LOGICMCQ

yengefJekeÀuHeer ÒeMve Multiple Choice Questions
एमसी यू MCQ
िदसबंर 2019 December 2019
लॉिजक
LEARN
DevegmebOeeve Je ÒekeÀeMeve DevegYeeie
LEAD
कमचार श ण महा व ालय, बगलू
EXCEL Research & Publication Section
STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE, BENGALURU
From GMs Desk
Dear Friends,
Iam really happy to see that you have taken the important decision to undergo the
ensuing promotion process.
Promotion always ushers in a transition in terms of your approach to work, tasks and
thought process, apart from the skills, competencies and requisite knowledge that
you need to achieve to perform efficiently and effectively. Training, as you all know,
is an integral part of Human Resources Development and as its forerunners it our duty
to ease your stride in this transitionary phase and also guide you in your preparations
for the exam and help you understand your perceived new roles and responsibilities.
The LOGIC – MCQ DEC 2019has been conceptualized keeping in mind the props that
you need to gravitate to the elevated role and discharge the same with confidence
and finesse. The literature in your possession will help you in filling the knowledge
gap as well concretizing the already known areas of operational banking thus putting
you in good stead to face the examination and other screening procedures. Do go
through it and augment your learning curve.
Best wishes!
L V R PRASAD
GENERAL MANAGER
HR WING, HO, BENGALURU
From DGMs Desk
Dear Friends,
Our training system has been designed and developed to provide the right impetus
to our participants to perform well in their respective areas of specialization. In
this backdrop we have developed the Pre promotion Training module to equip our
staff members with the requisite skill set and knowledge to come out successful in
the ensuing promotion process.
The Pre Promotion Training booklet which is in your possession right now has been
prepared by the respective subject experts of our Training vertical with the sole
intention of helping you in your preparations for the written examination. Hence I
request everyone to take time to go through it religiously, understand the subtle
nuances and basic concepts of the various functional areas and upgrade your
knowledge level.
Your best efforts coupled with the inputs that we provide to you during the
training will put you in good stead to face the examination with confidence.
Best wishes to you!
RAVIKRISHNAN M K
DEPUTY GENERAL MANAGER
SUCCESS IS NO ACCIDENT.IT IS HARD WORK, PERSEVERANCE, LEARNING, STUDYING, SACRIFICE

AND MOST OF ALL, LOVE OF WHAT YOU ARE DOING.
Pele
INDEX
SL No Topic Page No
1 KYC 4
2 Deposit 16
3 Gen Banking 24
4 Legal Framework: NI, RBI & BR Acts 36
5 Financial Inclusion 44
6 Priority Sector 48
7 Govt Sponsored Scheme 54
8 Agriculture 59
9 Retail Lending 72
10 MSME 88
11 General Advances 97
12 Advances to Employees 113
13 Recovery & Legal Aspects 116
14 Foreign Exchange 129
15 Technology Products 149
16 HRD & Staff Matters 160
17 Official Language 166
18 Balance Sheet Analysis 172
19 Policies of Bank 179
20 Balancing, Statements & Returns 200
21 Information Technology 205
22 Circular Based Question 2018 230
23 Circular Based Question 2019 323
24 Mock Test Papers 419
25 Recalled Questions 451
1. KNOW YOUR CUSTOMER
1. The objective of KYC/AML/CFT guidelines is to prevent Bank from

a. b
eing used intentionally or unintentionally, by criminal elements for money
laundering and terrorist financing activities.
b. K
YC procedures also enable Bank to know/ understand the customers and their
financial dealings better and manage the risks prudently
c. b
eing used intentionally or unintentionally, by criminal elements for terrorist
financing activities.
d. All the above
2. Designated Director mean

a. A person designated by the reporting entity (bank, financial institution, etc.) to
ensure overall compliance.
b. W
ith the obligations imposed under chapter IV of the PML Act and the Rules and
includes the Managing Director or a whole-time Director duly authorized by the
Board of Directors if the reporting entity is a company.
c. Both a & b
d. None of above
3. W
hich are the key elements of KYC policy of RBI? Select the most comprehensive
answer.
i. Customer Acceptance Policy (CAP)
ii. Customer Identification Procedures (CIP);
iii. Monitoring of Transactions
iv. Risk Management
a. only i b. i, ii, iii & iv c. iii &ii d. i. iii &iv
4. Customer acceptance policy of the bank is framed so as to take care of which

are all aspects?
a. No account is opened without applying appropriate customer due diligence/No
account is opened in the name in anonymous/ fictitious /benami names
b. No transaction or account based relationship is undertaken without following
the CDD procedure
c. All specified mandatory information to be compulsorily to be obtained while
opening the account and during the periodic updations and optional/additional
information after Opening the account with the consent of customer
d. All of the above
CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 4

5. Which one is not an OVD?
a. Job Card issued by NREGA duly signed by an officer of the State Government
b. Letter issued by the National Population Register containing details of name
and Address
c. Ration Card
d. Any other document as notified by the Central Government in consultation with
the Regulator
6. Which among the following is not correct for ‘Small Account’

a. Balance at any time does not exceed Rs 50,000/-
b. Total withdrawal may permitted in a month up to Rs 25,000/-
c. Total Credit in a financial year does not exceed Rs 1 lakh
d. All the above
7. What are the documents to be submitted by an individual for establishing an

account based relationship with the bank as per the guidelines?
a. Aadhaar, PAN Card / Form 60
b. In case is not available , PAN/Form 60 ,any other OVDs notified by the Govt
for establishing customer identity & customer’s address or incase of low risk
customers Simplified documents stipulated
c. Photograph
d. Any of( a or b) along with c
8. In how many days foreign student has to submit the document of local address
and during that period what is the cap of credit as foreign remittance and what
is the cap for withdrawal limit
a. 30 Days and USD 10,000 & Rs 50,000
b. 45 Days and Rs 1,00,000/- Rs 25,000/-
c. 30 Days USD 1,000 and Rs 50,000
d. 30 Days USD 2,500 and Rs 50,000/-
e. None of the above
9. Which are the simplified documents acceptable in the case of Low Risk customers
for Customer identity?
a. Identity card with applicant’s Photograph issued by Central/ State Government
Departments, Statutory/ Regulatory Authorities, Public Sector Undertakings,
Scheduled Commercial Banks, and Public Financial Institutions
b. a letter issued by a Gazetted officer, with a duly attested photograph of the
person.
c. Utility bill which is not more than two months old of any service provider
(electricity, telephone, postpaid mobile phone, piped gas, water bill) or
Property or Municipal Tax receipt
d. a or b

10. Certifying Authorities to certifying OVDs (Official Valid Documents) of NRIs
(Non Resident Indians) & PIOs (Persons of Indian Origin) [as defined in Foreign
Exchange Management (Deposit) Regulation, 2016 (FEMA 5 (R))] are,
a. Authorized officials of overseas branches of scheduled commercial banks
registered in India, branches of overseas banks with whom Indian bans have
relationship
b. Notary public abroad, Judge, Court Magistrate, Indian Embassy/Consulate
General in the country where the non – resident customer resides
c. Any Gazetted Officer in India
d. Any of a & b above
11. Branch to scan and upload the KYC data to CKYC within
a. 10 days after account is opened
b. 3 days after account is opened
c. one week after account is opened
d. 15 days after account is opened
e. no need to upload
12. Branch can generate CKYC Scanning pending accounts status using
a. BO Report 110131 b. CBS Report CI050.
c. Both a & b above d. None of the above
13. All Individual CASA accounts are eligible for CKYC ID; the CKYD ID will be
populated in the CIM50 Web Page of CBS after ___ hours from the day of
scanning and uploading of CKYC Data.
a. 24 hours b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours d. 07 hours
14. Documents to be scanned and uploaded for CKYCR

a. ID proof & Address
b. Proof of Identity, Proof of Address, Cropped up Signature and Photograph
c. Signature and Photograph
d. Application
15. Before opening the account branches have to verify the prospective account
holder’s details in CKYC package under the option ……………………………
a. Customer Unique Identification Code
b. CKYC Management
c. Aadhaar Verification
d. Account opening

16. In case of Married Women , As per the amendment to the Rules, 2005 (Gazette
notification dated 22.09.2015), any OVD shall be deemed to an ―officially valid
document even if there is a change in the name subsequent to its issuance,
provided it is supported by
a. Marriage certificate issued by the State Government
b. Gazette notification, indicating such a change of name
c. a or b
d. a & b
17. If customer is desirous of receiving any benefit or subsidy under any scheme
notified under Section 7 of Aadhaar Act 2016,
a. Submission & Linking of Aadhaar Number to Account is Mandatory
b. Submission of any of Official Valid document will holds good
c. Submission of PAN card is Mandatory
d. Need no to submit any Official Valid Document
18. What is the procedure for implementation of Section 51A of the The Unlawful
Activities (Prevention) Act,1967 (UAPA)
a. freeze, seize or attach funds and other financial assets or economic resources
held by, on behalf of or at the direction of the individuals or entities Listed in
the Schedule to the Order, or any other person engaged in or suspected to be
engaged in terrorism;
b. prohibit any individual or entity from making any funds, financial assets
or economic resources or related services available for the benefit of the
individuals or entities Listed in the Schedule to the Order or any other person
engaged in or suspected to be engaged in terrorism;
c. prevent the entry into or the transit through India of individuals Listed in
the Schedule to the Order or any other person engaged in or suspected to be
engaged in terrorism
d. All the above
19. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act define “Order” means:

a. The order which have given power to state authority to search any one
b. “Order” means the Prevention and Suppression of Terrorism (Implementation
of Security Council Resolutions) Order, 2007, as may be amended from time
to time
c. Both a & b
d. all the above
20. The consolidated list of the UAPA nodal officers should be circulated to the
nodal officer of IS-I Division of MHA in
a. July every year and on every change. b. August every year
c. Only on every change d. All the above

21. In case , the particulars of any customers match with the particulars of
designated individuals/entities, regarding funds, Financial Assets or Economic
Resources or related services held in the form of bank account, Stocks or
Insurance Policies etc. by what time Banks/stock exchange/ Insurance company
will report and to whom it will be reported
a. 24 hours with full particulars to Joint Sect(IS.I), MHA
b. 24 hours with full particulars to MEA
c. 48 hours with full particulars to MEA
d. need not be reported
22. Review of Customer Risk Categorization

a. to be carried out not less than once in six months
b. as on 15th of May and 15th November every year
c. once in a year
d. a & b
23. Customer identification procedure to be carried out

I. While establishing the banking relationship
ii. While carrying out a financial transaction
iii. When the bank has a doubt about the authenticity or adequacy of the customer
Identification data, it has obtained.
iv. When bank sells third party products as agent
a. I & ii b. ii & iii c. i,iii & iv d. i,ii,iii,iv
24. Where the client is a partnership firm, which documents are required?
(i) Registration Certificate
(ii) Partnership Deed
(iii) Any Officially Valid Document which contains proof of identity/address
in respects of managers, officers and employees holding an attorney to
transacts on its behalf. and
(iv) PANs or Form 60 as defined in the Income Tax Rules, 1962 issued to the
person holding an attorney to transact on behalf of the partnership
a.i &iv b. i,ii &iv c. i,ii,iii & iv d.only i & ii e. iii & iv
25. Where the client is an unincorporated association or a body of individuals,

certified copies of following documents are to be submitted:
(a) Resolution of the managing body of such association or body of individuals
(b) Power of Attorney granted to the person who will transact on its behalf.
(c) Any Officially Valid Document which contains proof of identity/address in
respects of managers, officers and employees holding an attorney to transacts
on its behalf. and

(d) PAN or Form 60 as defined in the Income Tax Rules, 1962 issued to the person
holding an attorney to transact on behalf of the unincorporated association
or a body of individuals.
(e) All the above
26. In respect of Trust which is not correct subject to Customer Due Diligence?
a. OVDs of any natural person exercising ultimate effective control over the
trust through a chain of control or ownership /Beneficiaries with 25% or more
interest in the trust
b. OVDs of Trustees
c. OVDs of any natural person exercising ultimate effective control over the
trust through a chain of control or ownership /Beneficiaries with 15% or more
interest in the trust
d. OVD of the author of the trust
27. Who is a beneficial owner in a Company?

i. Natural persons who whether acting alone or together or through one or more
juridical Person has / have a controlling ownership interest or who exercise
control through other means.
ii. Natural persons who whether acting alone or together or through one or more
juridical person who has /have ownership of /entitlement to more than 15%
of the shares or profits of the company
iii. Natural persons who whether acting alone or together or through one or more
juridical person has / have the right to appoint majority of the directors or
to control the Natural persons
iv. Natural persons who whether acting alone or together or through one or more
juridical person who has /have ownership of /entitlement to more than 25%
of the shares or profits of the company
a. i&iii b. i,iii&iv c. i&iii d.i,ii,iii&iv
28. Periodic updation of KYC

a. 8 year for low Risk, 10 year for High Risk and 2 year for medium Risk customer
b. 2 year for low Risk, 10 year for High Risk and 8 year for medium Risk customer
c. 10 year for low Risk, 2 year for High Risk and 8 year for medium Risk customer
d. 8 year for low Risk, 2 year for High Risk and 10 year for medium Risk customer
29. What is procedure for KYC non compliant customer

a. Due notice of three months for completion of kyc requirements to be given
b. After three months due notice of three months to be given partial freezing
c. After six months of partial freezing total freezing of the account (i.e. in
operative)
d. All the above

30. During partial freezing of account
a. Debits are allowed but no credits are allowed
b. Credits are allowed but no debits are allowed
c. both debit and credits are allowed with memo
d. both debits and credits are not allowed
31. Total freezing of accounts mean

i. During this stage no debits and credits are allowed
ii. Making account in operative
iii. Credits are allowed but debits are not allowed
iv. customers have right to close the account.
a. i,ii&iv b. i,ii&iii c. i,ii,iii&iv d. i&ii
32. In the case of low risk customers, which of the following statements are not
true?
a. Fresh proof of identity and address shall not be sought when there is no change
in status of identity and address, as per the self-certification submitted.
b. A certified copy of proof of address forwarded through mail/post shall be
acceptable, in case of change of address.
c. Physical presence of low risk customer must be ensure
d. All of the above
33. Which is true in case of Cross Border Wire Transfer Report (CWTR) is required
to filed with FIU-IND
a. more that Rs 5 lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency
b. where the origin or destination of fund is india
c. CWTR is required to file within 15th day of succeeding month with FIU- IND
d. All the above
34. Which one is not true

a. Cash Transaction Report (CTR) more than Rs 10 lakhs or its equivalent in
foreign currency has to be submitted monthly by 15th of next month
b. All transaction involving receipts by non-profit organizations (NTR) more than
Rs 10 lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency has to be submitted monthly
by 15th of next month
c. All Cash transactions where counterfeit currency notes have been used or
where any forgery of a valuable security or a document has taken place
facilitating the transactions. (CCR) by 15th of next month
d. Walk in customer visit report has to be submitted monthly by 7th of next
month

35. Who can permit opening of accounts of Politically Exposed person/permit
continuation of accounts of a customer, subsequently becoming a politically
exposed persons?
a. Branch in charges including Manager & Senior Managers
b. Scale-IV & above heading the branches. Other branches to take permission
from MIPD Section, Circle Office
c. Only RO & above has got the powers
d. RBI permission is required
36. Which statement is true for Simplified norms for Self Help Groups (SHGs)
(a) KYC verification of all the members of SHGs need not be done while opening
the Savings Bank account of the SHGs and KYC verification of all the office
bearers would suffice.
(b) As regards KYC verification at the time of credit linking of SHGs, no separate
KYC verification of the members or office bearers is necessary.
(c) KYC is not required for SHG members
(d) a & B are correct options
37. What type of accounts can be opened for foreign students studying in India.
a. NRO b. NRE account c. BSBD account d. Any of the above.
38. What are the documents to be verified for a foreign national student?
a. Passport with visa and immigration endorsement, which bears the proof
of identity and address in the home country; the admission letter from an
educational institute in India;
b. photographs
c. Undertaking to submit the local address within 30 days
d. All the above along with an approval letter from RBI In the case student is of
Pakistani nationality.
39. Correspondent banking is the provision of banking services

a. by one bank (the “correspondent bank”) to another bank (the “respondent
bank”).
b. These services may include cash/funds management, international wire
transfers, drawing arrangements for demand drafts and mail transfers,
payable-through-accounts, cheques clearing etc.
c. Banks may take gather sufficient information to fully understand the nature
of business of the bank including information on management, major business
activities.
d. option a & b are correct
e. all the above are correct

40. IMB transactions fall under which risk
a. low risk b. high risk
c. medium risk d. not required to categorized in risk
41. ATM transaction is categorized

a. low risk b. medium risk
c. high risk d. not required to categorized in risk
42. Bank shall maintain record at least

a. 5 years for specified records where transactions are internal in nature
b. 8 years for specified records where customers transactions are recorded
c. Both a & b
d. All the above
43. KYC documents for opening bank accounts of companies

(i) Certificate of Incorporation (COI)
(ii) Memorandum and Articles of Association (MOA & AOA)
(iii) A resolution from the Board of Directors and Power of Attorney granted to its
managers, officers or employees to transact on its behalf.
(iv) (a) Any Officially Valid Document which contains proof of identity/address
in respects of managers, officers and employees holding an attorney to
transacts on its behalf. And
(b) PANs or Form 60 as defined in the Income Tax Rules, 1962 issued to managers,
officers or employees holding an attorney to transact on the company’s
behalf.
(v) Corporate Identification Number (CIN)
a. I & V b. i, ii, iii, v c. i, ii ,iii ,iv & v d. ii, iii & v
44. Which of following is not matching

a. CV - Customer Verification, LQ - Law Enforcement Agency Query
b. MR - Media Reports, EI - Employee Initiated
c. PC - Public Complaint, BA - Business Associates
d. TY – Typology, RM - Risk Management
e. none of the above
45. All accounts where the thanks giving letter has been returned undelivered are
to be classified
a. as “High Risk” under CIM50
b. as “Medium Risk” under CIM50
c. as “Low Risk” under CIM50
d. as “High Risk” under CIM45

46. “Transaction” means a purchase, sale, loan, pledge, gift, transfer, delivery or
the arrangement thereof and includes-
(a) opening of an account, deposits, withdrawal, exchange or transfer of funds
in whatever currency, whether in cash or by cheque, payment order or other
instruments or by electronic or other non-physical means;
(b) the use of a safety deposit box or any other form of safe deposit
(c) entering into any fiduciary relationship
(d) any payment made or received in whole or in part of any contractual or other
legal obligation or establishing or creating a legal person or legal arrangement
(e) All the above
47. Which does not match as customers risk

a. Travel agency – Medium Risk
b. NGO which supported by UNO – Low Risk
c. Restaurant , Retail Shop- Medium Risk
d. Blind – High Risk
48. For small value accounts shall remain operational initially for period of ______
and there after further period of _______ If the holder of such an account
provides evidence before the banking company of having applied for any of the
OVD within _____ of the opening of the said account, within entire relaxation
provision to review in respect of the said account ____
a.12 months , 12 months, 6 months, 24 months
b. 12 moths,12 moths, 12 months , 24 months
c. 12 months, 24 months, 6 months, 12 months
d. 12 months, 6 months, 6 months, 24 months
49. Since the ‘at par’ cheque facility offered by commercial banks to co-operative
banks is in the nature of correspondent banking arrangement
a. Bank should monitor and review such arrangements to assess the risks including
credit risk and reputational risk arising there from.
b. For this purpose, banks should retain the right to verify the records maintained
by the client cooperative banks/ societies for compliance with the extant
instructions on KYC and and AML under such arrangements shall be retained
by banks.
c. Both a & b
d. All the above
50. What is UCIC

a. Unique Customer Identification Code which help banks to indentify the
customers.
b. avoid multiple identities
c. track the facilities availed, monitor financial transaction in holistic manner
and enable banks to have a better approach to risk profiling of customers.
Banks have been advised allot UCIC while entering into new relationships with
individual customers as also the existing customers.
d. All the above

51. Which is not correct
a. Beneficial owners need not to be determined and indentified
b. Beneficial owners not required to be done for listed companies or their
subsidiaries.
c. In case of too complex structures, the person who exercises control over the
affairs of the company is deemed to be the beneficial owner and must be
indentified
d. For company controlling ownership interest means ownership of / entitlement
to more than 25 percent of the shares or capital or profits of the company.
52. 10. Who is authorized to act as and perform the functions of CKYCR ?
a. Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Securities of India
(CERSAI)
b. Department of CKYCR, Finance Ministry
c. UIDAI
d. RBI
53. If the current address of a customer is different from the address recorded in
the OVD, what is to be done?
a. A declarations shall be obtained from the customer indicating the address
to which all correspondence will be made and it shall be verified through
positive confirmation.
b. In case the identity information relating to Aadhaar number or Permanent
Account Number submitted by the customer does not have his current address,
such customer shall submit an officially valid documents.(HO CIR 391/2017)
c. Both a & b
d. Customer has to submit separate proof for current address.
54. 36. What are the enhanced due diligence to be exercised in the accounts of
non-face-to-face customers?
a. Certification of all documents presented
b. Calling for additional documents
c. First payment to be effected through the customer’s KYC compliant account
with another bank.
d. All of the above
55. Who approves the policy for correspondent banking relationship of the bank?
a. Board of the bank
b. Committee headed by the Chairman /CEO/MD subject to post facto approval
of the board in its next meeting.
c. RBI
d. Both a & b

56. During the periodical review if the low risk category customer for whom
simplified procedure had been applied earlier, is re-categorised as “Moderate
or High Risk “ what steps are to be taken by the bank ?
a. Customer has to submit Aadhaar and PAN card /Form 60 immediately
b. In case Aadhaar /PAN is not available any of the Govt. notified OVDs & Form60
immediately
c. In case party fails to comply bank to proceed with Partial Freezing/Closure
d. Obtain (a or b) or proceed as per c
57. For Companies which are the legal documents establishing the incorporation of
company, business purpose and other underlying terms?
a. Certificate of Incorporation
b. Certificate of Incorporation, Memorandum and Articles of Association & PAN
number of the company
c. Certificate of Incorporation , Articles of association
d. Search Report & Status Report
58. For Partnership firms, which are the legal documents establishing formation of
Partnership firm, business purpose and terms mutually agreed?
a. Registration certificate if Registered b. Partnership Deed
c. PAN number of the firm d. b & c ( a wherever applicable)
59. For opening an account of a trust, certified copies of which of the following
documents shall be obtained:
a. Registration certificate.
b. Trust deed.
c. Identification information as mentioned under Section 15in respect of the
person holding a power of attorney to transact on its behalf.
d. all the above
1.D 7.D 13.A 19.B 25.E 31.A 37.A 43.C 49.D 55.D
2.C 8.C 14.B 20.A 26.A 32.C 38.D 44.E 50.D 56.D
3.B 9.D 15.B 21.A 27.B 33.D 39.E 45.A 51.A 57.B
4.D 10.D 16.C 22.D 28.C 34.D 40.B 46.E 52.A 58.D
5.C 11.A 17.A 23.D 29.D 35.B 41.B 47.D 53.C 59.D
6.B 12.C 18.D 24.C 30.B 36.D 42.A 48.B 54.D

DEPOSIT SAVING AND CURRENT ACCOUNT
1. How many members can join in SB account?
a. Max 6 members
b. 5 members in addition to original account holder
c. Max 4 members
d. Any number can join
2. A t what age minors can open and operate SB accounts ?

a. Above 15 years b. Above 8 years
c. Above 18 years d. Above 10 years
3. What is the Rate of Interest offered to SB account deposits?

a. Upto Rs.50 lakhs at 3.5% and above 50 lakhs at 4%
b. Upto Rs.1 crore at 3.5% and above 1 crore at 5%
c. At 3.5% irrespective of balance
d. None of the above
4. What is the periodicity and date of payment of interest on SB accounts ?

a. Half yearly on 1st Feb and 1st Nov
b. Quarterly on 1st of Jan , Mar, June, Sept
c. 10th of every Calender Quarters
d. On 1st of every Feb, May, Aug and Nov
5. Interest computation on SB account deposits

a. The minimum balance from 10th to Last day of the month.
b. On daily product basis
c. Average balance during the month
d. Balance as on Last day of the month
6. W
hat is the minimum amount of Cash Deposit/Cash withdrawal from SB account ?
a. Rs.50/- b. 100/- c. 10/- d. any amount
7. What is the discretionary power for allowing TOD in SB/CA,to Scale II Incharge
Manager of Semi Urban Branch?
a. Rs.10000/- can be granted
b. No powers to sanction TOD in SB/CA
c. Can be granted, but the same is to be ratified by RO
d. Rs.50000/- can be granted.

8. Cheque issued by Guardian of the Minor prior to the date on which minor attains
majority, but presented after the date of attain majority:
a. It is valid and can be paid
b. Minor should authenticate the issuance of such cheque
c. It cannot be paid
d. If it is less than Rs.50000/- it can be paid.
9. Minimum balance condition is not applicable to following

a. Staff SB account
b. Pensioners drawing pension through our Bank
c. Canara Defence Service Account
d. All the above
10. What is Canara Jeevan Dhara (product 110) meant for

a. A Savings Bank account targeting the Senior Citizens
b. A Savings Bank account targeting the Generation Next
c. A Current Account targeting the LIC employees
d. SB Account coupled with LIC Jeevan Surakha Policy
11. Whether Branch Manager can open Current Account for any individual/firm ?
a. Permission from RO/CO duly verifying the credentials in CRILC.
b. No permission from higher authority is required
c. Manager is empowered to open as per his willingness
d. Accounts can be opened and monthly report to CO/RO
12. Mr. Ram Kumar, a Hindu and father of minor Sham Kumar converts himself to a
Mohammadan called Abdul Hamid. What is his status as a guardian:
a. he remains guardian only when allowed by court
b. he ceases to be the natural guardian
c. he remains guardian
d. he remains guardian if he mother does not object
13. J Singh, approaches you to open a savings bank account in the same of his
grand son under his guardianship. Which among the following precautions will
be taken by the bank?
a. bank should obtain proper introduction and photograph while opening the
account
b. declaration should be obtained that all operations will be done for benefit
of minor
c. date of birth certificate of the minor should be obtained
d. account cannot be opened as the grand father cannot become natural
guardian, so long the father is alive

14. Which of the following kinds of deposits are not insured under DICGC scheme:
a. Inter bank deposits
b. Deposits from government
c. Deposits of State Land Dev Banks with State Coop Banks
d. All the above
15. What is the amount of Insurance up to which a deposit is insured:

a. Rs. 1 lac per depositor per branch of a bank
b. Rs. 1 lac per depositor per bank
c. Rs. 1 lac per depositor from the banking system
d. Rs. 1 lac per depositor held singly or jointly
16. A saving bank account or a current account is to be treated as inoperative ac-

counts if there is no operation in the account for the last:
a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years
17. Mr. Ravana, an account holder, is proceeding on a foreign trip for a period
of one month only. Which of the following modes of delegation of authority
would be most convenient and easy for empowering a person to operate on the
banking account during temporary absence of the customer?
a. Mandate
b. Power of attorney
c. Injunction order of a court of competent jurisdiction
d. Probate
18. M
r. Dharmesh, a customer of your branch informs you that Mr. Ramesh
Kumar, another customer has snatched Rs.25000/ from him and deposited in his
account.
a. By debiting account of Ramesh,amount would be paid to Dharmesh
b. Advise him that bank cannot take any action on his complaint
c. Guide him to lodge a complaint with the police and if necessary, bank
will provide a certificate that the amount has been deposited
d. Since amount belongs to Dharmesh, the balance would be earmarked.
19. In case any loan is granted against the Term deposits in minor’s name accepted
with mother as guardian for meeting necessities of the child , the loan papers
should be signed by
a. By mother
b. By father along with mother
c. By father or mother
d. By father

20. W
hat is the minimum age for opening a Term Deposit by a minor himself?
Whether before maturity closure is permissible in such deposits/Whether
loan can be granted against such deposits ?
a. 10 years / No/No
b. N o l o a n
c. Term Deposit by minor himself is not permissible
d. 12 years / Yes at the discretion of the Manager / Loan can be granted jointly
with father ( along with guardian as applicable)
21. W
ho can open and operate the bank accounts in respect of persons with
autism , Cerebral paisy , Mental retardation and multiple disabilities
a. Testamentary Guardian
b. Court appointed guardian
c. The person to whom Guardianship Certificate is issued either by the District
Court under Mental Health Act or by the Local committee under National Trust
Act 1999
d. Natural Guardian
22. W
hat should be the repayment condition in respect of a deposit in the joint
name of a literate and an illiterate. Parties insist that it should be made
payable to any one of them. What will be repayment condition bank will be
stipulating ?
a. Payable to illiterate depositor or survivors
b. Either or Survivor
c. Payable to literate or survivor
d. Any of the above
23. In Recurring deposit accounts, the instalments are paid:

a . In the beginning of the month
b. Any time between first and last date of the month
c. Any time between first and tenth date of the month
d. On the last date of the month
24. A
fixed deposit matured on January 12, 2016 but it is not presented on due
date. When the claim in respect of such deposit receipt will become time
barred
a. Being FDR, it will not become time barred
b. Three years from due date
c. Three years from date of demand if payment not received on demand
d. 12 years from date of presentation or due date which ever is earlier

25. A customer of your branch wants to secure his loan by way of an FDR
issued by another bank in your town. What procedure you would follow?
a. It should be accepted as security
b. It should not be taken as security for advancing the loan as per RBI directives
c. If customer is valued customer it should be taken
d. RBI’s special permission is required
26. A
term deposit has matured on May 31, being Sunday. The payment of
the deposit would be made by the bank on-------------with interest rate
a. Saturday, at contracted rate
b. Saturday,at contracted up to Sunday
c. Monday, at contracted rate till Sunday and at saving bank rate for Monday
d. Monday ,at contracted rate
27. Savings Bank account should be opened in the name of

a. Municipal Corporation b. Any political party
c. Vikas Vahini d. State Housing Board
28. Pensioners can open joint SB accounts with

a. their sons/daughters b. their spouses
c. any of their close relatives d. cannot open joint account
29. The ‘undertaking letter’(NF 173) obtained from the pensioner at the time of
commencement of pension/family pension is meant for
a. pensioner will visit the branch whenever called for
b. pensioner will submit annual Life Certificate in time
c. bank can recover the excess amount of pension, if any, credited to pensioner
d. pensioner will not leave country without intimation to bank
30. RBI has prescribed 5 basic minimum facilities, free of charge, to be made
available to BSBD account holders. Which one is not one of such facilities?
a. credit card
b. ATM Card or ATM-cum-Debit Card
c. Deposit of cash at bank branch as well as ATMs/CDMs
d. No limit on number and value of deposits that can be made in a month
31. Savings Bank account of prisoners can be opened under Product Code
a. Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (108)
b. Small Savings Bank Deposit Account (127)
c. NSIGSE Savings Bank Account (128)
d. Product Code-101

32. Quarterly average balance required to be maintained in Canara SB PowerPlus is
a. Rs. 50,000 and above b. Rs.100,000 and above
c. Rs. 150,000 and above d. Rs.200,000 and above
33. All employees of a firm / company with minimum -- employees, with standing
over -- year/s are eligible to open account under Canara payroll Package
scheme
a. 10, 5 b. 20, 2 c. 25, 3 d. 25, 1
34. Which one in not correct in case of Canara Junior Savings account?
a. opened under product code - 121
b. foreign remittance not permitted
c. Declaraon to be obtained from parent / guardian
d. Balance in the account not to exceed 50000 at any point of time
35. As per modified RBI policy, which one of the following cannot verify OVDs of
NRI/PIO
a.
Indian Embassy/Consulate General in the country where the non-resident
customer resides
b. Notary Public abroad
c. Official of any overseas bank
d. Court Magistrate
36. Wherever withdrawal from SB account exceeds ---,identity of the payee should
be established by obtaining suitable KYC documents.
a. Rs.10,000 and above b. Rs.25,000 and above
c. Rs.50,000 and above d. Rs.100,000 and above
37. Definition of Bulk Deposits has changed as

a. Rs.1 Cr and above b. Rs.2 Cr and above
c. Rs. 5 Cr and above d. Rs.10 Cr and above
38. Preferential ROI given to ex-employees cum Senior Citizen on Canara Tax Saver
Deposit
a. 0.5% b. 1% c.1.5% d. no preferential interest
39. How many nominees (maximum) can be accepted under Capital Gains Account
scheme ?
a. No nominee b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

40. Canara Khazana series of retail Term Deposits launched w.e.f.01.07.2019 are
for three periods (in terms of days), namely
a. 222,333,444 b. 333,444,555 c. 111,222,333 d. 121,221,331
41. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a public company?

a) It has a separate legal entity
b) It has a perpetual succession
c) It has a common seal and separate property
d) Its shares are non-transferable
42. The capital with which the company is registered is called the
a) Subscribed capital b) Nominal or authorized capital
c) Working capital d) None of these
43. In case, ‘memorandum’ and ‘articles’ are inconsistent, then which shall prevail
over the others?
a) Memorandum of association b) Articles of association
c) The one approved by Registrar d) None of these
44. A SB account in the names of Dara and Tara is opened with operation condition
“Former or Survivor”. Dara wants to change the operation condition “E or S”
a) Bank can change condition as above on basis of Dara’s letter to the effect
b) Such request letter need to be signed by both of them for bank to change
c) Bank cannot change the condition by letter only
d) Account to be closed and fresh account to be opened with such condition
45. SB CANARA CHAMP account can be opened for children up to the age of
a) 8 years b) 10 years c)12 years d) 9 years
46. CANARA NATIONAL SCHEME OF INCENTIVE TO GIRLS FOR SECONDARY EDUCATION

SAVINGS BANK DEPOSIT ACCOUNT (NSIGSE) can not be opened by
a) All SC/ST girls who pass class VIII
b) Students enrolled in schools run by Central Government
c) Girls who pass class VIII examination from Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas
d) Any girl student irrespective of SC/ST passing Class VIII from Kasturba

47. Bank is going to settle a claim in favour of a nominee, i.e., son of the deceased
depositor. On the day of settling of claim, the deceased’s wife claimed, in
person, 50% of the amount to be settled.
a) Bank can settle the claim equally between the 2 legal heirs of the deceased
b) Bank can stop settlement of the claim in favour of the nominee based on the
advocate’s letter from the deceased’s wife
c) Bank can settle claim in favour of the nominee only
d) Bank can first credit the settlement amount to the nominee’s account, and
then transfer the 50% amount to the other legal heir’s account, so that bank
is not blamed later.
KEYS
1c 2d 3d 4d 5b 6c 7b
8c 9d 10 a 11 a 12 b 13 d 14 d
15 b 16 a 17 a 18 b 19 b 20 d 21 c
22 a 23 b 24 c 25 b 26 d 27 c 28 b
29 c 30 a 31 b 32 b 33 d 34 a 35 c
36 a 37 b 38 b 39 d 40 c 41 d 42 b
43 a 44 b 45 c 46 b 47 c

GENERAL BANKING
1. Late Cash receipt after office hours can be accepted upto

a. Rs.10,000 c. Max 50,000
b. Rs.1 lakh d. any amount can be accepted
2. Late payment of cash can be made to upto a maximum of Rs.

a. To drawer & Rs.10,000/- c. Payee & Rs.10,000/
b. 3rd party & Rs.1 lakh d. Payee & Rs.,1 lakh
3. Investigation is to be conducted by an officer appointed by DGM/GM if cash

shortage is Rs. or more.
a. 1000 b. 50000 c. 25000 d. 10000
4. A
currency note that is formed by joining a half of any one note to a half of
another note is called
a. Mismatched note b. Fake note
c. Mutilated note d. Impound note
5. S tamped indemnity to be obtained in all cases of refund of excess cash of

Rs............. and above
a. 1000 b. 3000 c. 5000 d. 25000
6. E
xcess cash kept in SL –Excess Cash is to be credited to Commission account at
the end of
a. Quartler b. Half Yearly c. Feb & Aug d. End of Financial year
7. Procedure for remittance of Cash exceeding Rs.50 lakhs, is to be accompanied by

a. One Armed Guard b. Two Armed Guard
c. Two SWOs d. One Officer & SWO
8. As per the revised guidelines of RBI, penalty for shortage of notes of Rs.50 and
above in the remittance to RBI is
a. Equal to value of denomination b. Value of loss or shortage of notes
c. Flat 10,000 d. Both a and b
9. Penalty for non-functioning of CCTV, cash /treasure kept outside strong room,
non- utilization of note sorting machine etc.
a. Rs.1000 enhanced to Rs.5000
b. Rs.5000 for each irregularity, enhanced to Rs.10000 in case of repetition
c. Rs.500 for inspection
d. Both b & c

10. What is the insurance cover available for money & securities of Bank while
in transit and held at Branches & offices.
a. 10 cr & 100 cr b. 25 cr & 50 cr
c. 10 cr & 120 cr d. 5 cr & 30 cr
KEYS
1d 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d a d a c d b d b d
DD/PO/TT
1. Demand Draft for Rs.1 lakh and above should be signed by

a. Jointly by TWO officers who are PA holders
b. Cashier & One Officer jointly
c. Upto 5 lakhs only Single Officer
d. Invariably by Manager & Officer Jointly
2. For Issuing Duplicate DDs, a simple undertaking letter from purchase in lieu of
indemnity upto
a. Rs.1000 for non customer, & Rs.10000 for customer
b. Rs. 5000 for non customer & Rs.1 lakh for customer
c. Rs.2000 irrespective of customer and non customer
d. Rs.500 for non customer and Rs.5000 for customers
3. W
hat is the maximum amount of DD that can be issued by Rural & Semi urban
branches as on date:
a. Rs 1 lakh and above
b. Rs. 50000 and above
c. Rs. 10 lakhs after the introduction of CTS single color DD
d. No maximum limit for the DDs
4. DD can be revalidated only

a. Two times b. One time
c. In cycles of 4 months d. No revalidation, cancel and issue new.
5. Destruction of cancelled security items to be done and recorded in register

a. During the visit of Executive from Regional Office
b. During course of regular inspection certified by inspecting officers and joint key
holders
c. Branch Manager and the SWO who has cancelled the instrument.
d. Before the Day End all cancelled instruments for the day are to destroyed.

Keys
1a 2d 3d 4b 5b
Collection of cheques and bills:
1. Relationship between a banker and a customer in the case of OSC/OBC is that of

a. Principal and Agent c. Bailee and Bailor
b. Banker and Customer d. Giver and Receiver
2. B
ank can stop issuing cheque book, if there are _occasions of dishonor of
cheque of value less than Rs.1 crore, during the financial year
a. 2 b. 4 c. 2 d. 6
3. Immediate credit of local cheques upto the prescribed limit is to be done for
eligible accounts in case
a. At the specific request of Branch Manager
b. To all the customer whose cheques are less than Rs.15000/-
c. At the specific request of the customer
d. Irrespective of request to all the SB account holders
4. Dishonor of ECS mandate for reason of insufficient funds for four or more
occasions during the financial year may result in
a. Further ECS mandate will not be accepted
b. Penalty of Rs.1000 to be imposed
c. Closure of account by the Bank.
d. Caution letter to be issued to customer.
Keys:
1a 2d 3c 4c
Correspondence, Filing, Preservation/Destruction Of Records
1. EMT Register should be preserved

a. Permanently b. 12 years c. 21 years d. 33 years
2. D
eath Claim papers should be held in double lock for a period of years from
the date of settlement
a. 12 years b. 8 years c. 21 years d. permanently
3. Inspection report and replies are to be preserved for a period of

a. 5years b. 3years c. 8 years d. 12 years

4. Normally the work of destruction of old records is undertaken during the month of
a. April b. November c. September d, December
Safe Deposit Lockers / Safe Custody Articles
5. The relationship between banker and customer under safe deposit locker hired is
a. Banker & Customer c. Bailee & Bailor
b. Lessor and lessee d. Principal & Student
6. How many nominations can be there in Safe Custody Service?

a. 1 b. 4 c. 2. d. not accepted.
7. Branches to collect advance rent of years + break open charges, whenever

locker is hired, apart from normal rent
8. Refund of locker rent in case of surrender of locker before expiry date shall be
a. Remaining period
b. remaining period should be more than 6 months
c. For the unexpired quarters
d. No need to refund rent
9. In the case of Safe Custody service, the relationship between the customer and
the banker is that of
a. Banker & Customer c. Bailor & bailee
b. Lessor and lessee d. Principal & Trustee
10. The receipt for Safe custody articles accepted by the Bank should be signed by
a. By the Branch Incharge b. Officer and Branch in charge jointly
c. Any two officers d. Cashier Jointly with Officer
11. In the event of death of any of the joint hirers of lockers with “Operation
under Joint signature clause “, where there is a nomination available, branch
should give access of the locker to
a. Survivor alone can operate
b. No operations allowed
c. Legal hearers are to called to settle
d. Jointly to the survivor and nominee

Bankers’ Account/ SL/SA/BAA
12. B
ankers account maintained by our Branches is to be operated jointly by
two P.A. holders if the withdrawal exceeds
a. Rs.100000 b. Rs 50000/- c. Rs.5000/- d. Rs.10000/-
13. To open the Bankers account, Branch to get the permission from
a. AGM of Regional Office b. Section incharge in RO
c. DM from Circle Office d. MIPD section from CO
14. Whether manual Refund claims against written back non-credit items can be
submitted?
a. M
anual claims are since dispensed with and claim to be preferred in SAS
package
b. Branch Manager & Cashier to prefer the claim
c. Both key holder to sign the claim letter
d. Branch cannot get back these sums.
15. All debit slips/vouchers under sundry liabilities should be authorised by

a. Officer has to authorize
b. Two PA holders need to sign
c. Senior Manager/Manager branch in charge
d. Incharge officer of Advances
16. Excess cash at the end of the day shall be kept in

a. Sundry Deposits for want of particulars
b. GL 209272431
c. Cashiers personal SB account
d. SL –Accounts Payable -Excess Cash
Income & expenditure:
17. D
elegation of powers of SM/Mgr in charge of branches to incur revenue
expenditure at a time(other than premises)
a. Rs.750 b. Rs.500 c. Rs.1000 d. Rs.2500
18. Delegation of powers to incur revenue expenditure in case of II line manager/

Scale I heading branch for premises
a. Rs.750 b. Rs.1500 c. Rs.2000 d. Rs.2500

19. Payment of Legal expenses in respect of suit claims to be debited to
a. General Charges b. Sundry Assets
c. Borrower account d. Commission Misc
Staff Matters
20. Cash incentive for accepted suggestions under Employees Suggestion Scheme for
individuals (ESS)
a. Rs. 2000 b. 5000 c. 3000 d. 8000
21. What is the incentive under Employee Suggestion Scheme for Group suggestion?
a. Rs. 2000 b. 5000 c. 3000 d. 8000
22 Where is the General Power of Attorney of officers working in branches are held?
a. At HRM Section of Circle Office
b. At GA Section of RO
c. At respective Branches only
d. With the individual Officers only
RISK BASED INTERNAL AUDIT
23. What are areas assessed under Business Risk?

a. Credit Risk & Liability Risk c . Operational Risk
b. Earning Risk d. All the above
24. The main reason for slippage of Branch gradation from Low to Medium or High
is because of
a. Operational Risk b. Compliance Risk
c. Internal Risk d. Credit Risk
25. What is the periodicity of RBIA at various levels of Composite Risk?

a. High Rsik 6 months, Moderate risk 12 months
b. Low Risk 18 months
c. Normal Risk 15 months
d. All the above
26. W hat is MAP drawn by Circle Office to mitigate risks in Risk Based Internal
Audit?
a. Managing Ability Plan b. Monitorable Action Plan
c. Money Action Plan d. Management Audit Progress

27. Main component under Operational Risk
a. People & Process c. Technology & Reputation
b. out sourcing & exceptional information. d. All the above
28. Areas under assessment in respect of Management Risk under Control Risk?
a. Business Strategy b. Branch Management
c. Both a & b d. Profitability of Branch
Pension Accounts & PPF
29. Life Certificate to be obtained from Pensioners

a. Every year April c. January
b. November d. September
30. Periodicity of submission of certificate of Non remarriage/Non Marriage

a. Quarterly April /July/Oct/Jan
b. Twice in a year May and November
c. Yearly once during January
d. Yearly once along with Life Certificate
31. Which of the following statement regarding period of PPF account is not
correct
a. Maximum period is 15 years
b. Period can be extended by 5 years at a time for any no.of such blocks
c. Max period is 15 years without any further extension
32. Which of the following is false as far as withdrawal from PPF is concerned?
a. Partial withdrawal is allowed after 6th year
b. M
ax amount of withdrawal is 50% of the balance at the end of 2nd
preceding financial year
c. Entire amount can be withdrawn after 6 years
33.Public provident fund (PPF) accounts can be opened by

a. Individual, HUF, minor b. Firm, HUF, company
c. Individual, company, firm d. Individual person only

34. What is the maximum deposit that could be accepted under the Senior Citizen
Scheme?
a. Rs.05.00 lac
b. Rs. 07.50 lac
c. Rs. 10.00 lac
d. Rs. 15.00 lac
35. W
hat is the age criteria for under Senior Citizen Scheme 2004 for opening the
account
a. 60 years
b. 55 years in case of those who are retiring voluntarily
c. 65 years
d. a and b
36. W
hich of the following types of operation modes are permitted under the
Senior Citizens Savings Scheme:
a. Generally single account b. Joint mode with the spouse
c. Joint operation with any one d. a and b only
37. X
opened an account with your branch under the Senior Citizens Saving
Scheme 2004 for 3 years. He needs the funds to meet his medical expenses
by raising a loan on the basis of pledge of the deposit. What precautions
would be taken by the bank:
a. The loan cannot be sanctioned under the scheme
b. The loan amount should not be more than 80% of the amount of original deposit
c. The loan amount will be linked to present maturity value of the deposit
d. The loan would be allowed after obtaining a written request supported by an
estimate from hospital
Government business products:
38. What are the min & max amounts accepted in Sukanya Samriddhi Account
a. Min 500 & Max 10000 in a year
b. No Min & Max 1,00,000/-
c. Min of Rs.1000 & Max of Rs.1,50,000/- in a Financial Year
d. No min & No Max ceiling
39. When can the SSA account will mature for payment
a. 10years from the date of opening
b. 18 years from the date of opening of account
c. It is a SB account, hence no maturity period
d. Account matures on completion of 21 years from the date of opening of the
account

40. Whether defaulted SSA account can be regularized
a. within 15 years of opening by paying Rs.100 penalty
b. within 15 years of opening by paying Rs.50/- as penalty.
c. Any time during pendency of the tenure
d. Once defaulted, it can not be regularized.
41. Whether premature closure is permitted in SSA account

a. Death of Beneficiary Account Holder
b. The account holder becoming a Non-citizen or Non-resident of India.
c. O
n grounds of medical support in life threatening diseases of the Account
Holder and death of the guardian.
d. All the above
42. What is the maximum period of the PPF account

43. How the interest will be computed on PPF install ments

a. Interest will be credited to the account at the end of each year
b. Calculated on the lowest balance between the close of the 5th day and the
end of the month.
c. Both a & b
d. Only on daily products
44. The pension scheme offered in Banks called as

a. It is Defined Contributory Pension Scheme (DCPS)
b. New Pension Scheme (NPS)
c. Employees Pension Scheme (EPS)
d. Both A & B
45. Atal Pension Yojana Scheme is offered to:

a. All citizens in the unorganized sector
b. Only to Agriculture Laboureres
c. All the Income Tax payers
d. Central Government Employees
46. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) offered to the following:
a. All Individuals who are working in Public Sector
b. All Savings Bank customers aged 18 to 70 years
c. All citizens who are in unorganized sector
d. All SB accounts holders of PSB irrespective of Age.

47. What is the sum insured under PMSBY
a. Rs. 100000 to Rs.500000/- depending on selection by Account holder
b. Natural Death during the policy in force
c. Rs.50000 to Rs.100000 to all our SB account holders
d. Death due to accident, Loss of both eyes, hands, foot subject to maximum of
Rs.2 lakhs
48. Pradhan mantra Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) Scheme covers
a. Death due to any reason
b. Death due on Natural
c. Death due to accident
d. It is a General Insurance Scheme
49. Our Bank has entered into MoU for Life Insurance with
a. New India Assurance Company
b. United India Insurance Company
c. Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Co
d. Canara HSBC OBC Life Insurance Co
50. Customers’ Day is to be observed on

a. 10 of every month b. 3rd Friday of every month
c. 15th of every month d. Last day the month
51. Customers’ Fortnight every year is observed between

a. 14th Nov to 28th Nov b. 1st Jan to 14th Jan
c. 10th Feb to 25th Feb d. Every month Last 15 days
52. Statutory Liquidity Ratio is governed by

a. RBI act b. N I Act
c. RTI act d. Banking Regulation Act 1949
53. The time limit adopted by our bank to ensure redressal of complaints/
representations received from the customers directly is:
a. 7 days c. 21 days
b. 30 days d. 24 hours
54. The time limit adopted by our bank to ensure redressal of complaints/
representations received from PM‟s office is
a. 10 days b. 7 days c.15 days d. 3 days

55. Balancing of security items is to be done under the supervision of :
a. Branch In charge c. Cashier & Officer
b. Two PA holders d. Both the Key Holders
56. Off-shore Banking Unit can do the following Operations?

a. Lending Abroad c. Treasury Operations
b. Deemed Exports d. Retail Lending
57. What is the “Quiet Period”?

a. It is the period commencing from the first day following the end of the reporting
period until the release of financial results / performance by the Bank
b. N
o one, including the Designated spokespersons, should communicate to any
one regarding matters relating to earnings and financial performance
c. Both a & b
d. Next 3 days after publishing Balance Sheet
58. GST has come into existence from which date?

a. From 01-07-2017 c. 01-09-2017
b. 01-04- 2017 d. 01-01-2017
59. In case of resident assesses PAN is compulsory for entering into financial
transaction of an amount aggregating to
a. 150000 b. 250000 c. 300000 d. 500000
60. U/S 194 N of Income Tax Act TDS on cash withdrawal 2% is to be deducted if
the aggregate sum of cash during the financial year exceeds
a. 1000000 b. 2500000 c. 10000000 d. 5000000
61. As per Finance Act 2019 the standard deduction of salary is

a. 40000 b.50000 c.75000 d. 25000
62. The threshold limit for TDS on Interest income other than interest on securities
for other than senior citizen, is
a. 10000 or more b. 40000 or more
c. 50000 or more d. 85000 or more

63. The threshold limit for TDS on Interest income other than interest on securities
for senior citizen, is
c. 50000 or more d. 85000 or more
64. The threshold limit for TDS on rental income is

c.100000 or more d.150000 or more
65. Commission payable to Banks on handling Govt. Collection of Tax by bank is

i) Rs40 per transaction Receipt in physical mode
ii) Rs9 per transaction receipt in e- mode.
iii) Pension payment Rs75 per transaction
iv) 6.50p/Rs100
a. (i) and (ii) b. (i) and (iii) c. (ii) and (iii) d. (i) to (iv)
1a 2d 3c 4b 5b 6a 7b 8c 9c 10 b
11d 12 b 13 d 14 a 15 c 16 d 17 c 18 b 19 a 20 c
21 b 22 c 23 d 24 b 25 d 26 b 27 d 28 c 29 b 30 d
31 c 32 c 33 d 34 d 35 d 36 d 37 a 38 c 39 d 40 b
41 d 42 b 43 c 44 d 45 a 46 b 47d 48 a 49 d 50 c
51 a 52 d 53 c 54 b 55 d 56 a 57 c 58 a 59 b 60 c
61 b 62 b 63 c 64 b 65 d

Banking Law & Practice:
Holder And Holder In Due Course:
1. A has received an order cheque which bears a forged endorsement in his favour.
The cheque was originally issued in favour of Mr. X who endorsed in favour Y but
Y had misplaced it and Z who found this cheque endorsed it in favour of A by
forging X’s signature. The holder of cheque will be :
a. A b. Y c. Z d. None of the above
2. Holder in due course is defined u/s ..... of NI Act

a. 10 b. 9 c.18 d. 8 e. 13
3. Endorsee of a forged cheque, is deemed to be holder in due course, if he has

obtained the instrument for value, lawful consideration and in good faith.
(True / False)
4. The holder of a cheque is holder in due course if (a) he has right of possession
(b) he receives instrument for lawful consideration (c) the instrument is in his
possession. Which of these should be satisfied:
a. a and b only b. b and c only c. a and c only d. a to c all
5. A customer tenders to a bank an outstation cheque of Rs.10000 for collection.

He requests for instant credit, to which bank agrees. What would be bank be
called.
a. Agent of customer b. holder for value
c. holder d.holder in due course
6. In case of a gift cheque, the payee can not be holder in due course
(True / False)
7. Who among the following is only a holder and not a ‘holder’ in due course?
a. holder of a bearer cheque
b. holder of a crossed order cheque
c. Holder of a Non-negotiable crossed cheque
d. All the above
8. If X is a payee of a cheque and cheque is misplaced. X is only holder and not
holder in due course. ( True / False )
9. Holder is defined u/s.....of NI Act

a. 10 b. 9 c. 18 d. 8
Keys
1. b 2. b 3. F 4. d 5. b
6. T 7. c 8. T 9. d

Bills Of Exchange And Promissory Note
1. Promissory note has been defined as per section..... NI Act:

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 13
2. Who is liable on a usance bill of exchange:

a. drawer only
b. acceptor only
c. drawer and acceptor both
d. after acceptance primary liability of acceptor and secondary liability of drawer
3. Under section 31 of RBI Act, who can issue the bill of exchange or promissory
note payable to bearer: (a) RBI (b) Central Govt. (c) Commercial Banks (d) any
person in India:
a. a to d all b. a to c al c. c and d only d. a and b only
4. Drawer can withdraw or reduce the days of grace before payment of a usance
bill of exchange. (True / False )
5. Mr. Dinesh Kumar fraudently induces Mr. Tarsem Chand to make a promissory
note in his favour. He endorses it to Mr. Sachin Kumar who takes it for value and
without any notice of the fraud. On presentation of the note for payment. It is
dishonoured. Mr.Sachin Kumar wants to recover this money. When he can sue for
recovery?
a. Since the note has been the result of a fraud, he cannot recover from the party.
b. Since Dinesh Kumar has notice of fraud he is the only person liable on the note.
c. Since Tarsem Chand is also the victim, he is not liable on the note.
d. Both Mr.Tarsem Chand and Dinesh Kumar are liable on the note.
6. If a bill is lost, the holder can get its duplicate as per section 45 A of NI Act.
(True / False)
7. C
urrency notes are promissory notes as these have features similar to promissory
notes
( True / False )
8 A bill of exchange is defined u/s ..... of NI Act.

a. 10 b. 131 c. 5 d. 4 e. 13
9. The provision regarding noting is described under section ........of NI Act.

a. 100 b. 99 c. 85 A d. 131 e. 87

10. A bill is presented to drawee. What is the period during which he is to give his
acceptance?
a. 3 days including holidays b. 3 days excluding holidays
c. 48 hours including holidays d. 48 hours excluding holidays
e. 48 hours excluding Sunday
11. A bill drawn by ABC Ltd in favour of S is endorsed in favour of P in blank. This
bill is stolen by a person called D who delivers it to F for value by writing
the words above the blank endorsement ‘pay to F’. On presentation it is
dishonoured. From whom will F, be able to realise?
a. F can recover from all except P & D
b. F will not be able to recover from any one, since P has not endorsed in favour
of F.
c. F can recover from D alone
d. F can recover from drawer only e. F can recover from any one
12. Where due date of a usance of bill of exchange is to be calculated, the day on
which it is drawn / accepted, shall be included .
(True / False)
13. Where is the time for payment is not mentioned in a promissory note, it is:
a. it is invalid instrument b. inchoate instrument
c. no payment can be demanded d. payable on demand
14. Where interest rate is not mentioned on a promissory note it shall be

18% p. a. as per Section 80 of NI Act. (True / False )
15. If a promissory note is payable in instalments, the period of grace for payment
will be available.
a. only once
b. on each instalment
c. only on last instalment
d. no grace period available for promissory note
16. Firm ABC supplies material to various Govt., departments, against payment to
be received subsequently. Such bills are called?
a. usance bills b. supply bills c. government bills
d. accommodation bills e. demand bills

17. A bill of exchange has been accepted by the drawee and its due date for
payment falls on January 26, which is a holiday u/s 25 of NI Act. Janaury 25 is
a Sunday and January 24 is a local holiday on account of Elections. It should be
paid by the drawee on or before:
a. It can be paid on January 27
b. it can be paid within 3 days from January 26 due to grace period available to
the drawee
c. It can be paid on January 24 only
d. It has to be paid by January 23
e. The bill becomes payable on the next preceding business day due to which it
will be paid on January 27
18. A formal notorial certificate based on noting, to attest dishonour of the bill is
called:
a. noting of the bill b. protesting of the bill
c. notice of dishonour d. court direction
e. any of the above
19. If payment of a bill of exchange falls due on a holiday, it is to be paid on next
banking day.
( True / False )
20. The 3 days of grace for payment of usance bills or promissory nostes are
allowed as per Section.... of NI Act:
a. 22 b. 23 c. 24 d. 25 e. 26
21. What will be due date for a bill dated 24.9.2014 payable 90 days after date:
a. Dec. 23, 2014 b. Dec. 26, 2014
c. Dec. 22, 2014 d. Dec.25, 2014
22. A bill dated 1.1.2014 is payable 2 months after sight and it was sighted on
15.1.2014, but accepted on 18.1.2014. The due date for payment would be:
a. 15.3.2014 b. 18.3.2014 c. 17.3.2014 d. 21.3.2014
23. Which among the following is an inland bill of exchange:

a. a bill drawn in Delhi and payable by Mr. Surinder, resident in India in Mumbai
b. a bill drawn in Kolkata and payable by Mr. Ghosh, resident in India, in Londonc.
a bill drawn in Chennai and payable in Bangalore by Mr. John an NRI
d. all the above

24. A bill of exchange is dated 31.08.2014 and is payable 3 months after date. It is
presented on Sept 02, 2014 and accepted by the drawee on Sept. 03, 2014, its
due date is
a. Dec. 03, 2014 b. Dec. 04, 2014
c. Dec. 05, 2014 d. Dec. 02, 2014
e. Dec. 06, 2014
25. What will be the due date for a bill dated 1.2.2012 payable 45 days after sight
and the bills was accepted on 6.2.2012:
a. 23.3.2012 b. 25.3.2012 c. 26.3.2012 d. 28.3.2012
26. A bill is presented on May 15, 2014 and accepted on 16.5.2014. Its due date of
payment will be ..... if it has to be paid within 2 months of the presentment:
a. July 15, 2014 b. July 19, 2014
c. July 16, 2014 d. July 12, 2014
27. For which among the following, acceptance of the drawee of the instrument is
required:
a. demand promissory note b. usance promissory note
c. demand bill of exchange d. usance bill of exchange
28. What will be the due date of payment for a promissory note dated 1.2.2014
payable one month after its presentment, which is 12.2.2014:
a. 12.03.2014 b. 15.03.2014 c. 04.,03.2014 d. 12.04.2014
29. A foreign bill of exchange is drawn in 3 sets and the 3rd among this set is
presented for payment. If this is paid, the drawee would not get discharged
and he will continue to be liable for the 1st set.
( True / False )
30. A bill dated Dec. 31, 2013 is payable 2 months after date. Its due date of
payment would be:
a. March 07, 2014 b. March 05, 2014
c. March 03, 2014 d. March 02, 2014
e. March 01, 2014
31. The authority to declare holiday u/s 25 of NI Act is originally vested with the
State Govt.
(True / False )

32. What will be due date for a bill dated Nov.10, 2014 payable 4 months after
date:
a. March 12, 2015 b. March 13, 2015
c. March 15, 2015 d. March 11, 2015
33. X draws a bill of exchange on Y. Y accepts it for payment. Actually no sale

purchase has taken place. This bill is called:
a. clean bill of exchange b. documentary bill of exchange
c. foreign bill d. genuine bill
e. accommodation bill
34. Where is the sum for payment is not mentioned in a promissory note, it is:
a. it is invalid instrument b. inchoate instrument
c. no payment can be demanded d. payable on demand
35. Where interest rate is not mentioned on a promissory note it shall be 18% p. a.
as per Section 80 of NI Act. (True / False ).
Keys
1b 2d 3d 4T
5d 6T 7F 8c
9b 10d 11a 12F
13d 14T 15b 16b
17d 18b 19F 20a
21b 22d 23d 24a
25b 26b 27d 28b
29F 30c 31F 32b
33e. 34.b. 35.T

RESERVE BANK OF INDIA ACT & B R act :
1. U/S 49 of RBI Act , which of the following is done by RBI:

a. Announces Bank rate
b. Publishes fortnightly statement of assets and liabilities.
c. Prepares Annual balance sheet
d. None
2. What is meant by scheduled Bank:

a. The Bank under BR Act 1949.
b. A Bank included in 2nd schedule of RBI Act
c. The Bank under Banking Company Act 1956
d. None
3. Banks can return the paid cheques to customer u/s 45 Z of RBI Act.
True/False.
4. Section 35A , banking Regulation Act 1949 empowers RBI of the followings.
a. To impose selective credit control
b. To impose penalty on a Bank.
c. To issue directions in public interest.
d. None
5. The annual return of unclaimed deposit u/s 26 of Banking Regulation Act should
be submitted to RBI within the following days after close of the calander year.
a. 15 Days. b. 23 Days c.30 Days d. 45 days.
KEY:
1.a 2.b 3.T 4.c. 5. c
Cheques:
1. A cheque is defined u/s of NI Act:
a. 6 b. 13 c.9 d. 4
2. Legal amunt in cheque stands for :

a. Amount in words b. Amount in figures
c. Amont in words and figures whichever is higher d. All the above

3. A cheque issued by a customer, the words bearer or order are not written. This
cheque will be treated as :
a. Bearer cheque b. Order Cheque
c. This is not a valid cheque d. This is not nogotiable instrument now
4. If your branch receives a cheque of Rs 500 in figures and Rs five lacs in words
a. Is return as mandate is not clear
b. Is paid amount written in words
c. Is paid amount in figures as it less amount
d. Is paid amount in words if otherwise in order under sec 18 of NI Act
5. On cheque issued by a customer, the words bearer or order are wirtten. This
cheque will be treaed as
a. A bearer Cheque
b. An Order Cheque
c. Not a valid cheque
d. This not negotiable instrument now
6. In which of the following types of cheques alterations are not allowed by RBI
a. Paper cheque b. CTS cheque
c. Electronic Cheque d. Cheque with account payee crossing
Ans: 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. a 6. b

FINANCIAL INCLUSION
1. B
anking services under Financial inclusion consists of: Savings facility, Micro
Credit, Micro Remittance, Transactions, …. ……………, and ---------------
a. Micro insurance and Pension Payment
b. Pension payment and Financial literacy
c. Credit guarantee and Micro insurance
d. Financial literacy and Credit guarantee
2. T
he account holders of BSBD Account will be provided with RuPay debit card
with accident insurance coverage of …………
a. Rs. 25000 b. Rs. 50000 c. Rs. 1.50 lakhs d. Rs.2.0 lakh
3. The new model of Business Correspondent in our Bank is called

a. Integra Microsystem Model b. BCA Model
c. BCO Model d. Hybrid Model
4. To get a fixed remuneration of Rs.5000 per month the Business Correspondent
should do more than transactions .
a. 100 b. 200 c. 250 d. 50
5. B
CA gets an amount (of fees/ remuneration) of Rs…….. for Opening of a
Savings Bank account through Non e-KYC
a. Rs.10 b. Rs.15 c. Rs.20 d. Rs.25
6. The Financial Literacy centre and rural branches of the banks to conduct out
door financial literacy camps at least ----------------
a. Once in a month b. Twice in a month
c. Twice in a quarter d. Once in a quarter
7. Mode of Transactions in Comprehensive Financial Inclusion Plan ( being

implemented during period of Aug 2014 to August 2018 ) is………
a. Online b. Off line c. Across the counter d. None ofthese
8. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyothi Bima Yojana is administered through

a. M/s Integra micro systems
b. M/s FINO Paytec ltd
c. Life insurance Corporation of India
d. Canara HSBC OBC Life insurance company.
9. S aving bank account holders, within the age group of ----- to ----- are eligible to
avail cover under PMJJBY :
a. 21 to 50 years b. 18 to 55 years
c. 18 to 50 years d. None of the above

10. Business Correspondent should not collect …………………………………& interest free
deposits from BCAs.
a. Non-refundable deposits b. Refundable deposits
c. Security deposits d. None of the above
11. B
enefits of PMJJBY insurance Scheme offers life cover for death for an amount
of………
a. Rs. 5 lakhs b. Rs.2. lakhs c. Rs.1 lakh d. Rs.1.50 lakhs
12 In respect of Atal Pension Yojana the central Govt contributes …………..
of subscriber’s contribution or Rs …………….whichever is lower to each
subscriber.
a. 50% , Rs. 1000/- b. 50% , Rs. 2000/-
c. 50%, Rs 5000/- d. 50% Rs 10000
13. After 28.8.2018, the focus of Financial Inclusion changed from opening of
accounts from ……….to ………..
a. villages having population >2000 to villages having population <2000
b. every house hold to every adult
c. villages having population <2000 to every household
d. There was no change
14. W
hat is the amount of reimbursement for each account (covered under
insurance) as administrative expenses to Bank in PMJJBY
a.Rs. 9 b.Rs 11 c.Rs.12 d.Rs. 13.
15. Under PMJJBY "CHOICE" shall process the claim and disburse the money
within……………. From the receipt of the claims from Bancassurance section
HO provided all claim papers are in order.
a. 3 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 30 days d. 45 days
16. PMSBY covers the SB account holders of our bank in the age group of
a. 18 to 70 years b. 18 to 55 years
c. 21 to 70 years d. 21 to 55 years
17. Irrespective of the date of enrolment under PMJJBY/PMSBY Schemes , the

renewal will fall due on…………….
a. 1st July of subsequent year b. 1st June of subsequent year
c. 1st May of subsequent year d. None of the above

18. T
he benefit of PMSBY in case of death is Rs --------and the total irrecoverable
loss of one eye or loss of use of one hand or one foot is --------------
a. Rs 2.00 lakhs and Rs 1.00 Lakhs
b. Rs 1.00 Lakhs and Rs 1.50 lakhs
c. Rs 1.00 Lakhs and Rs. 0.75 lakhs
d. Rs 1.50 Lakhs and Rs. 0.75 lakhs
19. The premium amount payable for covering under PMSBY is………………..
a. Rs 11/- per annum. b. Rs 12/- per annum.
c. Rs 13/- per annum. d. Rs 330/- per annum.
20. U
nder PMSBY, within …………. the nominee of the insured should give notice
to the bank regarding accident / death of the insured customer :
a. 1 Month b. 3 Weeks c. 30 days d.None of the above
21. F
or lodging the claims under PMSBY, all papers should be submitted within ------
------ from the date of accident :
a. 60 days b. 30 days c. 3 weeks d. None of the above
22. M
aximum transaction through BC (including deposit & withdrawal) per
customer on a particular day is for AePS and for Non – AePs
transactions.
a. Rs.10000 & 5000 b. Rs.5000 & 5000
c. Rs.5000 & 2000 d. Rs.20000 & 10000
24. APY – Atal Pension Yojana is administered by :

a. Pension Fund Regulatory Authority
b. Atal Pension fund Regulatory Authority
c. Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority
d. Central Pension & development authority
25. Minimum and maximum age for Atal Pension Yojana is:
a.21 and 45 years b.21 and 40 years
c.18 and 40 years d.18 and 45 years
26. Minimum contribution period for Atal Pension Yojana is……………………..:

a.10 years b.15 years c. 20 years d. 25 years
27. P
ension payment in Atal Pension Yojana commences at the age of…………….:
a. 60years b. 58 years c. 55 years d. 62 years

28. Under Atal Pension Yojana Fixed monthly pension per month for the subscribers
ranges from Rs…………………to Rs…………….
a. Rs 900/- to Rs 2500/
b. Rs 1000/- to Rs 5000/-
c. Rs 1000/- to Rs 3000/-
d. Rs 2000/- to Rs 5000/-
29. Our bank has outsourced operators in Aadhaar Seva Kendras established at
identified branches of our Bank to …..
a. M/S Integra
b. M/s TATA tech. solitions
c. not out sourced
d. M/s. Canbank Computer Services Limited
30. A customer wishes to join PMJJBY on April 19, the premium he has to pay at the
time of enrolment is ……….plus ST
a. Rs.12
b. Rs.330
c. Rs.86
d. cannot be enrolled at the mid of the annual coverage
Answer Key
1.a 11.b 21.a
2.d 12.a 22.a
3.d 13.b 23.b
4.b 14.b 24.C
5.b 15.c 25.c
6.a 16.a 26.c
7.a 17.b 27.a
8.d 18.a 28.b
9.c 19.b 29. d
10.a 20.c 30. c

PRIORITY SECTOR LENDING
1. Revised priority sector lending guidelines have been issued by RBI w.e.f
23.04.2015 on the basis of internal working group headed by
a. Mr. C S Murthy committee b. Ms Lily Vadera
c. Mr. M V Nair d. Mr. Deepak mohanty committee
2. What is the priority sector lending target for Domestic scheduled commercial
banks (excluding RRBs and Small Finance Banks) and Foreign banks with 20
branches and above
a. 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
b. 40% of Credit Equivalent amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure
c. 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance
Sheet Exposure, whichever is lower
d. 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance
Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher
3. W hich of the following priority sector target is not mandatory for domestic
banks?
a. Overall – 40% of ANBC or credit equivalent of off balance sheet exposure
b. Weaker section – 10% of ANBC or credit equivalent of off balance sheet exposure
c. Agriculture 18 % of ANBC or credit equivalent of off balance sheet exposure
d. MSME – 10 % annual growth under micro accounts,
4. Priority sector targets are linked to a) adjusted net bank credit b) Credit
equivalent of off- balance sheet exposure c) accounted net bank credit d) Credit
equivalent to bank credit d) whichever is lower e) whichever is higher
a. b, c and e together b. a, d and d together
c. a, b and e together d. a, b and c together
5. Priority Sector includes the following categories:

i. Agriculture ii. MSME iii. Export credit iv. Education
v. Housing vi. Social Infrastructure vii. Renewable Energy
viii. Others
a. i to viii all b. i to v only
c. i, iii, iv, v, vi d. i,ii and vi only
Agriculture
6. T
he agriculture loans with in priority sector has following segments 1) Farm
credit, 2) Agriculture infrastructure 3) Ancillary Activities 4) PMJDY 10000/- IOD,
5) Housing loan in rural area upto 10 lakhs.
a. 1 to 5 all b. 1 to 4 only
c. 1to 3 only d. 4 and 5 only

7. W
hich of the following statement regarding Rural Infrastructure Development
Fund is/are correct.
a. Amount to be deposited in RIDF to be classified as part of ‘Other Assets’ –
Schedule 11 of bank balance sheet.
b. The achievement will be arrived at the end of financial year based on the
average of priority sector target /sub-target achievement as at the end of each
quarter.
c. The interest rates on banks’ contribution to RIDF, tenure of deposits, etc. shall
be fixed by Reserve Bank of India from time to time.
d. All the above
8. Within the target for agriculture What is lending target for Small and Marginal
Farmers?
a. 8% of ANBC or CE-OBS exposure, whichever is higher
b. 7% of ANBC or CE-OBS exposure, whichever is higher
c. 8% of agriculture loans
d. 7% of agriculture loans
9. In case of DRI advances, which of the following target is correct

a. 1% of the previous year’s Gross Credit.
b. 2/3 rd credit should go to SC/ST.
c. 40% advance should be through rural/semi urban branches
d. 40% advances to SC/ST and 2/3rd should be through rural and semi urban
branches
e. a and d
10. Farmers can be granted post-harvest loans against hypothecation or pledge or

warehouse receipts for an amount upto Rs. …………… under Priority Sector
a. 50 lakhs b. 25 lakhs c. 10 lakhs d. 100 lakhs
11. Farmers can be granted post – harvest loans against hypothecation or pledge or
warehouse receipts for a period up to ………….
a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 3 months
12. W hat is the aggregate loan limit for Agriculture Infrastructure per borrower
from the banking system for priority sector classification
a. 5 cr b. 10 cr c. 50 cr d. 100 cr
13.
Loans to corporate farmers, farmers’ producer organizations/companies of
individual farmers, partnership firms and co-operatives of farmers directly
engaged in Agriculture and Allied Activities, viz. diary, fishery, animal husbandry,
poultry, bee-keeping and sericulture up to an aggregate limit of Rs ______ per
borrower to be classified under Farm Credit-Agriculture.
a. 10 million b.20 million c. 5 million d. 2 million

14. Loans for plant tissue culture and agri biotechnology, seed production,
production of bio – pesticides, bio- fertilizer and vermi composting is part of
………… under priority sector
a. Farm credit b. Agriculture infrastructure
c. Ancillary activity d. None of the above.
15. Obtention of ‘No Due Certificate’ from the individual borrowers (including SHGs
& JLGs) in rural and semi-urban areas for all types of loans including loans
under Government Sponsored Schemes, unless the Government Sponsored
Scheme itself provides for obtention of ‘No Dues Certificate’is applicable
a. U p to 25000/-
b. Up to 50000/-
c. Up to 100000/-
d. irrespective of the amount involved dispensed with
16. Loans to distressed persons (other than farmers) upto Rs. ………….. per borrower
to prepay their loans to non-institutional lenders can be classified as part of
other priority sector.
a) 25000/- b. 35000/- c. 50000/- d. 100000/-
17.
Loans for Food and Agro Processing units upto an aggregate sanctioned limit of
Rs 100 crore per borrower to be classified as
a. Direct MSE advance b. Indirect Agriculture advance
c. Ancillary activities d. Agriculture infrastructure
Micro Small Medium Enterprises
18. For a Small enterprise in Manufacturing sector , which of the following

investment criteria is correct
a. Investment in equipment- More than ten lakh rupees but does not exceed two
crore rupees
b. Investment in plant and machinery - More than twenty five lakh rupees but
does not exceed five crore rupees
c. Investment in plant and machinery- Does not exceed twenty five lakh rupees
d. Investment in equipment- Does not exceed ten lakh rupees
19. The maximum amount of credit facilities extended by MLIs (Member Lending
Institution) to a single borrower, which is covered by Credit Guarantee Fund
Trust for MSE scheme (other than Retail Trade) is
a. Rs 50 lakhs covering working capital and term loan only
b. Rs 100 lakhs covering working capital and term loans only
c. Rs 200 lakhs covering Fund based & Non Fund based loans only
d. Rs100 lakhs covering for working capital and Rs 100 lakhs for term & Non fund
base loan

20. What is mandated target for Micro enterprises under Priority sector
a) 7.5% of ANBC or CE-OBS exposure whichever is higher
b. 7% of ANBC or CE-OBS exposure whichever is higher
c. 8% of ANBC or CE-OBS exposure whichever is higher
d. 7% of MSE loans
Housing Loan
21. What is expiry date of Priority sector lending certificate (PSLC)?

a) Valid for 2 years b) Valid till Mar 31 & will expire on April 1st
c) Valid for 3 years d) Valid for 5 years
22. The eligibility under priority sector loans to Housing Finance Companies
(HFCs) is restricted to ___ percent of the individual bank’s total priority sector
lending, on an ongoing basis.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
23. Bank Loans to housing projects exclusively for EWS and LIG are eligible to be
classified under housing -priority sector provided total cost up to 10 lakh per
dwelling unit with annual family income up to Rs________ for EWS &
Rs _______ PA for LIG , irrespective of the location
a) 3 lakhs & 6 lakhs b) 2 lakhs & 4 lakhs
c) 3 lakhs & 5 lacs d) 1 lakhs & 2 lakhs
24. Housing loan for repair to damaged houses can be classified as Housing Loans
under Priority sector if the loan amount is up to …. in other than Metro centre.
a) 1 lakh b) 2 lakh c) 3 lakh d) 5 lakh
25. Housing loan for repair to damaged houses can be classified as Housing
loans under Priority sector if the loan amount is up to Rs …. in Metro centre
a) 1 lakh b. 2 lakh c. 3 lakh d. 5 lakh
26. Bank loans to any governmental agency for construction of dwelling units or for
slum clearance and rehabilitation of slum dwellers are classified as Housing
loan under Priority sector subject to a ceiling of Rs ……… per dwelling unit.
a) 2 lakh b. 3 lakh c. 5 lakh d. 10 lakh
27. Loans sanctioned by banks for housing projects exclusively for the purpose
of construction of house for economically weaker section and low income
groups, the total cost of which does not exceed Rs……….. per dwelling unit
can be classified as housing loan under priority sector
a. 2 lakh b. 3 lakh c. 5 lakh d. 10 lakh

28. Bank loans to Housing Finance Companies approved by NHB for their refinance,
for on- lending for the purpose of purchase/construction/ reconstruction
of individual dwelling units or for slum clearance and rehabilitation of slum
dwellers, subject to an aggregate loan limit of Rs…….. per borrower
29. Priority sector lending certificate (PSLC) can be issued with a standard lot
size of ______and multiple there of_________.
a. 1 Million b. 2.5 Million c. 5 Million d. 10 Million
Education
30. The amount of education loan that can be classified as priority sector (which
one is correct)
a. Loan up to Rs. 10.00 lakh irrespective of sanctioned amount to be considered
as eligible for priority.
b. Education in India Rs 20 lakhs and education of abroad Rs 10 lakhs
c. Education in India Rs 10 lakhs and education of abroad Rs 20 lakhs
d. Education in India Rs 20 lakhs and education of abroad Rs 20 lakhs
31. In education loan the security norms are as under (which one is not correct)
a. For all loans upto Rs 7.5 lakhs to be covered under credit guarantee fund
scheme.
b. For all loan up to Rs 7.5 lakhs no collateral or 3rd party guarantee to be taken
c. For loans above Rs 4 lakhs collateral can be taken.
d. For loans above Rs 7.5 lakhs collateral or 3rd party guarantee can be taken.
32. Maximum repayment period permitted under education loan is

a. 10 years b. 7 years
c. 12 years d. 15 years
Renewal energy
33. Under priority sector, the loans can be sanctioned by banks directly to
individuals up to Rs…. For renewable energy solutions for households.
a. 10 million b. 2 million c. 5 million d. 1 million
34. Under priority sector, the loans can be sanctioned by bank up to ……. for solar
based power generators, biomass based power generators, wind mills, micro
hydel plants and for non conventional energy based public utilities viz. street
lighting systems, and remote village electrification.

Social Infrastructure
35. Bank loans up to a limit of Rs _______ per borrower for building social
infrastructure for activities namely schools, health care facilities, drinking
water facilities and sanitation facilities including construction/ refurbishment
of household toilets and household level water improvements in Tier II to Tier
VI centres comes under priority sector.
Export
36.The Export Credit extended by Domestic Banks will be classified as priority
sector provided incremental export credit over corresponding date of the preceding
year, up to 2 per cent of ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet
Exposure, whichever is higher, effective from April 1, 2015 subject to a sanctioned
limit of up to Rs __________per borrower to units
37. The Export Credit extended by Foreign banks with less than 20 branches will
be classified as priority sector provided Export credit allowed up to ________ of
ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is
higher.
a) 32 % b) 2 % c) 2.5 % d) 30%
38. Types of Priority sector lending certificates (PSLC) that can be issued by banks
are
1) PSLC Agriculture 2) PSLC Small and Marginal Farmers
3) PSLC Micro enterprises 4) PSLC General.
a) 1 to 4 all b) 1 and 3 all c) 1,2 and 3 only d) 1,3 and 4 only
Keys:
1 b 2 d 3 d 4 c 5 a
6 c 7 d 8 a 9 e 10 a
11 b 12 d 13 b 14 b 15 d
16 d 17 c 18 b 19 c 20 a
21 b 22 d 23 a 24 b 25 d
26 d 27 d 28 c 29 b 30 a
31 c 32 d 33 d 34 c 35 b
36 c 37 a 38 a

MCQ
GOVERNMENT SPONSORED SCHEMES
PMEGP- Prime Minister employment generation program
1. Beneficiary’s contribution (i.e.margin) in PMEGP is--- as percentage of project
cost:
a. 10% by general category and special category persons
b. 5% by general category and special category persons
c. 10% by general category and 5% by special category borrowers
d. 5% by general category and 5% by special category borrowers
2. Rate of subsidy in urban areas in PMEGP is --- as percentage of project cost:
a. 15% for general and special category persons
b. 25% for general and special category persons
c. 15% for general and 10% by special category persons
d. 15% for general and 25% by special category persons
3. Rate of subsidy in rural areas in PMEGP is --- as percentage of project cost:
a. 35% for general and special category persons
b. 25% for general and special category persons
c. 25% for general and 35% for special category persons
d. 35% for general and 25% for special category persons
4. Which of the following is correct with regard to eligibility criteria for PMEGP:
a. Age of individual should be between 18-25
b. There is no income ceiling criteria
c. Assistance is available to new as well as old unit
d. Maximum education is 8th pass if cost of project is above Rs 10 lac for all type
of units
5. Under PMEGP collateral security can be taken in which of the following cases
a. If project cost involves loan at least Rs 10 lac for business and service purpose
b. If project cost involves loan at least Rs 10 lac for business and industry purpose
c.
If project cost involves loan more than Rs 10 lac for business, industry
and service purpose
d. If project cost involves loan at least Rs 5 lac for industry alone
6. Repayment of loan under PMEGP can be made as under:

a. In 3 to 7 years with a moratorium of 6-18 months
b. In 3 to 7 years with moratorium up to 6 months
c. In 3 to 5 years with moratorium prescribed at time of sanction
d. In 5 to 7 years with moratorium prescribed at time of sanction

7. Under PMEGP---% of the margin money (subsidy) projects should be from rural
areas:
a. 60% b. 50% c. 40% d. 25%
8. For PMEGP, rural area is an area classified as ------

a. If population does not exceed 20,000
b. If population does not exceed 10,000
c. If population does not exceed 5,000
d. As per state government record
National Rural Livelihood Mission(NRLM)
9. Which of the following in general, is eligible as a borrower under NRLM?

a. SC/ST women and non SC/ST women
b. Women self help groups
c. SC/ST and non-SC/ST men
d. Any of the above
10. Under NRLM scheme in general what is the no. of persons in a women self help
group?
a. 5 to 20 b. 5 to 15 c. 10 to 15 d. 10 to 20
11. What is the amount of capital subsidy available under NRLM scheme ?
a. 30% for individuals b. 50% for self help group
c. 40% for SC/ST d. No capital subsidy is available
12. The repayment period for the loan under NRLM, does not match in which of the
following:
a. First dose: 12-18 months in monthly/quarterly instalments.
b. Second dose: 18-24 months in monthly/quarterly instalments.
c. a & b
d. F
ourth dose onwards: 3-6 years in monthly/quarterly based on the cash flow
statements.
13. Under national rural livelihood mission (NRLM) scheme, what is amount
up to which no collateral or margin is to be taken:
a. Rs 2 lac b. Rs 5 lac c. Rs 10 lac d. No collateral to be obtained

14. The term loan under NRLM, does not match in which of the following:
a. First Dose: 6 times of the existing corpus (Min Rs 1 lakh).
b. Second Dose: 8 times of the existing corpus or (Min Rs 2 lakh).
c. Third Dose: Minimum of Rs 3 lakhs based on the Micro credit plan.
d. Fourth Dose: Minimum of Rs 4 lakhs based on the Micro credit plan.
15. Coverage under NRLM, does match in which of the following:

a. 60 % of beneficiaries SC/ST, 25% minorities and 5% persons are with disabilities.
b. 50 % of beneficiaries SC/ST, 15% minorities and 3% persons are with disabilities.
c. 60 % of beneficiaries SC/ST, 35% minorities and 5% persons are with disabilities.
d. 50 % of beneficiaries SC/ST, 25% minorities and 3% persons are with disabilities.
National urban livelihood mission(NULM)
16. THE project cost under National urban livelihood mission (NULM) in case of
individual micro enterprises is restricted to:
a. Rs 50000 b. Rs 1 lac c. Rs 2 lac d. Rs 5 lac
17. Under NULM, which of the following statement is correct regarding

repayment period and moratorium period for SHG
a. Repayment period 3 to 7 years and moratorium as per bank discretion
b. Repayment period 3 to 7 years and moratorium 6 to 18 months
c. Repayment period 5 to 7 years and moratorium 6 months
d. Repayment period 5 to 7 years and moratorium as per bank discretion
DRI Scheme
18. WHAT is the income criteria in case of DRI elegibility

a. Rs 11800 in urban areas and Rs 11250 in rural areas
b. All person below poverty line
c. Rs 18000 in rural areas and Rs 24000 in urban areas
d. Rs 24000 in rural areas and Rs 18000 in urban areas
19. What is the extent of loan that is permitted under DRI:

a. Economiv activity upto : Rs 15000
b. Upto Rs 5000 as additional loan to disabled persons for purchace of artificial limbs
c. Housing loan upto Rs 20000 to sc/st or under Indira awas yojana
d. All the above

PMAY- Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
20. A person who is eligible to get MIG –I & MIG-II with income of 12 and 18 lakhs, he/
she is eligible to get four times of gross income or maximum of 48 lakhs & 72
lakhs respectively. In such case bank are ask to claim subsidy for HL amt upto
a. 9 lakhs & 12 lakhs b. 6 lakhs & 12 lakhs
c. only 6 lakhs d. MIG I & MIG II PMAY loan is not eligible for subsidy
21. LIG & EWS PMAY loan is eligible to claim subsidy of 6.5 % for 6 lakhs for 20
year. In respect of MIG I & MIG II Housing loan is eligible to claim subsidy of….
a. 4% & 3 % respectively b. 2% & 3 % respectively
c. 4% & 2 % respectively d. 6.5% for 20 yrs
22. Eligible interest subsidy under PMAY

a. 6.5% up to housing loan amount 6 lakhs
b. 4% upto housing loan amount 9 lakhs
c. 3% upto housing loan amount 12 lakhs
d. All the above
23. A
person belong to Backward classes notified by Central Govt / State Govt
with income of 1,20,000/- in urban and 98,000/- in rural area are eligible to
get concessional rate of interest advance under NBCFDC, rate of interest range
from ……
a. 2% to 4% b. 4% to 6 % c. 4% to 8% d. 5% to 10%
24. KRISHI SAMPADA Scheme is one of the Govt. of India initiative to develop
a. Micro finance for small farmer for agriculture purpose
b. Finance to set – up self employment ventures
c. Finance to women SHGs
d. Agro marine processing and agro processing
25. Under New Akanksha scheme the rate of interest to pursue professional or
technical education at graduate and higher level to others and girl student is
a. 9% & 8.5 b. 4% & 4% c. 4% & 3.5% d. 5% & 4.5%
26. The objective and the maximum loan quantum of loan under Swarnima
Scheme is
a. Micro finance for small farmer for agriculture purpose
b. Inculcating the spirit of self-dependence among the women of Backward
classes living below double the poverty line under Term Loan, 1 lakh
c. Finance to women SHGs
d. Agro marine processing and agro processing

27. The maximum loan amount and the rate of interest under Saksham (Self
Emplyoment Loan-MSME Scheme) is
a. Rs 15 lakh. ROI - i) Upto Rs 5 Lakh : 6% p.a. ,ii) Above Rs 5 Lakh & upto Rs 15 lakh
: 8% p.a.
b. Rs 10 lakh. ROI - i) Upto Rs 5 Lakh : 6% p.a. ,ii) Above Rs 5 Lakh & upto Rs 10 lakh
: 8% p.a.
c. Rs 15 lakh. ROI - i) Upto Rs 5 Lakh : 6% p.a. ,ii) Above Rs 5 Lakh & upto Rs 15 lakh
: 8% p.a.
d. Rs 10 lakh. ROI - i) Upto Rs 5 Lakh : 7% p.a. ,ii) Above Rs 5 Lakh & upto Rs 10
lakh : 8% p.a.
KEYS
1c 2d 3c 4b 5c 6b
7b 8a 9b 10 d 11 d 12 c
13 c 14 d 15 b 16 c 17 c 18 c
19 d 20 a 21 a 22 d 23 c 24 a
25 c 26 b 27 b

6. AGRICULTURE
1. Which of the following does not form part of lending under Farm credit- priority
agriculture
a. Crop loan/ KCC to farmers
b. Medium & Long to farmers for agriculture & allied activities
c. Loans to distressed corporate farmers, partnership firms indebted to non
institutional lenders
d. Loans to corporate farmers , partnership firms up to Rs. 50 lakhs against
pledge/hypothecation of agricultural produce.
2. W
hich of the following does not form part of lending under Agriculture
Ancilliary activity- priority agriculture.
a. Loans up to Rs.5 crore to co-operative societies of farmers for disposing of the
produce of members.
b. Loans for setting up of Agriclinics and Agribusiness Centres.
c. “Loans to Custom Service Units managed by individuals, institutions or
organizations who maintain a fleet of tractors, bulldozers, well-boring
equipment, threshers, combines etc., and undertake farm work for farmers on
contract basis”.
d. Plant tissue culture and agri-biotechnology, seed production, production of bio-
pesticides, bio-fertilizer, and vermi composting.
3. A “qualifying asset “ shall mean a loan disbursed by MFI , where total

indebtedness of the borrower does not exceed ----
a. Rs. 50000 b. Rs.1,00,000/- c. Rs.75000 d. No ceiling
4. Under Command Area, branch can finance up to ----- km & for financing
b e y o n d this distance, the branches have to obtain the permission of ----- for
branch sanctions.
a. 30 & CO b. 16 & Regional Office
c. 16 & CO d. Cannot finance beyond command area.
5. G
ovt. sponsored schemes are to be implemented by rural & semi-urban branches
within their.
a Sevice area villages
b. Sub service area
c. Either in sub service area & command area
d. In the area as sponsored by concerned Govt. Dept./Agency

6. C
ommand area/ sub service area is with reference to ------ where location
of project & Residences of the applicant/ borrower are far off/ different.
a. Residence of the applicant/ borrower
b. Location of the project
c. Either residence of the applicant/ borrower or Location of the project.
7. Margin for KCC loan of Rs.600000 is --

a. 15-25%
b. 10-15%
c. Nil margin for crop loan component & 15-25% for other sub limits of working
capital requirement
d. Nil margin for working capital requirement
8. For other than KCC loans, for loan limit up to Rs. 2,00,000, margin
requirement for Small / Marginal Farmers is---
a. Nil b. 10-15 % c. 15-25 % d. 5-10 %
9. Margin for ALLHV loans other than Medium & Heavy Commercial vehicles (MCV/
HCV) is ---& for MCVs/HCVs it is ----
a. 15 % & 25 % b. 10 % & 15 % c. 10 % & 25 % d. 15 % & 15 %
10. Margin for second hand ALLHV is ---- & for second hand tractor , it is ---
a. 10 % & 15 % b. 15 % & 25 % c. 25 % & 40 % d. 15 % & 40 %
11.
In case party is already having a KCCS loan, and total exposure including
the proposed development/ investment loan exceeds Rs.1,60,000/-, security
to be obtained under this situation is---
a. Hypothecation of crops/ assets created out of our finance.
b. Hypothecation of crops/assets created out of our finance & creation of
charge on landed property
c. Mortgage of land has to be stipulated in addition to hypothecation of crops/
assets created out of our finance
d. Mortgage of land/ co obligation has to be stipulated in addition to
hypothecation of crops/ assets created out of our finance.
12.
In respect of Tractor loans/ power tiller/ Combine harvester/ other farm
machineries, when mortgage of landed property is required to be taken, the
value should be at least -----to the loan amount or security of tangible assets
with requisite margin valued equivalent to the loan amount
a. 125 % b. equal c. 200 % d. 150 %

13. Loan for Deep S ea Fishing vessels, the value of collateral security of
immoveable properties should be at least ---- of the loan amount
a. 200% b. 100 % c. 125 % d. 150 %
14. Mortgage is to be stipulated in respect of which of the following schemes........

a. Krishi Mitra card
b. Kisan Tatkal
c. Scheme for redemption of debt of farmers from non-institutional sources .
d. Loans to Joint farming groups of Bhoomi heena kisan
e. In none of the above
15. Security for dairy finance for loan limit of Rs. 9,50,000 is--
a. Hypothecation of assets to be purchased/financed along with creation of
charge on landed property.
b. Hypothecation of assets to be purchased/ financed.
c. Hypothecation of assets to be purchased/financed plus mortgage of landed
property where primary activities are under taken.
d. Hyp. of assets created out of our finance + Mortgage of land where primary
activities are under taken along with compulsory coverage for credit cover
under CGFMU.
16. Security for poultry finance for loan limit of Rs. 10,50,000 is ---
a. Hypothecation of assets to be purchased/financed along with creation of
charge on landed property.
b. Hypothecation of assets to be purchased/ financed.
c. Hypothecation of assets to be purchased/ financed plus mortgage of landed
property.
d. Hyp. of assets created out of our finance + Mortgage of land along with
compulsory coverage for credit cover under CGFMU
17. While aggregation of loans/liability is to be done for deciding security norms,

the liability of the borrower under which of the following need not be taken
into consideration and vice-versa
a. Gold loans b. Bio-gas loans & Marine Fishery loans
c. ALLHV loans d. a, b & c
18. In respect of ALDIR loans, compounding of interest is applicable under the
following situation:
a. When instalment is over due
b. compounding of interest is not applicable c. when entire loan becomes overdue
d. When interest is not serviced within due date

19. Processing charges are not to be collected in respect of loans granted to ---
a. Loans/advances exclusively against our own deposits
b. Government sponsored Schemes
c. Self -Help groups
d. Agriculture loans to employees
e. All the above
20. Powers for accepting security of alternate landed property of a third party is
vested with-
a. Respective sanctioning authority b. DM/ AGM-CAC of RO
c. AGM-CAC of CO d. Circle Head
21. Cut off limit for appraisal of term loan proposals by Agricultural Innovation
Centre (AIC), HO for new customers & existing customers is above—
a. Rs.100 lakhs & Rs. 200 lakhs
b. Rs.50 lakhs & Rs.100 lakhs
c. Rs.150 lakhs & Rs.300 lakhs
d. Rs. 200 lakhs & Rs. 400 lakhs
22. Obtention of bills, vouchers, receipts, etc., can be waived for development
agricultural loans & for allied activities to agricultural loans up to loan limit of
---
a. 25000 b. Rs.50000
c. 100000 d. Rs.2,00,000 & Rs. 50,000 respectively
23. In respect of KCCS / Canara Kisan OD / Kisan Tatkal / Krishi Mitra / tenant
farmers groups, obtention of bills/vouchers is waived up to---
a. Rs.50,000 b. Rs.1,00,000
c. Rs.2,00,000 d. Irrespective of loan amount
24. Valuation of agricultural lands with structures (like farm house/poultry sheds)
to be taken once in ---- years and in case of lands without any structures, once
in--- years.
a. 3 & 5 b. 5 & 8 c. 1 & 3 d. 5 & 10
25. No Due Certificate’ from the individual borrowers (including SHGs & JLGs) in
rural and semi- urban areas for all types of loans is dispensed with for loan
limits----
a. Irrespective of the amount involved b. Rs.25000
c. Rs.50000 d. Rs.1,00,000

26. In which of the following cases, though CIR is to be mandatorily obtained,
respective sanctioning authority can consider the proposal irrespective of Risk
Grade.
a. Renewal of existing facilities
b. Government Sponsored Schemes with aggregate loan quantum up to Rs.2 lacs
to borrower;
c. Agri-Loans up to and including Rs. 3.00 Lakh in aggregate to a borrower /
individual.
d. All the above a, b & c
27. In case of agricultural loans, though CIR is to be mandatorily obtained,

respective sanctioning authority can consider the proposal irrespective of Risk
Grade up to Rs. _____ in aggregate to a borrower / individual.
a. Rs. 3.0 lakhs
b. Rs.1.5 lakhs
c. Rs.1 lakhs
d. Irrespective of the limit
28. Coverage of Personal Accident Insurance scheme for KCC card holders by
a. GIC b . LIC c. BAGIC d. UIA
29. Which of the following risk is covered by PMFBY: 1) yield losses 2) prevented
sowing losses 3) post harvest losses 4) localized calamities 5) war and nuclear
risk
a. 1 to 5 all b. 1 to 4 only c. 1 to 3 only d. 1 only
30. Risk coverage under PAIS for Permanent total disability is

a. 1,50,000/- b. 2,00,000/- c. 1,87,500/- d. 1,33,500/-
31. Maximum ceiling for agricultural gold loan for crop production is --- & for non
crop production, it is ----
a. 1 lakhs & 1.5 lakhs b. 5 lakhs & 10 lakhs
c. 2 lakhs & 3 lakhs d. 3 lakhs & 3 lakhs
32. In case of ALGL for Crop Loan Purpose, Scale of Finance or ---- of the gold
value, whichever is less to be taken as loan quantum.
a. 80 % b. 60 % c. only as per net value of gold d. 75%
33. MinRe-Appraisal charges for agriculture gold loans is Rs.--- per Rs. 100 with
ceiling of Rs__________
a. 0.30, Rs. 100 b. 0.50, Rs.200 c. 0.50. Rs.100 d. 0.30 Rs. 200

34. Re-appraisal charges for agril. gold loans is Rs.--- per Rs. 100 with ceiling of
Rs—
a. 0.15 , Rs. 50 b. 0.50 , Rs.200 c. 0.50. Rs.100 d. 0.30 Rs. 200
35.
A budget of Rs. .......................- in respect of rural and semi urban
branches has been provided for conducting a minimum .... Extension activities
per year.
a. Actual expenses incurred & 2 b. Actual expenses incurred & 4
c. 2500, & 4 d. 5000 & 4
Agricultural Gold Loans
36. In case of missing of gold loan packets on account of theft, burglary, robbery
and dacoity, Circle head shall permit compensation to borrowers and
Settlement of claim shall be done at gold rate prevailing as
a. at gold rate prevailing as on date of theft for 22 carat gold
b. rate prevailing on date of settlement for 22carat gold
c. at gold rate prevailing as on date of theft for 22carat gold or rate prevailing
on date of settlement for 22carat gold whichever is higher
d. at gold rate prevailing as on date of theft for 22carat gold or rate prevailing
on date of settlement for 22carat gold whichever is lower
37. For term Loan Agricultural Purposes Against Gold Jewellery, max. loan limit
is---
38. U
nder Term Loan For Agricultural Purposes Against Gold Jewellery, Which of
the following is correct towards Margin
1. minimum of 40% on appraised value for 3 year repayment option or lending
rate whichever is lower
2. 50% margin >3 years-up to 5 year repayment option or lending rate whichever
is lower
3. minimum of 50% on appraised value for 3 year repayment option or lending
rate whichever is lower
4. 40% margin >3 years-up to 5 year repayment option or lending rate whichever
is lower
a. 1 & 2 b. 1 & 3 c. 2 & 3 d. 3 & 4
39. Maximum repayment period under Term Loan For Agricultural Purposes Against
Gold Jewellery is---

Kissan Credit Cards Scheme (KCCS)
40. Under Revised KCCS, loan limit should not exceed -------of value of the produce
a. 100 % b. 50% c. 200 % d. 125 %
41. Minimum and maximum loan limit permitted under KCCS

a. Rs. 1000 & Rs. 5,00,000
b. Rs.5000 & Rs.25,00,000
c. No minimum/maximum ceiling. as per Scale of Finance and other norms.
d. Rs. 50,000 & no max. Ceiling
42. For short term crop loans interest subvention at the rate of --- is available
from Govt of India through RBI & additional interest--- is available where the
farmers make prompt payment of the loans
a. 4%,2% b. 2.5%,2.5% c. 2%,3% d. 1.5%, 1.5 %
43. Which of the following does not match

a. Green revolution – rice and wheat
b. Yellow revolution – pulses
c. Blue revolution – fish production
d. White revolution – cotton production
44. Maximum sub limit which can be permitted for working capital to allied
activities and Farm machinery maintenance under revised KCC is---
a. Need based
b. 15% of limit fixed for crop maintenance
c. 10 % of limit fixed for crop maintenance
d. Need based with maximum of 25% of limit fixed for crop maintenance
45. Term loan component under Revised KCCS to meet present & future investment
& development credit requirement is assessed as—
a. Up to max.5 times the annual net income of the farmer.
b. Up to 3 times the annual net income of the farmer.
c. Need based with no ceiling on max. Limit.
d. Up to 3 times the annual net income of the farmer with maximum of Rs. 5
lakhs.
46. KCCS account is considered NPA if drawl / interest debited to the account
remains unpaid for a period of--- from due date
a. 90 days
b. 12 months
c.
Two crop seasons in case of short duration crops and one crop season in
case of long duration crops after becoming due.
d. 24 months

47. Personal Accident Insurance (PAIS) to revised KCCS borrower covers farmers up
to age of --- years, with maximum Sum Assured of --- with annual premium of
Rs.---
a. 50, 1,00,000 & 329 b. 70, 150000 & 25
c. 60 , 2,00,000 & 12 d. 40, 50,000 & 15
Canara Kisan OD
48. Under Canara Kisan OD scheme, mortgage of landed property is to be obtained
with at least ---- value of the limit for loan limit of above ---
a. 100 %, Rs.1,00,000 b. 125 %, Rs.1,50,000
c. 200 %, Irrespective of the limit d. 100 %, Irrespective of the limit
49. Under Canara Kisan OD, maximum sub limit for repayment of genuine Pvt. Debt
is ____
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 1,00,000 d. 2,00,000
50.
Maximum limit under Canara Kisan OD is -----% of value of landed
property offered as security or subject to max. – times of gross annual income
or based on assessment or Rs. 7. 5 lakhs whichever is less
a. 100, 3 b. 200, 4 c. 50, 3 d. 125, 3
51. For Canara Kisan OD scheme,under relaxed norms, maximum limit up to Rs.-
--- lakhs can be financed, with ceiling on per acre of land mortgaged Rs.
1.5 lakhs per acre or --- times gross annual income or based on assessment
whichever is less
a. 7.5, 4 b. 12.5 , 4 c. 12.5, 3 d. 10, 4
Krishi Mitra
52. Maximum limit under Krishi Mitra Card scheme is Rs ---- with tenure up to ---
years for running limit & for single transaction limit, repayable within---years
a. 1,00,000, 3 & 3 b. 50,000, 3 & 5
c. 1,00,000,5 & 5 d. 50,000, 5 & 3
Krishi Tatkal
53. Minimum & Maximum limit under Kisan Tatkal is Rs.--- & Rs. ---- respectively
provided total limit is not more than ---% of KCCS limit & shall not exceed ---
% of estimated annual income of farmer within above ceiling
a. 5000 & 50,000, 50 & 25
b. 1,000 & 50,000 , 50 & 25
c. 5,000 & 50,000, 25 & 50
d. 1000 & 50,000, 25 7 50

Revised Joint Farming Group Of Bhoomi Heen Kisan Scheme
54. Finance under Revised Joint Farming Group of Bhoomi Heen Kisan Scheme can
be for the purpose of---
a. Farm activities b. Allied/Off farm activities
c. Non Farm activities d. a, b, & c
55.
Under Revised Joint Farming Group Of Bhoomi Heen Kisan Scheme, for
financing under model ii-JLG as a group, no. of members in the group may be
--- & ceiling on the quantum of loan is Rs---
a. 5-10 & 5,00,000 b. 4-10 & no ceiling
c. 10-20 & 1,00,000 d. 4-10 & 10,00,000
Self Help Groups

56. For financing SHG under cash credit, no. of members in the group shall be -----
& tenure is --- years
a. 5-10 & 1 b. 10-15 & 3 c. 10-20 & 5 d. 10-20 & 3
57. Under SHG, individual members credit information is to be collected --- at the
time of ------as otherwise it results in non inclusion from reckoning for priority
sector lending.
a. authorised reprentatives operating SHG account & credit linkage
b. authorised reprentatives operating SHG account & opening SB account
c. From all members of SHG & credit linkage
d. From all members of SHG & opening SB account
58. Under Cash Credit to SHG, loan by SHG to individual members is by way of ----
& interest debited to SHG is payable/ serviced by SHG ---
a. Cash Credit & quarterly b. single transaction & quarterly
c. Cash Credit & monthly d. single transaction & monthly
Farm Develpoment Loans
59. Farm Development loans are generally repayable within --- to ---years .
a. 5-9 b. 9-15 c. 3-5 d. 8-10
60. Under Farm Development loans, expenses can be reimbursed within----months

of incurring with maximum permissible reimbursement of Rs.----& obtention of
bills can be waived up to Rs.---
a. 12, 5 lakhs & 25,000 b. 6, 50 lakhs & 50,000
c. 12, 100 lakhs & 1,00,000 d. 6, 100 lakhs & 2,00,000

Farm Machinery Loans
61. Farmer with minimum land holding of – irrigated or – acres of dry land with
minimum of --- hours of work on own farm are eligible for Farm machinery loans.
a. 8 or 16,1000 b. 2 or 4, 1200
c. 6 or 12 , 500 d. 6 or 12, 1000 to 1200
62. Minimum land holding criteria for farm machinery loan can be relaxed
depending on the merits of proposal by ----
a. Respective sanctioning authority b. AGM-CAC of RO
c. DGM-CAC of CO d. Circle Head
63. For financing Power Tillers (alone/with trailers)/ Trailers alone (for existing
Tractors), the applicant should have at least --- acres of irrigated lands or ---
acres of dry land & land holding criteria can be relaxed by ----- depending on
merits .
a. 2, 4 & NHA b. 2, 4 & RO head
c. 2, 4 & Circle head d. 2, 4 & DGM, CO
64. Combine harvester proposals can be sanctioned by—

a. Branches headed by CM/AGM
b. AGM and above authorities at RO / CO
c. Branches headed by Scale—III & above
d. AGM-CAC-CO & above
65. Cap of --- farm machinery loans per branch /year is fixed for branches where
the outstanding Farm Machinery portfolio is less than ----
a. 100, 25 b.25, 50 c. 50, 100 d. 25, 100
66. F or financing second hand tractors age of the tractor should not be more than
----- old, with loan repayable within---years.
a. 5, 5 b. 3, 5 c. 5, 3 d. 3, 3
67. For financing second hand tractors , minimum margin required is----& loan
amount shall not be more than--- of the value of the tractor as per valuation
report or sale consideration whichever is less.
a. 40 %, 60%, b. 60%, 40 % c. 25 %, 75 % d. 10 %, 90 %
68. For financing small tractor scheme up to 30HP, max. loan amount for purchase
of tractor is----lakh & additional loan of Rs.----- for accessories/implements/
trailer may be considered , repayable within----years.
a. 5 lakhs & 0.5 lakhs, 5 b. 3 lakhs & 1 lakhs,5-7
c. 3.5 lakhs & 0.5 lakhs, 5-9 d. 5 lakhs & 1 lakhs, 5-7

69 F
or financing smart machines to eligible farmers, maximum term loan & working
capital is Rs.-- &Rs. ---, respectively, tenability for term loan being – to –years
a. 3.5 lakhs & 0.5 lakhs, 5-7 b. 5.0 lakhs & 0.5 lakhs , 5-9 years
c. 5.0 lakhs & 0.5 lakhs ,5-7 years d. 3.5 lakhs & 0.5 lakhs,5-9 years
ALLHV
70. For financing Heavy Commercial Vehicles (HCV) under ALLHV, farmer should
have minimum-----.
a. 8 acres of perennially irrigated lands
b. 15 acres of perennially irrigated lands
c. 6 acres of perennially irrigated lands
d. 0 acres of perennially irrigated lands
Purchase of Land for Agricultural Purposes

