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MOCK ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2021

MOCK AILET #03

Candidate Name : _________________
Duration : 90 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided,
with a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods

6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required
and in the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face
criminal prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the
Test Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
MOCK AILET #03

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

(Passage Q.1-Q.5):Kerala has sought to make amends by keeping in abeyance its obnoxious
proposal to abridge free speech by conferring unbridled powers on the police to arrest anyone
expressing or disseminating any matter deemed threatening, abusive, humiliating or defamatory to a
person or a class of persons in any manner. But CM Vijayan should take heed of criticism and drop the
measure altogether. It‘s worrying that such a draconian and ill-conceived ordinance was even
promulgated. It‘s incredible that a State government crafted a law with elements declared unconstitutional
by the Supreme Court, ignoring a major apex court verdict on the law of defamation, and which is
repugnant to the provisions of IPC, a central law, in two ways, besides going against one provision in
Cr.P.C.
His defence that the amendment only targeted defamatory social media posts and wouldn‘t curb
reportage, political satire or expression of opinion is quite hollow, when seen in light of the absence of
any such narrow definition of the offence introduced by Section 118A in the Kerala Police Act. In Shreya
Singhal vs. Union of India (2015), the top court struck down Section 66A of the IT Act. The section had
criminalised the sending of any message through a computer resource that was grossly offensive,
menacing, or caused annoyance, inconvenience, danger, insult, injury and intimidation. The Court found
the offence was ‗overbroad‘, that is, it was defined so widely that both innocent and offensive messaging
could be brought under its ambit. The failure to define the offence narrowly fell foul of the constitutional
protection for free speech and expression. The same judgment, for the same reason, also struck down
Section 118(d) of the Kerala Police Act, which made causing annoyance in an indecent manner through
verbal comments or on telephone an offence.
The new offence is also vaguely defined, and is made cognisable, whereas criminal defamation under
IPC is non-cognisable. Moreover, while upholding the validity of criminal defamation, the Court made it
clear that no police officer can register an FIR for the offence; it can only be prosecuted as a private
complaint, for Sec.199 Cr.P.C. says no court shall take cognisance of defamation unless the aggrieved
party files a complaint. Further, Section 118A lays down a three-year prison term; it is two years under
the IPC. By making defamatory utterances cognizable and raising the prison term, the Kerala ordinance
effectively amends IPC and Cr.P.C., a move for which the Centre‘s assent is mandatory, as it is in conflict
with central laws. The ordinance itself required prior presidential assent. It is regrettable that the State
sought to arm itself with extraordinary powers to deal with a problem that can be dealt with through other
provisions.

1. Which of the following statements expresses the central idea of the passage?
(a) The State armed itself with extraordinary powers to deal with a problem.
(b) Kerala disregarded a settled law while issuing an ordinance to curb abusive content.
(c) Kerala ordinance amended the CPC and the CrPC without permission of the central government.
(d) Kerala government promulgated a draconian ordinance.

2. What does the phrase ‗unbridled powers‘ refer to?

(a) The powers assumed by the Kerala government in promulgating an ordinance.
(b) The powers given to the Kerala police to arrest anyone in contravention of the draconian law.
(c) The powers assumed by the Centre requiring intervening in the matters of the state.
(d) The powers of restrain given to the courts.

3. Which of the following statements indicates the approach of the government of Kerala?
(a) A brazen and casual attitude towards the people.
(b) Denial of the freedom of speech and expression.
(c) Blatant disregard for other State machinery and the people.
(d) Rapid policy and decision making to silence detractors.

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MOCK AILET #03

4. Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between the second paragraph and the
third paragraph?
(a) The second paragraph states what is wrong with the Kerala government‘s approach while the third
paragraph lists the laws it amends.
(b) The third paragraph offers the solutions whereas the second paragraph highlights the problems.
(c) The second paragraph focuses on case laws while the third paragraph highlights the legislative
content.
(d) The second paragraph gives the Supreme Court‘s opinion whereas the third paragraph gives the
State government‘s opinion.
5. Why is the Chief Minister‘s defence referred to as ‗quite hollow‘ by the author?
(a) The Chief Minister wants to evade the real issue.
(b) The Chief Minister has not given a satisfactory explanation.
(c) The Kerala Act has a narrow definition of the offence.
(d) The Kerala Act will not protect reportage, satire and political opinion.

Directions (Q.6–Q.8): In each of the following questions, a word is bold. Choose the word which is a
synonym of the highlighted word.
6. People are sometimes willing to sacrifice sensualcomfort or pleasure for the sake of appearances.
(a) Sexual
(b) Soft
(c) Tactile
(d) Warm
7. As the academy discouragedinnovation in the arts; there was little innovation in nineteenth century
French sculpture.
(a) Deviation
(b) Abnormality
(c) Tangible
(d) Novation
8. Car companies solicitconsumer information on such human factors as whether a seat is comfortable or
whether a set of controls is easy to use.
(a) Conceal
(b) Reply
(c) Ignore
(d) Beseech
Directions (Q.9–Q.11): Complete the following sentences with an appropriate irregular verb and one of
these phases.
I Pull (a) A grudge
II Catch (b) Yourself together
III Bury (c) An infection
IV Deal (d) A tough competition
V Bent (e) A deck of cards
VI Give (f) The hatchet
VII Hold (g) Out of shape
VIII Keep (h) Aspersions on

9. It is time to forget about past differences and ……….

(a) VII-(h)
(b) VII-(b)
(c) II-(c)
(d) III-(f)

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MOCK AILET #03

10. The cupboard had been moved around so much that it was ………..
(a) II-(c)
(b) VII-(a)
(c) V-(g)
(d) VI-(c)

11. It is time to stop dwelling on the past and …………..

(a) II-(a)
(b) III-(f)
(c) IV-(b)
(d) I-(b)

Directions (Q.12–Q.13): Following are the questions based on the same words used as different parts of
speech. Choose the correct matches.

12. After
1. Adverb (a) Camilla left soon after.
2. Preposition (b) I take after my mother.
3. Adjective (c) The after party was also a success.
4. Conjunction (d) We left after the interval.
Options:
(a) 1(b) 2(c) 3(a) 4(d)
(b) 1(a) 2(b) 3(c) 4(d)
(c) 1(b) 2(a) 3(c) 4(d)
(d) 1(d) 2(c) 3(a) 4(b)

13. Next
1. Noun (a) I shall see you next Monday.
2. Adverb (b) Let us wait for JK Rowling‘s next.
3. Preposition (c) He sits next to the water filter.
4. Adjective (d) What next?
Options:
(a) 1(b) 2(d) 3(c) 4(a)
(b) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(a)
(c) 1(d) 2(b) 3(a) 4(c)
(d) 1(d) 2(a) 3(b) 4(c)

Directions (Q.14–Q.16): Observe the following sentences where some changes are made in the
sentence but keeping the sense of the sentence same. In the following questions, the sentences have
some element of similarity. You have to find out the similarity and choose the option which is odd one
out.
14.
(a) I gave him a car for his birthday.
He was given a car for his birthday.
(b) Someone sent her a bouquet of flowers.
She was sent a bouquet of flowers.
(c) He looked after his grandfather.
His grandfather was looked after by him.
(d) We are going to the movies.
We went for the movies.

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MOCK AILET #03

15.
(a) The Rhinocerous roams the foothills of the Himalayas.
The Rhinocerous roamed the foothills of the Himalayas.
(b) My car has a flat tire.
My car had a flat tire.
(c) Harry eats Pumpkin Pie for dessert.
Harry ate Pumpkin Pie for dessert.
(d) We went to Italy.
We will go to Italy.

