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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
PHYSICS

Based on Q.24. (Oscillation magnetometer) where earth’s magnetic field is B and dip angle is

1. A magnet is suspended in such a way that it θ, is

oscillates in the horizontal plane. If total earth’s I I

(1) 2π (2) 2π
magnetic field is B and angle of dip is θ, then time MB MB sin θ
period for small oscillation will be (symbols have
I
their usual meaning) (3) 2π (4) Infinite
MB cos θ
I I 5. If horizontal and vertical components of earth
(1) 2π (2) 2π
MB MBcosθ
magnetic field at a place are B1 and B2
I cos θ I respectively, then earth’s net magnetic field at that
(3) 2π (4) 2π
MB MB sin θ place will be
2. Time period of vibration magnetometer is To. Its B1
(1) (2) B1 + B2
magnet is replaced by another magnet whose B2
moment of inertia is 2 times and magnetic moment
(3) B1B 2 (4) B12 + B22
 1
is   times of the initial magnet. The time period
2 Q.39. (Lenz’s Law)
now will be 1. A metallic ring is attached horizontally with a wall.
(1) 2To (2) To When bar magnet is passed through the ring from

To To top of ring as shown in the figure. The direction of

(3) (4)
2 2 induced current in the ring will be given by

3. In Question (2) if moment of inertia remains same

 1
but magnetic moment becomes   times of
2
initial value, then time period will be

(1) 2To (2) 2To

T0 T0
(3) (4) (1) Lenz’s law
2 4
(2) Fleming’s right hand rule
4. Time period of oscillation of a magnet of magnetic
(3) Ampere’s law
moment M and moment of inertia I in a vertical
plane, normal to the magnetic meridian at a place (4) Biot-savart’s law
2. In the Q.(1), if the observer is above the ring, then
induced current in the ring will be

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CSS-AIATS 02 (CF+ OYM) Physics

(1) Always clockwise

(2) Always anticlockwise then
(3) First clockwise then anticlockwise
(4) First anticlockwise then clockwise
3. The physical quantity, which is conserved,
according to the Lenz’s law, is
(1) Charge (2) Energy
(3) Mass (4) Momentum 2. In question (1), long time after the key is closed

4. In Question (1), if the observer is below the ring, (t → ∞), the current through inductor will be
then induced current in the ring will be E
(1) Zero (2)
(1) Always clockwise R2

(2) Always anticlockwise E

(3) (4) Infinite
(3) First clockwise then anticlockwise R1 + R2

(4) First anticlockwise then clockwise 3. In question (1), the initial rate of change of current

5. A proton moves along line XY, which lies in same through the inductor will be

plane as a circular loop of conducting wire as R2E LR1

(1) (2)
shown in figure. The direction of current induced in L(R1 + R2 ) E (R1 + R2 )

the loop is R2E R1E

(3) (4)
LR1 L(R1 + R2 )

4. The ratio of by initial of final current through the

battery when key is closed, as shown in the figure
is

(1) Clockwise
(2) First clockwise then anticlockwise
(3) First anticlockwise the clockwise
(4) No current is induced
Q.43. (LCR Circuit)
(1) Zero (2) 2
1. Two resistors R1 and R2 and an ideal inductor L are
connected to a battery of e.m.f. E through a key K 3
(3) (4) ∞
as shown in the figure. The current through 4
inductor at time t = 0 by (key just is closed) is 5. In Q.(4), the time constant of the circuit is
E
(1) Zero (2) 5 5
R2 (1) ms (2) ms
3 6
E
(3) (4) Infinite 5
R1 + R2 (3) 3 ms (4) ms
4

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CSS-AIATS 02 (CF+ OYM) Physics

Based on Q.27 (Magnetic Moment) 2. The direction of force on a current carrying

1. Three identical bar magnets each of magnetic conductor in a magnetic field is given by
moment M are arranged in the form of an (1) Fleming’s left hand Rule
equilateral triangle such that at, two vertices like (2) Fleming’s right hand Rule
poles are in contact. The resultant magnetic (3) Right hand thumb Rule
moment is
(4) Left hand thumb Rule
(1) Zero (2) 2M
3. Direction of rotation of a coil in electric motor
(3) 2M (4) 3M determined by
2. A bar magnet of moment ‘M’ is bent into a letter ‘ ’. If (1) Fleming’s right hand Rule
length of each part is same, its new magnetic (2) Fleming’s left hand Rule
moment will be (3) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
M M (4) None of these
(1) (2)
3 5
4. The direction of induced current is given by
M 2 (1) Fleming’s right hand Rule
(3) (4) M
2 3
(2) Fleming’s left hand Rule
3. Four magnets of equal length having magnetic
(3) Right hand thumb rule
moments M, 2M, 3M and 4M are arranged in the
(4) Left hand thumb rule
form of a square such that unlike pole are in
contact. Then the resultant magnetic moment is Based on Q.30 (Tangent Law)

1. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed in

(1) 2 2 M (2) 2M
two perpendicular Magnetic field Bv and BH. The
(3) 10 M (4) 2M
angle(θ) of magnetic moment with BH in
4. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M cut into two
equilibrium position will be
equal parts, the two parts are placed
perpendicular to each other. The resultant B  B 
(1) θ =tan–1  V  (2) θ =tan–1  H 
magnetic moment is  BH   Bv 