71. Under Scheme for Financing Small & Marginal Farmers for Purchase of Land For
Agricultural purpose, maximum permissible loan is Rs.---, repayable within ---
to – years with moratorium of 24 months
a. 5 lakhs, 12-15 b. 7.5 lakhs, 7-10
c. 10 lakhs , 7-10 d. 7.5 lakhs, 5-7
Produce Loans
72. Farmers can be granted post-harvest loans against hypothecation or pledge or
warehouse receipts for an amount up to Rs ----. for a period up to—
a. Rs 50 lac , 12 months b. Rs 50 lac , 6 months
c. Rs 10 lac, 12 months d. Rs 5 lac, 12 months
73. Under produce loan to Empanelled private ware housing units, for onward
lending to farmers, maximum per farmer limit is Rs --- lakhs and produce
loan lending is restricted to branches upto -- lakhs (NPA<5%)
a. 50, 25 b. 10, 40 c. 25, 10 d. 25, 40
Horticulture
74. Under Development of commercial horticulture through production and post

harvest management of National Horticulture Board, Maximum quantum/
ceiling of back ended capital subsidy available under the scheme is ----- & for
North East Region it is ----- respectively with Lock in period for adjustment of
subsidy being minimum of --- months
a. Rs.25 Lakh & Rs.30 Lakh , 36 b. Rs 30 lakhs, & 50 lakhs, 36
c. Rs 30 lakhs & 40 lakhs, 36 d. R s 30 lakhs & 50 lakhs, 48

75. National Horticulture Board shall deal with projects of area expansion for
open field crops only when project area is over ----- and in case of protected
cultivation area of project is over-----.
a. 2 hectares & 500 square meters b. 4 hectare & 1000 Square meter
c. 5 hectare & 1200 Square meter d. 2 hectare & 500 Square meter
Agri. Clinic & agri. Business
76. Under loan for agri. Clinic & agri. Business centres,for loans beyond Rs--- lakhs,
margin of 15-25 % is to be stipulated with project cost ceiling/ quantum not
exceeding Rs --- lakhs for individual projects & overall ceiling of Rs.--- lakh for
group projects.
a. 5, 20 & 100 b. 1,10, & 50 c. 10, 20 & 100 d. 5, 10 & 50
77. In case of agri-clinics and agro business centres, which of the following is
correct
a. Max loan & project cost per individual can be Rs 20 lac
b. Loan to be classified as direct agriculture advance borrower’s margin is 5%
c. Borrower’s margin is 5%
d. For loan up to Rs 5 lac, no collateral security or margin to be taken.
Fisheries Schemes
78. U
nder MATSYA Suraksha scheme, minimum Rs.--- &maximum loan limit up to Rs-
--- may be sanctioned for the purpose of -----
a. 10,000 & 50,000,meeting fish processing expenses
b. 10,000 & 1,00,000, meeting recurring expenses of fishermen
c. 50,000 & 10,00,000, meeting fish vending by SHG/JLG
d. 10,000 & 50,000,meeting recurring expenses of fishermen
79. Under Matasya Parirakshan, minimum & maximum loan limit for recurring
business expenses of fisherwomen engaged in processing (preparation of dry
fish etc) / retailing of fish in markets, towards cost of procurement of fish for
selling/ processing and related expenses is Rs. --- & ----with repayment period
up to ---months
a. 1000 & 10,000, 12 b. Rs.5,000 & 25,000, 24
c. Rs.5,000 & 50,000, 35 d. 10,000 & 25,000, 36
Relief to Farmers Affected By Natural Calamities:

80. Banks can reschedule crop loan for a period up to 5 years, if crop loss is:
a. Up to 33% b. Between 33% to 50%
c. Above 50% d. At discretion of banks

81. Banks can reschedule crop loan for a period up to 2 years, if crop loss is:
a. Up to 33% b. Between 33% to 50%
c. Above 50% d. At discretion of banks
82. The common thread to extend relief measures including reschedulement of

loans by banks, is that the crop loss assessed on account of natural calamity
should be----- or more and Relief measures under Natural Calamities including
restructuring of advances should be extended within ----from the date of
Natural Calamities.
a. 25 %,30 days b. 50%,60 days
c. 66.67 %, 90 days d. 33% , 90 days
83. “Canara Consumption Loan” to provide relief and to remove the hardships of
existing borrowers who are affected by the consequences of Natural calamity
in Rural and Semi Urban areas, with a maximum ceiling of ----per borrower
repayable within----months.
a. Rs.15000/- , 36 b. Rs.10,000/, 12 months
c. Rs.5,000/, 6 months d. Rs.25,000, 12 months
84. The Maximum Permissible Limit per borrower under Agriculture Gold Loan for
crop Purpose is
a. Rs 3 lakhs b. Rs 5 lakhs
c. Rs 10 lakhs d. Any Amount
85. Risk Coverage under KCCS PAIS for loss of one Limb or One eye is
a. Rs 150000/- b. Rs 187500/- c. Rs 75000/- d. Rs 200000/-
Answers
1c 2d 3b 4b 5a 6b
7c 8b 9c 10 c 11 c 12 b
13 a 14 d 15 d 16 c 17 d 18 c
19 e 20 d 21 c 22 d 23 d 24 a
25 a 26 d 27 a 28 c 29 b 30 c
31 b 32 d 33 b 34 a 35 c 36 c
37 c 38 a 39 b 40 b 41 c 42 c
43 d 44 d 45 d 46 c 47 b 48 c
49 c 50 c 51 b 52 b 53 b 54 d
55 b 56 c 57 c 58 d 59 b 60 d
61 d 62 c 63 a 64 b 65 b 66 b
67 a 68 c 69 b 70 b 71 c 72 a
73 c 74 b 75 b 76 a 77 d 78 b
79 c 80 c 81 b 82 d 83 a 84 b

RETAIL LENDING
1. Minimum marks required to eligible for retail loan:
a. 70 b. 60 c. 80 d. 40
2. Total marks required for recommending ROI concession in retail lending loans:
a. 70 b. 45 c. 60 d.80
3. Retail lending loans of close relative of employees can be sanctioned :

a. Scale I authority b. Scale II
c. Scale III d. Scale IV & above authority
4. Canara Rent and Canara Mortgage proposals with exposures beyond Rs. 5 Crores
falling under HO powers shall be handled, processed and sanctioned by
a. Board of Directors b. Retail Assets Wing, HO
c. CAC of Board d. Respective Credit Wing, HO
5.Claps package covers:

a. Retail loan b. Education loan
c. Agriculture d. All the above
6. Cut off limit for endorsing copies of retail application/credit report is

a. Rs.10 lacs b. Rs. 5 Lacs c. Rs. 1 Lac d. None of the above
7. Registration charges and documentation charges to be included in case of

housing loans where project cost is :
a. Rs.10 lacs b. Rs.20 lacs c. Rs.30 lacs d. None of the above.
8. Minimum period for take over of Retail loans from other banks:
a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. None of the above
9. Branch having more than ---- % of NPA under retail loans have no powers to
sanction
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Housing Loan
10. Minimum margin for new Housing loans upto Rs.30lacs:

a. 10% b. 20% c. 25% d. 40%
11. Margin on HL for loans above Rs. 30 lacs upto Rs.75 lacs for old houses more
than 10 years old:
a. 20% b. 25% c. 30% d. None of the above

12. Risk weight on CRE-RH is:
a. 75% b. 50% c. 100% d. 60%
13. Housing loan is classified under priority in metropolitan centre (with population
of 10 lakhs and above):
a. Upto Rs.35 lakhs loan overall cost should not exceed Rs.45lacs.
b. Loan should not exceed Rs.20 lakhs and project cost shall not exceed Rs.25
lacs.
c. Loan upto Rs.15lakhs and project cost shall not exceed Rs. 20 lacs
14. Maximum loan for repairs of House:

a. 75% of cost subject to maximum Rs.15 lacs
b. 60% of cost subject to maximum of Rs.10lacs
c. 50% of cost subject to maximum of Rs.20lakhs
15. Minimum confirmed service in Housing loan:

a. 3 years b. 4 years c. 1 year d.None of the above
16. Reimbursement of housing loan who can permit:

a. Circle Head & above authorities at HO not exceeding 25% of Loan amount
b. CM & above authorities
c. Senior Manager in large branches
17. Pre-penalty for closure of housing loan before maturity period:

a. NIL b. 25% c. 10% d. 15%
18. Risk weight (%) above Rs.75 lakhs with LTV ratio (<=75%):
a. 35 b. 50 c. 40 d. None of the above
19. In composite housing loans, utilization of loan amount for purchase of plot is
restricted to:
a. 75% b. 60% c. 50% d. 40%
20. CERSAI registration is mandatory within:

a. 30 days from the date of creation mortgage
b. 60 days from the date of creation of mortgage
c. 15 days from the date of creation of mortgage

21. Which section of SARFAESI Act deals with levying fine of Rs.5000 for not filing
satisfaction of charges with CERSAI:
a. Sec 30 b. Sec 27 c. Sec 26 d. Sec 7
22. Payment of service charges to approved builders under housing loan scheme:
a. 0.25 % of housing loan amount subject to a maximum amount of Rs.50000
per sanction provided minimum 3 housing loans or a minimum amount of Rs.1
Crore is sanctioned and disbursed in same project.
b. 0.50% of housing loan subject to maximum of 1 lakh
c. 0.15% of housing loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs.75000
23. Concession in ROI for Low Risk woman customer for HL is

a. 0.5% b. 1% c. Nil d. none of the above
24. In how many stages disbursement are to be made in HL Construction purpose

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d.4
25. If the entry age is more than the 70 years HL loans can be sanctioned by with
certain conditions
a. Branch b. cannot be sanctioned
c. RO head d. Circle Head Co CAC & above authorities
Housing loan for Yuva Awas Finance
26. NTH for Yuwa Awas Rin is:

a. 30% with a minimum of Rs.10000
b. 25% with a minimum of Rs.7500
c. 20% with a minimum of Rs.5000
27. Salaried youth aged between:

a. 21-45 years with 2 years continuous service
b. 21-45 years with1 year continuous service
c. 21-60 years without confirmed service
28. In case of loans for purchase of flat under construction, maximum moratorium
period can be permitted:

Canara home loan plus
29. Maximum LTV ration shall not be more than:
30. Eligible for loan :

a. Availed housing loan with our bank and run for 1 year with a satisfactory
repayment track record
b. Given on declaration basis
c. Link letter to be obtained for existing loan facility with HL mortgage
d. All the above
31. Loan can be given as :

a. OD b. Term loan c. OD & Term loan d. None of the above
32. OD Tenability:
a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 1 year with annual review till closer of housing loan
33. OD and loan facility:

a. Rs.25 lacs b. Rs.15 lacs c. Rs.20 lacs d. Rs.5 lacs
Housing Loan For NRIs
34. Minimum NRI status:

a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 1 year d. 4 years
35. Minimum NRI employment:

a. 1 year confirmed service b. 2 years confirmed service
c. 3 years confirmed service d. 4 years confirmed service
Housing –cum-solar loan
36. Loans for solar component:

a. Rs. 10lacs
b. 20% of total housing loan eligible quantum
c. 80% of system cost as per proforma invoice
d. All the above
37. Loan under solar loan should be repaid within a maximum period of:

38. Minimum and maximum sizie of the plant eligible for loan
a. 1 KWP & 10 KWP b. 2 KWP & 5 KWP
c. 3 KWP & 6 KWP d. None of the above
39. Capital financial assistance of benchmark cost is eligible under the scheme in
general states and of the benchmark cost in special category states:
a. 30% & 70% b. 20% & 60%
c. 10% & 40% d. None of the above
Housing loan scheme for agriculturists
40. Who are eligible:

a. Agriculturists b. Dairy & allied activity farmers
c. Planters & Horticulturists d. All the above
41. Margin in respect of new flat above Rs.75 lacs:

a. 25% b. 20% c. 15% d. 10%
42. Owning & cultivating agriculturist land:

a. More than 5 acres of irrigated land
b. 10 acres of dry land
c. a or b
43. In case of purchase of site and construction- repayment commences:

a. Within 2 months after completion of house or 24 months from the date of first
disbursement whichever is earlier.
b. Within 1 month after completion of house or 12 months from date of first
disbursement whichever is earlier
c. Within 3 months after completion of house or 18 months from the date of first
disbursement
d. No repayment holiday
44. For 3rd Housing loan & subsequent:

a. Housing loan applicable card + 0.50% for the entire slab
b. Housing loan applicable card rate + 0.25 % for entire slab
c. Housing loan applicable card rate + 1% for entire slab

Canara site:
45. Maximum repayment period:

46. Periodicity of inspection of Canara site loan:

a. 12 months b. 6 months c. 3 months d. 18months
47. Maximum repayment holiday in case of Canara site:

a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months
48. Computation of loan quantum for salaried class:

a. 4 years gross salary/income b. 3 years gross salary/icome
c. 2 years gross salary/income d. 1 year gross salary /income
49. In case of part payment of site amount , the repayment to commence:

a. After 3 months from the date of first disbursement of loan
b. After 2 months from the date of first disbursement
c. After 1 month from the date of first disbursement
d. No repayment holiday
50. Powers of sanction loans in respect of small branches:

a. Rs.10 lakhs b. Rs.15 lakhs c. Rs.20 lakhs d. No powers
51. Margin in Canara site loan:

52. Age of applicant in Canarasite:

Educational loan scheme:
53. Cut-off marks for general merit students under Management quota:
54. Expenses other than tuition fees should not exceed of total cost of course:
a. 50% b. 40% c. 60% d. 100%
55. Vidya Sahaya Loan Quantum:

a. Rs.1 lakh b. Rs.2 lakhs c. Rs.3 lakhs d. Rs.4 lakhs

56. Maximum eligible loan under the scheme for students of ISB of Hyderabad –
Vidya Turant Scheme:
a. Rs.20 Lakhs b. Rs.25 Lakhs c. Rs.40 Lakhs d. Rs.10 Lakhs
57. Education loan under priority sector:

a. Rs.10 lakhs b. Rs.15 Lakhs c. Rs.20Lakhs d. Rs.25 Lacs
58. Minimum & maximum age of student to be eligible for education loan:
a. No specific restriction b.18 years c.21 years d. 25 years
59. Concession to girl students under Vidya Turant:

a. 0.05% b. 1% c. Not permitted d. None of the above
60. Credit guarantee fund scheme for educational loan upto a limit of:
a. Rs.7.50 lacs without colateral b. Rs.10 lacs
c. Rs.5 lacs d. Not applicable
61. Minimum qualification required to pursue vocational skill development course:

a. Xth Std b. VII std c. Waived d. None of the above
62. Security for loan of Rs.8 lakhs:

a. 100% tangible collateral b. 50% tangible collateral
c. 75% tangible collateral d. None of the above
63. IBA skill loan scheme- Minimum & Maximum:

a. Rs.5000 & Rs.1.50 lakhs b. Rs.10000 & Rs.1 lakhs
c. Rs.7500 & Rs.1.50 lakhs d. None of the above
64. Reimbursement of expenses in Educational Loan

a. During the current academic year of course only
b. During 2 year only
c. During 3rd year only
65. Which comes under HL-CRE:
a. 3rd & subsequent dwelling unit b. 2nd & subsequent dwelling unit
c. 1st & subsequent dwelling unit d. None of the above
66. Repayment in case of purchase of ready built house/flat:

a. 2 months from date of 1st disbursement
b. 1 month from date of 1st disbursement
c. 3 months from date of 1st disbursement

Canara budget:
67. Loans to employees under Canara Budget for purchase of books:

a. Rs.15000 b. Rs.5000 c. Rs.10000 d. Rs.25000
68. Who are not eligible:

a. Confirmed employees of Central/State Govt
b. Reputed PSUs, Joint Stock Cos.
c. IT/BT companies
d. Self employed
69. Net Take Home salary should be :

a. 30% or Rs.10000 whichever is higher
b. 40% or Rs.12500 whichever is higher
c. 25% or Rs.10000 whichever is higher
70. Entire loan must be cleared with a maximum of:

a. 48 EMIs b. 60 EMIs c. 36 EMIs d. 24 EMIs
71. “A” had availed housing loan for 1st floor construction. He had not availed any
housing loan for ground floor. What is the extent of security available to Bank:
a. Ground Floor only b. Ground Floor & 1st Floor
c. 1st Floor only d.None of the above
Canara Pension
72. Pension loan towards payment of Canara Medical claim policy by IBA:
a. Rs.90000 b. Rs.30000 c. Rs.20000 d. None of the above
73. Processing charges applicable ----------on loan amount:

a. 1% b. 2% c. 3% d. NIL
74. Age of pensioners is 70 years. Repayment period :

a. 6 years b. 5 years c. 4 years d.3 years
75. Loan quantum applicable for retired employees of our Bank/family pensioners:
a. 20 months pension or Rs.5 lakhs whichever is less
b. 15 months pension or Rs.5 lakhs whichever is less
c. 10 months of pension or Rs.4 lacs whichever is less

Canara Jeevan
76. Who are eligible:

a. Senior Citizens of 60 years of age and above
b. 55 years & above
c. 50 years & above
77. Maximum loan under Canara Jeevan for flats:

a. Rs.25 lacs b. Rs.50 lacs c. Rs.10 lacs d. None of the above
78. Who can sanction:

a. CO head CO CAC
b. Scale IV & above authority
c. Board of Directors
79. Maximum period of loan :

80. Processing charges:

a. 0.25 % with maximum of Rs.5000
b. 0.50 % with maximum of Rs.1000
c. 0.10 % with maximum of Rs.2500
d. Waived
81. Maximum loan for readymade house:

a. Rs.10 lakhs b. Rs.25 lakhs c. Rs.50 lakhs d. None of the above
Swarna loan scheme
82. Minimum & maximum loan amount:

a. Rs.10000 & Rs. 10 Lacs
b. Rs.5000 & Rs.5 lacs
c. Rs.25000 & Rs.7.50Lacs
83. Repayment period:

a. 12 months b. 18months c. 24 months d. 6 months
84. LTV rate should be maximum:


85. Processing charges for Swarna Loan is
a. 1% of loan amount with a minimum of Rs.1000 subject to a maximum of
Rs.5000 per loan.
b. 1% of loan amount with a minimum of Rs.2500 & maximum of Rs.10000
c. 0.5% with a minimum of Rs.1000 & maximum of Rs.2500
d. Waived
Canara cash:
86. Maximum loan under Canara Cash for IPOs / Debt oriented Mutual Funds is :
a. Rs.10 lacs b. Rs.20 lacs c. Rs.30 lacs d. None of the above
87. Margin on approved shares:

a. 50% b. 40% c. 25% d. 10%
88. Loan repayable in :

a. 60 EMIs b. 10 EMIs c. 36 EMIs d. 15 EMIs
Home Improvement Loan
89. Maximum loan quantum for furnishing the house by Sanctioning Authority:
a. Rs.5 lacs b. Rs.7.5 Lacs c.Rs.10 Lacs d. None of the above
90. Repayment of Loan:

a. Maxmimum 5 years by SA
b. 3 years
c. 15 years
d. 10 years
Canara consumer loan:
91. Quantum of loan for salaried persons:

a. 75% of invoice value or Rs.15 months net salary or Rs.100000 whichever is less.
b. 75% of invoice value or 15 months net salary or Rs.2 lakhs
c. 75% of invoice value or 20 months net salary pr Rs/.2.50 lakhs whichever is
less.
92. Repayment period by Sanctioning Authority:

a. 36 months b. 48 months c. 60months d. 12 months

Canara vehicle loan:
93. Minimum gross salary for salaried Individual for 2 wheeler

a. Rs 0.75 lacs pa & net take home salary 40% of gross salary
b. 3 lacs per annum
c. Rs 1 lacs per annum
d. No such stipulation
94. Minimum gross salary for salaried individual for 4 wheeler:

a. Rs.3 lakhs PA b. Rs.5 lakhs PA
c. Rs.2 lakhs PA d. Rs.10 lakhs PA
95. Margin for loan above Rs.25 lakhs for new 4 wheeler for Existing Salaried
customer:
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d.30%
96. Repayment period for 4 wheeler (new)

a. 84 EMIs b. 60 EMIs c.72 EMIs d. 120 EMIs
97. Repayment period for 2 wheelers:

a. 60 months b. 84 months c.120 months d.75 months
98. Sanction of second loan under Canara Vehicle Loan by Small/Medium/Large

branch incharge:
a. Next higher authority at RAH RO/CO
b. Respective Sanctioning uthority
c. Retail Assets Wing, HO
d. None of the bove
99. Concession in ROI for women borrowers:

a. 0.05% b. 0.10% c. 0.25% d. None of the bove
100. Payment of service charges to dealer & sales executives:

a. 1.30% of loan amount to dealer with maximum cap of Rs.50000 & Rs.1500 to
dealers sales executive for sanctioned proposals
b. 1% of loan amount without ceiling & Rs.500 & .250
c. Rs.5000 lump sum
101. If the Vehicle is not older than ----------- we may consider as new Canara
Vehicle loan if our party is the first Transferee:
a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. None of the above

102. Maximum loan for 4 wheeler (old):
a. 60% approved value with a maximum of Rs.15 lakhs
b. 60% of approved value with a maximum of Rs.10 lakhs
c. 90% appraised value with a maximum of Rs.20lakhs
d. None of theabove
103. Margin on loans up to Rs 10 lacs for canara vehicle loan for agriculturists
a. 10 % b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
104. Financing old car not older than:

a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. None of the above
105. Canara Vehicle loan is given to:

a. Salaried class b. Non salaried class
c. Agriculturists d. All the above
Canara rent:
106. Minimum external rating of the tenant who is a corporate:

a. BBB & above b. B c. BB d.None of the above
107. Loan repayment:

a.180 months or unexpired lease period whichever is earlier-by SA
b. 60 months or unexpired lease period whichever is earlier -by SA
c. 36 months or unexpired lease period whichever is earlier by SA
108. EMT of leased property value of which should be atleast------- of the loan
amount in Metro / Urban places :
a. 133% b.125% c. 150% d. 200%
109. EMT of leased property value of which should be atleast-------- of the loan
amount in Rural / Semi Urban places :
a. 133% b.125% c. 150% d. 200%
110. Loan under this scheme may be granted in:

a. Rural & semi urban places
b. Urban places
c. Metropolitan
d. All the above

Teachers loan:
111. CM & above authorised can permit loan:

a. 10 months gross salary subject to a maximum of Rs.300000
b. Manager in small branch
c. Senior Manager in medium branch
d. CM & Above authority
112. Entire loan must be cleared with a maximum of:

a. 48 EMIs b. 60 EMIs d. 36 EMIs d. 24 EMIs
113. Net Take Home salary should be :

a. 30% or Rs.10000 whichever is higher
b. 40% or Rs.12500 whichever is higher
c. 25% or Rs.15000 whichever is higher
Canara mortgage
114. Repayment period by Sanctioning Authority:

115. Margin & Maximum loan:

a. 50% of value of property subject to Rs.10 Crores
b. 25% of value of property subject to Rs. 5 Crores
c. 10% of value of property subject to Rs.1 Crore
d. 5 % value of property subject to Rs.50 lakhs
116. Security of loan:

a. 100% of loan amount b. 200% of loan amount
c. 300 % of loan d. none of the above
117. Who are not eligible for Loan:

a. Individual customers
b. Non customers well introduced to bank
c. NRI customers with their resident close relatives as co-borrower
d. Companies/Firms/Trust/HUFs/Business establishments
PMAY:
118. How many categories under PMAY housing loan scheme:
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. None of the above

119. Maximum repayment period under PMAY EWS & LIG
120. Dwelling unit carpet area under middle income (MIG) 1 & MIG ( II) UNDER
PMAY:
a. 160 Sq Meter & 200 Sq Meters
b. 100 Sq Meter & 120 Sq Meters
c. 150 Sq Meters & 175 Sq Meters
121. interest subsidy under MIG 1 & MIG II:

a. 4% & 3% b. 5% & 4% c. 2% & 1% d. None of the above
122. Maximum quantum of loan under MIG II scheme:

a.4 times of annual income with the maximum of s.72 lacs
b. 4 times of annual income or Rs.48 lakhs whichever is minimum
c. 4 times of annual income or Rs.52 lacs whichever is minimum
123. MIG I & II is extended up to

a. 31.03.2020 b. 31.03.2021 c 31.03.2022 d. scheme closed
124. Maximum loan can be sanctioned for Purchase of Laptop under Vidya Turant
scheme
a. Cannot sanction b. 75000 c. 50000 d. 1.00 lakh
125. Under Vidya Shakti scheme the EL can be sanctioned up to

a. 7.50 lakhs for degree courses
b. 1.50 lakhs for diploma courses
c. speciall designed equipments upto 1 lacs for degree courses and 50000/- for
diploma courses
d. All the above
126. Maximum loan under canara Budget employees of INDIA’S PREMIER

EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS / COLLEGES AND CENTRAL UNIVERSITIES WHICH
ARE FINANCED BY MHRD THROUGH HIGHER EDUCATION FINANCING AGENCY
(HEFA)
a. 10 months Gross max 15 L, b. 15 months gross max 15 L
c. 20 Months Gross ,max 20 L d. 20 months gross , max 15 L

127. Margin for Canara Vehicle for purchase of four wheeler for Non salaried new
customer for the loans upto 25 L
a. 10% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%
128. Margin for Existing salaried Customers for canara vehicle - four wheeler loans
above 25 Lakh
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25
129. Who is having the powers to permit payment of loan proceed & margin
through NEFT/RTGS
a. Respective Sanctioning authority b. RO head
c. Circle Head d. GM HO CAC
130. Under special Scheme for Canara vehicle & canar Budget Respective
Sanctioning authority can sanction up to what Risk Category
a. Low b. Normal c. Moderate d. High
131. Canara Vehicle & Canara Budget loans to High risk customers of BSNL
employee can be sanctioned by
a. Respective Sanctioning authority b. Next Higher authority
c. DGM CO CAC d. No One Is having powers
132. Canara Budget loan to BSNL employees under special Scheme can be
sanctioned up to
a. 10 months gross Max 10 L b. 15 Months Gross Max 15
c. 20 months gross max 20 L. d. 20 Months Gross Max 10 L
133. Who can sanction the HL to a person aged more than 60 but repayment is
within 70 Years
a. respective Santioning authority (del pw) b. RO Head
c. CO Head only d. No one is having powers
134. Higher quantum up to 8 times Annual income/ 96 months salary can be

permitted under HL by
a. Respective sanctioning Authority
b. RO head upto their delegated powers
c Circle Head Co CAC.
d. None
135. Interest concession for Canara Vehicle & canara budget Loans to BSNL
employees is
a. 0.10% b. 0.20 % c. 0.30 % d. 0.50%

KEYS
1 A 28 A 55 A 82 A 109 C
2 D 29 B 56 C 83 A 110 D
3 D 30 D 57 A 84 A 111 A
4 D 31 C 58 A 85 A 112 A
5 D 32 A 59 C 86 A 113 A
6 B 33 A 60 A 87 A 114 A
7 A 34 B 61 C 88 A 115 A
8 A 35 B 62 A 89 A 116 B
9 C 36 D 63 A 90 A 117 D
10 A 37 A 64 A 91 A 118 A
11 B 38 A 65 A 92 A 119 A
12 A 39 A 66 A 93 A 120 A
13 A 40 D 67 B 94 A 121 A
14 A 41 A 68 D 95 C 122 D
15 C 42 C 69 C 96 A 123 A
16 A 43 A 70 B 97 A 124 D
17 A 44 A 71 B 98 A 125 D
18 B 45 A 72 A 99 A 126 D
19 B 46 B 73 D 100 A 127 C
20 A 47 A 74 B 101 A 128 C
21 B 48 A 75 A 102 A 129 D
22 A 49 A 76 A 103 A 130 C
23 C 50 D 77 A 104 A 131 C
24 C 51 B 78 A 105 D 132 D
25 D 52 B 79 A 106 A 133 A
26 A 53 A 80 A 107 A 134 C
27 D 54 A 81 C 108 A 135 B

MSME –MICRO SMALL MEDIUM ENTERPRISES
1) MSMED Act notified on -----

a. 01.06.2006 b. 02.10.2006 c.16.06.2006 d. 16.10.2006
2) The investment in plant and machinery for priority sector classification in case
of small manufacturing enterprise above ------- and upto ------
a. Rs.10 lacs, Rs.200 lacs b. Rs.25 lacs and Rs.200 lacs
c. Rs.25 lacs, Rs.500 lacs d.Rs.10 lacs, Rs.500 lacs
of Micro manufacturing enterprise above upto -----
c. Rs.25 lacs, Rs.500 lacs d. Rs.25 lacs
of small Service enterprise above Rs.----- upto ------
c. Rs.25 lacs, Rs.500 lacs d.Rs.10 lacs, Rs.500 lacs
of Medium Manufacturing enterprise above ------- and upto ------
c. Rs.500 lacs, Rs.1000 lacs d. Rs.10 lacs, Rs.500 lacs
6) Confirmation Certificate from the MSME to be obtained once in ---- for Priority
sector status.
a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 1 year e. All the above
7) The land & building accepted as collateral security under MSME CAP must be
situated in
a. metro area only.
b. metro,urban & semi urban area only.
c. metro,urban,semi urban & select rural area.
d. none of above.
8) If there is shortfall in Priority sector advances target, banks have to invest the
funds maintained by
a. RBI b. NABARD c. SIDBI d. SEBI
9) Which committee has recommended for Turn Over Method for Working Capital
Finance
a. P R Nayak b. Tandon c .Ghosh d. Kalyanasundaram

10) The Maximum loan may be sanctioned in case of Artisan Credit Card scheme
a. Maximum loan limit is Rs. 5 lakhs
b. Maximum loan limit is Rs. 10 lakhs
c. Maximum loan limit is Rs. 2 lakhs
d. Maximum loan limit Rs. 1 lakhs
11) The processing fees collected by bank from customers of “M/S

OnlinePSBLoansLimited” is to be…….
a. shared on 50-50 by Bank & OPL b. shared on 75-25 by bank & OPL
C. retained by Bank only d. retained by OPL only
12) As per BCSBI code for MSEs, when loan is adjusted by the borrower, the security
documents are to be returned within
a. 10 days. b. 15 days. c. 20 days d. 30 days
13) Repayment period in case FLAVOUR Scheme

a. Max 7 years b. 60 months c. 36 months d. 72 months
14) The Maximum loan may be sanctioned in case of Canara Dall Mill scheme
a. Maximum loan limit is Rs. 5 cr b. Maximum loan limit is Rs. 10 cr
c. Maximum loan limit is Rs. 2 cr d. Maximum loan limit Rs. 1 cr
15) What is a Mudra Loan

a. A loan granted in Indian rupees
b. A loan granted to MSE borrowers
c.
A loan granted to non farm enterprises engaged in trading, services, or
manufacturing not exceeding Rs. 10 lacs
d. A loan granted to dairy industry.
16) Repayment in case of Mudra scheme for Term Loans

a. 3-5 years b. 5-8 years c. 5-7 years d.7-10 years
17) Under Stand Up India Scheme to help Women and SC/ST Entrepreneurs, the
scheme is expected to benefit at least borrowers
a. 1.5 lakh b. 2.5 lakh c. 3.0 lakh d. 4.0 lakh
18) No Collateral security should be insisted for MSE loans upto Rs.
a. Rs. 10 lacs b. Rs. 5 lacs c. Rs. 25 lacs d. Rs.200 lacs
19) Rejection of MSME proposal is done by

a. Respective sanctioning authority b. RO/CO Head
c. With concurrence of NHA d. Next higher authority

20) Due diligence to be done in case of MSME units (eligible if the party
approaching the bank for the first time for above Rs. ------------ which are
eligible to be covered under CGTMSE
a. Rs. 100 lacs and Rs.200 lacs b. above Rs 10 lacs
c. Rs25 lacs and upto Rs. 500 lacs d. Rs. 100 lacs and upto Rs. 500 lacs
21) Margin In case of Stand Up India scheme

a. 20% b.25% c. 15% d. 10%
22) The processing fees to be collected for fresh working capital through Bank
specific URL for the proposal submitted through Online PSBLoans Limited is
a. 0.15% b. 0.20% c. 0.75% d. none of above
23) The maximum loan can be granted under MSE Unnati scheme is
a. Rs. 10 lacs b. Rs. 50 lacs c. Rs. 100 lacs d. Rs. 25 lacs
24) Which of the following units are not eligible under MSE Unnati scheme
a. Schools, Educational Institutions b. Retail trade
c. SHG d. All the above
25) Margin In case of Unnati scheme is

a. 10 % b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
26) Tenability of working capital under Unnati scheme is

a. 1 years b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years.
27) In case of Start Ups and Early Stage Units, promoters should be graduated from
which of the following institutions
a. IITs b. IIMs c. IISc d. Any of the above.
28) In case of Start Ups and Early Stage Units, the age criteria is
a. 18 to 50 b. 20 to 50 c. 18 to 60 d. 18 to 65
29) Which types of loans can be considered under Startups and Early Stage Units
scheme
a. Working Capital b. Term Loans
c. Non Fund Based limits d. all the above
30) In case of Start Ups and Early Stage units, the Margin stipulated in case of Term
loan is
a. 20% b. 25% c.30% d.15%
31) Maximum amount of loan in case Early stage units scheme is


32) In case of Start Ups and Early Stage Units, repayment of term loan is
a. Project cost upto Rs. 100 lacs is 5 years
b. Project cost upto Rs. 100 lacs is 7 years not exceeding 10 years
c. Project cost of above Rs. 100 lacs is 7 years upto 10 years in exceptional cases
not exceeding 12 years
d. both b & c
33) Under MSME Cap the maximum loan amount can be granted
a. Rs. 1000 lacs in case Manufacturing
b. Rs. 500 lacs in case of Service unit
c. Rs. 50 lacs
d. both a and b are correct
34) Repayment Period for MSME CAP scheme Term Loan is

a. 3 to 7 years
b. 5 to 7 years
c. 5 to 10 years inclusive of repayment holiday
d. 3 to 10 years.
35) Which of the following activities permitted under MSE SMART scheme is
a. Purchase of office premises
b. Construction of Office Premises
c. Expansion and Modernization of premises
d. All of the above
36) Margin in case of MSE Cap is

a. 10 % b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
37) The maximum loan can be granted under Weaver Mudra scheme
a. Rs. 5 lacs b. Rs.3 lacs c. Rs. 1 lac d. Rs.2 lac
38) Under Canara Caravan the maximum loan amount can be granted is
a. Rs. 1 cr b. Rs. 25 lacs c. Rs. 5 cr d.Rs. 2 cr
39) Repayment Period for Canara Caravan scheme is

a. 60 months inclusive holiday b. 5 to 7 years
c. 5 to 10 years d. 3 to 10 years.
40) Viability Parameters for CGTSME coverage loans of above Rs. 50 lakhs, the
promoters contribution with a minimum of of project cost
a. 25% b. 20% c.50% d.30%

41) Age criteria in case of MSE Smart scheme is
a. 18 to 50 b. 20 to 50 c. 18 to 60 d. 18 to 65
42) Banks are not to insist up on collateral security on mandatory basis, when
amount of loan is to Micro and Small Enterprises
a. Upto 10 lacs b. Upto Rs. 50 lacs
c. Upto Rs. 100 lacs d. Upto Rs. 25 lacs
43) The Maximum amount of Coverage under CGTSME scheme is

a. Upto 10 lacs b. Upto Rs. 50 lacs
44) The MSME unit eligible for interest subvention scheme for incremental credit
availed incremental funded assistance
a. before 02.11.2018 b. on or after 02.11.2018
c. on or after 01.04.2019 d. none of above.
45) The Maximum amount of Loan under MSME Expo scheme is

a. Upto 10 lacs b. Rs. 50 lacs
46) Repayment Period for Canara MSME expo scheme is

a.1 to 5 years b. Upto 5 years
c.3 years d.2 years
47) Repayment Period for Canara Contractor scheme (Term Loan) is

a. 5 years for other than construction b. 7 years for construction
c. 3 years d. a & b
48) In case of recovery after receipt of claim from CGTMSE (Other than Hybrid
Security), the recovered amount is to be used for ?
a. Not to be remitted to CGTMSE b. Remit entire amount to CGTMSE
c. Sharing on a prorate basis d. none of the above.
49) For invoking Guarantee claim ,filing of suit is mandatory in respect of CGTMSE
guaranteed loans with aggregate liability of -------------------
a. Rs. 50,000/- & above b. Rs.1,00,000/-
c. Rs.5,00,000/- d. Rs.10,00,000/-
50) What is the margin in case of MSE Vahan Scheme is

a. 20% on Road cost b. 10% on Road cost
c. 15% on Road cost d. 25% on Road cost

51) Repayment period in respect of MSE Vahan for four wheelers
a. 72 months b. 60 months c. 84 months d. 120 months.
52) The unit eligible under interest subvention scheme for incremental credit to
MSME must have.
a. Valid Udyog Adhar Number (UAN) b. Valid GSTN number
c. a & b both d. none of a & b required
53) What is maximum amount of loan under Laghu Udyami Credit Card Scheme
a. Rs. 10 lacs b. Rs.25 lacs c. Rs.50 lacs d. Rs. 100 lacs
54) A Laghu Udyami Credit Card is Valid for

a. 3 yrs. b. 5 yrs c. 2 years d. 18 months
55) Maximum Loan amount in case of Doctors choice scheme

a. Rs. 5 cr b. Rs.10 cr c. Rs. 2 cr d. Rs. 1 cr
56) For Doctor Choice scheme, the maximum working capital can be sanctioned is
a. Rs.25 lakhs b.Rs. 50 lakhs c. Rs.1 cr d. Rs. 5 cr
57) CGFMU Stands for

a. Credit Guarantee fund for Mutual Understanding
b. Credit Guarantee fund for Memorandum of understanding
c. Credit Guarantee fund for Micro Units
d. None of these
58) Repayment period in respect of Doctors choice Term Loan

a. 5 - 7years b. 2 years c. 8 years d. 3 years
59) Under PMEGP, educational qualification is min. 8thstd pass for setting up
projects above Rs. lakh under business service sector.
a. Rs.25 lacs b. Rs. 15 lacs
c. Rs.10 lakhs d. Above Rs. 5 lacs
60) Maximum Quantum of loan can be sanctioned in case MSE VIjeta Scheme
a. Rs.5 cr b. Rs.2 cr c. Rs.1 cr d. Rs. 10 cr
61) Margin in case of MSE Vijetha scheme

a. 10 % b. 25 % c. 30 % d. 20 %
62) Maximum Quantum of loan can be sanctioned in case OD MSE (manufacturing)

a. Rs.5 cr b. Rs.2 cr c. Rs.1 cr d. Rs. 3 cr

63) Margin in case of OD MSE scheme
a. 10 % b. 25 % c. 30 % d. Nil
64)Tenability in case Canara Trade Scheme is

a. 3 years b. 1 years c. 2 years d. 18 months
65) Full form of NCGTC

a. National Credit Guarantee trust Company
b. National Cooperative Guarantee Trust Company
c. National Credit Guarantee Trustee company Ltd
d. National Common Guarantee Trust Company
66) What is the margin and collateral security % in case of Canara Trade scheme
Term loan of Rs.25 lacs other than commission agents
a. 20% and 125% b. 30% and 100%
c. 25% (40% for construction) and 133% d. 25 % and 125%
67) The scheme code of PMMY loan is

a. 74510 b. 74140
c. 75410 d. none of above
68) The product code of PMMY loan to MSME Services is
a. 766 b. 768
c. 786 d. 767
69) The international MSME day is observed on

a. 27 June b. 27 July
c. 27 May d. none of above
70) What is the minimum Current Ratio is required for CANARA GST for Take Over
of Account
a. 1.33% b. 1.25%
c. 1.10% d. 1.00%
71) The MPBF for CANARA GST Scheme is

a. 33.3% of Projected & accepted turnover
b. 25% of Projected & accepted turnover
c. 25% of annual turnover as per GST return.
d. 100% of value of collaterals

72) What is collateral security minimum stipulation under CANARA GST for Low &
Normal Risk account
a. 100% of loan amount b. 133% of loan amount
c. 50% of loan amount d. 75% of loan amount
73) The Penal Interest to be made applicable for passing the 60% of turnover
reflected in GST return
a. 0.50% b. 0.25%
c. 0.60% d. none of above
74) Coverage of Eligible accounts in CGTMSE Portal and payment of Guarantee Fees
to be completed
a. Within last day of subsequent Quarter to the Quarter of sanction.
b. within the last day of the Financial Year in which the loan is granted
c. Within last day of subsequent Month to the Month of sanction.
d. within two days of sanction of loan.
75) The NPA reporting of CGTMSE covered accounts in the CGTMSE Portal to be
completed
a. Within last day of subsequent Quarter to the Quarter in which the account
slipped to NPA.
b. within 15 days to the subsequent month in which the account slipped to NPA
c. Within last day of subsequent Month to the Month of slipping to NPA.
d. on the day of account slipped to NPA

KEYS :
1 B 26 B 51 C
2 C 27 D 52 C
3 D 28 B 53 A
4 A 29 D 54 A
5 C 30 A 55 A
6 B 31 B 56 B
7 c 32 D 57 C
8 C 33 D 58 A
9 A 34 C 59 D
10 C 35 D 60 B
11 C 36 C 61 D
12 B 37 D 62 D
13 A 38 C 63 D
14 B 39 A 64 C
15 C 40 D 65 C
16 C 41 C 66 C
17 B 42 A 67 C
18 A 43 D 68 B
19 C 44 B 69 A
20 B 45 B 70 D
21 B 46 C 71 C
22 B 47 D 72 D
23 C 48 B 73 B
24 D 49 A 74 C
25 C 50 B 75 B

GENERAL ADVANCES
1. As per our Credit Policy, which of the following are Thrust areas?
i) Agriculture ii) MSME
iii) Commercial Real Estate iv) Export Segment
A) i, ii & iii B) i, ii & iv C) ii, iii & iv D) All the above
2. As per our Credit Policy, what the Prudential Exposure Limit for Proprietorship
concerns?
A) Rs. 10 crores B) Rs. 25 crores
C) Rs. 75 crores D) Rs. 50 crores
3. A
s per RBI guidelines what the maximum loan that a bank can give to
individuals against demat shares?
A) Rs. 10 lakhs B) Rs. 20 lakhs
C) Rs. 25 lakhs D) No limit
4. F
or loans to individuals against the security of shares, what is the margin to be
maintained?
A) 10% B) 20% C) 25% D) 50%
5. U
nder ESOP scheme, what is the maximum loan that a bank can give to an
individual?
A) Rs. 20 lakhs
B) Rs. 10 lakhs
C) Loans cannot be given
D) 90% of the purchase price with a maximum of Rs. 20 lakhs
6. As per Section 19(2) of BR Act, 1949, No Banking Company shall hold shares as
security in any company either as mortgagee or as absolute owner of an amount
exceeding of paid up capital of the company or of its own paid up capital and
reserves, whichever is less.
A) 10%; 10% B) 25%; 25% C) 30%; 30% D) 40%; 40%
7. As per our Credit Policy, what is the bench mark Current Ratio under MPBF
method?
A) 1.25 : 1 B) 1.33 : 1 C) 1.50: 1 D) 1.75 : 1
8. As per policy guidelines, what is the maximum duration of KCCS limits?
A) 12 months B) 2 Crop seasons C) 3 years D) 5 years

9. Assessment of Working Capital for SME borrowers upto Limit can be done under
Turnover Method;
A) Rs. 1 crore B) Rs. 2 crores C) Rs. 5 crores D) Rs. 10 crores
10. Assessment of Working Capital for Non-SME borrowers upto Limit can be done
under Turnover Method;
11. A
s per RBI guidelines Loan System for Delivery of Bank Credit is applicable
for working capital limits of ?
A) Rs. 1 crore and above B) Above Rs. 10 crores
C) Rs. 150 crores and above D) None of the above
12. Who can reject an Educational Loan proposal?

A) Sanctioning Authority
B) RO
C) CO
D) Respective Sanctioning Authority subject concurrence of the next higher
authority
13. In respect of Agricultural Term Loan above in respect of new clients and above
in respect of existing clients, the project appraisal is to be done by ?
A) Rs. 100 lakhs; Rs. 200 lakhs; Agricultural Consultancy Services HO
B) Rs. 150 lakhs; Rs. 300 lakhs; Agricultural Consultancy Services HO
C) Rs. 100 lakhs; Rs. 200 lakhs; Agricultural Innovation Centre HO
D) Rs. 150 lakhs; Rs. 300 lakhs; Agricultural Innovation Centre HO
14. What is the validity period of Sanction of a Working Capital Limit?

A) 12 months B) 6 months
C) 3 months D) Depends on Credit Risk Rating
15. What is a Medium Term Loan?

A) A Term Loan repayable within 1 year
B) A Term Loan repayable above 1 year up to 3 years
C) A Term Loan repayable above 3 years up to 5 years
D) A Term Loan repayable above 5 years up to 10 years
16. Credit Audit System is applicable to;

A) Fund Based Limits Rs. 1 crore and above
B) Fund Based and Non-Fund Based limits Rs. 5 crore and above
C) Fund Based limits Rs. 5 crore and above
D) Fund Based and Non-Fund Based limits Rs. 1 crore and above

17. C
redit Monitoring Officers have to monitor all borrowal accounts;
A) Rs. 1 crore and above (Fund Based); Once in a month
B) Rs. Rs.50 lacs and above (Fund Based & Non-Fund Based); Once in a month
C) Rs. 1 crore and above (Fund Based & Non-Fund Based); Once in a quarter
D) Rs.50 lacs and above (Fund Based & Non-Fund Based); Once in two months
18. R
eview and Extension of tenability of limits may be permitted for a maximum
period of months and the extension on a single occasion shall not exceed months;
A) 12; 6 B) 6; 1 C) 6; 3 D) 3; 1
19. As per Ind - Accounting Standards what is the percentage of depreciation
allowed on Building?
A) 10% B) 5 % C) 15% D) No depreciation allowed
20. In respect of taken over accounts, during the first year, enhancement can be
permitted by;
A) Sanctioning Authority up to their Delegated Powers.
B) Next Higher Authority
C) Circle Head
D) Enhancement cannot be considered
21. What are the charges payable for drawing CMR [ CIBIL MSME RANK]
A) Rs. 500 + GST B) Rs. 50 per report
C) Free of charge D) Rs. 900 + GST
22. RAM is a software package developed by?

A) ICRA B) CRISIL C) CARE D) SMERA
23. In Credit Risk Rating, how many grades are there in Revised Manual Value Model?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10
24. In case of CMR Rank 8 to 10, fresh exposure to the new account can be
sanctioned by
A) Branch head B) RO Head CAC
C) Circle Head CAC D) No Power
25. As per BASEL norms the Bank’s Minimum Total Capital plus Capital Conservation
Buffer as on 31-03-2019 should be?
A) 11.5% B) 10.875% C) 9% D) None of the above
26. As per BASEL III norms the CET 1 capital should be?
A) Maximum 7% B) Minimum 7%
C) Minimum 5.5% D) Minimum 9%

27. U
nder BASEL norms, for calculation of CRAR, Risk Weighted Assets comprises of
the following components;
i) Credit Risk ii) Market Risk iii) Operational Risk
A) i only B) i and ii only C) i and iii only D) i, ii & iii
28. Revaluation Reserve is a component of?

A) Tier 2 Capital B) Tier 1 Capital
C) CET 1 Capital D) CET 1 Capital at a discount of 55%
29. What is the Risk Weight for Loans guaranteed by State Government?
A) 0% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%
30. What is the Risk Weight for Housing Loans more than 75 lakhs (where LTV is
75%)?
A) 50% B) 75% C) 100% D) 20%
31. What is risk weight of unsecured staff loans?

A) 0% B) 10% C) 20% D) 75%
32. Obtention of Audited Financial Statements is mandatory for issue of Solvency

Certificates;
A) Above Rs. 1 lakh B) Above Rs. 10 lakhs
C) Above Rs. 5 lakhs D) Above Rs. 25 lakhs
33. Temporary Over Limit can be permitted for a maximum of _?

A) 90 days B) 1 month C) 7 days in a month D) 1 year
34. Bank Guarantees of shall be signed by _?

A) Rs. 1.00 lakh and above; 2 authorized signatories
B) Rs. 50,000 and above; 2 authorized signatories
C) Rs. 5.00 lakhs and above; Branch-in-charge
D) Rs. 10000 and above; 2 authorized signatories
35. What is Quick Mortality?

i) All Loans Accounts of the borrower with aggregate liability of Rs. 15 lakhs and
above
ii) Becoming NPA within 12 moonths from the date of first disbursement
iii) For parties who are sanctioned a limit of Rs. 5 lakhs
iv) Limits sanctioned to the concerned borrower for the first time
A) i, ii & iii B) ii, iii & iv C) i, ii & iv D) i, iii & iv
36) Pre-release audit is applicable to?
A) Aggregate Credit Limits of Rs. 1 crore and above
B) Aggregate Credit Limits of Rs. 5 crore and above
C) Aggregate Credit Limits of Rs. 5 crore and above to new borrowers
D) Aggregate Credit Limits of Rs. 5 crore and above to new and existing borrowers
37. W
hat is the remuneration payable to Penal Advocate for Legal Audit?
A) Maximum Rs. 5000
B) As agreed between the borrower and the Penal Advocate
C) Maximum Rs. 5000 + Out of pocket expenses
D) It is done by our internal auditors. Hence no compensation is payable
38. Which accounts are to be reported to Central Registry of Information for Large
Credits?
A) Borrower exposure information Rs. 1 crore and above
B) Borrower exposure information Rs. 5 crore and above
C) Borrower exposure information Rs. 50 crore and above
D) Borrower exposure information Rs. 10 crore and above
39. Which among the following does not belong to the group?
i) Share Capital ii) Term Loan from Banks
iii) Reserves & Surpluses iv) Undistributed profit
A) i B) ii C) iii D) iv
40. A balance sheet is a statement of the position of business of an organization .

a. For the period ending a quarter
b. For the period ending a half year
c. As on a particular date
d. For the period ending a financial year
41. Current Liabilities are those

I. Payable within 6 months II Payable within Operating Cycle
III. Payable within 9 months IV Payable within 12 months
a. i, ii b. ii, iii c . ii, iv d. iv
42. Current Assets are those which are realizable within months
1.Realisable within 12 months 2.Realisable within 6 months
3.Realisable within 9 months 4.Realisable within operating cycle
a. i. b. i, iv c. iii, iv d. ii, iv
43. Net Working Capital means
a. Operating Capital
b. Capital + Reserves
c. Total Current Assets – Total Current Liabilities (excluding bank borrowings)
d. Total Current Assets – Total Current Liabilities
44. Working Capital Gap means

a. Total Current Assets – Total Current Liabilities
b. Capital – Fixed Assets
c. Owner’s Funds – Non-Current Assets
d. Total Current Assets – Current Liabilities (Other than bank borrowings)
45. Tangible Net worth is calculated by the formula

a. Capital – Liabilities
b. Capital + Reserves – Liabilities
c. Capital + General Reserves + Capital Reserve + Surplus in P&L A/c – Intangible
& Fictitious Assets
d. Capital + General Reserves + Capital Reserve + Surplus in P&L A/c – Liabilities
46. Where contingent liability will appear in Balance Sheet?

a. Under Current Liabilities of the Balance Sheet
b. Under Long Term Liabilities of the Balance Sheet
c. As a foot note to Balance Sheet
d. As a part of the Capital on the liabilities side of the Balance Sheet
47. Profits made in the normal course of business and retained in the business is
called
a. Net Profit b. Gross Profit
c. Capital Reserve d. General Reserves
48. W
hat are the components of Quick Assets in a Quick Ratio.
a. Current Assets – Inventory
b. Current Assets – Inventory and Prepaid Expenses
c. Current Assets – Debtors and Preliminary Expenses
d. Current Assets – Inventory and Preliminary Expenses
49. When operations of a business results in losses, it would reduce

a. Asset value b. Value of Debentures
c. Long term liabilities d. Share holders’ funds
50. Net Working Capital of a Company is negative. The Company’s current ratio is
a. Positive b. Equal c. More than one d. Less than one
51. The statement which shows where from funds have come and where funds have
gone it is
a. Balance Sheet b. Income & Expenditure Account
c. Project Report d. Funds Flow Statement
52. Increase in Current liability means

a. Increase in Current Ratio b. Increase in Long Term Sources
c. Increase in Short term sources d. Decrease in Short term sources
53. S ME unit has been sanctioned working capital limit of Rs 60 lakhs under turn
over method. What is the annual projected turnover of the unit?
a. Rs. 1.80 crores b. Rs. 2.00 crores
c. Rs. 3.00 crores d. Rs. 2.40 crores
54. Current Ratio denotes:

a. Surplus Current Assets b. Surplus Current Liabilities
c. Liquidity d. D. Profitability
55. Deferred Tax Liability shall be treated as

a. Loss b. Current Liability
c. Off the Balance Sheet item d. Term Liability
56. If a company issues bonus shares, its debt equity ratio will:
a. Will increase b. Will decrease
c. Will remain unaffected d. Will become negative
57. If a company revalues its assets. It’s net worth will:

a. Improve
b. Will not improve
c. It will not be reflected in the Balance Sheet
d. Net Worth will be taxable
58. A firm’s Current Ratio is 2:1. Net Working capital is Rs.90,000/- What will be
the amount of Current Liabilities:
a. Rs. 180000 b. Rs. 90000 c. Rs. 45000 d. Rs. 270000
59. C
urrent Ratio of a unit is 3:1. Quick Ratio is 1:1. The level of Current Assets is
30 lakhs. What is the amount of Quick Assets:
a. Rs. 10 lacs b. Rs. 20 lacs
c. Rs. 30 lacs d. None of the above
60. Total Current Assets of a Company are 40. Net Working Capital is 10, Current
Ratio is
a. 4:1 b. 1.25:1 c. 1.33:1 d. 2:1
61. A firm having Current Ratio of 2:1. Its Current Liabilities are 45 lacs. What will
be the amount of Net Working Capital of the firm:
a. Rs. 90 lacs b. Rs. 45 lacs
c. Rs. 135 lacs d. None of the above
62. In balance sheet, Profit is shown under:

a. Off the Balance Sheet b. On the Assets Side
c. On the Liabilities Side d. Added to the Cash Balance
63. F
or a Construction Contractor in Real Estate Sector, a plot of land is which type
of Asset for balance sheet analysis purpose:
a. Fixed Asset b. Long Term Use
c. Short Term Source d. Current Asset
64. Current Assets 600/- ; Long term sources – Rs 600/- ; Balance sheet total one
side –Rs.1000/- What is CR?
a. CR – 1.25 b. CR – 1.5 c. CR – 2.0 d. CR – 1.33
65. Calculate DSCR: NPAT – 100/- depreciation – 50 ; Interest on term loan– 50/- ;
installment on TL – 75;
a. 1.75 b. 1.80 c. 1.60 d. 1.70
66. The current ratio of the firm is 1.33. Net Working Capital is Rs 8 lacs. What is
the value of current asset?
a. Rs. 10.64 lacs b.Rs. 16 lacs c. Rs. 24 lacs d. Rs. 32 lacs
67. Current Asset: 32, NWC:8, CR?

a. 1.33:1 b. 1.25:1 c. 4:1 d. 2:1
68. C
alculate NWC from the following figures. Current Asset: Rs.350 lacs, Short
term loans: Rs 170 lacs, Creditors: Rs 80 lacs.
69. ESOP stands for:

a. Efficient servicing of promises b. Employees’ service option projects
c. Employees stock option plan d. Effective system of projects
70. The demat shares of a public sector undertaking can be converted in to

physical shares. This process is called:
a. Re-issue of shares b. Dematerialization of shares
c. Re-materialization of shares d. Demutualization of shares
e. Forfeiture of share
71. Long Term Loan. Explanation:
a. Repayable above 5 years b. Repayable above 7 years
c. Repayable above 1 year d. Repayable above 3 years
72. Adherence to National Building code 2005 in respect of loans for construction of
building, the minimum loan is above
a. Rs. 5 crores b. Rs. 10 crores c. Rs. 20 crores d. Rs. 25 crores
73. Upto what period reimbursement of Term Loan is permitted

a. Not permitted
b. Reimbursement shall be claimed within 3 months from the date of purchase
c. Reimbursement shall be claimed within 1 months from the date of purchase
d. Reimbursement shall be claimed within 6 months from the date of purchase
74. Review and Extension of tenability may be permitted for a maximum period of?
a. 4 months
b. 4 months and shall not exceed 3 months on a single occasion
c. Maximum period of 6 months and shall not exceed 3 months on a single occasion
d. Cannot be permitted
75. MSOD statement shall be obtained from borrowers enjoying working capital
limits of Rs.
a. MSME, Rs. 50 lacs and above b. Industrial, Rs. 10 lacs and above
c. Industrial, above Rs. 10 lacs d. MSE, above Rs. 20 lacs
76. MTR is to be prepared by;

a. Branch-in-charge b. Officer in-charge of Advances Department
c. Credit Manager d. CMO
77. How many codes are there under Asset Sub Classification?
1. 8 b. 9 c.6 d. 7
78. P
IPR shall be obtained in all cases of term loans where the limit is _and above,
at intervals.
a. Rs. 100 lacs, half yearly b. Rs. 50 lacs, half yearly
c. Rs. 50 lacs, monthly d. Rs. 50 lacs, quarterly
79. MTR is applicable in respect of limits

a. Fund Based limits AGM power and above
b. FB + NFB limits Rs. 1 crore and above
c. FB + NFB limits AGM power and above
d. FB limits Rs. 1 crore and above
80. P
re-Release audit is to be conducted in respect of Credit Limits ; audit shall be
conducted within
a. Rs. 1 crore and above; 30 days
b. Rs. 5 crores and above; 48 hours
c. Rs. 10 crores and above; 3 months d. Rs. 5 crores and above; 6 months
81. In respect of limits permitted to exporters for a period of 2 years, how many
MTR has to be submitted ?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Nil.
82. Credit Audit is applicable in respect of the following accounts;

a. Fund Based fresh sanctions Rs. 1 crore and above
b. Fund Based and Non-Fund Based fresh sanctions Rs. 1 crore and above
c. FB + NFB fresh sanctions, renewals with enhancement & additional exposures
with aggregate liability Rs. 1 crore and above
d. FB + NFB fresh sanctions Rs. 5 crores and above
83. L
egal Audit is to be conducted in respect of aggregate credit exposures of and
the audit is to be conducted by
a. Rs. 5 crore and above; Inspectors
b. Rs. 5 crore and above; Penal Advocate
c. Rs. 5 crore and above; Penal Advocate other than the one who had given LSR
d. Rs. 1 crore and above; Penal Advocate other than the one who had given LSR
84. In how many sub-categories SMA are classified?

a. 5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 9
85. Project Appraisal is required in case existing borrowers with Moderate risk
category if the amount exceeds Rs.
a. 2 cr b. 3 cr c.5 cr d. 1cr
86. The exposure ceiling to real estate shall be % of the Gross Credit with a sub
exposure ceiling of % of gross credit for financing Commercial Real estate
sector.
a. 20 and 5 b. 25 and 10 c. 20 and 10 d. 25 and 5
87. In order to promote payment discipline and encourage acceptance of bills, the
Bank shall stipulate that borrowers (corporates and other constituent) having
sales turnover of over Rs._ their overdue payables in their periodical returns/
statements submitted to the Bank.
a. Rs.25 cr b. Rs.50 cr c.Rs.75 cr d. Rs.100 cr
88. Minimum margin requirement for NFB limits shall be 25% as TDR , reduction in
margin can be permitted by Circle head CAC as
a. 10% b. 15%
c. 20% d. No Power
89. Disbursement of vehicles financed under Retail Lending / Agriculture /MSME by

way of NEFT/RTGS also to the dealers can be permitted on selective basis by
a. RO Head CAC b. Circle Head CAC
c. GM HO CAC d. No Power
90. In case of RO/CO/SME Sulabh sanction, if the enhancement/ increase is more
than 100% (during the renewal or mid-term enhancement) of previous limit,
the proposal for sanction shall be placed to
a. Placed to the authority 2 levels above
b. Permitted by respective sanctioning authority
c. Next higher authority
d. Circle Head CAC only
91. In case of accounts falling under the sanctioning powers of Head of Circle
CAC, review and extension of tenability of limit in respect of High Risk rated
accounts permitted by
a. GM-HO-CAC b. DGM/GM-CO-CAC [Circle Head]
c. Board CAC d. No Power in case of High Risk a/c
92. Review and extension of tenability in respect of High Risk rated accounts can
be permitted subject to
a) All credit monitoring reports are complied with/not pending. No outstanding
overdues in the account.
b) Review /Extension should be done in the specified format and a copy to be
forwarded to the CAM Wing, Head Office.
c) Review & extension of tenability of limits can be permitted only once and for
a period not exceeding 2 months
d) all of the above
93. Sanction of loans/advances to new clients rated ‘High Risk’ can be permitted
by
a. Circle Head CAC & above authority
b. GM-HO-CAC & above authority
c. Board CAC & above authority
d. N
o authority is empowered to sanction loans/advances to new clients rated
‘High Risk’
94. Delegation of powers for takeover of accounts (other than retail lending
schemes) in case of ‘low risk’ account is
a. Respective sanctioning authority
b. Only RO Head CAC and above authorities upto their delegated powers
c. Only Circle Head CAC and above authorities upto their delegated powers
d. Only DGM-CO-CAC and above authorities upto their delegated powers
schemes) in case of ‘High risk’ account is
a. Circle Head CAC & above authority
b. GM-HO-CAC & above authority
c. Board CAC & above authority
d. No Power for High Risk A/c
96. Takeover of accounts from NBFCs/HFCs (rated externally A and above)in

respect of Retail Loans, select the true statement
a. Permitted to Salary class only
b. Permitted by RO Head CAC & above authority
c. Permitted by Circle Head CAC & above authority
d. Not eligible for takeover as per credit policy
97. Bank Guarantees with the following clauses can be permitted by

i. Operative clause ii. Jurisdiction Clause iii. Interest clause
a. GM-HO-CAC & above authority upto their delegated power
b. AGM-RO-CAC & above authority upto their delegated power
c. CIRCLE HEAD CAC & above authority upto their delegated power
d. Respective sanctioning authority
98. Consumer credit, including personal loans excluding credit card receivables
will attract a higher risk weight of
a. 150% b. 125%
c. 100% d. 75%
99. The following statement is true with respect to margin on NFB limits
a. 25% margin by way of TDR for Secured & Clean NFB limits
b. 10% margin by way of TDR for Secured NFB limits only
c. 20% margin by way of TDR for Clean NFB limits only
d. 15% margin by way of TDR for Secured & Clean NFB limits
100. Select the correct combination of Joint Appraisal Group (JAG) at RO
i) Overseeing Executive of AFPS Section
ii) AFPS Section In-charge
iii) AEO of the respective branch iv) RO head
a. i & ii b. i , ii & iii
c. i , ii & iv d. i , ii , iii & iv
101. What is the full form of UDIN

a. Unique Draft Identification Number
b. Unique Document Investigation Number
c. Unique Document Identification Number
d. Universal Document Identification Number
102. Documents certified by CAs mandatorily contain UDIN and it is to verified by

branches with the ones uploaded in the portal at
a. https://mca.gov.in b. https://udin.icai.org
c. https://caaudit.gov.in d. https://icai.org.in
103. The revised structure of Credit Sanction committees at Circles Offices headed
by GM are
a. DGM-CO-CAC & AGM-CO-CAC b. GM-CO-CAC & AGM-CO-CAC
c. DM-CO-CAC & GM-CO-CAC d. DGM-CO-CAC & GM-CO-CAC
104. The authorities empowered to permit variations under Corporate and MSME
proposals, including Commercial Real Estate , select the correct one
a. GM-HO-CAC may permit maximum of 2 variations in a proposal, including
major variations
b. ED-CAC & CAC of the Board may permit maximum of 4 variations in a proposal,
out of which Major variations shall not exceed 3.
c. GM-HO-CAC may permit maximum of 4 variations in a proposal, excluding
major variations
d. GM-HO-CAC may permit maximum of 3 variations in a proposal, including
major variations
105. Select the correct one for the latest review mechanism of the loan account
a. Above Rs.1.00 lakh (except retail lending )
b. Above Rs 5.00 lakh in case of Retail Lending , KCCS and Loans to SHG & JLGs
c. Above Rs.1.00 lakh including retail lending , KCCS and Loans to SHGs
d. Above Rs 5.00 lakh in case of Retail Lending & above Rs1.00 lakh for others
106. Select the wrong one in respect of LEI [Legal Entity Identifier]
a. LEI is a unique 20 digit code assigned to a legal entity
b. LEI is a combination of alphanumeric code
c. Valid for one year from the date of obtention
d. To be updated in CBS through CIM09
107. Total exposure Between Rs.50 crore and Rs.100 crore , time schedule was
prescribed for obtention and submission of LEI,
a. Dec 15, 2019 b. March 31, 2020
c. Sept 30, 2019 d. June 30, 2020
108. L
oan System for Delivery of Bank credit : Minimum level of loan component
is fixed for borrowers having Fund Based Working Capital limits of
a. Rs 150 crore & above from Banking system
b. Rs 100 crore & above from Banking system
c. Rs 50 crore & above from Banking system
d. Rs 10 crore & above from Banking system
109. L
oan System for Delivery of Bank credit : Minimum level of Loan Component
(% of Fund Based Working Capital limits from banking system) with effect from 1
July 2019 is
a. 40 % b. 60%
c. 50% d. 25%
110. L
oan System for Delivery of Bank credit : Effective from April 1, 2019, the
undrawn portion of cash credit/overdraft limits sanctioned to the aforesaid large
borrowers, shall attract a credit conversion factor of
a. 20 percent b. 10 percent
c. 25 percent d. 05 percent
111. ELIGIBILITY, QUALIFICATION AND EXPERIENCE FOR REGISTRATION AS VALUER AS

PER THE COMPANIES ACT, 2013 (18 OF 2013) , select the correct one
a. Plant & Machinery–Graduate in selected stream with 5 year’s experience
b. Plant & Machinery–Post graduate in selected stream with 3 year’s experience
c. Land and Building-Graduate in selected stream with 5 year’s experience
d. All of the above
112. Valuation in case of only Landed Property (Other than Agricultural Properties),
If the land is acquired/purchased beyond preceding one year, value of the
land should be taken
a) 85% of the Fair Market Value assessed by the Bank’s Approved Valuer
b) 90% of the Fair Market Value assessed by the Bank’s Approved Valuer
c) 95% of the Fair Market Value assessed by the Bank’s Approved Valuer
d) Value of the open plot is not required as per credit policy
113. A
firm has been sanctioned a cash credit limit of Rs.30 lac. It submits stock
statement for stock value of Rs.20 lac. The margin on the security is 25%.
What is the amount of drawing power in the account?
a) Rs 20.00 lacs b) Rs 15.00 lacs
c) Rs 30.00 lacs d) Rs 22.50 lacs
114. P
rocessing charges on working capital limits for amount above Rs 2.00 lacs
under non priority sector is
a) Rs 350/- per lakh
b) Rs.350 per lakh with a minimum of Rs.1000/-
c) Rs 350 per lakh with a maximum cap of Rs 35 lacs in a year
d) Rs 250/- per lakh
115. Prudential exposure ceiling for Single and Group borrowers for the Bank
based on the Tier I Capital Funds as at 31.03.2019. Tier I Capital Fund as at
31.03.2019 of our bank is
a) Rs 32000 Crore b) Rs 51500 Crore
c) Rs 31851 Crore d) Rs 35540 Crore
116. Single Borrower Exposure (Both Credit & Investment) for 2019-20, linked to
Tier Capital. NBFCs predominantly engaged in lending against Gold , Maximum
Exposure based on External Rating ‘AAA’for the year 2019-20 is
a) 1800 Crore b) 3500 Crore
c) 2000 Crore d) 3100 Crore
117. Delegation of powers for permitting Holding on Operations in case of limit

sanctioned by Circle Head CAC shall be
a) Circle Head CAC b) GM-HO-CAC
c) MC of the Board d) CAC of the Board
KEYS
1B 11 C 21 D 31 D 41 C 51 D 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B 101 C 111 D
2D 12 D 22 B 32 C 42 B 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 D 102 B 112 A
3B 13 D 23 B 33 C 43 D 53 C 63 D 73 D 83 C 93 C 103 D 113 B
4D 14 C 24 D 34 B 44 D 54 C 64 B 74 C 84 B 94 B 104 A 114 B
5D 15 B 25 B 35 C 45 C 55 D 65 C 75 B 85 C 95 D 105 B 115 C
6C 16 D 26 C 36 D 46 C 56 C 66 D 76 D 86 A 96 C 106 D 116 A
7B 17 D 27 D 37 C 47 D 57 B 67 A 77 B 87 B 97 A 107 A 117 B
8D 18 C 28 D 38 B 48 B 58 B 68 C 78 D 88 D 98 C 108 A
9C 19 B 29 D 39 B 49 D 59 A 69 C 79 B 89 C 99 A 109 B
10 B 20 B 30 A 40 C 50 D 60 C 70 C 80 B 90 C 100 B 110 A
ADVANCES TO EMPLOYEES:
1) Who are eligible to get clean OD / DPN …?

a) All confirmed employees who completed 3 years of service
b) All confirmed employees
c) All employees including probationary officers
d) All employees who completed 2 years of service
2) Please match the following category of employees with the enhancement of OD

limit.
1) Scale IV to scale VII -- a) 12 Lakhs
2) Scale I to Scale III -- b) 10 Lakhs
3) Sub Staff / PTE -- c) 6 Lakhs
4) Workmen -- d) 3 Lakhs
a) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – d & 4 – c b) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – d & 4 – a
c) 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – b & 4 – c d) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – d & 4 – b
3) Who is the sanctioning authority to sanction clean OD / DPN to employees?

a) Branch Head b) Scale IV & RO authorities at RO
c) Next higher authority d) None
4) Whether an employee can avail 3 DPN loans with in the ceiling fixed by Bank.
a) Yes employee can have any no. of DPN accounts at any given point of time.
b) No
c) Yes in Special Cases, can be permitted by Circle Head
d) Maximum No. of DPNs at any point of time is only two.
5) What is the prescribed NTH for Staff DPN…..?

a) 25 % b) 40 % c) 30 % d) 20 %
6) If earlier OD limit is availed partially, can the earlier limit be availed fully now
along with the enhanced OD limit as per HO Cir 15/2019 & 24/2019.
a) Yes, permitted by Circle Head
b) No
c) Yes, but OD limit and DPN limit put together should not exceed the total limit
d) Yes with clearance of NHA
7) Under Car loan scheme to employees, eligible to avail loan for pre-owned
vehicle aged not older than _____ years.
a) 5 yrs b) 3 yrs c) 10 yrs d) 7yrs
8) Whether female employee eligible to avail housing loan to construct house on
the site which is standing in her spouse who is not our employee?
a) Yes b) No c) With permission of NHA d) Only Circle Head.
9) Whose income can also be considered under EHL for deciding the quantum /
NTH & repayment capacity?
a) Spouse b) Major Children c) a & b
d) legal heirs e) all the above
10) Who are eligible for reimbursement of expense incurred towards purchase of
cleaning materials….?
a) Officers who occupies bank quarters.
b) Officers who occupies quarters on personal lease
c) Officers who are staying in their own house
d) A & B
e) All the above
11) What is the cut off time for SA to permit loan card /606 /607 for filing suit /
LAW /any other recovery action?
a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 45
12) Report of _________ in the prescribed format shall be taken as the base for
identifying the staff lapses for NPA a/c with sanctioned limit up to 10 lakhs ?
a) Branch Head b) R O Head
c) Circle Head d) RBIA inspecting Official
13) NPA A/c s with sanctioned limit of Rs. _____ & above, shall be reported to
Vigilance Wing on quarterly basis & invariably investigation is to be conducted
a) 1 Cr. b) 5 Cr. c) 10 Cr. d) 15 Cr.
14) What is the time line to complete the scrutiny of staff accountability in case of
NPA accounts.
a) Within 30 days from account became NPA
b) 60 days from date of NPA
c) Within 45 days from the date of quarter end of each quarter.
d) None of the above.
15) What is the time line for user section for placing note regarding loan card
607/606 from the date of receipt of it.
a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 45 days d) 60 days
16) What are the three stages in operational guidelines of scrutiny of staff
accountability in NPA accounts.
a) Credit Monitoring section at RO / CO shall ensure that loan card / 606/607
submitted within 30 days.
b) User section has to place note within 15 days before competent authority
after receipt of loan card 606 / 607.
c) R & L Section of CO shall ensure the compliance of the orders of the competent
authority.
d) All the above.
KEYS
1 c 11 a
2 a 12 a
3 a 13 d
4 a 14 c
5 a 15 a
6 c 16 d
7 c
8 b
9 c
10 e
NPA & RECOVERY
1. Asset classification is being carried out for :
a. Income recognition b. Provisioning norms
c. Prudential guidelines d. Timely recovery action
e. All the above
2. Banks classify NPA accounts into:

a. categories i.e. doubtful & loss account
b. 3 categories i.e. sub-standard , doubtful and loss accounts
c. 4
categories i.e. special mention accounts, sub-standard, doubtful and loss
account
d. categories. i.e. standard accounts, sub-standard, doubtful and loss account
3. A Loan Account Becomes NPA :

a. Where principal or interest become due and not recovered for 85 days
b. Where cash credit account has been out of order for more than 90 days
c. Where the bill purchased / discounted has become overdue and continues to be
overdue for 89 days
d. Where amount remains unpaid for less than two crops seasons for short duration
and less than one crop season for long duration crop in case of all agriculture
account.
4. Cash credit or OD a/c does not become out of order but becomes NPA directly:
a. Where the limit has not been renewed for more than 6 months after it had fallen
due for renewal
b. Where principal and /or interest in TL has become due and not paid by the
borrower for 75 days
c. Where the cash credit account has been out of order for more than 90 days
d. Where the bill purchased /discounted has become overdue and continues to be
overdue for 87 days
5. In a cash credit account, the party has not given due stock statement for the last
9 months.
The account is showing a balance of Rs 2.56 lakh with a limit of Rs 3 lakh and DP
2.80 lakh based on the last stock report. The party has paid interest regularly.
The account is otherwise conducted as per terms of the sanction . The account
classification shall be:
a. Standard account b. Out of order account
c. Sub-standard account d. At discretion of the bank
6. Which of the following statements match in connection with time period for an:
NPA Account
a. Remains sub-standard for 90 days
b. Remains special mention a/c for 12 months
c. Remains in doubtful more than 3 years category for 3 years
d. Remains in doubtful first sub-category for 1 year and 2nd sub-category for
2 years
7. The period of NPA in Sub Standard category

8. After sale of NPA for how many days , Loan Account will be treated in Standard
Category with the purchaser bank?
a. 90 days b. 60 days c. 45 days d. 30 days
9. In a cash credit account, if the due stock statement is not submitted for-----
months, the account would be treated as :
a. 3 months, sub-standard b. 3 months, Irregular
c. 6 months, irregular d. 9 months, irregular
10. If one a/c of the borrower has become sub-standard (which statement does
match) :
a. His other accounts in all branches of that bank shall be treated as NPA even
though regular account
b. His other accounts in other banks shall be treated NPA if it is a consortium
Account
c. His other accounts in other branches shall not be treated NPA if running regular
d. His other accounts including against the security of bank deposit shall be
treated as NPA and provided for
11. In case of agricultural loans, the period for which the account can remain
irregular (standard) before it is classified as sub-standard is:
a. 90 days for all agriculture accounts
b. 2 or one crop season, for agriculture loans
c. Two or one crop seasons for agriculture accounts where recovery is based on
Crop
d. 90 days for all indirect agriculture accounts and two or one crop season for all
direct agriculture loans
12. Which of the following accounts can qualify to become NPA if it starts showing
irregularity ?
a. Loan against FDR in which balance exceeds the sanctioned limit but is within
the present value of security
b. Entire loan to a former service society (FSS) given by the bank for on-lending
where few loans (and not all) given by FSS to formers , have become NPA
c. Interest debited to the account for more than 90 days but has not become due
for payment in a house loan account
d. Interest debited to a cash credit account during quarter and not recovered
within 90 days from end of the quarter
13. A farmer has been allowed a crop loan and term loan for irrigation equipment
and tractor purchase. He produces short duration crops like paddy & wheat
but failed to repay the due installment. The loan will become NPA if position
continues for:
a. One harvest season b. One crop season
c. Two harvest season d. Two crop season
e. Maximum within one years
14. X was given a demand loan of Rs 2 Lac against NSCs of Rs 4 Lac at 12%
interest rate. Bank has debited Rs 25183/- as interest in the account in one
year ended March 31, 2017 which the borrower has paid:
a. Account shall be treated NPA for non-service of interest
b. Account to be treated standard but interest not to be credited to income
c. Interest will be taken to income whether paid or not since it is a loan against
NSC
d. Account will be in performing category and interest will be taken to income,
till the balance is within value of security.
15. Where account is running irregular and it is a govt. Guaranteed accounts (which
is not correct):
a. If account is guaranteed by State govt. It will be treated like any other normal
account for NPA purpose.
b. In State govt. guaranteed account, asset classification and provisioning will be
made like other NPA accounts
c. In Central govt guaranteed account asset classification and provision will be
made like in other NPA accounts
d. In central govt guaranteed account income recognition will not be made if
interest is not received
16. Which among the following is not correct in the context of a loss account?
a. If the security depletes and value remains less than 10% of the balance, account
shall be treated loss account.
b. Loss account is to be written off by banks
c. If bank decides not to write off, 100% provision is required
d. Loss a/c can be restructured
17. If an account is sub-standard or doubtful , it can be classified as standard:

a. From the same day, when entire due amount is recovered
b. From the close of the year ,during which the due amount is recovered
c. After 12 months , from date of recovery
d. If it is re-structured account, immediately on re-structuring
18. Substandard loan was rescheduled on Sept 20, 2015with a moratorium of 6

months. The firm repaid the loan regularly as per reschedule. The account
would be treated standard asset w.e.f.:
a. Sep 20, 2016 b. March 20, 2016
c. Sep 20, 2017 d. Sep 20, 2015
19. W
hen an account has become NPA, interest debited earlier and not recovered
should be :
a. Reversed b. Fully provided
c. Not to be reversed d. Not to be provided
20. W
hen the guarantee will become NPA, where the guarantee is fully secured by
the Central Govt ?
a. When the Central Govt rejects the claim, when the guarantee is invoked
b. When the Central Govt rejects the claim, when guarantee not invoked
c. When the Central Govt accepts the claim, when the guarantee is invoked
d. When the Central Govt accepts the claim, when guarantee not invoked
21. No NPA account with liability of Re.1 crore and above can outstand in the books
of the Bank beyond a period of……. without initiating action for recovery :
22. Conditions for Doubtful Asset category:

a. More than 18 months in Sub – Standard
b. More than 12 months in Sub – Standard
c. More than 24 months in Sub – Standard
d. More than 36 months in Sub – Standard
23. Following accounts need not be classified as NPAs as long a they maintain
Required Adequate margin :
a. Loan against Surrender Value Of LIC policy b. Our Bank Deposit
c. NSCs / KVPs / IVPs d. All the above
24. An NPA Account had total liability of Rs15 lakhs that include a Over Due amount
of Rs 6.10 lakhs which the party paid on 22.10.2015. The account will become Standard
Asset From :
a. 22.10.2015 b. 31.10.2015 c. 30.11.2015 d. 31.12.2017
25. Consortium Accounts will be classified as NPA based on:

a. The individual bank’s recovery b. The other banks recovery
c. Average recovery of all the banks d. Consortium leader bank’s recovery
26. Legal expenses in NPA account will be debited to :

a. P&L A/c b. Savings Bank c. GL A/c d. Suspense A/c
27. An account where the regular / adhoc credit limits have not been reviewed /
renewed within a period…...days from the due date/date of adhoc sanction will
betreated as NPA:
28. An NPA is purchased by Bank from HF Company, if there is no recovery up to

what period, the purchased asset will be in standard category in purchased bank
records
29. In an NPA, Classification will move from standard to Doubtful Asset without
going through Sub Standard Asset :
a. Erosion in Value of Security is > 50% and available security is > 10% of the
liability
b. Erosion in Value of Security is > 40% and available security is > 10% of the
liability
c. Erosion in Value of Security is > 30% and available security is > 10% of the
liability
d. Erosion in Value of Security is > 20% and available security is > 10% of the
liability
30. A Cash Credit Account / A Running Limit becomes NPA

a. If it remains Out of order for more than 90 days
b. If the interest is overdue for more than 30 days
c. Immediately on becoming Out of order
d. If the account is not renewed /reviewed for 120 days
31. In a Term Loan Account the due date for installment payment was 30.11.2017
which the borrower did not pay. The provision as at 31.03.2018 is to be made
at --- % of the outstanding amount:
a. 60 % if it is secured and 50 % if it is unsecured
b. 40% if it is secured and 30 % if it is unsecured
c. 30 % if it is secured and 40 % if it is unsecured
d. 15% if it is secured and 25 % if it is unsecured
32. The company has submitted the stock statement with delay of 6 months on
06.01.2017. The status of the account is NPA on :
a. 30.09.2016 b. 31.12.2016 c. 31.03.2017 d. 30.06.2016
33. A borrower has availed a loan of Rs 2 lac against the deposit of Rs 4 lac and
interest at the rate of 9.50% debited to the account of Rs 51280 has not been
serviced till date and hence the account to be classified as :
a. Standard Asset as the party is longstanding with the branch
b. Standard Asset as long as there is availability of sufficient deposit
c. Standard Asset as long as the party has other accounts with branch
d. Standard Asset as long as there is Sufficient Required Margin Is Available
34. Where there is problem with recovery, a standard account moves to sub-
standard to doubtful to loss category with a specified waiting period. But where
there is loss of security, standard account directly becomes doubtful account or
loss account :
a. True b. False
c. Not Sure d. Branch In Charge Decides
35. When value of security in a loan account is less than its balance, which of the
following is not correct:
a. If it is 10% or less of at the time of sanction and account becomes NPA , it shall
be treated sub-standard unsecured
b. If it is less than 50% while account was fully secured initially ,account shall be
treated as doubtful
c. If it is less than 10% while account was fully secured initially, account shall be
treated as loss account
d. If it is less than 90% while the account was fully secured initially , the account
shall be treated as loss account
36. Which of the following is ‘not’ correct asset classification status of a cash
credit account as on 31.03.2017:
a. If it became out of order on Dec 28,2016, it will be treated sub-standard
b. If it became out of order on Jan 11, 2017, it will be treated as standard account
c. If it became out of order on Nov 11,2015,it will be doubtful above one year
category
d. If it became out of order on Nov 11, 2014, it will be treated as doubtful above
one year but up to 3 years category
37. In case of large industrial project , where the interest is payable after
moratorium and it is debited periodically and not recovered immediately , the
account will not become NPA
a. True b. False
c. As Decided By The Branch d. As Decided By The Borrower
38. An NPA a/c had total balance of Rs 10 Lac including a due amount of Rs 4.50
Lac. The party paid it on Aug 22, 2016.The account would be categorized as
standard asset w.e.f :
a. March 31,2017 b. Sept 30,2016
c. August 31, 2016 d. August 22, 2016
39. Decision regarding classification of crop being short duration or long duration is
taken by the bank concerned in each state:
a. True b. False
c. Not Sure d. Branch In Charge Decides
40. The new category of account introduced between Standard and Sub- Standard
category is
a. Special Mention Account b. Black Flagged Account
c. Red Flagged Account d. Yellow Flagged Account
41. What is the rate of provision in case of Doubtful Asset which is doubtful for 24
months :
a. 100% of unsecured portion + 60% of secured value
b. 100% of unsecured portion + 40% of secured value
c. 100% of unsecured portion + 30% of secured value
d. 100% of unsecured portion + 20% of secured value
42. The account is classified as Doubtful for 3 years now ; Total dues in the account
is Rs.80.00 lakh, Security Value is Rs.100.00 lakh – Provision to be made for
a. 60% of Rs.80.00 lakh ie 48.00 lacs, as it is DA – 2 Upto 3 years
b. 40% of Rs.80.00 lakh ie 32.00 lacs, as it is DA – 2 Upto 3 years
c. 30% of Rs.80.00 lakh ie 24.00 lacs, as it is DA – 2 Upto 3 years
d. 20% of Rs.80.00 lakh ie 16.00 lacs, as it is DA – 2 Upto 3 years
43.An account became out of order on Jan 22, 2017.For a balance of Rs 10 Lac,
what will be amount of provision as on March 31, 2018, if the value of security is
Rs 7 Lac:
a. Rs 2 Lac b. Rs 1.50 Lac c. Rs 3.70 Lac d. Rs 4.40 Lac
44. Which among the following is ”not” correct statement in the context of
provision on sub-standard account:
a. If account is secured, provision at 15% and if unsecured , provision at 25%
b. For unsecured portion, provision is 100% and for secured portion 10%
c. If no security was taken at the time of sanction of loan, provision is 25%
d. If security was taken at the time of sanction of loan and is still intact, provision
of 15% to be made.
45. In respect of loan accounts classified as doubtful, the provision is made:

a. Within a range of 25-100% separately for the secured potion of balance and
unsecured portion of the balance
b. If account is up to one year doubtful, provision is 20% for the entire amount
whether secured or unsecured
c. If account is doubtful more than 1 year to 3 years, provision is 30% for the
entire amount whether secured or unsecured
d. If account is more than 3 years doubtful, provision is 100% including for the
balance secured by CGT-MSE guarantee.
46. If an account became sub-standard on Mar 30, 2013 and the balance is Rs.10
Lac and security value of Rs 6 Lac. The amount of provision as on 31.03.2017
would be:
a. 5 lac b. 6 lac c. 7.5 lac d. 10 lac
47. The account became doubtful on Feb 12, 2014.The balance is Rs 6 lac. The
amount of provision as on March 31, 2017 will be:
a. 1.20 lac b. 1.80 lac c. 3.00 lac d. 6 lac
48. In an account bank has to recover Rs 10 Lac from borrower which include Rs
2 lac as recorded / suspended interest. The security value is Rs 6 lac .For this
more than one year but up to 3 year doubtful (DF-2) account, the provision as
on 31.03.2017 will be
a. Rs 3.80 lac b. Rs 4.40 lac c. Rs 4.50 lac d. 8.00 lac
49. Which of the following is not correct with regard to the provision to be made
on standard loan assets:
a. Teaser home loans, capital market exposure , personal loans 1%
b. General provision on global balances-0.4%
c. Direct agriculture & all SME loan accounts -0.25%
d. Commercial Real Estate exposure -1%
50. A pre-shipment account (doubtful above 1 year but less than 3 years-DF-2) has
debit balance of Rs4 lac. The principal security value is Rs 1.50 lac and ECGC
cover is available at 50% .What provision will be made on this account as on
31.03.2017:
a. Rs 1.85 lac
b. Rs 1.90 lac
c. 1.95 lac
d. 2.25 lac
e. Account is secured by ECGC cover. Hence no provision.
51. A loan account XYZ Limited became doubtful on April 2, 2014. What would be
the provision percentage as on Mar 31, 2017, if the balance is fully secured:
a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 75% e. 100%
52. A/c of ABC has become doubtful with balance of Rs 6 Lac. The collateral
security value is Rs 3 Lac and principal security Rs 2 Lac. Guarantor’s net worth is Rs
10 Lac. What will be the provision amount for this more than 1 year and up to 3 years
doubtful accounts as on march 31, 2017:
a. Rs 1.50 lac b. Rs 2.50 lac c. Rs 3.00 lac d. Rs 5 lac
53. An unsecured sub-standard loan would mean a loan , where was allowed without
security or security value is ----- or less of the outstanding ab initio
a. 10% b. 15% c. 25% d. 50% e. 100%
54. Bank A & Bank B have allowed loan on consortium basis. Loan is irregular with
Bank A for 120 days and with Bank B for 18 months. The classification of account should
be
a. Sub-standard account by both the Banks
b. Sub-standard with Bank A and Doubtful with Bank B
c. Doubtful by both the Banks
d. In consortium account, NPA rules are not applicable
55. In a more than one year but less than 3 years doubtful (DF-2) NPA account with
balance of Rs 20 Lac, the security covers the balance to the extent of Rs 15 lac.
The provision percentage as on 31.03.2015, would be:
a. 40% for the entire balance
b. 40% for the unsecured balance and 100% for the secured.
c. 100% for the entire balance
d. 100% for unsecured and 40% for secured balance
56. The due date of a bill is Dec 28 2015.But it is not paid and position continues as
such. The provision in the account as on Mar 31, 2017 would be:
a. 10% b. 25% c. 30% d. none of the above
57. In a term loan account the due date for installment payment was Nov 30,
2016 which the borrower did not pay. The provision as at Mar 31, 2017 is to be
made at ----% of the outstanding amount:
a. 15%, if it secured b. 20%, if it secured
c. 30%, if unsecured d. 25% if account is unsecured
e. a and d above
58. An account with balance of Rs 10 Lac is secured by CGF guarantee cover of 75%.
Value of security is Rs 1.50 lac. Account is in more than 3 years doubtful category.
Provision as on Mar 31, 2017 would be:
a. Rs 3.63 lac b. 5.05 lac c. 2.50 lac d. No provision
59. Which among the following is not correct in case of provision against standard
accounts :
a. Provision is to be made on global balance
b. Provision not to be deducted to arrive at net NPA position
c. Provision to be shown under schedule-5 ‘Other liabilities and provision’ in the
d. balance sheet
e. For a general credit card account, provision is 0.25%
60. The provisioning for the unsecured portion of the guarantee

a. 100% b. 80 c.120% d. 60%
61. Where a bank purchases an NPA account from other bank, the purchaser bank is
required (which is not true).
a. To plan recovery of the purchased NPA account within 3 years and ensure that
at least 10% of the total recovered in the first year and 5% in each following half
years.
b. The purchaser bank can sell this account after remaining it in books for 12
months.
c. For capital adequacy purpose the risk weight will be 100%
d. On purchase of NPA , the account would be classified as standard account for
one year
62. A doubtful more than 1 year up to 3 years ( DF-2) category loan of Rs 20 lac has
been sold by bank A to Bank B for Rs 14 lac on Jan 16, 2017.Bank B will make a
total provision of---- as on 31.03.2017:
a. 0.25 % b. 0.4% c. 10% d. 20% e. 40%
63. Which among the following is ‘ not ‘ correct in connection with the sale /
purchase of NPAs within banks:
a. Seller bank can sell the NPA account irrespective of period of NPA
b. Seller bank can sell the NPA account on without recourse basis only
c. Seller bank shall remove NPA account from its books only on receipt of full
amount up front
d. Seller bank can buy the account from the buyer bank, if loan with the buyer
bank has become a standard account
KEY
1. e 11. c 21. a 31. d 41. b 51. a 61. d

2. b 12. d 22. b 32. a 42. b 52. c 62. b
3. b 13. d 23. d 33. d 43. b 53. a 63. d
4. a 14. d 24. a 34. a 44. b 54. b
5. c 15. c 25. a 35. d 45. a 55. d
6. d 16. d 26. a 36. c 46. d 56. b
7. a 17. a 27. d 37. a 47. d 57. e
8. a 18. d 28. d 38. d 48. b 58. a
9. b 19. a 29. a 39. b 49. a 59. e
10. a 20. a 30. c 40. a 50. a 60. a
Questions:
1. What is ICAAP?
a. International Capital Adequacy Assessment Process
b. Indian Banks’ Capital Adequacy Assessment Process
c. Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process
d. International Capital Adequacy assessment Programme
2. As per Basel III, the value of revaluation reserve is to be taken at _______%
discount of include in Tier I Capital:
a. 65% b. 55% c. 25% d. 45%
3. Under Basel III, by using the Basic Indicator Approach, banks must hold capital
for operation risk equal to the average over the prescribed no of previous years
at …….% (denoted as alpha) of positive annual gross income.
a. 10% b. 13% c. 12% d. 15%
4. As per Basel III, the following is part of operation risk:

a. Legal risk b. counterparty risk
c. Market risk d. none of the above
5. As per the risk appetite statement of Bank, what is the quantitative indicator
under Leverage ratio? (LDGM 5/2019)
a. 3.50% of Tier I Capital b. 4.50% of Total Capital
c. 3.75% of Tier I Capital d. 4% of Total Capital
6. Under Basel III, risk weight for Capital charge for credit risk on basis of
standardized approach for CRE-Residential Housing?
a. 20% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%
7. Foreign Currency Translation Reserves (FCTR) created by a bank can be taken as

part of CET-1 Capital fund by the Bank at a discount of …………, for the purpose
of calculation of Capital Adequacy Ratio?
a. 15% b. 10% c. 25% d. 55%
8. Under Basel III, risk weight for capital charge for credit risk on the basis of
standardized approach, the following exposure does not match…
a. Consumer Credit - 125%
b. Claim on CGT for MSE - 0%
c. Regulatory Retail Portfolio - 75%
d. Staff loans secured by Mortgages - 75%
9. Match the following risk weights:
a. Loans guaranteed by State Govt
b. Capital Market exposure
c. Claims on Venture Capital Fund
1. 20% 2. 150% 3. 125%
Answers:
a) 1;b,3 & c,2 b) a,1;b,2 & c,3 c) a,2;b,1 & c,3 d) none of the above match
10. As per Basel III, risk of losses in ON & Off Balance Sheet positions arising from
movements in market prices is called
a. Market risk b. credit risk c. liquidity risk d. Legal Risk
Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c b d a a c C d a A
FEMA , NR Deposits & Remittances
1. What do you mean by ‘FEMA’

a) Foreign Exposure management Act
b) Foreign Exchange Managing Act
c) Fedai Exchange Monitoring Act
d) Foreign Exchange Management Act
2. When the Act was passed in Parliament?

a) Ist July,1999 b) 28th December,1999
c) 29th December,1999 d) 30th December,1999
3. Which Government body monitors ‘FEMA’ ?

a) DGFT b) Customs c) RBI d) Ministry of Commerce
4. What is the objective of this FEMA, 1999 Act ?

a) Replacing FERA
b) For Prevention of Money Laundering
c) Control in Balance of Payments in India
d) Facilitating external trade & Payments & promoting , development &
maintenance of Foreign exchange market in India
5. Please quote the section under FEMA 1999 which defines ‘ A person resident in
India’ ?
a) Section 49 (i) b) Section 9 (vi)
c) Section 2 (v) (i) d) None of the above.
6. What is the period a ‘Resident’ has to be in India in the preceding financial

year?
a) 180 days b) 6 months c) more than182 days d) 181 days
7. If a Foreign citizen who stay in India for employment,business etc for a indefinite
period of stay, will be considered as ‘Resident’
a) As Resident b) As foreign citizen
b) As PIO d) None of the above.
8. If an Indian citizen proceed abroad for business visit, medical treatment, training
for short duration will be considered as……….
a) To be considered as a NRI b) To be considered as Resident only
c) Persons of Indian Origin d) None of these
9. For release of foreign exchange to resident Indians for current account
transactions, Authorized dealer to be guided by which section of ‘FEMA’?
a) Section 3 b) Section 2(ii) c) Section 5 d) Section 9
10. What do you mean by ‘Schedule III’ & to whom it has been delegated?
a) RBI b) Authorized dealer Banks
c) Customs d) None of the above.
11. In terms of drawl exchange as per ‘Schedule I’, certain categories are
permitted ?
a) Foreign Travel b) Education
c) Expressly prohibited d) None of these.
12. Out of overall foreign exchange (USD 250,000) being sold to a traveler going to
Libya, exchange in the form of foreign currency notes & coins how much can be
sold ?
a) USD 3000
b) USD 5000
c) USD 5000 or its equivalent
d) No limit for Libiya as like Islamic Republic of Iran.
13. How much a resident Indian is allowed to take INR to other countries (other
than Nepal & Bhutan) ?
a) Rs 50,000 b) Rs 10,000 c) Rs 25,000 d) No limit
14. Which Form we have to obtain from traveler releasing currency other than
application?
a) Form A1 b) Form A4 c) Form A2 d) Form A
15.To which department of Government of India the Dance troupes, artistes should
apply for foreign exchange while undertaking tours ?
a) Department of Education & Culture under the Ministry of Education
b) Department of Education & Culture under the Ministry of Ministry of Human
Resources
c) Department of Foreign Affairs
d) No permission required, An Authorized dealer or FFMC can disburse.
16. What is the maximum eligibility for private visits to abroad (other than Nepal &
Bhutan)
a) Rs 50,000
b) USD 250,000
c) Rs 250,000 equivalent foreign exchange
17. For going abroad on employment, emigration how much amount a person can
draw foreign exchange in a financial year under LRS scheme?
a) Rs 100,000 b) Rs 250,000
c) USD 250,000 d) None of the above.
18. The individuals having proprietorship firms, what is maximum drawl amount
while visiting abroad irrespective of the number of visits during a financial year ?
a) No limit b) Rs 250,000 equivalent foreign exchange
c) USD 250,000 d) USD 50,000
19. If a resident individual going abroad for medical treatment & submit an estimate
from the doctor what is the maximum eligibility ?
a) Rs 250,000
b) Up to estimated amount
c) Up to estimated amount or USD 250,000 whichever is more.
d) Up to estimated amount or Rs 250,000 whichever is less
20. The resident individuals for studies abroad for purchase of foreign exchange
under LRS of USD 250,000,what documents required other than “Application cum
undertaking’ ?
a) Form A1 b) Form A4
c) Form A2 d) Application cum undertaking’ only
21. Which account a resident individual in India can open, hold & maintain with
an authorized dealer out of foreign exchange acquired in the form of currency
notes,bank notes & traveler cheques ?
a) FCNR b) RFC c) RFC (D) d) Domestic SB
22. What is the limit the Authorized Dealer may accept in cash for amounts against
sale of foreign exchange for travel abroad ?
a) Rs 25,000 b) Rs 10,000 c) Rs 50,000 d) No limit
23. Up to what amount AD-I banks can release forex in the cash for Traveller
proceeding for HAJ/UMARAH pilgrim?
a) Upto USD10000
b) Upto the cash limit specified by HAZ committee of India
c) A or B whichever is lower
d) A or B whichever is higher
24 How much forex can be released for travel to Nepal or Bhutan?

a) USD5000
b) USD10000
c) Forex can’t be released for travel to Nepal or Bhutan
d) USD 25000
25. An NRI resident in Dubai has come back to India to settle permanently. Which
of the following account as a Banker you will suggest as per FEMA,1999 to keep
his present & future earnings in foreign currency, facility of future repatriation
facility & to earn interest thereon:
a) Foreign Currency Non resident account
b) Exchange earner foreign currency account
c) Resident foreign currency domestic account
d) Resident foreign currency account.
26. The rate of interest on resident foreign currency deposit

a) domestic savings bank rate on savings bank account
b) its Bank discretion
c) fixed by RBI.
d) linked with London inter banking offer rate linked rate of interest.
27.Foreign currency fluctuation risk is born by the customer in respect of

a) FCNR account b) EEFC account
c) RFC – Domestic d) NRE (rupee account)*
28. Funds lying in EEFC account can be used by the account holder for
a) advances to overseas importer
b) giving trade related loans outside India
c) repayment of pre shipment credit
d) b & c only
e) a to c all
f) none of the above
29. Which among the following amount is allowed to repatriated under the NRE
deposit A/c for NRIs
a) the prinicipal & the interest portion after deduction of tax
b) interest only
c) no repatriation permitted
d) the amount of principal & interest thereon
30. Upto what extent of debits can be allowed by ADs for remittance from NRO
account of NRI/PIO representing sale of immovable property:
a) US$ 100000 in a calendar year
b) US$ 100000 in a financial year
c) US$ 1 million in a financial year
d) permission to be obtained by Ads from RBI
31. Mr Bharat is returning permanently to India from USA after staying 23 Years &
now he wants to retain the repatriation facility of all the money he has earned
& also the pensions earnings & rent owned by him in abroad from the foreign
firm. As a Banker what will be your suggestion to him & to suit his needs ?
a) FCNR(B) account b) RFC (D) account
c) RFC account d) any of the above
32. Which of the following credits can be credited to NRO account ?

a) Telegraphic transfer, currency (self only), demand draft, cheques
b) rent, dividends earnings in India
c) sale proceeds of assets including immovable property.
d) all of the above.
33. A person of foreign origin (foreigner) opens an NRO account in India & below
which is not correct:
a) he is on visit in India
b) period of deposit restricted to 6 months
c) the balance in the account can be converted into foreign currency provided
no local credits are credited
d) if account is maintained for more than 6 months RBI permission is required.
34. NOSTRO account means:

a) Foreign currency account of an Indian Bank in India
b) Foreign currency account of an Indian Bank abroad.
c) Foreign currency account of a Foreign Bank
d) Indian currency account of a Foreign Bank.
35. The visits by a resident Indian to which of the following countries are not
eligible for obtaining foreign exchange.
a) Iraq & Libiya b) all SAARC countries
c) Russian Federation d) Nepal & Bhutan
36. Canara Bank opens a current account with Citi Bank,New York for its day to day
business transaction in US dollars.Which of the following kinds of accounts, it will be
known to Canara Bank?
a) Vostro account b) Nostro account
c) Loro account d) Escrow account
37. Which accounts are called “ your account with us”

a) Loro account b) Vostro account
c) Nostro account d) none of the above
38. Current Account full convertibility introduced by RBI on

a) 01.08.1994 b) 08.08.1994 c) 19.08.1994 d)19.09.1994
39. Which of the following does not match in case of drawl of foreign exchange by
residents:
a) Schedule I transaction not permitted
b) Schedule II transaction – permission of Central Government.
c) Schedule III transaction with permission of RBI
d) none of the above.
40. Foreign currency non resident (Banks) accounts can be opened in the name of
the following:
a) non-resident b) Overseas Corporate bodies
b) none of the above d) A & B
41. A non resident account cannot be opened by which of the following:

a) an Indian National gone USA for medical treatment for a longer period
b) as Indian national working with a foreign airline with his base in Hongkong
c) an Indian student gone abroad for studies.
42. The foreign exchange risk shall be borne by the bank,in which of the non
resident account.
a) NRO b) NRE c) FCNR d) All the above
43. Joint operation joint account with a resident can be opened by an NRI(NO 1) in
which of the following with clause NO 1 or Survivor.
a) NRO b) NRE c) FCNR d) all the above
44. An NRI residing in USA has come back to India to settle permanently,which of
the following account would be opened by him to keep his balance in foreign
currency,to earn interest
a) Resident foreign currency account
b) Resident foreign currency Domestic account
c) Foreign currency non resident account
d) Exchange earner foreign currency account
45. Which of the following type of account cannot be opened by a person resident
in India.
a) Resident foreign currency account (D)
b) Exchange earner foreign currency account
c) Non resident ordinary account
d) All above
46. What is the maximum amount that can be deposited in EEFC Account
a) 75 % b) 50 % c) 100 % d) 25 %
47. What is the maximum limit upto which a resident individual can make
investment under ODI(LRS scheme)?
a) USD 50,000 b) USD 2,50,000 c) USD 2,00,000 d) USD 5,00,000
48. Pre payment of Import bills permissible without deduction of interest for
unexpired portion of 3 to 4 days.
a) not permitted b) clean rate of interest to be collected
c) permitted d) upto USD 1,00,000
49. Power of Branch Managers regarding relaxations of Status report/OPL of

advance remittance under imports of a Importer with satisfactory operations in
a year.
a) USD 10,000 & cumulative USD 1,00,000
b) USD 10,000 & cumulative USD 50,000
c) USD 10,000 & cumulative USD 75,000
50. How regulates the Foreign trade Policy in India

a) Reserve Bank b) Exim Bank c) Ministry of Finance
d) Ministry of commerce e) FEDAI
51. Who regulate the Foreign trade in India

a) RBI b) DGFT c) FEDAI d) SEBI
52. What is the residential status of a student from India having gone abroad for
studies purpose:
a) a person of Indian origin b) a Non resident Indian
c) a resident Indian d) a foreign national
53. An NRI has been issued a credit card by our bank.The balance drawn by him
under the card shall be adjusted by which of the following:
a) Any one of the below modes.
b) transfer from NRE Account
c) transfer from his FCNR account
d) transfer from his NRO account
54. If an NRI is having an Non resident External (Rupee account) term deposit &
return to India
a) the account will continue as till maturity
b) the A/c will be closed treated as domestic deposit
c) the account will be converted as resident foreign currency deposit
d) any of the above
55. Transfer between NRO accounts of the same NRI Customer is
a) not permitted
b) freely permitted
c) permitted at the Bank’s discretion
Answers Key of FEMA , NR Deposits & Remittances
1d 9c 17 c 25 d 33 d 41 a 49 b
2c 10 b 18 c 26 b 34 b 42 c 50 d
3c 11 c 19 c 27 d 35 d 43 d 51 b
4d 12 c 20 c 28 e 36 b 44 a 52 b
5c 13 c 21 c 29 d 37 b 45 c 53 a
6c 14 c 22 c 30 c 38 c 46 c 54 d
7a 15 b 23 b 31 c 39 c 47 b 55 b
8b 16 b 24 c 32 d 40 a 48 c
EXPORTS
1. RBI issues directives on export credit under which of the following

a) Sec 27 of RBI act
b) Sec 2(v) (i) of Fema Act,1999
c) Sec 23 & Sec 56 of Banking Regulation Act
d) Sec 21 & 35A of Banking Regulation Act
2. Pre shipment credit can be allowed on the basis of which of the following:
a) letter of credit opened in favour of the exporter or any other person.
b) confirmed or irrevocable order for export of goods.
c) letter of credit opened in favour of an exporter.
d) any of the above.
3. Specific Approval List (SAL) on the exporters is issued by

a) Exim Bank b) RBI c) ECGC d) Ministry of Finance
4. Exporter’s caution list issued by

a) our Bank b) RBI c) ECGC d) none of these.
5. Restricted cover countries list is issued by

a) our Bank b) RBI c) ECGC d) none of these
6. The period of export credit is restricted to:
a) discretion of the bank b) 90 days c) 270 days d) 360 days
7. The pre shipment credit is liquidated out of a) converting pre shipment into post
shipment credit b) balances in EEFC account c) proceeds of bills drawn for the
export of the same consignment or other consignments d) other rupee resources
of exporter representing the export has actually taken place.
a) a & b only b) a, b & d only c) a to d all d) a only
8. Running account pre-shipment credit is permitted, which of the following is

correct:
a) period of individual credit not to exceed prescribed 360 days
b) adjustment is on first in first out basis.
c) pre-shipment credit can be adjusted from proceeds of those exports for
which pre-shipment credit not availed
d) all of the above.
9. Before discounting the export bill the branch has to verify the
a) Physical copy of the shipping bill
b) physical copy submitted by the exporter to be verified on line in the ICE
c) GATE portal of customs
d) no need to verify the shipping bill
e) none of the above
10. In the case of ECGC post shipment finance, the ECGC premium is to be
a) paid by the exporter
b) paid by the Bank
c) Bank has the discretion to waive the premium basing on the standing of the
party
d) none of the above
11. As per FEMA full value of export to be realized ______ from the date of
shipment
a) 6 months b) 9 months c) 12 months d) 18 months
12. Export documents to be submitted by the exporters to the Bank within ----------
--- from the date of export
13. An exporter of Bharat Commercial Bank receives a letter of credit issued by a
Bank in Singapore for exporting jute bags.The condition stated in the FLC that
exporter can negotiate documents with Indian Commercial Bank only. This FLc
to be stated as:
a) confirmed letter of credit b) red clause letter of credit
c) back to back letter of credit d) restricted letter of credit
14. All categories of foreign exchange earners are allowed to credit ____% of their
foreign exchange earnings to their EEFC Accounts.
a) 25% b) 50% c) 10% d) 100%
15. Exporters are permitted to export goods free of cost in a financial year up to a
limit of.
a) US$ 5 lacs b) 10 lakhs c) Rs 5 lakhs d) no value ceiling
e) not permitted as per FEMA
16. Exporters receiving advance payment for long term export contracts from the
overseas buyers can pay interest (interest bearing advance remittance) on the
amount received at LIBOR (London Inter Bank Offered Rate) at _____
a) LIBOR + 200 bps b) at LIBOR + 400 bps
c) LIBOR + 250 bps d) cannot pay any interest
17. Exporters having a minimum of three years satisfactory track record are
allowed to receive long term export advance up to a maximum tenor of ........
years to be utilized for execution of long term supply contracts.
a) 5 years b) 10 years
c) 12 years d) no such provision under FEMA
18. Firms / Companies and other organizations participating in Trade Fair/

