−CC
hfe = 100, hie = 2 kΩ, hre = 0, hoe = 0.05 mhos. C is very Solution: (b)
large. The output impedance is [1988] Cascade amplifier is the common emitter followed by
VCC common base configuration.
Hence, the correct option is (b).
58 k 5k
C
V0 Five-marks Questions
100 nF 1. An emitter-follower amplifier is shown in the figure, Zi
is the impedance looking into the base of the transistor
10 k and Z0 is the impedance looking into the emitter of the
1k C
transistor [2001]
Vcc
(a) 20 KΩ (b) 16 KΩ
(c) 5 KΩ (d) 4 KΩ Rc
Solution: (d)
Rs
VCC
Z0
5k + V0
58 k
Vs Zi
V0 RL
C −
100 nF
−VEE
10 k
1k C (A) Draw the small signal equivalent circuit of the am-
plifier.
(B) Obtain an expression for Zi.
Output admittance, (C) Obtain an expression for Z0.
h fe hre
y0 = h0 e − Solution:
hie + Rs (A) Replace all the sources with internal impedance
and short circuit all cap then draw small signal h
model.
1/h0e 5k Iin Ib
10 k 58 k
hie bIb
+ Ia
Vin RB
Z01 = 20 k Z0 − +
RE V
IE −
0
100 × 0
= 0.05 × 10 −3 −
2 × 103 + 10 × 103 IE = Ib + bIb = (1 + b)Ib
y0 = 0.05 × 10−3 Vin = Ibhie + (1 + b) IbRE [KVL in Loop 1]
1 1 V0 = (1 + b) I0IE
z01 = = = 20 k'
y0 0.05 × 10 −3
V0 (1 + b ) I b RE
AV = =
Output impedance, Vin I b [hie + (1 + b ) RE ]
z0 = z01|| 5k = 20k||5k = 4 kΩ (1 + b ) RE
=
Hence, the correct option is (d). hie + (1 + b ) RE
5.76 | Analog Electronics
R1 RC
IC
Cb V0 50 Ω
C1 = ∞
Rs
+
R1 Vs
−
Vs R2
RE CE
[1999]
4. In the circuit of figure. Determine the resistance R0
seen by the output terminals ignore the effects of R1
and R2.
(A) What is the small-signal voltage gain, Av = Vo/Vs?
(B) What is the approximate Av if Ce is removed?
(C) What will Vo be if C b is short circuited?
[2000]
Chapter 3 BJT Analysis | 5.77
+Vcc VCC = 9 V
RL
R1 R1
+
1k VC2
b = 99
re = 1 k 10 µF
R2 +
Vs R2 1k R0 VC1
R2 = 18 K
[1998] RE = 200 Ω
Solution:
Replace transistor with h – parameter mod-
el.
[1997]
Ib
Solution: Q current = IC = 1 mA
1k 99Ib
b is very large ∴ Ib = 0
+ VCC = 9 V
1k I0
− +
I2 1k 1V 1 mA
− +
R1 VR1 RL
− VC2 = 6 V
1V R2
R0 = VC1 = 3 V
I0
+ +
0 −1 Vbe
I0 = = −0.5 mA 18 K VR3 −
2k Re Ie = 1 mA
−
Ib + 99 Ib + I0 = IL = 100 Ib + I0 = 1 mA
I0 = 51 mA
1
R0 = = 20 Ω VCC − VC2 9−6
51 mA RL = = = 3 kΩ
1 mA 1 mA
P Q
B
R
E 0 VG
(B) C
(A) Q, R, P (B) P, Q, R
(C) Q, P, R (D) R, P, Q
B Solution:
C
P
E Q
(C) C
R
B 0
VG
G M1
Vin Vout
S
Vx = (Ix – gm2Vgs2) r02 + Ix r01 (B) If the threshold voltage is reduced, the resistance
decreases.
Vx = Ixr02 – gm2Vgs2 r02 + Ix r01
(C) If the device length L is increased, the resistance
Vx = Ixr02 – gm2Ix r01 r02 + Ix r01 increases.
\ r0 = Vx/Ix = r01 + r02 + r01 r02gm (D) If VGS is increased, the resistance increases.
Solution: Drain to source resistance of NMOS transis-
r0 ≈ r01 r02 gm
tor iVDS = 50 mV
Hence, the correct option is (C)
1 )
5. Consider an n-channel MOSFET having width W, rds =
w
length L, electron mobility in the channel mn and oxide μn ⋅ cox ⋅ (VGs − VT )
L
capacitance per unit area Cox. If gate-to-source voltage
rds = vds/ids
VGS = 0.7 V, drain-to-source voltage VDS = 0.1 V, ( µ nCox ) ⋅
1
= 100 mA/V2, threshold voltage VTH = 0.3 V and (W/L) rds ∝
VGs
= 50, then the trans conductance gm (in mA/V) is
_____________. Therefore, as VGS increases, rds decreases,
[2017] Hence, the correct option is (D).
6. An n-channel enhancement mode MOSFET is biased 9. Transistor geometries in a CMOS inverter have been
at VGS > VTH and VDS > (VGS − VTH ) , where VGS is the adjusted to meet the requirement for worst case charge
gate-to-source voltage, VDS is the drain-to-source and discharge times for driving a load capacitor C. This
voltage and VTH is the threshold voltage. Considering design is to be converted to that of a NOR circuit in the
channel length modulation effect to be significant, the same technology, so that its worst case charge and dis-
MOSFET behaves as a [2017] charge times while driving the same capacitor are simi-
(A) Voltage source with zero output impedance lar. The channel lengths of all transistors are to be kept
(B) Voltage source with non-zero output impedance unchanged. Which one of the following statements is
(C) Current source with finite output impedance correct? [2016]
(D) Current source with infinite output impedance
VDD VDD
7. Consider the following statements for a Metal Oxide
Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor (MOSFET):
In 2
P: As channel length reduces, OFF state current In Out In 1
increases. Out
Q: As channel length reduces, output resistance C
C
increases.
R: As channel length reduces, threshold voltage
remains constant. (A) Widths of PMOS transistors should be doubled,
S: As channel length reduces, ON current increases. while widths of NMOS transistors should be
halved.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(B) Widths of PMOS transistors should be doubled,
[2016]
while widths of NMOS transistors should not be
(A) P and Q (B) P and S
changed.
(C) Q and R (D) R and S
(C) Widths of PMOS transistors should be halved,
while widths of NMOS transistors should not be
Solution: As we know that the drain current of MOS-
changed.
⎛W ⎞ ⎡ VDS 2 ⎤
FET is I d = μ nCox ⎜ ⎟ ⎢(VGS − Vt ) VDS −
2
(D) Widths of PMOS transistors should be unchanged,
⎝ L⎠⎣ 2 ⎥⎦ while widths of NMOS transistors should be
But r ∝ Id si halved.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Solution: From the given data
8. A long channel NMOS transistor is biased in the linear I D 2 = 2 I D1
region with VDS = 50 mV and is used as a resistance.
⎛W ⎞ ⎡ VDS ⎤ 2
Which one of the following statements is NOT cor- Id = μ nCox ⎜ ⎟ ⎢(VGS − Vt ) VDS −
2
rect? [2016]
⎝ L⎠⎣ 2 ⎥⎦
(A) If the device width W is increased, the resistance ID ∝ W
decreases.
5.82 | Analog Electronics
EV
M2
∴
Cmax
=
(ε ox tox )
VSS
VDD – Vth Cmin ε ε
ox
× s
tox Dmax
(B) ID
ε ox ε
+ s
tox Dmax
Cmax ε ox Dmax
∴ ≈1+
C tox ε s
min
VSS
Vth 1 100 × 10 −9
=1+ × = 4.33
3 10 × 10 −9
(C) ID
Hence, the correct Answer is (4.3 to 4.4).
16. In the following circuit employing pass transistor logic,
all NMOS transistors are identical with a threshold
voltage of 1 V. Ignoring the body-effect, the output
voltages at P, Q and R are, [2014]
VSS
VDD – Vth 5V 5V 5V
(D) ID
5V
P Q R′
VSS (a) 4 V, 3 V, 2 V
VDD – Vth (b) 5 V, 5 V, 5 V
(c) 4 V, 4 V, 4 V
(d) 5 V, 4 V, 3 V
5.84 | Analog Electronics
5V g
(a) m and 2rd
2
P Q R
g r
(b) m and d
2 2
VT = IV
For proper operation rd
(c) 2gm and
VDS = VGS − VT 2
(d) 2gm and 2rd
VD − VS = VG − VS − VT
⇒ VD = VG − VT Solution: (c)
At p G D
+
⇒ VD = VG − VT
Vgs gm Vgs rd
= 5 −1
−
VD = 4V (at P)
= 5 −1 = 4 V rd
rd′ =
VD at R = VG − VT 2
gm ′ = 2 gm
= 5 −1 = 4 V
∴ VD ( P ) =4V G
+
D
12 mA
V2 V
(a)
V1 = V1 = − 2
(b)
VGS 2 2
−6V
V1 = 2V2 (d)
(c) V1 = −2V2
Hence, the correct option is (d).
Chapter 4 FET and MOSFET Analysis | 5.85
Solution: (c) Vout
Vdd
RD
+ Vdd
V1 2
+
+ V2 −
Vi RD /2 −
− Vdd Vdd
V1 = Vin
2
V1 = 2V2 Solution:
Vdd = 3 V
V1 = I D RD
mnCox = 100 m A / V 2
IS = ID
Vtn = 0.7 V
RD
V2 = I S
2 m p Cox = 40 m A / V 2
I D RD V1
= =
2 2 | Vtp | = 0.9 V
So, V1 = 2V2 using the current equation we get
Hence, the correct option is (c).
1 W
( )
2
20. An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 1 mA and VP = −5 V. Its I DS = mC V − Vt
2 n ox L mS
maximum transconductance is_______ [1995]
Solution: (0.4 ms) 1 W
( ) 1 W
( )
2 2
mC V −V = m C V − Vtp
2 n ox L n ms tn 2 p ox L p mS
2 I DSS
g m ,max =
VP W
L 40 × (1.5 − 0.9)
2
n
2 × 1 × 10 −3 =
= = 0.4 ms W 100 × (1.5 − 0.7)
2
−5 L
p
Vdd = 4 V Vdd
W = 10 W = 10 W = 40
L L L
Vout
Vdd Iout
Vin V1 W =5 W =5 V2
L L
1 mA
Solution: W =2 W =3
L L
VDD = 4 V
Solution:
M1 M3
Vdd
Vout
M2 M4 Vin
W = 10 W = 10
L L
W Vdd V1 W =5 W =5 V2 Iout
mnCox = 60µA/V 2 ; = 5 L L
L n
W 1 mA
m pCox = 30µA/V 2 ; = 10
Lp
W =2 W =3
| V |= Vtn = 1 V L L
tp
rds = 6 MΩ
Iref = 1 mA
1 W
I DC = µ pCox VSG − | Vtp |2
Current hours in the ratio
2 Lp W
L
1 W
× 30 × 10 × ( 2 − 1)
2
=
2 L
I ref 1 1 2
= 150 µA = = =
Io W Io 3
n
L
W 2
gm = 2 × 1DC × µn Ccox
L I o = 1.5 mA
= 2 × 150 × 60 × 5 I out 40
=
= 300 mA/V Io 10
Av = − gm ( rd || rd ) = −300 (6.1116) 40
I out =
× 1.5
= ( −300)(3) = −900 V/V 10
= 6 mA
3. In the circuit shown, V1 = 0 and V2 = Vdd. The other rel- Hence, the correct answer is (6 mA).
evant parameters are mentioned in the figure. Ignoring
the effect of channel length modulation and the body 4. In the circuits shown, the threshold voltage of each
effect, the value of Iout is ______ mA (rounded off to 1 nMOS transistor is 0.6 V, Ignoring the effect of channel
decimal place). [2019] length modulation and body bias, the values of Vout1
and Vout2. [2019]
Chapter 4 FET and MOSFET Analysis | 5.87
M1
2.0 V
M2
M2
3V + Vo1
– 3V +
–
Vx
M1
3V 3V 3V
M3 M4 M5 Vo2
3V +
– Current through the nMOS transistors can be modelled
as:
⎛W ⎞ 1 2
IDS = µCox ⎜ ⎟ ((VGS – VT) VDS – V ) for VDS ≤
⎝L⎠ 2 DS
For M1
VGS – VT
V1 = 3 − 2.6 = 2.4 V.
⎛W ⎞
IDS = µCox ⎜ ⎟ (VGS – VT)2/2 for VDS ≥ VGS – VT
For M2 ⎝L⎠
Vo1 = V1 − Vt = 2.4 − 0.6 The voltage (in volts, accurate to two decimal places) at
V = 1.8 V Vx is _______. [2018]
o1
For M3 Solution: Consider the figure given below
3.3 V
V3 = 3 − 0.6 = 2.4 V
For M4
2V M2
V4 = 3 − 0.6 = 2.4 V.
For M2 Vx
V5 = 3 − 0.6 = 2.4
V = 2.4 V. M1
o 2
Hence the correct option is (A)
5. Consider a long-channel MOSFET with a channel
length 1 mm and width 10 mm. The device param- From the above figure we have
eters are acceptor concentration NA = 5 × 1016 cm–3, M2: VGS2 = 2 – Vx
electron mobility mn = 800 cm2/V–s, oxide capaci- VDS2 = 3.3 – Vx
tance/area Cox = 3.45 × 10–7 F/cm2. Threshold volt-
age VT = 0.7 V. The drain saturation current (IDsat) VDS2 ≥ VGS2 – Vt
for a gate voltage of 5 V is _____ mA (rounded off 3.3 – Vx ≥ 1 – Vx
5.88 | Analog Electronics
VDS1 = Vx 1 KΩ
3 MΩ RD
Vx ≤ 1
ID
VD = 8 − ID
We know that M1 operates in linear region
VG
ID1 = ID2
Vs = ID
⎛ω ⎞ V 2 5 MΩ
μ n cox ⎜ ⎟ ⎡⎣(VGS1 − VT ) ⎤⎦ VDS − DS 1 KΩ
⎝ ⎠
L 2
1 ⎛ω ⎞
μ n cox ⎜ ⎟ ⎡⎣(VGS2 − VT ) ⎤⎦
2
=
2 ⎝ ⎠
L
Thus ID is given by
⎛ω ⎞ V2
μ n cox ⎜ ⎟ [( 2 − 1) ]Vx − x 1 W
⎝L⎠ 2 I D = µ nCox (VGS − Vtn ) 2
2 L
1 ⎛ 2ω ⎞
= μ n cox ⎜ ⎟ [ 2 − Vx − 1]2 1
I D = × 1× (5 − I D − 1) 2
2 ⎝ L ⎠ 2
3Vx2 − 6Vx + 2 = 0 1
I D = (4 − I D )2
2
1 1
Vx = 1 ± V ID = (4 − I D )2
3 2
1 1 16 + I D2 − 8 I D = 2 I D
Vx cannot be 1 + V. So, Vx should be 1 – = 0.42
V 3 3 I D2 − 10 I D + 16 = 0
Hence, the correct answer is 0.41 to 0.435. I D2 − 2 I D − 8 I D + 16 = 0
7. For the circuit shown, assume that the NMOS transis- I D (II D − 2) − 8( I D − 2) = 0
tor is in saturation. Its threshold voltage Vtn = 1V and
W ∴ ( I D − 8)( I D − 2) = 0
its trans conductance parameter µ nCox = 1 mA/V 2
L
. Neglect channel length modulation and body bias ∴ I D = 2 mA, 8 mA
effects. Under these conditions, the drain current ID in
mA is ______. [2017] Given that nmos transistor is in saturation so
VDD = 8 V VDS > VGS − Vtn
RD 1 KΩ
R1
ID
For I D = 2 mA
3 MΩ
VGS = 3, Vtn = 1
VDS = VD − VS = 6 − 2 = 4
VDS > VGS − Vtn
R2
4 > 2 nmos transistor is in saturation for
5 MΩ Rs
1 KΩ
I D = 8 mA
VGS = 5 − 8 = −3 VDS = VD − VS
Solution: Vtn = 1 V VDS = 0 − 8
VDD × R2 VDS > VGS − Vtn VDS = −8
VGS = VG − VS VG =
R1 + R2 −8 > −4 False
8× 5 ∴ nmos transistor is not in saturation region.
∴VGS = 5 − I D VG = =5V
8 ∴ Drain current ID = 2 mA
Hence, the correct answer is (1.9 to 2.1).
Chapter 4 FET and MOSFET Analysis | 5.89
2 L ⎣ 5⎦
But t E q = 1.6 nm
VDS = VGS – VT = 1.5 V Hence, the correct Answer is (1.6 nm).
5.90 | Analog Electronics
12. In the circuit shown in the figure, the channel (A) –gm1(r01||r02||r03)
length modulation of all transistors is non-zero (λ
⎛ 1 ⎞
≠ 0). Also, all transistors operate in saturation and (B) –gm1 ⎜ r01 || || r03 ⎟
have negligible body effect. The AC small signal ⎝ gm3 ⎠
voltage gain (V0/Vin) of the circuit is [2016] ⎛ ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎞
VDD (C) –gm1 ⎜ r01 || ⎜ || r02 ⎟ || r03 ⎟
⎝ ⎝ gm2 ⎠ ⎠
⎛ ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎞
M3 M2
(D) –gm1 ⎜ r01 || ⎜ || r03 ⎟ || r02 ⎟
⎝ ⎝ gm3 ⎠ ⎠
VG
Solution: Apply AC analysis and replace all the tran-
sistor with small signal equivalent model
V0
Vin M1
S D G D
– +
Vgs2
Vgs3 gm3 Vgs3 gm2 Vgs2
r03 r02
+ –
G S
S D
V0
Vi +
–
G
S
⎡ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎤ VDD
Vont = − gm1Vgs1 ⎢ r01 r03 ⎜ r02 ⎟ ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎝ gm 2 ⎠ ⎦⎥
Vin = Vgs1 1 kΩ
Vout ⎛ ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎞ V0
= gain = − gm1 ⎜ r01 ⎜ r02 ⎟ r03 ⎟
Vin ⎝ ⎝ gm 2 ⎠ ⎠ 50 pF
Vin M1
Hence, the correct option is (C).
5 kΩ
1 3. In the circuit shown in the figure, transistor M1 is in
saturation and has transconductance gm = 0.01 siemens.
Ignoring internal parastitic capacitances and assuming
the channel length modulation λ to be zero, the small
Solution: Given gm = 0.01
input pole frequency (in kHz) is [2016]
Voltage gain Av = –gm RD
=
–0.01 × 1000 = –10
Chapter 4 FET and MOSFET Analysis | 5.91
M1
− VTP = 1 V
M
Vin
VTn = 1 V
(a) 12.5 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 100 M2
5.92 | Analog Electronics
5V
W/L = 1
M1 − VTP = 1 V
Vin Vo
W
The transistor which has =4
M2 VTn = 1 V L
VDS = 6 − Vx , and ,
V0 VGS = 5 − Vx
VoH = VDD VGS = −VT = 5 − Vx − 1
M1 : triode = 4 − Vx
VOS VGS − VT
M2 : triode
So that transistor is in saturation region, the transistor
Vi
VIL VIH VDD W
which has = 1 drain is connected to gate so that tran-
L
1 sistor in saturation VDS > VGS > VT (∴ VDS = VGS).
where VIL = (3VDD + 2Vt ) The current flow in both the transistor is same
8
2
= 2.125 V W (V ) − V
mnCox GS 1 T
Hence, approximately, Vin < 1.875 V. So the device M1 is L 1 2
in the linear region.
2
Hence, the correct option is (a). W (V ) − V
= mn Cox GS 2 T
L 2 2
17. In the circuit shown below, for the MOS transistors, μn
Cox = 100 μA/V2 and the threshold voltage VT = 1 V. The 4(5 − Vx − 1) 2 1(Vx − 4) 2
voltage Vx at the source of the upper transistor is[2011] = (∵VGS = Vx − 0)
2 2
6V ( )
4 Vx 2 − 8Vx + 16 = Vx 2 − 2Vx + 1
⇒ 3Vx 2 − 30Vx + 63 = 0
5V
W/L = 4
⇒ Vx = 3V
Vx
Hence, the correct option is (c).
W/L = 1 Statement for Linked Answer Questions 18 and 19.
Consider the CMOS circuit shown, where the gate voltage
VG of the n-MOSFET is increased from zero, while the gate
voltage of the p-MOSFET is kept constant at 3 V. Assume
that, for both transistors, the magnitude of the threshold
(a) 1 V (b) 2 V
voltage is 1 V and the product of the transconductance pa-
(c) 3 V (d) 3.67 V
rameter and the (W/L) ratio, i.e. the quantity μCoX (W/L), is
1 mA. V−2.
Chapter 4 FET and MOSFET Analysis | 5.93
VDD
1 8. Estimate the output voltage V0 for VG = 1.5 V.
Ibias RE
[2009]
Vout
1 1 Va Ix
(a) 4 − 4+
V (b) V
2 2 M1 M2
Is
(c) 3 (d) 3
4− V 4+ V
2 2
Solution: (d) The current Ix is related to Ibias as
Ix = Ibias + Is
(a)
1 1
(Vgs − Vt )n2 = (Vgs − Vt ) p VDS − VDS 2 Ix = Ibias
(b)
2 2
Ix = Ibias− Is
(c)
1 1
⇒ (1.5 − 1) 2 = ( −2 + 1) × VDS − VDS 2
2 2 V
Ix = Ibias− VDD − out
(d)
⇒ VDS = 4.875 V RE
Solution: (b)
3
⇒ V0 = VDS = 4.875 V = 4 + Given circuit is current mirror, since MOSFETS are
V
2 identical
and their threshold voltages are VTHn = |VTHp| = 1 V, the (a) 1.875 mS and 3.41
current I is [2007] (b) 1.875 mS and −3.41
5V (c) 3.3 mS and −6
(d) 3.3 mS and 6
PMOS Solution: (a)
2.5 V I VGSQ
g m = g mo 1 − ,
VP
NMOS
where
NMOS
Hence, the correct option is (a).
G
Hence, the correct option is (a).
S
2MΩ 28. Zi and Z0 of the circuit are respectively [2005]
V1 V0
− (a) 2 MΩ and 2 kΩ
2V
+ 20
(b) 2 MΩ and kΩ
11
Z1 Z0 (c) infinity and 2 MΩ
20
(d) infinity and kΩ
26. Transconductance in milli-Siemens (mS) and voltage 11
gain of the amplifier are respectively [2005]
5.96 | Analog Electronics
Solution: (d) Solution: (b)
Given From graph,
20V ID
2k
+ +
VGS
2M IV
Vi V0
− VD = 5V
− 2V −
+
VG = 3V
Zi Z0
rd = 20 KΩ
rd =
I DSS = 10 KΩ
20 mA VS =1V
V =
I DSS = 10
−8 mA
V
P
= Vth = 1 V
VZP = (−R8DV|| ∞)
i
= VGS = 2 V
Zi = (RRD=|| 2∞m
)Ω
G
VDS = 4 V
Z0 == (RRGD=|| 2rdm) Ω
Z 0 = ( RD || rd ) 20 And VDS ≥ (VGS − VT )
= ( 2 K || 20 K ) = 20 KΩ
= ( 2 K || 20 K ) = 11 KΩ ∴ MOSFET is in saturation.
11 Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (d). 30. The action of a JFET in its equivalent circuit can best
be represented as a [2003]
29. For an n-channel MOSFET and its transfer curve shown (a) Current Controlled Current Source
in the figure, the threshold voltage is [2005] (b) Current Controlled Voltage Source
(c) Voltage Controlled Voltage Source
ID (d) Voltage Controlled Current Source
Solution: (d)
Transfer
characteristics
JFET is voltage controlled current source. Input imped-
ance of JFET is very high. Thus input current is zero.
Hence, the correct option is (d).
IV VGS 31. Consider the following statements in connection
with the CMOS inverter in the figure, where both the
VD = 5V
MOSFETs are of enhancement type and both have a
threshold voltage of 2V.
D
Statement 1: T1 conducts when Vi > 2V
Statement 2: T1 is always in saturation when V0 = 0 V.
VG = 3V
+5V
G
T2
S V1 V0
VS =1V
T1
(a) 1 V and the device is in active region
(b) −1 V and the device is in saturation region
(c) 1 V and the device is in saturation region Which of the following is correct? [2002]
(d) −1 V and the device is in active region (a) Only Statement 1 is TRUE
(b) Only Statement 2 is TRUE
Chapter 4 FET and MOSFET Analysis | 5.97
(c) Both the statements are TRUE (a) 150 Ω (b) 470 Ω
(d) Both the statements are FALSE (c) 560 Ω (d) 1 kΩ
Solution: (a) Solution: (a)
Statement 2 is false because VDS will be less than VGS– Using the formula for drain current,
VT
IDS
If V0 = 0
5V
10V
T2 RS
Vi
V0
T1
2
V
I DS = I DSS 1 − GS
Hence, the correct option is (a). Vp
V0 V 2
2
32. The voltage gain Av = of the JFET amplifier shown 6.4 × 10 −−33 = 10 × 10 −−33 1 − VGS
Vi 6.4 × 10 = 10 × 10 1 − −GS5
in the figure is −5
2
VDD = +10V V 2
0.64 = 1 + VGS
ID = 1mA 0.64 = 1 + 5GS
Rd 5
(3 kΩ) C2 V
⇒ 1 + VGS = 0.8
Ct + ⇒ 1 + 5GS = 0.8
V0 5
+ VGS
⇒ VGS = −0.2
Rg ⇒ 5 = −0.2
Vi 5
(1 kΩ) Rs
Cs ⇒ VGS = −1 V
(2.5 kΩ)
− ⇒ VGS = −1 V
⇒ VGS = − I DS RS
[2002] ⇒ VGS = − I DS RS
IDSS = 10 mA Vp = −5 V −1 = −6.4 × 10 −−33 RS
−1 = −6.4 × 10 RS
(Assume C1, C2 and C3 to be very large) 1
RS = 1 = 156Ω
(a) +18 (b) –18 (c) +6 (d) –6 RS = 6.4 × 10 −−33 = 156Ω
6.4 × 10
Solution: (d) RS ≅ 150Ω
RS ≅ 150Ω
VG = 0 ⇒ VS = IDRS = 1 mA × 2.5 K = 2.5 V
VGS = VG − VS = 0 − 2.5 = −2.5 V
Five-marks Questions
2 × 10 × 10 −3 −2.5
gm = 1 − −3 = 2 ms 1. A JFET with Vp = −4V and lDSS = 12 mA is used in the
151
circuit shown in figure. Assuming the device to be oper-
A v = − g m RD = −2 × 10 −3 × 3 K = −6 V. ating in saturation, determine lD, VDS and VGS. [1996]
VDD = 20 V
33. The JFET in the circuit shown in the figure has an IDSS
= 10 mA and VP = −5V. The value of the resistance RS
for a drain current IDS = 6.4 mA is (Select the Nearest 400 kΩ 2 kΩ
value)[1992]
D +
G
IDS VDS
+
VGS − S −
+
10V 100 kΩ 2 kΩ
−
RS
5.98 | Analog Electronics
Solution: Solution:
VDD = 20 V 1
SCgd
+ +
2k +
1 1
Rth = 400 k || 100 k Vin R1|| R2 Vgs rds 5k 5k Vo
+ - SCgs
gm Vgs
SCds
- -
VDS
+
VGS − − V0 V V
4V Vth (V0 − Vin ) S Cgd + g m Vgs + + V0 s cos + 0 + 0 = 0
2k rds 5k 5k
1 2
V0 SCgd + + s cos + = Vin ( S Cgd − g m )
100 rds 5k
Vth = 20 × = 4V
100 + 400
V0
8 AV =
40 0 × 100 Vi
Rth = 400 || 100 K = = 80 K
500 K SCgd − g m
∴ I4 = 0 =
1 2
SCgd + + SCas +
Apply KVL to input mesh rds 5k
4 = Vgs + 2 × 103 × ID
VGS = G − 2 ID (1) Upper cut off frequency.
1 1
V
2
fH = =
I D = I DSS 1 − GS 2pt 2p (rds || 5k || 5k )(Cgd + Cds )
VP
2
rds = ∞
IIDD ==12 (4 − 2 I D )
12 1 − f H = 2.89 MHz
−4
ID = 5.33 mA, 3 mA
3. In the MOSFET amplifier shown in the figure below
Apply KVL to output mesh
has μ = 50, rd = 10 kΩ, Cgs = 5 pF, Cgd = 1 pF and Cds = 2
20 = 2ID + VDS + 2IDS pF. Draw a small signal equivalent circuit for the ampli-
VDS = 20 − 4IDS(2) fier for midband frequencies and calculate its midband
Substitute IDS in equation (2) voltage gain. [1994]
VDS1 = 20 − 4 IDS1 = 20 − 4 × 5.33
UDS1 = −1.33V VDD
RD = 20 kΩ
But VDS should be positive, So IDS ≠ 5.33 mA
Substitute IDS = 3 mA in equation (2)
50 µF
VDS2 = 8V rsrc = 100 kΩ
+ RL = 20 kΩ
∴ VGS = 4 − 2ID = 4 − 2 × 3 = −2V Vs
Rs = 20 kΩ
−
VGS = −2V
2. In the JFET circuit shown in figure assume that R1||R2 Solution:
= 1MΩ and the total stray capacitance at the output to
100 Ω
be 20 pF The JFET used has gm = 2 mA/V, Cgs = 20 pF.
and Cgd = 2 pF. Determine the upper cut-off frequency +
of the amplifier. [1995] +
Vs VGS 20 k 20 k
gmVgs
+Vcc −
−
R2 RD = 5 kΩ 1k
1 µF
50 µF
Rs = 1 kΩ RL = 5 kΩ μ = 50
R1
Vs
2 kΩ 20 µF rd = 10 kΩ
Chapter 4 FET and MOSFET Analysis | 5.99
= 1.47 × 1010 Hz
+ +
f
fb = T Vi Vo
b0 N
− −
1.47 × 10 10
=
90
= 1.64 × 108 Hz ( b 0 = h fc ) 1
(a) Z 1 −
Hence, the correct option is (a). K
5. An amplifier is assumed to have a single-pole high- (b) Z(1 − K)
frequency transfer function. The rise time of its output
response to a step function input is 35 nsec. The upper Z
(c)
K − 1
−3 dB frequency (in MHz) for the amplifier to a sinu-
soidal input is approximately at [1999]
Z
(d)
(a) 4.55 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 28.6 1− K
Solution: (b)
Solution: (d)
tr × BW = 0.35
Miller theorem states that if a series impedance Z is
0.35 connected between the input and output terminal of a
BW = = 10.
35 × 10 −9 network, then it can be replaced with a shunt imped-
ance Z1 in the side and by a shunt impedance Z2 in the
Hence, the correct option is (b). output section of the network
6. An n-p-n transistor (with C = 0.3 pF) has a unity – gain Z
cut-off frequency fT of 400 MHz at a dc bias current Ic
= 1 mA. The value of its Cμ (in pF) is approximately (VT
= 26 mV) [1999]
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 96 + +
Solution: (a) Vi Vo
N
1 − −
fT =
2pRC
1 I
= gm = C
R VT If Vi > V2 then I1 flows
IC
fT =
2pV T × C m
1 mA
Cm =
2p × 26 mV × 400 × 106
C m = 15 pF
Chapter 5 Frequency Response of Amplifier | 5.103
VCC
V1 −
V −VV2
II11 =
= 1Z 2
Z Rc 10 kΩ
V1 [[11 −
25 pF
=
V −VV2 // V
V1 ]]
= 1 Z2 1 Vo
Z Cc
[11 −
[ − AV ]]
A
=
=VV11 Z V 10 kΩ
VB 2Q
Z
V RB
V11 = Z
II1 = Z1
1
1
Z
= Z
= −A
11 − AV Transistor data gm = 5 mA/V, rp = 20 kΩ,
V
Z
Z Cp = 1.5 pF and Cμ = 0.5 pF determine the upper cut-off
Z11 =
Z = 1− K
1− K frequency fH of the amplifier. [1996]
Solution: Net feedback, Cf = C + Cm = 25.5 μF
Apply Miller’s theorem to Cf ,
+ +
K = −gm RC = −50
Vi Z1 Z2 Vo
N
− − Cm = Cf (1 − k) = 1300.5 pF
1
fH =
2p Cm (R f || rp )
Five-marks Questions
1. A common-emitter amplifier with an external capacitor
Cc connected across the base and the collector of the
transistor is shown in figure.
Chapter 6
Feedback Amplifiers
One-mark Questions 20 Ω +15 V
−
20 Ω
1. A good trans impedance amplifier has [2018] Vout
+
(A) low input impedance and high output impedance. 5Ω −15 V
(B) high input impedance and high output impedance.
(C) high input impedance and low output impedance. VP
(D) low input impedance and low output impedance.
Solution:
Hence, the correct option is (D) Q1 Q2 Q3 Q32
2. A good trans conductance amplif ier should have
[2017]
(A) high input resistance and low output resistance.
The output voltage Vout (in volts) is ____________.
(B) low input resistance and high output resistance.
(C) high input and output resistances. 4. In the ac equivalent circuit shown in the figure, if iin is
(D) low input and output resistances. the input current and RF is very large, the type of feed-
back is [2014]
Solution: For a trans conductance amplifier input re-
sistance is high and output resistance is also high. trans
conductance amplifier can also be called voltage con- RD
RD
trolled current source, i.e., vccs. An amplifiers is VC, Vout
when input resistance is high and an amplifies is cc M2
when output resistance is high. M1
Hence, the correct option is (C).
RF
3. In the voltage reference circuit shown in the figure, the
op-amp is ideal and the transistors Q1, Q2, …., Q32 are Small signal Iin
identical in all respects and have infinitely large val- input
Solution: (a)
RD
The desirable characteristics of a transconductance am-
RD
Vout
plifier are high input resistances and high output resist-
ances.
M2
M1
Hence, the correct option is (a).
7. In a voltage-voltage feedback as shown below, which
RF
one of the following statements is TRUE if the gain k is
increased? [2013]
Small signal Iin
input
+V Vi + A0 + Vout
− in − −
So, the given feedback is of type voltage–current feed-
back.
Hence, the correct option is (b).
5. The feedback topology in the amplifier circuit (the base
Vi = kVout +
− K +
−
bias circuit is not shown for simplicity) in the figure is
[2014]
VCC (a) The input impedance increases and output imped-
ance decreases
RD Io (b) The input impedance increases and output imped-
Vo ance also increases
(c) The input impedance decreases and output imped-
RS ance also decreases
RE (d) The input impedance decreases and output imped-
VS
ance increases
Solution: (a)
The given configuration is a voltage–series feedback
(a) Voltage shunt feedback configuration. So, the input impedance increases
(b) Current series feedback Rif = Ri (1 + A0 k ) and the output impedance decreases.
(c) Current shunt feedback
(d) Voltage series feedback
+V Vi + A0 + Vout
Solution: (a) − in − −
The feedback topology in the amplifier circuit is cur-
rent series because
VCC
Vi = kVout K +
RC Io
−
Vo
Rof = Ri (1 + A0 k )
RS
RE
Hence, the correct option is (a).
VS
8. In a transconductance amplifier, it is desirable to have
[2007]
Sampling → current (a) a large input resistance and a large output resistance
Mixing → voltage (b) a large input resistance and a small output resistance
So, current series feedback. (c) a small input resistance and a large output resistance
Hence, the correct option is (a). (d) a small input resistance and a small output
6. The desirable characteristics of a transconductance resistance
amplifier are [2014] Solution: (a)
(a) high input resistance and high output resistance Transconductance amplifier has voltage at input end and
(b) high input resistance and low output resistance current at output end. Thus, input resistance must be high
(c) low input resistance and high output resistance and output resistance must be high.
(d) low input resistance and low output resistance Hence, the correct option is (a).
5.106 | Analog Electronics
9. The input impedance (Zi) and the output impedance 12. In a negative feedback amplifier using v oltage-series
(Zo) of an ideal trans-conductance (voltage controlled (i.e. voltage-sampling, series mixing) feedback.[2002]
current source) amplifier are [2006] (a) Ri decreases and Ro decreases
(a) Zi = 0, Z0 = 0 (b) Ri decreases and Ro increases
(b) Zi = 0, Z0 = ∞ (c) Ri increases and Ro decreases
(c) Zi = ∞, Z0 = 0 (d) Ri increases and Ro increases
(d) Zi = ∞, Z0 = ∞ (Ri and Ro denote the input and output resistances, re-
spectively)
Solution: (d)
For a voltage controlled current source input is voltage. Solution: (c)
So input impedance is to be as high as possible output Voltage – series negative feedback increases input im-
is current so output impedance is to be kept as high as pedances and decreases output impedance,
possible so that full current can go to load
Rif = Ri (1 + Ab )
i. e., Z i = ∞ R0
Rof =
Z0 = ∞ 1 + Ab
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Hence, the correct option is (d).
13. Negative feedback in an amplifier [1999]
10. The effect of current shunt feedback in an amplifier is
(a) reduces gain.
to [2005]
(b) increases frequency and phase distortions.
(a) increase the input resistance and decrease the out- (c) reduces bandwidth.
put resistance (d) increases noise.
(b) increase both input and output resistances
Solution: (a)
(c) decrease both input and output resistances.
(d) decrease the input resistance and increase the out- A
put resistance Af = (for −ve feedback)
1 + Ab
Solution: (a)
With current shunt negative feedback, Thus, gain reduces.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Ri
Rif = 14. In a shunt–shunt negative feedback amplifier, as com-
1 + Ab
pared to the basic amplifier. [1998]
and Rof = R0 (1 + Ab ) (a) both input and output impedance decrease.
(b) input impedance decreases but output impedance
Hence, the correct option is (a). increases.
11. Voltage series feedback (also called series-shunt feed- (c) input impedance increases but output impedance
back) results in [2004] decreases.
(d) both input and output impedance increase.
(a) increase in both input and output impedances
(b) decrease in both input and output impedances Solution: (a)
(c) increase in input impedance and decrease in output In a shunt–shunt negative feedback amplifier, as com-
impedance pared to the basic amplifier, both input and output im-
(d) decrease in input impedance and increase in output pedances decrease
impedance
Ri
Solution: (c) Rif =
Voltage series feedback results in increase in input im- 1 + Ab
pedance and decrease in output impedance, R0
Rof =
1 + Ab
Rif = Ri (1 + Ab )
and Hence, the correct option is (a).
R0 15. To obtain very high input and output impedances in a
Rof =
1 + Ab feedback amplifier, the mostly used is [1995]
(a) voltage-series
Hence, the correct option is (c). (b) current-series
Chapter 6 Feedback Amplifiers | 5.107
(c) voltage-shunt 1 − VA VA − V0
(d) current-shunt =
1 31
Solution: (b) The required voltage is VA = 0.5 V
Current series feedback amplifiers have very high input Hence, the correct answer is 0.4 to 0.6.
and very high output impedances
2. Consider the circuit shown in the figure.
Rif = Ri (1 + Ab ) = Ri (1 + Gmb )
− +
Rof = R0 (1 + Ab ) = R0 (1 + Gmb )
3 i0
Hence, the correct option is (b).
P
16. Negative feedback in amplifiers [1993] 1Ω
(a) improves the signal to noise ratio at the input
(b) improves the signal to noise ratio at the output + 1Ω
10 V 1Ω
−
(c) does not affect the signal to noise ratio at the output
(d) reduces distortion 1Ω
Q
Solution: (a, d)
Negative feedback in amplifiers
The thevenin equivalent resistance (in W) across P-Q is
(b) improves the signal to noise ratio at the output
__________. [2017]
(d) reduces distortion.
Hence, the correct options are (a and d). 3. An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of
50, input resistance of 1 kΩ and output resistance of
Two-marks Questions 2.5 kΩ. The input resistance of the current-shunt nega-
tive feedback amplifier using the above amplifier with
1. An op-amp based circuit is implemented as shown a feedback factor of 0.2 is [2003]
below. (a) 1/11 kΩ (b) 1/5 kΩ
31 kΩ
(c) 5 kΩ (d) 11 kΩ
Solution: (a)
+15 V
1 kΩ Ri
+ – Rif =
A 1 + Ab
+
b = 0.2, A = 50
1V +
Vo
1k
– –15 V
–
⇒ Rif =
1 + 50 × 0.2
1
In the above circuit, assume the op-amp to be ideal. The = kΩ
11
voltage (in volts, correct to one decimal place) at node
A, connected to the negative input of the op-amp as Hence, the correct option is (a).
indicated in the figure is _______. [2018] 4. An amplifier has an open-loop gain of 100. An input
Solution: Consider the figure given below impedance of 1 kΩ, and an output impedance of 100
31 kΩ
Ω.A feedback network with a feedback factor of 0.99 is
connected to the amplifier in a voltage series feedback
+15 V mode. The new input and output impedances, respec-
1 kΩ tively, are [1999]
+ –
A (a) 10 Ω and 1 Ω
+
(b ) 10 Ω and 10 Ω
1V + (c) 100 kΩ and 1 Ω
Vo
(d) 100 kΩ and 1 kΩ
– –15 V
–
Solution: (d)
Feedback mode is voltage series – input impedances
If we apply Kirchhoff’s current law in above circuit we increases. Output impedance decreases.
get
5.108 | Analog Electronics G × BW = constant
A1 × BW1 = A2 × BW2
Z if = Z i (1 + Ab ) A1 × BW1 1 × BW1
BW2 = =
Z0 100 A2 20
Z of = = = 1Ω
1 + Ab 1 + 99 BW2
=
A = 100, b = 0.99, Z i = 1 kΩ, Z 0 = 100 Ω 20
Z if = 1k (1 + 99) = 100 k Ω
So, as compared to the unity gain amplifier with gain
Hence, the correct option is (d). twenty has less BW.
5. Negative feedback in Hence, the correct option is (c).
(1) voltage series configuration 7. The feedback amplif ier shown in the f igure has:
(2) current shunt configuration [1997] [1989]
(a) increases input impedance (a) current-series feedback with large input impedance
(b) decreases input impedance and large output impedance.
(c) increases closed loop gain (b) voltage-series feedback with large input impedance
(d) leads to oscillation. and low output impedance.
Solution: (a) (c) voltage-shunt feedback with low input impedance
Voltage series configuration – increases the impedance and low output impedance.
Rif = Ri (1 + Ab ) (d) current-shunt feedback with low input impedance
and output impedance.
Current shunt configuration – decreases the input im- Solution: (c)
Ri
pedances Rif = VCC
1 + Ab
Hence, the correct option is (a).
6. Two non-inversing amplifiers, one having a unity gain
and the other having a gain of twenty, are made using
identical operational amplifiers. As compared to the
unity gain amplifier, the amplifier with gain twenty has
[1991]
(a) less negative feedback
(b) greater input impedance
(c) less bandwidth
(d) none of the above.
Solution: (c)
For identical operational amplifier, gain-bandwidth
product is constant i.e., Emitter is output node, so it is voltage sampler voltage
G × BW = constant shunt feedback.
A1 × BW1 = A2 × BW2 Hence, the correct option is (c).
A1 × BW1 1 × BW1
BW2 = =
A2 20
BW2
=
20
Chapter 7
Oscillator Circuits
1 kW 2.1 kW
One-mark Questions
−
1. The configuration of the figure is a[2000] Vout
+
R1 R2 C
1 kW
−
V0
+ 1 kW C
R
C 1
(a) mF (b) 2pμF
2p
R C 1
(c) mF (d)
2p 6 mF
2p 6
(a) Precision integrator
Solution: (a)
(b) Hartley oscillator I
1 kW 2.1 kW
(c) Butterworth high pass filter
(d) Wien-bridge oscillator
Solution: (d) −
Vout
The given configuration is a Wien-bridge oscillator. +
C
R1 R2
1 kW
−
V0 1 kW C
+
R
C
Given circuit is a Wien-bridge oscillator oscillation fre-
quency given by
R C 1
W =
RC
1
⇒C =
WC
1
=
Two-marks Questions 2p 10 × 1 × 103
3
1
1. The value of C required for sinusoidal oscillations of = mF
frequency 1 kHz in the circuit of the figure is[2004] 2p
Hence, the correct option is (a).
5.110 | Analog Electronics
2. The oscillator circuit shown in the figure has an ideal (a) R2 = 5R1 (b)
R2 = 6R1
inverting amplifier. Its frequency of oscillation (in Hz) R1 R
is[2003] (c)
R2 = (d)
R2 = 1
6 5
Solution: (a)
R2
R1
C C C −
+ +
R R R
+ Network Vo(f )
Vi (f ) B(f )
−
−
1 1
(a) (b)
( 2p 6 RC ) ( 2pRC )
1 1 1
(c) (d) b =
( 6 RC ) 6 ( 2pRC ) 6
R1
and b =
Solution: (a) R1 + R2
bV0 − 0 bV0 − V0
+ =0
R1 R2
R + R2 1
⇒b 1 =
C C C R1 R2 R2
R1
R1 b =
R R R b = R1 + R2
R1 + R2
1 R1
1 R1 =
= 6 R1 + R2
6 R1 + R2
Frequency of oscillation for this oscillator is ⇒ R1 + R2 = 6 R1
⇒ R1 + R2 = 6 R1
1 ⇒ R2 = 5 R1
f = where RC = phase shift oscillator. ⇒ R2 = 5 R1
2p 6 RC
Hence, the correct option is (a). Hence, the correct option is (a).
