SBI Mains Mocktest Paper

Quantitative Aptitude
Mixed Models
Level- Difficult
(1 to 5) Directions : Ashok bought two cars P and Q from a car dealer by
paying a total of Rs. _(A)_ lakhs. The cost of car Q for the dealer was Rs. 4
lakhs. The overall profit percentage that the dealer earned on the two cars was
25%. The profit percentages that the dealer earned on cars P and Q were 45%
and 5% respectively. Ashok gifted car Q to his brother Ram. Ashok, Ram and
their friend Priya will work together on a project in Mumbai. Ashok drove his
car P from his house at 75 km/hr. He reached Mumbai after driving for 800 km.
Ram drove car Q from his house at _(B)_ km/hr and reached Mumbai after
driving for 860 km. The average speed of both the brothers was 66.4 km/hr. If
Priya were to work on the project alone, then she could complete it in 96 days.
They work following a pattern such that on the first day, only Ram and Ashok
work, on the second day, only Ram and Priya work and on the third day, Ram
works alone. The efficiency of Ashok is 125% more than that of his brother's. It
takes them _(C)_ days to complete the project. Meanwhile, Ashok and Ram
rent their respective cars for (C) days. Ashok charges Rs. _(D)_ per day while
Ram charges Rs. (D - 50) per day for their respective cars. The difference in the
total income received from the cars for (C) days is Rs. 3200. In the whole
month of September alone, Ashok's car generated 15% of his income while
Ram's car generated Rs. 7840. Car Q generated the rest of the income, i.e.,
65% of the total income in the rest of the days. The average income per day for
the rest of the days from car P is Rs. _(E)_.
1. What is the value of B?
a) 14.33 km/hr
b) 40 km/hr
c) 55 km/hr
d) 60 km/hr
e) 56 km/hr
Correct Choice : d
Solution :
By the rule of alligation, we get:
So, the ratio of the C.P. (for the dealer) for P and Q = 1:1
Hence, C.P. of P = C.P. of Q = Rs. 4 lakhs
Hence, A = 1.25 * 8 lakhs, i.e., A = Rs. 10 lakhs
Time taken by Ashok = 800/75 = 10(2/3) hr
Time taken by Ram = 860/B hr
Now, average speed = (800 + 860)/(10.666 + B), i.e.,
(800 + 860)/[10.666 + (860/B)] = 66.4
So, B = 60 km/hr
Let the total work be 96 units.
So, in a day, Priya can work 1 unit.
Let work done by Ram in a day be R units and that by Ashok will be 2.25R units.
From the given pattern of work, work done in 3 consecutive days = 3R + 1 +

2.25R = 5.25R + 1
Hence, C = 3*96/(5.25R + 1) days
Difference in total income = CD - C(D - 50), i.e., 50C = 3200
So, C = 64 days
Hence, work done by Ram in a day, i.e., R = 2/3 units and that by Ashok = 1.5
units.
Now, income generated by car P in 64 days = 64D and September has 30 days
exactly.
So, in 30 days, it generated 15% of 64D and in 34 days it generated 85% of 64D
Now, 35% of 64(D - 50) = 7840, i.e., D = Rs. 400
Hence, in 34 days, average income = 0.85 * 64 * 400/34 = Rs. 640
Hence, E = Rs. 640
B = 60 km/hr
(1-5) Directions: Ashok bought two cars P and Q from a car dealer by paying a
total of Rs. _(A)_ lakhs. The cost of car Q for the dealer was Rs. 4 lakhs. The
overall profit percentage that the dealer earned on the two cars was 25%. The
profit percentages that the dealer earned on cars P and Q were 45% and 5%
respectively. Ashok gifted car Q to his brother Ram. Ashok, Ram and their
friend Priya will work together on a project in Mumbai. Ashok drove his car P
from his house at 75 km/hr. He reached Mumbai after driving for 800 km. Ram
drove car Q from his house at _(B)_ km/hr and reached Mumbai after driving
for 860 km. The average speed of both the brothers was 66.4 km/hr. If Priya
were to work on the project alone, then she could complete it in 96 days. They
work following a pattern such that on the first day, only Ram and Ashok work,
on the second day, only Ram and Priya work and on the third day, Ram works
alone. The efficiency of Ashok is 125% more than that of his brother's. It takes
them _(C)_ days to complete the project. Meanwhile, Ashok and Ram rent
their respective cars for (C) days. Ashok charges Rs. _(D)_ per day while Ram
charges Rs. (D - 50) per day for their respective cars. The difference in the total
income received from the cars for (C) days is Rs. 3200. In the whole month of
September alone, Ashok's car generated 15% of his income while Ram's car
generated Rs. 7840. Car Q generated the rest of the income, i.e., 65% of the
total income in the rest of the days. The average income per day for the rest of
the days from car P is Rs. _(E)_.
2. What is the value of E?
a) Rs. 640
b) Rs. 450
c) Rs. 725
d) Rs. 700
e) Rs. 540
Correct Choice : a
Solution :

(800 + 860)/[10.666 + (860/B)] = 66.4
So, B = 60 km/hr

2.25R = 5.25R + 1
Hence, C = 3*96/(5.25R + 1) days
So, C = 64 days
units.
exactly.
Now, 35% of 64(D - 50) = 7840, i.e., D = Rs. 400
Hence, E = Rs. 640
E = Rs. 640
3. If Ram worked in the project alone, then how many days would he have
required to complete the project?
a) 95 days
b) 100 days
c) 144 days
d) 85 days
e) 124 days
Correct Choice : c
Solution :
(800 + 860)/[10.666 + (860/B)] = 66.4
So, B = 60 km/hr

2.25R = 5.25R + 1
Hence, C = 3*96/(5.25R + 1) days
So, C = 64 days
units.
exactly.
Now, 35% of 64(D - 50) = 7840, i.e., D = Rs. 400
Hence, E = Rs. 640
Number of days required by Ram = 96/0.666 = 144 days
4.What is the value of '15A + 3B - 2D'
a) - 470
b) 250
c) None of the given
d) - 250
e) 520
Correct Choice : a
Solution :
(800 + 860)/[10.666 + (860/B)] = 66.4
So, B = 60 km/hr


2.25R = 5.25R + 1
Hence, C = 3*96/(5.25R + 1) days
So, C = 64 days
units.
exactly.
Now, 35% of 64(D - 50) = 7840, i.e., D = Rs. 400
Hence, E = Rs. 640
15A + 3B - 2D = 15 * 10 + 3 * 60 - 2 * 400 = - 470
5. What was the difference in the amounts paid by Ashok while purchasing cars P
and Q?
a) Rs. 1.2 lakhs

b) Rs. 1.6 lakhs
c) Rs. 0
d) Rs. 2 lakhs
e) Rs. 2.4 lakhs
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
(800 + 860)/[10.666 + (860/B)] = 66.4
So, B = 60 km/hr

2.25R = 5.25R + 1
Hence, C = 3*96/(5.25R + 1) days
So, C = 64 days
units.
exactly.
Now, 35% of 64(D - 50) = 7840, i.e., D = Rs. 400
Hence, E = Rs. 640
For Ashok, C.P. of (P - Q) = (1.45 - 1.05) * 4 = Rs. 1.6 lakhs
(6-9) In the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
On solving them we get two quantities, quantity I and quantity II respectively.
Solve for both the quantities and choose the correct option.
Simple Interest and Compound Interest

Level-Moderate
Quantity I: The difference between the Compound interest and simple interest
earned on equal sums of money over 2 years is Rs 480, what is the Principal if
the rate of interest is 20%
Quantity II: The difference between the Compound interest and simple
interest earned on equal sums of money over 3 years is Rs 3250, what is the
Principal if the rate of interest is 25%
a) Quantity I > Quantity II

b) Quantity I < Quantity II
c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or a relation can't be established.
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
Let the Principal be Rs 'P'
Quantity I:
Given, P(r/100)2 = 480
=> P(20/100)2 = 480
=> P = 480*25 = 12,000
Quantity II:
Given, P(r/100)2((300 + r)/100) = 3250
=> P(25/100)2*(325/100) = 3250
=> P = 3250*16*100/325 = 16,000
(6-9) In following questions, two quantities numbered I and II are given.

Calculate values of both quantities and choose the correct option.
Percentages
Level-Moderate
Quantity I: Out of 300 students in a graduation college, the ratio of fit to that
of non-fit is 8: 7. 25% among fit are occasional exercise doers and rest are daily
exercise doers. 60% of the total number of student’s doe’s gym and 20% of the
total number of occasional exercise doers do gym. If 50% of the total number
of non - fit do gym, then what is the number of students who are daily exercise
doers as well as do gym?
Quantity II: 100

c) Quantity I ≥ uantity II
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relationship can't be established
Correct Choice : a
Solution :
Quantity I: the number of fit = 300*8/15 = 160
The number of non - fit = 300 - 160 = 140
The number of occasional exercise doers = 25% of 160 = 40
The number of daily exercise doers = 160 - 40 = 120
The total number of students who do gym = 60% of 300 = 180
The number of occasional exercise doer who do gym = 20% of 40 = 8
The total number of non - fit who do gym = 50% of 140 = 70
The number of students who are daily exercise doer as well as do gym = 180
- 70 - 8 = 102
Quantity II: 100
Therefore, Q1 > Q2
(6-9) In the following questions, find the value of two quantities given in
the question and find the relation between them.
Time and Work
Level: Easy
Quantity I: 8 men and 10 women can complete a piece of work in 5 days. 6
men and 15 women can complete the work in 4 days. Find the number of
days taken by 10 men and 15 women to complete the piece of work.
Quantity II: 20 workers started a work and completed 1/3rd of the work in 5
days. If 5 more workers joined them on the sixth day, in how many more
days they will complete the remaining part of the work?

e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation can be established.
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
Quantity I:
(8m + 10w) x 5 = (6m + 15w) x 4
=> 40m + 50w = 24m + 60w
=> 40m - 24m = 60w - 50w
=> 16m = 10w
=> 8m = 5w ----------------- (i)
Let required number of days = n
(8m + 10w) x 5 = (10m + 15w) x t

=> (8m + 16m) x 5 = (10m + 24m) x t [From equation (i)]
=> 24m x 5 = 34m x t
=> t = 24 x 5/34
=> t = 60/17 days
Quantity II:
Let, required number of days = t
We know that
(M1 x D1)/W1 = (M2 x D2)/W2
=> (20 x 5)/1/3 = (25 x t)/2/3
=> 100 = 25t/2
=> t = 200/25
=> t = 8 days
Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II
(6-9) In the following questions, find the value of two quantities given in the
question and find the relation between them.
Speed of boat A in still water is 10% more than the speed of boat B in still
water. Boat A can go 144 Km downstream in 9 hours and boat B can go 75 Km
upstream in 15 hours in the same river.
Boats And Streams
Level: Easy
Quantity I: Find the upstream distance travelled by boat A in 12 hours.

Quantity II: Find the downstream distance travelled by boat B in 6 hours.

e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation can be established.
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
Let, speed of boat B in still water = k Km/h
=> Speed of boat A in still water = k x 110/100 = 11k/10 Km/h
And speed of the stream = y Km/h
144/(11k/10 + y) = 9
=> 144 = 99k/10 + 9y
=> 1440 = 99k + 90y
=> 99k + 90y = 1440 --------- (i)
75/(k - y) = 15
=> 5 = k - y
=> k - y = 5 ----------- (ii)
Equation (i) - 99 x Equation (ii)
99k + 90y - 99k + 99y = 1440 - 495
=> 189y = 945
=> y = 945/189
=> y = 5
From (ii)
k-5=5
=> k = 10
Speed of boat B in still water = 10 Km/h
Speed of boat A in still water = 10 x 110/100 = 11 Km/h
Speed of the stream = 5 Km/h
Quantity I:
Upstream distance travelled by boat A in 12 hours = (11 - 5) x 12
= 6 x 12
= 72 Km
Quantity II:
Downstream distance travelled by boat B in 6 hours = (10 + 5) x 6
= 15 x 6
= 90 Km
Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II
10. In each of the following questions, a question is followed by two

statements. Read all the statements and choose correct statements to answer
the related questions.
Time and Distance
Level- Easy
What is the total time taken by Rita to cover the whole distance by car?
I. Rita covers one-third distance by car, half of remaining by bicycle and

remaining by her foot. She covers distance by foot with speed 7 km/hr in 2
hours. Speed of car is 40 km/hr.
II. Rita covered half distance by bus and the remaining half by car. The total
distance covered by Rita is 90 km and speed of car and bus are in the ratio 7: 9.
a) Only II
b) Only I
c) Both I and II
d) Either I and II
e) Neither I nor II
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
I. Let d is the total distance.
According to the question, distance covered by foot = (1 - (1/3) - (1/2)(2/3))d
= d/3
Given that, d/3 = 7 x 2
d = 42 km
Time taken by Rita to cover whole distance by car = 42/40 = 1 hour 3

minutes
II. Let d is the total distance.
d = 90 km
Distance covered by bus = distance covered by car = d/2 = 45 km
Ratio of speed of car and bus = 7: 9.

Time cannot be determined by this following information.
Hence, statement I alone is sufficient to solve the question, but statement II

is not.
Simple Interest and Compound Interest
Level- Moderate
11. Preety lent a certain sum of money at the rate of 20% per annum
compounded annually. If total amount received by her at the end of third year
is Rs. 25920, then what will be the simple interest received by her at the end of
fourth year on the same rate of interest and same principal?
a) Rs. 15000
b) Rs. 12000
c) Rs. 16000
d) Rs. 14000
e) Rs. 9000
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
Let Rs. P be the principal.
So, Amount = P(1 + r/100)time
=> 25920 = P * (12/10)3
=> P = 25920 * 1000/1728
=> P = 15000
Thus, SI = (15000 * 4 * 20)/100 = Rs. 12000
Time and Work

Level- Difficult
12. The efficiency of A is 50% more than that of B and the difference between
number of days taken by them to complete a work is 12 days. If C is 200%
more efficient than B, then in how many days, A, B, and C together can
complete the same piece of work?
a) 6 (6/11) days
b) 5 (2/11) days
c) 6 (2/3) days
d) 5 (1/3) days
e) None of the above
Correct Choice : a
Solution :
Let the efficiency of B be b units per day, then the efficiency of A = 150% of b
= 1.5b units per day
The efficiency of C = 300% of 1.5b = 3b units per day
The ratio of the efficiency of A, B, and C = 1.5b: b: 3b = 3: 2: 6
We know that, number of days taken is inversely proportional to efficiency
The ratio of number of days taken by them = 1/3: ½: 1/6 = 2: 3: 1
Let number of days taken by A be 2p, then the number of days taken by B =
3p and that by C = p days
According to question, 3p - 2p = p = 12 days
Thus, the number of days taken by A, B, and C together = 1/p + 1/2p + 1/3p
= 1/12 + 1/24 + 1/36 = (6 + 3 + 2)/72 = 11/72
Thus, required answer = 72/11 = 6 (6/11) days
Partnership
Level- Moderate
13. Raman started a business with Rs. 10000 and after a few months he was
joined by his friend Aman. The profit at the end of the year was divided
between Raman and Aman in the ratio 4 : 3, and profit received by Raman is
30% of his investment. For how many months did Aman invest his money if
he had invested five times of what he got from the profit at the end of year?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
e) None of these
Correct Choice : c
Explanation:
Profit distribution between Raman and Aman is 4 : 3, and Raman got 30% of
10000 = 3000,
3
thus Aman got × 3000 = Rs. 2250.
4
So Aman invested 5 × 2250 = Rs. 11250.
Let Aman invested Rs. 11250 for ‘y’ months. Then
12 × 10000: 11250y = 4: 3
y = 8.
Thus, Aman invested for 8 months.
Hence, option C is correct.

Profit and Loss
Level- Moderate
14. An article was marked above 30% its cost price. Two successive discounts
were offered during its sale in the market so that a profit of Rs. 53 was made.
What was the cost price if both the successive discounts were equal to 10%?
a) 1000
b) 1200
c) 1500
d) 1800
e) None of these
Correct Choice : a
Explanation:
Let the cost price be Rs. C.
Then the marked price would be (1 + 30) C = 1.3C
The successive discounts were 10%, so selling price would be 90%of 90% of
1.3C = 81% of 1.3C = 1.053C.
Profit = 53 = 1.053C – C = 0.053C
Thus, C = 1000.
Hence, option A is correct.
Areas and Volumes

Level: Easy
15. Perimeter of a right-angled triangle is 60 cm. If one side of it is 10 cm and
the area is 120 cm2 then what could be the length of hypotenuse of the
triangle?
a) 24
b) 26
c) 28
d) 30
e) None of these
Correct Choice : b
Explanation:
Let the three sides be h = hypotenuse, b = base and y = height.
We need to check all the possible cases for what could be the length of
hypotenuse.
It is well known that in a right angled triangle, hypotenuse is always greater

than base and height.
Thus, we have h > b and y.
Now if one side is 10cm, it could be anything h, y, or b.
But if we assume h =10cm, then y and b individually cannot be equal to or

greater than 10cm. Means,
if h = 10 cm, then y < 10 cm and b < 10 cm, and in this way y+b < 20 cm. And
we have then h + y + b < 30cm. But perimeter is 60 cm, so the hypotenuse
cannot be 10cm.
Now we have two more choices left, but since there is no distinction the
question makes about the relative length of base and height, we can assume
10 cm to be either base or height.
so, let us assume that b = 10 cm.
Then,
h + 10 + y = 60
h + y = 50
1
Area = 120 = × 10 × y
2
y = 24 cm
h = 50 –24 = 26 cm.
So, if we assume base = 10 cm, the hypotenuse is 26 cm.
Let us verify it if it true according to the Pythagoras Theorem.
We should have b2 + y2 = h2
10 × 10 + 24 × 24 = 26 × 26
100 + 576 = 676
Right hand side = Left hand side.
Hence, option B is correct.
Data Interpretation on Simple Interest and Compound Interest