M M B  B 
(1) (2) (3) θ =sin–1  V  (4) θ =tan–1  H 
3 2
 BH   Bv 
(3) 3M (4) 3 3M
2. Torque on a bar magnet having moment M inside
5. A magnetised wire of magnetic moment ‘M’ is bent
the magnetic field B is
into an arc of circle subtending an angle 60° at
     
(1) τ =M.B (2) τ= M × B
centre. The new magnetic moment will be
3M 2M   
(1) Am2 (2) Am2 (3) τ =B.M (4) None of these
π π
3. Two magnets of magnetic moment M and 2M are
M 4M
(3) Am2 (4) Am2
π π joined to form a cross. The combination is

Based on Q.21. (Fleming Rules) suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field. In

stable equilibrium position, the angle (θ) between
1. In Fleming’s left hand rule forefinger always
represents magnetic moment 2M and magnetic field will be

(1) Voltage  1
(1) tan–1 (2) (2) tan–1  
2
(2) Current
(3) Magnetic Field  1   1 
(3) sin–1   (4) sin–1  
(4) Direction of force on the conductor  2  3

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CSS-AIATS 02 (CF+ OYM) Physics

4. Two magnets of magnetic moments M1 and M2 are 1 LE 2 1 LE 2

(1) (2)
joined to form a cross. The combination is 4 R2 32 R 2
suspended freely in uniform magnetic field. In
LE 2 1 LE 2
stable equilibrium position angle between (3) (4)
8 R2 4 R2
magnetic moment M2 and magnetic field is 30°,
M1 3. In the circuit shown, the switch 1 is closed first and
then value of will be
M2 then switch 2 is closed. The amount of heat
developed in resistance, R will be
1 1
(1) (2)
3 2

1
(3) (4) 3
3

5. Two Magnets of each of magnetic moment M are

LE 2 LE 2
joined to from a cross. The combination is (1) (2)
18R 2 27R 2
suspended freely in uniform magnetic field. In
stable equilibrium. The angle between resultant LE 2 LE 2
(3) (4)
54R 2 16R 2
magnetic moment and magnetic field will be
4. In the circuit shown in figure, what is the value of
(1) 90° (2) 45°
I1 long after pressing the Key K?
(2) 30° (4) 0°

Based Q.37 (RL Circuit)

1. In the circuit shown the energy stored in inductor

in the steady state condition will be

(1) 1 A (2) 2A

1 3
(3) A (4) A
1 LE 2
1 LE 2 4
(1) (2)
2 R2 2 R
5. In the circuit shown, Heat developed in resistance,
LE LE 2 R when key is open will be
(3) (4)
2R2 R

2. In the circuit shown in figure, the energy stored in

the inductor in steady state condition is

LE 2 LE 2
(1) (2)
4R 2 8R 2

LE 2 3LE 2
(3) (4)
R2 4R 2

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CSS-AIATS 02 (CF+ OYM) Physics

Q.11. (Path of charged particle in magnetic field) The limiting value of θ, for which the particle just

1. A particle of mass m and charge ‘q’ moves with fail to cross the field is

constant speed ‘v’ along X-direction. It enters a


region containing a uniform magnetic field B
a
directed along negative Z- direction from x = to
2
x = 2a. The maximum value of v, so that the
particle does not enter the region x > 2a is

2qBa 3qBa
(1) (2)
m 2m

qBa 3qBa
(3) (4)
m 4m (1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
2. A particle of mass m and charge ‘q’ after 5. A charge particle of charge q and mass m enters
accelerating through potential difference V, from in the uniform magnetic field B, existing from x = 0
rest, moves along x-axis and enters in a region of 3R
to x = , (where r is radius of path) with constant
magnetic field along z-direction from x = a to x = 2
2a . The maximum value of potential difference V, speed v at angle θ as shown in figure. The limiting
so the particle is just fail to cross the field is value of θ for which particle just fail to cross the
field is
2 2 2 2
qB a 2qB a
(1) (2)
2m m

2qBa qB 2a 2
(3) (4)
m m

3. A charged particle entering perpendicular to

magnetic field existing from y = 0 to y = 2a, will just
fail to enter in the region y > 2a if
(1) 90° (2) 60°
(1) Radius of path is, a (3) 45° (4) 30°
Q.23. (Different Quantities related to magnetisation)
(2) Radius of path is, 2a 1. The magnetic field at the centre of a bar magnet,
having pole strength 3.6 Am, magnetic length 12
(3) Radius of path is greater than, 2a cm and cross sectional area 0.9 cm2 is
(1) 5 × 10–2 T (2) 4 × 10–2 T
3a (3) 3 × 10–2 T (4) 2.5× 10–2 T
(4) Radius of path is,
2
2. A magnetic material of volume of 60 cm3 is placed
4. A charge particle of charge q and mass m enters in a magnetic field of intensity 10.0 orested. The
in the uniform magnetic field B, existing from x = 0 magnetic moment produced due to it is 12 Am2.
R The value of magnetic induction will be
to x= , (Where R is radius of path) with
2
(1) 0.25 T (2) 0.50 T
constant speed v, at angle θ as shown in figure.
(3) 0.75 T (4) 0.20 T

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CSS-AIATS 02 (CF+ OYM) Physics

3. An ideal solenoid having 50 turns/cm has an 2. The angle of dip at a point at angle θ1 with
aluminium core and carries a current of 2.0 A. The magnetic meridian is δ1 and at angle θ2 with
magnetic field at centre is (susceptibility of magnetic meridian is δ2 . The ratio of vertical
aluminium is 2.5 × 10 ) –5
components at two position is
(1) 12.56 × 10 T –2
(2) 25.12 × 10 T –3

