Gokhale Education Society’s

R.H.Sapat College of Engineering, Management Studies & Research Nashik

DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

MCQ ON UNIT -1
Thermal Power Plant
1. Which part of thermal power plant causes maximum energy losses?
a) Boiler
b) Alternator
c) Condenser
d) Ash and unburnt carbon

Answer: c
Explanation: About 54% of energy losses occurs in condenser. Losses in boiler and alternator are about 1%
and 16% because of such high losses overall efficiency of thermal power plant reduces to 29% for normal
old thermal power plant and 50% for modern super critical pressure steam power plant which employs many
heat saving devices.
2. What is the effect of increasing steam pressure on efficiency of steam power plant?
a) Increases linearly
b) Increases nonlinearly
c) Decreases linearly
d) Does not changes

Answer: b
Explanation: The thermal efficiency of steam power plant depends upon the steam pressure. The efficiency
increases with increasing steam pressure nonlinearly up to a level. After that level increase in efficiency
becomes very low with respect to increasing pressure.
3. What is the effect of increasing steam temperature of thermal power plant on its thermal efficiency?
a) Increases linearly
b) Decreases
c) It does not depend on temperature
d) Increases nonlinearly

Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal efficiency of steam power plant increases with increase in steam temperature linearly.
Increase in temperature of steam also causes its effect on cost. So temperature of steam is increased only
upto a level at which it is economical.
4. Overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to ___________
a) Thermal efficiency
b) Generation efficiency
c) Multiplication of thermal and generation efficiency
d) Ratio of thermal and generation efficiency

Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal efficiency of steam power plant is the ratio of the heat equivalent of mechanical
energy transmitted to the turbine shaft and the heat of the combustion. Thermal efficiency is generally quite
low about 30%. Efficiency of generator is called generation efficiency.
5. In supercritical pressure steam power plant temperature of steam is __________
a) 480°C
b) 240°C
c) 600°C
d) 150°C

Answer: c
Explanation: At a temperature about 600°C water enters in supercritical phase and has property between
those of liquid and gas. advantage of such plant are that low grade fossil fuel (lignite) can be used.
Efficiency of such plants may be reached up to 50%.
6. For increasing the thermal efficiency of thermal power plant pressure in condenser should be:
a) Reduced upto 0.04 kg/cm3
b) Kept above 2.45 kg/cm3
c) As high as boiler pressure
d) Same as atmospheric pressure

Answer: a
Explanation: The thermal efficiency can be effectively increased by decreasing the pressure in the
condenser. Pressure in condenser is kept very low usually 0.04 kg/cm2 .
7. Economisers are necessary to use for pressure of 70 kg/cm2 or more.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: High cost of fuel consumption, high load factor and high pressure and temperature conditions,
all justify the use of economiser. Installation of economiser involves extra cost of installation, maintenance
and regular cleaning and additional requirement of space. By considering above points it has been found that
use of economiser becomes necessary for pressure above 70 kg/cm2.
8. Supercritical pressure boiler scan produce steam at the rate of _________
a) less than 1,500 kg/hr
b) less than 340,000 kg/hr
c) less than 80,000 kg/hr
d) upto 1,000,000 kg/hr

Answer: d
Explanation: Modern supercritical pressure boiler with pressures as high as 350 atm temperature 600°C and
capacity 1,000,000 kg/hour are available now days. Fire tube boiler can produce steam at the rate of 15,000
kg/hr. Water tube boiler can produce 340,000 kg of steam per hour.
Steam Turbines
1. Which of the following is not a type of steam turbine?
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Pelton wheel turbine
d) Axial flow type turbine

Answer: c
Explanation: Pelton wheel turbine is a water turbine. Impulse and reaction turbines are the steam turbines
characterized by the action of steam on moving blades. Axial and radial flow turbine and steam turbines are
characterized by type of flow of steam over blades.
2. Which statement about impulse turbine is true?
a) Steam expands over blades
b) Steam expends completely in stationary nozzels
c) Steam expends partially over nozzle and turbine blades
d) Steam expends over blades incompletely
Answer: b
Explanation: In an impulse turbine the steam expands completely in the stationary nozzles. No pressure drop
occurs over the moving Blade Runner. During expansion steam attains a high velocity and impinges against
the blades fixed on the rotor Periphery resulting in the impulsive force on the moving blades which sets the
rotor rotating.
3. Which statement about reaction turbine is false?
a) Steam does not expand in nozzle
b) Blades acts like nozzles
c) Steam expands as flows over the rotor blades
d) Steam continuously losses its heat as flows over the rotor blades

