KNACK ENTRY TESTS MDCAT

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UNIT . 2
PMC course contents
Biological Molecules
CARBOHYDRATES:
Mnosaccharides, Disaccharides and
Polysaccharides (Starch, Glycogen and Cellulose)
LIPIDS:
Triglycerides, Phospholipids and their functions
PROTEINS:
Amino Acides and Peptids bond formation,
Structure of Proteins (primary, secondary, tertiary
and quaternary structure) and Globular and Fibrous
Proteins
NUCLEIC ACIDS:
DNA, RNA and Types of RNA
ENZYME:
Definition, Characteristics of , Mechanism of Enzyme
Action Enzymes (Lock and Key Model and induced
fit model), Factors affectin the rate of Enzyme
Action, Inhibitors.

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BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES
Q.1 It is the most abundant biological molecule found in protoplasm:
A) Proteins C) Water
B) Carbohydrates D) Lipids
Q.2 Evaporation of just ________ of water out of 1000ml can lower the temperature of
remaining water by _________.
A) 1ml, 20C C) 4ml, 20C
B) 2ml, 10C D) 2ml, 40C
Q.3 Which of the following have high molecular weight and sparingly soluble in water?
A) Monosaccharides C) Oligosaccharides
B) Disaccharides D) Polysaccharides
Q.4 The simplest monosaccharide containing keto functional group is:
A) Glyceraldehyde C) Glucose
B) Dihydroxyacetone D) Ribose
Q.5 The covalent bond between two monosaccharides to form a disaccharide is called:
A) Peptide bond C) Hydrogen bond
B) Ester bond D) Glycosidic bond
Q.6 Predict the product of following reaction:

A) Sucrose C) Lactose
B) Maltose D) Galactose
Q.7 Identify a non-reducing sugar from the following:
A) Glucose C) Sucrose
B) Ribose D) Maltose
Q.8 _________are the major sites for the storage of glycogen in animal’s body.
A) Muscles and liver C) Around belly and hips
B) Around thighs and belly D) Liver and kidneys
Q.9 Which of the following describes the structure of amylopectin?
A) A branched chain with 1,2 and 1,4 glycosidic bonds

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B) A branched chain with 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds

C) An unbranched chain with only 1,4 glycosidic bonds
D) An unbranched chain with 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds
Q.10 It is an example of N-containing polysaccharide:
A) Cellulose C) Chitin
B) Starch D) Glycogen

Q.11 Which of the following is not a macromolecule?

A) Nucleic acid C) Polysaccharide
B) Fatty acid D) Proteins
Q.12 What are the features of triglycerides?
Polar Less dense Higher energy Lower proportion of
Than water value than hydrogen than in
carbohydrates carbohydrates
A)    
B)    
C)    
D)    
Q.13 How many water molecules are released during the synthesis of one molecule of
triglyceride?
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4
Q.14 Acylglycerol like fats and oils are esters formed by condensation reaction between:
A) Fatty acids and water C) Fatty acids and alcohol
B) Fatty acids and glucose D) Fatty acids and phosphates
Q.15 Which of the following best describe oleic acid?
A) Saturated fatty acid C) Mono-unsaturated fatty acid
B) Branched fatty acid D) Poly un-saturated fatty acid
Q.16 Waterproof surface like cuticle of leaf and protective covering of an insect’s body
are:
A) Phospholipids C) Acylglycerols
B) Waxes D) Terpenoids
Q.17 These lipids are the main constituents of the cell membrane:
A) Acylglycerols C) Terpenoids
B) Phospholipds D) Waxes
Q.18 Phospholipids are derivatives of:
A) Diacylglycerol C) Phosphatidic acid
B) Triacylglycerol D) Lecithin
Q.19 Sphingolipids can be found in:
A) Exoskeleton of sponges C) Epidermis of skin
B) Myelin sheath of neurons D) Inner membrane of mitochondria
Q.20 In an amino acid, if the R-group is hydrogen, then amino acid will be:

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A) Alanine C) Leucine
B) Glycine D) Valine
Q.21 In an insulin molecule, the polypeptide chains are held together by:
A) Peptide bond C) Disulphide bridges
B) Hydrogen bond D) Ionic interaction
Q.22 Which term describes the type of bonding responsible for stabilizing the secondary
structure of a protein?
A) Disulphide C) Hydrophobic
B) Hydrogen D) Ionic

Q.23 Myosin is a _______type of protein.

