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Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Solapur University, Solapur

T.Y. B.Tech (Mechanical Engineering) Semester- VI w.e.f Year 2020-2021

ME 322 INSTRUMENTATION & CONTROL

Teaching Scheme Exam Scheme


Lectures– 3 Hours/week ESE– 70Marks
Practical – 2 Hour/week ISE –30Marks
ICA-25Marks

MCQ Booklet
INTRODUCTION TO MECHANICAL MEASUREMENTS
1. The static performance characteristics of instruments are
a) Dynamic error b) Hysterisis
c) Resolution d) Fidelity
2. The dynamic characteristics of the instrument are
a) Measuring lag b) Fidelity c) Overshoot d) Resolution
3. Column I Column II
a) Piezoelectric accelerometer i) Acoustic measurement
b) Thermistor ii) Vibration measurement
c) Sound level meter iii) Temperature measurement
iv) Flow measurement
4. The uncertainty in the measurement is expressed in terms of
a) Correction b) Precision
c) Accuracy d) Error
5.The dynamic characteristics of the instrument are
A) Measuring lag B) Fidelity
C) Overshoot D) Resolution
6. The static characteristics of the instrument are

A) Fidelity B) Drift C) Resolution D) Overshoot


MEASUREMENT OF
TEMPRATURE, PRESSURE AND VACCUM
1. Sensitivity of bourdon-tube pressure gauge can be increased by using ----
a) Spiral shape tube b) Helical shape tube
c) Square shape tube d) Triangular shape tube
2. A hot wire anemometer is used to measure
a) Pressure in gases b) Liquid discharge
c) Gas velocities d) Current meter
3. High vacuum pressure is most commonly expressed in
a) Pascal c) Micron
b) Torr d) cm
4. The following material is preferred in RTD for measuring temperature in the range of 2009c to
10000c
a) Platinum b) Copper c) Nickel d) Tungstan
5. The dead weight pressure tester is used for .
a) Producing high pressure
b) Accurate measurement of load
c) Testing the magnitude of given weight
d) Calibrating pressure measuring insturment.
6. The bending of bi-metallic strips during rise in temperature is due to difference in their ----
a) coefficient of linear expansion c) thermal conductivity
b) elastic properties d) none of the above
7. Which of following thermometer is suitable for measuring furnace temperature?
a) Liquid in glass thermometer b) Thermocouples
c) Thermistors d) Resistance thermometers
8. Following substances can be used as thermometric substances for temperature
measurements below -40°C
a) Alcohol b) Pentane c) Mercury d) Creosotev
9. Measurement of vaccum pressure is done by following instruments-
a) McLeod gauge b) Bellows
c) Diaphragm d) Thermal conductivity gauge
10. Which of the following thermometers is most suitable for the measurement of surface
temperature
A) Liquid in glass thermometer B) Thermocouples C) Thermistors D) Resistance
thermometer

11. Column – I Column – II


A) Pressure measurement p) Inductive pick-up tachometer
B) Mechanical tachometer q) Pirani gauge
C) Electrical tachometer r) Tachoscop
s) Drag cup tachometer
12. Thermistors are __________
a) Bi-metallic strips used in thermometers
b) Semiconductors which have negative coefficient of resistance
c) Metals having small positive coefficient of resistance
d) Transducers for measuring thermal properties of materials

13. Piezoelectric accelerometer consists of

A) Crystal B) Mass C) Spring D) Damper


14.Electrical resistance strain gauges are used to measure
A) Static strain B) Dynamic strain
C) Voltage D) Resistance
15. Which of the following thermometers are suitable for measuring
furnace temperature ?
A) Liquid in glass thermometer
B) Thermistor
C) Thermocouple
D) Resistance thermometer
16. Which of the following is detected using manometer devices?
a) Pressure difference between manometric and measuring liquid
b) pH difference between manometric and measuring liquid
c) Density difference between manometric and measuring liquid
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In manometer devices, pressure difference between manometric liquid and measuring
liquid is obtained and it is equated to relation hϱg, ϱ is the mass density of the manometric liquid.
17. What is the difference between water and transformer oil as a manometric liquid?
a) Water is used for large pressure differential
b) Transformer oil is used for large pressure differential
c) Transformer oil has evaporation problems
d) Water has evaporation problems

Answer: d
Explanation: Both water and transformer oils are used in small pressure differential applications,
but the difference is that water has problems related to relatively faster evaporation.
18. In which of the following categories be thin plate diaphragm included?
a) Primary transducer
b) Secondary transducer
c) Voltage measuring devices
d) Spring balance systems

Answer: a
Explanation: Primary transducers are devices which converts measurand into mechanical
quantities. Diaphragm converts pressure into displacement which is a mechanical quantity
19. Which of the following quantities can be measured using bellows?
a) Absolute pressure
b) Gauge pressure
c) Differential pressure
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Bellows can be used for measuring Absolute pressure, Gauge pressure and
Differential pressure of measuring medium. This is accomplished using two bellow chambers
provided.
20. Which of the following conversion take place in bourdon tubes?
a) Pressure to displacement
b) Pressure to voltage
c) Pressure to strain
d) Pressure to force

Answer: a
Explanation: In bourdon tubes converts input pressure into displacement and displacement of the
needle will be directly proportional to input pressure.
21. Which of the following devices convert pressure to displacement?
a) Diaphragm
b) Bellow
c) Capsule
d) Both diaphragm and capsule

Answer: d
Explanation: Both diaphragm and capsule convert pressure into displacement which can be
measured using indicating instruments. Displacement will be proportional to applied pressure.
22. Which of the following is not a type of pressure sensing element?(A) Bellows
(B) Bourdon tube
(C) Manometer
(D) Orifice plate

