Mcqs On Bcs

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MCQs on BCS

1. Founded the wave theory of light


a. Francesco Grimaldi
b. Edward Appleton
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Christian Huygens
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

2. Proposed the use of clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide


a. Karpon and Keck
b. Karpon and Bockham
c. Bockham and Kao
d. Kao and Keck
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

3. Developed the first laser


a. Charles Townes
b. Theodore Maiman
c. Gordon McKenzie
d. Albert Einstein
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
4. The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
5. The band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
6. Which color has the shortest wavelength of light?
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Green
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
7. What generates a light beam of a specific visible frequency?
a. Laser
b. Maser
c. Infrared
d. Flashlight
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
8. Which of the following materials is sensitive to light?
a. Photoresist
b. Photosensitive
c. Light Sensitive
d. Maser
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
9. The core of an optical fiber has a
a. Lower refracted index than air
b. Lower refractive index than the cladding
c. Higher refractive index than the cladding
d. Similar refractive index with the cladding
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
10. Is the different angle of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of
the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted.
a. Acceptance angle
b. Modes
c. Sensors
d. Aperture
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
11. The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is called
a. Dispersion
b. Scattering
c. Absorption
d. Attenuation
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
12. The bandwidth of optical fiber
a. 900M Hz
b. 900 PHz
c. 900 THz
d. 900 EHz
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
13. If a mirror is used to reflect light, the reflected light angle is ____ as the incident
angle
a. Smaller
b. Larger
c. The same
d. Independent
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
14. What is a specific path the light takes in an optical fiber corresponding to a
certain angle and number of reflection
a. Mode
b. Grade
c. Numerical Aperture
d. Dispersion
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
15. Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by the light source
a. Bandwidth
b. Chromatic Dispersion
c. Spectral width
d. Beamwidth
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
16. Which theory states that the light wave behaves as if it consists of many tiny
particles?
a. Huygen’s theory
b. Wave theory of light
c. Nyquist theory
d. Quantum theory
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
17. Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies near
a. 20 MHz
b. 200 MHz
c. 2G Hz
d. 800 THz
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
18. When a beam of light enters one medium from another, which quantity will not
change?
a. Direction
b. Speed
c. Frequency
d. Wavelength
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
19. Dispersion is used to describe the
a. Splitting of white light into its component colors
b. Propagation of light in straight lines
c. Bending of a beam of light when it goes from one medium to another
d. Bending of a beam light when it strikes a mirror
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
20. Luminance efficiency is minimum for a
a. Fluorescent tube
b. High wattage light bulb
c. Mercury vapor lamp
d. Low wattage light bulb
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
21. An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _____
image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
22. An object nearer to a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an ______
image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
23. The real image formed by a spherical mirror is ____ relative to its object
a. Erect
b. Inverted
c. Smaller
d. Larger
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
24. The wavelength of light has no role in
a. Diffraction
b. Interference
c. Polarization
d. Reflection
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
25. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit
a. Polarization
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Diffraction
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
26. ________ dispersion is caused by the difference in the propagation times of light
rays that take different paths down a fiber.
a. Material dispersion
b. Wavelength dispersion
c. Modal dispersion
d. Delay dispersion
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
27. What is the average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics?
a. 0.09 dB
b. 0.9 dB
c. 0.19 dB
d. 0.009 dB
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
28. What is the insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single mode fiber
optics?
a. 0.51 dB
b. 0.31 dB
c. 0.49 dB
d. 0.38 dB
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
29. What is the lifetime of LEDs?
a. 200,000 minutes
b. 200,000 hours
c. 150,000 minutes
d. 150,000 hours
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
30. What is the lifetime of ILDs?
a. 50,000 hours
b. 75,000 hours
c. 100,000 hours
d. 125,000 hours
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
31. Photodiodes used as fiber optic directors are
a. Unbiased to generate a voltage same as a solar cell
b. Forward bias
c. Reversed bias
d. Thermoelectrically cooled
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
32. What type of fiber has the highest modal dispersion?
a. Step-index multimode
b. Graded index multimode
c. Step-index single mode
d. Graded index mode
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
33. Laser light is ______ emission.
a. Coherent
b. Stimulated
c. Spontaneous
d. Coherent and stimulated
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
34. A dielectric waveguide for the propagation of electromagnetic energy at light
frequencies
a. Stripline
b. Microstrip
c. Laser beam
d. Fiber optics
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
35. Is a non-coherent light source foe optical communications system.
a. ILD
b. LED
c. APD
d. PIN Diode
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
36. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its
excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
37. Which laser emits light in the visible range 400 to 700 nm?
a. Argon-ion
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon-dioxide
d. Neodymium-YAG
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
38. Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a pulsed laser?
a. Energy x time
b. Pulse energy x repetition rate
c. Pulse energy / repetition rate
d. Peak power x pulse length
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
39. What is the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10^12 Hz?
a. 10.6 x 10^34 joules
b. 6.63 x 10^-34 joules
c. 6.63 x 10^-22 joules
d. 10.6 x 10^22 joules
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
40. A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an object 20 cm
away from the lens. How far is the real image from the lens?
a. 5 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 20 cm
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
41. Which of the following factor does not harm laser efficiency?
a. Atmospheric absorption
b. Excitation energy not absorbed
c. Problems in depopulating the lower laser level
d. Inefficiency in populating the upper laser level
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
42. Which of the following contributes to the broadening of laser emission
bandwidth?
a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules
b. Amplification within the laser medium
c. Coherence of the laser light
d. Optical pumping of the laser transition
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
43. The first laser emitted
a. Pulses of 694 nm red light
b. A continuous red beam
c. Pulses of white light from a helical flash lamp
d. Spontaneous emission
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
44. What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon?
a. Liquid
b. Gas
c. Molten
d. Hot
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
45. Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter on the Fiber Optical
Communications?
a. APD
b. LSA diode
c. PIN diode
d. LED
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
46. Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics
communications
a. APD
b. Tunnel diode
c. Laser diode
d. LED
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
47. The numerical aperture of a fiber if the angle of acceptance is 15 degrees, is
a. 017
b. 0.26
c. 0.50
d. 0.75
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
48. The inner portion of the fiber cable is called
a. Cladding
b. Coating
c. Inner conductor
d. Core
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
49. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its
excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
50. The laser frequency when the light has the wavelength 800 nm is
a. 375 x 10^12 Hz
b. 475 x 10^15 Hz
c. 375 x 10^9 Hz
d. 375 x 10^18 Hz
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
51. Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable?
a. Computer networks
b. Long-distance telephone systems
c. Closed circuit TV
d. Consumer TV
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
52. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle
with what relationship to the critical angle?
a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. Zero
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
53. The operation of the fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of
a. Refraction
b. Reflection
c. Dispersion
d. Absorption
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
54. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable?
a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode graded-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode step-index
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
55. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of
a. Loss per foot
b. dB/km
c. intensity per mile
d. voltage drop per inch
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
56. Which of the cable length has the highest attenuation?
a. 1 km
b. 2 km
c. 95 ft
d. 5500 ft
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
57. The upper pulse rate and information carrying capacity of a cable is limited by
a. Pulse shortening
b. Attenuation
c. Light leakage
d. Modal dispersion
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
58. The core of a fiber optic cable is made of
a. Air
b. Glass
c. Diamond
d. Quartz
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
59. The core of a fiber optic is surrounded by
a. Wire braid shield
b. Kevlar
c. Cladding
d. Plastic insulation
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
60. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is
a. Slower
b. Faster
c. The same
d. Either lower or faster
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
61. Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic cable?
a. Immunity from interference
b. No electrical safety problems
c. Excellent data security
d. Lower cost
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
62. The main benefit of light-wave communications over microwaves or any other
communications media is
a. Lower cost
b. Better security
c. Wider bandwidth
d. Freedom from interference
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
63. Which of the following is not part of the optical spectrum?
a. Infrared
b. Ultraviolet
c. Visible color
d. X-rays
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
64. The wavelength of visible light extends from
a. 0.8 to 1.0 nm
b. 400 to 750 nm
c. 200 to 660 nm
d. 700 to 1200 nm
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
65. The speed of light is
a. 186,000 mi/h
b. 300 mi/h
c. 300,000 m/s
d. 300,000,000 m/s
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
66. Refraction is the
a. Bending of light waves
b. Reflection of light waves
c. Distortion of light waves
d. Diffusion of light waves
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
67. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substance is
called the
a. Speed factor
b. Index of reflection
c. Index of refraction
d. Dielectric constant
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
68. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is
a. 0.7 μm
b. 1.3 μm
c. 1.5 μm
d. 1.8 μm
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
69. Which type of fiber optic cable is most widely used?
a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode step-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
70. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the best for very high speed data?
a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode step-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
71. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?
a. Single mode step-index
b. Multimode step-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
72. Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss?
a. Reflection
b. Absorption
c. Scattering
d. Dispersion
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
73. A distance of 8 km is the same as
a. 2.5 mi
b. 5 mi
c. 8 mi
d. 12.9 mi
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
74. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15 dB/km. The attenuation in a cable, 100 ft long
is
a. 4.57 dB
b. 9.3 dB
c. 24 dB
d. 49.2 dB
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
75. Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are linked together.
The total loss is
a. 7.5 dB
b. 19.8 dB
c. 29.1 dB
d. 650 dB
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
76. Which light emitter is preferred for high speed data in a fiber-optic system
a. Incandescent
b. LED
c. Neon
d. Laser
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
77. Most fiber-optic light sources emit light in which spectrum?
a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. Ultraviolet
d. X-ray
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
78. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with
a. Forward bias
b. Reverse bias
c. Neither A or B
d. Either A or B
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
79. Single-frequency light is called
a. Pure
b. Intense
c. Coherent
d. Monochromatic
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
80. Laser light is very bright because it is
a. Pure
b. White
c. Coherent
d. Monochromatic
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
81. Which of the following is NOT a common light detector
a. PIN photodiode
b. Photovoltaic diode
c. Photodiode
d. Avalanche photodiode
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
82. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor
a. PIN photodiode
b. Photovoltaic diode
c. Phototransistor
d. Avalanche photodiode
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
83. Photodiodes operate property with
a. Forward bias
b. Reverse bias
c. Neither A or B
d. Either A or B
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
84. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits km/s.
What is the maximum rate at 5 km?
a. 100 Mbits/s
b. 200 Mbits/s
c. 400 Mbits/s
d. 1000 Gbits/s
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
85. Which fiber-optic system is better?
a. 3 repeaters
b. 8 repeaters
c. 11 repeaters
d. 20 repeaters
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
86. An important requirement for successful transmission system using light
a. Powerful, reliable light source
b. Strong glass
c. Reliable, high cost transmission medium
d. Powerful regenerators
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
87. What is used to block light from a laser and let other light through
a. Neutral density
b. Color
c. Interference
d. Spatial
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
88. ________ is a light that can be coherent
a. Spontaneous emission
b. Monochromatic and in-phase
c. Narrow beam divergence
d. Monochromatic
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
89. Coherence of laser light is important for _________
a. Light propagation
b. Getting laser light to pass through air
c. Drilling holes
d. Holography
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
90. The ultrapure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is approximately ____ pure
a. 99.9 %
b. 99.99 %
c. 99.999 %
d. 99.9999 %
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
91. In fiber optics, PCS stands for
a. Plastic-clad-silica
b. Polyethylene-clad-silica
c. Personal carrier system
d. Personal communication
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
92. How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser’s gain bandwidth?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. No fixed limit, dependent on bandwidth and mode spacing
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
93. _________ is the result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the
glass core molecules
a. Ion resonance absorption
b. Ultraviolet absorption
c. Infrared absorption
d. Absorption loss
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
94. In fiber optics, SCS stands for
a. Suppressed-clad-silicon
b. Silicon base-class-silica
c. Silica-clad-silica
d. Serial-clad-silicon
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
95. Human laser was developed by A. Javen at Bell laboratory in
a. 1960
b. 1962
c. 1963
d. 1964
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
96. What parameter of light detector determines the range or system length that can
be achieved for a given wavelength?
a. Transit time
b. Spectral response
c. Dark current
d. Responsitivity
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
97. Dark current in light detectors is caused by
a. Thermally generated carriers in the diode
b. The absence of light input
c. Small leakage current
d. Its imperfection
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
98. What is the unit of responsitivity?
a. Ampere/volt
b. Ampere/watt
c. Watt/ampere
d. Volts/ampere
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
99. One of the following is not a characteristic of light detectors.
a. Responsitivity
b. Spectral response
c. Transmit time
d. Dispersion
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
100. What is the typical wavelength of light emitted from epitaxially grown LEDs?
a. 840 nm
b. 490 nm
c. 480 nm
d. 940 nm
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
101. SONET stands for
a. System Optical Network
b. Synchronous Optical Network
c. Silica Optic Network
d. System Optical Fiber Net
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
102. Band loss is
a. A reduction in transmitter power caused by earth’s surface curvature
b. A reduction in strength of the signal caused by folded dipole bends
c. An attenuation increase caused by bends radiating from the side of the fiber
d. All of these
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
103. Infrared range for fiber optics
a. 400 – 700 nm
b. 700 – 1200 nm
c. 300 – 2000 nm
d. 400 – 7000 nm
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
1) In an optical fiber communication system, which among the
following is not a typical transmitter function?
a. Coding for error protection
b. Decoding of input data
c. Electrical to optical conversion
d. Recoding to match output standard
ANSWER: (d) Recoding to match output standard
2) Which among the following is provided by an optical receiver for the
regeneration of data signal with minimum error?
a. Photo-diode
b. Signal Processing Circuits
c. Linear Circuitry
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (c) Linear Circuitry
3) For a sine wave, the frequency is represented by the cycles per
______
a. Second
b. Minute
c. Hour
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (a) Second
4) Which property/ies of PCM stream determine/s the fidelity to
original analog signal?
a. Sampling rate
b. Bit depth
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (c) Both a and b
5) In single-mode fibers, how does the fraction of energy traveling
through bound mode appear in the cladding?
a. As a crescent wave
b. As a gibbous wave
c. As an evanescent wave
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) As an evanescent wave
6) What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?
a. 1
b. 1.36
c. 2.6
d. 3.4
ANSWER:(b) 1.36
7) If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an
optically denser medium with high refractive index, then it is regarded
as _______
a. External Reflection
b. Internal Reflection
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (a) External Reflection
8) In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in
describing the ability of __________
a. Light Collection
b. Light Scattering
c. Light Dispersion
d. Light Polarization
ANSWER:(a) Light Collection
9) Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation
process?
a. OVPO
b. MCVD
c. PCVD
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) PCVD
10) Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their similarity to
the periodic crystalline lattice in a semiconductor?
a. Index guiding fiber
b. Photonic bandgap fiber
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Photonic bandgap fiber
11) Which type of fiber optic cable has/have its/their core with the size
of about 480 μm to 980 μm & made up of polymethylmethacrylate
(PMMA)?
a. Glass fiber optic cable
b. Plastic fiber optic cable
c. Plastic clad silica fiber optic cable
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Plastic fiber optic cable
12) In multifiber cable system, which form of outer jacket/s consist/s of
polyolefin compounds and are regarded as halogen free?
a. OFNR
b. OFNP
c. LSZH
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) LSZH
13) During the design of FOC system, which among the following
reasons is/are responsible for an extrinsic absorption?
a. Atomic defects in the composition of glass
b. Impurity atoms in glass material
c. Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Impurity atoms in glass material
14) Which among the following represent/s the measure/s to minimize
the inhomogenities for Mie scattering reduction?
a. Extrusion Control
b. Increase in relative R.I. difference
c. Removal of imperfections due to glass manufacturing process
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above
15) In Kerr effect, induced index change has its proportionality with
respect to _________
a. square of electric field
b. cube of electric field
c. cube root of electric field
d. one-fourth power of electric field
ANSWER: (a) square of electric field
16) Which among the following is regarded as an inelastic scattering of
a photon?
a. Kerr Effect
b. Raman Effect
c. Hall Effect
d. Miller Effect
ANSWER: (b) Raman Effect
17) Which kind/s of misalignment assist/s in the reduction of overlap
region in fiber?
a. Angular
b. Longitudinal
c. Lateral
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Lateral
18) Which is the correct order of sequential steps for an electric arc
fusion technique?
A. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion
B. Application of heat for smoothening of end-surfaces
C. Alignment of broken fiber edges
a. A, B, C
b. B, A, C
c. C, B, A
d. C, A, B
ANSWER: (c) C, B, A
19) Which splicing technique involves the alignment and locking of
broken fiber edges by means of positioning devices & optical cement?
a. Fusion
b. Mechanical
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER:(b) Mechanical
20) By using Springroove splicing technique, what is the value of mean
insertion loss for multi mode graded index fiber?
a. 0.01
b. 0.03
c. 0.05
d. 0.09
ANSWER: (c) 0.05
21) In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and
from fiber to detector must take place with _________coupling
efficiency.
a. maximum
b. stable
c. minimum
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: (a) maximum
22) In spontaneous emission, the light source in an excited state
undergoes the transition to a state with _______
a. Higher energy
b. Moderate energy
c. Lower energy
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Lower energy
23) Which among the following is a key process adopted for the laser
beam formation as it undergoes the light amplification?
a. Spontaneous Emission
b. Stimulated Emission
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Stimulated Emission
24) While coupling of LEDs with fiber, on which factor/s does the size
of source and lighting angle generated within the semiconductor
depend/s?
a. Geometry of die
b. Refractive index of semiconductor
c. Encapsulation Medium
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above
25) Which among the following results in the removal of LED lens
interface for achieving high coupling efficiency?
a. Spherical lens
b. Cylindrical lens
c. Integral lens LED
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Integral lens LED
26) For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 A/W & optical power of
about 12μW, what would be the value of generated photocurrent?
a. 3 μA
b. 6 μA
c. 9 μA
d. 12 μA
ANSWER: (b) 6 μA
27) Which component of an optical receiver is a linear frequency
shaping filter used for the compensation of signal distortion and Inter
Symbol Interference (ISI)?
a. Photodetector
b. Amplifier
c. Equalizer
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (c) Equalizer
28) In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled
analog signals after their quantization into discrete levels?
a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. ASCII
d. Excess-3
ANSWER: (a) Binary
29) Which feature of an eye-diagram assists in the measurement of
additive noise in the signal?
a. Eye opening (height, peak to peak)
b. Eye overshoot/ undershoot
c. Eye width
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (a) Eye opening (height, peak to peak)
30) Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical
link?
a. Link power budget
b. Rise time budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Rise time budget
31) Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width broadening
under the direct modulation of injection current?
a. Modal Noise
b. Mode-partition Noise
c. Frequency Chirping
d. Reflection Noise
ANSWER: (c) Frequency Chirping
32) Speckle pattern is generated due to interference of nodes from a
coherent source especially when the coherence time of source is
_________ the intermodal dispersion time in the fiber.
a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Greater than
33) Which among the following is/are determined by the fiber
characterization?
a. Fiber integrity & performance for desired transmission rate
b. Installation practices
c. Service Implementation
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above
34) From the tests carried out in fiber characterization, which among
the following measures the total light reflected back to the transmitter
caused by the fiber as well as the components like connector pairs and
mechanical splices?
a. ORL
b. OTDR
c. LTS
d. PMD
ANSWER: (a) ORL
35) In fiber fault location, the equation of length (l) for time difference
(t) is expressed as L = ct / 2n1 . Which factor in this equation implies that
the light travels a length from source to break point and then through
another length on the return trip?
a. L
b. c
c. t
d. 2
ANSWER: (d) 2
36) Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero
between each pulse & takes place even due to occurrence of consecutive
0’s & 1’s in the signal?
a. Return-to-zero (RZ)
b. Non-Return to zero space
c. Return to zero inverted
d. Non-return to zero inverted
ANSWER: (a) Return-to-zero (RZ)
37) In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to
total internal ______
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. diffraction
d. dispersion
ANSWER: (a) reflection
38) In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional
strength and prevents the fiber from any damage?
a. Core
b. Cladding
c. Buffer Coating
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (c) Buffer Coating
39) Which is the transmission medium for VLF electromagnetic waves
especially applicable for aeronautical and submarine cables?
a. Paired wires
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Wireless
ANSWER: (a) Paired wires
40) Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of
the fiber?
a. Meridional
b. Skew
c. Leaky
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Skew
41) If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of about 10 μm,
n1 = 1.30, Δ = 0.80% , V = 3.5, then how many modes will it have?
a. 6.125
b. 9.655
c. 12.95
d. 16.55
ANSWER: (a) 6.125
42) Which kind of dispersion phenomenon gives rise to pulse spreading
in single mode fibers?
a. Intramodal
b. Intermodal
c. Material
d. Group Velocity
ANSWER: (a) Intramodal
43) With respect to single mode and graded index fibers, which
parameter specifies the propagation of polarization modes with different
phase velocities & the difference between their effective refractive
indices?
a. Mode field diameter
b. Birefringence
c. Fiber beat length
d. Spot Size
ANSWER: (b) Birefringence
44) On which of the following factor/s do/does the ‘Hydrogen Effect’
depend/s?
a. Type of fiber & Cable Design
b. Operating Wavelength
c. Installation Method
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above
45) Consider the statements given below. Which among them is not a
drawback of double crucible method?
a. Utility in mass production of fibers
b. High attenuation
c. High OH content in drawn fiber
d. Addition of impurity while the fiber is drawn
ANSWER: (a) Utility in mass production of fibers
46) Consider the assertions given below. Which is the correct sequential
order of process adopted in glass fiber preparation?
A. Drawing of fiber
B. Production of pure glass
C. Pulling of fiber
D. Conversion of pure glass into preform
a. B, D, A, C
b. A, B, C, D
c. C, A, D, B
d. D, B, A, C
ANSWER: (a) B, D, A, C
47) At which level of temperature does the oxidation process occur in
MCVD?
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: (c) High
48) Assuming no ISI, the maximum possible bandwidth of a multimode
graded index fiber with 5 MHz, shows the total pulse broadening of 0.1s
for the distance of about 12km. What would be the value of bandwidth
length product?
a. 40 MHz
b. 60 MHz
c. 90 MHz
d. 120 MHz
ANSWER: (b) 60 MHz
49) In Rayleigh scattering of light in glass, at which type of temperature
does the glass attain the state of thermal equilibrium and exhibits its
relativity to annealing temperature?
a. Junction
b. Fictive
c. Breakdown
d. Decomposition
ANSWER: (b) Fictive
50) Which type of scattering occurs due to interaction of light in a
medium with time dependent optical density variations thereby resulting
into the change of energy (frequency) & path?
a. Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)
b. Stimulated Raman Scattering (SRS)
c. Mie Scattering
d. Rayleigh Scattering
ANSWER: (a) Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)

1. Multimode step index fiber has ___________


a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture
2. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber shows as variation of
attenuation in range of ___________
a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.69μm
b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.59μm
c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.85μm
d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.90μm
3. Multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range is ___________
a) 100 to 300 μm
b) 100 to 300 nm
c) 200 to 500 μm
d) 200 to 500 nm
4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of ___________
a) 2 to 30 MHz km
b) 6 to 50 MHz km
c) 10 to 40 MHz km
d) 8 to 40 MHz km
5. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with
___________
a) Lower purity
b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.
c) No impurity
d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.
6. The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are
___________
a) Better than multimode step index fibers
b) Same as multimode step index fibers
c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers
d) Negligible
7. Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode
step index fibers but have core diameters ___________
a) Larger than multimode step index fibers
b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers
c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers
d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers
8. Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical
aperture of 0.29 have core/cladding diameter of ___________
a) 62.5 μm/125 μm
b) 100 μm/140 μm
c) 85 μm/125 μm
d) 50 μm/125μm
9. Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only.
a) True
b) False
10. In single mode fibers, which is the most beneficial index profile?
a) Step index
b) Graded index
c) Step and graded index
d) Coaxial cable
11. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
___________
a) Single mode fibers
b) Multimode step fibers
c) Coaxial cables
d) Multimode graded index fibers
12. Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be
at least ___________
a) Twice the core diameter
b) Thrice the core diameter
c) Five times the core diameter
d) Ten times the core diameter
13. A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is?
a) Coaxial cables
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Standard multimode fibers
d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers
14. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for operation in
___________
a) C-band
b) L-band
c) O-band
d) C-band and L-band
15. Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength transmission in O-band is?
a) Low-water-peak non dispersion-shifted fibers
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Low minimized fibers
d) Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fibers
16. When optical fibers are to be installed in a working environment, the most
important parameter to be considered is?
a) Transmission property of the fiber
b) Mechanical property of the fiber
c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber
d) Numerical aperture of the fiber
17. Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from ___________
a) Plastic
b) Silica or multicomponent glass
c) Ceramics
d) Copper
18. ____________ results from small lateral forces exerted on the fiber during the
cabling process.
a) Attenuation
b) Micro-bending
c) Dispersion
d) Stimulated Emission
19. Microscopic meandering of the fiber core axis that is micro-bending is caused due
to ___________
a) Environmental effects
b) Rough edges of the fiber
c) Large diameter of core
d) Polarization
20. What does micro-bending losses depend on _____________
a) Core material
b) Refractive index
c) Diameter
d) Mode and wavelength
21. The fiber should be________________ to avoid deterioration of the optical
transmission characteristics resulting from mode-coupling-induced micro-
bending.
a) Free from irregular external pressure
b) Coupled with plastic
c) Large in diameter
d) Smooth and in a steady state
22. The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber affects the ______________
a) Transmission of optical light in the fiber
b) Spectral attenuation characteristics of the fiber
c) Core of the fiber
d) Cladding of the fiber
23. __________ can induce a considerable amount of attenuation in optical fibers.
a) Micro-bending
b) Dispersion
c) Diffusion of hydrogen
d) Radiation Exposure
24. The ratio r = (n1 – n)/(n1 – n) indicates ____________
a) Fresnel reflection
b) Reflection coefficient
c) Refraction coefficient
d) Angular power distribution coefficient
25. Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter, numerical aperture,
relative refractive index differences, different refractive index profiles, fiber faults
are known as ____________
a) Intrinsic joint losses
b) Extrinsic losses
c) Insertion losses
d) Coupling losses
26. A step index fiber has a coupling efficiency of 0.906 with uniform illumination of
all propagation modes. Find the insertion loss due to lateral misalignment?
a) 0.95 dB
b) 0.40 dB
c) 0.42 dB
d) 0.62 Db
Loss10t = -10log10t η10t
Where, Loss10t = insertion loss due to lateral misalignment
η10t = Coupling efficiency.
27. A graded index fiber has a parabolic refractive index profile (α=2) and core
diameter of 42μm. Estimate an insertion loss due to a 2 μm lateral misalignment
when there is index matching and assuming there is uniform illumination of all
guided modes only.
a) 0.180
b) 0.106
c) 0.280
d) 0.080
Lt = 0.85(y/a)
Where y = lateral misalignment
a = core radius.
28. In a single mode fiber, the losses due to lateral offset and angular misalignment
are given by 0.20 dB and 0.46 dB respectively. Find the total insertion loss.
a) 0.66 dB
b) 0.26 dB
c) 0.38 dB
d) 0.40 dB
TT = TL + Ta
Where, TT = total insertion loss
TL = lateral offset loss
Ta = Angular misalignment loss.
29. A permanent joint formed between two different optical fibers in the field is
known as a ____________
a) Fiber splice
b) Fiber connector
c) Fiber attenuator
d) Fiber dispersion
30. The insertion losses of the fiber splices are much less than the Fresnel reflection
loss at a butted fiber joint.
a) True
b) False
31. The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing point with the
application of required axial pressure between the two optical fibers is called as
____________
a) Mechanical splicing
b) Fusion splicing
c) Melting
d) Diffusion
32. Average insertion losses as low as _________ have been obtained with
multimode graded index and single-mode fibers using ceramic capillaries.
a) 0.1 dB
b) 0.5 dB
c) 0.02 dB
d) 0.3 dB
33. _____________ are formed by sandwiching the butted fiber ends between a V-
groove glass substrate and a flat glass retainer plate.
a) Springroove splices
b) V-groove splices
c) Elastic splices
d) Fusion splices
34. When considering source-to-fiber coupling efficiencies, the ________ is an
important parameter than total output power.
a) Numerical aperture
b) Radiance of an optical source
c) Coupling efficiency
d) Angular power distribution
35. It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch
fibers.
a) Optical fiber coupler
b) Optical fiber splice
c) Optical fiber connector
d) Optical isolator
36. Optical fiber couplers are also called as ________________
a) Isolators
b) Circulators
c) Directional couplers
d) Attenuators
37. The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is limited by ____________
a) Numerical apertures of fibers
b) Varying refractive index of fibers
c) Angular power distribution at source
d) Number of modes propagating in each fiber
38. ________ couplers combine the different wavelength optical signal onto the fiber
or separate the different wavelength optical signal output from the fiber.
a) 3-port
b) 2*2-star
c) WDM
d) Directional
39. Which is the most common method for manufacturing couplers?
a) Wavelength division multiplexing
b) Lateral offset method
c) Semitransparent mirror method
d) Fused bi-conical taper (FBT) technique
40. A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μW optical power launched into
port 1. The measured output power at ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5
μW respectively. Determine the excess loss.
a) 0.22 dB
b) 0.33 dB
c) 0.45 dB
d) 0.12 dB
Excess loss = 10log10 P1/(P3+P4)
WhereP1, P3, P4 = output power at ports 1,3 and 4 resp.
41. A four-port FBT coupler has 60μW optical power launched into port one. The
output powers at ports 2, 3, 4 are 0.0025, 18, and 22 μW respectively. Find the
split ratio?
a) 42%
b) 46%
c) 52%
d) 45%
Split ratio = [P3/(P3+P4)]*100%
Where P3 and P4 are output powers at ports 3 and 4 respectively.
42. Calculate the splitting loss if a 30×30 port multimode fiber star coupler has 1 mW
of optical power launched into an input port.
a) 13 dB
b) 15 dB
c) 14.77 dB
d) 16.02 dB
Splitting loss (Star coupler) = 10log10N (dB).
43. A number of three-port single-mode fiber couplers are used in the fabrication of
a ladder coupler with 16 output ports. The three-port couplers each have an
excess loss of 0.2 dB along with a splice loss of 0.1 dB at the interconnection of
each stage. Determine the excess loss.
a) 1.9 dB
b) 1.4 dB
c) 0.9 dB
d) 1.1 dB
Excess loss = (M×loss in each 3-port coupler) + (Number of splices×Loss in each
stage)
Where number of splices = 3 (as the value of M is equal to 4).
44. A device which is made of isolators and follows a closed loop path is called as a
____________
a) Circulator
b) Gyrator
c) Attenuator
d) Connector
45. The commercially available circulators exhibit insertion losses around
________________
a) 2 dB
b) 0.7 dB
c) 0.2 dB
d) 1 dB
46. A device which converts electrical energy in the form of a current into optical
energy is called as ___________
a) Optical source
b) Optical coupler
c) Optical isolator
d) Circulator
47. How many types of sources of optical light are available?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
48. The frequency of the absorbed or emitted radiation is related to difference in
energy E between the higher energy state E2 and the lower energy state E1. State
what h stands for in the given equation?
E = E2 - E1 = hf
a)Gravitation constant
b) Planck’s constant
c) Permittivity
d) Attenuation constant
49. The radiation emission process (emission of a proton at frequency) can occur in
__________ ways.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
50. An incandescent lamp is operating at a temperature of 1000K at an operating
frequency of 5.2×1014 Hz. Calculate the ratio of stimulated emission rate to
spontaneous emission rate.
a) 3×10-13
b) 1.47×10-11
c) 2×10-12
d) 1.5×10-13
Stimulated emission rate/ Spontaneous emission rate = 1/exp (hf/KT)-1.
51. The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper level under the
conditions of ________________
a) Isothermal packaging
b) Population inversion
c) Thermal equilibrium
d) Pumping
52. __________________ in the laser occurs when photon colliding with an excited
atom causes the stimulated emission of a second photon.
a) Light amplification
b) Attenuation
c) Dispersion
d) Population inversion
53. A ruby laser has a crystal of length 3 cm with a refractive index of 1.60,
wavelength 0.43 μm. Determine the number of longitudinal modes.
a) 1×102
b) 3×106
c) 2.9×105
d) 2.2×105
q = 2nL/λ
Where
q = Number of longitudinal modes
n = Refractive index
L = Length of the crystal
λ = Peak emission wavelength.
54. A semiconductor laser crystal of length 5 cm, refractive index 1.8 is used as an
optical source. Determine the frequency separation of the modes.
a) 2.8 GHz
b) 1.2 GHz
c) 1.6 GHz
d) 2 GHz
δf = c/2nL
Where
c = velocity of light
n = Refractive index
L = Length of the crystal.
55. A perfect semiconductor crystal containing no impurities or lattice defects is
called as __________
a) Intrinsic semiconductor
b) Extrinsic semiconductor
c) Excitation
d) Valence electron
56. The energy-level occupation for a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is
described by the __________
a) Boltzmann distribution function
b) Probability distribution function
c) Fermi-Dirac distribution function
d) Cumulative distribution function
57. What is done to create an extrinsic semiconductor?
a) Refractive index is decreased
b) Doping the material with impurities
c) Increase the band-gap of the material
d) Stimulated emission
58. The majority of the carriers in a p-type semiconductor are __________
a) Holes
b) Electrons
c) Photons
d) Neutrons
59. _________________ is used when the optical emission results from the
application of electric field.
a) Radiation
b) Efficiency
c) Electro-luminescence
d) Magnetron oscillator
60. How many types of hetero-junctions are available?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Four
61. The ______________ system is best developed and is used for fabricating both
lasers and LEDs for the shorter wavelength region.
a) InP
b) GaSb
c) GaAs/GaSb
d) GaAs/Alga AS DH
62. P-n photodiode is forward biased.
a) True
b) False
63. The depletion region must be ____________ to allow a large fraction of the
incident light to be absorbed in the device(photodiode).
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Long
d) Inactive
64. The process of excitation of an electron from valence band to conduction band
leaves an empty hole in the valence band and is called as ____________
a) Detection
b) Absorption
c) Degeneration of an electron-hole pair
d) Regeneration of an electron-hole pair
65. __________________ always leads to the generation of a hole and an electron.
a) Repulsion
b) Dispersion
c) Absorption
d) Attenuation
66. The electron hole pairs generated in a photodiode are separated by the
____________
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Static field
d) Depletion region
67. The photocurrent of an optical detector should be __________
a) Less
b) More
c) Linear
d) Non-linear
68. How many types of optical detectors are available?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
69. The absorption of photons in a photodiode is dependent on __________
a) Absorption Coefficient α0
b) Properties of material
c) Charge carrier at junction
d) Amount of light
70. The photocurrent in a photodiode is directly proportional to absorption
coefficient.
a) True
b) False
71. The absorption coefficient of semiconductor materials is strongly dependent on
__________
a) Properties of material
b) Wavelength
c) Amount of light
d) Amplitude
72. In optical fiber communication, the only weakly absorbing material over
wavelength band required is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
73. The threshold for indirect absorption occurs at wavelength __________
a) 3.01 μm
b) 2.09 μm
c) 0.92 μm
d) 1.09 μm
74. The semiconductor material for which the lowest energy absorption takes place
is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
75. The wavelength range of interest for Germanium is __________
a) 0.8 to 1.6 μm
b) 0.3 to 0.9 μm
c) 0.4 to 0.8 μm
d) 0.9 to 1.8 μm
76. A photodiode should be chosen with a ________________ less than photon
energy.
a) Direct absorption
b) Band gap energy
c) Wavelength range
d) Absorption coefficient
77. ________________ photodiodes have large dark currents.
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
78. For fabrication of semiconductor photodiodes, there is a drawback while
considering _________________
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
79. _________________ materials are potentially superior to germanium.
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) III – V alloys
80. ____________ alloys such as InGaAsP and GaAsSb deposited on InP and GaSb
substrate.
a) Ternary
b) Quaternary
c) Gain-guided
d) III – V alloys
81. _________________ alloys can be fabricated in hetero-junction structures.
a) InGaSb
b) III – V alloys
c) InGaAsP
d) GaAsSb
82. The alloys lattice matched to InP responds to wavelengths up to 1.7μm is?
a) InAsSb
b) III – V alloys
c) InGaSb
d) InGaAs
83. The fraction of incident photons generated by photodiode of electrons generated
collected at detector is known as ___________________
a) Quantum efficiency
b) Absorption coefficient
c) Responsivity
d) Anger recombination
84. In photo detectors, energy of incident photons must be ________________ band
gap energy.
a) Lesser than
b) Greater than
c) Same as
d) Negligible
85. GaAs has band gap energy of 1.93 eV at 300 K. Determine wavelength above
which material will cease to operate.
a) 2.431*10-5
b) 6.424*10-7
c) 6.023*103
d) 7.234*10-7
The long wavelength cutoff is given by
λc = hc/Eg = 6.6268*10-34*2.998*108/1.93*1.602*10-19
= 6.424*10-7μm.
86. The long cutoff wavelength of GaAs is 0.923 μm. Determine bandgap energy.
a) 1.478*10-7
b) 4.265*10-14
c) 2.784*10-9
d) 2.152*10-19
λc = hc/Eg
Eg = hc/λc = 6.6268*10-34*2.998*108/0.923*10-6
= 2.152*10-19eV.
87. Quantum efficiency is a function of photon wavelength.
a) True
b) False
88. Determine quantum efficiency if incident photons on photodiodes is 4*1011 and
electrons collected at terminals is 1.5*1011?
a) 50%
b) 37.5%
c) 25%
d) 30%
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by
Quantum Efficiency = No. of electrons collected/No. of incident photons
= 1.5*1011/4*1011
= 0.375 * 100
= 37.5%.
89. A photodiode has quantum efficiency of 45% and incident photons are 3*1011.
Determine electrons collected at terminals of device.
a) 2.456*109
b) 1.35*1011
c) 5.245*10-7
d) 4.21*10-3
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by
Quantum efficiency = No. of electrons collected/No. of incident photons
Electrons collected = Quantum efficiency * number of incident photons
= 45/100 * 3*1011
= 1.35*1011.
90. The quantum efficiency of photodiode is 40% with wavelength of 0.90*10-6.
Determine the responsivity of photodiodes.
a) 0.20
b) 0.52
c) 0.29
d) 0.55
Explanation: Responsivity of photodiodes is given by
R = ηe λ/hc
= 0.4*1.602*10-19 * 0.90*10-6/6.626*10-34 * 3*108
= 0.29 AW-1.
91. The Responsivity of photodiode is 0.294 AW-1at wavelength of 0.90 μm.
Determine quantum efficiency.
a) 0.405
b) 0.914
c) 0.654
d) 0.249
Explanation: Responsivity of photodiode is
R = ηe λ/hc
η = RXhc/eλ
= 0.294*6.626*10-34*3*108/ 1.602*10-19*0.90*108
= 0.405 AW-1.
92. Determine wavelength of photodiode having quantum efficiency of 40% and
Responsivity of 0.304 AW-1.
a) 0.87 μm
b) 0.91 μm
c) 0.88 μm
d) 0.94 μm
The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = ηe λ/hc
λ = Rhc/ηe
= 0.304*6.626*10-34*3*108/0.4*1.602*10-19
= 0.94 μm.
93. Determine wavelength at which photodiode is operating if energy of photons is
1.9*10-19J?
a) 2.33
b) 1.48
c) 1.04
d) 3.91
Explanation: To determine wavelength,
λ = hc/t
= 6.626*10-34*3*108/1.9*10-19
= 1.04 μm
94. Determine the energy of photons incident on a photodiode if it operates at a
wavelength of 1.36 μm.
a) 1.22*10-34J
b) 1.46*10-19J
c) 6.45*10-34J
d) 3.12*109J
Explanation: The wavelength of photodiode is given by
λ = hc/t
E = hc/λ
= 6.626*10-34*3*108/1.36*10-6
= 1.46*10-19J.
95. Determine Responsivity of photodiode having o/p power of 3.55 μm and photo
current of 2.9 μm.
a) 0.451
b) 0.367
c) 0.982
d) 0.816
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = Ip/Po
= 2.9*10-6/3.55*10-6
= 0.816 A/W.
96. Determine incident optical power on a photodiode if it has photocurrent of 2.1 μA
and responsivity of 0.55 A/W.
a) 4.15
b) 1.75
c) 3.81
d) 8.47
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = Ip/Po
Po = Ip/R
= 2.1*10-6/0.55
= 3.81 μm.
97. If a photodiode requires incident optical power of 0.70 A/W. Determine
photocurrent.
a) 1.482
b) 2.457
c) 4.124
d) 3.199
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is given by
R = Ip/Po
Ip = R*Po
= 0.70*3.51*10-6
= 2.457μm.
98. _____________ refers to any spurious or undesired disturbances that mask the
received signal in a communication system.
a) Attenuation
b) Noise
c) Dispersion
d) Bandwidth
99. ______________ is caused due to thermal interaction between the free electrons
and the vibrating ions in the conduction medium.
a) Thermal noise
b) Dark noise
c) Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise
100. A digital optical fiber communication system requires a maximum bit-
error-rate of 10-9. Find the average number of photons detected in a time period
for a given BER.
a) 19.7
b) 21.2
c) 20.7
d) 26.2
Explanation: The probability of error is given by-
P(e) = exp(-Zm)
Where, Zm = No. of photons
Here P(e) = 10-9, therefore Zm is calculated from above relation.
101. For a given optical fiber communication system, P(e) = 10 -9, Zm = 20.7, f
= 2.9×1014, η = 1. Find the minimum pulse energy or quantum limit.
a) 3.9×10-18
b) 4.2×10-18
c) 6.2×10-14
d) 7.2×10-14
Explanation: The minimum pulse energy or quantum limit is given by –
Emin = Zmhf/η
Where, Zm = Number of photons
h = Planck’s constant
f = frequency
η = Quantum efficiency.
102. An analog optical fiber system operating at wavelength 1μmhas a post-
detection bandwidth of 5MHz. Assuming an ideal detector and incident power of
198 nW, calculate the SNR (f = 2.99×1014Hz).
a) 46
b) 40
c) 50
d) 52
Explanation: The SNR is given by –
S/N = ηP0/2hfB
Where, η = 1 (for ideal detector)
P0 = incident power
h = Planck’s constant
B = Bandwidth.
103. The incident optical power required to achieve a desirable SNR is
168.2nW. What is the value of incident power in dBm?
a) -37.7 dBm
b) -37 dBm
c) – 34 dBm
d) -38.2 dBm
Explanation: Incident power in denoted by P0. It is given by –
P0 = 10log10(P0(watts))
Where P0(watts) = incident power in Watts/milliWatt.
104. Which are the two main sources of noise in photodiodes without internal
gain?
a) Gaussian noise and dark current noise
b) Internal noise and external noise
c) Dark current noise & Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise and Quantum noise
105. The dominating effect of thermal noise over the shot noise in photodiodes
without internal gain can be observed in wideband systems operating in the
range of ________
a) 0.4 to 0.5 μm
b) 0.8 to 0.9 μm
c) 0.3 to 0.4 μm
d) 0.7 to 0.79 μm

106. A silicon p-i-n photodiode incorporated in an optical receiver has following


parameters:

Quantum efficiency = 70%

Wavelength = 0.8 μm

Dark current = 3nA

Load resistance = 4 kΩ

Incident optical power = 150nW.

Bandwidth = 5 MHz

Compute the photocurrent in the device.

Compute the photocurrent in the device.

a) 67.7nA

b) 81.2nA
c) 68.35nA

d) 46.1nA

Explanation: The photocurrent is given by

Ip = ηP0eλ/hc

Where η = Quantum efficiency

P0 = Incident optical power

e = electron charge

λ = Wavelength

h = Planck’s constant

c = Velocity of light.
107. In a silicon p-i-n photodiode, if load resistance is 4 kΩ, temperature is 293 K,
bandwidth is 4MHz, find the thermal noise in the load resistor.

108. a) 1.8 × 10-16A2

109. b) 1.23 × 10-17A2

110. c) 1.65 × 10-16A2

111. d) 1.61 × 10-17A2

Explanation: The thermal noise in the load resistor is given by –

it2 = 4KTB/RL

Where T = Temperature

B = Bandwidth

RL = Load resistance.

112. A photodiode has a capacitance of 6 pF. Calculate the maximum load


resistance which allows an 8MHz post detection bandwidth.

113. a) 3.9 kΩ

114. b) 3.46 kΩ

115. c) 3.12 kΩ

116. d) 3.32 kΩ
Explanation: The load resistance is given by-

RL = 1/2πCdB

Where

B = Post detection bandwidth

Cd = Input capacitance

RL = Load resistance.

117. The internal gain mechanism in an APD is directly related to SNR. State
whether the given statement is true or false.

118. a) True

119. b) False

120. ___________ is dependent upon the detector material, the shape of the
electric field profile within the device.

121. a) SNR

122. b) Excess avalanche noise factor

123. c) Noise gradient


124. For silicon APDs, the value of excess noise factor is between _________

125. a) 0.001 and 0.002

126. b) 0.5 and 0.7

127. c) 0.02 and 0.10

128. d) 1 and 2

129. How many design considerations are considered while determining the receiver
performance?

130. a) Three

131. b) Two

132. c) One

133. d) Four

134. FET preamplifiers provide higher sensitivity than the Si-bipolar device.

135. a) True

136. b) False

137. What is the abbreviation of HBT?

138. a) Homo-junction unipolar transistor


139. b) Homo-junction bipolar transistor

140. c) Hetero-junction bipolar transistor

141. d) Hetero-Bandwidth transcendence

142. What type of receivers are used to provide wideband operation, low-noise
operation?

143. a) APD optical receivers

144. b) Optoelectronic integrated circuits (OEICs)

145. c) MESFET receivers

146. d) Trans-impedance front-end receivers

147. ___________ circuits extends the dynamic range of the receiver.

148. a) Monolithic

149. b) Trans-impedance

150. c) Automatic Error Control (AEC)

151. d) Automatic Gain Control (AGC)

152. What is generally used to determine the receiver performance characteristics?

153. a) Noise

154. b) Resistor
155. c) Dynamic range & sensitivity characteristics

156. d) Impedance

157. The __________ technique eliminates the thermal noise associated with the
feedback resistor in the trans-impedance front end design.

158. a) Compensation

159. b) Resonating impedance

160. c) Electromagnetic

161. d) Optical feedback

162. The removal of the feedback resistor in the optical feedback technique allows
reciever sensitivity of the order of _______________

163. a) -54 dBm at 2Mbit/sec

164. b) -12 dBm at 2Mbit/sec

165. c) -64 dBm at 2Mbit/sec

166. d) -72 dBm at 2Mbit/sec

167. The optimum filter bandwidth is typically in the range ________________

168. a) 0.1 to 0.3 nm

169. b) 0.5 to 3 nm
170. c) 0.1 to 0.3 μm

171. d) 0.5 to 3 μm

172. For linear as well as in nonlinear mode _______________ are most important
network elements.

173. a) Optical amplifier

174. b) Optical detector

175. c) A/D converter

176. d) D/A converters

177. The more advantages optical amplifier is ____________

178. a) Fiber amplifier

179. b) Semiconductor amplifier

180. c) Repeaters

181. d) Mode hooping amplifier

182. ________________ cannot be used for wideband amplification.

183. a) Semiconductor optical amplifier

184. b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier


185. c) Raman fiber amplifier

186. d) Brillouin fiber amplifier

187. ____________ is used preferably for channel selection in a WDM system.

188. a) Semiconductor optical amplifier

189. b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier

190. c) Raman fiber amplifier

191. d) Brillouin fiber amplifier

192. For used in single-mode fiber __________ are used preferably.

193. a) Semiconductor optical amplifier

194. b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier

195. c) Raman fiber amplifier

196. d) Brillouin fiber amplifier

197. Mostly ____________ are used in nonlinear applications.

198. a) Semiconductor optical amplifier

199. b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier


200. c) Raman fiber amplifier

201. d) FPAs

202. _______________ is superior as compared to _________________

203. a) TWA, FPA

204. b) FPA, TWA

205. c) EDFA, FPA

206. d) FPA, EDFA

207. An uncoated FPA has peak gain wavelength 1.8μm, mode spacing of 0.8nm,
and long active region of 300 v. Determine RI of active medium.

208. a) 4.25×106

209. b) 3.75×107

210. c) 3.95×107

211. d) 4.25×109

Explanation: n=λ2/2δλL=1.8×10-6/2×0.8×10-9×300×10-6=3.75×107.

212. Determine the peak gain wavelength of uncoated FPA having mode spacing of
2nm,and 250μmlong active region and R.I of 3.78.
a)2.25×10-4
b)4.53×10-8
c)1.94×10-6
d)4.25×109
Explanation: The peak gain wavelength is given by
λ2=n2δλL=3.78×2×2×10-9×250×10-6=1.94×10-6m.
213. An SOA has net gain coefficient of 300, at a gain of 30dB. Determine length of
SOA.
a) 0.32 m
b) 0.023 m
c) 0.245 m
d) 0.563 m
Explanation: The length of SOA is determined by
L = Gs(dB)/10×g×loge = 30/10×300×0.434`= 0.023 m.
214. An SOA has length of 35.43×10-3m, at 30 dB gain. Determine net gain
coefficient.
a) 5.124×10-3
b) 1.12×10-4
c) 5.125×10-3
d) 2.15×10-5
215. An SOA has mode number of 2.6, spontaneous emission factor of 4, optical
bandwidth of 1 THz. Determine noise power spectral density.
a) 1.33×10-3
b) 5.13×1012
c) 3.29×10-6
d) 0.33×10-9
Explanation: The noise power spectral density Past is
Past = mnsp(Gs-1) hfb
= 2.6×4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1×1012
= 1.33×10-3W.
216. An SOA has noise power spectral density of 1.18mW, spontaneous emission
factor of 4, optical bandwidth of 1.5 THz. Determine mode number.
a) 1.53 × 1028
b) 6.14 × 1012
c) 1.78 × 1016
d) 4.12 × 10-3
Explanation: The mode number is determined by
m = Past/nsp(Gs-1) hfB
= 1.18×10-3/4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1.3×1012
= 1.53 × 10-

Multiple Choice Questions


____________________________________________
BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems )
Topic : Fibre Optic Communication
UNIT I: Light wave System Components
1. Questions & Answers on Optical Fiber Waveguides
The section contains questions and answers on ray theory,
electromagnetic mode theory, cylindrical and single mode fibers, crystal
fibers and attenuation.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Ray Theory Transmission”.
1. Who proposed the idea of transmission of light via dielectric waveguide structure?
a) Christian Huygens
b) Karpon and Bockham
c) Hondros and debye
d) Albert Einstein
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It was in the beginning of 20th century where Hondros and debye theoretical and
experimental study demonstrated that information can be transferred as a form of light through a
dielectric waveguide.
2. Who proposed the use of clad waveguide structure?
a) Edward Appleton
b) Schriever
c) Kao and Hockham
d) James Maxwell
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The invention of clad waveguide structure raised the eyebrows of the scientists. The
proposals by Kao and Hockham proved beneficial leading in utilization of optical fibre as a
communication medium.
3. Which law gives the relationship between refractive index of the dielectric?
a) Law of reflection
b) Law of refraction (Snell’s Law)
c) Millman’s Law
d) Huygen’s Law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Snell’s Law of refraction states that the angle of incidence Ø1 and refraction Ø2 are
related to each other and to refractive index of the dielectrics.
It is given by n1sinØ1 = n2sinØ2
where n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of two mediums. Ø1 and Ø2 are angles of incidence
and refraction.
4. The light sources used in fibre optics communication are ____________
a) LED’s and Lasers
b) Phototransistors
c) Xenon lights
d) Incandescent
View Answer
5. The ________ ray passes through the axis of the fiber core.
a) Reflected
b) Refracted
c) Meridional
d) Shew
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When a light ray is passed through a perfect optical fiber, any discontinuities at the
core cladding interface would result in refraction rather than total internal reflection. Such light
ray passes through the axis of fiber core and is called as meridional ray. This principle is used
while stating the fundamental transmission properties of optical fiber.
6. Light incident on fibers of angles________the acceptance angle do not propagate into the
fiber.
a) Less than
b) Greater than
c) Equal to
d) Less than and equal to
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Acceptance angle is the maximum angle at which light may enter into the fiber in
order to be propagated. Hence the light incident on the fiber is less than the acceptance angle, the
light will propagate in the fiber and will be lost by radiation.
7. What is the numerical aperture of the fiber if the angle of acceptance is 16 degree?
a) 0.50
b) 0.36
c) 0.20
d) 0.27
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The numerical aperture of a fiber is related to the angle of acceptance as follows:
NA = sin Ѳa
Where NA = numerical aperture
Ѳ = acceptance angle.
8. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another medium is called as
_________
a) Speed factor
b) Dielectric constant
c) Reflection index
d) Refraction index
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a ray travels from one medium to another, the ray incident from a light
source is called as incident ray. In passing through, the speed varies. The ratio of the speed of
incident and the refracted ray in different medium is called refractive index.
9. When a ray of light enters one medium from another medium, which quality will not change?
a) Direction
b) Frequency
c) Speed
d) Wavelength
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The electric and the magnetic field have to remain continuous at the refractive
index boundary. If the frequency is changed, the light at the boundary would change its phase
and the fields won’t match. In order to match the field, frequency won’t change
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Single-Mode Fibers”.
1. An optical fiber has core-index of 1.480 and a cladding index of 1.478. What should be the
core size for single mode operation at 1310nm?
a) 7.31μm
b) 8.71μm
c) 5.26μm
d) 6.50μm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Normalized frequency V<=2.405 is the value at which the lowest order Bessel
function J=0. Core size(radius) .
2. An optical fiber has a core radius 2μm and a numerical aperture of 0.1. Will this fiber operate
at single mode at 600 nm?
a) Yes
b) No
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: V= 2πa.NA/λ. Calculating this equation, we get the value of V. V is the normalised
frequency and should be below 2.405 in order to operate the fiber at single mode. Here,
V=2.094, is less than 2.405. Thus, this optical fiber exhibit single mode operation.
3. What is needed to predict the performance characteristics of single mode fibers?
a) The intermodal delay effect
b) Geometric distribution of light in a propagating mode
c) Fractional power flow in the cladding of fiber
d) Normalized frequency
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A mode field diameter (MFD) is a fundamental parameter of single mode fibers. It
tells us about the geometric distribution of light. MFD is analogous to core diameter in
multimode fibers, except in single mode fibers not all the light that propagates is carried in the
core.
4. Which equation is used to calculate MFD?
a) Maxwell’s equations
b) Peterman equations
c) Allen Cahn equations
d) Boltzmann’s equations
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mode field diameter is an important parameter for single mode fibers because it is
used to predict fiber properties such as splice loss, bending loss. The standard technique is to first
measure the far-field intensity distribution and then calculating mode field diameter using
Peterman equations.
5. A single mode fiber has mode field diameter 10.2μm and V=2.20. What is the core diameter
of this fiber?
a) 11.1μm
b) 13.2μm
c) 7.6μm
d) 10.1μm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For a single mode fiber, MFD=2w0. Here, core radius
Solving this equation, we get a=5.05μm. Corediameter=
2a=10.1μm.
6. The difference between the modes’ refractive indices is called as ___________
a) Polarization
b) Cutoff
c) Fiber birefringence
d) Fiber splicing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two propagation modes in single mode fibers. These two modes are
similar but their polarization planes are orthogonal. In actual fibers, there are imperfections such
as variations in refractive index profiles. These modes propagate with different phase velocities
and their difference is given by B f =ny – nx. Here, ny and nx are refractive indices of two modes.
7. A single mode fiber has a beat length of 4cm at 1200nm. What is birefringence?
a) 2*10-5
b) 1.2*10-5
c) 3*10-5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bf=ny– nx = λ/Lp. Here, λ=wavelength and Lp = beat length. Solving this equation,
we will get the answer.
8. How many propagation modes are present in single mode fibers?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a given optical fiber, the number of modes depends on the dimensions of the
cable and the variations of the indices of refraction of both core and cladding across the cross
section. Thus, for a single mode fiber, there are two independent, degenerate propagation modes
with their polarization planes orthogonal.
9. Numerical aperture is constant in case of step index fiber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Numerical aperture is a measure of acceptance angle of a fiber. It also gives the
light gathering capacity of the fiber. For a single mode fiber, core is of constant refractive index.
There is no variation with respect to core. Thus, Numerical aperture is constant for single mode
fibers.
10. Plastic fibers are less widely used than glass fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The majority of the fibers are made up of glass consisting of silica. Plastic fibers
are used for short distance transmissions unlike glass fibers which can also be used for long haul
applications. Also, plastic fibers have higher attenuation than glass fibers.
This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers focuses on
“Electromagnetic Mode Theory for Optical Propagation”.
1. Which equations are best suited for the study of electromagnetic wave propagation?
a) Maxwell’s equations
b) Allen-Cahn equations
c) Avrami equations
d) Boltzmann’s equations
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electromagnetic mode theory finds its basis in electromagnetic waves.
Electromagnetic waves are always represented in terms of electric field E, magnetic field H,
electric flux density D and magnetic flux density B. These set of equations are provided by
Maxwell’s equations.
2. When λ is the optical wavelength in vacuum, k is given by k=2Π/λ. What does k stand for in
the above equation?
a) Phase propagation constant
b) Dielectric constant
c) Boltzmann’s constant
d) Free-space constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the above equation, k = 2Π/λ, also termed as wave equation, k gives us the
direction of propagation and also the rate of change of phase with distance. Hence it is termed as
phase propagation constant.
3. Constructive interference occur when total phase change after two successive reflections at
upper and lower interfaces is equal to? (Where m is integer)
a) 2Πm
b) Πm
c) Πm/4
d) Πm/6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The component of phase waves which is in x direction is reflected at the
interference between the higher and lower refractive index media. It is assumed that such an
interference forms a lowest order standing wave, where electric field is maximum at the center of
the guide, decaying towards zero.
4. When light is described as an electromagnetic wave, it consists of a periodically varying
electric E and magnetic field H which are oriented at an angle?
a) 90 degree to each other
b) Less than 90 degree
c) Greater than 90 degree
d) 180 degree apart
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In case of electromagnetic wave which occur only in presence of both electric and
magnetic field, a particular change in magnetic field will result in a proportional change in
electric field and vice versa. These changes result in formation of electromagnetic waves and for
electromagnetic waves to occur both fields should be perpendicular to each other in direction of
wave travelling.
5. A monochromatic wave propagates along a waveguide in z direction. These points of constant
phase travel in constant phase travel at a phase velocity V p is given by?
a) Vp=ω/β
b) Vp=ω/c
c) Vp=C/N
d) Vp=mass/acceleration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Velocity is a function of displacement. Phase velocity Vp is a measure of angular
velocity.
6. Which is the most important velocity in the study of transmission characteristics of optical
fiber?
a) Phase velocity
b) Group velocity
c) Normalized velocity
d) Average velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Group velocity is much important in relation to transmission characteristics of
optical fiber. This is because the optical wave propagates in groups or form of packets of light.
7. What is refraction?
a) Bending of light waves
b) Reflection of light waves
c) Diffusion of light waves
d) Refraction of light waves
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unlike reflection, refraction involves penetration of a light wave from one medium
to another. While penetrating, as it passes through another medium it gets deviated at some
angle.
8. The phenomenon which occurs when an incident wave strikes an interface at an angle greater
than the critical angle with respect to the normal to the surface is called as ____________
a) Refraction
b) Partial internal reflection
c) Total internal reflection
d) Limiting case of refraction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Total internal reflection takes place when the light wave is in the more dense
medium and approaching towards the less dense medium. Also, the angle of incidence is greater
than the critical angle. Critical angle is an angle beyond which no propagation takes place in an
optical fiber.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Cylindrical Fiber”.
1. A multimode step index fiber has a normalized frequency of 72. Estimate the number of
guided modes.
a) 2846
b) 2592
c) 2432
d) 2136
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A step-index fiber has a constant refractive index core. The number of guided
modes in a step-index fiber are given by M = (V*V)/2. Here M denotes the number of modes and
V denotes normalized frequency.
2. A graded-index fiber has a core with parabolic refractive index profile of diameter of 30μm,
NA=0.2, λ=1μm. Estimate the normalised frequency.
a) 19.32
b) 18.84
c) 16.28
d) 17.12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Normalized frequency for a graded index fiber is given by V = 2Πa(NA)/λ.
Substituting and calculating the values, we get option 18.84. Here, V denotes normalized
frequency and NA = numerical aperture.
3. A step-index fiber has core refractive index 1.46 and radius 4.5μm. Find the cutoff wavelength
to exhibit single mode operation. Use relative index difference as 0.25%.
a) 1.326μm
b) 0.124μm
c) 1.214μm
d) 0.123μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cutoff wavelength is the wavelength beyond which no single mode operation
takes place. On solving λc = 2Πan1 2Δ−−−√/V, we get option c. Here, V=2.405, n1 =
refractive index of core, a=radius of core.
4. A single-mode step-index fiber or multimode step-index fiber allows propagation of only one
transverse electromagnetic wave.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode step index fiber is also called as mono-mode step index fiber. As the
name suggests, only one mode is transmitted and hence it has the distinct advantage of low
intermodal dispersion.
5. One of the given statements is true for intermodal dispersion. Choose the right one.
a) Low in single mode and considerable in multimode fiber
b) Low in both single mode and multimode fiber
c) High in both single mode and multimode fiber
d) High in single mode and low in multimode fiber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode propagates only one wave or only one mode is transmitted. Therefore,
intermodal dispersion is low in single mode. In multimode fibers, higher dispersion may occur
due to varying group velocities of propagating modes.
6. For lower bandwidth applications ______________
a) Single mode fiber is advantageous
b) Photonic crystal fibers are advantageous
c) Coaxial cables are advantageous
d) Multimode fiber is advantageous
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In multimode fibers, intermodal dispersion occurs. The group velocities often differ
which gradually restricts maximum bandwidth attainability in multimode fibers.
7. Most of the optical power is carried out in core region than in cladding.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an ideal multimode fiber, there is no mode coupling. The optical power launched
into a particular mode remains in that mode itself. The majority of these modes are mostly
confined to fiber core only.
8. Meridional rays in graded index fibers follow ____________
a) Straight path along the axis
b) Curved path along the axis
c) Path where rays changes angles at core-cladding interface
d) Helical path
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Meridional rays pass through axis of the core. Due to the varying refractive index at
the core, the path of rays is in curved form.
9. What is the unit of normalized frequency?
a) Hertz
b) Meter/sec
c) Coulombs
d) It is a dimensionless quantity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Normalized frequency of optical fiber is the frequency which exists at cut-off
condition. There is no propagation and attenuation above cut-off. It is directly proportional to
numerical aperture which is a dimensionless quantity; hence itself is a dimensionless quantity.
10. Skew rays follow a ___________
a) Hyperbolic path along the axis
b) Parabolic path along the axis
c) Helical path
d) Path where rays changes angles at core-cladding interface
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ray which does not pass through the fiber axis is termed as skew ray. Unlike
Meridional rays, skew rays are more in number which makes them follow a round path called as
helical path.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Photonic Crystal Fibers & Attenuation”.
1. Photonic crystal fibers also called as ___________
a) Conventional fibers
b) Dotted fibers
c) Stripped fibers
d) Holey fibers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Photonic crystal fibers contain a fine array of air holes running longitudinally down
the fiber cladding. The microstructure within the fiber is highly periodic.
2. Conventional optical fibers has more transmission losses than photonic crystal fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Conventional optical fibers have several hundreds of losses in transmission.
Photonic crystal fibers have resulted in reduction in overall transmission losses.
3. Losses in photonic crystal fibers are reduced to a level of ___________
a) 0.1dB/km
b) 0.2dB/km
c) 0.3dB/km
d) 0.4dB/km
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Conventional fibers have losses of several hundred decibels per km. The invention
of photonic crystal tubes has reduced the losses by hundreds of decibels.
4. The high index contrast enables the PCF core to be reduced from around 8 μmin conventional
fiber to ___________
a) Less than 1μm
b) More than 5μm
c) More than 3μm
d) More than 2μm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PCF’s have a wider range of optical properties in comparison with standard fibers.
The lesser the core, more is the intensity of light in the core and enhances the non-linear effects.
5. The periodic arrangement of cladding air holes in photonic band gap fibers provides for the
formation of a photonic band gap in the ___________
a) H-plane of fiber
b) E-plane of fiber
c) E-H-plane of fiber
d) Transverse plane of fiber
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Photonic band gap fibers are a class of micro structured fiber in which periodic
arrangement of air holes is required. As a PBG fiber exhibits a 2-dimensional band gap, than the
wavelengths within this band gap cannot propagate perpendicular to the fiber axis.
6. In index-guided photonic crystal fiber structure, the dark areas are air holes. What does white
areas suggests?
a) Air
b) Silica
c) Water
d) Plasma
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Index-guided photonic crystal fibers have greater index contrast because the
cladding contains air-holes having refractive index 1. Both index guided and conventional fibers
arises from the manner in which guided mode interacts with the cladding region.
7. Which is the unit of measurement of attenuation in optical fibers?
a) km
b) dB
c) dB/km
d) Coulomb’s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Attenuation is also referred to as transmission loss. Channel attenuation helped to
determine the maximum transmission distance prior to signal restoration. Attenuation is usually
expressed in logarithmic unit of decibel. It is given by
αdBL = 10 log10Pi / Po
Where αdB = signal attenuation per unit length
Pi & Po = Input and output power.
8. The optical fiber incurs a loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber which is called as
___________
a) Scattering
b) Attenuation
c) Absorption
d) Refraction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the light is passed through the fiber, it travels a large amount of distance
before it starts fading. It needs restoration in the path. This loss or fading is called as Attenuation.
9. If the input power 100μW is launched into 6 km of fiber, the mean optical power at the fiber
output is 2μW. What is the overall signal attenuation through the fiber assuming there are no
connectors or splices?
a) 15.23dB
b) 16.98dB
c) 17.12dB
d) 16.62dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Signal attenuation is usually expressed in decibels. It is given by
Signal attenuation=10 log10Pi / Po
Where, Pi & Po = Input and output power.
10. A device that reduces the intensity of light in optical fiber communications is ___________
a) compressor
b) Optical attenuator
c) Barometer
d) Reducer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A compressor compresses the signal before transmission. It does not affect the
intensity of light. Optical attenuator is a device that affects the intensity of light and incurs a loss
in transmission.
11. A decibel may be defined as the ratio of input and output optical power for a particular
optical wavelength.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Signal attenuation refers to the loss in transmission and it needs a logarithmic unit
to express. Decibel is mainly used for comparing two power levels. It has the advantage that the
operations of multiplication and division reduce to addition and subtraction.
12. When the input and output power in an optical fiber is 120μW & 3μW respectively and the
length of the fiber is 8 km. What is the signal attenuation per km for the fiber?
a) 3dB/km
b) 2dB/km
c) 1dB/km
d) 4dB/km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Signal attenuation per unit length is given by
αdBL = 10 log10Pi / Po
αdBL = 16 dB
αdB = 16 dB/L = 2dB/km.
2. Questions on Transmission Characteristics Of Optical Fibers
The section contains questions on material absorption and fiber bend loss, linear and
nonlinear scattering losses, chromatic and intermodal dispersion, fiber dispersion,
polarization and nonlinear effects.
This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Material
Absorption & Fiber Bend Losses In Silicon Glass Fibers”.
1. Which of the following statements best explain the concept of material absorption?
a) A loss mechanism related to the material composition and fabrication of fiber
b) A transmission loss for optical fibers
c) Results in attenuation of transmitted light
d) Causes of transfer of optical power
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Material absorption is a loss mechanism that results in dissipation of transmitted
optical power as heat in a waveguide. It can be caused by impurities or interaction with other
components of the core.
2. How many mechanisms are there which causes absorption?
a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Absorption is a loss mechanism. It may be intrinsic, extrinsic and also caused by
atomic defects.
3. Absorption losses due to atomic defects mainly include ___________
a) Radiation
b) Missing molecules, oxygen defects in glass
c) Impurities in fiber material
d) Interaction with other components of core
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Atomic defects are imperfections in the atomic structure of fiber material. Atomic
structure includes nucleus, molecules, protons etc. Atomic defects thus contribute towards loss of
molecules, oxygen, etc.
4. The effects of intrinsic absorption can be minimized by ___________
a) Ionization
b) Radiation
c) Suitable choice of core and cladding components
d) Melting
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Intrinsic absorption is caused by interaction of light with one or more components
of the glass i.e. core. Thus, if the compositions of core and cladding are chosen suitably, this
effect can be minimized.
5. Which of the following is not a metallic impurity found in glass in extrinsic absorption?
a) Fe2+
b) Fe3+
c) Cu
d) Si
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the optical fibers, prepared by melting techniques, extrinsic absorption can be
observed. It is caused from transition metal element impurities. In all these options, Si is a
constituent of glass and it cannot be considered as an impurity to glass itself.
6. Optical fibers suffer radiation losses at bends or curves on their paths.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical fibers suffer radiation losses due to the energy in the bend or curves
exceeding the velocity of light in the cladding. Hence, guiding mechanism is inhibited, which in
turn causes light energy to be radiated from the fiber.
7. In the given equation, state what αr suggests?
a) Radius of curvature
b) Refractive index difference
c) Radiation attenuation coefficients
d) Constant of proportionality
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Above equation represents the fiber loss. This loss is seen at bends and curves as
the fibers suffer radiation losses at curves. These radiation losses are represented by a radiation
attenuation coefficient (αr).
8. A multimode fiber has refractive indices n1 = 1.15, n2 = 1.11 and an operating wavelength of
0.7μm. Find the radius of curvature?
a) 8.60μm
b) 9.30μm
c) 9.1μm
d) 10.2μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The radius of curvature of the fiber bend of a multimode fiber is given by
Where, Rc = radius of curvature
n1, n2 = refractive indices
λ = wavelength.
9. A single mode fiber has refractive indices n1=1.50, n2 = 2.23, core diameter of 8μm,
wavelength = 1.5μ m cutoff wavelength = 1.214μm. Find the radius of curvature?
a) 12 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 34 mm
d) 36 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The radius of curvature of the fiber bend of a single mode fiber is given byWhere
R = radius of curvature,
n1, n2 = refractive indices,
λc = cutoff wavelength,
λ = operating wavelength.
10. How the potential macro bending losses can be reduced in case of multimode fiber?
a) By designing fibers with large relative refractive index differences
b) By maintaining direction of propagation
c) By reducing the bend
d) By operating at larger wavelengths
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of multimode fibers, radius of curvature is directly proportional to core
refractive index and operating wavelength. In order to reduce the macro bending losses, the
operative wavelength must be small and fibers must have large relative refractive index
difference. Losses are inversely proportional to refractive index differences.
11. Sharp bends or micro bends causes significant losses in fiber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sharp bends usually have a radius of curvature almost near to the critical radius.
The fibers with the radius near to the critical radius cause significant losses and hence they are
avoided.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Linear & Non-Linear Scattering Losses”.
1. Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering are the types of _____________
a) Linear scattering losses
b) Non-linear scattering losses
c) Fiber bends losses
d) Splicing losses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering both result from non-ideal physical
properties of the fiber. These losses may be impossible to eradicate. Linear scattering
mechanisms cause the transfer of optical power contained within one propagating mode to be
transferred linearly into a different mode.
2. Dominant intrinsic loss mechanism in low absorption window between ultraviolet and infrared
absorption tails is ___________
a) Mie scattering
b) Rayleigh scattering
c) Stimulated Raman scattering
d) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
View Answer
3. Rayleigh scattering can be reduced by operating at smallest possible wavelengths.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering results from inhomogeneity of a random nature occurring on a
small level compared with the wavelength of light. The Rayleigh scattering is inversely
proportional to the wavelength. Thus, as wavelength scattering reduces.
4. The scattering resulting from fiber imperfections like core-cladding RI differences, diameter
fluctuations, strains, and bubbles is?
a) Rayleigh scattering
b) Mie scattering
c) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
d) Stimulated Raman scattering
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Linear scattering also occurs at inhomogeneity which are comparable in size with
the guided wavelength. These results from non-perfect cylindrical structures of the waveguide
and hence caused by fiber imperfections.
5. Mie scattering has in-homogeneities mainly in ___________
a) Forward direction
b) Backward direction
c) All direction
d) Core-cladding interface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Mie scattering, the scattering in-homogeneities size is greater thanλ/10. Also, the
scattered intensity has an angular dependence which is very large. The in-homogeneities are
mainly in the direction of guided wavelength i.e. in forward direction.
6. The in-homogeneities in Mie scattering can be reduced by coating of a fiber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mie scattering is a type of linear scattering loss. It results from fluctuations in
diameter, differences in core-cladding refractive index, and differences along the fiber length.
Therefore, such in-homogeneities can be reduced by controlled extrusion and coating of the
fiber.
7. Raman and Brillouin scattering are usually observed at ___________
a) Low optical power densities
b) Medium optical power densities
c) High optical power densities
d) Threshold power densities
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Raman and Brillouin scattering mechanism are non-linear. They provide optical
gain but with a shift in frequency, thus contributing to attenuation for light transmission at a
particular wavelength. They can be seen at high optical power densities.
8. The phonon is a quantum of an elastic wave in a crystal lattice.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A phonon is an elastic arrangement of atoms or molecules in condensed matter.
This matter maybe solids or liquids. A phonon is a discrete unit of vibrational mechanical energy
given by hf joules;
Where h = Planck’s constant
f = frequency.
9. A single-mode optical fiber has an attenuation of 0.3dB/km when operating at wavelength of
1.1μm. The fiber core diameter is 4μm and bandwidth is 500 MHz. Find threshold optical power
for stimulated Brillouin scattering.
a) 11.20 mw
b) 12.77 mw
c) 13.08 mw
d) 12.12 mw
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The threshold optical power stimulated Brillouin scattering is given by-
PB = 4.4*10-3d2λ2αdBv
Where, PB = threshold optical power
d = diameter of core
λ = wavelength
αdB = attenuation.
10. 0.4 dB/km, 1.4μm, 6μm, 550MHz. Find threshold optical power for stimulated Raman
scattering.
a) 1.98 W
b) 1.20 W
c) 1.18 W
d) 0.96 W
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The threshold optical power stimulated Raman scattering is given by-
PR = 5.9*10-2d2λαdB
Where, PR = optical power for Raman scattering
d = diameter of core
λ = wavelength
αdB = attenuation.
11. Stimulated Brillouin scattering is mainly a ___________
a) Forward process
b) Backward process
c) Upward process
d) Downward process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The incident photon in Stimulated Brillouin scattering reduces a phonon of acoustic
frequency as well as scattered photon. This produces an optical frequency shift which varies with
the scattering angle. This frequency shift is max. in backward direction reducing to zero in
forward direction making Stimulated Brillouin scattering a backward process.
12. High frequency optical phonon is generated in stimulated Raman scattering.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An acoustic proton is generated in Stimulated Brillouin scattering. Raman
scattering may have an optical power threshold higher than Stimulated Brillouin scattering.
13. Stimulated Raman scattering occur in ___________
a) Forward direction
b) Backward direction
c) Upward direction
d) Forward and backward direction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stimulated Raman scattering is similar to Stimulated Brillouin scattering except
that a high frequency phonon is generated in Stimulated Raman scattering. Stimulated Raman
scattering can occur in forward and backward direction as it has optical power threshold higher
than Stimulated Brillouin scattering.
14. Stimulated Raman scattering may have an optical power threshold of may be three orders of
magnitude ___________
a) Lower than Brillouin threshold
b) Higher than Brillouin threshold
c) Same as Brillouin threshold
d) Higher than Rayleigh threshold
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stimulated Raman scattering involves generation of high- frequency phonon.
Stimulated Brillouin scattering on the other hand, involves the generation of an acoustic phonon
in a scattering process.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Dispersion – Chromatic Dispersion “.
1. What is dispersion in optical fiber communication?
a) Compression of light pulses
b) Broadening of transmitted light pulses along the channel
c) Overlapping of light pulses on compression
d) Absorption of light pulses
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dispersion of transmitted optical signal causes distortion of analog as well as
digital transmission. When the optical signal travels along the channel, the dispersion mechanism
causes broadening of light pulses and thus in turn overlaps with their neighboring pulses.
2. What does ISI stand for in optical fiber communication?
a) Invisible size interference
b) Infrared size interference
c) Inter-symbol interference
d) Inter-shape interference
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dispersion causes the light pulses to broaden and overlap with other light pulses.
This overlapping creates an interference which is termed as inter-symbol interference.
3. For no overlapping of light pulses down on an optical fiber link, the digital bit rate BT must be
___________
a) Less than the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration
b) More than the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration
c) Same as that of than the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration
d) Negligible
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The digital bit rate and pulse duration are always inversely proportional to each
other.
BT < = 12 Γ
Where BT = bit rate
2Γ = duration of pulse.
4. The maximum bit rate that may be obtained on an optical fiber link is 1/3Γ.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The digital bit rate is function of signal attenuation on a link and signal to noise
ratio. For the restriction of interference, the bit rate should be always equal to or less than 1/2Γ.
5. 3dB optical bandwidth is always ___________ the 3dB electrical bandwidth.
a) Smaller than
b) Larger than
c) Negligible than
d) Equal to
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical bandwidth is half of the maximum data rate. For non-return:0 (NRZ),
bandwidth is same as bit rate. The bandwidth B for metallic conductors is defined by electrical
3dB points. Optical communication uses electrical circuitry where signal power has dropped to
half its value due to modulated portion of modulated signal.
6. A multimode graded index fiber exhibits a total pulse broadening of 0.15μsover a distance of
16 km. Estimate the maximum possible bandwidth, assuming no intersymbol interference.
a) 4.6 MHz
b) 3.9 MHz
c) 3.3 MHz
d) 4.2 MHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum possible bandwidth is equivalent to the maximum possible bitrate.
The maximum bit rate assuming no inter-symbol interference is given by
BT = 12 Γ
Where BT = bandwidth.
7. What is pulse dispersion per unit length if for a graded index fiber, 0.1μs pulse broadening is
seen over a distance of 13 km?
a) 6.12ns/km
b) 7.69ns/km
c) 10.29ns/km
d) 8.23ns/km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The dispersion mechanism causes broadening of light pulses. The pulse dispersion
per unit length is obtained by dividing total dispersion of total length of fiber.
Dispersion = 0.1*10-6/13 = 7.69 ns/km.
8. Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intermodal delay is a result of each mode having a different group velocity at a
single frequency. The intermodal delay helps us to know about the information carrying capacity
of the fiber.
9. Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intermodal delay, the name only suggests, includes many modes. On the other hand
chromatic dispersion is pulse spreading that takes place within a single mode. Chromatic
dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion.
10. The optical source used in a fiber is an injection laser with a relative spectral width σλ/λ of
0.0011 at a wavelength of 0.70μm. Estimate the RMS spectral width.
a) 1.2 nm
b) 1.3 nm
c) 0.77 nm
d) 0.98 nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The relative spectral width σλ/λ= 0.01 is given. The rms spectral width can be
calculated as follows:
σλ/λ = 0.0011
σλ = 0.0011λ
= 0.0011*0.70*10-6
= 0.77 nm.
11. In waveguide dispersion, refractive index is independent of ______________
a) Bit rate
b) Index difference
c) Velocity of medium
d) Wavelength
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In material dispersion, refractive index is a function of optical wavelength. It varies
as a function of wavelength. In wavelength dispersion, group delay is expressed in terms of
normalized propagation constant instead of wavelength.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Intermodal Dispersion”.
1. Intermodal dispersion occurring in a large amount in multimode step index fiber results in
____________
a) Propagation of the fiber
b) Propagating through the fiber
c) Pulse broadening at output
d) Attenuation of waves
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion is caused due to difference in
propagation delay between different modes in the multimode fiber. As different modes travel
with different group velocities, the pulse width at output depends on transmission time of all
modes. This creates difference in overall dispersion which results in pulse broadening.
2. After Total Internal Reflection the Meridional ray __________
a) Makes an angle equal to acceptance angle with the axial ray
b) Makes an angle equal to critical angle with the axial ray
c) Travels parallel equal to critical angle with the axial ray
d) Makes an angle equal to critical angle with the axial ray
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Meridional ray travels along the axis of the fiber. When the ray is incident,
makes an angle equal to acceptance angle and thus it propagates through the fiber. As the
propagating ray gets refracted from the boundary, it makes an angle (i.e. critical angle) with the
normal.
3. Consider a single mode fiber having core refractive index n1= 1.5. The fiber length is 12m.
Find the time taken by the axial ray to travel along the fiber.
a) 1.00μsec
b) 0.06μsec
c) 0.90μsec
d) 0.30μsec
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The time taken by the axial ray to travel along the fiber gives the minimum delay
time
Tmin = Ln1/c
Where L = length of the fiber
n1 = Refractive index of core
c = velocity of light in vacuum.
4. A 4 km optical link consists of multimode step index fiber with core refractive index of 1.3
and a relative refractive index difference of 1%. Find the delay difference between the slowest
and fastest modes at the fiber output.
a) 0.173 μsec
b) 0.152 μsec
c) 0.96 μsec
d) 0.121 μsec
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The delay difference is given by
δTs = Ln1/c
Where δTs = delay difference
n1 = core refractive index
Δ = Relative refractive index difference
c = velocity of light in vacuum.
5. A multimode step-index fiber has a core refractive index of 1.5 and relative refractive index
difference of 1%. The length of the optical link is 6 km. Estimate the RMS pulse broadening due
to intermodal dispersion on the link.
a) 92.6 ns
b) 86.7 ns
c) 69.3 ns
d) 68.32 ns
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion is obtained by the
equation is given below:
σs = Ln1Δ/2√3c
Where σs = RMS pulse broadening
L = length of optical link
C = velocity of light in vacuum
n1 = core refractive index.
6. The differential attenuation of modes reduces intermodal pulse broadening on a multimode
optical link.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Intermodal dispersion may be reduced by propagation mechanisms. The differential
attenuation of various modes is due to the greater field penetration of the higher order modes into
the cladding of waveguide. These slower modes exhibit larger losses at any core-cladding
irregularities.
7. The index profile of a core of multimode graded index fiber is given by?
a) N (r) = n1 [1 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a
b) N (r) = n1 [3 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a
c) N (r) = n1 [5 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r>a
d) N (r) = n1 [1 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In multimode graded index fibers, many rays can propagate simultaneously. The
Meridional rays follow sinusoidal trajectories of different path length which results from index
grading.
8. Intermodal dispersion in multimode fibers is minimized with the use of step-index fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As multimode graded index fibers show substantial bandwidth improvement over
multimode step index fibers. So, inter-modal dispersion in multimode fiber is minimized with the
use of multimode graded index fibers.
9. Estimate RMS pulse broadening per km due to intermodal dispersion for multimode step
index fiber where length of fiber is 4 km and pulse broadening per km is 80.6 ns.
a) 18.23ns/km
b) 20.15ns/km
c) 26.93ns/km
d) 10.23ns/km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
The RMS pulse broadening per km due to intermodal dispersion for multimode step index fiber
is given by
(σs(1 km)/L = 80.6/4 = 20.15
Where L = length of fiber
σs = pulse broadening.
10. Practical pulse broadening value for graded index fiber lies in the range of __________
a) 0.9 to 1.2 ns/km
b) 0.2 to 1 ns/km
c) 0.23 to 5 ns/km
d) 0.45 to 8 ns/km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As all optical fiber sources have a finite spectral width, the profile shape must be
altered to compensate for this dispersion mechanism. The minimum overall dispersion for graded
index fiber is also limited by other intermodal dispersion mechanism. Thus pulse broadening
values lie within range of 0.2 to 1 ns/km.
11. The modal noise occurs when uncorrected source frequency is?
a) δf>>1/δT
b) δf=1/δT
c) δf<<1/δT
d) Negligible
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modal noise is dependent on change in frequency. Frequency is inversely
proportional to time. The patterns are formed by interference of modes from a coherent source
when coherence time of source is greater than intermodal dispersion time δT within fiber.
12. Disturbance along the fiber such as vibrations, discontinuities, connectors, splices,
source/detectors coupling result in __________
a) Modal noise
b) Inter-symbol interference
c) Infrared interference
d) Pulse broadening
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Disturbance along the fiber cause fluctuations in specific pattern. These speckle
patterns have characteristics time longer than resolution time of detector and is known as modal
noise.
13. The modal noise can be reduced by __________
a) Decreasing width of signal longitudinal mode
b) Increasing coherence time
c) Decreasing number of longitudinal modes
d) Using fiber with large numerical aperture
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Disturbances along fiber cause fluctuations in speckle patterns. Fibers with large
numerical apertures support the transmission of large number of modes giving greater number of
speckle, thereby reducing modal noise.
14. Digital transmission is more likely to be affected by modal noise.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Analog transmission is more affected by modal noise due to higher optical power
levels which is required at receiver when quantum noise effects are considered. So it is important
to look into design considerations.
This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
“Overall Fiber Dispersion & Modified Single Mode Fibers”.
1. A multimode step index fiber has source of RMS spectral width of 60nm and dispersion
parameter for fiber is 150psnm-1km-1. Estimate rms pulse broadening due to material dispersion.
a) 12.5ns km-1
b) 9.6ns km-1
c) 9.0ns km-1
d) 10.2ns km-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening per km due to material dispersion is given by
σm(1 km) = σλLM
= 60*1* 150pskm-1
= 9.0nskm-1
Where σλ = rms spectral width
L = length of fiber
M = dispersion parameter.
2. A multimode fiber has RMS pulse broadening per km of 12ns/km and 28ns/km due to material
dispersion and intermodal dispersion resp. Find the total RMS pulse broadening.
a) 30.46ns/km
b) 31.23ns/km
c) 28.12ns/km
d) 26.10ns/km
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The overall dispersion in multimode fibers comprises both chromatic and
intermodal terms. The total RMS pulse broadening σ T is given by
Where σm = RMS pulse broadening due to material dispersion
σi = RMS pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion.
3. Γg = dβ / C*dk. What is β in the given equation?
a) Attenuation constant
b) Propagation constant
c) Boltzmann’s constant
d) Free-space
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Above given equation is an equation of transit time or a group delay(Γg) for a light
pulse. This light pulse is propagating along a unit length of a single mode fiber.
4. Most of the power in an optical fiber is transmitted in fiber cladding.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most of the power in optical fiber is transmitted in fiber core. This is because in
multimode fibers, majority of modes propagating in the core area are far from cutoff. Hence
more power is transmitted.
5. A single mode fiber has a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.21μm and a dispersion slope of
0.08 psnm-2 km-1. What is the total first order dispersion at wavelength 1.26μm.
a) -2.8psnm-1 km-1
b) -3.76psnm-1 km-1
c) -1.2psnm-1 km-1
d) 2.4psnm-1 km-1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total first order dispersion for fiber at two wavelength is obtained by
DT(1260 nm) = λS0/4 [1-(λ0/λ)4]
= (1260*0.08*10-12)/4 * (1-[1550/1260]4)
= -3.76psnm-1 km-1
Where
λ0 = zero dispersion wavelength
λ = wavelength
S0 = dispersion slope
DT = total first order dispersion.
6. The dispersion due to material, waveguide and profile are -2.8nm-1km-1, 20.1nm-1 km-1 and
23.2nm-1 km-1respectively. Find the total first order dispersion?
a) 36.2psnm-1 km-1
b) 38.12psnm-1 km-1
c) 40.5psnm-1 km-1
d) 20.9psnm-1 km-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total dispersion is given by
DT = DM + DW + DP(psnm-1km-1)
Where
DW = waveguide dispersion
DM = Material dispersion
DP = profile dispersion.
7. Dispersion-shifted single mode fibers are created by __________
a) Increasing fiber core diameter and decreasing fractional index difference
b) Decreasing fiber core diameter and decreasing fractional index difference
c) Decreasing fiber core diameter and increasing fractional index difference
d) Increasing fiber core diameter and increasing fractional index difference
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is possible to modify the dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers by
tailoring of some fiber parameters. These fiber parameters include core diameter and relative
index difference.
8. An alternative modification of the dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers involves
achievement of low dispersion gap over the low-loss wavelength region between __________
a) 0.2 and 0.9μm
b) 0.1 and 0.2μm
c) 1.3 and 1.6μm
d) 2 and 3μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dispersion characteristics can be altered by changing fiber parameters and
wavelength. The achievement of low dispersion gap over the region 1.3 and 1.6μm modifies the
dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers.
9. The fibers which relax the spectral requirements for optical sources and allow flexible
wavelength division multiplying are known as __________
a) Dispersion-flattened single mode fiber
b) Dispersion-enhanced single mode fiber
c) Dispersion-compressed single mode fiber
d) Dispersion-standardized single mode fiber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dispersion-flattened single mode fibers (DFFS) are obtained by fabricating
multilayer index profiles with increased waveguide dispersion. This is tailored to provide overall
dispersion say 2psnm-1 km-1 over the wavelength range 1.3 to 1.6μm.
10. For suitable power confinement of fundamental mode, the normalized frequency v should be
maintained in the range 1.5 to 2.4μm and the fractional index difference must be linearly
increased as a square function while the core diameter is linearly reduced to keep v constant.
This confinement is achieved by?
a) Increasing level of silica doping in fiber core
b) Increasing level of germanium doping in fiber core
c) Decreasing level of silica germanium in fiber core
d) Decreasing level of silica doping in fiber core
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tailoring of fiber parameters provides suitable power confinement. These
parameters may be diameter, index-difference, frequency etc. The doping level of germanium
contributes to the tailoring of fiber parameters; which in turn provides suitable power
confinement.
11. Any amount of stress occurring at the core-cladding interface would be reduced by grading
the material composition.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A problem arises with that of simple step index approach to dispersion shifting is
high. The fibers produced exhibit high dopant-dependent losses at operating wavelengths. These
losses are caused by induced-stress in the region of core-cladding interface. This can be reduced
by grading the material composition of the fiber.
12. The variant of non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber is called as __________
a) Dispersion flattened fiber
b) Zero-dispersion fiber
c) Positive-dispersion fiber
d) Negative-dispersion fiber
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The dispersion profile for non-zero dispersion shifted fiber is referred to as
bandwidth non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber. It was introduced to provide wavelength division
multiplexed applications to be extended into the s-band. The variant of non-zero-
dispersionshifted
fiber can also be referred to as dispersion compensating fiber.
13. Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced in the year 2000.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced in mid-1990s to provide
wavelength division multiplexing applications. In the year 2000, the dispersion profile for
nonzero-
dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Polarization”.
1. For many applications that involve optical fiber transmission, an intensity modulation optical
source is not required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In many optical fibers transmission, the cylindrical fibers used generally do not
maintain polarization state of light input source not more than a few meters. So for this reason,
optical sources intensity modulation is required.
2. The optical source used for detection of optical signal is ____________
a) IR sensors
b) Photodiodes
c) Zener diodes
d) Transistors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical signal is generally detected by photodiodes because photodiode is generally
insensitive to optical polarization or phase of light with the fiber.
3. An optical fiber behaves as a birefringence medium due to differences in ___________
a) Effective R-I and core geometry
b) Core-cladding symmetry
c) Transmission/propagation time of waves
d) Refractive indices of glass and silica
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an optical fiber with ideal optically circulatory symmetric core, both polarization
modes propagate with same velocities. These fibers have variations in internal and external
stress; fiber bending and so exhibit some birefringence.
4. The beat length in a single mode optical fiber is 8 cm when light from a laser with a peak
wavelength 0.6μm is launched into it. Estimate the modal birefringence.
a) 1×10-5
b) 3.5×10-5
c) 2×10-5
d) 4×10-5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modal birefringence can be obtained by-
BF = λ/LB = 0.8×10-6/0.08
= 1×10-5
Where
λ = peak wavelength
LB = beat length.
5. Beat length of a single mode optical fiber is 0.6cm. Calculate the difference between
propagation constants for the orthogonal modes.
a) 69.8
b) 99.86
c) 73.2
d) 104.66
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The difference between the propagation constant for two orthogonal modes can be
obtained by:
βx – βy = 2Π/LB = 2×3.14/0.06
= 104.66
Where
βx & βy are propagation constants for slow & fast modes resp.
LB = beat length.
6. A polarization maintaining fiber operates at a wavelength 1.2μm and have a modal
birefringence of 1.8*10-3. Calculate the period of perturbation.
a) 0.7 seconds
b) 0.6 seconds
c) 0.23 seconds
d) 0.5 seconds
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The period of perturbation is given by-
T = λ/BF Where λ is operating wavelength, B F = Birefringence, T = period of perturbation.
7. When two components are equally excited at the fiber input, then for polarization maintaining
fibers δΓg should be around ___________
a) 1.5ns/km
b) 1 ns/km
c) 1.2ns/km
d) 2ns/km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The differential group delay δΓg is related to polarization mode dispersion (PMD)
of fiber. This linear relationship to fiber length however applies only to short fiber-lengths in
which birefringence are uniform.
8. Polarization modal noise can _________ the performance of communication system.
a) Degrade
b) Improve
c) Reduce
d) Attenuate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Polarization modal noise is generally of larger amplitude than modal noise. It is
obtained within multimode fibers and so it degrades the performance of the communication
system and prevents transmission of analog signals.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Non-Linear Effects”.
1. The nonlinear effects in optical fibers are large.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The nonlinear effect arises from the interactions between light waves and the
material transmitting them and thus affects the optical signals. The nonlinear effects are usually
small in optical fibers. They have power levels of up to few milliWatts.
2. How many categories of nonlinear effects are seen in optical fibers?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The nonlinear effects are separated on the basis of their characteristics. There are
two such categories; one is scattering effect and the other is Kerr effect.
3. Which of the following is not related to Kerr effects?
a) Self-phase modulation
b) Cross-phase modulation
c) Four-wave mixing
d) Stimulated Raman Scattering
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stimulated Raman Scattering is related to scattering. The other effects include
modulation and mixing which are parts of Kerr effect.
4. Linear scattering effects are _______ in nature.
a) Elastic
b) Non-Elastic
c) Mechanical
d) Electrical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Linear scattering effects are elastic because the scattered wave frequency is equal to
incident wave frequency. Nonlinear scattering effects are purely inelastic.
5. Which thing is more dominant in making a fiber function as a bidirectional optical amplifier?
a) Core material
b) Pump source
c) Cladding material
d) Diameter of fiber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Brillouin gain is always greater than Raman gain. It exists for light propagation in
opposite direction to the pump source. Also Brillouin frequency shifts and gain bandwidth are
much smaller than Raman. Raman amplification occurs for light propagating in either direction.
Thus, pump source is more important in making a fiber function as bidirectional optical
amplifier.
6. _________ semiconductor laser sources generally have broader bandwidths.
a) Injection
b) Pulsed
c) Solid-state
d) Silicon hybrid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pulsed semiconductor lasers have broader bandwidths. Therefore, these sources
prove to be inefficient pump sources. They prove inefficient especially for narrow gain spectrum.
7. Nonlinear effects which are defined by the intensity – dependent refractive index of the fiber
are called as ________
a) Scattering effects
b) Kerr effects
c) Raman effects
d) Tomlinson effects
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kerr effects are nonlinear effects. Nonlinear effects are divided into scattering and
Kerr effects. Scattering effects include scattering of phonon whereas Kerr effects include
intensity refractive index parameters.
8. Self-phase modulation causes modifications to the pulse spectrum.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kerr effect results in different transmission phase for the peak of the pulse
compared with leading and trailing edges. Self-phase modulation can broaden the frequency
spectrum of the pulse as the time varying phase creates a time varying frequency.
9. Self-phase modulation can be used for _____________
a) Enhancing the core diameter
b) Wavelength shifting
c) Decreasing the attenuation
d) Reducing the losses in the fiber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Self phase modulation is related to phase change. It imposes a positive frequency
sweep on the pulse which in turn enables wavelength or frequency shifting.
10. The beating between light at different frequencies or wavelengths in multichannel fiber
transmission causes ________
a) Attenuation
b) Amplitude modulation of channels
c) Phase modulation of channels
d) Loss in transmission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Phase modulation is related to frequency and wavelength shifting. In multichannel
fiber transmission, phase modulation causes generation of modulation sidebands at new
frequencies. This phenomenon is called as four-wave mixing.
11. What is different in case of cross-phase modulation from self-phase modulation?
a) Overlapping but same pulses
b) Overlapping but distinguishable pulses
c) Non-overlapping and same pulses
d) Non-overlapping but distinguishable pulses
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In cross phase modulation, variation in intensity of one pulse width modulates the
refractive index of the fiber which causes phase modulation of the overlapping phases. In
selfphase
modulation, this phase modulation broadens the pulse spectrum.
12. When three wave components co-propagate at angular frequency w1, w2, w3, then a new
wave is generated at frequency w4, which is given by?
a) w4 = w1 – w2 – w3
b) w4 = w1 + w2 + w3
c) w4 = w1 + w2 – w3
d) w4 = w1 – w2 + w3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This type of frequency mixing is called as four-wave mixing. This frequency
combination is problematic for multichannel optical communication as they become phase
matched if the channel wavelengths are near to zero dispersion wavelengths.
13. _____________ results from a case of nonlinear dispersion compensation in which the
nonlinear dispersion compensation in which the nonlinear chirp caused by self-phase modulation
balances, postpones, the temporal broadening induced by group velocity delay.
a) Four wave mixing
b) Phase modulation
c) Soliton propagation
d) Raman scattering
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Soliton propagation is a nonlinear dispersion phenomenon. It limits the propagation
distance that can be achieved when acting independently. It balances broadening of light pulse.
3. Questions & Answers on Optical Fibers And Cables
The section contains questions and answers on vapour and liquid phase techniques, optical fibers
and its cables, fiber transmission characteristics and cable design.
This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“Preparation of Optical Fibers – Liquid Phase Techniques”.
1. What is a fundamental necessity in the fabrication of fibers for light transmission?
a) Same refractive index for both core and cladding
b) Pump source
c) Material composition of fiber
d) Variation of refractive index inside the optical fiber
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For fabrication of fibers, two different transparent materials to light over a
wavelength range of 0.8 to 1.7μm are required. Fiber should exhibit low attenuation, absorption
and scattering losses. The variation of refractive indices in a fiber is a necessity for fiber
fabrication.
2. Which materials are unsuitable for the fabrication of graded index fiber?
a) Glass-like-materials
b) Mono-crystalline structures
c) Amorphous material
d) Silica based material
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of graded index fiber, it is essential that the refractive index of the material
is varied by suitable doping with another compatible material. These two materials should have
mutual solubility over a wide range of concentration. This is achieved only in glass-likematerials.
3. How many different categories are available for the methods of preparing optical glasses?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The methods of preparing optical glasses are divided into two categories. One is the
conventional glass refining technique and other is vapor-phase-deposition method.
4. What is the first stage in liquid-phase-technique?
a) Preparation of ultra-pure material powders
b) Melting of materials
c) Decomposition
d) Crystallization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In liquid-phase-technique melting, the first stage includes the preparation of
ultrapure
material powders. These are usually oxides or carbonates which decomposes during glass
melting.
5. Which processes are involved in the purification stage in liquid-phase-technique?
a) Filtration, Co-precipitation, Re-crystallization
b) Decomposition, Filtration, Drying
c) Doping, Drying, Decomposition
d) Filtration, Drying, Doping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The compounds such as oxides and carbonates are formed during the glass melting.
The purification accounts for a large proportion of material cost. These compounds are
commercially available. The purification involves filtration, co-precipitation, re-crystallization
and drying.
6. At what temperature range, does the melting of multi components glass systems takes place?
a) 100-300 degree Celsius
b) 600-800 degree Celsius
c) 900-1300 degree Celsius
d) 1500-1800 degree Celsius
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The glass materials in the powdered form and have relatively low melting point.
Thus, the glass materials are melted at relatively low temperatures in the range of 900-1300
degrees Celsius.
7. Fiber drawing using preform was useful for the production of graded index fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A technique for producing fine optical fiber waveguides is to make a preform using
the rod in the tube process. This technique was useful for the production of step-index fibers with
large core diameters. In this technique, achievement of low attenuation is not critical as there is a
danger of including bubbles at the core-cladding interface.
8. The minute perturbations and impurities in the fiber drawing process using preform technique
can result in very high losses of _____________
a) Between 500 and 1000 dB/km
b) Between 100 and 300 dB/km
c) Between 1200 and 1600 dB/km
d) More than 2000 dB/km
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The minute perturbations and impurities in the fiber include formations of bubbles
and involvement of particulate matter. The losses due to such impurities can be between 500 and
1000 dB/km.
9. The liquid-phase melting technique is used for the production of fibers ___________
a) With a core diameter of 50μm
b) With a core diameter less than 100μm
c) With a core diameter more than 200μm
d) With a core diameter of 100μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The multicomponent glass fibers prepared continuously by liquid-phase melting
technique have losses in the range of 5 and 20 dB/km at a wavelength of 0.85μm. This method is
thus used for preparation of fibers with a large core diameter. Also this technique is used for the
continuous production of fibers.
10. Graded index fibers produced by liquid-phase melting techniques are less dispersive than
step-index fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Liquid-phase melting technique does not offer optimum parabolic profile fibers.
This parabolic profile yields minimum pulse dispersion. Graded index fibers prepared using
liquid-phase melting techniques are less dispersive but do not have the bandwidth-length
products of optimum profile fibers.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Vapor – Phase Deposition Techniques”.
1. Which of the following is not a technique for fabrication of glass fibers?
a) Vapor phase oxidation method
b) Direct melt method
c) Lave ring method
d) Chemical vapor deposition technique
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Lave ring method refers to the deposition of a crystalline layer on a substrate. All
the other methods, except lave ring method, refer to optical fiber fabrication.
2. _____________ technique is method of preparing extremely pure optical glasses.
a) Liquid phase (melting)
b) Radio frequency induction
c) Optical attenuation
d) Vapor Phase Deposition (VPD)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Vapor Phase Deposition techniques are used to prepare silica-rich glasses. These
glasses exhibit highest transparency and optimal optical properties.
3. Which of the following materials is not used as a starting material in vapor-phase deposition
technique?
a) SiCl4
b) GeCl4
c) O2
d) B2O3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In vapor-phase deposition technique, starting materials are volatile organic
compounds. These materials are distilled to reduce the concentration of transition metal
impurities. B2O3 is used as a dopant.
4. P2O5 is used as a _____________
a) Dopant
b) Starting material
c) Cladding glass
d) Core glass
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P2O5 is a non silica material. Dopants are formed from non silica materials so that
refractive index modification is achieved. Other dopants include Ti O2, Ge O2, etc.
5. How many types of vapor-phase deposition techniques are present?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vapor-phase deposition techniques are divided into two types. The two types are
flame hydrolysis and chemical vapor deposition (CVD). Further, these two types are subdivided
into two more sections.
6. ___________ uses flame hydrolysis stems from work on soot processes which were used to
prepare the fiber with losses below 20 dB/km.
a) Outside vapor phase oxidation
b) Chemical vapor deposition
c) Liquid phase melting
d) Crystallization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Outside vapor phase oxidation is a type of vapor flame hydrolysis. It was originally
developed by Hyde. In this process, the glass composition is deposited from a ‘soot’ generated
by hydrolyzing the halide vapors in an oxygen-hydrogen flame.
7. Complete the given reaction.
SiCl4 + 2H2O → SiO2 + ______
a) 2HCl
b) 4HCl
c) 2Cl2
d) 4Cl2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SiCl4 is a starting material used in vapour-phase deposition technique. Dopants are
added to the starting material in presence of heat to give glass compound. In the above reaction
SiO2 (solid compound) along with 4HCl(gas) is obtained.
8. In modified chemical vapor deposition, vapor phase reactant such as _________ pass through
a hot zone.
a) Halide and oxygen
b) Halide and hydrogen
c) Halide and silica
d) Hydroxides and oxygen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Halide and oxygen are passed through the hot zone during chemical vapor
deposition. Glass particles formed during this travel are deposited on the walls of silica tube
which are moved back and forth allowing the particles to deposit layer by layer.
9. _________ is the stimulation of oxide formation by means of non-isothermal plasma
maintained at low pressure in a microwave cavity surrounding the tube.
a) Outside Vapor Phase Oxidation (OVPO)
b) Vapor Axial Deposition (VAD)
c) Modified Chemical Vapor Deposition (MCVD)
d) Plasma-activated Chemical Vapor Deposition (PCVD)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PCVD method was first developed by Cuppers and Koenig’s. It involves a
plasmainduced
chemical vapor deposition inside a silica tube. It is different from MCVD process as it
involves stimulation of oxide formation by means of non-isothermal plasma.
10. Only graded index fibers are made with the help of vapor-phase deposition techniques.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vapor phase deposition techniques are used for preparation of both step-index and
graded index fibers. These techniques provide fibers with low attenuation losses. Also, it gives
similar performance for the fabrication of both single mode and multimode fibers.
11. Modified Chemical Vapor Deposition (MCVD) process is also called as an inside vapor
phase oxidation (IVPD) technique.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MCVD process was developed by Bell Telephone Laboratories and Southampton
University, UK. It is called as inside vapor phase oxidation (IVPO) as it takes place inside the
silica tube at the temperatures between 1400 and 1600 degrees Celsius.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Fibers”.
1. Multimode step index fiber has ___________
a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multimode step-index fiber has large core diameter and large numerical aperture.
These parameters provides efficient coupling to inherent light sources such as LED’s.
2. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber shows as variation of attenuation in
range of ___________
a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.69μm
b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.59μm
c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.85μm
d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.90μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A multimode step index fibers show an attenuation variation in range of 2.6 to
50dBkm-1. The wide variation in attenuation is due to the large differences both within and
between the two overall preparation methods i.e. melting and deposition.
3. Multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range is ___________
a) 100 to 300 μm
b) 100 to 300 nm
c) 200 to 500 μm
d) 200 to 500 nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A multimode step index fiber has a core diameter range of 100 to 300μm. This is to
facilitate efficient coupling to inherent light sources.
4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of ___________
a) 2 to 30 MHz km
b) 6 to 50 MHz km
c) 10 to 40 MHz km
d) 8 to 40 MHz km
View Answer
5. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with ___________
a) Lower purity
b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.
c) No impurity
d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have higher purity than multimode step index fiber.
To reduce fiber losses, these fibers have more impurity.
6. The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are ___________
a) Better than multimode step index fibers
b) Same as multimode step index fibers
c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers
d) Negligible
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers use a constant grading factor. Performance
characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are better than those of multimode step index
fibers due to index graded and lower attenuation.
7. Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode step index
fibers but have core diameters ___________
a) Larger than multimode step index fibers
b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers
c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers
d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers
View Answer
8. Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical aperture of 0.29
have core/cladding diameter of ___________
a) 62.5 μm/125 μm
b) 100 μm/140 μm
c) 85 μm/125 μm
d) 50 μm/125μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers with numerical aperture 0.29 having a core/cladding
diameter of 100μm/140μm. They provide high coupling frequency LED’s at a wavelength of
0.85 μm and have low cost. They are also used for short distance application.
9. Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers are used for short haul and medium to high
bandwidth applications. Small haul applications require LEDs and low accuracy lasers. Thus
either incoherent or incoherent sources like LED’s or injection laser diode are used.
10. In single mode fibers, which is the most beneficial index profile?
a) Step index
b) Graded index
c) Step and graded index
d) Coaxial cable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In single mode fibers, graded index profile is more beneficial as compared to step
index. This is because graded index profile provides dispersion-modified-single mode fibers.
11. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
___________
a) Single mode fibers
b) Multimode step fibers
c) Coaxial cables
d) Multimode graded index fibers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode fibers are used to produce polarization maintaining fibers which make
them expensive. Also the alternative to them are multimode fibers which are complex but
accurate. So, single-mode fibers are not generally utilized in optical fiber communication.
12. Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be at least
___________
a) Twice the core diameter
b) Thrice the core diameter
c) Five times the core diameter
d) Ten times the core diameter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The cladding diameter in single mode fiber must be ten times the core diameter.
Larger ratios contribute to accurate propagation of light. These dimension ratios must be there so
as to avoid losses from the vanishing fields.
13. A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is?
a) Coaxial cables
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Standard multimode fibers
d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A standard single mode fiber having step index profile is known as non-dispersion
shifted fiber. As these fibers have a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.31μm and so are preferred
for single-wavelength transmission in O-band.
14. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for operation in ___________
a) C-band
b) L-band
c) O-band
d) C-band and L-band
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SSMFs are utilized for operation in O-band only. It shows high dispersion in the
range of 16 to 20ps/nm/km in C-band and L-band. So SSMFs are used in O-band.
15. Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength transmission in O-band is?
a) Low-water-peak non dispersion-shifted fibers
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Low minimized fibers
d) Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fibers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Standard single mode fibers with a step index profile are called non dispersion
shifted fiber and it is particularly used for single wavelength transmission in O-band and as if has
a zero-dispersion wavelength at 1.31μm.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
” Optical Fiber Cables”.
1. When optical fibers are to be installed in a working environment, the most important
parameter to be considered is?
a) Transmission property of the fiber
b) Mechanical property of the fiber
c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber
d) Numerical aperture of the fiber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nowadays, optical fibers are used alternatively to electric transmission lines. They
are installed safely and maintained in all environments including underground areas. This
requires mechanical strengthening of fibers in order to ensure proper transmission.
2. It is not important to cover these optical fibers required for transmission.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unprotected optical fibers have number of losses regarding its strength and
durability. Bare glass fibers are brittle and have small cross-section area that makes them highly
susceptible to damages while handling and maintenance. Thus, to improve tensile strength,
optical fibers should be covered by surrounding them with number of protective layers.
3. Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from ___________
a) Plastic
b) Silica or multicomponent glass
c) Ceramics
d) Copper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Silica or a compound of glass are brittle and have almost perfect elasticity until
reaching their breaking point. Strength of these materials is high. Thus, optical fibers are
fabricated from these materials.
4. An Si-O bond with a Young’s modulus of 9*1010Nm-1 have an elliptical crack of depth 7nm.
The surface energy is 2.29 J. Estimate fracture stress for silica fiber.
a) 4.32*109Nm-1
b) 6.32*109Nm-1
c) 5.2*109Nm-1
d) 3*109Nm-1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For an elliptical crack, the fracture stress is given by-
Sf = (2Eγp/πC)1/2
Where Sf = fracture stress
γp = surface energy
C = depth of crack.
5. Calculate percentage strain at break for a Si-O bond with a fracture strength of 3.52*1010Nm-1
and Young’s modulus of 9 *109Nm-1.
a) 3.1 %
b) 2.8 %
c) 4.5 %
d) 3.9 %
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Young’s modulus is given by-
E = Stress/Strain
To calculate strain from the above formula, we have to divide stress by Young’s modulus.
Therefore, Strain = Stress/E.
6. Stress corrosion must be considered while designing and testing optical fiber cables.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stress corrosion means growth of flaws due to stress and water. This occurs as a
result of molecular bonds at the tip of crack being attacked by water. Hence, it is important to
have a protection against water to avoid stress corrosion.
7. Which statistics are used for calculations of strengths of optical fibers?
a) Edwin statistics
b) Newton statistics
c) Wei-bull statistics
d) Gamma statistics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Calculations of strengths are conducted using Wei-bull statistics in case of optical
fibers. It describes the strength behavior of a system that is dependent on the weakest link of the
system. The Wei-bull statistics gives the probability of failure of the optical fiber at a given
strength.
8. What does n denotes in the equation given below, if vc is the crack velocity; A is the constant
for the fiber material and KI is the strength intensity factor?
vc = AKI
n
a) Refractive index
b) Stress corrosion susceptibility
c) Strain
d) Young’s modulus
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The above equation allows estimation of the time to failure of a fiber under stress
corrosion conditions. The constant n is called as stress corrosion susceptibility. It is typically in
the range of 15 to 50 for a glass.
This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people
focuses on “Stability of the Fiber Transmission Characteristics”.
1. ____________ results from small lateral forces exerted on the fiber during the cabling process.
a) Attenuation
b) Micro-bending
c) Dispersion
d) Stimulated Emission
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical fibers must be designed so that the transmission characteristics of the fiber
are maintained after the cabling process. The main problem which occurs in the cabling process
is the meandering of the axis of the fiber core on a microscopic scale within the cable form. This
phenomenon is called as micro-bending.
2. Microscopic meandering of the fiber core axis that is micro-bending is caused due to
___________
a) Environmental effects
b) Rough edges of the fiber
c) Large diameter of core
d) Polarization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Micro-bending can be generated at any stage during manufacturing process, cable
installation process or during service. This is mainly due to environmental effects, mainly
varying temperatures causing differential expansion or contraction.
3. How many forms of modal power distribution are considered?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two forms of modal power distribution are considered. The first form is seen when
a fiber is excited by a diffuse Lambertian source, and is called as fully filled mode distribution.
The second form occurs when, due to mode coupling and attenuation, the distribution of optical
power becomes invariant with the distance of propagation along the fiber, and is called as
steadystate
mode distribution.
4. What does micro-bending losses depend on _____________
a) Core material
b) Refractive index
c) Diameter
d) Mode and wavelength
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Micro-bending losses cause differential expansion or contraction. These losses are
mode dependent. The number of modes is a function inverse to the wavelength of the transmitted
light and thus micro-bending losses are wavelength dependent.
5. The fiber should be________________ to avoid deterioration of the optical transmission
characteristics resulting from mode-coupling-induced micro-bending.
a) Free from irregular external pressure
b) Coupled with plastic
c) Large in diameter
d) Smooth and in a steady state
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Micro-bending losses results from environmental effects such as temperature
variation. The irregular external pressure deteriorates the quality of transmission through the
fiber. Thus, controlled coating and cabling of the fiber is essential in order to reduce the cabled
fiber attenuation.
6. The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber affects the ______________
a) Transmission of optical light in the fiber
b) Spectral attenuation characteristics of the fiber
c) Core of the fiber
d) Cladding of the fiber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The hydrogen absorption by an optical fiber increases optical fiber losses. It forms
absorption peaks where the hydrogen diffuses into interstitial spaces in the glass. At high
temperatures, these losses can increase and reduced if the hydrogen source is removed.
7. __________ can induce a considerable amount of attenuation in optical fibers.
a) Micro-bending
b) Dispersion
c) Diffusion of hydrogen
d) Radiation Exposure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The optical transmission characteristics of the fiber cables can be degraded by
exposure to nuclear radiation. The nature of this attenuation depends upon fiber structures,
optical intensity, wavelength, etc. The radiation-induced attenuation comprises both permanent
and temporary components which makes the exposure irreversible and reversible respectively.
8. The radiation-induced attenuation can be reduced through photo-bleaching.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photo-bleaching can be exploited to study the diffusion of molecules. It is used to
remove the radiation exposure by quenching auto-fluorescence. It helps to increase signal-tonoise
ratio of the fiber and thus reduces attenuation.
9. The losses due to hydrogen absorption and reaction with fiber deposits can be temporary.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogen absorption occurs in two mechanisms. First phenomenon affects
silicabased
glass fibers whereas the second one occurs when hydrogen reacts with the fiber deposits to
give P-OH, Ge-OH absorption. These losses are permanent.
10. The losses caused due to hydrogen absorption mechanisms are in the range of ___________
a) 20 dB/km to 25 dB/km
b) 10 dB/km to 15 dB/km
c) 25 dB/km to 50 dB/km
d) 0 dB/km to 5 dB/km
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber leads to an increase in optical fiber
losses, causing damage to spectral loss characteristics. This phenomenon gets vibrant at higher
temperatures. The losses caused due to such absorption are greater than 25 dB/km.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Cable Design”.
1. The cable must be designed such that the strain on the fiber in the cable does not exceed
__________
a) 0.002%
b) 0.01%
c) 0.2%
d) 0.160%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The constraints included in cable design are stability, protection, strength and
jointing of the fibers. The fiber cable does not get affected if the strain exerted on it is below
0.2%. Although, it is suggested that the permanent strain on the fiber should be less than 0.1%.
2. How many categories exists in case of cable design?
a) Two
b) Three
c) One
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cable design is separated into three categories. They are fiber buffering, cable
structural and strength and cable sheath and water barrier. After successfully going through these
tests, an optical cable is designed.
3. How many types of buffer jackets are used in fiber buffering?
a) Three
b) One
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The buffer jacket is designed to protect the fiber from micro-bending losses. There
are three types of buffer jackets used in fiber buffering. They are tight buffer jackets, loose tube
buffer jackets and filled loose tube buffer jacket.
4. Loose tube buffer jackets exhibits a low resistance to movement of the fiber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Loose tube buffering is achieved by using a hard, smooth, flexible material in the
form of extruded tube. The buffer tube is smooth from inside. Thus, it exhibits a low resistance
to movement of the fiber. Also, it can be easily stripped for jointing or fiber termination.
5. An inclusion of one or more structural members in an optical fiber so as to serve as a cable
core foundation around which the buffer fibers may be wrapped is called _____________
a) Attenuation
b) Splicing
c) Buffering
d) Stranding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Optical fiber is made structurally stronger by adding one or more strength
members. The core fiber is trapped with buffered fibers or they are slotted in the core foundation.
This approach is called as stranding.
6. Which of the following is not a strength member used in optical cable?
a) Steel wire
b) Germanium
c) Aramid yarns
d) Glass elements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strength members or tensile members are added to the fiber to make it stronger and
durable. These members include solid steel wire, dielectric aramid yarns (Kevlar), glass elements
etc. Germanium is not a structural or strength member.
7. When the stranding approach consists of individual elements (e.g. single-fiber or multi fiber
loose tube buffer) than the cable is termed as _____________
a) Optical unit cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Layer cable
d) Bare glass cable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stranding approach consists of a fiber core foundation around which the
buffered fibers are wrapped. The cable elements are stranded in one, two or several layers around
the central structural member. When the stranding is composed of individual elements, then the
cable is termed as layer cable. If the cable core consists of stranding elements each of which
comprises a unit of stranding elements, then it is termed as optical unit cable.
8. The primary function of the structural member is load bearing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The primary function of the structural member is not load bearing. It’s function is
to provide suitable accommodation for the fiber ribbons within the cables. These fiber ribbons lie
in the helical grooves or slots formed in the surface of the structural members.
9. What is the Young’s modulus of Kevlar, an aromatic polyester?
a) 9 ×1010Nm-2
b) 10 ×1010Nm-2
c) 12 ×1010Nm-2
d) 13 ×1010Nm-2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kevlar is used as a strength member in an optical fiber. The Young’s modulus of
Kevlar is very high which gives it strength to weight ratio advantage four times that of steel.
Kevlar is coated with extruded plastic to provide a smooth surface which in turn prevents
microbending
losses.
10. The cable is normally covered with an outer plastic sheath to reduce _______________
a) Abrasion
b) Armor
c) Friction
d) Dispersion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Abrasion is the process of scraping or wearing something away. If the cable is not
coated with plastic sheath, it gives rise to effects such as abrasion and crushing. The most
common plastic sheath material used in covering a cable is polyethylene (PE).
4. Questions on Optical Fiber Connections : Joints, Couplers and Isolators
The section contains questions on fiber alignment and splices, fiber and beam connectors, fiber
couplers, optical isolators and circulators.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fiber Alignment and Joint Loss”.
1. A measure of amount of optical fiber emitted from source that can be coupled into a fiber is
termed as ______________
a) Radiance
b) Angular power distribution
c) Coupling efficiency
d) Power-launching
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coupling efficiency depends upon the type of fiber attached to the source which
should consider the parameters such as numerical aperture, core size, R.I. profile, radiance,
corecladding
index difference. All these parameters relate to the performance of the fibers
determined by power coupled into the fiber to power emitted by the source. This is called
coupling efficiency ηwhich is given by
η = PF/Ps
Where PF = power coupled into the fiber
Ps = power emitted by the source.
2. The ratio r = (n1 – n)/(n1 – n) indicates ____________
a) Fresnel reflection
b) Reflection coefficient
c) Refraction coefficient
d) Angular power distribution coefficient
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio, r = (n1-n)/(n1-n) is known as Reflection coefficient. It relates the
amplitude of the reflected ray to the amplitude of the incident wave.
3. A GaAs optical source having a refractive index of 3.2 is coupled to a silica fiber having a
refractive index of 1.42. Determine Fresnel reflection at interface in terms of percentage.
a) 13.4%
b) 17.4%
c) 17.6%
d) 14.8%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the fiber end and the source are in close physical contact, the reflection is given
by
r = ((n1-n)/(n1-n))2
Multiplying r by 100, we get the value of r in terms of percentage.
4. A particular GaAs fiber has a Fresnel reflection magnitude of 17.6% i.e. 0.176. Find the power
loss between the source and the fiber?
a) 0.86 dB
b) 0.78 dB
c) 0.84 dB
d) 0.83 dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The optical losses in decibels at the joint is given by
Loss = -10log10(1-r)
Where L = loss due to Fresnel reflection
R = magnitude of Fresnel reflection.
5. Two joined step index fibers are perfectly aligned. What is the coupling loss of numerical
aperture are NAR= 0.26 for emitting fiber?
a) -0.828 dB
b) -0.010 dB
c) -0.32 dB
d) 0.32 dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined step index fibers is given by
LF(NA) = -10 log (NAR/NAE)2
Where LF = coupling loss
NAR = Numerical aperture of receiving fiber
NAE = Numerical aperture of emitting fiber.
6. Two joined graded index fibers that are perfectly aligned have refractive indices αR = 1.93 for
receiving fiber αE = 2.15 for emitting fiber. Calculate the coupling loss.
a) 0.23 dB
b) 0.16 dB
c) 0.82 dB
d) 0.76 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined and perfectly aligned graded index fiber is given by
LF(α) = -10log10αR(αE+2)/αE(αR+2)
Where LF(α) = Coupling loss
αR = refractive index of receiving fiber
αE = refractive index of emitting fiber.
7. How many types of misalignments occur when joining compatible fiber?
a) One
b) Two
c) Five
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are three layers of fiber misalignments and they are: Longitudinal, lateral and
angular misalignments.
8. Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter, numerical aperture, relative
refractive index differences, different refractive index profiles, fiber faults are known as
____________
a) Intrinsic joint losses
b) Extrinsic losses
c) Insertion losses
d) Coupling losses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are inherent connection problems while joining fibers. These connection
problem cause different losses in the fibers and are called as Intrinsic joint losses.
9. A step index fiber has a coupling efficiency of 0.906 with uniform illumination of all
propagation modes. Find the insertion loss due to lateral misalignment?
a) 0.95 dB
b) 0.40 dB
c) 0.42 dB
d) 0.62 dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The insertion loss due to lateral misalignment is given by
Loss10t = -10log10t η10t
Where, Loss10t = insertion loss due to lateral misalignment
η10t = Coupling efficiency.
10. A graded index fiber has a parabolic refractive index profile (α=2) and core diameter of
42μm. Estimate an insertion loss due to a 2 μm lateral misalignment when there is index
matching and assuming there is uniform illumination of all guided modes only.
a) 0.180
b) 0.106
c) 0.280
d) 0.080
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The misalignment loss (assuming there is uniform illumination of all guided
modes) is given by
Lt = 0.85(y/a)
Where y = lateral misalignment
a = core radius.
11. Determine coupling efficiency if the misalignment loss in a graded index fiber is 0.102.
a) 0.136
b) 0.898
c) 0.982
d) 0.684
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the misalignment loss is known, the coupling efficiency is defined by
η = 1-Lt
Where η = coupling efficiency
Lt = misalignment loss.
12. In a single mode fiber, the losses due to lateral offset and angular misalignment are given by
0.20 dB and 0.46 dB respectively. Find the total insertion loss.
a) 0.66 dB
b) 0.26 dB
c) 0.38 dB
d) 0.40 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total insertion loss in a single mode fiber is given by
TT = TL + Ta
Where, TT = total insertion loss
TL = lateral offset loss
Ta = Angular misalignment loss.
13. The intrinsic loss through a multimode fiber joint is independent of direction of propagation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intrinsic loss is defined as the summation of lateral offset loss and angular
misalignment loss. In case of multimode fibers, the intrinsic loss is dependent on the refractive
index gradient. The intrinsic loss through a single mode fiber joint is independent of direction of
propagation.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fiber Splices”.
1. A permanent joint formed between two different optical fibers in the field is known as a
____________
a) Fiber splice
b) Fiber connector
c) Fiber attenuator
d) Fiber dispersion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The jointing of two individual fibers is called as fiber splicing. It is used to
establish long-haul optical fiber links by joining two small length fibers.
2. How many types of fiber splices are available?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Splices are divided into two types depending upon the splicing technique used.
These are fusion splicing (welding) and mechanical splicing.
3. The insertion losses of the fiber splices are much less than the Fresnel reflection loss at a
butted fiber joint.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Fresnel reflection loss is usually more because there is no large step change in
refractive index with the fusion splice as it forms a continuous fiber connection. Also, some
method of index matching tends to be utilized with mechanical splices.
4. What is the main requirement with the fibers that are intended for splicing?
a) Smooth and oval end faces
b) Smooth and square end faces
c) Rough edge faces
d) Large core diameter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A curved mandrel is used which cleaves the fiber to achieve end preparation. The
edges must be smooth and have square face at the end for splicing purpose.
5. In score and break process, which of the following is not used as a cutting tool?
a) Diamond
b) Sapphire
c) Tungsten carbide
d) Copper
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The score and break process is also called as scribe and break. It involves the
scribing of the fiber surface under tension with a cutting tool. Copper is not used as a cutting
tool.
6. The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing point with the application of
required axial pressure between the two optical fibers is called as ____________
a) Mechanical splicing
b) Fusion splicing
c) Melting
d) Diffusion
View Answer
7. Which of the following is not used as a flame heating source in fusion splicing?
a) Microprocessor torches
b) Ox hydric burners
c) Electric arc
d) Gas burner
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Micro-plasma torches uses argon and hydrogen and alcohol vapor. The most widely
used heating source is an electric arc. Thus, gas burner is not used in fusion splicing.
8. The rounding of the fiber ends with a low energy discharge before pressing the fibers together
and fusing with a stronger arc is called as ____________
a) Pre-fusion
b) Diffusion
c) Crystallization
d) Alignment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pre-fusion involves rounding of fiber ends. It removes the requirement for fiber end
preparation which has a distinct advantage in the field environment. It is utilized with multimode
fibers giving average splice losses of 0.09dB.
9. _____________ is caused by surface tension effects between the two fiber ends during fusing.
a) Pre-fusion
b) Diffusion
c) Self-alignment
d) Splicing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two fiber ends are close but not aligned before fusion. During fusion, the
surface tension affects the fiber ends to get aligned. After fusion, they are aligned in such a way
that a transmission medium can get a good continuity.
10. Average insertion losses as low as _________ have been obtained with multimode graded
index and single-mode fibers using ceramic capillaries.
a) 0.1 dB
b) 0.5 dB
c) 0.02 dB
d) 0.3 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanical techniques for splicing involve the use of an accurately produced rigid
tube in which fiber ends are permanently bonded. It utilizes a ceramic capillary in which an
epoxy resin is injected through a transverse bore to provide mechanical sealing and index
matching. This technique which uses ceramic capillaries provides insertion losses as low as
0.1dB.
11. _____________ are formed by sandwiching the butted fiber ends between a V-groove glass
substrate and a flat glass retainer plate.
a) Springroove splices
b) V-groove splices
c) Elastic splices
d) Fusion splices
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In V-groove splices, a V-groove glass substrate is used with a flat glass plate. The
name V-groove suggests that the fiber ends are spliced in a V-shape.
These splices provide losses as low as 0.01dB.
12. Mean splice insertion losses of 0.05 dB are obtained using multimode graded index fibers
with the Springroove splice.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Springroove utilizes a bracket containing two cylindrical pins which act as
alignment guide for two fiber ends. An elastic element is used to press the fibers into a groove.
The assembly is secured with a drop of epoxy resin. It provides a loss of 0.05 dB and has found a
practical use in Italy.
13. Alignment accuracy of the order ___________ is obtained using the three glass rod
alignment sleeve.
a) 0.23 μm
b) 0.15 μm
c) 0.05 μm
d) 0.01 μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Alignment accuracies as high as 0.05 μmare necessary to obtain low losses. The
mode-field diameter for single-mode fiber is in the range 8 to 10μm. The three glass rod
alignment provides higher accuracies than rotary splice sleeve.
14. In case of multiple fusion, splice losses using an electric arc fusion device with multimode
graded index fiber range from ____________
a) 0.01 to 0.04 dB
b) 0.19 to 0.25 dB
c) 0.12 to 0.15 dB
d) 0.04 to 0.12 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In multiple fusions, an electric arc fusing device allows splicing of 12 fibers
simultaneously. It takes a tool time of 6 minutes, which requires only 30 seconds per splice. The
splice losses for single mode fiber are of 0.04 dB as maximum whereas for graded index fibers,
losses are up to 0.12dB.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fiber Connectors”.
1. Demountable fiber connectors are more difficult to achieve than optical fiber splices.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fiber connectors must maintain tolerance requirements similar to splices in order to
couple light efficiently between the fibers. Also, fiber connectors must accomplish this in a
removable fashion. The connector design must allow repeated connection and disconnection
without any problems of fiber alignment.
2. What is the use of an index-matching material in the connector between the two jointed fibers?
a) To decrease the light transmission through the connection
b) To increase the light transmission through the connection
c) To induce losses in the fiber
d) To make a fiber dispersive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The index-matching material used might be epoxy resin. It increases the light
transmission through the connection while keeping dust and dirt from between the fibers. It also
provides optimum optical coupling.
3. How many categories of fiber connectors exist?
a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fiber connectors are separated into two broad categories. They are butt-jointed
connectors and expanded beam connectors. Butt-jointed connectors rely upon alignment of the
two fiber ends butted to each other whereas expanded beam connectors uses interposed optics at
the joint.
4. The basic ferrule connector is also called as _____________
a) Groove connector
b) Beam connector
c) Multimode connector
d) Concentric sleeve connector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The basic ferrule connector is the simplest connector. The ferrules are placed in an
alignment sleeve within the connector. The alignment sleeve is concentric which allows the fiber
ends to be butt-jointed.
5. What is the use of watch jewel in cylindrical ferrule connector?
a) To obtain the diameter and tolerance requirements of the ferrule
b) For polishing purposes
c) Cleaving the fiber
d) To disperse a fiber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ferrule connectors have a watch jewel in the ferrule end face. It is used instead of
drilling of the metallic ferrule end face which takes time. It is used to obtain close diameter and
tolerance requirements of the ferrule end face whole easily.
6. The concentricity errors between the fiber core and the outside diameter of the jeweled ferrule
are in the range of ___________ with multimode step-index fibers.
a) 1 to 3μm
b) 2 to 6μm
c) 7 to 10μm
d) 12 to 20μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fiber alignment accuracy of the basic ferrule connector is dependent on the
ferrule hole into which the fiber is inserted. The concentricity errors in the range of 2 to 6μm
gives insertion losses in the range 1 to 2dB with multimode step index fibers.
7. The typical average losses for multimode graded index fiber and single mode fiber with the
precision ceramic ferrule connector are _____________ respectively.
a) 0.3 and 0.5 dB
b) 0.2 and 0.3 dB
c) 0.1 and 0.2 dB
d) 0.4 and 0.7 dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike metal and plastic components, the ceramic ferrule material is harder than the
optical fiber. Thus, it is unaffected by grinding and polishing process. This factor enables to
provide the low-loss connectors which have low losses as low as 0.2 and 0.3 dB in case of
optical fibers.
8. Bi-conical ferrule connectors are less advantageous than cylindrical ferrule connectors.
a) FalseStat
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cylindrical and bi-conical ferrule connectors are assembled in housings to form a
multi-fiber configuration. The force needed to insert multiple cylindrical ferrules can be large
when multiple ferrules are involved. The multiple bi-conical ferrule connectors are more
advantageous as they require less insertion force.
9. In connectors, the fiber ends are separated by some gap. This gap ranges from ____________
a) 0.040 to 0.045 mm
b) 0.025 to 0.10 mm
c) 0.12 to 0.16 mm
d) 0.030 to 0.2mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In connectors, gaps are introduced to prevent them from rubbing against each other
and becoming damaged during connector fixing/engagement. The gap ranges from 0.025 to 0.10
mm so as to reduce the losses below 8dB for a particular diameter fiber say 50μm
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Expanded Beam Connectors”.
1. What is the use of interposed optics in expanded beam connectors?
a) To achieve lateral alignment less critical than a butt-joined fiber connector
b) To make a fiber loss free
c) To make a fiber dispersive
d) For index-matching
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Expanded beam connector utilize interposed optics at the joint in order to expand the
beam from transmitting fiber end before reducing it to a size compatible with the receiving fiber end. It
helps to achieve lateral alignment less critical than a butt-jointed connector. Also, the longitudinal
separation is critical in expanded beam connectors.
2. The expanded beam connectors use ____________ for beam expansion and reduction.
a) Square micro-lens
b) Oval micro-lens
c) Spherical micro-lens
d) Rectangular micro-lens
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Expanded beam connectors use the principle of transmission of digital data to the receiver.
It uses spherical micro-lens to first expand the beam from the transmitting end and reduces the beam at
the receiving end.
3. Lens-coupled expanded beam connectors exhibit average losses of _________ in case of
single mode and graded index fibers.
a) 0.3 dB
b) 0.7 dB
c) 0.2 dB
d) 1.5 dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lens-coupled expanded beam connectors use spherical micro-lenses. The average losses
are in the range of 1dB. With the antireflection coating on the lenses, the losses are reduced to 0.7 dB in
case of single mode fibers.
4. Sapphire ball lens expanded beam design is successful than spherical lens coupled design.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spherical lens coupled design exhibits losses in the range 0.7 dB to 1dB. Sapphire ball lens
expanded beam design achieved successful single mode fiber connection with losses as low as 0.4dB.
5. The fiber is positioned at the ________ of the lens in order to obtain a collimated beam and to
minimize lens-to-lens longitudinal misalignment effects.
a) Aperture
b) Focal length
c) Curve
d) Exterior circumference
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The expanded beam connector also uses a molded spherical lens. A lens alignment sleeve is
used to minimize the effects of angular misalignment. The fiber is positioned at the focal length of the
lens to achieve losses as low as 0.7dB.
6. ___________ exhibits a parabolic refractive index profile with a maximum at the axis similar
to graded index fiber.
a) Lens coupled design
b) Sapphire ball lens
c) Spherical micro-lens
d) GRIN-rod lens
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens geometry has a parabolic refractive index profile. It facilitates efficient beam
expansion and collimation within expanded beam connectors. It finds its applications in fiber couplers
and source-to-fiber coupling.
7. The GRIN-rod lens can produce a collimated output beam with a divergent angle αof between
_____________ from a light source situated on, or near to, the opposite lens face.
a) 1 to 5 degrees
b) 9 to 16 degrees
c) 4 to 8 degrees
d) 25 to 50 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens comprises of a cylindrical glass rod typically 0.2 to 2 mm in diameter. It
exhibits a parabolic refractive index profile. It facilitates efficient beam expansion and collimation with
an angle in the range 1 to 5 degrees.
8. In the given equation, if r is the radial distance, n is the refractive index; what does z stands
for?
dr2/dz2 = (1/n) (d n/dr)
a) Focal length
b) Distance along the optical axis
c) Axial angle
d) Diameter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The above equation is known as paraxial ray equation which governs the ray propagation
through the GRIN-rod lens. GRIN-rod lens geometry is parabolic in nature. Thus z is the distance along
the optical axis of a parabolic profile.
9. The majority of the GRIN-rod lenses have diameters in the range of ____________
a) 2 to 2.5 mm
b) 3 to 4 mm
c) 0.1 to 0.4 mm
d) 0.5 to 2 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The GRIN-rod lenses performance directly depends on the radial distance. The diameters in
the range of 0.5 to 2 mm may be employed with either single mode or multimode fibers. They are
available with numerical apertures of 0.37, 0.46 and 0.6.
10. Which of the following factors does not cause divergence of the collimated beam from a
GRIN-rod lens?
a) Lens cut length
b) Size of fiber core
c) Refractive index profile
d) Chromatic aberration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Various factors contribute to the divergence of the collimated beam from a GRIN-rod lens.
Error in lens cut length, finite size of the fiber core and chromatic aberration are the factors that cause
divergence.
11. GRIN-rod lens connectors have loss characteristics that are independent of the modal power
distribution in the fiber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens geometry is analogous to butt-jointed multimode fiber
connectors. The loss characteristics of butt-jointed connectors are dependent on modal power
distribution in the fiber
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fiber Couplers”.
1. When considering source-to-fiber coupling efficiencies, the ________ is an important
parameter than total output power.
a) Numerical aperture
b) Radiance of an optical source
c) Coupling efficiency
d) Angular power distribution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Radiance is the optical power radiated into a unit solid angle per unit emitting
surface area. Since this optical power is dependent on radiance, radiance is much important
factor than optical power.
2. It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch fibers.
a) Optical fiber coupler
b) Optical fiber splice
c) Optical fiber connector
d) Optical isolator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nowadays, requirements to divide combined optical signals for applications are
increasing. Optical fiber coupler is one such device that is used for dividing and combining
optical signals. It is generally used in LANs, computer networks etc.
3. Optical fiber couplers are also called as ________________
a) Isolators
b) Circulators
c) Directional couplers
d) Attenuators
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical fiber couplers are passive devices. The power transfer in couplers takes
place either through the fiber core cross-section by butt jointing the fibers or by using some form
of imaging optics between the fibers. It distributes light from one fiber to many fibers and hence
it is also called as a directional coupler.
4. How many types of multiport optical fiber couplers are available at present?
a) Two
b) One
c) Four
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiport optical fiber couplers are subdivided into three types. These are three and
four port couplers, star couplers and wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) couplers. These
couplers distribute light among the branch fibers with no scattering loss.
5. The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is limited by ____________
a) Numerical apertures of fibers
b) Varying refractive index of fibers
c) Angular power distribution at source
d) Number of modes propagating in each fiber
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When two fibers are coupled to each other, the optical power is limited by number
of modes propagating in each fiber. For example, when a fiber propagating with 500 modes is
connected to a fiber that propagates only 400 modes, then at maximum, only 80% of power is
coupled into the other fiber.
6. ________ couplers combine the different wavelength optical signal onto the fiber or separate
the different wavelength optical signal output from the fiber.
a) 3-port
b) 2*2-star
c) WDM
d) Directional
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: WDM coupler is abbreviated as wavelength division multiplexing coupler. It is a
category of multiport optical fiber couplers. It is designed to permit a number of different peak
wavelength optical signals to be transmitted in parallel on a single fiber.
7. How many fabrication techniques are used for 3 port fiber couplers?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two fabrication techniques available for three port couplers. First is a
lateral offset method which relies on the overlapping of the fiber end faces and the other is the
semi-transparent mirror method. Using these techniques, three port couplers with both
multimode and single-mode fibers can be fabricated.
8. Which is the most common method for manufacturing couplers?
a) Wavelength division multiplexing
b) Lateral offset method
c) Semitransparent mirror method
d) Fused bi-conical taper (FBT) technique
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The FBT technique is basic and simple. In this technique, the fibers are generally
twisted together and then spot fused under tension such that the fused section is elongated to
form a bi-conical taper structure. A three port coupler can be obtained by removing one of the
input fibers.
9. Couplers insertion loss is same as that of excess loss.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Excess loss is defined as the ratio of input power to output power. The insertion
loss is defined as the loss obtained for a particular port-to-port optical path. Thus, the insertion
loss and excess loss are different in nature.
10. A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μW optical power launched into port 1. The
measured output power at ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5 μW respectively. Determine
the excess loss.
a) 0.22 dB
b) 0.33 dB
c) 0.45 dB
d) 0.12 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Excess loss is a ratio of power input to power output of the fiber and it is given by
Excess loss = 10log10 P1/(P3+P4)
WhereP1, P3, P4 = output power at ports 1,3 and 4 resp.
11. A four-port FBT coupler has 60μW optical power launched into port one. The output powers
at ports 2, 3, 4 are 0.0025, 18, and 22 μW respectively. Find the split ratio?
a) 42%
b) 46%
c) 52%
d) 45%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Split ratio indicates the percentage division of optical power between the outputs
ports. It is given by
Split ratio = [P3/(P3+P4)]*100%
Where P3 and P4 are output powers at ports 3 and 4 respectively.
12. How many manufacturing methods are used for producing multimode fiber star couplers?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The manufacturing methods of star couplers are mixer-rod technique and FBT
technique. In the mixer-rod method, a thin platelet of glass is employed, which mixes light from
one fiber, dividing it among the outgoing fibers. FBT method involves twisting, heating and
pulling of fiber.
13. Calculate the splitting loss if a 30×30 port multimode fiber star coupler has 1 mW of optical
power launched into an input port.
a) 13 dB
b) 15 dB
c) 14.77 dB
d) 16.02 dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The splitting loss is related to the number of output ports N of a coupler. It is given
by-
Splitting loss (Star coupler) = 10log10N (dB).
14. A _____________ coupler comprises a number of cascaded stages, each incorporating three
or four-port FBT couplers to obtain a multiport output.
a) Star
b) Ladder
c) WDM
d) Three-port
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A star coupler can be realized by constructing a ladder coupler. It consists of many
cascaded stages. If a three-port coupler is used, then a ladder coupler does not form symmetrical
star coupler. It is a useful device to achieve a multiport output with low insertion loss.
15. A number of three-port single-mode fiber couplers are used in the fabrication of a ladder
coupler with 16 output ports. The three-port couplers each have an excess loss of 0.2 dB along
with a splice loss of 0.1 dB at the interconnection of each stage. Determine the excess loss.
a) 1.9 dB
b) 1.4 dB
c) 0.9 dB
d) 1.1 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The number of stages M within the ladder design is given by 2 M=16. Hence M=4.
Thus, excess loss is given by-
Excess loss = (M×loss in each 3-port coupler) + (Number of splices×Loss in each stage)
Where number of splices = 3 (as the value of M is equal to 4)
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Isolators and Circulators”.
1. An FBG is developed within a fiber core having a refractive index of 1.30. Find the grating
period for it to reflect an optical signal with a wavelength of 1.33μm.
a) 0.51 μm
b) 0.58 μm
c) 0.61 μm
d) 0.49 μm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The grating period is denoted by Λ. It is given by-
Λ = λB/ 2n
Where λB = wavelength
n = refractive index.
2. It is a passive device which allows the flow of optical signal power in only one direction and
preventing reflections in the backward direction.
a) Fiber slice
b) Optical fiber connector
c) Optical isolator
d) Optical coupler
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ideally, an optical isolator transmits the signal power in the desired forward
direction. Material imperfections in the isolator medium generate backward reflections. Optical
isolators can be implemented by using FBG.
3. Which feature of an optical isolator makes it attractive to use with optical amplifier?
a) Low loss
b) Wavelength blocking
c) Low refractive index
d) Attenuation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical isolators are made using FBGs. Since FBGs are wavelength dependent, the
optical isolators can be designed to allow or block the optical signal at particular wavelength.
The wavelength blocking feature makes the optical isolator a very attractive device for use with
optical amplifier in order to protect them from backward reflections.
4. Magneto-optic devices can be used to function as isolators.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Magneto-optic devices use the principle of Faraday rotation. It relates the TM mode
characteristics and polarization state of an optical signal with its direction of propagation. The
rotation of polarization plane is proportional to the intensity of component of magnetic field in
the direction of optical signal. Therefore, it is possible to block and divert an optical signal using
magnetic properties which is a function of an isolator.
5. How many implementation methods are available for optical isolators?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Optical isolators can be implemented using three techniques. These are as follows:
-By using FBGs
-By using magnetic oxide materials
-By using semiconductor optical amplifiers (SOAs).
6. A device which is made of isolators and follows a closed loop path is called as a
____________
a) Circulator
b) Gyrator
c) Attenuator
d) Connector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isolator can be connected together to form multiport devices. A circulator is formed
from isolators connected together to form a closed circular path. In circulator, the signal
continues to travel in closed loop and does not get discarded unlike isolator.
7. The commercially available circulators exhibit insertion losses around ________________
a) 2 dB
b) 0.7 dB
c) 0.2 dB
d) 1 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A number of isolators can be used to implement a circulator. However, as the
number of ports increases, the device complexity increases. Hence, three-or four-port circulators
are used for optical interconnection with insertion losses around 1 dB and high isolation in the
range of 40-50dB.
8. A combination of a FBG and optical isolators can be used to produce non-blocking optical
wavelength division add/draw multiplexers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical wavelength divisions add/draw multiplexers can be produced by a
combination of a FBG and a circulator. Non-blocking NXM optical wavelengths divisions
add/draw multiplexer is produced where N and M denotes the number of wavelength channels
and add/drop channels.