3. The circuit in the figure employs positive feedback and 4. The oscillator circuit shown in the figure is [2001]
is intended to generate sinusoidal oscillation. If at a fre- −VCC
quency f0,
LC
Vf ( f ) 1
B( f ) = = ∠0 then to sustain oscillation at
V0 ( f ) 6
this frequency [2002] CC L = 10 µH
R1
R2 Vo
R1
− C1 = 2 pF C2 = 2 pF
+ + R2
Re Ce
+ Network Vo(f )
Vi (f ) B(f )
−
−
(a) Hartley oscillator with foscillation = 79.6 MHz
(b) Colpitts oscillator with foscillation = 50.3 MHz
Chapter 7 Oscillator Circuits | 5.111
Solution: (b) 5K
Given oscillator is a Colpitts oscillator −
Vo
+
−VCC
R
LC
0.01 µF 10 mH 1K
CC L = 10 µH
R1
Vo
R Vf
+
C1 = 2 pF C2 = 2 pF +
Vo 1K 10 mH 0.01 µF Vf
R2 -
Ro Co
-
1
w=
1 LC
f = 1 1
f = 2p 1LCer w=
f = 2p LCer
2pC CLCer 2 × 2 10 × 10 × 0.01 × 10 −6
−3
Cer = C11C22 = 2 × 2
Cer = CC +CC = 2 ×4 2 w = 105 rad/sec
Cer = C11 1+ C2 22 = 4
1 + C2
= 1Cpf 4 Apply nodal analysis
= 1 pf
= 1 pf 1 V f − V0 Vf Vf
f = 1
f = 2p 10 × 10 1 −−66 × 10−−12
12 + + + V f CS = 0
f = 2p 10 × 10 × 10 R 1K LS
−6 −12
21p× 10
10 × 10 × 10
9
1 1 1 V0
= 1 × 10 9 = 50.3 MHz ⇒ Vt +
= 12p× 10190 = 50.3 MHz + Vf WC − WL = R
= 2p 10 = 50.3 MHz R 1K
2p 10
1
for oscillation, WC − =0
Hence, the correct option is (b). WL
5. Value of R in the oscillator shown in the given figure is 1 1 1 V10 V
Vf V+ =
chosen in such a way that it just oscillates at an angular R + 1R
R f1K = 0
K R
frequencies of ‘w’. The value of ‘w’ and the required 1
value of R will, respectively, be 1
Vf V R
[1996] ⇒ b =⇒ b== f = R
V0 1 11 1
V0+
100 KΩ R KR+K
Rf 100 k
5 KΩ A = 1 +A = 1=+1R + f = 1 +=100
21k = 21
− Ri 5k
Vo R 5k i
+ 1 1
R b = b= = 1 = 1
A 21A 21
1 1 1 1
0.01 µF 10 mH 1K = R =R R R
1 =1 1 R1+ 1=K R + 1K
+
R 1KR + 1RK× 1K R × 1K
R ± 1k =
R±211k× 1=k 21 × 1k
(a) 105 rad/sec, 2 × 104 Ω R = 20RkΩ = 20 kΩ
(b) 2 × 104 rad/sec, 2 × 104 Ω = 2 × 10=42Ω× 10 4 Ω
(c) 2 × 104 rad/sec, 105 Ω
(d) 105 rad/sec, 105 Q Hence, the correct option is (b).
5.112 | Analog Electronics
List - I List - II VA − O VA − VC
+ =0
(a) Hartley (1) L ow-frequency oscillator R R′
(b) Wien-bridge (2) H igh-frequency oscillator
R′
(c) Crystal (3) Stable-frequency oscillator VC = VA 1 + (1)
R
(4) Relaxation oscillator
(5) N egative Resistance Apply KCL at node B.
oscillator VA = VB
VD − VC VD VD − VB
+ + =0
1 R R
Five-marks Questions SC
1. Find the value of R′ in the circuit of figure. For generat- VD (2 + RCS) = VC RCS + VB(4)
ing sinusoidal oscillations. Find the frequency of oscil- From equations (1), (3) and (4) we have
lations. [1998]
R1
R′
VB (1 + RCS )(2 + RCS ) = VB 1 + ( RCS ) + VB
R
R R1
− R 2 + 3RCS + R 2 C 2 S 2 − 1 + RCS − 1 = 0
R
+
C
R C
R1
1 + R 2 C 2 S 2 + 2 − RCS = 0
R
So for oscillations.
Solution: R1
2− =0
R
R′
R1 = 2R
R
− C R for frequency of oscillation
D
A
B + C 1 + R2C2S2 = 0
R C Put S = jw
1 – R2C2 w 2 = 0
1
w=
RC
By virtual short
VB = VA
Chapter 8
Power Amplifiers
+15 V
One-mark Questions
Ic
1. Crossover distortion behaviour is characteristic of
[1999]
Q2 Vcε
(a) Class A output stage
(b) Class B output stage
(c) Class AB output stage Q1
(d) Common-base output stage 8Ω
Solution: (b)
Crossover distortion behaviour is a characteristic of −15 V
class B output stage amplifier and this distortion can be
reducing by adopting push-pull configuration. Solution: (15 V)
Hence, the correct option is (b). 15 V
2. A power amplifier delivers 50 W output at 50% effi-
Ic
ciency. The ambient temperature is 25 °C. If the maxi-
mum allowable junction temperature is 150 ° C, then
the maximum thermal resistance qgc that can be toler- Q2 Vcε
ated is______ [1995] 0.7 + +
− −
Solution: (2.5) Q1 0.7
Power dissipated (PD) = 50 × 50% 8Ω
Po 1
=
Pin 2 15 V
Apply KVL at emitter terminal (c) there is no even harmonics in the output
(d) there is no odd harmonics in the output
0 = I e Re − 15
Solution: (c)
15 15
Ie = = The output of push pull amplifier consists of only odd
Re 8 harmonics terms.
Vce = VC − Ve = 15 − 0
I o = 2k[ B1 cos wt + B3 cos 3wt + B5 cos 5wt + …]
= 15 V
Hence, the correct option is (c).
4. A Class A transformer coupled, transistor power ampli-
fier is required to deliver a power output of 10 watts. Two-marks Questions
The maximum power rating of the transistor should not
be less than [1994] 6. In case of class A amplifiers the ratio (efficiency of
(a) 5 W (b) 10 W (c) 20 W (d) 40 W transformer coupled amplifier)/(efficiency of a trans-
Solution: (c) former less amplifier) is [1987]
(a) 2.9 (b) 1.36 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.5
PD max
=2 Solution: (a)
PAC max Class A amplifier ratio
For class A transformer coupled amplifier, efficiency of transformer coupled amplifier
=
PD max = 2 × PAC max = 20 W ∴ Power rating ≥ 20 W. efficiency of transfoormer less amplifier
5. In a transistor push-pull amplifier [1993] 50%
= =2
(a) there is no dc present in the output 25%
(b) there is no distortion in the output Hence, the correct option is (a).
Chapter 9
Multi-vibrators
and 555 Timers
2. Consider the following two statements:
One-mark Questions Statement 1: A stable multi-vibrator can be used for
generating square wave.
1. In the Astable multivibrator circuit shown in the figure, Statement 2: Bi-stable multi-vibrator can be used for
the frequency of oscillation (in kHz) at the output pin 3 storing binary information. [2001]
is ____. [2016] (a) Only statement 1 is correct
(b) Only statement 2 is correct
Vcc
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
RA = 2.2 kΩ 8 4
Solution: (c)
Vcc Res
A stable multi-vibrator can be used for generating
7 square wave Bistable multi-vibrator can be used for
Disch
storing binary information.
RB = 4.7 kΩ
555 Timer Hence, the correct option is (c).
6 3
Thresh Out
Two-marks Questions
2
Tring
Gnd 1. In the following astable multi-vibrator circuit, which
C 0.022 μF 1 properties of v0(t) depend on R2?
R1
Resistance RA = 2.2 k Ω
Solution: −
V0(t )
Resistance RB = 4.7 k Ω +
R3
C
Capacitance C = 0.022 μ f
R2 R4
For Astable multivibrator frequency can be expressed as
1 [2009]
f =
0.69 ( RA + 2 RB ) C (a) Only the frequency
1 (b) Only the amplitude
= (c) Both the amplitude and the frequency
0.69 × 11.6 × 103 × 0.022 × 10 −6
(d) Neither the amplitude nor the frequency
=
5.67 kHz Solution: (a)
In the given a stable multi-vibrator circuit, only the fre-
Hence, the correct Answer is (5.67 kHz). quency of V0(t) depends on R2.
5.116 | Analog Electronics
10 kΩ (Output) 3
10 kΩ
The voltage VC across the capacitor varies between
[2008]
10 kΩ (a) 3 V and 5 V
−15V (b) 3 V and 6 V
(c) 3.6 V and 6 V
(d) 3.6 V and 5 V
A triangular wave which goes from −12 V to 12 V is
applied to the inverting input of the op-amp. Assume Solution: (b)
that the output of the op-amp swings from +15 V to 9k
−15 V. The voltage at the non-inverting input switches 30 k
between [2008]
4 8
(a) −12 V and +12 V (Reset) (Supply)
(b) −7.5 and +7.5 V
6 (Threshold)
(c) −5 V and +5 V
(d) 0 V and 5 V 10 kΩ (Output) 3
10 k 2Vcc
The voltage VC varies between Vce to given that,
Vcc = 9 V 3
10 k ∴, voltage Vc varies between 3 V and 6 V.
−15V
Vc
6
VA − 15 VA + 15 VA − V0
+ + =0 3
10k 10k 10k
V t
⇒ VA = 0
3 Hence, the correct option is (b).
Since output voltage swings between +15 V and –15 V, 4. Given the ideal operational amplifier circuit shown in
VA swings between +5 V and –5 V. the figure indicates the correct transfer characteristics
Hence, the correct option is (c). assuming ideal diodes with zero cut-in voltage.
Chapter 9 Multi-vibrators and 555 Timers | 5.117
+10V V0
Vi − +10V
V0
+
−10V
−5V +8V
Vi
2 kΩ
0.5 kΩ −10V
2 kΩ
2
V0T = 10 × = 8V
(a) V0 2 + 0.5
+10V
⇒ if Vi > 8 then V0 is negative
−8V −5V
Vi
When upper diode is ON,
−5V [2005]
Solution: (a)
When lower diode is ON, Hence, the correct option is (d).
+10V
Vi −
+
V0
Five-mark Questions
−10V
1. Implement a monostable multi-vibrator using the timer
2k
circuit shown in figure. Also determine an expression
for ON time T of the output pulse.
0.5 k [1998]
2 kΩ
5.118 | Analog Electronics
Vcc Vcc
R
Comparator-1 RA
− 4 8 Discharge
Reset Vcc
Threshold +
S Q output output Trigger
R 3 IC 555 7 RB
2 Comparator-2
S Q
−
GND Threshold
Trigger + 5 0.01 µF
R Control
Discharge R
0.05 µF
GND
GND Evaluate values of RA and RB if the capacitor has the
values of 0.01 μF for the configuration chosen. If neces-
R sary you can suggest modifications in the external cir-
R+ 2 3 cuit configuration.[1997]
Solution: Vth = VCC = VCC Solution: f = 10 kHz
R + R + R 5
2 1
T= = 100 m sec
f
2VCC
Vtrig = Ton + Toff = 100 μ sec
5
100
3 VCC 3VCC Toff = Ton = = 50 m sec
Ton = time to change from 0 to = VCC [1 − e − ti / RA C A
] 2
5 5
3VCC TH = 0.7 (RA + RB)C
= VCC [1 − e − ti / RAC A ] TL = 0.7 RBC
5
3 Since it is not possible to get square wave with this con-
e − ti / RAC A = 1 − = 0.4 figuration.
5
∴ Diode is connected across RB
−ti
= ln(0.4) = −0.916
RA C A
RC
0 1 0 0 1 ( )( )(
(A) X + Y + Z . X + Y + Z . X + Y + Z )
1 1 0 0 0 (B) ( X + Y + Z ).( X + Y + Z ).( X + Y + Z )
= (x + y + z) (x + y + z ) (x + y + z)
Solution: (a)
Two-marks Questions
1. Which one of the following gives the simplified sum
of products expression for the Boolean function F = m0
+ m2 + m3 + m4, where m0, m2, m3 and m5 are minterms
corresponding to the inputs A, B and C with A as the
MSB and C as the LSB ? [2017]
A B+ABC+A B C
(A)
(B) AC + A B + A B C
Quad : 1
Pair : 3 (C) AC + A B + A B C
∴ to cover all 1’s, Quad + 3 Pair A B C + AC + A B C
(D)
⇒ 4 PI
Hence, the correct option is (a). Solution: Given that
F = m0 + m2 + m3 + m5
11. Two 2’s complement numbers having sign bits x and ∴ F = I + II + III
y are added and the sign bit of the result is z. Then,
the occurrence of overflow is indicated by the Boolean I = AB
function. II = AC
(a) xyz (b) xyz III = ABC
(c) ( X Y Z + XY Z ) (d) xy + yz + zx
∴ Simplified F = A B + AC + ABC .
[1998]
Solution: (c) 00 01 11
2n 2’s complement, if no having sign bit X & Y are m0 m3 m2
added, then overflow occurs; if X and Y are the same 1 10
(same sign) and resultant sign changes 1 1
0
e.g., X = Y = 0 (+ve both), then Z should be 0 if Z
= 1 ⇒ overflow
1
X =Y = 1 (–ve) ⇒ (–ve) + (–ve): –ve (Z = 1) but Z 1
= 0 overflow
II
⇒ overflow: ( X Y Z + XY Z ) I
III
Hence, the correct option is (c). Hence, the correct option is (B).
12. The number of Boolean functions that can be generated 2. Identify the circuit below [2016]
by n variables is equal to:
(a) 22n-1 (b) 22n
OP0 IP0
(c) 2n−1 (d) 2n [1990] OP1 IP1
X2 Y2
Solution: (b) OP2 IP2
3.8 OP3 IP3 8.3
For n variable function, as n can be 0 or 1 X1
Decoder OP4 IP4 Encoder
Y1
⇒ 2n input combination is possible OP5 IP5
X0 Y0
OP6 IP6
2 n
OP7 IP7
I/P
n
⇒ 22 function possible (A) Binary to gray code converter
(As if n = 2 (A, B), 4 input: AB , AB , AB, AB ) (B) Binary to XS3 converter
(C) Gray to binary converter
For 4 input, 24 function can be made (16).
(D) XS3 to binary converter
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Chapter 2 Boolean Algebra | 6.9
Solution:
Consider the table given below From the given K-maps
Decoder Encoder F(PQRSX) = S .Q X + S .QX
X2 X1 X0 Output Input Y2 Y1 Y0
Hence, the correct option is (B).
0 0 0 OP0 IP0 0 0 0
(from the given K-maps
0 0 1 OP1 IP1 0 0 1
When X = 0
0 1 0 OP2 IP3 0 1 1
F1(PQRSX) = SQ′X ′
0 1 1 OP3 IP2 0 1 0
1 0 0 OP4 IP6 1 1 0 and F2(PQRSX) = S′QX
1 0 1 OP5 IP7 1 1 1 Hence, F(PQRSX) = SQ′X ′+ S′QX
1 1 0 OP6 IP4 1 0 0
1 1 1 OP7 IP5 1 0 1
options with conditions of X = 0 and X = 1 and K-Maps
option (B) gives the correct result)
Binary to gray code converter except last 2 conditions. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 4. Consider the Boolean function
3. Following is the K–map of a Boolean function of five F ( w , x, y, z ) = wy + xy + wxyz + wxy + xz + x y z .
variables P, Q, R, S and X. The minimum sum of prod-
Which one of the following is the complete set of
uct (SOP) expression for the function is [2016]
essential prime implicants?
PQ PQ (a) w , y, xz , x z (b) w, y, xz
RS 00 01 11 10 RS 00 01 11 10
00 0 0 0 0 00 0 1 1 0 (c) y , x y z (d) y, xz , x z [2014]
01 1 0 0 1 01 1 0 0 1 Solution:(d)
f ( w , x, y, z ) = wy + xy + wxyz + wxy + xz + x yz
11 1 0 0 1 11 1 0 0 1
10 0 0 0 0 10 0 1 1 0
For essential PI, we reduce f
x=0 x=1
f = wy + xy + zx(1 + wy ) + xwy + x y z
=1
(A)
P Q S X + P Q S X + Q R S X + QR S X
(B)
QS X +Q S X = w y + xy + xz + xw y + x y z
(C)
QSX+Q S X = y( w + xw ) + xy + xz + x y z
(D)
QS + QS = yw + y x + xy + xz + x y z
= y( w + x + x ) + xz + x y z
Solution:
Given, =1
PQ
RS
= y + xz + x y z = xz + ( y + y )( y + x z )
00 01 11 10 =1
00
f = xz + y + x z
01 1 1
⇒ PI : y, xz , x z
11 1 1
01 1
11 1
10 1 1
X=1
6.10 | Digital Circuits
y = BC D + ABC D + ABCD
Hence, the correct option is (d).
8. The Boolean expression for the truth table shown is
{ }
x + z y + ( z + x y) x + z( x + y) = 1
9. The Boolean expression AC + BC is equivalent to
(a) AC + BC + AC
put x = 1 (b) BC + AC + BC + ACB
(c) AC + BC + BC + ABC
⇒ 1 + z { } 0 + z (1 + y ) = 1
(d) ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC [2004]
=1
=1
Solution: (d)
⇒ z =1⇒ z = 0 y = AC + BC
Hence, the correct option is (d). By k-MAP:
7. The Boolean expression
W = R + PQ + RS (c) AC + BC + AB
(d) AC + BC + AB [1999]
X = PQRS + PQRS + PQRS Solution: (a)
Y = RS + PR + PQ + PQ Y = ( ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC )t
Y = RS + PR + PQ + PQ
Five-marks Questions
Z = R + S + PQ + PQR + PQS
Now 1. Given the Boolean function F in three variables R, S
and T as
W = R + RS + PQ = ( R + R)( R + S ) + PQ (1)
=1
F = RST + RRT + RST
W = R + S + PQ
(a) Express F in the minimum sum-of-products form.
X = PQRS + ( P + P )QRS = PQRS + QRS (2) (b) Express F in the minimum product-of-sums form.
(c) Assuming that both true and complement forms of
= RS (Q + PQ ) = RS (Q + Q )(Q + P )
=1
the input variables are available, draw a circuit to
implement F using the minimum number of 2-in-
= RSQ + RSP [1996]
Y = RS + PR + Q( P + P ) = RS + PR + Q = RS + ( P + P )( P + R) put NAND gates only.
=1 =1
Solution: (a) F = RST + RST + RST
= RS + P +
Y = RS + PR + Q( P + P )Y= =RSRS+ +PR R = RS + PR ⋅ Q = SR + ( R + P ) Q = RST + RT ( S + S )
=1 PR+ +QQ=( PRS+ +P )( P= +RSP )( P + R)
=1 + PR + Q = RS + ( P + P )( P + R)
= Y = SR + RQ + PQ=1 =1 = RST + RT
= RS + P + R = RS + PR=⋅ QRS= +SR + ( R + P ) Q
P + R = RS + PR ⋅ Q = SR + ( R + P )Q (b) F = RST + RST + RST
= Y = SR + RQ + PQ = Y = SR + RQ + PQ ∑m(2, 5, 7)
3
Z = R +ZS =+ P
R (+QS++SP) (+QPQR
+ S ) + PQR
= R + S =+ P
R (+SS++QP)((P
S +Q
QR)()P + QR)
= R + S =+ (RP++SSQ PP+ +SQ
+ ()( Q )(+PR+
) Q + R)
= R + S =+ PS
R +QS ++ PQ ++
PS Q + SQR
PRPQ + PR + SQR
= R + S =+ P
R (+QS++RP) (=QR++RS) =+ PQ
R + S + PQ To possible solves
Solution 1 → F = ( R + S )( R + T )( R + T )
+ PR = R + S =+ PQ
+ PR R + S + PQ (P + 1 = 1) 4
From (1) (2) (4) w = z. From (2) and (4) x = z . Solution 2 → F = ( S + T )( R + T )( R + T )
Hence, the correct option is (a). (c) NAND – NAND → AND-OR
F = RST + RT
6.12 | Digital Circuits
EN
F
F
A B
(A) 0 and 1 (B) Hi-Z and D (A) XNOR (B) SRAM Cell
(C) Hi-Z and D (D) 0 and D (C) XOR (D) Latch
Solution: Solution:
VDD
X
EN
D
Y
X = EN ⋅ D
A B
Y = EN + D On simplification
When EN = 0 When EN = 1
B
X = 0⋅ D = 1 X = 1⋅ D = D
A
Y = 0+ D = 0 Y = 1+ D = D
∴ F is Hight-z ∴ F is D
B A
Hence, the correct option is (B).
A B
6.14 | Digital Circuits
A B F (C) Either X = 1, Y = 1 or X = 0, Y = 0
(D) X = 0, Y = 0
0 0 1
Solution: When p = 0, Q = 0 ⇒ x = 1, y = 1
0 1 0
1 0 0 when p = 1, Q= 1 ⇒ x = 1, y = 0
1 1 1 (or)
when p = 1, Q = 1 ⇒ x = 0, y = 1
∴ F is an XOR circuit.
p=01
3. The logic function f (X, Y) realized by the given circuit x = 10
is [2018]
VDD
X X
Y Y
f(X, Y)
Q=01 y=101
X X
For the implementation of XOR gate, number of NAND
gates required can be obtained as
Y Y
f(X, Y)
A
f
B
f(X, Y) = XY + XY = X Y = X ⊕ Y
Hence, the correct option is (D)
4. In the latch circuit show, the NAND gates have non- From above figure to design a XOR gate minimum 4
zero, but unequal propagation delays. The present NAND gates are required.
input condition is: P = Q = 0, If the input condition is
changed simultaneously to P = Q = 1, the outputs X and Hence, the correct option is (A).
Y are [2017] 6. A universal logic gate can implement any Boolean
function by connecting sufficient number of them
P
X appropriately. Three gates are shown. [2015]
X F1 = X + Y X F2 = X ∙ Y
Y Y
Y Gate 1 Gate 2
Q
X F3 = X + Y
(A) X = 1, Y = 1
Y
(B) Either X = 1, Y = 0 or X = 0, Y = 1
Gate 3
Chapter 3 Logic Gates | 6.15
X AB 20 ns delay
X+0=X 40 ns of AND gate
0
NOR gate C 20 ns
20 ns delay
X X 40 ns of XOR gate
AB ⊕ C
0 X+Y=X+Y
Y Hence, the correct Answer is (40).
OR gate 8. A 3-input majority gate is defined by the logic func-
tion M(a, b, c) = ab + bc + ca. Which one of the
X X+Y following gates is represented by the function
Y
X + Y + 0 = XY
( ( ) )
M M ( a, b, c ), M a, b, c , c ? [2015]
0
(A) 3-input NAND gate
AND gate (B) 3-input XOR gate
(C) 3-input NOR gate
Hence, the correct option is (C). (D) 3-input XNOR gate
7. All the logic gates shown in the figure have propagation Solution: 3 input Majority gate M (a, b, c) = ab + bc +
delay of 20 ns. Let A = C = 0 and B = 1 until time t = 0. ac.
At t = 0, all the inputs flip (i.e., A = C = 1 and B = 0)
and remain in that state. For t > 0, output Z = 1 for a
( ( ) )
M M ( a, b, c ), M a, b, c , c = ?
(a) Y = AB + AB (b) Y = A + B
(c) Y = A + B (d) Y = AB [2014]
Solution: (a) (a) two or more of the inputs P, Q, R are `0’
(b) two or more of the inputs P, Q, R are `1’
(c) any odd number of the inputs P, Q, R is `0’
(d) any odd number of the inputs P, Q, R is `1’
[2011]
Solution: (b)
(C = 0)
Y = ( A + B + C/ + AB)(C ) = 1 Y = PQ ⋅ QR + PR = PQ + QR + PR
=0
Y = PQ + QR + PR
Y = ( A + B + AB)
For y = 1, either PQ or QR or PR = 1 (at least any one)
(
Y = A + B + AB ) ⇒ 2 or more of P, Q, R = 1.
= ( A + B) AB Hence, the correct option is (b).
1 2. Match the logic gates in Column-A with their equiva-
Y = ( A + B)( A + B ) = AB + AB. lents in Column-B.
Hence, the correct option is (a). Column-A Column-B
10. A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being
at the ground floor and the other one at the first floor.
The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF
by any one of the switches irrespective of the state of
the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb
resembles
(a) an AND gate (b) an OR gate
(c) an XOR gate (d) a NAND gate [2013]
(a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
Solution: (c)
(b) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(1) Bulb can be turned ON/OFF by any one of switch (c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
⇒ for (0,1) and (1,0) input, output = 1, else zero (d) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 [2010]
Chapter 3 Logic Gates | 6.17
Solution: (d) 14. The figure shows the internal schematic of a TTL
AND-OR-lnvert (AOI) gate. For the inputs shown in
the figure, the output Y is
(a) 0 (b) 1
P : NOR= AB = A + B ( 4)
(c) AB (d) AB [2004]
′
Q : NAND( A + B) = A + B = ( AB) ( 2) Solution:(a)
R: X – OR = (3)
S: X – NOR = (1)
( A ⊕ B ) = A B + AB = AB + AB = A ⊕ B
A ⊕ B = AB + AB = A ⊕ B
⇒ P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1.
Now for TTL, floating input considers 1.
Hence, the correct option is (d).
13. For the output F to be 1 is the logic circuit shown, the y = (1 ⋅1) + ( A ⋅ B ) = 1 + AB AB + 1 = 1
input combination should be y =1= 0
y = 0.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
15. If the input to the digital circuit (in the figure) consist-
ing of a cascade of 20 XOR gates is X, then the output
Y is equal to
(a) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 (b) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(c) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (d) A = 0, B = 0, C = 1
[2010]
Solution: (d) (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) X (d) X [2002]
Solution: (b)
If C = 0 ⇒ both
A ⊕ B & A ⊕ B = 1 → ( not possible) X ⊕ 1 = X
For example 2nd X-OR:
C = 1 ⇒ either A ⊕ B = 1 or A⊕B = 1
A = 0, B = 1 X ⊕X = X⋅X + X⋅X = X⋅X + XX = X +X
or A = 1, B = 0 =1
⇒ either C =1
or A = 1, B = 1 ∴ For X-OR of odd number, output = X
or A = 0, B = 0
Even number of output = 1
⇒ ( A = 0 = B , C = 1) ⇒ for y = output of 20th X-OR, y = 1.
Hence, the correct option is (d). Hence, the correct option is (b).
6.18 | Digital Circuits
16. For the ring oscillator shown in the figure, the propaga- Solution: (c)
tion delay of each inverter is 100 pico sec. What is the
fundamental frequency of the oscillator output? Z = ABC ,
(a) 1, 0, 1 (b) 0, 0, 1
(c) 1, 1, 1 (d) 0, 1, 1 [2000] (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) A (d) A [1997]
Solution: (d)
Solution: (c)
Now F = AO + A ⋅ O
For x = 1,
(a) c = 1 = A ⋅1 + O
(b) A⊕ B =1 ⇒ B ≠ A
F=A
(c) B ⊕ C = 1 ⇒ B = C = 1 (from a)
c = 1, B = 1, A ≠ B = 0 (from b) Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (b) E1
D1
D2
E2
D3
E3
V0
1 kΩ
10 V
= x yz + x yw D
Z = P ⊕ Q and M1 = Z ⊕ R = P ⊕ Q ⊕ R.
Hence, the correct option is (d).
5. The point P in the following figure is stuck-at-1. The
output f will be
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5 [2005]
Solution: (a)
(a) M1 = (P OR Q) XOR R ∴For SOP expression:
(b) M1 = (P AND Q) XOR R ⇒1 quad + 1 pair is taken as two product terms.
(c) M1 = (P NOR Q) XOR R
(d) M1=(P XOR Q) XOR R [2008]
Solution: (d)
X = P ⋅Q
Y = P+Q Hence, the correct option is (a).
7. A Boolean function f of two variables x and y is
Z = X ⋅ Y = PQ( P + Q )
defined as follows: f(0, 0) = f(0, 1) = f(1, 1) = 1;
= ( P + Q )( P + Q ) f (1, 0) = 0. Assuming complements of x and y are not
available, a minimum cost solution for realizing f using
= PQ + PQ
6.22 | Digital Circuits
only 2-input NOR gates and 2-input OR gates (each Solution: (b)
having unit cost) would have a total cost of
(a) 1 unit (b) 4 unit
(c) 3 unit (d) 2 unit [2004]
Solution: (d)
X Y F
0 0 1
(a) Before to (t < to)
0 1 1
Vi = 0, G1 = 1
1 1 1 G2 = 01(1⊕ 0)
1 0 0 ( b) t > to, Vi = 1
Now, output of G1 becomes 1 + 1 = 0 (after 10 ns)
f = x( y + y ) + xy
t +t
= x + xy ∴Till t0 − 0 1 V0 remains ( G2 = 0 ⊕ 1 = 1 ) after
t2
f = x+ y t0+ t1, G1 = 0 (after TPD = 10 ns)
As X is not available ⇒ G2 = 0 ⊕ 1 =1, but after TPD = 20ns
(t0 + t1 ) + 20 ns
⇒ After , V0 = 1
t3
V0 remain 0 from (t0 + t1) – (t0 + t3)
2 gates ⇒ 2 unit. (t2 – t3)→V0 = 0
Hence, the correct option is (d). ⇒ V0 t < t0 = 1
8. The gates G1 and G2 in the figure have propagation t0 < t < t 2 = 1
delays of 10 nsec and 20 nsec, respectively. If the input t 2 < t3 = 0
Vi makes an abrupt change from logic 0 to 1 at time t =
t3 < t = 1
t0, then the output waveform V0 is
(a)
Hence, the correct option is (b).
9. In the figure, the LED
(b)
(c)
Solution: (d)
Five-marks Questions
1. The truth table for the output Y in terms of three inputs
A, B and C are given in Table. Draw a logic circuit reali-
zation using only NOR gates.
A 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1
B 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1
C 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0
Y
LED glows when n side is low (P → +5)
⇒ output of NAND = 0 [1993]
⇒ Output AND and XOR = 1 Solution: y = πm (3, 5, 6, 7) = y (CBA) = y(ABC)
⇒ Input of AND = 1, 1
Input of XOR = 0, 1 or 1, 0
For AND gate: S1 and S2 should be open (input = high
(+5 Vcc)) but when S1 and S2 are open, then input to
X-OR = 121 ⇒ output = 0
∴ If S1S2 both open → NAND ≠ 0
LED does not glow
S1S2 both close → NAND ≠ 0
y = ( A + B )( B + C )(C + A)
∴ If S1S2 both open → NAND ≠ 0
LED does not glow
S1S2 both close → NAND ≠ 0
Hence, the correct option is (d).
10. For the logic circuit shown in the figure, the simplified
Boolean expression for the output Y is
y = (( AB B B ) + AB B + C )
Now AB. B = ( A + B) B = AB + B = ( A +1)( B )
=B=B A +1 = 1
Figure (a) Figure (b)
⇒ y = ( B ⋅ B) + B + C = O + B + C = 87 (' B ⋅ B ) = 0
(a) Enter the logical values in the K-map in the format
y = 1 + BC = 1 = 0 shown in figure (a). Derive the minimal Boolean
y= 0 sum-of-products expression whose output is zero
when a majority of the pumps fail.
6.24 | Digital Circuits
P(x, y, z) = xy + yz + zx
(b)
Chapter 3 Logic Gates | 6.25
(b)
y = S3 S1S0 + S3 S2 S1 + S3 S2 S1 + S3 S1S0
In solution quad has not been included because it is
Reduntant term.
(c). y = S3 S2 S1 + S3 S2 S1 + S3 S1S0 + S3 S1S0
= S2 ( S3 S1 + S3 S1 ) + S0 ( S3 S1 + S3 S1 )
= S2 ( S3 ⊕ S1 ) + S0 ( S3 ⊕ S1 ) = S2 S + S0 SA
s
Chapter 4
Combinational Circuits
Y = ABC ⊕ AB ⊕ BC
One-mark Questions
=
⎣ ( )
ABC ⊕ ⎡ AB BC + AB ( BC )⎤
⎦
1. Consider the circuit shown in the figure[2017]
ABC ⊕ ⎡⎣ ABC + ABC ⎤⎦
=
Y 0
ABC ⊕ B ( A ⊕ C )
=
MUX 0
0 1 MUX F
(
= ABC ⎡⎣ B + AC + A C ⎤⎦ + ABC ABC + A. BC
)
= ABC + ABC + ABC
1
= BC + AB = B (C + A)
X
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Z
3. A 4 : 1 multiplexer is to be used for generating the out-
The Boolean expression F implemented by the circuit put carry of a full adder. A and B are the bits to be
is added while Cin is the input carry and Cout is the output
X Y Z + XY + Y Z (B)
XY Z + XZ + Y Z carry. A and B are to be used as the select bits with A
(A)
being the more significant select bit. [2016]
(C) XY Z + XY + Y Z (D)
X Y Z + XZ + Y Z
I0
2. The output of the combinational circuit given below is I1 4:1 Cout
[2016] I2 Mux
I3 S1 S0
A
A B
2E 2Y0 Y4
2Y1 Y5
2A0
2Y2 Y6
2A1 2Y3 Y7
7. The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever 9. The Boolean function f implemented in the figure using
the 2-bit input A is greater than the 2-bit input B. The two input multiplexers is
number of combination for which the output is logic 1
is
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 10 [2012]
Solution: (b)
f = ABC + ABC .
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Y = D 8 D 4 D 2 D1 + D 8 D 4 D2 D1 + D 8 D4 D2 D1 + D8 D 4 D1 .
Y = D 8 D 4 D 2 D1 + D 8 D 4 D 2 D 1 + D 8 D4 D2 D1 + D8 D 4 D1 .
(BCD – till a)
Hence, the correct option is (b).
I0 I0 F(U, V, W, X)
I1 4 × 1 I1 4 × 1
VCC
MUX MUX
I2 I2
I3 S1 S0 I3 S1 S0
U V W X
For 4 × 1 MUX,
6.30 | Combinational Circuits
(
F = UV + UV W )( ) Solution:
⇒ Q = WX ⋅ 0 + W X ⋅1 + WX ⋅1 + W ⋅ X ⋅ 0
Q = W X + WX
Solution: All the flip-flops are in toggle mode Qn+1 =
Qn Q =W ⊕ X
F = (Y Z + YZ )(Q ) + (YZ + YZ ).0
J = 1, K = 1, Qn+1 = Q n ,
Borrow B = XY
Checking all MUX:
(a) Y
X
Y
(b) (b)
D = Y X +Y X
B = YD + Y X ≠ Borrow
(c)
B = X Y + Y X = X ⊕ Y ≠ Borrow
(d) B = Y X + XY ≠ Borrow
Hence, the correct option is (a).
8. An 8-to-1 multiplexer is used to implement a logical
function Y as shown in the figure. The output
(c)
[2014]
Chapter 4 Combinational Circuits | 6.33
Y = ABC + ACD.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
9. A 16-bit ripple carry adder is realized using 16 identical
full adders (FA) as shown in the figure. The carry-prop-
agation delay of each FA is 12 ns and the sum-propaga-
tion delay of each FA is 15 ns. The worst case delay (in
ns) of this 16-bit adder will be_________. f = ABI 3 + ABI 2 + ABI1 + ABI 0
Solution: ⇒ f = m12 + ma + m8 + m7 + m5 + m3 + m2
In ripple carry adder, carry out of 1 FA becomes carry
in of next FA. f = ∑ m(2,3,5, 7,8, 9,12) .
∴ For generation of G5, P.d. (carry) of all 16 FA added: Hence, the correct option is (d).
= 16 × 12 ns
Common Data for Question 11 and 12.
= 192 ns.
Two products are sold from a vending machine, which
For sum generation, output sum of a FA uses carry out
has two push buttons P1 and P2. When a button is
of previous
pressed, the price of the corresponding product is dis-
FA ⇒ 16 FA P.d. (sum) added played in a 7-segment display.
= 16 × 15 ns If no buttons are pressed, ‘0’ is displayed, signifying
= 240 ns ‘Rs. 0’
As final sum pd > carry pd ⇒ Worst case delay If only P1 is pressed, ‘2’ is displayed, signifying ‘Rs. 2’
= Pd sum If only P2 is pressed, ‘5’ is displayed, signifying ‘Rs. 5’
= 240 ns. If both P1 and P2 are pressed, ‘E’ is displayed, signify-
10. The Boolean function realized by the logic circuit ing ‘Error.’
shown is The names of the segments in the 7-segment display,
and the glow of the display for ‘0’,
‘2’, ‘5’ and ‘E’ are shown below.
Consider
(i) push button pressed/not pressed in equivalent to
(a) F = ∑m(0, 1, 3, 5, 9, 10, 14) logic 1/0, respectively.
(b) F = ∑m(2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 12, 13) (ii) a segment glowing/not glowing in the display is
equivalent to logic 1/0, respectively.
6.34 | Combinational Circuits
(5) b = P1 P 2 + P1 P2 = P2
(6) f = P1 P + P P + P P = P P
2 2 1 1 2 1 2
⇒ P1 & P2 req
12. What are the minimum numbers of NOT gates and (2 NOT gates)
2-mput OR gates required to design the logic of the g, e, f → 10R each (3 OR)
driver for this 7-segment display? 2 NOT & 3 OR.
(a) 3 NOT and 4 OR (b) 2 NOT and 4 OR Hence, the correct option is (d).
(c) 1 NOT and 3 OR (d) 2 NOT and 3 OR 14. For the circuit cuit shown in the following figure, I0−I3
[2009] are inputs to the 4 : 1 multiplexer. R (MSB) and S are
Solution: (a) control bits.
= P1 P 2 + P2
= ( P1 + P2 )( P2 + P2 )
=1
⇒ d = c + e, g = P1 + P2 .
Hence, the correct option is (a).
1 3. What are the minimum number of 2-to-1 multiplexers
required to generate a 2-input AND gate and a 2-input
Ex-OR gate?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 1 (d) 2 and 2 [2009]
Chapter 4 Combinational Circuits | 6.35
I2 S1 = A ⊕ B (from 1)
z = RSI 3 + RS PQ + RSI1 + RSI 0
= ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC
= RSP + RSPQ + RSP + RS ( P + Q )
Hence, the correct option is (a).
= RSP + RSPQ + RSP + P RS + QRS
16. An I/O peripheral device shown in the figure below is
Solving by k-map to be interfaced to an 8085 microprocessor. To select
Quad PQ the I/O device in the I/O address range D4 H-D7 H, its
Pair : RSQ, PQS chip-select (CS ) should be connected to the output of
the decoder shown in the figure
⇒ z = PQ + PQS + QRS (a)
PQ
RS
A 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0
(O4) 4 = 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0
(D7) 4 = 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1
Input of decoder = 101 (for D4 to D7)
=5
(a) X = ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC Output
⇒ 5 to CS
(b) X = ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC (b)
(c) X = AB + BC + AC Hence, the correct option is (b).
(d) X = AB + BC + AC [2007] 17. The circuit shown in the figure converts
Solution: (a)
Output of MUX (1):
S1 = AB I 3 + ABI 2 + ABI1 + AB I 0
=0 =0
S1 = ( AB + AB)
Output of MUX (2):
X = S1S0 I 3 + S1S0 I 2 + S1S0 I1 + S1S0 I 0
=0 =1 =1 =0 (a) BCD to binary code
= S1S0 + S1S0 (b) Binary to excess –3 code
⇒ X = S1 ⊕ S = A ⊕ B ⊕ C (c) Excess –3 to Gray code
(d) Gray to Binary code [2003]
S0 = C (given)
6.36 | Combinational Circuits
X4 = A4 and output y5 y4 y3 y2 y1 = 00010 ⇒
X 3 = A4 ⊕ A3 = X 4 ⊕ A3 4-bit subtractor
X 2 = A2 ⊕ X 3 ( A4 + A3 ) Q → input (4-bit)
R → Cin
X1 = A1 ⊕ X 2 ( A4 + A3 + A2 )
By drawing T. T. find outputs z → borrow out
For example: For A4A3A2A1 = 1010, output = 1100 Complete truth table can be checked for all 23 (4-bit
(GARY CODE) . inputs)
Hence, the correct option is (d). Hence, the correct option is (b).
18. The minimum number of 2-to-1 multiplexers required 20. If the input X3, X2, X1, X0 to the ROM in the figure are 8
to realize a 4-to-1 multiplexer is 4 2 1 BCD numbers, then the outputs Y3, Y2, Y1 Y0 are
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 [2004]
Solution: (c)
(2 × 1) MUX to realize (4 × 1) MUX
(4 × 1) MUX: 2 select lines, 4 input
(A, B) (I0 – I3)
F2 (A, B, C, D) = (A + B) + (A + B + C)
F3 (A, B, C, D) = ∑13,15 + ∑ 3, 5
φ
(a) What is the minimum size of the ROM required?
(b) Determine the data in each location of the ROM.
[1995]
Solution: 4 inputs (ABCD) and 3 outputs
(a) indeterminate (F1 F2 F3)
(b) A ⊕ B So size of ROM = 24 × 3 = 48
(b) f1 ( A, B, C , D ) = ABCD + ABCD
(c)
A⊕ B
= ∑m(0, 15)
(d) C ( A ⊕ B ) + C(A ⊕ B) [2001]
f ( ABCD ) = ( A + B)( A + B + C )
Solution:(c) 2
For 8 × 1 MUX: *(For TTL, flowing input = 1) = ( A + B + C )( A + B + C )( A + B + C )
Output y ⇒ input to S2 = C + (1) = C + 1 = 1 = ( A + B + C + D )( A + B + C + D )
⇒ from 8 outputs, lower 4 are 0 ( S 2 = 0)
( A + B + C + D )( A + B + C + D )
⇒ y = S2 ( ABI 3 + B AI 2 + BAI1 + B AI 0 )
=1 0 0 =1 = ( A + B + C + D )( A + B + C + D )
= 1( AB + AB )
= πm(0, 1, 2, 3, 12, 13)
y = A⊕B
=∑m (4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 14, 15)
F3(ABCD) = ∑m(13,15) + ∑(3,5)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
2 2. For a binary half-subtractor having two inputs A and B, A B C D F1 F2 F3
the correct set of logical expressions for the outputs D 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
(= A minus B) and 1 (= borrow) are 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
(a)
D = AB+ AB, X = AB 2 0 0 1 0 0 0 0
(b)
D = AB + AB + AB , X = AB 4 0 1 0 0 0 1 0
(c)
D = AB + AB , X = AB 5 0 1 0 1 0 1 1
6 0 1 1 0 0 1 0
(d)
D = AB + AB, X = AB [1999]
7 0 1 1 1 0 1 0
8 1 0 0 0 0 1 0
6.38 | Combinational Circuits
9 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 8 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0
10 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 9 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1
11 1 0 1 1 0 1 0
W = ∑m(11, 12) + ∑d(5, 6, 7, 13, 14, 15)
12 1 1 0 0 0 0 0
X = ∑m(4, 8, 9, 10) + ∑d(5, 6, 7, 13, 14, 15)
13 1 1 0 1 0 0 1
Y = ∑m(2, 3, 9, 10) + ∑d(5, 6, 7, 13, 14, 15)
14 1 1 1 0 0 1 0
Z = ∑m(1, 3, 8, 10, 12) + ∑d(5, 6, 7, 13, 14, 15)
15 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) W
2. A 'code converter' is to be designed to convert from
the BCD (5421) to the normal BCD (8421). The input
BCD combinations for each digit are given below. A
block diagram of the converter is shown in figure.
BCD (5421)
Decimal
A B C D
0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 1
2 0 0 1 0
3 0 0 1 1
4 0 1 0 0
5 1 0 0 0
6 1 0 0 1
X
7 1 0 1 0
8 1 0 1 1
9 1 1 0 0
Z w
(b) W = AB + ACD
X = AB + ABC + ABD
or
AB + ABC + ACD
or
AB + ACD + ABD
Y = AC + ACD + CD
Z = AD + AD
Solution: (a) y
Decimal BCD (5421) BCD (8421)
A B C D W X Y Z
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
2 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0
3 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1
4 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0
5 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
6 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0
7 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1
8 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0
9 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 z
W=A F3:
X = AB
Y = AC
Z = AB + BD + ACD + BCD
Hence, the correct option is (a).
3. It is desired to generate the following three Boolean F3 = ab + bc (3)
functions.
