DATE : 20/05/2019 Test Booklet Code

H1LOCHAN

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2019
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

5. The CODE for this Booklet is H1.

6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.

7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.

8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.

11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )
1. Following limiting molar conductivities are 3. For a reaction, activation energy Ea = 0 and
given as the rate constant at 200 K is 1.6 × 106 s–1. The
rate constant at 400 K will be
º
m (H2SO4 )  x S cm2 mol–1
[Given that gas constant,
º
m (K2SO4 )  2
y S cm mol –1 R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1]
(1) 3.2 × 106 s–1
º 2 –1
m (CH3COOK)  z S cm mol (2) 3.2 × 104 s–1
º (3) 1.6 × 106 s–1
m (in S cm2 mol–1) for CH3COOH will be
(4) 1.6 × 103 s–1
(x – y) Answer ( 3 )
(1) z (2) x – y + 2z
2
S o l . From Arrhenius equation
(3) x + y + z (4) x – y + z
k 400 Ea  T2  T1 
Answer ( 1 ) log 
k200 2.303 R  T1T2 
S o l . According to Kohlrausch's law
Since, given that Ea = 0
o
m  
 AB   mo A  mo B   k 400 k
 log  0  400  1

So, m  CH3 COOH  m CH3 COO  m H
o o  o 
   k200 k200

So, k400 = k200

o
So m  CH3COOH So rate constant at 400 k = 1.6 × 106 s–1

o 1 o 1 o 4. The correct option representing a Freundlich

 m (CH3 COOK)  m (H2 SO 4 )  m (K2 SO 4 ) adsorption isotherm is
2 2
x y x x
= z  (1)  kp –1 (2)  kp0.3
2 2 m m

xy x x
= z  (3)  kp2.5 (4)  kp –0.5
 2  m m
2. A first order reaction has a rate constant of Answer ( 2 )
2.303 × 10–3 s–1. The time required for 40 g of
S o l . According to Freundlich isotherm
this reactant to reduce to 10 g will be
[Given that log102 = 0.3010]
(1) 602 s (2) 230.3 s x
m
(3) 301 s (4) 2000 s
Answer ( 1 )
P
S o l . For a first order reaction
x
0.693 0.693  KP1/n
Half life period, t 1   s1 m
k 3
2
2.303  10
(n > 1)
= 300.91 s
x 1
So,  KP0.3 as  0.3
Now, 40 g  t 1/2
 20 g 
 10 g
t 1/2 m n
So, Answer is (2).
So, 40 g substance requires 2 half life periods
to reduce upto 10 g 5. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
 Time taken in reduction = 2 × 300.91 s (1) O2 (2) N2
= 601.82 (3) H2 (4) Li2
 602 s Answer ( 1 )

2
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)
S o l . O2 has 8 + 8 = 16 electrons, so distribution of 8. Which of the alkali metal chloride (MCl) forms
electrons in MO(molecular orbitals) follows its dihydrate salt (MCl  2 H2O) easily?
the order as
(1) KCl (2) LiCl
 1s 2 ,   * 1s 2 ,  2s 2 ,   * 2s 2 ,  2p z 2 , (3) CsCl (4) RbCl
 2px   * 2px 
2 1
Answer ( 2 )
,
 2p    2p 
2 1
* S o l . Out of alkali metal chlorides only LiCl forms a
y y
dihydrate, other metal chlorides do not form
So, in O2 molecule, there are two (2) unpaired hydrates.
electrons, so, it is a "paramagnetic" substance
9. The reaction that does not give benzoic acid
in nature.
as the major product is
6. Which of the following is the correct order of
dipole moment? CH2OH +
KMnO4/H
(1) H2O < NF3 < NH3 < BF3 (1)
(2) NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H2O
(3) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O CH2OH
K2Cr2O7
(4) BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O (2)
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Dipole moment of a molecule is the vector COCH3
(i) NaOCl
sum of dipoles of bonds. So based on (3) +
molecular geometry of following molecules, (ii) H3O

F
CH2OH
PCC
B < N
(4)  Pyridinium 
 chlorochromate 
F F F F  
F
Three equal Vectors not Answer ( 4 )
vectors at alligned in
120° has the same CH2 CHO
resultant = 0 direction of Sol. OH PCC
so nonpolar lone pair  Pyridinium 
 chlorochromate 
molecule so less dipole  
moment
PCC oxidises primary alcohol to aldehyde.

O 10. The amine that reacts with Hinsberg’s

< N <
reagent to give an alkali insoluble product is
H H H H
H CH3
Vectors Maximum
alligned in dipole (1) CH3 — C — CH — NH 2
same moment
direction of CH3 CH3
lone pair
(2) CH3 — CH — NH — CH — CH3
7. Crude sodium chloride obtained by
crystallisation of brine solution does not CH3 CH3
contain
(1) CaSO4 (2) MgSO4 CH2CH3
(3) Na2SO4 (4) MgCl2 (3) CH3 — CH2 — N — CH2CH3
Answer ( 2 )
NH2
S o l . Crude sodium chloride generally obtained by
crystallisation of brine solution contains (4) CH3 — C — CH2CH2CH3
Na 2 SO 4 , CaSO 4 , CaCl 2 and MgCl 2 as
impurities. CH3

3
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )
Answer ( 2 ) 15. Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total
S o l . Secondary amines react with Hinsberg's nodes is
reagent to give a product which is insoluble in (1) 6 d (2) 5 p
alkali. (3) 3 d (4) 4 f
11. Which structure(s) of proteins remain(s) Answer ( 4 )
intact during denaturation process?
S o l . Total number of nodes = (n – 1)
(1) Tertiary structure only
3=n–1
(2) Both secondary and tertiary structures
n=4
(3) Primary structure only
Number of angular nodes =  = 3  f-subshell
(4) Secondary structure only
 Correct answer is 4f.
Answer ( 3 )
16. In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of
S o l . During denaturation primary structure of
an electron in the second Bohr orbit is
proteins remain intact.
[Given that Bohr radius, a0 = 52.9 pm]
12. The polymer that is used as a substitute for
wool in making commercial fibres is (1) 105.8 pm (2) 211.6 pm
(1) Buna-N (2) melamine (3) 211.6  pm (4) 52.9  pm
(3) nylon-6,6 (4) polyacrylonitrile Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . rn = a0n2
S o l . Polyacrylonitrile is used as a substitute for r2 = 52.9 × (2)2 pm
wool in making commercial fibre as orlon or Again,
acrilan.
n = 2r
13. The artificial sweetener stable at cooking
temperature and does not provide calories is 2
= r
(1) alitame (2) saccharin n
(3) aspartame (4) sucralose
2
Answer ( 4 ) =  52.9  4
2
S o l . Sucralose is trichloro derivative of sucrose. It  = 211.6  pm
is stable at cooking temperature. It does not
provide calories. 17. The volume occupied by 1.8 g of water vapour
at 374°C and 1 bar pressure will be
14. The density of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH is
1.28 g/cm3. The molality of the solution is [Given [Use R = 0.083 bar LK–1 mol–1]
that molecular mass of NaOH = 40 g mol–1] (1) 5.37 L (2) 96.66 L
(1) 1.32 m (2) 1.20 m (3) 55.87 L (4) 3.10 L
(3) 1.56 m (4) 1.67 m Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . PV = nRT
S o l . Let, volume of solution = 1 litre
W  RT 
V
Mole of NaOH = 2 M  P 
Mass of NaOH solution = 1000 × 1.28 = 1280 g
1.8 0.083  647
Mass of H2O = (1280 – 2 × 40) = 1200 g = 1.2 kg V   5.37 L
18 1
Mole of NaOH
Molality (m) = 18. An ideal gas expands isothermally from
Mass of solvent (kg) 10–3 m3 to 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant
pressure of 105 Nm–2. The work done on the
2 gas is
=
1.2 (1) – 900 kJ (2) + 270 kJ
= 1.67 m (3) – 900 J (4) + 900 kJ

4
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)
Answer ( 3 ) 21. Match the catalyst with the process
S o l . W = – Pext (Vf – Vi) Catalyst Process
=– 105 (10–2 – 10–3) (i) V2O5 (a) The oxidation of
= – 900 J ethyne to ethanal
19. Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under (ii) TiCl4+ (b) Polymerisation
isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as
shown in the figure. Al(CH3)3 of alkynes
(iii) PdCl2 (c) Oxidation of SO2 in
A(PA, VA, TA)
the manufacture of
H2SO4
P B(PB, VB, TB)
(iv) Nickel (d) Polymerisation
C(PC, VC, TC)
complexes of ethylene
V Which of the following is the correct option?
AB  Isothermal expansion (1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
AC  Adiabatic expansion (2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
Which of the following options is not correct?
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
(1) TC > TA
(4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(2) Sisothermal > Sadiabatic
Answer ( 2 )
(3) TA = TB
S o l . (i) V2O5 : Used in the oxidation of SO2 in the
(4) wisothermal > wadiabatic manufacture of H2SO4.
Answer ( 1 ) (ii) TiCl 4 + Al(CH 3 ) 3 : Used in the
S o l . Since graph A to C represents adiabatic polymerisation of ethylene
reversible expansion, so work is done on the (iii) PdCl2 : Used in the oxidation of ethyne to
expense of internal energy, therefore, there is ethanal
decrease in internal energy. So the
temperature decreases. (iv) Nickel Complex : Used in the
polymerisation of alkynes
i.e., TC < TA
22. The most stable carbocation, among the
20. Match the oxide given in column A with its
following, is
property given in column B
Column-A Column-B 
(1) CH – CH – CH
3 2 2
(i) Na2O (a) Neutral
(ii) Al2O3 (b) Basic 
(2)  CH3  C – CH – CH3
3
(iii) N2O (c) Acidic
(iv) Cl2O7 (d) Amphoteric 
(3) CH – CH – CH – CH – CH
Which of the following options has all correct 3 2 2 3

pairs?