Multiple Choice Questions


____________________________________________
BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems )
Topic : Fibre Optic Communication
UNIT II Light wave Systems
5. Questions & Answers on Optical Sources : The Laser and Light – Emitting Diode
The section contains questions on optical sources basics, semiconductor injection laser, injection
laser structures and characteristics, non semiconductor lasers, tunable and infrared lasers, led
power, led structures and characteristics.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Sources : Laser Basics”.
1. A device which converts electrical energy in the form of a current into optical energy is called
as ___________
a) Optical source
b) Optical coupler
c) Optical isolator
d) Circulator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An Optical source is an active component in an optical fiber communication
system. It converts electrical energy into optical energy and allows the light output to be
efficiently coupled into the Optical fiber.
2. How many types of sources of optical light are available?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Three main types of optical light sources are available. These are wideband
sources, monochromatic incoherent sources. Ideally the optical source should be linear.
3. The frequency of the absorbed or emitted radiation is related to difference in energy E
between the higher energy state E2 and the lower energy state E1. State what h stands for in the
given equation?
E = E2 - E1 = hf
a) Gravitation constant
b) Planck’s constant
c) Permittivity
d) Attenuation constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the given equation, difference in the energy E is directly proportional to the
absorbed frequency (f) where h is used as a constant and is called as Planck’s constant. The value
of h is measured in Joules/sec & is given byh
= 6.626×10-34Js.
4. The radiation emission process (emission of a proton at frequency) can occur in __________
ways.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The emission process can occur in two ways. First is by spontaneous emission in
which the atom returns to the lower energy state in a random manner. Second is by stimulated
emission where the energy of a photon is equal to the energy difference and it interacts with the
atom in the upper state causing it to return to the lower state along with the creation of a new
photon.
5. Which process gives the laser its special properties as an optical source?
a) Dispersion
b) Stimulated absorption
c) Spontaneous emission
d) Stimulated emission
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Stimulated emission, the photon produced is of the same energy to the one which
cause it. Hence, the light associated with stimulated photon is in phase and has same
polarization. Therefore, in contrast to spontaneous emission, coherent radiation is obtained. The
coherent radiation phenomenon in laser provides amplification thereby making laser a better
optical source than LED.
6. An incandescent lamp is operating at a temperature of 1000K at an operating frequency of
5.2×1014 Hz. Calculate the ratio of stimulated emission rate to spontaneous emission rate.
a) 3×10-13
b) 1.47×10-11
c) 2×10-12
d) 1.5×10-13
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of the stimulated emission rate to the spontaneous emission rate is given
by-
Stimulated emission rate/ Spontaneous emission rate = 1/exp (hf/KT)-1.
7. The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper level under the conditions of
________________
a) Isothermal packaging
b) Population inversion
c) Thermal equilibrium
d) Pumping
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Under the conditions of thermal equilibrium, the lower energy level contains more
atoms than the upper level. To achieve optical amplification, it is required to create a
nonequilibrium
distribution such that the population of upper energy level is more than the lower
energy level. This process of excitation of atoms into the upper level is achieved by using an
external energy source and is called as pumping.
8. __________________ in the laser occurs when photon colliding with an excited atom causes
the stimulated emission of a second photon.
a) Light amplification
b) Attenuation
c) Dispersion
d) Population inversion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Laser emits coherent radiation of one or more discrete wavelength. Lasers produce
coherent light through a process called stimulated emission. Light amplification is obtained
through stimulated emission. Continuation of this process creates avalanche multiplication.
9. A ruby laser has a crystal of length 3 cm with a refractive index of 1.60, wavelength 0.43 μm.
Determine the number of longitudinal modes.
a) 1×102
b) 3×106
c) 2.9×105
d) 2.2×105
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The number of longitudinal modes is given byq
= 2nL/λ
Where
q = Number of longitudinal modes
n = Refractive index
L = Length of the crystal
λ = Peak emission wavelength.
10. A semiconductor laser crystal of length 5 cm, refractive index 1.8 is used as an optical
source. Determine the frequency separation of the modes.
a) 2.8 GHz
b) 1.2 GHz
c) 1.6 GHz
d) 2 GHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The modes of laser are separated by a frequency internal δf and this separation is
given by-
δf = c/2nL
Where
c = velocity of light
n = Refractive index
L = Length of the crystal.
11. Doppler broadening is a homogeneous broadening mechanism.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Doppler broadening is a inhomogeneous broadening mechanism. In this
broadening, the individual groups of atoms have different apparent resonance frequencies.
Atomic collisions usually provide homogeneous broadening as each atom in collection has same
resonant frequency and spectral spread.
12. An injection laser has active cavity losses of 25 cm-1 and the reflectivity of each laser facet is
30%. Determine the laser gain coefficient for the cavity it has a length of 500μm.
a) 46 cm-1
b) 51 cm-1
c) 50 cm-1
d) 49.07 cm-1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The laser gain coefficient is equivalent to the threshold gain per unit length and is
given by –
gth = α + 1/L ln (1/r)
Where
α = active cavity loss
L = Length of the cavity
r = reflectivity.
13. Longitudinal modes contribute only a single spot of light to the laser output.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Laser emission includes the longitudinal modes and transverse modes. Transverse
modes give rise to a pattern of spots at the output. Longitudinal modes give only a spot of light to
the output.
14. Considering the values given below, calculate the mode separation in terms of free space
wavelength for a laser. (Frequency separation = 2GHz, Wavelength = 0.5 μm)
a) 1.4×10-11
b) 1.6×10-12
c) 1×10-12
d) 6×10-11
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mode separation in terms of free space wavelength is given by-
δλ = λ2/c δf
Where
δf = frequency separation
λ = wavelength
c = velocity of light
This set of Optical Communications test focuses on “Optical Emission From Semiconductors”.
1. A perfect semiconductor crystal containing no impurities or lattice defects is called as
__________
a) Intrinsic semiconductor
b) Extrinsic semiconductor
c) Excitation
d) Valence electron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An intrinsic semiconductor is usually un-doped. It is a pure semiconductor. The
number of charge carriers is determined by the semiconductor material properties and not by the
impurities.
2. The energy-level occupation for a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is described by the
__________
a) Boltzmann distribution function
b) Probability distribution function
c) Fermi-Dirac distribution function
d) Cumulative distribution function
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium, the probability P(E) that an electron
gains sufficient thermal energy at an absolute temperature so as to occupy a particular energy
level E, is given by the Fermi-Dirac distribution. It is given by-
P(E) = 1/(1+exp(E-EF/KT))
Where K = Boltzmann constant, T = absolute temperature, EF = Fermi energy level.
3. What is done to create an extrinsic semiconductor?
a) Refractive index is decreased
b) Doping the material with impurities
c) Increase the band-gap of the material
d) Stimulated emission
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An intrinsic semiconductor is a pure semiconductor. An extrinsic semiconductor is
obtained by doping the material with impurity atoms. These impurity atoms create either free
electrons or holes. Thus, extrinsic semiconductor is a doped semiconductor.
4. The majority of the carriers in a p-type semiconductor are __________
a) Holes
b) Electrons
c) Photons
d) Neutrons
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The impurities can be either donor impurities or acceptor impurities. When
acceptor impurities are added, the excited electrons are raised from the valence band to the
acceptor impurity levels leaving positive charge carriers in the valence band. Thus, p-type
semiconductor is formed in which majority of the carriers are positive i.e. holes.
5. _________________ is used when the optical emission results from the application of electric
field.
a) Radiation
b) Efficiency
c) Electro-luminescence
d) Magnetron oscillator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electro-luminescence is encouraged by selecting an appropriate semiconductor
material. Direct band-gap semiconductors are used for this purpose. In band-to-band
recombination, the energy is released with the creation of photon. This emission of light is
known as electroluminescence.
6. In the given equation, what does p stands for?
p = 2πhk
a) Permittivity
b) Probability
c) Holes
d) Crystal momentum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The given equation is a relation of crystal momentum and wave vector. In the given
equation, h is the Planck’s constant, k is the wave vector and p is the crystal momentum.
7. The recombination in indirect band-gap semiconductors is slow.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an indirect band-gap semiconductor, the maximum and minimum energies occur
at different values of crystal momentum. However, three-particle recombination process is far
less probable than the two-particle process exhibited by direct band-gap semiconductors. Hence,
the recombination in an indirect band-gap semiconductor is relatively slow.
8. Calculate the radioactive minority carrier lifetime in gallium arsenide when the minority
carriers are electrons injected into a p-type semiconductor region which has a hole concentration
of 1018cm-3. The recombination coefficient for gallium arsenide is 7.21*10-10cm3s-1.
a) 2ns
b) 1.39ns
c) 1.56ns
d) 2.12ms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The radioactive minority carrier lifetime ςrconsidering the p-type region is given
by-
ςr = [BrN]-1 where Br = Recombination coefficient in cm3s-1 and N = carrier concentration in
nregion.
9. Which impurity is added to gallium phosphide to make it an efficient light emitter?
a) Silicon
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Phosphorus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An indirect band-gap semiconductor may be made into an electro-luminescent
material by the addition of impurity centers which will convert it into a direct band-gap material.
The introduction of nitrogen as an impurity into gallium phosphide makes it an effective emitter
of light. Such conversion is only achieved in materials where the direct and indirect band-gaps
have a small energy difference.
10. Population inversion is obtained at a p-n junction by __________
a) Heavy doping of p-type material
b) Heavy doping of n-type material
c) Light doping of p-type material
d) Heavy doping of both p-type and n-type material
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Population inversion at p-n junction is obtained by heavy doping of both p-type and
n-type material. Heavy p-type doping with acceptor impurities causes a lowering of the
Fermilevel
between the filled and empty states into the valence band. Similarly n-type doping causes
Fermi-level to enter the conduction band of the material.
11. A GaAs injection laser has a threshold current density of 2.5*103Acm-2 and length and width
of the cavity is 240μm and 110μm respectively. Find the threshold current for the device.
a) 663 mA
b) 660 mA
c) 664 mA
d) 712 mA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The threshold current is denoted by Ith. It is given by-
Ith = Jth * area of the optical cavity
Where Jth = threshold current density
Area of the cavity = length and width.
12. A GaAs injection laser with an optical cavity has refractive index of 3.6. Calculate the
reflectivity for normal incidence of the plane wave on the GaAs-air interface.
a) 0.61
b) 0.12
c) 0.32
d) 0.48
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reflectivity for normal incidence of the plane wave on the GaAs-air interface is
given byr
= ((n-1)/(n+1))2 where r=reflectivity and n=refractive index.
13. A homo-junction is an interface between two adjoining single-crystal semiconductors with
different band-gap energies.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The photo-emissive properties of a single p-n junction fabricated from a
singlecrystal
semiconductor material are called as homo-junction. A hetero-junction is an interface
between two single-crystal semiconductors with different band-gap energies. The devices which
are fabricated with hetero-junctions are said to have hetero-structure.
14. How many types of hetero-junctions are available?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hetero-junctions are classified into an isotype and an-isotype. The isotype
heterojunctions
are also called as n-n or p-p junction. The an-isotype hetero-junctions are called as p-n
junction with large band-gap energies.
15. The ______________ system is best developed and is used for fabricating both lasers and
LEDs for the shorter wavelength region.
a) InP
b) GaSb
c) GaAs/GaSb
d) GaAs/Alga AS DH
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For DH device fabrication, materials such as GaAs, Alga AS are used. The bandgap
in this material may be tailored to span the entire wavelength band by changing the AlGa
composition. Thus, GaAs/ Alga As DH system is used for fabrication of lasers and LEDs for
shorter wavelength region (0.8μm-0.9μm).
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“The Semiconductor Injection Laser”.
1. Stimulated emission by recombination of injected carriers is encouraged in __________
a) Semiconductor injection laser
b) Gas laser
c) Chemist laser
d) Dye laser
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stimulated emission by use of optical cavity in crystal structure is used in
semiconductor injection diodes. This provides the feedback of protons which gives injection
laser many important advantages over other sources like LED’s.
2. In semiconductor injection laser, narrow line bandwidth is of the order?
a) 1 nm or less
b) 4 nm
c) 5 nm
d) 3 nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A narrow line bandwidth of order 1 nm or less is used. This narrow bandwidth is
useful in minimizing the effects of material dispersion.
3. Injection laser have a high threshold current density of __________
a) 104Acm-2 and more
b) 102Acm-2
c) 10-2Acm-2
d) 10-3Acm-2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Injection laser have a high threshold current density of 104Acm-2due to lack of
matter and in-efficient light sources. These high current densities are largely utilized in pulse
mode in order to minimize junction and thus avert damage.
4. ηT is known as slope quantum efficiency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ηD is known as slope quantum efficiency. It gives a measure rate of optical output
power change with current and thus it determines slope of output characteristics in the region.
So, ηT is referred to as slope quantum efficiency.
5. The total efficiency of an injection laser with GaAs active region is 12%. The applied voltage
is 3.6 V and band gap energy for GaAs is 2.34 eV. Determine external power efficiency.
a) 7.8 %
b) 10 %
c) 12 %
d) 6 %
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total external power efficiency is defined as
η = ηT(Eq/V)*100
= 0.12 (2.34/3.6) *100
= 7.8 %.
6. In a DH laser, the sides of cavity are formed by _______________
a) Cutting the edges of device
b) Roughening the edges of device
c) Softening the edges of device
d) Covering the sides with ceramics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a DH laser, the sides of cavity are formed by the roughening edges of the device.
This is done so as to reduce the unwanted emission in these directions and limit the number of
horizontal transversal modes.
7. A particular laser structure is designed so that the active region extends the edges of devices.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Laser structures are particularly designed so that the active region does not extend
beyond the edges. This is done to reduce problems like difficult heat sinking, lasing from
multiple filament in wide active areas, unsuitable light output geometry for efficient coupling
and also to reduce required threshold current.
8. Gain guided laser structure are __________
a) Chemical laser
b) Gas laser
c) DH injection laser
d) Quantum well laser
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DH injection lasers are known as gain guided laser structure. This is because the
optical mode distribution along the junction plane is decided by optical gain.
9. Laser modes are generally separated by few __________
a) Tenths of micrometer
b) Tenths of nanometer
c) Tenths of Pico-meter
d) Tenths of millimeter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The spacing in between modes is about a few tenths of nanometer. The spacing of
the modes depends on optical cavity length where each one corresponds to an integral number of
lengths.
10. The spectral width of emission from the single mode device is __________
a) Smaller than broadened transition line-width
b) Larger than broadened transition line-width
c) Equal the broadened transition line-width
d) Cannot be determined
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode device has a smaller spectral width as compared to that of broadening
transition line-width. This is because for a single-mode operation, the laser optical output must
have only a single longitudinal and single transverse mode.
11. Single longitudinal mode operation is obtained by __________
a) Eliminating all transverse mode
b) Eliminating all longitudinal modes
c) Increasing the length of cavity
d) Reducing the length of cavity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Single longitudinal mode operation is obtained by reducing the length L of cavity.
Length must be reduced until the frequency separation of adjacent modes is given in the equation
δf = c/2nL is larger than gain curve. Then only single mode falling in transition line width will
oscillate in laser cavity.
12. A correct DH structure will restrict the vertical width of waveguide region is?
a) 0.5μm.
b) 0.69 μm
c) 0.65 μm
d) Less than 0.4 μm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The vertical width DH structure should be less than 0.4μm. This allows only
fundamental transverse mode and removes any interference of higher order transverse modes on
emitted longitudinal waves.
13. The external power efficiency of an injection laser with a GaAs is 13% having band gap
energy of 1.64 eV. Determine external power efficiency.
a) 0.198
b) 0.283
c) 0.366
d) 0.467
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The external power efficiency of an injection laser is given by
ηep = ηT (Eq/V)*100
ηT = ηep/100 (v/Eg)
= 13/100 (2.5/1.64)
= 0.198
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Some Injection Laser Structures”.
1. In multimode injection lasers, the construction of current flow to the strip is obtained in
structure by __________
a) Covering the strip with ceramic
b) Intrinsic doping
c) Implantation outside strip region with protons
d)Implantation outside strip region with electrons
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The current flow is realized by implanting the region outside strip with protons.
This implantation makes the laser highly resistive and gives superior thermal properties due to
absence of silicon dioxide layer.
2. What is the strip width of injection laser?
a) 12 μm
b) 11.5 μm
c) Less than 10 μm
d) 15 μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A strip width less than or equal to 10 μm is usually preferred in injection lasers.
This width range provides the lasers highly efficient coupling into multimode fibers as comapred
to single mode fibers.
3. Some refractive index variation is introduced into lateral structure of laser.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gain guided lasers possess several undesirable characteristics, nonlinearities in
light output versus current characteristics, high threshold current, low differential quantum
efficiency, movement of optical a;ong junction plane. This problems can be reduced by
introducing refractive index variations into lateral structure of lasers so that optical mode is
determined along the junction plane.
4. Buried hetero-junction (BH) device is a type of _____________ laser where the active volume
is buried in a material of wider band-gap and lower refractive index.
a) Gas lasers.
b) Gain guided lasers.
c) Weak index guiding lasers.
d) Strong index guiding lasers.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In strong index guiding lasers, a uniformly thick, planar active waveguide is
achieved by lateral variations in confinement layer thickness or refractive index. In Buried
hetero-junction (BH) devices, strong index guiding along junction plane introduces transverse
mode control in injection lasers.
5. In Buried hetero-junction (BH) lasers, the optical field is confined within __________
a) Transverse direction
b) Lateral direction
c) Outside the strip
d) Both transverse and lateral direction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Optical field is strongly confined in both transverse and lateral direction. This
provides strong index guiding of optical mode along with good carrier confinement.
6. A double-channel planar buried hetero-structure (DCP BH) has a planar active region, the
confinement material is?
a) Alga AS
b) InGaAsP
c) GaAs
d) SiO2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The planar active region made up of InGaAsP can be seen in double-channel planar
buried hetero-structure (DCP BH). This material confinement provides a very high power
operation with CW output power up to 40 mW in longer wavelength region.
7. Problems resulting from parasitic capacitances can be overcome __________
a) Through regrowth of semi-insulating material
b) By using oxide material
c) By using a planar InGaAsP active region
d) By using a AlGaAs active region
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The use of reverse-biased current confinement layers introduces parasitic
capacitances which reduces high speed modulation of BH lasers. This problem can be reduced
by regrowth of semi-insulating material or deposition of dielectric material. This causes increase
in modulation speeds of 20 GHz.
8. Quantum well lasers are also known as __________
a) BH lasers
b) DH lasers
c) Chemical lasers
d) Gain-guided lasers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DH lasers are known as Quantum well lasers. The carrier motion normal to active
layer is restricted in these devices. This results in quantization of kinetic energy into discrete
energy levels for carriers moving in that direction. This phenomenon is similar to quantum
mechanical problem of one dimensional potential well which is seen in DH lasers.
9. Quantum well lasers are providing high inherent advantage over __________
a) Chemical lasers
b) Gas lasers
c) Conventional DH devices
d) BH device
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Quantum well lasers exhibit high incoherent advantage over conventional DH
lasers. In Quantum well laser structures, the thin active layer results in drastic changes in
electronic and optical properties over conventional DH laser structures. This changes are due to
quantized nature of discrete energy levels with step-like density and also allow high gain and low
carrier density.
10. Strip geometry of a device or laser is important.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Near fluid intensity distribution corresponding to single optical output power level
in plane of junction can be seen in GaAs or AlGaAs lasers. This distribution is in lateral direction
and is determined by the nature of lateral waveguide. The single intensity maximum shows the
fundamental lateral mode is dominant.
11. Better confinement of optical mode is obtained in __________
a) Multi Quantum well lasers
b) Single Quantum well lasers
c) Gain guided lasers
d) BH lasers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As compared to all lasers including single quantum well lasers, multi-Quantum
well lasers are having better confinement of optical mode. This results in a lower threshold
current density for these devices.
12. Multi-quantum devices have superior characteristics over __________
a) BH lasers
b) DH lasers
c) Gain guided lasers
d) Single-quantum-well devices
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lower threshold currents, narrower bandwidths, high modulation speeds, lower
frequency chirps and less temperature dependence are parameters determining characteristics of
a particular laser. All the above parameters make multi-quantum devices superior over DH
lasers.
13. Dot-in-well device is also known as __________
a) DH lasers
b) BH lasers
c) QD lasers
d) Gain guided lasers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Quantum well lasers are devices in which device contains a single discrete atomic
structure or Quantum-dot. These are elements that contain electron tiny droplets which forms a
quantum well structure.
14. A BH can have anything from a single electron to several electrons.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Quantum-dot lasers are fabricated using semiconductor crystalline materials. They
have a particular dimension ranging from nm to few microns. The size, shape of these structures
and number of electrons they contain are precisely controlled.
15. QD lasers have a very low threshold current densities of range __________
a) 0.5 to 5 A cm-2
b) 2 to 10 A cm-2
c) 10 to 30 A cm-2
d) 6 to 20 A cm-2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Low-threshold current density between 6 to 20 A cm -2 is obtained with
InAs/InGaAs QD lasers which emit at a wavelength of 1.3 μm and 1.5 μm Such low values of
threshold current densities make these lasers possible to create stacked or cascaded QD
structures. These structures provide high optical gain for short-cavity transmitters and vertical
cavity surface-emitting lasers.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
” Single Frequency Injection Lasers”.
1. __________________ may be improved through the use of frequency-selective feedback so
that the cavity loss is different for various longitudinal modes.
a) Frequency selectivity
b) Longitudinal mode selectivity
c) Electrical feedback
d) Dissipated power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Improved longitudinal mode selectivity can be achieved using structures which
gives loss discrimination between the desired and all the unwanted modes. Thus, mode
discrimination can be seen. To allow for stable mode operation, the use of frequency-selective
feedback approach is undertaken.
2. Device which apply the frequency-selective feedback technique to provide single longitudinal
operation are referred to as ________________
a) DSM lasers
b) Nd: YAG lasers
c) Glass fiber lasers
d) QD lasers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DSM lasers are also known as single frequency lasers. Such devices provide single
longitudinal mode operation hence called as dynamic single mode lasers. These lasers reduce
fiber intra-modal dispersion within high speed systems.
3. Which of the following does not provide single frequency operation?
a) Short cavity resonator
b) DSM lasers
c) Coupled cavity resonator
d) Fabry-Perot resonator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DSM lasers, short cavity resonators, coupled cavity resonators employ frequency
selective feedback approach and provide single mode operation. However, the Fabry-Perot
resonator allows several longitudinal modes to exist within the gain spectrum of the device.
4. A method for increasing the longitudinal mode discrimination of an injection laser which is
commonly used?
a) Decreasing refractive index
b) Increasing the refractive index
c) Increasing cavity length
d) Shortening of cavity length
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The longitudinal mode discrimination of an injection laser is indirectly proportional
to the cavity length. Thus, as the cavity length is shortened, the mode discrimination will get
increase. If the cavity length is reduced from 250 to 25 units, the mode spacing is increased from
1 to 10 nm.
5. Conventional cleaved mirror structures are difficult to fabricate with the cavity lengths below
__________
a) 200 μm and greater than 150 μm
b) 100 μm and greater than 50 μm
c) 50 μm
d) 150 μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: cleaved laser mirrors are used in Fabry-Perot resonator which does not give result
for shorter cavity lengths. These lengths may vary from 20 μm to 50μm. Hence micro-cleaved or
etched resonator is used for shorter cavity lens.
6. In the given equation, corrugation period is given by lλ b/2Ne. If λb is the Bragg wavelength,
then what does ‘l’ stand for?
a) Length of cavity
b) Limitation index
c) Integer order of grating
d) Refractive index
View Answer
7. The first order grating (l=1) provide the strongest coupling within the device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The period of corrugation is given by lλ b/2Ne includes order of grating. The second
grating provide larger spatial period and thus helps in fabrication. If the order of grating is 1,
then the device is coupled at high level.
8. The semiconductor lasers employing the distributed feedback mechanism are classified in
_________________ categories.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Considering the device operation, semiconductor lasers are classified into two
broad categories referred to as distributed feedback laser and distributed Bragg reflector laser. In
the DFB laser, optical grating is applied over the entire active region, whereas in DBR lasers, the
grating is etched only near the cavity ends.
9. DBF-BH lasers exhibit low threshold currents in the range of ________________
a) 40 to 50 mA
b) 21 to 30 mA
c) 2 to 5 mA
d) 10 to 20 mA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DFB lasers are used to provide single frequency semiconductor optical sources.
DFB-BH lasers, developed in laboratories exhibit high modulation speeds, output power but low
threshold currents in the range of 10 to 20 mA.
10. Fabry-Perot devices with BH geometries high modulation speeds than DFB-BH lasers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DFB-BH lasers exhibit low threshold currents but high output power and
modulation speeds. DFB-BH laser is fabricated by etching or grating. Fabry-perot devices
provide modulation speeds of M-bits per seconds whereas, DFB-BH lasers provides modulation
speeds of G-bits/sec.
11. The InGaAsP/InP double channel planar DFB-BH laser with a quarter wavelength shifted
first order grating provides a single frequency operation and incorporates a phase shift of
______________
a) π/2 Radians
b) 2π Radians
c) π Radians
d) 3π/2 radians
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The performance of DFB laser is improved by modifying a grating, which in turn
introduces an optical phase shift. The phase shift depends on the wavelength used. A quarter
wavelength shifted first order grating incorporates the phase shift of π/2 in the corrugation at the
center of laser cavity.
12. The narrow line-width obtained under the CW operation for quarter wavelength shifted DFB
laser is ________________
a) 2 MHz
b) 10 MHz
c) 3 MHz
d) 1 MHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A quarter wavelength shifted DFB laser provides a large gain difference between
the central mode and side modes. It provides improved dynamic single mode stability. Narrow
line-width of around 3 MHz can be obtained under CW operation.
13. Line-width narrowing is achieved in DFB lasers by a strategy referred as _______________
a) Noise partition
b) Grating
c) Tuning
d) Bragg wavelength detuning
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Line-width narrowing is achieved in DFB lasers by detuning the lasing wavelength
towards the shorter wavelength side of gain peak. It increases the differential gain between the
central mode and nearest side mode. This strategy is called as Bragg wavelength detuning.
14. _________________ is a technique used to render the non-conducting material around the
active cavity by producing permanent defects in the implanted area.
a) Dispersion
b) Ion de-plantation
c) Ion implantation
d) Attenuation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ion implantation approach concentrates the injection current in active region.
Current confinement is realized by ion implantation. Ions are implanted into a selective area of a
semiconducting material to make it non-conducting.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Injection Laser Characteristics”.
1. The threshold temperature coefficient for InGaAsP devices is in the range of __________
a) 10-40 K
b) 40-75 K
c) 120-190 K
d) 150-190 K
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The threshold temperature coefficient for InGaAsP devices is in between 40 and 75
K. This range shows higher temperature sensitivity due to intrinsic physical properties of
InGaAsP material system, Auger recombination, inter-valence band absorption, carrier leakage
effects over hetero-junctions.
2. The process where the energy released during the recombination of an electron-hole event
getting transferred to another carrier is known as __________
a) Inter-valence bond absorption
b) Auger recombination
c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Exothermic actions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Auger recombination is a process where energy is released. This energy is released
during the recombination of electron-hole and this released energy is transferred to another
electron-hole event. During this process, when a carrier is excited to a higher energy level, it
loses its excessive amount of energy by emitting a phonon in order to maintain thermal
equilibrium. It consists of number of different processes each process involving three particles (2
electrons and 1 or 2 holes and 1 electron).
3. Auger recombination can be reduced by using __________
a) Strained MQW structure
b) Strained SQW structure
c) Gain-guided strained structure
d) Strained Quantum dots lasers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Auger recombination is a process where energy is released during recombination of
electron-hole event is transferred to another event. This loss mechanism can be reduced by using
strained by using MCQ laser structure. Strain can be either compressive or tensile, modifying the
valence band energy levels of material and therefore can be used to increase energy.
4. High strain in strained MCQ structure should be incorporated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain is introduced in thin layers of quantum wells by making small differences in
lattice constants. High strain should be avoided because it causes damage in these thin-quantum
layers. Also carrier leakage adds at high temperatures since it represents processes that prevent
carrier from recombination thus reducing device efficiency.
5. The parameter that prevents carrier from recombination is __________
a) Auger recombination
b) Inter-valence band absorption
c) Carrier leakage
d) Low temperature sensitivity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carrier leakage is the parameter that prevents carriers (electrons, holes) from
recombination. At high temperatures, carrier leakage represents all those processes preventing
carriers from recombination. It therefore increases the lasing threshold and thus reduces device
efficiency.
6. Determine the threshold current density for an AlGaAs injection laser with T0=180k at 30°C.
a) 6.24
b) 9.06
c) 3.08
d) 5.09
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The threshold current density for a laser is given by-
Ith = exp(T/T0)
For AlGaAs device,
Ith(30)=exp(T/T0) = exp(293/180) = 5.09.
7. The phenomenon occurring when the electron and photon population within the structure
comes into equilibrium is known as __________
a) Auger recombination
b) Inter-valence band absorption
c) Carrier leakage
d) Relaxation oscillations
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Phenomenon occurring when the electron and photon population within the
structure comes into equilibrium is known as Relaxation oscillations. The application of a current
state to device resulting in a switch delay which is followed by high frequency damped
oscillations.
8. When a current pulse reaches a laser having parasitic capacitance after the initial delay time,
that pulse will __________
a) Have no effect
b) Will get vanished
c) Becomes narrower
d) Gets broader
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The pulse will be broadened when it will reach a laser with parasitic capacitance
after initial time delay. This is because when a current pulse reaches the laser, the parasitic
capacitance of laser provides a source of current over the period when there is high photon
density. As electron density is repetitively built up and reduced quickly, there will be several
pulses at laser output as photon density will be high resulting in relaxation oscillations.
9. Reducing delay time and ____________ are of high importance for lasers.
a) Auger recombination
b) Inter-valence band absorption
c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Relaxation oscillations
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For lasers generally a switch-on delay time may last for 0.5ns and relaxation
oscillations behind twice that period. This behavior can produce serious deterioration in shape of
laser pulse at a data rate of 100Mbits. So time delay and Relaxation oscillations are highly
desirable for lasers.
10. Dynamic line-width broadening under the direct modulation of injection current is known as
__________
a) Auger recombination
b) Inter-valence band absorption
c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Frequency Chirping
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency Chirping is a phenomenon which is due to Dynamic line-width
broadening under direct modulation of a single longitudinal mode. Semiconductor laser cause a
dynamic shifting of peak wavelength emitted from device. Strong coupling between the free
carrier density and refractive index of device present in semiconductor structure results in
gaininduced
variations which also causes Frequency Chirping.
11. A particular characteristic or parameter that occurs during analog transmission of injection
lasers is?
a) Noise
b) Mode hopping
c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Frequency Chirping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During analog transmission, noise behavior of device is main thing that affects the
operation of injection laser. This noise may be due to instabilities in kinks in light output versus
current characteristics, reflection of light back to device and mode partition noise.
12. Intensity of output from semiconductor injection lasers leading to optical intensity noise is
due to __________
a) Fluctuations in amplitude
b) Mode hopping
c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Frequency Chirping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fluctuations in the laser output or intensity of laser output leads to optical intensity
noise. These fluctuations are generally caused by temperature variations and spontaneous
emission in the laser output. This randomness in fluctuations creates a noise source known as
relative intensity noise (RIN).
13. In multimode lasers the optical feedback from unnecessary external reflections affecting
stability of frequency and intensity is?
a) Remains unaffected
b) Increased gradually
c) Reduced
d) Gets totally vanished
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The effect due to unwanted external reflections in multimode laser is reduced. This
is because the reflections are spread along any fiber modes so they are weakly coupled back into
laser mode.
14. Reduction in the number of modes in multimode fiber increases the mode partition noise.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mode partition noise is a result of laser spectral fluctuations and so a reduce in
number of modes results in low pulse-width spreading thus providing low values of intermodal
dispersion in the fiber. And so, the mode partition noise is decreased in multimode fiber due to
reducing the number of modes.
15. The behavior of laser occurring when current is increased above threshold particularly is?
a) Mode hopping
b) Auger recombination
c) Frequency chirping
d) Noise
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mode hopping results in the hopping of modes to a higher wavelength. This mode
hopping occurs in all injection lasers and is due to increase in temperature. Mode hopping is not
a continuous function of drive current but occurs above 1 to 2 mA. Mode hopping alters
characteristics of laser and results in kinks in characteristics of single mode device
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Non – Semiconductor Lasers”.
1. ____________________ lasers are presently the major laser source for optical fiber
communications.
a) Semiconductor
b) Non-Semiconductor
c) Injection
d) Solid-state
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Injection laser coupling using discrete lasers have proved to fruitful. Such lenses
provide for relaxation for an alignment tolerances normally required for fiber coupling. Certain
non-semiconductor sources are making its lace in the optical fiber communication. At slowly
present, injection lasers are mostly used as laser sources.
2. In Nd: YAG lasers, the maximum doping levels of neodymium is ____________
a) 0.5 %
b) 1.5 %
c) 1.8 %
d) 2 %
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Nd: YAG laser structure is formed by doping of yttrium- aluminum -garnet
(YAG) with neodymium. The energy levels for lasing transition and pumping are provided by
neodymium ions. The maximum doping level of neodymium in YAG is around 1.5 %.
3. Which of the following is not a property of Nd: YAG laser that enables its use as an optical
fiber communication source?
a) Single mode operation
b) Narrow line-width
c) Long lifetime
d) Semiconductors and integrated circuits
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nd: YAG laser is a non-semiconductor laser. It does not include the use of
semiconductors and thus cannot take advantage of well-developed technology associated with
integrated circuits. Single mode operation, narrow line-width, lifetime are the properties that are
useful for optical communication.
4. The Nd: YAG laser has a narrow line-width which is ________________
a) < 0.01 nm
b) > 0.01 nm
c) > 1 mm
d) > 1.6 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Nd: YAG laser has several properties which make it an active optical source.
One of such properties is its narrow line-width. It is less than 0.01 nm which is useful for
reducing dispersion of optical links.
5. The strongest pumping bands is a four level system of Nd: YAG laser at wavelength of
range_________________
a) 0.25 and 0.56 nm
b) 0.75 and 0.81 nm
c) 0.12 and 0.23 nm
d) 1 and 2 nm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Nd: YAG laser is a four level system. It consists of number of pumping bands
and fluorescent transitions. The strongest pumping bands are the wavelengths of 0.75μm and
0.81μm. and gives lasing transition at 1.064μm and 1.32μm. Single mode emission is usually
obtained at these wavelengths.
6. The Nd: YAG laser is costlier than earth-doped glass fiber laser.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The most important requirement of the Nd: YAG laser is pumping and modulation.
These two requirements tend to give a cost disadvantage in comparison with earth-doped glass
fiber laser. Also it is easier and less expensive to fabricate glass fiber in earth-doped laser.
7. It is a resonant cavity formed by two parallel reflecting mirrors separated by a mirror
separated by a medium such as air or gas is?
a) Optical cavity
b) Wheatstone’s bridge
c) Oscillator
d) Fabry-perot resonator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Resonant cavity is formed between two mirrors where fiber core doped with earth
ions is placed. This cavity is 250-500 μm long and 5 to 15 μm wide. A Fabry-perot resonator
oscillates at resonant frequency for which there is high gain.
8. In a three level system, the threshold power decreases inversely with the length of the fiber
gain medium.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the imperfection losses are low then in a four level system the threshold power
decreases inversely with the length of the fiber gain medium. A three level consists of an
optimum length. This optimum length gives the minimum threshold power which is independent
of the value of imperfection losses.
9. Which of the following co-dopant is not employed by neodymium and erbium doped silica
fiber lasers?
a) Phosphorus pent oxide
b) Germania
c) Nitrogen
d) Alumina
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Silica based glass fibers are proved to be the best host material till date. These silica
fibers are doped with neodymium and erbium. These dopants include co-dopants such as
phosphorus pent-oxide, germanium and alumina.
10. Dopants levels in glass fiber lasers are generally ___________
a) Low
b) High
c) Same as that of GRIN rod lens laser
d) Same as that of semiconductor laser
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dopant levels are low in glass fibers (nearly 400 parts per million). This is because
of increasing in concentration quenching which increases with the doping level. It may cause the
reduction in the population of the upper lasing level as well as crystallization within the glass
matrix.
11. _______________ fibers include addition of lead fluoride to the core glass in order to raise
the relative refractive index.
a) Solid-state
b) GaAs
c) Semiconductor
d) ZBLANP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Up-conversion pumping of laser material is used to convert an infrared laser output
to a visible laser output. ZBLANP is host material on which laser action at all wavelengths can
be obtained by pumping. The relative refractive index is increased by addition of lead fluoride
which makes it a very interesting host material.
12. The lasing output of the basic Fabry-perot cavity fiber is restricted to between ____________
a) 1 and 2 nm
b) 5 and 10 nm
c) 3 and 6 nm
d) 15 and 30 nm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: the gain spectrum of rare earth ions may be seen over a wavelength range of 50 nm.
The lasing output will thus be narrow unless the dielectric on the mirror is arranged. Such a
narrow line-width is not used for a broadband optical source.
13. In Fabry-perot laser, the lower threshold is obtained by ___________
a) Increasing the refractive index
b) Decreasing the refractive index
c) Reducing the slope efficiency
d) Increasing the slope efficiency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The finesse of Fabry-perot cavity provides a measure of its filtering properties.
When the finesse is high the splitting ratio is low thus lowering the laser threshold in an optical
cavity without mirror. In Fabry-perot laser, mirrors are present and thus lower threshold is
obtained by reducing the slope efficiency.
14. When did the non-semiconductor laser developed?
a) 1892
b) 1946
c) 1985
d) 1993
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Non-semiconductor sources are crystalline and glass wave-guiding structures. They
are doped with rare earth ions and are good optical sources. The development of these sources
started in the year 1985. Example: Nd: YAG laser.
15. Y3Al5 O12 is a molecular formula for _____________
a) Ytterbium aluminate
b) Yttrium oxide
c) Ytterbium oxy-aluminate
d) Yttrium-aluminum garnet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The atomic number of Yttrium is 39. It is the base element of Yttrium-aluminum
garnet. Y3Al5 O12, doped with rare earth ion neodymium to form Nd: YAG laser structure
This set of Optical Communications Quiz focuses on “Narrow – Linewidth and Wavelength –
Tunable Lasers”.
1. Which of these factors are critical in affecting the system performance in the case of coherent
optical fiber transmission?
a) Laser line-width and stability
b) Refractive index and index difference
c) Core cladding diameter
d) Frequency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The system employing intensity modulation does not consider line-width and
stability as the factors of utmost importance. In coherent optical source transmission, laser
linewidth
and stability are critical factors. These factors affect the system performance and are in the
range of 0.5-1 Megahertz.
2. _______________ occurs as a result of the change in lasing frequency with gain.
a) Frequency multiplication
b) Dispersion
c) Attenuation
d) Line-width broadening
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Line-width broadening is a fundamental consequence of spontaneous emission
process. It is related to the fluctuations in the phase of the optical fields. These phase fluctuations
are due to the phase noises associated with the spontaneous emission process.
3. Laser cavity length can be extended by ___________
a) Increasing the refractive index
b) Reducing frequency
c) Introduction of external feedback
d) Using GRIN-rod lenses
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: the lasers having long external cavity are referred to as LEC lasers. The extension
of the laser cavity length by introduction of external feedback can be achieved by using an
external cavity with a wavelength dispersive element.
4. What is the purpose of wavelength dispersive element is LEC lasers?
a) Wavelength selectivity
b) Reduction of line-width
c) Frequency multiplication
d) Avalanche multiplication
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A wavelength dispersive element is a part of the laser cavity. It is required because
the long resonator structure has very closely spaced longitudinal modes which necessitates
additional wavelength selectivity.
5. An effective method to reduce the line-width is to make the cavity longer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the laser power increases, the device line-width decreases. The output power f
laser cannot be mode arbitrarily large. Thus, the line-width is reduced by making the cavity
longer. Longer cavity also enables increased wavelength selectivity.
6. Which devices are used to modulate the external cavity in order to achieve the higher
switching speeds?
a) Electromagnetic
b) Acousto-optic
c) Dispersive
d) Lead
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The devices are tuned mechanically to extend the cavity of laser. The disadvantage
of using mechanically tuned devices is low. Thus, electro-optic devices are used to modulate the
external cavity in order to achieve higher switching speeds.
7. How many techniques are used to tune monolithic integrated devices (lasers)?
a) Five
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two techniques which can be employed to tune monolithic integrated
devices. In the first method, the mode selectivity of a coupled cavity structure is used. Other
method is used to a refractive index change in the device cavity provided by application of an
electric field.
8. _________________ laser can be produced when a coupler section is introduced between the
amplifier and phase sections of a structure.
a) SG-DBR
b) GCSR
c) Y 4-shifted
d) DSM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DBR lasers are capable of wavelength tuning. Grating assisted co-directional
coupler with sampled reflector (GCSR). Laser is capable of a tuning range greater than 40 nm. It
consists of a co-directional coupler between the amplifier and the phase section.
9. The rare-earth-doped fiber lasers have spectral line-width in the range of _________________
a) 0.1 to 1 nm
b) 1.2 to 1.5 nm
c) 6 to 10 nm
d) 2 to 2.3 nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rare-earth-doped fiber lasers have spectral line-width in the range of 0.1 to 1
nm. These line-widths are too long for high speed transmission is possible in this range.
10. The lasing line-width of Fox-smith resonator is ____________________
a) Less than 1 MHz
b) 1 MHz
c) 2 MHz
d) Greater than 3 MHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fox-smith resonator employs a fused coupled fabricated from erbium-doped fiber.
Narrower spectral line-width can be obtained using a resonator. It provides favorable line-widths
than semiconductor laser.
11. What is the widest tuning range obtained in optical fiber laser structure?
a) 60 nm
b) 80 nm
c) More than 100 nm
d) 100 nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A tuning range greater than 100 nm by using an erbium-doped photonic crystal
fiber. A wider tuning range greater than 100 nm is obtained at wavelength 1.55 nm.
12. How many techniques can be used to increase the injection cavity length?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two techniques can be used to increase the injection laser cavity length. These are
using laser chips and by extending a cavity with a passive medium such as air, glass etc.
13. The mechanism which results from a refractive index change in the passive waveguide layer
is called as ___________
a) Absorption
b) Spontaneous emission
c) Monolithic inversion
d) Bragg wavelength control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A wider wavelength tuning length is obtained by separating the Bragg region in the
passive waveguide and by introducing a phase region within a waveguide control mechanism
provides phase control. It takes place by some changes in a passive waveguide layer.
14. How many sections are included in a sampling grating distributed Bragg-reflector laser
(SGDBR)?
a) Four
b) Five
c) Three
d) Two
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In SG-DBR laser, five sections are longitudinally integrated together on a
semiconductor substrate. These five sections include two diffraction Bragg grating sections, a
gain, a phase and an amplifier section.
15. Fiber based lasers provide diffraction-limited power at higher levels than solid-state laser.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In fiber lasers, the active gain medium is doped with rare earth elements. These
lasers have active regions several kilometers long and thus provide high optical gain. Solid-state
lasers, on the other hand, provide diffraction limited power at lower levels
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Mid Infrared and Far Infrared Lasers”.
1. The parameters having a major role in determining threshold current of efficiency of injection
laser are ___________
a) Angle recombination and optical losses
b) Frequency chirping
c) Relaxation oscillation
d) Mode hopping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical losses due to free carrier absorption are more because of their dependence
on square of the wavelength. Also irradiative recombination through Auger recombination
contributes to it. Both these effects cause more problems in md-infrared wavelengths and so are
of much importance art high temperature due to high concentration of free carriers. They also
limit maximum operating temperatures.
2. Auger current is mostly ___________________ for material with band gap providing longer
wavelength emission.
a) Unaffected
b) Lesser
c) Larger
d) Vanishes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total current required for injection laser threshold is more than that provided to
radioactive recombination as Auger current is added. This current depends on electronic band
structure of material and often consists of different Auger transitions. So it is larger for materials
with band gaps providing longer wavelength emission.
3. Injection lasers operating in smaller wavelengths are subjected to increased carrier losses.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Injection lasers operating in longer wavelengths (mid and far infrared) are subjected
to increased carrier losses as compared to devices operating up to 1.6μm. This is from
nonradiative recombination through Auger interaction. This recombination energy is dissipated
as thermal energy to other free carriers. If band gap of semiconductor is increased, occurrence of
these events gets increased.
4. Devices based on quaternary PbSnSeTe and their ternary compounds, emit at wavelength?
a) Between 3-4 μm
b) Longer than 4 μm
c) Between 3.5 to 4.2 μm
d) Between 2 to 3 μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Quaternary devices emit at wavelength longer than 4μm. Auger effects are less in
these alloys which provide lower current thresholds and higher maximum operating temperature.
5. Replacing Sn with Eu, Cd or Ge in some _________________ the band gap.
a) Remove the band gap
b) Does not affect
c) Decreases
d) Increases
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When in a particular alloy laser for example PbSnSeTe, if Sn is replaced with Eu,
Cd or Ge, there is an increase in band gap. This increase in band gap provides the laser to operate
in shorter wavelength.
.
6. Lasing obtained in __________ when 191 mW of pump light at a wavelength of 0.477 μm is
launched into laser.
a) Ternary PbSnSeTe alloy laser
b) Quaternary PbSnSeTe alloy laser
c) Doped Fluoro-zirconate fiber
d) Ternary PbEuTe alloy laser
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When Fluoro-zirconate fiber lasers are doped with Erbium helium or thulium, there
are emission at 2-3 μm wavelength range. But lasing was obtained in this doped Fluorozirconate
fiber at a wavelength of 0.477μm.
7. The thulium doped fiber laser when pumped with alexandrite laser output at 0.786 μm, the
laser emits at ___________
a) 0.6 μm
b) 0.8 μm
c) 2.3 μm
d) 1.2μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The thulium system emits at 2.3 μmwhen subjected to alexandrite laser at 0.786
μm. this system is four levels in which the pump band is upper lasing level at 2.3μm.
8. The diode-cladding-pumped Erbium praseodymium-doped fluoride device operates at
wavelength.
a) Around 3 μm
b) 4 μm
c) 2.6 μm
d) 1.04 μm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The diode-cladding-pumped Erbium praseodymium-doped fluoride device operates
at a wavelength of 3 μm. This laser is capable of producing a very high output power of about
1W or more. It consists of double clad fluoride fiber.
9. A technique based on inter-sub band transition is known as ___________
a) Auger recombination
b) Frequency chirping
c) Inter-valence band absorption
d) Quantum cascading
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The quantum cascaded laser is a layered semiconductor device having a series of
coupled quantum wells grown on GaAs or Imp substrate. This principle of QC lasers provides
emission of an optical signal around full wavelength range. Quantum mechanical band structure
determines the emitted wavelength.
10. In a QC laser, a same electron can emit number of photons.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The QC laser operates by pumping a energy level and then using the energy in a
controlled manner. This gives some energy each time over several steps. And since a QC laser
structure includes a series of energy levels the same electron emits a number of photons while
cascading down through each energy level.
11. The phenomenon resulting in the electrons to jump from one state to another each time
emitting of photon is known as ___________
a) Inter-valence band absorption
b) Mode hopping
c) Quantum cascading
d) Quantum confinement
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Quantum confinement, charge carriers are trapped in a small area and this occurs
in quantum wells at nanometer scale. When the quantum layer size raises to a size comparable to
emission wavelength, the electron motion becomes perpendicular to plane of layer. Due to this,
the electrons jump from one state to another each time from one state to another.
12. A QC laser is sometimes referred as ___________
a) Unipolar laser
b) Bipolar laser
c) Gain guided laser
d) Non semiconductor laser
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A QC laser utilizes only n-type of charge carriers. Their operation is entirely based
on electrons and holes play no part in this, so they are known as unipolar lasers.
13. In QC lasers, it is possible to obtain different output signal wavelengths. This can be
achieved by ___________
a) Inter-valence band absorption
b) Mode hopping
c) Quantum cascading
d) Selecting layers of different thickness
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In QC laser, electrons emit energy. This energy emitted at this stage determines
wavelength of radiation and it depends only on thickness of the layer. Thus output signal
wavelength is dependent on thickness of lasers.
14. QC lasers ______________ the performance characteristics.
a) Have negligible effects
b) Does not affects
c) Improves
d) Degrades
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: QC lasers are based on inter sub band transition techniques. They have ability of
carrying large amount of currents. A single electron is enough to generate number of photons.
Thus, provides an increase in output signal power which is greater than thousands at same
wavelength due to large number of cascaded stages.
15. An MQW cascaded laser is more advantageous because of ___________
a) Mode hopping
b) Auger recombination
c) Control over layers of material
d) Properties of material
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In MQW cascaded layers, cascading creates number of injector/collector and active
region in single stage. Each region contains a single quantum wells. Such structures permit
maximum injection/collection of current and thereby produce a large number of photons. This
formation of any injector/collector and active regions is achieved through precise control of
several hundreds of layers of the material, where each layer should only be few nanometers thick
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“LED Power and Efficiency”.
1. The absence of _______________ in LEDs limits the internal quantum efficiency.
a) Proper semiconductor
b) Adequate power supply
c) Optical amplification through stimulated emission
d) Optical amplification through spontaneous emission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of generated electrons to the electrons injected is quantum efficiency. It is
greatly affected if there is no optical amplification through stimulated emission. Spontaneous
emission allows ron-radiative recombination in the structure due to crystalline imperfections and
impurities.
2. The excess density of electrons Δnand holes Δpin an LED is ____________
a) Equal
b) Δpmore than Δn
c) Δn more than Δp
d) Does not affects the LED
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The excess density of electrons ΔnandΔp (holes) is equal. The charge neutrality is
maintained within the structure due to injected carriers that are created and recombined in pairs.
The power generated internally by an LED is determined by taking into considering the excess
electrons and holes in p- and n-type material respectively.
3. The hole concentration in extrinsic materials is _________ electron concentration.
a) much greater than
b) lesser than
c) equal to
d) negligible difference with
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In extrinsic materials, one carrier type will be highly concentrated than the other
type. Hence in p-type region, hole concentration is greater than electron concentration in context
of extrinsic material. This excess minority carrier density decays with time.
4. The carrier recombination lifetime becomes majority or injected carrier lifetime.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The initial injected excess electron density and τrepresents the total carrier
recombination time. In most cases, Δnis a small fraction of majority carriers and contains all
minority carriers. So in these cases, carrier recombination lifetime becomes minority injected
carrier lifetime τi.
5. In a junction diode, an equilibrium condition occurs when ____________
a) Δngreater than Δp
b) Δnsmaller than Δp
c) Constant current flow
d) Optical amplification through stimulated emission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total rate at which carriers are generated in sum of externally supplied and
thermal generation rates. When there is a constant current flow in this case, an equilibrium
occurs in junction diode.
6. Determine the total carrier recombination lifetime of a double heterojunction LED where the
radioactive and nonradioactive recombination lifetime of minority carriers in active region are 70
ns and 100 ns respectively.
a) 41.17 ns
b) 35 ns
c) 40 ns
d) 37.5 ns
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total carrier recombination lifetime is given by
τ = τrτnr/τr+τnr = 70× 100/70 + 100 ns = 41.17 ns
Where
τr = radiative recombination lifetime of minority carriers
τnr = nonradioactive recombination lifetime of minority carriers.
7. Determine the internal quantum efficiency generated within a device when it has a radiative
recombination lifetime of 80 ns and total carrier recombination lifetime of 40 ns.
a) 20 %
b) 80 %
c) 30 %
d) 40 %
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The internal quantum efficiency of device is given by
ηint = τ/τr = 40/80 ×100 = 80%
Where
τ = total carrier recombination lifetime
τr = radiative recombination lifetime.
8. Compute power internally generated within a double-heterojunction LED if it has internal
quantum efficiency of 64.5 % and drive current of 40 mA with a peak emission wavelength of
0.82 μm.
a) 0.09
b) 0.039
c) 0.04
d) 0.06
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The power internally generated within device i.e. double-heterojunction LED can
be computed by
Pint = ηint hci/eλ = 0.645×6.626×10-34×3×108×40×10-3/ 1.602×10-19 × 0.82 × 10-6
= 0.039 W
Where
ηint = internal quantum efficiency
h = Planck’s constant
c = velocity of light
i = drive current
e = electron charge
λ = wavelength.
9. The Lambertian intensity distribution __________ the external power efficiency by some
percent.
a) Reduces
b) Does not affects
c) Increases
d) Have a negligible effect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Lambertian intensity distribution, the maximum intensity I0 is perpendicular to
the planar surface but is reduced on the sides in proportion to the cosine of θ i.e. viewing angle as
apparent area varies with this angle. This reduces the external power efficiency. This is because
most of the light is tapped by total internal refraction when radiated at greater than the critical
angle for crystal air interface.
10. A planar LED fabricated from GaAs has a refractive index of 2.5. Compute the optical power
emitted when transmission factor is 0.68.
a) 3.4 %
b) 1.23 %
c) 2.72 %
d) 3.62 %
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The optical power emitted is given by
Pe = PintFn
2/4nx
2 = Pint (0.680×1/4×(2.5)2) = 0.0272 Pint.
Hence power emitted is only 2.72 % of optional power emitted internally.
Where,
Fn
2 = transmission factor
nx = refractive index.
11. A planar LED is fabricated from GaAs is having a optical power emitted is 0.018% of optical
power generated internally which is 0.018% of optical power generated internally which is 0.6 P.
Determine external power efficiency.
a) 0.18%
b) 0.32%
c) 0.65%
d) 0.9%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Optical power generated externally is given by
ηcp = (0.018Pint/2Pint)*100
Where,
Pint = power emitted
ηcp = external power efficiency.
12. For a GaAs LED, the coupling efficiency is 0.05. Compute the optical loss in decibels.
a) 12.3 dB
b) 14 dB
c) 13.01 dB
d) 14.6 dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The optical loss in decibels is given by-
Loss = -10log10 ηc
Where,
ηc = coupling efficiency.
13. In a GaAs LED, compute the loss relative to internally generated optical power in the fiber
when there is small air gap between LED and fiber core. (Fiber coupled = 5.5 * 10 -4Pint)
a) 34 dB
b) 32.59 dB
c) 42 dB
d) 33.1 dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The loss in decibels relative to Pint is given by-
Loss = -10log10Pc/Pint
Where,
Pc = 5.5 * 10-4Pint.
14. Determine coupling efficiency into the fiber when GaAs LED is in close proximity to fiber
core having numerical aperture of 0.3.
a) 0.9
b) 0.3
c) 0.6
d) 0.12
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The coupling efficiency is given by
ηc = (NA)2 = (0.3)2 = 0.9.
15. If a particular optical power is coupled from an incoherent LED into a low-NA fiber, the
device must exhibit very high radiance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Device must have very high radiance specially in graded index fiber where
Lambertian coupling efficiency with same NA is about half that of step-index fibers. This high
radiance is obtained when direct bandgap semiconductors are fabricated with DH structure
driven at high current densities.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“LED Structures”.
1. The amount of radiance in planer type of LED structures is ____________
a) Low
b) High
c) Zero
d) Negligible
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Planer LEDs are fabricated using liquid or vapor phase epitaxial processes. Here
ptype
is diffused into n-type substrate which creates junction. Forward current flow through
junction provides Lambertian spontaneous emission. Thus, device emits light from all surfaces.
However a limited amount of light escapes the structure due to total internal reflection thus
providing low radiance.
2. In optical fiber communication _____________ major types of LED structures are used.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical fiber communication involves the use of 6 different major LED structure.
These are the surface emitter, edge emitter, the super luminescent, the resonant cavity LED,
planar LEDs and Dome LEDs.
3. As compared to planar LED structure, Dome LEDs have ______________ External power
efficiency ___________ effective emission area and _____________ radiance.
a) Greater, lesser, reduced
b) Higher, greater, reduced
c) Higher, lesser, increased
d) Greater, greater, increased
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Dome LEDs, the diameter of dome is selected so as to maximum the internal
emission reaching surface within critical angle of GaAs. Thus, dome LEDs have high external
power efficiency. The geometry of Dome LEDs is such that dome is much larger than active
recombination area, so it has greater emission era and reduced of radiance.
4. The techniques by Burros and Dawson in reference to homo structure device is to use an
etched well in GaAs structure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Burros and Dawson provided a technique to restrict emission to small active region
within device thus providing high radiance. Etched well in a GaAs substrate is used to prevent
heavy absorption of emitted region and physically accommodating the fiber. These structures
provide low thermal impedance allowing high current densities of high radiance.
5. In surface emitter LEDs, more advantage can be obtained by using ____________
a) BH structures
b) QC structures
c) DH structures
d) Gain-guided structure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DH structures provide high efficiency from electrical and optical confinement.
Along with efficiency, they provide less absorption of emitted radiation.
6. Internal absorption in DH surface emitter Burros type LEDs is ____________
a) Cannot be determined
b) Negligible
c) High
d) Very low
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The larger band gap confining layers and the reflection coefficient at the back
crystal space is high in DH surface emitter Burros type LEDs. This provides good forward
radiance. Thus these structure LEDs have very less internal absorption.
7. DH surface emitter generally give ____________
a) More coupled optical power
b) Less coupled optical power
c) Low current densities
d) Low radiance emission into-fiber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The optical power coupled into a fiber depends on distance, alignment between
emission area and fiber, SLED emission pattern and medium between emitting area and fiber.
All these parameters if considered, reduces refractive index mismatch and increases external
power efficiency thus providing more coupled optical power.
8. A DH surface emitter LED has an emission area diameter of 60μm. Determine emission area
of source.
a) 1.534*10-6
b) 5.423*10-3
c) 3.564*10-2
d) 2.826*10-9
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The emission area A of source is given by
A = π(30*10-6) 2= 2.826*10-9cm2.
9. Estimate optical power coupled into fiber of DH SLED having emission area of 1.96*10 -5,
radiance of 40 W/rcm2, numerical aperture of 0.2 and Fresnel reflection coefficient of 0.03 at
index matched fiber surface.
a) 5.459*10-5
b) 1.784*10-3
c) 3.478*102
d) 9.551*10-5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The optical power coupler in the step index fiber of SLED is given by
Pc = π(1-r) A RD(NA) 2
= 3.14 (1-0.03)*1.96*10-5*40*(0.2) 2
= 9.551*10-5W.
10. In a multimode fiber, much of light coupled in the fiber from an LED is ____________
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Lost
d) Unaffected
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical power from an incoherent source is initially coupled into large angle rays
falling within acceptance angle of fiber but have more energy than Meridional rays. Energy from
these rays goes into the cladding and thus may be lost.
11. Determine the overall power conversion efficiency of lens coupled SLED having forward
current of 20 mA and forward voltage of 2 V with 170 μWof optical power launched into
multimode step index fiber.
a) 1.256*10-5
b) 4.417*102
c) 4.25*10-3
d) 2.14*10-3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The overall power conversion efficiency is determined by
η pc = Pc/P = 170*10-6/20*10-3 *2
= 4.25*10-3.
12. The overall power conversion efficiency of electrical lens coupled LED is 0.8% and power
applied 0.0375 V. Determine optical power launched into fiber.
a) 0.03
b) 0.05
c) 0.3
d) 0.01
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical power launched can be computed by
η pc = Pc/P
Pc = η pc* P
= 0.8 * 0.0375
= 0.03.
13. Mesa structured SLEDs are used ____________
a) To reduce radiance
b) To increase radiance
c) To reduce current spreading
d) To increase current spreading
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The planar structures of Burros-type LED allow lateral current spreading specially
for contact diameters less than 25 μm.This results in reduced current density and effective
emission area greater than contact area. This technique to reduce current spreading in very small
devices is Mesa structured SLEDs.
14. The InGaAsP is emitting LEDs are realized in terms of restricted are ____________
a) Length strip geometry
b) Radiance
c) Current spreading
d) Coupled optical power
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The short striped structure of these LEDs around 100 μmimproves the external
efficiency of LEDs by reducing internal absorption of carriers. These are also called truncated
strip E-LEDs.
15. The active layer of E-LED is heavily doped with ____________
a) Zn
b) Eu
c) Cu
d) Sn
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Zn doping reduces the minority carrier lifetime. Thus this improves the device
modulation bandwidth hence active layer is doped in Zn in E-LEDs.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“LED Characteristics”.
1. Intrinsically _________________ are a very linear device.
a) Injection lasers
b) DH lasers
c) Gain-guided
d) LEDs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ideal light output power against current characteristics for an LED linear. This
tends to be more suitable for analog transmission where several constraints are put in linearity of
optical source.
2. Linearizing circuit techniques are used for LEDs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In practice, LEDs exhibit nonlinearities depending on configuration used. Thus, to
allow its used in high quality analog transmission system and to ensure linear performance of
device, linearizing circuit techniques is used.
3. The internal quantum efficiency of LEDs decreasing _______________ with
________________ temperature.
a) Exponentially, decreasing
b) Exponentially, increasing
c) Linearly, increasing
d) Linearly, decreasing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The light emitted from LEDs decreases. This is due to increase in p-n junction
temperature. Thus, this results in exponentially decreasing internal quantum efficiency with
temperature increment.
4. To utilize _____________________ of SLDs at elevated temperatures, the use of
thermoelectric coolers is important.
a) Low-internal efficiency
b) High-internal efficiency
c) High-power potential
d) Low-power potential
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The output characteristics of SLDs are typically of nonlinear in nature. This is
observed with a knee becoming apparent at an operating temperature around 20 degree c. Thus,
to utilize high-power potential of these devices at elevated temperature, thermoelectric coolers
are necessarily used.
5. For particular materials with smaller bandgap energies operating in _____________
wavelength, the linewidth tends to ______________
a) 2.1 to 2.75 μm, increase
b) 1.1 to 1.7 μm, increase
c) 2.1 to 3.6 μm, decrease
d) 3.5 to 6 μm, decrease
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For materials with smaller bandgap, linewidth increases to 50 to 160 nm. This
increases in band gap is due to increased doping levels and formation of bandtail states.
6. The active layer composition must be adjusted if a particular center wavelength is desired.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:There is a difference in output spectra between surface and edge emitting LEDs
when devices have generally heavily doped and lightly doped active layers by reduction in
doping.
7. In optical fiber communication, the electrical signal dropping to half its constant value due to
modulated portion of optical signal corresponds to _______
a) 6 dB
b) 3 dB
c) 4 dB
d) 5 dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Modulation bandwidth in optical communication is often defined in
electrical/optical terms. So when considering electrical circuitry in optical fiber system, electrical
3 dB point or frequency at which output electrical power is reduced by 3 dB bandwidth with
respect to input electrical power.
8. The optical 3 dB point occurs when currents ratio is equal to _____________
a) 83
b) 22
c) 12
d) 34
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In optical regime, the bandwidth is defined by frequency at which output current
has dropped to ½ output input current system.
9. The optical bandwidth is _____________ the electrical bandwidth.
a) Smaller
b) Greater
c) Same as
d) Zero with respect to
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The difference between optical and electrical bandwidth In terms of frequency
depends on the shape of the frequency response of the system. If the system response is assumed
to be Gaussian, then optical bandwidth is a factor of √2 greater than electrical bandwidth.
10. When a constant d.c. drive current is applied to device, the optical o/p power is 320 μm.
Determine optical o/p power when device is modulated at frequency 30 MHz with minority
carrier recombination lifetime of LED i.e. 5ns.
a) 4.49*10-12
b) 6.84*10-9
c) 1.29*10-6
d) 2.29*10-4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The output o/p at 30 MHz is
Pc(30 MHz) = Pdc/(1+(wΓi)2)1/2
= 320*10-6/(1+(2π*30*10-6 *5*10-9)2)1/2
= 2.29*10-4W.
11. The optical power at 20 MHz is 246.2 μW. Determine dc drive current applied to device with
carrier recombination lifetime for LED of 6ns.
a) 3.48*10-4
b) 6.42*10-9
c) 1.48*10-3
d) 9.48*10-12
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The optical output power at 20 MHz is
Pe(20 MHz) = Pdc/(1+(WTi)2)1/2
246.2*10-6 = Pdc/(1+(2π*20*10-6*5*10-9)2)1/2
Pdc = 3.48*10-4.
12. Determine the 3 dB electrical bandwidth at 3 dB optical bandwidth Bopt of 56.2 MHz.
a) 50.14
b) 28.1
c) 47.6
d) 61.96
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 3dB electrical bandwidth is given by
B = Bopt/ √2
= 56.2/2
= 28.1 MHz.
13. The 3 dB electrical bandwidth B is 42 MHz. Determine 3dB optical bandwidth Bopt.
a) 45.18
b) 59.39
c) 78.17
d) 94.14
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 3dB electrical bandwidth is
B = Bopt/√2
Bopt = B*√2
= 42*√2
= 59.39 MHz.
14. Determine degradation rate βrif constant junction temperature is 17 degree celsius.
a) 7.79*10-11
b) 7.91*10-11
c) 6.86*10-11
d) 5.86*10-11
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The degradation rate βris determined by
βr = β0exp (-Ea/KT)
= 1.89*107exp (-1*1.602*10-19/1.38*10-23*290)
= 7.79*10-11 h-1.
15. Determine CW operating lifetime for LED with βrt = -0.58 and degradation rate βr =
7.86*10-11 h-1.
a) 32.12
b) 42
c) 22.72
d) 23.223
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The CW operating lifetime is given by
t = Ln 0.58/7.86*10-11
= 22.72h-1
6. Questions on Optical Detectors
The section contains questions on device types, absorption, optical detection principles, quantum
efficiency, semiconductor photodiodes, infrared photodiodes and metal semiconductors
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Device Types”.
1. ____________ converts the received optical signal into an electrical signal.
a) Detector
b) Attenuator
c) Laser
d) LED
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A detector is an essential component of an optical fiber communication system. It
dictates the overall system performance. Its function is to convert optical signal into an electrical
signal. This electrical signal is then amplified before further processing.
2. The first generation systems of optical fiber communication have wavelengths between
___________
a) 0.2 and 0.3 μm
b) 0.4 and 0.6 μm
c) 0.8 and 0.9 μm
d) 0.1 and 0.2 μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first generation systems operated at a bit-rate of 45 Mbps with repeater spacing
of 10 km. It operates at wavelengths between 0.8 and 0.9μm. These wavelengths are compatible
with AlGaAs laser and LEDs.
3. The quantum efficiency of an optical detector should be high.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The detector must satisfy stringent requirements for performance and compatibility.
The photo detector thus produces a maximum electrical signal for a given amount of optical
power; i.e. the quantum efficiency should be high.
4. Which of the following does not explain the requirements of an optical detector?
a) High quantum efficiency
b) Low bias voltages
c) Small size
d) Low fidelity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The size of the detector must be small for efficient coupling to the fiber. Also,
ideally, the detector should not require excessive bias voltages and currents. The fidelity and
quantum efficiency should be high.
5. How many device types are available for optical detection and radiation?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two types of devices are used for optical detection and radiation. These are
external photoemission and internal photoemission devices. External photoemission devices are
too bulky and require high voltages for operation. Internal devices provide good performance
and compatibility.
6. The ___________ process takes place in both extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors.
a) Avalanche multiplication
b) External photoemission
c) Internal photoemission
d) Dispersion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: During intrinsic absorption, the received photons excite electrons from the valence
band and towards the conduction band in the semiconductor. Extrinsic absorption involves
impurity centers created with the material. Generally, intrinsic absorption is preferred for internal
photoemission.
7. ____________ are widely used in first generation systems of optical fiber communication.
a) p-n diodes
b) 4-alloys
c) 3-alloys
d) Silicon photodiodes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first generation systems operates at wavelengths 0.8 and 0.9 μm. Silicon
photodiodes have high sensitivity over the 0.8-0.9 μm wavelength band with adequate speed,
long term stability. Hence, silicon photodiodes are widely used in first generation systems.
8. Silicon has indirect band gap energy of __________________
a) 1.2 eV
b) 2 eV
c) 1.14 eV
d) 1.9 eV
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Silicon’s indirect band gap energy of 1.14 eV gives a loss in response above
1.09μm. To avoid this, narrower bandgap materials are used. Hence, silicon’s usefulness is
limited to first generation systems and not for second and third generation systems.
9. Which of the following detector is fabricated from semiconductor alloys?
a) Photoconductive detector
b) p-i-n detector
c) Photodiodes
d) Photoemission detectors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The detectors fabricated from semiconductor alloys can be used for longer
wavelengths. Photoconductive detector and hetero-junction transistor have found favor as a
potential detector over a wavelength range of 1.1 to 1.6μm.
10. Silicon photodiodes provide high shunt conductance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Semiconductor photodiodes provide best solution for detection in optical fiber
communications. Silicon photodiodes have high sensitivity, negligible shunt conductance and
low dark current
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Detection Principles”.
1. P-n photodiode is forward biased.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: p-n photodiode includes p and n regions. The electric field developed across the p-n
junction sweeps holes and electrons to p and n regions respectively. P-n photodiode is thus
reverse biased due to reverse leakage current.
2. The depletion region must be ____________ to allow a large fraction of the incident light to
be absorbed in the device(photodiode).
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Long
d) Inactive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In p-n photodiode, intrinsic conditions are created in the depletion region. The
depletion region must be thick in order to achieve maximum carrier pair generation. Also, its
width must be limited to enhance the speed of operation of the p-n photodiode.
3. The process of excitation of an electron from valence band to conduction band leaves an
empty hole in the valence band and is called as ____________
a) Detection
b) Absorption
c) Degeneration of an electron-hole pair
d) Regeneration of an electron-hole pair
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A photon is incident in the depletion region of a device has an energy greater than
or equal to the band gap energy of the fabricating material. This will cause excitation of an
electron from valence to the conduction band. This creates an empty hole in valence band which
is referred to as photo-generation of an electron-hole pair.
4. __________________ always leads to the generation of a hole and an electron.
a) Repulsion
b) Dispersion
c) Absorption
d) Attenuation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Absorption affects the electron and excites it to some other level say conduction
band. This is called as photo-generation as absorption always leads to the generation of hole and
electron. This does not mean that both contribute to the electronic transport.
5. The electron hole pairs generated in a photodiode are separated by the ____________
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Static field
d) Depletion region
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric field separates the electron-hole pairs in a photodiode. The electric field
distribution is determined by an internal and an external field component. A reverse bias voltage
is usually applied to the p-n photodiode.
6. Electric field in the depletion region should be high.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The electric field in the depletion region is always kept high in order to extract all
photogenerated carriers. Only the extracted electron hole pairs contribute to the overall
photocurrent.
7. The photocurrent of an optical detector should be __________
a) Less
b) More
c) Linear
d) Non-linear
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A linear relationship must exist between the intensity of the incident light and the
photocurrent. This makes the photodiode free of noise. It increases system performance.
8. How many types of optical detectors are available?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Three types of optical detectors are available. These are diodes, photoconductors
and photo-transistors. Diodes include p-n photodiodes, p-i-n diodes, avalanche photodiodes and
schottky diodes.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Absorption”.
1. The absorption of photons in a photodiode is dependent on __________
a) Absorption Coefficient α0
b) Properties of material
c) Charge carrier at junction
d) Amount of light
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Absorption in a photodiode is for producing carrier pans. Thus, photocurrent is
dependent on absorption coefficient α 0of the light in semiconductor used to fabricate device.
2. The photocurrent in a photodiode is directly proportional to absorption coefficient.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The absorption of photons produces carrier pairs. Thus, photocurrent is dependent
on absorption coefficient and is given by
I = Po e(1-h)/hf(1-exp (-α rd))
Where r = Fresnel coefficient
D = width of absorption region.
3. The absorption coefficient of semiconductor materials is strongly dependent on __________
a) Properties of material
b) Wavelength
c) Amount of light
d) Amplitude
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In some common semiconductors, there is a variation in absorption curves for
materials. It is found that they are each suitable for different wavelength and related applications.
This is due to difference in band gap energies. Thus absorption coefficient depends on
wavelength.
4. Direct absorption requires assistance of photon.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indirect absorption requires photon assistance resulting in conversation of energy
and momentum. This makes transition probability less likely for indirect absorption than direct
absorption where no photon is included.
5. In optical fiber communication, the only weakly absorbing material over wavelength band
required is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The transition over wavelength band in silicon is due to indirect absorption
mechanism. This makes silicon weakly absorbent over particular wavelength band.
6. The threshold for indirect absorption occurs at wavelength __________
a) 3.01 μm
b) 2.09 μm
c) 0.92 μm
d) 1.09 μm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The band gap for silicon is 4.10 eV corresponding to threshold of 0.30 μm in
ultraviolet. Thus it’s outside wavelength range is the one which is required.
7. The semiconductor material for which the lowest energy absorption takes place is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Germanium absorption is by indirect optical transition. The threshold for direct
absorption is at 1.53μm. Below this, germanium becomes strongly absorbing to corresponding
link.
8. The wavelength range of interest for Germanium is __________
a) 0.8 to 1.6 μm
b) 0.3 to 0.9 μm
c) 0.4 to 0.8 μm
d) 0.9 to 1.8 μm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Germanium is used in fabrication of detectors over the whole wavelength range i.e.
first and second generation 0.8 to 1.6 μm while specially taking into consideration that indirect
absorption will occur up to a threshold of 1.85 μm.
9. A photodiode should be chosen with a ________________ less than photon energy.
a) Direct absorption
b) Band gap energy
c) Wavelength range
d) Absorption coefficient
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A photodiode selection must be made by choosing that diode having band gap
energy less than photon energy corresponding to longest operating wavelength. This provides
high absorption coefficient which ensures a good response and limits the thermally generated
carriers to obtain low dark current with no incident light.
10. ________________ photodiodes have large dark currents.
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Germanium photodiodes provide narrow band gaps as compared to other
semiconductor materials. This is main disadvantage with use of germanium photodiodes at
shorter wavelength and thus they have large dark current.
11. For fabrication of semiconductor photodiodes, there is a drawback while considering
_________________
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to drawback with germanium to be used as fabricating material, there
is an increased investigation of direct band gap III and V alloys for longer wavelength region.
12. _________________ materials are potentially superior to germanium.
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) III – V alloys
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The band gap energies for III – V alloys materials can be tailored to required
wavelength. This can be achieved by changing relative concentration of their constituents which
results in low dark currents. Thus, III – V alloys are superior potentially to germanium.
13. ____________ alloys such as InGaAsP and GaAsSb deposited on InP and GaSb substrate.
a) Ternary
b) Quaternary
c) Gain-guided
d) III – V alloys
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ternary alloys are used to fabricate photodiodes for longer wavelength band. Thus,
these alloys such as InGaAsP and GaAsSb are deposited on InP and GaSb substrates.
14. _________________ alloys can be fabricated in hetero-junction structures.
a) InGaSb
b) III – V alloys
c) InGaAsP
d) GaAsSb
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: III – V alloys enhances the high speed operations of hetero-junction structures.
Thus these structures can be fabricated with III-V alloys.
15. The alloys lattice matched to InP responds to wavelengths up to 1.7μm is?
a) InAsSb
b) III – V alloys
c) InGaSb
d) InGaAs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Although there were difficulties in growth of IOnGaAs alloys, the problems are
now reduced. These alloys lattice matched to InP responding to wavelength around 1.7 μmare
widely utilized for fabrication of photodiodes operating around 1.7μm.
This set of Optical Communications Mcqs focuses on “Quantum Efficiency , Responsivity and
Long – Wavelength Cut-Off”.
1. The fraction of incident photons generated by photodiode of electrons generated collected at
detector is known as ___________________
a) Quantum efficiency
b) Absorption coefficient
c) Responsivity
d) Anger recombination
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a particular device is obtained by ratio of input given to that of output
obtained. Thus, similarly, in photodiode, input i.e. incident photon and output generated
electrons and their ratio is quantum efficiency.
2. In photo detectors, energy of incident photons must be ________________ band gap energy.
a) Lesser than
b) Greater than
c) Same as
d) Negligible
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: While considering intrinsic absorption process, the energy of incident photon must
be greater than band gap energy of material fabricating photo detector.
3. GaAs has band gap energy of 1.93 eV at 300 K. Determine wavelength above which material
will cease to operate.
a) 2.431*10-5
b) 6.424*10-7
c) 6.023*103
d) 7.234*10-7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The long wavelength cutoff is given by
λc = hc/Eg = 6.6268*10-34*2.998*108/1.93*1.602*10-19
= 6.424*10-7μm.
4. The long cutoff wavelength of GaAs is 0.923 μm. Determine bandgap energy.
a) 1.478*10-7
b) 4.265*10-14
c) 2.784*10-9
d) 2.152*10-19
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Long wavelength cutoff of photo detector is given by
λc = hc/Eg
Eg = hc/λc = 6.6268*10-34*2.998*108/0.923*10-6
= 2.152*10-19eV.
5. Quantum efficiency is a function of photon wavelength.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is less than unity as all of incident photons are not absorbed to
create electrons holes pairs. For example quantum efficiency of 60% is equivalent to 60% of
electrons collected per 100 photons. Thus efficiency is a function of photon wavelength and must
be determined at a particular wavelength.
6. Determine quantum efficiency if incident photons on photodiodes is 4*10 11 and electrons
collected at terminals is 1.5*1011 ?
a) 50%
b) 37.5%
c) 25%
d) 30%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by
Quantum Efficiency = No. of electrons collected/No. of incident photons
= 1.5*1011/4*1011
= 0.375 * 100
= 37.5%.
7. A photodiode has quantum efficiency of 45% and incident photons are 3*10 11. Determine
electrons collected at terminals of device.
a) 2.456*109
b) 1.35*1011
c) 5.245*10-7
d) 4.21*10-3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by
Quantum efficiency = No. of electrons collected/No. of incident photons
Electrons collected = Quantum efficiency * number of incident photons
= 45/100 * 3*1011
= 1.35*1011.
8. The quantum efficiency of photodiode is 40% with wavelength of 0.90*10 -6. Determine the
responsivity of photodiodes.
a) 0.20
b) 0.52
c) 0.29
d) 0.55
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Responsivity of photodiodes is given by
R = ηe λ/hc
= 0.4*1.602*10-19 * 0.90*10-6/6.626*10-34 * 3*108
= 0.29 AW-1.
9. The Responsivity of photodiode is 0.294 AW-1at wavelength of 0.90 μm. Determine quantum
efficiency.
a) 0.405
b) 0.914
c) 0.654
d) 0.249
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Responsivity of photodiode is
R = ηe λ/hc
η = RXhc/eλ
= 0.294*6.626*10-34*3*108/ 1.602*10-19*0.90*108
= 0.405 AW-1.
10. Determine wavelength of photodiode having quantum efficiency of 40% and Responsivity of
0.304 AW-1.
a) 0.87 μm
b) 0.91 μm
c) 0.88 μm
d) 0.94 μm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = ηe λ/hc
λ = Rhc/ηe
= 0.304*6.626*10-34*3*108/0.4*1.602*10-19
= 0.94 μm.
11. Determine wavelength at which photodiode is operating if energy of photons is 1.9*10-19J?
a) 2.33
b) 1.48
c) 1.04
d) 3.91
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To determine wavelength,
λ = hc/t
= 6.626*10-34*3*108/1.9*10-19
= 1.04 μm.
12. Determine the energy of photons incident on a photodiode if it operates at a wavelength of
1.36 μm.
a) 1.22*10-34J
b) 1.46*10-19J
c) 6.45*10-34J
d) 3.12*109J
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The wavelength of photodiode is given by
λ = hc/t
E = hc/λ
= 6.626*10-34*3*108/1.36*10-6
= 1.46*10-19J.
13. Determine Responsivity of photodiode having o/p power of 3.55 μm and photo current of 2.9
μm.
a) 0.451
b) 0.367
c) 0.982
d) 0.816
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = Ip/Po
= 2.9*10-6/3.55*10-6
= 0.816 A/W.
14. Determine incident optical power on a photodiode if it has photocurrent of 2.1 μA and
responsivity of 0.55 A/W.
a) 4.15
b) 1.75
c) 3.81
d) 8.47
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = Ip/Po
Po = Ip/R
= 2.1*10-6/0.55
= 3.81 μm.
15. If a photodiode requires incident optical power of 0.70 A/W. Determine photocurrent.
a) 1.482
b) 2.457
c) 4.124
d) 3.199
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is given by
R = Ip/Po
Ip = R*Po
= 0.70*3.51*10-6
= 2.457μm
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on
“Semiconductor Photodiodes Without Internal Gain”.
1. The width of depletion region is dependent on ___________ of semiconductor.
a) Doping concentrations for applied reverse bias
b) Doping concentrations for applied forward bias
c) Properties of material
d) Amount of current provided
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The depletion region is formed by immobile positively and immobile negatively
charged donor and acceptor atoms in n- and p-type respectively. When carriers are swept
towards majority side under electric field, lower the doping, wider the depletion region.
2. Electron-hole pairs are generated in ___________
a) Depletion region
b) Diffusion region
c) Depletion region
d) P-type region
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Photons are absorbed in both depletion and diffusion regions. The position and
width of absorption region depends on incident photons energy. The absorption region may
extend throughout device in weakly absorption of photons. Thus carriers are generated in both
regions.
3. The diffusion process is _____________ as compared with drift.
a) Very fast
b) Very slow
c) Negligible
d) Better
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. Determine drift time for carrier across depletion region for photodiode having intrinsic region
width of 30μm and electron drift velocity of 105 ms-1.
a) 1×10-10 Seconds
b) 2×10-10 Seconds
c) 3×10-10 Seconds
d) 4×10-10 Seconds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The drift time is given by
tdrift = w/vd = 30×10-6/1×10-10 = 3×10-10 seconds.
5. Determine intrinsic region width for a photodiode having drift time of 4×10-10 s and electron
velocity of 2×10-10ms-1.
a) 3×10-5M
b) 8×10-5M
c) 5×10-5M
d) 7×10-5M
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The drift time is given by
tdrift = w/vd
4×10-10 = w/2×105
= 4×10-10×2×105
= 8×10-5m.
6. Determine velocity of electron if drift time is 2×10 -10s and intrinsic region width of 25×10-
6μm.
a) 12.5×104
b) 11.5×104
c) 14.5×104
d) 13.5×104
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The drift time is given by
tdrift = w/vd
vd = 25×10-6/2×10-10 = 12.5×104ms-1.
7. Compute junction capacitance for a p-i-n photodiode if it has area of 0.69×10-6m2, permittivity
of 10.5×10-13Fcm-1 and width of 30μm.
a) 3.043×10-5
b) 2.415×10-7
c) 4.641×10-4
d) 3.708×10-5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/w = 10.5×10-13×0.69×10-6/30×10-13
= 2.415×10-7F.
8. Determine the area where permittivity of material is 15.5×10-15Fcm-1 and width of 25×10-6 and
junction capacitance is 5pF.
a) 8.0645×10-5
b) 5.456×10-6
c) 3.0405×10-2
d) 8.0645×10-3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/ w = 5×10-12×25×10-6/15.5×10-15
= 8.0645×10-3m2.
9. Compute intrinsic region width of p-i-n photodiode having junction capacitance of 4pF and
material permittivity of 16.5×10-13Fcm-1 and area of 0.55×10-6m2.
a) 7.45×10-6
b) 2.26×10-7
c) 4.64×10-7
d) 5.65×10-6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/ W
w = εsA/Cj
= 16.5×10-13 × 0.55×10-6/4×10-12
= 2.26×10-7.
10. Determine permittivity of p-i-n photodiode with junction capacitance of 5pF, area of
0.62×10-6m2 and intrinsic region width of 28 μm.
a) 7.55×10-12
b) 2.25×10-10
c) 5×10-9
d) 8.5×10-12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/ W
εs = Cj w/A = 5×10-12×28×10-6/0.62×10-6
= 2.25×10-10Fcm-1.
11. Determine response time of p-i-n photodiode if it has 3 dB bandwidth of 1.98×108Hz.
a) 5.05×10-6sec
b) 5.05×10-7Sec
c) 5.05×10-7sec
d) 5.05×10-8Sec
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum response time is
Maximum response time = 1/Bm = 1/1.98×108 = 5.05×10-9sec.
12. Compute maximum 3 dB bandwidth of p-i-n photodiode if it has a max response time of 5.8
ns.
a) 0.12 GHz
b) 0.14 GHz
c) 0.17 GHz
d) 0.13 GHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum response time is
Maximum response time = 1/Bm
= 1/5.8×10-9 = 0.17 GHz.
13. Determine maximum response time for a p-i-n photodiode having width of 28×10-6m and
carrier velocity of 4×104ms-1.
a) 105.67 MHz
b) 180.43 MHz
c) 227.47 MHz
d) 250.65 MHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum 3 dB bandwidth of photodiode is given by
Bm = Vd/2ΠW = 4×10-4/2×3.14×28×10-6 = 227.47 MHz.
14. Determine carrier velocity of a p-i-n photodiode where 3dB bandwidth is1.9×108Hz and
depletion region width of 24μm.
a) 93.43×10-5
b) 29.55×10-3
c) 41.56×10-3
d) 65.3×10-4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum 3 dB bandwidth of photodiode is given by
Bm = Vd/2ΠW
Vd = Bm × 2Π × W
= 1.98×108×2Π×24×10-6
= 29.55×10-3.
15. Compute depletion region width of a p-i-n photodiode with 3dB bandwidth of 1.91×108and
carrier velocity of 2×104ms-s.
a) 1.66×10-5
b) 3.2×10-3
c) 2×10-5
d) 2.34×104
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum 3 dB bandwidth of photodiode is given by
Bm = Vd/2ΠW
W = Vd/Bm2Π
= 2×10-5/1.91×108×2Π
= 1.66×10-5m
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Semiconductor Photodiodes With Internal Gain”.
1. ___________ has more sophisticated structure than p-i-n photodiode.
a) Avalanche photodiode
b) p-n junction diode
c) Zener diode
d) Varactor diode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Avalanche photodiode is second major type of detector in optical communications.
This diode is more sophisticated so as to create a much higher electric field region.
2. The phenomenon leading to avalanche breakdown in reverse-biased diodes is known as
_______
a) Auger recombination
b) Mode hopping
c) Impact ionization
d) Extract ionization
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In depletion region, almost all photons are absorbed and carrier pairs are generated.
So there comes a high field region where carriers acquire energy to excite new carrier pairs. This
is impact ionization.
3. _______ is fully depleted by employing electric fields.
a) Avalanche photodiode
b) P-I-N diode
c) Varactor diode
d) P-n diode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: APD is fully depleted by electric fields more than 104V/m. This causes all the
drifting of carriers at saturated limited velocities.
4. At low gain, the transit time and RC effects ________
a) Are negligible
b) Are very less
c) Dominate
d) Reduce gradually
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Low gain causes the dominance of transit time and RC effects. This gives a
definitive response time and thus device obtains constant bandwidth.
5. At high gain, avalanche buildup time ________
a) Is negligible
b) Very less
c) Increases gradually
d) Dominates
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: High gain causes avalanche buildup time to dominate. Thus the bandwidth of
device decreases as increase in gain.
6. Often __________ pulse shape is obtained from APD.
a) Negligible
b) Distorted
c) Asymmetric
d) Symmetric
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Asymmetric pulse shape is acquired from APD. This is due to relatively fast rise
time as electrons are collected and fall time dictated by transit time of holes.
7. Fall times of 1 ns or more are common.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The use of suitable materials and structures give rise times between 150 and 200 ps.
Thus fall times of 1 ns or more are common which in turn limits the overall response of device.
8. Determine Responsivity of a silicon RAPD with 80% efficiency, 0.7μm wavelength.
a) 0.459
b) 0.7
c) 0.312
d) 0.42
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Responsivity of a RAPD is given by-
R = ηeλ/hc A/w where, η=efficiency, λ = wavelength, h = Planck’s constant.
9. Compute wavelength of RAPD with 70% efficiency and Responsivity of 0.689 A/w.
a) 6μm
b) 7.21μm
c) 0.112μm
d) 3μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The wavelength can be found from the Responsivity formula given by-
R = ηeλ/hc. The unit of wavelength isμm.
10. Compute photocurrent of RAPD having optical power of 0.7 μw and responsivity of 0.689
A/W.
a) 0.23 μA
b) 0.489 μA
c) 0.123 μA
d) 9 μA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The photocurrent is given byIP=P0R. Here IP = photocurrent, P0=Power, R =
responsivity.
11. Determine optical power of RAPD with photocurrent of 0.396 μAand responsivity of 0.49
A/w.
a) 0.91 μW
b) 0.32 μW
c) 0.312 μW
d) 0.80 μW
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The photocurrent is given by IP = P0R. Here IP = photocurrent, P0 = Power, R =
responsivity.
P0 = IP/R gives the optical power.
12. Determine the Responsivity of optical power of 0.4μW and photocurrent of 0.294 μA.
a) 0.735
b) 0.54
c) 0.56
d) 0.21
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The photocurrent is given by IP = P0R. Here IP = photocurrent, P0 = Power, R =
responsivity.
R = IP/P0 gives the responsivity.
13. Compute multiplication factor of RAPD with output current of 10 μAand photocurrent of
0.369μA.
a) 25.32
b) 27.100
c) 43
d) 22.2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The multiplication factor of photodiode is given by-
M = I/IP where I = output current, IP = photocurrent.
14. Determine the output current of RAPD having multiplication factor of 39 and photocurrent of
0.469μA.
a) 17.21
b) 10.32
c) 12.21
d) 18.29
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The multiplication factor of photodiode is given by-
M = I/IP where I = output current, IP = photocurrent. I = M*IP gives the output current inμA.
15. Compute the photocurrent of RAPD having multiplication factor of 36.7 and output current
of 7μA.
a) 0.01 μA
b) 0.07 μA
c) 0.54 μA
d) 0.9 μA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The multiplication factor of photodiode is given by-
M = I/IP where I = output current, IP = photocurrent. IP = I/M Gives the output current inμA.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Mid Infrared and Far Infrared Photodiodes”.
1. In the development of photodiodes for mid-infrared and far-infrared transmission systems,
lattice matching has been a problem when operating at wavelengths ____________
a) 1 μm
b) Greater than 2 μm
c) 2 μm
d) 0.5 μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lattice matching for alloy materials is obtained at wavelengths above 2 μm. For
example, a lattice-matched alloy material system (GaSb) was utilized in a p-i-n photodiode for
high speed operation at wavelengths up to 2.3 μm.
2. What is generally used to accommodate a lattice mismatch?
a) Alloys
b) Attenuator
c) Graded buffer layer
d) APD array
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The use of indium alloy cause inherent problems of dislocation-induced junction
leakage and low quantum efficiency. To avoid these problems, a compositionally graded buffer
layer is used to accommodate a lattice mismatch.
3. HgCdTe material system is utilized to fabricate long-wavelength photodiodes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HgCdTe family alloys allow resonant characteristics via hole ionization. Its band
gap energy variation enables optical detection to far-infrared. Thus, this material can be used for
fabrication of long-wavelength photodiodes.
4. Avalanche photodiodes based on HgCdTe are used for ______________ in both the near and
far infrared.
a) Dispersion
b) Dislocation
c) Ionization
d) Array applications
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Avalanche photodiodes based on HgCdTe are used for array applications. The
materials of APDs based on HgCdTe possess uniform avalanche gain across an array. This
variation in gain is variation in gain is lower in HgCdTe as compared with silicon.
5. The detection mechanism in ____________ relies on photo excitation of electrons from
confined states in conduction band quantum wells.
a) p-i-n detector
b) Quantum-dot photo detector
c) p-n photodiode
d) Avalanche photodiodes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Quantum-dot photo detector’s detection mechanism involves photo excitation of
electrons. This process of photo excitation in photo detectors is similar to that in the Quantumdot
semiconductor optical amplifier. The dots-in-well in Quantum-dot detector is called as
DWELL structure.
6. When determining performance of a photo detector ___________ is often used.
a) No. of incident photon
b) No. of electrons collected
c) Responsivity
d) Absorption coefficient
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression for quantum efficiency does not include photon energy. Thus for
characterizing performance of photo detector, Responsivity is used.
7. The important parameter for exciting an electron with energy required from valence band to
conduction band is?
a) Wavelength
b) Absorption coefficient
c) Responsivity
d) Band gap energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As wavelength of incident photon becomes longer, the photon energy is less than
energy required to excite electron. Mostly parameters of photodiode are dependent on
wavelength.
8. __________ is less than or unity for photo detectors.
a) Absorption coefficient
b) Band gap energy
c) Responsivity
d) Quantum efficiency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Quantum efficiency determines the absorption coefficient of semiconductor
material of photo detector. It is not all incident photons are absorbed to create electron-hole
pairs. Thus quantum efficiency must be less than unity.
9. There must be improvement in __________ of an optical fiber communication system.
a) Detector
b) Responsivity
c) Absorption Coefficient
d) Band gap energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If proper and improved and highly efficient detector is utilized, it will then reduce
the repeated stations. It will also lower down both capital investment and maintenance cost.
This set of Optical Communications online test focuses on “Phototransistors and Metal –
Semiconductor – Metal Photodetectors”.
1. The _____________ is photosensitive to act as light gathering element.
a) Base-emitter junction
b) Base-collector junction
c) Collector-emitter junction
d) Base-collector junction and Base-emitter junction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Base-collector junction is photosensitive in n-p-n phototransistor and act as light
gathering element. This light absorbed affects the base current and gives multiplication of
primary photocurrent in device.
2. A large secondary current _________________ in n-p-n InGaAs phototransistor is achieved.
a) Between base and collector
b) Between emitter and collector
c) Between base and emitter
d) Plasma
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The photo-generated holes are swept to the base. This increases the forward bias
device. This generates secondary current between emitter and collector.
3. _______ emitter-base and collector-base junction capacitances is achieved by use of
heterostructure
along with _________ base resistance.
a) Low, high
b) High, low
c) Low, low
d) High, negligible
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In hetero-structure, there is low doping level in emitter and collector which is
coupled with heavy doping base. This is due low emitter-base and collector-base junction
capacitance and low base resistance. This allows large current gain.
4. A ________ is created by hetero-junction at collector-base junction.
a) Potential barrier
b) Depletion region
c) Parasitic capacitance
d) Inductance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Potential barrier is created at emitter-base junction by hetero-junction. This
eliminates hole junction from base. This is achieved when junction is forward-biased and
provides good emitter-base efficiency.
5. Phototransistors based on hetero-junction using _________ material are known as waveguide
phototransistors.
a) InGaP
b) InGaAs
c) InGaAsP/ InAlAs
d) ErGaAs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Phototransistor using InGaAsP/ InAlAs are known as waveguide phototransistors.
They function as waveguide phototransistors. They function as high performance photo-detectors
at 1.3 micro-meter wavelength. They utilize a passive waveguide layer under active transistor
region.
6. A phototransistor has collector current of 18 mA, incident optical power of 128 μW with a
wavelength of 1.24 μm. Determine an optical gain.
a) 1.407 *102
b) 19.407 *102
c) 2.407 *102
d) 3.407 *102
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The optical gain is given by-
G0=hcIc/λeP0, where h=Planck’s constant, Ic=collector current, λ=wavelength, P0=incident
optical power.
7. For a phototransistor having gain of 116.5, wavelength of 1.28 μm, optical power 123μW.
Determine collector current.
a) 0.123 mA
b) 0.0149 mA
c) 1.23 mA
d) 0.54 mA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The collector current is given byIc=
G0λeP0/ hc, where h=Planck’s constant, Ic=collector current, λ=wavelength, P0=incident
optical power.
8. The detection mechanism in the ____________ photo-detector includes inter sub-band
transitions.
a) Dwell
b) Set
c) Avalanche
d) Futile
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The inter sub-band transitions are also known as type-2 transitions. It comprises of
mini-bands within a single energy band, The detection mechanism in DWELL photo-detector
includes inter sub-band transitions.
9. Which of the following is the difference between the n-p-n and conventional bipolar
transistor?
a) Electric property
b) Magnetic property
c) Unconnected base
d) Emitter base efficiency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The n-p-n bipolar transistor differs in the following ways: base is unconnected,
base-collector junction is photosensitive as a light gathering element.
10. The n-p-n hetero-junction phototransistor is grown using ______________
a) Liquid-phase tranquilizers
b) Liquid-phase epistaxis
c) Solid substrate
d) Hetero poleax
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The technique LPE consists of a thin layer of n-type collector based on a p-type
base layer. Liquid phase epistaxis is used in hetero-junction technology.
11. The _____________ at emitter-base junction gives good emitter base injection efficiency.
a) Homo-junction
b) Depletion layer
c) Holes
d) Hetero-junction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hetero-junction at the emitter-base junction effectively eliminates hole
injection from the base when the junction is forward biased. This gives good emitter-base
injection efficiency.
12. Waveguide phototransistors utilize a ___________ waveguide layer under the _________
transistor region.
a) Active, passive
b) Passive, active
c) Homo, hetero
d) Hetero, homo
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Waveguide phototransistors are based on hetero-junction structure. They function
as high-performance photo-detectors and thus utilize a passive waveguide layer under the active
transistor region.
13. What is the main benefit of the waveguide structure over conventional hetero-junction
phototransistor?
a) High depletion region
b) Depletion width
c) Increased photocurrent, responsivity
d) Low gain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Waveguide structure offers increased photocurrent. Photocurrent is directly
proportional to the responsivity; thus in turn increases responsivity.
14. Waveguide structure provides high quantum efficiency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Responsivity and quantum efficiency follow a different path. They are indirectly
proportional to each other. Thus, in waveguide structure, as the responsivity increases, quantum
efficiency remains low.
15. Metal-semiconductor-metal (MSM) photo-detectors are photoconductive detectors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MSM photo-detectors are the simplest of photo-detectors. It provides the simplest
form of photo-detection within optical fiber communications and are photoconductive.
7. Questions & Answers on Direct Detection Receiver Performance Considerations
The section contains questions and answers on noise, receiver noise and structures, fet pre
amplifiers and high performance receivers.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Noise”.
1. _____________ refers to any spurious or undesired disturbances that mask the received signal
in a communication system.
a) Attenuation
b) Noise
c) Dispersion
d) Bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise is an unwanted and undesirable quantity. It affects the received signal in a
communication system. In optical fiber communication systems, noise is due to the spontaneous
fluctuations rather than erratic disturbances.
2. How many types of noise are observed because of the spontaneous fluctuations in optical fiber
communication systems?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are three types of noise because of the spontaneous fluctuations in optical
fiber communication systems. These are thermal noise, the dark current noise and quantum
noise. These noise types are not caused by the electronic interference.
3. ______________ is caused due to thermal interaction between the free electrons and the
vibrating ions in the conduction medium.
a) Thermal noise
b) Dark noise
c) Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal noise is basically a spontaneous fluctuation caused due to thermal
interaction of electrons and ions. It is especially prevalent in resistors at room temperature.
Thermal noise is measured in the form of current and is called as thermal noise current.
4. A small leakage current still flows from the device terminals even if there is no optical power
incident on the photo detector.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A reverse leakage current that flows from the device terminals is called as dark
current. This dark current contributes to the total system noise. This gives random fluctuations
about the average particle flow of the photocurrent.
5. ___________ distribution provides the description the random statistics of light emitted in
black body radiation.
a) Poisson
b) Cumulative
c) Probability
d) Bose-Einstein
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Incoherent light is emitted by independent atoms and therefore there is no phase
relationship between the emitted photons. The property dictates an exponential intensity
distribution which is identical to Bose-Einstein distribution.
6. The probability of zero pairs being generated when a light pulse is present is given by which
of the following equation?
a) P(0/1) = exp(-Zm)
b) P(x) = exp (Zm)
c) P(y) = x (0) + x(1)
d) P(z) = P(-Zm)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The probability of zero pairs being generated when a light pulse is present is given
by equation –
P (0/1) = exp(-Zm)
Where, P (0/1) represents the system error probability p(e) and Z m is variance of the probability
distribution.
7. The minimum pulse energy needed to maintain a given bit-error-rate (BER) which any
practical receiver must satisfy is known as ___________
a) Minimal energy
b) Quantum limit
c) Point of reversed
d) Binary signaling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A perfect photo detector emits no electron-hole pairs in the absence of illumination.
The error probability determines a standardized fundamental limit in digital optical
communications. This limit is termed as quantum limit.
8. A digital optical fiber communication system requires a maximum bit-error-rate of 10-9. Find
the average number of photons detected in a time period for a given BER.
a) 19.7
b) 21.2
c) 20.7
d) 26.2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The probability of error is given by-
P(e) = exp(-Zm)
Where, Zm = No. of photons
Here P(e) = 10-9, therefore Zm is calculated from above relation.
9. For a given optical fiber communication system, P(e) = 10-9, Zm = 20.7, f = 2.9×1014, η = 1.
Find the minimum pulse energy or quantum limit.
a) 3.9×10-18
b) 4.2×10-18
c) 6.2×10-14
d) 7.2×10-14
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum pulse energy or quantum limit is given by –
Emin = Zmhf/η
Where, Zm = Number of photons
h = Planck’s constant
f = frequency
η = Quantum efficiency.
10. An analog optical fiber system operating at wavelength 1μmhas a post-detection bandwidth
of 5MHz. Assuming an ideal detector and incident power of 198 nW, calculate the SNR (f =
2.99×1014Hz).
a) 46
b) 40
c) 50
d) 52
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The SNR is given by –
S/N = ηP0/2hfB
Where, η = 1 (for ideal detector)
P0 = incident power
h = Planck’s constant
B = Bandwidth.
11. The incident optical power required to achieve a desirable SNR is 168.2nW. What is the
value of incident power in dBm?
a) -37.7 dBm
b) -37 dBm
c) – 34 dBm
d) -38.2 dBm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Incident power in denoted by P0. It is given by –
P0 = 10log10(P0(watts))
Where P0(watts) = incident power in Watts/milliWatt.
12. In the equation given below, what does τstands for?
Zm = ηP0τ/hf
a) Velocity
b) Time
c) Reflection
d) Refractive index
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the given equation, Zm is the variance of the probability distribution. The number
of electrons generated in time τis equal to the average of the number of photons detected over
this time period Zm. Hence, τ is the time and P0 is the incident power, ηis the quantum efficiency
and f is the frequency.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Receiver Noise”.
1. Which are the two main sources of noise in photodiodes without internal gain?
a) Gaussian noise and dark current noise
b) Internal noise and external noise
c) Dark current noise & Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise and Quantum noise
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two main sources of noise in photodiodes without internal gain are dark current
noise and quantum noise. They are regarded as shot noise on the photocurrent. These noise are
together called as analog quantum noise.
2. The dominating effect of thermal noise over the shot noise in photodiodes without internal
gain can be observed in wideband systems operating in the range of ________
a) 0.4 to 0.5 μm
b) 0.8 to 0.9 μm
c) 0.3 to 0.4 μm
d) 0.7 to 0.79 μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the photodiode is without internal avalanche gain, the detector load resistor
and active elements’ thermal noise in the amplifier tends to dominate. It is seen in wideband
systems operating in the 0.8 to 0.9 μmwavelength band. This is because the dark currents in the
silicon diodes can be made very small.
3. A silicon p-i-n photodiode incorporated in an optical receiver has following parameters:
Quantum efficiency = 70%
Wavelength = 0.8 μm
Dark current = 3nA
Load resistance = 4 kΩ
Incident optical power = 150nW.
Bandwidth = 5 MHz
Compute the photocurrent in the device.
a) 67.7nA
b) 81.2nA
c) 68.35nA
d) 46.1nA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The photocurrent is given by
Ip = ηP0eλ/hc
Where η = Quantum efficiency
P0 = Incident optical power
e = electron charge
λ = Wavelength
h = Planck’s constant
c = Velocity of light.
4. In a silicon p-i-n photodiode, if load resistance is 4 kΩ, temperature is 293 K, bandwidth is
4MHz, find the thermal noise in the load resistor.
a) 1.8 × 10-16A2
b) 1.23 × 10-17A2
c) 1.65 × 10-16A2
d) 1.61 × 10-17A2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The thermal noise in the load resistor is given by –
it
2 = 4KTB/RL
Where T = Temperature
B = Bandwidth
RL = Load resistance.
5. ________________ is a combination of shunt capacitances and resistances.
a) Attenuation
b) Shunt impedance
c) Shunt admittance
d) Thermal capacitance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Admittance is a measure of how easily a circuit will allow a current to flow. It is
the inverse of impedance and is measured in Siemens. It is a combination of shunt capacitances
and resistances.
6. ______________ is used in the specification of optical detectors.
a) Noise equivalent power
b) Polarization
c) Sensitivity
d) Electron movement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise equivalent power is defined as the amount of incident optical power per unit
bandwidth required to produce an output power equal to detector output noise power.
Noise equivalent power is the value of incident power which gives an output SNR of unity.
7. A photodiode has a capacitance of 6 pF. Calculate the maximum load resistance which allows
an 8MHz post detection bandwidth.
a) 3.9 kΩ
b) 3.46 kΩ
c) 3.12 kΩ
d) 3.32 kΩ
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The load resistance is given by-
RL = 1/2πCdB
Where
B = Post detection bandwidth
Cd = Input capacitance
RL = Load resistance.
8. The internal gain mechanism in an APD is directly related to SNR. State whether the given
statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The internal gain mechanism in an APD increases the signal current into the
amplifier. This improves the SNR because the load resistance and amplifier noise remains
unaffected.
9. ____________ is dependent upon the detector material, the shape of the electric field profile
within the device.
a) SNR
b) Excess avalanche noise factor
c) Noise gradient
d) Noise power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Excess avalanche noise factor is represented as F (M). Its value depends upon the
detector material, shape of electric field profile and holes and electrons inclusion. It is a function
of multiplication factor.
10. For silicon APDs, the value of excess noise factor is between _________
a) 0.001 and 0.002
b) 0.5 and 0.7
c) 0.02 and 0.10
d) 1 and 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The excess noise factor (K) is same as that of the multiplication factor. In case of
holes, the smaller values of K produce high performance and therefore the performance is
achieved when k is small. For silicon APDs, k = 0.02 to 0.10.
11. __________ determines a higher transmission rate related to the gain of the APD device.
a) Attenuation
b) Gain-bandwidth product
c) Dispersion mechanism
d) Ionization coefficient
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gain-bandwidth product is defined as Gain multiplied by the bandwidth. Gain is a
dimensionless quantity but the gain-bandwidth product is therefore measured in the units of
frequency.
12. _________________ APDs are recognized for their high gain-bandwidth products.
a) GaAs
b) Alloy-made
c) Germanium
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Silicon APDs possess a large asymmetry of electron and hole ionization coefficient.
Thus, they possess high gain-bandwidth products. These APDs do not operate at high
transmission rates.
13. APDs do not operate at signal wavelengths between 1.3 and 1.6μm.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: APDs having high gain-bandwidth products do not operate at signal wavelengths
between 1.3 and 1.6 μm.Hence, these APDs are not prefered for use in receivers operating at
high transmission rates.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“FET Pre – Amplifiers”.
1. ____________ is the lowest noise amplifier device.
a) Silicon FET
b) Amplifier-A
c) Attenuator
d) Resonator-B
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FET operates by controlling the current flow with an electric field produced by an
applied voltage on the gate of the device. Silicon FET is fabricated for low noise devices. It is the
lowest noise amplifier device available.
2. FET device has extremely high input impedance greater than _________
a) 107 Ohms and less than 108
b) 106 Ohms and less than 107
c) 1014 Ohms
d) 1023 Ohms
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FET operation involves the applied voltage on the gate of the device. The gate
draws virtually no current, except for leakage, giving the device extremely high input impedance.
3. The properties of a bipolar transistor are superior to the FET.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: bipolar transistor operates by controlling the current flow with an electric field
produced with a base current. The properties of a bipolar transistor are limited by its high
transconductance
than the FET.
4. Bipolar transistor is more useful amplifying device than FET at frequencies _____________
a) Above 1000 MHz
b) Equal to 1 MHz
c) Below 25 MHz
d) Above 25 MHz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In FETs, the current gain drops to values near unity at frequencies above 25MHz.
The trans-conductance is fixed with decreasing input impedance. Therefore, bipolar transistor is
more useful amplifying device at frequencies above 25MHz.
5. High-performance microwave FETs are fabricated from ___________
a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) Gallium arsenide
d) Zinc
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since the mid- 1970s, the development of high-performance microwave FETs
found its way. These FETs are fabricated from gallium arsenide and are called as GaAs metal
Schottky field effect transistors (MESFETs).
6. Gallium arsenide MESFETs are advantageous than Silicon FETs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gallium arsenide MESFETs are Schottky barrier devices. They operate with both
low noise and high gain at microwave frequencies (GHz). Silicon FETs cannot operate with wide
bands.
7. The PIN-FET hybrid receivers are a combination of ______________
a) Hybrid resistances and capacitances
b) Pin photodiode and low noise amplifier (GaAs MESFETs)
c) P-N photodiode and low noise amplifier (GaAs MESFETs)
d) Attenuator and low noise amplifier (GaAs MESFETs)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The PIN-FET or p-i-n/FET receiver utilizes a p-i-n photodiode along with a low
noise preamplifier (GaAs MESFETs). It is fabricated using thick-film integrated circuit
technology. This hybrid integration reduces the stray capacitance to negligible levels.
8. PIN-FET hybrid receiver is designed for use at a transmission rate of _____________
a) 130 Mbits-1
b) 110 Mbits-1
c) 120 Mbits-1
d) 140 Mbits-1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At 140 Mbits-1, the performance of PIN-FET hybrid receiver is found to be
comparable to germanium and alloy APD receivers. A digital equalizer is necessary as the
highimpedance
front end effectively integrates the signal at 140 Mbits-1.
9. It is difficult to achieve higher transmission rates using conventional __________
a) Voltage amplifier
b) Waveguide Structures
c) PIN-FET or APD receivers
d) MESFET
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is difficult to achieve higher transmission rates due to limitations in their gain
bandwidth products. Also, the trade-off between the multiplication factor requirement and the
bandwidth limits the performance of conventional receivers.
10. Which receiver can be fabricated using PIN-FET hybrid approach?
a) Trans-impedance front end receiver
b) Gallium arsenide receiver
c) High-impedance front-end
d) Low-impedance front-end
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Trans-impedance front-end receivers are fabricated using the PIN-FET hybrid
approach. An example of such receivers consists of a GaAs MESFET and two complementary
bipolar microwave transistors.
11. A silicon p-i-n photodiode utilized with the amplifier and the receiver is designed to accept
data at a rate of ___________
a) 276Mbits-1
b) 274 Mbits-1
c) 278Mbits-1
d) 302Mbits-1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A silicon p-i-n photodiode is used with the low-noise preamplifier. This
preamplifier is based on a GaAs MESFET. Thus, a receiver using p-i-n photodiode accepts a
data rate of 274 Mbits-1 giving a sensitivity around -35dBm.
12. What is usually required by FETs to optimize the figure of merit?
a) Attenuation of barrier
b) Matching with the depletion region
c) Dispersion of the gate region
d) Matching with the detector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total capacitance is given by Ct = Cd + Ca. The figure of merit is optimized when
Cd=Ca. This requires FETs to be matched with the detectors. This requires FETs to be matched
with the detectors. This procedure is usually not welcomed by the device and is not permitted in
current optical receiver design
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“High Performance Receivers”.
1. How many design considerations are considered while determining the receiver performance?
a) Three
b) Two
c) One
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Three main considerations are utilized for determining the receiver performance.
Noise performance is a major design consideration providing a limitation to the sensitivity. Other
two considerations are bandwidth and dynamic range.
2. FET preamplifiers provide higher sensitivity than the Si-bipolar device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At low speeds, the FET preamplifiers provide higher sensitivity than the Si-bipolar
device. It is apparent that below 10Mbits-1the Si MOSFET preamplifier provides a lower noise
performance than GaAs MESFET.
3. What is the abbreviation of HBT?
a) Homo-junction unipolar transistor
b) Homo-junction bipolar transistor
c) Hetero-junction bipolar transistor
d) Hetero-Bandwidth transcendence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HBT is abbreviated as Hetero-junction bipolar transistor. It comprises a selectively
doped hetero-junction FET. It is a high-speed, low-noise transistor device.
4. What type of receivers are used to provide wideband operation, low-noise operation?
a) APD optical receivers
b) Optoelectronic integrated circuits (OEICs)
c) MESFET receivers
d) Trans-impedance front-end receivers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A strategy for the provision of wideband, low-noise receivers involves the use of pi-
n photodiode detector along with the monolithic integration of the device with semiconductor
alloy FETs. It has an operating wavelength of 1.1 to 1.6 μmranges.
5. ___________ circuits extends the dynamic range of the receiver.
a) Monolithic
b) Trans-impedance
c) Automatic Error Control (AEC)
d) Automatic Gain Control (AGC)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: AGC circuit extends the dynamic range by diverting excess photocurrent away
from the input of the receiver. The receiver dynamic range is an important performance
parameter as it provides a measure of the difference between the sensitivity and its overload
level.
6. The sensitivity of the low-impedance configuration is ____________
a) Good
b) Poor
c) Great
d) Same as that of high-impedance configuration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A receiver saturation level is determined by the value of the photodiode bias
resistor. The photodiode bias resistor valve is indirectly proportional to the sensitivity but is
directly proportional in low impedance configuration. The low resistor value provides less
sensitivity in the low-impedance configuration.
7. What is generally used to determine the receiver performance characteristics?
a) Noise
b) Resistor
c) Dynamic range & sensitivity characteristics
d) Impedance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dynamic range and sensitivity characteristics involve a graph of received power
level and the value of feedback resistor. The high value of photodiode bias resistor in the high
impedance front end causes high sensitivity and a narrow dynamic range. These factors prove
useful for determining the performance characteristics of receiver.
8. The __________ technique eliminates the thermal noise associated with the feedback resistor
in the trans-impedance front end design.
a) Compensation
b) Resonating impedance
c) Electromagnetic
d) Optical feedback
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The optical feedback strategy proves most useful at low transmission rate. The use
of optically coupled feedback has demonstrated dynamic ranges of around 40 dB for p-i-n
receivers operating at modest bit rates. It removes thermal noise associated with the feedback
resistor.
9. The removal of the feedback resistor in the optical feedback technique allows reciever
sensitivity of the order of _______________
a) -54 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
b) -12 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
c) -64 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
d) -72 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The removal of feedback resistor in the optical feedback technique allows low
noise performance. Low noise performance, in turn, affects sensitivity. The receiver sensitivity
gets high of the order of -64 dBm at 2Mbit/sec transmission rates.
10. The optical feedback technique is useful at low transmission rates.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The optical feedback technique is useful at low transmission rates because in this
case the feedback resistors employed are smaller than the optimum value for low-noise
performance. This is done to maintain the resistor at a practical size of 1MΩ. Large values of
feedback resistor limits the dynamic range.
11. How many types of optical amplifier technologies are available.
a) One
b) Three
c) Four
d) Two
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are two basic optical amplifier technologies available. They are
semiconductor optical amplifiers and fiber amplifiers. Both these devices are utilized in the
preamplification
role.
12. The optimum filter bandwidth is typically in the range ________________
a) 0.1 to 0.3 nm
b) 0.5 to 3 nm
c) 0.1 to 0.3 μm
d) 0.5 to 3 μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The optimum fiber bandwidth is determined by detector noise, transmission rate
and the transmitter chirp characteristics. It is typically in the range of 0.5 to 3 nmas it depends
upon the filter insertion loss.
8. Questions on Optical Amplification , Wavelength Conversion and Regeneration
The section contains questions and answers on semiconductor optical amplifiers, fiber and
waveguide amplifiers and conversion.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Amplifiers – Semiconductor Optical Amplifiers”.
1. For linear as well as in nonlinear mode _______________ are most important network
elements.
a) Optical amplifier
b) Optical detector
c) A/D converter
d) D/A converters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In single-mode fiber system, signal dispersion is very small, hence there is
attenuation. These systems don’t require signal regeneration as optical amplification is sufficient
so optical amplifier are most important.
2. The more advantages optical amplifier is ____________
a) Fiber amplifier
b) Semiconductor amplifier
c) Repeaters
d) Mode hooping amplifier
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Semiconductor optical amplifiers are having smaller size. They can be integrated to
produce subsystems. Thus are more profitable than other optical amplifier.
3. ________________ cannot be used for wideband amplification.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Brillouin fiber amplifiers provide a very narrow spectral bandwidth. These
bandwidth can be around 50 MHz, hence cannot be employed for wideband amplification.
4. ____________ is used preferably for channel selection in a WDM system.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Brillouin fiber provides amplification of a particular channel. This amplification
can be done without boosting other channels besides that particular channel.
5. For used in single-mode fiber __________ are used preferably.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Semiconductor optical amplifiers have low power consumption. There single mode
structure makes them appropriate and suitable for used in single mode fiber.
6. Mostly ____________ are used in nonlinear applications.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) FPAs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: FPAs have a resonant nature. This can be combined with their high internal fields.
They provide pulse shaping and bi-stable elements. Thus, are used widely in nonlinear
application.
7. _______________ is superior as compared to _________________
a) TWA, FPA
b) FPA, TWA
c) EDFA, FPA
d) FPA, EDFA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In TWA operating in single-pass amplification mode, the Fabry-Perot resonance is
suppressed by facet reflectivity reduction. This affects in increasing of amplifier spectral
bandwidth. This makes them less dependence of transmission characteristics on fluctuations in
biased current, input signal polarization. Thus FPA are superior to TWA.
8. ______________ are operated at current beyond normal lasing threshold current, practically.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The anti-reflection facet coatings affects in the form of increasing lasing current
threshold. This causes SOAs to be operated at current beyond normal lasing threshold current.
9. An uncoated FPA has peak gain wavelength 1.8μm, mode spacing of 0.8nm, and long active
region of 300 v. Determine RI of active medium.
a) 4.25×106
b) 3.75×107
c) 3.95×107
d) 4.25×109
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: n=λ2/2δλL=1.8×10-6/2×0.8×10-9×300×10-6=3.75×107.
10. Determine the peak gain wavelength of uncoated FPA having mode spacing of 2nm,and
250μmlong active region and R.I of 3.78.
a)2.25×10-4
b)4.53×10-8
c)1.94×10-6
d)4.25×109
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The peak gain wavelength is given by
λ2=n2δλL=3.78×2×2×10-9×250×10-6=1.94×10-6m.
11. An SOA has net gain coefficient of 300, at a gain of 30dB. Determine length of SOA.
a) 0.32 m
b) 0.023 m
c) 0.245 m
d) 0.563 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of SOA is determined by
L = Gs(dB)/10×g×loge = 30/10×300×0.434`= 0.023 m.
12. An SOA has length of 35.43×10-3m, at 30 dB gain. Determine net gain coefficient.
a) 5.124×10-3
b) 1.12×10-4
c) 5.125×10-3
d) 2.15×10-5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The net gain coefficient of SOA is given by
g = L×10×loge/Gs(dB) = 35.43×10-3×10×0.434/30
=5.125×10-3.
13. An SOA has mode number of 2.6, spontaneous emission factor of 4, optical bandwidth of 1
THz. Determine noise power spectral density.
a) 1.33×10-3
b) 5.13×1012
c) 3.29×10-6
d) 0.33×10-9
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The noise power spectral density Past is
Past = mnsp(Gs-1) hfb
= 2.6×4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1×1012
= 1.33×10-3W.
14. An SOA has noise power spectral density of 1.18mW, spontaneous emission factor of 4,
optical bandwidth of 1.5 THz. Determine mode number.
a) 1.53 × 1028
b) 6.14 × 1012
c) 1.78 × 1016
d) 4.12 × 10-3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mode number is determined by
m = Past/nsp(Gs-1) hfB
= 1.18×10-3/4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1.3×1012
= 1.53 × 10-34.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fiber and Waveguide Amplifiers”.
1. The spectral dependence on gain is always constant.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The spectral dependence on gain is mostly not constant. Thus the spectral
bandwidth for erbium-doped silica fibers is restricted to around 300 GHz.
2. ESA ________ the pumping efficiency of device.
a) Increases
b) Does not affects
c) Reduces
d) Has negligible effect on
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In erbium fiber amplifier photons at pump wavelength promotes the electrons in
upper lasing level into a high state of excitation. These electrons decay non-radiate to
intermediate levels and then back to upper lasing level thereby reducing pumping efficiency.
3. Signal amplification is obtained in ____________
a) Erbium-doped fluoro-zir-carbonate fiber multimode
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To avoid excited state absorption (ESA). We should use different glass technology
in place by using a 488 nmpump wavelength; erbium-doped multimode fluoro zir carbonate fiber
provides gain at 1.525 μmwavelengths.
4. It is possible to construct a single rare-earth-doped fiber amplifier which provides
amplification for all-bands.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Each material has different absorption emission properties to absorb energy either
in single or multi steps. Also it possesses property to emit light in one or more narrow spectral
ranges. Thus we cannot construct a single earth-doped fiber for all bands.
5. _______________ is constructed using erbium-doped glass.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As compared to other glass, erbium-based micro fiber amplifier is more
advantageous. This amplifier provides high optical gain over just a few centimeters of fiber over
many meters.
6. ____________ uses Er3+-doped erbium glass.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The erbium-based micro fiber amplifier uses Er3+-doped erbium glass. It supports
the doping constructions of erbium ions at high levels as compared to conventional glasses.
7. The most advantageous amplification is ____________
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As compared to all the amplifications, Raman amplification is more advantageous.
It has self-phase matching between pump of signal together with broad gain bandwidth as
compared to other nonlinear processes.
8. _________ is also known as lump Raman amplifiers.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Discrete Raman amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Discrete Raman Amplifiers are lumped elements. This lumped element is to be
inserted in transmission line to provide gain.
9. _______________ extends the pump power into transmission line fiber.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Distributed Raman amplification, all pump power is confined to lumped element.
And it is distributed when the amplification takes place among several kilometers.
10. _____________ are called hybrid Raman amplifier.
a) Lumped and distributed Raman Amplifiers
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lumped and distributed Raman Amplifiers can be combined together to be used in
wideband application. This combination increases overall amplified spectral bandwidth.
11. In ___________ the ASE contributes most of noise.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ASE contributes most of noise in Raman Amplification. The common sources of
noise include beating of signal with ASE, mixing, self-phase modulation and cross-plane
modulation.
12. In _____________ Rayleigh scattering can be reduced.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering adverse effects can be reduced in Raman Amplification. This
can be done by employing two or more stages of amplification over single stage amplification
over fiber.
13. Compute the fiber nonlinear coefficient of a parametric optical amplifier having parametric
peak gain of 63.6 dB, signal power of 1.6W, length 520.
a) 2.78×10-2 W-1km-1
b) 9.61×10-3 W-1km-1
c) 3.25×10-3 W-1km-1
d) 5.61×10-4 W-1km-1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fiber nonlinear coefficient can be found by
γ = Gp(dB)-log10(0.25)/Ppl×L × 1/10log10(2.718)2
= 63.6+6/1.6×1.6×520×1/8.7 = 9.61×10-3 W-1km-1.
14. Compute signal power for parametric amplifier having length of 500, nonlinear gain
coefficient 12.6×10-3 W-1 km-1 and parametric peak gain of 63.9 dB.
a) 0.245 W
b) 0.012 W
c) 0.19 W
d) 0.342 W
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Signal power is given by
Pp=Gp(dB)-log10(0.25)/γL× 1/10log10(2.718)2= 63.9+6/12.6×10-3×1/ 8.7
= 0.012 W.
15. Compute the gain of parametric amplifier having signal power of 1.6W, length of 500,
nonlinear
coefficient of 10.19 * 10-3W-1 km-1.
a) 34.890
b) 19.15
c) 18.22
d) 16.11
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Quadratic gain is given by-
Gp(dB)=10log10(γPplL)2
Where L=length of amplifier
Ppl=signal power
γ=nonlinear coefficient.
This set of Optical Communications online quiz focuses on “Wavelength Conversion and Optical
Regeneration”.
1. ___________________ is defined as a process by which the wavelength of the transmitted
signal is changed without altering the data carried by the signal.
a) Wavelength conversion
b) Attenuation
c) Sigma management
d) Wavelength dispersion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wavelength conversion observes the changes in the length of the wave. It does not
proportionate with the data carried by the signal or wave.
2. The device which is used to perform wavelength conversion is called as ___________
a) Attenuator
b) Wavelength Gyrator
c) Wavelength Circulator
d) Wavelength translator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wavelength translator changes the frequency of the wave and hence it is also called
as frequency changer. It does not affect the data carried by the wave.
3. A wavelength converter is termed as _______ if the converted wavelength is longer than the
original signal wavelength.
a) Down converter
b) Up converter
c) Attenuator
d) Shifter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A wavelength converter is capable of receiving an incoming signal at any
wavelength at the input port and produces output at the output port. A converter is termed as up
converter when the output signal wavelength is longer than the original signal wavelength.
4. The ___________ converters cannot process different modulation formats.
a) Shifting
b) Optoelectronic wavelength
c) Opt-circular
d) Magnetic simulating
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In optoelectronic wavelength converters, the information contained in the intensity,
frequency, phase of the signal is required to be reprocessed for the purpose of wavelength
conversion. It does not process all the modulation formats.
5. The optical medium, in case of optical wavelength conversion is ___________
a) Depleted
b) Linear
c) Non-linear
d) Dispersive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The implementation of optical wavelength conversion involves non-linearity of the
optical medium. It can be either active or passive, each providing different nonlinear effects.
6. The process of imposing the nonlinear response of the medium onto the control signal is
known as ______________ scheme.
a) Demodulation
b) Absorption
c) Cross-modulation
d) Repeater mixing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cross-modulation scheme involves changes produced due to the intensity
variation of the intensity-modulated input signal. It takes place in the active cavity.
7. How many approaches are adopted by the cross-modulation scheme?
a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Based on the properties of the nonlinear medium, the cross-modulation scheme can
be divided into four main approaches. These are cross-gain modulation, cross-phase modulation,
cross-absorption modulation, differential polarization modulation.
8. __________ wavelength converters make use of a passive optical medium to exploit nonlinear
effects.
a) Bipolar
b) Optoelectronic
c) Magnetic
d) Coherent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The nonlinear effects include four-wave mixing and difference frequency
generation. Coherent wavelength converters use a passive medium to extend the changes of
nonlinear effects.
9. A _____________ wavelength converter utilizes the nonlinear properties of a semiconductor
optical amplifier to perform the conversion process.
a) Cross-gain modulation
b) Cross-phase modulation
c) Cross-absorption modulation
d) Differential polarization modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cross-gain modulation wavelength converter is also called as XGM wavelength
converter. It uses semiconductor optical amplifier(SOA) along with its nonlinear properties for
the conversion process.
10. The intensity modulated data on one signal wavelength is called as _______
a) Dispersed data
b) Pump signal
c) Probe signal
d) Frequency signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pump signal is intensity modulated data. It produces variations in the carrier density
within the SOA which provides inverted gain modulation in the SOA medium.
11. The probe signal is inverse to that of the pump signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The gain modulations of the pump signal are imprinted onto the probe signal. Thus,
the probe signal acquires the inverse copy of the pump signal, thereby contributing to the
wavelength conversion with the pump signal.
12. In the XGM converter, the transfer function maintains the rectangular shape.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By default, the ideal transfer function should be rectangular in shape. But it does
not apply the same for XGM converter as the amplitude gradually decreases.
13. The speed of operation of XGM wavelength conversion is determined by the
_______________ of the SOA.
a) Depletion level
b) Hole concentration
c) Carrier dynamics
d) Electron concentration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The carrier dynamics deals with the interaction time between the input and the
probe signal. On increasing the interaction time, the speed of operation of XGM wavelength
conversion is increased.
14. ____________ is defined as the deviation in the emission frequency with respect to time
when a laser is driven by a time-varying current source.
a) Intensity probe
b) Dispersion
c) Attenuation
d) Frequency chirp
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency chirp occurs during the process of XGM and XPM. It is often termed as
instantaneous frequency variation.
15. When frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards the shorter wavelength, it is
known as ________
a) Red shift
b) Green shift
c) Yellow shift
d) Blue shift
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards the shorter wavelength,
it is known as blue shift. Similarly, when frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards the
longer wavelength, it is known as red shift.

Multiple Choice Questions


____________________________________________
BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems )
Topic : Fibre Optic Communication
UNIT III: Multichannel Systems
9. Questions & Answers on Integrated Optics and Photonics
The section contains questions on photonics technologies, planar waveguides, photonic
integrated circuits, optical
bistability and digital optics.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Integrated
Optics and Photonics Technologies”.
1. Integrated technology for optical devices are developed within optical fiber
communication.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
2
Answer: a
Explanation: Integration of optical devices enable fabrication of the whole system onto a
single chip. Integration
of such devices has become a confluence of several optical terms.
2. When both active and passive devices are integrated on a single chip, in multilayered form,
then these devices
are known as _____________
a) IP devices
b) IO devices
c) Wavelength converters
d) Optical parametric amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IP technology enables fabrication of subsystems and systems. This is all
realized on a single
substrate. The integration on a single chip is done in IP technology.
3. _________ is a further enhancement of ________
a) IP, IO
b) IO, IP
c) IO, wavelength converters
d) IP, wavelength converters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IP seems to be a miniaturization process and integration of optical systems on a
single chip. IO
devices are formed when both active and passive elements are interconnected. Thus, IP is a
developed version of
IO.
4. Thin transparent dielectric layers on planar substrates are used in _________ and ______
devices.
a) Wavelength converters and amplification devices
b) IP and IO
c) IP and wavelength converters
d) IO and amplification devices
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IP and IO provide an alternative to conversion of optical signal back to
electrical signal. Thin
transparent dielectric layers act as optical waveguides to produce small-scale and miniature
circuits.
5. __________ did not make significant contribution to earlier optical fiber systems.
a) IO
b) IP
c) Wavelength amplifiers
d) Couplers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IO is based on single mode optical waveguides. Thus it is incompatible with
multimode fiber
systems. Thus, IO has less importance than IP.
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6. Side or edge-emitting or conducting optical devices cannot be integrated on same
substrate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In serial integration of device, different elements of optical chip can be
interconnected in a
consecutive manner. Thus, integration of side or edge emitting optical devices can be done on
a single substrate.
7. Hybrid ________ integration demands _________ IP circuits to be produced on a single
substrate.
a) IP, single-layered
b) IO, multilayered
c) IP, multilayered
d) IO, multilayered
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To gain control of optical signals, elements can be directly attached to IP circuit.
Both active and
passive devices should be on the same substrate. To make devices compatible with 3d
structures of other IP/IO
devices, hybrid IP integration demands multilayered IP circuits.
8. Using SOI integration technique __________ components can be coupled to IP devices.
a) Passive
b) Layered
c) Demounted
d) Active
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SOI is used to produce micro-waveguide bends and couplers thereby
maintaining compatibility with
silicon fabrication techniques. Thus, active components like optical sources, detectors can be
coupled to other IP
devices using SOI technique.
9. Who invented the IO technology?
a) Albert Einstein
b) Anderson
c) M.S Clarke
d) Robert
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The birth of IO can be traced back to the basic ideas outlined by Anderson in
1966. He suggested
the micro-fabrication technology which in turn led to the term integrated optics in 1969.
10. Electronic circuits have a practical limitation on speed of operation at a frequency of
around _________
a) 1010Hz
b) 1012Hz
c) 1014Hz
d) 1011Hz
View Answer
4
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of operation of electronic devices or circuits results from their use of
metallic conductors
to transport electronic charges and build up signals. It has a limitation to speed of operation
of frequency around
1010Hz.
11. The use of light as an electromagnetic wave of high frequency provides high speed
operation around
____________ times the conceivable employing electronic circuits.
a) 108Hz
b) 105Hz
c) 106Hz
d) 104Hz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The use of light with its property as an electromagnetic wave offers the
possibility of high speed
operation. For this, the frequency should be high as 10 14to 1015Hz.
12. How many layers are possessed by waveguide structures of silica-on-silicon(SOS)?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The SOS is a part of IP technology. The waveguide structures provided by it
comprises of three
layers. They are buffer, the core and the cladding.
13. The ________________ is a versatile solution-based technique for making ceramic and
glass materials.
a) SOL gel process
b) SSL gel process
c) SDL gel process
d) SAML gel process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The SOL gel process involves the transition of system from a liquid to a gel.
The SOL gel process
along with SOS technique is used for the fabrication of ceramic fibers, film coatings and
waveguide based optical
amplifiers.
This set of Basic Optical Communications Questions and Answers focuses on “Planar
Waveguides and
Integrated Optical Devices”.
1. Optical fibre communications uses _______ dielectric waveguide structures for confining
light.
a) Rectangular
b) Circular
c) Triangular
d) Planar
View Answer
5
Answer: b
Explanation: The use of circular dielectric waveguide structures is universally acceptable.
This has been a boon
for optical fibre communications.
2. __________ waveguide is formed when the film is sandwiched by layers of different
refractive index.
a) Planar
b) Circular
c) Asymmetric
d) Symmetric
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the film is sandwiched between layers of same refractive index,
symmetric waveguide is
formed. Owing to the different refractive index, asymmetry is observed and hence
asymmetric waveguide is
formed.
3. When the dimensions of the guide are reduced, the number of ___________ also
decreases.
a) Propagating nodes
b) Electrons
c) Holes
d) Volume of photons
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dimensions of the guide are directly proportional to the number of
propagating nodes. As the
dimensions are reduced, the number of propagating nodes also decreases.
4. What does hff stands for in the equation hff = h+x+x2?
a) Frequency of layer
b) Diameter of curve
c) Effective guide layer thickness
d) Space propagation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the above equation, h is the height, x and x2 are the evanescent field
penetration depths. hff
Denotes the effective guided layer thickness.
5. ___________ waveguides are plagued by high losses.
a) Circular
b) Planar
c) Depleted
d) Metal-clad
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All suitable waveguide materials are subject to limitations in the confinement.
However, metal-clad
waveguides are not so limited. Hence, they are plagued by high losses.
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6. The planar waveguides may be fabricated from glasses and other isotropic materials such
as ___________ and
______________
a) Octane and polymers
b) Carbon monoxide and diode
c) Fluorides and carbonates
d) Sulphur dioxide and polymers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These materials are isotropic. However, their properties do not affect the
fabrication of planar
waveguides. Their properties cannot be controlled by external energy sources.
7. Which of the following devices are less widely used in the field of optical fibre
communications?
a) Acousto-optic devices
b) Regenerators
c) Reflectors
d) Optical translators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Acousto-optic devices are less widely used, mainly in the area of field
deflection. Regenerators,
reflectors form a base for the optical fibre communications.
8. Which of the following materials have refractive index near two?
a) GA As
b) Zinc
c) InP
d) AlSb
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two basic groups are distinguished on the basis of the respective refractive
indices near two and
near three. GaAs, InP, AlSb have refractive indices near 3.
9. Passive devices are fabricated by __________ technique.
a) Fassbinder
b) High density integration
c) Radio-frequency sputtering
d) Lithium implantation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Passive devices’ fabrication comes mainly from microelectronics industry.
Radio frequency
sputtering is used to deposit thin films of glass onto glass substrates.
10. Strip pattern in waveguide structures is obtained through ____________
a) Lithography
b) Cryptography
c) Depletion of holes
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d) Implantation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Field strength is an important aspect when it comes to strip patterns in
waveguide structures. The
electron and laser beam lithography is used to obtain stripe pattern in waveguide structures.
11. Propagation losses in slab and strip waveguides are smaller than the single mode fibre
losses.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The losses are in the range of 0.1 to 0.3 dB/cm. In case of slab and stripe
waveguides, the losses are
much higher whereas in case of single-mode fibres, they are much less.
12. A passive Y-junction beam splitter is fabricated from __________
a) GaAs
b) ZnS
c) AlbS
d) LiNbO3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A passive Y-junction splitter is used to combine signals from separate sources
or to divide a signal
into two or more channels. It is fabricated from the waveguide materials such as LiNbO 3.
13. A passive Y-junction beam splitter is also used as a switch.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A passive junction beam splitter finds application where equal power division of
the incident beam
is required. It can be used as a switch if it is fabricated from an electro-optic material.
14. The linear variation of refractive index with the electric field is known as the ________
a) Linear implantation
b) Ionization
c) Koppel effect
d) Pockels effect
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The change in refractive index is related by the applied field via the linear and
quadratic electrooptic
coefficients. The variation of R.I with the electric field is known as Pockels effect.
15. Planar waveguides are used to produce _______ coupler.
a) MMI
b) CMI
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c) Frequency
d) Differential
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MMI couplers are abbreviated as Multimode interference couplers. These are
similar to fused fibre
couplers. These are easily produced by using planar waveguides.
This set of Optical Communications Question Bank focuses on “Optoelectronic Integration
and Photonic
Integrated Circuits”.
1. Monolithic integration for optical sources are confined to the use of __________
semiconductors.
a) Ⅲ-Ⅴ
b) Ⅱ-Ⅲ
c) Ⅰ-Ⅱ
d) Ⅶ-Ⅷ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ⅲ-Ⅴsemiconductor compounds are much useful. They possess both optical and
electronic
properties. These properties can be exploited to produce high performance devices.
2. Circuits fabricated from GaAs or AlGaAs operate in wavelength region of __________
a) 0.1 and 0.2 μm
b) 0.8 and 0.9 μm
c) 0.4 and 0.6 μm
d) 0.6 and 0.7 μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuits fabricated from GaAs use injection laser which is fabricated on GaAs
with a MESFET.
This is used to bias and modulate the laser.
3. The OEICs realization __________ as compared to the other developments in IO.
a) Scripted
b) Decreased
c) Lagged behind
d) Increased
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IO devices use dielectric materials such as lithium niobate. This lagging behind
is caused by
inherent difficulties in fabrication of OEICs even if Ⅲ-Ⅴ semiconductors are used.
4. Compositional and structural differences between photonic and electronic devices
__________
a) Provide high efficiency
b) Provide low efficiency
c) Highly used
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d) Create problems
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Compositional and structural differences cause epitaxial crystal growth,
planarization for
lithography, electrical interconnections. They also cause thermal and chemical stability of
materials, electric
matching and heat dissipation.
5. To avoid large chip __________ devices are used.
a) InGaAsP
b) InGa
c) GaAs
d) InGaAs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To avoid large chip, InGaAsP devices are used with directly modulated
semiconductor lasers. This
gives good dynamic characteristics at 40 Gbit/s at 1.55 μmwavelength.
6. Devices operating at transmission rates greater than 40 Gb/s are _________
a) GaAs and InP
b) GaAs
c) InGa
d) InGaAs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optoelectronic integrated circuits are based on heterojunction bipolar transistor
and electron
mobility transistor use GaAs and InP. These are capable of operating at transmission rates
higher than 40 Gb/s.
7. HEMT based __________ have a spot-size convertor with a photodiode.
a) p-n junction diode
b) p-i-n photoreceiver
c) IGBT
d) BJT
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P-I-N photoreceiver comprises of spot-size convertor with a photodiode. Spot-
size convertor
increases fiber alignment tolerances by one order of magnitude. This enables use of cleaved
instead of lensed
fiber.
8. P-I-N photoreceiver based on HEMT is integrated with _________ guiding layers.
a) GaAs and InP
b) GaAs
c) InGa
d) InGaAsP
View Answer
10
Answer: d
Explanation: P-I-N photoreceiver is integrated with InGaAsP guiding layers. In this HEMT
based technology,
InGaAsP provides more confinement.
9. An optical power splitter integrated with optical waveguide amplifier is more useful.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The aim of optical waveguide amplifier is to reduce the number of amplifiers in
system. Alongwith,
it also reaches maximum number of nodes.
10. The use of intelligent optical switches is necessary.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most applications of OEICs in optical networks require large switching capacity
to support a large
number of WDM channels. This also provides control of both optical signal wavelength and
signal power.
11. The wafer scale replication technology uses ____________
a) SOL gel
b) GaAs
c) InGa
d) InGaAsP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Replication technology employs hot embossing, molding and ultraviolet
lithography. Ultraviolet
curable SOL gel enables refractive and diffractive micro-optical elements to be replicated
directly on glass
substrates.
12. ___________ is useful for production of both planar micro-optical elements and stacked
optical
microsystems.
a) Wavelength amplifier
b) Wavelength convertor
c) Replication technology
d) Optical switching matrix
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SOL gel materials used in replication technology allows combination of
replication with
lithography. This leaves selected areas material-free for sawing and bunding.
13. Optical interconnection between optoelectronic device is achieved in _________
a) Wavelength amplifier
b) Wavelength convertor
c) Replication technology
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d) Chip-to-chip interconnection
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The chip-to-chip interconnection of optical components have a vertical cavity
surface-emitting
laser. These are assembled in micro-trenches in which embedded electrodes are connected
through passive
junction of poliver waveguide on alignment pits.
14. Multilevel interconnections are incorporated in _______
a) PIC
b) AWG based coupler
c) Convertors
d) OEIC technologies
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PIC reduces the overall size of optical functions. This causes the
interconnection of several modules
growing on same substrate.
15. When there is M number of WDM channels present at N input ports, then the output port
1 produces a
_________
a) CW signal
b) WDM signal
c) Amplified signal
d) Distorted signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The reconstituted spectrum of WDM signal at any output port consists of a
different set of
wavelength channels with at least one wavelength channel from each input port producing a
WDM signal having
wavelength signal from each of input ports.
1. ___________ provides a series of optical processing functions.
a) Wavelength convertors
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Detectors
d) Bi-stable optical devices
View Answer
2. ___________ comprise of Fabry-Perot cavity.
a) Wavelength convertors
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Bi-stable optical devices
d) Detectors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fabry-Perot cavity consists of a material in which there are variations in
refractive index with
optical intensity. These variations are nonlinear giving rise to bistability.
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3. The optical path length in nonlinear medium is integer number of ______ wavelength.
a) Half
b) Double
c) Three-fourth
d) Single
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fabry-Perot cavity exhibits a sharp resonance to optical power passing into and
through it. This is
achieved when optical path length is integer number of half wavelength in nonlinear medium.
4. As compared to laser, the value of _________ in the cavity controls the optical
transmission.
a) Amplification
b) Refractive index
c) Rectification
d) Reflection
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The refractive index value in the Fabry-Perot cavity controls the optical
transmission. This provides
high optical output on resonance and low optical output off resonance.
5. ___________ are able to latch between two distinct optical states.
a) Wavelength converters
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Detectors
d) Bistable optical devices
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The transfer characteristic for Bistable optical devices exhibit two state
hysteresis resulting from
turning in and out of resonance. So they can be latched between two states responding to
external signal acting as
flip-flop.
6. __________ can act as AND, OR, NOT gate.
a) Wavelength converters
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Detectors
d) Bistable optical devices
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: BOD’s exhibit 2-state hysteresis. Thus they are able to latch between two
operating states (0 and 1)
thereby providing logic functions.
7. _______ proves superior to _______
a) BOD’s, electronic devices
b) Electronic devices, BOD’s
c) BOD’s, convertors
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d) Convertors, BOD’s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is also a thing of picosecond switching using only Pico-joules of energy.
A BOD comprises
of these switching properties. Thus, it proves superior to electronic devices.
8. ________ BOD’s provides optical feedback.
a) Extrinsic
b) Intrinsic
c) Detector
d) Bistable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All optical or intrinsic devices which utilize a nonlinear optical medium
between a pair of partially
reflecting mirrors forming a nonlinear etalon in which feedback is provided optical.
9. ___________ devices employ artificial nonlinearity.
a) Extrinsic
b) Intrinsic
c) Hybrid
d) Bistable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid devices have artificial nonlinearity in an electro-optic medium in the
cavity. This produces
variations in refractive index through electro-optic effect.
10. Hybrid devices have limited ________ speed.
a) Switching
b) Planar
c) Curvature
d) Electrical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hybrid BOD’s provides flexibility. But at the same time their switching speeds
are limited by use of
electrical feedback. These devices are interconnected to provide a more complex logic circuit.
11. _______ exhibit optical bistability.
a) Extrinsic lasers
b) Intrinsic lasers
c) Detectors
d) Semiconductor lasers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Semiconductor lasers have optical bistability. This is due to nonlinearities in
absorption, gain,
dispersion, wave guiding and the selection of output polarization.
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12. ___________ is fabricated with tandem electrode.
a) Full convertor
b) Semiconductor
c) Detector diode
d) Bistable laser diode
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bistable laser diode is fabricated with tandem electrode. The tandem electrode
provides two gain
sections. Also it has a loss region between them.
13. Optical pulsing can be obtained using _________
a) BODs
b) WDM
c) Detector
d) Semiconductor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: BODs with a very narrow bi-stable loop can provide optical pulsing. This type
of device can be
used to shape, clean up and amplify a noisy input pulse.
14. A weak second beam is introduced in _________
a) BOD differential amplifier
b) WDM
c) Detector
d) Semiconductor laser
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A weak second beam in BOD differential amplifier is introduced into the
nonlinear optical cavity.
This is used to control the resonance and transmission of the main beam through effects of its
own stored energy.
10. Questions on Optical Fiber Systems 1 : Intensity Modulation
The section contains questions and answers on optical transmitter and receiver circuit, system
design and planing
considerations, analog systems, multiplexing strategies, dispersion management and optical
amplifier
applications.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “The Optical
Transmitter Circuit”.
1. _____________ must be operated in stimulated emission region.
a) Injection laser
b) LED’s
c) Detector
d) Receiver
View Answer
15
Answer: a
Explanation: Injection laser is a threshold device. In stimulated emission region, continuous
optical output power
levels are in the range of 1 to 10mW.
2. Coherent radiation is relatively __________
a) Parabolic
b) Elliptic
c) Directional
d) Rectangular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the light output is coupled into optical fibre. This is because of the
isotropic distribution of
narrow-line width, coherent radiation is directional.
3. _____________ are capable of launching powers between 0.5 and several mW.
a) LED’s
b) Injection laser
c) Attenuator
d) Reflector
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coupling efficiency up to 30% may be obtained by placing a fiber close to laser
mirror. These can
approach 90% with suitable lens and optical coupling arrangements. So they can launch 0.5
to several mW of
optical power into fiber.
4. LED’s display good linearity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LED’s appear to be suited to analog transmission. This is because of its output
which is directly
proportional to the drive current.
5. Which behaviour may prove as a limitation for injection lasers and LED’s?
a) Isotropic
b) Radioactive
c) Thermal
d) Photosensitive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The thermal behaviour of the injection lasers and the LED’s limits their
operation within the optical
transmitter. The main problem is caused by the variation of injection laser threshold current.
6. Optical output power from an LED is directly proportional to the device junction
temperature.
a) False
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b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Output power is dependent on the junction temperature in case of LED’s. Most
LED’s exhibit a
decrease in the optical output power following an increase in junction temperature.
7. _____________ from the LED is dependent on the effective minority carrier lifetime in the
semiconductor
material.
a) Spontaneous emission
b) Stimulated emission
c) Absorption
d) Diffusion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of the response of the LED is dictated by the respective emission
mechanism.
Spontaneous emission is related to the carrier lifetime and hence dictating the speed of
response.
8. The _________ of the LED is twice that of the effective minority carrier lifetime.
a) Dwell time
b) Reflection scatters
c) Sensitivity
d) Rise time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The response of the optical fiber source is specified in terms of the rise time.
This rise time is
reciprocally related to the device frequency response.
9. The finite spectral width of the optical source causes ___________
a) Depletion
b) Frequency burst
c) Pulse broadening
d) Efficient reflection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The finite spectral width causes pulse broadening due to material dispersion on
an optical fiber
communication link. This results in a limitation on the bandwidth-length product.
10. The coherent emission from an injection laser has a line width of ________
a) 2 nm
b) 3nm
c) 8 nm
d) 1nm
View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: An optical source such as an injection laser is a narrow line width device as
compared to the LED. It
has a narrow line width of 1 nm or less.
11. Extinction ratio is denoted by symbol __________
a) ε
b) σ
c) β
d) ρ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Extinction ratio is defined as the ratio of the optical energy emitted in the 0 bit
period to that emitted
during the 1 bit period. It is denoted by ε.
12. The use of low impedance driving circuit may increase _____________
a) Noise
b) Width
c) Intensity
d) Switching speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulse shaping is usually required to increase the switching speed. However,
increased switching
speed may be obtained from an LED without a speed-up element by use of a low-impedance
driving circuit.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “The Optical
Receiver Circuit”.
1. ____________ limits receiver sensitivity.
a) Noise
b) Depletion layer
c) Avalanche
d) Current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Receiver noise affects receiver sensitivity. It can dictate the overall system
design. The noise can be
temperature, environmental factor or due to components.
2. A ____________ performs the linear conversion of the received optical signal into an
electric current.
a) Receiver
b) Converter
c) Detector
d) Reflector
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An optical signal is always fed to a detector. A detector is an optoelectronic
converter which
linearly converts the received optical signal into an electric current.
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3. __________ are provided to reduce distortion and to provide a suitable signal shape for the
filter.
a) Detector
b) Equalizer
c) Filters
d) Amplifier
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical detectors are linear devices. They do not introduce distortion themselves
but other
components may exhibit nonlinear behaviour. To compensate for distortion, an equalizer is
provided in the
receiver circuit.
4. A _________ maximizes the received signal-to-noise ratio in the receiver circuitry.
a) Filter
b) Equalizer
c) Detector
d) Reflector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A filter reduces the noise bandwidth as well as inbounds noise levels. A filter
maximizes the
received signal-to-noise ratio while preserving the essential features of the signal. It also
reduces ISI.
5. ________ can be operated in three connections.
a) Reflectors
b) Diodes
c) LED’s
d) FET’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: FET’s or bipolar transistors are operated in three useful connections. These are
the common emitter,
the common base or gate, and the emitter or source follower.
6. How many structures of pre-amplifiers exist?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The basic structures of pre-amplifiers are observed in three forms. These are
low-impedance, highimpedance
and trans-impedance front end preamplifier structures.
7. What is the main factor contributing to the choice of the operational amplifier?
a) Gain
b) Impedance
c) Conductance
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d) Gain-Bandwidth product
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A TTL interface stage is always used with the operational amplifier. A device
that requires higher
accuracy often tends to depend on gain-bandwidth product.
The choice of amplifier for receiver accuracy is dependant on gain-bandwidth product.
8. The multiplication factor for the APD varies with the device temperature.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optimum multiplication factor is required for smooth voltage variance. The
multiplication factor for
APD varies with the device temperature thus making provision of fine control for bias
voltage.
9. How many categories of dynamic gain equalizers are available?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic gain equalizers are categorized into two types. These are single-
channel and multichannel
equalizers, thus providing operation using single or multiple wavelengths.
10. How many simultaneous channels can be provided in a band DGE(Dynamic gain
equalizer)?
a) Six
b) Two
c) Eight
d) Ten
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, eight channels are provided simultaneously in a band DGE. These
are for the attenuation
purpose of channels along with gain equalization.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “System Design
Considerations”.
1. __________ is the unique property of the glass fiber.
a) Transmission
b) Opaque property
c) Ductile
d) Malleable
View Answer
20
Answer: a
Explanation: Glass fibres have a unique property as a transmission medium which enables
their use in the
communication. The major transmission characteristics are dispersion and attenuation.
2. __________ limits the maximum distance between the optical fiber transmitter and
receiver.
a) Attenuation
b) Transmission
c) Equipment
d) Fiber length
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Attenuation along with dispersion and the conductor size are some of the factors
that limit the
maximum distance between the optical transmitter and the receiver. The associated
constraints within the
equipment also affect the distance.
3. The ___________ incorporates a line receiver in order to convert the optical signal into the
electrical regime.
a) Attenuator
b) Transmitter
c) Repeater
d) Designator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Repeaters are a mediator between transmitter and receiver. The weak signal is
strengthened back by
the repeaters on its path to the receiver.
4. A regenerative repeater is called as ____________
a) Repetitive repeater
b) Regenerator
c) Attenuator
d) Gyrator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When digital transmission techniques are used, the repeater also regenerates the
original digital
signal in the electrical signal before it is retransmitted as an optical signal via a line
transmitter.
5. The wavelength range of __________ will be fruitful for the operating wavelength of the
system referring to
the system performance.
a) 0.8 – 0.9 μm
b) 1.1 – 2 μm
c) 5.2 – 5.7 μm
d) 3.1 – 3.2 μm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is useful if the operating wavelength of the system is established to range of
0.8-0.9 μm. This will
be dictated by the overall requirements for the system performance, cost, etc.
21
6. How many encoding schemes are used in optical fiber communication system design
requirements?
a) Three
b) One
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Encoding schemes are used for digital transmission of data. These are bi-phase
and delay
modulation codes. They are also called as Manchester and Miller codes respectively.
7. In ________ the optical channel bandwidth is divided into non-overlapping frequency
bands.
a) Time division multiplexing
b) Frequency division multiplexing
c) Code division multiplexing
d) De-multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In FDM, the non-overlapping frequency bands are divided to the individual
frequencies. These
individual signals can be extracted from the combined FDM signal by electrical filtering at
the receiver terminal.
8. A multiplexing technique which does not involve the application of several message
signals onto a single fiber
is called as _________
a) Time division multiplexing
b) Frequency division multiplexing
c) Code division multiplexing
d) Space division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In SDM, each signal channel is carried on a separate fiber within a fiber bundle
or multi-fiber cable
form. The cross coupling between channels is negligible.
9. Which of the following is not an optical fiber component?
a) Fiber
b) Connector
c) Circulator
d) Detector
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Circulator is a device used in electromagnetic theory. All others are optical
components.
10. ________technique involves an increase in the number of components required.
a) Time division multiplexing
b) Space division multiplexing
c) Code division multiplexing
d) Frequency division multiplexing
View Answer
22
Answer: b
Explanation: SDM involves good optical isolation due to the negligible cross coupling
between channels. It uses
separate fiber and thus requires more number of components.
11. Time division multiplexing is inverse to that of frequency division multiplexing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TDM involves distribution of channels in time slots whereas FDM involves
bands that are run on
different frequencies. Both of these techniques improve accuracy and reduce complexity.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Digital System
Planning Considerations”.
1. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine
number of bits in a frame.
a) 64
b) 128
c) 32
d) 256
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Number of bits in a frame can be calculated as follows:
Bits in a frame = No. of channels * Sampling rate for each channel.
2. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine the
transmission rate for system with 256 bits in a frame.
a) 2.96 Mbits/s
b) 2.048 Mbits/s
c) 3.92 Mbits/s
d) 4 Mbits/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission rate can be determined by-
Transmission rate = Sampling rate * No. of bits in a frame.
3. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine the
bit duration with transmission rate of 2.048 M bits/s.
a) 388 ns
b) 490 ns
c) 488 ns
d) 540 ns
View Answer
23
Answer: c
Explanation: Bit duration is the reciprocal of the transmission rate. Thus, it is given by-
Bit duration = 1/transmission rate.
4. The bit duration is 488 ns. Sampling rate for each channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz
encoded into 8 bits.
Determine the time slot duration.
a) 3.2 μs
b) 3.1 μs
c) 7 μs
d) 3.9 μs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Time slot duration is given by –
Time slot duration = Encoded bits * bit duration.
5. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine
duration of frame with time slot duration of 3.9μs.
a) 125 μs
b) 130 μs
c) 132 μs
d) 133 μs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Duration of a frame is determined by –
Duration of a frame = 32 * time slot duration.
6. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine the
duration of multi-frame if duration of a frame is 125μs.
a) 2ms
b) 3ms
c) 4ms
d) 10ms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multi-frame duration can be determined by –
Multi-frame duration = 16 * Duration of a single frame.
7. Determine excess avalanche noise factor F(M) if APD has multiplication factor of 100,
carrier ionization rate
of 0.02.
a) 3.99
b) 3.95
c) 4.3
d) 4
View Answer
8. Compute average number of photons incident at receiver in APD if quantum efficiency is
80%, F (M) = 4,
SNR = 144.
24
a) 866
b) 865
c) 864
d) 867
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Average number of photons arezm=[2βςF(M)]*[S/N*η]
Here, η = quantum efficiency, S/N = signal to noise ratio.
9. Determine incident optical power if z m=864, wavelength = 1μm.
a) -85 dBm
b) -80 dBm
c) -69.7 dBm
d) -60.7 dBm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Incident optical power is P0=zmhcBT/2λ. Here zm=average number of photons,
hc=Planck’s constant.
10. Determine wavelength of incident optical power if zm=864, incident optical power is -
60.7 dB, BT=1 * 107.
a) 1 μs
b) 2 μs
c) 3 μs
d) 4 μs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wavelength is determined by λ=z mhcBT/2P0. Here zm=average number of
photons, hc=Planck’s
constant, P0=incident optical power.
11. Determine total channel loss if connector loss at source and detector is 3.5 and 2.5 dB and
attenuation of 5
dB/km.
a) 34 dB
b) 35 dB
c) 36 dB
d) 38 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total channel loss is CL=(αfc+αj)L + αcr. Here αcr=loss at detector and source
combined, αfc =
attenuation in dB/km.
12. Determine length of the fiber if attenuation is 5dB/km, splice loss is 2 dB/km, connector
loss at source and
detector is 3.5 and 2.5.
a) 5 km
b) 4 km
c) 3 km
d) 8 km
View Answer
25
Answer: b
Explanation: Length of the fiber is L = CL/(αfc+αj) – αcr. Here αcr = loss at detector and source
combined, αfc =
attenuation in dB/km.
13. Determine total RMS pulse broadening over 8 km if RMS pulse broadening is 0.6ns/km.
a) 3.6 ns
b) 4 ns
c) 4.8 ns
d) 3 ns
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Total RMS pulse broadening is given by –
σT = σ*L Where σ = rms pulse broadening and L = length of the fiber.
14. Determine RMS pulse broadening over 8 km if total RMS pulse broadening is 5.8ns/km.
a) 0.2ns/km
b) 0.1ns/km
c) 0.4ns/km
d) 0.72ns/km
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: RMS pulse broadening is given by –
σ = σT/L where σ = rms pulse broadening and L = length of the fiber.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Analog
Systems”.
1. Determine dispersion equalization penalty if total RMS pulse broadening is 4.8ns, B T is 25
Mbits/s.
a) 0.03 dB
b) 0.08 dB
c) 7 dB
d) 0.01 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dispersion equalization penalty is denoted by DL. It is given by-
DL = 2 (2σTBT√2)4. Here σT=RMS pulse broadening.
2. Determine RMS pulse broadening with mode coupling if pulse broadening is 0.6 over
8km.
a) 1.6ns
b) 1.7ns
c) 1.5ns
d) 1.4ns
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Total RMS pulse broadening with mode coupling is given by-
σT = σ√L. Here σT = RMS pulse broadening, L = length of the fiber.
26
3. Determine dispersion equalization penalty with mode coupling of 1.7ns if B T is 25 Mbits/s.
a) 4.8 * 104dB
b) 4 * 104dB
c) 4.2 * 104dB
d) 3.8 * 104dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dispersion equalization penalty is denoted by D L. With mode coupling, it is
given by-
DL=2 (2σTBT√2)4. Here σT=RMS pulse broadening.
4. Determine dispersion equalization penalty without mode coupling if BT is 150 Mbits/s and
total rms pulse
broadening is 4.8ns.
a) 34 dB
b) 33 dB
c) 76.12 dB
d) 34.38 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Dispersion equalization penalty is denoted by D L(WM). It is given by-
DL(WM) = 2 (2σTBT√2)4. Here σT = RMS pulse broadening, (WM) = without mode coupling.
5. Determine ratio of SNR of coaxial system to SNR of fiber system if peak output voltage is
5V, quantum
efficiency of 70%, optical power is 1mW, wavelength of 0.85μm.
a) 1.04 * 104
b) 2.04 * 104
c) 3.04 * 104
d) 4.04 * 104
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ratio of SNR of coaxial system to SNR of fiber system is given by-
Ratio = V2hc/2KTZ0ηPiλ. Here, η=quantum efficiency, Pi = 0ptical power in mW, V=optical
output voltage.
6. Determine the peak output voltage if efficiency is 70%, wavelength is 0.85μm and output
power is 1mW.
a) 7V
b) 8V
c) 5V
d) 6V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Peak output voltage is given by-
V2 = (2KTZ0ηPiλ * Ratio)/hc. Here, η = quantum efficiency, P i=0ptical power in mW,
V=optical output voltage.
7. Determine the efficiency of a coaxial cable system at 17 degree Celsius with peak output
voltage 5V, 0.85 μm
wavelength and SNR ratio of 1.04 * 104.
a) 80%
b) 70%
27
c) 40%
d) 60%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of a coaxial cable system is η=V2 hc/2KTZ0ηPiλ * Ratio.
Hereη=quantum efficiency,
Pi = 0ptical power in mW, V=optical output voltage.
8. Determine the wavelength of a coaxial cable system operating at temperature 17 degree
Celsius at output
voltage of 5V, 100Ω impedance, optical power of 1mW, 70% quantum efficiency.
a) 0.39μm
b) 0.60μm
c) 0.85μm
d) 0.98μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The wavelength can be determined by –
λ = V2hc/2KTZ0ηPi * Ratio. Hereη=quantum efficiency, Pi = 0ptical power in mW, V =
optical output voltage.
9. Determine the impedance of a coaxial cable system operating at temperature 17 degree
Celsius at output
voltage of 5V, 0.85μmwavelength, optical power of 1mW, 70% quantum efficiency and SNR
ratio of 1.04 * 104.
a) 80Ω
b) 50Ω
c) 90Ω
d) 100Ω
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The impedance is given by-Z0=V2hc/2KTPi * Ratio. Hereη=quantum efficiency,
Pi = Optical power
in mW, V=optical output voltage.
10. The 10-90% rise times for components used in D-IM analog optical link is given.
(LED=10ns,
Intermodal=9ns/km, Chromatic=2ns/km, APD = 3ns). Link is of 5km. Determine the total
rise time.
a) 62ns
b) 53ns
c) 50ns
d) 52ns
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total rise time is given by-
Tsyst=1.1[Ts
2+Tn
2+Tc
2+TD
2]1/2. Here Ts = rise time, Tn = intermodal time, T c = Chromatic time.
11. The 10-90% rise times for components used in D-IM analog optical link is given.
(LED=10ns,
Intermodal=9ns/km, Chromatic=2ns/km, APD = 3ns). Link is of 5km. It has an optical
bandwidth of 6MHz.
Determine maximum permitted system rise time.
a) 58.3ns
b) 54ns
c) 75ns
28
d) 43.54ns
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum permitted system rise time is given by-
Tsyst(Max) = 0.35/Bopt. Here, Bopt=Optical Bandwidth.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Multiplexing
Strategies”.
1. What is the full form of ETDM?
a) Electronic tube di-cyclic mechanism
b) Electrical time division multiplexing
c) Emphasis tier division mechanism
d) Electrical tube dielectric medium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ETDM is the major baseband digital strategy. It allows for greater exploitation
of available fiber
bandwidth.
2. The practical limitations of the speed of electronic circuits have been pushed towards
operational frequencies
around ___________
a) 100 MHz
b) 120 MHz
c) 100GHz
d) 80 Hz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The speed of the circuitry in the fiber optic communication plays an important
role in its
performance. It is pushed around 100 GHz frequency allowing for 100 Gbit/s feasibility.
3. A strategy used for increasing the bitrate of digital optical fiber systems beyond the
bandwidth capabilities of
the drive electronics is known as ___________
a) Optical time division multiplexing
b) Electrical time division multiplexing
c) Frequency division multiplexing
d) Code division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: OTDM is favourable for long distance transmission of signal. It is designed to
push the bitrate of the
fiber systems beyond the bandwidth limits to gain performance.
4. ____________ semiconductor laser sources provide low duty cycle pulse streams for
subsequent time
multiplexing.
a) Diameter preferred
b) Mode locked
c) Divine
29
d) Depletion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mode locked semiconductor laser sources were used at the transmitter side.
They provide effective
distribution of time multiplexing providing low duty cycle pulse streams.
5. ______________ are the devices which are employed to eliminate the laser chirp.
a) Optical intensity modulators
b) Demodulators
c) Circulators
d) Optical Isolators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical intensity modulators eliminate the laser chirp. This laser chirp may
result in dispersion of
the transmitted pulses as they propagate within the single mode fiber, thus limiting the
achievable transmission
distance.
6. _____________ provides operation at high transmission rate.
a) Optical intensity modulators
b) Demodulators
c) Circulators
d) Electro-absorption modulators
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electro-absorption modulators are employed at the transmitter and receiver
sections. They provide
operation at high transmission rate and for field trial.
7. In __________ the microwave frequency are modulated with an optical carrier and
transmitted using a single
wavelength channel.
a) Subcarrier multiplexing
b) TDM
c) FDM
d) Code division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical Subcarrier multiplexing (SCM) is transmitted using a single wavelength
channel. It enables
multiple broadband signals to be transmitted over single-mode fiber.
8. Which of the following techniques is easy to implement?
a) Amplitude shift keying
b) Phase shift keying
c) Frequency shift keying
d) SCM
View Answer
30
Answer: c
Explanation: Frequency shift keying has an advantage of being simple to implement at the
modulator as well as
demodulator side. It is formed by up converting to a narrowband channel at high frequency
employing frequency.
9. Which of the following is the disadvantage of SCM?
a) Source nonlinearity
b) Linearity
c) Distortion
d) Narrow bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The problem associated with SCM is source nonlinearity. The distortion caused
by this becomes
noticeable when several subcarriers are transmitted from a single optical source.
10. In CATV, the signal must be received with a carrier to noise ratio of between
__________
a) 90 and 100 dB
b) 10 and 30 dB
c) 60 and 70 dB
d) 45 and 55 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The CATV multichannel spectrum tends to minimize the required bandwidth.
The carrier to noise
ratio must be between to avoid degradation of picture quality.
11. The IF signal can be input to a demodulator to recover the baseband signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The IF signal is obtained through SCM at the receive terminals. The baseband
video signal in a
CATV is obtained through IF signal by using it with a demodulator input.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Application of
Optical Amplifiers “.
1. Which of the following is not a drawback of regenerative repeater?
a) Cost
b) Bandwidth
c) Complexity
d) Long haul applications
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The regenerative repeaters are useful in long haul applications. However, such
devices increase the
cost and complexity of the optical communication system. It act as a bottleneck by restricting
the system
operational bandwidth.
31
2. The term flexibility, in terms of optical amplifiers means the ability of the transmitted
signal to remain in the
optical domain in a long haul link.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Repeaters are usually used to maintain the transmitted signal in the optical
domain. But, it has its
own drawbacks. Thus, flexible systems which include optical amplifiers are used for such
purpose.
3. How many configurations are available for employment of optical amplifiers?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical amplifiers can be employed in three configurations. These are simplex
mode, duplex mode,
multi-amplifier configuration.
4. Repeaters are bidirectional.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Repeaters are unidirectional. Optical amplifiers have the ability to operate
simultaneously in both
directions at the same carrier wavelength.
5. It is necessary to ____________ the optical carriers at different speeds to avoid signal
interference.
a) Inculcate
b) Reduce
c) Intensity-modulate
d) Demodulate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical amplifiers are bidirectional. They operate in both directions at the same
carrier wavelength.
In order to avoid interference, the optical carriers should be intensity modulated.
6. The _________________ increases the system reliability in the event of an individual
amplifier failure.
a) Simplex configuration
b) Duplex configuration
c) Serial configuration
d) Parallel multi-amplifier configuration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The optical amplifiers with spectral bandwidths in the range 50 to 100 nm allow
amplifiers to be
32
more reliable than repeaters. The parallel multi-amplifier configuration increases system
reliability and relaxes
the linearity.
7. Which of the following is not an application of optical amplifier?
a) Power amplifier
b) In-line repeater amplifier
c) Demodulator
d) Preamplifier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical amplifiers have a wide variety of applications in the transmitter as well
as receiver side. It is
used as the power amplifier in the transmitter side and as preamplifier at the receiver side.
8. _________ reconstitutes a transmitted digital optical signal.
a) Repeaters
b) Optical amplifiers
c) Modulators
d) Circulators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical amplifiers simply act as gain blocks on an optical fiber link. However,
in contrast, the
regenerative repeaters reconstitute a transmitted digital optical signal.
9. _____________ are transparent to any type of signal modulation.
a) Repeaters
b) Optical amplifiers
c) Modulators
d) Circulators
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main benefit of acting as a gain block for optical amplifier is that it can be
transparent to
modulation bandwidth. However, both the noise and signal distortions are continuously
amplified.
10. _________________ imposes serious limitations on the system performance.
a) Fiber attenuation
b) Fiber modulation
c) Fiber demodulation
d) Fiber dispersion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The fiber dispersion calculation does not take into account the non-regenerative
nature of the
amplifier repeaters. In this, the pulse spreading and the noise is accumulated.
11. __________ is the ratio of input signal to noise ratio to the output signal to noise ratio of
the device.
a) Fiber dispersion
b) Noise figure
33
c) Transmission rate
d) Population inversion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise figure judges the performance factor of the devices. It is the in and out the
ratio of signal to
noise degradation for any device.
12. How many factors govern the noise figure of the device?
a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise figure is governed by factors such as the population inversion, the number
of transverse
modes in the amplifier cavity, the number of incident photons on the amplifier and the optical
bandwidth of the
amplified spontaneous emissions.
13. What is the typical range of the noise figure?
a) 1 – 2 dB
b) 3 – 5 dB
c) 7 – 11 dB
d) 12 – 14 dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Typical noise figures range from 7 to 11 dB. The SOAs are generally at the
bottom end of the range
and the fiber amplifiers towards the top end.
This set of Optical Communications Problems focuses on “Dispersion Management and
Soliton Systems”.
1. Calculate second order dispersion coefficient for path length L2 20km and L1 160km.
Dispersion coefficient
for L2 is 17.
a) -2.125ps/nm km
b) -3.25ps/nm km
c) -3.69ps/nm km
d) -1.28ps/nm km
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The second order dispersion coefficient for path length is given by-
β21 = -β22L2/L1. Here, β22 = Dispersion coefficient forL2, L2 and L1 are path lengths.
2. Calculate the path length L2 if L1is 160, dispersion coefficient of L2 is 17, dispersion
coefficient of L1 is -2.25
ps/nmkm.
a) 40 km
b) 20 km
c) 30 km
34
d) 10 km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The path length L2 is given by-
L2 = β21L1/-β22. Here, β22 = Dispersion coefficient forL2, β21 = Dispersion coefficient for L1,
L2 and L1 are path
lengths.
3. Calculate path length L1 if L2 is 20, dispersion coefficient of L2 is 17, dispersion coefficient
of L1 is -2.25
ps/nmkm.
a) 180 km
b) 30 km
c) 160 km
d) 44 km
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The path length L1is given by-
L1 = β21L2/-β22. Here, β22 = Dispersion coefficient forL2, β21 = Dispersion coefficient for L1,
L2 and L1 are path
lengths.
4. Calculate second order dispersion coefficient for path length L1 20 km and L1 160 km.
Dispersion coefficient
for L1 is -2.125*10-12s/nmkm.
a) 20
b) 19
c) 18
d) 17
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The second order dispersion coefficient for path length is given by-
β22=-β21L2/L1. Here, β21 = Dispersion coefficient forL1, L2 and L1 are path lengths.
5. Calculate dispersion slope for second path fiber if L1 is 150, L2 is 10 and s1 is 0.075.
a) 1.125
b) 2.125
c) 3.125
d) 1.9
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dispersion slope for second path fiber is s2 = -s1(L1/L2). Here s1 and s2 are
dispersion slopes for L1,
L2. L2 and L1 are path lengths.
6. Calculate dispersion slope for first path fiber if L1 is 160, L2 is 20 and s2 is 0.6ps/nm km.
a) 0.1
b) 0.432
c) 0.236
d) 0.075
View Answer
35
Answer: d
Explanation: Dispersion slope for first path fiber is s1 = -s2(L1/L2). Here s1 and s2 are
dispersion slopes for L1, L2.
L2 And L1 are path lengths.
7. Calculate L2 if dispersion slope for first path fiber is 0.075 and L1 is 160 km and s2 is -
0.6ps/nm km.
a) 20 km
b) 30 km
c) 40 km
d) 50 km
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: L2 is determined by –
L2 = (-s1/s2)*L1. Here s1 and s2 are dispersion slopes for L1, L2. L2 and L1 are path lengths.
8. Calculate L1 if dispersion slope for first path fiber is 0.075 and L2 is 20 km and s2 is -
0.6ps/nm km.
a) 170 km
b) 160 km
c) 180 km
d) 175 km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: L1 is determined by –
L2 = (-s1/s2)* L2. Here s1 and s2 are dispersion slopes for L1, L2. L2 and L1 are path lengths.
9. Calculate separation of soliton pulses over a bit period length if R 2 pulse width is 6 ps for
bit period of 70 ps.
a) 5.9
b) 5.7
c) 5.8
d) 5.4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The separation of soliton pulses over a bit period length is calculated by –
q0 = T0/2ς. Here ς = pulse width and T0 = bit period.
10. Calculate RZ pulse width if bit period is 60ps and separation of soliton pulses is 5.4.
a) 5.5ps
b) 8.1ps
c) 4.3ps
d) 2.3ps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RZ pulse width can be calculated by –
ς = T0/q0. Here ς = pulse width and T0 = bit period.
11. Calculate bit period if RZ pulse width is 50ps and separation of soliton pulses is 5.6.
a) 570ps
36
b) 540ps
c) 430ps
d) 560ps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bit period can be calculated by –
T0 = 2T2q0. Here T2=pulse width and T0=bit period.
12. Calculate value of dimensionless parameter if bit period is 45ps and RZ pulse width is 4
ps.
a) 5.625
b) 5.0
c) 4
d) 6.543
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dimensionless parameter is given by –
q0 = T0/2ς. Here ς=pulse width and T0=bit period.
11. Questions & Answers on Optical Fiber Systems 2 : Coherent
and Phase
Modulated
The section contains questions on coherent transmission, modulation
formats,
demodulation schemes, receiver sensitivities and multi carrier
systems.
This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on
“Practical
Constraints of Coherent Transmission”.
1. Which technology development has helped the field of optical fiber communication?
a) Glass technology
b) Component technology
c) Multiplexing
d) Power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Substantial developments in component technology have allowed the initial
difficulties in the
optical fiber communication to go away. The coherent factor experienced most of the
difficulties.
2. __________ dictates the performance characteristics required from components and
devices which are to be
utilized in coherent optical fiber systems.
a) System considerations
b) Bluetooth technology
c) Multiplexing
d) Practical constraints
View Answer
37
Answer: d
Explanation: Practical constraints inhibit the development of coherent optical fiber
communications. These
constraints are derived from factors associated with the elements of the coherent optical fiber
communication.
3. Coherent optical transmission is degraded by the ________ associated with the transmitter
and local oscillator
lasers.
a) Phase noise
b) White noise
c) Dissipation
d) Power
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Phase noise is determined by the laser line width. The phase noise associated
with both the
transmitter and the mid-tier section severely degrades the coherent optical transmission as
well as reception.
4. ___________ improves the spectral purity of the device output and noise current.
a) Power dissipation
b) Laser line width reduction
c) Laser line width injection
d) Phase noise
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Laser line width determines the level of phase noise and long term phase
stability. The reduced
phase noise is obtained using narrow-line width devices. This improves the spectral purity as
well as reduces the
noise current.
5. ____________ is the principal cause of line width broadening in the coherent devices.
a) Electromagnetic field
b) Power dissipation
c) Injection laser phase noise
d) Gaussian noise
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Injection laser phase noise affects the system performance. The system
performance considerations
include receiver noise, power loss and line width broadening.
6. Which technique was started for narrowing of injection laser line widths?
a) External resonator cavity
b) Long-hauled oscillator
c) Circulator
d) Gyrator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Many approaches evolved in time for laser line width problem. The one which
sustained and
showed effects was the use of external resonator cavity in the lasers.
38
7. The line width tolerance is wider for heterodyne receivers.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The laser line width requirements depend on the modulation format, coherent
detection mechanism
which includes the use of heterodyne and homodyne receivers. The line width tolerance is
wider for heterodyne
receivers when employing FSK modulation.
8. ___________ is an alternative to reduce phase noise and line width requirements.
a) Homodyne detection
b) Heterodyne detection
c) FSK modulation
d) Phase diversity reception
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The more sensitive coherent transmission techniques are most affected by phase
noise problem. A
specially configured reception technique called as phase diversity reception technique is used
to overcome phase
noise problem.
9. ______________ is the progressive spatial separation between the two polarization modes
as they propagate
along the fiber.
a) Fiber birefringence
b) Fiber dispersion
c) Fiber separation
d) Fiber coupling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a perfectly formed fiber, both modes would travel together. But, in practice,
the fiber contains
random manufacturing irregularities. This result in a progressive spatial separation called as
fiber birefringence.
10. How many compensator devices are required to provide full polarization-state control?
a) Three
b) One
c) Four
d) Two
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At least two compensator devices are required to provide full polarization-state
control. They can be
placed in either the incoming signal path or the local oscillator output path.
11. Which technique was found to be providing an infinite range of polarization control?
a) Homodyne detection
b) Fiber squeezers
c) Heterodyne detection
39
d) Power dissipation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Four fiber squeezers provide an infinite range of adjustment or endless
polarization control. Stress
was applied to the fiber in the local oscillator path using the squeezers which are angled at 45
degrees to each
other.
12. What is the main drawback of the squeezer?
a) Damages the fiber
b) Attenuation
c) Dispersion
d) Signal degradation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The squeezers are simple to configure. The main drawback of squeezer is that
they tend to damage
the fiber and could not be engineered into reliable transducers for practical systems.
13. The use of balanced receiver compensates the losses due to coupling optics.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The losses due to coupling optics and the suppression of the excess noise in the
local oscillator
signal are eliminated by the use of balanced receiver. It is also called as balanced-mixer
receiver.
14. ___________ is the phenomenon which occurs in the single carrier systems due to small
refractive index
changes induced by the optical power fluctuations.
a) SBS gain
b) Self-phase modulation
c) FSK modulation
d) Birefringence
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It occurs only in the single-carrier systems. It affects the phase of the
transmitted signal.
`
40