Exhibition abroad can gift the unsold items to the extent of USD _____
a) US$ 5000 per exporter
b) US$ 10000
c) US$ 5000 per exporter, per exhibition/trade fair.
d) no such provision.
19. In case of exporters undrawn balance is permitted in certain of trade up to-----
---of the export value
a) 5% b) 10% c) 25% d) 50% e) not applicable
20. Reduction in invoice value in normal course is permitted for exports up to____
of export value by an AD – category 1 Bank.
a) 5% b) 10% c) 25% d) 50% e) 100%
21. In Exports the term ‘Satisfactory track record’ means the export outstandings
do not exceed .......... of the average annual export realisation during
preceding three financial years.
a) 25 % b) 10 % c) 5% d) 1%
22. Self “ write-off” by an exporter (other than Status holder exporter ) of

unrealized export bills is ....... % of the total export proceeds realized during
the previous calendar year subject to certain condition.
a) 10 % b) 25 % c) no powers d) 5 %
23. The exporters would be caution listed if any shipping bill against them Remains
Open/unpaid for more than ------------ from the date of export in EDPMS
provided no extension is granted by AD Category –I bank / RBI.
a) 6 months from the date of export b) 1 year from the date of export
c) 2 years from the date of export d) 3 years from the date of export
24. Request for issuance of guarantees to caution listed exporters can be done
a) by Banks under the RBI delegated powers
b) can be issued against 100% deposit
c) Banks cannot issue requires RBI prior approval.
25. Where exports are through warehouse cum display centres abroad, the period
of realisation of exported goods is :
a) 15 months b) 6 months c) 12 months d) no time limit
26. Pre shipment credit in foreign currency allowed at ........... related interest
rates.
a) EURIBOR b) LIBOR c) EURO LIBOR d) any of the above.
27. If an Indian company wants to open office overseas, the AD-category 1 Banks
can permit remittance for normal business expenses upto .........% of average
turnover of previous 2 years.
a) 20 % b) 5 % c) 10 % d) 15 %
28. If an exporter requests for change of the buyer, the AD Category – 1 bank can
allow, provided (a) there is no reduction in value (b) reduction in value is
restricted pto 25 % (c) the realisation take place within original 9 months from
the date of export. d) The exporter is not in the caution list of RBI.
a) a only b) b only c) b & c only d) b, c & d only
29. RBI has delegated powers to AD Category – 1 Banks to extend the period of
realisation of export proceeds beyond stipulated period (presently 9 months)
from the date of export, upto a period of .......... months at a time (first
extension request) irrespective of the invoice value.
a) 12 months b) 6 months c) 3 months d) 180 days
30. Customs office returns to the exporter which copy of export declaration form
a) currency control copy b) trade control copy
c) export declaration copy d) exchange control copy
31. The export declaration form used for software export (in triplicate)in non-
physical form is:
a) COD b) Software declaration form c) Softex d) EDF
32. An Exporter M/s Trueback India receives a confirmed export order, as per terms
of the sale agreement goods are to be delivered to the shipping company
without putting the goods on board the ship & now which of the kind of
incoterms 2010 can be termed as putting the goods by the side of the ship in
the yard.
a) Ex- works b) Free on board c) CIF d) FAS
33. A company dealing in rough or cut or polished diamonds, wants to open

diamond dollar accounts & what is the maximum no of accounts the company
can open.
a) single account only b) 4 accounts
c) 3 accounts d) 5 accounts
34. An exporter has approached a Banker to open a EEFC account to deposit the
exchange earnings. Which account would you suggest to the exporter.
a) term deposit account
b) scrow account
c) current account
d) any of the above account without payment of interest thereon.
35. The SWIFT security control to prevent automatic changes during transmission is
Called
a) encryption b) checksum
c) key authentication d) decryption
36. Customers who deals with international business are expected to obtain Import
export code.Which authority issues the code:
a) by any Nationalised Bank b) EXIM Bank
b) RBI d) Director General of foreign Trade.
37. For delinking the export bill the rate to be applied is\
a) TT selling rate b) bill selling rate
c) Bill buying rate d) TT buying rate
38. Export Letters of Credit (EOLC’s) can be processed and advised to the Export
Customers by
a) Only Vostro Section, Integrated Treasury Mumbai
b) Foreign Department
c) Designated branches
d) FDs, Designated branches and Fex cells.
39. Listed country means that

a) Exports cannot be made to that country
b) Exports to be made with prior permission from RBI
c) Exports bills may be realized with time delay
d) Exports to that country (which is having balance of payments problem) shall
be made with prior permission.
40. An exporter should have:

a) The ways & means to actually export the goods
b) Importer/Exporter code no assigned
c) An export order or Lc in his name.
d) All the above conditions should be satisfied.
41. Payment under reserve means

a) Payment will be made after getting confirmation from the LC issuing banker
b) When export documents under LC are discrepant, payment is made against
indemnity.
c) Payment made under protest.
42. SDF means

a) State development forum b) Special discount form
c) Statutory Declaration form d) None of the above.
43. Valutaion of Computer software through satellites links will be done by officials
of:
a) RBI
b) Financing Bank
c) DGFT
d) Department of Electronics, Government of India.
44. The ostensible date of delinking for demand or sight bills:
a) 15 th day after the expiry of transit period normally allowed.
b) 15 plus 3 grace days from the date of negotiation of bill
c) 15 days maximum from the expiry of the NTP.
d) 15 days from the expiry of the normal transit period.
45. The ostensible date of delinking for usance bill is:

a) 15 th day from the acceptance of the bill
b) 15 th day from the actual date after DA period
c) 15 plus 3 days from the actual due date after DA period.
d) 15 th day from the actual due date / notional due date of bill (if actual due
date is not received.
Answers key of Exports
1c 13 d 25 a 37 a
2d 14 d 26 d 38 d
3c 15 c 27 c 39 d
4b 16 a 28 d 40 d
5c 17 b 29 b 41 b
6c 18 c 30 d 42 c
7c 19 b 31 c 43 d
8d 20 c 32 d 44 d
9b 21 c 33 d 45 d
10 b 22 d 34 c
11 b 23 c 35 b
12 c 24 c 36 d
IMPORTS
1. Merchandise which can be imported into India, eligibility of importers are

governed by Foreign Trade Policy, Which authority notifies under Section 5 of
Foreign Trade Act, 1992
a) Director General of Foreign Trade
b) Export Import promotion council
c) Government of India, Ministry of Commerce & Industry
d) None of the above
2. Which Authority is responsible for formulating & execution of Foreign Trade

policy including licensing.
a) Reserve Bank of India b) Director General of Foreign Trade
c) FEDAI d) none of the above
3. Which Authority issue Importer-Exporter code no
a) Export-Import promotion council b) Indian Chamber of Commerce
c) DGFT d) Reserve Bank of India
4. As per RBI guidelines import bill payment has to be settled by the importer in
India
a) 3 months from the date of shipment
b) 3 months from the date of receipt of goods in to India
c) 6 months from the date of shipment
d) 6 months from the date of receipt of goods in to India.
5. When the importer submits the original/Xerox copy of Bill of Entry the same has
to be verified by the branch
a) physical copy with a customs seal and stamp
b) no physical copy only on line verification to be done
c) need not be done as RBI has exempted submission of bill of Entry
d) in the BOE settlement file, duly linking the same to outstanding outward
remittance message (ORM)
6. As per RBI, Banks can extend time up to …… for payment of import bills
a) upto 12 months from the date of shipment
b) up to 18 months from the date of shipment
c) up to 24 months from the date of shipment
d) up to 36 month from the date of shipment.
7. In case of advance remittance for imports other than capital goods the physical
import of goods should be made within
a) 3 months from the date of remittance
b) 6 months from the date of remittance
c) 3 years from the date of remittance
d) no restriction in the period.
8. In case of advance remittance towards capital goods within how many days the
importer should produce bill of entry.
a) within a period of 3 months & 15 days
b) within a period of 6 months & 15 days
c) within a period of 3 years & 15 days
d) within a period of 12 months & 15 days.
9. For permitting advance remittance for import for a customer, the Customer
should be having satisfactory dealing with our Bank for a period of
a) 6 months
b) 3 months
c) 1 year
d) no restriction on the period only satisfactory dealings.
10. Import of above USD 1,00,000 on sight basis the importer to submit the
appropriate documentary evidence viz, exchange control copy of bill of entry
(proof of import) to the Authorized dealer Category 1 Banks by the importer
_______
a) within 3 months from the date of remittance
b) 6 months from the date of remittance
c) no need to submit as RBI has exempted
d) 12 months from the date of remittance
11. Letter of credit (LCs, also known as Documentary credits) are governed by
provisions of ………….. set by International Chamber of Commerce(ICC) Paris
a) ISBP b) eUCP c) UCPDC d) URR 725
12. Uniform Customs & Practice for Documentary Credits, 2007 Revision, ICC
Publication 600 operative from
a) 4th July,2007 b) 1st July,2007
c) 2 nd July,2007 d) 3 rd July, 2007
13. Uniform Customs & Practice for Documentary Credits 600 are rules that apply
to:
a) all Foreign LCs only
b) all LCs
c) any LC where the text indicates that it is subject to this rules.
d) any LC in which these have not been restricted to be applicable.
14. Under UCPDC – 600, the documents to be presented by or on behalf of the

beneficiary for payment, not later than ….after the date of shipment, but not
later than the expiry date.
a) 21 calendar days b) 21 business days
c) 21 banking days d) 21 working days
15. As per Incoterms 2010,the seller delivers the goods & pays the Freight.
a) FOB b) CIF c) C & I d) CFR
16. An LC is issued in favour of the ultimate supplier of beneficiary, on request of

the beneficiary on the strength of the original LC.
a) Irrevocable LC b) Confirmed Lc
c) Red Clause LC d) Back to Back LC
17. An LC provides for pre shipment credit as well as warehouse storage of goods,
It called as:
a) Standby LC b) Green clause LC
c) Revolving LC d) Red clause LC
18. M/S Vishal Export House receives a letter of credit for export of jute Bags to
US but the expiry date of the credit is 15th August, Tuesday. In this case the
documents for negotiation can be submitted to the negotiating bank on:
a) the preceding business day b) the succeeding business day
c) the succeeding banking day d) the preceding banking day
19. In case of import calling for Lloyds certificate is applicable where

a) individual shipment is above 30 lakhs
b) individual shipment is above 10 lakhs
c) individual shipment is above 15 lakhs
20. In case of import calling for SGS certificate (pre shipment inspection) is
applicable where
a) individual shipment is above 30 lakhs
b) individual shipment is above 10 lakhs
c) individual shipment is above 15 lakhs
21. As per Foreign exchange Regulation Importers can receive import bills directly
from the overseas supplier upto a value of USD does not
a) USD 5,00,000 b) USD 2,00,000
c) USD 3,00,000 d) cannot receive import bills directly.
22. The all in cost under Trade credits upto five years for import in to India is
a) 350 bps over 6 months LIBOR b) 250 bps over 6months LIBOR
c) no ceiling on the interest d) 150 bps over 6 months LIBOR
23. Advance remittance for imports exceeding ……… branches should obtain an
unconditional, irrevocable standby letter of crdie or a guarantee from an
international repute situated outside India,or a guarantee of an Authorized
Dealer Category I Bank in India.
a) USD 50,000 or its equivalent b) 2,00,000 or its equivalent
c) USD 1 Million d) USD 10,000
24. As per the article 14 (b), of UCPDC (uniform Customs and Practices for
Documentary Credits ) a nominated bank acting on its nomination, a confirming
bank, if any and issuing bank shall each have a maximum of ------ banking days
following the day of presentation to determine, if a presentation is complying.
a) 7 Banking days b) 10 Banking days
c) 5 Banking days d) 14 Banking days
25. Submission of Bill of Entry (BEF) statement to RBI by the Banks
a) once in six months in June and Dec
b) once in a year(March 31st)
c) discontinued
d) once in six month Mar and Sep
26. Import bill to be delinked at

a) bill buying rate b) TT selling rate
c) bill selling rate d) TT buying rate
27. Form A1 is used for obtaining foreign exchange

a) for import payments b) for amount upto US$ 5000
c) for remittance other than imports d) it is discontinued.
Answers key of Imports
1c 6d 11 c 16 d 21 c 26 c
2b 7b 12 b 17 b 22 b 27 d
3c 8c 13 c 18 c 23 b
4c 9c 14 a 19 c 24 c
5d 10 a 15 d 20 a 25 c
CURRENCY RATE/QUOTATIONS & MISC
1. Purchase transactions by banks in the context of foreign exchange means:

a) converting rupees into foreign currency.
b) converting foreign currency into rupees.
c) converting rupees into pounds.
d) selling currency to customers.
2. In respect of sale or purchase of foreign exchange , which following principles

would be followed, when we are quoting direct rate.
a) sell low buy low b) sell low
c) buy high d) buy low sell high
3. The forward rate of dollar being quoted by a dealer at a premium. Among the
following who will be benefited .
a) exporters b) merchant importers
c) software importers d) all of the above
4. An exporter M/s Vishal Trading submits an export bill in US$ for negotiation
under letter of credit. As a dealer which rate you will apply.
a) Bills buying rate b) TT buying rate
c) TT selling rate d) Bills selling rate
5. Which of the following methods applied for quoting the foreign exchange rates
in India.
a) Cross rates b) Indirect raterate
c) Inter bank rate d) Direct rate
6. An establishment is authorized by RBI for dealing in purchase & sell of foreign
traveler cheques & foreign currency notes from/to the foreign tourist.
a) Authorized dealer b) Authorized money changer
c) Full fledged money changer d) Authorised authority money changer
7. An exporter M/s Singhania Agencies approaches to an Authorized dealer for

negotiation of a document under Documentary letters of Credit in EURO. It will
be categorized as .
a) negotiation transaction b) purchase transaction
b) sale transaction d) arbitrage transaction.
8. When the future value of a currency is lower than the spot value, the currency
is said to be in.
a) at par b) premium c) discount d) none of the above
9. As per RBI requirements all the ECB (External Commercial Borrowings) raised by
the customers are to be
a) Compulsorily hedged up to 100% of the borrowing including interest
b) partial hedging permitted at the discretion of the bank
c) RBI approval to be obtained for waiving the hedge
d) Banks can permit waiver depending on the standing of the party
10. Associations/trusts receiving donations from abroad under FCRA (Foreign

Contribution Regulation act has to register with which Authority.
a) Ministry of finance b) Ministry of Home affairs
b) Ministry of Communication d) Ministry of External affairs
11. The foreign exchange market in India operates daily (except saturday and
Sunday) from
a) 8 am to 1 pm b) 9 am to 6 pm
c) 10 am to 4 pm d) 9 am to 5 pm
12. A “over bought” position in foreign exchange of a Bank denotes
a) When the sale of foreign exchange is more than the purchase
b) when purchase of foreign exchange is more than the sales
c) when the Bank Treasury borrowers from abroad
d) When the Bank borrowers from RBI in foreign currency
13. Masala Bonds are the bonds

a) bonds raised by Indian Masala Traders for funding their business in India
b) Foreign currency bonds raised by Indian Corporates in India
c) Rupee denominated bonds raised in Overseas by the Indian Corprorates
d) Foreign currency bonds raised in Indian Corporates abroad
14. The imports into a country are more than the exports of goods & services from
the country, this will directly effect to:
a) balance of payments b) balance of currencies
c) balance of trade d) balance of foreign exchanges
15. When the delivery under a forex deal is completed on the next working day
from the date of the contract, the rate is
a) spot rate b) Forward rate
c) ready or cash rate d) Tom rate
16. Foreign currency rates are declining compared with Indian currency. Which
category will be benefited for this movement of rate.
a) exporters b) both exporter & importer
c) importer d) banks having long position.
17. Canara Bank opened a current account with Wachovia Bank in New York for its
daily transaction in US $.Which of the following kinds of accounts, it will be
known for Canara Bank as
a) Loro Account b) Mirror account
c) Nostro account d) Vostro account
18. From Bank’s angle, when there is inflow of foreign exchange & outflow of
rupees, these transaction are called
a) sales b) Inward remittances
c) Outward Remittances d) both a & c above
Answers key of CURRENCY RATE/QUOTATIONS & MISC
1b 4a 7b 10 b 13 c 16 c
2d 5d 8c 11 d 14 c 17 c
3a 6c 9a 12 b 15 d 18 b
Technology Products
1. The process of Computerisation in Indian Banks started with the first report
of
a Damodaran committee b. Rangarajan Committee
c. Goiporia committee d. Working Group of RBI
2. P2A ( Person to account) is a fund transfer facility under mobile banking. In this
facility the following is the mandatory information customer has to provide
a. Account number and mobile number b. Account number and IFSC number
c. Mobile number and MMID d. Mobile number and PAN number
3. A data communication network that serves across a broad geographic area is

called ?
a. Local Area Network (LAN) b. Wide area network(WAN)
c. Metropolitan area network (MAN) d. Small area network (SAN)
4. Which among is the following is largest unit of storage.

a.GB (Giga Byte) b. KB (Kilo Byte)
c.MB (Mega Byte) d. TB (Tera Byte)
5. A customer can deposit a maximum of rupees in to CAM in a day.

a. 50000 b. 30000 c. 40000 d.20000
6. is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for
security access.
a. Biometrics b. Biomeasurement
c. Computer Security d. Smart login machine
7.The official website of Canarabank is ____

a. www.canarabank.co.in b. www.canarabank.in
c. www.canarabank.org.in d. www.canarabank.com
8. Wherever the leased line connectivity is not feasible, our bank has got VSAT
connectivity Facility. The term ‘VSAT’ stand for
a. Virtual Sattellite b. Very small satellite
c. Very Small Aperture terminal d. Vide sector ariel terminal
9 The E-Infobook is available in languages for the customers.

a. 10 b.8 c. 5 d.3
10. The mobile app bowl of Canara Bank – Canara Cart consists how many
applications
a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d.10
11. The maximum number of pieces of notes can be deposited in to CAM at a time
a. 50 b.75 c.100 d.40
12. W
hich one of the following customers is not eligible to provide net banking
facility?
a. HUF b. Blind persons
c. Illiterate persons d. Joint Stock companies
13. U
nder net banking facility of our bank, which one of the following functions,
the customer cannot perform?
a. User creation b. Unlock user
c. Reset password d. Disable user
14. The internet banking passwords are valid for the period of ?
a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 6 months d. one year
15. CPGRS stands for

a. Canara public grievance redressal system
b. Common public grievance redressal system
c. Canara Portal for grievance redressal system
d. Common portal for grievance redressal system
16. As per recommendations of Committee recommendations our bank has

devised online system for redressal of grievances of our customers - CPGRS
a. PR Nayak committee b. Damodaran Committee
c. Narashiman committee d. RBI working group
17. The term ‘BBPS’ stands for

a. Banking Bill payment system b. Banking Billing payment service
c. Bharat Banking payment service d. Bharat bill payment system
18. The internet banking security solution provided by the bank for customer
named…?
a. Cansecurity b. Canpower c.Candigital d.Cansafe
19. U
ser Hibernation – If a user not logged into net banking for a period of months
continuously the user id will be locked.
a. 6 months b. 12 months c.3 months d.9 months
20. Full form of CANDLE

a. Canara Deposit Learning Experience
b. Canara Digital Learning Experience
c. Canara Deposit Learning Experiment
d. Canara Digital Learning Experiment
21. What is CANDI in Canara Bank
a. special customized candy b. a Supermarket financed by our Bank
c. An App in the Play store d. A fully digital Branch
22. W
hich of the following type of account is NOT eligible to provide mobile
banking facility?
a. Patnership Current account
b. Individual & Properiteryship Current account
c. Individual SB account
d. ‘Severally’ operated joint accounts
23. What is DiYA

a. Direct Yearly Access b. Digital Interface
c. Digitally Your Account d. None of the Above
24. Cash recyclers having capacity for holding up to currency notes. a.

a. 17300 b. 18200 d. 15100 d. 16900
25. The term ‘SCAN AND PAY’ is used in the following type of payment system.
a. Bharat QR Code payment system b. Immediate payment system
c. Mobile payment system d. ECS payment system
26. U
nder Immediate Payment System, The fund transfer limit permitted using
mobile banking will be
a. 20000/- b. 50000 c.100000 d.200000
27. The cash recycler machines fixed at branches are configured to accept the
following denominations of rupee notes except
a. 100 b. 500 c. 1000 d. 2000
28. The maximum amount of cash that can be deposited by the customer in Cash
recyclers in a day is ?
a. 60000/- b. 600000 c. 50000 d. 500000
29. Cash Recycler will accept up to a maximum of currency notes in one go a.

a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 500
30. P
2P is a funds transfer facility under mobile banking. The term ‘P2P’ stand for
a. Person to Person b. Person to Phone
c. Phone to Phone d. Phone to Person
31. Under RBI NEFT System, what is the maximum limit of individual per day
transaction presently ?
a. No ceiling b. Max 5.0 cr
c. Max 50 lacs d. Max 50000
32. W
alk-in customers who do not have an account with remitting bank can also
send remittance through NEFT up to _by paying cash.
a. 500000 b. 5000 c. 50000 d. cannot send
33. S ettlement of NEFT batches closes at hours on all working of the bank branch.
a. 5.00pm or 17.00 hrs b. 8.0 pm or 20 hrs
c. 9.00 pm or 21.00 hrs d. 7.0 pm or 19 hrs
34. D
elay in credit to Party‘s Account or delay in refunding the NEFT amount to
remitting bank branch, penal interest payable is
a. RBI LAF Repo + 1% b. RBI LAF repo + 2%
c. Bank rate d. Reverse Repo rate
35. D
elay in credit to Party‘s Account or delay in refunding the RTGS amount to
beneficiary or to remitting bank, penal interest payable is
a. REPO rate plus 2% b. SB rate of interest
c. Bank rate d. Reverse Repo Rate
36. Our bank uses SFMS as message carrier for NEFT transactions. The term ‘SFMS’
Stands for
a. Standard financial messaging service
b. Standard financial messaging system
c. Structured financial messaging system
d. Structured financial messaging service
37. Two authorisers are required to send high value NEFT transactions above the
amount of
a. 100000/- b. 200000/- c. 500000/- d.1000000/-
38. The maximum number of remittances allowed in a year for worker’s remittance
to Nepal, Under NEFT is
a. 12 b. 10 c. 5 d. 3
39. The RTGS timings during week days for inter bank transactions are
a. 8.00am to 7.45pm b. 7.00am to 7.45pm
c. 7.00am to 9.00 pm d. 7.00am to 9.45 pm
40. The RTGS timing during week days for customer transactions is
a. 8.00 am to 4.30 pm b. 7.00 am to 4.30 pm
c. 7.00am to 6.00 pm d. 8.00am to 6.00pm
41. As per RTGS discipline, in respect of inward messages amount should be either
credited to beneficiary account or returned to the sender’s bank within_ hours of its
receipt
a. 2 hours b. 3 hours
c. 1 and half hours d. 2 and half hours
42. Which of the following modules are covered under CLAPS package.
a. Agriculture, Retail, MSME, Corporate b. Education, Staff, Gold Loans,
c. Lead Management d. All the above
43. W
hich of the following facility is not available in the CLAPS package
a. Credit information report generation b. Risk rating
c. Legal scrutiny report d. De duplication check
44. The online trading portal of Canara Bank is called

a. Canaratrade.com b. CanTrade.com
c. Canaramoney.in d. Canmoney.in
45. What is the minimum credit limit can be granted under Canara Secured credit
card
a. 50000 b. 25000 c. 10000 d. 100000
46. The Credit Cards due for renewal with ‗NIL‘ transaction in the past months
will be blocked from automatic renewal
47. In case of card is lost and misused by someone, customer has to file FIR /
complaint with Police Station immediately, within hours.
a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c.12 hours d. 24 hours
48. What is the validity period of Domestic Prepaid reloadable Cards?
a. 1 yr b. 3 yrs c. 5 yrs d. 10 yrs
49. What is the validity period of Domestic Prepaid Gift Cards?

a. 1 yr b. 3 yrs c. 5 yrs d. 10 yrs
50. H
ow many number of currencies those can be loaded in our Canara International
Travel Prepaid Card?
a. 10 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3
KEYS – TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS
1b 11 d 21 d 31 a 41 c
2b 12 c 22 a 32 c 42 d
3b 13 d 23 c 33 d 43 c
4d 14 d 24 a 34 b 44 d
5b 15 a 25 a 35 a 45 c
6a 16 b 26 d 36 c 46 a
7d 17 d 27 c 37 d 47 d
8c 18 c 28 b 38 a 48 b
9b 19 a 29 c 39 b 49 a
10 a 20 b 30 a 40 c 50 b
Information Technology
51. What is Clock Speed?

a. Speed of Software b. Speed of OS
c. Speed of Processor d. Speed of User interface
52. How Clock Speed Is Measured?

a. Mega Hertz ( MHz) b. Giga Hertz
c. Tera Hertz d. Kilo Hertz
53. What is the meaning of a 450 MHz Processor?

a. Speed of the Processor is 450 Million instructions per second
b. Speed of the Processor is 450 billion instructions per second
c. Speed of the Processor is 450 Trillion instructions per second
d. Speed of the Processor is 450 lakh instructions per second
54. What is meant by Cache ?

a. Temporary memory of the processor b. RAM
c. ROM d. OS
55. What is a Router?

a. A Special type of Computer device which connects Networks
b. Hard Disk
c. User Interface
d. USB Device
56. What is Data Diddling?
a. A simple cyber attack
b. A cyber breach
c. Data Interpretation
d. A worst cyber attack/data break in, which tampers data
57. What is a Firewall?

a. Main Server b. Anti Virus Software
c. Malware filter d. Barrier between Networks
58. What is DBMS?

a. Database Monitoring system b. Database Management system
c. Data Management system d. Data Monitoring system
59. What is RDBMS?

a. Relational Database Monitoring system
b. Relational Database Management system
c. Relational Data Management system
d. Relational Data Monitoring system
60. What is NCMC Card?

a. Prepaid Card
b. Debit Card
c. Credit Card
d. National Common Mobility Card(Prepaid + Debit)
61. Who issues NCMC Card?

a. Visa b. Master
c. American Express d. Rupay
62. What are the three pillars of Information Security?

a. Confidentiality , Integrity and Accountability
b. Confidentiality , Integrity and Availability
c. Security , Integrity and Accountability
d. Secrecy, Integrity and Accountability
63. Denial of Service attack is considered to be a breach of ----------------- in

Information security?
a. Confidentiality b. Integrity
c. Availability d. Authenticity
64. History of all computer transactions normally in chronological order is called as
-----------?
a. Audit Trail b. System Trail
c. End of day routine d. Transactions History
65.Which of the following is not a threat?

a. UPS failure in a critical server
b. Absence of a firewall in the system
c. Sudden hard disk crash in a non critical application
d. HR unrest and absenteeism of system managers
66. As a part of Risk Management BIA is normally done in the branches, BIA
means……….?
a. Business Impact Analysis b. Business Inertia Analysis
c. Business Impression Analysis d. Bank Impact Analysis
67. What is BYOD concept now prevailing in Corporates reg employees?

a. Bring Your Own Device b. Bring Your Own Data
c. Bring Your Own Dongle d. Bring your Own Data Source
68. What is the common name for additive manufacturing technology?

a. Bar Code Priniting b. IP Sec Manufacturing
c. Print Server Manufactruing d. 3D Printing
69. In Networking and Communications MPLS means?

a. Multi Point Linear Switching b. Multi Protocol Label Switching
c. Multi Point LAN System d. Multi Protocol Label System
70. The Different Layers in software will normally be the following one above the
other are….?
a. Operating System( OS), Database(DB), Application, User Interface(UI)
b. OS, UI, DB, APP
c. DB, OS, UI , APP
d. APP, OS, UI, DB
71. What is indicated by the term Peopleware?

a. Software programmers
b. People working in computers, involved in activities related to it like software
etc
c. Software for HRMS
d. Hardware for HRMS
72. A Server that is least power consuming and very eco friendly is often referred
to as..?
a. White Server b. Eco Server
c. Green Server d. Good Server
73. Which of the following is a Popular Open Source ?

a. Linux b. Unix
c. MS Office d. Rupay
74. What is RAM?

a. Random Access Memory b. Random Available Memory
c. Random Adjustable Memory d. Randomly Adaptable Memory
75. What is ROM ?

a. Read Only Memory b. User Interface
c. Data base d. Operating System
76.What is SDLC?
a. System Development Life Cycle
b. System Deployment and level Cycle
c. System Design and Leverage Cycle
d. System Design and Level Cycle
77.What is DRAM?
a. Dynamic Random Access Memory
b. Dynamic Random Adjustable Memory
c. Dynamic Read and Available Memory
d. Dynamic Read and Actual Memory
78.What is RDRAM?
a. Rambus Dynamic Random Access Memory.
b. Redistributed DRAM
c. Re DRAM
d. Re usable DRAM
79. What is FPM DRAM?

a. Fast Page Mode DRAM b. First Point Mode DRAM
c. Finer Point Mode DRAM d. Finer Process Mode DRAM
80. What is SRAM?

a. System RAM b. Solid RAM
c. Static RAM d. Secured RAM
81. What is VPN?
a. Virtual Partnership Network b. Virtual Profiling Network
c. Virtual Private Network d. Visible Private Network
82. What is TCP?

a. Technology Control Paradigm b. Technology Captivating Program
c. Technology Control Protocol d. Transmission Control Protocol
83. What is IP?

a. Inventory Parameter b. IT Protocol
c. Information Parameter d. Internet Protocol
84. What is IP Spoofing?

a. A cyber attack where they claim others IP address
b. IT Protocol
c. Information Parameter
d. Internet Protocol
85. What is IP Session Hijacking?

a. A cyber attack where they remote user’s session is Hijacked
b. IT Protocol
c. Information Parameter
d. A cyber attack where they claim others IP address
86. What is BCP?

a. Business Continuity Plan b. Business Capacity Plan
c. Business Consolidation Plan d. Business Compilation Plan
87. What is HSR?

a. Hot Site Replication b. Host System Revalidation
c. Hot System Replication d. Hot Site Revalidation
88. What is the use of HSR?

a. Recovery time for data is less than 60 Seconds
b. Recovery time is less than 1 hour
c. Recovery time is less than 2 hour
d. Recovery time is less than 15 Minutes
89. What are I-Pad/Tablets
a. Pad used for writing
b. its mobile phone
c. Its device that combine computing, telephone/fax & networking features
d. It’s a personal computer
90. SWIFT is expansion for

a. Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication
b. Secured Window for Interbank Financial Transaction
c. Secured Window for Interbank Financial Transmission
d. Secured Window for Interbank Financial Telecommunication
KEY IT
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
c a a a a d d b b d d b c a b
66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
a a d b a b c a a a a a a a c
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
c d d a a a a a c a
STAFF MATTERS
1) Paternity leave is available for how many days for male officers?
a) 15 days b) 16 days c) 30 days d) 14 days d) None of the above
2) Annual Cash Award for individual and team respectively under Employee
Suggestion Scheme (ESS) are
a) Rs 9000/- & Rs 20,000/- b) Rs 10000/- & Rs 15000/-
c) Rs 1000/- & Rs 3000/- d) Rs 2000/- & Rs 4000/-
e) Rs 3000/- & Rs 5000/-
3) Mementoes to Retiring Employees only on superannuation

a) Rs 5000/- b) Rs 1000/- c) Rs 10000/- d) Rs 15000/-
e) None of the above
4) Under CanDLE (Canara Digital Learning Experience) the officials (Scale I-V) has
to complete ___ mandatory e-learning lessons in a financial year & cut off date
would be ______.
a) 25 & 31st March 2020 b) 10 & 15th March 2020
b) 08 & 10th March 2020 d) 6 & 25th March 2020
5) All branches irrespective of staff strength are eligible for a canteen subsidy of
what amount per person per month?
a) Rs 50 per person per month
b) Rs 100 per person per month
c) Rs 150 per person per month
d) Rs 75 per person per month
6) Festival Advance to Employees who have joined the services of the Bank on or
after 06.12.1990
a) Rs 30000/-
b) Rs 20000/-
c) One month’s gross salary to the confirmed employees
d) Rs 40000/-
7) Business Development Expenses for Scale III in Branch / Administrative Unit

a) Rs 9000/- and Rs 8000/- respectively
b) Rs 8000/- and Rs 8000/- respectively
c) Rs 8000/- and Rs 9000/- respectively
d) Rs 9000/- and Rs 9000/- respectively
8) News Paper Reimbursement
a) Rs 200/- per month
b) 100% of the cost of any newspaper
c) No limit for reimbursement
d) On declaration - quarterly basis - 90% of the cost of any newspaper
9) Halting allowances for officers in Scale I, II and III in Metros

a) Rs 1300/- b) Rs 1450/- c ) Rs 1000/- d) Rs 900/-
10) With effect from 01.06.2015, Special Sick Leave up to ___ days may be granted
to an employee once during his/her entire period of service for donation of
kidney/ organ
11) When Job rotation should be affected in all branches / administrative units?
a) Once in 2 years
b) Normally once in 6 months but definitely should not cross 12 months
c) Once in 3 months
d) Once in 12 months
12) Reimbursement amount towards FURNITURE / FIXTURES to the Scale II and III
Officers
a) Rs 2.75 lakhs b) Rs 1.50 lakhs c) Rs 1.85 lakhs
d) Rs 1.75 lakhs e) None of the above
13) Deputation Allowance to the Officer deputed to an Organization at the same

place or to the Training Establishment of the bank
a) 4% of the pay with a maximum of Rs 3000/- p m
b) 4% of the pay with a maximum of Rs 1000/- p m
c) 4% of the pay with a maximum of Rs 2000/- p m
d) 4% of the pay with a maximum of Rs 2500/- p m
14) What is the maximum period of leave granted under Sabbatical leave?
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 1 years
d) 4 years
15) An officer employee may accept gifts from his near relatives, but he shall
make a report to the competent authority if the value of the gift exceeds what
amount?
a) Rs 5000/- b) Rs 500/- c) Rs 10000/- d) Any value
16) The visually challenged and orthopedically handicapped employees are being
paid conveyance allowance at what rate?
a) 1 % of their basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs 500 /-
b) 2 % of their basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs 400 /-
c) Rs 500 /- per month
d) 5 % of their basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs 400 /-
17) Eligibility for availing Sabbatical leave

a) Employees who have put in 5 years of active service & Confirmed
employee (Relaxation can be permitted)
b) 6 months of active service
c) Confirmed employees
d) Only women employees
18) Reimbursement of expenses incurred towards purchase of cleaning materials to

Scale I, II and III Officer / Managers
a) Rs 400/- for Scale I and Rs 400/- for Scale II and III
b) Rs 300/- for Scale I and Rs 300/- for Scale II and III
c) Rs 300/- for Scale I and Rs 400/- for Scale II and III
d) Any value as declared
19) Whether Visiting Card Facility to Scale - 1 Officers permitted

a) Permitted to specialist officers only
b) Permitted to Managers only
c) Not permitted
d) Yes permitted to all Scale-1 Officers, up to 200 cards per year
20) Livery To Subordinate Staff / Part time employees

a) Terrycot Livery : Rs 3,500/- for 3 sets once in 2 years, Woollen livery :Rs
3,500/- for 1 set once in 3 years inclusive of stitching charges.
b) Terrycot Livery : Rs 2,000/- for 3 sets once in 2 years, Woollen livery : Rs
2,000/- for 1 set once in 3 years
c) Not permitted
d) Terrycot Livery : Rs3,000/- for 3 sets once in 2 years, Woollen livery : Rs
2,500/- for 1 set once in 3 years
21) Author of the book A Banking Odyssey – The Story of Canara Bank
a) Sri M.S. Kamat
b) Sri M.M. Kamat
c) Sri M.V. Kamat
d) Sri M.R. Kamat
22) Staff meeting is conducted in branch on the Third Friday of every month with
revised expenditure of Rs……… per person, per month/meeting.
a) Rs 15/- b) Rs 20/- c) Rs 25/- d) Rs 50/-
23) IBA medical insurance scheme coverage to Clerical and Substaff employees
a) Rs 5 lakhs b) Rs 2 lakhs c) Rs 3 lakhs d) Any value
24) Local Conveyance Expenses to Workmen Employees

a) 500 per month
b) Metropolitan Cities Rs 45/- per day , Other Centres : Rs 35/- per day
c) Rs 100 per day in all places
d) Actual amount spent
25) Canara Care Home facilities are available at how many centres?
a) Only in Vellore b) Only in Mumbai c) Bangalore
d) Vellore and Mumbai e) None of the above
26) With regard to Annual Performance Appraisal systems for officers – Which of
the following is true?
a) Budgetary format is similar to all eligible officer employees in branches
including branch head.
b) Branch heads may generally assign 05-08 financial/measurable KRA to their
employees.
c) Compliance function is to be assigned as KRA to officers in branches.
d) a & b
e) All the above
27) APAS for officers is assessed on a __________weighted approach.

a) Monthly basis b) Quarterly c) Yearly basis d) None of the above
28) The Sanctioning Authority will be answerable if the leave application is pending
beyond _____ days.
29) What is the guideline for availing PL..?
a) Employee should give 15 days prior notice to the sanctioning authority
b) Employee should give 30 days prior notice to the sanctioning authority
c) Employee should give 7 days prior notice to the sanctioning authority
d) No need to inform prior to the leave.
30) Sexual harassment of women at work place (Prevention, Prohibition &
Redressal) Act has come in to force with effect from _______.
a) 23.04.2013 b) 24.04.1980 c) 15.03.1974 d) 01.06.1961
31) Which of the following actions can be treated under sexual harassment of
woman at work place?
a) Physical contact and advancement
b) Demand or request of Sexual favours
c) Making sexually coloured remarks.
d) Showing pornography and any other physical verbal / non verbal conduct of
sexual nature.
e) All the above
32) Who are the members of Internal Complaints Committee?

a) Presiding Officer who is senior most woman employee not less than the
rank of Scale III.
b) Two members who is experience in social works and legal knowledge
c) Third party member from NGO.
d) All the above.
33) What is the tenure of presiding officer of Internal Complaints Committee?

a) 1 Yr. b) 2 yrs. c) 3 yrs. d) 4 yrs.
34) What is the time limit to make complaint and who can make complaint?
a) Within 3 months and By aggrieved woman
b) Within 3 months and by close relatives.
c) With in 1 month and by aggrieved woman
d) Within 3 months and by aggrieved woman / her legal heirs in case where
the aggrieved woman is unable to make complaint on account of physical /
mental incapacity or death.
35) Internal Complaints Committee shall start action within ____ days of the
receipt of the compliant.
a) 6 working Days b) 5 working Days c) 10 Days d) 5 Days
36) The enquiry shall be completed within _____ days.

a) 90 days b) 120 days c) 30 days d)180 days
37) Disciplinary Authority / Circle Head shall take action within _____ days of
report from Internal Complaints Committee..?
38) Which of the following is correct.

a) SWOA – Cash payments upto 10,000/- passing independently clearing &
transfer cheques and receipt of Cash up to 15,000/-
b) SWOB – Cash payments upto 20,000/- passing independently clearing &
transfer cheques and receipt of Cash up to 25,000/-
c) Spl. Assistant – Cash payments up to 50,000/- passing independently clearing
& transfer cheques and receipt of Cash up to 1,50,000/-
d) All the above
39) SWO-A and SWO-B are not having passing powers for the following transactions
and such transactions have to be invariably authorized by the Supervisor.
a) Transactions in own account
b) Transactions where stop payments are noted
c) Transactions in In-operative / blocked / attached accounts.
d) All transactions in minor subsidiary GL heads
e) All the above
KEYS
1.a 11.b 21.c 31 e
2.e 12.d 22.b 32 d
3.c 13.c 23.c 33 c
4.b 14.a 24.b 34 d
5.d 15.b 25.d 35 a
6.c 16.d 26 e 36 a
7.a 17.a 27 b 37 b
8.d 18.c 28 a 38 d
9.a 19.d 29 a 39 e
10.d 20.a 30 a
OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
1) Official Language Implementation comes under which Ministry?

a) Finance Ministry
b) Ministry of Home Affairs
c) Defence Ministry
d) Human Resources Ministry
2) Under which Rule of Official Language Rules, letters received in Hindi is to be

replied in Hindi only?
a) Rule No. 15
b) Rule No. 5
c) Rule No. 25
d) Rule No. 6
3) Hindi Day is celebrated on which of the following dates every year?

a) 19th November
b) 14th September
c) 15th September
d) 24th September
4) Under which Section of Official Language Act 1963, certain Specified documents
like Circulars, Memos, and General Orders etc. are to be issued bilingually?
a) Section 343
b) Section 3(4)
c) Section 2(2)
d) Section 3(3)
5) W
hich among the following is considered as ‘Working Knowledge’ in Hindi as
per definition given under Official Language Rules?
a) Studied Hindi at Primary School level
b) Need not have learnt Hindi to write
c) Passed Matriculation with Hindi as one of the subjects
d) Need not know to speak Hindi
6) What is script of the Official Language in India?
a) Devanagari
b) Bhojapuri
c) Regional Language Script
d) Urdu
7) The articles of Constitution dealing with Official Language are –

a) 343
b) 351
c) 343 to 351
d) 342 to 352
8) The Official Language Policy of the Govt. is applicable to –

a) Only to Public Secotr Banks
b) Only to Banks Public Sector Banks & Pvt. Sector Banks
c) Banks and Corporates of Pvt Sector
d) All Central Govt. organisations which are owned and controlled by the Central
Govt.
9) The responsibility of Implementation and Compliance of Official Language

Policy of Govt. of India lies with –
a) Hindi Officer
b) Administrative Heads of the concerned department
c) Hindi Representative
d) II line manager
10) As per the Official Language Rules 1976, Maharashtra State falls under which
Region?
a) Region A b) Region C c) Region D d) Region B
11) O
fficial Language Rules are applicable to all the States and Union Territories
except –
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Jammu & Kashmir
d) Tamil Nadu
12) O
fficial Language Implementation Committee Meeting has to be conducted
once in a –
a) Quarter
b) Bimonthly
c) Half Year
d) Year
13) The Data processing Bilingual (Hindi & English) interface for pass sheet,
FDR, leave proceedings etc. is –
a) Scriptmagic
b) Unicode
c) Shabda Ratna
d) Akruti
14) The Town Official Language Implementation Committee (TOLIC) meetings are
held –
a) Monthly
b) Quarterly
c) Yearly
d) Half Yearly
15) The Percentage of originating Correspondence in Hindi in Region – ‘C’ is –

a) 55%
b) 90%
c) 100%
d) No Percentage fixed
16) The Percentage of originating Correspondence in Hindi in Region – ‘A’ is –

a) 55%
b) 90%
c) 100%
17) The Percentage of originating Correspondence in Hindi in Region – ‘B’ is –

a) 55%
b) 90%
c) 100%
18) Quarterly Progress Report on Hindi –
a) STR 19
b) STR 20
c) STR 12
d) STR 18
19) Official Language Act was passed in the year –

a) 1949
b) 1947
c) 1963
d) 1956
20) Package used for typing in Hindi as well as other languages in our bank is
a) Scriptmagic
b) Unicode
c) Shabda Ratna
d) Akruti
21) Numerals used in Official Language are –

a) Arabic
b) Hindi scripted Number
c) Roman Numbers
d) International form of Indian numerals ie., 1,2,3…..
22) The in-house distance education programme of the bank is –

a) Canbank Hindi Patrachar Pathyakram
b) Prabhodh
c) Praveen
d) Pragya
23) An in-house magazine published by Official Language Section, Head Office is

a) Shreyas
b) Deeksha
c) Canarajyoti
d) Today’s Tidings
24) Name of the Award instituted by Canara Bank for motivating Implementation of
Hindi at Branch level –
a) Rajbhasha Akshay Yojana
b) Rajbhasha Puraskar Yojana
c) Canara Bank Rajbhasha Akshay Yojana
d) Hindi Award Yojana
25) Hindi Pakhwara (Hindi Fortnight) is celebrated from –

a) Sept. 1 to 30th
b) On Sept. 14th
c) Sept. 1 to 14th
d) On Sept.1
26) Hindi written in Devanagari scipt is our -

a) National Language
b) Link Language
c) Official Language
d) Local Language
27) Andaman & Nocobar Islands falls under which of the following Regions ?
a) Region ‘B’
b) Region ‘C’
c) Region ‘A’
d) Region ‘A’ & ‘B’
28) The branch/office wherein 80% or more employees have working knowledge in
Hindi has to be notified under the Official Gazette under which rule ?
a) Rule 10
b) Rule 11
c) Rule 8(4)
d) Rule 10(4)
29) Under Rule 11, the rubber stamps are to be got made in ?
a) Bilingual (Hindi-English)
b) English only
c) Hindi only
d) Trilingual (Regional-Hindi-English)
30) The States and Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli
have been categorized under which of the following Regions ?
a) Region ‘A b) Region ‘B’ c) Region ‘C’ d) Region ‘D’
c) None of the above
31) W
hich among the following is considered as ‘Proficiency in Hindi’ as per
definition given under Official Language Rules?
a) Passed Matriculation with Hindi as the medium of examination
b) Passed Matriculation with Hindi as one of the subjects
c) Passed 8th Std. with Hindi as a subject
d) Both (a) & (b)
32) Name of the Award instituted by Canara Bank for motivating employees for
use of Hindi in their day to day official work –
a) Rajbhasha Akshay Yojana
b) Rajbhasha Puraskar Yojana
c) Canara Bank Rajbhasha Puraskar Yojana
d) Hindi Award Yojana
33) The Percentage of Noting in Hindi in Region – ‘B’ is –

a) 50% b) 30% c) 75% d) No Percentage fixed
34) The Percentage of Noting in Hindi in Region – ‘A’ is –

35) The Percentage of Noting in Hindi in Region – ‘C’ is –

KEYS
1. b 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. c 6. a
7. c 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. a
13. a 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. d
19. c 20. b 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. c
25. c 26. c 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. b
31. a 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. b
Balance Sheet Analysis
1. A balance sheet is a statement of the position of business of an organization


I. Payable within 6 months
II. Payable within Operating Cycle
III. Payable within 9 months
IV. Payable within 12 months
a. i, ii b. ii, iii c. ii, iv d. iv
I. Realisable within 12 months
II. Realisable within 6 months
III. Realisable within 9 months
IV. Realisable within operating cycle
4. Net Working Capital means


& Fictitious Assets
8. Profits made in the normal course of business and retained in the business is
called
9. W hether Margin money for issue of L/C/Guarantee can be taken as part of

Current Assets?
a. Margin money is not stipulated for issue of LC or Guarantee
b. No.
c. Can be taken as part of Current Assets if margin is repayable within 12 months
d. Yes
10. W hat are the components of Quick Assets in a Quick Ratio.

12. In our analysis of the Balance Sheet, Contingent Liability on account Bills
purchased appearing in notes to the accounts in an annual report shall be
reflected as
I. It will not appear in the Annual Report
II. Bank borrowings on Liabilities side
III. Sundry Debtors on Asset side
IV. Sundry Creditors on the Liabilities side
a. i, ii b. iii, iv c. ii, iii d. ii, iv
13. Advance Payment from Customers should be treated as

a. Current Assets b. Current Liabilities
c. Expenditure in P & L A/c d. Prepaid expenses
14. Positive Current Ratio would indicate
a. Presence of Net Working Capital
b. Absence of Net Working Capital
c. Current Liabilities more than Current Assets
d. Negative TNW
15. Margin on Working capital is brought by a unit from

a. Bank Borrowings b. Current Liabilities
c. Long Term Sources d. Term Loans
16. U
nder valuation of closing stocks in the balance sheet will result in
a. Increase in Net Profit
b. Closing Stock will not come in Balance Sheet
c. Difference in totals of Balance Sheet
d. Decrease in Gross Profit
17. Debtor’s Velocity Ratio indicates

a. Credit period allowed on Purchases
b. Credit period allowed on Sales
c. Period of holding of stock
d. Period of holding of Finished Goods
18. Net Working Capital of a Company is negative. The Company’s current ratio is
19. Temporary investments of a borrowers (for the purpose of investing short term
surplus) in money market instruments. like CP, MMMF CD etc., can be classified
as
a. Current Asset b. Long Term Investment
c. Non Current Asset d. Intangible Assets
20. Investments in shares/Debentures of subsidiaries & associates are to be

classified as
a. Current Assets b. Intangible Assets
c. Non Current Assets d. Miscellaneous Assets
gone it is
23. SME unit has been sanctioned working capital limit of Rs 60 lakhs under turn
a. Rs. 1.80 crores b. Rs. 2.00 crores
c. Rs. 3.00 crores d. Rs. 2.40 crores
24. A low current ratio may imply

I. Surplus Working capital
II. Good liquidity
III. Shortage of Working Capital
IV. Shortage of Liquidity
a. i, ii b. iii, iv c. ii, iii d. i, iv
25. Stock turnover ratio denotes

a. Debtor’s Velocity b. Operational efficiency
c.Creditor’s Velocity d. Profit ratio

27. W hile analyzing the balance sheet of M/s Rakesh and Co, you notice that short
term uses are 120% of short term sources. Such a position would generally
indicate
a. Decrease in TNW b. Decrease in Current Ratio
c. Improvement in Current Ratio d. Diversion of funds

29. Deferred tax asset is classified as

a. Profit b. Current Asset c. Intangible Asset d. D. Fixed Asset
30. Holding Level of Raw Materials is related to

a. Cost of Sales b. Net Sales
c. Purchases d. Consumption of Raw Materials
31. Holding level of Stock in Process is calculated in relation to
a. Cost of Sales b. Cost of Production
c.Gross Profit d. Raw Materials
32. Level of Finished Goods is in relation to

a. Cost of Goods Sold b. Level of Sundry Debtors
c. Cost of Production d. Raw Materials
33. Level of Sundry Debtors is in relation to

a. Credit Purchases b. Cost of Production
c. Cost of Sales d. Gross Sales
34. In Funds Flow Analysis, any increase in Sundry Creditors for goods is treated as
a. Long Term Source b. Short Term Source
c. Short Term Use d. Long Term Use
35. In funds flow analysis, Diversion of funds means

a. Investment in Shares
b. Deploying funds in speculative activities
c. Short Term Deficit funded by Long Term Surplus
d. Long Term Deficit funded by Short Term Surplus
36. If subordination of unsecured loans is available, then such unsecured loans can
be treated
a. Secured Loans b. Debentures
c. Short Term Funds d. Long Term Funds
37. Chargeable Current Assets are
a. Inventory & Receivables b. Prepaid Expenses
c. Bad Debts d. Cash & Cash Equivalent
38. W
hether amount available in Revaluation Reserve & Capital Reserves can be
freely distributed to the share holders of the Company.
a. Yes. By passing resolution in the AGM
b. With the permission of Registrar of Companies
c. Yes. In the form of bonus shares
d. No. Cannot be distributed.
39. If Current Ratio increases and Quick Ratio remains constant, what does it
indicate:
a. Unit is making good profits
b. It shows higher percentage of stocks in Total Current Assets
c. It shows higher percentage of Debtors in Total Current Assets
d. It shows lower percentage of stocks in Total Current Assets.
40. The amount of security deposit which is deposited for the purpose of electricity
or telephone connection is shown in Balance Sheet as:
a. Current Asset b. Fixed Asset
c. Investment d. Non Current Asset

a. Improve
b. Will not improve
43. Term Loans are to be paid out of:

a. Capital b. By selling Fixed Assets
c. Borrowings d. Profits
44. Window dressing of Current Ratio is possible by:

a. Over valuing the inventory b. Under valuing the inventory
c. Over valuing capital d. Over valuing profit
a. Rs. 180000 b. Rs. 90000 c. Rs. 45000 d. Rs. 270000
46. C
a. Rs. 10 lacs b. Rs. 20 lacs c. Rs. 30 lacs d. None of the above
Ratio is
a. 4:1 b. 1.25:1 c. 1.33:1 d. 2:1

50. F
or a Construction Contractor in Real Estate Sector, a plot of land is which type
side –Rs.1000/- What is CR and NWC?
a. CR – 1.25 // NWC - 100 b. CR – 1.5 // NWC – 200
c. CR – 2.0 // NWC – 200 d. CR – 1.33 // NWC - 200
52. Calculate DSCR: NPAT – 100/- ; Income tax 30; depreciation – 50 ; Interest on
term loan–50/- ; installment on TL – 75;
a. 1.75 b. 1.50 c. 1.60 d. 1.70
53. T
he details available for a company are - the profit after tax 100, depreciation-
28, interest on term loan-40 and annual installment payable is 800. Find DSCR –
a. 2.0 b. 1.50 c. 1.75 d. 0.2
54. The current ratio of the firm is 1.33. Net Working Capital is Rs 8 lacs. What is
the value of current asset?
a. Rs. 10.64 lacs b.Rs. 16 lacs c. Rs. 24 lacs d. Rs. 32 lacs

a. 1.33:1 b. 1.25:1 c. 4:1 d. 2:1\
56. C
57. C
osts which do not change with the volume of production up to certain level
are known as:
a. Variable Costs b. Fixed Costs
c. Operation Cost d. Cost of Sales
KEYS
1 C 11 D 21 D 31 B 41 C 51 B
2 C 12 C 22 C 32 A 42 A 52 C
3 B 13 B 23 C 33 D 43 D 53 D
4 D 14 A 24 B 34 B 44 A 54 D
5 D 15 C 25 B 35 D 45 B 55 A
6 C 16 D 26 C 36 D 46 A 56 C
7 C 17 B 27 C 37 A 47 C 57 B
8 D 18 D 28 D 38 D 48 B
9 C 19 A 29 C 39 B 49 C
10 B 20 C 30 D 40 D 50 D
MCQ on Policies
1. Which of the following is not a right under the Customers Rights Policy
a. Right to Fair Treatment
b. Right to Transparency, Fair & Honest dealing
c. Right to Suitability
d. Right to Privacy
2. W
hich of the following is true with regards to Right to fair treatment for
customers under Customer Rights Policy
a. Treat all the customers fairly
b. Train Bank employees attending to customers adequately
c. Ensure that products are offered in accordance with relevant laws and regulations
d. Only A
e. only A, B and C
3. Which of the following is true: As per the Rights to Transparency, Fair and
Honest dealing under Customers Rights Policy Bank will
a. While providing complete transparency will ensure that no confidential
information is disclosed.
b. Display the Tariff Schedule only on the website
c. Bring to the notice of the customer the Most Important Terms and Conditions
(MITC)
d. A and b only
e. a and c only
4. Which of the following is not true: As per the Customer Rights Policy, under
Right to suitability, Bank
a. Will ensure that it has a Board approved policy for assessing suitability of
products for customers before sale
b. Cannot sell third party products to all its customers unless it is authorized by
NI Act
c. Inform the customer about his responsibility to promptly and honestly provide
all relevant and reasonable information that is sought by bank to enable
them to determine the suitability of the product to the customer.
d. None of the Above e. All the above
5. As per Right to Privacy, under Customer Rights Policy which of the following
are true:
a. Treat customer’s personal information as private and confidential (even when
the customer is no longer banking with us), and, as a general rule, not disclose
such information to any other individual/institutions including it’s subsidiaries
/ associates, tie-up institutions etc. for any purpose unless required by law
b. Shall not use or share customer’s personal information for marketing purpose,
unless the customer has specifically authorized it;
c.
Shall adhere to Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference
Regulations, 2010 (National Customer Preference Registry) issued by Telecom
Regulatory Authority of India, while communicating with customers.
d. All the above
e. only A and B
6. W
hich of the following statements are not true with regards to Customer Rights
policy
a. Advise the customer about how to make a complaint, to whom such a complaint
is to be made, when to expect a reply and what to do if the customer is not
satisfied with the outcome;
b. Display name, address and contact details of the Grievance Redressal Authority/
Nodal Officer. The time limit for resolution of complaints will be clearly displayed
/ accessible at all service delivery locations;
c. Ensure the customer is refunded without delay and demur, if it cannot show
beyond reasonable doubt to the customer on any disputed transaction (along
with interest/charges).
d. None of the Above
e. All the above
7. In our Bank which of the following is true with regards to Internal Ombudsman
a. Internal Ombudsman is a Retired Senior Officer of the rank of General Manager
of another Bank
b. If the Bank has any disagreement with Banking Ombudsman decision the same
can be reported to Ministry of Finance
c. This mechanism is adopted by the Bank as per the guidelines of Ministry of
Finance
d. None of the Above e. A and C only
8. The Nodal officer to ensure monitoring of credit related grievances forwarded

by the Ministry for taking appropriate action on merits in our Bank is
a. General Manger, Recovery, Legal and Fraud Prevention Wing b. General Manager,
Credit Adminstration and Monitoring Wing
c. General Manager, PC & FI Wing
d. General Manager, Compliance Wing
e. General Manager, Financial Management and Subsidiaries Wing
9. CPGRS means
a. Consumer Protection and Grievance Redressal System b. Canara Public Grievance
Redressal System
c. Customer Protection and Grievance Redressal System
d. Canara Policy of Grievance Redressal System
e. Customer Policy for Grievance Redressal System
10. Customer’s day is observed on

a. Last Friday of the month b. 3rd Friday of the month
c. 3rd Saturday of the month d. A or B or C e. None of the above
11. Customer Fortnight is conducted every year during the month of

a. November b. October
c. February d. December e. March
12. The Standing Committee on Customer Service will be chaired by the

a. Managing Director and CEO
b. Executive Director of the Bank.
c. General Manager SP&D Wing d. A or B
e. Chairman of the Bank
13. As per the ministry of finance guidelines, complaints received/forwarded from
RBI/VVIP have to be redressed within
a. 21 days b. 15 days c. 7 days d. 30 days e. 45 days
14. As per the policy adopted by the bank, complaints received/forwarded from
RBI/VVIP have to be redressed within
15. As per the ministry of Finance guidelines, complaints received from PM’s office,
redressal to be done within
a. 12 days b. 7 days c. 15 days
d. 30 days e. 3 Working Days
16. As per the policy adopted by the bank, complaints received/forwarded from
PM’s office redressal to be done within
a. 12 days b. 7 days c. 15 days d. 30 days e. 3 Working Days
17. As per Grievance redressal policy, general complaints received has to be
redressed within days as per the guidelines of Ministry of finance and within
days as per the policy adopted by our Bank
a. 30 and 21 b. 21 and 15 c. 21 and 30
d. 30 and 15 e. 15 and 21
18. In case of complaints pertaining to a failed ATM transaction at other bank ATMs,
the customer should lodge a complaint with the
a. Card issuing bank b. Bank of the ATM
c. Visa d. Master Card
e. Rupay
19. In view of the incidents of unauthorized / fraudulent withdrawals at ATMs that
came to the notice of RBI, banks were advised to put in place, latest by June
30, 2011, a system of online alerts for all types of transactions involving usage
of cards at various channels for
a. Any transaction above Rs 5000/- b. Any transaction above Rs 1000/-
c. Any transaction above Rs 500/- d. All Transactions
e. Rs 50000/- and above.
20. The wrongful debit in the customers account on account of ATM failed
transactions shall be reversed within _ working days from the date of receipt
of complaint from the customer, failing which a penalty at Rs._ for each day
of delay shall be credited to the customer’s account along with the disputed
amount.
a. 7 and Rs 200/- b. 15 and Rs 100/-
c. 7 and Rs 100/- d. 15 and Rs 500/-
21. The claim preferred after days but within days, known as good faith claim, is
settled through NPCI- DMS without penalty.
a. 45 and 60 b. 60 and 90
c. 90 and 120 d. 60 and 120
e. No such claim exists
22. If the customer prefers the complaint after 30 days but within 60 days the
claim will be settled through our NPCI- Dispute Management System (DMS)
package.
a. With compensation at Rs 100/- day
b. With Compensation at Rs 200/- day
c. No compensation is paid
d. Penalty of Rs 50/- per day
e. None of the above.
23. Which of the following is not true with regards to eligible accounts for
Immediate Credit of Local/ Outstation Cheque/ Instruments & Payment of
Interest on Delayed Collection
I. Surplus Working capital II. Good liquidity
III. Shortage of Working Capital IV. Shortage of Liquidity
a. i, ii b. iii, iv c. ii, iii d. i, iv
24. For cheques and other instruments sent for collection to centers within the
country the following time norms shall be applied for cheques presented at
major cities other than State Capitals
25. In the event the proceeds of cheque under collection was to be credited to an
overdraft/loan account of the customer, interest will be paid at the rate
a. MCLR one Year
b. Fixed Deposit rate for the corresponding period
c. Rate of Interest applicable to loan account.
d. SB interest rate e. No interest is payable.
26. Cheque truncation is the process of eliminating the flow of physical cheque
issued by a drawer to the drawee branch. The physical cheque will be
truncated and electronic image of the cheque are captured for processing. The
onus of due diligence is with and the physical cheques are retained with
a. Paying Bank and Presenting Bank b. Presenting Bank and Paying Bank
c. Presenting Bank and Presenting Bank
d. Paying Bank and Paying Bank
e. Presenting Bank and Customer
27. Only Bank NA is providing and servicing the Final Credit Service (without
recourse) wherein the physical cheque is forwarded to the Bank in the USA.
Under the arrangement the proceeds of the cheques will either be credited to
our Nostro account (final credit) or a notification of non payment is sent within
a definite time depending upon the location of the drawee Bank. Once the
amount of cheque is credited to our Nostro account, the collecting bank cannot
debit our account or claim refund of the amount of the cheque at a later date,
on account of any alteration on the front of the cheque.
a. CITI BANK NA
b. Chase Manhattan
c. Bank of America
d. Wells Fargo Bank NA
e. None of the Above
28.It is proposed that cheques for value upto USD 2,000 only shall be processed
and USD denominated instruments above USD 2001 to USD250000 will be
processed under
a. Final Credit Service & Cash Letter Services
b. Cash Letter Services and Final Credit Services
c. Speed Clearing & Cash Letter Services
d. Final Credit Services & Speed Clearing e. ICCMS and SCMS
29. The period beyond which compensation shall be payable for collection of a
USD Cheque payable in USA under Cash Letter Service is
a. 21 days from the date of presenting to Foreign Department
b. 20 days from the date of Credit to our Nostro Account
c. 21 days from the date of receipt of cheque at USA
d. 20 days from the date of confirmation from Correspondent Banking Division,
Treasury e. None of the above
30. The period beyond which compensation shall be payable for collection of a
USD Cheque payable in USA under Final Credit Service is
a. 21 days from the date of presenting to Foreign Department
b. 20 days from the date of Credit to our Nostro Account
c. 20 days from the date of receipt of cheque at USA
d. 20 days from the date of confirmation from Correspondent Banking Division,
Treasury
31.Subject to the satisfactory track record of the customer etc, immediate

credit may be given to the customer’s account, without completion of
the cooling period, on citing the pass sheet credit for clean instruments
denominated in GBP and EURO up to the equivalent of
a. GBP 10000 b. EURO 10000 c. INR 250000 d. USD 10000
32. In respect of erroneous transactions reported by customer pertaining to

credit card operations the bank shall provide explanation and if necessary
documentary evidence to the customer within a maximum period of days
from the date the customer notifies the Bank regarding the erroneous debit.
a. 45 days b. 60 days c.15 days d. 21 days e. None of the above
33. In cases of the Erroneous debits arising out of fraudulent transaction which
of the following is not true:
a. In case of any fraud, if the branch is convinced that an irregularity/ fraud has
been committed by staff towards any constituent, the branch should at once
acknowledge its liability and pay just claim.
b. In case where bank is at fault, the bank should compensate customers without
demur.
c. In case where neither the Bank is at fault nor the customer, but the fault lies
elsewhere in the system, the Bank will help in restoring the actual amount
involved. As a gesture of goodwill and to deal with the Customers fairly,
the Bank will compensate the customer with Rs.100/- per Rs.5000/- of the
amount involved, subject to a maximumRs.1000/- for each instance.
d. All the above
34. Where it is established that the bank had issued and activated a credit card
without written consent of the recipient, the bank would not only reverse the
charges immediately but also pay a penalty without demur to the recipient
amounting to the value of charges reversed.
a. Thrice the value of charges
b. Twice the value of charges
c. Rs 1000/-
d. Rs 2000/- + SB interest till the date of recredit
35. Under the extant guidelines, bank is required to pay penal interest at the
current plus 2 percent for the period of delay / till the date of refund as the
case may be to the affected customerssuo- moto, without waiting for claim
from customers.
a. LIBOR b. MCLR
c. RBI LAF Repo rate d. SWIFT
e. SB Rate
36. Duplicate draft will be issued within a fortnight from the receipt of such
request from the purchaser thereof. For delay beyond the above stipulated
period, interest at the rate applicable for for corresponding period will be paid
as compensation to the customer for such delay.
a. Savings Bank Rate b. Fixed Deposit Rate
c. MCLR d. LIBOR
e. Repo Rate
37. In terms of the guidelines for lenders liability and the Code of Bank’s
Commitment to customers adopted by the Bank, the Bank would return to the
borrowers all the securities/documents/title deeds to mortgaged property
within days of repayment of all dues agreed to or contracted.
a. 21 days
b. 7 days
c. 15 days
d. 45 days
e. After obtaining NOC from Overseeing Legal Section
38. As per RBI instructions dated 13.04.2012 in case of the delay in revision of
pension and payment of arrears to pensioners including non State resident
pensioners, the Bank shall compensate the pensioners’ for the delayed period
beyond the due date at penal interest.
a. 7% b. 8% c. 6% d. 4.5% e. 6.5%
39. Which of the following categories of customers are exempted from
maintainance of Monthly Average Minimum Balance (MAMB) :
a. Pensioners drawing pension through our Branches b. Non Resident Indians
c. Employees of the Bank
d. Ex-employees of the Bank who are eligible to earn preferential Rate of Interest
on Deposits.
e. All the above
40. For which of the following accounts charges for non-maintenance of Monthly
Average Minimum Balance (MAMB) are waived
a. Savings Bank Gold b. JeevanDhara
c. Canara Galaxy d. All of the above
41. Bank will be constrained to close the account, if ECS mandates are dishonoured
for the reason insufficient funds on occasions during the financial year.
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. 3
42. In case of Dishonour of a cheque for the reason insufficient funds valuing
Rs.______________ and chequesfavouring Stock Exchanges irrespective of the
amount, on FOUR occasions during the financial year no cheque book would be
issued and Bank may consider closure of Current Accounts at our discretion.
a. Rs 1 lakh and above b. 1 crore & above
c. Rs 10 lakhs and above d. Rs 50000 and above
e. None of these
43. Accounts where Principal or interest payment is not overdue for more than 30
days but have non-financial deficiencies like non submission of ABS, QOS/HOS,
Delay in Submission of Stock statement etc and showing signs of incipient stress
are categorized as
a. SMA -0 b. SMA-1 c. SMA-2 d. SMA-3 e. NPA
44. Which of the following is true with regards to Bio-Metric ATMs

a. Can be used by Illiterate Persons
b. No Pin required
c. Authenticates customers transactions using finger print identification
d. Credit Card can be used in these ATMs
e. All of the above
45. What is a Brown label ATM

a. CapEx ATM b. OpEx ATM
c. Lobby ATM d. Outsourced ATM
46. What is a White Label ATM
a. ATMs owned by Private ATM Service Providers
b. Bank’s ATMs
c. Cash Dispensers
d. Bio Metric ATMs
e. Recyclers
47. ATM is said to be Deemed On site ATM if installed within a radius of …….m from
branch premises
a. 500 b. 1000
c. 1500 d. 200
48. What is the max limit of cash withdrawable in ATMs per day for a regular Debit
Card
a. Rs 50000/- b. Rs 40000/-
c. Rs50000/- d. Rs 25000/-
e. Rs 100000/-
49. Which of the following in not a value added service in ATMs

a. Mobile Banking Activation b. Cheque Book Request
c. Mobile Recharge/Topup d. E-Donations through ATM
e. PPF Payment
50. Prognosis Incident Report Manager Package is used to check the

a. Failed ATM Transactions b. Failed Credit Card Transactions
c. Downtime of ATMs d. Reconcilation of Mobile Transactions
e. Status of UPI transcations
51. Surprise verification of Cash in outsourced ATMs has to be verified once in

a. 2 months b. Monthly
c. 3 months d. Half yearly
e. on 31st March every year
52. Balance cash held by ATM has to be physically verified against ATM
generated report (JPT) by the Chief Manager also in case of VLB once in
a. Quarter b. Half-Year
c. Yearly on 31st March d. Monthly
e. Not required as it verified by the Manager/Key Holder
53. Whenever cash level in the ATM goes below Rs , an automated SMS/E-mail will
be generated and sent across to Branch-in-charge/ CRA executive.
a. 2 lakhs b. 50000/- c. 1 lakh d. 60000/- e. 3 lakhs
54. Whenever an ATM goes out of order and continues to remaindown for more
than ______, an alert will be triggered to Mobile Number of TOE of the Circle.
a. 30mts b. 1hr c. 2hrs d. 6hrs e. 12hrs
55. Copying of the ATM CCTV Camera images/data on to a removable media- USB
hard disk is to be done once in and images copied should be preserved for a
period of days in FBR
a. 30 and 90 days b. 30 and 60 days
c. 30 and 120 days d. 45 and 60 days
e. 45 and 90 days
56. As per the ATM policy of the bank, whom among the following is empowered to
enhance/modify cash limit for withdrawal through ATM.
a. General Manager of DBS Wing b. General Manager of DIT
c. ED d. MD&CEO e. Board of the Directors
57. As per the incentive scheme from the Regulator RBI Banks are eligible for
incentive for installation of ATM/CD dispensing lower denomination notes (i.e.
uptoRs 100/- denomination) as under in Semi-Urban/Rural Branches:
a. 60% of the actual cost of the machine or Rs 2.50 lacs whichever is lower.
b. 50 % of the actual cost of the machine or Rs 2.50 lacs whichever is lower.
c. 60% of the actual cost of the machine or Rs 2.00 lacs whichever is lower.
d. 50 %of the actual cost of the machine or Rs 2.50 lacs whichever is lower.
58. Who is the Business Continuity Co-Ordinator for our Bank

a. General Manager, DIT b. General Manager, DBS Wing
c. General Manager HR Wing d. General Manager, GA Wing
e. MD&CEO
59. Disaster Recovery Site for IT environment is located at

a. Delhi b. K R Puram, Bengaluru c. Mumbai
d. Mangalore e. DIT Complex, Bengaluru
60. As per the Business Continuity Plan, fire evacuation drills are to beconducted
atleastonce in______.
a. quarter b. Half-Year c. Year d. two months
e. Not mandatory
61. As per the Media Management Policy, whom among the following are not
AuthorisedSpokes person to communicate with the media
a. MD&CEO b. Executive Director
c. General Manager M&RR Wing d. Circle Heads e. None of the above
62. As per the Mobile Banking Policy, the daily upper ceiling per customer is
Rs_______for Funds Transfer when the mobile banking facility is used over
NUUP/SMS.
a. Rs 5000/- b. Rs 1000/-
c. Rs 10000/- d. Rs 50000/-
e. Rs 200000/-
63. What is NUUP

a. National Unified USSD Platform b. National USSD Unified Platform
c. National Uniform USSD Platform d. National USSD Uniform Platform
64. Registration for the mobile banking can be done through

a. Net Banking b. ATM
c. Mobile Banking app d. SMS
e. All the above
65. In the CanMobile Application the data travels on bit end to end encryption
while doing transactions on GPRS/WAP channel
a. 128 b. 64 c. 256 d. 320 e. 192
66. A customer id gets deregistered in Mobile Banking applications, if the customer

does
a. Three wrong attempts for consecutive 2 days
b. Six Wrong attempts a day
c. Three Wrong attempts on a single day
d. 10 Wrong attempts
67. What is GPRS

a. General Packet Receiving Service
b. Generic Packet Receiving Service
c. Generic Pocket Radio Service
d. General Pocket Radio Service
e. General Programmed Receiver Subscription
68. ________Risk is defined as the risk arising from negative perception on the part
of Customers, Counterparties, Shareholders, Investors or regulators that can
adversely affect a bank’s ability to establish new business relationships.
a. Market Risk b. Regulatory Risk c. Perception Risk
d. Reputation Risk e. None of the above.
69. C onflict of interest is a situation in which an employee of the Bank has a
private or personal interest sufficient to appear to influence the objective
exercise of his or her official duties. In this context, employee shall mean
a. All Regular Employees of the Bank
b. Only Officers and Above
c. Workmen and Officer employees except Part time employees and employees
on contract basis
d. All employees on the rolls of the Bank including employees on contractual or
professional obligations
70. The investments by the Parent Bank in the Paid Up Equity of the Non-
financial subsidiaries/Associates which are not consolidated for Capital
Purposes shall be assigned risk weight of …
a. 100% b. 125% c. 75% d. 150% e. 50%
71. If the parent bank holds more than 10% of the common share capital of the
individual entity and such investment does not exceeds 10% of Banks own
common equity, the Investment shall be risk weighted at__
a. 125% b. 150% c. 200% d. 250% e. 100%
72. Currently Bank calculates operational risk regulatory capital as per

a. Basic Indicators Approach
b. Advanced Measurement Approach
c. Integrated Risk Management Approach
d. EWIRM Approach
e. CDRM Approach
73. As per the Operational Risk Governance which among the following does not
form the part of three lines of defence
a. CLAPS
b. Business Line Management
c. Corporate ORM Function
d. Independent Review and Challenge
e. all the above
74. What is RCSA

a. Risk of Compliance &Systems Avoidance
b. Risk Control and Security Arrangement
c. Risk & Controls Self-Assessment
d. Risk Co-ordination & Supervisory Approach
e. Risk Control and Supervisory Assessment
75. What is BEICFs
a. Business and Evaluation of Integrated Control Factors
b. Business environment and Internal Control Factors
c. Basic Evaluation of Internal Control Factors
d. Business Exigencies and Internal Control Factors
e. None of the Above.
76. What is BCBS

a. Banking Codes and Business Standards
b. Basel Committee on Banking Supervision
c. Business Codes and Banking Standards
d. Board on Control of Banking Standards
77. The period that commences from the first day following the end of the
reporting period until the release of results during which spokespersons or any
other designated personnel shall not communicate with analyists, investors or
media with respect to matters related to earnings and financials is known as
a. Silent Period b. Moratorium
c. Quiet Period d. Speculative Period
78. As per RBI instructions, Fire audit of Currency chest is to conducted once in
______years by the Government Fire Department
a. 2 b. 3
c. 1 d. 6 months
79. The committee constituted by SEBI to assess the adequacy of current

corporate governance practices and to suggest improvements was headed by
a. Rangarajan b. Narayana Murthy c. BimalJalan
d. Subba Rao e. Ramanath Pillai
80. List of old records to be destroyed which is prepared duly taking into
consideration the retention period of each records, is submitted to Premises
and Estate Section of the concerned circle office during the month of
a. December b. January c. April d. November
e. Febraury
81. As per the Document Handling and Retention policy which of the following
can be destroyed after 10 years
a. Register of Mortgages and Charges b. Security Register
c. ATM Debit Cards Issue Registers d. Attendance Register
82. As per the Document Handling and Retention Policy, the period for which the
Inspection reports and replies of the same to be preserved for a period of
a. 10 years b. Permanently
c. 8 years d. 6 years
e. After completion of subsequent 3 inspections.
83. As per the KYC Policy of the Bank, a current account is classified as High
risk account if the average balance in the account for the last 6 months is above
a. Rs 2 lakhs b. Rs 10 lakhs
c. Rs 5 lakhs d. Rs 3 lakhs
84. As per the KYC Policy of the Bank, a Term Deposit Account is classified as Low
risk account if the balance in the account is less than
a. Rs 50000/- b. Rs 1 lakh
c. Rs 2 lakhs d. Rs 5 lakhs
85. As per the KYC Policy of the Bank, which of the following customers’ accounts
are not treated as High Risk irrespective of the Balance in their accounts
a. Accounts having Beneficial Owners b. Politically Exposed Persons
c. Trusts d. Minors
e. Non Resident Indians
86. Which of the following accounts are not to be treated as High Risk accounts
a. Blocked Accounts b. Accounts of dealers in Jewellery
c. Exporters d. Importers
87. As per the Security Arrangement policy of our Bank, Risk Classification/
Assessement for every Branch/Data Centre/Satellite centre should be carried
out once in every ______ years
a. 5 years b. 4 years c. 3 years d. 1 year e. 2 years
88. Standard Cash limit of the Bank as a whole is to be in the range of …………..
based on aggregate domestic deposits.
a. 0.15 to 0.25 % b. 0.25 to 0.35 %
c. 0.35 to 0.45 % d. 0.45 to 0.55 %
89. As per the Password policy of the Bank, Mobile Banking PIN expiration timeout
is
a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 6 months d. 3 months
90. What is PKI

a. Private Key Infrastructure b. Public Key Infrastructure
c. Personal Key Information d. Private Key Information
91. What is CHAP

a. Chained Hybrid Agriculture Produce
b. Committee on Hitech Agriculture Produce
c. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
d. Cryptographic Hacking and Authentication Tools
92. As per the Debit card policy, what is the maximum limit for Platinum /Business
Debit Card in POS/Internet
a. Rs 1 lakh b. Rs 2 lakh c. Rs 5 lakhs d. Rs 50000/-
93. What is the per day per card limit for cash withdrawls at EDC in tier III to tier
VI cities
a. Rs 1000/- b. Rs 5000/- c. Rs 3000/- d. Rs 2000/-
94. Personalized Debit cards undelivered to be destroyed within a period of months

as per the guidelines of destruction of security items
a. 60 days b. 45 days c. 3 months d. 6 months
95. Contactless debit cards use the ___________ technology

a. EMV b. NFC c. WAP d. PIN e. Encrypto
96. Which of the following is not true with respect to the Credit Cards issued to NRIs
a. Applicant should have Indian Passport
b. NRI can withdraw a cash of Rs 50000/- or 50% of the Card Limit per month
c. Add On Card holder of NRI customer can withdraw a cash of Rs 25000/- per
month
d. Local Address of NRI is mandatory
e. NRI Card settlement through NRE/NRO account only
97. For staff, Credit card can be issued if the minimum Gross income is
a. Rs 50000/- b. Rs 60000/- c. Rs 75000/-
d. Rs 1 lakh e. Can be given irrespective of the gross income
98. Minimum and Maximum limit for issuing a Secured Credit Card is
a. Rs 10000/- and Rs 25 lakhs b. Rs 25000/- and Rs 25 lakhs
c. Rs 50000/- and Rs 50 lakhs d. Rs 50000/- and Rs 10 lakhs
e. Rs 10000/- and Rs 50 lakhs
99. No of Add-On cards that can be issued under Main card for a Corporate
customer with a minimum limit of Rs 10000/- is ______________
a. 50 b. 100
c. 99 d. No restrictions
100. W
herever revolving facility is given for Credit Card holders the minimum
amount demanded is % of the billed amount
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% e. 25%
101. The validity period of International Travel Prepaid card is years

a. 3 years b. 4 years c. 2 years d. 10 years e. 5 years
102. W
hich of the following documents are to mandatorily collected while issued
International Travel Prepaid Card
a. Copy of first and last pages of Passport
b. Form A2
c. Travel Document (copy of the Tickets and Visa)
d. All the above
103. W
hich of the following Cards along with the main card get a Back up Card in
the kit
a. Platinum Rupay Debit Card b. Standard Master Credit Card
c. Secured Credit Card d. International Travel Prepaid Card
104. International Travel Prepaid Card is not loaded with which of the following
Currencies
a. Singapore Dollar b. Australian Dollar
c. Swiss Franc d. Euro
e. US Dollar
105. Every premises having an electrical power greater than ………. KVA or having a
minimum carpet area of ………………. Sq. ft. must be installed with a fire alarm
system.
a. 1 and 500 b. 2 and 100
c. 5 and 200 d. 10 and 1000
106. Fire extinguishers for each premise will be provided as per the
recommendations of
a. Circle Head b. Regional Head
c. Manager, Premises Section, CO d. Security Officer
107. Branches having cash holding of …………… lacs and above should have a strong
room
a. 2 b. 5
c. 10 d. 20
108. Visit of Security officer to the branches in a year for

a. High risk -2 times, Normal risk -1, Low risk – Once in two years
b. High risk -4 times, Normal risk -2, Low risk - 1
c. High risk -3 times, Normal risk -2, Low risk - 1
d. High risk -1 times, Normal risk -1, Low risk – 2
109. For cash remittance above Rs. 20 lac and up to Rs. 50 lac, escorting is
required by
a. One armed guard b. Two armed guard
c. No armed guard d. Three armed guard
110. Key elements of KYC policy are

i. Customer acceptance policy ii. Monitoring of Transactions
iii. Customer Identification Procedure iv. Risk Management
a. i and ii b. i and iii c. i and iv d. i to iv
111. As per RBI direction, preferential ROI (0.5%) over and above applicable
deposit rate should be extended to customers on becoming senior citizen
a. After maturity of existing deposit b. With immediate effect
c. For the new deposits only d. After request from customer
112. Cheque return charges shall not be levied in the following cases.
a. Not drawn on us b. Exceeds arrangement
c. Drawer’s Signature differs d. Effects not cleared
113. CSR, an activity in our bank stands for
a. Canara South Report b. Canara South Responsibility
c. Corporate Social Responsibility d. Canara Social Responsibility
114. As per Section 135 of Companies Act, a minimum amount to be spent on CSR
activity, is
a. 2% of net profit b. 2% of gross profit
c. 2% of turnover d. 2% of networth
115. Additional capital would not be provided under Pillar II, if the strategic risk
level is
a. High b. Very High c. Moderate d. Normal
116. Bank shall provide disclosures under legal and regulatory requirements to
i. RBI ii. SEBI iii. Accounting Standards of ICAI
a. i and ii b. i and iii c. ii and iii d. i to iii
117. Under Interbank Mobile Payment Service (IMPS) through ATM, maximum funds
transferred per day is
a. 10000 b. 20000 c. 40000 d. 50000
118. Cash loading in ATM should be …………. % of the average disbursement.

a. 100 b. 110 c. 120 d. 150
119. Any borrowal account up to Rs. 10 lac upon slipping to NPA, investigation may
be initiated by the permission of
a. AGM, RO b. GM, CO
c. DGM, CO d. Over seeing Executive of the branch
120. For the loan accounts where amount sanctioned is Rs. 15 crore and above, if
the account slips to NPA, it is to be reported to
a. Circle Head b. HO c. Vigilance wing d. RBI
121. Who is empowered to fix standard cash limit to branches of the circle?
a. MIPD Section, CO b. MIPD Section, RO
c. GA Section, RO d. Circle Head
122. Bankers balance shall be maintained at minimum balance stipulated by

respective banks with tolerance level of ……. on the upper side.
a. 5% b. 10%
c. 15% d. 20%
123. Cash verification in currency chest by officer of any other branch/service unit
is to be carried out on
a. Daily basis b. Weekly basis
c. Fortnightly basis d. Monthly basis
124. Employee expressing/posting/publishing any information in social media is a

violation of bank rules and action may be
a. Reminded b. Permitted
c. Criminal d. Ignored
125. As per Trade Credit Policy, transmission of BG in MT760 format is through
………. to the overseas lender.
a. NEFT b. RTGS
c. SWIFT d. SFMS
126. AS per Whistle Blower Policy, whistle blowing is for

a. Recovery of NPA accounts b. Increase of CASA
c. Complaints against customer d. Unethical practices
127. High value transactions in terms of Merchant Enrolment policy are

a. Transaction of Rs.1.25 lac per day by merchants
b. Transaction of Rs. 2 lac per day by Jewellers and Travel Agents
c. Transaction outstanding for more than 120 days
d. All the above
128. As per Archival Policy of the bank, corporate website will exit from archive
after ……. Years
a. 5 b. 8 c.10 d.12
129. Canara mobile application of our bank will block the user if one enters wrong
password for …….. times
a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 4
130. User session in Canara Mobile shall expire in case of inactivity from user for
more than ………..seconds
a. 45 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120
131. Daily upper limit of fund transfer in Bhim Canara Empower per day is
a. Rs. 50000 b. Rs. 1 lac
c. Rs. 2 lac d. No such limit
132. Virtual Payment Address (VPA) created and deleted by user in Bhim Canara
Empower, the same cannot be used for next…... Months.
a. 6 b.12 c.18 d. 24
133. Independent income criteria for world credit card variant are…. Lac per
annum.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 12 d.15
134. Periodicity of RBIA audit of Prime Corporate Branches is

a. Low Risk, 15 months b. High Risk, 6 months
c. Moderate Risk, 12 months d. 12 months irrespective of risk
135. If the land is purchased beyond preceding one year, ….. % of the fair market
value assessed by approved valuer should be considered
a. 90 b. 85 c. 80 d.75
136. KYC verification of all members of SHG shall be made at

a. SHG formation b. SB account opening
c. Credit linking d. Payment of Subsidy
137. Which one of the following is not a safety measure of electronic banking
transaction?
a. SMS Alert b. OTP c. Key Board d. PIN
138. In case of unauthorised electronic transactions, where the responsibility lies
with the system, the maximum liability payable by bank if brought to the
notice within 7 days of occurrence, is
a. BSBD account –Rs.5000 b. General SB – Rs.10000
c. ODCC – Rs. 25000 d. All above
139. Which one is a violation of customer right to privacy?

a. Disclosure compelled by law
b. Information to Credit Information Company
c. In Public Interest
d. Information to spouse
140. Bank will be constrained to close the account, if ECS are dishonoured for ……
occasions, with the reason of insufficient fund (giving due notice) during one
financial year
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. No such option
ANSWERS
Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans

No No No No No No No
1 e 21 d 41 a 61 e 81 d 101 e 121 D
2 e 22 c 42 b 62 a 82 c 102 d 122 B
3 e 23 a 43 a 63 a 83 c 103 d 123 B
4 b 24 e 44 e 64 e 84 d 104 c 124 C
5 d 25 c 45 b 65 a 85 d 105 b 125 c
6 d 26 c 46 a 66 a 86 e 106 d 126 d
7 a 27 d 47 a 67 d 87 c 107 b 127 d
8 c 28 b 48 b 68 d 88 b 108 a 128 b
9 b 29 e 49 e 69 d 89 c 109 a 129 a
10 e 30 c 50 c 70 b 90 b 110 d 130 c
11 a 31 d 51 c 71 d 91 c 111 b 131 b
12 a 32 b 52 b 72 a 92 b 112 a 132 d
13 a 33 e 53 c 73 a 93 d 113 c 133 b
14 b 34 b 54 c 74 c 94 c 114 a 134 d
15 c 35 c 55 a 75 b 95 b 115 d 135 b
16 b 36 b 56 d 76 b 96 c 116 d 136 c
17 a 37 c 57 a 77 c 97 b 117 d 137 c
18 a 38 b 58 d 78 a 98 a 118 b 138 d
19 d 39 e 59 c 79 b 99 c 119 c 139 d
20 c 40 b 60 c 80 d 100 a 120 c 140 b
17. BALANCING, STATEMENTS & RETURNS
1. D
eposits exempted under purview of SLR/CRR are to be reported in
a. STR 11 (RBI Statement) b. STR 11 A
c. PSR 21 d. STR 33
2. Statement on credit flow to SME & Priority sector advances:

a. STR 33 b. PSR 21
c. PSR 67 d. PSR 22 (Quarterly Last Friday)
3. S tatement of Expenses on Vehicles as at last day of March and September is

reported in
a. PRR 10 b. PRR 3
c. PSR 21 d. PSR 22 (Quarterly Last Friday)
4. Report on CUSTOMER SERVICE COMMITTEE MEETING/CUSTOMER DAY

a. PRR 10 b. PRR
c. PSR 54 (Monthly last day) d. PSR 33
5. STR 11 A contains details of

a. Statement of business position (Fortnightly –Other than Notified Fridays).
b. Progressive use of Hindi in banks
c. Priority sector advances
d. Foreign remittences received to accounts of NGOs
6. STR 18 contains details of

a. Foreign remittences received to accounts of NGOs
b. Position of Applications sanction disbursement of Educational Loans
c. Priority sector advances
d. Progressive use of Hindi in banks
7. Declaration and Premium Remittance on Pre-shipment and Post shipment Export

Credit Guarantee Policy (ECGC/WTPCG/WTPSG) is submitted monthly last day in
a. POR 1 b. PSR 54 (Monthly last day)
c. POR 9 d. PSR 33
8. Following statement is Monthly NPA Statement.

a. PSR 33 b. PRR 33
c. PSR 73–Last day of the Month. d. PRR 35
9. Kisan Credit Card Scheme– Progress Report.

a. PSR 77 b. PRR 33
c.PSR 73–Last day of the Month. d. PRR 35
10. Statement on, position of Applications sanction disbursement of Educational
Loans.
a. PSR 81 b. PRR 33
c.PSR 73–Last day of the Month. d. PRR 35
11. Recovery of priority sector advances on the last Friday-of June & Sept - Half
Yearly
a. PSR 81 b. PRR 33
c. PSR 73–Last day of the Month. d. PSR 33A
12. Special Return of advances to priority sector- Yearly; Last reporting Friday of
June
a. PSR 21 b. PRR 33
13. Quick mortality statement means

a. Quarterly statement for accounts those have become NPA within 12months
with liability of Rs.15Lakhs and above.
b. Monthly statements of loan account where borrowers have died within
6 months of availing the loan
c. Quarterly statement for accounts those have become NPA within 12months
with liability of Rs.10 Lakhs and above
d. Monthly statement for accounts those have become NPA within 12 months with
liability of Rs.5 Lakhs and above
14. PSR 1 deals with..

a. Accounts slipped to NPAS during the quarter under review.
b. Flash Report
c. Advances made to MSME sector
d. of advances to priority sector
15. Advances to Priority Sector as at yearly last Friday of March is reported in

a. PSR 23 b. PRR 33
c. PSR 73 – Last day of the Month. d. PSR 33A
16. DSBR1-Offsite Surveillance of Bank Reporting System as at calendar quarterly

last day is reported to
a. MIPD&PP Sec, CO b. Reginal office
c. I C & I SECTION , C.O d. Premises section, R.O
17. Priority Sector Advances to Minority Communities

a. PSR 23 b. PSR 7–Quarterly Last Friday.
c. PSR 33 d. PSR 43
18. Financial Assistance to Women beneficiaries
a. PSR 26 b. PRR 33
c.PSR 73–Last day of the Month. d. PSR 33A
19. Performance under newly introduced Scheme of Priority Sector or

a. PSR 80–Quarterly last Friday b. PRR 33
20. The Return on Asset Quality as on Last day of the Calendar Quarter is.
a. STR 11 b. STR33
c. STR19 d. POR 21
21. The statement on exposure to sensitive sectors are to be reported in

a. PSR67 (Monthly Last day). b. PRR 33
22. Periodicity of submission of PRR43 is ;

a .Quarterly last Day(Return on Sundry Liabilities A/c and Sundry Deposit A/c)
b. Monthly last Day(Return on Sundry Liabilities A/c and Sundry Deposit A/c)-
c. Quarterly last fridayDay(Return on Sundry Liabilities A/c and Sundry Deposit.
d. Yearly last Day(Return on Sundry Liabilities A/c and Sundry Deposit A/c)-
23. W
hile submitting return on outstanding entries under SL& Sundry deposits in
PRR43, branches have to furnish individual entries in respect of marked items
outstanding beyond.
a. 3 months b. 15 days
c. 1 month d. 45 days
24. Due date for submission of PRR8 is ;

a. Half yearly as on last working day of December and June
b.Yearly as on last working day of December and June
c. quarterly as on last working day OF EACH QUARTER.
d. yearly as on last working day of December
25. PRR 8 deals with..,

a. Progress report on credit review and programming.
b. Report on expired OD/0CC/KCC limits
c. Report on YEARLY review of KCCS limits
d. Progress report on renewal of Working capital limits granted under MSME
sector.
26. The due date of Operational Risk Management Incident Reporting by the
Branch is;
a. Weekly every Friday. b. As and when incident occurs.
c. Monthly LAST Friday. d. Last day of each calendar month.
27. The Due Date for submitting POR21(NABARD Refinance monthly disbursement
register) is
a. Quarterly Last Friday. b. Quarterly Last day
c. Monthly Last friday d. Monthly Last day
28. Suspicious Transaction Report is to be submitted.

a. Within 24 hours of identification of transaction as suspicious
b. Within 7 working days of identification of transaction as suspicious
c. Within a week of identification of transaction as suspicious
d. Within 3 working days of identification of transaction as suspicious
29. Report of frauds, dacoities, thefts, burglary to be submitted

a. Within 24 hours of occurrence/ identification to R & R Section, Vigilance Wing
b. Immediately on its occurrence to R & R Section, Vigilance Wing
c. Within 2 days of occurrence/ identification to R & R Section, Vigilance Wing
d. Soon after filing FIR with jurisdictional Police station.
30. PRR 20A deals with

a. Credit Report cum inward application Register - soft copy extracts are
generated centrally and published in report server on last working day Of
month.
b. Credit Report cum inward application Register(NB 139-Monthlylastday) To be
prepared manually with reasons for rejection at monthly intervals On last day
of month.
c. Credit Report cum inward application Register(NB 139-Monthlylastday) For
Governmnet sponsored schemesTo be prepared manually with reasons for
rejection at monthly intervals
d. None of these
31. Reconciliation Statement of account with Bankers is reported in;

a. PRR 12 Monthly Las fridayt day.
b. PRR 12 Monthly Last day.
c. PRR 14 Monthly Last Friday day.
d. PRR 14 Monthly Last day.
BALANCING
32. The due date for taking balancing of OSC/ ISC is

a. 15th of every month and last working day of March &Sept
b. 10th of every month and last working day of June & December
c. 15th of every month and last working day of June & December
d. 10th of every month and last working day of March &Sept
33. Outstanding Guarantees is to be balanced.

a. Weekly every Friday b. Fortnightly Friday
c. Monthly last day d. Monthly Last Friday
34. C
DB/SDB/LSDB/Supply Bills/BE/FDB all will be balanced on
a. Monthly Last Friday b. Weekly every Friday
35. Security items arebalanced

a. Calendar quarterly last day b. Monthly Last Friday
36. Physical verification of Gold Jewellery packets is done…

a. Half yearly last Friday as at June and December
b. Half yearly 30th Sept& 31stMarch.
c. Quarterly last Friday of every quarter
d. Monthly , last Friday of each month
KEYS
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer

no no no no
1 a 10 a 19 b 28 b
2 d 11 d 20 a 29 a
3 a 12 a 21 d 30 d
4 c 13 a 22 b 31 a
5 a 14 b 23 d 32 c
6 d 15 a 24 a 33 c
7 a 16 a 25 b 34 a
8 c 17 a 26 d 35 a
9 a 18 a 27 b
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ON
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY & BANKING
1. The physical parts of a computer are known as:

a. Software b. hardware c. shareware
d. fixed-ware e. digital-ware
2. Which of the following cannot be treated as part of the computer hardware:

a. mother board b. cards c. memory
d. ports e. power supply
3. The software that consists of all the programs, languages and documents
supplied by the manufacturer of the computer is called:
a. application software b. system software c. utility software
d. a and c e. b and c
4. The application software is the software that is:

a. supplied by the computer manufacturer
b. used by the computer manufacturer
c. developed by the user for specific functions
d. developed by the manufacturer for manufacturing purpose
e. c and d
5. Which type of the following software is used by a person for preparation of text
documents:
a. data processor b. word processor c. complier
d. multimedia e. b and c
6. What is the no. of batches that take place NEFT wef 17.07.2017:
(a). 12 hourly settlement ( 8am to 7 pm ) on normal day
(b). 12 hourly settlement ( 8am to 7 pm ) on Saturday
(c). 9 hourly settlements ( 9am to 5pm ) on normal day
(d). 23 half-hourly settlements ( 8am to 7pm ) on all days
a. a and b. a and b
c. b and c d. d
7. Which of the following is not matched in UTR number

“xxxxRCYYYMMDDnnnnnnnnn”:
a. XXXX is first 4 characters of IFSC of receiving participant
b. R is RTGS and C is channel of transaction
c. YYYMMDD is year, month and date of transaction
d. nnnnnnnn is sequence number.
8. The term VSAT stands for which of the following:
a. variable small aperture terminal b. very small available terminal
c. very small aperture terminals d. variety of small aperture terminals.
9. The frauds and other kind of crimes that happen on the internet network are
called:
a. internet frauds b. internet crimes c. cyber crimes
d. electronic frauds e. all the above
10. Which of the following incident is not part of the cyber crime activity:
a. deciphering domain name
b. mis-configuring a web site
c. misusing a credit card
d. transmitting data from one part of the globe to another
e. using the network for drug trafficking
11. The part of the computer that makes use of primary memory:
a. storage unit b. central processing unit
c. output devices d. computer user
e. all the above
12. The device that uses pressure sensitive electronics and separate sensors to
monitor the horizontal and vertical movements is:
a. mouse b. joystick c. a compiler
d. a line printer e. a touch screen
13. The resolution of the computer screen is determined by which of the following:
a. the colour b. the memory c. the pixels
d. the processor speed e. b and c
14. The network for common data communication for banks and FIs launched by
RBI:
a. BANKNET b. INFINET c. NICENET
d. SWIFT e. INTERNET
15. Which of the following is the instrument of payment called Plastic Money:
a. Identity Card b. plastic card c. debit card
d. greeting card e. banker’s cheque
16. The term EFT means:
a. electronic foreign transfers b. electronic financial transfers
c. electronic funds transfer d. electrical funds transfer
e. any of the above
17. 1024 bytes are equal to:

a. 1 kilobyte b. 1 megabyte
c. 1 gigabyte d. 1 terabyte
e. 1 petabyte
18. The term RAM stands for which of the following:

a. readable memory b. random access memory
c. readable accessing memory d. read & access memory
e. read for action memory
19. The term ROM means:

a. Read online memory b. Read offlinememory
c. Read only memory d. Read on memory
e. Remove online matter
20. The device that converts an image into electronic form by shining light and
sensing the intensity of the reflection at every points:
a. bar code b. light pens
c. scanner d. touch screen
e. compiler
21. The electronic system through which a company or a mutual fund can make
payment of dividend to a large number of shareholders or unit-holders:
a. MICR b. truncation
c. debit clearing system d. credit clearing system
22. Which of the following is functions performed by email:

a. internet surfing b. electrical mail service
c. electronic mail service d. encoded mail service
e. electronic processing of post
23. INFINET stands for:

a. international Financial Network b. Indoor Financial Network
c. Indian Financial Network d. Internet Financial Network
24. Which of the following is not a storage device:
a. tape drives b. floppy disc drive
c. hard disc drive d. printer driver
25. Which of the following devices is a stack of metal platters that spins on one
spindle like a stack of fixed floppy disc:
a. tape drive b. floppy disk
c. hard disk d. DVD
26. The term SPNS stands for which of the following:

a. Sharing Process Network System
b. Shared Procedural Network System
c. Shared Payment Network System
d. Shortest possible networking system
27. The term e-Commerce represents which of the following:

a. economical commerce b. electrical commerce
c. electronic commerce d. elementary commerce
28. The SWIFT system is used for which of the following purposes:
a. data transmission b. customer information sharing
c. financial transactions transmission d. trading on stock exchange
29. A system that permits more than one user to access the computer system, at
the same time, through dumb terminals attached to the main system is known
as:
a. single user system b. multi user system
c. large area network d. metro area network
e. c and d
30. The device that reads the magnetic track on the card when the card is inserted
into the machine:
a. interpreter b. card reader
c. processor d. magnetic reader
e. b and d both
31. The term WWW is used for which of the following:

a. World wide web b. World wise web
c. Web world wide d. Wide world web
e. Wild world web
32. Which of the following, better describes the term internet:
a. a network of stand alone computers b. a network of servers
c. a network of networks d. a network of world-wide computers
33. In SWIFT system, the banks are connected with which of the following:
a. Internet b. Intranet c. Central Processor
d. Regional Processor e. Local area net work.
34. The computer system is controlled by a sequence of instructions that are

called:
a. computer software b. computer program
c. computer input device d. computer output device
e. operating system
35. The computer related storage device used for the purpose of making
permanent record:
a. CD-ROM b. Floppy disk c. Hard Disk d. WORM Drive
36. The funds that could be loaded into a card, which could be used as cash in case
of need:
a. credit card b. smart card c. electronic cash
d. narrow money e. broad money
37. The computer based network which connects the computers over a local area
is called:
a. local area connection b. local area network c. wide area network
d. metro area network e. none of the above.
38. What is the name for the system which uses electronic means to collect
payments from customers made by the credit/debit cardholders and installed
at retailers / merchant establishments:
a. ATM b. POS c. CBT d. CIP
39. Which of the following takes care of processing of the information in a

computer system:
a. ALU b. CPU c. Storage unit
d. Control Unit e. Processors
40. The term booting is used in connection with which of the following:
a. activation of the computer b. activation of internet
c. activation of the smart card d. activation of ATM
e. b and d above
41. Which of the following determines the speed of the computer system:
a. physical size of the computer unit b. physical size of the hard disk
c. capacity of the microprocessor d. speed of the monitor
e. all the above together.
42. What is the name of the windows software that is used for managing data in a
spreadsheet format:
a. MS Word b. MS Power Point c. MS Access
d. MS Excel e. b and d
43. What is the name of the windows software that is used for managing text
through the word processing:
a. MS Word b. MS Power Point c. MS Acess
d. MS Excel e. b and d
44. An enterprise-wise framework for managing informational data with the
organization is called:
a. database management system b. data warehousing
c. data mining d. data base.
45. CBS facilitates introduction of ATMs, eBanking, tele-banking, mobile banking

etc. that are collectively called:
a. multi-faced services b. multi-city services
c. multiple delivery channels d. all the above
46. Which of the following is the system component of MICR cheque processing:
a. encoder b. cheque reader-cum-sorter
c. both a and b d. none of the above
47. Structured Financial Messaging System (SFMS) is an _____________ system on

the line of SWIFT.
a. data messaging b. electronic data interchange
c. electronic exchange of data d. any of the above
48. Under SFMS, the confidentiality of the messages is protected by way of:
a. coding b. decoding
c. decryption d. encryption
49. The maximum amount that a card holder is allowed to make payment by way
of credit card is called:
a. floor limit b. fixed limit
c. card limit d. ceiling limit
50. The term ‘hot listing’ of the credit card refers to:
a. enhancing the credit limit
b. reducing the credit limit
c. list of cardholders who default in payment of dues to the issuer
d. any of the above
51. A white label ATM is an ATM:

a. which is installed by banks and non-bank entities jointly
b. which is installed by banks jointly
c. which is installed by non-bank entities
d. which is stopped for operations due to some fraud
52. For electronic signatures, the cryptography is usually based on the use of
___________ to generate two different but mathematically related keys:
a. geometric function b. algorithmic function
c. algebraic function d. mathematical function
53. The presenting banks are required to preserve the physical cheques in their
custody securely, for a period of ___________ years as required under CTS.
a. 5 years b. 8 years
c. 10 years d. for all times to come
54. A system that is used to restrict the outside intrusion to access a computer
system is called:
a. encryption b. firewall
c. lures or honey pots d. any oftheabove
55. Encoding the contents of a message in such a way that hides the contents from
outsider is called:
a. encryption b. decryption
c. pass phrase d. cryptography
56. Which of the following keys is kept secret by the owner of the key as it is used
to sign:
a. public key b. private key
c. security key d. general key
57. Under a local area network setup, two copies of backup are generated. One to
be kept ____ and other ______.
a. onsite, off-site b. onsite, on other network
c. off-site, on other network d. all the above
58. Banking records in an electronic form shall be treated valid records under the
provisions of ____ Act:
a. NI Act b. B R Act
c. Information Technology Act 2000 d. IT Act 1961
59. Within the meaning of computer crime, a set of instructions that is designed to
modify, destroy, record, transmit data or program residing within a computer is
called:
a. computer virus b. computer contaminant
c. computer hacking d. any of the above
60. The special breed of ATMs capable of thinking for themselves, care called:
a. EFTPOS b. EFTATM
c. HWAK d. Charge ATM
61. After truncation, the paper cheque is kept in the custody of:
a. bank or clearing house that truncated the cheque
b. paying bank
c. collecting bank
d. clearing house.
62. Which of the following type of risk is not managed by RTGS?

a. operational risk b. settlement risk
c. systemic risk d. none of theabove
63. What is the time for banking transactions (final cut-off) under RTGS for a
normal day?
a. 9 am to 4 pm b. 8 am to 8 pm
c. 7 am to 7.45 pm d. 10 am to 6 pm
64. The SWIFT security control to ensure data confidentiality is called:

a. encryption b. checksum
c. decryption d. key authentication
65. The term ISP means which of the following:

a. internal service provider b. internet service process
c. internet service provider d. interesting service process
e. international society of people
1. b 34. b
2. c 35. c
3. b 36. c
4. c 37. b
5. b 38. b
6. d 39. b
7. a 40. a
8. c 41. c
9. c 42. d
10. d 43. a
11. b 44. b
12. b 45. c
13. c 46. c
14. a 47. c
15. c 48. d
16. c 49. c
17. a 50. c
18. b 51. c
19. c 52. b
20. c 53. c
21. d 54. b
22. c 55. a
23. c 56. b
24. d 57. a
25. c 58. c
26. c 59. a
27. c 60. c
28. c 61. a
29. b 62. a
30. b 63. c
31. a 64. a
32. c 65. c
33. d
GENERAL ADVANCES
1. As per our Credit Policy, which of the following are Thrust areas?
i) Agriculture ii) MSME
iii) Commercial Real Estate iv) Export Segment
A) i, ii & iii B) i, ii & iv C) ii, iii & iv D) All the above
2. As per our Credit Policy, what the Prudential Exposure Limit for Proprietorship
concerns?
A) Rs. 10 crores B) Rs. 25 crores C) Rs. 75 crores D) Rs. 50 crores
3. A
s per RBI guidelines what the maximum loan that a bank can give to
individuals against demat shares?
A) Rs. 10 lakhs B) Rs. 20 lakhs C) Rs. 25 lakhs D) No limit
4. For loans to individuals against the security of shares, what is the margin to be
maintained?
A) 10% B) 20% C) 25% D) 50%
5. U
nder ESOP scheme, what is the maximum loan that a bank can give to an
individual?
A) Rs. 20 lakhs
B) Rs. 10 lakhs
C) Loans cannot be given
D) 90% of the purchase price with a maximum of Rs. 20 lakhs
6. As per Section 19(2) of BR Act, 1949, No Banking Company shall hold shares as
security in any company either as mortgagee or as absolute owner of an amount
exceeding of paid up capital of the company or of its own paid up capital
and reserves, whichever is less.
A) 10%; 10% B) 25%; 25% C) 30%; 30% D) 40%; 40%
7. As per our Credit Policy, what is the bench mark Current Ratio under MPBF
method?
A) 1.25 : 1 B) 1.33 : 1 C) 1.50: 1 D) 1.75 : 1
8. As per policy guidelines, what is the maximum duration of KCCS limits?

