Ajay Kumar Garg Engineering College, Ghaziabad

Department of CSE
Multiple Choice Questions
Subject Name/ Subject Code: Software Project Management (KOE-068)
Year/Semester: VI
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UNIT I - PROJECT EVALUATION AND PROJECT
PLANNING
Q1. In problem definition, the use of the project is
a. Clarified
b. Identified
c. Elaborated
d. Distinguished

Q2. The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks and resources,
identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets for a specific project is known as
… a. project management.
b. Software
c. Process
d. Activities

Q3) Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d) Avoiding costumer complaints.

Q4) Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project

management? a. Specification delays
b. Product competition
c. Testing
d. Staff turnover

Q5) You are working in Career Ride as a project manager. What will you do to minimize the
risk of software failure?
a. Request a large budget
b. You will increase the team size
c. Track progress
d. None of the above.

Q6) Boehm suggests an approach that addresses project objectives, milestones and schedules,
responsibilities, management and technical approaches and required resources, This principle is
called as ______.
a. W3HH principle
b. WHO principle
c. W5HH principle
d. None of the above.
Q7) Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four
P’s? a. People, performance, payment, product
b. People, product, process, project
c. People, product, performance, project
d. All of the above.
Q8) For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the phase the developers
decide a roadmap for project plan?
a. Software Design
b. System Analysis
c. Coding
d. Testing

Q9) Developing a technology is an example of

(a) Process
(b) Project
(c) Scope
(d) All of the above

Q10)) Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct
order
1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and
delivery a) 3-2-1-4
b) 1-2-3-4
c) 2-3-1-4
d) 4-3-2-1

Q11) Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

a) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
b) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
c) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
d) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer

Q12) Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability

Q13) Arrange the following steps to form a basic Engineering Process

Model. 1. Test 2. Design 3. Install 4. Specification 5. Manufacture 6.
Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

Q14) Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management

a) Risk Assessment
b) Risk Control
c) Risk Ranking
d) All of the above
Q15) Many organizations assert that using project management provides advantages, such
as ____.

a. lower profit margins

b. lower costs
c. less internal coordination
d. lower worker morale

16). ___ must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software
work. a) Project Managers
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End Users

17) Risk the combination of both the possibility of occurrence of adverse event and the impact
of such bad event. (True / False)
a) False
b) True

18. A ___ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same
requirement is implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
d) None of the above

19 ___ can take place at any time during the project, though the sooner the better. (Pick right
option)
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk management planning
c) Risk resolution
d) Risk prioritization

20. ACAT stands for ___.

a. Avoid, Control, Accept or Transfer
b.account,construct,accept or transfer
c.avoid,construct, accept or trasfer
d.none of them

21. The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting.What does SMART stand
for? a. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
b. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
c. suitable, measurable, actionable, reviewed, timely
d. standardized, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely

22) A ___ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same
requirement is implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
d) None of the above

Q23) __ can take place at any time during the project, though the sooner the better. (Pick right
option)
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk management planning
c) Risk resolution
d) Risk prioritization

Q24) _ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project
sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the
project.

a. Managers
b. Stakeholders
c. Directors
d. Citizens

Q25). Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to
complete the project successfully.
a. scope
b. quality
c. time
d. cost

Q26). Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs
for which it was undertaken.
a. cost
b. time
c. scope
d. quality

Q27). Project ____ management is concerned with making effective use of the people involved
with the project.
a. human resource
b. risk
c. communications
d. procurement

Q28). Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing
project information.
a. risk
b. procurement
c. communications
d. resource

Q29). What works on one project may not work on another, so it is essential for project
managers to continue to develop their knowledge and ____ in managing projects. a.
time
b. resources
c. funding
d. skills

Q30) "All project leaders use a shared road map, focusing on key business aspects of their
projects while integrating goals across all parts of the organization" describes the ____ best
practice for project delivery.
a. Use an integrated toolbox
b. Grow project leaders
c. Develop a streamlined project delivery process
d. Measure project health using metrics

Q31. ____ project management software integrates information from multiple projects to show
the status of active, approved, and future projects across an entire organization. a. Investment
b. Active
c. Enterprise
d. Budget

Q32). A ____ can have many different job descriptions, which can vary tremendously based on
the organization and the project.

a. project supervisor
b. project manager
c. job coordinator
d. project coordinator

Q33) In an interview with two chief information officers (CIOs), both men agreed that the most
important project management skills seem to depend on ____.

