1.

Turbine speed governing system consists of

(a) Flyball speed governor
(b) Hydraulic amplifier and Linkage mechanism
(c) Speed changer
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
2. In fly ball speed governor, The increase in speed results in
(a) Fly ball move outwards
(b) Fly ball move inwards
(c) Fly ball remain in same position
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
3. Hydraulic amplifier consists of
(a) Pilot valve
(b) Main piston
(c) Both a and b
(d) Steam valve
Answer:
Option (c)
4. The function of speed changer is
(a) Change the speed of governor
(b) Limit the speed of governor
(c) Steady state power output of turbine
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (c)
5. Model equation of speed governor system is (if Ksg = Gain of speed governor, Tsg = Time constant of
(a) Ksg1-Tsgs
(b) TsgKsg1+Tsgs
(c) Ksg1+Tsgs
(d) KsgTsgs
Answer:
Option (c)
6. Time constant of turbine is lies between
(a) 0.2 to 2.5 sec
(b) 0 to 1 sec
(c) 1 to 2 sec
(d) Depends on turbine design
 Answer:
Option (a)
7. The relationship between the steady state change in frequency with respect to change in load is
(a) -BB+1R
(b) -1B+1R
(c) -RB+1R
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
8. 250 MW machine with an operating load of 125 MW. Let the change in load be 1% for 1% change in f
50Hz) then B is equal to
(a) 0.05 pu MW/Hz
(b) 0.01 pu MW/Hz
(c) 0.1 pu MW/Hz
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
9. Two alternators rated 200 MW and 400 MW are operating a parallel their governor droop characteristic
no-load to full load. At no-load the system frequency is 50 Hz. When supplying a load of 600 MW, the
(a) 50 Hz
(b) 49 Hz
(c) 51.3 Hz
(d) 47.7 Hz
Answer:
Option (d)
10. A 250 MW, 50 Hz turbine generator set has a speed regulation of 5 percent based on its own rating. If t
from 50 Hz to a steady state value of 49.7 Hz with the speed changer setting unchanged. Determine the
output
(a) 35 MW
(b) 30 MW
(c) 25 MW
(d) 45 MW
Answer:
Option (b)

11. Consider 100 MW, 50 Hz turbine generator has a speed regulation parameter R of 4 percent. How much
the frequency drops by 0.1 Hz with the speed changer setting unchanged?
(a) 5 MW
(b) 6 MW
(c) 7 MW
(d) 10 MW
 Answer:
Option (a)
12. A 200 MVA alternator operates at no load at frequency of 50 Hz, it has an inertia constant of 5 MW-se
has a time delay of 0.6 sec. If the load of 50 MW is suddenly applied then find the frequency deviation
(a) 0.76 Hz
(b) -0.76 Hz
(c) 0.85 Hz
(d) -0.85 Hz
Answer:
Option (b)
13. A 100 MVA alternator operating at full load at 50 Hz. H = 4 MWsec/MVA, T  = 0.5 sec. One of the tra
d

output of the generator is reduced to 70 MW. Find the frequency deviation during this time?
(a) 0.56
(b) -0.56
(c) 0.92
(d) -0.92
Answer:
Option (c)
14. In which of the following frequency control method tie lines may be overloaded?
(a) Flat frequency control
(b) Flat tie line control
(c) Parallel frequency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
15. The equation of area control error(ACE) is
(a) ACE=∆Ptie+b∆f
(b) ACE=∆Ptie-b∆f
(c) ACE=∆Ptie+1b∆f
(d) ACE=∆Ptie-1b∆f
Answer:
Option (a)
16. Power system network has a total power of 5000 MW at 50 Hz supplying to the different consumers. F
change of 2% load. Assume R =0.004 Hz/MW. Find the steady state frequency deviation if a sudden lo
of one of the transmission line?
(a) 50 Hz
(b) 0.52 Hz
(c) 0.48 Hz
(d) -0.52 Hz
Answer:
Option (b)
17. Load frequency and economic dispatch controller are working
 (a) Independently
(b) Together with
(c) Sequential
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
18. Economical dispatch controller has
(a) Fast response
(b) Slow response
(c) Very Fast response
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
19. GRCs for which of the power plant is ignored
(a) Hydro
(b) Thermal
(c) Nuclear
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (a)
20. The effect of speed governor dead band is that
(a) Governor becomes dead
(b) Increase or decrease in the speed occurs before position of control valve changes
(c) Speed becomes constant
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
21. Governor dead bad cause due to
(a) Mechanical friction
(b) Backlash
(c) Valve overlaps in hydraulic relays
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
22. In the presence of GRCs and dead band, the system becomes
(a) Highly non-linear
(b) Linear
(c) Non-linear
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
23. Advantage of Digital controllers is
(a) More accurate and reliable
(b) Compact in size and more flexible
(c) Less sensitive to noise and drift
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
24. Decentralized control system is used for larger power system because
(a) Centralized system is not possible
(b) Centralized control is more inefficient than decentralized control
(c) Modern LFC algorithm is difficult to implement in centralized manner
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (c)
1. Power system security means
(a) Security of power system when load unbalanced
(b) Practices designed to keep the system operating when the components fail
(c) Secure the all the generating station against the failure
(d) Secure the all the transmission line against the failure
Answer:
Option (b)
2. Three major function of power system security
(a) Economical operation,Economical Dispatch,Load scheduling
(b) State Estimation,Economical Dispatch,Generation Scheduling
(c) System Monitoring,Contingency analysis, Security constrained OPF
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
3. Power system monitoring is usually done by
(a) ETAP
(b) SCADA
(c) Matlab
(d) PSPM
Answer:
Option (b)
4. SCADA means
(a) Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition
(b) System Control And Data Acquisition
(c) Super Control And Data Acquisition
(d) None of above
 Answer:
Option (a)
5. Contingency analysis are used to study
(a) Load flow study
(b) State Estimation
(c) Economical operation
(d) Outage events
Answer:
Option (d)
6. SCOPF means
(a) Security Constrained Optimal Power Flow
(b) System Constrained Optimal Power Flow
(c) Supervisory Constrained Optimal Power Flow
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
7. Which of this is not representing as operating state of power system
(a) Optimal Dispatch
(b) Post Contingency
(c) Security Dispatch
(d) State Estimation
Answer:
Option (d)
8. Optimum dispatch is the state that
(a) The power system is in optimum condition
(b) The power system is in prior to any contingency
(c) The power system is in economical mode
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (b)
9. Optimum dispatch state is
(a) Secure
(b) Partially secure
(c) Not secure
(d) Not define properly
Answer:
Option (c)
10. Post contingency is the state where
(a) Power system violates its limits to the parameter define
(b) Power system collapse
(c) Power system doesn’t run economical
 (d) Power system run in secure manner
Answer:
Option (a)
11. Secure dispatch is the state of power system where
(a) Contingency outage is always present
(b) Contingency outage is not present
(c) Security is not present
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (b)
12. Secure post contingency is the state of the
(a) Power system when contingency analysis is applied to the base operating condition with correction
(b) Power system when contingency analysis is applied to the base operating condition with without c
(c) Power system when contingency analysis is not applied to the base operating condition
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
13. The possible way to study thousand of possible outages is
(a) Load flow
(b) State estimation
(c) Linear sensitivity factor
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
14. Generation shift sensitivity factor is determined by [Where ‘i’ corresponds to bus in which the generato
the line under study, i.e. between the buses n and m, X   is the reactance of the line, X  and X   all the co
l ni mi