From the OR gate array
F1 = abc + abc + bc F1 = P1 + P2 (4)
F2 = P2 + P3 (5)
F2 = abc + ab ± abc
F3 = P4 + P5 (6)
F3 = abc + abc ± ac Comparing (1) and (4)
By using an OR gate array as shown in figure where P1 (2) and (5)
to P5 are the product terms in one or more of the vari- (3) and (6)
ables a, a, b, c and c. P1 = ab
Write down the terms Pv P2, P3, P4 and P5 P2 = ac
P3 = bc
Solution: First simplifying F1F2F3
P = bc, P5 = ac
or
P4 = ac , P5 = bc
4. In certain application, four inputs A, B, C, D (both true
and complement forms available are fed to logic cir-
cuit, producing an output F which operates a relay).
The relay turns on when F(ABCD) = 1 for the follow-
ing states of the inputs (ABCD): '0000', '0010', '0101',
'0110', '1101' and '1110'. States '1000' and '1001' do
not occur, and for the remaining states, the relay is off.
Minimize F with the help of a Karnaugh and realize
it using a minimum number of 3-input NAND gates.
[1999]
F1 = ab + ac (1) Solution:
F1:
F2:
X = ( A + B + C )( A + B + C )( A + B + C )( A + B + C )( A + B + C )
X = ( A + B + C )( A + B + C )( A + B + C )( A + B + C )( A + B + C )
5. The inputs to a digital circuit shown in the figure is
are the external signals A, B and C. ( A, B and C are not (b) X = AC + AB = A( B + C )
available). The +5V power supply (logic 1) and the
ground (logic 0) are also available. The output of the y1 = C .1 + C . B = C + BC = (C + C )(C + B)
circuit is X = AB + ABC . y1 = B + C
y2 = Ay1 + A0 = Ay1
y2 = A( B + C ) = X
TCIK
CLK1 D Q
Clk Q1 Clk Q2 CLK1 D-Latch Output
12 kHz CLK2 CK
CLK2
D1 = Q1 ⋅ Q2 TCIK/5
D = Q1
2
Hence, the correct answer is (29.9 to 30.1).
Clk Present State Input Next State
3. Assume that all the digital gates in the circuit shown
Q1 Q2 D1 D2 Q1+ Q2+
in the figure are ideal, the resistor R = 10 kΩ and the
0 0 0 1 0 1 0 supply voltage is 5 V. The D flip flops D1, D2, D3, D4
1 1 0 0 1 0 1 and D5 are initialized with logic values 0, 1, 0, 1, and 0,
2 0 1 0 0 0 0 respectively. The clock has a 30% duty cycle. [2016]
3 0 0 – – – –
∴ There are only 3 states.
12 R = 10 kΩ
So, output frequency will be = 4 KHz D Q D Q D Q D Q D Q
3 D1 D2 D3 D4 D5
Hence, the correct answer is (4).
Clock
2. Consider the D-Latch shown in the figure, which is
transparent when its clock input CK is high and has 0
propagation delay. In the figure, the clock signal CLK1 The average power dissipated (in mW) in the resistor R
has a 50% duty cycle and CLK2 is 1/4 period delayed is ______ .
version of CLK1. The duty cycle at the output of the Solution: All the flip flops are provided same positive
latch in percentage is _______________. [2017] edge clock and it will behave as a counter.
Chapter 5 Sequential Circuits | 6.43
Clk Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q3 + Q5 = Y
0 0 1 0 1 0 0 Set Q
1 0 0 1 0 1 1 5V
2 1 0 0 1 0 0
3 0 1 0 0 1 1 Q
Reset
4 1 0 1 0 0 1
(A) NOR gates to NAND gates
5 0 1 0 1 0 0
(B) Inverters to buffers
(C) NOR gates to NAND gates and inverters to buffers
(D) 5 V to ground
ClK
Solution:
TTL implements NAND gates.
0 T 2T 3T 4T 5T
Set
Y Q
1 V (t )
T 2 Reset Q
T ∫0 R
PAvg= dt
Reset
Q
1 ⎛ 25 ⎞
T 2T 4T 5T
25
= ⎜ ∫ + ∫ 0 dt + ∫ + ∫ 0 dt ⎟ mW
5T ⎝ 0 10 T 10 4T ⎠
2T
Set Q
1 ⎛ 25 25 ⎞
= ⎜ + × 2⎟ = 1.5 mW For NOR gate Reset, set are connected as inputs to Q,
5 ⎝ 10 10 ⎠
Q NOR gates.
Hence, the correct Answer is (1.5 mW). In the given circuit set, Reset are connected to Q, Q
4. A three bit pseudo random number generator is shown. gates, so by replacing NOR gates with NAND gates,
Initially, the value of output Y = Y2 Y1 Y0 is set to 111. we can get the correct functionality of SR latch
The value of output Y after three clock cycles is[2015] Hence, the correct option is (A).
Y2 Y1 Y0 6. The figure shows a binary counter with synchronous
clear input. With the decoding logic shown, the counter
works as a [2015]
D2 Q2 D1 Q1 D0 Q0
Binary
counter Q3
CLK
Q2
CLK
Q1
(A) 000 (B) 001
Q0
(C) 010 (D) 100
CLR
Solution:
D2 D1 D0
Clk Q2 Q1 Q0 Q1 ⊕ Q 0 Q2 Q1
0 1 1 1 0 1 1
(A) mod-2 counter (B) mod-4 counter
1 0 1 1 0 0 1 (C) mod-5 counter (D) mod-6 counter
2 0 0 1 1 0 0
Solution:
3 1 0 0
Binary
Hence, the correct option is (D). counter
5. An SR latch is implemented using TTL gates as shown Q3
in the figure. The set and reset pulse inputs are provided Clk Q2
Q1
using the push-button switches. It is observed that the Q0
circuit fails to work as desired. The SR latch can be CLR
made functional by changing [2015]
6.44 | Digital Circuits
Given circuit is Binary Counter with Synchronous 8. The circuit shown in the figure is a
clear.
CLK Q3 Q2 Q1 Q0 CLK = Q3 Q2
0 0 0 0 0 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
2 0 0 1 0 1
3 0 0 1 1 1 (a) toggle Flip Flop
4 0 1 0 0 0 (b) JK Flip Flop
5 0 0 0 0 1 (c) SR Latch
(d) Master-Slave D Flip Flop [2014]
So no. of states = Modulus = 5 Solution: (d)
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Output of Q0 = clk of Q1
Q1 = clk of Q2 and so on
& clk → Q0
⇒ ASYN counters ⇒ 2n Asyn counter of clk freq = f
then freq of In this circuit, the race around
Q1 = f / 2 (a) does not occur
(b) occurs when CLK = 0
Q2 = f / 2 × 2 (f / 2 2)
(c) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 1
f clk 1 MHz 1000 K (d) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 0 [2012]
f3 = = =
8 8 8 Solution: (a)
f3 = 6.25 KHz
f
Q3 = ( f/23 )
2× 2× 2
Q4 = f / 24
Q5 = f / 25
Chapter 5 Sequential Circuits | 6.45
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 [1998]
Solution: (c)
Initially cleared Q = 0
Ck J K Q Q
Initially cleared: Q0 Q1 = 00 0 – – 0 1
Q 0 Q1 = 11 1 1 1 1 0 (toggle)
Q 0 2 0 1 0 1
→ 10 →
3 1 1 1 0
Next clk: J0K0 = 11 ⇒ Q0 = 1
4 0 1 0 1
J1K1 = 01 ⇒ Q1 = 0, Q1 = 1 5 1 1 1 0
Next clk: J0K0 = 11 ⇒ Q0 = 0 (toggle) 6 0 1 0 1
Q0 → 10 → 01 ⇒ Q = 010101.
J1K1 = 11 ⇒ Q1 = 1 (toggle) Hence, the correct option is (d).
Next clk: J0K0 = 01 ⇒ Q0 = 0 (reset) 1 6. An R-S latch is
J1K1 = 01 ⇒ Q1 = 0 (reset) (a) combinatorial circuit
(b) synchronous sequential circuit
⇒ (c) one bit memory element
(d) one clock delay element [1995]
Mod – 3 counter.
Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
R–S latch
15. In a J-K flip-flop we have J == Q, and K = 1 (see figure). (a) Combinational Circuit – No (seq)
Assuming the flip-flop was initially cleared and then (b) Syn. Seq. Ckt – No (No clk, ∴ not sync)
clocked for 6 pulses, the sequence at the Q output will (c) 1 – bit mem. Element – Yes
be (d) 1 clk delay – No (No clk in latch)
(a) 010000 (b) 011001 Hence, the correct option is (c).
(c) 010010 (d) 010101
17. A switch-tail ring counter is made by using a single D
flip-flop. The resulting circuit is a
(a) SR flip-flop (b) JK flip-flop
(c) D flip-flop (d) T flip-flop [1995]
Solution: (d)
* Switch Tail → Ripple counter like
[1997]
Chapter 5 Sequential Circuits | 6.47
Toggle ⇒ TFF
Hence, the correct option is (d).
1 8. Synchronous counters are _______than the ripple
counters. [1994] Q0 n +1 = Q2 n ⊕ Q3n
Solution: Hence, the correct option is (c).
Synchronous counter: All FF work simultaneously 2 1. An S–R FLIP–FLOP can be converted into a T FLIP-
(have individual clk connection) FLOP by connecting _____to Q and ________ to Q
Ripple counter: output of 1 FF acts as clk to next FF [1991]
(output ripples through FF connections) Solution:
∴Synch. Are FASTER than ripple. S–R FF to T FF
19. A pulse train with a frequency of 1 MHz is counted
using a modulo-1024 ripple counter built with J-K flip
flops. For proper operation of the counter, the maxi-
mum permissible propagation delay per flip flop stage
is _______n sec. [1993]
Solution:
T = SQ n + RQn
Modulo 1024 ripple counter
⇒ 210, i.e., 10 FF (N = 10)
As fclk = 1 mHz
1
and we know f clk < (N = number of FF)
NTp ⋅ d
1
or TPD < For T FF,
N ⋅ f clk
1 T = SQ n + RQn
⇒ TPDmax = = 10 −7 = 100 × 10 −9
10 × 1× 106 ⇒ R is conn. to Q
= 100 n sec.
S to Q .
2 0. The initial contents of the 4-bit serial-in-parallel-out,
22. A 4-bit modulo-16 ripple counter uses JK flip-flops. If
right-shift, Shift Register shown in the figure is 0110.
the propagation delay of each FF is 50 ns, the maxi-
After three clock pulses are applied, the contents of the
mum clock frequency that can be used is equal to:
Shift Register will be
(a) 20 MHz (b) 10 MHz
(c) 5 MHz (d) 4 MHz [1990]
Solution: (c)
For ripple counter, total delay
= Ntpd
= 4 × 50 ns
(a) 0000 (b) 0101
(c) 1010 (d) 1111 [1992] and max clock frequency:
Solution: (c) 1
f <
NTPD
1 1
f max = −9
=
4 × 50 × 10 200 × 10 −9
= 5 × 106
f = 5 MHz.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
6.48 | Digital Circuits
23. A ripple counter using negative edge-triggered D-flip 25. Choose the correct statements relating to the circuit of
flops is shown in figure below. The flip-flops are cleared figure
to ‘0’ at the R input. The feedback logic is to be designed
to obtain the count sequence shown in the same figure.
The correct feedback logic is:
Two-marks Questions
1. A traffic signal cycles from Green to Yellow, Yellow to
(a) J–K flip-flop Red and Red and Red to Green. In each cycle, Green
(b) Johnson’s counter is turned on for 70 seconds, Yellow is turned on for 5
(c) R–S latch seconds and the Red is turned on for 75 seconds. This
(d) None of above [1988] traffic light has to be implemented using a finite state
Solution: (c) machine (FSM). The only input to this FSM is a clock
of 5 seconds period. The minimum number of flip-flops
If
required to implement this FSM is _______. [2018]
A B Qn+ 1 Solution: We know that in order to turn Green for 70
0 0 Qn (previous o/p) seconds we need 2 flip flops
0 1 0 We know that in order to turn Red for 75 seconds we
need 2 flip flops
1 0 1
1 flipflop is required to turn yellow colour totally we
1 1 Not valid
need 5 such flipflops to have traffic signal cycles from
∴ From PS-NS table, it is RS LATCH. Green to Yellow, Yellow to Red and Red to Green
Hence, the correct option is (c). Hence, the correct answer is 5.
Chapter 5 Sequential Circuits | 6.49
2. In the circuit shown below, a positive edge – triggered and clock periods are equal and the value of DT/Tck =
D Flip-flop is used for sampling input data Din using 0.15, where the parameters DT and TCK are shown in
clock CK. The XOR gate outputs 3.3 volts for logic the figure. Assume that the Flip and the XOR gate are
HIGH and 0 volts for logic LOW levels. The data bit ideal.
X
Din D Q TCK
D Flip-Flop CK
CLK Din
CK ΔT ΔT ΔT
If the probability of input data bit (Din) transition in Present State DA DB next State
each clock period is 0.3, the average value (in volts,
QA QB QA QB
accurate to two decimal places) of the voltage at note
X, is ______ [2018] 0 0 0 1 0 1
0 1 1 1 1 1
Solution:
⎡ 1 1 0 1 0 1
⎡ ΔT ⎤ ⎤
Vx(avg) = ⎢0.3 × 3.3 ⎢1 − ⎥ ⎥ × (0.7 × 0) V 0 1 1 1 1 1
⎣ ⎣ TCK ⎦ ⎦
1 1 0 1 0 1
=
0.3 × 3.3 × [1 – 0.15]
\ If X in = 0 the given circuit will have two states,
01, 11.
=
3.3 × 3.3 × 0.85 = 0.8415 V
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct answer is 0.82 to 0.86. 4. A 4-bit shift register circuit configured for right-shift
3. A finite state machine (FSM) is implemented using the operation, i.e., Din → A, A → B, B → C , C → D, is
D flip-flops A and B, and logic gates, as shown in the shown. If the present state of the shift register is ABCD
figure below. The four possible states of the FSM are = 1101, the number of clock cycles required to reach
QA QB = 00, 01, 10 and 11. the state ABCD = 1111 is _____________. [2017]
QA
D Q D Q QB
A B
XIN
CK Q CK Q
Din A B C D
CLK
Clock
Y=1
X = 0, Y = 0, Z = 0
Y=1
A B
Y = 0, Z = 0
X = 0, Z = 1 X = 1, Y = 1,
Z=1 Z=1
1 1 0 1
Din X = 1, Y = 0 Y = 0, Z = 1
Clock
11
S3
Solution: Here, NAND gate is used, which will behave
If the input sequence is 10101101001101, starting with to reset the counter. The counter will begin with all bits
the left-most bit, then the number of times ‘Out’ will be as 0. The clock used is positive edge triggered, thus the
1 is ___________. [2017] change in bit will occur during transition from 0 to 1.
The MSB Q0 will be complemented in every clock pulse
6. The state transition diagram for a finite state machine
and Q1 will change when a transition of 0 to 1 occurs in
with states A, B and C, and binary inputs X, Y and Z is
Q0. The LSB Q3 will change due to transition from 0 to
shown in the below figure. [2016]
1 occurring in Q2. Hence, the counter will start counter
Chapter 5 Sequential Circuits | 6.51
until all the bits become 1. As soon as all bits are 1, the (a)
output of NAND will become 0 and the bits will be reset.
The counter will behave as mod 8 counter. So Option D.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
8. A mod-n counter using a synchronous binary
up-counter with synchronous clear input is shown in
the figure. The value of n is _______. [2015] (b)
4-Bit binary QA QA
counter QB QB
CLOCK CLK
QC QC
CLEAR QD QD
(c)
Solution:
4-Bit binary QA QA
up counter QB QB
Clk
QC QC
QD QD (d)
Clear
(b) If A = 1
(i) Q = 0 ⇒ X1 = 0
Y0 = 1
6.52 | Digital Circuits
and Y = X1 = 0
⇒ D = Y = 0
⇒ Q = D = 0 (no change)
(ii) Q = 1 ⇒ X1= (1), X0 = 0
and Y = X1 = 1
⇒ D = Y = 1 & Q = D = 1 (no change)
(a) W1 (b) W2
(c) W3 (d) W4 [2014]
Chapter 5 Sequential Circuits | 6.53
J1 = Q 2 J 2 = Q1
K1 = Q2 K 2 = Q1
Q1 = Q2 = 0 (intially)
PS NS
clk Q1 Q2 J1 K1 J 2 K2 Q1 Q2
0 0 0
1 0 0 10 01 1 0
Q1 ⋅ 01100
2 1 0 10 10 1 1
3 1 1 01 10 0 1
4 0 1 01 01 0 0
Hence, the correct option is (d).
1 3. The output of a 3-stage Johnson (twisted-ring) counter
(1) At clk 1, X1 = 0, X2 = 0 is fed to a digital-to-analogue (D/A) converter as shown
⇒ Q1 Q2 = 0 ⇒ Y = 0 in the figure below. Assume all states of the counter to
(2) X1 = 1, X2 = 0 ⇒ Q2 = 0 be unset initially. The waveform which represents the
⇒ Y = Q1 . Q2 = 0 D/A converter output V0 is
(3) X1 = 1, X 2 = 1 ⇒ Y = Q1 ⋅ Q2 = 1
(4) X = 1, X2 = 1 ⇒ Y = Q1 Q2 = 0
Q1 = 1, Q2 = 1
1 2. The outputs of the two flip-flops Q1 Q2 in the figure
shown are initialized to 0, 0. The sequence generated at
Q1 upon application of clock signal is
(a)
(b)
(a) 01110... (b) 01010...
(c) 00110… (d) 01100... [2014]
6.54 | Digital Circuits
(c) (c) D A = (Q A QB + Q A QB ), DB = Q A
(d) D A = (Q A QB + Q A QB ), DB = QB
[2011]
Solution: (d)
D FF synchronous counter:
(d) DFF: Qn+1 = Dn
Qn QA : 00 → 11 → 01 → 10 (PS)
It this is PS then NS QBQA:
11 → 01 → 10 → 00 (NS)
QB Q A (PS) QB Q A (NS) ⇒ DB D A
[2011] 00 11 11
Solution: (a) ⇒ 11 01 01
01 10 10
10 00 00
⇒ D B = QB Q A + QB Q A = QB ( Q A + Q A ) = D B = Q B
D A = Q B Q A + QB Q A
Hence, the correct option is (d).
1 5. Assuming that all flip-flops are in reset conditions ini-
tially, the count sequence observed at QA in the circuit
shown is
QB ⊕ QC
clk DA DB DC QA QB QC Q1 = 0 = 1
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 Q = P2 ⋅ Q1 = 1 ⋅1 = 0 (Q1 = 1, LS )
2
1 1 0 0 1 0 0
(Q1, Q2) = (1, 0)
2 1 1 0 1 1 0
NOR: P1 = 1 ⇒ Q1 = 0
3 0 1 1 0 1 1
P2 = 1 ⇒ Q2 = 0 (Q, 0)
4 1 0 1 1 0 1
⇒ (C) NAND: (1, 0) then (1, 0).
5 0 1 0 0 1 0
NOR (1, 0) then (0, 0).
6 0 0 1 0 0 1
7 0 0 0 0 0 0 Hence, the correct option is (c).
17. What are the counting states (Q1, Q2,) for the counter
shown in the figure below?
Hence, the correct option is (d).
1 6. Refer to the NAND and NOR latches shown in the
figure. The inputs (P1 P2) for both the latches are first
made (0, 1) and then, after a few seconds, made (1, 1).
The corresponding stable outputs (Q1, Q2) are
(c)
[2008]
Chapter 5 Sequential Circuits | 6.57
At clk transition 1 → 0, (D = 0)
D + Clk = 1 ⇒ Q = 0
D + Clk = 0 Q =1
D + Clk = 0 + 0 = 1
& D + Clk = 1 + 0 = 0, Q = 1 = 0 = Q = 1 ⇒ Q = 1
(a) 00, 01, 10, 11, 00 …
⇒ Q goes to 1 at clk transition, and goes’ to Q at D (b) 00, 01, 10, 00, 01 …
transition. (c) 00, 01, 11, 00, 01 ...
Hence, the correct option is (c). (d) 00, 10, 11, 00, 10 ... [2007]
20. The following binary values were applied to the X and Solution: (b)
Y inputs of the NAND latch shown in the figure in the
sequence indicated below:
X = 0, Y = 1;
X = 0, Y = 0;
X = 1, Y = 1.
The corresponding stable P, Q outputs will be
Initially, Q0 Q1 = 00
and D0 = Q0 + Q1 = Q 0 Q1 D1 = Q0
D0 D1 Q0 Q1
(a) P = 1, Q = 0; P = 1, 0 0 0 0
Q = 0; P = 1, Q = 0 or P = 0, Q =1 1 0 1 0
(b) P = 1, Q = 0; P = 0, ⇒ Q1Q0 : 00, 01,10, 00
0 1 0 1
Q = 1 or P = 0, Q = 1; P =0, Q = 1
(c) P = 1, Q = 0; P = 1, 0 0 0 0
Q = 1; P = 1, Q = 0 or P = 0, Q = 1 1 0 1 0
(d) P = 1, Q = 0; P = 1, Q = 1; P = l, Q =1 Hence, the correct option is (b).
[2007] 2 2. For the circuit shown in the figure below, two 4-bit
Solution: (c) parallel-in serial-out shift registers loaded with the data
NAND later shown are used to feed the data to a full adder. Initially,
all the flip-flops are in clear state. After applying two
clk X Y P Q
clock pulses, the outputs of the full adder should be
1 0 1 1 0
:
2 0 0 1 1
3 1 1 Q P
⇒ If PQ (earlier) = 10 then PQ = QP = 10
If PQ (previous state) = 01 ⇒ PQ = 01
⇒ If X4 = 11, PQ depends on last state 1, 0 or 01
Hence, the correct option is (c).
21. For the circuit shown, the counter state (Q1 Q0) follows
the sequence (a) S = 0 C0 = 0 (b) S = 0 C0 = 1
(c) S = 1 C0 = 0 (d) S = 1 C0 = 1 [2006]
6.58 | Digital Circuits
26. In the modulo-6 ripple counter shown in the figure, 28. The digital block in the figure is realized using two pos-
the output of the 2-input gate is used to clear the J–K itive edge triggered D-flip-flops. Assume that for t < t0,
flip-flops. Q1 = Q2 = 0. The circuit in the digital block is given by:
(a)
(b)
The 2-input gate is
(a) a NAND gate (b) a NOR gate
(c) an OR gate (d) an AND gate [2004]
Solution: (c) (c)
Mod–6 ⇒ 0 to 5 (101)
At CBA, counter is reset.
110 (d)
⇒ A = 0 A =1
B = 1 B=0
C = 1 C =0 [2001]
Solution: (c)
But it is –ve edge triggered (a) 0.833 kHz (b) 1.0 kHz
(c) 0.91 kHz (d) 0.77 kHz [2000]
Solution: (b)
JK = 11, for all 4 FF.
Hence, the correct option is (c)
⇒ All 4 FF toggle for each clk pulse.
2 9. A sequential circuit using D Flip-Flop and logic gates is
shown in the figure, where X and Y are the inputs and Z For output frequency, find number of states
is the output. The circuit is IF all are initially cleared (0000), then
Q1 Q4
0 0 0 0
clk 1 1 0 0 0
2 0 1 0 0
3 1 1 0 0
(clk at falling edge: 1 → 0)
(a) S − R Flip-Flop with inputs X = R and Y = S Now C LR = Q4 Q2 ⇒ CLR = Q4 Q2 = 11
(b) S − R Flip-Flop with inputs X = S and Y = R ⇒ clears at Q4Q3Q2 = 1010
(c) J − K Flip-Flop with inputs X = J and Y = K
0000 → 0001 → 0110 → 0011 → … 1010
(d) Q1 − K Flip-Flop with inputs X = K and Y = J
⇒ 0 to 9 (10 states) ↓ cleared
[2000]
F 10 K
Solution: (d) ⇒ f output = = = 1 KHz.
10 10
Hence, the correct option is (b).
X Y Qn +1
0 0 Zn
0 1 Zn + Zn = 1
(a) mod-3 up counter
1 0 0+0 = 0 (b) mod-5 up counter
1 1 Z +0 = Z (c) mod-3 down counter
(d) mod-5 down counter [1999]
⇒ when XY = 01, Q = 1 (set) Y = set Solution: (d)
10, Q = 0 (reset) X = Reset
11 Q = z toggle ⇒ JK FF
⇒ X = Reset = K
Y = J (set).
Hence, the correct option is (d).
3 0. In the figure, the J and K inputs of all the four Flip-
Flips are made high. The frequency of the signal at out-
PR Q A Q B Q C
put Y is
⇒ at 010 counter is reset.
Solution:
Y = O ⋅ X = (1) 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0
used state
X = A ⋅ Y = (0)
∴No Lock out
→ A = 1 X = Y = 1 = (0) X = 0 fixed
⇒ For 111:
B = 1 Y = X = 0 = (1) Y = 1 fixed
θ2 θ1 θ0 J0 K0 J1 K1 J2 K2 θ θ+ θ
2+ 0+
Hence, the correct option is (a). 1
1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0
used state
Five-marks Question No Lock out
∴Counter is lock out free.
1. The mod-5 counter shown in figure counts through
(b) Minimum time Required = 2tF + tA
states Q2 Q1 Q0 = 000, 001, 010, 011 and 100.
1
Max clock rate =
2t F + t A
[1996]
(a) Write the 4-bit values (Q0 Q1, Q2 Q3) after each
clock pulse till the pattern (1000) reappears on (Q0
Q1 Q2 Q3).
(b) To what values should the shift register be initial-
ized so that the pattern (1001) occurs after the first
clock pulse?
Solution: (a)
D = θ 0 ⊕ θ 2 ⊕ θ3 [1996]
Chapter 5 Sequential Circuits | 6.63
Solution: DC = I0 I1 I2 I3
Present State Next State FF input C 0 (2) (4) 6
A B C A B C DA DB DC C 1 (3) 5 7
0 1 C 0
0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0
0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1
1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
DA = ∑m(2, 3, 7) + ∑d(1, 6)
DB = ∑m(0, 2, 4) + ∑d(1, 6)
DC = ∑m(2, 3, 4) + ∑d(1, 6)
DA = I0 I1 I2 I3
C 0 (2) 4 6
C 1 (3) 5 (7)
0 1 0 C
DB = I0 I1 I2 I3
C (0) (2) (4) 6
C 1 3 5 7
C C C 0
Chapter 6
Logic Families
Solution:
One-mark Questions
A B Y M1 M2 Y
1. For the circuit shown in the figure P and Q are the
0 0 0 OFF ON GND
inputs and Y is the output. [2017]
0 1 0 ON OFF A
1 0 0 OFF ON GND
PMOS 1 1 1 ON OFF A
A
Y
(a) A + B + C (b) A + B ⋅ C + A ⋅ C
(c) A + B + C (d) A ⋅ B ⋅ C [2014]
(A) OR (B) XOR
(C) NAND (D) AND
B
B
M1
A
Y
M2
Chapter 6 Logic Families | 6.65
→ CMOS logic 5. The full forms of the abbreviations TTL and CMOS in
reference to logic families are
⇒ y = A. B. C
(a) Triple Transistor Logic and Chip Metal Oxide
= A+ B +C Semiconductor
(b) Tristate Transistor Logic and Chip Metal Oxide
y = A + B + C. Semiconductor
Hence, the correct option is (a). (c) Tristate Transistor Logic and Complementary Met-
al Oxide Semiconductor
4. In the circuit shown (d) Tristate Transistor Logic and Complementary Met-
al Oxide Silicon [2009]
Solution: (c)
TTL → Tristate Transistor logic
CMOS → Complementary metal oxide S.C.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
6. Given figure is the voltage transfer characteristic of
(a) ABCDE
(a) NAND (b) AND
(b) ( AB + C ) ⋅ ( D + E ) (c) NOR (d) OR [1992]
(c) A⋅(B + C) + D ⋅ E
Solution: (d)
(d) ( A + B) ⋅ C + D ⋅ E [1997]
Solution: (c)
NMOS Logic:
[1991]
Solution:
21. Fill in the blanks of the statements below concerning Solution: Consider the circuit diagram given below
the following Logic Families: X0
Standard TTL (74 XXLL), low power TTL (74L XX),
low power schottky Wired AND
TTL (74L SXX), schottky TTL(74 SXX), emitter cou- X1
pled logic (ECL), CMOS. X2 Y
Two-marks Questions
1. The logic gates shown in the digital circuit below use
strong pull-down nMOS transistors for LOW logic level
at the outputs. When the pull-downs are off, high-value
resistors set the output logic levels to HIGH (i.e. the
pull-ups are weak). Note that some nodes are intention-
ally shorted to implement “wired logic”. Such shorted
nodes will be HIGH only if the outputs of all the gates
whose outputs are shorted are HIGH. [2018]
X0
X1
X2
Y
X3
6.70 | Logic Families
(a) flip-flop
(b) Schmidt trigger
(c) monostable multi-vibrator
(d) astable multi-vibrator [2002]
Solution: (c)
Vth = 1 V
K1 = 36 μA/V2
K2 = 9 μA/V2
V0 = ?
As ID1 = ID2 (sat mode)
⇒ K1 (Vas1 – Vt)2 = K2(Vas2 – Vt)2
This circuit will act like a mono-stable multi-vibrator.)
or k1 (Va s1 − Vt = k2 Va s2 − Vt
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Vas1 = 5 – V0, Vas2 = (V0 – 0)gmd
8. Given that for a logic family,
K1(Vas1 – Vt)2 = K2 (Vas2 – Vt)2 Vt = 1
VOH is the minimum output high-level voltage.
4
36 (5 − V − 1) 2 = 9 (V − 1) 2 Vas1 = 5 – V0 VOL is the maximum output-low-level voltage.
0 0
4(4 – V0)2 = (V0 – 1)2 VGs2 = (V0 – 0) VIH is the minimum acceptable input high-level voltage
and
2(4 – V0) = (V0 – 1)
8 – 2V0 = V0 – 1 VIL is the maximum acceptable input low-level voltage.
3V0 = 9 The correct relationship is
(a) VIH > V0H > VIL > VOL
V0 = 3V.
(b) VOH > VIH > VIL> VOL
Hence, the correct option is (c). (c) VIH > VOH > VOL> VIL
6. The DTL, TTL, ECL and CMOS family GATE of digi- (d) VOH > VIH > VOL > VIL [1987]
tal ICs are compared in the following 4 columns
6.72 | Logic Families
Two-marks Questions
1. If WL is the Word Line and BL the Bit Line, an SRAM
cell is shown in
(a)
(b)
(a)
0C00H-0FFFH, 1C00H-1FFFH, 2C00H-2FFFH,
3C00H-3FFFH
(b)
1800H-1FFFH, 2800H-2FFFH, 3800H-3FFFH,
4800H-4FFFH
(c)
0500H-08FFH, 1500H-18FFH, 3500H-38FFH,
5500H-58FFH
(d)
0800H-0BFFH, 1800H-1BFFH, 2800H-2BFFH,
3800H-3BFFH [2013]
Chapter 7 Memories | 6.75
S1 = A13
S0 = A12
A10 – A15 → decoder input
A0 – A9 → add lines for RAM
⇒ A15 A14 = 00
A11 A10 = 10
(a) A12 A13 = 00 ⇒ S1 S12 = 00 → R1 selected. For chip 1 : A9A8 = 01
A15 A14 A13 A12 A11 A10 A9 ………….A0 A7 – A0 = OO – FF
0 0 0 0 1 0 0 …………...0 ⇒ A9 – A0 : 01 0000 0000 to
1 0 11 1 01 FFFF FFFF
(R1) i.e. 0800H – 08FF H For chip 2, CS = A9 A8
(b) A13A12 = 01 (S1S2 = 01) → R2 ⇒ A9 A8 = 10
⇒ A9 – A0 = 10 0000 0000 to
10 FFFF FFFF
0 0000 0000 to 10 FFFF FFFF add are converted
R2 ⇒ 1800A – 18FF by chip 1 and chip 2
(c) R3 : A13 A12 = 10 ⇒ A15 A14 A13 A12 A11 A10 = ∴ F800 – F9FF are not represented.
0010 10 0 0 Hence, the correct option is (d).
1 1 4. In the circuit shown in the figure, A is parallel-in, parallel-
⇒ 2800H – 2BFFH R3 out 4 bit register, which loads at the rising edge of the
(d) R4 : A13 A12 = 1 ⇒ 0011 100 0 clock C. The input lines are connected to a 4 bit bus, W.
0011 101 1 ⇒ 3800H – 3 BFFH] Its output acts as the input to a 16 × 4 ROM whose output
is floating when the enable input E is 0. A partial table of
Hence, the correct option is (b). the contents of the ROM is as follows
3. What memory address range is NOT represented by
chip 1 and chip 2 in the figure. A0 to A15 in this figure Address Data
are the address lines and CS means Chip select. 0 0011
2 1111
4 0100
6 1010
8 1011
10 1000
11 0010
14 1000
6.76 | Digital Circuits
(a) 5 V; 3 V; 7 V (b) 4 V; 3 V; 4 V
(c) 5 V; 5 V; 5 V (d) 4 V; 4 V; 4 V
[2001]
Solution:(b)
The clock to the register is shown, and the data on the
W bus at time t1 is 0110. The data on the bus at time t2
is
(a) 1111 (b) 1011
(c) 1000 (d) 0010 [2003]
Solution: (c)
Vt = 1V (VMOS)
Hence, the correct option is (b).
6. If CS = A15 A14 A13 is used as the chip select logic of
a 4K RAM in an 8085 system, then its memory range
will be
(a) 3000 H – 3 FFF H
(b) 7000 H – 7 FFF H
ROM Add: Data
(c) 5000 H – 5 FFF H and 6000 H – 6 FFF H
(d) 6000 H – 6 FFF H and 7000 H – 7 FFF H
0 0011
[1999]
2 1111
4 0100 Solution:(d)
(6) → 1010 CS = A15 A14 A13 of 4k RAM (8085)
8 1011 4k ⇒ 212, i.e. 12 add lines A0 − A11
(10) → 1000
and CS = 011
11 0010
14 1000
⇒ A15 A14 A13 A12 A11…………….A0
0 1 1 0 0……………...0
1 ……………...1
At t1, W = 0110
1 0……………...0
∴ Input to ROM at t1 = 0110 = add. 6 1 ………………1
∴ at add 6, data = 1010 (w) A12 = ⇒A15A14A13A12 = 0110 = 6
At t2, W becomes 1010, ∴ A gets input 1010 and sup- ⇒ Range: 6000 – 6FFF
plies to ROM.
A12 = 1 ⇒ A15A14A13A12 = 0111 = 7 ⇒ 7000 – 7FFF
Chapter 7 Memories | 6.77
B0 B1
Sense R
amps B0 B1
W0 The Boolean function F implemented is [2017]
W0 D00 D01
W1 D10 D11 PQR + PQR + PQR
(A)
W1
VDD
Bits stored in the ROM array (B) (
P+Q+R P+Q+R P+Q+R )( )( )
PQR + PQR + PQR
(C)
(D) (
P+Q+R P+Q+R P+Q+R )( )( )
⎡1 0 ⎤ ⎡0 1 ⎤ 3. Consider a discrete memory less source with alphabet
⎢0 1 ⎥ (B)
(A) ⎢1 0 ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ S = {s0, s1, s2, s3, s4, ….} and respective probabilities of
⎡1 0 ⎤ ⎡1 1 ⎤ ⎧1 1 1 1 1 ⎫
(C) ⎢ ⎥ (D)
⎢0 0 ⎥ occurrence P = ⎨ , , , , ...⎬ . The entropy of
⎣1 0 ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎩ 2 4 8 16 32, ⎭
the source (in bits) is _____. [2016]
During the real operation, the selected word line goes
high and the other word line is in a high impedance Solution: The entropy of discrete memory less source
state. As per the implementation shown in the circuit is given as
1
diagram above, what are the bits corresponding to Dij H = P1 log2 + P2 log2 1 + ….
(where I = 0 or 1 and j = 0 or 1) stored in the ROM? P1 P2
Solution: Consider the figure 1 1 1
H = log22+ log2 4 + log28+ ….
B0 B1 2 4 8
Sense 1 1 1 1
amps = + × 2 + .3 + π⋅4 ….
W0 2 4 8 16
1 1 1 1
= + 2 2 + 3 3 + 4 4 ….
W1 2 2 2 2
VDD α n
⎛ 1⎞
= ∑ n ⎜ ⎟ ⇒ AGP
⎝ 2⎠
n = 0
ab, (b + d)br, (a + 2d)br2
⎡1 0 ⎤ a = 1, b = 1/2, d = 1, r = 1/2
Bit stored in ROM array is ⎢ ⎥.
⎣0 1 ⎦ ab dbr
s = 1 − r +
(1 − r ) 2
Hence, the correct option is (A).
2. A programmable logic array (PLA) is shown in the 1 1 1
1× 1× ×
figure. 2 += 2 2 = 2.
⇒
1 ⎛ 1⎞
2
1−
2 ⎜⎝1 − ⎟⎠
2
Hence, the correct option is (2).
Chapter 8
ADC and DAC
conversion time for a 2 V input will be
One-mark Questions (a) 10 µs (b) 20 µs
(c) 40 µs (d) 50 µs [2000]
1. A digital system is required to amplify a binary-encoded Solution: (b)
audio signal. The user should be able to control the gain
Full scale V = 2.55 V
of the amplifier from a minimum to a maximum in 100
increments. The minimum number of bits required to Conversion time for 1V = 20 μs
encode, in straight binary, is Conversion time for 2V = 20 μs (same as it depends on
(a) 8 (b) 6 the number of bits only).
(c) 5 (d) 7 [2004] Hence, the correct option is (b).
Solution: (d) 5. The number of comparators in a 4-bit flash ADC is
Step size = 100 (a) 4 (b) 5
⇒ 100 different voltages can be represented (c) 15 (d) 16 [2000]
⇒ If n is the number of bits, 2n ≥ 100 Solution: (c)
64 ≥ 100 ⇒ min n = 7 Flash ADC:
Hence, the correct option is (d). For n output bits, (2n – 1) comparators required.
2. The minimum number of comparators required to build ⇒ For 4-bits, (2n – 1) = 16 – 1
an 8-bit flash ADC is = 15 comparator required.
(a) 8 (b) 63 Hence, the correct option is (c).
(c) 255 (d) 256 [2003]
6. The resolution of a 4-bit counting ADC is 0 5 volts. For
Solution: (c) an analogue input of 6.6 volts, the digital output of the
8-bit flash type ⇒ 2n – 1 = 28 – 1 ADC will be
= 256 – 1 (a) 1011 (b) 1101
(c) 1100 (d) 1110 [1999]
255 comparators.
Solution:(d)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Resolution = 0.5 (4-bit)
3. The number of comparators required in a 3-bit com-
parator type ADC is Vin = 6.6V
(a) 2 (b) 3 V0 of ADC = input V/Resolution (conv in binary)
(c) 7 (d) 8 [2002]
6.6
Solution: (c) = = 13.2 ~ 14 (rounding of to higher digit)
015
3-bit comparator type: (2n – 1) comparators ⇒ 14 = 8 + 4 + 2 = (1110)2.
: 23 – 1 Hence, the correct option is (d).
: 7. 7. The advantage of using a dual slope ADC in a digital
Hence, the correct option is (c). voltmeter is that
(a) its conversion time is small
4. An 8 bit successive approximation analogue to digital
(b) its accuracy is high
converter has full scale reading of 2.55 V and its con-
(c) it gives output in BCD format
version time for an analogue input of 1 V is 20 µs. The
(d) it does not require a comparator [1998]
Chapter 8 ADC and DAC | 6.79
–
Vref 255
+
Thermometer
– code Digital
to binary output
Vref 2 3. The stable reading of the LED displays is
+ conversion
(a) 06 (b) 07
Vin (c) 12 (d) 13 [2008]
–
+ Solution: (d)
– +
Vref 1
5. The current I is
(a) 31.25 µA (b) 62.5 µA
(c) 125 µA (d) 250 µA [2007]
Solution: (b)
VR = 10V, R = 10 kΩ V+ =
0, V− = 0 i i 5i 5 × 0.5
Inverting = + = = mA
2 8 8 8
= 3.12.5 μA
Now V0 = −R × Iinv
= − 10k × 3.125 μA
= − 3.12.5 × 104 × 10−6
V0 = − 3.125 V.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
7. A 4-bit D/A converter is connected to a free-running
3-bit UP counter, as shown in the following figure.
Which of the following waveforms will be observed at
V0?
VR 10
⇒ i= = = 0.5 mA
2 R 2 × 10 k
(b)
6.82 | Digital Circuits
[2006]
Solution: (b)
(4 bit DAC)
5V ilp
(0 → 0)
(1 → 5V)
AK Counter DAC R
v V V V4
V0 = 1 + 2 + 3 +
8 R
θ2 θ1 θ1 D3 D2 D1 D0
1R 2 R 4 R
1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
V V V
2 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 = − V1 + 2 + 3 + 4
2 4 8
3 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 2
4 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 3 5V input, R → 10% tolerance
5 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 8 ⇒ V0 = −5 [1 + 0.5 + 0.25 + 0.125] = −9.375
6 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 9 (V0 max due to tolerance)
7 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 10 Tolerance of DAC:
8 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 11 −110 5.5 5.5 5.5
VD = × 5.5 + + +
90 2 4 8
Now due to comparative: V0 will rise till 4th pulse, by
on 5th pulse, V0 goes to 8 then again rises by 1 step. −11
= × 5.5 = − 12.604
9
T = 34.44 Ω 350/0.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
9. For the 4 bit DAC shown in the figure, the output volt-
age V0 is
8. The circuit shown in the figure is a 4-bit DAC
(a) 10 V (b) 5 V
The input bits 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and 5 (c) 4 V (d) 8 V [2000]
V, respectively. The OP AMP is ideal, but all the
Chapter 8 ADC and DAC | 6.83
7k 1 1 5
1 + = 8 ⇒ V0 = 0 + + + 0 × 8 = × 8
1k 8 2 8
V0 = 5V.
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Unit VII
Microprocessor
Solution:
For push operation o peration), resulting in (4 + 2 + 3 + 3 = 12 clock) while
in POP, operations are fetch, decoding and read. But
T1 T2 T3
here fetch + decode takes only 4 clocks resulting in (4 +
6 clock cycles 3 clock cycles 3 clock cycles 3 + 3 = 10 clock) so Push takes more clock cycles to
Fetch and execute the POP.
Write Write
Decode Hence, the correct option is (C).
2. A 16 Kb (= 16,384 bit) memory array is designed as
Total 6 + 3 + 3 = 12 clk cycles.
a square with an aspect ratio of one (number of rows
For pop operation is equal to the number of columns). The minimum
number of address lines needed for the row decoder is
T1 T2 T3 ______. [2015]
4 clock cycles 3 clock cycles 3 clock cycles Solution: 16K bit memory array is to be designed with
Fetch and an aspect ratio of one
read read
Decode 16 K bit = 24 ⋅ 210 = 214 = 27 ⋅ 27 = 27× 128
So no. of address lines = 7,
For a PUSH operation, more cycles are required
So no. of outputs of decoder = 27 = 128
because after fetching and decoding (4), data will
be written onto the stack with 3 clock each (of write no. of data lines = 128
Hence, the correct Answer is (7).
Chapter 2
Instructions of 8085
Microprocessor
3. When a CPU is interrupted, it
One-mark Questions (a) stops execution of instructions.
(b) acknowledges interrupt and branches to a
1. In an 8085 microprocessor, the contents of the accu- sub-routine.
mulator and the carry flag are A7 (in hex) are 0, respec- (c) acknowledges interrupt and continues.
tively. If the instruction RLC is executed, then the (d) acknowledges interrupt and waits for the next in-
contents of the accumulator (in hex) and the carry flag, struction from the interrupting device. [1995]
respectively, will be [2016]
(A) 4E and 0 (B) 4E and 1 Solution: (d)
(C) 4F and 0 (D) 4F and 1 CPU here is a microprocessor. The options are con-
Solution: Accumulator = A7H, CY = 0 cerned with INTR only as remaining interrupts do not
require interrupt acknowledgment.
CY
Hence, the correct option is (d).
0 1 CY
4. In a microprocessor, the register that holds the address
of the next instruction to be fetched is
RLC (a) accumulator
10100 111 01001111
(b) program counter
After RLC (circular left shift without carry), (c) stack pointer
Accumulator = 4FH (d) instruction register [1993]
Solution: (b)
CY flag =1
Program counter stores the address of the next instruc-
Hence, the correct option is (D). tion to be executed.
2. The total number of memory accesses involved (inclu- Hence, the correct option is (b).
sive of the op-code fetch) when an 8085 processor exe- 5. In a microprocessor system, the stack is a used for:
cutes the instruction LDA 2003 is (a) storing the program return address whenever a sub-
(a) 1 (b) 2 routine jump instruction is executed
(c) 3 (d) 4 [1996] (b) transmitting and receiving input–output data.