a. the difficulty of the project and the resources involved

b. the difficulty of the task and the people involved
c. the uniqueness of the project and the difficulty of the task
d. the uniqueness of the project and the people involved

Q34). Achieving high performance on projects requires ____, otherwise called human relations
skills.

a. capital skills
b. soft skills
c. light skills
d. hard skills
Q35) A(n) ____ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while inspiring people
to reach those goals.

a. assistant
b. programmer
c. leader
d. manager

Q36) A(n) ____ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific
goals. a. manager
b. leader
c. programmer
d. analyst

Q37). Some people say that ____ achieve the vision of a project.
a. leaders
b. managers
c. stakeholders
d. supervisors

Q38). Most people agree that the modern concept of project management began with the
____. a. Great Wall of China
b. first space shuttle
c. Egyptian pyramids
d. Manhattan Project

Q39). During the Cold War years of the 1950s and '60s, ____ continued to be key in refining
several project management techniques.
a. NASA
b. the military
c. steel manufacturing
d. marine biology

Q40). The longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest completion of a
project is called the ____ path.
a. essential
b. important
c. critical
d. vital

Q41) What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project
completion?
a. Scope verification
b. Completing a scope statement
c. Scope definition
d. Process Management in OS

Q) 42. An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the
key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative method is available but involves lot of risk.
What should the project team do?
a. Drop the alternative approach
b.Work out a mitigation plan
c. Procure an insurance against the risk
d.Plan all precautions to avoid the risk
Q43): That is the objective of project manager behind the study of the work processes on a
project.
a. Quality control
b. Quality planning
c. Checking adherence to processes
d. Quality assurance
Q44) which of the following is NOT an input to project plan
execution? a)Work authorization system
b)Project plan
c)Corrective action
d)Preventive action
Q. (45) The model serves as the basis for the creation of ______ for the
Software. (a) Design
(b) Maintenance
(c) Testing
(d) Specifications

Q46) Insufficient identification is a

(a) Technology-related problems
(b) Process-related problems
(c) People-related problems
(d) Product-related problems

Q47) In problem evaluation area of effort is identified by.

(a) Analyst
(b) Designer
(c) Coder
(d)Manager

Q48). When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through a series of predictable
steps, the process which you follow to develop it is known as________
(a)Software design
(b)Software process
(c)Software schedule
(d)Framework
Q49__contains an analysis of what went wrong, what went right, and what you could have
done better in the software project.
Select correct option:
(a)Prepare closedown report
(b)Identify learning
(c)Identify reusable software components
(d)none

Q50) The three most important factors that influence project management are ___, ___and
___. a. Time, Cost, Scope
b. Money, time, budget
c. Time, staff, budget
d. None of them

Answer Keys:
Ans1 (a)
Ans2(a)
Ans3( d )
Ans4(c )
Ans5( c )
Ans6 (c)
Ans7 (b)
Ans8 (b)
Ans9 (a)
Ans 10 ( A )
Ans 11(B )
 Ans12 ( c)
Ans13 (a)
Ans14 (D)
Answer15 : b
Ans 16 .( a)
Ans 17 (b)
Ans.18 (a)
Ans. 19(a)
Ans 20. a
Ans 21.(b)
Ans.22. a)
Ans.23 a)
Ans 24 : B
Ans25 : A
Ans26 : D
Ans 27 :A
Ans28 :D
Ans29 : D
Ans 30: C
Ans 31: D
Ans 32: B
Ans33: D
Ans34: B
Ans35: C
Ans 36: A
Ans 37: B
Ans 38: D
Ans 39: B
Ans 40: C
Ans 41(b)
Ans 42(a)
Ans 43.(d)
Ans 44. a
Ans 45(d)
Ans 46(b)
Ans 47(a)
Ans 48(b)
Ans49(a)
Ans 50. a
UNIT II - PROJECT LIFE CYCLE AND EFFORT ESTIMATION

Q1. RUP was created by a division of

a) Rational Unification Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Q2. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False

Q3) The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model is referred
to as the waterfall model. Which phase may be defined as “The concept is explored and refined, and the
client’s requirements are elicited?”
(a) Requirements
(b) Specification
(c) Design
((d) Implementation
Q4) In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex products is referred to as
a) Embedded
b) Semidetached
c) Organic
d) Multiplicative
Q5) Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any
change? a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
Q6. A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall model with each
phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis

Q7) __ is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Throwaway prototyping model
d) Iterative / incremental development model

Q8) Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gathered through
a/an_______
(a) Elicitation process
(b) Interviewing
(c) Meeting
(d) None of given

