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1. 1Which of the following separation techniques is dependent on difference in volatility?

a) Distillation
b) Crystallization
c) Magnetic separation
d) Fractional crystallization
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Distillation process is dependent on difference in volatility. Example:- Vapor pressure,
Boiling point.

2. Crystallization exploits difference in which factors?


a) Specific heat
b) Boiling point
c) Melting point
d) Bubble point
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The difference in melting point in case of crystallization leads to the separation of the
mixture.

3. What is the separation by polymer membrane?


a) Exploits the difference in volatility
b) Exploits the difference in diffusivity
c) Exploits the difference in flowability
d) Exploits the difference in permeability
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In a polymer membrane, only the substances which are suitable to the membrane are
passed and the rest do not pass.It can be based on the pore size of the membrane.

4. Which of the following separation techniques exploits differences in electric charge and diffusivity?
a) Chromatography
b) Electrophoresis
c) Distillation
d) Liquid Chromatography
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Electrophoresis is based on the difference in the electrical charges and their diffusivity.
Based on the difference in diffusivity of electrical charges, the components are separated.
5. What is the size of equipment determined by?
a) Rate of mass transfer from one phase to another
b) Rate of heat transfer from one phase to another
c) The number of reactions taking place
d) The amount of byproduct formed
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The amount of the feed i.e. the amount of mass transferred from one part of the
separation process to another will determine the equipment size. More the mass transfer, larger shall be
the equipment.

6. Which of the following is not an important property that governs the extent of separation?
a) Polarizability
b) Vapor pressure
c) Temperature
d) Radius of gyration
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The temperature of the feed will decide the state of the feed and in turn will decide the
separation technique to be used. However it will have no effect on extent of separation.

7. Which of the following methods are to be applied to separate Oxygen rich components and Nitrogen
rich components?
a) Crystallization
b) Zone melting
c) Magnetic separation
d) Distillation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The difference between the boiling point of oxygen (-183oC) and Nitrogen (-195.8oC) is
frequently large to be separated by distillation.

8. How will you separate o-Xylene and m-Xylene products of the same compounds?
a) Crystallization
b) Distillation
c) Polymer membrane
d) Electrophoresis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The above mentioned components have same boiling points. So distillation cannot be used.
Since they have a difference in melting point, crystallization is used.

9. How is Oil and Hexane separated?


a) Distillation
b) Separating funnel
c) Crystallization
d) Electrophoresis
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Oil and Hexane will have huge differences in the molecular weights. Hence they will form
two phases in a separating funnel. Thus the layer that settles down can be removed. Distillation cannot
be used here because oil might get damaged.

10. How a mixture of isopropyl alcohol and water is be separated?


a) One step distillation
b) Two step distillation
c) Two step crystallization
d) Separating funnel
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A two-step distillation is employed where there is an addition of benzene which is soluble
in IPA and thus forms a layer. Now IPA and benzene mixture can be separated from water using a
separating funnel. Further distilling, we get benzene and IPA.

11. How a mixture of iron and copper fillings is be separated?


a) Magnetic separation
b) Crystallization
c) Evaporation
d) Distillation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic separation is employed since the components have difference in magnetic
properties.

12. How can the DNA fragments be separated from DNA?


a) Crystallization
b) Electrophoresis
c) Distillation
d) Zone melting
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: DNA fragments migrate to positive electrode in the electric field.

1. Which manner is a chemical or biochemical plant not operated in?


a) Continuous
b) Batch-wise
c) Semi-continuous
d) Discontinuous
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If a chemical plant is operated in a discontinuous manner, time will be illogically wasted.

2. When is a separation process not required in a manufacturing process?


a) When there is a decomposition reaction
b) When there is a complete conversion
c) When the byproducts are in form of gases
d) When the reaction is reversible
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If there is a complete conversion of reactants to products, there will be no need for
separation since no reactants are left.

3. If only 5% of Ethylene is converted to Ethylene glycol, why is there a need of separation process?
a) To feed more reactant to the reacting mixture
b) To remove the ethylene glycol formed
c) To recover the unreacted Ethylene Glycol
d) To start an intermediate reaction
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If the unreacted reactant is reused the cost of the manufacturing in turn shall be reduced
since there will be less requirement for feeding new reactant and near complete conversion could be
achieved.
4.

Will the above reaction require a separation process?


a) Yes
b) No
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The above reaction will not require a separation process since there is a complete
conversion of reactants to product.

5. How is the Diethyl Ether removed in the manufacturing of ethanol from ethylene?
a) Directly removed
b) Crude distillation column
c) Low pressure flash drum
d) Light-ends tower
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Diethyl ether is removed using a light ends tower easily.

6. Chemical reactions require feed mixtures from non-renewable resources like coal, petroleum. What is
used in place of non-renewable sources?
a) Sunlight
b) Biomass
c) Biodiesel
d) Microorganisms
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Many of the products given by coal, petroleum are given by biomass too and it is less
polluting.

7. Which of the following is a condition of operation for biochemical plant?


a) Metallic catalyst
b) Chemical catalyst
c) Elevated temperature
d) Non-pathologic state of the organism
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If any condition is used in a biochemical plant then there are chances of the organisms
dying.So a nn-pathological state is preferred.

8. In a biochemical plant, what do the physiological conditions vary with?


a) The reaction
b) State of the products
c) The micro-organism
d) The ambient conditions
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The physiological condition has to be dependent on the micro-organism because micro-
organism activity can be maximsed at certain conditions only.

9. How can be citric acid produced other than from lemons?


a) Aerobic fermentation of starch
b) Anaerobic fermentation of starch
c) Aerobic fermentation of glucose
d) Anaerobic fermentation of glucose
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The aerobic fermentation gives a considerate amount of citric acid required in various
chemical and biochemical reactions.

10. Which of the following separation techniques is NOT used in the process of manufacturing of citric
acid ?
a) Ultrafiltration
b) Ion-exchange
c) Crystallization
d) Distillation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Distillation is not required in the manufacturing of itric acid since there are no two products
forming which are needed to be separated having difference in boiling points.

11. What separation technique is used when a separation operation is accompanied by chemical
reaction that facilitates separation?
a) Distillation
b) Fractional distillation
c) Reactive distillation
d) Fractional crystallization
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Reactive distillation is best employed in such conditions when the separation process is
accompanied by chemical reaction like absorption of SO2 by limestone slurry.