Level: Difficult
(16 to 21) Directions: Study the following table chart carefully and answer
the questions given beside.
Table chart below gives names of 5 banks and their simple interest rate policy.
If the deposits are under the limits, the given interest rates will be applied. If
deposits are beyond that, additional facility will be given.
Additional
Amount Interest facility if
Bank limits Rates deposits are
(in Rs.) (%) above given
limits
Interest free
State
10 lakh 4 home loan up
Bank
to Rs 10 lakh
The SI will
become CI
Axis Bank 12 lakh 10
compounded
annually
12% interest
Yes Bank 10 lakh 10
rate
20% interest on
UCO Bank 15 lakh 6
SI incurred
The SI will
become CI
ICICI Bank 12 lakh 8
compounded
half yearly
Note: If additional facility is applied by any bank then it will be on total amount
deposited not just what is above the limit. Means, if someone deposited 12
lakh in State Bank, then the additional facility will be applicable to Rs. 12 lakh
and not just 12 – 10 = 2 lakh.
16. Ramesh won a lottery and deposited all the amount in Axis bank. After 3
years he received an additional Rs. 496500. What amount he had deposited?
a) 9 lakh
b) 12 lakh
c) 15 lakh
d) 18 lakh
e) None of these
Two cases are possible, if the deposits was less than or equal to 12 lakh, then
the maximum interest he could have made was
3
12 lakh × 10 × = 3.6 lakh
100
Which is less than the interest he received, so he deposited more than 12 lakh
In that case, according to Axis bank policy, he got Compound interest.
Now, let he deposited P amount. Then
10 3
P [1 + ] – P = 496500
100
P [1.1 × 1.1 × 1.1 – 1] = 496500
P [1.331 – 1] = 496500
496500
P= = 15 lakh
0.331
(16 to 21) Directions: Study the following table chart carefully and answer the
questions given beside.
Additional
limits
Interest free
State Bank 10 lakh 4 home loan up to
Rs 10 lakh
The SI will
Axis Bank 12 lakh 10 become CI
compounded
annually
12% interest
Yes Bank 10 lakh 10
rate
20% interest on
UCO Bank 15 lakh 6
SI incurred
The SI will
become CI
compounded
half yearly
17. A person had Rs. 40 lakh. He deposited Rs. 20 lakh in Axis Bank and other
Rs. 20 lakh in UCO Bank, both for 2 years. The interest amount he got from Axis
Bank is what percentage (to the nearest integer) more/less than the interest
amount he got from UCO Bank?
a) 46% more
b) 46% less
c) 42% more
d) 42% less
e) None of these
Correct Choice : a
Explanation:
Since the amount deposited in the Axis Bank is more than 12 lakh, he will get CI
scheme. Interest amount he gets from Axis Bank would be
10 2
20 [1 + ] – 20 = 20 [1.1]2 – 20
100
= 20 [1.21 – 1] = 20 × 0.21 = 4.2 lakh
Since amount deposited in UCO Bank is more than 15 lakh, he will get 20%
additional interest on the interest he got on deposits.
20 × 6 × 2 12
So, interest on deposits = = lakh
100 5
12 12
Interest on the interest he got = 20% of +
5 5
12 20 12
= [1 + ] = 1.2 × = 2.88 lakh
5 100 5
Difference in interest from two banks = 4.20 – 2.88 = 1.32 lakh
Thus amount he got from Axis Bank is more than UCO Bank.
In percentage with respect to UCO Bank, we get
1.32
× 100 = 45.83% ≌ 46% more than UCO Bank.
2.88
Hence, option A is correct.
(16-21) Directions: Study the following table chart carefully and answer the
Additional
limits
Interest free
State
Bank
to Rs 10 lakh
The SI will
become CI
compounded
annually
12% interest
Yes Bank 10 lakh 10
rate
20% interest on
UCO Bank 15 lakh 6
SI incurred
The SI will
become CI
compounded
half yearly
18. Reshma wants a home loan of Rs. 8 lakh. She goes to State bank and after
knowing the policy arranges Rs. 12 lakh from her friends and deposits in the
State Bank and get an interest free loan of Rs. 8 lakh. After 4 years, she wants
to withdraw all her money so she asks the bank to deduct the loan she had
taken and give her the rest amount. What amount she got?
a) 3.96 lakhs
b) 5.96 lakhs
c) 5.92 lakhs
d) 4.92 lakhs
e) None of these
Correct Choice: c
Explanation:
She had deposited Rs. 12 lakh. So, in 4 years it will make an interest of
12 lakh × 4 × 4 = 48 lakh
The total amount in her account after 4 years would be Rs. 12 lakh + 48/25
lakh.
After deducting the loan she had taken, she will get
48 48
Rs. 12 lakh + – 8 lakh = 4 lakh + lakh = 5.92 lakh
25 25
Hence, optioon C is correct.
Additional
limits
Interest free
State
Bank
to Rs 10 lakh
The SI will
become CI
compounded
annually
12% interest
Yes Bank 10 lakh 10
rate
20% interest on
UCO Bank 15 lakh 6
SI incurred
The SI will
become CI
compounded
half yearly
19. A person wants to deposit Rs. 15 lakh in either Axis Bank or ICICI Bank.
Which Bank would give him more interest if he deposits his amount for 2
years?
a) Information is insufficient to predict
b) Both Banks would be equally good
c) ICICI Bank
d) Axis Bank
e) None of these
Correct choice: d
Explanation:
For Rs. 15 lakh, both the banks will offer CI. Let’s calculate first for Axis Bank.
10 2
15 [1 + ] = 15 × 1.21 = 18.15 lakh
100
From ICICI Bank, he will get
(8/2) 2×2
15 [1 + ] = 15 [1 + 0.04]4
100
= 15 [1.04]4 = 17.55 lakh
Thus, we see the Axis Bank policy is better than the ICICI Bank Policy.
Hence, option D is correct.
(16-21)Directions: Study the following table chart carefully and answer the
Additional
limits
Interest free
State
Bank
to Rs 10 lakh
The SI will
become CI
compounded
annually
12% interest
Yes Bank 10 lakh 10
rate
20% interest on
UCO Bank 15 lakh 6
SI incurred
The SI will
become CI
compounded
half yearly
20. A person has Rs. 24 lakh. He invested Rs. 11 lakh in Yes Bank and rest
amount in Axis Bank, both for 2 years. He realised that he could have got more
interest if he had invested all his money in Yes Bank. How much less interest he
earned in this investment?
a) Rs. 39000
b) Rs. 41000
c) Rs. 29000
d) Rs. 31000
e) None of these
Correct Choice: a
Explanation:
If he invested all his money in Yes Bank. Then, interest will be
2
24 lakh × 12 × = 5.76 lakh
100
Now, in the way he had deposited, we have Rs. 11 lakh in the Yes Bank. Thus
2
11 lakh × 12 × = 2.64 lakh
100
Rest Rs. 13 lakh in Axis Bank, thus
10 2
13[ 1 + ] – 13 = 13 × 1.21 – 13 = 2.73 lakh
100
Total amount from this scheme = 2.64 + 2.73 = 5.37 lakh
Thus, if he had deposited all his money in the Yes bank, he would have got 5.76
– 5.37 = 0.39 lakh = Rs. 39000 more.
Hence, option A is coorrect.
Bank Amount Interest Additional

limits Rates facility if
(in Rs.) (%) deposits are
above given
limits
Interest free
State
Bank
to Rs 10 lakh
The SI will
become CI
compounded
annually
12% interest
Yes Bank 10 lakh 10
rate
20% interest on
UCO Bank 15 lakh 6
SI incurred
The SI will
become CI
compounded
half yearly
21. The UCO Bank continued the current scheme and launched one more in
which if a person deposits more than Rs. 8 lakh, he will get a simple interest
rate of 5% for initial 2 years and 10% thereof for unlimited time. For an
amount of Rs. 20 lakh, the new scheme will fetch how much more interest in
5 years?
a) Rs.20000
b) Rs.60000
c) Rs.80000
d) Rs.40000
e) None of these
Correct Choice: c
Explanation:
Consider the old scheme.
6
SI = 20 lakh × 5 × = 6 lakh
100
This scheme also gives 20% on interest incurred. Thus, (20% of 6 + 6) = 1.2 × 6
= 7.2 lakh
In the new scheme, one gets 5% rate for first 2 years, thus
2
SI = 20 lakh × 5 × = 2 lakh
100
For next 3 years, rate is 10 %, thus
3
SI = 20 lakh × 10 × = 6 lakh
100
Total SI = 6 + 2 = Rs. 8 lakh
Therefore, the new scheme will fetch Rs. 80000 more interest.
Data Interpretation
Level - Difficult
(22 to 26) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given
below.
Force applied on any object is defined as F = ma; where ‘F’ is the amount of
force applied (in Newton) on the object, ‘m’ is the mass (in kg) of the object
and ‘a’ is the acceleration (in m/s2) by which the body starts moving when the
force is applied on it. The graph given below shows the mass of five different
objects and the acceleration by which the body starts moving when the
particular amount of force is applied on it.
22. What is the ratio of amount of force applied on object A to amount of force
applied on object E?
a 3:14
b 3:13
c 3:16
d 11:3
e None of these
Correct Choice: c
Solution
Mass (in kg) of the Acceleration (in Force (in Newton)

Objects object m/s2) applied
A 72 19 1368
B 96 36 3456
C 118 8 944
D 136 28 3808
E 152 48 7296
Desired ratio = 1368:7296 = 3:16

Hence, option c.
below.
23. Mass of object D is approximately how much percent more/less than mass
of object B?
a 41.67%
b 38.33%
c 46.67%
d 49.67%
e None of these
Correct Choice: a
Solution

A 72 19 1368
B 96 36 3456
C 118 8 944
D 136 28 3808
E 152 48 7296
Desired Percentage = [(136 – 96)/96] × 100 = 41.67%

Hence, option a.
below.
24. What is the average amount of force (in Newton) applied on object B and C
together?
a 2250
b 2200
c 2400
d 2050
e None of these
Correct Choice: b
Solution

A 72 19 1368
B 96 36 3456
C 118 8 944
D 136 28 3808
E 152 48 7296
Desired ratio = (3456 + 944)/2 = 2200 Newton

Hence, option b.
below.
25. Amount of force (in Newton) applied on object E is how much more than
amount of force (in Newton) applied on object D?
a 3288
b 3388
c 3688
d 3488
e None of these
Correct Choice : d
Solution

A 72 19 1368
B 96 36 3456
C 118 8 944
D 136 28 3808
E 152 48 7296
Desired difference = 7296 – 3808 = 3488 Newton

Hence, option d.
Directions: Q (22 to 26) Answer the questions based on the information given
below.
26. What is the amount of force (in Newton) applied on object A?
a 1368
b 348
c 1428
d 1448
e None of these
Correct Choice :a
Solution

A 72 19 1368
B 96 36 3456
C 118 8 944
D 136 28 3808
E 152 48 7296
Force applied on object A = 1368 Newton
Wrong Number Series

Level - Moderate
27. The following numbers form a series. Find the odd one out.
72, 85, 124, 191, 280, 397
a 72
b 124
c 191
d 280
e 397
Correct Choice: cm
Solution
72 + 13 × 1 = 85
85 + 13 × 3 = 124
124 + 13 × 5 = 189
189 + 13 × 7 = 280
280 + 13 × 9 = 397
So, 189 should come in place of 191.
Hence, option c.
Level- Moderate
2744, 392, 784, 102, 224, 32
a -2744
b -392
c -784
d -102
e -32
Correct Choice: d
Solution
2744/7 = 392
392 × 2 = 784
784/7 = 112
112 × 2 = 224
224/7 = 32
Hence, option d.
Level- Moderate
132, 154, 122, 164, 108, 180
a 154
b 132
c 122
d 164
e 180
Correct Choice : a
Solution
132 + 4 × 5 = 152
152 – 5 × 6 = 122
122 + 6 × 7 = 164
164 – 7 × 8 = 108
108 + 8 × 9 = 180
Hence, option a.
Level- Easy
182, 306, 380, 552, 870, 994
A 994
B 870
C 182
D 552
E 306
(22 to 26) : a
Solution
132 + 13 = 182
172 + 17 = 306
192 + 19 = 380
232 + 23 = 552
292 + 29 = 870
312 + 31 = 992
Hence, option a.
Ratios
Level -Moderate
31. The question consists of two statements numbered “I and II” given below
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question.
A company manufactures two types (A and B) of articles. Find the ratio of
number of article A to number of article B sold by the company.
Statement I: The number of type A articles sold by the company is 20% less
than number of type B articles manufactured by the company. The ratio of
type A article manufactured to number of type B articles sold is 27:16 and the
number of type B articles sold is 3200.
Statement II: Number of type A article manufactured by the company is 35%
more than number of type A articles sold and the number of type B article
manufactured is 1080 less than number of type A article manufactured and
total number of type A articles sold by company is 4000. Number of type B
articles manufactured is 35% more than the number of type B article sold.
A -The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B -The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C -The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
D -The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to
E -The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Statement I:
Number of type A article manufactured = 27/16 × 3200 = 5400
Since, we don’t know the number of type B articles manufactured by company.
So, data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II:
Number of type A articles manufactured = 1.35 × 4000 = 5400
Number of type B article manufactured = 5400 – 1080 = 4320
Number of type B article sold = 4320/1.35 = 3200
Desired ratio = 4000:3200 = 5:4
So, data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option b.
Problems on Trains
Level: Moderate
32. The question consists of two statements numbered “I and II” given below
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
Two trains A and B running in opposite direction from Bihar and Delhi
respectively cross each other in 7 hours 30 minutes. If both trains started at
the same time then find the distance between Bihar and Delhi.
Statement I: Ratio of length of train A and train B is 25:29 respectively and
relative speed of both trains is 144 km/h.
Statement II: The relative speed of train A with respect to train B is 144 km/h
and the length of train B which is 464 metres, is 16% more than length of train
A.
A -The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B -The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C -The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to

D -The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to
E -The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
Correct Choice: b
Solution
Statement I:
Relative speed of trains A and B = 144 km/h
Total distance travelled by train A and B after crossing each other = 144 × 7.5 =
1080 km
We cannot find the length of train A and B.
Statement II:
Length of train A = 464/1.16 = 400 metres
Length of train A + length of train B = 400 + 464 = 864 metres
Distance travelled by both trains together = 7.5 × 144 = 1080 km
Distance between Bihar and Delhi = 1080 – 0.864 = 1079.136 km
So, data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option b.
Time and Work
Level - Difficult
33. The question consists of three statements numbered “I, II and III” given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
A, B and C are hired to complete a work. A alone can complete the whole work
in 60 days. Find the time taken by B alone to complete the whole work.
Statement I: A and C together can complete the whole work in 36 days.
Statement II: If all of them worked together and total wages received by them
is Rs. 1125, out of which B receives Rs. 500.
Statement III: A, B and C can complete the whole work in 20 days.
A -The data is statement I and in statement II together is sufficient to answer
the question while the data in statement III alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
B -The data in statement I and statement III together is sufficient to answer the
question while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
C -The data in statement I, statement II and statement III together is necessary

to answer the question.
D -The data in statement II and statement III is sufficient to answer the

question while data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
E -The data in any two statements combining together is sufficient to answer
the question.
Correct Choice: e
Solution
Statement I:
Let total amount of work = 180 units
Amount of work completed by A and C together in one day = 180/36 = 5 units
Amount of work completed by A in one day = 180/60 = 3 units
Efficiency of C = 5 – 3 = 2 units per day
So, we cannot find the efficiency of B.
Statement II:
Efficiency of B/Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 500/1125 = 4/9
So, data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement III:
Amount of work completed by A, B and C together in one day = 180/20 = 9
units
Efficiency of B and C = 9 – 3 = 6 units per day
So, we cannot find the efficiency of B.
So, data in statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Combining statement I and II:
Efficiency of A = 3 units per day
Efficiency of C = 2 units per day
Efficiency of B = 4 units per day
Time taken by B alone to complete the whole work = 180/4 = 45 days
So, data in statement I and II together is sufficient to answer the question
Combining statement I and III:
Time taken by A to complete the whole work = 60 days
Time taken by A and C to complete the whole work = 36 days
Time taken by A, B and C to complete the whole work = 20 days
Time taken by B to complete the whole work = 1/(1/20 – 1/36) = (36 × 20)/(36
– 20) = 720/16 = 45 days
So, data in statement I and III together is sufficient to answer the question.
Combining statement II and III:
Time taken by A to complete the whole work = 60 days
Time taken by A, B and C to complete the whole work = 20 days
Amount of work completed by A, B and C together in one day = 180/20 = 9
units
Let, efficiency of B and A, B, and C together be ‘4x’ units per day and ‘9x’ units
per day respectively.
So, 9x = 9
x=1
So, efficiency of B = 4 units per day
Time taken by B to complete the whole work = 180/4 = 45 days

Hence, option e.
Probability
Level -Moderate
34. A box contains 5 white balls and 7 blue balls. Three balls are to be drawn
without replacement. What is the probability that the second ball drawn will
be of different colour than other two balls?
A 18/145
B 15/143
C 20/127
D -35/132
E 44/101
Correct Choice: d
Solution
Let the first ball drawn be of white colour
Required probability = (5/12) × (7/11) × (2/5)
Let the first ball drawn be of blue colour
Required probability = (7/12) × (5/11) + (3/5)
Therefore, probability that the second ball drawn will be of different colour
than other two balls
= {(5/12) × (7/11) × (2/5)} + {(7/12) × (5/11) + (3/5)} = 35/132
Hence, option d.
Data Interpretation on Line Graph

Level: Moderate
( 35 – 40) The line graph shows percentage distribution of total cars
manufactured in each category (Petrol, Diesel and CNG) by four different
companies namely Honda,Hyundai, Maruti and Tata. Read the data carefully
and answer the following Questions.
35.If total Petrol cars manufactured by all companies together is 20% more
than total CNG cars manufactured by all companies together, then find the
ratio of CNG cars manufactured by Honda and Hyundai together to Petrol cars
manufactured by Tata and Maruti together?
a 130: 159
b 120: 157
c 125: 149
d 193: 156
e 125: 157
Correct Choice : a
Solution:
Q (35 – 40) The line graph shows percentage distribution of total cars
Level: Easy
36. If total diesel cars manufactured by all companies together are 8500, then
find total diesel cars manufactured by Maruti and Tata together?
a 4250
b 4650
c 4760
d 4330
e 4210
Correct Choice : c
Solution: Total diesel cars manufactured by Maruti and Tata
together
Level- Easy
37.If sum of petrol and diesel cars manufactured by Hyundai are 9000 and sum
of petrol and diesel cars manufactured by Tata are 5250, then find total Diesel
cars manufactured by all companies together?
a 20000
b 15000
c 16000
d 19000
e None of these
Correct Choice : b
Solution: Let total petrol and total diesel cars manufactured by all companies
together are P and D respectively
Level: Moderate
38. If Hyundai manufactured 16800 diesel cars, and Petrol cars manufactured
by Tata are of total diesel cars manufactured by all the companies
together, find total petrol cars manufactured by Tata?
a 20000
b 25000
c 30000
d 28000
e 29000
Correct Choice : c
Solution:
Level: Moderate
39. If CNG cars and petrol cars manufactured by Honda are equal, then petrol
cars manufactured by Tata are what percent of CNG cars manufactured by
Maruti ?
a.
b.
c.
d
e
Correct Choice : b
Solution: Let total CNG cars and total petrol cars manufactured by all
companies together are ‘C’ and ‘P’ respectively.
Level: Easy
40. Q (35 – 40) The line graph shows percentage distribution of total cars
If total Diesel cars manufactured by Maruti and Hyundai together are 8970,
then find the difference between CNG cars manufactured by Maruti and
Hyundai?
a 1340
b 1440
c Can’t be determined
d 1960
e 1160
Correct Choice : c
Solution: Let total number of diesel cars manufactured by all companies

together be y.
As no relation between diesel and CNG cars is given.
Hence the answer can’t be determined.
Approximations
Level: Moderate
41. What approximate value will come in the place of question mark (?) in
the following questions? You are not expected to calculate the exact value.
a 12
b2
c 30
d 38
e 42
Correct Choice : b
Solution:
Level: Easy
the following questions. You are not expected to calculate the exact value.
18.2% of 5399.98 + 29.98% of 7200 – 45.2% of 5999 =? – 50% of 5200
a 2708
b 2542
c 2803
d 2903
e 3032
Correct Choice : e
Solution:
Level: Easy
the following questions. You are not expected to calculate the exact value.
a 9
b3
c 13
d 21
e 18
Correct Choice : c
Solution:
Data Interpretation- Pie Chart
(44-48) Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully it, answer the questions
Degree Wise Break-up of Employees Working in Various Departments of an

Organization and the ratio of Men to Women
Total number of employees = 3250
Respective Ratio of Men to Women in each Department
Level- easy
44) What is the number of men working in the Marketing department?
a 462
b 454
c 415
d 424
e None of these
Correct Choice: e
Solution:
Number of men working in the marketing department
=
= 429
Degree Wise Break-up of Employees Working in Various Departments of an

Organization and the ratio of Men to Women
Level- Easy
45) What is the respective ratio of the number of women working in the HR department to
the number of men working in the IT department?
a 11: 12
b 17:29
c 13:28
d 12: 35
e None of these
Correct Choice : c
Solution:
Number of women working in HR department
= 3250×
Number of men working in IT department
= 3250×
∴ Required ratio =
Level - Easy
Degree Wise Break-up of Employees Working in Various Departments of an Organization

and the ratio of Men to Women

46) The number of men working in the production department of the organisation forms what
per cent of the total number of employees working in that department?
a 88%
b 90%
c 75%
d 65%
e None of these
Correct Choice : e
Solution:
Number of men working in the production department
= 3250×
Total number of employees in production department
= 3250×
∴ Required percentage =
=
= 80 %
(44-48)Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully it, answer the questions
Degree Wise Break-up of Employees Working in Various Departments of an Organization

and the ratio of Men to Women
Level- Easy
47) The number of women working in the IT department of the organization forms what per
cent of the total number of employees in the organization from all departments together?
a 3.2%
b 4.8%
c 6.3%
d 5.6%
e None of these
Correct Choice: b
Solution:
Number of women working in IT department
3250 ×
Required percentage ,
=
= 4.8 %
(44-48)Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully it, answer the questions
Degree Wise Break-up of Employees Working in Various Departments of an Organization and the
ratio of Men to Women

Level - Easy
48)What is the total number of men working in the organization?
a 2198
b 2147
c 2073
d 2236
e None of these
Correct Choice: b
Solution:
Number of men working in accounts department
3250 ×
Number of men working in marketing department
3250 ×
Number of men working in IT department
3250 ×
Number of men working in HR department
3250 ×
Number of men working in production department
3250 ×
Hence, total number of men working in the organization
= 210 + 429 + 364 + 156 + 988
= 2147
Percentages
Level- Moderate
49) In every month Praveen consumes 40 kg rice and 12 kg wheat. The price of the wheat is
25% more than the price of rice and he spends Rs 2200 on the rice and wheat per month. If
the price of Rice increased by 20%, then what is the percentage of reduction of wheat
consumption for the same expenditure of Rs 2200? (Given that price of wheat and
consumption of rice is constant.)
a 42.6 %
b 53.33 %
c 52.6 %
d 72.2 %
e None of these
Choose Correct : b
Solution:
Let price of rice be Rs x per kg and price of wheat be 1.25x kg.
Price of wheat =
New price of rice = /kg
Required percentage of reduction in wheat consumption = × 100 = 53.33

%
Boats and Streams
Level- Moderate
50) A boat covers 12 km upstream and 15 km downstream in hours, while it covers 8

km upstream and 20 km downstream in 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
a 7 km/hr
b 7.5 km/hr
c 10 km/hr
d 4 km/hr
e None of these
None of these : b
Solution:
Let downstream speed and upstream speed be u km/hr and v km/hr respectively.
Subtract 2 times of equation II from 3 times of equation II.
Put the value of u in equation no II.
Speed of boat in still water = km/hr.

