LICENSURE

EXAMINATION for
TEACHERS
COMPETENCY-BASED PRACTICE TEST
IN
PHYSICAL EDUCATION, HEALTH, MUSIC AND ARTS

BY:
PROF. LORDINIO A. VERGARA

2011

LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS

REFRESHER COURSE 2011
St. Louis Review Center
Davao City

PRACTICE TEST IN PHYSICAL EDUCATION

I- FOUNDATIONS OF PHYSICAL EDUCATION

1. Article XIV, section 19 of the 1987 constitution says, “ The state shall promote physical education and sports and encourage
sports programs and league competitions.” What is the implication of this constitutional mandate?
a. Physical Education is an important subject in the curriculum and its promotion is a function of the government.
b. Physical Education is not an optional subject.
c. Physical Education should be separated from sports programs and league competitions.
d. Physical Education is a dynamic tool for professional competition.

2. Who was the philosopher that emphasized the importance of Physical Education in attaining health?
a. Plato c. Aristotle
b. Socrates d. Johann Guths Muths
3. The year when Physical Education made a required subject in the curriculum of all public schools.
a. 1920 c. 1914
b. 1928 d. 1910

4. The Olympic games was revived by the Frenchman Baron Pierre de Ferdy de Coubertin in
a. 1896 c. 1898
b. 1897 d. 1900

5. When Physical Education teachers want to examine the how and want to know everything about Physical Education, they
use
a. metaphysics c. ontology
b. epistemology d. axiology

6. When we reason or argue in relation to Physical Education, we use

a. logic c. aesthetics
b. linguistics d. aesthetics

7. When the general principles of idealism are applied to the area of physical education and sport they result in which of the
following concepts?
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 a. Physical Education and Sport involves more than the physical.
b. The curriculum of Physical Education should be varied to provide the diversity of experiences for learning.
c. Physical activity is important for the development of the total person.
d. Physical Education activities provide opportunities for students to develop self-awareness and self-responsibility.

8. When the physical education teacher serves as a counselor, promotes reflective thinking while allowing students to make
choices and deal responsibly with the consequences of those choices, the PE teacher follows what philosophy?

a. Realism c. Idealism
b. Naturalism d. Existentialism
9. When Physical Education teacher seeks to determine the nature of values in Physical Education, he uses
a. ontology c. metaphysics
b. axiology d.epistemology

10. The physical world is the central focus of the philosophy of realism. Which of the following does not support the idea of
realism in relation to physical education?

I – Education is for life

II – Physical Education should focus to the development of the total person
III – Physical Education is valuable because of its contribution to health
IV – Physical Education involves more than the physical

a. IV only
b. I and II
c. II and IV
d. I only

11. What applies force to the bone to create movement?

a. Muscles c. ligaments
b. tendons d. levers

12. Which organ system has, as its main function, transportation of materials to all cells of the body?
a. Circulatory (cardiovascular) system
b. Muscular system
c. Excretory system
d. Endocrine system

13. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. The metatarsals are examples of long bones.
2. Flat bones have a middle layer of spongy bone between two layers of compact bone
3. Irregular bones consist of compact bone only.

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 only

14. It controls and modulates all the activities in the body?

a. Bones c. Brain
b. Heart d. Muscles

15. The lymphatic system has the important function (s) of

a. returning fluid and proteins to the blood circulation system
b. controlling body temperature by evaporation of sweat
c. manufacturing all of the white blood cells.
d. transporting fluids out to, and back from, the body tissues.

16. . In addition to unique contributions in the area of fitness and skill development, physical education is also concerned with
a. cognitive learning c. self-concept
b. affective learning d. all of the above

17. In order to develop positive attitudes in Physical Education, students should encourage observing the conventions of
fair play, honest competition and good sporting behavior. The outcomes of these objectives are

a. personal and social development c.personal and emotional development

b. personal and physical development d. personal and mental development

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ORGANIZATION, ADMINISTRATION AND SUPERVISION OF PHYSICAL EDUCATION
1. Which of the following objectives were enhanced through participation in the intramural program resulted from the
knowledge learned from the regular class program in physical education.
1. Health objectives
2. Social Objectives
3. Skill Objectives

A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only

2. One of the factors that is not consider for effective administration of intramural activities is
A. testing for purposes of study and research.
B. conference of coaches and officials.
C. ground rules to serve as guidelines.
D. funds to run the competition.

3. Which of the following is an objective of intramural management?

A. Desirable qualities are develop
B. Contribute to the development of individual
C. Knowledge of the game is enhance
D. Nurture a healthy spirit of competition, sportsmanship and teamwork

4. The effective administration of intramural activities takes into account several factors. Which of the following factors
clarifies any aspect of the activity?
A. Ground rules to serve as guidelines for everyone
B. Funds to run the competition
C. Coaches and Managers
D. Schedule of games

5. Which of the following functions of management pertains to identifying, subdividing, grouping and coordinating the
various activities in running the intramural program?
A. Organizing C. Staffing
B. Planning D. Directing

6. Professional training in physical education is the most appropriate qualification for persons selected to provide intramural
leadership in the school setting. Which of the following competencies one must acquire?
1. Understanding of growth, psychological, and motor development of individuals
2. Knowledge of sports safety and first aid
3. Knowledge of tournament planning and methods of establishing leagues
4. A sense of fun.
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. 3 and 4

7. Which of the following is an essential quality of an official?

A. Physical Fitness C. Knowledge of the game
B. Official-Player rapport D. Physical Fitness

8. If you are given the task to run your intramural program in your school, which of the following management functions will
you apply in terms of identifying the objective to be pursued, the means to achieve it, and allocating the resources of your
program?
A. Planning C. Controlling
B. Directing D. Staffing

9. Intramural games are part of the extra-class activities of students. Which type of tournament must be used if the best team
is expected to win the championship?
A. Round Robin C. Double Elimination
B. Single Elimination D. Ladder Type

10. In identifying the number of games to be played, what formula should be used for a single round robin type of
tournament?
A. N (N-1)/2 C. G=N-1
B. 2 (10-1) D. (N-1) 2

11. What basic formula determines the number of byes?

A. P2-N C. G=N-1
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 B. (N-1) 2 D. N (N-1)/2

12. How many numbers of byes are there in a double elimination tournament when there are 9 teams competing?
A. 7 C. 4
B. 2 D. 6

13. It is the type of tournament being use when there are big number of participants and less number of facilities and time
available.
A. Single Elimination C. Round Robing
B. Double Elimination D. Pyramid

14. The formula for getting the total number of games in double elimination is
A. 2 (N-1) C. N-1
B. N(N-1)/2 D. N(N-2

15. When there are 6 teams competing in a double elimination tournament, the number of byes in the first round is
A. 2 C. 6
B. 4 D. 8

16. Which of these systems is used to resolve a tie between two teams?
A. win-over-the other C. quotient system
B. win-lose system D. point system

17. What is the primary reason that a manager or director should conduct a needs assessment?

A. To determine the specific needs and interests of the target market.

B. To determine the quality of potential applicant for a position that could be hire in the area
C. To determine the needs of management before developing the budgets
D. To determine the need for new or different equipment.