(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c) (4) CH – CH – CH – CH – CH
3 2 2 3

(2) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c) Answer ( 4 )

(3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d) S o l . Stability of carbocation depends upon number
(4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c) of -H because of +H effect i.e.
hyperconjugation effect.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Na2O is basic oxide  (i) – (b) Among the given carbocations,

Al2O3 is amphoteric oxide  (ii) – (d)  -H   -H

CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 is the most stable
N2O is neutral  (iii) – (a)
carbocation because number of -H is
Cl2O7 is acidic oxide  (iv) – (c) maximum (5 -H)

5
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )
23. The alkane that gives only one mono-chloro Answer ( 2 )
product on chlorination with Cl2 in presence
Acidified
of diffused sunlight is
  Al(H2O)6 
S o l . AlCl 
aq. sol. 3+
3
(1) Isopentane
(2) 2, 2-dimethylbutane  The hybridisation of Al is sp3d2.
26. Which of the following compounds is used in
(3) neopentane
cosmetic surgery?
(4) n-pentane
(1) Zeolites (2) Silica
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Silicates (4) Silicones
S o l . Chlorination of neopentane with Cl 2 in the
Answer ( 4 )
presence of diffused sunlight gives only one
mono-chloro compound. S o l . Silicones are used in cosmetic surgery.
27. Identify the incorrect statement.
CH3 CH3
UV light
(1) Gangue is an ore contaminated with
CH3 – C – CH3 + Cl2 CH3 – C – CH2 Cl undesired materials
CH3 CH3 (2) The scientific and technological process
1-chloro-2, used for isolation of the metal from its ore
2-dimethyl is known as metallurgy
propane
(3) Minerals are naturally occurring chemical
substances in the earth's crust
24. In the following reaction,
(4) Ores are minerals that may contain a
red hot metal
H3C – C  CH 
iron tube
873 K
 A, the
Answer ( 1 )
number of sigma () bonds present in the S o l . Gangue is the earthly or undesired material
product A, is which is contaminating the ore.
(1) 18 (2) 21 28. A compound ‘X’ upon reaction with H 2 O
produces a colorless gas ‘Y’ with rotton fish
(3) 9 (4) 24
smell. Gas ‘Y’ is absorbed in a solution of
Answer ( 2 ) CuSO4 to give Cu3P2 as one of the products.
Predict the compound ‘X’.
HC H (1) Ca3(PO4)2 (2) Ca3P2
S o l . CH3 C – CH3 H3C
C Red Hot CH3 (3) NH4Cl (4) As2O3
Iron tube
CH 873 K
CH H H Answer ( 2 )
C
CH3 S o l . Ca3 P2 + 6H2 O 
 3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH
CH3 3
(X) (Y)
Number of  (rotten fish smell)
bonds = 21
2PH3 + 3CuSO 4 
 Cu3P2 + 3H2 SO 4
25. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous (Y)

solution forms a complex 'A', in which

29. Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus
hybridisation state of Al is 'B'. What are 'A' and
has strongest reducing property?
'B', respectively?
(1) H3PO4 (2) H4P2O7
(1)  Al (H2 O)6 
3
, d2 sp3 (3) H3PO3 (4) H3PO2
Answer ( 4 )
(2)  Al(H2 O)6 
3
, sp3 d2
S o l . Hypophosphorous acid is a good reducing
agent as it contains two P–H bonds.
(3)  Al(H2 O)4 
3
, sp3
4AgNO3  2H2 O  H3PO2 

(4)  Al(H2 O)4 
3
, dsp2 4Ag  4HNO3  H3PO 4

6
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)
30. Identify the correct formula of ‘oleum’ from 35. When vapours of a secondary alcohol is
the following. passed over heated copper at 573 K, the
(1) H2S2O8 (2) H2S2O7 product formed is

(3) H2SO3 (4) H2SO4 (1) an alkene

Answer ( 2 ) (2) a carboxylic acid
S o l . Oleum is 'H2S2O7'. (3) an aldehyde
31. When neutral or faintly alkaline KMnO 4 is (4) a ketone
treated with potassium iodide, iodide ion is Answer ( 4 )
converted into ‘X’. ‘X’ is
OH O
(1) IO– (2) I2
Cu
S o l . R — CH — R R—C—R
(3) IO–4 (4) IO3– (Secondary 300°C (Ketone)
Alcohol)
Answer ( 4 )
36. The major products C and D formed in the
S o l . In neutral or faintly alkaline solutions, iodide following reaction respectively are
ion is converted into iodate.
2MnO4– + H2O + I–  2MnO2 + 2OH– + IO3– H3C – CH2 – CH2 – O – C CH3 3 
excessHI

C  D
32. The Crystal Field Stabilisation Energy (CFSE) (1) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – OH and HO – C(CH3)3
for [CoCl 6] 4– is 18000 cm –1 . The CFSE for
(2) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – I and I – C(CH3)3
[CoCl4]2– will be
(3) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – OH and I – C(CH3)3
(1) 8000 cm–1 (2) 6000 cm–1
(3) 16000 cm–1 (4) 18000 cm–1 (4) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – I and HO – C(CH3)3

Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )
4
Sol. ∵ t  0 Sol. H3C – CH2 – CH2 – O – C(CH3)3 HI

9
4 CH 3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH + (CH3) 3 C – I
t   18000cm–1 = 8000 cm–1
9
HI
33. The liquified gas that is used in dry cleaning
along with a suitable detergent is CH3CH2CH2 I

(1) CO2 (2) Water gas

37. THe pH of 0.01 M NaOH (aq) solution will be
(3) Petroleum gas (4) NO2
(1) 9 (2) 7.01
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 2 (4) 12
S o l . Liquified CO2 (carbon dioxide) with a suitable
detergent is used in dry cleaning. Answer ( 4 )
34. The hydrolysis reaction that takes place at S o l . [OH–] = [NaOH] = 0.01 M = 10–2 M
the slowest rate, among the following is pOH = –log[OH–] = –log(10–2)
aq. NaOH =2
(1) CH2Cl CH2OH
pH = 14 – pOH = 12
aq. NaOH
– + 38. Which of the following cannot act both as
(2) Cl ONa Bronsted acid and as Bronsted base?
CH3 CH3
(1) HSO4 (2) HCO3
(3) H3C – CH2 – Cl 
aq.NaOH
 H3C – CH2 –OH (3) NH3 (4) HCl
aq. NaOH Answer ( 4 )
(4) H2 C=CH–CH2 Cl H2C= CH – CH2OH
S o l . Substance which can release and accept H+
Answer ( 2 ) can act as both Bronsted base and acid.
S o l . Aryl halides do not give substitution reactions HCl cannot accept H+ therefore cannot act as
due to partial double bond character. Bronsted base.

7
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )
39. The molar solubility of CaF2(Ksp = 5.3 × 10–11) 43. Which of the following statements is correct
in 0.1 M solution of NaF will be regarding a solution of two components A and
B exhibiting positive deviation from ideal
(1) 5.3 × 10–10 mol L–1 (2) 5.3 × 10–11 mol L–1
behaviour?
(3) 5.3 × 10–8 mol L–1 (4) 5.3 × 10–9 mol L–1
(1) Intermolecular attractive forces between
Answer ( 4 ) A-A and B-B are equal to those between
S o l . Ksp(CaF2) = 5.3 × 10–11 A-B.
(2) Intermolecular attractive forces between
CaF2 
 Ca2+ + 2F– A-A and B-B are stronger than those
between A-B.
t = 0, 0 0.1 (3) mixH = 0 at constant T and P.
At eq. s s + 0.1  0.1 (4) mixV = 0 at constant T and P.
Ksp = [Ca2+][F–]2 = (s)(0.1)2 Answer ( 2 )
Ksp 5.3  1011 S o l . Solution exhibiting positive deviation from
s= 2
 2
 5.3  109 mol L1 ideal behaviour must have weaker A – B
(0.1) (0.1)
interactions than A – A and B – B interactions.
40. The oxidation state of Cr in CrO6 is
44. In water saturated air, the mole fraction of
(1) +4 (2) –6 water vapour is 0.02. If the total pressure of
(3) +12 (4) +6 the saturated air is 1.2 atm, the partial
pressure of dry air is
Answer ( 4 # )
(1) 0.98 atm
S o l . The most appropriate oxidation state of Cr in
CrO 6 is +6 although CrO 6 has doubtful (2) 1.18 atm
existence. (3) 1.76 atm
41. The number of hydrogen bonded water (4) 1.176 atm
molecule(s) associated with CuSO4  5H2O is
Answer ( 4 )
(1) 5 (2) 3
S o l . Mole fraction of water vapour = 0.02
(3) 1 (4) 2
Mole fraction of dry air = 1 – 0.02 = 0.98
Answer ( 3 )
Total pressure of saturated air = 1.2 atm
S o l . The actual structure of CuSO 4 . 5H 2 O is
Using Dalton’s law of partial pressure,
[Cu(H 2 O) 4 ]SO 4 . H 2 O, so only one water
molecule is associated with the molecule via PDry air  PTotal xDry air = 1.2 × 0.98
hydrogen bond.
42. Formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency = 1.176 atm
defect in its crystal is Ni 0.98O. The crystal –
45. The standard electrode potential E values
contains Ni 2+ and Ni 3+ ions. The fraction of
nickel existing as Ni2+ ions in the crystal is of Al3+/Al, Ag+/Ag, K+/K and Cr3+/Cr are –1.66 V,
0.80 V, –2.93 V and –0.74 V, respectively. The
(1) 0.31 (2) 0.96 correct decreasing order of reducing power
(3) 0.04 (4) 0.50 of the metal is
Answer ( 2 ) (1) Al > K > Ag > Cr

2 3 2
(2) Ag > Cr > Al > K
S o l . Ni0.98 O  (Ni )x (Ni )0.98  x (O )1
(3) K > Al > Cr > Ag
Net charge = 0 (4) K > Al > Ag > Cr
x  2  [(0.98  x)  3]  [ 2  1]  0 Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Lesser is the reduction potential greater is
x = 0.94
the reducing power.
Fraction of nickel existing as
Reduction Potential : Ag+/Ag > Cr3+/Cr > Al3+/
0.94 Al > K+/K
Ni2+ = = 0.959  0.96
0.98 Reducing Power : K > Al > Cr > Ag
8
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

46. A selectable marker is used to : S o l . Bioprospecting refers to exploring molecular,

(1) Mark a gene on a chromosome for
isolation using restriction enzyme
(2) Help in eliminating the non-transformants,
so that the transformants can be
regenerated
(3) Identify the gene for a desired trait in an
alien organism
(4) Select a suitable vector for transformation
in a specific crop
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Selectable markers help in identification and
elimination of non-transformants whilst
permitting selective growth of transformants.
genetic and species level diversity for
products of economic importance.
50. Which of the following is an innovative remedy
for plastic waste?
(1) Electrostatic precipitator
(2) Burning in the absence of oxygen
(3) Burying 500 m deep below soil surface
(4) Polyblend
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Polyblend is an innovative remedy of plastic
waste. Polyblend is fine powder of recycled
plastic waste that after mixing with bitumen,
used to lay roads.