Short Answers Questions


____________________________________________
BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems )
Topic : Optical Fibre Communication
INTRODUCTION
................................................................................................................................................................. 7
41
1. What is a fiber optic?
................................................................................................................................................ 9
2. How many kinds of fibers are there?
............................................................................................................... 9
3. What are fiber optics made off?
.......................................................................................................................... 9
4. Are there different qualities of fiber optics?
................................................................................................. 9
5. What is a light guide?
.............................................................................................................................................10
6. What are bare fibers?
.............................................................................................................................................10
7. What are sheathed fibers?
...................................................................................................................................10
8. Is the sheath color
important?...........................................................................................................................10
9. What is a harness?
...................................................................................................................................................10
10. Do fibers have losses?
............................................................................................................................................10
11. Why do some fibers change the color of the light?
..................................................................................10
12. Is low attenuation a sign of good quality fiber?
........................................................................................11
13. What are the advantages of glass fiber optics?
.........................................................................................11
14. And the disadvantages?
........................................................................................................................................11
15. What are the advantages of polymer fiber optics?
..................................................................................12
16. And the disadvantages?
........................................................................................................................................12
17. Can I light a house with fiber optics?
.............................................................................................................13
18. Are fiber optics efficient as a means to transport light?
.......................................................................12
19. What can justify the use of fiber optics?
.......................................................................................................13
20. Are fibers safe?
..........................................................................................................................................................13
21. Who makes fiber optics?
......................................................................................................................................13
22. How are fiber optics made?
................................................................................................................................13
23. Are optical fibers fragile?
.....................................................................................................................................14
24. Can fibers be bent at right angles?
..................................................................................................................14
25. Can lighting fiber optics be spliced or joined?
...........................................................................................14
26. Will light go any length along a fiber?
...........................................................................................................14
27. How many sizes are there of lighting fiber optics?
.................................................................................14
28. Can you put any amount of light into a fiber optic?
................................................................................15
29. Do fiber optics transmit radiation
...................................................................................................................15
30. Glass or polymer?
....................................................................................................................................................15
31. Can fibers be made any size?
.............................................................................................................................15
32. How long will fiber optics last?
.........................................................................................................................16
33. Can several fibers give the same amount of light?
..................................................................................16
34. What are side-emitting fibers?
..........................................................................................................................16
35. Are there different types of side emitting fibers?
....................................................................................16
36. What are solid core fibers?
.................................................................................................................................16
37. What are multistranded optics?
.......................................................................................................................17
38. What are coiled or roped optics?
.....................................................................................................................17
39. Solid core or multicore?
........................................................................................................................................17
40. Can side emitting optics be as bright or brighter than neon?
............................................................17
41. With all the limitations, what are the uses of side emitting optics?
................................................18
42. What are the design constraints to side emitting optics?
....................................................................18
43. Could the light along a side emitting optic be absolutely
homogeneous?.....................................18
44. Will we always see a difference in brightness along an optic?
..........................................................18
45. Can light be made to move or chase along a side emitting optic?
....................................................19
46. Are the side-emitting fibers with reflecting core more luminous?
..................................................19
47. Is there any way to improve side-emitting viewing?
.............................................................................19
42
ILLUMINATORS
48. What is an illuminator?
......................................................................................................................................... 21
49. What makes a good illuminator?
....................................................................................................................... 21
50. Is bigger better?
....................................................................................................................................................... 21
51. How many types of illuminators are there?
.................................................................................................. 22
52. Halogen or gas discharge?
................................................................................................................................... 22
53. Must all illuminators have forced ventilation?
.............................................................................................. 22
54. How noisy is an illuminator?
.............................................................................................................................. 22
55. Are certifications important?
............................................................................................................................... 23
56. Are machines with the CE mark certified?
..................................................................................................... 23
57. How then do I recognize a product's quality?
.............................................................................................. 23
58. What about ISO 9000?
........................................................................................................................................... 24
59. How does a color change
works?....................................................................................................................... 24
60. What is a dychroic filter?
...................................................................................................................................... 24
61. Are heat fuses necessary?
.................................................................................................................................... 24
62. Can multiple illuminators change colors simultaneously?
....................................................................... 25
63. Can illuminators be computer controlled?
..................................................................................................... 25
64. What is DMX?
............................................................................................................................................................ 25
ENDS,FITTINGSANDTERMINALS
65. What are end terminations?
................................................................................................................................. 27
66. What are single ends?
............................................................................................................................................ 27
67. Are there many types of single ends?
.............................................................................................................. 27
68. Is the fiber end important?
.................................................................................................................................. 27
69. How are glass fibers
ended?................................................................................................................................ 28
70. How are polymer fibers terminated?
................................................................................................................ 28
71. How are solid core fibers terminated?
............................................................................................................ 28
72. How are coiled, twisted or roped fibers terminated?
................................................................................ 29
73. What is a common end?
........................................................................................................................................ 29
74. Is the common end important?
.......................................................................................................................... 29
75. What makes a good common end?
.................................................................................................................... 29
76. How many types of common end are there?
................................................................................................. 29
77. What is a randomized common end?
............................................................................................................... 30
78. What are end fittings?
............................................................................................................................................ 30
79. How many types of end fittings are there?
.................................................................................................... 30
80. Fittings or
fixtures?................................................................................................................................................. 30
81. Who manufactures end fittings?
......................................................................................................................... 30
82. Are end fittings standard?
.................................................................................................................................... 30
83. What is an optical port
.......................................................................................................................................... 31
84. Are there different types of optical port?
....................................................................................................... 31
85. Who manufactures optical ports?
....................................................................................................................... 31
86. Are optical ports compatible?
.............................................................................................................................. 31
SYSTEMS
87. What is a fiber optics system?
............................................................................................................................ 31
88. What is a fiber optics systems integrator?
.................................................................................................... 33
89. What is the difference between a fiber optics manufacturer and
a fiber optics system manufacturer?
................................................................................................................. 33
90. Who are the best fiber optics manufacturers?
............................................................................................. 33
91. Who are the best systems integrators?
........................................................................................................... 34
92. How many parts does a fiber optics system have?
..................................................................................... 34
93. Are fiber optics systems expensive?
................................................................................................................ 34
94. Will fiber optics systems be cheaper in the future?
................................................................................... 35
95. Are fiber optics systems difficult to install?
.................................................................................................. 35
96. What is a starry sky?
.............................................................................................................................................. 35
97. What is an effect wheel?
........................................................................................................................................ 35
98 What is an animation harness?
........................................................................................................................... 35
99. What are spatial effects?
........................................................................................................................................ 36
100. How would you describe in one word fiber optics lighting systems?
................................................ 36
43
INTRODUCTION
Fiber optics lighting is not a revolutionary or new technology, in essence is only
about carrying light, from one point to another by means
of a lens, more or less flexible and long.
The problem is the air of mysticism surrounding the industry*.
The result is a strange industry where it is difficult to know for sure the result of the
system being ins- talled and where
disappointment, in part due to unfair hopes, is common.
The present work is a collection of the questions most often made by professionals
during seminars, consulting, and
projects over a quarter of a century. The questions are worded in a short straight-
forward manner and answered based
on objective scientific criteria, without publicity, trademarks, or personal preferences,
in an effort to help the general
understanding of these systems.
44
FIBERS
1. . What is a f iber opt ic?
Fiber optics are long lenses. A cylinder or rod of transparent material forming a core
surrounded by an external cladding with a slightly different material. Light, when
entering
the fiber, rebounds on the outer cladding towards the core. This way the light advances
through the fiber in bounds or steps, until it exits at the other end.
2. . How many kinds of f ibers are there?
In truth, there is only one fiber optic. The term "fiber optics" applies really to a branch
of
light physics dealing with the properties of certain materials that display a phenomenon
called
"total internal reflection", and not to an object. All optical elements such as lenses,
prisms and
rods use total internal reflection as a mecha- nism for light transportation. In the
elements
described as fiber optics light travels by virtue of this effect but it does so in a number of
ways; monomode, multimode, step index, gradient index and so on.
For lighting purposes or, to be more exact, to handle visible light, the standard type or
fibers
are the so-called multimode step index fibers. The use of the other types is confined
exclusively to data or signal transmission.
3. . What are f iber opt ics made off?
For lighting purposes or visible light spectrum transmission, several kinds of fibers are
used. Glass in very fine strands that have to be bunched together in order to make a
sizeable
light carrier, PMMA, and polycarbonate in sizes from 0,25 to 3mm and solid core fibers
made
from special polymers in a Teflon sheath from 3mm to over one-inch thick. Other types
of
fibers such as liquid core, colored fibers, fluorescent, and scintillating are little used and
for
specialized applications.
4. . Are there di fferent qual i t ies of f iber opt ics?
Definitely yes. The raw materials used in the manufacture of fibers may be similar in
some instances but the process to make finished optics can vary greatly from one
manufacturer to another.
The greatest differences arise from the level of purity and refinement with which the
raw
materials are pro- duced, the degree of impurities, contamination and the very
technology of
the process.
Optical properties such as numerical aperture, attenuation and selective spectral
absorption
45
are widely diffe- rent from one fiber to other. This means that some fibers may be
suitable for
one task and useless for others.
5. . What is a l ight guide?
When a number of single fibers are grouped together to make a larger diameter light
conductor the resulting structure is called a light guide. Sometimes large diameter solid
core
fibers are also termed light guide.
Light guides can come in many forms and finished, clad with a number of different
polymers,
articulated ana- conda type flexible metal coverings, rigid tubes, heat shrink tubes, etc.
6. . What are bare f ibers?
The term is used mainly with PMMA fibers and refers to the optics that have no external
protection
sheath.
7. . What are sheathed f ibers?
The optics that have an external cladding whether opaque or transparent in order to
afford a
mechanical protection to the optics.
8. . Is the sheath color important?
This is a particularly slippery subject and the cause of heated debate. Some scientists
affirm that an opaque white or light colored cladding, especially in single core fibers
improve,
marginally, the transmission properties of the optics. Others say that this is nonsense. In
any
case, the difference if it exists, must surely be minimal.
9. . What is a harness?
The term applied in the industry to describe a group of fibers or light guides,
individually
terminated and with a common end. Generally, each harness must have its own
illuminator.
10. . Do f ibers have losses?
All things in the universe are inefficient. This means that when a measured amount of
something enters a system, less comes out than originally went in. If you pour a liter of
water
into one end of a pipe, you will always get less than a liter out of the other end. If you
apply a
voltage to the extreme of one wire, no matter how you do it, you will get a lesser value
at the
other end.
Fiber optics are no exception, the light entering one end encounters all kinds of
obstacles and
flaws, resul- ting in losses; from 2 to 10% for every running meter.
11. . Why do some f ibers change the color of the l ight?
46
In fact, all fibers change the color of the light in one way or another. Due to the physical
characteristics of the conductor some frequencies travel with less impediment than
others
and it is impossible to produce a fiber that would have the same attenuation on the
whole of
the visible spectrum. To expect a light conductor to transport millions of different
wavelengths along with exactly the same attenuation in every one would be quite
unreasonable.
Some fibers absorb a little more blue than red and less green than yellow and others
just the
opposite. Consequently, the hue and tone of the light varies from meter to meter, in
some
cases very apparently. This phenomenon is referred to as selective spectral absorption.
12. . Is low attenuat ion a sign of good qual i ty f iber?
Generally yes, but in lighting fiber optics the manufacturer's attenuation figures are
frequently meaningless. (In order to be reasonable this is the only figure they can
quote)
Attenuation is measured using a laser, a light emitting diode or a collimated light source.
In
all three cases the light used is monochromatic, meaning that only one wavelength or a
very
narrow set of wave- lengths is used.
The figures issued by manufacturers, per example: 150dB/Km refer to that single
wavelength
and corres- ponding color which could be yellow or yellow/green. The same fiber may
have
an attenuation of 750dB/Km on the blue end of the spectrum and 400dB/Km on the red
side.
To calculate the average attenuation for white light would involve firstly analyzing the
light of
the lamp in the illuminator to determine its composition that could vary enormously,
even for
two identical lamps. Then one would have to measure attenuation in all individual
wavelengths taking into account the amount of each present on the lamp's emission.
Finally,
we would have to compute to obtain a result which would only hold true for that
lamp/fiber
combination.
To be honest a close average can be worked out with a few instruments but lamp
deterioration due to aging, dust in the system and coloring of the common end due to
solvent
migration from the potting compounds, if used, soon make nonsense of averaged
figures.
13. . What are the advantages of glass f iber opt ics?
Glass fiber optics are very resilient and ideally suited for working in places where the
actual conductor will be subject to extreme temperatures or/and radiation, are little
affected
by most solvents and oils and the spectral transmission is good.
14. . And the disadvantages?
It must be borne in mind that the actual nature of the conductor, in lighting systems,
represents only one of the elements responsible for system performance. Glass light
guides
are always sheathed in a poly- mer tube and the common end encapsulated with epoxy
47
compounds.
The actual element in contact with the environment is the polymer tube. In fact, the
characteristics of this element will, for all purposes, determine the resilience of the
system.
This little considered point makes nonsense of some critics of polymer fiber who
complain of
the plastic contents. The fact is that if we take a 2mm-polymer fiber and a glass fiber
with the
same optical diameter we will find out that the latter contains more plastic than the
former.
Naturally we are talking about a bare PMMA fiber, this is to say without cladding. PMMA
fibers
can be used bare, glass fibers cannot; must always be cladded. At the common end, the
epoxy
compounds make up to 17% of the total optical area to receive the light from the lamp.
It is a
well known fact that these potting adhesives behave erratically in the presence of high
temperatures and steep radiation gra- dients, such as the ones present at the screen or
focus
of the lamp in the generator, light source or illumina- tor. This epoxy tends to age very
quickly,
darken, absorb more radiation, heat up and contribute to the pre- mature failure or
deterioration of the system. On the other hand, glass fibers are very brittle. Studies
show that
vibration affects adversely glass fibers up to the point where shatter may occur. If the
external sheath or tube becomes also hard and lose flexibility because of environmental
factors then the light guide becomes extremely fragile.
15. . What are the advantages of polymer f iber opt ics?
The spectral transmission of PMMA fibers is difficult to improve upon, the quality of the
light transmitted over distances longer than four or five meters is considerable better
that the
standard glass fibers. Cost is another factor; polymer fibers have a lower cost per optical
area
unit than glass, in part due to the easier manufacturing process. High quality PMMA
systems
rely on a fusion process to construct the common end, hence dispensing with the use of
epoxy
potting compounds. In all instances where the use of many fibers or light points is
prescribed
polymer systems are a much better option. Another point to bear in mind is the weight
factor:
glass fibers are heavier than polymer, a fact that may be critical in some applications,
such as
automotive and aircraft uses.
16. . And the disadvantages?
The ends of polymer fibers cannot operate with high temperatures. Light sources or
illuminators are needed with a screen temperature lower than 60ºC. Although some
polymers
can work with 100ºC and over, the fact is that these constant high temperatures cause
changes on the polymer chains, especially at the common end. This results on a
hardening and
blushing or blooming of the material, causing a deterioration of the system. The use of
very
powerful and hot illuminators with polymer fibers, in most cases is sheer madness.
Although
there is very little data on polymer aging, some manufacturers offer a 20-year guarantee
on
their systems, which is more than adequate in most instances.
Radius of curvature is a delicate mater with large diameter solid core fibers and has to
be
48
handled with great care in order not to alter the internal architecture of the fibers,
which will
result in losses. Bare or unsheathed fibers are very delicate and the external cladding
becomes rapidly damaged due to abrasions and scratches.
17. . Can I l ight a house wi th f iber opt ics?
A house can be lit with anything, from candles and gas lamps to fiber optics. There is the
question, however, of the efficiency of the system. One should never forget that a light
source,
such as an electric lamp, delivers its maximum output hanging free in mid air, and that
any
thing added, such as a coffer, a louver or an optical system of lenses or reflectors
diminishes
the performance.
Truth is that in most cases light issuing from a lamp in a spherical fashion is of little use
because we want the light pointing towards a given direction, in order to perform a task.
Nevertheless, is also true that anything around or in front of a lamp rests light to the
general
output of the system.
With fiber optics, this is no exception. The lamp enclosed in the illuminator would give a
greater quantity of light if taken out and hung from a ceiling than pushing the light
through
fibers.
There is a common misconception amongst the public that if we have a 100 Lm lamp in
one
place and we run ten fibers to different rooms we would have a 100 Lm light in each
room.
This sounds very much like the parable of the bread and the fishes and clashes with the
laws
of thermodynamics, as we know them.
If you have a 100 Lm lamp in a box and run ten fibers out, the total combined output of
the
fibers will always be considerably less than 100 Lm, now and in the future.
18. . Are f iber opt ics eff icient as a means to transport l ight?
The straight answer is no. If we take any other means of light re-direction or
distribution
we will find out that are far more efficient.
19. . What can just i fy the use of f iber opt ics?
In the great majority of tasks, using traditional means, the amount of light used is far in
excess to the quantity really needed. Most light goes to illuminate areas that do not need
light
at all.
With fiber optics, we can distribute minute quantities of light exactly where needed, an
impossible feat with conventional lighting because light sources are too large.
The distinct possibilities to put the lamp within easy reach whilst the light is distributed
in
zones with difficult access is another advantage of fiber optics. The main reasons for the
use of
fiber optics in lighting are safety, control, miniaturization, cost and ease of maintenance.
49
20. . Are f ibers safe?
Fiber optics are passive elements, therefore do not use power to generate light, as is the
case with lamps. As light conductors only carry light from one point to another, never
electricity.
Fiber optics can be put under, or in direct contact with water, can be cut, handled,
broken or
hammered and can never be anything but totally safe lighting conductors, with the
exception
of power conversion.
Because standard lighting fiber optics have a very restricted transmission window most
radiation which could be harmful to beings or things is not transmitted. In fact the
amount of
infrared and ultraviolet issuing from a fiber optic is, in most instances, negligible.
The use of fiber optics in the lighting of museum pieces or radiation sensitive material is
one of
the main appli- cations of these light conductors.
There is, however, the phenomenon of power to light conversion on the extremes of the
fibers: a very high temperature may be present, with the use of high powered
illuminators,
very close to the tip. If a light guide is cut, abraded or damaged in anyway along its
length a
very hot spot may ensue which can destroy the fiber and the surrounds. When using
systems
with high power densities additional precautions should be obser- ved to maintain
safety in
the system.
21. . Who makes f iber opt ics?
Glass manufacturers mainly make Glass fibers. Chemical companies fabricate PMMA
fibers. Compa- nies, both public and private, manufacture other types of fiber optics,
especially
solid core polymer and gene- rally with their own proprietary process.
22. . How are f iber opt ics made?
The actual process varies considerably from one manufacturer to another. In essence, a
large cylinder of core is made off high purity material, an element called preform. The
preform
is later heated or treated and drawn into a filament, which is then coated with the
external
layer with a different refractive index.
Other systems include co-extrusion, continuous casting, direct co-polymerization,
injection,
wet drawing and soft extrusion with mercury formers.
These later techniques, and others under research, try to attain a better alignment of
polymer
chains in order to improve transmission and reduce attenuation. In fact, the fiber
stretching
and tensioning after drawing to promote molecular alignment is one of the industry
secrets.
23. . Are opt ical f ibers fragi le?
50
Glass fibers are very brittle, in fact in any glass light guide there is a percentage of fibers
broken during the manufacturing process, on the other hand, because these light guides
are
sheathed, once installed are very resistant to external influences.
Bare PMMA fibers are extremely delicate during manufacture and manipulation,
requiring
great handling care. Once sheathed are practically impervious to external damage.
Other solid core fibers are very tough because of an external Teflon cladding and can be
installed without any problem. The only drawback with this type of optics is the
hardening
with age, which makes these conductors brittle and prone to shatter.
24. . Can f ibers be bent at r ight angles?
No. All fibers must be bent with a radius, which will not alter the internal architecture
of the fiber. For every type and size of fiber, there is a minimum radius of curvature,
specified and recommended by the manufacturer. Bending fiber optics at right angles
will
cause the conductor to shatter in the case of glass, and be permanently damaged in all
other
types
25. . Can l ight ing f iber opt ics be spl iced or joined?
All fibers can be spliced with more or less success and difficulty. The problem is the
losses resulting from such a joint.
Fiber splicing is a common practice in the telecommunications industry where is done
with
sophisticated alignment apparatus and a considerable dose of skill.
Nowadays there are splicing systems for polymer light guides using special fittings and
a
refraction index equalizing gel capable of low price splices with minimal losses. In glass
fibers
where one would have to indi- vidually splice hundreds or even thousands of single
fibers,
splicing is not resolved yet.
Solid core fibers can be joined with greater ease but the losses are massive; up to 25%
of the available
light.
26. . Wi ll l ight go any length along a f iber?
All conductors have losses, and in the case of fiber optics, these are sizeable.
Light losses in the industry average 2 to 5% per meter or over. If we start with, say 100
units
of light at the common end we will lose 25% at the end of five meters and over 40%
after ten.
In fact, most systems have losses greater than 50% over a ten-meter length.
51
27. . How many sizes are there of l ight ing f iber opt ics?
Literally hundreds, from a few microns to over an inch in diameter, solid core and
multicore, square shaped, ribbons, tapes and sheet.
28. . Can you put any amount of l ight into a f iber opt ic?
This is one of the standard fallacies of the industry. The system needed to put a sizeable
amount of light into a fiber optic is very simple; a lamp, perhaps a lens and something to
hold
the fiber pointing at the light source. It follows that the bigger and more powerful the
lamp
the greater amount of light it will issue and the more light that will get into the fiber; at
least
this is the argument that most people think logical.
The problem is that optics is a subject far from simple. An optical fiber will accept a
measure
of light and no more, regardless of the power of the lamp: if a light source puts ten units
of
light through a fiber, another light source, twice as bright will not put double the light
into the
fiber.
There is one thing called power density acceptance which marks the limit to how much
energy can circulate through a system, no matter how much more energy you try to
force into
it. A copper wire of a given thick- ness will be happy with five amps, get warm with ten,
heat
up with twenty and melt with forty.
29. . Do f iber opt ics transmit radiat ion?
Light is a radiation; therefore, the answer is yes. Some fibers, depending on the nature
of
the materials from which they are made, transmit one band of radiation more or less
wide or
restricted.
Generally, the fibers used for lighting transmit little or no ultraviolet, a very small
amount of
infrared and varia- ble quantities of the visible light frequencies.
Heat is a radiation on the infrared region and does not transmit well on standard
lighting
fibers. To put an example; the amount of heat that will build up inside a case with a
volume of
one cubic meter of air, is only one degree in 24 hours, from a 5mm diameter PMMA light
guide powered by a 150W metal halide illumina- tor.
30. . Glass or polymer?
There is not an easy answer because it will always depend on the final use and working
conditions of the system.
Generally speaking glass fibers are better suited for those environments where high
temperatures are cons- tant and for data transmission. Glass fibers are very thin
conductors
only a few microns in diameter, therefo- re in order to construct a sizeable light
conductor,
52
hundreds or even thousands have to be bunched and she- athed together.
Bending radii are small and the performance is acceptable although glass fibers with
comparable spectral characteristics to PMMA are considerably more expensive.
In essence both, glass and polymer systems have advantages and drawbacks, to be
individually assessed in view of the actual application and working conditions. In recent
times, however, there seems to be a general trend to abandon glass fiber optics in
lighting
applications in favor of PMMA.
31. . Can f ibers be made any size?
Theoretically, yes. There are, however, physical constraints because of the materials and
utility. Very large fibers have proportional bending radii and are not very economical to
produce. Under the all encom- passing classification of Remote Source Lighting, tubes
made
from special polymers and behaving like fiber optics are currently being manufactured,
capable of being formed into light conductors over a foot in diame- ter.
32. . How long wi ll f iber opt ics last?
In the case of glass practically indefinitely due to the inert characteristics of the
material. This refers to the actual fiber, and not to the polymer cladding. Also the
common
ends being an encapsulation of epoxy's will behave less predictably and perform
erratically,
depending of many factors, such as temperature of ope- ration and level of radiation
exposure.
As far as polymer systems are concerned 20 years for the conductors is the standard
guarantee in the industry. This also refers to the actual fiber, without reference to the
common
end whose average life depends on the same factors outlined before.
33. . Can several f ibers give the same amount of l ight?
No. If a number of fibers or light guides are coupled to the same illuminator, it is
physically impossible that each receives the same amount of light and therefore
transmit it.
The spot or tack formed by a reflector lamp at the focus point or screen is not
completely
homogeneous, this is to say that it does not have the same quantity of light in each point
of its
surface. This problem is sometimes minimized by mixing the fibers at the common end
(a
process termed “randomizing”) but it can never be made totally even.
34. . What are side- emi tt ing f ibers?
There are no side-emitting fibers. All fiber optics receive the light at one end and
transport it to the other. When light enters a fiber and travels through the core it
encounters
multitude of obstacles: microscopic cracks and fissures, impurities and other elements
which
53
obstruct the passage of some light and which, in turn, esca- pes through the outer
cladding.
All fibers lose some light though the cladding because there are no perfect systems. This
unavoidable effect is used to produce elements termed "side emitting fibers" which, in
fact
are normal fiber optics with a clear protective external cladding which permit to view
the
escaping light. In fact, some manufacturers induce stres- ses on the fibers, by means of
torsion
or bending to bruise the fibers and cause more light to escape along the way.
Some glass fibers are made side emitting, by the expedient method of cladding a bunch
into a
clear tube and breaking them at intervals. Clearly there comes a point along the tube
when
there are no more unbroken fibers to continue the process.
35. . Are there di fferent types of side emi tt ing f ibers?
Nowadays several types of side emitting fibers are marketed. The most
common are: Solid core optics
Multistranded optics
Multistranded roped/coiled and woven/knitted optics.
36. . What are sol id core f ibers?
These optics are cylinders made of diverse polymers and encased on a transparent
sheath or tube. As a standard are manufactured in different gauges or calibers from 3 to
25 or
more millimeters in diameter.
37. . What are mul t istranded opt ics?
Multistranded optics are narrow walled tubes off transparent material, housing a
number of smaller solid core fibers. The inner fibers are, generally 0,75mm in diameter
and
numbered from ten or less to seve- ral hundred, depending on the final use and
diameter of
the optic.
38. . What are coi led roped and woven/ kni tted opt ics?
Simply braided or woven ropes manufactured with thin solid core fiber optics, instead
of
hemp or nylon. Because of the strain produced on the individual fibers by means of the
torsion, coiling or knitting, the fibers have greater losses along the length. This means
that
more light is available for side viewing purposes.
39. . Sol id core or mul t icore?
That will depend on the use to which the optic is put and the actual installation
conditions. Solid core optics have generally, a larger bending radius to avoid important
losses.
54
Furthermore, because of the trans- parent quality of the core, unless the contrast with
the
background is adequate the appearance is that of infe- rior luminance.
Multicore optics, on the other hand, have a more flexible construction, especially in
large
diameters. Becau- se of the reduced transparency of the optic, the luminance appears
greater.
Solid core fibers can operate in some types with higher screen temperatures and can be
connected (at least in theory) to generators that are more powerful without damage to
the
core. It must be said, however, that the long-term effects, especially those related to the
power
density of the systems, are as yet undetermined.
40. . Can side emi tt ing opt ics be as br ight or br ighter than neon?
Fiber optics can be made to be brighter than neon but only for very short distances. We
can think of a garden hose as an example: making tiny holes along the hose can cause a
sizeable amount of water gus- hing out of the holes nearer the tap, and for a distance
that will
depend on the size of the holes. If we make the holes larger a greater amount of water
will
issue, but only for a shorter distance until it only trickles.
There is a limit to the quantity of water that can be made to pass through a hose, a limit
given
by the mate- rial of the pipe and the viscosity of water. We simply cannot increase
pressure
infinitely.
The limit on the quantity of light traveling through a fiber optic is also imposed by
physics:
the actual material of which the optic is made and the intrinsic qualities of light. There is
a
power density limit to each material. In some systems, especially with late generation
purpose made metal halide illuminators, luminance values greater or equal to that of
neon
may be obtained for lengths up to few meters. The sizeable cost of these sys- tems when
compared to neon makes the proposal impractical in most cases.
41. . Wi th all the l imi tat ions, what are the uses of side emi tt ing opt ics?
There is a common misconception about the quantity of light needed for a given task:
more light is not necessarily better, and often is worse than the right amount with the
correct
characteristics.
In many instances, small quantities of light to demarcate, decorate or accent are much
better
than a glaring neon-like line.
A good example that comes to mind is the uses in theatres, cinemas and public buildings
to line
out corridors, aisles and emergency exits: in these instances the brightness of neon
would
simply not be acceptable. Cou- pled with the beauty of color change capabilities side
emitting
optics are a valuable tool in the hands of the designer for outlining buildings, both
externally
and internally, pools, spas, cornices, gardens, and all kinds of architectural details.
Another point not to be forgotten is the total safety of fiber optics. There is no electricity
in
them. This means that in all those instances where high voltage neon simply cannot be
55
contemplated because of danger, main- tenance or fragility; side-emitting fibers can be
the
only sensible alternative.
42. . What are the design constraints to side emi tt ing opt ics?
The actual illuminance of side emitting optics is low, although the luminance is quite
acceptable in most cases. This means that if the contrast values are correctly applied the
visibility of the optics can be excellent. The actual quantity of ambient illuminance, the
colors
of backgrounds, distance and line of vision are para- meters to be carefully balanced, in
order
to obtain the best results.
43. . Could the l ight along a side emi tt ing opt ic be total ly homogeneous?
Despite the assurances of some manufacturers, this is a total impossibility because it
would clash with the laws of physics, as we know them.
In order for an optic to display the same illuminance along a given length, it would have
to be
perfect: with no losses.
As soon as light is produced by an emitter starts to decay, in a similar fashion that a
bullet starts
to lose speed from the moment it issues from the muzzle of a gun.
The light is not the same inch by inch in an optic as it leaves the optical port of the
illuminator:
the farthest from the light source, less light, due to the attenuation of the optic.
44. . Wi ll we always see a di fference in br ightness along an opt ic?
Not necessarily so. The human vision system appreciates illuminance grades in a
logarithmic fashion and if the transition was smooth would be very difficult to actually
notice
the difference.
If we observe an optic of, say 30 meters, from one end to the other along the optic it
would not
matter in which end is situated the illuminator: we would see the optic homogeneously
lit,
although we know that it is not pos- sible. If we were to look at the same optic sideways,
from
some distance, then we would notice the differen- ce in luminance, because we could
compare
both ends.
The judicious use of illuminators, daisy chaining the optics, restricting the length of the
fibers
to that recom- mended by manufacturers, the control of the contrast and the angle of
vision,
are the tools needed for a suc- cessful installation.
45. . Can l ight be made to move or chase along a side emi tt ing opt ic?
With roped or braided multicore fiber and a special process at the common end optics
can be made to chase in both directions and display multiple colors at the same time.
56
46. . Are the side- emi tt ing f ibers wi th ref lect ing core more luminous?
To answer this question honestly is very much like trying to determine the sex of the
angels.
If a side emitting light guide has a center reflecting core it would appear that it would
issue
more light omni directionally, this is to say: if the light guide was suspended in mid-air
and
viewed from any angle.
The problem with that argument is that those optics are, normally attached to a support
and
viewed from fixed angles. The opaque centerpiece, in this case, would impede the
passage of
light from behind the core and hence the optic would have less light available to the
viewer.
Side-emitting light guides are sheathed in a transparent cover and the viewer, by
transparency, has the bene- fit of the light escaping not only from the individual fibers
placed
directly in front of his line of vision but also from the ones behind.
If we take a glass tube filled with a colored liquid and light it up from one end, we could
view
the whole of the mass as a lit-up cylinder. If we then place a concentric opaque core,
from a
given direction we would have less vision of the cylinder mass. The same would hold
true
with any transparent cylinder.
To prove this argument is a practical impossibility since it would require two optics,
with and
without core of the same size and optical properties, placed exactly on the same spot in
an
illuminator. In my opinion, no mat- ter the patents, the so-called center reflecting cores
do not
add more light to a guide and probably rests light to the viewer and the system as a
whole.
47. . Is there any way to improve side- emi tt ing viewing?
A side emitting light guide is viewed optimally when the contrast between the optic and
background is maximized. If the light guide is placed on a white track or against a tight
opaque white back the light is more apparent.
This does not mean that the optic issues more light, only that the illuminance falling on
the
background impro- ves the overall luminance of the optic.
ILLUMINATORS
48. . What is an i l luminator?
An illuminator, light source or generator is a box with a lamp inside, pointing towards
an
opening where fiber optics are secured. Naturally, this is an over-simplification,
although in
reality a large number of the illuminators available in the industry are little more than
this.
49. . What makes a good i l luminator?
Illuminators must perform three separate tasks with a degree of efficiency. Firstly must
57
house a lamp and its power source, transformer, ballast, igniter and wiring in a correct
and
safe manner.
Secondly, it must focus the light of the lamp in the most efficient way to ensure an
adequate
performance. Thirdly, it must create a suitable environment to guarantee the long life of
the
common end, this being the union with the fiber optics. With this last task in mind, an
illuminator must be designed to minimize the ther- mal load on the screen by all
possible
means, filters, forced ventilation, air ducting and deflectors.
50. . Is bigger better?
It is somehow surprising that manufacturers place great emphasis in the power
consumption, stating that a machine is 50, 100 or 400 Watts, when in reality this has
little
bearing on the overall performance of the illuminator.
In the lighting industry, the performance of a lamp is measured in a number of ways,
depending on the com- parison standards. The accepted data regarding a lamp's virtues
are,
usually, efficiency and light output, although the single must important element is the
burner
size.
Efficiency, determined in Lm/W, states the amount of light that a lamp produces for
each unit
of energy used. Is very low on incandescent lamps, where most of the energy is
transformed
in heat and very high in fluo- rescent and some types of discharge lamps, such as low-
pressure
sodium. Unfortunately, neither of these last lamps can be used sensibly with fiber optics.
The amount of light that a lamp makes is a useful piece of information when we try to
light up
a warehouse or an office table but useless when used to project and concentrate light on
a
given point. In this case the screen of the illuminator or the fiber common end.
The actual quantity and directionality of light reaching the screen, having little to do
with the
power con- sumption of the machine, is the only measure of performance in an
illuminator.
Many lamps, specially the latest arrivals, have much improved light outputs, better
beam
control and preci- sion. Paradoxically a last generation 50W-halogen lamp with a
dychroic
reflector puts more light into a fiber than a 75W lamp with a similar construction and
outdated technology.
58
51. . How many types of i l luminators are there?
Since there are no standards in the industry, the term "type" is slightly confusing.
With regards to power usage, the lamp illuminators vary from as little as 5W to as much
as a
1.000W and more.
As far as the type of lamp, illuminators are divided into two families: those using
incandescent
lamps, gene- rally halogen, and the ones equipped with gas discharge lamps.
Illuminators can also be typed by use. Some are mainly used for lighting and others to
produce
effects such as animations, color change or twinkles and sparkles.
52. . Halogen or gas discharge?
Again, it will depend on the use of the system. Gas discharge lamps, especially those
with
a very small plasma area are ideally suited for use with optical systems such as lenses or
reflectors. Consequently, the quantity of light aimed in the right direction can be far
superior
to that of a halogen lamp. Lumen output of these lamps is, usually greater than their
incandescent counterparts. Conventional means cannot be used to regulate the output
of gas
discharge lamps. This means that if regulation is required mechanical irises or com-
plex high
frequency oscillators have to be used.
Halogen lamps are smaller, less costly, and need simpler power supplies but give less
overall light.
For lighting and side light applications, gas discharge is used universally, reserving the
less
powerful halogen light sources for effects and decoration.
It must be said, however, that if the correct halogen lamp, with the right projection
angle is
used, excellent results can be obtained with small diameter harnesses.
53. . Must all i l luminators have forced vent i lat ion?
Generally yes, the exception being those with a massive construction, which dissipate
heat by radia- tion or transfer.
54. . How noisy is an i l luminator?
Very noisy, slightly so or totally silent, depending on the power source and the
construction.
Heat dissipation is something that has to be done by one of two means: radiation or
ventilation.
If radiation is the method chosen then the housing must have the mass and surface to
ensure
dissipation of the heat. In ventilated systems, the air is the agent for cooling and must be
evacuated and renewed. The pro- blem is that some light sources are so hot that would
need
an oversized housing to dissipate all the heat build up, clearly not a very practical
solution.
Silent illuminators use normally small halogen or gas discharge lamps, devoid of
mechanical
ventilation and relying on radiation to cool the housing and dissipate the heat.
Generally,
59
works well only if placed outdoors or in a volume where the ambiance temperature is
considerable lower than that of the housing.
Forced air drought is used in most power illuminators and the noise can range from 20
or so
dB to 70 or 80dB. Taking into account that noise in a forced air system is relative to duct
size
and air speed, in addition to ven- tilator speed, mounting, vibration and other related
aspects
is easy to suspect that design can vary the amount of noise that a illuminator produces.
This
can be brought down to a minimum that can only be further reduced by damping with
noise
suppression material.
55. . Are cert i f icat ions important?
That will depend on the type of certificate, what is certified and by who is granted. Many
certifications refer to the inherent safety of a product, with regards to accidental
electrical
shock. In fact some certifications attest to the fact that the contraption will not kill you,
but
say nothing, or very little, as far as the performance of the product. The certificate on a
washing machine says nothing to the effect that the thing will wash clothes; only that is
unlikely
that you will get an electrical shock.
Some other certifications refer to the performance, but unfortunately, these are not
compulsory. In the fiber optics industry even these certificates are, very often
meaningless
because there is little or no control on the interface between illuminator and fiber. A
laboratory report will say that a illuminator delivers so many screen lumens but cannot
say
how many will get into the fiber, because that will depend on a number of factors totally
outside their scope.
56. . Are machines wi th the CE mark cert i f ied?
The CE mark was a good idea in its inception but it has been so much abused that has
become prac- tically meaningless for the end user.
CE is not a certification or a quality mark, moreover is not granted by any official body
or
controlled in any way, distributors or end users have no right whatsoever to demand a
CE
certificate from the manufacturer, even if his products bear the stamp.
CE is a declaration from the manufacturer stating that the object complies with CE
directives
and regulations. Really is the equivalent to taking the words of a used car salesman as
Gospel
truth.
The market is awash with shoddy products of uncertain origin and parentage bearing
the CE
mark, products that, obviously, do not conform to any regulation whatsoever.
In a resume: the CE mark does not attest or imply any quality or fitness for use of the
object
bearing the stamp. It only says that the manufacturer declares that his product is built in
accordance with the community directives, under his own responsibility and without
effective control by an official body.
60
57. . How then do I recognize a product ' s qual i ty?
There are a number of ways. The name and status of the company making the product is
important and its geographical location. Some countries are famous for making good
quality
products and others just the opposite.
The stamp of approval of an internationally recognized testing organization is a sure
way of
knowing that the product has been tested and found built to very high standards.
Generally,
such institutes or laboratories have follow-up programs that control the manufacturing
and
quality processes of the manufacturer.
It can be said, with a level of certainty, that a machine bearing one or several such
stamps has
a traceable pedigree and is well made.
58. . What about ISO 9000 ?
Again there seems to be confusion about the ISO 9000 series of certifications. The ISO in
essence is not a guarantee of good quality and is not given to an object but to a
company.
ISO 9000 is, in lays terms, a system that removes anarchy from management or
production,
making sure that things are made always the same and with the same quality, which is
not a
mean feat.
It does not guarantee that the products are good but with a constant in quality. If a
manufacturer makes a good gizmo or widget, the ISO 9000 certificate guarantee that it
will
always be good. For the same token if someone makes a bad product the ISO will ensure
that
is always bad. A combination of ISO 9000 and labo- ratory certificates on a product is
the
surest way to ascertain that an object, an illuminator in this case, is good and will
remain so.
59. . How does a color change works?
It consists generally of a small, geared motor with a disc. This can be made of glass, glass
segments or a polymer material in a number of colors.
The motor causes the disc to revolve in from of the common end, altering the color of
the
issuing light. Lower priced systems use colored films or glass whilst most others make
use of
dychroic filters.
In animation illuminators instead of a disc, there is a turning drum of glass or
polycarbonate
with color films or varnishes applied in special patterns to create movement and rapid
color
changes.
60. . What is a dychroic f i l ter?
A thin flat piece of glass with a metal deposition in one of the surfaces applied in a high
61
vacuum envi- ronment. The metal layer, only a few atoms thick causes interference in
the
incoming light, letting some fre- quencies pass whilst stopping others.
This frequency separation has the effect of producing very saturated and vibrant colors.
Depending on the deposition type, all visible light can be allowed to pass through, whilst
stopping infrared or ultraviolet radiation. In fact, there is a dychroic or interference
filter to
separate practically all frequencies in the spectrum.
61. . Are heat fuses necessary?
The working temperature range of the fiber optics common end is critical if the
performance of the sys- tem is to be maintained and the life guaranteed. A heat fuse of
thermostat must be installed in such a way as to disconnect the illuminator should there
be a
heat build up.
Heat can accumulate rapidly for a number of reasons: a failed fan, obstructions on the
air
passages or poor ventilation. A 50ºC thermostat should be the most adequate.
It must be borne in mind that the ambiance temperature in which illuminators must
operate
seldom allow more than 25ºC, a very low temperature to maintain in most instances.
62. . Can mul t iple i l luminators change colors simul taneously?
Yes. Generally the standard disc rotating motors are of the synchronous type, very
reliable, and gea- red to the most adequate speed. The problem is that, although
individually
these motors work fine, is difficult to make two or more act in perfect synchronization
with
each other without additional mechanical or electro- nic gear.
A simple micro switch and an adequate wiring can make any number of synchronous
motors
operate at the same time in perfect step.
Some manufacturers offer a variable speed synchronizer to control their illuminators
with
special motors, zero settings and electronic control gear.
63. . Can i l luminators be computer control led?
Practically everything can be computer controlled and illuminators are not an
exception. Color discs, lamp voltage and mechanical shutters, in the case of gas
discharge
lamps, can be programmed and contro- lled with a computer.
This is normally offered as an option on most illuminators, using step motors and DMX
control.
64. . What is DMX?
A communications protocol between an electronic circuit and step motors and
actuators. A kind of lan- guage between elements so that different manufacturers can
use
compatible components which will work happily understanding the same data.
62
ENDS,FITTINGSANDTERMINALS
65. . What are end terminat ions?
Again, we find ourselves in an area where a lot of confusion and controversy are the
order of the day. Some American institutions have tried to set standards as to the
correct
terminology to be applied in fiber optics specification. The problems is that not every
manufacturer is American and was not asked their opinion in the matter, hence many
people
use different names referring to the same part or component.
With Illuminators happens the same as with ends, one can see reflected in
manufacturer's
literature names such as: light engine, light source, generator, etc. All refers to the same
box
with lamp inside.
End terminations suffer the same fate: single end, fiber end, single termination, emitting
end,
tip, end, final, common end, bundle head, head, end ferrule, etc.
In order to set a common ground we will use the term single end and common end.
Terminations therefore are the extremes of a single fiber or a group of fibers.
66. . What are single ends?
The extreme of the fiber optics conductor farthest from the illuminator. The bit that
emits
light or the end that lights up.
67. . Are there many types of single ends?
Single ends can be anything from a simple cut with snips or a cutter to a sophisticated
polished encap- sulation. The actual technique used depends not only on the type of
fiber but
also on the application of the system.
68. . Is the f iber end important?
As far as the actual light output the fiber termination has little influence on the overall
light output. It is however, very important, when at the single end will be fixed some
lens
system. Imperfections, scratches, dig and fractures at the single end termination will
show as
darker patches on the resulting beam.
The mechanical connection between the single end and the finishing piece, being a
board or
housing is also dependent on the actual finish and precision of the single end. Ferrules,
machined pieces and connectors have to be scrupulously free of adhesives and with
even
diameters, to ensure a precise fitting.
63
69. . How are glass f ibers ended?
Glass fibers are, generally potted or encapsulated at the single end with the help of an
epoxy adhesi- ve or compound. This results on a very hard element of fibers and
adhesive
that, when hardened, is suitable for cutting flush and polishing or buffing.
This encapsulation is generally enclosed on a hollow brass tube, rivet or machined
piece,
which then serves as a fixing, or positioning aid.
Glass fibers permit some sophisticated single end termination to support extreme
temperatures or working conditions. Special potting adhesives can be used and ends
processed to an operating temperature of 400ºC, indicated for oven and burner sensors
and
controls. In these instances, special thermal bridges have to be built into the fiber to
protect
the conductor.
Other terminations can be in the shape of wafers, rings, blocks or lines for machine
vision,
instrument ligh- ting, microscopy and other highly specialized lighting applications.
70. . How are polymer f ibers terminated?
PMMA fiber single ends can be of several types always depending on the nature of the
conductor and the final application. A Simply cut fiber with cutters or snips is a
standard for
decorative, display and sign uses. The same type of encapsulation as for glass fibers can
be
used with multiple single conductors and for the same applications with the exception
of high
temperature work.
For most decorative and lighting uses PMMA fibers are considerably more user friendly
than
glass fibers. Very simple tools and little skill are, in most instances, sufficient to produce
stunning results on site, without having to result to factory custom made and cut
components
which results in dramatic cost reductions.
PMMA fibers can also be polished to a mirror finish with buffing compounds and
machines
without encapsu- lation for single fibers. Common ends must always be fused together,
without using adhesives. Some fiber manufacturers specifically render their guarantee
void if
adhesives of any kind are used at the common end. Fusion produces a solid block ,
which can
the be polished to a very high optical finish.
71. . How are sol id core f ibers terminated?
The very architecture of solid core fibers makes the precise termination a difficult
operation, although it must be said that in most applications a precise end is academic.
Solid core fibers are considerably softer than PMMA or glass and hardness is a pre-
condition
for precise polis- hing. Additionally if an attempt is made to polishing, the compounds,
(whether Cerium based or otherwise) are always in a wax or grease medium and seep
in
64
between the Teflon coating and the core, ruining the optic. Standard finishing
techniques for
the single ends dispense with polishing and resolve to cutting with special tools where
the
quality and sharpness of the blade determines the accuracy of the cut. Further polishing
can
be accomplished with thermal treatment but only in factory installations.
Research is under way to polish solid core fibers using very low temperatures or else
with
water jets and laser cutters with uncertain degree of success.
72. . How are coi led, twisted or roped f ibers terminated?
In general terms the same techniques as with PMMA apply, since these optics are no
more that 0,75mm diameter PMMA fibers bunched together.
In the case of coiled optics the sheath and the internal core (if existing) has to be
removed
because of the different nature, melting point and physic characteristics with respect to
the
fibers.
Wherever possible both extremes of a sidelight light guide should be fused and glass
polished.
73. . What is a common end?
The fiber or fibers have to be connected to the illuminator. Especially in the case of a
number of fibers, these have to be bunched together and held securely. The common
end is
the grouping, fusion or encapsu- lation where all of the fibers from a bundle come
together
and are cut flush and even, polished or prepared to connect to the illuminator port.
74. . Is the common end important?
Although manufacturers place more attention on fibers and illuminators the common
end is a vital piece for the correct operation of an optical fiber system.
A properly engineered common end must pack the fibers tightey without adhesives and
be
suitable for fine polishing.
Most failures on fiber optics are due to a bad common end design and construction.
The use of potting adhesives is the single cause most commonly found in harness
failure, both
in glass and PMMA systems and should be avoided at all costs since it only reduces the
overall
life expectancy of the sys- tem.
75. . What makes a good common end?
The capacity to hold the fibers ever and flush, lack of adhesives, optical polish and
absence of packing losses.
76. . How many types of common end are there?
65
Basically two: adhesive encapsulated and state of the art fused, although some
manufactures dispen- se with both and simply fasten the fibers to the illuminator by
means of
a pressure gland.
77. . What is a randomized common end?
When several light guides are bundled together into a single common end it becomes a
physical impos- sibility to attain the same level of light in each light guide because the
lamp
emission is not totally even on the screen plane. In order to minimize the differences
individual fibers are mixed or "randomized" so that each light guide gathers its light
from
different geometrical points within the screen. Light issuing from individual ends in a
randomized system is considerably more even but not perfectly so.
In polymer fiber systems state of the art optical randomizers can achieve greater
evenness with little
loss.
78. . What are end f i tt ings?
Practically the only part of a fiber optic system that the public ever sees. End fittings are
the elements for fixing, aiming, supporting and finishing the fiber ends.
79. . How many types of end f i tt ings are there?
Literally thousands for every thought or dreamed up application. From small bullet
lenses to very large pavers, floor and pool lights. From simple rings and bezels to
complex
optical trains with several lenses, besi- des hundreds of custom designed elements for
specific
applications and uses.
80. . Fi tt ings or f ixtures?
In the industry, these terms are used indistinctly and often together. Some
manufacturers describe fittings as the fixing elements, such as connectors, ferrules,
machined
ends, tubular rivets and bezel rings, reserving the term fixtures for large elements,
swivel
rings, pool luminaries and the like.
Other manufacturers use the term fitting to describe anything at the end of the fibers.
81. . Who manufactures end f i tt ings?
Every system manufacturer produces a range of end fittings designed to be used with
their own fiber system.
82. . Are end f i tt ings standard?
66
As a whole no. Each system manufacturer favors a kind of termination for his fibers
with
pressure glands, threads, rivets or machined pieces as connectors for his own fittings.
Due to
the absolute lack of stan- dards in the industry, it becomes impossible to use one
manufacturer's fittings with the fibers of other.
83. . What is an opt ical port?
In the fiber optics industry, optical port is the element that physically makes the
connection or interfa- ce between the illuminator and the harness. In its simplest form,
an
optical port is made of male and female tubes fitting one inside the other with a
retaining
screw or other fastener. More sophisticated optical ports include filter holders and
various
devices to adjust, conform and cool the common end.
84. . Are there di fferent types of opt ical ports?
Optical ports can be divided in two types: potting and pressure. Potting optical ports are
little more than a hollow tube into which the fibers are introduced and encapsulated
with
some adhesive, making a block to be later polished.
Pressure optical ports are more sophisticated and include seals to grip tightly, by means
of a
tool, the har- ness of fibers.
Glass fibers are always prepared in potting optical ports whilst solid core fibers use
pressure
optical ports. PMMA fibers can have the common end in either.
85. . Who manufactures opt ical ports?
All system integrator produce a particular type of optical port to connect to their choice
of
illuminator.
86. . Are opt ical ports compat ible?
In general no. Illuminator manufacturers use a particular type of optical port to effect
the connection with the common end. As a whole, the harness made by a given
manufacturer
will not fit into the illuminator made by another without retooling.
87. . What is a f iber opt ics system?
The term comprises all the necessary elements to install a working unit.
67
SYSTEMS
88. . What is a f iber opt ics systems integrator?
A fiber optics system integrator purchases the bulk fibers from a fiber optics
manufacturer, and ende- avor to manipulate, cut, polish, assemble, pack, produce and
market a
final product.
89. . What is the di fference between a f iber opt ics manufacturer and a f iber
opt ics system manufacturer?
This is a question that would sound silly in other industries but not in this one. Many
firms hint, or even affirm in their brochures and catalogues to be fiber optics
manufacturers
when this is simply not true. A Com- pany that manufactures fiber optics is the one that
transforms polymers, monomers or glass raw materials into rods and filaments,
cladding
those with other elements to, finally create bulk fiber optics.
One can readily see the difference between a glass manufacturer, a glass merchant and a
window manufac- turer. The first takes sand and melts it into glass the second stores
and
trades with glass and the third incor- porates glass into his final product: a window.
If one looks at the giant chemical and glass corporations it's a fair bet that they are fiber
optics manufactu- rers.
On the other hand, most fiber optics companies are System Integrators. This is to say
that
they do not make fibers, just like the window producer does not make glass.
90. . Who are the best f iber opt ics manufacturers?
To single out a company would be grossly unfair because in this business the players
are, generally, respected industrial corporations with impeccable quality reputations.
State of the art fiber optics cannot be made in a garage shed and huge investments have
to be
made in plant, equipment and human resources to produce optics of any kind.
The overall quality of fibers in the market is exceptionally high and it must be said that
the
failures and disas- ters that may have happened have had nothing to do with the quality
of the
fibers but with the handling and application of systems.
68
91. . Who are the best systems integrators?
Being quite the opposite to fiber optics manufacturers, system producers
are usually small companies. In this case size has the opposite effect on the
final product because fiber optics system design require an inordinate amount
of ingenuity, talent and technical expertise even for tiny projects. The fast
responses, ins- tant drawings, quotations and studies normally demanded are
very hard to produce in a corporate environ- ment.
Naturally, this means that some system integrators are little more than a oneman
band and some operations are run on a shoestring with more enthusiasm
than resources.
On the other hand many system integrators have very little know-how and
soon get into trouble with the laws of physics.
Product certification, documentation, information and references are the
easiest way to ascertain the profes- sional reputation of a manufactures
In this industry when detailed and precise technical information is not
forthcoming and things are shrouded in a veil of secrecy, it usually means that
for the manufacturer the thing is also a mystery.
92. . How many parts does a f iber opt ics system have?
Depending on the final use the most common parts to account for in a
basic system are: illuminator, fiber bundle, bushing and end fittings.
Additional fittings, fixtures, controlling units and power sources may be used
harness, optical port.
93. . Are f iber opt ics systems expensive?
To determine whether a system is expensive one would have to
establish a comparison with an alter- native, which in most cases does not
exist.
To compare fiber optics with a standard off the shelf light fitting, lamp or
system is an unfair rule of thumb because fiber optics are unique.
Fiber optics systems can carry minute or large amounts of light to, practically
any place with precision, wit- hout heat or electricity and with the light source
far away.
69
If the fiber optics system is to be used in applications where the above values
were of no consequence then one would have to say that there is no need for
it.
Fiber optics are not the universal solution to all lighting problems but a tool or
a technique to be used in cir- cumstances where other systems would be at a
disadvantage or even totally inadequate.
If one compares a one point of conventional light fixture with a one-point fiber
optics system then the price difference would weigh heavily in favor of the
standard fixture. If we compare several fixtures and one fiber optics system
with several light guides and one illuminator, taking into account the
maintenance advantages and power savings, then one would have to concede
that fiber optics are cheap.
94. . Wi ll f iber opt ics systems be cheaper in the future?
Lighting fiber optics is not a mass-market product and perhaps will never
be. Even today most systems are, at least in part, hand crafted or produced in
small batches of a few hundred units at most. Very few items are made in the
thousands, with the exception of injected parts, which have a very low unit
cost.
From a manufacturing point of view short series are very expensive to
produce, since the cost advantages of bulk purchase and manufacturing are
missing.
Fiber optics groups or harnesses could easily be mass-produced with very
important savings, which would reduce unit costs drastically. The problem is
that very seldom, harnesses are of the same size or have the same fiber
composition. Consequently, they have to be hand tailored, practically one by
one, which results on very high production costs.
Another reason for the high unit costs of systems is the technical backup that
system manufacturers have to provide. Nearly all of the installations have to
be individually assessed, studied and estimated in house, because of the lack
of widespread technical expertise elsewhere. This means that expensive
technical departments have to be kept in order to provide know-how on a
daily basis.
95. . Are f iber opt ics systems di ff icult to instal l?
70
Again, it becomes important to establish a fair comparison with other
elements, in this case ordinary light fixtures.
Fiber optics systems, as a whole, are easier to install than electrical fittings.
Sometimes displays, panels, ceilings, effects or projects are made involving
thousands or even hundreds of thousands of single optical fiber ends which, to
be fair, are a challenge to install.
The problem in these cases is of sheer numbers, size and complexity. In any
case to install a point of fiber optics is considerably easier than to install an
electrical point.
96. . What is a starry sky?
Probably one of the most beautiful lighting effects that can be created,
which can be very simple or quite sophisticated.
In its simplest form, a starry sky effect is made with a number of small
diameter fibers coupled to a large solid core, which delivers the light from the
illuminator. This creates a number of static points of the same diame- ter,
which can be quite effective if a little flat.
More elaborate systems use several fiber caliber's, from 0,25mm to 3mm
diameter and run directly to the illu- minator. The several sizes of fiber make
for different intensities on the point light, giving the effect of distan- ce and
perspective creating great depth. Coupled with a twinkle effect wheel the
effect can be quite stunning.
97. . What is an effect wheel?
A disc of metal or polycarbonate revolving between the lamp and the
common end with holes, slits, colors or patterns.
98. . What is an animat ion harness?
A group of fiber optics arranged in a sequential fashion and numbered.
The fibers are then installed in the same order and, with the help of special
illuminators, movement can be added to lines or patterns.
99. . What are spat ial effects?
71
Representations of comets, nebulas, shooting stars and others, made with
often thousands of indivi- dual fibers and animation illuminator.
100. . How would you descr ibe in one word f iber opt ics l ight ing systems?
Magic

Multiple Choice Questions


____________________________________________
BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems )
Topic : Satellite Communication
UNIT IV: Orbital Mechanics and Launchers
This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite
Orbits”.
1. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design altitude?
a) Continue to orbit the earth
b) Fall back
c) Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed
d) Stays where it was released
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If a satellite were launched vertically from the earth and then released, it would fall
back to earth because of gravity. For the satellite to go into orbit around the earth, it must have
some forward motion. For that reason, when the satellite is launched, it is given both vertical and
forward motion.
2. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Although the speed of the satellite is constant its direction keeps on changing as the
orbit is circular or elliptical. The rate of change of velocity vector is acceleration and hence its
direction changes, the satellite is under acceleration.
3. Why does the orbit take the shape of an ellipse or circle?
a) Position can be easily determined
b) Consume less fuel
c) Most efficient geometry
d) Better coverage on earth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A satellite rotates about the earth in either a circular or an elliptical path. Circles
and ellipses are geometric figures that can be accurately described mathematically. Because the
orbit is either circular or elliptical, it is possible to calculate the position of a satellite at any
given time.
4. The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______
a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The direction of satellite rotation may be either in the same direction as the earth’s
rotation or against the direction of earth’s rotation. In the former case, the orbit is said to be
posigrade, and in the latter case, retrograde. Most orbits are posigrade.
5. When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit?
a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In an elliptical orbit, the speed changes depending upon the height of the satellite
above the earth. Naturally, the speed of the satellite is greater when it is close to the earth than
when it is far away. The closest point is called the perigee.
6. Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that are far away from earth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Satellites that are near earth have to move at higher speeds to sustain their orbit
since the gravitational pull is much higher. Since the effect of gravity is less at higher altitudes,
satellites that far away require less speeds.
7. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________
a) Lapsed time
b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The period is the time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit. It is also called
the sidereal period. A sidereal orbit uses some external fixed or apparently motionless object
such as the sun or star for reference in determining a sidereal period.
8. The period of time that elapses between the successive passes of the satellite over a given
meridian of earth longitude is called as _____________
a) synodic period
b) Lapsed time
c) Time period
d) Sidereal period
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Another method of expressing the time for one orbit is the revolution or synodic
period. One revolution (1 r) is the period of time that elapses between the successive passes of
the satellite over a given meridian of earth longitude. Naturally, the synodic and sidereal periods
differ from each other because of the earth’s rotation.
9. What is the angle of inclination for a satellite following an equatorial orbit?
a) 0°
b) 180°
c) 45°
d) 90°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Another definition of inclination is the angle between the equatorial plane and the
satellite orbital plane as the satellite enters the northern hemisphere. When the angle of
inclination is 0°, the satellite is directly above the equator. Orbits with 0° inclination are
generally called equatorial orbits.
10. The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line
between the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s horizon is called as ___________
a) Angle of inclination
b) Angle of elevation
c) Apogee angle
d) LOS angle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The angle of elevation of a satellite is the angle that appears between the line from
the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line between the earth station’s antenna and the
earth’s horizon. If the angle of elevation is too small, the signals between the earth station and
the satellite have to pass through much more of the earth’s atmosphere. Because of the very low
powers used and the high absorption of the earth’s atmosphere.
11. To use a satellite for communication relay or repeater purposes what type of orbit will be the
best?
a) Circular orbit
b) Elliptical orbit
c) Geosynchronous orbit
d) Triangular orbit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The best solution is to launch a synchronous or geostationary satellite. In a
geosynchronous earth orbit. Since the satellite remains apparently fixed, no special earth station
tracking antennas are required. The antenna is simply pointed at the satellite and remains in a
fixed position. With this arrangement, continuous communication is possible.
12. What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see?
a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 40
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Most communication satellites in use today are of the geosynchronous variety.
Approximately 40 percent of the earth’s surface can be “seen” or accessed from such a satellite.
Users inside that area can use the satellite for communication.
13. What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite called?
a) Satellite point
b) Subsatellite point
c) Supersatellite point
d) Overhead point
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: The satellite location is specified by a point on the surface of the earth directly
below the satellite. This point is known as the subsatellite point (SSP). The subsatellite point is
then located by using conventional latitude and longitude designations.
Communication Systems”.
1. The satellite that is used as a relay to extend communication distance is called as __________
a) Relay satellites
b) Communication satellites
c) Repeater satellites
d) Geosynchronous satellites
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Communication satellites are not originators of information to be transmitted. If a
transmitting station cannot communicate directly with one or more receiving stations because of
line-of-sight restrictions, a satellite can be used. The transmitting station sends the information to
the satellite, which in turn re-transmits it to the receiving stations.
2. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______
a) Relay
b) Repeater
c) Transponder
d) Duplexer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a transponder. The
basic functions of a transponder are amplification and frequency translation. The reason for
frequency translation is that the transponder cannot transmit and receive on the same frequency.
3. The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The original signal being transmitted from the earth station to the satellite is called
the uplink, and the re-transmitted signal from the satellite to the receiving stations is called the
downlink. Usually, the downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency. A typical uplink
frequency is 6 GHz, and a common downlink frequency is 4 GHz.
4. What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite?
a) More number of operating channel
b) Better reception
c) More gain
d) Redundancy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To be economically feasible, a satellite must be capable of handling several
channels. As a result, most satellites contain multiple transponders, each operating at a different
frequency. Each transponder represents an individual communication channel.
5. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
a) More bandwidth
b) More spectrum space
c) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
d) Economically viable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: VHF, UHF, and microwave signals penetrate the ionosphere with little or no
attenuation and are not refracted to earth. Lower frequencies undergo total internal refraction and
get reflected back to earth.
6. What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite communication?
a) Lesser attenuation
b) Less power requirements
c) More bandwidth
d) Overcrowding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Most new communication satellites will operate in the Ku band. This upward shift
in frequency is happening because the C band is overcrowded. Many communication satellites
are in orbit now, most of them operating in the C band. However, there is some difficulty with
interference because of the heavy usage. The only way this interference will be minimized is to
shift all future satellite communication to higher frequencies.
7. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?
a) MF
b) Ku
c) X
d) C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MF is a lower frequency band than Ku, C and X bands and does not lie in the
microwave spectrum. Microwaves are used for satellite communication since the lower bands get
reflected by the ionosphere.
8. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary transmission and
has a bandwidth of 36MHz?
a) 32Mpbs
b) 72Mpbs
c) 36Mpbs
d) 12Mpbs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For binary transmission, the maximum theoretical data rate or channel capacity C
for a given bandwidth B is C = 2B = 2(36) =72Mpbs.
9. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out?
a) Reduce traffic load
b) More gain
c) High speed
d) Error detection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: at times there is more traffic than there are transponders to handle it. For that
reason, numerous techniques have been developed to effectively increase the bandwidth and
signal-carrying capacity of the satellite. Two of these techniques are known as frequency reuse
and spatial isolation.
10. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the frequency reuse technique two systems use the same frequency, although
operating on exactly the same frequencies, they are isolated from each other by the use of special
antenna techniques. For example, a vertically polarized antenna will not respond to a
horizontally polarized signal and vice versa. Or a left-hand circularly polarized (LHCP) antenna
will not respond to a right-hand circularly polarized (RHCP) signal and vice versa.
11. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the satellite into
smaller segments?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By using narrow beam or spot beam antennas, the area on the earth covered by the
satellite can be divided up into smaller segments. Earth stations in each segment may actually
use the same frequency, but because of the very narrow beam widths of the antennas, there is no
interference between adjacent segments.
12. Spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) depends on satellite location and not frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spatial-division multiple access uses spatial isolation technique. Earth stations in
each segment may actually use the same frequency, but because of the very narrow beam widths
of the antennas, there is no interference between adjacent segments. This technique is referred to
a spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) in that access to the satellite depends on location and
not frequency.
This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite
This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite
Subsystems”.
1. Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem?
a) Ground station
b) Power system
c) Telemetry tracking
d) Communication subsystem
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The communication subsystem is the most important part of the satellite. It requires
varies additional systems like the power system, propulsion system, telemetry system for its
proper functioning. The ground system however is not one of the satellite subsystem and is
independent of the satellite. It is just a transponder to monitor and command the satellite.
2. Which of the following is not a part of the propulsion subsystem of a satellite?
a) Gyroscope
b) Jet thruster
c) AKM
d) Fuel control system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The propulsion subsystem consists of the AKM(Apogee kick motor), jet thruster
and the fuel control system. Gyroscopes and other attitude systems fall under the attitude control
subsystem.
3. Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth ground
station?
a) Navigational data, computer data, video
b) Computer data, navigational data, voice
c) Voice, video, computer data
d) Computer data
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An earth station takes the signals to be transmitted, known as baseband signals, and
modulates a microwave carrier. The three most common baseband signals are voice, video, and
computer data.
4. Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and re-transmits
the signal in a satellite?
a) Repeater
b) Relay
c) Transponder
d) Transducer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The uplink signals from earth are amplified, translated in frequency, and
retransmitted
on the downlink to one or more earth stations. The component that performs this
function is known as a transponder.
5. Why is there a huge spectrum space between the transmitted and received signal in satellite
communication?
a) Reduce interference
b) Maximum efficiency
c) Less attenuation
d) To reduce space occupied by filters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Because of the close proximity of the transmitter and the receiver in the satellite,
the high transmitter output power for the downlink is picked up by that satellite receiver.
Naturally, the uplink signal is totally obliterated. Furthermore, the transmitter output fed back
into the receiver input causes oscillation. To avoid this problem, the receiver and transmitter in
the satellite transponder are designed to operate at separate frequencies. In this way, they will not
interfere with each other.
6. Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink signal using two
mixers
a) Single conversion transponders
b) Dual conversion transponders
c) Regenerative transponders
d) Dual mixer transponder
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A dual-conversion transponder makes the frequency translation in two steps with
two mixers. No demodulation occurs.
7. In a regenerative transponder, the signal is demodulated and modulated again before
transmission.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A regenerative repeater demodulates the uplink signal after the frequency is
translated to some lower intermediate frequency. The recovered baseband signal is then used to
modulate the downlink signal.
8. What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency and
frequency reuse is implemented?
a) 12
b) 6
c) 24
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since in frequency reuse each channel can be used twice the numbers of
transponders are also doubled. 12 x 2 = 24 transponders, two for each frequency.
9. Why is it not possible to provide transmit function by wideband amplifier and mixer circuits?
a) Heavy attenuation
b) High power output over wideband is not possible
c) Economically not profitable
d) Weight of the system increases five fold
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: it is generally not possible to generate very high output power over such wide
bandwidth. The fact is that no components and circuits can do this well. The high-power
amplifiers in most transponders are traveling-wave tubes that inherently have limited bandwidth.
They operate well over a small range but cannot deal with the entire 500-MHz bandwidth
allocated to a satellite.
10. Which of the following is not true?
a) Battery is only used as a back up
b) When in orbit, solar power is always available
c) Battery is used for initial satellite orientation and stabilization
d) The batteries are charged using solar power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a satellite goes into an eclipse or when the solar panels are not properly
positioned, there is a temporary cut in solar power supply. In situations like this the batteries take
over temporarily and keep the satellite operating. The batteries are not large enough to power the
satellite for a long time; they are used as a backup system for eclipses, initial satellite orientation
and stabilization, or emergency conditions.
11. Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station to monitor and
control conditions in the satellite.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The telemetry system is used to report the status of the onboard subsystems to the
ground station. The telemetry system typically consists of various electronic sensors whose data
are selected by a multiplexer and then converted to a digital signal, which then modulates an
internal transmitter. This transmitter sends the telemetry information back to the earth station,
where it is recorded and monitored.
Q1. Satellite engine uses …………
a. Jet propulsion
b. Ion propulsion system
c. Liquid fuel
d. Solar jet
Answer : b
Q2. The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam is known as ……..
a. Beam width
b. Band width
c. Footprint
d. Zone
Answer : c
Q3. What kind of battery used by older satellites ?
a. Lithium
b. Leclanche
c. Hydrogen
d. Magnesium
Answer : c
Q4. The location of AsiaSat I.
a. 105.5˚ East
b. 151.5˚ East
c. 115.5˚ East
d. 170.5˚ East
Answer : a
Q5. To make antenna more directional, either its size must be increased or
a. the number of its feed horns must be increased
b.the frequency of its transmission must be increased
c. its effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) must be increased
d. its footprint must be increased
Answer : b
Q6. India’s first domestic geostationary satellite 1NSAT-IA was launched on 10th April
1982 from
a. USSR
b.USA
c. UK
d. UP
Answer : b
Q7. Satellite launch sites are invariably located on Eastern seaboards to ensure that
a. launch takes place eastward
b. expenditure of propulsion fuel is reduced during plane changing
c. the satellite achieves circular orbit quickly
d. spent rocket motor and other launcher debris falls into the sea
Answer : d
Q8. The owner of a communication satellite is usually required to keep the spacecraft on
station at its assigned place in the geosynchronous orbit with an accuracy of __________
degree.
a. 0.1
b. 1.0
c. 2.0
d. 0.5
Answer : a
Q9. The number of days when Earth’s shadow falls on a geosynchronous satellite is
a. 88
b. 277
c. 5
d. 10
Answer : a
Q10. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is ……….
a. Uplink
b. Downlink
c. Terrestrial
d. Earthbound
Answer : b
Q11. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of …………..
a. Circular polarization
b. Maneuverability
c. Beamwidth
d. Gain
Answer : a
Q12. What band does VSAT first operate?
a. L-band
b. X-band
c. C-band
d. Ku-band
Answer : c
Q13. VSAT was made available in ……..
a. 1979
b. 1981
c. 1983
d. 1977
Answer : a
Q14. ……………. collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite
a. Helical antenna
b. Satellite dish
c. LNA
d. TWT
Answer : b
Q15. ………….is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth’s atmosphere.
a. Atmospheric loss
b. Path loss
c. Radiation loss
d. RFI
Answer : b
Q16. …………… is considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system.
a. Coverage
b. Cost
c. Access
d. Privacy
Answer : d
Q17. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite ……………
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. None of the above
Answer : a
Q18. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earth’s surface is called ……………
a. Zone beam
b. Hemispheric beam
c. Spot beam
d. Global beam
Answer : d
Q19. A geosynchronous satellite
a. has the same period a that of the Earth
b. has a circular orbit
c. rotates in the equatorial plane
d. has all of the above
Answer : d
Q20. A transponder is a satellite equipment which
a. receives a signal from Earth station and amplifies
b. changes the frequency of the received signal
c. retransmits the received signal
d. does all of the above-mentioned functions
Answer : d
Q21. The INTELSAT-IV satellite launched in 1974 had two earth coverage antenna and
two narrower-angle antennas subtending 4.5°. The signal from narrow-angle antenna was
stronger than that from earth- coverage antenna by a factor of ……………
a. 17.34/4.5
b. 17.34/4.5
c. (17.34/4.5)2
d. (17.34/4.5)4
Answer : c
Q22. The angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is ………..
a. 17.34°
b. 51.4°
c. 120°
d. 60°
Answer : a
Q23. The discussing sharing of a communication satellite by many geographically
dispersed Earth station, DAMA means
a. Demand-Assigned Multiple Access
b. Decibel Attenuated Microwave Access
c. Digital Analog Master Antenna
d. Dynamically-Assigned Multiple Access
Answer : a
Q24. A 20 m antenna gives a certain uplink gain at frequencies of 4/6 GHz. For getting
same gain in the 20/30 GHz band, antenna size required is ……… metre.
a. 100
b. 4
c. 1
d. 10
Answer : b
Q25. Of the four INSAT-I satellites planned by India so for, only …………… has proved to
be successful.
a. INSAT-IA
b. INSAT-IB
c. INSAT-IC
d. INSAT-ID
Answer : b
Q26. Radio broadcasting is a familiar example of …………….
a. space multiplexing
b. time multiplexing
c. frequency multiplexing
d. none of the above
Answer : c
Q27. As compared to 17.34° antenna, the total increase in the signal relayed by 4.5°
antenna of INTELSAT-IV is ……….
a. 14.85
b. 220
c. 78
d. 3.85
Answer : b
Q28. Which one of the following statements regarding DSI is false?
a. It is a digital form of TASI
b. Though it is more efficient than TASI, it is much slower
c. A speaker has to wait (it at all) for only a few milliseconds for reallocation of channel
d. It has increased the capacity of satellite channels by a factor of 2.2 or more with out degrading
speech quality
Answer : b
Q29. Which one of the following statements regarding compandor is FALSE?
a. It compresses the higher-amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back
to normal again after demodulation.
b. It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c. For weaker signals it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error
d. Weaker signals, traverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing
error is reduced.
Answer : c
Q30. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the ………. ratio.
a. C/N
b. S/N
c. G/T
d. EIRP
Answer :a
Q31. The useful operational life of INSAT-IB (launched in 1983) is expected to end by
a. 1992-93
b. 1991-92
c. 1989-90
d. 1993-94
Answer : c
Q32. At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is ……….
a. EHF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. SHF
Answer : d
Q33. Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the
a. moon
b. sun
c. earth
d. all of the above
Answer : d
Q34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Satellite spacing is not affected by the bandwidth of the transmitting earth station
b. Beamwidth is independent of antenna size and frequency band used
c. The width of a beam in space is inversely proportional to the width of the transmitting antenna
d. Use of high-frequency bands permits less number of satellites to share the orbit
Answer : c
Q35. In a stop-and-wait ARQ system, the transmitting terminal
a. waits for positive or negative acknowled-gement from the receiving terminal after sending a
block
b. sends another block if positive acknowledge is received through ACK character
c. resends the previous block if negative acknowledgement is received through a NAK character
d. does not wait for acknowledgement after sending a block
Answer : d
Q36. A geostationary satellite is one which
a. hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth
b. travels around the Earth in 24 hours
c. remains stationary above the Earth
d. appears stationary to everybody on Earth
Answer : d
Q37. The geostationary communication satellite APPLE is parked in the equatorial orbit at
a. 102° E longitude over Sumatra
b. 90° E longitude over Bangladesh
c. 74° E longitude over India
d. 67° E longitude over Pakistan
Answer : a
Q38. Power received from Sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite in
nearly…………. watt.
a. 100
b. 500
c. 2000
d. 1000
Answer : d
Q39. A certain sound has 10000 times more energy than another sound. The number of
times it would sound stronger to a listener is
a. 40
b. 10000
c. 100
d. 10
Answer : a
Q40. The bandwidth of C- band satellite frequency band in U.C is ………
a. 500 GHz
b. 1000 GHz
c. 1000 MHz
d. 500 MHz
Answer : d
Q41. Repeaters inside communication satellites are known as ………
a. Trancievers
b. Transponders
c. Transducers
d. TWT
Answer : b
Q42. What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites?
a. Germanium based panels
b. Silicon based panel
c. Galium Phosphate solar panel array
d. Galium Arsenide solar panel array
Answer : d
Q43. What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink frequency
in GHz band?
a. 3500 MHz
b. 4500 MHz
c. 2225 MHz
d. 2555 MHz
Answer : c
Q44. How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine Government from
ITU ?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Answer : c
Q45. The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satellite
array.
a. Series
b. Radial
c. Matrix
d. Shunt
Answer : d
Q46. What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna elements
in a mobile satellite array ?
a. Radial divider
b. Divider/combiner
c. Radial combiner
d. Radial multiplexer
Answer : a
Q47. INTELSAT stands for ………….
a. Intel Satellite
b. International Telephone Satellite
c. International Telecommunications Satellite
d. International Satellite
Answer : c
Q48. …………. is an artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or)
another body of solar systems.
a. Satellite
b. moon
c. sun
d. none of the above
Answer : a
Q49. ………… is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive, amplify and retransmit
data to earth stations.
a. Optical communication
b. Digital communication
c. Analog communication
d. Satellite communication
Answer : d
Q50. ………… law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be
an ellipse.
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Answer : b
Q51. Which law states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas
in its orbital plane, focused at the barycenter.
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Answer : c
Q52. Which law states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the
cube of the mean distance between the two bodies. A3 = 3/n2
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Answer : d
Q53. What is meant by GPRS ?
a. General packet receiver service
b. General packet radio service
c. Global packet radio service
d. none of these
Answer : b
Q54. Television transmission is an example of which type of transmission?
a. Simplex
b. Half Duplex
c. Full Duplex
d. None of the above
Answer : a
Q55. What are the limitations of FDMA-satellite access?
a. If the traffic in the downlink is much heavier than that in the uplink, then FDMA is relatively
inefficient.
b. Compared with TDMA, FDMA has less flexibility in reassigning channels.
c. Carrier frequency assignments are hardware controlled
d. all of the above
Answer : d
Q56. What is meant by EIRP?
a. Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power
b. Energy Isotropic Radiated Power
c. Equivalent Isotropic Resonance Power
d. none of these
Answer : a
Q57. A satellite downlink at 12 GHz operates with a transmit power of 6 W and an antenna
gain of 48.2 dB. Calculate the EIRP in dBW.
a. 45 dBW
b. 50 dBW
c. 75 dBW
d. 56 dBW
Answer : d
Q58. The range between a ground station and a satellite is 42000 km. Calculate the free
space loss a frequency of 6 GHz.
a. 100 dB
b. 150 dB
c. 175dB
d. 200.4dB
Answer : d
Q59. The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is
known as ……….
a. Electric flux density
b. Magnetic flux density
c. Saturation flux density
d. Photon flux density
Answer : c
Q60. ………….. is necessary to prevent the bursts from overlapping.
a. Preamble
b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency
d. Decoding quenching
Answer : b
Q61. In some phase detection systems, the phase detector must be allowed for some time to
recover from one burst before the next burst is receiving by it. This waiting time is known
as …………
a. Preamble
b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency
d. Decoding quenching
Answer : d
Q62. …………. is a measure of the fraction of frame time which is used for the
transmission of traffic.
a. . Preamble
b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency
d. Decoding quenching
Answer : c
Q63. What is meant by OMT ?
a. Orthogonal mode tube
b. Orthogonal modulation tube
c. Orthogonal mode transducer
d. none of these
Answer : c
Q64. Which of the following comes under methods of multiple access techniques?
a. FDMA & TDMA
b. SCPC & CDMA
c. CDMA & GSM
d. none of these
Answer : a
Q65. What is meant by SCPC?
a. Single channel per carrier
b. Single carrier per channel
c. Single code per channel
d. none of these
Answer : a
Q66. For satellite communication, standard Earth stations have antenna diameters in the
range of ………….. metre.
a. 27.5 to 30
b. 10 to 15
c. 30 to 50
d. 5 to 10
Answer : a
Q67. The most effective anti jamming technique is ………..
a. frequency hopping
b. spread-spectrum modulation
c. key leverage
d. once-only key
Answer : b
Q68. The ending part of the popular teleserial Mahabharat will be beamed to the viewers
a. WESTAT
b. INSAT-IC
c. ARABSAT
d. INSAT-ID
Answer : c
Q69. A communication satellite is a repeater between …………… and …………..
a. a transmitting station and a receiving station
b. a transmitting station and many receiving station
c. many transmitting station and many receiving station
d. none
Answer : c
Q70. While keeping the down-link frequency constant, the diameter of a satellite antenna is
reduced by half. To offer the same EIRP over the increased coverage area, the RF output
power has to be increases by a factor of ………..
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
Answer : b
Q71. The Sun blots out the transmission of a geosynchronous satellite twice a year when
satellite passes directly in front of it. This outage lasts for about
a. 10 minutes on 5 consecutive days
b. 5 minutes on 10 consecutive days
c. 30 minutes for 5 consecutive days
d. one hour for 5 consecutive days
Answer : a
Q72. In satellite communication, frequency modulation is used because satellite channel
has
a. small bandwidth and negligible noise
b. large bandwidth and severe noise
c. maximum bandwidth and minimum noise
d. high modulation index
Answer : b
Q73. Which of the following factor does NOT contribute to the drift of a geostationary
satellite from its stationary position in space?
a. Pressure of solar radiations
b. Gravitational changes due to Sun and Moon
c. Oblateness of the Earth
d. Weight of the satellite
Answer : d
Q74. In communication satellites, the up-link normally operates at a higher frequency than
the down-link because it
a. gives a narrow beam shining into space
b. results in lesser signal attenuation
c. gives better beam-shaping
d. is easier to polarize a high frequency beam
Answer : a
Q75. For global communication, the number of satellites needed is
a. 1
b. 3
c. 10
d. 5
Answer : b
Q76. The noise temperature of sky is about __________ °K.
a. 100
b. 273
c. 0
d. 30
Answer : d
Q77. Assuming earth to be a sphere of radius 6400 km and height of a geosynchronous
satellite above Earth as 36000 km, the velocity of a geosynchronous satellite is __________
km/hr.
a. 28000
b. 15000
c. 36000
d. 11100
Answer : d
Q78. In the context of error detection in satellite transmission, ARQ stands for ……………
a. Automatic Repeat Request
b. Automatic Relay Request
c. Accelerated Recovery Request
d. Automatic Radiation Quenching
Answer : a
Q79. To cover all inhabited regions of the Earth, the number of geosynchronous
communication satellites required
a. 5
b. 3
c. 10
d. 2
Answer : b
Q80. Depending on the technique used, digitized television requires a bit rate between
__________ millions.
a. 40 and 92.5
b. 25 and 60
c. 30 and 82.5
d. 2
Answer : a
Q81. In selecting a satellite system, the First determining factor is its
a. EIRP
b. antenna size
c. coverage a sea
d. antenna gain
Answer : c
Q82. Phase modulation is commonly-used for data transmission mainly because
a. phase can be varied from + 180° to 180°
b. it is resistant to the effects of noise
c. demodulation is very easy
d. it gives highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel
Answer : b
Q83. India’s Polar Satellite Launch vehicle (PSLV) to be ready in 1991 is designed to
launch 1000 kg spacecraft into __________ orbit.
a. geostationary
b. equatorial
c. polar
d. sun-synchronous polar
Answer : d
Q84. Most of the communication satellites are stationed to the West of their service areas in
order to reduce their ………..
a. eclipse period
b. loss of power
c. battery power provision
d. mass of station-keeping fuel
Answer : c
Q85. The degradation of satellite solar cells with time is mainly due to
a. their bombardment by electrons
b. collection of meteoric dust
c. increase in resistivity of silicon
d. gradual leakage of charge carriers from the semiconductor material
Answer : a
Q86. The echo heard by a telephone user on a satellite channel can be removed by using
a. a vocoder
b. a multiplexer
c. echo suppressor
d. digital techniques
Answer : c
Q87. The 1150 kg geosynchronous satellite INSAT-IA parked 36000 km above India had
greatly improved India’s
a. intelligence gathering capacity
b. domestic communications
c. meteorological capability
d. both (b) and (c)
Answer : d
Q88. Presently, the worlds’s largest and most advanced multi-purpose communication
satellite is ……………
a. INSAT-2
b. Intelsat-V
c. INSAT-ID
d. Olympus-I
Answer : d
Q89. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to
……..
a. avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b. avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signal and weak in coming signal
c. minimise free-space losses
d. maximise antenna gain
Answer : b
Q90. Regarding TASI which one of the following statements is wrong?
a. It snatches the channel in his speech and may allocate it to another speaker needing it.
b. The same speaker is reassigned a channel almost instantly when he speaks again even when
the circuit is heavily loaded.
c. It increases the overall utilization of the transmission channel.
d. Intercontinental callers sometimes confuse the effects of TASI with the effects of satellite
delay
Answer : b
Q91. Master control facility (MCF) for INSAT-2 series satellites is located at …………..
a. Madras
b. New Delhi
c. Leh
d. Hassan
Answer : d
Q92. The communication satellite INSAT-IB had to take up the job of INSAT-IA because
the latter collapsed within …………… months of its launch.
a. 12
b. 20
c. 5
d. 36
Answer : c
Q93. The distance of a synchronous satellite from Earth’s surface is ………….. km.
a. 300
b. 10000
c.35900
d. 5
Answer : c
Q94. The traffic-handling capacity of an Earth station on the uplink depends on …………
a. its EIRP
b. satellite antenna gain
c. noise associated with the satellite
d. all of the above
Answer : d
Q95. System satellites orbit the Earth once in …………. hrs.
a. 24
b. 12
c. 1
d. 6
Answer : a
Q96. The lowest frequency used in satellite communications is ……….. GHz.
a. 0.8
b. 3
c. 18
d. 30
Answer : a
Q97. Geosynchronous satellites are always launched in the equatorial plane because it is
the only plane which provides
a. 24-hour orbit
b. stationary satellite
c. global communication
d. zero-gravity environs
Answer : c
Q98. A few minutes disturbance in space communications occurs twice a year during
Sunblinding when __________ are in line.
a. Sun and satellite
b. Sun and Earth station
c. Satellite and Earth station
d. Sun, satellite and Earth station
Answer : d
Q99. After the death of INSAT-IB, the mainstay of the entire Indian satellite network for
some time to come would be
a. INSTELSAT-V
b. INSAT-ID
c. INSAT-2
d. ARABSAT
Answer : d
Q100. For satellite transmission, analog signals may be converted into digital form with the
help of ……………..
a. modem
b. transponder
c. codec
d. compandor
Answer : c
Q101. The maximum signal propagation time of a geosynchronous satellite transmission is
about ……….. millisecond
a. 540
b. 270
c. 135
d. 1080
Answer : b
Q102. The life time of a geosynchronous communication ……..
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 50
Answer : b
Q103. A typical error rate on satellite circuits is one bit error in
a. 107
b. 103
c. 102
d. 1010
Answer : a
Q104. In satellite communication, highly directional antennas are used to
a. direct the spot beam to a particular region of space on Earth
b. strengthen the beam to overcome the cosmic noise
c. make corrections in change of polarisation of the beam
d. select a particular channel in transmission and reception
Answer : a
Q105. The average noise temperature of Earth, as viewed from space, is ………. °K
a. 254
b. 303
c. 100
d. 500
Answer : a
Q106. Low-orbit satellites are not used for communications because they
a. produce sonic booms
b. do not provide 24 hour/ day contact to the users on Earth
c. heat up and melt
d. none
Answer : c

Short Answers Questions


____________________________________________
BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems )
Satellite Communication
ORBIT DYNAMICS
1. What is Satellite?
An artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or) another body of
solar systems.
Types: Information satellites and Communication Satellites
2. Define Satellite Communication. It is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive,
amplify and retransmit data to earth stations.
3. State Kepler’s first law.
It states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
An ellipse has two focal points F1 and F2. The center o
f mass of the two body system,
termed the barycenter is always centered on one of the
foci. e = [square root of (a2– b2) ] / a
4. State Kepler’s second law.
It states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas in its orbital
plane, focused at the barycenter.
5. State Kepler’s third law.
It states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the cube of the
mean distance between the two bodies.
a3= 3 / n22
Where, n = Mean motion of the satellite in rad/sec.
3 = Earth’s geocentric gravitational constant. With the
n in radians per sec. the orbital period in second is given by,
P=2/n
6. Define apogee. The point farthest from the earth.
7. Define Perigee. The point closest from the earth.
8. What is line of apsides? The line joining the perigee and apogee through the center of the
earth.
9. Define ascending node. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going
from south to north.
10. Define descending node. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going
from north to south.
very small with the result that a region that is only a few hundred km in diameter is
illuminated on earth.
14. What is meant by momentum wheel stabilization?
During the spin stabilization, flywheels may be used rather than spinning the satellite.
These flywheels are termed as momentum wheels.
15. What is polarization interleaving?
Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternatively polarized left hand circular
and right hand circular to reduce interference to acceptable levels.
This is referred to as polarization interleaving.
16. Define S/N ratio.
The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of signal power to
noise power at the receiver output. This is known as S/N ratio.
17. What is noise weighting?
The method used to improve the post detection signal to
noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.
18. What is noise power spectral density?
Noise power per unit Bandwidth is termed as the noise p
ower spectral density.
19. What is an intermodulation noise?
Intermodulation distortion in high power amplifier can result in signal product which
appear as noise and it is referred to as intermodulation noise.
20. What is an antenna loss?
It is added to noise received as radiation and the total antenna noise temperature is the
sum of the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.
21. Define sky noise.
It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation w
hich is present throughout universe and which appears to originate from matter in any
form, at
finite temperature.
22. Define noise factor.
An alternative way of representing amplifier noise is
by means of its noise factor. Indefining the noise factor of an amplifiers, usually taken as
290 k.
23. What is TWTA?
TWTA means Traveling Wave Tube Amplifier. The TWTA i
s widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to the transtube
and its power supplies.
24. What is an OMT?
The polarization separation takes place in a device kno
wn as an orthocoupler or Orthogonal Mode Transducer.
SATELLITE ACCESS
1. What is a single mode of operation?
A transponder channel abroad a satellite may be fully loaded by a single transmission from
an earth station. This is referred to as a single access mode of operation.
2. What are the methods of multiple access techniques?
FDMA – Frequency Division Multiple Access Techniques
TDMA – Time Division Multiple Access Techniques
3. What is an CDMA?
CDMA – Code Division Multiple Access Techniques
In this method, each signal is associated with a particular code that is used to spread the
signal in frequency and time.
4. Give the types of CDMA.
• Spread spectrum multiple access
• Pulse address multiple access
5. What is SCPC?
SCPC means Single Channel Per Carrier. In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36
MHz) may be occupied by a number of single carriers, each associated with its own
voice circuit.
6. What is a thin route service?
SCPC systems are widely used on lightly loaded routes, this type of service being referred
to as a thin route service.
7. What is an important feature of Intelsat SCPC system?
The system is that each channel is voice activated. This me
ans that on a two way telephone conversation only one carriers is operative at any one
time.
8. What is an TDMA? What are the advantages?
TDMA – Time Division Multiple Access Techniques Only one carrier uses the transponder
at any one time, and therefore Inter modulation products, which results from the nonlinear
amplification of multiple carriers are absent.
Advantages : The transponder traveling wave tube can be operated at maximum power
output.
9. What is preamble?
Certain time slots at the beginning of each burst are used to carry timing and synchronizing
information. These time slots collectively are referred to as preamble.
10. Define guard time.
It is necessary to prevent the bursts from overlapping. The guard time will vary from burst
to burst depending on the accuracy with which the various bursts can be
positioned within each frame.
11. What is meant by decoding quenching?
In certain phase detection systems, the phase detector must
be allowed for some time to recover from one burst before the next burst is received by it.
This is known as decoding quenching.
12. What is meant by direct closed loop feedback?
The timing positions are reckoned from the last bit of the unique word in the preamble.
The loop method is also known as direct closed loop feed
back.
13. What is meant by feedback closed loop control?
The synchronization information is transmitted back to an earth station from a distant, that
is termed feedback closed loop control.
14. Define frame efficiency.
It is measure of the fraction of frame time used for the transmission of traffic.
15. What is meant by digital speech interpolation?
The point is that for a significant fraction of the time, the channel is available for other
transmission and advantages are taken of this in a form of demand assignment known
as digital speech interpolation.
16. What is meant by telephone load activity factor?
The fraction of time a transmission channel is active is kno
wn as the telephone load activity factor.
17. What are the types of digital speech interpolation?
• Digital time assignment speech interpolation
• Speech predictive encoded communications
18. What is meant by freeze out?
It has assumed that a free satellite channel will be found for any incoming speed spurt, but
there is a finite probability that all channels will be occupied and the speech spurt lost.
Losing a speech spurt in this manner is referred to as freeze out.
19. What is DSI?
The DSI gain is the ratio of the number of terrestrial space channels to number of satellite
channels. It depends on the number of satellite channels provided as well as the design
objectives.
20. What are the advantages of SPEC method over DSI
method?
Freeze out does not occur during overload conditions.
21. Define satellite switched TDMA?
Space Division Multiplexing can be realized by switching the antenna interconnections in
synchronism with the TDMA frame rate, this being known as satellite switched TDMA.
22. What is SS / TDMA?
A repetitive sequence of satellite switch modes, also referred to as SS / TDMA.
23. What is processing gain?
The jamming or interference signal energy is reduced by
a factor known as the processing gain.
24. What is burst code word?
It is a binary word, a copy of which is stored at each earth station.
25. What is meant by burst position acquisition?
A station just entering, or reentering after a long delay to acquire its correct slot position is
known as burst position acquisition.
26. What is an single access?
A transponder channel aboard a satellite may be fully
loaded by a single transmission from earth station.
27. What is an multiple access technique?
A transponder to be loaded by a number of carriers.
These may originate from a number of earth station may transmit one or more of the
carriers. This mode of
operation known as multiple access technique.
28. What is meant by frequency reuse?
The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth station
s widely separated geographically but transmitting on the same frequency that is known as
frequency reuse.
29. What is meant by space division multiple access?
The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth stations widely separated geographically
but transmitting on the same frequency that is known as frequency reuse. This method of
access known as space division multiple
access.
30. What is an error detecting code?
A code which allows for the detection of errors is terme
d as error detecting code.
31. What are the limitations of FDMA-satellite access?
a. If the traffic in the downlink is much heavier than that in the uplink, then FDMA is
relatively inefficient.
b. Compared with TDMA, FDMA has less flexibility in r
eassigning channels.
c. Carrier frequency assignments are hardware controlled.
32. Write about pre-assigned TDMA satellite access.
Example for pre-assigned TDMA is CSC for the SPADE net
work. CSC can accommodate upto 49 earth stations in the network and 1 reference station.
All bursts are of equal length. Each burst contains 128 bits. The bit rate is 128 Kb / s.
33. Write about demand assigned TDMA satellite access.
The burst length may be kept constant and the number f bursts per frame used by the given
station is varied when the demand is varied.
EARTH SEGMENT
1. Define earth segment.
Earth segment of a satellite communication system consist
s of transmit earth station and receive earth station.
Example : TV Receive Only systems (TVRO systems)
2. Give the difference between KU-band and the C-band receive only systems. Operating
frequency of outdoor unit.
3. What is mean by ODU and IDU.
ODU – The Home Receiver Outdoor Unit
IDU – The Home Receiver Indoor Unit
4. Explain about MATV system.
MATV – Master Antenna TV system.
It is used to provide reception of DBS TV channels to the user group.
Example : Apartment users
It consists of one outdoor unit and various indoor units. Each user can independently
access all the channels.
5. Write about CATV system.
CATV – Community Antenna TV system.
As in MATV system, it consists of oneoutdoor unit and separ
ate feeds for each sense of polarization.
6. Define S/N ratio.
The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to
refer to the ratio of signal power to noise power at the receiver output. This is known as
S/N ratio.
7. What is noise weighting?
The method used to improve the post detection signal to
noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.
8. What is an EIRP?
EIRP means Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power. It is a
measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna.
9. What is noise power spectral density?
Noise power per unit Bandwidth is termed as the noise p
ower spectral density.
10. What is an inter modulation noise?
Inter modulation distortion in high power amplifier can result in signal product which
appear as noise and it is referred to as inter modulation noise.
11. What is an antenna loss?
It is added to noise received as radiation and the total antenna noise temperature is the
sum of the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.
12. Define noise factor.
An alternative way of representing amplifier noise is
by means of its noise factor. In defining the noise factor of an amplifiers, usually taken as
290 k.
13. A satellite downlink at 12 GHz operates with a tra
nsmit power of 6 W and an antenna gain of 48.2 dB. Calculate the EIRP in dBW.
EIRP = 10 log 6 + 48.2 = 56 dBW
14. The range between a ground station and a satellite is 42000 km. Calculate the free
space loss a frequency of 6 GHz.
[Free space loss] = 32.4 + 20 log 42000 + 20 log 6000
= 200.4 dB
15. An antenna has a noise temperature of 35 K and it is matched into a receiver which has
a noise temperature of 100 K. Calculate the noise power density and the noise
power for a BW of 36 MHz.
N0 = ( 35 + 100 ) * 1.38 * 10-23= 1.86 * 1 -21
JP N = 1.86 * 10-21* 36 * 106= 0.067 PW
16. Define Saturation flux density.
The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is
termed the saturation flux density.
SATELLITE APPLICATIONS
1. Give the 3 different types of applications with respect to satellite systems.
• The largest international system (Intelsat)
• The domestic satellite system (Dom sat) in U.S.
• U.S. National oceanographic and atmospheric administra
tions (NOAA)
2. Mention the 3 regions to allocate the frequency for satellite services.
a. Region1: It covers Europe, Africa and Mangolia
b. Region2: It covers North & South Ameriaca and Greenland.
c. Region3: It covers Asia, Australia and South West Pacif
ic.
3. Give the types of satellite services.
a. Fixed satellite service
b. Broadcasting satellite service
c. Mobile satellite service
d. Navigational satellite services
e. Meteorological satellite services
4. What is mean by Dom sat?
Domestic Satellites. These are used for voice, data and v
ideo transmissions within the country.
5. What is mean by INTELSAT?
International Telecommunication Satellite.
6. What is mean by SARSAT?
Search and rescue satellite.
7. What are the applications of Radarsat?
a. Shipping and fisheries.
b. Ocean feature mapping
d. Iceberg detection
e. Crop monitoring
8. What is ECEF?
The geocentric equatorial coordinate system is used with the GPS system.It is called as
earth centered, earth fixed coordinate system.
9. What is dilution of precision?
Position calculations involve range differences and where the ranges are nearly equal, any
error is greatly magnified in the difference. This effect, brought a result of the satellite
geometry is known as dilution of precision.
10. What is PDOP?
With the GPS system, dilution of position is taken into account through a factor known as
the position dilution of precision.
11. What is DBS?
Satellites are used to provide the broadcast transmissions. It is used to provide direct
transmissions into the home. The service provided is known as Direct Broadcast
Satellite services.
Example : Audio, TV and internet services.
12. Give the frequency range of US DBS systems with hig
h power satellites.
a. Uplink frequency range is 17.3 GHz to 17.8 GHz
b. Downlink frequency range is 12.2 GHz to 12.7 GHz
13. Give the frequency range of US DBS systems with med
ium power satellites.
a. Uplink frequency range is 14 GHz to 14.5 GHz
b. Downlink frequency range is 11.7 GHz to 12.2 GHz
14. What is DTH?
DBS television is also known as Direct To Home ( DTH ).
15. Write about bit rates for digital television.
It depends format of the picture.
Uncompressed Bit rate = (Number of pixels in a frame) *
(Number of pixels per second) * (Number of bits used to encode each pixel)
16. Give the satellite mobile services.
a. DBS – Direct Broadcast satellite
b. VSATS – Very Small Aperture Terminals
c. MSATS – Mobile Satellite Service
d. GPS – Global Positioning Systems
e. Micro Sats
f. Orb Comm – Orbital Communications Corporation
g. Iridium
17. What is GCC and GEC?
GCC - Gateway Control Centers
GEC – Gateway Earth Stations
18. What is INMARSAT?
It is the first global mobile satellite communication system operated at Lband and
internationally used by 67 countries for communication between ships and coast so that
mergency life saving may be provided. Also it provides modern communication services to
maritime, land mobile, aeronautical and other users.
19. List out the regions covered by INMARSAT.
• Atlantic ocean region, east (AOR-E)
• Atlantic ocean region, west (AOR-W)
• Indian ocean region (IOR)\
• Pacific ocean region (POR)
20.What is INSAT?
INSAT – Indian National Satellite System.
INSAT is a Indian National Satellite System for telecommunications, broadcasting,
meteorology and search and rescue services. It was commissioned in 1983. INSAT
was the largest domestic communication system in the sia-Pacific region.
20. List out the INSAT series.
• INSAT-1
• INSAT-2
• INSAt-2A
• INSAT-2E
• INSAT-3
21.What is GSM?
GSM (Global System for Mobile communications: originally from Groupe Spécial Mobile) is
the most popular standard or mobile phones in the world. GSM differs from its
predecessors in that both signaling and speech channels are digital, and thus is considered
a second generation (2G) mobile phone system. This has also meant that data
communication was easy to build into the system.
22.What is GPRS?
General packet radio service (GPRS) is a packet oriented mobile data service available to
users of the 2G cellular communication systems global system for mobile communications
(GSM), as well as in the 3G systems. In the 2G systems, GPRS provides data rates of 56-114
kbit/s.
23. Define DAB.
DAB - Digital Audio Broadcast

BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems

UNIT I: Light wave System


Components

1. Questions & Answers on Optical Fiber Waveguides


The section contains questions and answers on ray theory,
electromagnetic mode theory, cylindrical and single mode fibers,
crystal fibers and attenuation.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Ray Theory Transmission”.
1. Who proposed the idea of transmission of light via dielectric waveguide structure? a)
Christian Huygens b) Karpon and Bockham c) Hondros and debye d) Albert Einstein View
Answer
Answer: c Explanation: It was in the beginning of 20th century where Hondros and debye
theoretical and experimental study demonstrated that information can be transferred as a form
of light through a dielectric waveguide.
2. Who proposed the use of clad waveguide structure? a) Edward Appleton b) Schriever c)
Kao and Hockham d) James Maxwell View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The invention of clad waveguide structure raised the eyebrows of the
scientists. The proposals by Kao and Hockham proved beneficial leading in utilization of
optical fibre as a communication medium.
3. Which law gives the relationship between refractive index of the dielectric? a) Law of
reflection b) Law of refraction (Snell’s Law) c) Millman’s Law d) Huygen’s Law View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Snell’s Law of refraction states that the angle of incidence Ø1 and
refraction Ø2 are related to each other and to refractive index of the dielectrics.
It is given by n1sinØ1 = n2sinØ2 where n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of two mediums.
Ø1 and Ø2 are angles of incidence and refraction.
4. The light sources used in fibre optics communication are ____________ a) LED’s and
Lasers b) Phototransistors c) Xenon lights d) Incandescent View Answer
5. The ________ ray passes through the axis of the fiber core. a) Reflected b) Refracted c)
Meridional d) Shew View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: When a light ray is passed through a perfect optical fiber, any
discontinuities at the core cladding interface would result in refraction rather than total
internal reflection. Such light ray passes through the axis of fiber core and is called as
meridional ray. This principle is used while stating the fundamental transmission properties
of optical fiber.
6. Light incident on fibers of angles________the acceptance angle do not propagate into the
fiber. a) Less than b) Greater than c) Equal to d) Less than and equal to View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Acceptance angle is the maximum angle at which light may enter
into the fiber in order to be propagated. Hence the light incident on the fiber is less than the
acceptance angle, the light will propagate in the fiber and will be lost by radiation.
7. What is the numerical aperture of the fiber if the angle of acceptance is 16 degree? a) 0.50
b) 0.36 c) 0.20 d) 0.27 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The numerical aperture of a fiber is related to the angle of acceptance
as follows:
NA = sin Ѳa Where NA = numerical aperture Ѳ = acceptance angle.
8. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another medium is called as
_________ a) Speed factor b) Dielectric constant c) Reflection index d) Refraction index
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: When a ray travels from one medium to another, the ray incident
from a light source is called as incident ray. In passing through, the speed varies. The ratio of
the speed of incident and the refracted ray in different medium is called refractive index.
9. When a ray of light enters one medium from another medium, which quality will not
change? a) Direction b) Frequency c) Speed d) Wavelength View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The electric and the magnetic field have to remain continuous at the
refractive index boundary. If the frequency is changed, the light at the boundary would
change its phase and the fields won’t match. In order to match the field, frequency won’t
change
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Single-Mode Fibers”.
1. An optical fiber has core-index of 1.480 and a cladding index of 1.478. What should be the
core size for single mode operation at 1310nm? a) 7.31μm b) 8.71μm c) 5.26μm d) 6.50μm
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Normalized frequency V<=2.405 is the value at which the lowest
order Bessel function J=0. Core size(radius) .
2. An optical fiber has a core radius 2μm and a numerical aperture of 0.1. Will this fiber
operate at single mode at 600 nm? a) Yes b) No View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: V= 2πa.NA/λ. Calculating this equation, we get the value of V. V is
the normalised frequency and should be below 2.405 in order to operate the fiber at single
mode. Here, V=2.094, is less than 2.405. Thus, this optical fiber exhibit single mode
operation.
3. What is needed to predict the performance characteristics of single mode fibers? a) The
intermodal delay effect b) Geometric distribution of light in a propagating mode c) Fractional
power flow in the cladding of fiber d) Normalized frequency View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A mode field diameter (MFD) is a fundamental parameter of single
mode fibers. It tells us about the geometric distribution of light. MFD is analogous to core
diameter in multimode fibers, except in single mode fibers not all the light that propagates is
carried in the core.
4. Which equation is used to calculate MFD? a) Maxwell’s equations b) Peterman equations
c) Allen Cahn equations d) Boltzmann’s equations View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Mode field diameter is an important parameter for single mode fibers
because it is used to predict fiber properties such as splice loss, bending loss. The standard
technique is to first measure the far-field intensity distribution and then calculating mode
field diameter using Peterman equations.
5. A single mode fiber has mode field diameter 10.2μm and V=2.20. What is the core
diameter of this fiber? a) 11.1μm b) 13.2μm c) 7.6μm d) 10.1μm View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: For a single mode fiber, MFD=2w0. Here, core radius Solving this
equation, we get a=5.05μm. Core-diameter=2a=10.1μm.
6. The difference between the modes’ refractive indices is called as ___________ a)
Polarization b) Cutoff c) Fiber birefringence d) Fiber splicing View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: There are two propagation modes in single mode fibers. These two
modes are similar but their polarization planes are orthogonal. In actual fibers, there are
imperfections such as variations in refractive index profiles. These modes propagate with
different phase velocities and their difference is given by B f =ny – nx. Here, ny and nx are
refractive indices of two modes.
7. A single mode fiber has a beat length of 4cm at 1200nm. What is birefringence? a) 2*10 -5
b) 1.2*10-5 c) 3*10-5 d) 2 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Bf=ny– nx = λ/Lp. Here, λ=wavelength and Lp = beat length. Solving
this equation, we will get the answer.
8. How many propagation modes are present in single mode fibers? a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Five View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: For a given optical fiber, the number of modes depends on the
dimensions of the cable and the variations of the indices of refraction of both core and
cladding across the cross section. Thus, for a single mode fiber, there are two independent,
degenerate propagation modes with their polarization planes orthogonal.
9. Numerical aperture is constant in case of step index fiber. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Numerical aperture is a measure of acceptance angle of a fiber. It
also gives the light gathering capacity of the fiber. For a single mode fiber, core is of constant
refractive index. There is no variation with respect to core. Thus, Numerical aperture is
constant for single mode fibers.
10. Plastic fibers are less widely used than glass fibers. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The majority of the fibers are made up of glass consisting of silica.
Plastic fibers are used for short distance transmissions unlike glass fibers which can also be
used for long haul applications. Also, plastic fibers have higher attenuation than glass fibers.
This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers focuses on
“Electromagnetic Mode Theory for Optical Propagation”.
1. Which equations are best suited for the study of electromagnetic wave propagation? a)
Maxwell’s equations b) Allen-Cahn equations c) Avrami equations d) Boltzmann’s equations
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Electromagnetic mode theory finds its basis in electromagnetic
waves. Electromagnetic waves are always represented in terms of electric field E, magnetic
field H, electric flux density D and magnetic flux density B. These set of equations are
provided by Maxwell’s equations.
2. When λ is the optical wavelength in vacuum, k is given by k=2Π/λ. What does k stand for
in the above equation? a) Phase propagation constant b) Dielectric constant c) Boltzmann’s
constant d) Free-space constant View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In the above equation, k = 2Π/λ, also termed as wave equation, k
gives us the direction of propagation and also the rate of change of phase with distance.
Hence it is termed as phase propagation constant.
3. Constructive interference occur when total phase change after two successive reflections at
upper and lower interfaces is equal to? (Where m is integer) a) 2Πm b) Πm c) Πm/4 d) Πm/6
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The component of phase waves which is in x direction is reflected at
the interference between the higher and lower refractive index media. It is assumed that such
an interference forms a lowest order standing wave, where electric field is maximum at the
center of the guide, decaying towards zero.
4. When light is described as an electromagnetic wave, it consists of a periodically varying
electric E and magnetic field H which are oriented at an angle? a) 90 degree to each other b)
Less than 90 degree c) Greater than 90 degree d) 180 degree apart View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In case of electromagnetic wave which occur only in presence of
both electric and magnetic field, a particular change in magnetic field will result in a
proportional change in electric field and vice versa. These changes result in formation of
electromagnetic waves and for electromagnetic waves to occur both fields should be
perpendicular to each other in direction of wave travelling.
5. A monochromatic wave propagates along a waveguide in z direction. These points of
constant phase travel in constant phase travel at a phase velocity V p is given by? a) Vp=ω/β b)
Vp=ω/c c) Vp=C/N d) Vp=mass/acceleration View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Velocity is a function of displacement. Phase velocity V p is a
measure of angular velocity.
6. Which is the most important velocity in the study of transmission characteristics of optical
fiber? a) Phase velocity b) Group velocity c) Normalized velocity
d) Average velocity View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Group velocity is much important in relation to transmission
characteristics of optical fiber. This is because the optical wave propagates in groups or form
of packets of light.
7. What is refraction? a) Bending of light waves b) Reflection of light waves c) Diffusion of
light waves d) Refraction of light waves View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Unlike reflection, refraction involves penetration of a light wave
from one medium to another. While penetrating, as it passes through another medium it gets
deviated at some angle.
8. The phenomenon which occurs when an incident wave strikes an interface at an angle
greater than the critical angle with respect to the normal to the surface is called as
____________ a) Refraction b) Partial internal reflection c) Total internal reflection d)
Limiting case of refraction View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Total internal reflection takes place when the light wave is in the
more dense medium and approaching towards the less dense medium. Also, the angle of
incidence is greater than the critical angle. Critical angle is an angle beyond which no
propagation takes place in an optical fiber.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Cylindrical Fiber”.
1. A multimode step index fiber has a normalized frequency of 72. Estimate the number of
guided modes. a) 2846 b) 2592 c) 2432 d) 2136 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A step-index fiber has a constant refractive index core. The number
of guided

modes in a step-index fiber are given by M = (V*V)/2. Here M denotes the number of modes
and V denotes normalized frequency.
2. A graded-index fiber has a core with parabolic refractive index profile of diameter of
30μm, NA=0.2, λ=1μm. Estimate the normalised frequency. a) 19.32 b) 18.84 c) 16.28 d)
17.12 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Normalized frequency for a graded index fiber is given by V =
2Πa(NA)/λ. Substituting and calculating the values, we get option 18.84. Here, V denotes
normalized frequency and NA = numerical aperture.
3. A step-index fiber has core refractive index 1.46 and radius 4.5μm. Find the cutoff
wavelength to exhibit single mode operation. Use relative index difference as 0.25%. a)
1.326μm b) 0.124μm c) 1.214μm d) 0.123μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The cutoff wavelength is the wavelength beyond which no single
mode operation takes place. On solving λc = 2Πan1 2Δ−−−√/V, we get option c. Here,
V=2.405, n1 = refractive index of core, a=radius of core.
4. A single-mode step-index fiber or multimode step-index fiber allows propagation of only
one transverse electromagnetic wave. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Single mode step index fiber is also called as mono-mode step index
fiber. As the name suggests, only one mode is transmitted and hence it has the distinct
advantage of low intermodal dispersion.
5. One of the given statements is true for intermodal dispersion. Choose the right one. a) Low
in single mode and considerable in multimode fiber b) Low in both single mode and
multimode fiber c) High in both single mode and multimode fiber d) High in single mode and
low in multimode fiber View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Single mode propagates only one wave or only one mode is
transmitted. Therefore, intermodal dispersion is low in single mode. In multimode fibers,
higher dispersion may occur due to varying group velocities of propagating modes.
6. For lower bandwidth applications ______________ a) Single mode fiber is advantageous
b) Photonic crystal fibers are advantageous c) Coaxial cables are advantageous d) Multimode
fiber is advantageous View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In multimode fibers, intermodal dispersion occurs. The group
velocities often differ which gradually restricts maximum bandwidth attainability in
multimode fibers.
7. Most of the optical power is carried out in core region than in cladding. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In an ideal multimode fiber, there is no mode coupling. The optical
power launched into a particular mode remains in that mode itself. The majority of these
modes are mostly confined to fiber core only.
8. Meridional rays in graded index fibers follow ____________ a) Straight path along the
axis b) Curved path along the axis c) Path where rays changes angles at core-cladding
interface d) Helical path View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Meridional rays pass through axis of the core. Due to the varying
refractive index at the core, the path of rays is in curved form.
9. What is the unit of normalized frequency? a) Hertz b) Meter/sec c) Coulombs d) It is a
dimensionless quantity View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Normalized frequency of optical fiber is the frequency which exists
at cut-off
condition. There is no propagation and attenuation above cut-off. It is directly proportional to
numerical aperture which is a dimensionless quantity; hence itself is a dimensionless
quantity.
10. Skew rays follow a ___________ a) Hyperbolic path along the axis b) Parabolic path
along the axis c) Helical path d) Path where rays changes angles at core-cladding interface
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The ray which does not pass through the fiber axis is termed as skew
ray. Unlike Meridional rays, skew rays are more in number which makes them follow a round
path called as helical path.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Photonic Crystal Fibers & Attenuation”.
1. Photonic crystal fibers also called as ___________ a) Conventional fibers b) Dotted fibers
c) Stripped fibers d) Holey fibers View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Photonic crystal fibers contain a fine array of air holes running
longitudinally down the fiber cladding. The microstructure within the fiber is highly periodic.
2. Conventional optical fibers has more transmission losses than photonic crystal fibers. a)
True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Conventional optical fibers have several hundreds of losses in
transmission. Photonic crystal fibers have resulted in reduction in overall transmission losses.
3. Losses in photonic crystal fibers are reduced to a level of ___________ a) 0.1dB/km b)
0.2dB/km c) 0.3dB/km d) 0.4dB/km View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Conventional fibers have losses of several hundred decibels per km.
The invention of photonic crystal tubes has reduced the losses by hundreds of decibels.
4. The high index contrast enables the PCF core to be reduced from around 8 μmin
conventional fiber to ___________ a) Less than 1μm b) More than 5μm c) More than 3μm d)
More than 2μm View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: PCF’s have a wider range of optical properties in comparison with
standard fibers. The lesser the core, more is the intensity of light in the core and enhances the
non-linear effects.
5. The periodic arrangement of cladding air holes in photonic band gap fibers provides for the
formation of a photonic band gap in the ___________ a) H-plane of fiber b) E-plane of fiber
c) E-H-plane of fiber d) Transverse plane of fiber View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Photonic band gap fibers are a class of micro structured fiber in
which periodic arrangement of air holes is required. As a PBG fiber exhibits a 2-dimensional
band gap, than the wavelengths within this band gap cannot propagate perpendicular to the
fiber axis.
6. In index-guided photonic crystal fiber structure, the dark areas are air holes. What does
white areas suggests? a) Air b) Silica c) Water d) Plasma View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Index-guided photonic crystal fibers have greater index contrast
because the cladding contains air-holes having refractive index 1. Both index guided and
conventional fibers arises from the manner in which guided mode interacts with the cladding
region.
7. Which is the unit of measurement of attenuation in optical fibers? a) km b) dB c) dB/km
d) Coulomb’s View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Attenuation is also referred to as transmission loss. Channel
attenuation helped to determine the maximum transmission distance prior to signal
restoration. Attenuation is usually expressed in logarithmic unit of decibel. It is given by α dBL
= 10 log10Pi / Po Where αdB = signal attenuation per unit length Pi & Po = Input and output
power.
8. The optical fiber incurs a loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber which is
called as ___________ a) Scattering b) Attenuation c) Absorption d) Refraction View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: When the light is passed through the fiber, it travels a large amount
of distance before it starts fading. It needs restoration in the path. This loss or fading is called
as Attenuation.
9. If the input power 100μW is launched into 6 km of fiber, the mean optical power at the
fiber output is 2μW. What is the overall signal attenuation through the fiber assuming there
are no connectors or splices? a) 15.23dB b) 16.98dB c) 17.12dB d) 16.62dB View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Signal attenuation is usually expressed in decibels. It is given by
Signal attenuation=10 log10Pi / Po Where, Pi & Po = Input and output power.
10. A device that reduces the intensity of light in optical fiber communications is
___________ a) compressor b) Optical attenuator c) Barometer d) Reducer View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A compressor compresses the signal before transmission. It does not
affect the
intensity of light. Optical attenuator is a device that affects the intensity of light and incurs a
loss in transmission.
11. A decibel may be defined as the ratio of input and output optical power for a particular
optical wavelength. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Signal attenuation refers to the loss in transmission and it needs a
logarithmic unit to express. Decibel is mainly used for comparing two power levels. It has the
advantage that the operations of multiplication and division reduce to addition and
subtraction.
12. When the input and output power in an optical fiber is 120μW & 3μW respectively and
the length of the fiber is 8 km. What is the signal attenuation per km for the fiber? a) 3dB/km
b) 2dB/km c) 1dB/km d) 4dB/km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Signal attenuation per unit length is given by α dBL = 10 log10Pi / Po
αdBL = 16 dB αdB = 16 dB/L = 2dB/km.
2. Questions on Transmission Characteristics Of Optical Fibers
The section contains questions on material absorption and fiber bend loss, linear and
nonlinear scattering losses, chromatic and intermodal dispersion, fiber dispersion,
polarization and nonlinear effects.
This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on
“Material Absorption & Fiber Bend Losses In Silicon Glass Fibers”.
1. Which of the following statements best explain the concept of material absorption? a) A
loss mechanism related to the material composition and fabrication of fiber b) A transmission
loss for optical fibers c) Results in attenuation of transmitted light d) Causes of transfer of
optical power View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Material absorption is a loss mechanism that results in dissipation of
transmitted
optical power as heat in a waveguide. It can be caused by impurities or interaction with other
components of the core.
2. How many mechanisms are there which causes absorption? a) One b) Three c) Two d)
Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Absorption is a loss mechanism. It may be intrinsic, extrinsic and
also caused by atomic defects.
3. Absorption losses due to atomic defects mainly include ___________ a) Radiation b)
Missing molecules, oxygen defects in glass c) Impurities in fiber material d) Interaction with
other components of core View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Atomic defects are imperfections in the atomic structure of fiber
material. Atomic structure includes nucleus, molecules, protons etc. Atomic defects thus
contribute towards loss of molecules, oxygen, etc.
4. The effects of intrinsic absorption can be minimized by ___________ a) Ionization b)
Radiation c) Suitable choice of core and cladding components d) Melting View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Intrinsic absorption is caused by interaction of light with one or more
components of the glass i.e. core. Thus, if the compositions of core and cladding are chosen
suitably, this effect can be minimized.
5. Which of the following is not a metallic impurity found in glass in extrinsic absorption? a)
Fe2+ b) Fe3+ c) Cu d) Si View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In the optical fibers, prepared by melting techniques, extrinsic
absorption can be observed. It is caused from transition metal element impurities. In all these
options, Si is a constituent of glass and it cannot be considered as an impurity to glass itself.
6. Optical fibers suffer radiation losses at bends or curves on their paths. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optical fibers suffer radiation losses due to the energy in the bend or
curves exceeding the velocity of light in the cladding. Hence, guiding mechanism is inhibited,
which in turn causes light energy to be radiated from the fiber.
7. In the given equation, state what αr suggests? a) Radius of curvature b) Refractive index
difference c) Radiation attenuation coefficients d) Constant of proportionality View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Above equation represents the fiber loss. This loss is seen at bends
and curves as the fibers suffer radiation losses at curves. These radiation losses are
represented by a radiation attenuation coefficient (αr).
8. A multimode fiber has refractive indices n1 = 1.15, n2 = 1.11 and an operating wavelength
of 0.7μm. Find the radius of curvature? a) 8.60μ m b) 9.30μm c) 9.1μm d) 10.2μm View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The radius of curvature of the fiber bend of a multimode fiber is
given by Where, Rc = radius of curvature n1, n2 = refractive indices λ = wavelength.
9. A single mode fiber has refractive indices n1=1.50, n2 = 2.23, core diameter of 8μ m,
wavelength = 1.5μm cutoff wavelength = 1.214μm. Find the radius of curvature? a) 12 mm b)
20 mm
c) 34 mm d) 36 mm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The radius of curvature of the fiber bend of a single mode fiber is
given by- Where R = radius of curvature, n1, n2 = refractive indices, λ c = cutoff wavelength,
λ = operating wavelength.
10. How the potential macro bending losses can be reduced in case of multimode fiber? a) By
designing fibers with large relative refractive index differences b) By maintaining direction of
propagation c) By reducing the bend d) By operating at larger wavelengths View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In the case of multimode fibers, radius of curvature is directly
proportional to core refractive index and operating wavelength. In order to reduce the macro
bending losses, the operative wavelength must be small and fibers must have large relative
refractive index difference. Losses are inversely proportional to refractive index differences.
11. Sharp bends or micro bends causes significant losses in fiber. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Sharp bends usually have a radius of curvature almost near to the
critical radius. The fibers with the radius near to the critical radius cause significant losses
and hence they are avoided.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Linear & Non-Linear Scattering Losses”.
1. Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering are the types of _____________ a) Linear scattering
losses b) Non-linear scattering losses c) Fiber bends losses d) Splicing losses View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering both result from non-ideal
physical properties of the fiber. These losses may be impossible to eradicate. Linear
scattering mechanisms cause the transfer of optical power contained within one propagating
mode to be transferred linearly into a different mode.
2. Dominant intrinsic loss mechanism in low absorption window between ultraviolet and
infrared absorption tails is ___________ a) Mie scattering b) Rayleigh scattering c)
Stimulated Raman scattering d) Stimulated Brillouin scattering View Answer
3. Rayleigh scattering can be reduced by operating at smallest possible wavelengths. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Rayleigh scattering results from inhomogeneity of a random nature
occurring on a small level compared with the wavelength of light. The Rayleigh scattering is
inversely proportional to the wavelength. Thus, as wavelength scattering reduces.
4. The scattering resulting from fiber imperfections like core-cladding RI differences,
diameter fluctuations, strains, and bubbles is? a) Rayleigh scattering b) Mie scattering c)
Stimulated Brillouin scattering d) Stimulated Raman scattering View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Linear scattering also occurs at inhomogeneity which are comparable
in size with the guided wavelength. These results from non-perfect cylindrical structures of
the waveguide and hence caused by fiber imperfections.
5. Mie scattering has in-homogeneities mainly in ___________ a) Forward direction b)
Backward direction c) All direction d) Core-cladding interface View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In Mie scattering, the scattering in-homogeneities size is greater
thanλ/10. Also, the
scattered intensity has an angular dependence which is very large. The in-homogeneities are
mainly in the direction of guided wavelength i.e. in forward direction.
6. The in-homogeneities in Mie scattering can be reduced by coating of a fiber. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Mie scattering is a type of linear scattering loss. It results from
fluctuations in diameter, differences in core-cladding refractive index, and differences along
the fiber length. Therefore, such in-homogeneities can be reduced by controlled extrusion and
coating of the fiber.
7. Raman and Brillouin scattering are usually observed at ___________ a) Low optical power
densities b) Medium optical power densities c) High optical power densities d) Threshold
power densities View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Raman and Brillouin scattering mechanism are non-linear. They
provide optical gain but with a shift in frequency, thus contributing to attenuation for light
transmission at a particular wavelength. They can be seen at high optical power densities.
8. The phonon is a quantum of an elastic wave in a crystal lattice. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A phonon is an elastic arrangement of atoms or molecules in
condensed matter. This matter maybe solids or liquids. A phonon is a discrete unit of
vibrational mechanical energy given by hf joules; Where h = Planck’s constant f = frequency.
9. A single-mode optical fiber has an attenuation of 0.3dB/km when operating at wavelength
of 1.1μm. The fiber core diameter is 4μm and bandwidth is 500 MHz. Find threshold optical
power for stimulated Brillouin scattering. a) 11.20 mw b) 12.77 mw c) 13.08 mw d) 12.12
mw View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The threshold optical power stimulated Brillouin scattering is given
by- PB = 4.4*10-3d2λ2αdBv Where, PB = threshold optical power d = diameter of core λ =
wavelength αdB = attenuation.
10. 0.4 dB/km, 1.4μm, 6μm, 550MHz. Find threshold optical power for stimulated Raman
scattering. a) 1.98 W b) 1.20 W c) 1.18 W d) 0.96 W View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The threshold optical power stimulated Raman scattering is given by-
PR = 5.9*10-2d2λαdB Where, PR = optical power for Raman scattering d = diameter of core λ =
wavelength αdB = attenuation.
11. Stimulated Brillouin scattering is mainly a ___________ a) Forward process b) Backward
process c) Upward process d) Downward process View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The incident photon in Stimulated Brillouin scattering reduces a
phonon of acoustic frequency as well as scattered photon. This produces an optical frequency
shift which varies with the scattering angle. This frequency shift is max. in backward
direction reducing to zero in forward direction making Stimulated Brillouin scattering a
backward process.
12. High frequency optical phonon is generated in stimulated Raman scattering. a) False b)
True View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: An acoustic proton is generated in Stimulated Brillouin scattering.
Raman scattering may have an optical power threshold higher than Stimulated Brillouin
scattering.
13. Stimulated Raman scattering occur in ___________ a) Forward direction b) Backward
direction c) Upward direction d) Forward and backward direction View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Stimulated Raman scattering is similar to Stimulated Brillouin
scattering except that a high frequency phonon is generated in Stimulated Raman scattering.
Stimulated Raman scattering can occur in forward and backward direction as it has optical
power threshold higher than Stimulated Brillouin scattering.
14. Stimulated Raman scattering may have an optical power threshold of may be three orders
of magnitude ___________ a) Lower than Brillouin threshold b) Higher than Brillouin
threshold c) Same as Brillouin threshold d) Higher than Rayleigh threshold View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Stimulated Raman scattering involves generation of high- frequency
phonon. Stimulated Brillouin scattering on the other hand, involves the generation of an
acoustic phonon in a scattering process.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Dispersion – Chromatic Dispersion “.
1. What is dispersion in optical fiber communication? a) Compression of light pulses b)
Broadening of transmitted light pulses along the channel c) Overlapping of light pulses on
compression d) Absorption of light pulses View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Dispersion of transmitted optical signal causes distortion of analog as
well as digital transmission. When the optical signal travels along the channel, the dispersion
mechanism causes broadening of light pulses and thus in turn overlaps with their neighboring
pulses.
2. What does ISI stand for in optical fiber communication? a) Invisible size interference b)
Infrared size interference c) Inter-symbol interference
d) Inter-shape interference View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Dispersion causes the light pulses to broaden and overlap with other
light pulses. This overlapping creates an interference which is termed as inter-symbol
interference.
3. For no overlapping of light pulses down on an optical fiber link, the digital bit rate BT
must be ___________ a) Less than the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration b) More than
the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration c) Same as that of than the reciprocal of broadened
pulse duration d) Negligible View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The digital bit rate and pulse duration are always inversely
proportional to each other. BT < = 12 Γ Where BT = bit rate 2Γ = duration of pulse.
4. The maximum bit rate that may be obtained on an optical fiber link is 1/3Γ. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The digital bit rate is function of signal attenuation on a link and
signal to noise ratio. For the restriction of interference, the bit rate should be always equal to
or less than 1/2Γ.
5. 3dB optical bandwidth is always ___________ the 3dB electrical bandwidth. a) Smaller
than b) Larger than c) Negligible than d) Equal to View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Optical bandwidth is half of the maximum data rate. For non-return:0
(NRZ), bandwidth is same as bit rate. The bandwidth B for metallic conductors is defined by
electrical 3dB points. Optical communication uses electrical circuitry where signal power has
dropped to half its value due to modulated portion of modulated signal.
6. A multimode graded index fiber exhibits a total pulse broadening of 0.15μsover a distance
of 16 km. Estimate the maximum possible bandwidth, assuming no intersymbol interference.
a) 4.6 MHz b) 3.9 MHz c) 3.3 MHz d) 4.2 MHz View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The maximum possible bandwidth is equivalent to the maximum
possible bitrate. The maximum bit rate assuming no inter-symbol interference is given by BT
= 12 Γ Where BT = bandwidth.
7. What is pulse dispersion per unit length if for a graded index fiber, 0.1μs pulse broadening
is seen over a distance of 13 km? a) 6.12ns/km b) 7.69ns/km c) 10.29ns/km d) 8.23ns/km
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The dispersion mechanism causes broadening of light pulses. The
pulse dispersion per unit length is obtained by dividing total dispersion of total length of
fiber. Dispersion = 0.1*10-6/13 = 7.69 ns/km.
8. Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Intermodal delay is a result of each mode having a different group
velocity at a single frequency. The intermodal delay helps us to know about the information
carrying capacity of the fiber.
9. Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Intermodal delay, the name only suggests, includes many modes. On
the other hand chromatic dispersion is pulse spreading that takes place within a single mode.
Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion.
10. The optical source used in a fiber is an injection laser with a relative spectral width σ λ/λ
of 0.0011 at a wavelength of 0.70μm. Estimate the RMS spectral width. a) 1.2 nm b) 1.3 nm
c) 0.77 nm d) 0.98 nm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The relative spectral width σ λ/λ= 0.01 is given. The rms spectral
width can be calculated as follows: σλ/λ = 0.0011 σλ = 0.0011λ = 0.0011*0.70*10-6 = 0.77
nm.
11. In waveguide dispersion, refractive index is independent of ______________ a) Bit rate
b) Index difference c) Velocity of medium d) Wavelength View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In material dispersion, refractive index is a function of optical
wavelength. It varies as a function of wavelength. In wavelength dispersion, group delay is
expressed in terms of normalized propagation constant instead of wavelength.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Intermodal Dispersion”.
1. Intermodal dispersion occurring in a large amount in multimode step index fiber results in
____________ a) Propagation of the fiber b) Propagating through the fiber c) Pulse
broadening at output d) Attenuation of waves View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion is caused due to
difference in propagation delay between different modes in the multimode fiber. As different
modes travel with different group velocities, the pulse width at output depends on
transmission time of all modes. This creates difference in overall dispersion which results in
pulse broadening.
2. After Total Internal Reflection the Meridional ray __________ a) Makes an angle equal to
acceptance angle with the axial ray b) Makes an angle equal to critical angle with the axial
ray c) Travels parallel equal to critical angle with the axial ray d) Makes an angle equal to
critical angle with the axial ray View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The Meridional ray travels along the axis of the fiber. When the ray
is incident, makes an angle equal to acceptance angle and thus it propagates through the fiber.
As the propagating ray gets refracted from the boundary, it makes an angle (i.e. critical angle)
with the normal.
3. Consider a single mode fiber having core refractive index n1= 1.5. The fiber length is 12m.
Find the time taken by the axial ray to travel along the fiber. a) 1.00μsec b) 0.06μsec c)
0.90μsec d) 0.30μsec View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The time taken by the axial ray to travel along the fiber gives the
minimum delay time Tmin = Ln1/c Where L = length of the fiber n1 = Refractive index of core
c = velocity of light in vacuum.
4. A 4 km optical link consists of multimode step index fiber with core refractive index of 1.3
and a relative refractive index difference of 1%. Find the delay difference between the
slowest and fastest modes at the fiber output. a) 0.173 μsec b) 0.152 μsec c) 0.96 μsec d)
0.121 μsec View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The delay difference is given by δTs = Ln1/c Where δTs = delay
difference n1 = core refractive index Δ = Relative refractive index difference c = velocity of
light in vacuum.
5. A multimode step-index fiber has a core refractive index of 1.5 and relative refractive
index difference of 1%. The length of the optical link is 6 km. Estimate the RMS pulse
broadening due to intermodal dispersion on the link. a) 92.6 ns b) 86.7 ns c) 69.3 ns d) 68.32
ns View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion is obtained
by the equation is given below: σs = Ln1Δ/2√3c Where σs = RMS pulse broadening L =
length of optical link C = velocity of light in vacuum n1 = core refractive index.
6. The differential attenuation of modes reduces intermodal pulse broadening on a multimode
optical link. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Intermodal dispersion may be reduced by propagation mechanisms.
The differential attenuation of various modes is due to the greater field penetration of the
higher order modes into the cladding of waveguide. These slower modes exhibit larger losses
at any core-cladding irregularities.
7. The index profile of a core of multimode graded index fiber is given by? a) N (r) = n1 [1 –
2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a b) N (r) = n1 [3 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a c) N (r) = n1 [5 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r>a d) N
(r) = n1 [1 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In multimode graded index fibers, many rays can propagate
simultaneously. The Meridional rays follow sinusoidal trajectories of different path length
which results from index grading.
8. Intermodal dispersion in multimode fibers is minimized with the use of step-index fibers.
a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: As multimode graded index fibers show substantial bandwidth
improvement over multimode step index fibers. So, inter-modal dispersion in multimode
fiber is minimized with the use of multimode graded index fibers.
9. Estimate RMS pulse broadening per km due to intermodal dispersion for multimode step
index fiber where length of fiber is 4 km and pulse broadening per km is 80.6 ns. a)
18.23ns/km b) 20.15ns/km c) 26.93ns/km d) 10.23ns/km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening per km due to intermodal dispersion for
multimode step index fiber is given by (σ s(1 km)/L = 80.6/4 = 20.15 Where L = length of
fiber σs = pulse broadening.
10. Practical pulse broadening value for graded index fiber lies in the range of __________ a)
0.9 to 1.2 ns/km b) 0.2 to 1 ns/km c) 0.23 to 5 ns/km d) 0.45 to 8 ns/km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: As all optical fiber sources have a finite spectral width, the profile
shape must be altered to compensate for this dispersion mechanism. The minimum overall
dispersion for graded index fiber is also limited by other intermodal dispersion mechanism.
Thus pulse broadening values lie within range of 0.2 to 1 ns/km.
11. The modal noise occurs when uncorrected source frequency is? a) δf>>1/δT b) δf=1/δT c)
δf<<1/δT d) Negligible View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Modal noise is dependent on change in frequency. Frequency is
inversely proportional to time. The patterns are formed by interference of modes from a
coherent source when coherence time of source is greater than intermodal dispersion time δT
within fiber.
12. Disturbance along the fiber such as vibrations, discontinuities, connectors, splices,
source/detectors coupling result in __________ a) Modal noise b) Inter-symbol interference
c) Infrared interference d) Pulse broadening View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Disturbance along the fiber cause fluctuations in specific pattern.
These speckle patterns have characteristics time longer than resolution time of detector and is
known as modal noise.
13. The modal noise can be reduced by __________ a) Decreasing width of signal
longitudinal mode b) Increasing coherence time c) Decreasing number of longitudinal modes
d) Using fiber with large numerical aperture View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Disturbances along fiber cause fluctuations in speckle patterns.
Fibers with large numerical apertures support the transmission of large number of modes
giving greater number of speckle, thereby reducing modal noise.
14. Digital transmission is more likely to be affected by modal noise. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Analog transmission is more affected by modal noise due to higher
optical power levels which is required at receiver when quantum noise effects are considered.
So it is important to look into design considerations.
This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
“Overall Fiber Dispersion & Modified Single Mode Fibers”.
1. A multimode step index fiber has source of RMS spectral width of 60nm and dispersion
parameter for fiber is 150psnm-1km-1. Estimate rms pulse broadening due to material
dispersion. a) 12.5ns km-1 b) 9.6ns km-1 c) 9.0ns km-1 d) 10.2ns km-1 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening per km due to material dispersion is
given by σm(1 km) = σλLM = 60*1* 150pskm-1 = 9.0nskm-1 Where σλ = rms spectral width L
= length of fiber M = dispersion parameter.
2. A multimode fiber has RMS pulse broadening per km of 12ns/km and 28ns/km due to
material dispersion and intermodal dispersion resp. Find the total RMS pulse broadening. a)
30.46ns/km b) 31.23ns/km c) 28.12ns/km d) 26.10ns/km View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The overall dispersion in multimode fibers comprises both chromatic
and intermodal terms. The total RMS pulse broadening σ T is given by Where σm = RMS
pulse broadening due to material dispersion σi = RMS pulse broadening due to intermodal
dispersion.
3. Γg = dβ / C*dk. What is β in the given equation? a) Attenuation constant b) Propagation
constant c) Boltzmann’s constant d) Free-space View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Above given equation is an equation of transit time or a group
delay(Γg) for a light pulse. This light pulse is propagating along a unit length of a single
mode fiber.
4. Most of the power in an optical fiber is transmitted in fiber cladding. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Most of the power in optical fiber is transmitted in fiber core. This is
because in multimode fibers, majority of modes propagating in the core area are far from
cutoff. Hence more power is transmitted.
5. A single mode fiber has a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.21μm and a dispersion slope of
0.08 psnm-2km-1. What is the total first order dispersion at wavelength 1.26μm. a) -2.8psnm-1
km-1 b) -3.76psnm-1 km-1 c) -1.2psnm-1 km-1 d) 2.4psnm-1 km-1 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The total first order dispersion for fiber at two wavelength is
obtained by DT(1260 nm) = λS0/4 [1-(λ0/λ)4] = (1260*0.08*10-12)/4 * (1-[1550/1260]4) = -
3.76psnm-1km-1 Where λ0 = zero dispersion wavelength λ = wavelength S0 = dispersion slope
DT = total first order dispersion.
6. The dispersion due to material, waveguide and profile are -2.8nm-1km-1, 20.1nm-1km-1 and
23.2nm-1km-1respectively. Find the total first order dispersion? a) 36.2psnm-1 km-1 b)
38.12psnm-1 km-1 c) 40.5psnm-1 km-1 d) 20.9psnm-1 km-1 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The total dispersion is given by D T = DM + DW + DP(psnm-1km-1)
Where DW = waveguide dispersion DM = Material dispersion DP = profile dispersion.
7. Dispersion-shifted single mode fibers are created by __________ a) Increasing fiber core
diameter and decreasing fractional index difference b) Decreasing fiber core diameter and
decreasing fractional index difference c) Decreasing fiber core diameter and increasing
fractional index difference d) Increasing fiber core diameter and increasing fractional index
difference View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: It is possible to modify the dispersion characteristics of single mode
fibers by tailoring of some fiber parameters. These fiber parameters include core diameter
and relative index difference.
8. An alternative modification of the dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers involves
achievement of low dispersion gap over the low-loss wavelength region between __________
a) 0.2 and 0.9μm b) 0.1 and 0.2μm c) 1.3 and 1.6μm d) 2 and 3μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Dispersion characteristics can be altered by changing fiber
parameters and wavelength. The achievement of low dispersion gap over the region 1.3 and
1.6μm modifies the dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers.
9. The fibers which relax the spectral requirements for optical sources and allow flexible
wavelength division multiplying are known as __________ a) Dispersion-flattened single
mode fiber b) Dispersion-enhanced single mode fiber c) Dispersion-compressed single mode
fiber d) Dispersion-standardized single mode fiber View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The dispersion-flattened single mode fibers (DFFS) are obtained by
fabricating multilayer index profiles with increased waveguide dispersion. This is tailored to
provide overall dispersion say 2psnm-1km-1 over the wavelength range 1.3 to 1.6μm.
10. For suitable power confinement of fundamental mode, the normalized frequency v should
be maintained in the range 1.5 to 2.4μm and the fractional index difference must be linearly
increased as a square function while the core diameter is linearly reduced to keep v constant.
This confinement is achieved by? a) Increasing level of silica doping in fiber core b)
Increasing level of germanium doping in fiber core c) Decreasing level of silica germanium
in fiber core d) Decreasing level of silica doping in fiber core View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The tailoring of fiber parameters provides suitable power
confinement. These parameters may be diameter, index-difference, frequency etc. The doping
level of germanium contributes to the tailoring of fiber parameters; which in turn provides
suitable power confinement.
11. Any amount of stress occurring at the core-cladding interface would be reduced by
grading the material composition. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A problem arises with that of simple step index approach to
dispersion shifting is high. The fibers produced exhibit high dopant-dependent losses at
operating wavelengths. These losses are caused by induced-stress in the region of core-
cladding interface. This can be reduced by grading the material composition of the fiber.
12. The variant of non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber is called as __________ a) Dispersion
flattened fiber b) Zero-dispersion fiber c) Positive-dispersion fiber d) Negative-dispersion
fiber View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The dispersion profile for non-zero dispersion shifted fiber is referred
to as bandwidth non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber. It was introduced to provide wavelength
division multiplexed applications to be extended into the s-band. The variant of non-zero-
dispersion-shifted fiber can also be referred to as dispersion compensating fiber.
13. Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced in the year 2000. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced in mid-1990s to
provide wavelength division multiplexing applications. In the year 2000, the dispersion
profile for non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Polarization”.
1. For many applications that involve optical fiber transmission, an intensity modulation
optical source is not required. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In many optical fibers transmission, the cylindrical fibers used
generally do not maintain polarization state of light input source not more than a few meters.
So for this reason, optical sources intensity modulation is required.
2. The optical source used for detection of optical signal is ____________ a) IR sensors b)
Photodiodes c) Zener diodes d) Transistors View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Optical signal is generally detected by photodiodes because
photodiode is generally insensitive to optical polarization or phase of light with the fiber.
3. An optical fiber behaves as a birefringence medium due to differences in ___________ a)
Effective R-I and core geometry b) Core-cladding symmetry c) Transmission/propagation
time of waves d) Refractive indices of glass and silica View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In an optical fiber with ideal optically circulatory symmetric core,
both polarization modes propagate with same velocities. These fibers have variations in
internal and external stress; fiber bending and so exhibit some birefringence.
4. The beat length in a single mode optical fiber is 8 cm when light from a laser with a peak
wavelength 0.6μm is launched into it. Estimate the modal birefringence. a) 1×10-5 b) 3.5×10-5
c) 2×10-5 d) 4×10-5 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Modal birefringence can be obtained by- BF = λ/LB = 0.8×10-6/0.08 =
1×10-5 Where λ = peak wavelength LB = beat length.
5. Beat length of a single mode optical fiber is 0.6cm. Calculate the difference between
propagation constants for the orthogonal modes. a) 69.8 b) 99.86 c) 73.2 d) 104.66 View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The difference between the propagation constant for two orthogonal
modes can be obtained by: βx – βy = 2Π/LB = 2×3.14/0.06 = 104.66 Where βx & βy are
propagation constants for slow & fast modes resp. LB = beat length.
6. A polarization maintaining fiber operates at a wavelength 1.2μm and have a modal
birefringence of 1.8*10-3. Calculate the period of perturbation. a) 0.7 seconds b) 0.6 seconds
c) 0.23 seconds d) 0.5 seconds View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The period of perturbation is given by- T = λ/BF Where λ is operating
wavelength, BF = Birefringence, T = period of perturbation.
7. When two components are equally excited at the fiber input, then for polarization
maintaining fibers δΓg should be around ___________ a) 1.5ns/km b) 1 ns/km c) 1.2ns/km d)
2ns/km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The differential group delay δΓg is related to polarization mode
dispersion (PMD) of fiber. This linear relationship to fiber length however applies only to
short fiber-lengths in which birefringence are uniform.
8. Polarization modal noise can _________ the performance of communication system. a)
Degrade b) Improve c) Reduce d) Attenuate View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Polarization modal noise is generally of larger amplitude than modal
noise. It is obtained within multimode fibers and so it degrades the performance of the
communication system and prevents transmission of analog signals.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Non-Linear Effects”.
1. The nonlinear effects in optical fibers are large. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The nonlinear effect arises from the interactions between light waves
and the material transmitting them and thus affects the optical signals. The nonlinear effects
are usually small in optical fibers. They have power levels of up to few milliWatts.
2. How many categories of nonlinear effects are seen in optical fibers? a) One b) Two c)
Three d) Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The nonlinear effects are separated on the basis of their
characteristics. There are two such categories; one is scattering effect and the other is Kerr
effect.
3. Which of the following is not related to Kerr effects? a) Self-phase modulation b) Cross-
phase modulation c) Four-wave mixing d) Stimulated Raman Scattering View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Stimulated Raman Scattering is related to scattering. The other
effects include modulation and mixing which are parts of Kerr effect.
4. Linear scattering effects are _______ in nature. a) Elastic b) Non-Elastic c) Mechanical d)
Electrical View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Linear scattering effects are elastic because the scattered wave
frequency is equal to incident wave frequency. Nonlinear scattering effects are purely
inelastic.
5. Which thing is more dominant in making a fiber function as a bidirectional optical
amplifier? a) Core material b) Pump source c) Cladding material d) Diameter of fiber View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Brillouin gain is always greater than Raman gain. It exists for light
propagation in opposite direction to the pump source. Also Brillouin frequency shifts and
gain bandwidth are much smaller than Raman. Raman amplification occurs for light
propagating in either direction. Thus, pump source is more important in making a fiber
function as bidirectional optical amplifier.
6. _________ semiconductor laser sources generally have broader bandwidths. a) Injection b)
Pulsed c) Solid-state d) Silicon hybrid View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Pulsed semiconductor lasers have broader bandwidths. Therefore,
these sources prove to be inefficient pump sources. They prove inefficient especially for
narrow gain spectrum.
7. Nonlinear effects which are defined by the intensity – dependent refractive index of the
fiber are called as ________ a) Scattering effects b) Kerr effects c) Raman effects d)
Tomlinson effects View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Kerr effects are nonlinear effects. Nonlinear effects are divided into
scattering and Kerr effects. Scattering effects include scattering of phonon whereas Kerr
effects include intensity refractive index parameters.
8. Self-phase modulation causes modifications to the pulse spectrum. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Kerr effect results in different transmission phase for the peak of the
pulse
compared with leading and trailing edges. Self-phase modulation can broaden the frequency
spectrum of the pulse as the time varying phase creates a time varying frequency.
9. Self-phase modulation can be used for _____________ a) Enhancing the core diameter b)
Wavelength shifting c) Decreasing the attenuation d) Reducing the losses in the fiber View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Self phase modulation is related to phase change. It imposes a
positive frequency sweep on the pulse which in turn enables wavelength or frequency
shifting.
10. The beating between light at different frequencies or wavelengths in multichannel fiber
transmission causes ________ a) Attenuation b) Amplitude modulation of channels c) Phase
modulation of channels d) Loss in transmission View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Phase modulation is related to frequency and wavelength shifting. In
multichannel fiber transmission, phase modulation causes generation of modulation
sidebands at new frequencies. This phenomenon is called as four-wave mixing.
11. What is different in case of cross-phase modulation from self-phase modulation? a)
Overlapping but same pulses b) Overlapping but distinguishable pulses c) Non-overlapping
and same pulses d) Non-overlapping but distinguishable pulses View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In cross phase modulation, variation in intensity of one pulse width
modulates the refractive index of the fiber which causes phase modulation of the overlapping
phases. In self-phase modulation, this phase modulation broadens the pulse spectrum.
12. When three wave components co-propagate at angular frequency w1, w2, w3, then a new
wave is generated at frequency w4, which is given by? a) w4 = w1 – w2 – w3 b) w4 = w1 +
w2 + w3 c) w4 = w1 + w2 – w3 d) w4 = w1 – w2 + w3 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: This type of frequency mixing is called as four-wave mixing. This
frequency combination is problematic for multichannel optical communication as they
become phase matched if the channel wavelengths are near to zero dispersion wavelengths.
13. _____________ results from a case of nonlinear dispersion compensation in which the
nonlinear dispersion compensation in which the nonlinear chirp caused by self-phase
modulation balances, postpones, the temporal broadening induced by group velocity delay. a)
Four wave mixing b) Phase modulation c) Soliton propagation d) Raman scattering View
Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Soliton propagation is a nonlinear dispersion phenomenon. It limits
the propagation distance that can be achieved when acting independently. It balances
broadening of light pulse.
3. Questions & Answers on Optical Fibers And Cables
The section contains questions and answers on vapour and liquid phase techniques, optical
fibers and its cables, fiber transmission characteristics and cable design.
This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses
on “Preparation of Optical Fibers – Liquid Phase Techniques”.
1. What is a fundamental necessity in the fabrication of fibers for light transmission? a) Same
refractive index for both core and cladding b) Pump source c) Material composition of fiber
d) Variation of refractive index inside the optical fiber View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: For fabrication of fibers, two different transparent materials to light
over a wavelength range of 0.8 to 1.7μm are required. Fiber should exhibit low attenuation,
absorption and scattering losses. The variation of refractive indices in a fiber is a necessity for
fiber fabrication.
2. Which materials are unsuitable for the fabrication of graded index fiber? a) Glass-like-
materials b) Mono-crystalline structures
c) Amorphous material d) Silica based material View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In case of graded index fiber, it is essential that the refractive index
of the material is varied by suitable doping with another compatible material. These two
materials should have mutual solubility over a wide range of concentration. This is achieved
only in glass-like-materials.
3. How many different categories are available for the methods of preparing optical glasses?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The methods of preparing optical glasses are divided into two
categories. One is the conventional glass refining technique and other is vapor-phase-
deposition method.
4. What is the first stage in liquid-phase-technique? a) Preparation of ultra-pure material
powders b) Melting of materials c) Decomposition d) Crystallization View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In liquid-phase-technique melting, the first stage includes the
preparation of ultra-pure material powders. These are usually oxides or carbonates which
decomposes during glass melting.
5. Which processes are involved in the purification stage in liquid-phase-technique? a)
Filtration, Co-precipitation, Re-crystallization b) Decomposition, Filtration, Drying c)
Doping, Drying, Decomposition d) Filtration, Drying, Doping View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The compounds such as oxides and carbonates are formed during the
glass melting. The purification accounts for a large proportion of material cost. These
compounds are commercially available. The purification involves filtration, co-precipitation,
re-crystallization and drying.
6. At what temperature range, does the melting of multi components glass systems takes
place? a) 100-300 degree Celsius b) 600-800 degree Celsius c) 900-1300 degree Celsius d)
1500-1800 degree Celsius View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The glass materials in the powdered form and have relatively low
melting point. Thus, the glass materials are melted at relatively low temperatures in the range
of 900-1300 degrees Celsius.
7. Fiber drawing using preform was useful for the production of graded index fibers. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A technique for producing fine optical fiber waveguides is to make a
preform using the rod in the tube process. This technique was useful for the production of
step-index fibers with large core diameters. In this technique, achievement of low attenuation
is not critical as there is a danger of including bubbles at the core-cladding interface.
8. The minute perturbations and impurities in the fiber drawing process using preform
technique can result in very high losses of _____________ a) Between 500 and 1000 dB/km
b) Between 100 and 300 dB/km c) Between 1200 and 1600 dB/km d) More than 2000 dB/km
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The minute perturbations and impurities in the fiber include
formations of bubbles and involvement of particulate matter. The losses due to such
impurities can be between 500 and 1000 dB/km.
9. The liquid-phase melting technique is used for the production of fibers ___________ a)
With a core diameter of 50μm b) With a core diameter less than 100μm c) With a core
diameter more than 200μm d) With a core diameter of 100μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The multicomponent glass fibers prepared continuously by liquid-
phase melting technique have losses in the range of 5 and 20 dB/km at a wavelength of
0.85μm. This method is
thus used for preparation of fibers with a large core diameter. Also this technique is used for
the continuous production of fibers.
10. Graded index fibers produced by liquid-phase melting techniques are less dispersive than
step-index fibers. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Liquid-phase melting technique does not offer optimum parabolic
profile fibers. This parabolic profile yields minimum pulse dispersion. Graded index fibers
prepared using liquid-phase melting techniques are less dispersive but do not have the
bandwidth-length products of optimum profile fibers.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Vapor – Phase Deposition Techniques”.
1. Which of the following is not a technique for fabrication of glass fibers? a) Vapor phase
oxidation method b) Direct melt method c) Lave ring method d) Chemical vapor deposition
technique View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Lave ring method refers to the deposition of a crystalline layer on a
substrate. All the other methods, except lave ring method, refer to optical fiber fabrication.
2. _____________ technique is method of preparing extremely pure optical glasses. a) Liquid
phase (melting) b) Radio frequency induction c) Optical attenuation d) Vapor Phase
Deposition (VPD) View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Vapor Phase Deposition techniques are used to prepare silica-rich
glasses. These glasses exhibit highest transparency and optimal optical properties.
3. Which of the following materials is not used as a starting material in vapor-phase
deposition technique? a) SiCl4 b) GeCl4 c) O2
d) B2O3 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In vapor-phase deposition technique, starting materials are volatile
organic compounds. These materials are distilled to reduce the concentration of transition
metal impurities. B2O3 is used as a dopant.
4. P2O5 is used as a _____________ a) Dopant b) Starting material c) Cladding glass d) Core
glass View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: P2O5 is a non silica material. Dopants are formed from non silica
materials so that refractive index modification is achieved. Other dopants include Ti O 2, Ge
O2, etc.
5. How many types of vapor-phase deposition techniques are present? a) One b) Two c)
Three d) Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Vapor-phase deposition techniques are divided into two types. The
two types are flame hydrolysis and chemical vapor deposition (CVD). Further, these two
types are subdivided into two more sections.
6. ___________ uses flame hydrolysis stems from work on soot processes which were used
to prepare the fiber with losses below 20 dB/km. a) Outside vapor phase oxidation b)
Chemical vapor deposition c) Liquid phase melting d) Crystallization View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Outside vapor phase oxidation is a type of vapor flame hydrolysis. It
was originally developed by Hyde. In this process, the glass composition is deposited from a
‘soot’ generated by hydrolyzing the halide vapors in an oxygen-hydrogen flame.
7. Complete the given reaction.
SiCl4 + 2H2O → SiO2 + ______
a) 2HCl b) 4HCl c) 2Cl2 d) 4Cl2 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: SiCl4 is a starting material used in vapour-phase deposition
technique. Dopants are added to the starting material in presence of heat to give glass
compound. In the above reaction SiO2 (solid compound) along with 4HCl(gas) is obtained.
8. In modified chemical vapor deposition, vapor phase reactant such as _________ pass
through a hot zone. a) Halide and oxygen b) Halide and hydrogen c) Halide and silica d)
Hydroxides and oxygen View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Halide and oxygen are passed through the hot zone during chemical
vapor deposition. Glass particles formed during this travel are deposited on the walls of silica
tube which are moved back and forth allowing the particles to deposit layer by layer.
9. _________ is the stimulation of oxide formation by means of non-isothermal plasma
maintained at low pressure in a microwave cavity surrounding the tube. a) Outside Vapor
Phase Oxidation (OVPO) b) Vapor Axial Deposition (VAD) c) Modified Chemical Vapor
Deposition (MCVD) d) Plasma-activated Chemical Vapor Deposition (PCVD) View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: PCVD method was first developed by Cuppers and Koenig’s. It
involves a plasma-induced chemical vapor deposition inside a silica tube. It is different from
MCVD process as it involves stimulation of oxide formation by means of non-isothermal
plasma.
10. Only graded index fibers are made with the help of vapor-phase deposition techniques. a)
True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Vapor phase deposition techniques are used for preparation of both
step-index and graded index fibers. These techniques provide fibers with low attenuation
losses. Also, it gives similar performance for the fabrication of both single mode and
multimode fibers.
11. Modified Chemical Vapor Deposition (MCVD) process is also called as an inside vapor
phase oxidation (IVPD) technique. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: MCVD process was developed by Bell Telephone Laboratories and
Southampton University, UK. It is called as inside vapor phase oxidation (IVPO) as it takes
place inside the silica tube at the temperatures between 1400 and 1600 degrees Celsius.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Optical Fibers”.
1. Multimode step index fiber has ___________ a) Large core diameter & large numerical
aperture b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture c) Small core diameter and
large numerical aperture d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Multimode step-index fiber has large core diameter and large
numerical aperture. These parameters provides efficient coupling to inherent light sources
such as LED’s.
2. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber shows as variation of attenuation in
range of ___________ a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.69μm b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1 at
wavelength 0.59μm c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.85μm d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1 at
wavelength 0.90μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: A multimode step index fibers show an attenuation variation in range
of 2.6 to 50dBkm-1. The wide variation in attenuation is due to the large differences both
within and between the two overall preparation methods i.e. melting and deposition.
3. Multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range is ___________ a) 100 to
300 μm b) 100 to 300 nm c) 200 to 500 μm d) 200 to 500 nm View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A multimode step index fiber has a core diameter range of 100 to
300μm. This is to facilitate efficient coupling to inherent light sources.
4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of ___________ a) 2 to 30 MHz km b) 6 to
50 MHz km c) 10 to 40 MHz km d) 8 to 40 MHz km View Answer
5. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with ___________ a)
Lower purity b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers. c) No impurity d) Impurity
as same as multimode step index fibers. View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have higher purity than multimode
step index fiber. To reduce fiber losses, these fibers have more impurity.
6. The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are ___________ a)
Better than multimode step index fibers b) Same as multimode step index fibers c) Lesser
than multimode step index fibers d) Negligible View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers use a constant grading factor.
Performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are better than those of
multimode step index fibers due to index graded and lower attenuation.
7. Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode step index
fibers but have core diameters ___________ a) Larger than multimode step index fibers b)
Smaller than multimode step index fibers c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers d)
Smaller than single mode step index fibers View Answer
8. Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical aperture of
0.29 have core/cladding diameter of ___________ a) 62.5 μm/125 μm b) 100 μm/140 μm
c) 85 μm/125 μm d) 50 μm/125μm View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers with numerical aperture 0.29 having
a core/cladding diameter of 100μm/140μm. They provide high coupling frequency LED’s at a
wavelength of 0.85 μm and have low cost. They are also used for short distance application.
9. Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers are used for short haul and medium to
high bandwidth applications. Small haul applications require LEDs and low accuracy lasers.
Thus either incoherent or incoherent sources like LED’s or injection laser diode are used.
10. In single mode fibers, which is the most beneficial index profile? a) Step index b) Graded
index c) Step and graded index d) Coaxial cable View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In single mode fibers, graded index profile is more beneficial as
compared to step index. This is because graded index profile provides dispersion-modified-
single mode fibers.
11. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
___________ a) Single mode fibers b) Multimode step fibers c) Coaxial cables d) Multimode
graded index fibers View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Single mode fibers are used to produce polarization maintaining
fibers which make them expensive. Also the alternative to them are multimode fibers which
are complex but accurate. So, single-mode fibers are not generally utilized in optical fiber
communication.
12. Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be at least
___________ a) Twice the core diameter
b) Thrice the core diameter c) Five times the core diameter d) Ten times the core diameter
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The cladding diameter in single mode fiber must be ten times the
core diameter. Larger ratios contribute to accurate propagation of light. These dimension
ratios must be there so as to avoid losses from the vanishing fields.
13. A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is? a) Coaxial cables b) Standard
single mode fibers c) Standard multimode fibers d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A standard single mode fiber having step index profile is known as
non-dispersion shifted fiber. As these fibers have a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.31μm
and so are preferred for single-wavelength transmission in O-band.
14. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for operation in ___________ a)
C-band b) L-band c) O-band d) C-band and L-band View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: SSMFs are utilized for operation in O-band only. It shows high
dispersion in the range of 16 to 20ps/nm/km in C-band and L-band. So SSMFs are used in O-
band.
15. Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength transmission in O-band is? a) Low-water-peak
non dispersion-shifted fibers b) Standard single mode fibers c) Low minimized fibers d) Non-
zero-dispersion-shifted fibers View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Standard single mode fibers with a step index profile are called non
dispersion shifted fiber and it is particularly used for single wavelength transmission in O-
band and as if has a zero-dispersion wavelength at 1.31μm.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on ” Optical Fiber Cables”.
1. When optical fibers are to be installed in a working environment, the most important
parameter to be considered is? a) Transmission property of the fiber b) Mechanical property
of the fiber c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber d) Numerical aperture of the fiber View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Nowadays, optical fibers are used alternatively to electric
transmission lines. They are installed safely and maintained in all environments including
underground areas. This requires mechanical strengthening of fibers in order to ensure proper
transmission.
2. It is not important to cover these optical fibers required for transmission. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Unprotected optical fibers have number of losses regarding its
strength and durability. Bare glass fibers are brittle and have small cross-section area that
makes them highly susceptible to damages while handling and maintenance. Thus, to
improve tensile strength, optical fibers should be covered by surrounding them with number
of protective layers.
3. Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from ___________ a) Plastic b)
Silica or multicomponent glass c) Ceramics d) Copper View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Silica or a compound of glass are brittle and have almost perfect
elasticity until reaching their breaking point. Strength of these materials is high. Thus, optical
fibers are fabricated from these materials.
4. An Si-O bond with a Young’s modulus of 9*1010Nm-1 have an elliptical crack of depth
7nm. The surface energy is 2.29 J. Estimate fracture stress for silica fiber. a) 4.32*10 9Nm-1 b)
6.32*109Nm-1 c) 5.2*109Nm-1 d) 3*109Nm-1 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: For an elliptical crack, the fracture stress is given by- Sf =
(2Eγp/πC)1/2 Where Sf = fracture stress γp = surface energy C = depth of crack.
5. Calculate percentage strain at break for a Si-O bond with a fracture strength of
3.52*1010Nm-1 and Young’s modulus of 9 *109Nm-1. a) 3.1 % b) 2.8 % c) 4.5 % d) 3.9 %
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Young’s modulus is given by- E = Stress/Strain To calculate strain
from the above formula, we have to divide stress by Young’s modulus. Therefore, Strain =
Stress/E.
6. Stress corrosion must be considered while designing and testing optical fiber cables. a)
True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Stress corrosion means growth of flaws due to stress and water. This
occurs as a result of molecular bonds at the tip of crack being attacked by water. Hence, it is
important to have a protection against water to avoid stress corrosion.
7. Which statistics are used for calculations of strengths of optical fibers? a) Edwin statistics
b) Newton statistics c) Wei-bull statistics d) Gamma statistics View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Calculations of strengths are conducted using Wei-bull statistics in
case of optical fibers. It describes the strength behavior of a system that is dependent on the
weakest link of the system. The Wei-bull statistics gives the probability of failure of the
optical fiber at a given strength.
8. What does n denotes in the equation given below, if v c is the crack velocity; A is the
constant for the fiber material and KI is the strength intensity factor?
vc = AKIn
a) Refractive index b) Stress corrosion susceptibility c) Strain d) Young’s modulus View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The above equation allows estimation of the time to failure of a fiber
under stress corrosion conditions. The constant n is called as stress corrosion susceptibility. It
is typically in the range of 15 to 50 for a glass.
This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced
people focuses on “Stability of the Fiber Transmission Characteristics”.
1. ____________ results from small lateral forces exerted on the fiber during the cabling
process. a) Attenuation b) Micro-bending c) Dispersion d) Stimulated Emission View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Optical fibers must be designed so that the transmission
characteristics of the fiber are maintained after the cabling process. The main problem which
occurs in the cabling process is the meandering of the axis of the fiber core on a microscopic
scale within the cable form. This phenomenon is called as micro-bending.
2. Microscopic meandering of the fiber core axis that is micro-bending is caused due to
___________ a) Environmental effects b) Rough edges of the fiber c) Large diameter of core
d) Polarization View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Micro-bending can be generated at any stage during manufacturing
process, cable installation process or during service. This is mainly due to environmental
effects, mainly varying temperatures causing differential expansion or contraction.
3. How many forms of modal power distribution are considered? a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Two forms of modal power distribution are considered. The first
form is seen when a fiber is excited by a diffuse Lambertian source, and is called as fully
filled mode distribution. The second form occurs when, due to mode coupling and
attenuation, the distribution of optical power becomes invariant with the distance of
propagation along the fiber, and is called as steady-state mode distribution.
4. What does micro-bending losses depend on _____________ a) Core material b) Refractive
index c) Diameter d) Mode and wavelength View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Micro-bending losses cause differential expansion or contraction.
These losses are mode dependent. The number of modes is a function inverse to the
wavelength of the transmitted light and thus micro-bending losses are wavelength dependent.
5. The fiber should be________________ to avoid deterioration of the optical transmission
characteristics resulting from mode-coupling-induced micro-bending. a) Free from irregular
external pressure b) Coupled with plastic c) Large in diameter d) Smooth and in a steady state
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Micro-bending losses results from environmental effects such as
temperature variation. The irregular external pressure deteriorates the quality of transmission
through the fiber. Thus, controlled coating and cabling of the fiber is essential in order to
reduce the cabled fiber attenuation.
6. The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber affects the ______________ a) Transmission
of optical light in the fiber b) Spectral attenuation characteristics of the fiber c) Core of the
fiber d) Cladding of the fiber View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The hydrogen absorption by an optical fiber increases optical fiber
losses. It forms
absorption peaks where the hydrogen diffuses into interstitial spaces in the glass. At high
temperatures, these losses can increase and reduced if the hydrogen source is removed.
7. __________ can induce a considerable amount of attenuation in optical fibers. a) Micro-
bending b) Dispersion c) Diffusion of hydrogen d) Radiation Exposure View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The optical transmission characteristics of the fiber cables can be
degraded by exposure to nuclear radiation. The nature of this attenuation depends upon fiber
structures, optical intensity, wavelength, etc. The radiation-induced attenuation comprises
both permanent and temporary components which makes the exposure irreversible and
reversible respectively.
8. The radiation-induced attenuation can be reduced through photo-bleaching. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Photo-bleaching can be exploited to study the diffusion of molecules.
It is used to remove the radiation exposure by quenching auto-fluorescence. It helps to
increase signal-to-noise ratio of the fiber and thus reduces attenuation.
9. The losses due to hydrogen absorption and reaction with fiber deposits can be temporary.
a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Hydrogen absorption occurs in two mechanisms. First phenomenon
affects silica-based glass fibers whereas the second one occurs when hydrogen reacts with the
fiber deposits to give P-OH, Ge-OH absorption. These losses are permanent.
10. The losses caused due to hydrogen absorption mechanisms are in the range of
___________ a) 20 dB/km to 25 dB/km b) 10 dB/km to 15 dB/km c) 25 dB/km to 50 dB/km
d) 0 dB/km to 5 dB/km View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber leads to an increase in
optical fiber
losses, causing damage to spectral loss characteristics. This phenomenon gets vibrant at
higher temperatures. The losses caused due to such absorption are greater than 25 dB/km.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Cable Design”.
1. The cable must be designed such that the strain on the fiber in the cable does not exceed
__________ a) 0.002% b) 0.01% c) 0.2% d) 0.160% View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The constraints included in cable design are stability, protection,
strength and jointing of the fibers. The fiber cable does not get affected if the strain exerted
on it is below 0.2%. Although, it is suggested that the permanent strain on the fiber should be
less than 0.1%.
2. How many categories exists in case of cable design? a) Two b) Three c) One d) Four View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Cable design is separated into three categories. They are fiber
buffering, cable structural and strength and cable sheath and water barrier. After successfully
going through these tests, an optical cable is designed.
3. How many types of buffer jackets are used in fiber buffering? a) Three b) One c) Two d)
Four View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The buffer jacket is designed to protect the fiber from micro-bending
losses. There are three types of buffer jackets used in fiber buffering. They are tight buffer
jackets, loose tube buffer jackets and filled loose tube buffer jacket.
4. Loose tube buffer jackets exhibits a low resistance to movement of the fiber. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Loose tube buffering is achieved by using a hard, smooth, flexible
material in the form of extruded tube. The buffer tube is smooth from inside. Thus, it exhibits
a low resistance to movement of the fiber. Also, it can be easily stripped for jointing or fiber
termination.
5. An inclusion of one or more structural members in an optical fiber so as to serve as a cable
core foundation around which the buffer fibers may be wrapped is called _____________ a)
Attenuation b) Splicing c) Buffering d) Stranding View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Optical fiber is made structurally stronger by adding one or more
strength members. The core fiber is trapped with buffered fibers or they are slotted in the core
foundation. This approach is called as stranding.
6. Which of the following is not a strength member used in optical cable? a) Steel wire b)
Germanium c) Aramid yarns d) Glass elements View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Strength members or tensile members are added to the fiber to make
it stronger and durable. These members include solid steel wire, dielectric aramid yarns
(Kevlar), glass elements etc. Germanium is not a structural or strength member.
7. When the stranding approach consists of individual elements (e.g. single-fiber or multi
fiber loose tube buffer) than the cable is termed as _____________ a) Optical unit cable b)
Coaxial cable c) Layer cable d) Bare glass cable View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The stranding approach consists of a fiber core foundation around
which the buffered fibers are wrapped. The cable elements are stranded in one, two or several
layers around the central structural member. When the stranding is composed of individual
elements, then the
cable is termed as layer cable. If the cable core consists of stranding elements each of which
comprises a unit of stranding elements, then it is termed as optical unit cable.
8. The primary function of the structural member is load bearing. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The primary function of the structural member is not load bearing.
It’s function is to provide suitable accommodation for the fiber ribbons within the cables.
These fiber ribbons lie in the helical grooves or slots formed in the surface of the structural
members.
9. What is the Young’s modulus of Kevlar, an aromatic polyester? a) 9 ×10 10Nm-2 b) 10
×1010Nm-2 c) 12 ×1010Nm-2 d) 13 ×1010Nm-2 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Kevlar is used as a strength member in an optical fiber. The Young’s
modulus of Kevlar is very high which gives it strength to weight ratio advantage four times
that of steel. Kevlar is coated with extruded plastic to provide a smooth surface which in turn
prevents micro-bending losses.
10. The cable is normally covered with an outer plastic sheath to reduce _______________ a)
Abrasion b) Armor c) Friction d) Dispersion View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Abrasion is the process of scraping or wearing something away. If
the cable is not coated with plastic sheath, it gives rise to effects such as abrasion and
crushing. The most common plastic sheath material used in covering a cable is polyethylene
(PE).
4. Questions on Optical Fiber Connections : Joints, Couplers and Isolators
The section contains questions on fiber alignment and splices, fiber and beam connectors,
fiber couplers, optical isolators and circulators.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Fiber Alignment and Joint Loss”.
1. A measure of amount of optical fiber emitted from source that can be coupled into a fiber
is termed as ______________ a) Radiance b) Angular power distribution c) Coupling
efficiency d) Power-launching View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Coupling efficiency depends upon the type of fiber attached to the
source which should consider the parameters such as numerical aperture, core size, R.I.
profile, radiance, core-cladding index difference. All these parameters relate to the
performance of the fibers determined by power coupled into the fiber to power emitted by the
source. This is called coupling efficiency ηwhich is given by η = P F/Ps Where PF = power
coupled into the fiber Ps = power emitted by the source.
2. The ratio r = (n1 – n)/(n1 – n) indicates ____________ a) Fresnel reflection b) Reflection
coefficient c) Refraction coefficient d) Angular power distribution coefficient View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The ratio, r = (n1-n)/(n1-n) is known as Reflection coefficient. It
relates the amplitude of the reflected ray to the amplitude of the incident wave.
3. A GaAs optical source having a refractive index of 3.2 is coupled to a silica fiber having a
refractive index of 1.42. Determine Fresnel reflection at interface in terms of percentage. a)
13.4% b) 17.4% c) 17.6% d) 14.8% View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: If the fiber end and the source are in close physical contact, the
reflection is given by r = ((n1-n)/(n1-n))2 Multiplying r by 100, we get the value of r in terms
of percentage.
4. A particular GaAs fiber has a Fresnel reflection magnitude of 17.6% i.e. 0.176. Find the
power loss between the source and the fiber? a) 0.86 dB
b) 0.78 dB c) 0.84 dB d) 0.83 dB View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The optical losses in decibels at the joint is given by Loss = -
10log10(1-r) Where L = loss due to Fresnel reflection R = magnitude of Fresnel reflection.
5. Two joined step index fibers are perfectly aligned. What is the coupling loss of numerical
aperture are NAR= 0.26 for emitting fiber? a) -0.828 dB b) -0.010 dB c) -0.32 dB d) 0.32 dB
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined step index fibers is given by L F(NA) = -
10 log (NAR/NAE)2 Where LF = coupling loss NAR = Numerical aperture of receiving fiber
NAE = Numerical aperture of emitting fiber.
6. Two joined graded index fibers that are perfectly aligned have refractive indices α R = 1.93
for receiving fiber αE = 2.15 for emitting fiber. Calculate the coupling loss. a) 0.23 dB b) 0.16
dB c) 0.82 dB d) 0.76 dB View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined and perfectly aligned graded index fiber
is given by LF(α) = -10log10αR(αE+2)/αE(αR+2) Where LF(α) = Coupling loss αR = refractive
index of receiving fiber αE = refractive index of emitting fiber.
7. How many types of misalignments occur when joining compatible fiber? a) One b) Two c)
Five
d) Three View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: There are three layers of fiber misalignments and they are:
Longitudinal, lateral and angular misalignments.
8. Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter, numerical aperture, relative
refractive index differences, different refractive index profiles, fiber faults are known as
____________ a) Intrinsic joint losses b) Extrinsic losses c) Insertion losses d) Coupling
losses View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: There are inherent connection problems while joining fibers. These
connection problem cause different losses in the fibers and are called as Intrinsic joint losses.
9. A step index fiber has a coupling efficiency of 0.906 with uniform illumination of all
propagation modes. Find the insertion loss due to lateral misalignment? a) 0.95 dB b) 0.40 dB
c) 0.42 dB d) 0.62 dB View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The insertion loss due to lateral misalignment is given by Loss 10t = -
10log10t η10t Where, Loss10t = insertion loss due to lateral misalignment η10t = Coupling
efficiency.
10. A graded index fiber has a parabolic refractive index profile (α=2) and core diameter of
42μm. Estimate an insertion loss due to a 2 μm lateral misalignment when there is index
matching and assuming there is uniform illumination of all guided modes only. a) 0.180 b)
0.106 c) 0.280 d) 0.080 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The misalignment loss (assuming there is uniform illumination of all
guided modes) is given by
Lt = 0.85(y/a)
Where y = lateral misalignment
a = core radius.
11. Determine coupling efficiency if the misalignment loss in a graded index fiber is 0.102.
a) 0.136
b) 0.898
c) 0.982
d) 0.684
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the misalignment loss is known, the coupling efficiency is defined by
η = 1-Lt
Where η = coupling efficiency
Lt = misalignment loss.
12. In a single mode fiber, the losses due to lateral offset and angular misalignment are given
by
0.20 dB and 0.46 dB respectively. Find the total insertion loss.
a) 0.66 dB
b) 0.26 dB
c) 0.38 dB
d) 0.40 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total insertion loss in a single mode fiber is given by
TT = TL + Ta
Where, TT = total insertion loss
TL = lateral offset loss
Ta = Angular misalignment loss.
13. The intrinsic loss through a multimode fiber joint is independent of direction of
propagation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intrinsic loss is defined as the summation of lateral offset loss and angular
misalignment loss. In case of multimode fibers, the intrinsic loss is dependent on the
refractive
index gradient. The intrinsic loss through a single mode fiber joint is independent of direction
of
propagation.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Fiber Splices”.

