THE NAVIGATOR SCIENCE SCHOOL & COLLEGE THATTA

Bio-II/ Chap 6 & 7 Chromosome & DNA, Cell Cycle 22-

10-2020
1. __________ only occur(s) in the gonads to produce gametes.
A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Mitosis and meiosis D) Sporogony E) Schizogony
2. Which of the following is mitosis not used for?
A) Repair (of a wound) in multicellular organisms B) Asexual reproduction in unicellular organisms
C) Development (e.g., baby in mother's womb) D) Production of gametes E) All of these use mitosis
3. During which stage of mitosis do the centromeres split?
A) Prophase B) Interphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase E) Synthesis stage
4. after which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals?
A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase E) Interphase
5. What is the correct order of the stages of mitosis? 1-Metaphase 2-Telophase 3-Anaphase 4-Prophase
A) 4,1,2,3 B) 2,3,1,4 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,3,2,4
E) 4,1,3,2
6. During which stage of meiosis do the sister chromatids begin to move toward the poles?
A) Prophase I B) Telophase I C) Anaphase II D) Anaphase I E) Telophase II
7. During which stage of meiosis do tetrads line up at the equator?
A) Metaphase I B) Telophase I C) Metaphase II D) Anaphase II E) Anaphase I
8. In both mitosis and meiosis, sister chromatids seperate during anaphase, but there are _____ haploid daughter nuclei produced by meiosis
compared to ______ diploid nuclei by mitosis.
A) 6,3, B) 4,2 C) 2,4 D) 3,6 E) 9,1
9. During which stage of meiosis does the nuclear envelope begin to disappear?
A) Metaphase I B) Telophase I C) Anaphase II D) Prophase I E) Metaphase II
10. When _______________ occurs between nonsister chromatids genetic exchange between chromosomes provides new combination of genes
that are different from either parent.
A) cytokinesis B) crossing-over C) mitosis D) cell division E) centromeres
splitting
Use the following options to answer questions #11 to 13: I. G0 II. G1 III. G2 IV. S V. Mitosis VI.
Cytokinesis
11. The cell cycle is divided into several distinct sub phases. Which sub phases occur during interphase?
A) I, II, and III B) II, III, and IV C) I, II, III, and IV D) V and VI E) none of these
12. Similarly to interphase, the mitotic phase includes different sub phases, including which of the following?
A) V B) IV, V, and VI C) V and VI D) I, V, and VI E) none of these
13. The cell cycle is regulated by several factors. Cell cycle checkpoints exist during which of the following processes?
A) I, II, and III B) V and VI C) II, III, and IV D) II, III, and V E) none of these
14. Which of the following is not something that occurs before metaphase?
A) Sister chromatids separate. B) Nuclear envelope fragments.
C) Chromosomes become tightly coiled. D) Centrosomes align on opposite sides of the cell.
15. Meiosis is broken down into two separate processes: meiosis I and meiosis II. Which of the following statements incorrectly pairs an event
that occurs in each process?
A) Meiosis I: separates homologous chromosomes B) Meiosis II: creates haploid cells with duplicated chromosomes
C) Meiosis I: independent assortment along metaphase plate D) Meiosis II: separates sister chromatids
16. What event would cause Turner’s syndrome?
A) The joining of two gametes that are each missing a sex chromosome. B) The joining of a gamete with a somatic cell.
C) The joining of a normal gamete with a gamete missing a sex chromosome. D) The joining of two polyploid gametes.
17. Gametes and meiosis are related in the same way as which of the following pairs?
A) Meiosis: haploid B) Chromosomes: alleles C) Somatic cells: mitosis D) Mitosis: Binary fission E) none of
these
18. interphase
19. G1 phase
20. G2 phase
21. Mitosis
22. S phase
23. Identify two stages of the mitotic phase.
A) prophase and metaphase B) cytokinesis and interphase
C) mitosis and interphase D) interphase and metaphase
24. The DNA in a eukaryotic chromosome is best described as:
A) a single circular double-helical molecule.
B) a single linear double-helical molecule. C) a single linear single-stranded molecule.
D) multiple linear double-helical molecules. E) multiple linear single-stranded molecules.
25. The most precise modern definition of a gene is a segment of genetic material that:
A) codes for one polypeptide. B) codes for one polypeptide or RNA product. C) determines one phenotype.