16.
(a) The critic wrote a pleasing appraisal.
A pleasing appraisal was written by the critic.
(b) He said, ―Don‘t ever leave me again.‖
He asked me not to leave him again.
(c) I water my plants every day.
My plants are watered every day.
(d) The wedding planner arranged for everything.
Everything was arranged for by the wedding planner.

Direction (Q.17–Q.22): Choose the sentence which is grammatically incorrect.

17.
(a) Double-blind experimental techniques are often an effective way of ensuring scientific objectivity.
(b) New technology will undoubtedly make entirely new entertainment options available over the next 10
years.
(c) Each of these three power sources produce considerable environmental damage.
(d) An undergraduate degree is necessary for appointment to the executive board.

18.
(a) Donna‘s employers engaged in an illegal but profitable practice that cause serious damage to the
environment.
(b) The most advanced kind of moral motivation is based solely on abstract principles.
(c) All of Connie‘s dresses are very badly made.
(d) Some students who do not study diligently also make good grades.

19.
(a) Many important contributions to the public welfare that resulted from scientific research were never
predicted as potential outcomes of that research.
(b) Scientific discoveries that have contributed to the public welfare would have occurred sooner if public
funds had been committed to the research that generated those discoveries.
(c) The cost of producing electric power at photo-voltaic plants is expected to decrease further, while the
cost of producing power at traditional plants is not expected to decreased.
(d) The cost of producing electric power at traditional plants has increased over the past 20 years.

20.
(a) The lake existed for about half a million years.
(b) Ancestors of modern humans lived in western Asia between two million and one-and-a-half million
years ago.
(c) Bones of an early human ancestor were recently found in the ancient lake-bottom sediments that lie
on top of the layer of lava.
(d) About two million years ago, lava dammed up a river in western Asia and caused a small lake to
formed.

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MOCK AILET #03

21.
(a) As a political system, democracy does not promote political freedom.
(b) There are historical examples of democracies that ultimately resulted in some of the most oppressive
societies.
(c) There have been enlightened despotisms and oligarchies that have provided a remarkable level of
political freedom to their subjects.
(d) Sensitive astronomical instruments have detected neutron stars much farther away then the location
of the 1987 supernova.

22.
(a) Most supernova remnants that astronomers have detected have a neutron star nearby.
(b) The supernova of 1987 was the first that scientists was able to observe in progress.
(c) Several important features of the 1987 supernova are correctly predicted by the current theory.
(d) Some neutron stars are known to have come into existence by a cause other than a supernova
explosion.

Direction (Q.23–Q.26): Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase in
the question.
23. Once in a blue moon
(a) Very frequently
(b) Very rarely
(c) Very usual
(d) Very often

24. Let the cat out of the bag

(a) To give out information
(b) To drop something
(c) To conceal something
(d) To destroy something

25. To feel under the weather

(a) To be stranded
(b) To be slightly sick
(c) To be healthy
(d) To go out in the rain

26. Giving someone the cold shoulder

(a) Avoiding someone
(b) Evading a particular topic
(c) Wearing a cold shoulder
(d) Buying a present

Directions (Q.27–Q.29): Replace the underlined word/words with one of these two or three-word verbs
in an appropriate form.
27. The true measure of digital nations is the readiness of governments to use technology to create open,
participatory public systems that citizens consider trustworthy.
(a) Look upon as
(b) Look into as
(c) Look for as
(d) Looking into as

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MOCK AILET #03

28. It would be premature to declare digital as a way of life in India.

(a) To put forth
(b) To put behind
(c) To speak
(d) To give out
29. The true measure of digitalisation would be seamless delivery of all citizen services.
(a) Giving over of
(b) Getting over of
(c) Combining of
(d) Getting together of
Direction (Q.30–Q.35): Choose the best word to fill in the blanks:
30. The ferment in U.S. politics appears unabated weeks after one of the most controversial election
campaigns, with outgoing President Donald Trump refusing to concede to his _________ rival,
Democratic President-elect Joe Biden.
(a) Victorious
(b) Conquering
(c) Scorching
(d) Screeching
31. Prime Minister NarendraModi‘s call for a reimagining of urban planning and development to make cities
and towns healthy and liveable after COVID-19 reflects the reality of decrepit infrastructure ________ the
virus‘s spread.
(a) Containing
(b) Spreading
(c) Hiding
(d) Aiding
32. Making __________ vaccines available to their afflicted populations will be the immediate challenge.
(a) Acquiring
(b) Anachronistic
(c) Affected
(d) Affordable
33. This is a sign that the vaccine is successful in its primary job of protection though its efficacy at curbing
disease __________ is still to be evaluated.
(a) Release
(b) Spreading
(c) Transmit
(d) Transmission
34. Those who support Ms. Suu Kyi say her critics outside the country do not understand the _________ of
Myanmar‘s power dynamics.
(a) Complexities
(b) Complications
(c) Convolutions
(d) Considerations
35. As theelected ruler, she will also have to _________ allegations of genocide and walk her talk of making
peace with the ethnic minoritygroups.
(a) Evade
(b) Resolve
(c) Solve
(d) Address

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MOCK AILET #03

SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

36. The ‗right to reject‘ (in the context of the NOTA option) was first proposed in India in the year:
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002

37. Which of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution deals with Anti-defection?
(a) Fourth
(b) Fifth
(c) Tenth
(d) Twelfth

38. The FATF (Financial Action Task Force) was established in 1989 on the initiative of:
(a) G7
(b) G8
(c) G20
(d) United Nations

39. Which of the following are tributaries of Yamuna?

I. Chambal
II. Ken
III. Betwa
IV. Sindh
Options:
(a) i, ii, ii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) iv only
(d) i, ii, iii & iv

40. The New Development Bank is a multilateral development bank established by the:
(a) BRICS
(b) G20
(c) ASEAN
(d) SAARC

41. Which of the following is not one of the countries through which the Brahmaputra flows?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Tibet
(d) Bangladesh

42. Which of the following is the second largest intergovernmental organisation in the world after the United
Nations?
(a) Organisation of Islamic Cooperation
(b) The Arab League
(c) The European Union
(d) Red Cross

43. Japan‘s Hayabusa spacecraft travelled to which of the following celestial bodies?
(a) Asteroid
(b) Planet
(c) Star
(d) Comet

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MOCK AILET #03

44. Sinabung, Merapi and Ili are:

(a) Volcanoes
(b) Trenches
(c) Seas
(d) Mountains

45. In the context of the anti-defection law, the decision of the Speaker of the LokSabha or Chairman of the
RajyaSabha:
(a) Is subject to Judicial Review
(b) Not Subject to Judicial Review
(c) Partly subject to Judicial Review
(d) Cannot be said

46. The Dinesh Goswami Committee is related to:

(a) Electoral reforms
(b) Banking sector reforms
(c) Financial Sector
(d) Women empowerment

47. Which of the following is not a member of Plus countries in the ASEAN Defence Ministers Meeting Plus?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) France

48. In India, the FRBM Act suggests bringing down the fiscal deficit to:
(a) 3% of the GDP
(b) 4% of the GDP
(c) 5% of the GDP
(d) 6% of the GDP

49. The Pilibhit Tiger Reserve has recently baggedthe first international award, TX2, among the 13 tiger
ranging countries for having doubled the number of tigers in less than the stipulated time. Which
state of India is the Pilibhit Tiger Reserve situated in:
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Himachal Pradesh

50. India set to build ________________ Dam in Afghanistan, provide drinking water for 2 million residents
of Kabul.The dam would come upon the Maidan river tributary of Kabul river.
(a) Salma
(b) Kabul
(c) Peshawar
(d) Shahtoot

51. The Bioluminescence phenomena has been observed along which of the following cities‘ coasts?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Vishakhapatnam

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MOCK AILET #03

52. Sati was declared illegal and punishable by the regulation XVII during the Governor Generalship of?
(a) Lord Litton (b) Lord Rippon
(c) Lord William Bentinck (d) Lord Canning

53. Which of the following became the first nations to make sanitary pads and napkins free for women?
(a) England
(b) Wales
(c) Ireland
(d) Scotland

54. Which of the following statements is false about the Speaker of the LokSabha?
(a) Speaker of LokSabha is basically the head of the house and presides over the sittings of Parliament
and controls its working.
(b) It is the Speaker who decides the agenda of various discussions.
(c) Whenever there is a joint sitting of both houses of Parliament (LokSabha&RajyaSabha) the Speaker
of the LokSabha presides over this meeting.
(d) He is not a Member of the Parliament but elected from outside.