1. A permanent joint formed between two different optical fibers in the field is known as a
____________
a) Fiber splice
b) Fiber connector
c) Fiber attenuator
d) Fiber dispersion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The jointing of two individual fibers is called as fiber splicing. It is used to
establish long-haul optical fiber links by joining two small length fibers.
2. How many types of fiber splices are available?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Splices are divided into two types depending upon the splicing technique used.
These are fusion splicing (welding) and mechanical splicing.
3. The insertion losses of the fiber splices are much less than the Fresnel reflection loss at a
butted fiber joint.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Fresnel reflection loss is usually more because there is no large step change
in
refractive index with the fusion splice as it forms a continuous fiber connection. Also, some
method of index matching tends to be utilized with mechanical splices.
4. What is the main requirement with the fibers that are intended for splicing?
a) Smooth and oval end faces
b) Smooth and square end faces
c) Rough edge faces
d) Large core diameter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A curved mandrel is used which cleaves the fiber to achieve end preparation.
The
edges must be smooth and have square face at the end for splicing purpose.

5. In score and break process, which of the following is not used as a cutting tool?
a) Diamond
b) Sapphire
c) Tungsten carbide
d) Copper
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The score and break process is also called as scribe and break. It involves the
scribing of the fiber surface under tension with a cutting tool. Copper is not used as a cutting
tool.
6. The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing point with the application of
required axial pressure between the two optical fibers is called as ____________
a) Mechanical splicing
b) Fusion splicing
c) Melting
d) Diffusion
View Answer
7. Which of the following is not used as a flame heating source in fusion splicing?
a) Microprocessor torches
b) Ox hydric burners
c) Electric arc
d) Gas burner
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Micro-plasma torches uses argon and hydrogen and alcohol vapor. The most
widely
used heating source is an electric arc. Thus, gas burner is not used in fusion splicing.
8. The rounding of the fiber ends with a low energy discharge before pressing the fibers
together
and fusing with a stronger arc is called as ____________
a) Pre-fusion
b) Diffusion
c) Crystallization
d) Alignment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pre-fusion involves rounding of fiber ends. It removes the requirement for fiber
end
preparation which has a distinct advantage in the field environment. It is utilized with
multimode
fibers giving average splice losses of 0.09dB.
9. _____________ is caused by surface tension effects between the two fiber ends during
fusing.
a) Pre-fusion
b) Diffusion
c) Self-alignment
d) Splicing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two fiber ends are close but not aligned before fusion. During fusion, the
surface tension affects the fiber ends to get aligned. After fusion, they are aligned in such a
way
that a transmission medium can get a good continuity.
10. Average insertion losses as low as _________ have been obtained with multimode graded
index and single-mode fibers using ceramic capillaries.
a) 0.1 dB
b) 0.5 dB
c) 0.02 dB
d) 0.3 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanical techniques for splicing involve the use of an accurately produced
rigid
tube in which fiber ends are permanently bonded. It utilizes a ceramic capillary in which an
epoxy resin is injected through a transverse bore to provide mechanical sealing and index
matching. This technique which uses ceramic capillaries provides insertion losses as low as
0.1dB.
11. _____________ are formed by sandwiching the butted fiber ends between a V-groove
glass
substrate and a flat glass retainer plate.
a) Springroove splices
b) V-groove splices
c) Elastic splices
d) Fusion splices
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In V-groove splices, a V-groove glass substrate is used with a flat glass plate.
The
name V-groove suggests that the fiber ends are spliced in a V-shape.
These splices provide losses as low as 0.01dB.
12. Mean splice insertion losses of 0.05 dB are obtained using multimode graded index fibers
with the Springroove splice.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Springroove utilizes a bracket containing two cylindrical pins which act as

alignment guide for two fiber ends. An elastic element is used to press the fibers into a
groove.
The assembly is secured with a drop of epoxy resin. It provides a loss of 0.05 dB and has
found a
practical use in Italy.
13. Alignment accuracy of the order ___________ is obtained using the three glass rod
alignment sleeve.
a) 0.23 μm
b) 0.15 μm
c) 0.05 μm
d) 0.01 μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Alignment accuracies as high as 0.05 μmare necessary to obtain low losses. The
mode-field diameter for single-mode fiber is in the range 8 to 10μm. The three glass rod
alignment provides higher accuracies than rotary splice sleeve.
14. In case of multiple fusion, splice losses using an electric arc fusion device with
multimode
graded index fiber range from ____________
a) 0.01 to 0.04 dB
b) 0.19 to 0.25 dB
c) 0.12 to 0.15 dB
d) 0.04 to 0.12 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In multiple fusions, an electric arc fusing device allows splicing of 12 fibers
simultaneously. It takes a tool time of 6 minutes, which requires only 30 seconds per splice.
The
splice losses for single mode fiber are of 0.04 dB as maximum whereas for graded index
fibers,
losses are up to 0.12dB.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Fiber Connectors”.
1. Demountable fiber connectors are more difficult to achieve than optical fiber splices.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fiber connectors must maintain tolerance requirements similar to splices in
order to
couple light efficiently between the fibers. Also, fiber connectors must accomplish this in a
removable fashion. The connector design must allow repeated connection and disconnection
without any problems of fiber alignment.

2. What is the use of an index-matching material in the connector between the two jointed
fibers?
a) To decrease the light transmission through the connection
b) To increase the light transmission through the connection
c) To induce losses in the fiber
d) To make a fiber dispersive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The index-matching material used might be epoxy resin. It increases the light
transmission through the connection while keeping dust and dirt from between the fibers. It
also
provides optimum optical coupling.
3. How many categories of fiber connectors exist?
a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fiber connectors are separated into two broad categories. They are butt-jointed
connectors and expanded beam connectors. Butt-jointed connectors rely upon alignment of
the
two fiber ends butted to each other whereas expanded beam connectors uses interposed optics
at
the joint.
4. The basic ferrule connector is also called as _____________
a) Groove connector
b) Beam connector
c) Multimode connector
d) Concentric sleeve connector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The basic ferrule connector is the simplest connector. The ferrules are placed in
an
alignment sleeve within the connector. The alignment sleeve is concentric which allows the
fiber
ends to be butt-jointed.
5. What is the use of watch jewel in cylindrical ferrule connector?
a) To obtain the diameter and tolerance requirements of the ferrule
b) For polishing purposes
c) Cleaving the fiber
d) To disperse a fiber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ferrule connectors have a watch jewel in the ferrule end face. It is used instead
of

drilling of the metallic ferrule end face which takes time. It is used to obtain close diameter
and
tolerance requirements of the ferrule end face whole easily.
6. The concentricity errors between the fiber core and the outside diameter of the jeweled
ferrule
are in the range of ___________ with multimode step-index fibers.
a) 1 to 3μm
b) 2 to 6μm
c) 7 to 10μm
d) 12 to 20μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fiber alignment accuracy of the basic ferrule connector is dependent on the
ferrule hole into which the fiber is inserted. The concentricity errors in the range of 2 to 6μm
gives insertion losses in the range 1 to 2dB with multimode step index fibers.
7. The typical average losses for multimode graded index fiber and single mode fiber with the
precision ceramic ferrule connector are _____________ respectively.
a) 0.3 and 0.5 dB
b) 0.2 and 0.3 dB
c) 0.1 and 0.2 dB
d) 0.4 and 0.7 dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike metal and plastic components, the ceramic ferrule material is harder than
the
optical fiber. Thus, it is unaffected by grinding and polishing process. This factor enables to
provide the low-loss connectors which have low losses as low as 0.2 and 0.3 dB in case of
optical fibers.
8. Bi-conical ferrule connectors are less advantageous than cylindrical ferrule connectors.
a) FalseStat
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cylindrical and bi-conical ferrule connectors are assembled in housings to form
a
multi-fiber configuration. The force needed to insert multiple cylindrical ferrules can be large
when multiple ferrules are involved. The multiple bi-conical ferrule connectors are more
advantageous as they require less insertion force.
9. In connectors, the fiber ends are separated by some gap. This gap ranges from
____________
a) 0.040 to 0.045 mm
b) 0.025 to 0.10 mm
c) 0.12 to 0.16 mm

d) 0.030 to 0.2mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In connectors, gaps are introduced to prevent them from rubbing against each
other
and becoming damaged during connector fixing/engagement. The gap ranges from 0.025 to
0.10
mm so as to reduce the losses below 8dB for a particular diameter fiber say 50μm
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Expanded Beam Connectors”.
1. What is the use of interposed optics in expanded beam connectors?
a) To achieve lateral alignment less critical than a butt-joined fiber connector
b) To make a fiber loss free
c) To make a fiber dispersive
d) For index-matching
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Expanded beam connector utilize interposed optics at the joint in order to expand the
beam from transmitting fiber end before reducing it to a size compatible with the receiving fiber
end. It
helps to achieve lateral alignment less critical than a butt-jointed connector. Also, the longitudinal
separation is critical in expanded beam connectors.
2. The expanded beam connectors use ____________ for beam expansion and reduction.
a) Square micro-lens
b) Oval micro-lens
c) Spherical micro-lens
d) Rectangular micro-lens
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Expanded beam connectors use the principle of transmission of digital data to the
receiver.
It uses spherical micro-lens to first expand the beam from the transmitting end and reduces the
beam at
the receiving end.
3. Lens-coupled expanded beam connectors exhibit average losses of _________ in case of
single mode and graded index fibers.
a) 0.3 dB
b) 0.7 dB
c) 0.2 dB
d) 1.5 dB
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Lens-coupled expanded beam connectors use spherical micro-lenses. The average
losses
are in the range of 1dB. With the antireflection coating on the lenses, the losses are reduced to 0.7
dB in
case of single mode fibers.
4. Sapphire ball lens expanded beam design is successful than spherical lens coupled design.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spherical lens coupled design exhibits losses in the range 0.7 dB to 1dB. Sapphire ball
lens
expanded beam design achieved successful single mode fiber connection with losses as low as 0.4dB.
5. The fiber is positioned at the ________ of the lens in order to obtain a collimated beam and
to
minimize lens-to-lens longitudinal misalignment effects.
a) Aperture
b) Focal length
c) Curve
d) Exterior circumference
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The expanded beam connector also uses a molded spherical lens. A lens alignment
sleeve is
used to minimize the effects of angular misalignment. The fiber is positioned at the focal length of
the
lens to achieve losses as low as 0.7dB.
6. ___________ exhibits a parabolic refractive index profile with a maximum at the axis
similar
to graded index fiber.
a) Lens coupled design
b) Sapphire ball lens
c) Spherical micro-lens
d) GRIN-rod lens
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens geometry has a parabolic refractive index profile. It facilitates efficient
beam
expansion and collimation within expanded beam connectors. It finds its applications in fiber
couplers
and source-to-fiber coupling.
7. The GRIN-rod lens can produce a collimated output beam with a divergent angle αof between
_____________ from a light source situated on, or near to, the opposite lens face.
a) 1 to 5 degrees
b) 9 to 16 degrees

c) 4 to 8 degrees
d) 25 to 50 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens comprises of a cylindrical glass rod typically 0.2 to 2 mm in diameter. It
exhibits a parabolic refractive index profile. It facilitates efficient beam expansion and collimation
with
an angle in the range 1 to 5 degrees.
8. In the given equation, if r is the radial distance, n is the refractive index; what does z stands
for?
dr2/dz2 = (1/n) (d n/dr)
a) Focal length
b) Distance along the optical axis
c) Axial angle
d) Diameter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The above equation is known as paraxial ray equation which governs the ray
propagation
through the GRIN-rod lens. GRIN-rod lens geometry is parabolic in nature. Thus z is the distance
along
the optical axis of a parabolic profile.
9. The majority of the GRIN-rod lenses have diameters in the range of ____________
a) 2 to 2.5 mm
b) 3 to 4 mm
c) 0.1 to 0.4 mm
d) 0.5 to 2 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The GRIN-rod lenses performance directly depends on the radial distance. The
diameters in
the range of 0.5 to 2 mm may be employed with either single mode or multimode fibers. They are
available with numerical apertures of 0.37, 0.46 and 0.6.
10. Which of the following factors does not cause divergence of the collimated beam from a
GRIN-rod lens?
a) Lens cut length
b) Size of fiber core
c) Refractive index profile
d) Chromatic aberration
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Various factors contribute to the divergence of the collimated beam from a GRIN-rod
lens.
Error in lens cut length, finite size of the fiber core and chromatic aberration are the factors that
cause
divergence.
11. GRIN-rod lens connectors have loss characteristics that are independent of the modal
power
distribution in the fiber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens geometry is analogous to butt-jointed multimode fiber
connectors. The loss characteristics of butt-jointed connectors are dependent on modal power
distribution in the fiber
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Fiber Couplers”.
1. When considering source-to-fiber coupling efficiencies, the ________ is an important
parameter than total output power.
a) Numerical aperture
b) Radiance of an optical source
c) Coupling efficiency
d) Angular power distribution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Radiance is the optical power radiated into a unit solid angle per unit emitt ing
surface area. Since this optical power is dependent on radiance, radiance is much important
factor than optical power.
2. It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch fibers.
a) Optical fiber coupler
b) Optical fiber splice
c) Optical fiber connector
d) Optical isolator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nowadays, requirements to divide combined optical signals for applications are
increasing. Optical fiber coupler is one such device that is used for dividing and combining
optical signals. It is generally used in LANs, computer networks etc.

3. Optical fiber couplers are also called as ________________


a) Isolators
b) Circulators
c) Directional couplers
d) Attenuators
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical fiber couplers are passive devices. The power transfer in couplers takes
place either through the fiber core cross-section by butt jointing the fibers or by using some
form
of imaging optics between the fibers. It distributes light from one fiber to many fibers and
hence
it is also called as a directional coupler.
4. How many types of multiport optical fiber couplers are available at present?
a) Two
b) One
c) Four
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiport optical fiber couplers are subdivided into three types. These are three
and
four port couplers, star couplers and wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) couplers.
These
couplers distribute light among the branch fibers with no scattering loss.
5. The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is limited by ____________
a) Numerical apertures of fibers
b) Varying refractive index of fibers
c) Angular power distribution at source
d) Number of modes propagating in each fiber
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When two fibers are coupled to each other, the optical power is limited by
number
of modes propagating in each fiber. For example, when a fiber propagating with 500 modes is
connected to a fiber that propagates only 400 modes, then at maximum, only 80% of power is
coupled into the other fiber.
6. ________ couplers combine the different wavelength optical signal onto the fiber or
separate
the different wavelength optical signal output from the fiber.
a) 3-port
b) 2*2-star
c) WDM
d) Directional
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: WDM coupler is abbreviated as wavelength division multiplexing coupler. It is
a
category of multiport optical fiber couplers. It is designed to permit a number of different
peak
wavelength optical signals to be transmitted in parallel on a single fiber.
7. How many fabrication techniques are used for 3 port fiber couplers?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two fabrication techniques available for three port couplers. First is a
lateral offset method which relies on the overlapping of the fiber end faces and the other is
the
semi-transparent mirror method. Using these techniques, three port couplers with both
multimode and single-mode fibers can be fabricated.
8. Which is the most common method for manufacturing couplers?
a) Wavelength division multiplexing
b) Lateral offset method
c) Semitransparent mirror method
d) Fused bi-conical taper (FBT) technique
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The FBT technique is basic and simple. In this technique, the fibers are
generally
twisted together and then spot fused under tension such that the fused section is elongated to
form a bi-conical taper structure. A three port coupler can be obtained by removing one of the
input fibers.
9. Couplers insertion loss is same as that of excess loss.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Excess loss is defined as the ratio of input power to output power. The insertion
loss is defined as the loss obtained for a particular port-to-port optical path. Thus, the
insertion
loss and excess loss are different in nature.
10. A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μW optical power launched into port 1.
The
measured output power at ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5 μW respectively.
Determine
the excess loss.
a) 0.22 dB
b) 0.33 dB

c) 0.45 dB
d) 0.12 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Excess loss is a ratio of power input to power output of the fiber and it is given
by
Excess loss = 10log10 P1/(P3+P4)
WhereP1, P3, P4 = output power at ports 1,3 and 4 resp.
11. A four-port FBT coupler has 60μW optical power launched into port one. The output
powers
at ports 2, 3, 4 are 0.0025, 18, and 22 μW respectively. Find the split ratio?
a) 42%
b) 46%
c) 52%
d) 45%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Split ratio indicates the percentage division of optical power between the
outputs
ports. It is given by
Split ratio = [P3/(P3+P4)]*100%
Where P3 and P4 are output powers at ports 3 and 4 respectively.
12. How many manufacturing methods are used for producing multimode fiber star couplers?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The manufacturing methods of star couplers are mixer-rod technique and FBT
technique. In the mixer-rod method, a thin platelet of glass is employed, which mixes light
from
one fiber, dividing it among the outgoing fibers. FBT method involves twisting, heating and
pulling of fiber.
13. Calculate the splitting loss if a 30×30 port multimode fiber star coupler has 1 mW of
optical
power launched into an input port.
a) 13 dB
b) 15 dB
c) 14.77 dB
d) 16.02 dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The splitting loss is related to the number of output ports N of a coupler. It is
given

by-
Splitting loss (Star coupler) = 10log10N (dB).
14. A _____________ coupler comprises a number of cascaded stages, each incorporating
three
or four-port FBT couplers to obtain a multiport output.
a) Star
b) Ladder
c) WDM
d) Three-port
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A star coupler can be realized by constructing a ladder coupler. It consists of
many
cascaded stages. If a three-port coupler is used, then a ladder coupler does not form
symmetrical
star coupler. It is a useful device to achieve a multiport output with low insertion loss.
15. A number of three-port single-mode fiber couplers are used in the fabrication of a ladder
coupler with 16 output ports. The three-port couplers each have an excess loss of 0.2 dB
along
with a splice loss of 0.1 dB at the interconnection of each stage. Determine the excess loss.
a) 1.9 dB
b) 1.4 dB
c) 0.9 dB
d) 1.1 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The number of stages M within the ladder design is given by 2 M=16. Hence
M=4.
Thus, excess loss is given by-
Excess loss = (M×loss in each 3-port coupler) + (Number of splices×Loss in each stage)
Where number of splices = 3 (as the value of M is equal to 4)
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Optical Isolators and Circulators”.
1. An FBG is developed within a fiber core having a refractive index of 1.30. Find the grating
period for it to reflect an optical signal with a wavelength of 1.33μm.
a) 0.51 μm
b) 0.58 μm
c) 0.61 μm
d) 0.49 μm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The grating period is denoted by Λ. It is given by-
Λ = λB/ 2n
Where λB = wavelength
n = refractive index.
2. It is a passive device which allows the flow of optical signal power in only one direction
and
preventing reflections in the backward direction.
a) Fiber slice
b) Optical fiber connector
c) Optical isolator
d) Optical coupler
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ideally, an optical isolator transmits the signal power in the desired forward
direction. Material imperfections in the isolator medium generate backward reflections.
Optical
isolators can be implemented by using FBG.
3. Which feature of an optical isolator makes it attractive to use with optical amplifier?
a) Low loss
b) Wavelength blocking
c) Low refractive index
d) Attenuation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical isolators are made using FBGs. Since FBGs are wavelength dependent,
the
optical isolators can be designed to allow or block the optical signal at particular wavelength.
The wavelength blocking feature makes the optical isolator a very attractive device for use
with
optical amplifier in order to protect them from backward reflections.
4. Magneto-optic devices can be used to function as isolators.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Magneto-optic devices use the principle of Faraday rotation. It relates the TM
mode
characteristics and polarization state of an optical signal with its direction of propagation. The
rotation of polarization plane is proportional to the intensity of component of magnetic field
in
the direction of optical signal. Therefore, it is possible to block and divert an optical signal
using
magnetic properties which is a function of an isolator.
5. How many implementation methods are available for optical isolators?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Optical isolators can be implemented using three techniques. These are as
follows:
-By using FBGs
-By using magnetic oxide materials
-By using semiconductor optical amplifiers (SOAs).
6. A device which is made of isolators and follows a closed loop path is called as a
____________
a) Circulator
b) Gyrator
c) Attenuator
d) Connector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isolator can be connected together to form multiport devices. A circulator is
formed
from isolators connected together to form a closed circular path. In circulator, the signal
continues to travel in closed loop and does not get discarded unlike isolator.
7. The commercially available circulators exhibit insertion losses around ________________
a) 2 dB
b) 0.7 dB
c) 0.2 dB
d) 1 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A number of isolators can be used to implement a circulator. However, as the
number of ports increases, the device complexity increases. Hence, three-or four-port
circulators
are used for optical interconnection with insertion losses around 1 dB and high isolation in
the
range of 40-50dB.
8. A combination of a FBG and optical isolators can be used to produce non-blocking optical
wavelength division add/draw multiplexers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical wavelength divisions add/draw multiplexers can be produced by a
combination of a FBG and a circulator. Non-blocking NXM optical wavelengths divisions
add/draw multiplexer is produced where N and M denotes the number of wavelength
channels
and add/drop channels.
__

BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems

UNIT I: Light wave System


Components

1. Questions & Answers on Optical Fiber Waveguides


The section contains questions and answers on ray theory,
electromagnetic mode theory, cylindrical and single mode fibers,
crystal fibers and attenuation.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Ray Theory Transmission”.
1. Who proposed the idea of transmission of light via dielectric waveguide structure? a)
Christian Huygens b) Karpon and Bockham c) Hondros and debye d) Albert Einstein View
Answer
Answer: c Explanation: It was in the beginning of 20th century where Hondros and debye
theoretical and experimental study demonstrated that information can be transferred as a form
of light through a dielectric waveguide.
2. Who proposed the use of clad waveguide structure? a) Edward Appleton b) Schriever c)
Kao and Hockham d) James Maxwell View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The invention of clad waveguide structure raised the eyebrows of the
scientists. The proposals by Kao and Hockham proved beneficial leading in utilization of
optical fibre as a communication medium.
3. Which law gives the relationship between refractive index of the dielectric? a) Law of
reflection b) Law of refraction (Snell’s Law) c) Millman’s Law d) Huygen’s Law View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Snell’s Law of refraction states that the angle of incidence Ø1 and
refraction Ø2 are related to each other and to refractive index of the dielectrics.
It is given by n1sinØ1 = n2sinØ2 where n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of two mediums.
Ø1 and Ø2 are angles of incidence and refraction.
4. The light sources used in fibre optics communication are ____________ a) LED’s and
Lasers b) Phototransistors c) Xenon lights d) Incandescent View Answer
5. The ________ ray passes through the axis of the fiber core. a) Reflected b) Refracted c)
Meridional d) Shew View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: When a light ray is passed through a perfect optical fiber, any
discontinuities at the core cladding interface would result in refraction rather than total
internal reflection. Such light ray passes through the axis of fiber core and is called as
meridional ray. This principle is used while stating the fundamental transmission properties
of optical fiber.
6. Light incident on fibers of angles________the acceptance angle do not propagate into the
fiber. a) Less than b) Greater than c) Equal to d) Less than and equal to View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Acceptance angle is the maximum angle at which light may enter
into the fiber in order to be propagated. Hence the light incident on the fiber is less than the
acceptance angle, the light will propagate in the fiber and will be lost by radiation.
7. What is the numerical aperture of the fiber if the angle of acceptance is 16 degree? a) 0.50
b) 0.36 c) 0.20 d) 0.27 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The numerical aperture of a fiber is related to the angle of acceptance
as follows:
NA = sin Ѳa Where NA = numerical aperture Ѳ = acceptance angle.
8. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another medium is called as
_________ a) Speed factor b) Dielectric constant c) Reflection index d) Refraction index
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: When a ray travels from one medium to another, the ray incident
from a light source is called as incident ray. In passing through, the speed varies. The ratio of
the speed of incident and the refracted ray in different medium is called refractive index.
9. When a ray of light enters one medium from another medium, which quality will not
change? a) Direction b) Frequency c) Speed d) Wavelength View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The electric and the magnetic field have to remain continuous at the
refractive index boundary. If the frequency is changed, the light at the boundary would
change its phase and the fields won’t match. In order to match the field, frequency won’t
change
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Single-Mode Fibers”.
1. An optical fiber has core-index of 1.480 and a cladding index of 1.478. What should be the
core size for single mode operation at 1310nm? a) 7.31μm b) 8.71μm c) 5.26μm d) 6.50μm
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Normalized frequency V<=2.405 is the value at which the lowest
order Bessel function J=0. Core size(radius) .
2. An optical fiber has a core radius 2μm and a numerical aperture of 0.1. Will this fiber
operate at single mode at 600 nm? a) Yes b) No View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: V= 2πa.NA/λ. Calculating this equation, we get the value of V. V is
the normalised frequency and should be below 2.405 in order to operate the fiber at single
mode. Here, V=2.094, is less than 2.405. Thus, this optical fiber exhibit single mode
operation.
3. What is needed to predict the performance characteristics of single mode fibers? a) The
intermodal delay effect b) Geometric distribution of light in a propagating mode c) Fractional
power flow in the cladding of fiber d) Normalized frequency View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A mode field diameter (MFD) is a fundamental parameter of single
mode fibers. It tells us about the geometric distribution of light. MFD is analogous to core
diameter in multimode fibers, except in single mode fibers not all the light that propagates is
carried in the core.
4. Which equation is used to calculate MFD? a) Maxwell’s equations b) Peterman equations
c) Allen Cahn equations d) Boltzmann’s equations View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Mode field diameter is an important parameter for single mode fibers
because it is used to predict fiber properties such as splice loss, bending loss. The standard
technique is to first measure the far-field intensity distribution and then calculating mode
field diameter using Peterman equations.
5. A single mode fiber has mode field diameter 10.2μm and V=2.20. What is the core
diameter of this fiber? a) 11.1μm b) 13.2μm c) 7.6μm d) 10.1μm View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: For a single mode fiber, MFD=2w0. Here, core radius Solving this
equation, we get a=5.05μm. Core-diameter=2a=10.1μm.
6. The difference between the modes’ refractive indices is called as ___________ a)
Polarization b) Cutoff c) Fiber birefringence d) Fiber splicing View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: There are two propagation modes in single mode fibers. These two
modes are similar but their polarization planes are orthogonal. In actual fibers, there are
imperfections such as variations in refractive index profiles. These modes propagate with
different phase velocities and their difference is given by B f =ny – nx. Here, ny and nx are
refractive indices of two modes.
7. A single mode fiber has a beat length of 4cm at 1200nm. What is birefringence? a) 2*10 -5
b) 1.2*10-5 c) 3*10-5 d) 2 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Bf=ny– nx = λ/Lp. Here, λ=wavelength and Lp = beat length. Solving
this equation, we will get the answer.
8. How many propagation modes are present in single mode fibers? a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Five View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: For a given optical fiber, the number of modes depends on the
dimensions of the cable and the variations of the indices of refraction of both core and
cladding across the cross section. Thus, for a single mode fiber, there are two independent,
degenerate propagation modes with their polarization planes orthogonal.
9. Numerical aperture is constant in case of step index fiber. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Numerical aperture is a measure of acceptance angle of a fiber. It
also gives the light gathering capacity of the fiber. For a single mode fiber, core is of constant
refractive index. There is no variation with respect to core. Thus, Numerical aperture is
constant for single mode fibers.
10. Plastic fibers are less widely used than glass fibers. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The majority of the fibers are made up of glass consisting of silica.
Plastic fibers are used for short distance transmissions unlike glass fibers which can also be
used for long haul applications. Also, plastic fibers have higher attenuation than glass fibers.
This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers focuses on
“Electromagnetic Mode Theory for Optical Propagation”.
1. Which equations are best suited for the study of electromagnetic wave propagation? a)
Maxwell’s equations b) Allen-Cahn equations c) Avrami equations d) Boltzmann’s equations
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Electromagnetic mode theory finds its basis in electromagnetic
waves. Electromagnetic waves are always represented in terms of electric field E, magnetic
field H, electric flux density D and magnetic flux density B. These set of equations are
provided by Maxwell’s equations.
2. When λ is the optical wavelength in vacuum, k is given by k=2Π/λ. What does k stand for
in the above equation? a) Phase propagation constant b) Dielectric constant c) Boltzmann’s
constant d) Free-space constant View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In the above equation, k = 2Π/λ, also termed as wave equation, k
gives us the direction of propagation and also the rate of change of phase with distance.
Hence it is termed as phase propagation constant.
3. Constructive interference occur when total phase change after two successive reflections at
upper and lower interfaces is equal to? (Where m is integer) a) 2Πm b) Πm c) Πm/4 d) Πm/6
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The component of phase waves which is in x direction is reflected at
the interference between the higher and lower refractive index media. It is assumed that such
an interference forms a lowest order standing wave, where electric field is maximum at the
center of the guide, decaying towards zero.
4. When light is described as an electromagnetic wave, it consists of a periodically varying
electric E and magnetic field H which are oriented at an angle? a) 90 degree to each other b)
Less than 90 degree c) Greater than 90 degree d) 180 degree apart View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In case of electromagnetic wave which occur only in presence of
both electric and magnetic field, a particular change in magnetic field will result in a
proportional change in electric field and vice versa. These changes result in formation of
electromagnetic waves and for electromagnetic waves to occur both fields should be
perpendicular to each other in direction of wave travelling.
5. A monochromatic wave propagates along a waveguide in z direction. These points of
constant phase travel in constant phase travel at a phase velocity V p is given by? a) Vp=ω/β b)
Vp=ω/c c) Vp=C/N d) Vp=mass/acceleration View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Velocity is a function of displacement. Phase velocity V p is a
measure of angular velocity.
6. Which is the most important velocity in the study of transmission characteristics of optical
fiber? a) Phase velocity b) Group velocity c) Normalized velocity
d) Average velocity View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Group velocity is much important in relation to transmission
characteristics of optical fiber. This is because the optical wave propagates in groups or form
of packets of light.
7. What is refraction? a) Bending of light waves b) Reflection of light waves c) Diffusion of
light waves d) Refraction of light waves View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Unlike reflection, refraction involves penetration of a light wave
from one medium to another. While penetrating, as it passes through another medium it gets
deviated at some angle.
8. The phenomenon which occurs when an incident wave strikes an interface at an angle
greater than the critical angle with respect to the normal to the surface is called as
____________ a) Refraction b) Partial internal reflection c) Total internal reflection d)
Limiting case of refraction View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Total internal reflection takes place when the light wave is in the
more dense medium and approaching towards the less dense medium. Also, the angle of
incidence is greater than the critical angle. Critical angle is an angle beyond which no
propagation takes place in an optical fiber.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Cylindrical Fiber”.
1. A multimode step index fiber has a normalized frequency of 72. Estimate the number of
guided modes. a) 2846 b) 2592 c) 2432 d) 2136 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A step-index fiber has a constant refractive index core. The number
of guided

modes in a step-index fiber are given by M = (V*V)/2. Here M denotes the number of modes
and V denotes normalized frequency.
2. A graded-index fiber has a core with parabolic refractive index profile of diameter of
30μm, NA=0.2, λ=1μm. Estimate the normalised frequency. a) 19.32 b) 18.84 c) 16.28 d)
17.12 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Normalized frequency for a graded index fiber is given by V =
2Πa(NA)/λ. Substituting and calculating the values, we get option 18.84. Here, V denotes
normalized frequency and NA = numerical aperture.
3. A step-index fiber has core refractive index 1.46 and radius 4.5μm. Find the cutoff
wavelength to exhibit single mode operation. Use relative index difference as 0.25%. a)
1.326μm b) 0.124μm c) 1.214μm d) 0.123μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The cutoff wavelength is the wavelength beyond which no single
mode operation takes place. On solving λc = 2Πan1 2Δ−−−√/V, we get option c. Here,
V=2.405, n1 = refractive index of core, a=radius of core.
4. A single-mode step-index fiber or multimode step-index fiber allows propagation of only
one transverse electromagnetic wave. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Single mode step index fiber is also called as mono-mode step index
fiber. As the name suggests, only one mode is transmitted and hence it has the distinct
advantage of low intermodal dispersion.
5. One of the given statements is true for intermodal dispersion. Choose the right one. a) Low
in single mode and considerable in multimode fiber b) Low in both single mode and
multimode fiber c) High in both single mode and multimode fiber d) High in single mode and
low in multimode fiber View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Single mode propagates only one wave or only one mode is
transmitted. Therefore, intermodal dispersion is low in single mode. In multimode fibers,
higher dispersion may occur due to varying group velocities of propagating modes.
6. For lower bandwidth applications ______________ a) Single mode fiber is advantageous
b) Photonic crystal fibers are advantageous c) Coaxial cables are advantageous d) Multimode
fiber is advantageous View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In multimode fibers, intermodal dispersion occurs. The group
velocities often differ which gradually restricts maximum bandwidth attainability in
multimode fibers.
7. Most of the optical power is carried out in core region than in cladding. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In an ideal multimode fiber, there is no mode coupling. The optical
power launched into a particular mode remains in that mode itself. The majority of these
modes are mostly confined to fiber core only.
8. Meridional rays in graded index fibers follow ____________ a) Straight path along the
axis b) Curved path along the axis c) Path where rays changes angles at core-cladding
interface d) Helical path View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Meridional rays pass through axis of the core. Due to the varying
refractive index at the core, the path of rays is in curved form.
9. What is the unit of normalized frequency? a) Hertz b) Meter/sec c) Coulombs d) It is a
dimensionless quantity View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Normalized frequency of optical fiber is the frequency which exists
at cut-off
condition. There is no propagation and attenuation above cut-off. It is directly proportional to
numerical aperture which is a dimensionless quantity; hence itself is a dimensionless
quantity.
10. Skew rays follow a ___________ a) Hyperbolic path along the axis b) Parabolic path
along the axis c) Helical path d) Path where rays changes angles at core-cladding interface
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The ray which does not pass through the fiber axis is termed as skew
ray. Unlike Meridional rays, skew rays are more in number which makes them follow a round
path called as helical path.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Photonic Crystal Fibers & Attenuation”.
1. Photonic crystal fibers also called as ___________ a) Conventional fibers b) Dotted fibers
c) Stripped fibers d) Holey fibers View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Photonic crystal fibers contain a fine array of air holes running
longitudinally down the fiber cladding. The microstructure within the fiber is highly periodic.
2. Conventional optical fibers has more transmission losses than photonic crystal fibers. a)
True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Conventional optical fibers have several hundreds of losses in
transmission. Photonic crystal fibers have resulted in reduction in overall transmission losses.
3. Losses in photonic crystal fibers are reduced to a level of ___________ a) 0.1dB/km b)
0.2dB/km c) 0.3dB/km d) 0.4dB/km View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Conventional fibers have losses of several hundred decibels per km.
The invention of photonic crystal tubes has reduced the losses by hundreds of decibels.
4. The high index contrast enables the PCF core to be reduced from around 8 μmin
conventional fiber to ___________ a) Less than 1μm b) More than 5μm c) More than 3μm d)
More than 2μm View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: PCF’s have a wider range of optical properties in comparison with
standard fibers. The lesser the core, more is the intensity of light in the core and enhances the
non-linear effects.
5. The periodic arrangement of cladding air holes in photonic band gap fibers provides for the
formation of a photonic band gap in the ___________ a) H-plane of fiber b) E-plane of fiber
c) E-H-plane of fiber d) Transverse plane of fiber View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Photonic band gap fibers are a class of micro structured fiber in
which periodic arrangement of air holes is required. As a PBG fiber exhibits a 2-dimensional
band gap, than the wavelengths within this band gap cannot propagate perpendicular to the
fiber axis.
6. In index-guided photonic crystal fiber structure, the dark areas are air holes. What does
white areas suggests? a) Air b) Silica c) Water d) Plasma View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Index-guided photonic crystal fibers have greater index contrast
because the cladding contains air-holes having refractive index 1. Both index guided and
conventional fibers arises from the manner in which guided mode interacts with the cladding
region.
7. Which is the unit of measurement of attenuation in optical fibers? a) km b) dB c) dB/km
d) Coulomb’s View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Attenuation is also referred to as transmission loss. Channel
attenuation helped to determine the maximum transmission distance prior to signal
restoration. Attenuation is usually expressed in logarithmic unit of decibel. It is given by α dBL
= 10 log10Pi / Po Where αdB = signal attenuation per unit length Pi & Po = Input and output
power.
8. The optical fiber incurs a loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber which is
called as ___________ a) Scattering b) Attenuation c) Absorption d) Refraction View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: When the light is passed through the fiber, it travels a large amount
of distance before it starts fading. It needs restoration in the path. This loss or fading is called
as Attenuation.
9. If the input power 100μW is launched into 6 km of fiber, the mean optical power at the
fiber output is 2μW. What is the overall signal attenuation through the fiber assuming there
are no connectors or splices? a) 15.23dB b) 16.98dB c) 17.12dB d) 16.62dB View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Signal attenuation is usually expressed in decibels. It is given by
Signal attenuation=10 log10Pi / Po Where, Pi & Po = Input and output power.
10. A device that reduces the intensity of light in optical fiber communications is
___________ a) compressor b) Optical attenuator c) Barometer d) Reducer View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A compressor compresses the signal before transmission. It does not
affect the
intensity of light. Optical attenuator is a device that affects the intensity of light and incurs a
loss in transmission.
11. A decibel may be defined as the ratio of input and output optical power for a particular
optical wavelength. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Signal attenuation refers to the loss in transmission and it needs a
logarithmic unit to express. Decibel is mainly used for comparing two power levels. It has the
advantage that the operations of multiplication and division reduce to addition and
subtraction.
12. When the input and output power in an optical fiber is 120μW & 3μW respectively and
the length of the fiber is 8 km. What is the signal attenuation per km for the fiber? a) 3dB/km
b) 2dB/km c) 1dB/km d) 4dB/km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Signal attenuation per unit length is given by α dBL = 10 log10Pi / Po
αdBL = 16 dB αdB = 16 dB/L = 2dB/km.
2. Questions on Transmission Characteristics Of Optical Fibers
The section contains questions on material absorption and fiber bend loss, linear and
nonlinear scattering losses, chromatic and intermodal dispersion, fiber dispersion,
polarization and nonlinear effects.
This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on
“Material Absorption & Fiber Bend Losses In Silicon Glass Fibers”.
1. Which of the following statements best explain the concept of material absorption? a) A
loss mechanism related to the material composition and fabrication of fiber b) A transmission
loss for optical fibers c) Results in attenuation of transmitted light d) Causes of transfer of
optical power View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Material absorption is a loss mechanism that results in dissipation of
transmitted

optical power as heat in a waveguide. It can be caused by impurities or interaction with other
components of the core.
2. How many mechanisms are there which causes absorption? a) One b) Three c) Two d)
Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Absorption is a loss mechanism. It may be intrinsic, extrinsic and
also caused by atomic defects.
3. Absorption losses due to atomic defects mainly include ___________ a) Radiation b)
Missing molecules, oxygen defects in glass c) Impurities in fiber material d) Interaction with
other components of core View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Atomic defects are imperfections in the atomic structure of fiber
material. Atomic structure includes nucleus, molecules, protons etc. Atomic defects thus
contribute towards loss of molecules, oxygen, etc.
4. The effects of intrinsic absorption can be minimized by ___________ a) Ionization b)
Radiation c) Suitable choice of core and cladding components d) Melting View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Intrinsic absorption is caused by interaction of light with one or more
components of the glass i.e. core. Thus, if the compositions of core and cladding are chosen
suitably, this effect can be minimized.
5. Which of the following is not a metallic impurity found in glass in extrinsic absorption? a)
Fe2+ b) Fe3+ c) Cu d) Si View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In the optical fibers, prepared by melting techniques, extrinsic
absorption can be observed. It is caused from transition metal element impurities. In all these
options, Si is a constituent of glass and it cannot be considered as an impurity to glass itself.
6. Optical fibers suffer radiation losses at bends or curves on their paths. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optical fibers suffer radiation losses due to the energy in the bend or
curves exceeding the velocity of light in the cladding. Hence, guiding mechanism is inhibited,
which in turn causes light energy to be radiated from the fiber.
7. In the given equation, state what αr suggests? a) Radius of curvature b) Refractive index
difference c) Radiation attenuation coefficients d) Constant of proportionality View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Above equation represents the fiber loss. This loss is seen at bends
and curves as the fibers suffer radiation losses at curves. These radiation losses are
represented by a radiation attenuation coefficient (αr).
8. A multimode fiber has refractive indices n1 = 1.15, n2 = 1.11 and an operating wavelength
of 0.7μm. Find the radius of curvature? a) 8.60μ m b) 9.30μm c) 9.1μm d) 10.2μm View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The radius of curvature of the fiber bend of a multimode fiber is
given by Where, Rc = radius of curvature n1, n2 = refractive indices λ = wavelength.
9. A single mode fiber has refractive indices n1=1.50, n2 = 2.23, core diameter of 8μm,
wavelength = 1.5μm cutoff wavelength = 1.214μm. Find the radius of curvature? a) 12 mm b)
20 mm
c) 34 mm d) 36 mm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The radius of curvature of the fiber bend of a single mode fiber is
given by- Where R = radius of curvature, n1, n2 = refractive indices, λc = cutoff wavelength,
λ = operating wavelength.
10. How the potential macro bending losses can be reduced in case of multimode fiber? a) By
designing fibers with large relative refractive index differences b) By maintaining direction of
propagation c) By reducing the bend d) By operating at larger wavelengths View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In the case of multimode fibers, radius of curvature is directly
proportional to core refractive index and operating wavelength. In order to reduce the macro
bending losses, the operative wavelength must be small and fibers must have large relative
refractive index difference. Losses are inversely proportional to refractive index differences.
11. Sharp bends or micro bends causes significant losses in fiber. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Sharp bends usually have a radius of curvature almost near to the
critical radius. The fibers with the radius near to the critical radius cause significant losses
and hence they are avoided.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Linear & Non-Linear Scattering Losses”.
1. Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering are the types of _____________ a) Linear scattering
losses b) Non-linear scattering losses c) Fiber bends losses d) Splicing losses View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering both result from non-ideal
physical properties of the fiber. These losses may be impossible to eradicate. Linear
scattering mechanisms cause the transfer of optical power contained within one propagating
mode to be transferred linearly into a different mode.
2. Dominant intrinsic loss mechanism in low absorption window between ultraviolet and
infrared absorption tails is ___________ a) Mie scattering b) Rayleigh scattering c)
Stimulated Raman scattering d) Stimulated Brillouin scattering View Answer
3. Rayleigh scattering can be reduced by operating at smallest possible wavelengths. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Rayleigh scattering results from inhomogeneity of a random nature
occurring on a small level compared with the wavelength of light. The Rayleigh scattering is
inversely proportional to the wavelength. Thus, as wavelength scattering reduces.
4. The scattering resulting from fiber imperfections like core-cladding RI differences,
diameter fluctuations, strains, and bubbles is? a) Rayleigh scattering b) Mie scattering c)
Stimulated Brillouin scattering d) Stimulated Raman scattering View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Linear scattering also occurs at inhomogeneity which are comparable
in size with the guided wavelength. These results from non-perfect cylindrical structures of
the waveguide and hence caused by fiber imperfections.
5. Mie scattering has in-homogeneities mainly in ___________ a) Forward direction b)
Backward direction c) All direction d) Core-cladding interface View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In Mie scattering, the scattering in-homogeneities size is greater
thanλ/10. Also, the
scattered intensity has an angular dependence which is very large. The in-homogeneities are
mainly in the direction of guided wavelength i.e. in forward direction.
6. The in-homogeneities in Mie scattering can be reduced by coating of a fiber. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Mie scattering is a type of linear scattering loss. It results from
fluctuations in diameter, differences in core-cladding refractive index, and differences along
the fiber length. Therefore, such in-homogeneities can be reduced by controlled extrusion and
coating of the fiber.
7. Raman and Brillouin scattering are usually observed at ___________ a) Low optical power
densities b) Medium optical power densities c) High optical power densities d) Threshold
power densities View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Raman and Brillouin scattering mechanism are non-linear. They
provide optical gain but with a shift in frequency, thus contributing to attenuation for light
transmission at a particular wavelength. They can be seen at high optical power densities.
8. The phonon is a quantum of an elastic wave in a crystal lattice. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A phonon is an elastic arrangement of atoms or molecules in
condensed matter. This matter maybe solids or liquids. A phonon is a discrete unit of
vibrational mechanical energy given by hf joules; Where h = Planck’s constant f = frequency.
9. A single-mode optical fiber has an attenuation of 0.3dB/km when operating at wavelength
of 1.1μm. The fiber core diameter is 4μm and bandwidth is 500 MHz. Find threshold optical
power for stimulated Brillouin scattering. a) 11.20 mw b) 12.77 mw c) 13.08 mw d) 12.12
mw View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The threshold optical power stimulated Brillouin scattering is given
by- PB = 4.4*10-3d2λ2αdBv Where, PB = threshold optical power d = diameter of core λ =
wavelength αdB = attenuation.
10. 0.4 dB/km, 1.4μm, 6μm, 550MHz. Find threshold optical power for stimulated Raman
scattering. a) 1.98 W b) 1.20 W c) 1.18 W d) 0.96 W View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The threshold optical power stimulated Raman scattering is given by-
PR = 5.9*10-2d2λαdB Where, PR = optical power for Raman scattering d = diameter of core λ =
wavelength αdB = attenuation.
11. Stimulated Brillouin scattering is mainly a ___________ a) Forward process b) Backward
process c) Upward process d) Downward process View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The incident photon in Stimulated Brillouin scattering reduces a
phonon of acoustic frequency as well as scattered photon. This produces an optical frequency
shift which varies with the scattering angle. This frequency shift is max. in backward
direction reducing to zero in forward direction making Stimulated Brillouin scattering a
backward process.
12. High frequency optical phonon is generated in stimulated Raman scattering. a) False b)
True View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: An acoustic proton is generated in Stimulated Brillouin scattering.
Raman scattering may have an optical power threshold higher than Stimulated Brillouin
scattering.
13. Stimulated Raman scattering occur in ___________ a) Forward direction b) Backward
direction c) Upward direction d) Forward and backward direction View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Stimulated Raman scattering is similar to Stimulated Brillouin
scattering except that a high frequency phonon is generated in Stimulated Raman scattering.
Stimulated Raman scattering can occur in forward and backward direction as it has optical
power threshold higher than Stimulated Brillouin scattering.
14. Stimulated Raman scattering may have an optical power threshold of may be three orders
of magnitude ___________ a) Lower than Brillouin threshold b) Higher than Brillouin
threshold c) Same as Brillouin threshold d) Higher than Rayleigh threshold View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Stimulated Raman scattering involves generation of high- frequency
phonon. Stimulated Brillouin scattering on the other hand, involves the generation of an
acoustic phonon in a scattering process.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Dispersion – Chromatic Dispersion “.
1. What is dispersion in optical fiber communication? a) Compression of light pulses b)
Broadening of transmitted light pulses along the channel c) Overlapping of light pulses on
compression d) Absorption of light pulses View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Dispersion of transmitted optical signal causes distortion of analog as
well as digital transmission. When the optical signal travels along the channel, the dispersion
mechanism causes broadening of light pulses and thus in turn overlaps with their neighboring
pulses.
2. What does ISI stand for in optical fiber communication? a) Invisible size interference b)
Infrared size interference c) Inter-symbol interference
d) Inter-shape interference View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Dispersion causes the light pulses to broaden and overlap with other
light pulses. This overlapping creates an interference which is termed as inter-symbol
interference.
3. For no overlapping of light pulses down on an optical fiber link, the digital bit rate BT
must be ___________ a) Less than the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration b) More than
the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration c) Same as that of than the reciprocal of broadened
pulse duration d) Negligible View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The digital bit rate and pulse duration are always inversely
proportional to each other. BT < = 12 Γ Where BT = bit rate 2Γ = duration of pulse.
4. The maximum bit rate that may be obtained on an optical fiber link is 1/3Γ. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The digital bit rate is function of signal attenuation on a link and
signal to noise ratio. For the restriction of interference, the bit rate should be always equal to
or less than 1/2Γ.
5. 3dB optical bandwidth is always ___________ the 3dB electrical bandwidth. a) Smaller
than b) Larger than c) Negligible than d) Equal to View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Optical bandwidth is half of the maximum data rate. For non-return:0
(NRZ), bandwidth is same as bit rate. The bandwidth B for metallic conductors is defined by
electrical 3dB points. Optical communication uses electrical circuitry where signal power has
dropped to half its value due to modulated portion of modulated signal.
6. A multimode graded index fiber exhibits a total pulse broadening of 0.15μsover a distance
of 16 km. Estimate the maximum possible bandwidth, assuming no intersymbol interference.
a) 4.6 MHz b) 3.9 MHz c) 3.3 MHz d) 4.2 MHz View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The maximum possible bandwidth is equivalent to the maximum
possible bitrate. The maximum bit rate assuming no inter-symbol interference is given by BT
= 12 Γ Where BT = bandwidth.
7. What is pulse dispersion per unit length if for a graded index fiber, 0.1μs pulse broadening
is seen over a distance of 13 km? a) 6.12ns/km b) 7.69ns/km c) 10.29ns/km d) 8.23ns/km
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The dispersion mechanism causes broadening of light pulses. The
pulse dispersion per unit length is obtained by dividing total dispersion of total length of
fiber. Dispersion = 0.1*10-6/13 = 7.69 ns/km.
8. Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Intermodal delay is a result of each mode having a different group
velocity at a single frequency. The intermodal delay helps us to know about the information
carrying capacity of the fiber.
9. Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Intermodal delay, the name only suggests, includes many modes. On
the other hand chromatic dispersion is pulse spreading that takes place within a single mode.
Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion.
10. The optical source used in a fiber is an injection laser with a relative spectral width σ λ/λ
of 0.0011 at a wavelength of 0.70μm. Estimate the RMS spectral width. a) 1.2 nm b) 1.3 nm
c) 0.77 nm d) 0.98 nm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The relative spectral width σλ/λ= 0.01 is given. The rms spectral
width can be calculated as follows: σλ/λ = 0.0011 σλ = 0.0011λ = 0.0011*0.70*10-6 = 0.77
nm.
11. In waveguide dispersion, refractive index is independent of ______________ a) Bit rate
b) Index difference c) Velocity of medium d) Wavelength View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In material dispersion, refractive index is a function of optical
wavelength. It varies as a function of wavelength. In wavelength dispersion, group delay is
expressed in terms of normalized propagation constant instead of wavelength.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Intermodal Dispersion”.
1. Intermodal dispersion occurring in a large amount in multimode step index fiber results in
____________ a) Propagation of the fiber b) Propagating through the fiber c) Pulse
broadening at output d) Attenuation of waves View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion is caused due to
difference in propagation delay between different modes in the multimode fiber. As different
modes travel with different group velocities, the pulse width at output depends on
transmission time of all modes. This creates difference in overall dispersion which results in
pulse broadening.
2. After Total Internal Reflection the Meridional ray __________ a) Makes an angle equal to
acceptance angle with the axial ray b) Makes an angle equal to critical angle with the axial
ray c) Travels parallel equal to critical angle with the axial ray d) Makes an angle equal to
critical angle with the axial ray View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The Meridional ray travels along the axis of the fiber. When the ray
is incident, makes an angle equal to acceptance angle and thus it propagates through the fiber.
As the propagating ray gets refracted from the boundary, it makes an angle (i.e. critical angle)
with the normal.
3. Consider a single mode fiber having core refractive index n1= 1.5. The fiber length is 12m.
Find the time taken by the axial ray to travel along the fiber. a) 1.00μsec b) 0.06μsec c)
0.90μsec d) 0.30μsec View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The time taken by the axial ray to travel along the fiber gives the
minimum delay time Tmin = Ln1/c Where L = length of the fiber n1 = Refractive index of core
c = velocity of light in vacuum.
4. A 4 km optical link consists of multimode step index fiber with core refractive index of 1.3
and a relative refractive index difference of 1%. Find the delay difference between the
slowest and fastest modes at the fiber output. a) 0.173 μsec b) 0.152 μsec c) 0.96 μsec d)
0.121 μsec View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The delay difference is given by δTs = Ln1/c Where δTs = delay
difference n1 = core refractive index Δ = Relative refractive index difference c = velocity of
light in vacuum.
5. A multimode step-index fiber has a core refractive index of 1.5 and relative refractive
index difference of 1%. The length of the optical link is 6 km. Estimate the RMS pulse
broadening due to intermodal dispersion on the link. a) 92.6 ns b) 86.7 ns c) 69.3 ns d) 68.32
ns View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion is obtained
by the equation is given below: σs = Ln1Δ/2√3c Where σs = RMS pulse broadening L =
length of optical link C = velocity of light in vacuum n1 = core refractive index.
6. The differential attenuation of modes reduces intermodal pulse broadening on a multimode
optical link. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Intermodal dispersion may be reduced by propagation mechanisms.
The differential attenuation of various modes is due to the greater field penetration of the
higher order modes into the cladding of waveguide. These slower modes exhibit larger losses
at any core-cladding irregularities.
7. The index profile of a core of multimode graded index fiber is given by? a) N (r) = n1 [1 –
2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a b) N (r) = n1 [3 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a c) N (r) = n1 [5 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r>a d) N
(r) = n1 [1 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In multimode graded index fibers, many rays can propagate
simultaneously. The Meridional rays follow sinusoidal trajectories of different path length
which results from index grading.
8. Intermodal dispersion in multimode fibers is minimized with the use of step-index fibers.
a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: As multimode graded index fibers show substantial bandwidth
improvement over multimode step index fibers. So, inter-modal dispersion in multimode
fiber is minimized with the use of multimode graded index fibers.
9. Estimate RMS pulse broadening per km due to intermodal dispersion for multimode step
index fiber where length of fiber is 4 km and pulse broadening per km is 80.6 ns. a)
18.23ns/km b) 20.15ns/km c) 26.93ns/km d) 10.23ns/km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening per km due to intermodal dispersion for
multimode step index fiber is given by (σ s(1 km)/L = 80.6/4 = 20.15 Where L = length of
fiber σs = pulse broadening.
10. Practical pulse broadening value for graded index fiber lies in the range of __________ a)
0.9 to 1.2 ns/km b) 0.2 to 1 ns/km c) 0.23 to 5 ns/km d) 0.45 to 8 ns/km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: As all optical fiber sources have a finite spectral width, the profile
shape must be altered to compensate for this dispersion mechanism. The minimum overall
dispersion for graded index fiber is also limited by other intermodal dispersion mechanism.
Thus pulse broadening values lie within range of 0.2 to 1 ns/km.
11. The modal noise occurs when uncorrected source frequency is? a) δf>>1/δT b) δf=1/δT c)
δf<<1/δT d) Negligible View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Modal noise is dependent on change in frequency. Frequency is
inversely proportional to time. The patterns are formed by interference of modes from a
coherent source when coherence time of source is greater than intermodal dispersion time δT
within fiber.
12. Disturbance along the fiber such as vibrations, discontinuities, connectors, splices,
source/detectors coupling result in __________ a) Modal noise b) Inter-symbol interference
c) Infrared interference d) Pulse broadening View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Disturbance along the fiber cause fluctuations in specific pattern.
These speckle patterns have characteristics time longer than resolution time of detector and is
known as modal noise.
13. The modal noise can be reduced by __________ a) Decreasing width of signal
longitudinal mode b) Increasing coherence time c) Decreasing number of longitudinal modes
d) Using fiber with large numerical aperture View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Disturbances along fiber cause fluctuations in speckle patterns.
Fibers with large numerical apertures support the transmission of large number of modes
giving greater number of speckle, thereby reducing modal noise.
14. Digital transmission is more likely to be affected by modal noise. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Analog transmission is more affected by modal noise due to higher
optical power levels which is required at receiver when quantum noise effects are considered.
So it is important to look into design considerations.
This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
“Overall Fiber Dispersion & Modified Single Mode Fibers”.
1. A multimode step index fiber has source of RMS spectral width of 60nm and dispersion
parameter for fiber is 150psnm-1km-1. Estimate rms pulse broadening due to material
dispersion. a) 12.5ns km-1 b) 9.6ns km-1 c) 9.0ns km-1 d) 10.2ns km-1 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening per km due to material dispersion is
given by σm(1 km) = σλLM = 60*1* 150pskm-1 = 9.0nskm-1 Where σλ = rms spectral width L
= length of fiber M = dispersion parameter.
2. A multimode fiber has RMS pulse broadening per km of 12ns/km and 28ns/km due to
material dispersion and intermodal dispersion resp. Find the total RMS pulse broadening. a)
30.46ns/km b) 31.23ns/km c) 28.12ns/km d) 26.10ns/km View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The overall dispersion in multimode fibers comprises both chromatic
and intermodal terms. The total RMS pulse broadening σ T is given by Where σm = RMS
pulse broadening due to material dispersion σi = RMS pulse broadening due to intermodal
dispersion.
3. Γg = dβ / C*dk. What is β in the given equation? a) Attenuation constant b) Propagation
constant c) Boltzmann’s constant d) Free-space View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Above given equation is an equation of transit time or a group
delay(Γg) for a light pulse. This light pulse is propagating along a unit length of a single
mode fiber.
4. Most of the power in an optical fiber is transmitted in fiber cladding. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Most of the power in optical fiber is transmitted in fiber core. This is
because in multimode fibers, majority of modes propagating in the core area are far from
cutoff. Hence more power is transmitted.
5. A single mode fiber has a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.21μm and a dispersion slope of
0.08 psnm-2km-1. What is the total first order dispersion at wavelength 1.26μm. a) -2.8psnm-1
km-1 b) -3.76psnm-1 km-1 c) -1.2psnm-1 km-1 d) 2.4psnm-1 km-1 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The total first order dispersion for fiber at two wavelength is
obtained by DT(1260 nm) = λS0/4 [1-(λ0/λ)4] = (1260*0.08*10-12)/4 * (1-[1550/1260]4) = -
3.76psnm-1km-1 Where λ0 = zero dispersion wavelength λ = wavelength S 0 = dispersion slope
DT = total first order dispersion.
6. The dispersion due to material, waveguide and profile are -2.8nm-1km-1, 20.1nm-1km-1 and
23.2nm-1km-1respectively. Find the total first order dispersion? a) 36.2psnm-1 km-1 b)
38.12psnm-1 km-1 c) 40.5psnm-1 km-1 d) 20.9psnm-1 km-1 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The total dispersion is given by D T = DM + DW + DP(psnm-1km-1)
Where DW = waveguide dispersion DM = Material dispersion DP = profile dispersion.
7. Dispersion-shifted single mode fibers are created by __________ a) Increasing fiber core
diameter and decreasing fractional index difference b) Decreasing fiber core diameter and
decreasing fractional index difference c) Decreasing fiber core diameter and increasing
fractional index difference d) Increasing fiber core diameter and increasing fractional index
difference View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: It is possible to modify the dispersion characteristics of single mode
fibers by tailoring of some fiber parameters. These fiber parameters include core diameter
and relative index difference.
8. An alternative modification of the dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers involves
achievement of low dispersion gap over the low-loss wavelength region between __________
a) 0.2 and 0.9μm b) 0.1 and 0.2μm c) 1.3 and 1.6μm d) 2 and 3μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Dispersion characteristics can be altered by changing fiber
parameters and wavelength. The achievement of low dispersion gap over the region 1.3 and
1.6μm modifies the dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers.
9. The fibers which relax the spectral requirements for optical sources and allow flexible
wavelength division multiplying are known as __________ a) Dispersion-flattened single
mode fiber b) Dispersion-enhanced single mode fiber c) Dispersion-compressed single mode
fiber d) Dispersion-standardized single mode fiber View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The dispersion-flattened single mode fibers (DFFS) are obtained by
fabricating multilayer index profiles with increased waveguide dispersion. This is tailored to
provide overall dispersion say 2psnm-1km-1 over the wavelength range 1.3 to 1.6μm.
10. For suitable power confinement of fundamental mode, the normalized frequency v should
be maintained in the range 1.5 to 2.4μm and the fractional index difference must be linearly
increased as a square function while the core diameter is linearly reduced to keep v constant.
This confinement is achieved by? a) Increasing level of silica doping in fiber core b)
Increasing level of germanium doping in fiber core c) Decreasing level of silica germanium
in fiber core d) Decreasing level of silica doping in fiber core View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The tailoring of fiber parameters provides suitable power
confinement. These parameters may be diameter, index-difference, frequency etc. The doping
level of germanium contributes to the tailoring of fiber parameters; which in turn provides
suitable power confinement.
11. Any amount of stress occurring at the core-cladding interface would be reduced by
grading the material composition. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A problem arises with that of simple step index approach to
dispersion shifting is high. The fibers produced exhibit high dopant-dependent losses at
operating wavelengths. These losses are caused by induced-stress in the region of core-
cladding interface. This can be reduced by grading the material composition of the fiber.
12. The variant of non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber is called as __________ a) Dispersion
flattened fiber b) Zero-dispersion fiber c) Positive-dispersion fiber d) Negative-dispersion
fiber View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The dispersion profile for non-zero dispersion shifted fiber is referred
to as bandwidth non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber. It was introduced to provide wavelength
division multiplexed applications to be extended into the s-band. The variant of non-zero-
dispersion-shifted fiber can also be referred to as dispersion compensating fiber.
13. Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced in the year 2000. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced in mid-1990s to
provide wavelength division multiplexing applications. In the year 2000, the dispersion
profile for non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Polarization”.
1. For many applications that involve optical fiber transmission, an intensity modulation
optical source is not required. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In many optical fibers transmission, the cylindrical fibers used
generally do not maintain polarization state of light input source not more than a few meters.
So for this reason, optical sources intensity modulation is required.
2. The optical source used for detection of optical signal is ____________ a) IR sensors b)
Photodiodes c) Zener diodes d) Transistors View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Optical signal is generally detected by photodiodes because
photodiode is generally insensitive to optical polarization or phase of light with the fiber.
3. An optical fiber behaves as a birefringence medium due to differences in ___________ a)
Effective R-I and core geometry b) Core-cladding symmetry c) Transmission/propagation
time of waves d) Refractive indices of glass and silica View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In an optical fiber with ideal optically circulatory symmetric core,
both polarization modes propagate with same velocities. These fibers have variations in
internal and external stress; fiber bending and so exhibit some birefringence.
4. The beat length in a single mode optical fiber is 8 cm when light from a laser with a peak
wavelength 0.6μm is launched into it. Estimate the modal birefringence. a) 1×10 -5 b) 3.5×10-5
c) 2×10-5 d) 4×10-5 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Modal birefringence can be obtained by- BF = λ/LB = 0.8×10-6/0.08 =
1×10-5 Where λ = peak wavelength LB = beat length.
5. Beat length of a single mode optical fiber is 0.6cm. Calculate the difference between
propagation constants for the orthogonal modes. a) 69.8 b) 99.86 c) 73.2 d) 104.66 View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The difference between the propagation constant for two orthogonal
modes can be obtained by: βx – βy = 2Π/LB = 2×3.14/0.06 = 104.66 Where βx & βy are
propagation constants for slow & fast modes resp. LB = beat length.
6. A polarization maintaining fiber operates at a wavelength 1.2μm and have a modal
birefringence of 1.8*10-3. Calculate the period of perturbation. a) 0.7 seconds b) 0.6 seconds
c) 0.23 seconds d) 0.5 seconds View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The period of perturbation is given by- T = λ/BF Where λ is operating
wavelength, BF = Birefringence, T = period of perturbation.
7. When two components are equally excited at the fiber input, then for polarization
maintaining fibers δΓg should be around ___________ a) 1.5ns/km b) 1 ns/km c) 1.2ns/km d)
2ns/km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The differential group delay δΓ g is related to polarization mode
dispersion (PMD) of fiber. This linear relationship to fiber length however applies only to
short fiber-lengths in which birefringence are uniform.
8. Polarization modal noise can _________ the performance of communication system. a)
Degrade b) Improve c) Reduce d) Attenuate View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Polarization modal noise is generally of larger amplitude than modal
noise. It is obtained within multimode fibers and so it degrades the performance of the
communication system and prevents transmission of analog signals.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Non-Linear Effects”.
1. The nonlinear effects in optical fibers are large. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The nonlinear effect arises from the interactions between light waves
and the material transmitting them and thus affects the optical signals. The nonlinear effects
are usually small in optical fibers. They have power levels of up to few milliWatts.
2. How many categories of nonlinear effects are seen in optical fibers? a) One b) Two c)
Three d) Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The nonlinear effects are separated on the basis of their
characteristics. There are two such categories; one is scattering effect and the other is Kerr
effect.
3. Which of the following is not related to Kerr effects? a) Self-phase modulation b) Cross-
phase modulation c) Four-wave mixing d) Stimulated Raman Scattering View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Stimulated Raman Scattering is related to scattering. The other
effects include modulation and mixing which are parts of Kerr effect.
4. Linear scattering effects are _______ in nature. a) Elastic b) Non-Elastic c) Mechanical d)
Electrical View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Linear scattering effects are elastic because the scattered wave
frequency is equal to incident wave frequency. Nonlinear scattering effects are purely
inelastic.
5. Which thing is more dominant in making a fiber function as a bidirectional optical
amplifier? a) Core material b) Pump source c) Cladding material d) Diameter of fiber View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Brillouin gain is always greater than Raman gain. It exists for light
propagation in opposite direction to the pump source. Also Brillouin frequency shifts and
gain bandwidth are much smaller than Raman. Raman amplification occurs for light
propagating in either direction. Thus, pump source is more important in making a fiber
function as bidirectional optical amplifier.
6. _________ semiconductor laser sources generally have broader bandwidths. a) Injection b)
Pulsed c) Solid-state d) Silicon hybrid View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Pulsed semiconductor lasers have broader bandwidths. Therefore,
these sources prove to be inefficient pump sources. They prove inefficient especially for
narrow gain spectrum.
7. Nonlinear effects which are defined by the intensity – dependent refractive index of the
fiber are called as ________ a) Scattering effects b) Kerr effects c) Raman effects d)
Tomlinson effects View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Kerr effects are nonlinear effects. Nonlinear effects are divided into
scattering and Kerr effects. Scattering effects include scattering of phonon whereas Kerr
effects include intensity refractive index parameters.
8. Self-phase modulation causes modifications to the pulse spectrum. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Kerr effect results in different transmission phase for the peak of the
pulse
compared with leading and trailing edges. Self-phase modulation can broaden the frequency
spectrum of the pulse as the time varying phase creates a time varying frequency.
9. Self-phase modulation can be used for _____________ a) Enhancing the core diameter b)
Wavelength shifting c) Decreasing the attenuation d) Reducing the losses in the fiber View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Self phase modulation is related to phase change. It imposes a
positive frequency sweep on the pulse which in turn enables wavelength or frequency
shifting.
10. The beating between light at different frequencies or wavelengths in multichannel fiber
transmission causes ________ a) Attenuation b) Amplitude modulation of channels c) Phase
modulation of channels d) Loss in transmission View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Phase modulation is related to frequency and wavelength shifting. In
multichannel fiber transmission, phase modulation causes generation of modulation
sidebands at new frequencies. This phenomenon is called as four-wave mixing.
11. What is different in case of cross-phase modulation from self-phase modulation? a)
Overlapping but same pulses b) Overlapping but distinguishable pulses c) Non-overlapping
and same pulses d) Non-overlapping but distinguishable pulses View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In cross phase modulation, variation in intensity of one pulse width
modulates the refractive index of the fiber which causes phase modulation of the overlapping
phases. In self-phase modulation, this phase modulation broadens the pulse spectrum.
12. When three wave components co-propagate at angular frequency w1, w2, w3, then a new
wave is generated at frequency w4, which is given by? a) w4 = w1 – w2 – w3 b) w4 = w1 +
w2 + w3 c) w4 = w1 + w2 – w3 d) w4 = w1 – w2 + w3 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: This type of frequency mixing is called as four-wave mixing. This
frequency combination is problematic for multichannel optical communication as they
become phase matched if the channel wavelengths are near to zero dispersion wavelengths.
13. _____________ results from a case of nonlinear dispersion compensation in which the
nonlinear dispersion compensation in which the nonlinear chirp caused by self-phase
modulation balances, postpones, the temporal broadening induced by group velocity delay. a)
Four wave mixing b) Phase modulation c) Soliton propagation d) Raman scattering View
Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Soliton propagation is a nonlinear dispersion phenomenon. It limits
the propagation distance that can be achieved when acting independently. It balances
broadening of light pulse.
3. Questions & Answers on Optical Fibers And Cables
The section contains questions and answers on vapour and liquid phase techniques, optical
fibers and its cables, fiber transmission characteristics and cable design.
This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses
on “Preparation of Optical Fibers – Liquid Phase Techniques”.
1. What is a fundamental necessity in the fabrication of fibers for light transmission? a) Same
refractive index for both core and cladding b) Pump source c) Material composition of fiber
d) Variation of refractive index inside the optical fiber View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: For fabrication of fibers, two different transparent materials to light
over a wavelength range of 0.8 to 1.7μm are required. Fiber should exhibit low attenuation,
absorption and scattering losses. The variation of refractive indices in a fiber is a necessity for
fiber fabrication.
2. Which materials are unsuitable for the fabrication of graded index fiber? a) Glass-like-
materials b) Mono-crystalline structures
c) Amorphous material d) Silica based material View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In case of graded index fiber, it is essential that the refractive index
of the material is varied by suitable doping with another compatible material. These two
materials should have mutual solubility over a wide range of concentration. This is achieved
only in glass-like-materials.
3. How many different categories are available for the methods of preparing optical glasses?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The methods of preparing optical glasses are divided into two
categories. One is the conventional glass refining technique and other is vapor-phase-
deposition method.
4. What is the first stage in liquid-phase-technique? a) Preparation of ultra-pure material
powders b) Melting of materials c) Decomposition d) Crystallization View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In liquid-phase-technique melting, the first stage includes the
preparation of ultra-pure material powders. These are usually oxides or carbonates which
decomposes during glass melting.
5. Which processes are involved in the purification stage in liquid-phase-technique? a)
Filtration, Co-precipitation, Re-crystallization b) Decomposition, Filtration, Drying c)
Doping, Drying, Decomposition d) Filtration, Drying, Doping View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The compounds such as oxides and carbonates are formed during the
glass melting. The purification accounts for a large proportion of material cost. These
compounds are commercially available. The purification involves filtration, co-precipitation,
re-crystallization and drying.
6. At what temperature range, does the melting of multi components glass systems takes
place? a) 100-300 degree Celsius b) 600-800 degree Celsius c) 900-1300 degree Celsius d)
1500-1800 degree Celsius View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The glass materials in the powdered form and have relatively low
melting point. Thus, the glass materials are melted at relatively low temperatures in the range
of 900-1300 degrees Celsius.
7. Fiber drawing using preform was useful for the production of graded index fibers. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A technique for producing fine optical fiber waveguides is to make a
preform using the rod in the tube process. This technique was useful for the production of
step-index fibers with large core diameters. In this technique, achievement of low attenuation
is not critical as there is a danger of including bubbles at the core-cladding interface.
8. The minute perturbations and impurities in the fiber drawing process using preform
technique can result in very high losses of _____________ a) Between 500 and 1000 dB/km
b) Between 100 and 300 dB/km c) Between 1200 and 1600 dB/km d) More than 2000 dB/km
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The minute perturbations and impurities in the fiber include
formations of bubbles and involvement of particulate matter. The losses due to such
impurities can be between 500 and 1000 dB/km.
9. The liquid-phase melting technique is used for the production of fibers ___________ a)
With a core diameter of 50μm b) With a core diameter less than 100μm c) With a core
diameter more than 200μm d) With a core diameter of 100μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The multicomponent glass fibers prepared continuously by liquid-
phase melting technique have losses in the range of 5 and 20 dB/km at a wavelength of
0.85μm. This method is
thus used for preparation of fibers with a large core diameter. Also this technique is used for
the continuous production of fibers.
10. Graded index fibers produced by liquid-phase melting techniques are less dispersive than
step-index fibers. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Liquid-phase melting technique does not offer optimum parabolic
profile fibers. This parabolic profile yields minimum pulse dispersion. Graded index fibers
prepared using liquid-phase melting techniques are less dispersive but do not have the
bandwidth-length products of optimum profile fibers.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Vapor – Phase Deposition Techniques”.
1. Which of the following is not a technique for fabrication of glass fibers? a) Vapor phase
oxidation method b) Direct melt method c) Lave ring method d) Chemical vapor deposition
technique View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Lave ring method refers to the deposition of a crystalline layer on a
substrate. All the other methods, except lave ring method, refer to optical fiber fabrication.
2. _____________ technique is method of preparing extremely pure optical glasses. a) Liquid
phase (melting) b) Radio frequency induction c) Optical attenuation d) Vapor Phase
Deposition (VPD) View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Vapor Phase Deposition techniques are used to prepare silica-rich
glasses. These glasses exhibit highest transparency and optimal optical properties.
3. Which of the following materials is not used as a starting material in vapor-phase
deposition technique? a) SiCl4 b) GeCl4 c) O2
d) B2O3 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In vapor-phase deposition technique, starting materials are volatile
organic compounds. These materials are distilled to reduce the concentration of transition
metal impurities. B2O3 is used as a dopant.
4. P2O5 is used as a _____________ a) Dopant b) Starting material c) Cladding glass d) Core
glass View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: P2O5 is a non silica material. Dopants are formed from non silica
materials so that refractive index modification is achieved. Other dopants include Ti O 2, Ge
O2, etc.
5. How many types of vapor-phase deposition techniques are present? a) One b) Two c)
Three d) Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Vapor-phase deposition techniques are divided into two types. The
two types are flame hydrolysis and chemical vapor deposition (CVD). Further, these two
types are subdivided into two more sections.
6. ___________ uses flame hydrolysis stems from work on soot processes which were used
to prepare the fiber with losses below 20 dB/km. a) Outside vapor phase oxidation b)
Chemical vapor deposition c) Liquid phase melting d) Crystallization View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Outside vapor phase oxidation is a type of vapor flame hydrolysis. It
was originally developed by Hyde. In this process, the glass composition is deposited from a
‘soot’ generated by hydrolyzing the halide vapors in an oxygen-hydrogen flame.
7. Complete the given reaction.
SiCl4 + 2H2O → SiO2 + ______
a) 2HCl b) 4HCl c) 2Cl2 d) 4Cl2 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: SiCl4 is a starting material used in vapour-phase deposition
technique. Dopants are added to the starting material in presence of heat to give glass
compound. In the above reaction SiO2 (solid compound) along with 4HCl(gas) is obtained.
8. In modified chemical vapor deposition, vapor phase reactant such as _________ pass
through a hot zone. a) Halide and oxygen b) Halide and hydrogen c) Halide and silica d)
Hydroxides and oxygen View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Halide and oxygen are passed through the hot zone during chemical
vapor deposition. Glass particles formed during this travel are deposited on the walls of silica
tube which are moved back and forth allowing the particles to deposit layer by layer.
9. _________ is the stimulation of oxide formation by means of non-isothermal plasma
maintained at low pressure in a microwave cavity surrounding the tube. a) Outside Vapor
Phase Oxidation (OVPO) b) Vapor Axial Deposition (VAD) c) Modified Chemical Vapor
Deposition (MCVD) d) Plasma-activated Chemical Vapor Deposition (PCVD) View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: PCVD method was first developed by Cuppers and Koenig’s. It
involves a plasma-induced chemical vapor deposition inside a silica tube. It is different from
MCVD process as it involves stimulation of oxide formation by means of non-isothermal
plasma.
10. Only graded index fibers are made with the help of vapor-phase deposition techniques. a)
True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Vapor phase deposition techniques are used for preparation of both
step-index and graded index fibers. These techniques provide fibers with low attenuation
losses. Also, it gives similar performance for the fabrication of both single mode and
multimode fibers.
11. Modified Chemical Vapor Deposition (MCVD) process is also called as an inside vapor
phase oxidation (IVPD) technique. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: MCVD process was developed by Bell Telephone Laboratories and
Southampton University, UK. It is called as inside vapor phase oxidation (IVPO) as it takes
place inside the silica tube at the temperatures between 1400 and 1600 degrees Celsius.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Optical Fibers”.
1. Multimode step index fiber has ___________ a) Large core diameter & large numerical
aperture b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture c) Small core diameter and
large numerical aperture d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Multimode step-index fiber has large core diameter and large
numerical aperture. These parameters provides efficient coupling to inherent light sources
such as LED’s.
2. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber shows as variation of attenuation in
range of ___________ a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.69μm b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1 at
wavelength 0.59μm c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.85μm d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1 at
wavelength 0.90μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: A multimode step index fibers show an attenuation variation in range
of 2.6 to 50dBkm-1. The wide variation in attenuation is due to the large differences both
within and between the two overall preparation methods i.e. melting and deposition.
3. Multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range is ___________ a) 100 to
300 μm b) 100 to 300 nm c) 200 to 500 μm d) 200 to 500 nm View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A multimode step index fiber has a core diameter range of 100 to
300μm. This is to facilitate efficient coupling to inherent light sources.
4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of ___________ a) 2 to 30 MHz km b) 6 to
50 MHz km c) 10 to 40 MHz km d) 8 to 40 MHz km View Answer
5. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with ___________ a)
Lower purity b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers. c) No impurity d) Impurity
as same as multimode step index fibers. View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have higher purity than multimode
step index fiber. To reduce fiber losses, these fibers have more impurity.
6. The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are ___________ a)
Better than multimode step index fibers b) Same as multimode step index fibers c) Lesser
than multimode step index fibers d) Negligible View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers use a constant grading factor.
Performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are better than those of
multimode step index fibers due to index graded and lower attenuation.
7. Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode step index
fibers but have core diameters ___________ a) Larger than multimode step index fibers b)
Smaller than multimode step index fibers c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers d)
Smaller than single mode step index fibers View Answer
8. Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical aperture of
0.29 have core/cladding diameter of ___________ a) 62.5 μm/125 μm b) 100 μm/140 μm
c) 85 μm/125 μm d) 50 μm/125μm View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers with numerical aperture 0.29 having
a core/cladding diameter of 100μm/140μm. They provide high coupling frequency LED’s at a
wavelength of 0.85 μm and have low cost. They are also used for short distance application.
9. Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers are used for short haul and medium to
high bandwidth applications. Small haul applications require LEDs and low accuracy lasers.
Thus either incoherent or incoherent sources like LED’s or injection laser diode are used.
10. In single mode fibers, which is the most beneficial index profile? a) Step index b) Graded
index c) Step and graded index d) Coaxial cable View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In single mode fibers, graded index profile is more beneficial as
compared to step index. This is because graded index profile provides dispersion-modified-
single mode fibers.
11. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
___________ a) Single mode fibers b) Multimode step fibers c) Coaxial cables d) Multimode
graded index fibers View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Single mode fibers are used to produce polarization maintaining
fibers which make them expensive. Also the alternative to them are multimode fibers which
are complex but accurate. So, single-mode fibers are not generally utilized in optical fiber
communication.
12. Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be at least
___________ a) Twice the core diameter
b) Thrice the core diameter c) Five times the core diameter d) Ten times the core diameter
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The cladding diameter in single mode fiber must be ten times the
core diameter. Larger ratios contribute to accurate propagation of light. These dimension
ratios must be there so as to avoid losses from the vanishing fields.
13. A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is? a) Coaxial cables b) Standard
single mode fibers c) Standard multimode fibers d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A standard single mode fiber having step index profile is known as
non-dispersion shifted fiber. As these fibers have a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.31μm
and so are preferred for single-wavelength transmission in O-band.
14. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for operation in ___________ a)
C-band b) L-band c) O-band d) C-band and L-band View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: SSMFs are utilized for operation in O-band only. It shows high
dispersion in the range of 16 to 20ps/nm/km in C-band and L-band. So SSMFs are used in O-
band.
15. Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength transmission in O-band is? a) Low-water-peak
non dispersion-shifted fibers b) Standard single mode fibers c) Low minimized fibers d) Non-
zero-dispersion-shifted fibers View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Standard single mode fibers with a step index profile are called non
dispersion shifted fiber and it is particularly used for single wavelength transmission in O-
band and as if has a zero-dispersion wavelength at 1.31μm.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on ” Optical Fiber Cables”.
1. When optical fibers are to be installed in a working environment, the most important
parameter to be considered is? a) Transmission property of the fiber b) Mechanical property
of the fiber c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber d) Numerical aperture of the fiber View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Nowadays, optical fibers are used alternatively to electric
transmission lines. They are installed safely and maintained in all environments including
underground areas. This requires mechanical strengthening of fibers in order to ensure proper
transmission.
2. It is not important to cover these optical fibers required for transmission. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Unprotected optical fibers have number of losses regarding its
strength and durability. Bare glass fibers are brittle and have small cross-section area that
makes them highly susceptible to damages while handling and maintenance. Thus, to
improve tensile strength, optical fibers should be covered by surrounding them with number
of protective layers.
3. Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from ___________ a) Plastic b)
Silica or multicomponent glass c) Ceramics d) Copper View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Silica or a compound of glass are brittle and have almost perfect
elasticity until reaching their breaking point. Strength of these materials is high. Thus, optical
fibers are fabricated from these materials.
4. An Si-O bond with a Young’s modulus of 9*1010Nm-1 have an elliptical crack of depth
7nm. The surface energy is 2.29 J. Estimate fracture stress for silica fiber. a) 4.32*10 9Nm-1 b)
6.32*109Nm-1 c) 5.2*109Nm-1 d) 3*109Nm-1 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: For an elliptical crack, the fracture stress is given by- Sf =
(2Eγp/πC)1/2 Where Sf = fracture stress γp = surface energy C = depth of crack.
5. Calculate percentage strain at break for a Si-O bond with a fracture strength of
3.52*1010Nm-1 and Young’s modulus of 9 *109Nm-1. a) 3.1 % b) 2.8 % c) 4.5 % d) 3.9 %
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Young’s modulus is given by- E = Stress/Strain To calculate strain
from the above formula, we have to divide stress by Young’s modulus. Therefore, Strain =
Stress/E.
6. Stress corrosion must be considered while designing and testing optical fiber cables. a)
True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Stress corrosion means growth of flaws due to stress and water. This
occurs as a result of molecular bonds at the tip of crack being attacked by water. Hence, it is
important to have a protection against water to avoid stress corrosion.
7. Which statistics are used for calculations of strengths of optical fibers? a) Edwin statistics
b) Newton statistics c) Wei-bull statistics d) Gamma statistics View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Calculations of strengths are conducted using Wei-bull statistics in
case of optical fibers. It describes the strength behavior of a system that is dependent on the
weakest link of the system. The Wei-bull statistics gives the probability of failure of the
optical fiber at a given strength.
8. What does n denotes in the equation given below, if v c is the crack velocity; A is the
constant for the fiber material and KI is the strength intensity factor?
vc = AKIn
a) Refractive index b) Stress corrosion susceptibility c) Strain d) Young’s modulus View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The above equation allows estimation of the time to failure of a fiber
under stress corrosion conditions. The constant n is called as stress corrosion susceptibility. It
is typically in the range of 15 to 50 for a glass.
This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced
people focuses on “Stability of the Fiber Transmission Characteristics”.
1. ____________ results from small lateral forces exerted on the fiber during the cabling
process. a) Attenuation b) Micro-bending c) Dispersion d) Stimulated Emission View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Optical fibers must be designed so that the transmission
characteristics of the fiber are maintained after the cabling process. The main problem which
occurs in the cabling process is the meandering of the axis of the fiber core on a microscopic
scale within the cable form. This phenomenon is called as micro-bending.
2. Microscopic meandering of the fiber core axis that is micro-bending is caused due to
___________ a) Environmental effects b) Rough edges of the fiber c) Large diameter of core
d) Polarization View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Micro-bending can be generated at any stage during manufacturing
process, cable installation process or during service. This is mainly due to environmental
effects, mainly varying temperatures causing differential expansion or contraction.
3. How many forms of modal power distribution are considered? a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Two forms of modal power distribution are considered. The first
form is seen when a fiber is excited by a diffuse Lambertian source, and is called as fully
filled mode distribution. The second form occurs when, due to mode coupling and
attenuation, the distribution of optical power becomes invariant with the distance of
propagation along the fiber, and is called as steady-state mode distribution.
4. What does micro-bending losses depend on _____________ a) Core material b) Refractive
index c) Diameter d) Mode and wavelength View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Micro-bending losses cause differential expansion or contraction.
These losses are mode dependent. The number of modes is a function inverse to the
wavelength of the transmitted light and thus micro-bending losses are wavelength dependent.
5. The fiber should be________________ to avoid deterioration of the optical transmission
characteristics resulting from mode-coupling-induced micro-bending. a) Free from irregular
external pressure b) Coupled with plastic c) Large in diameter d) Smooth and in a steady state
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Micro-bending losses results from environmental effects such as
temperature variation. The irregular external pressure deteriorates the quality of transmission
through the fiber. Thus, controlled coating and cabling of the fiber is essential in order to
reduce the cabled fiber attenuation.
6. The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber affects the ______________ a) Transmission
of optical light in the fiber b) Spectral attenuation characteristics of the fiber c) Core of the
fiber d) Cladding of the fiber View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The hydrogen absorption by an optical fiber increases optical fiber
losses. It forms
absorption peaks where the hydrogen diffuses into interstitial spaces in the glass. At high
temperatures, these losses can increase and reduced if the hydrogen source is removed.
7. __________ can induce a considerable amount of attenuation in optical fibers. a) Micro-
bending b) Dispersion c) Diffusion of hydrogen d) Radiation Exposure View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The optical transmission characteristics of the fiber cables can be
degraded by exposure to nuclear radiation. The nature of this attenuation depends upon fiber
structures, optical intensity, wavelength, etc. The radiation-induced attenuation comprises
both permanent and temporary components which makes the exposure irreversible and
reversible respectively.
8. The radiation-induced attenuation can be reduced through photo-bleaching. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Photo-bleaching can be exploited to study the diffusion of molecules.
It is used to remove the radiation exposure by quenching auto-fluorescence. It helps to
increase signal-to-noise ratio of the fiber and thus reduces attenuation.
9. The losses due to hydrogen absorption and reaction with fiber deposits can be temporary.
a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Hydrogen absorption occurs in two mechanisms. First phenomenon
affects silica-based glass fibers whereas the second one occurs when hydrogen reacts with the
fiber deposits to give P-OH, Ge-OH absorption. These losses are permanent.
10. The losses caused due to hydrogen absorption mechanisms are in the range of
___________ a) 20 dB/km to 25 dB/km b) 10 dB/km to 15 dB/km c) 25 dB/km to 50 dB/km
d) 0 dB/km to 5 dB/km View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber leads to an increase in
optical fiber
losses, causing damage to spectral loss characteristics. This phenomenon gets vibrant at
higher temperatures. The losses caused due to such absorption are greater than 25 dB/km.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Cable Design”.
1. The cable must be designed such that the strain on the fiber in the cable does not exceed
__________ a) 0.002% b) 0.01% c) 0.2% d) 0.160% View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The constraints included in cable design are stability, protection,
strength and jointing of the fibers. The fiber cable does not get affected if the strain exerted
on it is below 0.2%. Although, it is suggested that the permanent strain on the fiber should be
less than 0.1%.
2. How many categories exists in case of cable design? a) Two b) Three c) One d) Four View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Cable design is separated into three categories. They are fiber
buffering, cable structural and strength and cable sheath and water barrier. After successfully
going through these tests, an optical cable is designed.
3. How many types of buffer jackets are used in fiber buffering? a) Three b) One c) Two d)
Four View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The buffer jacket is designed to protect the fiber from micro-bending
losses. There are three types of buffer jackets used in fiber buffering. They are tight buffer
jackets, loose tube buffer jackets and filled loose tube buffer jacket.
4. Loose tube buffer jackets exhibits a low resistance to movement of the fiber. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Loose tube buffering is achieved by using a hard, smooth, flexible
material in the form of extruded tube. The buffer tube is smooth from inside. Thus, it exhibits
a low resistance to movement of the fiber. Also, it can be easily stripped for jointing or fiber
termination.
5. An inclusion of one or more structural members in an optical fiber so as to serve as a cable
core foundation around which the buffer fibers may be wrapped is called _____________ a)
Attenuation b) Splicing c) Buffering d) Stranding View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Optical fiber is made structurally stronger by adding one or more
strength members. The core fiber is trapped with buffered fibers or they are slotted in the core
foundation. This approach is called as stranding.
6. Which of the following is not a strength member used in optical cable? a) Steel wire b)
Germanium c) Aramid yarns d) Glass elements View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Strength members or tensile members are added to the fiber to make
it stronger and durable. These members include solid steel wire, dielectric aramid yarns
(Kevlar), glass elements etc. Germanium is not a structural or strength member.
7. When the stranding approach consists of individual elements (e.g. single-fiber or multi
fiber loose tube buffer) than the cable is termed as _____________ a) Optical unit cable b)
Coaxial cable c) Layer cable d) Bare glass cable View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The stranding approach consists of a fiber core foundation around
which the buffered fibers are wrapped. The cable elements are stranded in one, two or several
layers around the central structural member. When the stranding is composed of individual
elements, then the
cable is termed as layer cable. If the cable core consists of stranding elements each of which
comprises a unit of stranding elements, then it is termed as optical unit cable.
8. The primary function of the structural member is load bearing. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The primary function of the structural member is not load bearing.
It’s function is to provide suitable accommodation for the fiber ribbons within the cables.
These fiber ribbons lie in the helical grooves or slots formed in the surface of the structural
members.
9. What is the Young’s modulus of Kevlar, an aromatic polyester? a) 9 ×10 10Nm-2 b) 10
×1010Nm-2 c) 12 ×1010Nm-2 d) 13 ×1010Nm-2 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Kevlar is used as a strength member in an optical fiber. The Young’s
modulus of Kevlar is very high which gives it strength to weight ratio advantage four times
that of steel. Kevlar is coated with extruded plastic to provide a smooth surface which in turn
prevents micro-bending losses.
10. The cable is normally covered with an outer plastic sheath to reduce _______________ a)
Abrasion b) Armor c) Friction d) Dispersion View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Abrasion is the process of scraping or wearing something away. If
the cable is not coated with plastic sheath, it gives rise to effects such as abrasion and
crushing. The most common plastic sheath material used in covering a cable is polyethylene
(PE).
4. Questions on Optical Fiber Connections : Joints, Couplers and Isolators
The section contains questions on fiber alignment and splices, fiber and beam connectors,
fiber couplers, optical isolators and circulators.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Fiber Alignment and Joint Loss”.
1. A measure of amount of optical fiber emitted from source that can be coupled into a fiber
is termed as ______________ a) Radiance b) Angular power distribution c) Coupling
efficiency d) Power-launching View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Coupling efficiency depends upon the type of fiber attached to the
source which should consider the parameters such as numerical aperture, core size, R.I.
profile, radiance, core-cladding index difference. All these parameters relate to the
performance of the fibers determined by power coupled into the fiber to power emitted by the
source. This is called coupling efficiency ηwhich is given by η = P F/Ps Where PF = power
coupled into the fiber Ps = power emitted by the source.
2. The ratio r = (n1 – n)/(n1 – n) indicates ____________ a) Fresnel reflection b) Reflection
coefficient c) Refraction coefficient d) Angular power distribution coefficient View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The ratio, r = (n1-n)/(n1-n) is known as Reflection coefficient. It
relates the amplitude of the reflected ray to the amplitude of the incident wave.
3. A GaAs optical source having a refractive index of 3.2 is coupled to a silica fiber having a
refractive index of 1.42. Determine Fresnel reflection at interface in terms of percentage. a)
13.4% b) 17.4% c) 17.6% d) 14.8% View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: If the fiber end and the source are in close physical contact, the
reflection is given by r = ((n1-n)/(n1-n))2 Multiplying r by 100, we get the value of r in terms
of percentage.
4. A particular GaAs fiber has a Fresnel reflection magnitude of 17.6% i.e. 0.176. Find the
power loss between the source and the fiber? a) 0.86 dB
b) 0.78 dB c) 0.84 dB d) 0.83 dB View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The optical losses in decibels at the joint is given by Loss = -
10log10(1-r) Where L = loss due to Fresnel reflection R = magnitude of Fresnel reflection.
5. Two joined step index fibers are perfectly aligned. What is the coupling loss of numerical
aperture are NAR= 0.26 for emitting fiber? a) -0.828 dB b) -0.010 dB c) -0.32 dB d) 0.32 dB
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined step index fibers is given by L F(NA) = -
10 log (NAR/NAE)2 Where LF = coupling loss NAR = Numerical aperture of receiving fiber
NAE = Numerical aperture of emitting fiber.
6. Two joined graded index fibers that are perfectly aligned have refractive indices α R = 1.93
for receiving fiber αE = 2.15 for emitting fiber. Calculate the coupling loss. a) 0.23 dB b) 0.16
dB c) 0.82 dB d) 0.76 dB View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined and perfectly aligned graded index fiber
is given by LF(α) = -10log10αR(αE+2)/αE(αR+2) Where LF(α) = Coupling loss αR = refractive
index of receiving fiber αE = refractive index of emitting fiber.
7. How many types of misalignments occur when joining compatible fiber? a) One b) Two c)
Five
d) Three View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: There are three layers of fiber misalignments and they are:
Longitudinal, lateral and angular misalignments.
8. Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter, numerical aperture, relative
refractive index differences, different refractive index profiles, fiber faults are known as
____________ a) Intrinsic joint losses b) Extrinsic losses c) Insertion losses d) Coupling
losses View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: There are inherent connection problems while joining fibers. These
connection problem cause different losses in the fibers and are called as Intrinsic joint losses.
9. A step index fiber has a coupling efficiency of 0.906 with uniform illumination of all
propagation modes. Find the insertion loss due to lateral misalignment? a) 0.95 dB b) 0.40 dB
c) 0.42 dB d) 0.62 dB View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The insertion loss due to lateral misalignment is given by Loss10t = -
10log10t η10t Where, Loss10t = insertion loss due to lateral misalignment η10t = Coupling
efficiency.
10. A graded index fiber has a parabolic refractive index profile (α=2) and core diameter of
42μm. Estimate an insertion loss due to a 2 μm lateral misalignment when there is index
matching and assuming there is uniform illumination of all guided modes only. a) 0.180 b)
0.106 c) 0.280 d) 0.080 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The misalignment loss (assuming there is uniform illumination of all
guided modes) is given by
Lt = 0.85(y/a)
Where y = lateral misalignment
a = core radius.
11. Determine coupling efficiency if the misalignment loss in a graded index fiber is 0.102.
a) 0.136
b) 0.898
c) 0.982
d) 0.684
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the misalignment loss is known, the coupling efficiency is defined by
η = 1-Lt
Where η = coupling efficiency
Lt = misalignment loss.
12. In a single mode fiber, the losses due to lateral offset and angular misalignment are given
by
0.20 dB and 0.46 dB respectively. Find the total insertion loss.
a) 0.66 dB
b) 0.26 dB
c) 0.38 dB
d) 0.40 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total insertion loss in a single mode fiber is given by
TT = TL + Ta
Where, TT = total insertion loss
TL = lateral offset loss
Ta = Angular misalignment loss.
13. The intrinsic loss through a multimode fiber joint is independent of direction of
propagation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intrinsic loss is defined as the summation of lateral offset loss and angular
misalignment loss. In case of multimode fibers, the intrinsic loss is dependent on the
refractive
index gradient. The intrinsic loss through a single mode fiber joint is independent of direction
of
propagation.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Fiber Splices”.

1. A permanent joint formed between two different optical fibers in the field is known as a
____________
a) Fiber splice
b) Fiber connector
c) Fiber attenuator
d) Fiber dispersion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The jointing of two individual fibers is called as fiber splicing. It is used to
establish long-haul optical fiber links by joining two small length fibers.
2. How many types of fiber splices are available?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Splices are divided into two types depending upon the splicing technique used.
These are fusion splicing (welding) and mechanical splicing.
3. The insertion losses of the fiber splices are much less than the Fresnel reflection loss at a
butted fiber joint.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Fresnel reflection loss is usually more because there is no large step change
in
refractive index with the fusion splice as it forms a continuous fiber connection. Also, some
method of index matching tends to be utilized with mechanical splices.
4. What is the main requirement with the fibers that are intended for splicing?
a) Smooth and oval end faces
b) Smooth and square end faces
c) Rough edge faces
d) Large core diameter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A curved mandrel is used which cleaves the fiber to achieve end preparation.
The
edges must be smooth and have square face at the end for splicing purpose.

5. In score and break process, which of the following is not used as a cutting tool?
a) Diamond
b) Sapphire
c) Tungsten carbide
d) Copper
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The score and break process is also called as scribe and break. It involves the
scribing of the fiber surface under tension with a cutting tool. Copper is not used as a cutting
tool.
6. The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing point with the application of
required axial pressure between the two optical fibers is called as ____________
a) Mechanical splicing
b) Fusion splicing
c) Melting
d) Diffusion
View Answer
7. Which of the following is not used as a flame heating source in fusion splicing?
a) Microprocessor torches
b) Ox hydric burners
c) Electric arc
d) Gas burner
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Micro-plasma torches uses argon and hydrogen and alcohol vapor. The most
widely
used heating source is an electric arc. Thus, gas burner is not used in fusion splicing.
8. The rounding of the fiber ends with a low energy discharge before pressing the fibers
together
and fusing with a stronger arc is called as ____________
a) Pre-fusion
b) Diffusion
c) Crystallization
d) Alignment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pre-fusion involves rounding of fiber ends. It removes the requirement for fiber
end
preparation which has a distinct advantage in the field environment. It is utilized with
multimode
fibers giving average splice losses of 0.09dB.
9. _____________ is caused by surface tension effects between the two fiber ends during
fusing.
a) Pre-fusion

b) Diffusion
c) Self-alignment
d) Splicing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two fiber ends are close but not aligned before fusion. During fusion, the
surface tension affects the fiber ends to get aligned. After fusion, they are aligned in such a
way
that a transmission medium can get a good continuity.
10. Average insertion losses as low as _________ have been obtained with multimode graded
index and single-mode fibers using ceramic capillaries.
a) 0.1 dB
b) 0.5 dB
c) 0.02 dB
d) 0.3 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanical techniques for splicing involve the use of an accurately produced
rigid
tube in which fiber ends are permanently bonded. It utilizes a ceramic capillary in which an
epoxy resin is injected through a transverse bore to provide mechanical sealing and index
matching. This technique which uses ceramic capillaries provides insertion losses as low as
0.1dB.
11. _____________ are formed by sandwiching the butted fiber ends between a V-groove
glass
substrate and a flat glass retainer plate.
a) Springroove splices
b) V-groove splices
c) Elastic splices
d) Fusion splices
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In V-groove splices, a V-groove glass substrate is used with a flat glass plate.
The
name V-groove suggests that the fiber ends are spliced in a V-shape.
These splices provide losses as low as 0.01dB.
12. Mean splice insertion losses of 0.05 dB are obtained using multimode graded index fibers
with the Springroove splice.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Springroove utilizes a bracket containing two cylindrical pins which act as

alignment guide for two fiber ends. An elastic element is used to press the fibers into a
groove.
The assembly is secured with a drop of epoxy resin. It provides a loss of 0.05 dB and has
found a
practical use in Italy.
13. Alignment accuracy of the order ___________ is obtained using the three glass rod
alignment sleeve.
a) 0.23 μm
b) 0.15 μm
c) 0.05 μm
d) 0.01 μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Alignment accuracies as high as 0.05 μmare necessary to obtain low losses. The
mode-field diameter for single-mode fiber is in the range 8 to 10μm. The three glass rod
alignment provides higher accuracies than rotary splice sleeve.
14. In case of multiple fusion, splice losses using an electric arc fusion device with
multimode
graded index fiber range from ____________
a) 0.01 to 0.04 dB
b) 0.19 to 0.25 dB
c) 0.12 to 0.15 dB
d) 0.04 to 0.12 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In multiple fusions, an electric arc fusing device allows splicing of 12 fibers
simultaneously. It takes a tool time of 6 minutes, which requires only 30 seconds per splice.
The
splice losses for single mode fiber are of 0.04 dB as maximum whereas for graded index
fibers,
losses are up to 0.12dB.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Fiber Connectors”.
1. Demountable fiber connectors are more difficult to achieve than optical fiber splices.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fiber connectors must maintain tolerance requirements similar to splices in
order to
couple light efficiently between the fibers. Also, fiber connectors must accomplish this in a
removable fashion. The connector design must allow repeated connection and disconnection
without any problems of fiber alignment.

2. What is the use of an index-matching material in the connector between the two jointed
fibers?
a) To decrease the light transmission through the connection
b) To increase the light transmission through the connection
c) To induce losses in the fiber
d) To make a fiber dispersive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The index-matching material used might be epoxy resin. It increases the light
transmission through the connection while keeping dust and dirt from between the fibers. It
also
provides optimum optical coupling.
3. How many categories of fiber connectors exist?
a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fiber connectors are separated into two broad categories. They are butt-jointed
connectors and expanded beam connectors. Butt-jointed connectors rely upon alignment of
the
two fiber ends butted to each other whereas expanded beam connectors uses interposed optics
at
the joint.
4. The basic ferrule connector is also called as _____________
a) Groove connector
b) Beam connector
c) Multimode connector
d) Concentric sleeve connector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The basic ferrule connector is the simplest connector. The ferrules are placed in
an
alignment sleeve within the connector. The alignment sleeve is concentric which allows the
fiber
ends to be butt-jointed.
5. What is the use of watch jewel in cylindrical ferrule connector?
a) To obtain the diameter and tolerance requirements of the ferrule
b) For polishing purposes
c) Cleaving the fiber
d) To disperse a fiber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ferrule connectors have a watch jewel in the ferrule end face. It is used instead
of

drilling of the metallic ferrule end face which takes time. It is used to obtain close diameter
and
tolerance requirements of the ferrule end face whole easily.
6. The concentricity errors between the fiber core and the outside diameter of the jeweled
ferrule
are in the range of ___________ with multimode step-index fibers.
a) 1 to 3μm
b) 2 to 6μm
c) 7 to 10μm
d) 12 to 20μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fiber alignment accuracy of the basic ferrule connector is dependent on the
ferrule hole into which the fiber is inserted. The concentricity errors in the range of 2 to 6μm
gives insertion losses in the range 1 to 2dB with multimode step index fibers.
7. The typical average losses for multimode graded index fiber and single mode fiber with the
precision ceramic ferrule connector are _____________ respectively.
a) 0.3 and 0.5 dB
b) 0.2 and 0.3 dB
c) 0.1 and 0.2 dB
d) 0.4 and 0.7 dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike metal and plastic components, the ceramic ferrule material is harder than
the
optical fiber. Thus, it is unaffected by grinding and polishing process. This factor enables to
provide the low-loss connectors which have low losses as low as 0.2 and 0.3 dB in case of
optical fibers.
8. Bi-conical ferrule connectors are less advantageous than cylindrical ferrule connectors.
a) FalseStat
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cylindrical and bi-conical ferrule connectors are assembled in housings to form
a
multi-fiber configuration. The force needed to insert multiple cylindrical ferrules can be large
when multiple ferrules are involved. The multiple bi-conical ferrule connectors are more
advantageous as they require less insertion force.
9. In connectors, the fiber ends are separated by some gap. This gap ranges from
____________
a) 0.040 to 0.045 mm
b) 0.025 to 0.10 mm
c) 0.12 to 0.16 mm

d) 0.030 to 0.2mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In connectors, gaps are introduced to prevent them from rubbing against each
other
and becoming damaged during connector fixing/engagement. The gap ranges from 0.025 to
0.10
mm so as to reduce the losses below 8dB for a particular diameter fiber say 50μm
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Expanded Beam Connectors”.
1. What is the use of interposed optics in expanded beam connectors?
a) To achieve lateral alignment less critical than a butt-joined fiber connector
b) To make a fiber loss free
c) To make a fiber dispersive
d) For index-matching
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Expanded beam connector utilize interposed optics at the joint in order to expand the
beam from transmitting fiber end before reducing it to a size compatible with the receiving fiber
end. It
helps to achieve lateral alignment less critical than a butt-jointed connector. Also, the longitudinal
separation is critical in expanded beam connectors.
2. The expanded beam connectors use ____________ for beam expansion and reduction.
a) Square micro-lens
b) Oval micro-lens
c) Spherical micro-lens
d) Rectangular micro-lens
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Expanded beam connectors use the principle of transmission of digital data to the
receiver.
It uses spherical micro-lens to first expand the beam from the transmitting end and reduces the
beam at
the receiving end.
3. Lens-coupled expanded beam connectors exhibit average losses of _________ in case of
single mode and graded index fibers.
a) 0.3 dB
b) 0.7 dB
c) 0.2 dB
d) 1.5 dB
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Lens-coupled expanded beam connectors use spherical micro-lenses. The average
losses
are in the range of 1dB. With the antireflection coating on the lenses, the losses are reduced to 0.7
dB in
case of single mode fibers.
4. Sapphire ball lens expanded beam design is successful than spherical lens coupled design.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spherical lens coupled design exhibits losses in the range 0.7 dB to 1dB. Sapphire ball
lens
expanded beam design achieved successful single mode fiber connection with losses as low as 0.4dB.
5. The fiber is positioned at the ________ of the lens in order to obtain a collimated beam and
to
minimize lens-to-lens longitudinal misalignment effects.
a) Aperture
b) Focal length
c) Curve
d) Exterior circumference
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The expanded beam connector also uses a molded spherical lens. A lens alignment
sleeve is
used to minimize the effects of angular misalignment. The fiber is positioned at the focal length of
the
lens to achieve losses as low as 0.7dB.
6. ___________ exhibits a parabolic refractive index profile with a maximum at the axis
similar
to graded index fiber.
a) Lens coupled design
b) Sapphire ball lens
c) Spherical micro-lens
d) GRIN-rod lens
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens geometry has a parabolic refractive index profile. It facilitates efficient
beam
expansion and collimation within expanded beam connectors. It finds its applications in fiber
couplers
and source-to-fiber coupling.
7. The GRIN-rod lens can produce a collimated output beam with a divergent angle αof between
_____________ from a light source situated on, or near to, the opposite lens face.
a) 1 to 5 degrees
b) 9 to 16 degrees

c) 4 to 8 degrees
d) 25 to 50 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens comprises of a cylindrical glass rod typically 0.2 to 2 mm in diameter. It
exhibits a parabolic refractive index profile. It facilitates efficient beam expansion and collimation
with
an angle in the range 1 to 5 degrees.
8. In the given equation, if r is the radial distance, n is the refractive index; what does z stands
for?
dr2/dz2 = (1/n) (d n/dr)
a) Focal length
b) Distance along the optical axis
c) Axial angle
d) Diameter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The above equation is known as paraxial ray equation which governs the ray
propagation
through the GRIN-rod lens. GRIN-rod lens geometry is parabolic in nature. Thus z is the distance
along
the optical axis of a parabolic profile.
9. The majority of the GRIN-rod lenses have diameters in the range of ____________
a) 2 to 2.5 mm
b) 3 to 4 mm
c) 0.1 to 0.4 mm
d) 0.5 to 2 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The GRIN-rod lenses performance directly depends on the radial distance. The
diameters in
the range of 0.5 to 2 mm may be employed with either single mode or multimode fibers. They are
available with numerical apertures of 0.37, 0.46 and 0.6.
10. Which of the following factors does not cause divergence of the collimated beam from a
GRIN-rod lens?
a) Lens cut length
b) Size of fiber core
c) Refractive index profile
d) Chromatic aberration
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Various factors contribute to the divergence of the collimated beam from a GRIN-rod
lens.
Error in lens cut length, finite size of the fiber core and chromatic aberration are the factors that
cause
divergence.
11. GRIN-rod lens connectors have loss characteristics that are independent of the modal
power
distribution in the fiber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens geometry is analogous to butt-jointed multimode fiber
connectors. The loss characteristics of butt-jointed connectors are dependent on modal power
distribution in the fiber
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Fiber Couplers”.
1. When considering source-to-fiber coupling efficiencies, the ________ is an important
parameter than total output power.
a) Numerical aperture
b) Radiance of an optical source
c) Coupling efficiency
d) Angular power distribution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Radiance is the optical power radiated into a unit solid angle per unit emitt ing
surface area. Since this optical power is dependent on radiance, radiance is much important
factor than optical power.
2. It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch fibers.
a) Optical fiber coupler
b) Optical fiber splice
c) Optical fiber connector
d) Optical isolator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nowadays, requirements to divide combined optical signals for applications are
increasing. Optical fiber coupler is one such device that is used for dividing and combining
optical signals. It is generally used in LANs, computer networks etc.

