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BSC Degree Supplementary Examinations 2015
BSC Degree Supplementary Examinations 2015
HAEMATOLOGY QUESTIONS
a) Neutrophils
b) Dendritic cells
c) Macrophages
d) T lymphocytes
e) B Lymphocytes
a) Lungs
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Lymph nodes
e) All of the above
a) An enlarged Liver
b) Leukocytosis
c) An enlarged spleen
d) An enlarged lungs
e) An enlarged heart
a) Shape only
b) Size only
c) Colour only
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
a) RBC count
b) Haematocrit
c) Platelet function test
d) WBC and differential count
e) Platelet count
11. In intravascular haemolysis, the Hb released into the blood is immediately bound
by which of the following proteins for clearance in the liver.
a) Haemojuvelin
b) Haemosiderin
c) Haptoglobin
d) Myoglobin
e) Stercoglobin
12. In autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, the antigen-antibody reactions are dependent on the following
EXCEPT:
a) Class of Antibody.
b) Number and spacing of antigenic sites on cell.
c) Unavailability of complement.
d) Environmental temperature.
e) Functional status of reticuloendothelial system.
13. Which of the following is not used to treat cold agglutinin diseases?
a) The H antigen is not such an essential precursor to the ABO blood group antigens.
b) The H locus is located on chromosome 9
c) The H antigen is a carbohydrate sequence with carbohydrates linked mainly to proteins.
d) The H antigen contains 6 exons that span more than 5 kb of genomic DNA
e) All of the above
16. Which of the following statements about the Lewis antigen system is false?
a. myelocytes
b. promyelocytes
c. metamyelocytes
d. blast cells
e. megakaryocytes
a. the blood film shows oval macrocytes and neutrophil left shift
b. the underlying cause of the anaemia is unknown
c. there is significant decrease in mean cell volume
d. pancytopenia is rare in this condition
e. The most widely used screening tests for the deficiencies are the serum vitamin B12 and folate assays.
22. The usual peripheral blood findings in chronic myeloid leukaemia at diagnosis include the ff. except:
a. pancytopenia
b. raised white blood cell count (30-400 X 109/L).
c. granulocytes at all stages of development
d. increased numbers of basophils and eosinophils
e. blast cells of up to 10%
24. Platelets
HISTOPATHOLOGY QUESTIONS
26. Tissue must be placed in a suitable fixative as soon as it is removed from the body to:
a. Simple acids
b. Reducing agents
c. Chelation
d. Ion-exchange
e. None of the above
28. The following procedure was performed on a mounted tissue slidet: dipped in xylene, followed by
absolute alcohol, 1% HCl and 1.5% NH4OH in 70% ethanol before hydration in water. This
procedure is to:
29. Formalin pigment is generally formed in tissues in formaldehyde when the pH:
a. Rises above 6
b. Falls below 6
c. Is buffered to neutrality
d. All the above
e. None of the above
30. Differential staining of nuclei and cytoplasm with Geimsa solution is an example of:
a. Polychromasia
b. Metachromasia
c. Hyperchromasia
d. Metaplasia
e. None of the above
31. The selectivity for nuclear staining with Harris haematoxylin can be increased by adding:
32. Which of the following is not a constituent of 10% neutral buffered formalin?
33. The main rationale for cervical cytology screening in asymptomatic population is to detect:
a. Cervical metaplasia
b. Cervical infections
c. Cervical tumour diathesis
d. Cervical cancer precursors
e. None of the above
34. The importance of control preparations in histological staining includes:
a. i, ii, iv
b. i, ii, iii
c. ii, iii & iv
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
35. In the smear of a 56-year-old woman, which cellular pattern is most likely?
36. Proteolytic digestion antigen retrieval method uses the following enzymes to cleave the formalin-
induced crosslinks EXCEPT:
a. Trypsin
b. Diastase
c. Chymotrypsin
d. Protease
e. Proteinase K
37. To protect the exposed tissue during storage, paraffin blocks may need to be:
a. Sealed
b. Filed
c. Stacked
d. Trimmed
e. None of the above
39. In an immunoperoxidase procedure for the demonstration of estrogen –progesterone receptor status
of breast cancer cells, the primary antibody was optimized at a dilution factor 1:100. How much
primary antibody would be required to prepare a total volume of 2ml?