47. Western Ghats have a large number of plant 51. Between which among the following, the
and animal species that are not found relationship is not an example of
anywhere else. Which of the following terms commensalism?
will you use to notify such species? (1) Female wasp and fig species
(1) Keystone (2) Endemic (2) Orchid and the tree on which it grows
(3) Vulnerable (4) Threatened (3) Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
Answer ( 2 ) (4) Sea Anemone and Clown fish
S o l . Endemic species are those species that are Answer ( 1 )
confined to a particular region only and not
S o l . Female wasp and fig species show mutualism.
found anywhere else. While orchid on trees on which it grows, cattle
egret and grazing cattle, and sea anemone
48. Which of the following statements about
and clown fish show commensalism.
ozone is correct?
(1) Stratospheric ozone protects us from UV 52. If an agricultural field is liberally irrigated for
radiations a prolonged period of time, it is likely to face
a problem of :
(2) Tropospheric ozone protects us from UV
radiations (1) Salinity (2) Metal toxicity
(3) Stratospheric ozone is ‘bad’ (3) Alkalinity (4) Acidity

(4) Tropospheric ozone is ‘good’ Answer ( 1 )

Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Irrigation of agricultural field for a prolonged

time without proper drainage leads to
S o l . Ozone, in our atmosphere is found in two waterlogging in the soil. Waterlogging draws
layers salt to the surface of the soil and causes
1. Stratosphere – good ozone, protects us salinity.
from UV radiations
53. Which of the following statements about
2. Troposphere – bad ozone, considered as a methanogens is not correct ?
pollutant.
(1) They produce methane gas
49. Exploration of molecular, genetic and species (2) They can be used to produce biogas
level diversity for novel products of economic (3) They are found in the rumen of cattle and
importance is known as : their excreta
(1) Bioprospecting (2) Biopiracy (4) They grow aerobically and breakdown
(3) Bioenergetics (4) Bioremediation cellulose-rich food
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 4 )

9
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

S o l . Methanogens are anaerobic chemoautotrophs. (b) DNA fragments travel along the surface of
They grow in anaerobic condition and the gel whose concentration does not
breakdown cellulose rich food. affect movement of DNA.

54. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic, (c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger
virus and powdery mildew were brought about is the distance it travels through it.
by : (d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by
(1) Hybridization and selection exposing to UV radiation.

(2) Mutation breeding Choose correct answer from the options given
below :
(3) Biofortification
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) Tissue culture
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic Answer ( 1 )
virus and powdery mildew were induced by Sol. • DNA fragments are negatively charged
mutations. molecules. Separated by forcing them to
move towards positive electrode i.e.
55. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from : anode.
(1) Datura
• Increasing the concentration of a gel
(2) Papaver somniferum reduces the migration speed of DNA.
(3) Atropa belladonna • Smaller the fragment size, farther it
(4) Erythroxylum coca moves from the point of loading i.e. the
well.
Answer ( 4 )
• DNA fragment can only be visualised
S o l . Coca alkaloids or cocaine is obtained from,
under UV light after staining with ethidium
Erythroxylum coca, a native to South
bromide and not directly.
America.

56. Among the following pairs of microbes, which 58. An enzyme catalysing the removal of
pair has both the microbes that can be used nucleotides from ends of DNA is :
as biofertilizers? (1) Protease (2) DNA ligase
(1) Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria (3) Endonuclease (4) Exonuclease
(2) Aspergillus and Rhizopus Answer ( 4 )
(3) Rhizobium and Rhizopus S o l . Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class
(4) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium of enzymes called Nucleases.
Answer ( 4 ) Nucleases are of two different kinds :
S o l . Cyanobacteria like Anabaena, Nostoc etc. and (1) Exonucleases which remove nucleotides
Rhizobium are able to fix atmospheric from the end of a DNA molecule
nitrogen and used as biofertilizers.
(2) Endonucleases, which break internal
Rhizopus and Aspergillus are used in phosphodiester bonds at palindromic sites
production of other compounds of human that are highly specific
benefit.
(3) DNA ligase helps in ligating/joining DNA
57. Given below are four statements pertaining to fragments
separation of DNA fragments using Gel
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect 59. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using :
statements. (1) ds - DNA (2) ds - RNA
(a) DNA is negatively charged molecule and (3) ss - DNA (4) ss - RNA
so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode
terminal. Answer ( 2 )

10
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)
S o l . RNAi involves silencing of a specific mRNA
and therefore the expression of a gene by
formation of a dsRNA molecule. The dsRNA
which is formed by binding of a
complementary RNA (anti-sense RNA)
molecule to original mRNA thereby preventing
translation of the original mRNA.
S o l . A Hershey and M Chase using radiolabelled
sulphur and phosphorus in bacteriophage,
proved that DNA is genetic material.
63. In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes,
the RNA polymerase I transcribes -
(1) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA

60. Which is the most common type of embryo (2) mRNA with additional processing, capping
sac in angiosperms? and tailing
(1) Bisporic with two sequential mitotic (3) tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNAs
divisions
(4) rRNAs – 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
(2) Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of
divisions Answer ( 4 )
(3) Monosporic with three sequential mitotic S o l . During transcription in eukaryotes, RNA
divisions polymerase I transcribes 5.8S, 18S and 28S
(4) Monosporic with two sequential mitotic rRNA.
divisions 64. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
Answer ( 3 ) affected person, has three sex chromosomes
XXY?
S o l . Monosporic embryo sac is the most common
type of embryo sac in flowering plants which (1) Turner’s Syndrome
develops after one meiosis and three
(2) Thalassemia
sequential mitosis in megaspore mother cell.
(3) Kleinfelter’s Syndrome
Meiosis Mitosis
MMC Mitosis
Degenerate (4) Phenylketonuria
Answer ( 3 )
Mitosis
S o l . Klinefelter's syndrome is caused due to
7 celled
8 nucleate presence of an additional copy of
Embryo X-chromosome resulting into 44 + XXY type
sac
chromosome complement.

61. From the following, identify the correct 65. What initiation and termination factors are
combination of salient features of Genetic involved in transcription in Eukaryotes?
Code - (1)  and , respectively
(1) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non- (2)  and , respectively
ambiguous
(3)  and , respectively
(2) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
(3) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless (4)  and , respectively
(4) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate Answer ( 2 * )
Answer ( 1 ) 66. Which of the following statements is correct
S o l . Genetic code is universal, unambiguous, non about the origin and evolution of men?
overlapping and degenerate in nature. (1) Neanderthal men lived in Asia between
1,00,000 and 40,000 years back.
62. Which scientist experimentally proved that
DNA is the sole genetic material in (2) Agriculture came around 50,000 years
bacteriophage? back.
(1) Jacob and Monod (3) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
(2) Beadle and Tautum primates existing 15 million years ago,
(3) Messelson and Stahl walked like men.
(4) Hershey and Chase (4) Homo habilis probably ate meat.
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 1 )
11
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

Sol. – Agriculture came around 10,000 years 70. One scientist cultured Cladophora in a
back and human settlements started. suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the
culture by splitting light through a prism. He
– Homo habilis probably did not eat meat.
observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in
– The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus the region of :
primates existing 15 mya. They are hairy
(1) Blue and red light
and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.
(2) Violet and green light
67. The production of gametes by the parents, the (3) Indigo and green light
formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can
(4) Orange and yellow light
be understood using
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Wenn diagram
S o l . Azotobacter is aerobic bacteria.
(2) Pie diagram
Cladophora is green alga.
(3) A pyramid diagram
T.W. Engelmann split light into its spectral
(4) Punnet square components and detected that aerobic
Answer ( 4 ) bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of
blue and red light of the split spectrum.
S o l . With the help of Punnett square the
production of gametes, the formation of 71. In order to increase the yield of sugarcane
zygotes and the F 1 and F 2 plants can be crop, which of the following plant growth
understood. regulators should be sprayed?
(1) Cytokinins (2) Ethylene
68. In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2
acceptor is (3) Auxins (4) Gibberellins

(1) Rubisco Answer ( 4 )

(2) Oxaloacetic acid S o l . Gibberellins shows bolting when gibberellin is

(3) Phosphoglyceric acid
(4) Phosphoenol pyruvate
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . PEP (Phosphoenol pyruvate) is the primary
CO 2 acceptor in C 4 or Hatch and Slack
pathway.
69. Removal of shoot tips is a very useful
technique to boost the production of tea-
leaves. This is because :
(1) Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves.
(2) Gibberellins prevent bolting and are
inactivated.
(3) Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages.
(4) Effect of auxins is removed and growth of
lateral buds is enhanced.
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Auxin shows apical dominance. Removal of
auxin by removal of shoot tips prevents the
apical dominance and promotes the growth
of lateral buds which is a very useful in tea
leaves production.
12
sprayed on sugarcane crop, the length of the
stem increases.
72. What type of pollination takes place in
Vallisneria?
(1) Male flowers are carried by water
currents to female flowers at surface of
water.
(2) Pollination occurs in submerged condition
by water.
(3) Flowers emerge above surface of water
and pollination occurs by insects.
(4) Flowers emerge above water surface and
pollen is carried by wind.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Vallisneria shows epihydrophily.
Male flowers after breakage float on the
surface of water and reach the female flowers.
73. In which one of the following, both autogamy
and geitonogamy are prevented?
(1) Maize (2) Wheat
(3) Papaya (4) Castor
Answer ( 3 )
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

S o l . Papaya is a dioecious plant in which male and S o l . (a) Golgi apparatus (iii) Formation of
female flowers are produced on two separate glycoproteins and
plants. Hence it prevents both autogamy as glycolipids
well as geitonogamy. (b) Lysosomes (iv) Digesting
Castor and Maize : Monoecious and unisexual biomolecules

Wheat : Monoecious and bisexual (c) Vacuoles (ii) Trap waste and
excretory products
74. Match the placental types (column-I) with (d) Ribosomes (i) Synthesis of protein
their examples (column-II).
76. Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in
Column-I Column-II
that-
(a) Basal (i) Mustard (1) They can serve as co-factors in a number
(b) Axile (ii) China rose of enzyme - catalyzed reactions
(c) Parietal (iii) Dianthus (2) They require metal ions for their activity
(d) Free central (iv) Sunflower (3) They (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound
to apoenzymes
Choose the correct answer from the following
options : (4) Their association with apoenzymes is
transient
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Answer ( 3 )
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
S o l . Prosthetic groups are organic compounds
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) that are tightly bound to the apoenzyme but
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) coenzymes are associated with the
apoenzyme last for a short period of time i.e.
Answer ( 4 ) transiently.
S o l . Basal : Sunflower
77. Crossing over takes place between which
Axile : China rose chromatids and in which stage of the cell
Parietal : Mustard cycle ?
(1) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
Free central : Dianthus
chromosomes at Pachytene stage of
75. Match the column I with column II. prophase I