3. Optical fiber couplers are also called as ________________


a) Isolators
b) Circulators
c) Directional couplers
d) Attenuators
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical fiber couplers are passive devices. The power transfer in couplers takes
place either through the fiber core cross-section by butt jointing the fibers or by using some
form
of imaging optics between the fibers. It distributes light from one fiber to many fibers and
hence
it is also called as a directional coupler.
4. How many types of multiport optical fiber couplers are available at present?
a) Two
b) One
c) Four
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiport optical fiber couplers are subdivided into three types. These are three
and
four port couplers, star couplers and wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) couplers.
These
couplers distribute light among the branch fibers with no scattering loss.
5. The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is limited by ____________
a) Numerical apertures of fibers
b) Varying refractive index of fibers
c) Angular power distribution at source
d) Number of modes propagating in each fiber
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When two fibers are coupled to each other, the optical power is limited by
number
of modes propagating in each fiber. For example, when a fiber propagating with 500 modes is
connected to a fiber that propagates only 400 modes, then at maximum, only 80% of power is
coupled into the other fiber.
6. ________ couplers combine the different wavelength optical signal onto the fiber or
separate
the different wavelength optical signal output from the fiber.
a) 3-port
b) 2*2-star
c) WDM
d) Directional
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: WDM coupler is abbreviated as wavelength division multiplexing coupler. It is
a
category of multiport optical fiber couplers. It is designed to permit a number of different
peak
wavelength optical signals to be transmitted in parallel on a single fiber.
7. How many fabrication techniques are used for 3 port fiber couplers?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two fabrication techniques available for three port couplers. First is a
lateral offset method which relies on the overlapping of the fiber end faces and the other is
the
semi-transparent mirror method. Using these techniques, three port couplers with both
multimode and single-mode fibers can be fabricated.
8. Which is the most common method for manufacturing couplers?
a) Wavelength division multiplexing
b) Lateral offset method
c) Semitransparent mirror method
d) Fused bi-conical taper (FBT) technique
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The FBT technique is basic and simple. In this technique, the fibers are
generally
twisted together and then spot fused under tension such that the fused section is elongated to
form a bi-conical taper structure. A three port coupler can be obtained by removing one of the
input fibers.
9. Couplers insertion loss is same as that of excess loss.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Excess loss is defined as the ratio of input power to output power. The insertion
loss is defined as the loss obtained for a particular port-to-port optical path. Thus, the
insertion
loss and excess loss are different in nature.
10. A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μW optical power launched into port 1.
The
measured output power at ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5 μW respectively.
Determine
the excess loss.
a) 0.22 dB
b) 0.33 dB

c) 0.45 dB
d) 0.12 dB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Excess loss is a ratio of power input to power output of the fiber and it is given
by
Excess loss = 10log10 P1/(P3+P4)
WhereP1, P3, P4 = output power at ports 1,3 and 4 resp.
11. A four-port FBT coupler has 60μW optical power launched into port one. The output
powers
at ports 2, 3, 4 are 0.0025, 18, and 22 μW respectively. Find the split ratio?
a) 42%
b) 46%
c) 52%
d) 45%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Split ratio indicates the percentage division of optical power between the
outputs
ports. It is given by
Split ratio = [P3/(P3+P4)]*100%
Where P3 and P4 are output powers at ports 3 and 4 respectively.
12. How many manufacturing methods are used for producing multimode fiber star couplers?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The manufacturing methods of star couplers are mixer-rod technique and FBT
technique. In the mixer-rod method, a thin platelet of glass is employed, which mixes light
from
one fiber, dividing it among the outgoing fibers. FBT method involves twisting, heating and
pulling of fiber.
13. Calculate the splitting loss if a 30×30 port multimode fiber star coupler has 1 mW of
optical
power launched into an input port.
a) 13 dB
b) 15 dB
c) 14.77 dB
d) 16.02 dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The splitting loss is related to the number of output ports N of a coupler. It is
given

by-
Splitting loss (Star coupler) = 10log10N (dB).
14. A _____________ coupler comprises a number of cascaded stages, each incorporating
three
or four-port FBT couplers to obtain a multiport output.
a) Star
b) Ladder
c) WDM
d) Three-port
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A star coupler can be realized by constructing a ladder coupler. It consists of
many
cascaded stages. If a three-port coupler is used, then a ladder coupler does not form
symmetrical
star coupler. It is a useful device to achieve a multiport output with low insertion loss.
15. A number of three-port single-mode fiber couplers are used in the fabrication of a ladder
coupler with 16 output ports. The three-port couplers each have an excess loss of 0.2 dB
along
with a splice loss of 0.1 dB at the interconnection of each stage. Determine the excess loss.
a) 1.9 dB
b) 1.4 dB
c) 0.9 dB
d) 1.1 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The number of stages M within the ladder design is given by 2 M=16. Hence
M=4.
Thus, excess loss is given by-
Excess loss = (M×loss in each 3-port coupler) + (Number of splices×Loss in each stage)
Where number of splices = 3 (as the value of M is equal to 4)
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Optical Isolators and Circulators”.
1. An FBG is developed within a fiber core having a refractive index of 1.30. Find the grating
period for it to reflect an optical signal with a wavelength of 1.33μm.
a) 0.51 μm
b) 0.58 μm
c) 0.61 μm
d) 0.49 μm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The grating period is denoted by Λ. It is given by-
Λ = λB/ 2n

Where λB = wavelength
n = refractive index.
2. It is a passive device which allows the flow of optical signal power in only one direction
and
preventing reflections in the backward direction.
a) Fiber slice
b) Optical fiber connector
c) Optical isolator
d) Optical coupler
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ideally, an optical isolator transmits the signal power in the desired forward
direction. Material imperfections in the isolator medium generate backward reflections.
Optical
isolators can be implemented by using FBG.
3. Which feature of an optical isolator makes it attractive to use with optical amplifier?
a) Low loss
b) Wavelength blocking
c) Low refractive index
d) Attenuation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical isolators are made using FBGs. Since FBGs are wavelength dependent,
the
optical isolators can be designed to allow or block the optical signal at particular wavelength.
The wavelength blocking feature makes the optical isolator a very attractive device for use
with
optical amplifier in order to protect them from backward reflections.
4. Magneto-optic devices can be used to function as isolators.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Magneto-optic devices use the principle of Faraday rotation. It relates the TM
mode
characteristics and polarization state of an optical signal with its direction of propagation. The
rotation of polarization plane is proportional to the intensity of component of magnetic field
in
the direction of optical signal. Therefore, it is possible to block and divert an optical signal
using
magnetic properties which is a function of an isolator.
5. How many implementation methods are available for optical isolators?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two

d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Optical isolators can be implemented using three techniques. These are as
follows:
-By using FBGs
-By using magnetic oxide materials
-By using semiconductor optical amplifiers (SOAs).
6. A device which is made of isolators and follows a closed loop path is called as a
____________
a) Circulator
b) Gyrator
c) Attenuator
d) Connector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isolator can be connected together to form multiport devices. A circulator is
formed
from isolators connected together to form a closed circular path. In circulator, the signal
continues to travel in closed loop and does not get discarded unlike isolator.
7. The commercially available circulators exhibit insertion losses around ________________
a) 2 dB
b) 0.7 dB
c) 0.2 dB
d) 1 dB
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A number of isolators can be used to implement a circulator. However, as the
number of ports increases, the device complexity increases. Hence, three-or four-port
circulators
are used for optical interconnection with insertion losses around 1 dB and high isolation in
the
range of 40-50dB.
8. A combination of a FBG and optical isolators can be used to produce non-blocking optical
wavelength division add/draw multiplexers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical wavelength divisions add/draw multiplexers can be produced by a
combination of a FBG and a circulator. Non-blocking NXM optical wavelengths divisions
add/draw multiplexer is produced where N and M denotes the number of wavelength
channels
and add/drop channels.
__

BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems

UNIT II Light wave Systems

5. Questions & Answers on Optical Sources : The Laser and Light – Emitting Diode
The section contains questions on optical sources basics, semiconductor injection laser,
injection laser structures and characteristics, non semiconductor lasers, tunable and infrared
lasers, led power, led structures and characteristics.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Optical Sources : Laser Basics”.
1. A device which converts electrical energy in the form of a current into optical energy is
called as ___________ a) Optical source b) Optical coupler c) Optical isolator d) Circulator
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: An Optical source is an active component in an optical fiber
communication system. It converts electrical energy into optical energy and allows the light
output to be efficiently coupled into the Optical fiber.
2. How many types of sources of optical light are available? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Three main types of optical light sources are available. These are
wideband sources, monochromatic incoherent sources. Ideally the optical source should be
linear.
3. The frequency of the absorbed or emitted radiation is related to difference in energy E
between the higher energy state E2 and the lower energy state E1. State what h stands for in
the given equation?
E = E2 - E1 = hf
a) Gravitation constant b) Planck’s constant c) Permittivity d) Attenuation constant View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In the given equation, difference in the energy E is directly
proportional to the absorbed frequency (f) where h is used as a constant and is called as
Planck’s constant. The value of h is measured in Joules/sec & is given by- h = 6.626×10-34Js.
4. The radiation emission process (emission of a proton at frequency) can occur in
__________ ways. a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The emission process can occur in two ways. First is by spontaneous
emission in which the atom returns to the lower energy state in a random manner. Second is
by stimulated emission where the energy of a photon is equal to the energy difference and it
interacts with the atom in the upper state causing it to return to the lower state along with the
creation of a new photon.
5. Which process gives the laser its special properties as an optical source? a) Dispersion b)
Stimulated absorption c) Spontaneous emission d) Stimulated emission View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In Stimulated emission, the photon produced is of the same energy to
the one which cause it. Hence, the light associated with stimulated photon is in phase and has
same polarization. Therefore, in contrast to spontaneous emission, coherent radiation is
obtained. The coherent radiation phenomenon in laser provides amplification thereby making
laser a better optical source than LED.
6. An incandescent lamp is operating at a temperature of 1000K at an operating frequency of
5.2×1014 Hz. Calculate the ratio of stimulated emission rate to spontaneous emission rate. a)
3×10-13 b) 1.47×10-11 c) 2×10-12 d) 1.5×10-13 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The ratio of the stimulated emission rate to the spontaneous emission
rate is given
by- Stimulated emission rate/ Spontaneous emission rate = 1/exp (hf/KT)-1.
7. The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper level under the conditions of
________________ a) Isothermal packaging b) Population inversion c) Thermal equilibrium
d) Pumping View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Under the conditions of thermal equilibrium, the lower energy level
contains more atoms than the upper level. To achieve optical amplification, it is required to
create a non-equilibrium distribution such that the population of upper energy level is more
than the lower energy level. This process of excitation of atoms into the upper level is
achieved by using an external energy source and is called as pumping.
8. __________________ in the laser occurs when photon colliding with an excited atom
causes the stimulated emission of a second photon. a) Light amplification b) Attenuation c)
Dispersion d) Population inversion View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Laser emits coherent radiation of one or more discrete wavelength.
Lasers produce coherent light through a process called stimulated emission. Light
amplification is obtained through stimulated emission. Continuation of this process creates
avalanche multiplication.
9. A ruby laser has a crystal of length 3 cm with a refractive index of 1.60, wavelength 0.43
μm. Determine the number of longitudinal modes. a) 1×10 2 b) 3×106 c) 2.9×105 d) 2.2×105
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The number of longitudinal modes is given by- q = 2nL/λ Where q =
Number of longitudinal modes n = Refractive index
L = Length of the crystal λ = Peak emission wavelength.
10. A semiconductor laser crystal of length 5 cm, refractive index 1.8 is used as an optical
source. Determine the frequency separation of the modes. a) 2.8 GHz b) 1.2 GHz c) 1.6 GHz
d) 2 GHz View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The modes of laser are separated by a frequency internal δf and this
separation is given by- δf = c/2nL Where c = velocity of light n = Refractive index L =
Length of the crystal.
11. Doppler broadening is a homogeneous broadening mechanism. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Doppler broadening is a inhomogeneous broadening mechanism. In
this broadening, the individual groups of atoms have different apparent resonance
frequencies. Atomic collisions usually provide homogeneous broadening as each atom in
collection has same resonant frequency and spectral spread.
12. An injection laser has active cavity losses of 25 cm-1 and the reflectivity of each laser
facet is 30%. Determine the laser gain coefficient for the cavity it has a length of 500μm. a)
46 cm-1 b) 51 cm-1 c) 50 cm-1 d) 49.07 cm-1 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The laser gain coefficient is equivalent to the threshold gain per unit
length and is given by – gth = α + 1/L ln (1/r) Where α = active cavity loss
L = Length of the cavity r = reflectivity.
13. Longitudinal modes contribute only a single spot of light to the laser output. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Laser emission includes the longitudinal modes and transverse
modes. Transverse modes give rise to a pattern of spots at the output. Longitudinal modes
give only a spot of light to the output.
14. Considering the values given below, calculate the mode separation in terms of free space
wavelength for a laser. (Frequency separation = 2GHz, Wavelength = 0.5 μm) a) 1.4×10 -11 b)
1.6×10-12 c) 1×10-12 d) 6×10-11 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The mode separation in terms of free space wavelength is given by-
δλ = λ2/c δf Where δf = frequency separation λ = wavelength c = velocity of light
This set of Optical Communications test focuses on “Optical Emission From
Semiconductors”.
1. A perfect semiconductor crystal containing no impurities or lattice defects is called as
__________ a) Intrinsic semiconductor b) Extrinsic semiconductor c) Excitation d) Valence
electron View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: An intrinsic semiconductor is usually un-doped. It is a pure
semiconductor. The number of charge carriers is determined by the semiconductor material
properties and not by the impurities.
2. The energy-level occupation for a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is described by
the __________
a) Boltzmann distribution function b) Probability distribution function c) Fermi-Dirac
distribution function d) Cumulative distribution function View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: For a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium, the probability P(E) that
an electron gains sufficient thermal energy at an absolute temperature so as to occupy a
particular energy level E, is given by the Fermi-Dirac distribution. It is given by- P(E) =
1/(1+exp(E-EF/KT)) Where K = Boltzmann constant, T = absolute temperature, EF = Fermi
energy level.
3. What is done to create an extrinsic semiconductor? a) Refractive index is decreased b)
Doping the material with impurities c) Increase the band-gap of the material d) Stimulated
emission View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: An intrinsic semiconductor is a pure semiconductor. An extrinsic
semiconductor is obtained by doping the material with impurity atoms. These impurity atoms
create either free electrons or holes. Thus, extrinsic semiconductor is a doped semiconductor.
4. The majority of the carriers in a p-type semiconductor are __________ a) Holes b)
Electrons c) Photons d) Neutrons View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The impurities can be either donor impurities or acceptor impurities.
When acceptor impurities are added, the excited electrons are raised from the valence band to
the acceptor impurity levels leaving positive charge carriers in the valence band. Thus, p-type
semiconductor is formed in which majority of the carriers are positive i.e. holes.
5. _________________ is used when the optical emission results from the application of
electric field. a) Radiation b) Efficiency c) Electro-luminescence d) Magnetron oscillator
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Electro-luminescence is encouraged by selecting an appropriate
semiconductor material. Direct band-gap semiconductors are used for this purpose. In band-
to-band recombination, the energy is released with the creation of photon. This emission of
light is known as electroluminescence.
6. In the given equation, what does p stands for?
p = 2πhk
a) Permittivity b) Probability c) Holes d) Crystal momentum View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The given equation is a relation of crystal momentum and wave
vector. In the given equation, h is the Planck’s constant, k is the wave vector and p is the
crystal momentum.
7. The recombination in indirect band-gap semiconductors is slow. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In an indirect band-gap semiconductor, the maximum and minimum
energies occur at different values of crystal momentum. However, three-particle
recombination process is far less probable than the two-particle process exhibited by direct
band-gap semiconductors. Hence, the recombination in an indirect band-gap semiconductor is
relatively slow.
8. Calculate the radioactive minority carrier lifetime in gallium arsenide when the minority
carriers are electrons injected into a p-type semiconductor region which has a hole
concentration of 1018cm-3. The recombination coefficient for gallium arsenide is 7.21*10-
10cm3 s-1. a) 2ns b) 1.39ns c) 1.56ns d) 2.12ms View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The radioactive minority carrier lifetime ςrconsidering the p-type
region is given by- ςr = [BrN]-1 where Br = Recombination coefficient in cm3s-1 and N =
carrier concentration in n-region.
9. Which impurity is added to gallium phosphide to make it an efficient light emitter? a)
Silicon b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Phosphorus View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: An indirect band-gap semiconductor may be made into an electro-
luminescent material by the addition of impurity centers which will convert it into a direct
band-gap material. The introduction of nitrogen as an impurity into gallium phosphide makes
it an effective emitter of light. Such conversion is only achieved in materials where the direct
and indirect band-gaps have a small energy difference.
10. Population inversion is obtained at a p-n junction by __________ a) Heavy doping of p-
type material b) Heavy doping of n-type material c) Light doping of p-type material d) Heavy
doping of both p-type and n-type material View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Population inversion at p-n junction is obtained by heavy doping of
both p-type and n-type material. Heavy p-type doping with acceptor impurities causes a
lowering of the Fermi-level between the filled and empty states into the valence band.
Similarly n-type doping causes Fermi-level to enter the conduction band of the material.
11. A GaAs injection laser has a threshold current density of 2.5*10 3Acm-2 and length and
width of the cavity is 240μm and 110μm respectively. Find the threshold current for the
device. a) 663 mA b) 660 mA c) 664 mA d) 712 mA View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The threshold current is denoted by I th. It is given by- Ith = Jth * area
of the optical cavity Where Jth = threshold current density Area of the cavity = length and
width.
12. A GaAs injection laser with an optical cavity has refractive index of 3.6. Calculate the
reflectivity for normal incidence of the plane wave on the GaAs-air interface. a) 0.61 b) 0.12
c) 0.32
d) 0.48 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The reflectivity for normal incidence of the plane wave on the GaAs-
air interface is given by- r = ((n-1)/(n+1))2 where r=reflectivity and n=refractive index.
13. A homo-junction is an interface between two adjoining single-crystal semiconductors
with different band-gap energies. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The photo-emissive properties of a single p-n junction fabricated
from a single-crystal semiconductor material are called as homo-junction. A hetero-junction
is an interface between two single-crystal semiconductors with different band-gap energies.
The devices which are fabricated with hetero-junctions are said to have hetero-structure.
14. How many types of hetero-junctions are available? a) Two b) One c) Three d) Four View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Hetero-junctions are classified into an isotype and an-isotype. The
isotype hetero-junctions are also called as n-n or p-p junction. The an-isotype hetero-
junctions are called as p-n junction with large band-gap energies.
15. The ______________ system is best developed and is used for fabricating both lasers and
LEDs for the shorter wavelength region. a) InP b) GaSb c) GaAs/GaSb d) GaAs/Alga AS DH
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: For DH device fabrication, materials such as GaAs, Alga AS are
used. The band-gap in this material may be tailored to span the entire wavelength band by
changing the AlGa composition. Thus, GaAs/ Alga As DH system is used for fabrication of
lasers and LEDs for shorter wavelength region (0.8μm-0.9μm).
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “The Semiconductor Injection Laser”.
1. Stimulated emission by recombination of injected carriers is encouraged in __________ a)
Semiconductor injection laser b) Gas laser c) Chemist laser d) Dye laser View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Stimulated emission by use of optical cavity in crystal structure is
used in semiconductor injection diodes. This provides the feedback of protons which gives
injection laser many important advantages over other sources like LED’s.
2. In semiconductor injection laser, narrow line bandwidth is of the order? a) 1 nm or less b)
4 nm c) 5 nm d) 3 nm View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A narrow line bandwidth of order 1 nm or less is used. This narrow
bandwidth is useful in minimizing the effects of material dispersion.
3. Injection laser have a high threshold current density of __________ a) 10 4Acm-2 and more
b) 102Acm-2 c) 10-2 Acm-2 d) 10-3Acm-2 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Injection laser have a high threshold current density of 10 4Acm-2due
to lack of matter and in-efficient light sources. These high current densities are largely
utilized in pulse mode in order to minimize junction and thus avert damage.
4. ηT is known as slope quantum efficiency. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: ηD is known as slope quantum efficiency. It gives a measure rate of
optical output

power change with current and thus it determines slope of output characteristics in the region.
So, ηT is referred to as slope quantum efficiency.
5. The total efficiency of an injection laser with GaAs active region is 12%. The applied
voltage is 3.6 V and band gap energy for GaAs is 2.34 eV. Determine external power
efficiency. a) 7.8 % b) 10 % c) 12 % d) 6 % View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The total external power efficiency is defined as η = η T(Eq/V)*100 =
0.12 (2.34/3.6) *100 = 7.8 %.
6. In a DH laser, the sides of cavity are formed by _______________ a) Cutting the edges of
device b) Roughening the edges of device c) Softening the edges of device d) Covering the
sides with ceramics View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In a DH laser, the sides of cavity are formed by the roughening edges
of the device. This is done so as to reduce the unwanted emission in these directions and limit
the number of horizontal transversal modes.
7. A particular laser structure is designed so that the active region extends the edges of
devices. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Laser structures are particularly designed so that the active region
does not extend beyond the edges. This is done to reduce problems like difficult heat sinking,
lasing from multiple filament in wide active areas, unsuitable light output geometry for
efficient coupling and also to reduce required threshold current.
8. Gain guided laser structure are __________ a) Chemical laser b) Gas laser c) DH injection
laser d) Quantum well laser View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: DH injection lasers are known as gain guided laser structure. This is
because the optical mode distribution along the junction plane is decided by optical gain.
9. Laser modes are generally separated by few __________ a) Tenths of micrometer b)
Tenths of nanometer c) Tenths of Pico-meter d) Tenths of millimeter View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The spacing in between modes is about a few tenths of nanometer.
The spacing of the modes depends on optical cavity length where each one corresponds to an
integral number of lengths.
10. The spectral width of emission from the single mode device is __________ a) Smaller
than broadened transition line-width b) Larger than broadened transition line-width c) Equal
the broadened transition line-width d) Cannot be determined View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Single mode device has a smaller spectral width as compared to that
of broadening transition line-width. This is because for a single-mode operation, the laser
optical output must have only a single longitudinal and single transverse mode.
11. Single longitudinal mode operation is obtained by __________ a) Eliminating all
transverse mode b) Eliminating all longitudinal modes c) Increasing the length of cavity d)
Reducing the length of cavity View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Single longitudinal mode operation is obtained by reducing the
length L of cavity. Length must be reduced until the frequency separation of adjacent modes
is given in the equation δf = c/2nL is larger than gain curve. Then only single mode falling in
transition line width will oscillate in laser cavity.
12. A correct DH structure will restrict the vertical width of waveguide region is? a) 0.5μm.
b) 0.69 μm c) 0.65 μm
d) Less than 0.4 μm View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The vertical width DH structure should be less than 0.4μm. This
allows only fundamental transverse mode and removes any interference of higher order
transverse modes on emitted longitudinal waves.
13. The external power efficiency of an injection laser with a GaAs is 13% having band gap
energy of 1.64 eV. Determine external power efficiency. a) 0.198 b) 0.283 c) 0.366 d) 0.467
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The external power efficiency of an injection laser is given by η ep =
ηT (Eq/V)*100 ηT = ηep/100 (v/Eg) = 13/100 (2.5/1.64) = 0.198
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Some Injection Laser Structures”.
1. In multimode injection lasers, the construction of current flow to the strip is obtained in
structure by __________ a) Covering the strip with ceramic b) Intrinsic doping c)
Implantation outside strip region with protons d)Implantation outside strip region with
electrons View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The current flow is realized by implanting the region outside strip
with protons. This implantation makes the laser highly resistive and gives superior thermal
properties due to absence of silicon dioxide layer.
2. What is the strip width of injection laser? a) 12 μm b) 11.5 μm c) Less than 10 μm d) 15
μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: A strip width less than or equal to 10 μm is usually preferred in
injection lasers. This width range provides the lasers highly efficient coupling into multimode
fibers as comapred to single mode fibers.
3. Some refractive index variation is introduced into lateral structure of laser. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Gain guided lasers possess several undesirable characteristics,
nonlinearities in light output versus current characteristics, high threshold current, low
differential quantum efficiency, movement of optical a;ong junction plane. This problems can
be reduced by introducing refractive index variations into lateral structure of lasers so that
optical mode is determined along the junction plane.
4. Buried hetero-junction (BH) device is a type of _____________ laser where the active
volume is buried in a material of wider band-gap and lower refractive index. a) Gas lasers. b)
Gain guided lasers. c) Weak index guiding lasers. d) Strong index guiding lasers. View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In strong index guiding lasers, a uniformly thick, planar active
waveguide is achieved by lateral variations in confinement layer thickness or refractive
index. In Buried hetero-junction (BH) devices, strong index guiding along junction plane
introduces transverse mode control in injection lasers.
5. In Buried hetero-junction (BH) lasers, the optical field is confined within __________ a)
Transverse direction b) Lateral direction c) Outside the strip d) Both transverse and lateral
direction View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Optical field is strongly confined in both transverse and lateral
direction. This provides strong index guiding of optical mode along with good carrier
confinement.
6. A double-channel planar buried hetero-structure (DCP BH) has a planar active region, the
confinement material is? a) Alga AS b) InGaAsP
c) GaAs d) SiO2 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The planar active region made up of InGaAsP can be seen in double-
channel planar buried hetero-structure (DCP BH). This material confinement provides a very
high power operation with CW output power up to 40 mW in longer wavelength region.
7. Problems resulting from parasitic capacitances can be overcome __________ a) Through
regrowth of semi-insulating material b) By using oxide material c) By using a planar
InGaAsP active region d) By using a AlGaAs active region View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The use of reverse-biased current confinement layers introduces
parasitic capacitances which reduces high speed modulation of BH lasers. This problem can
be reduced by regrowth of semi-insulating material or deposition of dielectric material. This
causes increase in modulation speeds of 20 GHz.
8. Quantum well lasers are also known as __________ a) BH lasers b) DH lasers c) Chemical
lasers d) Gain-guided lasers View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: DH lasers are known as Quantum well lasers. The carrier motion
normal to active layer is restricted in these devices. This results in quantization of kinetic
energy into discrete energy levels for carriers moving in that direction. This phenomenon is
similar to quantum mechanical problem of one dimensional potential well which is seen in
DH lasers.
9. Quantum well lasers are providing high inherent advantage over __________ a) Chemical
lasers b) Gas lasers c) Conventional DH devices d) BH device View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Quantum well lasers exhibit high incoherent advantage over
conventional DH lasers. In Quantum well laser structures, the thin active layer results in
drastic changes in electronic and optical properties over conventional DH laser structures.
This changes are due to
quantized nature of discrete energy levels with step-like density and also allow high gain and
low carrier density.
10. Strip geometry of a device or laser is important. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Near fluid intensity distribution corresponding to single optical
output power level in plane of junction can be seen in GaAs or AlGaAs lasers. This
distribution is in lateral direction and is determined by the nature of lateral waveguide. The
single intensity maximum shows the fundamental lateral mode is dominant.
11. Better confinement of optical mode is obtained in __________ a) Multi Quantum well
lasers b) Single Quantum well lasers c) Gain guided lasers d) BH lasers View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: As compared to all lasers including single quantum well lasers,
multi-Quantum well lasers are having better confinement of optical mode. This results in a
lower threshold current density for these devices.
12. Multi-quantum devices have superior characteristics over __________ a) BH lasers b)
DH lasers c) Gain guided lasers d) Single-quantum-well devices View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Lower threshold currents, narrower bandwidths, high modulation
speeds, lower frequency chirps and less temperature dependence are parameters determining
characteristics of a particular laser. All the above parameters make multi-quantum devices
superior over DH lasers.
13. Dot-in-well device is also known as __________ a) DH lasers b) BH lasers c) QD lasers
d) Gain guided lasers View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Quantum well lasers are devices in which device contains a single
discrete atomic structure or Quantum-dot. These are elements that contain electron tiny
droplets which forms a quantum well structure.
14. A BH can have anything from a single electron to several electrons. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Quantum-dot lasers are fabricated using semiconductor crystalline
materials. They have a particular dimension ranging from nm to few microns. The size, shape
of these structures and number of electrons they contain are precisely controlled.
15. QD lasers have a very low threshold current densities of range __________ a) 0.5 to 5 A
cm-2 b) 2 to 10 A cm-2 c) 10 to 30 A cm-2 d) 6 to 20 A cm-2 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Low-threshold current density between 6 to 20 A cm-2 is obtained
with InAs/InGaAs QD lasers which emit at a wavelength of 1.3 μm and 1.5 μm Such low
values of threshold current densities make these lasers possible to create stacked or cascaded
QD structures. These structures provide high optical gain for short-cavity transmitters and
vertical cavity surface-emitting lasers.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on ” Single Frequency Injection Lasers”.
1. __________________ may be improved through the use of frequency-selective feedback
so that the cavity loss is different for various longitudinal modes. a) Frequency selectivity b)
Longitudinal mode selectivity c) Electrical feedback d) Dissipated power View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Improved longitudinal mode selectivity can be achieved using
structures which gives loss discrimination between the desired and all the unwanted modes.
Thus, mode discrimination can be seen. To allow for stable mode operation, the use of
frequency-selective feedback approach is undertaken.
2. Device which apply the frequency-selective feedback technique to provide single
longitudinal operation are referred to as ________________ a) DSM lasers b) Nd: YAG
lasers c) Glass fiber lasers d) QD lasers View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: DSM lasers are also known as single frequency lasers. Such devices
provide single longitudinal mode operation hence called as dynamic single mode lasers.
These lasers reduce fiber intra-modal dispersion within high speed systems.
3. Which of the following does not provide single frequency operation? a) Short cavity
resonator b) DSM lasers c) Coupled cavity resonator d) Fabry-Perot resonator View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: DSM lasers, short cavity resonators, coupled cavity resonators
employ frequency selective feedback approach and provide single mode operation. However,
the Fabry-Perot resonator allows several longitudinal modes to exist within the gain spectrum
of the device.
4. A method for increasing the longitudinal mode discrimination of an injection laser which is
commonly used? a) Decreasing refractive index b) Increasing the refractive index c)
Increasing cavity length d) Shortening of cavity length View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The longitudinal mode discrimination of an injection laser is
indirectly proportional to the cavity length. Thus, as the cavity length is shortened, the mode
discrimination will get increase. If the cavity length is reduced from 250 to 25 units, the mode
spacing is increased from 1 to 10 nm.
5. Conventional cleaved mirror structures are difficult to fabricate with the cavity lengths
below __________ a) 200 μm and greater than 150 μm b) 100 μm and greater than 50 μm c)
50 μm d) 150 μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: cleaved laser mirrors are used in Fabry-Perot resonator which does
not give result for shorter cavity lengths. These lengths may vary from 20 μm to 50μm.
Hence micro-cleaved or etched resonator is used for shorter cavity lens.
6. In the given equation, corrugation period is given by lλ b/2Ne. If λb is the Bragg
wavelength, then what does ‘l’ stand for? a) Length of cavity b) Limitation index c) Integer
order of grating d) Refractive index View Answer
7. The first order grating (l=1) provide the strongest coupling within the device. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The period of corrugation is given by lλ b/2Ne includes order of
grating. The second grating provide larger spatial period and thus helps in fabrication. If the
order of grating is 1, then the device is coupled at high level.
8. The semiconductor lasers employing the distributed feedback mechanism are classified in
_________________ categories. a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Considering the device operation, semiconductor lasers are classified
into two broad categories referred to as distributed feedback laser and distributed Bragg
reflector laser. In the DFB laser, optical grating is applied over the entire active region,
whereas in DBR lasers, the grating is etched only near the cavity ends.
9. DBF-BH lasers exhibit low threshold currents in the range of ________________ a) 40 to
50 mA b) 21 to 30 mA c) 2 to 5 mA d) 10 to 20 mA View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: DFB lasers are used to provide single frequency semiconductor
optical sources.
DFB-BH lasers, developed in laboratories exhibit high modulation speeds, output power but
low threshold currents in the range of 10 to 20 mA.
10. Fabry-Perot devices with BH geometries high modulation speeds than DFB-BH lasers. a)
True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: DFB-BH lasers exhibit low threshold currents but high output power
and modulation speeds. DFB-BH laser is fabricated by etching or grating. Fabry-perot
devices provide modulation speeds of M-bits per seconds whereas, DFB-BH lasers provides
modulation speeds of G-bits/sec.
11. The InGaAsP/InP double channel planar DFB-BH laser with a quarter wavelength shifted
first order grating provides a single frequency operation and incorporates a phase shift of
______________ a) π/2 Radians b) 2π Radians c) π Radians d) 3π/2 radians View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The performance of DFB laser is improved by modifying a grating,
which in turn introduces an optical phase shift. The phase shift depends on the wavelength
used. A quarter wavelength shifted first order grating incorporates the phase shift of π/2 in the
corrugation at the center of laser cavity.
12. The narrow line-width obtained under the CW operation for quarter wavelength shifted
DFB laser is ________________ a) 2 MHz b) 10 MHz c) 3 MHz d) 1 MHz View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: A quarter wavelength shifted DFB laser provides a large gain
difference between the central mode and side modes. It provides improved dynamic single
mode stability. Narrow line-width of around 3 MHz can be obtained under CW operation.
13. Line-width narrowing is achieved in DFB lasers by a strategy referred as
_______________ a) Noise partition b) Grating c) Tuning
d) Bragg wavelength detuning View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Line-width narrowing is achieved in DFB lasers by detuning the
lasing wavelength towards the shorter wavelength side of gain peak. It increases the
differential gain between the central mode and nearest side mode. This strategy is called as
Bragg wavelength detuning.
14. _________________ is a technique used to render the non-conducting material around
the active cavity by producing permanent defects in the implanted area. a) Dispersion b) Ion
de-plantation c) Ion implantation d) Attenuation View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Ion implantation approach concentrates the injection current in active
region. Current confinement is realized by ion implantation. Ions are implanted into a
selective area of a semiconducting material to make it non-conducting.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Injection Laser Characteristics”.
1. The threshold temperature coefficient for InGaAsP devices is in the range of __________
a) 10-40 K b) 40-75 K c) 120-190 K d) 150-190 K View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The threshold temperature coefficient for InGaAsP devices is in
between 40 and 75 K. This range shows higher temperature sensitivity due to intrinsic
physical properties of InGaAsP material system, Auger recombination, inter-valence band
absorption, carrier leakage effects over hetero-junctions.
2. The process where the energy released during the recombination of an electron-hole event
getting transferred to another carrier is known as __________ a) Inter-valence bond
absorption b) Auger recombination c) Carrier leakage effects d) Exothermic actions View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Auger recombination is a process where energy is released. This
energy is released during the recombination of electron-hole and this released energy is
transferred to another electron-hole event. During this process, when a carrier is excited to a
higher energy level, it loses its excessive amount of energy by emitting a phonon in order to
maintain thermal equilibrium. It consists of number of different processes each process
involving three particles (2 electrons and 1 or 2 holes and 1 electron).
3. Auger recombination can be reduced by using __________ a) Strained MQW structure b)
Strained SQW structure c) Gain-guided strained structure d) Strained Quantum dots lasers
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Auger recombination is a process where energy is released during
recombination of electron-hole event is transferred to another event. This loss mechanism can
be reduced by using strained by using MCQ laser structure. Strain can be either compressive
or tensile, modifying the valence band energy levels of material and therefore can be used to
increase energy.
4. High strain in strained MCQ structure should be incorporated. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Strain is introduced in thin layers of quantum wells by making small
differences in lattice constants. High strain should be avoided because it causes damage in
these thin-quantum layers. Also carrier leakage adds at high temperatures since it represents
processes that prevent carrier from recombination thus reducing device efficiency.
5. The parameter that prevents carrier from recombination is __________ a) Auger
recombination b) Inter-valence band absorption c) Carrier leakage d) Low temperature
sensitivity View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Carrier leakage is the parameter that prevents carriers (electrons,
holes) from recombination. At high temperatures, carrier leakage represents all those
processes preventing carriers from recombination. It therefore increases the lasing threshold
and thus reduces device efficiency.
6. Determine the threshold current density for an AlGaAs injection laser with T 0=180k at
30°C. a) 6.24 b) 9.06 c) 3.08 d) 5.09 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The threshold current density for a laser is given by- Ith = exp(T/T0)
For AlGaAs device, Ith(30)=exp(T/T0) = exp(293/180) = 5.09.
7. The phenomenon occurring when the electron and photon population within the structure
comes into equilibrium is known as __________ a) Auger recombination b) Inter-valence
band absorption c) Carrier leakage d) Relaxation oscillations View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Phenomenon occurring when the electron and photon population
within the structure comes into equilibrium is known as Relaxation oscillations. The
application of a current state to device resulting in a switch delay which is followed by high
frequency damped oscillations.
8. When a current pulse reaches a laser having parasitic capacitance after the initial delay
time, that pulse will __________ a) Have no effect b) Will get vanished c) Becomes narrower
d) Gets broader View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The pulse will be broadened when it will reach a laser with parasitic
capacitance after initial time delay. This is because when a current pulse reaches the laser, the
parasitic capacitance of laser provides a source of current over the period when there is high
photon density. As electron density is repetitively built up and reduced quickly, there will be
several pulses at laser output as photon density will be high resulting in relaxation
oscillations.
9. Reducing delay time and ____________ are of high importance for lasers. a) Auger
recombination b) Inter-valence band absorption c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Relaxation oscillations View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: For lasers generally a switch-on delay time may last for 0.5ns and
relaxation oscillations behind twice that period. This behavior can produce serious
deterioration in shape of laser pulse at a data rate of 100Mbits. So time delay and Relaxation
oscillations are highly desirable for lasers.
10. Dynamic line-width broadening under the direct modulation of injection current is known
as __________ a) Auger recombination b) Inter-valence band absorption c) Carrier leakage
effects d) Frequency Chirping View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Frequency Chirping is a phenomenon which is due to Dynamic line-
width broadening under direct modulation of a single longitudinal mode. Semiconductor laser
cause a dynamic shifting of peak wavelength emitted from device. Strong coupling between
the free carrier density and refractive index of device present in semiconductor structure
results in gain-induced variations which also causes Frequency Chirping.
11. A particular characteristic or parameter that occurs during analog transmission of
injection lasers is? a) Noise b) Mode hopping c) Carrier leakage effects d) Frequency
Chirping View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: During analog transmission, noise behavior of device is main thing
that affects the operation of injection laser. This noise may be due to instabilities in kinks in
light output versus current characteristics, reflection of light back to device and mode
partition noise.
12. Intensity of output from semiconductor injection lasers leading to optical intensity noise
is due to __________ a) Fluctuations in amplitude b) Mode hopping c) Carrier leakage
effects d) Frequency Chirping View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Fluctuations in the laser output or intensity of laser output leads to
optical intensity noise. These fluctuations are generally caused by temperature variations and
spontaneous emission in the laser output. This randomness in fluctuations creates a noise
source known as relative intensity noise (RIN).
13. In multimode lasers the optical feedback from unnecessary external reflections affecting
stability of frequency and intensity is? a) Remains unaffected b) Increased gradually c)
Reduced d) Gets totally vanished View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The effect due to unwanted external reflections in multimode laser is
reduced. This is because the reflections are spread along any fiber modes so they are weakly
coupled back into laser mode.
14. Reduction in the number of modes in multimode fiber increases the mode partition noise.
a) False b) True View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Mode partition noise is a result of laser spectral fluctuations and so a
reduce in number of modes results in low pulse-width spreading thus providing low values of
intermodal dispersion in the fiber. And so, the mode partition noise is decreased in multimode
fiber due to reducing the number of modes.
15. The behavior of laser occurring when current is increased above threshold particularly is?
a) Mode hopping b) Auger recombination c) Frequency chirping d) Noise View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Mode hopping results in the hopping of modes to a higher
wavelength. This mode hopping occurs in all injection lasers and is due to increase in
temperature. Mode hopping is not a continuous function of drive current but occurs above 1
to 2 mA. Mode hopping alters characteristics of laser and results in kinks in characteristics of
single mode device
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Non – Semiconductor Lasers”.
1. ____________________ lasers are presently the major laser source for optical fiber
communications. a) Semiconductor b) Non-Semiconductor c) Injection d) Solid-state View
Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Injection laser coupling using discrete lasers have proved to fruitful.
Such lenses provide for relaxation for an alignment tolerances normally required for fiber
coupling. Certain non-semiconductor sources are making its lace in the optical fiber
communication. At slowly present, injection lasers are mostly used as laser sources.
2. In Nd: YAG lasers, the maximum doping levels of neodymium is ____________ a) 0.5 %
b) 1.5 % c) 1.8 % d) 2 % View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The Nd: YAG laser structure is formed by doping of yttrium-
aluminum -garnet (YAG) with neodymium. The energy levels for lasing transition and
pumping are provided by neodymium ions. The maximum doping level of neodymium in
YAG is around 1.5 %.
3. Which of the following is not a property of Nd: YAG laser that enables its use as an optical
fiber communication source? a) Single mode operation b) Narrow line-width c) Long lifetime
d) Semiconductors and integrated circuits View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Nd: YAG laser is a non-semiconductor laser. It does not include the
use of semiconductors and thus cannot take advantage of well-developed technology
associated with integrated circuits. Single mode operation, narrow line-width, lifetime are the
properties that are useful for optical communication.
4. The Nd: YAG laser has a narrow line-width which is ________________ a) < 0.01 nm b)
> 0.01 nm c) > 1 mm d) > 1.6 mm View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The Nd: YAG laser has several properties which make it an active
optical source. One of such properties is its narrow line-width. It is less than 0.01 nm which is
useful for reducing dispersion of optical links.
5. The strongest pumping bands is a four level system of Nd: YAG laser at wavelength of
range_________________ a) 0.25 and 0.56 nm b) 0.75 and 0.81 nm c) 0.12 and 0.23 nm d) 1
and 2 nm View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The Nd: YAG laser is a four level system. It consists of number of
pumping bands and fluorescent transitions. The strongest pumping bands are the wavelengths
of 0.75μm and 0.81μm. and gives lasing transition at 1.064μm and 1.32μm. Single mode
emission is usually obtained at these wavelengths.
6. The Nd: YAG laser is costlier than earth-doped glass fiber laser. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The most important requirement of the Nd: YAG laser is pumping
and modulation. These two requirements tend to give a cost disadvantage in comparison with
earth-doped glass fiber laser. Also it is easier and less expensive to fabricate glass fiber in
earth-doped laser.
7. It is a resonant cavity formed by two parallel reflecting mirrors separated by a mirror
separated by a medium such as air or gas is? a) Optical cavity b) Wheatstone’s bridge c)
Oscillator d) Fabry-perot resonator View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Resonant cavity is formed between two mirrors where fiber core
doped with earth ions is placed. This cavity is 250-500 μm long and 5 to 15 μm wide. A
Fabry-perot resonator oscillates at resonant frequency for which there is high gain.
8. In a three level system, the threshold power decreases inversely with the length of the fiber
gain medium. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: If the imperfection losses are low then in a four level system the
threshold power decreases inversely with the length of the fiber gain medium. A three level
consists of an optimum length. This optimum length gives the minimum threshold power
which is independent of the value of imperfection losses.
9. Which of the following co-dopant is not employed by neodymium and erbium doped silica
fiber lasers? a) Phosphorus pent oxide b) Germania c) Nitrogen d) Alumina View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Silica based glass fibers are proved to be the best host material till
date. These silica fibers are doped with neodymium and erbium. These dopants include co-
dopants such as phosphorus pent-oxide, germanium and alumina.
10. Dopants levels in glass fiber lasers are generally ___________ a) Low b) High c) Same as
that of GRIN rod lens laser d) Same as that of semiconductor laser View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Dopant levels are low in glass fibers (nearly 400 parts per million).
This is because of increasing in concentration quenching which increases with the doping
level. It may cause the reduction in the population of the upper lasing level as well as
crystallization within the glass matrix.
11. _______________ fibers include addition of lead fluoride to the core glass in order to
raise the relative refractive index. a) Solid-state b) GaAs c) Semiconductor d) ZBLANP View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Up-conversion pumping of laser material is used to convert an
infrared laser output to a visible laser output. ZBLANP is host material on which laser action
at all wavelengths can
be obtained by pumping. The relative refractive index is increased by addition of lead
fluoride which makes it a very interesting host material.
12. The lasing output of the basic Fabry-perot cavity fiber is restricted to between
____________ a) 1 and 2 nm b) 5 and 10 nm c) 3 and 6 nm d) 15 and 30 nm View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: the gain spectrum of rare earth ions may be seen over a wavelength
range of 50 nm. The lasing output will thus be narrow unless the dielectric on the mirror is
arranged. Such a narrow line-width is not used for a broadband optical source.
13. In Fabry-perot laser, the lower threshold is obtained by ___________ a) Increasing the
refractive index b) Decreasing the refractive index c) Reducing the slope efficiency d)
Increasing the slope efficiency View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The finesse of Fabry-perot cavity provides a measure of its filtering
properties. When the finesse is high the splitting ratio is low thus lowering the laser threshold
in an optical cavity without mirror. In Fabry-perot laser, mirrors are present and thus lower
threshold is obtained by reducing the slope efficiency.
14. When did the non-semiconductor laser developed? a) 1892 b) 1946 c) 1985 d) 1993 View
Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Non-semiconductor sources are crystalline and glass wave-guiding
structures. They are doped with rare earth ions and are good optical sources. The
development of these sources started in the year 1985. Example: Nd: YAG laser.
15. Y3Al5 O12 is a molecular formula for _____________ a) Ytterbium aluminate b) Yttrium
oxide c) Ytterbium oxy-aluminate d) Yttrium-aluminum garnet View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The atomic number of Yttrium is 39. It is the base element of
Yttrium-aluminum garnet. Y3Al5 O12, doped with rare earth ion neodymium to form Nd:
YAG laser structure
This set of Optical Communications Quiz focuses on “Narrow – Linewidth and Wavelength –
Tunable Lasers”.
1. Which of these factors are critical in affecting the system performance in the case of
coherent optical fiber transmission? a) Laser line-width and stability b) Refractive index and
index difference c) Core cladding diameter d) Frequency View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The system employing intensity modulation does not consider line-
width and stability as the factors of utmost importance. In coherent optical source
transmission, laser line-width and stability are critical factors. These factors affect the system
performance and are in the range of 0.5-1 Megahertz.
2. _______________ occurs as a result of the change in lasing frequency with gain. a)
Frequency multiplication b) Dispersion c) Attenuation d) Line-width broadening View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Line-width broadening is a fundamental consequence of spontaneous
emission process. It is related to the fluctuations in the phase of the optical fields. These
phase fluctuations are due to the phase noises associated with the spontaneous emission
process.
3. Laser cavity length can be extended by ___________ a) Increasing the refractive index b)
Reducing frequency c) Introduction of external feedback d) Using GRIN-rod lenses View
Answer
Answer: c Explanation: the lasers having long external cavity are referred to as LEC lasers.
The extension of the laser cavity length by introduction of external feedback can be achieved
by using an external cavity with a wavelength dispersive element.
4. What is the purpose of wavelength dispersive element is LEC lasers? a) Wavelength
selectivity b) Reduction of line-width c) Frequency multiplication d) Avalanche
multiplication View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A wavelength dispersive element is a part of the laser cavity. It is
required because the long resonator structure has very closely spaced longitudinal modes
which necessitates additional wavelength selectivity.
5. An effective method to reduce the line-width is to make the cavity longer. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: As the laser power increases, the device line-width decreases. The
output power f laser cannot be mode arbitrarily large. Thus, the line-width is reduced by
making the cavity longer. Longer cavity also enables increased wavelength selectivity.
6. Which devices are used to modulate the external cavity in order to achieve the higher
switching speeds? a) Electromagnetic b) Acousto-optic c) Dispersive d) Lead View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The devices are tuned mechanically to extend the cavity of laser. The
disadvantage of using mechanically tuned devices is low. Thus, electro-optic devices are used
to modulate the external cavity in order to achieve higher switching speeds.
7. How many techniques are used to tune monolithic integrated devices (lasers)? a) Five b)
One c) Two d) Three View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: There are two techniques which can be employed to tune monolithic
integrated devices. In the first method, the mode selectivity of a coupled cavity structure is
used. Other
method is used to a refractive index change in the device cavity provided by application of an
electric field.
8. _________________ laser can be produced when a coupler section is introduced between
the amplifier and phase sections of a structure. a) SG-DBR b) GCSR c) Y 4-shifted d) DSM
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: DBR lasers are capable of wavelength tuning. Grating assisted co-
directional coupler with sampled reflector (GCSR). Laser is capable of a tuning range greater
than 40 nm. It consists of a co-directional coupler between the amplifier and the phase
section.
9. The rare-earth-doped fiber lasers have spectral line-width in the range of
_________________ a) 0.1 to 1 nm b) 1.2 to 1.5 nm c) 6 to 10 nm d) 2 to 2.3 nm View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The rare-earth-doped fiber lasers have spectral line-width in the
range of 0.1 to 1 nm. These line-widths are too long for high speed transmission is possible in
this range.
10. The lasing line-width of Fox-smith resonator is ____________________ a) Less than 1
MHz b) 1 MHz c) 2 MHz d) Greater than 3 MHz View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Fox-smith resonator employs a fused coupled fabricated from
erbium-doped fiber. Narrower spectral line-width can be obtained using a resonator. It
provides favorable line-widths than semiconductor laser.
11. What is the widest tuning range obtained in optical fiber laser structure? a) 60 nm b) 80
nm c) More than 100 nm d) 100 nm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: A tuning range greater than 100 nm by using an erbium-doped
photonic crystal fiber. A wider tuning range greater than 100 nm is obtained at wavelength
1.55 nm.
12. How many techniques can be used to increase the injection cavity length? a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Two techniques can be used to increase the injection laser cavity
length. These are using laser chips and by extending a cavity with a passive medium such as
air, glass etc.
13. The mechanism which results from a refractive index change in the passive waveguide
layer is called as ___________ a) Absorption b) Spontaneous emission c) Monolithic
inversion d) Bragg wavelength control View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: A wider wavelength tuning length is obtained by separating the
Bragg region in the passive waveguide and by introducing a phase region within a waveguide
control mechanism provides phase control. It takes place by some changes in a passive
waveguide layer.
14. How many sections are included in a sampling grating distributed Bragg-reflector laser
(SG-DBR)? a) Four b) Five c) Three d) Two View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In SG-DBR laser, five sections are longitudinally integrated together
on a semiconductor substrate. These five sections include two diffraction Bragg grating
sections, a gain, a phase and an amplifier section.
15. Fiber based lasers provide diffraction-limited power at higher levels than solid-state laser.
a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In fiber lasers, the active gain medium is doped with rare earth
elements. These lasers have active regions several kilometers long and thus provide high
optical gain. Solid-state lasers, on the other hand, provide diffraction limited power at lower
levels
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Mid Infrared and Far Infrared Lasers”.
1. The parameters having a major role in determining threshold current of efficiency of
injection laser are ___________ a) Angle recombination and optical losses b) Frequency
chirping c) Relaxation oscillation d) Mode hopping View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optical losses due to free carrier absorption are more because of their
dependence on square of the wavelength. Also irradiative recombination through Auger
recombination contributes to it. Both these effects cause more problems in md-infrared
wavelengths and so are of much importance art high temperature due to high concentration of
free carriers. They also limit maximum operating temperatures.
2. Auger current is mostly ___________________ for material with band gap providing
longer wavelength emission. a) Unaffected b) Lesser c) Larger d) Vanishes View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The total current required for injection laser threshold is more than
that provided to radioactive recombination as Auger current is added. This current depends
on electronic band structure of material and often consists of different Auger transitions. So it
is larger for materials with band gaps providing longer wavelength emission.
3. Injection lasers operating in smaller wavelengths are subjected to increased carrier losses.
a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Injection lasers operating in longer wavelengths (mid and far
infrared) are subjected to increased carrier losses as compared to devices operating up to
1.6μm. This is from nonradiative recombination through Auger interaction. This
recombination energy is dissipated

as thermal energy to other free carriers. If band gap of semiconductor is increased, occurrence
of these events gets increased.
4. Devices based on quaternary PbSnSeTe and their ternary compounds, emit at wavelength?
a) Between 3-4 μm b) Longer than 4 μm c) Between 3.5 to 4.2 μm d) Between 2 to 3 μm
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Quaternary devices emit at wavelength longer than 4μm. Auger
effects are less in these alloys which provide lower current thresholds and higher maximum
operating temperature.
5. Replacing Sn with Eu, Cd or Ge in some _________________ the band gap. a) Remove
the band gap b) Does not affect c) Decreases d) Increases View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: When in a particular alloy laser for example PbSnSeTe, if Sn is
replaced with Eu, Cd or Ge, there is an increase in band gap. This increase in band gap
provides the laser to operate in shorter wavelength.
.
6. Lasing obtained in __________ when 191 mW of pump light at a wavelength of 0.477 μm
is launched into laser. a) Ternary PbSnSeTe alloy laser b) Quaternary PbSnSeTe alloy laser
c) Doped Fluoro-zirconate fiber d) Ternary PbEuTe alloy laser View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: When Fluoro-zirconate fiber lasers are doped with Erbium helium or
thulium, there are emission at 2-3 μm wavelength range. But lasing was obtained in this
doped Fluorozirconate fiber at a wavelength of 0.477μm.
7. The thulium doped fiber laser when pumped with alexandrite laser output at 0.786 μm, the
laser emits at ___________ a) 0.6 μm b) 0.8 μm c) 2.3 μm
d) 1.2μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The thulium system emits at 2.3 μmwhen subjected to alexandrite
laser at 0.786 μm. this system is four levels in which the pump band is upper lasing level at
2.3μm.
8. The diode-cladding-pumped Erbium praseodymium-doped fluoride device operates at
wavelength. a) Around 3 μm b) 4 μm c) 2.6 μm d) 1.04 μm View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The diode-cladding-pumped Erbium praseodymium-doped fluoride
device operates at a wavelength of 3 μm. This laser is capable of producing a very high
output power of about 1W or more. It consists of double clad fluoride fiber.
9. A technique based on inter-sub band transition is known as ___________ a) Auger
recombination b) Frequency chirping c) Inter-valence band absorption d) Quantum cascading
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The quantum cascaded laser is a layered semiconductor device
having a series of coupled quantum wells grown on GaAs or Imp substrate. This principle of
QC lasers provides emission of an optical signal around full wavelength range. Quantum
mechanical band structure determines the emitted wavelength.
10. In a QC laser, a same electron can emit number of photons. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The QC laser operates by pumping a energy level and then using the
energy in a controlled manner. This gives some energy each time over several steps. And
since a QC laser structure includes a series of energy levels the same electron emits a number
of photons while cascading down through each energy level.
11. The phenomenon resulting in the electrons to jump from one state to another each time
emitting of photon is known as ___________
a) Inter-valence band absorption b) Mode hopping c) Quantum cascading d) Quantum
confinement View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In Quantum confinement, charge carriers are trapped in a small area
and this occurs in quantum wells at nanometer scale. When the quantum layer size raises to a
size comparable to emission wavelength, the electron motion becomes perpendicular to plane
of layer. Due to this, the electrons jump from one state to another each time from one state to
another.
12. A QC laser is sometimes referred as ___________ a) Unipolar laser b) Bipolar laser c)
Gain guided laser d) Non semiconductor laser View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A QC laser utilizes only n-type of charge carriers. Their operation is
entirely based on electrons and holes play no part in this, so they are known as unipolar
lasers.
13. In QC lasers, it is possible to obtain different output signal wavelengths. This can be
achieved by ___________ a) Inter-valence band absorption b) Mode hopping c) Quantum
cascading d) Selecting layers of different thickness View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In QC laser, electrons emit energy. This energy emitted at this stage
determines wavelength of radiation and it depends only on thickness of the layer. Thus output
signal wavelength is dependent on thickness of lasers.
14. QC lasers ______________ the performance characteristics. a) Have negligible effects b)
Does not affects c) Improves d) Degrades View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: QC lasers are based on inter sub band transition techniques. They
have ability of carrying large amount of currents. A single electron is enough to generate
number of photons.
Thus, provides an increase in output signal power which is greater than thousands at same
wavelength due to large number of cascaded stages.
15. An MQW cascaded laser is more advantageous because of ___________ a) Mode
hopping b) Auger recombination c) Control over layers of material d) Properties of material
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: In MQW cascaded layers, cascading creates number of
injector/collector and active region in single stage. Each region contains a single quantum
wells. Such structures permit maximum injection/collection of current and thereby produce a
large number of photons. This formation of any injector/collector and active regions is
achieved through precise control of several hundreds of layers of the material, where each
layer should only be few nanometers thick
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “LED Power and Efficiency”.
1. The absence of _______________ in LEDs limits the internal quantum efficiency. a)
Proper semiconductor b) Adequate power supply c) Optical amplification through stimulated
emission d) Optical amplification through spontaneous emission View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The ratio of generated electrons to the electrons injected is quantum
efficiency. It is greatly affected if there is no optical amplification through stimulated
emission. Spontaneous emission allows ron-radiative recombination in the structure due to
crystalline imperfections and impurities.
2. The excess density of electrons Δnand holes Δpin an LED is ____________ a) Equal b)
Δpmore than Δn c) Δn more than Δp d) Does not affects the LED View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The excess density of electrons ΔnandΔp (holes) is equal. The charge
neutrality is maintained within the structure due to injected carriers that are created and
recombined in pairs. The power generated internally by an LED is determined by taking into
considering the excess electrons and holes in p- and n-type material respectively.
3. The hole concentration in extrinsic materials is _________ electron concentration. a) much
greater than b) lesser than c) equal to d) negligible difference with View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In extrinsic materials, one carrier type will be highly concentrated
than the other type. Hence in p-type region, hole concentration is greater than electron
concentration in context of extrinsic material. This excess minority carrier density decays
with time.
4. The carrier recombination lifetime becomes majority or injected carrier lifetime. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The initial injected excess electron density and τrepresents the total
carrier recombination time. In most cases, Δnis a small fraction of majority carriers and
contains all minority carriers. So in these cases, carrier recombination lifetime becomes
minority injected carrier lifetime τi.
5. In a junction diode, an equilibrium condition occurs when ____________ a) Δngreater than
Δp b) Δnsmaller than Δp c) Constant current flow d) Optical amplification through stimulated
emission View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The total rate at which carriers are generated in sum of externally
supplied and thermal generation rates. When there is a constant current flow in this case, an
equilibrium occurs in junction diode.
6. Determine the total carrier recombination lifetime of a double heterojunction LED where
the radioactive and nonradioactive recombination lifetime of minority carriers in active
region are 70 ns and 100 ns respectively. a) 41.17 ns b) 35 ns c) 40 ns d) 37.5 ns View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The total carrier recombination lifetime is given by
τ = τrτnr/τr+τnr = 70× 100/70 + 100 ns = 41.17 ns Where τr = radiative recombination lifetime
of minority carriers τnr = nonradioactive recombination lifetime of minority carriers.
7. Determine the internal quantum efficiency generated within a device when it has a
radiative recombination lifetime of 80 ns and total carrier recombination lifetime of 40 ns. a)
20 % b) 80 % c) 30 % d) 40 % View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The internal quantum efficiency of device is given by ηint = τ/τr =
40/80 ×100 = 80% Where τ = total carrier recombination lifetime τr = radiative recombination
lifetime.
8. Compute power internally generated within a double-heterojunction LED if it has internal
quantum efficiency of 64.5 % and drive current of 40 mA with a peak emission wavelength
of 0.82 μm. a) 0.09 b) 0.039 c) 0.04 d) 0.06 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The power internally generated within device i.e. double-
heterojunction LED can be computed by Pint = ηint hci/eλ = 0.645×6.626×10-34×3×108×40×10-
3/ 1.602×10-19 × 0.82 × 10-6 = 0.039 W Where ηint = internal quantum efficiency h = Planck’s
constant c = velocity of light i = drive current e = electron charge λ = wavelength.
9. The Lambertian intensity distribution __________ the external power efficiency by some
percent. a) Reduces b) Does not affects
c) Increases d) Have a negligible effect View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In Lambertian intensity distribution, the maximum intensity I 0 is
perpendicular to the planar surface but is reduced on the sides in proportion to the cosine of θ
i.e. viewing angle as apparent area varies with this angle. This reduces the external power
efficiency. This is because most of the light is tapped by total internal refraction when
radiated at greater than the critical angle for crystal air interface.
10. A planar LED fabricated from GaAs has a refractive index of 2.5. Compute the optical
power emitted when transmission factor is 0.68. a) 3.4 % b) 1.23 % c) 2.72 % d) 3.62 %
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The optical power emitted is given by Pe = PintFn2/4nx2 = Pint
(0.680×1/4×(2.5)2) = 0.0272 Pint. Hence power emitted is only 2.72 % of optional power
emitted internally. Where, Fn2 = transmission factor nx = refractive index.
11. A planar LED is fabricated from GaAs is having a optical power emitted is 0.018% of
optical power generated internally which is 0.018% of optical power generated internally
which is 0.6 P. Determine external power efficiency. a) 0.18% b) 0.32% c) 0.65% d) 0.9%
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Optical power generated externally is given by η cp =
(0.018Pint/2Pint)*100 Where, Pint = power emitted ηcp = external power efficiency.
12. For a GaAs LED, the coupling efficiency is 0.05. Compute the optical loss in decibels. a)
12.3 dB b) 14 dB
c) 13.01 dB d) 14.6 dB View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The optical loss in decibels is given by- Loss = -10log10 ηc Where, ηc
= coupling efficiency.
13. In a GaAs LED, compute the loss relative to internally generated optical power in the
fiber when there is small air gap between LED and fiber core. (Fiber coupled = 5.5 * 10 -4Pint)
a) 34 dB b) 32.59 dB c) 42 dB d) 33.1 dB View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The loss in decibels relative to P int is given by- Loss = -10log10Pc/Pint
Where, Pc = 5.5 * 10-4Pint.
14. Determine coupling efficiency into the fiber when GaAs LED is in close proximity to
fiber core having numerical aperture of 0.3. a) 0.9 b) 0.3 c) 0.6 d) 0.12 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The coupling efficiency is given by η c = (NA)2 = (0.3)2 = 0.9.
15. If a particular optical power is coupled from an incoherent LED into a low-NA fiber, the
device must exhibit very high radiance. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Device must have very high radiance specially in graded index fiber
where Lambertian coupling efficiency with same NA is about half that of step-index fibers.
This high
radiance is obtained when direct bandgap semiconductors are fabricated with DH structure
driven at high current densities.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “LED Structures”.
1. The amount of radiance in planer type of LED structures is ____________ a) Low b) High
c) Zero d) Negligible View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Planer LEDs are fabricated using liquid or vapor phase epitaxial
processes. Here p-type is diffused into n-type substrate which creates junction. Forward
current flow through junction provides Lambertian spontaneous emission. Thus, device emits
light from all surfaces. However a limited amount of light escapes the structure due to total
internal reflection thus providing low radiance.
2. In optical fiber communication _____________ major types of LED structures are used. a)
2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Optical fiber communication involves the use of 6 different major
LED structure. These are the surface emitter, edge emitter, the super luminescent, the
resonant cavity LED, planar LEDs and Dome LEDs.
3. As compared to planar LED structure, Dome LEDs have ______________ External power
efficiency ___________ effective emission area and _____________ radiance. a) Greater,
lesser, reduced b) Higher, greater, reduced c) Higher, lesser, increased d) Greater, greater,
increased View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In Dome LEDs, the diameter of dome is selected so as to maximum
the internal emission reaching surface within critical angle of GaAs. Thus, dome LEDs have
high external power efficiency. The geometry of Dome LEDs is such that dome is much
larger than active recombination area, so it has greater emission era and reduced of radiance.
4. The techniques by Burros and Dawson in reference to homo structure device is to use an
etched well in GaAs structure. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Burros and Dawson provided a technique to restrict emission to small
active region within device thus providing high radiance. Etched well in a GaAs substrate is
used to prevent heavy absorption of emitted region and physically accommodating the fiber.
These structures provide low thermal impedance allowing high current densities of high
radiance.
5. In surface emitter LEDs, more advantage can be obtained by using ____________ a) BH
structures b) QC structures c) DH structures d) Gain-guided structure View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: DH structures provide high efficiency from electrical and optical
confinement. Along with efficiency, they provide less absorption of emitted radiation.
6. Internal absorption in DH surface emitter Burros type LEDs is ____________ a) Cannot be
determined b) Negligible c) High d) Very low View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The larger band gap confining layers and the reflection coefficient at
the back crystal space is high in DH surface emitter Burros type LEDs. This provides good
forward radiance. Thus these structure LEDs have very less internal absorption.
7. DH surface emitter generally give ____________ a) More coupled optical power b) Less
coupled optical power c) Low current densities d) Low radiance emission into-fiber View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The optical power coupled into a fiber depends on distance,
alignment between emission area and fiber, SLED emission pattern and medium between
emitting area and fiber.
All these parameters if considered, reduces refractive index mismatch and increases external
power efficiency thus providing more coupled optical power.
8. A DH surface emitter LED has an emission area diameter of 60μm. Determine emission
area of source. a) 1.534*10-6 b) 5.423*10-3 c) 3.564*10-2 d) 2.826*10-9 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The emission area A of source is given by A = π(30*10 -6) 2=
2.826*10-9cm2.
9. Estimate optical power coupled into fiber of DH SLED having emission area of 1.96*10-5,
radiance of 40 W/rcm2, numerical aperture of 0.2 and Fresnel reflection coefficient of 0.03 at
index matched fiber surface. a) 5.459*10-5 b) 1.784*10-3 c) 3.478*102 d) 9.551*10-5 View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The optical power coupler in the step index fiber of SLED is given
by Pc = π(1-r) A RD(NA) 2 = 3.14 (1-0.03)*1.96*10-5*40*(0.2) 2 = 9.551*10-5W.
10. In a multimode fiber, much of light coupled in the fiber from an LED is ____________ a)
Increased b) Reduced c) Lost d) Unaffected View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Optical power from an incoherent source is initially coupled into
large angle rays falling within acceptance angle of fiber but have more energy than
Meridional rays. Energy from these rays goes into the cladding and thus may be lost.
11. Determine the overall power conversion efficiency of lens coupled SLED having forward
current of 20 mA and forward voltage of 2 V with 170 μWof optical power launched into
multimode step index fiber. a) 1.256*10-5
b) 4.417*102 c) 4.25*10-3 d) 2.14*10-3 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The overall power conversion efficiency is determined by η pc = Pc/P
= 170*10-6/20*10-3*2 = 4.25*10-3.
12. The overall power conversion efficiency of electrical lens coupled LED is 0.8% and
power applied 0.0375 V. Determine optical power launched into fiber. a) 0.03 b) 0.05 c) 0.3
d) 0.01 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optical power launched can be computed by η pc = Pc/P Pc = η pc* P
= 0.8 * 0.0375 = 0.03.
13. Mesa structured SLEDs are used ____________ a) To reduce radiance b) To increase
radiance c) To reduce current spreading d) To increase current spreading View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The planar structures of Burros-type LED allow lateral current
spreading specially for contact diameters less than 25 μm.This results in reduced current
density and effective emission area greater than contact area. This technique to reduce current
spreading in very small devices is Mesa structured SLEDs.
14. The InGaAsP is emitting LEDs are realized in terms of restricted are ____________ a)
Length strip geometry b) Radiance c) Current spreading d) Coupled optical power View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The short striped structure of these LEDs around 100 μmimproves
the external efficiency of LEDs by reducing internal absorption of carriers. These are also
called truncated strip E-LEDs.
15. The active layer of E-LED is heavily doped with ____________ a) Zn b) Eu c) Cu d) Sn
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Zn doping reduces the minority carrier lifetime. Thus this improves
the device modulation bandwidth hence active layer is doped in Zn in E-LEDs.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “LED Characteristics”.
1. Intrinsically _________________ are a very linear device. a) Injection lasers b) DH lasers
c) Gain-guided d) LEDs View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The ideal light output power against current characteristics for an
LED linear. This tends to be more suitable for analog transmission where several constraints
are put in linearity of optical source.
2. Linearizing circuit techniques are used for LEDs. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In practice, LEDs exhibit nonlinearities depending on configuration
used. Thus, to allow its used in high quality analog transmission system and to ensure linear
performance of device, linearizing circuit techniques is used.
3. The internal quantum efficiency of LEDs decreasing _______________ with
________________ temperature. a) Exponentially, decreasing b) Exponentially, increasing c)
Linearly, increasing
d) Linearly, decreasing View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The light emitted from LEDs decreases. This is due to increase in p-n
junction temperature. Thus, this results in exponentially decreasing internal quantum
efficiency with temperature increment.
4. To utilize _____________________ of SLDs at elevated temperatures, the use of
thermoelectric coolers is important. a) Low-internal efficiency b) High-internal efficiency c)
High-power potential d) Low-power potential View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The output characteristics of SLDs are typically of nonlinear in
nature. This is observed with a knee becoming apparent at an operating temperature around
20 degree c. Thus, to utilize high-power potential of these devices at elevated temperature,
thermoelectric coolers are necessarily used.
5. For particular materials with smaller bandgap energies operating in _____________
wavelength, the linewidth tends to ______________ a) 2.1 to 2.75 μm, increase b) 1.1 to 1.7
μm, increase c) 2.1 to 3.6 μm, decrease d) 3.5 to 6 μm, decrease View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: For materials with smaller bandgap, linewidth increases to 50 to 160
nm. This increases in band gap is due to increased doping levels and formation of bandtail
states.
6. The active layer composition must be adjusted if a particular center wavelength is desired.
a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation:There is a difference in output spectra between surface and edge
emitting LEDs when devices have generally heavily doped and lightly doped active layers by
reduction in doping.
7. In optical fiber communication, the electrical signal dropping to half its constant value due
to modulated portion of optical signal corresponds to _______
a) 6 dB b) 3 dB c) 4 dB d) 5 dB View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Modulation bandwidth in optical communication is often defined in
electrical/optical terms. So when considering electrical circuitry in optical fiber system,
electrical 3 dB point or frequency at which output electrical power is reduced by 3 dB
bandwidth with respect to input electrical power.
8. The optical 3 dB point occurs when currents ratio is equal to _____________ a) 83 b) 22 c)
12 d) 34 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: In optical regime, the bandwidth is defined by frequency at which
output current has dropped to ½ output input current system.
9. The optical bandwidth is _____________ the electrical bandwidth. a) Smaller b) Greater c)
Same as d) Zero with respect to View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The difference between optical and electrical bandwidth In terms of
frequency depends on the shape of the frequency response of the system. If the system
response is assumed to be Gaussian, then optical bandwidth is a factor of √2 greater than
electrical bandwidth.
10. When a constant d.c. drive current is applied to device, the optical o/p power is 320 μm.
Determine optical o/p power when device is modulated at frequency 30 MHz with minority
carrier recombination lifetime of LED i.e. 5ns. a) 4.49*10-12 b) 6.84*10-9 c) 1.29*10-6 d)
2.29*10-4 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The output o/p at 30 MHz is
Pc(30 MHz) = Pdc/(1+(wΓi)2)1/2 = 320*10-6/(1+(2π*30*10-6*5*10-9)2)1/2 = 2.29*10-4W.
11. The optical power at 20 MHz is 246.2 μW. Determine dc drive current applied to device
with carrier recombination lifetime for LED of 6ns. a) 3.48*10 -4 b) 6.42*10-9 c) 1.48*10-3 d)
9.48*10-12 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The optical output power at 20 MHz is Pe(20 MHz) =
Pdc/(1+(WTi)2)1/2 246.2*10-6 = Pdc/(1+(2π*20*10-6*5*10-9)2)1/2 Pdc = 3.48*10-4.
12. Determine the 3 dB electrical bandwidth at 3 dB optical bandwidth Bopt of 56.2 MHz. a)
50.14 b) 28.1 c) 47.6 d) 61.96 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The 3dB electrical bandwidth is given by B = Bopt/ √2 = 56.2/2 =
28.1 MHz.
13. The 3 dB electrical bandwidth B is 42 MHz. Determine 3dB optical bandwidth Bopt. a)
45.18 b) 59.39 c) 78.17 d) 94.14 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The 3dB electrical bandwidth is B = Bopt/√2 Bopt = B*√2 = 42*√2
= 59.39 MHz.
14. Determine degradation rate βrif constant junction temperature is 17 degree celsius. a)
7.79*10-11 b) 7.91*10-11
c) 6.86*10-11 d) 5.86*10-11 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The degradation rate βris determined by βr = β0exp (-Ea/KT) =
1.89*107exp (-1*1.602*10-19/1.38*10-23*290) = 7.79*10-11 h-1.
15. Determine CW operating lifetime for LED with βrt = -0.58 and degradation rate βr =
7.86*10-11 h-1. a) 32.12
b) 42 c) 22.72 d) 23.223 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The CW operating lifetime is given by t = Ln 0.58/7.86*10-11 =
22.72h-1
6. Questions on Optical Detectors
The section contains questions on device types, absorption, optical detection principles,
quantum efficiency, semiconductor photodiodes, infrared photodiodes and metal
semiconductors
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Device Types”.
1. ____________ converts the received optical signal into an electrical signal. a) Detector b)
Attenuator c) Laser d) LED View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A detector is an essential component of an optical fiber
communication system. It dictates the overall system performance. Its function is to convert
optical signal into an electrical signal. This electrical signal is then amplified before further
processing.
2. The first generation systems of optical fiber communication have wavelengths between
___________ a) 0.2 and 0.3 μm b) 0.4 and 0.6 μm c) 0.8 and 0.9 μm d) 0.1 and 0.2 μm View
Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The first generation systems operated at a bit-rate of 45 Mbps with
repeater spacing of 10 km. It operates at wavelengths between 0.8 and 0.9μm. These
wavelengths are compatible with AlGaAs laser and LEDs.
3. The quantum efficiency of an optical detector should be high. a) True b) False View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The detector must satisfy stringent requirements for performance and
compatibility. The photo detector thus produces a maximum electrical signal for a given
amount of optical power; i.e. the quantum efficiency should be high.
4. Which of the following does not explain the requirements of an optical detector? a) High
quantum efficiency b) Low bias voltages c) Small size d) Low fidelity View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The size of the detector must be small for efficient coupling to the
fiber. Also, ideally, the detector should not require excessive bias voltages and currents. The
fidelity and quantum efficiency should be high.
5. How many device types are available for optical detection and radiation? a) One b) Two c)
Three d) Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Two types of devices are used for optical detection and radiation.
These are external photoemission and internal photoemission devices. External
photoemission devices are too bulky and require high voltages for operation. Internal devices
provide good performance and compatibility.
6. The ___________ process takes place in both extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors. a)
Avalanche multiplication b) External photoemission c) Internal photoemission d) Dispersion
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: During intrinsic absorption, the received photons excite electrons
from the valence band and towards the conduction band in the semiconductor. Extrinsic
absorption involves impurity centers created with the material. Generally, intrinsic absorption
is preferred for internal photoemission.
7. ____________ are widely used in first generation systems of optical fiber communication.
a) p-n diodes b) 4-alloys c) 3-alloys d) Silicon photodiodes View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The first generation systems operates at wavelengths 0.8 and 0.9 μm.
Silicon photodiodes have high sensitivity over the 0.8-0.9 μm wavelength band with adequate
speed, long term stability. Hence, silicon photodiodes are widely used in first generation
systems.
8. Silicon has indirect band gap energy of __________________ a) 1.2 eV b) 2 eV c) 1.14 eV
d) 1.9 eV View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Silicon’s indirect band gap energy of 1.14 eV gives a loss in response
above 1.09μm. To avoid this, narrower bandgap materials are used. Hence, silicon’s
usefulness is limited to first generation systems and not for second and third generation
systems.
9. Which of the following detector is fabricated from semiconductor alloys? a)
Photoconductive detector b) p-i-n detector
c) Photodiodes d) Photoemission detectors View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The detectors fabricated from semiconductor alloys can be used for
longer wavelengths. Photoconductive detector and hetero-junction transistor have found favor
as a potential detector over a wavelength range of 1.1 to 1.6μm.
10. Silicon photodiodes provide high shunt conductance. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Semiconductor photodiodes provide best solution for detection in
optical fiber communications. Silicon photodiodes have high sensitivity, negligible shunt
conductance and low dark current
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Optical Detection Principles”.
1. P-n photodiode is forward biased. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: p-n photodiode includes p and n regions. The electric field developed
across the p-n junction sweeps holes and electrons to p and n regions respectively. P-n
photodiode is thus reverse biased due to reverse leakage current.
2. The depletion region must be ____________ to allow a large fraction of the incident light
to be absorbed in the device(photodiode). a) Thick b) Thin c) Long d) Inactive View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In p-n photodiode, intrinsic conditions are created in the depletion
region. The depletion region must be thick in order to achieve maximum carrier pair
generation. Also, its width must be limited to enhance the speed of operation of the p-n
photodiode.
3. The process of excitation of an electron from valence band to conduction band leaves an
empty hole in the valence band and is called as ____________ a) Detection b) Absorption c)
Degeneration of an electron-hole pair d) Regeneration of an electron-hole pair View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: A photon is incident in the depletion region of a device has an energy
greater than or equal to the band gap energy of the fabricating material. This will cause
excitation of an electron from valence to the conduction band. This creates an empty hole in
valence band which is referred to as photo-generation of an electron-hole pair.
4. __________________ always leads to the generation of a hole and an electron. a)
Repulsion b) Dispersion c) Absorption d) Attenuation View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Absorption affects the electron and excites it to some other level say
conduction band. This is called as photo-generation as absorption always leads to the
generation of hole and electron. This does not mean that both contribute to the electronic
transport.
5. The electron hole pairs generated in a photodiode are separated by the ____________ a)
Magnetic field b) Electric field c) Static field d) Depletion region View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Electric field separates the electron-hole pairs in a photodiode. The
electric field distribution is determined by an internal and an external field component. A
reverse bias voltage is usually applied to the p-n photodiode.
6. Electric field in the depletion region should be high. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The electric field in the depletion region is always kept high in order
to extract all
photogenerated carriers. Only the extracted electron hole pairs contribute to the overall
photocurrent.
7. The photocurrent of an optical detector should be __________ a) Less b) More c) Linear d)
Non-linear View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: A linear relationship must exist between the intensity of the incident
light and the photocurrent. This makes the photodiode free of noise. It increases system
performance.
8. How many types of optical detectors are available? a) One b) Four c) Two d) Three View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Three types of optical detectors are available. These are diodes,
photoconductors and photo-transistors. Diodes include p-n photodiodes, p-i-n diodes,
avalanche photodiodes and schottky diodes.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Absorption”.
1. The absorption of photons in a photodiode is dependent on __________ a) Absorption
Coefficient α0 b) Properties of material c) Charge carrier at junction d) Amount of light View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Absorption in a photodiode is for producing carrier pans. Thus,
photocurrent is dependent on absorption coefficient α 0of the light in semiconductor used to
fabricate device.
2. The photocurrent in a photodiode is directly proportional to absorption coefficient. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The absorption of photons produces carrier pairs. Thus, photocurrent
is dependent on absorption coefficient and is given by I = P o e(1-h)/hf(1-exp (-α rd)) Where r
= Fresnel coefficient D = width of absorption region.
3. The absorption coefficient of semiconductor materials is strongly dependent on
__________ a) Properties of material b) Wavelength c) Amount of light d) Amplitude View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In some common semiconductors, there is a variation in absorption
curves for materials. It is found that they are each suitable for different wavelength and
related applications. This is due to difference in band gap energies. Thus absorption
coefficient depends on wavelength.
4. Direct absorption requires assistance of photon. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Indirect absorption requires photon assistance resulting in
conversation of energy and momentum. This makes transition probability less likely for
indirect absorption than direct absorption where no photon is included.
5. In optical fiber communication, the only weakly absorbing material over wavelength band
required is? a) GaAs b) Silicon c) GaSb d) Germanium View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The transition over wavelength band in silicon is due to indirect
absorption mechanism. This makes silicon weakly absorbent over particular wavelength
band.
6. The threshold for indirect absorption occurs at wavelength __________ a) 3.01 μm b) 2.09
μm c) 0.92 μm
d) 1.09 μm View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The band gap for silicon is 4.10 eV corresponding to threshold of
0.30 μm in ultraviolet. Thus it’s outside wavelength range is the one which is required.
7. The semiconductor material for which the lowest energy absorption takes place is? a)
GaAs b) Silicon c) GaSb d) Germanium View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Germanium absorption is by indirect optical transition. The threshold
for direct absorption is at 1.53μm. Below this, germanium becomes strongly absorbing to
corresponding link.
8. The wavelength range of interest for Germanium is __________ a) 0.8 to 1.6 μm b) 0.3 to
0.9 μm c) 0.4 to 0.8 μm d) 0.9 to 1.8 μm View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Germanium is used in fabrication of detectors over the whole
wavelength range i.e. first and second generation 0.8 to 1.6 μm while specially taking into
consideration that indirect absorption will occur up to a threshold of 1.85 μm.
9. A photodiode should be chosen with a ________________ less than photon energy. a)
Direct absorption b) Band gap energy c) Wavelength range d) Absorption coefficient View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: A photodiode selection must be made by choosing that diode having
band gap energy less than photon energy corresponding to longest operating wavelength.
This provides high absorption coefficient which ensures a good response and limits the
thermally generated carriers to obtain low dark current with no incident light.
10. ________________ photodiodes have large dark currents. a) GaAs
b) Silicon c) GaSb d) Germanium View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Germanium photodiodes provide narrow band gaps as compared to
other semiconductor materials. This is main disadvantage with use of germanium
photodiodes at shorter wavelength and thus they have large dark current.
11. For fabrication of semiconductor photodiodes, there is a drawback while considering
_________________ a) GaAs b) Silicon c) GaSb d) Germanium View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Due to drawback with germanium to be used as fabricating material,
there is an increased investigation of direct band gap III and V alloys for longer wavelength
region.
12. _________________ materials are potentially superior to germanium. a) GaAs b) Silicon
c) GaSb d) III – V alloys View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The band gap energies for III – V alloys materials can be tailored to
required wavelength. This can be achieved by changing relative concentration of their
constituents which results in low dark currents. Thus, III – V alloys are superior potentially to
germanium.
13. ____________ alloys such as InGaAsP and GaAsSb deposited on InP and GaSb
substrate. a) Ternary b) Quaternary c) Gain-guided d) III – V alloys View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Ternary alloys are used to fabricate photodiodes for longer
wavelength band. Thus, these alloys such as InGaAsP and GaAsSb are deposited on InP and
GaSb substrates.
14. _________________ alloys can be fabricated in hetero-junction structures. a) InGaSb b)
III – V alloys c) InGaAsP d) GaAsSb View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: III – V alloys enhances the high speed operations of hetero-junction
structures. Thus these structures can be fabricated with III-V alloys.
15. The alloys lattice matched to InP responds to wavelengths up to 1.7μm is? a) InAsSb b)
III – V alloys c) InGaSb d) InGaAs View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Although there were difficulties in growth of IOnGaAs alloys, the
problems are now reduced. These alloys lattice matched to InP responding to wavelength
around 1.7 μmare widely utilized for fabrication of photodiodes operating around 1.7μm.
This set of Optical Communications Mcqs focuses on “Quantum Efficiency , Responsivity
and Long – Wavelength Cut-Off”.
1. The fraction of incident photons generated by photodiode of electrons generated collected
at detector is known as ___________________ a) Quantum efficiency b) Absorption
coefficient c) Responsivity d) Anger recombination View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Efficiency of a particular device is obtained by ratio of input given to
that of output obtained. Thus, similarly, in photodiode, input i.e. incident photon and output
generated electrons and their ratio is quantum efficiency.
2. In photo detectors, energy of incident photons must be ________________ band gap
energy. a) Lesser than b) Greater than c) Same as d) Negligible View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: While considering intrinsic absorption process, the energy of incident
photon must be greater than band gap energy of material fabricating photo detector.
3. GaAs has band gap energy of 1.93 eV at 300 K. Determine wavelength above which
material will cease to operate. a) 2.431*10-5 b) 6.424*10-7 c) 6.023*103 d) 7.234*10-7 View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The long wavelength cutoff is given by λ c = hc/Eg = 6.6268*10-
34*2.998*108/1.93*1.602*10-19 = 6.424*10-7μm.
4. The long cutoff wavelength of GaAs is 0.923 μm. Determine bandgap energy. a) 1.478*10 -
7 b) 4.265*10-14 c) 2.784*10-9 d) 2.152*10-19 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Long wavelength cutoff of photo detector is given by λ c = hc/Eg Eg =
hc/λc = 6.6268*10-34*2.998*108/0.923*10-6 = 2.152*10-19eV.
5. Quantum efficiency is a function of photon wavelength. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Quantum efficiency is less than unity as all of incident photons are
not absorbed to create electrons holes pairs. For example quantum efficiency of 60% is
equivalent to 60% of electrons collected per 100 photons. Thus efficiency is a function of
photon wavelength and must be determined at a particular wavelength.
6. Determine quantum efficiency if incident photons on photodiodes is 4*10 11 and electrons
collected at terminals is 1.5*1011? a) 50% b) 37.5% c) 25%
d) 30% View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by Quantum Efficiency = No. of
electrons collected/No. of incident photons = 1.5*1011/4*1011 = 0.375 * 100 = 37.5%.
7. A photodiode has quantum efficiency of 45% and incident photons are 3*10 11. Determine
electrons collected at terminals of device. a) 2.456*109 b) 1.35*1011 c) 5.245*10-7 d) 4.21*10-
3 View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by Quantum efficiency = No. of
electrons collected/No. of incident photons Electrons collected = Quantum efficiency *
number of incident photons = 45/100 * 3*1011 = 1.35*1011.
8. The quantum efficiency of photodiode is 40% with wavelength of 0.90*10 -6. Determine the
responsivity of photodiodes. a) 0.20 b) 0.52 c) 0.29 d) 0.55 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Responsivity of photodiodes is given by R = ηe λ/hc = 0.4*1.602*10 -
19 * 0.90*10-6/6.626*10-34 * 3*108 = 0.29 AW-1.
9. The Responsivity of photodiode is 0.294 AW-1at wavelength of 0.90 μm. Determine
quantum efficiency. a) 0.405 b) 0.914 c) 0.654 d) 0.249 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Responsivity of photodiode is R = ηe λ/hc η = RXhc/eλ =
0.294*6.626*10-34*3*108/ 1.602*10-19*0.90*108 = 0.405 AW-1.
10. Determine wavelength of photodiode having quantum efficiency of 40% and
Responsivity of 0.304 AW-1. a) 0.87 μm b) 0.91 μm c) 0.88 μm d) 0.94 μm View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is R = ηe λ/hc λ = Rhc/ηe =
0.304*6.626*10-34*3*108/0.4*1.602*10-19 = 0.94 μm.
11. Determine wavelength at which photodiode is operating if energy of photons is 1.9*10-
19J? a) 2.33 b) 1.48 c) 1.04 d) 3.91 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: To determine wavelength, λ = hc/t = 6.626*10 -34*3*108/1.9*10-19 =
1.04 μm.
12. Determine the energy of photons incident on a photodiode if it operates at a wavelength
of 1.36 μm. a) 1.22*10-34J b) 1.46*10-19J c) 6.45*10-34J d) 3.12*109J View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The wavelength of photodiode is given by λ = hc/t
E = hc/λ
= 6.626*10-34*3*108/1.36*10-6
= 1.46*10-19J.
13. Determine Responsivity of photodiode having o/p power of 3.55 μm and photo current of
2.9
μm.
a) 0.451
b) 0.367
c) 0.982
d) 0.816
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = Ip/Po
= 2.9*10-6/3.55*10-6
= 0.816 A/W.
14. Determine incident optical power on a photodiode if it has photocurrent of 2.1 μA and
responsivity of 0.55 A/W.
a) 4.15
b) 1.75
c) 3.81
d) 8.47
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = Ip/Po
Po = Ip/R
= 2.1*10-6/0.55
= 3.81 μm.
15. If a photodiode requires incident optical power of 0.70 A/W. Determine photocurrent.
a) 1.482
b) 2.457
c) 4.124
d) 3.199
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is given by
R = Ip/Po
Ip = R*Po
= 0.70*3.51*10-6
= 2.457μm

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on
“Semiconductor Photodiodes Without Internal Gain”.
1. The width of depletion region is dependent on ___________ of semiconductor.
a) Doping concentrations for applied reverse bias
b) Doping concentrations for applied forward bias
c) Properties of material
d) Amount of current provided
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The depletion region is formed by immobile positively and immobile negatively
charged donor and acceptor atoms in n- and p-type respectively. When carriers are swept
towards majority side under electric field, lower the doping, wider the depletion region.
2. Electron-hole pairs are generated in ___________
a) Depletion region
b) Diffusion region
c) Depletion region
d) P-type region
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Photons are absorbed in both depletion and diffusion regions. The position and
width of absorption region depends on incident photons energy. The absorption region may
extend throughout device in weakly absorption of photons. Thus carriers are generated in
both
regions.
3. The diffusion process is _____________ as compared with drift.
a) Very fast
b) Very slow
c) Negligible
d) Better
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. Determine drift time for carrier across depletion region for photodiode having intrinsic
region
width of 30μm and electron drift velocity of 10 5 ms-1.
a) 1×10-10 Seconds
b) 2×10-10 Seconds
c) 3×10-10 Seconds
d) 4×10-10 Seconds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The drift time is given by
tdrift = w/vd = 30×10-6/1×10-10 = 3×10-10 seconds.
5. Determine intrinsic region width for a photodiode having drift time of 4×10 -10 s and
electron
velocity of 2×10-10 ms-1.
a) 3×10-5M
b) 8×10-5 M
c) 5×10-5M
d) 7×10-5M
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The drift time is given by
tdrift = w/vd
4×10-10 = w/2×105
= 4×10-10×2×105
= 8×10-5m.
6. Determine velocity of electron if drift time is 2×10 -10s and intrinsic region width of 25×10-
6μm.
a) 12.5×104
b) 11.5×104
c) 14.5×104
d) 13.5×104
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The drift time is given by
tdrift = w/vd
vd = 25×10-6/2×10-10 = 12.5×104ms-1.
7. Compute junction capacitance for a p-i-n photodiode if it has area of 0.69×10-6 m2,
permittivity
of 10.5×10-13Fcm-1 and width of 30μm.
a) 3.043×10-5
b) 2.415×10-7
c) 4.641×10-4
d) 3.708×10-5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/w = 10.5×10-13×0.69×10-6/30×10-13
= 2.415×10-7F.

8. Determine the area where permittivity of material is 15.5×10 -15Fcm-1 and width of 25×10-6
and
junction capacitance is 5pF.
a) 8.0645×10-5
b) 5.456×10-6
c) 3.0405×10-2
d) 8.0645×10-3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/ w = 5×10-12×25×10-6/15.5×10-15
= 8.0645×10-3 m2.
9. Compute intrinsic region width of p-i-n photodiode having junction capacitance of 4pF and
material permittivity of 16.5×10 -13Fcm-1 and area of 0.55×10-6 m2.
a) 7.45×10-6
b) 2.26×10-7
c) 4.64×10-7
d) 5.65×10-6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/ W
w = εsA/Cj
= 16.5×10-13 × 0.55×10-6/4×10-12
= 2.26×10-7.
10. Determine permittivity of p-i-n photodiode with junction capacitance of 5pF, area of
0.62×10-6m2 and intrinsic region width of 28 μm.
a) 7.55×10-12
b) 2.25×10-10
c) 5×10-9
d) 8.5×10-12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/ W
εs = Cj w/A = 5×10-12×28×10-6/0.62×10-6
= 2.25×10-10Fcm-1.
11. Determine response time of p-i-n photodiode if it has 3 dB bandwidth of 1.98×108Hz.
a) 5.05×10-6sec
b) 5.05×10-7Sec
c) 5.05×10-7sec

d) 5.05×10-8Sec
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum response time is
Maximum response time = 1/Bm = 1/1.98×108 = 5.05×10-9sec.
12. Compute maximum 3 dB bandwidth of p-i-n photodiode if it has a max response time of
5.8
ns.
a) 0.12 GHz
b) 0.14 GHz
c) 0.17 GHz
d) 0.13 GHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum response time is
Maximum response time = 1/Bm
= 1/5.8×10-9 = 0.17 GHz.
13. Determine maximum response time for a p-i-n photodiode having width of 28×10 -6 m and
carrier velocity of 4×104ms-1.
a) 105.67 MHz
b) 180.43 MHz
c) 227.47 MHz
d) 250.65 MHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum 3 dB bandwidth of photodiode is given by
Bm = Vd/2ΠW = 4×10-4/2×3.14×28×10-6 = 227.47 MHz.
14. Determine carrier velocity of a p-i-n photodiode where 3dB bandwidth is1.9×108Hz and
depletion region width of 24μm.
a) 93.43×10-5
b) 29.55×10-3
c) 41.56×10-3
d) 65.3×10-4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum 3 dB bandwidth of photodiode is given by
Bm = Vd/2ΠW
Vd = Bm × 2Π × W
= 1.98×108×2Π×24×10-6
= 29.55×10-3.

15. Compute depletion region width of a p-i-n photodiode with 3dB bandwidth of
1.91×108and
carrier velocity of 2×104ms-s.
a) 1.66×10-5
b) 3.2×10-3
c) 2×10-5
d) 2.34×104
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum 3 dB bandwidth of photodiode is given by
Bm = Vd/2ΠW
W = Vd/Bm2Π
= 2×10-5/1.91×108×2Π
= 1.66×10-5 m
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Semiconductor Photodiodes With Internal Gain”.
1. ___________ has more sophisticated structure than p-i-n photodiode.
a) Avalanche photodiode
b) p-n junction diode
c) Zener diode
d) Varactor diode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Avalanche photodiode is second major type of detector in optical
communications.
This diode is more sophisticated so as to create a much higher electric field region.
2. The phenomenon leading to avalanche breakdown in reverse-biased diodes is known as
_______
a) Auger recombination
b) Mode hopping
c) Impact ionization
d) Extract ionization
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In depletion region, almost all photons are absorbed and carrier pairs are
generated.
So there comes a high field region where carriers acquire energy to excite new carrier pairs.
This
is impact ionization.
3. _______ is fully depleted by employing electric fields.
a) Avalanche photodiode
b) P-I-N diode
c) Varactor diode

d) P-n diode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: APD is fully depleted by electric fields more than 10 4V/m. This causes all the
drifting of carriers at saturated limited velocities.
4. At low gain, the transit time and RC effects ________
a) Are negligible
b) Are very less
c) Dominate
d) Reduce gradually
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Low gain causes the dominance of transit time and RC effects. This gives a
definitive response time and thus device obtains constant bandwidth.
5. At high gain, avalanche buildup time ________
a) Is negligible
b) Very less
c) Increases gradually
d) Dominates
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: High gain causes avalanche buildup time to dominate. Thus the bandwidth of
device decreases as increase in gain.
6. Often __________ pulse shape is obtained from APD.
a) Negligible
b) Distorted
c) Asymmetric
d) Symmetric
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Asymmetric pulse shape is acquired from APD. This is due to relatively fast rise
time as electrons are collected and fall time dictated by transit time of holes.
7. Fall times of 1 ns or more are common.
a) False
b) True
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The use of suitable materials and structures give rise times between 150 and 200
ps.
Thus fall times of 1 ns or more are common which in turn limits the overall response of
device.
8. Determine Responsivity of a silicon RAPD with 80% efficiency, 0.7μm wavelength.
a) 0.459
b) 0.7
c) 0.312
d) 0.42
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Responsivity of a RAPD is given by-
R = ηeλ/hc A/w where, η=efficiency, λ = wavelength, h = Planck’s constant.
9. Compute wavelength of RAPD with 70% efficiency and Responsivity of 0.689 A/w.
a) 6μm
b) 7.21μm
c) 0.112μm
d) 3μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The wavelength can be found from the Responsivity formula given by-
R = ηeλ/hc. The unit of wavelength isμm.
10. Compute photocurrent of RAPD having optical power of 0.7 μw and responsivity of
0.689
A/W.
a) 0.23 μA
b) 0.489 μA
c) 0.123 μA
d) 9 μA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The photocurrent is given byI P=P0R. Here IP = photocurrent, P0=Power, R =
responsivity.
11. Determine optical power of RAPD with photocurrent of 0.396 μAand responsivity of 0.49
A/w.
a) 0.91 μW
b) 0.32 μW
c) 0.312 μW
d) 0.80 μW
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The photocurrent is given by I P = P0R. Here IP = photocurrent, P0 = Power, R =
responsivity.
P0 = IP/R gives the optical power.
12. Determine the Responsivity of optical power of 0.4μW and photocurrent of 0.294 μA.
a) 0.735
b) 0.54
c) 0.56
d) 0.21
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The photocurrent is given by I P = P0R. Here IP = photocurrent, P0 = Power, R =
responsivity.
R = IP/P0 gives the responsivity.
13. Compute multiplication factor of RAPD with output current of 10 μAand photocurrent of
0.369μA.
a) 25.32
b) 27.100
c) 43
d) 22.2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The multiplication factor of photodiode is given by-
M = I/IP where I = output current, IP = photocurrent.
14. Determine the output current of RAPD having multiplication factor of 39 and
photocurrent of
0.469μA.
a) 17.21
b) 10.32
c) 12.21
d) 18.29
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The multiplication factor of photodiode is given by-
M = I/IP where I = output current, IP = photocurrent. I = M*IP gives the output current inμA.
15. Compute the photocurrent of RAPD having multiplication factor of 36.7 and output
current
of 7μA.
a) 0.01 μA
b) 0.07 μA
c) 0.54 μA

d) 0.9 μA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The multiplication factor of photodiode is given by-
M = I/IP where I = output current, IP = photocurrent. IP = I/M Gives the output current inμA.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Mid Infrared and Far Infrared Photodiodes”.
1. In the development of photodiodes for mid-infrared and far-infrared transmission systems,
lattice matching has been a problem when operating at wavelengths ____________
a) 1 μm
b) Greater than 2 μm
c) 2 μm
d) 0.5 μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lattice matching for alloy materials is obtained at wavelengths above 2 μm. For
example, a lattice-matched alloy material system (GaSb) was utilized in a p-i-n photodiode
for
high speed operation at wavelengths up to 2.3 μm.
2. What is generally used to accommodate a lattice mismatch?
a) Alloys
b) Attenuator
c) Graded buffer layer
d) APD array
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The use of indium alloy cause inherent problems of dislocation-induced
junction
leakage and low quantum efficiency. To avoid these problems, a compositionally graded
buffer
layer is used to accommodate a lattice mismatch.
3. HgCdTe material system is utilized to fabricate long-wavelength photodiodes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HgCdTe family alloys allow resonant characteristics via hole ionization. Its
band
gap energy variation enables optical detection to far-infrared. Thus, this material can be used
for
fabrication of long-wavelength photodiodes.

4. Avalanche photodiodes based on HgCdTe are used for ______________ in both the near
and
far infrared.
a) Dispersion
b) Dislocation
c) Ionization
d) Array applications
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Avalanche photodiodes based on HgCdTe are used for array applications. The
materials of APDs based on HgCdTe possess uniform avalanche gain across an array. This
variation in gain is variation in gain is lower in HgCdTe as compared with silicon.
5. The detection mechanism in ____________ relies on photo excitation of electrons from
confined states in conduction band quantum wells.
a) p-i-n detector
b) Quantum-dot photo detector
c) p-n photodiode
d) Avalanche photodiodes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Quantum-dot photo detector’s detection mechanism involves photo excitation of
electrons. This process of photo excitation in photo detectors is similar to that in the
Quantumdot
semiconductor optical amplifier. The dots-in-well in Quantum-dot detector is called as
DWELL structure.
6. When determining performance of a photo detector ___________ is often used.
a) No. of incident photon
b) No. of electrons collected
c) Responsivity
d) Absorption coefficient
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression for quantum efficiency does not include photon energy. Thus for
characterizing performance of photo detector, Responsivity is used.
7. The important parameter for exciting an electron with energy required from valence band
to
conduction band is?
a) Wavelength
b) Absorption coefficient
c) Responsivity
d) Band gap energy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: As wavelength of incident photon becomes longer, the photon energy is less
than
energy required to excite electron. Mostly parameters of photodiode are dependent on
wavelength.
8. __________ is less than or unity for photo detectors.
a) Absorption coefficient
b) Band gap energy
c) Responsivity
d) Quantum efficiency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Quantum efficiency determines the absorption coefficient of semiconductor
material of photo detector. It is not all incident photons are absorbed to create electron-hole
pairs. Thus quantum efficiency must be less than unity.
9. There must be improvement in __________ of an optical fiber communication system.
a) Detector
b) Responsivity
c) Absorption Coefficient
d) Band gap energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If proper and improved and highly efficient detector is utilized, it will then
reduce
the repeated stations. It will also lower down both capital investment and maintenance cost.
This set of Optical Communications online test focuses on “Phototransistors and Metal –
Semiconductor – Metal Photodetectors”.
1. The _____________ is photosensitive to act as light gathering element.
a) Base-emitter junction
b) Base-collector junction
c) Collector-emitter junction
d) Base-collector junction and Base-emitter junction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Base-collector junction is photosensitive in n-p-n phototransistor and act as light
gathering element. This light absorbed affects the base current and gives multiplication of
primary photocurrent in device.
2. A large secondary current _________________ in n-p-n InGaAs phototransistor is
achieved.
a) Between base and collector
b) Between emitter and collector
c) Between base and emitter
d) Plasma
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The photo-generated holes are swept to the base. This increases the forward bias
device. This generates secondary current between emitter and collector.
3. _______ emitter-base and collector-base junction capacitances is achieved by use of
heterostructure
along with _________ base resistance.
a) Low, high
b) High, low
c) Low, low
d) High, negligible
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In hetero-structure, there is low doping level in emitter and collector which is
coupled with heavy doping base. This is due low emitter-base and collector-base junction
capacitance and low base resistance. This allows large current gain.
4. A ________ is created by hetero-junction at collector-base junction.
a) Potential barrier
b) Depletion region
c) Parasitic capacitance
d) Inductance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Potential barrier is created at emitter-base junction by hetero-junction. This
eliminates hole junction from base. This is achieved when junction is forward-biased and
provides good emitter-base efficiency.
5. Phototransistors based on hetero-junction using _________ material are known as
waveguide
phototransistors.
a) InGaP
b) InGaAs
c) InGaAsP/ InAlAs
d) ErGaAs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Phototransistor using InGaAsP/ InAlAs are known as waveguide
phototransistors.
They function as waveguide phototransistors. They function as high performance photo-
detectors
at 1.3 micro-meter wavelength. They utilize a passive waveguide layer under active transistor
region.

6. A phototransistor has collector current of 18 mA, incident optical power of 128 μW with a
wavelength of 1.24 μm. Determine an optical gain.
a) 1.407 *102
b) 19.407 *102
c) 2.407 *102
d) 3.407 *102
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The optical gain is given by-
G0=hcIc/λeP0, where h=Planck’s constant, Ic=collector current, λ=wavelength, P0=incident
optical power.
7. For a phototransistor having gain of 116.5, wavelength of 1.28 μm, optical power 123μW.
Determine collector current.
a) 0.123 mA
b) 0.0149 mA
c) 1.23 mA
d) 0.54 mA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The collector current is given by-
Ic= G0λeP0/ hc, where h=Planck’s constant, Ic=collector current, λ=wavelength, P0=incident
optical power.
8. The detection mechanism in the ____________ photo-detector includes inter sub-band
transitions.
a) Dwell
b) Set
c) Avalanche
d) Futile
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The inter sub-band transitions are also known as type-2 transitions. It comprises
of
mini-bands within a single energy band, The detection mechanism in DWELL photo-detector
includes inter sub-band transitions.
9. Which of the following is the difference between the n-p-n and conventional bipolar
transistor?
a) Electric property
b) Magnetic property
c) Unconnected base
d) Emitter base efficiency
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The n-p-n bipolar transistor differs in the following ways: base is unconnected,
base-collector junction is photosensitive as a light gathering element.
10. The n-p-n hetero-junction phototransistor is grown using ______________
a) Liquid-phase tranquilizers
b) Liquid-phase epistaxis
c) Solid substrate
d) Hetero poleax
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The technique LPE consists of a thin layer of n-type collector based on a p-type
base layer. Liquid phase epistaxis is used in hetero-junction technology.
11. The _____________ at emitter-base junction gives good emitter base injection efficiency.
a) Homo-junction
b) Depletion layer
c) Holes
d) Hetero-junction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hetero-junction at the emitter-base junction effectively eliminates hole
injection from the base when the junction is forward biased. This gives good emitter-base
injection efficiency.
12. Waveguide phototransistors utilize a ___________ waveguide layer under the _________
transistor region.
a) Active, passive
b) Passive, active
c) Homo, hetero
d) Hetero, homo
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Waveguide phototransistors are based on hetero-junction structure. They
function
as high-performance photo-detectors and thus utilize a passive waveguide layer under the
active
transistor region.
13. What is the main benefit of the waveguide structure over conventional hetero-junction
phototransistor?
a) High depletion region
b) Depletion width
c) Increased photocurrent, responsivity

d) Low gain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Waveguide structure offers increased photocurrent. Photocurrent is directly
proportional to the responsivity; thus in turn increases responsivity.
14. Waveguide structure provides high quantum efficiency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Responsivity and quantum efficiency follow a different path. They are indirectly
proportional to each other. Thus, in waveguide structure, as the responsivity increases,
quantum
efficiency remains low.
15. Metal-semiconductor-metal (MSM) photo-detectors are photoconductive detectors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MSM photo-detectors are the simplest of photo-detectors. It provides the
simplest
form of photo-detection within optical fiber communications and are photoconductive.
7. Questions & Answers on Direct Detection Receiver Performance Considerations
The section contains questions and answers on noise, receiver noise and structures, fet pre
amplifiers and high performance receivers.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Noise”.
1. _____________ refers to any spurious or undesired disturbances that mask the received
signal
in a communication system.
a) Attenuation
b) Noise
c) Dispersion
d) Bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise is an unwanted and undesirable quantity. It affects the received signal in a

communication system. In optical fiber communication systems, noise is due to the


spontaneous
fluctuations rather than erratic disturbances.
2. How many types of noise are observed because of the spontaneous fluctuations in optical
fiber
communication systems?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are three types of noise because of the spontaneous fluctuations in optical
fiber communication systems. These are thermal noise, the dark current noise and quantum
noise. These noise types are not caused by the electronic interference.
3. ______________ is caused due to thermal interaction between the free electrons and the
vibrating ions in the conduction medium.
a) Thermal noise
b) Dark noise
c) Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal noise is basically a spontaneous fluctuation caused due to thermal
interaction of electrons and ions. It is especially prevalent in resistors at room temperature.
Thermal noise is measured in the form of current and is called as thermal noise current.
4. A small leakage current still flows from the device terminals even if there is no optical
power
incident on the photo detector.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A reverse leakage current that flows from the device terminals is called as dark
current. This dark current contributes to the total system noise. This gives random
fluctuations
about the average particle flow of the photocurrent.
5. ___________ distribution provides the description the random statistics of light emitted in
black body radiation.
a) Poisson
b) Cumulative
c) Probability

d) Bose-Einstein
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Incoherent light is emitted by independent atoms and therefore there is no phase
relationship between the emitted photons. The property dictates an exponential intensity
distribution which is identical to Bose-Einstein distribution.
6. The probability of zero pairs being generated when a light pulse is present is given by
which
of the following equation?
a) P(0/1) = exp(-Zm)
b) P(x) = exp (Zm)
c) P(y) = x (0) + x(1)
d) P(z) = P(-Zm)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The probability of zero pairs being generated when a light pulse is present is
given
by equation –
P (0/1) = exp(-Zm)
Where, P (0/1) represents the system error probability p(e) and Z m is variance of the
probability
distribution.
7. The minimum pulse energy needed to maintain a given bit-error-rate (BER) which any
practical receiver must satisfy is known as ___________
a) Minimal energy
b) Quantum limit
c) Point of reversed
d) Binary signaling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A perfect photo detector emits no electron-hole pairs in the absence of
illumination.
The error probability determines a standardized fundamental limit in digital optical
communications. This limit is termed as quantum limit.
8. A digital optical fiber communication system requires a maximum bit-error-rate of 10-9.
Find
the average number of photons detected in a time period for a given BER.
a) 19.7
b) 21.2
c) 20.7
d) 26.2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The probability of error is given by-

P(e) = exp(-Zm)
Where, Zm = No. of photons
Here P(e) = 10-9, therefore Zm is calculated from above relation.
9. For a given optical fiber communication system, P(e) = 10 -9, Zm = 20.7, f = 2.9×1014, η = 1.
Find the minimum pulse energy or quantum limit.
a) 3.9×10-18
b) 4.2×10-18
c) 6.2×10-14
d) 7.2×10-14
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum pulse energy or quantum limit is given by –
Emin = Zmhf/η
Where, Zm = Number of photons
h = Planck’s constant
f = frequency
η = Quantum efficiency.
10. An analog optical fiber system operating at wavelength 1μmhas a post-detection
bandwidth
of 5MHz. Assuming an ideal detector and incident power of 198 nW, calculate the SNR (f =
2.99×1014Hz).
a) 46
b) 40
c) 50
d) 52
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The SNR is given by –
S/N = ηP0/2hfB
Where, η = 1 (for ideal detector)
P0 = incident power
h = Planck’s constant
B = Bandwidth.
11. The incident optical power required to achieve a desirable SNR is 168.2nW. What is the
value of incident power in dBm?
a) -37.7 dBm
b) -37 dBm
c) – 34 dBm
d) -38.2 dBm
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Incident power in denoted by P0. It is given by –
P0 = 10log10(P0(watts))
Where P0(watts) = incident power in Watts/milliWatt.
12. In the equation given below, what does τstands for?
Zm = ηP0τ/hf
a) Velocity
b) Time
c) Reflection
d) Refractive index
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the given equation, Zm is the variance of the probability distribution. The
number
of electrons generated in time τis equal to the average of the number of photons detected over
this time period Zm. Hence, τ is the time and P0 is the incident power, ηis the quantum
efficiency
and f is the frequency.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Receiver Noise”.
1. Which are the two main sources of noise in photodiodes without internal gain?
a) Gaussian noise and dark current noise
b) Internal noise and external noise
c) Dark current noise & Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise and Quantum noise
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two main sources of noise in photodiodes without internal gain are dark
current
noise and quantum noise. They are regarded as shot noise on the photocurrent. These noise
are
together called as analog quantum noise.
2. The dominating effect of thermal noise over the shot noise in photodiodes without internal
gain can be observed in wideband systems operating in the range of ________
a) 0.4 to 0.5 μm
b) 0.8 to 0.9 μm
c) 0.3 to 0.4 μm
d) 0.7 to 0.79 μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the photodiode is without internal avalanche gain, the detector load
resistor

and active elements’ thermal noise in the amplifier tends to dominate. It is seen in wideband
systems operating in the 0.8 to 0.9 μmwavelength band. This is because the dark currents in
the
silicon diodes can be made very small.
3. A silicon p-i-n photodiode incorporated in an optical receiver has following parameters:
Quantum efficiency = 70%
Wavelength = 0.8 μm
Dark current = 3nA
Load resistance = 4 kΩ
Incident optical power = 150nW.
Bandwidth = 5 MHz
Compute the photocurrent in the device.
a) 67.7nA
b) 81.2nA
c) 68.35nA
d) 46.1nA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The photocurrent is given by
Ip = ηP0eλ/hc
Where η = Quantum efficiency
P0 = Incident optical power
e = electron charge
λ = Wavelength
h = Planck’s constant
c = Velocity of light.
4. In a silicon p-i-n photodiode, if load resistance is 4 kΩ, temperature is 293 K, bandwidth is
4MHz, find the thermal noise in the load resistor.
a) 1.8 × 10-16A2
b) 1.23 × 10-17A2
c) 1.65 × 10-16A2
d) 1.61 × 10-17A2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The thermal noise in the load resistor is given by –
it
2 = 4KTB/RL
Where T = Temperature
B = Bandwidth
RL = Load resistance.
5. ________________ is a combination of shunt capacitances and resistances.
a) Attenuation

b) Shunt impedance
c) Shunt admittance
d) Thermal capacitance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Admittance is a measure of how easily a circuit will allow a current to flow. It is
the inverse of impedance and is measured in Siemens. It is a combination of shunt
capacitances
and resistances.
6. ______________ is used in the specification of optical detectors.
a) Noise equivalent power
b) Polarization
c) Sensitivity
d) Electron movement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise equivalent power is defined as the amount of incident optical power per
unit
bandwidth required to produce an output power equal to detector output noise power.
Noise equivalent power is the value of incident power which gives an output SNR of unity.
7. A photodiode has a capacitance of 6 pF. Calculate the maximum load resistance which
allows
an 8MHz post detection bandwidth.
a) 3.9 kΩ
b) 3.46 kΩ
c) 3.12 kΩ
d) 3.32 kΩ
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The load resistance is given by-
RL = 1/2πCdB
Where
B = Post detection bandwidth
Cd = Input capacitance
RL = Load resistance.
8. The internal gain mechanism in an APD is directly related to SNR. State whether the given
statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The internal gain mechanism in an APD increases the signal current into the
amplifier. This improves the SNR because the load resistance and amplifier noise remains
unaffected.
9. ____________ is dependent upon the detector material, the shape of the electric field
profile
within the device.
a) SNR
b) Excess avalanche noise factor
c) Noise gradient
d) Noise power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Excess avalanche noise factor is represented as F (M). Its value depends upon
the
detector material, shape of electric field profile and holes and electrons inclusion. It is a
function
of multiplication factor.
10. For silicon APDs, the value of excess noise factor is between _________
a) 0.001 and 0.002
b) 0.5 and 0.7
c) 0.02 and 0.10
d) 1 and 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The excess noise factor (K) is same as that of the multiplication factor. In case
of
holes, the smaller values of K produce high performance and therefore the performance is
achieved when k is small. For silicon APDs, k = 0.02 to 0.10.
11. __________ determines a higher transmission rate related to the gain of the APD device.
a) Attenuation
b) Gain-bandwidth product
c) Dispersion mechanism
d) Ionization coefficient
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gain-bandwidth product is defined as Gain multiplied by the bandwidth. Gain is
a
dimensionless quantity but the gain-bandwidth product is therefore measured in the units of
frequency.
12. _________________ APDs are recognized for their high gain-bandwidth products.
a) GaAs
b) Alloy-made
c) Germanium
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Silicon APDs possess a large asymmetry of electron and hole ionization
coefficient.
Thus, they possess high gain-bandwidth products. These APDs do not operate at high
transmission rates.
13. APDs do not operate at signal wavelengths between 1.3 and 1.6μm.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: APDs having high gain-bandwidth products do not operate at signal
wavelengths
between 1.3 and 1.6 μm.Hence, these APDs are not prefered for use in receivers operating at
high transmission rates.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“FET Pre – Amplifiers”.
1. ____________ is the lowest noise amplifier device.
a) Silicon FET
b) Amplifier-A
c) Attenuator
d) Resonator-B
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FET operates by controlling the current flow with an electric field produced by
an
applied voltage on the gate of the device. Silicon FET is fabricated for low noise devices. It is
the
lowest noise amplifier device available.
2. FET device has extremely high input impedance greater than _________
a) 107 Ohms and less than 108
b) 106 Ohms and less than 107
c) 1014 Ohms
d) 1023 Ohms
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FET operation involves the applied voltage on the gate of the device. The gate
draws virtually no current, except for leakage, giving the device extremely high input
impedance.
3. The properties of a bipolar transistor are superior to the FET.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: bipolar transistor operates by controlling the current flow with an electric field
produced with a base current. The properties of a bipolar transistor are limited by its high
transconductance
than the FET.
4. Bipolar transistor is more useful amplifying device than FET at frequencies
_____________
a) Above 1000 MHz
b) Equal to 1 MHz
c) Below 25 MHz
d) Above 25 MHz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In FETs, the current gain drops to values near unity at frequencies above
25MHz.
The trans-conductance is fixed with decreasing input impedance. Therefore, bipolar transistor
is
more useful amplifying device at frequencies above 25MHz.
5. High-performance microwave FETs are fabricated from ___________
a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) Gallium arsenide
d) Zinc
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since the mid- 1970s, the development of high-performance microwave FETs
found its way. These FETs are fabricated from gallium arsenide and are called as GaAs metal
Schottky field effect transistors (MESFETs).
6. Gallium arsenide MESFETs are advantageous than Silicon FETs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gallium arsenide MESFETs are Schottky barrier devices. They operate with
both
low noise and high gain at microwave frequencies (GHz). Silicon FETs cannot operate with
wide
bands.
7. The PIN-FET hybrid receivers are a combination of ______________
a) Hybrid resistances and capacitances
b) Pin photodiode and low noise amplifier (GaAs MESFETs)
c) P-N photodiode and low noise amplifier (GaAs MESFETs)
d) Attenuator and low noise amplifier (GaAs MESFETs)
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The PIN-FET or p-i-n/FET receiver utilizes a p-i-n photodiode along with a low
noise preamplifier (GaAs MESFETs). It is fabricated using thick-film integrated circuit
technology. This hybrid integration reduces the stray capacitance to negligible levels.
8. PIN-FET hybrid receiver is designed for use at a transmission rate of _____________
a) 130 Mbits-1
b) 110 Mbits-1
c) 120 Mbits-1
d) 140 Mbits-1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At 140 Mbits-1, the performance of PIN-FET hybrid receiver is found to be
comparable to germanium and alloy APD receivers. A digital equalizer is necessary as the
highimpedance
front end effectively integrates the signal at 140 Mbits -1.
9. It is difficult to achieve higher transmission rates using conventional __________
a) Voltage amplifier
b) Waveguide Structures
c) PIN-FET or APD receivers
d) MESFET
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is difficult to achieve higher transmission rates due to limitations in their gain
bandwidth products. Also, the trade-off between the multiplication factor requirement and the
bandwidth limits the performance of conventional receivers.
10. Which receiver can be fabricated using PIN-FET hybrid approach?
a) Trans-impedance front end receiver
b) Gallium arsenide receiver
c) High-impedance front-end
d) Low-impedance front-end
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Trans-impedance front-end receivers are fabricated using the PIN-FET hybrid
approach. An example of such receivers consists of a GaAs MESFET and two
complementary
bipolar microwave transistors.
11. A silicon p-i-n photodiode utilized with the amplifier and the receiver is designed to
accept
data at a rate of ___________
a) 276Mbits-1
b) 274 Mbits-1
c) 278Mbits-1

d) 302Mbits-1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A silicon p-i-n photodiode is used with the low-noise preamplifier. This
preamplifier is based on a GaAs MESFET. Thus, a receiver using p-i-n photodiode accepts a
data rate of 274 Mbits-1 giving a sensitivity around -35dBm.
12. What is usually required by FETs to optimize the figure of merit?
a) Attenuation of barrier
b) Matching with the depletion region
c) Dispersion of the gate region
d) Matching with the detector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total capacitance is given by Ct = Cd + Ca. The figure of merit is optimized
when
Cd=Ca. This requires FETs to be matched with the detectors. This requires FETs to be
matched
with the detectors. This procedure is usually not welcomed by the device and is not permitted
in
current optical receiver design
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“High Performance Receivers”.
1. How many design considerations are considered while determining the receiver
performance?
a) Three
b) Two
c) One
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Three main considerations are utilized for determining the receiver
performance.
Noise performance is a major design consideration providing a limitation to the sensitivity.
Other
two considerations are bandwidth and dynamic range.
2. FET preamplifiers provide higher sensitivity than the Si-bipolar device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At low speeds, the FET preamplifiers provide higher sensitivity than the Si-
bipolar
device. It is apparent that below 10Mbits -1the Si MOSFET preamplifier provides a lower
noise
performance than GaAs MESFET.

3. What is the abbreviation of HBT?


a) Homo-junction unipolar transistor
b) Homo-junction bipolar transistor
c) Hetero-junction bipolar transistor
d) Hetero-Bandwidth transcendence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HBT is abbreviated as Hetero-junction bipolar transistor. It comprises a
selectively
doped hetero-junction FET. It is a high-speed, low-noise transistor device.
4. What type of receivers are used to provide wideband operation, low-noise operation?
a) APD optical receivers
b) Optoelectronic integrated circuits (OEICs)
c) MESFET receivers
d) Trans-impedance front-end receivers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A strategy for the provision of wideband, low-noise receivers involves the use
of pi-
n photodiode detector along with the monolithic integration of the device with semiconductor
alloy FETs. It has an operating wavelength of 1.1 to 1.6 μmranges.
5. ___________ circuits extends the dynamic range of the receiver.
a) Monolithic
b) Trans-impedance
c) Automatic Error Control (AEC)
d) Automatic Gain Control (AGC)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: AGC circuit extends the dynamic range by diverting excess photocurrent away
from the input of the receiver. The receiver dynamic range is an important performance
parameter as it provides a measure of the difference between the sensitivity and its overload
level.
6. The sensitivity of the low-impedance configuration is ____________
a) Good
b) Poor
c) Great
d) Same as that of high-impedance configuration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A receiver saturation level is determined by the value of the photodiode bias
resistor. The photodiode bias resistor valve is indirectly proportional to the sensitivity but is

directly proportional in low impedance configuration. The low resistor value provides less
sensitivity in the low-impedance configuration.
7. What is generally used to determine the receiver performance characteristics?
a) Noise
b) Resistor
c) Dynamic range & sensitivity characteristics
d) Impedance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dynamic range and sensitivity characteristics involve a graph of received power
level and the value of feedback resistor. The high value of photodiode bias resistor in the high
impedance front end causes high sensitivity and a narrow dynamic range. These factors prove
useful for determining the performance characteristics of receiver.
8. The __________ technique eliminates the thermal noise associated with the feedback
resistor
in the trans-impedance front end design.
a) Compensation
b) Resonating impedance
c) Electromagnetic
d) Optical feedback
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The optical feedback strategy proves most useful at low transmission rate. The
use
of optically coupled feedback has demonstrated dynamic ranges of around 40 dB for p-i-n
receivers operating at modest bit rates. It removes thermal noise associated with the feedback
resistor.
9. The removal of the feedback resistor in the optical feedback technique allows reciever
sensitivity of the order of _______________
a) -54 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
b) -12 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
c) -64 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
d) -72 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The removal of feedback resistor in the optical feedback technique allows low
noise performance. Low noise performance, in turn, affects sensitivity. The receiver
sensitivity
gets high of the order of -64 dBm at 2Mbit/sec transmission rates.
10. The optical feedback technique is useful at low transmission rates.
a) True

b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The optical feedback technique is useful at low transmission rates because in
this
case the feedback resistors employed are smaller than the optimum value for low-noise
performance. This is done to maintain the resistor at a practical size of 1MΩ. Large values of
feedback resistor limits the dynamic range.
11. How many types of optical amplifier technologies are available.
a) One
b) Three
c) Four
d) Two
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are two basic optical amplifier technologies available. They are
semiconductor optical amplifiers and fiber amplifiers. Both these devices are utilized in the
preamplification
role.
12. The optimum filter bandwidth is typically in the range ________________
a) 0.1 to 0.3 nm
b) 0.5 to 3 nm
c) 0.1 to 0.3 μm
d) 0.5 to 3 μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The optimum fiber bandwidth is determined by detector noise, transmission rate
and the transmitter chirp characteristics. It is typically in the range of 0.5 to 3 nmas it depends
upon the filter insertion loss.
8. Questions on Optical Amplification , Wavelength Conversion and Regeneration
The section contains questions and answers on semiconductor optical amplifiers, fiber and
waveguide amplifiers and conversion.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Optical Amplifiers – Semiconductor Optical Amplifiers”.
1. For linear as well as in nonlinear mode _______________ are most important network
elements.
a) Optical amplifier
b) Optical detector
c) A/D converter

d) D/A converters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In single-mode fiber system, signal dispersion is very small, hence there is
attenuation. These systems don’t require signal regeneration as optical amplification is
sufficient
so optical amplifier are most important.
2. The more advantages optical amplifier is ____________
a) Fiber amplifier
b) Semiconductor amplifier
c) Repeaters
d) Mode hooping amplifier
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Semiconductor optical amplifiers are having smaller size. They can be
integrated to
produce subsystems. Thus are more profitable than other optical amplifier.
3. ________________ cannot be used for wideband amplification.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Brillouin fiber amplifiers provide a very narrow spectral bandwidth. These
bandwidth can be around 50 MHz, hence cannot be employed for wideband amplification.
4. ____________ is used preferably for channel selection in a WDM system.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Brillouin fiber provides amplification of a particular channel. This amplification
can be done without boosting other channels besides that particular channel.
5. For used in single-mode fiber __________ are used preferably.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier

d) Brillouin fiber amplifier


View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Semiconductor optical amplifiers have low power consumption. There single
mode
structure makes them appropriate and suitable for used in single mode fiber.
6. Mostly ____________ are used in nonlinear applications.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) FPAs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: FPAs have a resonant nature. This can be combined with their high internal
fields.
They provide pulse shaping and bi-stable elements. Thus, are used widely in nonlinear
application.
7. _______________ is superior as compared to _________________
a) TWA, FPA
b) FPA, TWA
c) EDFA, FPA
d) FPA, EDFA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In TWA operating in single-pass amplification mode, the Fabry-Perot resonance
is
suppressed by facet reflectivity reduction. This affects in increasing of amplifier spectral
bandwidth. This makes them less dependence of transmission characteristics on fluctuations
in
biased current, input signal polarization. Thus FPA are superior to TWA.
8. ______________ are operated at current beyond normal lasing threshold current,
practically.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The anti-reflection facet coatings affects in the form of increasing lasing current
threshold. This causes SOAs to be operated at current beyond normal lasing threshold
current.
9. An uncoated FPA has peak gain wavelength 1.8μm, mode spacing of 0.8nm, and long
active
region of 300 v. Determine RI of active medium.
a) 4.25×106

b) 3.75×107
c) 3.95×107
d) 4.25×109
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: n=λ2/2δλL=1.8×10-6/2×0.8×10-9×300×10-6=3.75×107.
10. Determine the peak gain wavelength of uncoated FPA having mode spacing of 2nm,and
250μmlong active region and R.I of 3.78.
a)2.25×10-4
b)4.53×10-8
c)1.94×10-6
d)4.25×109
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The peak gain wavelength is given by
λ2=n2δλL=3.78×2×2×10-9×250×10-6=1.94×10-6 m.
11. An SOA has net gain coefficient of 300, at a gain of 30dB. Determine length of SOA.
a) 0.32 m
b) 0.023 m
c) 0.245 m
d) 0.563 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of SOA is determined by
L = Gs(dB)/10×g×loge = 30/10×300×0.434`= 0.023 m.
12. An SOA has length of 35.43×10-3m, at 30 dB gain. Determine net gain coefficient.
a) 5.124×10-3
b) 1.12×10-4
c) 5.125×10-3
d) 2.15×10-5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The net gain coefficient of SOA is given by
g = L×10×loge/Gs(dB) = 35.43×10-3×10×0.434/30
=5.125×10-3.
13. An SOA has mode number of 2.6, spontaneous emission factor of 4, optical bandwidth of
1
THz. Determine noise power spectral density.
a) 1.33×10-3

b) 5.13×1012
c) 3.29×10-6
d) 0.33×10-9
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The noise power spectral density Past is
Past = mnsp(Gs-1) hfb
= 2.6×4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1×1012
= 1.33×10-3W.
14. An SOA has noise power spectral density of 1.18mW, spontaneous emission factor of 4,
optical bandwidth of 1.5 THz. Determine mode number.
a) 1.53 × 1028
b) 6.14 × 1012
c) 1.78 × 1016
d) 4.12 × 10-3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mode number is determined by
m = Past/nsp(Gs-1) hfB
= 1.18×10-3/4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1.3×1012
= 1.53 × 10-34.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on
“Fiber and Waveguide Amplifiers”.
1. The spectral dependence on gain is always constant.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The spectral dependence on gain is mostly not constant. Thus the spectral
bandwidth for erbium-doped silica fibers is restricted to around 300 GHz.
2. ESA ________ the pumping efficiency of device.
a) Increases
b) Does not affects
c) Reduces
d) Has negligible effect on
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In erbium fiber amplifier photons at pump wavelength promotes the electrons in

upper lasing level into a high state of excitation. These electrons decay non-radiate to
intermediate levels and then back to upper lasing level thereby reducing pumping efficiency.
3. Signal amplification is obtained in ____________
a) Erbium-doped fluoro-zir-carbonate fiber multimode
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To avoid excited state absorption (ESA). We should use different glass
technology
in place by using a 488 nmpump wavelength; erbium-doped multimode fluoro zir carbonate
fiber
provides gain at 1.525 μmwavelengths.
4. It is possible to construct a single rare-earth-doped fiber amplifier which provides
amplification for all-bands.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Each material has different absorption emission properties to absorb energy
either
in single or multi steps. Also it possesses property to emit light in one or more narrow
spectral
ranges. Thus we cannot construct a single earth-doped fiber for all bands.
5. _______________ is constructed using erbium-doped glass.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As compared to other glass, erbium-based micro fiber amplifier is more
advantageous. This amplifier provides high optical gain over just a few centimeters of fiber
over
many meters.
6. ____________ uses Er3+-doped erbium glass.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The erbium-based micro fiber amplifier uses Er3+-doped erbium glass. It
supports
the doping constructions of erbium ions at high levels as compared to conventional glasses.
7. The most advantageous amplification is ____________
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As compared to all the amplifications, Raman amplification is more
advantageous.
It has self-phase matching between pump of signal together with broad gain bandwidth as
compared to other nonlinear processes.
8. _________ is also known as lump Raman amplifiers.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Discrete Raman amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Discrete Raman Amplifiers are lumped elements. This lumped element is to be
inserted in transmission line to provide gain.
9. _______________ extends the pump power into transmission line fiber.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Distributed Raman amplification, all pump power is confined to lumped
element.
And it is distributed when the amplification takes place among several kilometers.
10. _____________ are called hybrid Raman amplifier.
a) Lumped and distributed Raman Amplifiers
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Lumped and distributed Raman Amplifiers can be combined together to be used
in
wideband application. This combination increases overall amplified spectral bandwidth.
11. In ___________ the ASE contributes most of noise.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ASE contributes most of noise in Raman Amplification. The common sources
of
noise include beating of signal with ASE, mixing, self-phase modulation and cross-plane
modulation.
12. In _____________ Rayleigh scattering can be reduced.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering adverse effects can be reduced in Raman Amplification.
This
can be done by employing two or more stages of amplification over single stage amplification
over fiber.
13. Compute the fiber nonlinear coefficient of a parametric optical amplifier having
parametric
peak gain of 63.6 dB, signal power of 1.6W, length 520.
a) 2.78×10-2 W-1km-1
b) 9.61×10-3 W-1km-1
c) 3.25×10-3 W-1km-1
d) 5.61×10-4 W-1km-1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fiber nonlinear coefficient can be found by
γ = Gp(dB)-log10(0.25)/Ppl×L × 1/10log10(2.718)2
= 63.6+6/1.6×1.6×520×1/8.7 = 9.61×10-3 W-1km-1.
14. Compute signal power for parametric amplifier having length of 500, nonlinear gain
coefficient 12.6×10-3 W-1km-1 and parametric peak gain of 63.9 dB.
a) 0.245 W
b) 0.012 W
c) 0.19 W

d) 0.342 W
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Signal power is given by
Pp=Gp(dB)-log10(0.25)/γL× 1/10log10(2.718)2= 63.9+6/12.6×10-3×1/ 8.7
= 0.012 W.
15. Compute the gain of parametric amplifier having signal power of 1.6W, length of 500,
nonlinear
coefficient of 10.19 * 10-3W-1km-1.
a) 34.890
b) 19.15
c) 18.22
d) 16.11
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Quadratic gain is given by-
Gp(dB)=10log10(γPplL)2
Where L=length of amplifier
Ppl=signal power
γ=nonlinear coefficient.
This set of Optical Communications online quiz focuses on “Wavelength Conversion and
Optical
Regeneration”.
1. ___________________ is defined as a process by which the wavelength of the transmitted
signal is changed without altering the data carried by the signal.
a) Wavelength conversion
b) Attenuation
c) Sigma management
d) Wavelength dispersion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wavelength conversion observes the changes in the length of the wave. It does
not
proportionate with the data carried by the signal or wave.
2. The device which is used to perform wavelength conversion is called as ___________
a) Attenuator
b) Wavelength Gyrator
c) Wavelength Circulator
d) Wavelength translator
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Wavelength translator changes the frequency of the wave and hence it is also
called
as frequency changer. It does not affect the data carried by the wave.
3. A wavelength converter is termed as _______ if the converted wavelength is longer than
the
original signal wavelength.
a) Down converter
b) Up converter
c) Attenuator
d) Shifter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A wavelength converter is capable of receiving an incoming signal at any
wavelength at the input port and produces output at the output port. A converter is termed as
up
converter when the output signal wavelength is longer than the original signal wavelength.
4. The ___________ converters cannot process different modulation formats.
a) Shifting
b) Optoelectronic wavelength
c) Opt-circular
d) Magnetic simulating
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In optoelectronic wavelength converters, the information contained in the
intensity,
frequency, phase of the signal is required to be reprocessed for the purpose of wavelength
conversion. It does not process all the modulation formats.
5. The optical medium, in case of optical wavelength conversion is ___________
a) Depleted
b) Linear
c) Non-linear
d) Dispersive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The implementation of optical wavelength conversion involves non-linearity of
the
optical medium. It can be either active or passive, each providing different nonlinear effects.
6. The process of imposing the nonlinear response of the medium onto the control signal is
known as ______________ scheme.
a) Demodulation
b) Absorption
c) Cross-modulation

d) Repeater mixing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cross-modulation scheme involves changes produced due to the intensity
variation of the intensity-modulated input signal. It takes place in the active cavity.
7. How many approaches are adopted by the cross-modulation scheme?
a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Based on the properties of the nonlinear medium, the cross-modulation scheme
can
be divided into four main approaches. These are cross-gain modulation, cross-phase
modulation,
cross-absorption modulation, differential polarization modulation.
8. __________ wavelength converters make use of a passive optical medium to exploit
nonlinear
effects.
a) Bipolar
b) Optoelectronic
c) Magnetic
d) Coherent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The nonlinear effects include four-wave mixing and difference frequency
generation. Coherent wavelength converters use a passive medium to extend the changes of
nonlinear effects.
9. A _____________ wavelength converter utilizes the nonlinear properties of a
semiconductor
optical amplifier to perform the conversion process.
a) Cross-gain modulation
b) Cross-phase modulation
c) Cross-absorption modulation
d) Differential polarization modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cross-gain modulation wavelength converter is also called as XGM wavelength
converter. It uses semiconductor optical amplifier(SOA) along with its nonlinear properties
for
the conversion process.

10. The intensity modulated data on one signal wavelength is called as _______
a) Dispersed data
b) Pump signal
c) Probe signal
d) Frequency signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pump signal is intensity modulated data. It produces variations in the carrier
density
within the SOA which provides inverted gain modulation in the SOA medium.
11. The probe signal is inverse to that of the pump signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The gain modulations of the pump signal are imprinted onto the probe signal.
Thus,
the probe signal acquires the inverse copy of the pump signal, thereby contributing to the
wavelength conversion with the pump signal.
12. In the XGM converter, the transfer function maintains the rectangular shape.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By default, the ideal transfer function should be rectangular in shape. But it does
not apply the same for XGM converter as the amplitude gradually decreases.
13. The speed of operation of XGM wavelength conversion is determined by the
_______________ of the SOA.
a) Depletion level
b) Hole concentration
c) Carrier dynamics
d) Electron concentration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The carrier dynamics deals with the interaction time between the input and the
probe signal. On increasing the interaction time, the speed of operation of XGM wavelength
conversion is increased.
14. ____________ is defined as the deviation in the emission frequency with respect to time
when a laser is driven by a time-varying current source.
a) Intensity probe

b) Dispersion
c) Attenuation
d) Frequency chirp
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency chirp occurs during the process of XGM and XPM. It is often termed
as
instantaneous frequency variation.
15. When frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards the shorter wavelength, it is
known as ________
a) Red shift
b) Green shift
c) Yellow shift
d) Blue shift
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards the shorter
wavelength,
it is known as blue shift. Similarly, when frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards
the
longer wavelength, it is known as red shift.

BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems )

UNIT III: Multichannel Systems

2
9. Questions & Answers on Integrated Optics and Photonics
The section contains questions on photonics technologies, planar waveguides, photonic
integrated circuits, optical bistability and digital optics.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Integrated Optics and Photonics Technologies”.
1. Integrated technology for optical devices are developed within optical fiber
communication. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Integration of optical devices enable fabrication of the whole system
onto a single chip. Integration of such devices has become a confluence of several optical
terms.
2. When both active and passive devices are integrated on a single chip, in multilayered form,
then these devices are known as _____________ a) IP devices b) IO devices c) Wavelength
converters d) Optical parametric amplifiers View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: IP technology enables fabrication of subsystems and systems. This is
all realized on a single substrate. The integration on a single chip is done in IP technology.
3. _________ is a further enhancement of ________ a) IP, IO b) IO, IP c) IO, wavelength
converters d) IP, wavelength converters View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: IP seems to be a miniaturization process and integration of optical
systems on a single chip. IO devices are formed when both active and passive elements are
interconnected. Thus, IP is a developed version of IO.
4. Thin transparent dielectric layers on planar substrates are used in _________ and ______
devices. a) Wavelength converters and amplification devices b) IP and IO c) IP and
wavelength converters d) IO and amplification devices View Answer
3
Answer: b Explanation: IP and IO provide an alternative to conversion of optical signal back
to electrical signal. Thin transparent dielectric layers act as optical waveguides to produce
small-scale and miniature circuits.
5. __________ did not make significant contribution to earlier optical fiber systems. a) IO b)
IP c) Wavelength amplifiers d) Couplers View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: IO is based on single mode optical waveguides. Thus it is
incompatible with multimode fiber systems. Thus, IO has less importance than IP.
6. Side or edge-emitting or conducting optical devices cannot be integrated on same
substrate. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In serial integration of device, different elements of optical chip can
be interconnected in a consecutive manner. Thus, integration of side or edge emitting optical
devices can be done on a single substrate.
7. Hybrid ________ integration demands _________ IP circuits to be produced on a single
substrate. a) IP, single-layered b) IO, multilayered c) IP, multilayered d) IO, multilayered
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: To gain control of optical signals, elements can be directly attached
to IP circuit. Both active and passive devices should be on the same substrate. To make
devices compatible with 3d structures of other IP/IO devices, hybrid IP integration demands
multilayered IP circuits.
8. Using SOI integration technique __________ components can be coupled to IP devices. a)
Passive b) Layered c) Demounted d) Active View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: SOI is used to produce micro-waveguide bends and couplers thereby
maintaining compatibility with silicon fabrication techniques. Thus, active components like
optical sources, detectors can be coupled to other IP devices using SOI technique.
9. Who invented the IO technology? a) Albert Einstein
4
b) Anderson c) M.S Clarke d) Robert View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The birth of IO can be traced back to the basic ideas outlined by
Anderson in 1966. He suggested the micro-fabrication technology which in turn led to the
term integrated optics in 1969.
10. Electronic circuits have a practical limitation on speed of operation at a frequency of
around _________ a) 1010Hz b) 1012Hz c) 1014Hz d) 1011Hz View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The speed of operation of electronic devices or circuits results from
their use of metallic conductors to transport electronic charges and build up signals. It has a
limitation to speed of operation of frequency around 1010Hz.
11. The use of light as an electromagnetic wave of high frequency provides high speed
operation around ____________ times the conceivable employing electronic circuits. a)
108Hz b) 105Hz c) 106Hz d) 104Hz View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The use of light with its property as an electromagnetic wave offers
the possibility of high speed operation. For this, the frequency should be high as 10 14to
1015Hz.
12. How many layers are possessed by waveguide structures of silica-on-silicon(SOS)? a)
Two b) Three c) Four d) One View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The SOS is a part of IP technology. The waveguide structures
provided by it comprises of three layers. They are buffer, the core and the cladding.
13. The ________________ is a versatile solution-based technique for making ceramic and
glass materials. a) SOL gel process b) SSL gel process c) SDL gel process d) SAML gel
process View Answer
5
Answer: a Explanation: The SOL gel process involves the transition of system from a liquid
to a gel. The SOL gel process along with SOS technique is used for the fabrication of ceramic
fibers, film coatings and waveguide based optical amplifiers.
This set of Basic Optical Communications Questions and Answers focuses on “Planar
Waveguides and Integrated Optical Devices”.
1. Optical fibre communications uses _______ dielectric waveguide structures for confining
light. a) Rectangular b) Circular c) Triangular d) Planar View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The use of circular dielectric waveguide structures is universally
acceptable. This has been a boon for optical fibre communications.
2. __________ waveguide is formed when the film is sandwiched by layers of different
refractive index. a) Planar b) Circular c) Asymmetric d) Symmetric View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: When the film is sandwiched between layers of same refractive
index, symmetric waveguide is formed. Owing to the different refractive index, asymmetry is
observed and hence asymmetric waveguide is formed.
3. When the dimensions of the guide are reduced, the number of ___________ also
decreases. a) Propagating nodes b) Electrons c) Holes d) Volume of photons View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The dimensions of the guide are directly proportional to the number
of propagating nodes. As the dimensions are reduced, the number of propagating nodes also
decreases.
4. What does hff stands for in the equation hff = h+x+x2? a) Frequency of layer b) Diameter of
curve c) Effective guide layer thickness d) Space propagation View Answer
6
Answer: c Explanation: In the above equation, h is the height, x and x2 are the evanescent
field penetration depths. hff Denotes the effective guided layer thickness.
5. ___________ waveguides are plagued by high losses. a) Circular b) Planar c) Depleted d)
Metal-clad View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: All suitable waveguide materials are subject to limitations in the
confinement. However, metal-clad waveguides are not so limited. Hence, they are plagued by
high losses.
6. The planar waveguides may be fabricated from glasses and other isotropic materials such
as ___________ and ______________ a) Octane and polymers b) Carbon monoxide and
diode c) Fluorides and carbonates d) Sulphur dioxide and polymers View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: These materials are isotropic. However, their properties do not affect
the fabrication of planar waveguides. Their properties cannot be controlled by external
energy sources.
7. Which of the following devices are less widely used in the field of optical fibre
communications? a) Acousto-optic devices b) Regenerators c) Reflectors d) Optical
translators View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Acousto-optic devices are less widely used, mainly in the area of
field deflection. Regenerators, reflectors form a base for the optical fibre communications.
8. Which of the following materials have refractive index near two? a) GA As b) Zinc c) InP
d) AlSb View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Two basic groups are distinguished on the basis of the respective
refractive indices near two and near three. GaAs, InP, AlSb have refractive indices near 3.
7
9. Passive devices are fabricated by __________ technique. a) Fassbinder b) High density
integration c) Radio-frequency sputtering d) Lithium implantation View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Passive devices’ fabrication comes mainly from microelectronics
industry. Radio frequency sputtering is used to deposit thin films of glass onto glass
substrates.
10. Strip pattern in waveguide structures is obtained through ____________ a) Lithography
b) Cryptography c) Depletion of holes d) Implantation View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Field strength is an important aspect when it comes to strip patterns
in waveguide structures. The electron and laser beam lithography is used to obtain stripe
pattern in waveguide structures.
11. Propagation losses in slab and strip waveguides are smaller than the single mode fibre
losses. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The losses are in the range of 0.1 to 0.3 dB/cm. In case of slab and
stripe waveguides, the losses are much higher whereas in case of single-mode fibres, they are
much less.
12. A passive Y-junction beam splitter is fabricated from __________ a) GaAs b) ZnS c)
AlbS d) LiNbO3 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: A passive Y-junction splitter is used to combine signals from
separate sources or to divide a signal into two or more channels. It is fabricated from the
waveguide materials such as LiNbO3.
13. A passive Y-junction beam splitter is also used as a switch. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A passive junction beam splitter finds application where equal power
division of the incident beam is required. It can be used as a switch if it is fabricated from an
electro-optic material.
8
14. The linear variation of refractive index with the electric field is known as the ________ a)
Linear implantation b) Ionization c) Koppel effect d) Pockels effect View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The change in refractive index is related by the applied field via the
linear and quadratic electro-optic coefficients. The variation of R.I with the electric field is
known as Pockels effect.
15. Planar waveguides are used to produce _______ coupler. a) MMI b) CMI c) Frequency d)
Differential View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: MMI couplers are abbreviated as Multimode interference couplers.
These are similar to fused fibre couplers. These are easily produced by using planar
waveguides.
This set of Optical Communications Question Bank focuses on “Optoelectronic Integration
and Photonic Integrated Circuits”.
1. Monolithic integration for optical sources are confined to the use of __________
semiconductors. a) Ⅲ-Ⅴ b) Ⅱ-Ⅲ c) Ⅰ-Ⅱ d) Ⅶ-Ⅷ View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Ⅲ-Ⅴsemiconductor compounds are much useful. They possess both
optical and electronic properties. These properties can be exploited to produce high
performance devices.
2. Circuits fabricated from GaAs or AlGaAs operate in wavelength region of __________ a)
0.1 and 0.2 μm b) 0.8 and 0.9 μm c) 0.4 and 0.6 μm d) 0.6 and 0.7 μm View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Circuits fabricated from GaAs use injection laser which is fabricated
on GaAs with a MESFET. This is used to bias and modulate the laser.
9
3. The OEICs realization __________ as compared to the other developments in IO. a)
Scripted b) Decreased c) Lagged behind d) Increased View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: IO devices use dielectric materials such as lithium niobate. This
lagging behind is caused by inherent difficulties in fabrication of OEICs even if Ⅲ-Ⅴ
semiconductors are used.
4. Compositional and structural differences between photonic and electronic devices
__________ a) Provide high efficiency b) Provide low efficiency c) Highly used d) Create
problems View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Compositional and structural differences cause epitaxial crystal
growth, planarization for lithography, electrical interconnections. They also cause thermal
and chemical stability of materials, electric matching and heat dissipation.
5. To avoid large chip __________ devices are used. a) InGaAsP b) InGa c) GaAs d) InGaAs
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: To avoid large chip, InGaAsP devices are used with directly
modulated semiconductor lasers. This gives good dynamic characteristics at 40 Gbit/s at 1.55
μmwavelength.
6. Devices operating at transmission rates greater than 40 Gb/s are _________ a) GaAs and
InP b) GaAs c) InGa d) InGaAs View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optoelectronic integrated circuits are based on heterojunction bipolar
transistor and electron mobility transistor use GaAs and InP. These are capable of operating
at transmission rates higher than 40 Gb/s.
7. HEMT based __________ have a spot-size convertor with a photodiode. a) p-n junction
diode b) p-i-n photoreceiver c) IGBT
1
0
d) BJT View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: P-I-N photoreceiver comprises of spot-size convertor with a
photodiode. Spot-size convertor increases fiber alignment tolerances by one order of
magnitude. This enables use of cleaved instead of lensed fiber.
8. P-I-N photoreceiver based on HEMT is integrated with _________ guiding layers. a) GaAs
and InP b) GaAs c) InGa d) InGaAsP View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: P-I-N photoreceiver is integrated with InGaAsP guiding layers. In
this HEMT based technology, InGaAsP provides more confinement.
9. An optical power splitter integrated with optical waveguide amplifier is more useful. a)
True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The aim of optical waveguide amplifier is to reduce the number of
amplifiers in system. Alongwith, it also reaches maximum number of nodes.
10. The use of intelligent optical switches is necessary. a) False b) True View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Most applications of OEICs in optical networks require large
switching capacity to support a large number of WDM channels. This also provides control
of both optical signal wavelength and signal power.
11. The wafer scale replication technology uses ____________ a) SOL gel b) GaAs c) InGa
d) InGaAsP View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Replication technology employs hot embossing, molding and
ultraviolet lithography. Ultraviolet curable SOL gel enables refractive and diffractive micro-
optical elements to be replicated directly on glass substrates.
1
1
12. ___________ is useful for production of both planar micro-optical elements and stacked
optical microsystems. a) Wavelength amplifier b) Wavelength convertor c) Replication
technology d) Optical switching matrix View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: SOL gel materials used in replication technology allows combination
of replication with lithography. This leaves selected areas material-free for sawing and
bunding.
13. Optical interconnection between optoelectronic device is achieved in _________ a)
Wavelength amplifier b) Wavelength convertor c) Replication technology d) Chip-to-chip
interconnection View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The chip-to-chip interconnection of optical components have a
vertical cavity surface-emitting laser. These are assembled in micro-trenches in which
embedded electrodes are connected through passive junction of poliver waveguide on
alignment pits.
14. Multilevel interconnections are incorporated in _______ a) PIC b) AWG based coupler c)
Convertors d) OEIC technologies View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: PIC reduces the overall size of optical functions. This causes the
interconnection of several modules growing on same substrate.
15. When there is M number of WDM channels present at N input ports, then the output port
1 produces a _________ a) CW signal b) WDM signal c) Amplified signal d) Distorted signal
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The reconstituted spectrum of WDM signal at any output port
consists of a different set of wavelength channels with at least one wavelength channel from
each input port producing a WDM signal having wavelength signal from each of input ports.
1. ___________ provides a series of optical processing functions. a) Wavelength convertors
1
2
b) Wavelength amplifiers c) Detectors d) Bi-stable optical devices View Answer
2. ___________ comprise of Fabry-Perot cavity. a) Wavelength convertors b) Wavelength
amplifiers c) Bi-stable optical devices d) Detectors View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Fabry-Perot cavity consists of a material in which there are variations
in refractive index with optical intensity. These variations are nonlinear giving rise to
bistability.
3. The optical path length in nonlinear medium is integer number of ______ wavelength. a)
Half b) Double c) Three-fourth d) Single View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Fabry-Perot cavity exhibits a sharp resonance to optical power
passing into and through it. This is achieved when optical path length is integer number of
half wavelength in nonlinear medium.
4. As compared to laser, the value of _________ in the cavity controls the optical
transmission. a) Amplification b) Refractive index c) Rectification d) Reflection View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The refractive index value in the Fabry-Perot cavity controls the
optical transmission. This provides high optical output on resonance and low optical output
off resonance.
5. ___________ are able to latch between two distinct optical states. a) Wavelength
converters b) Wavelength amplifiers c) Detectors d) Bistable optical devices View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The transfer characteristic for Bistable optical devices exhibit two
state hysteresis resulting from turning in and out of resonance. So they can be latched
between two states responding to external signal acting as flip-flop.
1
3
6. __________ can act as AND, OR, NOT gate. a) Wavelength converters b) Wavelength
amplifiers c) Detectors d) Bistable optical devices View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: BOD’s exhibit 2-state hysteresis. Thus they are able to latch between
two operating states (0 and 1) thereby providing logic functions.
7. _______ proves superior to _______ a) BOD’s, electronic devices b) Electronic devices,
BOD’s c) BOD’s, convertors d) Convertors, BOD’s View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: There is also a thing of picosecond switching using only Pico-joules
of energy. A BOD comprises of these switching properties. Thus, it proves superior to
electronic devices.
8. ________ BOD’s provides optical feedback. a) Extrinsic b) Intrinsic c) Detector d)
Bistable View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: All optical or intrinsic devices which utilize a nonlinear optical
medium between a pair of partially reflecting mirrors forming a nonlinear etalon in which
feedback is provided optical.
9. ___________ devices employ artificial nonlinearity. a) Extrinsic b) Intrinsic c) Hybrid d)
Bistable View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Hybrid devices have artificial nonlinearity in an electro-optic
medium in the cavity. This produces variations in refractive index through electro-optic
effect.
10. Hybrid devices have limited ________ speed. a) Switching b) Planar c) Curvature d)
Electrical View Answer
1
4
Answer: a Explanation: Hybrid BOD’s provides flexibility. But at the same time their
switching speeds are limited by use of electrical feedback. These devices are interconnected
to provide a more complex logic circuit.
11. _______ exhibit optical bistability. a) Extrinsic lasers b) Intrinsic lasers c) Detectors d)
Semiconductor lasers View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Semiconductor lasers have optical bistability. This is due to
nonlinearities in absorption, gain, dispersion, wave guiding and the selection of output
polarization.
12. ___________ is fabricated with tandem electrode. a) Full convertor b) Semiconductor c)
Detector diode d) Bistable laser diode View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Bistable laser diode is fabricated with tandem electrode. The tandem
electrode provides two gain sections. Also it has a loss region between them.
13. Optical pulsing can be obtained using _________ a) BODs b) WDM c) Detector d)
Semiconductor View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: BODs with a very narrow bi-stable loop can provide optical pulsing.
This type of device can be used to shape, clean up and amplify a noisy input pulse.
14. A weak second beam is introduced in _________ a) BOD differential amplifier b) WDM
c) Detector d) Semiconductor laser View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A weak second beam in BOD differential amplifier is introduced into
the nonlinear optical cavity. This is used to control the resonance and transmission of the
main beam through effects of its own stored energy.
10. Questions on Optical Fiber Systems 1 : Intensity Modulation
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The section contains questions and answers on optical transmitter and receiver circuit, system
design and planing considerations, analog systems, multiplexing strategies, dispersion
management and optical amplifier applications.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “The Optical Transmitter Circuit”.
1. _____________ must be operated in stimulated emission region. a) Injection laser b)
LED’s c) Detector d) Receiver View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Injection laser is a threshold device. In stimulated emission region,
continuous optical output power levels are in the range of 1 to 10mW.
2. Coherent radiation is relatively __________ a) Parabolic b) Elliptic c) Directional d)
Rectangular View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Most of the light output is coupled into optical fibre. This is because
of the isotropic distribution of narrow-line width, coherent radiation is directional.
3. _____________ are capable of launching powers between 0.5 and several mW. a) LED’s
b) Injection laser c) Attenuator d) Reflector View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Coupling efficiency up to 30% may be obtained by placing a fiber
close to laser mirror. These can approach 90% with suitable lens and optical coupling
arrangements. So they can launch 0.5 to several mW of optical power into fiber.
4. LED’s display good linearity. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: LED’s appear to be suited to analog transmission. This is because of
its output which is directly proportional to the drive current.
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5. Which behaviour may prove as a limitation for injection lasers and LED’s? a) Isotropic b)
Radioactive c) Thermal d) Photosensitive View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The thermal behaviour of the injection lasers and the LED’s limits
their operation within the optical transmitter. The main problem is caused by the variation of
injection laser threshold current.
6. Optical output power from an LED is directly proportional to the device junction
temperature. a) False b) True View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Output power is dependent on the junction temperature in case of
LED’s. Most LED’s exhibit a decrease in the optical output power following an increase in
junction temperature.
7. _____________ from the LED is dependent on the effective minority carrier lifetime in the
semiconductor material. a) Spontaneous emission b) Stimulated emission c) Absorption d)
Diffusion View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The speed of the response of the LED is dictated by the respective
emission mechanism. Spontaneous emission is related to the carrier lifetime and hence
dictating the speed of response.
8. The _________ of the LED is twice that of the effective minority carrier lifetime. a) Dwell
time b) Reflection scatters c) Sensitivity d) Rise time View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The response of the optical fiber source is specified in terms of the
rise time. This rise time is reciprocally related to the device frequency response.
9. The finite spectral width of the optical source causes ___________ a) Depletion b)
Frequency burst c) Pulse broadening d) Efficient reflection View Answer
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Answer: c Explanation: The finite spectral width causes pulse broadening due to material
dispersion on an optical fiber communication link. This results in a limitation on the
bandwidth-length product.
10. The coherent emission from an injection laser has a line width of ________ a) 2 nm b)
3nm c) 8 nm d) 1nm View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: An optical source such as an injection laser is a narrow line width
device as compared to the LED. It has a narrow line width of 1 nm or less.
11. Extinction ratio is denoted by symbol __________ a) ε b) σ c) β d) ρ View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Extinction ratio is defined as the ratio of the optical energy emitted in
the 0 bit period to that emitted during the 1 bit period. It is denoted by ε.
12. The use of low impedance driving circuit may increase _____________ a) Noise b)
Width c) Intensity d) Switching speed View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Pulse shaping is usually required to increase the switching speed.
However, increased switching speed may be obtained from an LED without a speed-up
element by use of a low-impedance driving circuit.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “The Optical Receiver Circuit”.
1. ____________ limits receiver sensitivity. a) Noise b) Depletion layer c) Avalanche d)
Current View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Receiver noise affects receiver sensitivity. It can dictate the overall
system design. The noise can be temperature, environmental factor or due to components.
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2. A ____________ performs the linear conversion of the received optical signal into an
electric current. a) Receiver b) Converter c) Detector d) Reflector View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: An optical signal is always fed to a detector. A detector is an
optoelectronic converter which linearly converts the received optical signal into an electric
current.
3. __________ are provided to reduce distortion and to provide a suitable signal shape for the
filter. a) Detector b) Equalizer c) Filters d) Amplifier View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Optical detectors are linear devices. They do not introduce distortion
themselves but other components may exhibit nonlinear behaviour. To compensate for
distortion, an equalizer is provided in the receiver circuit.
4. A _________ maximizes the received signal-to-noise ratio in the receiver circuitry. a)
Filter b) Equalizer c) Detector d) Reflector View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A filter reduces the noise bandwidth as well as inbounds noise levels.
A filter maximizes the received signal-to-noise ratio while preserving the essential features of
the signal. It also reduces ISI.
5. ________ can be operated in three connections. a) Reflectors b) Diodes c) LED’s d) FET’s
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: FET’s or bipolar transistors are operated in three useful connections.
These are the common emitter, the common base or gate, and the emitter or source follower.
6. How many structures of pre-amplifiers exist? a) Two b) Three c) Four
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d) One View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The basic structures of pre-amplifiers are observed in three forms.
These are low-impedance, high-impedance and trans-impedance front end preamplifier
structures.
7. What is the main factor contributing to the choice of the operational amplifier? a) Gain b)
Impedance c) Conductance d) Gain-Bandwidth product View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: A TTL interface stage is always used with the operational amplifier.
A device that requires higher accuracy often tends to depend on gain-bandwidth product. The
choice of amplifier for receiver accuracy is dependant on gain-bandwidth product.
8. The multiplication factor for the APD varies with the device temperature. a) True b) False
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optimum multiplication factor is required for smooth voltage
variance. The multiplication factor for APD varies with the device temperature thus making
provision of fine control for bias voltage.
9. How many categories of dynamic gain equalizers are available? a) One b) Two c) Three d)
Four View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Dynamic gain equalizers are categorized into two types. These are
single-channel and multichannel equalizers, thus providing operation using single or multiple
wavelengths.
10. How many simultaneous channels can be provided in a band DGE(Dynamic gain
equalizer)? a) Six b) Two c) Eight d) Ten View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Generally, eight channels are provided simultaneously in a band
DGE. These are for the attenuation purpose of channels along with gain equalization.
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This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “System Design Considerations”.
1. __________ is the unique property of the glass fiber. a) Transmission b) Opaque property
c) Ductile d) Malleable View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Glass fibres have a unique property as a transmission medium which
enables their use in the communication. The major transmission characteristics are dispersion
and attenuation.
2. __________ limits the maximum distance between the optical fiber transmitter and
receiver. a) Attenuation b) Transmission c) Equipment d) Fiber length View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Attenuation along with dispersion and the conductor size are some of
the factors that limit the maximum distance between the optical transmitter and the receiver.
The associated constraints within the equipment also affect the distance.
3. The ___________ incorporates a line receiver in order to convert the optical signal into the
electrical regime. a) Attenuator b) Transmitter c) Repeater d) Designator View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Repeaters are a mediator between transmitter and receiver. The weak
signal is strengthened back by the repeaters on its path to the receiver.
4. A regenerative repeater is called as ____________ a) Repetitive repeater b) Regenerator c)
Attenuator d) Gyrator View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: When digital transmission techniques are used, the repeater also
regenerates the original digital signal in the electrical signal before it is retransmitted as an
optical signal via a line transmitter.
5. The wavelength range of __________ will be fruitful for the operating wavelength of the
system referring to the system performance.
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a) 0.8 – 0.9 μm b) 1.1 – 2 μm c) 5.2 – 5.7 μm d) 3.1 – 3.2 μm View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: It is useful if the operating wavelength of the system is established to
range of 0.8-0.9 μm. This will be dictated by the overall requirements for the system
performance, cost, etc.
6. How many encoding schemes are used in optical fiber communication system design
requirements? a) Three b) One c) Two d) Four View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Encoding schemes are used for digital transmission of data. These are
bi-phase and delay modulation codes. They are also called as Manchester and Miller codes
respectively.
7. In ________ the optical channel bandwidth is divided into non-overlapping frequency
bands. a) Time division multiplexing b) Frequency division multiplexing c) Code division
multiplexing d) De-multiplexing View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In FDM, the non-overlapping frequency bands are divided to the
individual frequencies. These individual signals can be extracted from the combined FDM
signal by electrical filtering at the receiver terminal.
8. A multiplexing technique which does not involve the application of several message
signals onto a single fiber is called as _________ a) Time division multiplexing b) Frequency
division multiplexing c) Code division multiplexing d) Space division multiplexing View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: In SDM, each signal channel is carried on a separate fiber within a
fiber bundle or multi-fiber cable form. The cross coupling between channels is negligible.
9. Which of the following is not an optical fiber component? a) Fiber b) Connector c)
Circulator d) Detector View Answer
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Answer: c Explanation: Circulator is a device used in electromagnetic theory. All others are
optical components.
10. ________technique involves an increase in the number of components required. a) Time
division multiplexing b) Space division multiplexing c) Code division multiplexing d)
Frequency division multiplexing View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: SDM involves good optical isolation due to the negligible cross
coupling between channels. It uses separate fiber and thus requires more number of
components.
11. Time division multiplexing is inverse to that of frequency division multiplexing. a) True
b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: TDM involves distribution of channels in time slots whereas FDM
involves bands that are run on different frequencies. Both of these techniques improve
accuracy and reduce complexity.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Digital System Planning Considerations”.
1. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine number of bits in a frame. a) 64 b) 128 c) 32 d) 256 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Number of bits in a frame can be calculated as follows: Bits in a
frame = No. of channels * Sampling rate for each channel.
2. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine the transmission rate for system with 256 bits in a frame. a) 2.96 Mbits/s b)
2.048 Mbits/s c) 3.92 Mbits/s d) 4 Mbits/s View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Transmission rate can be determined by- Transmission rate =
Sampling rate * No. of bits in a frame.
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3. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine the bit duration with transmission rate of 2.048 M bits/s. a) 388 ns b) 490 ns
c) 488 ns d) 540 ns View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Bit duration is the reciprocal of the transmission rate. Thus, it is
given by- Bit duration = 1/transmission rate.
4. The bit duration is 488 ns. Sampling rate for each channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz
encoded into 8 bits. Determine the time slot duration. a) 3.2 μs b) 3.1 μs c) 7 μs d) 3.9 μs
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Time slot duration is given by – Time slot duration = Encoded bits *
bit duration.
5. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine duration of frame with time slot duration of 3.9μs. a) 125 μs b) 130 μs c) 132
μs d) 133 μs View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Duration of a frame is determined by – Duration of a frame = 32 *
time slot duration.
6. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8
bits. Determine the duration of multi-frame if duration of a frame is 125μs. a) 2ms b) 3ms c)
4ms d) 10ms View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Multi-frame duration can be determined by – Multi-frame duration =
16 * Duration of a single frame.
7. Determine excess avalanche noise factor F(M) if APD has multiplication factor of 100,
carrier ionization rate of 0.02.
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a) 3.99 b) 3.95 c) 4.3 d) 4 View Answer
8. Compute average number of photons incident at receiver in APD if quantum efficiency is
80%, F (M) = 4, SNR = 144. a) 866 b) 865 c) 864 d) 867 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Average number of photons arez m=[2βςF(M)]*[S/N*η] Here, η =
quantum efficiency, S/N = signal to noise ratio.
9. Determine incident optical power if z m=864, wavelength = 1μm. a) -85 dBm b) -80 dBm c)
-69.7 dBm d) -60.7 dBm View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Incident optical power is P0=zmhcBT/2λ. Here zm=average number of
photons, hc=Planck’s constant.
10. Determine wavelength of incident optical power if zm=864, incident optical power is -
60.7 dB, BT=1 * 107. a) 1 μs b) 2 μs c) 3 μs d) 4 μs View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Wavelength is determined by λ=z mhcBT/2P0. Here zm=average
number of photons, hc=Planck’s constant, P0=incident optical power.
11. Determine total channel loss if connector loss at source and detector is 3.5 and 2.5 dB and
attenuation of 5 dB/km. a) 34 dB b) 35 dB c) 36 dB d) 38 dB View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The total channel loss is C L=(αfc+αj)L + αcr. Here αcr=loss at detector
and source combined, αfc = attenuation in dB/km.
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12. Determine length of the fiber if attenuation is 5dB/km, splice loss is 2 dB/km, connector
loss at source and detector is 3.5 and 2.5. a) 5 km b) 4 km c) 3 km d) 8 km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Length of the fiber is L = CL/(αfc+αj) – αcr. Here αcr = loss at detector
and source combined, αfc = attenuation in dB/km.
13. Determine total RMS pulse broadening over 8 km if RMS pulse broadening is 0.6ns/km.
a) 3.6 ns b) 4 ns c) 4.8 ns d) 3 ns View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Total RMS pulse broadening is given by – σT = σ*L Where σ = rms
pulse broadening and L = length of the fiber.
14. Determine RMS pulse broadening over 8 km if total RMS pulse broadening is 5.8ns/km.
a) 0.2ns/km b) 0.1ns/km c) 0.4ns/km d) 0.72ns/km View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: RMS pulse broadening is given by – σ = σT/L where σ = rms pulse
broadening and L = length of the fiber.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Analog Systems”.
1. Determine dispersion equalization penalty if total RMS pulse broadening is 4.8ns, B T is 25
Mbits/s. a) 0.03 dB b) 0.08 dB c) 7 dB d) 0.01 dB View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Dispersion equalization penalty is denoted by D L. It is given by- DL =
2 (2σTBT√2)4. Here σT=RMS pulse broadening.
2. Determine RMS pulse broadening with mode coupling if pulse broadening is 0.6 over
8km. a) 1.6ns
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b) 1.7ns c) 1.5ns d) 1.4ns View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Total RMS pulse broadening with mode coupling is given by- σT =
σ√L. Here σT = RMS pulse broadening, L = length of the fiber.
3. Determine dispersion equalization penalty with mode coupling of 1.7ns if B T is 25 Mbits/s.
a) 4.8 * 104dB b) 4 * 104dB c) 4.2 * 104dB d) 3.8 * 104dB View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Dispersion equalization penalty is denoted by DL. With mode
coupling, it is given by- DL=2 (2σTBT√2)4. Here σT=RMS pulse broadening.
4. Determine dispersion equalization penalty without mode coupling if B T is 150 Mbits/s and
total rms pulse broadening is 4.8ns. a) 34 dB b) 33 dB c) 76.12 dB d) 34.38 dB View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Dispersion equalization penalty is denoted by D L(WM). It is given
by- DL(WM) = 2 (2σTBT√2)4. Here σT = RMS pulse broadening, (WM) = without mode
coupling.
5. Determine ratio of SNR of coaxial system to SNR of fiber system if peak output voltage is
5V, quantum efficiency of 70%, optical power is 1mW, wavelength of 0.85μm. a) 1.04 * 10 4
b) 2.04 * 104 c) 3.04 * 104 d) 4.04 * 104 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Ratio of SNR of coaxial system to SNR of fiber system is given by-
Ratio = V2hc/2KTZ0ηPiλ. Here, η=quantum efficiency, Pi = 0ptical power in mW, V=optical
output voltage.
6. Determine the peak output voltage if efficiency is 70%, wavelength is 0.85μm and output
power is 1mW. a) 7V b) 8V c) 5V d) 6V View Answer
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Answer: b Explanation: Peak output voltage is given by- V2 = (2KTZ0ηPiλ * Ratio)/hc. Here,
η = quantum efficiency, Pi=0ptical power in mW, V=optical output voltage.
7. Determine the efficiency of a coaxial cable system at 17 degree Celsius with peak output
voltage 5V, 0.85 μm wavelength and SNR ratio of 1.04 * 10 4. a) 80% b) 70% c) 40% d) 60%
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The efficiency of a coaxial cable system is η=V 2 hc/2KTZ0ηPiλ *
Ratio. Hereη=quantum efficiency, Pi = 0ptical power in mW, V=optical output voltage.
8. Determine the wavelength of a coaxial cable system operating at temperature 17 degree
Celsius at output voltage of 5V, 100Ω impedance, optical power of 1mW, 70% quantum
efficiency. a) 0.39μm b) 0.60μm c) 0.85μm d) 0.98μm View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The wavelength can be determined by – λ = V2hc/2KTZ0ηPi * Ratio.
Hereη=quantum efficiency, Pi = 0ptical power in mW, V = optical output voltage.
9. Determine the impedance of a coaxial cable system operating at temperature 17 degree
Celsius at output voltage of 5V, 0.85μmwavelength, optical power of 1mW, 70% quantum
efficiency and SNR ratio of 1.04 * 104. a) 80Ω b) 50Ω c) 90Ω d) 100Ω View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The impedance is given by-Z0=V2 hc/2KTPi * Ratio. Hereη=quantum
efficiency, Pi = Optical power in mW, V=optical output voltage.
10. The 10-90% rise times for components used in D-IM analog optical link is given.
(LED=10ns, Intermodal=9ns/km, Chromatic=2ns/km, APD = 3ns). Link is of 5km.
Determine the total rise time. a) 62ns b) 53ns c) 50ns d) 52ns View Answer
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Answer: d Explanation: Total rise time is given by- Tsyst=1.1[Ts2+Tn2+Tc2+TD2]1/2. Here Ts =
rise time, Tn = intermodal time, Tc = Chromatic time.
11. The 10-90% rise times for components used in D-IM analog optical link is given.
(LED=10ns, Intermodal=9ns/km, Chromatic=2ns/km, APD = 3ns). Link is of 5km. It has an
optical bandwidth of 6MHz. Determine maximum permitted system rise time. a) 58.3ns b)
54ns c) 75ns d) 43.54ns View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The maximum permitted system rise time is given by- Tsyst(Max) =
0.35/Bopt. Here, Bopt=Optical Bandwidth.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Multiplexing Strategies”.
1. What is the full form of ETDM? a) Electronic tube di-cyclic mechanism b) Electrical time
division multiplexing c) Emphasis tier division mechanism d) Electrical tube dielectric
medium View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: ETDM is the major baseband digital strategy. It allows for greater
exploitation of available fiber bandwidth.
2. The practical limitations of the speed of electronic circuits have been pushed towards
operational frequencies around ___________ a) 100 MHz b) 120 MHz c) 100GHz d) 80 Hz
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The speed of the circuitry in the fiber optic communication plays an
important role in its performance. It is pushed around 100 GHz frequency allowing for 100
Gbit/s feasibility.
3. A strategy used for increasing the bitrate of digital optical fiber systems beyond the
bandwidth capabilities of the drive electronics is known as ___________ a) Optical time
division multiplexing b) Electrical time division multiplexing c) Frequency division
multiplexing d) Code division multiplexing View Answer
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Answer: a Explanation: OTDM is favourable for long distance transmission of signal. It is
designed to push the bitrate of the fiber systems beyond the bandwidth limits to gain
performance.
4. ____________ semiconductor laser sources provide low duty cycle pulse streams for
subsequent time multiplexing. a) Diameter preferred b) Mode locked c) Divine d) Depletion
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Mode locked semiconductor laser sources were used at the
transmitter side. They provide effective distribution of time multiplexing providing low duty
cycle pulse streams.
5. ______________ are the devices which are employed to eliminate the laser chirp. a)
Optical intensity modulators b) Demodulators c) Circulators d) Optical Isolators View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optical intensity modulators eliminate the laser chirp. This laser
chirp may result in dispersion of the transmitted pulses as they propagate within the single
mode fiber, thus limiting the achievable transmission distance.
6. _____________ provides operation at high transmission rate. a) Optical intensity
modulators b) Demodulators c) Circulators d) Electro-absorption modulators View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Electro-absorption modulators are employed at the transmitter and
receiver sections. They provide operation at high transmission rate and for field trial.
7. In __________ the microwave frequency are modulated with an optical carrier and
transmitted using a single wavelength channel. a) Subcarrier multiplexing b) TDM c) FDM d)
Code division multiplexing View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optical Subcarrier multiplexing (SCM) is transmitted using a single
wavelength channel. It enables multiple broadband signals to be transmitted over single-mode
fiber.
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8. Which of the following techniques is easy to implement? a) Amplitude shift keying b)
Phase shift keying c) Frequency shift keying d) SCM View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Frequency shift keying has an advantage of being simple to
implement at the modulator as well as demodulator side. It is formed by up converting to a
narrowband channel at high frequency employing frequency.
9. Which of the following is the disadvantage of SCM? a) Source nonlinearity b) Linearity c)
Distortion d) Narrow bandwidth View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The problem associated with SCM is source nonlinearity. The
distortion caused by this becomes noticeable when several subcarriers are transmitted from a
single optical source.
10. In CATV, the signal must be received with a carrier to noise ratio of between
__________ a) 90 and 100 dB b) 10 and 30 dB c) 60 and 70 dB d) 45 and 55 dB View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The CATV multichannel spectrum tends to minimize the required
bandwidth. The carrier to noise ratio must be between to avoid degradation of picture quality.
11. The IF signal can be input to a demodulator to recover the baseband signal. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The IF signal is obtained through SCM at the receive terminals. The
baseband video signal in a CATV is obtained through IF signal by using it with a
demodulator input.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Application of Optical Amplifiers “.
1. Which of the following is not a drawback of regenerative repeater? a) Cost b) Bandwidth
c) Complexity
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d) Long haul applications View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The regenerative repeaters are useful in long haul applications.
However, such devices increase the cost and complexity of the optical communication
system. It act as a bottleneck by restricting the system operational bandwidth.
2. The term flexibility, in terms of optical amplifiers means the ability of the transmitted
signal to remain in the optical domain in a long haul link. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Repeaters are usually used to maintain the transmitted signal in the
optical domain. But, it has its own drawbacks. Thus, flexible systems which include optical
amplifiers are used for such purpose.
3. How many configurations are available for employment of optical amplifiers? a) Three b)
Four c) Two d) Five View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optical amplifiers can be employed in three configurations. These
are simplex mode, duplex mode, multi-amplifier configuration.
4. Repeaters are bidirectional. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Repeaters are unidirectional. Optical amplifiers have the ability to
operate simultaneously in both directions at the same carrier wavelength.
5. It is necessary to ____________ the optical carriers at different speeds to avoid signal
interference. a) Inculcate b) Reduce c) Intensity-modulate d) Demodulate View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Optical amplifiers are bidirectional. They operate in both directions
at the same carrier wavelength. In order to avoid interference, the optical carriers should be
intensity modulated.
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6. The _________________ increases the system reliability in the event of an individual
amplifier failure. a) Simplex configuration b) Duplex configuration c) Serial configuration d)
Parallel multi-amplifier configuration View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The optical amplifiers with spectral bandwidths in the range 50 to
100 nm allow amplifiers to be more reliable than repeaters. The parallel multi-amplifier
configuration increases system reliability and relaxes the linearity.
7. Which of the following is not an application of optical amplifier? a) Power amplifier b) In-
line repeater amplifier c) Demodulator d) Preamplifier View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Optical amplifiers have a wide variety of applications in the
transmitter as well as receiver side. It is used as the power amplifier in the transmitter side
and as preamplifier at the receiver side.
8. _________ reconstitutes a transmitted digital optical signal. a) Repeaters b) Optical
amplifiers c) Modulators d) Circulators View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Optical amplifiers simply act as gain blocks on an optical fiber link.
However, in contrast, the regenerative repeaters reconstitute a transmitted digital optical
signal.
9. _____________ are transparent to any type of signal modulation. a) Repeaters b) Optical
amplifiers c) Modulators d) Circulators View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The main benefit of acting as a gain block for optical amplifier is that
it can be transparent to modulation bandwidth. However, both the noise and signal distortions
are continuously amplified.
10. _________________ imposes serious limitations on the system performance. a) Fiber
attenuation b) Fiber modulation c) Fiber demodulation
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d) Fiber dispersion View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The fiber dispersion calculation does not take into account the non-
regenerative nature of the amplifier repeaters. In this, the pulse spreading and the noise is
accumulated.
11. __________ is the ratio of input signal to noise ratio to the output signal to noise ratio of
the device. a) Fiber dispersion b) Noise figure c) Transmission rate d) Population inversion
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Noise figure judges the performance factor of the devices. It is the in
and out the ratio of signal to noise degradation for any device.
12. How many factors govern the noise figure of the device? a) Four b) Three c) Two d) One
View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Noise figure is governed by factors such as the population inversion,
the number of transverse modes in the amplifier cavity, the number of incident photons on the
amplifier and the optical bandwidth of the amplified spontaneous emissions.
13. What is the typical range of the noise figure? a) 1 – 2 dB b) 3 – 5 dB c) 7 – 11 dB d) 12 –
14 dB View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Typical noise figures range from 7 to 11 dB. The SOAs are generally
at the bottom end of the range and the fiber amplifiers towards the top end.
This set of Optical Communications Problems focuses on “Dispersion Management and
Soliton Systems”.
1. Calculate second order dispersion coefficient for path length L2 20km and L1 160km.
Dispersion coefficient for L2 is 17. a) -2.125ps/nm km b) -3.25ps/nm km c) -3.69ps/nm km d)
-1.28ps/nm km View Answer
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Answer: a Explanation: The second order dispersion coefficient for path length is given by-
β21 = -β22L2/L1. Here, β22 = Dispersion coefficient forL2, L2 and L1 are path lengths.
2. Calculate the path length L2 if L1is 160, dispersion coefficient of L2 is 17, dispersion
coefficient of L1 is -2.25 ps/nmkm. a) 40 km b) 20 km c) 30 km d) 10 km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The path length L2 is given by- L2 = β21L1/-β22. Here, β22 =
Dispersion coefficient forL2, β21 = Dispersion coefficient for L1, L2 and L1 are path lengths.
3. Calculate path length L1 if L2 is 20, dispersion coefficient of L2 is 17, dispersion coefficient
of L1 is -2.25 ps/nmkm. a) 180 km b) 30 km c) 160 km d) 44 km View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The path length L1is given by- L1 = β21L2/-β22. Here, β22 = Dispersion
coefficient forL2, β21 = Dispersion coefficient for L1, L2 and L1 are path lengths.
4. Calculate second order dispersion coefficient for path length L1 20 km and L1 160 km.
Dispersion coefficient for L1 is -2.125*10-12s/nmkm. a) 20 b) 19 c) 18 d) 17 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The second order dispersion coefficient for path length is given by-
β22=-β21L2/L1. Here, β21 = Dispersion coefficient forL1, L2 and L1 are path lengths.
5. Calculate dispersion slope for second path fiber if L1 is 150, L2 is 10 and s1 is 0.075. a)
1.125 b) 2.125 c) 3.125 d) 1.9 View Answer
3
5
Answer: a Explanation: Dispersion slope for second path fiber is s2 = -s1(L1/L2). Here s1 and
s2 are dispersion slopes for L1, L2. L2 and L1 are path lengths.
6. Calculate dispersion slope for first path fiber if L1 is 160, L2 is 20 and s2 is 0.6ps/nm km. a)
0.1 b) 0.432 c) 0.236 d) 0.075 View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Dispersion slope for first path fiber is s1 = -s2(L1/L2). Here s1 and s2
are dispersion slopes for L1, L2. L2 And L1 are path lengths.
7. Calculate L2 if dispersion slope for first path fiber is 0.075 and L1 is 160 km and s2 is -
0.6ps/nm km. a) 20 km b) 30 km c) 40 km d) 50 km View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: L2 is determined by – L2 = (-s1/s2)*L1. Here s1 and s2 are dispersion
slopes for L1, L2. L2 and L1 are path lengths.
8. Calculate L1 if dispersion slope for first path fiber is 0.075 and L2 is 20 km and s2 is -
0.6ps/nm km. a) 170 km b) 160 km c) 180 km d) 175 km View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: L1 is determined by – L2 = (-s1/s2)* L2. Here s1 and s2 are dispersion
slopes for L1, L2. L2 and L1 are path lengths.
9. Calculate separation of soliton pulses over a bit period length if R 2 pulse width is 6 ps for
bit period of 70 ps. a) 5.9 b) 5.7 c) 5.8 d) 5.4 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The separation of soliton pulses over a bit period length is calculated
by – q0 = T0/2ς. Here ς = pulse width and T0 = bit period.
10. Calculate RZ pulse width if bit period is 60ps and separation of soliton pulses is 5.4. a)
5.5ps
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6
b) 8.1ps c) 4.3ps d) 2.3ps View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: RZ pulse width can be calculated by – ς = T0/q0. Here ς = pulse width
and T0 = bit period.
11. Calculate bit period if RZ pulse width is 50ps and separation of soliton pulses is 5.6. a)
570ps b) 540ps c) 430ps d) 560ps View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Bit period can be calculated by – T0 = 2T2q0. Here T2=pulse width
and T0=bit period.
12. Calculate value of dimensionless parameter if bit period is 45ps and RZ pulse width is 4
ps. a) 5.625 b) 5.0 c) 4 d) 6.543 View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Dimensionless parameter is given by – q0 = T0/2ς. Here ς=pulse
width and T0=bit period.
11. Questions & Answers on Optical Fiber Systems 2 : Coherent
and Phase Modulated
The section contains questions on coherent transmission, modulation
formats, demodulation schemes, receiver sensitivities and multi
carrier systems.
This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on
“Practical Constraints of Coherent Transmission”.
1. Which technology development has helped the field of optical fiber communication? a)
Glass technology b) Component technology c) Multiplexing d) Power View Answer
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7
Answer: b Explanation: Substantial developments in component technology have allowed the
initial difficulties in the optical fiber communication to go away. The coherent factor
experienced most of the difficulties.
2. __________ dictates the performance characteristics required from components and
devices which are to be utilized in coherent optical fiber systems. a) System considerations b)
Bluetooth technology c) Multiplexing d) Practical constraints View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Practical constraints inhibit the development of coherent optical fiber
communications. These constraints are derived from factors associated with the elements of
the coherent optical fiber communication.
3. Coherent optical transmission is degraded by the ________ associated with the transmitter
and local oscillator lasers. a) Phase noise b) White noise c) Dissipation d) Power View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Phase noise is determined by the laser line width. The phase noise
associated with both the transmitter and the mid-tier section severely degrades the coherent
optical transmission as well as reception.
4. ___________ improves the spectral purity of the device output and noise current. a) Power
dissipation b) Laser line width reduction c) Laser line width injection d) Phase noise View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Laser line width determines the level of phase noise and long term
phase stability. The reduced phase noise is obtained using narrow-line width devices. This
improves the spectral purity as well as reduces the noise current.
5. ____________ is the principal cause of line width broadening in the coherent devices. a)
Electromagnetic field b) Power dissipation c) Injection laser phase noise d) Gaussian noise
View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Injection laser phase noise affects the system performance. The
system performance considerations include receiver noise, power loss and line width
broadening.
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8
6. Which technique was started for narrowing of injection laser line widths? a) External
resonator cavity b) Long-hauled oscillator c) Circulator d) Gyrator View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Many approaches evolved in time for laser line width problem. The
one which sustained and showed effects was the use of external resonator cavity in the lasers.
7. The line width tolerance is wider for heterodyne receivers. a) False b) True View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The laser line width requirements depend on the modulation format,
coherent detection mechanism which includes the use of heterodyne and homodyne receivers.
The line width tolerance is wider for heterodyne receivers when employing FSK modulation.
8. ___________ is an alternative to reduce phase noise and line width requirements. a)
Homodyne detection b) Heterodyne detection c) FSK modulation d) Phase diversity reception
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: The more sensitive coherent transmission techniques are most
affected by phase noise problem. A specially configured reception technique called as phase
diversity reception technique is used to overcome phase noise problem.
9. ______________ is the progressive spatial separation between the two polarization modes
as they propagate along the fiber. a) Fiber birefringence b) Fiber dispersion c) Fiber
separation d) Fiber coupling View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: In a perfectly formed fiber, both modes would travel together. But, in
practice, the fiber contains random manufacturing irregularities. This result in a progressive
spatial separation called as fiber birefringence.
10. How many compensator devices are required to provide full polarization-state control? a)
Three b) One c) Four
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9
d) Two View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: At least two compensator devices are required to provide full
polarization-state control. They can be placed in either the incoming signal path or the local
oscillator output path.
11. Which technique was found to be providing an infinite range of polarization control? a)
Homodyne detection b) Fiber squeezers c) Heterodyne detection d) Power dissipation View
Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Four fiber squeezers provide an infinite range of adjustment or
endless polarization control. Stress was applied to the fiber in the local oscillator path using
the squeezers which are angled at 45 degrees to each other.
12. What is the main drawback of the squeezer? a) Damages the fiber b) Attenuation c)
Dispersion d) Signal degradation View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The squeezers are simple to configure. The main drawback of
squeezer is that they tend to damage the fiber and could not be engineered into reliable
transducers for practical systems.
13. The use of balanced receiver compensates the losses due to coupling optics. a) True b)
False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The losses due to coupling optics and the suppression of the excess
noise in the local oscillator signal are eliminated by the use of balanced receiver. It is also
called as balanced-mixer receiver.
14. ___________ is the phenomenon which occurs in the single carrier systems due to small
refractive index changes induced by the optical power fluctuations. a) SBS gain b) Self-phase
modulation c) FSK modulation d) Birefringence View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: It occurs only in the single-carrier systems. It affects the phase of the
transmitted signal.
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`

Short Answers Questions


____________________________________________
BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems )
Topic : Optical Fibre Communication

4
1
INTRODUCTION
................................................................................................................................................................. 7
1. What is a fiber optic?
................................................................................................................................................ 9
2. How many kinds of fibers are there?
............................................................................................................... 9
3. What are fiber optics made off?
.......................................................................................................................... 9
4. Are there different qualities of fiber optics?
................................................................................................. 9
5. What is a light guide?
.............................................................................................................................................10
6. What are bare fibers?
.............................................................................................................................................10
7. What are sheathed fibers?
...................................................................................................................................10
8. Is the sheath color
important?...........................................................................................................................10
9. What is a harness?
...................................................................................................................................................10
10. Do fibers have losses?
............................................................................................................................................10
11. Why do some fibers change the color of the light?
..................................................................................10
12. Is low attenuation a sign of good quality fiber?
........................................................................................11
13. What are the advantages of glass fiber optics?
.........................................................................................11
14. And the disadvantages?
........................................................................................................................................11
15. What are the advantages of polymer fiber optics?
..................................................................................12
16. And the disadvantages?
........................................................................................................................................12
17. Can I light a house with fiber optics?
.............................................................................................................13
18. Are fiber optics efficient as a means to transport light?
.......................................................................12
19. What can justify the use of fiber optics?
.......................................................................................................13
20. Are fibers safe?
..........................................................................................................................................................13
21. Who makes fiber optics?
......................................................................................................................................13
22. How are fiber optics made?
................................................................................................................................13
23. Are optical fibers fragile?
.....................................................................................................................................14
24. Can fibers be bent at right angles?
..................................................................................................................14
25. Can lighting fiber optics be spliced or joined?
...........................................................................................14
26. Will light go any length along a fiber?
...........................................................................................................14
27. How many sizes are there of lighting fiber optics?
.................................................................................14
28. Can you put any amount of light into a fiber optic?
................................................................................15
29. Do fiber optics transmit radiation
...................................................................................................................15
30. Glass or polymer?
....................................................................................................................................................15
31. Can fibers be made any size?
.............................................................................................................................15
32. How long will fiber optics last?
.........................................................................................................................16
33. Can several fibers give the same amount of light?
..................................................................................16
34. What are side-emitting fibers?
..........................................................................................................................16
35. Are there different types of side emitting fibers?
....................................................................................16
36. What are solid core fibers?
.................................................................................................................................16
37. What are multistranded optics?
.......................................................................................................................17
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2
38. What are coiled or roped optics?
.....................................................................................................................17
39. Solid core or multicore?
........................................................................................................................................17
40. Can side emitting optics be as bright or brighter than neon?
............................................................17
41. With all the limitations, what are the uses of side emitting optics?
................................................18
42. What are the design constraints to side emitting optics?
....................................................................18
43. Could the light along a side emitting optic be absolutely
homogeneous?.....................................18
44. Will we always see a difference in brightness along an optic?
..........................................................18
45. Can light be made to move or chase along a side emitting optic?
....................................................19
46. Are the side-emitting fibers with reflecting core more luminous?
..................................................19
47. Is there any way to improve side-emitting viewing?
.............................................................................19
ILLUMINATORS
48. What is an illuminator?
......................................................................................................................................... 21
49. What makes a good illuminator?
....................................................................................................................... 21
50. Is bigger better?
....................................................................................................................................................... 21
51. How many types of illuminators are there?
.................................................................................................. 22
52. Halogen or gas discharge?
................................................................................................................................... 22
53. Must all illuminators have forced ventilation?
.............................................................................................. 22
54. How noisy is an illuminator?
.............................................................................................................................. 22
55. Are certifications important?
............................................................................................................................... 23
56. Are machines with the CE mark certified?
..................................................................................................... 23
57. How then do I recognize a product's quality?
.............................................................................................. 23
58. What about ISO 9000?
........................................................................................................................................... 24
59. How does a color change
works?....................................................................................................................... 24
60. What is a dychroic filter?
...................................................................................................................................... 24
61. Are heat fuses necessary?
.................................................................................................................................... 24
62. Can multiple illuminators change colors simultaneously?
....................................................................... 25
63. Can illuminators be computer controlled?
..................................................................................................... 25
64. What is DMX?
............................................................................................................................................................ 25
ENDS,FITTINGSANDTERMINALS
65. What are end terminations?
................................................................................................................................. 27
66. What are single ends?
............................................................................................................................................ 27
67. Are there many types of single ends?
.............................................................................................................. 27
68. Is the fiber end important?
.................................................................................................................................. 27
69. How are glass fibers
ended?................................................................................................................................ 28
70. How are polymer fibers terminated?
................................................................................................................ 28
71. How are solid core fibers terminated?
............................................................................................................ 28
72. How are coiled, twisted or roped fibers terminated?
................................................................................ 29
73. What is a common end?
........................................................................................................................................ 29
74. Is the common end important?
.......................................................................................................................... 29
75. What makes a good common end?
.................................................................................................................... 29
76. How many types of common end are there?
................................................................................................. 29
77. What is a randomized common end?
............................................................................................................... 30
78. What are end fittings?
............................................................................................................................................ 30
79. How many types of end fittings are there?
.................................................................................................... 30
80. Fittings or
fixtures?................................................................................................................................................. 30
81. Who manufactures end fittings?
......................................................................................................................... 30
82. Are end fittings standard?
.................................................................................................................................... 30
83. What is an optical port
.......................................................................................................................................... 31
84. Are there different types of optical port?
....................................................................................................... 31
85. Who manufactures optical ports?
....................................................................................................................... 31
86. Are optical ports compatible?
.............................................................................................................................. 31
SYSTEMS
87. What is a fiber optics system?
............................................................................................................................ 31
88. What is a fiber optics systems integrator?
.................................................................................................... 33
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3
89. What is the difference between a fiber optics manufacturer and
a fiber optics system manufacturer?
................................................................................................................. 33
90. Who are the best fiber optics manufacturers?
............................................................................................. 33
91. Who are the best systems integrators?
........................................................................................................... 34
92. How many parts does a fiber optics system have?
..................................................................................... 34
93. Are fiber optics systems expensive?
................................................................................................................ 34
94. Will fiber optics systems be cheaper in the future?
................................................................................... 35
95. Are fiber optics systems difficult to install?
.................................................................................................. 35
96. What is a starry sky?
.............................................................................................................................................. 35
97. What is an effect wheel?
........................................................................................................................................ 35
98 What is an animation harness?
........................................................................................................................... 35
99. What are spatial effects?
........................................................................................................................................ 36
100. How would you describe in one word fiber optics lighting systems?
................................................ 36
INTRODUCTION
Fiber optics lighting is not a revolutionary or new technology, in essence is only
about carrying light, from one point to another by means of a lens, more or less
flexible and long.
The problem is the air of mysticism surrounding the industry*.
The result is a strange industry where it is difficult to know for sure the result of the
system being ins- talled and where disappointment, in part due to unfair hopes, is
common.
The present work is a collection of the questions most often made by professionals
during seminars, consulting, and projects over a quarter of a century. The questions are
worded in a short straight- forward manner and answered based on objective scientific
criteria, without publicity, trademarks, or personal preferences, in an effort to help the
general understanding of these systems.