a. 2 uL
b. 10uL
c. 20uL
d. 100uL
e. 1000uL
40. When polyethylene glycol coating fixative is used in a cervical smear, the coating must be
completely removed because:
42. You received a batch of cytology slides for reporting. On screening you find that there is no
differential staining of slides and all cells appear pink. The problem is due to:
43. For adequate clearing in xylene during routine processing, tissue should have a maximum thickness of:
a. 1-2mm
b. 2-4mm
c. 4-6mm
d. 6-8mm
e. 8-10mm
44. Prolonged dehydration in the higher grades of alcohol will render the specimen:
a. Hard
b. Macerated
c. Porous
d. Toxic
e. Soft
45. The time needed for infiltration of paraffin wax is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT the:
a. Fixative used
b. Thickness of the specimen
c. Tissue type
d. Use of vacuum
e. None of the above
46. The choice of xylene as a clearing agent is because of its miscibility with:
48. In cytocentrifugation:
a. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; EA 75
b. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; EA 25
c. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; EA 50
d. Haematoxylin; Orange G 6; EA 45
e. None of the above
51. When flow of blood is obstructed in the large veins by tourniquet, the increased filtration pressure
will cause the following effects in the parameters indicated.
52. Hyponatraemia
54. In order to determine the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), one must estimate the following:
A. Starvation
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Severe diarrhoea
D. Loss of bicarbonate from the body
E. Antacid overdose
57. Which of the following substance can be used in the measurement of Glomerular filtration rate?
A. Insulin
B. Albumin
C. Creatinine
D. Bilirubin
E. Potassium
58. The following color-coded sample collection tubes contain the additives indicated by them
59. Factors to consider in selecting a plasma enzyme for diagnosis include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Half life of the enzyme
D. Molecular weight of the enzyme
E. Rate of release of the enzyme
A. Glucagon
B. CA 125
C. C peptide
D. HbA1c
E. Cystacin C
63. Which of the following tumour marker is correctly match to its associated tumour?
A. Is water soluble
B. Gives direct Jendrassik-Grof reaction
C. Is not bound to proteins in plasma
D. Is decreased in haemolytic anaemia
E. Is increased in post hepatic jaundice.
CASE STUDY
A 23 year old female had her fasting plasma lipid checked by her family doctor because her father had been
admitted at the hospital and diagnosed of myocardial infarction, aged 44years. Her lipid profile results are as
follows:
The biomedical scientist had the optical density of her triglycerides as 0.09, mean standard absorbance 0.20
and standard concentration of 2.28mmol/l.
68. What is the triglycerides concentration from the above case study?
A. 5.03 mmol/L
B. 4.03 mmol/L
C. 1.03 mmol/L
D. 3.03 mmol/L
E. 4.50 mmol/L
A. 7.93mmol/L
B. 8.20 mmol/L
C. 8.79mmol/L
D. 7.73 mmol/l
E. 7.03 mmol/L
A. 1.67 mmol/L
B. 1.03 mmol/L
C. 1.20 mmol/L
D. 0.47 mmol/L
E. 0.84 mmol/L
71. Biochemical changes and pre-analytical variations that may result from poorly stored or stale Urine
include.
a. Lower pH
b. no effect on urine protein results
c. False negative glucose results
d. Falsely Increased bilirubin
e. Falsely increased urobilinogen
72. Plasma differs from Serum in all of the following ways EXCEPT
a. that plasma lacks the clotting factors
b. that the colour of plasma is more intense
c. that they are obtained from the same source
d. It generally contains higher electrolytes than Serum
e. plasma is usually more jaundiced
73. The most useful laboratory tests for investigating suspected iron deficiency include
A. Serum [iron]
B. Serum [ferritin]
C. Serum [transferrin]
D. Faecal occult blood
E. Serum transferrin receptor
MICROBIOLOGY QUESTIONS
76. In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk, the
concentration of antibiotic is:
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Unchanged
d. inoculum dependent
77. An aspirate of a deep wound was plated on blood agar plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically.
At 24 hours there was growth on both plates. This indicates that the organism is a(n):
a. nonfermenter
b. obligate anaerobe
c. aerobe
d. facultative anaerobe
78. The expected colony count in a suprapubic urine from a healthy individual is:
a. 0 CFU/Ml
b. 100 CFU/mL
c. 1,000 CFU/mL
d. 100,000 CFU/mL
79. Which of the following clean catch urine culture colony counts confirms that the patient has a urinary
tract infection?
