SAT* Practice Test #3136

(Verbal Test)

IMPORTANT REMINDERS
1 2

A No. 2 pencil is required for the test. Sharing any questions with anyone
Do not use a mechanical pencil or pen. is a violation of Test Security
and Fairness policies and may result
in your scores being canceled.

This cover is representative of what you’ll see on test day.

THIS TEST BOOK MUST NOT BE TAKEN FROM THE ROOM. UNAUTHORIZED
REPRODUCTION OR USE OF ANY PART OF THIS TEST BOOK IS PROHIBITED.

* SAT is a registered trademark of the College Board. Version 1.0

Blah
Test begins on the next page.

CONTINUE
1
 Reading Test
6 5 M IN UT E S , 5 2 Q UE S T I O N S
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
DIRECTIONS
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following
passage.
This passage is adapted from Agatha Christie, The
Mysterious Affair at Styles, originally published in 1920. The
story is set in England during World War I.
I had been invalided home from the Front; and,
after spending some months in a rather depressing
Convalescent Home, was given a month’s sick leave.
Line Having no near relations or friends, I was trying to
5 make up my mind what to do, when I ran across
John Cavendish. I had seen very little of him for
some years. Indeed, I had never known him particu-
larly well. He was a good fifteen years my senior, for
one thing, though he hardly looked his forty-five
10 years. As a boy, though, I had often stayed at Styles,
his mother’s place in Essex.
We had a good yarn about old times, and it ended
in his inviting me down to Styles to spend my leave
there.
15 “The mater will be delighted to see you again—
after all those years,” he added.
“Your mother keeps well?” I asked.
“Oh, yes. I suppose you know that she has
married again?”
20 I am afraid I showed my surprise rather plainly.
Mrs. Cavendish, who had married John’s father
when he was a widower with two sons, had been a
handsome woman of middle-age as I remembered
her. She certainly could not be a day less than
25 seventy now. I recalled her as an energetic, autocratic
2
personality, somewhat inclined to charitable and
social notoriety, with a fondness for opening bazaars
and playing the Lady Bountiful. She was a most
generous woman, and possessed a considerable
30 fortune of her own.
Their country-place, Styles Court, had been pur-
chased by Mr. Cavendish early in their married life.
He had been completely under his wife’s ascendancy,
so much so that, on dying, he left the place to her for
35 her lifetime, as well as the larger part of his income;
an arrangement that was distinctly unfair to his two
sons. Their step-mother, however, had always been
most generous to them; indeed, they were so young
at the time of their father’s remarriage that they
40 always thought of her as their own mother.
Lawrence, the younger, had been a delicate youth.
He had qualified as a doctor but early relinquished
the profession of medicine, and lived at home while
pursuing literary ambitions; though his verses never
45 had any marked success.
John practiced for some time as a barrister, but
had finally settled down to the more congenial life of
a country squire. He had married two years ago, and
had taken his wife to live at Styles, though I enter-
50 tained a shrewd suspicion that he would have
preferred his mother to increase his allowance,
which would have enabled him to have a home of his
own. However, Mrs. Cavendish was a lady who liked
to make her own plans, and expected other people to
55 fall in with them, and in this case she certainly had
the whip hand, namely: the purse strings.
CONTINUE
 John noticed my surprise at the news of his 2
mother’s remarriage and smiled rather ruefully.
According to the passage, one notable aspect of Mrs.
“Rotten little bounder too!” he said savagely. “I
Cavendish’s character is that she
60 can tell you, Hastings, it’s making life jolly difficult
for us. As for Evie—you remember Evie?” A) was keenly interested in real estate.
“No.” B) appeared younger than she really was.
“Oh, I suppose she was after your time. She’s the C) was prone to making imprudent decisions.
mater’s factotum, companion, Jack of all trades! A
D) usually expected to be in charge.
65 great sport—old Evie! Not precisely young and
beautiful, but as game as they make them.”
“You were going to say—?”
“Oh, this fellow! He turned up from nowhere, on
3
the pretext of being a second cousin or something of
70 Evie’s, though she didn’t seem particularly keen to Which choice provides the best evidence for the
acknowledge the relationship. The fellow is an answer to the previous question?
absolute outsider, anyone can see that. He’s got a A) Lines 21-24 (“Mrs. Cavendish . . . her”)
great black beard, and wears patent leather boots in
B) Lines 31-32 (“Their country-place . . . life”)
all weathers! But the mater cottoned to him at once,
75 took him on as secretary—you know how she’s C) Lines 53-56 (“However, . . . strings”)
always running a hundred societies?” D) Lines 80-82 (“But you . . . engaged!”)
I nodded.
“Well, of course the war has turned the hundreds
into thousands. No doubt the fellow was very useful
80 to her. But you could have knocked us all down with 4
a feather when, three months ago, she suddenly
announced that she and Alfred were engaged! The The narrator’s comments in lines 20-56 can most
fellow must be at least twenty years younger than she accurately be described as
is! It’s simply bare-faced fortune hunting; but there A) a digression that provides background
85 you are—she is her own mistress, and she’s married explaining a reaction.
him.” B) a description of the events that led to his meeting
at Styles.
C) an analysis of the reasons for Mrs. Cavendish’s
1
marriage.
Which choice best summarizes what happens in the D) a commentary on the financial troubles of a
passage? notable family.
A) Two characters reminisce over their shared
childhood experiences in the countryside.
B) One character has a chance meeting with anoth-
er, during which he receives some startling news.
C) Two characters consult with each other about
how to resolve a familial problem.
D) One character reveals the death of a mutual
acquaintance to another character.

CONTINUE
3
5 8
Which choice best supports the claim that the As used in line 58, “ruefully” most nearly means
narrator had not planned the encounter described in A) apologetically.
the passage?
B) villainously.
A) Lines 1-3 (“I had . . . leave”)
C) sheepishly.
B) Lines 4-6 (“Having . . . Cavendish”)
D) bitterly.
C) Lines 8-10 (“He was . . . years”)
D) Lines 12-14 (“We had . . . there”)

9
In describing the man with whom Mrs. Cavendish is
6
remarried, John Cavendish mainly emphasizes his
As used in line 36, “arrangement” most nearly means A) outward friendliness but secretive malevolence.
A) score. B) close relation with Evie and unusual behavior.
B) array. C) attraction to Mrs. Cavendish and dislike of Evie.
C) plan. D) physical appearance and social isolation.
D) form.

10
7
In the final paragraph, John Cavendish’s attitude
The narrator implies that both of Mrs. Cavendish’s toward his step-mother’s remarriage is best
step-children characterized as
A) did not receive any benefits from their father’s A) scornful but financially optimistic.
estate. B) indignant but ultimately acquiescent.
B) possessed ambitions that were more focused on C) mournful and utterly inconsolable.
literary than practical endeavors.
D) resentful but incongruously jovial.
C) did not end up pursuing the career for which
they had initially prepared.
D) had hoped that she would not remarry so that
they would be the sole inheritors of her fortune.