(3) 3.7 × 10 –2
(4) 12.56 × 10–3 T sin δ1 cos δ1
(1) (2)
sin δ2 cos δ2
4. An iron rod of cross-sectional area 4.0 cm2 is
placed with its length parallel to magnetic field of
sin θ1
intensity 1600 A/m. The flux through the rod is 4 × (3) (4) 1:1
sin θ2
10 weber. The permeability of material of rod is
–4

Wb Wb 3. Real dip at place is 30° and apparent dip at 30°

(1) 0.625 (2) 6.25
Am Am
with magnetic meridian is 45°. The dip angle at 90°
wb wb with pervious position is
(3) 6.25 × 10 –4
(4) 6.25 × 10 –3

Am Am
5. A bar magnet made of steel has magnetic moment
(1) tan–1(2) (2) tan–1 ( 2)
of 2.4 Am and mass 6.4 × 10
2 –3
kg. If the density
of steel is 8.0 × 103 kg/m3. The intensity of
magnetisation of magnet is
(3) Cot–1(2) (4) Cot–1 ( 2)
(1) 3.0 × 106 A/m (2) 2.5 × 106 A/m
4. A dip needle arranged to move freely in the
(3) 1.2 × 106 A/m (4) 1.92 × 106 A/m
magnetic meridian dips by an angle δ. If the dip
Q.31. (Angle of dip)
circle is rotate through angle α to the magnetic
1. The angle of dip at 30° with magnetic meridian is
meridian, dip angle is δ′ then
60°. The ratio of vertical component of earth field
and component of horizontal component at that
(1) δ′ = δ
place is

1 1 (2) δ′ > δ
(1) (2)
3 2
(3) δ′ < δ
1 3
(3) (4)
2 3 2
(4) Value of δ′ depends on α.

  

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CSS-AIATS 02 (CF+ OYM) Physics

Based on AIATS-02

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CSS-02
Physics
ANSWERS

Q.24. (Oscillation Magnetometer) Q.30. (Tangent Law)

1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (2)
4. (2) 4. (3)
5. (4) 5. (4)
Q.39. (Lenz’s Law) Based Q.37 (RL Circuit)
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (3) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (3)
4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (2) 5. (2)
Q.43. (LR Circuit) Q.11. (Path of charged particle in magnetic field)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (2)
4. (3) 4. (3)
5. (1) 5. (2)
Q.27. (Magnetic moment)
Q.23. (Different Quantities related to magnetisation)
1. (2)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (1) 2. (1)
4. (2) 3. (4)
5. (1) 4. (3)
Q.21. (Fleming Rules) 5. (1)
1. (3) Q.31. (Angle of dip)
2. (1) 1. (1)
3. (2) 2. (4)
4. (1) 3. (4)
4. (2)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
CHEMISTRY
Q.80. (Chlorine) 4. Strongest acid among the following is
1. Catalyst used in Deacon’s process for the (1) HClO (2) HClO2
formation of chlorine is (3) HClO3 (4) HClO4
(1) CuCl2 (2) V2O5 5. Oxoacid of Iodine, which is least likely to exist is
(3) Pt (4) BaSO4 (1) HOI (2) HIO2
2. Chlorine on reaction with dry slaked lime gives (3) HIO3 (4) HIO4
(1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(OCl)2 Q.83. (Compounds of Xenon)
(3) CaCl2 (4) Both (2) and (3) 1. Shape of XeF2 molecule is
3. Chlorine on reaction with cold and dilute NaOH (1) Linear (2) Square planar
gives (3) Tetrahedral (4) Octahedral
(1) NaOCl (2) NaClO2 2. Hybrid orbital with highest % p character is present
(3) NaClO3 (4) NaClO4 in
4. Chlorine on reaction with H2S and C10H16 (1) XeF2 (2) XeO3
respectively gives (3) XeOF4 (4) XeF6
(1) HCl and CO2 (2) HCl and H2O 3. 90° bond angles in XeF4 molecule is
(3) S and CO2 (4) S and C (1) Zero (2) 1
5. Cl2 on reaction with excess NH3 forms (3) 4 (4) 2
(1) NCl3 (2) HCl 4. Molecule of square pyramidal shape is
(3) NH4Cl (4) NCl5 (1) XeO2F2 (2) XeF6
Q.81. (Oxoacids of Halogens) (3) XeF4 (4) XeOF4
1. Oxoacid which does not exist is 5. Molecule of trigonal pyramidal shape is
(1) HFO3 (2) HClO3 (1) XeF4 (2) XeO3
(3) HBrO3 (4) HIO3 (3) XeO2F2 (4) XeF6
2. Oxoacid of chlorine known as chloric acid is Q.67. (Ellingham Diagram)
(1) HOCl (2) HClO2 1. Ellingham diagram is obtained by plotting
(3) HClO3 (4) HClO4 (1) ∆G° vs T (2) ∆H° vs T
3. Anion of which oxoacid has highest % s character (3) ∆S° vs T (4) ∆H vs T
in hybrid orbital? 2. For spontaneous formation of an oxide the ∆G will
(1) HClO be
(2) HClO2 (1) +ve
(3) HClO4 (2) –ve
(4) All are having equal % s character (3) Zero
(4) Both (1) and (2)

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CSS-02 Chemistry

3. In Ellingham diagram; the graphs for metal to metal 4. Hybridisation of phosphorous in solid state of PBr5
oxide, all slope goes is
(1) Downwards (1) sp3, sp3d2 (2) sp3 only
(2) First upwards then downwards (3) sp2, sp3 (4) sp3d2, sp3d
(3) Upwards 5. Hybridisation of iodine in [ICl2]–1 is

(4) First downwards then upwards (1) sp3d2 (2) sp

4. In thermite process; Al reduces oxides of (below (3) sp d3

(4) sp2

1500°C) Q.90. (Oxoacids of phosphorous)

(1) Mg (2) Fe 1. Which of the following is phosphinic acid?