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude
Floor and Ordering Based Puzzle

Level - Difficult
(51-54) Directions Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W lived in an eight
floored building numbered from 1-8, where 8 is the topmost floor,the floor
below it numbered as 7 and so on. These people had different height and were
of different age. The decreasing order of their height is as:
R(33) > W(21) > T(40) >P (15) >Q (45) > S(38)> V(27) > U(20)
Note: R(33) means that R is 33 years old.
Further, it is known that one person lived between fifth eldest person and the
tallest person where the former lived above the latter. The person who was
second youngest lived on 5th floor. Two people lived between the fourth
shortest person and the third youngest person where the former lived above
the latter on an odd floor. Only one person lived between the third tallest
person and the youngest person, where the former lived in a floor adjacent to
U's floor.
51. Who lived immediately above W?
a) The 33 years old person
b) The second youngest person
c) The second shortest person
d) T
e) Q
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
The person who was second youngest, lived on 5th floor. This implies that U
lived on 5th floor.
FLOOR PERSON
5 U
Two people lived between the fourth smallest person and the third youngest
person where the former lived above the latter on an odd floor.
This means that Q lived above W on an odd floor.
FLOOR PERSON
8
7 Q
5 U
4 W
Only one person lived between the third tallest person and the youngest
person, where the former lived in a floor adjacent to U's floor.
This implies that T lived adjacent to U and one person lived between T and P.
FLOOR PERSON
8 P
7 Q
6 T
5 U
4 W
One person lived between fifth eldest person and the tallest person where the
former lived above the latter.
This implies that one person lived between V and R.
So, the final arrangement is
FLOOR PERSON
8 P
7 Q
6 T
5 U
4 W
3 V
2 S
1 R
The second youngest person lived immediately above W.

(51-54) Directions : Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W lived in an eight
R(33) > W(21) > T(40) >P (15) >Q (45) > S(38)> V(27) > U(20)
U's floor.
52. What is the age of the person living on the topmost floor?
a) 15
b) 38
c) 45
d) 27
e) None of these
Correct Choice : a
Solution :
The person, who was second youngest, lived on 5th floor. This implies that U
lived on 5th floor.
FLOOR PERSON
5 U
FLOOR PERSON
7 Q
5 U
4 W
FLOOR PERSON
8 P
7 Q
6 T
5 U
4 W

FLOOR PERSON
8 P
7 Q
6 T
5 U
4 W
3 V
2 S
1 R
The age of the person living on the topmost floor is 15.

R(33) > W(21) > T(40) >P (15) >Q (45) > S(38)> V(27) > U(20)
U's floor.
53.How many people lived between Q and the third tallest person?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
e) None
Correct Choice : e
Solution :
The person, who was second youngest, lived on 5th floor. This implies that U
lived on 5th floor.
FLOOR PERSON
5 U
4
FLOOR PERSON
7 Q
5 U
4 W
FLOOR PERSON
8 P
7 Q
6 T
5 U
4 W
FLOOR PERSON
8 P
7 Q
6 T
5 U
4 W
3 V
2 S
1 R
Nobody lived between Q and the third tallest person.

R(33) > W(21) > T(40) >P (15) >Q (45) > S(38)> V(27) > U(20)
U's floor.
54.Who lived on the bottommost floor?
a) The second tallest person
b) The fourth eldest person

c) V
d) The eldest person
e) T
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
The person who was second youngest, lived on 5th floor. This implies that U
lived on 5th floor.
FLOOR PERSON
5 U

FLOOR PERSON
7 Q
5 U
4 W
FLOOR PERSON
8 P
7 Q
6 T
5 U
4 W
3
FLOOR PERSON
8 P
7 Q
6 T
5 U
4 W
3 V
2 S
1 R
The fourth eldest person lived on the bottommost floor.
Coded Blood Relations

Level- Difficult
(55-57) Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A % B means A is the son of B
A # B means A is the daughter of B
A @ B means A is the wife of B
A * B means A is the husband of B
A ! B means A is the father of B
A $ B means A is the mother of B
A ~ B means A is the sister of B
A ^ B means A is the brother of B
If T * P, M ~ N, R % T, K ~ V, N # F, Q ^ K, J @ F, V % S, W $ J, S @ R, U * W, P $
U then, answer the questions given.
55.How is M related to W?
a) Daughter in law
b) Niece
c) Son
d) Grandson
e) Grand daughter
Correct Choice : e
Solution :
Q ^ K means Q is the brother of K
K ~ V means K is the sister of V
V % S means V is the son of S
S @ R means S is the wife of R
R % T means R is the daughter of T
T * P means T is the husband of P
P $ U means P is the mother of U
U * W means U is the husband of W
W $ J means W is the father of J
J @ F means J is the wife of F

N # F means N is the daughter of F
M ~ N means M is the sister of N
So, M is the grand- daughter of W
(55-57) Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions
given below:

56.How is P related to V?
a) Uncle
b) Aunt
c) Grandmother
d) Cousin
e) Cannot be determined
Correct Choice : c
Solution :


P is the grandmother of V.
(55-57)Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions

given below:
57.How is U related to S?
a) Brother
b) Sister-in-law
c) Daughter-in-law
d) Cousin
e) None of these
Correct Choice : e
Solution :


U is the brother-in-law of S.
Input-Output
Level- Moderate
(58-60 ) Directions : Consider the alphanumeric string given below consisting
of letters, numbers and symbols and answer the questions that follow based
on the given steps:
3R&V@4BM!1$Y%5€W1PJ9∞X#Q7U~T2
Step 1: Each such letter which is immediately followed by a symbol and

immediately preceded by a number is placed at the extreme right end.
(1st letter picked from the left should be in extreme left and so on).
Step 2: Each such number which is immediately followed by a letter and

immediately preceded by a symbol is written to the right of 'Y' in the new
series formed after step 1. (1st number picked from the left should be in
extreme right and so on).
Step 3: Each such symbol which is immediately followed by a number and is

second to the right of a letter, is written to the left of M in the new series
formed after step 2. (1st symbol picked from the left should be in extreme right
and so on).
Step 3 output is the final output of the given string and the steps follows in the
given order only.
58.Which is the 10th element from left end in the final string?
a) 1
b) $
c) Y
d) 4
e) None of these
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
We have:
After step 1, we have:
3&V@4BM!1$Y%5€W1PJ9∞X#Q7~T2RU
3&V@BM!1$Y4%5€W1PJ9∞X#Q7~T2RU
3&V@B%!M1$Y45€W1PJ9∞X#Q7~T2RU
Step 3 output is the final output

Final string:
$ is the 10th element from left end in the final string.
(58 T0 60 ) Directions: Q Consider the alphanumeric string given below

consisting of letters, numbers and symbols and answer the questions that
follow based on the given steps:



and so on).
given order only.
59. Which of the following completes the series M ,4, 1, ∞, ___ (according to the
final string)?
a) Q
b) 7
c) ~
d) T
e) #
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
We have:
Final string:
there is a gap of three elements between two consecutive elements, so we

have:
M ,4, 1, ∞, 7.
(58 T0 60 ) Directions: Consider the alphanumeric string given below
consisting of letters, numbers and symbols and answer the questions that
follow based on the given steps:



and so on).
given order only.
60. What is the position of 'W' in the final string?
a) 14th from the left end
b) 16th from the right end
c) 15th from any end
d) More than one of the above
e) 13th from the left end

Correct Choice : c
Solution :
We have:
Final string:
the position of 'W' in the final string is 15th from any end.
Row Arrangement Including Distance and Direction

Level- Difficult
(61 - 65) Directions: A dog squad was showcasing their performance on
republic day celebration. Eight dogs were given codes among A, B, C, D, E, F, G
and H and were made to stand in a linear row facing north, not necessarily in
the same order. Each of them was standing on a board and the gap between
two boards was 20m. Some of the dogs were trained to move in a certain
direction on the whistle of the trainer. The whistling pattern for each dog was
different in which it decides the movement and direction for any dog. The
length of the boards at odd places from the left end was 20m while the length
of the boards at even places from the left end is 30m. If a dog moves, then its
movement is considered from the right end of the board in which it is standing.
Further, it is known that D initially moved 30m north and then 110m west to
come in line with the left end of the board in which A was standing initially. G
moved 20m south, then 30m west and finally 10m south to come to halt. A
moved initially 20m north and then 140m east and finally 10m south. Initially,
G was to the right of C and was standing on a 30m board. The dog standing to
the immediate left of H (initial position of H) moved 30m south initially and
then 50m east and finally 10m north. From its initial position, E moved 30m
towards the south and then 50m towards the east and finally 10m north to
come to halt. Initially, F was standing third from the right end of the row. B was
standing to the right of D, who did not reach to the end of the row at any point
of the movement. Three dogs were standing between A and E initially where E
was to the right of A.
61. What is the direction of final position of E with respect to the final position of
A?
a) south
b) north
c) north east
d) north west
e) south east
Correct Choice : e
Solution :
Initially, F was standing third from the right end of the row. The length of the
boards at odd places was 20m while the length of the boards at even places is
30m. the gap between the two boards was 20m.
A moved 20m north and then 140m east and finally 10m south. Three dogs
were standing between A and E initially where E was to the right of A.
From its initial position, E moved 30m towards the south and then 50m
towards the east and finally 10m north to come to halt.
Case 1:
Case 2:
Case 3:
D moved 30m north and then 110m west to come in line with the left end of
the board in which A was standing initially. This means that D was second to
the right of A and both were standing at even positions. Hence case 3 is invalid.
In case 1 if D moves in the above manner then it will come to the left end of
the row. But we are given that B was standing to the right of D, who did not
reach to the end of the row at any point of the movement.
So, case 1 is also invalid.
Moving ahead with case 2:
Now
Initially, G was to the right of C and was standing on a 30m board. The dog
standing to the immediate left of H (initial position of H) moved 30m south and
then 50m east and finally 10m north.
So, we have:
G moved 20m south, then 30m west and finally 10m south to come to halt.
E was finally south east with respect to the final position of A.
(61-65 ) Directions: A dog squad was showcasing their performance on

62. What is the distance between the final positions of C and E?
a) 170m
b) 210m
c) 70m
d) 270m
e) none of these
Correct Choice : d
Solution :
Case 1:
Case 2:
Case 3:

Now
So, we have:
The distance between the final positions of C and E is 270m.
(61-65) Directions: A dog squad was showcasing their performance on republic

day celebration. Eight dogs were given codes among A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
and were made to stand in a linear row facing north, not necessarily in the
same order. Each of them was standing on a board and the gap between two
boards was 20m. Some of the dogs were trained to move in a certain direction
on the whistle of the trainer. The whistling pattern for each dog was different
in which it decides the movement and direction for any dog. The length of the
boards at odd places from the left end was 20m while the length of the boards
at even places from the left end is 30m. If a dog moves, then its movement is
considered from the right end of the board in which it is standing. Further, it is
known that D initially moved 30m north and then 110m west to come in line
with the left end of the board in which A was standing initially. G moved 20m
south, then 30m west and finally 10m south to come to halt. A moved initially
20m north and then 140m east and finally 10m south. Initially, G was to the
right of C and was standing on a 30m board. The dog standing to the
immediate left of H (initial position of H) moved 30m south initially and then
50m east and finally 10m north. From its initial position, E moved 30m towards
the south and then 50m towards the east and finally 10m north to come to
halt. Initially, F was standing third from the right end of the row. B was
63. Which dog was standing second to the right of D before the movement?
a) B
b) F
c) E
d) H
e) G
Correct Choice : c
Solution :
Case 1:
Case 2:
Case 3:
Now
So, we have:
E was standing second to the right of D before the movement.

(61-65 ) Directions: A dog squad was showcasing their performance on
64. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. H was to the east with respect to the final position of D
II. Before their movement, F was second to the left of B

III. The final position of C was west with respect to the final position of G
a) III only
b) II only
c) II and III
d) I and II
e) All three
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
Case 1:
Case 2:
Case 3:
Now
So, we have:
Only statement II is true.
(61-65) Directions: A dog squad was showcasing their performance on republic

day celebration. Eight dogs were given codes among A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
and were made to stand in a linear row facing north, not necessarily in the
same order. Each of them was standing on a board and the gap between two
boards was 20m. Some of the dogs were trained to move in a certain direction
on the whistle of the trainer. The whistling pattern for each dog was different
in which it decides the movement and direction for any dog. The length of the
boards at odd places from the left end was 20m while the length of the boards
at even places from the left end is 30m. If a dog moves, then its movement is
considered from the right end of the board in which it is standing. Further, it is
known that D initially moved 30m north and then 110m west to come in line
with the left end of the board in which A was standing initially. G moved 20m
south, then 30m west and finally 10m south to come to halt. A moved initially
20m north and then 140m east and finally 10m south. Initially, G was to the
right of C and was standing on a 30m board. The dog standing to the
immediate left of H (initial position of H) moved 30m south initially and then
50m east and finally 10m north. From its initial position, E moved 30m towards
the south and then 50m towards the east and finally 10m north to come to
halt. Initially, F was standing third from the right end of the row. B was
65. What is the distance between the right end of the boards in which H and F
were standing?
a) 150m
b) 120m
c) 180m
d) 130m
e) none of these
Correct Choice : c
Solution :
Case 1:
Case 2:
Case 3:

Now
So, we have:
The distance between the right end of the boards in which H and F were
standing was 180m.
Circular Arrangement
Level- Moderate
(66 - 70)Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given
below.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table. Some
of them are facing towards the center while some are facing away the center.
Each one of them works as different position in SBI bank i.e. PO, AM, BM, CM,
AGM, DGM, CGM and GM but not in same order.
The one who is CGM sits opposite to B. The one who works as PO and the one
who is GM are not immediate neighbors of each other. D and E are opposite to
each other. The one who is CM is an immediate neighbor of F, who works as
AM. The one who is CM, sits third to the right of E, who faces towards the
center. Two persons sit between the who is CM and the one who works as PO.
D works as neither GM nor BM. The one who works as DGM sits second to the
right of GM. Neither D nor A works as DGM. The one who works as GM faces
the same direction as G, who sits second to the right of the one who is AGM.
Both G and E sitting second to the left of each other. The one who works as PO
faces the same direction as F and the one who works as CM. A sits second to
the left of H, who faces the same direction as G but H is not an immediate
neighbor of G.
66) Who among the following sits 2nd to the right of F?

a The one who is an AGM
b C
c The one who works as BM
d A
e None of these
Correct Choice: c
Solution
The one who is CM, sits third to the right of E, who faces towards the center.
Only two persons sit between the who is CM and the one who works as PO. D
and E are opposite to each other.
The one who is CM is an immediate neighbor of F, who works as AM.
Case I: When E works as PO
Case II: When the one who is PO sits 2nd to the right of E.
The one who works as PO and the one who is GM are not immediate neighbors
of each other. D neither works as GM nor BM. The one who works as DGM sits
second to the right of GM. Neither D nor A works as DGM.
The one who works as GM faces the same direction as G, who sits second to
the right of the one who is AGM. Both G and E sitting second to the left of each
other which is not possible in case I, because in case I E sits 2nd to the right of
G.
A sits second to the left of H, who faces the same direction as G but H is not an
immediate neighbor of G. The one who is CGM sits opposite to B.
The final arrangement is as follows:
The one who works as BM sits 2nd to the right of F.

Hence, option c.
(66 t0 70)Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given

below.
neighbor of G.
67. Who among the following definitely works as DGM?

a The one who faces away from the centre
b The one who sits 2nd right of E
c The one who sits 2nd to the right of A
d The one who sits 3rd to the right of F
e None of these
Correct Choice: d
Solution
G.
The one who sits 3rd to the right of F, works as DGM.

Hence, option d.

below.
neighbor of G.
68. __ sits 3rd to the left of D?

a The one who works as GM
b The one who works as BM
c The one who works as CGM
d The one who works as AM
e Can’t be determined
Correct Choice: a
Solution
G.
The one who works as GM sits 3rd to the left of D.