Q (9) Technology-related problems include _____

(a) Overestimated savings from reusable components and new tools and
methods (b) Switching tools in mid-way
(c) Integrating different software products in cross-platform implementation
(d) All of given

Q10) Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of
Code). a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000

11) RAD stands for

a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
Q12) . Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any
change? a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model

Q13) Which is not one of the types of prototypes of Prototyping

Model? a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype

Q14. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping

Model? a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product

Q15). Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is
wrong? a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects

Q16) SDLC stands for

a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle

Q17) Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of
SDLC? a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

Q18) Object point method best suited for

Select one:
a. Designing
b. Testing
c. Coding
d. Estimation
Q19) This term is least critical from customer view point
Select one:
a. UAT
b. Unit testing
c. Delivery timeliness
d. Milestones

Q20) Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

Select one:
a. Predicting clients demands.
b. Predicting software schedules.
c. Predicting software cost.
d. Predicting staffing levels.

Q21 ____ model is not suitable for accommodating any change

Select one:
a. Waterfall Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. Build & Fix Model
d. RAD Model

Q22. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known
as a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

Q23 Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of
a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

Q24 ___________is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Throwaway prototyping model
d) Iterative / incremental development model

Q25. Most cost estimates are determined in terms of ________________.

a.person month
b.monthly cost
c.person cost
d.none of them

Q26.For normalization purposes, the productivity of a project is measured in terms of ___ per person
month.
a.functions
b.function point
c.cost
d.functional point
Q 27 Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics

Q28) RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________

a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Q29 Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort

estimate? a) as estimates on similar projects that have already been completed

b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation

c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates

d)The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollar Q30)
What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable
estimation approach in their own right Automated estimation tool

a) Empirical estimation models

b) Decomposition techniques
c) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
d. None of them

Q31 What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics

c) Size-related metrics

d) None of the mentioned

Q32 A ------------is developed using historical cost information that relates some metrics to the project
cost.
a) Algorithmic Cost Modeling
b) Expert Juggememt
c) Estimation by Anlogy
d) Parkison’a Law

Q33. What is the disadvantage of the Spiral Model?

a. Does not work well for smaller projects
b. The high amount of risk analysis
c. Additional Functionality can be added later
d. Strong approval and documentation control
e. both a & b
f. none of these
Q34 In which model the Project risk factor is considered?
a. Spiral model.
b. Waterfall model.
c. Prototyping model
d. incremental model
e. None of the above
f. All of the above

Q35 The spiral model was the first time proposed by

a. IBM
b. Pressman
c. Barry Boehm
d. Royce
e. both a & b
f. none of these

Q36-What is the most important use of the incremental model?

a. Customers can respond to each increment
b. Easier to test and debug
c. To use it when we need to get a product to the market early
d. Easier to test and debug & use it when we need to get a product to the market
early e. None of these
f. both a & b

Q37. The spiral model has two dimensions namely __ and __

a. diagonal, perpendicular
b. radial, perpendicular
c. radial, angular
d. diagonal, angular
e. both a & b
f. none of these

Q38) Which of the options is correct for the prototyping model of software
development? a. For projects with large development teams.
b. When requirements are well defined.
c. When a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
d. both a & b
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

Q39. In which model the requirements are implemented b through its

category? a. Evolutionary Development Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping
d. Iterative Enhancement Model
e. both a & b
f. none of these

Q40) In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed

a. In the first loop
b.In every loop
c.Before using the spiral model
d.in first and second loop

Q41. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability

Q42. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the
system ? a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception

Q43 Each iteration in the incremental model passes through the

a. communication and modeling phases
b. planning and construction phases
c. deployment and maintenance phases
d. all phases

Q44) In a university, students are asked to develop software. Which model would be
preferable? a. Waterfall model
b. Spiral model
c. Agile model
d. Code and fix model

Q45) an individual who plans and directs the work.

a Stakeholder
b. Project manager
c. Team leader
d. Programmer

Q46.which of the following testing strategy established during requirements analysis against
developed software?
a.Validation
b.Integration
c.Regression
d.System

Q47. The incremental model is

a. A reasonable approach when well-defined requirements.
b.good approach when a working core product quickly
c.approach to use projects with large development teams.
d.revolutionary model is not used for commercial.