18. Program description, resource availability, and student interest are examples of
A. a business plan C. budget categories
B. a survey D. management factors.

19. The training of athletes involves a program that takes into consideration the principles of progression, overload and
specificity. Which of the following aspects of training does not take care of these principles?
A. conditioning exercises C. psychology of coaching
B. warm-up variations D. rigid training

20. Which of the following committees take the initial planning in an athletic meet?
A. Organizing committee C. Committee on arrangements
B. Equipment committee D. Finance committee

INDIVIDUAL/DUAL AND TEAM SPORTS

1. From what game is the modern game of badminton thought to have developed?
A. Poona C. tennis
B. ping pong D. squash

2. What was the original type of basket used for basketball?

A. peach basket C. sewing basket
B. fish basket D. trash basket

3. From what social group did tennis originate?

A. royalty C. middle class
B. peasants D. blue collar

4. In what year was softball begun?

A. 1887 C. 1895
B. 1870 D. 1880

5. What equipment is worn by the catcher in softball for safety?

A. Mask and body protector C. Mask and Mitt
B. Glove and uniform d. Spikes and mask

6. The official court for singles game in badminton measures 44 ft. long x 17 ft. wide while in doubles game measures
A. 44 ft. long x 20 ft. wide C. 42 ft. long x 20 ft. wide
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 B. 40 ft. long x 22 ft. wide D. 44 ft. long x 22 ft. wide

7. What portion of the body provides most of the power in badminton strokes?
A. wrist C. shoulder
B. arm D. trunk

8. In swimming, why should the feet stay under water when kicking?
A. to give maximum strength
B. to give maximum force
C. to give maximum speed
D. to give maximum buoyancy

9. In running event, the athlete should keep his hand loosely crippled in order to
A. face himself evenly.
B. increase speed.
C. out run others.
D. avoid tension in his arms.
11. What running form differentiates a long distance runner from sprinter?
a. Long distance runner carries the arm higher.
b. Long distance runner takes longer stride.
c. Long distance runner leans forward more.
d. Long distance runner lands with the heel of the foot.

12. In badminton, why do most beginners swing too fast in an attempt to contact the shuttle?
a. shuttle normally drops slightly slower than other objects with which they have dealt
b. forefinger is up the shaft and triggers the stroke
c. racket is very light thereby making a speedier action during the swing than one expects
d. thumb is up the shaft of the racket is greater than similar equipment used in other sports.

13. In a basketball game with time remaining down to 3 seconds, team A is behind by 2 points with ball possessions, the player
of team A who is about to in bound the ball spotted a team mate near the opponents basket all alone. What is the pass
that he should execute in order for the receiver to be able to shoot the ball within the remaining time?
A. Baseball pass C. Bounce Pass
B. Chest Pass D. Overhead Pass

14. In a game basketball, finding himself all alone in the front court, player A attempts a lay-up shot with the right hand after
receiving the pass from a team mate and it was done perfectly. What is meant by perfect lay-up shot?
a. at no time are two hands at the ball
b. the take off is from both feet, body facing squarely the basket
c. the hand carrying the ball is placed in from of the body aligned with the waist.
d. the take off is from the left foot, the right knee lifting up to give additional height.

15. What is the common error of a beginner in softball in throwing the ball?
a. steps in the direction of the throw
b. tends to bring the elbow in close to the trunk
c. throws the ball from the position in which he fields the ball
d. fingers the ball

16. In softball fielding skills, the player must execute the proper mechanic of the skill involved so as to make a good play
against the opponent. If the execution of the mechanic is not followed correctly there is a possibility of losing the game.
Which of the following is a mechanic of fielding?
a. on receiving a throw to his right, the first baseman tags the base with his left foot
b. the batter attempts to hit the ball ahead of the runner on “hit an run” play
c. preliminary to pitching, the pitcher stands with one foot on and one foot off the rubber
d. in executing a hook slide to the right side, player tags the bas with his right toe

17. What would be desirable in executing the crawl stroke?

a. keep elbow higher than the hand on entry
b. keep hips low in water
c. keep ankles and feet tense
d. keep leg stiff

18. In table tennis, a stroke in which the lower part of the ball is hit with a downward stroke of the paddle, imparting backspin
to the ball is called
A. chop shot C. push shot
B. block shot d. top spin shot

19. In tennis, which is the best forehand grip and why?

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 a. Unorthodox – because one may use the same grip for the backhand also
b. Eastern – because this position of the hand is more natural
c. Continental – because the open racket face allow one to lift the ball
d. Orthodox – because the closed racket face allows one to handle the high bounce of the ball

20. In volleyball, what elements constitute a successful attack hit?

a. good reception, good toss, and a hard spike
b. good toss, nice tips, and good deception
c. good reception, good toss, and a nice tip
d. good reception, nice toss, and a control spike

21. In table tennis, the stroke that starts from nearly shoulder height, hitting the forward and downward flight of the ball is
called
A. Forehand drive C. Forehand topspin
B. Backhand drive D. Backhand chop

22. In volleyball, how should a player’s body be positioned in preparing to hit a forearm pass?
A. The player’s right shoulder and arm should be in line with the intended target.
B. The player’s right shoulder and arm should be in line with the approaching ball.
C. The midline of the player’s body should be in line with the intended target.
D. The midline of the player’s body should be in line with the approaching ball.