12. Which of the following machines do not require a chemical separation technique?
a) The washing machine
b) Refrigerator
c) Coffee machine
d) Water cooler
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The coffee machine leaches oil from the coffee beans leaving behind the ingredients
responsible for acidity and bitterness.

13. Which of the following is NOT an importance of separation process?


a) Reduces the operating cost
b) Reduces the risk of explosion
c) Reduces the probability of side reactions
d) Increases the speed of the reaction
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Separation process cannot accelerate a chemical reaction unless the byproduct is hindering
the formation of product. Normally, a catalyst is used to accelerate a reaction.

14. Which of the following is NOT used to represent a chemical process?


a) Block flow diagram
b) Process-flow diagram
c) Flow chart
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A flow chart is used to represent a computer program and not a chemical reaction per se.

4. What is the formula for efficiency?


a) η = Wmin /(LW + Wmax)
b) η = Wmax /(LW + Wmax)
c) η = Wmin /(LW + Wmax)
d) η = Wmin /( Wmax)
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Only Wmin is considered and lost work is considered.

5. What is the maximum of energy converted to shaft work if stream is taken to reference state?
a) Gibbs energy
b) Availability function
c) Entropy
d) Change in entropy
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: b = h – tS the availability function which the maximum energy converted to shaft work.

6. What is the formula for lost work?


a) LW = h- TΔS
b) LW = T0 – TΔSirr
c) LW = T0 ΔSirr
d) LW = T0 – Sirr
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The multiplication in the absolute temperature and the change in entropy give the lost
work.

7. What is the magnitude of lost work not dependent upon?


a) Process irreversibilities
b) Fluid friction
c) Mass transfer due to finite concentration
d) Mass transfer due to finite temperature driving forces
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Mass transfer is not affected by finite temperature driving forces; hence it is a wrong
option.

8. Why does the reduce in lost work have limitation?


a) Equipment size decreases
b) Equipment size increases
c) Flow rate decreases
d) Flow rate increases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the driving forces decrease to reduce lost work, the equipment size increases.

10. If the minimum work of separation is 100KJ and the lost work is 1000KJ, what is the efficiency of
separation process?
a) 10%
b) 11%
c) 9.09%
d) 11.11%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: η = Wmin/(LW + Wmax).

1. How is the separation of uranium isotopes carried out?


a) Centrifugation
b) Electrodialysis
c) Electrophoresis
d) Thermal diffusion
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugation helps separation of isotopes based on molecular weights.

2. How is the separation of chlorine isotopes carried out?


a) Centrifugation
b) Electrodialysis
c) Electrophoresis
d) Thermal diffusion
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal diffusion helps in the separation of chlorine isotopes.

3. Which separation technique is used to concentrate heavy water?


a) Centrifugation
b) Electrodialysis
c) Electrolysis
d) Thermal diffusion
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Electrolysis is the technique used to concentrate heavy water.
4. Which separation technique is used for desalinization of sea water?
a) Centrifugation
b) Electrodialysis
c) Electrophoresis
d) Thermal diffusion
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Electrodialysis is used in desalinization of sea water.

5. How are hemicelluloses recovered?


a) Centrifugation
b) Electrophoresis
c) Electrolysis
d) Thermal diffusion
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Electrophoresis is used in recovering of hemicelluloses.

6. What field is applied in fled-flow fractionation?


a) Thermal gradient
b) Centrifugal force field
c) Perpendicular electric or magnetic field
d) Parallel electric or magnetic field
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A perpendicular electric or magnetic field is applied to the laminar flow.

7. What do the cation and anion permeable membrane do in electro-dialysis?


a) Disallows migration of species of same charge
b) Facilitates the migration of species of same charge
c) Separates the protons and electrons
d) Removes the ions
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A cation or anion membrane carries a fixed charge that prevents the migration of species of
same charge.

8. What happens when a temperature gradient is applied?


a) Components flow at different rates
b) Charged components migrate to opposite sides
c) The high melting component melts
d) Concentration gradient is formed
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A concentration gradient is formed due to temperature that gives the separation using
thermal diffusion.

9. What is the role of centrifugal force field?


a) Establishes a magnetic field
b) Establishes a pressure filed
c) Establishes an electric field
d) Settles down the heavier particles
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The centrifugal filed establishes a pressure field that separates fluid mixtures according to
molecular weights.

10. Why is an external field or gradient applied?


a) To increase the speed of separation
b) To start the separation
c) To decrease the byproducts
d) To obtain maximum efficiency
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The external field is not employed to increase efficiency or speed but it is the driving force
in the separation.

1. What is the semi-permeable membrane used in separation techniques made from?


a) Animal calls
b) Plant cells
c) Egg shells
d) Natural fibers
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Natural fibers act best as semi-permeable membrane.

2. What is separation effected by in microporous membranes?


a) Difference in solubility
b) Rate of species diffusion through the pores
c) Amount of feed to the membranes
d) Number of membranes used
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Rate of species diffusion through the pores.

3. What is separation effected by in non-porous membranes?


a) Differences In solubility in the membrane
b) Rate of species diffusion through the pores
c) Amount of feed to the membranes
d) Number of membranes used
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The differences in solubility lead to the separation in case of non-porous membranes.

4. What is meant by osmosis?


a) A process where molecules of a solute travel from more concentrated solution to less concentrated
solution
b) A process where molecules of solute travel from less concentrated solution to more concentrated
solution
c) A process where molecules of solvent travel from less concentrated solution to more concentrated
solution through a semi-permeable membrane
d) A process where molecules of solvent travel from more concentrated solution to less concentrated
solution through a semi-permeable membrane
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The solvent travels from less concentration to more concentration thus equalizing the
ncentration.This process is called as osmosis.

5. Why do reverse osmosis occur?


a) Because the concentration is more in the other region
b) Because the semi-permeable membrane has a tendency
c) Because solute molecules start travelling from high concentration to low concentration
d) Because a reverse pressure greater than the osmotic pressure is applied
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When a pressure greater than the osmotic pressure is applied in the reverse direction the
solvent molecules reverses their path.

6. In which separation process is the heat of evaporation required?


a) Desublimation
b) Pervaporation
c) Crystallization
d) Reverse osmosis
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The species transported through non porous membranes are evaporated and used.Thus
there is a requirement of heat of evaporation.

7. Which of the following separation techniques DO NOT use a solid agent?


a) Adsorption
b) Ion-exchange
c) Chromatography
d) Stripping
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There is no requirement of a solid agent in the process of separation by stripping.