55. The famous AnuradhaBhasin case is related to:

(a) Recitation of the national anthem
(b) Right to marry a person of one‘s choice
(c) Suspension of internet services
(d) Right to freedom of religion

56. When is Constitution Day celebrated in India?

(a) 26th November
(b) 26th January
(c) 15th August
(d) 30th January

57. ___________is planning to impose a mandatory quota for the number of women working in senior
management positions in the country’s listed firms.
(a) Russia
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) USA

58. The La Nina Phenomenon is related to:

(a) Southwest Monsoon in India
(b) Northeast Monsoon in India
(c) Both
(d) Neither

59. Which of the following states in India has recently enacted an ordinance which prohibits religious
conversion for marriage?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh

60. The ancient Takshila University is located in:

(a) Pakistan (b) Iran (c) Indi (d) Afghanistan.

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MOCK AILET #03

61. Which of the following countries sold negative yield bonds for the first time recently?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) USA

62. Nisarga, Gati and Nivara are:

(a) Cyclones
(b) Spacecrafts
(c) Satellites
(d) Celestial bodies

63. Who was the father of Operation Flood?

(a) Dr. Norman Borlaug. (b)Dr. M.S. Swaminathan.
(c) Dr.VergheseKurien. (d)Dr. William Gande.

64. What was the purpose of the Roshni Act in J&K?

(a) Addressing cross border conflict
(b) Regularising unauthorized land
(c) Facilitating transfer of property
(d) Elimination of benami transactions

65. The only dissent in the landmark case Additional District Magistrate of Jabalpur v. Shiv Kant Shukla 1975
or the famous Habeas Corpus case came from?
(a) Justice MirzaHameedullah Beg (b) Justice Hans Raj Khanna.
(c) Justices A. N. Ray (d) Justice P N Bhagwati.

66. Planet Venus is called the Earth‘s twin because of:

(a) Similar size of orbits
(b) Similar physical size
(c) Similar number of satellites
(d) Possibility of human life

67. The Pangda village is located in a territory disputed by China and:

(a) India
(b) Bhutan
(c) Tibet
(d) Afghanistan

68. The ―Abhayam‖ mobile phone application which helps women and children travelling in taxis and
auto rickshaws to raise an alarm in case of any emergency. Which of the following states has
launched it?
(a) Telangana
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu

69. National Girl Child Day was recently observed on?

(a) 24th Jan (b) 24th Feb
(c) 14th December (d) 14th Feb.

70. Which of the following state governments has launched a maternity benefit scheme for the second child?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Rajasthan

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SECTION – C :LEGAL REASONING

Legal Principle: (Q. 71 and 72):

I. It is a fundamental right that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of
birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to the use
of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of
State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public.
II. Laws dealing with marriages in a religious community fall outside the scope of fundamental rights.
71. Factual Situation:The Municipal Corporation of Amanabad issues an order prohibiting any person
residing out of the municipal limits of Amanabad from using Lake Alia, a lake located entirely within the
municipal limits of Amanabad. The lake's maintenance is overseen and financed by the Municipal
Corporation itself. The order is challenged in a court. Will the challenge succeed?

(a) The challenge will succeed since the lake both has bathing ghats and is a place of public resort.
(b) The challenge will succeed since the public being restricted from using the lake is comprised of
citizens of India who are being deprived of their right to use a public property.
(c) The challenge will not succeed since the notification is arbitrary having no reasonable objective that it
seeks to achieve.
(d) The challenge will not succeed since the restriction placed is on the basis of place of residence.

72. Factual Situation: Parliament passes a law recognizing a new and increasingly popular religion among
the rich and the wealthy, Vaderism. The law reflects the strong beliefs in Vaderism of no public nudity by
a married woman and therefore provides that a marriage between two followers of Vaderism may be
declared void if the wife is ever found bathing at a public well, tank or bathing ghat. The law is challenged
as violative of fundamental rights. Will the challenge succeed?

(a) No, since most followers of Vaderism are rich and they do not need to take baths in public places,
making the law redundant in practicality.
(b) No, since the law recognizes rules concerning marriages in a religious community.
(c) Yes, since new religions cannot be allowed to form so easily, which would open floodgates to any
number and type of religions and associated practices.
(d) Yes, since the law clearly discriminates only on the ground of sex.

Legal Principle:(Q. 73 and 74):

I. Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending
to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make
compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered.
II. The person for whom the act is done is not bound to pay unless he had the choice to reject the goods
or services.
73. Factual Situation: Rashid is driving his bike on the highway when he sees a person standing by the
roadside with a punctured tyre in his bike, which was the same model as Rashid's. He pulls over and
asks the person, Varun, about the situation. Varun tells that the tyre got punctured while he was riding
towards his college and he has called his friend who is in the nearby city and who will arrive in 2-3 hours.
Although there was a puncture repair shop not very far away, Varun had unfortunately left his wallet
behind at home. Feeling that Varun might miss college, Rashid offered Varun enough money to get the
tyre repaired. Although hesitant at first, Varun accepted the money. Rashid moved on. Next day, when
Varun was riding towards his college, he saw Rashid standing by the side of the road with the tyre of his
bike punctured. Since he was in a hurry, he did not stop. Rashid, who had himself left the wallet at home
today, felt a wave of relief when saw Varun approaching; but to his dismay, Varun left without a word.
Feeling very angered, he noted Varun's license number, tracked him and asked him to pay his money
back. Varun refused. Rashid sued claiming that he should be compensated. Will Rashid's claim
succeed?

(a) No, since Rashid's offer of the money did not entail and expectation on his part that the money would
be returned.

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MOCK AILET #03

(b) No, since Rashid did not take a written promise from Varun for paying back the money.
(c) Yes, since Varun has a moral obligation to help Rashid in the same situation in which Rashid had
helped Varun.
(d) Yes, since Varun should have rejected the offer of money if he did not want to pay back.

74. Factual Situation: Albert was on his way to the office when he saw a commotion on the road. He
stopped and saw a man lying there after what looked like a road accident. Albert was shocked to realize
that it was Nitish, a person working in the same office as Albert. He reached out towards the body. In his
mind, Albert also recalled that Nitish had won a huge contract for the company recently and had therefore
received a great bonus. Although Albert was in a hurry and did not have much money to help anyone, he
thought of helping Nitish since Nitish, he thought, would be able to pay him back. He took Nitish to
hospital and got him treated. When Nitish became conscious again and got discharged from the hospital,
he learnt that all his bills had been paid by Albert. Albert approached him and asked him to pay the
money back. Nitish refused and told him that he had lost all his money and belongings in gambling and
would rather have died than live again and have to face the financial burden. Albert sued him for recovery
of his money. Will he succeed.

(a) Yes, since Albert expected his money to returned.