23. Internal temperature of a hot body is measured by measuring __________________


a) Temperature of surrounding medium
b) Temperature of external surface
c) Direct measurement
d) Cannot measure internal temperature
Answer: b
Explanation: External surface temperature is measured and by estimating temperature gradient, the
internal temperature can be found.
24. Temperature gradient of a substance is _________________
a) Positive constant
b) Negative constant
c) Zero
d) Variable
Answer: d
Explanation: Temperature gradient is a variable, which may show variation in temperature
measured.
25. Feedback system is used to ____________
a) Cancel use of temperature gradient
b) To reduce delay in measurement
c) To improve accuracy
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Feedback system in temperature balance system is used to improve accuracy in
measurement.
26. If temperature T1 of material A is equal to temperature T2 of material B, then which of the
following are correct?
a) Heat flow from A to B
b) Heat flow from B to A
c) No heat flow
d) Temperature at the junction increases
Answer: c
Explanation: If temperature of two materials are equal, no heat flow occurs between materials.
27. Which of the following represents closed loop thermal control?
a) Thermistor
b) Thermostat
c) Thermocouple
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermostat is a device which is an example of closed loop thermal control.
28. Which of the following true for temperature gradient?
a) Dimensional quantity
b) Dimensionless quantity
c) Unit less quantity
d) SI unit is K/m2

Answer: a
Explanation: Temperature gradient is a vector quantity with both magnitude and dimension.
29. Which of the following represents unit for temperature gradient?
a) K/m2
b) K
c) K/m
d) K/s
Answer: c
Explanation: Temperature gradient is a measure of temperature in kelvin measure per meter length.

30. Which of the following is correct for temperature gradient?


a) Describes direction of temperature change
b) Describes rate of temperature change
c) Describes both direction and rate of temperature change
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Temperature gradient is a factor which describes both rate and direction of
temperature change.
31. Which of the following represents the rate of heat loss of a body?
a) Initial temperature
b) Final temperature
c) Difference in temperature between body and surrounding
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Difference in temperature between body and surrounding is a direct measure of heat
loss by body
32. Hot wire anemometer can be used to measure _________________
a) Flow rate of non-conducting liquid
b) Flow rate of conducting liquid
c) Liquid level measurement
d) pH of liquid
Answer: a
Explanation: Hot wire anemometer is used for measuring the flow rate of a non-conducting liquid.
33. Hot wire anemometer is an application of ___________________
a) Resistive transducer
b) Inductive transducer
c) Capacitive transducer
d) Thermo electric transducer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hot wire anemometer works on the relation between temperature and resistance of a
material.
34. SI unit of thermal conductivity is _____________
a) W/m K
b) W
c) K
d) W2/m K
Answer: a
Explanation: SI unit of thermal conductivity is watt per meter kelvin.
35. Which of the following represents opposition to heat flow?
a) Thermal resistance
b) Thermal opposition
c) Thermal reactance
d) Thermal barrier
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal resistance is a measure of opposition to heat flow.

36. Which of the following factors affect thermal conductivity?


a) Temperature
b) Chemical phase
c) Thermal anisotropy
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal conductivity is affected by temperature, chemical phase change and
anisotropy.
37. What is ‘Righi Leduc-effect’?
a) Effect of magnetic field on thermal conductivity
b) Effect of chemical phase on thermal conductivity
c) Effect of temperature on thermal conductivity
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Effect of magnetic field on thermal conductivity is known as Righi-Leduc effect. It is
also known as Thermal hall-effect.
38. Insulation property of an insulator decrease in _____________
a) Dry condition
b) Moisture
c) Powdered form
d) Compressed state
Answer: b
Explanation: In moisture condition, insulation property of insulator decreases.
39. Which of the following describes molecule movement in gas and liquid?
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Diffusion
Answer: b
Explanation: Convection is the process of describing molecule movement in gas and liquid.
40. Which of the following can be used for measuring temperature?
a) Metallic diaphragm
b) Fluid expansion system
c) Capsule
d) Bourdon tube
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid expansion system is a method for measuring temperature, in which expansion
of liquid is measured with temperature.
41. IPTS stands for ________________
a) International Practical Temperature Scale
b) Indian Primary Temperature Scale
c) International Primary Temperature Scale
d) International Practical Temperature Standard
Answer: a
Explanation: IPTS is the short form of name International Standard Temperature Scale.
42. In liquid in steel bulb thermometer, which liquid can be used for measuring temperature
up to 60000C?
a) Mercury
b) Ether
c) Water
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Mercury as a liquid provides temperature range of -4000C to 65000C.

43. Which of the following is used as indication instrument in a liquid expansion system?
a) Bellows
b) Bourdon tube
c) Ammeter
d) Thermometer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bourdon tube converts pressure into displacement and in liquid expansion systems
output expansion pressure is applied to bourdon tube for indication.
44. Which of the following is true for bimetallic type thermometer?
a) Two metals have same temperature coefficients
b) Two metals have different temperature coefficient
c) One metal is cooled always
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In a bimetallic type thermometer, two metals are used which are different in
temperature coefficients.
45. Analogous quantities of heat flow and temperature in electrical are _____________ and
_______________
a) Potential and current
b) Current and potential
c) Power and potential
d) Current and power
Answer: b
Explanation: Heat flow in the thermal system is analogous to current flow in electrical, and
temperature between two points is analogous to potential between two points in electrical.
46. Ratio of net amount of heat received and stored in the body for certain time interval is
known as _________________
a) Temperature
b) Thermal coefficient
c) Thermal storage capacity
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal storage capacity denoted by C is the ratio of the Net amount of heat received
and stored in the body.