A) Conjugated C) Globular
B) Mechano-enzyme D) Fibrous
Q.24 A protein that does not proceed beyond secondary structural level:
A) Trypsin C) Insulin
B) Keratin D) Myoglobin
Q.25 Most proteins are made up of ________ types of amino acids.
A) 25 C) 20
B) 170 D) 280
Q.26 It is not a feature of globular proteins:
A) Spherical in shape C) Can be crystallized
B) Soluble in aqueous media D) Secondary structure is more important
Q.27 If a protein molecule having two polypeptide chains and 990 amino acids, then how
many water molecules released during its synthesis?
A) 987 C) 988
B) 989 D) 990
Q.28 Among the following, identify the most stable protein:
A) Pepsin C) Tropomyosin
B) Growth hormone D) Immunoglobulins
Q.29 Pick the odd one out with respect to the structure:
A) Adenine C) Thymidine
B) Cytosine D) Uracil
Q.30 The diameter of DNA molecule is constant because of:
A) Two polynucleotide chains
B) Purines are always forming H-bonds with pyrimidine
C) Sugar-phosphate backbone
D) High molecular weight
Q.31 Naturally RNA molecules can be found at all sites except:
A) Nucleolus C) Ribosomes
B) Cytosol D) Cell membrane
Q.32 The structure of DNA was determined by using:
A) X-ray diffraction technique C) Cell fractionation

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B) Spectroscopic technique D) DNA sequencing

Q.33 It is incorrect about DNA molecule:
A) Double polymer C) One groove in each turn
B) Secondary structure D) Constant diameter
Q.34 DNA is directly involved in the synthesis of all except:
A) DNA C) tRNA
B) Protein D) mRNA
Q.35 If a human gene contains 31.3% thymine and 18.7% guanine, then the approximate
percentage of cytosine would be:
A) 32.9 C) 18.1
B) 31.3 D) 22.4

Q.36 The usual mode of information flow within cells is:

A) DNA → mRNA → Protein C) DNA → tRNA → Protein
B) DNA → rRNA → Protein D) DNA → Ribosome → Protein
Q.37 How many nitrogen atom/s is/are present outside the ring of adenine?
A) 1 C) 5
B) 4 D) 7
Q.38 All of the following correctly describe the active site of an enzyme except:
A) It is small relative to the entire enzyme
B) It is two dimensional in structure
C) Specificity is defined by arrangement of certain atoms
D) It initially binds substrates by weak attractions
Q.39 An enzyme and substrate react through a specific site present in the enzyme known
as:
A) Building site C) Catalyst site
B) Active site D) Inhibition site
Q.40 Precursor activation is the activation of an enzyme controlled reaction by:
A) Initial substrate C) Final product
B) Intermediate substances D) Inhibitor
Q.41 The non-protein part of enzyme which is covalently and permanently bonded is
called:
A) Prosthetic group C) Co-enzyme
B) Co-factor D) Activator
Q.42 _______ states that active site of an enzyme is flexible and when a substrate
combines with it, causes change in enzyme structure is known as.
A) Lock and key model C) Induce fit model
B) Sliding filament model D) Specificity model
Q.43 Which molecular structure of enzyme is essential for its activity?
A) Primary Structure C) Tertiary structure
B) Secondary structure D) Quaternary structure

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Q.44 Extreme change in pH causes denaturation of enzyme by breaking:

A) Peptide bonds C) Hydrogen bonds
B) Disulphide bonds D) Ionic bonds
Q.45 Which graph shows the effects of pH on the reaction velocity of a typical enzyme?
A) (C)
Velocity

