Food sanitation

1-Which of the following is false about pasteurization:-

a. It reduces milk’s nutritive value b. It does kill harmful bacteria
c. Even if the milk is pasteurized, it is not safe to leave it out the refrigerator for an extended
period of time d. Milk is heated to 75ºC for 15-20 seconds
2. For how long (at a minimum) should a food handler wash his hands before and after
handling food?
a. 15 sec b. 20 sec c. 30 sec d. 60 sec
3-License for food handler require vaccination by
a. BCG vaccine
b. Hepatitis A vaccine
c. TAB vaccine
d. Influenza vaccine
4-A substance intentionally added that preserves flavor and improves taste is called ……….
a. Food additive b. Food adulterant c. Food contaminant d. Food material
5- Which of the following is a function of a food additive
a. To maintain product consistency b. Maintain nutritive value
c. Controlling acidity/alkalinity d. All of above
6-Antioxidant is a class of food additive.
a. True
b. false
7- Regarding food additive which statement is true:
a) All food additives are carcinogenic.
b) Food additives must be avoided as far as possible.
c) All have potential risk of toxicity to liver & kidney d) Decrease nutritive value of food
8- Organisms infect milk by direct secretion from infected animal include
a. Diphtheria
b. Salmonellosis
c. Q fever.
d. TB.
9-Milk-borne zoonoses include all the following except
a. TB
b. Typhoid
c. Brucellosis
d. Botulism
10-A deadly food-borne illness from improperly canned foods is caused by:
a. Trichinella b. Salmonella c. Clostridium perfringens d. Clostridium botulinum
11- handling tissues or carcasses of infected animals exposes workers' to occupational
infection of
a. Salmonellosis
b. Malignant pustule
c. Taenia
d. Trichinella
12- Fortification of processed food including all the following except:-
a. Adding vit. D to baby powder milk
b. Adding iron to wheat flour
c. Adding iodine to table salt
d. Adding Color to Saccharin
13- Which is the pre-dominating organism in dirty utensils of milk?
a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus b) Propionibacterium
c) Streptococcus lactis d) Phosphorous
14- Pasteurization of milk is considered better than boiling because:
a) Vit. C is reduced only by 20% b) Keeping quality is better
c) Spores forming bacteria are destroyed d) All of above.
15. Which of the following is NOT a function of a food additive
a) To maintain product consistency b) Maintain nutritive value
c) Controlling acidity/alkalinity d) A and b e) none of the above
16.The food temperature ‘danger zone’ is between what temperature range?
(a) 15ºC-75ºC (b) 5ºC-80ºC (c) 5ºC-60ºC (d) 0ºC-15ºC (e) 10ºC-70ºC
17.What are the basic steps of washing hands?
(a) Wash thoroughly and dry well
(b) Apply soap, wash well, rinse and dry with disposable paper towel
(c) Apply soap, wash well, rinse and dry with tea towel
(d) Rinse and dry with tea towel (e) wash with water only
18.If you are a food handler and you have been vomiting and/or had diarrhea when should
you return to work?
(a) When you feel better (b) After 1 week
(c) When your doctor advises you can (d) The next day (e) none of the above
19.When preparing food, any cuts and wounds should be:
(a) Covered with a band aid (b) Left uncovered
(c) Covered with a blue band aid & disposable glove
(d) Covered with a disposable glove (e) none of the above
20. Safe Food: it is pollution-free food, i.e. free from
(a) Radioactive contamination
(b) Infection: pathogenic organisms, and infective stages of parasites
(c) Poisonous metals, e.g. lead, arsenic, mercury (d) Toxic chemicals, e.g. insecticides.
(e) all of the above
21. Measures for food handlers include all the following except
(a) Health education, for personal cleanliness and good habits
(b) vaccination with HCV vaccine (c) Pre-employment examination
(d) Supervision, at work (e) Periodic examination and booster TAB vaccination
22. Laboratory Examination of food handlers include
(a) nasal and throat swab (b) chest x-ray and sputum examination
(c) urine analysis for salmonella (d) Blood for syphilis (e) all of the above
23. Meat may transmit ingestion bacterial zoonoses include all the following except
(a) salmonellosis. (b) tuberculosis,
(c) Taenia saginata (d) intestinal anthrax (e) brucellosis
24. Diseases transmitted by fish include all the following except
(a) Heterophyes heterophyes. (b) botulism (c) intestinal infections
(d) cutaneous anthrax (e) Diphyllobothrium latum
25. Principles of Fish Sanitation include
(a) Fishing prohibited in areas of potential pollution.
(b) Ice-packing of fish on transport and storage
(c) Sanitation of fish markets (d) Health education of the public
(e) all of the above
26. Milk is particularly important vehicle of infection, due to
(a) Milk used in preparation of the many widely used dairy products.
(b) Milk is a ready-made food that needs no cooking
(c) Milk takes a long way from farm to consumer
(d) Nutrients of milk allow rapid growth of organisms
(e) all of the above
27. Milk - borne Diseases include all the following except
(a) Streptococcus haemolyticus. (b) Echinococcus granulosus
(c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Diphtheria (e) extrapulmonary tuberculosis
28. The principles of milk sanitation are
(a) Farm Animal: well nourished, healthy. (b) Shed: Sanitary & clean
(c) Milking: In special clean room by licensed clean person
(d) Dairy: Licensed, sanitary and clean place, licensed workers
(e) all of the above
29. Boiling of milk includes all the following except
(a) kills all organisms. (b) not influence the nutritive value
(c) destroy vitamin C and most of vit. B1 (d) lactose may be burnt (caramelization)
(e) causes big, less digestible fat globules
30. Regulation of additives for safety include
(a) Allowing only additives that prove to be safe.
(b) Specifying maximal allowable concentration
(c) Giving name and concentration of additive(s) on food label
(d) Regular inspection for quality, validity (e) all of the above
 Water sanitation
1-The hydrologic cycle is a term which describes:-
a. the eventual loss of all water from the earth
b. why three-fourths of the earth’s surface is covered by water
c. when we can expect heavy rains and floods
d. the continuous natural recycling of water on the earth
2. Running or moving water purifies itself to “drinking water quality” after flowing a
specified distance.
a. true b. false
3- What does the term, “potable,” refer to with regard to water?
a. Clear water
b. Free of infection water
c. Water with hardness 20º
d. Drinkable water
e. Soft water
4- Hard water is a term commonly used to describe
a. groundwater found arid areas b. water with many dissolved ions
c. water distilled from acid rain d. water from polluted water
5- Hard water can block radiators due to the formation of
a. Insoluble calcium and magnesium salts b. Insoluble sodium salt
c. In soluble phosphate salt d. Insoluble potassium salt
6- Water that has moved underground has underground natural filtration, therefore its
purity & “safety to drink” is guaranteed.
a. True b. false
7- The single most important consideration about any drinking water supply is its freedom from:
a) hardness b) Disease-producing organisms c) Total dissolved solids d) Chlorides
8- The most reliable way to purify water is to
a. Boil it.
b. Use iodine tablets and let stand for 1 hour.
c. Chlorinate it to international standards.
d. Use filtration and iodination.