CONTINUE
4
 Questions 11-21 are based on the following
passage and supplementary material.
This passage is adapted from Robert J. Shiller, “Why do
cities become unaffordable?” ©2017 by Project Syndicate.
Inequality is usually measured by comparing
incomes across households within a country. But
there is also a different kind of inequality: in the
Line affordability of homes across cities. The impact of
5 this form of inequality is no less worrying.
In many of the world’s urban centers, homes are
becoming prohibitively expensive for people with
moderate incomes. As a city’s real-estate prices rise,
some inhabitants may feel compelled to leave. Of
10 course, if those inhabitants already own a house
there that they can sell, they may regard the price
increase as a windfall that they can claim by depart-
ing. If not, however, they may be forced out with no
compensation.
15 The consequences are not just economic. People
may be forced out of cities where they have spent
their entire lives. Leaving amounts to losing life-long
connections, and therefore can be traumatic. If too
many life-long inhabitants are driven out by rising
20 housing prices, the city itself suffers from a loss of
identity and even culture.
As such people depart, an expensive city gradual-
ly becomes an enclave of high-income households,
and begins to take on their values. With people of
25 various income levels increasingly divided by
geography, income inequality can worsen and the
risk of social polarization—and even serious con-
flict—can grow.
As this year’s Demographia International Hous-
30 ing Affordability Survey shows, there are already
massive disparities across major cities worldwide, as
measured by the ratio of median home prices to
median household income. A high ratio correlates
with high pressure for people to leave.
35 This year’s survey, which covered 92 cities in nine
countries, showed that as of late 2016, Hong Kong
had the least affordable housing, with a price-to-
income ratio of 18.2. That means that paying off a
30-year mortgage on a median-price home would
40 cost a median-income buyer half of his or her
income—and that is without interest.
5
Mortgage rates are low in Hong Kong, but not
zero, suggesting it is just about impossible for a
median-income household to purchase a home there
45 without access to additional funds from, say, a
parent, or, if the buyer is an immigrant, from abroad.
After Hong Kong, the list continues with Sydney,
Vancouver, Auckland, San Jose, Melbourne, and Los
Angeles. Meanwhile, some attractive world cities are
50 quite affordable, relative to incomes. In New York
City, the median home price stands at 5.7 times
median household income. In Montreal and Singa-
pore, that ratio is 4.8; in Tokyo and Yokohama, it is
4.7; and in Chicago, it is 3.8.
55 Maybe the figures for these outlier cities aren’t
precise. They are hard to check, and there must be
inconsistencies across cities, countries and conti-
nents. For example, the geographical boundaries of
the areas used to compute median price and median
60 rent may vary. In some cities, higher-priced homes
may tend to change hands more rapidly than in
others. And some cities may be inhabited by larger
families, implying bigger houses than in other cities.
But it seems unlikely that the errors could be so
65 significant that they would change the basic conclu-
sion: Home affordability around the world is highly
variable. The question, then, is why residents of
some cities face extremely—even prohibitively—high
prices.
70 In many cases, the answer appears to be related to
barriers to housing construction. Using satellite data
for major US cities, economist Albert Saiz of the
Massachusetts Institute of Technology confirmed
that tighter physical constraints—such as surround-
75 ing bodies of water or land gradients that make
properties unsuitable for extensive building—tend to
correlate with higher home prices.
But the barriers may also be political. A huge
dose of moderate-income housing construction
80 would have a major impact on affordability. But the
existing owners of high-priced homes have little
incentive to support such construction, which would
diminish the value of their own investment. Indeed,
their resistance may be as intractable as a lake’s edge.
85 As a result, municipal governments may be unwill-
ing to grant permits to expand supply.
CONTINUE
 Least Affordable Housing Markets (2017) 13

Housing price Which choice provides the best evidence for the
multiple of local answer to the previous question?
Housing pre-tax household A) Lines 6-8 (“In many . . . incomes”)
Rank Country market income (median)
B) Lines 9-13 (“Of course, . . . departing”)
1 China Hong Kong 18.2
C) Lines 15-17 (“People . . . lives”)
2 Australia Sydney 12.2 D) Lines 18-21 (“If . . . culture”)
3 Canada Vancouver 11.8
4 New Zealand Auckland 10.0
5 U.S. San Jose 9.6 14
6 Australia Melbourne 9.5 As used in line 15, “economic” most nearly means
7 U.S. Honolulu 9.4 A) efficient.
8 U.S. Los Angeles 9.3 B) practical.
9 U.S. San Francisco 9.1 C) valuable.
D) monetary.
* Source: Demographia

11
15
The main purpose of the passage is to
Which choice best describes the main function of the
A) outline the elements of a societal problem. ninth paragraph (lines 55-63)?
B) explain the source of social inequality. A) It explains the methods used in Demographia
C) enumerate solutions for expensive housing. International’s housing survey.
D) point out the group responsible for high housing B) It highlights the links between rising real estate
prices. prices and larger families.
C) It acknowledges factors that complicate the
author’s primary analysis.
D) It criticizes the carelessness of researchers
12
investigating rising housing costs.
According to the passage, what is one effect that
rising real-estate prices have?
A) They have driven recent arrivals out of the areas
in the greatest demand.
B) They have made housing unaffordable even for
those with high incomes.
C) They provide a financial benefit to certain
members of the population.
D) They lead to the erosion of cultural identity
among those in suburban areas.

