GEMINI CRIMINOLOGY ONLINE REVIEW AND TRAINING CENTER, INC.

P EN E T E E A P
Dr. MANUEL V JAUDIAN, LLB. PhD
ETEEAP DIRECTOR

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following question.

1. It refers to the utilization of units or elements of the PNP for purposes of

protection of lives and properties, prevention and control of crimes, etc.
A. operational control B. use of services
C. employment D. operational supervision
2. It is filled-up and submitted by the police, and other law enforcement
agencies at the NAPOLCOM, and it is being used a as a device in the compilation
of accurate data on the occurrence of crimes in the country.
A. Crime Population and Density (CPD)
B. National Crime Reporting System (NCRS)
C. Crime Mapping and Crime Statistics (CMCS)
D. Comparative Crime Statistics (CCS)
3. Current processes are reviewed and recommendations for improvement are
made, although the police planning really should be conducted to be use wisely
as condition change.
A. tactical plan B. operational planning
C. auxiliary plan D. procedural plan
4. Normally, it is the first step in the sequence of planning process.
A. to recognize the need to plan
B. analyzing alternatives solutions
C. setting of goals and objectives
D. identifying the problems
5. This is a type of police plan according to range with a life span of three (3)
years or more, and a typical example of this plan is the strategic plan.
A. mid-term plan B. sort term plan
C. all of these D. long range plan
6. It is the science, which deals with the collection, interpretation, analysis and
presentation of quantitative crime data useful in police operational activities.
A. comparative crime statistics

B. crime mapping
C. statistical data
D. crime statistics
7. Are those serious crime that are readily reported, and that occur with
sufficient regularity and frequency as to be sued as an actual level of criminality.
A. indictable crimes B. non-index crimes
C. index-crimes D. crime volume
8. It refers to the training required to make the temporary appointment of a new
PNP member permanent.
A. career management program
B. mandated career course
C. basic recruit course
D. field training program
9. It pertains to the authority of the local chief executive to direct, superintend,
and overseeing the daily performance of police functions at the local level to
ensure the effective conduct of crime investigation, traffic control and crime
prevention activities.
A. employment and deployment
B. physical and organized movement
C. operational control and supervision
D. program coordination
10. An officer or non-officer who is permanently and totally disabled as a result
of injuries or sickness shall be entitled to one year's salary and to pension
equivalent to _________ of his last salary.
A. 80% B. 50%
C. 90% D. all of these
11. It is valid for five years unless sooner revoked by the issuing authority.
A. interim clearance B. final clearance
C. security clearance D. none of the above
12. This consists of initial briefing on security, its various aspects and its
importance, and it is made to the new personnel and employees.
A. security education B. security orientation
C. scty. indoctrination D. security reminders
13. The process of making conclusions from integrated intelligence and/or
information.
A. integration B. assessment
C. evaluation D. deduction
14. It is the graphic representation of the current enemy situation.
A. intelligence journal B. intelligence files
C. situation map D. intelligence workbook
15. Individuals who are simultaneously employed by two or more friendly
intelligence collection intelligence agencies and usually motivated by economic
gains.
A. dual agents B. double agents
C. informers D. informants
16. A form of open surveillance in which the subject’s vehicle is closely followed.
 A. tech. surveillance C. tailgaiting
C. directional finder D. protective custody
17. It is the visual inspection of an area, installation or building to determine its
suitability for operational activities.
A. surveillance B. casing
C. stake out D. mustard plaster
18. It is one of the principal activities of police intelligence operations, and
limited activities on this will usually produce a limited intelligence product.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
D. de-briefing C. counter-intelligence
19. The intelligence operatives are being asked about his personal experiences
and observations while conducting intelligence operations.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing D. counter-intelligence
20. It is an important method of gathering intelligence data, and this is an
excellent source of highly valuable material.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing D. counter-intelligence
21. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis,
integration, and interpretation of all available information which is significant to
planning.
A. intelligence B. police intelligence
C. information D. military intelligence
22. It is an evaluated material of every description including those derived from
observation, reports, rumors, imagery, and other sources from which
intelligence are derived.
A. classified matters B. classified documents
C. information D. reports and records
23. The reliability of the source is “highly reliable” and the accuracy of
information is “confirmed information,” what is the evaluation rating of the
information.
A. A-1 B. B-2
C. C-3 D. D-4
24. He is the father of organized military espionage.
A. Akbar B. Frederick the Great
C. Genghis Khan D. Alexander the Great
25. It is the observation of a person, place or thing, generally—but not
necessarily—in unobtrusive manner.
A. informant operation B. undercover operation
C. surveillance D. intelligence activities
26. It is an individual who openly or secretly obtained or who assist in obtaining
information for intelligence and counter-intelligence purposes.
A. informants B. source
C. eye witness D. intelligence asset
27. It is an inquiry into the loyalty, integrity, character, morale, and discretion of
an individual because of the sensitive position he holds, or is about to assume.
A. personnel security investigation
B. complete background investigation
C. partial background investigation
D. national and local agency checks
28. When a surveillant’s behavior causes the subject to surmise or know that he
or she is under surveillance.
A. be made
B. burn the surveillance
C. burn out
D. all of the above
29. A properly trained and cleared individual who assist the head of the
department in discharging the responsibilities of safeguarding classified
documents and materials.
A. operatives B. undercover agent
C. security officer C. confidential agents
30. It is the term given to the requirement to those persons whose official duty
requires knowledge of possession thereof.
A. compartmentation B. need-to-know
C. cleared individuals D. security officer
31. It is a physical security applied to business groups engaged in industries, like
manufacturing, assembling, research and development, processing, warehousing
and even agriculture.
A. operational security B. industrial security
C. physical security D. special types
32. It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned with the physical
measures to prevent unauthorized access.
A. operational security B. industrial security
C. physical security D. special types
33. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of the facility caused
by human action, accidental or intentional.
A. security hazards B. man-made hazard
C. natural hazard D. all of the above
34. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the national economy and
security.
A. relative criticality B. relative vulnerability
C. all of the above D. none of the above