Solution: (d) (c) storing all important CPU register contents when-
Instruction LDA 2003 requires four machine cycles. ever an interrupt is to be serviced.
Machine cycle 1 → op-code fetch (LDA) (d) storing program instructions for interrupt
service routines. [1989]
Machine cycle 2 → memory read (03)
Solution: (a)
Machine cycle 3 → memory read (20)
Stack is a temporary set of memory locations in the
Machine cycle 4 → memory read [(2003)] to main memory. These memory locations are used to
accumulator store the binary information temporarily during the
Hence, the correct option is (d). execution of a program. Whenever a sub-routine jump
7.6 | Microprocessors
All addresses and constants are in Hex. Let PC be the 0106 MVI A, 20H
contents of the program counter and HL be the con- → 0107 → 20H
tents of the HL register pair just after executing PCHL. 0108 SUB M → A ←A – M
Which of the following statements is correct? 0109
(a) PC = 2715H HL = 30A0H M contains HL pair address data
(b) PC = 30A0H HL = 2715H H1 → 0107
(c) PC = 6140H HL = 6140H At HL 0107, operand 20H is stored thus
(d) PC = 6140H HL = 2715H [2008] A ← 20H − 20H
Solution: (c) A ← 00H
LXI H, 30 40H → HL = 30A 0H Hence, the correct option is (c).
DAD H → HL ← HL + HL 8. It is desired to multiply the numbers OAH by OBH and
store the result in the accumulator. The numbers are
30 A0 available in registers B and C, respectively. A part of
30 A0 the 8085 program for this purpose is given below:
MVI A, 00H
61 40H
Loop:-----------
PCHL → PC ← HL
-----------
Thus, PC = 6140 H HL = 6140H
-----------
Hence, the correct option is (c).
HLTEND
6. If in addition following code exists from 0109H
onwards, The sequence of instructions to complete the program
would be
ORI 40 H
(a) JNZ LOOP, ADD B, DCRC
ADDM, (b) ADD B, JNZ LOOP, DCR C
what will be the result in the accumulator after the last (c) DCR C, JNZ LOOP, ADD B
instruction is executed? (d) ADD B, DCR C, JNZ LOOP [2004]
(a) 40H (b) 20H Solution: (d)
(c) 60H (d) 42H [2005]
ADD B, DCR C, JNZ LOOP
Solution: (c)
MVIA, 00 A = 00
At 0109, A → 00H
LOOP ADD A=A+B
ORI 40H → A ← 01000000
B
00000000 DCRC C=C-1
A ← 01000000 (40H) Loop will till C = 0.
JNZLOOP So, loop will execute
Add M
11 times (OB).
M → HL → 20H
A ← A + M ← 20 + 40 Common data for Questions 10 and 11.Consider an
8085 microprocessor system
A ← 60H
Hence, the correct option is (d).
Hence, the correct option is (c).
9. Consider the sequence of 8085 instructions given
7. The following program starts at location 0100H.
below.
LXISP, 00FF
LXI H, 9258H, MOV A, M,
LXIH, 0107
Which one of the following is performed by this
MVI A, 20H sequence?
SUB M (a) Contents of location 9258 are moved to the accu-
The content of accumulator when the program counter mulator.
reaches 0109H is (b) Contents of location 9258 are compared with the
(a) 20H (b) 02H contents of the accumulator.
(c) 00H (d) FFH [2005] (c) Contents of location 9258 are complemented and
stored in location 9258.
Solution: (c)
(d) Contents of location 5892 are complemented and
0100 LXI SP, 00FF
stored in location 589 [2004]
0103 LXI H, 0107
7.8 | Microprocessors
Solution: (c) (a) carry flag will be set but zero flag will be reset.
LXI H, 9258 → HL ← 9258H (b) carry flag will be reset but zero flag will be set
(c) both carry flag and zero flag will be reset.
MOV A, M → A ← contents of add. 9258
(d) both carry flag and zero flag will be set. [2003]
CMA → complement accumulator
Solution: (a)
MOV M → complement of A is stored in M
CMP B → contents of B and A are compared and the
(9258 H)
result is indicated by flag.
Hence, the correct option is (c).
A < B. ∴ CY = 1, Z = 0.
10. The number of memory cycles required to execute the
Hence, the correct option is (a).
following 8085 instructions:
(I) LDA 3000H 12. The contents of register (B) and accumulator (A) of
(II) LXI D, F0F1H 8085 microprocessor are 49 H and 3 AH, respectively.
The contents of A and the status of carry flag (CY) and
would be:
sign flag (S) after executing SUB B instructions are
(a) 2 for (I) and 2 for (II)
(a) A = F1, CY =1, S = 1
(b) 4 for (I) and 3 for (II)
(b) A = 0F, CY =1, S = 1
(c) 3 for (I) and 3 for (II)
(c) A = F0, CY = 0, S = 0
(d) 3 for (I) and 4 for (II) [2004]
(d) A = 1F, CY = 1, S = 1 [2000]
Solution: (b)
Solution: (a)
Memory cycles
A → 3 AH → 00111010
LDA3000H → Fetch, Re ad , Re ad , Re ad
address data B → 49H → 01001001
LXI D, F0F1H → Fetch, Read, Read SUBA → 11110001
Hence, the correct option is (b). CY = 1, S = 1, A = F1
1 1. In an 8085 microprocessor, the instruction CMP B has Hence, the correct option is (a).
been executed while the content of the accumulator is
less than that of register B. As a result
Chapter 3
Memory Interfacing
(The address lines are designated as A0 to A7 for
One-mark Questions IO addresses.) The peripheral will correspond to IO
addresses in the range:
1. In the circuit shown below, the device connected to Y5
A2
can have address in the range
A3
A8 A
A9 B A4
A10 C Y5
To device A5 CHIP SELECT
chip select
A6
A7
74LS138
3-to-8 decoder (a) 60 H to 63H (b) A4H to A7H
A11 G2A
(c) 50 H to AFH (d) 70H to 73H
A12 [1997]
A13 G2B
A14 Solution: (a)
A15
For active low chip signal, NAND gate output should
be ‘0’.
IO/M G1
NAND gate output will be ‘0’, when all the inputs are ‘1’.
So, possible combinations given in options are
Vcc GND
A7 A6 A5 A4 A3 A2 A1 A0
(a) 2000 - 20 FF (b) 2D00 - 2DFF 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 60 H to
(c) 2E00 - 2EFF (d) FD00 - FDFF 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 63 H
[2010] 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 A4 H to
Solution: (b) 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 A7 H
To connect Y5, input CBA should be 101. Possible 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 50 H to
range will be 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 AF H
0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 70 H to
A15 A14 A13 A12 A11 A10 A9 A8 A7 A0
0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 73 H
0 0 .1 0 1 1 0 1 0 ... 0
0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 A2 and A3 should be the same. So, only options (a), (c)
and (d) satisfy this.
Therefore, the device can have address in the range Option (c) cannot be correct, because all chip select
2000 - 2DFF. signals are not the same.
Hence, the correct option is (b). Option (d) cannot be correct because it gives logic ‘1’
2. The decoding circuit shown in the below-given figure output. So, the correct option is (a).
has been used to generate the active low chip select sig- Hence, the correct option is (a).
nal for a microprocessor peripheral. 3. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory
mapped I/O,
7.10 | Microprocessor
A12
3
4
RAM
CS
8 ( )
CS is to be used in an 8085 microprocessor based
A11 5 Data system. The ROM should occupy the address range
6 **** 1000H to 2FFFH. The address lines are designated as
A10 7
A15 to A0, where A15 is the most significant address bit.
(a) F00FH TO F40EH Which one of the following logic expressions will gen-
(b) F100 TO F4FFH erate the correct CS signal for this ROM?
(c) F000H TO F3FFH [2016]
(d) F700H TO FAFFH [1988]
(A)
A15 + A14 + (A13 A12 + A13 A12 )
Solution: (c)
(B)
A15 A14 (A13 + A12)
1 kB → A9 → A0; 210 = 1 kB = 1024 B
A15 A14 A13 A12 A11 A10 A9 A8 A7 A6 A5 A4 A3 A2 A1 A0 (C) A15 A14 (A13 A12 + A13 A12 )
1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
F 0 0 0 (D)
A15 + A14 + A13 A12
1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 Solution: For this ROM to generate the CS signal, the
F 3 F F
input at CS pin must be 0. The capacity of ROM is
( )
By using higher order bits CS chip select input has 2. An 8255 chip is interfaced to an 8085 microprocessor
system as an I/O mapped I/O as shown in the figure.
to be connected.
For above range CS = 0 = A15 + A14 + (A13 A12 + The address lines A0 and A1 of the 8085 are used by
the 8255 chip to decode internally its three ports and
A13 . A12 ) the control register. The address lines A3 to A7 as well
Hence, the correct option is (A). as the IO/•M signal are used for address decoding. The
range of addresses for which the 8255 chip would get
selected is
Chapter 3 Memory Interfacing | 7.11
Five-marks Questions
1. A microprocessor has five address lines [A0- A4] and
eight data lines [D0 - D7]. An input device A, an output
device B, a ROM and a RAM are memory mapped to
the microprocessor at the addresses as shown in figure.
Devices A and B have four addressable registers each;
RAM has 8 bytes and ROM has 16 bytes. (a) Indicate
the address lines to be connected to each device and Solution:
memory. A15 A15 A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A
Hexadecimal =0 =1 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0
addresses
0000 8000 X X 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1F
B H H
1C to to X X 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
ROM 1B 1FFF 9FFF
0B H H
RAM 04 4000 C000 X 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
H H
A 03 to to X 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
00 5FFF DFFF
H H
[1993]
Solution: EPROM address range: 0000H to 1FFFH
Device A has 2 add line required. Device B requires 2 or
address lines. ROM requires 3 add lines. RAM require 8000H to 9FFFH
4 address lines
SRAM address range: 4000H to 5FFFH
or
C000H to DFFFH
Chapter 4
Microprocessor 8085
Interfacing
Solution: (d)
One-mark Question To transfer, the data should be present in accumulator
1. For a microprocessor system using I/O-mapped I/O, the and proper instruction should be executed.
following statement(s) is not true. • For the proper working and gates 1 and 2 should pro-
(a) Memory space available is greater. duce output as 1.
(b) Not all data transfer instructions are available. 3 to 8 7
Input Device
(c) I/O and memory address spaces are distinct. Decoder 6
A2 C 5
(d) I/O address space is greater. [1988] 4 Digital Dt0 - DO7 Data Bus
A1 B 3 (D0 - D7 )
Solution: (d) inputs
2
A0 A 1
Number of I/O devices = 256 0
G2A G2B G1 DS1 DS2
Memory capacity = 64 kB
IO/M
Hence, the correct option is (d). RD
A3 A8
A9
A
Two-marks Questions A5 4
A
1
A10
A11
A12 2
A7 6 A13
A14
1. For the 8085 microprocessor, the interfacing circuit A15
to input 8-bit digital data (DI0 - DI7) from an external
device is shown in the figure. The instruction for cor- • Since DS1 is connected to output 0 of decoder, so
rect data transfer is input selection should be 000. Therefore, address
lines have inputs as
3 to 8 7
I/D Device
Decoder 6 A15 A14 A13 A12 A11 A10 A9 A8 A7 A6 A5
A2 C 5
4 Digital Dt0 - DI7 Dt0 - DO7 Data Bus A4 A3 A2 A1 A0
A1 B 3 (D0 - D7 )
inputs 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1
2
A0 A 1
0 1 1 0 0 0
G2A G2BG1 DS1 DS2
IO/M That is, accumulator should be fed with the contents of
RD address F8F8H, i.e., LDA F8F8H.
A3 A8
A
A9 Hence, the correct option is (d).
A5 4 A10
A11 2. The 8255 programmable peripheral interface is used as
A6 A12
A7 A13 described below.
A14 (I) An A/D converter is interfaced to a microprocessor
A15
through an 8255. The conversion is initiated by a
(a) MVI A, F8H (b) IN F8H signal from the 8255 on Port C. A signal on Port C
(c) OUTF8H (d) LDAF8F8H causes data to be strorbed into Port A.
[2014]
Chapter 4 Microprocessor 8085 Interfacing | 7.13
(II) Two computers exchange data using a pair of 2000 START LXI SP.1000H
8255s. Port A works as a bidirectional data port LXI H, 2F37H
supported by appropriate handshaking signals.
XRA A
The appropriate modes of operation of the 8255 for (I)
MOV A, H
and (II) would be
(a) Mode 0 for (I) and Mode 1 for (II) INX H
(b) Mode 1 for (I) and Mode 0 for (II) PUSH H
(c) Mode 2 for (I) and Mode 0 for (II) CZ 20FFH i
(d) Mode 2 for (I) and Mode 1 for (II) [2004]
JMP 3000H
Solution: (c)
HLT
Options are incorrect since port A can be operated as
20FF ADD H
bidirectional port only in mode-2. (b) can be correct if
it is mode 1 for (I) and mode 2 for (II). RZ
Hence, the correct option is (c). POP B
PUSHB
Five-marks Questions RM
3000 HLT [1991]
1. Write down the sequence of Instructions which are Solution:
actually (till a HLT instruction), if the program begins 2000:LXI SP1, 1000H → SP ← 1000H
with the location 1FF5H.
2003:LXI H, 2F37H → HL ← 2F37H
Address (HEX) 8085 Instructions
2006:XRA A → A ←00H, Z21
1FF5 XRA A
2007:MOV A, H → A ← 2F
1FF6 LXI H.2000H
2008:IMX H → HL ← 2F38H
1FF9 PCHL
2009:Push H → SP ← OFFE
1FFA HLT
200A:CZ20FFH → As Z = 1, SP ← 0FFC
1FFB LXI H, 2001H
→ PC ← 20FF
1FFE ANI00H
due to call on zero
2000 LXI H, FFFFH
20FF:ADD, H → A + M → A → 2F + 2F
2003 INXH →5
2004 JZ2100H 2100:RZ → Z = 0
2007 HLT 2101:POP B → SP ← 0FFE and BC ← 200D
2100 LXI H, 1 FFFH 2103:RM → If S = 1 in previous addition
2103 MOV A, M 3000:HLT → But S = 0, so condition false
2104 INR A After execution
2105 HLT [1994] PC = 3000
2. The program given below is run on an 8085/based SP = 0FFE
microcomputer system. Determine the contents of the
B = 20
registers:
C = OD
PC, SP, B, C, H, L after a halt instruction is executed.
H = 2F
LOC
L = 38
Chapter 5
Microprocessor 8085
Interrupts
3. In the 8085 microprocessor, the RST6 instruction trans-
One-mark Questions fers the program execution to the following location:
(a) 30H (b) 24H
1. In a microprocessor, the service routine for a cer- (c) 48H (d) 60H [2000]
tain interrupt starts from a fixed location of memory Solution: (a)
which cannot be externally set, but the interrupt can be
Hexadecimal of (6 × 8 = 48) is 30H.
delayed or rejected. Such an interrupt is
(a) non-maskable and non-vectored Hence, the correct option is (a).
(b) maskable and non-vectored 4. In an 8085 μP system, the RST instruction will cause
(c) non-maskable and vectored an interrupt
(d) maskable and vectored [2009] (a) only if an interrupt service routine is not being ex-
Solution: (d) ecuted
(b) only if a bit in the interrupt mask is made 0
Interrupt which has a fixed address location is said to
(c) only if interrupts have been enabled by an El in-
be vectored and which can be delayed or rejected is
struction
known as maskable.
(d) None of the above [1997]
Hence, the correct option is (d).
Solution: (c)
2. The number of hardware interrupts (which require an
RST instruction will cause an interrupt only if inter-
external signal to interrupt) present in an 8085 micro-
rupts have been enabled by an El instruction at the
processor is
beginning of program.
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 13 [2000] Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (c)
1. TRAP 2. RST 7.5
3. RST 6.5 4. RST 5.5
5. INTR
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Chapter 6
Microprocessor 8085
Programming
MVI B, 05H → B = 05H
One-mark Questions PTR: ADD B →A ←A+B
DCR B
1. The clock frequency of an 8085 microprocessor is
5 MHz. If the time required to execute an instruction is JNZ PTR Loop will execute 5 times till value of B
1.4 µs, then the number of T-states needed for execut- becomes 0
ing the instruction is [2017] A = A + B = 05 + 05 + 04 + 03 + 02 + 01 + 00
(A) 1 (B) 6 In loop due to DCR B value of B is decreased
(C) 7 (D) 8 A = 14 H
1 A01 03H A = A + 03
fmp = 5 MHz T =
Solution: = 0.2 µsec ⋅ A = 17H.
fµ p
Hence, the correct option is (a).
1T → 0.2 msec 3. The following instructions have been executed by an
to complete an instruction it took 1.4 msec, therefore by 8085 μP:
linear relation ADDRESS INSTRUCTION
Texecution=1.4 m (HEX)
No. of T states = T/Texecution = 1.4/0.2 = 7 6010 LXI H, 8A79H
46013 MOVA,L
Hence, the correct option is (C).
6014 ADDH
2. For 8085 microprocessor, the following program is
executed. 6015 DAA
MVI A, 05H; 6016 MOVH,A
MVI B, 05H; 6017 PCHL
PTR: ADD B; From which address will the next instruction be
fetched?
DCR B;
(a) 6019
JNZ PTR; (b) 0379
ADI 03H; (c) 6979
HLT. (d) None of the above [1997]
At the end of program, accumulator contains Solution: (c)
(a) 17H (b) 20H 6010 LXI H, 8A79H → HL ← 8A79H
(c) 23H (d) 05H [2013] 6013 MOV A, L → A = 79
Solution: (a) 6014 ADD H → A ← A + H A←
MVI A, 05H → A = 05H 8A + 79
7.16 | Microprocessors
2. Which one of the following 8085 microprocessor pro- Thus starting from 1FFEH, A15 – A8 A7 – A0
grams correctly calculates the product of two 8-bit for fetch 1F FE
numbers stored in registers B and C? [2015]
for first memory read 1F FF
(A) MVI A, 00H
for second memory read 20 00
JNZ LOOP
CMP C for storing accumulator 12 34
LOOP DCR B Thus values of A15 – A8
HLT 1FH, 1FH, 20H, 12H
Hence, the correct option is (a).
(B) MVI A, 00H
CMP C 4. After execution of line 7 of the program, the status of
LOOP DCR B the CY and Z flags will be
JNZ LOOP (a) CY = 0, Z = 0 (b) CY = 0, Z = 1
HLT (c) CY = 1, Z = 0 (d) CY = 1, Z = 1
(C) MVI A, 00H [2007]
LOOP ADD C Solution: (b)
DCR B ANI 9BH → A = A.9B
JNZ LOOP = (11101010). (10011011)
HLT
A = 10001010
(D) MVI A, 00H
ADC C A = 8AH
JNZ LOOP CPI 9FH → 8A < 9FH Accumulator compare
LOOP INR B immediate
HLT CY = 1, Z = 0
Solution: We have to multiply register B and C, we can STA 3010 H → Store accumulator to 3010 H
do it By adding B register C number of times, or adding
thus CY = 1, Z = 0 after line 7.
Register C, B number of times.
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Choice (C) MVI A, 00H → A = 00H reset Accumulator
Common Data for Questions 3 and 4
Loop: ADD C → Add C to Accumulator
DCR B → decrement B An 8085 assembly language program is given below.
JNZ → till B becomes zero Add C Line1:MVI A, B5H
HLT 2 : MVIB, OEH
Hence, the correct option is (C). 3 : XRI69H
4 : ADDB
3. An 8085 microprocessor executes `STA 1234H‘ with 5 : ANI9BH
starting address location 1FFEH (STA copies the con-
6 : CPI9FH
tents of the accumulator to the 16-bit address loca-
tion). While the instruction is fetched and executed, the 7 : STA3010H
sequence of values written at the address pins A15 – A8 8 : HLT
is: 5. The contents of the accumulator just after
(a) 1FH, 1FH.20H, 12H execution of the ADD instruction in line 4 will be
(b) 1FH.FEH, 1FH.FFH, 12H (a) C3H (b) EAH
(c) 1FH.1FH.12H.12H (c) DCH (d) 69H [2007]
(d) 1FH, 1FH, 12H.20H.12H [2014]
Solution: (b)
Solution: (a)
MVI A, B5 H → A = 10110101
IFFE STA 1234
MVI B, OE H → B = 00001110
1FFEH → STA OP code stored
XRI 69 H → A = A ⊕ 69
1FFFH → ‘12’ operand stored
A = 10110101 ⊕ 01101001
2000H → ‘34’ operand stored
A = 11011100
STA 1234 does storing value of accumulator at address
ADD B →A=A+B
1234 H
7.18 | Microprocessors
k = 10Π
PSB = 2 ⎨ ⎬ =⎜ ⎟
⎩2 2 ⎭ ⎝ 2 ⎠
=
(1) = 1
8.4 | Communication
IF ≥ 5 MHz.
Input 1 Phase Low pass
detector filter Hence, the correct Answer is (5).
Amplifier 6. The amplitude of a sinusoidal carrier is modulated by a
single sinusoid to obtain the amplitude modulated sig-
VCO nal S(t) = 5 cos 1600πt + 20cos1800πt + 5cos2000πt.
Counter
The value of the modulation index is _____. [2016]
1 ÷2
2 ÷4 C Solution: AM
–VCC
3 ÷8 R S(t) = Accos2pfct [1 + ka m(t)]
4 ÷16
S(t) = Accos2pfct [1 + ka Am cos2πfmt]
Synthesizer
output Ac μ
S(t) = Accos2pfct + cos2π( fc + fm) t
(A) 0 V 2
(B) (VT of PMOS + VT of NMOS)/2 Ac μ
+ cos2π ( fc – fm) t
(C) Switching threshold of inverter 2
(D) VDD
Comparing the above standard equation with given
Solution: The given circuit is inverter connected from equation, we get
output to input.
fc = 900 Hz,
Vout
fm = 100 Hz
Ac = 20
Ac μ
= 5
An inverter is the circuit which provides the comple- 2
mented output. Here an inverter circuit consisting of
Acμ = 10
Chapter 1 Analog Communication Systems | 8.5
10 10 3 −1
μ= = µ=
Ac 20 3 +1
1 2
μ = = 0.5 . µ= = 0.5
2 4
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.5).
10. A modulated signals is y(t ) = m(t )cos(4000π t ) ,
7. For a superheterodyne receiver, the intermediate fre- where the baseband signal m(t) has frequency compo-
quency is 15 MHz and the local oscillator frequency nents less than 5 kHz only. The minimum required rate
is 3.5 GHz. If the frequency of the received signal is (in kHz) at which y(t) should be sampled to recover
greater than the local oscillator frequency, then the m(t) is _______. [2014]
image frequency (in MHz) is _____ . [2016]
Solution:
Solution: Intermediate frequency freq (fIF)= 15MHz ;
The minimum sampling rate is given by Nyquist rate
local oscillator frequency ( fL0) = 3.5 GHz = 3500 MHZ
fs = 2 fm
As we know that
fs = 2 × 5
( fs – fL0 = fIF) fs = 10 kHz
fs = fL0 + fIF 11. The phase response of a pass band waveform at the
receiver is given by φ (f ) = −2π a (f − f c ) − 2pβ f
= 3500 MHz + 15 MHz where fc is the centre frequency, and a and b are posi-
fs = 3515 MHz tive constants. The actual signal propagation delay
from the transmittance to receiver is
and
fsi = fs – 2fIF a−β ab
(a) (b)
a+β a+b
Up conversion (frequency of received signal is greater
than LO frequency) (c) a (d) b [2014]
Solution: (c)
fsi = 3515 – 2 × 15
Group delay is given by
= 3485 MHz
= −1 dφ = −1 [−2πα ]
Hence, the correct Answer is (3485 MHz). 2π df 2π
8. Consider the signal s(t) = m(t) cos (2π fct) + m̂ (t)
Group delay = α
sin (2π.fc.t) where m̂ (t) denotes the Hilbert transform
of m(t) and the bandwidth of m(t) is very small com- Hence, the correct option is (c).
pared to fc. The signal s(t) is a [2015] 1 2.
Consider an FM signal
(A) high-pass signal f (t ) = cos 2π f c t + β1sin2π f1t + β 2 2π f 2 t
(B) low-pass signal
The maximum deviation of the instantaneous frequency
(C) band-pass signal
from the carrier frequency fc is
(D) double sideband suppressed carrier signal β1 f 2 + β 2 f1
(a) β1 f1 + β 2 f 2 (b)
Solution: Signal s(t) = m(t) cos(2π fct) + m̂ (t) sin(2π fct) (c) β1 + β 2 (d) f1 + f 2 [2014]
This is the equation of SSB-SC so it will look like Solution: (a)
band-pass signal. Maximum frequency deviation is
Hence, the correct option is (C). 1 dφ
9. Consider sinusoidal modulation in an AM system. = .
2π dt
max
Assuming no overmodulation, the modulation index
(H) when the maximum and minimum values of the ϕ = Phase deviation
envelope, respectively, are 3V and 1V, is ______. 1
[2014] = {β1 2π f1 cos 2π f1t + β 2 2π f 2 cos 2π f 2 t}max
2π
Solution:
Modulation index for AM modulated wave is given by 1
= ( 2πβ1 f1 + 2πβ 2 f 2 )
Amax − Amin 2π
µ=
Amax + Amin = β1f1 + β1f2
Hence, the correct option is (a).
8.6 | Communication
13. In a double side-band (DSB) full carrier AM transmis- 14. The List-I (lists the attributes) and the List-II (list of the
sion system, if the modulation index is doubled, then modulation systems) are given. Match the attribute to
the ratio of total sideband power to the carrier power the modulation system that best meets it.
increases by a factor of _____. [2014] List-I
Solution: A. Power efficient transmission of signals
Ratio of PSB to PC B. Most bandwidth efficient transmission of voice
g (t ) = e − at e + j ( wct +∆w )t signals
+
C. Simplest receiver structure
PSB µ 2T D. Bandwidth efficient transmission of signals with
=
P 1 2
significant dc component
List-II
PSB µ02
and P = 1. Conventional AM
C 2 2
2. FM
where μ2 = 2μ
3. VSB
PSB
1 4. SSB-SC
PC
Hence, = A B C D
PSB 4 (a) 4 2 1 3
PC (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
Four times.
(d) 2 4 3 1 [2011]
Therefore,
Solution:(b)
AM has simple receiver and VSB is bandwidth efficient
transmission of signals with significant dc component.
SSB – SC is most bandwidth efficient transmission of
voice signal.
Hence, the correct option is (b).
The Fourier transform of output y(t) of the high pass
filter centroid at fc is 15. Suppose that the modulating signal is
m(t ) = 2cos (2π f m t ) and the carrier is
xC (t ) = AC cos (2π f c t ) . Which one of the following is
a conventional AM signal without over-modulation?
(a) x(t ) = Ac m(t ) cos (2π f c t )
Now, the output of second multiplier is y(t).w(t) = z(t) x(t ) = Ac 1 + m(t ) cos (2π f c t )
(b)
AC
x(t ) = AC cos (2π f c t )+
(c) m(t )cos (2π f c t )
4
x(t ) = AC cos (2π f m t )cos (2π f c t )
(d) [2010]
+ AC sin (2π f m t )sin (2π f c t )
After passing through the low pass filter centred at fc the
Solution:(c)
Fourier transform of output S(t) is
Conventional AM signal is
x(t) = AC[1 + m(t)] cos (wct)
= AC cos (wct) + ACm(t) cos wct
In option b,
2
Modulation index = = 2.
1
So, it is conventional A.M signal but with over
Thus, bandwidth = (A – B) – 0
modulation.
= 100 – 40
In option c,
= 60 Hz
Chapter 1 Analog Communication Systems | 8.7
For envelop detector time RC constant is given by Frequencies Present = 1000 ± 10 (fc ± fm)
1 1 = 970,1030.
< RC ≤
fc fm Half wave symmetric wave . So, only odd harmonics
are present.
1 μ sec <RC ≤ 0.5 ms
Hence, the correct option is (c).
Hence, the correct option is (b).
22. An AM signal and a narrow-band FM signal with iden- 25. A band limited signal is sampled at the Nyquist rate.
tical carriers, modulating signals and modulation indi- The signal can be recovered by passing the samples
ces of 0.1 are added together. The resultant signal can through
be closely approximated by (a) an RC filter
(a) broadband FM (b) an envelope detector
(b) SSB with carrier (c) an PLL
(c) DSB-SC (d) an ideal low-pass filter with the appropriate band-
(d) SSB without carrier [2004] width [2001]
Solution: (b) Solution: (d)
Standard equation for narrow band FM is given by Ideal low pass filter with the appropriate BW can
Aβ A β recover a sampled band limited signal.
S (t ) = AC cos wc t + c cos( wc + wm )t − C cos 9wc − w m ) Hence, the correct option is (d).
2 2
Ac β A β 26. The amplitude modulated wave form s(t) = Ac[1 +
) = AC cos wc t + cos( wc + wm )t − C cos 9wc − wm )
2 2 Kam(t)] cosωct is fed to an ideal envelope detector. The
maximum magnitude of Ka m(t) is greater than 1.
AC ma
S (t ) AM = AC cos wc t + Which of the following could be the detector output?
2 2
(a) Acm(t) (b) Ac2 1+K a m (t )
AC ma (c) [Ac| 1 + Kam(t)|] (d) Ac|1 + Kam(t)|2
cos( wc + wm )t + cos(ωc − ωm )
2 [2000]
S(t) + S(t)AM = carrier + USB = SSB with carrier. Solution:(c)
Note: S(t) + S(t)AM = SSB + SC When the modulation index of AM wave is less than
Hence, the correct option is (b). unity the output of the envelope detector is envelope of
the AM wave but when the modulation index is greater
23. The input to a coherent detector is DSB–SC signal plus than unity then the output of the envelope detector is
noise. The noise at the detector output is not envelope but mode of the envelope of the AM wave.
(a) the in-phase component Thus, the detector output in given case would be AC[1 +
(b) the quadrature-component kam(t)].
(c) zero
(d) the envelope [2003] Hence, the correct option is (c).
Solution: (a) 27. The input to a channel is a bandpass signal. It is
The coherent detector rejects the quadrature compo- obtained by linearly modulating a sinusoidal carrier
nent of noise and therefore noise at output has in phase with a single-tone signal. The output of the channel due
component only. The in-phase component of noise and to this input is given by
output are additive at output of detector. y(t) = (1/100)cos(100t – 10-6)cos(106t – 1.56).
Hence, the correct option is (a). The group delay (tg) and the phase delay (tp) in seconds
24. A 1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by of the channel are
a symmetrical square wave of period 100 μ sec. Which (a) tg = 10-6, tp = 1.56
of the following frequencies will NOT be present in the (b) tg = 1.56, tp = 10-6
modulated signal? (c) tg = 10-8, tp = 1.56 × 10-6
(a) 990 kHz (b) 1010 kHz (d) tg = 108, tp = 1.56 [1999]
(c) 1020 kHz (d) 1030 kHz [2002] Solution: (c)
Solution: (c) Given
Given 1 −6 6
y (t ) = cos (100t − 10 ) cos(10 t − 1.56)
1 MHz ⇒ 1000 kHz = fc (carrier frequency) 100
100 μs ⇒10 kHz = fm (message signal frequency)
Chapter 1 Analog Communication Systems | 8.9
Now comparing with 31. A DSB-SC signal is generated using the carrier cos(ωct
y(t) = cos (t – t0) cos [wc(t – tp)] + θ) and modulating signal x(t). The envelope of the
DSB-SC signal is
tp = 1.56 × 10−6 Hz
(a) x(t)
tg = 10−8 Hz (b) |x(t)|
Hence, the correct option is (c). (c) only positive portion of x(t)
28. A modulated signal is given by s(t) = m1(t)cos (2πfct) (d) x(t) cosθ [1998]
+ m2(t) sin(2πfct) where the baseband signal m1(t) and Solution: (b)
m2(t) have bandwidths of 10 kHz and 15 kHz, respec- The 'envelope' of the DSB-SC (double side band–sup-
tively. The bandwidth of the modulated signal, in kHz, press carrier) signal depends on the |x(t)| and not on
is x(t).
(a) 10 (b) 15
Hence, the correct option is (b).
(c) 25 (d) 30 [1999]
32. The image channel rejection in a superheterodyne
Solution: (b)
receiver comes from
Given modulation technique is DSB-SC with fmax=15 (a) IF stages only
KHz, so bandwidth can be given as (b) RF stages only
Bandwidth = 2*fmax = 30 kHz (c) detector and RF stages only
Hence, the correct option is (b). (d) detector, RF and IF stages [1996]
29. A modulated signal is given by s(t) = e-atcos[(ωc + ∆ω) Solution: (b)
t]u(t), where a, ωc and ∆ω are positive constants, and Image rejection should be achieved in IF amplifier. It
ωc >> ∆ω. The complex envelope of s(t) is given by becomes impossible to remove it from wanted signal.
(a) exp (−at)exp[j(ωc + ∆ω)t]u(t) So, the image channel rejection in a super heterodyne
(b) exp (−at)exp(j∆ωt)u(t) receiver comes from RF stages only.
(c) exp (j∆ωt).u(t) Hence, the correct option is (b).
(d) exp [j(ωc + ∆ω)t] [1999]
33. The image (second) channel selectivity of a superhetero-
Solution:(d) dyne communication receiver is determined by
Complex envelope (a) antenna and preselector
g (t ) = g+ (t ) − jwct (b) the preselector and RF amplifier
(c) the preselector and IF amplifier
where g + (t) is pre envelope given as
(d) the RF and IF amplifier [1995]
g+ (t ) = g (t ) + jg (t ) Solution: (b)
− at
and g (t ) = e sin[( wc + ∆ w )t ] The image rejection should be achieved IF stage
g+ (t ) = e − at e + j ( wct +∆w )t because once it enters into IF amplifier it becomes
− at − jw t impossible to remove it from wanted signal.
Hence, g (t ) = e e c u(t )
So, the image channel selectivity depends upon pre-
g (t ) = e − at e − j ∆wt u(t ) selective and RF amplifiers only. If amplifier helps in
rejection of adjacent channel frequency and not image
Hence, the correct option is (d). frequency.
3 0. The image channel selectivity of superheterodyne Hence, the correct option is (b).
receiver depends upon
34. A PLL can be used to demodulate
(a) IF amplifier only
(a) PAM signals (b) PCM signals
(b) RF and IF amplifiers only
(c) FM signals (d) DSB–SC signals
(c) Preselector, RF and IF amplifier
[1995]
(d) Preselector and RF amplifiers only [1998]
Solution: (c)
Solution: (d)
PLL (Phase Locked Loop) is used to demodulate the
The image rejection should be achieved before IF stage
FM signals.
because once it enters into IF amplifier it becomes
impossible to remove it from wanted signals. So, image Hence, the correct option is (c).
channel selectivity depends upon pre-selector and RF 35. A PAM signal can be detected by using
amplifiers only. The IF amplifier helps in rejection of (a) an ADC (b) an integrator
adjacent channel frequency and not image frequency. (c) a band pas filter (d) a high pass filter
Hence, the correct option is (d). [1995]
8.10 | Communication
∞
1. Let c(t) = Ac cos ( 2π f ct ) and m(t) = cos ( 2π f mt ) . It is 2
given that f c 5 f m . The signal c(t) + m(t) is applied ∫ y(t ) dt = 8
−∞
to the input of a non-linear device, whose output no(t)
is related to the input ni(t) as no(t) = ani(t) + bno2(t), X(f )
where p(t) = u(t) – u(t – T), u(t) is the unit step function Bandwidth = 2(∆ ω + ω m ) = 2(∆f + fm)π
and φ is an independent random variable with uniform
d θ i (t )
distribution in [0, T]. The sequence {Xn} consists of ω i (t) = = ω c + Am 2π f m cos ( 2π f m t )
dt
independent and identically distributed binary valued
random variables with P{Xn = +1} = P{Xn = –1} = 0.5 ∆ ω = Am fm. 2π cos 2 π fmt
for each n.
The value of autocorrelation [2015] So bandwidth depends upon Am and fm.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
⎛ 3T ⎞ Δ ⎡ ⎛ 3T ⎞ ⎤
Ryy ⎜ ⎟ = E ⎢ y (t ) y ⎜ t − ⎟ ⎥ equals _______ 9. The directivity of an antenna array can be increased by
⎝ 4⎠ ⎣ ⎝ 4 ⎠⎦
adding more antenna elements, as a large number of
+∞ elements [2015]
Solution: y(t) = ∑ X n p ( t − nT − ϕ ) (A) improves the radiation efficiency.
n=−∞ (B) increases the effective area of the antenna.
If p(t) = u(t) – u(t – T) (C) results in a better impedance matching.
(D) allows more power to be transmitted by the anten-
So amplitude (A) of p(t) = 1 na.
and we know that
4π
⎧ 2⎛ τ ⎞ Solution: D= Ae
⎪ A 1− ⎟⎠ , τ <T λ2
Autocorrelation RXX(τ) = ⎨ ⎜⎝ T
⎪ D ∝ Ae
⎩ 0, τ >0
So directivity increases as the effective area of antenna
⎛ 3T ⎞ increases.
⎛ 3T ⎞ 4⎟
So for Ryy ⎜ ⎟ = A2 ⎜1 − Hence, the correct option is (B).
⎝ 4⎠ ⎜⎝ T ⎟⎠
1 0. In the system shown in Figure (a), m(t) is a low-pass
⎛ 3⎞ signal with bandwidth W Hz. The frequency response
= 1. ⎜ 1 − ⎟ of the band-pass filter H( f ) is shown in Figure (b). If it
⎝ 4⎠
is desired that the output signal z(t) = 10x(t), the maxi-
Since A = 1 mum value of W (in Hz) should be strictly less than
1 _______. [2015]
= = 0.25
4 x(t) = m(t) y(t) = 10x (t)
cos(2400π t) + x2(t) H(f) z(t)
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.24 to 0.26). Amplifier Band-pass
filter
8. A message signal m(t) = Am sin (2πfct) is used to modu- (a)
late the phase of a carrier Ac cos(2πfct) to get the modu- H(f )
lated signal y(t) = Ac cos(2πfct + m(t)). The bandwidth
of y(t) [2015]
1
(A) depends on Am but not on fm.
(B) depends on fm but not Am.
(C) depends on both Am and fm. –1700 –700 0 700 1700 f(Hz)
(D) does not depend on Am or fm. (b)
Chapter 1 Analog Communication Systems | 8.13
x P
Solution: Ψ = βd cos θ + f
π
Given that f=–
2
θ = 60°
8.14 | Communication
The ratio kp/kf (in rad/Hz) for the same maximum 15. A message signal given by
phase deviation is
1 1
(a) 8π (b) 4π m(t) = cos ω1t − s inω2 t is amplitude-modu-
(c) 2π (d) π [2012] 2 2
Solution: (b) lated with a carrier of frequency wc to generate
For phase modulator s(t ) = 1 + m(t ) cos ωc t
What is the power efficiency achieved by this modula-
φ (t ) = 2π f c t + k p m(t ) tion scheme?
maximum phase deviation is (a) 8.33 % (b) 11.11 %
(φb ) max = k p max[m(t )] = 2k p (c) 20 % (d) 25 % [2009]
Solution: (c)
for frequency modulator ma2
Power efficacy is given as = η = × 100
2 + ma2
∫
φ (t ) = 2π f c t + 2π k f m(t )dt
=
ma 1
Vm 1
= = ma2
VC 2
(φD′ ) max = 2π k f m(t )dt
∫
max m = ma 2 + ma 2
a a 2
2 0.25 × 2
′
∫
(φD ) max = 2π k f m(t )dt
η =
2 + 0.25 × 2
× 100%
0
= 20%
1
∫
(φD′ ) max = 2π k f 2. dt Hence, the correct option is (c).
1 6. Consider the frequency modulated signal
0
(φD′ ) max = 8π k f 10 cos 2π × 105 t + 5 sin( 2π × 1500t ) + 7.5 sin( 2π × 1000t )
given 10 cos 2π × 10 t + 5 sin( 2π × 1500t ) + 7. 5 sin(
5
2π × 1000t ) with carrier frequency of 10 Hz. 5
′ The modulation index is
(φD ) max = (φ0 ) max
(a) 12.5 (b) 10
8πkf = 2kp (c) 7.5 (d) 5 [2008]
Rp Solution: (b)
= 4π
kf Modulation index
Hence, the correct option is (b). f
mf =
14. A message signal m(t ) = cos 2000 π t + 4 cos 4000 π t fm
modulates the carrier c ( t ) = cos 2π f t
c where where
fc = 1 MHz to produce an AM signal. For demodulat- f = maximum frequency deviation.
ing the generated AM signal using an envelope detec-
tor, the time constant RC of the detector circuit should fm = maximum frequency component
satisfy given that
(a) 0.5 ms < RC < 1 ms fm = 1500 Hz
(b) 1µs < < RC < 0.5 ms Deviation,
(c) RC << 1µs
(d) RC >> 0.5 ms [2011] Δθ = 5 sin (2π × 1500t) + 7.5 sin (2π × 1000t)
Solution: (b) dθ
∆w = = 5 × 2π × 1500 cos( 2π × 500t ) + 7.5 × 2π × 1000 cos( 2π × 1000t )
Time constant for envelop detector is given as dt
1 1 dθ
<< RC << ∆w = = 5 × 2π × 1500 cos( 2π × 500t ) + 7.5 × 2π × 1000 cos( 2π × 1000t )
fc fm dt
1 1 ∆wmax = 2π {7500 + 7500}
<< RC <<
1 MHz 2 kHz
∆wmax
1 μs << RC << 0.5 δ= = 1500 Hz
2π
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Chapter 1 Analog Communication Systems | 8.15
δ 15000 (c)
mf = = = 10
fm 1500
Hence, the correct option is (b).
(b)
8.16 | Communication
PC ma2 AC2 ma2 kHz. If the single tone frequency is increased to 2 kHz,
Ps = = × assuming that phase deviation remains unchanged, the
2 2 2 band width of the PM signal is
100 0.25 (a) 21 kHz (b) 22 kHz
Ps = × = 6.25 watt (c) 42 kHz (d) 44 kHz[2005]
2 2
Solution: (d)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
For phase modulated signal, phase deviation can be
25. The AM signal gets added to a noise with Power
given as
Spectral Density Sn(f) given in the figure below. The
ratio of average sideband power to mean noise power ∆ϕ = mf
would be: mf remains the same for both cases
∆f 10
=
2 1
Δf = 20
BW = 2(Δf + fm) = 2(20 + 2)
= 44 k
Hence, the correct option is (d).
28. A 100 MHz carrier of 1V amplitude and a 1 MHz
25 modulating signal of 1 V amplitude are fed to a bal-
(a) (b) 25
ance modulator. The output of the modulator is passed
8 N0 B 4N B 0 through an ideal high-pass filter with cut-off frequency
25 of 100MHz. The output of the filter is added with
(c) 25 (d) [2006]
2 N0 B N 0B 100MHz signal of 1V amplitude and 900 phase shift
as shown in the figure. The envelope of the resultant
Solution: (b) signal is
Power of signal will given by
25
Ps =
4
PN = N0B
∴ SNR PS 25 (a) constant
= =
PN 4 N 0 B
A sin {ω ct + km(t )}
(b)
Hence, the correct option is (b).
26. A device with input x(t) and output y(t) is characterized
by: y(t) = x2(t).
(
(c) 5/4 - sin 2p × 106 t )
An FM signal with frequency deviation of 90 kHz and
modulating signal bandwidth of 5 kHz is applied to this
6
(d) 5/4 + cos 2p × 10 t ( ) [2004]
device. The bandwidth of the output signal is
(a) 370 kHz (b) 190 kHz Solution:(c)
(c) 380 kHz (d) 95 kHz[2005]
Solution: (a)
fm = message signal frequency
Δf = frequency deviation
BW = 2(Δf + fm) = 2(180 + 5)
= 370 kHz
Note: When fm signal is applied to doubles frequency
derivation doubles but fm remains the same.
Hence, the correct option is (a). Given
{ } { }
27. A carrier is phase modulated (PM) with frequency 1
deviation of 10 kHz by a single tone frequency of 1 y (t ) = cos 2p × 101× 106 t + sin 2p × 100 + 106 t
2
8.18 | Communication
1 cos( 2π × 100 × 10 )t
6
=
2 cos 10 t 2π − sin( 2π × 100 × 10 )
6 6
6 6
t sin 2π × 10 t + sin 2π × 100 × 10 t
1 1
= cos 2π × 100 × 106 t [cos 2π × 106 t ] + sin 2π × 100 × 106 t [− sin 2π × 106 + 2]
2 2
1
π × 100 × 106 t [cos 2π × 106 t ] + sin 2π × 100 × 106 t [− sin 2π × 106 + 2]
2
= A cos 2π × 106t + B sin cos 2π × 106t
The positive frequencies where Y(f) has spectral peaks
Envelope are
= A2 + B 2 (a) 1 kHz and 24 kHz
(b) 2 kHz and 24 kHz
1 1 (c) 1 kHz and 14 kHz
= cos 2 2π × 106 t + (sin 2π × 106 t − 2)
4 4 (d) 2 kHz and 14 kHz [2004]
Envelope Solution:(b)
5 Peaks of x(t) are at 1k and −1k initially output of bal-
= − sin 2π × 106 t anced modulator = fc ± 1k and fc ± −1k
4
fc ± 1k = 11k, 9k
Hence, the correct option is (c).
fc ± 1k = 9k, 11k
29. Two sinusoidal signals of same amplitude and frequen- Output of HPF with fc = 10k will be 11k frequency
cies 10 kHz and 10.1 kHz are added together. The com- component.
bined signal is given to an ideal frequency detector. The y(f) = 13k ± 11k
output of the detector is
= 24k and 2k
(a) 0.1 kHz sinusoid
(b) 20.1 kHz sinusoid Hence, the correct option is (b).