CONTINUE
6
16
Based on the passage, it can most reasonably be
inferred that
A) people who live in areas affected by high housing
prices generally prefer to move to other cities
rather than suburban areas.
B) the researchers who conducted Demographia
International’s housing survey were unaware of
the errors in their methodology.
C) satellites are capable of an image resolution that
is sufficiently detailed to identify circumstances
limiting housing.
D) the interest payments on a 30-year mortgage
often amount to more than the value of the
home itself.
17
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 6-8 (“In many . . . incomes”)
B) Lines 38-41 (“That . . . interest”)
C) Lines 64-67 (“But . . . variable”)
D) Lines 71-77 (“Using . . . prices”)
18
As used in line 71, “barriers” most nearly means
A) fortifications.
B) enclosures.
C) obstacles.
D) gates.
7
19
The statement in lines 83-85 (“Indeed, . . . edge”)
serves to
A) identify the primary cause of escalating housing
prices in most real estate markets.
B) express the formidability of a challenge by com-
paring it to one that was previously mentioned.
C) demonstrate the harmful effects of the housing
supply’s encroachment on lake environments.
D) denounce governments that fail to account for
the role of geography in the housing market.
20
According to the data in the table, which city in the
U.S. is the least affordable?
A) Hong Kong
B) San Francisco
C) San Jose
D) Honolulu
21
Assuming the conditions implied in lines 38-41
apply to all hypothetical buyers, the data in the table
suggest that a median-income home buyer purchas-
ing a median-priced home in San Francisco
A) would be subject to lower interest rates than the
buyer in the Hong Kong market.
B) would be able to pay off the mortgage in
approximately half the time as the buyer in Hong
Kong.
C) would be more likely to be buying a detached
home than an apartment, which most Hong
Kong homeowners purchase.
D) would have less income available for mortgage
payments than the home buyer in Hong Kong.
CONTINUE
 Questions 22-31 are based on the following
passage.
This passage is adapted from William James, Pragmatism:
A New Name for Some Old Ways of Thinking, originally
published in 1901.
In the preface to that admirable collection of es-
says of his called ‘Heretics,’ Mr. Chesterton writes
these words: “There are some people—and I am one
Line of them—who think that the most practical and
5 important thing about a man is still his view of the
universe. We think that for a landlady considering a
lodger, it is important to know his income, but still
more important to know his philosophy. We think
that for a general about to fight an enemy, it is
10 important to know the enemy’s numbers, but still
more important to know the enemy’s philosophy.
We think the question is not whether the theory of
the cosmos affects matters, but whether, in the long
run, anything else affects them.”
15 I think with Mr. Chesterton in this matter. I
know that you, ladies and gentlemen, have a philos-
ophy, each and all of you, and that the most
interesting and important thing about you is the way
in which it determines the perspective in your
20 several worlds. You know the same of me. And yet I
confess to a certain tremor at the audacity of the
enterprise which I am about to begin. For the
philosophy which is so important in each of us is not
a technical matter; it is our more or less dumb sense
25 of what life honestly and deeply means. It is only
partly got from books; it is our individual way of just
seeing and feeling the total push and pressure of the
cosmos. I have no right to assume that many of you
are students of the cosmos in the class-room sense,
30 yet here I stand desirous of interesting you in a
philosophy which to no small extent has to be
technically treated. I wish to fill you with sympathy
with a contemporaneous tendency in which I
profoundly believe, and yet I have to talk like a
35 professor to you who are not students. Whatever
universe a professor believes in must at any rate be a
universe that lends itself to lengthy discourse. A
universe definable in two sentences is something for
which the professorial intellect has no use. No faith
40 in anything of that cheap kind! I have heard friends
and colleagues try to popularize philosophy in this
very hall, but they soon grew dry, and then technical,
and the results were only partially encouraging. So
my enterprise is a bold one.
8
45 I risk it because the very lectures I speak of
drew—they brought good audiences. There is, it
must be confessed, a curious fascination in hearing
deep things talked about, even though neither we nor
the disputants understand them. We get the prob-
50 lematic thrill, we feel the presence of the vastness. Let
a controversy begin in a smoking-room anywhere,
about free-will or God’s omniscience, or good and
evil, and see how everyone in the place pricks up his
ears. Philosophy’s results concern us all most vitally,
55 and philosophy’s queerest arguments tickle agreeably
our sense of subtlety and ingenuity.
Believing in philosophy myself devoutly, and
believing also that a kind of new dawn is breaking
upon us philosophers, I feel impelled . . . to try to
60 impart to you some news of the situation.
Philosophy is at once the most sublime and the
most trivial of human pursuits. It works in the
minutest crannies and it opens out the widest vistas.
It ‘bakes no bread,’ as has been said, but it can
65 inspire our souls with courage; and repugnant as its
manners, its doubting and challenging, its quibbling
and dialectics, often are to common people, no one
of us can get along without the far-flashing beams of
light it sends over the world’s perspectives. These
70 illuminations at least, and the contrast-effects of
darkness and mystery that accompany them, give to
what it says an interest that is much more than
professional.
22
The central claim of the passage is that
A) philosophical understanding occupies an
important place in everyone’s lives.
B) philosophical investigation can often lead to
contradictory conclusions.
C) the lives of professional philosophers do not
serve as useful examples to non-professionals.
D) the philosophical point of view is not easy to
convey in a public setting.
CONTINUE
23 26
The quote from Chesterton in lines 3-14 (“There . . . Based on the passage, it can most reasonably be
them”) presents a contrast between inferred that James believes
A) financial worth and numerical force. A) an explanation of the nature of the world that is
B) particular facts and broad perspective. brief to be unsatisfactory.
C) philosophical view and cosmic theory. B) his previous lectures on philosophy to have been
risky but ultimately successful.
D) personal circumstance and military might.
C) many in his audience to have prior experience as
students of philosophy.
D) attempts at popularizing philosophy to be
24 inherently futile endeavors.
In lines 15-20 (“I think . . . me”), James primarily
emphasizes philosophy’s
A) utility. 27
B) dynamism.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
C) universality. answer to the previous question?
D) complexity. A) Lines 28-32 (“I have . . . treated”)
B) Lines 35-37 (“Whatever . . . discourse”)
C) Lines 40-43 (“I have . . . encouraging”)
25 D) Lines 45-46 (“I risk . . . audiences”)
As used in line 27, the phrase “push and pressure”
most nearly means
A) thrust. 28
B) burden.
Which choice best demonstrates that James is
C) influence. concerned about the manner in which he addresses
D) propulsion. his audience?
A) Lines 22-25 (“For . . . means”)
B) Lines 32-35 (“I wish . . . students”)
C) Lines 46-49 (“There is . . . them”)
D) Lines 69-73 (“These . . . professional”)