9- The cysts of Cryptosporidium are destroyed by
a. Iodine b. Chlorine
c. Filtration d. permethrin
10- Water is made potable at sea level if boiled for at least
a. 1 minute
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 15 minutes
11- Halogenation of water with chlorine is
a. Effective against most viruses
b. Effective against Cryptosporidium
c. Effective against all forms of amoeba
d. Relatively expensive
12- “mottling of teeth’’ occurs when Florine in water
a. < 1 P.P.M
b. >1.5 P.P.M
c. < 0.5 P.P.M
d. ≥ 2 P.P.M
13- Recommended free residual chlorine of water in usual conditions:
a. 0.1 mg/L
b. 0.2mg /L
c. 0.4 mg/L
d. < 0.1mg/L
14- “Samples of disinfected water should be sent to laboratories to be tested for standards of
potable water is an important step in large scale purification”. Using standard water
sampling techniques, how would you verify the origin of point-source pollution in a stream?
a. Test for O2
b. Test downstream
c. Test upstream
d. Test above and below the suspected source
15- Choose the two major purposes of sampling in the water environment:
a. To establish a baseline b. To determine the pollution
c. To test for acid d. To decide whether or not you can drink it
16- Swimming pool water requires a residual chlorine of:-
a. 0.2 PPM b. 0.5 PPM c. 0.8 PPM d. 0.4 PPM
17- The following cause alkalinity as well hardness in natural water.
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium bicarbonate
c) Magnesium carbonate
d) All of the above
18- Permanent hardness is caused due to
a) Magnesium carbonate
b) Magnesium bicarbonate
c) Magnesium sulphate
d) All of the above
19- Which of the following is not a water borne disease?
a) Typhoid
b) Scabies
c) Cholera
d) Hepatitis
20- What are ‘waterborne diseases?’
A. Diseases that make water accumulate in the body.
B. Diseases that are transmitted through polluted water
C. Diseases that come from animals living in water. D. diseases treated by water
21- Which of the following disease can be caused by drinking contaminated water?
A. Malaria B. Cholera C. Meningitis D. Yellow fever
22- To avoid bacterial contamination a sanitary well should be located from
likely sources of contamination.
a. 50 m b. 20 m c. 10 m d. 5m
23- A sanitary well should have a parapet wall of at least height above the
ground.
a. 90-95 cm b. 70-75 cm c. 50-55 cm d. 100-110 cm
24- The point at which the chlorine demand of the water is met or the point at which at
which all combined chlorines have been disappeared and residual chlorine appears is called
a. Break point b. Chlorine demand c. Bleaching d. Superchlorination
25- Chlorine has no effect on at usual doses.
a. Spores b. Protozoal cysts c. Helminthic ova d. All the above
26- The minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is mg/L for one hour
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 5 d. 10
27- The type of chlorination suitable for heavily polluted water is
a. Break-point chlorination b. Super-chlorination c. Chloramine d. Perchloron
28- Water polluted by various human activities causes a number of water borne diseases.
Which of the following is not a water borne disease?
(a) Cholera (b) Typhoid (c) Asthma (d) Dysentry
29- Pick from the following one chemical used to disinfect water.
(a) Chlorine (b) Washing soda (c) Silica (d) Coal
30- In a filtration plant water is filtered using layers of
(a) sand and clay. (b) clay and gravel. (c) sand and gravel. (d) sand and chlorine.
31- Which of the following water borne diseases is of viral origin.
A. Typhoid fever B. Poliomyelitis C. Dracunculiais D. Shigellosis
32- Which of the following is not a water borne disease
A. Ameobiasis B. Shigellosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Hepatitis B
33- Methemoglobinemia or blue baby disease is caused due to:
A. Chlorides B. Nitrites C. Nitrates D. Sulphides
34- By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to:
A. calcium sulphate B. magnesium sulphate C. calcium nitrate D. calcium bicarbonate
35- The process of passing water through beds of granular materials is called:
A. Screening B. Sedimentation C. Filtration D. None of these
36- Disinfection of drinking water is done to remove
A. odour B. bacterias C. turbidity D. colour
37- The water obtained from ...................... is generally known as underground water.
a- Infiltration galleries b- wells c- rivers d- oceans
38- The presence of calcium and magnesium chloride in water causes:
a- Softening b- Bad taste c- Hardness d- Turbidity
39- Odours and tastes may result due to the presence of :
a- Micro-organisms either dead or alive
b- Dissolved gases such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, methane etc.
c- Mineral substances such as sodium chloride, iron compounds etc. d- All of the above
40- The most common coagulant is:
a- MgSO4 b- Aluminum c- Chlorine d- Bleaching powder
41- The process of purifying water by passing it through a bed of fine granular material, is
called:
a- Screening b- Filtration c- Coagulation d- Sedimentation
42- The process of killing pathogenic bacteria from water is called:
a- Sedimentation b- Filtration c- Coagulation d- Disinfection
43- When the chlorine is added beyond the break point, the process of treating the water is
known as:
a- Plain chlorination b- Post chlorination c- De-chlorination d- Super-chlorination
44- The temporary hardness due to calcium bicarbonates can be removed by:
a- Boiling b- Lime process c- Lime-soda process d- Zeolite process
45- The presence of bacteria in water causes:
a- Hardness b- Alkalinity c- Diseases d- Bad taste
 Air sanitation & dysbarism
1. Which of the following is the most abundant gas in the Earth's atmosphere:
A. Oxygen B. Nitrogen C. Argon D. Hydrogen E. Helium
2. Air is a mixture of various gases. One of the gases is 21% part of the air . This gas is
(a) nitrogen (b) oxygen (c) ozone (d) argon
3. Which of the following is not a source of air pollution?
(a) automobile exhaust (b) burning of firewood (c) windmill (d) power plant
4. Incomplete combustion of fuel such as petrol and diesel gives
(a) molds (b) Ozone (c) carbon monoxide (d) carbon dioxide
5.According to EPA of USA, the following is not one of the six major pollutants?
a) Ozone
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Nitrogen oxides
d) Carbon di-oxide
6. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant
a. CO b. CO2 c. Ozone d. O3
7. Health effects of air pollution:
a. Chronic bronchitis b. impaired neuropsychologic development
c. Aggrevation of bronchial asthma d. All of the above e. A & C
8. Green belts are an example of control air pollution by :
a. Legislation b. Replacement c. Dilution d. Containment
9.Air pollution indicators include the following except:
a. Sulfur dioxide (So2) b. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) c. Ozone (O3) d. Lead
10. Self–cleaning mechanisms of air include the following except:
a. Wind b. Sunlight c. Plant life d. spores
11. Decompression sickness is:
a) One of the asbestos related diseases b) Results from vibration exposure
c) Results from changes in Pressure d) None of the above
12. Low pressure dysbarism occurs when ascend too rapidly to level
a. 10000 feet b. 20000 feet c. 30000 feet d. 15000 feet
13. Which of the following is an example of dysbarism:
a. Caisson disease b. Divers` disease c. Mountain sickness d. All of the above
14. Caisson disease is a:
a. Gas embolism disease b. Fat embolism disease
c. Tumor embolism disease d. Amniotic fluid embolism disease
15. Joint Bends occur in
a. Mountain sickness b. Acute decompression sickness
c. Chronic decompression sickness d. All of the above
16. Decompression sickness is:
a) One of the asbestos related diseases b) Results from vibration exposure
c) Results from changes in Pressure d) None of the above
17. Caisson disease occurs due to
a. Oxygen deficiency b. Iron deficiency c. Nitrogen toxicity d. Helium toxicity
18. Aseptic bone necrosis is a serious complication following exposure to
a. Ionizing radiation b .Noise c. Rapid uncontrolled decompression
d. Organic solvent e. None of the above ``
19. Chronic decompression sickness manifested by
a. Respiratory distress b. Bends c. Divers` itch d. A&b
e. None of the above
20. A person working in compressed air chamber presented with symptoms of cough,
dyspnea and joint pain. The clinical condition is suggestive of:
a. Pulmonary edema b. Rupture spleen c. air embolism d. fat embolism
21. The atmospheric pressure at earth’s surface close to the sea level averages 760 mm of Hg.
If a man lives at an altitude of 13000 feet above the sea level for few years, the main
physiological effect is:
a. Increase in concentration of RBCs b. Decrease in concentration of hemoglobin
c. Decrease in cardiac output d. Increased concentration of urine
22- Sulfur dioxide is one of the 1ry criteria air pollutants.