8. Why is a solid adsorbent used in the separation technique of adsorption?


a) Because the components selectively adsorb and desorb from the solid surfaces
b) Because the transportation of solid adsorbents is easy
c) There are no known liquid adsorbents
d) Using a solid adsorbent lessens the heat of evaporation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Components move through the bed at different rates when the solid adsorbent is used.

9. Demineralization of water is done by which process?


a) Adsorption
b) Chromatography
c) Ion-Exchange
d) Distillation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ion-exchange is used to remove salts and their corresponding charged metals to
demineralize water.

10. What are the solid agents in form of?


a) Thick beds
b) Tubes
c) Flat sheets
d) Granular material
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Solid agents are in forms of granular material that increase the exposed surface area.

1. Which of the following is not a classification of biological species?


a) Bio-molecules
b) Small molecules
c) Bio-Polymers
d) Cellular particulates
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Bio-molecules are fats, carbohydrates, proteins etc. They are not species.

2. What are primary metabolites?


a) Synthesized during primary phase of cell growth
b) Synthesized during secondary phase of cell growth
c) Synthesized during death phase of cell growth
d) Synthesized during growth phase of cell
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Primary metabolites include the amino acids and the disaccharides and vitamins that are
synthesized during primary phase of cell growth.

3. What are secondary metabolites?


a) Synthesized during primary phase of cell growth
b) Synthesized during secondary phase of cell growth
c) Synthesized during the stationary phase
d) Synthesized during growth phase of cell
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Secondary metabolites include steroids, cytoxins etc. which are synthesized during
stationary phase of a cell.

5. What are nucleotides?


a) Nitrogenous bases covalently bonded to triose sugar
b) Nitrogenous bases covalently bonded to quadrose sugar
c) Nitrogenous bases covalently bonded to pentose sugar
d) Nitrogenous bases covalently bonded to hexose sugar
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nucleotides are nitrogenous bases covalently bonded topentose sugar. Example: in case of
DNA, the sugar is ribose.

6. Which of the following is an incorrect difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?
a) Eukaryotic cell has a cell wall while prokaryotic does not
b) Eukaryotic cell has less developed nucleus than prokaryotic cells
c) Prokaryotic cell can be aerobic while eukaryotic cell is mostly anaerobic
d) Prokaryotic cell does not have membrane bound organelles while eukaryotic cell has membrane
bound organelles
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Prokaryotic cells can be anaerobic as well. Eukaryotes are mostly aerobic.

7. If the bioproduct mass is 113Kg and the impurities are 500g, what is the purity of the bioproduct?
a) 99.12%
b) 99.55%
c) 0.004%
d) 98.68%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Bioproduct purity = Bioproduct mass/ (bioproduct mass + purity).

8. If the mass fed to the separation process was 460Kg and the mass recovered was 422Kg, what is the %
yield?
a) 93.77%
b) 8.2%
c) 91,73 %
d) 9%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Yield = Mass of bioproduct fed/ mass of bioproduct recovered.

9. What is the purpose of solute- solute separations and what are the species removed?
a) Purpose: clarify target species; Removes: culture media, fermentation broth
b) Purpose: extract target from cells; removes: small molecules, proteins
c) Purpose: Preserve target species ; Removes: Buffer solutions
d) Purpose: Fractionate target species; Removes: unrelated solutes ,small molecules.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The solute -solute separations are used to fractionate target species and remove small
molecules like lipids, proteins etc.

10. What is the purpose of fluid-solid separations and what are the species removed?
a) Purpose: clarify target species; Removes: culture media, fermentation broth
b) Purpose: extract target from cells; removes: small molecules, proteins
c) Purpose: Preserve target species ; Removes: Buffer solutions
d) Purpose: Fractionate target species; Removes: unrelated solutes ,small molecules.
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of the fluid solid separations is to remove culture media and clarify target
species.

11. Which of the following process is not employed to distinguish between contaminants and the
product based on physiochemical features?
a) Filtration
b) Batch adsorption
c) Isoatachoporesis
d) Crystallization
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Crystallization is not based on physiochemical features.

12. What is the overall percentage yield for penicillin manufacturing?


a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The yield is only 20% for starting materials.

13. Which of the following is also a process for penicillin recovery?


a) Adsorption on activated carbon
b) Direct crystallization
c) Degumming
d) Distillation
View Answer
Answer: a.
Explanation: Penicillin can be recovered alternatively by adsorption on activated carbon.

14. What is the use of batch electrophoresis in procedure of purification of bioproduct?


a) It gives high resolution carbohydrates
b) It purifies completely
c) It gives high resolution protein content
d) The targeted product is concentrated by batch electrophoresis
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Batch electrophoresis gives a high resolution of protein ingredients on a laboratory scale.

1. What is the role of Energy-separating agent (ESA)?


a) Involves heat transfer
b) Involves mass transfer
c) Acts as an agitator
d) Is a catalyst
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The role of ESA is to perform heat transfer. Example: Creation of vapor from liquid phase by
reducing pressure.

2. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantages of using a mass-separating agent (MSA) ?


a) Need for additional separator to remove MSA
b) Possible MSA contamination
c) Difficult design procedures
d) Need for large quantities of MSA
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There is no need for large quantities of MSA and the quantities are defined by the amount
of feed.

3. Which separation process is used when the volatility differences is too small between the species?
a) Flash vaporization
b) Stripping
c) Extractive distillation
d) Liquid-Liquid extraction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Extractive distillation is used where a miscible MSA increases the volatility difference
between the components.

4. What is added when it is difficult to condense vapors leaving the distillation column at top?
a) Adsorbent
b) Absorbent
c) Agitator
d) ESA
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The absorbent help to condense the vapor leaving the distillation column.

5. Which separation technique shall be used to remove ethane and lower molecular weight
hydrocarbons for LPG production?
a) Flash vaporization
b) Distillation
c) Reboiled absorption
d) Stripping
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Reboiled absorption shall be used since it is difficult to condense the ethane vapors leaving
from the top.

6. Which separation technique shall be employed to separate acetone and methanol?


a) Extractive distillation
b) Stripping
c) Liquid-Liquid extraction
d) Evaporation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Extractive distillation shall be used here since the volatility difference is very small.