Q48)The Incremental Model is combination of

_________ a. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall
b. Linear Model & RAD
c.Linear Model & Prototyping
d.Waterfall Model & RAD

Q49) Advantage of using an Incremental Model.

a. Customers can respond to each increment
b. Easier to test and debug
c.when there is a need to get a product to the market
early d.Both b & c

Q50) The Introduction of the software requirements specification states

the Select correct option:
(a)Goals
(b)Objective
(c)Design
(d)Goals and objectives of the software
Ans Keys:
Ans 1(d)
Ans2(b)
Ans3(a)
Ans4(a)
Ans5(d)
Ans6 (e)
Ans. 7) b
Ans 8(a)
Ans 9(d)
Ans 10(a)
Ans 11(b)
Ans 12(d)
Ans 13(c)
Ans 14(b)
Ans 15(d)
Ans 16(a)
Ans 17(c)
Ans 18(d)
Ans 19(d)
Ans 20(a)
Ans 21.a
Ans 22 .(c )
Ans 23(d)
Ans 24(b)
Ans25. a
Ans26. b
Ans 27 d
Ans28. d
Ans 29. d
Ans 30(b)
Ans 31(a)
Ans 32(a)
Answer 33.(a)
Answer 34 (a)
Ans 35(c)
Ans 36(d)
Answer 37(c)
Answer 38(c)
Ans 39( a)
Ans 40(b)
Ans 41. C
Ans 42. D
Ans 43. d
Ans 44(d)
Ans 45(b)
Ans 46(a)
Ans 47(a)
Ans 48(c)
Ans 49(d)
Ans 50(d)

UNIT III - ACTIVITY PLANNING AND RISK

MANAGEMENT

Q1. The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of sub process placed
in different stage called the
(A) Technical key resources
(B) Work key structure
(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
(D) None of the above

Q2) Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results aggregated to
produce an estimate for the overall job.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Bottom-up
(D) Top down
Q3 Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a similar nature whose
costs are known.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Top down
(D) Analogy

Q4). Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time
available. a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement?

Q5) A is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project
cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law A

Q6) __ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

a) Gantt charts
b) PERT charts
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

Q7) wo general notations used for scheduling are ___ charts and ___
charts. a.Pert, histogram
b.PERT, gantt
c.CPM,gantt
d.none of them

Q)8 __ in an event indicates ahead of schedule. (Pick right option)

a) Positive slack (+)
b) Negative slack (–)
c) Zero slack
d) None of the above

Q9) Which one of the following is a functional requirement?

a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) None of the mentioned

Q10) Which of the following can estimate size of project directly from problem
specification? A.LOC
B.Function Point Metric
C.Bothg
D.None

Q)11. In ____, Henry Gantt developed the famous Gantt chart as a tool for scheduling work in
factories.

a. 1897
b. 1917
c. 1927
d. 1957

Q12. A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project
activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____ format.

a. pie chart
b. line graph
c. bar graph
d. calendar

Q13) _ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business transaction or
customer request
Select one:
a. Model
b. Workflow
c. Prototype
d. Mock-up

Q) 14: Tool used for secure expert judgement

a.Peer Reviewb.
b.Delphi Technique
c.Expected value technique
d.Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
e. DBMS Architecture
Q15) What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is
included? a.Create a contingency plan
b.Create a risk management plan
c.Create a WBS
d.Create sql queries

Q)16. PERT stands

a.Program and evaluation review technique
b process and evaluation review technique
c program and evaluation recovery technique
d.none of them.
Q17) Following method is not used for project planning
a. Activity Diagram
b. CPM
c. Timesheet
d. Gantt chart

Q18 There are ________ types of Work Breakdown Structures.

Select one:
a. Four
b. Three
c. Two
d. None

Q19) Smith is a project manager for ABC Video games. He has produced a project network diagram
and has updated the activity list. Which process have he just finished?
Select one:
a. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the activities dependences b. The Activity
Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project c. The activity duration
Estimating process, which identifies all the dependent activities of the project d. The activity
duration Estimating process, which diagram project network time estimates

Q20) Which of the following is not the technique for network planning
model ? a) PERT
b)CPM
c) Monte Carlo simulation
d) Hybrid approach tecnique
Q21) Which of the following activity is undertaken immediately after feasibility study and before the
requirement analysis and specification phase?
A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring
C.Project Control
D.Project Scheduling
Q22)
The particular task performance in CPM is known as
a) Event
b)Activity
c) Task
d) contract

Q23) This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring and Control
C.Project size estimation
D.Project cost estimation

Q24) Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?
A.project estimation
B.project scheduling
C.project monitoring
D.risk management
Explanation
Q25) In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the most basic parameter based
on which all other estimates are made?
A.project size
B.project effort
C.project duration
D.project schedule

Q26) During project estimation, project manager estimates following

A.project cost
B.project duration
C.project effort
D.all of the above

Q27 ) Once project planning is complete, project managers document their plan
in A.SPMP document
B.SRS document
C.Detailed Design documet
D.Excel Sheet

Q28) Which of the following serves as metrics for project size estimation?
A.Lines of codes
B.function point
C.Number of persons
D.Only A & B

Q29)What is PERT analysis based on?