23. What factor explains why it is difficult to stop suddenly while running?
a. Acceleration is too great.
b. Momentum is too great.
c. Inertia is acting on the body.
d. A counterforce cannot be developed quickly enough.

24. In relay races the runner passes the baton to his teammate, what happens if the baton falls?
a. the runner who drops the baton must pick-up the baton
b. the baton may be pick-up by the passer or the receiver
c. the passer must pick-up the baton
d. the receiver must pick-up the baton

25. In badminton, when do players on the serving side change from one service court to the other?
a. when the serving side score a point
b. after each serve made by the serving side
c. each time the opponent change side
d. after each serve is lost

26. In basketball, a foul is committed against a player who is able to make the goal in spite of the fouls. Does the shot count?
a. Yes, a free throw is awarded
b. Yes, the other team takes the ball out of bounds
c. No, a jump ball is called
d. No, a free throw is awarded

27. Player A is cutting for the basket and runs into Player B who has established a guarding position. What is the official’s
decision?
A. charging on Player A C. charging on Player B
B. blocking on Player B D. blocking on Player A

28. On the first pitch, the batter hits a foul ball that goes shoulder high and is caught by the catcher. What is the ruling?
a. A strike is called.
b. The batter is out automatically.
c. The catcher may tag the runner out.
d. The batter may try to beat the catcher’s throw first.

29. What must a substitute in volleyball do before entering a game?

a. Report to the scorer
b. Report to the second referee.
c. Report to the first referee
d. Report to table officials

30. In volleyball, what choices does the winner of the toss coin have?
a. First serve or an area of that game
b. First serve in the first or second game
c. First serve and an area of that game
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 d. First serve in the first and second game

31. In the 3,000 m steeplechase event, how many jumps from the hurdles and water jumps a competitor must execute to
complete the race?
A. 28 hurdles and 7 water jumps C. 24 hurdles and 10 water jumps
B. 26 hurdles and 8 water jumps D. 27 hurdles and 6 water jumps

32. In soccer, how is the game begun?

A. with a kickoff C. with a drop ball
B. with a face-off D. with a goal kick

33. How is the goalkeeper in soccer distinguishable from the other players on a team?
A. different uniform C. stays in the goal area
B. goalkeeper padding and equipment D. stays in the penalty area

34. How long should an exerciser wait after eating a meal before working out?
A. 2 hours C. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes D. no wait necessary

35. The recommended way to increase flexibility in a safe manner is through a carefully planned activity. Which among the
exercises is the safest?
A. static stretching C. ballistic stretching
B. rapid stretching D. bouncing

36. The recommended solution to decrease body fats include

a. diet
b. increase physical activity
c. medical guidance

i. 1 and 2
ii. 1 and 3
iii. 2 and 3
iv. 1, 2, and 3

37. Progressive resistance is applied when the muscles becomes stronger as they work against a corresponding grater
resistance. Which of the following approaches does not contribute to this method of increasing strength?
A. daily and simple exercises
B. heavy resistance exercises using weight training
C. specific exercises against body weight as in pull-ups
D. vigorous athletic performance

38. Interval training is one of the most effective training approaches in the preparation of athletes. Which of the practices
contributes to this type of training?
A. medium to high intensity and vice versa for each activity
B. continuous performance of an activity
C. untimed and unlimited training activity
D.any activity desired and enjoyed by the performer

PHILIPPINE FOLK, ETHNIC AND FOREIGN DANCES

1. Mr. Rioflorido instructed his students to do the kumintang. What will be the correct movement execution of his students in doing
the kumintang?
A. The students will move their hand from the wrist in a clockwise or counterclockwise direction.
B. The students will move their hand from the elbow in a clockwise or counterclockwise direction.
C. The students will move their hand from the shoulder in a clockwise or counterclockwise direction.
D. The students will move their hand from the upper extremities in a clockwise or counterclockwise direction.

2. The class of Mr. Cruz is dancing the Polkabal. One of the basic steps in the dance is the contraganza. If Mr. Cruz will demonstrate
the step pattern of the dance step, which of the following will show the correct movement pattern?
A. Cross-step, close, step C. Slide, cut, cut
B. Leap, cross-step, step D. step, close, step

3. The music is in 4/4 time signature and the step pattern used is step R sideward, close L to R, step R sideward, hop on R, swing the
L foot in front. What foreign dance step is being described?
A. Rheilander C. Minuet
B. Varsouvienne D. Prysiadka

4. Of the following patterns of movements, the one that best describes the mazurka step is
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 A. hop, cut, and slide C. slide, slide, hop
B. hop, slide, close D. slide, cut, hop

5. Each of the following pairs of folk dance steps can be performed in combination except the
A. waltz balance and paso español C. polka and mazurka
B. waltz and redoba D. cross waltz and step, swing, hop

6. Common among rural or countryside dances are the use of implements in their dance. They offer the glass of wine, a hanky, a
hat, or even their own hands to somebody as a sign of invitation or love. This characterize to a dance term means
A. salok C. hapay
B. sarok D. bilao

7. King June Four is demonstrating the movement of hayon-hayon. Which of the following is the correct movement pattern that
King June Four will show?
A. He will place his one forearm in front and the other at the back of his waist.
B. He will cross his arms in front and open it to second position.
C. He will place both his arms at one side.
D. He will scoop his one arm up to fifth position.

8. Mark Christian is instructed by his PE teacher to turn to the girl at his left and takes her L hand in his L hand and turns her once
around counterclockwise, then both falling back to places. The movement performed by Mark Christian is called?
A. Allemande Left C. Buzz Step
B. Allemande Right D. Elbow swing

9. Three small steps forward on the balls of the feet, point L (R) infront and bring heel of the R down is the step pattern of
A. Prysiadka Step C. Rubber Legs
B Minuet Step D. Dutch Step

10. An Ibanag dance term wherein the dancers turn their hands from the wrist halfway clockwise then raise and lower wrist
once or twice.
A. bilao C. masiwak
B. hapay D. kumintang

11. This dance term is executed by swinging the arm downward passing infront of the body as if scooping with the trunk
bending forward following the movement of the arm.
A. salok C. hayon-hayon
B. swing D. sarok

12. Two people walk toward each other, pass by right shoulder, step sideward to the right and return to position walking
backward, passing left shoulder.
A. cross over C. counterclockwise
B. do-si-do D. clockwise