7. In azeotropic distillation, why is an entrainer added?


a) To increase the boiling point of the mixture
b) To decrease the boiling point of the mixture
c) To form a minimum boiling point azeotrope
d) To form two immiscible phases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the separation of acetic acid with water, -butyl acetate is added which acts as an
entrainer and forms two liquid, minimum boiling point azeotrope with water. It is then overhead and
condensed and separated in acetate and water layers.

8. When is the liquid-liquid extraction preferred over distillation?


a) When the distillation apparatus is not available
b) Distillation apparatus is costly
c) When there too very high difference in the boiling points.
d) When the liquid mixture is temperature sensitive
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When the liquid mixture is temperature sensitive, liquid-liquid extraction is used by adding
a solvent that selectively dissolves in one of the liquids.

9. Which of the following solvents can be added during separation of Isopropyl alcohol and water?
a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Benzene
d) Alcoholic KOH
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Benzene selectively dissolves in IPA and thus two layers are formed which can be separated
using a separating funnel.

10. How is sulphur separated from its impurities?


a) Desublimation
b) Sublimation
c) Crystallization
d) Drying
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Sublimation is the technique used since sulphur can be sublimed and then condensed.

11. Where is the technique of leaching used?


a) Research laboratories
b) Soap industry
c) Pharmaceutical industry
d) Metallurgical industry
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Leaching is used in extraction of metals in metallurgical industry.

3. What id D ab called in the Fick’s law?


a) Thermal conductivity
b) Density coefficient
c) Diffusivity
d) Electrical conductivity
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The constant D ab is called as mutual diffusion coefficient or diffusivity.

7. Why does the diffusion of A with respect to B occur?


a) Due to concentration gradient
b) To to volume gradient
c) Due to velocity gradiet
d) Due to change in heat
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Concentration gradient is responsible for diffusion.

8. Which diffusion occurs when turbulent motion is there?


a) Molar diffusion
b) Eddy diffusion
c) Charge diffusion
d) No diffusion
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Due to turbulence there is a cause of eddy diffusion.

9. When is fick’s law applied?


a) For passive diffusion down the concentration gradient
b) Passive osmosis along concentration gradient
c) Active osmosis along concentration gradient
d) Active and passive movement of molecule along concentration gradient
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Fick’s law is used when there is passive diffusion down the concentration gradient.

10. Which of the following is TRUE?


a) Mass transfer in ordinary mixture occurs due to temperature gradient
b) Mass transfer is proportional to the area the molecules travel
c) Net transfer stops when concentrations are equal
d) The mass transfer is proportional to the area normal to the direction of mass transfer.
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The mass transfer is proportional to the area normal to the direction of mass transfer. The
areal along the transfer is not considered.

4. For which mass transfer the area log mean is considered?


a) Through a sphere
b) Through a cylinder
c) Through a wall
d) Through a ball
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The mass transfer through a cylinder is given by the formula 2L ab(ca1-ca2)/ ln(r2/r1).Hence log
mean of the area is considered.

5. For which mass transfer the area geometric mean is considered?


a) Through a sphere
b) Through a cylinder
c) Through a wall
d) Through a pipe
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The molar diffusion flux for a spherical shell with inner radius r 1 and outer radius r2 is
4r1r2 Dab(ca1-ca2)/r2-r1.Hence the geometric mean area is considered.

8. The fick’s second law is analogous to:


a) Newton;s second law
b) Newton’s third law
c) Fourier’s second law
d) Fourier’s first law
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The fick’s second law is analogous to fourier’s second law where c a is replaced by
temperature T and and Dab by thermal diffusivity.

9. Which equation is concerned with adsorption equilibria.


a) Gibb’s equation
b) Fourier’s law
c) Fick’s law
d) Freundlich’s equation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: the freunlich’s equation of x/m = Kp 1/n is concerned with adsorption equilibria.

10. For a wetted watch tower, what is the area of mass transfer?
a) Rectangular
b) Spherical
c) Cylindrical
d) Hexagonal
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The shape of a watch tower is cylindrical, hence the area must be cylindrical.

4. What value of reynold’s number represents a laminar flow?


a) 3
b) 2500
c) 5000
d) 78
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Only the value of 78 lies between 8 and 1200. SO it represents a laminar flow.

5. Which of the following is correct about Reynold’s number?


a) 3less thanNreless than1200
b) 3less than<nreless than1600
c) 25less than<nreless than1200

d) 8less than<nreless than1200

View Answer</n</n</n

Answer: d

Explanation: 8less than<nreless than1200 are the correct boundary conditions for Reynold’s number.</n

6. Prandtl’s number is the ratio of which two quantities?

a) Momentum conductivity and thermal conductivity

b) Coefficient of convection to thermal conductivity

c) Momentum diffusivity and thermal diffusivity

d) Interfacial force and viscous force

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Prandtl’s number is the ratio of Momentum diffusivity and thermal diffusivity.

7. Which of the following is true about prandtl’s number?

 = Cpµ/k
a) Npr

b) Npr = Cpk/µ
c) Npr = Cvµ/k
d) Npr = Cpµ
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Prandtl’s number is the ratio of Momentum diffusivity and thermal diffusivity. Hence the
formula is Npr = Cpµ/k.

8. What is the physical significance of nusselt’s number?


a) Ratio of convective heat transfer to conductive heat transfer
b) Ratio of convective heat transfer to conductive heat transfer
c) Ratio of total heat transfer to conductive heat transfer
d) Ratio of total transfer to convective heat transfer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Nusselt number is the Ratio of convective heat transfer to conductive heat transfer.

9. What is the correct formula for nusselt’s number?


a) hµ/k
b) hρ/k
c) hL/k
d) hΔTL/k
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The nusselt number hL/k is the ratio of total heat transfer to onductive heat transfer.

2. Which two forces is the reynold’s number a ratio of?


a) Gravitational force and interfacial force
b) Interfacial force and viscous force
c) Thermal conductivity and electrical conductivity
d) Conduction and convection
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The reynold’s number Nre = 4τ/µ is the ratio of interfacial and viscous force.
3. What value of Reynold’s number is obtained with water?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 25
d) 50
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The value of 25 is obtained with water.

2. Which of the following reynold’s number represents a turbulent flow?


a) 500
b) 700
c) 2500
d) 6000
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The flow becomes turbulent for a reynold’s number above 4000.

3. Which of the following is present in turbulent flow mass transfer?


a) Slow mass transfer
b) Less mass transfer
c) Eddy currents
d) Eddy diffusion
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Eddy diffusion is created due to the turbulent flow because of which mass transfer is fast.