Column I Column II (2) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous

chromosomes at Zygotene stage of
(a) Golgi apparatus (i) Synthesis of protein prophase I
(b) Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and (3) Non-sister chromatids of homologous
excretory products chromosomes at Pachytene stage of
(c) Vacuoles (iii) Formation of prophase I
glycoproteins and (4) Non-sister chromatids of homologous
glycolipids chromosomes at Zygotene stage of
prophase I
(d) Ribosomes (iv) Digesting
biomolecules Answer ( 3 )

Choose the right match from options given S o l . Crossing over takes place between non-sister
below : chromatids of homologous chromosomes at
pachytene stage
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
78. "Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
structure of
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1) DNA (2) RNA
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (3) Proteins (4) Triacylglycerides
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 3 )

13
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )
S o l . "Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the 83. Which of the following is against the rules of
structure of proteins. ICBN?
A Ramachandran plot, is a way to visualize (1) Generic and specific names should be
energetically allowed regions for backbone written starting with small letters.
dihedral angles  against  of amino acid (2) Hand written scientific names should be
residues to protein structure. underlined.
79. Which of the following is not a feature of (3) Every species should have a generic name
active transport of solutes in plants ? and a specific epithet.
(1) Requires ATP (4) Scientific names are in Latin and should
be italized.
(2) Occurs against concentration gradient
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Non-selective
S o l . The first word denoting the genus starts with
(4) Occurs through membranes
a capital letter while the specific epithet
Answer ( 3 ) starts with a small letter.
S o l . Active transport is uphill transport which
requires membrane proteins and ATP. It is 84. Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an
highly selective. organism which has :
(1) Free DNA without protein coat
80. Which of the following bacteria reduce nitrate
in soil into nitrogen ? (2) Inert crystalline structure
(3) Abnormally folded protein
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrobacter
(4) Free RNA without protein coat
(3) Nitrococcus (4) Thiobacillus
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by prions.
S o l . Nitrates (soil) Nitrogen
Denitrification Prions are disease causing agents having
abnormally folded proteins.
Pseudomonas denitrificans &
Thiobacillus denitrificans 85. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Lichens are not good pollution indicators.
81. What will be the direction of flow of water
(2) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
when a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic
solution ? (3) Algal component of lichens is called
mycobiont
(1) No flow of water in any direction
(4) Fungal component of lichens is called
(2) Water will flow in both directions phycobiont.
(3) Water will flow out of the cell Answer ( 2 )
(4) Water will flow into the cell
S o l . Lichens are very good pollution indicators.
Answer ( 4 ) They do not grow in polluted areas.
S o l . When a plant cell is placed in hypotonic
86. Match the organisms in column I with
solution water will flow into the cell as water
habitats in column II.
moves from high water potential to low water
potential. Column-I Column-II
82. Where is the respiratory electron transport (a) Halophiles (i) Hot springs
system (ETS) located in plants ?
(b) Thermoacidophiles (ii) Aquatic
(1) Intermembrane space environment
(2) Mitochondrial matrix
(c) Methanogens (iii) Guts of
(3) Outer mitochondrial membrane
ruminants
(4) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty areas
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Electron transport system is located in inner Select the correct answer from the options
mitochondrial membrane. given below :

14
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) S o l . Intercalary meristems are found in grasses,
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) where they help to regenerate the parts
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) removed by the grazing herbivores.
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
90. Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed
Answer ( 2 ) septum is seen in :
Sol.  Halophiles live in salty areas
(1) Sesbania
 Thermoacidophiles are present in hot
springs (2) Brassica
 Methanogens are present in gut of several (3) Aloe
ruminants
(4) Solanum
 Cyanobacteria can be present in
freshwater/ marine or terristerial habitat Answer ( 4 )

87. In the dicot root the vascular cambium S o l . Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed
originates from : septum is seen in the members of family
(1) Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue Solanaceae eg. Solanum
in a ring
91. Select the incorrect statement regarding
(2) Tissue located below the phloem bundles
inbreeding.
and a portion of pericycle tissue above
protoxylem. (1) Inbreeding depression cannot be
(3) Cortical region overcome by out-crossing
(4) Parenchyma between endodermis and (2) Inbreeding helps in elimination of
pericycle deleterious alleles from the population
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a pure
S o l . Vascular cambium is a secondary
line in any animal
meristematic tissue, in dicot roots. It is
originated from tissue located below the (4) Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and
phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle leads to inbreeding depression
tissue above the protoxylem.
Answer ( 1 )
88. Which of the following shows whorled S o l . A single outcross often helps to overcome
phyllotaxy? inbreeding depression. Inbreeding increases
(1) Calotropis (2) Mustard homozygosity and close inbreeding usually
(3) China rose (4) Alstonia reduces fertility and even productivity causing
inbreeding depression.
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . In whorled phyllotaxy, more than two leaves 92. A biocontrol agent to be a part of an
arise at each node and form a whorl or a integrated pest management should be
circle.
(1) Species-specific and inactive on non-
Alstonia shows whorled phyllotaxy.
target organisms
89. Regeneration of damaged growing grass
(2) Species-specific and symbiotic
following grazing is largely due to :
(1) Secondary meristem (3) Free living and broad spectrum

(2) Lateral meristem (4) Narrow spectrum and symbiotic

(3) Apical meristem Answer ( 1 )
(4) Intercalary meristem S o l . A good biocontrol agent should be species-
Answer ( 4 ) specific and inactive on non-target organisms.

15
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )
93. Match the following enzymes with their Answer ( 3 )
functions: S o l . Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use
a. Restriction (i) Joins the DNA of bio-resources by multinational companies
endonuclease fragments and other organisations without proper
b. Restriction (ii) Extends primers on authorisation from the countries and people
exonuclease genomic DNA concerned without compensatory payment.
template Biowar/warfare in which disease-producing
c. DNA ligase (iii) Cuts DNA at specific microorganism, toxins, or organic biocides
position e.g. Bacillus anthracis or Yersinia pestis used
d. Tag polymerase (iv) Removes to destroy, injure or immobilize livestock,
nucleotides from vegetation, or human life.
the ends of DNA Biological warfare/Germ warfare/Bioweapon
Select the correct option from the following:  use of biological toxins or infectious agents
such as bacteria, viruses and fungi with the
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
intent to kill human, animal or plant.
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
Bioethics is the study of the ethical issues
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) emerging from advances in biology and
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) medicine.
Answer ( 3 )
96. Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards,
S o l . a. Restriction : Cuts DNA at specific occupy the same niche but lions predate
endonuclease position mostly larger animals and leopards take
b. Restriction : Removes nucleotides smaller ones. This mechanism of competition
exonuclease from the ends of DNA is referred to as–
c. DNA ligase : Joins the DNA fragments (1) Competitive exclusion
d. Taq : Extends primers on (2) Character displacement
polymerase genomic DNA template (3) Altruism
94. The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector (4) Resource partitioning
pBR322 are for Answer ( 4 )
(1) Tetracycline and Kanamycin S o l . If two species compete for the same resource,
(2) Ampicillin and Tetracycline they could avoid competition by choosing, for
(3) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol instance different times for feeding or different
foraging patterns. Such mechanism is called
(4) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
resource partitioning.
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . E.Coli cloning vector pBR322 contains 97. Decline in the population of Indian native
antibiotic resistance genes for Ampicillin and fishes due to introduction of Clarias
Tetracycline. gariepinus in river Yamuna can be
categorised as
Pvu-I (1) Alien species invasion

R
(2) Co-extinction
am p R
tet
BamHI (3) Habitat fragmentation
Pst-I (4) Over exploitation
Answer ( 1 )
95. Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by S o l . Introduction of the African catfish Clarias
multinational companies without gariepinus for aquaculture purposes has
authorization from the concerned country is become a threat to indigenous catfishes in
referred to as our rivers.
(1) Biowar (2) Bioweapon Clarias gariepinus is an alien species for the
(3) Biopiracy (4) Bioethics communities in Yamuna.
16
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)
98. Match the following RNA polymerases with Answer ( 4 )
their transcribed products :
S o l . When a population of a species invades a new
(a) RNA polymerase I (i) tRNA area with many type of vacant habitats, they
(b) RNA polymerase II (ii) rRNA face different environmental pressures and
(b) RNA polymerase III (iii) hnRNA eventually adapt exhibiting adaptive radiation.
Select the correct option from the following :
101. Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
representation of the mechanism of hormone
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)
action.
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
A
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
Answer ( 4 ) B

S o l . In eukaryotes, there are three types of RNA

polymerases.
Response I
RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs,
RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNAs, C
and RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNAs.
Physiological Response
99. In a marriage between male with blood group Select the correct option from the following :
A and female with blood group B, the progeny
had either blood group AB or B. What could be (1) A = Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP;
the possible genotype of parents? C = Hormone-receptor Complex
(1) IA i (Male) ; IB i (Female)
(2) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormone-
(2) IA i (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
receptor Complex; C = Protein
(3) IA IA (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
(3) A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor
(4) IA IA (Male) ; IB i (Female)
Answer ( 2 ) C = Cyclic AMP
S o l . Male with blood group A can have genotype (4) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor;
IA i or IAIA.
C = Second Messenger
Female with blood group B can have genotyp
IBIB, or IBi Answer ( 3 )
Male Female
A
× B B S o l . 'A' is a hormone such as FSH that cannot
I i II
cross lipid bilayer therefore it interacts with
A B
I i I the membrane-bound receptors and does not
Gametes
enter the target cell, but generates second
messengers. Peptide, polypeptide, protein
hormones and catecholamines act through
this mechanism.
A B B
Progeny II I i 'B' represents the extracellular receptors
Blood group Blood group present on cell surface that forms a hormone-
AB B
receptor complex which brings about
100. A population of a species invades a new area. conformational changes in the cytoplasmic
Which of the following condition will lead to
part of the receptor. This cytoplasmic part
Adaptive Radiation?
can produces second messengers such as
(1) Area with many habitats occupied by a
Ca +2 ,cAMP, IP 3 etc. which activates the
large number of species.
existing enzyme system of the cell and
(2) Area with large number of habitats having
accelerates the biochemical reactions in the
very low food supply.
cell.
(3) Area with a single type of vacant habitat
(4) Area with many types of vacant habitats. 'C' represents the second messenger.