A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All of the above

Q30)Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a

project? A. Deadlines exist
B. Independent activities
C. Too many workers may be required
D. Costly delay

Q31)What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?

A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract

Q32What is the earliest start time rule?

A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
B. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
C. It directs when a project can start.
D. It regulates when a project must begin.

Q33)What is a critical path?

A. It is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
B. It is a mixture of all the paths
C. It is the longest path
D. It is the shortest path
 Q34What is the completion of a CPM network diagram activity commonly known
as? A. Connector
B. Event
C. Node
D. All of the above

Q35) Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing time
for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the earliest starting time for Y? A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined

Q36Activities P, Q, and R instantly follow activity M, and their current starting times are 12, 19, and
10. So, what is the latest finishing time for activity M?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined

Q37)Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles

Q 38)What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?

A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All of the above

Q39) _____is the associated with the Product Risk.

A. Test object
B. non-availability of the test environment
C. Negative consequences
D. Control of test item
E. None of these
Q40) one of the following factors affect the probable
consequences? A. Risk timing
B. Contingency planning
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk monitoring
E. None of these

Q41) ____is the Risk management most important jobs.

A. Project manager
B. Production team
C. Investor
D. Client
E. None of these
 Q 42 What is the PERT and CPM?
a) Network techniques
b) Assignment techniques
c) Project evaluation techniques
d) None of the above
Q43. What does CPM stand
for?

a) Control Path Method

b) Critical Path Method
c) Critical Plan Management
d) Control Path Management
Q44. Which of the following colour is used to show the actual progress in bar
charts?

a) Red
b) Blue
c) Black
d) Green
Q45. Who introduced bar chart in
CPM?

a) Jane Gantt
b) Henry Gantt
c) Williams henry
d) Joseph henry

Q46). What does PERT analysis based

on? a) Most likely time
b) Optimistic time
c) Pessimistic time
d) All of the above
Q47). CPM is
the
 a) Time oriented technique
b) Event oriented technique
c) Target oriented technique
d) Activity oriented technique
Q48. What is difference between PERT and
CPM?

a) PERT is a probabilistic model while CPM is a deterministic model b) PERT is an

event-oriented technique while CPM is an activity-oriented technique c) PERT is Project
Evaluation and Review Technique while CPM is Critical Path Method d) All of the above

Q49 The earliest start time

rule

Directs when a project can start

Regulates when a project must begin
Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor
Compares the activities starting time for an activity
successor

Q50. Slack time in pert analysis.

a) Can never be less than zero

b) Is minimum for critical events
c) Can never be less than zero
d) Can never be greater than zero

Ans Keys:

Ans1 c)
Ans2(C )
Ans 3(D)
Ans 4(c)
Ans5 (a)
Ans.6 a
Ans 7. b
Ans. 8(a)
Ans 9 d
Ans 10 (B)
Answe11(: B)
Answer:12( D)
Ans 13(b)
Ans 14(b)
Ans 15(c)
Ans16. a
Ans 17(c)
Ans 18(c)
Ans 19(b)
Ans 20(d)
Ans 21(A)
Ans 22(b)
Ans 23(b)
Ans 24(c)
Ans 25 (:A.)
Ans 26(D)
Ans 27(A)
.Ans 28(D)
Ans 29( D)
Ans 30(B)
Ans 31(c)
Ans 32(b)
Ans 33 c
Ans 34(D)
Ans 35(B)
Ans 36( A)
Ans 37(B)
Ans 38(D)
Ans 39(a)
Ans 40(a)
Ans 41(a)
Ans 42(c)
Ans 43(b)
Ans 44(d)
Ans 45(b)
Ans 46(d)
Ans 47(d)
Ans 48 (d)
Ans 49(c)
Ans 50(b)

UNIT-4- PROJECT MANAGEMENT

AND CONTROL

1. Team Leader is responsible for all aspects of the project.

a) True
b) False

2. ___ manage hardware/software requirements for development, testing, validation, and production
environments.

a) Logistics
b) Labour
c) staff
d) none

3. ___ define testing procedures and certification process.