(b) Yes, since Albert helped Nitish when he was about to die and Nitish does not have any right to die
recognized by the law in India.
(c) No, since Nitish was unconscious at the time of the help being extended and was in no position to
refuse the help.
(d) No, since Albert should have approached Nitish's insurers first before paying his bills.

75. Legal Principle:A person is liable for theft if he takes away any movable or immovable property from the
possession or ownership of another person with a dishonest intention or for an illegal purpose.
Factual Situation:Bubbles and Buttercup studied together in school, and for graduation, they both joined
the same college and shared a flat. Bubbles also became good friends with Blossom, who also studied
with her and began spending a lot of time together. Blossom was addicted to cocaine and in her
company, Bubbles also became a regular at it. Bubbles used to stash all her drugs in Buttercup's
cupboard.
One day, Bubbles ran out cash to buy cocaine, so she sold off Buttercup's white gold bracelet, in
exchange for drugs. She thought she'd replace Buttercup's bracelet as soon as she received money from
home and that she'd never find out, since she was on a road trip with her other friends for a week.
However, Buttercup returned sooner than expected and on discovering her missing bracelet, she realized
what had happened and immediately called the cops. On inspection, they found large quantities of
cocaine in Buttercup's cupboard and arrested her for illegal possession of drugs, which is a non-
cognizable offence. When in prison, the police offered Buttercup a lighter sentence if she confessed to
the crime. She confessed the same in Court.
Is Bubbles liable for theft?
(a) Yes, since she took away the bracelet with the intention of buying drugs
(b) No, since she intended to replace it as soon as possible
(c) No, since Buttercup was not in possession of the bracelet when she stole it
(d) Yes, because she didn‘t intend to buy him a new bracelet
Legal Principle(Q.76 and Q.77): A confession made in court should be free and voluntary. A confession
made under duress is not admissible in court.
76. Factual Situation: Is Buttercup's confession admissible?
(a) No, she did it to receive a smaller sentence
(b) No, since it was made under duress
(c) No, since the confession was false and she was innocent
(d) Yes, since it was free and voluntary

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77. Which of the following is true about non-cognizable offences?

(a) The police officer can make an arrest only with a warrant
(b) These are less serious offences, as compared to cognizable offences
(c) Cheating, Adultery, etc are examples of non-cognizable offences
(d) All of the above

Legal Principles: (For Q. 78 to 80)

I. A fiduciaryrelationship is a legal or ethical relationship of trust between two or more parties.
II. In a fiduciary relationship, one person, in a position of vulnerability, justifiably vests confidence, good
faith, reliance and trust in another whose aid, advice or protection is sought in some matter. In such a
relation, good conscience requires the fiduciary to act at all times for the sole benefit and interest of
the one who trusts.
III. A fiduciary will be liable to account if proven to have acquired a profit, benefit or gain from the
relationship by one of three means:
 In circumstances of conflict of duty and interest
 In circumstances of conflict of duty to one person and duty to another person
 By taking advantage of the fiduciary position.
IV. A doctor should give a certificate after examination that a patient is medically fit or unfit before he or
she is discharged from the hospital. Failure to do so would amount to negligence on the part of the
Doctor.
Factual Situation:Ratan Birla is a successful industrialist and he resides in Mumbai. Dr. Talwalkar, who
is a renowned figure in the medical field, has been his family doctor since he was a kid. One day, Ratan
experiences a sharp pain in his abdomen. On consultation, Dr. Talwalkar comes to the conclusion that
Ratan is suffering due to inflammation of the appendix, and advises him to get admitted to a hospital
immediately, so that he may be operated upon without delay.

However, Ratan is not satisfied with Dr. Talwalkar's diagnosis, and consults two other doctors regarding
his abdominal pain, who claim that there is no appendix related issue, and no need to be hospitalized.

78. Is the relationship between Ratan and Dr. Talwalkar a fiduciary relationship?
(a) No, the relationship was a contractual relationship where Ratan paid money to the doctor for the
services rendered by him
(b) No, the relationship was not a fiduciary relationship as Ratan did not trust the words of Dr.Talwalkar
(c) Yes, the relationship between the two was a fiduciary relationship
(d) None of these

79. Ratan wishes to prosecute DrTalwalkar. Will he be successful in his action?

(a) Yes, because DrTalwalkarhad acquired a profit by misusing a fiduciary relationship
(b) Yes, because DrTalwalkarhad breached a relationship created by a contract
(c) No, because no relationship existed between DrTalwalkarandRatan
(d) No, because DrTalwalkarhas not acquired any profit from the fiduciary relationship

80. In the event that DrTalwalkar's advice was indeed true but he did not issue any certificate of fitness or
unfitness before letting Ratan go home, would the doctor be liable for any offence?
(a) No, because he was not mandated by any duty to do so
(b) No, because he repeatedly informed Ratan about his condition but Ratan did not pay heed to his
advice
(c) Yes, because he had a duty to do the same
(d) None of these

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81. Legal Principle:

I. Intention to deceive must be present to establish the tort of deceit.
II. A Corporation is liable for the tortuous act of its employee, if the act leading to the liability was done
within the course of employment.
III. An act is in the course of employment even if it is an unauthorized or wrongful mode of doing an
authorized act.
Factual Situation: In the city of Jorah, people had immense faith in Buddha. Madagascar was a company
producing Buddha models. It had a manufacturing unit and a selling unit. Madagascar produced both
kinds of Buddha model. One of original metal and other having metal like look. The Buddha model of
original metal was costlier than the non-metal Buddha. Simba was the newly appointed CEO of the
company and started taking all decisions regarding manufacturing and selling of the Buddha. He declared
to the employees that the company will no longer be producing the non-metallic Buddha models.
Madagascar also had online platform in the city, whereby it had home delivery facility. The facility provided
the option to customers to check the product on delivery and then take it. Tarzan was one of the delivery
boy. Mr. Winnie once ordered a metallic Buddha online. Tarzan delivered the Buddha. Mr. Winnie
enquired whether the Buddha model is made of pure metal. Tarzan assured that it is pure metal and that
the company no longer produces non-metallic models. Later, when the Buddha model fell off the table and
broke, Mr. Winnie realized that the model was not of pure metal. He sued Tarzan and the Madagascar
Company for tort of deceit. Which one the following is true?
(a) Tarzan is liable because Tarzan lied about the product. Madagascar is liable because delivery of
Buddha was in the course of employment.
(b) Tarzan is not liable because he was just a delivery boy who did not have knowledge about the
product but Simba is liable for giving out false information.
(c) Tarzan is liable because he had intended to sell the product at any cost. Madagascar is liable
because Tarzan was in the course of employment while delivering the Buddha.
(d) Tarzan is not liable because he relied on information by the company that it won‘t produce non-
metallic buddhas. Therefore, Madagascar is also not liable for tort of deceit.

82. Legal Principle:

I. There should be a contractual relationship between the parties in order to impose liability.
II. A contract is legally enforceable when the parties to the contract are of the legal age, the subject of
the contract is legal and there is exchange of valid consideration.
Factual Situation:Tyrion and Jaime were two childhood best friends. Tyrion was clever and ultimately
grew up to become a successful businessman. But Jaime was not serious in life. He liked to play around
and was not as ambitious as his friend Tyrion. Jaime was always interested in making toys, joining broken
things. But he never utilized his interest. Jaime was jobless when he grew up and had financial problems.
He approached his friend Tyrion for help. Tyrion knew of Jaime‘s interest and offered him a mechanics job
in his factory. While Jaime was working with one of the cars, the welding machine busted causing severe
burn injuries to Jaime. Jaime sued the manufacturers of the welding machine for the injury.
(a) Manufacturers are liable because it they had been negligent in designing of the welding machine
resulting into injury to Jaime.
(b) Manufacturers are not liable because Jaime does not have contractual relationship with the
manufacturers of the welding machine.
(c) Manufacturers are liable because Jaime was of legal age, the subject matter of the contract was legal
and there was valid consideration.
(d) Manufacturers are not liable whereas Tyrion would be liable because Jaime is his employee and
Tyrion owes a duty to Jaime by the contract of employment.