17

102. Humans have acquired immune system that
produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens.
Still innate immune system is present at the
time of birth because it
(1) provides passive immunity
(2) is very specific and uses different
macrophages.
(3) produces memory cells for mounting fast
secondary response.
(4) has natural killer cells which can
phagocytose and destroy microbes
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Innate immunity is non-specific and is
accomplished by providing different types of
barriers to the entry of foreign agent or any
pathogen into our body.
• Passive immunity is specific and is a
branch of humoral immunity.
• Natural killer cells are a type of
lymphocytes which will produce proteins
called perforins that create pores on
plasma membrane of tumor cells and
virally infected cells through which ECF
enters and kill the cells.
• Innate immunity does not produce memory
cells hence, no secondary immune
response is seen.
103. Select the correct sequence of events.
(1) Gametogenesis  Gamete transfer 
Syngamy  Zygote  Cell differentiation
 Cell division (Cleavage)  (4) LH levels are high in the luteal phase.
Organogenesis.
(2) Gametogenesis  Gamete transfer 
Syngamy  Zygote  Cell division
(Cleavage)  Cell differentiation 
Organogenesis.
(3) Gametogenesis  Gamete transfer 
Syngamy  Zygote  Cell division 
(Cleavage)  Organogenesis  Cell
differentiation.
(4) Gametogenesis  Syngamy  Gamete
transfer  Zygote  Cell division
(Cleavage)  Cell differentiation 
Organogenesis.
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Gametogenesis  Gamete transfer 
Syngamy  Zygote  Cell division (Cleavage)
 Cell differentiation  Organogenesis
 Gametogenesis  Formation of Gametes
18
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )
 Gamete transfer  Insemination
 Syngamy  Fusion of gametes and leading
to formation of gametes
 Cleavage  Repeated cell division.
 Cell differentiation  Specialization of
cell to perform
specific function.
 Organogenesis  Formation of organ
104. Which of the following hormones is
responsible for both the milk ejection reflex
and the foetal ejection reflex?
(1) Relaxin (2) Estrogen
(3) Prolactin (4) Oxytocin
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of
oxytocin from the maternal anterior pituitary
gland. Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles
and causes stronger uterine contractions.
Milk ejection reflex is caused by combined
neurogenic and hormonal reflexes that
involve release of oxytocin from posterior
pituitary gland.
105. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of
the menstrual cycle because:
(1) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the
luteal phase.
(2) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after
ovulation.
(3) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Ovulation is followed by the luteal phase
during which the corpus luteum secretes
estrogen and progesterone that exerts
negative feedback on hypothalamus which in
turn inhibits the release of FSH and LH. This
prevents the development of new follicles
during the luteal phase.
106. In Australia, marsupials and placental
mammals have evolved to share many similar
characteristics. This type of evolution may be
referred to as
(1) Convergent Evolution
(2) Adaptive Radiation
(3) Divergent Evolution
(4) Cyclical Evolution
Answer ( 1 )
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

S o l . In Australia, marsupials and placental 108. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced
mammals have evolved to share many similar by the following stretch of DNA?
characteristics. This type of evolution may be 3 ATGCATGCATGCATG 5 TEMPLATE STRAND
referred to as convergent evolution.
5 TACGTACGTACGTAC 3 CODING STRAND
Many placental mammals resemble the
marsupial mammals not only in structure but (1) 3 AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3
also in leading similar ways of life. These (2) 3 AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5
similarities in these two different types of (3) 5 UACGUACGUACGUAC 3
mammals (Marsupials and placentals) w.r.t.
ancestors are due to living in the similar (4) 3 UACGUACGUACGUAC 5
ecological niches. Hence, when two different Answer ( 3 )
types of organisms converge towards S o l . 5 TACGTACGTACGTAC 3 (Coding strand)
functional similarity one can conclude that
5 UACGUACGUACGUAC 3 (m-RNA)
convergent evolution has occurred.
In m-RNA at the place of thymine in coding
107. Match the items of Column-I with Column-II :
strand uracil remain present.
Column-I Column-II
109. Which of the following statements is not
(a) XX-XO method (i) Turner's correct ?
of Sex Syndrome
(1) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the
Determination
stretching of muscle and response is its
(b) XX-XY method (ii) Female contraction
of Sex Heterogametic (2) An action potential in an axon does not
Determination move backward because the segment
(c) Karyotype-45 (iii) Grasshopper behind is in a refractory phase
(3) Depolarisation of hair cells of cochlea
(d) ZW-ZZ method (iv) Female
results in the opening of the mechanically
of Sex homogametic
gated potassium-ion channels
Determination
(4) Rods are very sensitive and contribute to
select the correct option from the following : daylight vision
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), d-(iii) Answer ( 4 )
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) S o l . Cones are very sensitive to operate in day
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) light. Rods are very sensitive in dim light. In
cochlea, endolymph contains large amount of
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) K+ ions.
Answer ( 4 ) Depolarisation of sensory hair cells present in
cochlea takes place by opening of mechanical
gated K+ channels.
Sol. Grasshopper
Female Homogametic 110. Match the following joints with the bones
X, X involved:

Male Heterogametic (a) Gliding joint (i) Between carpal and

X, Y metacarpal of thumb
(b) Hinge joint (ii) Between Atlas and
Female Heterogametic
Axis
Z, W
(c) Pivot joint (iii) Between the Carpals
Male Homogametic (d) Saddle joint (iv) Between Humerus
Z, Z
and Ulna

19

Select the correct option from the following :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), c-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), c-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), c-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), c-(iii), (d)-(i)
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.  Gliding joint is present between the
carpals.
 Hinge joint is present between humerus
and ulna.
 Pivot joint is present between atlas and
axis.
 Saddle joint is present between carpal
and metacarpal of thumb.
111. Which of the following diseases is an
autoimmune disorder ?
(1) Gout (2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Arthritis (4) Osteoporosis
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune disorder
that affects neuromuscular junction leading to
fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal
muscles.
 Arthritis is inflammation of joints.
 Gout is inflammation of joints due to
accumulation of uric acid crystals.
 Osteoporosis is age related disorder
characterised by decreased bone mass
and increased chances of fractures.
112. Artificial light, extended work-time and
reduced sleep-time disrupt the activity of –
(1) Posterior pituitary gland
(2) Thymus gland
(3) Pineal gland
(4) Adrenal gland
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Artificial light, extended work time and
reduced sleep-time disrupt the activity of
pineal gland.
Melatonin hormone of pineal gland plays a
very important role in the regulation of a
24-hours (diurnal) rhythm of our body.
Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal
rhythms of sleep-wake cycle and body
temperature.
20
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )
113. Which of the following conditions will
stimulate parathyroid gland to release
parathyroid hormone ?
(1) Rise in blood Ca+2 levels
(2) Fall in active Vitamin D levels
(3) Fall in blood Ca+2 levels
(4) Fall in bone Ca+2 levels
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hypercalcemic
hormone. i.e. it increases the blood Ca2+ level.
PTH acts on bones and stimulates the process of
bone resorption (dissolution/demineralisation).
PTH also stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the
renal tubules and increases Ca2+ absorption
from the digested food.
114. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
(1) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
(2) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
(3) IUDs are generally inserted by the user
herself
(4) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in
the uterus
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . IUDs of all types are in general treated as a
foreign body thus inviting phagocytic cells to
the uterus.
 IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms
within the uterus and Cu ions released
suppress sperm motility and the fertilising
capacity of sperms.
 IUDs need to be inserted by an
experienced nurse and have to be
replaced after few years depending on
copper or hormonal level.
115. Which of the following sexually transmitted
diseases do not specifically affect
reproductive organs ?
(1) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
(2) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
(3) Syphilis and Genital herpes
(4) AIDS and Hepatitis B
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . AIDS and Hepatitis B are sexually transmitted
infections. However, they do not specifically
affect the reproductive organs only.
 AIDS is HIV infection affecting the immune
system and opportunistic pathogens can
infect various body organs.
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)
 Hepatitis B affects liver. S o l . SA node acts as pace-maker of heart because
 Agents causing genital herpes, genital its autoexcitable tissue generates heart
warts and chlamydiasis produce lesions impulses at highest rate (frequency).
on genital organs and also directly affect
119. A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the
the reproductive system.
lower corner of the right atrium, close to
116. Select the correct statement. Atrio-ventricular septum, delays the spreading
of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec.
(1) Expiration is initiated due to contraction
This delay allows
of diaphragm.
(1) the atria to empty completely.
(2) Expiration occurs due to external
intercostal muscles. (2) blood to enter aorta.
(3) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the (3) the ventricles to empty completely.
atmospheric pressure during inspiration. (4) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
(4) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric Answer ( 1 )
pressure is less than intrapulmonary
S o l . The delay in transmission of impulse from
pressure.
SAN to the ventricles provided by AVN
Answer ( 3 ) prevents simultaneous contraction of
S o l . During inspiration, diaphragm and external ventricles and auricles. This allows atria to
intercostal muscles contract causing empty completely before ventricles start
increase in volume of thoracic cage. As a contraction.
result intrapulmonary pressure decreases to
a level less than atmospheric pressure, thus 120. Match the following parts of a nephron with
causing inspiration. their function :
Expiration is initiated due to relaxation of (a) Descending limb (i) Reabsorption of
diaphragm. of Henle's loop salts only
(b) Proximal (ii) Reabsorption of
117. The maximum volume of air a person can convoluted tubule water only
breathe in after a forced expiration is known
as : (c) Ascending limb (iii) Conditional
of Henle's loop reabsorption of
(1) Total Lung Capacity
sodium ions and
(2) Expiratory Capacity water
(3) Vital Capacity (d) Distal convoluted (iv) Reabsorption of
(4) Inspiratory Capacity tubule ions, water and
Answer ( 3 ) organic nutrients

S o l . Maximum amount of air expired by a person Select the correct option from the following :
after forceful inspiration or inspired after (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
forceful expiration is known as vital capacity (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4600 ml
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Total amount of air in lungs at end of forceful
inspiration is total lung capacity 5800 ml (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Answer ( 3 )
118. All the components of the nodal tissue are
S o l .  Descending limb of  Reabsorption of
autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as
the normal pacemaker? Henle's loop water only
(1) SA node has the highest rate of  PCT  Reabsorption of
depolarisation. ions, water organic
(2) SA node has the lowest rate of nutrients
depolarisation.  Ascending limb of  Reabsorption of
(3) SA node is the only component to Henle's loop salts only.
generate the threshold potential.  DCT  Conditional
(4) Only SA node can convey the action reabsorption of
potential to the other components. sodium ions and
Answer ( 1 ) water

21
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

121. Match the items in Column-I with those in 123. Which of the following cell organelles is
Column-II present in the highest number in secretory
Column-I Column-II cells?