44
FIBERS
1. . What is a f iber opt ic?
Fiber optics are long lenses. A cylinder or rod of transparent material forming a core
surrounded by an external cladding with a slightly different material. Light, when
entering the fiber, rebounds on the outer cladding towards the core. This way the light
advances through the fiber in bounds or steps, until it exits at the other end.
2. . How many kinds of f ibers are there?
In truth, there is only one fiber optic. The term "fiber optics" applies really to a branch
of light physics dealing with the properties of certain materials that display a
phenomenon called "total internal reflection", and not to an object. All optical elements
such as lenses, prisms and rods use total internal reflection as a mecha- nism for light
transportation. In the elements described as fiber optics light travels by virtue of this
effect but it does so in a number of ways; monomode, multimode, step index, gradient
index and so on.
For lighting purposes or, to be more exact, to handle visible light, the standard type or
fibers are the so-called multimode step index fibers. The use of the other types is
confined exclusively to data or signal transmission.
3. . What are f iber opt ics made off?
For lighting purposes or visible light spectrum transmission, several kinds of fibers are
used. Glass in very fine strands that have to be bunched together in order to make a
sizeable light carrier, PMMA, and polycarbonate in sizes from 0,25 to 3mm and solid
core fibers made from special polymers in a Teflon sheath from 3mm to over one-inch
thick. Other types of fibers such as liquid core, colored fibers, fluorescent, and
scintillating are little used and for specialized applications.
4. . Are there di fferent qual i t ies of f iber opt ics?
Definitely yes. The raw materials used in the manufacture of fibers may be similar in
some instances but the process to make finished optics can vary greatly from one
manufacturer to another.
The greatest differences arise from the level of purity and refinement with which the
raw materials are pro- duced, the degree of impurities, contamination and the very
technology of the process.
Optical properties such as numerical aperture, attenuation and selective spectral
absorption

45
are widely diffe- rent from one fiber to other. This means that some fibers may be
suitable for one task and useless for others.
5. . What is a l ight guide?
When a number of single fibers are grouped together to make a larger diameter light
conductor the resulting structure is called a light guide. Sometimes large diameter solid
core fibers are also termed light guide.
Light guides can come in many forms and finished, clad with a number of different
polymers, articulated ana- conda type flexible metal coverings, rigid tubes, heat shrink
tubes, etc.
6. . What are bare f ibers?
The term is used mainly with PMMA fibers and refers to the optics that have no external
protection sheath.
7. . What are sheathed f ibers?
The optics that have an external cladding whether opaque or transparent in order to
afford a mechanical protection to the optics.
8. . Is the sheath color important?
This is a particularly slippery subject and the cause of heated debate. Some scientists
affirm that an opaque white or light colored cladding, especially in single core fibers
improve, marginally, the transmission properties of the optics. Others say that this is
nonsense. In any case, the difference if it exists, must surely be minimal.
9. . What is a harness?
The term applied in the industry to describe a group of fibers or light guides,
individually terminated and with a common end. Generally, each harness must have its
own illuminator.
10. . Do f ibers have losses?
All things in the universe are inefficient. This means that when a measured amount of
something enters a system, less comes out than originally went in. If you pour a liter of
water into one end of a pipe, you will always get less than a liter out of the other end. If
you apply a voltage to the extreme of one wire, no matter how you do it, you will get a
lesser value at the other end.
Fiber optics are no exception, the light entering one end encounters all kinds of
obstacles and flaws, resul- ting in losses; from 2 to 10% for every running meter.
11. . Why do some f ibers change the color of the l ight?
46
In fact, all fibers change the color of the light in one way or another. Due to the physical
characteristics of the conductor some frequencies travel with less impediment than
others and it is impossible to produce a fiber that would have the same attenuation on
the whole of the visible spectrum. To expect a light conductor to transport millions of
different wavelengths along with exactly the same attenuation in every one would be
quite unreasonable.
Some fibers absorb a little more blue than red and less green than yellow and others
just the opposite. Consequently, the hue and tone of the light varies from meter to
meter, in some cases very apparently. This phenomenon is referred to as selective
spectral absorption.
12. . Is low attenuat ion a sign of good qual i ty f iber?
Generally yes, but in lighting fiber optics the manufacturer's attenuation figures are
frequently meaningless. (In order to be reasonable this is the only figure they can
quote)
Attenuation is measured using a laser, a light emitting diode or a collimated light source.
In all three cases the light used is monochromatic, meaning that only one wavelength or
a very narrow set of wave- lengths is used.
The figures issued by manufacturers, per example: 150dB/Km refer to that single
wavelength and corres- ponding color which could be yellow or yellow/green. The same
fiber may have an attenuation of 750dB/Km on the blue end of the spectrum and
400dB/Km on the red side.
To calculate the average attenuation for white light would involve firstly analyzing the
light of the lamp in the illuminator to determine its composition that could vary
enormously, even for two identical lamps. Then one would have to measure attenuation
in all individual wavelengths taking into account the amount of each present on the
lamp's emission. Finally, we would have to compute to obtain a result which would only
hold true for that lamp/fiber combination.
To be honest a close average can be worked out with a few instruments but lamp
deterioration due to aging, dust in the system and coloring of the common end due to
solvent migration from the potting compounds, if used, soon make nonsense of
averaged figures.
13. . What are the advantages of glass f iber opt ics?
Glass fiber optics are very resilient and ideally suited for working in places where the
actual conductor will be subject to extreme temperatures or/and radiation, are little
affected by most solvents and oils and the spectral transmission is good.
14. . And the disadvantages?
It must be borne in mind that the actual nature of the conductor, in lighting systems,
represents only one of the elements responsible for system performance. Glass light
guides are always sheathed in a poly- mer tube and the common end encapsulated with
epoxy
47
compounds.
The actual element in contact with the environment is the polymer tube. In fact, the
characteristics of this element will, for all purposes, determine the resilience of the
system. This little considered point makes nonsense of some critics of polymer fiber
who complain of the plastic contents. The fact is that if we take a 2mm-polymer fiber
and a glass fiber with the same optical diameter we will find out that the latter contains
more plastic than the former. Naturally we are talking about a bare PMMA fiber, this is
to say without cladding. PMMA fibers can be used bare, glass fibers cannot; must always
be cladded. At the common end, the epoxy compounds make up to 17% of the total
optical area to receive the light from the lamp. It is a well known fact that these potting
adhesives behave erratically in the presence of high temperatures and steep radiation
gra- dients, such as the ones present at the screen or focus of the lamp in the generator,
light source or illumina- tor. This epoxy tends to age very quickly, darken, absorb more
radiation, heat up and contribute to the pre- mature failure or deterioration of the
system. On the other hand, glass fibers are very brittle. Studies show that vibration
affects adversely glass fibers up to the point where shatter may occur. If the external
sheath or tube becomes also hard and lose flexibility because of environmental factors
then the light guide becomes extremely fragile.
15. . What are the advantages of polymer f iber opt ics?
The spectral transmission of PMMA fibers is difficult to improve upon, the quality of the
light transmitted over distances longer than four or five meters is considerable better
that the standard glass fibers. Cost is another factor; polymer fibers have a lower cost
per optical area unit than glass, in part due to the easier manufacturing process. High
quality PMMA systems rely on a fusion process to construct the common end, hence
dispensing with the use of epoxy potting compounds. In all instances where the use of
many fibers or light points is prescribed polymer systems are a much better option.
Another point to bear in mind is the weight factor: glass fibers are heavier than
polymer, a fact that may be critical in some applications, such as automotive and aircraft
uses.
16. . And the disadvantages?
The ends of polymer fibers cannot operate with high temperatures. Light sources or
illuminators are needed with a screen temperature lower than 60ºC. Although some
polymers can work with 100ºC and over, the fact is that these constant high
temperatures cause changes on the polymer chains, especially at the common end. This
results on a hardening and blushing or blooming of the material, causing a deterioration
of the system. The use of very powerful and hot illuminators with polymer fibers, in
most cases is sheer madness. Although there is very little data on polymer aging, some
manufacturers offer a 20-year guarantee on their systems, which is more than adequate
in most instances.
Radius of curvature is a delicate mater with large diameter solid core fibers and has to
be
48
handled with great care in order not to alter the internal architecture of the fibers,
which will result in losses. Bare or unsheathed fibers are very delicate and the external
cladding becomes rapidly damaged due to abrasions and scratches.
17. . Can I l ight a house wi th f iber opt ics?
A house can be lit with anything, from candles and gas lamps to fiber optics. There is the
question, however, of the efficiency of the system. One should never forget that a light
source, such as an electric lamp, delivers its maximum output hanging free in mid air,
and that any thing added, such as a coffer, a louver or an optical system of lenses or
reflectors diminishes the performance.
Truth is that in most cases light issuing from a lamp in a spherical fashion is of little use
because we want the light pointing towards a given direction, in order to perform a task.
Nevertheless, is also true that anything around or in front of a lamp rests light to the
general output of the system.
With fiber optics, this is no exception. The lamp enclosed in the illuminator would give a
greater quantity of light if taken out and hung from a ceiling than pushing the light
through fibers.
There is a common misconception amongst the public that if we have a 100 Lm lamp in
one place and we run ten fibers to different rooms we would have a 100 Lm light in each
room. This sounds very much like the parable of the bread and the fishes and clashes
with the laws of thermodynamics, as we know them.
If you have a 100 Lm lamp in a box and run ten fibers out, the total combined output of
the fibers will always be considerably less than 100 Lm, now and in the future.
18. . Are f iber opt ics eff icient as a means to transport l ight?
The straight answer is no. If we take any other means of light re-direction or
distribution we will find out that are far more efficient.
19. . What can just i fy the use of f iber opt ics?
In the great majority of tasks, using traditional means, the amount of light used is far in
excess to the quantity really needed. Most light goes to illuminate areas that do not need
light at all.
With fiber optics, we can distribute minute quantities of light exactly where needed, an
impossible feat with conventional lighting because light sources are too large.
The distinct possibilities to put the lamp within easy reach whilst the light is distributed
in zones with difficult access is another advantage of fiber optics. The main reasons for
the use of fiber optics in lighting are safety, control, miniaturization, cost and ease of
maintenance.

49
20. . Are f ibers safe?
Fiber optics are passive elements, therefore do not use power to generate light, as is the
case with lamps. As light conductors only carry light from one point to another, never
electricity.
Fiber optics can be put under, or in direct contact with water, can be cut, handled,
broken or hammered and can never be anything but totally safe lighting conductors,
with the exception of power conversion.
Because standard lighting fiber optics have a very restricted transmission window most
radiation which could be harmful to beings or things is not transmitted. In fact the
amount of infrared and ultraviolet issuing from a fiber optic is, in most instances,
negligible.
The use of fiber optics in the lighting of museum pieces or radiation sensitive material is
one of the main appli- cations of these light conductors.
There is, however, the phenomenon of power to light conversion on the extremes of the
fibers: a very high temperature may be present, with the use of high powered
illuminators, very close to the tip. If a light guide is cut, abraded or damaged in anyway
along its length a very hot spot may ensue which can destroy the fiber and the
surrounds. When using systems with high power densities additional precautions
should be obser- ved to maintain safety in the system.
21. . Who makes f iber opt ics?
Glass manufacturers mainly make Glass fibers. Chemical companies fabricate PMMA
fibers. Compa- nies, both public and private, manufacture other types of fiber optics,
especially solid core polymer and gene- rally with their own proprietary process.
22. . How are f iber opt ics made?
The actual process varies considerably from one manufacturer to another. In essence, a
large cylinder of core is made off high purity material, an element called preform. The
preform is later heated or treated and drawn into a filament, which is then coated with
the external layer with a different refractive index.
Other systems include co-extrusion, continuous casting, direct co-polymerization,
injection, wet drawing and soft extrusion with mercury formers.
These later techniques, and others under research, try to attain a better alignment of
polymer chains in order to improve transmission and reduce attenuation. In fact, the
fiber stretching and tensioning after drawing to promote molecular alignment is one of
the industry secrets.
23. . Are opt ical f ibers fragi le?

50
Glass fibers are very brittle, in fact in any glass light guide there is a percentage of fibers
broken during the manufacturing process, on the other hand, because these light guides
are sheathed, once installed are very resistant to external influences.
Bare PMMA fibers are extremely delicate during manufacture and manipulation,
requiring great handling care. Once sheathed are practically impervious to external
damage.
Other solid core fibers are very tough because of an external Teflon cladding and can be
installed without any problem. The only drawback with this type of optics is the
hardening with age, which makes these conductors brittle and prone to shatter.
24. . Can f ibers be bent at r ight angles?
No. All fibers must be bent with a radius, which will not alter the internal architecture of
the fiber. For every type and size of fiber, there is a minimum radius of curvature,
specified and recommended by the manufacturer. Bending fiber optics at right angles
will cause the conductor to shatter in the case of glass, and be permanently damaged in
all other types
25. . Can l ight ing f iber opt ics be spl iced or joined?
All fibers can be spliced with more or less success and difficulty. The problem is the
losses resulting from such a joint.
Fiber splicing is a common practice in the telecommunications industry where is done
with sophisticated alignment apparatus and a considerable dose of skill.
Nowadays there are splicing systems for polymer light guides using special fittings and
a refraction index equalizing gel capable of low price splices with minimal losses. In
glass fibers where one would have to indi- vidually splice hundreds or even thousands
of single fibers, splicing is not resolved yet.
Solid core fibers can be joined with greater ease but the losses are massive; up to 25%
of the available light.
26. . Wi ll l ight go any length along a f iber?
All conductors have losses, and in the case of fiber optics, these are sizeable.
Light losses in the industry average 2 to 5% per meter or over. If we start with, say 100
units of light at the common end we will lose 25% at the end of five meters and over
40% after ten. In fact, most systems have losses greater than 50% over a ten-meter
length.
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27. . How many sizes are there of l ight ing f iber opt ics?
Literally hundreds, from a few microns to over an inch in diameter, solid core and
multicore, square shaped, ribbons, tapes and sheet.
28. . Can you put any amount of l ight into a f iber opt ic?
This is one of the standard fallacies of the industry. The system needed to put a sizeable
amount of light into a fiber optic is very simple; a lamp, perhaps a lens and something to
hold the fiber pointing at the light source. It follows that the bigger and more powerful
the lamp the greater amount of light it will issue and the more light that will get into the
fiber; at least this is the argument that most people think logical.
The problem is that optics is a subject far from simple. An optical fiber will accept a
measure of light and no more, regardless of the power of the lamp: if a light source puts
ten units of light through a fiber, another light source, twice as bright will not put
double the light into the fiber.
There is one thing called power density acceptance which marks the limit to how much
energy can circulate through a system, no matter how much more energy you try to
force into it. A copper wire of a given thick- ness will be happy with five amps, get warm
with ten, heat up with twenty and melt with forty.
29. . Do f iber opt ics transmit radiat ion?
Light is a radiation; therefore, the answer is yes. Some fibers, depending on the nature
of the materials from which they are made, transmit one band of radiation more or less
wide or restricted.
Generally, the fibers used for lighting transmit little or no ultraviolet, a very small
amount of infrared and varia- ble quantities of the visible light frequencies.
Heat is a radiation on the infrared region and does not transmit well on standard
lighting fibers. To put an example; the amount of heat that will build up inside a case
with a volume of one cubic meter of air, is only one degree in 24 hours, from a 5mm
diameter PMMA light guide powered by a 150W metal halide illumina- tor.
30. . Glass or polymer?
There is not an easy answer because it will always depend on the final use and working
conditions of the system.
Generally speaking glass fibers are better suited for those environments where high
temperatures are cons- tant and for data transmission. Glass fibers are very thin
conductors only a few microns in diameter, therefo- re in order to construct a sizeable
light conductor,
52
hundreds or even thousands have to be bunched and she- athed together.
Bending radii are small and the performance is acceptable although glass fibers with
comparable spectral characteristics to PMMA are considerably more expensive.
In essence both, glass and polymer systems have advantages and drawbacks, to be
individually assessed in view of the actual application and working conditions. In recent
times, however, there seems to be a general trend to abandon glass fiber optics in
lighting applications in favor of PMMA.
31. . Can f ibers be made any size?
Theoretically, yes. There are, however, physical constraints because of the materials and
utility. Very large fibers have proportional bending radii and are not very economical to
produce. Under the all encom- passing classification of Remote Source Lighting, tubes
made from special polymers and behaving like fiber optics are currently being
manufactured, capable of being formed into light conductors over a foot in diame- ter.
32. . How long wi ll f iber opt ics last?
In the case of glass practically indefinitely due to the inert characteristics of the
material. This refers to the actual fiber, and not to the polymer cladding. Also the
common ends being an encapsulation of epoxy's will behave less predictably and
perform erratically, depending of many factors, such as temperature of ope- ration and
level of radiation exposure.
As far as polymer systems are concerned 20 years for the conductors is the standard
guarantee in the industry. This also refers to the actual fiber, without reference to the
common end whose average life depends on the same factors outlined before.
33. . Can several f ibers give the same amount of l ight?
No. If a number of fibers or light guides are coupled to the same illuminator, it is
physically impossible that each receives the same amount of light and therefore
transmit it. The spot or tack formed by a reflector lamp at the focus point or screen is
not completely homogeneous, this is to say that it does not have the same quantity of
light in each point of its surface. This problem is sometimes minimized by mixing the
fibers at the common end (a process termed “randomizing”) but it can never be made
totally even.
34. . What are side- emi tt ing f ibers?
There are no side-emitting fibers. All fiber optics receive the light at one end and
transport it to the other. When light enters a fiber and travels through the core it
encounters multitude of obstacles: microscopic cracks and fissures, impurities and
other elements which
53
obstruct the passage of some light and which, in turn, esca- pes through the outer
cladding.
All fibers lose some light though the cladding because there are no perfect systems. This
unavoidable effect is used to produce elements termed "side emitting fibers" which, in
fact are normal fiber optics with a clear protective external cladding which permit to
view the escaping light. In fact, some manufacturers induce stres- ses on the fibers, by
means of torsion or bending to bruise the fibers and cause more light to escape along
the way.
Some glass fibers are made side emitting, by the expedient method of cladding a bunch
into a clear tube and breaking them at intervals. Clearly there comes a point along the
tube when there are no more unbroken fibers to continue the process.
35. . Are there di fferent types of side emi tt ing f ibers?
Nowadays several types of side emitting fibers are marketed. The most common are:
Solid core optics
Multistranded optics
Multistranded roped/coiled and woven/knitted optics.
36. . What are sol id core f ibers?
These optics are cylinders made of diverse polymers and encased on a transparent
sheath or tube. As a standard are manufactured in different gauges or calibers from 3 to
25 or more millimeters in diameter.
37. . What are mul t istranded opt ics?
Multistranded optics are narrow walled tubes off transparent material, housing a
number of smaller solid core fibers. The inner fibers are, generally 0,75mm in diameter
and numbered from ten or less to seve- ral hundred, depending on the final use and
diameter of the optic.
38. . What are coi led roped and woven/ kni tted opt ics?
Simply braided or woven ropes manufactured with thin solid core fiber optics, instead
of hemp or nylon. Because of the strain produced on the individual fibers by means of
the torsion, coiling or knitting, the fibers have greater losses along the length. This
means that more light is available for side viewing purposes.
39. . Sol id core or mul t icore?
That will depend on the use to which the optic is put and the actual installation
conditions. Solid core optics have generally, a larger bending radius to avoid important
losses.
54
Furthermore, because of the trans- parent quality of the core, unless the contrast with
the background is adequate the appearance is that of infe- rior luminance.
Multicore optics, on the other hand, have a more flexible construction, especially in
large diameters. Becau- se of the reduced transparency of the optic, the luminance
appears greater.
Solid core fibers can operate in some types with higher screen temperatures and can be
connected (at least in theory) to generators that are more powerful without damage to
the core. It must be said, however, that the long-term effects, especially those related to
the power density of the systems, are as yet undetermined.
40. . Can side emi tt ing opt ics be as br ight or br ighter than neon?
Fiber optics can be made to be brighter than neon but only for very short distances. We
can think of a garden hose as an example: making tiny holes along the hose can cause a
sizeable amount of water gus- hing out of the holes nearer the tap, and for a distance
that will depend on the size of the holes. If we make the holes larger a greater amount of
water will issue, but only for a shorter distance until it only trickles.
There is a limit to the quantity of water that can be made to pass through a hose, a limit
given by the mate- rial of the pipe and the viscosity of water. We simply cannot increase
pressure infinitely.
The limit on the quantity of light traveling through a fiber optic is also imposed by
physics: the actual material of which the optic is made and the intrinsic qualities of light.
There is a power density limit to each material. In some systems, especially with late
generation purpose made metal halide illuminators, luminance values greater or equal
to that of neon may be obtained for lengths up to few meters. The sizeable cost of these
sys- tems when compared to neon makes the proposal impractical in most cases.
41. . Wi th all the l imi tat ions, what are the uses of side emi tt ing opt ics?
There is a common misconception about the quantity of light needed for a given task:
more light is not necessarily better, and often is worse than the right amount with the
correct characteristics.
In many instances, small quantities of light to demarcate, decorate or accent are much
better than a glaring neon-like line.
A good example that comes to mind is the uses in theatres, cinemas and public buildings
to line out corridors, aisles and emergency exits: in these instances the brightness of
neon would simply not be acceptable. Cou- pled with the beauty of color change
capabilities side emitting optics are a valuable tool in the hands of the designer for
outlining buildings, both externally and internally, pools, spas, cornices, gardens, and all
kinds of architectural details.
Another point not to be forgotten is the total safety of fiber optics. There is no electricity
in them. This means that in all those instances where high voltage neon simply cannot
be
55
contemplated because of danger, main- tenance or fragility; side-emitting fibers can be
the only sensible alternative.
42. . What are the design constraints to side emi tt ing opt ics?
The actual illuminance of side emitting optics is low, although the luminance is quite
acceptable in most cases. This means that if the contrast values are correctly applied the
visibility of the optics can be excellent. The actual quantity of ambient illuminance, the
colors of backgrounds, distance and line of vision are para- meters to be carefully
balanced, in order to obtain the best results.
43. . Could the l ight along a side emi tt ing opt ic be total ly homogeneous?
Despite the assurances of some manufacturers, this is a total impossibility because it
would clash with the laws of physics, as we know them.
In order for an optic to display the same illuminance along a given length, it would have
to be perfect: with no losses.
As soon as light is produced by an emitter starts to decay, in a similar fashion that a
bullet starts to lose speed from the moment it issues from the muzzle of a gun.
The light is not the same inch by inch in an optic as it leaves the optical port of the
illuminator: the farthest from the light source, less light, due to the attenuation of the
optic.
44. . Wi ll we always see a di fference in br ightness along an opt ic?
Not necessarily so. The human vision system appreciates illuminance grades in a
logarithmic fashion and if the transition was smooth would be very difficult to actually
notice the difference.
If we observe an optic of, say 30 meters, from one end to the other along the optic it
would not matter in which end is situated the illuminator: we would see the optic
homogeneously lit, although we know that it is not pos- sible. If we were to look at the
same optic sideways, from some distance, then we would notice the differen- ce in
luminance, because we could compare both ends.
The judicious use of illuminators, daisy chaining the optics, restricting the length of the
fibers to that recom- mended by manufacturers, the control of the contrast and the
angle of vision, are the tools needed for a suc- cessful installation.
45. . Can l ight be made to move or chase along a side emi tt ing opt ic?
With roped or braided multicore fiber and a special process at the common end optics
can be made to chase in both directions and display multiple colors at the same time.

56
46. . Are the side- emi tt ing f ibers wi th ref lect ing core more luminous?
To answer this question honestly is very much like trying to determine the sex of the
angels.
If a side emitting light guide has a center reflecting core it would appear that it would
issue more light omni directionally, this is to say: if the light guide was suspended in
mid-air and viewed from any angle.
The problem with that argument is that those optics are, normally attached to a support
and viewed from fixed angles. The opaque centerpiece, in this case, would impede the
passage of light from behind the core and hence the optic would have less light available
to the viewer.
Side-emitting light guides are sheathed in a transparent cover and the viewer, by
transparency, has the bene- fit of the light escaping not only from the individual fibers
placed directly in front of his line of vision but also from the ones behind.
If we take a glass tube filled with a colored liquid and light it up from one end, we could
view the whole of the mass as a lit-up cylinder. If we then place a concentric opaque
core, from a given direction we would have less vision of the cylinder mass. The same
would hold true with any transparent cylinder.
To prove this argument is a practical impossibility since it would require two optics,
with and without core of the same size and optical properties, placed exactly on the
same spot in an illuminator. In my opinion, no mat- ter the patents, the so-called center
reflecting cores do not add more light to a guide and probably rests light to the viewer
and the system as a whole.
47. . Is there any way to improve side- emi tt ing viewing?
A side emitting light guide is viewed optimally when the contrast between the optic and
background is maximized. If the light guide is placed on a white track or against a tight
opaque white back the light is more apparent.
This does not mean that the optic issues more light, only that the illuminance falling on
the background impro- ves the overall luminance of the optic.
ILLUMINATORS
48. . What is an i l luminator?
An illuminator, light source or generator is a box with a lamp inside, pointing towards
an opening where fiber optics are secured. Naturally, this is an over-simplification,
although in reality a large number of the illuminators available in the industry are little
more than this.
49. . What makes a good i l luminator?
Illuminators must perform three separate tasks with a degree of efficiency. Firstly must

57
house a lamp and its power source, transformer, ballast, igniter and wiring in a correct
and safe manner.
Secondly, it must focus the light of the lamp in the most efficient way to ensure an
adequate performance. Thirdly, it must create a suitable environment to guarantee the
long life of the common end, this being the union with the fiber optics. With this last
task in mind, an illuminator must be designed to minimize the ther- mal load on the
screen by all possible means, filters, forced ventilation, air ducting and deflectors.
50. . Is bigger better?
It is somehow surprising that manufacturers place great emphasis in the power
consumption, stating that a machine is 50, 100 or 400 Watts, when in reality this has
little bearing on the overall performance of the illuminator.
In the lighting industry, the performance of a lamp is measured in a number of ways,
depending on the com- parison standards. The accepted data regarding a lamp's virtues
are, usually, efficiency and light output, although the single must important element is
the burner size.
Efficiency, determined in Lm/W, states the amount of light that a lamp produces for
each unit of energy used. Is very low on incandescent lamps, where most of the energy
is transformed in heat and very high in fluo- rescent and some types of discharge lamps,
such as low-pressure sodium. Unfortunately, neither of these last lamps can be used
sensibly with fiber optics.
The amount of light that a lamp makes is a useful piece of information when we try to
light up a warehouse or an office table but useless when used to project and concentrate
light on a given point. In this case the screen of the illuminator or the fiber common end.
The actual quantity and directionality of light reaching the screen, having little to do
with the power con- sumption of the machine, is the only measure of performance in an
illuminator.
Many lamps, specially the latest arrivals, have much improved light outputs, better
beam control and preci- sion. Paradoxically a last generation 50W-halogen lamp with a
dychroic reflector puts more light into a fiber than a 75W lamp with a similar
construction and outdated technology.
58
51. . How many types of i l luminators are there?
Since there are no standards in the industry, the term "type" is slightly confusing.
With regards to power usage, the lamp illuminators vary from as little as 5W to as much
as a 1.000W and more.
As far as the type of lamp, illuminators are divided into two families: those using
incandescent lamps, gene- rally halogen, and the ones equipped with gas discharge
lamps.
Illuminators can also be typed by use. Some are mainly used for lighting and others to
produce effects such as animations, color change or twinkles and sparkles.
52. . Halogen or gas discharge?
Again, it will depend on the use of the system. Gas discharge lamps, especially those
with a very small plasma area are ideally suited for use with optical systems such as
lenses or reflectors. Consequently, the quantity of light aimed in the right direction can
be far superior to that of a halogen lamp. Lumen output of these lamps is, usually
greater than their incandescent counterparts. Conventional means cannot be used to
regulate the output of gas discharge lamps. This means that if regulation is required
mechanical irises or com- plex high frequency oscillators have to be used.
Halogen lamps are smaller, less costly, and need simpler power supplies but give less
overall light.
For lighting and side light applications, gas discharge is used universally, reserving the
less powerful halogen light sources for effects and decoration.
It must be said, however, that if the correct halogen lamp, with the right projection
angle is used, excellent results can be obtained with small diameter harnesses.
53. . Must all i l luminators have forced vent i lat ion?
Generally yes, the exception being those with a massive construction, which dissipate
heat by radia- tion or transfer.
54. . How noisy is an i l luminator?
Very noisy, slightly so or totally silent, depending on the power source and the
construction.
Heat dissipation is something that has to be done by one of two means: radiation or
ventilation.
If radiation is the method chosen then the housing must have the mass and surface to
ensure dissipation of the heat. In ventilated systems, the air is the agent for cooling and
must be evacuated and renewed. The pro- blem is that some light sources are so hot
that would need an oversized housing to dissipate all the heat build up, clearly not a
very practical solution.
Silent illuminators use normally small halogen or gas discharge lamps, devoid of
mechanical ventilation and relying on radiation to cool the housing and dissipate the
heat. Generally,
59
works well only if placed outdoors or in a volume where the ambiance temperature is
considerable lower than that of the housing.
Forced air drought is used in most power illuminators and the noise can range from 20
or so dB to 70 or 80dB. Taking into account that noise in a forced air system is relative
to duct size and air speed, in addition to ven- tilator speed, mounting, vibration and
other related aspects is easy to suspect that design can vary the amount of noise that a
illuminator produces. This can be brought down to a minimum that can only be further
reduced by damping with noise suppression material.
55. . Are cert i f icat ions important?
That will depend on the type of certificate, what is certified and by who is granted. Many
certifications refer to the inherent safety of a product, with regards to accidental
electrical shock. In fact some certifications attest to the fact that the contraption will not
kill you, but say nothing, or very little, as far as the performance of the product. The
certificate on a washing machine says nothing to the effect that the thing will wash
clothes; only that is unlikely that you will get an electrical shock.
Some other certifications refer to the performance, but unfortunately, these are not
compulsory. In the fiber optics industry even these certificates are, very often
meaningless because there is little or no control on the interface between illuminator
and fiber. A laboratory report will say that a illuminator delivers so many screen lumens
but cannot say how many will get into the fiber, because that will depend on a number
of factors totally outside their scope.
56. . Are machines wi th the CE mark cert i f ied?
The CE mark was a good idea in its inception but it has been so much abused that has
become prac- tically meaningless for the end user.
CE is not a certification or a quality mark, moreover is not granted by any official body
or controlled in any way, distributors or end users have no right whatsoever to demand
a CE certificate from the manufacturer, even if his products bear the stamp.
CE is a declaration from the manufacturer stating that the object complies with CE
directives and regulations. Really is the equivalent to taking the words of a used car
salesman as Gospel truth.
The market is awash with shoddy products of uncertain origin and parentage bearing
the CE mark, products that, obviously, do not conform to any regulation whatsoever.
In a resume: the CE mark does not attest or imply any quality or fitness for use of the
object bearing the stamp. It only says that the manufacturer declares that his product is
built in accordance with the community directives, under his own responsibility and
without effective control by an official body.
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57. . How then do I recognize a product ' s qual i ty?
There are a number of ways. The name and status of the company making the product is
important and its geographical location. Some countries are famous for making good
quality products and others just the opposite.
The stamp of approval of an internationally recognized testing organization is a sure
way of knowing that the product has been tested and found built to very high standards.
Generally, such institutes or laboratories have follow-up programs that control the
manufacturing and quality processes of the manufacturer.
It can be said, with a level of certainty, that a machine bearing one or several such
stamps has a traceable pedigree and is well made.
58. . What about ISO 9000 ?
Again there seems to be confusion about the ISO 9000 series of certifications. The ISO in
essence is not a guarantee of good quality and is not given to an object but to a
company.
ISO 9000 is, in lays terms, a system that removes anarchy from management or
production, making sure that things are made always the same and with the same
quality, which is not a mean feat.
It does not guarantee that the products are good but with a constant in quality. If a
manufacturer makes a good gizmo or widget, the ISO 9000 certificate guarantee that it
will always be good. For the same token if someone makes a bad product the ISO will
ensure that is always bad. A combination of ISO 9000 and labo- ratory certificates on a
product is the surest way to ascertain that an object, an illuminator in this case, is good
and will remain so.
59. . How does a color change works?
It consists generally of a small, geared motor with a disc. This can be made of glass, glass
segments or a polymer material in a number of colors.
The motor causes the disc to revolve in from of the common end, altering the color of
the issuing light. Lower priced systems use colored films or glass whilst most others
make use of dychroic filters.
In animation illuminators instead of a disc, there is a turning drum of glass or
polycarbonate with color films or varnishes applied in special patterns to create
movement and rapid color changes.
60. . What is a dychroic f i l ter?
A thin flat piece of glass with a metal deposition in one of the surfaces applied in a high
61
vacuum envi- ronment. The metal layer, only a few atoms thick causes interference in
the
incoming light, letting some fre- quencies pass whilst stopping others.
This frequency separation has the effect of producing very saturated and vibrant colors.
Depending on the deposition type, all visible light can be allowed to pass through, whilst
stopping infrared or ultraviolet radiation. In fact, there is a dychroic or interference
filter to
separate practically all frequencies in the spectrum.
61. . Are heat fuses necessary?
The working temperature range of the fiber optics common end is critical if the
performance of the sys- tem is to be maintained and the life guaranteed. A heat fuse of
thermostat must be installed in such a way as to disconnect the illuminator should there
be a
heat build up.
Heat can accumulate rapidly for a number of reasons: a failed fan, obstructions on the
air
passages or poor ventilation. A 50ºC thermostat should be the most adequate.
It must be borne in mind that the ambiance temperature in which illuminators must
operate
seldom allow more than 25ºC, a very low temperature to maintain in most instances.
62. . Can mul t iple i l luminators change colors simul taneously?
Yes. Generally the standard disc rotating motors are of the synchronous type, very
reliable, and gea- red to the most adequate speed. The problem is that, although
individually
these motors work fine, is difficult to make two or more act in perfect synchronization
with
each other without additional mechanical or electro- nic gear.
A simple micro switch and an adequate wiring can make any number of synchronous
motors
operate at the same time in perfect step.
Some manufacturers offer a variable speed synchronizer to control their illuminators
with
special motors, zero settings and electronic control gear.
63. . Can i l luminators be computer control led?
Practically everything can be computer controlled and illuminators are not an
exception. Color discs, lamp voltage and mechanical shutters, in the case of gas
discharge
lamps, can be programmed and contro- lled with a computer.
This is normally offered as an option on most illuminators, using step motors and DMX
control.
64. . What is DMX?
A communications protocol between an electronic circuit and step motors and
actuators. A kind of lan- guage between elements so that different manufacturers can
use
compatible components which will work happily understanding the same data.

62
ENDS,FITTINGSANDTERMINALS
65. . What are end terminat ions?
Again, we find ourselves in an area where a lot of confusion and controversy are the
order of the day. Some American institutions have tried to set standards as to the
correct
terminology to be applied in fiber optics specification. The problems is that not every
manufacturer is American and was not asked their opinion in the matter, hence many
people
use different names referring to the same part or component.
With Illuminators happens the same as with ends, one can see reflected in
manufacturer's
literature names such as: light engine, light source, generator, etc. All refers to the same
box
with lamp inside.
End terminations suffer the same fate: single end, fiber end, single termination, emitting
end,
tip, end, final, common end, bundle head, head, end ferrule, etc.
In order to set a common ground we will use the term single end and common end.
Terminations therefore are the extremes of a single fiber or a group of fibers.
66. . What are single ends?
The extreme of the fiber optics conductor farthest from the illuminator. The bit that
emits
light or the end that lights up.
67. . Are there many types of single ends?
Single ends can be anything from a simple cut with snips or a cutter to a sophisticated
polished encap- sulation. The actual technique used depends not only on the type of
fiber but
also on the application of the system.
68. . Is the f iber end important?
As far as the actual light output the fiber termination has little influence on the overall
light output. It is however, very important, when at the single end will be fixed some
lens
system. Imperfections, scratches, dig and fractures at the single end termination will
show as
darker patches on the resulting beam.
The mechanical connection between the single end and the finishing piece, being a
board or
housing is also dependent on the actual finish and precision of the single end. Ferrules,
machined pieces and connectors have to be scrupulously free of adhesives and with
even
diameters, to ensure a precise fitting.

63
69. . How are glass f ibers ended?
Glass fibers are, generally potted or encapsulated at the single end with the help of an
epoxy adhesi- ve or compound. This results on a very hard element of fibers and
adhesive
that, when hardened, is suitable for cutting flush and polishing or buffing.
This encapsulation is generally enclosed on a hollow brass tube, rivet or machined
piece,
which then serves as a fixing, or positioning aid.
Glass fibers permit some sophisticated single end termination to support extreme
temperatures or working conditions. Special potting adhesives can be used and ends
processed to an operating temperature of 400ºC, indicated for oven and burner sensors
and
controls. In these instances, special thermal bridges have to be built into the fiber to
protect
the conductor.
Other terminations can be in the shape of wafers, rings, blocks or lines for machine
vision,
instrument ligh- ting, microscopy and other highly specialized lighting applications.
70. . How are polymer f ibers terminated?
PMMA fiber single ends can be of several types always depending on the nature of the
conductor and the final application. A Simply cut fiber with cutters or snips is a
standard for
decorative, display and sign uses. The same type of encapsulation as for glass fibers can
be
used with multiple single conductors and for the same applications with the exception
of high
temperature work.
For most decorative and lighting uses PMMA fibers are considerably more user friendly
than
glass fibers. Very simple tools and little skill are, in most instances, sufficient to produce
stunning results on site, without having to result to factory custom made and cut
components
which results in dramatic cost reductions.
PMMA fibers can also be polished to a mirror finish with buffing compounds and
machines
without encapsu- lation for single fibers. Common ends must always be fused together,
without using adhesives. Some fiber manufacturers specifically render their guarantee
void if
adhesives of any kind are used at the common end. Fusion produces a solid block ,
which can
the be polished to a very high optical finish.
71. . How are sol id core f ibers terminated?
The very architecture of solid core fibers makes the precise termination a difficult
operation, although it must be said that in most applications a precise end is academic.
Solid core fibers are considerably softer than PMMA or glass and hardness is a pre-
condition
for precise polis- hing. Additionally if an attempt is made to polishing, the compounds,
(whether Cerium based or otherwise) are always in a wax or grease medium and seep
in

64
between the Teflon coating and the core, ruining the optic. Standard finishing
techniques for
the single ends dispense with polishing and resolve to cutting with special tools where
the
quality and sharpness of the blade determines the accuracy of the cut. Further polishing
can
be accomplished with thermal treatment but only in factory installations.
Research is under way to polish solid core fibers using very low temperatures or else
with
water jets and laser cutters with uncertain degree of success.
72. . How are coi led, twisted or roped f ibers terminated?
In general terms the same techniques as with PMMA apply, since these optics are no
more that 0,75mm diameter PMMA fibers bunched together.
In the case of coiled optics the sheath and the internal core (if existing) has to be
removed
because of the different nature, melting point and physic characteristics with respect to
the
fibers.
Wherever possible both extremes of a sidelight light guide should be fused and glass
polished.
73. . What is a common end?
The fiber or fibers have to be connected to the illuminator. Especially in the case of a
number of fibers, these have to be bunched together and held securely. The common
end is
the grouping, fusion or encapsu- lation where all of the fibers from a bundle come
together
and are cut flush and even, polished or prepared to connect to the illuminator port.
74. . Is the common end important?
Although manufacturers place more attention on fibers and illuminators the common
end is a vital piece for the correct operation of an optical fiber system.
A properly engineered common end must pack the fibers tightey without adhesives and
be
suitable for fine polishing.
Most failures on fiber optics are due to a bad common end design and construction.
The use of potting adhesives is the single cause most commonly found in harness
failure, both
in glass and PMMA systems and should be avoided at all costs since it only reduces the
overall
life expectancy of the sys- tem.
75. . What makes a good common end?
The capacity to hold the fibers ever and flush, lack of adhesives, optical polish and
absence of packing losses.
76. . How many types of common end are there?

65
Basically two: adhesive encapsulated and state of the art fused, although some
manufactures dispen- se with both and simply fasten the fibers to the illuminator by
means of
a pressure gland.
77. . What is a randomized common end?
When several light guides are bundled together into a single common end it becomes a
physical impos- sibility to attain the same level of light in each light guide because the
lamp
emission is not totally even on the screen plane. In order to minimize the differences
individual fibers are mixed or "randomized" so that each light guide gathers its light
from
different geometrical points within the screen. Light issuing from individual ends in a
randomized system is considerably more even but not perfectly so.
In polymer fiber systems state of the art optical randomizers can achieve greater
evenness with little
loss.
78. . What are end f i tt ings?
Practically the only part of a fiber optic system that the public ever sees. End fittings are
the elements for fixing, aiming, supporting and finishing the fiber ends.
79. . How many types of end f i tt ings are there?
Literally thousands for every thought or dreamed up application. From small bullet
lenses to very large pavers, floor and pool lights. From simple rings and bezels to
complex
optical trains with several lenses, besi- des hundreds of custom designed elements for
specific
applications and uses.
80. . Fi tt ings or f ixtures?
In the industry, these terms are used indistinctly and often together. Some
manufacturers describe fittings as the fixing elements, such as connectors, ferrules,
machined
ends, tubular rivets and bezel rings, reserving the term fixtures for large elements,
swivel
rings, pool luminaries and the like.
Other manufacturers use the term fitting to describe anything at the end of the fibers.
81. . Who manufactures end f i tt ings?
Every system manufacturer produces a range of end fittings designed to be used with
their own fiber system.
82. . Are end f i tt ings standard?

66
As a whole no. Each system manufacturer favors a kind of termination for his fibers
with
pressure glands, threads, rivets or machined pieces as connectors for his own fittings.
Due to
the absolute lack of stan- dards in the industry, it becomes impossible to use one
manufacturer's fittings with the fibers of other.
83. . What is an opt ical port?
In the fiber optics industry, optical port is the element that physically makes the
connection or interfa- ce between the illuminator and the harness. In its simplest form,
an
optical port is made of male and female tubes fitting one inside the other with a
retaining
screw or other fastener. More sophisticated optical ports include filter holders and
various
devices to adjust, conform and cool the common end.
84. . Are there di fferent types of opt ical ports?
Optical ports can be divided in two types: potting and pressure. Potting optical ports are
little more than a hollow tube into which the fibers are introduced and encapsulated
with
some adhesive, making a block to be later polished.
Pressure optical ports are more sophisticated and include seals to grip tightly, by means
of a
tool, the har- ness of fibers.
Glass fibers are always prepared in potting optical ports whilst solid core fibers use
pressure
optical ports. PMMA fibers can have the common end in either.
85. . Who manufactures opt ical ports?
All system integrator produce a particular type of optical port to connect to their choice
of
illuminator.
86. . Are opt ical ports compat ible?
In general no. Illuminator manufacturers use a particular type of optical port to effect
the connection with the common end. As a whole, the harness made by a given
manufacturer
will not fit into the illuminator made by another without retooling.
87. . What is a f iber opt ics system?
The term comprises all the necessary elements to install a working unit.

67
SYSTEMS
88. . What is a f iber opt ics systems integrator?
A fiber optics system integrator purchases the bulk fibers from a fiber optics
manufacturer, and ende- avor to manipulate, cut, polish, assemble, pack, produce and
market a
final product.
89. . What is the di fference between a f iber opt ics manufacturer and a f iber
opt ics system manufacturer?
This is a question that would sound silly in other industries but not in this one. Many
firms hint, or even affirm in their brochures and catalogues to be fiber optics
manufacturers
when this is simply not true. A Com- pany that manufactures fiber optics is the one that
transforms polymers, monomers or glass raw materials into rods and filaments,
cladding
those with other elements to, finally create bulk fiber optics.
One can readily see the difference between a glass manufacturer, a glass merchant and a
window manufac- turer. The first takes sand and melts it into glass the second stores
and
trades with glass and the third incor- porates glass into his final product: a window.
If one looks at the giant chemical and glass corporations it's a fair bet that they are fiber
optics manufactu- rers.
On the other hand, most fiber optics companies are System Integrators. This is to say
that
they do not make fibers, just like the window producer does not make glass.
90. . Who are the best f iber opt ics manufacturers?
To single out a company would be grossly unfair because in this business the players
are, generally, respected industrial corporations with impeccable quality reputations.
State of the art fiber optics cannot be made in a garage shed and huge investments have
to be
made in plant, equipment and human resources to produce optics of any kind.
The overall quality of fibers in the market is exceptionally high and it must be said that
the
failures and disas- ters that may have happened have had nothing to do with the quality
of the
fibers but with the handling and application of systems.

68
91. . Who are the best systems integrators?
Being quite the opposite to fiber optics manufacturers, system producers
are usually small companies. In this case size has the opposite effect on the
final product because fiber optics system design require an inordinate amount
of ingenuity, talent and technical expertise even for tiny projects. The fast
responses, ins- tant drawings, quotations and studies normally demanded are
very hard to produce in a corporate environ- ment.
Naturally, this means that some system integrators are little more than a oneman
band and some operations are run on a shoestring with more enthusiasm
than resources.
On the other hand many system integrators have very little know-how and
soon get into trouble with the laws of physics.
Product certification, documentation, information and references are the
easiest way to ascertain the profes- sional reputation of a manufactures
In this industry when detailed and precise technical information is not
forthcoming and things are shrouded in a veil of secrecy, it usually means that
for the manufacturer the thing is also a mystery.
92. . How many parts does a f iber opt ics system have?
Depending on the final use the most common parts to account for in a
basic system are: illuminator, fiber bundle, bushing and end fittings.
Additional fittings, fixtures, controlling units and power sources may be used
harness, optical port.
93. . Are f iber opt ics systems expensive?
To determine whether a system is expensive one would have to
establish a comparison with an alter- native, which in most cases does not
exist.
To compare fiber optics with a standard off the shelf light fitting, lamp or
system is an unfair rule of thumb because fiber optics are unique.
Fiber optics systems can carry minute or large amounts of light to, practically
any place with precision, wit- hout heat or electricity and with the light source
far away.
69
If the fiber optics system is to be used in applications where the above values
were of no consequence then one would have to say that there is no need for
it.
Fiber optics are not the universal solution to all lighting problems but a tool or
a technique to be used in cir- cumstances where other systems would be at a
disadvantage or even totally inadequate.
If one compares a one point of conventional light fixture with a one-point fiber
optics system then the price difference would weigh heavily in favor of the
standard fixture. If we compare several fixtures and one fiber optics system
with several light guides and one illuminator, taking into account the
maintenance advantages and power savings, then one would have to concede
that fiber optics are cheap.
94. . Wi ll f iber opt ics systems be cheaper in the future?
Lighting fiber optics is not a mass-market product and perhaps will never
be. Even today most systems are, at least in part, hand crafted or produced in
small batches of a few hundred units at most. Very few items are made in the
thousands, with the exception of injected parts, which have a very low unit
cost.
From a manufacturing point of view short series are very expensive to
produce, since the cost advantages of bulk purchase and manufacturing are
missing.
Fiber optics groups or harnesses could easily be mass-produced with very
important savings, which would reduce unit costs drastically. The problem is
that very seldom, harnesses are of the same size or have the same fiber
composition. Consequently, they have to be hand tailored, practically one by
one, which results on very high production costs.
Another reason for the high unit costs of systems is the technical backup that
system manufacturers have to provide. Nearly all of the installations have to
be individually assessed, studied and estimated in house, because of the lack
of widespread technical expertise elsewhere. This means that expensive
technical departments have to be kept in order to provide know-how on a
daily basis.
95. . Are f iber opt ics systems di ff icult to instal l?

70
Again, it becomes important to establish a fair comparison with other
elements, in this case ordinary light fixtures.
Fiber optics systems, as a whole, are easier to install than electrical fittings.
Sometimes displays, panels, ceilings, effects or projects are made involving
thousands or even hundreds of thousands of single optical fiber ends which, to
be fair, are a challenge to install.
The problem in these cases is of sheer numbers, size and complexity. In any
case to install a point of fiber optics is considerably easier than to install an
electrical point.
96. . What is a starry sky?
Probably one of the most beautiful lighting effects that can be created,
which can be very simple or quite sophisticated.
In its simplest form, a starry sky effect is made with a number of small
diameter fibers coupled to a large solid core, which delivers the light from the
illuminator. This creates a number of static points of the same diame- ter,
which can be quite effective if a little flat.
More elaborate systems use several fiber caliber's, from 0,25mm to 3mm
diameter and run directly to the illu- minator. The several sizes of fiber make
for different intensities on the point light, giving the effect of distan- ce and
perspective creating great depth. Coupled with a twinkle effect wheel the
effect can be quite stunning.
97. . What is an effect wheel?
A disc of metal or polycarbonate revolving between the lamp and the
common end with holes, slits, colors or patterns.
98. . What is an animat ion harness?
A group of fiber optics arranged in a sequential fashion and numbered.
The fibers are then installed in the same order and, with the help of special
illuminators, movement can be added to lines or patterns.
99. . What are spat ial effects?

71
Representations of comets, nebulas, shooting stars and others, made with
often thousands of indivi- dual fibers and animation illuminator.
100. . How would you descr ibe in one word f iber opt ics l ight ing systems?
Magic
__

____________________________________________
BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication Systems

UNIT IV: Orbital Mechanics and Launchers


This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite
Orbits”.
1. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design altitude? a)
Continue to orbit the earth b) Fall back c) Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed
d) Stays where it was released View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: If a satellite were launched vertically from the earth and then released, it
would fall back to earth because of gravity. For the satellite to go into orbit around the earth, it
must have some forward motion. For that reason, when the satellite is launched, it is given both
vertical and forward motion.
2. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Although the speed of the satellite is constant its direction keeps on
changing as the orbit is circular or elliptical. The rate of change of velocity vector is acceleration
and hence its direction changes, the satellite is under acceleration.
3. Why does the orbit take the shape of an ellipse or circle? a) Position can be easily determined
b) Consume less fuel c) Most efficient geometry d) Better coverage on earth View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A satellite rotates about the earth in either a circular or an elliptical path.
Circles and ellipses are geometric figures that can be accurately described mathematically.
Because the orbit is either circular or elliptical, it is possible to calculate the position of a satellite
at any given time.
4. The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______ a) Retrograde b)
Posigrade c) Perigee d) Apogee View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The direction of satellite rotation may be either in the same direction as
the earth’s rotation or against the direction of earth’s rotation. In the former case, the orbit is said
to be posigrade, and in the latter case, retrograde. Most orbits are posigrade.
5. When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit? a) Retrograde b) Posigrade c)
Perigee d) Apogee View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: In an elliptical orbit, the speed changes depending upon the height of the
satellite above the earth. Naturally, the speed of the satellite is greater when it is close to the earth
than when it is far away. The closest point is called the perigee.
6. Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that are far away from earth.
a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Satellites that are near earth have to move at higher speeds to sustain
their orbit since the gravitational pull is much higher. Since the effect of gravity is less at higher
altitudes, satellites that far away require less speeds.
7. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________ a) Lapsed time
b) Time period c) Sidereal period d) Unit frequency View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The period is the time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit. It is
also called the sidereal period. A sidereal orbit uses some external fixed or apparently motionless
object such as the sun or star for reference in determining a sidereal period.
8. The period of time that elapses between the successive passes of the satellite over a given
meridian of earth longitude is called as _____________ a) synodic period b) Lapsed time c) Time
period d) Sidereal period View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Another method of expressing the time for one orbit is the revolution or
synodic period. One revolution (1 r) is the period of time that elapses between the successive
passes of the satellite over a given meridian of earth longitude. Naturally, the synodic and sidereal
periods differ from each other because of the earth’s rotation.
9. What is the angle of inclination for a satellite following an equatorial orbit? a) 0° b) 180° c)
45° d) 90° View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Another definition of inclination is the angle between the equatorial plane
and the satellite orbital plane as the satellite enters the northern hemisphere. When the angle of
inclination is 0°, the satellite is directly above the equator. Orbits with 0° inclination are generally
called equatorial orbits.
10. The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line
between the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s horizon is called as ___________ a) Angle of
inclination b) Angle of elevation c) Apogee angle d) LOS angle View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: The angle of elevation of a satellite is the angle that appears between the
line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line between the earth station’s
antenna and the earth’s horizon. If the angle of elevation is too small, the signals between the
earth station and the satellite have to pass through much more of the earth’s atmosphere. Because
of the very low powers used and the high absorption of the earth’s atmosphere.
11. To use a satellite for communication relay or repeater purposes what type of orbit will be the
best? a) Circular orbit b) Elliptical orbit c) Geosynchronous orbit d) Triangular orbit View
Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The best solution is to launch a synchronous or geostationary satellite. In
a geosynchronous earth orbit. Since the satellite remains apparently fixed, no special earth station
tracking antennas are required. The antenna is simply pointed at the satellite and remains in a
fixed position. With this arrangement, continuous communication is possible.
12. What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see? a) 20 b) 50 c) 70 d) 40 View
Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Most communication satellites in use today are of the geosynchronous
variety. Approximately 40 percent of the earth’s surface can be “seen” or accessed from such a
satellite. Users inside that area can use the satellite for communication.
13. What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite called? a)
Satellite point b) Subsatellite point c) Supersatellite point d) Overhead point View Answer
Answer:b Explanation: The satellite location is specified by a point on the surface of the earth
directly below the satellite. This point is known as the subsatellite point (SSP). The subsatellite
point is then located by using conventional latitude and longitude designations.
Communication Systems”.
1. The satellite that is used as a relay to extend communication distance is called as __________
a) Relay satellites b) Communication satellites c) Repeater satellites d) Geosynchronous satellites
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Communication satellites are not originators of information to be
transmitted. If a transmitting station cannot communicate directly with one or more receiving
stations because of line-of-sight restrictions, a satellite can be used. The transmitting station sends
the information to the satellite, which in turn re-transmits it to the receiving stations.
2. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______ a) Relay b)
Repeater c) Transponder
d) Duplexer View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a
transponder. The basic functions of a transponder are amplification and frequency translation.
The reason for frequency translation is that the transponder cannot transmit and receive on the
same frequency.
3. The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The original signal being transmitted from the earth station to the satellite
is called the uplink, and the re-transmitted signal from the satellite to the receiving stations is
called the downlink. Usually, the downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency. A
typical uplink frequency is 6 GHz, and a common downlink frequency is 4 GHz.
4. What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite? a) More number of
operating channel b) Better reception c) More gain d) Redundancy View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: To be economically feasible, a satellite must be capable of handling
several channels. As a result, most satellites contain multiple transponders, each operating at a
different frequency. Each transponder represents an individual communication channel.
5. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication? a) More
bandwidth b) More spectrum space c) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere d) Economically
viable View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: VHF, UHF, and microwave signals penetrate the ionosphere with little or
no attenuation and are not refracted to earth. Lower frequencies undergo total internal refraction
and get reflected back to earth.
6. What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite communication? a) Lesser
attenuation b) Less power requirements
c) More bandwidth d) Overcrowding View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: Most new communication satellites will operate in the Ku band. This
upward shift in frequency is happening because the C band is overcrowded. Many
communication satellites are in orbit now, most of them operating in the C band. However, there
is some difficulty with interference because of the heavy usage. The only way this interference
will be minimized is to shift all future satellite communication to higher frequencies.
7. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication? a) MF b) Ku c) X d)
C View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: MF is a lower frequency band than Ku, C and X bands and does not lie in
the microwave spectrum. Microwaves are used for satellite communication since the lower bands
get reflected by the ionosphere.
8. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary transmission and
has a bandwidth of 36MHz? a) 32Mpbs b) 72Mpbs c) 36Mpbs d) 12Mpbs View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: For binary transmission, the maximum theoretical data rate or channel
capacity C for a given bandwidth B is C = 2B = 2(36) =72Mpbs.
9. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out? a) Reduce traffic
load b) More gain c) High speed d) Error detection View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: at times there is more traffic than there are transponders to handle it. For
that reason, numerous techniques have been developed to effectively increase the bandwidth and
signal-carrying capacity of the satellite. Two of these techniques are known as frequency reuse
and spatial isolation.
10. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency? a)
Spatial isolation b) Frequency reuse c) Multiplexing d) Modulation View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: In the frequency reuse technique two systems use the same frequency,
although operating on exactly the same frequencies, they are isolated from each other by the use
of special antenna techniques. For example, a vertically polarized antenna will not respond to a
horizontally polarized signal and vice versa. Or a left-hand circularly polarized (LHCP) antenna
will not respond to a right-hand circularly polarized (RHCP) signal and vice versa.
11. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the satellite into
smaller segments? a) Spatial isolation b) Frequency reuse c) Multiplexing d) Modulation View
Answer
Answer: a Explanation: By using narrow beam or spot beam antennas, the area on the earth
covered by the satellite can be divided up into smaller segments. Earth stations in each segment
may actually use the same frequency, but because of the very narrow beam widths of the
antennas, there is no interference between adjacent segments.
12. Spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) depends on satellite location and not frequency. a)
True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Spatial-division multiple access uses spatial isolation technique. Earth
stations in each segment may actually use the same frequency, but because of the very narrow
beam widths of the antennas, there is no interference between adjacent segments. This technique
is referred to a spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) in that access to the satellite depends on
location and not frequency.
This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite
This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite
Subsystems”.
1. Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem? a) Ground station b) Power system c)
Telemetry tracking d) Communication subsystem View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The communication subsystem is the most important part of the satellite.
It requires varies additional systems like the power system, propulsion system, telemetry system
for its proper functioning. The ground system however is not one of the satellite subsystem and is
independent of the satellite. It is just a transponder to monitor and command the satellite.
2. Which of the following is not a part of the propulsion subsystem of a satellite? a) Gyroscope b)
Jet thruster c) AKM d) Fuel control system View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The propulsion subsystem consists of the AKM(Apogee kick motor), jet
thruster and the fuel control system. Gyroscopes and other attitude systems fall under the attitude
control subsystem.
3. Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth ground
station? a) Navigational data, computer data, video b) Computer data, navigational data, voice c)
Voice, video, computer data d) Computer data View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: An earth station takes the signals to be transmitted, known as baseband
signals, and modulates a microwave carrier. The three most common baseband signals are voice,
video, and computer data.
4. Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and re-transmits
the signal in a satellite? a) Repeater b) Relay c) Transponder d) Transducer View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: The uplink signals from earth are amplified, translated in frequency, and
re-transmitted on the downlink to one or more earth stations. The component that performs this
function is known as a transponder.
5. Why is there a huge spectrum space between the transmitted and received signal in satellite
communication? a) Reduce interference b) Maximum efficiency c) Less attenuation d) To reduce
space occupied by filters View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: Because of the close proximity of the transmitter and the receiver in the
satellite, the high transmitter output power for the downlink is picked up by that satellite receiver.
Naturally, the uplink signal is totally obliterated. Furthermore, the transmitter output fed back
into the receiver input causes oscillation. To avoid this problem, the receiver and transmitter in
the satellite transponder are designed to operate at separate frequencies. In this way, they will not
interfere with each other.
6. Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink signal using two
mixers a) Single conversion transponders b) Dual conversion transponders c) Regenerative
transponders d) Dual mixer transponder View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: A dual-conversion transponder makes the frequency translation in two
steps with two mixers. No demodulation occurs.
7. In a regenerative transponder, the signal is demodulated and modulated again before
transmission. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: A regenerative repeater demodulates the uplink signal after the frequency
is translated to some lower intermediate frequency. The recovered baseband signal is then used to
modulate the downlink signal.
8. What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency and frequency
reuse is implemented? a) 12 b) 6 c) 24 d) 3 View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Since in frequency reuse each channel can be used twice the numbers of
transponders are also doubled. 12 x 2 = 24 transponders, two for each frequency.
9. Why is it not possible to provide transmit function by wideband amplifier and mixer circuits?
a) Heavy attenuation b) High power output over wideband is not possible c) Economically not
profitable d) Weight of the system increases five fold View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: it is generally not possible to generate very high output power over such
wide bandwidth. The fact is that no components and circuits can do this well. The high-power
amplifiers in most transponders are traveling-wave tubes that inherently have limited bandwidth.
They operate well over a small range but cannot deal with the entire 500-MHz bandwidth
allocated to a satellite.
10. Which of the following is not true? a) Battery is only used as a back up b) When in orbit,
solar power is always available c) Battery is used for initial satellite orientation and stabilization
d) The batteries are charged using solar power View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: When a satellite goes into an eclipse or when the solar panels are not
properly positioned, there is a temporary cut in solar power supply. In situations like this the
batteries take over temporarily and keep the satellite operating. The batteries are not large enough
to power the satellite for a long time; they are used as a backup system for eclipses, initial
satellite orientation and stabilization, or emergency conditions.
11. Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station to monitor and
control conditions in the satellite. a) True b) False View Answer
Answer: a Explanation: The telemetry system is used to report the status of the onboard
subsystems to the ground station. The telemetry system typically consists of various electronic
sensors whose data are selected by a multiplexer and then converted to a digital signal, which
then modulates an internal transmitter. This transmitter sends the telemetry information back to
the earth station, where it is recorded and monitored.
Q1. Satellite engine uses …………
a. Jet propulsion b. Ion propulsion system c. Liquid fuel d. Solar jet
Answer : b
Q2. The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam is known as ……..
a. Beam width b. Band width c. Footprint d. Zone
Answer : c
Q3. What kind of battery used by older satellites ?
a. Lithium b. Leclanche c. Hydrogen d. Magnesium
Answer : c
Q4. The location of AsiaSat I.
a. 105.5˚ East b. 151.5˚ East
c. 115.5˚ East d. 170.5˚ East
Answer : a
Q5. To make antenna more directional, either its size must be increased or
a. the number of its feed horns must be increased b.the frequency of its transmission must be
increased c. its effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) must be increased d. its footprint must
be increased
Answer : b
Q6. India’s first domestic geostationary satellite 1NSAT-IA was launched on 10th April
1982 from
a. USSR b.USA c. UK d. UP
Answer : b
Q7. Satellite launch sites are invariably located on Eastern seaboards to ensure that
a. launch takes place eastward b. expenditure of propulsion fuel is reduced during plane changing
c. the satellite achieves circular orbit quickly d. spent rocket motor and other launcher debris falls
into the sea
Answer : d
Q8. The owner of a communication satellite is usually required to keep the spacecraft on
station at its assigned place in the geosynchronous orbit with an accuracy of __________
degree.
a. 0.1 b. 1.0 c. 2.0 d. 0.5
Answer : a
Q9. The number of days when Earth’s shadow falls on a geosynchronous satellite is
a. 88 b. 277 c. 5 d. 10
Answer : a
Q10. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is
……….
a. Uplink b. Downlink c. Terrestrial d. Earthbound
Answer : b
Q11. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of …………..
a. Circular polarization b. Maneuverability c. Beamwidth d. Gain
Answer : a
Q12. What band does VSAT first operate?
a. L-band b. X-band c. C-band d. Ku-band
Answer : c
Q13. VSAT was made available in ……..
a. 1979 b. 1981 c. 1983 d. 1977
Answer : a
Q14. ……………. collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite
a. Helical antenna b. Satellite dish c. LNA d. TWT
Answer : b
Q15. ………….is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth’s atmosphere.
a. Atmospheric loss b. Path loss c. Radiation loss d. RFI
Answer : b
Q16. …………… is considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system.
a. Coverage b. Cost c. Access d. Privacy
Answer : d
Q17. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite ……………
a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same d. None of the above
Answer : a
Q18. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earth’s surface is called ……………
a. Zone beam b. Hemispheric beam c. Spot beam d. Global beam
Answer : d
Q19. A geosynchronous satellite
a. has the same period a that of the Earth b. has a circular orbit c. rotates in the equatorial plane
d. has all of the above
Answer : d
Q20. A transponder is a satellite equipment which
a. receives a signal from Earth station and amplifies b. changes the frequency of the received
signal c. retransmits the received signal d. does all of the above-mentioned functions
Answer : d
Q21. The INTELSAT-IV satellite launched in 1974 had two earth coverage antenna and
two narrower-angle antennas subtending 4.5°. The signal from narrow-angle antenna was
stronger than that from earth- coverage antenna by a factor of ……………
a. 17.34/4.5 b. 17.34/4.5 c. (17.34/4.5)2 d. (17.34/4.5)4
Answer : c
Q22. The angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is ………..
a. 17.34° b. 51.4° c. 120° d. 60°
Answer : a
Q23. The discussing sharing of a communication satellite by many geographically dispersed
Earth station, DAMA means
a. Demand-Assigned Multiple Access b. Decibel Attenuated Microwave Access c. Digital
Analog Master Antenna d. Dynamically-Assigned Multiple Access
Answer : a
Q24. A 20 m antenna gives a certain uplink gain at frequencies of 4/6 GHz. For
getting same gain in the 20/30 GHz band, antenna size required is ……… metre.
a. 100 b. 4 c. 1 d. 10
Answer : b
Q25. Of the four INSAT-I satellites planned by India so for, only …………… has
proved to be successful.
a. INSAT-IA b. INSAT-IB c. INSAT-IC d. INSAT-ID
Answer : b
Q26. Radio broadcasting is a familiar example of …………….
a. space multiplexing b. time multiplexing c. frequency multiplexing d. none of the above
Answer : c
Q27. As compared to 17.34° antenna, the total increase in the signal relayed by 4.5° antenna
of INTELSAT-IV is ……….
a. 14.85 b. 220 c. 78 d. 3.85
Answer : b
Q28. Which one of the following statements regarding DSI is false?
a. It is a digital form of TASI b. Though it is more efficient than TASI, it is much slower c. A
speaker has to wait (it at all) for only a few milliseconds for reallocation of channel
d. It has increased the capacity of satellite channels by a factor of 2.2 or more with out degrading
speech quality
Answer : b
Q29. Which one of the following statements regarding compandor is FALSE?
a. It compresses the higher-amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back
to normal again after demodulation. b. It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the
signal c. For weaker signals it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error d. Weaker
signals, traverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error is
reduced.
Answer : c
Q30. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the ………. ratio.
a. C/N b. S/N c. G/T d. EIRP
Answer :a
Q31. The useful operational life of INSAT-IB (launched in 1983) is expected to end by
a. 1992-93 b. 1991-92 c. 1989-90 d. 1993-94
Answer : c
Q32. At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is ……….
a. EHF b. UHF c. VHF d. SHF
Answer : d
Q33. Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the
a. moon b. sun c. earth d. all of the above
Answer : d
Q34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Satellite spacing is not affected by the bandwidth of the transmitting earth station b.
Beamwidth is independent of antenna size and frequency band used c. The width of a beam in
space is inversely proportional to the width of the transmitting antenna d. Use of high-frequency
bands permits less number of satellites to share the orbit
Answer : c
Q35. In a stop-and-wait ARQ system, the transmitting terminal
a. waits for positive or negative acknowled-gement from the receiving terminal after sending a
block b. sends another block if positive acknowledge is received through ACK character c.
resends the previous block if negative acknowledgement is received through a NAK character d.
does not wait for acknowledgement after sending a block
Answer : d
Q36. A geostationary satellite is one which
a. hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth b. travels around the Earth in 24 hours
c. remains stationary above the Earth d. appears stationary to everybody on Earth
Answer : d
Q37. The geostationary communication satellite APPLE is parked in the equatorial orbit at
a. 102° E longitude over Sumatra b. 90° E longitude over Bangladesh c. 74° E longitude over
India d. 67° E longitude over Pakistan
Answer : a
Q38. Power received from Sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite in
nearly…………. watt.
a. 100 b. 500 c. 2000 d. 1000
Answer : d
Q39. A certain sound has 10000 times more energy than another sound. The
number of times it would sound stronger to a listener is
a. 40 b. 10000 c. 100 d. 10
Answer : a
Q40. The bandwidth of C- band satellite frequency band in U.C is ………
a. 500 GHz b. 1000 GHz c. 1000 MHz d. 500 MHz
Answer : d
Q41. Repeaters inside communication satellites are known as ………
a. Trancievers b. Transponders c. Transducers d. TWT
Answer : b
Q42. What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites?
a. Germanium based panels b. Silicon based panel c. Galium Phosphate solar panel array
d. Galium Arsenide solar panel array
Answer : d
Q43. What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink
frequency in GHz band?
a. 3500 MHz b. 4500 MHz c. 2225 MHz d. 2555 MHz
Answer : c
Q44. How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine Government from
ITU ?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
Answer : c
Q45. The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satellite array.
a. Series b. Radial c. Matrix d. Shunt
Answer : d
Q46. What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna elements
in a mobile satellite array ?
a. Radial divider b. Divider/combiner c. Radial combiner d. Radial multiplexer
Answer : a
Q47. INTELSAT stands for ………….
a. Intel Satellite b. International Telephone Satellite c. International Telecommunications Satellite
d. International Satellite
Answer : c
Q48. …………. is an artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth
(or) another body of solar systems.
a. Satellite b. moon c. sun d. none of the above
Answer : a
Q49. ………… is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive, amplify and retransmit
data to earth stations.
a. Optical communication b. Digital communication c. Analog communication d. Satellite
communication
Answer : d
Q50. ………… law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be
an ellipse.
a. Newton’s 1st law b. kepler’s first law c. kepler’s second law d. kepler’s third law
Answer : b
Q51. Which law states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas
in its orbital plane, focused at the barycenter.
a. Newton’s 1st law b. kepler’s first law c. kepler’s second law d. kepler’s third law
Answer : c
Q52. Which law states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the
cube of the mean distance between the two bodies. A3 = 3/n2
a. Newton’s 1st law b. kepler’s first law c. kepler’s second law d. kepler’s third law
Answer : d
Q53. What is meant by GPRS ?
a. General packet receiver service b. General packet radio service c. Global packet radio service
d. none of these
Answer : b
Q54. Television transmission is an example of which type of transmission?
a. Simplex b. Half Duplex c. Full Duplex d. None of the above
Answer : a
Q55. What are the limitations of FDMA-satellite access?
a. If the traffic in the downlink is much heavier than that in the uplink, then FDMA is relatively
inefficient. b. Compared with TDMA, FDMA has less flexibility in reassigning channels. c.
Carrier frequency assignments are hardware controlled d. all of the above
Answer : d
Q56. What is meant by EIRP?
a. Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power b. Energy Isotropic Radiated Power c. Equivalent
Isotropic Resonance Power d. none of these
Answer : a
Q57. A satellite downlink at 12 GHz operates with a transmit power of 6 W and an
antenna gain of 48.2 dB. Calculate the EIRP in dBW.
a. 45 dBW b. 50 dBW c. 75 dBW d. 56 dBW
Answer : d
Q58. The range between a ground station and a satellite is 42000 km. Calculate the free
space loss a frequency of 6 GHz.
a. 100 dB b. 150 dB c. 175dB d. 200.4dB
Answer : d
Q59. The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is
known as ……….
a. Electric flux density b. Magnetic flux density c. Saturation flux density d. Photon flux density
Answer : c
Q60. ………….. is necessary to prevent the bursts from overlapping.
a. Preamble b. Guard time c. Frame efficiency d. Decoding quenching
Answer : b
Q61. In some phase detection systems, the phase detector must be allowed for some time to
recover from one burst before the next burst is receiving by it. This waiting time is known
as …………
a. Preamble b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency d. Decoding quenching
Answer : d
Q62. …………. is a measure of the fraction of frame time which is used for the transmission
of traffic.
a. . Preamble b. Guard time c. Frame efficiency d. Decoding quenching
Answer : c
Q63. What is meant by OMT ?
a. Orthogonal mode tube b. Orthogonal modulation tube c. Orthogonal mode transducer d. none
of these
Answer : c
Q64. Which of the following comes under methods of multiple access techniques?
a. FDMA & TDMA b. SCPC & CDMA c. CDMA & GSM d. none of these
Answer : a
Q65. What is meant by SCPC?
a. Single channel per carrier b. Single carrier per channel c. Single code per channel d. none of
these
Answer : a
Q66. For satellite communication, standard Earth stations have antenna diameters in the
range of ………….. metre.
a. 27.5 to 30 b. 10 to 15 c. 30 to 50 d. 5 to 10
Answer : a
Q67. The most effective anti jamming technique is ………..
a. frequency hopping b. spread-spectrum modulation c. key leverage d. once-only key
Answer : b
Q68. The ending part of the popular teleserial Mahabharat will be beamed to the viewers
a. WESTAT b. INSAT-IC c. ARABSAT d. INSAT-ID
Answer : c
Q69. A communication satellite is a repeater between …………… and …………..
a. a transmitting station and a receiving station b. a transmitting station and many receiving
station c. many transmitting station and many receiving station d. none
Answer : c
Q70. While keeping the down-link frequency constant, the diameter of a satellite antenna is
reduced by half. To offer the same EIRP over the increased coverage area, the RF output
power has to be increases by a factor of ………..
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16
Answer : b
Q71. The Sun blots out the transmission of a geosynchronous satellite twice a
year when satellite passes directly in front of it. This outage lasts for about
a. 10 minutes on 5 consecutive days b. 5 minutes on 10 consecutive days c. 30 minutes for 5
consecutive days d. one hour for 5 consecutive days
Answer : a
Q72. In satellite communication, frequency modulation is used because satellite channel has
a. small bandwidth and negligible noise b. large bandwidth and severe noise c. maximum
bandwidth and minimum noise d. high modulation index
Answer : b
Q73. Which of the following factor does NOT contribute to the drift of a geostationary
satellite from its stationary position in space?
a. Pressure of solar radiations b. Gravitational changes due to Sun and Moon c. Oblateness of the
Earth d. Weight of the satellite
Answer : d
Q74. In communication satellites, the up-link normally operates at a higher frequency than
the down-link because it
a. gives a narrow beam shining into space b. results in lesser signal attenuation c. gives better
beam-shaping d. is easier to polarize a high frequency beam
Answer : a
Q75. For global communication, the number of satellites needed is
a. 1 b. 3 c. 10 d. 5
Answer : b
Q76. The noise temperature of sky is about __________ °K.
a. 100 b. 273 c. 0 d. 30
Answer : d
Q77. Assuming earth to be a sphere of radius 6400 km and height of a
geosynchronous satellite above Earth as 36000 km, the velocity of a
geosynchronous satellite is __________ km/hr.
a. 28000 b. 15000 c. 36000 d. 11100
Answer : d
Q78. In the context of error detection in satellite transmission, ARQ stands for
……………
a. Automatic Repeat Request b. Automatic Relay Request c. Accelerated Recovery Request d.
Automatic Radiation Quenching
Answer : a
Q79. To cover all inhabited regions of the Earth, the number of geosynchronous
communication satellites required
a. 5 b. 3 c. 10 d. 2
Answer : b
Q80. Depending on the technique used, digitized television requires a bit rate between
__________ millions.
a. 40 and 92.5 b. 25 and 60
c. 30 and 82.5 d. 2
Answer : a
Q81. In selecting a satellite system, the First determining factor is its
a. EIRP b. antenna size c. coverage a sea d. antenna gain
Answer : c
Q82. Phase modulation is commonly-used for data transmission mainly because
a. phase can be varied from + 180° to 180° b. it is resistant to the effects of noise c. demodulation
is very easy d. it gives highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel
Answer : b
Q83. India’s Polar Satellite Launch vehicle (PSLV) to be ready in 1991 is designed to launch
1000 kg spacecraft into __________ orbit.
a. geostationary b. equatorial c. polar d. sun-synchronous polar
Answer : d
Q84. Most of the communication satellites are stationed to the West of their service areas in
order to reduce their ………..
a. eclipse period b. loss of power c. battery power provision d. mass of station-keeping fuel
Answer : c
Q85. The degradation of satellite solar cells with time is mainly due to
a. their bombardment by electrons b. collection of meteoric dust c. increase in resistivity of
silicon d. gradual leakage of charge carriers from the semiconductor material
Answer : a
Q86. The echo heard by a telephone user on a satellite channel can be removed by using
a. a vocoder b. a multiplexer c. echo suppressor d. digital techniques
Answer : c
Q87. The 1150 kg geosynchronous satellite INSAT-IA parked 36000 km above India had
greatly improved India’s
a. intelligence gathering capacity b. domestic communications c. meteorological capability d.
both (b) and (c)
Answer : d
Q88. Presently, the worlds’s largest and most advanced multi-purpose communication
satellite is ……………
a. INSAT-2 b. Intelsat-V c. INSAT-ID d. Olympus-I
Answer : d
Q89. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to
……..
a. avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links b. avoid interference between its powerful
transmitted signal and weak in coming signal c. minimise free-space losses d. maximise antenna
gain
Answer : b
Q90. Regarding TASI which one of the following statements is wrong?
a. It snatches the channel in his speech and may allocate it to another speaker needing it. b. The
same speaker is reassigned a channel almost instantly when he speaks again even when the circuit
is heavily loaded. c. It increases the overall utilization of the transmission channel. d.
Intercontinental callers sometimes confuse the effects of TASI with the effects of satellite delay
Answer : b
Q91. Master control facility (MCF) for INSAT-2 series satellites is located at …………..
a. Madras b. New Delhi c. Leh d. Hassan
Answer : d
Q92. The communication satellite INSAT-IB had to take up the job of INSAT-IA because
the latter collapsed within …………… months of its launch.
a. 12 b. 20 c. 5 d. 36
Answer : c
Q93. The distance of a synchronous satellite from Earth’s surface is ………….. km.
a. 300 b. 10000 c.35900 d. 5
Answer : c
Q94. The traffic-handling capacity of an Earth station on the uplink depends on …………
a. its EIRP b. satellite antenna gain c. noise associated with the satellite d. all of the above
Answer : d
Q95. System satellites orbit the Earth once in …………. hrs.
a. 24 b. 12 c. 1 d. 6
Answer : a
Q96. The lowest frequency used in satellite communications is ……….. GHz.
a. 0.8 b. 3 c. 18 d. 30
Answer : a
Q97. Geosynchronous satellites are always launched in the equatorial plane
because it is the only plane which provides
a. 24-hour orbit b. stationary satellite c. global communication d. zero-gravity environs
Answer : c
Q98. A few minutes disturbance in space communications occurs twice a year during
Sunblinding when __________ are in line.
a. Sun and satellite b. Sun and Earth station c. Satellite and Earth station d. Sun, satellite and
Earth station
Answer : d
Q99. After the death of INSAT-IB, the mainstay of the entire Indian satellite network for
some time to come would be
a. INSTELSAT-V b. INSAT-ID
c. INSAT-2 d. ARABSAT
Answer : d
Q100. For satellite transmission, analog signals may be converted into digital form with the
help of ……………..
a. modem b. transponder c. codec d. compandor
Answer : c
Q101. The maximum signal propagation time of a geosynchronous satellite transmission is
about ……….. millisecond
a. 540 b. 270 c. 135 d. 1080
Answer : b
Q102. The life time of a geosynchronous communication ……..
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 50
Answer : b
Q103. A typical error rate on satellite circuits is one bit error in
a. 107 b. 103 c. 102 d. 1010
Answer : a
Q104. In satellite communication, highly directional antennas are used to
a. direct the spot beam to a particular region of space on Earth b. strengthen the beam to
overcome the cosmic noise c. make corrections in change of polarisation of the beam d. select a
particular channel in transmission and reception
Answer : a
Q105. The average noise temperature of Earth, as viewed from space, is ………. °K
a. 254 b. 303 c. 100 d. 500
Answer : a
Q106. Low-orbit satellites are not used for communications because they
a. produce sonic booms b. do not provide 24 hour/ day contact to the users on Earth c. heat up
and melt d. none
Answer : c
Short Answers Questions
____________________________________________
BE (2015)Pattern
404190 Broadband Communication
Systems )
Satellite Communication
ORBIT DYNAMICS
1. What is Satellite?
An artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or) another body of
solar systems.
Types: Information satellites and Communication Satellites
2. Define Satellite Communication. It is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive,
amplify and retransmit data to earth stations.
3. State Kepler’s first law.
It states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
An ellipse has two focal points F1 and F2. The center o
f mass of the two body system,
termed the barycenter is always centered on one of the
foci. e = [square root of (a2– b2) ] / a
4. State Kepler’s second law.
It states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas in its orbital
plane, focused at the barycenter.
5. State Kepler’s third law.
It states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the cube of the
mean distance between the two bodies.
a3= 3 / n22
Where, n = Mean motion of the satellite in rad/sec.
3 = Earth’s geocentric gravitational constant. With the
n in radians per sec. the orbital period in second is given by,
P=2/n
6. Define apogee. The point farthest from the earth.
7. Define Perigee. The point closest from the earth.
8. What is line of apsides? The line joining the perigee and apogee through the center of the
earth.
9. Define ascending node. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from
south to north.
10. Define descending node. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going
from north to south.
very small with the result that a region that is only a few hundred km in diameter is
illuminated on earth.
14. What is meant by momentum wheel stabilization?
During the spin stabilization, flywheels may be used rather than spinning the satellite.
These flywheels are termed as momentum wheels.
15. What is polarization interleaving?
Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternatively polarized left hand circular
and right hand circular to reduce interference to acceptable levels.
This is referred to as polarization interleaving.
16. Define S/N ratio.
The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of signal power to
noise power at the receiver output. This is known as S/N ratio.
17. What is noise weighting?
The method used to improve the post detection signal to
noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.
18. What is noise power spectral density?
Noise power per unit Bandwidth is termed as the noise p
ower spectral density.
19. What is an intermodulation noise?
Intermodulation distortion in high power amplifier can result in signal product which
appear as noise and it is referred to as intermodulation noise.
20. What is an antenna loss?
It is added to noise received as radiation and the total antenna noise temperature is the sum
of the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.
21. Define sky noise.
It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation w
hich is present throughout universe and which appears to originate from matter in any
form, at
finite temperature.
22. Define noise factor.
An alternative way of representing amplifier noise is
by means of its noise factor. Indefining the noise factor of an amplifiers, usually taken as
290 k.
23. What is TWTA?
TWTA means Traveling Wave Tube Amplifier. The TWTA i
s widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to the transtube
and its power supplies.
24. What is an OMT?
The polarization separation takes place in a device kno
wn as an orthocoupler or Orthogonal Mode Transducer.
SATELLITE ACCESS
1. What is a single mode of operation?
A transponder channel abroad a satellite may be fully loaded by a single transmission from
an earth station. This is referred to as a single access mode of operation.
2. What are the methods of multiple access techniques?
FDMA – Frequency Division Multiple Access Techniques
TDMA – Time Division Multiple Access Techniques
3. What is an CDMA?
CDMA – Code Division Multiple Access Techniques
In this method, each signal is associated with a particular code that is used to spread the
signal in frequency and time.
4. Give the types of CDMA.
• Spread spectrum multiple access
• Pulse address multiple access
5. What is SCPC?
SCPC means Single Channel Per Carrier. In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36
MHz) may be occupied by a number of single carriers, each associated with its own
voice circuit.
6. What is a thin route service?
SCPC systems are widely used on lightly loaded routes, this type of service being referred to
as a thin route service.
7. What is an important feature of Intelsat SCPC system?
The system is that each channel is voice activated. This me
ans that on a two way telephone conversation only one carriers is operative at any one time.
8. What is an TDMA? What are the advantages?
TDMA – Time Division Multiple Access Techniques Only one carrier uses the transponder at
any one time, and therefore Inter modulation products, which results from the non-linear
amplification of multiple carriers are absent.
Advantages : The transponder traveling wave tube can be operated at maximum power
output.
9. What is preamble?
Certain time slots at the beginning of each burst are used to carry timing and synchronizing
information. These time slots collectively are referred to as preamble.
10. Define guard time.
It is necessary to prevent the bursts from overlapping. The guard time will vary from burst
to burst depending on the accuracy with which the various bursts can be
positioned within each frame.
11. What is meant by decoding quenching?
In certain phase detection systems, the phase detector must
be allowed for some time to recover from one burst before the next burst is received by it.
This is known as decoding quenching.
12. What is meant by direct closed loop feedback?
The timing positions are reckoned from the last bit of the unique word in the preamble.
The loop method is also known as direct closed loop feed
back.
13. What is meant by feedback closed loop control?
The synchronization information is transmitted back to an earth station from a distant, that
is termed feedback closed loop control.
14. Define frame efficiency.
It is measure of the fraction of frame time used for the transmission of traffic.
15. What is meant by digital speech interpolation?
The point is that for a significant fraction of the time, the channel is available for other
transmission and advantages are taken of this in a form of demand assignment known
as digital speech interpolation.
16. What is meant by telephone load activity factor?
The fraction of time a transmission channel is active is kno
wn as the telephone load activity factor.
17. What are the types of digital speech interpolation?
• Digital time assignment speech interpolation
• Speech predictive encoded communications
18. What is meant by freeze out?
It has assumed that a free satellite channel will be found for any incoming speed spurt, but
there is a finite probability that all channels will be occupied and the speech spurt lost.
Losing a speech spurt in this manner is referred to as freeze out.
19. What is DSI?
The DSI gain is the ratio of the number of terrestrial space channels to number of satellite
channels. It depends on the number of satellite channels provided as well as the design
objectives.
20. What are the advantages of SPEC method over DSI
method?
Freeze out does not occur during overload conditions.
21. Define satellite switched TDMA?
Space Division Multiplexing can be realized by switching the antenna interconnections in
synchronism with the TDMA frame rate, this being known as satellite switched TDMA.
22. What is SS / TDMA?
A repetitive sequence of satellite switch modes, also referred to as SS / TDMA.
23. What is processing gain?
The jamming or interference signal energy is reduced by
a factor known as the processing gain.
24. What is burst code word?
It is a binary word, a copy of which is stored at each earth station.
25. What is meant by burst position acquisition?
A station just entering, or reentering after a long delay to acquire its correct slot position is
known as burst position acquisition.
26. What is an single access?
A transponder channel aboard a satellite may be fully
loaded by a single transmission from earth station.
27. What is an multiple access technique?
A transponder to be loaded by a number of carriers.
These may originate from a number of earth station may transmit one or more of the
carriers. This mode of
operation known as multiple access technique.
28. What is meant by frequency reuse?
The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth station
s widely separated geographically but transmitting on the same frequency that is known as
frequency reuse.
29. What is meant by space division multiple access?
The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth stations widely separated geographically
but transmitting on the same frequency that is known as frequency reuse. This method of
access known as space division multiple
access.
30. What is an error detecting code?
A code which allows for the detection of errors is terme
d as error detecting code.
31. What are the limitations of FDMA-satellite access?
a. If the traffic in the downlink is much heavier than that in the uplink, then FDMA is
relatively inefficient.
b. Compared with TDMA, FDMA has less flexibility in r
eassigning channels.
c. Carrier frequency assignments are hardware controlled.
32. Write about pre-assigned TDMA satellite access.
Example for pre-assigned TDMA is CSC for the SPADE net
work. CSC can accommodate upto 49 earth stations in the network and 1 reference station.
All bursts are of equal length. Each burst contains 128 bits. The bit rate is 128 Kb / s.
33. Write about demand assigned TDMA satellite access.
The burst length may be kept constant and the number f bursts per frame used by the given
station is varied when the demand is varied.
EARTH SEGMENT
1. Define earth segment.
Earth segment of a satellite communication system consist
s of transmit earth station and receive earth station.
Example : TV Receive Only systems (TVRO systems)
2. Give the difference between KU-band and the C-band receive only systems. Operating
frequency of outdoor unit.
3. What is mean by ODU and IDU.
ODU – The Home Receiver Outdoor Unit
IDU – The Home Receiver Indoor Unit
4. Explain about MATV system.
MATV – Master Antenna TV system.
It is used to provide reception of DBS TV channels to the user group.
Example : Apartment users
It consists of one outdoor unit and various indoor units. Each user can independently access
all the channels.
5. Write about CATV system.
CATV – Community Antenna TV system.
As in MATV system, it consists of oneoutdoor unit and separ
ate feeds for each sense of polarization.
6. Define S/N ratio.
The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to
refer to the ratio of signal power to noise power at the receiver output. This is known as
S/N ratio.
7. What is noise weighting?
The method used to improve the post detection signal to
noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.
8. What is an EIRP?
EIRP means Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power. It is a
measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna.
9. What is noise power spectral density?
Noise power per unit Bandwidth is termed as the noise p
ower spectral density.
10. What is an inter modulation noise?
Inter modulation distortion in high power amplifier can result in signal product which
appear as noise and it is referred to as inter modulation noise.
11. What is an antenna loss?
It is added to noise received as radiation and the total antenna noise temperature is the sum
of the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.
12. Define noise factor.
An alternative way of representing amplifier noise is
by means of its noise factor. In defining the noise factor of an amplifiers, usually taken as
290 k.
13. A satellite downlink at 12 GHz operates with a tra
nsmit power of 6 W and an antenna gain of 48.2 dB. Calculate the EIRP in dBW.
EIRP = 10 log 6 + 48.2 = 56 dBW
14. The range between a ground station and a satellite is 42000 km. Calculate the free
space loss a frequency of 6 GHz.
[Free space loss] = 32.4 + 20 log 42000 + 20 log 6000
= 200.4 dB
15. An antenna has a noise temperature of 35 K and it is matched into a receiver which has a
noise temperature of 100 K. Calculate the noise power density and the noise
power for a BW of 36 MHz.
N0 = ( 35 + 100 ) * 1.38 * 10-23= 1.86 * 1 -21
JP N = 1.86 * 10-21* 36 * 106= 0.067 PW
16. Define Saturation flux density.
The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is termed
the saturation flux density.
SATELLITE APPLICATIONS
1. Give the 3 different types of applications with respect to satellite systems.
• The largest international system (Intelsat)
• The domestic satellite system (Dom sat) in U.S.
• U.S. National oceanographic and atmospheric administra
tions (NOAA)
2. Mention the 3 regions to allocate the frequency for satellite services.
a. Region1: It covers Europe, Africa and Mangolia
b. Region2: It covers North & South Ameriaca and Greenland.
c. Region3: It covers Asia, Australia and South West Pacif
ic.
3. Give the types of satellite services.
a. Fixed satellite service
b. Broadcasting satellite service
c. Mobile satellite service
d. Navigational satellite services
e. Meteorological satellite services
4. What is mean by Dom sat?
Domestic Satellites. These are used for voice, data and v
ideo transmissions within the country.
5. What is mean by INTELSAT?
International Telecommunication Satellite.
6. What is mean by SARSAT?
Search and rescue satellite.
7. What are the applications of Radarsat?
a. Shipping and fisheries.
b. Ocean feature mapping
d. Iceberg detection
e. Crop monitoring
8. What is ECEF?
The geocentric equatorial coordinate system is used with the GPS system.It is called as
earth centered, earth fixed coordinate system.
9. What is dilution of precision?
Position calculations involve range differences and where the ranges are nearly equal, any
error is greatly magnified in the difference. This effect, brought a result of the satellite
geometry is known as dilution of precision.
10. What is PDOP?
With the GPS system, dilution of position is taken into account through a factor known as
the position dilution of precision.
11. What is DBS?
Satellites are used to provide the broadcast transmissions. It is used to provide direct
transmissions into the home. The service provided is known as Direct Broadcast
Satellite services.
Example : Audio, TV and internet services.
12. Give the frequency range of US DBS systems with hig
h power satellites.
a. Uplink frequency range is 17.3 GHz to 17.8 GHz
b. Downlink frequency range is 12.2 GHz to 12.7 GHz
13. Give the frequency range of US DBS systems with med
ium power satellites.
a. Uplink frequency range is 14 GHz to 14.5 GHz
b. Downlink frequency range is 11.7 GHz to 12.2 GHz
14. What is DTH?
DBS television is also known as Direct To Home ( DTH ).
15. Write about bit rates for digital television.
It depends format of the picture.
Uncompressed Bit rate = (Number of pixels in a frame) *
(Number of pixels per second) * (Number of bits used to encode each pixel)
16. Give the satellite mobile services.
a. DBS – Direct Broadcast satellite
b. VSATS – Very Small Aperture Terminals
c. MSATS – Mobile Satellite Service
d. GPS – Global Positioning Systems
e. Micro Sats
f. Orb Comm – Orbital Communications Corporation
g. Iridium
17. What is GCC and GEC?
GCC - Gateway Control Centers
GEC – Gateway Earth Stations
18. What is INMARSAT?
It is the first global mobile satellite communication system operated at Lband and
internationally used by 67 countries for communication between ships and coast so that
mergency life saving may be provided. Also it provides modern communication services to
maritime, land mobile, aeronautical and other users.
19. List out the regions covered by INMARSAT.
• Atlantic ocean region, east (AOR-E)
• Atlantic ocean region, west (AOR-W)
• Indian ocean region (IOR)\
• Pacific ocean region (POR)
20.What is INSAT?
INSAT – Indian National Satellite System.
INSAT is a Indian National Satellite System for telecommunications, broadcasting,
meteorology and search and rescue services. It was commissioned in 1983. INSAT
was the largest domestic communication system in the sia-Pacific region.
20. List out the INSAT series.
• INSAT-1
• INSAT-2
• INSAt-2A
• INSAT-2E
• INSAT-3
21.What is GSM?
GSM (Global System for Mobile communications: originally from Groupe Spécial Mobile) is
the most popular standard or mobile phones in the world. GSM differs from its predecessors
in that both signaling and speech channels are digital, and thus is considered a second
generation (2G) mobile phone system. This has also meant that data communication was
easy to build into the system.
22.What is GPRS?
General packet radio service (GPRS) is a packet oriented mobile data service available to
users of the 2G cellular communication systems global system for mobile communications
(GSM), as well as in the 3G systems. In the 2G systems, GPRS provides data rates of 56-114
kbit/s.
23. Define DAB.
DAB - Digital Audio Broadcast
Multiple Choice Questions
____________________________________________

BE (2015)Pattern

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404190 Broadband Communication Systems
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Topic : Fibre Optic Communication


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UNIT I: Light wave System Components


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1. Questions & Answers on Optical Fiber Waveguides

The section contains questions and answers on ray theory,


electromagnetic mode theory, cylindrical and single mode fibers, crystal
fibers and attenuation.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Ray Theory Transmission”.

1. Who proposed the idea of transmission of light via dielectric waveguide structure?
a) Christian Huygens
b) Karpon and Bockham
c) Hondros and debye
d) Albert Einstein
View Answer

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Answer: c
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Explanation: It was in the beginning of 20th century where Hondros and debye theoretical and
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experimental study demonstrated that information can be transferred as a form of light through a
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dielectric waveguide.
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2. Who proposed the use of clad waveguide structure?


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a) Edward Appleton
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b) Schriever
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c) Kao and Hockham


d) James Maxwell
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The invention of clad waveguide structure raised the eyebrows of the scientists. The
proposals by Kao and Hockham proved beneficial leading in utilization of optical fibre as a
communication medium.

3. Which law gives the relationship between refractive index of the dielectric?
a) Law of reflection
b) Law of refraction (Snell’s Law)
c) Millman’s Law
d) Huygen’s Law
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Snell’s Law of refraction states that the angle of incidence Ø1 and refraction Ø2 are
related to each other and to refractive index of the dielectrics.
It is given by n1sinØ1 = n2sinØ2
where n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of two mediums. Ø1 and Ø2 are angles of incidence
and refraction.

4. The light sources used in fibre optics communication are ____________


a) LED’s and Lasers
b) Phototransistors
c) Xenon lights
d) Incandescent
View Answer

5. The ________ ray passes through the axis of the fiber core.
a) Reflected
b) Refracted
c) Meridional
d) Shew
View Answer

Answer: c

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Explanation: When a light ray is passed through a perfect optical fiber, any discontinuities at the
core cladding interface would result in refraction rather than total internal reflection. Such light
ray passes through the axis of fiber core and is called as meridional ray. This principle is used
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while stating the fundamental transmission properties of optical fiber.


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6. Light incident on fibers of angles________the acceptance angle do not propagate into the
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fiber.
a) Less than
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b) Greater than
c) Equal to
d) Less than and equal to
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Acceptance angle is the maximum angle at which light may enter into the fiber in
order to be propagated. Hence the light incident on the fiber is less than the acceptance angle, the
light will propagate in the fiber and will be lost by radiation.

7. What is the numerical aperture of the fiber if the angle of acceptance is 16 degree?
a) 0.50
b) 0.36
c) 0.20
d) 0.27
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The numerical aperture of a fiber is related to the angle of acceptance as follows:
NA = sin Ѳa
Where NA = numerical aperture
Ѳ = acceptance angle.

8. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another medium is called as
_________
a) Speed factor
b) Dielectric constant
c) Reflection index
d) Refraction index
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When a ray travels from one medium to another, the ray incident from a light
source is called as incident ray. In passing through, the speed varies. The ratio of the speed of
incident and the refracted ray in different medium is called refractive index.

9. When a ray of light enters one medium from another medium, which quality will not change?
a) Direction

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b) Frequency Ap
c) Speed
d) Wavelength
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View Answer
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Answer: b
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Explanation: The electric and the magnetic field have to remain continuous at the refractive
index boundary. If the frequency is changed, the light at the boundary would change its phase
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and the fields won’t match. In order to match the field, frequency won’t change

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Single-Mode Fibers”.

1. An optical fiber has core-index of 1.480 and a cladding index of 1.478. What should be the
core size for single mode operation at 1310nm?
a) 7.31μm
b) 8.71μm
c) 5.26μm
d) 6.50μm
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Normalized frequency V<=2.405 is the value at which the lowest order Bessel

function J=0. Core size(radius) .


2. An optical fiber has a core radius 2μm and a numerical aperture of 0.1. Will this fiber operate
at single mode at 600 nm?
a) Yes
b) No
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: V= 2πa.NA/λ. Calculating this equation, we get the value of V. V is the normalised
frequency and should be below 2.405 in order to operate the fiber at single mode. Here,
V=2.094, is less than 2.405. Thus, this optical fiber exhibit single mode operation.

3. What is needed to predict the performance characteristics of single mode fibers?


a) The intermodal delay effect
b) Geometric distribution of light in a propagating mode
c) Fractional power flow in the cladding of fiber
d) Normalized frequency
View Answer

Answer: b

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Explanation: A mode field diameter (MFD) is a fundamental parameter of single mode fibers. It
tells us about the geometric distribution of light. MFD is analogous to core diameter in
multimode fibers, except in single mode fibers not all the light that propagates is carried in the
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core.
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4. Which equation is used to calculate MFD?


a) Maxwell’s equations
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b) Peterman equations
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c) Allen Cahn equations


d) Boltzmann’s equations
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Mode field diameter is an important parameter for single mode fibers because it is
used to predict fiber properties such as splice loss, bending loss. The standard technique is to first
measure the far-field intensity distribution and then calculating mode field diameter using
Peterman equations.

5. A single mode fiber has mode field diameter 10.2μm and V=2.20. What is the core diameter
of this fiber?
a) 11.1μm
b) 13.2μm
c) 7.6μm
d) 10.1μm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For a single mode fiber, MFD=2w0. Here, core radius
Solving this equation, we get a=5.05μm. Core-
diameter=2a=10.1μm.

6. The difference between the modes’ refractive indices is called as ___________


a) Polarization
b) Cutoff
c) Fiber birefringence
d) Fiber splicing
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are two propagation modes in single mode fibers. These two modes are
similar but their polarization planes are orthogonal. In actual fibers, there are imperfections such
as variations in refractive index profiles. These modes propagate with different phase velocities
and their difference is given by B f =ny – nx. Here, ny and nx are refractive indices of two modes.

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7. A single mode fiber has a beat length of 4cm at 1200nm. What is birefringence?
Ap
a) 2*10-5
b) 1.2*10-5
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c) 3*10-5
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d) 2
View Answer
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Answer: c
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Explanation: Bf=ny– nx = λ/Lp. Here, λ=wavelength and Lp = beat length. Solving this equation,
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we will get the answer.

8. How many propagation modes are present in single mode fibers?


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Five
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For a given optical fiber, the number of modes depends on the dimensions of the
cable and the variations of the indices of refraction of both core and cladding across the cross
section. Thus, for a single mode fiber, there are two independent, degenerate propagation modes
with their polarization planes orthogonal.

9. Numerical aperture is constant in case of step index fiber.


a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Numerical aperture is a measure of acceptance angle of a fiber. It also gives the
light gathering capacity of the fiber. For a single mode fiber, core is of constant refractive index.
There is no variation with respect to core. Thus, Numerical aperture is constant for single mode
fibers.

10. Plastic fibers are less widely used than glass fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The majority of the fibers are made up of glass consisting of silica. Plastic fibers
are used for short distance transmissions unlike glass fibers which can also be used for long haul
applications. Also, plastic fibers have higher attenuation than glass fibers.

This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers focuses on


“Electromagnetic Mode Theory for Optical Propagation”.

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1. Which equations are best suited for the study of electromagnetic wave propagation?
a) Maxwell’s equations
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b) Allen-Cahn equations
c) Avrami equations
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d) Boltzmann’s equations
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View Answer
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Answer: a
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Explanation: Electromagnetic mode theory finds its basis in electromagnetic waves.


Electromagnetic waves are always represented in terms of electric field E, magnetic field H,
electric flux density D and magnetic flux density B. These set of equations are provided by
Maxwell’s equations.

2. When λ is the optical wavelength in vacuum, k is given by k=2Π/λ. What does k stand for in
the above equation?
a) Phase propagation constant
b) Dielectric constant
c) Boltzmann’s constant
d) Free-space constant
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the above equation, k = 2Π/λ, also termed as wave equation, k gives us the
direction of propagation and also the rate of change of phase with distance. Hence it is termed as
phase propagation constant.
3. Constructive interference occur when total phase change after two successive reflections at
upper and lower interfaces is equal to? (Where m is integer)
a) 2Πm
b) Πm
c) Πm/4
d) Πm/6
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The component of phase waves which is in x direction is reflected at the
interference between the higher and lower refractive index media. It is assumed that such an
interference forms a lowest order standing wave, where electric field is maximum at the center of
the guide, decaying towards zero.

4. When light is described as an electromagnetic wave, it consists of a periodically varying


electric E and magnetic field H which are oriented at an angle?
a) 90 degree to each other
b) Less than 90 degree
c) Greater than 90 degree

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d) 180 degree apart Ap
View Answer
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Answer: a
H

Explanation: In case of electromagnetic wave which occur only in presence of both electric and
magnetic field, a particular change in magnetic field will result in a proportional change in
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electric field and vice versa. These changes result in formation of electromagnetic waves and for
electromagnetic waves to occur both fields should be perpendicular to each other in direction of
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wave travelling.

5. A monochromatic wave propagates along a waveguide in z direction. These points of constant


phase travel in constant phase travel at a phase velocity Vp is given by?
a) Vp=ω/β
b) Vp=ω/c
c) Vp=C/N
d) Vp=mass/acceleration
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Velocity is a function of displacement. Phase velocity V p is a measure of angular
velocity.

6. Which is the most important velocity in the study of transmission characteristics of optical
fiber?
a) Phase velocity
b) Group velocity
c) Normalized velocity
d) Average velocity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Group velocity is much important in relation to transmission characteristics of
optical fiber. This is because the optical wave propagates in groups or form of packets of light.

7. What is refraction?
a) Bending of light waves
b) Reflection of light waves
c) Diffusion of light waves
d) Refraction of light waves
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Unlike reflection, refraction involves penetration of a light wave from one medium
to another. While penetrating, as it passes through another medium it gets deviated at some
angle.

p
Ap
8. The phenomenon which occurs when an incident wave strikes an interface at an angle greater
than the critical angle with respect to the normal to the surface is called as ____________
a) Refraction
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b) Partial internal reflection


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c) Total internal reflection


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d) Limiting case of refraction


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View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: Total internal reflection takes place when the light wave is in the more dense
medium and approaching towards the less dense medium. Also, the angle of incidence is greater
than the critical angle. Critical angle is an angle beyond which no propagation takes place in an
optical fiber.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Cylindrical Fiber”.

1. A multimode step index fiber has a normalized frequency of 72. Estimate the number of
guided modes.
a) 2846
b) 2592
c) 2432
d) 2136
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A step-index fiber has a constant refractive index core. The number of guided
modes in a step-index fiber are given by M = (V*V)/2. Here M denotes the number of modes and
V denotes normalized frequency.

2. A graded-index fiber has a core with parabolic refractive index profile of diameter of 30μm,
NA=0.2, λ=1μm. Estimate the normalised frequency.
a) 19.32
b) 18.84
c) 16.28
d) 17.12
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Normalized frequency for a graded index fiber is given by V = 2Πa(NA)/λ.
Substituting and calculating the values, we get option 18.84. Here, V denotes normalized
frequency and NA = numerical aperture.

3. A step-index fiber has core refractive index 1.46 and radius 4.5μm. Find the cutoff wavelength
to exhibit single mode operation. Use relative index difference as 0.25%.
a) 1.326μm

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b) 0.124μm Ap
c) 1.214μm
d) 0.123μm
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View Answer
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Answer: c
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Explanation: The cutoff wavelength is the wavelength beyond which no single mode operation
takes place. On solving λc = 2Πan1 2Δ−−−√/V, we get option c. Here, V=2.405, n1 =
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refractive index of core, a=radius of core.

4. A single-mode step-index fiber or multimode step-index fiber allows propagation of only one
transverse electromagnetic wave.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode step index fiber is also called as mono-mode step index fiber. As the
name suggests, only one mode is transmitted and hence it has the distinct advantage of low
intermodal dispersion.

5. One of the given statements is true for intermodal dispersion. Choose the right one.
a) Low in single mode and considerable in multimode fiber
b) Low in both single mode and multimode fiber
c) High in both single mode and multimode fiber
d) High in single mode and low in multimode fiber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode propagates only one wave or only one mode is transmitted. Therefore,
intermodal dispersion is low in single mode. In multimode fibers, higher dispersion may occur
due to varying group velocities of propagating modes.

6. For lower bandwidth applications ______________


a) Single mode fiber is advantageous
b) Photonic crystal fibers are advantageous
c) Coaxial cables are advantageous
d) Multimode fiber is advantageous
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In multimode fibers, intermodal dispersion occurs. The group velocities often differ
which gradually restricts maximum bandwidth attainability in multimode fibers.

7. Most of the optical power is carried out in core region than in cladding.
a) True
b) False

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: a
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Explanation: In an ideal multimode fiber, there is no mode coupling. The optical power launched
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into a particular mode remains in that mode itself. The majority of these modes are mostly
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confined to fiber core only.


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8. Meridional rays in graded index fibers follow ____________


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a) Straight path along the axis


b) Curved path along the axis
c) Path where rays changes angles at core-cladding interface
d) Helical path
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Meridional rays pass through axis of the core. Due to the varying refractive index at
the core, the path of rays is in curved form.

9. What is the unit of normalized frequency?


a) Hertz
b) Meter/sec
c) Coulombs
d) It is a dimensionless quantity
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Normalized frequency of optical fiber is the frequency which exists at cut-off
condition. There is no propagation and attenuation above cut-off. It is directly proportional to
numerical aperture which is a dimensionless quantity; hence itself is a dimensionless quantity.

10. Skew rays follow a ___________


a) Hyperbolic path along the axis
b) Parabolic path along the axis
c) Helical path
d) Path where rays changes angles at core-cladding interface
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The ray which does not pass through the fiber axis is termed as skew ray. Unlike
Meridional rays, skew rays are more in number which makes them follow a round path called as
helical path.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Photonic Crystal Fibers & Attenuation”.

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1. Photonic crystal fibers also called as ___________
Ap
a) Conventional fibers
b) Dotted fibers
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c) Stripped fibers
d) Holey fibers
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View Answer
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Answer: d
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Explanation: Photonic crystal fibers contain a fine array of air holes running longitudinally down
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the fiber cladding. The microstructure within the fiber is highly periodic.

2. Conventional optical fibers has more transmission losses than photonic crystal fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Conventional optical fibers have several hundreds of losses in transmission.
Photonic crystal fibers have resulted in reduction in overall transmission losses.

3. Losses in photonic crystal fibers are reduced to a level of ___________


a) 0.1dB/km
b) 0.2dB/km
c) 0.3dB/km
d) 0.4dB/km
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Conventional fibers have losses of several hundred decibels per km. The invention
of photonic crystal tubes has reduced the losses by hundreds of decibels.

4. The high index contrast enables the PCF core to be reduced from around 8 μmin conventional
fiber to ___________
a) Less than 1μm
b) More than 5μm
c) More than 3μm
d) More than 2μm
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: PCF’s have a wider range of optical properties in comparison with standard fibers.
The lesser the core, more is the intensity of light in the core and enhances the non-linear effects.

5. The periodic arrangement of cladding air holes in photonic band gap fibers provides for the
formation of a photonic band gap in the ___________
a) H-plane of fiber

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b) E-plane of fiber Ap
c) E-H-plane of fiber
d) Transverse plane of fiber
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View Answer
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Answer: d
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Explanation: Photonic band gap fibers are a class of micro structured fiber in which periodic
arrangement of air holes is required. As a PBG fiber exhibits a 2-dimensional band gap, than the
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wavelengths within this band gap cannot propagate perpendicular to the fiber axis.

6. In index-guided photonic crystal fiber structure, the dark areas are air holes. What does white
areas suggests?
a) Air
b) Silica
c) Water
d) Plasma
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Index-guided photonic crystal fibers have greater index contrast because the
cladding contains air-holes having refractive index 1. Both index guided and conventional fibers
arises from the manner in which guided mode interacts with the cladding region.

7. Which is the unit of measurement of attenuation in optical fibers?


a) km
b) dB
c) dB/km
d) Coulomb’s
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Attenuation is also referred to as transmission loss. Channel attenuation helped to
determine the maximum transmission distance prior to signal restoration. Attenuation is usually
expressed in logarithmic unit of decibel. It is given by
αdBL = 10 log10Pi / Po
Where αdB = signal attenuation per unit length
Pi & Po = Input and output power.

8. The optical fiber incurs a loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber which is called as
___________
a) Scattering
b) Attenuation
c) Absorption
d) Refraction
View Answer

p
Answer: b Ap
Explanation: When the light is passed through the fiber, it travels a large amount of distance
before it starts fading. It needs restoration in the path. This loss or fading is called as Attenuation.
at
H

9. If the input power 100μW is launched into 6 km of fiber, the mean optical power at the fiber
output is 2μW. What is the overall signal attenuation through the fiber assuming there are no
e
pl

connectors or splices?
a) 15.23dB
r
Pu

b) 16.98dB
c) 17.12dB
d) 16.62dB
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Signal attenuation is usually expressed in decibels. It is given by
Signal attenuation=10 log10Pi / Po
Where, Pi & Po = Input and output power.

10. A device that reduces the intensity of light in optical fiber communications is ___________
a) compressor
b) Optical attenuator
c) Barometer
d) Reducer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A compressor compresses the signal before transmission. It does not affect the
intensity of light. Optical attenuator is a device that affects the intensity of light and incurs a loss
in transmission.

11. A decibel may be defined as the ratio of input and output optical power for a particular
optical wavelength.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Signal attenuation refers to the loss in transmission and it needs a logarithmic unit
to express. Decibel is mainly used for comparing two power levels. It has the advantage that the
operations of multiplication and division reduce to addition and subtraction.

12. When the input and output power in an optical fiber is 120μW & 3μW respectively and the
length of the fiber is 8 km. What is the signal attenuation per km for the fiber?
a) 3dB/km
b) 2dB/km
c) 1dB/km

p
d) 4dB/km Ap
View Answer
at

Answer: b
H

Explanation: Signal attenuation per unit length is given by


αdBL = 10 log10Pi / Po
e

αdBL = 16 dB
pl

αdB = 16 dB/L = 2dB/km.


r
Pu

2. Questions on Transmission Characteristics Of Optical Fibers


The section contains questions on material absorption and fiber bend loss, linear and
nonlinear scattering losses, chromatic and intermodal dispersion, fiber dispersion,
polarization and nonlinear effects.

This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Material
Absorption & Fiber Bend Losses In Silicon Glass Fibers”.

1. Which of the following statements best explain the concept of material absorption?
a) A loss mechanism related to the material composition and fabrication of fiber
b) A transmission loss for optical fibers
c) Results in attenuation of transmitted light
d) Causes of transfer of optical power
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Material absorption is a loss mechanism that results in dissipation of transmitted
optical power as heat in a waveguide. It can be caused by impurities or interaction with other
components of the core.

2. How many mechanisms are there which causes absorption?


a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Absorption is a loss mechanism. It may be intrinsic, extrinsic and also caused by
atomic defects.

3. Absorption losses due to atomic defects mainly include ___________


a) Radiation
b) Missing molecules, oxygen defects in glass
c) Impurities in fiber material
d) Interaction with other components of core

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: b
at

Explanation: Atomic defects are imperfections in the atomic structure of fiber material. Atomic
H

structure includes nucleus, molecules, protons etc. Atomic defects thus contribute towards loss of
e

molecules, oxygen, etc.


pl

4. The effects of intrinsic absorption can be minimized by ___________


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Pu

a) Ionization
b) Radiation
c) Suitable choice of core and cladding components
d) Melting
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Intrinsic absorption is caused by interaction of light with one or more components
of the glass i.e. core. Thus, if the compositions of core and cladding are chosen suitably, this
effect can be minimized.

5. Which of the following is not a metallic impurity found in glass in extrinsic absorption?
a) Fe2+
b) Fe3+
c) Cu
d) Si
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the optical fibers, prepared by melting techniques, extrinsic absorption can be
observed. It is caused from transition metal element impurities. In all these options, Si is a
constituent of glass and it cannot be considered as an impurity to glass itself.

6. Optical fibers suffer radiation losses at bends or curves on their paths.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Optical fibers suffer radiation losses due to the energy in the bend or curves
exceeding the velocity of light in the cladding. Hence, guiding mechanism is inhibited, which in
turn causes light energy to be radiated from the fiber.

7. In the given equation, state what αr suggests?


a) Radius of curvature
b) Refractive index difference
c) Radiation attenuation coefficients

p
d) Constant of proportionality Ap
View Answer
at

Answer: c
H

Explanation: Above equation represents the fiber loss. This loss is seen at bends and curves as
e

the fibers suffer radiation losses at curves. These radiation losses are represented by a radiation
attenuation coefficient (αr).
r pl
Pu

8. A multimode fiber has refractive indices n1 = 1.15, n2 = 1.11 and an operating wavelength of
0.7μm. Find the radius of curvature?
a) 8.60μm
b) 9.30μm
c) 9.1μm
d) 10.2μm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The radius of curvature of the fiber bend of a multimode fiber is given by

Where, Rc = radius of curvature


n1, n2 = refractive indices
λ = wavelength.

9. A single mode fiber has refractive indices n1=1.50, n2 = 2.23, core diameter of 8μ m,
wavelength = 1.5μm cutoff wavelength = 1.214μm. Find the radius of curvature?
a) 12 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 34 mm
d) 36 mm
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The radius of curvature of the fiber bend of a single mode fiber is given by-

Where R = radius of curvature,


n1, n2 = refractive indices,
λc = cutoff wavelength,
λ = operating wavelength.

10. How the potential macro bending losses can be reduced in case of multimode fiber?
a) By designing fibers with large relative refractive index differences
b) By maintaining direction of propagation
c) By reducing the bend
d) By operating at larger wavelengths
View Answer

p
Answer: a
Ap
Explanation: In the case of multimode fibers, radius of curvature is directly proportional to core
at

refractive index and operating wavelength. In order to reduce the macro bending losses, the
operative wavelength must be small and fibers must have large relative refractive index
H

difference. Losses are inversely proportional to refractive index differences.


e
pl

11. Sharp bends or micro bends causes significant losses in fiber.


r

a) True
Pu

b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Sharp bends usually have a radius of curvature almost near to the critical radius.
The fibers with the radius near to the critical radius cause significant losses and hence they are
avoided.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Linear & Non-Linear Scattering Losses”.

1. Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering are the types of _____________


a) Linear scattering losses
b) Non-linear scattering losses
c) Fiber bends losses
d) Splicing losses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering both result from non-ideal physical
properties of the fiber. These losses may be impossible to eradicate. Linear scattering
mechanisms cause the transfer of optical power contained within one propagating mode to be
transferred linearly into a different mode.

2. Dominant intrinsic loss mechanism in low absorption window between ultraviolet and infrared
absorption tails is ___________
a) Mie scattering
b) Rayleigh scattering
c) Stimulated Raman scattering
d) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
View Answer

3. Rayleigh scattering can be reduced by operating at smallest possible wavelengths.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

p
Answer: b Ap
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering results from inhomogeneity of a random nature occurring on a
small level compared with the wavelength of light. The Rayleigh scattering is inversely
at

proportional to the wavelength. Thus, as wavelength scattering reduces.


H
e

4. The scattering resulting from fiber imperfections like core-cladding RI differences, diameter
pl

fluctuations, strains, and bubbles is?


a) Rayleigh scattering
r
Pu

b) Mie scattering
c) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
d) Stimulated Raman scattering
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Linear scattering also occurs at inhomogeneity which are comparable in size with
the guided wavelength. These results from non-perfect cylindrical structures of the waveguide
and hence caused by fiber imperfections.

5. Mie scattering has in-homogeneities mainly in ___________


a) Forward direction
b) Backward direction
c) All direction
d) Core-cladding interface
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In Mie scattering, the scattering in-homogeneities size is greater thanλ/10. Also, the
scattered intensity has an angular dependence which is very large. The in-homogeneities are
mainly in the direction of guided wavelength i.e. in forward direction.

6. The in-homogeneities in Mie scattering can be reduced by coating of a fiber.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Mie scattering is a type of linear scattering loss. It results from fluctuations in
diameter, differences in core-cladding refractive index, and differences along the fiber length.
Therefore, such in-homogeneities can be reduced by controlled extrusion and coating of the
fiber.

7. Raman and Brillouin scattering are usually observed at ___________


a) Low optical power densities
b) Medium optical power densities
c) High optical power densities
d) Threshold power densities

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: c
at

Explanation: Raman and Brillouin scattering mechanism are non-linear. They provide optical
H

gain but with a shift in frequency, thus contributing to attenuation for light transmission at a
e

particular wavelength. They can be seen at high optical power densities.


pl

8. The phonon is a quantum of an elastic wave in a crystal lattice.


r
Pu

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A phonon is an elastic arrangement of atoms or molecules in condensed matter.
This matter maybe solids or liquids. A phonon is a discrete unit of vibrational mechanical energy
given by hf joules;
Where h = Planck’s constant
f = frequency.

9. A single-mode optical fiber has an attenuation of 0.3dB/km when operating at wavelength of


1.1μm. The fiber core diameter is 4μm and bandwidth is 500 MHz. Find threshold optical power
for stimulated Brillouin scattering.
a) 11.20 mw
b) 12.77 mw
c) 13.08 mw
d) 12.12 mw
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The threshold optical power stimulated Brillouin scattering is given by-
PB = 4.4*10-3d2λ2αdBv
Where, PB = threshold optical power
d = diameter of core
λ = wavelength
αdB = attenuation.

10. 0.4 dB/km, 1.4μm, 6μm, 550MHz. Find threshold optical power for stimulated Raman
scattering.
a) 1.98 W
b) 1.20 W
c) 1.18 W
d) 0.96 W
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The threshold optical power stimulated Raman scattering is given by-
PR = 5.9*10-2d2λαdB

p
Where, PR = optical power for Raman scattering Ap
d = diameter of core
λ = wavelength
at

αdB = attenuation.
H
e

11. Stimulated Brillouin scattering is mainly a ___________


pl

a) Forward process
b) Backward process
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Pu

c) Upward process
d) Downward process
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The incident photon in Stimulated Brillouin scattering reduces a phonon of acoustic
frequency as well as scattered photon. This produces an optical frequency shift which varies with
the scattering angle. This frequency shift is max. in backward direction reducing to zero in
forward direction making Stimulated Brillouin scattering a backward process.

12. High frequency optical phonon is generated in stimulated Raman scattering.


a) False
b) True
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: An acoustic proton is generated in Stimulated Brillouin scattering. Raman
scattering may have an optical power threshold higher than Stimulated Brillouin scattering.
13. Stimulated Raman scattering occur in ___________
a) Forward direction
b) Backward direction
c) Upward direction
d) Forward and backward direction
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Stimulated Raman scattering is similar to Stimulated Brillouin scattering except
that a high frequency phonon is generated in Stimulated Raman scattering. Stimulated Raman
scattering can occur in forward and backward direction as it has optical power threshold higher
than Stimulated Brillouin scattering.

14. Stimulated Raman scattering may have an optical power threshold of may be three orders of
magnitude ___________
a) Lower than Brillouin threshold
b) Higher than Brillouin threshold
c) Same as Brillouin threshold
d) Higher than Rayleigh threshold

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: b
at

Explanation: Stimulated Raman scattering involves generation of high- frequency phonon.


H

Stimulated Brillouin scattering on the other hand, involves the generation of an acoustic phonon
e

in a scattering process.
r pl

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
Pu

“Dispersion – Chromatic Dispersion “.

1. What is dispersion in optical fiber communication?


a) Compression of light pulses
b) Broadening of transmitted light pulses along the channel
c) Overlapping of light pulses on compression
d) Absorption of light pulses
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Dispersion of transmitted optical signal causes distortion of analog as well as
digital transmission. When the optical signal travels along the channel, the dispersion mechanism
causes broadening of light pulses and thus in turn overlaps with their neighboring pulses.

2. What does ISI stand for in optical fiber communication?


a) Invisible size interference
b) Infrared size interference
c) Inter-symbol interference
d) Inter-shape interference
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Dispersion causes the light pulses to broaden and overlap with other light pulses.
This overlapping creates an interference which is termed as inter-symbol interference.

3. For no overlapping of light pulses down on an optical fiber link, the digital bit rate BT must be
___________
a) Less than the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration
b) More than the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration
c) Same as that of than the reciprocal of broadened pulse duration
d) Negligible
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The digital bit rate and pulse duration are always inversely proportional to each
other.
BT < = 12 Γ

p
Where BT = bit rate Ap
2Γ = duration of pulse.
at

4. The maximum bit rate that may be obtained on an optical fiber link is 1/3Γ.
H

a) True
e

b) False
pl

View Answer
r
Pu

Answer: b
Explanation: The digital bit rate is function of signal attenuation on a link and signal to noise
ratio. For the restriction of interference, the bit rate should be always equal to or less than 1/2Γ.

5. 3dB optical bandwidth is always ___________ the 3dB electrical bandwidth.


a) Smaller than
b) Larger than
c) Negligible than
d) Equal to
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Optical bandwidth is half of the maximum data rate. For non-return:0 (NRZ),
bandwidth is same as bit rate. The bandwidth B for metallic conductors is defined by electrical
3dB points. Optical communication uses electrical circuitry where signal power has dropped to
half its value due to modulated portion of modulated signal.

6. A multimode graded index fiber exhibits a total pulse broadening of 0.15μsover a distance of
16 km. Estimate the maximum possible bandwidth, assuming no intersymbol interference.
a) 4.6 MHz
b) 3.9 MHz
c) 3.3 MHz
d) 4.2 MHz
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum possible bandwidth is equivalent to the maximum possible bitrate.
The maximum bit rate assuming no inter-symbol interference is given by
BT = 12 Γ
Where BT = bandwidth.

7. What is pulse dispersion per unit length if for a graded index fiber, 0.1μs pulse broadening is
seen over a distance of 13 km?
a) 6.12ns/km
b) 7.69ns/km
c) 10.29ns/km
d) 8.23ns/km
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: b
Explanation: The dispersion mechanism causes broadening of light pulses. The pulse dispersion
at

per unit length is obtained by dividing total dispersion of total length of fiber.
H

Dispersion = 0.1*10-6/13 = 7.69 ns/km.


e
pl

8. Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion.


a) True
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Pu

b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Intermodal delay is a result of each mode having a different group velocity at a
single frequency. The intermodal delay helps us to know about the information carrying capacity
of the fiber.

9. Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Intermodal delay, the name only suggests, includes many modes. On the other hand
chromatic dispersion is pulse spreading that takes place within a single mode. Chromatic
dispersion is also called as intermodal dispersion.
10. The optical source used in a fiber is an injection laser with a relative spectral width σ λ/λ of
0.0011 at a wavelength of 0.70μm. Estimate the RMS spectral width.
a) 1.2 nm
b) 1.3 nm
c) 0.77 nm
d) 0.98 nm
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The relative spectral width σλ/λ= 0.01 is given. The rms spectral width can be
calculated as follows:
σλ/λ = 0.0011
σλ = 0.0011λ
= 0.0011*0.70*10-6
= 0.77 nm.

11. In waveguide dispersion, refractive index is independent of ______________


a) Bit rate
b) Index difference

p
c) Velocity of medium Ap
d) Wavelength
View Answer
at
H

Answer: d
Explanation: In material dispersion, refractive index is a function of optical wavelength. It varies
e
pl

as a function of wavelength. In wavelength dispersion, group delay is expressed in terms of


normalized propagation constant instead of wavelength.
r
Pu

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Intermodal Dispersion”.

1. Intermodal dispersion occurring in a large amount in multimode step index fiber results in
____________
a) Propagation of the fiber
b) Propagating through the fiber
c) Pulse broadening at output
d) Attenuation of waves
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion is caused due to difference in
propagation delay between different modes in the multimode fiber. As different modes travel
with different group velocities, the pulse width at output depends on transmission time of all
modes. This creates difference in overall dispersion which results in pulse broadening.
2. After Total Internal Reflection the Meridional ray __________
a) Makes an angle equal to acceptance angle with the axial ray
b) Makes an angle equal to critical angle with the axial ray
c) Travels parallel equal to critical angle with the axial ray
d) Makes an angle equal to critical angle with the axial ray
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Meridional ray travels along the axis of the fiber. When the ray is incident,
makes an angle equal to acceptance angle and thus it propagates through the fiber. As the
propagating ray gets refracted from the boundary, it makes an angle (i.e. critical angle) with the
normal.

3. Consider a single mode fiber having core refractive index n1= 1.5. The fiber length is 12m.
Find the time taken by the axial ray to travel along the fiber.
a) 1.00μsec
b) 0.06μsec
c) 0.90μsec
d) 0.30μsec

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: b
at

Explanation: The time taken by the axial ray to travel along the fiber gives the minimum delay
H

time
Tmin = Ln1/c
e
pl

Where L = length of the fiber


n1 = Refractive index of core
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Pu

c = velocity of light in vacuum.

4. A 4 km optical link consists of multimode step index fiber with core refractive index of 1.3
and a relative refractive index difference of 1%. Find the delay difference between the slowest
and fastest modes at the fiber output.
a) 0.173 μsec
b) 0.152 μsec
c) 0.96 μsec
d) 0.121 μsec
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The delay difference is given by
δTs = Ln1/c
Where δTs = delay difference
n1 = core refractive index
Δ = Relative refractive index difference
c = velocity of light in vacuum.
5. A multimode step-index fiber has a core refractive index of 1.5 and relative refractive index
difference of 1%. The length of the optical link is 6 km. Estimate the RMS pulse broadening due
to intermodal dispersion on the link.
a) 92.6 ns
b) 86.7 ns
c) 69.3 ns
d) 68.32 ns
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion is obtained by the
equation is given below:
σs = Ln1Δ/2√3c
Where σs = RMS pulse broadening
L = length of optical link
C = velocity of light in vacuum
n1 = core refractive index.

6. The differential attenuation of modes reduces intermodal pulse broadening on a multimode

p
optical link. Ap
a) True
b) False
at

View Answer
H

Answer: a
e
pl

Explanation: Intermodal dispersion may be reduced by propagation mechanisms. The differential


attenuation of various modes is due to the greater field penetration of the higher order modes into
r
Pu

the cladding of waveguide. These slower modes exhibit larger losses at any core-cladding
irregularities.

7. The index profile of a core of multimode graded index fiber is given by?
a) N (r) = n1 [1 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a
b) N (r) = n1 [3 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a
c) N (r) = n1 [5 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r>a
d) N (r) = n1 [1 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In multimode graded index fibers, many rays can propagate simultaneously. The
Meridional rays follow sinusoidal trajectories of different path length which results from index
grading.

8. Intermodal dispersion in multimode fibers is minimized with the use of step-index fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As multimode graded index fibers show substantial bandwidth improvement over
multimode step index fibers. So, inter-modal dispersion in multimode fiber is minimized with the
use of multimode graded index fibers.

9. Estimate RMS pulse broadening per km due to intermodal dispersion for multimode step
index fiber where length of fiber is 4 km and pulse broadening per km is 80.6 ns.
a) 18.23ns/km
b) 20.15ns/km
c) 26.93ns/km
d) 10.23ns/km
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation:
The RMS pulse broadening per km due to intermodal dispersion for multimode step index fiber
is given by
(σs(1 km)/L = 80.6/4 = 20.15
Where L = length of fiber

p
σs = pulse broadening. Ap
10. Practical pulse broadening value for graded index fiber lies in the range of __________
at

a) 0.9 to 1.2 ns/km


H

b) 0.2 to 1 ns/km
c) 0.23 to 5 ns/km
e
pl

d) 0.45 to 8 ns/km
View Answer
r
Pu

Answer: b
Explanation: As all optical fiber sources have a finite spectral width, the profile shape must be
altered to compensate for this dispersion mechanism. The minimum overall dispersion for graded
index fiber is also limited by other intermodal dispersion mechanism. Thus pulse broadening
values lie within range of 0.2 to 1 ns/km.

11. The modal noise occurs when uncorrected source frequency is?
a) δf>>1/δT
b) δf=1/δT
c) δf<<1/δT
d) Negligible
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Modal noise is dependent on change in frequency. Frequency is inversely
proportional to time. The patterns are formed by interference of modes from a coherent source
when coherence time of source is greater than intermodal dispersion time δT within fiber.
12. Disturbance along the fiber such as vibrations, discontinuities, connectors, splices,
source/detectors coupling result in __________
a) Modal noise
b) Inter-symbol interference
c) Infrared interference
d) Pulse broadening
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Disturbance along the fiber cause fluctuations in specific pattern. These speckle
patterns have characteristics time longer than resolution time of detector and is known as modal
noise.

13. The modal noise can be reduced by __________


a) Decreasing width of signal longitudinal mode
b) Increasing coherence time
c) Decreasing number of longitudinal modes
d) Using fiber with large numerical aperture
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: d
Explanation: Disturbances along fiber cause fluctuations in speckle patterns. Fibers with large
at

numerical apertures support the transmission of large number of modes giving greater number of
H

speckle, thereby reducing modal noise.


e
pl

14. Digital transmission is more likely to be affected by modal noise.


a) True
r
Pu

b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Analog transmission is more affected by modal noise due to higher optical power
levels which is required at receiver when quantum noise effects are considered. So it is important
to look into design considerations.

This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
“Overall Fiber Dispersion & Modified Single Mode Fibers”.

1. A multimode step index fiber has source of RMS spectral width of 60nm and dispersion
parameter for fiber is 150psnm-1km-1. Estimate rms pulse broadening due to material dispersion.
a) 12.5ns km-1
b) 9.6ns km-1
c) 9.0ns km-1
d) 10.2ns km-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The RMS pulse broadening per km due to material dispersion is given by
σm(1 km) = σλLM
= 60*1* 150pskm-1
= 9.0nskm-1
Where σλ = rms spectral width
L = length of fiber
M = dispersion parameter.

2. A multimode fiber has RMS pulse broadening per km of 12ns/km and 28ns/km due to material
dispersion and intermodal dispersion resp. Find the total RMS pulse broadening.
a) 30.46ns/km
b) 31.23ns/km
c) 28.12ns/km
d) 26.10ns/km
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The overall dispersion in multimode fibers comprises both chromatic and

p
intermodal terms. The total RMS pulse broadening σT is given by
Ap
at

Where σm = RMS pulse broadening due to material dispersion


σi = RMS pulse broadening due to intermodal dispersion.
H
e

3. Γg = dβ / C*dk. What is β in the given equation?


pl

a) Attenuation constant
r

b) Propagation constant
Pu

c) Boltzmann’s constant
d) Free-space
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Above given equation is an equation of transit time or a group delay(Γg) for a light
pulse. This light pulse is propagating along a unit length of a single mode fiber.

4. Most of the power in an optical fiber is transmitted in fiber cladding.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Most of the power in optical fiber is transmitted in fiber core. This is because in
multimode fibers, majority of modes propagating in the core area are far from cutoff. Hence
more power is transmitted.
5. A single mode fiber has a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.21μm and a dispersion slope of
0.08 psnm-2km-1. What is the total first order dispersion at wavelength 1.26μm.
a) -2.8psnm-1 km-1
b) -3.76psnm-1 km-1
c) -1.2psnm-1 km-1
d) 2.4psnm-1 km-1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The total first order dispersion for fiber at two wavelength is obtained by
DT(1260 nm) = λS0/4 [1-(λ0/λ)4]
= (1260*0.08*10-12)/4 * (1-[1550/1260]4)
= -3.76psnm-1km-1
Where
λ0 = zero dispersion wavelength
λ = wavelength
S0 = dispersion slope
DT = total first order dispersion.

p
6. The dispersion due to material, waveguide and profile are -2.8nm-1km-1, 20.1nm-1km-1 and
Ap
23.2nm-1km-1respectively. Find the total first order dispersion?
a) 36.2psnm-1 km-1
at

b) 38.12psnm-1 km-1
H

c) 40.5psnm-1 km-1
d) 20.9psnm-1 km-1
e
pl

View Answer
r
Pu

Answer: c
Explanation: The total dispersion is given by
DT = DM + DW + DP(psnm-1km-1)
Where
DW = waveguide dispersion
DM = Material dispersion
DP = profile dispersion.

7. Dispersion-shifted single mode fibers are created by __________


a) Increasing fiber core diameter and decreasing fractional index difference
b) Decreasing fiber core diameter and decreasing fractional index difference
c) Decreasing fiber core diameter and increasing fractional index difference
d) Increasing fiber core diameter and increasing fractional index difference
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is possible to modify the dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers by
tailoring of some fiber parameters. These fiber parameters include core diameter and relative
index difference.
8. An alternative modification of the dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers involves
achievement of low dispersion gap over the low-loss wavelength region between __________
a) 0.2 and 0.9μm
b) 0.1 and 0.2μm
c) 1.3 and 1.6μm
d) 2 and 3μm
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Dispersion characteristics can be altered by changing fiber parameters and
wavelength. The achievement of low dispersion gap over the region 1.3 and 1.6μm modifies the
dispersion characteristics of single mode fibers.

9. The fibers which relax the spectral requirements for optical sources and allow flexible
wavelength division multiplying are known as __________
a) Dispersion-flattened single mode fiber
b) Dispersion-enhanced single mode fiber
c) Dispersion-compressed single mode fiber
d) Dispersion-standardized single mode fiber

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: a
at

Explanation: The dispersion-flattened single mode fibers (DFFS) are obtained by fabricating
H

multilayer index profiles with increased waveguide dispersion. This is tailored to provide overall
dispersion say 2psnm-1km-1 over the wavelength range 1.3 to 1.6μm.
e
pl

10. For suitable power confinement of fundamental mode, the normalized frequency v should be
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maintained in the range 1.5 to 2.4μm and the fractional index difference must be linearly
increased as a square function while the core diameter is linearly reduced to keep v constant.
This confinement is achieved by?
a) Increasing level of silica doping in fiber core
b) Increasing level of germanium doping in fiber core
c) Decreasing level of silica germanium in fiber core
d) Decreasing level of silica doping in fiber core
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The tailoring of fiber parameters provides suitable power confinement. These
parameters may be diameter, index-difference, frequency etc. The doping level of germanium
contributes to the tailoring of fiber parameters; which in turn provides suitable power
confinement.

11. Any amount of stress occurring at the core-cladding interface would be reduced by grading
the material composition.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A problem arises with that of simple step index approach to dispersion shifting is
high. The fibers produced exhibit high dopant-dependent losses at operating wavelengths. These
losses are caused by induced-stress in the region of core-cladding interface. This can be reduced
by grading the material composition of the fiber.

12. The variant of non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber is called as __________


a) Dispersion flattened fiber
b) Zero-dispersion fiber
c) Positive-dispersion fiber
d) Negative-dispersion fiber
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The dispersion profile for non-zero dispersion shifted fiber is referred to as
bandwidth non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber. It was introduced to provide wavelength division

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multiplexed applications to be extended into the s-band. The variant of non-zero-dispersion-
shifted fiber can also be referred to as dispersion compensating fiber.
at

13. Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced in the year 2000.


H

a) True
e

b) False
pl

View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced in mid-1990s to provide
wavelength division multiplexing applications. In the year 2000, the dispersion profile for non-
zero-dispersion-shifted fiber was introduced.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Polarization”.

1. For many applications that involve optical fiber transmission, an intensity modulation optical
source is not required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In many optical fibers transmission, the cylindrical fibers used generally do not
maintain polarization state of light input source not more than a few meters. So for this reason,
optical sources intensity modulation is required.
2. The optical source used for detection of optical signal is ____________
a) IR sensors
b) Photodiodes
c) Zener diodes
d) Transistors
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Optical signal is generally detected by photodiodes because photodiode is generally
insensitive to optical polarization or phase of light with the fiber.