13. Which of the following dance steps has eight measures?

A. sagamantica C. bacui
B. chotis D. haplik

14. Which of the following is a visayan dance term?

A. Sarok C. Salok
B. Jaleo D. Bilao

15. It is called the unit of formation

A. set C. home position
B. costados D. cabeceras

16. Romeo is instructed by his PE teacher to do the habanera step. The step pattern that he will use is step, close, step and the
counting to follow is
A. 1 2 C. 1 2 and
B. 1 and 2 D. 1 2 3

17. Gelo is performing a sway balance with a waltz in his dance class. The counting that he will use when doing the sway
balance with a waltz is
A. 1,2 3/1 2 3 C. 1,2 3/ 1,2 3
B. 1,2 3/ 1 2,3 D. 1,2 3/ 1,2,3

18. Mr. Perez asked his students to do a combination of the following dance steps; change step, heel and toe change step,
polka, heel and toe polka. He advises his students to get a folk dance music to accompany the combinations. What time
signature the students will look for?
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 A. 2/4 time music C. 4/4 time music
B. ¾ time music D. 6/8 time music

19. Sway balance, waltz, mazurka and kuradang are found in many Philippine folk dances. What time signature is used in all
these steps?

A. 2/4 time C. 4/4 time

B. ¾ time D. 6/8 time

20. What is the rhythm pattern of schottische?

a. uneven c. broken
b. even d. syncopated

21. Which of the following folk dances can be performed in 3 4 time music?
1. Cariñosa
2. Pandanggo sa ilaw
3. Polka sa Nayon
4. Tiklos
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 only

22. Which steps have the same time signature?

a. polka and redoba
b. change step and waltz balance
c. pas de basque and hopsa
d. d. mazurka and minuet

23. Of the following folk dances, which has a combined rhythm?

a. Alitaptap
b. Maglalatik
c. Abaruray
d. Los Bailes de Ayer

24. You are teaching your class to dance the Arkadsky, an energetic and vigorous Russian dance for boys. The basic dance step
that you will teach to your class is the Russian Polka with the step pattern of heel-brush, heel-step close, step and the
correct counting to accompany the step is
a. and 1 and 2 c. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 2 and d. ah 1 and ah 2

25. A work-dance of Kalinga women where they carry baskets on their heads.
A. Ragragsakan C. Bumayah
B. Idudu D. Bendian

26. One of the following associations is incorrect

A. Mangyan dances of Nueva Viscaya C. Cordillera dances of Luzon
B. Tausug dances of Mindanao D. Ibanag dances of Cagayan

27. It is a samal dance class of noble women which show off women’s dexterity and flexibility of the shoulders, elbows and
wrist joints.
A. Janggay C. Maglanka
B. Sua-Sua D. Kandingan

28. The national dance of the Philippines

A. Cariñosa C. Rigodon
B. Singkil D. Tinikling

29. This is a dance among the Maranaos which displays the women’s simplicity and elegant walk with the use of beautifully
decorated umbrellas.
A. Kinakulangan C. Pag-aper
B. Kapamalong D. Sagayan

30.Palawan’s famous ceremonial rite of healing the sick, imploring and thanksgiving for a good and bountiful harvest.
A. Sohten C. Binaylan
B. Blit-Blaan D. Pagdidiwata

31. A quadrille dance from Tayabas, Quezon performed by old folks during the early days.
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 A.Lanceros de Tayabas C. Rigodon
B. Pasakat D. Birginia

32. A dance performed after the Lutrina, a religious procession.

A. Balse Marikina C. Sayaw Sta. Isabel
B. Valse Vieja D. Valse Ybanag

33. Which of the following folk dances are classified as ceremonial dances?

1. Dugso
2. Putong
3. Pandang-Pandang
4. Daling-Daling

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 4 only
34. A humorous dance of Holland depicting how the boy teasingly ask a bite from an apple.
A. Dutch Couple Dance C. Oyda
B. Kalvelis D. Barbary Bell

35. Which of the following association is correct?

A. Csebogar – Hungary C. Highland Fling – Sweden
B. Barbary Bell - Denmark D. Danish Dance of Greetings - Germany

36. A dance which means “little coackroach”.

A. Varsouvienne C. Tarantela
B. Oyda D. Putjenter

37. Which dance is known as the supreme dance of the 18th century ?
A. Minuet C. Cotillon
B. Country dance D. Waltz

38. It is a court dance which means “ the little smith”. The clapping of the hands suggest the hammer and anvil of the
blacksmith.
A. kalvelis C. oyda
B. tarantella D. minuet

PHYSICAL FITNESS AND GYMNASTICS

1. A student’s health screening should administered prior to

A. any physical activity by the student at your facility.
B. any contact with the student.
C. fitness assessment or programming.
D. the initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.

2. Which of the following is a strategy to improve the accuracy of a fitness assessment?

A. Ensure appropriate pretest preparation of the student.
B. Ensure physician supervision of all assessments.
C. Use checklists of pretest procedures.
D. Use only certified staff.

3. When performing multiple assessments of health related fitness in a single session, resting measurements should be
allowed in order by
A. body composition, flexibility, muscular fitness, cardiorespiratory fitness.
B. cardiorespiratory fitness, flexibility, muscular fitness, body composition.
C. Cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular fitness, body composition, flexibility
D. body composition, cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular fitness, flexibility.

4. Flexibility is a measure of the

A. disease-free range of motion about a joint.
B. pain-free range of motion about a joint.
C. habitually used range of motion about a joint.
D. Effort-free range of motion about a joint.

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5. In order to maximize safety during a fitness assessment, the room layout should address which of the following issues?
A. The equipment and floor space should be arranged to allow safe exit from the facility in an emergency situation
and to prevent accidental upsetting of equipment.
B. The equipment and floor space should be arranged so that although exits are clearly marked, it is not essential for
students to be near the exit, and equipment can be moved from in front of exits in an emergency.
C. The equipment and floor space should be arranged to allow students the opportunity to move equipment away
from exits should an emergency develop.
D. Annual drills announced early in the year allow the staff to properly prepare for any type of emergency.

6. Body composition is determined by which of the following formulae?

A. Total weight – fat weight
B. Total weight – fat-free weight
C. Fat-free mass + fat mass
D. Fat weight + fat free weight

7. Physical Fitness battery test are conducted at the start of each year. What is the purpose of these tests?
A. To comply with content requirements.
B. To choose elite athletes.
C. To give grade for fitness assessment.
D. To identify the strengths and weaknesses of student.