a) True. b) False
23- primarily combustion – related air pollutants are called hazardous pollutants
a) True. b) False
24- Population at increased risk of air pollution include asthmatics, cigarette smokers, elderly
and infants
a) True. b) False
25- the sources for hazardous pollutants include principally industries and waste products.
a) True. b) False
26 ........ is considered one of the secondary criteria pollutant
A-sulfur dioxide B-carbon monoxide C-nitrogen dioxide D-ozone E-asbestos
27- Immediate effects of air pollution include:
A-lung cancer B-bronchial asthma C-respiratory allergies
D-acute bronchitis E-emphysema
28- Impaired neuro-psychologic development and poor school performance of children may
be a result of ……… exposure
A-Arsenic B- Lead C-SO2 D-Silica dust E-Ozone
29- Regarding an air pollution episode started in Egypt at October, 1999 and covered the
Greater Cairo. Which of the following is true?
A-The residents felt just eye burning sensation and sore throat
B-The sources releasing pollutants were found to be burning of hay rice in farms
C-Environmental assessment revealed that the most important pollutants were carbon dioxide,
nitrogen oxides, particulate matter and ozone D-A&B E-B&C
30-Environmental chemical disaster due to air pollution is known as:
A-Pollution outbreak B-Catastrophic pollution
C-Air pollution episode D-Air pollution crisis
31- During air pollution episode you should advise patients to:
A-To stay indoors B-To do exercise outdoors
C-The use of medications should follow the usual clinical indications.
D-The use of respiratory protective equipment is compulsory and mandatory E- A&C.
32- prevention of escape of toxic substances into the ambient air is called
A-Containment B-Replacement C-Dilution D-Legislation E-monitoring
33- There is no significant symptom of hypoxia normally appear up to an altitude of :-
a. 3000 meter b. 3048 meter c. 4048 meter d. 4000 meter
34. Altitude sickness is also called mountain sickness..
a. true b. false
35- If you live close to sea level, you are more likely to feel the effects of high altitude when
visiting high places.
a. true
b. false
36- Altitude sickness occurs because a person on a mountain is so much closer to the sun
than at sea level.
a. True
b. false
37- In severe cases of altitude sickness, fluid collects in the lungs and the brain swells.
a. true b. false
38- Altitude sickness occurs because
a. The higher you go the more erratic is the digestive process
b. Higher the elevation less the oxygen content
c. Both reasons
d. The higher you go the more is the atmospheric pressure
39- Symptoms of altitude sickness include
a) nausea b) insomnia c) Dizziness d) all of above
40-Signs and symptoms of severe acute mountain sickness are –
a. bradycardia
b. Decrease cardiac out put.
c. Hypercapnia
d. Periodic breathing
41- Signs and symptoms specific to high altitude pulmonary edema are -
a. Severe headache, vomiting and ataxia (uncoordinated muscle movement)
b. Extreme fatigue, difficulty in breathing and dry cough
c. Extreme fatigue, rise in blood pressure and vomiting
42- How does “acclimatization” take place among people living at high altitude ? -
a. The body produces more red blood cells to carry oxygen
b. The enzyme that helps release oxygen from the hemoglobin in the blood is produced more by
the body
c. Pressure is increased in the capillaries supplying blood to the lungs
d. All of the above
43- It is best to avoid traveling to high elevations if you suffer from
a. Diabetes
b. Sever bloating
c. Emphysema
d. Irritable bowel syndrome
44- “Caisson disease ’’ is :-
a. Gas embolism
b. Fat embolism
c. Amniotic fluid embolism
d. Tumor embolism
45- Symptoms of decompression sickness syndrome may include:
a. Urinary & fecal incontinence
b. joint pain
c. dyspnea
d. Visual disturbance
46- A diver complains of shoulder pain after surfacing. He claims it can’t be Decompression
sickness (DCS) because he dived within his dive computer’s limit and his dive buddy (friend)
doesn’t have any symptoms. Is DCS a possibility?
a. Since both divers completed their dives within no – decompression limits, had exactly the same
exposure and the dive buddy is not experiencing any symptoms, DCS can be ruled out.
b. Joint pain that doesn’t improve with movement or changes in body positions is not consistent
with the typical reported for pain DCS cases.
c. Provided the exposure was significant, DCS is possible.
d. DCS is always possible : it can happen after any dive, no matter how deep or long the dive is.
47- Which of the following is not a way to minimize the risk of decompression sickness
(DCS)?
a. Shortening bottom time
b. Reducing depth
c. Ascending rapidly
d. Prolonging surface intervals
48- Which is a factor in DCS risk?
a. time b. depth c. Excessive absorption of inert gas
d. Inadequate decompression time e. All of above
49- Decompression sickness is a diving-related disorder. Nitrogen dissolved in the blood and
tissues by high pressure causes the formation of bubbles as pressure decreases. Which of the
following tissues or organs is most likely to be affected?
a. Brain & spinal cord b. GIT
c. Excessive absorption of inert gas d. Hearts & lungs e. Liver
 Disaster management
1- Disaster management deals with situation that occurs after the disaster.
a) True b) False
2- Which of the following is not a natural disaster?
a- Terrorism b- Tsunami c- Hurricane d- Earthquake
3- Which part of disaster management involves predicting a possible crisis before it occurs?
a- Mitigation b- Preparedness c- Response d- Recovery
4- What phase of emergency management includes training and exercises?
a- Mitigation b- Preparedness c- Response d- Recovery
5- An example of natural disaster is:
a) Tsunami b) Flood c) Storm d)All of these
6- Man-made disasters include:
a) Wars b) Terrorism c) Industrial hazard d) All of the above
7- Which of the following is not a man-made hazard?
a) Leakage of Toxic waste b) Wars and Civil Strife
c) Drought d) Environmental pollution
8- What are the three phases of disaster management planning?
a) Preparation, Response and Recovery b) Preparation, Planning and Perception
c) Evacuating, Rebuilding and Re-branding d) Planning, Evacuating and Recovery
9- Disasters are _ and inevitable
(a) sudden (b) natural (c) proper
10- A disease that becomes unusually widespread and even global in its reach is referred to as
a. Epidemic b. Pandemic c. Spanish flu d. Hyperendemic
11- Disaster Management includes:
a. Mitigation b. Reconstruction c. Rehabilitation d. All of the above
12- Which of the following is not a component of disaster management cycle?
A) Preparedness B) Response C) Construction D) Recovery
13- What is it called when a large number of people in a community get a disease at the same
time?