a. 101 CFU/mL
b. 103 CFU/mL
c. 105 CFU/mL
d. no growth
80. A sheep agar plate inoculated with 0.001 mL of urine grows 70 colonies of Staphylococcus aureus. How
many colony forming units per mL of urine should be reported?
a. 70 CFU/ml
b. 700 CFU/ml
c. 7000 CFU/ml
d. 70000 CFU/ml
81. Organisms that can be easily identified to the species level from ova in fecal specimens include:
82. A fibrous skin nodule is removed from the back of a patient. A microfilaria seen upon microscopic exam
of the nodule is:
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Brugia malayi
c. Onchocerca volvulus
d. Loa loa
83. The lab has been using latex agglutination assay to detect Clostridium difficile in stools, which identifies a
nontoxin cell wall antigen. The lab is considering adoption of an EIA method that detects Clostridium
difficile toxin A. Which of the following would provide the best comparison?
84. Acceptable specimens for culture of anaerobic bacteria that cause disease include:
a. abscesses
b. gingival swabs
c. skin swabs
d. vaginal swabs
85. Anaerobic infections differ from aerobic infections in which of the following?
a. they usually respond favorably with aminoglycoside therapy
b. they usually arise from exogenous sources
c. they are usually polymicrobic
d. Gram stains of specimens are less helpful in diagnosis
86. The best procedure to differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from Corynebacterium species is:
a. catalase
b. motility at 25 oC
c. motility at 35 oC
d. Gram stain
87. An organism recovered from a sputum has the following characteristics: Culture: growth at 7days on
Lowenstein-Jensen agar, incubated under aerobic conditions with CO2 at 35oC Gram stain: delicate branching
gram-positive bacilli Z-N stain: branching, filamentous, “partially” acid-fast bacterium These results are
consistent with which of the following genera?
a. Norcadia
b. Mycobacterium
c. Actinomyces
d. Sreptomyces
89. A gram-negative diplococcus that grows on modified Thayer-Martin medium can be further confirmed as
Neisseria gonorrhoeae if it is:
90. Which of the following is the most reliable test to differentiate Neisseria lactamica from Neisseria
meningitides? a. acid from maltose b. growth on modified Thayer-Martin agar c. lactose degradation d. nitrite
reduction to nitrogen gas
91. A high vaginal smear is submitted for a Gram stain for Neisseria gonorhoeae. The biomedical scientist
finds the following results on the Gram stain: many white blood cells; few epithelial cells; many gram-
positive bacilli; few gram-negative diplococcic; few gram-positive cocci in chains The The biomedical
scientist should:
92. All species of the genus Pseudomonas have the enzyme to oxidize:
a. naphthylamine
b. dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
c. glucopyranoside
d. tetramethyl-para-phenylenediamine
93. A Gram stain performed on a sputum specimen revealed gram-negative diplococcic within PMNs.
Oxidase testing is positive and carbohydrate degradation tests are inert. The organism is:
a. Neisseria lactamica
b. Moraxella catarrhalis
c. Neisseria meningitides
d. Klebsiella pneumonia
a. penicillin
b. cycloheximide
c. streptomycin
d. amphotericin B
95. In a disk diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if disks are placed on inoculated
media and left at room temperature for an hour before incubation?
a. the antibiotic would not diffuse into the medium, resulting in no zone
b. zones of smaller diameter would result
c. zones of larger diameter would result
d. there would be no effect on the final zone diameter
A 35 year old AIDS patient presents to the clinic with chronic intractable bloody diarrhea after a trip to the
country side. He admits to drinking untreated water from a river. Laboratory examination was negative for
malaria and helmith infections. With this information answer the following question.
97. As a medical laboratory scientist responsible for screening blood for transfusion, which of the following
parasites when found in blood will render the sample unsuitable for transfusion?
a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Balantidium coli
c. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
d. Onchocerca volvulus
98. Where a patient’s urine has a chylous appearance, what kind of parasite may be suspected?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Onchocerca volvulus
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Leishmania donovani
99. The following serological tests are applied in the diagnosis of parasitic infections except:
a. Complement fixation
b. Enzyme linked immunoassay
c. Indirect fluorescent antibody test
d. Formalin-ethyl-acetate test
100. The concentration methods for diagnosis of blood parasites include all of the following except