A) 12 months B) 2 Crop seasons C) 3 years D) 5 years
9. Assessment of Working Capital for SME borrowers upto Limit can be done
under Turnover Method;
10. Assessment of Working Capital for Non-SME borrowers upto Limit can be
done under Turnover Method;
11. As per RBI guidelines Loan System for Delivery of Bank Credit is applicable
for working capital limits of ?
A) Rs. 1 crore and above B) Above Rs. 10 crores
C) Rs. 150 crores and above D) None of the above
12. Who can reject an Educational Loan proposal?

A) Sanctioning Authority
B) RO
C) CO
D) Respective Sanctioning Authority subject concurrence of the next higher
authority
13. In respect of Agricultural Term Loan above in respect of new clients and
above in respect of existing clients, the project appraisal is to be done
by ?
A) Rs. 100 lakhs; Rs. 200 lakhs; Agricultural Consultancy Services HO
B) Rs. 150 lakhs; Rs. 300 lakhs; Agricultural Consultancy Services HO
C) Rs. 100 lakhs; Rs. 200 lakhs; Agricultural Innovation Centre HO
D) Rs. 150 lakhs; Rs. 300 lakhs; Agricultural Innovation Centre HO
14. What is the validity period of Sanction of a Working Capital Limit?

A) 12 months B) 6 months
C) 3 months D) Depends on Credit Risk Rating
15. What is a Medium Term Loan?

A) A Term Loan repayable within 1 year
B) A Term Loan repayable above 1 year up to 3 years
C) A Term Loan repayable above 3 years up to 5 years
D) A Term Loan repayable above 5 years up to 10 years
16. Credit Audit System is applicable to;

A) Fund Based Limits Rs. 1 crore and above
B) Fund Based and Non-Fund Based limits Rs. 5 crore and above
C) Fund Based limits Rs. 5 crore and above
D) Fund Based and Non-Fund Based limits Rs. 1 crore and above
17. Credit Monitoring Officers have to monitor all borrowal accounts;
A) Rs. 1 crore and above (Fund Based); Once in a month
B) Rs. Rs.50 lacs and above (Fund Based & Non-Fund Based); Once in a month
C) Rs. 1 crore and above (Fund Based & Non-Fund Based); Once in a quarter
D) Rs.50 lacs and above (Fund Based & Non-Fund Based); Once in two months
18. R
eview and Extension of tenability of limits may be permitted for a maximum
period of months and the extension on a single occasion shall not exceed
months;
A) 12; 6 B) 6; 1 C) 6; 3 D) 3; 1
19. As per Ind - Accounting Standards what is the percentage of depreciation
allowed on Building?
A) 10% B) 5 % C) 15% D) No depreciation allowed
20. In respect of taken over accounts, during the first year, enhancement can be
permitted by;
A) Sanctioning Authority up to their Delegated Powers.
B) Next Higher Authority
C) Circle Head
D) Enhancement cannot be considered
21. What are the charges payable for drawing CMR [ CIBIL MSME RANK]
A) Rs. 500 + GST B) Rs. 50 per report
C) Free of charge D) Rs. 900 + GST
22. RAM is a software package developed by?

A) ICRA B) CRISIL C) CARE D) SMERA
23. In Credit Risk Rating, how many grades are there in Revised Manual Value Model?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10
24. In case of CMR Rank 8 to 10, fresh exposure to the new account can be
sanctioned by
A) Branch head B) RO Head CAC
C) Circle Head CAC D) No Power
25. As per BASEL norms the Bank’s Minimum Total Capital plus Capital Conservation
Buffer as on 31-03-2019 should be?
A) 11.5% B) 10.875% C) 9% D) None of the above
26. As per BASEL III norms the CET 1 capital should be?
A) Maximum 7% B) Minimum 7% C) Minimum 5.5% D) Minimum 9%
27. Out of minimum CRAR of 9%?
A) CET 1 maximum 5.5%; Additional Tier 1 Max 1.5%; Tier 2 Max 2.00%
B) CET 1 minimum 5.5%; Additional Tier 1 Max 1.5%; Tier 2 Max 2.00%
C) CET 1 minimum 5.5%; Additional Tier 1 Max 1.5%; Tier 2 Min. 2.00%
D) CET 1 minimum 5.5%; Additional Tier 1 Min. 1.5%; Tier 2 Min. 2.00%
28. U
nder BASEL norms, for calculation of CRAR, Risk Weighted Assets comprises of
the following components;
i) Credit Risk ii) Market Risk iii) Operational Risk
A) i only B) i and ii only C) i and iii only D) i, ii & iii
29. Revaluation Reserve is a component of?

A) Tier 2 Capital B) Tier 1 Capital
C) CET 1 Capital D) CET 1 Capital at a discount of 55%
30. What is the Risk Weight for Loans guaranteed by State Government?
A) 0% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%
31. What is the Risk Weight for Housing Loans more than 75 lakhs (where LTV is
75%)?
A) 50% B) 75% C) 100% D) 20%
32. What is risk weight of unsecured staff loans?

A) 0% B) 10% C) 20% D) 75%
33. Obtention of Audited Financial Statements is mandatory for issue of Solvency

Certificates;
A) Above Rs. 1 lakh B) Above Rs. 10 lakhs
C) Above Rs. 5 lakhs D) Above Rs. 25 lakhs
34. Temporary Over Limit can be permitted for a maximum of _?

A) 90 days B) 1 month C) 7 days in a month D) 1 year
35. Bank Guarantees of shall be signed by _?

A) Rs. 1.00 lakh and above; 2 authorized signatories
B) Rs. 50,000 and above; 2 authorized signatories
C) Rs. 5.00 lakhs and above; Branch-in-charge
D) Rs. 10000 and above; 2 authorized signatories
36. MCLR is announced and in maturities?

A) Monthly; 5 maturities B) Quarterly; 4 maturities
C) Half yearly; 5 maturities D) Yearly; 6 maturities.
37. What is Quick Mortality?
i) All Loans Accounts of the borrower with aggregate liability of Rs. 15 lakhs and
above
ii) Becoming NPA within 12 moonths from the date of first disbursement
iii) For parties who are sanctioned a limit of Rs. 5 lakhs
iv) Limits sanctioned to the concerned borrower for the first time
A) i, ii & iii B) ii, iii & iv C) i, ii & iv D) i, iii & iv
38) Pre-release audit is applicable to?

A) Aggregate Credit Limits of Rs. 1 crore and above
B) Aggregate Credit Limits of Rs. 5 crore and above
C) Aggregate Credit Limits of Rs. 5 crore and above to new borrowers
D) Aggregate Credit Limits of Rs. 5 crore and above to new and existing borrowers
39. What is the remuneration payable to Penal Advocate for Legal Audit?
A) Maximum Rs. 5000
B) As agreed between the borrower and the Penal Advocate
C) Maximum Rs. 5000 + Out of pocket expenses
D) It is done by our internal auditors. Hence no compensation is payable
40. Which accounts are to be reported to Central Registry of Information for Large
Credits?
A) Borrower exposure information Rs. 1 crore and above
B) Borrower exposure information Rs. 5 crore and above
C) Borrower exposure information Rs. 50 crore and above
D) Borrower exposure information Rs. 10 crore and above
i) Land & Building ii) Furniture iii) Stocks iv) Goodwill
i) Share Capital ii) Term Loan from Banks
iii) Reserves & Surpluses iv) Undistributed profit
43. A balance sheet is a statement of the position of business of an organization
_______.

I. Payable within 6 months II. Payable within Operating Cycle
III. Payable within 9 months IV. Payable within 12 months
a. i, ii b. ii, iii c . ii, iv d. iv
1. Realisable within 12 months 2. Realisable within 6 months
3. Realisable within 9 months 4. Realisable within operating cycle
46.. Net Working Capital means



& Fictitious Assets

50. P
rofits made in the normal course of business and retained in the business is
called
51. W
hat are the components of Quick Assets in a Quick Ratio.

53. Net Working Capital of a Company is negative. The Company‟ s current ratio is
gone it is

56. S ME unit has been sanctioned working capital limit of Rs 60 lakhs under turn
a. Rs. 1.80 crores b. Rs. 2.00 crores c. Rs. 3.00 crores d. Rs. 2.40 crores


a. Improve
b. Will not improve
a. Rs. 180000 b. Rs. 90000 c. Rs. 45000 d. Rs. 270000
62. C
Ratio is
a. 4:1 b. 1.25:1 c. 1.33:1 d. 2:1

66. For a Construction Contractor in Real Estate Sector, a plot of land is which type
side –Rs.1000/- What is CR?
a. CR – 1.25 b. CR – 1.5 c. CR – 2.0 d. CR – 1.33
68. Calculate DSCR: NPAT – 100/- depreciation – 50 ; Interest on term loan– 50/- ;
installment on TL – 75;
a. 1.75 b. 1.80 c. 1.60 d. 1.70
69. The current ratio of the firm is 1.33. Net Working Capital is Rs 8 lacs.
What is the value of current asset?
a. Rs. 10.64 lacs b. Rs. 16 lacs c. Rs. 24 lacs d. Rs. 32 lacs
a. 1.33:1 b. 1.25:1 c. 4:1 d. 2:1
71. C
72. ESOP stands for:

a. Efficient servicing of promises b. Employees’ service option projects
c. Employees stock option plan d. Effective system of projects
73. The demat shares of a public sector undertaking can be converted in to

physical shares. This process is called:
a. Re-issue of shares b. Dematerialization of shares
c. Re-materialization of shares d. Demutualization of shares
e. Forfeiture of share
74. Long Term Loan. Explanation:

a. Repayable above 5 years b. Repayable above 7 years
c. Repayable above 1 year d. Repayable above 3 years
75. Adherence to National Building code 2005 in respect of loans for construction of
building, the minimum loan is above
a. Rs. 5 crores b. Rs. 10 crores c. Rs. 20 crores d. Rs. 25 crores
76. Upto what period reimbursement of Term Loan is permitted

a. Not permitted
b. Reimbursement shall be claimed within 3 months from the date of purchase
c. Reimbursement shall be claimed within 1 months from the date of purchase
d. Reimbursement shall be claimed within 6 months from the date of purchase
77. Review and Extension of tenability may be permitted for a maximum period of?
a. 4 months
b. 4 months and shall not exceed 3 months on a single occasion
c. Maximum period of 6 months and shall not exceed 3 months on a single occasion
d. Cannot be permitted
78. MSOD statement shall be obtained from borrowers enjoying working

capital limits of Rs.
a. MSME, Rs. 50 lacs and above b. Industrial, Rs. 10 lacs and above
c. Industrial, above Rs. 10 lacs d. MSE, above Rs. 20 lacs
79. MTR is to be prepared by;
a. Branch-in-charge
b. Officer in-charge of Advances Department
c. Credit Manager
d. CMO
80. How many codes are there under Asset Sub Classification?
1. 8 b. 9 c. 6 d. 7
81. P
IPR shall be obtained in all cases of term loans where the limit is ______and
above, at_______intervals.
a. Rs. 100 lacs, half yearly b. Rs. 50 lacs, half yearly
c. Rs. 50 lacs, monthly d. Rs. 50 lacs, quarterly
82. MTR is applicable in respect of limits

a. Fund Based limits AGM power and above
b. FB + NFB limits Rs. 1 crore and above
c. FB + NFB limits AGM power and above
d. FB limits Rs. 1 crore and above
83. P
re-Release audit is to be conducted in respect of Credit Limits ; audit shall
be conducted within
a. Rs. 1 crore and above; 30 days
b. Rs. 5 crores and above; 48 hours
c. Rs. 10 crores and above; 3 months
d. Rs. 5 crores and above; 6 months
84. In respect of limits permitted to exporters for a period of 2 years, how many
MTR has to be submitted ?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Nil.
85. Credit Audit is applicable in respect of the following accounts;

a. Fund Based fresh sanctions Rs. 1 crore and above
b. Fund Based and Non-Fund Based fresh sanctions Rs. 1 crore and above
c. FB + NFB fresh sanctions, renewals with enhancement & additional exposures
with aggregate liability Rs. 1 crore and above
d. FB + NFB fresh sanctions Rs. 5 crores and above
86. L
egal Audit is to be conducted in respect of aggregate credit exposures of
and the audit is to be conducted by
a. Rs. 5 crore and above; Inspectors
b. Rs. 5 crore and above; Penal Advocate
c. Rs. 5 crore and above; Penal Advocate other than the one who had given LSR
d. Rs. 1 crore and above; Penal Advocate other than the one who had given LSR
87. In how many sub-categories SMA are classified?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 2 d. 9
88. P
roject Appraisal is required in case new borrowers with Moderate risk category
if the amount exceeds Rs.
a. 2 cr b. 3 cr c.5 cr d. 1cr
89. The exposure ceiling to real estate shall be________% of the Gross Credit with
a sub exposure ceiling of_______% of gross credit for financing Commercial Real
estate sector.
90. In order to promote payment discipline and encourage acceptance of bills, the
Bank shall stipulate that borrowers (corporates and other constituent) having
sales turnover of over Rs._ their overdue payables in their periodical returns/
statements submitted to the Bank.
a. Rs.25 cr b. Rs.50 cr c.Rs.75 cr d. Rs.100 cr
91. Minimum margin requirement for NFB limits shall be 25% as TDR, reduction in
margin can be permitted by Circle head CAC as
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. No Power
92. Disbursement of vehicles financed under Retail Lending / Agriculture /MSME by

way of NEFT/RTGS also to the dealers can be permitted on selective basis by
a. RO Head CAC b. Circle Head CAC
c. GM HO CAC d. No Power
93. In case of RO/CO/SME Sulabh sanction, if the enhancement/ increase is more
than 100% (during the renewal or mid-term enhancement) of previous limit,
the proposal for sanction shall be placed to
a) Placed to the authority 2 levels above
b) Permitted by respective sanctioning authority
c) Next higher authority
d) Circle Head CAC only
94. In case of accounts falling under the sanctioning powers of Head of Circle
CAC, review and extension of tenability of limit in respect of High Risk rated
accounts permitted by
a) GM-HO-CAC b) DGM/GM-CO-CAC [Circle Head]
c) Board CAC d) No Power in case of High Risk a/c
95. Review and extension of tenability in respect of High Risk rated accounts can
be permitted subject to
a) All credit monitoring reports are complied with/not pending. No outstanding
overdues in the account.
b) Review /Extension should be done in the specified format and a copy to be
forwarded to the CAM Wing, Head Office.
c) Review & extension of tenability of limits can be permitted only once and
for a period not exceeding 2 months
d) all of the above
96. Sanction of loans/advances to new clients rated ‘High Risk’ can be permitted
by
a) Circle Head CAC & above authority
b) GM-HO-CAC & above authority
c) Board CAC & above authority
d) No authority is empowered to sanction loans/advances to new clients rated
‘High Risk’
schemes) in case of ‘low risk’ account is
a) Respective sanctioning authority
b) Only RO Head CAC and above authorities upto their delegated powers
c) Only Circle Head CAC and above authorities upto their delegated powers
d) Only DGM-CO-CAC and above authorities upto their delegated powers
schemes) in case of ‘High risk’ account is
a) Circle Head CAC & above authority
b) GM-HO-CAC & above authority
c) Board CAC & above authority
d) No Power for High Risk A/c
99. Takeover of accounts from NBFCs/HFCs (rated externally A and above)in

respect of Retail Loans, select the true statement
a) Permitted to Salary class only
b) Permitted by RO Head CAC & above authority
c) Permitted by Circle Head CAC & above authority
d) Not eligible for takeover as per credit policy
100. Bank Guarantees with the following clauses can be permitted by

i. Operative clause ii. Jurisdiction Clause iii. Interest clause
a) GM-HO-CAC & above authority upto their delegated power
b) AGM-RO-CAC & above authority upto their delegated power
c) CIRCLE HEAD CAC & above authority upto their delegated power
d) Respective sanctioning authority
101. Consumer credit, including personal loans excluding credit card receivables
will attract a higher risk weight of
a) 150% b) 125% c) 100% d) 75%
102. The following statement is true with respect to margin on NFB limits
a) 25% margin by way of TDR for Secured & Clean NFB limits
b) 10% margin by way of TDR for Secured NFB limits only
c) 20% margin by way of TDR for Clean NFB limits only
d) 15% margin by way of TDR for Secured & Clean NFB limits
103. Select the correct combination of Joint Appraisal Group (JAG) at RO

i) Overseeing Executive of AFPS Section
ii)AFPS Section In-charge
iii) AEO of the respective branch
iv) RO head
a) i & ii b) i , ii & iii c) i , ii & iv d) i , ii , iii & iv
104. What is the full form of UDIN

a) Unique Draft Identification Number
b) Unique Document Investigation Number
c) Unique Document Identification Number
d) Universal Document Identification Number
105. Documents certified by CAs mandatorily contain UDIN and it is to verified by branches
with the ones uploaded in the portal at
a) https://mca.gov.in b) https://udin.icai.org
c) https://caaudit.gov.in d) https://icai.org.in
106. The revised structure of Credit Sanction committees at Circles Offices headed
by GM are
a) DGM-CO-CAC & AGM-CO-CAC b) GM-CO-CAC & AGM-CO-CAC
c) DM-CO-CAC & GM-CO-CAC d) DGM-CO-CAC & GM-CO-CAC
107. The authorities empowered to permit variations under Corporate and MSME
proposals, including Commercial Real Estate, select the correct one
a) GM-HO-CAC may permit maximum of 2 variations in a proposal, including
major variations
b) ED-CAC & CAC of the Board may permit maximum of 4 variations in a
proposal, out of which Major variations shall not exceed 3.
c) GM-HO-CAC may permit maximum of 4 variations in a proposal, excluding
major variations
d) GM-HO-CAC may permit maximum of 3 variations in a proposal, including
major variations
108. Select the correct one for the latest review mechanism of the loan account
a) Above Rs.1.00 lakh (except retail lending )
b) Above Rs 5.00 lakh in case of Retail Lending , KCCS and Loans to SHG &
JLGs
c) Above Rs.1.00 lakh including retail lending , KCCS and Loans to SHGs
d) Above Rs 5.00 lakh in case of Retail Lending & above Rs1.00 lakh for others
109. Select the wrong one in respect of LEI [Legal Entity Identifier]
a) LEI is a unique 20 digit code assigned to a legal entity
b) LEI is a combination of alphanumeric code
c) Valid for one year from the date of obtention
d) To be updated in CBS through CIM09
110. Total exposure Between Rs.50 crore and Rs.100 crore , time schedule was
prescribed for obtention and submission of LEI,
a) Dec 15, 2019 b) March 31, 2020
c) Sept 30, 2019 d) June 30, 2020
111. L
oan System for Delivery of Bank credit : Minimum level of loan component
is fixed for borrowers having Fund Based Working Capital limits of
a) Rs 150 crore & above from Banking system
b) Rs 100 crore & above from Banking system
c) Rs 50 crore & above from Banking system
d) Rs 10 crore & above from Banking system
112. L
oan System for Delivery of Bank credit : Minimum level of Loan
Component (% of Fund Based Working Capital limits from banking system) with
effect from 1 July 2019 is
a) 40 % b) 60% c) 50% d) 25%
113. L
oan System for Delivery of Bank credit : Effective from April 1, 2019, the
undrawn portion of cash credit/overdraft limits sanctioned to the aforesaid large
borrowers, shall attract a credit conversion factor of
a) 20 percent b) 10 percent c) 25 percent d) 05 percent
114. ELIGIBILITY, QUALIFICATION AND EXPERIENCE FOR REGISTRATION AS VALUER AS

PER THE COMPANIES ACT, 2013 (18 OF 2013), select the correct one
a) Plant & Machinery–Graduate in selected stream with 5 year’s experience
b) Plant & Machinery–Post graduate in selected stream with 3 year’s
experience
c) Land and Building-Graduate in selected stream with 5 year’s experience
d) All of the above
115. Valuation in case of only Landed Property (Other than Agricultural Properties),
If the land is acquired/purchased beyond preceding one year, value of the land
should be taken
a) 85% of the Fair Market Value assessed by the Bank’s Approved Valuer
b) 90% of the Fair Market Value assessed by the Bank’s Approved Valuer
c) 95% of the Fair Market Value assessed by the Bank’s Approved Valuer
d) Value of the open plot is not required as per credit policy
116. A
firm has been sanctioned a cash credit limit of Rs.30 lac. It submits stock
statement for stock value of Rs.20 lac. The margin on the security is 25%.
What is the amount of drawing power in the account?
a) Rs 20.00 lacs b) Rs 15.00 lacs
c) Rs 30.00 lacs d) Rs 22.50 lacs
117. Processing charges on working capital limits for amount above Rs 2.00 lacs
under non priority sector is
a) Rs 350/- per lakh
b) Rs.350 per lakh with a minimum of Rs.1000/-
c) Rs 350 per lakh with a maximum cap of Rs 35 lacs in a year
d) Rs 250/- per lakh
118. Prudential exposure ceiling for Single and Group borrowers for the Bank based
on the Tier I Capital Funds as at 31.03.2019. Tier I Capital Fund as at 31.03.2019 of
our bank is
a) Rs 32000 Crore b) Rs 51500 Crore
c) Rs 31851 Crore d) Rs 35540 Crore
119. Single Borrower Exposure (Both Credit & Investment) for 2019-20, linked to
Tier Capital. NBFCs predominantly engaged in lending against Gold, Maximum
Exposure based on External Rating ‘AAA’for the year 2019-20 is
a) 1800 Crore b) 3500 Crore
c) 2000 Crore d) 3100 Crore
120. Delegation of powers for permitting Holding on Operations in case of limit

sanctioned by Circle Head CAC shall be
a) Circle Head CAC b) GM-HO-CAC
c) MC of the Board d) CAC of the Board
KEYS
1 B 11 C 21 D 31 A 41 D 51 B 61 B 71 C 81 D 91 D 101 C 111 A
2 D 12 D 22 B 32 D 42 B 52 D 62 A 72 C 82 B 92 C 102 A 112 B
3 B 13 D 23 B 33 C 43 C 53 D 63 C 73 C 83 B 93 C 103 B 113 A
4 D 14 C 24 D 34 C 44 C 54 D 64 B 74 D 84 C 94 B 104 C 114 D
5 D 15 B 25 B 35 B 45 B 55 C 65 C 75 D 85 C 95 D 105 B 115 A
6 C 16 D 26 C 36 A 46 D 56 C 66 D 76 D 86 C 96 C 106 D 116 B
7 B 17 D 27 B 37 C 47 D 57 C 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B 107 A 117 B
8 D 18 C 28 D 38 D 48 C 58 D 68 C 78 B 88 C 98 D 108 B 118 C
9 C 19 B 29 D 39 C 49 C 59 C 69 D 79 D 89 A 99 C 109 D 119 A
10 B 20 B 30 D 40 B 50 D 60 B 70 A 80 B 90 B 100 A 110 A 120 B
Questions Based on Circulars 51 /2018 to 100/2018
1. __________________ is a mechanism to ensure that goods being transported comply

with GST law and is an effective tool to track movements of good and check evasion
of GST.
Ans : E-Way bill
2. E-WAY Bill is MANDATORY wef 1st February 2018, for INTERSTATE transport of goods in
all states & INTRASTATE transfer of goods for certain states, where value of goods is
more than Rs
Ans : Rs. 50,000
3. For a distance of less than 100 KMs, the E-way bill will be valid for _____ days
from the relevant date.
Ans : 1 day
4. The beneficiary banks should credit the account of the beneficiary within
__________ of the receipt of the RTGS message at the Member Interface.
Ans :30 minutes
5. In case, it is not possible to credit the funds of RTGS to the beneficairy’s
account for any reason, funds are to be returned to the originating member
within __________ of the receipt of the payment at the MI or before the end of
the RTGS business day, whichever is earlier
Ans : 1 hour
6. Compensation at __________________p.a., for each day of delay, is to be paid

to the beneficiary customers’ account or to the originating bank, respectively, in
case of delays in credit or return of RTGS amount.
Ans: - Current Repo Rate + 2 %
7. A copy of any of the land record is to be necessarily obtained namely, RTC / Khatha
Extract / Khatha pass book etc to ensure the Gold Loan borrower is an agriculturist
for loans exceeding Rs.________
Ans : Rs.100000/-
8. _
____________________ provides the access of digital contents to the employees
of Canara Bank from different locations.
Ans: Canara Bank online digital library
9. To avail the Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on
Educational Loans for Overseas Studies for Other Backward Classes(OBCs) &
Economically Backward Classes(EBCs)- ACSISOBCEBC , For OBC and for EBC
candidates, total income from all sources of the employed candidate or his/her
parents/guardians in case of unemployed candidate shall not exceed Rs.______
per annum resp
Ans: Rs. 8 lakhs and Rs. 2.50 Lakh
10. SMS alerts will be sent to the registered mobile of the customer for successful
and failed transactions. True or False.
Ans: True
11. Details of ____________ of SHGs to be collected at the time of opening of SB

account for SHGs and also while extending credit facilities.
Ans: Individual Member
12. Interest rate for bulk deposits of Rs. 10 crore & above is to be obtained from
Integrated Treasury Wing, Mumbai
13. _____________________are Bulk deposits where PREMATURE WITHDRAWAL IS

NOT PERMITTED.
Ans: Non callable term deposits
14. Bank is not accepting Bulk term deposits under Non callable segment for
maturities of 5 years and above
15. For Senior Citizens additional 0.50% will be paid for domestic term deposits
(including RD) uniformly across all maturities except for term deposits under
Ans: NRO and Capital Gains Deposit
16. Under Canara Tax Saver Scheme, the additional interest rate offered to
Exemployee Senior Citizens over and above the rate offered for General Public
is...........
Ans: 1% only
17. Agri Clinic & Agri Business Centre scheme is eligible for __________________
as it is a service activity based upon business model, provided the loan limit is
within Rs 10 lakhs per centre.
Ans : MUDRA loan under PMMY
18. The ceiling of project cost under AC & ABC for group projects would be
__________ per trained graduates, subject to an overall ceiling of ______(for a
group of five individuals or above).
Ans: Rs.20.00 lakh & Rs.100.00 lakh
19. Margin money for loans under AC & ABC’s for Loans upto Rs. 5 lakhs _____ & for
Loans beyond Rs. 5 lakhs _____:
Ans: Nil and 15% to 25% of the Project Cost
20. ______________ is a facility to sign a document electronically using Aadhaar

credentials introduced for updation of nomination.
Ans : e-sign
21. Return of Accounting Entry Failed (AFD) RTGS Transactions to done by
Remittance Receiving Branch:
Ans : No manual intervention as the same will be returned automatically by the
system .
22. For verifying the details of Auto Returned transactions, Auto Return of Inward
RTGS (AFD) Transactions Report is made available to the branches:
Ans: In the RTGS-STP package under Report Option with name “Inward Auto
Return Reports”
23. While processing the messages the beneficiary branch name will be appearing
in the message for users :
Ans : All users i.e. initiator, authorizer and releaser
24. Merchants using BHIM Aadhar POS for transaction are entitled for an incentive
of 0.25% of the transaction value with a minimum incentive amount of 50 paise
per transaction to a maximum incentive of Rs. 5 per transaction subject to an
upper limit of Rs. 2000 per Merchant per month.
25. Now Internet Banking Admin module can be accessed through : FCR credentials
26. Subsidy is available for Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (DEDS)

Ans : From NABARD is available on ‘First come First serve’ basis
27. Fraud reports shall be submitted in all cases of actual suspected fraud
immediately on detection in the prescribed format :
Ans : i) Within 24 hours
ii) To Review & Reporting (R & R) Section, Recovery Legal and Fraud
Prevention Wing, Head Office, Bangalore, who shall report the frauds to RBI.
28. Branches shall also endorse copies of fraud reports to

Ans: Legal Section of the concerned Circle Office who will in turn request ZI to
conduct investigation.
32. ZI to submit the report at the earliest but not later than
Ans: 14 days considering the complexity of the case.
33. If under any circumstances, the investigation is not completed within 14 days,
prior permission shall be obtained from
Ans: The GM of Inspection Wing for extending the period.
34. Non-compliance of Time-frame fixed for reporting fraud cases to RBI would
attract penal action prescribed under :
Ans: Section 47(A) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
35. Amount involved in fraud of above Rs10,000/- but below Rs.1 lakh where staff
of the bank is involved should be lodged with :
Ans: Local police station by Branch
36. Insurance claims in respect of Debit / Credit Card (Unauthorised Transactions

reported by the cardholders)to lodged with Insurance Co in prescribed format :
Ans: within 7 days from the date of incident failing which the claim will be
rejected.
37. Customer to advised to lodge First Information Report (FIR) / complaint to

Police Station :
Ans : immediately within 24 hours of incident.
38. In respect of Personal Accidental Death Claims (Debit Card Platinum and all
types of Credit Cards Claim to be submitted intimated to
Ans : M/s ICICI Lombard General Insurance Company Limited within 30 days of
incident
39. Insurance Coverage for Debit Card Visa Classic/Master Standard/Rupay :

Ans: Rs1 Lakh Platinum – Visa/ Master/Rupay: Rs 5 lakh
40. Insurance Coverage for Credit Card

Ans: Visa Classic/Master Standard: Rs.1 lakh Gold/World Credit Card (Visa /
Master): Rs.5 lakh
41. Sanctioning Powers of BB/Moderate risk rated accounts for Short Term Loan
Scheme for Traders under MSE, against the Negotiable Warehouse Receipts of
Agricultural Commodity vests with :
Ans : Circle Head – CAC.
42. Minimum & Maximum Quantum of loan under Short Term Loans for under
Micro & Small Enterprises (MSE), against the Negotiable Warehouse Receipt
Agricultural commodity is:
Ans : Minimum: Above Rs.10 Lakhs Per Party Maximum: Rs.5.00 Crores per party
43. The assessed value shall be 75% of least of the following:

Ans : i) Minimum Support price (MSP) - declared by State / Central Government
ii) Current Market Price – Available in Agricultural Produce Committee/Local
Mandis/Local News papers.
iii) Value as per Negotiable Warehouse Receipt.
44. Security Norms for Short Term Loan Scheme for under Micro & Small Enterprises
(MSE), against the Negotiable Warehouse Receipt Agricultural commodity is:
Ans: 1. No Collaterals up to Rs. 25.00 Lakhs.
2. Beyond Rs.25.00 Lakhs up to Rs. 50.00 Lakhs: Third Party Guarantee
apart from Personal Guarantee of Partners/ Directors in the case of
Partnership firms/ Companies.
3. Above Rs. 50.00 Lakhs: Mortgage of immovable properties by way of land
and building.
45. As per Staff Accountability Policy of our Bank any Borrowal account Upto Rs.
10.00 lac upon slipping to NPA, base for identifying the staff lapses will be
Ans : NF-606/NF-607
46. As per Staff Accountability Policy of our Bank any Borrowal account/ per party
Rs 10.00 lac & above upto Rs. 1.00 Crore upon slipping to NPA, a Preliminary
Inquiry Report in prescribed format to be submitted by :
Ans : Branch in charge, provided he is not the sanctioning authority
47. As per Staff Accountability Policy of our Bank NPA above Rs. 1.00 Crore a
Preliminary Inquiry /Report in prescribed format is to be submitted by :
Ans : Circle Office and submit a Preliminary Inquiry Report in the prescribed
format to the Circle Head/ Competent Authority for identifying the lapses,
if any.
48. As per Staff Accountability Policy of our Bank Investigation will not be
considered/conducted to examine Staff accountability in NPA accounts (other
than quick mortality accounts) with:
Ans : Aggregate sanctioned limits up to Rs. 10.00 lacs.
49. As per Staff Accountability Policy of our Bank following will fall under the ambit
of accountability:
Ans : i) Avoidance of decision taking/ delay in decision making under notion that
“no work no accountability.”
ii) Non fulfillment / non achievement of expected business parameters and
iii) also avoiding of taking bonafide business decision without justifiable
reasons
50. As per Staff Accountability Policy of our Bank No disciplinary proceeding will
ordinarily lie against any official for any lapse not detected
Ans: i) within two successive internal regular inspection of the same account or
ii) 4 (Four) years from the date of event or occurrence of the lapse,
whichever, is later.
51) As per Staff Accountability Policy of our Bank the time limit prescribed for not
taking action for staff lapse will be not applicable in case of involvement of
employee is identified in:
Ans : a. Frauds.
b. Cases where malafides are inferable.
c. Other criminal offences as per the law of the land.
52) As per Staff Accountability Policy of our Bank FIXING OF STAFF ACCOUNTABILITY
FOR RETIRING EMPLOYEES, Clearance has to be obtained from Branches/
Offices where the employee was last working :
Ans : for the preceding 4 years of his retirement.
53) As per Staff Accountability Policy of our Bank Final clearance in case Retiring
Employees should be sent ………. prior to the date of retirement of the
employee/s to Human Resources Wing, Head Office Bengaluru :
Ans : 3 Months
54) Subscriber of APY can seed their Aadhar No by submitting the Copy of Aaddhar
Card to the concerned branch for updating APY PRAN Number. Now, NSDL
has come out with the option wherein the existing subscribers can seed their
Aadhar Number for APY PRAN :
Ans : through an online functionality
55) CEGSSC stands for

Ans : Credit Enhancement Guarantee Scheme for Scheduled Castes.
56) Credit Enhancement Guarantee Scheme for Scheduled Castes is applicable to

Ans : Working Capital limits,Term Loans or Composite Term Loans
57) To be eligible for Guarantee cover under CEGSS scheme Minimum loan amount
is :
Ans : Min-Rs15.00 Lakh
58) Apart from individual other entity like Commercial agriculture, food
processing, horticulture, poultry etc. are also eligible for loan under CEGSSC
scheme provided
Ans : Shareholding of SC Entrepreneur/Promoter/Member in the entity is 51%
59) Guarantee fee under the CEGSSC scheme will be remitted to

Ans : IFCI
60) Percentage of Coverage For Loan Amount Rs 15.00 Lakh to Rs 1.00Cr under the
CEGSSC scheme is
Ans : 100%
61) Percentage of Coverage For Loan Amount Rs 1.00 Crore to Rs 2.00Cr under the
CEGSSC scheme is :
Ans : 80 %
62) Percentage of Coverage For Loan Amount Rs 2.00 Crore to Rs5.00Cr under the
CEGSSC scheme is :
Ans : 70 %
63) Percentage of Coverage For Loan Amount above Rs 5.00 Crore under the
CEGSSC scheme is :
Ans : 60 %
64) Guarantee Fee for loan amount of Rs15.00 lakh to Rs1.00 crore to SC
entrepreneur ( Other than Women entrepreneur under CEGSSC scheme is :
Ans : 0.20 % p.a.
65) Guarantee Fee for loan amount of above Rs1.00 crore to SC entrepreneur
(Other than Women entrepreneur under CEGSSC scheme is :
Ans : 0.75 % p.a.
66) Guarantee Fee for loan amount of Rs15.00 lakh to Rs1.00 crore to Women SC
entrepreneur under CEGSSC scheme is :
Ans : 0.10 % p.a.
67) Guarantee Fee for loan amount of above Rs1.00 crore to Women SC
entrepreneur under CEGSSC scheme is
Ans : 0.50 % p.a.
68) regional languages i.e. Bengali, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Tamil and
Telugu, besides Hindi and English
70) A separate link is available with specific option for lodging the grievances
regarding unauthorized Electronic Banking Transactions (EBT) in the Home page
of Bank’s website:
Ans : www.canarabank.com
71) Upon receiving the complaint, customers will get system generated
acknowledgement along in Canara Public Grievance Redressal System (CPGRS)
package with :
Ans : Complaint Registration Number (CRN )
72) Incentive Scheme for Capacity Building for Officers and Clerical employees is
introduced in our Bank in areas related to :
Ans : i) Treasury Operation
ii) Risk Management
iii) Accounting
iv) Credit Management
73) Upon successful completion of the courses under the scheme, the Officers /
Clerical employees are eligible for Cash Incentives and Fee Reimbursement as
under:
Ans : Cash Incentive
For Group-I Course: Rs.6, 000/- per course.
For Group-II Course: Rs10, 000/- per course.
For Group-III Course: Rs 15, 000/- per course.
Fee Reimbursement:
For Group-I & II Course: Maximum Rs 50000/- per course
For mandatory course under Group-III: Actual
74) On successful completion of course/s under Group-I & II as per Incentive
Scheme for Capacity Building for Officers and Clerical employees ,the
employee shall submit a ‘Letter of Undertaking’ to serve the Bank for a
minimum period ………………………… ,failing which he/she will have to refund the
amount received by him/her from the Bank towards fee/incentive
Ans : Two (2) years or till superannuation whichever is earlier
75) On successful completion of course/s under Group-III as per Incentive Scheme
for Capacity Building for Officers and Clerical employees ,the employee shall
submit a ‘Letter of Undertaking’ to serve the Bank for a minimum period
………………………… ,failing which he/she will have to refund the amount received
by him/her from the Bank towards fee/incentive
Ans : Three (3) years or till superannuation whichever is earlier
76) Escalation of Customer complaints to Internal Ombudsman (IO) system enabled

in
Ans : CPGRS Package
77) Multiple Debit cards that can be linked to a single Customer ID is now enhanced
to …….. nos. of Card.
Ans : 5
78) Multiple Debit cards linked to a single Customer ID facility extended to :

Ans : Individuals/ Partnership/ Firms/ Clubs/ Associations/Societies/ Limited
Companies etc.
79) Loans /advances granted on or after 1st April 2018, Risk Premium charged by
CGTMSE is ……….% of Standard Rate (0.75%, 0.85% or 1%) + applicable taxes .
Ans : 15
80) On boarding of Merchants for PoS transactions , the Settlement of transactions
will happen on …………… working day and the proceeds will be credited to
merchants account after deduction of MDR and GST.
Ans : T+1
81) On boarding of Merchants for PoS transactions, in respect of High value
transactions of Rs…………………and above from a single card per day per
merchant, settlement of such high value transaction will be done only on
submission of documents – copy of invoice, charge slip and card holder’s ID by
the merchant.
Ans : Rs.125000/-
82) When a card is enabled with chip and PIN, the Merchant is supposed to use the
chip portion of the card for completing a transaction. In case he is not using
chip portion and using Magnetic stripe instead, such transactions are referred
to as:
Ans : Fall back transactions
83) While the POS machine is provided by the Bank, maintenance and switching
service is provided by the vendor:
Ans : M/s Worldline India Pvt. Ltd (ATOS).
84) For any POS machine related problems, Merchant has to call the Toll Free
Number of the service provider No ……………………. and lodge the request/
complaint.
Ans : 1860 233 2332
CIRCULAR NO: 101-150
Q1 Our Bank has renewed MOU with ---valid till 20.02.2020.

a) M/S TVS Motor Company Limited
b) M/S Hero Motor Corp
c) a and b
Q2 In case of customer protection policy Limited liability of customers in

Unauthorized Electronic Banking Transaction ; Bank is not liable to pay any
compensation to the customers in which of the following cases
a) Where customer is negligent and has shared the payment credentials to
unknown persons
b) In cases where the customer does not provide the relevant documentation as
requested by the Bank, within 7 calendar days of Bank seeking the documents
c) In cases where there is a delay in reporting un-authorized transactions beyond
60 working days after receiving the communication from the Bank
d) All of the above
Q3 M
aximum Liability of a customer as per customer protection policy Limited
liability of customers in unauthorised electronic banking transaction; which of
the following does not match
a) BSBD account Rs5000
b) All other SB accounts Rs10000
c) CA/CC/OD account of MSMEs Rs25000
d) Credit card with limit upto Rs5 lakhs Rs10000
Q4 In case of customer protection policy Limited liability of customers in

Unauthorized Electronic Banking Transaction ; customer liability beyond 7
working days
a) Zero Liability
b) As per Bank’s Board approved policy
c) Rs25000
Q5 Branches shall seek prior clearance from, Treasury Wing, Mumbai before
accepting any New/ Renew of FCNR/RFC deposit of
a) USD 1 million and above
b) USD 1milion
c) USD 10 million
Q6 W
hat is the ceiling amount of loan limit to Micro & small enterprises and
Medium enterprises under services sector to be categorised under Priority
Sector
a) Rs 5 Crores & Rs 10 Crores
b) Rs 2 Crores & Rs 5 Crores
c) Both of the above
Q7 MSE Retail Trade to be covered under CGTMSE for cases from

a) From Rs10 lakhs to Rs100 lakhs
b) From Rs10 lakhs to Rs 200 lakhs
c) From Rs1 lakhs to Rs 200 lakhs
Q8 W
hat is the maximum interest chargeable by a Lending Institution for eligible
to cover under CGS
a) With the Maximum Interest of 5% above MCLR
b) With the Maximum Interest of 14% including cost of guarantee cover
c) With the Maximum Interest of 14% excluding cost of guarantee cover
d) Maximum Interest of 14%
Q9 The Lending Institution should applied for guarantee cover with CGS within
a) 3 month from the date of sanction of loan
b) Expiry of the following quarter from the date of sanction
c) Expiry of the following quarter from the date of disbursement
d) None of these
Q10 Maximum Guarantee cover for Women Entreprenuers/ Units located in North
East Region (incl. Sikkim) (other than credit facilities upto 5 lakhs to micro
enterprises
a) 85% of the amount in default subject to a maximum of Rs40 lakhs
b) 80% of the amount in default subject to a maximum of Rs40 lakhs
c) 75% of the amount in default subject to a maximum of Rs40 lakhs
d) 75% of the amount in default subject to a maximum of Rs37.50 lakhs
Q11 The lending institution may invoke the guarantee in respect of credit facility
with a maximum period of
a) 3 years from the date of NPA date or lock in period whichever is later
b) 2 years from the date of NPA date or lock in period whichever is earlier
c) 1 years from the date of NPA date or lock in period whichever is earlier
Q12 In a cash credit account, the party has not given stock statement for last 9
months. The balance in the account is within the sanctioned limit and within
DP as per the latest available stock statement. The party has paid interest
regularly. The account is otherwise conducted as per the terms of sanction.
The account classification shall be
a) Standard account b) Out of order account
c) Sub standard account d) At discretion of Bank
Q13 Which of the following statements match in connection with time period for
an NPA account
a) Remains substandard for 90days
b) Remains special mentioned account for 12 months
c) Remains in doubtful more than 3 years category for 3 years
d) Remains in doubtful first category for 1 year and 2nd category for 2 years
Q14 In a cash credit account, if the due stock statement is not submitted for___
months, the account would be treated as_____
a) 3 months, substandard b) 6 months, substandard
c) 6 months, irregular d) 3 months, irregular
Q15 X was given a demand loan of Rs2 lac against NSCs of Rs4 lac at 12% interest
rate. Bank has debited Rs25283 as interest in the account in one year ended
March2018 which the borrower has not paid:
a) Account shall be treated as NPA for non service on Interest
b) Account should be treated standard but interest not to be credited to
income
c) Interest will be taken to income whether paid or not since it is a loan
against NSC
d) Account will be in performing category and interest will be taken to
income, till the balance is within the value of security.
Q16 When value of security in a loan account is less than its balance, which of the
following is not correct:
a) If it is 10% or less at the time of sanction and account becomes NPA, it shall
be treated substandard unsecured
b) If it is less than 50% while account was fully secured initially, account shall
be treated as doubtful.
c) If it is less than 10% while account was fully secured initially, account shall
be treated as loss
d) If it is less than 90% while account was fully secured initially, the account
shall be treated as loss
Q17 Which among the following is not correct statement in the context of provision
on substandard account
a) If account is secured, provision at 15% and if unsecured, provision at25%
b) For unsecured portion, provision is 100% and for secured portion 10%
c) If no security was taken at the time of sanction of loan, provision 25%
d) If security was taken at the time of sanction of loan and is still intact,
provision of 15% to be made.
Q18 In respect of loan accounts classified as doubtful, the provision is made:

a) Within a range of 25-100% separately for the secured portion of balance
and unsecured portion of the balance.
b) If account is upto one year doubtful, provision is 20% for the entire amount
whether secured or unsecured
c) If account is doubtful more than 1 year to 3 years provision is 30% for the
entire amount whether secured or unsecured
d) If account is more than 3 years doubtful, provision is 100% including for the
balance secured by CGTMSE guarantee.
Q19 The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code establishes the following new entities to
be setup under the Code:
a) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI);
b) Insolvency Professionals (IP);
c) Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPA); &
d) Information Utilities (IU).
e) All of the above
Q20. Adjudicating Authorities under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code

a) National Company Law Tribunal
b) The Debt Recovery Tribunal
c) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
d) Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal
e) All of the above
Q21. The Corporate Insolvency Resolution (CIR) Process under the IBC 2016 can be
triggered in the event a Corporate Person commits a default of
a) 1,00,000 or more b) 10 lakhs and above
c) 1 Crore above d) 10 Crore above
Q22. capital expenditure is accounted at

a) Branch b) RO
b) CO d) HO
Q23. Regular & Additional claims under DAY NRLM scheme- Aajeevika to be submitted
a) Quarterly b) Bi- Monthly
c) Half- Yearly d) Yearly
Q24. Preservation period for the Files relating to Staff lapses where disciplinary
action is recommended
c) 20 years d) Permanent
Q25. Preservation of Counterfeit Notes received from Police Authorities

c) 7 years d) 10 years
Q26. Preservation of Inspection / Audit REPORTS with branch replies to be

preserved at CO
c) 8 years d) 10 years
Q27. Padho Pardesh Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Education Loans for

a) Overseas Studies for the students belonging to the Minority Communities
b) Inland Studies for the students belonging to the Minority Communities
c) Inland Studies for the students belonging to the SC/ST Communities
d) Overseas Studies for the students belonging to the SC/ST Communities
Q28. Bulk Deposit Means

a) Term Deposit of Rs. 2 crore above
b) Term Deposit of Rs. 5 crore above
c) Term Deposit of Rs. 10 crore above
d) Term Deposit of Rs. 15 crore above
Q29. Operational guidelines for Cash & Banker’s balance will be issued by
a) G A Wing, HO b) DBS Wing, HO
c) DIT Wing, HO d) PCFI Wing, HO
Q30. Cash & Banker’s balance Management policy will be reviewed

a) Monthly b) Quarterly
c) Half-Yearly d) Yearly
Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A D C B A D A B B B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C D D D D B A E E
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A D A D A C A A A D
QUESTIONS ON Cir. No. 151-200
Q.1 The New Pension Payment System through SAS is implemented in our Bank
w.e.f.---------------- at our CPPC and from ---------------- at all our Offices/
Branches. (Cir. 151/2018)
a) 6.3.18 and 1.4.18 b) 4.1.18 and 3.6.18
c) 6.12.17 and 1.1.18 d) 1.10.18 and 1.11.18
Q.2 The sanctioning authority can allow ----- month’s repayment holiday to match
the salary date to commence EMIs for retail loans ( 156/2018)
a) ½ Month b) 1 Month c) 2 Months d) 3 Months
Q.3 Every year our Bank is celebrating SC/ST month in which month ?
a) February b) March c) April d) May
Q.4 Non-updation of customer category in CBS for NRO deposits will result in TDS
deduction at (158/18)
a) a) 20.90% b) 32.90% c) 30.90 % d) 25.90%
Q.5 In case of branch sanction, who can permit adhoc credit facility upto his
delegated power for adhoc credit facility ? (161/2018)
a) GM/DGM CO CAC b) Branch Head c) RO Head CAC d) None
Q.6 In case of other than branch sanction, the adhoc credit facility may be
permitted by the respective Sanctioning Authority upto his delegated power
for adhoc credit facility, not below the rank of -----------(161/2018)
a) RO-DM-CAC b) CO-DM-CAC c) CO-AGM-CAC d) RO-HEAD-CAC
Q.7 Adhoc credit facility may be permitted in restructured accounts on a case to

case basis with proper justification, by the following authority (Cir. 161/2018)
a) Next higher authotity (NHA)
b) NHA not below RO-Head-CAC
c) NHA not below DGM-CO-CAC
d) NHA not below Circle Head-CO-CAC
Q.8 The threshold limits for drawing two credit information reports (CIRs) in case
of Housing Loans and Education Loans are as follows, respectively: (162/2018)
a) 5 Lacs, 10 Lacs b) 10 Lacs, 5 Lacs
b) c) 10 Lacs, 10 Lacs d) 10 Lacs, 8 Lacs
Q.9 The threshold limits for drawing two credit information reports (CIRs) for MSME
segment and Agriculture segment are respectively- (162/2018)
a) 10 Lacs, 5 Lacs b) 20 Lacs, 10 Lacs,
c) 5 Lacs, 3 Lacs d) 10 Lacs, 3 Lacs
Q.10 In case of consumer accounts, obtention of CIR is not mandatory in following
loan accounts: (162/2018)
a) Staff loans, Gold loans
b) Vsl against LI Policy, Staff loans
c) Education Loans, Staff loans
d) Staff loans, Loans against our own deposits
Q.11 Which type of loan cannot be sanctioned by the respective sanctioning

authority irrespective of the Risk Grade ? (162/2018)
a) Education Loan b) Canara Pension
c) Agri-loans upto and including Rs.5 Lacs d) Renewal of existing loans
Q.12 In case of TransUnion CIBIL, which score is reckoned in CIR ? (162/2018)

a) TransUnion Version 1 b) TransUnion Version 2
c) TransUnion Version 3 d) Personal Score
Q.13 The status of an account shown as Written-Off in the CIR may be ignored from
the viewpoint of Delegation of Powers, if if it written-off more than ------
years back. (162/2018)
a) Two years b) Three years c) Four years d) Five years
Q. 14 In Housing Loans, two CIRs are required for loans above (162/2018)
a) 5 lacs b) 10 lacs c) 15 lacs d) 20 lacs
Q.15 Wherever two CIRs are to be obtained, branches/offices shall obtain from
(162/2018)
a) CIBIL and any other CIC b) CIBIL and CRIF High Mark
c) CIBIL and Equifax d) Any two of the CICs
Q.16 The scheme which provides credit facilities to micro, small and medium
enterprises against their outstanding input tax credit (GST) claims is called
(163/2018)
a) MSME Vijeta b) MSME Atithi c) MSME Sahay d) MSME Assistance
Q.17 The WCDL under MSME Sahay scheme is provided over and above MPBF, and
whichever is lower of the following – (163/2018)
a) 20% of existing FB Working Capital limit/80% of Input Tax Credit Claims
b) 20% of existing FB Working Capital limit/75% of Input Tax Credit Claims
c) 25% of existing FB Working Capital limit/80% of Input Tax Credit Claims
d) 30% of existing FB Working Capital limit/70% of Input Tax Credit Claims
Q.18 Loan accounts where the aggregate liability is Rs.------ and above becoming
NPA within a period of 12 months from the date of first disbursement in
respect of loans/limits sanctioned to concerned borrower for the first time
shall be defined as Quick Mortality Account (QMA) (Cir 166/2018)
a) 5 lacs b)10 lacs c) 15 lacs d) 20 lacs
Q.19 The revised guidelines of QMA have come into force w.e.f (166/2018)
a) 01.01.2018 b) 01.04.2018 c) 01.06.2018 d) 01.09.2018
Q.20 Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) code for corporate borrower entities is valid for
(170/2018)
a) 1 year b) 2years c) 3 years d) 4 years
Q.21 The restructuring norms suggest for (172/2018)

a) Alteration of repayment period or repayable amount or the amount of
instalments or rate of interest;
b) Rollover of credit facilities;
c) Sanction of additional credit facility;
d) Enhancement of existing credit limits;
e) Compromise settlements where time for payment of settlement amount
exceeds three months
Which of the statements are correct -
Ans. 1) a, b 2) a, c, d 3) c, d, e 4) a, b, c, d, e
Q.22 The resolution of stressed assets for the consideration of restructure, the
benchmark DSCR prescribed (Cir. 172/2018)
a) 1.50 b) 1.35 c) 1.45 d) 1.20
Q.23 The consideration for restructuring ROCE Benchmark is (172/2018)

a) Minimum ROCE equivalent upto 1% above the Bank’s 5 year Govt.
Security yield may be considered adequate
b) 2% above Govt Security
c) 1% only
d) 1.5%
Q.24 The general management of bank branches imply (175/2018)

a) Comprehensive Notice Board on Time Norms
b) BCSBI Codes
c) Interest payment on delayed collection
d) Manner of calculation of interest on fixed deposit
Ans. 1. a, b 2. b, c 3. a, b, c 4. a, b, c, d
Q.25 A proposal above Rs.50 lacs where any relaxation has been given under the
delegation power of CM/DM is to be rated as follows (176/2018)
a) Internally
b) External Rating agency (approved by bank)
c) External Rating agency approved by bank and duly reviewed by next higher
authority
d) Due Diligence by respective sanctioning authority
Q.26 Cut-Off limit for follow-up, review and monitoring of accounts “MARKED FOR
RECOVERY” at RO Recovery Sections on transfer of files to them is as under:
(177/2018)
a) 20 Lacs b) 10 Lacs c) 25 Lacs d) 50 Lacs
Q.27 CGTMSE fees for pre-mature closure of accounts can be refunded if it is

claimed (184/2018)
a) within 2 months of payment b) within 3 months of payment
c) within 1 month d) no such thing
Q.28 All branches/Currency Chests/ Units handling cash transactions have to be

provided with (185/2018)
a) CCTV b) Ultra Violet Lamps
b) c) Note Sorting/Detection Machines d) Alarm System
Ans. 1. a 2. a and b 3. a, b and c 4. a, b, c, d
Q.29 All Education Loans sanctioned upto a limit of Rs. ----- lacs without any
collateral security are eligible for coverage under CGFSEL Scheme
(190/2018)
a) 5 lacs b) 7.5 lacs c) 7 lacs d) 10 lacs
Q.30 Skill loans sanctioned upto a limit of Rs.--------- lacs without any collateral
security are eligible for coverage under CGFSSD Scheme (190/2018)
a) 2.5 lacs b) 1 lac c) 2 lacs d) 1.50 lacs
Q.31 Nomination through Internet Banking is not made available for which of the
banking facilities? (191/2018)
a) Term Deposits b) Recurring Deposits
c) Safe Deposit Lockers d) Savings bank
Q.32 In terms of RBI Guidelines, the wrongful debit in the customer’s account on
account of ATM failed transactions shall be reversed within -------- days from
the date of receipt of complaint, failing which a penalty of Rs. --------- for
each day of delay has to be credited to the customer’s account along with the
disputed amount. (192/2018)
a) 10, 100 b) 10, 200 c) 5, 50 d) 7, 100
Q.33 The Debit Card number consists of 16 digits, out of which the following 4
digits will be the Branch DPCODE (192/2018)
a) First 4 digits b) Last 4 digits
c) The digits from 7 to 10 place
th th
d) The digits from 9th to 12th place
Q.34 Canara bank Debit Cards can not be issued to the following - (192/2018)
a) Joint account with operation jointly with Two Joint Signatories
b) P.A. Holder/ Holder of mandate
c) Illiterate customers
d) Cash Credit Accounts
Q.35 Canara bank Debit Cards can be issued to following cases, except
(Cir. 192/2018)
a) NRI
b) Minor students who are aged 10 years and above
c) Joint accounts where operation condition is jointly with more than 2 joint
signatories
d) Suspended employees, Ex-employees
Q.36 Auto renewal on expiry of debit cards is extended only for active cards, i.e,
cards used at least once for financial/non-financial transaction for the last
--------- period. (192/2018)
a) 1 year b) 6 months c) 3 months d) none of above
Q.37 For issue of Classic/Standard Credit Cards, the minimum independent gross
income per annum should be Rs. ------ lac. (193/2018)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 2.5
Q.38 For issue of Gold Credit Card , the minimum independent gross income per
annum should be Rs.------ Lac. (193/2018)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
Q.39 Secured Credit Card is issued against KD and FD where the Credit Limit is -----
-% of ledger balance/principal amount of KD/FD.
a) 70% b) 75% c) 80% d) 90%
Q.40 A NRI applicant for Credit Card has to give an undertaking to the Bank for
immediate surrender of the card if
a) he ceases to be an Indian Passport holder
b) he leaves India permanently
c) closes NRE/NRO account with our Bank
d) marries a foreign national
Q.41 With introduction of FEMA 1999, the accounts opened by foreign nationals
who are resident in India are treated as --------- accounts. (193/2018)
a) Non-resident b) RFC c) EEFC d) Resident
Q.42 For issuance of credit cards, staff members should have a minimum gross
annual income of Rs. ------- and minimum net take home salary of not less
than Rs. --------------- p.m.
a) 60,000, 4,000 b) 60,000, 6,000 c) 50,000 5,000 d) 50,000 4,000
Q.43 For issuance of credit cards, repayment towards which loan may be added
back to arrive at the stipulated net take home salary of the employees ?
a) education loan b) PF loan c) housing loan d) festival loan
Q.44 The minimum and maximum card limits of Classic/Standard Credit Cards are
(193/2018)
a) 20,000 and 2,00,000 b) 30,000 and 2,00,000
c) 50,000 and 3,00,000 d) 10,000 and 3,00,000
Q.45 The minimum and maximum card limits of Gold Credit Card are
a) 100,000 and 300,000 b) 50,000 and 25,00,000
c) 50,000 and 500,000 d) 100,000 and 25,00,000
Q.46 In case of corporate accounts, how many Add-on cards can be issued under
Main Credit Card with a minimum card limit of Rs.10,000 ? (193/2018)
a) 9 b) 19 c) 49 d) 99
Q.47 For corporate credit cards, cash withdrawal limit is up to 50% of the Credit
Card limit subject to maximum of Rs.------- (193/2018)
a) 5,00,000 b) 4,00,000 c) 3,00,000 d) 2,00,000
Q.48 Canara Gift Card has the maximum validity period of ------- months, and to
be issued with minimum unexpired period of ---------- months.
(194/2018)
a) 18, 12 b) 12, 6 c) 6, 3 d) 12, 4
Q.49 The International Travel Prepaid Card is valid for -------- months, and monthly
inactivity fee on the card is chargeable from the ---------th month of issue.
(195/2018)
a) 60, 13 b) 50, 12 c) 72, 18 d) 48, 15
Q.50 The Bank has a well-defined policy of elimination of non-credit items. Which
of the following transactions is not to be considered as a non-credit item for
the purpose? (196/2018)
a) credit balance outstanding in any loan account
b) entry outstanding on account of margin on Bills/Guarantees, retention
money
c) entry outstanding on account of devolved BG/LC
d) un-reconciled entries under Bankers’ account, interbank reconciliation
accounts, RTGS, NEFT, ATM etc
Q.51 As per revised framework on resolution of stressed assets, Bank has to report
to CRILC all borrower entities in default, with aggregate credit exposure of
Rs. ----- and above, on every ---------- or the preceding working day if that
day happens to be a holiday. (197/2018)
a) 1 crore, Thursday
b) 5 crore, Friday
c) 25 crore, Monday
d) 10 crore, Friday
Q.52 Circle has to ensure surprise verification of cash at outsourced ATMs at least
once in -------- months. (198/2018)
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12
Q.53 The centralized server which switches on-line transactions between the ATM
and CBS is called------ (198/2018)
a) CBS SWITCH b) CBS SERVER c) ATM NODES d) ATM SWITCH
Q.54 Compliance Risk can be broadly classified into the following risks-
(199/2018)
1. Legal 2. Operational 3. Regulatory 4. Reputational
Ans. a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4
Q.55 The designation of Chief Compliance Officer has been modified as (199/2018)
a) GCCO b) PCCO c) CGCO d) PGCO
ANSWERS
Q.1-a 2- b 3- c 4- c 5- c 6- d 7- d 8- b 9-d 10- d

11- c 12- b 13- b 14- b 15- d 16- c 17 - a 18- c 19- b 20- a
21- 4 22- d 23 - a 24- 4 25- c 26- b 27- b 28- 3 29- b 30- d
31- c 32- d 33- c 34- d 35- c 36- a 37- a 38- b 39- b 40- a
41- d 42- a 43- c 44- d 45- b 46- d 47- a 48- b 49- a 50- c
51- b 52- a 53- d 54- d 55- c
Circular 201/18 to 250/18
1. Which of the following scheme stands discontinued? (Cir No 201/2018)

a) Canara Jeevan b) Canara Atithi
c) Canara Kutir d) Canara Caravan
2. Which loan scheme has been discontinued because it was overlapped by PMAY?
(Cir No 201/2018)
a) Canara Kutir b) Yuwa Awaas Rinn
c) Housing loan to agriculturists d) Canara Atithi
3. What are the different segments under which 71 Desk Cards have been updated
and uploaded in CANNET under head Education? (Cir No 202/2018)
a) Deposits and General Matters
b) Advances General, Agriculture Advances and Foreign Exchange
c) Option (a) & (b)
d) Only option (b)
4. Submission of AADHAAR for all Small Savings Scheme Accounts such as PPF, KVP,
SCSS and Sukanya Samriddhi Accounts is (Cir No 203/2018)
a) mandatory.
b) Was to be submitted by 31.03.2018.
c) Not required at all.
d) Last date of 31.03.2018 has been extended till further orders from the Ministry of
Finance, GOI.
5. As per latest Inspection Policy, Branches which were witness to fraud will be
rated as (Cir No 205/2018)
a) High Risk b) High Risk or one notch lower.
c) High Risk or two notch lower d) Moderate Risk
6. For Risk Assessment of which of following unit, 100% weightage is given for
control risk only: (Cir No 205/2018)
a) Currency Chest, Accounts Section, Foreign Department, LPC, CPC
b) Branches
c) RAH and SME Sulabh
d) All of the above
7. Modification in Inspection Policy in emergent conditions can be permitted by

(Cir No 205/2018)
a) MD b) CEO
c) MD & CEO d) Board of Directors
8. Which of the following is correct in case of periodicity of RBIA (Cir No 205/2018)
a) Low Risk – 15 months, Normal Risk – 18 months, High Risk – 10 months
b) Low Risk – 18 months, Normal Risk – 15 months, High Risk – 6 months
c) Low Risk – 6 months, Normal Risk – 15 months, High Risk – 18 months
d) Low Risk – 12 months, Normal Risk – 18 months, High Risk – 15 months
9. For Concurrent Audit Branches / Units, Quality Audit takes place

(Cir No 205/2018)
a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half Yearly d) Annually
10. Under PMLA 2005, submission of AADHAAR and PAN or Form 60 (Cir 206/2018)
a) mandatory.
b) Was to be submitted by 31.03.2018.
c) Not required at all.
d) Last date of 31.03.2018 has been extended till further orders from the
Ministry of Finance, GOI.
11. Customers are not liable for amounts lost in fraudulent / unauthorized
transactions where default not attributed to the customers, if reported to the
bank within (Cir 207/2018)
a) 3 working days. b) 7 working days
c) 15 working days d) 30 working days
12. The Daily and weekly Transaction limit for the Merchant with BHIM AADHAAR
POS is (Cir No 217/2018)
a) Rs.50000 and Rs.200000 respectively
b) Rs.5000 and Rs.20000 respectively
c) Rs.10000 and Rs.20000 respectively
d) Rs.15000 and Rs.50000 respectively
13. The Daily and weekly Transaction limit for the customer with BHIM AADHAAR
POS is (Cir No 217/2018)
a) Rs.5000 and Rs.20000 respectively
b) Rs.50000 and Rs.200000 respectively
c) Rs.10000 and Rs.50000 respectively
d) Rs.500 and Rs.20000 respectively
14. As per amend in Income Tax Act, Education and Secondary & Higher Education
Cess has been replaced with Health and Education Cess which is charged @
(Cir No 218/2018)
a) 4% b) 3% c) 5% d) 2.5%
15. Maximum Incentive for the Merchant using BHIM Aadhaar Pos is
(Cir No 219/2018)
a) Rs.5000 b) Rs.2000 c) Rs.10000 d) Rs.1000
16. Branches having cash holding of ---------- and above must have strong room.
(Cir No 222/2018)
a) Rs.25 Lacs b) Rs.10 Lacs c) Rs.5 Lacs d) Rs.50 Lacs
17. The branches classified as High Risk under Security Concerns must be visited by
the Security officer once in (Cir No 222/2018)
a) A year b) A Half Year c) A month d) Bimonthly
18. Every premises having an electrical power greater than 2 KVA or having a
minimum carpet area of ------ sq. ft., must be installed with a Fire Alarm
System. (Cir No 222/2018)
a) 200 b) 100 c) 250 d) 500
19. Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Educational Loans
for Other Backward Classes(OBCs) & Economically Backward Classes (EBC) for
(cir 228/2018)
a) Domestic Studies b) Studies Abroad
c) Engineering Students only d) Medical Students only
20. Review Charges shall be collected on the outstanding in the term loan
account and shall be levied at account level if liability is Rs. 1 Crore & above
in the respective account and shall be collected annually commencing from
completion of one year from the date of first disbursement i.e. the process of
collecting shall be automated and shall be levied on non- aggregated basis @
(Cir No 232/2018)
a) Rs.50 per Lac b) Rs.25 per Lac
c) Rs.100 per Lac d) Rs.75 per Lac
21. CMF is applicable for all borrowers having exposure (FB + NFB limits) of
(Cir 233/2018)
a) Rs.1.00 crore and above. b) Rs.5.00 Crore and above
b) Rs.10.00 crore and above. d) Rs.2.50 crore and above.
22. Normally, Periodicity of CMF is (Cir 233/2018)

a) Monthly b) Half Yearly c) Yearly d) Bimonthly
23. Following accounts are exempted from MTR(Cir 233/2018)

a) Loans sanctioned to Employees b) NPA accounts marked for recovery
c) Both the options are correct d) Only option is correct
24. Part C of Special Watch List consists of(Cir 233/2018)

a) Account with aggregate limit above Rs.5 Lacs upto Rs.10 Lacs
b) Account with aggregate limit above Rs.25 Lacs upto Rs.100 Lacs
c) Account with aggregate limit above Rs.1 Lacs upto Rs.5 Lacs
d) Account with aggregate limit above Rs.5 Lacs upto Rs.25 Lacs
25. The Limit for bringing a Loan account under the purview of Quick Mortality is
increased from (Cir 233/2018)
a) Rs.5.00 Lacs to Rs.10.00 Lacs b) Rs.5.00 Lacs to Rs.15.00 Lacs
c) Rs.5.00 Lacs to Rs.25.00 Lacs d) Rs.5.00 Lacs to Rs.50.00 Lacs
26. Pre Release Audit is conducted all types of credit facilities with credit exposure
of ------- crore & above (Fund based/Non fund based/clean limits/retail lending
schemes) to new as well as existing borrowers. (Cir 233/2018)
a) Rs.15 Cr b) Rs.10 Cr c) Rs.5 Cr d) Rs.1 Cr
27. The Pre-release Audit shall be conducted within ----- hours from obtention of
documentation (Cir 233/2018)
a) 24 b) 48 c) 72 d) 144
28. Who is empowered to permit waiver of pre release audit? (Cir 233/2018)
a) Chairman b) ED c) Circle Head d) Cannot be waived.
29. All fresh sanctions, renewals with enhancements/additional exposures

exceeding cut off limit (FB + NFB) of -------- shall be subjected to credit audit.
(Cir 233/2018)
a) Rs.1 Cr b) Rs.2 Cr c) Rs.5 Cr
30. The Limit for bringing a Loan account under the purview of Quick Mortality is
increased from (Cir 233/2018)
a) Rs.5.00 Lacs to Rs.10.00 Lacs b) Rs.5.00 Lacs to Rs.15.00 Lacs
c) Rs.5.00 Lacs to Rs.25.00 Lacs d) Rs.5.00 Lacs to Rs.50.00 Lacs
31. Pre Release Audit is conducted all types of credit facilities with credit exposure
of ------- crore & above (Fund based/Non fund based/clean limits/retail lending
schemes) to new as well as existing borrowers. (Cir 233/2018)
32. The Pre-release Audit shall be conducted within ----- hours from obtention of
documentation (Cir 233/2018)
a) 24 b) 48 c) 72 d) 144
33. Who is empowered to permit waiver of pre release audit? (Cir 233/2018)
a) Chairman b) ED c) Circle Head d) Cannot be waived.
34. All fresh sanctions, renewals with enhancements/additional exposures

exceeding cut off limit (FB + NFB) of -------- shall be subjected to credit audit.
(Cir 233/2018)
35. The timeline for closure of credit audit report remarks is ---- months from the
date of the credit audit report. (Cir 233/2018)
a) 6 b)3 c) 1 d) 12
36. If OCC account is in credit balance, stock statement (Cir 233/2018)

a) Must not be submitted
b) must be submitted periodically
c) Must be submitted once in a quarter
d) Must be submitted half yearly
37. What is LIE Report? (Cir 233/2018)

a) Legal Identifier Entity Report
b) Lender’s Independent Engineer Report
c) Lender’s Independent Evaluator Report
d) Legal Important Entity report
38. IBBI stands for (Cir 235/2018)

a) Indian Bank Bureau Institute
b) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
c) International Bank Bureau Institute
d) Institute of Banking Board of India
39. Commercial Credit Information Report is to be drawn mandatorily from which

CIC? (Cir 239/2018)
a) CIBIL b) EQUIFAX c) Experian d) Any of the above
40. UIDAI specified unit rate to be charged from the customer for any demographic
updation is (Cir 245/2018)
a) Rs.25.00 +GST b) Rs.20.00+GST c) Rs.10.00+gst d) NIL
41. UIDAI specified unit rate to be charged from the customer for New AADHAAR
generation / Enrolement and Initial Biometric Update is (Cir 245/2018)
a) NIL b) Rs.10.00 c) Rs.25.00 d) Rs.50.00
42. Minimum and maximum age limits for the Jewel Appraiser are (Cir 244/2018)
a) 30 Years and 70 Years b) 18 Years and 60 Years
c) 30 Years and 60 Years d) 21 Years and 70 Years
43. Maximum Exposure per Branch under Gold loan has been fixed as
(Cir 240/2018)
a) Rs.1.00 Cr b) Rs.100.00 Cr c) Rs.50.00 Cr d) Rs.10.00 Cr
44. In case of SHG bank linkage programme, credit rating has to be done for
assessment of SHG’s while extending credit. The minimum score to qualify for
credit linkage is (Cir 240/2018)
a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d) 80%
45. Under JLG, Total quantum of loan to the group for raising of crops should be
limited to @ --------- per member. (Cir 240/2018)
a) Rs.100000.00 b) Rs.250000.00 c) Rs.50000.00 d) Rs.125000.00
46. Under JLG, Total quantum of loan to the group for raising of crops should be
limited to @ --------- per group (Cir 240/2018)
a) Rs.100000.00 b) Rs.500000.00
c) Rs.1000000.00 d) Rs.2500000.00
47. The group size of a SHG should preferably be between ------------ members to
enable effective participation. (Cir 240/2018)
a) 10 and 15
b) 10 and 20
c) 5 and 10
d) 15 and 20
48. The proportion of savings/corpus to loan should gradually increase from 1:1 to
------- depending on the assessment of the SHG by the Branch. (Cir 240/2018)
a) 1:5
b) 1:4
c) 1:3
d) 1:10
49. Registration of SHG should be done under (Cir 240/2018)

a) Societies Act
b) State Cooperative Act
c) As a Partnership firm
d) Registration of SHG is not mandatory.
50. The minimum and maximum number of members in a Micro Credit group is
restricted to (Cir 240/2018)
a) three (3) and five (5) in urban areas and five (5) and ten (10) in rural and
Semi urban areas.
b) three (3) and eight (8) in urban areas and eight (8) and ten (10) in rural and
Semi urban areas.
c) Five (5) and ten (10) in urban areas and ten (10) and twenty (20) in rural
and Semi urban areas.
d) ten (10) and fifteen (15) in urban areas and fifteen (15) and twenty (20) in
rural and Semi urban areas.
51. The Micro Credit Group shall consist of members whose individual income does
not exceed (Cir 240/2018)
a) Rs.150000/- P A. b) Rs.10000/- P.A.
c) Rs.50000/- P.A. d) Rs.10000/- P.A.
52. Rural Development Self Employment Institute (RUDSETI) - a collaborative

partnership between (Cir 240/2018)
a) SDME Trust, Syndicate Bank and Canara Bank.
b) Syndicate Bank, SIDBI and Canara Bank
c) Dena Bank, SIDBI and Canara Bank
d) Bank of Baroda, NABARD and Canara Bank
53. Risk weightage under RBIA has been realigned as (Cir 205/2018)
a) Control Risk – 80%, Business Risk – 20%
b) Control Risk – 20%, Business Risk – 80%
c) Control Risk – 50%, Business Risk – 50%
d) Control Risk – 25%, Business Risk – 75%
54. RBIA ratings are based on risk grades which are divided in following levels
a) Low, Medium, High
b) Low, Normal, Medium, High
c) Low, Normal, Moderate, High
d) High and Low
55. Minimum practical experience required for a jewel appraiser for agricultural
gold loans is ------------ ( Cir 244/2018 )
a) 3 years b) 10years c) 5 years d) 1 year
============================================================
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A C D A A C B B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A C A B C B B B B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A D C D B C B D A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B D A B B B B D A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A C B B A C B B D A
51 C 52 A 53 A 54 C 55 C
No. Multiple Choice Questions (251/18 to 300/18)
Cir. 253/2018
1. Risk categorization model adopted by bank for
A. Risk categorization of borrower
B. Risk categorization of Depositor
C. Risk categorization of customer
D. Risk categorization of borrowal a/cs of above Rs.2 Cr.
Ans : C
2. High Networth Individuals categorised based on

A. Type of business
B. Customer profession
C. Account status
D. Average balance
Ans : D
3. As per revised guidelines of categorisation of HNI

A. Average balance of Rs. 100 lakhs and above in SB +CA+ TD a/c
B. Enjoying Fund based limits/term loans exceeding Rs. 100 lakhs
C. Any of A or B
D. Both A and B
4. Risk categorisation model based on

A. broad guidelines provided by RBI
B. broad guidelines provided by IBA
C. broad guidelines provided by BCSBI
D. None of above
5. Customer having average balance in all deposit a/c Rs. 100 lakhs & above is
categorised as
A. High Risk
B. Medium
C. Low
D. as per descretion of the branch manager
6. A customer is categorised as low risk based on

A. Having average balance in SB a/c less than 25 lakhs
B. Having average balance in SB +CA+TD less than 25 lakhs
C. Having average balance in SB a/c Rs 25 lakhs& above
D. Having average balance in SB +CA+TD 25 lakhs & above
7. A customer is categorised as medium risk based on
A. having average balance of Rs. 25 lakhs & above to less than Rs. 100 lakhs in all
deposit a/cs
B. having average balance of Rs. 25 lakhs & above up to Rs. 100 lakhs in all deposit
a/cs
C. having balance of Rs. 25 lakhs & above to less than Rs. 100 lakhs in all deposit
a/cs
D. having balance of Rs. 25 lakhs & above up to Rs. 100 lakhs in all deposit a/cs
8. A customer is categorised as High risk based on

A. having balance of Rs. 100 lakhs & above in all deposit a/cs
B. having balance of Rs. 100 lakhs & above in CA a/cs
C. having average balance of Rs. 100 lakhs & above in all deposit a/cs
D. having average balance of Rs. 100 lakhs & above in CA a/cs
Cir. 257/2018
9. As per modified claims procedure under PMJJBY & PMSBY :
A. Bank branch to scan the complete documents and send to the specified e-mail
ID of the insurer
B.
Branch to dispatch the hard copies of documents to conderned Circle
office
C. Circle office to dispatch complete documents to the insurer
D. All above are true
10. In PMJJBY claim mandatory claim documents

i. Duly completed PMJJBY claim form signed by the nominee
ii. Original/Attested copy of Death Certificate issued by Municipal
Authorities
iii. Copy of Bank passbook/ Cancelled cheque where name and account no. of
Nominee are printed
iv. A/c Statement of life assured containing the Premium debit for PMJJBY
A. (i) only
B. (i) & (ii ) only
C. All above
D. None of the above
Cir. 260/2018
11. The policy on Mandatory leave & Away from desk is introduced as a mesure
A. Of effective tool of Preventive vigilance
B. To review the performance of concerned employee
C. To make the employee relax and refresh
D. To use the employee for deputation in branches where required
12. Mandatory leave of an employee will be treated if:
A.
All staff members who are covered under Mandatory leave policy shall
madatorily avail 10 continuous days of leave in a single spell in each calendar
year against leave stainding to their credit and aafter obtaining regular
sanction there of from the leave sanctioning authority
B. The employee is on training or on deputation for 10 working days in a single
spell shall be treated as absence of 10 working days in a single spell for the
purpose of madatory leave
C. Only A
D. any of A or B
13. The positions for officers covered under Mandatory leave

A. All officers irrespective of their postings
B. All officers irrespective of their postings excluding Forex transactions at ID,
FDs, and Designated branches
C. All officers irrespectinve of their postings excluding administrative office
D. All officers posted in branches only
Cir. 263/2018
14. Credit Risk Grades based on credit risk score are
A. CS:1 , CS:2, CS:3, CS:4, CS:5
B. CS:1 , CS:2, CS:3, CS:4,
C. CS:1 , CS:2, CS:3
D. CS:1 , CS:2
15. Credit Information Companies reckoned for our bank are:

A. CIBIL only
B. CIBIL, Equifax and Experian
C. CIBIL, CRIF and Experian
D. CIBIL, CRIF, Equifax and Experian
16. As per CIBIL score applicant classified as Low Risk

A. 900 to 750 B. 900 to 700
C. 900 to 649 D. 750 to 600
17. As per CIBIL score applicant classified as Normal Risk

A. 900 -750 B. 749 - 700
C. 749 - 650 D. 699- 600
18. As per CIBIL score applicant classified as Moderate Risk

A. 699 -600 B. 700 -600
C. 749 -600 D. 749 -700
19. As per CIBIL score applicant classified as High Risk
A. 900- 750 B. 749 -700
C. 599 - 300 D. 699 -599
20. A Canara Vehicle loan having CIBIL score 650 can be sanctioned by
A. Respective sanctioning authority falling under the power of RAH Head and
Branch head including athorities at RO/ CO/ HO
B. Next higher authority upto delegated power of AGM-RO-CAC (other than
Regional Head CAC)
C. In case of propsals falling under the power of RAH Head and Branch Head can
permit up to 75% of their deleagted power
D. GM -CO -CAC only
21. Housing loan proposal having CIBIL score 649 can be sanctioned by
B. Next higher authority upto delegated power of AGM-RO-CAC ( other than
Regional Head CAC)
D. GM -CO -CAC only
22. Canara Rent proposal having CIBIL score 625 can be sanctioned by
B.
Next higher authority upto delegated power of AGM-RO-CAC (other than
Regional Head CAC)
D. GM -CO -CAC only
23. Canara Vehicle proosal having CIBIL score 450 can be sacntioned by
Branch head including athorities at RO/ CO/ HO , subject to ensuring suitable
risk mitigants are in place
Regional Head CAC)
D. DGM -CO -CAC & above authorities , subject to ensuring suitable risk mitigants
are in place
24. Canara Pension loan proposal having CIBIL score 650 can be sanctioned by
A. Concerned sanctioning authority
Regional Head CAC)
D. GM -CO -CAC only
25. In case of variation in the scores of the applicant or Co- applicant

A. the score of Applicant shall be reckoned for decision making
B. the highest score of Applicant or Co-applicant shall be reckoned for decision
making
C. the average score of Applicant or Co- applicant shall be rckoned for decision
making
D. the lowest score of Applicant or Co-applicant shall be reckoned for decision
making
26. A housing loan applied by Mr. X applicant and Mr. Y Co-applicant where Mr. Y is
only earning member having CIBIL score 650 and 700 respectively
A. the score of applicant shall be reckoned for determining risk grade and purpose
of delegation
B. the score of Co- applicant shall be reckoned for determining risk grade and
purpose of delegation
C. the average score of applicant and Co- applicant shall be reckoned for
determining risk grade and purpose of delegation
D. submitted to next Higher authority irrespective of risk grade
27. Mr. X is proprietor of ABC Enterprises and applied for a business loan , his CIBIL
score is 650, delegation of loan will be with
A. The score based delegation not applicable
B. the delegation will be subject to credit score
C. a/c will be treated as Normal risk irrespective of credit score
Cir. 270/2018
28. Monitoring of Bankers A/c which is the statement to be monitored
A. PRR 14 B. PRR 14A
C. PRR14 B D. None of the above
29. Monitoring of ATM GLs/ Cash Kiosk which is the statement to be monitored
C. PRR14 B D. None of the above
30. Sundrly Liablities and Sundry Deposit monitored by statement
C. PRR14 B D. PRR 43
31. Monitoring of LCCR , statement to be submitted

C. PRR14 B D. PRR 43
Cir. 272/2018
32. Any shortage in remittance of currency notes to RBI and forged/ Mutilated/
Shortage of notes found during the Currency verification & Processeing System
of specified bank notes remittance to RBI
A. Should not be considered as penalty and hence not to be appropriated by
debiting SA
B. Should be considered as penalty and hence to be appropriated by debiting
SA
C. Should be recovered from the concerned.
D. A & C
33. Breaches of compliance and Non- observance of guidelines result in

A. legal or regulatory sanctions B. material/ financial loss
C. loss of reputation to the Bank D. All the above
34. Penalty lkevied by regulatory authorities for

A. Delay in submission of statutory returns
B. Wrong submission of statutory returns
C. Non submission of Statutory/ Mandatory returns
D. All of above
Cir. 277/2018
35. Canara Rupay INSTA Platinum Debit Card will be issued in association with
A. National Payments Corporation of India ( NPCI)
B. Canara Bank computer services Limited
C. IDRBT
D. Cancard division
36. Canara Rupay Insta Platinum Debit Card having validity period of
A. 10 Years from the date of issue B. 5 Years from the date of issue
C. 3 Years from the date of issue D. None of the above
37. Canara Bank Rupay Insta Platinum debit card should not be issued where the
validity printed on the card expires
A. In next 12 months B. in nest 9 months
C. in next 6 months D. None of the above
38. Canara Bank Rupay Insta Platinum Debit card is a Non personalised card can be
issued to
A. Existing account holder only B. New account holder only
C. As additional Debit card D. All the above
39. Personalised card can be issued in lieu of non- personalised card at the request
of lthe cardholder before expiry of validity of the non personalised card
A. can not issued till expiry of validity period of the non personalised card
B. can be issued with levy of fee of Rs 100/-
C. can be issued with levy of fee of Rs 250/-
Cir. 278/2018
40. All formal complaints by customer including complaints lodged through

electronic means should be acknowledged
A. with in three working days from the date of complaint
B. with in three calendar days from the date of complaint
C. with in thirty working days from the date of complaint
D. with in thirty calendar days from the date of complaint
41. All formal complaints by customer including complaints lodged through

electronic means should be resolved within a reasonable period
A. not exceeding 30 days from receiving all the necessary information from the
customer
B. not exceeding three days from receiving all the necessary information from
the customer
C. not exceeding fifteen days from receiving all the necessary information from
the customer
Cir. 279/2018
42. In case of erroneous debits arising out of fradulent transaction where neither
the Bank is at fault nor the customer, but the fault lies elsewhere in the
system, the bank will compensate the customer with
A. No compesation will be paid
B. RS. 1000/- for each instance will be paid
C. Rs. 100/- per Rs. 5000/- of the amount involved, subject to a maximum Rs.
1000/- for each instance.
D. Rs. 10/- per Rs. 5000/- of the amount involved , subject to a maximum Rs
1000/- for each instance.
43. It is mandatory for bank to reimburse the customer, the amount wrongfully
debited on account of failed ATM within a maximum period of
A. 7 working days from the receipt of lthe complaint
B. 15 working days from the receipt of the complaint
C. 30 working days from the receipt of the complaint
D. 10 working days from the receipt of the complaint
44. Any customer is entitled to receive such compensation for delay, only if a claim
is lodged with the issuing bank
A. With in 30 days of the date of the transaction.
B. With in 7 days of the date of the transaction.
C. With in 15 days of the date of the transaction
D. With in 10 days of lthe date of the transacton.
45. In view of the delay in revision of pension and payment of arrears to pensioners
including non state resident pensioners, the Bank shall compensate the
pensioners’ for the delayed period beyond the due date
A. @ 8% penal interest
B. @2% penal interest
C. @ 3.5% penal interest
D. @ MCLR + 8% penal interest
46. It is mandatory for bank to reimburse the customer, the amount wrongfully
debited on account of failed ATM within a maximum period of 7 working days
from the receipt of the complaint, failure to re-credit the customer’s a/c bank
shall pay compensation of
A. Rs. 200/- per day to the aggrieved customer
B. Rs. 100/- per day to the aggrieved customer
C. Rs. 100/- per day to the aggrieved customer subject to maximum Rs.
1000/-
D. Rs. 200/- per day to the aggrieved customer subject to maximum Rs.
5000/-
Cir. 280/2018
47. If cheques of value less than Rs 1 Crore have been dishonoured for the reason
insufficient fund Bank may issue cautionary advice to the customer and
stoppage of cheque book facility
A. at the 5th time return B. at the 6th time return
C. at the 3rd time return D. at the 4th time return
48. If cheques of value Rs 1 Crore & above have been dishonoured for the reason
insufficient fund Bank may issue cautionary advice to the customer and
49. If cheques of value Rs 1 Crore & above have been dishonoured for the reason
insufficient fund Bank may issue cautionary advice to the customer and closure
of account
50. If cheques of value less than Rs 1 Crore have been dishonoured for the reason
insufficient fund Bank may issue cautionary advice to the customer and Closure
of account
51. If ECS mandate value less than Rs 1 Crore have been dishonoured for the
reason insufficient fund Bank may issue cautionary advice to the customer and
Closure of account
52. If ECS mandate of value Rs 1 Crore & above have been dishonoured for the
closure of account
53. If ECS mandate of value Rs 1 Crore & above have been dishonoured for the
A. at the 3rd time return B. at the 4th time return
C. at the 5th time return D. at the 6th time return
54. Bank may issue cautionary advice to the customer and closure of account,
if cheques favouring stock exchange have been dishonoured for the reason
insufficient fund
A. at the 3rd time return of value Rs 1 Crore & above
B. at the 3rd time return of value less than Rs 1 Crore
C. at the 5th time return of value less than Rs 1 Crore
D. at the 4th time return of irrespective of amount
55. If an inward local cheque for Rs. 1 lakh in a SB a/c returned for want of funds
in a rural branch
A. charges of Rs 200/- to be collected
B. charges of Rs. 250/- to be collected
C. charges of Rs. 150/- to be collected
D. charges of Rs. 100/- to be collected
56. If an outward local cheque for Rs. 1 lakh in a SB a/c returned for want of funds
in a rural branch
57. If an inward local cheque for Rs. 1 lakh in a CA a/c returned for want of funds
in semiurban branch
58. If an inward local cheque for Rs. 2 lakh in a CA a/c returned for want of
funds
59. If an outward local cheque for Rs. 2 lakh in a CA a/c returned for want of funds
in a metro branch
Cir. 282/2018
60. Canara OTP app is being used for

A. generating OTP offline through internet banking without mobile network/
internet connecitivity
B. generating OTP online through internet banking with mobile network/internet
connectivity
C. generating OTP onlne through mobile banking
D. generating OTP for mobile banking fund transfer transaction
61. Canara OTP app facility can be used for generating OTP offline for
A. fund transfer through Canara mobile banking app
B. registration of e-infobook
C. internet banking based transaction like bill payments, tax payments, funds
transfer, e-comerce transactions etc.
D. registration of Canara mobile banking app
Cir. 284/2018
62. Debit card services through Canara Bank Internet Banking , one can
A. Temporary deactivate and reactivate debit card
B. Setting of ATM/POS limit
C. Instant PIN generation for Debit card
D. all above
63. Mr. Chandra customer of our bank wants to setting of ATM/POS limit for his
Debit card, he can do it
A. through M- Serve
b. through internet banking
C. Any of A or B
D. by submitting a request to concerned branch
64. Mr. Karim has forgotten ATM PIN for his Debit card, he can reset his PIN
A. he can not reset and surrender the card to the branch and request for fesh
card
B. he can reset the PIN through Canara bank Mobile Banking App,
C. he can reset only with the Green PIN option in ATM machine
D. he can reset the PIN through our Internet banking as well as with any Canara
Bank ATM
Cir. 285/2018
65. A letter is to be sent to all the new account holders immediately after opening
of their a/cs called
A. Welcome letter ( NF 256)
B. Thanks giving letter ( NF154)
C. Thanks giving letter ( NF 174)
D. Welcome letter ( NF 254)
66 Thanks giving letter NF 154 sent first time to all new a/c holders by
A. Circle Office
B. Regional Office
C. Branch itself
D. Now a days need not be sent
67. All accounts where the thanks giving letter has been returned undelivered are
to be classified
A. Low risk with caution
B. Medium Risk
C. Moderate Risk
D. High Risk
68. NF 154 sent again by branch through Regd. Post A.D/ speed post and if the
same is returned undelivered again
A. the account is to be blocked
B. the account is to be closed
C. normal operation in the a/c can be permitted
D. Customer to be black listed
Cir. 286/2018
69. In the case of branches graded C/D in RBIA/ Inspection staff lapses , if any can
be attributed if the concerned official has been working for
A. at least 10% of the review period
B. at least 25 % of the review period
C. 50 % or more of the review period
D. at least 75 % or more of the review period
Cir. 293/2018
70 El scheme for prospective JMG scale I officers of our bank undetake specially
designed training course PGDBF of one year duration , course can be done
through
A. Any institute in India recognised by UGC
B. Manipal Global Education Services Pvt. LTd.
C. NITTE Education International Pvt. Ltd.
D. Any of B or C
Cir. 296/2018
71 Special scheme for OTS for NPAs under Agriculture loans and advances is
applicable
A. for limits/ combined limits sanctioned up to Rs 5 lakhs
B. for limits/ combined limits sanctioned up to Rs 10 lakhs
C. for limits/ combined limits sanctioned up to Rs 15 lakhs
D. for limits/ combined limits sanctioned up to Rs 25 lakhs
72. Mr. X has availed KCC loan for Rs. 90000 on 16.06.2011 and later became NPA
on 31.03.2015, can be settled under special OTS for NPAs under Agriculture
A. @ 25% of Base amount B. @ 50% of Base amount
C. @75% of Base amount D. @100% of Base amount
73. Mr. X has availed KCC loan for Rs. 90000 on 16.06.2011 and he died on
31.03.2015 and later on a/c became NPA on 31.03.2016, can be settled under
special OTS for NPAs under Agriculture
74. As per special scheme of OTS for NPAs under Agricultre where the loan a/c is
not covered by collateral security or having collateral security of Agriculture
land only, Borrower having aggregate sanctioned limit with in Rs. 1 lakh , can
be settled
land only, Borrower having aggregate sanctioned limit with in Rs. 1 lakh and
borrower has died, can be settled
land only, Borrower having aggregate sanctioned limit above Rs. 1 lakh up to Rs
5 lakhs and borrower has died, can be settled
land only, Borrower having aggregate sanctioned limit above Rs. 1 lakh up to Rs
5 lakhs , can be settled
78. Base amount for settlement of NPA a/c arrived

A.
Amount Disb + Expenses -recoveries made - amount of relief under
ADWDRS
B.
Amount Disb + Expenses -recoveries made + amount of relief under
ADWDRS
c. Present liablity as on date of settlement
D. Book liablity as on date on NPA
79. Sacrifice amount for OTS is to be arrived as :

A. Liability as on date of NPA + accrued Interest - OTS amount offered
B. Liablity as on date of NPA - accrued Interest - OTS amount offered
C.
Liablity as on date of settlement + Accrued interest - OTS amount
offered
D.
Liablity as on date of settlement - Accrued interest - OTS amount
offered
Cir. 297/2018
80. Special scheme for settlement of Doubtful (D4) and Loss Assets is applicable
for
A. Book liablity up to Rs. 10 lakhs
B. Book liablity up to Rs. 25 lakhs
C. Book liablity up to Rs. 50 lakhs
D. Book liablity up to Rs. 100 lakhs
81. D4 A/cs with Book liablity up to Rs. 5 lakhs as on the date of settlement where RVS is above 100%
of the BL can be settled
A. Minimum 50% of the outstanding Book liablity
B. Minimum 65% of the outstanding Book liablity
C. Minimum 75% of the outstanding Book liablity
D. Minimum 25% of the outstanding Book liablity
82. D4 A/cs with Book liablity up to Rs. 5 lakhs as on the date of settlement where
RVS is less than 100% of the BL can be settled
A. Minimum 65% of RVS or 50% of the outstanding Book liablity whichever is
higher
B. Minimum 65% of RVS or 50% of the outstanding Book liablity whichever is
lower
C. Minimum 75% of RVS or 50% of the outstanding Book liablity whichever is
higher
D. Minimum 75% of RVS or 50% of the outstanding Book liablity whichever is
lower
83. D4 A/cs with Book liablity above Rs. 5 lakhs up to Rs 10 lakhs as on the date of
settlement where RVS is above 100% of the BL can be settled
A. Minimum 50% of the outstanding Book liablity
B. Minimum 65% of the outstanding Book liablity
C. Minimum 75% of the outstanding Book liablity
D. Minimum outstanding Book liablity
84. Loss A/cs with Book liablity above Rs. 5 lakhs and up to Rs 10 lakhs as on the
date of NPA can be settled
A. at least 45% of the BL as on the date of settlement to be recovered
B. at least 45% of the BL as on the date of NPA to be recovered
C. at least 65% of the BL as on the date of settlement to be recovered
D. at least 65% of the BL as on the date of NPA to be recovered
85. Loss A/cs with Book liablity above Rs. 10 lakhs and up to Rs 25 lakhs as on the
date of NPA can be settled
D. at least 65% of the BL as on the date of NPA to be recovered
86. Loss A/cs with Book liablity up to Rs 25 thousands as on the date of NPA can be
settled
D. maximum possible amount
87. Loss A/cs with Book liablity above Rs. 25000 and up to Rs 2 lakhs as on the date
of NPA can be settled
D. maximum possible amount
Cir. 298/2018
88. For OTS of NPA a/cs under MSE, Branch incharge can decide value of the
security depending upon the prevailing market value/guidelines value/
saleabioity of assets td. Upto
A. Total dues upto Rs. 10 lakhs
B. Total dues upto Rs 5 lakhs
C. Total dues upto Rs. 25 lakhs
D. Branch incharge himself can not decide
89. For OTS of accounts with total dues above Rs. 10.00 lakhs, the valuation shall
be backed by a valuation report of not older than
A. 3 years from the date of proposal
B. 2 years from the date of proposal
C. 1 year from the date of proposal
D. 5 years from the date of proposal
Cir. 299/2018
90. Special scheme for One Time settlement of small value Doubtful and loss NPAs
with liablities up to
A. Rs. 5 lakhs B. Rs. 10 lakhs C. Rs. 25 lakhs D. Rs. 100 lakhs
91 NPSs under Education loan can be settled under special scheme for OTS of small
value Doubtful and loss NPA A/cs with liablity upto
A. Rs. 5 lakhs B. Rs. 7.5 lakhs C. Rs. 4 lakhs D. Rs. 10 lakhs
Keys :
1c 2d 3c 4b 5a 6b 7a 8c 9d 10 c
11 a 12 d 13 a 14 b 15 d 16 a 17 b 18 a 19 c 20 b
21 c 22 c 23 d 24 a 25 a 26 b 27 a 28 a 29 c 30 d
31 b 32 d 33 d 34 d 35 a 36 b 37 c 38 d 39 b 40 a
41 a 42 c 43 a 44 a 45 a 46 b 47 a 48 c 49 d 50 b
51 d 52 d 53 a 54 d 55 b 56 c 57 b 58 a 59 d 60 a
61 c 62 d 63 c 64 d 65 b 66 a 67 d 68 a 69 c 70 d
71 a 72 c 73 b 74 c 75 b 76 c 77 d 78 a 79 c 80 d
81 b 82 a 83 d 84 a 85 a 86 d 87 a 88 a 89 c 90 b
91 c
Circular Based Questions (HO Cir 301/2018 to 350/2018)
1. M/s Integra Micro Systems (P) Ltd implemented Financial Inclusion in all the
allotted villages of (Cir 302/18)
A. Karnataka, B. Kerala,
C. Tamil Nadu Goa and Union Territory D. All the above
2. Objectives of ZED (Cir 306/18)

A. Manufacturing of zero defect process with zero effect on environment
B. To upgrade quality standards constantly
C. To support Make India Campaign
D. All the above
3. What is the collection of MDR charges above Rs 2000 (Cir 308/18)

A. .25% + GST B. .50% + GST C. .75% + GST D. None of these
4. Amount claimable from the borrower (including the accrued interest) Rs ____
under SARFAESI Act. (312/18)
A. Above One Lac B. One Lac
C. Less than One Lac D. Non of these
5. For issuing SARFAESI notice the minimum criteria is

A. The amount due should be more than 20 % of the Principal Amount and interest
there on.
B. The security interest must have been registered under CERSAI
C. The Account should be NPA as per RBI guidelines
D. All the Above
6. Objection Reply by the Bank regarding Demand Notice 13(2) within

A. 15 days B. 30 Days C. 45 Days D. None of these
7. Secured Creditor can issue Demand Notice under SARFAESI to

A. Borrower copy to Mortgagor and Guarantor
B. Guarantor copy to Mortgagor and Borrower
C. Mortgagor copy to Borrower and Guarantor
D. Only Co - Obligant
8. Serving of Demand Notice under SARFAESI by way of

A. Hand delivery against acknowledgement, or
B. By registered post acknowledgement due, or
C. By speed post, or
D. By courier, or
E. All the Above
9. Publishing the possession notice in two leading newspapers within
A. Seven Days B. Fifteen Days
C. Thirty Days D. Not required
10. Credit Facility can be provided under Canara MSE Unnati as (Cir 313)
A. Term Loan
B. Working Capital
C. Non Fund Based
D. Term loan and/or Working capital & Non Fund Based Limits
11. What is i monitor( Inspiring Monitoring System) (cir314/18)

A. Improve the branch monitoring qualitatively
B. Improve the branch monitoring quantatively
c. Report is Web based and controlling Offices can view the report
D. All the Above
12. What is interest subvention of ___ is available for short term crop loans up to
Rs ____ (Cir 316/18)
A. 3% and up to four lacs B. 2% and up to three lacs
C. 3% and up to two lacs D. All the Above
13. As per RBI, to the input credit linkages and ancillary affiliations, has decided
to temporarily allow banks and NBFCs to classify their exposure, as per the 180
days past due criterion, to all MSMEs, including those not registered under
GST, as a ‘Standard Asset’, subject to the which conditions (cir 317/18)
A. The aggregate exposure, including non-fund based facilities, of banks and
NBFCs to the borrower does not exceed Rs.25.00 crores as on May 31, 2018.
B. The borrower’s account was Standard as on August 31, 2017
C. The payments due from the borrower as on September 1, 2017 and falling due
thereafter up to December 31, 2018 were/are paid not later than 180 days
from their original due date
D. All the above
14. By what time Branch has to report Fraud to Review and Report Section
(cir 318/18)
A. 24 Hours B. 48 Hours C. 72 Hours D. 12 Hours
15. What is Risk Categorizations based on Customer type (cir 323/18)

A. Individual, Salary -- Low
B. Proprietorship, Private Ltd.co. and Corporates – Medium
C. NGOs,Trusts,Association and NRIs -- High
D. All the above
16. What is Risk Rating based on Account Status
A. Active Regular – Low
B. In operative and Dormat – Medium
C. Blocked and un claimed -- High
D. All the above
17. How many Risk Grdes are now (cir 327/18)

A. Three B. Two C. Five D. Four
18. What is the revised guidelines for classification under Priority sector in Metro
City (329/18)
A. Housing Loan limit 45 lacs B. Housing Loan limit 35 lacs
C. Housing Loan limit 28 lacs D. Housing Loan limit 20 lacs
19. What is overall cost of Housing Loan in Metro City under Priority Sector
(329/18)
A. 45 Lacs B. 35 Lacs C. 28 Lacs D. 30 Lacs
20. What is on going Time Lines Loading GC data of relevant GC GLs only in CSGP
every fortnight (333/18)
A. Within one day of end of fortnight
B. Within two day of end of fortnight
C. Within three day of end of fortnight
D. Within four day of end of fortnight
21. Which is not correct regarding commission in Government Business 338/18)

A. Receipt in physical mode per transaction Rs 50/-
B. Receipt in E mode per transaction Rs 12/-
C. Pension payment per transaction Rs 65/-
D. Payments other than pension per Rs 100 turn over 5.5 paise
E. None of these
22. Loans against Share Which is not correct (Cir 343/18)

A. Transfer of securities held in materialized form will not be effected after
8/12/18
B. No frest loans shall be granted against securities held in materialized form
hence forth
C. Requests for effecting transfer of securities shall not be processed unless
securities are held in dematerialized form with a depository.
D. None of these
23. After sanction of Proposal under Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme
(DEDS)- the details as per the template prescribed in the DEDS Ensure Portal
has to be uploaded within___ sanctin to block the eligible subsidy amount.
(cir 350/18)
A. Within 90 days B. Within 60 days
C. Within 30 days D. Within 45 days
24. Who is the implanting agency of DEDS

A. RBI B. NABARD C. State Govt D. All the above
25. What is the subsidy under DEDS

A. Gen 25% B. SC/ST 33.33% C. Both A & B D. None of these
26. What is the margin above Rs one lac in DEDS

A. 25% B. 20% C. 10% D. 15%
27. Bank shall stipulate a condition to the effect that cash flow of the company
may also be monitored by an approved / empanelled firm in case of large
project with (HO Cir 339/2018)
A. Project loan of over Rs. 250 Crore & above from banking system or project
term loan of Rs. 100 crore & above from our bank.
B. Project loan of over Rs. 500 Crore & above from banking system or project
C. Project loan of over Rs. 100 Crore & above from banking system or project
D. Project loan of over Rs. 100 Crore & above from banking system or project
term loan of Rs. 250 crore & above from our bank
28. To address the tail risk for projects including infrastructure and core industries,
repayment period of project loan shall be fixed in manner that loan is fully
completely liquidated within a “Tail period” of (HO Cir 339/2018)
A. 15% in case of ‘Non-infra projects’ and 10% in case of ‘Infra and core industries
projects’.
B. 25% in case of ‘Non-infra projects’ and 20% in case of ‘Infra and core industries
projects’
C. 30% in case of ‘Non-infra projects’ and 10% in case of ‘Infra and core industries
projects’
D. 30% in case of ‘Non-infra projects’ and 15% in case of ‘Infra and core industries
projects’
29. Credit Monitoring Officer (CMO) shall monitor all borrowal accounts with total
credit exposure limits(Fund based + Non fund based) of (HO Cir 339/2018)
A. Rs. 50 lakh and above B. Rs. 100 lakh and above
C. Rs. 200 lakh and above D. Rs. 10 lakh and above
30. In case of immovable property, if valuation is carried out at frequency lesser
than 3 years then value of property shall be taken at (HO Cir 339/2018)
A. 60% of the present value of the property
B. 75% of the present value of the property
C. 85% of the present value of the property
D. 90% of the present value of the property
Keys :
1d 2d 3a 4b 5d 6a
7a 8e 9a 10 d 11 d 12 b
13 d 14 a 15 d 16 d 17 d 18 b
19 a 20 c 21 e 22 d 23 c 24 b
25 c 26 c 27 a 28 b 29 a 30 c
Circular No 351-400:
1. Whether Payment to be made to Third Party Service Providers (Jewel Appriser/

Recovery agents/Advocate etc.) (351/2018)
a) By debiting Misc GC GL.
b) By debiting Special GC GL meant for each Third Party Service Providers.
c) Directly payment made to Third Party Service Providers without routing from
GC GL.
d) None of these
2. Whether Payment to be made to Third Party Service Providers (Jewel Appriser/

Recovery agents/Advocate etc.) (351/2018).
a) After deduction of applicable tax-TDS
b) Without deduction of applicable tax-TDS
c) Tax is not related to tax
d) None of these
3. Borrowal account upto Rs. 10.00 lac, upon slipping to NPA who will order for
investigation ?
a) DGM b) AGM c) GM d) DM
4. Time line to the Banks for agency claim from RBI is reduced to
a) 60 days to 30 days after quarter end.
b) 30 days to 15 day after quarter end
c) 90 days to 60 days after quarter end
d) 6 month to 3 month after quarter end
5. Limit of Canara RuPay Classic Card is

a) 10000 to 300000 b) 5000 to 150000
b) 10000 to 200000 d) 10000 to 100000
6. It is mandatory to compare the financial statements of the company (Corporate

Borrower) from
a) DFS website b) Company website c) Google d) MOCA website
7. Education loan which is sanctioned up to what limit without any collaterals are
eligible to cover under CGFSEL scheme ?
a) 4 lac b) 5 lac c) 7.5 lac d) 10 lac
8. Skill loan which is sanctioned up to what limit without any collaterals are
eligible to cover under CGFSSD scheme ?
a) 100000 b) 150000 c) 200000 d) 250000
9. Detection of how many counterfeit note in single transaction attract immediate
FIR to local Police authority.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 8
10. Package run in currency chest is

a) ICCOMS b) ICIMS c) ICNOS d) ICIMP
11. Insurance on RuPay card extended to

a) March 18 to Jun 18 b) March 18 to Dec 18
c) March 18 to March 19 d) March 18 to Sep 18
12. Insurance Cover on RuPay card for Classic and Platinum Card variant is
a) 50000 and 100000 respectively b) 100000 and 200000 respectively
c) 200000 and 400000 respectively d) 400000 and 800000 respectively
13. Who is the Service Provider of RuPay Card

a) VISA b) MASTER d) DFS d) NPCI
14. Benefit of Insurance Cover available to RuPay card holder under Platinum
Variant, if he perform a successful transaction.
a) Within 45 days prior to date of accident.
b) Within 90 days prior to date of accident.
c) Within 15 days prior to date of accident.
d) Within 30 days prior to date of accident.
15. Benefit of Insurance Cover available to RuPay card holder under Classic Variant,
if he perform a successful transaction.
a) Within 45 days prior to date of accident.
b) Within 90 days prior to date of accident.
c) Within 15 days prior to date of accident.
d) Within 30 days prior to date of accident.
16. Who is the insurance partner for RuPay Insurance Programme of NPCI.
a) United India b) ICICI Lombard c) New India d) TATA AIG
17. Which institute are included in Vidya Turant Scheme as per Cir 366/2018
a) Birla Institute of Technology b) Goenka Institute of Technology
c) IIM Ahmedabad d) IIM Nagpur
18. Which agency is observing the transparency in Works/Purchase/Consultancy/

Contracts etc.
a) CBI b) CID c) CVC d) IB
19. Agency who provide the list of “Approved Transport Operators”
a) Individual Bank b) The Indian Banks’ Association
c) Unions’ of the Bank d) Govt.
20. After modification in Sport Policy which sport is added for Bank Sponsored
Scheme
a) Swimming b) Athletics c) Ball Badminton d)Hockey
21. App which is introduced for Slippage Management and Monitoring.

a) I-Lead b) Recovery App c) Canrites App d) NPA app
22. Recovery App facilitates to employee

a) List of defaulters b) Update Visit
c) Generate Visit Report d) All
23. Branch can register the security interest for movable/immovable property in
CERSAI without fine
a) Within 45 days b) Within 30 days c) Within 15 days d) None
24. Non register the security interest for movable/immovable property in CERSAI
OR delay register shall attract
a) Staff Accountability b) Only fine c) Nothing d) Special Investigation
25. For reversal of ATM transaction. We should use the option

a) GST04 b) ATM50 c) GLM01 d) any of above
26. If our bank customer transacting in our ATM, such transaction is known as
a) Remote on us b) Off us c) on us d) None
27. If other bank customer transacting in our ATM, such transaction is known as
a) Remote on us b) Off us c) on us d) None
28. If excess cash is identified in ATM GL, you have to make

a) IBA and sent to DBS Wing
b) Debit the GL and credit to SL ATM Excess cash
c) Do not do any transaction
d) ATM50 after identify the transaction
29. If we are unable to resolve the ATM related dispute within 7 days
a) Penalty will be levied Rs.100/- per day
b) Penalty will be levied Rs.10/- per day
c) Penalty will be levied Rs.50/- per day
d) No Penalty will be levied
30. ATM cash is treated as branch cash and have to tally
a) Day to day basis b) Fortnightly c) Monthly d) quarterly
31. What NB is used for ATM Cash Balancing Worksheet

a) NB-180 b) NB – 181 c) NB-183 d) NB- 179
32. Admin Card is used for

a) Addition of cash after each servicing.
b) Viewing cash position in ATM without opening of machine.
c) Print the cash position in ATM
d) All of the above
33. Capital Gain Bond Series XII issued by

a) M/s Rural Electrification Corporation (REC)
b) M/s HPCL
c) M/s NHAI
d) M/s Govt. of India
34. Interest rate in Capital Gain Bond Series XII issued by REC
a) 6% b) 6.25% c) 7% d) 5.75%
35. Whether any locking period is there in Capital Gain Bond Series XII issued by
REC
a) Yes 5 years b) Yes 3 yrs c) Yes 4 yrs d) no
36. Capital Gain Bond Series XIX issued by

a) M/s Rural Electrification Corporation (REC)
b) M/s HPCL
c) M/s NHAI
d) M/s Govt. of India
37. Interest rate in Capital Gain Bond Series XIX issued by NHAI
a) 6% b) 6.25% c) 7% d) 5.75%
38. Whether any locking period is there in Capital Gain Bond Series XIX issued by
NHAI
a) Yes 5 years b) Yes 3 yrs c) Yes 4 yrs d) no
39. “No Officer employee shall bring or attempt to bring any political or other
outside influence to bear upon any superior authority to further his interests in
respect of matters pertaining to his service under the Bank”. This is mentioned
in which regulation of Canara Bank Officer Employees’ [Conduct] Regulations,
1976:
a) As per Regulation 15
b) As per Regulation 12
c) As per Regulation 18
d) None
40. “A breach of any of the provisions of regulation 12 that “No Officer employee
shall bring or attempt to bring any political or other outside influence” of
Canara Bank Officer Employees’ [Conduct] Regulations, 1976 comes under
misconduct punishable under the Canara Bank (Discipline and Appeal)
Regulations, 1976.” It comes under which regulation.
a) Regulation 23 b) Regulation 25 c) Regulation 27 d) Regulation 24
41. GST on purchase /sale of foreign currency, in terms of Circular 317/2017, can
be collected through which Fast Path in CBS
a) GST01 b) GST02 c) GST03 d) GST04
42. GST02 option is functional in CBS from which date

a) 1st Aug 2018
b) 15th Aug 2018
c) 1st Sep 2018
d) Yet to be fuctional
43. By using which Fast Path in New Procedure, we can Refund of Commission plus
GST in CBS
a) GST01 b) GST02 c) GST03 d) GST04
44. Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme of Govt. of India is for which type of
Business ?
a) For SME business Center
b) For Establishment of Agri-Clinics & Agri-Business Centers
c) For farmers
d) All
45. Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme of Govt. of India continues for what period
a) 2018-19 b) 2019-20 c) 2020 -21 d) None
46. Currently what is Interest rate on Canara Shikhar deposit (555 days)
a) 7% b) 7.05% c) 7.10% d) None
47. Currently what is Interest rate on Canara Shikhar deposit (444 days)
a) 7% b) 7.05% c) 7.10% d) None
48. What is the interest rate on Canara Tax saver

a) 6% b) 5.5% c) 6.10% d) 6.20%
49. What is the period of Canara Tax Saver Deposit

a) 3 year b) 4 year c) 5 year d) 6 year
50. For financing Directly to Custom Service Units for Harvesting and Transport of
sugarcane, We have to Choose the Product Code
a) 840 Choose “No” from drop down in tab crop loan
b) 840 Choose “Yes” from drop down in tab crop loan
c) 840 Choose “Un applicable” from drop down in tab crop loan
d) None
51. Customer can do which of the following transactions by using our ATMs?
a) Transfer of funds by our Bank Debit card between his/ her own accounts –
within Canara Bank
b) Transfer of funds by our Bank Debit card to Third Party Account –within
Canara Bank.
c) our Bank Credit Card Payment through ATM using our Bank Debit Card
d) All of the above
Answer:-
1 c 9 c 17 d 25 b 33 a 41 b 49 c
2 a 10 a 18 c 26 c 34 d 42 a 50 a
3 a 11 c 19 b 27 b 35 a 43 c 51 d
4 c 12 b 20 a 28 d 36 c 44 b
5 d 13 d 21 b 29 a 37 d 45 b
6 d 14 a 22 d 30 a 38 a 46 c
7 c 15 b 23 b 31 b 39 b 47 b
8 b 16 c 24 a 32 d 40 d 48 d
Circular No 351/18 TO 400/18
CIR: 357/2018:
1. What is the periodicity & cut off limit for FB/NFB , WC Limit, of valuation of
current Assets (Stock Audit) for Low Risk Account
(a). Rs.5 Crore and above (b). Rs.1 Crore and above
(c). Rs.50 Lacs and above (d). None
2. What is the periodicity & cut off limit for FB/NFB , WC Limit, of valuation of
current Assets (Stock Audit) for Normal & Moderate Risk Account
(a). Rs.5 Crore and above (b). Rs.1 Crore and above
(c). Rs.50 Lacs and above (d). None
3. What is the periodicity of Stock Audit in the account having WC above 5 crore.
(a). Yearly (b). Half Yearly (c). 3 Years (d). None
4. What is the periodicity of valuation of fixed asset by panel valuer which has
been obtained as security.
(a). Yearly (b). Half Yearly (c). 3 Years (d). None
5. Bank shall obtain minimum 2 independent valuation reports from 2 empanelled

valuers in respect of loan accounts , where value of the immovable property
taken as security should be.
(a). Rs.10 crore & above. (b). Rs.5 crore & above.
(c). Rs.1 crore & above. (d). None
6. In case the valuation report is more than one year old, the value of fixed assets
as per valuation report is to be pro-rata depreciated as under:
(a). Building - 5% per year (b). Plant & machinery - 15% per year
(c). Vehicle - 20% per year (d). All
7. Such empanelled valuer may be entrusted with valuation assignments relating to

a particular branch for a maximum period .
(a). More than 3 years. (b). More than 1 years.
(c). More than 2 years. (d). None
8. The entrustment of valuation assignment to the empanelled valuers should be

permitted by which Authority.
(a). The Circle Head (b). The RO (c). RO Head (d). None
ANS : 1.a 2.b 3.a 4.c 5.a 6.d 7.a 8.a
CIR: 387/2018:
1. What is the incentive to be paid to the new users of BHIM app ,who successfully
downloads the BHIM app, links the BHIM app with their bank accounts and
undertake 10 unique, successful and valid financial transaction of value of Rs.50
& above.
(a). Rs.50 (b). Rs.100 (c). Rs.150 (d). None
ANS . 1.c
CIR: 388/2018:
1. What is the main feature of acceptance of T&C & LOU in case of BHIM POS
AADHAR machine for Merchant.
(a). New on Board click on sign up & acceptance online.
(b). Existing merchant , signing in application will prompt to T&C acceptance
online.
(c). Future update T & C will be accepted automatically.
(d). All
Ans .1.d
CIR 389/2018:
1. Who are eligible for training/grooming under latest “ Talent bank Scheme”.
(a). Scale I (b). Scale II (c). Both (d). None
2. What is the age limit for the Officals under “ Talent bank Scheme”.
(a). Upto 35 Years for Scale I (b). Upto 40 Years for Scale II
(c). Both (d). None
3. What are the areas covered under “ Talent bank Scheme”.