Hence, option a.

below.
neighbor of G.
69. Who among the following sits 2nd to the right of A?
aC
bH
cB
dE
e Either (a) or (b)
Correct Choice: e
Solution
The one, who is CM, sits third to the right of E, who faces towards the center.
G.
A either face away or towards the center so, either C or H sits 2nd to the right of
A.
Hence, option e.

below.
neighbor of G.
70. Four of the following five are related to each other in some way and thus
formed a group. Choose the one which does not belong to that group.
a The one who works as AM
bH
c The one who works as PO
dB
e The one who works as BM
Correct Choice : e
Solution
G.
All are facing away the center except the one who works as BM.
Hence, option e.
New Pattern Coding-Decoding

Level-Moderate
(71-75) Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In a certain code of language,
‘much needed helps required’ is written as ‘14@G 9%R 19$C 15&C’
‘climate lazy worker tests’ is written as ‘13@X 24&Q 4!D 21%R’
‘awards given with today’ is written as ‘2&R 8%M 24@G 21%X’
‘ready steady quiz decline’ is written as ‘19%X 5!D 18@Y 20&X’
71. How will the word ‘SCHOOL’ be coded as?

a 20!K
b 20@M
c 20&N
d 20&K
e None of these
Correct Choice: d
Solution
For the symbols – Symbols are coded according to the number of letters in
each word
Such as, if there are 4 letters in the word, use - @
If 5, use – %
If 6, use - &
If 7, use - !
If 8, use - $
For the number, +1 in the place value of first letter of each word.
For the letter, -1 in the last letter of the word.
For example the code of the word CLIMATE is 4!D because C+1 = 4, there are 7
letters in the word so use symbol !, last letter E-1 = D so, the code is 4!D.
The code of the word ‘SCHOOL’ is ‘20&K’ as per the rules followed in the given
language.
Hence, option d.
(71-75)Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given

below.
72. How will ‘TRAIN LEFT STATION’ be coded as?

a 21%M 12@S 19!M
b 21&M 12!S 19!M
c 21%M 13@S 20!M
d 21%M 13@S 19!M
e None of these
Correct Choice: c
Solution
each word
If 5, use – %
If 6, use - &
If 7, use - !
If 8, use - $
The code for the ‘TRAIN LEFT STATION’ is ‘21%M 13@S 20!M’.
Hence, option c.
(71-75) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given

below.
73. The code ‘3&C’ is coded from which of the following word?
a Beggar
b Behind
c Bihar
d Besides
e None of these
Correct Choice : b
Solution
each word
If 5, use – %
If 6, use - &
If 7, use - !
If 8, use - $
The code ‘3&C’ is coded for ‘Behind’.
Hence, option b.

below.
74. If code for the word ‘something better’ is ‘20#F 3&Q’ in the same language
then what would be the code of ‘knowledge gain’?
a 12#D 8@M
b 11#D 7@M
C -12%D 6&M
D -10$G 6%M
E -12@M 8#H
Correct Choice : a
Solution
each word
If 5, use – %
If 6, use - &
If 7, use - !
If 8, use - $
If code for the ‘something better’ is ‘20#F 3&Q’ which means word with 9
letters is coded with symbol #.
So, code for the word ‘knowledge gain’ is ‘12#D 8@M’.
Hence, option a.

below.
75. The code ‘2$C 14&X’ is coded for the _____ and ___?
a Assault and Youth
b Rebel and Define
c Assigned and Memory
d Dress and Kites
e None of these
Correct Choice: c
Solution
each word
If 5, use – %
If 6, use - &
If 7, use - !
If 8, use - $
According to the rules followed Assigned and Memory would be coded as ‘2$C
14&X’
Hence, option c.
Statements & Assumptions
Level-Moderate
76. Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken
for granted. You have to consider the following assumption and decide which
of the assumption is implicit in the statement.
Statement:
India proposes to move to the global practice of selling entire power generation through spot
market to lower tariffs, promote efficient plants and withstand periodical aberrations that benefit a
few plants.
Assumptions:
I. It is expected to ensure that power plants with low tariffs do not get into ‘stressed assets‘
category in future even without power purchase contracts with states.
II. The mechanism proposes to pool all electricity generated in the country, including from projects
which have signed power supply pacts.
a.Only II is implicit
b.All are implicit
c.None is implicit
d.Either I or II is implicit
e.Only I is implicit
Correct Choice : a
Solution:
The correct answer isoption 1, i.e.Only II is implicit.
An assumption is a thing that is accepted as true or as certain to happen,

without proof.
From the statement, it is evident that India is planning to move the practice of
selling power generation through spot markets to low tariffs in order to
promote efficient plants. And further information regarding its components is
also mentioned.
Assumption (I) can be rejected as it is specific to low tariffs getting into

‘stressed assets’ and purchase contracts which is not evident from the given
context.
Assumption (II) is appropriate. It deals with the assumption as stated in the

given context that the mechanism proposes to pool electricity even from the
projects which have signed power supply pacts. Though, ‘power supply pacts’
is not explicitly stated in the context but is not specific to it only, it covers it
also along with other projects. Thus, it can be assumed as a suitable
assumption.
Thus, the correct answer choice is option 1.
Statements & Inferences
Level-Moderate
77. Direction: A statement is given followed by three inferences numbered I, II, and III. Consider
the statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide
which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statement: Over the past 15 to 20 years, Cambodia’s water system has improved faster than
most of its regional neighbors, though sanitation efforts have mainly been centered in the capital
Phnom Penh.
Inferences:
I. The capital of Cambodia, Phnom Penh, has safer drinking waters than any other region in that
country.
II. The neighbouring countries of Cambodia still do not have access to safe drinking water.
III. Over the last couple of decades, the Cambodian government has put in a lot of efforts for the
betterment of the country.
a.Only I follows
b.Only II follows
c.Only III follows
d.All of them follow
e.None of them follow
Correct Choice: e
Solution:
None of the inferences follow. The given statement says that in the last 15-20 years, Cambodia’s
water system has improved a lot, though most of the efforts have been centered around its
capital city. Inference I does not follow because firstly, the statement talks about the entire water
system and not drinking water in particular and also because though we have been told that
efforts have been centered in the capital, that does not necessarily mean the best would be
available there. Inference II does not follow as it has a lot of extraneous information that cannot
be inferred from what is given. And inference III also does not follow as it brings into context a
larger scheme of things that cannot be deduced from a single fact mentioned in the given
statement. Therefore, option E is the correct answer.
Statement & Course of Action
Level- Moderate
78. Direction: In the question below, are given a statement followed by three
courses of actions numbered I, II and III. On the basis of the information given,
you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and then decide
which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement: Ericsson is set to file an application in the Supreme Court, pleading

that all personal assets of Reliance Communications chairman Anil Ambani be
seized for breaching the top court’s order to repay the Swedish telecom
equipment maker its dues.
Courses of action:
I. Ericsson has chalked out its options to ensure it gets its settlement amount
of Rs 550 crore, petitioning to freeze personal assets of Anil Ambani is one of
them.
II. RCom plans to move the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for
bankruptcy protection, conceding that it had failed to complete its spectrum
sale to Jio due to the telecom department's refusal to clear it and the matter
being dragged to various courts.
III. RCom’s management will propose a debt resolution plan in the NCLT
process, as was earlier being pursued outside NCLT.
a.All I, II and III follow
b.Neither I nor III follows
c.Both I and II follow
d.Both II and III follow
e.None of the follow
Correct Choice : a
Solution:
The correct answer is option 1, i.e. All I, II and III follow.

A course of action is something that needs to be done considering the present
scenario in mind.
From the given statement it is evident that Ericsson is all set to sue RCom for
breaching the top court’s order to repay the Swedish telecom equipment
maker its dues.
Thus, a suitable course of action might be by Ericsson to proceed further in the

suing process or by the RCom to challenge Ericsson.
From the courses of actions mentioned all are relevant with respect to the
given statement.
Course of action (I) suggests an appropriate action by Ericsson to proceed

further with the accusation against RCom.
Course of action (II) is a suitable course of action by RCom for bankruptcy

protection.
Course of action (III) is also appropriate as it also proposes a suitable action

that RCom is planning to take to resolve the debt resolution process, in order
to repay the debt as asked by Ericsson.
Thus, the correct answer is option 1.
Statements & Arguments
Level- Moderate
79. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the
question given below:
Advocates of vegetarianism insist that more and more people should start
consuming only vegetarian food as eating meat harms health, wastes
resources, causes deforestation, and creates pollution. They often argue that
killing animals for food is cruel and unethical since non-animal food sources are
plentiful.
Which of the following statements, if true, strengthen the argument given

above?
a.Eating meat along with vegetables has been an essential part of human
evolution for 2.3 million years.
b.Eating meat is not cruel or unethical; it is a natural part of the cycle of life.
c.Vegetarian diets do not contain enough healthy saturated fats that is

essential for enhancing the function of the immune and nervous systems.
d.A vegetarian diet delivers complete nutrition and can provide better health
benefits in comparison to eating meat.
e.Meat is the best source of vitamin B12, a vitamin necessary to nervous and
digestive system health.
Correct Choice:d
Solution:
The given argument states that more and more people should start consuming
vegetarian food as eating meat is not only harmful but is also causes
deforestation and creates pollution. Option D correctly strengthens the
argument by pointing out that a vegetarian diet, in fact provides better health
benefits in comparison to eating meat and that it delivers complete nutrition.
Puzzle
Level-Moderate
(80 to 84) Study the following information carefully and answer the following
questions:
There are seven boxes namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V placed one above the other
and each box is having different number of books i.e. 78, 43, 35, 60, 25, 53 and
70 not necessary in the same order.
P contains maximum number of books and is placed in the middle of the stack.
The number of books in box Q and box R is equal to the number of books in
box U and box V. The number of books in box U is half of the number of books
in box T. Difference between the number of books in box V and box R is 10 and
both are having prime number of books. The box which contains least number
of books is placed at the bottom. Box P is adjacent to both boxes R and S. The
box having 60 books is above the box having 70 books but not immediately
above. The number of books in box R is greater than the number of books in
box V, which is not placed at the top of the stack.
80. Which box is immediately above the box having 70 books?
a.R
b.The box having 53 books
c.V
d.Both R and the box having 53 books
e.None of these
Correct choice: a
Solution:
Seven boxes: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V
Books: 78, 43, 35, 60, 25, 53 and 70
1) We have to find number of books in each box. The number of books in box U
is half of the number of books in box T, hence it is clear that U contains 35
books and T contains 70 books.
2) V - R = 10 and both are prime numbers and R > V, so R contains 53 books

while V contains 43 books.
3) U + V = Q + R, so Q contains 25 books, S contains 60 books and P contains 78

books.
4) P contains maximum number of books and is placed in the middle of the

stack and is adjacent to both boxes R and S.
5) Q is placed at the bottom of the stack having least number of books.

6) The box having 60 books is above the box having 70 books but not
immediately above, so if we place S immediately below P, then we are unable
to place T in the arrangement. So S is placed immediately above P.
7) V is not placed at the top.
Clearly, box R having 53 books is immediately above the box having 70 books.
questions:
81. Which box is placed at the top?
a.V
b.S
c.U
d.T
e.None of these
Correct Choice : c
Solution:
Books: 78, 43, 35, 60, 25, 53 and 70


books.


Clearly, box U box is placed at the top.
questions:
82. Sum of the books of box U and box Q is equal to which box?
a.R
b.S
c.T
d.P
e.None of these
Correct Choice: b
Solution:
Books: 78, 43, 35, 60, 25, 53 and 70


books.


Clearly, Sum of the books of box U and box Q is equal to box S.
questions:
83. The box having 43 books is adjacent to which of the following boxes?
a.P, S
b.U, S
c.R, T
d.T, P
e.None of these
Correct Choice: b
Solution:
Books: 78, 43, 35, 60, 25, 53 and 70


books.


Clearly, the box having 43 books is adjacent to box U and box S.
questions:
84. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
a.There are two boxes between Q and P
b.The number of books in box V is less than box U
c.Box R is having 70 books
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
Correct Choice: a
Solution:
Books: 78, 43, 35, 60, 25, 53 and 70


books.


Clearly, only the first statement is true.
Row Arrangement & Coded Ordering
Level- Moderate
(85-89).Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given beside.
Ten persons from A to J are standing in a straight row facing towards the north. All of them have
different amount of money with them viz. Rupees 2500, 3100, 3500, 4600, 5000 and 7500. B is
third to the right of G, who is on the immediate left of D. E sits fourth to the right of D. A is second
to the right of E. F is adjacent to A. C is third to the right of B. The number of persons between H and
J is one less than that of between H and I
Refer the following information to know about the amount they had with themselves.
P & Q means P has more amount than Q.
P * Q means P has less amount than Q.
P % Q means P and Q have equal amounts.
On the basis of above codes, identify the amount with the persons through below mentioned
expression:
C&E%A%D&G,B*I%J*G, H&C%F&E
85. Who among the following has the lowest amount?
a. B and I
b. B
c. I and H
d. H
e. Can't be determined
Correct Choice: b
Explanation:
B has the lowest amount.
Hence option B is correct.
Final Arrangement:
Persons I G D H B J E C A F
Amount 3100 3500 4600 7500 2500 3100 4600 5000 4600 5000
Common Explanation:
Reference:
B is third to the right of G, who is on the immediate left of D.
E sits fourth to the right of D.

A is second to the right of E.
Inference:
Following three cases occur from the given hints.
Case-1
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Case-2
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Case-3
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Reference:
F is adjacent to A.
C is third to the right of B.
Inference:
Case-1
Persons G D B E C A F
Amount
Case-2
Amount
Case-3: Eliminated as positions of F and C clash.
Reference:
The number of persons between H and J is one less than that of between H
and I.
Inference:
Case-1 eliminates as the given hint cannot be satisfied.
Case-2
Amount
Reference:
All of them have different amount of money with them viz. Rupees 2500, 3100,
3500, 4600, 5000 and 7500.
Inference:
On the basis of given information, the expression can be decoded as :
H>C=F>E=A=D>G>J=I>B
Amount 3100 3500 4600 7500 2500 3100 4600 5000 4600 5000
Q(85-89).Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the

Ten persons from A to J are standing in a straight row facing towards the north.
3500, 4600, 5000 and 7500. B is third to the right of G, who is on the
immediate left of D. E sits fourth to the right of D. A is second to the right of E.
F is adjacent to A. C is third to the right of B. The number of persons between H
and J is one less than that of between H and I.
Refer the following information to know about the amount they had with
themselves.
On the basis of above codes, identify the amount with the persons through
below mentioned expression:
86. Which of the following pairs depicts the persons who have Rs. 5000?
a.I-H
b.C-F
c.F-I
d.B-C
e.None of these
Correct Choice: b
Explanation:
C-F depicts the persons who has Rs. 5000.
Hence option B is correct.
Final Arrangement:
Amount 3100 3500 4600 7500 2500 3100 4600 5000 4600 5000
Common Explanation:
Reference:
Inference:
Case-1
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Case-2
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Case-3
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Reference:
F is adjacent to A.
Inference:
Case-1
Amount
Case-2
Amount
Reference:
and I.
Inference:
Case-2
Amount
Reference:
3500, 4600, 5000 and 7500.
Inference:
H>C=F>E=A=D>G>J=I>B
Amount 3100 3500 4600 7500 2500 3100 4600 5000 4600 5000
Q(85-89).Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the

themselves.
87. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a.G
b.B
c.C
d.E
e.I
Correct Choice: e
Explanation:
I is the odd one out as rest sit in the middle of the row while I is at an extreme
end.
Hence option E is correct.
Final Arrangement:
Amount 3100 3500 4600 7500 2500 3100 4600 5000 4600 5000
Common Explanation:
Reference:
Inference:
Case-1
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Case-2
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Case-3
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Reference:
F is adjacent to A.
Inference:
Case-1
Amount
Case-2
Amount
Reference:
and I.
Inference:

Case-2
Amount
Reference:
3500, 4600, 5000 and 7500.
Inference:
H>C=F>E=A=D>G>J=I>B
Amount 3100 3500 4600 7500 2500 3100 4600 5000 4600 5000
Q (85-89).Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer

the questions given beside.
themselves.

88. Who among the following is fifth from the right end?
a. The one who has Rs. 3100 and sits immediate right of B
b. The one who has Rs. 4600
c. The one who has Rs. 2500
d. The one who has Rs. 5000
e. None of these
Correct Choice: a
Explanation:
The one who has Rs. 3100 and sits immediate right of B i.e J is fifth from the
right end.
Hence option A is correct.
Final Arrangement:
Amount 3100 3500 4600 7500 2500 3100 4600 5000 4600 5000
Common Explanation:
Reference:
Inference:
Case-1
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Case-2
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Case-3
Persons G D B E A
Amount
Reference:
F is adjacent to A.

Inference:
Case-1
Amount
Case-2
Amount
Reference:
and I.
Inference:
Case-2
Amount
Reference:
3500, 4600, 5000 and 7500.
Inference:
H>C=F>E=A=D>G>J=I>B
Amount 3100 3500 4600 7500 2500 3100 4600 5000 4600 5000
Input-Output
Level-Easy
(89-93) Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the
questions given beside:
A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words
and numbers, it rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement, steps.
Input: 12 do dabble 10 city 7 clade 8 boar 5 black 2 ahura 1 ahead 3

Step I: 3 ahura 12 do dabble 10 city 7 clade 8 boar 5 black 2 ahead 3
Step II: 0 ahead 3 ahura 12 do dabble 10 city 7 clade 8 boar 5 black 3
Step III: 5 black 0 ahead 3 ahura 12 do dabble 10 city 7 clade 8 boar 5
Step IV: 7 boar 5 black 0 ahead 3 ahura 12 do dabble 10 city 7 clade 8
Step V: 9 clade 7 boar 5 black 0 ahead 3 ahura 12 do dabble 10 city 8
Step VI: 6 city 9 clade 7 boar 5 black 0 ahead 3 ahura 12 do dabble 10
Step VII: 8 dabble 6 city 9 clade 7 boar 5 black 0 ahead 3 ahura 12 do
Step VIII: 10 do 8 dabble 6 city 9 clade 7 boar 5 black 0 ahead 3 ahura
And step VIII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input as
intended-rearrangement-is-obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above step, indicate the answer in each of the
following questions with respect to the appropriate step for the given input
Input: 13 tack 6 last 11 table 8 seen 5 sorry 16 late 14 pub 3 public
89.Find the sum of the last two numbers of step VI?
a.30
b.32
c.22
d.20
e.None of these
Correct Choice: a
Explanation:
Last two numbers of step VI are 16 and 14.

So, the sum is 30.
Option A, is hence the correct answer.
Common explanation:

Step I: 5 late 13 tack 6 last 11 table 8 seen 5 sorry 16 14 pub public
Step II: 7 last 5 late 13 tack 6 11 table 8 seen sorry 16 14 pub public
Step III: 4 pub 7 last 5 late 13 tack 11 table 8 seen sorry 16 14 public
Step IV: 6 public 4 pub 7 last 5 late 13 tack 11 table seen sorry 16 14
Step V: 13 seen 6 public 4 pub 7 last 5 late 13 tack table sorry 16 14
Step VI: 15 sorry 13 seen 6 public 4 pub 7 last 5 late tack table 16 14
Step VII: 12 table 15 sorry 13 seen 6 public 4 pub 7 last 5 late tack 16
Step VIII: 14 tack 12 table 15 sorry 13 seen 6 public 4 pub 7 last 5 late
Here: Logic applied in each step is applied first on number then on word in the
same step.
Logic for Numbers:
Numbers are considered in the ascending order; if the number is an odd

number 2 is added to it and then is fixed at the extreme left and if the number
is an even number 2 is subtracted from it and is then shifted to the extreme
left.
Logic for words:
Words are arranged in the ascending order of the English alphabetical

series where the first letter is considered first and then the last letter; if the
first letter of two words is same then decision has to be made according to the
last letter of those words. Last letter which appears first in the English
alphabetical series from A to Z has to be sent to the extreme left and then in
the next step the other word is rearranged.
Word sent to the extreme left has to be written after the number
rearranged their.
Reference:
Input →Step I:

Inference:
For getting Step I, smallest number "1" is sent to the extreme left after adding
two in it as it is an odd number and "ahura" which as per the above logic is first
to be rearranged and is written after the rearranged number.
Applying the same logic as above to get the output of step I

Reference:
Step I → Step II
Inference:
In the above step, "2" which is an even number is shifted to the extreme left
after subtracting two from it and "ahead" which starts with "a" but is still
chosen in seond step for rearrangement as it starts with "a" but ends with "d"
Applying the same logic as above to get the output of step II
Reference:
Step II → Step III
Inference:
Applying the same logic,
Reference:
Step III → Step IV
Inference:
Reference:
Step IV → Step V
Inference:
Using the same trick again,
Reference:
Step V → Step VI
Inference:
Reference:
Step VI → Step VII
Inference:
Reference:
Step VII → Step VIII

Inference:
Hence, we get the Final Output in eighth step of the input and the final out is
as follows:
Final output: 14 tack 12 table 15 sorry 13 seen 6 public 4 pub 7 last 5 late


90. Which one of the following is the last required step of the
rearrangement?
a. Step VII
b. Step VI
c. Step VIII
d. Step V
e. None of these
Correct Choice: c
Explanation:
Step VIII is the final step.