(a) Podocytes (i) Crystallised (1) Lysosome

oxalates (2) Mitochondria

(b) Protonephridia (ii) Annelids (3) Golgi complex

(c) Nephridia (iii) Amphioxus (4) Endoplasmic reticulum

(d) Renal calculi (iv) Filtration slits Answer ( 3 )

Select the correct option from the following : S o l . The important function of Golgi apparatus is
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) to process, package and transport the
materials for secretion. Therefore secretory
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
cells have Golgi apparatus in highest number.
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
124. Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
nucleus are the site for active synthesis of
Answer ( 4 )
(1) tRNA
S o l . Podocytes  Filtration slits
(2) protein synthesis
Protonephridia  Amphioxus
(3) mRNA
Nephridia  Annelids
(4) rRNA
Renal calculi  Crystallised oxalates
Answer ( 4 )
122. Which of the following receptors are
S o l . Nucleolus is non-membranous nucleoplasmic
specifically responsible for maintenance of
structure in nucleus.
balance of body and posture?
Nucleolus is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
(1) Crista ampullaris and macula
synthesis.
(2) Basilar membrane and otoliths

(3) Hair cells and organ of corti 125. Which of the following nucleic acids is
present in an organism having 70 S ribosomes
(4) Tectorial membrane and macula
only?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Double stranded circular DNA with
S o l . Crista ampullaris  Maintains the dynamic histone proteins
balance of the body
(2) Single stranded DNA with protein coat
Otolith organ  Consists of two
(3) Double stranded circular naked DNA
structures i.e. saccule
and utricle (4) Double stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear

 The projecting ridge of membrane

the saccule and utricle
is called macula.
 The otolith organ
maintains the static
balance of the body
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The organisms which have ribosomes of 70 S
type are prokaryotes. Prokaryotes have double
stranded DNA which is not enclosed in
membrane.

22
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

126. After meiosis I, the resultant daughter cells
have
(1) four times the amount of DNA in
comparison to haploid gamete.
(2) same amount of DNA as in the parent cell
in S phase.
(3) twice the amount of DNA in comparison
to haploid gamete.
(4) same amount of DNA in comparison to
haploid gamete.
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Meiosis I is reductional division thus the
resultant cell just after meiosis I will have half
the number of chromosomes as compared to
diploid parent cells. Therefore if the parent
cell has 4C amount of DNA the daughter cell
will have 2C amount of DNA and each gamete
will have 1C amount of DNA.
127. Which of the following organic compounds is
the main constituent of Lecithin?
(1) Phosphoprotein
(2) Arachidonic acid
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Cholesterol
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Lecithin is an example of phospholipids found
in cell membrane.
Casein is a phosphoprotein found in milk
128. The main difference between active and
passive transport across cell membrane is :
(1) active transport occurs more rapidly than
passive transport.
(2) passive transport is non-selective whereas
active transport is selective.
(3) passive transport requires a concentration
gradient across a biological membrane
whereas active transport requires energy
to move solutes.
S o l . In active transport, materials are transported
across a membrane with the help of mobile
carrier protein and ATP.
In passive transport, substances move along
the concentration gradient, i.e., from its
higher concentration to its lower
concentration.
129. Match the items given in Column-I with those
in Column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Rennin (i) Vitamin B12
(b) Enterokinase (ii) Facilitated
transport
(c) Oxyntic cells (iii) Milk proteins
(d) Fructose (iv) Trypsinogen
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Rennin is a milk digesting protein enzyme.
Enterokinase converts trypsinogen into trypsin.
Fructose shows facilitated transport oxyntic
cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factors that are
essential for absorption of vitamin B12.
130. Kwashiorkor disease is due to -
(1) protein deficiency not accompanied by
calorie deficiency
(2) simultaneous deficiency of proteins and
fats
(3) simultaneous deficiency of proteins and
calories
(4) deficiency of carbohydrates
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Kwashiorkor is produced by protein deficiency
but unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. It
results from the replacement of mother's milk
by a high calorie-low protein diet in a child
more than one year in age.
131. Match the following genera with their
respective phylum :

(4) passive transport is confined to anionic (a) Ophiura (i) Mollusca

carrier proteins whereas active transport (b) Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes
is confined to cationic channel proteins. (c) Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata
Answer ( 3 ) (d) Planaria (iv) Coelenterata

23
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

Select the correct option : (b) Adhering (ii) Transmit

junctions information
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
through chemical
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) to another cells
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (c) Gap junctions (iii) Establish a barrier
to prevent leakage
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
of fluid across
Answer ( 3 ) epithelial cells
S o l . (a) Ophiura is an Echinoderm commonly (d) Synaptic (iv) Cytoplasmic
known as brittle star. junctions channels to
facilitate
(b) Physalia is coelenterate (Cnidarian)
communication
commonly known as portuguese man of
between adjacent
war.
cells
(c) Pinctada is pearl oyster belonging to
Select correct option from the following :
taxon bivalve molluscs.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(d) Planaria belongs to platyhelminthes
(flatworms). (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
132. Which of the following animals are true
coelomates with bilateral symmetry ? (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Annelids (2) Adult Echinoderms
Sol. • Tight junctions provide a barrier which
(3) Aschelminthes (4) Platyhelminthes prevents leakage of fluid across epithelial
Answer ( 1 ) cells.

Sol. • Annelids exhibit bilateral symmetry with • Adherens junctions aid to cement
metameric segmentation where external adjacent cells to form a sheet.
segments correspond to internal • Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic
segments. channels to facilitate communication
between adjacent cells.
• Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates and
platyhelminthes are acoelomates. • Synaptic junctions help in transmission of
information through chemicals.
• Adult echinoderms are bilaterally
symmetrical. 135. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT ?
133. The contrasting characteristics generally in a
(1) Female cockroach possesses sixteen
pair used for identification of animals in
ovarioles in the ovaries.
Taxonomic Key are referred to as :
(2) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with
(1) Alternate (2) Lead less sensitivity and more resolution.
(3) Couplet (4) Doublet (3) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in
Answer ( 3 ) the 6 th-7 th abdominal segments of male
cockroach.
S o l . The keys are based on the set of contrasting
characters in pair known as couplet. (4) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th
segment of female cockroach
134. Match the following cell structure with its Answer ( 2 )
characteristic feature :
S o l . Cockroaches receive several images of an
(a) Tight junctions (i) Cement object with the help of ommatidia. This kind of
neighbouring cells vision possessed by cockroaches is known as
together to form mosaic vision which has move sensitivity but
sheet less resolution.

24
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

136. The radius of the first permitted Bohr orbit, V from A to Q

for the electron, in a hydrogen atom equals
2
0.51 Å and its ground state energy equals VA   30  VQ
50
–13.6 eV. If the electron in the hydrogen atom
is replaced by muon (–) [charge same as 2 2
VP   20  VQ   30  VP  VQ  0.4 V
electron and mass 207 m e], the first Bohr 50 50
radius and ground state energy will be,
138. The metre bridge shown is in balance
(1) 2.56 × 10–13 m, –13.6 eV P l1
(2) 0.53 × 10–13 m, –3.6 eV position with Q  l . If we now interchange
2
(3) 25.6 × 10–13 m, –2.8 eV the positions of galvanometer and cell, will
the bridge work? If yes, what will be balance
(4) 2.56 × 10–13 m, –2.8 keV
condition?
Answer ( 4 )
1
S o l . rn  P Q
m
0.51
r   2.56  1013 m G
 207
E  me
l1 l2
(E)  = –13.6 × 207
P l1
= –2.8 keV (1) yes, Q  l
2
137. The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the P l2  l1
circuit shown is, (2) yes, Q  l  l
2 1
20  30  (3) no, no null point
P l2
V (4) yes, Q  l
1
Answer ( 1 )
30  20 
S o l . In balanced bridge (initially)
2V P l1

(1) 0.4 V (2) 0.6 V Q l2
(3) 0 V (4) 0.5 V
P Q
Answer ( 1 )
G
2
S o l . Current in APB  A
50 l1 l2
2
Current in AQB  A
50
20  P 30  E
In balanced bridge (finally)
A B
V
P Q Q
 P
l1 l2
30  Q 20  E G
P l1 l1 l2
2V 
Q l2
V from A to P
On interchanging galvanometer and battery
2 positions, the balance condition remains
VA   20  VP
50 unchanged.

25
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

139. The relations amongst the three elements of 0.15  103

earth’s magnetic field, namely horizontal
component H, vertical component V and dip 
are, (BE = total magnetic field)
(1) V = BE, H = BE tan
(2) V = BE tan, H = BE
(3) V = BE sin, H = BE cos
(4) V = BE cos, H = BE sin
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . H = BE cos
d0 
0.20
= 0.75 × 103
= 750 kg/m3
141. A deep rectangular pond of surface area A,
containing water (density = ), specific heat
capacity = s), is located in a region where the
outside air temperature is at a steady value of
–26°C. The thickness of the frozen ice layer in
this pond, at a certain instant is x.

V = BE sin Taking the thermal conductivity of ice as K,

H and its specific latent heat of fusion as L, the
 rate of increase of the thickness of ice layer,
at this instant, would be given by
(1) 26K/x(L + 4s) (2) 26K/x(L – 4s)
BE
(3) 26K/(x2L) (4) 26K/(xL)
V
Answer ( 4 )
140. In a u-tube as shown in the fig. water and oil S o l . Assume at any instant thickness of ice is x.
are in the left side and right side of the tube And time taken to form additional thickness
respectively. The heights from the bottom for (dx) is dt.
water and oil columns are 15 cm and 20 cm
x
respectively. The density of the oil is
dx
[take water = 1000 kg/m3]

KA[26  0]dt
mL 
x

20 cm (Adx)L 
KA(26)dt
x
15 cm
dx 26 K

dt xL
water oil
(1) 1333 kg/m3 (2) 1200 kg/m3 142. An LED is constructed from a p-n junction
(3) 750 kg/m3 (4) 1000 kg/m3 diode using GaAsP. The energy gap is 1.9 eV.
Answer ( 3 ) The wavelength of the light emitted will be
equal to
S o l . In equilibrium
(1) 654 × 10–11 m (2) 10.4 × 10–26 m
(3) 654 nm (4) 654 Å
Answer ( 3 )

20 cm S o l . Wavelength of light emitted.

15 cm 12400
 Å
E g (in eV)

12400
A B   6526 Å
water oil 1.9
Pressure at A = Pressure at B. = 653 nm
Pa + 0.15 × 103 × g = Pa + 0.20 × d0 g  654 nm
26
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

143. The circuit diagram shown here corresponds  A B Y

to the logic gate,
0 0 1
+ 6V
0 1 0
R
1 0 0
A 0
1 1 1 0
NOR gate.
B 0
1  Cp 
144. The value of     , for hydrogen, helium
LED(Y)  Cv 
and another ideal diatomic gas X (whose
R molecules are not rigid but have an additional
(1) NAND (2) NOR vibrational mode), are respectively equal to,
(3) AND (4) OR 7 5 7 7 5 9
(1) , , (2) , ,
Answer ( 2 ) 5 3 5 5 3 7
S o l . Case-1 : A = 0, B = 0
5 7 9 5 7 7
LED will glow (3) , , (4) , ,
3 5 7 3 5 5
 Y=1
Answer ( 2 )
6V
S o l . Diatomic gases have 5 degrees of freedom, if
R vibrational mode is neglected. And if
vibrational mode is also considered then
degrees of freedom of diatomic gas molecules
are 7.