Answer: d
Explanation: The expansion of steam in reaction turbine totally occurs when it flows over the turbine blades.
The expansion of steam as it flows over the blades is adiabatic any friction losses between the steam and the
blades are converted into heat which in turn will reheat the steam.
4. Reaction turbines are characterized by ___________
a) relatively low RPM and steam expension over nozzle
b) relatively high RPM and steam expension over nozzle
c) relatively low RPM and steam expension over rotor blades
d) relatively high RPM and steam expansion over rotor blades

Answer: c
Explanation: In reaction turbine steam does not expand in nozzle but expands as flows over the rotor blades.
Reaction turbines are characterized by relatively low RPM. As steam expands over the turbine blades,
causes the reaction force over the turbine which rotates the turbine.
5. In condensing turbine what is the back pressure of the turbine?
a) Very high
b) Above atmospheric pressure
c) Equal to atmospheric pressure
d) Below atmospheric pressure

Answer: d
Explanation: According to the back pressure steam turbines are classified into condensing and non
condensing turbines. Where there is no use of exhaust steam, turbine is built as a pure condensing type
turbine. In condensing turbine steam is reduced in pressure down to a vacuum pressure which is in
accordance with the cooling water temperature.

6. The turbine in which steam enters the blade tip nearest the axis of the wheel and flows towards the
circumference is called _____________
a) axial flow turbine
b) radial flow turbine
c) impulse turbine
d) non-condensing turbine

Answer: b
Explanation: According to type of flow of steam the steam turbines used are of two types namely axial flow
turbine and radial flow turbine. In axial flow turbine steam flows over the blades in a direction parallel to the
axis of wheel. In radial flow turbine steam enters from blade tip near the axis of wheel and flows towards the
circumference.
7. Majority of the turbines are axial flow type.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: In axial flow type turbines the steam flows over the blades in a direction parallel to the axis of
the wheel. In radial flow turbines the blades are arranged radially so that the steam enters at the blade tip
nearest the axis of the wheel and flows towards the circumference.
8. Which turbines are employed for driving alternator at synchronous speed?
a) Central Station turbine
b) Reheating turbine
c) Extraction turbine
d) Extraction induction turbine

Answer: a
Explanation: Central turbines are for driving the alternator at synchronous speed. In Reheating turbine steam
is returned back to the boiler after partial expansion for superheating and then allowed to expand to back
pressure. In extraction turbines steam leaves the turbine casing before the exhaust, for feed water heating.
9. Read the statements below.
I. The built up rotor is cheaper and easier to manufacture.
II. The high pressure and intermediate pressure rotors are always of integral type.
a) Only statement I is correct
b) Only statement II is correct
c) I and II are correct
d) I and II are wrong

Answer: c
Explanation: A built-up rotor consists of a forged steel shaft on which separate forged steel discs are shrunk
and keyed. In an integral rotor the wheels and shaft are formed from the solid forging. The built-up rotor is
cheaper and easier to manufacture.
10. In velocity compounding the steam is expanded from the boiler pressure to condenser pressure in one set
of stationary blades on nozzle.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: In compounding a number of rotors in series, keyed on the same shaft, are employed and the
steam pressure or the jet velocity is absorbed in steps as it was over the moving blades. Compounding is
necessary for obtaining reasonable blade tip speed in turbines.
Fuel Combustion and Combustion Equipment’s

1. Which of the following is not an advantage of stoker firing?

a) Zero capital investment
b) Greater combustion capacity
c) Uniform feeding of coal into furnance
d) Saving in labour cost