a) Software Support
b) Software Development
c) Software Management
d) Software Testing

4. Project Management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities
to meet the project requirements.

a) True
b) False

5. Interoperability has become a key characteristic of many systems.

a) True
b) False

6. Conducting structured meetings is a form of ___ communication.

a) Informal
b) Formal
c) adhoc
d) general

7. ___ encompasses e-mail, or electronic dashboards, or video conferencing

system. a) Formal communication
b) Electronic communication
c) Informal communication
d) Interpersonal networking

8. Project implementation is the first stage in project development.

a) True
b) False

9. The ___ stage determines the nature and scope of the development.

a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance

10. Testing and Module Integration strategies are addressed in ___

phase. a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance

11. The project charter is a __________time announcement.

a) two
b) one
c) four
d) none

12. The purpose of a ___ is to detail the work requirements for projects and programs that have
deliverables and/or services performed.

a) Initiation
b) Statement of Work (SoW)
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance

13. IAPPM stands for ___.

a) International Associative of Project and Program Management
b) International Association of Phase and Program Management
c) International Association of Project and Program Management
d) International Association of Plan and Program Management

14. The three most important factors that influence project management are ___, ___and ___.

a) Time, Cost, Scope

b) Time, Staff, Stakeholder
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

15. PERT stands for ___.

a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

b) Program Evaluation and Revision Technique
c) Program Evolution and Review Technique
d) None of the above

16. ___ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

a) Gantt charts
b) PERT charts
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

17. The _____________ documented in 1970 by Royce was the first publicly documented life cycle
model.
a) RAD model
b) Spiral model
c) Waterfall model
d) None of the above

18. Most life cycle models can be derived as special cases of the ___.

a) RAD model
b) Spiral model
c) Waterfall model
d) None of the above

19. ___ is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Throwaway prototyping model
d) Iterative / incremental development model

20. CMM stands for ___.

a) Capability Maturity Model
b) Capacity Maturity Model
c) Customer Maturity Model
d) Common Maturity Model

21. Project scope, pros and cons are discussed in the ___________ phase.

a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance

22. A semiformal way of breaking down the goal is called the ___.

a) RAD model
b) Spiral model
c) Waterfall model
d) Work Breakdown Structure

23. Two general notations used for scheduling are ___ charts and ___ charts.

a) bar, pert
b) PERT, Gantt
c) gantt, histogram
d) None

24. The purpose of planning a project is to identify the sequence of activities as per their complexities
and dependencies.
a) True
b) False

25. COCOMO stands for ___.

a) Constructive Cost Model

b) Construction Cost Model

c) Constructive Capable Model
d) None

26. In ___ mode the project is characterized by tight, stringent constraints and interface
requirements. a) Organic
b) Embedded
c) Semidetached
d) None of the above

27. Budgeting in a business sense is the __________ allocation of available funds to each department
within a company.

a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) planned

28. ROI stands for ___.

a) Return On Investment
b) Rare On Investment
c) Return Of Investment
d) Return Of Idea

29. ___ is a standard method for the financial appraisal of long-term

projects. a) Net Profit Value (NPV)
b) None Present Value (NPV)
c) Net Present Value (NPV)
d) Net Price Value (NPV)

30. __________in a project includes software, hardware and human resources.

a) Cost
b) Time
c) Planning
d) Design

31. A _____________ provides the idea about the start and finishes dates of key activities or terminal
elements of the project.

a) Schedule
b) Implementation
c) Design
d) plan

32. PERT stands for ___.

a) Program Evaluate and Review Technique
b) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Revision Technique
d) Plan Evaluation and Review Technique

33. ___ in an event indicates ahead of schedule. (Pick right option)

a) Positive slack (+)
b) Negative slack (–)
c) Zero slack
d) None of the above
34. Booz Allen Hamilton, Inc. has developed a Gantt chart.

a) True
b) False

35. ___ is example of automated scheduling tools.

a) Microsoft Project
b) ABT’s Project Workbench for Windows
c) Symantec’s Timeline
d) all

36. Accelerating the project schedule is often termed as ___ of the schedule. (Pick right
option) a) Breaking
b) Crashing
c) Speeding
d) None of the above

37. Most cost estimates are determined in terms of ___.

a) Person-Months
b) Plan-Months
c) Person-Years
d) None

38. ‘Work expands to fill the available volume’ is ___ principle.

a) Parkinson’s
b) James’s
c) John’s
d) None of the above

39. COCOMO model was developed by Parkinson.

a) True
b) False

40. If there is a certain probability that the objectives of the project will not be achieved, this risk should
not be reported to higher management.