sensitivity matrix]
(a) ali=1XlXni-Xmi
(b) ali=1XlXni+Xmi
(c) ali=1XlXni+2Xmi
(d) Not possible to determine
Answer:
Option (a)
15. Line outage distribution factor is determined by [Where ‘l’ corresponds to the line under study, i.e. betw
corresponds to the outage of the line which is connected between buses ‘i’ and ‘j’]
(a) dl,k=xkxlxin-xjn+xim+xjmxk-xii+xjj-2 xij
(b) dl,k=xkxlxin-xjn-xim+xjmxk-xii+xjj+2 xij
(c) dl,k=xkxlxin-xjn-xim+xjmxk-xii+xjj-2 xij
(d) Any of above
Answer:
Option (c)
16. System Black out means
(a) All power systems collapse
(b) The entire system or larger part of power system may collapse
(c) A small part of power system is collapse
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
17. Which of this power plant is started first after system black out
(a) Thermal
(b) Nuclear
(c) Hydro
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (c)
18. National Load Dispatch Center is run by
(a) Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (PGCIL)
(b) Power System Operation Corporation Limited (POSOCO)
(c) Government of India
(d) Government of Delhi
Answer:
Option (b)
19. National Load Dispatch Center is situated at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
20. How many regional load dispatch centers are available in India?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer:
Option (b)
21. Gujarat state is under which regional load dispatch center
(a) NRLDC
(b) ERLDC
(c) SRLDC
(d) WRLDC
 Answer:
Option (d)
22. North regional load dispatch center is situated at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Panjab
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
Option (a)
23. Western regional load dispatch center is situated at
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Div Daman
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
Option (d)
24. Northan-Estern load dispatch center is situated at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Shillong
(c) Bhopal
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
Option (b)
25. Southern regional load dispatch center is situated at
(a) Banglore
(b) Chennai
(c) Goa
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
26. Gujarat state load dispatch center is situated at
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Vadodara
(c) Surat
(d) Rajkot
Answer:
Option (b)
27. Main function of NLDC is
(a) Prepare Policy of power grid
(b) Prepare Grid code
(c) Supervision over all RLDC
 (d) All of above
Answer:
Option (c)
28. POSOCO was formed in ___________to handle the power management function of PGCIL.
(a) March-2010
(b) April-2009
(c) March-2009
(d) December-2001
Answer:
Option (c)
29. The worst blackout in recent history occurred in northern India on two consecutive days in__________
(a) 30-31July,2012
(b) 25-26 June,2013
(c) 20-21 March,2009
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
30. Who coordinates for trans-national exchange of power?
(a) NLDC
(b) ERLDC
(c) NERLDC
(d) NRLDC
Answer:
Option (a
1. Voltage regulation is define as
(a) The per unit change in the sending end voltage magnitude for a specific variation in the receiving e
(b) The per unit change in the receiving end voltage magnitude for a specific variation in the sending e
(c) The per unit change in the sending end voltage magnitude for a specific variation in the receiving e
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
2. The change in real power P produces little effect on receiving end voltage because
(a) The voltage drop associated with this change is in phase with reference voltage
(b) The voltage drop associated with this change is in quadrature with reference voltage
(c) The voltage drop associated with this change has no relation with reference voltage
(d) The voltage drop associated with this change is 180 degree with reference voltage
Answer:
Option (b)
3. The change in reactive power Q produces large effect on receiving end voltage because
(a) The voltage drop associated with this change is in phase with reference voltage
(b) The voltage drop associated with this change is in quadrature with reference voltage
 (c) The voltage drop associated with this change has no relation with reference voltage
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
4. The relation between the receiving end voltage and the reactive power in terms of short circuit strength
(a) E1+QSsc
(b) E1-QSsc
(c) E1+2QSsc
(d) EQSsc
Answer:
Option (b)
5. An inductive load draws power (2+j1) MVA at the receiving end bus of a radial three phase line. The re
(L-L) at 50 Hz. The system reactance is 0.5 Ω/phase then the regulation is
(a) 100.01∠ 70.01
(b) 58.68 ∠ 63.43
(c) 45.68 ∠ 50.43
(d) 25.04 ∠ 63.50
Answer:
Option (b)
6. If the phase voltage is 11.46 kV and system reactance is 0.5 Ω/phase then the short circuit capacity of th
(a) 90.34 MVA/phase
(b) 60.34 MVA/phase
(c) 81.34 MVA/phase
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
7. If system reactive power is 1 MVAR and short circuit capacity is 81.34 MVA/phase then the ratio of re
is
(a) 0.99
(b) 0.88
(c) 0.89
(d) 0.90
Answer:
Option (a)
8. The surge impedance of transmission line is represented by (l is line series inductance per length, c is d
(a) 2lc
(b) l2c
(c) 2lc
(d) lc
Answer:
Option (d)
9. Surge impedance loading is represented by (if V is voltage in kV and Z  is surge impedance loading)
0