A) Endemic B) Black death C) Epidemic D) Pandemic
14- Which phase of the disaster management reduces vulnerability to disaster impacts such
as injuries and loss of life and property.
a. Mitigation
b. Preparedness
c. Response
d. Recovery
 Primary health care
1- What was the world health organization statement that set out “Health for all by year
2000”?
a) Bangkok charter
b) Ottawa charter
c) Alma Ata declaration
d) Adelaide Declaration
e) Helsinki Declaration
2- Essential health care, universally accessible to individuals and families using practical,
scientifically sound and socially acceptable methods and technology
a) Primary health care
b) Secondary health care
c) Tertiary health care
d) Rehabilitative health care
e) Management of health care
3- Primary care is:
a) Care provided in the hospitals
b) Care provided in specialized centers
c) Care provided by GPs only
d) Care provided in acute cases
e) The first point of contact for people seeking health care
4- What is the focus of secondary health care?
a) Prevention of malnutrition
b) Detection of signs and symptoms of diseases
c) Early diagnosis and treatment of diseases
d) Health education about the health problems
e) Provision of supportive equipment for handicapped
5- Primary prevention is concerned with?
a) Preventing disease & promoting well health
b) Delaying the progress of an existing disease or illness
c) Maintaining current health status
d) Treatment of existing disease or illness
e) Provision of needed drugs
6- Family planning is one of preventive elements of primary health care:
a) True
b) False
7- All of the following are promotive elements except:
a) Maternal & child health care
b) Health education about common health problems
c) Adequate supply of safe water, and basic sanitation
d) Provision of food & nutrition
e) Family planning services
8- Immunization of children against the major infectious diseases is an important…. element
a) Promotive
b) Preventive
c) Curative
d) Rehabilitative
9- All are principles of PHC except:
a) Multi-sectorial Approach
b) Community Participation
c) Equitable Distribution
d) Efficient utilization of resources
e) Usage of appropriate technology
10- Which one of the following is not an essential element of primary health care?
a) Involvement of community members in planning for immunization campaign
b) Child immunization against polio
c) Immunization of pregnant female with TT
d) Provision of family planning methods
e) Management of common disease like sore throat & abdominal colic
11- Active involvement of people sharing in the issues and the key principles are
complementary to primary health care & health promotion is know as:
a) Community participation
b) Social Development
c) Individual Development
d) Government Development
e) Donation
12- The main role of outreach program is:
a) Helping in the process of quality assurance.
b) To immunize drop-out cases& get better coverage
c) Education of the public about different health problems
d) Conduction of survey studies
e) Completion of medical records of community members
13- Health team in PHC is made of all of the following except:
a) Dentist
b) Midwife
c) Sanitarian
d) Surgeon
e) GP
14- Community attitudes to health service may be any of the following except:
a) (collaboration) or support.
b) Passive resistance.
c) Violent rejection.
d) Self -reliance
e) Compromization
 15- Which of the following describe active community participation :
a) People participate in joint analysis, development of action plans, and formation or strengthening of
local institutions.
b) parents bring their children for immunization when they are made available
c) People participate by being told what is going to happen or has already happened through unilateral
announcement by administration.
d) A&b
e) All of the above
16- What health office do?
a) Provide sick leaves for governmental employees
b) Receive notifications of infectious diseases.
c) Identify and investigate outbreaks like food poisoning.
d) Provide official certificates like birth & death certificates
e) All of the above
17- Community attitude could be changed from extreme hostility to active participation by:
a) Incentives
b) Laws & regulation
c) Force
d) Health education
e) All of the above
18- All of the following are obstacles facing primary health care except:
a) Poor working and living conditions in PHC units.
b) over-utilization of services.
c) Inadequate salaries and incentives.
d) Problems with equipment and supplies.
e) Insufficient health team
19- What is the first step in planning for solving a health problem?
a) Integration of community leaders
b) Identification & prioritization of community health problems
c) Allocation of needed resources (man, material& money)
d) Implementation of the health program
e) Evaluation of health program
20- PHC is
a) the first level of contact of individuals, the families and community with the health system
b) the 2nd level of contact of individuals, the families and community with the health system
c) the last level of contact of individuals, the families and community with the health system
d) A range of programmers adopted to the pattern of health and disease of people living in a particular
setting.
e) Individual and community participation in health services.
21- PHC is
a) The essential health care based on appropriate and acceptable methods and technology.
b) Made universally accessible to individual and families in the community through their full participation
and at a cost that the community and country can afford.
c) Maintain in the spirit of self-reliance and self-determination.
d) All of above.
e) None of above.
22- The implications of health for all are essential because:
a) Health care activities shouldn’t include disease prevention, health promotion, curative and rehabilitative
services.
b) Individual and community have no role in health services.
c) Health services should be effective, efficient and acceptable to local communities.
d) There is no relation between health and social factors and between economic and environmental factors.
e) Because of the principles of equity, there shouldn’t be universal coverage with essential health services.
23- Among the health promotive elements of PHC:
a) Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases.
b) Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries.
c) Provision of essential drugs.
d) Adequate supply of safe water, and basic sanitation.
e) Education of the community concerning prevailing health problems and the methods of preventing and
controlling them.
24- Among the health preventive elements of PHC:
a) Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases.
b) Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries.
c) Provision of essential drugs.
d) Adequate supply of safe water, and basic sanitation.
e) Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition.
25- Among the health curative elements of PHC:
a) Education of the community concerning prevailing health problems and the methods of
preventing and controlling them.
b) Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition.
c) MCH care including family planning.
d) Adequate supply of safe water, and basic sanitation.
e) Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases.
26- The four PHC principles are all EXCEPT:
a) Equitable Distribution
b) Appropriate Technology
c) Multisectorial Approach
d) Community Participation
e) Self control
27- There is ........... of service delivery:
a) 1 level
b) 2 levels
c) 3 levels
d) 4 levels
e) 5 levels
28- The second referral level is in:
a) Rural H. units.
b) Health office
c) M.C.H. centers
d) General hospitals
e) Specialized hospitals & centers.
29- One of the problems in the functioning of primary health care is:
a) Over utilization of services
b) Poor working and living conditions.
c) Adequate salaries and incentives.
d) Strong preventive orientation
30- The Tasks of physicians include all of the following EXCEPT :
a) Leader ship in health mater.
b) Health promotion within the community and monitoring
-/+ the level of sanitation in the environment.
c) Specific intervention especially those requiring technical knowledge and skill for e.g.
prophylaxis, diagnosis, treatment (surgery and rehabilitation) referral of those who need referral.
d) Waste incineration and disposal.
e) Conduction of survey studies to assess different problems.
31- Community participation means:
a) Active involvement in program planning, implementation or evaluation by people benefiting
from the program.
b) Acceptance of the services by people utilizing the service.
c) All the personnel involved directly or indirectly in health care.
d) 1 and 2.
e) 1 and 3.
32- The range of community attitudes to a specific health measures can be classified into
……..levels.
a) 1 level
b) 2 levels
c) 3 levels.
d) 4 levels
e) 5 levels
33- Advantage or benefits of active community participation:
a) Studies show that communication from respected local leaders, neighbors or family members is
less understood and less influential than posters or radio messages delivered by outsiders.
b) Community residents are much more likely than outsider to know the most convenient times and
locations for preventive or curative sessions.
c) Community people can’t provide an early warning system when rumors develop that threaten the
program.
d) Community members can’t support surveillance systems.
e) Non of above.
34- To improve utilization of PHC, it must be:
a) Acceptable.
b) Accessible.
c) Efficient.
d) Convenient (hours, steps, flow of work).
e) All of above.
35- Role of PHC:-
a) Health promotion of child.
b) Child survival program.
c) Prevention & control of diarrheal disease of children.
d) Family planning program
e) All of above.