(a). Credit (b). Forex & Treasury Operation
(c). Recovery management (d). All
4. The eligibility criterias for the selection under “ Talent bank Scheme”are.
(a). Upto 35 Years for Scale I
(b). Upto 40 Years for Scale II
(c). A write up in approx 200 words for why should be selected.
(d). All
ANS : 1.c 2.c 3.d 4.d
CIR:390/2018:
1.What is the facility for registration/Satisfaction of Charge in CERSAI Package.

(a). Hypothecation of movable assets (stock, BD, P& M etc)
(b). Under Construction Property (By an agreement )
(c). Both
(d). none
2. What is the eligibility criteria for covering a Loan/Limit under CGTMSE.

(a). Standard & Regular
(b). Standard
(c). Standard & SMA
(d). None
3. What is the period in which CGTMSE cover may be revived in the case of account
where cover lapsed.
(a). Within same Financial year
(b). Within next quarter.
(c). Within next Financial year.
(d). None
4. Upto what outstanding amount per claim of CGTMSE cover , initiation of legal
action has been waived.
(a). Rs.50000
(b). Rs.25000/-
(c). Rs.100000/-
(d). None
5. What is the maximum amount of cover of CGTMSE under traders Scheme.

(a). 200 L
(b). 100L
(c). 50 L
(d). None
6. What is the additional risk premium of standard rate is to be paid along with
dues & penal interest for revival of lapse CGTMSE cover.
(a). 5 %
(b). 10%
(c). 15 %
(d). None
ANS : 1.b 2.a 3.c 4.a. 5.b 6.c
CIR: 392/2018:
1. At which level DAY-NULM interest subsidy claim is Centralised.

(a). CO Level
(b). HO Level
(c). RO Level
(d). Branch Level.
2. What is the mandatory field for DAY-NULM to be updated to claim the subsidy
through portal .
(a). Email Id
(b). Mobile No
(3). Voter Id
(4). None
3. Which Govt Department has implemented DAY-NULM subsidy Yojna for reducing
the poverty and vulnerability of urban poor households.
(a). Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs , GOI.
(b). Ministry Of Finance , GOI
(c). Ministry of Industry , GOI.
(d). None
4. Under DAY-NULM , financial assistance is provided to beneficiaries by way of

interest subvention on bank loans, for interest rate over and what % charged by
the banks.
(a). 4%
(b). 5%
(c). 7%
(d). None
5. Under DAY-NULM , What % of additional interest subvention are provided to

Women SHGs on prompt repayment of the loan availed .
(a). 2%
(b). 3%
(c). 4%
(d). None
6. Under DAY-NULM, how many statutory towns are covered in total 35 Sates.
(a). 3031
(b). 4000
(c). 4041
(d). None
7. Under DAY-NULM , MoHUA will be crediting the claim amount directly to whom.
(a). Beneficiary with intimation through SMS.
(b). To CO
(c). To RO
(d). To HO
8. Under DAY-NULM , Branches has to convey the Sanction letter for financing
under NULM-SEP in a specified format.
(a). Prepared by Head office of the bank.
(b). In our common Sanction Convey Format.
(c). Specially designed & conveyed by MOHUA
(d). None.
ANS : 1.b 2.b 3.a 4.c 5.b 6.c 7.a 8.c
CIR: 393/2018:
1. The compliances required to financing produce Loans.
(a). KYC
(b). Limit financed should be in accordance to the Land Holding of Farmers.
(c). Should not have any Agriculture Loan with other Banks/FIs.
(d). All of the above.
2. Command Area Norms is applicable to produce Loan , which is upto.

(a). 16 KM (b). 20 KM (c). 18 KM (d). 15 KM
3. Where the hypothecation Board is to be displayed in case of Produce Loan.

(a). In the outside on wall of the premises/warehouse .
(b). In the residence of the farmer (Borrower).
(c). where goods pledged are stored.
(d). None
4. Who will certify the suitability of the Pvt warehouse to be empanelled for
produce Loan.
(a). By Revenue Department (b). By a Practcing Architech
(c). Both (d). None
5. What are the suitability for empanelling PVT Warehouse for produce Loan to
farmers.
(a). A pucca construction with Locking/securityarrangements.
(b). Rat proof
(c). Damp proof flooring
(d). All
6. What are the precaution to be taken while financing produce loan kept in leased
Godown/Warehouse.
(a). Lease period is more than repayment period.
(b). Bank should give notice to warehouse that Goods is pledged to Bank.
(c). Bank to ensure timely/regular payment of rent by farmers.
(d). All
7. As on date to whom Bank is having MOU for financing Produce Loan under
Module 4.
(a). M/s. National Collateral Management Services Ltd (NCML)
(b). M/s. Star Agriware Housing and Collateral Management Ltd .
(c). Both
(d). None
8. What do you mean by Produce Loan to farmer.

(a). Loan against the warehouse receipt for produce .
(b). Loan against hyp of crop.
(c). Loan against the hyp of produce kept at Farmers, House.
(d). None
ANS,. 1. d. 2. a. 3. c. 4. c. 5. d. 6.d 7. c 8. a.
CIR: 394/2018:
1. What is the target per Branch for BHIM QR card as per Department of Financial
Services (DFS, MOI,GOI).
(a). 50 (b). 75 (c).100 (d). None
2. What is the charge (MDR Charge) to be paid by merchant for receiving payment/
collection from customer through BHIM QR Code.
(a). 0.50 % (b). 0.60 % (c). 0.65 % (d). None
3. What is the exemtion amount upto which Merchant discount charge (MDR) in
case of payment through BHIM QR card is waived by DFS,MOI,GOI.
(a). Rs.2000/- (b). Rs.1000/- (c). Rs.1500/- (d). None
4. What is the BHIM QR payment solutions.

(a). An UPI based payment solutions for merchant.
(b). An UPI based payment solutions for Individual.
(c). A UPI payment solution for Mercahnt.
(d). None.
5. Who has permitted the waiver of Merchant discount charge (MDR) charge for all
the transaction having value upto Rs.2000/-.
(a). DFS, MOF, GOI.
(b). RBI
(c). Ministry of Electronic & Information Technology.
(d). None.
ANS. 1.c 2 c 3.a 4.c 5.c
CIR: 395/2018:
1. During Retail Loan Festival from 16/08/2018 to 16/11/2018 , In which Loan
Processing Charges was not waived.
(a). Housing Loan
(b). Canara Budget
(c). Canara Vehicle Loan
(d). Canara Vehicle Loan to Agriculturist.
2. Which was not the talking point of Retail Loan Festival from 16/08/2018 to
16/11/2018.
(a). Waiver of processing charge (b). Competitive ROI.
(c). No pre payment penalty. (d). Concession in ROI for HNI customer.
3. Who were participants in Retail Loan Festival from 16/08/2018 to 16/11/2018.

(a). Branch (b). RO (c). CO (d). All
ANS : 1.(b). 2. (d). 3.(d)
CIR: 396/2018
1. Who is the Non executive chairman of the Bank.

(a). Padamsree MR T N manoharan (b). Mrs P V Bharati
(c). Mr Urjit Patel (d). None
Ans: 1 (a).
CIR: 397/2018:
1.Who is a Whistle blower to report any irregularities in operation area or fraud.
(a). Staff (b). Customer (c). Officers (d). Others
2. How to report in case of whistle blower.

(a). In a closed cover (b). Through Mail
(c). Through Phone (d). Others.
3. To whom a staff should report about irregularities in case of Whistle Blower.
(a). Circle Head (b). General Manager , PM , Wing
(c). Chief vigilance Officer (Bank). (d). Others.
ANS. 1.(a) 2. (a) 3. (c)
CIR NO 399/2018:
1. Who will bear the charges of reappraisal of Gold Jewellery during the RBIA
inspection when Loan account is regular.
(a). Borrower (b). Bank (c). Jewell appraiser (d). None
2. Who will bear the charges of reappraisal of Gold Jewellery during the RBIA
inspection when Loan account is overdue.
3. Who will bear the charges of reappraisal of Gold Jewellery during the surprise
reappraisal of Loan, when Loan account is regular.
4. Who will bear the charges of reappraisal of Gold Jewellery during the surprise
reappraisal of Loan , when Loan account is Overdue.
5. Who will bear the charges of reappraisal of Gold Jewellery during detection of
spurious gold .
6. Who will bear the charges of reappraisal of Gold Jewellery during the
termination of jewel appraiser by the Bank.
7. Who will bear the charges of reappraisal of Gold Jewellery during the
termination of jewel appraiser contract by Jewel appraiser.
8. In which option GSTIN No of Gold Loan Borrower,s running account is updated to
get input credit of GST paid for commission to Jewel Appraiser.
a. BA 020 b. BA 014 c. BA 030 d. None
ANS : 1.b 2.a 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. b
CIR NO 400/2018
1.Preparation of Slips for each transaction is mandatory for.
(a). Maker
(b). Checker
(c). Supervisor
(d). Branch Head
2. Who is having the responsibility of tallying of slips by taking report from CBS.
(a). Teller
(b). Supervisor
(c). Branch Head
(d). RO people.
3. Where the stitch bundle of cash paid vouchers should be kept.

(a). With Supervisor
(b). With Manager (deposit)
(c). With Branch Head
(d). In double lock
4. How the daily slips to be arranged in slips bundle.

(a). Product Wise
(b). Classification wise.
(c). Supervisor Wise
(d). Teller wise
Ans: 1. a 2.a 3. D 4. d
Multiple choice questions
Part I: Questions w.r.t circulars from 401/2018 to 425/2018
1. Voluntary donation made in respect of Chief Minister’s Distress Relief Fund, is

exempt under which section of Income Tax Act 1961. (401/2018)
a. Section 80 CCD (1) b. Section 80 EE
c. Section 80 G (2) (iii hf) d. Section 80 D
2. GST Paid under Reverse Charge Mechanism @ 18% is applicable to….(402/2018)

a. Individual Direct Selling Agents b. NNND agents
c. a or b d. a and b
3. What is the percentage of GST to Goods Transport Agency –consideration for

single consignee more than Rs.750/- under RCM. (402/2018)
a. 18% b. 9% c. 5% d. none of the above
4. The following fees to be payable to the …………………………….. need not be

recovered from customers and needs to be borne by the Bank only. (402/2018)
a. Stock Audit b. Credit Audit
c. Valuation d. None of the above
5. In respect of E Way bill, in case of interstate transfer of goods, GST on the book
value of the goods to be claimed by … (402/2018)
a. Branch at Supplier state b. Branch at recipient state
c. Any of the above d. None of above
6. No of women SHGs under DAY NRLM can be…..(405/2018)

a. 10 to 15 b. 5 to 15
c. 10 to 20 d. 5 to 12
7. For DAY-NRLM special SHGs, i.e……………..there can be a minimum of 5 members.

(405/2018)
a. Groups in difficult areas b. Groups with disabled persons
c. Groups formed in remote tribal areas d. all the above
e. b & c
8. A corpus of ……………………….. in the form of revolving fund (RF) is provided by

DAY-NRLM. (405/2018)
a. Minimum of Rs.5000/- to a maximum of Rs. 20000/-
b. Minimum of Rs.10000/- to a maximum of Rs. 15000/-
c. Minimum of Rs.5000/- to a maximum of Rs. 10000/-
d. None of above
9. Under DAY-NRLM Panchasutra, a good norm for SHG is followed which involves
regular meetings, regular savings, regular internal lending, regular recoveries and
maintenance of proper books of accounts. For such SHGs, which are in existence for
………………….. months, Revolving Fund will be available. (405/2018)
a. 3-6 b. 6-12 c. 6-9 d. 9-12
10. Which of the following is true in respect of DAY NRLM. (405/2018)

a. Capital subsidy of 33% and interest subsidy upto Rs. 3 lakh reducing the
effective payment to 4% in all districts
b. Interest subsidy upto Rs. 3 lakh available in 250 identified districts @
concessional rate of 4% for prompt payment
c. In unidentified districts, for DAY NRLM complaint women SHGs, interest
subvention is to the extent of difference between lending rates and 7% for
loans upto Rs. 3 lakh, as per norms of SRLM.
d. B & C
e. A & B
11. The following is eligible criteria for SHGs under DAY NRLM to avail loans.
(405/2018)
I. SHG should be in active existence at least since the last 6 months as per the
books of account of SHGs and not from the date of opening of S/B account.
II. SHG should be practicing ‘Panchasutras’ i.e. Regular meetings; Regular savings;
Regular inter-loaning; Timely repayment; and Up-to-date books of accounts
III. Qualified as per grading norms fixed by NABARD. As and when the Federations
of the SHGs come to existence, the grading exercise can be done by the
Federations to support the Banks.
IV. The existing defunct SHGs are also eligible for credit if they are revived and
continue to be active for a minimum period of 3 months
a. I & II b. II, III & IV c. I, III & IV d. All the above
12. In case of Cash Credit limits to SHGs under DAY NRLM, which of the following as
regards the drawing power is corrects (405/2018)
a. DP for First Year: 6 times of the existing corpus or minimum of Rs. 1 lakh
whichever is higher.
b. DP for Second Year: 8 times of the corpus at the time review/enhancement or
minimum of Rs. 2 lakh, whichever is higher.
c. DP for Third Year: Minimum of Rs. 3 lakh based on the Micro credit plan
prepared by SHG and appraised by the Federations / Support agency and the
previous credit History.
d. DP for Fourth Year onwards: Minimum of Rs. 5 lakhs based on the Micro credit
plan prepared by SHG and appraised by the Federations/ Support agency and
the previous credit History.
e. All the above.
13. In case of term loans by banks to SHGS under DAY NRLM, the loan amount in
doses is as below: (405/2018)
a. First Dose : 6 times of existing corpus or minimum of Rs. 1 lakh whichever
higher
b. Second Dose: 8 times of the existing corpus or minimum of Rs. 2 lakh whichever
higher
c. Third Dose: Minimum of Rs. 3 lakhs based on the Micro credit plan prepared by
the SHGs and appraised by the Federations/ Support agency and the previous
credit History
d. Fourth Dose: Minimum of Rs. 5 lakhs based on the Micro credit plan prepared
by the SHGs and appraised by the Federations/ Support agency and the
previous credit History
e. All the above
14. In order to facilitate use of loans for augmenting livelihoods of SHG members
under DAY NRLM, it is advised that at least ……………………………………………….. be
used primarily for income generating productive purposes. Micro Credit Plan
(MCP) prepared by SHGs would form the basis for determining the purpose and
usage of loans. (405/2018)
a) 25% of loans above Rs. 1 lakh and 75% of loans above Rs. 4 Lakh
b) 50% of loans above Rs. 2 lakhs and 75% of loans above Rs. 4 lakhs
c) 50% of loans above Rs. 2 lakhs and 50% of loans above Rs. 4 lakhs
d) 75% of loans above Rs. 1 lakh and 50% of loans above Rs. 2 lakhs
e) None of these
15. Repayment schedule for term loans to SHGs under DAY NRLM (405/2018)
a) The First year/ first dose of loan will be repaid in 6-12 months in monthly/
quarterly installments
b) The Second year/ Second dose of loan will be repaid in 12-24 months in
monthly/quarterly installments.
c) The Third year/ Third dose of loan will be repaid in 24-36 months in
monthly/ quarterly installments.
d) The loan from Fourth year/ Fourth dose onwards has to be repaid between
3-6 years based on the cash flow in monthly/ quarterly installments.
e) All the above
16. Under security and Margin norms of loans to SHGs under DAY NRLM, the
following are not correct (405/2018)
a) No collateral or margin is needed upto Rs. 10 lakh. However 10% of total
loan component to be brought as deposit to the bank for marking the lien of
the same towards security component
b) No collateral upto Rs. 10 lakh needed. Also no deposit to be insisted while
sanctioning loans
c) No margin needed upto Rs. 10 lakh.
d) None of above
17. Targets under DAY NRLM- which is not true … (405/2018)
a) 50 % beneficiaries are SC/STs b) 15% are minorities
c) 3% persons are with disabilities d) 33% are women beneficiaries
18. Which is not true w.r.t. funding pattern of DAY NRLM

a) Centre & State: 75:25
b) Centre & State in case of north eastern states including Sikkim : 90:10
c) Centre:100 percent in case of union territories
d) None of above
19. Till the process of PIP (Participatory Identification of Poor) is undertaken

the state, the rural households with atleast one deprivation criteria as per
SECC (Socio Economic Caste Census) list will be targeted under DAY NRLM.
As per framework, ………….% of total membership of the SHG may be among
the population marginally above poverty line , subject to approval of other
members of group. (405/2018)
a) 30 b. 40 c. 33 d. 50
20. Full KYC exercise should be done atleast once in every ………/……../……… years
for …………risk / ………………………..risk / ……………………….risk respectively for
individuals / entities This exercise shall be spread over on quarterly basis as at
January, April, July and October. (407/2018)
a) Two / eight / ten for low / medium / high
b) Two / five / ten for high / medium / low
c) Two / eight /ten for high / medium / low
d) Ten /five/two for high / low / medium
21. The facility of remittance through NEFT for walk-in customers is upto…….
(408/2018)
a. Rs.100000/- b. Rs. 50000/- c. Rs. 75000/- d. Rs.25000/-
e. none of above
22. In respect of areas adversely affected by Natural calamities, relaxations in

KYC permitted to such affected persons by opening BSBD accounts based on
photograph along with signature or thumb impression. Such permission is
applicable in case if balance in account does not exceed Rs………………/- or
relief granted (if higher) & total credit in the account does not exceed Rs.
………………………/-or amount of relief granted (if higher) in year. (409/2018)
a. Rs. 25000/- & Rs. 50000/- b. Rs. 50000/- & Rs.100000/-
c. Rs. 100000/- & Rs. 200000/- d. None of above
23. Relief measures under Natural Calamities including restructuring of advances
should be extended within ………………….. from the date of Natural Calamities.
(409/2018)
a. 90 days b. 60 days c. 30 days d. Immediately
e. there are no time norms as such
24. The following loans accounts are eligible for restructuring in respect of areas
affected with natural calamities. (409/2018)
a. SMA1 b. SMA2 c. Special Watch d. all the above
25. In case of areas affected with Natural Calamities, restructuring needs
to be done as per guidelines. If the crop loss is between 33 to 50%, a
repayment period of upto ……….. years including 1 year moratorium period
has to be allowed. If crop loss is greater than50%, repayment period
of a maximum 5 years can be extended including …………moratorium
period. (409/2018)
a. 2 years and 1 year b.2 years and 2 years c. 3 years and 2 years
d. 3 years and 1 year
26. In regard to natural calamity where crop only is damaged and productive assets
are not damaged, branches /offices may reschedule the payment of instalment
during the occurrence of natural calamities and extend the loan period by
……………….., provided there are no willful defaults of instalments in the earlier
years. (409/2018)
a. 6 months b.2 years c. 1 year d. not permitted
27. In respect of areas affected with natural calamities, if the productive assets
are damaged and the borrower is in need of new loan,…… (409/2018)
a) Not permissible, however the old loans including term loan and crop loans
can be restructured
b) Permissible, however the total loan period including new loan period should
not exceed 7 years
c) Permissible by taking into account old term loan and restructured KCC and
proposed term loan and OCC less government subsidies /compensation from
insurance co.
d) None of above.
28. “Canara Consumption loan” to be extended, to provide relief and to remove

the hardships of existing borrowers who are affected by the consequences of
Natural calamity in Rural and Semi Urban areas, with a maximum ceiling of
Rs………../- per borrower. (409/2018)
a. Rs.15000/- b. Rs.25000/- c. Rs. 50000/- d. none of the above
29. Towards fresh loans to be granted to borrowers in the areas affected by Natural
calamities, the following is correct: (409/2018)
1) Fresh loan may be granted even if value of security (existing & assets to be
acquired from new loan) is less than the loan amount.
2) Credit should not be denied for want of personal guarantee.
3) Where land is taken as security, in the absence of original title records,
certificate from Revenue officials may be accepted for financing farmers who
lost such proofs
4) A margin of 25% stipulated
5) A nominal penal rate of 1% applicable
a. 1, 2 & 4 b. 1, 2 & 3 c. 3, 4 & 5 d. All the above
30. If new deposit is opened by the customer and he is becoming senior citizen
during tenure of the deposit, then the system (CBS-FCR) will print 0.5%
variance ROI from …..(410/2018)
a) The date of becoming senior citizen in the deposit receipt
b) The date of deposit
c) The existing deposits of senior citizens / ex staff senior citizens are to be
handled operationally by the branches as the proposed changes are effective
from 24/07/2018 onwards.
d) a & c
e) b & c
31. EASE –“Enhanced Access and Service Excellence” reforms agenda intends to
serve the following: (412/2018)
a) To encapsulate a synergistic approach to ensuring prudential and clean
lending, better customer service, enhanced credit availability, focus on
MSMEs and better governance.
b) To reiterate the orientation of PSBs to be customer-centric in its dealings.
c) To reposition PSBs as benchmarks of excellence
d) A & B
e) e) All the above
32. EASE-–“Enhanced Access and Service Excellence” reforms agenda has the
following themes: (412/2018)
1. Customer Responsiveness & Responsible Banking
2. Credit offtake & PSBs as Udyamimitra for MSMEs
3. Deepening financial inclusion & Digitalization and ensuring outcomes
4. Improving CASA & profit maximization
a) 1, 3 & 4 b) 1, 2 & 3 c) 2, 3 & 4 d) All the above
33. Annual EASE (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence) Ranking survey is done
by (412/2018)
a) M/s McKinsey & Company b) M/s BCG
c) M/s Bain & Company d) none of the above
34. For an individual to get enrolled under PMJJBY scheme in the month of April,
what is the premium amount (413/2018)
a) Rs. 12/- b) Rs. 330/- c) Rs.86/- d) none of above
35. Lien period in respect of PMJJBY which means that-The claim for deaths which
will occur during first……………days from the date of enrolment will not be paid;
shall be applicable from the date of enrolment. (413/2018)
a) 30 b) 60 c) 15 d) 45 e) None of above
36. Debit to the party’s account towards NEFT / RTGS to be done only by way
of ………. Drawn on any branch and made payable to “Yourselves” (name of
initiating branch) (414/2018)
a) Withdrawal slip b) cheque c) a or b d) none of above
37. Hindi Day is celebrated on. (415/2018)

a) 19th November b) 14th November c) 14th September d)None of above
38. Region wise targets allotted under hindi / Bilingual correspondence. (415/2018)
a) A-100% B-75% & C-55% b) A-100% B-90% & C-55%
b) c) A-100% B-90% & C-75% c) none of the above
39. Under IBA policy scheme for retirees, the following are covered (421/2018)
a) Retirees
b) Spouses of deceased employees who have retired
c) spouses of deceased employees who have died during policy period
d) All
40. What is ATM –On us transaction? (422/2018)

a) Our customer drawing cash in same branch ATM
b) Our customer drawing cash in any ATM of Canara Bank
c) Other Bank customers drawing cash in our ATM
d) A or C
e) A and B both are correct
41. To get Input Tax Credit in the GST regime, which of the following guidelines
need to be complied by branch. (425/2018)
a) Branches/Offices must provide our Bank GSTINs to their Registered Vendors.
b) GST to be paid to Registered Vendors, only if our Bank’s GSTIN is mentioned
in GST Bill/Invoice.
c) All GST payments to Registered Vendors (including Land Lords) must be
made only against their Bill/Invoice and Branch/Office should have received
full goods or services or both.
d) All the employees/officers should ensure capture of our Bank’s GSTIN in
Bills/Invoices, wherever such expenditure is claimed by them from Bank for
Official purposes.
e) All GST payment details should be punched, invoice wise, accurately in Can
Saral GST package (CSGP) by Branches/Offices.
f) All the above
Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D C B A C D B A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D E E B E C D D A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B B A E A C C A B D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
E B B C d b c b D e
41
F
Part II: Questions w.r.t Circulars from 425/2018 to 450/2018
1. No fresh loans/advances shall be granted against securities held in [428/2018]

a. dematerialized form b. materialized form
c. both the above d. none of the above
2. Penalty for issuing of duplicate E-Token is [429/2018]

a.Rs.400/-+GST b. Rs.300/- +GST
c.Rs.200/- +GST d. Rs.100/- +GST
3. Offence listed in the schedule of FUGITIVE ECONOMIC OFFENDER are [430/2018]

a. counterfeiting government stamps or currency
b. transactions defrauding creditors
c. money laundering
d. cheque dishonour
e. all the above
4. ENACTMENT OF THE FUGITIVE ECONOMIC OFFENDERS ACT 2018, The Director
or Deputy Director may provisionally attach any property without the prior
permission of the special court provided that they file an application before the
court within [430/2018]
a. 7 days b. 15 days c. 30 days d. 45 days e. All the above
5. The following Rules have been notified by the Government under FUGITIVE
ECONOMIC OFFENDER are [430/2018]
a. Fugitive Economic offenders (Manner and Conditions for Receipt and Management
of Confiscated Properties) Rules, 2018
b. Fugitive Economic Offenders (Manner of Attachment of Property) Rules, 2018
c.
Fugitive Economic offenders (Procedure for Sending Letter of Request to
Contracting States) Rules, 2018
d. Declaration of Fugitive Economic Offenders (Forms and Manner of Filing of
Application) Rules, 2018
e. All the above
6. Guidelines for getting the eligibility for claim under Central Sector Scheme of
Interest Subsidy on Education Loan, are……[431/2018]
a. Loans are availed for Inland study only
b. Parental Income should not be more than Rs. 4,50,000/- p.a.
c. Submission of Income Certificate issued by designated Income Certificate Issuing
Authorities of State Government is mandatory.
d. All the above
7. What are the guidelines for getting the eligibility for claim under Central Sector
Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Education Loan [431/2018]
a. Loans sanctioned and disbursed from 01.04.2009, which are in moratorium
period during the FY 2017-18 and fulfilling the above conditions are eligible for
claim.
b. Interest subsidy has to be claimed for the interest accrued during FY 2017-18.
c. Loans under management quota are not eligible for subsidy under the CSIS
scheme.
d. All the above
8. Activities assigned to the external agencies for “Field Credit Investigation are
[432/2018]
a. Residence/Address verification & Profession/Employment/Business verification
b. Income/Salary/ITR/ITAO/Form 16 verification
c. Other bank statement and neighbourhood verification & Verification of Approved
Plans/permissions etc
d. All the above
9. Carpet area are enhanced by the Authority under PMAY [433/2018]
a. MIG-I category from 120 Sq. Mtr. to 150 Sq. Mtr.
b. MIG-I category from 120 Sq. Mtr. to 170 Sq. Mtr.
c. MIG-II category from 150 sq.mtr to 190 Sq. Mtr.
d. MIG-II category from 150 sq.mtr to 210 Sq. Mtr.
10. Prepaid Card loaded in excess of the maximum cap for Prepaid Classic Card is
[435/2018]
a. Rs.5000/- b. Rs.10000/- c. Rs.15000/- d. Rs.20000/-
11. Prepaid Card loaded in excess of the maximum cap for Prepaid Plus Card is
[435/2018]
a. Rs.10000/- b. Rs.20000/- c. Rs.40000/- d. Rs.50000/-
12. The Competent Authority has permitted the extension in validity period for
permitting concessional interest under BULC till [437/2018]
a. 28.02.2019 b. 31.01.2019 c. 31.03.2019 d. 30.04.2019
13. Now the thrust by Government of India is on Banks, to achieve ____ crore
Digital transactions [438/2018]
a. 66 b. 72 c. 64 d. 69
14. RBI advised that the name of the purchaser shall be incorporated on the face
of Demand Draft , pay order, Banker’s cheque etc by the issuing bank with
effect from _____ [440/2018]
a. 01.01.2019 b. 01.09.2018 c. 15.09.2018 d. 15.12.2018
15. In order to extend Concession in Rate of Interest for all High Value Agriculture
loan, the security coverage [both Prime + collateral] should be more than ___
[441/2018]
a. 75% b. 100% c. 125% d. 150%
16. Extension of concessional ROI for High Value Agriculture loans granted under
specific identified scheme in potential area for a further period of 1 year is
valid till ____ [441/2018]
a. 31.01.2019 b. 31.03.2019 c. 31.05.2019 d. 31.07.2019
17. Overdraft limit to PMJDY account holder is Rs.___ [442/2018]

a. 5000 b. 8000 c. 15000 d. 10000
18. Age limit of the PMJDY account holder is revised up to [442/2018]
a. 18-60 years b. 18-55 years c. 18-70 years d. 18-65 years
19. Accident insurance cover for new Rupay card holders is Rs.__ for new PMJDY
account [442/2018]
a. 1 lakh b. 3 lakh c. 2 lakh d. 4 lakh
20. Credit Card can not be renewed automatically if the instances of TOD in SB
account is for more than __ instance. [443/2018]
a. 4 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1
21. Multiple Credit cards of different variant / Network Associate can be issued
up to _ cards per customer within the overall credit card limit based on gross
annual income of the individual [443/2018]
a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
22. Market research survey on customer and branch infrastructure on behalf of

Indian Bank Association for PSB reform are done by _____ [444/2018]
a. M/s BCG b. M/s Mc Kinsey & Company
c. M/s Kantar IMRB d. M/s Bain & Company
23. Foreign Currency Credit Exposure specifies for compliance of which of the
following guidelines. [445/2018]
a. FCLR/FC component of credit exposure outstanding at our branches will be
maintained & monitored both in FC & NR
b. For translation purpose, liability shall be maintained in INR equivalent by
applying MTM rate.
c. For tracing overdue/breaches, Rupee equivalent need not be reckoned and
limit shall be FC amount sanctioned
d. A & B
e. All the above
24. Minimum area[in CM2] of Rs.2000/- denomination note required for payment of
full value is [446/2018]
a. 78 b. 88 c. None of the above d. All the above
half value is [446/2018]
full value is [446/2018]
27. Minimum area [in CM2] of Rs.500/- denomination note required for payment of
half value is [446/2018]
28. Minimum area [in CM2] of Rs.20/- [New MG Series] denomination note required
for payment of full value is
29. To get the interest subvention for all eligible accounts, which of the following
guidelines to be adhered to..? [447/2018]
a. Marking interest subvention flag and updating crop cultivating amount in
ALM35
b. To generate BO Report 280093 to ensure the same on daily basis.
c. All the above
30. As per RBI, in term of CTS procedural guidelines with respect to P2F, the
branches are required to send physical instrument [Paper Form] along with
scanned image to drawee banks in which of the following situation? [448/2018]
a. Govt Cheque
b. Image quality assessment failure
c. When the instrument is returned by the drawee bank with return code 39 &
40.
d. All the above
31. Which of the following directions of RBI to be complied by Banks to ensure

any fund flow from donor agency “STITCHING GREENPEACE COUNCIL,
NETHERLANDS”, to any person/NGO/organisation in India? [450/2018]
a. Should be brought to the notice of Ministry of Home Affairs.
b. Only after clearance / prior permission from Ministry of Home Affairs
c. funds are allowed to be credited to the accounts of the recipient
d. all the above
32. To ensure profit / loss in Balance Sheet correctly, branch to review [439/2018]
a. Interest paid on deposit b. Interest collected on Advances
c. Commission & General Charges d. All the above
33. Which returns of BASEL III are to be submitted along with Balance Sheet
[439/2018]
a. Return No. 4A b. Return No. 4B
c. Return No. 4C d. All the above
Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C E C E D D D E B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D C C C B D D D C B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C E B B B B B C D
31 32 33
D D D
MCQ on HO Circulars 451/2018 to 475/2018
HO Cir 451/2018
1. Which one of the following is the correct ROI for loans against other approved
securities other than our own deposits up to Rs 5,00,000.00 to Officer
employees?
a. One year MCLR + 0.10% b. One year MCLR + 0.20%
c. One year MCLR + 0.30% d. One year MCLR + 0.50%
2. Which one of the following is the correct ROI for loans against other approved
securities other than our own deposits above Rs 5,00,000.00 to workmen
employees?
a. One year MCLR + 1.05% b. One year MCLR + 1.15%
c. One year MCLR + 1.25% d. One year MCLR + 1.35%
3. Which one of the following is the correct ROI for loans against our own deposits
above Rs 5,00,000.00 up to Rs 10,00,000.00 to our employees?
a. 0.50% above ROI paid on deposit b. 0.75% above ROI paid on deposit
c. 1.00% above ROI paid on deposit d. 1.25% above ROI paid on deposit
HO Cir 452/2018
4. As per RBI stipulation, 2 factor authentication for online card transactions is
waived involving sums up to :
a. Rs 1000.00 b. Rs 2000.00 c. Rs 3000.00 d. Rs 5000.00
HO Cir 454/2018
5. The
Group Personal Accident Insurance Policy for employees under Staff Welfare
Measure is taken by our Bank with:
a. United India Insurance Company Ltd
b. New India Assurances Company Ltd
c. National insurance Company Ltd
d. Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Company Ltd
6. Choose
the correct insurance cover for death under The Group Personal Accident
Insurance Policy with respect to Scale II & III for rest of India:
a. Rs 300000.00 b. Rs 400000.00 c. Rs 550000.00 d. Rs 600000.00
7. Under
the Group Personal Accident Insurance Policy for employees under Staff
Welfare Measure, the compensation for loss of hearing in both ears is
a. 25% of capital sum insured b. 50% of capital sum insured
b. 75% of capital sum insured d. 100% of capital sum insured
HO Cir 458/2018
8. ET
& T (Executor, Trustee & Taxation) Section which files Statement on GST for
Bank as a whole comes under the following Wing at Head Office:
a. Department of Information Technology Wing
b. Credit Administration & Monitoring wing
c. Financial Management & Subsidiaries wing
d. Risk management Wing
HO Cir 460/2018
9. As per Standard Operating procedure, the designated Nodal Office for handling
RTGS Transactions to unintended beneficiaries is:
a. RTGS & NEFT Section, Digital Banking Services Wing
b. RTGS Section, Integrated Treasury wing
c. Clearing section, Mumbai
d. Payment Systems Group, Department of Information Technology Wing
HO Cir 461/2018
10. As per the decision of Government of India, the interest rates for Small Saving
Schemes are declared on :
a. Quarterly basis b. Half Yearly basis
b. Annually d. None of the above
HO Cir 463/2014
12. The Web Portal www.udyamimitra.in on Stand-up India is operate and maintain
by
a. KVIC b. SIDBI c. RBI d. IDRBT
13. The ROI on the Small Savings Schemes is generally notified by

a. Department of Economic Affairs, MOF, Government of India
b. Department of Revenue, Government of India
c. DFS, MOF, Government of India
d. Department of Expenditure, Government of India
HO Cir 465/2018
14. The minimum amount of investment in Kisan Vikas Patra, 2004 Scheme is
a. Rs 500.00 b. Rs 1000.00 c. Rs 5000.00 d. Rs 10000.00
HO Cir 466/2018
15. Which of the following statements on GST TDS is/ are incorrect?
a. TDS under GST on taxable Goods and services should be deducted @2% of
the bill amount excluding GST component, cess on all payments to vendors
registered under GST.
b. The value of the taxable supply in a contract entered into with registered
vendor is more than Rs 250000.00
c. GST-TDS deducted on eligible payments where the invoice has been issued
after 01.10.2018.
d. GST TDS need not be collected for payments for services under Reverse Charge
Mechanism and also payments to unregistered vendors.
a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,4 c. 2,3,4 d. None of the above
16. Identify the correct number of days within which from the end of the previous
month the GST-TDS is to be paid to the Government by the deductor?
HO Cir 472/2018
17. Bank has devised a scheme under special package under Retail lending schemes
to the employees of India’s premier educational institutions/ colleges and
central universities which are financed by MHRD through higher education
financing agency (HEFA) on all India basis. The validity of the above special
package is up to:
a. 31.08.2019 b. 30.09.2019 c. 31.10.2019 d. 30.11.2019
18. As per the special package under Retail Lending Schemes to the employees of
India’s premier educational institutions/ colleges and central universities, the
maximum amount that respective branches can sanction is:
a. 10 months gross salary subject to a maximum of Rs 10.00 lacs
b. 20 months gross salary subject to a maximum of Rs 10.00 lacs
c. 10 months gross salary subject to a maximum of Rs 15.00 lacs
d. 20 months gross salary subject to a maximum of Rs 15.00 lacs
HO Cir 475/2018
19. Choose the correct schedule of Fee/ Incentive payable to DSA for sourcing
Housing loan proposals of loans/ limits of below Rs 50.00 lacs is _________ % of
the loan amount?
a. 0.15 b. 0.20 c. 0.25 d. 0.30
Housing loan proposals of loans/ limits of Rs 50.00 lacs and above:
a. 0.30% of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs 1.00 lacs per proposal.
b. 0.35%of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs 1.00 lacs per proposal.
c. 0.30% of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs 1.25 lacs per proposal.
d. 0.35% of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs 1.25 lacs per proposal.
takeover Housing loan proposals of loans/ limits of less than Rs 50.00 lacs is
_________ % of the loan amount?
a. 0.15
b. 0.20
c. 0.25
d. 0.30
takeover Housing loan proposals of loans/ limits of Rs 50.00 lacs and above:
a. 0.30% of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs 1.10 lacs per proposal.
b. 0.35%of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs 1.10 lacs per proposal.
c. 0.30% of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs 1.25 lacs per proposal.
d. 0.35% of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs 1.25 lacs per proposal.
Answer key
1 D, 2 C, 3 C, 4 B, 5 B, 6 B, 7 C, 8 C, 9 B, 10 A, 11 B, 12 A,
13 B, 14 B, 15 B, 16 B, 17 B, 18 D, 19 C, 20 A, 21 D 22 B
Circulars 476/2018 to 500/2018
1. Beneficiary family for the purpose of Loans under PMAY eligible for CLSS shall be
(476/2018)
a. Husband and wife only
b. All members of the family including parents
c.
Husband, wife and unmarried children including adult earning member
(irrespective of marital status).
d. Husband, wife and minor children only
2. Under PMAY – EWS / LIG / MIG – I & II, spouse or major legal heirs has to join the
loan, if the age of the Family Head / Beneficiary is more than….. (476/2018)
a) 65 years b) 60 years c) 55 years d) 50 years
3. What are the NTH Salary/Income criteria under PMAY Urban Scheme? (476/18)
a. NTH of 40%
b. 40 % of NTH after considering EMI of the proposed loan
c. 25% of the Gross Salary after considering the EMI of the proposed loan and other
EMIs subject to minimum amount of net income shall be Rs. 10,000/- p.m.
d. 25% of the Gross Salary after considering the EMI of the proposed loan
4. CLSS under PMAY is being implemented by (476/18)

a. All Metro & urban branches in the country
b. All Metro, Urban, Semi urban and Rural branches subject to acquiring property
located in statutory towns and panning area only.
c. Only in Select Rural and Semi urban branches
d. All Metro, Urban and Semi urban branches in the country
5. The tenure of PMAY Urban (CLSS) scheme to Middle Income Group beneficiaries’
w.e.f. 01.01.2017 and will be in operation upto… (476/18)
a. 31.03.2018 b. 31.03.2019 c. 01.01.2019 d. 31.03.2020
6. In case of CLSS PMAY, at the time of availing the loan, minimum percentage and
minimum amount of Net Income / NTH shall be stipulated at----- (476/18)
a. 25 % and Rs 10000/- p.m. b. 35 % and Rs 15000/- p.m.
c. 40 % and Rs 20000/- p.m. d. 55 % and Rs 25000/- p.m.
7. In case of Housing Loans where Project Cost exceeds Rs. 10.00 lakhs, maximum
loan amount shall be calculated on the lower of the following values subject to
compliance of LTV Ratio and margin….. 477/18)
a. Value mentioned in agreement for sale and Current Market Values as per the
latest Valuation report.
b. Value mentioned in agreement for sale plus GST shall be added as part of
Project Cost and Current Government Value.
c. V
alue mentioned in agreement for sale plus GST shall be added as part of Project
Cost excluding Stamp duty, Registration Charges and other documentation
charges and Current Market Values as per the latest Valuation report.
d.
Value mentioned in agreement for sale including Stamp duty, Registration
Charges plus GST shall be added as part of Project Cost and Current Market
Values as per the latest Valuation report.
8. “PSB LOANS IN 59 MINUTES” a Digital Platform put into operation to apply and
get “in-Principle Sanction” for Business Loans within 59 minutes nowwithout any
physical contact with Bank Branch for … (480/18)
a. MSME loans from Rs. 10.00 Lakhs to Rs. 100 Laks
b. MSME loans from Rs. 25.00 Lakhs to Rs. 100 Laks
c. MSME loans from Rs. 10.00 Lakhs to Rs. 200 Laks
d. MSME loans from Rs. 25.00 Lakhs to Rs. 200 Laks
9. Processing Charges/Upfront fee for “PSB LOANS IN 59 MINUTES” a Digital

Platform put into operation to apply and get “in-Principle Sanction” for Business
Loans within 59 minutes without any physical contact with Bank Branch is…
(480/18)
a. Processing Charges 0.45% + applicable taxes and Upfront fee 0.75% + applicable
taxes.
b. No Processing Charges or Upfront fees.
c. Processing Charges 0.50% + applicable taxes and Upfront fee 1% + applicable
taxes.
d. Processing Charges 0.50% + applicable taxes and Upfront fee 0.75% + applicable
taxes.
10. In Phase 1,eligibility criteria for “PSB LOANS IN 59 MINUTES” a Digital Platform
put into operation to apply and get “in-Principle Sanction” for Business Loans
within 59 minutes without any physical contact with Bank Branch is… (480/18)
a. Customers registered in GST with maximum eligible loan upto 1 Cr.
b. Customers registered in GST and have filed ITR with maximum eligible loan
upto 1 Cr.
c. Customers who have filed ITR with maximum eligible loan upto 2 Cr.
d. None of the above.
11. “PSB LOANS IN 59 MINUTES” a Digital Platform put into operation to apply and
get “in-Principle Sanction” for Business Loans within 59 minutes without any
physical contact with Bank Branch has following silent features: (480/18)
1. MSME loans from Rs. 25.00 Lakhs to Rs. 100 Laks
2. Processing Charges 0.45% + applicable taxes and Upfront fee 0.75% + applicable
taxes.
3. Eligible Customers are - GST registered and has filed ITR.
4. Applicant will have option to offer collateral security or to be covered under
CGTMSE or both as hybrid security loan.
a. 1& 2 are correct b. 1,2&3 are correct
c. None of the above are correct. d. All the above statements are correct.
12. Which of the following statements are correct: (488/2018)

1. All EL sanctioned upto limit of Rs. 7.50 lakhs without any collateral security/
third party guarantee are eligible for coverage under CGFSEL scheme.
2. Skill Loans sanctioned upto limit of Rs. 1.50 lakhs without any collateral
security/third party guarantee are eligible for coverage under CGFSSD scheme.
3. All EL and Skill loans sanctioned upto limit of Rs. 7.50 lakhs without any collateral
security/third party guarantee are eligible for coverage under CGFSEL scheme.
4. All EL and Skill loans sanctioned upto limit of Rs. 7.50 lakhs without any collateral
security/third party guarantee are eligible for coverage under CGFSSD scheme.
a. Only 1 is correct b. 1& 2 are correct
c. 1,2&3 are correct d. None of the above is correct.
13. As per revised operational guidelines for PMFBY/RWBCIS there is provision of
penalties/incentives for states, Insurance Companies (ICs) and Banks are as
below: (492/18)
1. 12% interest to be paid by the ICs to farmers for delay in settlement of claims
beyond 2 months of prescribed cutoff date.
2. State Govt. has to pay 12% interest for delay in release of state share of
subsidy beyond 3 months of prescribed cutoff date/submission of requisition by
Insurance Companies.
a. Only 1 is correct b. 1& 2 are correct
c. Only 2 is correct d. None of the above is correct.
14. Eligibility income criteria for Mastercard- WORLD Credit Card is.. (493/18)
a. Gross Annual Income of Rs. 10.00 lakhs
b. Net Annual Income of Rs. 10.00 lakhs
c. Net Annual Income of Rs. 7.50 lakhs
d. Gross Annual Income of Rs. 7.50 lakhs
15. The new global limits introduced in Internet Banking- Corporate module are:
(494/18)
a. Corporate Standard/Silver/Gold/Platinum limit.
b. Corporate Standard/Silver/Gold/Customized limit.
c. Corporate Bronze/Silver/Gold/Platinum limit.
d. Corporate Standard/Silver/Gold/Premium limit.
16. Overdraft limit to PMJDY account holder is.. (498/18)
a. Rs. 1000/- b. Rs. 5000/- c. Rs. 10000/- d. Rs. 50000/-
17. Age limit for PMJDY Overdraft limit is... (498/18)

a. 18-60 years b. 18-65 years c. 18-70 years d. 18-55 years
18. Accounts which are operated satisfactorily for at least six months are eligible
for OD limit without any conditions up to Rs. … (498/18)
a. Rs. 1000/- b. Rs. 5000/- c. Rs. 2000/- d. Rs. 10000/-
19. Period of Sanction for Overdraft limit to PMJDY account holder is... (498/18)
20. The PMJDY OD facility is to be covered under CGTMSE scheme. Guarantee

cover up to …. of default amount is available under the scheme.. (498/18)
a. 60% b. 50% c. 75% d.100%
21. Card holder can convert his purchases above Rs….. to an EMI payment option
under “CANARA SAATHI” a credit card self-service app…(500/18)
a. 50000/- b. 5000/- c. 10000/- d.75000/-
22. Under PMAY, borrower/s are Salaried youth aged between 21-45 years working
for the Central/State Government etc, respective Sanctioning Authority may
sanction the loan up to their sanctioning delegated powers, compliance of
confirmed service with 2 years as under (476/18)
a. 60 times of gross monthly salary or 5 times of gross annual income
b. 72 times of gross monthly salary or 6 times of gross annual income
c. 48 times of gross monthly salary or 4 times of gross annual income
d. 36 times of gross monthly salary or 3 times of gross annual income
KEYS :
1c 2c 3c 4b 5b 6a 7c
8b 9a 10 b 11 d 12 b 13 b 14 a
15 b 16 c 17 b 18 c 19 d 20 a 21 b
22 b
Circular 501/18 TO 550/18
1. What is meant by i-lead(inspiring lead system)? (504/18)

a. a desktop version for use by all staff members with the objective of inculcating
marketing culture amongst them.
b. System software for leadership ability.
c. Education loan information system.
2. What is the periodicity of RBIA of PCBs(prime corporate branches)?(507/2018)

a. 12 months.
b. The periodicity of 12 months shall be irrespective of inherent risk & composite
risk rating of PCB
c. Risk rate is HIGH under composite risk rating the periodicity shall be 6 months
d. All the above.
3. Expansion of ‘EASE’ (512/18)

a Enhances access and Service Excellence.
4. What is the present One year MCLR?

a. 8.50% b. 8.55% c. 8.60% d. 8.35%
5. What is meant by ‘ITPC’?

a. International Travel Prepaid card
b. International Travel Post payment card
c. International Travel Post parcel card
6. ‘ASM’ Agency of Specified Monintoring.

a. for clean and effective post sanction follow up
b. aspects requiring domain expertise(e.g inspection and stock audit)
c. large credit exposure(above Rs. 250cr)
d. all the above
7. What are the new changes in Loan Direct account opening(LN057)(524/18)
a. new drop down values are introduced in agri loan / advance purpose fiels.
b. Farm credit, agriculture infrastructure and ancillary activities.
c. Existing drop down values are removed.
d. All the above.
8. What are the new values in CHM07-OD limit master maintenance?(524/18)
a. OD MSME b. Farm Credit
c. Agri infrastructure d. Ancillary activities and other non-priority
e. all the above.
9. What are the changes in Business Correspondent Hybrid Model?(527/18)

a. BC to open Current Account in base branches.
b. system generated receipts are to be issued.
c. Both the above options
10. What is meant by PSB loans in 59 minutes?(538/18)

a. Help and reach out to the diligent taxpayers of the country
b. to support the initiative digital portal for lending
c. in principle sanction without going to any bank branch.
d. can opt for loans through ‘psbloansin59minutes.com’
e. all the above
11. What are the changes in One Time Settlement (OTS) package for recovery?
(510/18)
a.Follow up of OTS accounts for full recovery.
b. Monitoring OTS done and tracking recovery in OTS settled accounts.
c. Monitoring conduct of adalat and the recovery made
d. Evaluation of recovery made under specific OTS schemes.
e. All the above
1 a 2 d 3a 4d 5a 6d 7d 8e 9c 10 e
11 e
CIR NO: 551/2018 TO 600/18
1. AURUM FESTUM relates to….
a. Special Agriculture Recovery Campaign
b. Special Agriculture Gold Loan Campaign
c. Special MSME Loan Campaign
d. Special CASA Campain
e. None of these.
2. As per the Traditional Insurance Policy viz., Bankers Indemnity Policy what is the
sum insured per ATM in case of loss of cash/items deposit in ATMs?
a. Rs.15 lakhs per event. b. Rs.20 lakhs per event.
c. Rs.10 lakhs per event. d. Rs.6 lakhs per event.
e. None of these.
3. Bank has renewed the Traditional Insurance Policy with _____Insurance

Company.
a. M/s United Indian Insurance co Ltd.
b. M/s New India Assurance Company Ltd.
c. M/s Canara HSBC OBC
d. M/s Life Insurance corporation of India Ltd.
e. None of these.
4. As per latest Amendment of companies Act Registration of Charge with ROC what
is the Normal Period?
a. 30 days from the date of creation of charge.
b. 60 days from the date of creation of charge.
c. 120 days from the date of creation of charge.
d. 300 days from the date of creation of charge.
e. None of these.
5. The Recent Government of India initiate that Ease of financing under MSME,
under Digital Platform is?
a. MSME Loan immediately.
b. PSB Loans in 59 minutes
c. PSB Loans in 60 minutes.
d. PSB Loans in 24 hours.
e. None of these.
6. Under PMMY what is the maximum finance to Micro Enterprises?

a. Up to Rs.2 lakhs.
b. Up to Rs.5 lakhs.
c. Up to Rs.10 lakhs.
d. Up to Rs.25 lakhs.
e. None of these.
7. Under a Digital Platform of PSB Loans in 59 Minutes what is Minimum and
Maximum Loan quantum?
a. Min Rs.25 lakhs and Max Rs.200 lakhs.
b. Min Rs.25 lakhs and Max Rs.100 lakhs.
c. Min Rs.10 lakhs and Max Rs.Rs.100 lakhs.
d. Min Rs.5 lakhs and Max Rs.100 lakhs.
e. None of these.
8. Under ‘PSB Loans in 59 minutes’ if client submits ITR4 with a option of

presumptive income scheme having turnover of Rs.2 crores, where no financial
statements will be available, what is maximum quantum of loan can be
financed?
a. Up to Rs.100 lakhs. b. Up to Rs.50 lakhs.
c. Up to Rs.40 lakhs. d. Up to Rs.25 lakhs.
e. Up to Rs.10 lakhs.
9. What is additional / preferential interest rate applicable to Senior Citizens for

opening of FCNR (B) Deposits?
a. 0.15% b. 0.25% c. 0.50% d. 1.00% e. None of these.
10. Credit Guarantee Scheme of CGTMSE guarantee cover for MSE Retail Trade
what is Maximum Limit?
a. Up to Rs.10 lakhs. b. Up to Rs.50 lakhs.
c. Up to Rs.100 lakhs. d. Up to Rs.200 lakhs.
e. Up to None of these.
11. Who are the employees covered under ‘Be away from Desk’?
a. All POs who do not have sufficient leave of 10 days to their credit.
b. Clerical cadre employees holding second set of Double Lock kes.
c. Any other positions considered to be highly sensitive by Bank.
d. All the above.
e. None of these.
12. How many days leave is to be availed by an employee continuously for ‘Be
away from Desk Policy’.
a. 5 days. b. 10 days. c. 15 days.
d. Discretion of Branch in charge. e. None of these.
13. How many days leave to be availed under Mandatory Leave Concept?
a. Employee should undergo to continuous days of leave in a single spell.
b. Employee can be in training for 10 working days in a single spell.
c. Deputation to other branch for continuous 10 days.
d. All the above.
e. None of these.
14. What is the policy guidelines with respect to oral instructions given by higher
officials?
a. Superior / Higher Authority shall confirm the same in writing.
b. Superior / Higher Authority shall Mention the guidelines / Instructions under
which he exceeds powers in writing.
c. It can be by way of Fax or e mail
d. All the above.
e. None of these.
15. What is the age criteria for empanelling of Retired employees as ERO?
a. He shall be a Minimum age of 60 years.
b. He shall be not more than 65 years.
c. He shall be not more than 63 years.
d. He shall be not more than 70 years.
e. None of these.
16. Who are Eligible to appoint as ERO?

a. Employee Retired as scale II to Scale V on superannuation.
b. At least Completed Service not less than 20 years.
c. Should not had received any penalty during last 3 years prior to their retirement.
d. Who are rated as very good and above for last 3 years before retirement.
e. All the above.
f. None of the above.
17. What is the Maximum age criteria to continue as ERO?

a. Upto the age of 65 years. b. Maximum period of 3 years.
c. a & b above. d. a only
e. none of these.
18. As per IBA group Medical Insurance Scheme for Retirees / Spouse of the
Deceased employee, what is Maximum ceilings for room and Boarding expenses?
a. Rs.5000/- per day. b. Rs.4000/- per day.
c. Rs.3000/- per day. d. No such ceiling.
e. None of these.
19. What is the location criteria to cover the farmers under PMFBY?
a. It should in place where farmer residing.
b. It should be where farmer availed loan.
c. Where Insurable land is located in the respective state specific policy or NCTP
to be used.
d. All the above.
e. None of these.
20. What is cutoff date for replacing Magnetic strip card by EMV chip card?
a. 31-03-2019. b. 28-02-2018. c. 31-12-2018. d. No such cut off.
e. None of these.
21. For opting Sweep out facility by an Individual what is Minimum Balance to be
maintained?
a. Rs.1000/- b. Rs.5000/- c. Rs.10000/-. d. Rs.15000/-.
e. None of these.
22. For opening of Company Accounts what are all the certified copies of
documents to be obtained?
a. Certificate of Incorporation.
b. Memorandum & Articles of association (MOA & AOA)
c. Board Resolution.
d. All the above.
e. b & c above.
23. If a customer Opened SB General account through CANARA DIYA app and not
submitted the KYC details to the home branch then account will be closed
automatically, WHEN?
a. On the expiry of One Year. b. On the expiry of six months.
c. On the expiry of three months. d. On the expiry of 30 days.
e. None of these.
24. What is the Interest rate Cap for CGTMSE coverage?

a. 14% including cost of guarantee cover.
b. 12% including cost of guarantee cover.
c. Above MCLR
d. Interest rate changed as per RBI Guidelines.
e. None of these.
25. What is the Minimum Loan Limit criteria for Retail Trade loans to cover under
CGTMSE?
a. 10 lakhs b. 1 lakh c. 100 lakhs d. No floor limit e. none of these.
26. Which one of the following is in order as per policy on use of Social Media /
Electronic Media / Internet Blogs of Canara Bank?
a. Using of Name or Logo of Canara Bank for sharing of any Information in the
Interest of Public in social Media.
b. Employees are permitted to create Profiles Blogs which are useful for farmers
or unorganized sectors in the name of Canara Bank or its logo.
c. Employees can participate online poling campaigns / groups for social reasons
in the name of Canara Bank.
d. No employee shall criticize or comment on the Management of the Bank or
the Business process or policies of Bank on any internet site or social media.
e. None of these.
27. Who can Report unethical practices and frauds under whistle Blower
Mechanism?
a. Employees b. Customers c. Any person d. all the above
e. none of these.
28. The complaint under Whistle Blower Policy can be addressed to?
a. To Branch Manager. b. To Head of Regional Office of the Jurisdiction.
b. Circle Head d. GM & CVO of Vigilance Wing.
e. None of these.
29. Who can condone the delay for filing security interest in Cersai beyond 30
days?
a. Central Registry (CERSAI). b. Government of India.
b. Reserve Bank of India. d. Respective Bank Board
e. None of these.
30. Who can condone the delay for filing of Security Interest with CERSAI beyond
60 days of creation?
a. Central Registry (CERSAI) b. Head of Office – Board of Directors.
c. Reserve Bank of India. d. Government of India.
e. None of these.
31. Which of the following forms are Mandatory while opening PMJDY accounts?
a. MITC (MOST Important Terms & Conditions)
b. FACTA (Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act)
c. CRS (Common Report Standards)
d. All the above.
e. b and c above.
32. Who can receive complaint at vigilance wing, HO under PIDPI.(Public Interest
Disclosure and Protection of Informers’)
a. GM & CVO
b. AGM / DGM
c. Divisional Manager Overseas vigilance wing
d. Any one of the above.
e. None of these.
Keys :
1b 2a 3b 4a 5b 6c 7e 8c 9e
10 c 11 d 12 a 13 d 14 d 15 c 16 e 17 c 18 b
19 c 20 c 21 d 22 d 23 a 24 d 25 d 26 d 27 d
28 d 29 a 30 d 31 e 32 b
Cir 04/2019
1) The respective sanctioning authority can consider fresh loan proposals upto their
delegated powers if the risk grade allotted is upto high risk in case of
a) For accounts closed under Govt. Debt waiver scheme where is no sacrifice
involved from bank
b) Overdue/ NPA loan accounts closed by the borrower with our bank, within 1
year from the date of receipt of debt waiver amount
c) Both a & b
Cir 05/2019
2) What is the maximum limit per buyer in TREDs platform upto which, Bank can
bid against each buyer
a) Rs 1 Cr b) Rs 2 Cr c) Rs 5 Cr d) Rs10 Cr
Cir 06/2019
3) All education loan sanctioned upto Rs7.50 lacs with collateral security and third
party guarantee to be covered under
a. CGFSEL
b. CGFSSD
c. CGTMSE
d. Not eligible to be covered under guaratee scheme
Cir 10/2019
4) Annual Guarantee Gee for CGTMSE covered accounts will be charged on _____
amount for credit facilities sanctioned/ renewed on or after 01.04.2018
a. The outstanding loan amount b. The guaranteed loan amount
c. None of the above d. a & b
Cir 12/2019
5) Legal audit report is to be obtained fom the panel advocate other than advocate
who have given LSR, within ___________ months
a) After 24 months before 36 months b. After 36 months before 54 months
c) Within 36 months d. None of the above
6) Charges with CERSAI to be registered within ________ days

a) Within 30 days of sanction of loan
b) Within 30 days of creation of mortgage
c) Within 30 days from the date of disbursement
d) Within 60 days from creation of mortgage
7) For sanctioning DPN loan to employees Net take salary should not be less
than____% of the gross emoluments at the time of sanction after deducting
Proposed EMI per month
a) Should not be less than 25% of the gross emoluments
b) Should not be less than 40% of the gross emoluments
c) Should not be less than 15% of the gross emoluments
8) What is the quantum of loan can be sanctioned to officers Sc I-III for DPN and OD
a) One & Half months gross salary for every completed year of service with a
maximum of 15 months gross salary or Rs 10 lacs whichever is lower
b) One & Half months gross salary for every completed year of service with a
maximum of 15 months gross salary or Rs 10 lacs whichever is higher
c) One & Half months gross salary for every completed year of service with a
maximum of 10 months gross salary or Rs 10 lacs whichever is lower
d) One & Half months gross salary for every completed year of service with a
maximum of 10 months gross salary or Rs 10 lacs whichever is higher
9) Under DAY- NULM; Group Enterprises (SEP-G) minimum number of members must
be_____for loans and subsidy
a) Minimum 2 members b) Minimum 5 members
c) Minimum 10 members d) None of the above
CIRCULAR 21/2019-
10) The security with lien on term deposits with the Bank in the name of third
parties i.e., credit facilities to other than the depositor against their own
deposits shall be only in the form of:-
a) Prime Security b) Collateral Security
c) Third party security d) None of the above
CIRCULAR 22/2019-
11) What is HEFA?
a) Higher Education Financing Agency b) Higher enrollment fees agency
c) Hexa economic financial appraisal d) None of the above
CIRCULAR 24/2019-
12) Restriction of having maximum of 2 DPN accounts is -----------
a) Withdrawn b) Continuing c) All of the above
CIRCULAR 24/2019-
13) What is the enhanced limit of OD-Staff? Tick the wrong one among the
following:-
a) Scale IV to VI- 4.00 lakhs b) Scale I to III- 3.00 lakhs
c) Workmen- 1.00 lakh d) Substaff/PTEs- 0.50 lakhs
CIRCULAR 25/2019-
14. In respect of Urban/Metro areas, collateral by way of EMT of property leased
out shall cover --------- of loan amount besides ensuring receivables, and rural/
semi-urban areas, it should cover a minimum of -------- loan amount (under
CANARA RENT).
a) 133%, 150% b) 120%, 140% c) 100%, 200% d) None of the above
CIRCULAR 27/2019-
15. Special Canara Budget scheme to the employees of which bank was launched in
2019?
a) SBI b) BoI c) BoB d) CBI
CIRCULAR 29/2019
16. LEGAL ENTITY IDENTIFIER (LEI) is an alphanumeric code of --- digits valid for
--- years from the date of obtention:-
a) 20, 1 b) 19,3 c) 15,5 d) 24,2
CIRCULAR 30/2019
17. In Urban & Metro areas in Canara MSME CAP, the value of the property for
manufacturing and services sector should be:-
a) 100, 125 b) 125, 250 c) 250, 300 d) 300, 350
CIRCULAR 31/2019
18. The maximum amount of loss covered for unauthorized electronic banking
(card related) transactions for Gold Credit Cards & Master Card World Credit
Cards is:-
a) 5,00,000/- b) 1,00,000/- c) 2,00,000/- d) 4,00,000/-
CIRCULAR 33/2019
19. NEFT facility could be extended to walk-in customers upto -----
a) Rs. 50,000/- b) Rs. 40,000/- c) Rs. 30,000/- d) Rs. 20,000/-
CIRCULAR 34/2019
20. Canbank-ESPS, cadre wise allotment of shares for SWOs/Clerk and Spl.
Assistant are:-
a) 260, 320 b) 250, 300 c) 400,600 d) 500,2000
CIRCULAR 36/2019
21. Beneficiary family under PMAY should not own a:-
a) PUCCA HOUSE b) KUCCHA HOUSE c) None of the above
CIRCULAR 37/2019
22. Sanctioning of 2nd loan with subsidy for upgrading the existing units which
are performimg well in respect of turnover, how much to be given to
manufacturing units and service/trade units respectively?
a) 1 crore, 25 lakhs b) 2 crore, 50 lakhs
c) None of the above d) All of the above
CIRCULAR 38/2019
23. Loan system for delivery of bank credit- minimum level of loan component is
fixed for borrowers having fund based WC limits of Rs. ----
a) 150 lacs b) 200 lacs c) 100 lacs d) None of the above
24. ATM Claims from other Banks disputing ATM transactions to be accepted /
rejected within
25. Bank is liable for payment of penalty at Rs.____ per day for delay in ATM
dispute chargeback.
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 500
26. CBS option for sending ATM excess cash is

a) ATM50 b) ATM100 c) ATM200 d) ATM500
27. Which of the following is mandatory for eligible under interest subvention
scheme for MSME
a) GSTN b) UAN c) Both are mandatory
d) Both are not mandatory
28. Experience required for registration as valuer (having graduation degree) for
land and building as per the amendment of companies act 2013 is
29. Toll free number for branches to call DBS HELP DESK is
a) 18004250018 b) 18004250081 c) 18004258395 d) 18004255938

KEYS TO MCQs
1 c 11 a 21 a
2 b 12 a 22 a
3 d 13 b 23 a
4 a 14 a 24 a
5 b 15 b 25 a
6 b 16 a 26 a
7 a 17 a 27 c
8 a 18 a 28 c
9 a 19 a 29 c
10 b 20 b
Multiple Choice Questions
(Cir 51 to 100/2019)
Cir 56/2019
Q.1 As per GOI guidelines on PSB reforms agenda on EASE stands for
a. Enhanced Access and Service Excellence
b. Enhanced attention and service excellence
c. Easy Access and Service Excellence
d. Easy affordable and service excellence
Q.2 Online OTS portal will provide URN which stands for
a. Universal Reference no. b. Unique Reference No
c. Unique Recon no. d. Universal Recon no.
Q.3 For online OTS portal customer has to provide following:

a. Account no. b. OTP & Captcha
c. Settlement amount d. All the above
Q.4 Branch can process OTS settlement by using URN in

a. Online OTS portal b. SAS-OTS package
c. CLAPS package d. None of the above
.
Cir. 57/2019
Q.5 As per modified guidelines on arriving at ROI applicable to loans/advances in
MSME sector Lease hold properties shall be from Govt. body/Govt. Institute/
Govt/Autonomous bodies with certain lease period, which shall be more
than_____years and there be clear clause about mortgaging the same to
banks/Financial Institutions.
a. 8 b. 12 c. 10 d. 30
Q.6 Under Hybrid Security product of CGTMSE, wherein , Member Lending

Institutions(MLI) will be allowed to obtain collateral security for a part of
the credit facility, whereas, the remaining part of the credit facility upto a
maximum of _________covered under Credit Guarantee Scheme of CGTMSE.
a. 10 lakhs b. 1 Cr. c. 2 Cr. d. 5 Cr.
Cir. 60/2019
Q.7 Bank has entered MoUS for entrusting Due Deiligince Servcices of Micro, Small
& Medium Enterprises with following agencies
a. M/s Brickwork Ratings India Private Ltd.
b. M/S Acumen Business Consultancy
c. M/S IRR Advisory Services Private Ltd.
d. M/S CRISIL Limited
A. only d B. only a or d C. only b ,c, & d D. all the four
Q.8 MSME units who approach our Bank for the first time seeking credit facility
requirement of Rs_______ which are eligible to be covered under CGTMSE,
are to be duly verified through Due Diligence Services of the Credit Rating
Agencies.
a. 10 lacs & above b. above Rs 10 lacs
c. 25 lacs & above d. above 25 lacs
Cir. 62/2019
Q.9 Interest subsidy on Padho Pardesh Scheme of of Interest subsidy on education
loans for overseas studies for the students belonging to the Minority
Communities given by :
a. Ministry of finance GOI b. Ministry of Social Welfare GOI
c. Ministry of Minority Affairs GOI d. Ministry of commerce GOI
Cir. 59/2019
Q. 10 Cash received in which CBS option for collection of CBSE CTET fee?
a. 1460 b. 1006 c. GLM01 d. 1005
Cir 64/2019
Q.11 Canara World Card being issued with
a. Single Art Work b. Custom background
c. any of a or b d. None of above
Cir 65/2019
Q.12 Incentive paid to Bank Mitras for both issuance and activation of pending
Rupay card is
a. Rs. 10 per A/c b. Rs. 12/- per a/c c. Rs. 15 per a/c d. Rs 8 per a/c
Q.13 Incentive paid to Bank Mitras for activation of Rupay card already issued is
a. Rs. 10 per A/c b. Rs. 5/- per a/c c. Rs. 15 per a/c d. Rs 8 per a/c
Cir 66/2019
Q.14 The Risk premium payable on ASF/AGF of CGTMSE for the year 2019-20 for
our bank is
a. 15% b. 0.15 % c. 12% d. 20%
Cir 67/2019
Q.15 GST applicable in BSBD a/c and PMJDY a/c is
a. 18% b. 12% c. 10% d. Exempted
Cir 72/2019
Q.16 Maximum Time limit for submission of documents for reimbursement of
hospitalization and pre hospitalization expenses ( limited to 30 days) under
IBA medical Insurance Scheme is
a. Immediately after discharge
b. within 15 days of date of discharge from hospital
c. within 15 days from completion of post hospitalization treatment
d. within 30 days
Cir 73/2019
Q.17 Name of the service provider company for PSB loans in 59 minutes is
a. M/S CapitaWorld Platform Private Limited
b. M/S Online PSB Loans Limited
c. M/S Online PSB loans in 59 minutes limited
Q.18 Convenience fee to be collected and shared with the service provider for PSB
loans in 59 minutes
a. Rs. 750/- per proposal b. Rs. 1000/- per proposal
c. Rs. 250/- per proposal d. No charges to be paid
Q.19 Processing fee collected on proposal received through PSB59 Portal

a. Entire amount to be retained by bank
b. 50 % to be shared with service provider
c. 25 % to be shared with service provider
Cir 74/2019
Q.20. Collateral free Agricultural loans can be given up to
a. Rs. 100000/- b. Rs. 125000/- c. Rs. 150000/- d. Rs. 160000/-
Q.21. Margin for Agricultural loans up to Rs 160000/- is

a. 15% b 25% c 10% d NIL
Cir 76/2019
Q.22 Maximum period of repayment of short term loan scheme for Traders under
MSE for Negotiable Warehouse Receipt Finance is
Q.23 Minimum and maximum amount of short term loan scheme for Traders under
MSE for Negotiable Warehouse Receipt Finance per party are
a. Minimum above 10 lacs maximum upto Rs 5 Cr
b. Minimum 10 lacs and maximum 5 Cr
c. Minimum above 10 lacs maximum upto Rs 2 Cr
d. Minimum 10 lacs and maximum 2 Cr
Q.24 Limit for Short term loan scheme for Traders under MSE for Negotiable
Warehouse Receipt Finance per party Maximum ________% of the assessed
value of the produce as per accepted Negotiable warehouse receipt
a. 50% b 25% c 75% d 100%
CIR 77/2019
Q.25 Application form used for Canara Bank Credit Card Application ___
a. NF 964 B. NF 965 C. NF 1016 D. none of the above.
Cir 81/2019
Q.26 At present Canara Bank Debit Card issued in association with following :
a. VISA b. Master c. NPCI d. All the above
Q.27 BIN (Bank’s Identification Number) in a ATM card represented by

a. Last five digit of card b. First six digit of card
c. Last six digit of card d. First four digit of card
Q.28 CVV in a ATM card stands for

a. Card value verification b. Card verification value
c. Card verified value d. Card variety value
Q.29 PVV in a ATM card stands for

a. Personal verification value b. PIN verification value
c. PIN value verified d. Personal verified value
Q.30 Canara Bank Debit card can be offered to

a. SB a/c b. CA A/c c. OD A/c
A. only a B. Any of a or b C. Only b D. All of a, b & c
Q.31 Canara Bank Debit card can be issued to

a. Individual a/c
b. Joint a/c with operation severally
c. NRI
d. Joint a/c with operation jointly with Two joint signatories
A. only a B. Any of a or b C. Any of a, b & C D. All above
Q.32 Canara Bank Debit card can be issued to
a. Minor students who are aged 10 years and above.
b. Illiterate customers
c. P.A holder/ Holder of mandate
d. OCC limits and other loan a/cs.
e. Joint a/cs where operation condition is jointly with more than two joint
signatories
A. any of a, b, c B. b and c only C. c and e only D. All of above
Q.33 The maximum period of validity of EMV chip card will up to _______years
from the month of issue.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10
Q.34 Expiry months printed on Debit card, card will expire on

a. First day of month b. last day of month
c. 10 of the month
th
d. 20th of the month
Q.35 Personalised Rupay Debit cards/ PIN would be dispatched by Card issue
section directly to the registered address of the customers through Regd. Post
for following product codes:
a. 101 b. 101 & 108 c. 108,119 & 127 d. No card dispatched directly
Q.36 Personalised Debit cards remaining undelivered for more than ____ months
are to be destroyed following the guidelines of destruction of security items.
Q.37 In terms of RBI guidelines, the wrongful debit in the customer’s a/c on
account of ATM failed transactions shall be reversed with in ______ days from
the date of ______________.
a. 7, receipt of complaint from the customer b. 7, transaction
c. 12, receipt of complaint from the customer d. 12, transaction
Q.38 Penalty of Rs. ______for each day of delay shall be credited to customer’s
account with disputed amount on wrongful debit in customer’s a/c on account
of ATM failed transactions.
a. 100/- b. 200/- c. 250/- d. No penalty
Q.39 Any customer is entitled to receive compensation for delay on wrongful debit
in customer’s a/c on account of ATM failed transactions, if a claim is lodged
with the issuing bank with in ______days of the date of the transaction.
a. 7 b. 10 c. 15 d. 30
Q.40 ATM cash withdrawal limit for our Standard/ Classic /Elite cards is
a. Rs. 20000/- b. Rs. 30000/- c. Rs. 40000/- d. Rs. 50000/-
Q.41 ATM cash withdrawal limit for our Platinum/Business cards is
a. Rs. 40000/- b. Rs. 50000/- c. Rs.100000/- d. Rs. 75000/-
Q.42 Purchase limit for Standard & Classic Debit card at Merchant locations
through POS/Bharat QR/ Internet any number of transactions per day per
card subject to maximum of
a. Rs.50000 b. Rs. 100000/- c. Rs. 200000/- d. No limit
Q.43 Purchase limit for Platinum / Business Debit card at Merchant locations
through POS/Bharat QR/ Internet any number of transactions per day per
card subject to maximum of
a. Rs.50000 b. Rs. 100000/- c. Rs. 200000/- d. No limit
Q.44 Cash withdrawals through POS machines , any no. Of transactions with a per
day per card limit of Rs___________in tier III to VI cities and Rs.______in Tier
I & II Cities
a. 1000 & 2000 b. 2000 & 1000 c. 2000 & 5000 d. 5000 & 2000
Cir 82/2019
Q.45 For issue of Credit card to individuals, _____________________is the main
criteria
a. Net Annual Income b. Gross Annual income
c. Only Net salary d. None of the above
Q.46 Independent income with a minimum of __________gross per annum for

classic / Standard card & ________per annum for Gold card.
a. Rs. 100000 & Rs 200000/- b. Rs. 300000 & Rs 500000/-
c. Rs. 100000 & Rs 300000/- d. Rs 100000 & Rs 500000/-
Q.47 The independent income criteria for World Credit card variant are Rs. ______
gross income per annum.
a. Rs. 3 lakhs b. Rs 5 lakhs c. Rs. 10 lakhs d. Rs 1lakh
Q.48 Secured credit card against Security of Term Deposit where the credit limit is
75% of ___________for KDR and 75% of ___________for FDR.
a. Principal amount & Principal amount
b. Principal amount & maturity amount
c. Ledger balance & principal amount
d. Principal amount & Ledger balance
Q.49 For issuance of Corporate credit card , Non Borrowers must have ______
satisfactory dealings.
Q.50 For Credit card issued to NRI, the settlement of Credit card dues and charges
should be to the debit of _________account.
A. NRE B. NRO C. RFC D. Normal SB a/c
a. only A b. only D c. any of A or B d. Any of A, B, C & D
Q.51 For issue of Credit card , staff members should have a minimum annual
gross income of ____________and minimum net take home salary of not less
than_________________.
a. Rs. 60000/- & Rs 4000/- b. Rs. 60000/- & Rs 10000/-
c. Rs. 100000/- & Rs. 6000/- d. Rs 100000/- & Rs 10000/-
Q.52 Customers rated High Risk/ Low score, maximum Credit card limit to be
sanctioned is
a. Rs. 2 lakhs b. Rs. 3 lakhs c. Rs. 5 lakhs d. 10 lakhs
Q.53 Minimum Rs.__________and maximum RS.______________ limit can be

sanctioned in Classic / Standard credit card
a. 10000, 300000 b. 50,000 & 25,00,000
c. 100000 & 2500000 d. 10000& 25,00000
Q.54 Under Gold Credit card minimum Rs.__________ and maximum

Rs.___________limit can be sanctioned.
a. 10000, 300000 b. 50,000 & 25,00,000
c. 100000 & 2500000 d 10000& 25,00000
Q.55 Under World Credit card minimum Rs.__________ and maximum

Rs.___________limit can be sanctioned.
a. 10000, 300000 b. 50,000 & 25,00,000
c. 100000 & 2500000 d 10000& 25,00000
Q.56 Under Secured Credit card minimum Rs.__________ and maximum

Rs.___________ limit can be sanctioned.
a. 10000, 300000 b. 50,000 & 25,00,000
c. 100000 & 2500000 d. 10000& 25,00000
Q.57 Credit card limit shall normally be restricted to 30% of the gross annual
income of the applicant. However, a relaxation up to 50% of gross income may
be permitted selectively by
a. DGM of the Circle b. GM & Circle head only
c. GM DBS wing HO d. Executive Director
Q.58 The maximum period of validity of Credit card will up to _______years from
the month of issue
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10
Q.59 Multiple Credit Cards of different variant/ Network Associates can be issued
up to ____ Cards per customer with in the overall eligible credit card limit
base on gross annual income of the individual.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. Only one per customer
Q.60 Credit card will not be renewed automatically, if there are more than two
instances of TOD caused in SB on monthly card dues debit/delay in payment
by Direct Billing Card Holders, during _______________.
a. 1, entire period of card limit b. 2, entire period of card limit
c. 2, previous 12 months d. 3, previous 12 months.
Q.61 Minimum Rs.__________and maximum Rs.______________ limit can be

sanctioned in Corporate credit card
a. 10000, 3 lakhs b. 50,000 & 25lakhs
c. 100000 & 25 lakhs d. 50000& 100lakhs
Q.62 _______Add on cards can be issued under Main Card with a Minimum Card
Limit of Rs.___________.
a. 4 & 5000 b. 5 & 10000 c. 25 & 10000 d. 99 & 10000
Q.63 For Corporate credit Cards cash withdrawal limit is up to ____ credit card
limit subject to maximum of ______.
a. 50 % & Rs. 5 lakhs b. 25% & Rs 5 lakhs
c. 50% & Rs 50000 d. 50% & Rs 1 lakh
Q.64 Free Credit period on credit card is only for a short period of minimum ___&
maximum___ days.
a. 10 & 30 b. 10 & 50 c. 20 & 50 d. 20 & 60
Cir 83/2019
Q.65 The maximum period of validity of Canara Prepaid Classic & Canara Prepaid
plus card will up to _______years from the month of issue
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10
Q.66 Canara Prepaid card can be loaded through cash at branch / Cash Depositing
machine up to _____________per month subject to overall limit of prepaid
card.
a. Rs. 10000/- b. Rs. 25000/- c. Rs. 50000/- d. Rs 100000/-
Q.67 The Maximum value of any prepaid card shall not exceed ________________
a. Rs. 40000/- b. Rs 50000/- c. Rs 100000/- d. Rs. 200000
Cir. 84/2019
Q.68 Canara Bank International Travel Prepaid Card will be valid up to _______
years from the month of issue
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10
Q.69 Cancellation & refund in CBITPC shall be permitted only after ______from
the date of last transaction in the card for ensuring accounting all transaction
with the card.
a. Same day b. 7 days c. 10 days d. 25 days
Q.70 CBITPC cardholders can retain the unspent foreign exchange in the card up to
_______ or its equivalent in other currency for future till expiry of the card.
a. USD 1000 b. USD 2000 c. USD 3000 d. USD 5000
Cir. 85/2019
Q.71 If a Pronote is dated 29.04.2010, it will complete 3 years on 28.04.2013, the
suit can be filed latest on ______
a. 29.04.2013 b 28.04.2013 c. 27.04.2013 d. 30.04.2013
Q.72 In respect of Education loan AOD/LOR must be obtained after completion
of 24 months but before completing 27 months from the date of
___________________
a. sanction of loan b. first disbursement
c. last disbursement d. Commencement of repayment
Q.73 For the purpose of computing limitation period for filing suit, the period
which the borrower stays abroad is to be ________
a. Excluded b. Included c. either a or b d. None of the above
Q.74 The limitation period in Bank Guarantee/DPGs/Co-acceptance commences

from the __________________.
a. date of Guarantee b. date of invoking of guarantee
c. date of payment d. No AOD required
Q.75 In case of third party guarantee the limitation period commences from
a. the date on which bank receives a notice in writing from the guarantor
revoking the guarantee
b. the date on which a demand is made by the bank for repayment on the
guarantor
c. where the guarantee is obtained for a specific period - on the date when such
specific period comes to an end and there is no renewal
d. all the above
Q.76 In case of sticky accounts, where guarantor is deceased and borrower is
not able to provide alternate guarantor acceptable to the bank, the bank
should obtain the AOD from all the legal heirs of the deceased guarantor in
____________
a. NF 760 b. NF 761 c. NF 879 d. None of the above
Cir 86/2019
Q.77 Every importer/ exporter has to obtain an Importer- Exporter Code (IEC)
Number from the
a. DGCA b. DGFT c. Ministry of Commerce d. Fedai
Cir 87/2019
Q.78 Branch can sanction maximum limit of __________per party under the
Produce loan scheme.
a. Rs. 3 lakhs b. Rs. 5 lakhs c. Rs. 10 lakhs d. Rs. 12 lakhs
Q.79 Branches having NPA more than ___% under Produce loan are not permitted to
sanction further loans.
a. 2% b. 3% c. 4% d. 5%
Cir. 91/2019
Q.80 HEFA stands for
a. Higher Education Financing Agency b. Higher Education Funding Agency
c. Highest Education Financier Agency d. Higher Education Financial Agency
Cir. 92/2019
Q.81 ACABC scheme stands for
a. Agri Clinic and Agri Business Centre
b. Agriculture Credit and Agri Borrower centre
c. Agri Credit and Agri borrowing centre
d. Agri Clinic and Agri borrowing centre
Q.82 Age group of the borrower for the scheme should be

a. 18- 35 Yrs b. 18 -50 Yrs c. 18-60 Yrs d. 18-70 Yrs
Q.83 Ceiling of ACABC project cost for subsidy is Rs. ______ for an individual
project and up to Rs _______ for a group project.
a. 20 lakhs & 100 lakhs b. 20 lakhs & 50 lakhs
c. 10 lakhs & 50 lakhs d. 25 lakhs & 100 lakhs
Cir 93/2019
Q.84 Under Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme GOI will
provide the landholder farmer families with total cultivable holding upto
________ a benefit of _____per annum per family in three equal instalments,
every four months.
a. 1 hectare, Rs 6000 b. 2 hectare, Rs 8000
c. 2 hectare, Rs 10000 d. 2 hectare Rs 6000
Cir. 95/2019
Q. 85. A person sourcing insurance business should be IRDAI certified and called as
a. Authorised person b. Specified Persons
c. Authorised agent d. Approved person
KEYS
1 A 2 B 3 D 4 B 5 C
6 C 7 D 8 B 9 C 10 A
11 A 12 A 13 B 14 A 15 D
16 B 17 B 18 D 19 A 20 D
21 D 22 A 23 A 24 C 25 C
26 D 27 B 28 B 29 B 30 D
31 D 32 A 33 B 34 B 35 C
36 C 37 A 38 A 39 D 40 C
41 B 42 B 43 C 44 B 45 B
46 A 47 C 48 C 49 B 50 C
51 A 52 A 53 A 54 B 55 C
56 D 57 C 58 A 59 A 60 C
61 D 62 D 63 A 64 C 65 A
66 C 67 C 68 B 69 C 70 B
71 A 72 D 73 A 74 C 75 D
76 C 77 B 78 C 79 D 80 A
81 A 82 C 83 A 84 D 85 B
CIR 101/2019 - Micro-finance policy 2019-2020
1. As per Micro-finance policy 2019-2020, PAN card of SHG shall
a. Be insisted at the time of opening of account
b. Only be insisted while permitting transactions above Rs 1.00 lakhs
c. Shall not be insisted rather declaration as in Form No. 60 may be accepted
d. b & c
2. As per Micro-finance policy 2019-2020, which of the following statement is true
regarding KYC verification for SHG
a. For opening savings bank account of the SHG, KYC verification of only office
bearers shall suffice
b. For opening savings bank account of the SHG, KYC verification of all the members
of SHG is required
c. At the time of credit linkage of SHG, KYC verification of all the members of SHG is
required
d. a & c both
3. As per Micro-finance policy 2019-2020, In order to facilitate use of loans for
augmenting livelihoods of SHG members ____% of loans above Rs ____ Lakhs &
____% of loans above Rs ____ Lakhs to be used primarily for income generating
productive purposes based on the Micro-credit Plan prepared by SHG.
a. 50%, Rs 2.00 Lakhs & 75% , Rs 4.00 Lakhs
b. 25%, Rs 2.00 Lakhs & 50% , Rs 4.00 Lakhs
c. 50%, Rs 1.00 Lakhs & 75% , Rs 3.00 Lakhs
d. 25%, Rs 1.00 Lakhs & 50% , Rs 3.00 Lakhs
4. In case of SHG bank linkage program, credit rating has to be done for
assessment of SHG’s while extending credit. The minimum score to qualify for
credit linkage is __%. In cases where SHGs do not score minimum marks and if
for any reasons, branch intends to extend finance such SHGs, the same is to be
done with the permission of ____________________
a. 70%, DM-RO/CO-CAC b. 80%, next higher authority at RO/CO
c. 60%, next higher authority at RO/CO d. 40%, DGM-CO/RO-CAC
3. Cash credit limit to be sanctioned to SHGs in the ratio of ________taking into

a/c the notional savings of ____years and the drawing limit (the total savings
of the group for the initial period of ____ months shall be taken) shall be
permitted.
a. 1:1 to 1:4, 3 years, 6 months
b. 1:1 to 1:4, 5 years, 6 months
c. 1:1 to 1:4, 3 years, 12 months
d. 1:1 to 1:2, 5 years, 6 months
6. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned to an individual in a Micro credit
group shall not exceed __________.The maximum loan that can be permitted to
the group is restricted to __________in urban areas and _____________in rural
areas and semi urban areas.
a. Rs.100000/-, Rs.2,50,000, Rs. 5,00,000/-
b. Rs.50000/-, Rs.2,50,000, Rs. 5,00,000/-
c. Rs.25000/-, Rs.1,25,000, Rs. 2,50,000/-
d. Rs.50000/-, Rs.5,00,000, Rs. 10,00,000/-
7. For Term loans permitted under the Micro credit group scheme, the repayment
period generally permitted is ____ months & can be extended upto maximum of
_____ months inclusive of holiday period of _____ months in the beginning.
a. Repayment period - 48, 60, Holiday period - 3
b. Repayment period - 36, 60, Holiday period - 6
c. Repayment period - 36, 72, Holiday period - 3
d. Repayment period - 48, 60, Holiday period - 6
8. Under Panchayat Level Federation (PLF) scheme, Limit for individual SHG is
arrived as below:
First dose - the minimum credit limit is Rs 50000/-
Second dose - Minimum credit limit of Rs 1.00 lakh
Third dose - Minimum credit limit of Rs ______ lakhs
Subsequent doses – Maximum of _____ times the group corpus.
a. Rs 2.5 lakhs , 10 times b. Rs 2.0 lakhs , 10 times

c. Rs 1.5 lakhs , 5 times d. Rs 1.5 lakhs , 10 times
9. In case of PLF scheme (a panchayat level federation -SHG linkage program),
which of the following statements are correct as per Micro finance Policy
2019-20:
i. The disbursement of the loan shall be by credit to the SB a/c of PLF only.
ii. The disbursement of loan by the PLF to the SHGs should be by credit to the
SB a/c of the SHGs.
iii. A minimum of 80 % of the limit sanctioned should be utilized for economic
activities of the member SHGs.
iv. The bills and other documents as proof of asset creation shall be maintained
by credit linkage and monitoring sub committee of PLF and produced to the
Bank for verification by Branch Manager, as and when required.
v. No resolution plan is required to be submitted whenever disbursement of loan
is to be done.
a. ii, iii, v b. i, iii, v c. iii, v d. All of the above except v
CIR 103/2019 (CGTMSE)- Payment of Annual Service Fee (ASF) /Annual
Guarantee Fee (AGF)
10. In case of non-receipt of Annual Service Fee (ASF) /Annual Guarantee Fee
(AGF) under CGTMSE for FY 19-20 on or before the due date (i.e 18.04.2019),
the guarantee cover will lapse for the accounts. Such lapsed accounts can be
revived only by paying penal interest and additional risk premium of :
a. 20 % b. 25% c. 15% d. 6%
11. If there is any mismatch in account number/ amount remitted, payment made
for ASF/AGF for CGTMSE will be returned to the Circle. Any return can be
checked by Clicking On
a. “Payment Through RTGS/NEFT –>Initiate Payment for all”
b. “Member Login >> Guarantee Maintenance >> Request for Closure”
c. “Member Login>>Receipt & Payments>>Allocate payment”
d. “Member Login >> Reports & MIS >> ASF summary details”
CIR 106/2019 - Cyber Security Best Practices

12. List best practices that are to be practiced by the employees of the
organization to prevent cyber attacks:
i. Only DMS PCs should exist in branches.
ii. Ensure disabling of Mass storage Devices/ USBs’/ CDs’ in the systems. (Bank
has disabled USB in all systems).
iii. Branch/Office users should not pause/snooze the Anti Virus Scan to keep the
definitions updated and sync with central AV Server.
iv. Procure only wired Internet connections in branches/offices from trusted
vendors.
a. i only b. i, iii, iv c. i, ii, iii d. All of the above
CIR 109/2019 - MOTIVATING FARMERS TO DRAW THE KCC LIMIT USING KISAN
RUPAY CARDS
13. Rupay debit cards are issued to the KCC borrowers at the time of sanction/
renewal of the limit. As per cir 109/2019, branches to motivate farmers to
withdraw at-least ___ % of their KCC limits through Rupay Debit card.
a. 50 % b. 20 % c. 10 % d. 25 %
CIR 110/2019 –
14. Which of the following statements / procedure regarding opening, maintaining

and closure of various bank guarantees/LCs in our bank :
i. Branches can continue opening BG in manual mode
ii. Branches are advised to update the manually maintained BG accounts in FCC
Module of CBS immediately.
iii. All new Bank Guarantees issued should be entered/ opened in the FCC Module
of CBS on the date of opening itself.
a. i only b. iii only c. ii, iii only d. All of the above
CIR 111/2019 - GUIDELINES ON COUNTRY RISK MANAGEMENT
15. “Pakistan” is now (after 01.03.2019) classified by ECGC in which of the
following category
a. Open Cover
b. Restricted Cover-Group I: For which Revolving limits are to be approved by
ECGC, normally for one year.
c. Restricted Cover–Group II: For which specific approval has to be obtained from
ECGC on a case to case basis, on merits.
d. b & c only
CIR 113/2019 – INTERNET BANKING POLICY

16. Name the mobile app where offline OTP facility for generating OTP offline
through mobile app for Internet Banking transactions?
a. CANARA PIN b. CANARA OTP c. CANARA M-Serve
b. No such app as OTP is generated via SMS only
17. Additional facilities introduced and incorporated in Internet Banking policy

2019-20, please choose the correct statement from the following :
a. Request for Hotlist of Debit Card .
b. Tax related services .
c. Debit Card services like setting ATM/POS limit, Pin Generation, blocking/
unblocking, new ATM card request through Internet Banking.
d. Request for Issue of cheque-books & Stop Payment of cheque.
18. Enhanced fund transfer limit for IMPS transactions through Internet Banking
from 50000/- per day to ___________ per day.
a. 1,00,000/- b. 2,00,000/- c. 3,00,000/- d. 99,999/-
19. List out the accounts ineligible for Internet banking facility as per Internet
Banking policy 2019-20 :
a. Joint accounts where operation condition is other than severally.
b. Account/s of illiterate persons.
c. Dormant account/s , Account/s under Court orders/Attachment orders &
Frozen account/s for various reasons like disputes, litigation etc.
d. All of the above
CIR 114/2019 – PAYMENT GATEWAY POLICY

20. Providing net banking & Debit card integration facility, enrolment of
intermediaries / merchants for integration with bank’s net banking, debit card,
mobile banking and UPI systems is covered under which of the following policy
of our bank:
a. Internet Banking policy 2019-20 b. Payment gateway Policy 2019-20
c. Marketing Policy 2019-20 d. Tech- products policy 2019-20
21. Choose correct statements out of the following statements which duly
mentioned in Payment Gateway Policy 2019-20 :
I. Due diligence to be carried out before enrolling any Intermediary.
II.
Intermediaries to abide by bank’s relevant policies including Information
Security/Cyber security Policy wherever applicable.
III. The intermediary should on-board merchants offering online trading in foreign
exchange.
IV. Bank to ensure that Intermediary is compliant and certified to ISO 27001:2013
standard for security of its infrastructure.
a. I,II,II are correct b. I, II, IV are correct
c. II, III are correct d. All of the above are correct
CIR 115/2019 – Revision in Bulk Deposit

22. Lower limit of bulk deposit amount for Scheduled Commercial Banks
(excluding Regional Rural banks) and Small Finance Banks as per new
definition of Bulk deposits by RBI is :
a. Rs 1.50 crore and above b. Rs 2.50 crore and above
c. Rs 2.00 crore and above d. Rs 1.25 crore and above
CIR 116/2019 – Deendayal Antyodaya Yojna – national Urban Livelihood Mission (DAY-
NULM ) Modified guidelines
23. Ministry of Housing and urban development (MoHUA) had launched a
centralized electronic platform for processing Interest subvention on bank
loans to beneficiaries of DAY-NULM, the same is named as :
a. Samrakshan
b. PAISA- Portal for affordable credit and Interest subvention
c. PAIS-Portal for affordable interest subvention
d. JAN SEP-NULM
24. In-case eligible beneficiary of DAY-NULM is not getting interest subvention,

Circle office to ensure that branches shall facilitate beneficiaries in following
manner :
a. Request the borrowers to visit concerned ULB (Urban Local Body) with all
requisite documents for further verification.
b. Forward any loan cases (i.e master data /claim data for interest
subvention) for uploading in the portal.
c. Credit eligible amount of interest subvention manually to beneficiaries account
maintained with branch and send claim sheet to Circle office
d. All of the above
25. Self Employment Group (SEP-G) under DAY-NULM, more than one person from
the same family should not be included in the group and minimum members
in group enterprise should be _____ in number and minimum ___% of the
members should belong to Urban poor families.
a. 4, 50% b. 3, 50% c. 3, 70% d. 5, 70%
CIR 117/2019 – CENTRALIZATION OF FILING OF eTDS RETURN
26. Bank has obtained Centralised TANs, CIRCLE WISE, for filing of Form 26Q,
such new TANs obtained will be updated centrally by bank in CBS option on
01.04.2019.
a. BAM03 b. BAM01 c. BAM04 d. BAM02
27. TDS on Vendor payments pertaining to Non-resident vendors like rent paid to
NRI landlord will also be included under Form _____ in centralised TAN.
a. 26 Q b. 27 Q c. 24 Q d. 26 Q (I)
28. In case of excess TDS deduction due to wrong/delay in updations, branch
to i)______________ and if there is any short fall in TDS deduction due to
selection of incorrect section, invalid/dummy PAN, etc., the concerned staff/
Official who have done the transactions will ii) ___________________________
_____.
a. i) refund excess TDS to Customer (deductee), ii) be accountable (as it attracts
penalty from Income Tax Department)
b. i) refund excess TDS to Customer (deductee), ii) debit short fall amount from
savings of the concerned customer (as it attracts penalty from Income Tax
Department)
c. i) ask Customer (deductee) to claim excess TDS deducted only at the time
of filing of their Income Tax returns without refunding the amount, ii) be
accountable (as it attracts penalty from Income Tax Department)
d. i) refund excess TDS to Customer (deductee) after completion of financial or
accounting year, ii) be accountable (as it attracts penalty from Income Tax
Department)
29. In case of Government Deposits, Marking of TDS exemption is mandatory to

avoid TDS deduction for eligible accounts for each financial year. Which of
the following statements are correct for TDS exemption incase of Government
deposits accounts maintained with our bank :
I. Court Deposits are to be opened with Customer Category C-3 to avoid deduction
of TDS
II. Refund is not possible since “PANNOTAVBL” accounts are filed with C Flags in
the ETDS returns
III. Correction is allowed for TDS records with C Flag
IV. NO TDS waiver should be marked under TDS03 option other than Form 15G/H
updation and Government category
a. I, III & IV are correct b. I, II & IV are correct
c. III & IV are correct d. All are correct
30. Form 15G/H format is to be preserved UIN wise by the Branches for a period of
_____ years safely in Double Lock
31. Any payment/ interest more than _________ to Non-residents attract surcharge
also in addition to TDS.
a. Rs. 50 lakhs b. Rs. 25 lakhs c. Rs. 10 lakhs d. Rs. 05 lakhs
32. PAN should be obtained for all NRO deposits where interest payment for any FY
exceeds __________.
a. Rs. 50,000 b. Rs. 1.0 lakh c. Rs. 5.0 lakh d. Rs. 1.5 lakh
CIR 119/2019 – VALUATION POLICY ON VARIOUS KINDS OF SECURITIES ON CREDIT

EXPOSURE - MODIFICATIONS
33. As per latest cir 119/2019 on Valuation policy modifications, which out of the
following statement is correct for Valuation of only Landed Property (Other
than Agricultural Properties)
a. The acquisition cost as per registered sale deed may be considered as cost of
land, if it is acquired within immediate preceding one year.
b. If the land is acquired/ purchased beyond preceding one year, 85% of the Fair
Market Value assessed by the Bank’s Approved Valuer should be taken as value
of the land.
c. The market value or the valuation prescribed by government /statutory /
development authority for registration purposes in the area can be taken into
account, whichever is less
d. Both a & b are correct
e. All of the above are correct
34. Residual age of the immovable property should be at least _____ years more
than the tenure of the loan while accepting as prime/collateral securities to
the loan.
35. As per latest cir 119/2019 on Valuation policy modifications, Valuer is required
to give details / reference of at least two ___________________________ with
respect to adjacent properties in the areas while giving prevailing market value
in the valuation report. (If there are no such transactions the same should be
brought in the valuation report)
a. deals/ transactions (within last two years)
b. informants
c. Photographs along with informants
d. Revenue or land record documents duly attested from Sub-registrar
36. For easy identification of the applicable primary / collateral securities which
are Land & Building/Land in nature / Plant & Machinery /other fixed tangible
assets, Valuers to mention __________________________of the properties in
the valuation report.
a. longitude / latitude and coordinates
b. If possible screen Shot (in hard copy) of Global Positioning System (GPS)/
Various APPS /Internet Sites (eg Google Search) etc
c. Both a & b
d. Nothing but only directions if available
37. While accepting valuation report branches/offices should not accept reports
having following characteristics :
a. Blank and cursory Valuation Reports
b. Report without sign of valuer on the Model Code of Conduct as per Format- B.
c. A Declaration not submitted by the Valuer as per Format-A.
d. All of the above
CIR 120/2019 – Interest Equalisation on Pre-Shipment and Post shipment Rupee

Export credit to MSME Sector Manufacturers
38. Interest Equalisation rate in respect of exports by the Micro, Small and Medium
(MSME) sector manufactures under the Interest Equalisation Scheme on Pre and
Post Shipment Rupee Export Credit, ranges from :
a. from 2% to 3% b. from 2% to 5%
c. from 3% to 5% d. from 4% to 5%
CIR 133/2019 – CENTRALISED LOCKER RENT RECOVERY – SDL RENT UPDATION IN

SAFE PACKAGE
39. Centralised Locker Rent collection in SAFE package is done in the month of
a. January b. April c. July d. Any time during the F.Y
40. If rent/arrears of lockers are collected in CBS manually from a customer and
the same customer gives a complaint regarding debiting of rent twice or thrice
in his account for that financial year, what could be the most appropriate
reasons:
a. Official had collected money of rent in cash and not through party’s account.
b. Official had not mentioned proper narration while creating debit transaction
c. Official had not updated the fact of having collected the rent in SAFE package.
d. None of the above (this cannot happen)
CIR 133/2019 –
41. For availing Privilege Leave, employees have to give prior notice of how many
days
a. 30 Days b. No need of notice c. 15 Days d. 45 Days
42. Leave applications submitted by the employee should be approved/ declined

immediately on day to day basis by the concerned Sanctioning Authorities on
its submission in HRMS Package within _____________ number of days
a. Not beyond 10 working days
b. Not beyond 20 working days
c. Not beyond 5 working days
d. No need to Sanction it will automatic Sanctioned
43. Who is responsible to inform the cases of continuous unauthorized absence of

employee to concerned HRM Section as per the existing guidelines.
a. Concerned Employee b. HRM Section
c. Br.Incharge d. Overseeing Executive of Branch
CIR 123/2019 – LAUNCHING OF E-LEARNING – CanDLE

