PHARMACOLOGY AND TOXICOLOGY

B 6. Which of the following is/are true about Zyflo®,

D 1. A stereoisomer of methylated derivative of an anti-asthmatic medication?
levorphanol used as antitussive: I. A 5-epoxygenase inhibitor, containing zilueton as
its active ingredient.
A. Noscapine II. A 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor, containing zilueton as
B. Levopropoxyphene its active ingredient.
C. Codeine III. A 5-epoxygenase inhibitor, containing
D. Dextromethorphan zafirlukast
as its active ingredient.
A 2.An example of a weakly basic prodrug that when
protonated, form covalent disulfide linkages with A. I only
H+/K+ B. II only
ATPase and inactivates it: C. I and II only
D. II and III only
A.Maalox® E. I, II and III
B.Nexium®
C.Tagamet® A 7. Evaluate the following statements regarding
D.Buscopan® emetics.
Statement 1: These are drugs that induce vomiting.
D 3. Anti-ulcerant drugs exert their effect through Statement 2: They may cause a vomiting reflex by
which of irritating the upper GI tract.
the following mechanism/s: A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
I. Stimulation of protein kinases that B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
phosphorylate H+/K+ ATPase C.Both statements are correct
II. Preventing histamine from binding to its D.Both statements are wrong
receptor in parietal cells.
III. Activate inhibitory proteins that block A 8. Evaluate the following statements regarding
histaming laxatives.
activation of adenylate cyclase. Statement 1: They accelerate fecal passage in the
A. I only colon. Statement 2: They increase fecal consistency.
B. II only
C. I and II only A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
D. II and III only B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
E. I, II and III C.Both statements are correct
D.Both statements are wrong

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D 4. Evaluate the following statements regarding the
action of opioid analgesics. Statement 1: It decreases E 9. Different antacids are combined in a single
the response to pain stimuli through enhancement of preparation to:
neuronal K+ influx. Statement 2:It decreases I. Antagonize the side effect of the other component.
neurotransmitter release through stimulation of Ca++ II. Obtain a product with a rapid onset and sustained
influx. action.
A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong III.Lower the dose of each component.
B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
C.Both statements are correct A. I only
D.Both statements are wrong B. II only
C. I and II only
A 5. Which H2-receptorblocker has an almost complete D. II and III only
oral bioavailability? E. I, II and III

A.Nizatidine
B.Famotidine
C.Ranitidine
D.cimetidine

1
A 10.Antacids prevent the formation of this proteolytic E 15.Antitussive medications exert their effect through:
enzyme that is thought to mediate tissue injury in I. Depression of the medullary center.
gastric ulceration. II. Increasing the threshold of peripheral
reflexogenous zones.
A.Pepsin III.Interuruption of tussal impulses in the afferent
B.Pepsinogen limb of the cough reflex.
C.Chymotrypsin A. I only
D.Chymotripsinogen B. II only
C. I and II only
A 11.Evaluate the following statements regarding the D. II and III only
action of Theo-Dur®. E. I, II and III
Statement 1: It promotes the decline of cAMP levels
in the lungs. A 16.This acts as the common mediator and the most
Statement 2: It inhibits the enzyme potent stimulus of gastric acid secretion:
phosphodiesterase.
A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong A.Acetylcholine
B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct B.Histamine
C.Both statements are correct C.Gastrin
D.Both statements are wrong D.None of the above

E 12.Gastric acid secretion by parietal cells is/are C 17.One of the most common adverse effect
regulated by: associated with inhaled corticosteroids:
I. Neurocrine cells
II. Paracrine cells A.Huskiness of voice
III.Endocrine cells B.Dysphonia
C.All of the above
A. I only D.None of the above
B. II only
C. I and II only C 18.Prostaglandin analogs increases gastric mucosal
D. II and III only resistance to injury by:
E. I, II and III I. Increasing mucus secretion
II. Increasing bicarbonate secretion
A 13.The drug of choice for the management of III.Increasing gastric emptying time
respiratory
depression induced by opioid analgesics: A. I only
B. II only

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A.Narcan® C. I and II only
B.Nubain® D. II and III only
C.Revex® E. I, II and III.
D.Depade®
B 19.Aspirin’s anti-inflammatory effect is due to:
A 14.Evaluate the following statements regarding
DuoNeb®. A. Its reversible acetylation of COX.
Statement 1: This preparation contains salbutamol ( a B. Its irreversible acetylation of COX.
beta – 2 agonist) and ipratropium (an antimuscarinic C. Its reversible salicylation of COX.
agent). D. Its irreversible salicylation of COX.
Statement 2: This also contains guaifenesin to
expectorate mucus production.

A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong

B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
C.Both statements are correct
D.Both statements are wrong

2
A 20.Evaluate the following statements regarding the E 24.H2- receptor antagonists inhibit:
action of prostaglandin analogs. Statement 1. It I. Histamine – stimulated acid secretion.
inhibits gastric acid secretion. Statement 2: It II. Acetylcholine - stimulated acid secretion
increases gastric mucosal protection. III.Gastrin - stimulated acid secretion

A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong A. I only

B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct B. II only
C.Both statements are correct C. I and II only
D.Both statements are wrong D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.
B 21.Which of the following inhaled corticosteroids
is/are C 25.Evaluate the following statements regarding
equipotent with flunisolide in the management of cycloxygenase. Statement 1: COX-1 isoenzyme
asthma? contains isoleucine as the amino acid at position 523.
I. Beclomethasone diproprionate Statement 2: COX- 2 isoenzyme contains valine as the
II. Triamcinolone acetonide amino acid at position 523 for selective binding of
III.Budesonide COX-2 inhibitors.
A. I only A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
B. II only B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
C. I and II only C.Both statements are correct
D. II and III only D.Both statements are wrong
E. I, II and III.
B 26.Considered as one of the major inhibitor of dastric
A 22.Antacids are compared quantitatively in terms of acid secretion through its inhibition of histamine
acid- release from ECL cells:
neutralizing capacity (ANC). ANC is defined as the:
A.Somastostatin
A.# of mmol of HCl required to maintain 1mL of an B.Somatostatin
antacid suspension at pH 3 for 2hrs in vitro. C.All of the above
B.# of mEq of HCl required to maintain 1mL of an D.None of the above
antacid suspension at pH 3 for 2hrs in vitro.
C.# of mOsmol of HCl required to maintain 1mL of an A 27.Which of the following antacids has a slow onset
antacid suspension at pH 3 for 2hrs in vitro. of
D.# of mEq of HCl required to maintain 1mL of an action?
antacid suspension at pH 3 for 2hrs in vivo. I. Aluminum hydroxide
II. Calcium carbonate

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A 23.Evaluate the following statements regarding III.Magnesium hydroxide
leukotrienes: Statement 1: Leukotriene D4 is a potent
bronchodilator. Statement 2: It is synthesized from A. I only
arachidic acid. B. II only
A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong C. I and II only
B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct D. II and III only
C.Both statements are correct E. I, II and III.
D.Both statements are wrong

3
D 28.Evaluate the following: C 32.Evaluate the ff:
Statement 1: Mucolytics increase the amount of Statement 1: Singulair® contains montelukast as
respiratory tract fluid so that demulcent action s active ingredient.
exerted. Statement 2: This drug prevents inflammation and
Statement 2: Expectorants decrease the viscosity of promotes broncodilation.
bronchial secretions and facilitate their elimination.
A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct C.Both statements are correct
C.Both statements are correct D.Both statements are wrong
D.Both statements are wrong
C 33.Attempts are made to selectively inhibit COX – 2
C 29.Which is the correct sequence for decreasing for pain relief because:
potency of inhaled corticosteroids? I. COX – 2 tends to facilitate inflammatory response.
A.Fluticasong proprionate > beclomethasone II. COX – 1 tends to be homeostatic in function.
dipropionate > Triamcinolone acetonide > Budesonide III.COX – 2 has cardioprotective effects
B.beclomethasone dipropionate > Triamcinolone
acetonide > Budesonide > Fluticasong proprionate A. I only
C.Fluticasong proprionate > Budesonide > B. II only
beclomethasone dipropionate > Triamcinolone C. I and II only
acetonide D. II and III only
D.None of the above E. I, II and III.

C 30.Which of the ff antacid/s has a long duration of A 34.What is the final common pathway of acid
action? secretion in the stomach?
I. Aluminum hydroxide
II. Calcium carbonate A.Proton pump
III.Magnesium hydroxide B.H2 – receptor
C.All of the above
A. I only D.None of the above
B. II only
C. I and II only B 35.Which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug when
D. II and III only co- administered with opioids, reduces opioid
E. I, II and III. requirements by 25%?