36- Functions of Health office:
a) Registration of births, deaths and infectious diseases.
b) Monitoring of environmental health.
c) Emergency health services.
d) Prevention and control of infectious diseases.
e) Sick leaves for governmental employees.
37- Outreach program means
a) Equipped mobile units for isolated areas & small community.
b) It is application of the principles of insurance in the field of medical care.
c) All the personnel involved directly or indirectly in health care.
d) All of above.
e) None of above.
 Geriatric health
1- Geriatric health care means care of:
a) Adolescents.
b) the elderly
c) adults
d) infancy
e) all of the above
2- health hazards affecting Geriatric age have become more apparent due to:
a) The elderly become more exposed to (disease, accidents and disability.
b) decrease death rate
c) increase life expectancy.
d) Impaired social life.
e) All of the above
3- all of the following factors make health problem affecting the elderly more apparent
except:
a) decrease death rate
b) The elderly become more exposed to (disease, accidents and disability.
c) decrease life expectancy.
d) Impaired social life.
e) All are true
4- Geriatric health hazards include:
a) Ischemic heart disease.
b) osteoporosis.
c) Presbyousis
d) Loneliness and isolation
e) All of the above

5- All of the following are common causes of death among the elderly except:
a) Ischemic heart disease.
b) Cerebro-vascular disease
c) Road accidents.
d) Hypertension.
e) Cancer
6- commenst cause of death among the elderly is:
a) Cerebro-vascular disease
b) Road accidents.
c) depression
d) Cardiovascular disease
e) Osteoporosis.
7- Objectives of geriatric health program include:
a) Preventing the health hazards associated with the ageing process, or retarding their onset.
b) Control of health hazards, especially chronic disease.
c) Rehabilitation
d) Maintenance of health.
e) All of the above.
8- Screening tests can be carried out for the elderly except:
a) Glaucoma
b) Malignancy.
c) Presbyousis
d) Hypothyroidism
e) Vision acuity
9- the elderly population in Egypt represents:
a) 17%
b) 25%
c) 7%
d) 1%
e) 30%
10- Cardiovascular disease is the most common cause of death among:
a) Adolescents
b) the elderly
c) infancy
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
11- According to Nutrition education of the elderly we should advise them to:
a) Take more energy food to maintain activity.
b) Take more vegetables and fruits
c) Take balanced diet with adequate preparation and cooking of food, to fulfill palatability and
digestibility.
d) Take sufficient fiber to prevent constipation.
e) All except A
12- Geriatric health program includes:
a) Nutrition education of the elderly and family.
b) Establishment of geriatric clubs
c) Living accommodation With his family or In geriatric home.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
13- Malnutrition among elderly people characterized by all of the following except:
a) Dental disease and missing teeth may be a cause.
b) Being living alone may contribute to malnutrition.
c) Dietary supplementation should be used to prevent it.
d) The most common health hazard affecting elderly.
e) Nutrition education and management of anorexia and other pathological conditions which
may contribute to nutritional deficiencies are part of Geriatric health program.
14- Geriatric health care program includes:
a) Health education
b) Socioeconomic promotion
c) Establishment of geriatric clubs: Where the aged pass leisure time, perform suitable exercise
d) Curative services and periodic medical check-up.
e) All of the above.
15- Appliances as walking stacks, hearing aids, spectacles (glasses), dentures that are
provided to the elderly are considered part of:
a) 1ry prevention.
b) 2ry prevention.
c) Rehabilitation.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
16- Geriatric health hazards includes all of the following except:
a) Cardiovascular disease
b) Congenital Handicapping.
c) Malnourishment and deficiency
d) Neoplasm.
e) Cataract.
17- According to Age-specific mortality of the aged: Cardiovascular disease represents:
a) total deaths
b) 15% of total deaths
c) 57% of total deaths
d) 75% of total deaths
e) 90% of total deaths
18- Presbyousis is:
a) Senile macular degeneration affect the aged
b) sensori-neural hearing impairment with aging
c) conductive hearing impairment with aging
d) Rare disorder of special senses with aging
e) B+d
 Rural health
1. Rural health center consists of
a) an out-patient clinic b) inpatient department with 10-20 beds
c) an operating theatre d) pharmacy e) all of the above
2. The distance between the rural health unit and the village was estimated to be
a) more than five kilometers b) seven kilometers
c) less than three kilometers d) ten kilometers e) six kilometers
3. Rural hospitals include all the following except
a) inpatient accommodation to 20-30 beds b) delivered their services to 5000 persons
c) medical laboratory equipment. d) include an x-ray e) pharmacy
4. Characteristics of rural health services:
a) It responds to the community health needs
b) It involves the active participation of the community
c) It is readily accessible to the population.
d) It makes maximum utilization of the resources available to the community.
e) all the above
٥. Communicable disease control in rural health services include:
a) Including campaign for control communicable disease problems
b) measures for health promotion, specific protection
c) early diagnosis and prompt treatment. d) rehabilitation and immunization
e) all the above
٦. Environmental sanitation services in rural areas include:
a) responsibility for quality of water b) food and milk quality
c) collect of samples. d) control of insects or vectors of diseases. e) all the above
7. Duties of health office are all the following except:
a) Population census b) Communicable disease control
c) Births records. d) Deaths and morbidity records. e) reporting
٨. Duties of rural physician are:
a) Medical care work b) Maternal and child care c) School health services.
d) Controlling of communicable disease and environmental sanitation. e) all the above
٩. Problems of rural community include all the following except:
a) higher morbidity and mortality b) lower fertility
c) low socioeconomic standard d) Inadequate health services. e) Faulty traditional beliefs
٠١. Obstacles related to health services in rural area include all the following except:
a) Shortage of health team b) unbalanced distribution of medical staff in rural and urban area
c) adequate medical services d) Lack of experience of health team.
e) Lack of training of health team
11. Obstacles related to rural community include:
a) Lack of community organization b) difficulty in transportation
c) Roads are not all paved d) not suitable for rapid transportation specially in rainy seasons.
e) all of the above
12. Obstacles related to consumers in rural area include all the following except:
a) ignorance
b) Lack of training of health team
c) lack of information about health
d) lack of information about disease and drug abuse
e) reluctance to seek medical care
 Adolescent health
1- Adolescence is:
a) Defined as the period of 10-19 years according to W.H.O
b) the period of transition from child-hood to adulthood
c) The age range 10-24 years.
d) Characterized by Biological development from the onset of puberty to full sexual reproductive
maturity.
e) All except c
2- Adolescence period Characterized by:
a) Biological development from the onset of puberty to full sexual reproductive maturity.
b) Psychological development from the cognitive and emotional patterns of childhood to those of
adulthood.
c) Emergence from the childhood state of total socioeconomic dependence to one of relative
independence
d) A+b
e) All are true
3- Young people represents:
a) 50% of world’s population.
b) 7% of world’s population.
c) 30% of world’s population.
d) 10% of world’s population.
e) 24% of world’s population.
4- mortality patterns among adolescents shaws:
a) increase of death due to infectious diseases
b) cardiovascular diseases is common cause of death
c) Rapid Increase in age-specific mortality rates among young.
d) Increase in accidental deaths.
e) All of the above.
5- the most common cause of death among young people:
a) infectious diseases
b) accidents
c) cardiovascular diseases
d) nutritional disorders
e) cancer
6- Objectives of health care program of adolescence include:
a) Review the health and health-related problems of adolescence and youth.
b) Provide and analysis of existing health systems as they apply to young people of primary health
care.
c) Recommend strategies for the active involvement of young people in the health care.
d) Suggest guidelines and priorities.
e) All of the above.
