Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Ipi Nursing Exam Part 2
Ipi Nursing Exam Part 2
250. The school nurse is teaching the faculty is the most effective methods to prevent
the spread of lice (Pediculus250. The school nurse is teaching the faculty the most effective
methods to prevent the spread of lice (pediculus Humanus Capitis) in the school. The
information that would be most important to include is reflected in which of these statements?
A. “The treatment medication requires reapplication in 8 to 10 days.”
B. “Bedding and clothing can be boiled or steamed to kill lice.”
C. “Children should not share hats, scarves, and combs.”
D. “Nit combs are necessary to comb lice eggs (nits) out of the children’s hair.”
251. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about compromised host precautions. The
client is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia. Which lunch selection suggests the
client has learned about necessary dietary changes?
A. Grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk.
B. Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
C. Peanut butter, sandwich, banana, and iced tea
D. Barbeque beef, baked beans, and coleslaw.
252. A school nurse has a 10 year old child with a history of epilepsy with tonic-clonic seizures
attending classes regularly. The school nurse should inform the teacher that if the child
experiences a seizure in the classroom, the most important action to take during the seizure
would be to
A. Move any chairs or desks at least 3 feet away from the child
B. Note the sentence of movements with the time lapse of the event
C. Provide privacy as much as possible to minimize frightening the other children.
D. Place the hands or a folded blanket under the head of the child.
253. Which of these clients is the priority for the nurse to report to the public health department
within the next 24 hours?
A. An infant with a positive culture of stool for shigella
A. An elderly factory worker with a lab report that is positive history for acid-fast bacillus
smear
B. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive pathological examination from an induced
sputum for Pneumocystis carinii.
C. A middle aged nurse with a history of varicella zoster virus and with crops of vesicles on
an erythematous base that appear on the skin.
254. When screening children for scoliosis, at what time of development would the nurse expect
early signs to appear?
A. Prenatally on ultrasound
B. In early infancy
C. When the child begins to bear weight
D. During the pre adolescent growth spurt
255. The nurse is teaching the client to select foods rich in potassium to help prevent digitalis
toxicity. Which choice indicates the client understands dietary needs?
A. Three apricots
B. Medium banana
C. Navel orange
D. Baked potato
256.When administering enteral feeding to a client via a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should
administer the formula
A. Every four to six hours
B. Continuously
C. In a bolus
D. Every hour
257. In providing care for a client with pain from a sickle cell crisis, which one of the following
medication orders for pain control should be questioned by the nurse?
A. Demerol ‘
B. Morphine
C. Methadone
D. Codeine
258.The health care provider orders an IV aminophylline infusion at 30 mg/hr. The pharmacy
sends a 1,000 ml bag containing 500 mg of aminophylline. In order to administer 30 mg per
hour, the RN will set the infusion rate at:
A. 20 ml per hour
B. 30 ml per hour
C. 50 ml per hour
D. 60 ml per hour
259. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium (LithanE…. What should the nurse emphasize
when teaching about this medication?
A. Take the medication before meals
B. Maintain adequate daily salt intake
C. Reduce fluid intake to minimize diuresis
D. Use antacids to prevent heartburn
260. A 4 year old child is admitted with burns on his legs and lower abdomen. When assessing
the child’s hydration status, which of the following indicates a less than adequate fluid
replacement?
A. Decreasing hematocrit increasing urine volume
B. Rising hematocrit and increasing urine volume
C. Falling hematocrit and decreasing urine volume
D. Stable hematocrit and increasing urine volume
261.A newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes Mellitus asks the purpose of the test measuring
glycosylated hemoglobin. The nurse should explain the purpose of this test is to determine:
A. The presence of anemia often associated with Diabetes
B. The oxygen carrying capacity of the client’s red cells.
C. The average blood glucose for the past 2-3 months
D. The client’s risk for cardiac complications
262.The nurse is teaching a client with chronic renal failure (CRF) about medications. The client
questions of the purpose of aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) in her medication regimen. What is
the best explanation for the nurse to give the client about the therapeutic effects of this
medication?
A. It decrease serum phosphate
B. It will reduce serum calcium
C. Amphojel increases urine output
D. The drug is taken to control gastric acid and secretion
263. A client with testicular cancer has had an orchiectomy. Prior to discharge the client
expresses his fears related to his prognosis. Which principle should the nurse base the
response on?
A. Testicular cancer has a cure rate of 90% with early diagnosis
B. Testicular cancer has a cure rate of 50% with early diagnosis
C. Intensive chemotherapy is the treatment of choice
D. Testicular cancer is usually fatal
264.A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD...As the nurse enters
the client’s room, his oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute, his color is flushed and his
respirations are per minute. What should the nurse do first?
A. Obtain a 12 lead EKG
B. Place client in high Fowler’s position
C. Lower the oxygen rate
D. Take baseline vital signs
265. The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high
pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform?
