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Dividend Policy: A B C A B Payout Earnings Dividend Company Ratio Per Share Per Share
Dividend Policy: A B C A B Payout Earnings Dividend Company Ratio Per Share Per Share
Dividend Policy
NI t D
16-1. Given a firm’s earnings per share, ( # shares ) Et, and its payout ratio, ( Ett ) , we can find the dividend
per share, Dt, by simply multiplying the two together:
Dt
Dt Et ,
Et
(where the “t” subscript refers to time t and the payout ratio is the dividend paid at time t from
earnings per share at time t). Thus, for our three companies, we have:
A B C = A*B
payout earnings dividend
company ratio per share per share
Emerson Electric Co. 85% $2.23 $1.90
Intel Corporation 40% $2.43 $0.97
Wal-Mart Stores 43% $4.53 $1.95
For example, Wal-Mart chose to pay out 43% of its earnings as dividends (reinvesting the other
57%), so it paid out $1.95 from EPS of $4.53 [($1.95/$4.53) = 0.43].
16-2. The Welmar Corporation paid total dividends in 2016 of $265,029,000, from its net income of
$1,282,725,000.
a. We can therefore simply find its payout ratio by dividing its total dividends by its net income:
$265,029,000
Thus, for 2016, we find a payout ratio of 20.66%, or ( $1,282,725,000 ).
388
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
Solutions to End-of-Chapter Problems—Chapter 16 389
b. We can then find 2017’s total dividends by multiplying this payout ratio by 2017’s net
income, as shown below:
2016 notes
total cash dividends = $265,029,000 A
net income = $1,282,725,000 B
payout ratio = 20.66% C = A/B
2017
net income = $1,500,000,000 D (given)
payout ratio = 20.66% C (as before)
total cash dividends = $309,921,066 E = D*C
% change in net income = 16.94% F = (D - B)/B
% change in dividends = 16.94% G = (E - A)/A
Since Welmar Corporation’s net income rises, but its payout ratio remains the same, the firm
is paying out the same proportion of a larger whole. The firm’s total dividend payment
therefore rises, and by the same percentage as its net income. We can verify this statement
about percentage changes by noting that:
% divs [(divs2017 divs2016)/divs2016]
[(NI2017 payout2017) (NI2016 payout2016)]/(NI2016 payout2016)
[(NI2017 NI2016)/NI2016],
as long as payout2017 payout2016.
16-3. If the stock of Dimmick Skate Boarding Enterprises is selling for $40 one day before the ex-date
(so that investors who buy the stock then will receive the $3 dividend), it should sell for ($40
$3) after the ex-date (when investors then buying will not receive the dividend).
Investors who won’t receive a $3 dividend will not pay as much for Dimmick’s shares as will
investors who will receive the dividend; therefore, the stock price will fall on the ex-day.
Remembering the dividend discount model for stock pricing, we see:
stock price just before ex-day PV(all dividends to be paid from now to infinity)
$40 PV(next dividend of $3 all other future dividends)
$40 PV(next dividend of $3) PV(all other future dividends),
whereas:
(See equation 16-1 in Checkpoint 16.1.) The difference in the prices before and after the ex-day is
therefore the PV of the $3 dividend. The present value of that dividend is very nearly $3, since it’s
so close to being paid, so the difference between the stock prices will be very close to $3. Thus,
we expect the stock’s price to fall by approximately $3 on the ex-day.
16-5. Stock dividends do not change firm value; they only change the number of shares outstanding. If
the number of shares increases but aggregate value does not, it must be that stock dividends cause
stock price to fall.
We can see this as follows. First, note that:
firm value
current stock price .
# of shares
Now, if:
firm value
initial stock price $40,
old # of shares
then:
notes
current stock price = $40.00 A
stock dividend % = 10% B
stock price after stock dividend = $36.36 C = A/(1+B)
16-7. Since Templeton Care Facilities needs to have three times as many shares outstanding after than
event (so that price will fall to 1/3 of its current value), the firm would need a 3-for-1 split. We can
see this as:
Thus, the new number of shares must be three times as large as the old number of shares: Each old
share must be exchanged for three new ones.
16-8. The important thing to remember for this problem is that stock splits and stock dividends do not
change firm value. Once we know that, the problem simply boils down to determining how many
new shares the firm will issue.
a. – d. For stock dividends, the new number of shares is simply (# of old shares) (1 stock
dividend percentage). Thus a 20% dividend means that the number of shares rises by 20%, so
that the new number of shares equals (# of old shares) (1.20).
For an x-for-1 stock split, we simply multiply the old number of shares by x. For example, a 2-
for-1 split doubles the number of shares; a 4-for-1 multiplies it by 4.