CONTINUE
9
29
As used in line 50, “vastness” most nearly means
A) breadth of skills.
B) magnitude of sympathy.
C) immensity of existence.
D) enormity of proportions.
30
It is most likely that James uses the phrase “bakes no
bread” (line 64) in order to
A) suggest philosophy’s lack of immediate practical
value.
B) highlight a discrepancy within a metaphor.
C) identify the source of philosophical confusion.
D) acknowledge philosophy’s relation to food
preparation.
31
Which choice best describes the primary function of
the final paragraph of the passage?
A) It explains the conclusions that James has
reached in his philosophical research.
B) It highlights the benefits of adopting a pragmatic
philosophical approach.
C) It identifies the unintended drawbacks
experienced by those who study philosophy.
D) It summarizes what James argues are the main
attractions of philosophical inquiry.
10
Questions 32-41 are based on the following
passages.
Passage 1 is from Paul Krugman, “A Failed Mission.” ©2003
by The New York Times. Passage 2 is from Jared Keller,
“Why Space Exploration Is a Job for Humans.” ©2012 by The
Atlantic.
Passage 1
Some commentators have suggested that the
Columbia disaster* is more than a setback—that it
marks the end of the whole space shuttle program.
Line Let’s hope they’re right.
5 I say this with regret. Like millions of other
Americans, I dream of a day when humanity ex-
pands beyond Earth, and I’m still a sucker for well-
told space travel stories. I also understand that many
people feel we shouldn’t retreat in the face of
10 adversity. But the shuttle program didn’t suddenly
go wrong last weekend; in terms of its original
mission, it was a failure from the get-go. Indeed,
manned space flight in general has turned out to be a
bust.
15 The key word here is ‘‘manned.’’ Space flight has
been a huge boon to mankind. It has advanced the
cause of science: for example, cosmology, and with it
our understanding of basic physics, has made huge
strides through space-based observation. Space flight
20 has also done a lot to improve life here on Earth, as
space-based systems help us track storms, communi-
cate with one another, even find out where we are.
Yet almost all the payoff from space travel, scien-
tific and practical, has come from unmanned
25 vehicles and satellites. Yes, astronauts fitted the
Hubble telescope with new eyeglasses; but that aside,
we have basically sent people into space to show that
we can.
In space, you see, people are a nuisance. They’re
30 heavy; they need to breathe; trickiest of all, as we
have so tragically learned, they need to get back to
Earth.
One result is that manned space travel is extreme-
ly expensive. The space shuttle was supposed to
35 bring those costs down, by making the vehicles
reusable—hence the deliberately unglamorous name,
suggesting a utilitarian bus that takes astronauts back
and forth. But the shuttle never delivered significant
cost savings—nor could it really have been expected
40 to. Manned space travel will remain prohibitively
expensive until there is a breakthrough in propul-
sion—until chemical rockets are replaced with
something better.
CONTINUE
 Passage 2
When the Space Shuttle Atlantis rolled to a stop
45 in July 2011, NASA bid farewell to the nation’s
symbol of manned spaceflight. The White House has
scrapped NASA’s plan to return humans to the
Moon by 2020, which was behind schedule because
of technical and budgetary problems. As financial
50 constraints threaten the possibility of future ventures
into outer space, many in the astronomical commu-
nity are advocating for the increased use of
unmanned robotic space, arguing that they will serve
as more efficient explorers of planetary surfaces than
55 astronauts.
Dr. Ian A. Crawford thinks it should be other-
wise. A professor of planetary sciences, Crawford
makes the case for human space exploration in a new
paper entitled “Dispelling the myth of robotic
60 efficiency.” If the goal of space travel is to expand
our knowledge of the universe, argues Dr. Crawford,
exploration will be most effective when carried out
by astronauts rather than robots on the surface of a
planet.
65 At the core of Crawford’s argument is that hu-
man beings are much better at performing the type
of geological fieldwork that makes planetary explora-
tion scientifically valuable: they’re faster and
significantly more versatile than even the most
70 advanced autonomous probes. “People who argue
for robotic exploration argue for more artificial
intelligence, the capacity for robots to make more
complex decisions that somehow leads to increased
efficiency,” explains Crawford. “But one of the things
75 that make them cheap is miniaturization. You can
make robots more intelligent and efficient to a
certain point, but they won’t get smaller and there-
fore cheaper.” With miniaturization, he explains,
comes a depletion in the number of scientific
80 instruments a probe can carry, the number of
samples it can collect, and its ability to cover more
ground. “[Mars rovers] Spirit and Opportunity are
fantastic things on Mars, but the fact that they’ve
traveled as far in eight years as the Apollo astronauts
85 traveled in three days speaks volumes.” At a certain
point, the costs of developing ‘smarter’ (but not
better equipped) autonomous rovers will exceed the
meager gains in scientific collection and outstrip
existing scientific budgets.
* On February 1, 2003, the Space Shuttle Columbia disintegrated on
reentering Earth’s atmosphere, killing all seven crew members.
11
32
Which statement best describes the relationship
between the passages?
A) Passage 2 offers an economic argument for
continuing the shuttle program that Passage 1
rejects on principled grounds.
B) Passage 1 argues for abandoning a project that
Passage 2 believes is worth maintaining.
C) Passage 2 suggests that the benefits of manned
space flight are less than the costs mentioned in
Passage 1.
D) Passage 1 advocates a change to a program in
order to increase its safety, which Passage 2
regards as unnecessary.
33
The second paragraph of Passage 1 (lines 5-14)
primarily serves to
A) provide examples demonstrating the failures of
the shuttle program.
B) identify the primary causal factors that led to the
Columbia shuttle disaster.
C) express the author’s ambivalence about the
prospect of ending the shuttle program.
D) demonstrate the superiority of robots and
vehicles in conducting missions into space.
34
According to the author of Passage 1, a development
that is necessary for manned space flight to become
worth pursuing is
A) a new system for managing the weight of
astronauts.
B) the inducement of new spin-off technologies
from space flight.
C) a revolutionary method for launching them into
orbit.
D) a mission to replace parts on the Hubble
telescope.
CONTINUE
35
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 19-22 (“Space flight . . . are”)
B) Lines 25-28 (“Yes, . . . can”)
C) Lines 29-32 (“They’re . . . Earth”)
D) Lines 40-43 (“Manned . . . better”)
36
As used in line 19, “strides” most nearly means
A) flights.
B) gains.
C) speeds.
40
D) motions.
37
As used in line 47, “scrapped” most nearly means
A) combatted.
B) shredded.
C) expelled.
D) cancelled.
38
The author of Passage 2 cites the research of Ian
Crawford primarily in order to
A) illustrate the complexity of a phenomenon.
41
B) exemplify a view contradicting the author’s main
point.
C) critique proposals for more manned space flight.
D) provide a counterpoint to a popular view.
39
According to Passage 2, the importance of manned
space flight
A) does not amount to a sufficient benefit to justify
the extraordinary costs of carrying it out.
B) is illustrated by the discrepancy in the speed of
progress between previous manned and robotic
missions.
C) will remain uncontested until miniaturization
ultimately renders manned space flight obsolete.
D) is primarily established by the symbolic value of
seeing our actual fellow human beings traveling
into space.
The author of Passage 1 would most likely respond
to the summary of Crawford’s argument in lines 65-
70 by saying that
A) miniaturization is a powerful technological force
that lead to the replacement of humans with
robots.
B) the enormous costs of sending humans into
space are outweighed by the variety of benefits
provided by doing so.
C) the benefits cited by Crawford do not outweigh
the immense costs of sending and maintaining
people in space.
D) the explanations offered to justify manned space
flight are based entirely on exaggeration.
Which choice would provide the most relevant and
specific support for a rebuttal to the claim of the
author of Passage 1 in lines 23-25?
A) Lines 46-49 (“The White House . . . problems”)
B) Lines 49-55 (“As financial . . . astronauts”)
C) Lines 60-64 (“If the goal . . . planet”)
D) Lines 85-89 (“At a certain . . . budget”)