a) True
b) False
41. Risk the combination of both the possibility of occurrence of adverse event and the impact of such
_____ event.
a) bad
b) good
c) average
d) planned
42. When there are disagreements between the project lead and overall project manager, the same can be
resolved through ___.
a) Change control board
b) Implementation
c) Planning
d) Design

43. A ___ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same requirement is
implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
d) None of the above

44. Tom DeMarco stated, “You can’t control what you can’t _________”.

a) Initiate
b) Implement
c) measure
d) plan

45. ___ is the statistics gathered over the course of the execution of the project.

a) Requirement
b) Software Metric
c) Software Plan
d) Cost

46. ___ is a software package used for preparing earned value analysis. (Pick right
option) a) MS Project
b) Primavera
c) Lotus Notes
d) None of the above

47. Status meetings and status reporting are required for a medium-size project.

a) True
b) False

48. ___ is a set of practices originally developed by Motorola to systematically improve processes by
eliminating defects.
a) Six Sigma
b) four sigma
c) SMART
d) none

49. Six Sigma is a registered service mark and trademark of ___. (Pick right
option) a) Microsoft
b) Sun Microsystems
c) Motorola
d) None of the above

50. ___ involves activities like typical strategies, processes, techniques, and tools involved in containing
the adverse impacts of risks on the software project.

a) Software risk management

b) Software planning management
c) Software management
d) none

ANSWER KEY
1. A
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. A
10.C
11.C
12.B
13.C
14.A
15.A
16.A
17.B
18.B
19.B
20.A
21.A
22.D
23.B
24.A
25.A
26.B
27.D
28.A
29.C
30.A
31.A
32.C
33.A
34.B
35.D
36.B
37.A
38.A
39.B
40.B
41.A
42.A
43.A
44.C
45.B
46.B
47.A
48.A
49.A
50.C
UNIT-V STAFFING IN SOFTWARE PROJECTS

1. What are the concerns in Managing People in Software

Environments?
a)Staff Development
b) Staff Motivation
c)Well-being Staff during course of project
d) All the above

2. Which of the following is not included in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics
model ofwork motivation?
a) Variety of
skill
b)Significance of
the taskc)Quality
of job life
d)Autonomy

3. Organizational
behavior is
a)A science
b)An art
c)A science as well as an art
 d)None of the above

4. The field of organisational behaviour examines such questions as the nature of

leadership,effective team development, and
a)Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
b) Organisational control; conflict
managementc)Motivation of
individuals; planning d)Planning;
development
5.The field of organisational behavior is primarily concerned with
a)The behaviour of individual and groups.
b)How resources are effectively managed.
c)Control processes and interactions between organizations, external
context. d)Both a and c.

6.The study of organisation behaviour has certain basic assumptions. They

are a)An industrial enterprise is an organization of people.
b)These people must be motivated to work effectively.
c)The goals of the employee and the employer may not necessarily
coincide. d)All of the above.

7.Which of the following represents correct sequencing of historical developments

ofOrganizational Behaviour?
a) Industrial revolution —> Scientific management –> Human relations movement –
> OB
b)revolution —> Human relations movement —> Scientific management
–> OB
c)Scientific management —> Human relations movement –> Industrial revolution
–> OB
d)None of these.

8.Which of the following is not correct for the organisational

behaviour? a)Organisational behaviour is an integral part of
management
b)Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
c)Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of
behaviord)Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented

9.The is based on the environment. Though like thinking, expectations and perception do
exist, and they are not needed to manage or predict behaviou a)Behaviouristic approach,
Cognitive processes,
b)cognitive processes, behaviouristic approach
c) Social cognitive, behaviouristic
approachd)Cognitive processes, social
cognitive

10. Now a days a lot of stress is being put on the of the employee in theorganization
a)Character
b)improvemen
tc)Behaviour
d)Rewards
11. The purpose of job enrichment is to
a)expand the number of tasks an individual can do
b)increase job efficiency
c)increase job effectiveness
d)increase job satisfaction of middle management

12. Which of the following is not an example of Content

Theory?a)Maslow Theory
b)Herzberg’s Theory
c)Expectancy theory
d)Alderfer’s ERG
theory

13. theory emphasis that, Unsatisfied need can influence the behaviour satisfied one will not
act as a motivator.
a)Maslow Theory
b)Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d)Alderfer’s ERG
theory