R 2 2 7
For Hydrogen   1   1 
f 5 5
Case-2 : A = 0, B = 1
2 2 5
No current will through LED For Helium   1   1 
f 3 3
 Y=0 For gas X (vibrational mode also considered)
6V f = 7.
R 2 2 9
  1  1 
f 7 7
7 5 9
So,  , , 
5 3 7
R 145. The main scale of a vernier callipers has n
Case-3 : A = 1, B = 0 divisions/cm. n divisions of the vernier scale
coincide with (n – 1) divisions of main scale.
Again no current will through LED
The least count of the vernier callipers is,
 Y=0
1 1
Case-4 : A = 1, B = 1 (1) cm (2) cm
n(n  1) (n  1)(n  1)
Again Y = 0
+6V 1 1
(3) cm (4) cm
R n n2
Answer ( 4 )
Y S o l . n VSD = (n – 1) MSD
(n  1)
R 1VSD = MSD
n
27
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

L.C. = 1MSD – 1VSD

Sol. B
(n  1)
= 1MSD  MSD h
n
1 A
= MSD
n Earth
1 1
=  cm
n n
1
= cm GMm
n2 (P.E)A  
R
146. A person travelling in a straight line moves
with a constant velocity v1 for certain distance
GMm
‘x’ and with a constant velocity v 2 for next (P.E)B  
equal distance. The average velocity v is Rh
given by the relation  U = (P.E)B – (P.E)A

1 1 1 GMm GMm GMmh

(1) v  v1 v2 (2) v  v  v =  
1 2 Rh R (R)(R  h)

2 1 1 148. 1 g of water, of volume 1 cm 3 at 100°C, is

v v1  v 2
(3) v  v  v (4)  converted into steam at same temperature
1 2 2 2
under normal atmospheric pressure
Answer ( 3 ) (  1× 105 Pa). The volume of steam formed
equals 1671 cm3. If the specific latent heat of
v1 v2 vaporisation of water is 2256 J/g, the change
Sol.
x x in internal energy is,
time taken : t1 t2
(1) 2256 J (2) 2423 J
x x (3) 2089 J (4) 167 J
As t 1  and t 2 
v1 v2
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Q = 2256 × 1 = 2256 J
xx
 v
t1  t2 W = P[Vsteam – Vwater]
= 1 × 105[1671 – 1] × 10–6
2x 2v1v2 = 1670 × 105 × 10–6
 
x x v1  v 2
 = 167 J
v1 v 2
By first law of thermodynamics:
2 1 1
   As Q = U + W
v v1 v 2
2256 = U + 167
147. Assuming that the gravitational potential
energy of an object at infinity is zero, the U = 2089 J
change in potential energy (final – initial) of 149. Angular width of the central maxima in the
an object of mass m, when taken to a height Fraunhofer diffraction for  = 6000 Å is 0.
h from the surface of earth (of radius R), is When the same slit is illuminated by another
given by, monochromatic light, the angular width
GMm GMm decreases by 30%. The wavelength of this
(1) (2)  light is
Rh Rh
GMmh (1) 420 Å (2) 1800 Å
(3) (4) mgh
R(R  h) (3) 4200 Å (4) 6000 Å
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )
28
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

2 152. An object kept in a large room having air

S o l . As  
a temperature of 25°C takes 12 minutes to cool
from 80°C to 70°C.
2  6000
0  …(i)
a The time taken to cool for the same object from
70°C to 60°C would be nearly,
  (1) 15 min (2) 10 min
 …(ii)
0 6000 (3) 12 min (4) 20 min
  = 0.7 × 6000 (as  = 0.7 0) Answer ( 1 )
 4200 Å S o l . Using average method in Newton's law of
cooling
150. The work function of a photosensitive material
is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that
(T1  T2 ) T T 
can cause photon emission from the  K  1 2  T0 
t  2 
substance is (approximately)
(1) 310 nm (2) 3100 nm (80  70)
 K(75  25) ...(i)
(3) 966 nm (4) 31 nm 12
Answer ( 1 )
(70  60)
 K(65  25) ...(ii)
12400 t
S o l . As E  (E is in eV and  is in Å)
 Divide eq. (i) by (ii)

12400 5
= t   12   15 min
4 4
= 3100 Å
153. Two small spherical metal balls, having equal
  = 310 nm masses, are made from materials of densities
1 and 2 (1 = 82) and have radii of 1 mm and
151. A proton and an –particle are accelerated
2 mm, respectively, they are made to fall
from rest to the same energy. The de Broglie
vertically (from rest) in a viscous medium
wavelengths p and  are in the ratio,
whose coefficient of viscosity equals  and
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 whose density is 0.1 2 . The ratio of their
terminal velocities would be,
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 :1
79 79
Answer ( 2 ) (1) (2)
36 72

h h 19 39
S o l . As    (3) (4)
p 2mK.E. 36 72
Answer ( 1 )
1 2a2
  (Kinetic energies are same)
m S o l . As VT  (  )g
9

2  (1)2
p m VT1  (1  0.1 2 )g
 9
 mp
21
VT1  (82  0.12 )g ...(i)
9
p 4 mp
 2  (2)2
 mp VT2  (2  0.12 )g ...(ii)
9
VT1 7.9 79
p 2   
  VT2 4(0.9) 36
 1
29
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

154. A particle starting from rest, moves in a circle (3) to the left and angle of inclination of the
of radius ‘r’. It attains a velocity of V0 m/s in a
pendulum with the vertical is tan 1  
the nth round. Its angular acceleration will be, g
(4) to the left and angle of inclination of the
V02 V0
(1) rad / s2 (2) rad / s2 a
pendulum with the vertical is sin1  
4 nr n
g
V02 V02 Answer ( 3 )
(3) 2
rad / s2 (4) 2
rad / s2
2nr 4 nr S o l . From the frame of truck
Answer ( 4 ) Tsin = ma
Tcos = mg
S o l . Initial speed = 0
T 
a fp = ma
Final speed = V0 tan  =
g 
Tangential acceleration = r mg
a
V2 = u2 + 2as   tan1  
g
V02  0  2r(2r)n 157. Two toroids 1 and 2 have total no. of turns 200
and 100 respectively with average radii 40 cm
V02 and 20 cm respectively. If they carry same
 current i, the ratio of the magnetic fields
4 nr 2
along the two loops is,
155. A person standing on the floor of an elevator
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor in time
t1 if the elevator is at rest and in time t2 if the (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
elevator is moving uniformly. Then
Answer ( 2 )
(1) t1 = t2 S o l . Magnetic field inside a toroid in
(2) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 depending upon whether the  0N · I
lift is going up or down B
2 R
(3) t1 < t2 B1 N1 R2 200 20
Here, B  N R  100 40 = 1
(4) t1 > t2 2 2 1

Answer ( 1 ) B1
So, B  1
S o l . In both case elevator is an inertial frame of 2

reference so effective gravity remains same
from both the frames.
So, time of fall remains same in both cases
(since initial velocity is same in both frames).
Hence t1 = t2
158. A straight conductor carrying current i splits
into two parts as shown in the figure. The
radius of the circular loop is R. The total
magnetic field at the centre P of the loop is,
i1

156. A truck is stationary and has a bob suspended i R

by a light string, in a frame attached to the P
90°
truck. The truck suddenly moves to the right
with an acceleration of a. The pendulum will i2
tilt
i
(1) to the left and angle of inclination of the
g
pendulum with the vertical is tan1   0i
a (1) , inward (2) Zero
2R
(2) to the left and angle of inclination of the
(3) 30i/32R, outward (4) 30i/32R, inward
g
pendulum with the vertical is sin1  
a Answer ( 2 )
30
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)
i1 160. Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the
other of radius 2R respectively have the same
2 –  surface charge density . They are brought in
i contact and separated. What will be the new
O
 surface charge densities on them?
Sol. i2 5 5 5 5
(1) 1  , 2   (2) 1  , 2  
3 6 6 2
i
5 5 5 5
(3) 1  , 2   (4) 1  , 2  
2 6 2 3
Net magnetic field at point 'P'
Answer ( 1 )
 
Bnet  B1  B2 S o l . Q1 = 4R12 = 4R2
  Q2 = 4(2R)2 = 16R2
Here B1 and B2 are equal in magnitude and
After Redistribution of charges
opposite in direction.
Hence, Bnet = B1 – B2 Q1 R
  Q2  2Q1 ...(i)
Q2 2R
   0i1  2    
i1  i    B1   
 2  2R  2   Q1  Q2  20R2 ...(ii)

 2    0i2    From eq. (i) and (ii)

i2  i    B2   
 2  2R  2   20 5
Q1  R2  1  
3 3
Bnet = B1 – B2 = 0
40 5
159. The variation of EMF with time for four types Q2  R2  2  
3 6
of generators are shown in the figures. Which
161. The distance covered by a particle
amongst them can be called AC?
undergoing SHM in one time period is
(amplitude = A),
E E
(1) 4A (2) Zero
t (3) A (4) 2A
t
(a) (b)
Answer ( 1 )

A
Sol. A O

E E
In one time period total distance travelled by
t the particle is 4A.
t
(c) (d) 162. A mass falls from a height ‘h’ and its time of
fall ‘t’ is recorded in terms of time period T of
a simple pendulum. On the surface of earth it
(1) Only (a) is found that t = 2T. The entire set up is taken
on the surface of another planet whose mass
(2) (a) and (d)
is half of that of earth and radius the same.
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) Same experiment is repeated and
(4) (a) and (b) corresponding times noted as t  and T  .
Answer ( 3 ) Then we can say
S o l . A current which changes its direction (1) t   2 T  (2) t   2 T 
periodically is called alternating current. (3) t   2 T  (4) t   2 T 
Hence given all options are AC. Answer ( 1 )
31
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

S o l . For surface of earth time taken in falling h

3 
distance.   31.25  9.75
4 4
2h
t 
g  21.5
2

l   43 cm
and T  2
g v=×f

Given t = 2T v = 43 × 800
v = 34400 × 10–2
t
2
T v  344 m/s
For surface of other planet 164. An object flying in air with velocity

g 
g  20iˆ  25ˆj  12kˆ  suddenly breaks into two
2 pieces whose masses are in the ratio 1 : 5.
Time taken in falling h distance The smaller mass flies off with a velocity
100iˆ  35 ˆj  8kˆ  . The velocity of the larger
2h
t   2t piece will be,
g
(1) 20iˆ  15 ˆj  80kˆ
l
and T   2  2T (2) 4iˆ  23ˆj  16kˆ
g