CONTINUE
12
 Questions 42-52 are based on the following
passages and supplementary material.
This passage is adapted from Carmen Martínez Torrón,
“Cancer: the sugar link.” ©2018 by Cosmos.
Cancer cells are addicts and, thanks to new re-
search, we are now a step closer to preventing them
getting their next fix and even, potentially, stopping
Line them in their tracks.
5 It has long been known that rapidly dividing tu-
mor cells have a prodigious appetite for sugar, in the
form of glucose, to fuel their runaway growth. That
predilection has been exploited to detect tumors,
which preferentially take up a radio-labelled glucose
10 analogue that lights up on a nuclear scan.
The logical next step is a tantalizing one: starve
the tumor cells of glucose and you might just bring
the big C to its knees.
Not so fast. While glucose is targeted in some
15 cancer treatments, healthy cells also use it as fuel,
and so a blanket approach of glucose deprivation can
hurt them, too. Hence the search for a selective
means of robbing cancer cells of their precious
nutrient.
20 Research led by Koji Itahana, from the Cancer
and Stem Cell Biology Program at Duke-NUS
Medical School in Singapore, published in Science
Signaling, offers up two promising new targets for
that endeavor.
25 Leveraging the fact that some cancers are more
sensitive to glucose denial than others, the team
isolated a line of cancer cells that succumbed to
glucose starvation within just 10 hours. Switching
focus to their more robust counterparts, they found
30 cells able to resist the enforced famine maintained
higher levels of intracellular glucose.
The researchers showed, for the first time, those
tiny amounts of glucose had a signaling function
which prevented calcium influx and a cascade of
35 molecular changes culminating in cell death.
Both types of cells were then subjected to a two-
pronged attack with STF-31, a compound that
inhibits glucose transport into cells, and thapsigar-
gin, which ramps up the level of calcium in cells.
40 Cells that had that extra glucose in the tank shrugged
off the assault, while those that held more meagre
reserves went to the wall.
Picking off those relatively depleted tumor cells
could, the researchers say, be a winning strategy.
13
45 “Because these phenomena are not seen in nor-
mal/healthy cells, this inability of some tumors to
maintain intracellular glucose levels could be an
unappreciated Achilles’ heel that might be therapeu-
tically targeted,” they write.
50 “A molecular signature of cancers with reduced
ability to maintain intracellular glucose would help
develop that strategy for clinical application.”
Sugar is also fingered as a cancer co-conspirator
in separate research published in the Journal of
55 Biological Chemistry.
A team led by Hans Wandall, from the Depart-
ment of Cellular and Molecular Medicine at the
University of Copenhagen, has found that an enzyme
responsible for attaching sugar to proteins in colon
60 cells is overactive in gut cancer.
The findings suggest that when the enzyme,
called GalNAc-T6, attaches sugars called glycans to
bowel cells, it promotes cell adhesion and the
formation of tubular structures characteristic of
65 bowel cancer. That process, say the researchers, helps
refine another target for cancer treatment.
“Glycans add an additional context layer that
could help us create more specific interventions,”
says Wandall.
70 These findings might prompt some to wonder if a
low sugar “ketogenic” diet could help in cancer.
Australian experts have stressed that healthy cells
are also starved of sugar, unhelpful for a body
fighting disease, and that wily cancer cells will just
75 break down fats to make sugar anyway.
Nonetheless, studies have investigated ketogenic
diet—that is, one that eliminates nearly all sugars
and other carbohydrates—as an adjuvant treatment
in a range of cancers, including ovarian, breast,
80 stomach, brain and lung. The results, however, are
not encouraging.
A recent review lamented that studies of limited
number, with less than rigorous design, “contribute
to a poor overall quality of evidence and limit the
85 ability to draw evidence-based conclusions.”
CONTINUE
 Figure 1 42
Risk of Selected Cancers in Men The central purpose of the passage is to
in Relation to Glucose Level
A) suggest a protocol for the treatment of cancer
2.00 using glucose based solutions.
1.75 B) discuss the implications of a cancer’s reliance on
a certain molecule for its treatment.
C) analyze the effectiveness of alternative forms of
Risk of cancer

1.50
cancer treatment.
1.25 D) describe the prospects of a specific line of
research for the treatment of bowel cancer.
1.00

0.75
43
0.50
<90 90-109 110-125 126-139 >139 As used in line 6, “prodigious” most nearly means
Fasting glucose level (mg/dL) A) grotesque.
B) tremendous.
Pancreas Liver Colo-rectal All cancers C) elaborate.
D) portentous.

Figure 2
Risk of Selected Cancers in Women 44
in Relation to Glucose Level
The author suggests that a procedure used to deprive
2.25
cancer cells of glucose by lowering the general level
2.00 of glucose in the body
A) would be less effective than a treatment that
1.75 directly targeted the removal of calcium.
Risk of cancer

1.50 B) requires the use of radio-labeled glucose

molecules that are tracked by scanning devices.
1.25 C) becomes more effective when it is coupled with
1.00 more traditional chemical treatments for cancer.
D) would not be as attractive as recent research
0.75 seems to suggest due to its side-effects.
0.50
<90 90-109 110-125 >125
Fasting glucose level (mg/dL)

Pancreas Liver Colo-rectal All cancers

CONTINUE
14
45
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 7-10 (“That predilection . . . scan”)
B) Lines 14-17 (“While glucose . . . too”)
C) Lines 32-35 (“The researchers . . . death”)
D) Lines 36-39 (“Both types . . . cells”)
46 49
The author’s statement in lines 40-42 (“Cells . . .
wall”) is notable for its
A) atypical usage of medical jargon in a way that
makes it easier for the audience to comprehend.
B) employment of specific numerical results in
order to establish a persuasive effect.
C) metaphorical description of a specific treatment
in a manner that suggests combative struggle.
D) juxtaposition of results from a medical study and 50
the interpretations of that study’s authors.
47
According to the passage, what is a type of sugar that
is believed to be involved in stimulating the
development of some cancers?
A) STF-31
B) glycans
C) thapsigargin
D) GalNAc-T6
15
48
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 32-35 (“The researchers . . . death”)
B) Lines 36-39 (“Both types . . . cells”)
C) Lines 61-65 (“The findings . . . cancer”)
D) Lines 67-69 (“Glycans add . . . Wandall”)
As used in line 70, “prompt” most nearly means
A) induce.
B) remind.
C) prescribe.
D) quicken.
The final paragraph of the passage primarily serves
to
A) stress the lack of conclusiveness in a certain
avenue of research.
B) emphasize the significance of a particular study’s
findings.
C) express skepticism about the relationship
between glucose and cancer.
D) criticize the failure of scientists to adopt
appropriate research methods.
CONTINUE
51 52
According to the data in the figures, a woman is at Which idea from the passage is supported by the
greater risk for colo-rectal cancer than liver cancer data in the figures?
when she has a blood glucose level A) Targeting glucose for removal is effective in
A) between 90 and 125 mg/dL. killing some kinds of cancer.
B) between 90 and 109 mg/dL. B) Ketogenic diets have successfully lowered blood
C) between 90 and 109 mg/dL or over 125 mg/dL. glucose levels in cancer patients.
D) over 139 mg/dL. C) Cancer of the pancreas is most sensitive to
heightened levels of blood glucose.
D) Some types of cancer are stimulated by a greater
availability of glucose.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