44. What do you mean by CanDLE ?
a. Canara delight learning enterprises b. Canara Digital Learning Experience
c. Canara Digital Library Experience d. None of these
45. The objectives of e _learning are:

i. To have online learning resources available to all staff, at all times.
ii. Make online learning the first option wherever appropriate, to satisfy the
training needs. Analyzing & evaluating qualitative aspects post training.
iii.
To promote and popularise online learning by making it available for
professional and personal development.
iv. To discourage all conventional training modes and achieve a blended learning
approach.
v. To conduct online tests for various courses.
a. i, iii, iv b. i, ii, iii, v c. All of the above d. None of these
46. Where in CanDLE we can find courses being assigned to us and which is
required to be completed before completion of financial year end
a. Courses b. Assigned Courses c. Quizzes d. Query Corner
47. URL of CanDLE is:

a. http://canarateslearning.com b. https://canariteslearning.co.in
c. https://canariteslearning.com d. https://candigitalearning.com
48. Who is responsible for CanDLE implementation
a. Reserve bank Of India (RBI)
b. Staff Training College Bangalore
c. DIT Bangalore
d. None of above
49. CanDLE e-learning material will be available 24x7 through various modes like :
a. Personal Mobile phone or Tabs or Laptops
b. Laptop provided by the bank
c. Desk Tops or PC with DMS connection only
d. All of the above
50. CanDLE can be accessed using following standard internet/intranet browsers :

a. Internet Explorer & Google Chrome only
b. Mozilla Firefox
c. Safari
d. All of the above
CIR 124 /2019- Interest Equalisation on Pre-Shipment and Post shipment Rupee
Export credit to MSME Sector Manufacturers
51. Interest Equalisation @ 5% on Pre-Shipment and Post shipment Rupee Export

credit to MSME Sector Manufacturers.
a. All food & agro units
b. Food & Agro Unit which are registered under MSMED Act 2006.
c. Only Food Processing Units.
d. Only Agro Based Units.
CIR 128 /2019 - New Functionality introduced in Internet banking (Retail)
52. As per revised procedure in accordance with 128/2019, Once Internet Banking
users are created through Internet Banking admin portal at Branches, customer
will receive User ID and Login password through ______________ .
a. Registered mail sent to user’s address as registered in CBS
b. Officer dealing with net banking at branch only
c. two separate SMS on their registered mobile number
d. a & b only
CIR 129/2019- Interest Subvention Scheme for Incremental credit to MSMEs
2018 – Operational guidelines
53. Eligibility for Interest subvention for incremental credit to MSMEs

i. Having Valid Udyog Aadhaar Number [UAN]
ii. Having Valid GSTN Number
iii. Incremental term loan or fresh term loan or incremental working capital
extended during the current
iv. All export accounts (PC/Export Bills)
v. VSL-MSME accounts are not eligible
a. ii, iv & ii b. i, ii & iii c. ii, iv & v d. All of the above
54. MSME exporters availing interest subvention for pre-shipment or post-shipment

credit under Department of Commerce may get assistance under Interest
Subvention Scheme for Incremental credit to MSMEs 2018 upto the tune of
a. Rs 100 Lakhs
b. Rs 50 Lakhs
c. US $ 0.5 million
d. Not eligible for the same
CIR 130/2019 – BALANCE SHEET

55. On the Balance Sheet date, following should remain at the minimum level :
a. Cash holding b. Branch Adjustment accounts
c. Sundry Assets & Sundry liabilities d. All of the above
56. Correctness of following should be ensured by the branch in charge on balance

sheet date
a. Asset Classification (Date of NPA and Year of Doubtful etc)
b. Nature of Security and value of Securities
c. ECGC / CGTMSE/ CRGFTLIH cover available or not
d. a & b only
e. All of the above
CIR – 131/2019 – TAX AUDIT REPORT FOR YEAR ENDING 31st MARCH 2019
57. Tax audit report generated from the package is to be certified by

________________ in Audit branches and by _______________ in non-audit
branches by making use of _____________.
a. Section head of IC section RO , Officer , SAS Package
b. Auditor, Br-In-charge, E-token / digital signature
c. Auditor, Officer, E-token / digital signature
d. Section head of IC section RO , Br-In-charge , E-token / digital signature
CIR 133/2019 - MASTER POLICY ON CREDIT RISK MANAGEMENT FOR DOMESTIC
BRANCHES -2019-20
58. One way conversion of limits from LC to BG for purchase of raw materials may
be permitted to Beneficiary entities such as PSUs, SAIL, NSIC and Corporates
externally rated _________ by ________________(Authority) for CO power
accounts
a. AAA/AA, Circle Head CAC
b. AAA/AA, GM-HO-CAC
c. AAA/AA, DGM-CO-CAC
d. AAA/AA, Respective Sanctioning Authority at CO
59. Functional Wings / Sections shall periodically review the performance of

projects with inputs from PAG, HO / PAC, CO until DCCO, for all term loans
above __________
a. 10 cr b. 1 cr c. 5 cr d. 2 cr
60. To permit the BULC limit outside the purview of MPBF , Negotiation/advising of
bills shall be only through SFMS . SFMS stand for :
a. Systematic Funds Managing System
b. Structured Financial Messaging System
c. Sequential Financial Messaging System
d. Sequential Financial Managing System
61. Designated Branches can negotiate Bills under LC, to the extent of
_________________, even if the existing exposure / proposed exposure
including the BULC limit falls under the powers of higher authority.
a. Normal delegated powers of NFB finance
b. Normal Delegated Powers for secured facilities
c. Normal Delegated Powers for un-secured facilities
d. Normal Delegated Powers for un-secured facilities by taking prior permission
from Next higher authority
62. In case where the account is taken over by other Banks/FIs, what shall be
part of sanction conveying letter (additional Conditions along with existing
conditions) and duly accepted by the borrower?
a. Details of past dealings of the party with our bank
b. Details of TOD/transgressions made by the party during his dealings with us
c. Detailed calculation of Concessions in ROI/ Charges extended for the last one
year to be recovered from borrower before closure of our account
d. All of the above
63. ___________Audit is exempted for the accounts covered under monitoring by
Agencies for Specialised Monitoring (ASM)
a. Stock Audit b. Legal audit c. Credit audit d. Concurrent audit
64. Relaxation in respect of Tail Risk pertaining to Road and Power projects shall be
permitted by ______________ upto their delegated powers.
a. CO-Head-CAC b. HO-GM-CAC
c. CAC/ MC of the Board d. HO-CGM-CAC
65. Genuineness of the certified Book Debt Statement can be checked from :
a. UDIN website b. GSTIN website
c. NSDL website d. Auditor only
66. Respective sanctioning authority based on the need for opening Current
accounts at a different geography for the indicative purposes like ESCROW/
Pooling account for Duty Draw Back/Credit Customs, operations of project
office/ corporate office. The status of accounts shall be obtained and reviewed
on a ____________basis and observation/s if any shall be placed to Circle
Head.
a. Quarterly b. Half yearly c. Monthly d. Yearly
CIR 134/2019 - Prompt Issuance of Non-Personalized Rupay Debit Cards for

Accounts opened under PMJDY Scheme
67. For all accounts opened under PMJDY scheme, branches to issue following
cards with immediate effect :
a. Only Non-Personalized Debit cards invariably to all account holders
b. Personalized Debit cards if requested through SAS package
c. Non-personalized debit cards at the time of opening of account
d. Both b & c
CIR 135/2019 - INSPECTION POLICY OF THE BANK FOR THE YEAR 2019-20
68. Following category of audit is discontinued as per inspection policy 2019-20:

a. Legal Audit b. Snap Audit c. Stress Audit d. IS audit
69. Auditor has to cover _____ % of advances and ___ % of deposit under
concurrent audit of a branch ( as per new modification in inspection policy):
a. 40,50 b. 70, 60 c. 70, 50 d. 70, 30
70. Periodicity of conducting RBIA of Prime Corporate Branches (PCBs), irrespective
of whether composite risk rating of RBIA is Low, Normal or Moderate, is fixed
uniformly to ______
71. Time permissible for closure of reports of RBIA of Circles / Wings / Foreign
Branches /Midterm audit of Circles / RBI Inspection shall be ________from the
date of audit reports. In case of regular Inspection of ZIs, the time permissible
for closure shall be ___________.
a. 6 months, 2 months b. 3 months, 2 months
c. 2 months, 3 months d. 3 months, 3 months
CIR 136/2019 - WITHDRAWL OF INSURANCE OF M/S APOLLO MUNICH
72. Name the insurance product of M/s Apollo Munich being withdrawn completely
(both fresh policies and renewal of existing policies has been completely
withdrawn) :
a. Easy Health Group Insurance Plan
b. Energy - Health Insurance plan
c. Group Personal Accident Health Insurance Cover for KCC Holders
d. Group assurance health plan
CIR 137/2019 - Gold Loan Post Sanction Audit
73. Regional Offices have to conduct quarterly post sanction audits in branches
appearing in the BO report 610035 which contains randomly selected ___
branches and details of ___% of the newly sanctioned Gold loans during the
quarter in these selected Branches.
a. 8, 15 % b. 10, 10% c. 6, 10% d. 5, 15%
74. Regional Office to conduct Post Sanction Audit in Gold loan lending branches
as per BO report within ____ days on completion of the Quarter and send
Quarterly report to the Circle office within ____ days on completion of Quarter
which will in turn has to submit Quarterly confirmation to Head Office within
____ days on completion of the Quarter.
a. 15,20,30 b. 10,15,20 c. 10,15,5 d. 10,30,20
CIR 138/2019 - INFORMATION SYSTEM AUDIT POLICY FOR THE YEAR 2019-20
75. All the systems, domains and processes irrespective of their risk levels shall be
covered within a period of ______ years
a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 5
76. Which of the following are the tools of IS auditor :
a. CAAT b. COBIT c. ISACA d. All of the above
CIR 139/2019 – CORPORATE NET BANKING
77. _____________facility introduced in Corporate Net banking used when a new

corporate user is created or when branches receive password reset request
from the customer.
a. Personalized password kit b. Pre-printed login password kits
c. Digital password codes d. Both b & c
CIR 141/2019- GENERATION OF MANDATORY REPORTS AND CROSS VERIFICATION WITH

TELLERWISE TRANSACTION SLIPS ON DAILY BASIS.
78. Operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed..
(141/2019)
a. Internal process b. People and system
c. External events. d. All of the above.
79. AT006 report pertains to

a. ATM Transaction report of the current date.
b. ATM Failed transactions
c. ATM transaction posted through ATM50
d. None
80. After tallying, slips have to be organized ______ of cash , clearing and transfer.
a. Computer operator wise and teller wise
b. Date wise
c. All teller slips as cash , clearing and transfer on consolidated basis
d. None.
CIR 142/2019- INTEREST SUBVENTION SCHEME FOR INCREMENTAL CREDIT TO

MSME
81. In the interest subvention scheme for incremental credit to MSME, branches
should ensure up-dation of ____ in the CBS.
a. GSTN and Udhyog Adhar Number (UAN)
b. Income tax return
c. Particulars of sales.
d. Income and expenditure Details.
82. All the incremental working capital or term loans to the MSME would be eligible
for the interest subvention coverage upto Rs___ lakh only during the period of
the scheme.
a. 25 Lakh b. 50 Lakh c. 100 Lakh d. 200 Lakh
83. For claiming of the interest subvention for the incremental credit to the MSME,
a business object report _____has been created and the interest subvention to
be claimed every _______.
a. 280343, Half yearly b. 280303, Half yearly
c. 1280343, yearly d. 280303, yearly
84. __________is the option to update the Udhyog Adhar Number and __________is
the option to update the GSTN number in the CBS.
a. CIM18 and BA014 b. CIM 19 AND BA014
c. CIM20 and BA015 d. None.
CIR 144/2019- PRADHAN MANTRI AWAS YOJANA (URBAN) MISSION – Credit Linked
Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) –MIG Scheme
85. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna (Urban Mission) under MIG I and MIG II , a credit
Linked subsidy schme for the Middle Income group has been extended upto___
a. 30/09/2019 b. 31/12/2019 c. 31/03/2020 d. None.
CIR 145/2019 - REVIEW OF PRUDENTIAL NORMS-RISK WEIGHTS FOR EXPOSURES

TO NBFCS – MODIFICATION
86. Risk weights of the NBFCs which are core investment companies will be rated as
a. 100% b. 150% c. 200% d. None is correct.
87. Exposures of the Banks to all the NBFCs except ________ would be risk
weighted as per the rating assigned by the Accredited Agencies in the manner
similar to the Corporate.
a. Core Investment companies b. Housing Companies
b. Deposit taking NBFCs d. None.
CIR 146/2019 - REVIEW OF POLICY ON PREMISES MATTERS FOR THE FY 2019-20

88. As per the Policy on Premises for the 2019-20 , the Carpet area norms for New
Branch /Office Premises for the Rural , Semi Urban, Urban and Metro in Sq.
Feet is as under ____, ______, ____, ________which include ON Site Space as
far as Possible for ATM also.
a. 1500, 1700, 2000,2000 respectively b. 1500.1700,2100,2100 respectively
b. 1500,1700,2200,2200 respectively d. None.
89. As per the Policy on Premises for the 2019-20, the Carpet area norms for
Existing Branch/Office Premises (Alternate & Renewal) in Sq Feet in Rural ,
Semi Urban, Urban and Metro is as under ____, ______, ____, ________and
which include On Site Space as far as Possible fo the ATM also.
a. 1500,1900,2200,2500 b. 1500,1900,2200,2600
c. 1500,1900.2200,2700 d. None.
90. For Re-imbursement of the Maintenance of Quarter Furniture , Sanctioning

Authority for the Scale I,II and III (other than Branch / Section In-charge) is :
a. Concerned Branch/ Section Incharge. b. DM RO/CO
c. AGM RO/CO d. None.
91. For Re-imbursement of the Maintenance of Quarter Furniture , Sanctioning

Authority for the Scale I,II and III who are the Branch /Section In- charge.
a. AGM RO b. DGM CO
c. Next Higher Authority at RO/CO d. None.
92. The Monetary Ceiling for Residential Telephone Facility provided to all the
eligible officials irrespective of the SCALE is Rs._________
a. Rs. 675/- Excluding GST b. Rs.500/- Excluding GST
c. Rs. 600 Excluding GST d. None.
93. Monetary Limit for the Mobile Phone Call charges is Rs.________ which is
eligble for all the officials irrespective of the Scale .
a. Rs.400 excluding GST b. Rs.500/- Excluding GST
c. Rs.300 Excluding GST d. Rs.399/ Excluding GST.
94. The mobile Phone provided to the Various officials shall be transferred
free of cost to them upon the completion of ______ years from the date
of procurement and also on the death or retirement on “Super Annuation”
irrespective of age of the Mobile Handset. (146/2019)
a. 3 years b. 2 years c. 5 years d. None.
CIR 148/2019 - LOANS AND ADVANCES AGAINST SHARES/DEBENTURES – REVISED

LIST OF COMPANIES.
95. The Fresh Loan/ Advance that can be granted against the security of shares
held in Physical Form is _______
a. Rs.10 Lakh
b. Rs.20 Lakh
c. No Fresh Loan to be granted against the Physical Shares.
d. None.
CIR 149/2019 - REPORTING AND ACCOUNTING OF CENTRAL GOVERNMENT
TRANSACTIONS OF MARCH 2019
96. In respect of reporting and Accounting of the Central Government Transactions
of March, the authorized dealing branches shall dispatch the Physical challan,
scroll after generation of IBA to the nodal/focal point branch that is situated
locally on ________
a. On daily basis on the day of transaction itself through courier or latest by the
following day through Special Messenger Arrangement
b. With in two Days
c. within 3 days
d. None
97. The authorized dealing branches shall dispatch Physical Challan, Scroll after
prompt generation of the IBA to the nodal/focal point branch that is situated
outstation; on ______ by adopting special arrangement like couriers etc so that
the Payment and collections on behalf of the govt for the month of March is
accounted for in the same Financial year.
a. day to day basis b. with in two days.
c. with in 3 days d. None.
98. Instruments tendered towards the tax collections for the govt are to be lodged
in the option -----duly selecting the MICR Outward Clearing II (Govt Tax Coll
Yr End) Code No. 7 as at the the Financial year end March and txn code as
Non Speed Clearing to clear the instruments on the same day and accordingly
the routing number of the outstation cheques should be changed to the local
routing number.
a. 6520 b. 6502 c. 5521 d. None
150/2019 INTRODUCTION OF NEW RETAIL LOAN PRODUCT – “CANARA HOME LOAN

SECURE”
99. The Canara Bank Home Loan Secure is the scheme

a. A retail personal loan scheme for 100 % funding the one time life insurance
premium offered by choice for covering the death and permanent disability of
the housing loan borrowers.
b. Insurance of the House by Choice or any other insurance company where the
tie up arrangement with our bank.
c. Insurance of House by any of authorized Insurance Companies licenced under
the IRDA.
d. None.
100. Minimum and maximum tenor of the Canara Home Loan Secure Scheme is
a. 2 years, 15 Years or tenure of the HL whichever is less.
b. 5 years, 10 year or tenure of the HL which ever is less.
c. 1 years, 10 Years or tenure of the HL whichever is less.
d. 2 years, 10 Years or tenure of the HL whichever is less.
101. What is the margin and the processing charges under the Canara Home Loan
secure scheme
a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. NIL
152/2019 INTRODUCTION OF NEW FUNCTIONALITY- CAPTURING SUBSIDY

DETAILS IN CBS FOR BOTH AGRICULTURE AND OTHER THAN AGRICULTURE
LOANS.
102. New Screen_______ is introduced for capturing the details of subsidy

a. LNM95 b. BAM83 c. LN057 d. ALM35
103. For crediting the Front-End subsidy (if any) to the loan account, branches to
opt for new CBS options
a. Option 1183 for Agriculture loans
b. Option 1182 for other than Agriculture loans
c. Option a and b are correct
d. None of these
153/2019 FINANCE ACT 2019 - IMPORTANT AMENDMENTS IN INCOME TAX / TDS

PROVISIONS.
104. The threshold limit for TDS on Interest Income other than interest on
securities has been increased to RS.______
a. Rs.10000/- b. Rs. 20000/- c. Rs. 30000/- d. Rs. 40000/-
105. The threshold limit for TDS on rental income has been increased to Rs._____
a. Rs 500000/- b. Rs.240000/- c. Rs .40000/- d. Rs .300000/-
106. The Standard deduction from salary has been increased to Rs._______
a. Rs.50000/- b. Rs. 200000/- c. Rs. 100000/- d. Rs.300000/-
107. An amount of Rs.______ has been allowed as a rebate u/s 87A of the Income
Tax Act, if the total income of the tax payer does not exceed Rs. 5,00,000/-.
a. a. Rs.2500/- b. Rs.5000/- c. Rs.10000/- d. Rs 12500/-
154/2019 OVERDUE AUDIT REPORTS – NEED FOR PROMPT ACTION
108. Maximum time for closure of other inspection reports, like Snap Audit of KYC
/ AML norms, Expenditure Audit, Snap Audit of normal and moderate risk
branches etc
a. 15 Days b. One Month c. Two Months d. Three Months
109. Maximum time for closure of RBIA Reports of Small branches; Service Units
viz., Account Section, LPC, FD, Currency Chest, SME Sulabh etc
a. One Month b. Two Months c. Three Months d. Four Months
158/2019 COMMISSION ON GOVERNMENT BUSINESS
110. Commission from Government Business to be accounted under Which GL Head

a. 320020150 b. 320010130 c. 320010150 d. 320020100
111. Which of following head is not concerned with Government Business

a. Indirect Taxes b. Postal Transactions
c. Excess Cash d. Atal Pension Yojana
161/2019 - OFFLINE ATM TRANSACTIONS
112. If transaction is made through ATM, cash gets dispensed and customer account
not debited, what would be appropriate method of reconciliation for such
transaction:
a. Debit SA credit GL
b. Debit GL and credit account holder
c. Debit Sundry assets and credit GL 113502010
d. Debit cardholder and credit GL head 113502010
163/2019 - EDUCATIONAL LOAN SCHEME FOR PROSPECTIVE JMG SCALE I OFFICERS

OF OUR BANK WHO UNDERTAKE SPECIALLY DESIGNED TRAINING COURSE (POST
GRADUATE DIPLOMA IN BANKING AND FINANCE (PGDBF) OF ONE YEAR DURATION).
113. What is maximum amount for education loan to prospective JMG scale I
officers of our bank undergoing specially designed training course (post
graduate diploma in banking and finance (PGDBF) for one year duration)
a. Manipal Global Education Services Pvt. Ltd. Total Course fee is Rs 413000/-
b. NITTE Education International Pvt. Ltd. Total Course fee is Rs 354000/-
c. Both A and B are correct
d. None of These.
164/2019 - PADHO PARDESH SCHEME OF INTEREST SUBSIDY ON EDUCATION
LOANS FOR OVERSEAS STUDIES
114. Padho Pardesh Scheme of interest subsidy on education loans for overseas
studies for the students belonging to
a. SC/ST b. Minority communities c. OBC d. General categories
165/2019 - AUTOMATED TELLER MACHINE/CASH DISPENSER POLICY-2019-20
115. ATM functions are moving from mere cash dispensing to many value added
Miscellaneous Non-Financial services. How many services available with our
ATM?
a. 21 b. 15 c. 20 d. 10
116. White Label model ATM is

a. Only cash withdrawl
b. Only cash deposits
c. Cash withdrawal and deposit facility available
d. Only help non-financial transaction
117. Deemed On-site ATMs are those ATMs located within

a. Radius 16 kms from the branch premises
b. Radius 1000 meters from the branch premises
c. Radius 10 Kms from the branch premises
d. Radius 500 meters from the branch premises
118. Per day Cash withdrawal Limit available for platinum card holder at ATM is
a. Rs 50000/- b. Rs 40000/- c. Rs 100000/- d. Rs 60000/-
119. Amongst the following given amounts, which one of the amount does not
appear in fast cash menu of ATM, whenever Customer withdraw cash from ATM
through fast cash menu
a. Rs 500/- b. Rs 1000/- c. Rs.10000/- d. Rs.8000/-
120. Maximum number of pieces of notes being dispensed by Diebold and NCR ATM
machines (respectively) in a single transaction are
121. While taking out a mini statement at ATM, __ number of transaction view/
print is allowed per mini statement
a. 10 b. 20 c. 5 d. 6
122. Maximum funds that can be transferred through Interbank Mobile Payment
Service (IMPS) per day & per month (respectively) by paying visit at an ATM is
a. Rs 5000/- & Rs 100000/- b. Rs 10000/- & Rs 50000/-
c. Rs 4000/- & Rs 200000/- d. Rs 50000/- & Rs.250000/-
123. Minimum floor area required for an ATM site is

a. 70 -100 Sq ft b. 100-120 Sq ft c. 120-150 Sq ft d. 200 Sq ft
124. Designated officer visiting a branch, should also pay visit to ATM premises in
order to verify
a. Mandatory posters or ATM related information materials
b. Unidentified devices or card skimming machines etc
c. Proper functioning of CCTV camera
d. All of above
125. Circle to ensure surprise verification of cash at outsourced ATMs atleast once
in _________
a. Month b. Quarter c. 6 months d. 2 months.
126. DVR should have capacity to store images of _____ days for viewing and
archival and readability of the images.
127. How many transaction required for installation of second ATM in a same lobby
a. Average transaction for last quarter more than 300
b. Average transaction for last 2 months more than 250
c. Average transaction for last 3 months more than 100
d. Average transaction for one month more than 50
CIR 167/2019 - ATM CASH Transaction Dispute and Exception Handling Policy for
the year 2019-2020
128. Maximum time allowed for lodging the claim with other bank by the
branches/call centre agents on the disputes received from the Debit
Cardholders, is____ days from the date of failed ATM Cash Transactions
a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 7
129. What is Fee collected from the Acquirer Bank for Pre-arbitration (provision to
take up the matter with other bank in case the claim of our customer is rejected
and customer is not satisfied with resolution provided by the other bank) raised by
the Issuer
a. Rs 100/- b. Rs 200/- c. Rs.300/- d. Rs.500/-
130. Other bank customer can withdraw maximum of ____________ amount per
transaction from our bank’s ATM.
a. Rs.18000/- b. Rs.10000/- c. Rs.5000/- d. Rs.40000/-
CIR 167/2019 - TRADING IN OUR BANK’S SHARE
131. “Material Subsidiaries” means A subsidiary, whose income or net worth

exceeds _______% of the consolidated income or networth respectively, of the
listed entity and its subsidiaries in the immediately preceding accounting year
or as may be prescribed in SEBI (Listing Obligations Disclosure Requirements)
Regulations, 2015 from time to time.
a. 15% b. 20% c. 10% d. 30%
132. KMP are those persons who have the authority and responsibility for planning,
directing and controlling the activities of the Bank. KMP stand for
a. Key Manager person b. Key Managerial Personnel
b. Key Management Person d. Key Manager pattern
133. UPSI stand for

a. Unidentified person for serious information
b. Unpublished Price Sensitive Information
c. Unsubscribed power for sensitive information
d. Universal person for serious information
134. Legitimate Purpose (in context of trading in our bank’s share) shall include
sharing of unpublished price sensitive information in ordinary course of
business by an insider with
a. Government of India or Reserve Bank of India
b. Customers or merchant bankers
c. legal advisers, auditors, insolvency professionals or other advisors or
consultants
d. All of the above
CIR 171/2019 - BILLS UNDER LCs (BULC) SCHEME
135. Concession in Rate of Interest upto ______ bps subject to minimum of

applicable MCLR is permitted under Bills under LCs (BULC) SCHEME
a. 150 b. 145 c. 170 d. 100
136. Under BULC scheme extension in validity period for permitting concessional
interest till
a. 30.09.2019 b. 30.12.2019 c. 31.03.2020 d. 30.06.2020
CIR 172/2019 - NON CREDIT ASSETS & LIABILITIES ELIMINATION POLICY- 2019-20
137. IBA amount received for written off amount is to be credited under which of
the following GL head.
a. GC 420083100 b. SL 209272430 c. SA 122422070 d. GC 420083210
138. RO head can write off amount upto ______________ outstanding under SL.
a. Rs 25000/- b. Rs 10000/- c. Rs 50000/- d. Rs 100000/-
CIR 173/2019 - COMPLIANCE POLICY OF THE BANK – 2019-20
139. Compliance risk includes

a. Legal Risk b. Regulatory Risk
c. Reputation Risk d. All of the above
140. Standards and codes as per compliance policy are prescribed by which of the
following agency:
a. Security & Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
b. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
c. Goiporia Committee
d. All of the above
141. All New Products are to be monitored for the first ___ months to ensure that
these products strictly adhere to the Regulatory / Internal guidelines as per
Compliance policy of our bank
a. 12 b. 6 c. 3 d. 9
142. Executive, not below the rank of ___________________ of KYC / AML

Centralized Unit of RBS & MIS Wing, HO shall be the Principal Officer for
ensuring strict adherence to AML / KYC guidelines
a. Deputy General Manager b. General Manager
c. Assistant General Manager d. Divisional Manager
143. As per the recommendations of Basanth Seth Committee on Audit System and
revised Inspection Policy, ______weightage is given to Control Risk and ____
weightage to Business Risk
a. 70%, 30% b. 60 %, 40% c. 80%, 20% d. 20%,80%
CIR 176/2019 - INTEREST SUBVENTION SCHEME FOR SHORT TERM CROP
PRODUCTION LOANS TO FARMERS.
144. If the High Level Committee on recommendation of Inter Ministerial Central
Team and Subcommittee of National Executive Committee declares natural
calamity in any area, the Branches/Offices in that area can extend interest
subvention of _____ % per annum and interest incentive to eligible accounts
for first ____ years/entire period (subject to maximum of five years) on the
restructured amount .
a. 5%,2 b. 2%,3 c. 3%,3 d. 4%,2
CIR 177/2019 - INTEREST SUBVENTION SCHEME FOR INCREMENTAL CREDIT TO

MSMEs 2018
145. Interest subvention scheme for MSME total exposure of party not exceed
Rs ___
a. 5 Crore b. 2 Crore c. 10 Lakh d. 1 Crore
CIR 178/2019 - DELEGATION OF POWERS FOR MSME LOANS ABOVE RS.10 LAKHS TO
RS.10 CRORES-BASED ON CMR
146. Cibil MSME Rank (CMR) applicable for

a. Additional finance to MSME
b. Additional due diligence tool for MSME Proposals
c. A and B correct
d. None of these.
147. Cibil MSME Rank applicable for what type of exposure and Amount ?
a. MSME loans with aggregate Loan quantum (Present & Proposed) of above
Rs.10 lakhs upto Rs.10 crores
b. MSME exposure More than 10 Crore
c. MSME Rs. 1 Lakh to Rs. 10 Lakh
d. Option b and c correct.
CIR 180/2019 - SUBMISSION OF AUDIT CERTIFICATE ON CLASSIFICATION OF

PRIORITY SECTOR ADVANCES
148. Now RBI has instructed to obtain separate audit certificate for the following
a. Interest subvention on post harvest credit (Produce Loan) against warehouse
receipt
b. Interest subvention on loans restructured due to Natural Calamity.
c. Interest subvention/incentive on loans restructured due to severe Natural
Calamity.
d. All of the above
CIR 181/2019 - SOCIAL MEDIA POLICY OF THE BANK FOR 2019-20
149. Which amongst the following is not the social networking site?
a. Twitter b. Face Book c. LinkedIn d. Window
150. What is the toll free call number of Canara Bank . (181/2019)
a. 18004250018 b. 18004250019 c. 18004250020 d. 18004250025
CIR 182/2019 - POLICY OF OUR BANK ON INSOLVENCY & BANKRUPTCY CODE

(IBC), 2016 FOR THE YEAR 2019-2020
151. The NCLT is the adjudicating agency in IBC 2016 for

a. Corporate
b. LLP
c. Other Limited Liability entities and firms
d. all of the above
152. The DRT is the adjudicating agency in IBC 2016 for the following. (182/2019)
a. Individual & Partnership Firms
b. Corporate
c. LLP
d. Other Limited Liabilities entities and firms
153. Which is not the specified person /entity In IBC2016

a. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)
b. Insolvency Professionals (IP)
c. Sick Companies Industrial Board
d. Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPA) & Information Utilities.
154. The corporate Insolvency Resolution can be triggered if the corporate commits
the default of -- (182/2019)
a. Rs. 1.00 lakh or more b. Fifty thousand or more
c. Rs. Ten Thousand or more d. Rs. Ten Lakh or more
CIR 183/2019 - POLICY FOR GENERAL MANAGEMENT OF BANK BRANCHES

2019-20
155. As per the policy of General Management of bank branches; the following
facilities should be available in bank branches :
a. Required seating/Drinking water/Sanitation
b. Board of Banking Ombudsman Scheme in trilingual
c. May I help You counter in the large/Bigger branches
d. All of the above.
CIR 184/2019 - Fraud Risk Management Policy of the Bank for the year 2019-20
156. Report of frauds, dacoities, thefts, burglary to be submitted to
a. Within 24 hours of occurrence/identification to R & R Section, Vigilance Wing
b. Immediately
c. Within two days
d. Soon after filing FIR with jurisdictional Police station.
157. Branches have to report all cases of actual/suspected frauds immediately on

detection (within 24 Hours) to
a. (R & R) Section RL & FP Wing , Bangalore
b. GA Section
c. Mipd Section
d. Advances Section Circle Office
158. Branches shall also endorse copies of fraud reports to

a. Recovery & Legal Section Circle Office
b. Concerned ZI
c. Both a & b along with Circle Head
d. Both a & b
159. Any account once classified as FRAUD and reported to RBI should be classified
as LOSS ASSET irrespective of security cover available under which option of
CBS
a. BA020 b. CIM09 c. Both a & B d. Both a & b along with BAM50
160. Any account once classified as FRAUD and reported to RBI should be classified
as LOSS ASSET by_________ irrespective of security cover available
a. Branch b. Head Office c. Circle Office d. Regional Office
161. Fraud related to Electronic Banking Transfer and ATM withdrawal, branch to
report to
a. (R & R) Section RL & FP Wing , Bangalore
b. GA Section
c. report the evidence in the incident reporting tool under SAS package and
report fraud to R&R Section, RLFP Wing, HO
d. TM Section Circle Office by providing case ID of incident reporting tool under
SAS package only
162. In cases of Fraud related to Electronic Banking Transfer and ATM withdrawal,
Digital Banking Wing Head Office will be the functional wing to deal with all
cases of
a. Unauthorized EBT including insurance claim
b. Cyber crime related to internet banking
c. Phishing calls received to the customers
d. All of the above
163. Frauds Rs.1 lakh and above but below Rs. 3 Crores involving outsiders and
bank staff will be reported to
a. State Police. To the local police station
b. To the State CID / Economic Offences Wing of the State concerned
c. To be lodged with Anti Corruption Branch of CBI (where staff involvement is
prima facie evident)
d. Economic Offences Wing of CBI (where staff involvement is prima facie not
evident)
164. In respect of all non-credit related frauds including fraudulent encashment
of cheques/withdrawal order forms/ATM withdrawals through Debit/Credit
cards by skimming, cloning, phishing etc; Misappropriation of cash received
from deposit /borrowal clients by our employees can be reimbursed by DGM
heading Circle (Competent authority at Circle office) & not exceeding Rs
______ lakhs per account.
a. Rs 3.00 lakhs b. Rs 5.00 lakhs c. Rs 25.00 lakhs d. Rs 1.00 lakhs
CIR 185/2019 - MODIFICATIONS IN HOUSING FINANCE & PRADHAN MANTRI AWAS

YOJANA (URBAN) CLSS- SCHEME GUIDELINES
165. As per new guidelines Cir 185/2019 for housing Finance scheme, the Minimum
Confirmed Service for the Salaried class now onwards shall be
a. 2 Years b. 3 Years c. 1 Year d. 5 Years
166. As per new guidelines Cir 185/2019 for housing Finance scheme, Age
relaxation i.e. entry age of the main borrower would be 60 years & above
with loan repayable within 70 years of age. This age relaxation may be
permitted by.
a. Respective Sanctioning Authority upto their delegated authority
b. RAH-Head
c. AGM-CO-CAC.
d. AGM-RO-CAC
167. As per new guidelines Cir 185/2019 for housing Finance scheme, Age
relaxation i.e. entry age of the Borrower/s or Co-borrower/s is beyond 70
years at the time of availing the loan, such proposals can be considered very
selectively by
a. RAH-Head b. AGM-CO-CAC. c. Circle Head – CO –CAC d. HO-GM-CAC
168. For second Housing loan, in addition to the income of borrower, Income of
______________ may be considered for arriving at maximum loan amount
a. Income of spouse/ children/parents/ siblings as co-borrower/s
b. Income of spouse only taken as a co-borrower
c. Income of person having High net worth taken as Co-obligant
d. Income of close relatives (defined in credit risk management policy) taken as
co-borrower
169. The maximum quantum of Housing loan as per new guidelines to be

considered on ______ times of average gross annual income of the concluded
financial year to be permitted by the _____________ upto their delegated
authority & higher loan of _______ times of gross annual may be very
selectively permitted by _______________________________up to their
delegated powers and sanctioning authorities above
a. 4 times, Respective SA & 6 times, RAH Head/ RO HEAD RO-CAC/ AGM-CO-
CAC
b. 4 times, Respective SA & 5 times, RO HEAD RO-CAC/ AGM-CO-CAC
c. 5 times, Respective SA & 6 times, RAH Head/ RO HEAD RO-CAC/ AGM-CO-
CAC
d. 5 times, Respective SA & 6 times, Circle Head CO- CAC & above
170. The maximum quantum of Housing loan as per new guidelines permitted by
Circle Head-CO-CAC for urban and metro centers will be _______ times of
average gross annual income of the concluded financial year subject to _____
Net Take Home or Rs 20,000/- whichever is higher should be maintained.
a. 6 times, 25 % b. 7 times, 30% c. 8 times, 30% d. 10 times, 40%
171. Branches with more than ___NPA under Canara Vehicle loan scheme , ___ NPA
under Canara Budget and ____ % under all other retail loans shall have no
powers to sanction the loans under the housing loan scheme
a. 5%, 2%, 4% b. 3%,2%, 3% c. 2%, 2%, 3% d. 4%, 3%, 2%
172. Minimum margin for EWS/ LIG category borrowers under PMAY Scheme upto
30 Lakh is ______, above 30 Lakhs and upto 75 lakhs is _____ in case of newly
purchased house/flat with overall quantum upto the tune ____ years Gross
salary subject to compliance of NTH & LTV as per regulatory guidelines .
a. 20%, 25 % , 6 years b. 10%, 20 % , 6 years
b. 20%, 25 % , 4 years d. 20%, 30 % , 6 years
CIR 186/2019 – LOAN RECOVERY POLICY 2019-20

173. The Circle Office Committee shall review individually the accounts with
liability above ________ slipped to NPA subsequent to last review.
a. Rs.1 crore b. Rs.50 Lakh c. Rs.25 Lakh d. Rs.10 Lakh
174. Cut Off limit for follow-up, Review and monitoring of accounts “MARKED FOR
RECOVERY” at RO & CO Recovery Sections (respectively) on transfer of files to
them is as under :
a. Upto 2 Lakh at RO & Above 2 Lakhs at CO
b. Upto 5 Lakh at RO & Above 5 Lakhs at CO
c. Upto 10 Lakh at RO & Above 10 Lakhs at CO
d. Upto 25 Lakh at RO & Above 25 Lakhs at CO
175. Head Office shall review and monitor NPA accounts with liability of Rs_______
and above classified as “MARKED FOR RECOVERY’’ & files with exposure Rs 25
crores and above shall be sent to __________ wing at HO.
a. Rs.25 Lakh & above, R&L wing b. Rs.50 Lakh & above, SAM wing
c. Rs.10 Crore & above, R&L wing d. Rs. 1 Crore & above, SAM wing
176. After sale of the npa ; for how many days the account will remain as standard
With the Purchasers Bank (186/2019)
a. 180 days b. 30 Days c. 90 Days d. One year.
177. Nonperforming financial asset should be held by the purchasing bank in its
books at least for a period of ____ months before it is sold to other banks/FIs/
178. No Npa account with Liability of Rs.1 cr. And above can remain outstanding
beyond the period of ____ without initiating action for recovery.
179. Full form of DIN is :

a. Direct Identity No.
b. Director Identification Number
c. Direct Internal Number
d. Direct identification Number
180. The policy for publication of Photo is restricted to “wilful defaulters” having
liability of above _________ Lakhs and permitted by ___________ :
a. Rs. 2.00 Lac, AGM of branches /Ro
b. Rs.5.00 Lac, AGM of branches /Ro
c. Rs.10 Lac, DGM of the Circle Office
d. Rs.20 Lakh, DGM of the Circle Office
181. Maximum fees payable to recovery agents in case of recovery of dues for Sub
Standard account
a. 3% of amount recovered b. 5% of amount recovered
c. 10% of amount recovered d. 1% of amount recovered
182. Maximum Fees payable to Recovery Agents in cases of recovery in case of
loss/Bad Loan Written off.
a. 10% subject to max 5 Lac b. 10% subject to max 1 Lakh
c. 5% subject to max 5 Lac d. 10% subject to max 5 lac
183. Maximum fees payable to recovery agents in case of settlement of account by

way of compromise.
a. 35% of normal fee b. 50% of the normal fee
c. 25% of the normal fee d. 10% of the normal fee
184. Doubtful and Loss Accounts with Book Liability exceeding Rs _____ shall
qualify for entrustment to Resolution Agents for Recovery.
a. Rs. 10 Lakh b. Rs. 25 Lakh c. Rs.50 Lakh d. Rs. 20 Lac
CIR 187/2019 – MSME ACCOUNTS - TREATMENT OF DUES FROM 01.01.2019 IN THE

ACCOUNTS OF MSME BORROWERS REGISTERED UNDER GOODS AND SERVICE TAX
(GST) AND NOT REGISTERED – REITERATION OF GUIDELINES
185. F
or the enterprises not registered under GST as at 31.12.2018, if installments/
dues falling from 01.01.2019 onwards are not paid in ______ days the account
will move to NPA & for accounts registered under GST if any payment falls
due from May 2019 onwards, account will move to NPA in ____ days.
a. 90 days,90 days b. 180 days, 90 days
c. 270 days, 180 days d. None
CIR 188/2019 – POLICY OF THE BANK ON SECURITY ARRANGEMENTS
186. Who is the regulating authority with regard to currency chest operations in
the Public Sector Banks.
a. Circle Offices b. Regional/Zonal Offices.
b. Currency Chest d. RBI
187. In the currency chests, the entrance & emergency door to vault should be
provided a _______ and _________.
a. CC TV and Double lock b. CCTV and Time Lock
c. Grill door and time lock d. None is correct.
188. In CCTV ; _____ days recording to be available in DVR for the real time
viewing.
a. 30 days b. 45 days c. 90 days d. 60 days.
189. All sensitive currency chests should be visited by the Chief Security Officer
once in ____ and in other areas once in ___
a. One year and two years. b. 3 months and six months
c. Six months and one year d. None is correct.
190. The branch should be visited by the Security Officer in case of high , normal ,
low and low risk (but vulnerable branches) as follows:
a. 6 months, 1 year, 2 years and 1 year respectively
b. 1 year, 2 years, 2 years and 1 years respectively.
c. 3 months, 6 months, 1 year and 6 months respectively.
d. 6 months, 2 year, 3 years and 2 year respectively
191. Remittance above Rs. ____ lakhs and upto Rs. ____ lakhs must be escorted by
at least one Armed Guard who sits in the rear of the cash van
a. Rs.50 Lakh, Rs. 100 Lakh b. Rs. 10 Lakh, Rs.20 Lakh
c. Rs. 5 Lakh , Rs. 10 Lakh d. Rs. 20 Lakh, Rs.50 Lakh
192. Remittance above Rs. ______ lakhs must be accompanied by two Armed
Guards, one Armed Guard should sit in the rear and other in the cabin with
the driver
a. Rs.25 Lakh b. Rs.50 Lakh c. Rs.100 Lakh d. None
193. Who is the authority for granting permission to engage private security
guards/care taker at E- Lounge.
a. Ro Head b. Circle head
c. GM Head Office GA Wing d. None
CIR 189/2019 – FIRE SAFETY POLICY

194. The objective of the Fire Safety policy for the year 2019-20 is
a. To conduct regular fire evacuation drills and testing and conduct regular fire
safety inspections.
b. To ensure effective liaison with the local fire authority and ensure compliance
with all relevant legislations.
c. To undertake suitable and sufficient fire risk assessments of all premises
and activities within the premise and to identify and implement reasonably
practical control measures to combat risks.
d. All of the above.
195. As per Fire Safety policy , portable fire extinguishers for each premises such
as CO2, ___, _____ and Water CO2 to be provided as per IS 15683:2006. Their
serviceability to be ensured as per IS 2190:2010.
a. DCP b. ABC c. XYZ alongwith DCP or ABC d. Both a & b
196. Each staff member should know how to use the fire extinguishers and the
actions to be taken in case of any fire incident as per Fire Safety Policy.
Training on use of fire safety equipments to be given to staff ________ a year.
a. Twice b. Once c. Thrice d. 4 times
197. All high rise buildings (own property) where watchmen are posted or having
Floor marshal, they must undergo a short fire fighting capsule course which is
conducted by fire department at state/district level _______ in half year.
a. Twice b. Once c. Thrice d. 4 times
198. As per fire safety policy , Electric Audit of the vulnerable branches to be
carried out __________.
a. Once in half year b. Once in three years
c. Once in two year d. Once in a year
189/2019- CANARA EASY FEE

199. What is meant by ERP.
a. Enterprise Resource Planning b. Enterprise Reservoir planning
c. Enterprise Revenue Planning d. Enterprise Remedy Program
200. In the Canara Easy Fee portal, The settlement of transactions will be done on
Transaction date + ____ day basis to the accounts of institution maintained
with Canara Bank
a. T+0 day/s b. T=1 day/s c. T+2 days d. T+3 days.
201. “Canara EASY FEE”, a next Generation fee payment processing platform (a
white label solution) which enables _______
a. the institution (having an agreement executed with bank & link provided by
bank) to offer their users a convenient way to pay their fees through a wide
range of payment options
b. customers to pay their processing charges and other loan related commission
charges by their own
c. merchants to offer their users to pay their bills and service fees through
various payment options
d. easy access to any institute/university located in India to offer to their users
a convenient way to pay their fees through a wide range of payment options
202. An institute registered under CANARA EASY FEE portal, has to bear the cost of
SMS (if opted) and transaction charges for payments made through Debit card
for transaction amount above _______ (as per RBI guidelines).
a. Above Rs. 5000/- b. Above Rs. 10000/-
c. Above Rs. 2000/- d. Above Rs. 50000/-
191/2019- REVISION IN INTEREST RATES ON DOMESTIC & NRO TERM DEPOSITS
203. Bulk Deposits are those deposits where the amount is ___________ & above
and Interest rate for Rs ______ & above is to be obtained from Integrated
Treasury Wing, Mumbai as per HO Cir 191/2019
a. 1 crores, 5 crores b. 2 crores, 10 crores
b. 5 crores, 10 crores d. 2 crores, 5 crores
192/2019- REVISION IN INTEREST RATES ON NRE TERM DEPOSITS
204. The Maximum period for accepting NRE term deposits is increased to
________years w.e.f.29.12.2011 as per HO cir 192/2019. However, the
minimum period for accepting NRE term deposits is _____.
a. 10 Years, 6 months b. 10 years, 5 months
b. 5 years, 14 days. d. 10 years, 1 year.
193/2019 - REVISION IN INTEREST RATE ON CANARA TAX SAVER DEPOSIT SCHEME

205. Senior Citizens are eligible for ________and Employees/Ex-employees/
Ex- employees Senior Citizens are eligible for _________ additional rate of
interest above the applicable interest rate under Canara Tax Saver Deposit
Scheme
a. 0.50 % and 1.50 % b. 0.50 % and 1 %
c. 1% and 1.50% d. None
194/2019 - CANARA BANK MOBILE BANKING & UNIFIED PAYMENT INTERFACE (UPI)
POLICY
206. In the Mobile Banking Only _____wrong attempts are allowed to login in a day.
After these unsuccessful attempts in a day, the user will be disabled for a day,
the system will allow the login access on next day. However customer can go
for resetting of password.
a. Three b. Two c. Five d. None
207. What is true about MPIN in case of mobile banking and UPI
a. MPINs are known to the respective customers only . Customers are provided
with an option to change the MPIN any number of times through application.
b. MPIN is valid upto 1 year and is required to be changed once in a year.
c. No transactions, including enquiries are permitted before setting MPIN
provided at the time of registration.
d. Only a & c are correct
e. a, b, c are correct
208. Mobile banking facility is presently available only for the customers of the
type ‘__________’ or ‘__________________’
a. Resident Individual and Sole Proprietor ship
b. All Individuals and firms
c. All Individuals & Company accounts
d. All types of Individuals or firms and companies
209. What is our Bank’s Unified Payment Interface Application downloaded by the
user to his/her mobile phone :
a. M Serve b. E Infobook
c. Canara EASY FEE d. BHIM Canara Empower Application.
210. VPA is a payment identifier for sending/collecting money. VPAs are aliases to
Account No. & IFSC. This enables the user to complete a transaction without
having to enter the account credentials of the beneficiary. What is the full
form of VPA?
a. Very Personal Address b. Virtual private Address
c. Virtual Payment Address d. Valid Payment Address
196/2019 - MIGRATION OF OLTAS PACKAGE TO NEW OLTAS MODULE IN SAS

211. OLTAS is available in the SAS under Govt Business. What Is full form ?
a. Online Tax Accounting System b. Online Trade Accounting System
c. Offline Trade accounting System d. Online Trade Assessment System
197/2019 - CELEBRATION OF SC / ST MONTH

212. The SC/ ST month is celebrated during the month of ________ and is
commemorated for the birth Anniversary of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
a. April b. May c. June d. December.
198/2019 - VIDYA TURANT WITH RELAXED GUIDELINES

213. Vidya Turant education loans to the students of the top 38 elite institutions
are provided at one year MCLR . Now the competent authority has permitted
Rate of Interest concession at One year MCLR for the Institute named
____________
a. College of Ayurvedic Sciences, Varanasi
b. Karnataka state Open Agriculture University, Chickmanglore
c. Institute of Rural Management Anand (IRMA), Anand, Gujarat State
d. Global Institute of Yogic Sciences , Rishikesh
199/2019 - Extension of “MSME SAHAY” scheme

214. MSME Sahay scheme is applicable to___________ and is extended for this year
upto : (199/2019)
a. Restaurants and dhabas and extended Till 30.09.2019 as per Cir 199/2019.
b. To the persons to pay their debts taken from the Non Institutional Sources and
extended Till 30.09.2019 as per Cir 199/2019.
c. To assist the needy to tide the temporary working capital crisis of MSMEs
availing the GST Refund and extended Till 30.09.2019 as per Cir 199/2019.
d. All MSME service sector accounts having sales above 2 crores and extended Till
30.09.2019 as per Cir 199/2019.
215. The quantum of loan under the MSME Sahay is ___ % of the existing Fund
based working capital Limit or ___ % of the input tax credit claim which ever
is lower.
a. 10% , 75% b. 20%, 80% c. 25%,75% d. None is correct.
CIR 200/2019 - OPENING OF SAS CGFSEL/CGFSSD PACKAGE
216. Skill Loans sanctioned upto a Limit of Rs.________ Lac without any collateral
or Third party Guarantee are eligible for coverage under the Credit Guarantee
Fund Scheme for Skill Development Loan (CGFSSD)
a. 1.50 Lac b. 2.00 Lac c. 2.50 Lac d. 3.00 Lac
ANSWER KEY
1 c 11 a 21 b 31 a 41 c
2 d 12 c 22 c 32 b 42 c
3 a 13 c 23 b 33 d 43 c
4 c 14 c 24 a 34 c 44 b
5 b 15 c 25 c 35 a 45 b
6 b 16 b 26 a 36 c 46 b
7 a 17 c 27 b 37 d 47 c
8 d 18 b 28 c 38 c 48 b
9 d 19 d 29 b 39 b 49 d
10 c 20 b 30 d 40 c 50 d
ANSWER KEY
51 b 61 b 71 b 81 a 91 c
52 c 62 c 72 a 82 c 92 a
53 b 63 a 73 c 83 a 93 d
54 d 64 c 74 b 84 a 94 a
55 d 65 a 75 c 85 c 95 c
56 e 66 a 76 d 86 a 96 a
57 b 67 d 77 b 87 a 97 a
58 b 68 c 78 d 88 a 98 a
59 c 69 c 79 a 89 a 99 a
60 b 70 b 80 a 90 a 100 a
ANSWER KEY
101 d 111 c 121 a 131 c 141 b
102 a 112 d 122 d 132 b 142 a
103 c 113 c 123 a 133 b 143 c
104 d 114 b 124 d 134 d 144 b
105 b 115 a 125 b 135 b 145 d
106 a 116 c 126 c 136 c 146 b
107 d 117 d 127 b 137 a 147 a
108 b 118 a 128 b 138 b 148 d
109 b 119 d 129 a 139 d 149 d
110 c 120 c 130 b 140 d 150 a
ANSWER KEY
151 d 161 c 171 c 181 a 191 d
152 a 162 a 172 b 182 b 192 b
153 c 163 b 173 d 183 b 193 b
154 a 164 a 174 c 184 c 194 d
155 d 165 c 175 d 185 a 195 d
156 a 166 a 176 c 186 d 196 b
157 a 167 c 177 d 187 c 197 b
158 d 168 a 178 c 188 c 198 c
159 c 169 c 179 b 189 a 199 a
160 b 170 c 180 c 190 a 200 c
ANSWER KEY
201 a 211 a
202 c 212 a
203 b 213 c
204 d 214 c
205 b 215 b
206 a 216 a
207 d
208 a
209 d
210 c
1. Who is eligible to be a beneficiary under Interest Subvention Scheme for MSMEs,
2018
a. All the MSMEs who haveValid Udyog Aadhar Number [UAN]
b. Valid GSTN Number
c. a and b
d. a or b
2. A term loan was sanctioned before November 02, 2018. However, a part of it
is disbursed after November 02, 2018. Is the unit eligible for claiming interest
subvention under Interest Subvention Scheme for MSMEs, 2018 ?
a. Yes Term loan disbursed on or after November 02, 2018 would be eligible
b. No. Term loan disbursed on or after November 02, 2018 would NOT be
eligible
3. What is the validity of the Interest Subvention scheme for MSMEs, 2018?
a. 31st March 2019
b. 31st March 2020
c. 31 December 2019
d. 31st December 2020
4. What is the maximum incremental funded assistance that can be covered under
the Interest Subvention scheme for MSMEs, 2018 ?
a. Rs. 200.00 lacs
b. Rs. 150.00 Lacs
c. Rs 100.00 lacs
d. Rs. 50. 00 Lacs
5. What is the maximum Temporary Overdraft facility that can be covered under
the Interest Subvention scheme for MSMEs, 2018 ?
a. 20% of the total limit
b. 20% of the sanctioning powers
c. 5% of the secured OD
d. NIL.
6. Whether credit facilities sanctioned above Rs. 100.00 lakh can be considered
under the scheme for getting interest subvention benefit up to the limit of Rs.
100.00 lakh?
a. Yes, interest subvention benefit is available up to the limit of Rs. 100.00 lakh
b. No, Since the credit facility is beyond the limit the accunt is not eligible for
interest subvention benefit.
7. How to prefer the claim under the Interest Subvention scheme for MSMEs, 2018
a. Claims to be submitted twice in a year, for the half year ending September 30
and March 31, each year
b. Claims to be submitted not later than 6 months from the end of the period for
which it is being claimed
c. Claims need to be duly certified by the statutory auditor of the bank
d. All the three.
8. What is the maximum fee chargeable by the M/S CARE Ratings Limited for Due
Diligence Services.
a. Rs 10000.00
b. Rs 14000.00
c. Rs. 20000.00
d. No fixed Limit
9. For which accounts Due Diligence report from the Credit Rating Agencies is to be
obtained.
a. All MSME accounts seeking credit facility for the first time.
b. All MSME accounts with credit facility requirement above Rs. 10.00 Lacs and
covered under CGTMSE
c. A or B
d. A and B
10. What is the minimum standards for setting up new CCs in the places other than
hilly/ inaccessible areas?
a. Area of the strong room/ vault of at least 1500 sq. ft.
b. Processing capacity of 6,60,000 pieces of banknotes per day
c. Chest Balance Limit (CBL) of at least Rs. 10 billion subject to ground realities
and reasonable restrictions, at the discretion of the Reserve Bank
d. All the above.
11. What is the number of soiled notes and with a maximum value per day, banks
should exchange them over the counter, free of charge.
a. Up to 20 pieces and Rs. 2000.00
b. Up to 50 pieces and Rs. 5000.00
c. Up to 20 pieces and Rs. 5000.00
d. Up to 10 pieces and Rs. 2000.00
12. For which of the following activities under Animal Husbandry and Fisheries, RBI
has extended the KCC facility for working capital requirement.
a. Inland fisheries and aquaculture
b. Marine fisheries
c. Poultry and small ruminant farming and Dairy
d. All the above.
13. Area specific “OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units” is available in which of
the following places.
a. Lucknow, Patna, Karnal, Kolkata & Chandigarh Circles
b. Lucknow, Patna, Mumbai, Kolkata & Chandigarh Circles
c. Lucknow, Patna, Karnal, Hyderabad, & Chandigarh Circles
d. Lucknow, Patna, Karnal, Vijayawada & Chandigarh Circles
14. Area specific “OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units” what is the maximum
Loan amount
a. Maximum cap is fixed for Rs 6.00 crores based on storage capacity.
b. Maximum cap is fixed for Rs 5.00 crores irrespective of storage capacity.
c. Maximum cap is fixed for Rs 15.00 crores based on storage capacity.
d. Maximum cap is fixed for Rs 15.00 crores irrespective of storage capacity.
15. The outstanding against the Book Debts should not exceed ____ % of the limit
and operational expenditure should not exceed ____ % of the limit under Area
specific “OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units” ?
a. 75% and 25%
b. 83.00% and 17%
c. 83.33% and 16.67%
d. 80% and 20%
16. What is the collateral security by way of mortgage under Area specific “OD
facility to Potato Cold Storage Units”?
a. Landed properties shall not be less than 125% for limits upto Rs 100 lac and
150% for units above Rs 100 lacs.
b. Landed properties shall not be less than 125% for limits above Rs 100 lac and
150% for units up to Rs 100 lacs.
c. Landed properties shall not be less than 150% for limits upto Rs 100 lac and
d. Landed properties shall not be less than 100% for limits upto Rs 100 lac and
17. Under Area specific “OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units” when the interest is
debited and the interest/ installment on term loan will fall due.
a. Interest will be debited half yearly and interest / Installment on term loan will
fall due as and when due.
b. Interest will be debited monthly and interest / Installment on term loan will
fall due as on September and March.
c. Interest will be debited monthly and interest / Installment on term loan will
fall due as 31st of October every year.
d. Interest will be debited yearly and interest / Installment on term loan will fall
due as 31st of October every year.
18. What is the rate of interest on housing loans for salaried class with CIC risk grade- low
risk category borrowers sanctioned on or after 22.04.2019.
a. Upto Rs 30 lakhs- One Year MCLR +0.10%
b. Above Rs 30 lakhs & up to Rs 75.00 lakhs - One Year MCLR +0.20%
c. Above Rs 75 lakhs- One Year MCLR +0.25%
d. One Year MCLR irrespective of loan limit
19. What is Large Exposure (LE)

a. if it is equal to or above 30 percent of the bank’s eligible capital base (i.e.,
Tier 1 capital).
b. if it is equal to or above 20 percent of the bank’s eligible capital base (i.e.,
Tier 2 capital).
c. if it is equal to or above 10 percent of the bank’s eligible capital base (i.e.,
Tier 1 capital).
d. if it is equal to or above 5 percent of the bank’s eligible capital base (i.e., Tier
1 capital).
20. What is the maximum limit under Large Exposure limits?

The sum of all the exposure values of a bank to a
a. Single Counterparty not be higher than 20 percent of the bank’s available eligible
capital base at all times
b. Groups of Connected Counterparties, not be higher than 25 percent of the bank’s
available eligible capital base at all times
c. Board of Directors may permit an additional 5 percent exposure of the bank’s available
eligible capital base in respect of Single counter party exposure.
d. All the above.
21. What is the time taken for activation of the Non personalized Debit Card.
a. 48 hours
b. 24 hours
c. Immediately after linking in CBS.
d. Immediately after linking in CBS. However the first transaction should be PIN
based at ATM/POS
22. Waiver of service charges for transactions to be carried out (at base and non base
branches) in BSBD accounts through BC outlet till..?
a. Till 31.03.2020 b. Till IBA taken a decision on this matter
c. A or B d. A and B
23. What is the Online payment of initial contribution FOR OPENING NPS ACCOUNT
ONLINE THROUGH “MyNPS NSDL”
a. Minimum amount Rs 500/- through internet banking.
b. Minimum amount Rs 1500/- through Cash payment
c. Minimum amount Rs 1000/- through debit to normal SB account.
d. Minimum amount Rs 5000/- through internet banking
24. What is the maximum number of NPS account an individual can open.
a. 2 accounts
b. 5 accounts
c. Any number of accounts as per convenience.
d. Multiple NPS accounts for a single individual are not allowed
25. What is the permissible size of the Signature and Photograph to be uploaded to
subscribe for NPS-All citizen Model online.
a. The file size between 6kb and 14kb
b. The file size between 8kb and 12kb
c. The file size between 4kb and 12kb
d. The file size between 2kb and 8kb
26. What is the minimum period of CCTV footage should be available in the
branches.
a. 30days. b. 120 days c. 90 days d. 15 days
Currency Chest.
a. 30days. b. 120 days c. 90 days d. 15 days
administrative units.
a. 30 days. b. 120 days c. 90 days d. 15 days
29. In case reversal of outgoing transactions, where the date of transaction is less
than 60 days and the beneficiary bank accepts the chargeback within 35 days,
then within what time the amount will be credited back to the remitter’s
account.
a. T working day from the date of acceptance
b. T+1 working day from the date of acceptance
c. T+2 working day from the date of acceptance
d. T+3 working day from the date of acceptance
30. What is EASE

a. Enhanced Accounts & Service Excellence
b. Enhanced Access & Service Exchange
c. Enhanced Access & Service Excellence
d. Enhanced Access & Sectional Excellence
31. What is CanDLE

a. Canara Digital Lesson Experience
b. Canara Digital Learning Exposure
c. Canara Digital Learning Experience
d. Canara Digital Learners Experience
32. How many marks will be awarded under managerial traits of APAS for successful
completion of the mandatory lessons within the stipulated timelines?
a. 15 marks b. 10 marks d. 5 marks d. 30 marks
33. Under Canara Bank Rajbhasha Puraskar Yojana, what is minimum number of Hindi
words the employee should be used during a financial year to become eligible for
the award.
a. 100 words b. 500 words c. 10000 words d. 5000 words
34. What is the cash prize under Canara Bank Rajbhasha Puraskar Yojana
a. Rs.1000/- as First prize –Rs.700/-as Second prize and Rs. 500/- as Third prize
b. Rs.1500/- as First prize –Rs.1000/-as Second prize and Rs. 700/- as Third prize
c. Rs.1000/- as First prize –Rs.900/-as Second prize and Rs. 500/- as Third prize
d. Rs.1000/- as First prize –Rs.900/-as Second prize and Rs. 400/- as Third prize
35. According to rule 10 of the Official Language Rules, 1976 the definition of
working knowledge in Hindi is defined as under: If an employee –
a. If he has passed the Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with
Hindi as one of the subjects ; or
b. The Pragya examination conducted under the Hindi Teaching Scheme of the
Central Government or when so specified by that Government in respect of
any particular category of posts, any lower examination under that Scheme ;
or
c. Any other examination specified in that behalf by the Central Government; or
If he declares himself to have acquired such knowledge in the form annexed
to these rules.
d. All the above.
36. According to rule 9 of the Official Language Rules, 1976 the definition of
proficiency in Hindi is defined as under: If an employee –
a. He Has passed the Matriculation or any equivalent or higher examination with
Hindi as the medium of examination; or
b. He has taken Hindi as an elective subject in the degree examination or any
other examination equivalent to or higher than the degree examination; or
c. He declares himself to possess proficiency in Hindi in the form annexed to
these rules.
d. All the above
37. Vishara exam conducted by Dakshin Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai is
equivalent to ____
a. S.L.C. b. Inter c. B.A. d. Graduation
38. What is SOP
a. Standing Operating Procedure
b. Standard Operating Precaution
c. Standard Operating Procedure
d. Standard Operational Procedure
39. Which are the accounts covered under one time settlement scheme (ots) for
repeated restructured standard accounts under agriculture
a. Covers accounts of a borrower with aggregate sanctioned limit upto 25 Lacs
b. Accounts sanctioned on or before 31.03.2013 & restructured (more than once).
c. Liability in the Account should have been 200% or more of the limit at any point of
time though the liability would have come down due to payment by the borrower.
d. All the above
40 How mush fresh loan can be granted to the borrowers whose agricultural
accounts are Repeatedly Restructured due to Natural Calamities & retained as
standard assets.
a. Need based loan up to Rs 100000.00 may be considered at branch irrespective
of CIC risk grade.
b. Loan above Rs. 1.00 lacs upto Rs.3.00 lacs AGM-RO-CAC irrespective of CIC
risk grade
c. Loan above Rs.3.00 lacs according to delegated powers based on CIC risk
grade.
d. All the above
41. What is the revised Settlement Formula & Calculation for those agricultural
accounts are Repeatedly Restructured due to Natural Calamities & retained as
standard assets
a. Accounts having liability =>200% to 300% of limit sanctioned: 75 % of Base
Amount.
b. Accounts having liability >300 to 400% of limit sanctioned: 65 % of Base Amount.
c. Accounts having Liability > 400% of limit sanctioned : 60% of Base Amount and
where the borrower is dead: 50 % of Base Amount , irrespective of liability.
d. All the above
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)

6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c)
26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d)
36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (d)
1. Release of security of wilful defaulters, irrespective of the value of the
securities, shall be permitted by the
a. CAC of the Board. b. GM-HO-CAC c. GM-CO-CAC d. ED-CAC
2. In respect of loans where the value of individual mortgaged security is more
than Rs. _____ Crs, as per last sanction/ renewal, fresh valuation reports from
two empanelled valuers are to be obtained for such properties. Higher of the
two valuation is to be considered for further action in the matter
a. 1 Cr b. 2 Crs c. 5 Crs d. 10 Crs
3. In respect of loans & advances sanctioned by Branches, Delegation of Powers for
fixing Reserve Price of movable/immovable assets under SARFAESI is
a. The Next higher authority at RO/CO b. RO Head
b. GM-CO-CAC d. DM-RO-CAC
4. The Chairman/ Managing Director/ Chief Executive Officer of the Public Sector
Banks are empowered to issue requests for opening Look Out Circulars (LOC)
a. True b. False
5. Negotiating/advising of bills under LC’S shall be only through

a. NEFT b. RTGS c. EDPMS d. SFMS
6. In respect of constituent borrowers, internally rated as High Risk and /or
externally rated as B. The BULC limit shall be capped at ___% of the turnover
recorded in the previous year.
a. 25% b. 35% c. 50% d. 100%
7. Mandatory e-Learning Courses are for Employees in Scale

a. I to III b. I to V
b. I to VI d. All employees irrespective of the cadre
8. The eligible employees to complete mandated ___ courses under e-learning for
FY 19-20
a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. Not mandatory
9. Assigning of the courses under e learning is done to the eligible employees by

a. Themselves b. RO Head c. Reporting Authority d. HRM section
10. Service charges being levied by Large Modern Currency Chests on non-chest
bank branches for remittance of cash per packet of 100 pieces is Rs.____
per packet.
a. 5 b. 3 c. 10 d. 8
11. RTGS timings for customer transactions is
a. 8.00 to 18.00 b. 8.00 to 20.00
b. 10.00 to 18.00 d. 10.00 to 16.30
12. Rate of back ended subsidy for SC/ST beneficiaries under DEDS (Dairy
Enterpreneurs Developement Scheme) is ____% of the project cost
a. a. 25% b. 33.33% c. 30% d. 50%
13. DEDS loans can be given to the units with minimum of ___ and maximum ____
Animals
14. Cash Handling charges for Savings Bank Account upto Rs.50000, no of free
transactions in a month.
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
15. Cash withdrawal charges for Saving accounts beyond 5 withdrawals in a month
a. Rs. 50 per transaction+GST
b. Rs.1 per thousand and part thereof
c. Rs.2 per thousand and part thereof
d. Rs. 100 per transaction +GST
16. Branches/Offices are advised to maintain GST related documents for a period
of ____ years
a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 2
17. Maintenance of Vendor details accurately in CBS Vendor Master in CBS option
a. GST05 b. GST02 c. GLM01 d. CIM09
18. Funds flow from the Donor Agencies placed under Prior Reference Category
(PRC) to any person, NGO / Organization in India be brought to the notice of
MHA and the funds are allowed to be credited into the account of the recipient
only after clearance / prior permission from
a. RBI b. FIU-IND
c. Ministry of Home Affairs, Govt. of India. d. Customer
19. The issue price of the Gold Bonds will be Rs ____ per gram less than the
nominal value to those investors applying online and the payment against the
application is made through Digital Mode.
a. 40 b. 20 c. 10 d. 50
20. The rate of interest to be charged on all the educational loans sanctioned
under Vidya Turant Scheme is
a. MCLR
b. MCLR+ 0.05
c. MCLR for 39 institutes and for remaining MCLR+0.20
d. MCLR+1
21. Agriculture gold loans for allied activities with product code 780, the IRAC
norms applicable are
a. 90 days b. 2 crop seasons
c. 1 year d. As applicable to crop loans
22. Whenever vehicles are financed by branches, the loan proceeds and margin
money is to be directly delivered to the dealer by way of
a. NEFT b. DD c. RTGS d. Any mode
23. Under special package to BSNL employees, Canara Budget Loans, respective
branches can sanction higher quantum of loan up to ____months gross salary
subject to maximum of Rs. ____ lakh with risk gradation up to _______ Risk
a. 10,5, LOW b. 20, 20, LOW c. 20,10,MODERATE d. 10, 20, LOW
24. The CACs at CO/RO/SME Sulabhs will have maximum of ____Committees

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. No committees
25. In the absence of CM/AGM (VLB/ELB/RAH) the Credit Manager/ Senior Manager
of VLBs/ELBs/RAHs can exercise sanctioning powers up to
a. The powers of the CGM/AGM b. Their delegated powers only
c. No powers at all d. 50% of their powers
26. Sanctioning authority is the delegated authorities at branch/RAH/SME Sulabh

/RO/CO(other than CH), periodity and due date for submission of review and
review at all levels should be completed within
a. Monthly, before 15th of succeeding month and 30 days from the last day of the
month of sanction
b. Monthly, before 7th of succeeding month and 60 days from the last day of the
month of sanction
c. Monthly, before 7th of succeeding month and 30 days from the last day of
the month of sanction
d. Monthly, before 10 th of succeeding month and 30 days from the last day of
the month of sanction
27. Wherever crop loans are converted into term loans as a restructuring measure
on account of natural calamity, the repayment period of the converted loan
is 2 years if the crop loss is between ___ % and ____% and 5 years if the loss is
more than ____%
a. 25, 40,50 b. 35,50,50 c. 33,50,50 d. 25,50,50
28. Branches have to sign Balance Sheet and other connected Returns _______.
Other Returns/Certificate should be signed ________
a. Digitally, manually b. Manually, digitally
c. Digitally, digitally d. Manually, manually
29. Enrollment to Social Security Schemes (PMJJBY, PMSBY and AP) can be done
through
1. Branch 2. Net Banking
3. Business correspondent Points 4. Mobile Banking
a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only d. 1,2 and 3 only d. All
30. No fresh loans /adavances shall be sanctioned against securities held in

a. Materialized form b. Dematerialized form
b. Both the above d. None of the above
31. Personalised Credit Cards will be dispatched to the mailing address of the
customer given in the credit card application for
a. Fresh and renewed cards b. Fresh cards only
c. Renewed cards only d. Not dispatched to customer’s mailing address
32. Credit card customers can generate pin from

a. Canara Bank ATM’s using Green Pin option
b. By downloading “Canara Saathi” app
c. By accessing credit card portal https://ccapp.canarabank.in
d. All the above
33. OTS scheme for all NPA accounts under Agriculture loans and advances with
limits / combined limits sanctioned on or before 31.3.2013, upto Rs. 25 Lacs
are eligible under the scheme except
a. GL, ALVSL, Tractor Loans
b. Agriculture accounts which are secured by immovable/movable security which
are eligible under SARFAESI ACT
c. Agricultural loans secured by securities like deposits, Insurance Policies, KVPs,
NSCs, etc.
d. All the above
34. Settlement formula, where the borrower having aggregate sanctioned limit
upto Rs.10 lakhs and the borrower is dead is
a. 25% of the base amount b. 15% of the base amount
c. 50% of the base amount d. 30% of the base amount
35. The Countries have been classified by ECGC into 3 categories as given below
1. Open Cover 2. Restricted Cover-Group I
3. Restricted Cover-Group II 4. Restricted Cover-Group III
a. 1,2,4 b. 1,2,3 c. 2,3,4 d. 1,3,4
36. Restricted Cover-Group I: For which Revolving limits are to be
approved by ECGC, normally for ____ years
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Five
37. Cold storage, coffee, tea are co-related segments of which industry
a. Coffee industry b. Tea industry
c. Agro industry d. Food Processing
38. Under the Loan Syndication method, the bank which takes care of all the
administrative arrangements like disbursement, repayments, compliance etc.
is
a. Lead Manager b. Participating Bank
b. Facility Manager d. Underwriting Bank
39. Fee structure under Loan Syndication ranges from ____ to ___% of the
syndication amount or any other rate as permitted by NBAC committee or by
sanctioning authority in credit sanction note proposal
a. 0.10% to 1.50% b. 0.10% to 1.25%
c. 1.00% to 1.25% d. 1.00% to 1.50%
40. Exporter(s) from India may receive the advance against export of goods as well
as services and perform the export obligation within a period of ____ from the
date of receipt of such advance
a. 6 months b. 18 months c. 1 year d. 2 years
41. The period of Trade Credit, reckoned from the date of shipment, shall be up
to __years for import of capital goods and for non-capital goods it shall be upto
___ year or the operating cycle whichever is less.
a. 3, 1 b. 3,2 c. 2,2 d. 1,3
42. T
ransmission of Foreign BG shall be in ______ format, through SWIFT
only
a. MT 759 b. MT 760 c. MT 750 d. MT 790
43. Suppliers’ and Buyers’ credit (trade credit) including the usance period of
LC opened for import of gold in any form, including jewellery made of gold/
precious metals or/and studded with diamonds/semi- precious/precious
stones, should not exceed ___ days from the date of shipment
a. 360 b. 120 c. 90 d. 180
44. Special OTS scheme for settlement of small value NPA’s upto
a. a.10 lakhs b. 15 lakhs c. 20 lakhs d. 25 lakhs
45. Powers delegated to Branch-in-Charge for settlement of small value NPAs under
Loss Assets with Book Liability up to Rs.50000/- as on date of NPA with sacrifice
up to Rs._______ for Small and Medium branches
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 75,000 d. 1,00,000
46. OTS for EL with sanctioned limit upto Rs.7.50 lakhs and the borrowers
combined networth is less than 5 lakhs is
a. Base Amount b. Base Amount +interest @MCLR
b. 60% of the base amount d. 50% of the base amount
47. Under Special Scheme for Settlement of NPAs in MSME Sector with Total Dues
(contractual) of Rs.100.00 lacs and below, settlement formula for loss assets
with total dues above 10 lakhs and below 100 lakhs is
a. Base amount b. 50% of the base amount
b. 40% of the base amount d. 60% of the base amount
48. Two new Premium variants of RuPay Credit Cards introduced are
a. Canara RuPay Classic, Canara Rupay Platinum
b. Canara Rupay Platinum, Canara Rupay Select
c. Canara Rupay Classic, Canara Rupay Select
d. Canara Rupay World, Canara Rupay Select
49. Under Canara Rupay Select Credit Card, the limit ranges from
a. Rs.1 lakh to Rs.10 lakhs b. Rs.5 lakhs to Rs.15 lakhs
c. Rs.10 lakhS to Rs.25 lakhs d. Rs.1 lakh to Rs.25 lakhs
50. Lounge access facility is available at airports for which variant of Rupay Credit
Cards
a. Canara Rupay Classic b. Canara Rupay Platinum
b. Canara Rupay Select d. None
51. Annual fee for Platinum Debit Cards is

a.Rs.100+GST b. Rs.200+GST c. Rs.500+GST d.No charges
52. Platinum cards to be issued to all categories of customers except

a. PMJDY b. BSBD c. Small value accounts d. all the above
53. __________ supplements/replaces physical Point of Sale(POS) machine

a. QR Code b. Debit Card c. Credit Card d. Aadhar Card
54. Standard rent for QR code is

a. Rs. 500/- pm +GST b. Rs.100/- pm + GST
c. Rs. 400/- pm +GST d. Rs. 50/- pm + GST.
55. MDR collected from ME’s for domestic credit card transactions is
a. 2.00% + GST b. 2.25% + GST
c. 1.75% + GST d. 1.50% + GST
56. Normally, the ATM Cash GL Balance should be in multiples of 100 and if the
balance is not in multiples of 100, the same is shown in the
a. ATM GL balance report
b. Abnormal Balance report
c. ATM nil transaction report
d. GL report
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d)

6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b)
26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b)
36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c)
46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c)
56. (b)
HO Cir. 350/2019 – 400/2019
(HO Cir.301-325/2019)
1. Vidya Turant Educational Loan can be availed …..

a) Only branches nearer to the residence of the student / institution
b) Only Designated branches
c) Other than designated branches
d) No bar for the student to avail loan from any of our non-designated
branches as per his/her choice
2. Quantum of finance under Vidya Turant Educational Loan for students of ISB..
e) ₹.40.00 lacs b. ₹.30.00 lacs c. ₹.20.00 lacs d. ₹.10.00 lacs
3. Co-borrowership of the parent/guardian can be waived if student is a major and

studying in ____________ type of institution
a. IIMs, ISBs b. Other than IIMs/ISBs
c. Any Institution d. None of the above
4. Letter of Undertaking-cum-Confirmation from IIT student borrower & link letter

from joint borrower to be obtained from borrowers mandatorily for …
a. Other than IIMs, ISBs b. All IIT borrowers
c. Only IIMs, ISBs d. None of the above
5. In Cos headed by GM, the delegation of powers, which was hitherto exercised by
AGM-CO-CAC, will now be exercised by ….
a. AGM-CO-CAC to continue b. DM-CO-CAC
c. DGM-CO-CAC d. GM of CO
6. While granting loan to borrowers, GSTIN should be updated in CBS mandatorily

under which option … ?
a. BA 08 b) BA 014 c) BA 018 d) BA 020
7. Single borrower limit for NBFCs for Central Government guaranteed Advance
when external rating is BBB…
a. NR-500 crs. – MR 250 crs b. NR-400 crs. – MR 300 crs.
c. NR-300 crs - MR 200 crs d. NR-250 crs - MR 100 cr
8. M
inimum level of loan component in respect of borrowers enjoying Fund Based
Capital limits under Loan System for Delivery of Bank Credit is ….
(a) 50% (b) 70% (c) 60% (d) 40%
9. R
emittance of Credit Card dues through IBA is discontinued and STP has been
enabled for remittance through ….
a) Cash b. Transfer from operative account
c) IBA to continue d. NEFT
10. For cases of counterfeit notes, when should a FIR be filed with local police
authorities … ?
a. 2 pieces or more in a single transaction
b. 3 pieces of more in a single transaction
c. 4 pieces of more in a single transaction
d. 5 pieces or more in a single transaction
11. Penalty levied on banks for non-compliance operational guidelines by Currency

Chests for non-functioning of CCTV, non-utilisation of Note Sorting Machine for
sorting of notes ….
a. Rs. 1000/- for each irregularity & Rs.2000/- in case of repetition
b. Rs. 2000/- for each irregularity & Rs.4000/- in case of repetition
c. Rs. 4000/- for each irregularity & Rs.8000/- in case of repetition
d. Rs. 5000/- for each irregularity & Rs.10000/- in case of repetition
12. P
enalty by RBI for violation in terms of Non-issue of coins over the counter to
customers inspite of having stock ; refusal by bank branch to exchange soiled
notes…
a. Rs. 2000/- for violation/deficiency of service :: Rs.2.00 lakh in case there are
more than 5 such instances
b. Rs. 5000/- for violation/deficiency of service :: Rs.3.00 lakh in case there are
c. Rs. 7000/- for violation/deficiency of service :: Rs.4.00 lakh in case there are
d. Rs. 10,000/- for violation/deficiency of service :: Rs.5.00 lakh in case there
are more than 5 such instances
13. Maximum cap on processing charges / upfront fee is applicable for Non
Priority Sector loans ( agriculture / MSME )
a) Yes b. Not applicable
c) Revised/Modified d. Removed/withdrawn
14. Time limit for filing a complaint for sexual harassment ….

(a) 1 month (b) 2 months (c) 3 months (d) 6 months
15. The Internal Complaints Committee formed for inquiring into sexual
harassment complaints consists of __________ other than the bank personnel
a) A Senior Official from other Bank
b) A Lady Senior Official from RBI
c) A Senior Official from State Government
d) Third party member from NGO
16. W
ithin what time period should the Internal Complaints Committee is required
to complete the sexual harassment complaint .. ?
e. 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 120 days
17. When can a SB account opened by BC agent at the BC outlet be operated by

the customer ?
a) One week
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) After the link / Base branch completes the CDD procedures by obtaining KYC
18. What are the restrictions on the SB accounts opened by BC agents, if the CDD
procedure is not completed by the branch within one year ?
a) The aggregate balance of all deposit accounts shall not exceed Rs.1.00 lakh
/ the aggregate of all credits in a financial year shall not exceed Rs.2.00
lakhs
b) The aggregate balance of all deposit accounts shall not exceed Rs.1.50 lakh
lakhs
c) The aggregate balance of all deposit accounts shall not exceed Rs.2.00 lakh
lakhs
d) The aggregate balance of all deposit accounts shall not exceed Rs.2.50 lakh
lakhs
19. When can other facilities be offered to new SB account holders like Cheque
Book facility, Nomination facility, RuPay Debit Card, E-Mail Pass Sheet, Net
Banking, Mobile Banking, Pass Book etc., to those accounts opened by BC agent
?
a) After completion of Customer Due Diligence (CDD) procedure
b) 30 days
c) 45 days
d) 60 days
20. Collateral free loans to MSE sector upto Rs.10.00 lacs is ….

(a) Compulsory (b) Optional (c) Mandatory (d) None of these
21. Modified pre-disbursement review & approval of loan documents system has
been enabled in respect of Retail Loans through …
a) EWIRM b) CLAPS c) CERSAI d) SAS
22. Duration of submitting Compliance Certificate / Certificates on Statutory

Returns to the Controlling offices…
(a) Fortnightly (b) Monthly (c) Quarterly (d) Half-yearly
23. Insurance cannot be claimed on Frauds committed in Debit / Credit cards due
to negligence of customer/ Card lost in transit. The responsibility to bear the
loss is on ….
(a) Customer/Card holder (b) Bank
(c) Courier/Postal dept. (d) All the above
24. CCR Package is meant for …..

a) Unauthorised transactions b) Frauds in Debit cards
c) Debit Card failed transactions d) Card lost in transit
25. How many credit cards can be issued within the overall credit card limit under
Multiple Credit Card facility ?
a) 2 credit cards of different variants / Network associations
b) 3 credit cards of different variants / Network associations
c) 4 credit cards of different variants / Network associations
d) 5 credit cards of different variants / Network associations
26. One Reward Point for every successful non-cash transaction of Rs.200/- through
Platinum Debit Card is …
a) Equivalent to Rs.1.00 b) Equivalent to Rs.0.75
c) Equivalent to Rs.0.50 d) Equivalent to Rs.0.25
27. For what purpose is Additional HL permitted to employees who have availed
EHL prior to 22.02.2016
a) For Renovation b) For Repairs
c) For Additional Construction d) All the above
28. Net take Home salary for Employee vehicle loan – 4 wheeler- is ….
a) 10% or Rs.5000/- whichever is higher
b) 15% or Rs.6000/- whichever is higher
c) 20% or Rs.8000/- whichever is higher
d) 25% or Rs.10000/- whichever is higher
29. Fast Path in FCR for capturing Udyog Aadhar Number is….
(a) CH 031 (b) CH 220 (c) CIM 18 (d) CIM 26
30. Letters/Notices in respect of Guarantees issued in favour of President of India
should be made to ….
a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India
c) Finance Minister d) Concerned Official of the Department
31. Commission paid on Pension Payments per transaction is …

(a) Rs. 10/- (b) Rs. 30/- (c) Rs.50/- (d) Rs.75/-
32. Minimum corpus fund to be created for poultry birds by way of collecting the
corpus fund through RD as collateral is for a period of …
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 4 years (d) 5 years
33. Agricultural Gold Loan for non-crop purposes i.e., land based activities / allied
activities is enhanced to ….
(a) Rs.10.00 lakhs (b) Rs. 8.00 lakhs (c) Rs. 6.00 lakhs (d) Rs.5.00 lacs
34. Upto what amount can a SWOA can independently pass clearing/transfer
cheques, both debit / credit … ?
(a) Rs.8000/- (b) Rs.10,000/- (c) Rs.12,000/- (d) Rs.15,000/-
35. What is the service charge ( exclusive of GST) for RTGS transaction of above
Rs.5.00 lakhs ?
(a) Rs.45.00 (b) Rs.49.50 (c) Rs.38.50 (d) Rs.40.00
36. What is the service charge ( exclusive of GST) for NEFT transaction of upto
Rs.10,000 ?
(a) Rs.2.25 (b) Rs.3.50 (c) Rs.5.50 (d) Rs.6.00
37. The rate of interest on Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) and on Sukanya
Samriddhi Accounts Scheme are …
(a) 8.60% & 8.40% (b) 8.00% & 8.00%
(c) 8.20% & 8.10% (d) 8.30% & 8.20%
38. Upto what amount can a SWOB pass cheques ( Cash Payment )/ withdrawal
forms / banker’s cheques / gift cheques ?
(a) Rs.10,000/- (b) Rs. 12,000/- (c) Rs.20,000/- (d) Rs.25,000/-
39. What is the quantum of loan amount for purchase of new laptop for students
pursuing PG/Phd courses under Vidya Turant Scheme ?
(a) Rs.50,000/- (b) Rs.75,000/- (c) Rs.1.50 lacs (d) Rs.1.00 lac
40. When is the International MSME Day celebrated ?

(a) 31st March (b) 30th June (c) 27th June (d) 30th September
41. A
s per Cir. 354/2019, the guidelines under GST, business establishments should
register, State-wise/Union Territory-wise, if their turnover exceeds …
a) Rs.10.00 lakhs in case of North-Eastern States and Rs.20.00 lakhs in case of
all other states ( other than Jammu & Kashmir)
b) Rs.20.00 lakhs in case of North-Eastern States and Rs.30.00 lakhs in case of
c) Rs.30.00 lakhs in case of North-Eastern States and Rs.40.00 lakhs in case of
d) Rs.40.00 lakhs in case of North-Eastern States and Rs.50.00 lakhs in case of
42. While opening loan accounts, GSTIN shall be updated in CBS under ________
option in the Accounts Master, wherever applicable.
(a) BA 011 (b) BA 012 (c) BA 013 (d) BA 014
43. Under Loan System of Delivery of Bank Credit “minimum level of loan
component in respect of borrowers enjoying fund based working capital limits
from banking system shall be ______ w.e.f. 1.07.2019.
(a) 40% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 30%
44. Remittance of Credit Card dues through IBA has been discontinued w.e.f.
_______ and to be sent through NEFT mode only.
(a) 01.07.2019 (b) 01.08.2019 (c) 01.09.2019 (d) 01.10.2019
45. Owing to multiple reasons, sometimes merchants are not in receipt of MPR
(Merchant Payment Report) and are unable to reconcile their transactions vis-
à-vis settlement received resulting in complaints. To avoid the complaints a
report is enabled in ….
(a) SAS Package (b) OLTAS package (c) RTGS Package (d) FCR package
46. For transactions related to Government Business Module such as PPF, SCSS,
RBI Relief Bonds, Sukanya Samriddhi Accounts, OLTAS which of the following
documents is necessary for updation …
a) PAN & Form 15 G/H b) Aadhar c) Voter ID d) Passport
47. Canara Vidyajyothi Scheme… to provide scholarship to meritorious SC/ST girl

students. The scheme shall be implemented by Rural, Semi-urban and Urban
branches as under ….
a) Amount of scholarship is Rs.2000/- per student for students of Class 5th to 7th
and Rs. 3000/- per student for students of Class 8th to 10th
b) Amount of scholarship is Rs.2500/- per student for students of Class 5th to 7th
c) Amount of scholarship is Rs.3500/- per student for students of Class 5th to 7th
d) Amount of scholarship is Rs.2500/- per student for students of Class 5th to 7th
KEYS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (b)
26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b)
36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a)
46. (a) 47. (d)
1. If any employee/spouse/ dependent of employee are found collecting funds/
donations for any purpose whatsoever, in violation of Bank’s instructions, the
same shall be treated as a -------------attracting disciplinary action.
a. “Minor Misconduct” b. “Major Misconduct”
c. “Censure Misconduct” d. “Violation Misconduct”
2. Financing MSMEs for purchase of Bajaj Make Auto rickshaws and Quadricycle
(Commercial Category) upto 15 March 2020, named as
a. “QUTE”. b. “MUTE”. c. “FUTE”. d. “JUTE”.
3. ---------------------policy - reporting irregular practices in any operational areas

including frauds & malpractices at branches / offices.
a. Phishing b. Encoding c. Whistle blower d. Bugle blower
4. PMEGP application are complied with in the strictest manner and updated in
a. SAS package b. Vahan package c. Bhoomi Package d. KVIC e-Portal
5. Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act 2010- Receipt of foreign contribution

by Individuals/NGOs/Organisations from donor agency “GLOBAL GIVING
FOUNDATION (USA) ”, - for crediting the amount to the account prior permission
is required from
a. MoD b. MoF c. MHA d. MFA
6. Non-submission of clear CCTV footages is leading to decisions against the Bank

in the cases of disputes regarding
a. Cash Shortages b. Cheque Bounce cases
c. Wrong Posting cases d. failed ATM transactions.
7. Technology has grown leaps and bounds and so are the cyber criminals exploiting
the vulnerabilities in
a. People, Paper and Pencil b. People, Process and Technology.
c. Persons, process and Technics d. Persons, personnel and Treasury.
8. PAN India MSME Camps and Outreach Programmes to be conducted on the --------
---------of every month across all Branches.
a. 2nd and 4th Friday b. 2nd and 4th Monday
c. 2nd and 4th Wednesday d. 2nd and 4th Tuesday
9. occurrence of frauds while making cash payments to third parties againstbearer
cheques, which of the following statement is correct
a. Wherever withdrawal exceeds four figures (i.e., Rs.10,000/- and above),
the identity of the payee should be established by obtaining suitable KYC
documents so that such persons can be identified later in case of need and the
drawer’s signature should be carefully tallied.
b. In all payments involving large amounts, the account holder should be contacted
over the phone for confirmation of the payment, wherever possible.
c. In the case of suspicion of alteration/erasure on the cheque by chemical
means, the same can be detected by holding it against light, as thinning
at the space where the alteration/erasure has been made would be visible.
Wherever necessary, theinstrument is to be passed through ultra-violet lamp.
d. all the above
10. Adhoc Credit Facility shall not be permitted more than --- occasions in a year.
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 2
11. Introduction of a new Loan Scheme “CANARA GST” on PAN India basis for
financing Working Capital requirement of GST registered MSME borrowers
------------------against Collateral Security.
a. above Rs.05 Lakhs upto Rs.1.00 Crores
b. above Rs.50 Lakhs upto Rs.1.00 Crores
c. above Rs.25 Lakhs upto Rs.2.00 Crores
d. above Rs.10 Lakhs upto Rs.2.00 Crores
12. As per modified circular on canara vehicle loan scheme guidelines , margin and
quantum of loan for salaried persons (new customers)
a. 65% of the total value inclusive of invoice value, life tax, Registration charges,
Insurance Premium and other accessories.
b. 70% of the total value inclusive of invoice value, life tax, Registration charges,
c. 75% of the total value inclusive of invoice value, life tax, Registration charges,
d. 80% of the total value inclusive of invoice value, life tax, Registration charges,
13. For sanctioning of Education Loans under vidya Turant Scheme, for the students
of IIMs / IITs / NITs / IISC / ISBs the total number of eligible institutions are
a. 100 b. 101 c. 102 d. 103
14. Our Bank is registered as a “Financing Bank” with which of the RBI approved
TReDS platforms
a. M/S RXIL (Receivables Exchange of India Ltd) b. A.TReDS Limited
c. M1xchange d. All the above
15. Payment by way of ------------- are only to be sent to the Vehicle dealer.
a. RTGS/NEFT b. DD c. Cash d. IBA
16. it was informed that ICAI has developed an UDIN Portal to facilitate the
practicing Chartered Accountants to register the documents / certificates /
reports certified / attested by him/her and prevent it from being used by third
person(s) misrepresenting as CA members and on the other hand will facilitate
Banks / Regulators / Authorities / other Stake holders to verify the authenticity
of the documents. What is the full form of UDIN.
a. unique number called United Document Identification Number (UDIN)
b. unique number called Uniform Document Identification Number (UDIN)
c. unique number called Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN)
d. unique number called Unique Document India Number (UDIN)
17. every officer employee shall every year submit a return of his movable/
immovable and valuable property including liquid assets like shares,
debentures as on 31st March of that year to the Bank before …………………….
a. 31st May of that year. b. 30th Jun of that year.
c. 31st July of that year. d. 31st Aug of that year.
18. The tenor linked MCLRs of the Bank shall be published

a. Every Year b. Every Half Year c. Every Quarter d. Every Month
19. In Annual Performance Appraisal System (APAS), ----------- marks are earmarked
for passing ----------------number of subjects in CANdLE (e-learning) for officers.
a. 5 & 8 b. 8 & 5 c. 5 & 10 d. 10 & 5
20. Enhancement of pecuniary limits from Rs lakhs to Rs lakhs for filing original
application before Debts Recovery Tribunal w.e.f. 01.07.2019.
a. 2 lakhs to 5 lakhs b. 5 lakhs to 10 lakhs
c. 10 lakhs to 15 lakhs. d. 10 lakhs to 20 lakhs
21. Extension of Interest Subvention (IS) and Prompt repayment incentive (PRI)
benefits for Kisan Credit Card loans sanctioned for Working capital facility for
---------------------------------during the FY 2019-20.
a. Animal Husbandry and Fisheries. b. Housing
c. Swarna Loans d. ODCC
22. Centrally Sponsored Scheme National Livestock Mission- EDEG by GOI. What Is
EDEG stand for:
a. Entrepreneurship Development & Employment Generation
b. Entrepreneurship Design & Employment Generation
c. Entrepreneurship Development & Employee Generation
d. Entrepreneurship Development & Employer Generation
23. Scheme for Reimbursement of expenses incurred towards purchase of cleaning
material to Officer Employees.
a. Staying in Rented Houses b. Staying in Own Houses
c. Staying in Leased Houses d. All the above
24. ‘Wherever loan / proposals under CRE Sector are entertained, branches /
offices shall obtain collateral security (Residential /Commercial property) in
addition to the primary security. The Distress Sale Value of collateral security
shall not be
a. less than the loan amount b. more than the loan amount
c. equal than the loan amount d. none of the above
25. Community Based Recovery Mechanism (CBRM) is an exclusive sub - committee

for SHG Bank Linkage shall be formed at panchayat / village / cluster / block
level which will provide support to the banks in ensuring proper utilization of
a. Initiate action for Suit filing b. CIBIL Rating
c. Notice sending d. loan amount, recovery etc.
26. Non fund based exposures – stipulation of margin by way Of term deposits
a. Minimum margin of 20% by way of Term Deposits to be obtained for all NFB
Limits
b. Minimum margin of 15% by way of Term Deposits to be obtained for all NFB
Limits
c. Minimum margin of 25% by way of Term Deposits to be obtained for all NFB
Limits
d. Minimum margin of 10% by way of Term Deposits to be obtained for all NFB
Limits
27. Which are following feature of Canara Gift Card (CGC) is correct
a. Canara Gift Card is a prepaid, non-reloadable, non-personalized debit card
b. Card Validity is ONE year from the date of production of cards.
c. The load amount is variable from a minimum of ‘500/- to a maximum of
‘10000/- and in multiples of ‘1/-.
d. All the above
1. d 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. c
6. d 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. d
11. d 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. b
16. c 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. d
21. a 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. d
26. c 27.d
1. All service charges (Processing, Documentation, Inspection, ledger, folio charges
and other Service charges) for KCC/ Crop Loans (product codes 274, 781, 840,
841, 845, 847, 895, 896, 899) limit upto Rs.3 lakhs granted to SF & MF is waived
up to
a) 30-09-2019 b) 31-12-2019 c) Till further orders d) 31-03-2020
2. As per latest guidelines of CKYC registry for all legacy accounts(opened 01-01-
2017 to 31-12-2018) the Father’s name is compulsory
a) If Pan number is given b) If PAN number not given
c) Spouse name is given along with PAN d) None of the above
3. The Issue Price of the Gold Bond will be Rs -----/- per gram less than the nominal
value to those Investors applying Online and the payment against the application
is made through ---------- Mode.
a) 50/- and online b) 100/- and any
c) 50/- and cheque d) 100/- and online.
4. Present series of sovereign gold bond scheme of RBI is

b) III b) II c) VII d) Ad hock
5. Central sector scheme of interest subsidy (csis) on education loans implemented

by MOHRD, GOI is settled basing on
a) Moratorium end date b) Till date of completion of education course
c) Repayment start date d) Till the student gets job
6. In respect of NPA accounts with sanctioned limit Rs. ------ Crore and above, the
same shall be reported to Vigilance Wing on quarterly basis
b) 5 crore b) 10 crore c) 15 crore d) 25 crore
7. The BC Agents can accept utility bills payments only from the-----------------------
----- of our Bank.
a) Any walk in customer b) Other bank customer
c) existing customers d) Any public.
8. Per transaction for Utility bills payment through BC outlets is Rs -------.

a) 5000/- b) 20000/- c) 2000/- d) 500/-
9. Current requirement of forwarding the paid State Government cheques in

physical form is known as ---------- and it is ----------.
a) P2F and Dispensed with immediate effect
b) P2F and Dispensed with effect from 01-04-2019
c) P2P and in force
d) F2P and in force up to 31-01-2020
10. Transactions related to Gold Monetisation Scheme 2015 is eligible for Agency
commission
a) Yes b) No
11. Agency commission paid by RBI for e-mode payment is Rs -----.

a) 7/- b) 8/- c) 9/- d) 10/-
12. Agency commission given by RBI where the work is shared between two banks,
the agency commission is shared between the banks in the proportion ---------.
a) 60:40 b) 75:25 c) 80:20 d) 50:50
13. Penal interest for wrong claims of agency commission from RBI is -------
a) 2 % above MCLR b) 2 % above Bank rate c) 3% d) Flat 5%
14. Half yearly locker statement return number is

a) PRR 22 b) PRR 24 c) PRR 20 d) PRR 28
15. In case the proposed customer is enjoying credit facilities with other bank
and the account is reported better than SMA-1 category, the branch which is
opening the current account should request the --------------- office for NOC/
permission.
a) Regional office
b) MIPD Circle office
c) Lead Bank office(as per CRILC)
d) Particular Bank where limits are enjoyed
16. If the lender bank at any point of time after opening of the current account
objects to the same, especially indicating irregularity in accounts, the current
account holding branch (non-lender) needs to close such accounts by providing
due notice ----- days to the account holder/ borrower and remit the closure
proceeds to the lead bank.
17. In PSB 59 minutes platform Retail loans the branch has to check the CIC scores
independently after in-principle sanction
a) No b) Yes
18. FCNR (B) and RFC deposits are accepted in how many currencies.
a) 3 b) 5 c) 8 d) 4
19. FCNR(B) and RFC deposits are accepted for a maximum period of ---- and years
respectively.
a) 5 and 3 b) 3 and 5 c) 5 and 5 d) 3 and 3
20. RFC (D) deposits are non-interest bearing.
a) True b) False
21. The bank guarantees issued in Judicial Proceedings are to be kept valid,
subsisting and alive till ---------------.
a) Till discharged by the Beneficiary b) Till discharge by the Court.
c) Till confirmed by the Customer d) For maximum 10 years
22. Our bank is maintaining Nostro accounts in ----- currencies which are referred
to as --------- currencies.
a) 12 and position b) 8 and option
c) 5 and future d) 10 and position
23. The Service charges to be levied on our customers for Rupay card usage at ATM
in Bhutan, are Rs -------- for financial and Rs ---- non financial exclusive of GST
a) 25 and 50 b) 50 and 10 c) 20 and 10 d) NIL up to 3 transactions
24. Employees/Ex-employees/Exemployees Senior Citizens are eligible for …….%

additional rate of interest above the applicable interest rate under Canara Tax
Saver Deposit Scheme.
a) 1.5 b) .5 c) 1 d) Nil
25. The minimum and maximum period of deposit for Non callable deposit is
a) 46 days and 5 years b) 46 days and less than 5 years
c) 7 days and less than 5 years d) 1 year and 5 years
26. TDS on cash withdrawal u/s 194n of Income Tax act at ----% is applicable for
payment of aggregate of sums in cash in excess of ----- rupees during the
financial year.
a) 1% & 50 lakhs b) 2 % & 1 crore
c) 2% & 2 Crore d) 10 % & 1 Crore
27. All the pending EDP trainings pertaining to cases sanctioned up to 30.09.2019
shall be completed during …………. and before ………..
a) Next quarter and 31-12-2019 b) Next half year and 31-03-2020
c) Same quarter and 30-09-2019 d) No EDP Training.
28. “Loan against deposit opened through Alternative Banking Channels (Internet
Banking)” named as…………
a) CANARA INSTA DEPOSIT LOAN (CIDL). b) CANARA ON LINE LOAN
c) INSTA DEPOSIT LOAN d) 2 MINUTES LOAN
29. The Maximum loan amount under Loan against deposit opened through
Alternative Banking Channels is ….% of deposit amount or Rs …….which ever is
less.
a) 80% or 25 lakhs b) 75% or 10 lakhs
c) 90 % or 10 lakhs d) 95 % or 50 lakhs
30. As per revised CSIS educational loan interest subsidy is eligible for loan limit up
to Rs ………
a) 10 lakhs b) 4 .5 lakhs
c) 7.5 lakhs d) Any limit subject to 7.5 lakh
31. As per latest CGTMSE guidelines issued by our Bank the loan account sanctioned
in the current month should be covered within …………
a) Next quarter b) Same quarter
c) Next/ subsequent month end. d) 90 days
32. Marking of CGTMSE covered accounts in the CGTMSE portal which are slipped to
NPA within ---------------to the month in which the account slips to NPA.
a) 15th of subsequent month b) Within same month end
c) Within same week d) Within same quarter
33. Claim of eligible NPA accounts under CGTMSE within …………date or expiry of
lock-in period whichever is later.
a) 2 years of NPA b) 180 days of NPA
c) 3 years of NPA d) None of the above
34. RTGS and operations for customers shall commence from ………..till …………..as
per RBI guidelines.
a) 7 am and 6 pm b) 8 am and 8 pm
c) Round the clock d) 7 am and 4 pm
35. Extension of Concessional RoI for High Value Agriculture loans granted under
specific identified schemes in potential areas is extended up to…..
a) 31-03-2020 b) 31-12-2019 c) 31-07-2020 d) 30-09-2020
36. As per modified SMA guidelines there shall be ….. sub categories
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
37. A borrower having an aggregate exposure of 26 lakhs shall be classified under

which SMA sub category?
a) SMA A b) SMA C c) SMA D d) SMA NF
38. W
here delinquency is due to non-financial reasons as Dormancy, Non submission
of Stock Statement, Expired limits etc shall be classified as ….
a) SMA NF b) SMA AG c) SMA D d) SMA 3
39. In the case of revolving credit facilities like cash credit, the SMA sub-categories
will be……………
a) SMA 0 b) SMA 1 &2
c) Both (a) and (b) d) SMA0, SMA 1 & SMA 2
40. SMA 2 account under SMA D category shall be monitored by …..

a) RO head b) Head office
c) Circle Head d) IInd in command at Circle
41. OTP for Cash Withdrawal by our Debit Card holders in Canara Bank ATMs is
applicable to …… above Rs ………… withdrawal.
a) All ATM Card Holders & 10000/-
b) All ATM card Holders except NRE/NRO accounts & 10000/-
c) All ATM card & 5000/-
42. For exposures exceeding Rs. …….. crores - CA Certified Networth Statement
with UDIN number certifying the Networth of the Guarantors shall be invariably
obtained on an ………. basis.
a) 5 & annual b) 2 & half yearly
c) 1 & quarterly d) 100 and monthly
43. Aadhaar is mandatory to avail the interest subvention benefit from …………
a) 01-01-2019 b) 01-04-2019 c) 01-10-2019 d) 01-04-2020
44. Fx-clear retail trading platform • size of the single transaction is not allowed
to exceed US$ …. Million•
a) 1 b) 5 c) 3 d) 10
45. In Fx-clear retail trading platform the customers can trade in …… segments
a) Outright Cash b) Outright TOM
c) Outright SPOT d) (a),(b) and (c)
46. In Fx-clear retail trading platform permitted currency pair for trading is …..
a) USD/INR b) GBP/INR c) USD/GBP d) All the above
47. Which is the app developed by Canara Bank to take care of authentication off
all card related online transactions using ‘Off line OTP’ or ‘Push Notification’
i.e. when user is not in mobile network coverage area also and is safe and
secure.?
a) CANARA SAATHI b) CANPASS c) CANOTP d) CANDO
48. Off line OTP gets generated in the canpass App at every ......seconds.
a) 30 b) 45 c) 60 d) 120
49. Minimum margin of ........%by way of Term Deposits to be obtained for all NFB
Limits for PAN India basis MSME Schemes and Area Specific MSME Schemes also.
a) 100% b) 50% c) 25% d) NIL
50. Recoveries made under Loan / Debt waiver scheme should not be considered
while calculating the base amount as per ONE TIME SETTLEMENT SCHEME (OTS)
FOR REPEATED RESTRUCTURED STANDARD ACCOUNTS UNDER AGRICULTURE.
a) True b) False
51. Voluntary Exit option for Atal Pension Yojana (APY) Account Closure entrusted
to .........
a) MIPD Circle Office b) Branch with permission from MIPD
c) Regional office MIPD d) Head office
52. The Bank will earn a commission of ........%of the Bond amount mobilized as
Arranger under Capital Gain Bonds under Sec 54EC of IT act.
a) 0.12 b) 0.25 c) 0.30 d) 0.50
53. Rate of Interest of Capital Gain Bonds under Sec 54EC of IT act is .....% p.a.
and lock in period of ..... years.
a) 5 & 5 b) 5.75 & 5 c) 6 & 6 d) 5.5 & 7
54. One Year MCLR for calculations as per Loan Recovery Policy 2019-20 means
“One Year MCLR prevailing as on the 1st of April of the Financial Year.
a) True b) False
KEYS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16.(a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (a)
Circular question 400 to 550
1. As per Loan Recovery Policy wherever one year MCLR is referred what does it
means?
a. As on date prevailing one year MCLR
b. One year MCLR prevailing as on Ist April of the financial year
c. Monthly MCLR applicable
d. Both a & B
2. In case of DM/AGM is permitted to officiate as RO Head. Which of the followingis

true?
a. The CAC headed by such AGM/DM may excersie the power of AGM RO CAC/
DGM RO CAC Head).
b. Such higher powers can be exercised strictly subject to the period of validity.
c. A & B both.
d. Only A.
3. Waiver of Processing Charges in Retail Loans 16.08.2019 to 16.11.2019. Which

statement is true?
a. Waiver of Processing Charges on Housing Loans (all variants including takeover
of Housing Loans Accounts.
b. Waiver of Processing Charges on Canara Vehicle Loans (including Canara Vehicle
Loans to Agriculturists).
c. The waiver of processing charges will be effective for the loan sanctions from
16.08.19 to 16.11.19. The loans sanctioned during this period will be eligible
for waiver of Processing Charges provided they are disbursed on or before
30.11.19.
d. All the above
4. What is the minimum margin for Non Fund Based exposure on PAN India basis
MSME schemes?
a. Minimum margin 25%.
b. Minimum margin 25% by way of Term Deposit.
c. Minimum margin 25% by way of Term Deposit in (Secured and Clean NFB Limits).
d. Margin may be decided by sanction authority.
5. One Time Settlement under repeated restructured standard account under

agrucluture. What is the modified fourmula for finding Base Amount?
a. Amount disbursed+Exp- recoveries made – amount of relief under ADWDRS
2008.
b. Amount disbursed+ Exp- recoveries made.
c. Both A & B.
6. What are new guidelines while obtaning personal guarantee by promotors/
directors/guarantors?
a. Undertaking form the guarantors that the assets declared for arriving networth
shall not be sold or offered as collateral to any other exposures to be obtained
b. Exposure exceeding Rs 5 Cr – CA certified Networth statement with UDIN no.
certify the networth of guarantor shall be obtained on an annual basis
c. Both the above
7. As per extant guidelines, the resolution plan for the large borrowers with
the exposure of _____ and above from banks will need Independent Credit
Evaluation (ICE) from Credit Rating Agencies (CRAs) authorized by RBI. Account
with aggregate exposure of Rs ___ and above will require two independent
credit evaluations from such authorized CRAs.
a. 1 Crore and 5 Crore.
b. 5 Crore and 1 Crore.
c. 2 Crore and 5 Crore.
d. 5 crore and 10 crore.
e. 100 crore and 500 crore.
8. One Time Password is introduced for ATM cash withdrawl in any day by Canara
Bank Debit Card Holders in Canara Bank ATM s for.
a. Above Rs 10,000/-.
b. Rs 10,000/- and above.
c. Rs 5,000/- and above.
d. Above Rs 5,000/-.
e. Not requred for any amount.
9. How many categories are in SMA on the basis of liability?

a. Six
b. Five
c. Four
d. Seven
10. The new categories are in SMA on the basis of liability

a. SMA- AG
b. SMA- NF
c. Both a & B
11. What is exposure of SMA – B?
a. More than 5 lakhs and up to 25 lakhs.
b. More than 1 lakh and up to 25 lakhs.
c. More than 15 lakhs and up to 25 lakhs.
d. More than 25 lakhs and up to 100 lakhs.
12. SMA- D account will be individually reviewed.

a. Circle Office.
b. CA&M wing HO.
c. SAM wing HO.
d. RO.
13. As per modified guidelines who are the nodal point for monitoring and
adminnistering the subsidy received from Government Department/Agencies.
a. Branch.
b. Circle Office.
c. Regional Office.
d. All the above.
14. What is the full form of CIDL?

a. Canara Infrastructure Demand Loan.
b. Canara Insta Demand Loan.
c. Canara Insta Deposit Loan Features.
d. Canara Insta Deposit Loan Floating.
e. Canara Insta Deposit Loan.
15. Which of the following is the feature of CIDL?

a. Maximum 75% of the deposit opened through Internet Banking or Rs 10 Lakhs
whichever is less.
b. Tenure of Loan will be 1 day less than the Term Deposit Maturity date opened
through on line.
c. Individual Retail Internet Banking Customers/Users having online Domestic
–Fixed/KD deposit only.
d. If the stipulated margin reduces to 10% the value of the security system will
automatically liquidate the online deposit.
e. All the above.
16. Applicability of TDS on Cash withdrawal U/S 194 N of Income tax act.
a. Banking company to which the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 applies (including
any bank or banking institution referred to in section 51 of that Act);
b. Co-operative society engaged in carrying on the business of banking;
c. Post office
d. All the above
17. What is the amount and Rate for the above question.
a. 1 Crore @ 3%
b. Above 1 Crore @ 4%
c. Above 1 crore @ 2%
18. Which country Canara Rupay Cards( Debit/Credit/Prepaid) both domestic and
international card at ATMs and POS can be accepted
a. A Nepal? b. Indonesia c. Bhutan d. Bangladesh
19. What is the rate card for participation of Housing Loan and Personal Loan
product has been privided by M/S Online PSB Loans limited?
a. Housing loan in principle approval 200+ Fees for Sanc 300 total 500.
b. In personal loan in priciple approval 100+ Fees for Sanc 100 total 200.
c. Both the above.
20. If the lender bank at any point of time after opening of the current account.
Objects to the same, especially indicating irregularity in accounts, the current
Account holding branch (non-lender) needs to close such accounts by providing
Due notice __________________ to the account holder/ borrower and remit
the closure proceeds to the lead bank.
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 7 days
d. 60 days
21. What are new rate for Government Business by Agency Banks - Payment of
Agency Commission?
a. Pension Payment Rs 75 per transaction
b. Payment other than pension Per Rs 100 turn over paisa 6.5
c. Both the above
22. The BC Agents can accept utility bills payments only from the existing customers
of our Bank up to Rs __
a. 10000 b. 5000 c. 3000 d. 1000
23. Waiver of all service charges for KCCS`/Crop loans up to Rs ___ lakhs to small
and marginal farmers till 31.03.2020
a. 5 Lakhs b. 2 Lakhs c. 3 Lakhs d. 1 lakh
24. Opening of Bank Accounts of Prisoners. Which of following is true?
a. Accounts of Prisoners can be opened under Canara Small Saving Bank Deposit
account under (Product Code 127) on production of self-attested photograph
in the absence of proof of identity and residential proof.
b. The signature or thumb impression shall be affixed in presence of the officer
incharge of the jail and the said officer shall certify the same under his
signature.
c. The account shall remain operational on annual submission of certificate of
proof of address issued by the officer-in-charge of the jail.
d. All the above
25. Area specific scheme- OD facility to Potato Cold Storage Units- what are
modifications in scheme guidelines.
a. Restoring the total limit at Rs 6.00 crores based on storage capacity and
maintenance expenses as against the existing limit of Rs 5.00 crores.
b. OD Liability to be brought down to 40% of the limit on or before 30th Nov
every year, instead of 25% of the limit as per extant guidelines.
c. In case of existing OD loans under the subject scheme, the new guidelines will
be applicable from the date of renewal of limits.
d. In case of term loans to Cold Storage Units, the new guidelines will be
applicable for fresh sanction. Existing Term Loans will continue in the existing
guidelines till maturity.
e. All the above.
26. Which statement is true regarding Life Certificate of Pensioners?

a. Senior Pensioners aged 80 years and above be allowed to submit their Life
Certificate w.e.f. 1st October every year instead of November which would be
valid till 30th November of the subsequent year.
b. However, as hitherto, Life Certificates are to be obtained from those pensioners
who are aged less than 80 years w.e.f. 1st November every year.
c. Both a & B
d. All the above
27. What is the educational qualification DAY-NULM?

a. No minimum educational qualification is required for prospective beneficiaries.
b. Where the identified activity for micro-enterprise. Development requires
some special skills appropriate training must be provided to the beneficiaries
before extending financial support.
c. Both A & B.
d. Only A.
28. Which statement is not true regarding DAY-NULM?
a. The prospective beneficiary should have attained the age of 18 Years at the
time of applying for loan.
b. The Maximum unit Project Cost for an individual micro-enterprise is Rs
2,00,000 (Rs Two Lakhs).
c. Repayment schedule ranges for 5 Years inclusive of maximum moratorium of
6 months
d. No margin money should be taken for a loan up to Rs 50,000 and for higher
amount loans, preferably 5% should be taken as margin money and it should
in no case be more than 10% of the project cost.
29. Which statement is true regarding DAY-NULM?

a. The group will be eligible for a maximum loan of Rs. 2 Lakh per member or
Rs. 10 Lakh, whichever is lower.
b. Interest subsidy, over and above 7% rate of interest will be available on a bank
loan for setting up of individual or group enterprises.
c. Interest subsidy will be given only in case of timely repayment of loan.
d. The additional 3% interest subvention amount will be reimbursed to the
eligible WSHGs.
e. All the above.
30. PCI has now modified the age criteria for avialing insurance in respect of
PMJDY cards as ______
a. 5 Years and above.
b. min 18 years max 65 year.
c. 25 year and above.
d. 18 year and abve.
31. Caputring of Aadhar details is ____________ in CSIS (education Loan).

a. Mandatory
b. Not Mandatory
c. Mandatory without option
d. Not mandatory but optional
32. What is latest modification in PMEGP?

a. ITR for the last three years may not be necessary and the same may be
Considered for the last one year as suggested by KVIC.
b. It is also decided that REGP (Rural Employment GenerationProgramme) units
may also be considered for availing the facility of 2nd loans besides PMEGP/
Mudra units.
c. Both a & B
d. Only A
33. Priority Sector Lending-Lending by banks to NBFCs for on lending. Which
statement is true?
a. On Lending by NBFCs for Term Lending component under Agriculture will be
allowed up to Rs 10 Lakhs per borower
b. On lending by NBFC will be allowed up to Rs 20 laksh per borrower in micro
and small enterprises
c. Enhancement of existing limit for on lending by HFCs 20 lakh per borrower
d. All the above
34. What are Risk weights for consumer credit including personal loan excluding
credit card?
a. 125%
b. 100%
c. 80%
d. 75%
35. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy under CLC-TUS.

a. The MSE must avail at least 70% institutional finance of total eligible investmen
towards the cost of plant and machinery.
b. The ceiling on eligible loan under the scheme is Rs.1.00 crore.
c. The rate of capital subsidy will be 15% subject to maximum ceiling of Rs.15.00
lakh.
d. After disbursement of 15% subsidy under CLCS, additional 10% subsidy to SC/ST
MSEs will be provided under National SC/ST Hub (NSSH) as per the guidelines
of SCLCSS.
e. All the above
36. Definiton of SC ST Enterprizes.

a. In case of partnership MSE, the SC/ST partners shall be holding at least 51%
Shares in the unit
b. In case of private limited companies, at least 51% shares shall be held by SC/ST
promoters
c. Both a & b
37. Who is implementing agency SCLCSS for SC ST?

a. The implementing agency would be Office of DC (MSME).
b. GOI
c. State Govt
38. New time line for Remittance of Government Receipts (Physical Receipts) to
Government account.
a. physical Government Receipts collected by the branches of the banks to
Government Account in RBI on the next working day i.e. T+1.
b. For the branches falling under North Eastern States, the specified time for
remittance would be T+2 days (including put through).
c. Only A
d. Both A & B
39. What is the effecting date of RLLR?

a. 31/10/2019
b. 01/10/2019
c. 01/11/2019
d. 01/09/2019
40. Which type of accounts covered under RLLR?

a. MSME b. Retail Loans c. Agriculture
d. A & B only e. All the above
41. Whether switch over opiton available from existing ROI to RLLR in eligible
accounts
a. Can be switched over
b. Can be swiched over with 0.5% commision on outstading balance
c. Can be switched over with 0.5% commission on outstanding blance min 500
max 50000
d. All the above
42. Which statement in not true regarding RLLR?

a. No overdue should be there when switch over to RLLR.
b. Can be switched over with overdue in RLLR.
c. Sanc term and condtioned should be applied when switch over to RLLR
d. A & B both.
e. A & C both
43. Which of the following statement is true?

a. Limits are expiring on or after 01/10/19 and customer has not submitted the
renewal papers. Extension can be permitted.
b. Extension of the limit has permitted even after 01/10/19.
c. In both of the above cases existing MCLR is applicable.
d. In above both cases RLLR is applicable.
44. In which of the following cases RLLR is applicable?
a. Loan sanc to prior to 01/10/19 aviled after 01/10/19.
b. Where multiple credit limits have been permitted under MCLR before 01/10/19
borrower has aviled one or two. ROI for other aviled after which availed after
01/10/19 will be RLLR.
c. Sanc before 01/10/19 availed after 01/10/19.
d. In all above three cases
45. Adv unsecured 1 crore and above additional ROI of 1% may be charged even
exceeds maximum ROI. Who can waive the additional ROI?
a. RO Head CAC
b. GM CO CAC
c. CO Head CAC
d. Branch head
46. Which is true?