B 31.Which COX-2 inhibitor has the highest COX – 2 : A.Ibuprofen

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COX 1 selectivity ratio? B.Ketorolac
C.Mefenamic acid
A.Celecoxib D.Indomethacin
B.Etoricoxib
C.Rofecoxib E 36.Buprenorphine, an opioid analgesic, has the
D.Valdecoxib following characteristics/s:
E.I, II, and III I. Dissociates slowly from mu receptor
II. Partial mu agonist
III.Resistant to the reversal effect of naloxone

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

4
C 37.Which of the ff antacid/s has a fast onset of action, A 42.Which of the ff. is/are taken prophylactically for
yet has a long duration of action? asthma?
I.Tilade®
A.Aluminum hydroxide II.Myambutol®
B.Magnesium hydroxide III.Rifadin®
C.Calcium carbonate
D.Sodium bicarbonate A. I only
B. II only
D 38.Evaluate the following statements regarding C. I and II only
gastric acid secretion. D. II and III only
Statement 1: Histamine is first released from the E. I, II and III.
parietal cells.
Statement 2: Histamine binds to H2 – receptors in C 43.This nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug should
ECL cells to initiate acid secretion. not be used for trivial or minor problems associated
A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong with pain due to its potential serious untoward effects?
B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
C.Both statements are correct A.Ibuprofen
D.Both statements are wrong B.Diclofenac
C.Indomethacin
C 39.Nalbuphine, an opioid analgesic, has the ff D.Naproxen
characteristic/s:
I. Mu receptor agonist C 44.Evaluate the ff.
II. Kappa receptor agonist Statement 1: Prostaglandin synthesis is prevented by
III.Gamma receptor agonist nonsteroidal anti0inflammatory drugs.
Statement 2: Prostaglandins amplify pain signal.
A. I only
B. II only A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
C. I and II only B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
D. II and III only C.Both statements are correct
E. I, II and III. D.Both statements are wrong

C 40.Which of the ff. H2 – receptor blocker has the E 45.Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug has the ff.
highest potency? characteristic/s:
I.Generally highly protein- bound
A.Cimetidine II.Causes gastric irritation due to prostaglandin
B.Ranitidine synthesis inhibition

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C.Famotidine III.Interfere with glumerular filtration regulation
D.Nizatidine
A. I only
A 41.Absorption of which vitamin is reduced especially B. II only
during prolonged therapy of proton pump inhibitors? C. I and II only
D. II and III only
A.Vitamin B12 E. I, II and III.
B.Vitamin B6
C.Vitamin B3 B 46.Which was the proposed maintenance drug in the
D.Vitamin B1 treatment programs for opioid addiction?

A.Naloxone
B.Naltrexone
C.Nalbuphine
D.None of the above

5
D 47.This nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug is as
effective as mefenamic acid in relieving
dysmenorrheal:
A.Naproxen
B.Diclofenac
C.Indomethacin
D.Ibuprofen
C 48.Evaluate the ff. regarding beta-2 agonists.
Statement 1: Serevent® contains a long acting beta –
2 agonist
Statement 2: Formeterol is also a long acting beta -2
agonist
A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
C.Both statements are correct
D.Both statements are wrong
A 49.Evaluate the ff.
Statement 1: Accumulation of intracellular calcium in
parietal cells initiates gastric acid secretion.
Statement 2: Conversion of ATP to cAMP inactivates
protein kinase, thereby preventing gastric acid
secretion.
A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
C.Both statements are correct
D.Both statements are wrong
A 50.Evaluate the ff.
Statement 1: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
provide pain relief through their anti-inflammatory
action.
Statement 2: Acetaminophen also provide pain relief
through its anti-inflammatory effect.
A.Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
B.Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
C.Both statements are correct
D.Both statements are wrong
D 51.A 70 year old, male, patient post coronary
angiography bypass graft ( CABG) with elevated LDL
is managed with Simvastatin. What is the mechanism
of action of Simvastatin?
A.Decreased hepatic secretion of VLDL
B.Decreased oxidation of plasma lipids.
C.Sequestration of bile acids.
D.Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
C 52.A 501 year old, female patient arrives to the
Emergency Department due to the severe chest pain.
Electrocardiogram revealed that she has an acute
myocardial infarction. The medical resident-on-duty
gave Streptokinase as her first dose. What is the
mechanism of action of Streptokinase?
A.It inhibits the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
B.It promotes the conversion of fibrin to fibrin-split
products
C.It inactivates the conversion of plasminogen to
lasmin
D.It inhibits the conversion of prothrombin to
thrombin
C 53.Which of the ff. statement/s are true for
Clonidine?
I. It is a lipid-soluble and rapidly enters the brain
from the circulation
II. Concomitant treatment with TCA may block the
antihypertensive activities f Clonidine.
III. It has a long half-life that is related to its anti-
hypertensive properties
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.
D 54.The ECG of the patient with Digoxin as his
treatment
in the therapeutic dose range would likely to show
A. Widening of the QRS complex
B. Elevation of the ST segment
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C. Prolongation of the QT interval
D. Prolongation of the PR interval
C 55.The major segment of the nephron where the
diuretic
action of the thiazides took place
A. Cortical collecting tubule
B. Medullary collecting tubule
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Proximal convoluted tubule
6
D 56.The ff statement/s are true for the Carbonic
anhydrase inhibitors. C 61.The ff. statement/s are true for Quinidine.
I. Depresses HCO3- reabsorption in the Depresses I.Prolongs the QRS duration
HCO3- reabsorption in the cortical collecting tubule II.Induction of Torsades de Pointes arrhythmia
II. Depresses HCO3- reabsorption in the Depresses III.Shortens the action potential duration by
HCO3- reabsorption in the proximal convoluted nonspecific blockade of K+ channels.
tubule
III. Causes significant hyperchloremic metabolic A. I only
acidosis B. II only
C. I and II only
A. I only D. II and III only
B. II only E. I, II and III.
C. I and II only
D. II and III only D 62.The ff. drug is considered to be the most effective
E. I, II and III. in the prevention of ischemic episodes in patients with
angina.
A 57.What segments of nephron where the diuretic
action of Spironolactone took place? A.Na nitroprusside
B.Isosorbide dinitrate
A.cortical collecting tubule C.Propranolol
B.thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop D.Amlodipine
C.thin ascending limb of Henle’s loop
D.Medullary collecting duct A 63.The diuretic agent that conserves the K+ ions in
the body:
A 58.The activity of propranolol in the treatment of
angina pectoris is the result of this mechanism A.Triamterene
B.Bumetanide
A.Decreased requirement for myocardial oxygen C.Hydrochlorothiazide
B.Increased sensitivity to catecholamines D.Furosemide
C.Reduced production of catecholamines
D.Dilation of the coronary vasculature B 64.A case of a 60 year old male patient with
developed gynecomastia and erectile dysfunction due to
B 59.A 56 year old male patient, with hypertension and the treatment of this particular diuretic agent.
DM type 2. He managed his diabetes by insulin. What
antihypertensive drug should not be used on his case? A.Hydrochlorothiazide
B.Spironolactone

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A.Metoprolol C.Triamterene
B.Propranolol D. Furosemide
C.Methyldopa
D.Hydralazine A 65.The ff. statement/s are true for Lidocaine
I.Extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism
D 60.The ff. statement/s are true for Potassium-sparing II.Plasma clearance is increased in liver damage
Diuretics: III.Volume of distribution is decreased in liver
I. Inhibition of Na+ influx through ion channels in damage.
the luminal membrane
II. Inhibition by direct pharmacologic antagonism of A. I only
mineralocorticoid receptors B. II only
III. Renal K+ wasting may occur C. I and II only
D. II and III only
A. I only E. I, II and III.
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

7
C 66.The ff. are the results of vasodilating activity of C 70.The patient was given Mannitol 100g for the
Na nitroprusside: treatment of his oliguria. Of the following, which is
I.Activation of guanylyl cyclase the least likely to be associated with the effect of
II.Increased intracellular cGMP Mannitol.
III.Decreased intracellular cGMP
A.Effectiveness as nonelectrolytic, osmotically active
A. I only particles
B. II only B.Capacity to be freely filtered
C. I and II only C.Ability to be metabocally altered to an active form
D. II and III only D.Retention of water in the tubular fluid
E. I, II and III.
D 71.The ff. are the mechanism of the clinical effects of
A 67.The ff. are the mechanism of actions of most of Ca++ channel blockers:
the drugs with vasodilating actions I.Increases atrioventricular nodal conduction
I. Increasing cGMP II.Decreases in left ventricular wall stress
II. Promoting depolarization of the vascular smooth III.Increases myocardial oxygen delivery in patients
muscles with vasospastic angina.
III. Increased intracellular Ca2+
A. I only
A. I only B. II only
B. II only C. I and II only
C. I and II only D. II and III only
D. II and III only E. I, II and III.
E. I, II and III.
C 72.The rationale of the beta blocker agents as a
A 68.What is the effect of combining Digoxin to management for angina pectoris.
Verapamil? I.Increase in diastolic perfusion time that may
increase coronary perfusion
A.Verapamil may enhance the AV-blocking effect of II.Decreased heart rate, blood pressure and
Digoxin contractility
B.Verapamil may increase the metabolism of Digoxin III.Increase in end-diastolic volume and ejection time
C.Increased effects of Verapamil
D.Decreased serum concentration of Digoxin A. I only
B. II only
E 69.The ff. are the mechanism of actions of C. I and II only
Guanethidine D. II and III only

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I.Inhibits the release of NE from sympathetic nerve E. I, II and III.
endings
II.Increases sensitivity to the hypertensive effects of D 73.Which of the ff. diuretics caused hyperglycemia,
amines hypomagnesemia and hyperuricemia?
III.Replaces NE stores in the nerve endings.
A.Spironolactone
A. I only B.Furosemide
B. II only C.Acetazolamide
C. I and II only D.Hydrochlorothiazide
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III. A 74.Prophylactic drug for paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia

A.Verapamil
B.Nifedipine
C.Procainamide
D.Adenosine

8
 C 75.Patient has an angina pectoris treated with C 80.What is the therapeutic effect of Digoxin in the
sublingual nitroglycerin. Which of the ff. is involved in atrioventricular node?
the mechanism of actions of nitroglycerin?
A.Increase in PR interval
A.Phosphorylation of light B.Decrease in refractory period
chains of myosin C.Decrease in conduction velocity
B.α-adrenergic activity D.Decrease in QT interval
C.cGMP
D.Phosphodiesterase A 81.What is the effect of digoxin in atrial muscle at
activity toxic dose?