CONTINUE
16
No Test Material On This Page

CONTINUE
17
 Writing and Language Test
3 5 M IN UT E S , 4 4 Q UE S T I O N S
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by
one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising
and editing decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. 1

A) NO CHANGE
B) bellow
Scientists Listen to Song of the Sun
C) peep
To most of us, the sun seems to dangle in space si- D) grunt
lently, without making so much as a 1 roar.
Nevertheless, “the sun is a very noisy place,” said Scott
2
McIntosh of the National Science Foundation-supported
A) NO CHANGE
National Center for Atmospheric Research. B) which is
What does the sun sound like? As best as we can tell, C) being
D) DELETE the underlined portion
the sun sounds like a low hum 2 and is punctuated by
frequent rhythmic, low-frequency thumps.

CONTINUE
18
 How does the sun generate its sound? 3 The sun’s
core is composed of compressed gases. It contains a giant
nuclear fusion factory. Hydrogen is pressed into helium
at temperatures of about 15,000,000° Celsius. The energy
of this nuclear fusion factory generates convection that
reaches all the way to the sun’s surface. The boiling
motion of the gas changes the light waves emitted by the
surface of the sun.
Scientists measure the changing light waves using an
instrument called a dopplergraph that 4 mounted on a
spacecraft called the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory
(SOHO). The measured light changes are translated into
motion (sound) waves by computer models that capture
the relationships between light waves and sound waves.
5 4
5
19
3
Which choice most effectively combines the
underlined sentences?
A) The sun’s core contains a giant nuclear fusion
factory and compressed gases; that is why hy-
drogen is pressed into helium at temperatures of
about 15,000,000° Celsius.
B) Composed of compressed gases, the sun’s core
contains a giant nuclear fusion factory where
hydrogen is pressed into helium at temperatures
of about 15,000,000° Celsius.
C) The sun’s core is composed of compressed gases
that contain a giant nuclear fusion factory, and
that is how hydrogen is pressed into helium at
temperatures of about 15,000,000° Celsius.
D) Gassy in its compressed composition, the sun
has a core containing a giant nuclear fusion fac-
tory for hydrogen to be pressed into helium at
temperatures of about 15,000,000° Celsius.
A) NO CHANGE
B) is mounted
C) has mounted
D) would be mounted
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
However, these sound waves are often too low-
frequency for the human ear to hear.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it provides a smooth transition into
the main point of the following paragraph.
B) Yes, because it includes an example for readers
to more easily understand the writer’s point.
C) No, because it unnecessarily repeats information
that forms part of the topic of the next paragraph.
D) No, because it presents a detail that is irrelevant
to the main purpose of the passage.
CONTINUE
 Because these sound waves are at a frequency too low 6

to be heard by humans, the signals are sped up to A) NO CHANGE

B) waves to include
become audible. The result is an inferred composite of
C) waves included by
solar sound 6 waves that includes “all kinds of D) waves, which they include
frequencies,” McIntosh said. The sun’s serenade can only
be inferred—rather than directly heard—because there is
7
no air in the 93 million miles of space between the Earth
Which choice most logically completes the writer’s
and sun. And since sound cannot travel through a explanation?
vacuum, 7 signals from the sun cannot be analyzed as A) NO CHANGE
B) atmosphere is absent in the vastness of space.
sound.
C) the sun cannot be directly heard from Earth.
McIntosh compares the multi-frequency song of the D) sound waves are not conducted through the air.
sun to the ringing of cathedral bells that each hit differ-
ent notes. Just as cathedral bells get louder and chime out
8
certain pitches when certain bells are simultaneously
A) NO CHANGE
rung, the sun belts out rhythmic bass thumps over its B) overpower
background hum when certain frequencies 8 undercut C) underlie
D) overlap
one another.

CONTINUE
20
 The relatively recent discovery and understanding of 9

the sun’s waves are enabling scientists to, for the first A) NO CHANGE
B) Where?
time, go under the surface and actually “see” inside the
C) What?
sun. 9 Why? With the help of the dopplergraph, D) How?
which is used to track the time taken by certain waves to
travel through the sun and back. Dopplergraphs are
10
similar in this way to 10 seismographs, which are used
A) NO CHANGE
to track waves of energy traveling below and along the B) seismographs that are used
Earth’s surface. From the dopplergraph measurements, C) seismographs used
D) seismographs and are used
scientists can deduce the temperature, chemical
11 composition, and motions of gases from just below

the sun’s surface to close to its core. This technique is 11

also being used to investigate the surfaces and interiors A) NO CHANGE
of other stars besides the sun. B) composition and motions of gases, from just be-
low the sun’s surface
C) composition and motions of gases from just be-
low the sun’s surface,
D) composition, and motions of gases from just be-
low the sun’s surface,

CONTINUE
21
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage. 12
Which choice provides the most logical introduction
to this sentence?
The Path to Hotel Management A) NO CHANGE
How hard could it be to run a hotel? It’s all just fold- B) Because many guests make unusual requests for
services that we do not normally provide,
ing towels and changing the sheets, right? 12 If you C) When you scale that up to include hundreds of
have ever actually experienced the challenges involved in rooms with guests coming and going every day
of the week,
folding towels and changing sheets, the management of D) Since many people make such dismissive
resources—both the workforce and the linens—can assumptions about the difficult nature of hotel
management,
become quite chaotic. There are a variety of important
roles to be filled in successfully managing a hotel.
A hotel general manager oversees all aspects of the 13
A) NO CHANGE
operation of a hotel. This includes housekeeping,
B) such as services
customer service, human resources, and financial C) services, such as:
management. At some facilities this position may also D) such as, services,
involve managing 13 such services as catering, restau-
rant operations, and special events. 14 Specifically, a
14
hotel manager might move up from any of these de-
A) NO CHANGE
partmental management roles. In addition to a solid B) Accordingly,
background in hotel management, a degree in a related C) Conversely,
D) Subsequently,
field such as hospitality management is most often
required.