47. The thermocouple circuit which is used to measure temperature works on ____.
a. Seebeck effect
b. Peltier effect
c. Thomson effect
d. none of the above
48. In electric resistance thermometer, the thermometric property is
a. electric current passing through a metal wire
b. resistance of a metal wire
c. voltage between two extreme end points of a metal wire
d. none of the above
49. Which of the following is chosen as a standard thermometric substance?
a. Gas
b. Thermocouple
c. Electric resistance
d. Mercury
50. The characteristic of a material or a body which is taken as an indication of change in
temperature is known as
a. Thermodynamics property
b. Thermostatic property
c. Thermometric property
d. none of the above
51. Which law of thermodynamics is the basis of temperature measurement?
a. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b. First law of thermodynamics
c. Second law of thermodynamics
d. none of the above
52. The term which can differentiate thermodynamics from other sciences is ____.
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Mass
d. none of the above

MEASUREMENT OF FORCE AND TORQUE


1. Electrical resistance strain gauges are used for measuring
a) Static strain b) Dynamic strain
c) Variable resistance d) Variable voltage

2. Mechanical strain gauges can measure


a) Static strains b) Dynamic strains
c) Quasi-static strains d) Both static and dynamic strains

3. Proving ring is used for the measurement of


A) Force B) Torque
C) Strain D) Angular Speed
4. Load cells are required for the measurement of
A) Force B) Torque
C) Strain D) Angular Speed
5. . Which of the following device can be used for force measurement?
a) Beams
b) Bellows
c) Capsule
d) Bourdon tube

Answer:a
Explanation: Beams are used for force measuring applications, all other devices listed are used for
measuring pressure.
6. Load cells are used for measuring _______________
a) Large weights only
b) Small weights only
c) Weights moving in high speed
d) Slowly moving weights

Answer: d
Explanation: Load cells are used for measuring weights of slowly moving bodies so that their weight will
be uniformly distributed over load cell surface.

7. Which of the following can be measured using a Ring-type load cell?


a) Large weight
b) Small weight
c) Both large and small weights
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Ring type load cell consists of a ring like an arrangement to which force is applied.
They are used for applications in which measurement of small forces are required.

8. Which of the following arrangements are used in load cells?


a) Tensile strain gauges
b) Compressive strain gauges
c) Both tensile and compressive strain gauges
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Force applied to a load cell is measured using determining tensile and compressive
components of strain. Strain gauges are attached to the surface of the load cell.

9.Which of the following conversion is correct for load cell?


a) Force to strain
b) Force to displacement
c) Force to voltage
d) Both force to strain and force to displacement

Answer: d
Explanation: Commonly load cell measure applied force using strain gauges, but in some cases,
force is measured by detecting displacement, that is a force to displacement conversion.
10. Which of the following statement is true for force?
a) Force is a scalar quantity
b) Force is a vector quantity
c) Force is a dimensionless quantity
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Force can be described as a vector quantity, in which measurement of magnitude and
direction of application is important.

11. Which of the following statement is true for diaphragms?


a) Used for measuring small forces
b) Used for measuring large forces
c) Used for measuring dynamic forces
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Diaphragm elements, being a small force capacity is used for measuring small forces
only.
12. In systemic diagram, force can be represented by an
A. arrow
B. plus
C. dot
D. star

13. If an object is at rest, the forces acting on it, are


A. balanced
B. unequal
C. higher
D. lower

14. A frictional force acting on an object when it moves through air is called
A. air resistance
B. water resistance
C. air pressure
D. air condensation

15. Force can be measured by the help of


A. foci meter
B. spring balance
C. pane balance
D. both a and b
16. Forces cancel each other's effect if their size is
A. equal
B. unequal
C. same
D. all of them

17. Semiconductors used for temperature measurement are called _______.


(A) thermistors
(B) thermopiles
(C) resistance temperature detectors
(D) pyrometers

18. The metal extensively used in high-accuracy resistance thermometers is ________.


(A) rhodium
(B) nickel
(C) iridium
(D) platinum

19. A dead-weight pressure gauge works on ________.


(A) D’Arsonval principle
(B) Abbe’s principle
(C) Archimedes’ principle
(D) D’alembert’s principle

20. McLeod gauge works on ________.


(A) Newton’s law
(B) Hook’s law
(C) Boyle’s law
(D) Pascal’s law

21. In a Pirani gauge, the pressure is related to the ________.


(A) thermal conductivity of the gas
(B) the volume of the gas
(C) mass transfer of the gas
(D) composition of the gas

22. A McLeod gauge is used to measure _______.


(A) gauge pressure
(B) atmospheric pressure
(C) vacuum pressure
(D) absolute pressure

23. A dead-weight pressure gauge is used for ______.


(A) static pressure measurement
(B) dynamic pressure measurement
(C) high-vacuum measurement
(D) low-volume measurement

24. Strain gauge rosettes are used when the direction of the _________.
(A) principal stress is unknown
(B) hoop stress is known
(C) principal stress is known
(D) hoop stress is unknown

25. Dummy strain gauge are used for __________.


(A) bridge sensitivity enhancement
(B) temperature compensation
(C) determining gauge factor
(D) calibration of strain gauges

26. Strain gauges cannot be used at high temperatures because of ____________.


(A) inferior strain gauge materials
(B) gauge not being properly welded
(C) a problem with a gauge factor
(D) decomposition of cement and carrier materials

27. Temperature gives a measure of _________.


(A) the internal energy of the system
(B) external energy of the system
(C) the total energy of the system
(D) no relationship with energy

28. Current flows through a circuit spontaneously when two dissimilar metals are joined to
form a thermocouple, provided the two junctions formed are maintained at different
temperatures. This effect is termed as _________.
(A) Thomson effect
(B) Seebeck effect
(C) Rankine effect
(D) Stefan effect