E 76.Which of the ff. is/are the clinical uses of A.Arrrythmia

Captopril? B.Tachycardia
I.Congestive heart failure C.Extrasystoles
II.Prevention of LV dysfunction following MI D.Fibrillation
III.Diabetic nephropathy
B 82.What is the therapeutic effect of digoxin in Purkije
A. I only system?
B. II only
C. I and II only A.Increase in refractory period
D. II and III only B.Decrease in refractory period
E. I, II and III. C.Increase in PR interval
D.Decrease in QT interval
C 77.Patient has hypertension and diabetic neuropathy.
His medication is Losartan. What would be the B 83.What is the toxic effect of digoxin in Purkije
mechanism of actions of his medication? system?
A.Interacts irreversibly at the AT1 and AT2 receptors
B.Have effect on bradykinin metabolism A.Arrrythmia
C.Increases excretion of Cl, Mg, uric acid, Ca, and B.Tachycardia
phosphate C.Bradycardia
D.Decreases urinary flow rate D.Asystole

C 78.The ff. statements are true about the mechanisms C 84.Which of the ff. diuretic agent bhas no effect or no
of action of Carvedilol in the treatment of CHF, changes in K+ urinary electrolytes?
EXCEPT
A.Hydrochlorothiazide

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A.Decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure B.Furosemide
B.Decreased systemic vascular resistance C.Spironolactone
C.Decreased stroke volume index D.Acetazolamide
D.Decreased right arterial pressure
C 85.Among the diuretic agents, which of the ff. would
D 79.Which of the ff. beta blockers could be decrease the body pH?
administered on a once a day dose? I.Potassium-sparing diuretics
I.Carvedilol II.Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
II.Bisoprolol III.Loop diuretics
III.Betaxolol
A. I only
A. I only B. II only
B. II only C. I and II only
C. I and II only D. II and III only
D. II and III only E. I, II and III.
E. I, II and III.

9
A 86.Among the diuretic agents, which of the following D 90.What are the consequences of the inhibition of
would decrease the K+ level? sodium reabsorption by amiloride in the distal tubule,
I.Potassium-sparing diuretics cortical collecting tubule and collecting duct?
II.Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors I.Decrease in potassium retention
III.Loop diuretics II.Reduction of excretion of both potassium and
hydrogen excretion
A. I only III.Decrease in Natriuretic activity
B. II only
C. I and II only A. I only
D. II and III only B. II only
E. I, II and III. C. I and II only
D. II and III only
C 87.Among the diuretic agents, which of the following E. I, II and III.
has no changes in NaHCO3 in urine?
I.Furosemide D 91.What are the antihypertensive mechanisms of
II.Ethacrynic acid actions of indapamide?
III.Indapamide I.Temporary increase in glomerular filtration rate
II.Direct arteriolar vasodilation through Ca2+
A. I only channel blockade
B. II only III.Decreases total body sodium
C. I and II only
D. II and III only A. I only
E. I, II and III B. II only
C. I and II only
C 88.Patient has secondary, acute glaucoma. He was D. II and III only
given 2501mg IV q4 of Acetazolamide. The E. I, II and III.
mechanism of actions of acetazolamide in this
particular case include which of the ff.: B 92.What electrolyte is primarily decreased in the
I. Increase in renal excretion of Na+, K+, HCO3-, combination of ethacrynic acid and cardiac
and water glycosided?
II.Reduction of aqueous humor formation
III.Reduction of H+ ion secretion at renal tubule A.Magnesium
A. I only B.Potassium
B. II only C.Calcium

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C. I and II only D.Chloride
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III. A 93.What is the coagulation factor released by
Desmopressin?
C 89.What are the consequences of the noncompetitive
inhibition of carbonic anhydrase? A.Factor VIII
I.Increase in urine volume B.Factor IX
II.Change in alkaline pH C.Factor X
III.Increase in excretion of ammonia D.Factor X

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

1
0
C 94.The statements about esmolol include which of D 97.The mechanisms of action of pindolol include
the ff? which of the ff?
I.β1-selectiveblocker metabolized by hydrolysis of I.Has positive inotropic and chronotropic effects and
red blood cell estrerases can significantly increase AV nodal conduction
II.used in hypertension with associated tachycardia II.Blocks beta 1- and beta 2-receptors and has mild
III.longer half lives intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
III.Augmentive action of antidepressants thought to
A. I only be mediated via a serotonin 1A autoreceptor
B. II only antagonism
C. I and II only A. I only
D. II and III only B. II only
E. I, II and III. C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E 95.The mechanisms of action of felodipine include E. I, II and III.
which of the ff?
I. Inhibits calcium ions from entering the “slow D 98.What are the mechanisms of action of
channels” or select voltage—sensitive areas of antihypertensive activities of valsartan?
vascular smooth muscle and myocardium during I.Produces indirect antagonism of the angiotensin II
depolarization (AT2) receptors
II.Relaxation of coronary vascular smooth muscle II.Displaces angiotensin II from the AT1 receptor by
and coronary vasodilation antagonizing AT1-induced vasoconstriction
III.Increases myocardial oxygen delivary in patients III.Produces direct antagonism of the angiotensin II
with vasospastic angina (AT2) receptors
A. I only D. II and III only A. I only
B. II only E. I, II and III. B. II only
C. I and II only C. I and II only
D. II and III only
C 96.The mechanisms of action of ramipril include E. I, II and III.
which of the ff?
I.Must undergo enzymatic saponification by C 99.The mechanisms of action of clopidogrel include
esterases in the liver to its biologically active which of the ff?
metabolite I. Irreversibly blocks the P2Y12 component of ADP
II.Effects of ramipril result from the high affinity, receptors on the platelet surface
competitive, reversible binding of ramiprilat II. Prevents activation of the GPIIb/IIIa receptor

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III.Vasoactive kallikriens may be increased in complex
conversion to active hormones by ACE inhibitors III. Increase platelet aggregation
A. I only
B. II only A. I only
C. I and II only B. II only
D. II and III only C. I and II only
E. I, II and III. D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

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E 100.The mechanisms of action of Imdur include D 106.In cases of chlorinated hydrocarbon ingestion,
which of the ff? the following medication(s) is/are given:
I. Decrease preload as measured by pulmonary I.Activated charcoal
capillary wedge pressure and left ventricular end II.epinephrine
diastolic volume and pressure III.diazepam
II. Average reduction in left ventricular end diastolic
volume is 25% at rest A. I only
III. Increase in ejection fractions of 50% to 60% B. II only
A. I only C. I and II only
B. II only D. II and III only
C. I and II only E. I, II and III.
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III. B 107.Peripheral vascular disease has been observed in
persons with chronic exposure to this toxic metal
A 101.This mode of hepatocyte death is associated with drinking water in Taiwan and in Chile. The disease is
cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation and lack of manifested by acrocyanosis and Raynaud’s
inflammation? Phenomenon

A.Apoptosis A.Mercury
B.Necrosis B.Arsenic
C.Hepatosis C.Cadmium
D.Steatosis D.Beryllium

C 102.The first clinically used chelating agent A 108.Acrocyanosis is a feature of Raynaud’s disease.
It is defined as:
A.Penicillamine
B.Deferoxamine A.Disorder affecting the fingers and toes causing
C.BAL them to become blue and cold at low temperatures.
D.EDTA B. Disorder affecting the fingers and toes causing
them to become blue and cold at high temperatures
A 103.Chemical name of British Anti-Lewisite C.All of the above
D.None of the above
A.2,3-dimercaptopropanol
B.2,3-dimercapto-1-propaesulfonic acid B 109.A potent hemolytic agent formed by the reaction

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C.Dimethylcysteine of hydrogen with arsenic and is generated as a by-
D.Ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid product in the nonferrous metals:

C 104.A hydrolytic product of penicillin used for the A.Arsenite

removal of copper in persons with Wilson’s disease B.Arsine
C.Arsenous gas
A.EDTA D.Arsenate
B.BAL
C.Penicillamine B 110.Exposure to insoluble compounds of this toxic
D.Deferoxamine metal produced as syndrome, first described among
fluorescent lamp workers, characterized by shortness
A 105.An orally active chelating agent alternative for of breath, clubbing of fingers and cyanosis. The toxic
persons who have developed a sensitivity to metal is:
penicillamine.
A.Cadmim
A.Triethylene tetramine B.Beryllium
B.DTPA C.Magnesium
C.BAL D.Arsenic
D.Deferoxamine
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B 111.The most ubiquitous toxic metal B 116.Treatment of choice for acid ingestion