CONTINUE
22
 Large hotels get lots of their revenue from special 15

events such as business meetings, conferences, and A) NO CHANGE

weddings. As a sales and marketing manager, one is
responsible for finding and serving these clients and also
for advertising and strategizing to attract travelers to
15 their facility. This experience offers a strong back-
16
ground for promotion to the position of hotel general
manager.
Front desk supervisors oversee the management of
the front desk of the hotel, as the name suggests. 16
The front desk supervisor’s job involves handling
customer complaints, guest reservations, and room
assignments. Responsibilities such as staff scheduling,
hiring, and training may also be in the job description.
Because of this background managing the hotel’s daily
affairs, the front desk supervisory job is also a good 17
investment in a career as hotel general manager.
B) your
C) one’s
D) his or her
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
The front desk supervisor manages work on the
front lines and is therefore the manager that
ordinary guests are most likely to interact with.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it helps to add relevant descriptive
detail to the main topic of this paragraph.
B) Yes, because it provides an example that clarifies
the writer’s claim in the previous sentence.
C) No, because it fails to provide a contrast that is
implied to be necessary in the previous sentence.
D) No, because it differs substantially from the style
employed by the writer elsewhere in the passage.

17
A) NO CHANGE
B) companion for
C) achievement in
D) steppingstone to

CONTINUE
23
 Housekeeping managers ensure the hotel is clean and 18

well maintained. Charged with keeping up the hotel’s A) NO CHANGE

B) it is necessary for them to oversee
image, 18 there is a need for them to oversee schedul-
C) these managers’ oversight is necessary for
ing and training of cleaning staff, establish standards and D) these managers may need to oversee
policies for the department, maintain cleaning supplies
and inventory, and assign work duties. Additionally, they
19
may be responsible for facility repairs, buying new
A) NO CHANGE
furnishings, maintaining departmental budgets, and B) them
handling work contracts. These managers also work very C) housekeeping managers
D) the position
closely with other department heads, making 19 it good
training and preparation to become a hotel general
manager.

CONTINUE
24
 [1] Food and restaurant managers learn and develop 20

numerous skills that can be transferred to a job as hotel A) NO CHANGE

B) staff scheduling, and most, important,
general manager. [2] Many upscale hotels and chains
C) staff scheduling, and, most important,
provide banquet and catering services. [3] And of course, D) staff scheduling and most important
most hotels offer room service, but food and restaurant
managers have more responsibilities than just the food
21
itself. [4] Finally, there are the food and restaurant
Which choice provides an ordering for the sentences
managers. [5] These include human resources manage- in this paragraph that is most logical and most con-
sistent with the rest of the passage?
ment, budgeting, inventory control, 20 staff scheduling,
A) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
and, most important customer service. 21 B) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
Though there are several paths that lead to the posi- C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
tion of hotel general manager, those who have stepped
into the position will require the same managerial skills
that are crucial in any business. 22 An expressive hotel 22
general managers knows how to maintain effective A) NO CHANGE
B) A competent
communication with staff so that he or she is aware of
C) An intellectual
everything from customer complaints to the supply of D) A handy
mints for customers’ pillows.

CONTINUE
25
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage 23
and supplementary material. A) NO CHANGE
B) on viewing streaming services.
C) viewing streaming services.
Should You Cut the Cord?
D) they’re streaming services.
The long-prognosticated death of TV may be hap-
pening before our eyes—but at a glacial pace. A new in-
depth report from tracking firm Nielsen shows that TV 24

is still by far America’s favorite entertainment pastime, A) NO CHANGE

B) Whatever the case,
but individuals are spending more hours surfing the web C) What is more,
and 23 to view streaming services. 24 That is to say, a D) Be that as it may,
growing number of households are choosing to dump
TV altogether.

CONTINUE
26
 The number of households that 25 describe them- 25

selves as “broadband only” have risen to about 2.6 A) NO CHANGE

B) describe themselves as “broadband only” has
million, meaning they don’t subscribe to cable or pick up
C) describes themselves as “broadband only” have
a broadcast signal, according to Nielsen’s Total Audience D) describes themselves as “broadband only” has
Report. That figure comprises about 2.8% of total U.S.
households and is more than double the 1.1% of house-
26
holds that were broadband only last year. At the same
A) NO CHANGE
time, overall viewing of traditional TV is continuing its B) deduction
slow 26 diminution. The average person watched about C) subdual
D) markdown
141 hours of live television per month in the third
quarter of 2014, compared to 147 hours in the third
quarter of 2013. On a daily basis, viewers are watching 12 27
minutes less TV than they were a year ago. Overall, Which choice most accurately and effectively
represents the information in the graph?
27 the precipitous declines in weekly time spent
A) NO CHANGE
watching TV have accelerated year over year for all B) aside from the oldest demographic measured in
the study, TV viewing has plunged since 2013,
television viewers.
especially among younger viewers.
C) the number of people who have stopped
Change in Weekly Time Watching TV (%) watching TV altogether, switching to broadband
internet streaming, has risen dramatically.
2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 D) weekly TV viewing time has fallen consistently
each year since 2012 among all age brackets, save
0% for those aged 18 to 24.
−5%
−10%
−15%
−20%
−25%
−30%

Ages 18 to 24 Ages 25 to 34
Ages 35 to 49 Ages 50 to 64

CONTINUE
27
 28 Not surprisingly, streaming services like Netflix 28

have benefitted 29 to the decline of traditional TV A) NO CHANGE

B) Unfortunately,
viewing. Forty percent of households now subscribe to a
C) Alternatively,
subscription video on demand service such as Netflix or D) Previously,
Amazon Prime Instant Video, up from 35% in 2013.
Thirteen percent of households now have a multimedia
29
device like an Apple TV that enables them to stream
A) NO CHANGE
such content. 30 Viewers can also use their Apple TVs B) from the decline in
to tune into their regular television broadcasts via an C) to the decline in
D) with the decline of
antenna input. On computers, viewing of online video
increased by about 4 hours per month year-over-year to
10 hours and 42 minutes. 30
Which choice provides a claim that is most similar in
its effect to the one in the previous sentence?
A) NO CHANGE
B) Such devices have also entered the workplace,
where they are used in animated presentations.
C) The types of programs that viewers choose to
stream depends on whether they use Apple TV.
D) The same percentage of households have smart
TVs, which natively stream apps like Netflix.

CONTINUE
28
 More viewers are also using DVRs or video on- 31

demand services offered by 31 its cable provider to A) NO CHANGE

B) their cable provider to watch TV after its
watch TV after its live airing. Viewers spent 14 hours
C) their cable provider to watch TV after their
and 20 minutes per month watching so-called time- D) its cable provider to watch TV after their
shifted TV during the most recent quarter, up from 13
hours and 12 minutes a year ago.
32
Despite some clear trends, one should 32 observe
A) NO CHANGE
these vicissitudes in one’s mind and recognize that TV B) grasp that change is fundamental
isn’t going anywhere anytime soon. Overall, viewers C) come to grips with this revolution
D) keep these shifts in perspective
spend about 14 and a half hours watching video on their
phones, computers, and multimedia devices, or about a
tenth of the time they spend watching TV. But with the 33
TV network CBS launching an online version of its A) NO CHANGE
channel and HBO prepping a cable-free version of HBO B) that these trends will likely continue
C) these trends will likely continue
Go for some time next year, 33 in which these trends
D) these trends likely continuing
will likely continue to accelerate.