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83. Legal Principle

I. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with
fine or with both.
II. A person who finds property not in the possession of any other person, and takes such property for
the purpose of protecting it for, or restoring it to, the owner, does not take or misappropriate
dishonestly and is not guilty of any offence. But if he appropriates the property to his own use, when
he knows or has the means of discovering the owner or if he has kept the property for a reasonable
time before he has used reasonable means to discover and give notice to the owner, he has
committed the offence.
III. What are reasonable means or what is a reasonable time in such a case is question of fact. It is not
necessary that the finder should know who the owner of the property is, or that any particular person
is the owner of the property; it is sufficient, if at the time of appropriating it, he does not believe it to be
his own property, or in good faith believe that the owner cannot be found.
Factual Situation: Anita had to attend an office party in the evening. She went to Priya‘s office and found
pair of earrings on Priya‘s desk. She picked them up to wear in the party for the night. She forgot to return
the earring and kept it at her home. A week later, Anita needed some money for medical treatment of her
mother. She learned that the earrings were diamond earrings and sold it for hefty sum of money. Later,
she discovers that those earrings did not belong to Priya and the real owner is not known. Which of the
following is true?
(a) Anita has committed theft because she has dishonestly moved the property of Priya without her
permission.
(b) Anita is guilty of dishonest misappropriation because she had appropriated the property for her own
use and kept it for a reasonable period of time without taking reasonable measures to find the owner
and give notice to the owner.
(c) Anita is not guilty of dishonest misappropriation because she took the earring with the intention of
returning it.
(d) Anita is not guilty of dishonest misappropriation because the real owner of the earring was not Priya
and she could not have found the real owner.

84. Legal Principle: In case of a breach of contract, compensation can be awarded for the personal
inconvenience suffered by a party by reason of the breach, which naturally arose in the usual course of
things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result
from the breach of it.
Factual Situation:Pihu bought the bus ticket from the Neeta Travel Company for journey from Mumbai to
Lonavala. The final destination of the bus was Pune. The bus driver took a wrong route and dropped Pihu
in an isolated place called Maban, around 15 km, from Lonavala, at 10 pm. Pihu could not find any
conveyance this late at night and thus, had to take a hotel in Maban. She also had to walk for half an
hour to find a hotel on the isolated streets of Maban. Later, she sued the bus company for Rs. 2500/- for
the hotel booking, Rs. 2500/- for the inconvenience caused due to being stranded at an unknown place in
the middle of the night as well as walking the distance to find a hotel and Rs 3000/- for catching a cold
while looking for a hotel in such a chilly weather.

(a) The bus company is liable to pay total of Rs. 8000/- because the loss was suffered due to the fault of
the bus driver and all the damages arose in the usual course of things resulting from the breach of
contract.
(b) The bus company is liable to pay only Rs. 2500/- for the inconvenience caused by being obliged to
walk and not for hotel room booking because they did not expect that she would have to book a room
at a hotel.
(c) The bus company is liable to pay Rs. 5000/- for the hotel room booking and inconvenience caused by
being obliged to walk and not for Rs. 3000/- as the company did not expect Pihu to catch a cold.
(d) The bus company is liable only for Rs. 2500- spent in booking the hotel because Pihu did not suffer
any inconvenience in walking and the illness was a cause to her own weakness.

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85. Legal Principle:

I. If a person‘s cattle or other animal trespasses on another‘s land, the owner of the animal is
responsible for the trespass and consequential damage.
II. The person who suffers such damage has a right to seize and detain animal causing trespass.
Factual Situation:Ms. Amy Santiago and Jack Malone were two known enemies who had farm lands
nearby. Amy had 10 cows which were grazing in her land. 6 of them went to Jack‘s farm land. On earlier
occasions as well, the herd has entered Jack‘s farm to damage his crops. This time, when the herd
entered his farm, he shot the herd with his gun, due to which they died on the spot. Ms. Amy brought
action against Jack to claim compensation but Jack defended by saying that he had all rights to shoot the
herd because they had been creating nuisance and causing damage to his farm. Which of the following is
correct?

(a) Amy is responsible for the loss of crops of Jack and cannot claim compensation from Jack since it
was her own fault to let her cows enter Jack‘s farm.
(b) Amy cannot claim compensation from Jack because Jack had the right to shoot the herd if it causes
damage to his farm.
(c) Amy can claim compensation from Jack because even though Amy‘s cows trespassed Jack‘s land
but it does not give him the right to shoot the cattle.
(d) Amy can claim compensation from Jack because he had already planned to kill Amy‘s cows because
he was jealous of Amy.

86. Legal Principles:

1. Trespass to the person involves direct interference with another person‘s body or freedom of
movement.
2. The tort of trespass to person is actionable per se i.e damage is not necessary to be proved in order
to be held liable for trespass to person.
3. Trespass to the person is a crime as well as a tort.
4. A person commits tortious assault when he engages in any act of such a nature as to excite an
apprehension of bodily injury.
5. The tort of battery is a form of trespass to person.
Factual Situation: Shanti liked Mukesh and Om liked Shanti. Om would dream of Shanti every night and
planned to propose her. He bought her some gifts and called her to a beautiful restaurant called ―The
Life‖ to propose her. She cancelled the plan with Om last minute to meet Mukesh. She had planned to
propose Mukesh at this meeting. Om‘s friend told him about Mukesh and Shanti‘s meeting on a rooftop
restaurant. He followed Shanti till the restaurant and saw her proposing Mukesh. Mukesh accepted
Shanti‘s offer, which broke Om‘s heart. Heartbroken Om went back home and cried all night. Next day,
he went to Mukesh‘s house with five friends and threatened him by saying that ―if I see you next time with
Shanti, I will rip your heart out.‖ Mukesh got scared and called Shanti to end their relationship. Shanti got
angry after hearing the whole incident and called Om and said that ―she would kill him if he interfered in
her life.‖ Which of the following is true?
(a) Shanti is liable for tort of assault because she caused the apprehension of bodily injury in the mind of
Om.
(b) Om is liable for tort of assault because he committed apprehension of bodily injury in the mind of
Mukesh.
(c) Both Shanti and Om are liable for the tort of assault for causing apprehension in the mind of Om and
Mukesh respectively.
(d) Both Om and Shanti are not liable for tort of assault because the threat of bodily injury was not
immediate.

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87. Legal Principle: When two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, and illegal act, or an act
which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy, provided
that no agreement except an agreement to commit an offence shall amount to a criminal conspiracy
unless some acts besides the agreement is done by one or more parties to such agreement in pursuance
thereof.

Factual Situation:Amit and his wife, Geetanjali agreed to rob a renowned bank, PSY Banking Co. They
brought guns and bags to carry cash after the robbery. However, on the day of the robbery, while going
to PSY bank they met with an accident. Police questioned both the husband and the wife regarding guns
and bags and both of them confessed about their intentions. Whether Amit and his wife are liable for
conspiring to commit robbery of PSY bank?