29. Gauge pressure is measured ________.


(A) above the local atmospheric pressure
(B) below the local atmospheric pressure
(C) above the zero absolute pressure
(D) below the zero absolute pressure

30. With reference to a McLeod gauge, the ratio V1/a is called ______.
(A) damping ratio
(B) Poisson’s ratio
(C) aspect ratio
(D) compression ratio

31. The cross-section of a Bourdon tube is ______.


(A) circular
(B) elliptical
(C) rectangular
(D) triangular

32. Which of the following devices works on the principle of mutual inductance?
(A) Potentiometer
(B) Rheostat
(C) Piezoelectric crystal
(D) LVDT

33. When pressure is applied onto the diaphragm, the distance between the two metal plates
changes, which in turn changes the _______.
(A) capacitance
(B) inductance
(C) resistance
(D) reluctance

34. When an elastic member is used in conjunction with a strain gauge, it is called a ______.
(A) proving ring
(B) absorption dynamometer
(C) prony brake
(D) load cell

35. Advantage of LVDT


1. 0.05% linearity and finite resolution
2. High output and high sensitivity
3. Rugged and less friction
4. Low hysteresis and low power consumption
5. All of above

36. Which of the following instrument can be used for the measurement of a temperature
above 1500°K?

1. Mercury thermometer
2. Gas Thermometer
3. Thermoelectric pyrometer
4. Any of the above

37. A solar cell is

1. Same as a photometer
2. Same as a photoemissive cell
3. Same as a photoconductive cell
4. Same as a photovoltaic cell

38. A piezometer is used to measure

1. Strain in structure

2. Very low pressure

3. Very high pressure

4. Leakage reactance

39. A load cell is a

1. Strain gauge

2. Photovoltaic cell

3. Thermistor

4. Pressure pick up

40. Which of the following quantities cannot be measured by a load cell?

1. Pressure

2. Temperature
3. Level

4. All of the above

41. Which of the following devices can be used for measuring torque?
a) Helical spring
b) Flat spiral spring
c) Bellows
d) Diaphragm

Answer: b
Explanation: Flat spiral springs are, flat springs which are fixed at center and force is applied on the
peripheral end.

42. ___________ is used for measuring torque in rotating parts in machines.


a) Accelerometer
b) Dynamometer
c) Tachometer
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamometers are the devices which are used to measure torque in rotating parts of
machines, mainly torque of rotating shafts.

43. Which of the following is true for torque measurement?


a) Measurement of applied force only
b) Measurement of length of arm
c) Measurement of force and length of arm
d) Measurement of velocity of material

Answer: c
Explanation: Torque can be measured as the product of applied force and length of arm. Hence both of the
parameters are important in the measurement of torque.

44. Which of the following represents the correct relationship between angular displacement and
torque?
a) Direct proportionality
b) Inverse proportionality
c) Equal magnitude
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Torque of a bar is proportional to force applied tangential to bar, and hence torque can be
treated as direct proportional with angular displacement.

45. Which of the following represents the correct position of strain gauges in torque measurement?
a) 900 with each other
b) Parallel to shaft axis
c) Perpendicular to shaft axis
d) 450 from shaft axis

Answer: d
Explanation: All strain gauges are positioned 450 equally from shaft axes, such an arrangement causes
insensitivity to bending or axial stress.

46. A torsion bar of constant inner radius and length is applied with constant torque. What will
happen for the angular displacement if outer radius of torsion bar is increased?
a) Increase
b) Decreases
c) Doubles
d) Halved
View Answer

47. What is the unit in which torque is measured?


a) Newton meter
b) Meter per second
c) Kilometer per hour
d) Rotation per minute

Answer: a
Explanation: The SI unit of torque is Newton-meter (Nm). Torque is defined as force multiplied by the
position vector and Sine of the angle between the force vector and position vector. The corresponding SI
unit of measurement is Newton and meter. So the SI unit is newton meter.

48. What type of torque is associated with braking system of a vehicle, when brakes are applied?
a) Stationary torque
b) Dynamic torque
c) Static torque
d) Distinctive torque

Answer: c
Explanation: When brakes are applied in a moving vehicle, static torque is generated. It is because the
force applied by the brakes is static as there is no acceleration involved, so the corresponding torque
generated is called static torque.
49. What varies in a strain gauge torque sensor when force is applied?
a) Resistance
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance
d) Velocity

Answer: a
Explanation: Resistance varies in a strain gauge torque sensor when force is applied. A strain gauge has
some electrical conductive material printed on an insulated substrate, when force is applied over it the
material experiences a strain and the resistance of the material changes.

50. The two types of torque are: ______ torque and ________ torque.
a) Static torque, dynamic torque
b) Static torque, distinctive torque
c) Stationary torque, non-stationary torque
d) Dynamic, non-dynamic

Answer: a
Explanation: The two types of torque are: Static torque and dynamic torque. The torque generated when
there is no relative acceleration is called static torque. Whereas the torque generated due to dynamic
acceleration or deacceleration is called dynamic torque.

51. In a Prony brake dynamometer, _________.

(A) mechanical energy is converted into heat

(B) mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy

(C) electrical energy is converted into torque

(D) there is no need for energy conversion

52. The torque depends upon

A. force only

B. moment arm only

C. mass

D. force and momentum arm

53. Along which a force act is called

A. line of action of force


B. line of acting torque

C. axis of rotation

D. moment arm

54. Moment arm is the

A. parallel distance

B. perpendicular distance

C. normal distance

D. resultant force

Unit No. 3

Measurement of Acceleration, Velocity and displacement


1) Which element is mostly used in the capacitive accelerometers for sensing?
a) Germanium
b) Silicon
c) Lead
d) Carbon
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon is mostly used in the capacitive accelerometers for sensing. It is relatively cheap
and exhibits far better performance in the low frequency range. They can provide a higher stability and
linearity when operated in servo mode.