8. The best predictor of one’s cardiorespiratory fitness is

A. the mile run C. 50 yard dash
B. 200 yard run D. 400 meter run

9. Which of the following fitness tests measure the strength of the abdominal muscles?
A. Sit-ups C. Sit and Reach
B. Flexed Arm Hang d. Shuttle Run

10. Which among these Physical Fitness Tests measure flexibility?

A. Chair push-up C. Standing Long Jump
B. . Sit and Reach D. Flexed Arm Hang

11. About certain exercises:

A. forward bending should occur from the waist.
B. sit-ups should be done with leg straight.
C. when stretching, hyperextend the knees.
D. bouncing stretches are the best.

11. The American College of Sports Medicine recommendation for intensity, duration, and frequency of physical activity for
apparently healthy individuals includes
A. intensity of 60% to 90% maximal heart rat, duration of 20 to 60 minutes, frequency of 3 to 5 days a week.
B. Intensity of 85% to 90% maximal heart rate, duration of 30 minutes, frequency of 3 days to 5 days a week.
C. Intensity of 50% to 70% maximal heart rate, duration of 15 to 45 minutes, frequency of 5 days a week.
D. Intensity of 60% to 90% maximal heart rate reserve, duration of 20 to 60 minutes, frequency of 7 days a week

12. A method of strength and power training that involves an eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed
immediately by an explosive concentric contraction is called
A. periodization
B. ployemetrics
C. super-sets
D. isotonic reversals

13. Which of the following exercise modes allows buoyancy to reduce the potential for musculoskeletal injury and even
allow injured person an opportunity to exercise without further injury?
A. Skiing B. Walking C. Water Exercise D. Cycling

14. Which of the following activities provides for the greatest improvement in aerobic fitness for someone who is beginning
an exercise program?
A. Dieting B. Downhill Skiing C. Walking D. Weight Training

15. Exercises to prepare the body for a strenuous workout

A. Warm-up C. Cool-down
B. Peak aerobics D. Isotonic exercise

16. Which of the following is a true statement about physical exercise?

A. Physical exercise usually involves repetitive movements.
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 B. Physical exercise includes only movement that results in expenditure of energy.
C. Physical exercise requires at least 10 minutes at an activity.
D. Physical exercise produces muscle stress, which leads to muscle growth.

17. Weight training programs which emphasize building muscular endurance should include
A. many repetitions with a low to moderate weight load.
B. only isokinetic exercises.
C. few repetitions with a heavy weight load.
D. only exercises exceeding 10 minutes.

18. The primary difference between aerobic exercise and anaerobic exercise is
A. demand on muscle tissue C. fatigue factor.
B. oxygen consumption. D. overload.
19.This principle states that the specific type of exercise you do determines the specific benefit you receive.
A. Principle of Specificity C. Principle of Overload
B. Principle of Progression D. Principle of Reversibility

20.Apparatus activity, stunts, and tumbling are most closely associated with
A.body management attainment
B.higher skill attainment
C. specialized skills
D. fundamental skills

21. Which of the following is not a standing position in gymnastics?

A. feet together C. half knee bend
B. full knees bend D. hurdle position

22. Stunts that test the ability of the performer to fight with other
A. combative stunts C. dual stunts
B. individual stunts D. group stunts

23. Which is not a skill in manipulating the ball in rhythmic gymnastics?

a. throwing and catching
b. tapping in different planes
c. balancing the ball on different parts of the body
d. bouncing in different surfaces

24. It is a gymnastic position where the head and knees are held in contact from curved trunk.
A. Tuck C. Hook
B. Pike D. Stride

25. It is a gymnastic position or shape when the body and legs are extended upward while the head, shoulder and the bent
elbow supports the extended body.
A. Shoulder stand C. Headstand
B. Handstand D. Stride Stand

26. Chinese get-up, Wheelbarrow, Wring the dishcloth are stunts that help develop body coordination among children.
These stunts are categorized as
A. Dual stunt C. Acrobatics
B. Individual Stunt D. Group Stunts

27. It is a gymnastic position or shape where one leg is extended forward while the other leg is extended backward with or
without hand support on the floor
A. Split C. Knee Scale
B. Front Scale D. Bridge Stand

28. What is the most essential factor when participating in gymnastics?

A. precision C. confidence
B. safety D. power

29. Which of the following tumbling skills dominantly used in any apparatus events for both men and women?
A. Handstand C. Forward Roll
B. Backward Roll D. Cartwheel

30. It is the preparatory position in backward roll where the feet are held together with knees straight and trunk bent
forward towards the legs

A. Squat C. Tuck
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 B. Pike D. Straddle

31.Which gymnastic move uses a tripod?

A. forward roll C. headstand
B. handstand D. backward roll

32. Which phrase in this descriptive statement is incorrect?

When coming out of a straddle forward roll, the performer should reach forward with the body from the hips, place
the hands close to the crotch, shoulders far out in front of the body, head tucked close to the chest, arms straight and in line
with the shoulders.
a. head tucked close to the chest
b. reach forward with the body from the hips
c. place the hands close to the crotch
d. shoulders far out in front of the body.

33. Which lead-up move should a beginning tumbler must execute before attempting for a dive forward roll?
A. backward roll C. shoulder roll
B. forward roll D. wrestle’s bridge

34. Where should be the head be placed in a forward roll?

a. with chin tucked to chest and head on mat
b. with the forehand on the mat
c. outside the hands
d. facedown on the mat

35. Choose two factors that are most crucial in executing a headstand
1. strenght
2. flexibility
3. balance
4. agility
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4

36. In which position should the knees be kept during execution of the backward roll in a tuck position?
A. pike position C. arch position
B. jackknife position D. close to the chest

37. Which of the following will likely show the correct rhythm of a cartwheel?
A. hand, hand, foot, foot C. hand, foot, hand, foot
B. foot, foot, hand, hand D. foot, hand, foot, hand

38. Your student in your gymnastic class is having a difficulty with a handstand. What exercise might help?
a. wall push-ups C. crab walk
b. duck waddle D. elephant walk