7- Young peoples are exposed for
a) Malnutrition.
b) Sexually transmitted diseases.
c) drug abuse.
d) Suicidal behavior.
e) All of the above.
8- Health Problems affecting young people include all of the following except:
a) Malnutrition
b) Congenital infections
c) Accidents
d) Occupational Health hazards
e) Handicapping.
9- Accidents considered the most common cause of death among:
a) Children
b) Neonates
c) young people
d) geriatric people
e) All of the above.
10- Sex education is an important component of:
a) Preschool health program.
b) Geriatric health program.
c) Maternal health program.
d) Young people health program.
e) All of the above.
11- Young people’s health program includes:
a) Health education of the adolescence about Healthy personal habits, Exercise and rest and sleep.
b) General preventive measures against diseases specially sexually transmitted diseases.
c) Nutrition education regarding balanced diet.
d) Health education of the adolescence about health hazards of smoking, alcohol and drug abuse
e) All are true.
12- Suicide become a major health burden among:
a) Emotional problems and stresses
b) Psychological unstability
c) alcohol and drug abuse.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
13- Adolescence growth spurt means:
a) Appearance of secondary sexual characters
b) Markedly acceleration of physical growth of adolescence
c) Sudden increase in health-related problems of adolescence and youth.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
14- Puberty is Characterized by:
a) Appearance of secondary sexual characters in both sexes e.g. growth of pubic hair, change of voice.
b) Biological development only
c) Adolescence growth spurt
d) A+b+c
e) A+c
15- According to United Nations the age range 15-24 years is termed as:
a) Adolescence
b) Middle age
c) Youth
d) young people
e) all of the above
16- The term young people covers the age:
a) Range 10-19 years.
b) Range 10-24 years.
c) range 15-24 years
d) range 2-6 years
e) range 40-60 years
17- The term Adolescence covers the age:
a) Range 10-19 years.
b) Range 10-24 years.
c) range 15-24 years
d) range 2-6 years
e) range 40-60 years
18- The term youth covers the age:
a) Range 10-19 years.
b) Range 10-24 years.
c) range 15-24 years
d) range 2-6 years
e) range 40-60 years
19- mortality patterns among adolescents Characterized by:
a) rapid decline in age-specific mortality rates
b) increase in accidental deaths.
c) a+b+c
d) a+b
20- Young people’s health program:
a) Combat of smoking, alcohol and drug abuse
b) Diagnosis and treatment of diseases
c) Rehabilitation of the disabled.
d) Sex education of Young people about Biological development from the onset of puberty to
full sexual reproductive maturity and how to deal with it.
e) All of the above
 Mental health
1- Among dimensions of mental health:
a) Affective
b) Physiological
c) Social.
d) 1 and 2
e) 1, 2 and 3
2-Chemical hazards present in the working environmental play an important role in the
causation of mental disorders as
a) Lead
b) Nitrogen
c) CO
d) Phosphate
e) O2
3-Malnutrition of the pregnant especially … may interfere with mental development and
contribute to congenital defects.
a) Severe protein deficiency
b) Iodine deficiency.
c) Carbohydrates deficiency
d) a and b
4-Among Primary prevention of mental health problems:
a) Early diagnosis, of mental illness and social emotional disturbances through screening programs
in schools, universities and work environment.
b) Provisions treatment facilities.
c) Rehabilitation for those have disability.
d) Compete drug and narcotic addiction.
e) All of above
5-Among tertiary prevention of mental health problems:
a) Early diagnosis, of mental illness and social emotional disturbances through screening programs
in schools, universities and work environment.
b) Provisions treatment facilities.
c) Rehabilitation for those have disability.
d) Compete drug and narcotic addiction.
e) Prevention of chemical hazards in the working environment.
6-Among secondary prevention of mental health problems:
a) Good antenatal and postnatal care.
b) Good care of infants and children.
c) Early diagnosis, of mental illness and social emotional disturbances through screening programs
in schools, universities and work environment.
d) Give medical and psychological care to disturbed children.
e) Compete drug and narcotic addiction.
 School health
1- According to sanitary and safety school environment:
a) Has preventive role of communicable diseases.
b) Help the educational process to be comfortable.
c) Adequate Ventilation and Lighting are important requirements for sanitary class room.
d) School building must be away from noise & pollution.
e) All are true.
2- The following are common hazards among school children except:
a) Accidents
b) Malnutrition
c) asbestosis
d) Infectious diseases
e) Psychological disorders
3- The following infectious diseases are common among school children except:
a) Parasitic infections.
b) Congenital infections.
c) Respiratory infections.
d) Contact infections.
4- sanitary class room can be achieved through
a) Recommended area 1.5-2. Square meters for each pupil.
b) Adequate Ventilation at least 2% of floor area and cross-ventilation.
c) Number of pupils depends only on room area.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
5- Routine vaccination for school children include:
a) MMR
b) HBV vaccine
c) DPT
d) rabies vaccine
e) None of the above
6- vaccination for school children include all of the following except
a) BCG for non reactors to tuberculin test.
b) Meningitis vaccine in case of outbreaks
c) DPT
d) oral poliomyelitis
7- the most common Nutritional deficiency diseases among school children is:
a) Vitamins deficiency.
b) Rickets.
c) Iron deficiency anemia
d) Megaloblastic anemia
e) Scurvy disease
8- fluorine deficiency among school children may predispose to:
a) Nutritional anemia
b) Infectious diseases
c) flurosis
d) Dental caries
e) None of the above
9- Dental caries is common among school children due to:
a) excess sweets
b) negligence of oral hygiene
c) Iron deficiency
d) A+b
e) All of the above
10- Screening tests should be done for school children include:
a) Screening for hypothyroidism.
b) Visual acuity by snellen’s chart
c) CT scan chest & abdomen
d) All are true
e) None of the above.
11- Objectives of health promotion Program for school children include:
a) Proper physical growth and development.
b) Psychological support
c) Help the children to have good social life.
d) Proper mental development
e) All of the above
12- according to Program of health promotion of school children: the most important health
promoting factor is:
a) Adequate nutrition
b) Regular exercises practices
c) Environmental sanitation
d) Regulation of time.
e) All of the above
13- Medical and clinical services for school children include:
a) Lab. investigations
b) Systemic & physical examination
c) Screening tests
d) First aid and emergency service
e) All of the above
14- all of the following can be done through Health appraisal of school children except:
a) Comprehensive medical examination
b) Anthropometrics measurements
c) First aid and emergency service
d) Testing for I.Q.
e) Measuring acuity of vision by snellen’s chart.
15- Duties of school physician:
a) Health education
b) Prevention & control of infectious diseases including immunization.
c) First aid and emergency service
d) Checking registration in health records and preparation of statistical reports.
e) All of the above
16- Routine vaccination At school entry include:
a) MMR
b) HBV vaccine
c) DT
d) DPT
e) All are true
17- The main objective of School Health Services is:
a) Health promotion of school children
b) Prevention of many health hazards
c) Control of any health problems.
d) Decrease morbidity and mortality among the school children.
e) Rehabilitation of handicapped children.
18- according to School-feeding program: all are true except
a) it is necessary to provide at least 50% of recommended daily dietary requirements
b) Needed in less developed areas, where home feeding may be inadequate.
c) school meal Can be considered a substitute for home meal
d) Must contain protective nutrients as protein, vitamins and minerals
e) Must be balanced.