A. Disconnect the client from the ventilator and use a manual resuscitation bag
B. Perform a quick assessment of the client’s condition
C. Call the respiratory therapist for help
D. Press the alarm reset button on the ventilator
266.The provider orders reads “Aspirate nasogastric (NG) feeding tube every 4 hours and check
pH of aspirate.” The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take?
267. A patient has returned to the floor after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate
(TURP). The patient has a continuous bladder irrigation system in place. The patient tells you he
is experiencing bladder spasms and asks what you can do to relieve his discomfort. What is the
most appropriate nursing action to relieve the discomfort of the patient?
A. Apply a cold compress to the public area
B. Notify the urologist
C. Irrigate the catheter with 30 to 50 mL of normal saline as ordered
D. Administer a narcotic as ordered.
268. The nursing instructor is talking with the junior nursing class about male reproductive
issues. The instructor tells the students that organic causes of erectile dysfunction include
what? (Mark all that apply.)
A. Cirrhosis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Tadalafil
D. Phosphodiesterase - 5 inhibitors
E. Parkinsonism
279. The nursing instructor is discussing the different types of immunity with the Level 1 nursing
students. The instructor gives an example of a patient given a vaccination for rubella; what will
the healthy patient develop?
A. Natural Immunity
B. Active acquired immunity
C. The disease rubella
D. Hypersensitivity
280.You are performing an admission on a patient newly admitted with cancer. The patient has
just finished a course of chemotherapy. Which assessments would you make that might indicate
that the patient is possibly experiencing immune dysfunction (Mark all that apply.)
A. Cardiovascular
B. Respiratory
C. Neurosensory
D. Hematologic
E. Endocrine
281. A 16 year old has been brought to the emergency department by his parents after falling
through the glass of a storm door. The fall resulted in a 6 cm laceration of the right antecubital.
The nurse caring for the patient knows that the site of the injury will have an invasion of what?
A. Interferon
B. Phagocytic cells
C. Apoptosis
D. Cytokines
282. When the nurse assesses her patient’ laboratory studies, the nurse notes in an increase in
several cell counts on the complete blood count. The nurse would expect an increase in what
cell count due to the fact that these are cells to arrive at the site where inflammation occurs?
A. Eosinophils
B. Red blood cell
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
283. You are a home health caring for a patient who has an immunodeficiency. What is most
important for you to do to help ensure successful outcomes and a favorable prognosis?
A. Encourage the patient and family to be active partners in the management of the
immunodeficiency.
B. Encourage the patient and family to be knowledgeable about the treatment regimen
C. Make sure the patient and family understand the patient teaching
D. Make sure the patient and family understand the medications used in treatment
284. You are a home health nurse reinforcing patient teaching with a patient who is
immunosuppressed and his family. You know that the patient understands the teaching when he
states what?
A. “My family needs to understand what to do i get an infection.”
B. “I need to know how to treat any infection that i get.”
C. “I need to understand how to give my infusions.”
D. “My family and I need to understand that these are life long things i need to do.”
285. The nursing caring for patients on the immunocompromised unit knows that a major role
for her is what?
A. To reinforce teaching knowledge for the family
B. To develop and maintain a knowledge base in the evolving treatment modalities
C. To teach the patient to stay away from crowds
D. To help the patient and family understand the adverse effects
286. A patient with immunodeficiency disease needs a lot of patient education to understand his
or her disease process and to learn self-care for when they are at home. What areas of patient
education do these patients need?
A. How to manage stress
B. Physiologic safety
C. Psychological stability
D. Healthy nutrition
E. How to strengthen immune system function .
287. In one primary immunodeficiency disease white blood cells cannot initiate an inflammatory
response to infection organisms. What disease is it?
A. Chronic granulomatous disease
B. wiskott -Aldrich syndrome
C. Hyperimmunoglobulinemia E syndrome
D. Common variable immunodeficiency
288. A new AIDS patient is being admitted to your unit. While you are doing the admission
assessment you are aware that you need to include what (Mark all that apply)
A. Patient’s physical status
B. Identification of potential risk factors
C. All factors affecting immune system functioning
D. The patient’s biophysical profile
E. History of sexual practices.
289. You are agreed to work with an AIDS patient who is very anxious. What should be an
appropriate nursing intervention to aid this patient in decreasing her level of anxiety?
291.A patient with H.I.V. is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. As the
nurse caring for this patient you would expect physician to order what drug for the management
of the patient’s diarrhea?
A. Zithromax
B. Sandostatin
C. Levaquin
D. Biaxin
292. The clinic nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The patient tells
you she has not been taking medication because she cannot get the medicine bottle open. The
patient says it is too hard to get the child proof tops off the bottle. What suggestion could you
make that would be the most helpful to your patient, aiding her in being more complaint with her
medication treatment regimen?
A. Have a neighbor come over and open the bottles for you
B. Have a family member come and open the bottles for you
C. Take your medicine bottles back to the pharmacy and have them put tops on them that
are not child proof
D. Get a 7 day pill holder and have someone fill it for you each week.
293. You are preparing plan for a patient newly diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse is
planning subject the nurse needs to teach this patient?