(a) Yes, because both husband and wife conspired together to rob a bank and thereafter bought guns to
commit the same.
(b) No, because mere preparation of a crime does not amount to crime. Hence, when Amit and her wife
met with an accident they failed to fulfill their intention.
(c) Yes, because Amit and her wife could have robbed the bank had it not been for the accident.
(d) No, because husband and wife are regarded as one person in law and hence a man cannot conspire
with himself. Therefore, Amit and her wife did not conspire to rob the bank.

88. LegalPrinciple: Whoever does any act with such intention or knowledge, and under such circumstances
that, with caused death, he would be guilty of murder, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for them which may extended to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine and if hurt is caused
to any person by such act the offender shall be liable either to imprisonment for life or to such
punishment as is hereinbefore mentioned.
Factual Situation:Akhil had kidnapped Sourabh, son of Arnab for ransom money. He called Arnab and
asked him ransom of twenty lakhs, failure of which will force Akhil to leave Sourabh all alone in a
desert.Arnab could only arrange 16 lakhs but waited for Akhil to call him. Somehow, Akhil got to know
that Arnab could not arrange the required sum of money and therefore he left Sourabh in middle of
Sahara desert. Later on, police arrested Akhil and found Sourabh alive. Police charged Akhil with attempt
to murder. Decide whether Akhil is liable for it?

(a) Yes, because he was never said that he will return Sourabh to her father Arnab. Akhil was
predetermined to kill Sourabh.
(b) No, because Akhil did not take any action to hurt Sourabh and merely left him in the desert.
(c) Yes, because Akhil‘s intention to grab ransom amount was not entertained by Arnab. Therefore, he
was not left with any choice except to leave Sourabh.
(d) No, because, Akhil never intended to kill Sourabh and therefore is not liable.

Direction(Q.89-Q.95): The questions given below consist of two statements labelled as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

89. Assertion: All agreements are not contracts.

Reason: Only agreements enforceable by law are contracts.

90. Assertion: Parent companies of companies barred under a prevailing law from contracting can enter into
valid contracts on behalf of the company which is barred.
Reason: Although the beneficiary is indisposed, a legal representative of such person may enter into
valid contracts on his behalf.

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91. Assertion: A rash or negligent act which results in the death of a person is covered under Section 304A
of the Indian Penal Code.
Reason: Doctors who undertake an unnecessary hazard in treating a patient which results in his death
commit the offence of death by negligence.

92. Assertion: An instigation or aid in commission of an offence is also punishable under the Indian Penal
Code.
Reason: Any such aid or instigation is called ‗Abetment‘.

93. Assertion: There are some violations of legal rights which are torts without causing any physical harm to
a person.
Reason: The rule of damnum sine injuria applies under torts.

94. Assertion: No man can enforce a right which he has voluntarily waived.
Reason: If a person agrees to suffer harm he can still bring a claim against the tortfeasor.

95. Assertion: If a person deliberately hits another player during a game, the defense of consent applies.
Reason: To apply volenti non fit injuria the act must not go beyond the limit that has been consented to.

96. Who amongst the following inaugurated the e-resource centre, NyayKaushal which is a first of its kind e-
resource centre for facilitating filing of cases in India?
(a) Justice J K Maheshwari
(b) Justice RanjanGogoi
(c) Justice S A Bobde
(d) Justice D Y Chandrachud

97. Who amongst the following has inaugurated the first International Arbitration Centre at Jammu and
Kashmir?
(a) Justice Geeta Mittal
(b) Manoj Sinha
(c) Madan B Lokur
(d) R. F Nariman

98. Who amongst the following has inaugurated Jammu and Kashmir‘s first Family Court?
(a) Justice Geeta Mittal
(b) Manoj Sinha
(c) Madan B Lokur
(d) R. F Nariman

99. In a suit filed by RadicoKhaitan, the Delhi High Court has prohibited the sale of which of the following
alcohol brand for infringing the trademark of alcohol brand ‗Magic Moments‘?
(a) Vintage Moments
(b) Magical Moments
(c) Shining Moments
(d) Retro Moments

100. Which of the following High Courts observed World Mental Health Day on 10th October 2020 ?
(a) Gujrat High Court
(b) Madhya Pradesh High Court
(c) Bombay High Court
(d) Jammu and Kashmir High Court

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101. Recently, the Kerala High Court has quashed the petition challenging the appointment of Justice G
Sasidharan (former Kerala High Court judge) to which of the following posts as having ‗office of profit‘?
(a) Chairman of Kerala Human Rights Commission
(b) Chairman of Kerala Backward Classes Commission
(c) Chairman of Kerala State Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(d) None of the above

102. Parliament has recently passed a Bill to reduce Salary & Allowances Of Ministers For One Year To Meet
Pandemic Expenses. According to the bill, the salary allowance of the ministers shall be reduced by
which of the following percent?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 35%

103. Which of the following High Courts has recently approved the setting up of International Arbitration
Centre?
(a) Gujrat High Court
(b) Bombay High Court
(c) Calcutta High Court
(d) Jammu and Kashmir High Court

104. Justice Gautam Patel announced to launch book on Fundamental Rights and Free Speech, royalties of
which shall go to IDIA. He is serving as a judge in which of the following High Court?
(a) Gujrat High Court
(b) Bombay High Court
(c) Calcutta High Court
(d) Jammu and Kashmir High Court

105. The president of India has recently dismissed a petition seeking disqualification of which of the following
Rajya Sabha MP on the ground of holding ‗Office of Profit‘?
(a) Derek O Brien
(b) V. Vijayasai Reddy
(c) T. G. Venkatesh
(d) Y. S. Chowdary

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SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.106 and Q.107): Answer the following question based on the information given below.
In each question below are given two statements, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV.
You have to take everything given in the statements to be true although it may seem at variance with
commonly accepted facts. Then decide which of the conclusions follows from the statements. Mark the
right answer from (1), (2), (3), and (4).

106. Statements:
1. All balloons are spheroids.
2. All spheroids are stars.
Conclusions:
I. All stars are balloons.
II. All balloons are stars.
III. Only some balloons are stars.
IV. Some stars are spheroids.
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only III and IV follow
(c) Only II and IV follow (d) Only I and III follow

107. Statements:
1. Every child is an honest person.
2. Some adults are honest.
Conclusions:
I. Some adults are children.
II. Some adults are not honest.
III. No child is an adult.
IV. No child is an adult.
(a) Either I and II or II and III follows (b) Only II and III follow
(c) Either I and II or II and IV follows (d) Only I and II follow

Directions (Q.108 and Q.109): A king had 4 wives: Kalavati, Roopvati, Premvati and Brijvati. They all sit
facing north as per the following rules in the royal meetings:
The king always sits in the middle of the arrangement.
Roopvati always sits next to the king.
Premvati and Kalavati are jealous of each other, and hence sit at the farthest ends.

108. Who among these will always sit next to the king?
(a) Premvati (b) Kalavati (c) Brijvati (d) Cannot be determined

109. If the king decides to exchange his position with Roopvati and given that Premvati is towards the left of
the king, how far will Brijvati be from the king?
(a) Second to the left (b) First to the left (c) Second to the right (d) Either 1 to 3

Directions (Q.110 to Q.112): Five Professors, Prof. Ram, Prof. Kamal, Prof. Jayesh, Prof. Tanuja and
Prof. Sanjay teach at five different Indian Institutes of Management – Ahmadabad, Bangalore, Calcutta,
Lucknow and Kozhikode and teach five different subjects – Finance, Human Resource, Operations,
Strategy and Marketing.

I. Prof. Ram does not teach either at Bangalore or Lucknow. He is teaching Human Resource.
II. Prof. Kamal does not teach either at Kozhikode or Lucknow.
III. Prof. Tanuja teaches at Ahmadabad.
IV. Prof. Sanjay teaches Marketing.
V. Prof. Jayesh does not teach Strategy, and he resides at Calcutta.
VI. The professor, who teaches at Bangalore, teaches Finance.