 Child health
1- Regarding neonatal infections, which is NOT TRUE:
A. There is a major environmental role. B. Ophthalmia neonatorum is one of its forms.
C. They are acquired during the process of delivery from the birth canal.
D. They refer to infections acquired during the first four weeks after birth.
E. They can be prevented by aseptic delivery techniques.
2- Susceptibility to infections in infants begins from:
A. 2 months. B. 4 months. C. 6 months. D.9 months. E. 12 months.
3- The risk of infant infection is aggravated by:
A. Faulty weaning practices. B. Aseptic delivery techniques.
C. Not taking tetanus immunization during pregnancy. D. In-utero infection.
E. Rubella infection during pregnancy.
4- From the 28th week intrauterine of intrauterine life till the 1st week of delivery is called:
A. Neonatal period. B. Perinatal period. C. Post-neonatal period.
D. Infancy period. E. Fetal period.
5- About 40-50% of under five years mortality is attributed to/or associated with:
A. Infections. B. Accidents. C. Handicapping. D. Parasitic diseases. E. Malnutrition.
6- Congenital handicapping can be caused by:
A. Birth injuries. B. Road accidents. C. Teratogenic drugs. D. Poliomyelitis.
7- All the following are considered adverse intrauterine conditions, EXCEPT:
A. Congenital infections. B. Ionizing radiation.
C. Live attenuated vaccines. D. Killed vaccines. E. Smoking.
8- A viable fetus delivered before completion of his gestational age regardless his weight is
called:
A. Preterm. B. small for date. C. Still birth. D. Live birth. E. Full term.
9- Maternal risk factors of preterm include all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Mother's age at conception below 16. B. Short inter pregnancy spacing.
C. Uterine abnormalities. D. Mother heart diseases. E. Multiple pregnancies.
10- The excessive hemolysis of red blood cells in preterm can lead to:
A. Malnutrition. B. Infections, C. Kernicterus.
D. Respiratory distress syndrome. E. Retrolental fibroplasia.
11- The care of neonates includes all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Aseptic cutting of the cord. B. Apgar scoring.
C. Clearance of the respiratory passages. D. Giving glucose as a nutrition after delivery.
E. Instillation of disinfectant eye drops.
12- Screening tests of preschool children include all the following, except:
A. Anthropometrics measurements. B. Developmental milestones.
C. Abdominal US. D. Dental examination. E. Acuity of vision.
13- Health appraisal of preschool children include all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Comprehensive medical examination B. Screening tests
C. Community participation D. Clinical services E. Survey studies
14- Utilization by mothers to maternal MCH services could be measured on term of:
A. Attendance of periodic prenatal visits B. Attendance of periodic child care.
C. Number of children receiving their immunization.
D. Availability of Non-Human resources E. Maternal mortality rate.
15- All the following are Infant & child service indices, EXCEPT:
A. Infant mortality rate. B. Under- five years mortality rate.
C. Incidence rate for diarrheal diseases. D. Prevalence rate for handicapping.
E. Abortion rate.
16- Which of the following is a maternal service index?
A. Infant mortality rate. B. Post neonatal mortality rate.
C. Incidence rate for ARI. D. Outcome of registered pregnancies.
E. Under- five years mortality rate.
17- Which advice is given to mothers to promote breastfeeding?
A. Introduce complementary foods since birth to enhance growth.
B. Eat more calories to ensure more production of breast milk.
C. Don't breastfeed during night hours to calm the baby stomach.
D. Initiate breastfeeding as early as possible.
E. Breast feeding should be every 3 hours.
18- Exclusive Breast feeding doesn’t refer for one of the following?
A. Feeding on breast milk only.
B. Nowadays of no great importance due to the presence of many good artificial formulas.
C. Feeding on demand. D. Breast feeding within half an hour after birth.
E. Giving colostrum on the first 2 days.
 Nutrition
1- The acceptable daily Range of proteins is: A. 45%
- 65%
B. 30-50%
C. 20% - 35%
D. 10-35%
E. 5-10%
2- The role of vitamin A is:
a. It is needed for prothrombin synthesis.
b. It is needed for bone metabolism.
c. It is needed for healthy skin and mucous membranes.
d. It has an importance regarding fertility.
3- Vitamin A is compulsory supplemented to:
A. School children.
B. Neonates.
C. University students.
D. Elderly.
E. Infants.
4- Vitamin A deficiency leads to:
A. Increase tendency of bleeding
B. Impairment of dark adaptation
C. Delayed tooth eruption in children
D. Tetany.
E. Megaloblastic anemia.
5- Vitamin D deficiency leads to:
A. Increase tendency of bleeding
B. Impairment of dark adaptation
C. Delayed tooth eruption in children
D. Skin keratosis
E. Hemolytic anemia.
6- Beriberi is the final form of:
A. Iron deficiency anemia.
B. Megaloblastic anemia.
C. Niacin deficiency.
D. Thiamin deficiency.
E. Riboflavin deficiency.
7- Which vitamin is found ONLY in foods of animal origin?
A. Cyanocobalamin.
B. Riboflavin.
C. Folic acid.
D. Niacin.
E. Thiamin.
8- A woman has born a baby with cretinism. Which of the following was deficient
during her pregnancy?
A. Iron.
B. Iodine.
C. Folic acid.
D. Vitamin D.
E. Thiamin.
9- The top of the food pyramid denotes:
a. Milk and cheese.
b. Meat and chicken.
c. Cereals.
d. Fats, oils and sweets.
e. Fruits.
10- Meat, poultry and fish group is consumed, according to the food pyramid:
A. 2-3 servings daily.
B. 2-4 servings daily.
C. 3-5 servings daily.
D. 6-11 servings daily.
E. Very little amount daily.
11- The base of the food pyramid consists of:
A. Meat group.
B. Milk, Yogurt and cheese group.
C. Fruit and Vegetable group.
D. Bread, cereal, rice and pasta group.
E. Fats, oils and sweets group.
12- Soluble fibers can lower the risk of:
A. Heart disease.
B. Cancer colon.
C. Digestive problems.
D. Irritable bowel syndrome.
E. Iron deficiency anemia.
13- Consuming excess amounts of fiber may cause:
A. Cancer.
B. Diarrhea.
C. Cardiovascular diseases.
D. Obesity.
E. Diabetes mellitus.
14- Consuming roughage in the allowed amounts regularly has all the following effects,
EXCEPT:
A. Forms the bulk of the intestinal contents.
B. Prevents cancer of the colon. .
C. Promotes weight loss.
D. Reduces the risk of digestive problems.
E. Causes diarrhea and malabsorption.
15- Food balance sheet is all, EXCEPT:
a. Used for making comparison between countries.
b. Based on frequency updated food and agricultural statistics.
c. Better than the dietary survey for assessing the food availability.
d. Taking into consideration the seasonal variations.
e. It shows quantities and types of food available for consumption
16- Choose the correct statement:
a. Egyptian diet is composed mainly of proteins.
b. Consumption of animal protein in Egypt is high.
c. Consumption of protein in Egypt is similar to that in UK.
d. Rice, bread, cereals give most of calories in the Egyptian diet.
e. Energy is less than average
17- The great bulk of Egyptian diet is composed of:
A. Cereals.
B. Animal proteins.
C. Fish.
D. Milk.
E. Fruits.
18- Egypt food balance sheet shows the following, EXCEPT:
A. Protein is largely from plant origin.
B. Animal food is relatively low.
C. Iron is mostly from plants.
D. Energy intake is less than requirements.
E. Cereals form a good bulk of diet.
19- The advantages of the food balance sheet include all the following, EXCEPT:
A. It shows quantities and types of food available for consumption.
B. It can serve as an index for obvious deficit.
C. It can show to what extent the country dependent on others .
D. It is very accurate .
E. It can be used to a certain extent for comparing the food consumption level in different countries .
20- The 1st line of nutrition after IV feeding is:
A. Fiber restricted diet.
B. Full liquid diet.
C. High protein, high kilocalorie diet.
D. Carbohydrate restricted diet.
E. Clear liquid diet.
21- The diet which is the most suitable during the active ulcerative colitis:
A. Fiber restricted diet.
B. Fat restricted diet.
C. High protein, high kilocalorie diet.
D. Carbohydrate restricted diet.
E. Clear liquid diet.
22- Which diet is advised to irritable bowel syndrome patients?