Option C, is hence the correct answer.
Common explanation:

same step.
Logic for Numbers:

left.
Logic for words:

rearranged their.
Reference:
Input →Step I:

Inference:
Reference:
Step I → Step II

Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
Reference:
Step IV → Step V
Inference:
Reference:
Step V → Step VI
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
as follows:

91. Which one of the following is second to the left of “last” in step IV?
a.Pub
b.Late
c.7
d.4
e.None of these
Correct Choice: a
Explanation:
“pub” is second to the left of “last” in step IV.

Option A, is hence the correct answer.
Common explanation:

same step.
Logic for Numbers:
· Numbers are considered in the ascending order; if the number is an odd

left.
Logic for words:

rearranged their.
Reference:
Input →Step I:

Inference:
Reference:
Step I → Step II
Inference:
Reference:

Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
Reference:
Step IV → Step V
Inference:
Reference:
Step V → Step VI
Inference:

Reference:
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
as follows:

92. Which one of the following element is first from the left end of Step VII?
a.take
b.table
c.12
d.14
e. None of these
Correct Choice: c
Explanation:
“12” is first from the left end of the step VII.

Option C, is hence the correct answer.
Common explanation:

same step.
Logic for Numbers:

left.
Logic for words:

rearranged their.
Reference:
Input →Step I:

Inference:
Reference:
Step I → Step II
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
Reference:

Inference:
Reference:
Step IV → Step V
Inference:
Reference:
Step V → Step VI
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
as follows:

93. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group (Consider
final step to answer)?
a. table 15 sorry
b. pub 7 last
c. 13 seen 6
d. public 14 pub
e. None of these
Correct Choice: d
Explanation:
“public 14 pub”; only these three elements of final step are not aligned as per
the order so is different from the group.
Option D, is hence the correct answer.
Common explanation:

same step.
Logic for Numbers:

left.
Logic for words:

rearranged their.
Reference:
Input →Step I:

Inference:
Reference:
Step I → Step II
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
Reference:
Step IV → Step V
Inference:
Reference:
Step V → Step VI
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
Reference:
Inference:
as follows:
Coded Distance & Direction
Level- Moderate
P (18m) %Q means P is 13m north of Q.
P (29m) # Q means P is 24m south of Q.
P (37m) @ Q means P is 32m east of Q.
P (41m) $ Q means P is 36m west of Q.
P > QR means P is the midpoint of vertical straight line QR.
P < QR means P is the midpoint of Horizontal straight line QR.
A certain number of people are sitting in a ground at some distance as per the
equations below:
B (25m) @ A, C < ED, C (21m) # B, E (41m) $ D, D > FG, F (53m) % G
94. What is the shortest distance between C and the person, who is at south
east of E?
a.27m
b. 25m
c. 30m
d. 32m
e. None of these
Correct choice : c
Explanation:
Following the common explanation, we get "30m", shown in below figure.
G is sitting south east of E.
As per question, to find the shortest distance between C and G as shown

below,
182 +242 = 324 + 576 = 900 = 30m
Final arrangement:
Common Explanation:
References:
P>QR means P is the midpoint of vertical straight line QR.
P<QR means P is the midpoint of Horizontal straight line QR.
A certain number of people are sitting in a ground at some distance
B (25m) @ A, C<ED, C (21m) # B, E (41m) $ D, D >FG, F (53m) % G

Inferences:
From above statements,
After observing the given conditions we get, 5m is subtracted from the given
distance irrespective of the direction.
After decoding the expressions by using above condition we get,
B (25m) @ A à B is 20m east of A
C < ED → C is midpoint of Horizontal straight line ED.
C (21m) # B → C is 16m south of B
E (41m) $ D → E is 36m west of D
D >FG → D is midpoint of vertical straight line FG.
F (53m) % G → F is 48m north of G.
By using above direction hints, we get the completed direction as shown,

equations below:
95. If P (45m) # A, then what is the direction and distance of P with respect to
G?
a. P (41m) $ G
b. P (48m) $ G
c. P (38m) $ G
d. P (43m) $ G
e. None of these
Correct Choice: d
Explanation:
Following the common explanation, we get “P (43m) $ G”, shown in below

figure.
P (45m) # A → P is 40m south of A (as per given condition)
Therefore P is 38m west of G.
As per coded form P (43m) $ G → P is 38m west of G
Hence, option D is correct.

Final arrangement:
Common Explanation:
References:

Inferences:

equations below:
96. What's the shortest distance between B and F?
a. 4√51m
b. 2√97m
c. 6√38m
d. 24m
e. None of these
Correct Choice: b
Explanation:
Here, BK = 18 m and FK = (24 - 16) = 8 m
Therefore, the shortest distance BF = Under-root of 182 + 82
⇒ Under-root of (324 + 64)
⇒ Under-root of (388)
⇒ 2√97m
hence, option B is the correct answer.
Final arrangement:
Common Explanation:
References:

Inferences:

Coded Logical Inequalities
Level-Moderate
Q (97-99) Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, &, $, #, and *

are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'
'P @ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'
'P * Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'
'P & Q' means 'p' is neither greater than nor equal to Q'
'P # Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be

true, find which of the conditions I,II,III and IV given below them is/are
definitely true.
97. Statements:
J $ M, N @ R, R & M
Conclusions:
I. N & J II. N & M III. J $ R IV. N * R
a. Only I, II and III are true.

b. Only I and II are true.
c. Only II and III are true.
d. Only II and IV are true.
e. None of these
Correct Choice: a
Explanation:
Symbols and their respective signs:
&⇒<
#⇒≥
*⇒=
@⇒≤
$⇒>
The given statements:
J $ M, N @ R, R & M
J > M, N ≤ R, R < M
combining the equations into one, we get
N≤R<M<J
The given conclusions:
I. N & J II. N & M III. J $ R IV. N * R
I. N < J II. N < M III. J > R IV. N = R
Common sign of inequalities between N and J is '<'. Conclusion I follows.
Common sign of inequalities between N and M is '<'. Conclusion II follows as

well.
Common sign of inequalities between J and R is '>'. Conclusion III follows too.
Common sign of inequalities between N and R is '≤'. Conclusion IV doesn't

follow.
Clearly, option A is the correct answer.
(97-99) Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, &, $, #, and *


definitely true.
98. Statements: F & N, N * D, D $ T

Conclusions:
I. F $ T II. N $ T III. F * D IV. F & D
a. Only I and III are true.
b. Only II and IV are true.
c. Only I and II are true.
d. Only III and IV are true.
e. None of these
Correct Choice: b
Explanation:
&⇒<
#⇒≥
*⇒=
@⇒≤
$⇒>
F & N, N * D, D $ T
F < N, N = D. D > T
Combining the equations, we get
F<N=D>T
I. F $ T II. N $ T III. F * D IV. F & D

I. F > T II. N > T III. F = D IV. F < D
As signs on inequalities are getting opposite while moving from F to T in the

combined equation, we can't derive a definite relationship between these two
elements. Conclusion I doesn't follow.
Common sign of inequalities between N and T is '>'. Conclusion II follows here.
Common sign of inequalities between F and D is '>'. Conclusion III follows too.
Common sign of inequalities between N and R is '<'. Conclusion III doesn't

follow but conclusion IV follows.
Evidenty, option B is the correct answer.
Q (97-99) Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, &, $, #, and *


definitely true.
99. Statements:
Z#H,B&H,K$B
Conclusions:
I. K $ Z II. K * Z III. K $ H IV. Z $ B
a. Only I is true.
b. Only I is true.
c. Only I is true.
d. Only I is true.
e.None of these
Correct Choice: d
Explanation:
&⇒<
#⇒≥
*⇒=
@⇒≤
$⇒>
Z#H,B&H,K$B
Z≥H,B<H,K>B
Combining the equations into one, we get

Z≥H>B<K
I. K > Z II. K = Z III. K > H IV. Z > B
There are opposite signs of inqualities between Z and K. Conclusion I does not
follow.
There are opposite signs of inqualities between Z and K. Conclusion II does not
follow.
There are opposite signs of inqualities between H and K. Conclusion III does
not follow.
Common sign of inequalities between Z and B is '>'. Conclusion IV follows.
Clearly, option D is the correct answer.
In every question two rows are given and to find out the resultant of a
particular row you need to follow the following steps:
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to
be-multiplied.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the
even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to
be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be

subtracted from the first one.
R1&R2 Based Questions

Level- Easy
100. What will be the answer if the resultant of second row is subtracted by
the resultant of the first row?
595
25 10 3
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. Data inadequate
Correct Choice: c
Explanation:
Row I: 5 9 5
Reference:
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to
be multiplied.
= (5 × 9) 5
= 45 5
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is
to be divided by the second number.
= (45/5)
=9
Row II: 25 10 3
Reference:
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be

subtracted from the first one.
= (25 – 10) 3
= (15) 3
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to
be divided by the second number.
= (15/3)
=5
Required difference value = Row 1 - Row 2
=9–5
=4
Hence, the correct answer is option C.

English
Usage of the Words
Level- Moderate
(101-103) In the following question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which the
word has been used, in similar or different forms. You need to see which of the sentence(s)
has/have correctly used the given word and mark your answers accordingly.
101) ELUSIVE
I. People will find themselves in a mysterious and elusive universe while walking in.
II. She could not remember the elusive thought she had had moments before.
III. This is actually a common bird but had proved surprisingly elusive.
a) Only II
b) Only I & II
c) Only I
d) Only II & III
e) All of I, II & III
Correct Choice : d
Solution :
The word 'elusive' has been correctly used (as an adjective) in statement II, where it means
'difficult to remember'. The word 'elusive' has also been correctly used (as an adjective) in
statement III, where it means 'difficult to find, catch, or achieve'.
However, the usage of the word 'elusive' is incorrect in statement I; it has been used in
parallel with the word 'mysterious' (in combination with the conjunction 'and'); thus, the other
word must also give a similar meaning; thus, the correct word to be used in the sentence is
'illusive', which means 'deceptive; based on illusion'. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Level-Easy
(101-103) In the following question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which the
102) IMMINENT
I. Imminent scientists are clamouring for an outright ban on all chlorine substances.
II. No one ever questioned his imminent ability to complete the tasks on time.
III. The guard blew his whistle to warn of the train's imminent departure.
a) Only I & III
b) Only II
c) Only I & II
d) Only III
Correct Choice : d
Solution :
The word 'imminent' has been correctly used (as an adjective) in statement III, where it means
'coming or likely to happen very soon'.
However, the usage of the word 'imminent' in statement I is incorrect as it renders the
sentence meaningless; the correct word to be used in the sentence is 'eminent', which means
'(of a person) famous and respected within a particular sphere'.
Similarly, the usage of the word 'imminent' in statement II is incorrect as it renders the
sentence meaningless; the correct word to be used in the sentence is 'eminent', which means
'noticeable or worth remarking on, or very great'. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
(101-103 )In the following question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which the
Level-Easy
103) PITCHER
I. She pushed herself away from the door and crossed to a small pitcher of water and basin in
the corner.
II. Carl Hubbell is considered by some to be the greatest pitcher that ever played in the Major
League Baseball.
III. It is a good choice for beginners looking to grow tropical pitcher plants.
a) Only II & III
b) Only I
c) Only I & III
d) Only II
Correct Choice : e
Solution :
The word 'pitcher' has been correctly used in all of the three statements. In statement I, it is
used as a noun and means 'a large container for liquids that has a flat base and a handle'; in
statement II, it is used as a noun and means 'the player who delivers the ball to the batter (in
a game of baseball)'; and, in statement III, it is used as a noun and means 'a kind of
carnivorous plant'. Hence, option (e) is the correct answer.
Jumbled Words and Sentences
Level-Difficult
(104-108) Directions : In the following question, a set of five sentences is given, which when
properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence has three highlighted words
which may or may not be at their correct places and you might have to rearrange the words to
make a meaningful sentence. Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence and answer the
questions that follow.
A. Patients could now be would dead while a ventilator kept their lungs 'breathing' so their
tissues and organs declared not also 'die'.
B. With the chance to save the lives of so many sick patients in need of hearts, kidneys and
lungs, the embraced of brain death was concept - but not quite.
C. The long-ago decision of the committee cannot the rest of us into a battle over
the thrust territory of death, a battle that still rages and the reason is clear:
science contested tell us how to live.
D. In 1968, a committee at Harvard Medical School irreversible the concept of brain death,
adding a second definition to the classic concept of circulatory death - the
permanent invented of breath and heartbeat, and the cessation loss of function of the heart and
lungs.
E. The new notion of death opened the door for a growing number of nurturing surgeons to
harvest organs still bathed in the transplant warmth of oxygen and blood.
104) Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) D
b) B
c) A
d) E
e) C
Correct Choice : a
Solution :
The correct order of the interchanged words for each of the sentences is as following:
A: declared - lungs - would
B: save - concept - embraced
C: thrust - contested - cannot
D: invented - cessation - irreversible
E: notion - transplant - nurturing
D is the best choice to start the sentence as it introduces the subject of the discussion; the
setting up of a committee to invent the concept of 'brain death' and add a second definition to this
concept. A follows D by telling us what this definition was; that patients could now be declared
dead while a ventilator kept their lungs 'breathing' so their tissues and organs would not also
'die'. E follows DA and tells us how this new definition and notion of death was positively received
by the surgeons with good prospects for saving lives by harvesting organs. B has a contradictory
tone (due to the use of 'but not quite' which tells that something didn't go as expected). B follows
E and C follows B; C talks about the contradictory information that this decision and this new
definition was controversial, and it thrust the rest of us into a battle which is still
contested. DAEBC is the correct final rearrangement.
Sentence D is the first in order. Hence option A is the correct answer.
(104-108) Directions: In the following question, a set of five sentences is given, which when
properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence has three highlighted words
which may or may not be at their correct places and you might have to rearrange the words to
make a meaningful sentence. Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence and answer the
questions that follow.
A. Patients could now be would dead while a ventilator kept their lungs 'breathing' so their
tissues and organs declared not also 'die'.
B. With the chance to save the lives of so many sick patients in need of hearts,
kidneys and lungs, the embraced of brain death was concept - but not quite.
C. The long-ago decision of the committee cannot the rest of us into a battle
over the thrust territory of death, a battle that still rages and the reason is
clear: science contested tells us how to live.
D. In 1968, a committee at Harvard Medical School irreversible the concept of
brain death, adding a second definition to the classic concept of circulatory
death - the permanent invented of breath and heartbeat, and
the cessation loss of function of the heart and lungs.
E. The new notion of death opened the door for a growing number
of nurturing surgeons to harvest organs still bathed in the transplant warmth
of oxygen and blood.
105) Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) E
d) C
e) D
Correct Choice : c
Solution :
The correct order of the interchanged words for each of the sentences is as
following:

D is the best choice to start the sentence as it introduces the subject of the
discussion; the setting up of a committee to invent the concept of 'brain death'
and add a second definition to this concept. A follows D by telling us what this
definition was; that patients could now be declared dead while a ventilator
kept their lungs 'breathing' so their tissues and organs would not also 'die'. E
follows DA and tells us how this new definition and notion of death was
positively received by the surgeons with good prospects for saving lives by
harvesting organs. B has a contradictory tone (due to the use of 'but not quite'
which tells that something didn't go as expected). B follows E and C follows B;
C talks about the contradictory information that this decision and this new
definition was controversial, and it thrust the rest of us into a battle which is
still contested. DAEBC is the correct final rearrangement.
Sentence E is the third in order. Hence option C is the correct answer.
(104-108) Directions: In the following question, a set of five sentences is given,

which when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence
has three highlighted words which may or may not be at their correct places
and you might have to rearrange the words to make a meaningful sentence.
Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence and answer the questions that
follow.
A. Patients could now be would dead while a ventilator kept

their lungs 'breathing' so their tissues and organs declared not also 'die'.

106) What will be the correct position of sentence B in the final rearrangement?
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 5th
d) 4th
e) 3rd
Correct Choice : d
Solution :
following:
Sentence B is the fourth in order. Hence, option D is the correct answer.

follow.


107) Which of the following is the correct order of the highlighted words in the
SECOND sentence of the final rearrangement?
a) Save - concept - embraced
b) Invented - irreversible - cessation
c) Contested - thrust - cannot
d) Declared - lungs - would
Correct Choice : d
Solution :
following:
A is the second sentence in the final rearrangement. A noun will fit after 'kept
their' as to show what was kept breathing. A past participle will fit after 'be' in
the place of 'would' as that part is in the passive form. 'Declared' is the only
past participle among the highlighted word. Option D is the correct answer.

follow.


108) What will be the correct position of sentence C in the final rearrangement?
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 5th
d) 3rd
e) 4th
Correct Choice : c
Solution :
following:
Sentence C is the fifth in order. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
New Model FIB’s

Level-Easy
(109-112) In the question below, a sentence is given with two blanks in it. Six
choices of words have been given in two columns. The word for the first blank
should be from the first column and for the second blank it should be from the
second column. Choose the correct combination from the options which can fit
in the blanks and make the sentence meaningful.
109) Detention centres are set up to house ___________ immigrants or

foreigners who have completed their jail sentence but their deportation
process to the country concerned has not been initiated or______________.
A. normal D. completed
B. illegal E. spoken
C. quantity F. onsite
a) CF
b) BD
c) CE
d) AD
e) AE
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
The sentence speaks of 'detention', 'immigrants', 'foreigners', 'jail' and

'deportation'. In this context, 'illegal' is the word which suits the first blank.
Since the sentence talks about the progress of the deportation process in
the second half, 'completed' is the correct word for the second blank, to go
with 'initiated'. BD is the correct pair. Option B is the right answer.
110) Consumers everywhere welcome a lowering of import

________________ because it brings ___________ into their shops they could
only dream of before.
A. readings D. processes
B. arcs E. products
C. barriers F. passengers
a) CD
b) AE
c) CE
d) AF
e) BD
Correct Choice : c
Solution :
The sentence talks about easing import. 'Barriers' is the suitable word here,
indicating 'what' is to be lowered. 'Products' is the correct fit for the second
blank, answering 'what' is it that will be brought into the shops, which were
unavailable before. CE is the correct pair. Option C is the right answer.
111) India liberalised imports in the 1990s and Indian industries have
_______________ greatly since then from the variety of machines available to
them from ___________ the world.
A. benefited D. rest
B. spoiled E. including
C. cured F. around
a) AF
b) CD
c) BE
d) AE
e) CD
Correct Choice : a
Solution :
The sentence tells us that India liberalised imports and a variety of machines
became available to them. 'Benefited' is the word that conveys the required
meaning here and hence can fit in the first blank. 'Around' is the correct
word for the second blank, indicating that machines were available from all
parts of the world after liberalisation. AF is the correct pair. Option A is the
right answer.
(109-112)In the question below, a sentence is given with two blanks in it. Six
112) Australian Defence Minister Linda Reynolds said that while the
____________for the new American missile bases were not yet known,
Australia would not be one of__________.
A. barns D. spins
B. locations E. cause
C. special F. them
a) CD
b) AE
c) BF
d) AD
e) CE
Correct Choice : c
Solution :
Observing the options, 'locations' is the suitable word for the first blank, as
missile bases are supposed to be situated there. 'Them' is the correct word
for second blank, as the minister says that Australia will not host a base. BF
is the correct pair. Option C is the right answer.
Reading Comprehension
Level-Difficult
(113-118) Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given thereof:
The borders of (A) viability of a particular process are often only as restrictive
as the technology on which it rides. In some cases, as science advances, the
elastic borders of viability will weave out to accommodate much more than
they did in the past. The Centre’s move to extend the limit of medical
termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks is a (B) sagacious recognition of this,
and needs to be feted. The extension is significant, the government reasoned,
because in the first five months of pregnancy, some women realise the need
for an abortion very late. Usually, the foetal anomaly scan is done during the
20th-21st week of pregnancy. If there is a delay in doing this scan, and it reveals
a lethal anomaly in the foetus, 20 weeks is limiting. even leading to the death
of the mother (p) / has also spurred a cottage industry of places (q) / providing
unsafe abortion services (r) / obstetricians argue that this (s). When women
take the legal route to get formal permission for termination after 20 weeks,
the ____ (C) ____ is often frustrating and stressful for a mother already
distressed by the bad news regarding her baby. The extension of limit would
ease the process for these women, allowing the mainstream system itself to
take care of them, delivering quality medical attention.
The question of abortion needs ____ (I) ____ on the basis of human rights, the
principles of solid science, and ____ (II) ____ advancements in technology. A
key ____ (III) ____ legality governing abortions has always been the ‘viability’
of the foetus. This indicates, in human gestation, the period from which a
foetus is capable of living outside the womb. As technology improves, with
infrastructure upgradation, and with skilful professionals driving medical care,
this ‘viability’ naturally improves. Ultimately, nations will have to decide the
outer limit also based on the capacity of their health systems to deliver care
without danger to the life of the mother.
113) Which of the following words can replace the word given in bold near
(A) without changing the meaning of the sentence?
a. practically
b. legality
c. experimentality
d. feasibility
e. applicable
Correct Choice: d
Explanation:
Out of all the options, ‘experimentality’ is no word in dictionaries.
The word ‘viability’ is a noun and in the given option only ‘feasibility’ is a noun
and similar in meaning to ‘viability’.
Option (D) is correct.