(c) a linear function of time 31. A DSB-SC signal is to be generated with a carrier fre-
(d) a constant [2004] quency fc = 1 MHz using a non-linear device with the
Solution:(a) input–output characteristic V0 = a0vi + a1vi3 where a0 and
a1 are constants. The output of the non-linear device
Let denote the output frequency as
can be filtered by an appropriate band-pass filter. Let
{ }
s(t ) = A cos 2p × 10 × 10 t + A cos {2p × 10.kt}
3
( )
Vi = Aci cos 2 f ci t + m ( t ) where m(t) is the message
signal. Then the value of f ic (in MHz) is
1
T1 = = 100 µ s (a) 1.0 (b) 0.333
10 k (c) 0.5 (d) 3.0 [2003]
1 Solution: (c)
T2 = = 99 µ s
10.1 Given
T1 V0 = a0vi + a1vi3
= rational 3
T2 = a0 [ Ac1 cos wci t ] + a0 m(t ) + a1 Acc cos 3wci t + a1m3 (t ) + 3a1m 2 (t ) Aci coos wci t + 3
∴s(t) will be periodic with period RCM of T1 and T2 = c3
= a0 [ Ac1 cos wci t ] + a0 m(t ) + a1 Ac cos i 3 2 i i i
3wc t + a1m (t ) + 3a1m (t ) Ac coos wc t + 3a1 Ac cos wc t
2 i
9900 μs, 10,000 μs
∴frequency of elector = 0.1 kHz. For DSB SC we are concerned with only last term
Hence, the correct option is (a). m(t) cos wct → fc = 1 MHz
For cos2 term 2wci = 2π × 1 MHz
30. Consider a system shown in figure. Let X(f) and Y(f)
denote the Fourier transforms of x(t) and y(t), respec- Hence, the correct option is (c).
tively. The ideal HPF has the cutoff frequency 10 kHz. Common Data for Questions 32 and 33
Let m(t) = [(4π× 103)t] be the message signal and c(t) =
5cos[(2π× 106)t] be the carrier.
Chapter 1 Analog Communication Systems | 8.19
32. c(t) and m(t) are used to generate an AM signal. The Group-1
modulation index of the generated AM signal P. Ring modulator Q. VCO
R. Foster-Seely discriminator S. Mixer
Total sideband power
is 0.5. Then the quality is Group-2
Carrier power
1. Clock recovery
2. Demodulation of FM
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 3. Frequency conversion
(c) 1/3 (d) 1/8 [2003] 4. Summing the two inputs
Solution: (d) 5. Generation of FM
Pc= carrier power 6. Generation of DSB-SC
ma = modulation index (a) P – 1; Q – 3; R – 2; S – 4
(b) P – 6; Q – 5; R – 2; S – 3
Ac = amplitude of Carrier signal
(c) P – 6; Q – 1; R – 3; S – 2
m2 A2 (d) P – 5; Q – 6; R – 1; S – 3 [2003]
P1 = PC 1 + a , PC = C
2 2 Solution:(b)
Combination is given as followed
A2 m 2
Sideband power = C . a P. Ring modulator Generation of DSB-
2 2 SC
AC2 ma2 Q. VCO Generation of FM
R. Foster-Seely discriminator Demodulation of FM
PS 4 1
= =
PC AC2 8 S. Mixer Frequency
conversion
2
Hence, the correct option is (b).
Hence, the correct option is (d). 35. A superheterodyne receiver is to operate in the
33. c(t) and m(t) are used to generate an FM signal. If the frequency range 550–1650 kHz, with the intermediate
peak frequency deviation of the generated FM signal C
is three times the transmission bandwidth of the AM frequency of 450 kHz. Let R = max denote
Cmin
signal, then the coefficient of the term cos[2π(1008 ×
the required capacitance ratio of the local oscillator and
103t)] in the FM signal (in terms of the Bessel coeffi-
I denote the image frequency (in kHz) of the incoming
cients) is 5 signal. If the receiver is tuned to 700 kHz, then
(a) 5J4(3) (b) J (3)
2 8 (a) R = 4.41, I = 1600
5 (b) R = 2.10, I = 1150
(c) J (4) (d) 5J4(6) [2003]
2 8 (c) R = 3.0, I = 1600
(d) R = 9.0, I = 1150 [2003]
Solution: (d)
Solution:(a)
Given
fIF = intermediate frequency
FM modulated waveform is given by
∞
fis = Image frequency
X FM (t ) = AC ∑ j ( β ) cos(w
n c + nwm )t C f
R = max = max =
2
1650 + 450
2
n =−∞ = 4.41
Cmin f min 550 + 450
BW = 2wn, Δw = 3 × Bw = 6wn
1 = fs + 2fif
wc + nwn = 2π × 1008 × 103 (as given in a question)
= 2π × 1008 × 10 3 = 700 + 2 × 450 = 1600
∴η=4 Hence, the correct option is (a).
Bessel coefficient 5j4(6) 36. An angle-modulated signal is given by
Hence, the correct option is (d). S(t) = cos2π(2 × 106t + 30sin150t + 40cos150t).
34. Choose the correct one from among the alternative a, The maximum frequency and phase deviations of s(t)
b, c, d after matching an item in Group 1 with the most are
appropriate item in Group 2. (a) 10.5 kHz, 140π rad
(b) 6 kHz, 80π rad
8.20 | Communication
(c) 10.5 kHz, 100π rad Now passing from LPF with fc = 1 Hz
(d) 7.5 kHz, 100π rad [2002] sin 2t sin 0.5π t + cos 1.5π t
y (t ) = +
Solution:(d) 2t t
Given
38. A message m(t) band limited to the frequency fm has
s(t) = cos[2π × 106 × 2t + 2π × 30 sin 150t + 2π a power of Pm. The power of the output signal in the
× 40 cos 150t] figure is
dθ
= 2π × 2 × 106 + 2π × 4500 cos
dt
150t + 2π × 6000( − sin 150t )
1
2 2 2
∆w = w1 − wc = 2π [4500 + 6000 ]
Δw = 2π × 7.5k rad/sec P cosθ Pm
(a) m (b)
∆w 2 4
∆f = = 7.5 kHz
2π Pm cosθ
Pm sin 2θ (d)
(c) [2000]
2 2 4 2
∆φ = 2π 30 + 40
∆φ = 100π Solution: (d)
m(t )
Hence, the correct option is (d). Output signal = cos q
2
37. In the figure m (t ) = 2 sin 2π t , s(t) = cos200πt and m(t) has power Pm
t Power of a m(t) → a2.Pm
n (t ) = sin199π t . The output y(t) will be Here a =
1
cos θ
t 2
Pm
Power of output signal = cos 2 θ
4
Hence, the correct option is (d).
39. The Hilbert transform of cosω1t + sinω2t is
(a) sinω1t − cosω2t (b) sinω1t + cosω2t
sin2p t
(a) (c) cosω1t − sinω2t (d) sinω1t + sinω2t[2000]
t
Solution: (a)
sin2p t sinp t A Hilbert transform produces a 90o phase shift
(b) + cos3p t
t t H .T
sin 2t sin 0.5π t + cos 1.5π t sin ω2 t ← → − cos ω2 t
y (t ) =
(c) +
2t t H .T
cos ω1t ← → sin ω1t
sin2p t sin0.5p t
(d) [2002] Hence, the correct option is (a).
+ cos0.75p t
t t 4 0. In an FM system, a carrier of 100 MHz is modulated
Solution: by a sinusoidal signal of 5 kHz. The bandwidth by
Carson’s approximation is 1 MHz. If y(t) = (modulated
wave form)3, then by using Carson’s approximation, the
bandwidth of y(t) around 300 MHz and the spacing of
spectral components are, respectively.
(a) 3 MHz, 5 kHz (b) 1 MHz, 15 kHz
(c) 3 MHz, 15 kHz (d) 1 MHz, 5 kHz
Input at LPF x(t) = [m(t).s(t) + n(t)] x(t) [2000]
x(t) = m(t).s2(t) + n(t) s(t) Solution: (a)
1 Frequency modulated waveform is given by
x(t ) = [sin 202π t + sin 199π t ]cos 200π t
t x(t) = AC cos[wct + β sin wmt]
402 2 2 398 1 399 y(t) = k cos [3wct + 3 β sin wmt]
Frequency present = , . , , ,
2 2 2 2 2 2
Chapter 1 Analog Communication Systems | 8.21
After passing from y(t) = [x(t)]3 this is the case of over modulation. So, synchronous
b' = 3b β= modulation index modulator only can detect.
∆f ′ = 3 × ∆f = ∆f >> f m Δf = frequency deviation Hence, the correct option is (c).
BW = 2∇f ′ × 3 = 3 MHz 44. A superheterodyne radio receiver with an intermediate
frequency of 455 kHz is tuned to a station operating
fm = 5 kHz
at 1200 kHz. The associated image frequency is ____
Hence, the correct option is (a). kHz. [1993]
41. An FM signal with a modulation index 9 is applied to Solution:
a frequency tripler. The modulation index in the output
IF = intermediate frequency
signal will be
(a) 0 (b) 3 fis= Image frequency
(c) 9 (d) 27 [1996] fsi = fs + 2IF
Solution: (d) Fsi = 1200 + 2(455) = 2110 KHz.
In a frequency multiplier circuit, the modulation index 45. The maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is
is multiplied by η. So (a) 25% (b) 50%
b'FM = ηbFM βFM= modulation index (c) 33% (d) 100% [1992]
b' = 3 × 9 = 7 Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (d). Power efficiency of AM modulator is given by
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer µ2
η= , μmax = 1,
using the code given below the lists: 2 + µ2
List-I List-II where is modulation index
A. SSB 1. Envelope detector 1 1
B. AM 2. Integrate and dump η max = =
2 +1 3
C. BPSK 3. Hilbert transform
D. 4. Ratio detector Hence, the correct option is (b).
5. PLL 46. A 4 GHz carrier is DSB--SC modulated by a low pass
Codes: message signal with maximum frequency of 2 MHz.
A B C The resultant signal is to be ideally sampled. The mini-
(a) 3 1 2 mum frequency of the sampling impulse train should
(b) 3 2 1 be
(c) 2 1 3 (a) 4 MHz (b) 8 MHz
(d) 1 2 3 [1994] (c) 8 GHz (d) 8.004 GHz
Solution:(a) [1990]
Hibert transform → SSB Solution: (b)
AM → Envelope Detector Fc = carrier frequency
BPSK → Integrate and dump fm = message signal frequency
Hence, the correct option is (a). fL = lower frequency
43. Which of the following demodulator(s) can be used for fH = higher frequency
demodulating the signal fc = 4 GHz = 4000 MHz
x(t) = 5(1 + 2 cos200pt) cos20000πt Fm = 2 MHz, fH = fc + fm
(a) envelope demodulator FL = fc − fm
(b) square-law demodulator
BW = FH – FL = 2 fm
(c) synchronous demodulator
(d) none of the above [1993] BW = 2 × 2 = 4 MHz
Solution:(c) Hence, the correct option is (b).
Given that x(t) = 5(1 + 2 cos 200 πt) cos 20000 πt, 47. In commercial TV transmission in India, picture and
speech signals are modulated respectively as
standard equation for AM signal is XAM(t) = AC(1 + m
cos wmt) cos wct. (Picture) (Speech)
By comparing m = 2, (a) VSB and VSB
(b) VSB and SSB
8.22 | Communication
∫ [y(t) − x(t)]
2
dt.[1988]
−∞
∫ y (t )dt ∫
Received signal
1 1
−∞ −∞
∫B 2
f 2
df
y(t) = 2x + x2 = y1(t) + y2(t)
y1(t) = 2x(t) ↔ 2x(f) = y1(f)
1 g 2 (t ) g 2 (t )
| x( f ) 2 df |= y2 ( f ) = x 2 (t ) = g 2 (t ).cos 2 2p fct = + cos 4p f c t
∞ ∞
4p 2 2 2
∫ ∫
2
x (t )dt = ∞
1 1 g 2 (t ) g 2 (t )
−∞ −∞
∫B
−∞
2
+ f2
df = y2 ( f ) = x 2 (t ) = g 2 (t ).cos 2 2p fct =
4p B 2
+
2
cos 4p f c t
= y3 (t ) + y4 (t )
x(t ) y *(t )dt =
∞ ∞
1
∫ x(t ) y(t )dt = ∫ g 2 (t ) 1
B
1 1 dt = y3 (t ) = = [G ( g ) * G ( f )]
−∞ −∞ 4p ∫B
−B
2
+ t2
8p B
2 2
2
∞ x4 (t ) = g (t ) cos(2p 2 f c t ) = y3 (t ).cos(2p 2 f c t )
∫ [ y(t ) − x(t )] dt
2
1
y4 ( t ) = [ y3 ( f − 2 f c ) + y3 ( f + 2 f c )
−∞ 2
∞
y 2 (t )dx y2(f) = y3(f) + y4(f)
∫ + ∫ x (t )dt − 2 ∫ x(t ). y(t )dt
∞ ∞
= 2 y2(f) = y1(f) + y2(f).
−∞
−∞ −∞
1 1 1 1
= + − 2. =
8p B 4p B 8p B 8p B
2. A baseband signal g(t) band limited to 100 Hz modu-
lates a carrier of frequency fc Hz. The modulated signal
g(t)cos2pfct is transmitted over a channel whose input
x and output y are related by y = 2x + x2. The spectrum
8.24 | Communication
Chapter 2
Random Signals and Noise
One-mark Questions =
2 ( 2) +
1× 1
No ⎡ 1 2 3
⎤
⎢ ∫ h (t ) dt + ∫ h (t ) dt + ∫ h (t ) dt ⎥
2 2 2
= 1 1
2 ⎢⎣ 0 ⎥⎦ for k = 0 E[x2[n]] = I2 + (–1)2 = 1
1 2
2 2
For k ≠ 0
No 2 3 A2 N o
⎡ A + A2 + A2 ⎤ =
=
2 ⎣ ⎦ 2 Rx(k) = E[x[n]] ⋅ E[X(n + k)] = 0
Hence, the correct option is (A). So Ry(k) = 1.25 Rx(k) + 0.5 Rx(k – 1) + 0.5 Rx(k + 1)
For Ry(0) = 1.25 Rx(0) + 0.5 Rx(–1) + 0.5 Rx(+ 1)
3. { X n }n = −∞ is an independent and identically distributed
n =∞
= 1.25
(i.i.d) random process with Xn equally likely to be +1 or
–1. {Yn }n = −∞ is another random process obtained as Yn =
n =∞ Ry(1) = 1.25 Rx(1) + 0.5 Rx(0) + 0.5 Rx(+ 2)
, denoted by RY[k], is [2015] Ry(– 1) = 1.25 Rx(– 1) + 0.5 Rx(– 2) + 0.5 Rx(0)
= 0.5
(A) RY[k] 1
Ry(2) = 1.25 Rx(2) = 0.5 Rx(1) + 0.5 Rx(3)
So all values of Ry(k) are zero except at k =0, 1 and –1.
So
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 k
1.25
(B) RY[k] 1.25
0.5 0.5
0.5 0.5
–1 0 +1 k
∞ 3 3
1 − x2 / 2
×
= ∫ x.
2π
e dx = 2 2 =
2 × 2
9
16
−∞
0 ∞
1 2 /2 1 2 /2 Hence, the correct option is (b)
= ∫
−∞
− x.
2π
e− x ∫
dx + x.
0
2π
e− x dx
9. A power spectral density of a real process X(t) for posi-
tive frequencies is shown below. The values of E[X2(t)]
∞ ∞ − x2 and E X (t ) , respectively, are
1 − x2 / 2 2
∫
= 2 x.
2π
e dx +
2π ∫ x.e 2 dx
0 0
2
Let − x = t
2
−2 × dx
= dt
2
∞ (a) 6000/π, 0
2
Hence
2π 0 ∫ −e −t dt = 0.8 (b) 6400/π, 0
(c) 6400/π, 20/(π/ 2 )
∴ E[|x|] = 0.8 (d) 6000/π, 20/(π 2 ) [2012]
7. If calls arrive at a telephone exchange such that the Solution: (a)
rate of arrival of any call is independent of the time of
arrival of earlier or future calls, the probability distribu-
tion function of the total number of call in a fixed time
interval will be
(a) Poisson (b) Gaussian
(c) Exponential (d) Gamma [2014]
Solution: (a)
Given system follows property of Poisson distribution.
Hence, the correct option is (a) We know
8. Two independent random variables X and Y are uni- 11×103
1
∫
2
formly distributed in the interval [−1, 1]. The probabil- P = E[ x (t )] = 2 × S x ( w )dw
ity that max [X, Y] is less than 1/2 is 2π
9×103
(a) 3/4 (b) 9/16
(c) 1/4 (d) 2/3 [2013] 1 1 3
E[ x 2 (t )] = 400 + 2 × 6 × 2 × 10
Solution: (b) π
−1 ≤ x ≤ 1 and −1 ≤ y ≤ 1 is the entire rectangle, region 6400
for maximum of {x, y} is less than ½ is shaded region =
π
inside the rectangle.
8.28 | Communication
(c)
Chapter 2 Random Signals and Noise | 8.29
(a) uniform (b) Gaussian 2. A random variable X takes values –1 and +1 with proba-
(c) exponential (d) Rayleigh [1995] bilities 0.2 and 0.8, respectively. It is transmitted across
Solution: (d) a channel which adds noise N, so that the random vari-
able at the channel output is Y = X + N. The noise N is
As we have discussed in 2.2 80 Ω a narrow band noise
independent of X, and is uniformly distributed over the
with Gaussian quadrature components the probabil-
interval [–2, 2]. The receiver makes a decision
ity density function of its envelop will be a Rayleigh
function.
Hence, the correct option is (d)
X̂ = { −1, if Y ≤ θ
+1, if Y > θ
–5 5 f(Hz)
Solution:
–1 0 3
1 Sz(f ) W/Hz 1
if –1 is transmitted
4
–5 5 f(Hz) –3 0 1
Solution: If we assume that S0 & S1 be transmitted density over the interval (–1, 1). X and Z are independ-
symbols with values (–1, 1) respectively and r0 and r1 ent. If the MAP rule-based detector outputs X̂ as
be the received symbols. Then we have
⎧−0.5, Y < ∝
Xˆ = ⎨
fN(n)
⎩ 0.5, Y ≥ ∝,
0.5 1
Slope = then the value of ∝ (accurate to two decimal places) is
4
______. [2018]
Solution: Consider the figure given below
f2(Z)
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 n 1/2
P(r0/S1) P(r1/S0)
t
Probability of error can be calculated as given below –1 0 +1
8
seconds) resulting in output Y (t). The power in Y(t) in
watts is [2018]
(A) 0.11 (B) 0.22
(C) 0.33 (D) 0.44 –1.5 –1 –1.5 0 0.5 1 1.5
Solution: We know that power spectral density of
noise input, is expressed as Optimum threshold
= ∫ ⎜ 2 ⎟⎟ dt = 0.22 W
2 −∞
⎜ e 2
⎝ ⎠ as shown in figure (b). The output of the low-pass filter
Hence, the correct option is (B) is Y(t).
5. A random variable X takes values -0.5 and 0.5 with Sx(f)
X(t) ideal lowpass Y(t)
1 3 exp (−⎜f ⎜) filter h(t)
probabilities and , respectively. The noisy observa- cutoff = 1/2 Hz
4 4
0
tion of X is Y = X + Z, where Z has uniform probability (a) (b)
8.32 | Communication
=
1 ) * X (t 2 ) ∫ 2 sin (2 tπθ
)* 2 sin (2π t 2 +θ )fθ (θ )dθ Solution:
0 2π 1 / w f ≤w
1 Sx ( f ) =
∫
= 2 sin (2π t1 +θ )sin (2π t 2 +θ ) dθ
2π 0 f >w
0
2π
1 1
=
2π ∫ sin (2π (t +t ) + 2θ )dθ + 2π
0
1 2
2π
∫ cos (2π (t
0
1 − t 2 ) )dθ
2π ∴ Rx (τ ) ↔ S x ( f )
∫ sin (2π (t1 +t 2 ) + 2θ )dθ = 0 = s sin e [2 wτ]
0 Also
as it is integration in one time period
1 1
1
2π E π × (t ). x t − = π E x(t ). x t − 4 w
2π
∫ cos (2 x(t − t ) )dθ
0
1 2 = cos (2π (t1 − t2 ) ) 4 w
1‘ 1
So , E X (t1 ) * X (t 2 ) = cos (2π (t1 − t2 ) ) = π Rx = π .2 sin e
4w 2
Hence, the correct option is (d)
11. The input to a 1-bit quantizer is a random variable X We know that
with PDF fx(x) = 2e–2x for x ≥ 0 and fx(x) = 0 for x < sin π x
sin e( x ) =
0. For outputs to be of equal probability, the quantizer πx
threshold should be ____. [2014]
From equation (1), we get
Solution:
sin π / 2
Assume quantization voltage is Vth for outputs of quan- ∴ 2π =4
tizer to have equal probability by → π /2
P(x ≤ Vth) = P(x ≥ Vth) P2
= E[cos( 2π (t1 − t 2 )] − cos[ 2π (t1 + t 2 + 2a)]
Vth d 2
∫
−∞
f x ( x ) ax = ∫ f x ( x )dx
=
P2
2
cos[2π (t1 − t 2 )]
Vth
Vth ∞ 1 3. A real band-limited random process X(t) has two-
∫ 2e −2 x dy = ∫ 2e
−2 x
dx sided power spectral density
0 Vth
10 −6 (3000 − f Watts/Hz ) for t ≤ 3kHz
S x (f ) =
1
e −2 xVth = 0 otherwise
2
where f is the frequency expressed in Hz. The signal x(t)
Vth = 0.346
modulates a carrier cos16000πt and the resultant signal
1 2. The power spectral density of a real stationary random is passed through an ideal band-pass filter of unity gain
process X(t) is given by with centre frequency of 8 kHz and band-width of 2
1 kHz. The output power (in watts) is _______. [2014]
, f ≤W
S x (f ) = W Solution:
0 f >W
10 −6 (3000 − f watts/Hz for f ≤ 3 kHz
Sx ( f ) =
The value of the expectation 0 otherwise
1
E π x(t ) ⋅ x t − is _______. [2014]
4W
8.34 | Communication
⇒
PSD
2 fx(t ) ← → Sy(t )
Then
PSD Sx ( f − fc ) + Sx ( f + fc )
x(l ) cos 2π fet ← →
4
∴PSD of x(t) cos 2A × 80 wt
=
⇒
We know that
2 ×
S x (f ) → H (f ) → H (f ) S x (f )
Solution:
∴ PSD of BPF output
x1 + x2 ≤ x3
x1 + x2 – x3 ≤ 0
As P[x1 + x2 – x3 ≤ 0] = P[y ≤ 0]
and y is another random variable whose probability
density function is given by convolution of x1, x2 and x3.
0
y2
So, P ( y ≤ 0) = ∫
−1
2
dy
Output power = total area of output PSD
0
y2
2 × 10 −3 1 10 −3 P ( y ≤ 0) =
= 2 ( 2000) + 2 × 1000 × 6 −1
4
2 4
P(y tt 0) = 0.16
1
= 2 1 + = 2.5 watts 1 5. A binary random variable X takes the value of 1 with
4 probability 1/3. X is input to a cascade of two independ-
14. Let X1, X2 and X3 be cdistributed random variables ent identical binary symmetric channels (BSCs) each
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1]. The probability with crossover probability 1/2. The output of BSCs is
P{X1, + X2 ≤ X3} is ______. [2014] the random variables Y1 and Y2 as shown in the figure.
Chapter 2 Random Signals and Noise | 8.35
− (γ −1)2
1
fγ ( y )= e 2σ 2
H1 σ 2π
1 − (γ +1)2
The value of H(Y1) + H(Y2) in bits is _____. [2014] and fγ ( y )= e 2σ 2
H0
σ 2π
Solution: Let yopt denote an optimal threshold, then probability of
P(x = 1) = 1/3 and P(x = 0) = 2/3 error for optimum threshold will be calculated as
1
So H ( y1 ) = P ( y1 ) log fγ ( y )
P( y) H1 P( H 0 )
=
1 fγ ( y ) P ( H1 )
H ( y2 ) = P ( y2 ) log H0 y = yopt
P ( y2 )
where P(y = 1) = P(y1 = 0) −[(γ −1) −(γ +1)]2
2σ 2
P( H 0 )
1 1 2 1 1 e =
= × + × = P ( H1 )
3 2 3 2 2
yopt
Similarly +2 yopt 2
σ P( H 0 )
P(y2 = 1) = P(y2 = 0) = y2 e =
P ( H1 )
Here H ( y1 ) + H ( y2 ) = 1 log 2 2 + 1 log, 2 + 1 log 2 2 + 1 log 2 2
2 2 2 2 So, yopt can be given as
1 1 1 1 σ 2 P ( H 0 ) −σ 2
) + H ( y2 ) = log 2 2 + log, 2 + log 2 2 + log 2 2 yopt = ln = = −0.55σ 2 , here,
2 2 2 2 2 P ( H1 ) 2
yopt is less than zero, so negative.
H(y1) + H(yn) = 2 bits
Hence, the correct option is (c)
16. Consider a communication scheme where the binary
17. Consider the Z-channel given in the figure. The input is
values signal X satisfies P{X = 1} = 0.75 and P{X =
0 or 1 with equal probability.
−1} = 0.25. The received signal Y = X + Z, where Z is a
Gaussian random variable with zero mean and variance
σ2. The received signal Y is fed to the threshold detec-
tor. The output of the threshold detector X is
+1 Y > τ
X =
−1 Y ≤ τ
To achieve a minimum probability of error
P{X ≠ X}, the threshold τ should be If the output is 0, the probability that the input is also 0
(a) strictly positive equals ___________. [2014]
(b) zero Solution:
(c) strictly negative
(d) strictly positive, zero, or strictly negative depend-
ing on the nonzero value of σ2 [2014]
Solution: (c)
Assume hypothesis H1 and H0 are given as
H1 : X = +1; H 0 : X = −1 and their probabilities P(H1)
= 0.75 ; P(H0) = 0.25
Let received sigma γ = X + Z where Z follow normal
− z2 Given P(x) = [0.5 0.5]
distribution as N (0, - 2); with f ( Z ) = 1 2σ 2
z e y1 y2
σ 2π
y x 1 0
1+ Z ifX = 1 P = 1
Then received signal γ = x x2 0.25 0.75
−1 + Z ifX = −1
8.36 | Communication
Then 0 ∞
1 −0.5( y −a (1+ β ))2 1 −0.5( y +a (1+ β ))2
0.5
P[ x , y ] =
0
= 0.5 ∫
−∞
2π
e dy + 0.5 ∫
−0
2π
e dy = Q (a (1 + β ))
0.125 0.375
0 ∞
and P(y1) = 0.625 = 0.5 1 −0.5( y −a (1+ β ))2 1 −0.5( y +a (1+ β ))2
P(y2) = 0.375 −∞
2π
e ∫ dy + 0.5
−0
∫ 2π
e dy = Q (a (1 + β ))
− a2
and the conditional probability matrix When β = 0, Pe = Q( a) = 1× 10 −8 = e 2 → a = 6.07
x − a2
P is given by Q( a) = 1× 10 −8 = e 2 → a = 6.07
y Pe =
y1 y2 β = –0.3, Pe = Q(6.07(1 − 0.3)) = Q( 4.249)
x x 0.8 0 − ( 4.249 )2
P = 1 Pe = e 2 = 1.2 × 10 −4
y x2 0.33 1
−4
Pe ≈ 10
x 0
Hence P 1 = P = 0.8 Hence, the correct option is (c)
y1 0
19. Let U and V be two independent zero mean Gaussian
18. Consider a discrete-time channel Y = X + Z, where 1 1
the additive noise Z is signal-dependent. In particu- random variables of variances and respectively.
The probability 4 9
lar, given the transmitted symbol X ∈ {-a, +a} at any
instant, the noise sample Z is chosen independently P(3 V ≥ 2U) is
from a Gaussian distribution with mean βX and unit (a) 4/9 (b) 1/2
variance. Assume a threshold detector with zero thresh- (c) 2/3 (d) 5/9 [2013]
old at the receiver. When β = 0, the BER was found to Solution: (b)
be
P(3V – 2U) = P(3V – 2U ≥ 0)
Q(a) = 1 × 10-8
= P(W ≥ 0)
∞
Q(v ) = 1 −u2 / 2 − v 2 / 2
2π v ∫
e du, and for v > 1. use Q(v ) = e
Where W = 3V – 2U
U = N(0, 1/4)
↓ ↓
∞
−u2 / 2 −v2 / 2
∫ e du, and for v > 1. use Q(v ) = e
Mean Variance
V = N(0, 1/a)
v
When β = −0.3, the BER is closest to W = 3V – 2U
(a) 10-7 (b) 10-6 1 1
(c) 10 -4
(d) 10-2 [2014] W = N 0, 0 × + 4 ×
4 9
Solution: (c)
= N(0, 2.7)
Given X ∈ [-a,-a] and P(x = –a) = P(x = a) = 0.5
Since W is Gaussian variable with 0 mean,
Let γ = X + Z be the received signal and Z follows nor-
mal distribution as N(βX, 1) as
1 2 −a + Z if X = −a
f z (Z ) = e −( Z − β X ) , y =
2π a+Z f X = +a
H1 : X = + a; H 0 : X = −a , and threshold =0
1 2
fγ ( y )= e −0.5(γ − a(1+ β )) (P(w ≥ 0) = 1/2 = area for w ≥ 0].
H1 2π
Hence, the correct option is (b)
1 2
and fγ ( y )= e −0.5(γ + a(1+ β )) 20. Consider two identically zero-mean random variables
H0 2π U and V. Let the cumulative distribution functions of
Bit error rate is given by U and 2 V be F(x) and G(x), respectively. Then, for all
values of x
Pe = P ( H1 ) P (e / H1 ) + P ( H 0 ) P (e / H 0 )
Chapter 2 Random Signals and Noise | 8.37
F(x) = P(x ≤ x)
Let SY(f) be the power spectral density of Y(t), which
G(x) = P(2x ≤ x)
one of the following statements is correct?
= P(x ≤ x/2) (a) SY(f) > 0 for all f
For position values of x (b) SY(f) = 0 for |f | > 1 kHz
F(x) – G(x) > 0. (c) SY(f) = 0 for f = nf0, f0¬ = 2 kHz, n any integer
(d) SY(f) = 0 for f = (2n + 1) f0, f0 = 1 kHz, n any integer
For negative values of x
[2010]
F(x) – G(x) < 0
Solution: (d)
but [F(x) – G(x)], X ≥ 0 for all values of x.
y1(t) = x(t) + x(t – 0.5 × 10−3)
Hence, the correct option is (d)
y1(f ) = x(f ) [1 + e−j2π (0.5 × 10−3)
21. X(t) is a stationary random process with autocorrela-
y1 ( f ) −3
tion function Rx(τ) = exp(−πτ2). This process is passed H1 ( f ) = = 1 + e − ejπ f ×10
through the system below. The power spectral density x( f )
of the output process Y(t) is
H(f) = H1(f ) . H2(f )
= j 2π f 1 + e − j (π f ×10 )
−3
Sy(f ) = |H(f)|2Sx(f )
(a) (4π2f2 + 1) exp(−πf2) = 4π 2 t 2 2 + 2 cos(π f × 10 −3 ) S x ( f )
(b) (4π2f2− 1) exp(−πf2)
(c) (4π2f2 + 1) exp(−πf) For f0 = 1 kHz and f = (2n + 1) f0
(d) (4π2f2− 1) exp(−πf) [2011] πf × 10−3 is odd multiple of π
Solution: (a) ∴ Sy(f) = 0
d Hence, the correct option is (d)
y (t ) = x (t ) − x (t )
dt Common Data Questions 23 and 24
y( f ) = jwx( f ) − x( f ) Consider a baseband binary PAM receiver shown
below. The additive channel noise n(t) is white
= [j2 πf – 1] x(f)
with power spectral density SN(f ) = N0/2 = 10-20
y( f ) W/Hz. The low-pass filter is ideal with unity gain and
H( f ) = cut-off frequency 1 MHz. Let Yk represent the random
x( f )
variable y(tk).
PSD = |H(f)|2 . Sx(f) Yk = Nk if transmitted bit bk = 0
=| ( j 2π f − 1) |2 .S x ( f ) Yk = a + Nk if transmitted bit b = 1
2 where Nk represents the noise sample value. The noise
S ( f ) = FT {Rx (τ )} = e −π t sample has noise probability density function, pNk (n)
x
= 0.5αe −α|n| (This has mean zero and variance 2/α2.)
Since Fourier of Gaussian is also Fourier,
Assume transmitted bits to be equiprobable and thresh-
2
S y ( f ) = [ yπ 2 f 2 + 1].e −π f old z is set to a/2 = 10-6V.
n(t)
Hence, the correct option is (a)
Y(t) Y(l) b, if y(t)> z
x(t) + r(t) LPF
22. X(t) is a station process with the power spectral density S/H F
b, if y(t)< z
SX(f ) > 0 for all f. The process is passed through a sys- Sampling Threshold
tem shown below. time z
Receiver
8.38 | Communication
w Y = 2|X – Y = 0)?
= 10 −20 × 2 × 106 Hz
H2 1
(a) 0 (b)
= 2 × 10−14 w 16
1
Power = mean square value (c) (d) 1 [2009]
6
[α/α2 = 2 × 10−14)
α = 107 Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (b) ( P * x + y = 2, x − y = 0)
P ( x + y = 2 / x − y = 0) =
24. The probability of bit error is
P ( x − y = 0)
(a) 0.5 × e–3.5 (b) 0.5 × e–5 1
(c) 0.5 × e –7
(d) 0.5 × e–10 [2010] P ( x + y = 2, x − y = 0) = P ( x = 1, y = 1) =
16
Solution: (d)
P(x – y = 0) = P(x = 0, y = 0) + P(x = 1, y = 1)
When a → 1 + P(x = 2, y = 2)
rk = a + Nk = P(x = 0) .P(y = 0) + P(x = 1) P(y = 1) + P(x = 2) P(y
Threshold z = 1/2 = 10−6 = 2) = 3/8
a = 2 × 10−6 1 8 1
P ( x + y = 2 / x − y = 0) = × =
for error to occur, yk < 10−6 16 3 16
2 × 10−6 + Nk < 10−6 Hence, the correct option is (c)
Nk< −10−6 26. A discrete random variable X takes values from 1 to 5
−10 −6 with probabilities as shown in the table. A student cal-
P (0 /1) = ∫
−∞
PNK ( n)dn culates the mean X as 3.5 and her teacher calculates the
variance of X as 1.5. Which of the following statements
−10 −6
is true?
∫
−∞
0.5α .eα n dn; α = 107
K 1 2 3 4 5
P(X = K) 0.1 0.2 0.4 0.2 0.1
P(0/1) = 0.5e−10
When a '0' is transmitted (a) Both the student and the teacher are right
(b) Both the student and the teacher are wrong
yk = Nk
(c) The student is wrong but the teacher is right
For error to occur (d) The student is right and but the teacher is wrong
yk > 10−6 [2009]
∞
Solution: (b)
∫ PNK ( n)dn = 0.5 × 10 −6
P (1/ 0) =
Mean x = Σ xi P ( xi )
10 −6
= 1 × 0.1 + 2 × 0.2 + 3 × 0.4 + 4 × 0.2 + 5 × 0.
Since both bits are equiprobable,
= 3
P(0) = P(1) = 1/2
The probability of bit error σ2 variance = x 2 − x 2 = Σxi2 p( xi ) − (Σ xi P ( xi )) 2
= P(1) . P(0/1) + P(0) . P(1/0) σ2 = [(1 × 0.1) + 4 × 0.2 + 9 × 0.4 + 16 × 0.2 × 25 ×
0.1)] – (3)2
CDF
1
−1 0 1 X −1
−1 0 1 X
−1 0 1 X
−1
The corresponding Cumulative
0 Distribution
1 X Function
Solution: (a)
(CDF) has the form Density function is given as
(a) fx(x) = (t + 1)u(t + 1) – 2tu(t) + (t – 1)u(t – 1)
PDF
PDF CDF function is calculated as integration of density
1 PDF
1 function.
1
PDF x
1
−∞
∫
Fx ( x ) = f x ( x )dx
(c)
∫ P ( x)dx = 1
−∞
x
CDF
CDF ∞
∫ {me }
1 CDF −2| x|
1 + Ne −3| x| dx = 1
1
CDF −∞
1 ∞
1
∫ (me
−2 x
+ Ne −3 x )dx =
2
0
m N 1
+ =
−1 0 10 X 2 3 2
−1 1 X
−1 0 1 X 2N
CDF 0
m+ =1
−1 CDF 1 X 3
CDF
1
1 Hence, the correct option is (a)
1 CDF
1
1
−1 0 1
−1 0 X
− X
8.40 | Communication
29. Noise with double-sided power spectral density of K (c) tuned L-C filter
over all frequencies is passed through a RC low pass (d) series R-L-C filter [2006]
filter with 3 dB cut-off frequency of fc. The noise power Solution: (a)
at the filter output is
Given
(a) K (b) Kfc
(c) Kπfc (d) ∞ [2008] 16
S (w) =
Solution: (c) 16 + w 2
Filter transfer function is given by 4
H ( s) =
1 1 4+s
H( f ) = =
1 + j 2π fRc 1 + jf/f c This is a low pass filter of RL type.
fC2 Hence, the correct option is (a)
Output PSD = |H(f )|2 . input PSD = .K 32. The parameters of the system obtained in the above
f 2 + fC2
question would be
∞
(a) first order R-L low pass filter would have
Output noise power = ∫ (o/p PSD).df
−∞
R=4Ω L=1H
(b) first order R-C high pass filter would have
∞
fc 2 R = 4 Ω C = 0.25F
=k
−∞
∫ fc 2 + f 2
∂f
(c) tuned L-C filter would have L = 4 H
C=4F
= kπfc (d) series R-L-C low pass filter would have
(By substitution f = fc tan Q) R = 1Ω , L = 4H, C = 4F [2006]
Hence, the correct option is (c) Solution: (a)
30. A zero-mean white Gaussian noise is passed For given network
through an ideal low-pass filter of bandwidth L
10 kHz. The output is then uniformly sampled with
sampling period ts = 0.03 msec. The samples so
obtained would be
(a) correlated R
(b) statistically independent
(c) uncorrelated
(d) orthogonal [2006]
Solution: (b) R
H ( jw ) =
If white noise is sampled, no matter how closely in R + jwL
time the samples are taken, they are uncorrected. If
white noise is Gaussian then samples are statically So R = 4, L = 1
independent. Hence, the correct option is (a)
Hence, the correct option is (b) 33. A uniformly distributed random variable X with prob-
Common Data for Questions 31 and 32 ability density function
1
The following two questions refer to wide sense sta-
tionary stochastic processes.
f x (x ) =
10
(
u ( x + 5) − u ( x − 5) )
31. It is desired to generate a stochastic process (as voltage where u(.) in the unit step function is passed through a
process) with power spectral density transformation given in the figure below. The probabil-
16 ity density function of the transformed random variable
s(ω ) =
16 + ω 2 Y would be
By driving a linear-time-invariant system by zero y
mean white noise (as voltage process) with power spec-
tral density being constant equal to 1, the system which
can perform the desired task could be 1
(a) first order low pass R-L filter
(b) first order high pass R-C filter
x
2.5 2.5
Chapter 2 Random Signals and Noise | 8.41
1 Area = 1
(a) f y (y ) =
5
(
u ( y + 2.5 ) − u ( y − 2.5 ) ) k×4
=1
f y (y ) = 0.5δ(y ) + 0.5δ(y − 1) 2
(b)
f y (y ) = 0.25δ(y + 2.5) + 0.25δ k = 1/2
(c) 4
(y − 2.5) + 0.5δ( y )
∫
E[ x ] = x 2 f x ( x )dx
2
∫
= ( x − xq ) 2 f x ( x )dx
0
mean = 0
( )
Auto correlation function R xx (t ) = 4 e −0.2 t + 1 and
1 0.3 1
∫
= ( x − xq ) 2 /dx = ∫ ( x − 0) dx + ∫ ( x − 0.7)
2 2 Hence, the correct option is (d)
0 0 0.3 41. The probability that [x ≤ 1] is
(a) 1 – Q(0.5) (b) Q(0.5)
dx = 0.03
Root mean square value of quantization noise 1 1
(c)
Q 1− Q
(d) [2003]
=
=0.039 0.198 2 2 2 2
Hence, the correct option is (b)
Chapter 2 Random Signals and Noise | 8.43
∫
1
µ x = E ( x) = x Px ( x ) dx
∫ Nt
2 2
E[ y ] = e 2 N dt
−∞ 2π N
0
3
1 ∞ −t 2
= ∫ x
4
dx
=
N
∫t
2
e 2 dt
−1 2π
0
3
1 x 2 N
= E[ y 2 ] =
4 2 −1 2
Hence, the correct option is (b)
[μx = 1]
49. Events A and B are mutually exclusive and have
Variance is given as
a nonzero probability. Which of the following
∞
statement(s) are true?
σ x 2 = E[( x − µ ) 2 ] = ∫ (x − µ )
2
n Px ( x )dx P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P ( B )
(a)
−∞
P (BC ) > P ( A)
3 3 (b)
1 1 x2 2x2 P (A ∩ B) = P ( A) P ( B)
∫
2 2 (c)
sx = ( x + 1 − 2 x )dx = + x −
4 4 3 2 P (BC ) < P ( A)
−2 −1
(d) [1988]
2 4 Solution: (a)
σ x = 3 Since events P ∩ B) = Pexclusive,
( A) + P ( Bso
) + P ( A ∩ B)
are
( Amutually
P ( A ∩ B ) = P ( A ) + P ( B ) + P ( A ∩ B )
Hence, the correct option is (b)
48. Zero mean Gaussian noise of variance N is applied to a [ P ( A ∩ B ) = P ( A) + P ( B)]
half wave rectifier. The mean squared value of the recti-
Hence, the correct option is (a)
fier output will be
(a) Zero (b) N/2 50. The variance of a random variable X is σ2X. Then the
(c) (d) N [1989] variance of –kx (where k is a positive constant) is
N z
(a) σ2X (b) –kσ2X
Solution: (b)
(c) kσ X (d)
2
k2σ2X [1987]
Half wave rectifier is given as
Solution: (d)
y = x for x ≥ 0
Given that variance of =var (x) = σ2X
= 0 for x< 0
Since var (x) = E(x2)
So f ( y ) =
1
d ( y) +
1
e
( − y2/ 2 N ) So var(−kx) = E((−kx)2)
2 2p N a2 = E[k2x2]
∞
a2 = k2E[x2]
E( y2 ) = ∫y
2
+ ( y )dy
a2 = k2σ2x
0
Hence, the correct option is (d)
∞ − y2 51. White Gaussian noise is passed through a linear narrow
1 1 dy
∫
2
= y δ ( y) + e 2N band filter. The probability density function of the enve-
2 2π N
0 lope of the noise at the filter output is
(a) Uniform (b) Poisson
∞ − y2 (c) Gaussian (d) Rayleigh [1987]
y2
= 0+ ∫ 2π N
e 2 N dy Solution: (d)
We know that narrow band re-presentation of Noise is
0
n(t) = nc(t) cos wct – ns(t) sin wct
envelope for the given signal will be
Chapter 2 Random Signals and Noise | 8.45
Systems
1
1
f (kHz)
f (kHz) −1.2 −0.8 0 0.8 1.2
−1.2 0 1.2
f (kHz) f (kHz)
−1.2 −1 −1.2 0 1.2
0 1 1.2
Chapter 3 Digital Communication Systems | 8.47
(A) increases by a factor of 2. 7. A discrete memory-less source has an alphabet {a1, a2,
(B) decreases by a factor of 2. ⎧ 1 1 1 1⎫
(C) remains unchanged. a3, a4} with corresponding probabilities ⎨ , , , ⎬.