(3) Cr (4) Both (2) and (3) (1) H3PO4 (2) H3PO2

5. Carbon is a good reducing agent for (3) H3PO3 (4) (HPO3)3

2. Basicity of phosphonic acid (H3PO3) is
(1) Oxides (2) Sulphides
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) Chlorides (4) Nitrides
(3) 1 (4) 0
Q.68. (Reduction of metal oxide in metallurgy)
3. How many (P–OH) bond(s) is/are in
1. Which among the following metal can be reduced
pyrophosphoric acid?
by self reduction process?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) Ti (2) Mn
(3) 4 (4) 1
(3) Pb (4) Fe
4. Correct order of acidic strength is
2. Which metal can not be extracted by carbon
(1) H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2
reduction process?
(2) H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4
(1) Fe (2) Sn
(3) H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3
(3) Pb (4) Mg
(4) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4
3. The temperature at which ZnO can be reduced to
5. In which of the given compounds, oxidation state
Zn with coke is of phosphorous is +4?
(1) 900 K (2) 100 K (1) Pyrophosphorous acid
(3) 300 K (4) 1673 K (2) Hypophosphoric acid
4. Carbon reduction process is (3) Metaphosphoric acid
(1) Smelting (2) Roasting (4) Orthophosphoric acid
(3) Calcination (4) Leaching Q. 55. (Coagulation)
5. Thermite mixture is 1. The process of settling of colloidal particles is
(1) Fe2O3 + Al powder (2) Fe + Mg known as
(3) Al powder + MgO (4) Zn + Al (powder) (1) Peptization (2) Flocculation
Q.74. (Hybridisation) (3) Electrophoresis (4) Dialysis
1. Hybridisation of nitrogen (N) in NO2 is 2. The number of millimoles of an electrolyte required
(1) sp2 (2) sp3 to bring about the coagulation of one litre of a
colloidal sol is known
(3) sp3d2 (4) sp
(1) Flocculation value (2) Coagulating power
2. Hybridisation of Xe in XeO2F2 is
(3) Gold number (4) Protective value
(1) sp3d (2) sp3d3
3. For the coagulation of 100 mL of gold sol, 50 mL
(3) sp3d2 (4) sp3
M
3. Hybridisation of phosphorous in anionic species of of NaCl solution is required. The flocculation
10
solid state of PCl5 is
value of NaCl is
(1) sp3 (2) sp3d
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) sp3d2 (4) sp2
(3) 50 (4) 100

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CSS-02 Chemistry

4. Maximum coagulating power of an anion for 4. Emulsion can not be broken into constituent liquids
positive sol is of by
(1) PO3–
4 (2) SO2–
4
(1) Heating (2) Freezing
(3) Centrifuging (4) Dilution
(3) Ca2 + (4) Al3+
5. Cottrell precipitater is used for the
5. Stability of lyophilic sol depends on
(1) Purification of drinking water
(1) Charge on colloidal particles
(2) Electrical precipitation of smoke
(2) Solvation of colloidal particles
(3) Artifical rain
(3) Molar mass of colloidal particles
(4) Delta formation
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Q.77. (Halogen family)
Q.54. (Properties of colloidal solutions)
1. Most acidic among the following is
1. Negatively charged colloids among the following is
(1) HF (2) HBr
(1) TiO2 (2) Gold sol
(3) HCl (4) HI
(3) Sulphur sol (4) Methylene blue
2. Maximum value of ∆dissH° in KJmol–1 is of
2. The principal emulsifying agents for O/W emulsion
(1) HF (2) HBr
is/are
(3) HCl (4) HI
(1) Proteins
3. Maximum pKa value is of
(2) Gums
(1) HOCl (2) HOClO
(3) Natural and synthetic soaps
(3) HOClO2 (4) HOClO3
(4) All of these
4. Positive pKa among the following is of
3. Principle emulsifying agents for W/O emulsions
(1) HF (2) HCl
is/are
(3) HBr (4) HI
(1) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids
5. Deacon process is used to manufacture
(2) Long chain alcohols
(1) Cl2 (2) HCl
(3) Lamp black
(3) CaOCl2 (4) CHCl3
(4) All of these