114) What could be the best possible meaning of the word (B) sagacious?
a. Showing good gesture

b. Indication of respect for women empowerment
c. Wise decision
d. Liberal behaviour
e. Purely guessed
Correct Choice: c
Explanation:
Meaning of sagacious is ‘intelligent judgement’ which is close to ‘wise

decision’.
Option (C) is correct.
115) Read the italicized sentence in the passage which is divided into four
parts, (p), (q), (r), and (s). You have to rearrange these four parts to make a
contextually and grammatically meaningful sentence. If the sentence is
correct in its present form, mark (E) as your answer i.e. 'No rearrangement
required’.
a.pqsr
b.sqrp
c.rqsp
d.prsq
e. No rearrangement required
Correct Choice: b
Explanation:
By reading all the sentences carefully, we find that (s) shall form the beginning
of the sentence, as a sentence does not begin with words like 'has', 'providing',
or 'even.'
As (s) part ends with 'this', (q) part shall follow it as it begins with 'has', so as to
make the sentence grammatically correct.
We also find that (q) and (r) are more or less in grammatical fashion.
Thus, we get:
“Obstetricians argue that this (s) / has also spurred a cottage industry of places
(q) / providing unsafe abortion services (r) ”
This is meaningful.
Now putting (p) in the end, we get:
“obstetricians argue that this (s) / has also spurred a cottage industry of places
(q) / providing unsafe abortion services (r) / even leading to the death of the
mother (p)”
Order is (s) (q) (r) (p).
The sentence is meaningful and grammatically correct also.

Option (B) is correct.
116) Which of the following word can fill the blank at (C)?
a.work
b.stamina
c.boaring
d. vengeance
e.tediousness
Correct Choice : e
Explanation:
Vengeance - refers to revenge or punishment inflicted for a wrong deed.
Stamina - refers to ability to sustain prolonged physical or mental effort.
Only option C and E make sense if we figure out the meaning of the given
words in the options with respect to the sentence.
Boring would not be the right word as the sentence talks about pregnant
women’s headache while having an abortion. Also, using the word 'boring' will
make the sentence grammatically incorrect.
Tediousness is the best word. It means a lot of effort in the work; or it refers to
something that takes too long or is too slow and tiresome. A pregnant woman
needs rest during these days and if she has to think about abortion formalities
during pregnancy then it could make her stressful.
Option (E) is correct.
117) In the question below three phrases are given which must be filled in
the positions given at (I), (II), and (III) in the passage. From the options given
below, choose the correct order of phrases that should be filled in the
positions given:
(A) In step with
(B) To be decided
(C) Aspect of the
a.BAC
b.CAB
c.BCA
d.CBA
e.ABC
Correct Choice : a
Explanation:
Phrase-B fits only in (I) as per the meaning and grammar rules. The sentence
then becomes: The question of abortion needs (I) to be decided on the basis of
humanrights,
After it, we see phrase-A fits well in (II), the correct part of the sentence: the
principles of solid science, and (II) in step with advancements in technology.
Phrase-C left for (III), we get: A key (III) aspect of the legality governing
abortions has always been the ‘viability’ of the foetus.
Order is BAC.
Option (A) is correct.
118) Which of the following options indicates the opinion of the author with
respect to the passage?
a. The author welcomes the abortion rights for women but when they are not
married.
b. According to author, abortion is not a bad thing according to science and
technology.
c. The author is against the government’s decision on reducing the time period
before which abortion could be done.
d. The author believes that with improving infrastructure, cases of abortion will
increase.
e. None of the above is author’s opinion.
Correct Choice: e
Explanation:
There is no mention of abortion of married/unmarried women. So first option

is incorrect
Author says “The question of abortion needs to be decided on the basis of

human rights, the principles of solid science, and in step with advancements in
technology.”
He did not say whether abortion is good or bad. He meant that in the purview
of science and technology, abortion could be done. Thus option B is also
incorrect.
Option C is incorrect since the governing has increased the time period before
which an abortion can be done.
Option D is also incorrect with respect to the essence of the passage.
Option (E) is correct.
Error Location
Level-Easy
Direction: In each of the following questions, three sentences are given, each
divided into three parts. These parts may or may not contain an error. Find
out the sentence/s with error in more than one part and choose your
response accordingly.
I. It is doing all it can ensure the result but with / little thought to the ethnic
and communal fault / lines it is aiding.
II. Whether it resonates with the Constitutional theme / of negating social

discrimination to create / equal opportunities for all is a moot issue.
III. When the leader of the world’s most powerful nation / is afflicted by
victimhood, there is not / much anyone can do.
(119-121) Direction: In each of the following questions, three sentences are

given, each divided into three parts. These parts may or may not contain an
error. Find out the sentence/s with error in more than one part and choose
your response accordingly.
I. It is doing all it can ensure the result but with / little thought to the ethnic
and communal fault / lines it is aiding.
II. Whether it resonates with the Constitutional theme / of negating social
discrimination to create / equal opportunities for all is a moot issue.
III. When the leader of the world’s most powerful nation / is afflicted by
victimhood, there is not / much anyone can do.
a. Both II and III

b. Only III
c. Both I and III
d. Only II
e. None of the above
Correct Choice : e
Explanation:
There is no error in any of the given statements and they all are correct, both
grammatically and contextually. Therefore, no change is required in any part of
the given statement.
This makes option E the correct choice among the given options.
(119-121) Direction: In each of the following questions, three sentences are

I. Off late, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been taking a / hardly line on
enforcing deadlines for the / promoters of private sector banks to dilute their
ownership stakes.
II. These instances suggest that the RBI may have barking up / the wrong tree
in focusing so much in / dispersed ownership to ensure bank governance.
III. The clamour in quotas / stem from the inadequate supply / of quality
education and jobs.
a. Both II and III

b. Both I and III
c. Both I and II
d. All I, II and III
Correct Choice : d
Explanation:
Statement I has errors in more than one part of the statement. The first part
has an error since of late should have been used here in order to
imply recent. There is another error in the second part of the sentence
as hard should have been used here. Hardly refers to rarely.
The correct statement would be: Of late, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
been taking a hard line on enforcing deadlines for the promoters of private
sector banks to dilute their ownership stakes.
Statement II has errors in more than one part of the sentence. The first part
has an error as the verb has not been used correctly in this part of the
Sentence. Here it should have been may be barking and not may have
barking. There is another error in the second part of the sentence also
since focus on should be used and not focused in.
The correct statement would be: These instances suggest that the RBI may be
barking up the wrong tree in focusing so much on dispersed ownership to
ensure bank governance.
Statement III also has errors in more than one part of the sentence. There is an
Error in the use of preposition in the first part of the statement since clamour
For should have been used and not clamour in. There is another error in the
Second part of the statement since the subject verb agreement is not proper
Here and it should have been stems in this part of the sentence.
The correct statement would be: The clamour for quotas stems from the
Inadequate supply of quality education and jobs.
This makes option D the correct choice among the given options.
(119-121). Direction: in each of the following questions, three sentences are

I. While the Ayodhya Constitution bench is significant in this regard, / it is the

first time that there is no
minority / judge in a bench hearing a significant matter.
II. Re-gasification is a process that converts liquefied / natural gas at −162°C
temperature back to / natural
gas at atmospheric temperature.
III. Students and State government employees have a reason / to cheer this
Pongal season, as the State
Government / on Tuesday announced a holiday on January 14.
a. Both II and III
b. Both I and II
c. Both I and III
d. Only II
Correct Choice : e
Explanation:
All the given statements are grammatically and contextually correct. There is
no error in any of the given statements and therefore no correction is required
in any part of the statement.
This makes option E the correct choice among the given options.
Cloze Test
Level-Moderate
(122-126) Directions: In the given passage, some words are missing. Against each
blank, five pairs of words are suggested, one of which fits the blank grammatically
and contextually. Choose the option providing the correct pair of words that fit into
the blanks.
Initially the 1918 pandemic set off few alarms, chiefly because in most places it
rarely killed, despite the ___(A)___ numbers of people infected. Doctors in the British
Grand Fleet, for example, admitted 10,313 sailors to sick bay in May and June, but
only 4 died. It had hit both warring armies in France in April, but troops ___(B)___ it
as “three-day fever.” The only attention it got came when it swept through Spain, and
sickened the king; the press in Spain, which was not at war, wrote ___(C)___ about
the disease, unlike the censored press in warring countries, including the United
States. Hence it became known as “Spanish flu.” By June influenza reached from
Algeria to New Zealand. Still, a 1927 study concluded, “In many parts of the world
the first wave either was so faint as to be hardly ___(D)___ or was altogether
lacking...and was everywhere of a mild form.” Some experts argued that it was too
mild to be influenza. Yet there were warnings, ___(E)___ ones. Though few died in
the spring, those who did were often healthy young adults—people whom influenza
rarely kills. Here and there, local outbreaks were not so mild. At one French Army
post of 1,018 soldiers, 688 were hospitalized and 49 died—5 percent of that
population of young men, dead. And some deaths in the first wave were overlooked
because they were misdiagnosed, often as meningitis.
122) (A)
a boundless-evasive
b challenging-tremendous
c immeasurable-convenient
d enormous-massive
e extensive-vastly
Correct Choice : d
Solution
We need an adjective here to modify the noun NUMBERS. Both ENORMOUS
and MASSIVE will fit here as the sentence tells us how the pandemic did not
cause much alarm despite having infected huge numbers of people. Thus, (d) is
the right answer.
A - BOUNDLESS (limitless) will fit here; evasive - avoidant. B: TREMENDOUS
(huge) will fit here; Challenging - difficult. C: IMMEASURABLE (limitless) will fit
here; convenient - easy and favourable. E: EXTENSIVE (vast) will fit here;
VASTLY is an adverb.
the blanks.
123) (B)
a spurned-decline
b dismissed-rejected
c disregarded-dejected
d banished-exiled
e repudiated-denigrated
Correct Choice : b
Solution
We need a verb here to link the subject and the object. DISMISSED and
REJECTED will fit here as the sentence tells us how the troops ignored the
disease as “three-day fever”. Thus, (b) is the right answer.
A: SPURNED (rejected) will fit here; DECLINE is a base form verb. C:
DISREGARDED will fit here; dejected (adjective) - unhappy. D: BANISHED
(rejected) will fit here; exiled - ostracized. E: REPUDIATED (rejected) will fit
here; denigrated - criticised.
the blanks.
124) (C)
A -at length-in depth
B -incessant-in detail
C -endlessly-exhausting
D -exhaustively-continuation
E -constantly-set off
Correct Choice : a
Solution
We need an adverb or an adverbial phrase to modify the verb WROTE. AT
LENGTH and IN DEPTH will fit here, as the sentence tells us how the Spanish
press wrote in detail about the disease. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
B: IN DETAIL will fit here; INCESSANT (constant) is an adjective. C: ENDLESSLY is
a verb; exhausting - tiring. D: EXHAUSTIVELY (in detail) will fit here;
CONTINUATION is a noun. E: CONSTANTLY will fit here; set off - give rise to.
the blanks.
125) (D)
A -distinction-distinguish
B -perceptible-discernible
C -evidence-tangible
D -detectable-observant
E -observable-noticeably
Correct Choice : b
Solution
We need an adjective here to be modified by the adverb HARDLY. PERCEPTIBLE
and DISCERNIBLE will fit here, as the sentence tells us how the first wave of the
disease was so faint that it was hardly noticeable. Thus, (b) is the right answer.
A: DISTINCTION (difference) is a noun; DISTINGUISH (verb) - contrast. C:
EVIDENCE (proof) is a noun; TANGIBLE will fit here. D: DETECTABLE will fit here;
observant - alert; watchful. E: OBSERVABLE will fit here; NOTICEABLY is an
adverb.
the blanks.
126) (E)
A -menacing-threaten
B -direly-unpromising
C -ominous-sinister
D -onerous-grave
E -portentous-prolific
Correct Choice : c
Solution
We need an adjective here to modify the noun ONES. OMINOUS and SINISTER
will fit here; as the sentence tells us how there were serious warnings about
the disease. Thus, (c) is the right answer.
A: MENACING will fit here; THREATEN is a verb. B: UNPROMISING will fit here;
DIRELY is a adverb. D: GRAVE (unpleasant) will fit here; Onerous - tedious. E:
PORTENTOUS (predictive) will fit here; Prolific - plentiful.
Column1&Column2
Level- Easy
(127-131) Direction: In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences
are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of
first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of
each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed
are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your
answer.
a.A-D
b.C-D
c.C-F
d.B-D
e.B-E
Correct Choice : c
Solution:
D is grammatically incorrect (added – past tense; talk – present tense) and

hence is ineligible for joining with other parts. This negates options A, B and D.
B cannot join with E as ‘them’ is used as a pronoun for objects, making option E
incorrect.
C can correctly join with F. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
answer.
a.A-D, A-E and A-F
b.B-D, B-E and B-F
c.C-D, C-E and C-F
d.A-D, B-E and C-F
e.B-F
Correct Choice : a
Solution:
In column I part A talks about an ultimatum which is given in case of

dissatisfaction regarding something. Part B talks about the necessity of an
assistant. Part C talks about how an attorney wants to rush a process because
of her client. If we observe column II we can see that all three segments are
regarding the repaving of streets and the sentences are structured to portray
the dissatisfaction regarding the same. Thus, all three parts in column II can
finish part A.
This makes option A the correct answer.
answer.
a.A-E and C-D
b.A-E, B-F and C-D
c.B-F and C-D
d.A-F, B-D and C-E
e.A-D and C-F
Correct Choice : b
Solution:
Part A talks about a document on food and so should join with E, which talks
about the location of recipes included. Part B talks about what we generally
dwell on and is further supported by F which states what we forget to
celebrate. Part C describes a written account and is correctly joined with D,
which describes the account further.
Thus, option B lists the correct sequence, making it the correct answer.
answer.
a.A-E and C-D
b.A-E, B-F and C-D
c.B-F and C-E
d.A-F, B-D and C-E
e.A-D and C-F
Correct Choice : c
Solution:
Part A should join with part D contextually as ‘apathetic’ means showing or

feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern. But grammatically it is incorrect as
‘were’ is used for third person plural and ‘public’ is singular.
B should join with F, as it means that a theory was certified by research which
pleased the doctors. C should join with E as it means the news report caused a
reaction among the listeners. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
Reading Comprehension
Level- Moderate
(131-136) Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of these.
For companies trying to amp up their sustainability profiles, there’s no lack of
challenges: from material sourcing to water consumption, electricity use to
carbon production, every sustainability issue is a moving part, one of many
interconnected concerns. A new calculator coming out in June aims to clarify
the process and make it easier for companies to identify the economic and
environmental impacts of every factor – and adjust their operations
accordingly. “We use existing company data to calculate greenhouse gas
emissions, water and energy consumption, as well as solid waste,” says Sally
Paridis, CEO of New York consulting firm CoClear, which developed the
calculator in collaboration with Columbia University. “We also track the
company cost associated with these metrics, making it easier to identify
efficiency opportunities.”
The calculator can analyze a single product, a brand or a company’s entire
portfolio, and can quickly show users the impact of switching to alternate
ingredients or different packaging. “We can run an analysis of the difference
that a substitute would have, both financially and environmentally, on the
product life cycle,” Paridis says. “If they implement the strategy, we track the
annual performance to show increases or decreases in efficiency. The CoClear
calculator isn’t the first tool aimed at measuring companies’ environmental
impacts. Cool Farm Alliance’s Cool Farm Tool – developed in cooperation with
Unilever, the University of Aberdeen and the Sustainable Food Lab – is
designed to help growers reduce their greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.
Another application, CoolClimate, created by researchers at University of
California, Berkeley, helps small businesses to assess their carbon footprints.
131. What is passage about?
a.Impact over the environment by the different companies ways to improve

their sustainability profiles.
b.Different challenges like material sourcing, water consumption electricity,

carbon production etc. which impede the sustainability profiles of the
companies.
c.The companies' data that can be used effectively to calculate greenhouse gas
emissions and carbon production etc.
d.A calculator that can help to show the users the impact of switching to
alternate ingredients or different packaging.
e.The analysis of the different substitute and its effect on the product life cycle
both financially and environmentally.
Correct Choice : a
Solution:
The passage discusses about the environmental impact by the companies
which are trying to improve their sustainability profiles without compromising
the efficiency but willing to change their operations accordingly. And for that a
calculator is devised which will help them to identify the economic and
environmental impacts of every factor. Thus, the passage is about the
environmental impact which is the crux of the passage and rest of the things
revolve around it.
(131-136)Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of these.
132. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