3. An optical fiber behaves as a birefringence medium due to differences in ___________


a) Effective R-I and core geometry
b) Core-cladding symmetry
c) Transmission/propagation time of waves
d) Refractive indices of glass and silica
View Answer

Answer: a

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Explanation: In an optical fiber with ideal optically circulatory symmetric core, both polarization
modes propagate with same velocities. These fibers have variations in internal and external
stress; fiber bending and so exhibit some birefringence.
at
H

4. The beat length in a single mode optical fiber is 8 cm when light from a laser with a peak
wavelength 0.6μm is launched into it. Estimate the modal birefringence.
e
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a) 1×10-5
b) 3.5×10-5
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c) 2×10-5
d) 4×10-5
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Modal birefringence can be obtained by-
BF = λ/LB = 0.8×10-6/0.08
= 1×10-5
Where
λ = peak wavelength
LB = beat length.

5. Beat length of a single mode optical fiber is 0.6cm. Calculate the difference between
propagation constants for the orthogonal modes.
a) 69.8
b) 99.86
c) 73.2
d) 104.66
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The difference between the propagation constant for two orthogonal modes can be
obtained by:
βx – βy = 2Π/LB = 2×3.14/0.06
= 104.66
Where
βx & βy are propagation constants for slow & fast modes resp.
LB = beat length.

6. A polarization maintaining fiber operates at a wavelength 1.2μm and have a modal


birefringence of 1.8*10-3. Calculate the period of perturbation.
a) 0.7 seconds
b) 0.6 seconds
c) 0.23 seconds
d) 0.5 seconds
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The period of perturbation is given by-

p
T = λ/BF Where λ is operating wavelength, BF = Birefringence, T = period of perturbation.
Ap
7. When two components are equally excited at the fiber input, then for polarization maintaining
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fibers δΓg should be around ___________


H

a) 1.5ns/km
b) 1 ns/km
e
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c) 1.2ns/km
d) 2ns/km
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View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The differential group delay δΓg is related to polarization mode dispersion (PMD)
of fiber. This linear relationship to fiber length however applies only to short fiber-lengths in
which birefringence are uniform.

8. Polarization modal noise can _________ the performance of communication system.


a) Degrade
b) Improve
c) Reduce
d) Attenuate
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Polarization modal noise is generally of larger amplitude than modal noise. It is
obtained within multimode fibers and so it degrades the performance of the communication
system and prevents transmission of analog signals.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Non-Linear Effects”.

1. The nonlinear effects in optical fibers are large.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The nonlinear effect arises from the interactions between light waves and the
material transmitting them and thus affects the optical signals. The nonlinear effects are usually
small in optical fibers. They have power levels of up to few milliWatts.

2. How many categories of nonlinear effects are seen in optical fibers?


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

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Ap
Answer: b
Explanation: The nonlinear effects are separated on the basis of their characteristics. There are
at

two such categories; one is scattering effect and the other is Kerr effect.
H
e

3. Which of the following is not related to Kerr effects?


pl

a) Self-phase modulation
b) Cross-phase modulation
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c) Four-wave mixing
d) Stimulated Raman Scattering
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Stimulated Raman Scattering is related to scattering. The other effects include
modulation and mixing which are parts of Kerr effect.

4. Linear scattering effects are _______ in nature.


a) Elastic
b) Non-Elastic
c) Mechanical
d) Electrical
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Linear scattering effects are elastic because the scattered wave frequency is equal to
incident wave frequency. Nonlinear scattering effects are purely inelastic.
5. Which thing is more dominant in making a fiber function as a bidirectional optical amplifier?
a) Core material
b) Pump source
c) Cladding material
d) Diameter of fiber
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Brillouin gain is always greater than Raman gain. It exists for light propagation in
opposite direction to the pump source. Also Brillouin frequency shifts and gain bandwidth are
much smaller than Raman. Raman amplification occurs for light propagating in either direction.
Thus, pump source is more important in making a fiber function as bidirectional optical
amplifier.

6. _________ semiconductor laser sources generally have broader bandwidths.


a) Injection
b) Pulsed
c) Solid-state
d) Silicon hybrid

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: b
at

Explanation: Pulsed semiconductor lasers have broader bandwidths. Therefore, these sources
H

prove to be inefficient pump sources. They prove inefficient especially for narrow gain spectrum.
e

7. Nonlinear effects which are defined by the intensity – dependent refractive index of the fiber
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are called as ________


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a) Scattering effects
b) Kerr effects
c) Raman effects
d) Tomlinson effects
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Kerr effects are nonlinear effects. Nonlinear effects are divided into scattering and
Kerr effects. Scattering effects include scattering of phonon whereas Kerr effects include
intensity refractive index parameters.

8. Self-phase modulation causes modifications to the pulse spectrum.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Kerr effect results in different transmission phase for the peak of the pulse
compared with leading and trailing edges. Self-phase modulation can broaden the frequency
spectrum of the pulse as the time varying phase creates a time varying frequency.

9. Self-phase modulation can be used for _____________


a) Enhancing the core diameter
b) Wavelength shifting
c) Decreasing the attenuation
d) Reducing the losses in the fiber
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Self phase modulation is related to phase change. It imposes a positive frequency
sweep on the pulse which in turn enables wavelength or frequency shifting.

10. The beating between light at different frequencies or wavelengths in multichannel fiber
transmission causes ________
a) Attenuation
b) Amplitude modulation of channels
c) Phase modulation of channels

p
d) Loss in transmission Ap
View Answer
at

Answer: c
H

Explanation: Phase modulation is related to frequency and wavelength shifting. In multichannel


e

fiber transmission, phase modulation causes generation of modulation sidebands at new


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frequencies. This phenomenon is called as four-wave mixing.


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11. What is different in case of cross-phase modulation from self-phase modulation?


a) Overlapping but same pulses
b) Overlapping but distinguishable pulses
c) Non-overlapping and same pulses
d) Non-overlapping but distinguishable pulses
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In cross phase modulation, variation in intensity of one pulse width modulates the
refractive index of the fiber which causes phase modulation of the overlapping phases. In self-
phase modulation, this phase modulation broadens the pulse spectrum.

12. When three wave components co-propagate at angular frequency w1, w2, w3, then a new
wave is generated at frequency w4, which is given by?
a) w4 = w1 – w2 – w3
b) w4 = w1 + w2 + w3
c) w4 = w1 + w2 – w3
d) w4 = w1 – w2 + w3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This type of frequency mixing is called as four-wave mixing. This frequency
combination is problematic for multichannel optical communication as they become phase
matched if the channel wavelengths are near to zero dispersion wavelengths.

13. _____________ results from a case of nonlinear dispersion compensation in which the
nonlinear dispersion compensation in which the nonlinear chirp caused by self-phase modulation
balances, postpones, the temporal broadening induced by group velocity delay.
a) Four wave mixing
b) Phase modulation
c) Soliton propagation
d) Raman scattering
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Soliton propagation is a nonlinear dispersion phenomenon. It limits the propagation
distance that can be achieved when acting independently. It balances broadening of light pulse.

p
Ap
at
H

3. Questions & Answers on Optical Fibers And Cables


e

The section contains questions and answers on vapour and liquid phase techniques, optical fibers
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and its cables, fiber transmission characteristics and cable design.


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This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“Preparation of Optical Fibers – Liquid Phase Techniques”.

1. What is a fundamental necessity in the fabrication of fibers for light transmission?


a) Same refractive index for both core and cladding
b) Pump source
c) Material composition of fiber
d) Variation of refractive index inside the optical fiber
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For fabrication of fibers, two different transparent materials to light over a
wavelength range of 0.8 to 1.7μm are required. Fiber should exhibit low attenuation, absorption
and scattering losses. The variation of refractive indices in a fiber is a necessity for fiber
fabrication.

2. Which materials are unsuitable for the fabrication of graded index fiber?
a) Glass-like-materials
b) Mono-crystalline structures
c) Amorphous material
d) Silica based material
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In case of graded index fiber, it is essential that the refractive index of the material
is varied by suitable doping with another compatible material. These two materials should have
mutual solubility over a wide range of concentration. This is achieved only in glass-like-
materials.

3. How many different categories are available for the methods of preparing optical glasses?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The methods of preparing optical glasses are divided into two categories. One is the

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conventional glass refining technique and other is vapor-phase-deposition method.

4. What is the first stage in liquid-phase-technique?


at

a) Preparation of ultra-pure material powders


H

b) Melting of materials
e

c) Decomposition
pl

d) Crystallization
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: In liquid-phase-technique melting, the first stage includes the preparation of ultra-
pure material powders. These are usually oxides or carbonates which decomposes during glass
melting.

5. Which processes are involved in the purification stage in liquid-phase-technique?


a) Filtration, Co-precipitation, Re-crystallization
b) Decomposition, Filtration, Drying
c) Doping, Drying, Decomposition
d) Filtration, Drying, Doping
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The compounds such as oxides and carbonates are formed during the glass melting.
The purification accounts for a large proportion of material cost. These compounds are
commercially available. The purification involves filtration, co-precipitation, re-crystallization
and drying.
6. At what temperature range, does the melting of multi components glass systems takes place?
a) 100-300 degree Celsius
b) 600-800 degree Celsius
c) 900-1300 degree Celsius
d) 1500-1800 degree Celsius
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The glass materials in the powdered form and have relatively low melting point.
Thus, the glass materials are melted at relatively low temperatures in the range of 900-1300
degrees Celsius.

7. Fiber drawing using preform was useful for the production of graded index fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A technique for producing fine optical fiber waveguides is to make a preform using

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the rod in the tube process. This technique was useful for the production of step-index fibers with
large core diameters. In this technique, achievement of low attenuation is not critical as there is a
danger of including bubbles at the core-cladding interface.
at
H

8. The minute perturbations and impurities in the fiber drawing process using preform technique
e

can result in very high losses of _____________


pl

a) Between 500 and 1000 dB/km


b) Between 100 and 300 dB/km
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c) Between 1200 and 1600 dB/km


d) More than 2000 dB/km
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The minute perturbations and impurities in the fiber include formations of bubbles
and involvement of particulate matter. The losses due to such impurities can be between 500 and
1000 dB/km.

9. The liquid-phase melting technique is used for the production of fibers ___________
a) With a core diameter of 50μm
b) With a core diameter less than 100μm
c) With a core diameter more than 200μm
d) With a core diameter of 100μm
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The multicomponent glass fibers prepared continuously by liquid-phase melting
technique have losses in the range of 5 and 20 dB/km at a wavelength of 0.85μm. This method is
thus used for preparation of fibers with a large core diameter. Also this technique is used for the
continuous production of fibers.

10. Graded index fibers produced by liquid-phase melting techniques are less dispersive than
step-index fibers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Liquid-phase melting technique does not offer optimum parabolic profile fibers.
This parabolic profile yields minimum pulse dispersion. Graded index fibers prepared using
liquid-phase melting techniques are less dispersive but do not have the bandwidth-length
products of optimum profile fibers.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Vapor – Phase Deposition Techniques”.

p
1. Which of the following is not a technique for fabrication of glass fibers?
Ap
a) Vapor phase oxidation method
b) Direct melt method
at

c) Lave ring method


d) Chemical vapor deposition technique
H

View Answer
e
pl

Answer: c
r

Explanation: Lave ring method refers to the deposition of a crystalline layer on a substrate. All
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the other methods, except lave ring method, refer to optical fiber fabrication.

2. _____________ technique is method of preparing extremely pure optical glasses.


a) Liquid phase (melting)
b) Radio frequency induction
c) Optical attenuation
d) Vapor Phase Deposition (VPD)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Vapor Phase Deposition techniques are used to prepare silica-rich glasses. These
glasses exhibit highest transparency and optimal optical properties.

3. Which of the following materials is not used as a starting material in vapor-phase deposition
technique?
a) SiCl4
b) GeCl4
c) O2
d) B2O3
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In vapor-phase deposition technique, starting materials are volatile organic
compounds. These materials are distilled to reduce the concentration of transition metal
impurities. B2O3 is used as a dopant.

4. P2O5 is used as a _____________


a) Dopant
b) Starting material
c) Cladding glass
d) Core glass
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: P2O5 is a non silica material. Dopants are formed from non silica materials so that
refractive index modification is achieved. Other dopants include Ti O 2, Ge O2, etc.

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5. How many types of vapor-phase deposition techniques are present?
a) One
b) Two
at

c) Three
H

d) Four
e

View Answer
pl

Answer: b
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Explanation: Vapor-phase deposition techniques are divided into two types. The two types are
flame hydrolysis and chemical vapor deposition (CVD). Further, these two types are subdivided
into two more sections.

6. ___________ uses flame hydrolysis stems from work on soot processes which were used to
prepare the fiber with losses below 20 dB/km.
a) Outside vapor phase oxidation
b) Chemical vapor deposition
c) Liquid phase melting
d) Crystallization
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Outside vapor phase oxidation is a type of vapor flame hydrolysis. It was originally
developed by Hyde. In this process, the glass composition is deposited from a ‘soot’ generated
by hydrolyzing the halide vapors in an oxygen-hydrogen flame.

7. Complete the given reaction.

SiCl4 + 2H2O → SiO2 + ______


a) 2HCl
b) 4HCl
c) 2Cl2
d) 4Cl2
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: SiCl4 is a starting material used in vapour-phase deposition technique. Dopants are
added to the starting material in presence of heat to give glass compound. In the above reaction
SiO2 (solid compound) along with 4HCl(gas) is obtained.

8. In modified chemical vapor deposition, vapor phase reactant such as _________ pass through
a hot zone.
a) Halide and oxygen
b) Halide and hydrogen
c) Halide and silica
d) Hydroxides and oxygen
View Answer

p
Answer: a Ap
Explanation: Halide and oxygen are passed through the hot zone during chemical vapor
deposition. Glass particles formed during this travel are deposited on the walls of silica tube
at

which are moved back and forth allowing the particles to deposit layer by layer.
H
e

9. _________ is the stimulation of oxide formation by means of non-isothermal plasma


pl

maintained at low pressure in a microwave cavity surrounding the tube.


a) Outside Vapor Phase Oxidation (OVPO)
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b) Vapor Axial Deposition (VAD)


c) Modified Chemical Vapor Deposition (MCVD)
d) Plasma-activated Chemical Vapor Deposition (PCVD)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: PCVD method was first developed by Cuppers and Koenig’s. It involves a plasma-
induced chemical vapor deposition inside a silica tube. It is different from MCVD process as it
involves stimulation of oxide formation by means of non-isothermal plasma.

10. Only graded index fibers are made with the help of vapor-phase deposition techniques.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Vapor phase deposition techniques are used for preparation of both step-index and
graded index fibers. These techniques provide fibers with low attenuation losses. Also, it gives
similar performance for the fabrication of both single mode and multimode fibers.
11. Modified Chemical Vapor Deposition (MCVD) process is also called as an inside vapor
phase oxidation (IVPD) technique.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: MCVD process was developed by Bell Telephone Laboratories and Southampton
University, UK. It is called as inside vapor phase oxidation (IVPO) as it takes place inside the
silica tube at the temperatures between 1400 and 1600 degrees Celsius.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Fibers”.

1. Multimode step index fiber has ___________


a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture

p
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture Ap
View Answer
at

Answer: a
Explanation: Multimode step-index fiber has large core diameter and large numerical aperture.
H

These parameters provides efficient coupling to inherent light sources such as LED’s.
e
pl

2. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber shows as variation of attenuation in
r

range of ___________
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a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.69μm


b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.59μm
c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.85μm
d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.90μm
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A multimode step index fibers show an attenuation variation in range of 2.6 to
50dBkm-1. The wide variation in attenuation is due to the large differences both within and
between the two overall preparation methods i.e. melting and deposition.

3. Multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range is ___________
a) 100 to 300 μm
b) 100 to 300 nm
c) 200 to 500 μm
d) 200 to 500 nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A multimode step index fiber has a core diameter range of 100 to 300μm. This is to
facilitate efficient coupling to inherent light sources.

4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of ___________


a) 2 to 30 MHz km
b) 6 to 50 MHz km
c) 10 to 40 MHz km
d) 8 to 40 MHz km
View Answer

5. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with ___________
a) Lower purity
b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.
c) No impurity
d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.
View Answer

Answer: b

p
Ap
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have higher purity than multimode step index fiber.
To reduce fiber losses, these fibers have more impurity.
at

6. The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are ___________


H

a) Better than multimode step index fibers


e

b) Same as multimode step index fibers


pl

c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers


d) Negligible
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View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers use a constant grading factor. Performance
characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are better than those of multimode step index
fibers due to index graded and lower attenuation.

7. Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode step index
fibers but have core diameters ___________
a) Larger than multimode step index fibers
b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers
c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers
d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers
View Answer

8. Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical aperture of 0.29
have core/cladding diameter of ___________
a) 62.5 μm/125 μm
b) 100 μm/140 μm
c) 85 μm/125 μm
d) 50 μm/125μm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers with numerical aperture 0.29 having a core/cladding
diameter of 100μm/140μm. They provide high coupling frequency LED’s at a wavelength of
0.85 μm and have low cost. They are also used for short distance application.

9. Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers are used for short haul and medium to high
bandwidth applications. Small haul applications require LEDs and low accuracy lasers. Thus
either incoherent or incoherent sources like LED’s or injection laser diode are used.

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Ap
10. In single mode fibers, which is the most beneficial index profile?
a) Step index
b) Graded index
at

c) Step and graded index


H

d) Coaxial cable
e

View Answer
pl

Answer: b
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Explanation: In single mode fibers, graded index profile is more beneficial as compared to step
index. This is because graded index profile provides dispersion-modified-single mode fibers.

11. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
___________
a) Single mode fibers
b) Multimode step fibers
c) Coaxial cables
d) Multimode graded index fibers
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode fibers are used to produce polarization maintaining fibers which make
them expensive. Also the alternative to them are multimode fibers which are complex but
accurate. So, single-mode fibers are not generally utilized in optical fiber communication.

12. Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be at least
___________
a) Twice the core diameter
b) Thrice the core diameter
c) Five times the core diameter
d) Ten times the core diameter
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The cladding diameter in single mode fiber must be ten times the core diameter.
Larger ratios contribute to accurate propagation of light. These dimension ratios must be there so
as to avoid losses from the vanishing fields.

13. A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is?


a) Coaxial cables
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Standard multimode fibers
d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A standard single mode fiber having step index profile is known as non-dispersion

p
shifted fiber. As these fibers have a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.31μm and so are preferred
Ap
for single-wavelength transmission in O-band.
at

14. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for operation in ___________
H

a) C-band
e

b) L-band
pl

c) O-band
d) C-band and L-band
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View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: SSMFs are utilized for operation in O-band only. It shows high dispersion in the
range of 16 to 20ps/nm/km in C-band and L-band. So SSMFs are used in O-band.

15. Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength transmission in O-band is?


a) Low-water-peak non dispersion-shifted fibers
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Low minimized fibers
d) Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fibers
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Standard single mode fibers with a step index profile are called non dispersion
shifted fiber and it is particularly used for single wavelength transmission in O-band and as if has
a zero-dispersion wavelength at 1.31μm.
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
” Optical Fiber Cables”.

1. When optical fibers are to be installed in a working environment, the most important
parameter to be considered is?
a) Transmission property of the fiber
b) Mechanical property of the fiber
c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber
d) Numerical aperture of the fiber
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Nowadays, optical fibers are used alternatively to electric transmission lines. They
are installed safely and maintained in all environments including underground areas. This
requires mechanical strengthening of fibers in order to ensure proper transmission.

2. It is not important to cover these optical fibers required for transmission.


a) True
b) False

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: b
at

Explanation: Unprotected optical fibers have number of losses regarding its strength and
H

durability. Bare glass fibers are brittle and have small cross-section area that makes them highly
e

susceptible to damages while handling and maintenance. Thus, to improve tensile strength,
pl

optical fibers should be covered by surrounding them with number of protective layers.
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3. Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from ___________
a) Plastic
b) Silica or multicomponent glass
c) Ceramics
d) Copper
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Silica or a compound of glass are brittle and have almost perfect elasticity until
reaching their breaking point. Strength of these materials is high. Thus, optical fibers are
fabricated from these materials.

4. An Si-O bond with a Young’s modulus of 9*1010Nm-1 have an elliptical crack of depth 7nm.
The surface energy is 2.29 J. Estimate fracture stress for silica fiber.
a) 4.32*109Nm-1
b) 6.32*109Nm-1
c) 5.2*109Nm-1
d) 3*109Nm-1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For an elliptical crack, the fracture stress is given by-
Sf = (2Eγp/πC)1/2
Where Sf = fracture stress
γp = surface energy
C = depth of crack.

5. Calculate percentage strain at break for a Si-O bond with a fracture strength of 3.52*1010Nm-1
and Young’s modulus of 9 *109Nm-1.
a) 3.1 %
b) 2.8 %
c) 4.5 %
d) 3.9 %
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Young’s modulus is given by-
E = Stress/Strain
To calculate strain from the above formula, we have to divide stress by Young’s modulus.

p
Therefore, Strain = Stress/E. Ap
6. Stress corrosion must be considered while designing and testing optical fiber cables.
at

a) True
H

b) False
e

View Answer
pl

Answer: a
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Explanation: Stress corrosion means growth of flaws due to stress and water. This occurs as a
result of molecular bonds at the tip of crack being attacked by water. Hence, it is important to
have a protection against water to avoid stress corrosion.

7. Which statistics are used for calculations of strengths of optical fibers?


a) Edwin statistics
b) Newton statistics
c) Wei-bull statistics
d) Gamma statistics
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Calculations of strengths are conducted using Wei-bull statistics in case of optical
fibers. It describes the strength behavior of a system that is dependent on the weakest link of the
system. The Wei-bull statistics gives the probability of failure of the optical fiber at a given
strength.

8. What does n denotes in the equation given below, if v c is the crack velocity; A is the constant
for the fiber material and KI is the strength intensity factor?
vc = AKIn

a) Refractive index
b) Stress corrosion susceptibility
c) Strain
d) Young’s modulus
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The above equation allows estimation of the time to failure of a fiber under stress
corrosion conditions. The constant n is called as stress corrosion susceptibility. It is typically in
the range of 15 to 50 for a glass.

This set of Optical Communications Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people
focuses on “Stability of the Fiber Transmission Characteristics”.

1. ____________ results from small lateral forces exerted on the fiber during the cabling process.
a) Attenuation

p
b) Micro-bending
c) Dispersion
Ap
d) Stimulated Emission
View Answer
at
H

Answer: b
e

Explanation: Optical fibers must be designed so that the transmission characteristics of the fiber
pl

are maintained after the cabling process. The main problem which occurs in the cabling process
r

is the meandering of the axis of the fiber core on a microscopic scale within the cable form. This
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phenomenon is called as micro-bending.

2. Microscopic meandering of the fiber core axis that is micro-bending is caused due to
___________
a) Environmental effects
b) Rough edges of the fiber
c) Large diameter of core
d) Polarization
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Micro-bending can be generated at any stage during manufacturing process, cable
installation process or during service. This is mainly due to environmental effects, mainly
varying temperatures causing differential expansion or contraction.

3. How many forms of modal power distribution are considered?


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Two forms of modal power distribution are considered. The first form is seen when
a fiber is excited by a diffuse Lambertian source, and is called as fully filled mode distribution.
The second form occurs when, due to mode coupling and attenuation, the distribution of optical
power becomes invariant with the distance of propagation along the fiber, and is called as steady-
state mode distribution.

4. What does micro-bending losses depend on _____________


a) Core material
b) Refractive index
c) Diameter
d) Mode and wavelength
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Micro-bending losses cause differential expansion or contraction. These losses are

p
Ap
mode dependent. The number of modes is a function inverse to the wavelength of the transmitted
light and thus micro-bending losses are wavelength dependent.
at

5. The fiber should be________________ to avoid deterioration of the optical transmission


H

characteristics resulting from mode-coupling-induced micro-bending.


e

a) Free from irregular external pressure


pl

b) Coupled with plastic


c) Large in diameter
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d) Smooth and in a steady state


View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Micro-bending losses results from environmental effects such as temperature
variation. The irregular external pressure deteriorates the quality of transmission through the
fiber. Thus, controlled coating and cabling of the fiber is essential in order to reduce the cabled
fiber attenuation.

6. The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber affects the ______________


a) Transmission of optical light in the fiber
b) Spectral attenuation characteristics of the fiber
c) Core of the fiber
d) Cladding of the fiber
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The hydrogen absorption by an optical fiber increases optical fiber losses. It forms
absorption peaks where the hydrogen diffuses into interstitial spaces in the glass. At high
temperatures, these losses can increase and reduced if the hydrogen source is removed.

7. __________ can induce a considerable amount of attenuation in optical fibers.


a) Micro-bending
b) Dispersion
c) Diffusion of hydrogen
d) Radiation Exposure
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The optical transmission characteristics of the fiber cables can be degraded by
exposure to nuclear radiation. The nature of this attenuation depends upon fiber structures,
optical intensity, wavelength, etc. The radiation-induced attenuation comprises both permanent
and temporary components which makes the exposure irreversible and reversible respectively.

8. The radiation-induced attenuation can be reduced through photo-bleaching.


a) True
b) False

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: a
at

Explanation: Photo-bleaching can be exploited to study the diffusion of molecules. It is used to


H

remove the radiation exposure by quenching auto-fluorescence. It helps to increase signal-to-


e

noise ratio of the fiber and thus reduces attenuation.


pl

9. The losses due to hydrogen absorption and reaction with fiber deposits can be temporary.
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a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogen absorption occurs in two mechanisms. First phenomenon affects silica-
based glass fibers whereas the second one occurs when hydrogen reacts with the fiber deposits to
give P-OH, Ge-OH absorption. These losses are permanent.

10. The losses caused due to hydrogen absorption mechanisms are in the range of ___________
a) 20 dB/km to 25 dB/km
b) 10 dB/km to 15 dB/km
c) 25 dB/km to 50 dB/km
d) 0 dB/km to 5 dB/km
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber leads to an increase in optical fiber
losses, causing damage to spectral loss characteristics. This phenomenon gets vibrant at higher
temperatures. The losses caused due to such absorption are greater than 25 dB/km.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Cable Design”.

1. The cable must be designed such that the strain on the fiber in the cable does not exceed
__________
a) 0.002%
b) 0.01%
c) 0.2%
d) 0.160%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The constraints included in cable design are stability, protection, strength and
jointing of the fibers. The fiber cable does not get affected if the strain exerted on it is below
0.2%. Although, it is suggested that the permanent strain on the fiber should be less than 0.1%.

p
Ap
2. How many categories exists in case of cable design?
a) Two
at

b) Three
c) One
H

d) Four
e

View Answer
r pl

Answer: b
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Explanation: Cable design is separated into three categories. They are fiber buffering, cable
structural and strength and cable sheath and water barrier. After successfully going through these
tests, an optical cable is designed.

3. How many types of buffer jackets are used in fiber buffering?


a) Three
b) One
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The buffer jacket is designed to protect the fiber from micro-bending losses. There
are three types of buffer jackets used in fiber buffering. They are tight buffer jackets, loose tube
buffer jackets and filled loose tube buffer jacket.

4. Loose tube buffer jackets exhibits a low resistance to movement of the fiber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Loose tube buffering is achieved by using a hard, smooth, flexible material in the
form of extruded tube. The buffer tube is smooth from inside. Thus, it exhibits a low resistance
to movement of the fiber. Also, it can be easily stripped for jointing or fiber termination.

5. An inclusion of one or more structural members in an optical fiber so as to serve as a cable


core foundation around which the buffer fibers may be wrapped is called _____________
a) Attenuation
b) Splicing
c) Buffering
d) Stranding
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Optical fiber is made structurally stronger by adding one or more strength
members. The core fiber is trapped with buffered fibers or they are slotted in the core foundation.

p
This approach is called as stranding. Ap
6. Which of the following is not a strength member used in optical cable?
at

a) Steel wire
H

b) Germanium
e

c) Aramid yarns
pl

d) Glass elements
View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: Strength members or tensile members are added to the fiber to make it stronger and
durable. These members include solid steel wire, dielectric aramid yarns (Kevlar), glass elements
etc. Germanium is not a structural or strength member.

7. When the stranding approach consists of individual elements (e.g. single-fiber or multi fiber
loose tube buffer) than the cable is termed as _____________
a) Optical unit cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Layer cable
d) Bare glass cable
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The stranding approach consists of a fiber core foundation around which the
buffered fibers are wrapped. The cable elements are stranded in one, two or several layers around
the central structural member. When the stranding is composed of individual elements, then the
cable is termed as layer cable. If the cable core consists of stranding elements each of which
comprises a unit of stranding elements, then it is termed as optical unit cable.

8. The primary function of the structural member is load bearing.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The primary function of the structural member is not load bearing. It’s function is
to provide suitable accommodation for the fiber ribbons within the cables. These fiber ribbons lie
in the helical grooves or slots formed in the surface of the structural members.

9. What is the Young’s modulus of Kevlar, an aromatic polyester?


a) 9 ×1010Nm-2
b) 10 ×1010Nm-2
c) 12 ×1010Nm-2
d) 13 ×1010Nm-2
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: d
Explanation: Kevlar is used as a strength member in an optical fiber. The Young’s modulus of
at

Kevlar is very high which gives it strength to weight ratio advantage four times that of steel.
H

Kevlar is coated with extruded plastic to provide a smooth surface which in turn prevents micro-
e

bending losses.
pl

10. The cable is normally covered with an outer plastic sheath to reduce _______________
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a) Abrasion
b) Armor
c) Friction
d) Dispersion
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Abrasion is the process of scraping or wearing something away. If the cable is not
coated with plastic sheath, it gives rise to effects such as abrasion and crushing. The most
common plastic sheath material used in covering a cable is polyethylene (PE).

4. Questions on Optical Fiber Connections : Joints, Couplers and Isolators

The section contains questions on fiber alignment and splices, fiber and beam connectors, fiber
couplers, optical isolators and circulators.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fiber Alignment and Joint Loss”.
1. A measure of amount of optical fiber emitted from source that can be coupled into a fiber is
termed as ______________
a) Radiance
b) Angular power distribution
c) Coupling efficiency
d) Power-launching
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Coupling efficiency depends upon the type of fiber attached to the source which
should consider the parameters such as numerical aperture, core size, R.I. profile, radiance, core-
cladding index difference. All these parameters relate to the performance of the fibers
determined by power coupled into the fiber to power emitted by the source. This is called
coupling efficiency ηwhich is given by
η = PF/Ps
Where PF = power coupled into the fiber
Ps = power emitted by the source.

2. The ratio r = (n1 – n)/(n1 – n) indicates ____________

p
a) Fresnel reflection Ap
b) Reflection coefficient
c) Refraction coefficient
at

d) Angular power distribution coefficient


H

View Answer
e
pl

Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio, r = (n1-n)/(n1-n) is known as Reflection coefficient. It relates the
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amplitude of the reflected ray to the amplitude of the incident wave.

3. A GaAs optical source having a refractive index of 3.2 is coupled to a silica fiber having a
refractive index of 1.42. Determine Fresnel reflection at interface in terms of percentage.
a) 13.4%
b) 17.4%
c) 17.6%
d) 14.8%
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If the fiber end and the source are in close physical contact, the reflection is given
by
r = ((n1-n)/(n1-n))2
Multiplying r by 100, we get the value of r in terms of percentage.

4. A particular GaAs fiber has a Fresnel reflection magnitude of 17.6% i.e. 0.176. Find the power
loss between the source and the fiber?
a) 0.86 dB
b) 0.78 dB
c) 0.84 dB
d) 0.83 dB
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The optical losses in decibels at the joint is given by
Loss = -10log10(1-r)
Where L = loss due to Fresnel reflection
R = magnitude of Fresnel reflection.

5. Two joined step index fibers are perfectly aligned. What is the coupling loss of numerical
aperture are NAR= 0.26 for emitting fiber?
a) -0.828 dB
b) -0.010 dB
c) -0.32 dB
d) 0.32 dB
View Answer

p
Answer: b Ap
Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined step index fibers is given by
LF(NA) = -10 log (NAR/NAE)2
at

Where LF = coupling loss


H

NAR = Numerical aperture of receiving fiber


NAE = Numerical aperture of emitting fiber.
e
pl

6. Two joined graded index fibers that are perfectly aligned have refractive indices α R = 1.93 for
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receiving fiber αE = 2.15 for emitting fiber. Calculate the coupling loss.
a) 0.23 dB
b) 0.16 dB
c) 0.82 dB
d) 0.76 dB
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined and perfectly aligned graded index fiber is given by
LF(α) = -10log10αR(αE+2)/αE(αR+2)
Where LF(α) = Coupling loss
αR = refractive index of receiving fiber
αE = refractive index of emitting fiber.

7. How many types of misalignments occur when joining compatible fiber?


a) One
b) Two
c) Five
d) Three
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are three layers of fiber misalignments and they are: Longitudinal, lateral and
angular misalignments.

8. Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter, numerical aperture, relative


refractive index differences, different refractive index profiles, fiber faults are known as
____________
a) Intrinsic joint losses
b) Extrinsic losses
c) Insertion losses
d) Coupling losses
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are inherent connection problems while joining fibers. These connection
problem cause different losses in the fibers and are called as Intrinsic joint losses.

p
Ap
9. A step index fiber has a coupling efficiency of 0.906 with uniform illumination of all
propagation modes. Find the insertion loss due to lateral misalignment?
at

a) 0.95 dB
H

b) 0.40 dB
e

c) 0.42 dB
pl

d) 0.62 dB
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: The insertion loss due to lateral misalignment is given by
Loss10t = -10log10t η10t
Where, Loss10t = insertion loss due to lateral misalignment
η10t = Coupling efficiency.

10. A graded index fiber has a parabolic refractive index profile (α=2) and core diameter of
42μm. Estimate an insertion loss due to a 2 μm lateral misalignment when there is index
matching and assuming there is uniform illumination of all guided modes only.
a) 0.180
b) 0.106
c) 0.280
d) 0.080
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The misalignment loss (assuming there is uniform illumination of all guided
modes) is given by
Lt = 0.85(y/a)
Where y = lateral misalignment
a = core radius.

11. Determine coupling efficiency if the misalignment loss in a graded index fiber is 0.102.
a) 0.136
b) 0.898
c) 0.982
d) 0.684
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If the misalignment loss is known, the coupling efficiency is defined by
η = 1-Lt
Where η = coupling efficiency
Lt = misalignment loss.

12. In a single mode fiber, the losses due to lateral offset and angular misalignment are given by
0.20 dB and 0.46 dB respectively. Find the total insertion loss.

p
a) 0.66 dB Ap
b) 0.26 dB
c) 0.38 dB
at

d) 0.40 dB
H

View Answer
e
pl

Answer: a
Explanation: The total insertion loss in a single mode fiber is given by
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TT = T L + Ta
Where, TT = total insertion loss
TL = lateral offset loss
Ta = Angular misalignment loss.

13. The intrinsic loss through a multimode fiber joint is independent of direction of propagation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Intrinsic loss is defined as the summation of lateral offset loss and angular
misalignment loss. In case of multimode fibers, the intrinsic loss is dependent on the refractive
index gradient. The intrinsic loss through a single mode fiber joint is independent of direction of
propagation.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fiber Splices”.
1. A permanent joint formed between two different optical fibers in the field is known as a
____________
a) Fiber splice
b) Fiber connector
c) Fiber attenuator
d) Fiber dispersion
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The jointing of two individual fibers is called as fiber splicing. It is used to
establish long-haul optical fiber links by joining two small length fibers.

2. How many types of fiber splices are available?


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

p
Answer: b Ap
Explanation: Splices are divided into two types depending upon the splicing technique used.
These are fusion splicing (welding) and mechanical splicing.
at
H

3. The insertion losses of the fiber splices are much less than the Fresnel reflection loss at a
e

butted fiber joint.


pl

a) True
b) False
r
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View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Fresnel reflection loss is usually more because there is no large step change in
refractive index with the fusion splice as it forms a continuous fiber connection. Also, some
method of index matching tends to be utilized with mechanical splices.

4. What is the main requirement with the fibers that are intended for splicing?
a) Smooth and oval end faces
b) Smooth and square end faces
c) Rough edge faces
d) Large core diameter
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A curved mandrel is used which cleaves the fiber to achieve end preparation. The
edges must be smooth and have square face at the end for splicing purpose.
5. In score and break process, which of the following is not used as a cutting tool?
a) Diamond
b) Sapphire
c) Tungsten carbide
d) Copper
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The score and break process is also called as scribe and break. It involves the
scribing of the fiber surface under tension with a cutting tool. Copper is not used as a cutting
tool.

6. The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing point with the application of
required axial pressure between the two optical fibers is called as ____________
a) Mechanical splicing
b) Fusion splicing
c) Melting
d) Diffusion
View Answer

p
Ap
7. Which of the following is not used as a flame heating source in fusion splicing?
a) Microprocessor torches
at

b) Ox hydric burners
H

c) Electric arc
d) Gas burner
e
pl

View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: Micro-plasma torches uses argon and hydrogen and alcohol vapor. The most widely
used heating source is an electric arc. Thus, gas burner is not used in fusion splicing.

8. The rounding of the fiber ends with a low energy discharge before pressing the fibers together
and fusing with a stronger arc is called as ____________
a) Pre-fusion
b) Diffusion
c) Crystallization
d) Alignment
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pre-fusion involves rounding of fiber ends. It removes the requirement for fiber end
preparation which has a distinct advantage in the field environment. It is utilized with multimode
fibers giving average splice losses of 0.09dB.

9. _____________ is caused by surface tension effects between the two fiber ends during fusing.
a) Pre-fusion
b) Diffusion
c) Self-alignment
d) Splicing
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The two fiber ends are close but not aligned before fusion. During fusion, the
surface tension affects the fiber ends to get aligned. After fusion, they are aligned in such a way
that a transmission medium can get a good continuity.

10. Average insertion losses as low as _________ have been obtained with multimode graded
index and single-mode fibers using ceramic capillaries.
a) 0.1 dB
b) 0.5 dB
c) 0.02 dB
d) 0.3 dB
View Answer

Answer: a

p
Ap
Explanation: Mechanical techniques for splicing involve the use of an accurately produced rigid
tube in which fiber ends are permanently bonded. It utilizes a ceramic capillary in which an
epoxy resin is injected through a transverse bore to provide mechanical sealing and index
at

matching. This technique which uses ceramic capillaries provides insertion losses as low as
H

0.1dB.
e
pl

11. _____________ are formed by sandwiching the butted fiber ends between a V-groove glass
substrate and a flat glass retainer plate.
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a) Springroove splices
b) V-groove splices
c) Elastic splices
d) Fusion splices
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In V-groove splices, a V-groove glass substrate is used with a flat glass plate. The
name V-groove suggests that the fiber ends are spliced in a V-shape.
These splices provide losses as low as 0.01dB.

12. Mean splice insertion losses of 0.05 dB are obtained using multimode graded index fibers
with the Springroove splice.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Springroove utilizes a bracket containing two cylindrical pins which act as
alignment guide for two fiber ends. An elastic element is used to press the fibers into a groove.
The assembly is secured with a drop of epoxy resin. It provides a loss of 0.05 dB and has found a
practical use in Italy.

13. Alignment accuracy of the order ___________ is obtained using the three glass rod
alignment sleeve.
a) 0.23 μm
b) 0.15 μm
c) 0.05 μm
d) 0.01 μm
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Alignment accuracies as high as 0.05 μmare necessary to obtain low losses. The
mode-field diameter for single-mode fiber is in the range 8 to 10μm. The three glass rod
alignment provides higher accuracies than rotary splice sleeve.

14. In case of multiple fusion, splice losses using an electric arc fusion device with multimode
graded index fiber range from ____________

p
a) 0.01 to 0.04 dB Ap
b) 0.19 to 0.25 dB
c) 0.12 to 0.15 dB
at

d) 0.04 to 0.12 dB
H

View Answer
e
pl

Answer: d
Explanation: In multiple fusions, an electric arc fusing device allows splicing of 12 fibers
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simultaneously. It takes a tool time of 6 minutes, which requires only 30 seconds per splice. The
splice losses for single mode fiber are of 0.04 dB as maximum whereas for graded index fibers,
losses are up to 0.12dB.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fiber Connectors”.

1. Demountable fiber connectors are more difficult to achieve than optical fiber splices.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Fiber connectors must maintain tolerance requirements similar to splices in order to
couple light efficiently between the fibers. Also, fiber connectors must accomplish this in a
removable fashion. The connector design must allow repeated connection and disconnection
without any problems of fiber alignment.
2. What is the use of an index-matching material in the connector between the two jointed fibers?
a) To decrease the light transmission through the connection
b) To increase the light transmission through the connection
c) To induce losses in the fiber
d) To make a fiber dispersive
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The index-matching material used might be epoxy resin. It increases the light
transmission through the connection while keeping dust and dirt from between the fibers. It also
provides optimum optical coupling.

3. How many categories of fiber connectors exist?


a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer

p
Answer: c Ap
Explanation: Fiber connectors are separated into two broad categories. They are butt-jointed
connectors and expanded beam connectors. Butt-jointed connectors rely upon alignment of the
at

two fiber ends butted to each other whereas expanded beam connectors uses interposed optics at
H

the joint.
e
pl

4. The basic ferrule connector is also called as _____________


a) Groove connector
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b) Beam connector
c) Multimode connector
d) Concentric sleeve connector
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The basic ferrule connector is the simplest connector. The ferrules are placed in an
alignment sleeve within the connector. The alignment sleeve is concentric which allows the fiber
ends to be butt-jointed.

5. What is the use of watch jewel in cylindrical ferrule connector?


a) To obtain the diameter and tolerance requirements of the ferrule
b) For polishing purposes
c) Cleaving the fiber
d) To disperse a fiber
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ferrule connectors have a watch jewel in the ferrule end face. It is used instead of
drilling of the metallic ferrule end face which takes time. It is used to obtain close diameter and
tolerance requirements of the ferrule end face whole easily.

6. The concentricity errors between the fiber core and the outside diameter of the jeweled ferrule
are in the range of ___________ with multimode step-index fibers.
a) 1 to 3μm
b) 2 to 6μm
c) 7 to 10μm
d) 12 to 20μm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The fiber alignment accuracy of the basic ferrule connector is dependent on the
ferrule hole into which the fiber is inserted. The concentricity errors in the range of 2 to 6μm
gives insertion losses in the range 1 to 2dB with multimode step index fibers.

7. The typical average losses for multimode graded index fiber and single mode fiber with the
precision ceramic ferrule connector are _____________ respectively.
a) 0.3 and 0.5 dB

p
b) 0.2 and 0.3 dB Ap
c) 0.1 and 0.2 dB
d) 0.4 and 0.7 dB
at

View Answer
H
e

Answer: b
pl

Explanation: Unlike metal and plastic components, the ceramic ferrule material is harder than the
optical fiber. Thus, it is unaffected by grinding and polishing process. This factor enables to
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provide the low-loss connectors which have low losses as low as 0.2 and 0.3 dB in case of
optical fibers.

8. Bi-conical ferrule connectors are less advantageous than cylindrical ferrule connectors.
a) FalseStat
b) True
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Cylindrical and bi-conical ferrule connectors are assembled in housings to form a
multi-fiber configuration. The force needed to insert multiple cylindrical ferrules can be large
when multiple ferrules are involved. The multiple bi-conical ferrule connectors are more
advantageous as they require less insertion force.

9. In connectors, the fiber ends are separated by some gap. This gap ranges from ____________
a) 0.040 to 0.045 mm
b) 0.025 to 0.10 mm
c) 0.12 to 0.16 mm
d) 0.030 to 0.2mm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In connectors, gaps are introduced to prevent them from rubbing against each other
and becoming damaged during connector fixing/engagement. The gap ranges from 0.025 to 0.10
mm so as to reduce the losses below 8dB for a particular diameter fiber say 50μm

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Expanded Beam Connectors”.

1. What is the use of interposed optics in expanded beam connectors?


a) To achieve lateral alignment less critical than a butt-joined fiber connector
b) To make a fiber loss free
c) To make a fiber dispersive
d) For index-matching
View Answer

p
Answer: a Ap
Explanation: Expanded beam connector utilize interposed optics at the joint in order to expand the
beam from transmitting fiber end before reducing it to a size compatible with the receiving fiber end. It
at

helps to achieve lateral alignment less critical than a butt-jointed connector. Also, the longitudinal
H

separation is critical in expanded beam connectors.


e
pl

2. The expanded beam connectors use ____________ for beam expansion and reduction.
a) Square micro-lens
r
Pu

b) Oval micro-lens
c) Spherical micro-lens
d) Rectangular micro-lens
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Expanded beam connectors use the principle of transmission of digital data to the receiver.
It uses spherical micro-lens to first expand the beam from the transmitting end and reduces the beam at
the receiving end.

3. Lens-coupled expanded beam connectors exhibit average losses of _________ in case of


single mode and graded index fibers.
a) 0.3 dB
b) 0.7 dB
c) 0.2 dB
d) 1.5 dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lens-coupled expanded beam connectors use spherical micro-lenses. The average losses
are in the range of 1dB. With the antireflection coating on the lenses, the losses are reduced to 0.7 dB in
case of single mode fibers.

4. Sapphire ball lens expanded beam design is successful than spherical lens coupled design.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Spherical lens coupled design exhibits losses in the range 0.7 dB to 1dB. Sapphire ball lens
expanded beam design achieved successful single mode fiber connection with losses as low as 0.4dB.

5. The fiber is positioned at the ________ of the lens in order to obtain a collimated beam and to
minimize lens-to-lens longitudinal misalignment effects.
a) Aperture
b) Focal length

p
c) Curve Ap
d) Exterior circumference
View Answer
at
H

Answer: b
Explanation: The expanded beam connector also uses a molded spherical lens. A lens alignment sleeve is
e
pl

used to minimize the effects of angular misalignment. The fiber is positioned at the focal length of the
r

lens to achieve losses as low as 0.7dB.


Pu

6. ___________ exhibits a parabolic refractive index profile with a maximum at the axis similar
to graded index fiber.
a) Lens coupled design
b) Sapphire ball lens
c) Spherical micro-lens
d) GRIN-rod lens
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens geometry has a parabolic refractive index profile. It facilitates efficient beam
expansion and collimation within expanded beam connectors. It finds its applications in fiber couplers
and source-to-fiber coupling.

7. The GRIN-rod lens can produce a collimated output beam with a divergent angle αof between
_____________ from a light source situated on, or near to, the opposite lens face.
a) 1 to 5 degrees
b) 9 to 16 degrees
c) 4 to 8 degrees
d) 25 to 50 degrees
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens comprises of a cylindrical glass rod typically 0.2 to 2 mm in diameter. It
exhibits a parabolic refractive index profile. It facilitates efficient beam expansion and collimation with
an angle in the range 1 to 5 degrees.

8. In the given equation, if r is the radial distance, n is the refractive index; what does z stands
for?

dr2/dz2 = (1/n) (d n/dr)

a) Focal length
b) Distance along the optical axis
c) Axial angle
d) Diameter

p
View Answer Ap
Answer: b
at

Explanation: The above equation is known as paraxial ray equation which governs the ray propagation
H

through the GRIN-rod lens. GRIN-rod lens geometry is parabolic in nature. Thus z is the distance along
the optical axis of a parabolic profile.
e
pl

9. The majority of the GRIN-rod lenses have diameters in the range of ____________
r
Pu

a) 2 to 2.5 mm
b) 3 to 4 mm
c) 0.1 to 0.4 mm
d) 0.5 to 2 mm
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The GRIN-rod lenses performance directly depends on the radial distance. The diameters in
the range of 0.5 to 2 mm may be employed with either single mode or multimode fibers. They are
available with numerical apertures of 0.37, 0.46 and 0.6.

10. Which of the following factors does not cause divergence of the collimated beam from a
GRIN-rod lens?
a) Lens cut length
b) Size of fiber core
c) Refractive index profile
d) Chromatic aberration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Various factors contribute to the divergence of the collimated beam from a GRIN-rod lens.
Error in lens cut length, finite size of the fiber core and chromatic aberration are the factors that cause
divergence.

11. GRIN-rod lens connectors have loss characteristics that are independent of the modal power
distribution in the fiber.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: GRIN-rod lens geometry is analogous to butt-jointed multimode fiber
connectors. The loss characteristics of butt-jointed connectors are dependent on modal power
distribution in the fiber

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

p
“Fiber Couplers”. Ap
1. When considering source-to-fiber coupling efficiencies, the ________ is an important
at

parameter than total output power.


a) Numerical aperture
H

b) Radiance of an optical source


e

c) Coupling efficiency
pl

d) Angular power distribution


r

View Answer
Pu

Answer: b
Explanation: Radiance is the optical power radiated into a unit solid angle per unit emitting
surface area. Since this optical power is dependent on radiance, radiance is much important
factor than optical power.

2. It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch fibers.
a) Optical fiber coupler
b) Optical fiber splice
c) Optical fiber connector
d) Optical isolator
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Nowadays, requirements to divide combined optical signals for applications are
increasing. Optical fiber coupler is one such device that is used for dividing and combining
optical signals. It is generally used in LANs, computer networks etc.
3. Optical fiber couplers are also called as ________________
a) Isolators
b) Circulators
c) Directional couplers
d) Attenuators
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Optical fiber couplers are passive devices. The power transfer in couplers takes
place either through the fiber core cross-section by butt jointing the fibers or by using some form
of imaging optics between the fibers. It distributes light from one fiber to many fibers and hence
it is also called as a directional coupler.

4. How many types of multiport optical fiber couplers are available at present?
a) Two
b) One
c) Four
d) Three
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiport optical fiber couplers are subdivided into three types. These are three and
at

four port couplers, star couplers and wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) couplers. These
H

couplers distribute light among the branch fibers with no scattering loss.
e
pl

5. The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is limited by ____________
a) Numerical apertures of fibers
r
Pu

b) Varying refractive index of fibers


c) Angular power distribution at source
d) Number of modes propagating in each fiber
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When two fibers are coupled to each other, the optical power is limited by number
of modes propagating in each fiber. For example, when a fiber propagating with 500 modes is
connected to a fiber that propagates only 400 modes, then at maximum, only 80% of power is
coupled into the other fiber.

6. ________ couplers combine the different wavelength optical signal onto the fiber or separate
the different wavelength optical signal output from the fiber.
a) 3-port
b) 2*2-star
c) WDM
d) Directional
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: WDM coupler is abbreviated as wavelength division multiplexing coupler. It is a
category of multiport optical fiber couplers. It is designed to permit a number of different peak
wavelength optical signals to be transmitted in parallel on a single fiber.

7. How many fabrication techniques are used for 3 port fiber couplers?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are two fabrication techniques available for three port couplers. First is a
lateral offset method which relies on the overlapping of the fiber end faces and the other is the
semi-transparent mirror method. Using these techniques, three port couplers with both
multimode and single-mode fibers can be fabricated.

8. Which is the most common method for manufacturing couplers?

p
a) Wavelength division multiplexing Ap
b) Lateral offset method
c) Semitransparent mirror method
at

d) Fused bi-conical taper (FBT) technique


H

View Answer
e
pl

Answer: d
Explanation: The FBT technique is basic and simple. In this technique, the fibers are generally
r
Pu

twisted together and then spot fused under tension such that the fused section is elongated to
form a bi-conical taper structure. A three port coupler can be obtained by removing one of the
input fibers.

9. Couplers insertion loss is same as that of excess loss.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Excess loss is defined as the ratio of input power to output power. The insertion
loss is defined as the loss obtained for a particular port-to-port optical path. Thus, the insertion
loss and excess loss are different in nature.

10. A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μW optical power launched into port 1. The
measured output power at ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5 μW respectively. Determine
the excess loss.
a) 0.22 dB
b) 0.33 dB
c) 0.45 dB
d) 0.12 dB
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Excess loss is a ratio of power input to power output of the fiber and it is given by
Excess loss = 10log10 P1/(P3+P4)
WhereP1, P3, P4 = output power at ports 1,3 and 4 resp.

11. A four-port FBT coupler has 60μW optical power launched into port one. The output powers
at ports 2, 3, 4 are 0.0025, 18, and 22 μW respectively. Find the split ratio?
a) 42%
b) 46%
c) 52%
d) 45%
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Split ratio indicates the percentage division of optical power between the outputs

p
ports. It is given by Ap
Split ratio = [P3/(P3+P4)]*100%
Where P3 and P4 are output powers at ports 3 and 4 respectively.
at
H

12. How many manufacturing methods are used for producing multimode fiber star couplers?
e

a) Two
pl

b) One
c) Three
r
Pu

d) Five
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The manufacturing methods of star couplers are mixer-rod technique and FBT
technique. In the mixer-rod method, a thin platelet of glass is employed, which mixes light from
one fiber, dividing it among the outgoing fibers. FBT method involves twisting, heating and
pulling of fiber.

13. Calculate the splitting loss if a 30×30 port multimode fiber star coupler has 1 mW of optical
power launched into an input port.
a) 13 dB
b) 15 dB
c) 14.77 dB
d) 16.02 dB
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The splitting loss is related to the number of output ports N of a coupler. It is given
by-
Splitting loss (Star coupler) = 10log10N (dB).

14. A _____________ coupler comprises a number of cascaded stages, each incorporating three
or four-port FBT couplers to obtain a multiport output.
a) Star
b) Ladder
c) WDM
d) Three-port
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A star coupler can be realized by constructing a ladder coupler. It consists of many
cascaded stages. If a three-port coupler is used, then a ladder coupler does not form symmetrical
star coupler. It is a useful device to achieve a multiport output with low insertion loss.

15. A number of three-port single-mode fiber couplers are used in the fabrication of a ladder
coupler with 16 output ports. The three-port couplers each have an excess loss of 0.2 dB along
with a splice loss of 0.1 dB at the interconnection of each stage. Determine the excess loss.

p
a) 1.9 dB Ap
b) 1.4 dB
c) 0.9 dB
at

d) 1.1 dB
H

View Answer
e
pl

Answer: d
Explanation: The number of stages M within the ladder design is given by 2 M=16. Hence M=4.
r
Pu

Thus, excess loss is given by-


Excess loss = (M×loss in each 3-port coupler) + (Number of splices×Loss in each stage)
Where number of splices = 3 (as the value of M is equal to 4)

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Isolators and Circulators”.

1. An FBG is developed within a fiber core having a refractive index of 1.30. Find the grating
period for it to reflect an optical signal with a wavelength of 1.33μm.
a) 0.51 μm
b) 0.58 μm
c) 0.61 μm
d) 0.49 μm
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The grating period is denoted by Λ. It is given by-
Λ = λB/ 2n
Where λB = wavelength
n = refractive index.

2. It is a passive device which allows the flow of optical signal power in only one direction and
preventing reflections in the backward direction.
a) Fiber slice
b) Optical fiber connector
c) Optical isolator
d) Optical coupler
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ideally, an optical isolator transmits the signal power in the desired forward
direction. Material imperfections in the isolator medium generate backward reflections. Optical
isolators can be implemented by using FBG.

3. Which feature of an optical isolator makes it attractive to use with optical amplifier?
a) Low loss
b) Wavelength blocking

p
c) Low refractive index Ap
d) Attenuation
View Answer
at
H

Answer: b
e

Explanation: Optical isolators are made using FBGs. Since FBGs are wavelength dependent, the
pl

optical isolators can be designed to allow or block the optical signal at particular wavelength.
The wavelength blocking feature makes the optical isolator a very attractive device for use with
r
Pu

optical amplifier in order to protect them from backward reflections.

4. Magneto-optic devices can be used to function as isolators.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Magneto-optic devices use the principle of Faraday rotation. It relates the TM mode
characteristics and polarization state of an optical signal with its direction of propagation. The
rotation of polarization plane is proportional to the intensity of component of magnetic field in
the direction of optical signal. Therefore, it is possible to block and divert an optical signal using
magnetic properties which is a function of an isolator.

5. How many implementation methods are available for optical isolators?


a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Optical isolators can be implemented using three techniques. These are as follows:
-By using FBGs
-By using magnetic oxide materials
-By using semiconductor optical amplifiers (SOAs).

6. A device which is made of isolators and follows a closed loop path is called as a
____________
a) Circulator
b) Gyrator
c) Attenuator
d) Connector
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Isolator can be connected together to form multiport devices. A circulator is formed

p
Ap
from isolators connected together to form a closed circular path. In circulator, the signal
continues to travel in closed loop and does not get discarded unlike isolator.
at

7. The commercially available circulators exhibit insertion losses around ________________


H

a) 2 dB
e

b) 0.7 dB
pl

c) 0.2 dB
d) 1 dB
r
Pu

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A number of isolators can be used to implement a circulator. However, as the
number of ports increases, the device complexity increases. Hence, three-or four-port circulators
are used for optical interconnection with insertion losses around 1 dB and high isolation in the
range of 40-50dB.

8. A combination of a FBG and optical isolators can be used to produce non-blocking optical
wavelength division add/draw multiplexers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Optical wavelength divisions add/draw multiplexers can be produced by a
combination of a FBG and a circulator. Non-blocking NXM optical wavelengths divisions
add/draw multiplexer is produced where N and M denotes the number of wavelength channels
and add/drop channels.
Multiple Choice Questions
____________________________________________

BE (2015)Pattern

p
Ap
404190 Broadband Communication Systems
at
H

Topic : Fibre Optic Communication


le

UNIT II Light wave Systems


rp
Pu
5. Questions & Answers on Optical Sources : The Laser and Light – Emitting Diode

The section contains questions on optical sources basics, semiconductor injection laser, injection
laser structures and characteristics, non semiconductor lasers, tunable and infrared lasers, led
power, led structures and characteristics.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Sources : Laser Basics”.

1. A device which converts electrical energy in the form of a current into optical energy is called
as ___________
a) Optical source
b) Optical coupler
c) Optical isolator
d) Circulator
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: a
Explanation: An Optical source is an active component in an optical fiber communication
system. It converts electrical energy into optical energy and allows the light output to be
efficiently coupled into the Optical fiber.
at
2. How many types of sources of optical light are available?
H

a) One
b) Two
le

c) Three
d) Four
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: c
Explanation: Three main types of optical light sources are available. These are wideband
sources, monochromatic incoherent sources. Ideally the optical source should be linear.

3. The frequency of the absorbed or emitted radiation is related to difference in energy E


between the higher energy state E2 and the lower energy state E1. State what h stands for in the
given equation?

E = E2 - E1 = hf

a) Gravitation constant
b) Planck’s constant
c) Permittivity
d) Attenuation constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the given equation, difference in the energy E is directly proportional to the
absorbed frequency (f) where h is used as a constant and is called as Planck’s constant. The value
of h is measured in Joules/sec & is given by-
h = 6.626×10-34Js.

4. The radiation emission process (emission of a proton at frequency) can occur in __________
ways.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The emission process can occur in two ways. First is by spontaneous emission in

p
which the atom returns to the lower energy state in a random manner. Second is by stimulated

Ap
emission where the energy of a photon is equal to the energy difference and it interacts with the
atom in the upper state causing it to return to the lower state along with the creation of a new
photon.
at
5. Which process gives the laser its special properties as an optical source?
a) Dispersion
H

b) Stimulated absorption
c) Spontaneous emission
le

d) Stimulated emission
View Answer
rp

Answer: d
Pu

Explanation: In Stimulated emission, the photon produced is of the same energy to the one which
cause it. Hence, the light associated with stimulated photon is in phase and has same
polarization. Therefore, in contrast to spontaneous emission, coherent radiation is obtained. The
coherent radiation phenomenon in laser provides amplification thereby making laser a better
optical source than LED.

6. An incandescent lamp is operating at a temperature of 1000K at an operating frequency of


5.2×1014 Hz. Calculate the ratio of stimulated emission rate to spontaneous emission rate.
a) 3×10-13
b) 1.47×10-11
c) 2×10-12
d) 1.5×10-13
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of the stimulated emission rate to the spontaneous emission rate is given
by-
Stimulated emission rate/ Spontaneous emission rate = 1/exp (hf/KT)-1.

7. The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper level under the conditions of
________________
a) Isothermal packaging
b) Population inversion
c) Thermal equilibrium
d) Pumping
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Under the conditions of thermal equilibrium, the lower energy level contains more
atoms than the upper level. To achieve optical amplification, it is required to create a non-
equilibrium distribution such that the population of upper energy level is more than the lower
energy level. This process of excitation of atoms into the upper level is achieved by using an

p
external energy source and is called as pumping.

Ap
8. __________________ in the laser occurs when photon colliding with an excited atom causes
the stimulated emission of a second photon.
a) Light amplification
at
b) Attenuation
c) Dispersion
H

d) Population inversion
View Answer
le

Answer: a
rp

Explanation: Laser emits coherent radiation of one or more discrete wavelength. Lasers produce
coherent light through a process called stimulated emission. Light amplification is obtained
Pu

through stimulated emission. Continuation of this process creates avalanche multiplication.

9. A ruby laser has a crystal of length 3 cm with a refractive index of 1.60, wavelength 0.43 μm.
Determine the number of longitudinal modes.
a) 1×102
b) 3×106
c) 2.9×105
d) 2.2×105
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The number of longitudinal modes is given by-
q = 2nL/λ
Where
q = Number of longitudinal modes
n = Refractive index
L = Length of the crystal
λ = Peak emission wavelength.

10. A semiconductor laser crystal of length 5 cm, refractive index 1.8 is used as an optical
source. Determine the frequency separation of the modes.
a) 2.8 GHz
b) 1.2 GHz
c) 1.6 GHz
d) 2 GHz
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The modes of laser are separated by a frequency internal δf and this separation is
given by-
δf = c/2nL
Where

p
c = velocity of light

Ap
n = Refractive index
L = Length of the crystal.

11. Doppler broadening is a homogeneous broadening mechanism.


at
a) True
b) False
H

View Answer
le

Answer: b
Explanation: Doppler broadening is a inhomogeneous broadening mechanism. In this
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broadening, the individual groups of atoms have different apparent resonance frequencies.
Atomic collisions usually provide homogeneous broadening as each atom in collection has same
Pu

resonant frequency and spectral spread.

12. An injection laser has active cavity losses of 25 cm-1 and the reflectivity of each laser facet is
30%. Determine the laser gain coefficient for the cavity it has a length of 500μm.
a) 46 cm-1
b) 51 cm-1
c) 50 cm-1
d) 49.07 cm-1
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The laser gain coefficient is equivalent to the threshold gain per unit length and is
given by –
gth = α + 1/L ln (1/r)
Where
α = active cavity loss
L = Length of the cavity
r = reflectivity.

13. Longitudinal modes contribute only a single spot of light to the laser output.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Laser emission includes the longitudinal modes and transverse modes. Transverse
modes give rise to a pattern of spots at the output. Longitudinal modes give only a spot of light to
the output.

14. Considering the values given below, calculate the mode separation in terms of free space
wavelength for a laser. (Frequency separation = 2GHz, Wavelength = 0.5 μm)
a) 1.4×10-11

p
b) 1.6×10-12

Ap
c) 1×10-12
d) 6×10-11
View Answer
at
Answer: b
Explanation: The mode separation in terms of free space wavelength is given by-
H

δλ = λ2/c δf
Where
le

δf = frequency separation
λ = wavelength
rp

c = velocity of light
Pu

This set of Optical Communications test focuses on “Optical Emission From Semiconductors”.

1. A perfect semiconductor crystal containing no impurities or lattice defects is called as


__________
a) Intrinsic semiconductor
b) Extrinsic semiconductor
c) Excitation
d) Valence electron
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An intrinsic semiconductor is usually un-doped. It is a pure semiconductor. The
number of charge carriers is determined by the semiconductor material properties and not by the
impurities.

2. The energy-level occupation for a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is described by the


__________
a) Boltzmann distribution function
b) Probability distribution function
c) Fermi-Dirac distribution function
d) Cumulative distribution function
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium, the probability P(E) that an electron
gains sufficient thermal energy at an absolute temperature so as to occupy a particular energy
level E, is given by the Fermi-Dirac distribution. It is given by-
P(E) = 1/(1+exp(E-EF/KT))
Where K = Boltzmann constant, T = absolute temperature, E F = Fermi energy level.

3. What is done to create an extrinsic semiconductor?


a) Refractive index is decreased
b) Doping the material with impurities

p
c) Increase the band-gap of the material

Ap
d) Stimulated emission
View Answer

Answer: b
at
Explanation: An intrinsic semiconductor is a pure semiconductor. An extrinsic semiconductor is
obtained by doping the material with impurity atoms. These impurity atoms create either free
H

electrons or holes. Thus, extrinsic semiconductor is a doped semiconductor.


le

4. The majority of the carriers in a p-type semiconductor are __________


a) Holes
rp

b) Electrons
c) Photons
Pu

d) Neutrons
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The impurities can be either donor impurities or acceptor impurities. When
acceptor impurities are added, the excited electrons are raised from the valence band to the
acceptor impurity levels leaving positive charge carriers in the valence band. Thus, p-type
semiconductor is formed in which majority of the carriers are positive i.e. holes.

5. _________________ is used when the optical emission results from the application of electric
field.
a) Radiation
b) Efficiency
c) Electro-luminescence
d) Magnetron oscillator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electro-luminescence is encouraged by selecting an appropriate semiconductor
material. Direct band-gap semiconductors are used for this purpose. In band-to-band
recombination, the energy is released with the creation of photon. This emission of light is
known as electroluminescence.

6. In the given equation, what does p stands for?

p = 2πhk

a) Permittivity
b) Probability
c) Holes
d) Crystal momentum
View Answer

p
Answer: d

Ap
Explanation: The given equation is a relation of crystal momentum and wave vector. In the given
equation, h is the Planck’s constant, k is the wave vector and p is the crystal momentum.

7. The recombination in indirect band-gap semiconductors is slow.


at
a) True
b) False
H

View Answer
le

Answer: a
Explanation: In an indirect band-gap semiconductor, the maximum and minimum energies occur
rp

at different values of crystal momentum. However, three-particle recombination process is far


less probable than the two-particle process exhibited by direct band-gap semiconductors. Hence,
Pu

the recombination in an indirect band-gap semiconductor is relatively slow.

8. Calculate the radioactive minority carrier lifetime in gallium arsenide when the minority
carriers are electrons injected into a p-type semiconductor region which has a hole concentration
of 1018cm-3. The recombination coefficient for gallium arsenide is 7.21*10 -10cm3s-1.
a) 2ns
b) 1.39ns
c) 1.56ns
d) 2.12ms
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The radioactive minority carrier lifetime ςrconsidering the p-type region is given
by-
ςr = [BrN]-1 where Br = Recombination coefficient in cm3 s-1 and N = carrier concentration in n-
region.
9. Which impurity is added to gallium phosphide to make it an efficient light emitter?
a) Silicon
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Phosphorus
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An indirect band-gap semiconductor may be made into an electro-luminescent
material by the addition of impurity centers which will convert it into a direct band-gap material.
The introduction of nitrogen as an impurity into gallium phosphide makes it an effective emitter
of light. Such conversion is only achieved in materials where the direct and indirect band-gaps
have a small energy difference.

10. Population inversion is obtained at a p-n junction by __________


a) Heavy doping of p-type material

p
b) Heavy doping of n-type material

Ap
c) Light doping of p-type material
d) Heavy doping of both p-type and n-type material
View Answer
at
Answer: d
Explanation: Population inversion at p-n junction is obtained by heavy doping of both p-type and
H

n-type material. Heavy p-type doping with acceptor impurities causes a lowering of the Fermi-
level between the filled and empty states into the valence band. Similarly n-type doping causes
le

Fermi-level to enter the conduction band of the material.


rp

11. A GaAs injection laser has a threshold current density of 2.5*10 3Acm-2 and length and width
of the cavity is 240μm and 110μm respectively. Find the threshold current for the device.
Pu

a) 663 mA
b) 660 mA
c) 664 mA
d) 712 mA
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The threshold current is denoted by I th. It is given by-
Ith = Jth * area of the optical cavity
Where Jth = threshold current density
Area of the cavity = length and width.

12. A GaAs injection laser with an optical cavity has refractive index of 3.6. Calculate the
reflectivity for normal incidence of the plane wave on the GaAs-air interface.
a) 0.61
b) 0.12
c) 0.32
d) 0.48
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The reflectivity for normal incidence of the plane wave on the GaAs-air interface is
given by-
r = ((n-1)/(n+1))2 where r=reflectivity and n=refractive index.

13. A homo-junction is an interface between two adjoining single-crystal semiconductors with


different band-gap energies.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The photo-emissive properties of a single p-n junction fabricated from a single-

p
crystal semiconductor material are called as homo-junction. A hetero-junction is an interface

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between two single-crystal semiconductors with different band-gap energies. The devices which
are fabricated with hetero-junctions are said to have hetero-structure.

14. How many types of hetero-junctions are available?


at
a) Two
b) One
H

c) Three
d) Four
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View Answer
rp

Answer: a
Explanation: Hetero-junctions are classified into an isotype and an-isotype. The isotype hetero-
Pu

junctions are also called as n-n or p-p junction. The an-isotype hetero-junctions are called as p-n
junction with large band-gap energies.

15. The ______________ system is best developed and is used for fabricating both lasers and
LEDs for the shorter wavelength region.
a) InP
b) GaSb
c) GaAs/GaSb
d) GaAs/Alga AS DH
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For DH device fabrication, materials such as GaAs, Alga AS are used. The band-
gap in this material may be tailored to span the entire wavelength band by changing the AlGa
composition. Thus, GaAs/ Alga As DH system is used for fabrication of lasers and LEDs for
shorter wavelength region (0.8μm-0.9μm).
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“The Semiconductor Injection Laser”.

1. Stimulated emission by recombination of injected carriers is encouraged in __________


a) Semiconductor injection laser
b) Gas laser
c) Chemist laser
d) Dye laser
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Stimulated emission by use of optical cavity in crystal structure is used in
semiconductor injection diodes. This provides the feedback of protons which gives injection
laser many important advantages over other sources like LED’s.

2. In semiconductor injection laser, narrow line bandwidth is of the order?

p
a) 1 nm or less

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b) 4 nm
c) 5 nm
d) 3 nm
View Answer
at
Answer: a
H

Explanation: A narrow line bandwidth of order 1 nm or less is used. This narrow bandwidth is
useful in minimizing the effects of material dispersion.
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3. Injection laser have a high threshold current density of __________


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a) 104Acm-2 and more


b) 102Acm-2
Pu

c) 10-2Acm-2
d) 10-3Acm-2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Injection laser have a high threshold current density of 10 4Acm-2due to lack of
matter and in-efficient light sources. These high current densities are largely utilized in pulse
mode in order to minimize junction and thus avert damage.

4. ηT is known as slope quantum efficiency.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ηD is known as slope quantum efficiency. It gives a measure rate of optical output
power change with current and thus it determines slope of output characteristics in the region.
So, ηT is referred to as slope quantum efficiency.

5. The total efficiency of an injection laser with GaAs active region is 12%. The applied voltage
is 3.6 V and band gap energy for GaAs is 2.34 eV. Determine external power efficiency.
a) 7.8 %
b) 10 %
c) 12 %
d) 6 %
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The total external power efficiency is defined as
η = ηT(Eq/V)*100
= 0.12 (2.34/3.6) *100
= 7.8 %.

p
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6. In a DH laser, the sides of cavity are formed by _______________
a) Cutting the edges of device
b) Roughening the edges of device
c) Softening the edges of device
at
d) Covering the sides with ceramics
View Answer
H

Answer: b
le

Explanation: In a DH laser, the sides of cavity are formed by the roughening edges of the device.
This is done so as to reduce the unwanted emission in these directions and limit the number of
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horizontal transversal modes.


Pu

7. A particular laser structure is designed so that the active region extends the edges of devices.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Laser structures are particularly designed so that the active region does not extend
beyond the edges. This is done to reduce problems like difficult heat sinking, lasing from
multiple filament in wide active areas, unsuitable light output geometry for efficient coupling
and also to reduce required threshold current.

8. Gain guided laser structure are __________


a) Chemical laser
b) Gas laser
c) DH injection laser
d) Quantum well laser
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DH injection lasers are known as gain guided laser structure. This is because the
optical mode distribution along the junction plane is decided by optical gain.

9. Laser modes are generally separated by few __________


a) Tenths of micrometer
b) Tenths of nanometer
c) Tenths of Pico-meter
d) Tenths of millimeter
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The spacing in between modes is about a few tenths of nanometer. The spacing of
the modes depends on optical cavity length where each one corresponds to an integral number of
lengths.

p
10. The spectral width of emission from the single mode device is __________

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a) Smaller than broadened transition line-width
b) Larger than broadened transition line-width
c) Equal the broadened transition line-width
d) Cannot be determined
at
View Answer
H

Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode device has a smaller spectral width as compared to that of broadening
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transition line-width. This is because for a single-mode operation, the laser optical output must
have only a single longitudinal and single transverse mode.
rp

11. Single longitudinal mode operation is obtained by __________


Pu

a) Eliminating all transverse mode


b) Eliminating all longitudinal modes
c) Increasing the length of cavity
d) Reducing the length of cavity
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Single longitudinal mode operation is obtained by reducing the length L of cavity.
Length must be reduced until the frequency separation of adjacent modes is given in the equation
δf = c/2nL is larger than gain curve. Then only single mode falling in transition line width will
oscillate in laser cavity.

12. A correct DH structure will restrict the vertical width of waveguide region is?
a) 0.5μm.
b) 0.69 μm
c) 0.65 μm
d) Less than 0.4 μm
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The vertical width DH structure should be less than 0.4μm. This allows only
fundamental transverse mode and removes any interference of higher order transverse modes on
emitted longitudinal waves.

13. The external power efficiency of an injection laser with a GaAs is 13% having band gap
energy of 1.64 eV. Determine external power efficiency.
a) 0.198
b) 0.283
c) 0.366
d) 0.467
View Answer

p
Answer: a

Ap
Explanation: The external power efficiency of an injection laser is given by
ηep = ηT (Eq/V)*100
ηT = ηep/100 (v/Eg)
= 13/100 (2.5/1.64)
at
= 0.198
H

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Some Injection Laser Structures”.
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rp

1. In multimode injection lasers, the construction of current flow to the strip is obtained in
structure by __________
Pu

a) Covering the strip with ceramic


b) Intrinsic doping
c) Implantation outside strip region with protons
d)Implantation outside strip region with electrons
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The current flow is realized by implanting the region outside strip with protons.
This implantation makes the laser highly resistive and gives superior thermal properties due to
absence of silicon dioxide layer.

2. What is the strip width of injection laser?


a) 12 μm
b) 11.5 μm
c) Less than 10 μm
d) 15 μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A strip width less than or equal to 10 μm is usually preferred in injection lasers.
This width range provides the lasers highly efficient coupling into multimode fibers as comapred
to single mode fibers.

3. Some refractive index variation is introduced into lateral structure of laser.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Gain guided lasers possess several undesirable characteristics, nonlinearities in
light output versus current characteristics, high threshold current, low differential quantum
efficiency, movement of optical a;ong junction plane. This problems can be reduced by
introducing refractive index variations into lateral structure of lasers so that optical mode is
determined along the junction plane.

p
Ap
4. Buried hetero-junction (BH) device is a type of _____________ laser where the active volume
is buried in a material of wider band-gap and lower refractive index.
a) Gas lasers.
b) Gain guided lasers.
at
c) Weak index guiding lasers.
d) Strong index guiding lasers.
H

View Answer
le

Answer: d
Explanation: In strong index guiding lasers, a uniformly thick, planar active waveguide is
rp

achieved by lateral variations in confinement layer thickness or refractive index. In Buried


hetero-junction (BH) devices, strong index guiding along junction plane introduces transverse
Pu

mode control in injection lasers.

5. In Buried hetero-junction (BH) lasers, the optical field is confined within __________
a) Transverse direction
b) Lateral direction
c) Outside the strip
d) Both transverse and lateral direction
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Optical field is strongly confined in both transverse and lateral direction. This
provides strong index guiding of optical mode along with good carrier confinement.

6. A double-channel planar buried hetero-structure (DCP BH) has a planar active region, the
confinement material is?
a) Alga AS
b) InGaAsP
c) GaAs
d) SiO2
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The planar active region made up of InGaAsP can be seen in double-channel planar
buried hetero-structure (DCP BH). This material confinement provides a very high power
operation with CW output power up to 40 mW in longer wavelength region.

7. Problems resulting from parasitic capacitances can be overcome __________


a) Through regrowth of semi-insulating material
b) By using oxide material
c) By using a planar InGaAsP active region
d) By using a AlGaAs active region
View Answer

p
Answer: a

Ap
Explanation: The use of reverse-biased current confinement layers introduces parasitic
capacitances which reduces high speed modulation of BH lasers. This problem can be reduced
by regrowth of semi-insulating material or deposition of dielectric material. This causes increase
in modulation speeds of 20 GHz.
at
8. Quantum well lasers are also known as __________
H

a) BH lasers
b) DH lasers
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c) Chemical lasers
d) Gain-guided lasers
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: b
Explanation: DH lasers are known as Quantum well lasers. The carrier motion normal to active
layer is restricted in these devices. This results in quantization of kinetic energy into discrete
energy levels for carriers moving in that direction. This phenomenon is similar to quantum
mechanical problem of one dimensional potential well which is seen in DH lasers.

9. Quantum well lasers are providing high inherent advantage over __________
a) Chemical lasers
b) Gas lasers
c) Conventional DH devices
d) BH device
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Quantum well lasers exhibit high incoherent advantage over conventional DH
lasers. In Quantum well laser structures, the thin active layer results in drastic changes in
electronic and optical properties over conventional DH laser structures. This changes are due to
quantized nature of discrete energy levels with step-like density and also allow high gain and low
carrier density.

10. Strip geometry of a device or laser is important.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Near fluid intensity distribution corresponding to single optical output power level
in plane of junction can be seen in GaAs or AlGaAs lasers. This distribution is in lateral direction
and is determined by the nature of lateral waveguide. The single intensity maximum shows the
fundamental lateral mode is dominant.

11. Better confinement of optical mode is obtained in __________


a) Multi Quantum well lasers

p
b) Single Quantum well lasers

Ap
c) Gain guided lasers
d) BH lasers
View Answer
at
Answer: a
Explanation: As compared to all lasers including single quantum well lasers, multi-Quantum
H

well lasers are having better confinement of optical mode. This results in a lower threshold
current density for these devices.
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12. Multi-quantum devices have superior characteristics over __________


rp

a) BH lasers
b) DH lasers
Pu

c) Gain guided lasers


d) Single-quantum-well devices
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Lower threshold currents, narrower bandwidths, high modulation speeds, lower
frequency chirps and less temperature dependence are parameters determining characteristics of
a particular laser. All the above parameters make multi-quantum devices superior over DH
lasers.

13. Dot-in-well device is also known as __________


a) DH lasers
b) BH lasers
c) QD lasers
d) Gain guided lasers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Quantum well lasers are devices in which device contains a single discrete atomic
structure or Quantum-dot. These are elements that contain electron tiny droplets which forms a
quantum well structure.

14. A BH can have anything from a single electron to several electrons.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Quantum-dot lasers are fabricated using semiconductor crystalline materials. They
have a particular dimension ranging from nm to few microns. The size, shape of these structures
and number of electrons they contain are precisely controlled.

15. QD lasers have a very low threshold current densities of range __________

p
a) 0.5 to 5 A cm-2

Ap
b) 2 to 10 A cm-2
c) 10 to 30 A cm-2
d) 6 to 20 A cm-2
View Answer
at
Answer: d
H

Explanation: Low-threshold current density between 6 to 20 A cm-2 is obtained with


InAs/InGaAs QD lasers which emit at a wavelength of 1.3 μm and 1.5 μm Such low values of
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threshold current densities make these lasers possible to create stacked or cascaded QD
structures. These structures provide high optical gain for short-cavity transmitters and vertical
rp

cavity surface-emitting lasers.


Pu

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
” Single Frequency Injection Lasers”.

1. __________________ may be improved through the use of frequency-selective feedback so


that the cavity loss is different for various longitudinal modes.
a) Frequency selectivity
b) Longitudinal mode selectivity
c) Electrical feedback
d) Dissipated power
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Improved longitudinal mode selectivity can be achieved using structures which
gives loss discrimination between the desired and all the unwanted modes. Thus, mode
discrimination can be seen. To allow for stable mode operation, the use of frequency-selective
feedback approach is undertaken.
2. Device which apply the frequency-selective feedback technique to provide single longitudinal
operation are referred to as ________________
a) DSM lasers
b) Nd: YAG lasers
c) Glass fiber lasers
d) QD lasers
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: DSM lasers are also known as single frequency lasers. Such devices provide single
longitudinal mode operation hence called as dynamic single mode lasers. These lasers reduce
fiber intra-modal dispersion within high speed systems.

3. Which of the following does not provide single frequency operation?


a) Short cavity resonator
b) DSM lasers

p
c) Coupled cavity resonator

Ap
d) Fabry-Perot resonator
View Answer

Answer: d
at
Explanation: DSM lasers, short cavity resonators, coupled cavity resonators employ frequency
selective feedback approach and provide single mode operation. However, the Fabry-Perot
H

resonator allows several longitudinal modes to exist within the gain spectrum of the device.
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4. A method for increasing the longitudinal mode discrimination of an injection laser which is
commonly used?
rp

a) Decreasing refractive index


b) Increasing the refractive index
Pu

c) Increasing cavity length


d) Shortening of cavity length
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The longitudinal mode discrimination of an injection laser is indirectly proportional
to the cavity length. Thus, as the cavity length is shortened, the mode discrimination will get
increase. If the cavity length is reduced from 250 to 25 units, the mode spacing is increased from
1 to 10 nm.

5. Conventional cleaved mirror structures are difficult to fabricate with the cavity lengths below
__________
a) 200 μm and greater than 150 μm
b) 100 μm and greater than 50 μm
c) 50 μm
d) 150 μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: cleaved laser mirrors are used in Fabry-Perot resonator which does not give result
for shorter cavity lengths. These lengths may vary from 20 μm to 50μm. Hence micro-cleaved or
etched resonator is used for shorter cavity lens.

6. In the given equation, corrugation period is given by lλ b/2Ne. If λb is the Bragg wavelength,
then what does ‘l’ stand for?
a) Length of cavity
b) Limitation index
c) Integer order of grating
d) Refractive index
View Answer

7. The first order grating (l=1) provide the strongest coupling within the device.
a) True
b) False

p
View Answer

Ap
Answer: a
Explanation: The period of corrugation is given by lλb/2Ne includes order of grating. The second
grating provide larger spatial period and thus helps in fabrication. If the order of grating is 1,
at
then the device is coupled at high level.
H

8. The semiconductor lasers employing the distributed feedback mechanism are classified in
_________________ categories.
le

a) One
b) Two
rp

c) Three
d) Four
Pu

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Considering the device operation, semiconductor lasers are classified into two
broad categories referred to as distributed feedback laser and distributed Bragg reflector laser. In
the DFB laser, optical grating is applied over the entire active region, whereas in DBR lasers, the
grating is etched only near the cavity ends.

9. DBF-BH lasers exhibit low threshold currents in the range of ________________


a) 40 to 50 mA
b) 21 to 30 mA
c) 2 to 5 mA
d) 10 to 20 mA
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: DFB lasers are used to provide single frequency semiconductor optical sources.
DFB-BH lasers, developed in laboratories exhibit high modulation speeds, output power but low
threshold currents in the range of 10 to 20 mA.

10. Fabry-Perot devices with BH geometries high modulation speeds than DFB-BH lasers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: DFB-BH lasers exhibit low threshold currents but high output power and
modulation speeds. DFB-BH laser is fabricated by etching or grating. Fabry-perot devices
provide modulation speeds of M-bits per seconds whereas, DFB-BH lasers provides modulation
speeds of G-bits/sec.

11. The InGaAsP/InP double channel planar DFB-BH laser with a quarter wavelength shifted
first order grating provides a single frequency operation and incorporates a phase shift of

p
______________

Ap
a) π/2 Radians
b) 2π Radians
c) π Radians
d) 3π/2 radians
at
View Answer
H

Answer: a
Explanation: The performance of DFB laser is improved by modifying a grating, which in turn
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introduces an optical phase shift. The phase shift depends on the wavelength used. A quarter
wavelength shifted first order grating incorporates the phase shift of π/2 in the corrugation at the
rp

center of laser cavity.


Pu

12. The narrow line-width obtained under the CW operation for quarter wavelength shifted DFB
laser is ________________
a) 2 MHz
b) 10 MHz
c) 3 MHz
d) 1 MHz
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A quarter wavelength shifted DFB laser provides a large gain difference between
the central mode and side modes. It provides improved dynamic single mode stability. Narrow
line-width of around 3 MHz can be obtained under CW operation.

13. Line-width narrowing is achieved in DFB lasers by a strategy referred as _______________


a) Noise partition
b) Grating
c) Tuning
d) Bragg wavelength detuning
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Line-width narrowing is achieved in DFB lasers by detuning the lasing wavelength
towards the shorter wavelength side of gain peak. It increases the differential gain between the
central mode and nearest side mode. This strategy is called as Bragg wavelength detuning.

14. _________________ is a technique used to render the non-conducting material around the
active cavity by producing permanent defects in the implanted area.
a) Dispersion
b) Ion de-plantation
c) Ion implantation
d) Attenuation
View Answer

p
Answer: c

Ap
Explanation: Ion implantation approach concentrates the injection current in active region.
Current confinement is realized by ion implantation. Ions are implanted into a selective area of a
semiconducting material to make it non-conducting.
at
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
H

“Injection Laser Characteristics”.

1. The threshold temperature coefficient for InGaAsP devices is in the range of __________
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a) 10-40 K
rp

b) 40-75 K
c) 120-190 K
Pu

d) 150-190 K
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The threshold temperature coefficient for InGaAsP devices is in between 40 and 75
K. This range shows higher temperature sensitivity due to intrinsic physical properties of
InGaAsP material system, Auger recombination, inter-valence band absorption, carrier leakage
effects over hetero-junctions.

2. The process where the energy released during the recombination of an electron-hole event
getting transferred to another carrier is known as __________
a) Inter-valence bond absorption
b) Auger recombination
c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Exothermic actions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Auger recombination is a process where energy is released. This energy is released
during the recombination of electron-hole and this released energy is transferred to another
electron-hole event. During this process, when a carrier is excited to a higher energy level, it
loses its excessive amount of energy by emitting a phonon in order to maintain thermal
equilibrium. It consists of number of different processes each process involving three particles (2
electrons and 1 or 2 holes and 1 electron).

3. Auger recombination can be reduced by using __________


a) Strained MQW structure
b) Strained SQW structure
c) Gain-guided strained structure
d) Strained Quantum dots lasers
View Answer

Answer: a

p
Explanation: Auger recombination is a process where energy is released during recombination of

Ap
electron-hole event is transferred to another event. This loss mechanism can be reduced by using
strained by using MCQ laser structure. Strain can be either compressive or tensile, modifying the
valence band energy levels of material and therefore can be used to increase energy.
at
4. High strain in strained MCQ structure should be incorporated.
a) True
H

b) False
View Answer
le

Answer: b
rp

Explanation: Strain is introduced in thin layers of quantum wells by making small differences in
lattice constants. High strain should be avoided because it causes damage in these thin-quantum
Pu

layers. Also carrier leakage adds at high temperatures since it represents processes that prevent
carrier from recombination thus reducing device efficiency.

5. The parameter that prevents carrier from recombination is __________


a) Auger recombination
b) Inter-valence band absorption
c) Carrier leakage
d) Low temperature sensitivity
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Carrier leakage is the parameter that prevents carriers (electrons, holes) from
recombination. At high temperatures, carrier leakage represents all those processes preventing
carriers from recombination. It therefore increases the lasing threshold and thus reduces device
efficiency.
6. Determine the threshold current density for an AlGaAs injection laser with T 0=180k at 30°C.
a) 6.24
b) 9.06
c) 3.08
d) 5.09
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The threshold current density for a laser is given by-
Ith = exp(T/T0)
For AlGaAs device,
Ith(30)=exp(T/T0) = exp(293/180) = 5.09.

7. The phenomenon occurring when the electron and photon population within the structure
comes into equilibrium is known as __________
a) Auger recombination

p
b) Inter-valence band absorption

Ap
c) Carrier leakage
d) Relaxation oscillations
View Answer
at
Answer: d
Explanation: Phenomenon occurring when the electron and photon population within the
H

structure comes into equilibrium is known as Relaxation oscillations. The application of a current
state to device resulting in a switch delay which is followed by high frequency damped
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oscillations.
rp

8. When a current pulse reaches a laser having parasitic capacitance after the initial delay time,
that pulse will __________
Pu

a) Have no effect
b) Will get vanished
c) Becomes narrower
d) Gets broader
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The pulse will be broadened when it will reach a laser with parasitic capacitance
after initial time delay. This is because when a current pulse reaches the laser, the parasitic
capacitance of laser provides a source of current over the period when there is high photon
density. As electron density is repetitively built up and reduced quickly, there will be several
pulses at laser output as photon density will be high resulting in relaxation oscillations.

9. Reducing delay time and ____________ are of high importance for lasers.
a) Auger recombination
b) Inter-valence band absorption
c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Relaxation oscillations
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For lasers generally a switch-on delay time may last for 0.5ns and relaxation
oscillations behind twice that period. This behavior can produce serious deterioration in shape of
laser pulse at a data rate of 100Mbits. So time delay and Relaxation oscillations are highly
desirable for lasers.

10. Dynamic line-width broadening under the direct modulation of injection current is known as
__________
a) Auger recombination
b) Inter-valence band absorption
c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Frequency Chirping
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency Chirping is a phenomenon which is due to Dynamic line-width
broadening under direct modulation of a single longitudinal mode. Semiconductor laser cause a
dynamic shifting of peak wavelength emitted from device. Strong coupling between the free
at
carrier density and refractive index of device present in semiconductor structure results in gain-
induced variations which also causes Frequency Chirping.
H

11. A particular characteristic or parameter that occurs during analog transmission of injection
le

lasers is?
a) Noise
rp

b) Mode hopping
c) Carrier leakage effects
Pu

d) Frequency Chirping
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: During analog transmission, noise behavior of device is main thing that affects the
operation of injection laser. This noise may be due to instabilities in kinks in light output versus
current characteristics, reflection of light back to device and mode partition noise.

12. Intensity of output from semiconductor injection lasers leading to optical intensity noise is
due to __________
a) Fluctuations in amplitude
b) Mode hopping
c) Carrier leakage effects
d) Frequency Chirping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fluctuations in the laser output or intensity of laser output leads to optical intensity
noise. These fluctuations are generally caused by temperature variations and spontaneous
emission in the laser output. This randomness in fluctuations creates a noise source known as
relative intensity noise (RIN).

13. In multimode lasers the optical feedback from unnecessary external reflections affecting
stability of frequency and intensity is?
a) Remains unaffected
b) Increased gradually
c) Reduced
d) Gets totally vanished
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The effect due to unwanted external reflections in multimode laser is reduced. This

p
is because the reflections are spread along any fiber modes so they are weakly coupled back into

Ap
laser mode.

14. Reduction in the number of modes in multimode fiber increases the mode partition noise.
a) False
at
b) True
View Answer
H

Answer: a
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Explanation: Mode partition noise is a result of laser spectral fluctuations and so a reduce in
number of modes results in low pulse-width spreading thus providing low values of intermodal
rp

dispersion in the fiber. And so, the mode partition noise is decreased in multimode fiber due to
reducing the number of modes.
Pu

15. The behavior of laser occurring when current is increased above threshold particularly is?
a) Mode hopping
b) Auger recombination
c) Frequency chirping
d) Noise
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Mode hopping results in the hopping of modes to a higher wavelength. This mode
hopping occurs in all injection lasers and is due to increase in temperature. Mode hopping is not
a continuous function of drive current but occurs above 1 to 2 mA. Mode hopping alters
characteristics of laser and results in kinks in characteristics of single mode device

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Non – Semiconductor Lasers”.
1. ____________________ lasers are presently the major laser source for optical fiber
communications.
a) Semiconductor
b) Non-Semiconductor
c) Injection
d) Solid-state
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Injection laser coupling using discrete lasers have proved to fruitful. Such lenses
provide for relaxation for an alignment tolerances normally required for fiber coupling. Certain
non-semiconductor sources are making its lace in the optical fiber communication. At slowly
present, injection lasers are mostly used as laser sources.

2. In Nd: YAG lasers, the maximum doping levels of neodymium is ____________


a) 0.5 %

p
b) 1.5 %

Ap
c) 1.8 %
d) 2 %
View Answer
at
Answer: b
Explanation: The Nd: YAG laser structure is formed by doping of yttrium- aluminum -garnet
H

(YAG) with neodymium. The energy levels for lasing transition and pumping are provided by
neodymium ions. The maximum doping level of neodymium in YAG is around 1.5 %.
le

3. Which of the following is not a property of Nd: YAG laser that enables its use as an optical
rp

fiber communication source?


a) Single mode operation
Pu

b) Narrow line-width
c) Long lifetime
d) Semiconductors and integrated circuits
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Nd: YAG laser is a non-semiconductor laser. It does not include the use of
semiconductors and thus cannot take advantage of well-developed technology associated with
integrated circuits. Single mode operation, narrow line-width, lifetime are the properties that are
useful for optical communication.

4. The Nd: YAG laser has a narrow line-width which is ________________


a) < 0.01 nm
b) > 0.01 nm
c) > 1 mm
d) > 1.6 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Nd: YAG laser has several properties which make it an active optical source.
One of such properties is its narrow line-width. It is less than 0.01 nm which is useful for
reducing dispersion of optical links.

5. The strongest pumping bands is a four level system of Nd: YAG laser at wavelength of
range_________________
a) 0.25 and 0.56 nm
b) 0.75 and 0.81 nm
c) 0.12 and 0.23 nm
d) 1 and 2 nm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Nd: YAG laser is a four level system. It consists of number of pumping bands
and fluorescent transitions. The strongest pumping bands are the wavelengths of 0.75μm and

p
0.81μm. and gives lasing transition at 1.064μm and 1.32μm. Single mode emission is usually

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obtained at these wavelengths.

6. The Nd: YAG laser is costlier than earth-doped glass fiber laser.
a) True
at
b) False
View Answer
H

Answer: a
le

Explanation: The most important requirement of the Nd: YAG laser is pumping and modulation.
These two requirements tend to give a cost disadvantage in comparison with earth-doped glass
rp

fiber laser. Also it is easier and less expensive to fabricate glass fiber in earth-doped laser.
Pu

7. It is a resonant cavity formed by two parallel reflecting mirrors separated by a mirror


separated by a medium such as air or gas is?
a) Optical cavity
b) Wheatstone’s bridge
c) Oscillator
d) Fabry-perot resonator
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Resonant cavity is formed between two mirrors where fiber core doped with earth
ions is placed. This cavity is 250-500 μm long and 5 to 15 μm wide. A Fabry-perot resonator
oscillates at resonant frequency for which there is high gain.

8. In a three level system, the threshold power decreases inversely with the length of the fiber
gain medium.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If the imperfection losses are low then in a four level system the threshold power
decreases inversely with the length of the fiber gain medium. A three level consists of an
optimum length. This optimum length gives the minimum threshold power which is independent
of the value of imperfection losses.

9. Which of the following co-dopant is not employed by neodymium and erbium doped silica
fiber lasers?
a) Phosphorus pent oxide
b) Germania
c) Nitrogen
d) Alumina
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: c
Explanation: Silica based glass fibers are proved to be the best host material till date. These silica
fibers are doped with neodymium and erbium. These dopants include co-dopants such as
phosphorus pent-oxide, germanium and alumina.
at
10. Dopants levels in glass fiber lasers are generally ___________
H

a) Low
b) High
le

c) Same as that of GRIN rod lens laser


d) Same as that of semiconductor laser
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: a
Explanation: Dopant levels are low in glass fibers (nearly 400 parts per million). This is because
of increasing in concentration quenching which increases with the doping level. It may cause the
reduction in the population of the upper lasing level as well as crystallization within the glass
matrix.

11. _______________ fibers include addition of lead fluoride to the core glass in order to raise
the relative refractive index.
a) Solid-state
b) GaAs
c) Semiconductor
d) ZBLANP
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Up-conversion pumping of laser material is used to convert an infrared laser output
to a visible laser output. ZBLANP is host material on which laser action at all wavelengths can
be obtained by pumping. The relative refractive index is increased by addition of lead fluoride
which makes it a very interesting host material.

12. The lasing output of the basic Fabry-perot cavity fiber is restricted to between ____________
a) 1 and 2 nm
b) 5 and 10 nm
c) 3 and 6 nm
d) 15 and 30 nm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: the gain spectrum of rare earth ions may be seen over a wavelength range of 50 nm.
The lasing output will thus be narrow unless the dielectric on the mirror is arranged. Such a
narrow line-width is not used for a broadband optical source.

13. In Fabry-perot laser, the lower threshold is obtained by ___________

p
a) Increasing the refractive index

Ap
b) Decreasing the refractive index
c) Reducing the slope efficiency
d) Increasing the slope efficiency
View Answer
at
Answer: c
H

Explanation: The finesse of Fabry-perot cavity provides a measure of its filtering properties.
When the finesse is high the splitting ratio is low thus lowering the laser threshold in an optical
le

cavity without mirror. In Fabry-perot laser, mirrors are present and thus lower threshold is
obtained by reducing the slope efficiency.
rp

14. When did the non-semiconductor laser developed?


Pu

a) 1892
b) 1946
c) 1985
d) 1993
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Non-semiconductor sources are crystalline and glass wave-guiding structures. They
are doped with rare earth ions and are good optical sources. The development of these sources
started in the year 1985. Example: Nd: YAG laser.

15. Y3Al5 O12 is a molecular formula for _____________


a) Ytterbium aluminate
b) Yttrium oxide
c) Ytterbium oxy-aluminate
d) Yttrium-aluminum garnet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The atomic number of Yttrium is 39. It is the base element of Yttrium-aluminum
garnet. Y3Al5 O12, doped with rare earth ion neodymium to form Nd: YAG laser structure

This set of Optical Communications Quiz focuses on “Narrow – Linewidth and Wavelength –
Tunable Lasers”.

1. Which of these factors are critical in affecting the system performance in the case of coherent
optical fiber transmission?
a) Laser line-width and stability
b) Refractive index and index difference
c) Core cladding diameter
d) Frequency
View Answer

Answer: a

p
Explanation: The system employing intensity modulation does not consider line-width and

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stability as the factors of utmost importance. In coherent optical source transmission, laser line-
width and stability are critical factors. These factors affect the system performance and are in the
range of 0.5-1 Megahertz.
at
2. _______________ occurs as a result of the change in lasing frequency with gain.
H

a) Frequency multiplication
b) Dispersion
c) Attenuation
le

d) Line-width broadening
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: d
Explanation: Line-width broadening is a fundamental consequence of spontaneous emission
process. It is related to the fluctuations in the phase of the optical fields. These phase fluctuations
are due to the phase noises associated with the spontaneous emission process.

3. Laser cavity length can be extended by ___________


a) Increasing the refractive index
b) Reducing frequency
c) Introduction of external feedback
d) Using GRIN-rod lenses
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: the lasers having long external cavity are referred to as LEC lasers. The extension
of the laser cavity length by introduction of external feedback can be achieved by using an
external cavity with a wavelength dispersive element.
4. What is the purpose of wavelength dispersive element is LEC lasers?
a) Wavelength selectivity
b) Reduction of line-width
c) Frequency multiplication
d) Avalanche multiplication
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A wavelength dispersive element is a part of the laser cavity. It is required because
the long resonator structure has very closely spaced longitudinal modes which necessitates
additional wavelength selectivity.

5. An effective method to reduce the line-width is to make the cavity longer.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: a
Explanation: As the laser power increases, the device line-width decreases. The output power f
laser cannot be mode arbitrarily large. Thus, the line-width is reduced by making the cavity
longer. Longer cavity also enables increased wavelength selectivity.
at
6. Which devices are used to modulate the external cavity in order to achieve the higher
H

switching speeds?
a) Electromagnetic
le

b) Acousto-optic
c) Dispersive
rp

d) Lead
View Answer
Pu

Answer: b
Explanation: The devices are tuned mechanically to extend the cavity of laser. The disadvantage
of using mechanically tuned devices is low. Thus, electro-optic devices are used to modulate the
external cavity in order to achieve higher switching speeds.

7. How many techniques are used to tune monolithic integrated devices (lasers)?
a) Five
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are two techniques which can be employed to tune monolithic integrated
devices. In the first method, the mode selectivity of a coupled cavity structure is used. Other
method is used to a refractive index change in the device cavity provided by application of an
electric field.

8. _________________ laser can be produced when a coupler section is introduced between the
amplifier and phase sections of a structure.
a) SG-DBR
b) GCSR
c) Y 4-shifted
d) DSM
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: DBR lasers are capable of wavelength tuning. Grating assisted co-directional
coupler with sampled reflector (GCSR). Laser is capable of a tuning range greater than 40 nm. It
consists of a co-directional coupler between the amplifier and the phase section.

p
9. The rare-earth-doped fiber lasers have spectral line-width in the range of _________________

Ap
a) 0.1 to 1 nm
b) 1.2 to 1.5 nm
c) 6 to 10 nm
d) 2 to 2.3 nm
at
View Answer
H

Answer: a
Explanation: The rare-earth-doped fiber lasers have spectral line-width in the range of 0.1 to 1
le

nm. These line-widths are too long for high speed transmission is possible in this range.
rp

10. The lasing line-width of Fox-smith resonator is ____________________


a) Less than 1 MHz
Pu

b) 1 MHz
c) 2 MHz
d) Greater than 3 MHz
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Fox-smith resonator employs a fused coupled fabricated from erbium-doped fiber.
Narrower spectral line-width can be obtained using a resonator. It provides favorable line-widths
than semiconductor laser.

11. What is the widest tuning range obtained in optical fiber laser structure?
a) 60 nm
b) 80 nm
c) More than 100 nm
d) 100 nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A tuning range greater than 100 nm by using an erbium-doped photonic crystal
fiber. A wider tuning range greater than 100 nm is obtained at wavelength 1.55 nm.

12. How many techniques can be used to increase the injection cavity length?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Two techniques can be used to increase the injection laser cavity length. These are
using laser chips and by extending a cavity with a passive medium such as air, glass etc.

13. The mechanism which results from a refractive index change in the passive waveguide layer

p
is called as ___________

Ap
a) Absorption
b) Spontaneous emission
c) Monolithic inversion
d) Bragg wavelength control
at
View Answer
H

Answer: d
Explanation: A wider wavelength tuning length is obtained by separating the Bragg region in the
le

passive waveguide and by introducing a phase region within a waveguide control mechanism
provides phase control. It takes place by some changes in a passive waveguide layer.
rp

14. How many sections are included in a sampling grating distributed Bragg-reflector laser (SG-
Pu

DBR)?
a) Four
b) Five
c) Three
d) Two
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In SG-DBR laser, five sections are longitudinally integrated together on a
semiconductor substrate. These five sections include two diffraction Bragg grating sections, a
gain, a phase and an amplifier section.

15. Fiber based lasers provide diffraction-limited power at higher levels than solid-state laser.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In fiber lasers, the active gain medium is doped with rare earth elements. These
lasers have active regions several kilometers long and thus provide high optical gain. Solid-state
lasers, on the other hand, provide diffraction limited power at lower levels

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Mid Infrared and Far Infrared Lasers”.

1. The parameters having a major role in determining threshold current of efficiency of injection
laser are ___________
a) Angle recombination and optical losses
b) Frequency chirping
c) Relaxation oscillation
d) Mode hopping
View Answer

p
Answer: a

Ap
Explanation: Optical losses due to free carrier absorption are more because of their dependence
on square of the wavelength. Also irradiative recombination through Auger recombination
contributes to it. Both these effects cause more problems in md-infrared wavelengths and so are
at
of much importance art high temperature due to high concentration of free carriers. They also
limit maximum operating temperatures.
H

2. Auger current is mostly ___________________ for material with band gap providing longer
wavelength emission.
le

a) Unaffected
rp

b) Lesser
c) Larger
Pu

d) Vanishes
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The total current required for injection laser threshold is more than that provided to
radioactive recombination as Auger current is added. This current depends on electronic band
structure of material and often consists of different Auger transitions. So it is larger for materials
with band gaps providing longer wavelength emission.

3. Injection lasers operating in smaller wavelengths are subjected to increased carrier losses.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Injection lasers operating in longer wavelengths (mid and far infrared) are subjected
to increased carrier losses as compared to devices operating up to 1.6μm. This is from
nonradiative recombination through Auger interaction. This recombination energy is dissipated
as thermal energy to other free carriers. If band gap of semiconductor is increased, occurrence of
these events gets increased.

4. Devices based on quaternary PbSnSeTe and their ternary compounds, emit at wavelength?
a) Between 3-4 μm
b) Longer than 4 μm
c) Between 3.5 to 4.2 μm
d) Between 2 to 3 μm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Quaternary devices emit at wavelength longer than 4μm. Auger effects are less in
these alloys which provide lower current thresholds and higher maximum operating temperature.

5. Replacing Sn with Eu, Cd or Ge in some _________________ the band gap.


a) Remove the band gap

p
b) Does not affect

Ap
c) Decreases
d) Increases
View Answer
at
Answer: d
Explanation: When in a particular alloy laser for example PbSnSeTe, if Sn is replaced with Eu,
H

Cd or Ge, there is an increase in band gap. This increase in band gap provides the laser to operate
in shorter wavelength.
le

.
rp

6. Lasing obtained in __________ when 191 mW of pump light at a wavelength of 0.477 μm is


launched into laser.
Pu

a) Ternary PbSnSeTe alloy laser


b) Quaternary PbSnSeTe alloy laser
c) Doped Fluoro-zirconate fiber
d) Ternary PbEuTe alloy laser
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: When Fluoro-zirconate fiber lasers are doped with Erbium helium or thulium, there
are emission at 2-3 μm wavelength range. But lasing was obtained in this doped Fluorozirconate
fiber at a wavelength of 0.477μm.

7. The thulium doped fiber laser when pumped with alexandrite laser output at 0.786 μm, the
laser emits at ___________
a) 0.6 μm
b) 0.8 μm
c) 2.3 μm
d) 1.2μm
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The thulium system emits at 2.3 μmwhen subjected to alexandrite laser at 0.786
μm. this system is four levels in which the pump band is upper lasing level at 2.3μm.

8. The diode-cladding-pumped Erbium praseodymium-doped fluoride device operates at


wavelength.
a) Around 3 μm
b) 4 μm
c) 2.6 μm
d) 1.04 μm
View Answer

Answer: a

p
Explanation: The diode-cladding-pumped Erbium praseodymium-doped fluoride device operates

Ap
at a wavelength of 3 μm. This laser is capable of producing a very high output power of about
1W or more. It consists of double clad fluoride fiber.

9. A technique based on inter-sub band transition is known as ___________


at
a) Auger recombination
b) Frequency chirping
H

c) Inter-valence band absorption


d) Quantum cascading
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: d
Explanation: The quantum cascaded laser is a layered semiconductor device having a series of
Pu

coupled quantum wells grown on GaAs or Imp substrate. This principle of QC lasers provides
emission of an optical signal around full wavelength range. Quantum mechanical band structure
determines the emitted wavelength.

10. In a QC laser, a same electron can emit number of photons.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The QC laser operates by pumping a energy level and then using the energy in a
controlled manner. This gives some energy each time over several steps. And since a QC laser
structure includes a series of energy levels the same electron emits a number of photons while
cascading down through each energy level.

11. The phenomenon resulting in the electrons to jump from one state to another each time
emitting of photon is known as ___________
a) Inter-valence band absorption
b) Mode hopping
c) Quantum cascading
d) Quantum confinement
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In Quantum confinement, charge carriers are trapped in a small area and this occurs
in quantum wells at nanometer scale. When the quantum layer size raises to a size comparable to
emission wavelength, the electron motion becomes perpendicular to plane of layer. Due to this,
the electrons jump from one state to another each time from one state to another.

12. A QC laser is sometimes referred as ___________


a) Unipolar laser
b) Bipolar laser
c) Gain guided laser

p
d) Non semiconductor laser

Ap
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A QC laser utilizes only n-type of charge carriers. Their operation is entirely based
at
on electrons and holes play no part in this, so they are known as unipolar lasers.
H

13. In QC lasers, it is possible to obtain different output signal wavelengths. This can be
achieved by ___________
le

a) Inter-valence band absorption


b) Mode hopping
rp

c) Quantum cascading
d) Selecting layers of different thickness
Pu

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In QC laser, electrons emit energy. This energy emitted at this stage determines
wavelength of radiation and it depends only on thickness of the layer. Thus output signal
wavelength is dependent on thickness of lasers.

14. QC lasers ______________ the performance characteristics.


a) Have negligible effects
b) Does not affects
c) Improves
d) Degrades
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: QC lasers are based on inter sub band transition techniques. They have ability of
carrying large amount of currents. A single electron is enough to generate number of photons.
Thus, provides an increase in output signal power which is greater than thousands at same
wavelength due to large number of cascaded stages.

15. An MQW cascaded laser is more advantageous because of ___________


a) Mode hopping
b) Auger recombination
c) Control over layers of material
d) Properties of material
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In MQW cascaded layers, cascading creates number of injector/collector and active
region in single stage. Each region contains a single quantum wells. Such structures permit
maximum injection/collection of current and thereby produce a large number of photons. This
formation of any injector/collector and active regions is achieved through precise control of
several hundreds of layers of the material, where each layer should only be few nanometers thick

p
Ap
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“LED Power and Efficiency”.
at
1. The absence of _______________ in LEDs limits the internal quantum efficiency.
a) Proper semiconductor
H

b) Adequate power supply


c) Optical amplification through stimulated emission
d) Optical amplification through spontaneous emission
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: c
Pu

Explanation: The ratio of generated electrons to the electrons injected is quantum efficiency. It is
greatly affected if there is no optical amplification through stimulated emission. Spontaneous
emission allows ron-radiative recombination in the structure due to crystalline imperfections and
impurities.

2. The excess density of electrons Δnand holes Δpin an LED is ____________


a) Equal
b) Δpmore than Δn
c) Δn more than Δp
d) Does not affects the LED
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The excess density of electrons ΔnandΔp (holes) is equal. The charge neutrality is
maintained within the structure due to injected carriers that are created and recombined in pairs.
The power generated internally by an LED is determined by taking into considering the excess
electrons and holes in p- and n-type material respectively.
3. The hole concentration in extrinsic materials is _________ electron concentration.
a) much greater than
b) lesser than
c) equal to
d) negligible difference with
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In extrinsic materials, one carrier type will be highly concentrated than the other
type. Hence in p-type region, hole concentration is greater than electron concentration in context
of extrinsic material. This excess minority carrier density decays with time.

4. The carrier recombination lifetime becomes majority or injected carrier lifetime.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: b
Explanation: The initial injected excess electron density and τrepresents the total carrier
recombination time. In most cases, Δnis a small fraction of majority carriers and contains all
minority carriers. So in these cases, carrier recombination lifetime becomes minority injected
at
carrier lifetime τi.
H

5. In a junction diode, an equilibrium condition occurs when ____________


a) Δngreater than Δp
le

b) Δnsmaller than Δp
c) Constant current flow
rp

d) Optical amplification through stimulated emission


View Answer
Pu

Answer: c
Explanation: The total rate at which carriers are generated in sum of externally supplied and
thermal generation rates. When there is a constant current flow in this case, an equilibrium
occurs in junction diode.

6. Determine the total carrier recombination lifetime of a double heterojunction LED where the
radioactive and nonradioactive recombination lifetime of minority carriers in active region are 70
ns and 100 ns respectively.
a) 41.17 ns
b) 35 ns
c) 40 ns
d) 37.5 ns
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The total carrier recombination lifetime is given by
τ = τrτnr/τr+τnr = 70× 100/70 + 100 ns = 41.17 ns
Where
τr = radiative recombination lifetime of minority carriers
τnr = nonradioactive recombination lifetime of minority carriers.

7. Determine the internal quantum efficiency generated within a device when it has a radiative
recombination lifetime of 80 ns and total carrier recombination lifetime of 40 ns.
a) 20 %
b) 80 %
c) 30 %
d) 40 %
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The internal quantum efficiency of device is given by
ηint = τ/τr = 40/80 ×100 = 80%

p
Where

Ap
τ = total carrier recombination lifetime
τr = radiative recombination lifetime.

8. Compute power internally generated within a double-heterojunction LED if it has internal


at
quantum efficiency of 64.5 % and drive current of 40 mA with a peak emission wavelength of
0.82 μm.
H

a) 0.09
b) 0.039
le

c) 0.04
d) 0.06
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: b
Explanation: The power internally generated within device i.e. double-heterojunction LED can
be computed by
Pint = ηint hci/eλ = 0.645×6.626×10-34×3×108×40×10-3/ 1.602×10-19 × 0.82 × 10-6
= 0.039 W
Where
ηint = internal quantum efficiency
h = Planck’s constant
c = velocity of light
i = drive current
e = electron charge
λ = wavelength.

9. The Lambertian intensity distribution __________ the external power efficiency by some
percent.
a) Reduces
b) Does not affects
c) Increases
d) Have a negligible effect
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In Lambertian intensity distribution, the maximum intensity I 0 is perpendicular to
the planar surface but is reduced on the sides in proportion to the cosine of θ i.e. viewing angle as
apparent area varies with this angle. This reduces the external power efficiency. This is because
most of the light is tapped by total internal refraction when radiated at greater than the critical
angle for crystal air interface.

10. A planar LED fabricated from GaAs has a refractive index of 2.5. Compute the optical power
emitted when transmission factor is 0.68.
a) 3.4 %
b) 1.23 %
c) 2.72 %

p
d) 3.62 %

Ap
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The optical power emitted is given by
at
Pe = PintFn2/4nx2 = Pint (0.680×1/4×(2.5)2) = 0.0272 Pint.
Hence power emitted is only 2.72 % of optional power emitted internally.
H

Where,
Fn2 = transmission factor
le

nx = refractive index.
rp

11. A planar LED is fabricated from GaAs is having a optical power emitted is 0.018% of optical
power generated internally which is 0.018% of optical power generated internally which is 0.6 P.
Pu

Determine external power efficiency.


a) 0.18%
b) 0.32%
c) 0.65%
d) 0.9%
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Optical power generated externally is given by
ηcp = (0.018Pint/2Pint)*100
Where,
Pint = power emitted
ηcp = external power efficiency.

12. For a GaAs LED, the coupling efficiency is 0.05. Compute the optical loss in decibels.
a) 12.3 dB
b) 14 dB
c) 13.01 dB
d) 14.6 dB
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The optical loss in decibels is given by-
Loss = -10log10 ηc
Where,
ηc = coupling efficiency.

13. In a GaAs LED, compute the loss relative to internally generated optical power in the fiber
when there is small air gap between LED and fiber core. (Fiber coupled = 5.5 * 10 -4Pint)
a) 34 dB
b) 32.59 dB
c) 42 dB
d) 33.1 dB

p
View Answer

Ap
Answer: b
Explanation: The loss in decibels relative to P int is given by-
Loss = -10log10Pc/Pint
at
Where,
Pc = 5.5 * 10-4Pint.
H

14. Determine coupling efficiency into the fiber when GaAs LED is in close proximity to fiber
le

core having numerical aperture of 0.3.


a) 0.9
rp

b) 0.3
c) 0.6
Pu

d) 0.12
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The coupling efficiency is given by
ηc = (NA)2 = (0.3)2 = 0.9.

15. If a particular optical power is coupled from an incoherent LED into a low-NA fiber, the
device must exhibit very high radiance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Device must have very high radiance specially in graded index fiber where
Lambertian coupling efficiency with same NA is about half that of step-index fibers. This high
radiance is obtained when direct bandgap semiconductors are fabricated with DH structure
driven at high current densities.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“LED Structures”.

1. The amount of radiance in planer type of LED structures is ____________


a) Low
b) High
c) Zero
d) Negligible
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Planer LEDs are fabricated using liquid or vapor phase epitaxial processes. Here p-
type is diffused into n-type substrate which creates junction. Forward current flow through

p
junction provides Lambertian spontaneous emission. Thus, device emits light from all surfaces.

Ap
However a limited amount of light escapes the structure due to total internal reflection thus
providing low radiance.
at
2. In optical fiber communication _____________ major types of LED structures are used.
a) 2
H

b) 4
c) 6
d) 3
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: c
Pu

Explanation: Optical fiber communication involves the use of 6 different major LED structure.
These are the surface emitter, edge emitter, the super luminescent, the resonant cavity LED,
planar LEDs and Dome LEDs.

3. As compared to planar LED structure, Dome LEDs have ______________ External power
efficiency ___________ effective emission area and _____________ radiance.
a) Greater, lesser, reduced
b) Higher, greater, reduced
c) Higher, lesser, increased
d) Greater, greater, increased
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In Dome LEDs, the diameter of dome is selected so as to maximum the internal
emission reaching surface within critical angle of GaAs. Thus, dome LEDs have high external
power efficiency. The geometry of Dome LEDs is such that dome is much larger than active
recombination area, so it has greater emission era and reduced of radiance.
4. The techniques by Burros and Dawson in reference to homo structure device is to use an
etched well in GaAs structure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Burros and Dawson provided a technique to restrict emission to small active region
within device thus providing high radiance. Etched well in a GaAs substrate is used to prevent
heavy absorption of emitted region and physically accommodating the fiber. These structures
provide low thermal impedance allowing high current densities of high radiance.

5. In surface emitter LEDs, more advantage can be obtained by using ____________


a) BH structures
b) QC structures
c) DH structures

p
d) Gain-guided structure

Ap
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: DH structures provide high efficiency from electrical and optical confinement.
at
Along with efficiency, they provide less absorption of emitted radiation.
H

6. Internal absorption in DH surface emitter Burros type LEDs is ____________


a) Cannot be determined
le

b) Negligible
c) High
rp

d) Very low
View Answer
Pu

Answer: d
Explanation: The larger band gap confining layers and the reflection coefficient at the back
crystal space is high in DH surface emitter Burros type LEDs. This provides good forward
radiance. Thus these structure LEDs have very less internal absorption.

7. DH surface emitter generally give ____________


a) More coupled optical power
b) Less coupled optical power
c) Low current densities
d) Low radiance emission into-fiber
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The optical power coupled into a fiber depends on distance, alignment between
emission area and fiber, SLED emission pattern and medium between emitting area and fiber.
All these parameters if considered, reduces refractive index mismatch and increases external
power efficiency thus providing more coupled optical power.

8. A DH surface emitter LED has an emission area diameter of 60μm. Determine emission area
of source.
a) 1.534*10-6
b) 5.423*10-3
c) 3.564*10-2
d) 2.826*10-9
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The emission area A of source is given by
A = π(30*10-6) 2= 2.826*10-9cm2.

9. Estimate optical power coupled into fiber of DH SLED having emission area of 1.96*10 -5,

p
radiance of 40 W/rcm2, numerical aperture of 0.2 and Fresnel reflection coefficient of 0.03 at

Ap
index matched fiber surface.
a) 5.459*10-5
b) 1.784*10-3
c) 3.478*102
at
d) 9.551*10-5
View Answer
H

Answer: d
le

Explanation: The optical power coupler in the step index fiber of SLED is given by
Pc = π(1-r) A RD(NA) 2
rp

= 3.14 (1-0.03)*1.96*10-5*40*(0.2) 2
= 9.551*10-5W.
Pu

10. In a multimode fiber, much of light coupled in the fiber from an LED is ____________
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Lost
d) Unaffected
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Optical power from an incoherent source is initially coupled into large angle rays
falling within acceptance angle of fiber but have more energy than Meridional rays. Energy from
these rays goes into the cladding and thus may be lost.

11. Determine the overall power conversion efficiency of lens coupled SLED having forward
current of 20 mA and forward voltage of 2 V with 170 μWof optical power launched into
multimode step index fiber.
a) 1.256*10-5
b) 4.417*102
c) 4.25*10-3
d) 2.14*10-3
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The overall power conversion efficiency is determined by
η pc = Pc/P = 170*10-6/20*10-3*2
= 4.25*10-3.

12. The overall power conversion efficiency of electrical lens coupled LED is 0.8% and power
applied 0.0375 V. Determine optical power launched into fiber.
a) 0.03
b) 0.05
c) 0.3
d) 0.01

p
View Answer

Ap
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical power launched can be computed by
η pc = Pc/P
at
Pc = η pc* P
= 0.8 * 0.0375
H

= 0.03.
le

13. Mesa structured SLEDs are used ____________


a) To reduce radiance
rp

b) To increase radiance
c) To reduce current spreading
Pu

d) To increase current spreading


View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The planar structures of Burros-type LED allow lateral current spreading specially
for contact diameters less than 25 μm.This results in reduced current density and effective
emission area greater than contact area. This technique to reduce current spreading in very small
devices is Mesa structured SLEDs.

14. The InGaAsP is emitting LEDs are realized in terms of restricted are ____________
a) Length strip geometry
b) Radiance
c) Current spreading
d) Coupled optical power
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The short striped structure of these LEDs around 100 μmimproves the external
efficiency of LEDs by reducing internal absorption of carriers. These are also called truncated
strip E-LEDs.

15. The active layer of E-LED is heavily doped with ____________


a) Zn
b) Eu
c) Cu
d) Sn
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Zn doping reduces the minority carrier lifetime. Thus this improves the device
modulation bandwidth hence active layer is doped in Zn in E-LEDs.

p
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

Ap
“LED Characteristics”.

1. Intrinsically _________________ are a very linear device.


at
a) Injection lasers
b) DH lasers
H

c) Gain-guided
d) LEDs
View Answer
le
rp

Answer: d
Explanation: The ideal light output power against current characteristics for an LED linear. This
Pu

tends to be more suitable for analog transmission where several constraints are put in linearity of
optical source.

2. Linearizing circuit techniques are used for LEDs.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In practice, LEDs exhibit nonlinearities depending on configuration used. Thus, to
allow its used in high quality analog transmission system and to ensure linear performance of
device, linearizing circuit techniques is used.

3. The internal quantum efficiency of LEDs decreasing _______________ with


________________ temperature.
a) Exponentially, decreasing
b) Exponentially, increasing
c) Linearly, increasing
d) Linearly, decreasing
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The light emitted from LEDs decreases. This is due to increase in p-n junction
temperature. Thus, this results in exponentially decreasing internal quantum efficiency with
temperature increment.

4. To utilize _____________________ of SLDs at elevated temperatures, the use of


thermoelectric coolers is important.
a) Low-internal efficiency
b) High-internal efficiency
c) High-power potential
d) Low-power potential
View Answer

p
Answer: c

Ap
Explanation: The output characteristics of SLDs are typically of nonlinear in nature. This is
observed with a knee becoming apparent at an operating temperature around 20 degree c. Thus,
to utilize high-power potential of these devices at elevated temperature, thermoelectric coolers
are necessarily used.
at
5. For particular materials with smaller bandgap energies operating in _____________
H

wavelength, the linewidth tends to ______________


a) 2.1 to 2.75 μm, increase
le

b) 1.1 to 1.7 μm, increase


c) 2.1 to 3.6 μm, decrease
rp

d) 3.5 to 6 μm, decrease


View Answer
Pu

Answer: b
Explanation: For materials with smaller bandgap, linewidth increases to 50 to 160 nm. This
increases in band gap is due to increased doping levels and formation of bandtail states.

6. The active layer composition must be adjusted if a particular center wavelength is desired.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation:There is a difference in output spectra between surface and edge emitting LEDs
when devices have generally heavily doped and lightly doped active layers by reduction in
doping.

7. In optical fiber communication, the electrical signal dropping to half its constant value due to
modulated portion of optical signal corresponds to _______
a) 6 dB
b) 3 dB
c) 4 dB
d) 5 dB
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Modulation bandwidth in optical communication is often defined in
electrical/optical terms. So when considering electrical circuitry in optical fiber system, electrical
3 dB point or frequency at which output electrical power is reduced by 3 dB bandwidth with
respect to input electrical power.

8. The optical 3 dB point occurs when currents ratio is equal to _____________


a) 83
b) 22
c) 12

p
d) 34

Ap
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In optical regime, the bandwidth is defined by frequency at which output current
at
has dropped to ½ output input current system.
H

9. The optical bandwidth is _____________ the electrical bandwidth.


a) Smaller
le

b) Greater
c) Same as
rp

d) Zero with respect to


View Answer
Pu

Answer: b
Explanation: The difference between optical and electrical bandwidth In terms of frequency
depends on the shape of the frequency response of the system. If the system response is assumed
to be Gaussian, then optical bandwidth is a factor of √2 greater than electrical bandwidth.

10. When a constant d.c. drive current is applied to device, the optical o/p power is 320 μm.
Determine optical o/p power when device is modulated at frequency 30 MHz with minority
carrier recombination lifetime of LED i.e. 5ns.
a) 4.49*10-12
b) 6.84*10-9
c) 1.29*10-6
d) 2.29*10-4
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The output o/p at 30 MHz is
Pc(30 MHz) = Pdc/(1+(wΓi)2)1/2
= 320*10-6/(1+(2π*30*10-6*5*10-9)2)1/2
= 2.29*10-4W.

11. The optical power at 20 MHz is 246.2 μW. Determine dc drive current applied to device with
carrier recombination lifetime for LED of 6ns.
a) 3.48*10-4
b) 6.42*10-9
c) 1.48*10-3
d) 9.48*10-12
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The optical output power at 20 MHz is
Pe(20 MHz) = Pdc/(1+(WTi)2)1/2
246.2*10-6 = Pdc/(1+(2π*20*10-6*5*10-9)2)1/2

p
Pdc = 3.48*10-4.

Ap
12. Determine the 3 dB electrical bandwidth at 3 dB optical bandwidth Bopt of 56.2 MHz.
a) 50.14
b) 28.1
at
c) 47.6
d) 61.96
H

View Answer
le

Answer: b
Explanation: The 3dB electrical bandwidth is given by
rp

B = Bopt/ √2
= 56.2/2
Pu

= 28.1 MHz.

13. The 3 dB electrical bandwidth B is 42 MHz. Determine 3dB optical bandwidth Bopt.
a) 45.18
b) 59.39
c) 78.17
d) 94.14
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The 3dB electrical bandwidth is
B = Bopt/√2
Bopt = B*√2
= 42*√2
= 59.39 MHz.
14. Determine degradation rate βrif constant junction temperature is 17 degree celsius.
a) 7.79*10-11
b) 7.91*10-11

c) 6.86*10-11
d) 5.86*10-11
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The degradation rate βris determined by
βr = β0exp (-Ea/KT)
= 1.89*107exp (-1*1.602*10-19/1.38*10-23*290)
= 7.79*10-11 h-1.

15. Determine CW operating lifetime for LED with βrt = -0.58 and degradation rate βr =

p
7.86*10-11 h-1.

Ap
a) 32.12

b) 42
at
c) 22.72
d) 23.223
H

View Answer
le

Answer: c
Explanation: The CW operating lifetime is given by
rp

t = Ln 0.58/7.86*10-11
= 22.72h-1
Pu

6. Questions on Optical Detectors

The section contains questions on device types, absorption, optical detection principles, quantum
efficiency, semiconductor photodiodes, infrared photodiodes and metal semiconductors

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Device Types”.

1. ____________ converts the received optical signal into an electrical signal.


a) Detector
b) Attenuator
c) Laser
d) LED
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A detector is an essential component of an optical fiber communication system. It
dictates the overall system performance. Its function is to convert optical signal into an electrical
signal. This electrical signal is then amplified before further processing.

2. The first generation systems of optical fiber communication have wavelengths between
___________
a) 0.2 and 0.3 μm
b) 0.4 and 0.6 μm
c) 0.8 and 0.9 μm
d) 0.1 and 0.2 μm
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The first generation systems operated at a bit-rate of 45 Mbps with repeater spacing
of 10 km. It operates at wavelengths between 0.8 and 0.9μm. These wavelengths are compatible

p
with AlGaAs laser and LEDs.

Ap
3. The quantum efficiency of an optical detector should be high.
a) True
b) False
at
View Answer
H

Answer: a
Explanation: The detector must satisfy stringent requirements for performance and compatibility.
le

The photo detector thus produces a maximum electrical signal for a given amount of optical
power; i.e. the quantum efficiency should be high.
rp

4. Which of the following does not explain the requirements of an optical detector?
Pu

a) High quantum efficiency


b) Low bias voltages
c) Small size
d) Low fidelity
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The size of the detector must be small for efficient coupling to the fiber. Also,
ideally, the detector should not require excessive bias voltages and currents. The fidelity and
quantum efficiency should be high.

5. How many device types are available for optical detection and radiation?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two types of devices are used for optical detection and radiation. These are
external photoemission and internal photoemission devices. External photoemission devices are
too bulky and require high voltages for operation. Internal devices provide good performance
and compatibility.

6. The ___________ process takes place in both extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors.
a) Avalanche multiplication
b) External photoemission
c) Internal photoemission
d) Dispersion
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: During intrinsic absorption, the received photons excite electrons from the valence
band and towards the conduction band in the semiconductor. Extrinsic absorption involves

p
impurity centers created with the material. Generally, intrinsic absorption is preferred for internal

Ap
photoemission.

7. ____________ are widely used in first generation systems of optical fiber communication.
a) p-n diodes
at
b) 4-alloys
c) 3-alloys
H

d) Silicon photodiodes
View Answer
le

Answer: d
rp

Explanation: The first generation systems operates at wavelengths 0.8 and 0.9 μm. Silicon
photodiodes have high sensitivity over the 0.8-0.9 μm wavelength band with adequate speed,
Pu

long term stability. Hence, silicon photodiodes are widely used in first generation systems.

8. Silicon has indirect band gap energy of __________________


a) 1.2 eV
b) 2 eV
c) 1.14 eV
d) 1.9 eV
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Silicon’s indirect band gap energy of 1.14 eV gives a loss in response above
1.09μm. To avoid this, narrower bandgap materials are used. Hence, silicon’s usefulness is
limited to first generation systems and not for second and third generation systems.

9. Which of the following detector is fabricated from semiconductor alloys?


a) Photoconductive detector
b) p-i-n detector
c) Photodiodes
d) Photoemission detectors
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The detectors fabricated from semiconductor alloys can be used for longer
wavelengths. Photoconductive detector and hetero-junction transistor have found favor as a
potential detector over a wavelength range of 1.1 to 1.6μm.

10. Silicon photodiodes provide high shunt conductance.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Semiconductor photodiodes provide best solution for detection in optical fiber

p
communications. Silicon photodiodes have high sensitivity, negligible shunt conductance and

Ap
low dark current

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Detection Principles”.
at
H

1. P-n photodiode is forward biased.


a) True
b) False
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: b
Pu

Explanation: p-n photodiode includes p and n regions. The electric field developed across the p-n
junction sweeps holes and electrons to p and n regions respectively. P-n photodiode is thus
reverse biased due to reverse leakage current.

2. The depletion region must be ____________ to allow a large fraction of the incident light to
be absorbed in the device(photodiode).
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Long
d) Inactive
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In p-n photodiode, intrinsic conditions are created in the depletion region. The
depletion region must be thick in order to achieve maximum carrier pair generation. Also, its
width must be limited to enhance the speed of operation of the p-n photodiode.
3. The process of excitation of an electron from valence band to conduction band leaves an
empty hole in the valence band and is called as ____________
a) Detection
b) Absorption
c) Degeneration of an electron-hole pair
d) Regeneration of an electron-hole pair
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A photon is incident in the depletion region of a device has an energy greater than
or equal to the band gap energy of the fabricating material. This will cause excitation of an
electron from valence to the conduction band. This creates an empty hole in valence band which
is referred to as photo-generation of an electron-hole pair.

4. __________________ always leads to the generation of a hole and an electron.


a) Repulsion

p
b) Dispersion

Ap
c) Absorption
d) Attenuation
View Answer
at
Answer: c
Explanation: Absorption affects the electron and excites it to some other level say conduction
H

band. This is called as photo-generation as absorption always leads to the generation of hole and
electron. This does not mean that both contribute to the electronic transport.
le

5. The electron hole pairs generated in a photodiode are separated by the ____________
rp

a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
Pu

c) Static field
d) Depletion region
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Electric field separates the electron-hole pairs in a photodiode. The electric field
distribution is determined by an internal and an external field component. A reverse bias voltage
is usually applied to the p-n photodiode.

6. Electric field in the depletion region should be high.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The electric field in the depletion region is always kept high in order to extract all
photogenerated carriers. Only the extracted electron hole pairs contribute to the overall
photocurrent.

7. The photocurrent of an optical detector should be __________


a) Less
b) More
c) Linear
d) Non-linear
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A linear relationship must exist between the intensity of the incident light and the
photocurrent. This makes the photodiode free of noise. It increases system performance.

8. How many types of optical detectors are available?


a) One

p
b) Four

Ap
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer
at
Answer: d
Explanation: Three types of optical detectors are available. These are diodes, photoconductors
H

and photo-transistors. Diodes include p-n photodiodes, p-i-n diodes, avalanche photodiodes and
schottky diodes.
le
rp

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Absorption”.
Pu

1. The absorption of photons in a photodiode is dependent on __________


a) Absorption Coefficient α0
b) Properties of material
c) Charge carrier at junction
d) Amount of light
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Absorption in a photodiode is for producing carrier pans. Thus, photocurrent is
dependent on absorption coefficient α 0of the light in semiconductor used to fabricate device.

2. The photocurrent in a photodiode is directly proportional to absorption coefficient.


a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The absorption of photons produces carrier pairs. Thus, photocurrent is dependent
on absorption coefficient and is given by
I = Po e(1-h)/hf(1-exp (-α rd))
Where r = Fresnel coefficient
D = width of absorption region.

3. The absorption coefficient of semiconductor materials is strongly dependent on __________


a) Properties of material
b) Wavelength
c) Amount of light
d) Amplitude
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In some common semiconductors, there is a variation in absorption curves for

p
materials. It is found that they are each suitable for different wavelength and related applications.

Ap
This is due to difference in band gap energies. Thus absorption coefficient depends on
wavelength.

4. Direct absorption requires assistance of photon.


at
a) True
b) False
H

View Answer
le

Answer: b
Explanation: Indirect absorption requires photon assistance resulting in conversation of energy
rp

and momentum. This makes transition probability less likely for indirect absorption than direct
absorption where no photon is included.
Pu

5. In optical fiber communication, the only weakly absorbing material over wavelength band
required is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The transition over wavelength band in silicon is due to indirect absorption
mechanism. This makes silicon weakly absorbent over particular wavelength band.

6. The threshold for indirect absorption occurs at wavelength __________


a) 3.01 μm
b) 2.09 μm
c) 0.92 μm
d) 1.09 μm
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The band gap for silicon is 4.10 eV corresponding to threshold of 0.30 μm in
ultraviolet. Thus it’s outside wavelength range is the one which is required.

7. The semiconductor material for which the lowest energy absorption takes place is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Germanium absorption is by indirect optical transition. The threshold for direct

p
absorption is at 1.53μm. Below this, germanium becomes strongly absorbing to corresponding

Ap
link.

8. The wavelength range of interest for Germanium is __________


a) 0.8 to 1.6 μm
at
b) 0.3 to 0.9 μm
c) 0.4 to 0.8 μm
H

d) 0.9 to 1.8 μm
View Answer
le

Answer: a
rp

Explanation: Germanium is used in fabrication of detectors over the whole wavelength range i.e.
first and second generation 0.8 to 1.6 μm while specially taking into consideration that indirect
Pu

absorption will occur up to a threshold of 1.85 μm.

9. A photodiode should be chosen with a ________________ less than photon energy.


a) Direct absorption
b) Band gap energy
c) Wavelength range
d) Absorption coefficient
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A photodiode selection must be made by choosing that diode having band gap
energy less than photon energy corresponding to longest operating wavelength. This provides
high absorption coefficient which ensures a good response and limits the thermally generated
carriers to obtain low dark current with no incident light.

10. ________________ photodiodes have large dark currents.


a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Germanium photodiodes provide narrow band gaps as compared to other
semiconductor materials. This is main disadvantage with use of germanium photodiodes at
shorter wavelength and thus they have large dark current.

11. For fabrication of semiconductor photodiodes, there is a drawback while considering


_________________
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium

p
View Answer

Ap
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to drawback with germanium to be used as fabricating material, there
is an increased investigation of direct band gap III and V alloys for longer wavelength region.
at
12. _________________ materials are potentially superior to germanium.
H

a) GaAs
b) Silicon
le

c) GaSb
d) III – V alloys
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: d
Explanation: The band gap energies for III – V alloys materials can be tailored to required
wavelength. This can be achieved by changing relative concentration of their constituents which
results in low dark currents. Thus, III – V alloys are superior potentially to germanium.

13. ____________ alloys such as InGaAsP and GaAsSb deposited on InP and GaSb substrate.
a) Ternary
b) Quaternary
c) Gain-guided
d) III – V alloys
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ternary alloys are used to fabricate photodiodes for longer wavelength band. Thus,
these alloys such as InGaAsP and GaAsSb are deposited on InP and GaSb substrates.
14. _________________ alloys can be fabricated in hetero-junction structures.
a) InGaSb
b) III – V alloys
c) InGaAsP
d) GaAsSb
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: III – V alloys enhances the high speed operations of hetero-junction structures.
Thus these structures can be fabricated with III-V alloys.

15. The alloys lattice matched to InP responds to wavelengths up to 1.7μm is?
a) InAsSb
b) III – V alloys
c) InGaSb
d) InGaAs

p
View Answer

Ap
Answer: d
Explanation: Although there were difficulties in growth of IOnGaAs alloys, the problems are
now reduced. These alloys lattice matched to InP responding to wavelength around 1.7 μmare
at
widely utilized for fabrication of photodiodes operating around 1.7μm.
H

This set of Optical Communications Mcqs focuses on “Quantum Efficiency , Responsivity and
Long – Wavelength Cut-Off”.
le
rp

1. The fraction of incident photons generated by photodiode of electrons generated collected at


detector is known as ___________________
Pu

a) Quantum efficiency
b) Absorption coefficient
c) Responsivity
d) Anger recombination
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a particular device is obtained by ratio of input given to that of output
obtained. Thus, similarly, in photodiode, input i.e. incident photon and output generated
electrons and their ratio is quantum efficiency.

2. In photo detectors, energy of incident photons must be ________________ band gap energy.
a) Lesser than
b) Greater than
c) Same as
d) Negligible
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: While considering intrinsic absorption process, the energy of incident photon must
be greater than band gap energy of material fabricating photo detector.

3. GaAs has band gap energy of 1.93 eV at 300 K. Determine wavelength above which material
will cease to operate.
a) 2.431*10-5
b) 6.424*10-7
c) 6.023*103
d) 7.234*10-7
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The long wavelength cutoff is given by
λc = hc/Eg = 6.6268*10-34*2.998*108/1.93*1.602*10-19
= 6.424*10-7μm.

p
Ap
4. The long cutoff wavelength of GaAs is 0.923 μm. Determine bandgap energy.
a) 1.478*10-7
b) 4.265*10-14
c) 2.784*10-9
at
d) 2.152*10-19
View Answer
H

Answer: d
le

Explanation: Long wavelength cutoff of photo detector is given by


λc = hc/Eg
rp

Eg = hc/λc = 6.6268*10-34*2.998*108/0.923*10-6
= 2.152*10-19eV.
Pu

5. Quantum efficiency is a function of photon wavelength.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is less than unity as all of incident photons are not absorbed to
create electrons holes pairs. For example quantum efficiency of 60% is equivalent to 60% of
electrons collected per 100 photons. Thus efficiency is a function of photon wavelength and must
be determined at a particular wavelength.

6. Determine quantum efficiency if incident photons on photodiodes is 4*1011 and electrons


collected at terminals is 1.5*1011?
a) 50%
b) 37.5%
c) 25%
d) 30%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by
Quantum Efficiency = No. of electrons collected/No. of incident photons
= 1.5*1011/4*1011
= 0.375 * 100
= 37.5%.

7. A photodiode has quantum efficiency of 45% and incident photons are 3*10 11. Determine
electrons collected at terminals of device.
a) 2.456*109
b) 1.35*1011
c) 5.245*10-7
d) 4.21*10-3

p
View Answer

Ap
Answer: b
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by
Quantum efficiency = No. of electrons collected/No. of incident photons
at
Electrons collected = Quantum efficiency * number of incident photons
= 45/100 * 3*1011
H

= 1.35*1011.
le

8. The quantum efficiency of photodiode is 40% with wavelength of 0.90*10-6. Determine the
responsivity of photodiodes.
rp

a) 0.20
b) 0.52
Pu

c) 0.29
d) 0.55
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Responsivity of photodiodes is given by
R = ηe λ/hc
= 0.4*1.602*10-19 * 0.90*10-6/6.626*10-34 * 3*108
= 0.29 AW-1.

9. The Responsivity of photodiode is 0.294 AW-1at wavelength of 0.90 μm. Determine quantum
efficiency.
a) 0.405
b) 0.914
c) 0.654
d) 0.249
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Responsivity of photodiode is
R = ηe λ/hc
η = RXhc/eλ
= 0.294*6.626*10-34*3*108/ 1.602*10-19*0.90*108
= 0.405 AW-1.

10. Determine wavelength of photodiode having quantum efficiency of 40% and Responsivity of
0.304 AW-1.
a) 0.87 μm
b) 0.91 μm
c) 0.88 μm
d) 0.94 μm
View Answer

Answer: d

p
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is

Ap
R = ηe λ/hc
λ = Rhc/ηe
= 0.304*6.626*10-34*3*108/0.4*1.602*10-19
= 0.94 μm.
at
11. Determine wavelength at which photodiode is operating if energy of photons is 1.9*10 -19J?
H

a) 2.33
b) 1.48
le

c) 1.04
d) 3.91
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: c
Explanation: To determine wavelength,
λ = hc/t
= 6.626*10-34*3*108/1.9*10-19
= 1.04 μm.

12. Determine the energy of photons incident on a photodiode if it operates at a wavelength of


1.36 μm.
a) 1.22*10-34J
b) 1.46*10-19J
c) 6.45*10-34J
d) 3.12*109J
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The wavelength of photodiode is given by
λ = hc/t
E = hc/λ
= 6.626*10-34*3*108/1.36*10-6
= 1.46*10-19J.

13. Determine Responsivity of photodiode having o/p power of 3.55 μm and photo current of 2.9
μm.
a) 0.451
b) 0.367
c) 0.982
d) 0.816
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = Ip/Po
= 2.9*10-6/3.55*10-6

p
= 0.816 A/W.

Ap
14. Determine incident optical power on a photodiode if it has photocurrent of 2.1 μA and
responsivity of 0.55 A/W.
a) 4.15
at
b) 1.75
c) 3.81
H

d) 8.47
View Answer
le

Answer: c
rp

Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is


R = Ip/Po
Pu

Po = Ip/R
= 2.1*10-6/0.55
= 3.81 μm.

15. If a photodiode requires incident optical power of 0.70 A/W. Determine photocurrent.
a) 1.482
b) 2.457
c) 4.124
d) 3.199
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is given by
R = Ip/Po
Ip = R*Po
= 0.70*3.51*10-6
= 2.457μm
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on
“Semiconductor Photodiodes Without Internal Gain”.

1. The width of depletion region is dependent on ___________ of semiconductor.


a) Doping concentrations for applied reverse bias
b) Doping concentrations for applied forward bias
c) Properties of material
d) Amount of current provided
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The depletion region is formed by immobile positively and immobile negatively
charged donor and acceptor atoms in n- and p-type respectively. When carriers are swept
towards majority side under electric field, lower the doping, wider the depletion region.

2. Electron-hole pairs are generated in ___________

p
a) Depletion region

Ap
b) Diffusion region
c) Depletion region
d) P-type region
View Answer
at
Answer: c
H

Explanation: Photons are absorbed in both depletion and diffusion regions. The position and
width of absorption region depends on incident photons energy. The absorption region may
le

extend throughout device in weakly absorption of photons. Thus carriers are generated in both
regions.
rp

3. The diffusion process is _____________ as compared with drift.


Pu

a) Very fast
b) Very slow
c) Negligible
d) Better
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Determine drift time for carrier across depletion region for photodiode having intrinsic region
width of 30μm and electron drift velocity of 10 5 ms-1.
a) 1×10-10 Seconds
b) 2×10-10 Seconds
c) 3×10-10 Seconds
d) 4×10-10 Seconds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The drift time is given by
tdrift = w/vd = 30×10-6/1×10-10 = 3×10-10 seconds.

5. Determine intrinsic region width for a photodiode having drift time of 4×10 -10 s and electron
velocity of 2×10-10 ms-1.
a) 3×10-5M
b) 8×10-5 M
c) 5×10-5M
d) 7×10-5M
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The drift time is given by
tdrift = w/vd
4×10-10 = w/2×105

p
= 4×10-10×2×105

Ap
= 8×10-5m.

6. Determine velocity of electron if drift time is 2×10 -10s and intrinsic region width of 25×10-
6
μm.
at
a) 12.5×104
b) 11.5×104
H

c) 14.5×104
d) 13.5×104
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: a
Explanation: The drift time is given by
Pu

tdrift = w/vd
vd = 25×10-6/2×10-10 = 12.5×104ms-1.

7. Compute junction capacitance for a p-i-n photodiode if it has area of 0.69×10-6 m2, permittivity
of 10.5×10-13Fcm-1 and width of 30μm.
a) 3.043×10-5
b) 2.415×10-7
c) 4.641×10-4
d) 3.708×10-5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/w = 10.5×10-13×0.69×10-6/30×10-13
= 2.415×10-7F.
8. Determine the area where permittivity of material is 15.5×10-15Fcm-1 and width of 25×10 -6 and
junction capacitance is 5pF.
a) 8.0645×10-5
b) 5.456×10-6
c) 3.0405×10-2
d) 8.0645×10-3
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/ w = 5×10-12×25×10-6/15.5×10-15
= 8.0645×10-3 m2.

9. Compute intrinsic region width of p-i-n photodiode having junction capacitance of 4pF and
material permittivity of 16.5×10 -13Fcm-1 and area of 0.55×10-6m2.
a) 7.45×10-6

p
b) 2.26×10-7

Ap
c) 4.64×10-7
d) 5.65×10-6
View Answer
at
Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
H

Cj = εsA/ W
w = εsA/Cj
le

= 16.5×10-13 × 0.55×10-6/4×10-12
= 2.26×10-7.
rp

10. Determine permittivity of p-i-n photodiode with junction capacitance of 5pF, area of
Pu

0.62×10-6m2 and intrinsic region width of 28 μm.


a) 7.55×10-12
b) 2.25×10-10
c) 5×10-9
d) 8.5×10-12
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance is given by,
Cj = εsA/ W
εs = Cj w/A = 5×10-12×28×10-6/0.62×10-6
= 2.25×10-10Fcm-1.

11. Determine response time of p-i-n photodiode if it has 3 dB bandwidth of 1.98×108Hz.


a) 5.05×10-6sec
b) 5.05×10-7Sec
c) 5.05×10-7sec
d) 5.05×10-8Sec
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum response time is
Maximum response time = 1/Bm = 1/1.98×108 = 5.05×10-9sec.

12. Compute maximum 3 dB bandwidth of p-i-n photodiode if it has a max response time of 5.8
ns.
a) 0.12 GHz
b) 0.14 GHz
c) 0.17 GHz
d) 0.13 GHz
View Answer

Answer: c

p
Explanation: The maximum response time is

Ap
Maximum response time = 1/Bm
= 1/5.8×10-9 = 0.17 GHz.

13. Determine maximum response time for a p-i-n photodiode having width of 28×10 -6 m and
at
carrier velocity of 4×104ms-1.
a) 105.67 MHz
H

b) 180.43 MHz
c) 227.47 MHz
le

d) 250.65 MHz
View Answer
rp

Answer: c
Pu

Explanation: Maximum 3 dB bandwidth of photodiode is given by


Bm = Vd/2ΠW = 4×10-4/2×3.14×28×10-6 = 227.47 MHz.

14. Determine carrier velocity of a p-i-n photodiode where 3dB bandwidth is1.9×108Hz and
depletion region width of 24μm.
a) 93.43×10-5
b) 29.55×10-3
c) 41.56×10-3
d) 65.3×10-4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum 3 dB bandwidth of photodiode is given by
Bm = Vd/2ΠW
Vd = Bm × 2Π × W
= 1.98×108×2Π×24×10-6
= 29.55×10-3.
15. Compute depletion region width of a p-i-n photodiode with 3dB bandwidth of 1.91×108and
carrier velocity of 2×104ms-s.
a) 1.66×10-5
b) 3.2×10-3
c) 2×10-5
d) 2.34×104
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum 3 dB bandwidth of photodiode is given by
Bm = Vd/2ΠW
W = Vd/Bm2Π
= 2×10-5/1.91×108×2Π
= 1.66×10-5 m

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

p
“Semiconductor Photodiodes With Internal Gain”.

Ap
1. ___________ has more sophisticated structure than p-i-n photodiode.
a) Avalanche photodiode
at
b) p-n junction diode
c) Zener diode
H

d) Varactor diode
View Answer
le

Answer: a
rp

Explanation: Avalanche photodiode is second major type of detector in optical communications.


This diode is more sophisticated so as to create a much higher electric field region.
Pu

2. The phenomenon leading to avalanche breakdown in reverse-biased diodes is known as


_______
a) Auger recombination
b) Mode hopping
c) Impact ionization
d) Extract ionization
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In depletion region, almost all photons are absorbed and carrier pairs are generated.
So there comes a high field region where carriers acquire energy to excite new carrier pairs. This
is impact ionization.

3. _______ is fully depleted by employing electric fields.


a) Avalanche photodiode
b) P-I-N diode
c) Varactor diode
d) P-n diode
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: APD is fully depleted by electric fields more than 104V/m. This causes all the
drifting of carriers at saturated limited velocities.

4. At low gain, the transit time and RC effects ________


a) Are negligible
b) Are very less
c) Dominate
d) Reduce gradually
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Low gain causes the dominance of transit time and RC effects. This gives a

p
definitive response time and thus device obtains constant bandwidth.

Ap
5. At high gain, avalanche buildup time ________
a) Is negligible
b) Very less
at
c) Increases gradually
d) Dominates
H

View Answer
le

Answer: d
Explanation: High gain causes avalanche buildup time to dominate. Thus the bandwidth of
rp

device decreases as increase in gain.


Pu

6. Often __________ pulse shape is obtained from APD.


a) Negligible
b) Distorted
c) Asymmetric
d) Symmetric
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Asymmetric pulse shape is acquired from APD. This is due to relatively fast rise
time as electrons are collected and fall time dictated by transit time of holes.

7. Fall times of 1 ns or more are common.


a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The use of suitable materials and structures give rise times between 150 and 200 ps.
Thus fall times of 1 ns or more are common which in turn limits the overall response of device.

8. Determine Responsivity of a silicon RAPD with 80% efficiency, 0.7μm wavelength.


a) 0.459
b) 0.7
c) 0.312
d) 0.42
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Responsivity of a RAPD is given by-
R = ηeλ/hc A/w where, η=efficiency, λ = wavelength, h = Planck’s constant.

9. Compute wavelength of RAPD with 70% efficiency and Responsivity of 0.689 A/w.

p
a) 6μm

Ap
b) 7.21μm
c) 0.112μm
d) 3μm
View Answer
at
Answer: c
H

Explanation: The wavelength can be found from the Responsivity formula given by-
R = ηeλ/hc. The unit of wavelength isμm.
le

10. Compute photocurrent of RAPD having optical power of 0.7 μw and responsivity of 0.689
rp

A/W.
a) 0.23 μA
Pu

b) 0.489 μA
c) 0.123 μA
d) 9 μA
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The photocurrent is given byI P=P0R. Here IP = photocurrent, P0=Power, R =
responsivity.

11. Determine optical power of RAPD with photocurrent of 0.396 μAand responsivity of 0.49
A/w.
a) 0.91 μW
b) 0.32 μW
c) 0.312 μW
d) 0.80 μW
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The photocurrent is given by I P = P0R. Here IP = photocurrent, P0 = Power, R =
responsivity.
P0 = IP/R gives the optical power.

12. Determine the Responsivity of optical power of 0.4μW and photocurrent of 0.294 μA.
a) 0.735
b) 0.54
c) 0.56
d) 0.21
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The photocurrent is given by I P = P0R. Here IP = photocurrent, P0 = Power, R =
responsivity.
R = IP/P0 gives the responsivity.

p
Ap
13. Compute multiplication factor of RAPD with output current of 10 μAand photocurrent of
0.369μA.
a) 25.32
b) 27.100
at
c) 43
d) 22.2
H

View Answer
le

Answer: b
Explanation: The multiplication factor of photodiode is given by-
rp

M = I/IP where I = output current, IP = photocurrent.


Pu

14. Determine the output current of RAPD having multiplication factor of 39 and photocurrent of
0.469μA.
a) 17.21
b) 10.32
c) 12.21
d) 18.29
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The multiplication factor of photodiode is given by-
M = I/IP where I = output current, IP = photocurrent. I = M*IP gives the output current inμA.

15. Compute the photocurrent of RAPD having multiplication factor of 36.7 and output current
of 7μA.
a) 0.01 μA
b) 0.07 μA
c) 0.54 μA
d) 0.9 μA
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The multiplication factor of photodiode is given by-
M = I/IP where I = output current, IP = photocurrent. IP = I/M Gives the output current inμA.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Mid Infrared and Far Infrared Photodiodes”.

1. In the development of photodiodes for mid-infrared and far-infrared transmission systems,


lattice matching has been a problem when operating at wavelengths ____________
a) 1 µm
b) Greater than 2 µm
c) 2 µm
d) 0.5 µm

p
View Answer

Answer: b
Ap
Explanation: Lattice matching for alloy materials is obtained at wavelengths above 2 µm. For
at
example, a lattice-matched alloy material system (GaSb) was utilized in a p-i-n photodiode for
high speed operation at wavelengths up to 2.3 µm.
H

2. What is generally used to accommodate a lattice mismatch?


a) Alloys
le

b) Attenuator
rp

c) Graded buffer layer


d) APD array
Pu

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The use of indium alloy cause inherent problems of dislocation-induced junction
leakage and low quantum efficiency. To avoid these problems, a compositionally graded buffer
layer is used to accommodate a lattice mismatch.

3. HgCdTe material system is utilized to fabricate long-wavelength photodiodes.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: HgCdTe family alloys allow resonant characteristics via hole ionization. Its band
gap energy variation enables optical detection to far-infrared. Thus, this material can be used for
fabrication of long-wavelength photodiodes.
4. Avalanche photodiodes based on HgCdTe are used for ______________ in both the near and
far infrared.
a) Dispersion
b) Dislocation
c) Ionization
d) Array applications
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Avalanche photodiodes based on HgCdTe are used for array applications. The
materials of APDs based on HgCdTe possess uniform avalanche gain across an array. This
variation in gain is variation in gain is lower in HgCdTe as compared with silicon.

5. The detection mechanism in ____________ relies on photo excitation of electrons from


confined states in conduction band quantum wells.
a) p-i-n detector

p
b) Quantum-dot photo detector

Ap
c) p-n photodiode
d) Avalanche photodiodes
View Answer
at
Answer: b
Explanation: Quantum-dot photo detector’s detection mechanism involves photo excitation of
H

electrons. This process of photo excitation in photo detectors is similar to that in the Quantum-
dot semiconductor optical amplifier. The dots-in-well in Quantum-dot detector is called as
le

DWELL structure.
rp

6. When determining performance of a photo detector ___________ is often used.


a) No. of incident photon
Pu

b) No. of electrons collected


c) Responsivity
d) Absorption coefficient
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The expression for quantum efficiency does not include photon energy. Thus for
characterizing performance of photo detector, Responsivity is used.

7. The important parameter for exciting an electron with energy required from valence band to
conduction band is?
a) Wavelength
b) Absorption coefficient
c) Responsivity
d) Band gap energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As wavelength of incident photon becomes longer, the photon energy is less than
energy required to excite electron. Mostly parameters of photodiode are dependent on
wavelength.