35. One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away any of all types of
items or supplies for economic gain.
A. pilferer B. casual pilferer
 C. systematic pilferer D. intruder
36. A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of an installations to
restrict or impede access thereto.
A. natural barrier B. man-made barrier
C. perimeter barrier D. physical security
36. An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the perimeter barrier.
A. clear zone B. bodies of water
C. building wall D. wire fence
37. It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on vertical perimeter fences
facing upward and outward with a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of
barbed wire.
A. topping B. top guard
C. all of the above D. none of the above
38. It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy and deficiency in all
aspects of security, with corresponding recommendations.
A. security inspections B. security survey
C. special survey D. supplemental survey
39. It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to a
compound or installation thereof.
A. controlling B. access list
C. exclusion area D. controlled area
40. A term applied to a device or system that in the event of failure or a
component, the incapacity will be signaled.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
C. Peterman D. fail safe
41. It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its validity it is also an
operational readiness exercise.
A. dry run B. run through
C. controlling D. fire drill
42. Private Security Agencies must be registered at what government agency.
A. DTI B. PNP
C. SEC D. LGU
43. The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster or _________ the
members of the agency in case of emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
A. organize B. incorporate
C. utilize D. deputize
44. A conference or dialogue between the survey team and management
officials or plant before security survey is conducted.
A. security survey B. special survey
C. entrance conference D. exit conference
45. A type of code system so that security personnel when force by armed men
to enter an installation can give alarm by the use of certain words in casual
conversation.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
 C. Peterman D. fail safe
46. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container usually a part of
the building structure used to keep and protect cash.
A. file room B. vault
C. safe D. filing cabinets
47. It is one of the most important interrelated functions in a plant security
system, and it is as important as in a business organizations as physical security.
A. emergency planning B. run through
C. disaster preparation D. fire drill
48. He is in charge with the effective implementation of RA 5487, and has the
power to issue or revoke license issued to PSA, PDA, PSG, and PD.
A. Chief, PNP B. SAGSD
C. PADPAO, Inc. D. Security Managers
49. This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and Operation of Private
Detective, Watchman or Security Guards Agencies.
A. PD 1919 B. EO 393
C. RA 5487 D. PD 100
50. It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of PSA, PDA, CSF, and
GSU.
A. 25 years B. 30 years
C. 35 years D. 20 years