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110. Who teaches at Bangalore?

(a) Prof. Ram (b) Prof.. Kamal (c) Prof. Jayesh (d) Prof. Sanjay

111. Which subject does Prof. Jayesh teach?

(a) Marketing (b) Human Resource (c) Operations (d) Strategy

112. Which combination is wrong?

(a) Prof. Ram – Kozhikode (b) Prof. Kamal – Marketing
(c) Prof. Jayesh – Calcutta (d) Prof. Tanuja – Strategy

113. 1 + 3, 6 + 3, 13 + 3, 22 + 3, ?
(a) 33 + 4 (b) 33 + 3 (c) 34 + 3 (d) 43 + 3

114. In the following set of numbers, If ‗1‘ is added to the last digit and then the order of digits is reversed,
which number will be fourth if arranged in ascending order?
567 284 696 865 738
(a) 567 (b) 284 (c) 696 (d) 865

Directions (Q.115 and Q.116): In the following questions, the symbols $, @, ©, % and * are used with
the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P @ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P * Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.
'P © Q' means ‗P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true?
(a) if only Conclusion I is true.
(b) if only Conclusion II is true.
(c) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
(d) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

115. Statements:
B @ D, D $ M, M * N
Conclusions:
I. N © D II. D $ N

116. Statements:
F $ W, W % J, J @ N
Conclusion:
I. J @ F II. N % W

117. Tarun is the father of Rohit. Rohit is the brother of Kala. Kala is the wife of Dilip. How is Dilip related to
Rohit?
(a) Brother-in-law (b) Father-in-law (c) Son (d) Uncle

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MOCK AILET #03

Directions (Q.118 and Q.119): Attempt these questions based on the information given.
P, Q, R and S are standing on four corners of a square piece of plot as shown in the given figure. They
start moving and the movement are explained in each of the questions.

118. P, Q, R and S walk diagonally to opposite corners and from there, Q and R walk one and a half sides
anti-clockwise while P and S walk one side clockwise along the sides. Where is S now?
(a) At the South-West corner (b) At the North-East corner
(c) At the North-West corner (d) None of the above

119. P, Q, R and S walk one and a half sides clockwise. Who is on the left of Q, if he is facing West?
(a) S (b) R (c) P (d) None of these

120. travelled straight to R. a distance of 10 km. He turned right and walked 7 km towards S. Again, he turned
right and walked 8 km and then finally turned right and walked 7 km. How far is he from his original
position?
(a) 2 km (b) 8 km (c) 7 km (d) 3 km

121. If each alternate letter in the word 'FLIPPER‘ starting with F is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical series and each of the remaining letters is changed to the previous letters in the English
alphabetical series, then how many letters will appear more than once in the new arrangement?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three

122. Find out the missing term in the series:

132,126, 114, 96, 72, ?
(a) 54 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 42

Directions (Q.123 - Q.126): Read the following information carefully and answer the question given
below.

Five friends Amol, Mandar, Piya, Shashi and Reena attended Sagar's birthday party, where they partook
of the sumptuous snacks and dinner. Each of the five friends gifted Sagar a different article— a fountain
pen, a cellphone, a shirt, a jacket and an I-Pod and Sagar, in -return, gifted each of them a different
article a video game, a sweater, a perfume, a calculator and a pair of sunglases. The following is
additional information about the gifts given by the friends and the gifts received from Sagar.
Amol gifted the shirt and received the video game in return. Shashi did not gift the I-Pod but received the
perfume in return. Mandar did not gift an electronic item and received the calculator in return. The person
who gifted the jacket received the sweater in return and Reena received the pair of sunglasses.

123. Who among the following gifted the jacket?

(a) Mandar (b) Shashi (c) Reena (d) None of these

124. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Two of the friends who did not gift electronic items, received electronic in return
(b) Piya gifted the jacket and Shashi gifted the I-Pod.
(c) Shashi neither gifted nor did she receive an electronic item
(d) The person who gifted the cellphone received the calculator in return

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MOCK AILET #03

125. Which of the following is the correct combination of friends, article gifted and article received in return?
(a) Piya —Foundation Pen— Sunglasses
(b) Shashi -I-Pod-Perfume
(c) Reena —I-Pod—Sunglasses
(d) None of the above

126. Which of the following statement is false?

(a) Only one vowel, received an electronic item in return
(b) The friend whose name appears last in alphabetical order, gifted an electronic item and received a
non-electronic item in return
(c) In alphabetical order, the friends who gifted the I-Pod appears before atleast two other friends
(d) The friend whose name in alphabetical order appears in the middle neither gifted nor received an
electronic item

Directions (Q.127 - Q.130): Use the information given below to answer these questions.
After months of talent searching for an administrative assistant to the President of the college, the field of
applicants has been narrowed down to five (A, B, C, D and E). It was announced that the finalist would
be chosen after a series of all day group personal interviews were held. The examining committee agreed
upon the following procedure.
(i) The interviews will be held once a week.
(ii) No more than 3 candidates will appear at any all day interview session.
(iii) Each candidate will appear at least once.
(iv) If it becomes necessary to call applicants for additional interviews, no more than one such applicant
should be asked to appear the next week.
(v) Because of the details in the written applicants, it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A
should also be present.
(vi) Because of travel difficulties it was agreed that C will appear for only one interview.

127. At the first interview, the candidates A, B and D appear.

Which of the following combinations can be called for the interview to be held next week?
(a) BCD (b) CDE (c) ABE (d) ABC

128. Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in two successive weeks?
(a) ABC : BDE (b) ABD : ABE (c) ADE : ABC (d) BDE : ACD

129. If A, B and D appear at the interview and D is called for an additional interview the following week, then
which two candidates may be asked to appear with D?
I. A II. B III. C IV. E
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) III and IV

130. Which of the following correctly states the procedure following by the search committee?
I. After the second interview, all the applicants have appeared at least once.
II. The committee sees atleast one applicant a second time.
III. If a third session is held, then it is possible for all the applicants to appear atleast twice.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II only (d) III only

131. Jebel Rum is clearly an incompetent Sales Manager. His team has met its monthly sales target only once
in the last twelve months. Every other team in the company has met its monthly sales targets in at least
six of the past twelve months.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?
(a) The Sales Chief assigns Jebel only the most difficult territories, ones in which others have failed to
meet monthly targets even once.
(b) Before he became a Sales Manager, Jebel was an insurance salesman and was highly regarded by
the residents of the neighbourhoods he covered.

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MOCK AILET #03

(c) Sales Managers of the company in which Jebel serves are provided with extensive resources,
including the use of a large computer database, to help them generate customer leads.
(d) Many of the salespersons in Jebel‘s team have left in the last six months.

132. There has been an unusual shift in the advertising world in recent times. Advertising agencies are being
paid for the value they generate rather than the number of hours they work. Hence, to maximize their
earnings, the advertising agencies should hire more creative thinkers.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(a) Creative thinkers have the stamina to work for long hours and hence end up working for large number
of hours every week.
(b) Creative thinkers have the ability to come up with advertising ideas which generate value.
(c) The cost of hiring creative thinkers is lower than that of hiring an average employee who works long
hours.
(d) A large number of working hours are not required to be spent in order to generate value.