Answer: a
Explanation: Stokers are the mechanical arrangement which is used to feed coals into the furnace. Due to the
mechanical equipment combustion capacity increases with uniform feeding of coal of into furnace, also
labour cost is reduced. Stoker firing requires installation of mechanical stoker hence, capital investment
requires.
2. In case of underfeed stokers fuel is supplied in the furnace _________
a) below the point of air admission
b) above the point of air admission
c) beside the point of air admission
d) by shovels

Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanical stokers are of two types namely underfeed stokers and overfeed stokers. The two
differ in manner of feeding of coal below or above the level at which primary air is admitted in the furnace.
In case of underfeed stokers fuel is supplied into the furnace below the point of air admission.
3. Which of the following is most advantageous and most widely method of solid fuel firing?
a) Stoker firing
b) Underfeed firing
c) Spreader stoker firing
d) Pulverised fuel firing

Answer: d
Explanation: The advantages of using pulverised fuel outweigh the disadvantages and all the modern power
plants uses pulverised fuel firing method. In pulverised fuel firing better combustion is achieved.
Pulverization is a means of exposing a large surface area to the action of oxygen and consequently helping
the combustion.
4. What is the main disadvantage of spreader stoker?
a) Poor control
b) Difficult operation
c) More unwanted fly ash
d) Dangerous operation

Answer: c
Explanation: In spreader stoker the coal is not fed into the furnace by means of grate. Coal is fed by means
of hopper, and function of grade is only to collect and remove the ash out of furnace. Spreader stokers can
burn any type of coal from lignite to samianthracite, whether they are free burning or cocking. Their
disadvantage is that fly ash is more.
5. Which do you mean by pulverization?
a) Burning of crushed coal
b) Burning of uncrushed coal
c) Crushing of coal into small partials
d) Breaking coal into small particsl

Answer: c
Explanation: Pulverization is crushing of coal into fine particles. This exposes large surface area to the
action of oxygen and consequently helps the combustion. Solids fuels can be used in a powderd and burn
like oil and gas.
6. What is the amount of air required to burn the pulverised coal?
a) Less than air required to burn lumped coal
b) More than air required to burn lumped coal
c) More than air required to burn lumped coal
d) No air required to burn the lapped coal

Answer: a
Explanation: The surface area of pulverised coal is increased in almost the ratio of 400:1, therefore high
rates of combustion are possible. Moreover a smaller quantity of air is required than when the fuel is burnt in
lumped form.
7. Capital cost of pulverised fuel firing is less than hand firing.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Hand firing does not require any capital investment. For pulverised fuel firing separate coal
preparation plant is required which makes the installation expensive.
8. What is the main requirement of good coal burner?
a) Minimum operating and maintenance cost
b) Production of uniform flame with complete combustion
c) The burner should be easy to handle and control
d) Attainment of proper designed

Answer: b
Explanation: Main requirement of good coal burner is complete combustion with production of uniform
flame. Minimum operating and maintenance cost, simplicity in operation, attainment of proper design all are
requirements of complete combustion.
9. Coal burners are employed to fire the pulverised coal along with primary air in the furnace.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Coal burner’s fire pulverised coal with stream of primary air into the furnace. Secondary air is
then admitted separately below the burner, around the burner or elsewhere.
10. Spread stockers can be employed for boiler capacitors of _________
a) 1000 kg/hr – 14000 kg/hr
b) 586 kg/hr – 1086 kg/hr
c) 1500 kg/hr – 40000 kg/hr
d) 70,000 kg/hr – 140,000kg/hr

Answer: d
Explanation: In spreader stoker coal is fed from the coal hopper into the path of the rotor by means of a
conveyor and rotor throws the coal into the furnace. Grate collects the ash and moves it out of the furnace.
UNIT 2
A. Nuclear Power Plant

1. The best capable alternative source which can meet the future energy demand is _____________
a) thermal power plant
b) nuclear power plant
c) hydroelectric power plant
d) geothermal power plant