Velocity
pH pH

(B) (D)
Velocity

Velocity
Q.46 Optimum pH value for the working of pancreatic lipase is:
A) 4.50 C) 9.00
B) 7.60 D) 2.00
Q.47 In a naturally occurring biological reaction, if all active sites are occupied, then rate
of reaction would be:
A) Minimum and constant C) Zero and constant
B) Maximum and accelerating D) Constant and maximum
Q.48 Which of the following bond will not break if an enzyme molecule is denatured?
A) Disulphide bond C) Hydrogen bonds
B) Peptide bond D) Hydrophobic interaction
Q.49 Which of the following type of inhibitor can be neutralize by adding more substrate
into reaction?
A) Irreversible inhibitor C) Irreversible non-competitive
B) Reversible inhibitor D) Irreversible competitive
Q.50 During Krebs cycle, malonic acid acts as _________ inhibitor of succinic
dehydrogenase.
A) Competitive irreversible C) Competitive reversible
B) Non-competitive irreversible D) Non-competitive reversible
Q.52 Polymeric Nucleic acids perform/serve as:
A) Co-enzymes such as ATP
B) Electron carriers such as NAD+, FAD+
C) Hereditary material as DNA
D) All above
Q.53 Removal of single phosphate from a _____ results in a nucleoside.
A) Adenosine triphosphate B) Thymidine diphosphate
C) Guanosine monophosphate D) Ribo/deoxyribonucleotide

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Q.54 In dispersive model of replication, which one is conserved?

A) Parent DNA duplex C) Base sequence
B) Double helical structure D) None of these
Q.55 There are 5 carbons in the ring/rings structure of:
A) Adenosine B) Guanosine
C) Thymidine C) Purines
Q.56 . Like DNA, mRNA molecule also have:
A) Thymine and thymidine B) Sugar-phosphate backbone
C) Double stranded helix D) Ribose sugar
Q.57 Isomer → isomer conversion don’t take place during:
A) G3P → DAP C) 3PG → 2PG
B) Fumarate → Malate D) Glu-6-P → Fru-6-P
Q.58 What is not true during the conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate?
A) Dephosphorylation B) Phosphorylation of Hexose
C) Reduction of NAD+ D) Decarboxylation
Q.59 A/An ____ can act as reversible inhibitor when product is produced in required
quantity.
A) Irreversible inhibitor B) Substrate (precursor)
C) Product D) competitive inhibitor

Q.60 On formation of _______ products are not formed.

A) Activated complex
B) Enzyme substrate complex
C) Enzyme inhibitor complex
D) Enzyme – product complex
Q.61 At high _____ increased vibrations result in denaturation of enzyme.
A) pH C) Temperature
B) concentration D) substrate level
Q.62 Among the factors that affect rate of enzyme reaction, ____________ don’t involve
enzyme denaturation.
A) Inhibitors C) Substrate conc.
B) Hydrogen ion conc. D) Temperature
Q.63 Which of the following is not enzyme inhibitor?
A) Cyanide C) Antibiotics
B) Anti-metabolites D) Antibodies
Q.64 The effect of _____ can be neutralized completely or partly.
A) Reversible inhibitors B) Irreversible inhibitors
C) Competitive inhibitors D) Non-competitive inhibitor
Q.65 Covalently bonded, non-protein, organic part of an enzyme is known as?
A) Co-enzyme C) Activator
B) Prosthetic group D) Both A& B
Q.66 When the product of the enzyme catalyzed reaction, inhibits its own production, it is
called:

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A) Poisoning of enzyme B) Enzyme inhibition