(a) 2V2Z0 MVA
(b) V2Z0 MVA
(c) V22Z0
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
10. A three phase, 50 Hz transmission line operates at 220 kV. The line has 400 Ω surge impedance. Find t
(a) 100 MVA
(b) 125 MVA
(c) 121 MVA
(d) 200 MVA
Answer:
Option (c
11. A three phase, 50 Hz transmission line operates at 220 kV. The line has 400 Ω surge impedance. If the
400 kV then how much surge impedance loading (SIL) is increased with respect to the SIL at 200 kV
(a) 279 MVA
(b) 200 MVA
(c) 300 MVA
(d) 400 MVA
Answer:
Option (a)
12. A cable has surge impedance of 50 Ω and operates at 500 kV (L-L) at 50 Hz. If the electrical line length
state stability limit
(a) 5000 MW
(b) 10000 MW
(c) 15000 MW
(d) 18000 MW
Answer:
Option (b)
13. A cable has surge impedance of 50 Ω and operates at 500 kV(L-L) at 50 Hz. If the electrical line length
of transmission angle and the reactive power requirements at both ends of cable when the transmitted p
the SIL value
(a) 15.47 °, -1115.87 MVAR
(b) 11.35 °, -1115.87 MVAR
(c) 14.47 °, -1171.87 MVAR
(d) 20.47 °, -2115.87 MVAR
Answer:
Option (c)
14. A cable has surge impedance of 50 Ω and operates at 500 kV(L-L) at 50 Hz. If the electrical line length
reactive power requirements at both ends of cable when the transmitted power through the cable is 125%
703.12 MVAR
 a)
(b) 1000.11 MVAR
(c) 1500.34 MVAR
(d) 2050.33 MVAR
Answer:
Option (a)
15. A long line interconnects two grids. The surge impedance of line is 400 Ωand the line length is equivale
voltage is 400 kV and power transfer through the line be 200 MW, find the power angle at the mid poin
(a) 5 °
(b) 4 °
(c) 8 °
(d) 10 °
Answer:
Option (b)
16. A long line interconnects two grids. The surge impedance of line is 400 Ωand the line length is equivale
voltage is 400 kV and power transfer through the line be 200 MW. What is the mid point voltage?
(a) 410 kV
(b) 400 kV
(c) 403 kV
(d) 402 kV
Answer:
Option (c)
17. Voltage collapse typically occurs in the power system due to
(a) Heavily loaded line
(b) Faulted line
(c) Reactive power shortages in line
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
18. Power system stability means
(a) Power system remains in a state of equilibrium under normal operating condition
(b) To restore an acceptable state of equilibrium after a disturbance
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
19. Which of the following is the short term stability in a generator driven system?
(a) Rotor-angle stability
(b) Short term voltage stability
(c) Frequency Stability
(d) Long-term voltage stability
 Answer:
Option (a)
20. Which of the following is the long term stability in a generator driven system?
(a) Rotor-angle stability
(b) Short term voltage stability
(c) Frequency Stability
(d) Long-term voltage stability
Answer:
Option (c)
21. Which of the following is the short term stability in a load driven system?
(a) Rotor-angle stability
(b) Short term voltage stability
(c) Frequency Stability
(d) Long-term voltage stability
Answer:
Option (b)
22. Which of the following is the long term stability in a Load driven system?
(a) Rotor-angle stability
(b) Short term voltage stability
(c) Frequency Stability
(d) Long-term voltage stability
Answer:
Option (d)
23. The time scale of transient voltage stability due to static VAR compensator is
(a) 1 sec
(b) 1.5 sec
(c) 0.5 sec
(d) 2 sec
Answer:
Option (a)
24. The time scale of transient voltage stability due to OLTC operation is
(a) 1 min
(b) 2 min
(c) 3 min
(d) 2.5 min
Answer:
Option (b)
25. The expression of critical receiving end voltage is
(a) 2Ecosδcri
(b) Ecosδcri
(c) E2cosδcri
 (d) 1-Ecosδcri
Answer:
Option (c)
26. The expression for critical power angle is
(a) ππ4-θ2
(b) ππ4+θ2
(c) ππ4+θ4
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
27. Which of the following methods is/are used for reactive or voltage compensation
(a) Shunt capacitor
(b) Series capacitor
(c) Generation excitation control
( All of the above
)
Answer:
Option (d)
28. The operation of OLTC does
(a) Improve voltage stability
(b) Not improve voltage stability
(c) Not comment on voltage stability
(d) Improve power factor
Answer:
Option (b)
29. The operation of OLTC improve voltage stability if
(a) The reactive power status at load bus improves
(b) The active power status at load bus improves
(c) The active power status at load bus reduces
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
30. Line compensation improve power system operation by
(a) Keeping voltage closer to nominal value
(b) Reduces line current and losses
(c) Enhance stability
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
31. In series line compensation, the degree of compensation is usually in the range of
(a) 0.3 to 0.8
 (b) 0.2 to 0.6
(c) 0.1 to 0.5
(d) 0.2 to 0.25
Answer:
Option (a)
32. In series line compensation, the voltage stability is
(a) Stable
(b) Improves
(c) Deteriorates
(d) Unstable
Answer:
Option (b)
33. In shunt line compensation, the magnitude of critical receiving end voltage and critical power angle is
(a) Stable
(b) Deteriorates
(c) Improve
(d) Unstable
Answer:
Option (c)
34. A static VAR compensator is a
(a) Voltage controlled shunt compensation device
(b) Current controlled shunt compensation device
(c) Voltage controlled series compensation device
(d) Current controlled series compensation device
Answer:
Option (a)
35. Types of static VAR compensators are
(a) FC-TCR
(b) TSC-TCR
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
36. What is the result of frequency instability?
(a) Voltage collapse
(b) Frequency swings
(c) Tripping of generating units
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
Option (d)
37. What is the main cause of voltage instability?
 (a) Generators
(b) Transformers
(c) Loads
(d) Line losses
Answer:
Option (c)
38. The critical clearing time of a fault is power system is related to
(a) Reactive power limit
(b) Short circuit limit
(c) Steady-state stability limit
(d) Transient stability limit
Answer:
Option (d)
39. The transient stability limit of a power system can be appreciably increased by introducing
(a) Series inductance
(b) Shunt inductance
(c) Series capacitance
(d) Shunt capacitance
Answer:
Option (c)
40. Steady-state stability of a power system is improved by
(a) Reducing fault clearing time
(b) Using double circuit line instead of single circuit line
(c) Single pole switching
(d) Decreasing generator inertia
Answer:
Option (b)
1. The objective of state estimation is to obtain the best possible value of
(a) Bus voltage magnitude and angle
(b) Bus active power
(c) Bus reactive power
(d) Bus apparent power
Answer:
Option (a)
2. The most applicable state estimation algorithm is
(a) Load flow
(b) Optimum load flow
(c) Weighted least square
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
3. What causes imperfect measurement of power system data?
(a) Error of instruments
(b) Data loss in transmitting
(c) Failure of measuring instruments
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
4. The output of state estimation is used in
(a) Economical dispatch and security studies
(b) Load flow
(c) Analysis of Fault
(d) Stability Study
Answer:
Option (a)
5. As per least square estimation, the estimated value of X (X ) is represented by (Where Z is measuremen
est

between Z and X)
(a) Xest=HTH-1HTHZ
(b) Xest=HTH-1HTZ
(c) Xest=HTH-1HZ
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
6. Estimate the two random variables by least square estimation method for a given measurement. Z=0.50
(a) 0.10.2
(b) 0.290.35
(c) 0.350.22
(d) 0.220.22
Answer:
Option (b)
7. In least square estimation method, The weight-age of error in measurement vector is
(a) Equal
(b) Not Equal
(c) Depend on measurement
(d) Not easy to define
Answer:
Option (a)
8. Which estimation method is best suitable for state estimation in a power system?
(a) Least square estimation
(b) Equal Weighted Least square estimation
(c) Weighted least square estimation
(d) Fast decoupled
 Answer:
Option (c)
9. Weighted least square is more accurate than least square because
(a) Weight on each error is define and use during estimation
(b) Weighted of measurement is find prior to estimation
(c) Equal weighted is estimated
(d) Method is executed with assumption
Answer:
Option (a)
10. As per weighted least square estimation, the estimated value of X (X ) is represented by (Where Z is m
est

relation between Z and X, W is Weighted error matrix)