Answer: b
Explanation: Demand of electrical energy is increasing at fast rate owing to booming increase in the
population and industrial growth. The reserves of fossil fuel i.e., coal, oil and gas are fast depleting. There
are many alternative sources of energy but they are not enough to supply such huge demand, only nuclear
power plants are capable of doing that.
2. How much coal is required to generate energy equivalent to the energy generated by 1 kg of uranium?
a) 30000 tonnes of high grade coal
b) 300 tonnes of high grade coal
c) 10000 tonnes of high grade coal
d) 3000 tonnes of high grade coal
Answer: d
Explanation: One of the main attention for nuclear fuel is the huge amount of energy that can be released
from a small quantity of active nuclear fuel. The energy obtainable by completely using 1 kg of Uranium
would give energy equivalent 3000 tons of high grade coal i.e. Uranium has three millions times the energy
of coal.
3. Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for ________________
a) more than 5 months
b) few weeks
c) few days
d) more than 5 years

Answer: d
Explanation: Very small amount of nuclear fuel can produce very high amount of energy. Nuclear fuel may
remain in a reactor for more than 5 years.
4. Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant economics is considered as __________
a) running cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) development cost

Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fuel in a nuclear reactor may remain for more than 5 years. So the cost of fuel injected
initially is taken as capital cost and may be a few crore rupees.
5. In economics of nuclear power plant taxes and insurance charges are taken as _______
a) operating cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) fixed cost

Answer: d
Explanation: The life of reactor plant may be taken as between 15 to 20 years. For the other parts of the
plant equipment the life may be taken as 30 years. The fixed cost would be interest, depreciation, taxes and
insurance charges.
6. Which of the following are not taken as operation and maintenance cost in economics of nuclear power
plant?
a) Taxes and insurance
b) Salaries and wages of staff
c) Cost of waste disposal
d) Cost of processing materials

Answer: a
Explanation: Taxes and insurance are taken as fixed costs. Salaries and wages of operation and maintenance
staff, cost of waste disposal and cost of processing materials are the operation and maintenance cost.
7. What is the overall efficiency of nuclear power plant?
a) 20 to 25%
b) 25 to 30%
c) 30 to 40 %
d) 50 to 70 %

Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a nuclear power plant is around 30 to 40%. Efficiency is higher at
high road factors. Therefore, a nuclear power plant is always operated as a base load plant.
8. The land area required for installation of nuclear power plant is ________
a) more than thermal power plant
b) less than thermal power plant
c) equel to thermal power plant
d) depends on type of construction

Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear power plants need less area as compared to any other plant of same generation
capacity. A 2000MW nuclear power plant needs about 80 acres whereas the coal fired steam power plant of
same generation capacity needs 250 acres of land.
9. All of the nuclear fuel reserve will be ended in about 400 years.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: There are larger deposits of nuclear fuel available all over the world. Therefore, such plants can
ensure continued supply of electrical energy for thousands of years.
10. With respect to the load centre which location is suitable for establishment of nuclear power plant?
a) Load centre
b) Near load centre but at reasonable distance
c) Far away from load centre
d) Near chemical industries

Answer: b
Explanation: These plants can be located near the load centre because of the negligible cost of transportation
of fuel. But there should be a reasonable distance between the nuclear power plant and the nearest populated
areas from point of view of safety against danger of radioactivity. It is highly undesirable to choose a site
adjacent to chemical industries oil refineries PWD works hospitals and schools.
11. Operating cost of nuclear power plant is less than thermal power plant.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Cost of fuel in nuclear power plant is taken as the capital cost. The the total operating cost
involves wages and the salaries of operating and maintenance staff only, cost of disposal of waste etc.. The
cost of transport and handling of coal for conventional thermal power plant is much higher than the cost of
nuclear fuel.
Nuclear Reaction
1. In nuclear power stations which nuclear reaction is performed?
a) Nuclear fission
b) Nuclear fusion
c) 90% fission and 10% fusion
d) 90% fusion and 10% fission

Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear fission is the process in which heavy nucleus is split when it is bombarded by certain
partials. Huge amount of energy is released during nuclfclear fission in form of heat and radiation.
2. Which particle is bombarded on heavy nucleus of nuclear fuel?
a) Electron
b) Proton
c) Neutron
d) Photon

Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fission involvs bombardment of certain particles on heavy nucleus causing it to split.
All modern fission reactors uses neutron particles for this purpose because they are neutral in charge and so,
they can make their way through the shells of electrons and then through the nucleus at low energy.
3. The critical mass for U235 fission reaction is about _____________
a) 100Kg
b) 200 Kg
C) 50 kg
d) 10 kg

Answer: d
Explanation: For a chain reaction to occur the sample of the fissionable material should be large enough to
capture the neutron internally. The minimum mass of fissionable material required to sustain a chain
reaction is called the Critical Mass”. The critical mass varies for each reaction, for U235 fission reaction it is
about 10 Kg.
4. The fuel mainly used in nuclear fission reactors are:
a) U235
b) U239
c) U233
d) U238

Answer: a
Explanation: The materials U235,U233 and Pu239 are called fissionable materials. From all the above
mentioned fuels only U235 will fission in chain reaction.
5. Which fissionable nuclear fuel occur in nature?
a) Plutonium
b) Thorium
c) Uranium
d) 94239 Pu

Answer: c
Explanation: The only natural fissionable fuel occurring in our nature is Uranium, of which 99.3% is U238
and 0.7% is U235 and U234 is only a trace. Out of these isotopes only U235 will fission in chain reaction.
6. Which of the following has high fission percentage?
a) Pu239
b) U233
c) U235
d) U234

Answer: c
Explanation: U235 has higher fission percentage in comparison to others. U235 is only fissionable nuclear
fuel found in nature, Pu239 and U233 are produced artificially. They are fissionable.
7. Reactors used for converting fertile materials to fissile materials are called _____
a) research and development reactor
b) production reactor
c) power reactors
d) slow reactors

Answer: b
Explanation: Research and development reactors are used for testing new reactor designs and research.
Production reactors are used for converting fertile materials into fissile materials and Power reactors are
used for generation of electrical energy.
8. Which statement about fast reactor is true?
a) These reactors are big in size so not easier to shield
b) Fast reactors can convert fertile materials to fissile materials
c) Fast reactors are easy to control
d) Heat transfer and cooling is very easy and simple

Answer: b
Explanation: Fast reactors can convert more fertile material to fissile materials with the result that the net
fuel consumption for such reactors is much less. These reactors are small and compact and so easier to
shield. Heat transfer and cooling problems in the core are accomplished due to high power density.
Nuclear Reactor Main Parts and their Functions
1. In which part of nuclear power plant steam is produced?
a) Boiler
b) Heat exchanger
c) Chamber across the reactor
d) Air preheater

Answer: b
Explanation: There is no boiler in nuclear power plant. The heat energy released in the reactor during
nuclear fission is utilised to heat the coolant. This coolant is circulated through the heat exchanger to
produce steam.
2. What is the main function of moderator?
a) It absorb the extra neutrons
b) It divert extra neutrons
c) It slow down the speed of fast neutrons
d) It absorb the heat energy caused by nuclear reaction

Answer: d
Explanation: Neutrons rejected during the fission process at a very high velocity of about 1.5 × 107 m/s. For
more effective use in nuclear reactor it is desirable to slow down the fast neutrons to speed corresponding to
the speed of molecules of gas at normal temperature and pressure. This is accomplished with the help of
moderator.
3. Which of the following material is not used as moderator?
a) Oxygen
b) Ordinary water
c) Heavy water
d) Graphite

Answer: a
Explanation: At present the common moderator materials used are graphite, ordinary water and heavy water.
Oxygen is not suitable to use due to its low density and the consequent small number of collision.
4. Which of the following part of nuclear reactor is used to control the rate of reaction.
a) Moderator
b) Control rods
c) Reflector
d) Coolant

Answer: b
Explanation: In a reactor the chain reaction is to be maintained at steady value during the operation of
reactor. Also the reactor must be able to shutdown automatically under emergency conditions. All these
requires control rods for control of reactor so as to prevent the melting of fuel rods, disintegration of coolant
and destruction of reactor as the amount of energy released is enormous.
5. Which of the following is the most essential requirement of control rod material?
a) It must be light weight
b) It must be cheap
c) It must have high absorption capacity for neutrons
d) It must be very reflective to neutrons