A. Diet
B. Activity limitations
C. Signs and symptoms
D. The side effects of the medications
294. A 25 year old mother of a 6 month old has just diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The
nurse is planning the teaching for this patient. What willing the teaching focus on? (Mark all that
apply)
A. Physical limitations and adaptations
B. Nutrition and weight maintenance
C. The disorder itself
D. Possible changes related to the disorder
E. Patient safety in the home
295. A patient in the rehabilitation phase of the burn injury is setting goals with the nurse. What
goals would be appropriate at this time? Mark all that apply.
A. Increased participation in activities of daily living
B. Increased understanding of the planned follow up care
C. Increased control of treatment
D. Adjustment to alterations in lifestyle
E. Recognition of complications
296. A burn patient is transitioning from the acute phase of the injury to the rehabilitation phase.
The patient tells the nurse. “I can wait to have surgery to reconstruct my face so I took normal
again.” What would be the nurse’s best response?
A. “You know, nothing can be done until your scars mature. It is something the doctor will
talk to you about in the first few years after discharge.”
B. “That is something for you to talk to your doctor about.”
C. “I know that is really important to you, but you have to realize that no one can make you
look like you used to.”
D. “You will have most of these scars for the rest of your life.”
297. What is a priority in the rehabilitation phase of the burn injury?
A. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte imbalances
B. Patient and family education
C. Assessing wound healing
D. Document family support
298. Your patient is in the acute phase of a burn injury. One of the nursing diagnosis on the plan
of care is ineffective coping due to burn injury and altered body image. What interventions can
you institute to help his patient cope more effectively? (Mark all that apply.)
A. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte
B. Patient and family education
C. Assessing wound healing
D. Documenting family support
299. The causes of acquired seizures include what? (Mark apply that)
A. Cerebrovascular disease
B. Metabolic and toxic conditions
C. Hypernatremia
D. Brain tumor
E. Drug and alcohol.
300. A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with cluster headaches. The nurse knows that in the
early phase of a cluster headache what is required?
A. Dim lightning
B. Abortive medication therapy
C. Quiet
D. Rest
301. You are discharging a patient home after supratenorial removal of a pituitary
mass. What medication would expect to have ordered prophylactically for this
patient?
A. Prednisone
B. Dexamethasone
C. Cafergot
D. Phentoin
302. During their pathophysiology class the nursing students study seizures. How
might the instructor best describe the cause of a seizure?
303. You are caring for a patient who has had transspheniodal surgery. You know
that when a patient has transsphenoidal surgery it is generally for a problem with
what?
A. Pituitary
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Foreamenvole
304. The nursing instructor is teaching her students about monitoring a patient with
increased ICP. What is a trend of ICP measurements over time an important
indication of?
A. Solumedrol
B. Dextromethrorphan
C. Dexamethasone
D. Mannitol
307. A patient with suspected head injury following an assault is being transported
to the emergency department. What would the nurse expect the physician to order
to aid in preventing secondary injury?
A. PET
B. CBC
C. ABG
D. MRI
308. The nurse for a patient with a spinal cord injury notes that the patient is
having autonomic dysreflexia. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
309. A patient you are caring is noted that a 6 year old is in transit with a suspected
brain injury after being involved in a pedestrian /motor vehicle accident. The child
is unresponsive at this time. Vital signs are within normal limits. What will the
therapy used on this child be directed towards?
A. A distended bladder
B. A fecal mass
C. Abrupt onset of fever
D. Sudden hypothermia
310. The emergency department is notified that a 6 year old is in transit with a
suspected brain injury after being involved in a pedestrian/motor vehicle accident.
The child is unresponsive at this time. Vital signs are within normal limits. What
will the therapy used on this child be directed towards?
311. A patient with a T-2 injury is in spinal shock. The nurse will expect to observe
what assessment finding?
312. A patient presents at the clinic complaining of pain and weakness in her
hands. On assessment in the nurse notes diminished reflexes in the upper
extremities bilaterally and bilateral loss of sensation. The nurse knows that these
findings are indicative of what?
A. Guillain-Barre’ Syndrome
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Peripheral nerve disorder
315. You are the nurse caring for a patient with myasthenia gravis. You know that
patient/family education is major part of the care for this patient because most of
her care is given on an patient basis. When developing the teaching plan for this
patient/ family you would know that apriority factor in your education plan should
be what?
A. Medication management
B. Fatigue and rest
C. Coping
D. Exacerbation management
316. You are the nursing caring for a 67 year old female with multiple sclerosis
(MS). She tells you that she is very concerned about the progress of her disease
and what the future holds. You know that elderly patients with MS are particularly
concerned about what? (Mark all that apply.)
317. A 33 year old nurse parents at the clinic with complaints of weakness, in
coordination, dizziness, and loss of balance. The patient is hospitalized and
diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). What sign or symptom, revealed during
the initial assessment, is typical of MS?