(a) Xest=HTWH-1HTZ
(b) Xest=HTWH-1HT WTZ
(c) Xest=HTWH-1HTWZ
(d) Xest=HTWH-1HTWHZ
Answer:
Option (c
11. The covariance of error of estimation is (L=HTWH-1HTW and R= covariance of error vector ‘r’)
(a) LRLT
(b) LRTL
(c) LRL
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
12. For better estimation, the covariance of the error of estimation is
(a) High
(b) Low
(c) Medium
(d) 0
Answer:
Option (a)
13. Estimate the two random variables by weighted least square estimation method for a given measuremen
weighted matrix W=10000.50000.1
(a) 0.20000.3000
(b) 0.20000.3000
(c) 0.29670.3567
(d) 0.11110.3288
Answer:
Option (c)
14. Power system having N number of buses, the state variable ‘x’ may be defined as _______number of b
__________number of bus voltage magnitude
(a) N-2,N-1
 (b) N-1,N
(c) N,N
(d) N,N-1
Answer:
Option (b)
15. Redundancy of state estimation is
(a) 0.5 to 1
(b) 1 to 2
(c) 1.5 to 2.8
(d) More than 3
Answer:
Option (c)
16. The problem of state estimation is
(a) Linear
(b) Non-linear
(c) Algebraic
(d) Not define properly
Answer:
Option (b)
17. State estimation of power system is solved using
(a) Batch processing
(b) Sequential processing
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
18. Power system state estimation non linear equation ∆Z=H∆X+r ,∆Z contains
(a) All the bus and line active and reactive power change
(b) All the bus voltage magnitude change
(c) All the bus voltage angle change
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (a)
19. Power system state estimation non linear equation ∆Z=H∆X+r , ∆X contains
(a) All the bus active and reactive power change
(b) All the line active and reactive power change
(c) All the bus voltage magnitude and angle change
(d) All the bus voltage magnitude and angle change estimated
Answer:
Option (d)
20. Which of the following case is consider for state estimation for power system
 (a) Only active and reactive power injection
(b) Only active and reactive line flow
(c) Either a or b
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
Option (c)
21. In only active and reactive power injection, 2N number of elements of measurement vector ‘z’ is used t
elements of state vector ‘x’
(a) N-1
(b) 2N-1
(c) N
(d) 2N-2
Answer:
Option (b)
22. State estimation of power system by only active and reactive power injection is same as
(a) Load flow study
(b) Optimum power flow analysis
(c) Economical dispatch
(d) Load forecasting
Answer:
Option (a)
23. State estimation of power system by only active and reactive line flow have good redundancy if
(a) Assume more number of imaginary buses
(b) Increase active and reactive line flow data by assume more imaginary line in power system
(c) Power system has enough number of transmission lines which have two meters at each end of all tr
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (c)
24. According to WLSE method for state estimation on nonlinear power system equation , the estimation o
(a) Is not possible to derive
(b) ∆X(0)est=H0TWH0-1Z-hX0
(c) ∆X(0)est=H0TWH0-1H0TZ-hX0
(d) ∆X(0)est=H0TWH0-1H0TWZ-hX0
Answer:
Option (d)
25. The iterative process of state estimation for nonlinear measurements of power system is terminated whe
estimation)
(a) X(p+1)est-X(p)est2≤∈
(b) X(p+1)est-X(p)est2=∈
(c) X(p+1)est-X(p)est2≥∈
 (d) X(p+1)est-X(p)est2≈∈
Answer:
Option (a)
26. The relation between the measurement vector ‘y’ and vector ‘x’ is as follows y=2x2+x+r Estimate ‘x’ f
Assume the initial estimation of x is 1 and measurement value of ‘y’ is 9.8.
(a) 1.977841
(b) 1.556678
(c) 2.000000
(d) 2.556789
Answer:
Option (a)
27. For state estimation for only active and reactive power injection, The active power injection measureme
(a) ∆Zp=H2∆Xδ+rp
(b) ∆Zp=H1∆Xδ+rp
(c) ∆Zp=H1∆Xv+rp
(d) ∆Zp=H1∆Xδ+rq
Answer:
Option (b)
28. For state estimation for only active and reactive power injection, The reactive power injection measurem
(a) ∆Zq=H4∆Xv+rq
(b) ∆Zq=H4∆Xδ+rq
(c) ∆Zq=H3∆Xv+rq
(d) ∆Zq=H3∆Xv+rp
Answer:
Option (a)
29. When WLSE method is applied for only active power injection measurement vector then the estimation
(a) xest(δ)P+1=xest(δ)P+H1PTWPZP-hpxestP
(b) xest(δ)P+1=xest(δ)P+H1PTWPH1PH1PTWPZP-hpxestP
(c) xest(δ)P+1=xest(δ)P+H2PTWPH2P-1H2PTWPZP-hpxestP
(d) xest(δ)P+1=xest(δ)P+H1PTWPH1P-1H1PTWPZP-hpxestP
Answer:
Option (d)
30. When WLSE method is applied for only reactive power injection measurement vector then the estimati
(a) xest(v)P+1=xest(v)P+H4PTWqH4PH4PTWqZq-hqxestP
(b) xest(v)P+1=xest(v)P+H3PTWqH3PH3PTWqZq-hqxestP
(c) xest(v)P+1=xest(v)P+H4PTWqH4PZq-hqxestP
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
31. When WLSE method is applied for line flow only algorithm then the estimation of ‘x’ for power system
(a) xest=ATWA-1ATFxest,Z
 (b) xest=ATWA-1ATWFxest,Z
(c) xest=ATWA-1ATW-1Fxest,Z
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
32. The solution of state estimation in power system is affected by
(a) Ill conditioning
(b) Computer storage requirement
(c) Time requirement
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
33. The condition number for Gain Matrix ‘G’ is define as
(a) Rank of Gain Matrix ‘G’
(b) Ratio of largest to smallest eigenvalue
(c) GG -1

(d) Inverse of G
Answer:
Option (b)
34. The Gain Matrix ‘G’ of power system becomes more ill-condition if the condition number is
(a) Decrease in number
(b) Moderate in number
(c) Increase in number
(d) 1
Answer:
Option (c)
35. Power system is divided into ______sub-system to reduce computational burden in state estimation
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
Option (a)
36. To derive external equivalency of power system, the subsystems are define as
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Boundary
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
37. The method to find bad data detection is
 (a) Fast decoupled
(b) Newton Raphson
(c) Chi square
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
38. Identification of bad data is done by
(a) Calculate the elements for error in the measurement vector
(b) Calculate difference of error in the measurement vector
(c) Calculate the error in measurement vector
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
39. Suppression of bad data is done by selecting estimation index function as
(a) Quadratic
(b) Non-quadratic
(c) Square
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
40. Network observability is define as
(a) All data of power system is observed
(b) To find error in measurement data
(c) To check the given measurement data is sufficient for state estimation
(d) The ratio of measure data to error
Answer:
Option (c)
41. The network is observable when the rank of jacobian matrix H is equal to
(a) N
(b) N-1
(c) 2N
(d) 2N-1
Answer:
Option (a)
42. The rank of jacobian matrix is depends on
(a) Location of measurement
(b) Type of measurement
(c) Network topology
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
43. Network observability is improve by
(a) Pseudo measurement
(b) Computer
(c) Improve the measurement technique
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
44. Practical stages of state estimation is
(a) Network Topology processor
(b) Observability analysis
(c) Bad data processing and state estimation
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
1. Load forecasting is a method
(a) To estimate the load for future
(b) To real time load estimation
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
2. The load curve describe
(a) Generation with respect to load
(b) Variation of load with respect to time
(c) Generation with respect to time
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
3. Daily load curve divided into how many parts
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
Option (b)
4. Load forecasting is nothing but to estimate
(a) Deterministic part
(b) Stochastic part
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
 Answer:
Option (c)
5. In Load forecasting, The present and lead time is represented by
(a) σ,j
(b) Π,k
(c) Χ, l
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
6. Load forecasting method are
(a) Extrapolation
(b) Correlation
(c) Combination of a and b
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (d)
7. The extrapolation method is based on the
(a) Curve fitting to present data
(b) Extrapolation of past data
(c) Extrapolation of present data
(d) Curve fitting to previous data available
Answer:
Option (d)
8. Extrapolation method is also known as
(a) Error less
(b) Deterministic
(c) Curve fitter
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (b)
9. Match standard analytical with its equation i. Straight line A.α+βσ+γσ +η  ii. Parabolic B.α+βσ+γσ  iii.
2 3 2

D.γΕ  v. Gempertz E. ln

σ -1

(a) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D, v-E

(b) i-C, ii-B, iii-A, iv-D, v-E
(c) i-A, ii-B, iii-D, iv-C, v-E
(d) i-D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C, v-E
Answer:
Option (b)
10. Which of the following method is generally adapted for curve fitting
(a) Weighted least square
(b) Extrapolation least square
 (c) Least square
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
11. Which of the following techniques is the basic for extrapolation?
(a) Square extrapolation
(b) Parabolic extrapolation
(c) Exponential extrapolation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
12. The correlation technique relates system load to
(a) Various demographic factors
(b) Economic factors
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
13. What is the disadvantage of correlation methods?
(a) Required more past data for analysis
(b) Required more data space
(c) Less accuracy
(d) Load forecasting for demographic and economic factors is difficult
Answer:
Option (d)
14. Which of the following equations is used to estimate the average term in the deterministic part of load?
(a) 1N∑ddσ-β∑σσ=1Nσ=1N
(b) 1N∑ddσ-β∑σσ=1N-1σ=1N-1
(c) 1N∑ddσ+β∑σσ=1Nσ=1N
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
15. Which of the following equations is used to estimate the trend term in the deterministic part of load?
(a) N∑ddσσσ=1N+∑ddσσ=1N∑σσ=1NN∑σ2σ=1N+∑σσ=1N2
(b) N∑ddσσσ=1N+∑ddσσ=1N∑σσ=1NN∑σ2σ=1N+∑σσ=1N2
(c) N∑ddσσσ=1N-∑ddσσ=1N∑σσ=1NN∑σ2σ=1N-∑σσ=1N2
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
16. What is the limitation of estimation of average and trend term of deterministic part of load.
(a) Required more space in computer
 (b) Required fast computer
(c) Data processed may not be adequate for statistics calculation.
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (c)
17. Which of the following is the simplest form of stochastic time series model?
(a) Generalize load modelling
(b) Estimation of periodic components
(c) Time Estimation
(d) Auto-regressive model
Answer:
Option (d)
18. The n-th order auto-regressive model of sequence dsσ can be expressed as
(a) ∑i=1naids(σ-i)+wσ
(b) ∑i=1naids(σ-i)-wσ
(c) ∑i=1naids(σ)-wσ
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
19. Kalman filtering algorithm is widely used for
(a) Short term or very short term load forecasting
(b) Long term load forecasting
(c) Medium load forecasting
(d) Very long term load forecasting
Answer:
Option (a)
20. Limitation of Kalman and prediction techniques
(a) Required large time to estimate
(b) Depends on availability of required state variable model of the load data which is not available at s
(c) Require more space to data storage
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (b)
Which of the following approaches is utilized to overcome the limitation of kalman and prediction method?
21.
(a) Time series
(b) Average and tread term
(c) Innovation model
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)