(3) 100iˆ  35 ˆj  8kˆ

t 2t
Here  2
T 2T (4) 20iˆ  15 ˆj  80kˆ

Answer ( 2 )
t   2T 
S o l . By conservation of linear momentum
163. A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz produces
 
resonance in a resonance column tube with Pi  Pf
upper end open and lower end closed by
water surface. Successive resonance are   m  5m  
mvi   v1  v2 
observed at lengths 9.75 cm, 31.25 cm and 6 6 
52.75 cm. The speed of sound in air is,

(1) 172 m/s (2) 500 m/s  v 5  
vi   1  v2 
6 6 
(3) 156 m/s (4) 344 m/s
Answer ( 4 ) ˆ 
ˆ ˆ ˆ (100 ˆi  35 ˆj  8k) 5v 2
20 i  25 j  12k  
S o l . l1 = 9.75 cm 6 6
l2 = 31.25 cm 
120iˆ  150ˆj  72kˆ  100iˆ  35 ˆj  8kˆ  5v2
l3 = 52.75 cm

e = end correction 20iˆ  115 ˆj  60kˆ  5v2

 e  9.75 cm ... (1)  20iˆ  115 ˆj  80kˆ
4 v2 
5
3
 e  31.25 cm ... (2) 
4 v2  4 ˆi  23 ˆj  16kˆ

32
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

165. The rate of radioactive disintegration at an 167. A circuit when connected to an AC source of
instant for a radioactive sample of half life 12 V gives a current of 0.2 A. The same circuit
2.2 × 10 9 s is 10 10 s –1 . The number of when connected to a DC source of 12 V, gives
radioactive atoms in that sample at that a current of 0.4 A. The circuit is
instant is, (1) Series LCR
(1) 3.17 × 1019 (2) 3.17 × 1020 (2) Series LR
(3) 3.17 × 1017 (4) 3.17 × 1018 (3) Series RC
Answer ( 1 ) (4) Series LC

ln2 0.693 Answer ( 2 )

S o l . T1/2  
  V
S o l . I1 
0.693 Z
2.2  109 

12
0.693 I1 
  3.15  1010 R  (XL  XC )2
2 = 0.2 A
2.2  109
R=N (R is activity) In second case for DC source, capacitor
would provide infinite resistance but current
R 1010
N   3.17  1019 is present in circuit, it means resistor and
 3.15  1010 inductor can be present in the circuit.
166. The time period of a geostationary satellite is As the current with AC source and DC source
24 h, at a height 6RE(RE is radius of earth) from are different, inductor must be present with
surface of earth. The time period of another resistance.
satellite whose height is 2.5 RE from surface
will be, 168. A cycle wheel of radius 0.5 m is rotated with
constant angular velocity of 10 rad/s in a
12
(1) h (2) 6 2 h region of magnetic field of 0.1 T which is
2.5
perpendicular to the plane of the wheel. The
24 EMF generated between its centre and the rim
(3) 12 2 h (4) h
2.5 is,
Answer ( 2 ) (1) Zero (2) 0.25 V
Sol. T2  r3 (3) 0.125 V (4) 0.5 V
T2  (RE + h)3 Answer ( 3 )

T12 (RE  6RE )3 Sol. × × × × × ×

 A
T22 (RE  2.5RE )3
× × × × × ×
T12 7 3
C
 × × × × × ×
T22  7
3

 2 
× × × × × ×
T12
8
T22 Bl2
e
T1 2
T2 
2 2 2
1  1
  0.1    10
24 2  2
T2 
2 2 1

8
T2  6 2 h
= 0.125 V
33
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

169. For a transparent medium, relative perme- Answer ( 4 )

ability and permittivity,  r and  r are
1.0 and 1.44 respectively. The velocity of light a c
Sol.
in this medium would be,
b
(1) 4.32 × 108 m/s (2) 2.5 × 108 m/s V +q 0
(3) 3 × 108 m/s (4) 2.08 × 108 m/s –q 0 C C

Answer ( 2 )

1 c 1
Sol. v   Ui  CV2
 r r 2
On switching key at point c
3  108

1  1.44 q0  q q

C C
= 2.5 × 108 m/s
2q = q0
170. A sphere encloses an electric dipole with
q 
charges ± 3 × 10–6 C. What is the total electric q 0 
flux across the sphere?  2 
2 2
(1) 6 × 10–6 Nm2/C (2) – 3 × 10–6 Nm2/C 1  q0  1 1  q0  1
Uf        
(3) Zero (4) 3 × 10–6 Nm2/C 2 2  C 2 2  C

Answer ( 3 ) q20
Uf 
4C
qenclosed
S o l .  Total  0
1
Uf  CV2
Dipole have equal and opposite charge, so 4
net charge inside the sphere will be zero
(qenclosed = 0)  Ui  Uf 
loss =  U   100
0  i 
Total 
0
=0  1 1  CV2
  
 2 4 100
171. Two identical capacitors C1 and C2 of equal 1
CV2
capacitance are connected as shown in the 2
circuit. Terminals a and b of the key k are
connected to charge capacitor C 1 using = 50%
battery of emf V volt. Now disconnecting a
172. An equiconvex lens has power P. It is cut into
and b the terminals b and c are connected.
two symmetrical halves by a plane containing
Due to this, what will be the percentage loss
the principal axis. The power of one part will
of energy?
be,
k (1) P
a c
(2) 0
b
P
V (3)
C1 C2 2

P
(1) 25% (2) 75% (4)
4
(3) 0% (4) 50%
Answer ( 1 )
34
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)

P 1 1 1 
P   1.5  1   
25  R 2R 
S o l . Principal axis
1  3 
 0.5  
25  2R 
P
2R = 37.5 cm
If lens is cut in two half as shown in the figure, R = 18.75 cm
then power of one part will be same. i.e. P, as
focal length remains same. Hence radii are 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm

173. In a Young’s double slit experiment, if there is 175. Two bullets are fired horizontally and
no initial phase difference between the light simultaneously towards each other from roof
from the two slits, a point on the screen tops of two buildings 100 m apart and of same
corresponding to the fifth minimum has path height of 200 m, with the same velocity of
difference 25 m/s. When and where will the two bullets
collide? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 11 (1) They will not collide
2
(2) After 2 s at a height of 180 m

(2) 5 (3) After 2 s at a height of 20 m
2
(4) After 4 s at a height of 120 m

(3) 10 Answer ( 2 )
2


(4) 9 25 m/s 25 m/s
2
Sol.
Answer ( 4 ) y

S o l . Path difference for destructive interference in x1 x2

YDSE 200 m

(2n  1)
 X n   n = 1, 2, 3 ....
2
100 m
 2  5  1 9
X5th    
 2  2
Let bullets collide at time t
174. A double convex lens has focal length 25 cm.
The radius of curvature of one of the surfaces x1 + x2 = 100 m
is double of the other. Find the radii if the
refractive index of the material of the lens is 25t + 25t = 100
1.5. t=2s
(1) 50 cm, 100 cm
1 2 1
(2) 100 cm, 50 cm y gt   10  22
2 2
(3) 25 cm, 50 cm
(4) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm = 20 m

Answer ( 4 ) h = 200 – 20 = 180 m

1  1 1  Hence bullets will collide after 2 s at height

S o l . Focal length of lens is  (  1)    180 m above the ground.
f  R1 R2 

35
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1 )

176. The stress-strain curves are drawn for two 178. A particle of mass 5m at rest suddenly breaks
different materials X and Y. It is observed that on its own into three fragments. Two fragments
the ultimate strength point and the fracture of mass m each move along mutually
point are close to each other for material X but perpendicular direction with speed v each.
are far apart for material Y. The energy released during the process is,
4 3
We can say that materials X and Y are likely to (1) mv2 (2) mv 2
3 5
be (respectively),
5 3
(1) Plastic and ductile (2) Ductile and brittle (3) mv 2 (4) mv2
3 2
(3) Brittle and ductile (4) Brittle and plastic Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . From conservation of linear momentum.
v
S o l . As given that fracture point and ultimate
strength point is close for material X, hence X m
is brittle in nature and both points are far 5m  m v
3m
apart for material Y hence it is ductile.
i.e X is brittle and Y is ductile in nature. v1

Stress 0  mvj  mvi  3mv1

v1   i  j
D v
B F
A B D 3
X A F
Y 2
v1  v
Strain 3
177. A body of mass m is kept on a rough horizontal KEi = 0
surface (coefficient of friction = ). A horizontal 2
force is applied on the body, but it does not 1 1 1  2 2
KE f  mv2  mv2  (3m)   v
move. The resultant of normal reaction and the 2 2 2  3 
frictional force acting on the object is given by mv2 4
F, where F is,  mv2   mv2
3 3
 
(1) F  mg (2) F  mg  mg 4
KE  KE f  KEi  mv2
  3
(3) F  mg (4) F  mg 1 2 179. An object of mass 500 g, initially at rest, is
Answer ( 4 ) acted upon by a variable force whose
X-component varies with X in the manner
S o l . Since body does not move hence it is in shown. The velocities of the object at the
equilibrium. points X = 8 m and X = 12 m, would have the
respective values of (nearly)
fr = frictional force which is less than or equal
to limiting friction. F(N)

Now N = mg 20
   10
Hence F  N  fr
x
 2
F   mg   (mg)2 4 5 8 10 12 (m)
–10

F  mg 1 2 –20
N –25
F
(1) 18 m/s and 20.6 m/s
F (2) 18 m/s and 24.4 m/s
fr
 (3) 23 m/s and 24.4 m/s
mg (4) 23 m/s and 20.6 m/s

36
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-H1)
Answer ( 4 ) 180. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius
50 cm rolls up an inclined plane of angle of
Sol.
inclination 30°. The centre of mass of the
cylinder has speed of 4 m/s. The distance
F(N) travelled by the cylinder on the inclined
surface will be, [take g = 10 m/s2]
20
(1) 2.4 m (2) 2.2 m
10
x (3) 1.6 m (4) 1.2 m
4 5 8 10 12 (m)
–10
Answer ( 1 )

–20
2gh
–25 S o l . Since v 
K2
1 2
R

From work-energy theorem

x
K = work = area under F - x graph
From x = 0 to x = 8 m 4 m/s
h
1 30°
mv 2 = 100 + 30
2
2gh
v2 = 520 v2   K2 1 
1  2  for solid cylinder 
1 R 2 
v  520  23 m/s 2

From x = 0 to x = 12 m 3
2gh  4 2 
2
1
mv2  100  30  47.5  20
2 12
h  1.2 m
10
v  410
h 1.2
Now x    2.4 m
v  20.6 m/s sin30 1
2
Hence appropriate option is 23 m/s and
20.6 m/s x = 2.4 m

‰‰‰

37