1) Small businesses, the carbon production of which, also have significant
impact on the environment, will be helped by the application created by Cool
Climate.
2) The efficacy of the calculator is not only extended to a single product or a
brand but also to a company's entire portfolio.
3) The identification of economic and environmental impact will be thwarted
by the process aided by calculator.
a.Only 2
b.Only 3
c.Both 2 and 3
d.Both 1 and 2
e.Both 1 and 3
Correct Choice : d
Solution:
Statement 1 is correct as the last sentence of the last paragraph mentions
"Another application, CoolClimate, created by researchers at University of
California, Berkeley, helps small businesses to assess their carbon footprints."
thus, the statement 1 can be inferred from the last sentence.
statement 2 is correct as well which can be validated from the first sentence of
the second paragraph. i.e. "The calculator can analyze a single product, a brand
or a company’s entire portfolio, and can quickly show users the impact of
switching to alternate ingredients or different packaging. "
Statement 3 is incorrect as nowhere in the passage it is written that economic
and environmental impact will be hindered. the correct statement can be
inferred from this statement "A new calculator coming out in June aims to
clarify the process and make it easier for companies to identify the economic
and environmental impacts of every factor ".
133. What does the author mean when he says/she says, "every sustainability
issue is a moving part, one of many interconnected concerns."
a.Sustainability issues moves very fast along with the other related concerns.
b.Sustainability issues being one of the paramount concern need to move in

order to interconnect with one another.
c.Different sustainability issues which depend on number of environmental

factors keep on changing frequently, so does the other issues which are
interconnected to one another.
d.Sustainability cannot be constant thus it need to be kept moving to maintain

the nexus between other related concerns.
e.None of these.
Correct Choice :c
Solution:
The most appropriate option is C where it is conspicuously stated that
concerns like carbon production, electricity water consumption can't be
constant thus they keep on changing. Thus, in nutshell it makes the
sustainability issue a moving part.
134. Which among the following is true with respect to the passage?
a.Challenges does not have any effect on the sustainability profiles of the
companies.
b.Calculator is designed in such a way that it can figure out ways to reduce the
greenhouse gas emissions and carbon footprints and thus, for that no previous
data is required.
c.Implementation of the proposed idea of calculating the metrics will help to

acknowledge the viable opportunities. **
d.This sort of calculator, the objective of which is to measure environmental

impacts is first device devised so far in this sector.
e.Unilever and Co-clear has designed an application to assess the carbon

footprints.
Correct Choice : c
Solution:
Option C is the only correct answer. Refer to the first paragraph last sentence
i.e. “We also track the company cost associated with these metrics, making it
easier to identify efficiency opportunities.” which clearly shows that the cost
associated with the metrics such as greenhouse gas emissions, water and
energy consumption, as well as solid waste can be tracked which will facilitate
the identification of the efficient opportunities. All other options are incorrect
as per the passage.
135. Which of the following words is similar in meaning "to amp up" as used in
the passage?
a.Eulogize
b.Develop
c.Glorify
d.Lionize
e.Increase
Correct Choice : e
Solution:
the sentence using the word intends to convey that companies have to face a
lot of challenges in a pursuit of increasing their sustainability profiles. option E
is the correct answer.
to eulogize means to praise highly in speech or writing.
to lionize means to treat as a celebrity.
136. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning "to reduce” as used
in the passage.
a.to snake
b.to buffalo
c.to catcall
d.to mushroom
e.to badger
Correct Choice : b
Solution:
Reduce means to make something smaller or less in amount, degree, or size.
to mushroom means to increase, spread, or develop rapidly.
to snake means to move or extend with the twisting motion of a snake.
to buffalo means to overawe or intimidate (someone) or to baffle someone.
to badger means to pester someone.
STARTERS
Level-Easy
137. Select the phrase/connector (STARTERS) from the given three options
which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given
below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.
(I) The term was included in the statement of objects when the Bill was
introduced in Parliament
(II) There is no mention of ‘persecuted minorities’ in the Citizenship
Amendment Act.
(i) Owing to the Citizenship Amendment Act…
(ii) Though there is no mention….
(iii) As the term was included in….
a Only (ii)
b Only (i)
c Both (ii) and (iii)
d All (i), (ii) and (iii)
e None of these
Correct Choice : a
Solution: From the given starters, only (ii) can be used to connect the given
sentences to make a meaningful sentence. The sentence thus formed will be:
Though there is no mention of ‘persecuted minorities’ in the Citizenship
Amendment Act, the term was included in the statement of objects when the
Bill was introduced in Parliament. Hence, the correct answer choice would be
option (a)
Level-Easy
(I) On Republic Day, thieves managed to sneak into high-security areas,

including enclosures, and stole more than 40 mobile phones from visitors.
(II) 4000 police personnel were deployed at the India Gate and Rajpath area on
Republic Day
(i) Albeit thieves managed to….
(ii) Despite deployment of 4000 police …..
(iii) Although 4000 police personnel…
a Only (ii)
b Only (i)
e None of these
Correct Choice : c
Solution: From the given starters, (ii) and (iii) can be used to connect the given
sentences to make sentences which are both meaningful and grammatically
correct. The sentence thus formed are:
(i) Despite deployment of 4000 police personnel on Republic Day thieves
managed to sneak into high-security areas, including enclosures, and stole
more than 40 mobile phones from visitors.
(ii) Although 4000 police personnel were deployed on Republic Day thieves
managed to sneak into high-security areas, including enclosures, and stole
more than 40 mobile phones from visitors.
Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (c)
Level-Easy
(I) President approved the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Amendment
Bill prohibiting the opening and running of hookah bars in Rajasthan.
(II) Voluntary groups working for tobacco control here have called for a ban on
surrogate advertising of tobacco products.
(i) Subjected to the working of tobacco….
(ii) After the Presidential assent to the Cigarettes…
(iii) Hitherto President approved Cigarettes…
a Only (ii)
b Only (i)
e None of these
Correct Choice : c
Solution: From the given starters, (ii) and (iii) can be used to connect the given
sentences to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The
sentences thus formed are:
(i) After the Presidential assent to the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products
Amendment Bill prohibiting the opening and running of hookah bars in
Rajasthan, voluntary groups working for tobacco control here have called for a
ban on surrogate advertising of tobacco products.
(ii) Hitherto President approved Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products
Amendment Bill prohibiting the opening and running of hookah bars in
Rajasthan, voluntary groups working for tobacco control here have called for a
ban on surrogate advertising of tobacco products.
Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (c).
Level-Easy
(I) The West Bengal Assembly passed a resolution urging the Union
government to repeal the CAA.
(II) West Bengal confront the centre on the issue of CAA, making the state the
fourth, after Kerala, Punjab and Rajasthan.
(i) Making the state fourth….
(ii) West Bengal Assembly passed….
(iii) Confronting the centre on the issue….
a Only (ii)
b Only (i)
e None of these
Correct Choice: d
Solution: From the given starters, all can be used to connect the given
sentences to make meaningful sentences. The sentences thus formed are:
(i) Making the state fourth, after Kerala, Punjab and Rajasthan, West Bengal
Assembly passed a resolution urging the Union government to repeal the CAA.
(ii) West Bengal Assembly passed a resolution urging the Union government to
repeal the CAA, making the state the fourth, after Kerala, Punjab and
Rajasthan.
(iii) Confronting the centre on the issue of CAA, West Bengal Assembly passed
a resolution urging the Union government to repeal the CAA, making the state
the fourth, after Kerala, Punjab and Rajasthan.
Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (d)
General/Financial Awareness
141. Which organization was awarded the "Silver" for Excellence in

Government Process re-engineering for digital transformation for the year
2019-20? (Current Affairs)
a) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
b) National Informatics Centre
c) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
d) Election Commission
e) Union Public Service Commission
Correct Choice : d
Solution :
The Election Commission of India has been awarded "Silver" for Excellence
in Government Process re-engineering for digital transformation for the year
2019-20 from Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
(DARPG), Government of India.
The award seeks to recognize the projects that involved analysis and re-
design of workflow and which resulted in improvement in outcomes related
to efficiency, effectiveness of process, cost, quality, service delivery or a
combination of these.
The award was presented during the 23rd National Conference on e-

Governance February 7-8, 2020 at Mumbai.
142. Which ministry, recently launched the "Apiary on Wheels" initiative to

achieve National Honey Mission? (Current Affairs)
a) Ministry of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry
b) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
e) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises launched "Apiary on

Wheels'. It is a unique concept framed by Khadi and Village Industries
Commission. The main aim of "Apiary on Wheels" is to make migration easy.
It is a platform to carry 20 Bee Boxes.
The main aim of "Apiary on Wheels" is to make migration easy. Bee keeping
involves laborious and mental challenges such a placing the bee boxes in
strategic positions, migrating the bee boxes and fulfil the nourishment
needs of the bees.
143. Which of the institutions have been named after former Union minister
Sushma Swaraj?(Current Affairs)
a) Pravasi Bharatiya Kendra
b) Ministry of External Affairs Library
c) Foreign Service Institute
d) Both A & B
e) Both A & C
Correct Choice : e
Solution :
Pravasi Bharatiya Kendra, a cultural centre reflecting India's connect with its
diaspora, was renamed Sushma Swaraj Bhavan in honour of the late foreign
minister. Foreign Service Institute has also been renamed the Sushma Swaraj
Institute of Foreign Service. Current Minister of External Affairs is
Subrahmanyam Jaishankar.
144. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is located
at? (Stock G.K)
a) Vienna, Austria
b) Paris, France
c) London, UK
d) Brussels, Belgium
e) Montreal, Canada
Correct Choice : a
Solution :
The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is located

at Vienna, Austria.
Paris, France- Organisation for Economic Cooperation &Development

(OECD);
London, UK- International Maritime Organisation (IMO);
Brussels, Belgium- North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO);
Montreal, Canada- World Anti-Doping Agency.
145.The headquarters of Asian Development Bank is Located at?( Current

Affairs)
a) Vienna, Austria
b) Paris, France
c) London, UK
d) Brussels, Belgium
e) Manila, Philippines
Correct Choice : e
Solution :
The headquarters of International Asian Development Bank is located

at Manila Philippiness.
Paris, France- Organisation for Economic Cooperation &Development

(OECD);
London, UK- International Maritime Organisation (IMO);
Brussels, Belgium- North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO);
Montreal, Canada- World Anti-Doping Agency.
146.'Destination North East' Festival was, recently held in which of the

following Indian cities?(Current Affairs)
a) Varanasi
b) Delhi
c) Indore
d) Chandigarh
e) Lucknow
Correct Choice : a
Solution :
Jitendra Singh inaugurated the 'Destination North East' Festival in Varanasi,

UP on 23rd Nov 2019. The festival was organised by the Ministry of
Development of North Eastern Region. Previous editions of festival were
held in Delhi & Chandigarh.
147. RBI in December 2019 released the issue of the Financial Stability
Report.( Banking)
a) 18th
b) 20th
c) 31st
d) 9th
e) None of these
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
RBI has released the 20th issue of the FSR. It says that the global economy
confronted a number of uncertainties that leads to significant deceleration in
growth. It also discusses issues relating to the development and regulation of
the financial sector.
148. Which state Government in January 2020, signed a MOU with the
representatives of German firm, KFW on Zero Budget Natural
Farming?(Current Affairs)
a) Telangana
b) Karnataka
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Andhra Pradesh
e) Uttarakhand
Correct Choice : d
Solution :
Andhra Pradesh Government has signed a MOU with the representatives of

German firm, KFW on Zero Budget Natural Farming. Govt has taken a loan of
Rs 711 Cr out of the estimated amount of Rs 1015 Cr earmarked to be spent
towards the climate resilient, ZBNF. The agriculture department would work
as the nodal agency.
The YS Jaganmohan Reddy led-State government will spend Rs 304 crore on

the project, which is aimed to cover 2.39 lakh farmers in around 600 village
panchayats and promote natural farming, according to the State minister for
Agriculture, Kurasala Kannababu.
149. Valmiki tiger reserve is located in the Indian state of? (Stock G.K)
a) Bihar
b) Odisha
c) West Bengal
d) Uttarakhand
e) Assam
Correct Choice : a
Solution :
Valmiki Tiger Reserve forms the eastern most limit of the Himalayan Terai
forests in India and is the only tiger reserve of Bihar. Situated in the
Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone of the country, the forest has
combination of bhabar and terai tracts.
Recently the forest officials in West Champaran found a dead tigress lying in
the forest of Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR).
150.When is the World Science Day for Peace and Development?(Stock

G.K)
a) 25 April
b) 10 November
c) 19 January
d) 31 December
e) 7 February
Correct Choice : b
Solution :
Celebrated every 10 November, World Science Day for Peace and

Development highlights the significant role of science in society and the
need to engage the wider public in debates on emerging scientific issues.
The Day offers the opportunity to mobilize all actors around the topic of
science for peace and development - from government officials to the
media to school pupils.
· 2019 Theme: "Open science, leaving no one behind"
151.RBI can seek resolution of NBFCs having assets worth of at least Rs

________ under the, Corporate affairs ministry's latest notification regarding
insolvency law.(Banking)
a) Rs 100 Crores
b) Rs 600 Crores
c) Rs 400 Crores
d) Rs 800 Crores
e) Rs 500 Crores
Correct Choice : e
Solution :
The Reserve Bank can now seek resolution of non-banking financial

companies having assets worth of at least Rs 500 crore under the insolvency
law, a move that is likely to help in addressing woes in the NBFC sector.
After discussions with the central bank, the corporate affairs ministry issued
a notification specifying the categories of financial service providers (FSPs)
that can be taken up for resolution under the "generic framework" of the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.
152.Spain hosted the 25th UN Climate Change Conference. Which is the

currency of Spain?(Stock G.K )
a) Peso
b) Yuan
c) Kwanza
d) Dram
e) Euro
Correct Choice : e
Solution :
· Spain Capital-Madrid
· Currency-Euro
The 25th UN Climate Change Conference held in Madrid, Spain, from 2-13
December 2019. It featured the 25th session of the Conference of the
Parties (COP 25) to the United Nations Framework Convention to Combat
Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the 51st meetings of the UNFCCC subsidiary
bodies - the Subsidiary Body for Implementation (SBI 51) and the Subsidiary
Body for Scientific and Technological Advice (SBSTA 51).
153. Which of the following is not true regarding the newly launched "Instant
Digital Savings and Instant Fixed Deposit Account" of Ujjivan Small Finance
Bank?(Banking)
a) Customers need only Aadhaar Card & Pan Card to instantly open an
account through mobile phones
b) One can deposit up to a maximum amount of Rs. 1 Lakh in this

account
c) Additional deposits can be done by ensuring due full KYC in Ujjivan

SFB's respective branches
d) Savings Account is mandatory to open Instant FD facility to a

maximum of Rs. 1 Lakh
e) Six free transactions can be done on other bank ATMs every month
with Digital Savings Account
Correct Choice : d
Solution :
· Ujjivan Small Finance Bank launches Digital Savings Account along with
Fixed Deposit and Privilege Savings Account to offer distinctive banking and
digital services to its customers.
· Instant Savings Account will allow customers to instantly open and operate
a savings account through mobile phones or a computer with just two
documents - Aadhaar Card and Pan Card.
· One can deposit up to a maximum amount of Rs. 1 Lakh in this account and
additional deposits can be done by ensuring due full KYC in Ujjivan SFB's
respective branches.
· Instant FD can also be opened to a maximum of Rs. 1 Lakh without a
Savings Account.
· Customers will also enjoy unlimited free transaction on Ujjivan SFB ATM
and six free transactions on other bank ATMs every month with Digital
Savings Account.
154. Who is the head of the 10-member working group formed by IRDAI, to
suggest segment-wise ways and means improve loss prevention and loss
minimization in the general insurance industry?(Current Affairs)
a) Subhash Chandra Khuntia
b) G. R. Surya Kumar
c) T. L. Alamelu
d) V. V. N. Kiran Kumar Sarma
e) Pratibha Singh
Correct Choice : c
Solution :
A 10-member working group has been constituted by the IRDAI to suggest

segment-wise ways and means improve loss prevention and loss
minimization in the general insurance industry. IRDAI Member (Non-Life) T.
L. Alamelu will chair the group.
The move is aimed at all stakeholders working together towards a common

end on a common platform. Three months period is given to the group to
submit its report.
155.Who has been appointed as the new Managing Director of State Bank of
India?(Banking)
a) Rajnish Kumar
b) Dinesh Kumar Khara
c) Challa Sreenivasulu Setty
d) Mahender Kumar Garg
e) Ajit Kumar Saxena
Correct Choice : c
Solution :
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has approved the

appointed Challa Sreenivasulu Setty as the managing director of the State
Bank of India for a period of three years. He is currently serving as the deputy
managing director of the SBI.
Setty has been appointed as the MD of the SBI for a period of three years with
effect from the date of his taking over the charge of the post or until further
orders, whichever is earlier and which is extendable by 2 years or until further
orders, whichever is earlier, after review of his performance.
156. Which of the following policy rate and its definition is/are correctly
matched?(Stock Banking)
I. Bank Rate -Rate at which the central bank of a country lends money to
commercial banks
II. Repo Rate-Rate at which a nation's central bank lends money to domestic
banks, often in the form of very short-term loans
III. MSF Rate-Rate at which the Reserve Bank of India borrows funds from the
commercial banks
IV. Reverse Repo rate- Rate at which the scheduled banks can borrow funds
overnight from RBI against government securities
a) A & B
b) C & D
c) A, B & D
d) B, C & D
Correct Choice : e
Solution :
· Repo Rate -Rate at which the central bank of a country lends money to
commercial banks.
· Bank Rate-Rate at which a nation's central bank lends money to domestic

banks, often in the form of very short-term loans.
· Reverse Repo Rate-Rate at which the Reserve Bank of India borrows funds
from the commercial banks.
· MSF Rate- Rate at which the scheduled banks can borrow funds overnight
from RBI against government securities.
157. Which state has become the first state in the country to have 100% LPG
coverage?(Current Affairs)
a Himachal Pradesh
b Telangana
c Uttarakhand
d Chhattisgarh
e Odisha
Answer a
Solution
Himachal Pradesh became the first state in the country to have 100% LPG
(Liquefied Petroleum Gas) coverage due to the implementation of PMUY
(Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana) scheme.
158. Which financial institution has granted a sum of Rs 400.64 crore to the
Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?(Current Banking)
a RBI
b SIDBI
c NABARD
d SBI
e LIC
Answer-C
Solution
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD), an Apex
Development Financial Institution in India, has granted a sum of Rs 400.64
Crore to the Union Territory (UT) of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
159. First ‘National conference on Coastal Disaster Risk Reduction and