1. Restructuring in the power industries aims to

 (a) Improve power generation capacity
(b) To destroy the monopoly in generation and trading sector
(c) Improve the transmission capacity
(d) Improve the power system stability
Answer:
Option (b)
2. Electricity sector restructuring also popularly known as
(a) Deregulation
(b) Destruction
(c) Regulation
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (a)
3. Deregulation is done due to
(a) Increase private investment
(b) Increase efficiency
(c) Improve customer satisfaction
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
4. “Deregulation is a restructuring of the rules and economic incentives that governing authority set up to
power industry” is quoted by
(a) John Grainger
(b) William Stevenson
(c) L.Phillipson and H.L. Willis
(d) None of them
Answer:
Option (c)
5. Power system deregulation is expected to offer the benefits of
(a) Lower electricity price
(b) Better consumer services
(c) Improved system efficiency
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
6. The basic issue of deregulation is
(a) Government has no control on power system operation
(b) Government has no control on price of unit generation
(c) Government has no control on transmission network
(d) To manage economical, secure and stable operation of power system
 Answer:
Option (d)
7. The deregulated of electrical utility industry allow 1. Independent power producer to produce power 2.
power 3. Single transmission system to transmit power
(a) 1-2
(b) 2-3
(c) 1-2-3
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
8. The interconnected power system is considered natural monopoly in deregulated system to
(a) Reduce the cost of transmission network
(b) Avoid duplicity
(c) Maintain easily
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
9. In vertically integrated electrical utility, The information flow is in between
(a) Generation and customer
(b) Transmission/Distribution and customer
(c) Generation and Transmission/Distribution
(d) Generation,Transmission/Distribution and Customer
Answer:
Option (c)
10. Which of these two entities are not present in vertically integrated electrical utility structure compared to
(a) Generation and transmission
(b) Transmission and distribution
(c) Transmission and Customer
(d) ISO and market trader
Answer:
Option (d)
11 Which of the following quantities flows in the same manner in vertically integrated as well as deregulated
. (a) Energy
(b) Money
(c) Information
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
12 The main function of generating companies (GENCOs) are
. (a) To generate and sell electricity
(b) To distribute electricity
 (c) To transmit electricity
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (a)
13 The GENCOs sell electricity to
. (a) Transmission companies
(b) Direct customer
(c) Entities who have negotiated sell contract with them
(d) Distribution companies
Answer:
Option (c)
14 The function of transmission companies are
. (a) Building transmission line
(b) Operating transmission system
(c) Maintaining transmission system
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
15 The investment and operating cost of transmission line are recovered by
. (a) Excess charge which are usually paid by every users within the area or region
(b) Transmission usage charges based on line flows contributed by each user
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (c)
16 The main function of distribution companies (DISCOs) are
. (a) Buy wholesale electricity through the spot markets through direct contracts with generation companie
(b) Constructs and maintain distribution wires connecting the transmission grid to the end-user customers
(c) Building and operating its electrical system to maintain a desired degree of reliability and availability
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
17 Customer need to buy electricity from
. (a) Local utility company
(b) Spot Market by bidding for purchase
(c) Direct contracts with Generation Company or even from the local distribution company
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (d)
18 Market operator is an entity responsible for
. (a) Operation of electricity market trading
(b) Hike in electricity price
(c) Reducing operating cost of generation
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (a)
19 System operator is an entity which is entrusted with the responsibility of
. (a) Operate all the generating stations in reliable mode
(b) Ensuring reliability, security and efficient operation of an open access transmission system
(c) Operate whole power system
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (b)
20 ___________ is a power exchange in india
. (a) IEX
(b) NLDC
(c) RLDC
(d) CERC
Answer:
Option (a)
21 ____________ is a system operator in india
. (a) RLDC
(b) NLDC
(c) SLDC
(d) ALDC
Answer:
Option (b)
22 Aggregators is the entity which
. (a) Combine all transmission companies
(b) Combine customer into buyer groups
(c) Combine all distributors
(d) Combine all generator groups
Answer:
Option (b)
23 Retail companies legal approval to
. (a) Buy retail electricity
(b) Generate electricity
(c) Shell retail electricity
(d) Distribute retail electricity
Answer:
 Option (c)
24 Power Exchange handles______________, which provides a forum to match electrical energy supply and
. (a) Exchange of power
(b) Generation of power
(c) Transmission of power
(d) Electrical power pool
Answer:
Option (d)
25 In 2005, Who dominated the electricity sector in india?
. (a) Government
(b) Private
(c) Government and Private
(d) Foregin
Answer:
Option (a)
26 Who coordinates the electricity sector at center level
. (a) MNRE
(b) MoP
(c) DEA
(d) Other research institute
Answer:
Option (b)
27 Which of the following is the central generating utility
. (a) CERC
(b) GERC
(c) NTPC
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
28 Who is the central transmission utility?
. (a) Power Grid Corporation
(b) Indian Power Exchange
(c) Indian Energy Exchange
(d) Indian Transmission Corporation
Answer:
Option (a)
29 The central government is not involved in
. (a) Generation of electricity
(b) Transmission of electricity
(c) Distribution of electricity
 (d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
30 Electricity regulatory body in india is
. (a) CERC
(b) GERC
(c) IERC
(d) BERC
Answer:
Option (a)
31 Which of the following country start deregulation first in the world?
. (a) Europe
(b) Australia
(c) New Zealand
(d) USA
Answer:
Option (d)
32 European Union starts deregulation in
. (a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 1988
Answer:
Option (a)
33 India starts deregulation in the year
. (a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2005
Answer:
Option (c)
34 Ministry of power has research facility named as
. (a) CPRI
(b) ERDA
(c) NPRI
(d) None of above
Answer:
Option (a)
35 Which government body is working for energy conservation in india?
. (a) IEE
 (b) BEE
(c) GEDA
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
36 Which government body is working for standardization of products?
. (a) BEE
(b) BIS
(c) BBS
(d) NABL
Answer:
Option (b)
37 As per Electricity Act-2003, The generation of electricity is
. (a) Debarred
(b) Required licenses
(c) De-licensed
(d) Not clear form act
Answer:
Option (c)
38 The captive generation is ________as per Electricity Act-2003
. (a) Freely permitted
(b) Not Permitted
(c) Not possible
(d) Required licenses
Answer:
Option (a)
39 Which of the following generation needs permission from central electricity authority as per Electricity Ac
. (a) Nuclear power
(b) Thermal
(c) Hydro
(d) Solar
Answer:
Option (c)
40 With reference to EC Act-2003,Setting up State Electricity Regulatory Commission (SERC) has been mad
. (a) Voluntary
(b) Mandatory
(c) As per requirement
(d) Not define
Answer:
Option (b)
41 For rural and remote areas, _________________for generation and distribution is permitted
. (a) Special feeder
(b) Stand-alone system
(c) Low cost
(d) All of above
Answer:
Option (b)
1. By which of the following systems

electric power may be transmitted ?