C) Feedback inhibition D) Repression
Q.67 When coenzyme is combined with apoenzyme, it makes :
A) Pro-enzyme C) Apoenzyme
B) Isozyme D) Holoenzyme
Q.68 Induction is made through _____ to activate catalytic site in an enzyme.
A) Enzyme inhibitor C) Activator
B) Competitive inhibitor D) Substrate
Q.69 An irreversible enzyme inhibitor may ____ thus inhibiting the enzyme action.
A) Destroy globular structure B) Physically block active site
C) Attach covalently D) Any above
Q.70 “Enzyme is not specific for a specific substrate” according to:
A) Lock & Key model C) Emil Fischer
B) Induce Fit model D) None
Q.71 Every enzyme and its substrate react with each other through:
A) Cofactor C) Coenzyme
B) Activator D) Active site
Q.72 The active site of enzyme is ___ dimensional cavity:
A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five
Q.73 Enzymes tremendously increase the ______ of biochemical reaction.
A) Product quantity B) Product quality
C) Activation energy D) Efficiency

Q.74 Glycylanaline is a dimer of:

A) Fatty acids C) Amino acids
B) Glucose D) Nucleic acids
Q.75 The most widely spread acyl-glycerols are:
A) Sterols C) Tertiary alcohol
B) Triglycerides D) Phospholipids
Q.76 Protective coating on fruits & leaves is of:
A) Acyl-glycerol C) Waxes
B) Phospholipids D) Carbohydrates
Q.77 Proteins are made up of:
A) 170 types of amino acids B) 25 types of amino acids
C) 20 types of amino acids D) None of these
Q.78 Spiders web is chiefly composed of:
A) Functional proteins C) Fibrous protein
B) Immuno-proteins D) Regulatory proteins
Q.79 On the surface of protein molecule in tertiary structure, amino acids found are:
A) Hydrophobic C) Hydrophilic
B) Lipophilic D) Amphipathic
Q.80 In a molecule of sickle cell Hb max. number of abnormal polypeptide chains is:
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

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Q.81 A bond that binds two amino acids lies between:

A) C and C C) C and N
B) C and O D) C and H
Q.82 Amino acids differ due the type or nature of:
A) Amino group C) R – group
B) Proteins D) Carboxyl group
Q.83 Proteins and lipids are produced in plants_____.
A) During photosynthesis
B) By photorespiration
C) Through condensation of units taken as food
D) From carbohydrates by chemical changes
Q.84 What is common in hemoglobin and keratin:
A) Both are fibrous
B) Both are globular
C) Both have more than 1 polypeptide chains
D) Both are soluble in aqueous media
Q.85 Hibernating animals store food as additional ______ below skin and around body
organs.
A) Proteins C) Fats
B) Amylose D) Glycogen
Q.86 Steroids e.g. testosterone are classified as:
A) Carotenoids C) Terpenoids
B) Glycolipids D) Sphingolipids

Q.87 Isoprenoid units on ______ in different ways give rise to Terpenoids.

A) Hydrolysis C) Condensation
B) Combustion D) Distillation
Q.88 Organelles, organs and organisms move with the help of:
A) Cytoskeleton C) Skeleton
B) Muscles D) Proteins
Q.89 Which fats are solid at room temperature?
A) Unsaturated C) Saturated
B) Plant fats D) animal fat
Q.90 Number of amino acids in 10 complete turns of α-helix is:
A) 36 B) 39 C) 63 D) 93
Q.91 Size of a protein molecule is mainly determined by:
A) Primary structure C) Secondary structure
B) Tertiary structure D) Quaternary structure
Q.92 The combination of a ________result in a compound is known as nucleoside.
A) Nucleotide with phosphoric acid

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B) Nucleoside with phosphoric acid

C) Pentose sugar with N-base
D) Ribose sugar with N-base
Q.93 Pyrimidine base that is absent in DNA?
A) Thymidine C) Thymosin
B) Thymine D) Thymoquin
Q.94 Which of the following combination of base pair is absent in DNA?
A) A–T C) A –U
B) C–G D) T–A
Q.95 Polydeoxyribonucleoide chain (polymer) is repeatedly associated with polymer
molecules of:
A) Monosaccharides C) histone proteins
B) Carbohydrates D) pentose sugars
Q.96 Number of bases in one turn of DNA is:
A) 10 C) 34
B) 20 D) 54
Q.97 Single stranded DNA molecules are absent in all EXCEPT:
A) Fungi and Algae C) Eukaryotic nuclei
B) Viruses D) Microbes
Q.98 When X rays are passed through crystalline DNA, it shows helix making one twist
every:
A) 2nm C) 34nm
B) 3.4nm D) 4nm
Q.99 Which of the following is purely pyrimidine molecule?
A) Thymidine C) Uridine
B) Cytidine D) None