2) MEMS stands for ________


a) Micro electric mechanical system
b) Micro electro mechanical system
c) Mini electro mechanical system
d) Mini electronic mechanical system
Answer: b
Explanation: MEMS stands for Micro electro mechanical system. Accelerometers, Gyroscopes and
pressure sensors are MEMS sensors. It is a technology using which most of the accelerometers and
other sensors are designed.

3) Acceleration is a ______ quantity.


a) scalar
b) vector
c) tensor
d) resistive
Answer: b
Explanation: Acceleration is a vector quantity. It is a vector quantity because it depends on both,
magnitude of acceleration as well as the direction of acceleration. Had it been only dependent on
magnitude, it would be a scalar quantity but it is not so.

4) Piezoelectric accelerometers converts ________ energy to ______energy.


a) mechanical, sound
b) mechanical, electrical
c) sound, electrical
d) sound, electrical
Answer: b
Explanation: Piezoelectric accelerometers converts mechanical energy to electrical energy. The word
piezoelectric is derived from a Greek word “piezein” which means to press or squeeze. When any
mechanical variable such as force or shock is applied on the input, then it produces subsequent
electrical signals which is used to measure its magnitude.

5) Self generating type transducers are _____ transducers.

a) Active
b) Passive
c) Secondary
d) Inverse

6) A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called

a) Active transducer
b) Analog transducer
c) Digital transducer
d) Pulse transducer

7) Which of the following is a digital transducer?


a) Strain gauge
b) Encoder
c) Thermistor
d) LVDT

8) Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of

a) Active transducers
b) Passive transducers
c) Analog transducers
d) Primary transducers

9) A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting

a) Mechanical displacement into a change of resistance


b) Pressure into a change of resistance
c) Force into a displacement
d) Pressure into displacement

10) Resolution of a transducer depends on

a) Material of wire
b) Length of wire
c) Diameter of wire
d) Excitation voltage

11) The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is normally of the order of

a) 1 to 1.5
b) 1.5 to 2.0
c) 0.5 to 1.0
d) 5 to 10

12) Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when mechanical force is applied
across them. Such materials are called

a) Piezo-electric
b) Photo-electric
c) Thermo-electric
d) Photo-resistive
13) LVDT windings are wound on

a) Steel sheets
b) Aluminium
c) Ferrite
d) Copper

14) The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of

a) Self inductance
b) Mutual inductance
c) Reluctance
d) Permanence

15) Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?

a) Force
b) Velocity
c) Sound
d) Pressure

16) In a LVDT, the two secondary voltages

a) Are independent of the core position


b) Vary unequally depending on the core position
c) Vary equally depending on the core position
d) Are always in phase quadrature

17) Capacitive transducers are normally employed for_________ measurements

a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Transient
d) Both static and dynamic

18) What is the purpose of a gyro in an inertial navigation system?


a) Space-stabilize the accelerometer
b) Angle of rotation
c) Measure rotation rate
d) Calculate velocity

Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of gyroscope or gyro in an inertial navigation system is to space stabilize the
accelerometers. In gimballed platforms, the gyros measure the rotation of the platform, which is angularly
isolated from the vehicle’s motion.

19) Accelerometer is the measurement of ________


a) Velocity/time
b) Energy/time
c) Height/time
d) Angle/time

Answer: a
Explanation: Accelerometer is the measurement of the change in velocity or speed divided by time. For
example, a car accelerating from a standstill to 60mph in 60 seconds is determined to have an acceleration
of 10mph per second(60/6).

20) What is the use of accelerometer in laptops?


a) To rotate the screen
b) To protect hard drives from damage
c) To get the angle on monitor
d) To get the linear acceleration

Answer: b
Explanation: Accelerometer in laptops protect hard drives from damage. If the laptop were to suddenly
drop while in use, the accelerometer would detect the sudden free fall and immediately turn off the hard
drive to avoid hitting the reading heads into the hard drive platter.

21) Gyroscope is used to measure_________


a) Linear Acceleration
b) Angular velocity
c) Angular velocity and linear acceleration
d) Linear velocity

22) ________ sensor is used for tracking rotation or twist.


a) Gyroscope
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Proximity

23) Hot wire anemometer can be used to measure _________________


a) Flow rate of non-conducting liquid
b) Flow rate of conducting liquid
c) Liquid level measurement
d) pH of liquid

24) Hot wire anemometer is an application of ___________________


a) Resistive transducer
b) Inductive transducer
c) Capacitive transducer
d) Thermo electric transducer

25) Which of the following represents opposition to heat flow?


a) Thermal resistance
b) Thermal opposition
c) Thermal reactance
d) Thermal barrier

26) Which of the following factors affect thermal conductivity?


a) Temperature
b) Chemical phase
c) Thermal anisotropy
d) All of the mentioned

27) What is ‘Righi Leduc-effect’?


a) Effect of magnetic field on thermal conductivity
b) Effect of chemical phase on thermal conductivity
c) Effect of temperature on thermal conductivity
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Effect of magnetic field on thermal conductivity is known as Righi-Leduc effect. It is also known as Thermal hall-
effect.

28) Which of the following describes molecule movement in gas and liquid?
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Diffusion

29) Which of the following differential pressure flow meter has high pressure loss ?