Given that the firm value will not change, and that the number of shares outstanding will be
increased, it must be true that stock price will fall. For the three changes we were given for
B/D. Chaney’s Fat burner Gyms, we therefore have the following:
A B C = 8,000,000*(1+B) D = A/C
% change in
event firm value # of shares # shares price
initial situation $96,000,000 8,000,000 $12.00
20% stock dividend $96,000,000 20% 9,600,000 $10.00
4-for-1 split $96,000,000 300% 32,000,000 $3.00
32.5% stock dividend $96,000,000 32.5% 10,600,000 $9.06
$11.00
28,000,000
$10.00
$9.00
23,000,000
$8.00
$6.00
$5.00
13,000,000
$4.00
$3.00 8,000,000
0% 50% 100% 150% 200% 250% 300%
16-9. Here is the initial balance sheet for Marshall Pottery Barn:
initial situation
MARSHALL POTTERY BARN
BALANCE SHEET (as of mm/dd/yy)
Cash $18,000 Accounts Payable $22,000
Accounts Receivable $22,000 Notes Payable $5,000
Inventory $30,000 Current Liabilities $27,000
Current Assets $70,000 Long-term Debt $33,000
Net Fixed Assets $130,000 Equity $140,000
Total Assets $200,000 Total D&E $200,000
The total dividend that Marshall is considering is ($1.50/share)*(5,000 shares) = $7,500:
notes
# of shares = 5,000 A
dividend per share = $1.50 B
total dividends paid = $7,500 C = A*B
a. When the firm pays its cash dividend, it obviously will lower cash. It will also lower equity:
Dividends paid come out of the equity stake of the company. Investors are essentially “cashing
out” some of their equity. The accounting entry would be to debit equity and credit cash:
equity $7,500
cash $7,500
(payment of cash dividend)
after dividend
MARSHALL POTTERY BARN
BALANCE SHEET (as of mm/dd/yy)
Cash $10,500 Accounts Payable $22,000
Accounts Receivable $22,000 Notes Payable $5,000
Inventory $30,000 Current Liabilities $27,000
Current Assets $62,500 Long-term Debt $33,000
Net Fixed Assets $130,000 Equity $132,500
Total Assets $192,500 Total D&E $192,500
Note that total firm value has fallen by the amount of the dividend.
b. If this were interpreted as a market-value balance sheet, there would be no difference. The
firm would still have $7500 less in cash. Since the value of each share of stock would have
fallen by $1.50 after the dividend payment, the total market value of stock held by all investors
would still fall by $7500. Thus, there would be no difference in our post-dividend balance
sheet.
Of course, equityholders are not worse off, ignoring taxes. Their holding of the firm used to be
worth $140,000; now it’s worth only $132,500, but they also have $7500 in cash. Either way,
they have $140,000 worth of financial assets.
16-10. In Section 16.2 of the text, we learn about “Individual Wealth Effects—Personal Taxes.” Fact #2
in that subsection tells us that a stock seller only pays capital gains taxes on the difference between
the selling price and the buying price (i.e., the capital gain). Since Stan bought his shares for $8 and
will sell them for $10, he will only need to pay tax on his ($10 $8) $2/share capital gain. Thus:
notes
current stock price = $10 A (given)
Stan's initial price = $8 B (given)
Stan's capital gain per share = $2 C=A-B
# of shares that Stan will sell = 2,000 D (given)
Stan's total proceeds = $20,000 E = A*D
Stan's total capital gain = $4,000 F = C*D
capital gains rate = 15% G (given)
Stan's tax bill = $600 H = F*G
Stan's after-tax proceeds = $19,400 I=E-H
Stan sells 2000 shares at $10/share, for a total of $20,000. However, he doesn’t pay tax on this full
amount; instead, he pays tax on only his $2/share capital gain, or [($2/share) (2000 shares)]
$4000. Tax on $4000 at 15% is [(15%) ($4000)] $600, so Stan ends up with ($20,000 total
proceeds $600 tax) $19,400.
An important point here is that a capital gain is not a cash flow. Instead, a capital gain is an
accounting value that determines a tax bill (the tax bill, of course, is a cash flow). We never
receive checks for capital gains; we only receive checks for total proceeds (and then write checks
for taxes). Thus, when we’re finding a cash flow, like after-tax proceeds, we combine only other
cash flows: total proceeds and taxes.
$1,290,909
$1,200,000
$1,000,000
$690,909
$800,000
$1,090,909
t=1 payment
t=0 payment
$600,000
$400,000
$600,000
$200,000
$200,000
$0
alternative #1 alternative #2
This result depends upon the new shareholders’ getting what they paid for, and on their having
the same 10% required return as our current shareholders. That is, when they give us $400,000
today, they are getting shares worth $400,000 today. The new shares’ owners receive
$440,000 in one year; this payment is worth $440,000/(1.10)1 $400,000. When the old
shareholders choose this alternative, they receive something today worth $600,000, in return
for something in one year that is worth $760,000, which is currently worth $690,909. Thus,
there is no effect on current shareholders.
We can also think of this as follows. Under alternative #1, just after the t 0 dividend is paid,
we have:
firm value value of old shareholders’ shares $1,090,909.
The old shareholders also have $200,000 in cash, so their total worth is $1,290,909.
Under alternative #2, it looks like this:
firm value value of old shareholders’ shares + value of new shareholders’ shares
$690,909 $400,000
$1,090,909.
The old shareholders also have $600,000 in cash, so their total worth is $1,290,909, just as it is
under alternative #1.
16-13. a. If the Tyler Brick Manufacturing Company pays its shareholders $125,000 today and $14
million in one year, then the all-equity firm’s value (given a required return to equity of 15%)
is found as follows:
$12,298,913
$12,000,000
$10,000,000
$8,000,000
$11,298,913
t=1 payment
$6,000,000 $12,173,913
t=0 payment
$4,000,000
$2,000,000
$125,000 $1,000,000
$0
alternative #1 alternative #2
Under either alternative, the old shares are worth $12,298,913: the old shareholders either get
more money at t 0 (alternative #2) or more money at t 1 (alternative #1); either way, the
PRESENT VALUE of both of their payments is $12,298,913.