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02 (Chemistry)
Answers Key
Q.80. (Chlorine) Q.74. (Hybridisation)
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (4) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (3)
4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (3) 5. (3)
Q.81. (Oxoacids of Halogens) Q.90. (Oxoacids of phosphorous)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (3) 2. (2)
3. (4) 3. (3)
4. (4) 4. (4)
5. (2) 5. (2)
Q.83. (Compounds of Xenon) Q. 55. (Coagulation)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (3) 3. (3)
4. (4) 4. (1)
5. (2) 5. (4)
Q.67. (Ellingham Diagram) Q.54. (Properties of colloidal solutions)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (4)
3. (3) 3. (4)
4. (4) 4. (4)
5. (1) 5. (2)
Q.68. (Reduction of metal oxide in metallurgy) Q.77. (Halogen family)
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (4) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (1)
4. (1) 4. (1)
5. (1) 5. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-2
BOTANY
Q.92. [Law of Dominance] (e) Green seed colour;
1. How many of the traits given in the box will express (f) Round seed shape.
in F1-generation in a typical Mendelian monohybrid (1) (a), (c) and (f)
cross? (2) (b), (d) and (e)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Violet flower colour; Terminal flower, Green
seed colour; Yellow pod colour, Round seed; (4) (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
Constricted pod.
Q.128. [Translation]
(1) Two (2) Four 1. The rate of peptide bond formation is enhanced in
(3) Five (4) Three the presence of catalyst. This function is catalyzed
2. In which of the following crosses both the dominant by enzyme: -
and the recessive trait will express in equal (1) Peptidase (2) Transaminase
proportion? (3) Peptidyl transferase (4) Carboxypeptidase
(1) TT × TT (2) Tt × TT 2. Peptidyl transferase has been found to be a part of.
(3) Tt × tt (4) TT × tt (1) tRNA (2) rRNA
3. In which of the following crosses performed (3) hnRNA (4) scRNA
between round and wrinkled seed plant of Pisum 3. Enzymes are generally globular proteins. Which of
sativum only round seeds will be produced? the following is the exception of above statement?
(1) Rr × rr (1) Nucleosidase (2) Ribozyme
(2) RR × rr (3) RNA polymerase (4) Ribonuclease
(3) Rr × RR 4. Choose the wrong statement w.r.t. transcription
(4) Both (2) and (3) condition and translation: -
4. Select the pair of traits which will always express (1) 23 S rRNA is catalytic RNA in bacteria.
in all types of crosses? (2) 28 S rRNA is catalytic RNA in eukaryotes.
(1) Yellow pod colour and terminal flower. (3) Introns of hnRNA are removed by Snurps.
(2) Yellow seed colour and green pod colour. (4) SnRNPs is complex of snRNA and scRNA.
(3) Violet flower colour and constricted pod shape. Q.102. [Principles of Inheritance and Variation (Two
(4) Green seed colour and yellow pod colour. genes interaction w.r.t. Post-Mendelism)]
5. Which of the following traits selected by Mendel 1. Inheritance of kernel colour in wheat is an example
are dominant: of
(a) Violet flower colour; (1) Pleiotropy
(b) Terminal flower position. (2) Polygenic inheritance
(c) Tall stem height; (3) Epistasis
(d) Yellow pod colour. (4) Sex linked inheritance
CSS-2 Botany

(1) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

2. If we use capital letter and small letter of an (2) Helicase
alphabet to represent dominant and recessive (3) RNA polymerase
traits respectively for a character then which (4) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
representation is true for intermediate red kernel in 5. In all of the following processes, principle of
wheat? complementarity is followed, except
(1) AaBb (2) AABB (1) DNA replication
(3) Aabb (4) AABb (2) Transcription
3. A wheat plant having genotype responsible for (3) Primary transcript modification
intermediate kernel colour is selfed. What would be (4) Reverse transcription
the ratio of extreme red and white kerneled seeds Q.126. [Molecular basis of inheritance, (DNA
produced by this plant? Fingerprinting]
(1) 6 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 1. DNA Fingerprinting was initially developed by
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 (1) Alec Jeffreys
4. Two plants developed from intermediate red (2) Watson and Crick
kerneled seed and white kerneled seed are (3) Harshey and Chase
crossed together. What percent of seeds produced (4) Messelson and Stahl
by this cross will be of intermediate kernel colour? 2. VNTR or Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
(1) 75% (2) 25% (1) Also known as a type of mini-satellite
(3) 12.5% (4) 50% (2) Has the size of 0.1 to 20kb
5. For deep red kernel colour in wheat, how many (3) Both (1) and (2)
allele(s) responsible for the colour should be (4) Is non-polymorphic DNA
dominant? 3. VNTR can be seen in
(1) Two (2) Four (1) Animals only
(3) One (4) Three (2) Large quantities in eukaryotes
Q.119. [Molecular Basis of Inheritance (The DNA)] (3) Large quantities in bacteria
1. Reverse transcription is a process in which (4) Archaebacteria only
(1) RNA is synthesized from nongenetic materials 4. On the basis of VNTR, parental and progeny DNA
(2) DNA is synthesized over RNA template fingerprinting can be done because
(3) RNA is synthesized over RNA template (1) VNTR are non-inheritable
(4) Repeated replication of DNA occurs (2) Progeny has VNTRs of both parents
2. Retroviruses are (3) VNTR can be mutated easily in progenies
(1) RNA containing viruses (4) VNTR are found only in maternal chromosome
(2) Non-pathogenic Q.123. [Molecular basis of Inheritance: Translation]
(3) Viruses containing infectious DNA 1. During transcription, the template of DNA which is
(4) Either DNA or RNA containing viruses used for RNA formation is called
3. The function of reverse transcriptase is to (1) Non coding strand (2) Coding strand
synthesize (3) Sense strand (4) Non template strand
(1) mRNA from hnRNA 2. The mRNA formed from DNA has sequence
(2) tRNA from DNA complementary to
(3) DNA over RNA (1) Coding strand
(4) Different types of rRNA from DNA (2) Sense strand
4. One of the viral enzymes responsible for reverse (3) Non-template strand
transcription is an (4) Non-coding strand
CSS-2 Botany