A.Cadmium A.use of emetics and lavage

B.Lead B.dilution or therapy with milk or water immediately
C.Arsenic after ingestion
D.Mercury C.use f alkaline substances
D.all of the above
B 112.Clinically overt encephalopathy may occur in
children with high exposure to this toxic metal. A 117.Treatment of choice for alkali ingestion
Symptoms begin with lethargy, irritability, loss of
appetite, dizziness progressing to obvious ataxia, a A.Dilution or therapy with milk or water immediately
reduced level of consciousness which may progress to after ingestion
coma and death. This toxic metal is: B.Vinegar and lemon juice
C.Both
A. Cadmium D.None of the above
B. Lead
C. Arsenic C 118.The ff. may be given for patients with salicylate
D. Mercury poisoning:
I.Activated charcoal
D 113. Metallic nickel combines with carbon monoxide II.Sodium bicarbonate
to form nickel carbonyl, which decomposes to pure III.Acetazolamide
nickel and carbon monoxide on heating to 200°C. this
is extremely toxic. The preferred drug for nickel A. I only
toxicity is: B. II only
C. I and II only
A. BAL D. II and III only
B. EDTA E. I, II and III.
C. Deferoxamine
D. Sodium diethyldithiocarbamate B 119.Sea turtle poisoning symptoms are vomiting,
diarrhea, sore lips and tongue, foul breath, white
C 114. Cardiomyopathy has been caused by an coating on the tongue, tightness of the chest, coma
excessive intake of this essential metal, particularly and death. The etiologic agent is:
from drinking of beer to which 1ppm of this metal was
added to enhance its foaming qualities. This essential A.Saxitoxin

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metal is: B.Chelonitoxin
C.Ciguatoxin
A. Iron D.Tetrodotoxin
B. Magnesium
C. Cobalt C 120.Route of administration of deferoxamine
D. Zinc includes:
I.intramuscular
C 115.The puffer fish poison, tetrodotoxin, are one and II.intravenous
same with the new the poison called: III.oral

A.Newtoxin A. I only
B.Amphibitoxin B. II only
C.Tarichatoxin C. I and II only
D.Saxitoxin D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

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A 121.Denotes the absorption, distribution, excretion, C 126.The Nitrosoureas are highly lipid-soluble and
and metabolism of toxins, toxic doses of therapeutic cross the blood-brain barrier, making them useful in the
agents and their metabolites: treatment of brain tumors. Which of the ff. belong to
the group Nitrosoureas?
A.Toxicokinetics I.Lomustine
B.Toxicodynamics II.Altretamine
C.All of the above III.Semustine
D.None of the above
A. I only
B 122.Used to denote the injurious effects of toxins, B. II only
toxic doses of therapeutic agents and their metabolites C. I and II only
on vital function: D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.
A.Toxicokinetics
B.Toxicodynamics A 127.A folic acid antagonist that binds to the active
C.All of the above catalystic site of dihydrofolate reductase, interfering
D.None of the above with the synthesis of the reduced form that accepts
one-carbon units
A 123.Specific antidote for Fluoride poisoning:
I.Calcium A.Methotrexate
II.acetylcysteine B.Mercaptopurine
III.atropine C.Cisplatin
D.Allopurinol
A. I only
B. II only B 128.Methotrexate also has important applications in
C. I and II only the treatment of:
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III. A.Tuberculosis
B.Rheumatoid arthritis
C 124.Cocaine: crack as ____ : crank C.Congestive heart failure
I.shabu D.Infectious
II.methamphetamine
III.methylenedioxymethamphetamine D 129.The first of the thiopurine series found useful as
an anticancer drug:

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A. I only
B. II only A.Cisplatin
C. I and II only B.Methotrexate
D. II and III only C.Fluouracil
E. I, II and III. D.Mercaptopurine

C 125.Antidote for caffeine poisoning: A 130.Frequently used with chemotherapy in

hematologic cancers to prevent hyperuricemia after
A.Acetylcysteine tumor cell lysis:
B.Calcium
C.Esmolol A.Allopurinol
D.Fomepizole B.Cisplatin
C.Fluorouracil
D.Mercaptopurine

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C 131.Major toxicities of Fluorouracil are: B 136.Used in combination with surgery and vincristine
I.Myelosupression in the adjuvant treatment of Wilm’s tumor:
II.Mucositis
III.Vomiting A.Doxorubicin
B.Dactinomycin
A. I only C.Plicamycin
B. II only D.Mitomycin
C. I and II only
D. II and III only C 137.Major dose-limiting toxicity of dactinomycin:
E. I, II and III.
A.Alopecia
A 132.Enzyme responsible for cutting and relegating B.Vomiting
single DNA strands. Inhibition of this enzyme results in C.Bone marrow depression
DNA damage. D.Thrombocytopenia

A.Topoisomerase I A 138.Formerly known as Mithramycin, isolated from

B.Topoisomerase II Streptomyces plicatus:
C.Aromatase
D.Asparaginase A.Plicamycin
B.Dactinomycin
C 133.Natural products that interfere with the activity C.Dodorubicin
of Topoisomerase I: D.Mitomycin

A.Vincristine B 139.Mitomycin is isolated from:

B.Podophyllotoxins
C.Camptothecins A.Streptomyces plicatus
D.Taxanes B.Streptomyces caespitosus
C.Streptomyces peucetius
B 134.An alkaloid ester derived from the Western Yew D.Streptomyces nodosus
(Taxus brevifolia) and the European Yew ( Taxus
baccata) B 140.A series of antineoplastic antibiotics produced by
Streptomyces verticillus:
A.Cisplatin
B.Paclitaxel A.Plicamycin

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C.Vincristine B.Bleomycin
D.Podophyllotoxins C.Doxorubicin
D.Mitomycin
E 135.Paclitaxel has significant activity in ovarian and
advanced breast cancer. Its primary dose-limiting E 141.Sex hormones are employed in cancer of the
toxicities includes: female and male breast, cancer of the prostate, and
I.Neutropenia cancer of the endometrium of the uterus. Its adverse
II.Thrombocytopenia reaction(s) include(s):
III.Peripheral neuropathy I. Fluid retention
II. Hypertension
A. I only III.Diabetes
B. II only
C. I and II only A. I only
D. II and III only B. II only
E. I, II and III. C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

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A 142.Tamoxifen has proved to be extremely useful for E 147.Current treatment of choice for Stages II and IV
the treatment of breast cancer. Most frequent side effect of Hodgkin’s disease includes the combination
of Tamoxifen is: chemotherapy of:
I.Vinblastine
A.Hot flushes II.Doxorubicin
B.Nausea III.Bleomycin
C.Fluid retention
D.Alopecia A. I only
B. II only
A 143.Predominant form of leukemia in childhood and C. I and II only
the most common form of leukemia in children. D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.
A.Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B.Acute myelogenous leukemia A 148.Current treatment of choice for carcinoma of the
C.Hairy cell leukemia ovary includes:
D.Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
A.Cisplatin and paclitaxel
C 144.First metastatic cancer cured with chemotherapy B.Progestins and tamoxifen
C.Vincristine and vinblastine
A.Breast cancer D.Chlorambucil and prednisone
B.Testicular carcinoma
C.Choriocarcinoma of the uterus A 149.An enzyme that is isolated from various bacteria
D.Thyroid carcinoma used to treat childhood acute leukemia

C 145.Metastatic melanoma is one of the most difficult A. Asparaginase

neoplasms to treat. Most active cytotoxic agent(s) for B. Topoisomerase I
this include(s) C. Topoisomerase II
I. Dacarbazine D. Aromatase
II.Cisplatin
III.fluorouracil B 150.This anthracene compound whose structure
resembles the anthracycline ring was recently
A. I only approved for treatment of refractory acute leukemia
B. II only
C. I and II only A.Mitomycin

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D. II and III only B.Mitoxanthrone
E. I, II and III. C.Mitotane
D.Mitotaxin
C 146.Chronic myelogenous leukemia arises from a
chromosally abnormal hematopoetic stem cell. B 151.What is the safest 1st generation sulfonylurea for
Patients who are not eligible for bone marrow elderly diabetics
transplantation may make use of the ff. to provide
temporay improvement: A.Chlorpropramide
I.Alpha-interferon B.Tolbutamide
II.Mercaptopurine C.Tolazamide
III.Cisplatin D.None of the above
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

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B 152.Which among the ff. insulin is the most recently C 157. What is the first incretin therapy to become
developed long acting insulin analog that has a dose- available in the treatment of diabetes.
dependent onset of action of 1-2 hours and duration of
action of more than 24 hours. A. Sitagliptin
B. Pramlintide
A.NPH insulin C. Exenatide
B.Insulin glargine D. Rosiglitazone
C.Insulin detemir
D. None of the above A 158. It is a 69-amino acid peptide which contains the
glucagon sequence interposed between peptide
A 153.The ff. is/are true about Type 4 Diabetes extensions
Mellitus
I. It is defined as any abnormality in glucose levels A. Glicentin
noted for the first time during pregnancy. B. Pepsin
II. The designation refers to multiple other specific C. Glucagon-like peptides
causes of an Elevated blood glucose: nonpancreatic D. Phosphodiesterases
diseases and drug therapy etc.
III. It is characterized by tissue resistance to the action C 159. Which among the ff. is available in inhaled form
of insulin combined with a relative deficiency in of rapid acting insulin
insulin
secretion. A. insulin aspart
A. I only II and III only B. Insulin lispro
B. II only E. I, II and III. C.Human insulin recombinant
C. I and II only D. Insuline glulisine

D 154.Which among the ff. sulfonylureas achieves A 160. This hormone modulates appetite, gastric
blood glucose lowering at the lowest dose emptying time and glucagon and insulin secretion.

