RPS Hospital Ranchi Total marks -30

Question Paper Set – 1

1. Which of the following conditions most commonly results in CAD
a) Atherosclerosis
b) DM
c) MI
d) Renal failure

2. Which of the following diagnostic tools is most commonly used to determine the
location of myocardial damage?
a) Cardiac catheterization
b) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c) Echocardiogram
d) Cardiac enzymes

3. Which of the following systems is the most likely origin of pain the client describes
as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration?
a) Cardiac
b) Gastrointestinal
c) Musculoskeletal
d) Pulmonary

4. The most common cause of high cardiac output hypotension is:

a) hemorrhage
b) cardiac failure
c) neurogenic shock
d) sepsis

5. The most common cause for the onset of rheumatic fever is

a) Staphylococcal skin infection
b) Streptococcal throat infection
c) Fugal skin infection
d) Viral throat infection
6. The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with cancer of the pancreas is-
a) Alteration in nutrition
b) Alteration in bowel elimination
c) Alteration in skin integrity
d) Ineffective individual coping

7. A positive Chvostek’s sign indicate

a) Hypokalemia
b) Hyponatremia
c) Hypermagnesemia
d) Hypocalcemia
8. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the dietary instructions to a client should
recommend:
a) Eating a candy bar if light-headedness occurs.
b) Consuming a high-carbohydrate, high-protein diet and avoiding
fasting.
c) Increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements.
d) Increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon.

9. A client with gastric cancer may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
a) Abdominal cramping
b) Constant hunger
c) Feeling of fullness
d) Weight gain

10. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing
complications?
a) Tetanic contractions
b) Neck vein distension
c) Polyuria
d) Weight loss
11. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when assessing a pregnant
client with abruption placenta? 
a) Excessive vaginal bleeding
b) Rigid, board like abdomen
c) Titanic uterine contractions
d) Premature rupture of membranes

12. In 28 day human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on

a) Day 14
b) Day 28
c) Day 5
d) Day 1

13. The common normal site of nidation/implantation in the uterus is

a) Upper uterine portion
b) Mid-uterine area
c) Lower uterine segment
d) Lower cervical segment
14. You are performing abdominal exam on a 9th month pregnant woman. While lying
supine, she felt breathless, had pallor, tachycardia, and cold clammy skin. The correct
assessment of the woman’s condition is that she is:
a) Experiencing the beginning of labor
b) Having supine hypotension
c) Having sudden elevation of BP
d) Going into shock
 15. A nurse is monitoring a pregnant client with pregnancy induced hypertension who is at
risk for Preeclampsia. The nurse checks the client for which specific signs of
Preeclampsia
a) Elevated blood pressure
b) Negative urinary protein
c) Facial edema
d) Increased respirations

15. A nurse implements a teaching plan for a pregnant client who is newly diagnosed with
gestational diabetes. Which statement if made by the client indicates a need for further
education?
a) “I need to stay on the diabetic diet.”
b) “I will perform glucose monitoring at home.”
c) “I need to avoid exercise because of the negative effects of insulin
production.”
d) “I need to be aware of any infections and report signs of infection immediately
to my health care provider.”

17. Which criterion is required before a patient can be considered for continuous peritoneal
dialysis?
a) The patient must be hemodynamically stable
b) The vascular access must have healed
c) The patient must be in a home setting
d) Hemodialysis must have failed

18. The client underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is
on continuous bladder irrigation. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate?
a) Use aseptic technique when irrigating the catheter
b) Restrict fluids to prevent the client’s bladder from becoming distended
c) Prepare to remove the catheter
d) Tell the client to try to urinate around the catheter to remove blood clots

19. Nurse Lily is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely
prompted the client to seek medical attention?
a) Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
b) Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
c) Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
d) Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

20. The bacteria most commonly involved in urinary tract infection is

a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Sterptococci aeroginosa
c) E.coli
d) Sterptococci faecalis
21. What is the earliest indication of Volkmann's ischaemia:
a) Pain
b) Pallor and poor capillary filling
c) Paraesthesia in median nerve area
d) Contracture of fingers

22. Subdiaphragmatic abdominal thrust performed to clear airway obstruction in the awake
patient without ventilation is termed as:
a) Pallach'smaneuver
b) Heimlich maneuver
c) Valsalvamaneuver
d) Leopold's maneuvers

23 . A leading cause of blindness in patients with AIDS is

a) Cataract
b) Cytomegalovirus Retinitis
c) Glaucoma
d) Kaposi’s Sarcoma

24. The term _____________ implies a familial tendency to manifest such conditions as
asthma, rhinitis, urticaria, and eczematous dermatitis.
a) tropical allergy
b) exocytosis
c) atopic allergy
d) sensitization

25. A male client with a solar burn of the chest, back, face, and arms is seen in urgent care.
The nurse’s primary concern should be:
a) infection.
b) pain management.
c) fluid resuscitation.
d) body image

26 . Doctor’s order: Amoxicillin 0.25 g p.o. every 8 hours; Available: Amoxicillin 125 mg
tablets. How many tablets will the nurse give per dose?
a) 0.5 tab
b) 1 tab
c) 1.5 tabs
d) 2 tabs

27. Doctor’s Order: ¾ L of D5W to infuse over 5 hr 45 min; Drop factor: 60 gtt/mL. How many
gtt/min will you regulate the IV?
a) 12.5 gtt/min
b) 5.5 gtt/min
c) 375/ gtt/min
d) 130 gtt/min
28. RL 125 ml/hr via gravity flow using tubing calibrated at 15 gtt/ml. Calculate the flow
rate.
a) 8 gtt/min
b) 15 gtt/min
c) 25 gtt/min
d) 31 gtt/min

29. A doctor prescribes norfloxacin 400 mg P.O. twice daily, for a client with a urinary tract
infection (UTI). The client asks the nurse how long to continue taking the drug. For an
uncomplicated UTI, the usual duration of norfloxacin therapy is:
a) 12 to 14 days
b) 3 to 5 days
c) 10 to 21 days
d) 7 to 10 days

30. Aminophylline is infusing at 30 ml/hr. The drug is mixed 250 mg in 500 ml D5W. How many
mg/hr is the patient receiving?
a) 30 mg/hr
b) 25 mg/hr
c) 20 mg/hr
d) 15 mg/hr
 Manipal Hospital Bangalore Total marks -5

Question Paper Set – 1 - APTITUDE TEST

1) Which one of the five is least like the other four?

A) Stocking
B) Dress
C) Shoe
D) Purse
E) Hat

2) If you rearrange the letters "BARBIT", you would have the name of a:
A) Ocean
B) Country
C) State
D) City
E) Animal

3) Which one of the five designs makes the best comparison?

B
C
D

4) Which one of the five is least like the other four?

A) Potato
B) Corn
C) Apple
D) Carrot
E) Bean

5) Which one of the five makes the best comparison?

BROTHER IS TO SISTER AS NIECE IS TO:
A) Mother
B) Daughter
C) Aunt
D) Uncle
E) Nephew
 English language test
Composition (20marks)

Write a short passage (200 words) on any one of the following topics

1. Burnout among nursing staff

2. Emigration of qualified trained nurses – discuss
3. Importance of communication in Health care services
4. Role of a nurse in patient safety
5. “Nurse” as the patient advocate