(D) decreases by a factor of 2. ⎩ 2 4 8 8⎭
The minimum required average code word length in
2
P λ bits to represent this source for error-free reconstruc-
Solution: R = DD
PT 4π R tion is ____. [2016]
PR → Received power Solution: The discrete memory-less source has
PT → Transmitted power following probabilities:
Dt → Transmitting antenna directivity Pa1 = 1/2, Pa2 = 1/4, Pa3 = 1/8, Pa4 = 1/8
Dr → Receiving antenna directivity
l → wave length The entropy can be expressed as
4K 1
d= Ae , H = Pa1 log2 + Pa2 log2 1
λ2 pa1 pa2
where Ae → effective area
1 1
P + Pa3 log2 + Pa4 log2 .
1 pa3 pa4
∴ R = 2 2 Aet Aer
PT λ R
P 1 1 1 1
Given that Aet, Aer and R each is doubled. Then, R = log 2 + log24 + log28 + log28
remains constant PT 2 2 4 8 8
h
= 2μm
1.5
y (t ) = 5 × 10−6 x (t ) ∑ δ (t − nT )
s
n =−∞
Hence, the correct option is (c)
15. In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased 1 2
= 5 × 10 −6 x(t ) + (cos ws t + cos 2ws t + .....)
from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio
Ts Ts
improves by the factor
(a) 8/6 (b) 12 x(t ) 2
= 5 × 10 −6 + ( x(t ) cos ws t + x(t ) cos 2ws t + ...)
(c) 16 (d) 8 [2004] Ts Ts
8.50 | Communication
x (t ) 2 Solution: (a)
+ ( x(t ) cos ws t + x(t ) cos 2ws t + ...) Flat top sampling of low pass signals gives rise to aper-
Ts Ts ture effect.
Given
Hence, the correct option is (a)
cut off frequency of low pass fitter = 5 kHz
22. Quadrature multiplexing is
Ts = 100 ×10-6
(a) the same as FDM
1 (b) the same as TDM
fs = × 106 = 10 kHz
100 (c) a combination of FDM and TDM
θπ × 10 (d) quite different from FDM and TDM
fm = = 4 Hz
2π [1998]
Only first component gets passed, other will be sup- Solution: (d)
pressed because = fs – fm1 fs + fm12fs – fm, 2fs + fm> 5 Hz
Quadrature carrier multiplexing utilizes carrier phase
5 × 10 −6 × (t ) 5 × 10 −6 × 10 cos(8π × 103 ) shifting and synchronous detection to permit two DSB
y (t ) = = signals to occupy the same frequency band. It is the
Ts 100 × 10 −6
scheme where same carrier frequency is used for two
= 5 × 10−1 cos (2π × 103). different DSB signals. It is also known as QAM. So,
Hence, the correct option is (c) quadrature multiflexing is quite different from FDM
19. For a bit-rate of 8 Kbps, the best possible values of the and TDM.
transmitted frequencies in a coherent binary FSK sys- Hence, the correct option is (d)
tem are 23. Compression in PCM refers to relative compression of
(a) 16 kHz and 20 kHz (a) higher signal amplitudes
(b) 20 kHz and 32 kHz (b) lower signal amplitudes
(c) 20 kHz and 40 kHz (c) lower signal frequencies
(d) 32 kHz and 40 kHz [2002] (d) higher signal frequencies [1998]
Solution: (d)
Solution: (a)
For fsk
Compression is PCM refer to relative compression of
f1 = nfb higher signal frequencies.
f2 = mfb Hence, the correct option is (a)
So f1 = 4 × 8 = 32 kHz 24. The line code that has zero DC component for pulse
f2 = 5 × 8 = 40 kHz transmission of random binary data is
Hence, the correct option is (d) (a) more-return to zero (NRZ)
20. In a PCM system with uniform quantization, increasing (b) return to zero (RZ)
the number of bits from 8 to 9 will reduce the quantiza- (c) alternate mark inversion (AMI)
tion noise power by a factor of (d) none of the above [1997]
(a) 9 (b) 8 Solution: (c)
(c) 4 (d) 2 [1998] Alternate mark inversion (AMI) code has zero DC
Solution: (c) component for pulse transmission of random binary
n data.
SNRQ α 22 Hence, the correct option is (c)
SNRQ1 22×8 25. A deterministic signal has the power spectrum given
= in figure. The minimum sampling rate needed to com-
SNRQ1 22×9
pletely represent signal is
(SNRQ)2 = 4(SNRQ)1
So, increases by a factor of 4.
Hence, the correct option is (c)
21. Flat top sampling of low pass signals
(a) gives rise to aperture effect
(b) implies oversampling
(c) leads to aliasing
(d) introducing delay distortion [1998]
Chapter 3 Digital Communication Systems | 8.51
(a) 1 kHz (b) 2 kHz (a) depends upon the sampling frequency employed
(c) 3 kHz (d) none of these [1997] (b) is independent of the value of ‘n’
Solution: (b) (c) increases with increasing value of ‘n’
(d) decreases with the increasing value of ‘n’ [1995]
In sine function maximum power contain in main lobe.
So, we consider only main lobe Solution: (c)
BW = 2 kHz We know that
fs = 2 × BW 3 n
SNRQ = 22
2
fs = 4 kHz
So SNRQ depends on n
BW = 2(600 + 150)
Hence SNRQ increases as increasing value of n.
= 2 × 750
Hence, the correct option is (c)
= 1500 Hz
29. For a given data rate, the bandwidth Bp of a BPSK
Hence, the correct option is (b)
signal and the bandwidth B0 of the OOK signal are
26. If the number of bits per sample in a PCM system is related as
increased from a n to n + 1, the improvement in signal (a) BP = B0/4
to quantization nose ratio will be (b) BP = B0/2
(a) 3 dB (b) 6 dB (c) BP = B0
(c) 2 n dB (d) n dB [1995] (d) BPv = 2B0 [1995]
Solution: (b) Solution: (c)
We know that 2 n
(SNRQ)dB = 1.8 + 6n SNRQ α 2
for n bit n n
(SNRQ)1 22 22
(SNRQ)dB = 1.8 + 6n = 2( n +1) =
(SNRQ) 2 2 n
2 2 .2 2
for n + 1 bit
(SNRQ2) = (SNRQ) × 4
(SNRQ)′dB = 1.8 + 6( n + 1)
So SNRQ increases by factor = 4
= 1.8 + 6n + 6
So this is independent of n.
So, SNR increases by 6 dB
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Hence, the correct option is (b)
30. Increased pulse width in the flat top sampling leads to
27. A 1.0 kHz signal is flat top sampled at the rate of 1800
(a) attenuation of high frequencies in reproduction
samples/sec and the samples are applied to an ideal rec-
(b) attenuation of low frequencies in reproduction
tangular LPF with cut-off frequency of 1100Hz, then
(c) greater aliasing errors in reproduction
the output of the filter contains
(d) no harmful effects in reproduction [1994]
(a) only 800 Hz component
(b) 800 Hz and 900 Hz components Solution: (a)
(c) 800 Hz and 1000 Hz components Increased pulse width in the flat-top sampling leads
(d) 800 Hz, 900 Hz and 100 Hz components [1995] to greater attenuation of high frequencies in reproduc-
Solution: (c) tion. This effect is known as aperture effect.
M (t ) 2 Hence, the correct option is (a)
f out = T + T 31. The bandwidth required for the transmission of a
s s
(m(t) cos ws t + m(t) cos 2 ws t ) PCM signal increases by a factor of _____ when the
fm = 1 kHz number of quantization levels is increased from 4 to
64. [1994]
fs = 1.8 kHz
Solution:
fcut off = 1.1 kHz η fs
BW of PCM system =
So, at output frequencies present = fm, fs − fm 2
BW α n
= 1000 Hz and 800 Hz components
L1 = 4, L2 = 64
Hence, the correct option is (c)
η1 = log24, η2 = log264
28. The signal to quantization noise ratio in an
η1 = 2, η2 = 6
n-bit system
8.52 | Communication
3 p(t) p(t)
P(y1/x0) = 1/4 × 1/2 = P(x0, y0)
4 1 1
3 √Ts ∗ √Ts
= P(x0, y0)
8
Ts Ts
P(x0, y1) = P(x0) P(y1)
y(t)
=
1/2 × 1/4 = 1/8. 1
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.81). on the filter coefficients that results in a null at zero
frequency is [2015]
8. A binary baseband digital communication system
(A) α1 = α2 = 0; α0 = -α3
employs the signal
(B) α1 = α2 = 1; α0 = -α3
⎧ 1 (C) α0 = α3 = 0; α1 = α2
⎪ , 0 ≤ t ≤ Ts
p(t) = ⎨ Ts (D) α1 = α2 = 0; α0 = α3
⎪0, otherwise
3
⎩ Solution: Given Y[n] = ∑ α i x[n − i]
for transmission of bits. The graphical representation i=0
of the matched filter output y(t) for this signal will be α 0 x[n] + α1 x [n − 1] + α 2 x [n − 2] + α 3 x [n − 3]
=
[2016]
(A) y(t) Given filter represents high pass filter because null is at
1/Ts zero frequency.
From options, let us consider α = α 2 = 0; α 0 − α 3
t Then Y[n] = – α 3 ⎡⎣ x[n] − x [ n − 3]⎤⎦
0 Ts 2Ts
(B) y(t)
H[z] = – α 3 [1 − z −3 ]
0.5
H[e jn] = – α 3 [1 − e − j 3n ]
t
0 Ts 2Ts At Ω = 0 then H(e0) = – α 3 [1–1]
(C) y(t) =
0
1
So option A is satisfied.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
t
0 Ts 2Ts 10. The modulation scheme commonly used for transmis-
(D) y(t) sion from GSM mobile terminals is [2015]
1 (A) 4-QAM
(B) 16-PSK
t (C) Walsh–Hadamard orthogonal codes
0 Ts/2 Ts (D) Gaussian minimum shift keying (GMSK)
Solution: Convolution of 2 pulse with equal width = Solution: The modulation scheme commonly used for
triangular. transmission from GSM mobile terminals is Gaussian
minimum shift keying (GMSK).
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Chapter 3 Digital Communication Systems | 8.55
1
P[X = 1] = 0.8 1 1
6/7
Y1 ⎡ 6 Y2 ⎤
X 1 ⎢ × 0.2 1 7 × 0.2⎥
Joint probability P[X, Y] = 7
X2 ⎢ 1 ⎥ 0 1 t
⎢ × 0.8 6 × 0.8⎥
⎣ 7 7 ⎦ (D)
g(t)
Y1 Y2
1
X 1 ⎡ 0.171 0.0285⎤
=
X 2 ⎢⎣0.114 0.685 ⎥⎦
P(Y1) = 0.171 + 0.114 = 0.285 0 1 t
P[Y2] = 0.0285 + 0.685 = 0.7130 Solution: For a matched filter receiver the probability
of error
Y2
X 1 ⎡0.6 0Y.10399 ⎛ 2E ⎞
⎤
P[X/Y] = =Q⎜ ⎟
X 2 ⎢⎣0.4 0.960 ⎥⎦ ⎝ No ⎠
By dividing columns of P(X, Y) by P(Y1) and P(Y2) The probability of error will be minimum for which
energy is maximum
⎛X ⎞ 1
So P ⎜ 2 ⎟ = 0.4 So for option (A) energy E = ∫ (1) dt = 1
2
⎝ Y1 ⎠
0
Hence, the correct Answer is (0.39 to 0.41). 1
2
y =1 +9 1 1 1
P =0 = × + ×
x = 0 10 8 10 8
1
=
8
22. A BPSK scheme operating over an AWGN chan-
nel with noise power spectral density of N0/2, uses
equiprobable signals s (t ) = 2E sin(ω t ) and
1 o
2E T
Hence, the correct option is (d) s 2 (t ) = − sin(ω ot ) over the symbol internal (0,
T
20. The optimum threshold to achieve minimum bit error T). If the local oscillator in a coherent receiver is ahead
rate (BER) is in phase 45° with respect to the received signals, the
1 4 probability of error in the resulting system is
(a) (b)
2 5
2E E
(c) 1 (d) 3 [2013] (a)
Q (b)
Q
No No
Solution: (b) 2
E
Optimum threshold is given by the point of intersection (c) E
of two PDF curves
Q (d)
Q
2N o 4N o
2
f = 1 − 2 |2| ≤ 1 [2012]
0
8.58 | Communication
Solution: (b)
BPSK receiver is shown as
E
2
2E 0 x + 0 x +
Given BPSK signals are S1 (t ) = sin(ωc t ) and E 1 2 1
2E
T P N <
∫ 2
=
N
exp
N
2 0
dx = ∫
πN0
exp
N0
S2 (t ) = − sin(ωc t ) for the interval of 0 ≤ t ≤ t dura- 2π 0 −∞ −∞
T 2 2
tion. Let φ (t) represent the local oscillator generated
signal which is 45° leading with respect to the receivedE
2
E
2
0 x + 0 x + 2
E 2 1 ) 0 ≤ t ≤ T2 dx = 1
signal. N < φ (t ) = = T sin(ωc t + 45
P Then ∫ exp ∫ exp dx
2 N0 N0 πN0 N0
assuming φ(t) is of Unit energy. −∞ Let2π R (t) and 2
R (t) be −∞
21 2 2
2
the received signal output, given as E
x +
2
T T
2E 2 E N0
∫ 0
∫
= R1 (t ) = S1 (t )φ (t ) dt =
0
T
sin(ω ct )
T
sin(ω ct + 45°) dt
= Let
2 N0
= Z . Then dx =
2
dz ,
∞
T T E 1 Z2
∫ ∫
= R1 (t ) = S1 (t )φ (t ) dt =
2E
T
sin(ω ct )
T
2
sin(ω ct + 45°) dt =
E
2
P
N < ∫
2
=
E
2π
exp − 2 dz
0 0 So, N 0
Similarly,
E
E =Q
R (t ) = − . N0
2
2
E As symbols are equiprobable
Let decision threshold be given as γ = + N . Then
1
2 so P (e) = ( P ( S2 / S1 ) + P ( S1 / S2 ) )
probability of error while transmitting S1 and receiving 2
it as s2 is
so
E
P (S 2 / S1 ) = P (γ < 0) = P + N < 0 1 E 1 E E
2 P (e ) = Q + Q =Q
2 N0 2 N0 N0
E
= P N < − Hence, the correct option is (b)
2
Common Data Questions 23 & 24
And
A four-phase and an eight-phase signal constellation
E are shown in the figure below.
P (S 2 / S1 ) = P (γ < 0) = P + N < 0
2
E
= P N < −
2
(a)
r1 = 0.707 d, r2 = 2.782 d To active same error 2nd must have 3.42 time than 1st.
(b)
r1 = 0.707 d, r2 = 1.932 d The value in dB = 10 log (3.42)
(c)
r1 = 0.707 d, r2 = 1.545 d = 5.33 dB
(d)
r1 = 0.707 d, r2 = 1.307 d [2011]
Hence, the correct option is (d)
Solution: (d)
25. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal
For m c
sin(500 t ) sin(700 t )
s (t ) = ×
π t t
d = 2sin Es
m is given by
Distance of any point from origin is Es (a) 400 Hz (b) 600 Hz
(c) 1200 Hz (d) 1400 Hz
For 4-ary, r1 = E s1 [2010]
Solution: (c)
8-ary, r2 = Es2
1 2 sin(500π t ) sin(700π t )
s( t ) =
π 2 π 2t 2
d1 = 2 sin r1
For 4 ary m = 4 4
1
= cos(700π t − 500π t ) − cos(700π t + 500π t )
π 2π 2 t 2
8 ray m = 8 d2 = 2 sin r2
4 1
if d1 = d2 = d then =2
[cos 200π t − cos 1200π t ]
2π 4
π
2 sin r1 = d Maximum frequency component
4
1200 π
fm = = 600
d 2π
r1 = = 0.707d
2 Nyquist sampling rate = 2fm = 1200 Hz
Hence, the correct option is (c)
π
2 sin r2 = d Common data for Questions 26 and 27
8
The amplitude of a random signal is uniformly distrib-
d uted between –5V and 5V.
r2 =
π
2 sin 26. If the signal to quantization noise ratio required in uni-
6 formly quantizing the signal is 43.5 dB, the step size of
r2 = 1.307d
the quantization is approximately
(a) 0.0333 V (b) 0.05 V
Hence, the correct option is (d) (c) 0.0667 V (d) 0.10 V [2009]
24. Assuming high SNR and that all signals are equally Solution: (c)
probable, the additional average transmitted signal
SNR = 43.5 dB
energy required by the 8-PSK signals to achieve the
same error probability as the 4-PSK signals is 1.76 + 6.02n = 43.5
(a) 11.90 dB (b) 8.73 dB n = 6.94
(c) 6.79 dB (d) 5.33 dB [2011] ≈7
Solution: (d) VH − VL
Step size ∆ =
Pe α E s 2n
5 − ( −5)
ES1 r1 0.707 d =
= = 27
E S2 r2 1.307 d = 0.07
2
≈ 0.0667
ES2 1.307
= = 3.42 Hence, the correct option is (c)
ES1 0.707
8.60 | Communication
(a) must be less than or equal to 12.288 × 103 bits per 39. If the constellation are used for digital communication
sec over an A WGN channel, then which of the following
(b) must be greater than 12.288 × 103 bits per sec statements is true?
(c) must be exactly equal to 12.288 × 103 bits (a) Probability of symbol error for Constellation 1 is
per sec lower
(d) can take any values than 122.88 × 103 bits per sec (b) Probability of symbol error for Constellation 1 is
[2007] higher
Solution: (a) (c) Probability of symbol error is equal for both the
constellations
RC
Processing gain = (d) The value of N0 will determine which of the two
Rb constellations has a lower probability of symbol
RC error [2007]
≥ 100
Rb Solution: (a)
The probability of error decreases with increase in
RC average energy. As constellation 1 has more energy
Rb ≤
100 than that of constellation 2, so the probability of sym-
Rb ≤ 12.288 × 103 bits per second. bol error for constellation 1 is lower.
Hence, the correct option is (a) Hence, the correct option is (a)
Common Data for Question 38 & 39 Common Data for Questions 40 and 41
Two 4-ray signal constellations are shown. It is given An input to a 6-level quantizer has the probability
that φ1 and φ2 constitute an orthonormal basis for the density function f(x) as shown in the figure. Decision
two constellations. Assume that the four symbols in boundaries of the quantizer are chosen so as to maxi-
both the constellations are equiprobable. Let N0/2 mize the entropy of the quantizer output. It is given that
denote the power spectral density of white Gaussian three consecutive decision boundaries are ‘–1’, ‘0’ and
noise. ‘1’.
38. The ratio of the average energy of Constellation 1 to the 40. The values of a and b are
average energy of Constellation 2 is (a) a = 1/6 and b = 1/12
(a) 4a2 (b) 4 (b) a = 1/5 and b = 3/40
(c) 2 (d) 8 [2007] (c) a = 1/4 and b = 1/16
(d) a = 1/3 and b = 1/24 [2007]
Solution: (b)
Solution: (a)
Average energy of constellation 1 is
To maximize the entropy, probability must be equal for
0 + 4 a 2 + 4 a 2 + 8a 2 each symbol.
E1 = = 4a2
4 5
1
2
a +a +a +a 4a2 2 2 2
∫ bdx = 3
E2 = = 1
4 4 b × 4 = 1/3
= a2
1
E1 b=
=4 12
E2
0 1 1
Hence, the correct option is (b)
∫
a dx + dx =
3 ∫
−1 0
Chapter 3 Digital Communication Systems | 8.63
1 fs = (2fm) × 3
2a =
3 = (2 × 1000) × 3
= 6 × 103 Hz
1
a= Hence, the correct option is (c)
6
43. The minimum step-size required for a Delta-
Hence, the correct option is (a) Modulator operating at 32K samples/sec to track
41. Assuming that the reconstruction levels of the quan- the signal (here u(t) is the unit step function) x(t)
tizer are the mid-points of the decision boundaries, the = 125t(u(t) – u(t – 1)) + (250 – 125t)(u(t – 1) –
ratio of signal power to quantization noise power is u(t – 2)) so that slope-overload is avoided would be
64 (a) 2−10 (b) 2−8
152 (b)
(a) (c) 2−6 (d) 2−4 [2006]
2 3
Solution: (b)
76
(c) (d) 28 [2007]
3 d
∆f s ≥ m(t )
dt max
Solution: (d)
−1 1 5
1 1 1
Ps = ∫
−5
x2 .
12
dx + ∫
−1
6 ∫
x 2 × dx + x 2 x dx
12
1
−1 1 5
1 x3 1 x3 1 x3
= + +
12 3 −5 6 3 −1 12 3 1
1 1 1
= ( −1 + 125) + (1 + 1) + (124)
36 16 36
124 1 124
= + ×2+
36 18 36
= 7 volt2
∆ 2 (5 − ( −5)) 2
PN = =
12 12 × 6 2
≈ 0.25
7
=
SNRQ = 28
0.25
Hence, the correct option is (d) ( m(t ) )max 125
∆ min = =
4 2. The minimum sampling frequency (in sam- fs 32 × 1000
8
ples/sec) required to reconstruct the follow-
ing signal from its samples without distortion =2 −8
sin 2p 1000t
3
sin 2p 1000t
2 Hence, the correct option is (b)
x (t ) = 5 + 7 4 4. In the following figure the minimum value of the con-
p t pt
stant `C‘, which is to be added to y1(t) such that y1(t)
would be and y2(t) are different, is
(a) 2 × 103
(b) 4 × 103
(c) 6 × 103
(d) 8 × 103 [2006]
Solution: (c)
3 2
2π × 103 t sin 2π × 103 t
x(t ) = 5 sin + 7 −v v
πt
πt 2 , 2
8.64 | Communication
Solution: (c)
y(t) = x(t) × x(T – t)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
Chapter 3 Digital Communication Systems | 8.65
0.2
(b) 0
Pe =
1 ∫ 1.dx = 0.2
0
0.1 + 0.2
( Pe )ay =
2
= 0.15
Hence, the correct option is (a)
1 nπ
(a) sec -1 (b) –1 sec–1
=
A
sin
2 π n 3
1
- sec -1
(c) (d) 1 sec–1 [2004] from cn is clear that 1, 2, 4, 5, 7 …. Harmonics are
2 present.
Solution: (b) Frequency components are = 103.2 × 103.4 × 103.
x(t ) → h(t ) → y(t ) x(t) has frequency components 0.7t, 0.4k
(PH) ± (t) gives (1 ± 0.7)k, (2 ± 0.7)k, (4 ± 0.7)k,
H(t) = x(T – t) (1 ± 0.4)k, (2 ± 0.4)
Frequencies present in range of 2.5k to 3.5k are 2.7, 3.3
Hence, the correct option is (d)
52. A sinusoidal signal with peak-to-peak amplitude of
1536 V is quantized into 128 levels using a mid-rise
uniform quantizer. The quantization-noise power is
(a) 0.768 V (b) 48 × 10-6 V 2
(c) 12 × 10−6 V 2 (d) 3.072 V [2003]
Solution: (c)
VP – P = 1.5366
L = 128
n = log2 12.8 = 7
2
Vp− p
∆ 2 L
PN = =
12 12
2
1.5366
128
=
12
= 12 × 10−6V2
Hence slope between 3 < t < 4 = −1. Hence, the correct option is (c)
Hence, the correct option is (b) 53. If Eb, the energy per bit of a binary digital signal, is 10–5
5 1. Let x (t ) = 2cos(800 t ) + cos(1400 t ).x (t ) be sam- watt-sec and the one-sided power spectral density of
pled with the rectangular pulse train shown in the fig- the white noise, N0 = 10–6 W/Hz, then the output SNR
ure. The only spectral components (in kHz) present in of the matched filter is
the sampled signal in the frequency range 2.5 kHz to (a) 26 dB (b) 10 dB
3.5 kHz are (c) 20 dB (d) 13 dB [2003]
Solution: (d)
Signal to noise ratio is given as
2EB
SNR =
N0
2 × 10 −5
= = 20
10 −6
Chapter 3 Digital Communication Systems | 8.67
10 −4 Solution: (c)
100
∫
6
= (1 − cos 2 × 2π × 10 +) Given that
2
0 reference bit = 1
10 −4 logic 0 = π
= (50T )0 +0
logic 1 = 0°
= 50 × 10−4
= 5 mill V0H
Hence, the correct option is (d)
6 5. Four independent messages have bandwidths of 100Hz,
100Hz, 200Hz, and 400Hz, respectively. Each is sam-
pled at the Nyquist rate, and the samples are Time Hence, the correct option is (c)
Division Multiplexed (TDM) and transmitted. The 6 8. Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can be detected
transmitted sample rate (in Hz) is using
(a) 1600 (b) 800 (a) correlation receiver
(c) 400 (d) 200 [1999] (b) bandpass filter and envelope detectors
Solution: (a) (c) matched filter
fm1 = 100 Hz (d) discriminator detection [1992]
fm2 = 100 Hz Solution: (a)
fm3 = 200 Hz Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can be detected
using correlation receiver.
fm4 = 400 Hz
Hence, the correct option is (a)
sample rate = 2(fm1 + fm2 + fm3 + fm4)
69. Source encoding in a data communication system is
= 2(100 + 100 + 200 + 400)
done in order to
= 2 × 800 (a) enhance the information transmission
= 1600 Hz (b) bandpass filters and envelope rate detectors
Hence, the correct option is (a) (c) conserve the transmitted power
(d) discriminator detection [1992]
66. The number of bits in a binary PCM system is increased
from n to n + 1. As a result, signal to quantization noise Solution: (a)
ratio will improve by a factor The purpose of source encoding in a data communica-
(a) (n + 1)/n tion system is to increase the information transmission
(b) 2(n+1) rate and the purpose of channel encoding is to decrease
(c) 2(n+1) the probability of error. The channel encoding helps in
(d) which is independent of n [1996] detection and correction of errors.
Solution: (d) Hence, the correct option is (a)
Signal to quantization ratio is given as 70. For the signal constellation shown in the figure, the
3 2n type of modulation is [1991]
( SNRQ )1 = 2 cos 2π(n/T)t
2
SNR with n = (n + 1) S2 S2
3
( SNRQ ) 2 = 22( n +1) = 4( SNRQ )1 sin 2π(n/T)t
2 T = symbol duration
S2 SA
Hence, the correct option is (d)
67. The bit stream 01001 is differentially encoded using
‘Delay and Ex OR’ scheme for DPSK transmission. Solution:
Assuming the reference bit as a ‘1’ and assuming For given signal phase shift in each symbol is 90°.
phases of ‘0’ and ‘π’ for 1’s and 0’s respectively, in the So modulation type is QPSK.
encoded sequence, the transmitted phase sequence
71. A signal has frequency components from 300 Hz to 1.8
becomes
kHz. The minimum possible rate at which the signal
(a) π,0, π, π, 0 (b) 0, π, π, 0, 0
has to be sampled is _______. [1991]
(c) 0, π, π,π, 0 (d) π, π, 0, π, π
[1992]
8.70 | Communication
Solution: Solution:
Given Given
fH = 1800 Hz fH = 1800 Hz
fL = 300 Hz fL = 300 Hz
BW = 1800-300 BW = 1800 – 300
= 1500 Hz = 1500 Hz
fH 1800 fH 1800
= k =
=k =
BW 1500 BW 1500
k = 1 k = 1
2 fH 2 fH
( f s )min = k ( f s )min =
k
2 × 1800 2 × 1800
= =
1 1
= 3600 samples/sec = 3600 samples/sec
72. A 4 GHz carrier is DSB-SC modulated by a low 75. In binary data transmission DPSK is preferred to PSK
pass message signal with maximum frequency of because
2 MHz. The resultant signal is to be ideally sampled. (a) a coherent carrier is not required to be generated at
The minimum frequency of the sampling impulse train the receiver
should be (b) for a given energy per bit, the probability of error is
(a) 4 MHz (b) 8 MHz less
(c) 8 GHz (d) 8.004 GHz [1990] (c) the 180° phase shifts of the carrier are unimportant
(d) more protection is provided against impulse noise
Solution: (b)
[1989]
Given that
Solution: (a)
fc = 4 GHz
A coherent carrier is required in PSR but in DPSK
fm = 2 mHz coherent carrier is not required. So DPSW is preferred
fmax = fc + fm = 4000 + 2 = 2002 over PSK.
fmin = fc – fm = 4000 – 2 = 3998 Hence, the correct option is (a)
B.W. = (fmax – fmin) 76. The transfer function of a zero-order hold is
= (4002 – 3998) 1 - exp( -Ts)
(a) (b) 1/s
= 4 mHz s 1
fs = 2 × 4 = 8 mHz (c) 1 (d) [1 - exp( -Ts )]
Hence, the correct option is (b)
[1988]
73. In a BPSK signal detector, the local oscillator has a
Solution: (a)
fixed phase error of 20°.This phase error deteriorates
the SNR at the output by a factor of A zero order hold systems holds the input signal value
(a) cos 20° (b) cos2 20° for a period of T, i.e., for an input of short duration (∆)
(c) cos70° (d) cos270° [1990] pulse, it produces an output pulse of duration T, the
sampling period.
Solution: (b)
Output power charges by cos 2 φ.
So φ = 20°
Output power changes by = cos2 30.
Hence, the correct option is (b)
74. A signal has frequency components from 300 Hz to 1.8
kHz. The minimum possible rate at which the signal
has to be sampled is [1991]
Chapter 3 Digital Communication Systems | 8.71
capacity
1
capacity
1
(C) 1111000 (D) 1111111
Solution:
C1: 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1
C2: ≈ 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 P
0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1
Hence, the correct option is (B). Solution: The capacity of memoryless BSC is ex-
2. Let (X1, X2) be independent random variables. X1 has pressed as
mean 0 and variance 1, while X2 has mean 1 and vari-
C = 1 + p log 2 p + (1 − p) log 2 (1 − p)
ance 4. The mutual information I (X1; X2) between X1,
and X2 in bits is __________. [2017] Hence, the correct option is (C).
Solution: For two independent random variables, 4. In a code-division multiple access (CDMA) sys-
I (x : y) = H(x) = H (x/y) tem with N = 8 chips, the maximum number of users
H (x/y) = H (x) for independent X and y ⇒ I(x : y) = 0 who can be assigned mutually orthogonal signature
Hence, the correct answer is (0). sequences is ______. [2014]
3. Which one of the following graphs shows the shannon Solution:
capacity (channel capacity) in bits of a memoryless Maximum number of users who can be assigned mutu-
binary symmetric channel with crossover probability ally orthogonal signature sequences is = 8.
P? [2017] 5. The capacity of a Binary Symmetric Channel (BSC)
(A) with cross-over probability 0.5 is _____.
capacity
1
[2014]
Solution:
Channel capacity C = P log2 P + (1 – P)log2
P (1 – P) + 1
0 1 C = 0.
(B)
It is the case of channel with independent
capacity
1
input and output, hence C = 0.
6. The capacity of a band-limited additive white
Gaussian noise (AWGN) channel is given by
P
0 1
8.74 | Communication
P A B C D E
C = W log 2 1 + 2 bits per second (bps), where
σ W 0 1 1 1 1
W is the channel bandwidth, P is the average power
1 0 0 0 0
received and σ2 is the one-side power spectral density
of the AWGN. 1 0 0 1 1
P 1 0 1 0 0
For a fixed = 1000, the channel capacity (in kbps)
σ2 1 0 1 1 1
with infinite bandwidth (W → ∞) is approximately 1 1 0 0 0
(a) 1.44 (b) 1.08
1 1 0 1 1
(c) 0.72 (d) 0.36 [2014]
1 1 1 0 0
Solution: (a)
Channel capacity is given by 1 1 1 1 1
X 1
= −∑ ∑ P ( X iYi )
H 4. A source emits bit 0 with probability and bit 1 with
Y 1 i 2 3
probability . The emitted bits are communicated to
X 3
Log P i bits/symbol the receiver. The receiver decides for either 0 or 1 based
Yi on the received value R. It is given that the conditional
= −α log 2 α − (1 − α ) log 2 (1 − α ) bits/symbol density functions of R are as [2015]
X ⎧1
I = ( X ;Y ) = H ( X ) − H = 0 ⎪ , −3 ≤ x ≤ 1
Y f R|0 ( r ) = ⎨ 4
Hence, the given binary memoryless channel is a use- ⎪⎩ 0, otherwise
less channel. and
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⎧1
⎪ , −1 ≤ x ≤ 5
3. If the vectors e1 = (1, 0, 2) e2 = (0, 1, 0) and e3 = (–2, f R/ 2 ( r ) = ⎨ 6
0, 1) form an orthogonal basis of the three dimensional ⎪⎩ 0, otherwise
real space R3, then the vector u = (4, 3, –3) ∈ R3 can be
expressed as [2016] The minimum decision error probability is [2015]
2 11 (A) 0 (B) 1/12
(A) u = – e1 – 3e2 – e (C) 1/9 (D) 1/6
5 5 3
Solution: The conditional density function for
2 11
u=–
(B) e1 – 3e2 + e ⎧1
5 5 3 ⎪ −3 ≤ x ≤ 1
fR/0 (r) = ⎨ 4
2 11 ⎪⎩ 0
u = – e1 + 3e2 +
(C) e otherwise
5 5 3
2 11 ⎧1
u = – e1 + 3e2 –
(D) e ⎪ , −1 ≤ x ≤ 5
5 5 3 fR/1 (r) = ⎨ 6
⎪⎩ 0, otherwise
Solution: Given vectors are e1 = (1, 0, 2), e2 = (0, 1, 0)
and e3 = (−2 , 0, 1) So error region will be
−1
Given u = (4, 3, −3) 1 1
PR 0 ( r1 ) = ∫ dx =
Let, u = ae1 + be2 + ce3(1) 4 2
−3
for function 1
∴ (4, 3, −3) = a(1, 0, 2) + b(0, 1, 0) + c(−2, 0, 1) 1
1 1
PR 1 ( r1 ) = ∫ dx =
= (a – 2c, b, 2a + c) −1
4 2
∴ (4, 3, −3) = (a – 2c, b, 2a + c) 5
1 2
and PR 1 ( r2 ) = ∫ dx =
Comparing the corresponding values on both sides, 6 3
1
4 = a – 2c ⇒ a – 2c = 4 (2) 1 for function 2
1 1
PR 0 ( r2 ) = ∫ dx =
3 = b ⇒ b = 3 −1
6 3
So minimum decision error probability
–3 = 2a + c ⇒ 2a + c = –3 (3)
1 1 1
Solving (2) and (3), we get = PR/1(r1) ⋅ PR/0 (r2) = . =
2 3 6
−2
a= Hence, the correct option is (D).
5
and 5. A fair coin is tossed repeatedly until a ‘head’ appears
−11 for the first time. Let L be the number of tosses to get
c=
5 this first ‘head’. The entropy H(L) in bits is ______.
substituting the values of a, b and c in (1), we get [2014]
−2 11 Solution:
u= e1 + 3e2 − e3 1
5 5 P1 = (probability of getting first head).
2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
8.76 | Communication
1 1 1 (c) increases as n
=
Probability to get head in 2nd time =. (d) increases as n log n [2008]
2 2 4
1 1 1 1 Solution: (a)
= P3 =. .
2 2 2 8 n
N
1 Entropy H ( m) = − ∑ P log(a) bits
i
Entropy H = ∑ P log
i =1
i 2 .
Pi
If i =1
H(m) = log η
H ≈ 2
n
1
6. Let U and V be two independent and identically distrib-
uted random variables such that P(U = + 1) = P(U = -1)
∴ ∑ n =1
i =1
= 1 . The entropy H(U + V) in bits is Hence, the correct option is (a)
2 9. A source generates three symbols with probabilities
(a) 3/4 (b) 1 0.25, 0.25, 0.50 at a rate of 3000 symbols per second.
(c) 3/2 (d) log2 3 [2013] Assuming independent generation of symbols, the
Solution: (c) most efficient source encoder would have average bit
U V U + V rate of
(a) 6000 bits/sec (b) 4500 bits/sec
1 1 2 1
P (U + V = 2) = (c) 3000 bits/sec (d) 1500 bits/sec
4 [2006]
+1 −1 0 Solution: (b)
1 1 1
P (U + V = 0) = + = Bit rate = H.Rb
4 4 2
−1 +1 0
1 1
PCV + V = − 2 = 4 H = ΣPi log 2 = 1.5
−1 −1 −2
Pi
3 Bitrate = 1.5 × 3000
H (U + V ) = = 4500 bps
2
Hence, the correct option is (c) Hence, the correct option is (b)
7. A communication channel with AWGN operating at a 10. A binary source has symbol probabilities 0.8 and 0.2.
signal to noise ratio SNR >> 1 and bandwidth B has IF extension coding (blocks of 4 symbols) is used, the
capacity C1. If the SNR is doubled keeping B constant, lower and upper bounds on the average code word
the resulting capacity C2 is given by length are
(a) C2 ≈ 2C1 (b) C2 ≈ C1 + B (a) lower _____. (b) higher _____.[1991]
(c) C2 ≈ C1 + 2B (d) C2 ≈ C1 + 0.3B Solution:
[2009] n
Solution: (b) Entropy = H = − ∑ P log (P )
i =1
i 2 i
Given
H = [0.8 log2 (0.8) + 0.2 log2 (0.2)]
SNR >> 1
H = 0.72 bits/symbol
S S For the extended coding scheme, using blocks of 4
C1 = B log 2 1 + = B log 2
N N symbols, the entropy is given by 4 × 0.72 = 2.8876
when SNR is doubled bits/4 symbols
The bounds on the average code
2S
C1 = B log 2 = C1 + B word length are
N
H (x) <•L H (x) + 1
C1 = C1 + B
Hence, the correct option is (b) (a) Lower bound = 2.8876 bits
(b) Upper bound = 3.8876 bits
8. A memoryless source emits n symbols each with a
probability p. The entropy of the source as a function 11. An image uses 512 × 512 picture elements. Each of the
of n picture elements can take any of the 8 distinguishable
(a) increases as log n intensity levels. The maximum entropy in the above
(b) decreases as log (1/n) image will be
Chapter 4 Information Theory | 8.77
List-I List-II 4H H ε0
(A) (B)
1. ∇ ⋅ D P. 0 Qε 0 4Q
2. ∇ × E Q. r
HQ HQ
∂B (C) (D)
3. ∇ ⋅ B R. − ε0 4ε 0
∂t
∂D Solution: The electric flux leaving the cylinder of
4. ∇ × H S. J +
∂t height, H
Q 2ΠpH
(A) 1 – R, 2 – Q, 3 – S, 4 – P = ∫ E .da =
(B) 1 – Q, 2 – S, 3 – P, 4 - R 2ΠEo p 4
(C) 1 – P, 2 – R, 3 – Q, 4 – S QH
= ∫ E .da =
(D) 1 – Q, 2 – R, 3 – P, 4 – S 4 Eo
Solution: The differential four of the 4 Maxwell’s Hence, the correct option is (D).
equations are: 3. Two conducting spheres S1 and S2 of radii a and b(b>a)
respectively, are placed far apart and connected by a
∇⋅ D = P
long, thin conducting wire, as shown in the figure.
∇⋅ B = O
S2
−∂B
∇×E =
∂t Wire
S1
∂D
∇×H = J +
∂T Radius a
Radius b
Hence the correct option is (D)
For some charge placed on this structure, the potential
( )
2. What is the electric flux ∫E ⋅ d â through a quarter- and surface electric field on S1 are Va and Ea and that
on S2 Vb and Eb, respectively. Then, which of the fol-
cylinder of height H (as shown in the figure) due to an
lowing is CORRECT? [2017]
infinitely long line charge along the axis of the cylinder (A) Va = Vb and Ea< Eb
with a charge density of Q? [2019] (B) Va> Vb and Ea> Eb
9.4 | Electromagnetic Theory
(C) Va = Vb and Ea> Eb the azimuthal component of magnetic field outside the
(D) Va> Vb and Ea = Eb conductor and r is the radial distance from the conduc-
4. Concentric spherical shells of radii 2 m, 3 m and 8 m tor? [2015]
Hϕ
(A)
carry uniform surface charge densities of 20 nC/m2,
–4 nC/m2 and ρs, respectively. The value of ρ (nC/m )
2
⇒ ρs = –0.25 nC/m2
r
Hence, the correct Answer is (–0.25 nC/m2).
Hϕ
(C)
5. A uniform and constant magnetic field B = ẐB exists
in the Ẑ direction in vacuum. A particle of mass m
with a small charge q is introduced in to this region
with an initial velocity V = xv ˆ x + zv
ˆ z . Given that B, m,
q, vx and vz are all non-zero, which one of the following r
describes the eventual trajectory of the particle?[2016]
Hϕ
(D)
(A) Helical motion in the ẑ-direction
(B) Circular motion in the xy plane
(C) Linear motion in the ẑ-direction
(D) Linear motion in the x̂-direction
Solution: When the field is directed in the ‘z’ direction r
according to the right hand thumb rule, the motion of Solution:
Given that conductor is lying on z-axis
the particle is in helical trajectory in the z-direction. → →
At a fixed point in the z-direction the, the particle moves l dl × r
Hφ = ∫
in the x–y plane. L
→3
4π r
Hence, the correct option is (A).
6. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction is mathe- 1
matically described by which one of the following equa- Hφ ∝
r2
tions? [2016]
Hϕ
(A) ∇⋅ B = 0 (B) ∇⋅ D = ρv
∂B ∂ D
(C) ∇× E = − (D) ∇× H = σE +
∂t ∂t
Solution: From the basic four equations, faraday’s law
of EMI can be best represented by (C) showing that
the time varying electric field produces an orthogonal r
space varying magnetic field and vice versa Hence, the correct option is (C).
∂B → →
→
→
∇xE = − 8. A vector P = x y a x - x y a y - x2yz a z . Which one of
3 2 2
∂t
One of the Maxwell’s equations based on Faraday’s law the following statements is TRUE? [2015]
→
of electro-magnetic induction. (A) P is solenoidal, but not irrotational
Hence, the correct option is (C). →
(B) P is irrotational, but not solenoidal
7. Consider a straight, infinitely long, current carrying →
conductor lying on the z-axis. Which one of the follow- (C) P is neither solenoidal nor irrotational
ing plots (in linear scale) qualitatively represents the →
dependence of HΦ on r, where HΦ is the magnitude of (D) P is both solenoidal and irrotational
Chapter 1 Basics | 9.5
=
3x2y – 2x2y – x2y ∂F ∂F
∇ F=
axˆ + ayˆ
=
0 ∂x ∂y
∴P is solenoidal (1) (2 xy + y 2 ) (2 xy + x 2 )
= axˆ + ayˆ
i j k 2 2
∂ ∂ ∂ 3 3
Curl P = ∇ × P = ∆F (1,1) = axˆ + ayˆ
∂x ∂y ∂z
2 2
x3 y − x2 y2 − x 2 yz
1 1. Consider a closed surface S surrounding a volume V. If
⎛ ∂ ∂ ⎞ ⎛ ∂ ⎞ ∫∫
5r ⋅ nˆ the
is the position vector of a point inside S, with dS unit
=i⎜
⎝∂y
(
− x 2 yz −
∂z
) ⎠
(
− x2 y2 ⎟ − j ⎜
⎝∂x
)
− x 2 yz ⎟
⎠
( ) normal on S, the value of the integral
S
∫∫
5r ⋅ nˆ dS is
S
∂ 3 ⎛ ∂ ∂ 3 ⎞
−
∂z
( )
x y +k⎜
⎝∂x
− x2 y2 − (
∂y
x y⎟
⎠
) ( ) (a) 3 V (b) 5 V
(c) 10 V (d) 15V [2011]
( ) (
= − x 2 z + 0 i + 2 xyz j + −2 xy 2 − x 3 k
) Solution: (d)
⇒ curl P = –x 2 i + 2 xyz j − x + 2 xy
2
( 3 2
)k
∫ ∫
5r .nˆ ds =
S
∫∫∫ ∇.5r dv [applying divergence
v
theorem]
∴ curl P ≠ 0
∴ P is NOT irrotational (2)
=5 ∫ ∫ ∫ ∇.r dv
v
= 2 xax + 6 yay + 3 z 2 az
(a) 40 π Coulombs
(b) 10 π Coulombs
(c) 5 π Coulombs
(d) None of the above [1996]
Solution: (a)
Using Gauss Law, ∫ D.ds = Q enclosed
Solution: (b)
the curl of the field is equal to zero. An electrostatic
1 field is said to be conservative when the closed line
Here, aN = ay and ρ s = µ c/m 2
6000 integral of the field is zero.
∫
−6
1× 10 E . dl = 0
E= ay
6000 × 8.854 × 10 −12 × 2 Stoke’s theorem
ˆ
E = 3 j v/m ∫
c
∫
E ⋅ dl = (∇ × E ) ⋅ ds
s
Hence, the correct option is (b).