4. What is the physical significance of drag coefficient?


a) It is drag force divided by projected area and velocity head
b) It is the ratio of pipe wall shear stress and velocity head
c) It is the ratio of inertial forces to viscous force
d) It is the ratio of inertial force to surface tension force
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The drag coefficient Cd=2FD/Au2ρ is drag force divided by projected area and velocity head.

5. What is the physical significance of weber number?


a) It is drag force divided by projected area and velocity head
b) It is the ratio of pipe wall shear stress and velocity head
c) It is the ratio of inertial forces to viscous force
d) It is the ratio of inertial force to surface tension force
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The weber number is the ratio of inertial force to surface tension force.

6. What is the physical significance of lewis number?


a) It is the ratio of bulk transfer mass and molecular diffusion
b) It is the ratio of thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
c) It is the ratio of conductive mass transfer to molecular diffusion
d) It is the ratio of mass transfer to mass capacity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Lewis number is the ratio of thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity.

7. What is the Sherwood number analogous to?


a) Schmidt number
b) Lewis number
c) Nusselt number
d) Prandtl number
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The Sherwood number Nsh =KcL/Dab is analogous to nusselt number.

8. Which of the following equations is referred as reynold’s analogy?


a) f/c = kc/ux
b) f/c = kcux
c) f/2 = kcux
d) f/2 = kc/ux
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The equation f/2 = kc/ux is referred to as reynold’s analogy.

9. For what condition does the equation for reynold’s analogy equals to equation by Chilton-colburn
analogy.
a) Npr=Nre=1
b) Npr=Nse=1
c) Npr=Nsc=1
d) Nsc=Nse=1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For Npr=Nsc=1 the equation for reynold’s analogy equals to equation by Chilton-colburn
analogy.

10. What is the significance of fanning friction factor?


a) It is the ratio of pipe wall shear stress to velocity head
b) It is drag force divided by projected area and velocity head
c) It is the ratio of inertial forces to viscous force
d) It is the ratio of inertial force to surface tension force
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The fanning friction factor is the ratio of pipe wall shear stress to velocity head.

1. What results due to addition of surfactants?


a) Ease of diffusion
b) Interfacial mass transfer resistance
c) Ease of mass transfer
d) A cloud over the liquid interface
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The surfactants which reduce the surface tension results in Interfacial mass transfer
resistance.

2. Which of the following is true about rate of mass transfer in gas?


a) NA = kp(pab-pai)
b) NA = kp(cab-cai)
c) NA = kc(pab-pai)
d) NA = kc(cab-cai)
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For diffusion in gas, partial pressure of the gas is considered.

3. Which of the following is true about rate of mass transfer in liquid?


a) NA = kp(pab-pai)
b) NA = kp(cab-cai)
c) NA = kc(pab-pai)
d) NA = kc(cab-cai)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For mass transfer in liquid, molar concentration is considered.
4. Which of the following is the incorrect form of Henry’s law?
a) pA=HAxA
b) pA = cA/HA
c) Xa=HAxA
d) YA = HAxA
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: All are the correct forms of henry’s law except X a=HAxA.

5. Which of the following is true about overall mass transfer coefficient KL?
a) KL =HA/kp +1/kc
b) 1/KL = HA/kp +1/kc
c) KL =1/HA kp +1/kc
d) 1/KL = HA/kp +kc
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Using henry’s law and slope point form in the graph we get 1/K L = HA/kp +1/kc.

6. What is the correct expression for overall mass transfer coesfficient based on mole fraction driving
forces?
a) 1/Kx = 1/KAky + 1/kx
b) Kx = 1/KAky + 1/kx
c) 1/Kx = KA/ky + 1/kx
d) 1/Kx = 1/KAkx + 1/ky
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 1/Kx = 1/KAky + 1/kx is the correct representation of overall mass transfer coefficient.

7. What will be the overall mass transfer coefficient when the resistance by gas phase is negligible?
a) 1/Kx = 1/KAky + 1/kx
b) Kx = 1/KAky + 1/kx
c) 1/Kx = KA/ky + 1/kx
d) 1/Kx = 1/KAkx + 1/ky
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When the resistance by gas is negligible 1/KAky>>1/kx.

8. What are the correct SI units for kx, ky?


a) kmol/s-m
b) kmol/s-m2
c) mol/s-m2
d) kmol/s
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The SI units for kx and ky is kmol/s-m 2.

9. Which of the following is true for mass transfer across liquid-liquid interface?
a) 1/Kx(2) = 1/KAkx(1) + 1/ky(2)
b) 1/Kx(2) = 1/KAky(2) + 1/kx(2)
c) 1/Kx(2) = 1/KAkx(1) + 1/kx(2)
d) 1/Kx(2) = 1/ky(1) + 1/kx(2)
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For mass transfer across liquid-liquid interface 1/K x(2) = 1/KAkx(1) + 1/kx(2) holds true.

10. What is the SI unit of kp?


a) kmol/s-m2-pa
b) kmol/s-m-kpa
c) kmol/m2-kpa
d) kmol/s-m2-kpa
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The value of kp involes partial pressure and its SI unit is kmol/s-m 2-kpa.

1. What are cascades?


a) They are the one step separation processes
b) They are the last part of separation processes
c) They are an aggregation of stages
d) They are the starting part of every separation process
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Cascades are the aggregates of stages needed to accomplish separation that cannot be
attained in one step.

2. What is NOT the need of cascades?


a) To accomplish separation that cannot be attained in one step
b) To increase the purity of products
c) To reduce the amount of mass or energy separating agents required
d) To make the efficient use of raw materials
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cascades can promise efficiency but not purity.

3. Countercurrent cascades are not prevalent in which process?


a) Crystallization
b) Distillation
c) Stripping
d) Liquid-liquid extraction
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Cascades are not required in crystallization.

4. What is used when the extent of separation is limited by a single step separation?
a) Distillation and pervaporation
b) Cascades
c) Multistage process
d) Hybrid systems
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When the extent of separation is limited by a single step separation hybrid systems are
used.

5. Which is a widely used cascade?


a) Cross-current cascade
b) Linear Counter current cascade
c) Linear concurrent cascade
d) Single section cascade
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Linear Counter current cascade are most widely used.