CONTINUE
29
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.
The Jazz Man, Duke Ellington
34 On more than one occasion Duke Ellington de-
scribed his childhood in Washington, D.C., as a sort of
paradise, at least for him and those around him in the
family circle.
Ellington’s mother Daisy was a high school graduate
of strong religious convictions who played piano and
insisted that he take piano lessons. Daisy ran her house-
hold along lines of Victorian propriety, considered
lipstick unacceptable, and 35 the blues met with her
disapproval. She was the object of Ellington’s lifelong
devotion. She had imparted to him the sense of a special
destiny, often repeating, as recounted in his autobiog-
raphy Music Is My Mistress: “Edward, you are blessed.
You don’t have anything to worry about. Edward, you
are blessed!” 36
30
34
The writer would like to add a sentence at this point
introducing the passage as a whole while transition-
ing smoothly to the following sentence. Which
choice best accomplishes this goal?
A) One of the greatest jazz band leaders of the last
century, Duke Ellington began his musical
journey in the streets of our nation’s capital.
B) Part of our nation’s legacy of innovation, jazz is a
musical genre that springs from America’s roots.
C) Duke Ellington was born on April 29, 1899 in
Washington, D.C. and died on May 24, 1974 in
New York City.
D) Musical genius is not something that you are
born with but rather something that develops
over the course of a rich life.
35
A) NO CHANGE
B) disapproved of the blues.
C) held the blues in disapproval.
D) disapproved the blues.
36
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
Ellington’s mother knew from an early age that he
had creative gifts, though where they might lead
him was not initially clear.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it logically bridges the ending of
this paragraph to the beginning of the next one.
B) Yes, because it provides an example to clarify the
meaning of the quotation in the previous
sentence.
C) No, because it narrows the focus onto a topic
that is inconsistent with the rest of the paragraph.
D) No, because it presents a claim that conflicts
with a claim the writer makes later in the passage.
CONTINUE
 Music did not seem to be a predestined career choice 37

for Ellington. 37 But by age fifteen he 38 discovers the Which choice provides the most logical support for
the previous sentence?
profits and pleasures of music, acquiring the musical A) He was initially much more concerned with
knowledge he needed not 39 systematically; he had listening to music and enjoying it than with
learning to make it himself.
abandoned his piano lessons early on, but by absorbing B) He held his mother’s wishes in such high esteem
what he could from every musician he encountered, that he was willing to pursue whatever path she
chose for him.
whether formally trained or not. He plunged into the C) He was often absent from school, though his
academic performance while he was at school
heart of an emerging musical culture of 40 intergroup
was excellent.
exchanges: “The ear cats loved what the schooled cats D) He liked to draw and attended a commercial art
school, and in his teens ran a sign-painting
did,” he wrote, “and the schooled guys, with fascination, business.
would try what the ear cats were doing.” By the time he
was twenty he was living on his own and leading a local
38
band at society parties where they played, in drummer
A) NO CHANGE
Sonny Greer’s words, “anything and everything—pop
B) was discovered
songs, jazz songs, dirty songs, torch songs, Jewish songs.” C) had discovered
D) would have discovered

39
A) NO CHANGE
B) systematically—he had abandoned his piano
lessons early on—
C) systematically, he had abandoned his piano
lessons early on,
D) systematically: he had abandoned his piano
lessons early on;

40
A) NO CHANGE
B) personal creativity:
C) musical exclusivity:
D) unilateral statement:

CONTINUE
31
 In 1923 Ellington relocated to New York to get to the 41

center of the music business, and the city remained his The writer is considering deleting the underlined
portion, adjusting punctuation accordingly. Should
ostensible home—although his life for the next fifty years the underlined portion be kept or deleted?
really was to be lived on the road, 41 in a thousand A) Kept, because it provides a useful contrast.
B) Kept, because it adds a relevant descriptive detail.
hotel rooms. His nightly radio programs from the
C) Deleted, because it contradicts a prior claim.
Cotton Club made him nationally famous. By the early D) Deleted, because it is a distracting digression.
1940s he 42 figured simultaneously as a supremely
popular entertainer, as an uncompromising experiment-
42
er who presented challenging compositions at Carnegie
A) NO CHANGE
Hall, and as the African-American artist who had B) amused
succeeded 43 in an unprecedentedly wide scale in C) composed
D) defined
overcoming racial barriers and stereotypes. Whatever the
medium or the location, he found ways 44 of present-
ing his own terms for himself, creating his own 43
definition of reality, a definition that the world around A) NO CHANGE
B) with
him—and eventually that included more or less the
C) on
entire world—was charmed rather than forced into D) for
accepting.

44
A) NO CHANGE
B) of presenting his own terms on himself,
C) to present on his own terms of himself,
D) to present himself on his own terms,

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

CONTINUE
32
 CONTINUE
33
YOUR NAME (PRINT) ................................................................................................................................................................................................................
LAST FIRST MI

CLASS INFORMATION .............................................................................................................................................................................................................

CLASS TEACHER ROOM NUMBER

The SAT*
GENERAL DIRECTIONS IMPORTANT
– You may work on only one section at a time.
The codes below are unique to your test book.
– If you finish a section before time is called, check your Copy them on your answer sheet in boxes 8 and 9 and fill
work on that section. You may NOT turn to any other in the corresponding circles exactly as shown.
section.

MARKING ANSWERS TEST ID

(Copy from front of test book.)
– Be sure to mark your answer sheet properly.
#
⓪ ⓪ ⓪ ⓪
– You must use a No. 2 pencil. ① ① ① ①
– Carefully mark only one answer for each question. ② ② ② ②
– Make sure you fill the entire circle darkly and ③ ③ ③ ③
④ ④ ④ ④
completely.
– Do not make any stray marks on your answer sheet.
⑤ ⑤ ⑤ ⑤
– If you erase, do so completely. Incomplete erasures may
be scored as intended answers. ⑥ ⑥ ⑥ ⑥
– Use only the answer spaces that correspond to the ⑦ ⑦ ⑦ ⑦
question numbers. ⑧ ⑧ ⑧ ⑧
⑨ ⑨ ⑨ ⑨
USING YOUR TEST BOOK
– You may use the test book for scratch work, but you will
not receive credit for anything that you write in your
test book.
– After time has been called, you may not transfer an-
swers from your test book to your answer sheet or fill in
circles.
– You may not fold or remove pages or portions of a page
from this book, or take the book or answer sheet from
the testing room.

SCORING
– For each correct answer, you receive one point.
– You do not lose points for wrong answers; therefore,
you should try to answer every question even if you are
not sure of the correct answer.

Ideas contained in passages for this test, some of which are excerpted or adapted from
published material, do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOK UNTIL THE SUPERVISOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO.
* SAT is a registered trademark of the College Board.

CONTINUE
34