(a) Overhead system

(b) Underground system

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

2 are the conductors, which connect the

consumer's terminals to the distribution

(a) Distributors

(b) Service mains

(c) Feeders

(d) None of the above

Ans: b

3. The underground system cannot be

operated above

(a) 440 V

(b) 11 kV

(c) 33 kV

(d) 66 kV

Ans: d

4. Overhead system can be designed for

operation upto
(a) 11 kV

(b) 33 kV

(c) 66 kV

(d) 400 kV

Ans: c

5. If variable part of annual cost on

account of interest and depreciation on the

capital outlay is equal to the

annual cost of electrical energy wasted in

the conductors, the total annual cost will be

minimum and the corresponding size of

conductor will be most economical. This

statement is known as

(a) Kelvin's law

(b) Ohm's law

(c) Kirchhoffs law

(d) Faraday's law

(e) none of the above

Ans: a

6. The wooden poles well impregnated

with creosite oil or any preservative

compound have life

(a) from 2 to 5 years

(b) 10 to 15 years

(c) 25 to 30 years

(d) 60 to 70 years
Ans: c

7. Which of the following materials is not

used for transmission and distribution of

electrical power ?

(a) Copper

(b) Aluminium

(c) Steel

(d) Tungsten

Ans: d

8. Galvanised steel wire is generally used

as

(a) stay wire

(b) earth wire

(c) structural components

(d) all of the above

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Ans: d

9. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are

(a) 40—50 metres

(b) 60—100 metres

(c) 80—100 metres

(d) 300—500 metres

Ans: c

10. The corona is considerably affected by

which of the following ?

(a) Size of the conductor

(b) Shape of the conductor

(c) Surface condition of the conductor

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

11. Which of the following are the

constants of the transmission lines ?

(a) Resistance

(b) Inductance

(c) Capacitance

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

12. 310 km line is considered as

(a) a long line

(b) a medium line

(c) a short line

(d) any of the above

Ans: a

13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at

the receiving end of the open-circuited or

lightly loaded line is called the

(a) Seeback effect

(b) Ferranti effect

(c) Raman effect

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

14. The square root of the ratio of line

impedance and shunt admittance is called

the

(a) surge impedance of the line

(b) conductance of the line

(c) regulation of the line

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

15. Which of the following is the demerit

of a 'constant voltage transmission system' ?

(a) Increase of short-circuit current of the

system

(b) Availability of steady voltage at all

loads at the line terminals

(c) Possibility of better protection for the

line due to possible use of higher terminal

reactances

(d) Improvement of power factor at times

of moderate and heavy loads

(e) Possibility of carrying increased

power for a given conductor size in case of

long-distance heavy power

transmission
Ans: a

16. Low voltage cables are meant for use

up to

(a)l.lkV

(b)3.3kV

(c)6.6kV

(d)llkV

Ans: e

17. The operating voltage of high voltage

cables is upto

(a)l.lkV

(b)3.3kV

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(c)6.6kV

(d)llkV

Ans: d

18. The operating voltage of supertension

cables is upto

(a) 3.3 kV

(b) 6.6 kV

(c) 11 kV
(d) 33 kV

Ans: d

19. The operating voltage of extra high

tension cables is upto

(a) 6.6 kV

(b) 11 kV

(c) 33 kV

(d) 66 kV

(e) 132 kV

Ans: d

20. Which of the following methods is

used for laying of underground cables ?

(a) Direct laying

(b) Draw-in-system

(c) Solid system

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

21. Which of the following is the source of

heat generation in the cables ?

(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation

(b) losses in the conductor

(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and

armourings

(d) All of the above

Ans:

22. Due to which of the following reasons

the cables should not be operated too hot ?

(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it

may start drawing off from higher levels

(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the

sheath to burst

(c) Unequal expansion may create voids

in the insulation which will lead to

ionization

(d) The thermal instability may rise due to

the rapid increase of dielectric losses with

temperature

(e) All of the above

Ans: e

23. Which of the following D.C.

distribution system is the simplest and

lowest in first cost ?

(a) Radial system

(b) Ring system

(c) Inter-connected system

(d) None of the above

Ans: a

24. A booster is a

(a) series wound generator

(b) shunt wound generator

(c) synchronous generator

(d) none of the above

Ans: a
25. Besides a method of trial and error,

which of the following methods is employed

for solution of network problems

in interconnected system ?

(a) Circulating current method

(b) Thevenin's theorem

(c) Superposition of currents

(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws

(e) All of the above

Ans: e

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26. Which of the following faults is most

likely to occur in cables ?

(a) Cross or short-circuit fault

(b) Open circuit fault

(c) Breakdown of cable insulation

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

27. The cause of damage to the lead sheath

of a cable is

(a) crystallisation of the lead through

vibration

(b) chemical action on the lead when

buried in the earth

(c) mechanical damage

(d) all of the above

Ans: d

28. The voltage of the single phase supply

to residential consumers is

(a) 110 V

(b) 210 V

(c) 230 V

(d) 400 V

Ans: c

29. Most of the high voltage transmission

lines in India are

(a) underground

(b) overhead

(c) either of the above

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

30. The distributors for residential areas

are

(a) single phase

(b) three-phase three wire

(c) three-phase four wire

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

31. The conductors of the overhead lines

are

(a) solid

(b) stranded

(c) both solid and stranded

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

32. High voltage transmission lines use

(a) suspension insulators

(b) pin insulators

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of the above

Ans: a

33. Multicore cables generally use

(a) square conductors

(b) circular conductors

(c) rectangular conductors

(d) sector-shaped conductors

(e) none of the above

Ans: d

34. Distribution lines in India generally

use

(a) wooden poles

(b) R.C.C. poles

(c) steel towers

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

35. The material commonly used for

insulation in high voltage cables is

(a) lead

(b) paper

(c) rubber

(d) none of the above

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Ans: b

36. The loads on distributors systems are

generally

(a) balanced

(b) unbalanced

(c) either of the above

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

37. The power factor of industrial loads is

generally

(a) unity

(b) lagging

(c) leading
(d) zero

Ans: b

38. Overhead lines generally use

(a) copper conductors

(b) all aluminium conductors

(c) A.C.S.R. conductors

(d) none of these

Ans: c

39. In transmission lines the cross-arms

are made of

(a) copper

(b) wood

(c) R.C.C.

(d) steel

Ans: d

40. The material generally used for armour

of high voltage cables is

(a) aluminium

(b) steel

(c) brass

(d) copper

Ans: b

41. Transmission line insulators are made

of

(a) glass

(b) porcelain
(c) iron

(d) P.V.C.