6. Batch crystallization uses which type of cascades?


a) Cross-current cascade
b) Linear Counter current cascade
c) Linear concurrent cascade
d) Two dimensional diamond configuration
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Batch crystallization uses two dimensional diamond configurations.
7. Which cascades are not useful in separating key components?
a) Single section cascades
b) Two section countercurrent cascades
c) Interlinked system of countercurrent cascades
d) Three section cascades
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Single section cascades are useful to remove the feed but not to separate the
keycomponents.

8. Which cascade is used in fractional liquid-liquid extraction?


a) Two section countercurrent cascade
b) Cross current cascade
c) Two-dimensional diamond configuration
d) Interlinked system of countercurrent cascades
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Two section countercurrent cascades are used in fractional liquid-liquid extraction.

9. Leaching uses which cascade configuration?


a) Single section countercurrent
b) Cross current cascade
c) Two dimensional diamond configuration
d) Interlinked system of countercurrent cascades
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A single section countercurrent cascade is used in leaching or washing process.

7. The minimum amount of solvent required is underflow ratio is 0.5 and insoluble solids feed rate is
2000Kg/hr is:
a) 2000kg/hr
b) 1000kg/hr
c) 4000kg/hr
d) 500kg/hr
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: S min =RF A , thus S min = 2ooo*0.5=1oookg/hr.

8. What is the washing factor if solvent feed rate is 3000kh/hr , underflow ratio is 0.5 and insoluble
solids feed rate is 2000?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since W= S/RFA , W= 3000/2000*0.5=3.

9. The minimum amount of solvent required is underflow ratio is 0.3 and insoluble solids feed rate is
200Kg/hr is:
a) 50kg/hr
b) 600kg/hr
c) 666.66kg/hr
d) 60kg/hr
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: S min =RF A , thus S min = 2oo*0.3=600kg/hr.

10. What is the washing factor if solvent feed rate is 2500kh/hr , underflow ratio is 0.3 and insoluble
solids feed rate is 500?
a) 13.33
b) 166.66
c) 16.66
d) 133.33
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since W= S/RFA , W= 2500/500*0.3=16.66.

1. What happens in sublimation?


a) Solid vaporizes in liquid phase
b) A liquid vaporizes in gas phase
c) A gas solidifies
d) A solid vaporizes in gas phase without going in liquid phase
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In sublimation, a solid vaporizes in gas phase without going in liquid phase.

2. What happens in desublimation?


a) Solid vaporizes in liquid phase
b) A liquid vaporizes in gas phase
c) A gas solidifies without changing to liquid
d) A solid vaporizes in gas phase without going in liquid phase
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In desublimation, a gas solidifies in solid phase without going in liquid phase.

3. What are sublimation and desublimation governed by?


a) Liquid vapor pressure
b) Solid vapor pressure
c) Amount of solid present
d) Partial pressure of gas
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: At low pressures both sublimation and desublimation are governed by solid vapor pressure.

4. What happens at equilibrium during sublimation?


a) Vapor pressure of liquid is equal to solid
b) Vapor pressure of solid is equal to vapor pressure of gas
c) Vapor pressure of solid is equal to partial pressure of solute in gas
d) Vapor pressure of solid is equal to partial pressure of solute in liquid
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: During sublimation, the solid vapor pressure is equal to partial pressure of solute in gas.

5. When does the sublimation take place?


a) The partial pressure of solute in gas phase is more than solid vapor pressure
b) The partial pressure of solute I gas phase is more than solid vapor pressure
c) The vapor pressure is equal to partial pressure
d) When sufficient heat is applied
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Sublimation will only be taking place when the partial pressure is lesser in gas because the
difference is the driving force.

6. What is the remainder product of sublimation called?


a) Subliment
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Sublimate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The solid remaining is termed as sublimate.

7. Which of the following is not an example of sublimate?


a) Camphor
b) Naphthalene
c) Iodine
d) Nitrates
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Iodine is not a sublimate since it gets sublimated and not left behind.

8. Which of the following solids undergo sublimation?


a) Sodium chloride
b) Iodine crystals
c) Sodium carbonate
d) Sodium bicarbonate
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Iodine has high melting point and sublimes easily.

9. A mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is separated by using:


a) Distillation
b) Crystallization
c) Sublimation
d) Magnetic separation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ammonium chloride is sublimable, hence sublimation is used.

10. How is propylene-propane mixture separated?


a) Distillation
b) Crystallization
c) Adsorption
d) Sublimation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Adsorption technique is used using adsorbent silica gel for separating propylene-propane
mixture.
1. What is the third phase in all the two phase systems?
a) The adsorbent
b) The interface
c) The container
d) The atmosphere
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The third phase is the container which selected as inert for separation purposes.

2. How to separate vapor-liquid-liquid system?


a) Fractional distillation
b) Fractional crystallization
c) Zone melting
d) Three phase isothermal flash
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A three phase isothermal flash is used to separate vapor-liquid-liquid system.

3. Why are calculations for three phase flash difficult?


a) Because of strong dependency of K values on liquid phase composition when two immiscible liquids
are present
b) Because of strong dependency of K values on vapor phase composition when two immiscible liquids
are present
c) Because of strong dependency of K values on liquid phase composition when two miscible liquids are
present
d) Because of strong dependency of K values on liquid phase composition when three immiscible liquids
are present
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The calculations of three phase flash are difficult due to strong dependency of K values on
liquid phase composition when two immiscible liquids are present.

5. The calculations of multiphase system are made by:


a) Graph
b) Hand calculations
c) Trial and error
d) Process simulators
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Calculations of multiphase system are made by process simulators.
6. If at a certain pressure the vapor pressure of water is 4.74pisa and the mole fraction of water is 0.923,
find out the crystallizer pressure.
a) 2.5pisa
b) 4.38pisa
c) 4.56pisa
d) 4.76pisa
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Roult’s law is used P=psxh20. Hence P=4.74*0.923=4.38pisa.

7. If at a certain pressure the vapor pressure of water is 8pisa and the mole fraction of water is 0.9, find
out the crystallizer pressure.
a) 0.64pisa
b) 7.2pisa
c) 0.66pisa
d) 0.81pisa
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Roult’s law is used P=psxh20. Hence P=8*0.9=7.2pisa.

1. Packed columns are better analyzed by:


a) Mass transfer coefficients
b) Equilibrium stage methods
c) Graphical methods
d) Algebraical methods
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Packed columns are better analyzed by mass transfer coefficients.