Answer: c
Explanation: The function of control rod is to control the rate of nuclear reaction by absorption extra release
neutrons. Chain reaction is controlled either by removing or inserting neutron absorbing materials. The
materials used for control rods must have very high absorption capacity for entrance.
6. Which of the following can be used as both as coolant and moderator ?
a) Helium
b) Molten sodium
c) Lithium
d) Ordinary water

Answer: d
Explanation: A good coolant should not absorb neutrons, should be non-oxidizing, non-toxic, non corrosive,
should have high chemical and radiation stability and good heat transfer ability. Ordinary water is used as
both as coolant and moderator in boiling water reactor and pressurized water is used as both as coolant and
moderator in pressurized water reactor.
7. In thermal reactors control is very easy in comparison to other reactors.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: In thermal reactor control his very easy because of relatively low power densities and longer in
neutron lifetime.
8. The main body of reactor is called ____________
a) Thermal shielding
b) Reactor vessel
c) Reflector
d) Biological shielding

Answer: b
Explanation: The reactor core, reflector and thermal shielding are all enclosed in the main body of reactor
and is called reactor vessel or tank. It is strong walled container and provides the entrance and exit for the
coolant. It also provides the passage for flow of coolant through and around the reactor core.
Classification of Nuclear Reactors
1. Reactors used for electricity generation are called ______________
a) Research and development reactors
b) Production reactors
c) Power reactors
d) Electron reactors

Answer: c
Explanation: Power reactors are used for electrical power generation purpose. Research and development
reactors are used for testing new reactor design ans research. Production reactors are used for converting
fertile material into fissile materials.
2. What is the difference in size of thermal reactor and fast reactor?
a) Size of thermal reactor is slightly more than size of fast reactor
b) Size of thermal reactor is slightly less than size of fast reactor
c) Size of thermal reactor is very much larger than size of fast reactor
d) Both are of same size

Answer: c
Explanation: The moderator to fuel volume ratio for thermal reactor lies between 20 to 80. Same ratio for
fast reactor is very less that’s why the size of thermal reactor is very much greater than size of fast reactors.
3. Which of the following reactors does not need moderator?
a) Thermal reactor
b) Fast reactor
c) Intermediate reactor
d) Power reactor

Answer: b
Explanation: In fast reactors fission is caused by fast neutrons, so there is no need of moderator to slow
down the neutrons. While in other reactors fission is needed to be from slow or intermediate speed neutrons,
so moderator is required to slow down the fast neutrons.
4. Heat energy generated in per unit volume of reactor core in thermal reactor is ___________
a) less than that in fast reactors
b) more than that in fast reactors
c) equal to that and fast reactors
d) unpredictable

Answer: a
Explanation: In fast reactors fission occurs due to fast moving neutrons. Hence, the rate of fission reaction is
high and the heat energy generated is also very high. In thermal reactor moderator is used to slow down the
neutrons and to make the fission in much more controlled way. So, heat generated in thermal reactor is
comparatively less.
5. In which of the following reactors material converted into fissile materials is more than fissile material
consumed?
a) Burner reactor
b) Slow reactors
c) Converter reactor
d) Breeder reactor

Answer: d
Explanation: Burner reactor or thermal reactor is designed only to consume fissile materials and to give heat
energy. Converter reactor converts fertile material into fissile material but the rate of conversion is slower
than rate of conception. Only breeder reactor from above options is such a reactor which converts fertile
materials into fissile materials faster than consumption of fissile materials.
6. Which of the following reactors uses its fuel as coolant?
a) Direct reactor
b) Indirect reactor
c) Both direct and indirect reactor
d) Solid fuel reactor