Ans: b

42. The material commonly used for

sheaths of underground cables is

(a) lead

(b) rubber

(c) copper

(d) iron

Ans: a

43. The minimum clearance between the

ground and a 220 kV line is about

(a) 4.3 m

(b) 5.5 m

(c) 7.0 m

(d) 10.5 m

Ans: c

44. The spacing between phase conductors

of a 220 kV line is approximately equal to

(a) 2 m

(b) 3.5 m

(c) 6 m

(d) 8.5 m

Ans: c

45. Large industrial consumers are

supplied electrical energy at

(a) 400 V
(b) 11 kV

(c) 66 kV

(d) 400 kV

Ans: c

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46. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system,

balancer fields are cross-connected in order

to

(a) boost the generated voltage

(b) balance loads on both sides of the

neutral

(c) make both machine^ run as unloaded

motors

(d) equalize voltages on the positive and

negative outers

Ans: d

47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using

balancers and having unequal loads on the

two sides

(a) both balancers run as generators

(b) both balancers run as motors

(c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded

side runs as a motor

(d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded

side runs as a motor

Ans: c

48. Transmitted power remaining the

same, if supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire

feeder is increased 100 percent, saving in

copper is

(a) 25 percent

(b) 50 percent

(c) 75 percent

(d) 100 percent

Ans: b

49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is

fed at both ends with equal voltages. As

compared to a similar distributor fed at one

end only, the drop at the middle point is

(a) one-fourth

(b) one-third

(c) one-half

(d) twice

(e) none of the above

Ans: a

50. As compared to a 2-wire D.C.

distributor, a 3-wire distributor with same

maximum voltage to earth uses only

(a) 31.25 percent of copper

(b) 33.3 percent of copper

(c) 66.7 percent of copper

(d) 125 percent of copper

Ans: a

51. Which of the following is usually not

the generating voltage ?

(a) 6.6 kV

(b) 8.8 kV

(c) 11 kV

(d) 13.2 kV

Ans: b

52. For an overhead line, the surge

impedance is taken as

(a) 20-30 ohms

(b) 70—80 ohms

(c) 100—200 ohms

(d) 500—1000 ohms

(e) none of the above

Ans: c

53. The presence of ozone due to corona is

harmful because it

(a) reduces power factor

(b) corrodes the material

(c) gives odour

(d) transfer energy to the ground

(e) none of the above

Ans: b

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54. A feeder, in a transmission system,

feeds power to

(a) distributors

(b) generating stations

(c) service mains

(d) all of the above

Ans: a

55. The power transmitted will be

maximum when

(a) corona losses are minimum

(b) reactance is high

(c) sending end voltage is more

(d) receiving end voltage is more

Ans: c

56. A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly

used on

(a) primary transmission

(b) secondary transmission

(c) primary distribution

(d) secondary distribution

Ans: d

57. Which of the following materials is

used for overhead transmission lines ?

(a) Steel cored aluminium

(b) Galvanised steel

(c) Cadmium copper

(d) Any of the above

Ans: d

58. Which of the following is not a

constituent for making porcelain insulators ?

(a) Quartz

(b) Kaolin

(c) Felspar

(d) Silica

Ans: d

59. There is a greater possibility of

occurence of corona during

(a) dry weather

(b) winter

(c) summer heat

(d) humid weather

(e) none of the above

Ans: d

60. Which of the following relays is used

on long transmission lines ?

(a) Impedance relay

(b) Mho's relay

(c) Reactance relay

(d) None of the above

Ans: b

61. The steel used in steel cored

conductors is usually

(a) alloy steel

(b) stainless steel

(c) mild steel

(d) high speed steel

(e) all of the above

Ans: c

62. Which of the following distribution

systems is more reliable ?

(a) Radial system

(b) Tree system

(c) Ring main system

(d) All are equally reliable

Ans: c

63. Which of the following characteristics

should the line supports for transmission

lines possess ?

(a) Low cost

(b) High mechanical strength

(c) Longer life

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(d) All of the above

Ans: d

64. Transmission voltage of llkV is

normally used for distances upto

(a) 20—25 km

(b) 40—50 km

(c) 60—70 km

(d) 80—100 km

Ans: a

65. Which of the following regulations is

considered best?

(a) 50%

(b) 20%

(c) 10%

(d) 2%

Ans: d

66. Skin effect is proportional to

(a) (conductor diameter)

(b) (conductor diameter)

(c) (conductor diameter)

(d) (conductor diameter)

(e) none of the above

Ans: c

67. A conductor, due to sag between two

supports, takes the form of

(a) semi-circle

(b) triangle

(c) ellipse

(d) catenary

Ans: d

68. In AC.S.R. conductors, the insulation

between aluminium and steel conductors is

(a) insulin

(b) bitumen

(c) varnish

(d) no insulation is required

Ans: d

69. Which of the followingbus-bar

schemes has the lowest cost ?

(a) Ring bus-bar scheme

(b) Single bus-bar scheme

(c) Breaker and a half scheme

(d) Main and transfer scheme

Ans: b

70. Owing to skin effect

(a) current flows through the half cross-

section of the conductor

(b) portion of the conductor near the surface

carries more current and core of the

conductor carries less current

(c) portion of the conductor near the surface

carries less current and core of the conductor

carries more current

(d) any of the above

(e) none of the above

Ans: b

71. By which of the following methods

string efficiency can be improved ?

(a) Using a guard ring

(b) Grading the insulator

(c) Using long cross arm

(d) Any of the above

(e) None of the above

Ans: d

72. In aluminium conductors, steel core is

provided to

(a) compensate for skin effect

(b) neutralise proximity effect

(c) reduce line inductance

(d) increase the tensile strength

Ans: d
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73. By which of the following a bus-bar is

rated ?

(a) Current only

(b) Current and voltage

(c) Current, voltage and frequency

(d) Current, voltage, frequency and short

time current

Ans: d

74. A circuit is disconnected by isolators

when

(a) line is energized

(b) there is no current in the line

(c) line is on full load

(d) circuit breaker is not open

Ans: b

75. For which of the following equipment

current rating is not necessary ?

(a) Circuit breakers

(b) Isolators

(c) Load break switch

(d) Circuit breakers and load break

switches

Ans: b

76. In a substation the following

equipment is not installed

(a) exciters

(b) series capacitors

(c) shunt reactors

(d) voltatre transformers

Ans: a

77. jCorona usually occurs when the

electrostatic stress in air around the

conductor exceeds

(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm

(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm

(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm

(d) 30 kV (maximum v^lue)/cm

Ans: d

78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage

transmission is compensated by installing

(a) inductors

(b) capacitors

(c) synchronous motors

(d) all of above

(e) none of the above

Ans: c
79. The use of strain type insulators is

made where the conductors are

(a) dead ended

(b) at intermediate anchor towers

(c) any of the above

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

80. The current drawn by the line due to

corona losses is

(a) non-sinusoidal

(b) sinusoidal

(c) triangular

(d) square

Ans: a

81. Pin type insulators are generally not

used for voltages beyond

(a) 1 kV

(b) 11 kV

(c) 22 kV

(d) 33 kV

Ans: d

82. Aluminium has a specific gravity of

(a) 1.5

(b) 2.7

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(c) 4.2

(d) 7.8

Ans: b

83. For transmission of power over a

distance of 200 km, the transmission voltage

should be

(a) 132 kV

(b) 66 kV

(c) 33 kV

(d) 11 kV

Ans: a

84. For aluminium, as compared to copper,

all the following factors have higher values

except

(a) specific volume

(6) electrical conductivity

(c) co-efficient of linear expansion

(d) resistance per unit length for same cross-

section

Ans: b

85. Which of the following equipment, for

regulating the voltage in distribution feeder,

will be most economical ?

(a) Static condenser

(b) Synchronous condenser

(c) Tap changing transformer

(d) Booster transformer

Ans: d

86. In a tap changing transformer, the

tappings are provided on

(a) primary winding

(b) secondary winding

(c) high voltage winding

(d) any of the above

Ans: b

87. Constant voltage transmission entails

the following disadvantage

(a) large conductor area is required for

same power transmission

(b) short-circuit current of the system is

increased

(c) either of the above

(d) none of the above

Ans: b

88. On which of the following factors skin

effect depends ?

(a) Frequency of the current

(b) Size of the conductor

(c) Resistivity of the conductor material

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

89. The effect of corona can be detected

by

(a) presence of zone detected by odour

(b) hissing sound

(c) faint luminous glow of bluish colour

(d) all of the above

Ans: d

90. For transmission of power over a

distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage

should be in the range

(a) 150 to 220 kV

(b) 100 to 120 kV

(c) 60 to 100 kV

(d) 20 to 50 kV

Ans: a

91. In the analysis of which of the

following lines shunt capacitance is

neglected ?