A.Tolbutamide A. Islet amyloid polypeptide

B.Glyburide B. Somatostatin
C.Glipizide C. Pancreatic peptide
D.Glimepiride D. None of the above

A 155.These are drugs which are ligand of peroxisome A 161. This is a soluble "peakless" ultra long acting

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proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPAR-gamma) insulin analog

A.Thiazolidinediones A. Insulin glargine

B.Meglitinides B. Insulin detemir
C.Sulfonylurea C. NPH
D.None of the above D. None of the above

E 156.Which among the ff. is/are the cause/s of
hypoglycemia with patients under tight glycemic
control?
I. delay in taking meal
II. inadequate carbohydrate consumed
III. unusual physical exertion
B 162. Which ic/are not true about thioamides
I. Methimazole and propylthiouracil are major
drugs for treatment of thyrotoxicosis
II. Methimazole is less potent than propylthiouracil
III. Carbimazole is converted to methimazole in the
body

A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. I and II only C. I and II only
D. II and III only D. II and III only
E. I, II and III. E. I, II and III.
1
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B 163. It is the end state of untreated hypothyroidism D 168. This is usally the result of bilateral adrenal
which is associated with progressive weakness, hyperplasia secondary to an ACTH-secreting pituitary
stupor, hypothermia, hypoventilation, hypoglycemia adenoma
and death.
A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis A. Aldosteronism
B. Grave's Disease B. Addison's Disease
C. Myexedema coma C. Grave's Disease
D. None of the above D. Cushing's syndrome

C 164. It is the sudden acute exacerbation of all the D 170.This compound destroys seminiferous epithelium
symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, presenting as a life- but does not significantly alter the endocrine function
threatening syndrome. of the testis

A. Grave's syndrome A. Levonorgestrel

B. Opthalmopathy B. Progestin
C. Thyroid storm C. Cyproterone acetate
D. Dermopathy D. Gossypol

D 165. Which oh the ff. is not a sign nor symptom of A 171. A potent substituted anilide antiandrogen which
Grave's Disease is not a steroid but it behaves like a competitive
I.Plummer's nail antagonist at the androgen receptor
II.Endophthalmos
III.Decreased sweating A. Flutamide
B. Bicalutamide
A. I only C. Nilutamide
B. II only D. Finasteride
C. I and II only
D. II and III only B 172. The ff. are the manifestations of malignant
E. I, II and III. hyperthermia syndrome except
I. Rapid onset of tachycardia and hypertension
A 166. It is a syndrome of thyroid enlargement without II. Hypotension
excessive thyroid hormone production. III. Severe muscular rigidity
IV. Hyperkalemia
A. Nontoxic goiter

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B. Hashimoto's Disease A. I only
C. Thyroid storm B. II only
D. None of the above C. I and II only
D. II and III only
B 167. Which of the ff. is/are not the physiologic E. I, II and III.
effect/s of compound F.
I.Regulation of intermediary metabolism E 173. Which of the ff. is/are characteristic/s of an ideal
II.Cell necrosis anesthetic drug
III.Immunity I. Induce loss of consciousness smoothly and
rapidly while allowing for prompt recovery of
A. I only cognitive function after its administration
B. II only II. Possess a wide margin of safety
C. I and II only III. Devoid of adverse effects
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III. A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.
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E 174. The ff. anesthetics are correctly matched: D 178. Which of the ff. is/are not true about inhaled
I. Ketamine- opioid anesthetics anesthetics
II. Cocaine- ester containing local anesthetics I. Increases the metabolic rate of the brain
III. Lidocaine- xylocaine II. Increases the glomerular filtration rate and renal
blod flow depending on the concentration
A. I only III. Decreases mean arterial pressure in direct
B. II only proportion to alveolar concentration
C. I and II only
D. II and III only A. I only
E. I, II and III. B. II only
C. I and II only
D 175. Which among the ff. anesthetics have a D. II and III only
depressant effect on arterial pressure as a result of a E. I, II and III
decrease in systemic vascular resistance with minimal
effect on cardiac output. A 179. It is the commonly used barbiturate to induce
I. Halothane anesthesia
II. Desflurane
III. Enflurane A. Thiopental
IV. Sevoflurane B. Phenobarbital
V. Isoflurane C. Secobarbital
D. Amobarbital
A. I only IV and V
B. II only E. I, II, III and IV C 180. At what site does amide containing local
C. I and II only anesthetics is converted to more water soluble
metabolites and then excreted in the urine?
D 176. At what stage of anesthesia does recurrence of
regular respiration and extension to complete A. Kidney
cessation of spontaneous respiration occur? B. Plasma
C. Liver
A. Stage of modullary depression D. Lungs
B. Stage of excitement
C. Stage of analgesia D 181. Which of the ff. local anesthetics are correctly
D. Stage of surgical anesthesia matched in terms of potency?
I. Lidocaine< bupivacaine

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B 177. Which among the ff. is the correct order of II. Ropivacaine> mepivacaine
increasing depth of nervous system depression? III. Tetracaine> procaine
I. Stage of surgical anesthesia
II. Stage of excitement A. I & II only
III. Stage of analgesia B. II & III only
IV. Stage of modullary depression C. III only
D. II & III only
A. I-II-III-IV
B. III-II-I-IV E 182. Which is not true about local anesthetics?
C. IV-II-I-III I. Possesses membrane stabilizing effects
D. III-I-II-IV II. Used to treat patients with neuropathic pain
syndrome
III. Commonly used as adjuvants

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. None of the above
1
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D 183. The ff. statement/s is/are true about vitamin D. D 187. Which is/are not a characteristic/s of
I. Vitamin D is secosteroid produced in the skin from dissociative anesthetic state?
7-dehydrocholesterol under the influence of UV I. Catatonia
II. Vitamin D is a prohormone that serves as a II. amnesia
precursor to a number of biologically active III. analgesia
metabolites
III. Both the natural form and the plant derived form A. I and II only
are present in the diet B. III and IV only
C. III only
A. I only D. None of the above
B. I and II only
C. II and III only C 188. Which is/are not true about opioid anesthetics?
D. I, II and III I. Opioid anesthetics are used in combination with
large doses of benzodiazepines
B 184. All the ff. are major causes (other than thiazide II. Low doses during surgery causes chest wall
therapy) of hypercalcemia except: rigidity thereby impairing ventilation
I. Hyperparathyroidism III. Opioid anesthetics can be administered in very
II. Hypothyroidism low doses by epidural and subarachnoid route
III. Hypervitaminosis D
IV. Sarcoidois A. I only
B. II only
A. I only C. I and II only
B. I and II only D. II and III only
C. II and III only E. I, II, and III
D. I, II and III
D 189. Which among the ff. pair/s of
B 185. Which among the ff. is/are not associated with "etiology/pathogenesis" of hypothyroidism is/are
hypophosphatemia? correct?
I. Fanconi's Disease I. Cretinism/blocked hormone formation
II. Hypothyroidism II. Hashimoto's thyroiditis/autoimmune destruction
III. Hyperparathyroidism of thyroid
III. Dyshormogenesis/impaired synthesis of T4 due
A. I only to enzyme deficiency
B. I and II only A. I only

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C. II and III only B. II only
D. I, II and III C. I and II only
D. II and III only
C 186. The ff. are clinical manifestations of E. I, II, and III
hypothyroidism except:
I. Pale, cool, puffy skin A 190. This serves as a precursor of aldosterone
II. Pleural effusions
III. Increased erythropoiesis A. Deoxycortisone
IV. Hypermenorrhea B. Fludrocortisone
C. ACTH
A. I, II and III D. Cortisone
B. II only
C. III only C 191. It blocks the conversion of cholesterol to
D. II, III and IV only pregnenolone and causes a reduction in the synthesis
of all hormonally active sterois

A. Mifepristone
B. Metypyrone
C. Aminoglutethimide
D. Mitotane 2
0
 A 196. This drug inhibits dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-
D 192. Which among the ff. has a strong antiprogestin 4)
activity and initially was proposed as a contraceptive-
contagestive agent A. Sitagliptin
I. RU 486 B. Pramlintide
II. 11B-aminophenyl-substituted 19-norsteroid C. Exenatide
III. Mifepristone D. Acarbose