A. Diplopia, history, of increased fatigue, and decreased or absent deep tendon
reflexes
B. Flexor spasms, clonus, and negative Babinski’s reflex.
C. Blurred vision, intention tremor, and urinary hesitancy
D. Hyperactive abdominal reflexes and history of unsteady gait and episodic
paresthesia in both legs
318. The nurse is preparing to teach a patient recently diagnosed with myasthenia
gravis about the disease. What should the nurse teach the patient that myasthenia
gravis is caused by?
A. Genetic dysfunction
B. Upper and lower motor neuron lesions
C. Decreased conduction of impulses in an upper motor neuron lesion
D. A lower motor neuron lesion
319. A male patient presents to the patient is guarding his neck and tells the nurse
that the has stiffness in the neck area. The nurse suspects the patient may have
meningitis. What is another well- recognized sign of this infection?
A. Hypertensive emergency
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Hypertension
D. Hypertensive urgency
321. A patient is sent to the emergency department by her primary care physician
in a hypertensive urgency. How would the nurse expect this patient to be treated?
A. Diuretic
B. Beta-blocker
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Alpha inhibitor
322. A patient in hypertensive urgency is admitted to the CUU. What is the global
of treatment for a patient in hypertensive urgency?
323. Patients in hypertensive crisis can have a preciptitous drop in blood pressure.
This can be a life-threatening event if immediate action is not taken. What should
be done to restore blood pressure to an accepting level?
324. A patient in hypertensive emergency is being cared for in the intensive care
unit. The patient has become hypovolemic secondary to natriuresis. What could be
the IV fluid of choice for volume replacement?
A. D5W
B. 0.45 normal saline
C. D10
D. Normal saline
326. A critical care nurse is caring for a patient in a hypertensive emergency . what
medication would you expect the physician to order for this patient?
A. Lisinopril
B. Coreg
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
327. You are caring for a client with uncontrolled hypertension. The patient ask
you can happen if the hypertension isn’t brought under control. What could be a
consequence of uncontrolled hypertension (Mark all that apply.)
328. You are a clinic nurse caring for a patient with hypertension. You are
developing a care plan for this patient. What might be a priority nursing diagnosis
for this patient’s plan of care?
329.The student nurse is doing clinical hours in a walk in clinic. A patient with
primary hypertension, and who has not been adhering to the prescribed dietary
regimen, comes in for a follow-up appointment. The student is asked to develop a
Nursing Care Plan for this patient. What is one of the measurable patient outcomes
the student may include?
330. A patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed by the nurse.
Why would the nurse question the patient about decreased visual acuity?
A. It may indicate retinopathy
B. It may indicate peripheral arterial disease
C. It may indicate nephropathy
D. It may indicate left ventricular hypertpathy
331. You are caring for a patient admitted to the orthopedic unit skeletal traction.
You know that this patient is at increased risk for DVT. What would you do to
decrease the risk of DVT in this patient?
333. You are working with a student nurse to set up traction on a patient with
Buck’s traction. How often do you need to assess circulation to the affected leg?
334. A patient is scheduled for a total knee replacement. The surgeon explains the
technique of creating a “bloodless” field for the surgery to the patient. What does
this entail?
A. Check the traction apparatus to see that the ropes are in the wheel grooves of
the pulleys
B. Make sure that the weighs hang freely
C. Make sure that the knots in the rope are tied securely
D. Evaluate patient’s position, because slipping down in bed results in
ineffective traction
336. A nurse is caring for a patient who just had skeletal traction removed and a
brace applied to their leg. What is a brace used for (Mar all that apply.)
337.The nurse is preparing instructions for a patient who is going home with a cast
on his leg. What teaching point is most critical to emphasize in the teaching
session?
338. A patient who underwent a total hip replacement is being routinely turned.
What should the nurse and other caregivers do to prevent dislocation of the new
prosthesis?
A. Russell’s traction
B. Dunlop’s traction
C. Buck’s extension traction
D. Cervical head halter
340. A patient has come to the clinic for a routine annual physical. The Nurse
Practitioner notes a large projection of bone at the shoulder. The Nurse Practitioner
knows that this is most likely what?
A. An osterosacroma
B. An osteochondroma
C. An osteoblast
D. An osteitis
341. You are preparing a patient who underwent foot surgery for discharge. You
are discussing the use of assistive devices for a portion of your rehabilitation with
the patient and their family. What does the choice of assistive devices depend on?
342. You are precepting a new graduate nurse who has just started working on the
orthopedic unit. Today the two of you are providing care for a patient who has just
returned from having foot surgery with percutaneous pins. The graduate nurse is
discussing the potential for infection in patients who undergo foot surgery. What
would you tell the graduate nurse about the potential for infection?
A. Calcitonin
B. Mithracin
C. Alkaline phosphate
D. Potassium hydrochloride
344. A 42 year old man presents at the clinic complaining of pain in his heel so bad
it inhibits his ability to walk. The patient is diagnosed with plantar fasciitis. Patient
teaching provided by the nurse would include what instructions to decrease the
pain associated with this condition?