39. Which move is a lead-up to the standing backward roll

A. Handstand C. back extension
B. cartwheel D. backward roll from squat

40. What contributes most to produce good balance in a headstand?

A. a broad base of support C. the toes pointed

B. the elbows bent at a 90% angle D. the head in the same line with the hands

41. How long should an exerciser wait after eating a meal before working out?
A. 2 hours C. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes D. no wait necessary

42. The recommended way to increase flexibility is a safe manner is through a carefully planned activity. Which among the
exercises is the safest?
A. ballistic stretching C. static stretching
B. rapid stretching D. bouncing

43. The recommended solution to decrease body fats include

a. diet
b. increase physical activity
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 c. medical guidance
i. 1 and 2
ii. 1 and 3
iii. 2 and 3
iv. 1, 2, and 3

44. Progressive resistance is applied when the muscles becomes stronger as they work against a corresponding grater
resistance. Which of the following approaches does not contribute to this method of increasing strength?
A. daily and simple exercises
B. heavy resistance exercises using weight training
C. specific exercises against body weight as in pull-ups
D. vigorous athletic performance

45. Interval training is one of the most effective training approaches in the preparation of athletes. Which of the practices
contributes to this type of training?
A. medium to high intensity and vice versa for each activity
B. continuous performance of an activity
C. untimed and unlimited training activity
D.any activity desired and enjoyed by the performer

PRACTICE TEST IN HEALTH

1. Which of the following BEST strengthens the fact that a close school-community relations contribute to a successful
implementation of a school health program?
A. There are numerous voluntary health organizations.
B. Schools and organizations are both interested in the development of the human well-being.
C. Child and youth health problems affect the entire community and schools.
D. Health issues of the children are neither the sole concern of the schools nor those of the health promoting agencies.

2. The outreach program that a community takes advantage of most often is the ______ program.
A. clean and green C. waste disposal
B. literacy outreach D. nutritional

3. Who among the following is NOT a member of a school health team?

A. School administrator C. Health teacher
B. Guidance Counselor D. Parent

4. Which is the process of providing learning experiences with favorable influence on understanding, attitudes, and conduct relating to
individual and community healthy?
A. School administrator C. Health promotion
B. Health screening D. Health education

5. Which do you emphasize in your health class when there are no cases of dengue in the community where your school is located?
A. Improve on family nutrition
B. Fumigation of the community
C. Maintain safe water supply
D. Destroy breeding places of mosquitoes

6. The components of a comprehensive school health system are linked in a mutually supportive, cooperative system focusing on
children’s health issues and development of health literacy. Which of the following BEST describes school-community
coordination for health literacy?
A. School refers the sick student to parents to bring the child to the nearest health center in the absence of the school
nurse and/or physician.
B. School extends officiating during summer sports festival to help the barangay’s program on keeping students away
from drugs through sports.
C. School coordinates with local health unit and barangay to conduct a seminar on the prevention and control of
dengue and other mosquito-borne diseases during the rainy season.
D. Parents, teachers, community leaders are involved in a fund-raising activity of the school clinic with the necessary
equipment and medicine.

7. Which nutrient that is called “master fuel” because of its importance to energy, metabolism and its potential in preventing
diseases?
A. Protein C. Carbohydrates
B. Iron D. Mineral

8. What law is a major breakthrough in health policy which provides consumers the power to choose the medicine they could afford?
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 A. Republic Act Mo. 6425 C. Generic Act of 1988
B. Republic Act. No. 9211 D. Dangerous Act Mo. 1972

9. Which of the following sources of health information products and services is the most reliable?
A. Customs and Superstitions
B. Radio, and TV advertisements
C. Family physician and local health officer
D. Health claims of a quack doctor

10. Which of the following does NOT claim that marijuana is dangerous?
A. Leads to other health problem
B. Speeds up mental and psychomotor activities
C. Leads to psychological dependence
D. Impairs thinking and verbal skills

11. What is the MOST serious effect of quackery other than the loss of money?
A. Serious threat to health
B. Misinformation given by it
C. Effect on the aged person with chronic ailments
D. Valuable time is lost in obtaining competent treatment

12. To be an informed consumer, people must learn about services and products that can influence health. Which of the following is
the BEST source of information?

A. Family and folklore C. Folklore

B. Advertisements and commercials D. Label and directions

13. What is a drug primarily employed in surgery on the membranes lining the nose and throat?
A. Amphitamine C. Coccaine
B. Shabu D. Histamine

14. Under Philippine Drug Laws, where are the dangerous drugs such as glue, paint thinner and gasoline classified?
A. Tetracycline C. Metamphetamine
B. Cenzactrine D. Amphetamine

15. Which of the following effects of marijuana is perceived to be NOT dangerous?

A. Impairs thinking and verbal skills
B. Speeds up mental and psychomotor activities
C. Leads to other health problem
D. Leads to psychological dependence

16. “Peer pressure has either positive or negative impact, depending on the quality of the peer group, which is a positive import?
A. Pushing a susceptible individual down the wrong way.
B. Convincing a person to follow their habit as a way of seeking acceptance.
C. Pushing an individual to do his best just like anyone of them.
D. Keep a group within an acceptable code of behavior.

17. What is important in an ideal healthful community living?

A. Lighting source C. Good water supply
B. Good housing D. Health and family

18. Getting the proper rest and sleep is as important as getting enough exercise. Which of the following is NOT true about sleep?
A. Releases growth hormones into the blood
B. Makes muscles relaxed
C. Refreshes the whole body
D. Maintains fast heartbeats

19. Water pollution results when water contains substances like harmful bacteria and poisonous chemicals. Which do these
substances likely cause?

A. Cardiovascular diseases C. Children’s diseases

B. Gastro-Intestinal diseases D. Respiratory diseases

20. Many of our environmental problems primarily start with the basic fact that _______ .
A. natural and people-made pollutant continue to be mismanaged
B. hazards of city life continues
C. country’s population keeps on growing
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 D. natural resources are diminishing

21. Nature as a source of pollution is managed by the atmosphere self-cleaning system. Which of the following is NOT nature’s
polluting attribute?
A. Photochemical smug C. Dust storms
B. Volcanic eruptions D. Carbon monoxide

22. Acne is a skin problem common among teenagers. Which of the following BEST explains about this condition?
A. Many body changes occur during adolescence.
B. Teenagers are very energetic.
C. Hormones stimulate oil glands to produce extra oil.
D. Adjustment to new situation is difficult.