A. I only E 197. Which among the ff. is/are the physiologic

B. I and II only effect/s of amylin:
C. II and III only I. modulate insulin release by acting as a negative
D. I, II, and III feedback ion insulin secretion
II. reduces glucagon secretion
D 193. Which of the ff. is/are not true about ketamine III. slows gastric emptying by vagally medicated
I. Markedly increases cerebral blood flow, oxygen mechanism
consumption and intracranial pressue
II. Increases the respiratory rate, upper airway muscle A. I only
tone is well maintained and airway reflexes are usually B. II only
preserved C. I and II only
III. The only IV anesthetic that possesses both D. II and III only
analgesic properties and the ability to produce dose- E. I, II, and III
related cardiovascular stimulation
A. I only II and III only C 198. This aldosterone antagonist is more selective
B. II only E. I, II, and III than spironolactone and has no reported effects on
C. I and II only androgen receptors

D 194. Which among the ff. is/are not a mild adverse A. Drospirenone
effect/s of hormonal contraceptives? B. Fludrocortisone
I. Nausea C. Eplerenone
II. Breakthrough bleeding D. Mifepristone
III. myocardial infarction
E 199. Which of the ff. is/are the effect/s of estrogen
A. I only therapy?
B. II only I. Nausea & breast tenderness

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C. I and II only II. Uterine bleeding
D. II and III only III. Cancer
E. I, II, and III
A. I only
C 195. Which among the ff. is/are not a physiologic B. II only
effect of insulin? C. I and II only
I. Inhibits glycogenesis D. II and III only
II. Increase glucose transport E. I, II, and III
III. Promotes intracellular lipase
D 200. The following is/ are clinical manifestation/s of
A. I only hypocalemia.
B. II only I. Hyperthyroidism
C. I and II only II. Tetany
D. II and III only III. Paresthesia
E. I, II, and III
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III 2
1
B 201. The first-line antimycobacterial agent which, if A 207. Trichomoniasis, manifested by itching in the
given in high doses, indicates periodic assessment of vulval area, is preferably treated with
visual acuity and red-green color discrimination.
A. Metronidazole
A. Streptomycin B. Pyrimethamine
B. Ethambutol C. Doxycycline
C. Pyrazinamide D. Pentamidine
D. Rifampicin
C 208. Pneumonia characterized by a sputum culture
C 202. Urinary tract infection caused by Chlamydia that is positive for a B-lactamase-positive
trachomatis on a pregnant patient is best treated with. staphylococcal strain should be treated with which
penicillin?
A. Co-trimoxazole
B. Levofloxacin A. Carbenicillin
C. Erythromycin B. Ticarcillin
D. Tetracycline C. Oxacillin
D. Ampicillin
D 203. Ciprofloxacin is used for the treatment of
chronic UTI. If a patient appears unresponsive to the B 209. The following are general principles of
antibiotic, which of the following agents is most likely antimicrobial surgical prophylaxis EXCEPT:
the cause?
A. The antibiotic should be active against common
A. Aspirin surgical would pathogens.
B. Sodium bicarbonate B. Broad spectrum antibiotics should be used to ensure
C. Phenytoin complete protection against post-surgical infections.
D. Ferrous sulfate C. The antibiotic concentrations must be greater than
the MIC of suspected pathogens at the time of incision.
A 204. Urethral discharge which when cultured shows D. Ideally, a single dose of antibiotic should be used.
Neiserria gonorrhoeae should be treated with E. Newer, broad spectrum antibiotics should be
reserved for therapy of resistant infections.
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Co-trimoxazole B 210. Which of the following agents used to treat
C. Benzathine penicillin G chronic UTI could cause acute alcohol intolerance?

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D. Amikacin
A. Moxifloxacin
C 205. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is found in urine B. Cefotetan
culture and blood cultures of a patient with acute C. Co-trimoxazole
pyelonephritis.Combined therapy should be instituted D. Tetracycline
with an aminoglycoside and which of the following?
D 211. Which of the antiviral agent should be
A. Vancomycin administered to an immunocompromised patient with
B. Azithromycin herpes simplex keratitis?
C. Piperacillin
D. Clavulanic acid A. Amantadine
B. Indinavir
C 206. Clarithromycin, used in combination with other C. Zidovudine
agents for the treatment of duodenal ulcers, inactivates D. Trifluridine
which enzyme?

A. Na+, K+ - ATPas
B. Na+, K+, Cl- co-transporter
C. Cytochrome P450
D. Dihydrofolate reductase 2
2
D 212. A geriatric patient develops fever and a cough
that produces blood-tinged sputum. Gram-positive
cocci in clusters are found in a sputum smear. A chest
x-ray shows increased density in the right upper lobe.
Which of the following penicillins is most likely to be
ineffective?
A. Cloxacillin
B. Nafcillin
C. Oxacillin
D. Ticarcillin
A 213. Otitis externa that is positive for Pseudomonas
organisms is treated with topical polymyxin. What is
the mechanism of action of polymyxin?
A. Disruption of membrane permeability
B. Inactivation of protein sulfhydryl groups
C. Formation of reactive cytotoxic products
D. Inhibition of protein synthesis
A 214. Which of the following statements best
characterizes amoxicillin?
A. It has better oral absorption then ampicillin
B. It is effective for uncomplicated salmonella
gastroenteritis
C. It is effective against Pseudomonas
D. It is effective for shigellosis
C 215. Indinavir, used in the treatment of AIDS in
combination with other agents, exerts its action by what
mechanism?
A 217. Echinocandins, the newest class of antifungal
agent to be developed, exert their action by
A. Inhibition of B(1-3) glucan synthesis
B. Inhibition of fungal DNA synthesis
C. Inhibition of fungal cytochrome P450 enzymes
D. Inhibition of fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase
C 218.The following statements are true about
tobramycin.
I. Tobramycin may be used for treatment of
Pseudomonas aeruginosa lower respiratory tract
infections complicating fibrosis.
II. Gentamicin and tobramycin may by
interchangeable clinically with a few exceptions.
III. Nephrotoxicity of tobramycin is greater than that
of gentamicin, but is less ototoxic.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
D 219. The following statements are true about
linezolid.
I. Linezolid should be reserved for treatment of
infections caused by multidrug-resistant gram-
negative bacteria.
II. The principal toxicity of linezolid is generally mild
and reversible.
III. Linezolid is active in-vitro against Mycobacterium
tubercolosis.
A. I only

BOARD REVIEW | ADJUSTED BY: MRLCARDONA 

A. Inhibition of nucleoside reverse transcriptase B. II only
B. Inhibition of nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase C. I and II only
C. Inhibition of viral protease D. II and III only
D. Blockage of viral entry E. I, II and III

D 216. The following drugs are used to treat E 220. Arrange the following tetracyclines according to
pneumocystosis caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci serum half-life.
EXCEPT: I. Doxycycline
II. Tigecycline
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole III. Methecycline
B. Clindamycin-primaquine IV. Tetracycline
C. Pentamidine
D. Metronidazole A. I > II > III > IV
B. II > III > I > IV
C. III > II > I > IV
D. III > I > II > IV
E. II > I > III > IV

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A 221.The following cephalosporins are correctly B 225. The following are major mechanisms of
matched. antimicrobial synergism EXCEPT
I. First-generation – Cephradine
II. Second-generation – Cefaclor A. Blockade of sequential steps in a metabolic
III. Third-generation – Moxalactam sequence
IV. Fourh-generation – Cefdinir B. Induction of enzymatic inactivation
C. Inhibition of enzymatic inactivation
A. I, II and III D. Enhancement of antimicrobial agent uptake
B. I and III
C. II and IV D 226. The main chemical form of mercury that
D. IV only poisoned the local population surrounding Minamata
Bay in the 1960s after consuming fish and shellfish is
B 222. The following antiretroviral agents are correctly
matched. A. Elemental mercury (Hg0)
I. Protease inhibitor – Tipranavir B. Mercurous salts (Hg+)
II. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor – C. Mercuric salts (Hg2+)
Efavirenz D. Methylmercury (CH3Hg)
III. Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor – E. Dimethylmercury (CH3HgCH3)
Nevirapine
IV. Fusion inhibitor – Elvucitabine. A 227. What is the site of action of nephrotoxicity of
A. I, II and III inorganic mercury salts?
B. I and III
C. II and IV A. Proximal tubular cells
D. IV only B. Distal tubular cells
E. All are correctly matched C. Loop of Henle
D. Bowman’s capsule
D 223. The following antiviral agents may be used for E. Collecting duct
influenza.
I. Ritonavir A 228. What is the site of action of nephrotoxicity
II. Amantadine following long term exposure to cadmium?
III. Zanamivir
A. Proximal tubular cells
A. I only B. Distal tubular cells
B. II only C. Loop of Henle
D. Bowman’s capsule

BOARD REVIEW | ADJUSTED BY: MRLCARDONA 

C. I and II only
D. II and III only E. Collecting duct
E. I, II and III
E 229. The mechanism of chromium carcinogenicity is
E 224. The following are the actions of interferon-alfa. the reduction of hexavalent chromium (Cr+6) to the
I. Inhibition of viral penetration, translation, trivalent form (Cr+3) and generation of reactive
transcription, protein processing, maturation, and intermediates, leading to
release
II. Increased expression of major histocompatibility A. Breast cancer
complex antigens B. Brain cancer
III. Augmentation of the proliferation and survival of C. Endometrial cancer
cytotoxic T cells D. Leukemia
E. Lung cancer
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

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C 230. Blackfoot Disease, or gangrene of the lower C 235. The circulating protein to which toxicants are
extremities, is caused by very high levels of exposure to most likely to bind to is