345. The nurse is providing a class on osteoporosis at the local senior citizens
center. Which of the following statements related to osteoporosis is correct?
346. The nursing instructor is discussing osteomalacia with her nursing students.
The instructor gives the student the assignment of planning a day’s menu for a
patient with osteomalacia. What would be the best choice for breakfast for a patient
with ostemalacia?
348. The patient was placed in a long arm cast after fracturing her humerus.
Twelve hours after the application of the cast, the patient tells the nurse arm hurts.
Analgesics do not relieve the pain. What would be the most appropriate nursing
action?
349. You are caring for a patient who has had an amputation. What nursing action
would you be least likely to perform with this type of patient?
350. You are caring for a patient diagnosed with Ebola virus. What would it be
important for you to monitor closely?
A. Airway
B. ABGs
C. Pain response
D. Level of consciousness
351. The pharmacist at the hospital is presenting a talk to the nursing staff. The
pharmacist at the hospital is presenting a talk to the nursing staff. The pharmacist is
talking about emerging infectious diseases might the pharmacist talk about ( Mark
all that apply)
352. A mother brings her 12 month son into the clinic for his MMR vaccination.
What would the clinic nurse advise the mother about the MMR vaccine?
A. The mother should be advised that photophobia and hives might occur.
B. The mother should be advised that there are no documented reactions to an
MMR.
C. The mother should be advised that fever and hypersentivity reaction might
occur
D. The mother should be advised that hypothermia might occur.
354. The nurse places a patient in isolation. Isolation techniques attempt to break
the chain of infection by interfering with:
A. Transmission mode
B. Agent
C. Susceptible host
D. Portal of entry
355. A 73 year old male is brought in by ambulance from a long-term care faculty.
The patient’s symptoms are weakness, lethargy, incontinence, and a change in
mental status. The nurse knows that emergencies in the elderly may be more
difficult to manage. Why would this be true?
356. Which breakfast option indicates to the nurse that the client with coronary
artery disease requires further diet instruction?
357. The nurse would encourage the new mother to use which breastfeeding
position to enable optimal control of the newborn’s head while giving the mother a
full view of the infant’s checks and jaw?
A. Lying-down position
B. Cradle position
C. Clutch (football) position
D. Across the lap position
358. The medical-surgical nursing unit is short-staffed for the shift for the shift
and a registered nurse (RN) from the pediatric unit has been floated to the nursing
unit. Which client should the nurse assign to the float nurse?
A. A 32 year old client newly diagnose with diabetes who needs dietary and
medication teaching
B. A 56 year old client newly admitted with Guillain-Barre syndrome who has
severe leg weakness
C. An 88 year old client with dementia who will be transferred to a skilled
nursing faculty during the shift
D. A 59 year old client who will be returning from surgery following
transurethral resection of the prostate
359. A client has experienced a near-drowning event in salt water. The nurse
anticipates that the client may experience which complication of this trauma?
A. Heart block
B. Renal failure
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Respiratory alkalosis
360. The nurse suspects that hepatotoxcity is developing in a dark-skinned client
who is on an antibiotic. In what area of the body should the nurse assess for
jaundice?
361. A client who is 20 weeks’ gestation is concerned about how to tell her 3 year
old son about her pregnancy. Which statement by the nurse would be best when
counseling this client?
A. “If he is not pleased with the news of the new baby, you should tell him that
you are disappointed in him.”
B. “Tell him that the he is going to have a lot of responsibilities in helping care
for the baby.”
C. “Try to provide extra attention to him and include him in plans for the baby.”
D. “Tell him that he will have to stay with his grandparents when the baby is
born because you will be busy the baby.”
362. When assessing the chest tube drainage system of a client, the nurse observes
a slight rise and fall in the water level in the water seal. The nurse should take
which action?
363. A client with cancer has calcium level of 11.8 mg/dL. Which symptoms would
indicate a need for the nurse to call the physician for treatment orders?
364. The nurse noted the following on the ECG monitor. The nurse would evaluate
the cardiac arrhythmia as :
A. Atrial flutter
B. A sinus rhythm
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
365. The nurse is caring for the client who is recovering from partial thickness
burns. Which choice of breakfast items indicates the client understands the
recommended diet?
A. 8/28
B. 1/28
C. 8/15
D. 1/15
369. A nurse is caring for a 24 year old client whose pregnancy history is as
follows: elective termination in 1998, spontaneous abortion in 2001, term vaginal
delivery in 2003, and currently pregnant again. Which documentation by the nurse
of the client’s gravity and parity is correct?
A. G4P1
B. G4P2
C. G4P1
D. G2P1
370. A pregnant client tells a nurse that she thinks she is carrying twins. In
reviewing the client’s history and medical records, the nurse should determine that
which factors are associated with multiple gestation? Select all that apply.