3. At the interface of liquid and vapor, which interface exists?


a) Chemical
b) Physical
c) Thermal
d) No equilibrium exists
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: At the interface of liquid and vapor, a physical equilibrium exists.

6. What is the overall height of gas transfer unit if the volume is 1000m 3 and the overall gas phase
coefficient is 2.6 and the inside cross sectional area is 20m 2 .
a) 12m
b) 13.6m
c) 18.9m
d) 19.2m
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: HOG = V/ky aS, hence HOG= 1000/2.6*20=19.2.

7. What is the overall height of gas transfer unit if the volume is 780m 3 and the overall gas phase
coefficient is 4.2 and the inside cross sectional area is 45m 2 .
a) 4.1m
b) 7.2m
c) 10.4m
d) 19.2m
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: HOG = V/ky aS, hence HOG= 780/4.2*45=4.1.

3. Which method uses McCabe-thiele diagram?


a) HETP method
b) HTU method
c) Ponchon-Savarit method
d) HODL method
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The HETP method used McCabe-thiele diagram first.

6. In which solution are the values of HTU and HETP constant?


a) Concentrated solution
b) True solution
c) Homogeneous solution
d) Dilute solution
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The values of HTU and HETP are constant in dilute solution.

1. Which of the following is not a commonly used solvent?


a) Acetone
b) Hexane
c) Iso-butyl keton
d) Acetaldehyde
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Acetaldehyde is not a commonly used solvent.

2. The cost of solvent extraction is how many times more than distillation?
a) 20
b) 30
c) 50
d) 60
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of solvent extraction is 60 times more than distillation.

3. How can the partition coefficient be increased?


a) By increasing the feed
b) By decreasing the feed
c) By changing pH
d) By increasing chemical potential
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: By changing the pH the chemical potential can be reduced hence the partition coefficient
can be increased.

4. Because partition coefficients of some solvents are unfavorably low _______ has received much
attention.
a) Extractive reaction
b) Reactive extraction
c) Distillation
d) Fractional distillation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Because partition coefficients of some solvents are unfavorably low reactive extraction has
received much attention.

5. What can be used to enhance the extraction of polar zwitter ions?


a) Hydrogen bonding
b) Acid-base pairing
c) Formation of ion pair
d) Addition of surfactant
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: High hydrogen bonding will lead to high extraction of polar zwitter ions.

6. How is the organic partitioning of a cation or an anion enhanced?


a) Hydrogen bonding
b) Acid-base pairing
c) Formation of ion pair
d) Addition of surfactant
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The organic portioning of a cation or anion is dramatically enhanced by formation of ion
pair between target species and complementary ion-pair agent.

7. How can competitive water and mineral salts be removed?


a) Hydrogen bonding
b) Acid-base pairing
c) Formation of ion pair
d) Addition of surfactant
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Acid-base pairing permits the removal of competitive water that conatins mineral salts and
minerals added to alter pH.

8. What effect does increasing temperature have on KD?


a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) First increases then decreases
d) First decreases then increases
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Increasing temperature decreases the kD value.

9. What happens after critical micelle concentration CMC?


a) Micelles stop forming
b) Micelles cannot form
c) Micelles start forming
d) Solubility is maximum
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Above CMC micelles start forming.

10. How are reverse micelles formed?


a) By adding surfactant
b) By removing surfactant
c) By adding solvent
d) By removing solvent
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanat2. What is done in pressure swing distillation?
a) Two columns in series at same pressure
b) Two columns in parallel at same pressure
c) Two columns in series at different pressures
d) Two columns in parallel at different pressures
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pressure swing distillations using two ordinary columns in series operating at different
pressures.

3. Which of the following is an application of pressure swing distillation?


a) Tetrahydrofuran-water mixture
b) Hydrochloric acid-methanol mixture
c) Tetrahydrofuran-methanol mixture
d) Hydrochloric acid- tetrahydrofuran mixture
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum boiling azeotrope of Tetrahydrofuran-water mixture is separated by pressure
swing distillation.

ion: By adding

4. Formic acid-water mixture is separated using:


a) Salt distillation
b) Extractive distillation
c) Differential distillation
d) Pressure swing distillation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Formic acid-water mixture is separated using Pressure swing distillation.
5. Hydrochloric acid-water mixture is separated using:
a) Salt distillation
b) Extractive distillation
c) Differential distillation
d) Pressure swing distillation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrochloric acid-water mixture is separated using Pressure swing distillation.

6. Why is recycle ratio a key design factor?


a) Low cost of gas compression
b) High cost of gas compression
c) High equipment cost
d) High gas cost
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Due to the high cost of gas compression, the recycle ratio is key design factor.

7. What does recycle ratio depends on?


a) Variation of azeotropic composition with column pressure
b) Variation of pressure with composition
c) Cost of gas compression
d) Efficiency of instrument
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The recycle ratio depends on Variation of azeotropic composition with column pressure.

9. For pressure swing distillation, due to high cost of gas compression, __________ is akey factor.
a) Efficiency
b) Feed
c) Yield
d) Recycle ratio
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Recycle ratio is the key factor due to high cost of gas compression.

10. Why is pressure swing distillation costly?


a) High cost of gas compression
b) High cost of equipment
c) High cost of columns
d) Less yield
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Due to high cost of gas compression, the separation technique is costly.

4. What is a glass transition temperature?


a) When a rubbery polymer turns into glass
b) When a glassy polymers turns into rubbery polymer
c) When the polymer becomes a melt
d) When the melting point is reached
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When the temperature of a glassy polymer is reached a certain temperature known as glass
transition temperature is achieved where the polymer turns rubbery.

5. The reaction product of cellulose and acetic anhydride is:


a) Acetic cellulose
b) Cellulose acetate
c) Cellulose diacetate
d) Cellulose triacetate
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The reaction of product of cellulose and acetic anhydride is cellulose triacetate which is
hydrophobic, highly crystalline and high quality.

6. To increase the strength of polyisoprene ,it is vulcanized with:


a) Rubber
b) Phosphorous
c) Sulphur
d) Sodium
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Vulcanization is done with the help of sulphur, a process that introduces crosslinks.

7. Which of the following is not a property of aromatic polyamides?


a) Low melting
b) Crystalline
c) High resistance to solvents
d) Long term thermal stability
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Aromatic polyamides are high melting crystalline polymers.