A. Boron A. Albumin
B. Silicon B. a1-acid glycoprotein
C. Arsenic C. Lipoproteins
D. Antimony D. Globulins
E. Lead E. Creatine

D 231. The most toxic form of Arsenic is C 236. The effects of this teratogen are not seen in the
offspring until they reach puberty.
A. Elemental arsenic (As0)
B. Pentavalent arsenic (As+5) A. Thalidomide
C. Trivalent arsenic (As+3) B. Isotretinoin
D. Arsine gas (AsH3) C. Diethylstilbestrol
E. Arsenic trioxide (As2O3) D. Alcohol
E. Lithium
C 232. The US EPA “category use” classification of
pesticides that are generally nontoxic and have an oral E 237. These agents are associated with liver necrosis
LD50 less than or equal to 15,000 mg/kg. and fatty liver EXCEPT:

A. Category I A. Carbon tetrachloride

B. Category II B. Tetracycline
C. Category III C. Chloroform
D. Category IV D. Acetaminophen
E. Category V E. Methimazole

B 233. The rate of penetration of toxicants across the D 238. These agents are associated with drug-induced
skin follows this order cholestasis EXCEPT:
I. Abdomen
II. Scrotal A. Diazepam
III. Scalp B, Estradiol
IV. Palm C. Chlorpromazine
D. Indomethacin

BOARD REVIEW | ADJUSTED BY: MRLCARDONA 

A. I > II > III > IV E. Sulfanilamide
B. II > III > I > IV
C. III > II > I > IV A 239. These agents are associated with drug-induced
D. III > I > II > IV hepatitis EXCEPT:
E. II > I > III > IV
A. Safrole
A 234. The mammalian skin that is usually predictive B. Isoniazid
of dermal absorption of most drug and pesticides in C. Papaverine
human skin. D. Colchicine
E. Halothane
A. Pig skin
B. Primate skin A 240. These agents are associated with hepatic
C. Rabbit skin necrosis EXCEPT:
D. Hairless guinea pig skin
E. Rat skin A. Aflatoxin B1
B. Galactosamine
C. Urethane
D. Polychlorinated biphenyls
E. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids
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A 241. The following statements are true about hepatic E 244. The following statements are true about
necrosis. cirrhosis.
I. Cell necrosis is usually an acute injury. I. In cirrhosis, the accumulation of fibrous material
II. Necrosis may affect only a few hepatocytes or an causes severe restriction in blood flow.
entire lobe. II. Cirrhosis results mostly from chronic chemical
III. Necrotic lesions are not necessarily critical. injury
IV Changes in blood chemistry resemble those seen III. Chronic use of ethanol is the signle most important
with fatty liver, except they are quantitatively smaller. cause of cirrhosis in humans.
IV. Cirrhosis is a progressive disease characterized
A. I, II and III by the deposition of collagen throughout the liver.
B. I and III A. I, II and III D. IV only
C. II and IV B. I and III E. All are true
D. IV only C. II and IV
E. All are true
E 245. The following statements are true about
A 242. The following statements are true about hepatic chemically induced cell injury
apoptosis. I. The chemical agent is activated to form the
I. Apoptosis is a controlled form of cell death initiating toxic agent.
II. Apoptosis is the counterpoint of cell division by II. The initiating toxic agent is either detoxified or
mitosis causes molecular changes in the cell.
III. Tumor growth may result from inhibition of III. The cell recovers or there are irreversible changes.
apoptosis IV. Irreversible changes may culminate in cell death.
IV. Apoptosis is a normal physiological process
whereas necrosis is induced by exogenous factors. A. I, II and III
B. I and III
A. I, II and III D. IV only C. II and IV
B. I and III E. All are true D. IV only
C. II and IV E. All are true

E 243. The following statements are true about
cholestasis
I. Cholestasis is the suppression or stoppage of bile
flow
II. Cholestasis is usually drug induced
A 246. The following statements are true about
hepatotoxic agents.
I. Carbon tetrachloride is converted to highly reactive
free radicals by a P450 isozyme in the centrilobular
liver cells.

BOARD REVIEW | ADJUSTED BY: MRLCARDONA 

III. Inflammation or blockage of the bile ducts results II. Ethanol increases the formation of superoxide by
in bilirubin accumulation, leading to jaundice Kupffer cells thus implicating oxidative stress in
IV. Changes in membrane permeability of either ethanol-induced live disease.
hepatocytes or biliary canaliculi may cause III. Bromobenzene induces hepatic necrosis through
cholestasis. the formation of reactive epoxides
A. I, II and III IV only IV. High doses of acetaminophen progressively
B. I and III E. All are true deplete hepatic glutathione levels, resulting in
C. II and IV extensive noncovalent binding of the reactive
metabolie to liver macromolecules.

A. I, II and III
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. IV only
E. All are true

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E 247. The following statements are true about the
kidney and its susceptibility to toxicants.
I. Although the kidneys comprise less than 1% of the
body mass, they receive around 25% of the cardiac
output, and thus receive significant amounts of
xenobiotics.
II. As the kidneys remove water and salts from tubular
fluid, a nontoxic concentration of any chemical in the
plasma is converted to one that is toxic in the tubules.
III. Some regions of the kidney have considerable
levels
of xenobiotics metabolizing enzymes, in which reactive
metabolites may form.
IV. High levels of glutathione play an important role in
the detoxification process.
A. I, III and III
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. IV only
E. All are true
D 248. The following statements are true about
nephrotoxic metals.
I. Cadmium is excreted in the urine mainly as a
complex with the protein metallothionein, which is a
low molecular weight protein synthesized in the
kidney.
II. Lead, as Pb2+, is taken up readily by distal tubule
cells, where it damages mitochondria and inhibits
mitochondrial function.
III. Plasma uranium is bound, as the uranyl ion, to
citrate, which is then filtered by the glomerulus.
IV. Organomercurials, in the absence of other
effective drugs, still prove to be effective, sometimes
life-saving, diuretics.
A. I, II and III
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. IV only
E. All are true
A 249. The following statements are true about
nephrotoxic agents EXCEPT:
A. In the proximal tubule, aminoglycosides are
reabsorbed by binding to cationic membrane
phospholipids, followed by endocytosis and
sequestration in lysosomes.
B. Amphotericin B, as a surface-active agent, binds to
membrane phospholipids, disrupting the integrity of the
membrane and resulting in leaky cells.
C. Chloroform is converted to phosgene, which is
capable of binding to cellular proteins to produce
cellular
necrosis in the kidney.
D. Hexachlorobutadiene first forms a glutathione
conjugate, which is further metabolized to a cysteine
conjugate, which is then cleaved to a reactive
intermediate.
B 250. The following statements are true about the
mechanism of MPTP as a neurotoxicant EXCEPT:
A. MPTP is converted to the damaging metabolite,
MPP+
B. The damaging metabolite is not distinguished from
serotonin by the uptake transporter, so it is taken up as
well.
C. The damaging metabolite kills substantia nigra
neurons by affecting mitochondrial energy production
and promoting free radical formation
D. The death of neurons in the substantia nigra results
in a lack of neurotransmitter release in the stratum.
E. The neurotransmitter loss causes the hallmark
symptoms of Parkinsonism.
D 251. Which of the following statements are correct?
BOARD REVIEW | ADJUSTED BY: MRLCARDONA 
A. Weak bases are absorbed efficiently across the
epithelial cells of the stomach.
B. Coadministration of atropine speeds the absorption
of a second drug.
C. Drugs showing large Vd can be efficiently removed
by dialysis of the plasma
D. Stressful emotions can lead to a slowing of drug
absorption.
C 252. Which of the following is true for a drug whose
elimination from plasma shows first-order kinetics?
A. The half-life of the drug is proportional to the drug
concentration in plasma
B. The amount eliminated per unit time is constant
C. The rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma
concentration
D. A plot of drug concentration versus time is a straight
line.
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B 253. The addition of glucuronic acid to a drug
A. Decrease its water solubility
B. Usually leads to inactivation of the drug
C. Is an example of Phaase I reaction
D. Involves cytochrome P-450
D 254. A drug given as 100mg single dose, results in a
peak plasma concentration of 20ug/ mL. The apparent
volume of distribution is
A. 0.5 L
B. 1 L
C. 2 L
D. 5 L
D 255. All of the following statements concerning the
autonomic nervous system are true EXCEPT for which
one?
A. The autonomic nervous system is composed entirely
of efferent neurons.
B. The sympathetic division is activated in response to
stressful situations
C. The parasympathetic division originates from cell
bodies in the CNS
D. The parasympathetic nervous system is not required
of life.
C 256. Which of the following statements concerning
the
parasympathetic nervous system is CORRECT?
A. The parasympathetic system uses norepinephrine as
a neurotransmitter
B. The parasympathetic system often discharge as a
D 258. Which of the following is not an expected
symptom of poisoning with isoflurophate?
A. Paralysis of skeletal muscle
B. Increased bronchial secretion
C. Miosis
D. Tachycardia
A 259. Pilocarpine’s
A. Is used to lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma
B. Is cleaved by acetylcholinesterase
C. Selectively binds to nicotinic receptors
D. Inhibits secretions such as sweat, tears and saliva.
D 260. Neostigmine
A. Is contraindicated in glaucoma
B. Has a shorter duration of action than edrophonium
C.Decreases acetylcholine concentration at
neuromuscular junction
D. May result in bowel hypermotility, salivation and
sweating
A 261. Which one of the following drugs most closely
resembles atropine in its pharmacologic actions?
A. Scopolamine
B. Physostigmine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Carbachol
C 262. Which one from the following drugs does not
produce miosis (marked constriction of the pupil)?