Answer: a
Explanation: On the basis of cooling system employed reactors are of two types. One is Direct and another
is indirect reactor. Direct reactor used as fuel in liquid form and it acts as coolant. It is circulated through the
heat exchanger in which heat is transferred to water to produce steam.
7. Which of the following statement is true?
I. In homogeneous reactors the nuclear fuel and the moderator represents a uniform mixture in the fluid
form.
II. In heterogeneous reactors separate fuel sludge or roads are inserted in the moderator
III. Most of the nuclear reactors used these days are of homogeneous type
a) Only statement I and II are true
b) Only statement I and III are true
c) Only statement II and III are true
d) Only statement III is true

Answer: a
Explanation: The statement I and II are true but statement III is wrong, because most of the reactors are of
heterogeneous type. i.e.fuel is used in them are separate mostly in form of road fuel rod.
8. In which of the following reactor it is possible to add remove and process the reactor fuel during reactor
operation?
a) Homogeneous reactor
b) Heterogeneous reactor
c) Solid fuel reactor
d) Both homogeneous and heterogeneous reactors

Answer: a
Explanation: In homogeneous reactor nuclear fuel and the moderator represent a uniform mixture, in the
fluid form including gases liquids and slurries. Due to fluid form of fuel it is possible in homogeneous
reactor that reactor fuel can be added removed and reprocessed during reactor operation without shutting in
town.
9. In which of the following reactors fissile and fertile materials are kept separate?
a) In one region reactor
b) In two region reactor
c) In one and two region reactor
d) It is impossible to separate them

Answer: b
Explanation: As per arrangement of fertile and fissile materials the reactors are classified into categories. In
first category of reactors fertile and fissile fuels are mixed and are called One Region Reactor. In second
category of reactors a fertile and fissile material are separate and is called to Region Reactor.
10. Any leakage or component failure in primary nuclear fission reactor coolant system is dangerous.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Above statement is true because these failures are very much difficult to repair. It is because of
the presence of fission products in the coolant which can cause contamination.
B. Gas Turbine Power Plants
1. The installation time for a gas turbine power plant is ______________
a) Comparatively less than thermal power plant
b) Comparatively more than thermal power plant
c) Equal to thermal power plant
d) Very much longer than thermal power plant

Answer: a
Explanation: Gas turbine power plant is comparatively simpler in construction than thermal power plant. So,
its installation time is less than a thermal power plant for same capacity.
2. Which of the following is not used in gas turbine power plant?
a) Compressor
b) Turbine
c) Combustion chamber
d) Condenser

Answer: d
Explanation: Natural gas itself or mixture of natural gas and air is used as working medium in gas turbine
power plant. Condenser is a device or arrangement used to condense low pressure steam already used by
turbine. There is no steam in gas turbine power plant so no condenser is required.
3. Which component of gas turbine power plant is main cause of its low efficiency?
a) Gas turbine
b) Combustion chamber
c) Compressor
d) Starting motor

Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of gas turbine is low, because a greater part of power developed by the
turbine (about 65%) is used in driving the compressor.
4. What is intercooling in gas turbine power plant?
a) Removal of heat from combustion gas between stages of turbine
b) Removal of heat from compressor between stages of compressor
c) Removal of heat from intake air
d) Removal of heat from exhaust air

Answer: b
Explanation: Intercooling means removal of heat from compressed air between low pressure and high
pressure compressor. Cooling the low pressure compressed air reduces the air volume and improves the
thermal efficiency, air rate and work ratio.
5. What is the function of regenerator?
a) Eatery compresses the exhaust gases
b) It heats the compressed air
c) It regenerates the combustible gas from exhaust gas
d) It regenerates the combustible oil from exhaust gas

Answer: b
Explanation: Regenerator is usually of shell and tube construction. Regenerator uses the heat of exhaust gas
to heat compressed air before it is sent to combustion chamber. This reduces the fuel consumption and
improves the cycle thermal efficiency.
6. Fuel other than natural gas i.e. solid and liquid fuels can be used in _______
a) open cycle gas turbine power plant
b) closed cycle gas turbine power plant
c) open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
d) only natural gas is used in gas turbine power plant

Answer: b
Explanation: In closed cycle gas turbine power plant the working medium is heated externally and the fuel is
not mixed with working fluid. This ensures the use of any fuel such as inferior type or solid type fuel.
7. Which of the following gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property?
a) Closed cycle gas turbine power plant
b) Open cycle gas turbine power plant
c) Open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
d) No gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property.