A. Elevated serum alph-fetoprotein
B. Use of reproductive technology
C. Maternal age greater than 40
D. Family history
E. Elevated hemoglobin
371. At an inpatient psychiatric unit, a 40 year old woman insists on staying in her
room and repeatedly comments to the nurse: “Special agents are here. Maybe you
are one.” Which of the following responses, if made by the nurse, is BEST?
1. After the client draws up 8 units of Humulin R, she adds Humulin N to the
syringe for a total of 40 units.
2. The client draws up 32 units of the clear insulin followed by 8 units of
cloudy insulin for a total of 40 units
3. Initially, the client injects air into the Humulin N vital without drawing up
any insulin
4. The client injects air into each bottle of insulin equal to the amount of
insulin to be withdrawn.
375. The clinic nurse is obtaining a throat culture from a client with pharyngitis. It
is MOST important for the nurse to do which of the following?
1. Quickly rub a cotton swab over both tonsillar areas and the posterior
pharynx
2. Obtain a sputum container for the client to use
3. Irrigate with warm saline, and then swab the pharynx
4. Hyperextend the client’s head and neck for the procedure
376. During the first 24 hours after total parenteral nutrition ( TPN) therapy is
started, the nurse should
1. “Patient ambulated well with walker. States has no c/o stiffness or pain. Did
not appear fatigued.”
2. “Ambulated without difficulty for 20 minutes. Vital; signs remained stable.
Color good.”
3. “Walked full length of hall with walker. No difficulty with balance. Using
walker correctly.”
4. “Patient ambulated 60 feet independently with walker. Respirations 14 and
unlabored.”
378. The nurse receives a phone call from a nursing assistant who states that her
five year old child has developed chickenpox. It would be MOST important for the
nurse to ask which of the following questions?
382.The nurse is caring for clients in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU). Which
of the following clients require IMMEDIATE attention by the nurse?
383. A 57 year old man admitted with metastatic cancer has been receiving
chemotherapy for 3 months. His lab values include: RBC 3.8 million/mm3,WBC
3,000/mm3,Hgb 9.3g/dL, platelets 50,000/mm3. The nurse would expect the
patient to exhibit which of the following symptoms?
1. BP 120/70, pulse 100, respirations 16.
2. Ankle edema and ascites
3. Flushed face and light stools
4. Nausea, anorexia, and vomiting
384. A staff member informs the nurse that his six year old child has heard lice. It
is MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
1. “We change the bag at least once a week, and we carefully inspect the stoma
at that time.”
2. “We change the bag every day so that can inspect the stoma and the skin.”
3. “We encourage our daughter to watch TV while we change her ostomy bag.”
4. “We only have to change the ostomy bag every ten days.”
387. A child comes to the school nurse with a honey-colored crusted lesion below
her right nostril. Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST?
1. The Levin tube remains unclamped for 30 minutes after the feeding
2. Sterile equipment is used to administer the feeding
3. The amount of the feeding is varied according to the patient’s tolerance
4. The tube feeding is given at room temperature
390. The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (Thrombophlebits)
of the left leg. Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing goal for
this client?
1. Assist the patient to stand on her right leg and pivot to a low soft chair,
keeping her hip straight
2. Assist the patient to stand on her leg and pivot to a straight-backed chair,
flexing her hips slightly
3. Ask the patient to bear weight equally on both legs, bend at the waist, and sit
in a low soft chair
4. Assist the patient to stand on both legs and take a few steps to a straight
backed chair
393. The nurse is preparing a 56 year old woman for a paracentesis procedure.
Which action is MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following
actions?
A. Electrolyte values
B. Blood pressure
C. Allergies to any medications
D. Hydration status
396. Your patient is 12 hours post ORIF right ankle. The patient is asking for pain
medication. The pain-medication orders are written as a combination of a narcotic
analgesic and a nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory (NSAID. given together. What us
the rationale for administering pain medication in this manner?
A. “Pain often comes and goes with postsurgical patients. Please ask her about
pain again in about 30 minutes.”
B. “We need to provide pain medications because it’s the lae, and we must
always follow the law.”
C. “professionally, I believe pain is whatever the patient says it is.”
D. “
Patients often misreport pain to get our attention when we are busy.”
398.The wife of a patient you are caring for asks to speak with you. She tells you
that she is concerned because her husband’s is requiring more and more pain
medication. She states, “He was in pain long before he got cancer because he broke
his back about 20 years ago. His pain medicine wasn’t just raised and raised for
that pain.” What should be the nurse’s best response?
A. “I didn’t know that I will speak to the doctor about your husband’s pain
control.”
B. “Cancer pain be either acute or chronic. Most cancer pain is used by tumor
involvement and needs to be treated in a way that brings the patient relief.”
C. “Cancer is an acute kind of pain so the more it hurts the patient, the more
medicine we give the patient until it doesn’t hurt anymore.”
D. “Does the increasing medication dosage concern you?”
399. You are caring for a patient admitted to the medical surgical unit after falling
from a horse. The patient states “I hurt so bad. I suffer from chronic pain anyway,
and now it is so much worse.” As a nurse, what should you understand about
chronic pain? (Mark all that apply.)