BOARD REVIEW | ADJUSTED BY: MRLCARDONA 

single functional system A. Carbachol
C. The parasympathetic division is involved in B. Isoflurophate
accommodation of near vision, movement of food and C. Atropine
urination D. Pilocarpine
D. The parasympathetic system controls the secretion of
the adrenal medulla. C 263. Which one from the following drugs would be
useful in long-term treatment of myasthenia gravis?
C 257. Which of the following is characteristic of
parasympathetic stimulation? A. Carbachol
B. Isoflurophate
A. Decrease in intestinal motility C. Atropine
B. Inhibition of bronchial secretion D. Pilocarpine
C. Contraction of sphincter muscle in the iris of the eye
(miosis)
D. Contraction of sphincter of urinary bladder

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D 264. A 50-years-old male farm worker is brought to D 270.Which of the following statements is correct?
the emergency room. He was found confused in the
orchard and since then has lost consciousness. His heart A. Chlorpromazine is indicated in treating nausea of
rate is 45 and his blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg. He is levodopa treatment
sweating and salivation profusely. Which of the B. Vitamin B6 increases the effectiveness of levodopa
following treatment is indicated? C. Administration of dopamine is an effective
treatment
A. Physostigmine of Parkinson’s disease
B. Norepinephrine D. Levodopa-induced nausea is reduced by carbidopa
C. Trimethaphan
D. Atropine D 271. All of the following statements are correct,
except
A 265. Diastolic pressure is increased after the A. Atropine blocks the cholinergic pathway in the
administration of which of the following drugs? neostriatum
B. Antimuscarinic agents are generally less efficacious
A. Norepinephrine than levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease.
B. Epinephrine C. Bromocriptine directly activates dopaminergic
C. Isoproterenol receptors
D. Albuterol D. Amantadine inhibits the metabolism of levodopa.

D 266. Which of these statements is incorrect? D 272. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
A. Among the physiologic responses caused by alpha- cocaine overdose?
receptor stimulation are vasoconstriction, mydriasis
and decreased GIT motility. A. Dilation of pupils
B. Among the physiologic responses caused by beta- B. Euphoria
receptor stimulation are vasoconstriction, cardiac C. Tachycardia
stimulation and bronchial relaxation. D. Peripheral vasodilation
C. Norepinephrine has a stronger affinity for alpha
receptors compared to beta-receptors B 273. Which of the following statements about
D. Dobutamine is a potent vasoconstrictor amphetamine is incorrect?
A. Overdosage can be managed with chlorpromazine
C 267. All of the following statements concerning B. It is used as an adjunct with MAO inhibitors in the
phenylephrine are correct, except treatment of depression
A. It is an alpha agonist that causes vasoconstriction C. Amphetamine has a longer duration of action than

BOARD REVIEW | ADJUSTED BY: MRLCARDONA 

B. It is synthetic direct-acting agonist cocaine
C. It is used to prevent bronchospasm D. Amphetamine depresses the hunger center in the
D. It causes mydriasis when introduced into the eye hypothalamus

D 268. Systolic pressure is decreased after the injection D 274. Which of the following statements concerning
of which of the following drugs? tetrahydrocannabinot (THC) is correct?

A. Norepinephrine A. It decrease heart rate

B. Dopamine B. It increase muscle strength
C. Ephedrine C. It decrease appetite
D. Reserpine D. It has antiemetic action

D 269. Which of the following drugs is useful in C 275. Which of the following is an appropriate
treating tachycardia? therapeutic use for imipramine?

A. Phenoxybenzamine A. Insomnia
B. Isoproterenol B. Epilepsy
C. Phentolamine C. Bed-wetting in children
D. Propranolol D. Glaucoma
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D 276. MAO inhibitors are contraindicated with all of
the following except
A. Indirect adrenergic agents, such as ephedrine
B. Tricyclic antidrepressants
C. Beer and cheese
D. Aspirin
A 277. Which of the following statements concerning
tricyclic antidepressant is correct?
A. All of the tricyclic antidepressants show similar
therapeutic efficacy
B. Hypertension is a common adverse effect
C. These drugs show an immediate therapeutic effect
D. These drugs must be administered intramuscularly
D 278. Which of the following is common to the
tricyclic antidepressants and MAO inhibitors?
A. They can produce sedation
B. They can produce physical dependence
C. They show strong interaction with certain foods.
D. They can produce postural hypotension
C 279. Which of the following antidepressant agents
exhibits an amphetamine-like CNS stimulation?
A. Imipramine
B. Lithium salts
C. Tranylcypromine
D. Trazodone
B 280. A very upset mother brings her 10-year-old son
to ask help dealing with his bed wetting. Which of the
following drugs might alleviate this problem?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Imipramine
C. Tranylcypromine
D. Trazodone
B 281. The neurolepic drug
A. Are equally effective against the positive and
negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
B. Can cause blurred vision, urinary retention and
other
sings of muscarinic blockade
C. Bind selectively to D2-dopaminergic receptors
D. Have antiparkinsonism effects similar to levodopa
B 282. All of the following are observed in patients
taking neuroleptic drugs, except
A. Sexual dysfunction
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Altered endocrine function
D. Constipation
A 283. All of the following statements concerning
methadone are correct except
A. It has less potent analgesic activity than that of
morphine
B. It has a longer duration of action than that of
morphine
C. If is effective by oral administration
D. It causes a milder withdrawal syndrome than
morphine
D 284. Which of the following statements about
pentozocine is incorrect?
A. It is a mixed agonist-antagonist
B. It may be administered orally or parentally
C. It produces less euphoria that morphine.
D. It is often combined with morphine for maximal
analgesic effects
A 285. Which of the following statement about
morphine is incorrect?
A. It is used therapeutically to relieve pain caused by
severe head injury
B. Its withdrawal symptoms can be relieved by
methadone
C. It cause constipation
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D. It is most effective by parenteral administration
A 286. All of the following are useful in treating
complex partial seizure except
A. Ethosuximide
B. Phenobarbital
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenytoin
D 287. For which one of the following drugs is the
therapeutic indication incorrect?
A. Ethosuximide – absence seizure
B. Phenobarbital – febrile seizure in children
C. Diazepam – status epilepticus
D. Primidone – hepatotoxicity
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D 288. Which of the following drug-toxicity pairs is
incorrect?
A. Valproic acid – nausea and vomiting
B. Ethosuximide – steven-johnson syndrome
C. Carbamazepine – bone marrow depression
D. Primidone – hepatotoxicity
C 289. Which of the following drug acts at central
presynaptic alpha-2 receptors?
A. Minoxidil
B. Verapamil
C. Clonidine
D. Enalapril
D 290. Which of the following antihypertensives is
more likely to cause reflex tachycardia?
B 295. Which of the following is the most important
approach in healing peptic ulcers?
A. Coating the ulcer crater
B. Eradicating infection with H. pylori
C. Inhibiting secretion of gastric acid at the proton
pump
D. Blocking receptor activation of gastric acid
secretion
D 296. All of the following are adverse effect
associated
with the used of oral contraceptive agents except
A. Edema
B. Breast tenderness
C. Nausea
D. Increased risk of ovarian cancer

A. Propranolol D 297. Effects of estrogen replacement therapy in

B. Nifedipine menopausal women
C. Prazosin
D. Hydralazine A. Restore bone loss accompanying osteoporosis
B. May induce “hot flashes”
B 291. From the list of antihypertensive drugs below, C. May cause atrophic vaginitis
select the one most likely to lower blood sugar D. Most effective if instituted as the first signs of
menopause
A. Prazosin
B. Propranolol C 298. Progestins
C. Nifedipine A. Are not produced in males
D. Captopril B. Increase HDL and decrease LDL
C. Attenuate the increase risk of endometrial cancer
D 292. Which of the following drugs should not be associated with estrogen-only oral contraceptives
given to a pregnant, hypertensive woman? D. Progesterone is widely used in oral contraceptives.

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A. Hydrochlorothiazide A 299. Which of the following is a synthetic estrogen
B. Propranolol used
C. Alpha-methyldopa in oral contraceptives?
D. Lisinopril
A. Mestranol
A 293. The anticoagulant activity of warfarin can be B. Norgestrol
potentiated by all of the following except C. Clomiphene
D. Estradiol
A. Rifampin
B. Aspirin B 300. All of the following statements about
C. Phenylbutazone methenamine
D. Cimetidine are correct except
A. Used us chronic suppressive therapy of urinary tract
B 294. Which of the following is the most common side infections
effect of antihyperlipidemic drug therapy? B. It has its major antibacterial effect at alkaline pH
C. It is contraindicated in renal insufficiency
A. Elevated blood pressure D. It may cause gastric disturbances
B. Gastrointestinal disturbance
C. Neurological problems 3
D. Heart palpitations
1