Venturi
Orifice
Nozzle
Pitot

30) By a Rotameter we can measure

A.Specific gravity
B.Viscosity
C.Flow
D.Rotation
Introduction to Control Systems
Traffic signal used for controlling the traffic across cross road is a
1.
a) Closed loop c) Open loop control
b) System d) None of these
control system system
A person driving car and required to maintain speed the car at 60 km/hr is an example of
2.
a. Open loop b. Closed loop c. Automatic control d. Discrete control
system system system system
In an open loop control system
c. Only system
3. a. Output is b. Output is
parameters have d. None of the
independent of dependent on
effect on the control above
control input control input
output
In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of
the system will
4.
a. decrease b. increase c. be unaffected d. any of the above

Which of the following is an open loop control system?


5.
a. Field controlled b. Ward leonard
c. Metadyne d. Stroboscope
D.C. motor control
S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e g e of E n gi ne e ri n g

An automatic toaster is a loop control system.


6.
a. open b. closed c. partially closed d. any of the above

For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect?


b. Recalibration is c. Construction is
7. not required for
a. Less expensive simple and d. Errors are caused
maintaining the
by disturbances
required quality maintenance easy
of the output
A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output isknown as
8.
a. Closed loop b. Semi closed loop d. None of the
c. Open system
system system above
In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain ofthe system will
9.
a. Decrease b. Increase c. be unaffected d. any of the above

Which of the following is an open loop control system?

10.
a. Field controlled b. Ward Leonard
c. Metadyne
D.C. motor control Stroboscope
Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system?
a. Input command
b. Presence of non-
11. is the sole factor d. Generally free
linearity’s
responsible for c. Less expensive from problems of
causes
providing the non-linearities
malfunctioning
control action
In open loop system

d. the control
12. a. the control action b. the control action c. the control action
action is
depends on the depends on depends on the
independent of
size of the system system variables input signal
the output
---------has tendency to oscillate
13.
a. Open loop b. Closed loop d. Neither (a) nor
c. Both (a) and (b)
system system (b)
A good control system has all the following features except
14.
d. sufficient power
a. good stability b. slow response c. good accuracy
handling capacity
A car is running at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback
Element for the driver?
15.
c. Needle of the
a. Clutch b. Eyes d. Steering wheel
speedometer
S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e g e of E n gi ne e ri n g

The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called
16.
a. Transient d. Either of the
b. Error response c. Dynamic response
response above
A control system working under unknown random actions is called
17.
a. computer control b. digital data c. stochastic control d. adaptive control
system system system system
An automatic toaster is a loop control system.
18.
a. Open b. Closed c. partially closed d. any of the above

Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a


19.
a. Feedback b. Stimulus c. Signal d. gain control

A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following?
20.
a. Servomechanism b. Feedback c. Output pattern d. Input pattern

Is a part of the human temperature control system?


21.
b. Perspiration
a. Digestive system c. Ear d. Leg movement
system
By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path?
22.
a. Brain b. Hands c. Legs d. Eyes

Is a closed loop system.


23.
a. Auto-pilot for b. Direct current
c. Car starter d. Electric switch
an aircraft generator
Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments?
24.
a. Vern stats b. Microsyns c. Resolvers d. Any of the above

A person driving an automobile is an example of closed loop control system.


25.
a. True b. False c. d.

A ‘refrigerator’ is an example of closed loop control system.


26.
a. True b. False c. d.

‘Traffic signal system’ is an example of


27.
a. Open loop b. Closed loop
c. Manual control d. P-control
control control
Forward transfer function of a closed loop control system is defined as
S K N Si n hg a d C o l l eg e of E n gi n e eri n g

28.
c. Output/actuating d. Actuating
a. Output/input b. Input/output
signal signal/output
The most expensive control system is
29.
a. Manually d. Uncontrolled
b. Open-loop c. Closed-loop
controlled system
A rider riding a bike is an example of
30.
a. Manual open b. Manual closed c. Automatic open d. Automatic closed
loop system loop system loop system loop system

Air Conditioning system in Indian Railways is an example of .


31. a. open loop control b. closed loop control d . semi-automatic
c. manual controlsystem
system system control system
Block Diagram Algebra
Closed loop T.F. for a system with negative feedback is given by
1.
a) G(s)/1-G(s) H(s) b) G(s)/1+G(s) H(s) c) H(s)/1+G(s) H(s) d) H(s)/1-G(s) H(s)

In a block diagram algebra ,a circle indicates


2.
c. addition or d. differentiation
a. Multiplication b. integration
subtraction
The output of system in fig.is

3. a. G1 G2/1+G1G2 R1+G2/1+G1G2R2 b. G1 G2/1+G1G2 R1+G1G2/1+G1G2R2

c. G1 G2/1+G1G2 R1+1+G1G2R2/G2 d. 1+G1G2R1/G1G2 + G2/1+G1G2 R2

Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following?


4. d. The steady state
a. The order of the c. The output for
b. The time constant gain
system any given input
In a block diagram algebra, the open loop transfer function is usually given by
5.
a. C(S)/R(S) b. G(S)H(S) S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e g e of E n g i n e eri n g

c. G(S)/1±G(S)H(S) d. 1+G(S)H(S)

In a block diagram, the functions in parallel blocks are added


6.
a. True b. false c. d.

In a block diagram, functions in series blocks are multiplied


7.
a. True b. false c. d.