8. Which of the following true about polycarbonates?


a) Amorphous
b) Not ductile
c) Fragile
d) Thermosetting
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Polycarbonates which are characterized by –OCOO- chain are amorphous polymers.

9. Polysulphones contain the _______ group.


a) S
b) CO
c) SO2
d) SO4
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Polysulphones can be easily made into fibres and all of them contain a SO 2 group.

10. Which of the following is untrue about Polytetrafluoroethylene?


a) Branched chain
b) Highly crystalline
c) Exceptional thermal stability
d) High degree of polymerization
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Polytetrafluoroethylene is a straight chain polymer and can be formed into films and
tubing.

1. Which of the following is not an application of transport in membranes?


a) Microfiltration
b) Reverse osmosis
c) Dialysis
d) Fractional distillation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Fractional distillation is not an application of transport in membranes.
2. What cannot be a size of membrane?
a) Nano porous
b) Macroporous
c) Microporous
d) Non-porous
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A membrane cannot be nano porus.

9. Which of the following is not a use of reverse osmosis?


a) Treatment of industrial waste water to remove heavy metal ions
b) Separation of sulfites and bisulfites from paper and processing industry effluents
c) Treatment of municipal water to remove inorganic salts
d) Treatment of industrial effluents to decolorize it
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Reverse osmosis does not decolorize the water.

10. What is a normal tolerance value for concentration polarization coefficient?


a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
d) 0.5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If he concentration polarization coefficient is greater than 0.2 then it is considered
significant indicating changes in design.

4. Which of the following statements is true about migration of biomolecules?


a) The rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of medium
b) Rate of migration is directly proportional to current
c) Low voltage is used for separation of high mass molecules
d) Rate of migration is inversely proportional to current
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: More the current passing more will be the migration. Hence there is a direct proportion.

5. What does the electrophoresis apparatus consist of?


a) Gel, buffer chamber and fire pack
b) Buffer chamber and electrophoresis unit
c) Electrophoresis unit and gel separator
d) Power pack and electrophoresis unit
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The apparatus consists of power pack and electrophoresis unit.

6. If proteins are separated according to their electrophoretic mobility then the type of electrophoresis
is:
a) SDS PAGE
b) Affinity Electrophoresis
c) Electro focusing
d) Free flow electrophoresis
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the technique of SDS page, the proteins are separated according to their electrophoretic
mobility.

1. What does the Attrition mean?


a) Coalescence of molecules
b) Collision of solid crystals with each other
c) Breakup of existing crystals in new particles
d) Mechanism that gives different crystal size distributions
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The term attrition refers to breakup of existing crystals in new particles.

2. What does the term contact nucleation?


a) Coalescence of molecules
b) Collision of solid crystals with each other
c) Breakup of existing crystals in new particles
d) Mechanism that gives different crystal size distributions
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The term contact nucleation refers to collision of solid crystals with one another.

3. What does the term chronomals refer to?


a) Coalescence of molecules
b) Collision of solid crystals with each other
c) Breakup of existing crystals in new particles
d) Mechanism that gives different crystal size distributions
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Chronomals refer to the mechanism that gives different crystal size distribution.

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a horizontal tube evaporator?


a) Agitation is provided only by bubbles leaving the evaporator as vapor
b) The tube bundle is arranged vertically, with the solution inside the tubes condensing outside
c) To handle viscous solution a pump is used to force liquid upwards
d) Also called short vertical tube evaporator
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Agitation is provided by the bubbles leaving the evaporator as bubbles in horizontal tube
evaporator.

2. Which of the following is not an assumption in the evaporator model?


a) The feed has only one volatile components
b) Only the latent heat of vaporization is available for heating the solution
c) Boiling action in heat exchanger ensures perfect mixing
d) Overall temperature driving force is the temperature that of saturated steam
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Overall temperature driving force is not the temperature of the saturated steam. It is the
difference at which the steam enters and the thick liquid concentrate leaves. Hence it is T s-Tp.

3. What is the mass flow rate of the heating steam is


Internal energy U= 500J
Area= 2m2
Temperature driving force is Ts-Tp 20oC
Latent heat of vaporization is Hvap=1000J
a) 2Kg
b) 3Kg
c) 20Kg
d) 30Kg
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: M= UA(Ts-Tp)/Hvap, hence m= 20Kg.

1. What are the two general types of centrifuge devices for solid-liquid separations?
a) Sedimentation centrifuges, filtering centrifuges
b) Sedimentation centrifuges, decantation centrifuges
c) Filtering centrifuges, sintering centrifuges
d) Sedimentation centrifuges, two way centrifuges
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The two general types of centrifuge devices for solid-liquid separations are Sedimentation
centrifuges, filtering centrifuges.

2. What is the use of tubular-bowl centrifuge?


a) To separate soap from oil
b) To separate waste material
c) To separate cells and viruses from broth
d) To separate salts from mixtures
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The tubular-bowl centrifuge is used to separate cells and viruses from broth.

3. In which industry tubular-bowl centrifuge not used?


a) Food industry
b) Pharma industry
c) Biochemical industry
d) Metallurgical industry
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The tubular-bowl centrifuge is used to separate cells and viruses from broth and hence has
no use in the metal industry.

4. When is the basket-filtering centrifuge not used?


a) Solids are main product
b) Low cake moisture content
c) High solid recovery desired
d) High liquid recovery desired
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When high liquid recovery is desired, basket filtering centrifuge is not used.

5. Why are gravity separators not used in bioseparations?


a) Because density differences are very large
b) Because density differences are very small
c) Because gravity separators are too small
d) Because the cultures get damaged
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Gravity separators are not used in bioseparations because density differences are very
small.

1. Which type of degradation process is found in live microorganisms?


a) Destruction of cell membranes
b) Preoxidation of lipids
c) Gelatination of starch
d) Derivation of some amino acids
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The type of degradation process in live microorganisms is destruction of cell membranes
and the result is denaturation of proteins and death of cells.

2. Which type of degradation process is found in lipids?


a) Destruction of cell membranes
b) Preoxidation of lipids
c) Gelatination of starch
d) Derivation of some amino acids
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The type of degradation process in lipids is peroxidation of lipids and its result is reaction
with other components including proteins and vitamins.

3. Which type of degradation process is found in vitamins?


a) Destruction of cell membranes
b) Preoxidation of lipids
c) Gelatination of starch
d) Derivation of some amino acids
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The type of degradation process in lipids is derivation of some amino acids and its result is
partial inactivation.

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