A. Hypertension
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Increased DTRs
D. Shallow respirations
404. Metabolic acidosis can be divided clinically into forms: normal anion gap
acidosis and high anion gap acidosis. What causes normal gap acidosis?
A. Constipation
B. Small bowel fistulas
C. Late renal insufficiency
D. Excessive administration of chloride
405. Isotonic IV fluids are fluids with a total osmolaity close to that of the ECF.
Most IV fluids contain either dextrose or electrolytes in water. When would you
infuse electrolyte-free water intravenously?
A. Insomnia
B. Multiple myloma
C. Guillain-Barre’ syndrome
D. Overdose of amphetamines
407. As the ICU nurse caring for a patient with multiple traumas from an ATV
accident, you draw arterial blood gas (ABGs) every 4 hours. what are you
assessing in this patient with ABGs?
A. Relief of pain
B. Optimal respiratory function
C. Optimal cardiovascular function
D. Unimpaired wound healing
415. The nursing instructor is discussing the difference between ambulatory
surgical centers and hospital-based surgical units. A student ask why some patients
have surgery in the hospital and others are sent to ambulatory centers. What is the
instructor’s best response?
420. A 42 year old patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED. following
being mugged. The patient received blunt trauma to the face and has clear fluid
draining from the right nostril. What does the ED nurse know to assess this fluid
for?
A. Sodium
B. Protein
C. Calcium
D. Glucose
421. As an asthma educator, you are teaching a patient newly diagnosed with
asthma and her family about the use of a peak flow meter. What does a peak flow
meter measure?
A. Hypothermia
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Malignant hypothermia
424. You are the nurse caring for 82 year old women in the PACU. The woman
begins to awaken and responds to her name but is confused, restless and agitated.
What are you aware of?
A. Hypothermia
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Malignant hypothermia
426. You are caring for a postoperative patient on the medical-surgical unit. During
each patient assessment, you evaluate for patient for infection. Which signor
symptom would be most indicative of infection?
A. Atlectasis
B. Anemia
C. Dehydration
D. Peripheral edema
428. The registered nurse had just admitted a client with severe depression. What
domain should be the priority focus as the nurse identifies the nursing diagnoses?
A. Nutrition
B. Elimination
C. Activity
D. Safety
430. The nurse is caring for a client in the coronary care unit. The display on the
cardiac monitor indicates ventricular fibrillation. What should the nurse do first?
A. Perform defibrillation
B. Administer epinephrine as ordered
C. Assess for presence of pulse
D. Institute CPR
431. Which of the following conditions assessed by the nurse would contraindicate
the use of benztropine (Cogentin)?
A. Elicit reflexes
B. Measure height and weight
C. Ausculate heart and lungs
D. Examine the ears
442. A client is unconscious following a tonic-clonic seizure. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Illeostomy
B. Transverse colostomy
C. Illeal conduit
D. Sigmoid colostomy
445. The nurse is assessing a client with delayed wound healing. Which of the
following risk factors is most important in this situation?
A. White patches
B. Green drainage
C. Reddened tissue
D. Eschar development
447. The nurse is caring for 2 children who have had surgical repair of congenital
heart defects. For which defect is it a priority to assess for findings of her heart
conduction disturbance?
A. Placing the spoon in the client’s hand and stating, “Use the spoon to eat your
food.”
B. Commenting, “I believe you know better than to eat with your hand.”
C. Jokingly stating, “Well I guess fingers sometimes work better than spoons.”
D. Removing the food and stating, “You can’t have anymore food until you use
the spoon.”
449. The nurse asks a client with a history of alcoholism about recent drinking
behavior. The client states “I didn’t hurt anyone. I just like to have a good time,
and drinking helps me to relax.” The client is using which defense mechanism?
A. Denial
B. Projection
C. Intellectualization
D. Rationalization
450. When assessing a client who has just undergone a cardioversion, the practical
nurse (LPN) finds the respirations are 12/minute. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Craving
B. Crashing
C. Outward bound
D. Nodding out
452. Which of the following should the nurse obtain from a client prior to having
electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
A. Permission to videotape
B. Salivary pH
C. Mini-mental status exam
D. Pre-anesthesia work-up
453. The nurse detects blood-tinged fluid leaking from the nose and ears of a head
trauma client. What is the appropriate is nursing action?
A. Edema
B. Trauma
C. Tumors
D. Migraines
E. Hemorrhages
F. Hydrocephalus
456. The nurse understands that which are risk factor(s) for the development of
breast cancer? Select all that apply.
A. Age
B. Obesity
C. Multiparity
D. Family history
E. Early menarche
F. Early menopause
457. The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus in measures to prevent
the chronic complication of diabetic nephropathy. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further instruction?
A. Elevated cholesterol
B. Elevated serum amylase
C. Decreased serum amylase
D. Decreased serum bilirubin
459. The nurse working in the community health center is conducting a teaching
session on the risk factors for colorectal cancer. The nurse includes which item(s)
in the teaching session? Select all that apply.