Resilience’ was organised in which Indian city?( Current Affairs)
a Chennai
b Mumbai
c New Delhi
d Jaipur
e Cuttack
Answer c
Solution
The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) organised first
‘National conference on Coastal Disaster Risk Reduction and Resilience
(CDRR&R) in Delhi. It is a one day conference. Union Minister of State for
Home Affairs, Shri Nityanand Rai presided over the valedictory session.
160. The 5th edition of bilateral air exercise “Indradhanush-V 2020” has
commenced at Air Force Station Hindan in Uttar Pradesh (UP) between the air
force of which of the following two countries? (Current Affairs)
a India and Singapore
b India and US
c India and Australia
d India and UK
e India and Bangladesh
Answer-d
Solution
The 5th edition of India-UK (United Kingdom) bilateral air exercise
“Indradhanush-V” 2020 between Indian Air Force (IAF) and British Royal Air
Forces (RAF) has commenced at Air Force Station Hindan in Uttar Pradesh (UP).
161. Reserve Bank of India has rejected the proposed merger of Indiabulls
Housing Finance with which of the following bank?(Current Banking)
a Lakshmi Vilas Bank
b Karur Vysya Bank
c Nainital Bank
d RBL Bank
e Federal Bank
Answer: a
Solution
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the merger of the
Indiabulls Housing Finance with Lakshmi Vilas Bank. The merged entity will be
called as Indiabulls Lakshmi Vilas Bank. (June, 2019)
Reserve Bank of India has rejected the proposed merger of Indiabulls Housing
Finance with Lakshmi Vilas Bank. (October, 2019)
162. What is the theme of Financial Literacy Week (FLW) 2020 conducted by
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?(Current Banking)
a Priority Sector Lending
b Farmers
c Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
d Home Loan
e Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
Answer-C
Solution
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is going to conduct the Financial Literacy Week
(FLW) 2020 from February 10 – February 14, 2020 based on the theme “Micro,
Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)”.
163. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel international airport is located at which
place?(Stock G.K)
a Ahmedabad, Gujarat
b Mumbai, Maharashtra
c Bangalore, Karnataka
d Pune, Maharashtra
e Agra, Uttar Pradesh
Answer a
Solution
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport is an international airport
serving the cities of Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar in Gujarat, India.
164. Name the winners of International Children’s Peace Prize for
2019.(Current Affair)
a Amika George and Jazz Jennings
b Divina Maloum and Emma Gonzalez
c Jazz Jennings and Greta Thunberg
d Greta Thunberg and Divina Maloum
e Yara Shahidi and Amika George
Answer: d
Solution
The international Organisation for the Defence of children’s rights KidsRights
Foundation will felicitate climate activist Greta Thunberg, aged 16, and peace
campaigner Divina Maloum, aged 14, with the 15th International Children’s
Peace Prize for 2019 on November 20, 2019 at a ceremony in The Hague,
Netherlands on World Children’s Day.
165. Which of the following has become the first non-life insurer in India to use
WhatsApp chatbot for services such as policy documents delivery, renewal
notices and claim intimation for its customers? (Financial Awareness)
a IFFCO Tokio General Insurance
b General Insurance Corporation
c Bharti AXA General Insurance
d HDFC Life Insurance co. ltd
e Max Life Insurance co. Ltd
Answer : c
Solution
Bharti AXA General Insurance has become the first non-life insurer in India to
use Whatsapp chatbot for entire services such as policy documents delivery,
renewal notices & claim intimation for its customers. It will soon start to sell
private cars, 2 wheelers & Travel insurance through Whatsapp.
166. The RBI has made it mandatory for banks to link all their new floating
rate loans to medium enterprises with benchmark effective from which
date?(Current Banking)
a August 1, 2020
b October 1, 2020
c January 1, 2020
d April 1, 2020
e June 1, 2020
Answer : d
Solution
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has ordered banks to link all their new floating
rate loans to medium enterprises with an external benchmark effective
from April 1, 2020 to strengthen monetary policy transmission.
Earlier, The RBI has made it mandatory for banks to link all new floating rate
personal or retail loans and floating rate loans to MSMEs to an external
benchmark effective October 1, 2019.
167. Which of the following has been awarded with the Golden Leaf Award at
the Tab Expo 2019?(Current Affair)
a Tobacco Board of Netherlands
b Tobacco Board of England
c Tobacco Board of India
d Tobacco Board of UAE
e Tobacco Board of Mauritius
Answer: c
Solution
The Tobacco Board of India has been awarded the 2019 Golden Leaf Award at
the Tab Expo 2019 event in Amsterdam, The Netherlands. The tobacco board
was awarded under ‘Most Impressive Public Service Initiative category for the
year 2019’ for initiating various sustainability (green) initiatives in Flue-Cured
Virginia (FCV) tobacco cultivation in India. The award received by Executive
Director of Tobacco Board, K. Sunitha.
168. Who is the writer of recently released book titled “Death; An Inside Story:
A book for all those who shall die”?(Current Affair)
a Devika Sethi
b Jaggi Vasudev
c Vikram Sampath
d Natarajan Chandrasekaran
e Roopa Pai
Answer: b
Solution
A book titled “Death; An Inside Story: A book for all those who shall die”
penned by Jaggi Vasudev, (known as Sadhguru) has been launched at the 26th
Maha Sivaratri celebrations at Isha Yoga Centre in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu
(TN).
169. The International Court of Justice is headquartered at which place?(Stock

G.K )
a Geneva
b Hague
c California
d Vienna
e New York
Answer: b
Solution
The International Court of Justice, also known as World Court, is the principal
judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). The ICJ's primary functions are to
settle international legal disputes submitted by states and give advisory
opinions on legal issues referred to it by the UN. Through its opinions and
rulings, it serves as a source of international law. It is headquartered in Hague,
Netherlands.
170.1st Khelo India Winter Games 2020 was held in which state/ UTs?(Current
Affairs)
a Arunachal Pradesh
b Uttrakhand
c Himachal Pradesh
d Union Territory of Ladakh
e Delhi
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Minister of State for Youth Affairs and Sports, Shri Kiren Rijiju
inaugurated the first-ever Khelo India Winter Games in the Union Territory of
Ladakh.
• Open Ice Hockey Championship, Figure Skating, Speed Skating will be the
three winter sports held during the winter games.
171. As per the RBI’s guidelines for 'on-tap' licensing of small finance banks,
what is the minimum experience required (in years) for any resident
individuals/professionals, singly or jointly, to set up SFBs?( Banking)
a 2 years
b 5 years
c 7 years
d 10 years
e 12 years
Answer: d
Solution:
● Resident individuals/professionals (Indian citizens), singly or jointly, each

having at least 10 years of experience in banking and finance at a senior level;
● And Companies and Societies in the private sector, that are owned and
controlled by residents (as defined in FEMA Regulations, as amended from
time to time), and having successful track record of running their businesses
for at least a period of five years, will be eligible as promoters to set up small
finance banks.
172. The Government of India (GoI) is to organize an Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Summit called RAISE 2020 in _______.(Current Affairs)
a Hyderabad
b Bengaluru
c Kochi
d New Delhi
e Lucknow
Answer-d
Solution:
• The Government of India (GoI) is to organize an Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Summit called RAISE 2020.
• RAISE stands for Responsible AI for Social Empowerment.
• The Summit is to be held in New Delhi between April 11 and 12, 2020.
173. As per the announcement made by the Union Finance Minister Nirmala
Sitharaman, regarding merging of public sector banks, Syndicate Bank will
merge with which of the following banks? (Banking)
a Punjab National Bank
b Canara Bank
c Union Bank of India
d Indian Bank
e Bank of Baroda
Answer-b
Solution:
* Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has announced a big

consolidation of public sector banks. Under the scheme of amalgamation, 10
public sector banks are to be merged into four banks.
* After the amalgamation, the total number of Public Sector Banks in the
country will come down to 12 from 27 banks.
* Canara Bank and Syndicate Bank are to be merged to become the 4th largest
public sector bank with business of Rs 15.2 lakh crore.
* Punjab National Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank of India
to be merged into one single bank, with business of Rs 17.95 trillion to make
India’s 2nd largest bank.
* Union Bank of India, Andhra Bank and Corporation Bank are to be merged to
become the 5th largest public sector bank with business of Rs 14.6 lakh crore.
* Indian Bank will be merged with Allahabad Bank to become the 7th largest
public sector bank with business of Rs 8.08 lakh crore.
174. Who will chair the Panel set up by Fifteenth Finance commission to
address issues related to Fiscal Policy for both Center and State?(Current
Affairs)
a A. N Jha
b Bimal Jalan
c Nandan Nilekani
d N.K. Singh
e Janak Raj
Answer: d
Solution:
• The Fifteenth Finance Commission will set up a panel to address issues

related to fiscal policy for both the Centre and the States
• Commission had also constituted a group on defence and internal security,

whose mandate will be ‘to examine whether a separate mechanism for funding
of defence and internal security ought to be set up, and if so, how such a
mechanism could be operationalised
• This group will be chaired by Mr. Singh with A.N. Jha, Member, Fifteenth
Finance Commission as well as Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs, Secretary,
Ministry of Defence and Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance as
members
175) As per the reports by NCRB, which of the following state has
registered maximum number of missing women in 2018?(Current Affairs)
a) Maharashtra
b) West Bengal
c) Jharkhand
d) Uttar Pradesh
e) None of these
Correct Choice: a
Explanation:
According to the NCRB report, the three States where the highest number of
women went missing in the three years are Maharashtra, West Bengal and
Madhya Pradesh. In 2016, as many as 28,316 women went missing in
Maharashtra, followed by 29,279 in the year 2017, and 33,964 in 2018.
Mumbai and Pune recorded the highest number of such incidents, with 4,718
and 5,201 women going missing in 2017 and 2018, while in Pune, the number
of missing women for the same years was 2,576 and 2,504 respectively.
In the years 2016-18, a total of 63,407, 63,349 and 67,134 children were
reported to be missing across the country. The maximum number of missing
children reports were recorded in Maharashtra and West Bengal in the years
2016, 2017 and 2018.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
176) _____________is a bank led model which allows online interoperable

financial inclusion transaction at PoS (MicroATM) through the Business
correspondent(BC) of any bank using the Aadhaar authentication. (Stock
Banking)
a) Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)
b) Aadhar Enabled Payment System (AEPS)
C) Cheque Truncation System (CTS)
D) National Financial Switch (NFS)
E) None of these
Correct Choice: b
Explanation:
Aadhar Enabled Payment System (AEPS) is a bank led model which allows
online interoperable financial inclusion transaction at PoS (MicroATM) through
the Business correspondent(BC) of any bank using the Aadhaar authentication.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
177) IDRBT, training institution for bankers established by RBI is located

at __________. (Stock Banking)
a New Delhi
b Hyderabad
C Kolkata
D Nainital
E None of these
Correct Choice: b
Explanation:
The Institute for Development & Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) is

a unique institution exclusively focused on Banking Technology. Established by
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 1996, the Institution works at the
intersection of Banking and Technology. It is located in Hyderabad, India.

178) Most of the time we see the term 'PCA' is in newspapers. What is the
full form of 'PCA'?(Stock Banking)
a Preventive corrective action
b Prompt corrective action
C Protective corrective action
D Protective corrective account
E None of the above
Correct Choice: b
Explanation:
To ensure that banks don't go bust, RBI has put in place some trigger points to
assess, monitor, control and take corrective actions on banks which are weak
and troubled. The process or mechanism under which such actions are taken is
known as Prompt Corrective Action, or PCA.
179) Which of the following statements is not correct about UPI?(Stock

Banking)
a) It is developed by NPCI.
b) It is built over IMPS framework.
c) Aaadhar number can be used to transfer funds.
D) The upper limit per UPI transaction is Rs. 10 Lakh.
E) All of the above

Correct Choice: d
Explanation:
At present, the upper limit per UPI transaction is Rs.1 Lakh.
Hence, the statement given in option D is incorrect about UPI.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
180) The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA),

the regulator of the National Pension System (NPS), has increased the
minimum net worth criterion for pension fund managers to __________
from the ₹25 crore stipulated earlier.(Financial Awareness)
a ₹30 crore
b ₹40 crore
c ₹50 crore
d ₹60 crore
e None of these
Correct Choice: c
Explanation:
The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), the

regulator of the National Pension System (NPS), has doubled the minimum net
worth criterion for pension fund managers to ₹50 crore from the ₹25 crore
stipulated earlier. Existing pension fund managers must comply with this
requirement within such time as the PFRDA stipulates. This brings pension
funds on par with mutual funds which have to meet a minimum net worth
requirement of ₹50 crores, under SEBI rules.
"The amended pension guidelines pave the way for rediscovery of charges
which will help the pension sector to grow. PFRDA should get that actioned
quickly. All existing players will comply with the new guidelines in due course
of time," said Sumit Shukla, CEO, HDFC Pension Fund. At present pension
fund manager charges are capped at just 0.01% of the pension fund corpus, a
small fraction of mutual fund expense ratios which can go up to 2.25%.
The PFRDA notification, which was published in the Official Gazette on 4

February, also made provision for licenses to have indefinite validity. In other
words, licenses of pension fund managers will remain valid until cancelled by
the regulator.
Hence the correct option is c.

181) Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP)?(Stock G.K )
a Manila, Philippines
b Geneva, Switzerland
c Nairobi, Kenya
d Addis Ababa, Ethiopia
E None of these
Correct Choice : c
Explanation:
The headquarters of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is

located in Nairobi, Kenya.

182) _______________is the difference between all receipts and expenses in
both revenue and capital account of the government.(Financial Awareness)
a Revenue Deficit
b Budgetary Deficit
c Zero Budgeting
d Trade Gap
e Balance of payment problem
Correct choice: b
Explanation:
When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the Govt. of
India, both capital and revenue it is called Budgetary Deficit.
183) What does RBI regulate through Open Market Operation

Transactions?(Banking)
a Flow of Foreign Direct Investment
b Borrowing powers of the banks
C Inflation
d Liquidity in economy
E None of these
Correct Choice: d
Explanation:
Liquidity in economy is regulated by Reserve Bank of India through Open

Market Operation Transactions.
184) Which of the following is not Negotiable Instrument?(Banking)
a) Cheques
b) Bill of exchange
C) Promissory Note
d) All are Negotiable Instruments
e) All are not Negotiable Instruments
Correct Choice: d
Explanation:
A negotiable instrument is a document guaranteeing the payment of a specific

amount of money, either on demand, or at a set time, with the payer usually
named on the document.
Negotiable instruments are unconditional orders or promise to pay, and include

checks, drafts, bearer bonds, some certificates of deposit, promissory notes, and
bank notes (currency).

185) Financial Literacy includes the knowledge of making appropriate
decisions about personal finance such as( Financial Awareness)
a Investing
b Insurance
c Real estate
d Tax planning
e All of the above
Correct Choice: e
Explanation:
Financial literacy is the education and understanding of various financial areas.

This topic focuses on the ability to manage personal finance matters in an
efficient manner, and it includes the knowledge of making appropriate decisions
about personal finance such as investing, insurance, real estate, paying for
college, budgeting, retirement and tax planning.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.
186) Which of the following organizations provides credit history of the

borrowers?(Banking)
a) CIBIL
b) Credit rating agencies
c) FRBI
d) IRDA
e) None of these
Correct Choice: a
Explanation:
CIBIL provides credit history of the borrowers.
CIBIL Limited is a credit information company operating in India. It maintains

credit files on 600 million individuals and 32 million businesses.
187) Among the following, which is not a subsidiary of the RBI?(Banking)
a BRBNMPL
b NICL
C DICGC
D IFTAS
E None of these
Correct Choice: b
Explanation:
NICL is not a subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India.
National Insurance Company Limited is owned by Government of India.

188) Payment bank is restricted to holding a maximum balance of

_______________. (Banking)
a Rs. 100,000 per individual customer
b Rs. 200,000 per individual customer
C Rs. 50,000 per individual customer
D Rs. 60,000 per individual customer
E None of these
Correct Choice: a
Explanation:
Payment bank is restricted to holding a maximum balance of Rs. 100,000 per

individual customer.
189) Which one of the following forces has recently won Hockey India
Senior Women National Championship?(Current Affairs)
a Indo-Tibetan Border Police
b Border Security Force
c Sashastra Seema Bal
D Central Reserve Police Force
E None of these
Correct Choice: c
Explanation:
Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) emerged victorious in the final of 10th Hockey
India Senior Women National Championship 2020 (B Division) defeating Steel
Plant Sports Board (SPSB) 3-1 in a shootout here on Saturday after the scores
were level at 1-1 after regulation time.
The final was a hard-fought affair with both teams scoring a goal each in regular
time. Kumari Shailja Gautam (18') was the first to find the back of the net for
SPSB and give her team an important lead in the final, but halfway through the
third quarter, it was SSB's Ranjita Minj (38') who scored the equaliser which
took the match into the shootout.
190) Which of the following states has recently flagged off India’s 1st of its
kind first ‘fruit train’?(Current Affairs)
a Karnataka
b Tamil Nadu
C Maharashtra
d Andhra Pradesh
E None of these
Correct Choice: c
Explanation:
A ‘fruit train’, said to be the first of its kind in the country, was flagged off from
Tadipatri Railway Station in Anantapur district on Thursday afternoon, carrying
a load of 980 metric tonnes of locally grown bananas to the Jawaharlal Nehru
Port in Mumbai, from where the consignment will be exported to Iran.
Container Corporation of India Ltd. (CONCOR) Chief General Manager D.

Satyanarayana, A.P. Horticulture Commissioner Chiranjiv Chaudhary, Desai
Fruits Venture Founder Ajit Desai and Guntakal Divisional Railway Manager
Alok Tiwari formally flagged off the exclusive air-conditioned container rake in
the presence of Agriculture Minister Kurasala Kannababu.

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Quantitative Aptitude

1. What is the value of B?

Hence, C.P. of P = C.P. of Q = Rs. 4 lakhs

Hence, A = 1.25 * 8 lakhs, i.e., A = Rs. 10 lakhs

Time taken by Ashok = 800/75 = 10(2/3) hr

Time taken by Ram = 860/B hr

Now, average speed = (800 + 860)/(10.666 + B), i.e.,

(800 + 860)/[10.666 + (860/B)] = 66.4

Let the total work be 96 units.

So, in a day, Priya can work 1 unit.

From the given pattern of work, work done in 3 consecutive days = 3R + 1 +

Difference in total income = CD - C(D - 50), i.e., 50C = 3200

Now, 35% of 64(D - 50) = 7840, i.e., D = Rs. 400

Hence, in 34 days, average income = 0.85 * 64 * 400/34 = Rs. 640

Hence, E = Rs. 640

2. What is the value of E?

Hence, C.P. of P = C.P. of Q = Rs. 4 lakhs

Hence, A = 1.25 * 8 lakhs, i.e., A = Rs. 10 lakhs

Time taken by Ashok = 800/75 = 10(2/3) hr

Time taken by Ram = 860/B hr

(800 + 860)/[10.666 + (860/B)] = 66.4

Let the total work be 96 units.

So, in a day, Priya can work 1 unit.

From the given pattern of work, work done in 3 consecutive days = 3R + 1 +

Hence, C = 3*96/(5.25R + 1) days

Difference in total income = CD - C(D - 50), i.e., 50C = 3200

Now, 35% of 64(D - 50) = 7840, i.e., D = Rs. 400

Hence, in 34 days, average income = 0.85 * 64 * 400/34 = Rs. 640

Hence, E = Rs. 640

Hence, C.P. of P = C.P. of Q = Rs. 4 lakhs

Hence, A = 1.25 * 8 lakhs, i.e., A = Rs. 10 lakhs

Time taken by Ashok = 800/75 = 10(2/3) hr

Time taken by Ram = 860/B hr

Now, average speed = (800 + 860)/(10.666 + B), i.e.,

(800 + 860)/[10.666 + (860/B)] = 66.4

Let the total work be 96 units.

So, in a day, Priya can work 1 unit.

From the given pattern of work, work done in 3 consecutive days = 3R + 1 +

Hence, C = 3*96/(5.25R + 1) days

Difference in total income = CD - C(D - 50), i.e., 50C = 3200

Now, 35% of 64(D - 50) = 7840, i.e., D = Rs. 400

Hence, in 34 days, average income = 0.85 * 64 * 400/34 = Rs. 640

Hence, E = Rs. 640

Number of days required by Ram = 96/0.666 = 144 days

Hence, C.P. of P = C.P. of Q = Rs. 4 lakhs

Hence, A = 1.25 * 8 lakhs, i.e., A = Rs. 10 lakhs

Time taken by Ashok = 800/75 = 10(2/3) hr

Time taken by Ram = 860/B hr

Now, average speed = (800 + 860)/(10.666 + B), i.e.,

(800 + 860)/[10.666 + (860/B)] = 66.4

Let the total work be 96 units.

From the given pattern of work, work done in 3 consecutive days = 3R + 1 +

Hence, C = 3*96/(5.25R + 1) days

Difference in total income = CD - C(D - 50), i.e., 50C = 3200

Now, 35% of 64(D - 50) = 7840, i.e., D = Rs. 400

Hence, in 34 days, average income = 0.85 * 64 * 400/34 = Rs. 640

Hence, E = Rs. 640

15A + 3B - 2D = 15 * 10 + 3 * 60 - 2 * 400 = - 470

a) Rs. 1.2 lakhs

=> P = 325016100/325 = 16,000