23. Which of the following is the most severe effect of iodine deficiency?
A. Gigantism C. Xeropthaimia
B. Cretinism D. Goiter

24. Which of the following is the BEST first aid to simple cuts?
A. Wrap the cut portion with guava leaf.
B. Tourniquet.
C. Let the injured inhale deeply.
D. Direct pressure on the cut portion and elevation.

25. In what order should the following procedures be followed in administering “Kiss of life” or mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by the
first aider for the victim tobe in normal condition?
I. Wipe out any foreign matter in the mouth.
II. Remove your mouth from the victim and turn your head away.
III. Tilt the headback and pull the jaw into putting out position.
IV. Open your mouth wide and place it tightly over thevictim’s mouth, punch his/her nostril shut then blow.

A. III, II, IV and I C. I, III, IV and I

B. IV, III, I and II D. I, II, IV and III

26. The following are first aid treatment for open wounds. Which of these is to be avoided?
A. Clean wound with soap and water.
B. Clean out all the din with a handkerchief.
C. Do not apply any ointment if the wound has not been cleaned yet.
D. Anything that blocks the victim’s mouth or throat should be removed.

27. Handling an injured person takes a lot of courage to decide what action to take initially. Which action will you first take?
A. Avoid moving the victim unnecessarily.
B. Keep yourself calm and act as promptly as possible.
C. Keep the victim lying down.
D. See how badly the victim is hurt.

28. What are the precautionary measures to avoid accidents on the road?
I. Use seatbelts when riding cars.
II. Wear dark clothing at night.
III. Use properly lighted bicycles at night.
IV. Walk on the side of the road facing approaching traffic.

A. II, III and IV C. I, II and IV

B. I, III and IV D. I, II and III

29. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate way of assisting a person suffering from a seizure?

A. Hold the person down so that he/she does not hurt him/herself.
B. Place a wedge in the person’s mouth so that he/she does not bite the tongue.
C. Make sure that he/ she the person is in a safe area.
D. Ignore the person and allow the seizure to pass

30. Which of the following procedures in administering chest-pressure-arm-lift is NOT correct?

A. Maintain an open airway.
B. Pull the victim’s arm outward.
C. Kneel on top of the victim’s head.
D. Place the victim in a face down position.

31. Accidents on the road can be avoided by practicing the following precautionary measures, EXCEPT:
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 A. walking on the side of the road facing approaching traffic
B. using seatbelts when riding cars
C. using properly lighted bicycles at night
D. wearing dark clothing at night

32.What will you check after you rescue a little girl from the bottom of a pool?
A. breathing C. broken bones
B. pulse D. head injury

33. Which position is best for a person who is shock?

A. sitting position C. supine position
B. lying position D. prone lying

34. It slows down breathing, stop pain, calm down a person or induce sleep.
A. Stimulant C. Hallucinogens
B. Depressant D. Inhalants

35. Labels can help consumer compare and evaluate health products especially on drugs because________________
A. it includes expiration dates
B. tells about the ingredients
C. gives the prices
D. tells about the possible side-effects.

PRACTICE TEST FOR MUSIC AND ARTS

1. . What becomes of the tone when a perfect interval is lowered half step?
A. Minor C. Augmented
B. Diminished D. Major

2. How many notes are needed form a diatonic scale?

A. 3 C. 5
B. 7 D. 8

3. Which of the following refers to a musical art form which combines singing, heightened speech, mime, dancing and acrobatics?
A. Gamelan C. Peking Opera
B. Plain Song D. National song

4. Which of the following should be the emphasis of a teacher teaching rhythm?

A. Correct Pitch C. Observe expression marks
B. Correct beat of basic meter in a song D. Accurate voice part singing

5. Which of the following elements is applied when a musical sign that indicates the speed of a song composition has to be sung or
played?
A. Sonority C. Monophonic
B. Register D. Tempo

6. Which of the following refers to a metrical cycle of beats which is constantly repeated throughout certain sections of musical
compositions?

A. Raga C. Shruti
B. Rasa ` D. Tala

7. Which of the following styles of performing is used by Schoenberg in his composition “Pierrot Lunnaire” where the lyrics of the song
are half-sung and half-spoken?
A. Inversion C. Sprechstimme
B. Rap D. Retrograde

8. What is this chord?

A. Diminished 7th C. Augmented 7th

B. Minor D. Major

9. What period in music history gave the chance or the opportunity to convey the “feeling” of the composer?
A. Baroque C. 20th Century
B. Romantic D. Classical
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10. What is the chord?

A. Diminished C. Minor
B. Major D. Augment

11. Who was awarded as national artist in 1990 who composed “Sa Ugoy ng Duyan” and “Sa Mahal Kong Bayan”?
A. Eliseo Pajaro C. Antonio Buenventura
B. Restlo Umali D. Lucio San Pedro

12. What is a characteristic of African music?

A. Solo singing C. Chorus-like
B. Call and response singing D. A-capella singing

13. Who among the following personalities was been a well-known impressionistic composer of the 20 th century?
A. Bela Bantok C. Igor Stravinsky
B. Arnold Schoenberg D. Claude Debussy

14. What do the twelve tones progressing by half step consistently compose?
A. Pentatonic scale C. Minor scale
B. Diatonic D. Chromatic scale

15. In which period in music history was the new tonal system invented, the different kinds of ideology and music, the use of
important technologies in producing sound and music and the widespread of rationalism in spirit and of music?
A. 16th century C. 18th century
th
B. 19 century D. 20th century

16. Which part/s of the body is/are considered as the second resonator that produces the sonorous and desirable quality of voice?
A. Head and nasal cavities C. Jaw
B. Lips D. Diaphragm

17. What musical structure is contained in a Japanese folksong “Sakura”?

A. Binary form C. Unitary form
B. Tenary form D. Through-composed

18. What form of orchestra consists of gongs and metallophone instruments?

A. Kempyang C. Gamelan
B. Rehab D. Kanong

19. Which of Hindus musical instrument has 13 strings excluding the four melody and three drone strings normally played by plucking?
A. Vina C. Tabla
B. Sitar D. Tambura