460. The client is caring for a client following thyroidectomy. The nurse most
appropriately places the client in which position following this procedure?
A. Prone
B. Fowler’s
C. Side-lying
D. Reverse Trendelenburg’s
461. The client who underwent which procedure is most likely to have the least
amount of water in the stool?
A. Ilesostomy
B. Ascending colostomy
C. Transverse colostomy
D. Descending colostomy
462.The nurse is reviewing laboratory test results for the client with liver disease
and notes that the client’s albumin level is low. Which assessment is focused on the
consequence of low albumin levels?
A. Skin turgor
B. Peripheral pulses
C. Intake and output
D. Neurological checks
465. Which reproductive structure is responsive for the transportation of the ova
from the ovaries to uterus?
A. Cervix
B. Vagina
C. Endometruim
D. Fallopian tubes
466. The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with secondary
cataracts. The nurse understands that which disease(s) can cause secondary
cataracts? Select all that apply.
A. Heart failure
B. Hyotension
C. Severe myopia
D. Maternal rubella
E. Diabetes mellitus
F. Ultraviolet light exposure
467. The nurse working in the newborn nursery has to draw a heel-stick blood
sample before an infant’s discharge. What can the nurse do to decrease the pain in
the infant feels from this procedure? Select all that apply.
A. Hide the bottle, and tell the toddler that it is not needed anymore
B. Put only tap water in the bottle
C. Give the bottle only at night
D. Give the toddler a pacifier and take the bottle away
471. Parents are interested in switching their child from a booster seat to a regular
seatbelt. The child is 7 years ago and weighs 51 Ib. what can the nurse tell the
parents about switching the child to seat belt? Select all the apply.
A. Young children absorb 10% of the lead to which they are exposed
B. Homes built between 1900 and 1950 may contain lead-based paint
C. The blood level of lead should be below 12.8 mcg/Dl
D. Lead can affect any part of the body, but the brain and kidneys are at greatest
risk
E. Foods such as fruit, candy, and antacids contain level
474. Gullian-Barre’ is a progressive motor weakness secondary to an autoimmune
response from a viral illness or immunizations Gullian-Barre ’shows which of the
following symptoms? Select all that apply.
A. Vomiting
B. Irritability
C. Poor feeding
D. Headache
E. Sunken fontanel
F. Seizures
G. Inability to wake up infant
H. Hyperactivity
479. The nurse detects blood-tinged fluid leaking from the nose and ears of a head
trauma client. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. “I am the one out of every 4 women that get fibroids, and of women my age-
between the 30s and 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.”
B. “My fibroids occur are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.”
C. “My associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary
incontinence, and constipated
D. “Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.”
481. While caring for a client who was admitted with myocardial infarction (MI) 2
days ago, the nurse notes today’s temperature is 101.1 degrees Fahrenhelt (38.5
degrees Celsius) The appropriate nursing intervention is to
A. “The client complains of a salty taste in the mouth when the dye is injected.”
B. “The client’s entire body turns a bright red color.”
C. “The client states “I have a feeling of getting warm.”
D. “The client gags and complains “I am getting sick.”
486. If a client has ataxia, the MOST important nursing action would be to
A. Supervise ambulation
B. Measure the intake and output accurately
C. Consult the speech therapist
D. Elevate the foot of the bed
487. The nurse knows which of the following would have the greatest impact on an
elderly client’s ability to complete activities of daily loving (ADLs)
A. Preservation
B. Aphasia
C. Mnemonic disturbances
D. Apraxia
488. In planning diet teaching for a child in the early stages of nephritic syndrome,
the nurse should discuss with the parents which of the following dietary changes?
A. Natural passive immunity occurs because the child receives antibodies from
outside the body.
B. Artificial active immunity occurs because the child receives specific
antigens against the chicken pox virus
C. Natural active immunity occurs because the child’s body actively makes
antibodies against chicken pox virus
D. Artificial passive immunity occurs because of the inflammatory process of
chicken pox.
491. A toddler with lead poisoning is admitted to the pediatric unit. There is an
order to encourage fluids. Which of the following fluids would be the best for the
nurse to offer to the child?
A. Milk
B. Water
C. Orange juice
D. Fruit punch
492. The nurse is leading an in-service education class on legal issues. Which of
the following acts constitutes battery?
A. Within three to five months , the client will state that the memory of the
event is less vivid and distressing
B. The client will indicate a willingness to keep to a follow-up appointment
with a rape crisis counselor
C. The client will be able to describe the results of the physical examination
that was completed in the emergency room
D. The client will begin to express her reactions and feelings about the assault
before leaving the emergency room
494. Which of the following symptoms are MOST likely to be observed by the
nurse when the client is withdrawing from heroin?
497. The nurse is using concepts of time management to organize the workday.
Which action will assist the nurse to effectively implement time management
strategies?
A. Justice
B. Fidelity
C. Veracity
D. Autonomy
499. The nurse understands that an ethical dilemma exists in which scenario?