In a feedback control system, if G1 is the feed-forward function H1 is the feedback function to give negative
feedback, then the closed loop transfer function C(S)/R(S) is given by
8.

a. H1/1+G1H1 b. G1/1-G1H1 c. H1/1-G1H1 d. G1/1+G1H1

In block diagram algebra, parallel blocks are


9. d. Added or
a. Divided b. Integrated c. Multiplied subtracted

10. While shifting a summing point after a block, we have to


c. subtract same d. multiply by same
a. add the same b. divide by same block
block block block
S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e g e of E n gi ne e ri n g
Modes of Control
Offset error is observed in case of
1.
a) − b) I-control c) P +I+D control d) P- control

The best control can be achieved with


2.
a. P-control b. I- control c. P+D control d. P+I+D control

Derivative time is given by


3.
a. Kp/Kd b. Kp. Kd c. Kd.e d. Kd/Kp

The controller lines in steady state characteristics are vertical for


4.
b. Proportional d. Integral mode
a. Derivative mode c. On-Off mode
mode
Control action which is never used alone is
5. d. None of the
a. P-control b. I- control c. D- control above

Integral time in terms of ratio of gain constants is given by


S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e ge o f E n gi n ee r i n g

6.
d. None of the
a. Kd/Ki b. Ki/Kp c. Kp/Ki above

control mode or action considers the error which are going to occur in future & applies the
correction in anticipation these errors.
7.

a) Derivative b) Integral c) On Off d) Proprtional


Steady State Operation and Transient Response
The slope of the controller line is
1.
a) AKG b) KH/A c) – kG1.KH d) -B

For a system steady state constants are B= -5, KH =0.5 , the slope of vertical spacing forthe system is
2.
a. 2.5 b. -10 c. 2.5 d. 5

The time constant of any system depends on


3.
b. system d. Types of the
a. System variables c. Both a) and b) system
parameters
For a system in steady state 𝜕𝑢 ǀ c is given
𝜕𝑚
4.
a. 1/AKG1 b. KH/A c. 1/BKG2 d. -1/B

For a system in steady state, the vertical spacing between the lines of a controller plot is given by
5.
d. 𝜕𝑚ǀ
𝜕𝑚ǀ 𝝏𝑽 𝜕𝑉ǀ C
a.
𝜕𝑐
V b. 𝝏𝒎C
ǀ c.
𝜕𝐶
m 𝜕𝑉

For a system in steady state, if command signal increases & load is constant, then the output will
S K N S i n h ga d C ol l e g e of E n gi n e eri n g

6.
a. Decrease b. Increase c. Remain same d. Become zero

For a system in steady state, if load on the system suddenly increases, the system output will
7.
a. Increase b. Decrease c. Remain constant d. Be sinusoidal

In load line plot, ( 𝜕𝑢)M indicates


𝜕𝑐
8.
b. Horizontal d. Perpendicular
a. Slope c. Vertical spacing distance
spacing

9. Slope of controller lines is given by

a) KH/A b) AKG1 c) -KG1KH d KG2

The transfer function of a system is given by 16𝑠2+4𝑠+16 .The system is


10.
c) Critically
a) Overdamped b) Underdamped d) Undamped
Damped
11. Offset error is observed in case of
a) − b) I-control c) P +I+D control d) P- control

A system will have two roots symmetrically placed about the origin if rouths array

12. a. Has two sign c. Has all positive d. has a column of


b. Has a row of all all zero
changes in the terms in the first
zeros coefficients coefficients
first column column
If a row in in Routh’s array has all zeros ,the system

d. has two or more


13. a. Has a row of all roots
c. has two roots in symmetrically
zeros b. is Stable
the right plane placed about the
coefficients
origin

A stable system is represented if its Routh’s array

14. a. Has a row of all b. Has two sign c. Has all positive d. Has all negative
zeros changes in the terms in the first terms in the first
coefficients first coulomn column column

The transient response, with feedback system,


15. S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e g e of E n gi ne e ri n g

a. rises slowly b. rises quickly c. decays slowly d. decays quickly

The transient response of a system is mainly due to


16.
a. inertia forces b. internal forces c. stored energy d. friction

Marginally stable has some roots with real parts equal to zero, but none with positive real parts.
17.
a. True b. false c. d.

The first column of Routh table containing the integers 2, 4,-5, 3. The system is
18.
a. Stable b. Unstable c. Marginally stable d. None of these

If the poles of a control system lie on the imaginary axis in S-plane the system will be
19.
c. Conditionally d. Marginally
a. Unstable b. Stable stable
stable
20. If a row in Routh’s array has all zeros, the system
c. Has two or more
roots d. Has two roots in
a. Is stable b. Is unstable symmetrically right half plane
placed about the
origin
If a row in Routh’s array contains all zeros, then the system is stable
21.
a. True b. false c. d.

A system has two-roots located in the right half plane if Routh’s array,

22. a. Has all positive c. Indicates two d. Has all negative


b. Contains a row of coefficients in the
coefficients in sign changes in
all zeros first column
the first column the first column
The type 0 system has at the origin.
23.
a. no pole b. net pole c. simple pole d. two poles

The type 1 system has at the origin.


24.
a. no pole b. net pole c. simple pole d. two poles

The type 2 system has at the origin. S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e g e of E n gi ne e ri n g

25.
a. no net pole b. net pole c. simple pole d. two poles
Root Locus
If P-Z = 2 then the angle of the asymptotes to root locus are
1.
a) 450& 3150 b) 1350& 2250 c) 1800& -1800 d) 900& 2700

A root locus will have the branches terminating to infinity if ,


2.
a. Z <P b. P < Z c. P=Z d. P=0

A branch of root locus always starts from


3.
a. The origin b. The Zero c. The pole d. X-Axis

Angle of arrival in root locus if a system has


4.
b. Complex c. Complex d. All real poles
a. All real zeros
conjugate Zeros conjugate Poles
Angle condition is used to determine

5. a. The value of K b. The breakaway c. The existence of d. The centroid of


for a point on points in root a point on the asymptotes of
root locus locus root locus root locus
SKN Sinhgad College of Engineering

The root locus in the entirely left half plane represents

6.
a. An unstable b. a marginally d. an oscillatory
c. a stable system system
system stable system
Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response?
7.
d. None of the
a. Root locus b. Bode plot c. Nyquist plot above

If P= no of poles and Z= no od zeros, then if P>Z, the ‘root locus’ will have following numbers of branches
going to infinity,
8.

a. P b. Z c. P+Z d. P-Z

‘Angles of departure’ are required to draw the root locus if a system has
9.
a. Complex c. Complex d. All real zeros
b. All real poles
conjugate zeros conjugate poles
10. If entire ‘root locus’ is in the left half plane, then the system is
c. Stable only for
a. Unstable b. Stable certain range of d. Marginally stable
K
If total number of poles and zeros on the real axis to the right of any point on the real axis is ‘even’, then
that point lies on the ‘root locus’
11.

a. True b. false c. d.