14. Among the following which is not a problem in changing the attitude of the
employeea)Insufficient Information
b)Resistant by
employeec)Cognitive
Dissonance
d)Cognitive
Dissonance

15. Motivation
includesa)job
enrichment
b)Job rotation
c)Job enlargement
d)all of the above

16. The statement ―I don’t feel comfortable in crowd‖is an

example ofa)component of attitude.
b)Behavio
ral
c)Cognitiv
e
d)Affectiv
e
e)Positive

17. The statement ―I am going to apologies for my mistake‖is an

example ofcomponent of
attitude. a)Behavioral
b)Cognitive
c)Affecti
ve
d)Positiv
e
18. In which stage of the team development process does hostility and infighting occur?
a)storming
b)forming
c)norming
d)performi
ng

19. What is the final stage of the team development

process?a)forming
b)storming
c)adjournin
g
d)performi
ng

20. Which of the following best defines the type of rewards that are distributed
toindividuals fortheir unique contribution to the team?
a)functional team rewards
b)competitive team rewards
c)cooperative team rewards
d)non-competitive team
rewards

21. Which of the following is not a type

of team?a)teams that recommend things
b)teams that organize things
c)teams that make or do things
d)teams that run things

22. What is the ideal size of a team in order for it to be productive and
successful?a)2 to 4
b)9 to 12
c)5 to 8
d)8 to 11

23. Which of the following best defines an organization where decision making authority is at
thetop of the organization and employees have little freedom to make their own decisions?
a)decentralized organization
b)centralized
organizationc)virtual
organization d)functional
organization

24. Which type of structure is also referred to as a team

structure?a)virtual structure
b)matrix
structure
c)horizontal
structured)staff
structure
25. Which of the following best describes functions that are advisory and supportive
in nature;designed to contribute to the efficiency and maintenance of
theorganization?
a)line
functions
b)organizati
onal
functions
c)matrix
functions
d)staff functions

26. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of

organizational peoplebecause;
a)It makes procedures cost effective
b)It helps in detecting the problems
c)It leads to product innovation
d)It assists in implementing new technology

27. The S in the acronym for SMART goals stands for

a)speci
fic
b)strai
ghtfor
ward
c)strate
gic
d)sour
ce

28. .A problem(s) with management by objectives is (are) that it can:

a)Be time consuming.
B0Result in immeasurable objectives.
c)1 and 2
d)None of the above.

29. On her work team Michelle develops detailed tasks lists and work flow charts to help
her team members understand the steps involved in each project. She also maintains
the project calendar and receives periodic updates from each team member to ensure
that projects are progressing on schedule.Which role does Michelle most likely fill
on her team?
a)assessorb)organizerc)maintainerd)creator

30. Coasting on the group effort is termed .

A)inconsistenc
y
b)incompetenc
c)social loafing
d)dysfunction

31.A unit of measurement to express the amount of business functionality an information

system provides to a user
e) Functi
onal Point
b)Control Point
c)Checkpoint
d)Cost trade

32. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

33. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

34. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project

management? a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

35. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known
as a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

36. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

37. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

38. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

39. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

40. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

41. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the
external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

42. Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people, process,
and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an operational
implementation.
a) True
b) False

43. Which of the following is not an effective software project management

focus? a) people
b) product
c) popularity
d) process

44. PM-CMM stands for

a) people management capability maturity model
b) process management capability maturity model
c) product management capability maturity model
d) project management capability maturity model

45. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?

a) project control
b) project management
c) project planning
d) project design

46. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for
software development can be established.
a) people
b) product
c) process
d) none of the mentioned

47. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the
project? a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned

48. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an
application? a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned
49. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that
occurs when using the random paradigm?
a) asynchronous paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

50. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?

a) Problem solving
b) Organization
c) Motivation
d) Project management

51. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team
members?
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

52. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost

estimation? a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical
d) Critical

53. ___ must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software
work. a) Project Managers
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End Users

54. The realistic percentage for striving to work in Software Project Development is
___. a) 40%
b) 80%
c) 50%
d) 100%

55. ___ organizations take the networked structure one step further by combining IT with
traditional components to form new types of components.
a) Hierarchical
b) Flat
c) T-form (Technology-based)
d) Matrix

ANSWER KEY
1. D
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. E
32.
D
33. B
34. C
35. C
36.
D
37.
D
38. B
39.
A
40. B
41. B
42.
A
43. C
44.
A
45.
D
46. C
47. C
48.
A
49. B
50.
D
51.
D
52.
D
53.
A
54. B
55. C