SL.NO Loan Applicable ROI RLLR
a. New Term Loan Date of First disbursement
WC-Renewal with or without
b. Date of documentation
enhancement
On the date of release of each PC/
c. PC/FDB/FBE
Discount of FDB FBE(each bill)
On the date of making available /roll
d. WCDL
over of each tranche of WCDL
a. All the above

b. None of the above
c. Only
d. Only a, c & D
47. Which is the exempted category in RLLR?

a. Loans covered d by schemes specially formulated by GOI where banks have to
charge interes rates as per the scheme
b. WCTL/FITL granted as part of ratification
c. Both the above
48. What is time limit for reset of RLLR?

a. One Month
b. Three month
c. Bi monthly
d. Half yearly
49. What is validity period of special package under Retail Lending Scheme to
the employees of India Premier educational institutions and colleges and
central universities comint under MHRD & MOHFW and which are eligible to be
financed by HEFA
a. 01.10.19 to 30.09.21 b. 01.10.19 to 30.09.20
c. 01.09.19 to 30.09.20 d. 01.06.19 to 30.06.21
50. Waiver of processing charges is applicable up to under this scheme

a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 100% in HL, Canara Vehicle and Canara Budget.
d. No waiver.
51. What is the maximum amount under this scheme in Canara Budget?
a. 15 lakh b. 20 times gross sal max 15 lakh
c. 20 lakh d. 25 lakh
52. Recovery Call Centre (RECC) At Bengaluru-Back Office Support has started
functioning with effect from_____________The centre is making outbound
calls to NPA borrowers with outstanding liability up to ____________
a. w.e.f. 30.09.19, 100 lakh b. w.e.f. 30.08.19, 100 lakh
c. w.e.f. 30.09.19, 1000 lakh d. w.e.f. 30.09.19, 50 lakh
53. Enhancement in sanction limit, for classification of export credit under PSL,
from Rs 25 Crore per borrower to Rs __________
a. 40 Crore and also remove the existing criteria of units having turnover of up
to Rs 100crore
b. 50 Crore and also remove the existing criteria of units having turnover of up
to Rs 100crore
c. 40 crore
d. 50 crore
54. Harmonization of turn around time (TAT) and customer compensation for failed
ATM transactions. Which is not true?
a. Customer`s account to be credited within T+5 calandar days (T is ATM
transaction date)
b. If the customer`s account is not credited on T+5days, then a penalty of Rs
100.00 per day to be paid suo moto(Penalty be paid without customer request)
c. Branches have to mandatorily complete the process of ATM50 (Off us) on
T+3days.
e. All of the above
55. What is timeline for release of title deeds/security documents post loan
closure?
a. 7 days from closure of the account
b. 10 days from closure of the account
c. 14 days from closure of the account
d. 15 days from closure of the account
56. No, ECGC has renewed the coverage from 01.07.19 to 30.06.2020 with revised
premium rate_________WTPC _____________WTPS
a. 6 paisa per Rs 100, 5 paisa per Rs 100
b. 5 paisa per Rs 100, 5 paisa per Rs 100
c. 5 paisa per Rs 100, 6 paisa per Rs 100
d. 7 paisa per Rs 100, 5 paisa per Rs 100
57. New Agriculture Marketing Infrstructure (AMI) launch of portal online

submission of applications. Which of the following statement is not true?
a. The online portal for submission of application is live from 23rd Sept 2019
b. All subsidy applications are to be submitted online
c. NABARD will accept the subsidy claims only through online from 23rd October
d. All the above
e. None of he above
58. CERSAI - Filing/ Satisfaction of Transactions Related to Security Interest on

Vehicles. Which statement is true?
a. The option for registration of Vehicles in CERSAI has also been disabled.
b. VAHAN registry shall be deemed to be registered with the Central Registry for
the purposes of the SARFAESI Act, 2002.
c. Both A & B
d. Cersai is mandatory
59. MSME Sahay is extended up to ___________

a. 31.01.2020 b. 31.03.2020 c. 31.12.2019 d. 15.03.2020
60. Renewal of special package under our vaiour Retail Lending schemes for the
officer/employees of Central Government/Defence Personnnel & Para military
forces- on all India bases. Which of the following statement is not true?
a. Valid from 01.10.19 to 30.09.21
b. Concession in ROI under HL, HIL, Vehicle Loan, and Canara Budget loans up to
Moderate Risk customer
c. Concession in ROI under HL, HIL, Vehicle Loan, and Canara Budget loans up to
Low Risk customer
d. In housing loand interest concession is of 5bps, in Canara Vehicle Loan 10bps,
in HIL 5bps, and Canara budget 130bps
61. Norms regarding KYC Non compliant accounts. Which of the following
statement is true?
a. Transanction in accounts shall not be permitted untill complying with KYC
norms. Account shall be immediately debit frozen
b. Branches has to shift the credit balance to sundry liabilities GL 209272430
c. Branches have to obtain permission from GM compliance HO before allowing
release of such funds from SL
d. All the above
62. Which type of services enabled in Bank Business outlets( Business Crosspondent
Locations)
a. Aadhar Seeding b. forex transaction
c. complaint lodging and tracking d. All of the above
e. Only A & C
63. What is enhanced limit for customer at bank business outlets (business
correspondent loacations?)
a. enchanced up to Rs 20000 b. enhanced up to Rs 10000
c. enhanced up to Rs 5000 d. enhanced up to Rs 15000
64. Which of the following is true regarding revised CERSAI Charges?

a. upto Rs 5 lakhs Rs 50 above 5lakhs Rs 100 within 30 days.
b. 31st to 40th day twice of amount Rs 100 up to 5 lakhs and Rs 200 above Rs 5
lakhs
c. 41st to 50th day five times Rs 250 up to 5 lakhs and Rs 500 above Rs 5 lakhs
d. 51st day onwards ten times Rs 500 up to 5 lakhs and Rs 1000 above Rs 5 lakhs
e. All of the above
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. C
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. E 15. E 16. C 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. A
21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. E 26. D 27. C 28. E 29. E 30. A
31. D 32. C 33.D 34. B 35. E 36. C 37. A 38. D 39. B 40. D
41. C 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. C
51. B 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. D 56. A 57. D 58. C 59. B 60. C
61. D 62. E 63. A 64. E
MOCK TEST PAPER-1
1. Under priority sector schemes, 40% of advances should be given to SC / ST, in

which of the following:
a) Prime Minister’s Employment Generation program
b) National Rural Livelihood Mission
c) Differential rate of interest
d) National Urban Livelihood Mission
2. A bank branch wants to sanction a term loan. Which of the following ratios can
be used by the Bank for this purpose:
a) Net profit
b) total outside liabilities to tangible networth
c) debt-service coverage ratio
d) all the above
3. State Bank opened a current account with a foreign bank, viz. Citibank in New
York. Which of the following is correct statement relating to this a/c:
a) a/c is a NOSTRO account for Citibank
b) a/c is a VOSTRO account State Bank
c) a/c is a LORO account for Citibank
d) a/c is NOSTRO account for State Bank
4. The provisioning requirement for Standard Loan accounts in case of Commercial

Real Estate is:
a) 0.40% b) 0.25% c) 1.00% d) 2.00%
5. Which of the following exporter is eligible for being issued a God Credit Card for
Exporters:
a) the exporter on the caution list of ECGC
b) the exporter incurring losses for 3 years
c) the exporter dealing with the bank for the past 2 years and having a standard
a/c
6. For agriculture advances within the priority sector, which of the following target
is expected to be achieved:
a) 18% of total bank credit b) 4.5% of net bank credit
c) 45% of priority sector credit d) 18% of priority sector credit
7. Banks can sanction non-agriculture loans against security of gold, upto an

amount prescribed by RBI for a period upto:
a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 12 months d) at discretion of banks
8. The rate of service tax including all types of cess, presently is:
a) 10% b) 12% c) 12.36% d) 15%
9. Which of the following does not match:

a) R-return – fortnightly statement on Forex operations
b BEF - Bill of Entry from Half-yearly statement
c) XOS – Overdue export bills – monthly
10. Which of the following ratio is calculated to examine the long term solvency or
leverage of affirm:
a) debt equity ratio b) debtor turnover ratio
c) debtor velocity ratio d) any of the given options
11. The foreign exchange operations in India under FEMA 1999 are regulated by
which of the following :
a) RBI b) DGFT c) RBI and DGFT d) RBI and FEDAI
12. A Bond issued at a discount and repaid at its face value is called, a _________
bond
a) Coupon bond b) Convertible bond
c) Commercial paper d) Zero coupon bond
13. The date of delivery of funds on the date on which the exchange of currencies
actually take place is referred to as:
a) delivery date b) contract rate c) value date d) expiry date
14. Where one bank performs its payment obligation and other fails to perform its
part, the risk is called:
a) liquidity risk b) settlement risk
c) systemic risk d) sovereign risk
15. Priority sector lending certificates (PSLC) can be issued with a standard lot size
of ____ and multiples thereof:
a) Rs.10 lacs b) Rs.25 lacs c) Rs.50 lacs d) Rs.100 lacs
16. In outsourcing, the service provider may conduct business on its own behalf,
which is inconsistent With the overall strategic goals of the bank. Such risk is
known as:
a) settlement risk b) strategic risk
c) operational risk d) outsourcing risk
17. Banks are required to furnish quarterly data on priority sector advances, to RBI
within:
a) 7 days from close of the quarter
b) 10 days from close of the quarter
c) 12 days from close of the quarter
d) 15 days from close of the quarter
18. A Non-resident Indian (NRI) or a person of Indian Origin (PIO) may remit through
an authorised dealer an amount, not exceeding ___ per financial year.
a) USD 10 million b) USD 5 million c) USD 1 million d) USD 5000
19. which of the following loans is subject to compliance of exposure ceiling norms
of RBI:
a) Loan against deposits b) State Govt. guarantee loans
c) Rehabilitation accounts d) Food credit
20. Financial inclusion stands for:

a) loan for poorest amongst poor at DRI rate
b) loan for poor persons by providing interest subsidy
c) loan facilities for poor persons, without collateral
d) banking services to poor persons at affordable cost
Answers:
1. c 11. d
2. d 12. d
3. d 13. d
4. c 14. b
5. c 15. b
6. c 16. d
7. c 17. a
8. a 18. c
9. b 19. b
10. a 20. d
MOCK TEST PAPER-2
1. Which of the following is not an off-balance sheet item in the balance sheet of a
bank:
(a) term loan given to a firm
(b) bank guarantee issued on behalf of a firm
(c) overdraft allowed in no-frill account
(d) unsecured loan sanctioned by the bank
a) a to d all b) a, b and d only c) b, c and d only d) a, c and d only
2. For capital adequacy purpose, the risk weight for commercial real estate is:
a) 75% b) 100% c) 125% d) 150%
3. Present minimum limit for RTGS transactions is _________

a) Rs.50,000 b) Rs.1 lac c) Rs.2 lacs d) Rs.5 lacs
4. Unique Transaction reference (UTR) is a _________ character number

a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 22
5. A branch of a bank can open NOSTRO a/c on behalf of the bank and also
maintain currency position. Such branch is categorized as:
a) Category C b) Category B
c) Category A d) foreign exchange office (FEO)
6. What is the annual premium tobe paid under Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima
Yojna?
a) Rs.10 b) Rs.12 c) Rs.300 d) Rs.330
7. The free reserves in the balance sheet of a bank, for the purpose of capital
adequacy ratio, form part of which of the following:
a) Tier I b) Tier II c) Tier III
d) Risk weighted assets e) Risk free assets
8. In a letter of credit, which of the following is primarily liable?

a) the confirming bank b) the reimbursing bank
c) the issuing bank d) the issuing bank and advising bank
9. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India, has been constituted as a:

a) Joint stock company b) Trust
c) Society d) Partnership firm
10. Purchase transactions by banks in the context of foreign exchange mean:
a) converting dollars into Rupees
b) converting a foreign currency into Rupee
c) Converting Rupee into any foreign currency
d) converting rupee into pounds
11. In the Context of computers, the term DOS represents:

a) an utility software b) an application software
c) input hardware d) output device
e) a system operating software
12. Among which of the following categories a letter of credit would be

categorized where the stipulated conditions cannot be amended unless the
beneficiary, the confirming bank and the opening bank agree?
a) Restricted Letter of Credit b) Without recourse letter of credit
c) Revocable Letter of Credit d) Back to back letter of credit
e) Irrevocable letter of credit
13. Which among the following authorities issue an import license for import of
capital goods :
a) Controller of Capital Issues b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Foreign Investment Board d) Directorate General of Foreign Trade
e) Ministry of Commerce, GOI
14. Doubtful above 3 years loan, remains in this category up to a period of: ____
a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) uncertain period
15. Under Free ATM Access Policy of RBI, the maximum amount that can be
withdrawn by a customer per day / per transaction, from ATM of other bank is
restricted to:
a) Rs. 10000 b) Rs.5000 c) Rs.2000 d) at the discretion of the bank
16. Universal Bank is approached by one of their existing customer to retire an

import bill received by the bank for collection from a foreign seller, the due
date of which is falling shortly. Which of the following rates the bank will apply
for this transaction?
a) bills selling rate b) bill buying rate
c) TT selling rate d) a or c above
17. A foreign currency which has the tendency of moving quickly from one place to
another in keeping with the market situations, is called:
a) green back b) strong currency c) soft currency
d) hot currency e) scarce currency
18. Which of the following is not a common source of computer virus:
a) floppy disk b) compact disk c) internet
d) emails e) local area network
19. A Laghu Udhami Credit Card is issued when the borrower has satisfactory track
record of dealings for ______ years:
20. By what name a foreign resident of Indian origin is called under the foreign
exchange guidelines:
a) person of Indian Origin b) a foreign national
c) Resident Indian d) Non-Resident Indian
21. In which of the following cases, the constitutional validity of the SARFAESI Act
2002 was questioned before Supreme Court:
a) Manchester Chemicals vs ICICI Bank
b) Maheshwar Chemicals vs Union Bank
c) Mardia Chemicals vs Union of India
d) Madira Chemicals vs ICICI Bank
22. The term ‘pass through certificate’ is used in the context of which of the
following:
a) forfeiting of export bills b) factoring of domestic receivables
c) securitization of receivables d) dematerialization of securities
23. What is true with regard to the listing status of a Global Depository Receipt:
a) it is listed like American Depository receipt
b) it is listed on a stock exchange in US only
c) it is listed on stock exchanges outside US
d) it is listed on stock exchange in India
e) it can listed anywhere on the Globe
24. Which of the following is the objective of enactment of FEMA 1999?

a) to replace FERA 1973 as it was not relevant any more
b) to facilitate external trade of India and orderly management of Forex market
c) to ensure that foreign exchange is used properly
d) all the above
25. As a step towards enhancing customer convenience in using plastic cards, cash
withdrawals upto Rs.____ per day at POS terminals have been allowed for all
debit cards issued in India in Tier-1 places:
a) Rs.500 b) Rs.1000 c) Rs.5000 d) Rs.10000
26. The term ESOP is used in the context of public issue of a company:
a) public issue of a company
b) allotment of shares to employees as discounted
c) reservation of shares for institutional buyers
d) earmarking of shares for foreign direct investment
27. What is the minimum no. of free transactions including balance enquiry, by a
customer by using ATM of other bank?
a) 2 per month b) 5 per month c) 10 per month d) no such limit
28. Bank is under obligation to implement a garnishee order when received, where
its relationship with the person named in the order is that of:
a) Bailer and bailee b) agent and principal
c) debtor and creditor d) creditor and debtor
e) trustee and beneficiary
29. Which of the following mortgages does not require registration with Registrar
of Assurances (Sub-Registrar), although it requires registration with Registrar of
companies under Companies Act, when created by a company:
a) English Mortgage b) Equitable Mortgage
c) Simple Mortgage d) none of the above
30. While writing a cheque, X, the savings bank account holder of Popular Bank,
forgot to write the date and name of the payee in the cheque. This cheque
would be called as:
a) an Escrow b) Invalid cheque
c) Inchoate cheque d) post-dated cheque
31. After taking possession of the immovable property, copy of the possession
notice is to be published in two local newspaper not later than _______ days
a) 7 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) no time limit
32. Mr. Anu Verma, a resident of Delhi, had shifted to Canada as immigrant and
married a Canadian girl, Ana. What is the residential status of Ana.
a) an Indian Reisent b) a foreigner c) an alien friend
d) a non-resident Indian e) a person of Indian origin
33. In public sector banks, the banks normally insist on first deposit as cash, in a
newly opened account, because it is requirement of:
a) KYC guidelines b) Banking Regulation Act
c) only a practice d) RBI Act
34. A shipping company has issued a bill of lading which does not provide detailed
terms and conditions relating to the contract of carriage. Such Bills of Lading
are called:
a) Claused Bill of Lading b) Clean Bill of Lading
c) Stale Bill of Lading d) Straight Bill of lading
e) Short Bill of Lading
35. A firm has sales of Rs.200,000 with its variable cost being Rs.100,000, fixed
cost Rs.80,000 and profits of Rs.20,000. What is the break-even level?
a) Rs.120,000 b) Rs.140,000 c) Rs. 160,000
d) Rs. 180,000 e) Rs.190,000
36. After truncation, the paper cheque is kept in the custody of:
a) bank or clearing house that truncated the cheque
b) paying bank
c) collecting bank
d) clearing house
37. The term ‘hot card’ refers to (a) lost card (b) stolen card (c) misplaced card (d)
misused card, which combination is correct.
a) a, b, c b) a, b, d c) a, c, d d) b, c, d
38. In case of educational loan, for how much amount3rd party guarantee cannot
be asked for:
a) upto Rs.2 lac b) upto Rs.4 lac
c) upto Rs.7.50 lac d) no ceiling
39. What is the time limit during which a consumer can file complaint in a
consumer court?
a) 1 year from the date when no satisfactory reply received from bank for 1
month
b) 1 year from date of cause of action
c) 2 years from date of cause of action
d) 3 years from date of cause of action
40. For delay, the penalty is Rs.250 per day and max. Rs.25000 in respect of which
of the following:
a) violation of RBI guidelines by a bank
b) violation of SEBI regulations by a company
c) delay in providing information under RTI Act
d) delay in compensating a customer under Bank Ombudsman scheme
Answers:
1. d 21. c
2. b 22. c
3. c 23. c
4. d 24. d
5. c 25. b
6. b 26. b
7. a 27. b
8. c 28. c
9. c 29. b
10. b 30. c
11. e 31. a
12. e 32. e
13. d 33. c
14. d 34. d
15. a 35. c
16. a 36. a
17. d 37. a
18. e 38. b
19. b 39. c
20. a 40. c
MOCK TEST PAPER-3
1. As per Income-tax (22nd Amendment) Rules , 2015 (Rule 114B), w.e.f. 1.1.2016,
quoting of permanent account number (PAN) is mandatory for a time deposit
exceeding Rs.______ or aggregating to more than Rs.____ in a financial year.
a) Rs.10,000, Rs.1 lac b) Rs.50,000, Rs.5 lac
c) Rs.20,000, Rs.2 lac d) Rs.1 lac, Rs.10 lac
2. An authorized dealer – Category-1 Bank can remit upto USD_____, the advance
payment against import of goods, without bank guarantee:
a) USD 100,000 b) USD 500,000 c) USD 5,000,000
3. Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS) shall be implemented by banks from the
accounting period:
a) beginning 01.04.2017 b) beginning 01.04.2018
c) ending 31.03.2018 d) ending 31.03.2019
4. Cash losses incurred by a firm stands for which of the following:

a) gross loss – less depreciation b) net loss – less depreciation
c) gross loss – intangible expenses d) gross loss – operative expenses
5. Investment Advisory Services (IAS) offered by banks are regulated by:

a) RBI b) SEBI c) DIPP d) DIPP and RBI
6. Back to back letter of credit (LC) means:

a) revalidating a credit
b) another credit behind the credit issued
c) issuance of another credit on the security of the original letter of credit
d) LC which is backed by a tangible security
7. A composite loan limit ____ can be sanctioned by banks to enable the MSE
entrepreneurs to avail of their working capital and term loan requirement
through Single Window.
a) upto Rs.25 lac b) upto Rs.50 lac
c) upto Rs.100 lac d) upto Rs.200 lac
8. All accounts beyond ___ classified as red flagged account or ‘Frauds’ must also
be reported on the CRILC data platform together with the dates on which the
accounts were classified as such;
a) Rs.10 million b) Rs.50 million
c) Rs.100 million d) Rs.500 million
9. Which method of lending of which committee provides for current ratio of
1.3 : 1
a) 2nd method, Tandon Committee
b) 1st method, Tandon Committee
c) Turnover method, Nayak Committee
d) Cash budget method, Shetty Committee
10. In terms of recommendations of Prime Minister’s Task Force on MSMEs, the
banks are required to ensure a _____ year on year growth of credit to _____:
a) 20%, micro and small enterprises
b) 20%, micro, small and medium enterprises
c) 10%, micro and small enterprises
d) 10%, micro, small and medium enterprises.
11. Which of the following documents can be accepted as an officially valid

documents can be accepted as an officially valid document for opening bank
accounts without the limitations applicable to ‘Small accounts’ as prescribed
by Govt. / RBI
a) Letter issued by UIDAI b) Ration Card
c) Telephone bill d) all the above
12. What will be due date for a bill dated Nov. 10, 2016 payable 4 months after
date and accepted on Nov15, 2016.
a) March 12, 2017 b) March 13, 2017
c) March 15, 2017 d) March 11, 2017
13. Which of the following can not be appointed as a nominee:

a) a minor aged 5 years b) an insolvent person
c) an NRI living in UK d) a Trus
14. Customer day is observed by the bank branch on:

a) 1st of every month b) 15th of every month
c) last day of each month d) 1st day of the quarter
15. Which of the following is not a domestic rating agency that has been
accredited by RBI/SEBI for the purpose of risk weighting the claims of banks for
capital adequacy purpose:
a) FITCH India b) ICRA c) CARE d) Standard and Poors’
16. Against the pre-shipment credit, the refinance is available from _____
maximum for ____ days:
a) RBI, 90 days b) EXIM Bank, 90 days
c) EXIM Bank, 180 days d) refinance is not available
17. Which of the following is not a material alteration:
a) the payee changes the amount from Rs.5000 to Rs.55000
b) the payee cancels the crossing
c) the payee converts a bearer cheque into an order cheque
d) the payee forges the signature
18. In which of the following the risk weightage for capital adequacy purpose is
150%
a) housing finance loans
b) loans against demat shares
c) venture capital qualifying for capital market exposure
d) personal loans and credit card
19. The participatory note are:

a) derivative instruments b) shares c) debentures
d) global depository receipts e) Indian depository receipts
20. What is the eligible age group in respect of Atal Pension Yojna?
a) 18-40 years b) 18-50 years c) 18-60 years d) 18-70 years
21. If a person fails to pay the tax, what is the period of imprisonment:
a) 3 months b) min 3 months max 5 years
c) min 3 months max 3 years d) min 3 months max 7 years
22. At present, which of the following is the lowest rate as fixed by RBI:
a) Repo Rate b) Bank Rate
c) Reverse Repo Rate d) Marginal Standing Facility Rate
23. Under which among the following categories, does the “MS Word” falls:
a) Operating Software b) Utility Software
c) Application Software d) Anti-virus software
24. The amount of cheque issued by the customers is required to be rounded off as
under:
a) nearest 25 paise b) nearest 50 paise
c) nearest Rupee d) not to be rounded off.
25. The term “Headline Inflation”, represents which of the following:

a) Wholesale Price Index b) Consumer price index
c) Consumer price index for agricultural workers d) all the above
26. The Commercial Paper can be issued for a minimum amount of Rs._________
a) Rs.1 lac b) Rs.2 lac
c) Rs.5 lac d) there is no minimum amount of issue of CP
27. The systemic risk and settlement risk are expected to be managed with
implementation of which of the following:
a) RTGS b) SWIFT c) Digital Signatures d) CBS
28. The banks conduct concurrent audit of their branches, which was introduced
on recommendation of:
a) Kohli Committee b) Deepak Mohanty working group
c) M Narasimham Committee d) Ghos Committee
29. Under credit risk management, which of the following type of exposure is
excluded
a) fund based loans b) non-fund based loans
c) investment in shares of companies d) none of the above
30. From Bank’s angle, when there is inflow of foreign exchange and outflow of
Rupees, these transactions are called:
a) Purchase b) Remittances c) Sales d) a or b above e) a and c
ANSWERS:
1. b 6. c 11. a 16. d 21. d 26. c

2. c 7. a 12. b 17. c 22. c 27. a
3. b 8. d 13. d 18. c 23. c 28. d
4. b 9. a 14. b 19. a 24. d 29. d
5. b 10. a 15. d 20. a 25. a 30. a
MOCK TEST PAPER-4
1. A fraud of Rs.20.60 crore has taken place with the connivance of staff of the
bank. It will be reported to:
a) State Police b) RBI within 3 weeks
c) Anti-corruption Bureau of CBI d) Economic Offences Wing
2. The maximum loan that can be granted against shares to an individual is

restricted to:
a) Rs.10 lacs for Demat shares and Rs.20 lacs for physical shares
b) Rs.10 lacs for Demat shares and Rs.10 lacs for physical shares
c) Rs.20 lacs for Demat shares and Rs.10 lacs for physical shares
d) Rs.20 lacs for Demat shares and Rs.20 lacs for physical shares
3. For which of the following category of loans the risk weight for Capital Adequacy
Ratio purpose is 125%:
a) exposure to capital market
b) exposure to real estate
c) loans to strategically important NBFCs
d) exposure to NPA a/c in Housing Finance loans
4. As per KYC guidelines, the suspicious transactions’ report is to be submitted:

a) within 3 days of close of the month
b) within 7 working days of date of confirmation of suspicion
c) within 3 days of date of confirmation of suspicion
d) within 15 days of close of the month
5. A drawee bank is responsible to one of the following for wrongful dishonor of a

cheque:
a) The payee, if suffers any loss b) The endorsee, if suffers any loss
c) The presenter, if suffers loss d) The account holder, if suffers loss
e) any of the above, if suffers loss
6. In case of payment of cheque with in endorsement, the paying banker gets
protection only when:
a) signature of the endorser is not forged
b) endorsement is not without consideration
c) endorsement appearing on the instrument is regular
d) all the above.
7. A power of attorney executed abroad and attested by Notary Public in that
country:
a) is valid India, if stamped in India within 3 months from date of entry into India
b) not valid in India unless attested in India
c) valid if attested in India by Chief Justice
d) a to c
8. Under the cash budget method of working capital assessment, the amount is
fixed on the basis of:
a) opening cash deficit b) closing cash deficit
c) peak cash deficit d) opening cash balance
e) closing cash balance
9. A Certificate of Deposit is:

a) issued at face value b) issued at discount to face value
c) issued at a discount to maturity value d) non of the above
10. Under liberalized foreign exchange remittance scheme, what is the maximum
amount that can be remitted, per financial year:
a) USD 200,000 b) USD 150,000 c) USD 125,000
d) USD 100,000 e) USD 250,000
11. Which among the following is not true with regard to realization of export
proceeds by the exporter in India from date of shipment:
a) normal exporters 9 months
b) status holders 9 months
c) warehouse exporters 15 months
d) units in special economic zones (SEZ) – no time limit
e) all the above
12. What is the period for preservation of documents obtained while opening of
deposit accounts as per KYC Directions 2016 of RBI:
a) 2 years b) 5 years c) 8 years
d) 10 years e) not time period is specified
13. The marginal cost based lending rate (MCLR) is required to be reviewed by
banks at least _____
a) once in a quarter b) once in a month
c) once in a half year d) once in a year
14. In which of the following mortgages, the recovery of the loan is from income of
property:
a) simple mortgage b) mortgage by conditional sale
c) usufructuary mortgage d) equitable mortgage
15. In PM Employment Generation Program, the maximum project cost in case of
manufacturing units is restricted to:
a) Rs.5 lac b) Rs.10 lac c) Rs.25 lac d) Rs.50 lac
16. As per provisions of Mental Health Act 1987, the authorities appointing the
guardian or manager of property of a mentally ill person, are:
a) any court b) district courts only
c) district courts or collectors of district d) High Court only
17. What is “Firewall” technology?

a) Technology used in putting off industrial fires
b) Program to protect a network from outside intrusion
c) Computer Program that becomes cause of virus attack
18. Which of the following facility can not be allowed to a illiterate person in
normal course
a) Cheque Book facility in his SB a/c b) ATM facility c) Locker facility
d) none of the above e) all the above
19. A “kite flying” transaction represents which of the following:

a) when overdraft is allowed by a bank to a firm
b) when additional loan is allowed by a bank to a firm to cover the amount of
irregularity in the a/c
c) when a bill is drawn without consideration by seller of goods on buyer of good
d) when loan is allowed for low amount transaction
20. Bank guarantees are defined in which of the following Act?

a) Banking Regulation Act Sec45 b) RBI Act Sec21
c) Negotiable Instrument Act Sec95 d) Indian Contract Act Sec 126
21. Which of the following a/c can be opened by NRI, jointly with resident Indian?
a) Resident Foreign Currency A/c
b) Foreign Currency non-resident account
c) Non-resident external rupee account
d) Non-resident ordinary a/c
22. Apiculture relates to which of the following:

a) flower production b) bee-keeping
c) fruit production d) mulberry production
23. If the Bank is to square the oversold position and the rates of exchange are
declining at that time, the Bank:
a) gains b) loses c) it may gain or loss d) there is no changes
24. Which of the following a/cs can be opened by a non-resident, who has
permanently returned to India recently:
a) NRE a/c b) FCNR a/c c) NRO a/c d) none of the above
25. Listed companies are required to disclose their annual audited results within
____ from close of the financial year:
26. When a loan is given by a bank on the security of railway receipt (RR) or goods
receipt (GR) issued by a transport company, which type of charge is created:
a) Pledge b) Lien c) Hypothecation d) Assignment
27. As per RBI directives, the banks are required to ensure NPA provision coverage
ratio of _____ on the basis of gross NPAs:
a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% d) 70%
28. What is the minimum capital adequacy ratio for a bank in India as prescribed
by RBI under Basel-III:
a) 11% b) 10% c) 9% d) 8%
29. Certified copy of the will, by a court is called :

a) succession certificate b) letter of administration
c) probate d) execution
30. Investment made by a firm in Debentures is classified as:

a) long term liability b) current liability
c) non-current assets d) intangible assets
ANSWERS:
1. C 16. C
2. C 17. B
3. A 18. A
4. B 19. C
5. D 20. D
6. C 21. A
7. A 22. B
8. C 23. A
9. B 24. D
10. E 25. C
11. D 26. B
12. E 27. D
13. B 28. C
14. C 29. C
15. C 30. C
MOCK TEST PAPER-5
1. If fixed/term deposit accounts are opened with operating instructions, Either or
Survivor and the payment is to be obtained before maturity, the signatures of
which of the following are required.
a) both the account holders b) first a/c holder
c) 2 A/c holder
nd
d) only surviving account holder
2. The advance allowed to a party for manufacturing or processing the goods for
export thereof, is called:
a) cash credit advance b) overdraft advance c) pre-shipment advance
d) post-shipment advance e) general purpose advance
3. Where rent is regularly paid by the high risk locker holder, but the locker is not
operated for ___ years, the banks have the right to cancel the allotment, if the
customer does not operate or surrenders despite the notice sent to him:
a) one year b) two years
c) three years d) such cancellation is not allowed
4. Any person resident outside India, having a business interest in India, may open
an _____ account in Indian Rupee with Authorized Dealers for the purpose of
putting through bona fide transactions in Rupees.
a) Foreign currency non-resident account
b) special non-resident Rupee account
c) non-resident ordinary account
d) non-resident external Rupee account
5. In the context of a computer, the key board is :

a) storage device b) input device c) output device
d) memory device e) processing device
6. A trust maintaining an FD a/c makes a request to the bank for not deducting tax
at source on interest on FD. It will be required to submit:
a) Form 15-G b) Form 15-H
c) no such concession can be allowed d) a letter from Income Tax Dept
7. As per RBI guidelines, bank Boards are required to give exclusive time in a Board
meeting once every _____ months to review and deliberate on customer service.
8. Which of the following is not a credit rating Agency working in India:

a) CRISIL b) CIBIL c) BRICKWORK d) CARE
9. Receivables acquired by banks under factoring are to reported by banks in
Schedule _____ of the Balance Sheet of the banks:
a) other assets Schedule 11
b) investments Schedule 8
c) loans and advances Schedule 10
d) bills purchased and discounted Schedule 9
10. The long term loan limit under KCC is to be sanctioned on the proposed
investments during:
a) first year b) first 2 years c) first 3 years d) 5 year period
11. RTGS transactions settlement maximum period, presently is:

a) 1 hour b) 2 hours c) one day d) 2 days
12. Which of the following is the document for proof of customer identity under
KYC
a) telephone bill b) PAN card c) electricity bill
d) letter from employer e) all the above
13. When a counterfeit note is received at a bank branch, an acknowledgement

receipt is required to be issued. It should be signed by:
a) branch manager and countersigned by customer
b) cash officer and countersigned by customer
c) receiving cashier and countersigned by customer
d) any of the above
14. As per RBI guidelines, enquiry counters or “May I help you counter” are to be
provided by banks at:
a) all branches of the bank
b) all large branches of the bank
c) all branches with staff of minimum 30 persons
d) all branches except very small branches
15. Before renewal of the cash credit limit, a bank officer wants to examine
whether the loans have not been diverted by the firm outside the business.
Which of the following statements gives proper indication for that:
a) profit and loss account b) trading & manufacturing account
c) balance sheet d) funds flow statement
16. What is the maximum period for which a Foreign Currency Non-Resident (FCNR)
account can be opened by a bank:
a) 7 years b) 5 years c) 3 years d) 2 years e) six months
17. In which of the following cases, the Authorised Dealer (AD) can release foreign
exchange more than USD 250,000 in a financial year, based on documentary
evidence:
a) personal visit abroad b) business trip c) employment abroad
d) studies abroad e) none of the above
18. RBI provides incentive for exchange of soiled Notes upto denomination:
a) Re.1 per packet for Notes upto denomination Rs.50
b) Rs.2 per packet for Notes upto denomination Rs.50
c) Re.1 per packet for Notes upto denomination Rs.100
d) Re.2 per packet for Notes upto denomination Rs.100
19. Your branch receives a cheque for payment but the cheque neither bears the
words “Order “ nor bearer:
a) it will be treated a bearer cheque and the payment will be made accordingly
b) it will be treated ambiguous instrument and the cheque would be returned
c) it will be treated incomplete instrument and the cheque would be returned
d) it will be treated as an “order” cheque and payment will be made accordingly
20. In case the mandate is “Former or Survivor”, who can operate/withdraw the
amount of the fixed/term deposit:
a) signatures of former only
b) signatures of both of them
c) signatures of former only if FDR has matured and signatures of both if FDR has
not matured
d) signatures of former only whether the FDR has matured or not matured
21. The principal and interest of the deposit under Gold Deposit scheme shall be
denominated in:
a) Gold b) US Dollar c) Indian currency d) at bank discretion
22. On Bank Notes, there should not be any noting as direction of RBI under which
Act?
a) Banking Regulation Act, Sec 23 b) Banking Regulation Act, Sec 35-A
c) Banking Regulation Act, Sec 35 d) RBI Act, Sec 35
23. Which among the following is the authority which has prescribed the Uniform
Customs and Practices for Documentary Credits (UCPDC) guidelines, applicable
for inland letters of credit:
a) RBI b) Ministry of Commerce c) FEDAI d) DGFT e) ICC Paris
24. Where a person has lost his both hands and is unable to put his thumb
impression or his signature, alternatively he can:
a) put any mark of his body as per IBA guidelines and obtain a copy of Supreme
Court judgment to receive payment from bank.
b) give oral authority to another person as per IBA guidelines and a copy of
Supreme Court judgment
c) give oral authority to another person as per Supreme Court judgment
d) any of the above
25. A Banking system under which the banks are to raise low cost funds and invest
such funds in low risk assets such as Govt. securities, is known as:
a) ‘narrow’ banking b) ‘universal’ banking c) ‘rural’ banking
d) ‘risk management’ banking e) ‘asset liability management’ banking
26. Which form is used for remittances under Liberalized Remittance Scheme of
RBI?
a) Form XOS b) Form CDF c) Form A1 d) Form A2
27. National Financial Switch that manages ATM transactions, is operated by:
a) RBI
b) IDRBT
c) National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI)
d) Clearing Corporation of India (CCI)
28. On which of the following, various general provisions of the Negotiable
Instrument Act are applicable.
a) electronic cheques b) truncated cheques c) digital signatures
d) all the above e) b and c only
29. The validity period of cheque, demand draft, pay order or banker’s cheque is
restricted to _______ w.e.f. 01.04.2012 as per RBI guidelines:
30. On which among the following, the charge assignment cannot be created
a) land and building b) plant and machinery c) stocks in trade
d) a and b above e) all the above
ANSWERS:
1. a 16. b
2. c 17. d
3. a 18. b
4. c 19. d
5. b 20. c
6. d 21. a
7. b 22. b
8. b 23. e
9. d 24. a
10. d 25. a
11. b 26. d
12. b 27. c
13. c 28. d
14. d 29. b
15. d 30. e
MOCK TEST PAPER-6
1. A Forex bill discounted by the bank was returned back unpaid. The amount will
be recovered from the party by using the following rate:
a) Bills buying rate b) TT selling rate
c) Bills selling rate d) TT buying rate
2. KYC guidelines have been issued by RBI under provision of:

a) Sec 21 of Banking Regulation Act b) Sec 35 of Banking Regulation Act
c) Sec 35-A of RBI Act d) Sec 35-A of Banking Regulation Act
3. As per Income Tax (22nd Amendment) Rules 2015 (Rule 114B), w.e.f. 01.01.2016,
where quoting of permanent account number (PAN) is mandatory and the person
concerned does not have PAN, he is required to make a declaration on Form
No.60.
a) 15G b) 61A c) 60 d) 15H
4. Within how many days does the annual return of unclaimed deposit accounts is
required to be submitted by banks to RBI, following the days after close of the
calendar year:
a) 15 days b) 20 days c) 30 days d) 23 days e) 45 days
5. Which of the following will be considered a micro enterprise:

a) engaged in services and maximum investment in equipment restricted to Rs.25
lac
b) engaged in services and maximum investment in plant and machinery restricted
to Rs.10 lac
c) engaged in manufacturing and maximum investment in equipment restricted
to Rs.10 lac
d) engaged in manufacturing and maximum investment in plant and machinery
restricted to Rs.25 lacs
6. Unclaimed deposit with a company would be shown in their balance sheet as:
a) Current Asset b) Contingent Liability
c) Intangible Assets d) Current Liability
7. You are approached to allow operation in the account of an insane person.

Whom would you allow the operation?
a) Guardian appointed by court b) A near and dear relative
c) His wife, if alive d) His son or daughter
e) any of the above
8. In case of a loan to an agri-clinic and agri-business centre, which of the
following is true:
a) the amount of loan is restricted to Rs.5 lac
b) loan can be allowed to all farmers
c) loan is classified as agri infrastructure loan
d) collateral security for a loan up to Rs.5 lac not to be taken
9. In which of the following loan accounts, the risk weight is the least:
a) education loan b) retail loan portfolio
c) house loan of Rs.85 lac with LTV of 75% d) it is equal in all these cases.
10. What is the amount of premium payable on deposit insurance per Rs.100 per
annum:
a) 5 paise b) 8 paise c) 10 paise d) 25 paise
11. A loan had become doubtful account as on March 15, 2014. On this loan
account, the provision as on March 31, 2017 would be at the rate of:
a) 100% b) 75% c) 60% d) 50% e) 30%
12. Issue of securities in the primary market is subject to fulfillment of a no. of

requirements stipulated by:
a) SEBI b) IRDA c) RBI d) all the above
13. Which of the following types of cheques can be endorsed:

a) account payee cheques b) bearer cheques
c) cheques payable to the order of a named payee d) all the above
14. A customer who received back a dishonored cheque, seeks your guidance as to
which court is competent for trying cases u/s 138 of NI Act.
a) Any court b) Metropolitan Magistrate or 1st class judicial magistrate
c) High court d) Only Supreme court
15. For import of goods from UK, a customer of Universal Bank enters into an
Free on Board (FOB) contract. What among the following will be borne by the
importer, as per the contract, in this case:
a) cost of goods b) freight c) insurance d) a and b e) b and c
16. The SWIFT security control to prevent automatic changes during transmission is
called:
a) encryption b) checksum c) decryption d) key authentication
17. Revolving credit is made available in which of the following:
a) debit card b) pre-paid card c) credit card d) all the above
18. Which of the following group of customers, will be categorized as a low risk
customer, as per provisions of KYC
a) Govt. Dept., a joint stock company
b) partnership firm, a salaried employee
c) a salaried employee, govt. dept.
d) all the above are correct
19. As per RBI guidelines, what is the amount of loan for which collateral security
and margin in agriculture advances is exempted
a) upto Rs.10000 d) upto Rs.25000
c) upto Rs.50000 d) upto Rs.100000
20. For the purpose of carrying on off-site supervision, RBI calls for important
returns called_____
a) basic statistical returns (BSR) b) XOS returns
c) R Return d) DSB Returns
21. RBI can take penal action against a bank found stapling currency notes under
the provisions of which of the following:
a) RBI Act 1934 b) Banking Regulation Act 1949
c) Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 d) Companies Act 1956
e) Note refund rules
22. Under which statute the banks are required to maintain statutory liquidity
ratio (SLR):
a) Negotiable Instruments Act b) Banking Regulation Act 1949
c) Reserve Bank of India Act d) Companies Act 1956
23. What is true with regard to Senior Citizens’ saving scheme out of the following:
a) there cannot be a joint account
b) joint account can be with any one
c) joint account can be with spouse only
d) age of the spouse who is to become joint holder should be minimum 60 years
24. What is maximum project cost per persons and exemption for collateral
security under Agri-clinic And Agro Business Centre.
a) Rs.5 lac and Rs.20 lac b) Rs.20 lac and Rs.20 lac
c) Rs.20 lac and Rs.5 lac d) Rs.5 lac and Rs.5 lac
25. What is relationship between bank and the customer for safe custody of
articles:
a) bailee and bailor b) bailor and bailee
c) landlord and tenant d) lessor and lessee
26. Buy now and pay later mechanism is followed in case of:
a) Credit Card b) ATM card c) Debit card d) ECS – Credit
27. What is the time limit to get a will registered?

a) 10 days from the date of execution b) 21 days from the date of execution
c) 30 days from the date of execution d) No time limit is fixed
28. Which of the following kinds of securities can be obtained in case of a loan
secured by mortgage:
a) stocks and machinery embedded to ground
b) stocks and land/building
c) plant and land/building
d) land & building and plant & machinery embedded to ground
29. Interest rate swap is a:

a) trade contract b) loan contract
c) financial contract d) risk contract
30. Which of the following can be a security for the purpose of creation of
assignment:
a) stocks b) land and building
c) fixed deposit and fixed assets d) book debts
e) book debts and pre-operative expenses
ANSWERS:
1. b 13. c 25. a
2. d 14. b 26. a
3. c 15. e 27. d
4. c 16. b 28. d
5. d 17. c 29. c
6. d 18. c 30. d
7. a 19. d
8. d 20. d
9. d 21. b
10. c 22. b
11. a 23. c
12. a 24. c
MOCK TEST PAPER-7
1. Loans to corporate farmers, farmers’ producer organizations / companies of

individual farmers, Partnership firms and co-operatives of farmers directly
engaged in Agriculture and Allied Activities, upto an aggregate limit of Rs.
________ per borrower can be classified as agriculture loans:
a) Rs. 1 cr b) Rs. 2 cr c) Rs. 5 cr d) any amount
2. In Red-clause letter of credits:

a) exporter may avail pre-shipment credit at the request of the issuing bank
b) exporter cannot avail pre-shipment credit
c) exporter may avail pre-shipment credit with the consent of importers
d) exporter can get another LC issued on the strength of original LC
3. Attachment order is applicable, where the relationship between the customer

and bank is that of:____
a) lessor and lesse b) trustee and beneficiary
c) debtor and creditor d) creditor & debtor
4. For acknowledgement of debt (AOD), the central govt. has prescribed the
payment of Stamp-duty at which of the following rates:
a) Rs.0.50 b) Re.1.00 c) Rs.2.00 d) Rs.5.00
5. Which of the following is not correct in respect of PPF account:

a) scheme is operated by public sector banks and private sector banks
b) minimum amount of deposit per annum is Rs.500
c) maximum amount of deposit per annum is Rs. 100,000
d) account is opened for 15 years
6. On rent payment, TDS is to be deducted when the amount of total payment in a
financial year (minimum):
a) Rs.180,000 b) Rs.240,000
c) Rs.120,000 d) Rs.150,000
7. When the no. of directors in public limited company is more than ___
shareholders’ approval is required:
a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 15
8. Interest in agriculture advances is to be charged on:

a) monthly basis b) quarterly basis
c) half-yearly basis d) yearly basis
9. If the account number, to which an amount is to be credited, has been conveyed
incorrectly in an RTGS transaction, who will be responsible:
a) customer, if he has conveyed the incorrect details
b) bank as it needs to obtain correct details from customer
c) concerned bank in all circumstances
d) the settlement authority
10. In a trust, one of the trustees who is singly authorized to operate the account
has been declared insolvent. Your branch receives a cheque drawn by him for
payment.
a) You can return the cheque b) you can pay the cheque
c) you can pay if other trustee confirm it d) a and b
11. Which of the following falls in the category of Non-bank Financial Company
(NBFC): (a) Asset Finance Company; (b) Investment Company; (c) Loan
Company; (d) Infrastructure Finance Company; (e) core investment company;
(f) Infrastructure Debt Fund NBFC; (g) NBFC-Micro Finance Institution
a) a to g all b) a to e only c) a to d only d) a, c, d, e only
12. When a bank grants a loan to a borrower on the basis of hypothecation of the
assets, with whom does the possession and ownership remain?
a) possession with borrower & ownership with bank
b) possession with bank and ownership with borrower
c) both with bank
d) both with the borrower
13. On the formation that the draft has been lost, a duplicate has been issued
after taking indemnity bond. The original and duplicate are presented for
payment through clearing, by two different banks on the same day. Both the
drafts have been branded with the stamp payee’s account credited. The bank:
a) will pay the duplicate b) will pay the original
c) will return both d) both will have to be paid
14. According to Banking Companies Nomination Rules 1985, nomination in favour

of a non-resident person:
a) is allowed with RBI permission b) is not allowed
c) is allowed d) a and c
15. What is the minimum capital requirement under Basel-III as per Bank for
International prescription:
a) 6% b) 8% c) 9% d) 10%
16. In case of currency chest transactions, penal interest charged by RBI is:
a) 2% over BPLR of the bank b) 2% over the prevailing Bank Rate
c) 3% over the bank rate d) 6% flat
17. A fixed deposit receipt is maturing for payment on Sunday. It shall be deemed
to be payable with interest on:
a) succeeding day i.e., Monday b) same day
c) preceding day i.e., Saturday d) any day after that day
e) a or d
18. Housing Loan (per family) for purchase or construction of house, can be
sanctioned in metropolitan centres with population of 10 lac and above
for classification as priority sector, where the overall cost of such house is
restricted to:
a) Rs.30 lac b) Rs.35 lac c) Rs.25 lac d) Rs.20 lac
19. What will be the due date of payment for a Bill of Exchange dated 01.02.2017
payable one month after its presentation, which is 12.02.2017
a) 12.03.2017 b) 15.03.2017 c) 04.03.2017 d) 12.04.2017
20. Presently, the star series bank notes are printed in the following
denominations:
a) Rs.10, 20, 50, 100 b) Rs. 10 and 20 only
c) Rs.10, 20 and 50 only d) Rs. 10, 20, 50, 500
21. Who among the following can endorse a negotiable instrument drawn or
endorsed in his favour:
a) Insolvent b) A lunatic c) An illiterate person
d) a and b only e) none of the above
22. Mutilated note is one which is:

a) half note b) altered note c) mismatched note
d) whose portion is missing e) c and d
23. A white label ATM is an ATM:

a) which is installed by banks and non-bank entities jointly
b) which is installed by banks jointly
c) which is owned and operated by non-bank entities only
d) which stopped for operations due to some fraud
24. A loan account has been running irregular and can turn out to be a non-
performing asset. What kind of risk it is:
a) liquidity risk b) asset-liability risk c) operational risk
d) interest rate risk e) credit risk
25. In case of agricultural loans, the period of irregularity for account to become
sub-standard is:
a) 90 days for all agriculture accounts
b) two or one crop season, for all agriculture accounts
c) two or one crop seasons for agriculture accounts where recovery is based on
crop
d) 90 days for all agriculture accounts
26. The option conveying a right to buy at a fixed price on or before a fixed date is
called:
a) call option b) option c) put option d) futures
27. The pre-shipment loans or packing credit are given on the basis of which of the
following:
a) FOB value b) C&F value c) CIF value d) FAS value
28. The export declaration form used to software in non-physical form is:
a) SE1 b) SE2 c) SOFTEX d) Software e) COD
29. If action under SARFAESI Act is to be initiated in consortium advance, banks
with ____ % share mush join together to initiate the action:
a) 75% b) 60% c) 50% d) 25%
30. Which of the following is not part of prudent guidelines issued by RBI:
a) income recognition b) asset classification
c) loan recovery rules d) provisioning
ANSWERS:
1. b 16. b
2. a 17. a
3. d 18. b
4. e 19. b
5. d 20. a
6. b 21. c
7. d 22. d
8. c 23. c
9. a 24. e
10. b 25. c
11. a 26. a
12. d 27. a
13. a 28. c
14. c 29. b
15. b 30. c
MOCK TEST PAPER-8
1. You are working as in-charge of Locker Section of the branch. Mr. A and his
wife Mrs. B have a locker as “either or survivor”. Due to some family dispute,
Mr. A asks the bank not to allow operations by Mrs.B. But, one day, B comes to
operate the locker. What will you do?
a) Allow operations by B as instructions are either or survivor
b) will not allow operations to B but will allow to A
c) Allow only joint operations
d) a and b
2. What is the maximum amount of loan under micro credit:

a) Rs.10,000 b) Rs.25,000 c) Rs. 50,000 d) Rs. 1 lac
3. Interest in NPA account will be recognized as income after:

a) it becomes due b) it accrues due
c) it becomes due and received d) any of the above
4. Holder of a cheque makes following alterations in a cheque. Which of these are

not a material alterations:
a) A ‘bearer’ cheque converted to ‘order’
b) ‘general crossing’ changed to ‘special crossing’
c) Crossing the cheque
d) Incomplete cheque has been completed
e) All the above
5. As per RBI guidelines, a borrower can obtain his credit report from a Credit
Information Company:
a) once in a period of two years
b) once in a period of one year (April to March)
c) once in a period of one year (January to December)
d) twice in a period of one year ( April to March)
6. In which of the following deposit accounts, the interest payment is subject to
TDS:
a) If interest on FDR exceeds Rs.40,000 & Rs 50,000 for Sr Citizen in a financial year
b) If interest on RD exceeds Rs.40,000 & Rs 50,000 for Sr Citizen in a financial year
c) any amount of interest payment on NRO Savings a/c
d) all the above
7. The banks can determine their actual lending rates on loans and advances with
reference to:
a) marginal cost based lending rate b) RLLR
c) benchmark prime lending rate d) bank rate
8. A and B maintain a Savings bank a/c as former or survivor. A requests bank to
add the name of C. The Bank:
a) should not accept the request
b) can accept the request because he is responsible for the operations in the
account
c) In Joint A/cs bank should act on the request from both but here B has no right
to operate the a/c
d) Bank can add if B also consents
e) a and d
9. The amount of education loan that can be classified as priority sector is

restricted to______
a) education in India Rs.20 lac and abroad Rs.10 lac
b) education in India Rs.10 lac and abroad Rs.10 lac
c) education in India Rs.10 lac and abroad Rs.20 lac
d) education in India Rs.10 lac and abroad Rs.20 lac
10. Mr. A wants to nominate his wife and son for his Savings bank a/c:
a) Bank will accept the nomination as they are his family members
b) Bank will accept if their share is decided before hand
c) Bank will not accept as it is proposed to be made in favour of 2 persons as
nominees
d) a and b
11. A draft presented for payment through clearing is unsigned. The bank:
a) should not pay as it is not an operative instrument at all
b) will not pay the draft as there is risk
c) will pay as bank has received the value after taking confirmation from DD
issuing branch
d) a and b
12. While rescheduling the short term crop loan in case of crop loss, the banks may
allow a maximum period of repayment of upto _______ years (including the
moratorium period of 1 year) if the loss is between 33% and 50%.
a) one year b) two years c) three years d) five years
13. The business correspondent is :

a) agent for the customer b) trustee for the bank
c) agent of the Bank d) creditor of the bank
14. What is the maximum deposit that could be accepted under the Senior Citizen
scheme?
a) Rs. 5 lac b) Rs. 7 lac c) Rs.10 lac d) Rs.12 lac e) Rs. 15 lac
15. If nothing is mentioned in the Letter of Credit about insurance, the insurance
will be for:
a) equal to the value of goods b) no insurance at all
c) 110% of CIF value d) 100% of FOB value
16. Digital (electronic) signatures means:

a) a coded confirmation of drawer in electronic form attached to an electronic
record
b) a coded signature with digital equipment
c) a signature with handwriting subsequently scanned
d) a confirmation with electronic and digital media
e) a code
17. A customer has become insane “ A Receiver” has been appointed by court.
Outstanding loan of bank is Rs.10,000 and he has some money in his savings
bank a/c. What bank can do?
a) Bank can exercise right of set-off and send information to Receiver
b) Bank cannot exercise the right
c) Bank should refer the matter to court
d) b and c
18. Reverse Repo is used to RBI to:

a) inject liquidity
b) absorb liquidity
c) increase the liquidity with banking system
d) to keep the liquidity at one level
19. Demand Draft can be issued against cash for an amount upto ____?
a) Rs. 1 lac b) Rs.50,000 only
c) less than Rs.50,000 d) Rs. 10,000 only
20. What is the time period for disbursement of monthly pension?

a) during last 2 working days of the month
b) for March, on last working day
c) for months other than March during last 3 days
d) for month other than March before last day and for March, on 1st working day
of April
21. Which of the following is SWAP ?

a) exchange of one foreign currency with another
b) exchange of one obligation for another
c) simultaneous purchase of forward and sale of spot currency
d) simultaneous purchase of currency at two different market for taking price
benefits
22. When one bank sells its NPA account to another bank, the selling bank can sell
it:
a) on credit basis only
b) on cash, without recourse basis only
c) on cash, with recourse basis
d) against issue of bonds by the buyer bank in favour of seller bank
23. For financial literacy purpose, the individuals such as retired bank officers, ex-
servicemen and others can be appointed by banks as:
a) Consultants b) Credit Counselors
c) business associates d) trainers in their training institutes
24. As per RBI directives, which of the following is required to be invariably
mentioned by the bank branch on the pass-book or the statement of account,
issued by the bank to customer:
a) complete address b) telephone number
c) e-Mail address d) a and b only
25. which among the following is a negotiable instrument?

a) an Airway Bill b) a Bank note c) a letter of credit d) none
26. The risk that arises on account of change in value of SLR and other securities
when held by a bank, is classified as:
a) credit risk b) investment fluctuation risk
c) trading risk d) operational risk e) market risk
27. For examination of documents under the letter of credit transactions covered
by UCPDC 600,the issuing bank would have:
a) reasonable time period b) 5 banking days
c) 21 business days d) out of above, whichever is least
28. Those Letters of Credit, where the terms of credit cannot be modified unless
opening bank, confirming bank and beneficiary consents are called:
a) revocable b) confirmed c) without recourse
d) irrevocable e) b and d
29. In case of agriculture advances, obtaining no-dues certificate is waived for a
loan upto Rs._____
a) Rs.25,000 b) not required c) Rs.1 lac d) Rs.50,000
30. A firm receives raw material from abroad for processing thereof and
subsequently to be re-exported after processing. What kind of guarantee shall
be issued for this:
a) continuing guarantee b) performance guarantee
c) financial guarantee d) deferred payment guarantee
e) Third party guarantee
ANSWERS:
1. c 16. a
2. c 17. a
3. c 18. b
4. e 19. c
5. c 20. d
6. d 21. b
7. b 22. b
8. e 23. b
9. b 24. d
10. c 25. d
11. b 26. b
12. b 27. b
13. c 28. d
14. e 29. b
15. c 30. b
MOCK TEST PAPER -9
1. Review of Annual Monetary Policy is carried by RBI on:

a) quarterly basis b) half-yearly basis
c) bi-monthly basis d) mid-quarterly basis
2. Under which of the following, the clearing is organized locally wherein

settlement of outstation cheques taken place:
a) speed clearing b) high value clearing
c) electronic clearing service d) national clearing
3. Under CTS-2010 Standard for cheques, which is not the specified feature:
a) Void mark b) Floral c) Bank’s Logo
d) Paper thickness e) Water mark
4. State Bank opens a current account with Bank of America in Los Angles for its
day to day business transactions, in US Dollars. Which of the following kind of
accounts, it will be known as ?
a) Vostro account b) Nostro account
c) Loro Account d) Escrow Account
5. A customer of your branch approaches you for guidance. He informs that his
sister is returning permanently to India after her 8 years’ stay in UK and she
wants to retain the repatriate benefits of the money she is bringing with her.
Which of the following accounts can be opened, to suit her needs?
a) EEFC account b) RFC (D) account c) RFC account
d) NRO account e) any of the above
6. At the time of incurrence, the legal expenses are to debited by banks to which
of the following accounts:
a) Profit and Loss account b) Borrowers’ account
c) suspense account d) bad debit account e) a or c
7. Bank has to reimburse the customers within 7 days in respect of which of the
following:
a) cancellation of demand draft on request of the purchaser
b) wrongful payment of a cheque made from customer’s account
c) amount wrongly debited on account of failed ATM transactions
d) all the above
8. Which of the following cannot be endorsed :

a) A fixed deposit receipt b) A bank draft
c) A promissory Note d) A Usance bill of exchange
e) a cheque
9. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) facilitates which of the following:
a) transactions between RBI and Govt. in Govt. securities
b) transactions between one bank and another bank
c) transactions between Govt. and banks
d) transactions between and Indian Bank and an International Bank
e) all the above
10. What is the ATM cash withdrawal limit for single day under RBI ATM access
policy:
a) Rs.1000 b) Rs.5000 c) Rs.10,000 d) individual bank’s discretion
11. The instruments that facilitate purchase of goods and services, including funds
transfer, against the value stored on such instruments are called:
a) Credit Card d) Debit Card
c) Pre-paid payment instruments d) all the above
12. What is minimum capital adequacy ratio prescribed for Payment Banks:
a) 20% of risk weighted assets b) 15% of risk weighted assets
c) 10% of risk weighted assets d) 9% of risk weighted assets
13. A savings bank account is treated as an unclaimed deposit if there is no

operation in it for the last ____ years:
a) one year b) two years c) three years d) 5 years e) 10 years
14. What is the penalty for non-deduction of tax at source on interest on deposits,
by a bank:
a) Bank shall be assessee in default in respect of that amount
b) Bank shall have to pay simple interest at 1.5% per month on the amount of
that tax
c) such interest shall be paid before furnishing quarterly statement of each
quarter
d) all the above
15. The loss making banks can make donations totaling Rs. ____ lacs only in a
financial year
a) Rs. 1 lac b) Rs. 2 lacs c) Rs. 5 lacs d) Rs. 10 lacs
16. Under the nomination rules provided under the Banking Regulation Act, for
which of the following accounts the nomination cannot be accepted:
a) a joint former or survivor deposit account
b) a joint locker account
c) a joint either or survivor deposit account
d) a joint safe deposit of articles account
e) a to c
17. Your working in the loans department of the branch. A 17 years old person
requests the bank to grant a loan against his FDR:
a) Bank would accede to the request as it is a secured loan
b) Bank would not accede to the request as loan is to a minor
c) Bank cannot grant a loan but can make a premature payment, if such request
is received
d) c and d
18. A demand draft of Rs.20,000 or above can be issued with Account Payee
crossing only. It is as per directions of:
a) Income Tax Department b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Financial Intelligence Unit of India d) Serious Fraud Investigation Office
19. For fixing the loan or overdraft limit by a bank, against an life policy, which of
the following is taken into account:
a) net asset value b) total amount of bonus
c) surrender value of the policy d) face value of the policy
e) forfeiture value
20. Transferable letter of credit can be transferred:

a) any no. of times b) 5 times c) 2 times
d) only once e) only rights to negotiate can be transferred
21. Which of the following crossing are not defined in Negotiable Instruments Act:
a) ‘A/c payee’ b) General Crossing
c) Special Crossing d) all the crossings
22. Under National Electronic Funds Transfer system, what is the maximum amount
for which a single transaction can be carried?
a) Rs. 50 lacs b) Rs.100 lac c) Rs. 250 lacs
d) Rs.200 lacs e) no ceiling
23. The bank wants to take possession of the security under provisions of SARFAESI
Act. It has to give _____ notice to the owner before taking the possession.
a) one month b) 45 days c) 60 days d) 75 days
24. Which of the following Acts contain a definition of an NRI:

a) Banking Regulation Act b) Reserve Bank of India Act
c) Foreign Nationals Act d) Income Tax Act
25. Who regulates foreign trade in India

a) Finance Ministry b) RBI c) FEDAI d) DGFT e) all the above
26. A borrower had raised jewellery loan earlier. He has not taken delivery of the
jewellery and bank has another overdraft in his name:
a) jewellery cannot be used for the 2nd loan
b) jewellery can be used for the 2nd loan with the consent of the borrower only
c) jewellery can be used by exercising the right of pledge
d) jewellery can be used by exercising the right of general lien
27. The term “cash loss” means:

a) The losses paid in cash
b) The losses computed without providing for depreciation
c) losses arisen because of cash misplaced
d) a and b above
e) a to c
28. Under KYC guidelines, what is the amount upto which the bank drafts or cash
orders can be issued by the banks for cash?
a) Rs.20000 b) Rs.25000 c) Rs. 40000
d) Rs. 50000 e) less than Rs.50000
29. Mr.” A” deposits Rs.50000 in his a/c. The next day, a letter is received from the
public prosecutor stating that the money is stolen money and hence operations
have to be stopped. What bank should do?
a) should not stop the operations but obtain factual position from Mr.A
b) should stop the operations
c) should stop the operations under intimation to the depositor
d) should inform the position to the prosecutor
e) b and d
30. The net work of computers that is used by an organization, within a building
complex is called:
a) local building network b) local complex network
c) local area net work (LAN) d) wide area net work (WAN)
ANSWERS:
1. c 9. e 17. c 25. d
2. a 10. c 18. b 26. d
3. b 11. c 19. c 27. b
4. b 12. b 20. d 28. e
5. c 13. e 21. a 29. a
6. a 14. d 22. e 30. c
7. c 15. c 23. c
8. a 16. d 24. d
MOCK TEST PAPER-10
1. What is number of digits in UIDAI Aadhaar number:

a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 14
2. Which of the following represents the direct quotation in India, in the Forex
transactions:
a) USD 1 = 0.75 EURO b) Rs.100 = USD 2.10
c) 1 Pound Stg. = Rs.79.10 d) all the above
3. Bank has granted a loan of Rs.90 lacs to an MSE in other than NE states and
other than Women enterprises. In case the loan becomes NPA, what is the
amount of guarantee cover that would be available to this loan:
a) Rs.65 lacs b) Rs.62.50 lacs c) Rs.67.5 lacs d) Rs.57.50 lacs
4. Accumulated losses are shown by a joint stock company, in its balance sheet as:
a) footnote of the balance sheet b) deduction from the paid-up capital
c) deduction from the net worth d) intangible asset
e) non-current asset
5. What is the maximum amount that can be remitted outside India, from NRO
account, representing sale proceeds of the immovable property in India.
a) Rs.10 lac in a calendar year b) Rs. 1 lac in a calendar year
c) USD 1 lac in a financial year d) USD 1 million in a financial year
e) No such remittance is allowed
6. Hindi day is observed on:

a) January 26 b) June 22 c) September 14 d) November 11
7. The minimum paid up capital of a new private Universal Bank has to be:
a) Rs.100 cr b) Rs.200 cr c) Rs.300 cr
d) Rs. 400 cr e) Rs.500 cr
8. What is the maximum amount that banks can levy as penal charges for non-
maintenance of minimum balances in any in-operative account.
a) no charges can be levied b) within the ceiling rate fixed by RBI
c) not more than 1% d) at bank discretion under Board approved
9. A company has to make payment of dividend to large no. of its shareholders

through electronic medium. It should use:
a) RTGS system b) NEFT system c) SWIFT system
d) ECS – Debit clearing system e) ECS - Credit clearing system
10. Form 15-H (in terms of Income Tax Act) is used in which of the following cases:
a) issue of tax deduction certificate by the banks
b) declaration by senior citizen for non-deduction of tax at source
c) declaration by an ordinary customer for non-deduction of tax at source
d) exemption for non-quoting of PAN
11. As per extant instructions of RBI, what is the maximum amount limit that
the bank can fix upto which minors may be allowed to operate their deposit
accounts independently.
a) max Rs. 2 lacs b) max Rs. 1 lac
c) max Rs.50,000 d) at discretion of banks
12. In a loan account, the Central Govt. has given guarantee. The loan account is
overdue for the last 2 years and 5 months. What is the provision of percentage
on the loan:
a) 0.40% b) 10% c) 20% d) 30% e) No provision is to be made
13. A loan is guaranteed by the Guarantee of State Govt. and it is running irregular
for the last 5 months. The loan will be classified as ______
a) Standard account b) Special mention account
c) Sub-standard unsecured account d) Sub-standard Secured account
14. Which of the following kind of LCs provides for storage of goods in warehouse:
a) Back to back LC b) Transferable LC
c) Irrevocable LC d) Green Clause LC e) Red Clause LC
15. Lending by different banks/institutions to a borrower concurrently, falls in

which of the following category of arrangement:
a) consortium lending b) multiple banking arrangement
c) credit syndication d) any of the given options
16. As per RBI directions, what is true regarding introduction for opening account
with a bank:
a) introduction is mandatory for compliance of KYC guidelines
b) introduction is mandatory to claim statutory protection
c) introduction is not mandatory where document based verification of identity
has been completed
d) introduction is a desirable practice as it protects customer and bank from
frauds.
17. On the basis of powers drawn mainly under which of the following Acts, RBI
regulates and controls the banks in India.
a) Banking Regulation Act and RBI Act
b) RBI Act and Negotiable Instrument Act
c) Banking Regulation & Companies Act
d) NI Act and Companies Act
e) All the above
18. In case of account in the name of a minor, banks can offer additional banking
facility in the form of _____, subject to the safeguards that account is not
allowed to be overdrawn and that it always remain in credit.
a) Internet banking b) ATM / Debit Card
c) Cheque book facility d) any of the above
19. In which of the following types of charge, the stocks (security with the Bank),
can be sold without intervention of the court:
a) where charge has been registered with ROC b) hypothecation of stocks
c) pledge of stocks d) in any of the given options
20. Which of the following cannot be appointed as a nominee by an NRI account

holder, residing in UK.
a) his old mother of 98 years, residing in India
b) his minor niece, aged 3 years, living in Canada
c) his son living in USA for the last 30 years
d) HUF in which he is a karta
21. Basel-III CRAR is based on important aspects called pillars of Basel-III. These
pillars are (a) minimum capital requirement; (b) supervisory review of capital
adequacy; (c) market discipline (d) risk management
a) a, b and c only b) b, c and d only
c) a, c and d only d) a to d all
22. Banks are required to place a ______ review of ATM transactions to its Board of
Directors, indicating, inter-alia, the quantum of penalties paid, reasons thereof
and the action taken to avoid recurrence of such instances:
a) monthly b) quarterly c) half-yearly d) yearly
23. The CRR is maintained in the form of:

a) cash balances with banks b) cash balances with RBI
c) cash balances in branches of the bank d) cash balances with banks or RBO
e) b and d
24. Bank-A has purchased an NPA account from Bank-B, which will be treated
standard account for the first 90 days. For capital adequacy ration purpose,
what will be risk weightage for Bank-B.
a) 150% b) 125% c) 100% d) 75%
25. A gold card holder is allowed with a standby limit to the extent of _____% of
the sanctioned limit, at the time of sanction of gold card.
a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%
26. Govt. of India has established Central KYC Records Registry (CKYCR) under
provision of which of the following Act, as amended from time to time?
a) RBI Act 1934
b) Banking Regulation Act 1949
c) Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002
d) Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
27. To become Indian Agent under Money Transfer Service Scheme (MTSS) of RBI,
the minimum net owned funds should be:
a) Rs. 25 lac b) Rs. 50 lac c) Rs.100 lac d) Rs.500 lac
28. The term “Guilt-Edge” securities relates to which of the following:

a) Share of blue chip companies
b) Share of public sector undertaking companies
c) mutual fund units
d) govt. securities
e) liquid securities
29. Current Ratio of unit is 3 : 1 and quick ratio 1 : 1. The level of current assets is
Rs.15 lac. What is the amount of quick assets?
a) 3 lac b) 4 lac c) 5 lac d) 6 lac e) 7 lac
30. Risk associated with changes in the credit profile of the borrowers and counter
parties, is called:
a) credit risk b) market risk c) counter-party risk d) a and b above
ANSWERS:
1. c 7. e 13. d 19. c 25. c

2. c 8. d 14. d 20. d 26. c
3. c 9. e 15. d 21. a 27. b
4. d 10. b 16. c 22. b 28. d
5. d 11. d 17. a 23. b 29. c
6. c 12. e 18. d 24. c 30. a
RECALLED QUESTIONS_6 (2017)
1. If a computer is bind to store confidential or sensitive information in order to
ensure that can not be accessed, which of the following shall be made use of:
Ans: encryption
2. A computer can not boot if it does not have the:

Ans: operating system
3. Transfer of funds by computers without banks intervention can be done by:

Ans: IMB
4. The device that connect different types of network is called:

Ans: Router
5. The processing machine that process the cheques of high speed in the clearing
house is called:
Ans: Processor, router cum shorter, encoder
6. The signature of the customer can be captured by:

Ans: Scanner
7. The basic unit of a mark sheet into which you enter data in enclosed sheet is
called:
Ans : cell
8. Batch reports area _____________

Ans: EOD / BOD
9. First page of website in terminal :______________________

Ans: home page
10. In a 13 digit a/c number the 5th to 7th digits starting from left to right
______________
Ans: Product code
11. Sending an e-mail is equal to:___________

Ans: writing a letter
12. The term VPN stands for: __________________

Ans: Virtual Private Network
13. To move the cursor to the end of the document line _____________
Ans: Cntrl + end
14. The resolution of the computer screen is determine by: __________

Ans: Pixcels
15. What does refer to a small single line network: ____

Ans: LAN
16. The fraud and other type of crimes that happen on the internet network are
called:
Ans: Cyber crimes
17. What does describe computer program better? ----------

Ans: Central Processing Unit
18. Which of the following activities are carried through electronic means it is
called _____
Ans: e-Banking, e-Business in banking and internet banking
19. A small line which flashes on the computer screen _____

Ans: Cursor
20. Computers use ____ number system to store the data and perform calculations
Ans: binary
21. IFSC code is _____

Ans: 11 digit alpha numeric code
22. Cannet is an example of ______

Ans: Intranet
23. Which of the items make use of the artificial intelligence ____________
Ans: User, computer, operating system and application system
24. The name of UPI app in our Banks is called _____

Ans: Canmobile
25. The computer that co-ordinate all computer activities into a network is known
as ____
Ans: LAN
26. Which device is not a storage device:______

Ans: Printer driver
27. Servers of computers that provides resources to other computers connected to
a _____
Ans: Network
28. ASBA means ___________

Ans: application supported by block amount
29. Collecting personal information and effectively bring another individual is

known as the crime of___
Ans: Hacking
30. Savings Bank a/c is transferred from one CBS branch to another CBS branch.
The a/c no. is ______
Ans: does not change
31. In page preview mode __________

Ans: You can see all pages of document
32. RAM stands for____

Ans: Random Access Memory
33. Printing device that create an image directly on paper by spraying ink and has
substances recurring cost is known as :______________
Ans: Inkjet printer
34. ________ is data that has been organized or presented in meaningful fashion
Ans: information
35. The term cyber law stands for which of the following:
Ans: The law relating to various information technology
36. Which of the following package was first introduced in our Bank:
Ans: ALPM
37. Which of the following services are available in the ATMs

Ans: Balance enquiry, mobile top-up
38. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document:____
Ans: Ctrl + a
39. Coded entities which are used to access to a computer system are called _____
Ans: Password
40. ______ is the appearance of typed characters
Ans: format
41. The term LED stands for ____________

Ans: Light Emitting Device
42. Junk email is also called _____

Ans: Spam
43. Modem is connected to _____

Ans: a telephone line
44. Date and time are available on the desktop at _____

Ans: Task bar
45. Information Technology has resulted in _______

Ans: effective delivery system
46. To insert a word into the middle of a sentence _____

Ans: Move the cursor to the desired location in the sentence press enter key and
type the new word
47. Wherever networks are not possible, our bank has gone for satellite
connections otherwise called as _____
Ans: VSAT
48. Unwanted repetitions messages, such as unsolicited bulk email is called as

______
Ans: Spam
MEMORY BASED RECOLLECTED QUESTIONS
1. Current Ratio is 1.33:1, Current Assets is 100, what will be the amount of
Current Liability: 75 lakhs
2. For creation of Equitable Mortgage on Agricultural land, property is to be

located at:
a) Any notified area b) In cantonment area
c) In metro cities d) Any where in India
Ans: D
3. A financial product, which is driving its value from another financial product, is
called _______
a) Forward Contract b) Swap c) Derivative d) Currency futures
Ans: C
4. The legal liability to file charges with ROC in case of lending to a company is
that of _____________
Ans: Borrowing Company
5. What increases a capital of a person:

a) Profit b) Loss c) Depreciation d) Sale of an Asset
Ans: A
6. To reduce its foreign currency risks in case of overdue Export Bill, bank should
do:
a) Forward Contract b) Option Contract c) Swap d) Crystallization
Ans: D
7. The appraisal of Deferred Payment Guarantee is same as that of

_________________. The only difference is outlay of funds:
a) Demand Loan b) OD c) Term Loan d) CC
Ans: C
8. Projected Turnover is Rs.400 lacs, margin by promoter is Rs.20 lacs. What is

maximum bank finance as per Annual Projected Turnover method.
Ans: 80 lacs
9. Garnishee order is not applicable to:

a) Savings b) Current c) FD d) CC/OD with debit balance
Ans: D
10. Under OTS, the compromise amount is calculated after taking in ____________;
Ans: Opportunity Cost
11. If Break Even Point is high, it can be construed that the margin of safety is
____________.
Ans: Low
12. On which one of the following assets, depreciation is applied on straight line
method:
Ans: Computers.
13. What is the limitation period when Govt. wants to take legal action for
recovery of its dues:
Ans: 30 years.
14. Public Debt Office (PDO) is an _______________.

Ans: Autonomous body and Investment Banker to Central Govt.
15. When a farmer in addition to agriculture is engaged in rearing of farm stock, it

is called ______
Ans: Mixed Farming.
16. Minimum and maximum period for FNCR (B) accounts: ___________
Ans: 1 year and 5 years.
17. In which currency, FCNR (B) can be opened: _______________

Ans: In any freely convertible foreign currency.
18. Deferred Payment Guarantee is __________:

Ans: Guarantee issued when payment by applicant of guarantee is to be made in
installments over a period of time. It is a financial guarantee.
19. What is the date for final implementation of Basel III ___________
Ans: 31.03.2019
20. Safe Custody of Articles comes under which Act?

Ans: Indian Contract Act.
21. CGTMSE cover eligible for credit facilities (fund based and non-fund based):
___________
Ans: Rs.200 lacs
22. OD in PMJDY account upto ______________
Ans: Rs.10000/-
23. Debt Swap meaning: …?

Ans: To extend finance to farmers for repayment of loan taken from non-
institution lenders.
24. For Standing Instructions, the relation between bank and customers
is_______________
Ans: Agent and Principal
25. If in Garnishee Order no amount is mentioned, what should the bank do….?
Ans: Full amount to be attached.
26. Long duration crop means a crop with harvest season of ___________________
Ans: More than 12 months
27. Provision on secured Sub-standard Loan_______________

Ans: 15% of outstanding.
28. Loan to MSME without collateral _____________

Ans: Rs. 10 lacs.
29. CGTMSE set up by _______________

Ans: Govt of India and SIDBI
30. Maximum amount of claim that can be filed Lok Adalat:

Ans: Rs. 20 lacs and above Rs. 20 lacs in Lok Adalat formed by DRT.
31. Eligible Amount of suit in DRT _____________

Ans: Rs. 10 lacs and above.
32. Time Limit for registration of equitable mortgage with CERSAI:

Ans: 30days from date of deposit of title deeds.
33. Full form of USSD:

Ans: Unstructured Supplementary Service Data.
34. A housing loan in metro area will be classified as Priority Sector, provided
maximum amount of loan is upto ___________ and maximum cost of house is
upto ______________
Ans: Rs. 28 lacs ……… Rs. 35 lacs
35. Bank is not required to produce original book of records but true copy can be
submitted when court has demanded as per which Act ________________
Ans: Bankers Book Evidence Act.
36. Outstanding in a CC account isRs.2.00 lacs. One of the partner has died and
the operations were continued in the account by the bank in spite of notice
of the death given to the bank. Later Rs.2.50 lacs deposited and Rs. 1 lac was
withdrawn. What is liability of legal heirs of the deceased partner: _______
Ans: Nil as per Claytons Rule.
37. Deposit Insurance & Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) does not cover
which one of the following deposits:
a) Deposits held in joint accounts
b) Corporate Deposits
c) Inter-bank deposits
d) Deposits of HUFs
Ans: Ans is Inter-Bank deposits
38. A proxy server is used for: _________________

Ans: To provide security against unauthorized users.
39. PMLA & FEMA are monitored by ___________________

Ans: Enforcement Directorate
40. Rohit was a loanee of the branch and news has come that he has expired. On
enquiry, it was observed that he left some assets. Upto what extent the legal
heirs are liable to the Bank?
Ans: Legal heirs are liable for the liabilities upto the assets inherited by them.
41. Indian Currency Rupee is in circulation in two more countries:

Ans: Nepal and Bhutan
42. Credit Rating Agencies in India are regulated by __________

Ans: RBI
43. CRISIL stands for: _________________

Ans: Credit Rating Information Services of India Ltd.
44. RBI grants funds to Banks against Govt. Securities with the condition of
repurchase by bank at______
Ans: Repo Rate
45. Application under ASBA can be used for applying:
a) IPO b) Right Issue c) Mutual Fund
Ans: All of the above.
46. Working Capital means _______________

Ans: Current Assets
47. Which is the 2nd largest economy in the world after USA ___________
Ans: China
48. What is Phising:

Ans: To steal the customers personal/confidential data like Bank a/c number,
Credit Card number, PIN or Password over internet and access their accounts
for unauthorized use.
49. Complaints under Consumer forum should be dealt with within ____________
Ans: 90 days (where no testing of commodities is required)
50. What does LAF stands for _________________

Ans: Liquidity Adjustment Facility
51. What will be the effect on the nomination if nominee expires before the death
of the Account holder: ___________
Ans: Nomination automatically stands cancelled.
52. If a cheque is returned unpaid due to insufficiency of funds, the punishment
under Sec 138 of NI Act, which can be imposed is ______________
Ans: Imprisonment of 2 years and or penalty upto the double amount of cheque.
53. Non-profit organizations are categorized in which risk category as per new KYC
and AML guidelines:_____
Ans: High Risk
54. Mortgage deed is valid for a period of _______________

Ans: 12 years
55. Under CIBIL Consumer Credit Information Report (CIR) the “Blank” status Field
indicates that _______
Ans: No negative remark
56. Net working Capital = Current Assets – Current Liabilities
57. What will be the effective date of a loan document , if Revival letter has been
obtained from the borrower and guarantors:_____________
Ans: Date of Revival Letter
58. Net working capital of a firm is Rs.200 and its current ratio 1.5:1. What is
amount of Current Assets and Current Liabilities:_______________
Ans: Rs.600 and Rs.400
59. Pre-operative expenses of a Unit are classified as _________________

Ans: Fictitious Assets.
60. Income Tax Attachment order has been received in an account. By mistake,
balance available in the account has been allowed to be withdrawn. What will
be the position of Banker:________
Ans: Bank will be assesee in default.
61. Complaint from PM office has to be attended within 7 days.
62. ATM failed transactions penalty has to be reversed within: ___________

Ans: Rs. 100/- per day beyond 7 days and the complaint should have been made
within 30 days.
63. Premium of Whole Turnover Packing Credit guarantee under ECGC scheme
is____________
Ans. 4.50 paise for Rs.100/-
64. As per which Act amount less than Rs.20,000/- to be paid in cash ____________
Ans: IT Act – Sec 269T
65. While issuing DD banks have to invariably put account payee crossing for
_____________
Ans. For Rs.20,000/- and above.
66. What type of crossing Holder can do ______________
Ans: General as well as special crossing.
67. Interest subsidy under Education Loan scheme for EWS _________________
Ans: Till moratorium period.
68. Rupee depreciated adverse affect to whom ______________

Ans: Importer
69. From NRO account up to what amount we can repatriated ________________
Ans: 1 million dollars per annum after payment of eligible taxes.
70. Clean bill means ________

Ans: Bills not accompanied by documentary proof.
71. Fake currency notes more than 4 pieces – periodicity of reporting to police
________________
Ans: Monthly (at the end of the month).
72. Fake note statement to FIU IND _______________

Ans: As and when detected, within 7 days (STR).
73. Risk weight for Consumer Loans ____________

Ans: 125%
74. Risk weight on claims on CGTMSE _________

Ans: 0%
75. Mixed farming ____________

Ans: Doing crop production and allied activity
76. In L/C, if insurance percentage not mentioned, then insurance should be of
______________
Ans: 110% of CIF value
77. Doubtful asset upto 6 months provision ____________

Ans: Unsecured portion 100% + 25%
78. Deregulation of deposit rates: _________

Ans: All deposits (NRE, FCNR ceiling rate prescribed by RBI)
79. Provision on Standard Assets ________________

Ans: Shown in other liabilities and provision – Schedule 5
80. As per BASEL II capital risk is ________________

Ans: Credit risk, Market risk and Operational risk
RECALLED QUESTIONS_2
1. PMEGP nodal agency is ______

Ans: KVIC
2. Subordinate debit along with all other instruments of Tier II capital should not
be more than _____% of total capital.
Ans: 50%
3. If Current Assets is Rs.60, Net Working Capital Rs.10, so what is the current
Ratio ____________
Ans: 1.2:1
4. To repay term loan installment and interest, what is the ratio to be seen
__________
Ans: DSCR
5. While sanctioning Term Loan what the banker has to examine ______________
Ans: Unit is in a position to repay the installments.
6. In case of restructuring of advances more than Rs. 10 lacs, minimum DSCR
should be __________
Ans: 1.25
7. In Tier II, minimum maturity of subordinated debt instruments ______

Ans: 5 years
8. Tier II capital should not exceed ______

Ans: 100% of Tier I capital
9. What is the full form of FSDC ________________

Ans: Financial Stability & Development Council
10. The Banker customer relationship for deposits is ____________

Ans: Debtor & Creditor
11. GCC can be given in ____________

Ans: Rural, Semi Urban and Urban branches, where Service Area norms are there.
12. In case of Vocational courses, for course of duration period above 1 year, the
moratorium period is ________
Ans: 12 months from completion of the course.
13. Housing loan repayment maximum 30 years and age of borrower _____
Ans: max 70 years.
14. Interest subvention for prompt repaying farmers ________

Ans: 3% (crop loan/ware house receipts)
15. Loans to Services sector upto what amount priority ____________

Ans: Rs.5 crore
16. What will be debtors period in months if Sales Rs.180/-, debtors 30 lacs
_________
Ans: 2 months (debtors/sales x 12)
17. KCC while fixing limit under Rupay card incremental percentage ___________
Ans: 10% p.a
18. Which of the following relationship is incorrect in case of Locker facility

_____________
(a) Lessor – Lesseel; (b) Landlord – Tenant;
(c) Bailor – Bailee; (d) Licensor – Licncee
Ans: c
19. Signature on Nomination form is to be attested by ______________

Ans: Not required. Only thumb impression to be witnessed.
20. The concept of Agency coupled with interest is applicable in respect of

____________
Ans: Govt. supply bills
21. Book Debts are charged by way of ___________ and LIC policy is charged by
way of _________________
Ans: Hypothecation; Assignments
22. Transferable L/C can be transferred in _________ but only ______________

Ans: Part or Full, Once
23. Under Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) of SIDBI, SSI
units sanctioned credit facilities upto ___________ is covered.
Ans: Rs. 2 crore (Fund + non-Fund based)
24. Projected Turnover method as given by the Nayak Committee is for SSI units
with working capital (WCFB) sanctioned limits upto Rs. _______ and non-SSI
limits upto _____________
Ans: Rs. 5 crore and Rs. 2 crore
25. The authority under which the bank collects Supply Bills is __________
Ans: Power of Attorney
26. A Guarantor clears a liability of the principal debtor in your branch. The right
of the guarantor to recover the money from the principal debtor is called
___________
Ans: Right of subrogation.
27. A firm transfers 75% of the Net Profit to reserve. What does it indicate
________
Ans: Substantial portion of the profit is retained in the business.
28. In the case of liquidation of a company, who will be appointed to handle the
affairs of the company __________
Ans: Official Liquidator (Official receiver or Official assignee in case of non-
companies account).
29. The CDR scope has been extended to cover entities with outstanding exposure
of Rs. ____ and above.
Ans: 10 crore
30. The main difference between the Term Loan and Deferred Bank Guarantee is
______
Ans: Outlay of funds.
31. What is the summary of the recent decision of Supreme Court in the matter of
M/s Transcore Vs. Union Bank of India & others, as regards SARFAESI action and
DRT proceedings:__________
Ans: The case under SARFAESI can be proceeded with, without withdrawal of the
DRT application.
32. What is the advantage to Banks for referring cases to Lok Adalats ____________
Ans: Consented decree, No court fee and no appeal.
33. In which type of charge neither possession nor ownership is transferred to
creditor ____________
Ans: Hypothecation.
34. In the case of a fixed deposit in the name of an individual, in which nomination
has been made, can the nominee renew the FDR in his name before maturity of
term deposit ____________
Ans: He can take premature payment of FDR.
35. When can an agreement made by a Minor for raising a loan be valid or ratified
?___
Ans: Never
36. If an Account holder has no PAN number, then he has to submit Form No.
____________
Ans: Form No.60
37. Under Copra, maximum time for an appeal in the State Commission against
District Forum is __________
Ans: 30 days
38. DICGC scheme covers maximum liability of ___________

Ans: Rs. 1 lac per depositor per bank.
39. Can Bank exercise right of Set-off in respect of Contingent Liabilities

__________
Ans: No
40. The Exchange Rate of 1 US $ increased from Rs.66/- to Rs. 70/-, it will benefit
the __________
Ans: Exporter
41. If a Sole-trustee dies, the Trust will be managed by ___________

Ans: Court appointed Trustee
42. Pre-paid expenses in the shape of insurance premium are classified in the
balance sheet as _________
Ans: Current Asset.
43. To ensure prompt payment of locker rent, banks to obtain at the time of
allotment of locker, fixed deposit which would cover ______ years rent and
charges for breaking opening of locker: ______
Ans: 3 years
44. If Foreign Currency position is oversold and currency is appreciating _________
Ans: Bank will incur loss
45. In Internet banking, without involving another bank, what can be done?
____________
Ans: Customer funds can be transferred.
46. Concurrent audit has been initiated on the recommendations of ____________

Ans: Ghosh Committee
47. In Flying Club a/c, cheque signed by the Secretary is received after his death.
Whether it is payable?
Ans: It will be paid if it is noted dated subsequent to date of his death.
48. The bill is dated 15.03.2015 and the date of acceptance is 20.03.2015. The bill
was returned unpaid on 25.03.2015. The limitation period is upto ________
Ans: 25.03.2018
49. A crossed Demand Draft paid in cash by a bank to a known customer. The risk
inherent is _______
Ans: Operational Risk
50. The Net Worth of a firm does not include:

(a) Paid up capital; (b) Free Reserve;
(c) Share Premium; (d) Equity received from Foreign Investor;
(e) Revaluation reserves
Ans: (e)
51. Under Priority Sector targets, Weaker Section target is ___________% of total
priority sector.
Ans: 10% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or 25% of total priority sector.
52. Clayton’s Rule applies to _________

Ans: Appropriation of payments.
53. Financing of domestic receivable without recourse to seller is known as

_________ and export receivables as __________
Ans: Factoring and Forfeiting
54. Section ____ of Banking Regulation Act 1949 deals with return of paid
instruments to account holders.
Ans: Sec.45 Z
55. Power of Attorney executed abroad must be stamped within _______ of its
receipt in India.
Ans. 3months
56. The maximum extent of FDI in Public Sector Banks is __________% and foreign
and private sector banks is ________
Ans: 20% and 74%
57. CRAR stands for __________

Ans: Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio
58. Preservation of Banks records is governed by provisions of Section ____

Ans: 45-Y of B.R. Act
59. Bearer Demand Draft, Promissory Note and Bill of Exchange cannot be issued by
Commercial Banks under Sec ____
Ans: Sec.31 of RBI Act.
60. Section 22 of the NI Act provides for a grace period 3 days to be added for
arriving at the due date for ______
Ans: Usance Bill and Usance Promissory Notes.
61. In the joint account, with operational mandate of ‘either or survivor’, Income
Tax Attachment Order received in the name of one of the account holder will
__________
Ans: 50%
62. Claused Bill of Lading indicates ______

Ans: Defective condition of goods or defective packaging.
63. A Resident Indian can obtain foreign currency for small value remittance on the
basis of self declaration without any documentary evidence / A2 form upto US$
_____
Ans: US$ 25,000
64. Resident Foreign Currency (RFC) account can be opened by ________, subject
to the condition that he was NRI for minimum _____ years.
Ans: Home returned NRIs …….. One year.
65. Market Risk is monitored by ____________

Ans: Bank for International settlements
66. Mulbery Crop Loan without margin can be upto __________

Ans: Rs. 1 lac
67. Virus refers to _____________
Ans: Program which infects the system
68. In Basel II, Pillar I covers which type of risks ____________

Ans: Credit Risk, Market Risk, Operational Risk.
69. For Agri business centre, outer project cost limit for individual is _____ and for
groups is _____
Ans: Rs. 20 lacs …. Rs. 1 cr.
70. What is the purpose of Disaster Recovery Plan ___________

Ans: Alternate Server installed for smooth functioning of systems in case of
failure of Main Server.
71. What is the time period for crediting proceeds of outstation cheques presented
in Speed Clearing ______
Ans: 48 hours.
72. In an Exchange Quotation, the rate is mentioned as USD 68.61/63. What is
Selling Rate ____
Ans: 68.63
73. What is the present Reserve Repo Rate ( as on 1st Jan 2018) _________
Ans: 5.75%
74. A Foreign Traveler is travelling into India. What is the maximum Forex the
traveler can carry without declaration in Currency Declaration Form (CDF):
_____
Ans: Foreign currency upto USD 5,000 or Foreign currency & Foreign Travelers
Cheque upto USD 10,000
75. Housing Loan outstanding is Rs.10 lacs. House property value is Rs.20 lacs and
original loan granted was Rs.15 lacs. What is LTV _______________
Ans: 50%
76. A Forged cheque is passed by Bank, wherein forgery is done in such a manner
that it cannot be identified with naked eye. Whether Banker is liable_________
Ans: Yes
77. Current Assets 100 lacs, Current Liability 50 lacs, Quick Ratio 1.5:1. So, what is
the value of Stocks:--
Ans: 25 lacs.
RECALLED QUESTIONS -3
1. A loan of Rs.25 lacs sanctioned to Woman for Micro Enterprise. What is the
extent of coverage under CGTMSE __________
Ans: 80%
2. Irregular RD is : ____________
Ans: Where installments are not paid regularly but maintained till maturity.
3. Discontinued RD is ___________
Ans: Where default of installments continuously for 4 installments.
4. While granting loans to NBFC-MFIs collateral security of deposit to the extent of

____ % of loan is to be obtained.
Ans: 10%
5. Sprinkler irrigation system will be installed for what types of crops ___________
Ans: Dense Crops.
6. Packing Credit is granted on the basis of ___________

Ans: FOB value
7. Hot listing of Debit Card is done by way of __________

Ans: Stopping transactions at Switch
8. As per Credit Risk Management Policy, Borrowers (Corporates and other
constituents) having sales turnover of over Rs. ______ shall disclose “Ageing
Schedule” of their overdue payables in their periodical returns/statements
submitted to the Bank.
Ans: Rs.50 crores and above.
9. Whether US citizen visiting India can open NRO a/c_____

Ans: Yes
10. Computer Programme which spreads and interfere with files is called as
___________
Ans: Virus
11. Information Technology Act 2000 has helped the Banks while dealing with:
__________
Ans: Court of Law while dealing with evidence in electronic form.
12. While doing Project Appraisal, sensitivity analysis is useful for _______________
Ans: Viability and sustainability of project.
13. Lorry Receipts issued by Transport Operators approved by IBA are preferred.
The reason is the Transport Operators will take care of ______________
Ans: Carriers Risk
14. Internationally, Banks are maintaining Market Risk under supervision of

___________
Ans: Bank for international settlements.
15. While preparing balance sheet of a firm, closing value of stocks is inflated.
What will be the effect:_______
Ans: Gross profit will increase.
16. What is the definition of Quick Mortality _________

Ans: Rs.6 lacs and above liability in case of new parties, becoming NPA within 12
months from the date of first disbursement.
17. While doing Risk Rating, an asset is downgraded from A+ rating to A rating.
What type of risk is involved __________
Ans: Credit Risk
18. Tangible Net worth (TNW) is calculated as ________________

Ans: Total paid up capital + Reserves – Intangible Assets.
19. When an MSE unit is showing signs of sickness, the unit is said to be in the
____________
Ans: Handholding stage of MSEs.
20. As per RBI guidelines, General Credit Card is classified under ______________
Ans: Non Farm Sector (other priority).
21. While extending finance to NBFC-MFIs, the percentage of Qualifying Assets

should be __________
Ans: Minimum 85%
22. Internal Rate of Return is arrived at a point where future cash flows on Net
Present Value basis should be ________
Ans: Zero
23. What is the cut-off date for RKBY during Khariff Season in case of Loanee
Farmers: ___________
Ans: November
24. In Kisan Credit Card Scheme what is the maximum ceiling of sub-limit for
consumption credit?
Ans: 10% of Crop component + WC for Allied activities with a maximum of
Rs.15,000/-
25. Adhoc granted in an account becomes NPA after how many days _________
Ans: 180 days(90 days Adhoc + 90 days for NPA)
26. As per UCP 600, if quality is not mentioned, what is the tolerance level
__________
Ans: Not applicable
27. Operational Risk is Not caused due to _________

Ans: Non-payment of dues by borrowers.
28. A party is sanctioned regular bills discounting limit while discounting bills,
which type of bills not be discounted _______________
Ans: Bills for purchase of fixed assets/ Accommodation Bills
29. A cheque is signed by two authorized persons of a Mahavir Trust. One of the
Trustee dies. Whether cheque singed by the deceased trustee can be passed
____________
Ans: Yes if it is otherwise in order.
30. During the inspection it was found that the realizable value of security is less
than 50%, then the classification of the NPA ________
Ans: Doubtful
31. Advantage of Local Area Network (LAN) is _____________

Ans: Group of users in specified area and central storage.
32. Under Personal Accident Insurance Scheme, the premium payable by the KCC
farmer is ____
Ans: Rs. 5/-
33. Guarantor Z clears the loan availed by Borrower X. The securities shall be
released to Z under ____________
Ans: Right of subrogation
34. Sensitivity Analysis is done for what purpose __________

Ans: Viability study
35. EEFC account is opened as ___________

Ans: Current Account
36. No Banking Company shall hold shares in any company for amount exceeding
______ of paid up share capital of that company or _______ % of its own paid
up capital and reserves whichever is less____________
Ans: 30 : 30
37. Pre-shipment Credit at concessional rate of interest is available for ________
Ans: 270 days
38. Financing tenant farmers, oral lessees for raising corps through Joint Liability
Group, the maximum limit is __________
Ans: Rs. 5 lacs.
39. Registration of Limited Liability Partnership is done with ______________

Ans: Registrar of companies.
40. Green clause LC refers to ____________

Ans: LC in which there is a provision of allowing pre-shipment credit and also to
arrange for storage / warehouse facility.
41. ALM main function is ___________

Ans: To improve Net Interest Margin (NIM)
42. Penalty in case of delay in submission of information under RTI is ____________

Ans: Rs.250/- per day with maximum upto Rs.25,000/-
43. Loans to individual Women beneficiary under Priority Sector – Weaker section is
____________
Ans: Rs. 1,00,000/-
44. Surrender of Foreign Currency on return to India within how many days
____________
Ans: Within 180 days
45. Rural Debit Swap is related to _________________

Ans: Financing by the bank for clearing the dues of the money lenders.
46. Net Working capital is ______________

Ans: Current Assets minus Current Liability
47. As per the present practice, maximum number of persons who can open joint
Savings Bank Account is __________
Ans: 4
48. IFSC stands for __________

Ans: Indian Financial System code
49. IMPS stands for ____________

Ans: Immediate Payment Service – mobile to mobile account
50. Spot value transaction means _________________
Ans: Settlement after 2 working days.
51. As per the Official Language Policy what is the library budget for Hindi books
_________
Ans: 50% of the Library Budget is to be spent for purchase Hindi Books.
52. Under Break Even point analysis, what is contribution ____________

Ans: Sales Realization minus Variable Expenses.
53. A person from USA visits India and wants to open an account, what type of
account can we open ___________
Ans: NRO
54. Internationally LCs are governed by _______________

Ans: UCPDC
55. Letter of Credit is issued by Importer’s Banker as _____________

Ans: Unconditional Undertaking
56. After the death of the Principal, the nominee receives the payment in the
capacity of __________________
Ans: Trustee of Legal Heir
57. The tolerance level for quantity under UCP600 is ______________
Ans: Plus or Minus 5%
58. Debt Securitization refers to ___________

Ans: Conversion of receivable into debt instruments
59. Agriculture loans can be sanctioned without mortgage upto ________

Ans: Rs. 1.6 lacs
60. Recently the NPAs increased due to ______________

Ans: Economic environment and not willful default
61. For a loan more than Rs.1 crore to NGO-MFI/NBFC-MFI, the collateral is
____________
Ans: 10% collateral in the form of Bank Deposits
62. Liquidity Risk arises when ____________

Ans: When Matured Liability exceeds Matured Assets
63. Commercial Paper is __________

Ans: Promissory notes – Negotiable instrument
64. As per Basel III, the CRAR of Tier I should be ____________
Ans: 7%
65. Advantages of Cluster based finance to MSMEs _______________

Ans: Risk mitigation
66. A cheque, signed by Agent on behalf of principal dies, comes in clearing for
payment, Can we pay________
Ans: yes. Can be paid if otherwise in order.
67. In Forex terms, at the beginning of the month would mean ________________
Ans: Between 1st and 10th of that particular month.
68. Confirming Bank and the Issuing Bank get maximum of _________ number of
days following the day of presentation to determine if the presentation is in
compliance of UCP 600.
Ans: 5 Banking days.
69. Inward remittance of $37,000 has been received by credit in the NOSTRO
account from your correspondent. What rate would you apply for the same
__________
Ans: TT buying rate
70. The account shall become NPA in case the regular/Adhoc limit is not received
for a period of ___________
Ans: 90 days.
71. For the purpose of Medical Expenses abroad, the maximum amount that can be
allowed is
Ans: USD250,000/- or as per the quotation from the Hospital abroad whichever
is high.
72. W
here accounts are covered under CGTMSE, filing of suit is not required in case
the outstanding is ____
Ans: Rs.50,000/-
73. In respect of the MSME to arrest the early signs of weaknesses in the account
_____ is done
Ans: Hand-holding
74. Max. compensation an Ombudsman is empowered to award in respect of

deficiency in service of the Credit Card operations ____
Ans: Rs. 1 lac
75. The RBI has advised state level Banker’s committee (SLBCs) Convener banks
to review and identify the unbanked rural centres (URCs) in villages with
population above ____
Ans: 5000
76. IMPS offers an instant 24x7 interbank electronic fund transfer service through
mobile phones. It is an emphatic tool to transfer money instantly within banks
across India through mobile, internet and ATM which is safe and economical.
This facility is provided by ______________
Ans: National Financial Switch (NFS) ATM network.
77. All global standard Credit and Debit Cards contain a microprocessor chip card
technology _____
Ans: EMV
78. UPI is a new interface designed to enable all account holders to send and
receive money from their Smart phone with a single identifier – Aadhaar
number, mobile number, virtual payment address without entering any bank
account information. Expand UPI ____________
Ans: Unified Payment Interface.
79. UPI is a mobile interface and will work on smart mobile phones only. UPI
can be used to pay for any transaction below __________ in real time i.e.,
instantaneously.
Ans: Rs. 1 lac
80. ______________ identification refers to a method of identifying the holder of

a device by measuring a unique physical characteristic of the holder. Ie., by
finger print matching, voice recognition or retinal scan.
Ans: Biometric
81. _______________ ATMs where hardware and the lease of the ATM machine is
owned by a service provider, but cash management and connectivity to banking
networks is provided by a sponsor bank whose brand is used on the ATM.
Ans: Brown Label
82. Luft & Ingham have developed the concept of JOHARI window of self-
awareness, according to which, the entire personality attributes (features) of
any individual can be divided into four parts. They are Blind, Arena, Closed and
___________
Ans: Dark
83. The following are the figures of the company ABC Ltd., :
Profit Before Tax = Rs.75
Income Tax = Rs.30
Interest on Term Loan = Rs.15
Interest on WCL = Rs.9
Term loan Installment = Rs.25
Depreciation = Rs.25
So, what is the DSCR in the above case ….?
Ans: 2.13
RECALLED QUESTIONS-4
1. Which is the 2nd largest economy in the world after USA ?