12. The ‘centroid’ may or may not lie on the ‘root-locus’

a. True b. false c. d.

If P= no of poles and Z= no of zeros, then if P=Z

13. b. All the branches d. Some of the


a. All the branches c. The root locus is branches may go
will originate
will go to infinity finite to infinity
from infinity
If P<Z some branches originate from infinity
14.
a. True b. false c. d.

‘Centroid’ of asymptotes is a point which S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e g e of E n gi ne e ri n g

15. b. Is real but may c. Is real and always d. Is always


a. May be real or
or may not lie lies on the root imaginary
complex
on the root locus locus
A root locus has any branches originating from infinity when
16.
a. P=Z b. P>Z c. Z>P d. Z=0

For a unity feedback system with (𝑠)=(𝑠+4) 𝑠+1 (𝑠+2) , Breakaway point/s exists .

17.

a) Between 0 &-1 b Between -1 & -2 d Both b & c


c) Above -4
The root locus of unity feedback system with 𝐺𝑠 =(𝑠+2)(𝑠+1) will have .

b) One d) One
18. a) One branch starting c) One branch starting
branch starting from 1 & branch starting from -2 &
from -1 & terminating at -2 from -1 & terminating at -1
terminating at K terminating at -2
Bode Plot
Phase cross over frequency is the frequency at which
1.
a) M=0 b) Ø = -1800 c) G.M.=0 d) P.M.= 0

For a system on the verge of instability


2.
c. G.M. and P.M. d. G.M. and P.M.
a. G.M. is positive b. P.M. is positive are negative
are zero
Starting slope of magnitude plot for a system with two zeros at the origin is
3.
a. 20 db/decade b. -40 db/decade c. 40 db /decade d. -20 db/decade

In bode plot a simple pole will contribute a slope of


4.
a. 20 db/decade b. 40 db/decade c. -40 db/decade d. -20 db/decade

In bode plot phase margin is calculated at


5.
a. Phase cross-over b. Corner d. Gain cross-over
c. Any frequency frequency
frequency frequency
In phase angle plot ,contribution made by the two zeros at the origin is
6.
a. 1800 b. -1800 c. -900 d. 900

Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following?


7.
a. Frequency b. Absolute d. Time response
c. Relative stability
response stability
In frequency domain analysis both magnitude and phase varies with frequency change
8.
a. True b. false c. d.

The initial slope of the bode plot for a transfer function having simple pole at origin is
9.
a. 20 db/dec b. -40 db/dec c. 40 db/dec d. -20 db/dec

In terms of bode plot, the system is stable if

10. b. PM and GM d. PM negative but


c. PM and GM both
a. PM=GM both are GM positive
are negative
positive
11. In bode plots, the ‘gain margin’ is calculated at
S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e g e of E n gi ne e ri n g
a. Phase crossover b. Gain crossover c. Highest corner d. Lowest corner
frequency frequency frequency frequency

From bode plots a system is stable if


12. d. Phase margin is
a. Phase margin is b. Phase margin is c. Phase margin is
negative zero positive 900 only

For an unstable system


13.
a. G.M. and P. M. b. G.M. and P. M. c. G.M. and P. M. d. G.M. and P. M.
are zero are positive are infinity are negative

For a unity feedback system,(𝑠)=1(𝑠+2) , up to _ frequency contribution of simple pole is


negligible in magnitude plot.
14.

a) 2
b) 0.5 c) 1 d) None of these
For K = 0.2, magnitude plot will be . K is gain of the system
15.

a) Above 0 db line b) Below 0 db line c) 0 db line d) None of these

S K N Si n h g a d C ol l e g e of E n gi ne e ri n g
State Space Method
State space method is preferred for

1. d) Manually
b) Non-Linear and c) Open loop controlled
a) Linear system
complex system system systems

If X1,X2 and X3 are the three state variables and if DX1 =X2 and DX2 = x3 ,then the

techniques used is
2.
a. Direct b. parallel c. Series d. General
programming programming programming programming

State space approach is mostly suitable for

3. c. Simple and
a. Simple Linear b. Non-Linear and d. None
Derivative
system complex system
system
In general programming the differential equation is expressed in the form of a partial fraction equation
4.
a. True b. false c. d.

In direct programming the differential equation is expressed in the form of a partial fraction expression
5.
a. True b. false c. d.

In state space representation, ‘partial fractions’ are needed in a method with

6.
a. Direct b. General c. Series d. Parallel
programming programming programming programming

‘State space representation’ is suitable to solve using a digital computer.


7.
a. True b. false c. d.

The ‘state space’ representation is expressed in the


8.
c. Trigonometric d. Graphical form
a. Logarithmic form b. Matrix form
form
The next state variable is always a derivative of the previous state variable in case of
9. d. Series
a. Parallel b. Direct c. General
programming programming programming programming
SVERI’s C. O. E. PANDHARPUR, MECHANICAL ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT. P a g e | 12

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