133. Many countries don‘t use imported oil for power generation, but depend on it for transport. That will
change if the cost of converting coal directly into liquid fuels can compete with that of refining crude oil.
Nanotechnology may be the long-awaited breakthrough. It will improve the economics of the process by
$5 to $10 a barrel.
Which of the following, if true, would best support the claims above?
(a) Applications of nanotechnology for power generation are suitable only for mid-sized power plants and
can, in some cases, reduce costs by 50%.
(b) The oil industry, itself, is going to collapse with the rapid depletion of natural resources.
(c) Nanotechnology has shown remarkable improvement in renewable power generation.
(d) A small scale Brazilian refinery that converts coal to oil using nanotechnology sells oil at a rate which
is $6 per barrel lesser than competition, while maintaining its profit margins.

134. In the 2008 Families and Work report, 49 percent of men said they provided most or an equal amount of
child care. But only 31 percent of women gave their husbands that much credit. The perception gap
continued for cooking and housecleaning — more than 50 percent of men say they do most or half the
work; 70 percent of wives say they do all of it. Paradoxically, psychologists say that both parties are
correct.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the paradox outlined above?
(a) Men and women perceive the same work as differently valuable.
(b) In the survey, at least 18 percent of the men or women lied.
(c) Men and women do not perform the same tasks at home.
(d) The survey had more female respondents than male respondents.

135. Directions: In the question below a statement is given followed by two courses of action, numbered I
and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or
further action in regard to the problem, policy etc., on the basis of the information given in the statement.
Consider everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the two suggested courses of
action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement:
Black fume emitted by the vehicles and the factories is causing rapid increase in air pollution which in
turn is causing rapid temperature rise in cities.
Courses of Action:
I. The authorities should ensure that vehicles and factories do no emits harmful gases beyond a certain
limit.
II. The government should try to reduce the number of vehicles on roads by improving the public
transport system and also should not allow the factories to be built in or near the cities.
(a) if only I follows.
(b) if only II follows.
(c) if neither I nor II follows.
(d) if both I and II follow.

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MOCK AILET #03

136. Directions: In the question below, a statement is given followed by three courses of action numbered I, II
and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or
further action in regard to the problem, policy etc., on the basis of the information given in the statement.
Consider everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three suggested courses of
action logically follow(s) for pursuing
Statement: It is because of a multiparty system in our country that a coalition government is formed,
wherein the country suffers from instability.
Courses of Action:
I. There should be only a bi-party system and to this extent the constitution must be amended.
II. Whenever any party is not in the majority, the elections must be held again.
III. If there is no absolute majority for any national party, the President should dissolve the Parliament
and he should rule the country during that period.
(a) Only II and III follow
(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only I follows

137. Directions: In the following set of analogy, one word is missing. Find it out from the given options.
haste : waste :: ______ : crowd
(a) fast
(b) three
(c) group
(d) makes

138. Statement
1. Private companies‘ employees work for five working days with 9 working hours every day.
2. NTPC‘s employees work for 6 working days a week and 8 working hours a day.
Conclusions:
(a) NTPC‘s employees are better than private companies‘ employees.
(b) NTPC‘s employees work more than Private companies‘ employees.
(c) Private companies‘ employees work more than NTPC‘s employees.
(d) NTPC‘s employees are more efficient than those of private companies‘ employees.

Directions(Q.139): Complete the following paragraph with the most suitable sentence.

139. Federer‘s fifth grand slam win prompted a reporter to ask whether he was the best ever. Federer is
certainly not lacking in confidence, but he wasn‘t about to proclaim himself the best ever. ―The best player
of this generation, yes‖ he said, ―But nowhere close to ever. Just look at the records that some guys
have. I‘m a minnow.‖ ___________
(a) His win against Agassi, a genius of the previous generation, contradicts that.
(b) Sampras, the king of an earlier generation, was as humble.
(c) He is more than a minnow to his contemporaries.
(d) The difference between ‗the best of this generation‘ and ‗the best ever‘ is a matter of perception.

140. The withdrawal of the U.S. from the Human Rights Council (HRC) of the United Nations in June last year
was the right decision. Other nations too have started to advocate on the same lines.
Which of the following is a strong argument?
(a) Yes. It is made up of states not known for their human rights records; that many are in fact egregious
violators of human rights.
(b) No. The overt manner in which a human rights agenda and the evolution of human rights norms have
been facilitated is commendable and has resulted in states being more engaged.
(c) No. By ceding a role at the HRC, a state reduces its ability to influence the agenda, and if it is so
inclined, a genuine engagement in the monitoring of human rights
(d) All of the above.

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MOCK AILET #03

SECTION - E :QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

141. A bucket is filled with water such that the weight of bucket alone is 25% its weight when it is filled with
water. Now some of the water is removed from the bucket and now the weight of bucket along with
remaining water is 50% of the original total weight. What part of the water was removed from the bucket?
2
(a) 5
1
(b) 4
2
(c)
3
1
(d) 2

142. In an election there were three candidates. Candidate A got 20% of the total votes, candidate B got 40%
of the total votes while candidate C got 148 votes. 3% of the total votes were invalid. What was the
winning margin? (in terms of number of votes)
(a) 0
(b) 12
(c) 36
(d) 80

143. Vinay sells a shirt for Rs 800 and earned someprofit. The profit of that shirt is equal to the 15 timesof the
loss incurred when it is sold for Rs.360. If hewants to make a profit of 30%, then what will be theSelling
Price?
(a) Rs 387.50
(b) Rs 503.75
(c) Rs 425.70
(d) Rs 640.50

144. The ratio of efficiency of Ajay and Sneha is 6: 5.The ratio of number of days taken by Prabha to Sneha is
3: 2. Ajay takes 3 days less than Sneha, when Ajay and Sneha complete the work individually. Prabha
and Sneha started the work and left after 3 days. The number of days taken by Ajay to finish the
remaining work is?
(a) 12 days
3
(b) 9 4 days
5
(c) 10 6 days
2
(d) 11 days
5

145. In a family, a couple has a son and daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and
the age of the son is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to her husband and the brother is
seven years older than his sister. What is the age of the mother?
(a) 40 years
(b) 45 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 60 years

146. A car travels from P to Q at a constant speed. If the speed were increased by 10km/hr,it would have
taken one hour lesser to cover the distance. It would have taken further 45 minutes lesser if the speed
was further increased by 10 km/hr. What is the distance between two cities?
(a) 540 km
(b) 420 km
(c) 600 km
(d) 720 km

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MOCK AILET #03

147. The salaries earned by two friends Anil and Jeetu in different years are in A.P. If the ratio of the amount
earned by them in ‗p‘ number of years are (4p+1): (2p+17). Then find the ratio of amount earned by them
in the 7th year.
(a) (2p+1) : (4p+6)
(b) 53 : 43
(c) 4 : 7
(d) 15p : 36p

148. HariLal and Hari Prasad have equal amounts. HariLal invested all his amount at 10% p.a
compounded annually for 2 years and Hari Prasad invested 1/4th amount at 10% p.a compound interest
(annually) and rest at r% per annum at simple interest for the same 2 years period. The amount received
by both at the end of 2 year is same. What is the value of r?
(a) 14%
(b) 12.5%
(c) 10.5%
(d) 11%
(e) 8.5%

149. How many words can be formed by using 3 consonants and 2 vowels, if there are 5 consonants and 4
vowels are available to form words?
(a) 6200
(b) 7200
(c) 9200
(d) 7400
(e) 6400

150. A bar is creating a new signature drink. They are using two alcoholic ingredients in the drink: vodka and
gin. They are using two non-alcoholic ingredients in the drink: orange juice and cranberry juice. The
alcoholic ingredients contain 40% alcohol. The non-alcoholic ingredients contain no alcohol. How many
liters of non-alcoholic ingredients must be added to 6 liters of alcoholic ingredients to produce a mixture
that is 15% alcohol?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 5
(d) 10

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