Ans: China
2. What is Phising?
Ans: To steal the customers personal / confidential data like Bank a/c number,
Credit Card number, PIN or Password over Internet and access their accounts.
3. Under Section 140 of NI Act, no excuse is available to the drawer from

prosecution if had no reason to believe when he issued the cheque that
__________
Ans: It may be dishonored on its presentation.
4. What does LAF stands for ______

Ans: Liquidity Adjustment Facility
5. Validity of Cheque has been reduced to 3 months w.e.f. 1.4.2012 as per which
Act ?
Ans: Special directives of RBI
6. A & B wants to change both their names in a deposit a/c ______

Ans: Not permitted; one original depositor name must continue.
7. Whether Pvt. Ltd company can be a partner in a partnership firm ________

Ans: Yes
8. For creation of Equitable Mortgage on Agricultural land, property can be located

_____
Ans: Anywhere in India.
9. Mortgage deed is valid for a period of ___________

Ans: 12 years
10. M1 and M3 means __________
Ans: M1 known as “Narrow Money” and M3 known as “Broad Money”
11. Pre-operative expenses of a Unit are classified as ___________

Ans: Fictitious assets
12. Safe deposit locker holder died. The nominee approaches bank for claiming the
contents. There is a sealed box among other things. What is the procedure to
settle the claim.
Ans: As per guidelines, bank should prepare the inventory and release the
contents to the nominee without opening the sealed packet.
13. Loan to MSME without collateral is __________
Ans: Rs. 10 lacs
14. Eligible amount of suit in DRT ________

Ans: Rs. 20 lacs & above
15. what is the full form of USSD _______

Ans: Unstructured Supplementary Service Data
16. A housing loan in Metro area will be classified as “priority sector” provided
maximum loan amount is upto _______ and maximum cost of the house is upto
____________
Ans: Rs. 28 lacs ….. Rs. 35 lacs.
17. Deposit Insurance & Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) does not cover
which deposits ?
Ans: Inter-Bank deposits.
18. Credit Rating Agencies in India are regulated by ________

Ans: RBI
19. Can we accept any Deposit beyond 120 months maturity ?

Ans: No except with court order for minor’s deposit.
20. As per Sec 18 of N.I. Act, if amount in words and figures are different in
cheque, the amount mentioned in _________ should be paid.
Ans: Words
21. Your branch receives two cheques of same amount, same payee, but the
balance is sufficient to pass only one cheque, which cheque you will pass?
Ans: The cheque of the earlier date.
22. What is monetized deficit?

Ans: Budgetary deficit which is being met by the issue of fresh currency notes.
23. GRESHAM’s Law in economics relates to ____________

Ans: Circulation of currency, Bad money drives out good money out of circulation.
24. CRM & PERT techniques relates to _________

Ans: Decision making
25. Packing Credit facility is made available in which type of L/C :_________
Ans: Red Clause LC
26. Gold Card for exporter can be charged at what extra interest?
Ans: No interest
27. What is the premium in Pradhan Mantry Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) ?
Ans: Premium Rs.12 per annum per member, Sum insured for death/ permanent
disability Rs. 2 lacs and towards partial disability Rs.1 lac
28. What is Pari Passu charge?

Ans: In case of consortium advance, sale proceeds of security will be shared
among banks in proportion to their outstanding.
29. What is the new name for Planning Commission of India?
Ans: National Institution for Transforming India (NITI)
30. what is ISDN?

Ans: Integrated Services Digital Network
31. Visually impaired persons can issue third party cheques upto which limit ?
Ans: No limit
32. Network used by POS is___________

Ans: Ethernet
33. Computer Security Day is observed on ___________

Ans: 30th November
34. In a small deposit account, free withdrawal in one month allowed _________
Ans: 4 (including ATM withdrawals)
35. KYC is observed on ___________

Ans: 1st August
36. Rainbow Revolution relates to ___________

Ans: Flower cultivation
37. GDP is assessed by ________

Ans: Central Statistics Organization (CSO)
38. One Rupee note is signed by _____________

Ans: Finance Secretary, Ministry of Finance, GOI
39. SHG concept came from __________

Ans: Bangladesh
40. Lending to SHG recommended by which committee ?

Ans: Kalia Committee.
41. ATMs owned and maintained by non-banking companies are called _________
Ans: White Label ATMs.
42. Ombudsman Award – Max for Credit Card is ___________
Ans: Rs. 1 lac
43. Educational Loan (Both inland and foreign education) under Priority Sector is
upto ____
Ans: Rs. 10 lacs
44. DD more than Rs.20,000 to be crossed as per which Act _______

Ans: Income Tax Act
45. Safe Custody article under which Act __________

Ans: Indian Contract Act
46. Stand-by letter of credit is same as _____________

Ans: Bank Guarantee
47. Party wants to purchase goods worth Rs. 30 lacs over a period of 10 months.
Which type of LC is suitable ?
Ans: Revolving Letter of Credit.
48. PAN card is mandatory if the deposits aggregating is more than Rs. _________
Ans: Rs. 5lacs
49. PAN card is mandatory if the single time deposits exceeds Rs.__________
Ans: Rs. 50,000/-
50. Insurance Premium for PM Fasal Bima Yojna _______________
Ans: 2% for Kharif, 1.5% for Rabi, and 5% for Horticulture crops.
51. What is the cycle of working capital in Turnover method ________

Ans: 3 months.
52. Balance in NPA a/c Rs.100 lacs. Security value at the time of previous
inspections was Rs.58 but in the fresh inspection the value is assessed at Rs.28
lacs. What provision will be required ?
Ans: Rs. 79 lacs.
53. Late fine for submitting TDS for a day __________

Ans: Rs. 200
54. Banks will have to retain form 15G/15H with them for _______
Ans: 7 years.
55. What is intra-day Liquidity (IDL) time for reversal of RTGS ______
Ans: 19.45 to 20 hours
56. Type of account which can be opened with India Post Payment Bank ________
Ans: Deposit account with maximum balance of Rs.1 lac
57. “Rupay” card issued by _________

Ans: NPCI
58. A statement showing the details of counterfeit Notes detected in the Bank
branches during the month shall be complied and forwarded to the issue office
of RBI so as to reach them by _________
Ans: 7th of the next month
59. RTGS payment under which Act ?

Ans: Payment & Settlement system
60. What is the charges for delay in crediting funds through NEFT ?
Ans: Repo rate +2%
61. Life cover under PMJDY for eligible account ______________

Ans: Rs. 30,000/-
62. Treasury Bills can be issued upto how many days ?

Ans: 364 days
63. RTGS customer time ends at ______

Ans: 6:00 pm
64. What is “Kite flying” in banking terms?

Ans: When a person opens various bank accounts and draws amount against
clearing.
65. A foreign DD deposited in NRE account. Which rate will be applied ?

Ans: TT Buying Rate.
RECALLED QUESTIONS_5
1. Beneficial owner under KYC can be a body of individual persons, a natural

person, who, whether acting alone or together, or through one or more juridical
person, exercises control through ownership or who ultimately has a controlling
ownership interest______________
Ans: 15%
2. Complaints under Consumer Forum should be dealt within _____________

Ans: 90 days (where no testing of commodities is required)
3. The extent of coverage under CGTMSE for Micro units upto Rs. 5 lacs is
________________
Ans: 85% with maximum amount of claim upto Rs.4.25 lacs.
4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) defined in which Section_____________

Ans: Section 24(2) of Banking Regulation Act.
5. Interest @_____ is given by RBI on CRR balance maintained by banks ?

Ans: Nil
6. If ________ number of counterfeit notes are detected in single transaction, a

consolidated report has to be sent to police station.
Ans: Les than 5
7. Cash Reserve Ration (CRR) is maintained as a percentage of ___________

Ans: Net Demand & Time Liabilities (NDTL)
8. What should be annual income of BPL family from all sources to be eligible for
getting interest subvention under educational loan ?
Ans: Rs.4.50 lacs
9. Cheque issued without balance what is the penalty ___________

Ans: No penalty. But, on dishonor, court proceedings to be followed.
10. Which is the latest recovery channel made available to the banks for speedy
recovery of NPAs backed by security_________
Ans: Action can be taken under SARFAESI.
11. What is the RBI directives for issuing DD for amount of Rs.20,000 and above.
Ans: It should account payee only.
1. Which of the following can purchase NPA?
a) ARC b) Banks c) Financial Institutions d) NBFC e) All of the above*
2. Food & Processing Industry up to what amount can be given under priority
sector: Rs. 100 crores.
3. Unspent Foreign Currency to be surrendered within: 180 days
4. SARFAESI is applicable to what type of a/cs: Secured NPA Accounts.
5. Number of days for examination of documents by negotiating bank under L/C by

bank: 5 Banking days.
6. Limitation period for filling case for enforcing mortgage : 12years when the
mortgage money has become due.
7. Full KYC is required at least once in _______ year in caseof high risk customer :
2 years.
8. The value of a gift that can be given by banks to itscustomers cannot exceed
rupees: Rs. 250/-
9. In Small Savings Bank account all credits in a financial year should not exceed :
Rs. 1 lac.
10. Pari Passu charge means: Sale proceeds of security shared by different banks
in the ratio of their outstanding loans.
11. PMSBY insurance cover in accident: Max Rs. 2 lac.
12. Receivables 20 and sales 120. Find the Receivables turnover turn over ratio in
months: 2 months (20/120 x12).
13. Hindi day is celebrated on: 14 th Sept.
14. Monetary ceiling for case filing at Lok Adalat is : Max Rs. 20 lakhs. ( Above Rs
20 lac for Lok Adalat under DRT).
15. RBI can issue bank note with highest denomination : Upto Rs. 10,000/-
16. Govt. of India can issue currency note in denomination of : Rs. 1/-
17. An Agent is appointed by the principal in his deposit account. The Agent dies
and you are informed accordingly. A cheque signed by him is presented for
payment: Can be paid as for all acts of agent, principal is liable.
18. Financial Director dies - Cheque signed by him presented for payment: Can be
paid as he is signing in representative capacity.
19. In Small Savings Bank account all credits in a financial year should not exceed :
Rs. 1 lac.
20. Savings Bank / Current Deposit accounts to be treated as inoperative if there

are no transaction for over a period of: 2years.
21. What is the RBI directives for issuing DD for amount of Rs.20,000 and above: It
should Account Payee only.
22. As per the moratorium guidelines, the repayment of education loan should
start from: 12 months on completion of course.
23. Business correspondent is: Agent of Banker.
24. Nominee can claim payment when: Only after the death of depositor as a
trustee of legal heir.
25. Food & Processing Industry up to what amount can be given under priority
sector: Rs. 100 crores.
26. For Special Crossing, what is essential: Bank’s name must appear with or
without two parallel lines.
27. Locker Operation to be categorised under High and Low risk. In case of
non-operation of such accounts for ____ and ______: 3 years and 1 year
respectively.
28. Why International Financial Reporting System (IFRS) should be implemented:

For comparison of financials of companies operating in two different
international jurisdictions.
29. As per the Task Force committee headed by T.K.A. Nair, the banks to achieve
annual growth of _____% in Micro enterprise accounts: 10% p.a.
30. NPA - D3 Category (Beyond three years): 100% Provision both on secured and
unsecured.
31. If Garnishee Order does not specify any amount, it will be applicable or not:
Applicable and full amount in the a/c will be attached.
32. SARFAESI is applicable to what type of a/cs: Secured NPA Accounts.
33. Number of days for examination of documents by negotiating bank under L/C
by bank: 5 Banking days.
34. Why crystallisation of Import bill: To extinguish foreign exchange liability by

debiting the a/c and avoid exchange fluctuation risk.
35. Buy Now, Pay Later what type of card: Credit Card
36. Limitation period for filling case for enforcing mortgage : 12years when the
mortgage money has become due.
37. For MSE units, no collateral security/third party guarantee is to be taken for
loans upto Rs. _____: Rs. 10 lakhs. (For units with good track record, it is
upto Rs 25 lacs).
38. Maximum finance for repair and renovation of house in metro under priority
sector: Rs. 5 lac.
39. Inchoate instrument means: Incomplete instrument i.e.,date or payee or

amount is missing.
40. Interest Rate on FCNR(B) Banks is linked to: LIBOR/Swap – London Inter Bank
Offered Rate.
41. Net working capital means: Current assets minus current liabilities.
42. Income Criteria in PMEGP: No ceiling.
43. Investment limit in plant and machinery for classification as Small

manufacturing enterprise: Above Rs. 25 lac up to Rs. 5 Cr.
44. A foreign tourist who is in India and is having USD 5,000 wants to open a/c.
Which type of deposit account he can open: NRO for a maximum period of 6
months
45. What is the target in DRI scheme for women: No Target for women.
46. As per revised procedure, banks will not send copy of form 15G/15 H to Income
Tax Deptt but will retain the same with them for: 7 years.
47. What is the IDL (Intra Day Liquidity) time for reversal of RTGS: 19.45 To 20
Current Liability: 75 lakhs.
49. What is the Banker- Customer relationship in case of cheque sent for
collection: Agent and Principal.
50. No bank can issue bearer demand draft/pay order as per which Act: Sec 31 of
Reserve Bank of India Act.
51. If Net Working Capital is 48 and Current Liabilities are 12, what is the Current
Ratio: 5:1 (Current assets 60; Current liability 12).
1. Mortgage is transfer of interest in : Specific Immovable property and not
transfer of property.
2. The appraisal of Deferred Payment Guarantee is same as8that of a) Demand

Loan b) OD c) Term Loan d) CC : TermLoan.
3. RTGS amount limit for customer: Minimum Rs. 2 lac and no maximum.
4. Beneficial owner under KYC can be a body of individual persons, a natural

person, who, whether acting alone or together, or through one or more juridical
person, exercises control through ownership or who ultimately has a controlling
ownership interest of : 15%.
5. Complaints under Consumer forum should be dealt within (where no testing of

commodities is required) : 90 days.
6. The extent of coverage under CGTMSE for Micro units up to Rs 5 lacs is..... : 85%
with maximum amount of claim upto Rs 4.25 lacs.
7. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) defined in which Section:Section 24 (2) of

Banking Regulation Act.
8. Interest @ ..... is given by RBI on CRR balance maintained by banks: Nil.
9. If ........ number of counterfeit notes are detected in single transaction, a

consolidated report has to be sent to police station: Less than 5.
10. Cash Reserve Ratio is maintained as a percentage of : NetDemand & Time

liabilities. (NDTL)
11. Conversion means: Collecting cheque for a customer,who is not the owner of
that cheque. (Cheque in the name of Partnership firm being collected for
credit of partners account).
12. Under RBI KYC directives, CFT stands for: CombatingFinancing of Terrorism.
13. Full KYC is required at least once in _______ year in caseof high risk customer :
2 years.
14. The value of a gift that can be given by banks to itscustomers cannot exceed
rupees: Rs. 250/-
15. What should be annual income of a BPL family from all sources to be eligible
for getting interest subvention under educational loan? Rs 4.50 lac.
16. Cheque issued without balance what penalty: No penalty (Only on dishonour,
Court Proceedings).
17. Whether “WILL” has to be registered: Not required.
18. Which of the following does not come under Tier II capital? ) Capital reserves b)
Undisclosed reserves c) Revaluation reserves d) Cumulative Perpetual shares:
Capital Reserves.
19. Which of the following can purchase NPA? a) ARC b) Banks c) Financial
Institutions d) NBFC e) All of the above*
20. What is the IDL (Intra Day Liquidity) time for reversal of RTGS: 19.45 To 20
Current Liability: 75 lakhs.
22. Holders of ‘Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account’ will not be eligible for opening
any other savings account in that bank.If a customer has any other existing
savings account in that
23. bank, he will be required to close it within: 30 days from the date of opening
a ‘Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account’.
24. Monetary ceiling for case filing at Lok Adalat is : Max Rs. 20 lakhs. ( Above Rs
20 lac for Lok Adalat under DRT).
25. For MSE units, no collateral security/third party guarantee is to be taken for
loans upto Rs. _____: Rs. 10 lakhs. (For units with good track record, it is
upto Rs 25 lacs).
26. Credit Rating Agencies in India are regulated by: RBI
27. CRISIL stands for: Credit Rating Information Services of India Ltd.
28. RBI grant the loan to Banks against Govt Securities at : Repo Rate.
29. What is the rate of TDS in case the customer does not submit PAN card and
15G/ 15H : @ 20%.
30. Certificate of Incorporation refers to: Birth certificate for a company issued
by ROC.
31. Mortgage means: Transfer of interest in a specific immovable property.
32. What is the premium in case of PMFSY : 1.5% Rabi 2% Kharif.
33. In case of Equitable mortgage, the deposit of title deeds has to be at ....... :
Any notified town notified by the State Govt.
34. What is the % age of provision on Standard assets in case of Direct Agriculture
and Direct MSE advances: 0.25% of outstanding.
35. A housing loan in metro area will be classified as Priority Sector, provided
maximum amount of loan is up to.... and maximum cost of house is up to: Rs.
35 lac; Rs 45 lac.
36. If Garnishee Order does not specify any amount, it will be applicable or not:
Applicable and full amount in the a/c will be attached.
37. Chase Bank is head quartered in which country: New York.
38. As per the Task Force committee headed by T.K.A. Nair, the banks to achieve
annual growth of _____% in Micro enterprise accounts: 10% p.a.
39. Which of the following does not come under Tier II capital?) Capital reserves b)
Undisclosed reserves c) Revaluation reserves d) Cumulative Perpetual shares:
Capital Reserves.
RECALLED QUESTIONS SCALE 1 TO 2 DATED 23.04.2017
1. Right of guarantor after repayment of loan
2. Liability of partner in partnership firm
3. Pari passu charge means
4. T
he mortgage in which rent and profit comes to the mortgagee and
possession is transferred to mortgagee is called
5. C
C account is overdrawn for 9 mths, liab is over dp/sanc limit, what will be
classification of the account—SS, DF, out of order,
6. W
hich of the foll wrong about RTI ACT – fee to be paid, can be given in
physical/eform, reason to be mentioned
7. Tax saver maximum amount of deposit
8. Validity of travel card
9. Under NRLM, maximum loan amt that can be given without collateral security
10. O
peration risk mngmnt which of the following is not related RCSA, KRI, ORMF,
AMA, IMM
11. Canara payroll package scheme WHICH IS WRONG-- min 20 EMPLOYEES
12. DER calculation capital, equity, reserves, profit given
13. Current Ratio Reveals
14. What is the time limit for accepting award by Banking ombudsman
15. Charges for delay in NEFT credit
16. W hat is the limitation for demand loan for which demand promissory note was
obtained
17. Rbia total marks for control risk increased to
18. Vidya turant cgfsel coverage upto what amount
19. EEFC opened by resident, joint name of resident, what is operation condition
20. F
or demat Pan IS REQUIRED WHEN THE PERSON PURCHASES- 50000, 1LAKH,
FOR ANY TXN
21. Legal audit is done between 36 to - ---mnths
22. Bearer chq modified,while making payment what is the position of bank- liable
if paid, not liable if paid in due course
23. Banks can take a decision to go for two way protection to avoid middlemen
attack in which of the following—dr card, cr card, internet banking
24. A
person cannot have more than one BSBD Accounts, if opened another
account within what time he has to close BSBD Account
25. Standing instruction relation of bank and customer
26. Cersai under which –br act, iba, rbi, sarfaesi
27. Classification of account in consortium
28. CRR under which sec/act
29. W
hen a company requests for numerous cheques for various txns to
whom all it is to be reported/informed ---FIU IND, RBI, home ministry,
finance ministry
30. PMEGP MIN QLFN FOR > 10L in MFG and 5L IN Services
31. Classification as priority loans by MFI repayable in not less thatn 24m upto
what amount 15k,30k,10k—recently became 30k
32. How does a BC function-- biometric machine,atm , credit card, debit card
33. O
ts of sme NPA as at 30.09.2015 DF and loss outstanding less than what
amount eligible for settlement
34. What is BEP
35. Above what amount CO REVIEW NPA accounts
36. C
ustomer money for specific purpose what is the bank—trustee,debtor,
creditor, lessor
37. For
ots of agri loans minimum outstanding as on date of settlement should
be more that what percentage of loan sanctioned – 125,100,
38. Atal pension yojana is discontinued if defaulted payment more than
39. Collecting banker protection under which section
40. Paying banker for alteration not detectable
41. BASEL iii implementation by what date
42. W
hat is not domain of ALCO—INTEREST RATE RISK, LIQUIDITY OF FUNDS, NIM,
BUDGET ACHIEVEMENT,NONE OF THESE
43. RTGS payment under sec of which act – PSS, IBA, NI, RBI
44. HOME IMPROVEMENT LOAN REPAYMENT
45. Penalty to be paid per year for revival of sukanya samriddhi account
46. SARFAESI eligible if outstanding including interest is more than what amount
47. BC implemented by which committee recommendation
48. L
imitation period for filing suit under sec 138 when the chq is returned—3yrs
from dt of demand, 15dys, one month by refusal
49. Letter of administration is required when
50. Life cover under PMJDY for eligible accounts
51. Direct selling agent min loan disbursement for release of commission
52. CSR for students 8-10 what amount
53. DPG is what type of guarantee- bid bond, performance, financial
54. Treasury bills can be issued upto how many days
55. Standby letter of credit is same as
56 Weavers mudra loan which is wrong – wc 2 lakhs, tl – 50k,wc &tl not more that
2.5 lakhs
57. J oint SB account of A and B , POA to C, information received by Bank that B

dies, chq signed by C comes. What will u do—return chq as POA not valid
anymore, pass after taking sign of A, pass after getting confirmation from A
58. CURRENT account of a company account operated by Financial Director, he dies
59. Accrual concept means
60. Women SHG what is the interest subvention
61. In FD amount not to be paid in cash for >equal to 20k under—
62. Gross exposure
63. Low risk account updation once in how many years
64. Long term sources and long term uses and total assets given find nwc
65. Chq returned how many days drawer has to make payment before any action
is initiated under 138
66. Mba/ consortium to take action under SARFAESI what percentage of lenders
should agree
67. ROC
68. DD more thatn 20k to be crossed as per which act
69. Option for customer to generate new pin for card receved is called
70. Under credit cardpolicy, what is cash wtdl limit for NRI
71. W hich is wrong about Debit card- rupay logo embossed, first 6digit is bin, total
15 digits
72. Internal ombudsman to csso as per which committee recommendation
73. To obtain opl of overseas entities which of the following is not authorised --
mira, mnc, care, brick works, dun and brad
74. What is noting in NI act
75. Score for risk gradation is obtained from which of the following—cibil , crif,
76. Which of the following discontinued canara lap, canara mortgage, canara
77. W
hich of the following mortgage of already mortgaged property is not
accepted—canara vehicle, home plus, canara mortgage
78. Why registration of partnership is required
79. Cgtmse cover is available for loans in MSME upto what amount
80. For restructured housing loan , addl RW required is
81. C
lean note policy of rbi-notes should not be stapled, sorted as issuable/
nonissuable, no noting on the currency notes 1. A n b 2 b 3 all of these
82. Turnover of a msme company is 200 lakhs last year and 300 projected for next
year, max wc limit can be permitted
83. After return to India upto what amount can be retained without conversion
beyond 180 days
84. Pmfby indemnity based on high, moderate, low risk is
85. Safe custody article under which act
86. P
arty wants to purchase goods worth 30 lakhs and payment in 10 months
which type of LC is suitable --
87. Natural calamity relief to be released before how many days
88. Canara consumption loan max amount
89. W hen a person opens various bank accounts and draws amount against clearing,
it is known as
90. W hen counterfeit notes are received upto notes we have to report at month
end
Scale I to II (Exam held on 27-02-2016)
1. What is the Maximum amount of loan against Demat shares.

2. What is the Claim period for accident under PMJDY scheme.
3. What is the Minimum pension under APY scheme.
4. What is the Threshold limit under RTGS.
5. Expand MUDRA.
6. Expand CGTMSE
7. What is the Transaction charges for using ATM debit card at other bank.
8. What is the age limit under PMJJBY.
9. What is premium under PMSBY.
10. What is the percentage of CGTMSE cover for MSME loans upto Rs. 5 lacs.
11. Bulk deposits Rs. 10 crore and above, permission to be obtained from.
12. What is the minimum and maximum loan under IBA skill loan.
13. What is the percentage of subsidy under PMAY scheme.
14. What is the income ceiling under PADHO PRADESH Scheme.
15. What is the threshold limit for purchase in POS under Platinum Debit Card.
16. What is the target for Weaker Section.
17. What is the Agriculture Lending Target.
18. What is the investment ceiling in equipments under Medium Enterprises.
19. What is maximum cash handling charges.
20. In Canara Business Card, what is the card inactivity fee for non maintenance of
Minimum balance.
21. What is percentage of Interest Subvention (2%)
22. What is the KYC risk rating for Salary Account.
23. What is the maximum LHV (2 wheeler) for workman staff.
24. What is the present Reverse Repo rate.
25. What is the number of members in a JLG.
26. What is PANCHASUTRA lending.
27. Expand CFT.
28. What is the maximum withdrawal per month in a Small Value Account.
29. What is maximum Gold Loan for non agricultural purpose.
30. What is the income ceiling under PMEGP scheme.
31. What is the limitation period for execution of a Decree.
32. W hat should be the minimum income to be eligible under Canara Vehicle
Scheme.
33. What is the validity period of sanction of a Working Capital Limit.
34. Which accounts are mentioned in SMA 2.
35. What is the ceiling in LOK ADALAT.
36. W hat is the relationship between Banker and Customer in case of Standing
Instructions.
37. What is the percentage of EEFC convertibility.
38. In case of fake currency, when to report to Police Station.
39. W hat is the action to be taken when cheque of above Rs. 1 crore returned 4
times.
40. Garnishee order with no amount mentioned, how do you react.
41. Expand PMVLK.
42. Term Deposit, cash payment above Rs. 20000, governed by which Act.
43. Safe Custody is governed by which Act.
44. What is a Pledge.
45. In which of our Schemes mortgage of already mortgage property is not
accepted.
46. What is the advantage of Registration of a Partnership Firm.
47. Upto what amount CGTMSE cover is available.
48. What is the additional Risk Weight for a restructured Housing Loan.
49. What is Clean Note Policy of RBI.
50. Turnover of a MSME unit is Rs. 200 lacs last year and Rs. 300 lacs projected for
next year. What is maximum working capital limit that can be permitted.
51. An NRI after return to India, upto what amount he can keep without
conversion.
52. PMFBY insurance based on High, Moderate, Low Risk is.
53. Party wants to purchase goods worth Rs. 30 lacs and payment in 10 months,
which type of LC is suitable.
54. Natural calamity relief is to be released before how many days.
55. What is maximum loan amount under Canara Consumption Loan Scheme.
56. W hen a person opens various bank accounts and draws amount against
clearing, it is known as.
Recalled Questions JMGS1 to MMG-II Dtd. 27.04.2014
1. Periodical updation are to be done once in 2 years for High Risk Customers
2. SB account can be opened jointly along with 4 persons
3. Minimum and maximum period for NRE Deposit? 1 and 10 years
4. Unspent foreign currency has to be surrendered within 180 days
5. C
heque in Euro currency payable in Germany/France should be realised in 21
days
6. Medical Expenses with self declaration can be upto USD 250,000
7. Educational Expenses for students abroad upto USD 250,000
8. In case of OTS, Banks Endaevour is to collect Book Laibility along with simple
interest at Base Rate +1%
9. Downpayment in OTS-10% to 15%
10. OTS Payment should be made within 12 Months to 18 Months
11. Valuation from 2 independent valuers has to be obtained for property valued
above Rs.10 Crores
12. Priority Sector Agriculture Target-18% of ANBC
13. Produce Loan to Farmers-Rs.50 Lacs
14. For Agriclinic refinance from NABARD -100%
15. Processing charge upto Rs.3 Lacs for small and marginal farmers is waived
16. Marginal farmer is one who is having land holding of Hectare
17. Canara club card validity is 10 years
18. Netbanking Corporate Bulk upload facility per day per customer is Rs.5 Crores
19. Mobile Banking for funds transfer and login MPIN number is required
20. For import above USD 5,000 form A1 has to be submitted – NOW NOT REQUIRED
UPTO $ 25000.00
21. Commercial/Residential property purchased by non resident by debiting FCNR
what is the lock in period? : nil
22. W hen should an authorised dealer endorse the passport of a traveller about the
forex sold?
23. Accounts slipped to NPA above .... has be reviewed by review committe, CO
24. Credit rating should be assessed at what interval of time to avoid credit risk?
Fresh and renewal
25. Operational risk is due to loss arising from failure of internal procedures
26. As per RBI Guidelines all employees in Region A, B, C should acquire working
knowledge in hindi within 2015
27. Implementation of Banking codes is monitored by... BCSBI
28. In turnover method, for assessment of working capital, average sales is
taken for how many months?
29. Current Liability is 48; NWC is 12; Current Ratio is 1.25
30. If receivables is 20 and sales turnover is 120. What is debtors velocity ratio?
31.CDR mechanism is for corporate with fund and non fund exposure of Rs.10
Crores
32. SARFAESI cannot be initiated in accounts with less than 20% of principal due
33. W hich of the following is not concerned with NPA reduction? Priority sector
classification
34. When the security in the account is less than 10% it is directly classified as Loss
35. In canara pension repayment period for borrowers whose age is above 65 it is
48 months and less than 65 is 60 months
36. Canara Jeevan the residual life of the property is 20 years
37. In Canara Home plus LTV is 75%
38. Risk Weight for Loans given to state government is 0%
39. Loans to staff secured by superannuation benefits. Risk weight is 20%
40. Canara consumer loan can be given upto 15 months salary or Rs.1,00,000/-
41. Housing loan repayment maximum is 30 years and borrower’s age upto 70 years
42. In PAIS, death of the borrower should be notified within 30 days
43. Credit limit not reviewed for 180 days will become NPA
44. Best Bank Award by IDBRT is given for use of IT financial inclusion
45. SLR is defined by section 24 of BR Act
46. In case of club account operated jointly by secretary and treasurer. After
death of secretary whether cheque can be passed?
47. Right of Surety in clearing a loan on behalf of borrower is Right of subrogation
48. W hen adequate margin is available in loans for advance to LIC policy need
not be treated as NPA
49. Bailment of goods is Pledge
50. IN CTS how many watermarks? Two
51. Mr.A is having an OCC account with overdue of Rs.800/- Bank has adjusted the
dues from SB account. This is known as Right of Setoff
52. In minor account who can make nomination?
53. In RTGS minimum amount is Rs.2 Lacs
54. Delayed credit in NEFT interest has be paid at RBI LAF Repo+2%
55. In case of FCNR deposit, Interest to deceased depositor before 1 year is ? No
Interest
56. Demand draft by special assistant can be signed upto Rs.50,000/-
57. Cheque upto Rs.10,000/- can be paid by branch in charge after business hours
58. Demand draft to bearer cannot be issue under RBI act
59. Payment of Deposit proceeds above Rs.20,000 cannot be done by cash as per
Income Tax act
60. Account not operative for 2 years is inoperative
61. Unclaimed deposits are those which are not claimed for 10 years and above
62. Excess cash should be credited to commission account
63. NRE deposit account cannot be renewed after 14 days : Now Changed and it can
be renewed.
64. Recovery in written off account directly adds to profit
65. In joint lending arrangement decision on stressed asset should be made by
banks with 75% of exposure
66. Provision for standard agri and MSME account is 0.25%
67. Photographs are obtained to avoid benami accounts
68. Limitation period for mortgage is 12 years
69. Validity period of KCCS is 5 years
70. Inchoate Instrument is incomplete instrument
71. Locker rent is 3 years rent plus break open charges
72. Internet password expiry is 1 year
73. Interest subsidy for educational loan is for moratorium period
74. Resident is one who has resided in india for more than 182 days
75. CGTMSE coverage for loans upto Rs.50 Lacs for normal borrower is Rs.37.50 Lacs
76. Walkin customer neft by cash is upto Rs.50,000/-
77. Cheque upto Rs.50,000/- can be paid in other branches for self in sb and current
accounts
78. Paripassu charge is as per share of each bank
79. Bank do not normally give loan to unregistered partnership firm because
they cannot sue third party
80. Canara Vehicle Loan for salaried persons to purchase four wheeler can be given
for the persons having gross income above Rs.3 Lacs
81. OTS settled borrowers, loans can be given upto Rs.50,000/-
82. Canara Mortagage can be given upto 50% of the quantum of the property
83. When is a bank holder for value?
84. W hen there is said to be conversion? Cheques in which crossing has been
cancelled by drawer
85. Testamentary sucession is by duly executing will
86. Bill of exchange liability of drawer is primary before acceptance and secondary
after acceptance
87. KYC has to be submitted within 6 months after transferring the account
88. FCNR interest is calculated on 360 days basis
89. For agri loans upto Rs.1,60,000/-; no margin
90. SME loans upto Rs.10 Lacs can be given without any collateral
91. Accounts sold to ARCs should remain in the books of the bank for 2 years
92. Subordinate debt is restricted to 50% of Tier 1 Capital
93. What statement about EMT is Wrong? Only urban Properties can be mortgaged
94. Manufacturing (small) investment in plant and machinery Rs.5.00Cr
RECALLED QUESTIONS
Scale II to III (Exam held in 2017)
1. The word ‘contribution’ is used in which analysis?

2. The difference between Total Sales and Breakeven point is called as_ in break
even analysis.
3. In Internal Rate of Return, the Net Present Value of a project equals.
4. Current Ratio is 1.33:1, Net Working Capital is Rs. 8 lacs, find the Current
Assets.
5. If Current Assets are Rs. 32.24 lacs and Current Liabilities Rs. 24.24, what is the
Current Ratio?
6. Total Current Assets Rs. 100 lacs, Quick Ratio 1.50:1, Current Liabilities Rs. 50
lacs. Find the inventory.
7. Profit before tax Rs. 75 lacs, Tax Rs. 30 lacs, Interest on TL Rs. 15 lacs,
Depreciation Rs. 25 lacs, TL instalments Rs. 25 lacs, then what is the DSCR.
8. Over valueing of Stock in Balance Sheet will result in.
9. What is the formula for NWC.
10. What is TNW.
11. BASEL III in India should be implemented by.
12. What is the minimum and maximum amount for which a Commercial Paper can
be issued by a company.
13. What is the interest applicable for Cash Reserve Ratio.
14. Investment in Associates should be treated as in a Balance Sheet.
15. BASEL II Pillar 1 contains.
16. A bank invested in securities in a A+ rated company, what is the objective of
ALCO.
17. Platinum Debit Card propagation, which of the following is not bank’s view.
18. What is the maximum compensation an Ombudsman can give in case of a Credit
Card complaint.
19. Which are the Star series notes.
20. If cash holdings is Rs. and above, strong room is mandatory.
21. CGTMSE is eligible if (Options are given).
22. Women entrepreneur (MSME), liability Rs. 25 lacs, on loan default, how much
amount we get from CGTMSE.
23. Amount received after claim not remitted to CGTMSE, what is the penalty.
24. Who will monitor CGTMSE.
25. Under speed clearing cheques to be cleared in .
26. Uniform interest as per RBI in Savings Bank Accounts upto .
27. Which schemes of MSME is dispensed with.
28. What is the maximum claim under Personal Accident Insurance Scheme under
Canara Galaxy.
29. What are the facilities given for Defence Deposit Accounts.
30. What is wrong in the following, in respect of Defence Deposit Accounts.
31. After returning to India, an NRI can hold Foreign Currency upto days.
32. In Export Credit concessional interest is given upto.
33. What is a Green Clause of Letter of Credit.
34. Within 2 days of credit in Nostro account, amount to be released to customer
upto .
35. What is Spot Rate.
36. In international market, market is controlled by.
37. In case of delay in settling or returning of NEFT, what is the maximum penalty.
38. Which of the following required for purchase of shares in a non listed company.
39. PAN to be obtained for all transactions above .
40. To determine as partner in a partnership firm, how much % share to be held
minimum as per RBI.
41. Which of the following recently RBI permitted to categorise under medium risk.
42. Address change, proof to be given is.
43. A cheque is presented after the death of an agent, signed by him. What is to be
done.
44. A customer wants to nominate a Cancer Trust. Can it be accepted.
45. Who cannot be a partner in an LLP.
46. LLP is regulated by whom.
47. Can nomination be made after the death of a depositor.
48. What right the guarantor will get, when he repays a loan.
49. Under RTI, if reply is not given within days, the penalty is .
50. Staff meeting is to be conducted on .
51. Which of the following falls under “B” region in Official Language.
52. Which of the following was not merged with any other Circle.
53. What is the present Reverse Repo rate.
54. What is meant by Debt Securitization.
55. In case of system errors, customers to be facilitated upto.
56. Under Kharif, what is the premium for pulses seeds.
57. If non-loanee wants to change crop,(PMFBY) he should inform within .
58. Upto what loan amount, a women beneficiary is classified under weaker
section.
59. Rural indebtedness means.
60. Under Stand-Up India, SC/ST/Woman in group should hold a minimum stake of .
61. Which are the activities under Agri Infrastructure.
62. Upto what loan amount tissue plant is considered as Priority Sector.
63. What are the features of FLCC.
64. What is the maximum finance per group under JLG.
65. What is the maximum loan per individual borrower under Agri Clinic/Business
Centre.
66. OD under PMJDY is tenable for .
67. Irrespective of score under CIBIL, loan can be sanctioned under Govt.
Sponsored Scheme by Sanctioning Authority.
68. If asset value deteriorates more than 50%, then asset will slip directly to.
69. In case of Doubtful Asset above 1 year upto 3 years, the provision is .
70. If regular limit/adhoc limit is not renewed/reviewed within account will slip
to NPA.
71. House value at the time of sanction is Rs. 25 lacs, Present liability is Rs. 10
lacs, Present market value is Rs. 20 lacs, LTV is .
72. If the student dies, OTS can be settled as under.
73. If recovery agent assists in selling of asset also, how much % of commission can
be paid.
74. Before selling, if the amount is , how many times auction notice is to be
given.
75. Under SARFAESI, if customer raises objection, reply to be given within .
76. Accounts having exposure above, information to be shared with CRILC.
77. Which of the following risk can arise, not due to customer.
78. For selling to ARC, minimum cash to be received is.
79. RO CAC/RAH HEAD/AGM-RO-CAC can reduce NTH in case of HL upto .
80. Salary Rs. 75000 pm. Project Cost Rs. 33 lacs. What is the amount of loan
eligible under Canara Site.
81. What is the ceiling of loan under Canara Pension, other than retired employees
of our bank.
82. Expand IMPS.
83. NFS formed by RBI is useful for which of the following.
84. When an ATM card is Hot listed.
85. Hot listing can be done in case of following.
86. Which of the following is not correct in respect of BHIM application.
87. What is IFSC.
RECALLED QUESTIONS OF MANAGER TO SENIOR MANAGER: - EXAM HELD ON :

27.02.2016
1. Purpose of using Article of Association while opeing current account

2. More than Rs. one Crore deposits to be reported to .................. wings
3. Under Canara Galaxy , Freebies Are Allowed Upto What Amount - Rs.50000/-
4. Active Rupay Card mean .............................
5. K
YC documents to be preserved from the closing of the relationship with the
customer -10 years
6. The record updation for low risk customers as per KYC policy -10 years
7. E
xiting customers of debit card standard visa card wants to switch over to
platinum card, the annual turnover for last 12 months is Rs.50000/-
8. As per delegation of powers for GM CAC what is the cut of limit of BULC - None
of the above
9. If a customer has deposited some amount for specific purpose, in this case bank
has to act as - trustee
10. Z
has given a guarantee to X. Now, Z has repaid the loan to the bank, now
the guarantor is having the right of subrogation
11. U
nder APY scheme the remittance can be made by the customer ------
periodicity monthly
12. The conversion of physical shares into electronic form is called
Dematerialization
13. w
hat do you mean by Debt Restructuring - loans to be converted to marketable
ones
14. TOL / TNW : QUESTION -PROBLEM
15. TANGIBLE NETWOTH MEANS - TOTAL PAIDUP CAPITAL + RESERVES - INTANGIBLES
16. Authorised capital is Rs.10 lac. Paid up capital Rs.6 lac. The loss of previous
year is Rs.1 lac. Loss In current year is Rs. 3 lac. The tangible net worth is :
Rs.2 lac
17. Profit before tax Rs 150; Tax Rs 40; Depreciation Rs 30; Interest on Term
Loan Rs 30; Annual instalment of term loan Rs 70; calculate Debt Service
Coverage ratio: 1.7 ( Net Profit after Tax + Depreciation Interest on Term
Loan)/ (Instalment of Term Loan 4- Interest on Term Loan).
18. F
OR MSME LOAN TO WOMEN ENTREPRENUAR THE LOAN SANCTIONED IS 25
LACS, How Much CGTMSE to be covered : 75%
19. f or PMEGP loans, up to what amount collateral security is not required Rs.10
lacs
20. f or MSME customer Rs. 25 lacs granted with CGTMSE guarantee, how much
collateral security is to be taken : NO COLLATERAL SECURITY
21. FOR NULM LOANS : NO COLLATERAL SECURITY Required
22. F
OR CANARA SECURED CREDIT CARD, THE CASH LIMIT IS 50% (Max per day is
Rs.35000) : Rs.50000/-
23. The collateral security for granting loans for DALL scheme is 75 %
24. FOR CANARA VEHICLES LOANS, WHAT IS STIPULATED NTH -25% 12000
25. U
NDER PMAY FOR SANCTIONING LOANS TO EWS CATEGORY BORROWERS, THE
INCOME CEILING- Rs. 3lacs
26. for coverage under CGFTLIG WHAT IS MAXIMUM LIMIT - Rs. 5 lacs
27. H
ow much Education loan can be sanctioned to students pursuing IIM course -
Rs.25 lacs
28. Distressed assets monitoring cut of limit : Rs. 5 cr
29. M
aterially altered cheque which is not apparently visible is defined under
section - 89 of NI Act
30. H
ow loan quantum can be sanctioned to Yuva Awaas Rin yojana - 6 years gross
salary
31. w
hich of the following is incorrect in respect of Base Rate - dir loans, staff
loans, agri interest subvention, export credit
32. For agricultural crop loans interest subvention for prompt repayment of loan
and effective roi- 3% and 4%
33. Cheque specially crossed - Bank name should be there
34. Cheque paid to Bearer instrument - once bearer is always bearer
35. A customer deposited huge amount in the account, Branch manager has
enquired about the same but the customer has not given the details - Branch to
report to FIU India
36. W
hich of the following devices are not Biometric sensitive – a. Hand, b. Finger,
c. retina & d. firewall
37. The letter of Administration is applicable - when the customer expired without
will- Joint & severally
38. Official Language , Sec 6 and 7 not Applicable to J & K.
39. Accrual Concept - Interest debited but not collected
40. Prudence Accounting -
41. LC definition - conditional guarantee of Importers bank
42. Recently our Bank has got BCSBI ranking - average
43. BCSBI is autonomous institution
44. NRLM 1st dose limit Rs. 1 lac or 6 times whichever is higher
45. O
TS FOR RS. 10 LACSA AND BELOW THE ROI APPLIED IS DPENDING ON
CATEGORY OF ASSET CLASS ( Substandard, Doubtful & Loss Assets )
46. MAXIMUM PERIOD ALLOWED UNDER OTS 12-18 MONTHS
47. B
SBD ACCOUNT TO BE CLOSED AND WANTS TO OPEN REGULAR ACCOUNT ,
WITHIN HOW MANY DAYS HE CAN CLOSE within 30 days.
48. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MODULES ARE NOT AVAILABLE IN FCR - MSME
49. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT NET BANKING PROTOCOL - ANDROID
50. ISDN - INTEGRATED SERVICES DIGITAL NETWORK
51. ICAAP - INTERNAL CAPITAL ADEQUACY ASSESSMENT PROCESS
52. W
HICH INSTITUTE IS SELECTING THE TRANEES UNDER AGRI CLINIC FOR
NOMINATING TO NODAL TRAINING INSTITUTES - NABARD
53. THE PROVISION FOR STAFF LONAS OTHER THAN MORTGAGE LOANS FOR STD
ASSETS – 0.75
54. F
ARMERS FOR AVAILING THE PRODUCES LOANS AND REPAYBLE IN 12 MONTHS THE
MAXIMUM LOAN CAN BE SANCTIONED IS - Rs.50 lacs
55. The loans given to cooperative society for onward lending to farmers for
produce loans max limit - Rs.5 cr
56. Debt swapping means
57. registration of charge beyond 30 days to be done within 270 DAYS
58. bankers are coming under public utility services the act refers to ESMA
59. Fixed monthly pensions to be paid under APY is 1000 to 5000/-
60. vostro a/c - foreign bank a/c in India with domestic bank
61. IFSC - INDIAN FINANCIAL SYSTEM CODE
62. The loans given to cooperative society for small and marginal farmers must
be - % for value outstanding and % of farmers in numbers -75, 75
63. The borrowers to be classified as wilful defaulters the cut off limit is Rs. 25 lacs
and above
64. W hich of the following is not considered for calculating cost of sales :
1. deprecation, 2. wages and salaries,
3. selling costs, 4 freight and octroi
65. contribution under BEP : selling cost price - variable cost
66. In a partnership firm, out of three partners, one partner deceased, the o/s
liability is Rs.2.00 lacs, the bank has allowed transaction the other partners
deposited Rs.2.50 lacs and withdrawn Rs. 1lac, how much liability as per
Clayton’s rule : no liability
67. Asset Liability Management measures - NIM
68. F
or deciding roi for export loans, banks should consider 1. forex market, 2.
exchange rate. 3. ALM, 4.Operating Cost
69. what is cut off date for submitting SLBC/BLBC for bankers annually :
70. p
rovision for standard assets are shown in Balance sheet as under
outstanding liability & Provisions to the balance sheet
71. OTS advisory committee chairman is Retd. High Court Judge
72. W
hether our Bank directors are eligible loans against gold, term deposits,
approved securities - Yes
73. U
nder which of the following circumstances, SARFAISI ACTION can’t be
initiated : NPA liability of Below Rs. 1 lac
74. Foreign citizen wants to open account in India : yes
75. Which is nodal agency for implementing PMEGP scheme : KVIC
76. As per BASEL III , Capital risk includes, std approach, Foundation Internal Risk
method and third one is Advanced Approach
77. A person wants to go to abroad he can take FC before --- days of his journey –
180 days
78. Recent DD guidelines - A/c payee above Rs.20,000/-
79. The difference of Imports and exports - balance of trade
80. If a trustee expires, the banker has to go though trust deed and act accordingly
81. Articles of association is meant for - internal activities of the company
82. what is provision for doubtful assets for 1 to 3 years - 40% of RVS + 100
unsecured portion
83. What is timings for rtgs transactions on saturday 08:00 -18.00
84. What is the maximum ceiling for neft transaction - no ceiling
85. H
ow much interest to be paid on crr balances to be maintainined by banks - no
interest
86. Under which section cash reserve ratio is defined - sec 42 of rbi act
87. Nominee status - trustee of legal heirs
88. U
nder insta credit for real time settelements what is the tat,turn around time–
1 to 1.5 hr
89. W
hat is the cut-off time limit for disaster recovery server in case of eventuality
- 15mins
90. VSL Loans to bank Director of Rs. 50,000 – Comes under Branch sanction
91. Constituting Independent Evaluation Committee to carry out TEV Study in
respect of SMA2 accounts by IBA in respect of Loans – Amount above Rs. 500
crores.
92. KCC / Kisan Suvidha Validity period for WC limits – five Years
93. NRLM- SHG formation based on which basis – Poverty Line ( APL/BPL )
94. R
UPAY debit Card should be active for how much minimum period for
claiming PAIS in PMJDY – 90 days.
95. If a person is not providing information of source of large amount of funds
in his account – Report under STR.
96. ALM helps in
a. Increasing CRAR b. NIM c. None of the Above d. all of the above
97. Maximum Amount of Repatriation from NRO account in a Year - $ one Million
98. W
hat will not be appearing in the balance sheet
a. Capital adequacy, b. Net NPA to Gross NPA,
99. Produce loan Maximum Limit under Priority Sector: Rs. 50.00 lacs
RECALLED QUESTIONS MANAGER TO SENIOR MANAGER DTD. 19.05.2013
1. Complaint from PM office to be attended in : 7 days

2. ATM failed transactions penalty : Rs.100/- per day beyond 7 days
3. SWARNA Loan repayment : 24 months NEFT charges upto 1 lacs : NIL in our
Bank. (RBI prescribed Rs.15/-)
4. RTGS timings normal days for customers: 8-00 am to 18.00
5. WTPS premium : 4.50 paise for 100/-(ECIB-WTPC- 6 paisa)
6. Cheque/DD validity 3 months : as per RBI directives
7. As per what act amout upto 20000 to be paid in cash : IT act
8. W
hile issuing DD banks invariably put what type crossing – account payee
crossing (for more than Rs.20,000/-)
9. Holder can : do general as well as special crossing
10. Interest subsidy under EL scheme for EWS : till moratorium period
11. FCNR- Min Max period : 1 and 5 years
12. L
oan against NRO/NRE deposits upto 90% what is the ROI : 2% above deposit
rate
13. Rupee depreciated – adverse affect to whom : Importer
14. F
rom NRO account upto what amount we can repartirate : 1 million dollars per
annum
15. L
C Advising charges : 0.20% of the amount of LC with a minimum of 300/- and
maximum of 2000/-.
16. LC amendment charges : Rs.500/-
17. Clean bill means : Bills not accompanied by documentary proof
18. F
ake currency not more than 4 pieces – periodicity of reporting to police :
monthly (at the end of the month)
19. Fake note statement to FIU IND : As and when detected, with in 7 days (CCR)
20. Housing priority population upto 10 lac population: Rs.25 lac
21. Interest subsidy for housing loans for Rs.20 lacs and project cost : Rs. 25 lacs
22. Mixed farming : Doing crop production and allied activity
23. Canara Kutir yojana construction of house – repayment holiday : 9 months
for construction otherwise 3 months
24. Under solar off grid scheme eligibility criteria (income) : Rs. 50000/-
25. P
urchasing of land and construction of house thereon repayment holiday max :
18 M
26. LTV <75% not more than 30 lac provision : 35%
27. In LC if insurance percentage not mentioned : 110%
28. Risk weight for consumer loans : 125%
29. Risk weight on cliams on CGTMSE : 0%
30. Doubtful asset upto 6 months provision : Deficit + 25%
31. U
nder recovery policy up Rs5 lacs which accounts are eligible : doubtful and
loss outstanding more than one year
32. Preferential interest of 0.50 given to : all maturities (senior citizen?)
33. D
eregulation of deposit rates : all deposits (FCNR ceiling rate prescribed by
RBI)
34. Provision on Standard assets : Shown in Other liabilities and provisions
35. As per BASEL ii capital risk is : Credit risk, Market risk and Operational risk
36. PMEGP nodal agency : KVIC
37. To which organization we can open account : SHG (in the given option)
38. NRLM(SGSY) target - percentage of women groups : 50%
39. Form A1 : now dispensed with
40. Current assets 60, Net working capital 10 what is the Current Ratio: Ans 1.2
41. To repay term loan installment and interest, what is the ratio to be seen : DSCR
42. W hile sanctioning TL what we will see : Unit is in a position to repay the
installment
43. In case of restructuring of advances more than 10 lacs, minimum DSCR should
be: Ans: 1.25(Now Micro- 1.10, Small-1.25)-Cir 324/2013
44. In case of takeover of borrowal accounts shifting of accounts from banks
during last 5 years shall not be more than one occasion and gap to last switch
over shall be minimum : 2 years (This condition is waived for accounts earlier
existed with our bank)
45. S hort term Corporate loan for new borrowers if they are having limits with
other banks what is the minimum limit they should have : Rs.50 cr(Existing
Customer-Rs.40 Cr)
46. Through MMID what is the maximum we can transfer: Rs. 50000/-
47. In case of ODSME limit more than 10 lacs submission stock statements :
Quarterly
48. Micro Manufacturing investment in plant and machinery : Rs.25 lacs
49. In Tier II minimum maturity of subordinated debt instruments : 5 years
50. T
ier II capital should not exceed : 100% of Tier I capital Which one is not
a Tier I capital : Revaluation reserves
51. Income ceiling in case of DRI advances in case of Rural areas: Rs.18000/-
52. G
CC can be given in : Rural, Semi Urban and Urban branches, where
service area norms are there [now scheme is discontinued 115/2014]
53. In case of housing loans for dwelling houses income ceiling for Rural
areas: Rs. 60000/-
54. In case of vocational courses course period more than 1 year : Repayment
holiday 12 months(Cir 571/2013)
55. Housing loan repayment max 30 years and age of borrower : max 70 years
56. Insurance coverage under housing loans: age 18-59
57. Interest incentive : 3 % (crop loan/ware house receipts)
58. Weavers card interest subvention and period : 3% ,3 years
59. L
oans to services sector upto what amount priority - Rs.5 cr (Rs.10 cr from 13-
11-2013 to 31.03.2014)
60. L
oans to corporate for agricultural finance, upto what amount Priority : Rs.2
crores now there is no system of Direct, Indirect Agriculture. Only agriculture.-
now MSME
61. Debtors period : sales 180, debtors 30 lacs : Ans: 2 months (debtors/sales x 12)
62. Accrued interest in NPA : provision to be provided fully
63. KCC while fixing limit under rupay card incremental percentage : 10% per
Annum
64. F
or SHG while giving Cash credit initially upto what months can be given : 6
months
65. N
RE deposits can be renewed from due date if presented for renewal within:
14 days
66. ROC - Pledge of movable: need to be registered as per Company act 2013.
67. CERSAI – created within : 30 days
68. SARFAESI – borrower can approach DRT : without depositing any amount.
69. CDR not applicable : facilities provided by one bank
70. R
esidents upto what amount they can use for medical purpose with
declaration: 250000 USD
71. In case of nomination for illiterate : to be attested by two witnesses
72. In case of minor account nomination can be given by : Natural Guardian
73. For blind person all facilities to be given : SB account, ATM card, locker Facility
74. In case of Small value accounts upto Rs.50000 loan amount will be treated as :
Other priority
75. Low Risk customers , periodical updation of data : once in 10 years
76. Penalty for non submission e TDS : Rs. 200 per day
77. TDS on Rent upto : Rs.240000/- exempted
78. Which one is pledge : gold loans
79. Sabbatical can be availed maximum : 24 months
80. Fraud : Operational risk
81. OLIC meeting periodicity : Quarterly
82. Canara pension for employees of our bank : 15 m pension with max Rs.2 lac
83. DPG – Guarantee for: Term Loan installment repayment
84. Inspection of godown by Manager/Senior Manager of branch – once in a year
85. A
ccount need not be classified as NPA as long as adequate margin available :
Life Insurance policy
86. Provision in case of other standard assets : 0.40%
87. A
dditional interest not permitted in case of NRE/NRO deposits : Senior Citizens,
Staff
88. While issuing DD beyond 50000 what should not be accepted : by cash
89. Loans against pledge of produce, maximum quantum: Rs.50 lacs.
90. Cheque presented difference words and figures : pay as per words
91. Canara Campus card for 8th standard student : age 13 years
92. X
presented a cheque drawn by A in favour o account – can be credited if
there is specific direction from the drawer.
93. Minor can be admitted to the benefits of : Partnership Firm
94. Goodwill is : Intangible Asset
95. A
ccount payee crossing cheques can be collected to Co OpBanks for credit of
accounts with co op banks, permitted by RBI upto Rs. : Rs.50,000/-
96. Ashok Leyland - Tie up with Transport Operator: Moratorium Period: 3 months
(repayment 5 years)
97. Visit of Officer/Manager to Ultra Small Branch : atleast once in a week
98. CTR involving forged / counterfeit Indian Currency should be reported to FIU-
IND within days of detection. 7 days.
99. W hat is the power the of scale I officer for passing cash cheques? Rs.200000/-
of the Bank to credit the proceed
RECALLED QUESTIONS
Scale III to IV (Exam held on 27-02-2016)
1. What is working capital gap?

2. Current Ratio 1.75:1, NWC Rs. 20 lacs. What are the Current Assets?
3. P
rojected Sales Rs. 20 crore. Current Assets Rs. 8 crores, Current Liability (other
than Bank Borrowings) Rs. 2 crores. What is the working capital limit under
Turnover Method?
4. Receivables Rs. 20 lacs , Sales Rs. 120 lacs. What is the Debtor Collection Period?
5. H
ousing Loan upto for Project cost upto Rs. 35 lacs, comes under Priority Sector
in metropolitan areas, where population is above Rs. 10 lacs.
6. C
onstructions of house toilets and community toilets for Weaker Sections comes
under Priority Sector upto Rs. .
7. What is the maximum Term Loan that can be sanctioned under MSME CAP?
8. W hat is the maximum amount that can be invested under Canara Tax Saver
Scheme?
9. What is the retention period of form 15G/15H obtained at branches?
10. What is the Risk Weight for Housing Loan Rs. 75 lacs and above under CRE?
11. What is minimum deposit under KDR?
12. W hat is the rate of interest payable in case of death claim of a deposit auto
renewed. Date of death before maturity. Claim settled after maturity.
13. N
ULM SEP-G; Minimum members in a group is 5, of which not less than _%
should be from urban poor families.
14. If a cheque dated 31st June 2015 is presented for payment on 30th June 2015,
can it be paid?
15. A Cash Credit Limit is sanctioned under NRLM. To be eligible for interest
subvention, outstanding liability should not exceed limit sanctioned beyond
days.
16. To be eligible for CGMSE cover, the Rate of Interest should not be more than %
above the base rate for loans upto Rs. 50 lacs.
17. Interest subsidy for Education Loans under IBA scheme is available for
loans upto Rs. lacs, if sanctioned without Collateral Security and 3rd party
guarantee.
18. U
pto what amount of EL Skill Development Loans the Interest Subsidy is
available.
19. C
lean notes should not be more than % in soiled note sections remitted to
currency chest.
20. U
nder which Section Service Charges are levied by currency chest for
remittance?
21. What is the interest subvention as per Interest Equalisation Scheme for Exports?
22. What should be the minimum qualification of a Gold Loan Appraiser?
23. As per the loan recovery policy, who can withhold the recovery action beyond
60 days?
24. What is closing time of RTGS from Monday to Friday?
25. If ATM complaint is not redressed within the stipulated time, what is the
penalty?
26. What was the last date for Exchanging Currency issued pre-2005?
27. What is the present SLR?
28. To be eligible under APY what should be the minimum income in other than
rural areas?
29. What is the commission payable to BC under APY?
30. What is the pension service charges bank is eligible for?
31. W hat should be the minimum income of parents for the student to be eligible
for Education Loan for professional courses in Private colleges?
32. What is the Priority Sector classification of Agricultural Produce Loans?
33. Under Agri Clinic Scheme what is the maximum project cost per individual?
34. As per Gold Monetisation Scheme, interest will be started after how many days
from deposits of gold?
35. What should be the balance to be maintained to be eligible for Platinum Card?
36. N
RLM Aajeevika Lending Rates after Interest Subvention and for prompt
payment another .
37. What is the cash incentive under APY?
38. K
YC compliance for fresh address in transferred to new address is to be
submitted within?
39. W hat should be the age of minor as RBI to be eligible to independently operate
the A/c?
40. Can an NRI open a joint account with resident with the condition Former or
Survivor clause?
41. What is the prudential exposure in case of Partnership Firms?
42. W hat is the minimum margin in case of Project Loans, other than
infrastructure?
43. JLF arrangement is applicable for amount _?
44. What the maximum loans that can be granted under ESOP?
45. What is the exposure ceiling for discounting of bills on Cooperative Banks?
46. Which are the accounts of SWL that are followed by RM Wing, HO?
47. Expand SFMS?
48. CIBIL minimum 2 credit information company data required for credit decision?
49. What is the minimum loan that can be granted under Tarun Scheme?
50. Upto what limit of Education Loan under IBA model, the guarantee cover is
available?
51. In NRLM days overdue subsidy is to be adjusted.
52. Who can permit deferment of recovery action of loans Rs. 100 crore and above?
53. Which decree awarded cannot be appealed in any court?
54. In case of death of depositor, what is the rate of interest payable?
55. What is a Red Flagged Account?
56. What is the mobile no. for missed call alert?
57. What should be the minimum transaction in a year in case of APY?
58. U
nder NRLM SHG minimum members should be of which BPL should not be less
than .
59. What is the penalty for remitting fake notes?
60. M
PBF/Cash Budget method is applicable for limits as per choice of the
borrower.
61. Base Rate is replaced by MCLR w.e.f. ?
62. As per UCP 600 discrepencies have to be reported within?
63. What is the maximum funds transfer time in RTGS as per CBS compendium?
64. PC/PCFC routing of GL Code .
65. What is the accelerated provisioning in case of secured substandard assets?
66. What is the provisioning in respect of restructured accounts?
67. SDR accounts will remain in Substandard Category for a period of _?
68. Premature closure of deposit without penal cut is applicable to individual
deposit of Rs. .
RECALLED QUESTIONS OF COMPUTER & IT TEST OF SCALE 3 TO 4 OF EXAM.

DTD 27.02.16
1. Missed call alerts – 9015483483
2. ISP : INTERNET SERVICE PROVIDER
3. Transmission Of World Wide Financial Messages : SWIFT
4. One GB equals to:

a. 1024 Mega Bytes b.1000 Kilo Bytes,
c. 512 Kilo Bytes, d. 10000 Kilo Bytes
5. FCR password valid for – 30 DAYS
6. Spread Sheet Software : MS EXCEL
7. CANNET : INTRANET
8. CBS Menu For E-Mail Pass Sheet : CHM 34
9. CBS CASA Staff Product Code : 111
10. LED : Light Emitting Diode
11. IN CHM 37 CBS MENU – S Stands For Stopped Cheque
13. AFTER TRANSFER OF CASA A/C TO other branch : account no. Does not change
14. W hich of the following determines the speed of the computer system:
a. physical size of the computer unit , b. physical size of the hard disk
c. capacity of the microprocessor, d. speed of th e monitor,
e. all the above together
15. EXECUTING IS THE PROCESS : To Carry Out Command
16. IN CBS Account No.: 13 Digits
17. ASBA : Application Supported By Blocked Amount
18. INFO – Book Available In : 08 Languages
19. Investor securities are deposited in elctronic form with demateralisation
20. The part of the computer that makes use of primary memory:
a storage unit b. central processing unit
c. output devices d. computer user e. all the above
21. T
he device that converts the digital signals to analog signals and analog signals
to digital signals:
a. central processing unit b. modem c. fax
d. compact disk e. interpreter
22. The Signature of a Customer can be captured in digital form by

a) Keyboard b) Scanner c) Mouse
d) None of the above e) All of the above
23. Computer without CPU: - Auxiliary Computer
24. For Purchase transaction on credit Card :- Card Limit
25. Networking of computer through :- Topology
26.Computer resolution is recognize in :- Pixsel
27. Which of the following is not a Hardware Component of a Computer?

a) Motherboard b) Monitor c) Printer d) Windows e) Keyboard
28. In MICR – C represents - Character
29. D
ifferent types of picture appears on desktop in WINDOWS environment is
known as - ICONS
30. Connection of Different Network device : Router
31. LAN : Local Area Network
32. W hich of the following Act gives legal recognition to a digital signature:
a Negotiable Instruments Act, b Income Tax Act,
c Information Technology Act d Indian Evidence Act,
e General Clauses Act
33. The term VSAT stands for which of the following:

a. variable small aperture terminal b. very small available terminal
c. very small aperture terminal d. variety of small aperture terminals
34. The frauds and other kind of crimes that happen on the internet network are
called:
a Internet frauds b. internet crimes
c. cyber crimes d. electronic frauds, e. all the above
35. T
he process of transformation of a message into an incomprehensible
data through use of mathematical algorithms is called:
a deciphering, b. encryption,
c. decryption, d. coding e.decoding
36. IDRBT stands for which of the following:

a. Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology,
b. Institute for Development and Research in Business Technology
c. Institution of Development and Research in Banking Technology
d. Institute for Development of Rural Banking Technology,
37. T
he part of the computer that makes use of primary memory:
a. storage unit, b. central processing unit,
c. output devicesd computer user, d. all the above
38. W hich of the following is the biological aspect of a computer:

a. finger b. hand c. retina d. a to c, e. b and c
39. W hat is the name of the windows software that is used for managing text
through the word processing:
a. MS Word, b. MS Power Point, c. MS Access d. MS Excel,
e. b and d
40. Which of the following is the measurement unit for processor speed:
a megabytes b mega hertz, c mega characters
d nano seconds, e. a and b
41. Under computer network security, where the monitoring is done by personal
performance features such as eye-retina pattern or palm or hand geometry, it
is called:
a. physical security b. logical security,
c: network security, d. biometric security
42. An electronic substitute for a manual signature that serves the similar function
as a manual signature is called:
a. encrypted signature b. decrypted signature,
c. digital signature, d. password
43. T
he process that replaces the physical flow of cheques with electronic
information or scanned image :
a. electronic clearing system, b. real time gross settlement,
c. cheque truncation d. electronic funds transfer e all the above
44. The computer program that ensures interface between the user and the
computer hardware:
a. application software, b. operating software,
c. processing software, d. compiler,
e. interpreter
45. W hich of the following is the order in which the sorting is carried out in MICR
system :
a. city, bank, branch,
b. instrument, city, bank,
c bank instrument, city
d. instrument, bank, city, bank, city, instrument
46. T
he device that converts the digital signals to analog signals and analog
signals to digital signals:
a. central processing unit,
b. modem
c. fax
d. compact disk,
e interpreter
RECALLED QUESTIONS - Scale I to II – Exam dated 27.01.2019
1. A web based package DARPAN ___________ relates to what ?

2. ECAI (External Credit Assessment Institutions) & CRR ( Credit Rating Agencies)
are assessing the loan limit - Above What amount ?
3. What is the validity of Kisan OD Limit ?
4. What is the rate of GST TDS applicable for Register Dealer under Vendor module
of GST ?
5. Which option is available in CBS to update GSTIN no. of the customer ?
6. What is the aggregate turnover of Composite Dealer is considered in the
previous year for his registration under GST Act ?
7. What is the amount of contract / agreement is involved above which GST TDS is
applicable as per GST Act ?
8. Microsoft Outlook -365 __________ relates to what ?
9. e-Sign facility relates to what ?
10. Who is the Chairman of BCSBI ?
11. Cut off limit for forwarding copies of application & credit report to CO under
Retail Lending ?
12. Under CMR( CIBIL MSME RANK ) what is the amount under delegation of power
for MSME loan sanction is available ?
13. PMFBY ( Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana ) is the % of share of farmer in
premium … Khariff crop & Rabi Crop
14. What is the validity of Canara Bank International Travel Prepaid Card ?
15. Name of the country where Canara Bank International Travel Prepaid Card
cannot be used in the following …
(a) India (b) Nepal (c) Bhutan (d) North Korea (e) Cuba ( f) Iran
16. Charge back is related to debit card ____ on us / remote on us / Off us
transaction … Which is correct ?
17. Platinum Debit Card used at POS / Merchant Locations – what is the maximum
limit per day ?
18. Incentive from NABARD for BHIM AADHAAR PAY user .. Maximum per month ?
19. Prudential exposure limit to a single borrower for LOW / NORMAL risk ?
20. Maximum loans to individual against Demat shares ?
21. Project Appraisal done by Agriculture Innovation Centre, Agricultural Term
Loan. What is the amount for new client ?
22. Balance outstanding under Branch Adjustment Account & Sundry Asset – What is
the Risk weight for the purpose of Capital Adequacy Ratio ?
23. The Manager / Senior Manager cannot issue bank guarantee for a period of
more than _______ years / not more than ________ years, even with 100% cash
margin ?
24. Debt Swapping for distressed farmers means …….. ?
25. Where Nominee is available, what is the amount of death claim, where
incharge of the branch can settle the claim ?
26. In case of death of the depositor before the date of maturity of the deposit &
amount claimed after the date of maturity .. what is the rate at which claim
will be settled ?
27. Chargeback / claim received from other banks… these chargeback have to be
mandatorily either to accept or reject by our bank within how many days ?
28. What is the penalty if chargeback is accepted & from which date till which
date ?
29. Time period for remittance of excess cash in ATM for offus transaction by the
branches / nodal branch/ ATM cell through ATM 50 ?
30. Introduction of Positive Response relates to what ?
31. Plant Tissue Culture & agri biotechnology, seed production… whether this is
part of Ancillary activity of agri Infrastructure ?
32. VIDYA SHAKTHI – a loan facility for which type of customers ?
33. KYC guidelines are issued and accepted by bank under which ACT?
34. What do you mean by Customer Acceptance Policy ?
35. What do you mean by Low Risk Customer ?
36. Review of Customer Risk Categorisation to be carried out once in not less than
______________ ?
37. In case a customer is categorized as Low Risk.. is unable to submit KYC
documents due to genuine reason… may submit the documents to the bank
within a period of ____________ from the date of account opening.
38. If address of customer mentioned as proof of address undergoes change, a
fresh proof of address may be submitted to the branch within a period of
________
39. Accounts having Beneficial Owner _________ is a type of customer… LOW/
MEDIUM/HIGH
40. Customers name should be screened with UN list of terrorist / entities through
which CBS option before cessasation of customer ID ?
41. Empanelled DSA need to source a minimum of HL proposals of Rs._______ in
Metro/Urban centre to be eligible for payment of service fees / commission for
the month ?
42. Guarantee above what amount shall be signed by 2 authorised signatories ?
43. Escrow account can be opened for a maximum period of __________ and it is
governed by ________________ ?
44. W
hat do you mean by ONEROUS clause in respect of issue of guarantee contract
?
45. Canara Home Loan Secure for what purpose is given ?
46. In case of Canara Small Savings Bank Deposit Scheme, aggregate of all credit in
a financial year should not exceed __________?
47. Non-callable deposit can be opened for a minimum period of _________?
48. Whether Callable deposit can be closed before maturity ?
49. How much Central Government contribution is available under APY scheme for
unorganized sector ?
50. TDS exemption is available in PPF account upto a maximum of what amount ?
51. Bank has introduced the system of Risk Based Internal Audit ( RBIA ) in
pursuance to the compliance of which BASEL Norms I / II / III ?
52. Review of Threshold limit should be done once in _______ months ?
53. Periodical updation of Customer Identification Data (Photo & Address proof) is
to be done for medium in _________ years ?
54. UIDAI has introduced a concept KYR which is a part of KYC.. What KYR stands
for ?
55. What are the details / documents that are scanned & uploaded to DMS server
of our bank under CKYC ?
56. Classify the Medium Enterprises under MSME Service Sector so far investment is
concerned in equipment ?
57. Morgages created by way of deposit of title deeds are to be registered with
the Central Registry within how many days from the date of creation of the
mortgage ?
58. A minimum of ______% of total marks to be secured by the prospective
borrower to be eligible for recommending ROI concession ?
59. No valuer in our panel can be entrusted with valuation assignments relating to
a particular branch continuously for more than _______ years ?
60. Bank is accepting bulk term deposits under non-callable segment for maturities
of 5 years & above.. Is this statement true or false ?
61. Auto renewal facility is not available for out of the following which deposit …
Capital Gains Account / Canara Tax Saver Deposit ?
62. Senior Citizens are not eligible for additional rate of interest for their NRO
Term Deposit … True or False ?
63. In the case of a domestic / NRO term deposit standing in the name of a HUF,
the additional rate of interest eligible for a senior citizen term deposit Cannot
be extended on the basis that the KARTHA of the HUF is a Senior Citizen… True
/ False ?
64. What is the additional interest rate offered to an ex-employee Senior Citizen
over & above the rate offered for general public in case of Canara Tax Saver
Scheme ?
65. Under CIBIL, credit score of CIC which is out of the following is odd man out …
LOW / NORMAL / MEDIUM / HIGH ?
66. DEEKSHA relates to what … ?
67. A minor is incompetent to enter into any contract as per which Act ?
68. Our Canara Bank ATM debit card can be used in other bank ATM. What is the
maximum amount our customer can withdraw per day ?
69. _________ means a copy of a WILL certified under the seal of a Court of
Competent jurisdiction with a grant of administration to the estate of the
testator ?
70. In the absence of nomination, a claim arises but when … ?
71. Mandated targets for loans to micro enterprises ?
72. What is the bank loan limit available per borrower for building social
infrastructure ?
73. How much loan limit is available to farmers against pledge / hypothecation of
agricultural produce for a period of not exceeding 12 months ?
74. Loans for Food & Agro Processing Units is a part of which Agriculture
Infrastructure or Ancillary activities ?
75. The loans sanctioned by banks for housing projects exclusively for the purpose
of construction of houses of EWS & LIG, the total cost of which does not exceed
____________ per dwelling unit ?
76. Priority Sector Advances Target is 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or
NCEOBC Exposure, whichever is lower … True or False ?
77. The Rating Sheets are not applicable for the following which Retail Lending
Loans, Canara Trade / Canara Rent / Canara Mortgage / Canara Pension ?
78. Classify Small Enterprises under MSME having investment in Plant & Machinery
under manufacturing sector ?
79. What is the delegation of powers for a branch head of Large branch under
Canara Budget ?
80. PMAY ( Housing for All Scheme ).. What is the maximum loan quantum and
carpet area permitted to build house for MIG category customer ?
81. What is the maximum quantum permissible under Priority Sector as Housing
Loan in Metro ?
82. Rs.40.00 lakhs default by a micro enterprise. What is the claim amount under
CGTMSE ?
RECALLED QUESTIONS - Jan 2019
Scale II to III
1. Protection to payee bank in case of material alterations …. Sec 89

2. Risk rating of customers in respect of vintage account for 6 to12 months…
(Medium)
3. Contribution is very important in respect of breakeven point selling price…
(Variable cost)
4. Eronious debit of customer account to fraudulent activity and fault is with
branch penalty is Rs.100- / Rs.5000/- … (Maximum upto Rs.1000/-)
5. What is the amount in PMAY ? (Rs.10,000/-)
6. Maximum loan to farmer for Agri Produce for 12 months (Rs.50.00 lakhs)
7. Maximum loan for Agri Infrastructure – (Rs.100.00 crore)
8. TReDS – (Traders Receivable Discounting System )
9. BCSBI is autonomous body…..
10. Another name for book marks
11. Section 80 DDB maximum insurance medical exemption for Senior Citizen..
(Rs.50,000/-)
12. MOODY … not a domestic rating agency
13. UDIN - Unique Identification Number
14. STR – reporting to FIU-IND = ( 7 days )
15. PAIS – Insurance coverage for permanent disability (Rs. 1,87,500/-)
16. Accrual concept of accounting
17. 2nd GEN computer
18. EL Priority Sector (Rs.10.00 lakhs)
19. Letter of administration without bill
20. Right of Subrogation
21. Huge credit in SB account of customer is … not disclosing the reason should be
reported FIU-IND
22. Customer deposit cash in bank account for specific purpose – bank become
Trustee
23. In the first time standing instructions charge is Rs.100/- for every debit.. how
much bank will charge ?
24. Under IBC code 2016 for Insolvency Resolution in respect of company and the
case should be filed to NCLT …
25. Second stage in DRT cases, creditor should deposit how much percentage of
amount ? ( 50% )
26. Which is not eligible for SARFAESI under _________ lakh ?
28. Under Claim Cap Condition under CGTMSE Guarantee Scheme will be settled
To the extent of 2 times of fee including recovery remittance during the
Previous financial year.
29. Which one is not operating system ? (COBOL)
30. Income of Low Income Group ( LIG) … (Rs.6.00 lakhs)
31. CGTMSE coverage for Women and NE region for loan of Rs.25.00 lakhs ..(80%)
32. In Small Service Sector investment in equipment is Rs.10.00 lakhs to Rs.2.00
Crore
33. Special Crossing
34. Review of Low Risk Customer - ( 10 years )
35. Document of Court Cases be preserved for __________ years
36. Derivatives transaction overdue for 90 days ____ ( Amortise value )
37. Counterfeit notes
38. Carpet Area of MIG-1 ( 160 sq. mtr )
39. Target for weaker section … ( 10% )
40. MSME classified in Priority Sector for ________ years.
41. Agri SME for Standard Loan account.. provision is ________ (25%)
42. Provision for sub-standard secured loan ______ (15%)
43. LEI – Validity period … (1 year .. Amount Rs.50.00 cr & above )
44. Upper limit of NEFT ( No Limit )
45. Stressed Assets - (Amt. Rs.25.00 crore)
46. Commercial paper - ( Promissory Note )
47. Under RTI Act, person seeking information for Life & death to be replied within
_______? ( 48 hours )
48. Which one is not considered for deriving LC amount ?
49. CRR is under which Section ?
50. ROI on CRR ?
51. Hindi % C to A Region ( 55% )
52. Bulk Deposit
53. PRR 18 in case of NNND
54. Concession ROI on loan against deposit for staff …?
55. Maximum period for NRE deposit plus ___ (1 year 1 day)
56. VOSTRO
57. Priority Target for Agriculture – 18% ANBC
58. Loan to farmer against stored agri produce .. Rs.50.00 lakhs – 12 months
59. ROI for High risk two wheeler for women (MCLR + 3.40%)
60. DD for Rs.20,000/- & above shall be account payee
61. Articles of Association
62. GST TDS
63. Remittance of Inward Foreign Currency is considered on ___________?
(TT Buying rate)
64. For issuing another RuPay card … Service charges?
65. Service charges for issuing another debit card in same Customer ID?
66. Single NRE Term Deposit of Rs.1.00 crore & above.. Permission to be taken
from _____________ ( S P & D Wing,HO )
67. How much % of loan brought by DSA should be sanctioned _____ (20%)
68. ½ byte
69. RCM for unregistered is waived for ….?
70. HEFA MHRD Scheme - Repayment period ?
71. Pig Development Scheme … repayment period ?
72. LRS Scheme .. which one is not related ?
73. You are doing appraisal … if some deficiency is observed … if not mentioned…
accountability…
74. Export Credit
75. FASAL BIMA YOJANA
76. Cut off amount for checking the cheque under Ultra Violet under RBI Act…
77. Optical device
78. Risk Weightage for LTV –Ratio 80 : 90 for Rs.30.00 lakhs HL 50%
79. Classification if CC account is overdue for 90 days
80. Vidya Turant Scheme
Recalled questions – Scale IV to V exam held on 27.01.19
1. E
ASE six themes – Wrong match – Ensuring Outcomes – HR developing personnel
for building leadership (correct – for brand PSB)
2. MSE Athithi limit – Rs 10 Lac
3. CTS – Govt Cheques to be sent physically
4. Vidya Turant – Wrong statement – Loan amount – Rs 30 Lac
5. IBC originated from greek word
6. Fraud case of Rs 40 crore to be reported to –BSFC, CBI
7. Remaining CCB of 0.625% to be implemented by 31.03.2020
8. L
IE for exposure of Rs 100 crore to Rs 500 crore to be obtained- before
15.03.2019.
9. Investment fluctuation Reserve – to be part of CET-1
10. Quick mortality – Revised guidelines Rs 15 Lac & 1 year from the date of first
disbursement
11. DSCR - calculation
12. Current Ratio – calculation
13. Canara Sathi – Credit cards
14. RBI revised circular dt 12.02.18, Exposure – Rs 2000 crore, 180 days
15. Which of the following is not part of Capital Tier-2 – Other disclosed free
reserves
16. D4 & Loss OTS scheme – Rs 100 Lac
17. As per recovery policy, calculation of sacrifice for Substandard account – Base
Rate + 0.75%
18. Payment to Seizure Agent for property sold for Rs 20 Lac (doubtful) – 5%
19. Govt Agency claim to be submitted – within 60 days
20. Which one is not correct about Canara VidyaJyoti scheme – Eligibility criteria –
Scholarship for meritorious students
21. Which one is wrong with regard to CRA authorised for doing ICE – Brickwork
22. Information Utility name – NSE e-Governance
23. Which one is correct regarding PAIS under KCC – Tie up with Bajaj Allianz
Insurance Company
24. CS-3 – Moderate Risk
25. PMDJY – which one is incorrect – Age limit increased from 18-60 to 18 to 70
(correct – 18 to 65)
26. Name of whom to be printed in DD – Purchaser
27. If GST is not deposited by 15 Sept-18 for FY GST deduced for FY17-18 input
credit would not be available, risk – Income Leakage
28. Which one is not a peripheral in computer – Motherboard
29. Which one has become most popular language – ASCII
30. Total deposit of Rs 61 Lac – which category – Medium
31. 50% ECGC covered account, provision calculation – Liability 1.80 lac, security –
80000, Provision - 70000
32. Indent of other sentence in para -
33. In order to select a word – double click
34. In case of Joint Locker of Husband and Wife with operation made of E or S, if
husband reported that key is lost and subsequently wife comes for operation
with key – to be advised to operate jointly
35. In case of joint account – Garnishee order received in case of one of account
holders – Not applicable
36. Hypothecation is defined in which act – SARFAESI Act
37. Power of Attorney holder signed cheque received after death of account holder
– Not to be passed
38. Following in computer, mobile or other internet routes and using abusing
language - Cyberbulling
39. If you are giving data in stored location – It will add contents in location
40. Guarantee – contingent liability
41. CEGSC – which one is incorrect – Minimum loan amount reduced from Rs 25 Lac
to Rs 10 Lac (correct is Rs 15 Lac)
42. What would working capital finance in case of MSME account not doing
digitized transaction – Accepted sales – Rs 32 Lac, Working capital – Rs 2 Lac –
Ans – Rs 8 Lac
43. Why pre-sanction vetting of credentials required –
44. For area B what is target for noting in Hindi for FY 2018-19 –
45. New software for generating leads and involving staff in garnering new business
- I-Lead
46. CGTMSE has come out with new scheme in Feb-18 – Hybrid Scheme
47. Day NRLM – what is DP for 1st year – 6 times of corpus or minimum of Rs 1 Lac
48. What is maximum loan amount for classification of Micro and Small enterprises
under Priority Sector – No limit now
49. Which one is correct on GST TDS – to be deducted @5%, amount of agreement
with vendor – Rs 2.50 Lac
50. Pvt Limited company can not be a partner in a partnership firm – Because
partners of a partnership firm is having unlimited liability whereas partnership
firm is having limited liability.
51. As per revised ECB policy manufacturing unit can raise – USD 50 Mio with
minimum maturity of 1 year.
52. While one is correct with regard to Income Tax TDS provisions for FY 2018-19 –
Standard deduction – Rs 50000
53. 2nd appraisal is required if average Gold Loan sanction during last month -
54. GST GLs
55. NRE Plus A/c – Precondition – 5 years
56. RTGS/NEFT importance of correct punching of A/c No. – Straight Through
Process
57. E-KYC can not be done in which of following accounts
58. PAN No. is a must for property valued –
59. INCO Terms – Seaway terms – CFR
60. National Animal Livelihood Mission
61. PSB 59 minutes loan – eligibility criteria – 1 year – Rs 5 lac
62. Customer Right – Have right of transparent and fair deal
63. Ombudsman scheme – Customer does not have right to get his grievance
addressed for which of the following cases – Rejection of loan application with
reasons
64. Counterfiet note received at counter – which one is incorrect
65. For operational risk, after Basic Indicator Approach – which approach – The
Standardised Approach
MEMORY BASED RECALLED QUESTIONS
SCALE IV TO V OF EXAM DT.27.01.2018
1. PSB Loans 59 Rs.5.00 lakhs to Rs.100.00 lakhs

2. High value stressed assets means … Rs.2000/- cr & 180 days
3. LEI for Rs. 500- Rs.1000 cr. to obtain by 15.06.2019
4. PMFBY … latest changes
5. Online accounts not valid for …. ?
6. IFR are shown in Tier 1 / 2 … ?
7. General provisions are taken in Tier I & II / CCB ?
8. GST TDS rate ?
9. Claim period to submit agency claims ? .. 60 days w.e.f.1.6.2018
10. Evolution of Computer Electronics ? Vaccum Tube .. transistors – integrated
circle –Microprocessors …
11. Problem on DSCR .. PBIT, Tax, Int. on TL & Working Capital, Instalments of TL
were given … DSCR is 2.25 : 1 ?
12. Problem on Current Ratio … Total Assets, Fixed Assets, CL etc., given … CR 2:1
13. GL monitoring .. PRR 43 - SD & SL
14. Stock Audit Rs. 5.00 cr D4 assets ____ ( yearly )
15. Utility Service …National e-service Ltd., NeSL
16. Problem on provision on DBT ________ ( 1 year ) ? Rs.180.00 lakh liability …
Rs.80.00 lakh secured assets… ECGC cover 50% ____ Ans(Rs.70.00 lakhs)
17. ECG manufacturing unit / AMP ? USD 50 million
18. Noting of Hindi in B Region ________ ? 50%
19. Risk category Rs.65.00 lakhs balance … ? Medium
20. RBIA – 40% - 55% means …. Moderate
21. NRE deposit plus … conditions … ? INR deposits used for 5 years or more
22. PMJDY .. 18-70 years was wrong answer.. as correct answer is 18- 65 years
23. Collateral Management Service … ?
24. Loan limit to Service Enterprises …. ? No cap
25. KCCS PAIS tie-up ? Bajaj Allianz GIC
26. SHG CC Limit ( DP ) for 1 year ? 6 times of corpus of Rs.1.00 lakh
27. Thanks giving letter returned… a/c to be classified in CIM -50 ? High Risk
28. EASE …. Six themes
29. Canara Vidya Jyothi … Girl Child .. not correct.. It should be only SC/ST Girl
Child- 5th – 7th – 8th – 10th
30. Vidya Turant … Was IIM - Rs.30.00 lakhs
31. Investment Fluctuation Reserve - Tier 2 – Capital
32. Classification of countries basing on ECGC ? Restricted Cover Group-1 ?
33. Quick Mortality ? Rs.15.00 lakhs & 12 months
34. CMF applicable ? Hisk Risk … Monthly
35. Roman Law by which creditor insolvency derived from which principle ?
CESSION BONORUM
36. LC Related … Two DDs already paid … third to be paid as in principle – bank
deals in documents and not in goods
37. Senior Citizens – TDS ? Interest Income Rs.50,000/-
38. OTS for restructured crop loan to have _______ % of Outstanding liability …
(200%)
39. Compromise of DBT accounts with BR Plus + 0.50%
40. Canara Athithi Limit ? (Rs.10.00 lakhs)
41. Canara MSME cap ?
42. Quoting of PAN for immovable Assets ?
43. Sale of Loans to ARC ? NW Rs.100.00 crores
44. Rs.30.00 crores fraud to reported to ? (CBI-Banking & Security Cell)
45. Fees to recovery against in SARFAESI loans upto Rs.40.00 lakhs ? … 1%
46. GST not applicable on ?
47. CCB to be done by date ? (31.03.2020)
48. Corrective Action Plan ?
49. Elements of Tier-2 ?
50. Elements of Tier – 1 ?
51. In operational risk, which approach is more advanced than Basic Indicator
Approach ; Standardised Approach ?
52. Wife & husband having locker – reported key lost – Later wife comes to operate
– To allow or not ? ( Take letter with both signatures then as usual operation
will start )
53. Input Tax Credit on GST before June 2018 can be claimed or not ? Penalty
imposition
54. Canara Saathi - EMI above Rs.5000/-
55. I lead ? Inspiring lead for branch officials ?
56. FAQ on WTPC @ WCPS – ECGC ?
57. FAQ on ECGC claims ?
58. Selecting word by clicking ? .. double clicking of mouse …
59. INCO Term of sea and Inland transport ?
60. On demand draft purchaser name ….
61. One question was on Roman Language from which Insolvency is arrived ?
62. There was a question about imported machinery .. What cost can be included
(with options) ? Ans.. all above costs
63. e-KYC not applicable _____ ( Super Salary – Galaxy account )
64. Long sources of funds – Long term uses – NWC
65. Operational Risk - Liquidity Risk
66. GST input credit after 30.09.2018 of non-GST items –penalty
67. GST – Rent of premises to be paid by bank .. if rent per annum is more than
Rs.10.00 lakhs can be waived by GM-CO-CAC
68. GST not paid on lighting and generator payment ….
69. PMJDY age – 18-70 years - correct answer is 18-65
70. PMJDY – OD facility of Rs.2000/- without any formality
71. Question on Risk recompense
72. CERSAI – not register – negative line & undertaking letter.
73. ECB for MSME - $ 50 millions & 1 year
74. XBLR
75. Nomination - Signature of all depositors and nominee is required on application
76. PAN Card / TDS is required for selling more than Rs.10.00 lakhs
77. Not peripherals of computer … Mother Board
78. Browser in computer … plug in
79. Word to be selected – Double click of mouse & triple click means sentence will
be selected
80. Threatening / harassing with the help of mobile & internet is … cyber bullying
81. Agri Restructuring – liability will be more than 200%
82. Noting in Hindi ( 75-50-30 :: A B C )
83. Bank guarantee – contingent liability
RECALLED QUESTIONS
SCALE III TO IV - JAN 2019
1. Messaging Network 24 X 7 = SWIFT

2. Priority Credit Target – Agriculture / Farmers= 18% / 8%
3. Senior Citizens not eligible for = CGA
4. Registration of documents of company = 45 days or 30 days
5. Export Credit to borrower ( Sanctioned limit) = Rs.25.00 crore
6. IP Address = 2 bits / 8 bits
7. Seed Production, bio pesticides = Agricultural Infra
8. Hindi from C Region to A Region = 55%
9. Canara Vehicle = MCLR + 0.70% or MCLR + 0.45%
10. Repayment Period- Buffalo = 9 years
11. RTGS credit to beneficiary = 30 minutes
12. EXCEL formula … “=”
13. CGCO = 2 years / ½ yearly Review
14. DRT to DRAT = 45 days or 30 days
15. AL 525 report to RO = 7th & 10th of the month
16. CGTMSE of LHG Risk premium = 0%
17. NEFT delayed payment = LAF + 2
18. Strategic Audit Plan = 2 – 4 years
19. Wire Remittance by LITI = USD 20000
20. BEK point = 6000 or 15000
21. Net Working Capital = Rs.4.00 lakhs
22. RuPay Card = Direct Billing / Add on Cards
23. PC new account - ECGC Approval = 15 or 60
24. Primary Co-op. Societies = Rs.2.00 cr or Rs.5.00 cr.
25. DSA Metro = Rs.25.00 lakh
26. Cut off = Rs.50.00 lakh
27. Exposure Individual / Group = 15 / 30
28. Asset – NW reduced = DF
29. FPI in Government Securities= 40% or 25%
30. MIG II Area = 200 sq. mtr.
31. IT PAN to be obtained = Rs.2.50 lakhs
32. Weaker Section = Rs.1.00 lakh
33. I Monitor quantitative = Cross Selling or SMA
34. ME Termination notice = 45 days or 30 days
35. Certificate of Deposit = Rs.1.00 lakh
36. DSCR = 2 : 1
37. Notice Money = 2 – 14 days
38. GL Difference = 3 months
39. Liability of Legal heirs = Rs.20.00 lakhs
40. Score 900 – 705 = CIBIL or Experience
41. Network Device = Router or Gateway
42. EASE = Enhanced Access
43. BASEL III CCB = Period of Stress
44. HF = 25%
45. Lok Adalat = No appeal
46. HL of Rs.50.00 lakhs 75% LTV = 35%
47. Reappraisal of Jewellery = 6 months / 3 months
48. HL under Priority
49. Olericulture = Vegetable
50. Resetting of PIN
51. Not mandatory for Company account = Commence of business
52. FCNR deposits for 3 years – ROI
53. LC limit reinstated = Revolving
54. Locker rent
55. Payee name corrected in CTS
56. Single borrower limit stipulated
57. Minimum / Maximum amount for SB ROI
58. Prisoners account
59. Accountability policy
60. PMJJBY
61. Restricted liability – Card Lost
RECALLED QUESTIONS-2
KYC
1. D ocuments to be obtained for opening accounts of Corporates under KYC
2. Categorization of accounts based on profession under Medium Risk Category …
3. Architects … under which category
DEPOSITS
a) R ecent guidelines on ROI on SB accounts – Minimum amount of Deposits for ROI
b) Accounts opened for Prisoners under code 127 … the conditions are ….
c) In Capital Gains Account, Senior Citizens are eligible for preferential ROI …
PRIORITY SECTOR
A. Target for Agriculture & SF/MF
B. Tissue Culture – Agriculture Infrastructure
C. Priority Agro Processing Loan Limits
D. Priority Housing Loans in Metro - Loan limits
E. Priority Housing Loans by Govt. – Slum Clearance – Individual unit cost
F. Priority Sector – Asset Purchase – Cap on ROI to ultimate customer
G. To be eligible under weaker section… loan limit to artisans ___
GOVERNMENT SPONSORED SCHEMES

PMEGP – Second dose for manufacturing.. Maximum limit is ______
AGRICULTURE
a) Olericulture – vegetables
b) Jewel Appraiser in branches .. Contract period / cooling period before
reengaging…
c) NABARD –Dairy Ent Dev Scheme for buffalo calf rearing – repayment period –
Financial inclusion
d) PMJJBY – Claim documents to be submitted.
MSME
A. CGTMSE – Claim for Micro Unit… Overdue liability of Rs.40.00 lakhs
GENERAL ADVANCE
a) RBI stipulates exposure limit to mitigate risk due to …..
b) Single exposure limit and Group Exposure limit … 15 + 5 & 40/50
c) CIR report contain score of 900-775 is given by CIC ….
d) LEI to be obtained for Rs.50 - Rs.100 cr
BALANCE SHEET
1) F ixed Cost - 300000 ; Sales price – 50 ; Variable – 7 ; Cost – 20 What is the BEP
volume ?
2) Current Ratio- 2 : 1 ; CA - 240 ; Quick Ratio – 1 : 1 .. Then Quick Ratio is_____
3) Total asset is given… Long Term Source is given… Long Term use is given… What
is the current ratio ?
4) Profit before tax is given ; tax is given ; depreciation is given; interest on TL and
TL instalments given ; DSCR is ____ ?
5) Profit after tax is given ; Tax is given ; TL instalment is given ; What is the inter-
est coverage ratio ?
OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
Correspondance from Region C to B including E-Mail for 2018-19 is ___
GENERAL
1) PSB reforms agenda – EASE – stands for …. ?
2) In CTS 2010 – cheque payee’s name is correct, but authenticated.. Cheque to be
________
3) IQA in CTS cheque processing means ____________
4) For Locker rent, bank can collect ______ years rent as deposit
5) Accountability policy - If a letter for ratification sent to RO/CO
is not replied within ______ days,then it is to be deemed to be ratified
6) Objectives of OTM report
7) OTM report to be generated in ____ days by _________
8) Information shared between Banks & FIs in digital form through is _____
9) CD issued by bank in mini denomination _________
10) SLR is Investment in ____________
11) i Monitor covers ___________
12) As per IT Act, PAN to be obtained if ___________
BASEL
1. Market Risk
2. Capital Conversation Buffer to be sourced during the period of ________
3. Domestic Risk rating agencies _________
4. Credit Risk Weight for Housing Loan of Rs.50.00 lakh … LTV 75%
5. For LIG Housing loan Credit Gurantee is available. To that covered portion risk
weight is ___________
6. Tier II Capital Lower Instrument maturing in 30 months considered with discount
of ____________
NPA & PROVISIONS
a) In term loan, interest was not serviced for more than 3 months. The asset val-
ue is Rs.96.00 lakhs. It was Rs.225 .00 lakhs at the time of sanction. The asset
classification to be ___________
b) To an order received from DRT in the matter of SARFAESI, the borrower has to
reply/represent within __________ days
c) In a doubtful I year loan .. outstandingis Rs.60.00 lakhs.. ECGC cover is 50% Value
of Security is Rs.20.00 lakhs. What is the provision to be made ?
d) Doubtful 3rd year account … Liability `.30.00 lakhs.. Asset value `. 20 lakhs..
Provision to be made is____
e) Appeal against Lok Adalat award is to be filed in ____________
f) I BC IV pillar refers to _____________
FOREX
1. ROI for FCNR Deposits for 3-5 years … LIBOR + _________ ?
2. In a LC the limit is reinstated again and again.. It is called ________ LC
3. In a LC two drafts were submitted and amount paid. When 3rd document received
in order, buyer instructed not to pay as the goods were not in quality. What the
bank has to do ?
4. INCO Term
5. FCLoan to be maintained and monitored ___________
RETAIL LOAN
1. DSAs should source minimum ________ HL in metro.
2. Under Special scheme VI employees of reputed educational institutions maxi-
mum Canara Budget Loan is ____________?
3. PMAY MIG II mini space _________ sq.mtr.
अस्वीrकरण खंड/ Disclaimer Clause
यह संकलन हमारे कममचाररयों के कामकाजी ज्ञान को समृद्ध करने के दृष्टिकोण से तैयार

ककया गया है और अद्यतन और सही जानकारी प्रदान करने के ष्टलए हर संभव प्रयास ककया
गया है।
कममचारी प्रष्टिक्षण महाष्टवद्यालय, ष्टवषयवस्तुष्ट में ककसी भी त्रुरि या चूक के ष्टलए कोई
ष्टजम्मेदारी या दाष्टयत्व नहीं लेता है , और इस सामग्री में ष्टनष्टहत जानकारी ष्टवष्टभन्न स्रोतों से
"जैसा है" आधार पर प्रदान की गई है।
अष्टधक जानकारी के ष्टलए , इस पुस्तक के उपयोगकतामओं को भा रर बैंक पररपत्रों, आईबीए

कदिा-ष्टनदेिों, सरकारी अष्टधसूचनाओं, बैंक द्वारा जारी पररपत्रों आकद का भी संदभम लेने की
सलाह दी जाती है।
सामग्री को समृद्ध करने के ष्टलए यकद कोई सुझाव हो तो ई-मेल द्वारा ष्टनम्ना ई-मेल पर भेजा
जा सकता है :
hostcrp@canarabank.com or hostc@canarabank.com
This compilation is prepared from the point of view of enriching the working knowledge of our
employees and every effort has been made to provide updated and correct information.
STC assumes no responsibility or liability for any errors or omissions in the contents, and the
information contained in this material, is provided on an “as is” basis from various sources.
For more information, the users of this book are advised to also refer RBI Circulars, IBA Guidelines,
Govt. Notifications, Circulars issued by the Bank etc.
Any suggestions for enriching the material may be sent by email to :
hostcrp@canarabank.com or hostc@canarabank.com
kesÀveje yeQkeÀ keÀce&®eejer ÒeefMe#eCe ceneefJeÐeeue³e
yeWieuet©
CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE
BENGALURU
hostcrp@canarabank.com | www.canarabank.com 723

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yengefJekeÀuHeer ÒeMve Multiple Choice Questions

Best wishes to you!

SUCCESS IS NO ACCIDENT.IT IS HARD WORK, PERSEVERANCE, LEARNING, STUDYING, SACRIFICE

1. The objective of KYC/AML/CFT guidelines is to prevent Bank from

2. Designated Director mean

4. Customer acceptance policy of the bank is framed so as to take care of which

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  4

6. Which among the following is not correct for ‘Small Account’

7. What are the documents to be submitted by an individual for establishing an

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  5

14. Documents to be scanned and uploaded for CKYCR

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  6

19. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act define “Order” means:

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  7

22. Review of Customer Risk Categorization

23. Customer identification procedure to be carried out

25. Where the client is an unincorporated association or a body of individuals,

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  8

27. Who is a beneficial owner in a Company?

28. Periodic updation of KYC

29. What is procedure for KYC non compliant customer

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  9

31. Total freezing of accounts mean

34. Which one is not true

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  10

39. Correspondent banking is the provision of banking services

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  11

41. ATM transaction is categorized

42. Bank shall maintain record at least

43. KYC documents for opening bank accounts of companies

44. Which of following is not matching

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  12

47. Which does not match as customers risk

50. What is UCIC

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  13

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  14

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  15

2. A t what age minors can open and operate SB accounts ?

3. What is the Rate of Interest offered to SB account deposits?

4. What is the periodicity and date of payment of interest on SB accounts ?

5. Interest computation on SB account deposits

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  16

9. Minimum balance condition is not applicable to following

10. What is Canara Jeevan Dhara (product 110) meant for

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  17

15. What is the amount of Insurance up to which a deposit is insured:

16. A saving bank account or a current account is to be treated as inoperative ac-

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  18

23. In Recurring deposit accounts, the instalments are paid:

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  19

27. Savings Bank account should be opened in the name of

28. Pensioners can open joint SB accounts with

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  20

37. Definition of Bulk Deposits has changed as

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  21

41. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a public company?

46. CANARA NATIONAL SCHEME OF INCENTIVE TO GIRLS FOR SECONDARY EDUCATION

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  22

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019  23

1. Late Cash receipt after office hours can be accepted upto

2. Late payment of cash can be made to upto a maximum of Rs.

3. Investigation is to be conducted by an officer appointed by DGM/GM if cash

5. S tamped indemnity to be obtained in all cases of refund of excess cash of

7. Procedure for remittance of Cash exceeding Rs.50 lakhs, is to be accompanied by

4. Customer acceptance policy of the bank is framed so as to take care of which

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 4

7. What are the documents to be submitted by an individual for establishing an

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 5

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 6

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 7

25. Where the client is an unincorporated association or a body of individuals,

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 8

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 9

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 10

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 11

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 12

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 13

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 14

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 15

4. What is the periodicity and date of payment of interest on SB accounts ?

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 16

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 17

16. A saving bank account or a current account is to be treated as inoperative ac-

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 18

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 19

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 20

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 21

46. CANARA NATIONAL SCHEME OF INCENTIVE TO GIRLS FOR SECONDARY EDUCATION

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 22

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 23

3. Investigation is to be conducted by an officer appointed by DGM/GM if cash

5. S tamped indemnity to be obtained in all cases of refund of excess cash of

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 24

5. Destruction of cancelled security items to be done and recorded in register

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 25

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 26

7. Branches to collect advance rent of years + break open charges, whenever

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 27

18. Delegation of powers to incur revenue expenditure in case of II line manager/

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 28

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 29

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 30

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 31

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 32

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 33

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 34

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 35

3. Endorsee of a forged cheque, is deemed to be holder in due course, if he has

5. A customer tenders to a bank an outstation cheque of Rs.10000 for collection.

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 36

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 37

14. Where interest rate is not mentioned on a promissory note it shall be

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 38

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 39

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 40

33. X draws a bill of exchange on Y. Y accepts it for payment. Actually no sale

CANARA BANK STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE – Multiple Choice Questions - 2019 41