20. What is the title of this song?

A. Leron-leron Sinta C. Sta Clara

B. Bahay Kubo D. Sitsiritsit

21. Whose work of art was the famous “Pieta”?

A. Donatello C. Michealangelo
B. Berninl D. L. da Vinci

22. A succession of eight consecutive tones arranged in whole and half step is called _______.
A. melody C. octave
B. phrase D. scale

23. Which country in Asia has a rich and ancient civilization that began about 3000 B.C. with the settlement of the valleys along the
Yangtse and Huang Ho Rivers?
A. India C. Intensity
B. Japan D. Korea

24. The relative loudness or softness of tonal effect is determined by the size of vibrations of the sound waves. What do you call this
musical effect?
A. Dynamics C. Intensity
B. Timbre D. Photography

25. Which Chinese term means that the art of writing has always been the MOST important of the arts?
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 A. Photolithography C. Calligraphy
B. Typography D. Photography

26. What Japanese painting style means pictures in the Japanese manner?
A. Woodblock Printing C. Screen
B. Yamato-e D. Ukiyo-e

27. What is prescribed arrangement of succession pitches, usually running from the lowest pitch to the highest in ascending of
descending order?
A. Scales C. Ascending tones
B. Melodic contour D. Melodic progression

28. What do you call the grouping of beats into measure?

A. Tempo C. Rhythm
B. Pulse D. Meter

29. Who was one of the greatest and MOST original artists of the 20 th century, a constant experimenter who introduced cubism?
A. Van Gogh C. Vincent
B. Brancusl D. Pablo Picasso

30. Marilyn is very fond of art works. She would like to decorate her room with different sizes of angles. These figurines are products
of what sculpture?
A. Welding C. Fabricating
B. Molding D. Casting

31. Who, among the following, is a famous sculpture of glass?

A. Napoleon Abueva C. Eduardo Castillo
B. Ramon Orlira D. Arturo Cruz

32. Michealangelo planned the massive dome and façade of St. Peters Basilica in Rome. What style of architecture did he design?
A. Gothic architecture C. Baroque architecture
B. Romanesque architecture D. Byzantine architecture

33. What principle of color harmonies will an artist apply in painting if he/she uses one color tint with shades or value?
A. Analogous C. Complimentary
B. Contrasting D. Monochromatic

34. What is the Japanese stems from the Zen world view and features the spirit of poverty?
A. Sabi C. Ikebana
B. Cha-no-yu D. Wabi

35. What do you call the scale composed of all the twelve tones progressing by half step consistently?
A. Diatonic scale C. Pentatonic scale
B. Chromatic scale D. Minor scale

36. . For which sculptural work was Solomon Saprid famous for?
A. Nagtatanim ng Palay C. Tikbalang
B. UP Oblation D. Pieta

37. Which is Beethoven’s, well-known symphony, the theme of which, is being used in T.V. advertisement today?
A. New World Symphony C. Symphony No. 5
B. Symphony No. 1 D. Symphony No. 94

38. Who was the painter of Una Mestiza Mercedera deManila?

A. Juan Luna C. Damina Domingo
B. Felix Resurreccion Hidalgo D. Vicente Manansala

39. Who was the architect-designer of the Cultural Centerof the Philippines, Along Roxas Boulevard Pasay City?
A. Cesar H. Concio C. Leandro Locsen
B. Julio Nakpil D.Pablo Antonio

40. While the Chinese used pentatonic scale, Indian Music are built on Seven notes. What are the seven notes in their proper order?
A. MA, RI, SA, GA, NI, DHA,PHA C. NI, PHA, DHA, SA, RI, GA, MA
B. SA, RI, GA, MA, PHA, DHA, NI D. GA, MA, SA, RI, DHA, PHA, NI

41. Who among the following was the painter of “Una Mestiza Mercadera de Manila”?
A. Vicente Manansala C. Juan Luna
B. Felix Resurreccion Hidalgo D. Damina Domingo
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42. What is the scale composed of seven tones (six different tones) each is a whole tone from its nearest neighbor?
A. major scale C. minor scale
B. whole-tone scale D. chromatic scale

43. Which is the Maranaw narrative poetry that was presumed to be an over a thousand years old?
A. Pamatbat C. Darangan
B. Lang-ang D. Hud-hud

44. What do you call this multi-purpose benevolent spirit primarily used to guard granaries and rice field?
A. Kris C. Barong
B. Bihang D. Bul-ul

45. During the ancient period in Japan, there is a kind of music played in palace/courts for the royal families. This ancient court music
is called ______.
A. kabuki C. gagaku
B. noh D. bunkaru

46. Muslim people are fond of intense colors the brighter the colors they use, the more attractive the colors are to them. They use
violet and yellow. Which color combination is this?
A. Triple complimentary C. Triad
B. Double complimentary D. Complimentary

47. How do the Thai’s call, the instrumental ensemble made up of string, percussion and woodwind?
A. Mahori C. Kruang-saay
B. Piphat D. Gamelan

48. What part of the body is the third resonator that produces vibrations below the larynx that provides depth and richness to the
tone?
A. Shoulder C. Jaw
B. Head D. Ches

49. What country was called the “Fishing Village”before the coming of the British?
A. Thailand C. Korea
B. Singapore D. Burma

50. There are lots of materials used in sculpture like white jade, clay, stone, metal, wood, ivory, wax, plastic and glass who among the
following is a famous sculptor of glass?
A. Eduardo Cruz C. Napoleon Abueva
B. Arturo Cruz D. Ramon Ornila

51. Who painted “The Last Supper”?

A. Eugene dela Cruz C. Peter Paul Rubens
B. Leonardo Da Vinci D. Diego Velasquez

52. What acoustic element of a human voice acts like a motor where the pressure of breath against the vocal bands causes it to
vibrate and induce sound rather than stream the breath through the larynx?
A. Resonator C. Activator
B. Articulator D. Vibrato

53. Which method of breathing determines the quality and volume of voice which are of vital influence in singing?
A. lungs C. stomach
B. diaphragm D. liver

54. Who among the painters of the Renaissance period worked on “The Crucifixion”?
A. Jerome Bosch C. Jan Van Eyck
B. Rogen Van Der Weyden D. Fra Angelico

55. What is the famous contribution of India to world architecture?

A. The Bereaved C. Shald Johan
B. Taj Mahal D. Stupa

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