2 0. The electric field strength at distant point. P, due to a So, ∇ × E = 0
point charge, + q, located at the origin is 100 μV/m If Hence, the correct option is (b).
the point charge is now enclosed by a perfectly con-
ducting metal sheet sphere whose center is at the origin,
then the electric field strength at the point, P, outside Two-marks Questions
the sphere, becomes
1. Two identical copper wires W1 and W2, placed in par-
(a) zero (b) 100 μV/m
allel as shown in the figure. Carry currents I and 2I,
(c) –100 μV/m (d) 50 μV/sm [1995]
respectively, in opposite direction. If the two wires are
Solution: (b) separated by a distance of 4r, then the magnitude of
Since, in conductor charge induces equal and opposite
the magnetic field B between the wires at a distance r
charge on surface then field remain same. from W1 is [2019]
i.e. 100 μV/m
9.8 | Electromagnetic Theory
Average current density through the surface, will be 6. A positive charge q is placed at x = 0 between two infi-
nite metal plates placed at x = –d and at x = +d respec-
I 15.09
J av = = 2π π /4
tively. The metal plates lie in the yz-plane.
∫∫ ds ∫ ∫ r 2 sin θ dθ dϕ
s
Q = 0 θ =π / 2
=
12.86 A/m2.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
at x = +d
at x = –d
+q
5. The parallel plate capacitor shown in the figure has x=0
movable plates. The capacitor is charged so that the
energy stored in it is E, when the plate separation is d,
the capacitor is then isolated electrically and the plates
are moved such that the plate separation becomes 2d.
d
The charge is at rest at t = 0, when a voltage +V is
applied to the plate at –d and voltage –V is applied
to the plate at x = +d. Assume that the quantity of the
charge q is small enough that it does not perturb the
field set up by the metal plates. The time that the charge
At this new plate separation, what is the energy stored q takes to reach the right plate is proportional to[2016]
in the capacitor, neglecting fringing effects? [2016] d d
(A) (B)
(A) 2E (B)
2E V V
d d
E (C) (D)
(C) E (D) V V
2
Solution: The capacitor is isolated and fringing effects Solution:
Charge transit time
are neglected then the energy of capacitor is d
t=
1 V
E= CV 2
2 Where the velocity
1 Q2 v∝ v
E=
2 C d
∴ t∝
Q = constant v
1 Hence, the correct option is (C).
E∝ (1)
C 7. Consider the charge profile shown in the figure. The
εA resultant potential distribution is best described by
C= [2016]
d
ε, A are constant p(x)
1 p1
C ∝ (2)
d
From (1) and (2) b 0
a x
E ∝ d
E1 d p2
= 1
E2 d2
E d (A) V(x) (B) V(x)
=
E2 2d
E2 = 2E b 0 b 0
a x a x
Hence, the correct option is (A).
9.10 | Electromagnetic Theory
4 × 1011 × (5 × 10 −6 ) 2
= − 20 × 105 × (5 × 10 −6 ) +
2
ψ B −ψ A = −[10 + 5]
ψ B −ψ A = −15V
(a) –(x + z) amperes per meter
(b) ( xˆ + zˆ ) amperes per meter Given F = zaˆ x + xaˆ y + yaˆ z . If S represents the portion
14.
(c)
− ẑ 2 amperes per meter
of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 1 forz ≥ 0, then ∇ × F ⋅ ds ∫
s
_____. [2014]
ẑ 2 amperes per meter
(d) [2014]
Solution: (d)
Solution: (3.14)
Properly of magnetic boundary conditions states
F = zaxˆ + xayˆ + yazˆ
H1t − H 2t = ks
axˆ ayˆ azˆ
2
Where, Ks =is xsurface current. ∂ ∂ ∂
∇× F =
Here, H2t = 0 ∂x ∂y ∂z
H1t = 2 xˆ × yˆ z x y
H1t = 2 z A/m
ˆ
A = ∇ × F = ax + ay + az
ˆ ˆ ˆ
Hence, the correct option is (d).
13. The electric field (assumed to be one-dimensional) ∫
(∇ × F ).ds =
S
∫∫
A. dydz ax
∫
= dxdy
S
∫∫ (∇ × A). ds = 3.14
S
[2014]
Solution: (–15)
dv 15. If E = −(2 y 3 − 3 yz 2 ) is the electric
E=−
dx 2 2
xˆ − (6 xy − 3 xz ) yˆ + (6 xyz ) zˆ
20 × 105 field in a source free region, a valid expression for the
= 20 × 105 r/m + x electrostatic potential is
5 × 10 −6 (a) xy3 – yz2 (b) 2xy3 – xyz2
E = ( 20 × 105 + 4 × 1011 x )v/m (c) y + xyz
3 2
(d) 2xy3 - 3xyz3
[2014]
ψB 5 µm
Solution: (d)
∫
ψA
∫
dv = − E .dx
0
3 2 2 2
E = −(2y − 3yz )xˆ − (6xy − 3xz )yˆ + (6 xyz )zˆ
E = −∇V
5×10 −6
4 × 1011 r 2 For, V = 2xy3 – 3xyz2
ψ B −ψ A = − 20 × 105 x + ∂v
2 0 = 2 y 3 − 3 yz 2
∂x
9.12 | Electromagnetic Theory
22. A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate area of 10-4 ∈=80 . ∈0 The surface charge density on the conductor
m2 and plate separation of 10–3 m. It is connected to a 0.5 is
V, 3.6 GHz source. The magnitude of the displacement (a) 0 C/m2
current is (b) 2 C/m?
(e0 = 1/36p×10–9F/m) (c) 1.8 × 10–11 C/m2
(a) 10 mA (b) 100 mA (d) 1.41 ×10–9C/m2
(c) 10A (d) 1.59 mA [2004] (∈= 10-9)/(36 π)F/m)s [2002]
Solution: (a) Solution: (d)
Displacement current is equal to, D = ∈E
Id = AJd also, D = ρs [Gauss Law]
A = area of plate ∈E = ρs = ∈r∈oρs
Id = current density 1 10 −9
ρ s = 2 × 80 × ×
dD ∈ dE 36 π
Jd = =
dt dt −4 2
ρ s = 1.41× 10 c/m
E = v/d
Hence, the correct option is (d).
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
A. ∇.H = J
∫
B. E.dI = − B.ds
C
∫
S
∂ρ
C. ∇⋅J =
∈ ×V ∂t
I d = A × 2π × F ×
d List-ll
1. Continuity equation
1 0.5
= 10 −4 × 2π × 3.6 × 109 × × 10 −9 × −3 2. Faraday’s Law
36π 10 3. Ampere’s Law
4. Gauss’s Law
I = 10 mA
d 5. Biot-Savart Law
Hence, the correct option is (a). Codes:
23. If the electric field intensity is given by E = (xux + yuy + A B C
zuz)volt/m the potential difference between X (2, 0, 0)
and Y (1, 2, 3) is (a) 3 2 1
(a) +1 volt (b) -1 volt (b) 2 1 3
(c) +5 volt (d) +6 volt [2003] (c) 2 3 1
Solution: (c) (d) 1 2 3
[1994]
E = (xVx + yVy + zVz) v/m, x(2, 0 ,0) and y(1, 2, 3)
Solution: (a)
∫
V = − E .dl (A) ∇.H = J → Ampere Law
2 0 0
∫
(B) E .dl = − ∫ B.ds
∫
1
∫ ∫
= − x dxVx + y.dyVy + z.dz Vz
C S
2 3 dB
= 5v ∇ × E = − → Faraday Law
dt
Hence, the correct option is (c). ∂ρ
24. The electric field on the surface of a perfect conduc- ∇⋅J =
(C) continuity equation.
∂t
tor is 2 V/m. The conductor is immersed in water with
Chapter 1 Basics | 9.15
Hence, A – 3, B – 2, C – 1 −1 1
∫∫x e
2 z
Hence, the correct option is (a). B1 = dxdy
0 0
26. Given V = x cos 2 yiˆ + x 2 e 2 ˆj + z sin 2 ykˆ and S the
1
surface of unit cube with one corner at the origin and B1 = [e − 1]
edges parallel to the coordinate axis, the value of the 3
∫∫
−1 1
integral ˆ is_____.
V .ndS [1993]
∫∫x e
2 z
c at, y = 1, B2 = − dxdy
1 0 0
Solution: V =
∫∫ V .n ds = sin( 2)
2 1
B2 = − [e − 1]
3
We have given, V = x cos 2 yi + x 2 e z j + z sin 2 yk can
be written as, B = B1 + B2 = 0 (2)
V = x cos 2 ax + x 2 e z ay + z sin 2 az y2 x2
C= ∫∫ Vz dxdy az
Now, ∫∫
V .n ds will be equal to,
C
y1 x1
1 1
∫ ∫ 0.dxdy = 0
z2 y2
z2 x2 y2 x2 at, z = 0, C1 =
∫∫ Vx dydz ax + ∫∫
Vy dxdz ay + Vz dxdy az ∫∫ 0 0
z1 y1 z1 x1 y1 x1
1 1
∫ ∫ sin
2
Here, Vx = x cos 2 y at, zF – 1, C2 = − y dxdy
2 0 0
Vy = x ez
1 sin( 2)
Y C2 = − 1 −
2 2
M R
1 sin( 2) (3)
Q C = C1 + C2 = − 1 −
2
N
2
T S
Added up equations (1), (2), (3)
X V=A+B+C
O P
1 sin( 2) 1 sin( 2)
= 1+ + 0 − 1 −
2 2 2 2
Z
1
z2 y2
V= ∫ ∫V .n ds = 2 sin(2)
A=
z1 y1
∫∫ Vx dydz ax
27. For a uniformly charged sphere of radius R and charge
density ρ, the ratio of magnitude of electric fields at
at, x = 0, A1 = 0. distances R/2 and 2R from the centre, i.e.,
−1 1
E ( r = R/2)
∫ ∫ cos
2 is _____ [1993]
At x = 1, A2 = y dydz
E (r = 2R)
0 0
Solution: (2)
1 1 + sin( 2)
A2 = + [For r < R]
2 2
1 1 + sin( 2) ∫
D.ds = 2
So, A = (1)
2 2 D.S=2
4
z2 x2
ρv × π r 3
3 ρ .r
B= ∫∫
z1 x1
Vy dxdz ay aty = 0,
D=
4π r 2
= v
3
9.16 | Electromagnetic Theory
Solution: (c)
I(t) = I0 cos (wt)
We know, H = NI
So, H = NI0cos(wt)
B = H0H
B = μ0NI0 cos (wt)
According to maxwell second equation,
dB
E=
D ρ v .r
=
∫
E .dl = −
dt∫.ds
t 3E
2
R So, E .2π R = µ0 NI 0 d [cos( wt )] × π R
Here, r = 2 dt y
2
ρv.R µ0 NI 0 wR sin w (t )
E= E=
6E y
4 Hence, the correct option is (c).
ρ v × π R3
(For r>R] 3 ρ v R3
D= = 29. The electric field strength at a far-off point P due to
4π R 2 3r 2 a point charge, +q located at the origin, O is 100 mil-
ρ v R3 livolts/meter. The point charge is now enclosed by a
E= perfectly conducting hollow metal sphere with its cen-
3Er 2
tre and the origin, O. The electric field strength at the
Here, r = 2R point, P
ρv R (a) remains unchanged in its magnitude and direction.
E= (b) remains unchanged in its magnitude but reverse in
12t
direction.
(c) would be that due to a dipole formed by the charge,
+q, at O and -q induced.
(d) would be zero. [1989]
Solution: (d)
According to Gauss Law:—The total displacement or
electric flux through any closed surface surrounding
charges is equal to the amount of charge enclosed.
E[r = R/2] ∫
D.ds = 2
So, =2 Here, total enclosed charge is, −q + q = 0 thus, D = 0
E [ r = 2 R]
D
also, =
E = 0
28. A long solenoid of radius R, and having N turns power E
unit length carries a time dependent current I(t) = I0 Hence, the correct option is (d).
cos (wt). The magnitude of induced electric field at a
distance R/2 radially from the axis of the solenoid is 30. Which of the following field equations indicate that the
free magnetic charge do not exist
R
(a) m 0 NI 0w sin (wt) 1
2 (a)
H= ∇× A
µ
(b) R
µ0 NI 0ω cos (ω t) 1dI × R
4 (b)
H=
4p R 2
∫
(c) R
µ0 NI 0ω cos(ω t )
4 ∇.H = 0
(c)
Rμ0NI0wsin (wt)
(d) [1993] ∇ × H = J
(d) [1990]
Chapter 1 Basics | 9.17
Solution: (c) 1 ∂ 2 1 ∂
PV = ∇.D = 2 ( r Dr ) + .
As we know, ∫ B.ds = 0 or, ∇.(Bµ=H0) [Solenoidal
=0 r ∂r r sin θ ∂θ
1 ∂Dφ
in nature] B = μH thus, ∇.( µ H ) = 0 ( Dθ sin θ ) +
r sin θ ∂φ
∇.H = 0
1 2
Hence, the correct option is (c). = 2 4r 3 + 2 sin θ .cos θ
r r sin θ
31. Vector potential is a vector
4
(a) whose curl is equal to the magnetic flux density = 4 r + cos θ
(b) whose curl is equal to the electric field intensity r
(c) whose divergence is equal to the electric potential 1
= 4 r + cos θ
(d) which is equal to the vector product E × H [1988] r
Solution: (a)
The term vector potential physical stands for work ∫
2. Evaluate the integral, r ⋅ dr , where C is the helical
path described by, x = cost,
c y = sint, z = t, joining the
done per basic cause (i.e. current element in magnetic
w points given by t = 0 and t = p/2 [1994]
field). Hence, A = Solution: In Cartesian coordinates,
I .dl
r = xaˆ x + yaˆ y + zaˆ z
is vector so, potential is a vector. Whose curl will be
equal to, ∇ × A = B also,
dr = dx aˆ x + dy aˆ y + dz aˆ z
∇× A = µH 1 Q
−9 9 a
point, charge location +QA , 0 , +QB , 0 At P(a, y) = P o,
2 5 2 3
3
and −2Q C 0,
2
a −3 / 2
2 2
−a a + a
(i) Let, P(a, y) be the point on y-axis, where V = V1 + 2 3 4 12
−Q
V2 + V3 due to these change is zero, V = V1 + V2 + E= a
2π E0 −2 x
V3 = 0
+ a − 3 a
Q 1 1 2 2 3 2
4π E0 AP + BP − CP = 0
3Q
E = Ey =
But AB = BP, so, 4π E0 a 2
1 1 2
+ − or AP = CP (iii) The direction of E at P is the direction of the
AP AP CP normal to the equipotential surface (V = 0) at that
points in the direction
of the decreasing values of V.
a2 3 ⇒y= a
+ y2 = y − a, The direction of E is in the –ve y direction, the
4 2 2 3 angle between the equipotential surface and y-axis
a is zero.
P ( a, y ) = P 0,
2 3 4. Given an irrotational vector field
(ii)
V at point P(0, y) F = (k1 xy + k2 z 3 )a x +
Q 1 1 2 (3 x 2
− k z ) a y + (3 xz 2
− y ) a z
V= AP + BP − CP 3
4π E0
Find ∇ F at (1, 1, – 2). [1998]
Q 1 1
= − Solution: Given
2π E0 AP CP
F = ( k1 xy + k2 z 3 )aˆ x + (3 x 2 − k3 z )aˆ y + (3 yz 2 − y )aˆa
∂ ∂ ∂
Q 1 1 ∇.F = Fx + Fy + Fz
V= − ∂y ∂y ∂z
2π E0 a 2 3
+ y2 y− a
4 2 = k1y + 0 + 6xz = k1y + 6xz
at (1, 1, −2)
∂ ∂ ∂
E = −∇V = − Vaˆ x + Vaˆ y + Vaˆ z
∂x ∂y ∂z ∇.F = k1 (1) + 6(1)( −2) = k1 − 12.
∂V 5. Given E= 10e-j(4x - kt) - V/m in free space.
=0 (a) Write all the four Maxwell’s equations in free
∂x
space.
∂V (b) Find D × E.
=0
∂z (c) Find H. [2000]
Solving Solution: Given, E = 10e −4 j ( 4 x − kt ) a yV/m
−3 / 2 represents uniform plane wave travelling in x direction
2
− 1 a + y 2 with velocity v – k/4 and Ex = 0, E2 = 0
∂v Q 2 4 So,
=
∂y 2π E0
−2
∂
3 E y = − j 40e − j ( 4 x − kt )
( 2 y ) + y − a
2 ∂y
2 −3/ 2 ax ay az ax ay az
− y a + y 2 ∂ ∂ ∂ ∂
4 ∇× E = = 0 0
−Q ∂x ∂y ∂z ∂y
E=
2p E0
−2 Ex Ey Ez 0 Ey 0
+ y − 3 a a y
2
Chapter 1 Basics | 9.19
yˆ + zˆ = xˆ
Ey Let Q3 be the third change located at the distance x.
η = η0 = 120π =
Az From Q
Ey 10 − j ( 4 x − kt ) 2Q Q3 (1)
H2 = = e V1 = +
120π 120π 4π E (50) 4π E ( x )
1 − j ( 4 x − kt ) Q Q3
H = H 2 az = e a2 V2 = + (2)
12π 4π E (50) 4π E ( x − 50)
Chapter 2
Uniform Plane Waves
Solution: To find out the power through z = 0 plane,
One-mark Questions ⎛ μ⎞
the plane area, medium intrinsic impedance η ⎜ =
1. The permittivity of water at optical frequencies is ⎝ ε ⎟⎠
1.75 e0. It is found that an isotropic light source at a are required.
distance d under water forms an illuminated circular Hence, the correct option is (D).
area of radius 5 m, as shown in the figure. The critical
angle is qc. 3. If a right-handed circularly polarized wave is inci-
The value of d (in meter) is _______________. dent normally on a plane perfect conductor, then the
[2017] reflected wave will be [2016]
(A) right-handed circularly polarized
(B) left-handed circularly polarized
5m (C) elliptically polarized with a tilt angle of 45°
Air
(D) horizontally polarized
Solution: When a right hand circularly polarized wave
θC d is incident normally on a plane perfect conductor,
Water
i.e., σ = ∞ then orientation changes by 180° at any of
the two fields present. Therefore, option (B) is correct
Light Hence, the correct option is (B).
Source
4. In the electric field component of a plane wave travel-
Solution: →
ling in a lossless dielectric medium is given by E (z, t)
n ε ∧ ⎛ z ⎞
θC = sin −1 2 = sin −1 r 2 = 49.1° = a y 2cos ⎜108 t − ⎟ V/m. The wavelength (in m) for
n1 ε r1 ⎝ 2⎠
5 the wave is _______ [2015]
tan 49.1 = = 1.5447
d Solution: Given equation
⇒ d = 4.33 m → ⎛ z ⎞
E (z, t) = â y 2cos ⎜108 t − ⎟ V m
Hence, the correct answer is (4.30 to 4.36). ⎝ 2⎠
1
2. Let the electric field vector of a plane electromag- β=
2
netic wave propagating in a homogeneous medium be
expressed as E = xEˆ x e − j (ωt − β z ) where the propagation ω = 108
constant β is a function of the angular frequency ω. 2π 1
Assume that β(ω) and Ex are known and are real. From β= =
λ 2
the information available, which one of the following
CANNOT be determined? [2016] ⇒ λ = 2 2π
(A) The type of polarization of the wave
(B) The group velocity of the wave =
8.88m
(C) The phase velocity of the wave
(D) The power flux through the z = 0 plane Hence, the correct Answer is (8.85 to 8.92).
Chapter 2 Uniform Plane Waves | 9.21
Re ( P ) denotes the real part of, S denotes a spherical i wt − x −
p 3p
z
l l
surface whose centre is at the point source, and n̂ ˆ 0e
E = yE
(a)
denotes the unit surface normal on S. Which of the fol-
p 3p
lowing statements
is TRUE? i wt − x + z
l l
(a) Re ( P ) remains constant at any radial distance (b) ˆ 0e
E = yE
from the source
3p p
(b) Re ( P ). increases with increasing radial distance i p t +
x+ z
l l
from the source (c) ˆ 0e
E = yE
∫∫
p
(c) Re( P ). nˆ dS remains constant at any radial dis-
s
(d)
i wt −
ˆ 0e
E = yE
3p
l
x− z
l
[2007]
tance from the source
Solution: (a)
(d) ∫∫
Re ( P ). nˆ dS decreases with increasing
tan 30° =
βz
=
1
s
βx 3
radial distance from the source [2011]
Solution: (c)
β x = 3β z
∫∫
s
Re ( p). nˆ ds remains constant at any radial
2π 3π
2
π 2
β= = +
distance from the source. λ
w λ
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Solution: (c)
E =V m
∈r = 4
Hence, the correct option is (a)
E 2 1 2. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave propagat-
Pav = ing in the positive z-direction is given by
2η
E = aˆ x sin(wt − b z) + aˆ y sin(wt − b z + p / 2)
120π
η= = 60π Ω The wave is
∈r
(a) linearly polarized in the z-direction
(b) elliptically polarized
(1) 2 1
Pavg = = w/m 2 (c) left-hand circularly polarized
2 × 60π 120π (d) right-hand circularly polarized [2006]
Hence, the correct option is (c) Solution: (c)
11. A plane wave of wavelength λ is travelling in a direc- E = axˆ sin( wt − b z ) + ayˆ sin( wt − b z + p /2)
tion making an angle 30° with positive x-axis and 90° E x = axˆ sin( wt − b z )
with positive y-axis The E field of the plane wave can
be represented as (E0: s a constant) E y = ayˆ sin( wt − b z + p /2)
Chapter 2 Uniform Plane Waves | 9.23
Ex and Ey both are out of phase by 90° with equal mag- Solution:(b)
nitude and, axˆ + ayˆ = azˆ
∂ 2 Ex ∂ 2 Ex
So, left circularly polarized = C2 ,
For the wave equation ∂z 2 ∂t 2
the wave will propagates in the z-direction.
Hence, the correct option is (b)
16. Identify which one of the following will NOT satisfy
the wave equation.
(a) 50ei(wt – 3z)
(b) sin[w (10z + 5t)]
(c) cos(y2 + 5t)
Hence, the correct option is (c) (d) sin(x) cos(t) [1999]
13. The magnetic field intensity vector of a plane wave is Solution: (c)
given by cos (y2 + 5t) does not satisfy wave equation.
R(x, t) = 10 sin (50000t + 0 004x + 30) aˆ y , where aˆ y Hence, the correct option is (c)
17. The intrinsic impedance of copper at high frequency is
denotes the unit vector in y direction'. The wave is
(a) purely resistive
propagating with a phase velocity
(b) purely inductive
(a) 5 × 104 m/s (b) 3 × 103 m/s (c) complex with a capacitive component
(c) 1.25 × 107 m/s (d) 3 × 106 m/s [2005] (d) complex with an inductive component
Solution: (c) [1998]
Solution: (d)
H ( x, t ) = 10 sin(50000t + 0.004 x + 30)ayˆ
jw µ
w = 50,000 Intrinsic impedance, η =
σ + jw ∈
β = −0.004
For copper, σ >> wt
Vp = −1.25 × 107 m/s
Hence, the correct option is (d)
w
Vp = = phase velocity 1 8. The wavelength of a wave with propagation constant
β (0.1π + j0. 2π)m-1is
2
5 × 10 4 (a) m (b 10 m
= −3 0.05
−4 × 10
(c) 20 m (d) 30 m [1998]
VP = -125 × 107m/s
Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Propagation constant of a wave is,
14. The depth of penetration of electromagnetic. wave in a χ = α + jβ
medium having conductivity σ at a frequency of 1 MHz
is 25 cm. The depth of penetration at a frequency of 4 given, χ = 0.1π + j 0.2π
MHz will be 2π
β= = 0.2π
(a) 6.25 cm (b) 12 50 cm λ
(c) 50.00 cm (d) 100.00 cm [2003]
Solution: (b) λ = 10 m
Hence, the correct option is (b) Hence, the correct option is (b)
1 9. The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric
15. If a plane electromagnetic wave satisfies the equation increases with increasing
∂2 E ∂2 E (a) conductivity (b) permeability
2
= σ 2 2 the wave propagates in the
∂Z ∂t (c) wavelength (d) permittivity [1998]
(a) x-direction Solution: (c)
(b) z-direction Depth of penetration or skin depth for lossy dielectric
(c) y-direction is,
(d) xy plane at an angle of 45° between the x and z f ( wt - bz )
E = E0 e
( axˆ + ayˆ )
directions [2001]
9.24 | Electromagnetic Theory
1 Solution: (d)
δ=
f The voltage in the loop is due to two reactions.
dB
δ∝ λ
(i) Time varying magnetic field is VB = −
C
dt ∫. ds
Hence, the correct option is (c) (ii) Voltage induced in a loop moving with velocity ‘v’
20. The polarization of a wave with electric field in steady magnetic field.
vector E = E0 e j ( t − †z ) ( ax + a y ) is
∫
Vm = (V × B)dl
(a) linear L
(b) elliptical
(c) left hand circular
Vtotal = Vm + VB
(d) right hand circular [1998] Hence, the correct option is (d)
Solution: (a) 2 3. The intrinsic impedance of a lossy dielectric medium is
f ( wt − β z ) given by
E = E0 e ( ax + ay )
Icon
the phase difference between Ex and Ey component is jωµ jω ∈
(a) (b)
zero σ µ
∴ the polarization of a wave is linear
jωµ µ
Hence, the correct option is (a) (c) (d) [1995]
(σ + ω ∈ ) ∈
21. The time
averaged Poynting vector, in W/m ,for a wave
2
with E = 24e j (ωt − β z ) a y V/m in free space is Solution: (c)
2.4
The intrinsic impedance of a lossy dielectric medium is
2.4
−
(a) a (b) az given as,
π p
4.8 jw µ
4.8
− az η=
(c) az (d) [1998] σ + jw ∈
p π
Solution: (a) Hence, the correct option is (c)
2 4. Copper behaves as a
1 2
Pavg = E = −az (a) conductor always
2η (b) conductor or dielectric depending on the applied
Direction of power = -az since, wave is travelling in electric field strength
-az direction (c) conductor or dielectric depending on the frequency
(d) conductor or dielectric depending on the elec
E = 24e j ( wt + β z ) ay v/m tric current density [1995]
|E| = 24 Solution: (a)
η = 120π ohm σ
Loss tangent factor for copper is >> 1 as, σ for cop-
( 24) 2
per = 5.8 × 107 mho/m wt
Pavg = ( −az )
2 × 120π ∈ = 8.85 × 10−12 F/m
2.4
jw µ w µ jπ / 4 wπ wµ
Pavg = − az w /m 2 η= = e = +j
π σ σ 2σ 2σ
Hence, the correct option is (a) Thus, copper behaves as a conductor always.
Hence, the correct option is (a)
22. A loop is rotating about the y-axis in a magnetic field
B = B0 cos(wt + f )aˆ T . The voltage in the loop is 2 5. A plane electromagnetic wave traveling along the +zdi-
rection, has its electric field given by Ex = 2 cos (wt) and
(a) zero Ey = 2cos(wt + 90)° the wave is
(b) due to rotation only (a) linearly polarized
(c) due to transformer action only (b) right circularly polarized
(d) due to both rotation and transformer action (c) left circularly polarized
[1998] (d) elliptically polarized [1994]
Chapter 2 Uniform Plane Waves | 9.25
Solution: (a) z
Ex = 2 cos wt
Ey = 2 cos (wt + 90°)
Since E.M wave has two planar components of E-field
θi
both out of phase by 90° with equal amplitude so, wave x
is circularly polarized.
t
en
c id tor
In ec
v
∵ n1 = 1
βz
θi = tan–1
βx
=
tan–1 ( 2 )
⎛n ⎞
⇒ tan–1 ⎜ 2 ⎟ = tan–1 ( 2 )
⎝ n1 ⎠
n2 = 2
Also from figure, we can say wave is left circularly
polarized. ε r2 = 2
Hence, the correct option is (a)
ε r2 = 2
Two-marks Questions ∵ n1 = 1
1. A uniform plane wave traveling in free space and hav-
Hence, the correct answer is 1.9 to 2.1.
ing the electric field
2. The distance (in meters) a wave has to propagate in a
iˆ E = ( 2aˆ x − aˆ2 ) cos[6 3π × 108 t − 2π ( x − 2 z )]V/m medium having a skin depth of 0.1 m so that the ampli-
tude of the wave attenuates by 20 dB, is [2018]
Is incident on a dielectric medium (relative permittivity (A) 0.12 (B) 0.23
> 1, relative permeability = 1) as shown in the figure (C) 0.46 (D) 2.3
and there is no reflected wave. Solution: We know that the amplitude of e–field in the
z direction of propagation can be expressed as
Free space
Dielectric Ez = E0 −α Z
medium (ε r > 1) e
here E0 represents the maximum, amplitude that occurs
x at Z = 0.
Now we have
∴ 20 log10 ⎡ E0 ⎤ = 20
⎢ − z /8 ⎥
The relative permittivity (correct to two decimal places) ⎣ E0 e ⎦
of the dielectric medium is _______. [2018] 1
Solution: We know that uniform plane wave is travel- ∵ δ= = 0.1 m
α
ling with electric field vector being parallel to the plane
of incidence. Therefore it is parallel polarization. We log10 ⎡e10 z ⎤ = 1
⎣ ⎦
know that wave is not reflected otherwise it represents
total transmission. Angle of incidence, θi = Brewster ⇒ z = 0.23 m
angle θ13
Hence, the correct option is (B)
⎛ n2 ⎞
= tan–1 ⎜ n ⎟ 3. The electric field of a uniform plane wave travelling
⎝ 1⎠ along the negative z direction is given by the following
equation
9.26 | Electromagnetic Theory
(
EWi = aˆ x + jaˆ y E0e jkz. ) Wave is propagating along x-axis so field is in y-z plane
in 10 cm × 10 cm square
This wave is incident upon a receiving antenna placed P = ∫ Pavg .ds
at the origin and whose radiated electric field towards
the incident wave is given by the following equation ⎛ x + aˆ y ⎞
ˆ
a
aˆ = ∫ 7.53aˆ x ⋅ ⎜
( 1
Ea = aˆ x + 2aˆ y EI e–jkr
r
)
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎟ ds
aˆ x + aˆ y
The polarization of the incident wave, the polarization Where is unit vector
of the antenna and losses due to the polarization mis- 2
match are, respectively, [2016] 10 −1 10 −1
7.53
(A) Linear, Circular (Clockwise) – 5dB
(B) Circular (clockwise), Linear –5dB
=
2
∫ ∫ dy dz
0 0
(C) Circular (clockwise), Linear, –3dB
(D) Circular (anti clockwise), Linear, –3dB =
5.32 × 10–2 W
Solution: Polarization of incident wave, =53.2 mW
Ewi = ( ax + ja y ) E0 e jkz Hence, the correct Answer is (53 to 54).
Direction of propagation ‘–z’ 5. Consider a uniform plane wave with amplitude (E0) of
10 V/m and 1.1 GHz frequency travelling in air, and
E xo = E yo incident normally on a dielectric medium with complex
relative permittivity (εr) and permeability (µr) as shown
Ey leads Ex by 90° in the figure.
Right (clock wise) circular polarization.
Air Dielectric
Polarization of antenna, η = 120π Ω μr = 1 – j2
ε r = 1 – j2
1 − jkr
Ea = ( ax + 2ay ) E I e
r E = ?
10 cm
E XO = E I
E0 = 10 V/m
Freq = 1.1 GHz
EYO = 3E
The magnitude of the transmitted electric field compo-
Ex and Ey are in phase
nent (in V/m) after it has travelled a distance of 10 cm
Linear polarization: The linearly polarized antenna sim- inside the dielectric region is ________. [2015]
ply picks up the in phase component of circularly polar-
Solution:
ized wave which has two orthogonal linearly polarized
waves 90° out of phase. As a result LP antenna has a Air Dielectric
polarization mismatch loss of 0.5 (–3 dB) PLF (linear η1 = 120 π Ω µr = 1 – j2
to circular) = 0.5 = –3 dB. Eo = 10 V/m εr = 1 – j2
Hence, the correct option is (C). f = 1.1 GHz η2 = 120 π Ω
(From the given eqn, we see that both Ex and Ey both
are in phase which shows that there is linear polariza- E = Eo e– γ z for decaying electric field
tion in it with mismatch loss of –3 dB option (c))
γ= jωμ (σ + jωε ) [ σ <<j ωε ]
4. The electric field intensity of a plane wave travelling in
free space is given by the following expression E(x, t) =
= jωμ ( jωε )
ay 24 πcos(ωt – k0x) (V/m)
In this field, consider a square area 10 cm × 10 cm on a = jω μ r ε r μo ε o
plane x + y = 1. The total time-averaged power (in mW)
passing through the square area is ________. [2015] α + jβ = jω μo ε o (1 – j2)
2
Eo
Pavg =
Solution: ân From above equation α = 2 ω μo ε o
2η
2 × 2π × 1.1 × 109
=
(24π )2 âx
=
2 × 120π 3 × 1010
=
0.4607 cm
=
7.53 âx
Chapter 2 Uniform Plane Waves | 9.27
1 Solution: (d)
8
(a) cos(3 × 10 t + ²y)aˆ x A/m
10p E2 η H2
For free space, P = or, 0
2η0 2
1 5 3 5 p
(b) cos(3 × 108 t + ²y)aˆ x A/m H= cos( wt − b z ) xˆ + sin wt − pz + yˆ
20p h0 h0 2
1 H = Hx 2 + Hy 2
(c) − cos(3 × 108 t + b y)aˆ x A/m
20p
1 5
(d) − cos(3 × 108 t + β y )ax A/m [2010] = ( 3 )2 + 1
10π η0
Solution: (a)
10
8 H=
E i = 24 cos(3 × 10 t − b y ) az ˆ v/m η0
azˆ × aˆ[ Hi ] = ayˆ ⇒ azˆ + axˆ = ayˆ η0 × 100
P= = 50 watt
1 1 2η02
Hi = Ei axˆ = cos(3 × 108 t − py )axˆ
h 5p Hence, the correct option is (d)
∈2 − ∈1 1 5. A Right Circularly Polarized (RCP) plane wave is inci-
H r η1 − η2 9− 1 1
= = = = dent at an angle of 60° to the normal, on an air-dielec-
H i η1 + η2 ∈2 + ∈1 9+ 1 2 tric interface. If the reflected wave is linearly polarized,
the relative dielectric constant ∈r2 is
1
Hr = Hi
2
1
Hr = cos(3 × 108 t + β y )ax
10 π
Hence, the correct option is (a)
13. A uniform plane wave in the free space is normally
incident on an infinitely thick dielectric slab (dielectric
constants εr = 9) The magnitude of the reflection coef-
ficient is
(a) 0 (b) 0.3
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.8 [2008]
Solution: (c)
(a) 2 (b) 3
εr1= 9 tr2= 9 (c) 2 (d) 3 [2007]
∈r1 − ∈r2 1− 3 Solution: (d)
Γ= =
∈r1 + ∈r2 1+ 3 Brewster’s angle of incidence is given as,
∈2
Γ = 0.5 tan θ B =
∈1
Hence, the correct option is (a)
∈2
1 4. The H field (in A/m) of a plane wave propagating in tan 60° = = 3
free space is given by 1
5 3 5 π t2 = 3
H=x cos(ω − β ) + y sin ω − β z + Hence, the correct option is (d)
η0 η0 2
16. A medium of relative permittivity ∈r2 = 2 forms an
The time average power flow density in watts is interface with free-space. A point source of electromag-
η0 100 netic energy is located in the medium at a depth of 1
(a) 100 (b) η0 meter from the interface. Due to the total internal reflec-
tion, the transmitted beam has a circular cross-section
50
(c) 50h02 (d) [2007] over the interface. The area of the beam cross-section at
η0 the interface is given by
9.30 | Electromagnetic Theory
∈1 = 1,∈2 = 4
1
Γ=−
3
2
Pt 1 8
= 1− =
Pi 3 9
Hence, the correct option is (a)
E2 = E1
(a)
4 aˆ x + 0.75aˆ y − 1.25aˆ z
(b) 19. If H = k ( ayˆ + jaxˆ )e j *kz − wt ) and
3aˆ x + 3aˆ y + 5aˆ z
(c) wm
−3ax + 3aˆ y + 5aˆ z k
(d) ˆ [2006]
H= ( )
aˆ y + jaˆ x e
jkz − jwt
the time averaged
Solution: (c) wm
E1 = 4 ax + 3ay + 5az Poynting vector is
k
(a) null vector (b)
Et1 = Et2 â z
wm
k
Et1 = 3ay + 5az = Et2 2k
(c)
â z (d) az
wm 2ωµ
Dn1 = Dn2
[2004]
Chapter 2 Uniform Plane Waves | 9.31
Solution: (a)
E = ( axˆ + jayˆ )e j ( kz − wt )
k j *kz − wt )
H = ( ayˆ + jaxˆ )e
wm
1
Pavg = Re [ E × H ]
2
1 k j ( kz − wt )
= Re ( ax + jay )e j ( kz − wt ) × ( ay − jax )e
2 wµ Hence, the correct option is (c)
1 21. A uniform plane wave travelling in air is incident on
k j ( kz − wt )
= Re ( ax + jay )e j ( kz − wt ) × ( ay − jax )e the plane boundary between air and another dielectric
2
wµ medium with εr = 4. The reflection coefficient for the
1 k normal incidence, is
= ( axˆ + ayˆ ) + j ( axˆ + axˆ ) + j ( ayˆ + ayˆ ) + ( ayˆ + axˆ ) (a) Zero (b) 0.5 ∠ 180°
2 wm
(c) 0.333 ∠ 0° (d) 0.333∠180° [2003]
1 k Solution: (d)
= ( axˆ + ayˆ ) + j ( axˆ + axˆ ) + j ( ayˆ + ayˆ ) + ( ayˆ + axˆ )
2 wm 1 1
−
η − η1 ∈2 ∈1
1 k Γ= 2 =
= [azˆ + 0 + 0 − azˆ ] η2 + η1 1 1
2 wm +
∈2 ∈1
Pavg = 0
Hence, the correct option is (a) ∈2 = 4, ∈1 = 1
20. Medium 1 has the electrical permittivity ε1= 1.5ε0 1
−1
farad/m and occupies the region to the left of x = 0 1
Γ= 2 = − = 0.333 < 180°
plane Medium 2 has the electrical permittivity ε2 = 1 3
+1
2.5ε0 farad/m and occupies the region to the right of 2
x = 0 plane. If E1 in medium 1 is E1 = (2ux - 3uy + 1uz) Hence, the correct option is (d)
volt/m, then E2 in medium 2 is
22. If the electric field intensity associated with a uniform
(a) (2.0ux-7.5uy + 2.5uz)volt/m plane electromagnetic wave travelling in a perfect
(b) (2-0ux -2.0uy+ 0.6uz)volt/m dielectric medium is given by E(z, t) = 10cos(2π107t −
(c) (1.2ux-3.0uy + 1.0uz)volt/m 0.1πz). volt/m, the velocity of the travelling wave is
(d) (1.2ux-2.0uy+ 0 6uz)volt/m [2003] (a) 3.00 × 108 m/sec (b) 2.00 × 108 m/sec
(c) 6.28 × 10 m/sec
7
(d) 2.00 × 107 m/sec
Solution: (c) [2003]
Et1 = Et2 Solution: (b)
Et1 = −3uy + uz = Et2 E(z, t) = 10 cos (2π × 107t – 0.1πz) v/m
w = 2π × 107
∈1 En1 = ∈2 En2 β = 0.1π
1.5 ∈0 . 2ux = 2.5 ∈0 En2 w 2π × 107
V= =
β 0.1π
En2 = 1.2 ux
V = 2 × 108 m/s
So, E2 = 1.2ux – 3uy + uz Hence, the correct option is (b)
9.32 | Electromagnetic Theory
2 1
η = 120π −9
8 ∈0 = 36π × 10 F/m
η = 60π = 188.5Ω (a) a good conductor
(b) a good dielectric
Hence, the correct option is (d) (c) neither a good conductor, nor a good dielectric
2 9. A uniform plane wave in air is normally incident on an (d) a good magnetic material [1993]
infinitely thick slab If the refractive index of the glass Solution: (a)
slab is 1.5, then the percentage of the incident power σ
Loss tangent for given problem is,
that is reflected from the air-glass interface is wt
(a) 0% (b) 4% σ 106
=
(c) 20% (d) 100% [1996] wt 10
2π × 10 × 109 × × 10 −9
Solution: (b) 36π
η2 − η1 σ
Reflection coefficient, Γ1 = = 1.798 × 105
η2 + η1 wt
∂2 E ∂ 2 Ex = Et = jωµ 2
(c) x = µ E
∂y 2 ∂t 2 Ht σ + jω ∈
E 2 + EZ2 For a good conductor
(d) 2x = µ / ∈ [1991]
H x + H z2 σ>>w∈
Et jωµ ωµ jπ / 4
Solution: (d) = = e
Ht σ σ
Since E.M wave is propagating in y-direction than Ey
and Hy component must be zero. So, Et leads Ht by an angle of 45°.
Ey and Hy = 0 Hence, the correct option is (d)
E.M wave equation given as, 36. The skin depth of copper at a frequency of 3 GHz is
1 micron (10-6 meter). At 12 GHz, for a non-magnetic
∂ 2 Ex ∂ 2 Ex
= µ ∈ conductor whose conductivity is 1/9 times that of cop-
∂y 2 ∂t 2 per, the skin depth would be
Ex
= −η and E z = η (a) 9 × 4 microns (b) 9 × 4 microns
Hz Hx
(c) 4 / 9 microns (d) 1 / 9 × 4 microns
E E x + E z2
2
µ [1989]
= 2 =η =
H Hx + Hz 2 ∈ Solution: (b)
Hence, the correct option is (d) We know that
34. The incoming solar radiation at a place on the surface For a good conductor
of the earth is 1.2 KW/m2. The amplitude of the elec-
1
tric field corresponding to this incident power is nearly Skin depth = δ =
equal to π f µσ
1
(a) 80mV/m (b) 2.5 V/m δ∝
(c) 30 V/m fσ
(d) 950 V/m [1990]
δ2 f1σ 1
Solution: (d) =
δ1 f 2σ 2
E2
Power =
2η Given that,
δ1 = 1 micron
E = Electric field intensity
f1 = 3 GHz
η = Intrinsic impedance
f2 = 12 GHz
E = 2η p
σ2 1
=
η = 120π σ1 9
P = 1.2 kW/m2
δ2 3 9 9
E = 2 × 120π × 1.2 × 103 = × =
1 12 1 4
E = 950 v / m
9
δ2 = microns
Hence, the correct option is (d) 4
35. In a good conductor the phase relation between the tan- Hence, the correct option is (b)
gential components of electric field Et and the magnetic 3 7. For an electromagnetic wave incident from one medium
field Ht is as follows to a second medium, total reflection takes place when
(a) Et and Ht are in phase (a) The angle of incidence is equal to the Brewster
Chapter 2 Uniform Plane Waves | 9.35
n1 ∈r1
(c) E2 = E1e −α x
For total internal reflection x = 5f = 5/α
θi ≥ θc E2 = E1e −α 5 / α = E1e −5
ξr
θi ≥ sin −1 2 µ0 µ0 1
ξ r1 η2 = 1
= = × 120π = 40π
E 9 E0 3
For total internal reflection to take place, the wave E22 339.24 −10
should move from a denser medium to a rarer medium P2 = = e
2η2 80π
and the angle of incidence should be greater than or
equal to the critical angle. P2 = 3e−10 w/m2
Hence, the correct option is (c) (i) βx = −3, βy = +4, βz = 0
8aˆ x 6 aˆ y 5aˆ z
hˆ = + +
, which conclude that
Five-marks Questions 125 125 125
1. A medium has a breakdown strength of 16 kV/m rms. the given field vector represents a plane wave in
Its relative permeability is 1.0 and relative permittiv- direction of xn.
ity is 4.0. A plane electromagnetic wave is transmitted β x2 + β y2 + β z2 = β 2 (cos 2 A + cos 2 B + cos 2 C )
(ii)
through the medium. Calculate the maximum possible
power flor density and the associated magnetic field. 64 36 4 2
= β2 + = β
[2001] 125 125 5
Solution: μr = 1, Er = 4. 4 2
given, E = Ebrms = 16 kv/m
β = ( −3) 2 + ( 4) 2 = 252 , ⇒ β = 5.59
5
µr 2
η= 120π = 60π , P = Ebrms γ = α + jβ = 0 + j5.59
Er η
= 5.39 j
3 2
So, Pmax = (16 × 10 ) = 1.36 × 106 w/m 2
(iii) Phase velocity in the y-direction.
60π ω ω 2π × 1010
Vy = = = = 1.57 × 1010 m/sec
E β y β cos β 4
H brms = brms = 84.88 A/m
η 3. A plane wave with
2. The electric field vector of a wave is given as jw µ w µ jπ / 4 wπ wµ
η= = e = +j
j(ω t+3x-4y) 8a x +6a y +5a z σ σ 2σ 2σ is inci-
E=E0 e V/m dent normally on a thick plane conductor lying in the
125
X-Y plane. Its conductivity is 6 × 106 S/m and surface
Its frequency is 10 GHz
impedance is 5 × 10-4 ∠45°W. Determine the propa-
(i) Investigate if this wave is a plane wave,
gation • constant and the skin depth in the conductor.