D) determines one trait. E) that codes for one protein.
26. The fundamental repeating unit of organization in a eukaryotic chromosome is:
A) the centrosome. B) the lysosome. C) the microsome. D) the nucleosome. E) the polysome
27. If the sequence of bases in DNA is TACCGACCA, then the sequence of codons on the transcript will be
A) ATGGCTGGT B) ATCCGAACU C) AUGGCUGGU D) AUGGACUAA
28. this is a _______ nitrogenous base
A) adenine B) guanine C) thymine D) cytosine
29. What are the repeating units of nucleic acids?
A) phosphate molecules B) nucleotides C) bases D) sugar molecules
30. Cancer cells are
A) Unlimited number of cell divisions B) Growth without external signals C) Avoidance of cell death D) All of these
31. Which of the following helps maintain the structure of chromosomes and control the activity of genes?
A) the nuclear membrane B) proteins C) centromeres D) ribosomes E) none of these
32. Sister chromatids are
A) found right after a cell divides. B) joined together at a centromere. C) made only of DNA. D) unique to prokaryotes
33. Looking into your microscope, you spot an unusual cell. Instead of the typical rounded cell shape, the cell has a very narrow middle
separating two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the number 8! Then you realize that this cell is
A) undergoing cytokinesis. B) in the S phase of interphase. C) in the G1 phase of interphase. D) about to undergo mitosis
34. Which of the following statements is false?
A) Gametes are haploid cells. B) Two haploid cells fuse during fertilization. C) An X chromosome is an autosome.
D) A zygote is a fertilized egg. E) none of these
35. Karyotyping
A) shows chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis II. B) can reveal alterations in chromosome number.
C) examines points of crossing over. D) reveals the presence of cancerous genes.
36. Nondisjunction occurs when
A) a portion of a chromosome breaks off and is lost. B) two chromosomes fuse into one.
C) members of a chromosome pair fail to separate. D) an entire pair of chromosomes is lost during meiosis I.
37. Which of the following statements about nondisjunction is false?
A) Nondisjunction in meiosis can affect autosomes and sex chromosomes.
B) In mammals, extra copies of the Y chromosome are typically inactivated.
C) In general, a single Y chromosome is enough to produce "maleness."
D) Women with a single X chromosome have Turner syndrome and are sterile.
38. Which of the following types of organisms commonly demonstrates polyploidy?
A) mammals B) reptiles C) flowering plants D) fish E) none of these
39. How many generations does it take to develop a new plant species by polyploidy?
A) one B) two C) ten D) about twenty E) five
40. If a chromosome fragment breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome, but in the reverse direction, it is
A) deletion. B) inversion. C) translocation. D) reciprocal translocation. E) none of suits
41. If these four cells resulted from cell division of a single cell with diploid chromosome number 2n = 4, what best describes what just
occurred?
A) normal meiosis B) translocation C) inversion D) nondisjunction
42. In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material,
Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?
A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not.
B) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.
C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines.
43. Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this
sample will be thymine?
A) 8% B) 16% C) 31% D) 42% E) 100%
44. Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA?
A) the diameter of the helix B) the rate of replication C) the sequence of nucleotides
D) the bond angles of the subunits E) the frequency of A vs. T nucleotides
45. What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?
A) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands. B) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands
C) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
D) One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
46. Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?
A) primase B) ligase C) DNA polymerase D) exonuclease E) none of
these
47. Why do histones bind tightly to DNA?
A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged. B) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged.
C) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic. D) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA.
48. Once the pattern found after one round of replication was observed, Meselson and Stahl could be confident of which of the following
conclusions?
A) Replication is semi-conservative. B) Replication is not dispersive. C) Replication is not semi-conservative.
D) Replication is not conservative. E) Replication is neither dispersive nor conservative
49. In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules?
A) A = G B) A + G = C + T C) A + T = G + T D) A = C E) G = T
50. Which choice best describes the cell cycle?
A) Cells grow and develop during interphase. Cells reproduce during the mitotic phase.
B) Cells grow and develop during the mitotic phase. Cells reproduce during interphase.
C) The nucleus of a cell divides during interphase. The cytoplasm of a cell divides during the mitotic phase.
D) The nucleus of a cell divides during the mitotic phase. The cytoplasm of a cell divides interphase.