Q.100 Phosphodiester bond is:

A) P––O––C––P––O––C C) C––O––P––O––C
B) C––O––P D) C––C––O––P
Q.101 Following is the structure of:

A) Uracil C) Guanine
B) Thymine D) Cytosine
Q.102 What is the subunit of DNA?

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A) Phosphoric acid C) Nucleotide

B) Base D) Sugar
Q.103 Up to 80% of total RNA in a cell serves it function as a part of:
A) tRNA C) mRNA
B) rRNA D) ribosomes
Q.104 Hydroxyl at position C# ____ allows the attachment of phosphoric acid in making a
typical nucleotide.
A) One C) Three
B) Two D) Five
Q.105 Each molecule of ____ comprises of three sub-units.
A) Deoxyribonucleotide C) Ribonucleotide
B) DNA and RNA D) Nucleotide
Q.106 NAD+ that serves as important Cofactor is an example of:
A) Activator C) Nucleic acid
B) Dinucleotide D) DNA
Q.107 Phosphate connects two sugars in DNA backbone by making diester bond between:
A) C1 – C5 C) C3 – C1
B) C5 – C3 D) C2 – C3
Q.108 Hydrogen bonds keep two _____ together in a double helix.
A) Consecutive nucleotides C) Nitrogenous bases
B) Phosphates D) Sugars
Q.109 It consists of single strand of variable length up to thousands of nucleotides.
A) mRNA C) tRNA
B) rRNA D) mitRNA
Q.110 Human cells contain about ____ different kinds of tRNAs.
A) 45 B) 75 C) 90 D) 20
Q.111 An amino acid attaches to free ____ of a typical tRNA.
A) 3’-OH end B) 5’-P end
C) Ribosome recognition site D) Activation enzyme recognition site

Q.112 To keep the diameter of a duplex constant is the function of:

A) Hydrogen bonding B) Complementary base pairing
C) Major and minor grooves D) Double helical configuration
Q.113 Which two molecules differ in just one Oxygen atom?
A) Nucleoside and nucleotide B) Adenine and Adenosine
C) Guanosine and d-guanosine D) Thymine and uracil
Q.114 Which carbohydrate is found only in milk:
A) Glucose C) Lactose
B) Maltose D) Gulose
Q.115 Ribulose is a:
A) Ketotetrose C) Ketopentose

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B) Aldotetrose D) Aldopentose
Q.116 Which one sugar yields two isomers (of each other) on hydrolysis?
A) Sucrose C) Amylose
B) Maltotriose D) Maltose
Q.117 (CH2O)n : the general formula doesn’t apply on the pentose sugar in:
A) Deoxyribo-nucleotide B) Ribo-nucleotide
B) Dideoxyribo-nucleotide D) Both A & C
Q.118 1→2 glycosidic linkage is found in case of:
A) Sucrose C) Maltose
B) Lactose D) Mannose
Q.119 Amylose and amylopectins are two types of:
A) Polysaccharides C) Starches
B) Animal starches D) Glycogen
Q.120 “Comparatively less sweet in taste” is true for:
A) Monosaccharides with ref. to polysaccharides
B) Polysaccharides with ref. to oligosaccharides
C) Oligosaccharides with ref. to Monosaccharides
D) Polysaccharides with ref. to Monosaccharides
Q.121 These are the primary products of photosynthesis:
A) Carbohydrates C) Proteins
B) Organic molecules D) Lipids
Q.122 Energy stored in glucose molecule becomes available when it is:
A) Hydrolyzed C) Oxidized
B) Reduced D) Esterified
Q.123 Stored fatty acids are converted into carbohydrates through ____ in germinating
seedlings.
A) Citrate cycle C) Calvin cycle
B) Peroxidase cycle D) Glyoxylate cycle
Q.124 It is a carbohydrate that is soluble in water and can also be hydrolysed:
A) Amylopectin C) Maltose
B) Glycogen D) Ribose
Q.125 An example of non-reducing sugar is:
A) Glucose C) Sucrose
B) Fructose D) Maltose