(ii) Determine its propagation constant, and
[1998]
(iii) Calculate the phase velocity in y-direction [1998]
9.36 | Electromagnetic Theory
jωµ jωµ
Zs = ≅ = Rs + jxs
v + jω E σ
Rs = 5 × 10 −4 ∠45°
ω /4 5 × 10 −4
Rs = xs = =
2σ 2
Propagation constant, (iii)
jωσ 5 × 10 −4
α= β = ( Rs )σ = × 6 × 106
2 2
⇒ α = β = 2|2|
γ = α + Jβ = 2|2| + j2|2|
1 1
Skin depth, d = = = 0.471 mm,
α 2|2| (iv)
2Q Q3 Q Q3 (2Qωt) = −4/9 2Q
tan
A + + 2 Q + + Q
3 ⇒ ωt = −11.98°+ =0
4π E ( 50 ) 4 π E ( x ) 4 π E ( 50 ) 4π E ( x − 50 ) 4π E ( x ) 4π E ( x − 50 )
So, Ex = 3 cos (11.98) = 2.934
2Q Q3 Q Q3 Q 2Q E = 2 cos (−11.98 + 45) = 1.676
A + + 2Q + + Q3 + y= 0
4π E (50) 4π E ( x ) 4π E (50) 4π E ( x − 50) 4π E ( x ) 4π E ( x − 50)
E = E x2 + E y2 = 3.378
Q Q3 Q 2Q (4) at, ωt = 78.02
Q + + Q3 + =0
4π E ( 50 ) 4π E ( x − 50 ) 4π E ( x ) 4 π E ( x − 50 )
Ey = 0.6227 and Ey = −1.08
Solving equation (4), Q = −50Q3
E = E x2 + E y2 = 1.246
−1
or Q3 = 50 Q
So, Emax = 3.3378
so, x(x – 50) = (x + 25) ⇒ x2 – 50x – x + 25 = 0 (5)
Emin = 1.246
−51 ± ( −51) 2 − 4(1)( 25) Emax 3.378
Solving (5) x = Axial = ratio = = 2.71
2 Emin 1.246
= 30.5 of 0.5 cm
Ey
x = 0.5 cm as (0.5 << 50.5) (b) tan θ = at Emax
Ex
So, x = 50.5 cm.
tan θ = 1.676 ⇒ ϑ = 29.73°
5. A wave travelling in the + z -direction is the resultant 2.934
of two linearly polarized components, Ex = 3coswt, and
Ey = 2cos(wt + 45°). Determine 6. A uniform plane wave having parallel polarization
(a) the axial ratio, and is obliquely incident on an air-dielectric interface as
(b) the angle between the major axis of the polarization shown in figure. If the wave has an electric field E = 10
ellipse and the +x axis. [1994] V/m. Find
Solution: Wave is travelling in +z direction. (i) the angle of incidence 9, for which there is no re-
flection of the wave, and
(ii) the surface charge density at the interface.
Ex = 3 cos ωt
Ey = 2 cos (ωt + 45°)
2π
t varies from 0 to T = θB Brewster angle,
Solution:
ω
OAmax = OP = semi major axis of ellipse. Er2
OAmin = OQ tan(θ b ) = =2
Er1
OA2 = E 2 = E x2 + E y2
θb = 6.3.4°
E 2 = (3 cos ωt ) 2 + ( 2 cos(ωt + 45°)) 2 (ii) Et = Ei
(OA)2 = E2 = 6.5 + 4.5 cos (2ωt) −2sin 2 ωt (1) Dt Di E2 E0 E r
= =
⇒ Dt = Di = 4 Di
E2 E1 E1 E0
dE
OA is max, when, = 0, and Solving (1)
dt Ps = Pt – Di = 3Di = 3E0Ei = 0.26 nc/m2
9.38 | Electromagnetic Theory
Solution:
µr1
η1 = (120π ) = 120π
Er1
µr2
η2 = (120π ) = 600π
Er2
Reflection coefficient. Solution: from given data,
η2 − η1 600π − 120π 2 E = 24e j (ωt − β z ) a y
Γ= = = ω = 4π × 108
η2 + η1 600π + 120π 3
E y = 11.8 π β = k = ω Hω
E2 1
Parg i = i =
η1 120π |E|2 = |Ex|2 + |Ey|2 = 751.6, η = η0 = 120π
2
( Pavg )i 2 3
= 1 − (Γ) 2 = 1 − =
( P )i 3 9
avg
5 1
( Pavg )t = × a2 = 1.47a2 mxy /m 2
9 120π
Chapter 3
Transmission Lines
j0)Ω at ω = 106 rad s–1. The values of the line constants
One-mark Questions L, C, R, G are respectively [2016]
(A) L = 200 µH/m, C = 0.1 µF/m, R = 50 Ω/m,
1. The voltage of an electromagnetic wave propagating in G = 0.02 S/m
a coaxial cable with uniform characteristic impedance (B) L = 250 µH/m, C = 0.1 µF/m, R = 100 Ω/m, G =
is V( ) = e -g + jwt volts. Where is the distance 0.04 S/m
along with length of the cable in metres, γ = (0.1 + (C) L = 200 µH/m, C = 0.2 µF/m, R = 100 Ω/m, G =
j40) m-1 is the complex propagation constant, and w 0.02 S/m
= 2p × 109 rad/s is the angular frequency. The abso- (D) L = 250 µH/m, C = 0.2 µF/m, R = 50 Ω/m,
lute value of the attenuation in the cable in dB/metre is G = 0.04 S/m
______________. [2017] Solution: Propagation constant of a loose transmission
γ = 0.1 + j 40 −1 m −1
Solution: line is (2 + j5) m–1.
Characteristic impedance is (50 + j0)Ω.
γ = α + j β m-1
Angular frequency ω = 106 rad s–1.
As Z is real, line is a lossless line,
α
→ attenuation constant (Np/m or dB/m)
β
→ Phase constant (rad/m or degree/M) L
⇒ Z= = 50
C
∴ α = 0.1 Np/m
β = ω LC
1 Np = 8.686 dB
\ a = 0.8686 dB/m 5 = 106 × LC
Hence, the correct answer is (0.85 to 0.88).
⇒ LC = 5 × 10 −6
2. A two wire transmission line terminates in television
set. The VSWR measured on the line is 5.8. The per- L
centage of power that is reflected from the television set LC × = L = 250 μ H/m
C
is __________. [2017]
Solution: VSWR = 5.8 ⇒ LC = 5 × 10 −6
VSWR − 1
Reflection Coefficient, K = 25 × 10 −12
VSWR + 1 ⇒ C=
25 × 10 −5
5.8 − 1 4.8
= = = 0.7 =
0.1 µF/m.
5.8 + 1 6.8
Percentage of power that is reflected Assuming the line to be a low loss distortion less line.
2
k × 100 = (0.7) 2 × 100 = 49% α = RG = 2
Hence, the correct answer is (48.5 to 49.5). RG = 4
3. The propagation constant of a loose transmission line R G
=
is (2 + j5) m–1 and its characteristic impedance is (50 + L C
9.40 | Electromagnetic Theory
{( }
6. To maximize power transfer, a lossless transmission
1.5) − (1.4 )
2 2
θi = sin–1 line is to be matched to a resistive load impedance via
a λ/4transformer as shown,
= sin {0.538} = 32.58°
–1
Lossless transmission line
λ/4 transformer
Hence, the correct Answer is (32.58°).
ZL = 50 Ω ZL = 100 Ω
5. A coaxial cable is made of two brass conductors. The
spacing between the conductors is filled with Teflon
(εr = 2.1, tan δ = 0). Which one of the following circuits
can represent the lumped element model of a small
piece of this cable having length ∆z? [2015] The characteristic impedance (in W)of the λ/4 trans-
(A) RΔz/2 LΔz/2
former is____. [2014]
RΔz/2 LΔz/2
Solution: (70.72)
For λ/4 transformer,
1+ Γ
= 50 × 100 VSWR = =
1.1
1− Γ 0.9
z0 = 70.72 Ω
7. In the following figure, the transmitter Transmission VSWR = 1.22
sends a wideband modulated RF signal via a coaxial Hence, the correct option is (a).
cable to the receiver Rx The output impedance ZT of 9. A transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 W
Transmission, the characteristic impedance Z0, of is terminated by a 50 W load. When excited by a sinu-
the cable and the input impedance ZR of Rx. are all soidal voltage source at 10 GHz, the phase difference-
real. between two points spaced 2 mm apart on the line is
found to be π/4 radians. The phase velocity of the wave
along the line is
(a) 0.8 × 108 m/s (b) 1.2 ×108 m/s
(c) 1.6 × 10 m/s
8
(d) 3 ×108 m/s
[2011]
Which one of the following statements is TRUE about Solution: (c)
the distortion of the received signal due to impedance π
β .l = [for l = 2 mm]
mismatch? 4
π
(a) The signal gets distorted if ZR ≠ Z0, irrespective of β=
the value of ZT. 4 × 2 ×10 −3
(b) The signal gets distorted if ZT ≠ Z0, irrespective of 1000π
the value of ZR. β= rad/m
8
(c) Signal distortion implies impedance mismatch at
both ends: ZT ≠ Z0 and ZR≠ Z0. w = 2π × 10 × 109 rad/sec
(d) Impedance mismatches do NOT result in signal w 2π × 10 × 109
distortion but reduce power transfer efficiency. Velocity, V = β = 1000π ×8
[2014] V = 1.6 × 108 m/s
Solution: (c) Hence, the correct option is (c).
For given problem, following statements (a) and 10. A transmission line has a characteristic impedance of
(b) cannot be true because transmission line can be 50 W and a resistance of 0 1 W/m. If the line is distor-
matched for zR ≠ z0 and zT ≠ z0 by using quarter wave- tionless, the attenuation constant (in Np/m) is
length transformer. (a) 500 (b) 5
Statement (d) also not true because signal distortion (c) 0.014 (d) 0.002 [2010]
occurs due to mismatching at both ends i.e. zT ≠ z0 and Solution: (d)
zR ≠ z0 For distortionless transmission line,
Therefore (c) is true about the distortion of the received L C
signal. =
R G
Hence, the correct option is (c).
L R
8. The return loss of a device is found to be 20 dB. The =
z0 =
C G
voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) and magnitude of
reflection coefficient are respectively R
(a) 1.22 and 0.1 (b) 0.81 and 0.1 attenuation constant, ∝= RG = R .
Z0
(c) –1 22 and 0.1 (d) 2.44 and 0.2
[2013] R 0.1
∝= =
Solution: (a) Z0 50
Return Loss = −20 log10|Γ+ dB
∝= 0.002 Np/m
−20 log10|Γ| = 20 dB
log10|Γ| = −1 Hence, the correct option is (d).
Γ = 10 −1 = 0.1 1 1. The VSWR can have any value between
(a) 0 and 1 (b) – 1 and + 1
(c) 0 and ∞ (d) 1 and ∞ [2002]
9.42 | Electromagnetic Theory
2
(a) R0 (b)
R0
3
3
(c) R0 (d) 2R0 [1998]
2
Solution: (b)
λ
R1 l = = 2 R0
2
Hence, the correct option is (b).
1 3. A transmission line is distortion less if 2
λ z
1 R2 l = = 0
(a) RL = (b) RL = GC 4 zL
GC
(c) LG = RC (d) RG -= LC [2001] R02
=
Solution: (c) R0 / 2
Condition for distortion less is, R2 = zR0
R G 2 R0 × 2 R0
= z L = ( R1 || R2 ) = = R0
L C 4 R0
Rise time constant = Fall time constant
z + jz0
RC = LG zin = [l = λ /8] = z0 L
Hence, the correct option is (c).
z0 + jz L
14. The magnitudes of the open-circuit and short-circuit [ R0 + jR0 ]
zin = R0
input impedances of a transmission line are 100 W and ( R0 + jR0 )
25 Wrespectively. The characteristic impedance of the
zin = R0
line is,
(a) 25 W (b) 50 W
(c) 75W (d) 100W [2000]
Chapter 3 Transmission Lines | 9.43
Solution: (b)
L V= 1
z0 = ,
C LC
L = z0 C
So,
1
V=
z0 C
Hence, the correct option is (b). Hence, the correct option is (b).
1 9. A load impedance, (200 + j0) W is to be matched to a
16. A transmission line of 50 W characteristic impedance 50 W lossless transmission line by using a quarter wave
is terminated with a 100 W resistance The minimum linetransformer (Q W T). The characteristic impedance
impedance measured on the line is equal to of the QWT required is......... [1994]
(a) 0W (b) 25W
Solution: (100)
(c) 50 W (d) 100W [1997]
zL = (200 + j0)
Solution: (b)
zin = 50 W
z0 = 50 Ω
For quarter wave transformer,
zL = 100 Ω
z02
z 2 50 × 50 zin =
zin (min) = 0 = zL
zL 100
2
zin(min) = 25 Ω z0 = 200 × 50
Hence, the correct option is (b). z0 = 100Ω
17. A lossless transmission line having 50 W characteristic
impedance and length λ/4 is short circuited at one end Two-marks Questions
and connected to an ideal voltage source of 1 V at the
other end. The current drawn from the voltage sources 1. There are two photolithography systems : one with
is light source of wavelength l1 = 156nm (system 1) and
(a) 0 (b) 0.02 A another with light source of wavelength l2 = 325nm
(c) ∞ (d) none of the these (system 2). Both photolithography systems are other-
wise identical. If the minimum feature sizes that can be
[1996]
realized using System 1 and System 2 are Lmin1 and Lmin2
Solution: (a) respectively, the ratio Lmin1/Lmin2 (correct to two decimal
z02 places) is ______. [2018]
For Quarter wave transformer, zin = Solution: We know that
zL
zL = 0 Ω [short circuited] L∝ λ
zin = ∞ = open circuit
Therefore
V V Lmin1 λ1
I s = s = s = 0 Amp =
zin ∞ Lmin 2 λ2
Hence, the correct option is (a). 156 nm
= 0.48
18. The capacitance per unit length and the characteristic 325 nm
impedance of a lossless transmission line are C and Z0 Hence, the correct answer is 0.47 to 0.51.
respectively. The velocity of a travelling wave on the 2. A lossy transmission line has resistance per unit length
transmission line is R = 0.05 W/m. The line is distortionless and has char-
(a) Z0C (b) 1/(Z0C) acteristic impedance of 50 W. The attenuation constant
(c) Z0/C (d) C/Z0 [1996] (in Np/m, correct to three decimal places) of the line is
______. [2018]
9.44 | Electromagnetic Theory
Solution: resistance per unit length R = 0.05 Ω/m 4. A lossless micro strip transmission line consists of a
R G trace of width w. It is drawn over a practically infinite
Distortionless line → = ground plane and is separated by a dielectric slab of
L C
thickness t and relative permittivity εr > 1. The induct-
characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 Ω
ance per unit length and the characteristic impedance
We know that of this line are L and z0, respectively. [2016]
Z0 = L = 50 w ε = ε0
C
L ε = ε0 εr ; εr > 1 t
⇒ = 2500
C
L R
= = 2500 Which one of the following inequalities is always
C G satisfied?
0.05
⇒ G= = 2 × 10–5 /m Lt Lt
2500 Z0 >
(A) Z0 <
(B)
ε0εr w ε0εr w
Alternation constant can be calculated as
LW LW
α = RG Z0 >
(C) Z0 <
(D)
ε0εr t ε0εr t
= 0.05 × 2 × 10 −5 = 0.001 Np/m Solution: From the given fig, where relative permittiv-
= 1 mNp/m ity are varying, the expression for characteristics im-
Hence, the correct answer is 0.001. pedance can be better inferred from option (B).
3. An optical fiber is kept along the ẑ direction. The Hence, the correct option is (B).
refractive indices for the electric fields along x̂ and ŷ 5. A microwave circuit consisting of lossless transmission
directions in the fiber are nx = 1.5000 and ny = 1.5001, lines T1 and T2 is shown in the figure. The plot shows
respectively (nx ≠ ny due to the imperfection in the fiber the magnitude of the input reflection coefficient TL as a
cross-section). The free space wavelength of a light function of frequency f. The phase velocity of the sig-
wave propagating in the fiber is 1.5 μm. If the light- nal in the transmission lines is 2 × 108 m/s. [2016]
wave is circularly polarized at the input of the fiber, the
T1 Length = 1 m T2 Length = L
minimum propagation distance after which it becomes Input
Z0 = 50 Ω Z0 = 50 Ω
linerly polarized, in centimeters, is ______________. Open
[2017] Γ 50 Ω
Solution: The phase difference between the electric
π
field x and y components is ⋅(circular polarization).
2
Γ (Reflection coefficient)
ZL = 0 62.5 V
R + j 30 + j 50 R + j80
zin = 50 = 50
50 + jR − 30 20 + jR
Solution: (33.33)
[ R + j80][20 − jR]
zin = 50 zin = (z1 || z2)
( 20 2 + R 2 )
z2 = 100 Ω
50[20 R + 80 R] j 50[1600 − R 2 ] For, l = λ/2, βl = π
= +
( 20 2 + R 2 ) ( 20 2 + R 2 ) zin1 = zL
∴z1 = 50 l
Since, zin is real so, its imaginary part must be zero.
100 × 50
1600 – R2 = 0 zin = = 33.3Ω
100 + 50
R = 40Ω
50 × 50 3 × (zL – 50) = zL + 50
R1 = = 25Ω
100 3zL – 150 = zL + 50
zL = 100 Ω
50 × 50 25
R2 = = Ω
200 2
25
25 ×
R3 = ( R1 || R2 ) = 2 = 25 Ω
25 3
25 ×
2
50 × 50
zin = = 300Ω
25/ 3
zin − z0 300 − 50 Hence, the correct option is (d).
Γ= =
zin + z0 300 + 50 2 1. The steady-state current through the load resistance is
(a) 1.2 Amps (b) 0.3 Amps
250 5 (c) 0.6 Amps (d) 0.4 Amps [2006]
Γ= =
350 7 Solution: (b)
VL 30
=
IL =
Z L 100
IL = 0.3 Amps
Hence, the correct option is (b).
22. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is
50W. Input impedance of the open-circuited line is
Zoc. = 100 + j 150 W. When the transmission line is
short-circuited, then value of the input impedance will
be
(a) 50 W (b) 100 + j150Q.W
Hence, the correct option is. (d)
(c) 7.69 + j11.54 W (d) 7.69 – j 11.54 W
Common data for Questions 20 & 21: [2005]
A 30-Volts battery with zero source resistance is con- Solution: (d)
nected to a coaxial line of characteristic impedance of
z0 = 50 Ω
50 Ohms at t = 0 second and terminated in an unknown
resistive load. The line length is such that it takes 400 zoc = 100 + j 150 Ω
us for an electromagnetic wave to travel from source z0 = zoc . zsc
end to load end and vice-versa. At t = 400 µs, the volt-
age at the load end is found to be 40 Volts. z02 50 × 50
zsc = =
20. The load resistance is zoc 100 + j150
(a) 25 Ohms (b) 50 Ohms
(c) 75 Ohms (d) 100 Ohms 50 50( 2 − j 3)
zsc = =
[2006] 2 + j3 13
Solution: (d)
zsc = 7.69 − j11.54 Ω
vt = vr + vi
vi = 30 v, vt = 40 v Common Data for Questions 23 and 24
vr = 10 v Voltage standing wave pattern in a lossless transmis-
V 10 1 sion line with characteristic impedance 50 ohms and a
Γ= r = = resistive load is shown in the figure.
Vi 30 3
z −z 1
Γ[at load ] = L 0 =
z L + z0 3
9.50 | Electromagnetic Theory
25. Many circles are drawn in a Smith chart used for trans-
mission line calculations. The circles shown in the fig-
ure represent
1+ Γ 2
=5⇒ Γ =
1− Γ 3
η2 − η1 ∈1 − ∈2
Γ = =
η2 + η1 ∈1 + ∈2
zint = zL = 100 Ω
1
=
yd = 0.01 mho
zint
π × 50 z L − z0 j 50 − 50 j − 1
βl = Γ= = =
Electrical path length is 100 z L + z0 j 50 + 50 j + 1
π |Γ| = 1
β l = radians
2
1 + Γ1
Hence, the correct option is (c). VSWR = =∞
1 − Γ1
34. If a pure resistance load, when connected to a lossless
75 ohm line, produces a VSWR of 3 on the line, then the Hence, the correct option is (c).
load impedance can only be 25 ohms. True/False (Give 36. A transmission line whose characteristic impedance is
Reason) [1994] a pure resistance
Solution: (FALSE) (a) must be a lossless line
For pure resistance load, say RL (b) must be a distortionless line
Lossless line, R0 = 75 Ω (c) may not be a lossless line
(d) may not be a distortionless line [1992]
R
VSWR = L Solution: (b) and (c)
R0
For a distortion less line
(If, RL = R0) RC = LG
R
or,VSWR = 0 (If, R0 > RL) α − RG
RL
For, VSWR = 3 β = ω LC
So, RL = 3R0 = 225Ω [RL > R0] L
Z=
o R=
o
or R = R0 = 25Ω [RL < R0] C
L
3 R=0
1+ Γ G=0
=3
1− Γ a = 0
Now,
1+|Γ|= 3-3|Γ|| β = ω LC
4|Γ| = 2
L
1 Z=
o R=
o
Γ = C
2
A lossless line is always a distortion less line but a dis-
1 1 tortion less line may or may not be lossless line.
Now, Γ = or -
2 2 Hence, the correct option is (b) and (c).
For, Γ = 1 , zL = 225 Ω 37. The input impedance of a short circuited lossless trans-
2 mission line quarter wave long is [1991]
−1 Solution: (c)
and for Γ = , zL = 25 Ω
2
l = λ/y [quarter wave transformer]
Therefore, statement the load impedance can only be
25 Ω is false. 2π λ π
β ⋅l = . =
35. Consider a transmission line of characteristic imped- λ y 2
ance 50 ohm. Let it be terminated at one end by (+j 50)
ohm. The VSWR produced by it in the transmission line [ z L cos π / 2 + jz0 sin π / 2] z02
zin = z0 =
will be [ z0 cos π / 2 + jz L sin π / 2] z L
(a) +1 (b) 0
zL = 0 [short-circuited]
(c) ∞ (d) + j [1993]
zin= ∞
Solution: (c)
Hence, the correct option is (c).
z0 = 50 ohm
38. A 50 ohm lossless transmission line has a pure reac-
ZL = j50 ohm
tance of (j 100) ohms as its load. The VSWR in the line
is
9.54 | Electromagnetic Theory
3 × 108 µ0 1
= 1.5 × 108 m/sec Z0 = η1 = × = 120π
4 E0 Er 1
V
V2 = fλ, λ = 2 = 0.15 m. 90π − 120π
f Γ= = −1/ 7
λ 90π + 120π
d = = 3.75 cm
4 1+ | Γ | 4
and VSWR = =
(c) z 0 = η 2 , z1 = η3 1− | Γ | 3
Chapter 4
Waveguide
ZL = 0
One-mark Questions Γ2 = −1
1. A two port network has scattering parameters given by V1− S12 S21
So, = S11 −
s s V1+ 1 + S22
[S ] = 11 12 . If theport-2 of the two-port is short
s s
21 22
V1− S11 + S11S22 − S12 S21
circuited, thes11, parameter for the resultant one-port =
network is V1+ 1 + S22
s11 − s11s22 + s12 s21 Hence, the correct option is (b)
(a)
1 + s22 2. Which one of the following field patterns represents a
s11 + s11s22 − s12 s21 TEM wave travelling in the positive x direction?
(b)
1 + s22 (a) E = +8 yˆ , H = −4 zˆ
s11 + s11s22 + s12 s21 E = −2 yˆ , H = −3 zˆ
(b)
(c)
1 − s22 E = +2 zˆ, H = +2 yˆ
(c)
s11 − s11s22 + s12 s21 E = −3 yˆ , H = +4 zˆ
(d) [2014]
(d) [2014]
1 − s22
Solution:(b)
Solution: (b)
For, Ey + Hz = TEMx (+ve)
V1− = S11V1+ + S12V2+ E−z × Hy = TEMx (+ve)
V2− = S21V + + S22V2+ E−y × H−z = TEMx (+ve × direction)
Hence, the correct option is (b)
ΓL = at load on port 2
3. Consider an air filled rectangular waveguide with a
V2+ cross-section of 5 cm × 3 cm. For this waveguide, the
Γ2 =
V2− cut-off frequency (in MHz) of TE21 mode is________.
[2014]
− + −
V1 = S11V1 + S12 Γ 2V2 Solution: (7810)
− + − a × b = 5 cm × 3 cm
V2 = S21V1 + S22 Γ 2V2
2 2
V2− (1 − S22 Γ 2 ) = S21V1+ V 2 1
fc = + × 100
2 5 3
Γ 2 S21V1+
V1− = S11V1+ + S12 For TE21,
1 − S22 Γ 2
V = 3 × 108 m/s
V1− S12 S21Γ 2 2 2
= S11 + 3 ×108 2 1
V1+ 1 − S22 Γ 2 fc = 5 + 3 × 100
2
z L − z0
Γ2 = fc = 7810 MHz
z L + z0
Chapter 4 Waveguide | 9.57
3. The cutoff frequency of TE01 mode of an air filled rec- (C) 6.55 GHz ≤ f ≤ 13.1 GHz
tangular waveguide having inner dimensions a cm × b (D) 1.64 GHz ≤ f ≤ 10.24 GHz
cm (a > b) is twice that of the dominant TE10 mode. Solution: Range of operating frequency:
When the waveguide is operated at a frequency which
is 25% higher than the cutoff frequency of the domi- 11..25 FCTE10 ≤ f ≤ 0.95 FCTE 01
25 F CTE 10 ≤ f ≤ 0.95 FCTE 01
nant mode, the guide wavelength is found to be 4 cm.
The value of b (in cm, correct to two decimal places) is F = cc = 33 × 1010
× 1010
= 66..55
55 GHz
GHz
FCTE10 = 2a = 2 × 2.29 =
CTE 10
π π
TE10 → kc = = (m = 1, n = 0))
a 2 . 286 3 × 1010
2π π fC = 6 GHz =
Solution: = TE10
TE20 → kc = = (m = 2, n = 0) 2a
a 1.143 ⇒ a = 2.5cm
π π For the same waveguide fC for TM11 is 15 GHz
TE01 → kc = = (m = 0, n = 1)
b 1.016
2ab 3 × 1010
2 2 λC = = =2
⎛π⎞ ⎛π⎞ π a2 + b2 15 × 109
TE11 → kc = ⎜ ⎟ + ⎜ ⎟ = (m = n = 1)
⎝ a⎠ ⎝ b⎠ 0.862
b = 1.09 cm
∴ fcTE10 < fcTE20 < fcTE01 < fcTE11
Hence, the correct option is (C). 3 × 1010
then cut-off frequency of TE01 =
λC
(a) the phase velocity is greater than the group velocity (a)
(b) the phase velocity is greater than velocity of light
in free space
(c) the phase velocity is less than the velocity of light
in free space
(d) the phase velocity may be either greater than or less
than the group velocity [1988]
Solution: (a) and (b)
c
Phase velocity, V p = (b)
2
f
1− c
f
2
f
Group velocity, Vg = c 1 − c
f
For normal mode, f > fc (c)
So, Vp > c and Vg < c
Vp > c > Vg
20. The cut off frequency of a waveguide depends upon
(a) The dimensions of waveguide
(b) The dielectric property of the medium in the wave-
guide
(c) The characteristic imoedance of the waveguide
(d) The transverse and axial components of the fields
[1987] (d)
Solution: (a) adn (b)
2 2
Vo mπ nπ
fc = a + b
2π
c
where, vo =
µr ∈r
2 2 Solution: (d)
c mπ nπ
fc = a + b For the given figures.
µr ∈r × 2
(a) TE10 (b) TE01
So, fc depends on ‘a’ and ‘b’ (dimensions of waveguide) (c) TE20 (d) TE02
1 Hence, the correct option is (d)
fc ∝
µr ∈r
Five-marks Questions
So, fc depends upon the dielectric property of the
medium in the waveguide.
1. Consider a parallel plate waveguide with plate separa-
Hence, the correct option is (a and b) tion d as shown in figure. The electric and magnetic
21. Which one of the following does represent the electric fields for the TEM mode are given by
field lines for the TE02 mode in the cross-section of a E0 - jkz + jwt
hollow rectangular metallic waveguide? E x = E0 e- jkz + jwt , H y = e
h
9.64 | Electromagnetic Theory
Where k = T < one. (a) Calculate the cut-off wavelength and the guide
(a) Determine the surface charge densities ρs on the wavelength for this mode.
plates at x = 0 and x = d. (b) What are the other (TE or TM) modes that can
(b) Determine the surface current densities J s on the propagate through the waveguide?
same plates.
(c) If a = b = 2.29 cm, what are the modes which can
(c) Prove that ρs and J s satisfy the current continuity propagate through the waveguide? [2001]
condition. Solution: a = 2.29, b = 1.02 cm, c = 10 GHz
(a) λ = 20 = 4.58 cm
c 3 × 108
l= = = 3 cm
f 10 × 109
V
f c = 0 = 6.55 GHz
lC
l
Solution: Given that wave is propagating in +2 direc- l = = 3.97 cm,
2
tion. f
1− c
E x = E0 e + j (wt − kz ) f
E0 + j (wt − kz ) V0
Hy = e (b) for TE10, f c1 = = 6.55 GHz
h 2a
V0
P PS for TE01, f c2 = = 14.7 GHz,
E = S ax or E x =
(a) 2b
E E fc2 > f so only TE10 mode can propagate through the
given rectangular waveguide.
PS =∈ E x =∈ E0 cos (ωt − kz )
(c) a = b = 2.29 cm
(b) J S = h × H = for surface x = 0, f = 10 GHz
E
J S = ax × H = H y aˆ z = 0 cos(wt − kz )aˆ2 V0 3 × 1010
h for TE10, f c10 = = = 6.55 GHz
2a 2 × 2.29
k = hwE V0 3 × 108
for TE01 f c01 = = = 6.55 GHz
1 wE 2b 2 × 2.29
⇒ = for TE11 or TM11
h K
E
J S = w ∈ 0 cos(wt − kz )a2 V0 2 2 V
K fC11 = 1 + 1 = 0 = 9.226 GHz
2a 2a
E
at, x = d, J S = − 0 cos(wt − kz )a2 for TE20 and TE02
h
V0 3 × 1010
(c) From current continuity egn. for time varying fields fC20 = fC02 = = = 13.1 GHz
given by
a 2.29
−∂ d −∂ So, only TE10, TE01, TE11 and TM11 are the possible
∇.J = P ⇒ JSJ = P. mode that propagates through the rectangle wave guide.
∂t dz ∂t
3. A 100 m section of an air-filled rectangular waveguide
d ∈ w E0
cos(wt − kz ) = w ∈ E0 sin(wt − kz ) operating in the TE10 mode has a cross-sectional dimen-
dz k sion of 1.071 cm x 0.5 cm. Two pulsed carriers of 21
−∂ ∂ GHz and 28 GHz are simultaneously launched at one
⇒ P = (∈ E0 cos(wt − kz ) end of the waveguide section. What is the time delay
∂t ∂t
difference between the two pulses at the other end of
= w ∈ E0 sin(wt − kz ),
the waveguide? [1999]
d −∂
So, dz JSz = ∂t P . Solution: Time delay = T = b z
Thus current continuity equation verified. w
2. A rectangular hollow metal waveguide has dimensions V0
fc = = 14 GHz
a = 2.29 cm and b = 1.02 cm. Microwave power at 10 2a
GHz is transmitted through the waveguide in the TE10
mode.
Chapter 4 Waveguide | 9.65
2
f
b = b 1 − c = 2p m E f 2 − fC2
f
for f = f1 = 21 GHz
b = 2p me [(21) 2 − (14) 2 ] × 1018
= 2p me 15.65 × 109
b 13.65 × 1011
T1 = × 100 = 2p me ×
w 2p × 21× 109
= 0.745 me × 100
[1998]
for f = f2 = 28 GHz =
Solution: Given, a = 5 cm
2 2 18
2p m E [(28) − (14) ] × 10 TE10, f = 30 GHz
b 2 = 2p m E 24.2 × 109 If medium – 1
V0
fc = = 3 GHz
T = × 100 = 0.866 F × 100 2a
h0 120p
Time delay difference, h1 = 2
= 1/ 2
= 378.89Ω
fc 3 2
Td = T2 − T1 = m E (0.866 − 0.745) × 100 1 − 1 −
f 30
1
= × 0.121× 100 = 0.04 m sec Medium – 2, μ = μ0, E = 4E0
˙× 8
4. A rectangular waveguide with inner dimensions 6 cm E 3 × 108
VP = = = 1.5 × 108 m/sec
x3 has been designed for a single mode operation. Find Er 4
the possible frequency range of operation such that the
lowest frequency is 5% above the cut-off and the high- V0
fc = = 1.5 GHz
est frequency is 5% below the cutoff of the next higher
2a
mode. [1998]
m 120p
Solution: Given, b = 3 cm, a = 6 cm, a = 2b, h0 = = = 60p
E 4
Lowest TE10
h0
V0 h2 = = 188.73Ω,
f c1 = = 2.5 GHz 2
2a f
1− c
Next higher mode TE01 or TE20
f
flowest = 1.05 f c1 = 2.625 GHz, h −h 188.73 − 378.89
Reflection coeff. Γ = 2 1 =
V0 h 2 + h 1 188.73 + 378..89
f c=
2
= 5 GHz |Γ| = 0.335
a
1+ | Γ |
fhighest = 0.95 f c2 = 4.75 GHz, VSWR = =2
1− | Γ |
5. The region between a pair of parallel perfectly conduct-
ing planes of infinite extent in the y and z direction is 6. In an air-filled rectangular waveguide, the vector elec-
partially filled with a dielectric as shown in figure. A 30 tric field is given by
GHz TE10 wave is incident on the air dielectric interface 40π
as shown. Find VSWR at the interface. E = cos( 2π y ) exp - j z + jωt i xV / m
3
Find vector magnetic field and the phase velocity of the
wave inside the waveguide. [1996]
9.66 | Electromagnetic Theory
C0 2π π / 2
4π ⎡∵ U = r 2W , U max = C0 ⎤ 10000
1.256C0 ⎣ ⎦
= ∫∫
0 0
2η r 2
.r 2 sin 3 θ dθ dφ
Do = 10
π /2
10000 3
Do(dB) = 10 dB. = 2π
0
∫ 2η
sin θ dθ
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5. A radar operating at 5 GHz uses a common antenna = 55.5
for transmission and reception. The antenna has a gain 7. At 20 GHz, the gain of a parabolic dish antenna of 1
of 150 and is aligned for maximum directional radia- meter diameter and 70% efficiency is
tion and reception to a target 1 km away having radar (a) 15 dB (b) 25dB
cross section of 3 m2. If it transmits 100 kW, then the (c) 35 dB (d) 45 dB [2008]
received power (in µW) is__________. [2016] Solution: (d)
Solution: Gain of antenna G = 150 f = 20 GHz
Frequency of radar f = 5 GHz; Pt = 100 kW 3 × 108
Distance of target r = 1 km; λ= = 1.5 cm
20 × 109
Radar cross sectional area A = 3 m2
η = 70%, D = 1 m
λ = c/f = (3 × 108)/(5 × 109) 2
D
=
0.06 m G = ηπ 2
λ
Received power, 2
2 1× 20 ×109
pt G λ S
2 2
G = 0.7π
pr = 3 ×108
(4π ) 3
r 4
G = 30705.43
=
(100 × 10 × 150 × 0.06 × 3)/(4 × 3.14)3(1000)4
3 2 2
(c) with equal currents but the right most antenna has a
phase shift of +90°. The radiation pattern is given as
(a)
(d)
(b)
[2007]
Solution: (b)
For, (a) →d = λ/4
(b) →d = λ/2
(c) →d = λ
(c)
Hence, the correct option is (b).
9. A mast antenna consisting of a 50 meter long vertical
conductor operates over a perfectly conducting ground
plane. It is base-fed at a frequency of 600 kHz The radi-
ation resistance of the antenna in Ohms is
2p 2 p2
(a) (b)
5 5
2
4p
(c) (d) 20 p2 [2006] (d)
5
Solution: (a)
2
dl
Rrad = 80π 2 Ω
λ
2
2 dl
For conducting ground, Rrad = 40π Ω
λ
f = 600 kHz [2005]
3 × 10 8 Solution: (a)
λ= = 1.5 cm
20 × 109
λ = 500 m, l = 50 m
40π 2
Rrad = 2
50
500
2π 2
Rrad =
5
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Hence, the correct option is (a).
1 0. Two identical and parallel dipole antennas are kept
apart by a distance of λ/4 in the H-plane. They are fed 1 1. Two identical antennas are placed in the ϕ = p/2 plans as
shown in the figure The elements have equal amplitude
Chapter 5 Antenna | 9.73
excitation with 180° polarity difference, operating a: (a) 942 m (b) 2070 m
wavelength λ. The correct value of the magnitude of (c) 4978 m (d) 5320 m [2002]
the far-zone resultant electric field strength normalized Solution: (b)
with that of a single element, both computed for ϕ = 0,
P
is Signal strength at distance R, P1 =
4π R12
R = 5000 m
2
P1 λ P
= = 1
P 5000 P1/ 2
2
λ = 5000 2
Extra distance = (5000√2 – 5000) m = 2071 m
Hence, the correct option is (b).
1 3. In a uniform linear array, four isotropic radiating ele-
ments are spaced λ/4apart. The progressive phase shift
between the elements required for forming the main
2π s πs beam at 60° off the end-fire is:
2 cos
(a) = 2sin
(b)
λ λ (a) -pradians (b) -p/2 radians
(c) -p/4 radians (d) -p/8 radians [2001]
πs πs
(c) 2 cos (d) 2sin [2003] Solution: (c)
λ λ
Phase difference, ψ = β d cos θ + α
Solution: (d) For an array to be end fire, ψ = 0
ψ = β d sin θ cos φ + δ So, β d cos θ + α = 0
θ = 90°, d = 2 s a = − b d cos q
ϕ = 45°, δ = 180° α = − β d [maximum]
2π So, ψ = β d cos θ − β d
ψ = 2 cos 45° + 180°
λ
= β d(cos θ − 1)
ψ λ
Normalized array factor = 2 cos d= and θ = 60°
2 4
π 2π λ
= 2 cos 2 s cos 45° + 90° ψ = × [cos 60 − 1]
λ λ 4
2π s π
2 sin ψ =− radians
λ
4
Hence, the correct option is (c).
14. A medium wave radio transmitter operating at a wave-
length of 492 m has a tower antenna of height 124 m.
What is the radiation resistance of the antenna?
(a) 25W (b) 36.5 W
(c) 50W (d) 73W [2001]
Solution: (b)
Here, L = 124 m i.e. nearly about λ/4
492
L~ = 123 m
Hence, the correct option is (d). 4
1 2. A person with a receiver is 5 km away from the trans- So, given antenna is quarter wave monopole antenna,
mitter. What is the distance that this person must move whose Ra = 36.5 Ω
further to detect a 3 dB decrease in signal strength? Hence, the correct option is (b).
9.74 | Electromagnetic Theory
15. For an 8 feet (2.4m) parabolic dish antenna operating 18. A transverse electromagnetic wave with circular polari-
at 4 GHz, the minimum distance required for far field zation is received by a dipole antenna. Due to polariza-
measurement is closest to tion mismatch, the power transfer efficiency from the
(a) 7.5 cm (b) 15 cm wave to the antenna is reduced to about
(c) 15 m (d) 150 m [2000] (a) 50% (b) 35.3%
Solution: (d) (c) 25% (d) 0% [1996]
F = 4 GHz Solution: (d)
The power transfer efficiency from the wave to antenna
3 ×108
λ= 9
is reduced to 0%.
4 ×10
Hence, the correct option is (c).
λ = 7.5 cm 19. A 1 km long microwave link uses two antennas each
l = 2.4 m having 30 dB gain If the power transmitted by one
2l 2 antenna is 1 W at 3 GHz the power received by the other
(distance), d =
λ antenna is approximately
d = 1.536 m 150 cm (a) 98.6 μW (b) 76.8 μW
(c) 63.4 μW (d) 55.2 μW [1996]
Hence, the correct option is (d). Solution: (c)
1 6. A transmitting antenna radiates 251 W isotropically. A PG
receiving antenna, located 100 m away from the trans- Pd (at d = 1 km) = t t
mitting antenna has an effective aperture of 500 cm2 4π R 2
1
The total power received by the antenna is Pd =
4000π
(a) 10 μW (b) 1 μW
(c) 20 μW (d) 100 μW [1999] Pt = 1 w, Gt = 1000
Solution: (d) R = 1 km = 1000 cm
Intensity [at d = 100 m], Gr λ 2
( Ae ) r =
251 4π
I= w/m 2
4π (100) 2 Gr λ 2 1
Pr = .
Power = I × Ae 4π 4000π
Ae = 500 cm2 Pr = (Ae)rPd
251
power = 2
× 500 ×10 −4 watt Gr = 1000
4π (100)
c 3 × 108
λ= = = 10 cm
P = 100 µ w f 3 × 109
Hence, the correct option is (d). Pr = 63.3µ w
17. A parabolic dish antenna has conical beam 2° wide. Hence, the correct option is (c).
The directivity of the antenna is approximately
(a) 20 dB (b) 30 dB 2 0. Two dissimilar antennas having their maximum direc-
(c) 40 dB (d) 50 dB [1997] tivities equal,
(a) must have their beam widths also equal
Solution: (c) (b) cannot have their beam widths equal because they
41253 are dissimilar antenna
Directivity =
BW (θ ) BW (φ ) (c) may not necessarily have their maximum power
BW (θ ) = BW (f ) =2° gains equal
(d) must have their effective aperture areas (capture ar-
41253 eas) also equal [1992]
= D = 10, 000
( 2) 2 Solution: (a)
D dB = 10 log(10)4 Directivity, D = 4π [Beam width]
Ω2
D = 40 dB So, If D1 = D2
Hence, the correct option is (c). then, Ω1 = Ω2
Chapter 5 Antenna | 9.75
Ey 1 J (wt − 2p / 3−p l 2) y y
Hx = − =− e 2sin .cos
h 12p ET
= 2 2 = 2cos y
EA y 2
Ex E y 10e J (wt − 2p / 3) sin
h = ⇒ Hy = = 2
Hy h 120p 3p a
H2 = 0, = 2cos cos f +
4 2 (1)
2p 2p
l=
(b) = = 6m ϕ = 30°
b p /3
f = 90 − q = 60°
C 3 × 108
f = = = 50 MHz 3p 1 a p
l 6 from (1) × × =
4 2 2 2
or, α = π/4
(c) let, Z = 0, Ex = 10 cos ωt = E0 cos ωt
Ey = −10 sin ωt = −E0 sin ωt = E0 cos ωt
ET 3p p
So, E = 2 cos 4 cos f + 8
2 2
A
So, E0 = 10 = E x + E y , for maximum radiation,
p p
f ==±p/2�
+� , 3p p
2 2 cos cos + = 1
So the polarization is left polarization. 4 q
5. Two isotropic antennas A and B form an array as shown
3p p
in figure. The currents fed to the two antennas are I0∠0 ⇒ cos f + = 0 or ±π
and I0∠ respectively. What should be the value of a so 4 8
that the radiation pattern has a null at e = 30°. Find the fm = −9.6° and −170.4°
direction of the maximum radiation for that value of a
p / 2p
and draw the radiation pattern. (λ. is the wavelength of f = ± y�
+� , Et/Ea
2 2
operation).
0 1.85
7≠ π
or −
8 8
600 p/2 0
900 p/8 1.85
99.6 0 2
1800 0.77
−5π
8
[1996]
Solution:
p 2p
f
2 ∫
= m sin 2q .dq
0
∫ df = pf
0
m
Wr fm
favg = =
4p 4
Directive gain of the antenna,
(q ,f )
ga (q ,f ) = f = 4 cos q
favg
ga max = 4, this occur for θ = 0° or 180°
8. Consider a linear array of two half-wave dipoles A and
2p 2p B as shown in figure. The dipoles are λ/4 apart and are
b = , bd = 2H excited in such a way that the current on element B lags
l l
that on element A by 90° in phase.
y y (a) Obtain the expression for the radiation pattern for
2sin cos 2
ET
= 2 = 2 cos y E in the XY plane, i.e., (θ = 90°).
2
EA y (b) Sketch the radiation pattern obtained in (a).
sin
2
4p H
y = b d cos f + a = cos f
l
ET
= 2,
EA
p p
y = 0 or f ==±p / �
2+ � ,
2 2
E
T = 0, y = p
EA
for null
4p H p p
y =p = cos f , f ==±450�+ � ,
l 2 2
4p H
cos 45° = p , ⇒ H = l
l 2 2 [2002]