(a) Short transmission lines

(b) Medium transmission lines

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10

(c) Long transmission lines

(d) Medium as well as long transmission

lines

Ans: a

92. When the interconnector between two

stations has large reactance

(a) the transfer of power will take place with

voltage fluctuation and noise

(b) the transfer of power will take place with

least loss

(c) the stations will fall out of step because

of large angular displacement between the

stations

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

93. The frequency of voltage generated, in

case of generators, can be increased by

(a) using reactors

(b) increasing the load

(c) adjusting the governor

(d) reducing the terminal voltage

(e) none of the above

Ans: c
94. When an alternator connected to the

bus-bar is shut down the bus-bar voltage

will

(a) fall

(b) rise

(c) remain unchanged

(d) none of the above

Ans: c

95. The angular displacement between two

interconnected stations is mainly due to

(a) armature reactance of both alternators

(b) reactance of the interconnector

(c) synchronous reactance of both the

alternators

(d) all of the above

Ans: a

96. Electro-mechanical voltage regulators

are generally used in

(a) reactors

(b) generators

(c) transformers

(d) all of the above

Ans: b

97. Series capacitors on transmission lines

are of little use when the load VAR

requirement is
(a) large

(b) small

(b) fluctuating

(d) any of the above

Ans: b

98. The voltage regulation in magnetic

amplifier type voltage regulator is effected

by

(a) electromagnetic induction

(b) varying the resistance

(c) varying the reactance

(d) variable transformer

Ans: c

99. When a conductor carries more current

on the surface as compared to core, it is due

to

(a) permeability variation

(b) corona

(c) skin effect

(d) unsymmetrical fault

(e) none of the above

Ans: c

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100. The following system is not generally

used

(a) 1-phase 3 wire

(b) 1-phase 4 wire

(c) 3-phase 3 wire

(d) 3-phase 4 wire

Ans: a

101. The skin effect of a conductor will

reduce as the

(a) resistivity of conductor material

increases

(b) permeability of conductor material

increases

(c) diameter increases

(d) frequency increases

Ans: a

102. When a live conductor of public

electric supply breaks down and touches the

earth which of the following will happen ?

(a) Current will flow to earth

(b) Supply voltage will drop

(c) Supply voltage will increase

(d) No current will flow in the conductor

(e) None of the above

Ans: a
Department of EEE MCQ for Regulations

1. In load flow analysis, the load connected at a bus is represented as ( )

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a. Constant current drawn from the bus

b. Constant impedance connected at the bus

c. Voltage and frequency dependent source at the bus

d. Constant real and reactive drawn from the bus

Ans c

2. Two power plants A and B are inter connected by a ( )

a. Long line b.short line c.both d.none

Ans d

3.In the single area case we could thus represent the frequency deviations by the ( )

a. Single variable b.two variable

b. Three variable d.four variable

Ans.a

3. Power transmitted from the area 1 is equation ( )

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a. A.power equation b.torque

b. C.current d.all

Ans.a

4. All quantities other than frequency are in ( )

a.p.u b.apm d.volt d.ohm Ans.a

UNIT-2

1.. Shunt capacitors ( )

a. Fixed capacitor is connected across a load

b. At a consumers premises c. both d. none

Ans.c

3. An excitation system should have ( )

a. Low time constant b. high transient response c. high reliability d. all the above

Ans.d

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4. A power system needs injection of VARS ( )

a. At peak load b. at off-peak load c. both (a) & (b) none

Ans.c

5. The change in reactive power at a bus have a great effect on the voltage magnitude ( )

a. Of that bus b. of distant busses c. of all the busses d. none

Ans.a

5.The injection of reactive power is needed ( )

a. To get a good voltage profile b. to increase the voltage at the receiving end
b. To compensate for line losses. D. to supply a part of active power requirement of the

load. Ans.a

UNIT-3

1. Equality constraints are ( )

a. Generator constrains b. Current constraints

b. Magnetic constraints d. none of the above Ans a

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2. Heat rate curve is defined as ( )

a. Fuel i/p to the power o/p b.Power o/p to the fuel i/p

b. Both d.none of the above

Ans a

3. Optimal operation of generator is ( )

a.To maximize the total cost b.To minimize the total cost
c. Both d.all the above

Ans c

4. The fuel cost is included in ( )

a. Annual fived cost b. Annual operating cost c.. Both (a) & (b) d. None Ans.b

5. The penalty factor ( )

a. Is always less than 1. B.is always more than 1 c. may be more or less than 1. D. is

equal to 1 or less than 1.

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Ans .b

UNIT -4

1. Operation of the system the having ( )

a. Hydro b.Thermal

c.both d.none
Ans.c

2. The hydroelectric project consists of ( )

a. Body of water impounded by a dam b. body of water impounded by a station

c.both d.All of the above

Ans.a

3. The water level bay is influenced by flow out of the ( )

a.reservoir b.dam

c.hydroplant d.none

Ans: b

1. In load flow analysis, the load connected at a bus is represented as ( )

a. Constant current drawn from the bus

b. Constant impedance connected at the bus

c. Voltage and frequency dependent source at the bus

d. constant real and reactive drawn from the bus

Ans c

2. Two power plants A and B are inter connected by a ( )

a. long line b.short line c.both d.none

Ans d
3.In the single area case we could thus represent the frequency deviations by the ( )

a. single variable b.two variable

c. three variable d.four variable

Ans.a

4. Power transmitted from the area 1 is equation ( )

a. a.power equation b.torque

c. c.current d.all

Ans.a

5. All quantities other than frequency are in ( )

a.p.u b.apm d.volt d.ohm Ans.a

UNIT-2

1.. Shunt capacitors ( )

a. fixed capacitor is connected across a load

b. at a consumers premises c. both d. none

Ans.c

2. An excitation system should have ( )

a. low time constant b. high transient response c. high reliability d. all the above

Ans.d

3. A power system needs injection of VARS ( )

a. at peak load b. at off-peak load c. both (a) & (b) none

Ans.c

4. The change in reactive power at a bus have a great effect on the voltage magnitude ( )

a. of that bus b. of distant busses c. of all the busses d. none

Ans.a

5.The injection of reactive power is needed ( )

a. to get a good voltage profile b. to increase the voltage at the receiving end

c. to compensate for line losses. D. to supply a part of active power requirement of the load.
Ans.a

UNIT-3

1. Equality constraints are ( )

a. Generator constrains b. Current constraints

c. magnetic constraints d. none of the above

Ans a

2. Heat rate curve is defined as ( )

a. Fuel i/p to the power o/p b.Power o/p to the fuel i/p

b. Both d.none of the above

Ans a

3. Optimal operation of generator is ( )

a.To maximize the total cost b.To minimize the total cost

c. Both d.all the above

Ans c

4. The fuel cost is included in ( )

a. Annual fived cost b. Annual operating cost c.. Both (a) & (b) d. None

Ans.b

5. The penalty factor ( )

a. is always less than 1. b.is always more than 1 c. may be more or less than 1.

d. is equal to 1 or less than 1.

Ans .b

UNIT -4

1. Operation of the system the having ( )

a. Hydro b.Thermal

c.both d.none

Ans.c
2. The hydroelectric project consists of ( )

a. body of water impounded by a dam b. body of water impounded by a station

c.both d.All of the above

Ans.a

3. The water level bay is influenced by flow out of the ( )

a.reservoir b.dam

c.hydroplant d.none

Ans: b

4. The run off river plants have very high firm capacity ( )

a. True b. False

Ans.b

5. The units for heat rate are ( )

a. k cal/kwh b.kwh/k cal c.k cal/hour d.kw

Ans.a