Q.126 Glycosidic bond present in a maltose molecule is:

A) 1, 2 glycosidic linkage C) 1, 6 glycosidic linkage
B) 1, 4 glycosidic linkage D) 1, 8 glycosidic linkage
Q.127 A polypeptide chain bends and folds upon itself forming a globular shape. This is:
A) Primary structure C) Tertiary structure
B) Secondary structure D) Quaternary structure
Q.128 Which of the following is a peptide bond?
A) – C – N C) –C–P

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B) – C – O D) –C–S
Q.129 Fibrous proteins are:
A) Antibodies C) Elastic
B) Crystalline D) Soluble
Q.130 These provide protection from water loss and abrasive damage:
A) Acylglycerols C) Waxes
B) Phospholipids D) Terpenoids
Q.131 It correctly represents composition of neutral lipid:
A) 1 glycerol + 1 fatty acid C) 1 glycerol + 3 fatty acids
B) 3 glycerol + 3 fatty acids D) 3 glycerol + 1 fatty acid
Q.132 It is the smallest RNA having 75-90 nucleotides:
A) mRNA C) rRNA
B) tRNA D) cRNA
Q.133 It is not true about scale model of DNA:
A) Double helix C) Complementary
B) Antiparallel D) Single polymer
Q.134 Which of the following combination of base pair is absent in DNA?
A) A–T C) A–G
B) C–G D) T–A
Q.135 According to lock and key model, enzyme is:
A) Rigid & specific C) Rigid & non-specific
B) Flexible & specific D) Flexible & non-specific
Q.136 Extreme change in pH causes denaturation of enzyme by breaking:
A) Peptide bond C) Hydrogen bond
B) Disulphide bond D) Ionic bond
Q.137 Precursor activation is the activation of an enzyme-controlled reaction by:
A) Initial substrate C) Final product
B) Intermediate substances D) Inhibitor
Q.138 If the non-protein part is covalently bonded to an enzyme, it is known as:
A) Substrate C) Prosthetic group
B) Activator D) Coenzyme

Q.139 Which of the following graph correctly represents effect of increase in

concentration of substrate in an enzyme-controlled reaction when substrate is in
limited concentration?

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(A) (C)

(B) (D)

Q.140 Ester bond is present in all except:

A) Two nucleotides C) Glycerol and fatty acid
B) Glycerol and phosphoric acid D) Two amino acids
Q.141 All of these are macromolecules except:
A) DNA C) Haemoglobin
B) Ribonucleic acid D) ATP
Q.142 Which of the following is correct about glucopyranose?
A) Formed by glucose & fructose C) Ring contains 5 carbons
B) Is a 5-cornered ring D) Ring does not contain any oxygen
Q.143 Most of the proteins are made of:
A) 20 types of amino acids C) 25 types of amino acids
B) 45 types of amino acids D) 64 types of amino acids
Q.144 All the amino acids have all of the following except:
A) -NH2 group C) -COOH group
B) Hydrogen D) -CH3 group
Q.145 If you add more substrate to an already occurring enzymatic reaction and it has no
effect on the rate of reaction? What is the term given for this situation?
A) Enzyme denaturation C) Enzyme saturation
B) Enzyme inhibition D) Enzyme inactivation
Q.146 If metal ion is required for proper functioning of an enzyme, it will be called as:
A) Co-factor C) Prosthetic group
B) Activator D) Co-enzyme

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Q.147 It is true for enzymes:

A) Without enzymatic activities, the metabolism is very slow
B) Enzymes initiate the reaction
C) The reactants are substrates and enzymes
D) All enzymes require co-factor
Q.148 An example of multinucleated structure is:
A) Chlamydomonas C) Nostoc
B) Rhizopus D) Amoeba
Q.149 Which of the following is a complex of globular protein with non-proteinaceous
material?
A) Collagen C) Haemoglobin
B) Egg albumen D) Fibrinogen
Q.150 In a genetic engineering experiment a piece of DNA containing 6000 nucleotides was
transcribed and translated into protein.
How many amino acids would be required?
A) 500 C) 3000
B) 1000 D) 4500
Q.151 The ring form of fructose is called:
A) Fructopyranose C) Fructofuranose
B) Fructocellulose D) Ribofuranose
Q.152 The only carbohydrate that contains nitrogen is:
A) Cellulose C) Galactose
B) Chitin D) Amylopectin
Q.153 Number of peptide bonds in an insulin molecule are:
A) 51 C) 49
B) 50 D) 2
Q.154 Histone proteins are positively charged due to:
A) Acidic amino acids C) Neutral amino acids
B) Basic amino acids D) Amphoteric amino acids
Q.155 Which type of bond is common in all proteins?
A) Hydrogen bond C) Ionic bond
B) Peptide bond D) Disulphide linkage
Q.156 Which of the following is common between Lock and Key model and Induce Fit
model?
A) Enzymes are specific in nature
B) Enzymes are rigid structures showing no change during reaction
C) Enzymes structure is changed during reaction
D) Enzyme acts as template
Q.157 After a certain limiting concentration of substrate, increasing the concentration of
enzyme two times, rate of reaction will:
A) Increase four times C) Increase two times
B) Increase three times D) Remain constant
Q.158 Which form of carbohydrate is found in DNA?

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A) Aldo pentose C) Aldo hexose

B) Keto pentose D) Keto hexose

Q.159 In the absence of ___________, substrate molecule will not fit correctly at active site
and no catalytic activity will occur.
A) Prosthetic group C) Cofactor
B) Coenzyme D) Inhibitor
Q.160 Which part of fatty acid participate in reaction during formation of ester linkage?
A) Alcohol group C) Amino group
B) Carboxyl group D) Hydrocarbon group
Q.161 Lipids carrying polar head and non-polar tail are:
A) Glycolipids C) Phospholipids
B) Nucleolipids D) Triglycerides
Q.162 Which type of amino acids are present on surface in tertiary structure in aqueous
solution?
A) Essential amino acids C) Hydrophobic amino acids
B) Hydrophilic amino acids D) Non essential amino acids
Q.163 These are reactive parts of amino acids involved in condensation reactions:
A) Alpha carbon & Hydrogen C) Amino & Carboxyl group
B) Carboxyl group & R group D) Only R group
Q.164 It is an example of fibrous protein:
A) Haemoglobin C) Pepsin
B) Keratin D) Albumin
Q.165 Which structural level is most significant in globular proteins?
A) Primary C) Quaternary
B) Secondary D) Tertiary
Q.166 The cofactor usually acts as “bridge” between:
A) Enzyme & substrate C) Coenzyme & substrate
B) Enzyme & product D) Activator & substrate
Q.167 All enzymes are:
A) Polypeptides C) Globular proteins
B) Proteins D) Fibrous proteins
Q.168 Most polysaccharides are polymers of:
A) Ribose units C) Glucose units
B) Fructose units D) Glyceraldehyde units
Q.169 It is pure form of cellulose:
A) Potato tuber C) Cotton
B) Plant cell wall D) Fruits
Q.170 Which type of bond is not present in tertiary structure of a protein?
A) Ester bond C) Ionic bond
B) Hydrogen bond D) Peptide bond
Q.171 Haemoglobin exhibits:
A) Primary structure C) Secondary structure

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B) Tertiary structure D) Quaternary structure

Q.172 All of the following are true about globular proteins except:
A) Spherical C) Soluble in aqueous media
B) Inelastic D) More stable

Q.173 It is not an example of lipid:

A) Wax C) Sterol
B) Lecithin D) Glycerol
Q.174 Acylglycerol is neutral when it contains:
A) 1 fatty acid C) 2 fatty acids
B) 3 fatty acids D) 4 fatty acids
Q.175 Waterproof surface like cuticle of leaf and protective covering of an insect’s body
are:
A) Phospholipids C) Terpenoids
B) Waxes D) Acylglycerols
Q.176 ATP is a molecule related to:
A) Monosaccharide C) Trisaccharide
B) Disaccharide D) Polysaccharide
Q.177 Blood group antigens are:
A) Glycoprotein C) Glycolipid
B) Phospholipids D) Sphingomylin
Q.178 It is not an amino acid:
A) Serine C) Histamine
B) Glycine D) Alanine
Q.179 All of the following type of nitrogenous bases are found in nucleic acids except:
A) Adenine C) Cytosine
B) Serine D) Uracil
Q.180 Cell membrane is chemically lipoprotein in nature. Most abundant type of lipids
found in cell membrane are:
A) Acylglycerols C) Phospholipids
B) Waxes D) Terpenoids
Q.181 Branched or ringed fatty acids are usually obtained from:
A) Animal sources C) Artificial sources
B) Plant sources D) Saturated Lipids
Q.182 In a molecule of DNA, nucleotide of thymine pairs with:
A) dUTP C) dCTP
B) dAMP D) dGTP
Q.183 Optimum pH value for the working of pancreatic lipase is:
A) 4.50 C) 9.00
B) 7.60 D) 2.00
Q.184 If due to high temperature, globular structure of enzyme is destroyed, enzyme is
said to be:

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A) Activated C) Inactivated
B) Denatured D) Catalysed
Q.185 The competitive inhibitors have structural similarity with:
A) Active site C) Substrate
B) Binding site D) Co-enzyme
Q.186 In eukaryotes, enzymes are mostly:
A) Present in extra cellular fluid C) Bound to organelles
B) Suspended in cytoplasm D) Present in lumen of organs

Q.187 In chemical reactions, co-factor acts as:

A) Enzyme C) Substrate
B) Bridge D) Protein
Q.188 Feedback inhibition of an enzyme is influenced by:
A) Enzyme C) Substrate
B) End-product D) External factors
Q.189 Glycosidic linkage is found in all of the following except:
A) Galactose C) Lactose
B) Sucrose D) Dextrin
Q.190 All of the following characters are true about polysaccharides except:
A) Complex C) Tasteless
B) Usually branched D) Soluble
Q.191 Glycogen most closely resembles with:
A) Amylose C) Cellulose
B) Amylopectin D) Hemicellulose
Q.192 Cutin, cutan and cuticle are examples of:
A) Acylglycerols C) Waxes
B) Phospholipids D) Terpenoids
Q.193 It is not a component of lecithin:
A) Glycerol C) Fatty acid
B) Phosphoric acid D) Serine
Q.194 In aqueous environment, the most stable tertiary conformation is that in which
hydrophobic amino acids are:
A) Absent in polypeptide chain
B) Buried inside the protein molecule
C) Placed on surface of protein molecule
D) Neutralized by hydrophilic amino acids
Q.195 Nucleotides are united to each other through:
A) C-O-C link C) C-O-P-O-C link
B) P-O-C link D) C-O-N-O-C link
Q.196 It is a unit of biological inheritance:
A) DNA C) Chromosome
B) RNA D) Gene
Q.197 It is a type of RNA that shows maximum variability in length:

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A) mRNA C) rRNA
B) tRNA D) rDNA
Q.198 Number of nitrogen atoms in a cytosine molecule is _________.
A) 2 C) 5
B) 3 D) 6
Q.199 The catalytic activity of an enzyme is restricted to a small portion of the structure
known as:
A) Binding site C) Non-active site
B) Active site D) Allosteric site

Q.200 Pepsinogen is converted into its active form in:

A) Gastric glands C) Liver
B) Digestive tract D) Pancreas

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