4. There is no need to test cross the red flowered 4

O’clock plant for the genotype of the gene which
controls flower colour because this trait shows
3. What will be the sequence of mRNA formed from
(1) Incomplete dominance, so RR will produce
given DNA template / non coding strand?
pink colored flowers
3’ 5’ (2) Incomplete dominance, so Rr will produce pink
TACAAAGGAACCACT
colored flowers
(1) 3’ 5’ (3) Complete dominance so RR will produce red
TCACCAAGGAAATAC colored flowers

(2) 5’ 3’ (4) Complete dominance so Rr will produce pink

TACAAAGGAACCACT colored flowers
5. Which of the following trait is not completely
(3) 5’ 3’
dominant?
AUGUUUCCUUGGUGA
(1) Tall pea plant
(4) 3’ 5’
(2) Yellow pod pea plant
AUGUUUCCUUGGUGA
(3) Brown body Drosophila
4. Each genetic code on mRNA.
(4) Red flowered trait in 4 O’clock plant
(a) is read on continuous fashion
Q.96. [Principle of Inheritance of Variation:
(b) is triplet Inheritance of one gene]
(c) codes for an amino acid 1. As per Mendel’s law of segregation, factors of a
(1) Only (a) is correct pair segregate from each other and a gamete
carries
(2) only (b) is correct
(1) Only one factor
(3) only (a) and (c) are correct
(2) Both the factors
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) None of the factors
5. How many amino acids will be formed from given
(4) Either one or none of the factors
mRNA sequence
2. Modified or mutated allele could not produce / be
5’ 3’
AUGUUUCCUUGGUGA (1) Normal enzyme
(2) Nonfunctional enzyme
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) No enzyme
(3) 5 (4) 2
(4) Wild type allele
Q.99. [Principle of Inheritance: Test cross]
3. The modified allele is equivalent to unmodified
1. An organism showing a dominant phenotype is
allele if it undergoes
crossed with the recessive parent to know the
(1) Silent mutation
genotype of dominant phenotype is called
(2) Transversion mutation
(1) Test cross (2) Out cross
(3) Nonsense mutation
(3) Reciprocal cross (4) Self cross
(4) Missense mutation
2. Red flowered 4 O’clock plant shows _____ for its
4. A. Modified allele is always recessive allele
flower colour.
B. Unmodified allele is always dominant allele
(1) Complete dominance
(1) Only A is true (2) Only B is true
(2) Pleiotropy
(3) Both A & B are true (4) Both A & B are false
(3) Incomplete dominance
5. Mendel’s law of segregation
(4) Recessive epistasis
(1) Is universally applicable
3. If a snapdragon plant has red flowers, it shows its
(2) States that a pair of factors does not segregate
genotype
(3) Is true for linked genes
(1) RR (2) Rr
(4) States that alleles never occur in pair
(3) rr (4) Both (1) and (2)
CSS-2 Botany

Q.107. [Principle of Inheritance & Variation: Q.111. [Principle of Inheritance & Variation:
(Mutation)] (Mendelian disorders)]
1. Which of the given physical mutagens are not 1. Sickle-cell anemia is caused by substitution
capable to directly damage the DNA? (transversion) of A by B at the 6th position of the
(1) X-rays (2) UV-rays β-globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.
(3) High temperature (4) Infrared radiation (1) A-Glutamic acid, B-Valine
2. Which of the given physical mutagens increases (2) A-Lysine, B-Serine
rate of mutation in DNA by breaking hydrogen (3) A-Valine, B-Glutamic acid
bond? (4) A-Serine, B-Lysine
(1) High temperature (2) β-rays 2. In sickle-cell anemic patients, Hbs peptide have A in
(3) UV-rays (4) Gamma-rays the place of B .
3. UV-rays causes mutation in DNA by (1) A-Valine, B-Glutamic acid
(1) Thymine dimer formation (2) A-Lysine, B-Serine
(2) Creating break in chromosome (3) A-Glutamic acid, B-Valine
(3) Insertion of nitrogenous base (4) A-Serine, B-Lysine
(4) Deletion of nitrogenous base 3. Expression of which of the given part of mRNA
4. Which of the given physical mutagens cause break (obtained on mutation) in Hbs peptide of an
in the chromosome? individual is responsible for causing sickle cell
(1) X-rays (2) UV-C anemia?
(3) β-rays (4) Both (1) & (3) (1) 5’ – GUG – 3’ (2) 3’ – GAG – 5’
5. Which of the given physical mutagens was first (3) 3’ – GUG – 5’ (4) 5’ – GAG – 3’
used by Muller to induce mutation in fruit fly? 4. Which of the given codons on Hbs peptids of sickle-
(1) UV-rays (2) Gamma-rays cell anemic patient codes for Valine?
(3) β-rays (4) X-rays (1) GUG (2) GAG
(3) UAA (4) AUG

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ANSWER KEY

Q.92. [Law of Dominance] Q.123. [Molecular basis of Inheritance: Translation]

1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (3) 2. (4)
3. (4) 3. (3)
4. (2) 4. (4)
5. (1) 5. (1)
Q.128. [Translation] Q.99. [Principle of Inheritance: Test cross]