A. Clear liquid diet.
B. Full liquid diet.
C. High fiber diet.
D. High protein diet.
E. Fat restricted diet.
 Vital rates
1- Circle the most appropriate explanation on “Prevalence rate”:
a. the number of patients who have the disease at a particular time, divided by the
population at risk of having the disease at that time.
b. the number of new cases of a diseased in a population over a period of time.
c. not useful for developing HIV/AIDS control program.
d. useful for developing Avian flu control program.
e. not useful for any disease control program.
2- Crude birth rate is a simplest measure of fertility because it includes:
(a) Total population
(b) Mid year population
(c) Live births only
(d) Pre-term births
3- The following is true about prevalence and incidence:
(a) Both are rates
(b) Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not
(c) Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not
(d) Both are not rates
4- For calculation of incidence denominator is taken as:
(a) Mid year population
(b) Population at risk
(c) Total number of cases
(d) Total number of deaths
5- All of the following are true regarding the Ratio EXCEPT:
(a) Numerator is component of denominator
(b) Numerator is not a component of denominator
(c) Numerator & denominator are not related values
(d) It is expressed as a number
6- Measurement of incidence rate of a disease includes:
(a) Number of new cases
(b) Number of new and old cases
(c) Only notified cases
(d) Whole population
7- If a new effective treatment is initiated and all other factors remain the same; which of
the following is most likely to happen:
(a) Incidence will not change
(b) Prevalence will not change
(c) Neither incidence nor prevalence will change
(d) Incidence and prevalence will change
8- The incidence rate of a disease is 5 times greater in women than in men, but the
prevalence rates show no sex difference. The best explanation is that:
(a) The case fatality rate for this disease is lower in women
(b) The case fatality rate for this disease is higher for women
(c) The duration of disease is shorter in men
(d) Risk factors for developing the disease are more common in women
9- Prevalence of a disease:
(a) Is the best measure of disease frequency in etiological studies
(b) Can only be determined by a cohort study
(c) Is the number of new cases in a defined population
(d) Describes the balance between incidence, mortality and recovery
10- Incidence rate refers to:
(a) Only old cases
(b) Both old and new cases
(c) Only new cases
(d) None of the above
11- High prevalence associated with:
(a) High cure rate
(b) Immigration of healthy people
(c) longer duration of disease
(d) Less Incidence of disease
12- Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate include:
(a) All the people living in next fifty houses
(b) All the close contacts
(c) All susceptible amongst close contact
(d) All susceptible in the whole village
13- Attack rate is:
(a) Incidence of the disease
(b) Prevalence of the disease
(c) Killing power of the disease
(d) Incubation period of the disease
14- The secondary attack rate of measles is more than mumps. What is the conclusion?
(a) Measles is more dangerous than mumps
(b) Mumps is more dangerous than measles
(c) Measles is more infectious than mumps
(d) Measles is more common than mumps
15- Which rate will you find "By finding the number of births per 1,000 people per year"
a. Birthrate
b. Fertility Rate
c. Death Rate
d. Migration Rate
16- Which rate will you find "By finding the number of deaths per 1,000 people per year"
a. Birthrate
b. Fertility Rate
c. Death Rate
d. Migration Rate
17- Birth and death rates are described as "crude" because:
a. The total numbers of births and deaths can never be calculated accurately.
b. They relate to the changes without any regard to the age or sex composition of the
population.
c. The infant mortality rate is separate from the birth and death calculations.
d. There is no worldwide standard of what constitutes a birth or a death.
18- Which of the following mortality rates use the estimated total mid-year population as its
denominator?
a. Age-specific mortality rate
b. Sex-specific mortality rate
c. Crude mortality rate
d. Cause-specific mortality rate
19- The number of infant deaths in a single year out of every 1,000 live births that year
refers to the:
a. Infant mortality rate
b. Maternal mortality rate
c. Infant mortality scale
d. Infant death rating scale
20- Experts use the number of infant deaths to help measure which of the following?
a. A nation's overall health status
b. How effective prenatal vitamin intake is during the early months of life.
c. How effective prenatal care is during pregnancy.
d. All of the answers are correct
21- In the past year, city( A) had an average population of 1655. 46 babies were born in
that year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after they were born. There were 4 recorded
stillbirths. What is the neonatal mortality rate?
a. 27.8/1000
b. 43.5/1000
c. 86.9/1000
d. 130.4/1000
22- What numerator is used in computing general fertility rate?
a. Estimated midyear population
b. Number of registered live births
c. Number of pregnancies in the year
d. Number of females of reproductive age
23- A useful measure of lethality of an acute infectious disease is:
a. Attack rate
b. Incidence rate
c. Case fatality rate
d. Mortality rate
24- In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2,000 population, 20 cases have occurred and 5
died. Case fatality rate is:
a. 1%
b. 0.25%
c. 5%
d. 25%
25- Virulence of a disease is indicated by:
a. Proportional mortality rate
b. Specific mortality rate
c. Case fatality ratio
d. Morbidity rate
26- All about prevalence are false, except:
a. Specifically for all old cases
b. Specifically for all new cases
c. Specifically for all old and new cases
d. Prevalence of one type
27- You are computing the crude death rate of your municipality, with a total population of
about 18,000, for last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those who died, 20 died because
of diseases of the heart and 32 were aged 50 years or older. What is the crude death rate?
a. 4.2/1,000
b. 5.2/1,000
c. 6.3/1,000
d. 7.3/1,000
28- Numerator of maternal mortality rate is number of live birth
a. True b. False
29- In still birth rate the denominator is the number of live births
a. True b. False
30- Numerator for neonatal mortality is:
a. All infant deaths up to 28 days.
b. All infants less than or equal to 7 days.
c. All infants under 1 year.
d. All live births In the same locality & year.
31- The most important cause of infant mortality in Egypt is:-
a. Acute respiratory tract infection.
b. Congenital anomalies.
c. Birth injuries.
d. Prematurity.
32- Perinatal period means the period:-
a. From the 28th weeks of pregnancy plus 1 week after delivery.
b. 4 weeks before delivery plus 4 weeks delivery.
c. From the 30lh weeks of pregnancy plus 4 week after delivery.
d. The first year of life.
33- To measure the magnitude of diseases in a community we depend on:
a. Prevalence rate.
b. Crude death rate.
c. Incidence rate.
d. Attack rate.
34- The number of new cases that occur within a specific population within a defined time
interval is:
a. Point Prevalence
b. Incidence
c. Period prevalence
d. Lifetime Prevalence