Answer: a
Explanation: A working medium with physical properties superior to those of air such as helium and
hydrogen can be used in closed cycle gas turbine power plant. This is because of airtight construction of this
plant.
8. What is the tariff in case of power system?
a) The taxes which a power plant pay to Indian government
b) The taxes which a power plant pay to state government
c) The taxes which a Power Grid pay to Indian government
d) The schedule of rates are charged of supply of electricity for consumers

Answer: d
Explanation: Tariff means the schedule of rates are charges tariff. In case of electric supply means the
schedule of rates framed for supply of electrical energy to different classes of consumer.
9. An electricity supplier is charging for the electricity as per the total load connected, fixed number of
hours. This type of tariff will be a ___________
a) Simple tariff
b) Flat demand tariff
c) Flat rate tariff
d) Block rate tariff

Answer: b
Explanation: When the use of Electricity was mainly restricted to very few applications such as for lamps it
is ee and the number of hours of use of lamp were fixed they were charged on the basis of total load
connected in Kilowatt and the fixed number of hours of use district is known as flat demand tariff.
10. Which statement about simple tariff is true?
a) Charges are made as per the total load connected and of fixed duration of use
b) Charges are made on the basis of units consumed in a certain period
c) Different types of consumers are charged differently
d) Charges per kilowatt decreases with increase in unit consumed

Answer: b
Explanation: In simple tariff cost of energy is charged on the basis of unit consumed cost per KWh is given
by summing annual fixed cost and annual operating cost and dividing it by total number of units applied to
the consumer per annum.
11. Identify the type of tariff the consumer is charged Rs 4 per unit if the consumer does not exceed 50
KWh, Rs 3.50 per unit if the consumer does not exceed 50 KWh but less than 200 kilowatt hour, and Rs 3
per KWh if consumer exceeds 200 kilowatt hour.
a) Flat demand tariff
b) Simple tariff
c) Flat rate tariff
d) Step rate tariff

Answer: d
Explanation: Step rate tariff is a group of flat rate tariff of decreasing unit charges for higher range of
conception. Charges per KWh are reduced for increas in power consumption above different predefined step
levels. This type of tariff takes into account the fact of lower generation cost going to higher energy
consumption consequent to improvement of load factor.
12. What is demand factor of commercial consumers?
a) Low
b) Low
c) High
d) More than 1

Answer: c
Explanation: Demand factor is the ratio of maximum demand to connected load. As we know maximum
demand cannot be greater than connected load so demand factor is always less than one. Commercial
consumer generally used as most of disconnected loads so their demand factor is high.
UNIT 3
Hydroelectric Power Plant
1. Which of the following is the correct equation for the electrical power generated by the hydroelectric
power plant?
a) 75×0.736 wQHη Watt
b) (7.5/0.736) × wQHη Watt
c) 0.845 ×wQHη Watt
d) 9.81 ×wQHη

Answer: c
Explanation: Rating of any power plant is expressed by its maximum output power. These are large
quantities so rating is given in mega watts.The electrical power generated by this plant is proportional to
specific weight of water(w), water head(H), generation efficiency(η), flow rate of water(Q) and acceleration
due to gravity.
2. Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
a) Availability of water
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Sedimentation

Answer: d
Explanation: Sedimentation may reduce the water storage capacity of reservoir and may also cause damage
to the turbine blades. Availability of water, large catchment area and rocky land are primary requirements
for site selection of hydroelectric power plant.
3. The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends upon
___________
a) Head of water
b) Quantity of water
c) Specific weight of water
d) Efficiency of Alternator

Answer: b
Explanation: Potential energy of large quantity of stored water is used by hydroelectric power plant to
generate electrical energy. Head of water is important to get kinetic energy from that potential energy.
Efficiency of alternator represents that what percentage of input mechanical power it can convert into
electrical power.
4. Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: When water falls, potential energy of water is converted into kinetic energy. This kinetic
energy is used to drive the turbine.
5. Hydroelectric power plant is __________
a) Non-renewable source of energy