1. (3) 1. (1)
2. (2) 2. (3)
3. (2) 3. (1)
4. (4) 4. (2)
5. (4)
Q.102. [Principles of Inheritance and Variation (Two
genes interaction w.r.t. Post-Mendelism)] Q.96. [Principle of Inheritance of Variation:
Inheritance of one gene]
1. (2)
2. (1) 1. (1)
3. (4) 2. (4)
4. (2) 3. (1)
5. (4) 4. (4)
5. (1)
Q.119. [Molecular basis of Inheritance (The DNA)]
Q.107. [Principle of Inheritance & Variation:
1. (2) (Mutation)]
2. (1)
1. (4)
3. (3)
2. (1)
4. (1)
3. (1)
5. (3)
4. (4)
Q.126. [Molecular basis of inheritance, (DNA 5. (4)
Fingerprinting]
Q.111. [Principle of Inheritance & Variation:
1. (1)
(Mendelian disorders)]
2. (3)
3. (2) 1. (1)
4. (2) 2. (1)
3. (1)
4. (1)

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ZOOLOGY
Q.179. [Mechanism of Evolution] 2. Find the odd one w.r.t. adaptive convergence
1. What term is used for evolutionary change that
occurs below the level of species? Placental mammals Marsupial mammals
(1) Microevolution (2) Macroevolution (1) Mole Marsupial mole
(3) Mega evolution (4) Coevolution (2) Anteater Spotted cuscus
2. Which is the smallest unit of living organisms that (3) Flying squirrel Flying phalanger
undergo evolution? (4) Wolf Tasmanian wolf
(1) Population (2) Individual 3. ‘Wings of butterfly and birds perform same
(3) Clone (4) Genus function’. It represents
3. The population of a species that results in the (1) Homologous structures
formation of subspecies is categories under (2) Divergent evolution
(1) Macroevolution (2) Adaptive conveyance (3) Adaptive radiation
(3) Coevolution (4) Microevolution (4) Convergent evolution
4. In order to continue evolution, there must be 4. Which of the following is not an example of
mechanism to create convergent evolution?
(1) Increase in genetic variation (1) Eyes of Octopus and mammal
(2) Decrease in genetic variation (2) Sweet potato and potato
(3) Stable population (3) Fins of shark and flippers of dolphin
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Mouth parts of different insects
5. Which out of the following example represents 5. Which of the given organism does not pertain to
micro-evolution? adaptive radiation of marsupials?
(1) Evolution of amphibian from fish (1) Spotted cuscus (2) Koala
(2) Evolution of birds from reptiles (3) Bandicoot (4) Lemur
(3) Origin of new genus of plant Q.150. [Methods of Birth Control]
(4) Evolution of antibiotic resistant bacteria 1. Which technique involves transferring of sperms in
Q.178. [What are the Evidences for Evolution?] the fallopian tube?
1. What type of evolution it is “when species have (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT
different ancestral origin but develop similar (3) IVF (4) ICSI
features”? 2. Which of the following technique involves injection
(1) Divergent evolution of sperm directly through egg membrane into its
(2) Parallel evolution cytoplasm?
(3) Convergent evolution (1) GIFT (2) IUI
(4) Coevolution (3) ICSI (4) ZIFT
CSS-2 Zoology

3. The different techniques considered under ART 2. Which of the following contains both estrogen and
are given except one. Find the exception progestogen?
(1) AI (2) ZIFT (1) Combined pills (2) Mini pills
(3) GIFT (4) IUD (3) Saheli (4) Norplant
4. After in vitro fertilization, the best site for transfer 3. Insertion of _____ within 72 hours of unprotected
of zygote to female reproductive tract for further sex prevents implantation.
development is Choose the option that fills the blank correctly
(1) Cervix (2) Uterine tube (1) IUDs (2) Norplant
(3) Uterus (4) Vagina (3) Depo-Provera (4) Implanon
5. GIFT differs from ZIFT in that fertilization in former 4. The drugs used for treating emergency
and latter occurs in contraceptions are called
(1) In vitro and in vivo respectively (1) Morning after pills (2) MTP
(2) In vivo and in vitro respectively (3) Androgens (4) Norplant

(3) Both in vivo 5. A single pill treatment as emergency contraception

(4) Both in vitro is

Q.148. [Methods of Birth Control] (1) Mifepristone (2) Mini pills

1. Which of the following contraceptive is injectable? (3) Implanon (4) Gossipol

(1) Norplant (2) Depo-Provera Q.146. [Sexually Transmitted Infections]
(3) Multiload 375 (4) Both (2) and (3) 1. Read the following statements
2. Use of which contraceptive method do not require A : Sterilisation procedure in males is called
the help of Doctors or expert nurses? vasectomy
(1) Femidom (2) Norplant B : Chlamydiasis is caused by bacterium
(3) Copper-T (4) Lippes loop Chlamydia trachomatis
3. One amongst the following contraceptive devices Choose the correct option
give protection against STD’s? (1) Both the statements are correct
(1) IUD’s (2) Implants (2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Copper-T (4) Condom (3) Only statement A is correct
4. Which contraceptive method have almost nil side (4) Only statement B is correct
effects? 2. All of the following diseases are incurable even if
(1) IUD’s (2) Oral contraceptives detected at early stage, except
(3) Implants (4) Periodic abstinence (1) Hepatitis B (2) HIV infection
5. Multiload 375 is a type of (3) Genital Herpes (4) Chlamydiasis

(1) Hormone releasing IUD 3. Family planning programmes in India were

(2) Copper releasing IUD initiated in

(1) 1951 (2) 2011
(3) Non medicated IUD
(3) 1971 (4) 2002
(4) Implant
4. Choose the correct match
Q.139. [Methods of Birth Control]
(1) Chlamydiasis - Bacterial
1. Oral contraceptive pills contains which of the
(2) Hepatitis B - Protozoan
following?
(3) Gonorrhoea - Viral
(1) Progestogen alone
(4) Syphilis - Protozoan
(2) Combination of progestogen and estrogen
5. Sterilization procedure in females is called
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Vasectomy (2) Tubectomy
(4) Prolactin alone
(3) Hysterectomy (4) Oophorectomy
CSS-2 Zoology

Q.166. [Evidences of Evolution] 3. Dose rate of Saheli after an initial intake of twice-
1. When the same structure develops along different a-week dose for 3 months is
direction due to adaptations to different needs, it (1) Once a week
results in (2) Daily without a break
(1) Divergent evolution (3) Daily for 21 days starting from 5th day to 25th
(2) Convergent evolution day of the menstrual cycle
(3) Analogy (4) Once a month
(4) Atavism 4. Saheli contains
2. Homology indicates (1) Estrogen
(1) Common anscestary (2) Progesterone
(2) Convergent evolution (3) Progesterone-estrogen combination
(3) Atavism (4) Centchroman
(4) Parallel evolution 5. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Saheli?
3. Structural similarities among diverse living (1) High contraceptive value and less side effects
organisms point towards (2) Steroidal pill
(1) Homology (3) It is taken orally
(2) Analogy (4) It is selective estrogen receptor modulator
(3) Convergent evolution
Q.161. [A brief account of evolution]
(4) Atavism
1. Which of the following is an incorrect statement
4. Read the following statements w.r.t. lobefins fishes?
A : A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers (1) Stout and strong fins
indicates the geological period in which they exist (2) In 1938, they were caught from east coast of
B : Analogy results in convergent evolution. South Africa.
(3) Evolved around 500 mya
Choose the correct option
(4) Lobefins fishes evolved into first amphibian
(1) Both the statements are correct
2. Choose the mismatch
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) Ichthyosaurs - Fish like reptile
(3) Only statement A is correct
(2) Tyrannosaurus rex - Biggest dinosaur
(4) Only statement B is correct
(3) Aquatic mammal - Sea cows
5. Similarities in proteins and genes performing a
(4) Coelacanth - Evolved into reptiles
given function among diverse organisms point
3. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. habitat
towards
(1) Whales (2) Dolphins
(1) Homology (3) Seals (4) Macropus
(2) Convergent evolution 4. Read the following statements
(3) Parallel evolution (1) Some amphibians most likely evolved into
(4) Atavism reptiles
Q.147. [Birth Control Methods] (2) Giant ferns (pteridophytes) fell to form coal
deposits slowly
1. Saheli prevents conception by
(3) Some land reptiles evolved into fish like
(1) Preventing ovulation reptiles
(2) Preventing implantation (4) Dinosaurs disappeared from the earth around
(3) Preventing Fertilisation 65 mya

(4) Blocking transport of gametes How many of the above statements are
incorrect?
2. Saheli was developed at
(1) Zero (2) One
(1) NDRI, Lucknow (2) CDRI, Lucknow
(3) Two (4) Four
(3) IVRI, Bareilly (4) ICAR, Delhi
CSS-2 Zoology

5. Reptiles are first true land vertebrate. How many
of the given below statements hold true for this?
(1) Reptiles lay thick shelled eggs
(2) Reptiles are amniotes
(3) Their eggs do not dry up in the sun unlike
3. Choose the correct sequence of evolution of
mammals
(1) Synapsids → Therapsids → Mammals
(2) Sauropsids → Thecodont → Mammals

those of amphibians (3) Early reptiles → Sauropsids → Mammals

(4) Reptiles are homoiothermous (4) Synapsids → Thecodont → Mammals
(1) Two (2) One 4. Early reptiles originated in which period
(3) Three (4) Four
(1) Carboniferous (2) Permian
Q.168. [Origin and evolution of animals]
(3) Triassic (4) Jurassic
1. Thecodonts are common ancestor of all except
(1) Dinosaurs (2) Crocodiles 5. Common ancestor of tuataras and turtles is
(3) Birds (4) Mammals (1) Pelycosaurs
2. Sauropsids are common ancestor of all except (2) Therapsids
(1) Snakes (2) Lizards (3) Synapsids
(3) Turtles (4) Mammals
(4) Sauropsids

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ANSWER KEY

Q.179. [Mechanism of Evolution] Q.146. [Sexually Trans missed Infections]

1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (4)
3. (4) 3. (1)
4. (4) 4. (1)
5. (4) 5. (2)
Q.178. [What are the Evidences for Evolution?] Q.166. [Evidences of Evolution]
1. (3) 1. (1)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (1)
4. (4) 4. (1)
5. (4) 5. (1)
Q.150. [Methods of Birth Control] Q.147. [Birth Control Methods]
1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (3) 2. (2)
3. (4) 3. (1)
4. (2) 4. (4)
5. (2) 5. (2)
Q.148. [Methods of Birth Control] Q.161. [A brief account of evolution]
1. (2) 1. (3)
2. (1) 2. (4)
3. (4) 3. (4)
4. (4) 4. (1)
5. (2) 5. (3)
Q.139. [Methods of Birth Control] Q.168. [Origin and evolution of animals]
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2. (4)
3. (1) 3. (1)
4. (1) 4. (1)
5. (1) 5. (4)

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