8. __________ is less than or unity for photo detectors.


a) Absorption coefficient
b) Band gap energy
c) Responsivity
d) Quantum efficiency
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Quantum efficiency determines the absorption coefficient of semiconductor
material of photo detector. It is not all incident photons are absorbed to create electron-hole
pairs. Thus quantum efficiency must be less than unity.

p
Ap
9. There must be improvement in __________ of an optical fiber communication system.
a) Detector
b) Responsivity
c) Absorption Coefficient
at
d) Band gap energy
View Answer
H

Answer: a
le

Explanation: If proper and improved and highly efficient detector is utilized, it will then reduce
the repeated stations. It will also lower down both capital investment and maintenance cost.
rp

This set of Optical Communications online test focuses on “Phototransistors and Metal –
Pu

Semiconductor – Metal Photodetectors”.

1. The _____________ is photosensitive to act as light gathering element.


a) Base-emitter junction
b) Base-collector junction
c) Collector-emitter junction
d) Base-collector junction and Base-emitter junction
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Base-collector junction is photosensitive in n-p-n phototransistor and act as light
gathering element. This light absorbed affects the base current and gives multiplication of
primary photocurrent in device.

2. A large secondary current _________________ in n-p-n InGaAs phototransistor is achieved.


a) Between base and collector
b) Between emitter and collector
c) Between base and emitter
d) Plasma
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The photo-generated holes are swept to the base. This increases the forward bias
device. This generates secondary current between emitter and collector.

3. _______ emitter-base and collector-base junction capacitances is achieved by use of hetero-


structure along with _________ base resistance.
a) Low, high
b) High, low
c) Low, low
d) High, negligible
View Answer

p
Answer: c

Ap
Explanation: In hetero-structure, there is low doping level in emitter and collector which is
coupled with heavy doping base. This is due low emitter-base and collector-base junction
capacitance and low base resistance. This allows large current gain.
at
4. A ________ is created by hetero-junction at collector-base junction.
a) Potential barrier
H

b) Depletion region
c) Parasitic capacitance
le

d) Inductance
View Answer
rp

Answer: a
Pu

Explanation: Potential barrier is created at emitter-base junction by hetero-junction. This


eliminates hole junction from base. This is achieved when junction is forward-biased and
provides good emitter-base efficiency.

5. Phototransistors based on hetero-junction using _________ material are known as waveguide


phototransistors.
a) InGaP
b) InGaAs
c) InGaAsP/ InAlAs
d) ErGaAs
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Phototransistor using InGaAsP/ InAlAs are known as waveguide phototransistors.
They function as waveguide phototransistors. They function as high performance photo-detectors
at 1.3 micro-meter wavelength. They utilize a passive waveguide layer under active transistor
region.
6. A phototransistor has collector current of 18 mA, incident optical power of 128 μW with a
wavelength of 1.24 μm. Determine an optical gain.
a) 1.407 *102
b) 19.407 *102
c) 2.407 *102
d) 3.407 *102
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The optical gain is given by-
G0=hcIc/λeP0, where h=Planck’s constant, Ic=collector current, λ=wavelength, P0=incident
optical power.

7. For a phototransistor having gain of 116.5, wavelength of 1.28 μm, optical power 123μW.
Determine collector current.
a) 0.123 mA

p
b) 0.0149 mA

Ap
c) 1.23 mA
d) 0.54 mA
View Answer
at
Answer: b
Explanation: The collector current is given by-
H

Ic= G0λeP0/ hc, where h=Planck’s constant, Ic=collector current, λ=wavelength, P0=incident
optical power.
le

8. The detection mechanism in the ____________ photo-detector includes inter sub-band


rp

transitions.
a) Dwell
Pu

b) Set
c) Avalanche
d) Futile
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The inter sub-band transitions are also known as type-2 transitions. It comprises of
mini-bands within a single energy band, The detection mechanism in DWELL photo-detector
includes inter sub-band transitions.

9. Which of the following is the difference between the n-p-n and conventional bipolar
transistor?
a) Electric property
b) Magnetic property
c) Unconnected base
d) Emitter base efficiency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The n-p-n bipolar transistor differs in the following ways: base is unconnected,
base-collector junction is photosensitive as a light gathering element.

10. The n-p-n hetero-junction phototransistor is grown using ______________


a) Liquid-phase tranquilizers
b) Liquid-phase epistaxis
c) Solid substrate
d) Hetero poleax
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The technique LPE consists of a thin layer of n-type collector based on a p-type
base layer. Liquid phase epistaxis is used in hetero-junction technology.

11. The _____________ at emitter-base junction gives good emitter base injection efficiency.

p
a) Homo-junction

Ap
b) Depletion layer
c) Holes
d) Hetero-junction
View Answer
at
Answer: d
H

Explanation: The hetero-junction at the emitter-base junction effectively eliminates hole


injection from the base when the junction is forward biased. This gives good emitter-base
le

injection efficiency.
rp

12. Waveguide phototransistors utilize a ___________ waveguide layer under the _________
transistor region.
Pu

a) Active, passive
b) Passive, active
c) Homo, hetero
d) Hetero, homo
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Waveguide phototransistors are based on hetero-junction structure. They function
as high-performance photo-detectors and thus utilize a passive waveguide layer under the active
transistor region.

13. What is the main benefit of the waveguide structure over conventional hetero-junction
phototransistor?
a) High depletion region
b) Depletion width
c) Increased photocurrent, responsivity
d) Low gain
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Waveguide structure offers increased photocurrent. Photocurrent is directly
proportional to the responsivity; thus in turn increases responsivity.

14. Waveguide structure provides high quantum efficiency.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Responsivity and quantum efficiency follow a different path. They are indirectly
proportional to each other. Thus, in waveguide structure, as the responsivity increases, quantum
efficiency remains low.

p
Ap
15. Metal-semiconductor-metal (MSM) photo-detectors are photoconductive detectors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
at
Answer: a
H

Explanation: MSM photo-detectors are the simplest of photo-detectors. It provides the simplest
form of photo-detection within optical fiber communications and are photoconductive.
le
rp

7. Questions & Answers on Direct Detection Receiver Performance Considerations


Pu

The section contains questions and answers on noise, receiver noise and structures, fet pre
amplifiers and high performance receivers.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Noise”.

1. _____________ refers to any spurious or undesired disturbances that mask the received signal
in a communication system.
a) Attenuation
b) Noise
c) Dispersion
d) Bandwidth
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Noise is an unwanted and undesirable quantity. It affects the received signal in a
communication system. In optical fiber communication systems, noise is due to the spontaneous
fluctuations rather than erratic disturbances.

2. How many types of noise are observed because of the spontaneous fluctuations in optical fiber
communication systems?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are three types of noise because of the spontaneous fluctuations in optical
fiber communication systems. These are thermal noise, the dark current noise and quantum
noise. These noise types are not caused by the electronic interference.

p
3. ______________ is caused due to thermal interaction between the free electrons and the

Ap
vibrating ions in the conduction medium.
a) Thermal noise
b) Dark noise
c) Quantum noise
at
d) Gaussian noise
View Answer
H

Answer: a
le

Explanation: Thermal noise is basically a spontaneous fluctuation caused due to thermal


interaction of electrons and ions. It is especially prevalent in resistors at room temperature.
rp

Thermal noise is measured in the form of current and is called as thermal noise current.
Pu

4. A small leakage current still flows from the device terminals even if there is no optical power
incident on the photo detector.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A reverse leakage current that flows from the device terminals is called as dark
current. This dark current contributes to the total system noise. This gives random fluctuations
about the average particle flow of the photocurrent.

5. ___________ distribution provides the description the random statistics of light emitted in
black body radiation.
a) Poisson
b) Cumulative
c) Probability
d) Bose-Einstein
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Incoherent light is emitted by independent atoms and therefore there is no phase
relationship between the emitted photons. The property dictates an exponential intensity
distribution which is identical to Bose-Einstein distribution.

6. The probability of zero pairs being generated when a light pulse is present is given by which
of the following equation?
a) P(0/1) = exp(-Zm)
b) P(x) = exp (Zm)
c) P(y) = x (0) + x(1)
d) P(z) = P(-Zm)
View Answer

p
Answer: a

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Explanation: The probability of zero pairs being generated when a light pulse is present is given
by equation –
P (0/1) = exp(-Zm)
Where, P (0/1) represents the system error probability p(e) and Z m is variance of the probability
at
distribution.
H

7. The minimum pulse energy needed to maintain a given bit-error-rate (BER) which any
practical receiver must satisfy is known as ___________
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a) Minimal energy
b) Quantum limit
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c) Point of reversed
d) Binary signaling
Pu

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A perfect photo detector emits no electron-hole pairs in the absence of illumination.
The error probability determines a standardized fundamental limit in digital optical
communications. This limit is termed as quantum limit.

8. A digital optical fiber communication system requires a maximum bit-error-rate of 10-9. Find
the average number of photons detected in a time period for a given BER.
a) 19.7
b) 21.2
c) 20.7
d) 26.2
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The probability of error is given by-
P(e) = exp(-Zm)
Where, Zm = No. of photons
Here P(e) = 10-9, therefore Zm is calculated from above relation.

9. For a given optical fiber communication system, P(e) = 10 -9, Zm = 20.7, f = 2.9×1014, η = 1.
Find the minimum pulse energy or quantum limit.
a) 3.9×10-18
b) 4.2×10-18
c) 6.2×10-14
d) 7.2×10-14
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum pulse energy or quantum limit is given by –
Emin = Zmhf/η
Where, Zm = Number of photons

p
h = Planck’s constant

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f = frequency
η = Quantum efficiency.

10. An analog optical fiber system operating at wavelength 1μmhas a post-detection bandwidth
at
of 5MHz. Assuming an ideal detector and incident power of 198 nW, calculate the SNR (f =
2.99×1014Hz).
H

a) 46
b) 40
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c) 50
d) 52
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: c
Explanation: The SNR is given by –
S/N = ηP0/2hfB
Where, η = 1 (for ideal detector)
P0 = incident power
h = Planck’s constant
B = Bandwidth.

11. The incident optical power required to achieve a desirable SNR is 168.2nW. What is the
value of incident power in dBm?
a) -37.7 dBm
b) -37 dBm
c) – 34 dBm
d) -38.2 dBm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Incident power in denoted by P0. It is given by –
P0 = 10log10(P0(watts))
Where P0(watts) = incident power in Watts/milliWatt.

12. In the equation given below, what does τstands for?

Zm = ηP0τ/hf

a) Velocity
b) Time
c) Reflection
d) Refractive index
View Answer

Answer: b

p
Explanation: In the given equation, Z m is the variance of the probability distribution. The number
of electrons generated in time τis equal to the average of the number of photons detected over

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this time period Zm. Hence, τ is the time and P0 is the incident power, ηis the quantum efficiency
and f is the frequency.
at
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Receiver Noise”.
H

1. Which are the two main sources of noise in photodiodes without internal gain?
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a) Gaussian noise and dark current noise


b) Internal noise and external noise
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c) Dark current noise & Quantum noise


d) Gaussian noise and Quantum noise
Pu

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The two main sources of noise in photodiodes without internal gain are dark current
noise and quantum noise. They are regarded as shot noise on the photocurrent. These noise are
together called as analog quantum noise.

2. The dominating effect of thermal noise over the shot noise in photodiodes without internal
gain can be observed in wideband systems operating in the range of ________
a) 0.4 to 0.5 μm
b) 0.8 to 0.9 μm
c) 0.3 to 0.4 μm
d) 0.7 to 0.79 μm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When the photodiode is without internal avalanche gain, the detector load resistor
and active elements’ thermal noise in the amplifier tends to dominate. It is seen in wideband
systems operating in the 0.8 to 0.9 μmwavelength band. This is because the dark currents in the
silicon diodes can be made very small.

3. A silicon p-i-n photodiode incorporated in an optical receiver has following parameters:

Quantum efficiency = 70%


Wavelength = 0.8 μm
Dark current = 3nA
Load resistance = 4 kΩ
Incident optical power = 150nW.
Bandwidth = 5 MHz

Compute the photocurrent in the device.


a) 67.7nA
b) 81.2nA
c) 68.35nA

p
d) 46.1nA

Ap
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The photocurrent is given by
at
Ip = ηP0eλ/hc
Where η = Quantum efficiency
H

P0 = Incident optical power


e = electron charge
le

λ = Wavelength
h = Planck’s constant
rp

c = Velocity of light.
Pu

4. In a silicon p-i-n photodiode, if load resistance is 4 kΩ, temperature is 293 K, bandwidth is


4MHz, find the thermal noise in the load resistor.
a) 1.8 × 10-16A2
b) 1.23 × 10-17A2
c) 1.65 × 10-16A2
d) 1.61 × 10-17A2
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The thermal noise in the load resistor is given by –
it2 = 4KTB/RL
Where T = Temperature
B = Bandwidth
RL = Load resistance.

5. ________________ is a combination of shunt capacitances and resistances.


a) Attenuation
b) Shunt impedance
c) Shunt admittance
d) Thermal capacitance
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Admittance is a measure of how easily a circuit will allow a current to flow. It is
the inverse of impedance and is measured in Siemens. It is a combination of shunt capacitances
and resistances.

6. ______________ is used in the specification of optical detectors.


a) Noise equivalent power
b) Polarization
c) Sensitivity
d) Electron movement
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise equivalent power is defined as the amount of incident optical power per unit
bandwidth required to produce an output power equal to detector output noise power.
Noise equivalent power is the value of incident power which gives an output SNR of unity.
at
7. A photodiode has a capacitance of 6 pF. Calculate the maximum load resistance which allows
H

an 8MHz post detection bandwidth.


a) 3.9 kΩ
le

b) 3.46 kΩ
c) 3.12 kΩ
rp

d) 3.32 kΩ
View Answer
Pu

Answer: d
Explanation: The load resistance is given by-
RL = 1/2πCdB
Where
B = Post detection bandwidth
Cd = Input capacitance
RL = Load resistance.

8. The internal gain mechanism in an APD is directly related to SNR. State whether the given
statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The internal gain mechanism in an APD increases the signal current into the
amplifier. This improves the SNR because the load resistance and amplifier noise remains
unaffected.

9. ____________ is dependent upon the detector material, the shape of the electric field profile
within the device.
a) SNR
b) Excess avalanche noise factor
c) Noise gradient
d) Noise power
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Excess avalanche noise factor is represented as F (M). Its value depends upon the
detector material, shape of electric field profile and holes and electrons inclusion. It is a function
of multiplication factor.

p
10. For silicon APDs, the value of excess noise factor is between _________

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a) 0.001 and 0.002
b) 0.5 and 0.7
c) 0.02 and 0.10
d) 1 and 2
at
View Answer
H

Answer: c
Explanation: The excess noise factor (K) is same as that of the multiplication factor. In case of
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holes, the smaller values of K produce high performance and therefore the performance is
achieved when k is small. For silicon APDs, k = 0.02 to 0.10.
rp

11. __________ determines a higher transmission rate related to the gain of the APD device.
Pu

a) Attenuation
b) Gain-bandwidth product
c) Dispersion mechanism
d) Ionization coefficient
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Gain-bandwidth product is defined as Gain multiplied by the bandwidth. Gain is a
dimensionless quantity but the gain-bandwidth product is therefore measured in the units of
frequency.

12. _________________ APDs are recognized for their high gain-bandwidth products.
a) GaAs
b) Alloy-made
c) Germanium
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Silicon APDs possess a large asymmetry of electron and hole ionization coefficient.
Thus, they possess high gain-bandwidth products. These APDs do not operate at high
transmission rates.

13. APDs do not operate at signal wavelengths between 1.3 and 1.6μm.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: APDs having high gain-bandwidth products do not operate at signal wavelengths
between 1.3 and 1.6 μm.Hence, these APDs are not prefered for use in receivers operating at
high transmission rates.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

p
“FET Pre – Amplifiers”.

1. ____________ is the lowest noise amplifier device.


a) Silicon FET
Ap
at
b) Amplifier-A
c) Attenuator
H

d) Resonator-B
View Answer
le

Answer: a
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Explanation: FET operates by controlling the current flow with an electric field produced by an
applied voltage on the gate of the device. Silicon FET is fabricated for low noise devices. It is the
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lowest noise amplifier device available.

2. FET device has extremely high input impedance greater than _________
a) 107 Ohms and less than 108
b) 106 Ohms and less than 107
c) 1014 Ohms
d) 1023 Ohms
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: FET operation involves the applied voltage on the gate of the device. The gate
draws virtually no current, except for leakage, giving the device extremely high input impedance.

3. The properties of a bipolar transistor are superior to the FET.


a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: bipolar transistor operates by controlling the current flow with an electric field
produced with a base current. The properties of a bipolar transistor are limited by its high trans-
conductance than the FET.

4. Bipolar transistor is more useful amplifying device than FET at frequencies _____________
a) Above 1000 MHz
b) Equal to 1 MHz
c) Below 25 MHz
d) Above 25 MHz
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In FETs, the current gain drops to values near unity at frequencies above 25MHz.
The trans-conductance is fixed with decreasing input impedance. Therefore, bipolar transistor is
more useful amplifying device at frequencies above 25MHz.

p
Ap
5. High-performance microwave FETs are fabricated from ___________
a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) Gallium arsenide
at
d) Zinc
View Answer
H

Answer: c
le

Explanation: Since the mid- 1970s, the development of high-performance microwave FETs
found its way. These FETs are fabricated from gallium arsenide and are called as GaAs metal
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Schottky field effect transistors (MESFETs).


Pu

6. Gallium arsenide MESFETs are advantageous than Silicon FETs.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Gallium arsenide MESFETs are Schottky barrier devices. They operate with both
low noise and high gain at microwave frequencies (GHz). Silicon FETs cannot operate with wide
bands.

7. The PIN-FET hybrid receivers are a combination of ______________


a) Hybrid resistances and capacitances
b) Pin photodiode and low noise amplifier (GaAs MESFETs)
c) P-N photodiode and low noise amplifier (GaAs MESFETs)
d) Attenuator and low noise amplifier (GaAs MESFETs)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The PIN-FET or p-i-n/FET receiver utilizes a p-i-n photodiode along with a low
noise preamplifier (GaAs MESFETs). It is fabricated using thick-film integrated circuit
technology. This hybrid integration reduces the stray capacitance to negligible levels.

8. PIN-FET hybrid receiver is designed for use at a transmission rate of _____________


a) 130 Mbits-1
b) 110 Mbits-1
c) 120 Mbits-1
d) 140 Mbits-1
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: At 140 Mbits-1, the performance of PIN-FET hybrid receiver is found to be
comparable to germanium and alloy APD receivers. A digital equalizer is necessary as the high-
impedance front end effectively integrates the signal at 140 Mbits-1.

p
Ap
9. It is difficult to achieve higher transmission rates using conventional __________
a) Voltage amplifier
b) Waveguide Structures
c) PIN-FET or APD receivers
at
d) MESFET
View Answer
H

Answer: c
le

Explanation: It is difficult to achieve higher transmission rates due to limitations in their gain
bandwidth products. Also, the trade-off between the multiplication factor requirement and the
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bandwidth limits the performance of conventional receivers.


Pu

10. Which receiver can be fabricated using PIN-FET hybrid approach?


a) Trans-impedance front end receiver
b) Gallium arsenide receiver
c) High-impedance front-end
d) Low-impedance front-end
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Trans-impedance front-end receivers are fabricated using the PIN-FET hybrid
approach. An example of such receivers consists of a GaAs MESFET and two complementary
bipolar microwave transistors.

11. A silicon p-i-n photodiode utilized with the amplifier and the receiver is designed to accept
data at a rate of ___________
a) 276Mbits-1
b) 274 Mbits-1
c) 278Mbits-1
d) 302Mbits-1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A silicon p-i-n photodiode is used with the low-noise preamplifier. This
preamplifier is based on a GaAs MESFET. Thus, a receiver using p-i-n photodiode accepts a
data rate of 274 Mbits-1 giving a sensitivity around -35dBm.

12. What is usually required by FETs to optimize the figure of merit?


a) Attenuation of barrier
b) Matching with the depletion region
c) Dispersion of the gate region
d) Matching with the detector
View Answer

Answer: d

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Explanation: Total capacitance is given by Ct = Cd + Ca. The figure of merit is optimized when

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Cd=Ca. This requires FETs to be matched with the detectors. This requires FETs to be matched
with the detectors. This procedure is usually not welcomed by the device and is not permitted in
current optical receiver design
at
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
H

“High Performance Receivers”.

1. How many design considerations are considered while determining the receiver performance?
le

a) Three
rp

b) Two
c) One
Pu

d) Four
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Three main considerations are utilized for determining the receiver performance.
Noise performance is a major design consideration providing a limitation to the sensitivity. Other
two considerations are bandwidth and dynamic range.

2. FET preamplifiers provide higher sensitivity than the Si-bipolar device.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: At low speeds, the FET preamplifiers provide higher sensitivity than the Si-bipolar
device. It is apparent that below 10Mbits -1the Si MOSFET preamplifier provides a lower noise
performance than GaAs MESFET.
3. What is the abbreviation of HBT?
a) Homo-junction unipolar transistor
b) Homo-junction bipolar transistor
c) Hetero-junction bipolar transistor
d) Hetero-Bandwidth transcendence
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: HBT is abbreviated as Hetero-junction bipolar transistor. It comprises a selectively
doped hetero-junction FET. It is a high-speed, low-noise transistor device.

4. What type of receivers are used to provide wideband operation, low-noise operation?
a) APD optical receivers
b) Optoelectronic integrated circuits (OEICs)
c) MESFET receivers
d) Trans-impedance front-end receivers

p
View Answer

Ap
Answer: b
Explanation: A strategy for the provision of wideband, low-noise receivers involves the use of p-
i-n photodiode detector along with the monolithic integration of the device with semiconductor
at
alloy FETs. It has an operating wavelength of 1.1 to 1.6 μmranges.
H

5. ___________ circuits extends the dynamic range of the receiver.


a) Monolithic
le

b) Trans-impedance
c) Automatic Error Control (AEC)
rp

d) Automatic Gain Control (AGC)


View Answer
Pu

Answer: d
Explanation: AGC circuit extends the dynamic range by diverting excess photocurrent away
from the input of the receiver. The receiver dynamic range is an important performance
parameter as it provides a measure of the difference between the sensitivity and its overload
level.

6. The sensitivity of the low-impedance configuration is ____________


a) Good
b) Poor
c) Great
d) Same as that of high-impedance configuration
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A receiver saturation level is determined by the value of the photodiode bias
resistor. The photodiode bias resistor valve is indirectly proportional to the sensitivity but is
directly proportional in low impedance configuration. The low resistor value provides less
sensitivity in the low-impedance configuration.

7. What is generally used to determine the receiver performance characteristics?


a) Noise
b) Resistor
c) Dynamic range & sensitivity characteristics
d) Impedance
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Dynamic range and sensitivity characteristics involve a graph of received power
level and the value of feedback resistor. The high value of photodiode bias resistor in the high
impedance front end causes high sensitivity and a narrow dynamic range. These factors prove
useful for determining the performance characteristics of receiver.

p
8. The __________ technique eliminates the thermal noise associated with the feedback resistor

Ap
in the trans-impedance front end design.
a) Compensation
b) Resonating impedance
c) Electromagnetic
at
d) Optical feedback
View Answer
H

Answer: d
le

Explanation: The optical feedback strategy proves most useful at low transmission rate. The use
of optically coupled feedback has demonstrated dynamic ranges of around 40 dB for p-i-n
rp

receivers operating at modest bit rates. It removes thermal noise associated with the feedback
resistor.
Pu

9. The removal of the feedback resistor in the optical feedback technique allows reciever
sensitivity of the order of _______________
a) -54 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
b) -12 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
c) -64 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
d) -72 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The removal of feedback resistor in the optical feedback technique allows low
noise performance. Low noise performance, in turn, affects sensitivity. The receiver sensitivity
gets high of the order of -64 dBm at 2Mbit/sec transmission rates.

10. The optical feedback technique is useful at low transmission rates.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The optical feedback technique is useful at low transmission rates because in this
case the feedback resistors employed are smaller than the optimum value for low-noise
performance. This is done to maintain the resistor at a practical size of 1MΩ. Large values of
feedback resistor limits the dynamic range.

11. How many types of optical amplifier technologies are available.


a) One
b) Three
c) Four
d) Two
View Answer

p
Answer: d

Ap
Explanation: There are two basic optical amplifier technologies available. They are
semiconductor optical amplifiers and fiber amplifiers. Both these devices are utilized in the pre-
amplification role.
at
12. The optimum filter bandwidth is typically in the range ________________
a) 0.1 to 0.3 nm
H

b) 0.5 to 3 nm
c) 0.1 to 0.3 μm
le

d) 0.5 to 3 μm
View Answer
rp

Answer: b
Pu

Explanation: The optimum fiber bandwidth is determined by detector noise, transmission rate
and the transmitter chirp characteristics. It is typically in the range of 0.5 to 3 nmas it depends
upon the filter insertion loss.

8. Questions on Optical Amplification , Wavelength Conversion and Regeneration

The section contains questions and answers on semiconductor optical amplifiers, fiber and
waveguide amplifiers and conversion.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Optical Amplifiers – Semiconductor Optical Amplifiers”.

1. For linear as well as in nonlinear mode _______________ are most important network
elements.
a) Optical amplifier
b) Optical detector
c) A/D converter
d) D/A converters
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In single-mode fiber system, signal dispersion is very small, hence there is
attenuation. These systems don’t require signal regeneration as optical amplification is sufficient
so optical amplifier are most important.

2. The more advantages optical amplifier is ____________


a) Fiber amplifier
b) Semiconductor amplifier
c) Repeaters
d) Mode hooping amplifier
View Answer

Answer: b

p
Explanation: Semiconductor optical amplifiers are having smaller size. They can be integrated to

Ap
produce subsystems. Thus are more profitable than other optical amplifier.

3. ________________ cannot be used for wideband amplification.


a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
at
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
H

d) Brillouin fiber amplifier


View Answer
le

Answer: d
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Explanation: Brillouin fiber amplifiers provide a very narrow spectral bandwidth. These
bandwidth can be around 50 MHz, hence cannot be employed for wideband amplification.
Pu

4. ____________ is used preferably for channel selection in a WDM system.


a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Brillouin fiber provides amplification of a particular channel. This amplification
can be done without boosting other channels besides that particular channel.

5. For used in single-mode fiber __________ are used preferably.


a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Semiconductor optical amplifiers have low power consumption. There single mode
structure makes them appropriate and suitable for used in single mode fiber.

6. Mostly ____________ are used in nonlinear applications.


a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) FPAs
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: FPAs have a resonant nature. This can be combined with their high internal fields.

p
They provide pulse shaping and bi-stable elements. Thus, are used widely in nonlinear

Ap
application.

7. _______________ is superior as compared to _________________


a) TWA, FPA
at
b) FPA, TWA
c) EDFA, FPA
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d) FPA, EDFA
View Answer
le

Answer: a
rp

Explanation: In TWA operating in single-pass amplification mode, the Fabry-Perot resonance is


suppressed by facet reflectivity reduction. This affects in increasing of amplifier spectral
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bandwidth. This makes them less dependence of transmission characteristics on fluctuations in


biased current, input signal polarization. Thus FPA are superior to TWA.

8. ______________ are operated at current beyond normal lasing threshold current, practically.
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The anti-reflection facet coatings affects in the form of increasing lasing current
threshold. This causes SOAs to be operated at current beyond normal lasing threshold current.

9. An uncoated FPA has peak gain wavelength 1.8μm, mode spacing of 0.8nm, and long active
region of 300 v. Determine RI of active medium.
a) 4.25×106
b) 3.75×107
c) 3.95×107
d) 4.25×109
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: n=λ2/2δλL=1.8×10-6/2×0.8×10-9×300×10-6=3.75×107.

10. Determine the peak gain wavelength of uncoated FPA having mode spacing of 2nm,and
250μmlong active region and R.I of 3.78.
a)2.25×10-4
b)4.53×10-8
c)1.94×10-6
d)4.25×109
View Answer

p
Answer: c

Ap
Explanation: The peak gain wavelength is given by
λ2=n2δλL=3.78×2×2×10-9×250×10-6=1.94×10-6 m.

11. An SOA has net gain coefficient of 300, at a gain of 30dB. Determine length of SOA.
at
a) 0.32 m
b) 0.023 m
H

c) 0.245 m
d) 0.563 m
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: b
Explanation: The length of SOA is determined by
Pu

L = Gs(dB)/10×g×loge = 30/10×300×0.434`= 0.023 m.

12. An SOA has length of 35.43×10 -3m, at 30 dB gain. Determine net gain coefficient.
a) 5.124×10-3
b) 1.12×10-4
c) 5.125×10-3
d) 2.15×10-5
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The net gain coefficient of SOA is given by
g = L×10×loge/Gs(dB) = 35.43×10-3×10×0.434/30
=5.125×10-3.

13. An SOA has mode number of 2.6, spontaneous emission factor of 4, optical bandwidth of 1
THz. Determine noise power spectral density.
a) 1.33×10-3
b) 5.13×1012
c) 3.29×10-6
d) 0.33×10-9
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The noise power spectral density P ast is
Past = mnsp(Gs-1) hfb
= 2.6×4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1×1012
= 1.33×10-3W.

14. An SOA has noise power spectral density of 1.18mW, spontaneous emission factor of 4,
optical bandwidth of 1.5 THz. Determine mode number.
a) 1.53 × 1028
b) 6.14 × 1012
c) 1.78 × 1016

p
d) 4.12 × 10-3

Ap
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The mode number is determined by
at
m = Past/nsp(Gs-1) hfB
= 1.18×10-3/4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1.3×1012
H

= 1.53 × 10-34.
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This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fiber and Waveguide Amplifiers”.
rp
Pu

1. The spectral dependence on gain is always constant.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The spectral dependence on gain is mostly not constant. Thus the spectral
bandwidth for erbium-doped silica fibers is restricted to around 300 GHz.

2. ESA ________ the pumping efficiency of device.


a) Increases
b) Does not affects
c) Reduces
d) Has negligible effect on
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In erbium fiber amplifier photons at pump wavelength promotes the electrons in
upper lasing level into a high state of excitation. These electrons decay non-radiate to
intermediate levels and then back to upper lasing level thereby reducing pumping efficiency.

3. Signal amplification is obtained in ____________


a) Erbium-doped fluoro-zir-carbonate fiber multimode
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: To avoid excited state absorption (ESA). We should use different glass technology
in place by using a 488 nmpump wavelength; erbium-doped multimode fluoro zir carbonate fiber
provides gain at 1.525 μmwavelengths.

4. It is possible to construct a single rare-earth-doped fiber amplifier which provides

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amplification for all-bands.

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a) True
b) False
View Answer
at
Answer: b
Explanation: Each material has different absorption emission properties to absorb energy either
H

in single or multi steps. Also it possesses property to emit light in one or more narrow spectral
ranges. Thus we cannot construct a single earth-doped fiber for all bands.
le

5. _______________ is constructed using erbium-doped glass.


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a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier


b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
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c) Raman fiber systems


d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: As compared to other glass, erbium-based micro fiber amplifier is more
advantageous. This amplifier provides high optical gain over just a few centimeters of fiber over
many meters.

6. ____________ uses Er3+-doped erbium glass.


a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The erbium-based micro fiber amplifier uses Er3+-doped erbium glass. It supports
the doping constructions of erbium ions at high levels as compared to conventional glasses.

7. The most advantageous amplification is ____________


a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: As compared to all the amplifications, Raman amplification is more advantageous.
It has self-phase matching between pump of signal together with broad gain bandwidth as
compared to other nonlinear processes.

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8. _________ is also known as lump Raman amplifiers.

Ap
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Discrete Raman amplifiers
at
View Answer
H

Answer: d
Explanation: Discrete Raman Amplifiers are lumped elements. This lumped element is to be
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inserted in transmission line to provide gain.


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9. _______________ extends the pump power into transmission line fiber.


a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
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b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers


c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In Distributed Raman amplification, all pump power is confined to lumped element.
And it is distributed when the amplification takes place among several kilometers.

10. _____________ are called hybrid Raman amplifier.


a) Lumped and distributed Raman Amplifiers
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lumped and distributed Raman Amplifiers can be combined together to be used in
wideband application. This combination increases overall amplified spectral bandwidth.

11. In ___________ the ASE contributes most of noise.


a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: ASE contributes most of noise in Raman Amplification. The common sources of
noise include beating of signal with ASE, mixing, self-phase modulation and cross-plane
modulation.

p
12. In _____________ Rayleigh scattering can be reduced.

Ap
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
at
View Answer
H

Answer: d
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering adverse effects can be reduced in Raman Amplification. This
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can be done by employing two or more stages of amplification over single stage amplification
over fiber.
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13. Compute the fiber nonlinear coefficient of a parametric optical amplifier having parametric
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peak gain of 63.6 dB, signal power of 1.6W, length 520.


a) 2.78×10-2 W-1km-1
b) 9.61×10-3 W-1km-1
c) 3.25×10-3 W-1km-1
d) 5.61×10-4 W-1km-1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The fiber nonlinear coefficient can be found by
γ = Gp(dB)-log10(0.25)/Ppl×L × 1/10log10(2.718)2
= 63.6+6/1.6×1.6×520×1/8.7 = 9.61×10-3 W-1km-1.

14. Compute signal power for parametric amplifier having length of 500, nonlinear gain
coefficient 12.6×10-3 W-1km-1 and parametric peak gain of 63.9 dB.
a) 0.245 W
b) 0.012 W
c) 0.19 W
d) 0.342 W
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Signal power is given by
Pp=Gp(dB)-log10(0.25)/γL× 1/10log10(2.718)2= 63.9+6/12.6×10-3×1/ 8.7
= 0.012 W.

15. Compute the gain of parametric amplifier having signal power of 1.6W, length of 500, non-
linear coefficient of 10.19 * 10-3W-1km-1.
a) 34.890
b) 19.15
c) 18.22
d) 16.11
View Answer

p
Answer: c

Ap
Explanation: Quadratic gain is given by-
Gp(dB)=10log10(γPplL)2
Where L=length of amplifier
Ppl=signal power
at
γ=nonlinear coefficient.
H

This set of Optical Communications online quiz focuses on “Wavelength Conversion and Optical
Regeneration”.
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1. ___________________ is defined as a process by which the wavelength of the transmitted


signal is changed without altering the data carried by the signal.
Pu

a) Wavelength conversion
b) Attenuation
c) Sigma management
d) Wavelength dispersion
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Wavelength conversion observes the changes in the length of the wave. It does not
proportionate with the data carried by the signal or wave.

2. The device which is used to perform wavelength conversion is called as ___________


a) Attenuator
b) Wavelength Gyrator
c) Wavelength Circulator
d) Wavelength translator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wavelength translator changes the frequency of the wave and hence it is also called
as frequency changer. It does not affect the data carried by the wave.

3. A wavelength converter is termed as _______ if the converted wavelength is longer than the
original signal wavelength.
a) Down converter
b) Up converter
c) Attenuator
d) Shifter
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A wavelength converter is capable of receiving an incoming signal at any
wavelength at the input port and produces output at the output port. A converter is termed as up
converter when the output signal wavelength is longer than the original signal wavelength.

p
Ap
4. The ___________ converters cannot process different modulation formats.
a) Shifting
b) Optoelectronic wavelength
c) Opt-circular
at
d) Magnetic simulating
View Answer
H

Answer: b
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Explanation: In optoelectronic wavelength converters, the information contained in the intensity,


frequency, phase of the signal is required to be reprocessed for the purpose of wavelength
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conversion. It does not process all the modulation formats.


Pu

5. The optical medium, in case of optical wavelength conversion is ___________


a) Depleted
b) Linear
c) Non-linear
d) Dispersive
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The implementation of optical wavelength conversion involves non-linearity of the
optical medium. It can be either active or passive, each providing different nonlinear effects.

6. The process of imposing the nonlinear response of the medium onto the control signal is
known as ______________ scheme.
a) Demodulation
b) Absorption
c) Cross-modulation
d) Repeater mixing
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The cross-modulation scheme involves changes produced due to the intensity
variation of the intensity-modulated input signal. It takes place in the active cavity.

7. How many approaches are adopted by the cross-modulation scheme?


a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) Five
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Based on the properties of the nonlinear medium, the cross-modulation scheme can

p
be divided into four main approaches. These are cross-gain modulation, cross-phase modulation,

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cross-absorption modulation, differential polarization modulation.

8. __________ wavelength converters make use of a passive optical medium to exploit non-
linear effects.
at
a) Bipolar
b) Optoelectronic
H

c) Magnetic
d) Coherent
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: d
Explanation: The nonlinear effects include four-wave mixing and difference frequency
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generation. Coherent wavelength converters use a passive medium to extend the changes of
nonlinear effects.

9. A _____________ wavelength converter utilizes the nonlinear properties of a semiconductor


optical amplifier to perform the conversion process.
a) Cross-gain modulation
b) Cross-phase modulation
c) Cross-absorption modulation
d) Differential polarization modulation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Cross-gain modulation wavelength converter is also called as XGM wavelength
converter. It uses semiconductor optical amplifier(SOA) along with its nonlinear properties for
the conversion process.
10. The intensity modulated data on one signal wavelength is called as _______
a) Dispersed data
b) Pump signal
c) Probe signal
d) Frequency signal
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pump signal is intensity modulated data. It produces variations in the carrier density
within the SOA which provides inverted gain modulation in the SOA medium.

11. The probe signal is inverse to that of the pump signal.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

p
Answer: a

Ap
Explanation: The gain modulations of the pump signal are imprinted onto the probe signal. Thus,
the probe signal acquires the inverse copy of the pump signal, thereby contributing to the
wavelength conversion with the pump signal.
at
12. In the XGM converter, the transfer function maintains the rectangular shape.
a) True
H

b) False
View Answer
le

Answer: b
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Explanation: By default, the ideal transfer function should be rectangular in shape. But it does
not apply the same for XGM converter as the amplitude gradually decreases.
Pu

13. The speed of operation of XGM wavelength conversion is determined by the


_______________ of the SOA.
a) Depletion level
b) Hole concentration
c) Carrier dynamics
d) Electron concentration
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The carrier dynamics deals with the interaction time between the input and the
probe signal. On increasing the interaction time, the speed of operation of XGM wavelength
conversion is increased.

14. ____________ is defined as the deviation in the emission frequency with respect to time
when a laser is driven by a time-varying current source.
a) Intensity probe
b) Dispersion
c) Attenuation
d) Frequency chirp
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency chirp occurs during the process of XGM and XPM. It is often termed as
instantaneous frequency variation.

15. When frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards the shorter wavelength, it is
known as ________
a) Red shift
b) Green shift
c) Yellow shift
d) Blue shift
View Answer

p
Ap
Answer: d
Explanation: When frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards the shorter wavelength,
it is known as blue shift. Similarly, when frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards the
longer wavelength, it is known as red shift.
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H
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rp
Pu
Multiple Choice Questions
____________________________________________

BE (2015)Pattern

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404190 Broadband Communication Systems )
A
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Topic : Fibre Optic Communication
H
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UNIT III: Multichannel Systems


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1
9. Questions & Answers on Integrated Optics and Photonics

The section contains questions on photonics technologies, planar waveguides, photonic integrated circuits, optical
bistability and digital optics.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Integrated
Optics and Photonics Technologies”.

1. Integrated technology for optical devices are developed within optical fiber communication.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Integration of optical devices enable fabrication of the whole system onto a single chip. Integration
of such devices has become a confluence of several optical terms.

pp
2. When both active and passive devices are integrated on a single chip, in multilayered form, then these devices
are known as _____________
a) IP devices
b) IO devices
A
c) Wavelength converters
at
d) Optical parametric amplifiers
View Answer
H

Answer: a
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Explanation: IP technology enables fabrication of subsystems and systems. This is all realized on a single
substrate. The integration on a single chip is done in IP technology.
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3. _________ is a further enhancement of ________


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a) IP, IO
b) IO, IP
c) IO, wavelength converters
d) IP, wavelength converters
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: IP seems to be a miniaturization process and integration of optical systems on a single chip. IO
devices are formed when both active and passive elements are interconnected. Thus, IP is a developed version of
IO.

4. Thin transparent dielectric layers on planar substrates are used in _________ and ______ devices.
a) Wavelength converters and amplification devices
b) IP and IO
c) IP and wavelength converters
d) IO and amplification devices
View Answer

2
Answer: b
Explanation: IP and IO provide an alternative to conversion of optical signal back to electrical signal. Thin
transparent dielectric layers act as optical waveguides to produce small-scale and miniature circuits.

5. __________ did not make significant contribution to earlier optical fiber systems.
a) IO
b) IP
c) Wavelength amplifiers
d) Couplers
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: IO is based on single mode optical waveguides. Thus it is incompatible with multimode fiber
systems. Thus, IO has less importance than IP.

6. Side or edge-emitting or conducting optical devices cannot be integrated on same substrate.

pp
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
A
Explanation: In serial integration of device, different elements of optical chip can be interconnected in a
at
consecutive manner. Thus, integration of side or edge emitting optical devices can be done on a single substrate.
H

7. Hybrid ________ integration demands _________ IP circuits to be produced on a single substrate.


a) IP, single-layered
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b) IO, multilayered
c) IP, multilayered
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d) IO, multilayered
View Answer
Pu

Answer: c
Explanation: To gain control of optical signals, elements can be directly attached to IP circuit. Both active and
passive devices should be on the same substrate. To make devices compatible with 3d structures of other IP/IO
devices, hybrid IP integration demands multilayered IP circuits.

8. Using SOI integration technique __________ components can be coupled to IP devices.


a) Passive
b) Layered
c) Demounted
d) Active
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: SOI is used to produce micro-waveguide bends and couplers thereby maintaining compatibility with
silicon fabrication techniques. Thus, active components like optical sources, detectors can be coupled to other IP
devices using SOI technique.

9. Who invented the IO technology?


a) Albert Einstein
3
b) Anderson
c) M.S Clarke
d) Robert
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The birth of IO can be traced back to the basic ideas outlined by Anderson in 1966. He suggested
the micro-fabrication technology which in turn led to the term integrated optics in 1969.

10. Electronic circuits have a practical limitation on speed of operation at a frequency of around _________
a) 1010Hz
b) 1012Hz
c) 1014Hz
d) 1011Hz
View Answer

pp
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of operation of electronic devices or circuits results from their use of metallic conductors
to transport electronic charges and build up signals. It has a limitation to speed of operation of frequency around
1010Hz. A
11. The use of light as an electromagnetic wave of high frequency provides high speed operation around
at
____________ times the conceivable employing electronic circuits.
a) 108Hz
H

b) 105Hz
c) 106Hz
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d) 104Hz
View Answer
rp

Answer: d
Pu

Explanation: The use of light with its property as an electromagnetic wave offers the possibility of high speed
operation. For this, the frequency should be high as 1014to 1015Hz.

12. How many layers are possessed by waveguide structures of silica-on-silicon(SOS)?


a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The SOS is a part of IP technology. The waveguide structures provided by it comprises of three
layers. They are buffer, the core and the cladding.

13. The ________________ is a versatile solution-based technique for making ceramic and glass materials.
a) SOL gel process
b) SSL gel process
c) SDL gel process
d) SAML gel process
View Answer
4
Answer: a
Explanation: The SOL gel process involves the transition of system from a liquid to a gel. The SOL gel process
along with SOS technique is used for the fabrication of ceramic fibers, film coatings and waveguide based optical
amplifiers.

This set of Basic Optical Communications Questions and Answers focuses on “Planar Waveguides and
Integrated Optical Devices”.

1. Optical fibre communications uses _______ dielectric waveguide structures for confining light.
a) Rectangular
b) Circular
c) Triangular
d) Planar
View Answer

Answer: b

pp
Explanation: The use of circular dielectric waveguide structures is universally acceptable. This has been a boon
for optical fibre communications.

A
2. __________ waveguide is formed when the film is sandwiched by layers of different refractive index.
a) Planar
at
b) Circular
c) Asymmetric
H

d) Symmetric
View Answer
le

Answer: c
Explanation: When the film is sandwiched between layers of same refractive index, symmetric waveguide is
rp

formed. Owing to the different refractive index, asymmetry is observed and hence asymmetric waveguide is
formed.
Pu

3. When the dimensions of the guide are reduced, the number of ___________ also decreases.
a) Propagating nodes
b) Electrons
c) Holes
d) Volume of photons
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The dimensions of the guide are directly proportional to the number of propagating nodes. As the
dimensions are reduced, the number of propagating nodes also decreases.

4. What does hff stands for in the equation hff = h+x+x2?


a) Frequency of layer
b) Diameter of curve
c) Effective guide layer thickness
d) Space propagation
View Answer

5
Answer: c
Explanation: In the above equation, h is the height, x and x2 are the evanescent field penetration depths. h ff
Denotes the effective guided layer thickness.

5. ___________ waveguides are plagued by high losses.


a) Circular
b) Planar
c) Depleted
d) Metal-clad
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All suitable waveguide materials are subject to limitations in the confinement. However, metal-clad
waveguides are not so limited. Hence, they are plagued by high losses.

6. The planar waveguides may be fabricated from glasses and other isotropic materials such as ___________ and

pp
______________
a) Octane and polymers
b) Carbon monoxide and diode
c) Fluorides and carbonates
d) Sulphur dioxide and polymers
A
View Answer
at
Answer: d
H

Explanation: These materials are isotropic. However, their properties do not affect the fabrication of planar
waveguides. Their properties cannot be controlled by external energy sources.
le

7. Which of the following devices are less widely used in the field of optical fibre communications?
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a) Acousto-optic devices
b) Regenerators
Pu

c) Reflectors
d) Optical translators
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Acousto-optic devices are less widely used, mainly in the area of field deflection. Regenerators,
reflectors form a base for the optical fibre communications.

8. Which of the following materials have refractive index near two?


a) GA As
b) Zinc
c) InP
d) AlSb
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Two basic groups are distinguished on the basis of the respective refractive indices near two and
near three. GaAs, InP, AlSb have refractive indices near 3.

6
9. Passive devices are fabricated by __________ technique.
a) Fassbinder
b) High density integration
c) Radio-frequency sputtering
d) Lithium implantation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Passive devices’ fabrication comes mainly from microelectronics industry. Radio frequency
sputtering is used to deposit thin films of glass onto glass substrates.

10. Strip pattern in waveguide structures is obtained through ____________


a) Lithography
b) Cryptography
c) Depletion of holes
d) Implantation

pp
View Answer

Answer: a
A
Explanation: Field strength is an important aspect when it comes to strip patterns in waveguide structures. The
electron and laser beam lithography is used to obtain stripe pattern in waveguide structures.
at
11. Propagation losses in slab and strip waveguides are smaller than the single mode fibre losses.
a) True
H

b) False
View Answer
le

Answer: b
rp

Explanation: The losses are in the range of 0.1 to 0.3 dB/cm. In case of slab and stripe waveguides, the losses are
much higher whereas in case of single-mode fibres, they are much less.
Pu

12. A passive Y-junction beam splitter is fabricated from __________


a) GaAs
b) ZnS
c) AlbS
d) LiNbO3
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A passive Y-junction splitter is used to combine signals from separate sources or to divide a signal
into two or more channels. It is fabricated from the waveguide materials such as LiNbO3.

13. A passive Y-junction beam splitter is also used as a switch.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A passive junction beam splitter finds application where equal power division of the incident beam
is required. It can be used as a switch if it is fabricated from an electro-optic material.
7
14. The linear variation of refractive index with the electric field is known as the ________
a) Linear implantation
b) Ionization
c) Koppel effect
d) Pockels effect
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The change in refractive index is related by the applied field via the linear and quadratic electro-
optic coefficients. The variation of R.I with the electric field is known as Pockels effect.

15. Planar waveguides are used to produce _______ coupler.


a) MMI
b) CMI
c) Frequency
d) Differential

pp
View Answer

Answer: a
A
Explanation: MMI couplers are abbreviated as Multimode interference couplers. These are similar to fused fibre
couplers. These are easily produced by using planar waveguides.
at
This set of Optical Communications Question Bank focuses on “Optoelectronic Integration and Photonic
Integrated Circuits”.
H

1. Monolithic integration for optical sources are confined to the use of __________ semiconductors.
le

a) Ⅲ-Ⅴ
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b) Ⅱ-Ⅲ
c) Ⅰ-Ⅱ
Pu

d) Ⅶ-Ⅷ
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ⅲ-Ⅴsemiconductor compounds are much useful. They possess both optical and electronic
properties. These properties can be exploited to produce high performance devices.

2. Circuits fabricated from GaAs or AlGaAs operate in wavelength region of __________


a) 0.1 and 0.2 μm
b) 0.8 and 0.9 μm
c) 0.4 and 0.6 μm
d) 0.6 and 0.7 μm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Circuits fabricated from GaAs use injection laser which is fabricated on GaAs with a MESFET.
This is used to bias and modulate the laser.

8
3. The OEICs realization __________ as compared to the other developments in IO.
a) Scripted
b) Decreased
c) Lagged behind
d) Increased
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: IO devices use dielectric materials such as lithium niobate. This lagging behind is caused by
inherent difficulties in fabrication of OEICs even if Ⅲ-Ⅴ semiconductors are used.

4. Compositional and structural differences between photonic and electronic devices __________
a) Provide high efficiency
b) Provide low efficiency
c) Highly used
d) Create problems

pp
View Answer

Answer: d
A
Explanation: Compositional and structural differences cause epitaxial crystal growth, planarization for
lithography, electrical interconnections. They also cause thermal and chemical stability of materials, electric
at
matching and heat dissipation.
H

5. To avoid large chip __________ devices are used.


a) InGaAsP
b) InGa
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c) GaAs
d) InGaAs
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: a
Explanation: To avoid large chip, InGaAsP devices are used with directly modulated semiconductor lasers. This
gives good dynamic characteristics at 40 Gbit/s at 1.55 μmwavelength.

6. Devices operating at transmission rates greater than 40 Gb/s are _________


a) GaAs and InP
b) GaAs
c) InGa
d) InGaAs
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Optoelectronic integrated circuits are based on heterojunction bipolar transistor and electron
mobility transistor use GaAs and InP. These are capable of operating at transmission rates higher than 40 Gb/s.

7. HEMT based __________ have a spot-size convertor with a photodiode.


a) p-n junction diode
b) p-i-n photoreceiver
c) IGBT

9
d) BJT
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: P-I-N photoreceiver comprises of spot-size convertor with a photodiode. Spot-size convertor
increases fiber alignment tolerances by one order of magnitude. This enables use of cleaved instead of lensed
fiber.

8. P-I-N photoreceiver based on HEMT is integrated with _________ guiding layers.


a) GaAs and InP
b) GaAs
c) InGa
d) InGaAsP
View Answer

Answer: d

pp
Explanation: P-I-N photoreceiver is integrated with InGaAsP guiding layers. In this HEMT based technology,
InGaAsP provides more confinement.

A
9. An optical power splitter integrated with optical waveguide amplifier is more useful.
a) True
b) False
at
View Answer
H

Answer: a
Explanation: The aim of optical waveguide amplifier is to reduce the number of amplifiers in system. Alongwith,
le

it also reaches maximum number of nodes.


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10. The use of intelligent optical switches is necessary.


a) False
Pu

b) True
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Most applications of OEICs in optical networks require large switching capacity to support a large
number of WDM channels. This also provides control of both optical signal wavelength and signal power.

11. The wafer scale replication technology uses ____________


a) SOL gel
b) GaAs
c) InGa
d) InGaAsP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Replication technology employs hot embossing, molding and ultraviolet lithography. Ultraviolet
curable SOL gel enables refractive and diffractive micro-optical elements to be replicated directly on glass
substrates.

1
0
12. ___________ is useful for production of both planar micro-optical elements and stacked optical
microsystems.
a) Wavelength amplifier
b) Wavelength convertor
c) Replication technology
d) Optical switching matrix
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: SOL gel materials used in replication technology allows combination of replication with
lithography. This leaves selected areas material-free for sawing and bunding.

13. Optical interconnection between optoelectronic device is achieved in _________


a) Wavelength amplifier
b) Wavelength convertor
c) Replication technology

pp
d) Chip-to-chip interconnection
View Answer

Answer: d A
Explanation: The chip-to-chip interconnection of optical components have a vertical cavity surface-emitting
laser. These are assembled in micro-trenches in which embedded electrodes are connected through passive
at
junction of poliver waveguide on alignment pits.
H

14. Multilevel interconnections are incorporated in _______


a) PIC
le

b) AWG based coupler


c) Convertors
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d) OEIC technologies
View Answer
Pu

Answer: a
Explanation: PIC reduces the overall size of optical functions. This causes the interconnection of several modules
growing on same substrate.

15. When there is M number of WDM channels present at N input ports, then the output port 1 produces a
_________
a) CW signal
b) WDM signal
c) Amplified signal
d) Distorted signal
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The reconstituted spectrum of WDM signal at any output port consists of a different set of
wavelength channels with at least one wavelength channel from each input port producing a WDM signal having
wavelength signal from each of input ports.

1. ___________ provides a series of optical processing functions.


a) Wavelength convertors
1
1
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Detectors
d) Bi-stable optical devices
View Answer

2. ___________ comprise of Fabry-Perot cavity.


a) Wavelength convertors
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Bi-stable optical devices
d) Detectors
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Fabry-Perot cavity consists of a material in which there are variations in refractive index with
optical intensity. These variations are nonlinear giving rise to bistability.

pp
3. The optical path length in nonlinear medium is integer number of ______ wavelength.
a) Half
b) Double
c) Three-fourth
d) Single
A
View Answer
at
Answer: a
H

Explanation: Fabry-Perot cavity exhibits a sharp resonance to optical power passing into and through it. This is
achieved when optical path length is integer number of half wavelength in nonlinear medium.
le

4. As compared to laser, the value of _________ in the cavity controls the optical transmission.
rp

a) Amplification
b) Refractive index
Pu

c) Rectification
d) Reflection
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The refractive index value in the Fabry-Perot cavity controls the optical transmission. This provides
high optical output on resonance and low optical output off resonance.

5. ___________ are able to latch between two distinct optical states.


a) Wavelength converters
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Detectors
d) Bistable optical devices
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The transfer characteristic for Bistable optical devices exhibit two state hysteresis resulting from
turning in and out of resonance. So they can be latched between two states responding to external signal acting as
flip-flop.

1
2
6. __________ can act as AND, OR, NOT gate.
a) Wavelength converters
b) Wavelength amplifiers
c) Detectors
d) Bistable optical devices
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: BOD’s exhibit 2-state hysteresis. Thus they are able to latch between two operating states (0 and 1)
thereby providing logic functions.

7. _______ proves superior to _______


a) BOD’s, electronic devices
b) Electronic devices, BOD’s
c) BOD’s, convertors
d) Convertors, BOD’s

pp
View Answer

Answer: a
A
Explanation: There is also a thing of picosecond switching using only Pico-joules of energy. A BOD comprises
of these switching properties. Thus, it proves superior to electronic devices.
at
8. ________ BOD’s provides optical feedback.
a) Extrinsic
H

b) Intrinsic
c) Detector
le

d) Bistable
View Answer
rp

Answer: b
Pu

Explanation: All optical or intrinsic devices which utilize a nonlinear optical medium between a pair of partially
reflecting mirrors forming a nonlinear etalon in which feedback is provided optical.

9. ___________ devices employ artificial nonlinearity.


a) Extrinsic
b) Intrinsic
c) Hybrid
d) Bistable
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid devices have artificial nonlinearity in an electro-optic medium in the cavity. This produces
variations in refractive index through electro-optic effect.

10. Hybrid devices have limited ________ speed.


a) Switching
b) Planar
c) Curvature
d) Electrical
View Answer
1
3
Answer: a
Explanation: Hybrid BOD’s provides flexibility. But at the same time their switching speeds are limited by use of
electrical feedback. These devices are interconnected to provide a more complex logic circuit.

11. _______ exhibit optical bistability.


a) Extrinsic lasers
b) Intrinsic lasers
c) Detectors
d) Semiconductor lasers
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Semiconductor lasers have optical bistability. This is due to nonlinearities in absorption, gain,
dispersion, wave guiding and the selection of output polarization.

12. ___________ is fabricated with tandem electrode.

pp
a) Full convertor
b) Semiconductor
c) Detector diode
d) Bistable laser diode
View Answer
A
at
Answer: d
Explanation: Bistable laser diode is fabricated with tandem electrode. The tandem electrode provides two gain
H

sections. Also it has a loss region between them.


le

13. Optical pulsing can be obtained using _________


a) BODs
rp

b) WDM
c) Detector
Pu

d) Semiconductor
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: BODs with a very narrow bi-stable loop can provide optical pulsing. This type of device can be
used to shape, clean up and amplify a noisy input pulse.

14. A weak second beam is introduced in _________


a) BOD differential amplifier
b) WDM
c) Detector
d) Semiconductor laser
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A weak second beam in BOD differential amplifier is introduced into the nonlinear optical cavity.
This is used to control the resonance and transmission of the main beam through effects of its own stored energy.

10. Questions on Optical Fiber Systems 1 : Intensity Modulation

1
4
The section contains questions and answers on optical transmitter and receiver circuit, system design and planing
considerations, analog systems, multiplexing strategies, dispersion management and optical amplifier
applications.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Optical
Transmitter Circuit”.

1. _____________ must be operated in stimulated emission region.


a) Injection laser
b) LED’s
c) Detector
d) Receiver
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Injection laser is a threshold device. In stimulated emission region, continuous optical output power

pp
levels are in the range of 1 to 10mW.

2. Coherent radiation is relatively __________


a) Parabolic
b) Elliptic
A
c) Directional
at
d) Rectangular
View Answer
H

Answer: c
le

Explanation: Most of the light output is coupled into optical fibre. This is because of the isotropic distribution of
narrow-line width, coherent radiation is directional.
rp

3. _____________ are capable of launching powers between 0.5 and several mW.
a) LED’s
Pu

b) Injection laser
c) Attenuator
d) Reflector
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Coupling efficiency up to 30% may be obtained by placing a fiber close to laser mirror. These can
approach 90% with suitable lens and optical coupling arrangements. So they can launch 0.5 to several mW of
optical power into fiber.

4. LED’s display good linearity.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: LED’s appear to be suited to analog transmission. This is because of its output which is directly
proportional to the drive current.

1
5
5. Which behaviour may prove as a limitation for injection lasers and LED’s?
a) Isotropic
b) Radioactive
c) Thermal
d) Photosensitive
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The thermal behaviour of the injection lasers and the LED’s limits their operation within the optical
transmitter. The main problem is caused by the variation of injection laser threshold current.

6. Optical output power from an LED is directly proportional to the device junction temperature.
a) False
b) True
View Answer

pp
Answer: b
Explanation: Output power is dependent on the junction temperature in case of LED’s. Most LED’s exhibit a
decrease in the optical output power following an increase in junction temperature.
A
7. _____________ from the LED is dependent on the effective minority carrier lifetime in the semiconductor
material.
at
a) Spontaneous emission
b) Stimulated emission
H

c) Absorption
d) Diffusion
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of the response of the LED is dictated by the respective emission mechanism.
Pu

Spontaneous emission is related to the carrier lifetime and hence dictating the speed of response.

8. The _________ of the LED is twice that of the effective minority carrier lifetime.
a) Dwell time
b) Reflection scatters
c) Sensitivity
d) Rise time
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The response of the optical fiber source is specified in terms of the rise time. This rise time is
reciprocally related to the device frequency response.

9. The finite spectral width of the optical source causes ___________


a) Depletion
b) Frequency burst
c) Pulse broadening
d) Efficient reflection
View Answer

1
6
Answer: c
Explanation: The finite spectral width causes pulse broadening due to material dispersion on an optical fiber
communication link. This results in a limitation on the bandwidth-length product.

10. The coherent emission from an injection laser has a line width of ________
a) 2 nm
b) 3nm
c) 8 nm
d) 1nm
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: An optical source such as an injection laser is a narrow line width device as compared to the LED. It
has a narrow line width of 1 nm or less.

11. Extinction ratio is denoted by symbol __________

pp
a) ε
b) σ
c) β
d) ρ
View Answer
A
at
Answer: a
Explanation: Extinction ratio is defined as the ratio of the optical energy emitted in the 0 bit period to that emitted
H

during the 1 bit period. It is denoted by ε.


le

12. The use of low impedance driving circuit may increase _____________
a) Noise
rp

b) Width
c) Intensity
Pu

d) Switching speed
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Pulse shaping is usually required to increase the switching speed. However, increased switching
speed may be obtained from an LED without a speed-up element by use of a low-impedance driving circuit.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Optical
Receiver Circuit”.

1. ____________ limits receiver sensitivity.


a) Noise
b) Depletion layer
c) Avalanche
d) Current
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Receiver noise affects receiver sensitivity. It can dictate the overall system design. The noise can be
temperature, environmental factor or due to components.
1
7
2. A ____________ performs the linear conversion of the received optical signal into an electric current.
a) Receiver
b) Converter
c) Detector
d) Reflector
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An optical signal is always fed to a detector. A detector is an optoelectronic converter which
linearly converts the received optical signal into an electric current.

3. __________ are provided to reduce distortion and to provide a suitable signal shape for the filter.
a) Detector
b) Equalizer
c) Filters
d) Amplifier

pp
View Answer

Answer: b
A
Explanation: Optical detectors are linear devices. They do not introduce distortion themselves but other
components may exhibit nonlinear behaviour. To compensate for distortion, an equalizer is provided in the
receiver circuit.
at
4. A _________ maximizes the received signal-to-noise ratio in the receiver circuitry.
H

a) Filter
b) Equalizer
le

c) Detector
d) Reflector
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: a
Explanation: A filter reduces the noise bandwidth as well as inbounds noise levels. A filter maximizes the
received signal-to-noise ratio while preserving the essential features of the signal. It also reduces ISI.

5. ________ can be operated in three connections.


a) Reflectors
b) Diodes
c) LED’s
d) FET’s
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: FET’s or bipolar transistors are operated in three useful connections. These are the common emitter,
the common base or gate, and the emitter or source follower.

6. How many structures of pre-amplifiers exist?


a) Two
b) Three
c) Four

1
8
d) One
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The basic structures of pre-amplifiers are observed in three forms. These are low-impedance, high-
impedance and trans-impedance front end preamplifier structures.

7. What is the main factor contributing to the choice of the operational amplifier?
a) Gain
b) Impedance
c) Conductance
d) Gain-Bandwidth product
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A TTL interface stage is always used with the operational amplifier. A device that requires higher

pp
accuracy often tends to depend on gain-bandwidth product.
The choice of amplifier for receiver accuracy is dependant on gain-bandwidth product.

A
8. The multiplication factor for the APD varies with the device temperature.
a) True
b) False
at
View Answer
H

Answer: a
Explanation: Optimum multiplication factor is required for smooth voltage variance. The multiplication factor for
le

APD varies with the device temperature thus making provision of fine control for bias voltage.
rp

9. How many categories of dynamic gain equalizers are available?


a) One
Pu

b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic gain equalizers are categorized into two types. These are single-channel and multichannel
equalizers, thus providing operation using single or multiple wavelengths.

10. How many simultaneous channels can be provided in a band DGE(Dynamic gain equalizer)?
a) Six
b) Two
c) Eight
d) Ten
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, eight channels are provided simultaneously in a band DGE. These are for the attenuation
purpose of channels along with gain equalization.

1
9
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “System Design
Considerations”.

1. __________ is the unique property of the glass fiber.


a) Transmission
b) Opaque property
c) Ductile
d) Malleable
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Glass fibres have a unique property as a transmission medium which enables their use in the
communication. The major transmission characteristics are dispersion and attenuation.

2. __________ limits the maximum distance between the optical fiber transmitter and receiver.
a) Attenuation

pp
b) Transmission
c) Equipment
d) Fiber length
View Answer A
Answer: a
at
Explanation: Attenuation along with dispersion and the conductor size are some of the factors that limit the
maximum distance between the optical transmitter and the receiver. The associated constraints within the
H

equipment also affect the distance.


le

3. The ___________ incorporates a line receiver in order to convert the optical signal into the electrical regime.
a) Attenuator
rp

b) Transmitter
c) Repeater
Pu

d) Designator
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Repeaters are a mediator between transmitter and receiver. The weak signal is strengthened back by
the repeaters on its path to the receiver.

4. A regenerative repeater is called as ____________


a) Repetitive repeater
b) Regenerator
c) Attenuator
d) Gyrator
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When digital transmission techniques are used, the repeater also regenerates the original digital
signal in the electrical signal before it is retransmitted as an optical signal via a line transmitter.

5. The wavelength range of __________ will be fruitful for the operating wavelength of the system referring to
the system performance.
2
0
a) 0.8 – 0.9 μm
b) 1.1 – 2 μm
c) 5.2 – 5.7 μm
d) 3.1 – 3.2 μm
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is useful if the operating wavelength of the system is established to range of 0.8-0.9 μm. This will
be dictated by the overall requirements for the system performance, cost, etc.

6. How many encoding schemes are used in optical fiber communication system design requirements?
a) Three
b) One
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer

pp
Answer: c
Explanation: Encoding schemes are used for digital transmission of data. These are bi-phase and delay
A
modulation codes. They are also called as Manchester and Miller codes respectively.

7. In ________ the optical channel bandwidth is divided into non-overlapping frequency bands.
at
a) Time division multiplexing
b) Frequency division multiplexing
H

c) Code division multiplexing


d) De-multiplexing
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: b
Explanation: In FDM, the non-overlapping frequency bands are divided to the individual frequencies. These
Pu

individual signals can be extracted from the combined FDM signal by electrical filtering at the receiver terminal.

8. A multiplexing technique which does not involve the application of several message signals onto a single fiber
is called as _________
a) Time division multiplexing
b) Frequency division multiplexing
c) Code division multiplexing
d) Space division multiplexing
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In SDM, each signal channel is carried on a separate fiber within a fiber bundle or multi-fiber cable
form. The cross coupling between channels is negligible.

9. Which of the following is not an optical fiber component?


a) Fiber
b) Connector
c) Circulator
d) Detector
View Answer
2
1
Answer: c
Explanation: Circulator is a device used in electromagnetic theory. All others are optical components.

10. ________technique involves an increase in the number of components required.


a) Time division multiplexing
b) Space division multiplexing
c) Code division multiplexing
d) Frequency division multiplexing
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: SDM involves good optical isolation due to the negligible cross coupling between channels. It uses
separate fiber and thus requires more number of components.

11. Time division multiplexing is inverse to that of frequency division multiplexing.


a) True

pp
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a A
Explanation: TDM involves distribution of channels in time slots whereas FDM involves bands that are run on
different frequencies. Both of these techniques improve accuracy and reduce complexity.
at
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Digital System
H

Planning Considerations”.
le

1. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8 bits. Determine
number of bits in a frame.
rp

a) 64
b) 128
Pu

c) 32
d) 256
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Number of bits in a frame can be calculated as follows:
Bits in a frame = No. of channels * Sampling rate for each channel.

2. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8 bits. Determine the
transmission rate for system with 256 bits in a frame.
a) 2.96 Mbits/s
b) 2.048 Mbits/s
c) 3.92 Mbits/s
d) 4 Mbits/s
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission rate can be determined by-
Transmission rate = Sampling rate * No. of bits in a frame.

2
2
3. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8 bits. Determine the
bit duration with transmission rate of 2.048 M bits/s.
a) 388 ns
b) 490 ns
c) 488 ns
d) 540 ns
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Bit duration is the reciprocal of the transmission rate. Thus, it is given by-
Bit duration = 1/transmission rate.

4. The bit duration is 488 ns. Sampling rate for each channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz encoded into 8 bits.
Determine the time slot duration.
a) 3.2 μs
b) 3.1 μs

pp
c) 7 μs
d) 3.9 μs
View Answer

Answer: d
A
Explanation: Time slot duration is given by –
at
Time slot duration = Encoded bits * bit duration.
H

5. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8 bits. Determine
duration of frame with time slot duration of 3.9μs.
le

a) 125 μs
b) 130 μs
rp

c) 132 μs
d) 133 μs
Pu

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Duration of a frame is determined by –
Duration of a frame = 32 * time slot duration.

6. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8 bits. Determine the
duration of multi-frame if duration of a frame is 125μs.
a) 2ms
b) 3ms
c) 4ms
d) 10ms
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Multi-frame duration can be determined by –
Multi-frame duration = 16 * Duration of a single frame.

7. Determine excess avalanche noise factor F(M) if APD has multiplication factor of 100, carrier ionization rate
of 0.02.
2
3
a) 3.99
b) 3.95
c) 4.3
d) 4
View Answer

8. Compute average number of photons incident at receiver in APD if quantum efficiency is 80%, F (M) = 4,
SNR = 144.
a) 866
b) 865
c) 864
d) 867
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Average number of photons arezm=[2βςF(M)]*[S/N*η]

pp
Here, η = quantum efficiency, S/N = signal to noise ratio.

9. Determine incident optical power if z m=864, wavelength = 1μm.


a) -85 dBm
b) -80 dBm
A
c) -69.7 dBm
at
d) -60.7 dBm
View Answer
H

Answer: d
le

Explanation: Incident optical power is P0=zmhcBT/2λ. Here zm=average number of photons, hc=Planck’s constant.
rp

10. Determine wavelength of incident optical power if zm=864, incident optical power is -60.7 dB, BT=1 * 107.
a) 1 μs
b) 2 μs
Pu

c) 3 μs
d) 4 μs
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Wavelength is determined by λ=z mhcBT/2P0. Here zm=average number of photons, hc=Planck’s
constant, P0=incident optical power.

11. Determine total channel loss if connector loss at source and detector is 3.5 and 2.5 dB and attenuation of 5
dB/km.
a) 34 dB
b) 35 dB
c) 36 dB
d) 38 dB
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The total channel loss is CL=(αfc+αj)L + αcr. Here αcr=loss at detector and source combined, αfc =
attenuation in dB/km.
2
4
12. Determine length of the fiber if attenuation is 5dB/km, splice loss is 2 dB/km, connector loss at source and
detector is 3.5 and 2.5.
a) 5 km
b) 4 km
c) 3 km
d) 8 km
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Length of the fiber is L = CL/(αfc+αj) – αcr. Here αcr = loss at detector and source combined, αfc =
attenuation in dB/km.

13. Determine total RMS pulse broadening over 8 km if RMS pulse broadening is 0.6ns/km.
a) 3.6 ns
b) 4 ns
c) 4.8 ns

pp
d) 3 ns
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Total RMS pulse broadening is given by –
A
σT = σ*L Where σ = rms pulse broadening and L = length of the fiber.
at
14. Determine RMS pulse broadening over 8 km if total RMS pulse broadening is 5.8ns/km.
H

a) 0.2ns/km
b) 0.1ns/km
le

c) 0.4ns/km
d) 0.72ns/km
rp

View Answer
Pu

Answer: d
Explanation: RMS pulse broadening is given by –
σ = σT/L where σ = rms pulse broadening and L = length of the fiber.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Analog
Systems”.

1. Determine dispersion equalization penalty if total RMS pulse broadening is 4.8ns, B T is 25 Mbits/s.
a) 0.03 dB
b) 0.08 dB
c) 7 dB
d) 0.01 dB
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Dispersion equalization penalty is denoted by DL. It is given by-
DL = 2 (2σTBT√2)4. Here σT=RMS pulse broadening.

2. Determine RMS pulse broadening with mode coupling if pulse broadening is 0.6 over 8km.
a) 1.6ns
2
5
b) 1.7ns
c) 1.5ns
d) 1.4ns
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Total RMS pulse broadening with mode coupling is given by-
σT = σ√L. Here σT = RMS pulse broadening, L = length of the fiber.

3. Determine dispersion equalization penalty with mode coupling of 1.7ns if B T is 25 Mbits/s.


a) 4.8 * 104dB
b) 4 * 104dB
c) 4.2 * 104dB
d) 3.8 * 104dB
View Answer

pp
Answer: c
Explanation: Dispersion equalization penalty is denoted by D L. With mode coupling, it is given by-
DL=2 (2σTBT√2)4. Here σT=RMS pulse broadening.
A
4. Determine dispersion equalization penalty without mode coupling if BT is 150 Mbits/s and total rms pulse
broadening is 4.8ns.
at
a) 34 dB
b) 33 dB
H

c) 76.12 dB
d) 34.38 dB
le

View Answer
rp

Answer: d
Explanation: Dispersion equalization penalty is denoted by D L(WM). It is given by-
DL(WM) = 2 (2σTBT√2)4. Here σT = RMS pulse broadening, (WM) = without mode coupling.
Pu

5. Determine ratio of SNR of coaxial system to SNR of fiber system if peak output voltage is 5V, quantum
efficiency of 70%, optical power is 1mW, wavelength of 0.85μm.
a) 1.04 * 104
b) 2.04 * 104
c) 3.04 * 104
d) 4.04 * 104
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ratio of SNR of coaxial system to SNR of fiber system is given by-
Ratio = V2hc/2KTZ0ηPiλ. Here, η=quantum efficiency, Pi = 0ptical power in mW, V=optical output voltage.

6. Determine the peak output voltage if efficiency is 70%, wavelength is 0.85μm and output power is 1mW.
a) 7V
b) 8V
c) 5V
d) 6V
View Answer
2
6
Answer: b
Explanation: Peak output voltage is given by-
V2 = (2KTZ0ηPiλ * Ratio)/hc. Here, η = quantum efficiency, P i=0ptical power in mW, V=optical output voltage.

7. Determine the efficiency of a coaxial cable system at 17 degree Celsius with peak output voltage 5V, 0.85 μm
wavelength and SNR ratio of 1.04 * 104.
a) 80%
b) 70%
c) 40%
d) 60%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of a coaxial cable system is η=V2hc/2KTZ0ηPiλ * Ratio. Hereη=quantum efficiency,
Pi = 0ptical power in mW, V=optical output voltage.

pp
8. Determine the wavelength of a coaxial cable system operating at temperature 17 degree Celsius at output
voltage of 5V, 100Ω impedance, optical power of 1mW, 70% quantum efficiency.
a) 0.39μm
b) 0.60μm
c) 0.85μm
A
d) 0.98μm
at
View Answer
H

Answer: c
Explanation: The wavelength can be determined by –
le

λ = V2hc/2KTZ0ηPi * Ratio. Hereη=quantum efficiency, Pi = 0ptical power in mW, V = optical output voltage.
rp

9. Determine the impedance of a coaxial cable system operating at temperature 17 degree Celsius at output
voltage of 5V, 0.85μmwavelength, optical power of 1mW, 70% quantum efficiency and SNR ratio of 1.04 * 10 4.
a) 80Ω
Pu

b) 50Ω
c) 90Ω
d) 100Ω
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The impedance is given by-Z0=V2hc/2KTPi * Ratio. Hereη=quantum efficiency, Pi = Optical power
in mW, V=optical output voltage.

10. The 10-90% rise times for components used in D-IM analog optical link is given. (LED=10ns,
Intermodal=9ns/km, Chromatic=2ns/km, APD = 3ns). Link is of 5km. Determine the total rise time.
a) 62ns
b) 53ns
c) 50ns
d) 52ns
View Answer

2
7
Answer: d
Explanation: Total rise time is given by-
Tsyst=1.1[Ts2+Tn2+Tc2+TD2]1/2. Here Ts = rise time, Tn = intermodal time, Tc = Chromatic time.

11. The 10-90% rise times for components used in D-IM analog optical link is given. (LED=10ns,
Intermodal=9ns/km, Chromatic=2ns/km, APD = 3ns). Link is of 5km. It has an optical bandwidth of 6MHz.
Determine maximum permitted system rise time.
a) 58.3ns
b) 54ns
c) 75ns
d) 43.54ns
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum permitted system rise time is given by-
Tsyst(Max) = 0.35/Bopt. Here, Bopt=Optical Bandwidth.

pp
This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Multiplexing
Strategies”.

1. What is the full form of ETDM?


A
at
a) Electronic tube di-cyclic mechanism
b) Electrical time division multiplexing
H

c) Emphasis tier division mechanism


d) Electrical tube dielectric medium
View Answer
le

Answer: b
rp

Explanation: ETDM is the major baseband digital strategy. It allows for greater exploitation of available fiber
bandwidth.
Pu

2. The practical limitations of the speed of electronic circuits have been pushed towards operational frequencies
around ___________
a) 100 MHz
b) 120 MHz
c) 100GHz
d) 80 Hz
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The speed of the circuitry in the fiber optic communication plays an important role in its
performance. It is pushed around 100 GHz frequency allowing for 100 Gbit/s feasibility.

3. A strategy used for increasing the bitrate of digital optical fiber systems beyond the bandwidth capabilities of
the drive electronics is known as ___________
a) Optical time division multiplexing
b) Electrical time division multiplexing
c) Frequency division multiplexing
d) Code division multiplexing
View Answer
2
8
Answer: a
Explanation: OTDM is favourable for long distance transmission of signal. It is designed to push the bitrate of the
fiber systems beyond the bandwidth limits to gain performance.

4. ____________ semiconductor laser sources provide low duty cycle pulse streams for subsequent time
multiplexing.
a) Diameter preferred
b) Mode locked
c) Divine
d) Depletion
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Mode locked semiconductor laser sources were used at the transmitter side. They provide effective
distribution of time multiplexing providing low duty cycle pulse streams.

pp
5. ______________ are the devices which are employed to eliminate the laser chirp.
a) Optical intensity modulators
b) Demodulators
c) Circulators
d) Optical Isolators
A
View Answer
at
Answer: a
H

Explanation: Optical intensity modulators eliminate the laser chirp. This laser chirp may result in dispersion of
the transmitted pulses as they propagate within the single mode fiber, thus limiting the achievable transmission
le

distance.
rp

6. _____________ provides operation at high transmission rate.


a) Optical intensity modulators
Pu

b) Demodulators
c) Circulators
d) Electro-absorption modulators
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Electro-absorption modulators are employed at the transmitter and receiver sections. They provide
operation at high transmission rate and for field trial.

7. In __________ the microwave frequency are modulated with an optical carrier and transmitted using a single
wavelength channel.
a) Subcarrier multiplexing
b) TDM
c) FDM
d) Code division multiplexing
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Optical Subcarrier multiplexing (SCM) is transmitted using a single wavelength channel. It enables
multiple broadband signals to be transmitted over single-mode fiber.
2
9
8. Which of the following techniques is easy to implement?
a) Amplitude shift keying
b) Phase shift keying
c) Frequency shift keying
d) SCM
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Frequency shift keying has an advantage of being simple to implement at the modulator as well as
demodulator side. It is formed by up converting to a narrowband channel at high frequency employing frequency.

9. Which of the following is the disadvantage of SCM?


a) Source nonlinearity
b) Linearity
c) Distortion
d) Narrow bandwidth

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View Answer

Answer: a
A
Explanation: The problem associated with SCM is source nonlinearity. The distortion caused by this becomes
noticeable when several subcarriers are transmitted from a single optical source.
at
10. In CATV, the signal must be received with a carrier to noise ratio of between __________
a) 90 and 100 dB
H

b) 10 and 30 dB
c) 60 and 70 dB
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d) 45 and 55 dB
View Answer
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Answer: d
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Explanation: The CATV multichannel spectrum tends to minimize the required bandwidth. The carrier to noise
ratio must be between to avoid degradation of picture quality.

11. The IF signal can be input to a demodulator to recover the baseband signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The IF signal is obtained through SCM at the receive terminals. The baseband video signal in a
CATV is obtained through IF signal by using it with a demodulator input.

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Application of
Optical Amplifiers “.

1. Which of the following is not a drawback of regenerative repeater?


a) Cost
b) Bandwidth
c) Complexity

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d) Long haul applications
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The regenerative repeaters are useful in long haul applications. However, such devices increase the
cost and complexity of the optical communication system. It act as a bottleneck by restricting the system
operational bandwidth.

2. The term flexibility, in terms of optical amplifiers means the ability of the transmitted signal to remain in the
optical domain in a long haul link.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Repeaters are usually used to maintain the transmitted signal in the optical domain. But, it has its

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own drawbacks. Thus, flexible systems which include optical amplifiers are used for such purpose.

3. How many configurations are available for employment of optical amplifiers?


a) Three
b) Four
A
c) Two
at
d) Five
View Answer
H

Answer: a
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Explanation: Optical amplifiers can be employed in three configurations. These are simplex mode, duplex mode,
multi-amplifier configuration.
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4. Repeaters are bidirectional.


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a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Repeaters are unidirectional. Optical amplifiers have the ability to operate simultaneously in both
directions at the same carrier wavelength.

5. It is necessary to ____________ the optical carriers at different speeds to avoid signal interference.
a) Inculcate
b) Reduce
c) Intensity-modulate
d) Demodulate
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Optical amplifiers are bidirectional. They operate in both directions at the same carrier wavelength.
In order to avoid interference, the optical carriers should be intensity modulated.

3
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6. The _________________ increases the system reliability in the event of an individual amplifier failure.
a) Simplex configuration
b) Duplex configuration
c) Serial configuration
d) Parallel multi-amplifier configuration
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The optical amplifiers with spectral bandwidths in the range 50 to 100 nm allow amplifiers to be
more reliable than repeaters. The parallel multi-amplifier configuration increases system reliability and relaxes
the linearity.

7. Which of the following is not an application of optical amplifier?


a) Power amplifier
b) In-line repeater amplifier
c) Demodulator

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d) Preamplifier
View Answer

Answer: c A
Explanation: Optical amplifiers have a wide variety of applications in the transmitter as well as receiver side. It is
used as the power amplifier in the transmitter side and as preamplifier at the receiver side.
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8. _________ reconstitutes a transmitted digital optical signal.
H

a) Repeaters
b) Optical amplifiers
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c) Modulators
d) Circulators
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View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: Optical amplifiers simply act as gain blocks on an optical fiber link. However, in contrast, the
regenerative repeaters reconstitute a transmitted digital optical signal.

9. _____________ are transparent to any type of signal modulation.


a) Repeaters
b) Optical amplifiers
c) Modulators
d) Circulators
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The main benefit of acting as a gain block for optical amplifier is that it can be transparent to
modulation bandwidth. However, both the noise and signal distortions are continuously amplified.

10. _________________ imposes serious limitations on the system performance.


a) Fiber attenuation
b) Fiber modulation
c) Fiber demodulation

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d) Fiber dispersion
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The fiber dispersion calculation does not take into account the non-regenerative nature of the
amplifier repeaters. In this, the pulse spreading and the noise is accumulated.

11. __________ is the ratio of input signal to noise ratio to the output signal to noise ratio of the device.
a) Fiber dispersion
b) Noise figure
c) Transmission rate
d) Population inversion
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Noise figure judges the performance factor of the devices. It is the in and out the ratio of signal to

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noise degradation for any device.

12. How many factors govern the noise figure of the device?
a) Four
b) Three
A
c) Two
at
d) One
View Answer
H

Answer: a
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Explanation: Noise figure is governed by factors such as the population inversion, the number of transverse
modes in the amplifier cavity, the number of incident photons on the amplifier and the optical bandwidth of the
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amplified spontaneous emissions.


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13. What is the typical range of the noise figure?


a) 1 – 2 dB
b) 3 – 5 dB
c) 7 – 11 dB
d) 12 – 14 dB
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Typical noise figures range from 7 to 11 dB. The SOAs are generally at the bottom end of the range
and the fiber amplifiers towards the top end.

This set of Optical Communications Problems focuses on “Dispersion Management and Soliton Systems”.

1. Calculate second order dispersion coefficient for path length L2 20km and L1 160km. Dispersion coefficient
for L2 is 17.
a) -2.125ps/nm km
b) -3.25ps/nm km
c) -3.69ps/nm km
d) -1.28ps/nm km
View Answer
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3
Answer: a
Explanation: The second order dispersion coefficient for path length is given by-
β21 = -β22L2/L1. Here, β22 = Dispersion coefficient forL2, L2 and L1 are path lengths.

2. Calculate the path length L2 if L1 is 160, dispersion coefficient of L2 is 17, dispersion coefficient of L1 is -2.25
ps/nmkm.
a) 40 km
b) 20 km
c) 30 km
d) 10 km
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The path length L2 is given by-
L2 = β21L1/-β22. Here, β22 = Dispersion coefficient forL2, β21 = Dispersion coefficient for L1, L2 and L1 are path
lengths.

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3. Calculate path length L1 if L2 is 20, dispersion coefficient of L2 is 17, dispersion coefficient of L1 is -2.25
ps/nmkm.
a) 180 km
b) 30 km
A
c) 160 km
at
d) 44 km
View Answer
H

Answer: c
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Explanation: The path length L1is given by-


L1 = β21L2/-β22. Here, β22 = Dispersion coefficient forL2, β21 = Dispersion coefficient for L1, L2 and L1 are path
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lengths.
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4. Calculate second order dispersion coefficient for path length L1 20 km and L1 160 km. Dispersion coefficient
for L1 is -2.125*10-12s/nmkm.
a) 20
b) 19
c) 18
d) 17
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The second order dispersion coefficient for path length is given by-
β22=-β21L2/L1. Here, β21 = Dispersion coefficient forL1, L2 and L1 are path lengths.

5. Calculate dispersion slope for second path fiber if L1 is 150, L2 is 10 and s1 is 0.075.
a) 1.125
b) 2.125
c) 3.125
d) 1.9
View Answer

3
4
Answer: a
Explanation: Dispersion slope for second path fiber is s2 = -s1(L1/L2). Here s1 and s2 are dispersion slopes for L1,
L2. L2 and L1 are path lengths.

6. Calculate dispersion slope for first path fiber if L1 is 160, L2 is 20 and s2 is 0.6ps/nm km.
a) 0.1
b) 0.432
c) 0.236
d) 0.075
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Dispersion slope for first path fiber is s1 = -s2(L1/L2). Here s1 and s2 are dispersion slopes for L1, L2.
L2 And L1 are path lengths.

7. Calculate L2 if dispersion slope for first path fiber is 0.075 and L1 is 160 km and s2 is -0.6ps/nm km.

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a) 20 km
b) 30 km
c) 40 km
d) 50 km
View Answer
A
at
Answer: a
Explanation: L2 is determined by –
H

L2 = (-s1/s2)*L1. Here s1 and s2 are dispersion slopes for L1, L2. L2 and L1 are path lengths.
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8. Calculate L1 if dispersion slope for first path fiber is 0.075 and L2 is 20 km and s2 is -0.6ps/nm km.
a) 170 km
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b) 160 km
c) 180 km
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d) 175 km
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: L1 is determined by –
L2 = (-s1/s2)* L2. Here s1 and s2 are dispersion slopes for L1, L2. L2 and L1 are path lengths.

9. Calculate separation of soliton pulses over a bit period length if R2 pulse width is 6 ps for bit period of 70 ps.
a) 5.9
b) 5.7
c) 5.8
d) 5.4
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The separation of soliton pulses over a bit period length is calculated by –
q0 = T0/2ς. Here ς = pulse width and T0 = bit period.

10. Calculate RZ pulse width if bit period is 60ps and separation of soliton pulses is 5.4.
a) 5.5ps
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5
b) 8.1ps
c) 4.3ps
d) 2.3ps
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: RZ pulse width can be calculated by –
ς = T0/q0. Here ς = pulse width and T0 = bit period.

11. Calculate bit period if RZ pulse width is 50ps and separation of soliton pulses is 5.6.
a) 570ps
b) 540ps
c) 430ps
d) 560ps
View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: Bit period can be calculated by –
T0 = 2T2q0. Here T2=pulse width and T0=bit period.
A
12. Calculate value of dimensionless parameter if bit period is 45ps and RZ pulse width is 4 ps.
a) 5.625
at
b) 5.0
c) 4
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d) 6.543
View Answer
le

Answer: a
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Explanation: Dimensionless parameter is given by –


q0 = T0/2ς. Here ς=pulse width and T0=bit period.
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11. Questions & Answers on Optical Fiber Systems 2 : Coherent and Phase
Modulated
The section contains questions on coherent transmission, modulation formats,
demodulation schemes, receiver sensitivities and multi carrier systems.
This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Practical
Constraints of Coherent Transmission”.

1. Which technology development has helped the field of optical fiber communication?
a) Glass technology
b) Component technology
c) Multiplexing
d) Power
View Answer

3
6
Answer: b
Explanation: Substantial developments in component technology have allowed the initial difficulties in the
optical fiber communication to go away. The coherent factor experienced most of the difficulties.

2. __________ dictates the performance characteristics required from components and devices which are to be
utilized in coherent optical fiber systems.
a) System considerations
b) Bluetooth technology
c) Multiplexing
d) Practical constraints
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Practical constraints inhibit the development of coherent optical fiber communications. These
constraints are derived from factors associated with the elements of the coherent optical fiber communication.

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3. Coherent optical transmission is degraded by the ________ associated with the transmitter and local oscillator
lasers.
a) Phase noise
b) White noise
c) Dissipation
A
d) Power
at
View Answer
H

Answer: a
Explanation: Phase noise is determined by the laser line width. The phase noise associated with both the
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transmitter and the mid-tier section severely degrades the coherent optical transmission as well as reception.
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4. ___________ improves the spectral purity of the device output and noise current.
a) Power dissipation
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b) Laser line width reduction


c) Laser line width injection
d) Phase noise
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Laser line width determines the level of phase noise and long term phase stability. The reduced
phase noise is obtained using narrow-line width devices. This improves the spectral purity as well as reduces the
noise current.

5. ____________ is the principal cause of line width broadening in the coherent devices.
a) Electromagnetic field
b) Power dissipation
c) Injection laser phase noise
d) Gaussian noise
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Injection laser phase noise affects the system performance. The system performance considerations
include receiver noise, power loss and line width broadening.
3
7
6. Which technique was started for narrowing of injection laser line widths?
a) External resonator cavity
b) Long-hauled oscillator
c) Circulator
d) Gyrator
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Many approaches evolved in time for laser line width problem. The one which sustained and
showed effects was the use of external resonator cavity in the lasers.

7. The line width tolerance is wider for heterodyne receivers.


a) False
b) True
View Answer

pp
Answer: b
Explanation: The laser line width requirements depend on the modulation format, coherent detection mechanism
which includes the use of heterodyne and homodyne receivers. The line width tolerance is wider for heterodyne
receivers when employing FSK modulation. A
8. ___________ is an alternative to reduce phase noise and line width requirements.
at
a) Homodyne detection
b) Heterodyne detection
H

c) FSK modulation
d) Phase diversity reception
le

View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: The more sensitive coherent transmission techniques are most affected by phase noise problem. A
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specially configured reception technique called as phase diversity reception technique is used to overcome phase
noise problem.

9. ______________ is the progressive spatial separation between the two polarization modes as they propagate
along the fiber.
a) Fiber birefringence
b) Fiber dispersion
c) Fiber separation
d) Fiber coupling
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In a perfectly formed fiber, both modes would travel together. But, in practice, the fiber contains
random manufacturing irregularities. This result in a progressive spatial separation called as fiber birefringence.

10. How many compensator devices are required to provide full polarization-state control?
a) Three
b) One
c) Four

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8
d) Two
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: At least two compensator devices are required to provide full polarization-state control. They can be
placed in either the incoming signal path or the local oscillator output path.

11. Which technique was found to be providing an infinite range of polarization control?
a) Homodyne detection
b) Fiber squeezers
c) Heterodyne detection
d) Power dissipation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Four fiber squeezers provide an infinite range of adjustment or endless polarization control. Stress

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was applied to the fiber in the local oscillator path using the squeezers which are angled at 45 degrees to each
other.

12. What is the main drawback of the squeezer?


a) Damages the fiber
A
b) Attenuation
at
c) Dispersion
d) Signal degradation
H

View Answer
le

Answer: a
Explanation: The squeezers are simple to configure. The main drawback of squeezer is that they tend to damage
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the fiber and could not be engineered into reliable transducers for practical systems.
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13. The use of balanced receiver compensates the losses due to coupling optics.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The losses due to coupling optics and the suppression of the excess noise in the local oscillator
signal are eliminated by the use of balanced receiver. It is also called as balanced-mixer receiver.

14. ___________ is the phenomenon which occurs in the single carrier systems due to small refractive index
changes induced by the optical power fluctuations.
a) SBS gain
b) Self-phase modulation
c) FSK modulation
d) Birefringence
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: It occurs only in the single-carrier systems. It affects the phase of the transmitted signal.

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Short Answers Questions


____________________________________________

BE (2015)Pattern

404190 Broadband Communication Systems )

Topic : Optical Fibre Communication

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INTRODUCTION ................................................................................................................................................................. 7
1. What is a fiber optic?................................................................................................................................................ 9
2. How many kinds of fibers are there? ............................................................................................................... 9
3. What are fiber optics made off? .......................................................................................................................... 9
4. Are there different qualities of fiber optics?................................................................................................. 9
5. What is a light guide? .............................................................................................................................................10
6. What are bare fibers? .............................................................................................................................................10

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7. What are sheathed fibers? ...................................................................................................................................10
8. Is the sheath color important?...........................................................................................................................10
A
9. What is a harness? ...................................................................................................................................................10
10. Do fibers have losses? ............................................................................................................................................10
11. Why do some fibers change the color of the light?..................................................................................10
at
12. Is low attenuation a sign of good quality fiber? ........................................................................................11
13. What are the advantages of glass fiber optics? .........................................................................................11
H

14. And the disadvantages? ........................................................................................................................................11


15. What are the advantages of polymer fiber optics? ..................................................................................12
le

16. And the disadvantages? ........................................................................................................................................12


17. Can I light a house with fiber optics? .............................................................................................................13
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18. Are fiber optics efficient as a means to transport light? .......................................................................12


19. What can justify the use of fiber optics? .......................................................................................................13
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20. Are fibers safe? ..........................................................................................................................................................13


21. Who makes fiber optics? ......................................................................................................................................13
22. How are fiber optics made? ................................................................................................................................13
23. Are optical fibers fragile? .....................................................................................................................................14
24. Can fibers be bent at right angles? ..................................................................................................................14
25. Can lighting fiber optics be spliced or joined?...........................................................................................14
26. Will light go any length along a fiber? ...........................................................................................................14
27. How many sizes are there of lighting fiber optics? .................................................................................14
28. Can you put any amount of light into a fiber optic? ................................................................................15
29. Do fiber optics transmit radiation ...................................................................................................................15
30. Glass or polymer? ....................................................................................................................................................15
31. Can fibers be made any size? .............................................................................................................................15
32. How long will fiber optics last? .........................................................................................................................16
33. Can several fibers give the same amount of light? ..................................................................................16
34. What are side-emitting fibers? ..........................................................................................................................16
35. Are there different types of side emitting fibers? ....................................................................................16
36. What are solid core fibers? .................................................................................................................................16
37. What are multistranded optics? .......................................................................................................................17
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38. What are coiled or roped optics? .....................................................................................................................17
39. Solid core or multicore?........................................................................................................................................17
40. Can side emitting optics be as bright or brighter than neon? ............................................................17
41. With all the limitations, what are the uses of side emitting optics? ................................................18
42. What are the design constraints to side emitting optics? ....................................................................18
43. Could the light along a side emitting optic be absolutely homogeneous?.....................................18
44. Will we always see a difference in brightness along an optic? ..........................................................18
45. Can light be made to move or chase along a side emitting optic? ....................................................19
46. Are the side-emitting fibers with reflecting core more luminous? ..................................................19
47. Is there any way to improve side-emitting viewing? .............................................................................19
I L L U M I N A T O R S
48. What is an illuminator? ......................................................................................................................................... 21
49. What makes a good illuminator? ....................................................................................................................... 21
50. Is bigger better? ....................................................................................................................................................... 21
51. How many types of illuminators are there? .................................................................................................. 22
52. Halogen or gas discharge? ................................................................................................................................... 22

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53. Must all illuminators have forced ventilation? .............................................................................................. 22
54. How noisy is an illuminator? .............................................................................................................................. 22
55. Are certifications important? ............................................................................................................................... 23
56. Are machines with the CE mark certified? ..................................................................................................... 23
A
57. How then do I recognize a product's quality? .............................................................................................. 23
58. What about ISO 9000? ........................................................................................................................................... 24
59. How does a color change works?....................................................................................................................... 24
at
60. What is a dychroic filter? ...................................................................................................................................... 24
61. Are heat fuses necessary? .................................................................................................................................... 24
62. Can multiple illuminators change colors simultaneously? ....................................................................... 25
H

63. Can illuminators be computer controlled? ..................................................................................................... 25


64. What is DMX? ............................................................................................................................................................ 25
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E N D S , F I T T I N G S A N D T E R M I N A L S
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65. What are end terminations? ................................................................................................................................. 27


66. What aresingle ends? ............................................................................................................................................ 27
67. Are there many types of single ends? .............................................................................................................. 27
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68. Is the fiber end important? .................................................................................................................................. 27


69. How are glass fibers ended?................................................................................................................................ 28
70. How are polymer fibers terminated? ................................................................................................................ 28
71. How are solid core fibers terminated? ............................................................................................................ 28
72. How are coiled, twisted or roped fibers terminated? ................................................................................ 29
73. What is a common end? ........................................................................................................................................ 29
74. Is the common end important? .......................................................................................................................... 29
75. What makes a good common end?.................................................................................................................... 29
76. How many types of common end are there? ................................................................................................. 29
77. What is a randomized common end?............................................................................................................... 30
78. What are end fittings? ............................................................................................................................................ 30
79. How many types of end fittings are there? .................................................................................................... 30
80. Fittings or fixtures?................................................................................................................................................. 30
81. Who manufactures end fittings? ......................................................................................................................... 30
82. Are end fittings standard? .................................................................................................................................... 30
83. What is an optical port .......................................................................................................................................... 31
84. Are there different types of optical port? ....................................................................................................... 31
85. Who manufactures optical ports? ....................................................................................................................... 31
86. Are optical ports compatible? .............................................................................................................................. 31
S Y S T E M S
87. What is a fiber optics system? ............................................................................................................................ 31
88. What is a fiber optics systems integrator? .................................................................................................... 33
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89. What is the difference between a fiber optics manufacturer and
a fiber optics system manufacturer? ................................................................................................................. 33
Who are the best fiber optics manufacturers? ............................................................................................. 33
90.
Who are the best systems integrators? ........................................................................................................... 34
91.
How many parts does a fiber optics system have? ..................................................................................... 34
92.
Are fiber optics systems expensive? ................................................................................................................ 34
93.
Will fiber optics systems be cheaper in the future? ................................................................................... 35
94.
Are fiber optics systems difficult to install? .................................................................................................. 35
95.
What is a starry sky? .............................................................................................................................................. 35
96.
What is an effect wheel? ........................................................................................................................................ 35
97.
98 What is an animation harness? ........................................................................................................................... 35
99. What are spatial effects? ........................................................................................................................................ 36
100. How would you describe in one word fiber optics lighting systems? ................................................ 36

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I N T R O D U C T I O N

A
Fiber optics lighting is not a revolutionary or new technology, in essence is only about carrying light, from one point to another by means
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of a lens, more or less flexible and long.
The problem is the air of mysticism surrounding the industry*.
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The result is a strange industry where it is difficult to know for sure the result of the system being ins- talled and where
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disappointment, in part due to unfair hopes, is common.


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The present work is a collection of the questions most often made by professionals during seminars, consulting, and
projects over a quarter of a century. The questions are worded in a short straight- forward manner and answered based
on objective scientific criteria, without publicity, trademarks, or personal preferences, in an effort to help the general
understanding of these systems.

4
3
F I B E R S

1. . What is a f iber opt ic?

Fiber optics are long lenses. A cylinder or rod of transparent material forming a core
surrounded by an external cladding with a slightly different material. Light, when entering
the fiber, rebounds on the outer cladding towards the core. This way the light advances
through the fiber in bounds or steps, until it exits at the other end.

2. . How many kinds of f ibers are there?

In truth, there is only one fiber optic. The term "fiber optics" applies really to a branch of
light physics dealing with the properties of certain materials that display a phenomenon called

pp
"total internal reflection", and not to an object. All optical elements such as lenses, prisms and
rods use total internal reflection as a mecha- nism for light transportation. In the elements
A
described as fiber optics light travels by virtue of this effect but it does so in a number of
ways; monomode, multimode, step index, gradient index and so on.
at
For lighting purposes or, to be more exact, to handle visible light, the standard type or fibers
H

are the so-called multimode step index fibers. The use of the other types is confined
exclusively to data or signal transmission.
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3. . What are f iber opt ics made off?


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For lighting purposes or visible light spectrum transmission, several kinds of fibers are
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used. Glass in very fine strands that have to be bunched together in order to make a sizeable
light carrier, PMMA, and polycarbonate in sizes from 0,25 to 3mm and solid core fibers made
from special polymers in a Teflon sheath from 3mm to over one-inch thick. Other types of
fibers such as liquid core, colored fibers, fluorescent, and scintillating are little used and for
specialized applications.

4. . Are there di fferent qual i t ies of f iber opt ics?

Definitely yes. The raw materials used in the manufacture of fibers may be similar in
some instances but the process to make finished optics can vary greatly from one
manufacturer to another.
The greatest differences arise from the level of purity and refinement with which the raw
materials are pro- duced, the degree of impurities, contamination and the very technology of
the process.
Optical properties such as numerical aperture, attenuation and selective spectral absorption
44
are widely diffe- rent from one fiber to other. This means that some fibers may be suitable for
one task and useless for others.

5. . What is a l ight guide?

When a number of single fibers are grouped together to make a larger diameter light
conductor the resulting structure is called a light guide. Sometimes large diameter solid core
fibers are also termed light guide.
Light guides can come in many forms and finished, clad with a number of different polymers,
articulated ana- conda type flexible metal coverings, rigid tubes, heat shrink tubes, etc.
6. . What are bare f ibers?
The term is used mainly with PMMA fibers and refers to the optics that have no external protection
sheath.

7.. What are sheathed f ibers?

pp
The optics that have an external cladding whether opaque or transparent in order to afford a
mechanical protection to the optics.

8. . Is the sheath color important?


A
at
This is a particularly slippery subject and the cause of heated debate. Some scientists
H

affirm that an opaque white or light colored cladding, especially in single core fibers improve,
marginally, the transmission properties of the optics. Others say that this is nonsense. In any
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case, the difference if it exists, must surely be minimal.


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9. . What is a harness?
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The term applied in the industry to describe a group of fibers or light guides, individually
terminated and with a common end. Generally, each harness must have its own illuminator.

10. . Do f ibers have losses?

All things in the universe are inefficient. This means that when a measured amount of
something enters a system, less comes out than originally went in. If you pour a liter of water
into one end of a pipe, you will always get less than a liter out of the other end. If you apply a
voltage to the extreme of one wire, no matter how you do it, you will get a lesser value at the
other end.
Fiber optics are no exception, the light entering one end encounters all kinds of obstacles and
flaws, resul- ting in losses; from 2 to 10% for every running meter.

11. . Why do some f ibers change the color of the l ight?

45
In fact, all fibers change the color of the light in one way or another. Due to the physical
characteristics of the conductor some frequencies travel with less impediment than others
and it is impossible to produce a fiber that would have the same attenuation on the whole of
the visible spectrum. To expect a light conductor to transport millions of different
wavelengths along with exactly the same attenuation in every one would be quite
unreasonable.
Some fibers absorb a little more blue than red and less green than yellow and others just the
opposite. Consequently, the hue and tone of the light varies from meter to meter, in some
cases very apparently. This phenomenon is referred to as selective spectral absorption.
12. . Is low attenuat ion a sign of good qual i ty f iber?

Generally yes, but in lighting fiber optics the manufacturer's attenuation figures are
frequently meaningless. (In order to be reasonable this is the only figure they can quote)
Attenuation is measured using a laser, a light emitting diode or a collimated light source. In

pp
all three cases the light used is monochromatic, meaning that only one wavelength or a very
narrow set of wave- lengths is used.
A
The figures issued by manufacturers, per example: 150dB/Km refer to that single wavelength
and corres- ponding color which could be yellow or yellow/green. The same fiber may have
at
an attenuation of 750dB/Km on the blue end of the spectrum and 400dB/Km on the red side.
To calculate the average attenuation for white light would involve firstly analyzing the light of
H

the lamp in the illuminator to determine its composition that could vary enormously, even for
two identical lamps. Then one would have to measure attenuation in all individual
le

wavelengths taking into account the amount of each present on the lamp's emission. Finally,
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we would have to compute to obtain a result which would only hold true for that lamp/fiber
combination.
Pu

To be honest a close average can be worked out with a few instruments but lamp
deterioration due to aging, dust in the system and coloring of the common end due to solvent
migration from the potting compounds, if used, soon make nonsense of averaged figures.

13. . What are the advantages of glass f iber opt ics?

Glass fiber optics are very resilient and ideally suited for working in places where the
actual conductor will be subject to extreme temperatures or/and radiation, are little affected
by most solvents and oils and the spectral transmission is good.

14. . And the disadvant ages?

It must be borne in mind that the actual nature of the conductor, in lighting systems,
represents only one of the elements responsible for system performance. Glass light guides
are always sheathed in a poly- mer tube and the common end encapsulated with epoxy

46
compounds.
The actual element in contact with the environment is the polymer tube. In fact, the
characteristics of this element will, for all purposes, determine the resilience of the system.
This little considered point makes nonsense of some critics of polymer fiber who complain of
the plastic contents. The fact is that if we take a 2mm-polymer fiber and a glass fiber with the
same optical diameter we will find out that the latter contains more plastic than the former.
Naturally we are talking about a bare PMMA fiber, this is to say without cladding. PMMA fibers
can be used bare, glass fibers cannot; must always be cladded. At the common end, the epoxy
compounds make up to 17% of the total optical area to receive the light from the lamp. It is a
well known fact that these potting adhesives behave erratically in the presence of high
temperatures and steep radiation gra- dients, such as the ones present at the screen or focus
of the lamp in the generator, light source or illumina- tor. This epoxy tends to age very quickly,
darken, absorb more radiation, heat up and contribute to the pre- mature failure or
deterioration of the system. On the other hand, glass fibers are very brittle. Studies show that

pp
vibration affects adversely glass fibers up to the point where shatter may occur. If the
external sheath or tube becomes also hard and lose flexibility because of environmental

15.
A
factors then the light guide becomes extremely fragile.
. What are the advantages of polymer f iber opt ics?
at
The spectral transmission of PMMA fibers is difficult to improve upon, the quality of the
H

light transmitted over distances longer than four or five meters is considerable better that the
standard glass fibers. Cost is another factor; polymer fibers have a lower cost per optical area
le

unit than glass, in part due to the easier manufacturing process. High quality PMMA systems
rp

rely on a fusion process to construct the common end, hence dispensing with the use of epoxy
potting compounds. In all instances where the use of many fibers or light points is prescribed
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polymer systems are a much better option. Another point to bear in mind is the weight factor:
glass fibers are heavier than polymer, a fact that may be critical in some applications, such as
automotive and aircraft uses.

16. . And the disadvant ages?

The ends of polymer fibers cannot operate with high temperatures. Light sources or
illuminators are needed with a screen temperature lower than 60ºC. Although some polymers
can work with 100ºC and over, the fact is that these constant high temperatures cause
changes on the polymer chains, especially at the common end. This results on a hardening and
blushing or blooming of the material, causing a deterioration of the system. The use of very
powerful and hot illuminators with polymer fibers, in most cases is sheer madness. Although
there is very little data on polymer aging, some manufacturers offer a 20-year guarantee on
their systems, which is more than adequate in most instances.
Radius of curvature is a delicate mater with large diameter solid core fibers and has to be
47
handled with great care in order not to alter the internal architecture of the fibers, which will
result in losses. Bare or unsheathed fibers are very delicate and the external cladding
becomes rapidly damaged due to abrasions and scratches.

17. . Can I l ight a house wi th f iber opt ics?

A house can be lit with anything, from candles and gas lamps to fiber optics. There is the
question, however, of the efficiency of the system. One should never forget that a light source,
such as an electric lamp, delivers its maximum output hanging free in mid air, and that any
thing added, such as a coffer, a louver or an optical system of lenses or reflectors diminishes
the performance.
Truth is that in most cases light issuing from a lamp in a spherical fashion is of little use
because we want the light pointing towards a given direction, in order to perform a task.
Nevertheless, is also true that anything around or in front of a lamp rests light to the general
output of the system.

pp
With fiber optics, this is no exception. The lamp enclosed in the illuminator would give a
greater quantity of light if taken out and hung from a ceiling than pushing the light through
fibers.
A
There is a common misconception amongst the public that if we have a 100 Lm lamp in one
at
place and we run ten fibers to different rooms we would have a 100 Lm light in each room.
H

This sounds very much like the parable of the bread and the fishes and clashes with the laws
of thermodynamics, as we know them.
le

If you have a 100 Lm lamp in a box and run ten fibers out, the total combined output of the
fibers will always be considerably less than 100 Lm, now and in the future.
rp

18. . Are f iber opt ics eff icient as a means to transport l ight?
Pu

The straight answer is no. If we take any other means of light re-direction or distribution
we will find out that are far more efficient.

19. . What can just i fy the use of f iber opt ics?

In the great majority of tasks, using traditional means, the amount of light used is far in
excess to the quantity really needed. Most light goes to illuminate areas that do not need light
at all.
With fiber optics, we can distribute minute quantities of light exactly where needed, an
impossible feat with conventional lighting because light sources are too large.
The distinct possibilities to put the lamp within easy reach whilst the light is distributed in
zones with difficult access is another advantage of fiber optics. The main reasons for the use of
fiber optics in lighting are safety, control, miniaturization, cost and ease of maintenance.

48
20. . Are f ibers safe?

Fiber optics are passive elements, therefore do not use power to generate light, as is the
case with lamps. As light conductors only carry light from one point to another, never
electricity.
Fiber optics can be put under, or in direct contact with water, can be cut, handled, broken or
hammered and can never be anything but totally safe lighting conductors, with the exception
of power conversion.
Because standard lighting fiber optics have a very restricted transmission window most
radiation which could be harmful to beings or things is not transmitted. In fact the amount of
infrared and ultraviolet issuing from a fiber optic is, in most instances, negligible.
The use of fiber optics in the lighting of museum pieces or radiation sensitive material is one of
the main appli- cations of these light conductors.
There is, however, the phenomenon of power to light conversion on the extremes of the

pp
fibers: a very high temperature may be present, with the use of high powered illuminators,
very close to the tip. If a light guide is cut, abraded or damaged in anyway along its length a
very hot spot may ensue which can destroy the fiber and the surrounds. When using systems
A
with high power densities additional precautions should be obser- ved to maintain safety in
at
the system.
H

21. . Who makes f iber opt ics?


le

Glass manufacturers mainly make Glass fibers. Chemical companies fabricate PMMA
fibers. Compa- nies, both public and private, manufacture other types of fiber optics, especially
rp

solid core polymer and gene- rally with their own proprietary process.
Pu

22. . How are f iber opt ics made?

The actual process varies considerably from one manufacturer to another. In essence, a
large cylinder of core is made off high purity material, an element called preform. The preform
is later heated or treated and drawn into a filament, which is then coated with the external
layer with a different refractive index.
Other systems include co-extrusion, continuous casting, direct co-polymerization, injection,
wet drawing and soft extrusion with mercury formers.
These later techniques, and others under research, try to attain a better alignment of polymer
chains in order to improve transmission and reduce attenuation. In fact, the fiber stretching
and tensioning after drawing to promote molecular alignment is one of the industry secrets.

23. . Are opt ical f ibers fragi le?

49
Glass fibers are very brittle, in fact in any glass light guide there is a percentage of fibers
broken during the manufacturing process, on the other hand, because these light guides are
sheathed, once installed are very resistant to external influences.
Bare PMMA fibers are extremely delicate during manufacture and manipulation, requiring
great handling care. Once sheathed are practically impervious to external damage.
Other solid core fibers are very tough because of an external Teflon cladding and can be
installed without any problem. The only drawback with this type of optics is the hardening
with age, which makes these conductors brittle and prone to shatter.

24. . Can f ibers be bent at r ight angles?

No. All fibers must be bent with a radius, which will not alter the internal architecture
of the fiber. For every type and size of fiber, there is a minimum radius of curvature,
specified and recommended by the manufacturer. Bending fiber optics at right angles will
cause the conductor to shatter in the case of glass, and be permanently damaged in all other

pp
types

25.
A
. Can l ight ing f iber opt ics be spl iced or joined?
at
All fibers can be spliced with more or less success and difficulty. The problem is the
losses resulting from such a joint.
H

Fiber splicing is a common practice in the telecommunications industry where is done with
le

sophisticated alignment apparatus and a considerable dose of skill.


Nowadays there are splicing systems for polymer light guides using special fittings and a
rp

refraction index equalizing gel capable of low price splices with minimal losses. In glass fibers
where one would have to indi- vidually splice hundreds or even thousands of single fibers,
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splicing is not resolved yet.


Solid core fibers can be joined with greater ease but the losses are massive; up to 25% of the available
light.

26. . Wi ll l ight go any length along a f iber?

All conductors have losses, and in the case of fiber optics, these are sizeable.
Light losses in the industry average 2 to 5% per meter or over. If we start with, say 100 units
of light at the common end we will lose 25% at the end of five meters and over 40% after ten.
In fact, most systems have losses greater than 50% over a ten-meter length.

50
27. . How many sizes are there of l ight ing f iber opt ics?

Literally hundreds, from a few microns to over an inch in diameter, solid core and
multicore, square shaped, ribbons, tapes and sheet.

28. . Can you put any amount of l ight into a f iber opt ic?

This is one of the standard fallacies of the industry. The system needed to put a sizeable
amount of light into a fiber optic is very simple; a lamp, perhaps a lens and something to hold
the fiber pointing at the light source. It follows that the bigger and more powerful the lamp
the greater amount of light it will issue and the more light that will get into the fiber; at least
this is the argument that most people think logical.
The problem is that optics is a subject far from simple. An optical fiber will accept a measure
of light and no more, regardless of the power of the lamp: if a light source puts ten units of

pp
light through a fiber, another light source, twice as bright will not put double the light into the
fiber.
A
There is one thing called power density acceptance which marks the limit to how much
energy can circulate through a system, no matter how much more energy you try to force into
at
it. A copper wire of a given thick- ness will be happy with five amps, get warm with ten, heat
up with twenty and melt with forty.
H

29. . Do f iber opt ics transmit radiat ion?


le

Light is a radiation; therefore, the answer is yes. Some fibers, depending on the nature of
rp

the materials from which they are made, transmit one band of radiation more or less wide or
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restricted.
Generally, the fibers used for lighting transmit little or no ultraviolet, a very small amount of
infrared and varia- ble quantities of the visible light frequencies.
Heat is a radiation on the infrared region and does not transmit well on standard lighting
fibers. To put an example; the amount of heat that will build up inside a case with a volume of
one cubic meter of air, is only one degree in 24 hours, from a 5mm diameter PMMA light
guide powered by a 150W metal halide illumina- tor.

30. . Glass or polymer?

There is not an easy answer because it will always depend on the final use and working
conditions of the system.
Generally speaking glass fibers are better suited for those environments where high
temperatures are cons- tant and for data transmission. Glass fibers are very thin conductors
only a few microns in diameter, therefo- re in order to construct a sizeable light conductor,

51
hundreds or even thousands have to be bunched and she- athed together.
Bending radii are small and the performance is acceptable although glass fibers with
comparable spectral characteristics to PMMA are considerably more expensive.
In essence both, glass and polymer systems have advantages and drawbacks, to be
individually assessed in view of the actual application and working conditions. In recent
times, however, there seems to be a general trend to abandon glass fiber optics in lighting
applications in favor of PMMA.
31. . Can f ibers be made any size?

Theoretically, yes. There are, however, physical constraints because of the materials and
utility. Very large fibers have proportional bending radii and are not very economical to
produce. Under the all encom- passing classification of Remote Source Lighting, tubes made
from special polymers and behaving like fiber optics are currently being manufactured,
capable of being formed into light conductors over a foot in diame- ter.

pp
32. . How long wi ll f iber opt ics last?
A
In the case of glass practically indefinitely due to the inert characteristics of the
at
material. This refers to the actual fiber, and not to the polymer cladding. Also the common
ends being an encapsulation of epoxy's will behave less predictably and perform erratically,
H

depending of many factors, such as temperature of ope- ration and level of radiation
exposure.
le

As far as polymer systems are concerned 20 years for the conductors is the standard
rp

guarantee in the industry. This also refers to the actual fiber, without reference to the common
end whose average life depends on the same factors outlined before.
Pu

33. . Can several f ibers give the same amount of l ight?

No. If a number of fibers or light guides are coupled to the same illuminator, it is
physically impossible that each receives the same amount of light and therefore transmit it.
The spot or tack formed by a reflector lamp at the focus point or screen is not completely
homogeneous, this is to say that it does not have the same quantity of light in each point of its
surface. This problem is sometimes minimized by mixing the fibers at the common end (a
process termed “randomizing”) but it can never be made totally even.

34. . What are side- emi tt ing f ibers?

There are no side-emitting fibers. All fiber optics receive the light at one end and
transport it to the other. When light enters a fiber and travels through the core it encounters
multitude of obstacles: microscopic cracks and fissures, impurities and other elements which
52
obstruct the passage of some light and which, in turn, esca- pes through the outer cladding.
All fibers lose some light though the cladding because there are no perfect systems. This
unavoidable effect is used to produce elements termed "side emitting fibers" which, in fact
are normal fiber optics with a clear protective external cladding which permit to view the
escaping light. In fact, some manufacturers induce stres- ses on the fibers, by means of torsion
or bending to bruise the fibers and cause more light to escape along the way.
Some glass fibers are made side emitting, by the expedient method of cladding a bunch into a
clear tube and breaking them at intervals. Clearly there comes a point along the tube when
there are no more unbroken fibers to continue the process.
35. . Are there di fferent types of side emi tt ing f ibers?

Nowadays several types of side emitting fibers are marketed. The most
common are: Solid core optics
Multistranded optics

pp
Multistranded roped/coiled and woven/knitted optics.

36. . What are sol id core f ibers?


A
at
These optics are cylinders made of diverse polymers and encased on a transparent
sheath or tube. As a standard are manufactured in different gauges or calibers from 3 to 25 or
H

more millimeters in diameter.


le

37. . What are mul t istranded opt ics?


rp

Multistranded optics are narrow walled tubes off transparent material, housing a
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number of smaller solid core fibers. The inner fibers are, generally 0,75mm in diameter and
numbered from ten or less to seve- ral hundred, depending on the final use and diameter of
the optic.

38. . What are coi led roped and woven/ kni tted opt ics?

Simply braided or woven ropes manufactured with thin solid core fiber optics, instead of
hemp or nylon. Because of the strain produced on the individual fibers by means of the
torsion, coiling or knitting, the fibers have greater losses along the length. This means that
more light is available for side viewing purposes.

39. . Sol id core or mul t icore?

That will depend on the use to which the optic is put and the actual installation
conditions. Solid core optics have generally, a larger bending radius to avoid important losses.

53
Furthermore, because of the trans- parent quality of the core, unless the contrast with the
background is adequate the appearance is that of infe- rior luminance.
Multicore optics, on the other hand, have a more flexible construction, especially in large
diameters. Becau- se of the reduced transparency of the optic, the luminance appears greater.
Solid core fibers can operate in some types with higher screen temperatures and can be
connected (at least in theory) to generators that are more powerful without damage to the
core. It must be said, however, that the long-term effects, especially those related to the power
density of the systems, are as yet undetermined.
40. . Can side emi tt ing opt ics be as br ight or br ighter than neon?

Fiber optics can be made to be brighter than neon but only for very short distances. We
can think of a garden hose as an example: making tiny holes along the hose can cause a
sizeable amount of water gus- hing out of the holes nearer the tap, and for a distance that will
depend on the size of the holes. If we make the holes larger a greater amount of water will

pp
issue, but only for a shorter distance until it only trickles.
There is a limit to the quantity of water that can be made to pass through a hose, a limit given
A
by the mate- rial of the pipe and the viscosity of water. We simply cannot increase pressure
infinitely.
at
The limit on the quantity of light traveling through a fiber optic is also imposed by physics:
H

the actual material of which the optic is made and the intrinsic qualities of light. There is a
power density limit to each material. In some systems, especially with late generation
le

purpose made metal halide illuminators, luminance values greater or equal to that of neon
may be obtained for lengths up to few meters. The sizeable cost of these sys- tems when
rp

compared to neon makes the proposal impractical in most cases.


Pu

41. . Wi th all the l imi tat ions, what are the uses of side emi tt ing opt ics?

There is a common misconception about the quantity of light needed for a given task:
more light is not necessarily better, and often is worse than the right amount with the correct
characteristics.
In many instances, small quantities of light to demarcate, decorate or accent are much better
than a glaring neon-like line.
A good example that comes to mind is the uses in theatres, cinemas and public buildings to line
out corridors, aisles and emergency exits: in these instances the brightness of neon would
simply not be acceptable. Cou- pled with the beauty of color change capabilities side emitting
optics are a valuable tool in the hands of the designer for outlining buildings, both externally
and internally, pools, spas, cornices, gardens, and all kinds of architectural details.
Another point not to be forgotten is the total safety of fiber optics. There is no electricity in
them. This means that in all those instances where high voltage neon simply cannot be

54
contemplated because of danger, main- tenance or fragility; side-emitting fibers can be the
only sensible alternative.

42. . What are the design constraints to side emi tt ing opt ics?

The actual illuminance of side emitting optics is low, although the luminance is quite
acceptable in most cases. This means that if the contrast values are correctly applied the
visibility of the optics can be excellent. The actual quantity of ambient illuminance, the colors
of backgrounds, distance and line of vision are para- meters to be carefully balanced, in order
to obtain the best results.
43. . Could the l ight along a side emi tt ing opt ic be total ly homogeneous?

Despite the assurances of some manufacturers, this is a total impossibility because it


would clash with the laws of physics, as we know them.

pp
In order for an optic to display the same illuminance along a given length, it would have to be
perfect: with no losses.
A
As soon as light is produced by an emitter starts to decay, in a similar fashion that a bullet starts
to lose speed from the moment it issues from the muzzle of a gun.
at
The light is not the same inch by inch in an optic as it leaves the optical port of the illuminator:
the farthest from the light source, less light, due to the attenuation of the optic.
H

44. . Wi ll we always see a di fference in br ightness along an opt ic?


le
rp

Not necessarily so. The human vision system appreciates illuminance grades in a
logarithmic fashion and if the transition was smooth would be very difficult to actually notice
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the difference.
If we observe an optic of, say 30 meters, from one end to the other along the optic it would not
matter in which end is situated the illuminator: we would see the optic homogeneously lit,
although we know that it is not pos- sible. If we were to look at the same optic sideways, from
some distance, then we would notice the differen- ce in luminance, because we could compare
both ends.
The judicious use of illuminators, daisy chaining the optics, restricting the length of the fibers
to that recom- mended by manufacturers, the control of the contrast and the angle of vision,
are the tools needed for a suc- cessful installation.

45. . Can l ight be made to move or chase along a side emi tt ing opt ic?

With roped or braided multicore fiber and a special process at the common end optics
can be made to chase in both directions and display multiple colors at the same time.

55
46. . Are the side- emi tt ing f ibers wi th ref lect ing core more luminous?

To answer this question honestly is very much like trying to determine the sex of the angels.
If a side emitting light guide has a center reflecting core it would appear that it would issue
more light omni directionally, this is to say: if the light guide was suspended in mid-air and
viewed from any angle.
The problem with that argument is that those optics are, normally attached to a support and
viewed from fixed angles. The opaque centerpiece, in this case, would impede the passage of
light from behind the core and hence the optic would have less light available to the viewer.
Side-emitting light guides are sheathed in a transparent cover and the viewer, by
transparency, has the bene- fit of the light escaping not only from the individual fibers placed
directly in front of his line of vision but also from the ones behind.
If we take a glass tube filled with a colored liquid and light it up from one end, we could view
the whole of the mass as a lit-up cylinder. If we then place a concentric opaque core, from a

pp
given direction we would have less vision of the cylinder mass. The same would hold true
with any transparent cylinder.
A
To prove this argument is a practical impossibility since it would require two optics, with and
without core of the same size and optical properties, placed exactly on the same spot in an
at
illuminator. In my opinion, no mat- ter the patents, the so-called center reflecting cores do not
H

add more light to a guide and probably rests light to the viewer and the system as a whole.
47. . Is there any way to improve side- emi tt ing viewing?
le

A side emitting light guide is viewed optimally when the contrast between the optic and
rp

background is maximized. If the light guide is placed on a white track or against a tight
opaque white back the light is more apparent.
Pu

This does not mean that the optic issues more light, only that the illuminance falling on the
background impro- ves the overall luminance of the optic.

I L L U M I N A T O R S

48. . What is an i l luminator?

An illuminator, light source or generator is a box with a lamp inside, pointing towards an
opening where fiber optics are secured. Naturally, this is an over-simplification, although in
reality a large number of the illuminators available in the industry are little more than this.

49. . What makes a good i l luminator?

Illuminators must perform three separate tasks with a degree of efficiency. Firstly must
56
house a lamp and its power source, transformer, ballast, igniter and wiring in a correct and
safe manner.
Secondly, it must focus the light of the lamp in the most efficient way to ensure an adequate
performance. Thirdly, it must create a suitable environment to guarantee the long life of the
common end, this being the union with the fiber optics. With this last task in mind, an
illuminator must be designed to minimize the ther- mal load on the screen by all possible
means, filters, forced ventilation, air ducting and deflectors.

50. . Is bigger better?

It is somehow surprising that manufacturers place great emphasis in the power


consumption, stating that a machine is 50, 100 or 400 Watts, when in reality this has little
bearing on the overall performance of the illuminator.
In the lighting industry, the performance of a lamp is measured in a number of ways,

pp
depending on the com- parison standards. The accepted data regarding a lamp's virtues are,
usually, efficiency and light output, although the single must important element is the burner
size. A
Efficiency, determined in Lm/W, states the amount of light that a lamp produces for each unit
at
of energy used. Is very low on incandescent lamps, where most of the energy is transformed
in heat and very high in fluo- rescent and some types of discharge lamps, such as low-pressure
H

sodium. Unfortunately, neither of these last lamps can be used sensibly with fiber optics.
The amount of light that a lamp makes is a useful piece of information when we try to light up
le

a warehouse or an office table but useless when used to project and concentrate light on a
rp

given point. In this case the screen of the illuminator or the fiber common end.
The actual quantity and directionality of light reaching the screen, having little to do with the
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power con- sumption of the machine, is the only measure of performance in an illuminator.
Many lamps, specially the latest arrivals, have much improved light outputs, better beam
control and preci- sion. Paradoxically a last generation 50W-halogen lamp with a dychroic
reflector puts more light into a fiber than a 75W lamp with a similar construction and
outdated technology.

57
51. . How many types of i l luminators are there?

Since there are no standards in the industry, the term "type" is slightly confusing.
With regards to power usage, the lamp illuminators vary from as little as 5W to as much as a
1.000W and more.
As far as the type of lamp, illuminators are divided into two families: those using incandescent
lamps, gene- rally halogen, and the ones equipped with gas discharge lamps.
Illuminators can also be typed by use. Some are mainly used for lighting and others to produce
effects such as animations, color change or twinkles and sparkles.

52. . Halogen or gas discharge?

Again, it will depend on the use of the system. Gas discharge lamps, especially those with
a very small plasma area are ideally suited for use with optical systems such as lenses or

pp
reflectors. Consequently, the quantity of light aimed in the right direction can be far superior
to that of a halogen lamp. Lumen output of these lamps is, usually greater than their
A
incandescent counterparts. Conventional means cannot be used to regulate the output of gas
discharge lamps. This means that if regulation is required mechanical irises or com- plex high
at
frequency oscillators have to be used.
Halogen lamps are smaller, less costly, and need simpler power supplies but give less overall light.
H

For lighting and side light applications, gas discharge is used universally, reserving the less
powerful halogen light sources for effects and decoration.
le

It must be said, however, that if the correct halogen lamp, with the right projection angle is
rp

used, excellent results can be obtained with small diameter harnesses.


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53. . Must all i l luminators have forced vent i lat ion?

Generally yes, the exception being those with a massive construction, which dissipate
heat by radia- tion or transfer.

54. . How noisy is an i l luminator?

Very noisy, slightly so or totally silent, depending on the power source and the construction.
Heat dissipation is something that has to be done by one of two means: radiation or ventilation.
If radiation is the method chosen then the housing must have the mass and surface to ensure
dissipation of the heat. In ventilated systems, the air is the agent for cooling and must be
evacuated and renewed. The pro- blem is that some light sources are so hot that would need
an oversized housing to dissipate all the heat build up, clearly not a very practical solution.
Silent illuminators use normally small halogen or gas discharge lamps, devoid of mechanical
ventilation and relying on radiation to cool the housing and dissipate the heat. Generally,

58
works well only if placed outdoors or in a volume where the ambiance temperature is
considerable lower than that of the housing.
Forced air drought is used in most power illuminators and the noise can range from 20 or so
dB to 70 or 80dB. Taking into account that noise in a forced air system is relative to duct size
and air speed, in addition to ven- tilator speed, mounting, vibration and other related aspects
is easy to suspect that design can vary the amount of noise that a illuminator produces. This
can be brought down to a minimum that can only be further reduced by damping with noise
suppression material.
55. . Are cert i f icat ions important?

That will depend on the type of certificate, what is certified and by who is granted. Many
certifications refer to the inherent safety of a product, with regards to accidental electrical
shock. In fact some certifications attest to the fact that the contraption will not kill you, but
say nothing, or very little, as far as the performance of the product. The certificate on a

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washing machine says nothing to the effect that the thing will wash clothes; only that is unlikely
that you will get an electrical shock.
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Some other certifications refer to the performance, but unfortunately, these are not
compulsory. In the fiber optics industry even these certificates are, very often meaningless
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because there is little or no control on the interface between illuminator and fiber. A
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laboratory report will say that a illuminator delivers so many screen lumens but cannot say
how many will get into the fiber, because that will depend on a number of factors totally
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outside their scope.


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56. . Are machines wi th the CE mark cert i f ied?


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The CE mark was a good idea in its inception but it has been so much abused that has
become prac- tically meaningless for the end user.
CE is not a certification or a quality mark, moreover is not granted by any official body or
controlled in any way, distributors or end users have no right whatsoever to demand a CE
certificate from the manufacturer, even if his products bear the stamp.
CE is a declaration from the manufacturer stating that the object complies with CE directives
and regulations. Really is the equivalent to taking the words of a used car salesman as Gospel
truth.
The market is awash with shoddy products of uncertain origin and parentage bearing the CE
mark, products that, obviously, do not conform to any regulation whatsoever.
In a resume: the CE mark does not attest or imply any quality or fitness for use of the object
bearing the stamp. It only says that the manufacturer declares that his product is built in
accordance with the community directives, under his own responsibility and without
effective control by an official body.

59
57. . How then do I recognize a product ' s qual i ty?

There are a number of ways. The name and status of the company making the product is
important and its geographical location. Some countries are famous for making good quality
products and others just the opposite.
The stamp of approval of an internationally recognized testing organization is a sure way of
knowing that the product has been tested and found built to very high standards. Generally,
such institutes or laboratories have follow-up programs that control the manufacturing and
quality processes of the manufacturer.
It can be said, with a level of certainty, that a machine bearing one or several such stamps has
a traceable pedigree and is well made.
58. . What about ISO 9000 ?

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Again there seems to be confusion about the ISO 9000 series of certifications. The ISO in
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essence is not a guarantee of good quality and is not given to an object but to a company.
ISO 9000 is, in lays terms, a system that removes anarchy from management or production,
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making sure that things are made always the same and with the same quality, which is not a
mean feat.
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It does not guarantee that the products are good but with a constant in quality. If a
manufacturer makes a good gizmo or widget, the ISO 9000 certificate guarantee that it will
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always be good. For the same token if someone makes a bad product the ISO will ensure that
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is always bad. A combination of ISO 9000 and labo- ratory certificates on a product is the
surest way to ascertain that an object, an illuminator in this case, is good and will remain so.
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59. . How does a color change works?

It consists generally of a small, geared motor with a disc. This can be made of glass, glass
segments or a polymer material in a number of colors.
The motor causes the disc to revolve in from of the common end, altering the color of the
issuing light. Lower priced systems use colored films or glass whilst most others make use of
dychroic filters.
In animation illuminators instead of a disc, there is a turning drum of glass or polycarbonate
with color films or varnishes applied in special patterns to create movement and rapid color
changes.

60. . What is a dychroic f i l ter?

A thin flat piece of glass with a metal deposition in one of the surfaces applied in a high

60
vacuum envi- ronment. The metal layer, only a few atoms thick causes interference in the
incoming light, letting some fre- quencies pass whilst stopping others.
This frequency separation has the effect of producing very saturated and vibrant colors.
Depending on the deposition type, all visible light can be allowed to pass through, whilst
stopping infrared or ultraviolet radiation. In fact, there is a dychroic or interference filter to
separate practically all frequencies in the spectrum.

61. . Are heat fuses necessary?

The working temperature range of the fiber optics common end is critical if the
performance of the sys- tem is to be maintained and the life guaranteed. A heat fuse of
thermostat must be installed in such a way as to disconnect the illuminator should there be a
heat build up.
Heat can accumulate rapidly for a number of reasons: a failed fan, obstructions on the air

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passages or poor ventilation. A 50ºC thermostat should be the most adequate.
It must be borne in mind that the ambiance temperature in which illuminators must operate

62.
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seldom allow more than 25ºC, a very low temperature to maintain in most instances.
. Can mul t iple i l luminators change colors simul taneously?
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Yes. Generally the standard disc rotating motors are of the synchronous type, very
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reliable, and gea- red to the most adequate speed. The problem is that, although individually
these motors work fine, is difficult to make two or more act in perfect synchronization with
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each other without additional mechanical or electro- nic gear.


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A simple micro switch and an adequate wiring can make any number of synchronous motors
operate at the same time in perfect step.
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Some manufacturers offer a variable speed synchronizer to control their illuminators with
special motors, zero settings and electronic control gear.

63. . Can i l luminators be computer control led?

Practically everything can be computer controlled and illuminators are not an


exception. Color discs, lamp voltage and mechanical shutters, in the case of gas discharge
lamps, can be programmed and contro- lled with a computer.
This is normally offered as an option on most illuminators, using step motors and DMX control.

64. . What is DMX?

A communications protocol between an electronic circuit and step motors and


actuators. A kind of lan- guage between elements so that different manufacturers can use
compatible components which will work happily understanding the same data.
61
E N D S , F I T T I N G S A N D T E R M I N A L S

65. . What are end terminat ions?

Again, we find ourselves in an area where a lot of confusion and controversy are the
order of the day. Some American institutions have tried to set standards as to the correct
terminology to be applied in fiber optics specification. The problems is that not every
manufacturer is American and was not asked their opinion in the matter, hence many people
use different names referring to the same part or component.
With Illuminators happens the same as with ends, one can see reflected in manufacturer's
literature names such as: light engine, light source, generator, etc. All refers to the same box
with lamp inside.
End terminations suffer the same fate: single end, fiber end, single termination, emitting end,

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tip, end, final, common end, bundle head, head, end ferrule, etc.
In order to set a common ground we will use the term single end and common end.
Terminations therefore are the extremes of a single fiber or a group of fibers.
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66. . What are single ends?
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The extreme of the fiber optics conductor farthest from the illuminator. The bit that emits
light or the end that lights up.
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67. . Are there many types of single ends?


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Single ends can be anything from a simple cut with snips or a cutter to a sophisticated
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polished encap- sulation. The actual technique used depends not only on the type of fiber but
also on the application of the system.

68. . Is the f iber end important?

As far as the actual light output the fiber termination has little influence on the overall
light output. It is however, very important, when at the single end will be fixed some lens
system. Imperfections, scratches, dig and fractures at the single end termination will show as
darker patches on the resulting beam.
The mechanical connection between the single end and the finishing piece, being a board or
housing is also dependent on the actual finish and precision of the single end. Ferrules,
machined pieces and connectors have to be scrupulously free of adhesives and with even
diameters, to ensure a precise fitting.

62
69. . How are glass f ibers ended?

Glass fibers are, generally potted or encapsulated at the single end with the help of an
epoxy adhesi- ve or compound. This results on a very hard element of fibers and adhesive
that, when hardened, is suitable for cutting flush and polishing or buffing.
This encapsulation is generally enclosed on a hollow brass tube, rivet or machined piece,
which then serves as a fixing, or positioning aid.
Glass fibers permit some sophisticated single end termination to support extreme
temperatures or working conditions. Special potting adhesives can be used and ends
processed to an operating temperature of 400ºC, indicated for oven and burner sensors and
controls. In these instances, special thermal bridges have to be built into the fiber to protect
the conductor.
Other terminations can be in the shape of wafers, rings, blocks or lines for machine vision,

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instrument ligh- ting, microscopy and other highly specialized lighting applications.

70. . How are polymer f ibers terminated? A


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PMMA fiber single ends can be of several types always depending on the nature of the
conductor and the final application. A Simply cut fiber with cutters or snips is a standard for
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decorative, display and sign uses. The same type of encapsulation as for glass fibers can be
used with multiple single conductors and for the same applications with the exception of high
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temperature work.
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For most decorative and lighting uses PMMA fibers are considerably more user friendly than
glass fibers. Very simple tools and little skill are, in most instances, sufficient to produce
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stunning results on site, without having to result to factory custom made and cut components
which results in dramatic cost reductions.
PMMA fibers can also be polished to a mirror finish with buffing compounds and machines
without encapsu- lation for single fibers. Common ends must always be fused together,
without using adhesives. Some fiber manufacturers specifically render their guarantee void if
adhesives of any kind are used at the common end. Fusion produces a solid block , which can
the be polished to a very high optical finish.

71. . How are sol id core f ibers terminated?

The very architecture of solid core fibers makes the precise termination a difficult
operation, although it must be said that in most applications a precise end is academic.
Solid core fibers are considerably softer than PMMA or glass and hardness is a pre-condition
for precise polis- hing. Additionally if an attempt is made to polishing, the compounds,
(whether Cerium based or otherwise) are always in a wax or grease medium and seep in
63
between the Teflon coating and the core, ruining the optic. Standard finishing techniques for
the single ends dispense with polishing and resolve to cutting with special tools where the
quality and sharpness of the blade determines the accuracy of the cut. Further polishing can
be accomplished with thermal treatment but only in factory installations.
Research is under way to polish solid core fibers using very low temperatures or else with
water jets and laser cutters with uncertain degree of success.
72. . How are coi led, twisted or roped f ibers terminat ed?

In general terms the same techniques as with PMMA apply, since these optics are no
more that 0,75mm diameter PMMA fibers bunched together.
In the case of coiled optics the sheath and the internal core (if existing) has to be removed
because of the different nature, melting point and physic characteristics with respect to the
fibers.

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Wherever possible both extremes of a sidelight light guide should be fused and glass polished.

73. . What is a common end?


A
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The fiber or fibers have to be connected to the illuminator. Especially in the case of a
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number of fibers, these have to be bunched together and held securely. The common end is
the grouping, fusion or encapsu- lation where all of the fibers from a bundle come together
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and are cut flush and even, polished or prepared to connect to the illuminator port.
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74. . Is the common end important?


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Although manufacturers place more attention on fibers and illuminators the common
end is a vital piece for the correct operation of an optical fiber system.
A properly engineered common end must pack the fibers tightey without adhesives and be
suitable for fine polishing.
Most failures on fiber optics are due to a bad common end design and construction.
The use of potting adhesives is the single cause most commonly found in harness failure, both
in glass and PMMA systems and should be avoided at all costs since it only reduces the overall
life expectancy of the sys- tem.

75. . What makes a good common end?

The capacity to hold the fibers ever and flush, lack of adhesives, optical polish and
absence of packing losses.

76. . How many types of common end are there?


64
Basically two: adhesive encapsulated and state of the art fused, although some
manufactures dispen- se with both and simply fasten the fibers to the illuminator by means of
a pressure gland.

77. . What is a randomized common end?

When several light guides are bundled together into a single common end it becomes a
physical impos- sibility to attain the same level of light in each light guide because the lamp
emission is not totally even on the screen plane. In order to minimize the differences
individual fibers are mixed or "randomized" so that each light guide gathers its light from
different geometrical points within the screen. Light issuing from individual ends in a
randomized system is considerably more even but not perfectly so.
In polymer fiber systems state of the art optical randomizers can achieve greater evenness with little

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loss.
78. . What are end f i tt ings?
A
Practically the only part of a fiber optic system that the public ever sees. End fittings are
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the elements for fixing, aiming, supporting and finishing the fiber ends.
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79. . How many types of end f i tt ings are there?


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Literally thousands for every thought or dreamed up application. From small bullet
lenses to very large pavers, floor and pool lights. From simple rings and bezels to complex
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optical trains with several lenses, besi- des hundreds of custom designed elements for specific
applications and uses.
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80. . Fi tt ings or f ixtures?

In the industry, these terms are used indistinctly and often together. Some
manufacturers describe fittings as the fixing elements, such as connectors, ferrules, machined
ends, tubular rivets and bezel rings, reserving the term fixtures for large elements, swivel
rings, pool luminaries and the like.
Other manufacturers use the term fitting to describe anything at the end of the fibers.

81. . Who manufactures end f i tt ings?

Every system manufacturer produces a range of end fittings designed to be used with
their own fiber system.

82. . Are end f i tt ings standard?


65
As a whole no. Each system manufacturer favors a kind of termination for his fibers with
pressure glands, threads, rivets or machined pieces as connectors for his own fittings. Due to
the absolute lack of stan- dards in the industry, it becomes impossible to use one
manufacturer's fittings with the fibers of other.

83. . What is an opt ical port?

In the fiber optics industry, optical port is the element that physically makes the
connection or interfa- ce between the illuminator and the harness. In its simplest form, an
optical port is made of male and female tubes fitting one inside the other with a retaining
screw or other fastener. More sophisticated optical ports include filter holders and various
devices to adjust, conform and cool the common end.

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84. . Are there di fferent types of opt ical ports?
A
Optical ports can be divided in two types: potting and pressure. Potting optical ports are
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little more than a hollow tube into which the fibers are introduced and encapsulated with
some adhesive, making a block to be later polished.
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Pressure optical ports are more sophisticated and include seals to grip tightly, by means of a
tool, the har- ness of fibers.
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Glass fibers are always prepared in potting optical ports whilst solid core fibers use pressure
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optical ports. PMMA fibers can have the common end in either.
85. . Who manufactures opt ical ports?
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All system integrator produce a particular type of optical port to connect to their choice of
illuminator.

86. . Are opt ical ports compat ible?

In general no. Illuminator manufacturers use a particular type of optical port to effect
the connection with the common end. As a whole, the harness made by a given manufacturer
will not fit into the illuminator made by another without retooling.

87. . What is a f iber opt ics system?

The term comprises all the necessary elements to install a working unit.

66
S Y S T E M S

88. . What is a f iber opt ics systems integrator?

A fiber optics system integrator purchases the bulk fibers from a fiber optics
manufacturer, and ende- avor to manipulate, cut, polish, assemble, pack, produce and market a
final product.

89. . What is the di fference between a f iber opt ics manufacturer and a f iber
opt ics system manufacturer?

This is a question that would sound silly in other industries but not in this one. Many
firms hint, or even affirm in their brochures and catalogues to be fiber optics manufacturers

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when this is simply not true. A Com- pany that manufactures fiber optics is the one that
transforms polymers, monomers or glass raw materials into rods and filaments, cladding
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those with other elements to, finally create bulk fiber optics.
One can readily see the difference between a glass manufacturer, a glass merchant and a
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window manufac- turer. The first takes sand and melts it into glass the second stores and
trades with glass and the third incor- porates glass into his final product: a window.
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If one looks at the giant chemical and glass corporations it's a fair bet that they are fiber
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optics manufactu- rers.


On the other hand, most fiber optics companies are System Integrators. This is to say that
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they do not make fibers, just like the window producer does not make glass.
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90. . Who are the best f iber opt ics manufact urers?

To single out a company would be grossly unfair because in this business the players
are, generally, respected industrial corporations with impeccable quality reputations.
State of the art fiber optics cannot be made in a garage shed and huge investments have to be
made in plant, equipment and human resources to produce optics of any kind.
The overall quality of fibers in the market is exceptionally high and it must be said that the
failures and disas- ters that may have happened have had nothing to do with the quality of the
fibers but with the handling and application of systems.

67
91. . Who are the best systems integr ators?

Being quite the opposite to fiber optics manufacturers, system producers


are usually small companies. In this case size has the opposite effect on the
final product because fiber optics system design require an inordinate amount
of ingenuity, talent and technical expertise even for tiny projects. The fast
responses, ins- tant drawings, quotations and studies normally demanded are
very hard to produce in a corporate environ- ment.
Naturally, this means that some system integrators are little more than a one-
man band and some operations are run on a shoestring with more enthusiasm
than resources.
On the other hand many system integrators have very little know-how and

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soon get into trouble with the laws of physics.

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Product certification, documentation, information and references are the
easiest way to ascertain the profes- sional reputation of a manufactures
In this industry when detailed and precise technical information is not
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forthcoming and things are shrouded in a veil of secrecy, it usually means that
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for the manufacturer the thing is also a mystery.

. How many parts does a f iber opt ics system have?


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92.
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Depending on the final use the most common parts to account for in a
basic system are: illuminator, fiber bundle, bushing and end fittings.
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Additional fittings, fixtures, controlling units and power sources may be used
harness, optical port.

93. . Are f iber opt ics systems expensive?

To determine whether a system is expensive one would have to


establish a comparison with an alter- native, which in most cases does not
exist.
To compare fiber optics with a standard off the shelf light fitting, lamp or
system is an unfair rule of thumb because fiber optics are unique.
Fiber optics systems can carry minute or large amounts of light to, practically
any place with precision, wit- hout heat or electricity and with the light source
far away.

68
If the fiber optics system is to be used in applications where the above values
were of no consequence then one would have to say that there is no need for
it.
Fiber optics are not the universal solution to all lighting problems but a tool or
a technique to be used in cir- cumstances where other systems would be at a
disadvantage or even totally inadequate.
If one compares a one point of conventional light fixture with a one-point fiber
optics system then the price difference would weigh heavily in favor of the
standard fixture. If we compare several fixtures and one fiber optics system
with several light guides and one illuminator, taking into account the
maintenance advantages and power savings, then one would have to concede
that fiber optics are cheap.

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. Wi ll f iber opt ics systems be cheaper in the future?

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94.

Lighting fiber optics is not a mass-market product and perhaps will never
be. Even today most systems are, at least in part, hand crafted or produced in
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small batches of a few hundred units at most. Very few items are made in the
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thousands, with the exception of injected parts, which have a very low unit
cost.
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From a manufacturing point of view short series are very expensive to


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produce, since the cost advantages of bulk purchase and manufacturing are
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missing.
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Fiber optics groups or harnesses could easily be mass-produced with very


important savings, which would reduce unit costs drastically. The problem is
that very seldom, harnesses are of the same size or have the same fiber
composition. Consequently, they have to be hand tailored, practically one by
one, which results on very high production costs.
Another reason for the high unit costs of systems is the technical backup that
system manufacturers have to provide. Nearly all of the installations have to
be individually assessed, studied and estimated in house, because of the lack
of widespread technical expertise elsewhere. This means that expensive
technical departments have to be kept in order to provide know-how on a
daily basis.

95. . Are f iber opt ics systems di ff icult to instal l?

69
Again, it becomes important to establish a fair comparison with other
elements, in this case ordinary light fixtures.
Fiber optics systems, as a whole, are easier to install than electrical fittings.
Sometimes displays, panels, ceilings, effects or projects are made involving
thousands or even hundreds of thousands of single optical fiber ends which, to
be fair, are a challenge to install.
The problem in these cases is of sheer numbers, size and complexity. In any
case to install a point of fiber optics is considerably easier than to install an
electrical point.

96. . What is a starry sky?

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Probably one of the most beautiful lighting effects that can be created,

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which can be very simple or quite sophisticated.
In its simplest form, a starry sky effect is made with a number of small
diameter fibers coupled to a large solid core, which delivers the light from the
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illuminator. This creates a number of static points of the same diame- ter,
which can be quite effective if a little flat.
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More elaborate systems use several fiber caliber's, from 0,25mm to 3mm
diameter and run directly to the illu- minator. The several sizes of fiber make
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for different intensities on the point light, giving the effect of distan- ce and
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perspective creating great depth. Coupled with a twinkle effect wheel the
effect can be quite stunning.
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97. . What is an effect wheel?

A disc of metal or polycarbonate revolving between the lamp and the


common end with holes, slits, colors or patterns.

98. . What is an animat ion harness?

A group of fiber optics arranged in a sequential fashion and numbered.


The fibers are then installed in the same order and, with the help of special
illuminators, movement can be added to lines or patterns.
99. . What are spat ial effects?

70
Representations of comets, nebulas, shooting stars and others, made with
often thousands of indivi- dual fibers and animation illuminator.

100. . How would you descr ibe in one word f iber opt ics l ight ing systems?

Magic

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71
Multiple Choice Questions
____________________________________________

BE (2015)Pattern

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404190 Broadband Communication Systems
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Topic : Satellite Communication
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UNIT IV: Orbital Mechanics and Launchers


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This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite
Orbits”.

1. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design altitude?
a) Continue to orbit the earth
b) Fall back
c) Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed
d) Stays where it was released
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: If a satellite were launched vertically from the earth and then released, it would fall
back to earth because of gravity. For the satellite to go into orbit around the earth, it must have
some forward motion. For that reason, when the satellite is launched, it is given both vertical and
forward motion.

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2. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
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Answer: a
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Explanation: Although the speed of the satellite is constant its direction keeps on changing as the
orbit is circular or elliptical. The rate of change of velocity vector is acceleration and hence its
direction changes, the satellite is under acceleration.
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3. Why does the orbit take the shape of an ellipse or circle?


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a) Position can be easily determined


b) Consume less fuel
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c) Most efficient geometry


d) Better coverage on earth
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A satellite rotates about the earth in either a circular or an elliptical path. Circles
and ellipses are geometric figures that can be accurately described mathematically. Because the
orbit is either circular or elliptical, it is possible to calculate the position of a satellite at any
given time.

4. The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______
a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The direction of satellite rotation may be either in the same direction as the earth’s
rotation or against the direction of earth’s rotation. In the former case, the orbit is said to be
posigrade, and in the latter case, retrograde. Most orbits are posigrade.

5. When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit?


a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In an elliptical orbit, the speed changes depending upon the height of the satellite
above the earth. Naturally, the speed of the satellite is greater when it is close to the earth than

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when it is far away. The closest point is called the perigee.

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6. Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that are far away from earth.
a) True
b) False
at
View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: Satellites that are near earth have to move at higher speeds to sustain their orbit
since the gravitational pull is much higher. Since the effect of gravity is less at higher altitudes,
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satellites that far away require less speeds.


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7. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________
a) Lapsed time
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b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The period is the time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit. It is also called
the sidereal period. A sidereal orbit uses some external fixed or apparently motionless object
such as the sun or star for reference in determining a sidereal period.

8. The period of time that elapses between the successive passes of the satellite over a given
meridian of earth longitude is called as _____________
a) synodic period
b) Lapsed time
c) Time period
d) Sidereal period
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Another method of expressing the time for one orbit is the revolution or synodic
period. One revolution (1 r) is the period of time that elapses between the successive passes of
the satellite over a given meridian of earth longitude. Naturally, the synodic and sidereal periods
differ from each other because of the earth’s rotation.

9. What is the angle of inclination for a satellite following an equatorial orbit?


a) 0°
b) 180°
c) 45°
d) 90°
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Another definition of inclination is the angle between the equatorial plane and the

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satellite orbital plane as the satellite enters the northern hemisphere. When the angle of

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inclination is 0°, the satellite is directly above the equator. Orbits with 0° inclination are
generally called equatorial orbits.

10. The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line
between the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s horizon is called as ___________
at
a) Angle of inclination
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b) Angle of elevation
c) Apogee angle
d) LOS angle
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View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: The angle of elevation of a satellite is the angle that appears between the line from
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the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line between the earth station’s antenna and the
earth’s horizon. If the angle of elevation is too small, the signals between the earth station and
the satellite have to pass through much more of the earth’s atmosphere. Because of the very low
powers used and the high absorption of the earth’s atmosphere.

11. To use a satellite for communication relay or repeater purposes what type of orbit will be the
best?
a) Circular orbit
b) Elliptical orbit
c) Geosynchronous orbit
d) Triangular orbit
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The best solution is to launch a synchronous or geostationary satellite. In a
geosynchronous earth orbit. Since the satellite remains apparently fixed, no special earth station
tracking antennas are required. The antenna is simply pointed at the satellite and remains in a
fixed position. With this arrangement, continuous communication is possible.

12. What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see?


a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 40
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Most communication satellites in use today are of the geosynchronous variety.
Approximately 40 percent of the earth’s surface can be “seen” or accessed from such a satellite.
Users inside that area can use the satellite for communication.

p
13. What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite called?

Ap
a) Satellite point
b) Subsatellite point
c) Supersatellite point
d) Overhead point
at
View Answer
H
Answer:b
Explanation: The satellite location is specified by a point on the surface of the earth directly
below the satellite. This point is known as the subsatellite point (SSP). The subsatellite point is
e

then located by using conventional latitude and longitude designations.


l
rp

Communication Systems”.
Pu

1. The satellite that is used as a relay to extend communication distance is called as __________
a) Relay satellites
b) Communication satellites
c) Repeater satellites
d) Geosynchronous satellites
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Communication satellites are not originators of information to be transmitted. If a
transmitting station cannot communicate directly with one or more receiving stations because of
line-of-sight restrictions, a satellite can be used. The transmitting station sends the information to
the satellite, which in turn re-transmits it to the receiving stations.

2. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______


a) Relay
b) Repeater
c) Transponder
d) Duplexer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a transponder. The
basic functions of a transponder are amplification and frequency translation. The reason for
frequency translation is that the transponder cannot transmit and receive on the same frequency.

3. The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency.


a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The original signal being transmitted from the earth station to the satellite is called

p
the uplink, and the re-transmitted signal from the satellite to the receiving stations is called the

Ap
downlink. Usually, the downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency. A typical uplink
frequency is 6 GHz, and a common downlink frequency is 4 GHz.

4. What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite?


at
a) More number of operating channel
b) Better reception
H
c) More gain
d) Redundancy
View Answer
l e

Answer: a
rp

Explanation: To be economically feasible, a satellite must be capable of handling several


channels. As a result, most satellites contain multiple transponders, each operating at a different
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frequency. Each transponder represents an individual communication channel.

5. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
a) More bandwidth
b) More spectrum space
c) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
d) Economically viable
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: VHF, UHF, and microwave signals penetrate the ionosphere with little or no
attenuation and are not refracted to earth. Lower frequencies undergo total internal refraction and
get reflected back to earth.

6. What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite communication?
a) Lesser attenuation
b) Less power requirements
c) More bandwidth
d) Overcrowding
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Most new communication satellites will operate in the Ku band. This upward shift
in frequency is happening because the C band is overcrowded. Many communication satellites
are in orbit now, most of them operating in the C band. However, there is some difficulty with
interference because of the heavy usage. The only way this interference will be minimized is to
shift all future satellite communication to higher frequencies.

7. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?


a) MF
b) Ku
c) X

p
d) C

Ap
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: MF is a lower frequency band than Ku, C and X bands and does not lie in the
at
microwave spectrum. Microwaves are used for satellite communication since the lower bands get
reflected by the ionosphere.
H

8. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary transmission and
has a bandwidth of 36MHz?
e

a) 32Mpbs
l

b) 72Mpbs
rp

c) 36Mpbs
d) 12Mpbs
Pu

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For binary transmission, the maximum theoretical data rate or channel capacity C
for a given bandwidth B is C = 2B = 2(36) =72Mpbs.

9. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out?
a) Reduce traffic load
b) More gain
c) High speed
d) Error detection
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: at times there is more traffic than there are transponders to handle it. For that
reason, numerous techniques have been developed to effectively increase the bandwidth and
signal-carrying capacity of the satellite. Two of these techniques are known as frequency reuse
and spatial isolation.

10. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In the frequency reuse technique two systems use the same frequency, although
operating on exactly the same frequencies, they are isolated from each other by the use of special
antenna techniques. For example, a vertically polarized antenna will not respond to a
horizontally polarized signal and vice versa. Or a left-hand circularly polarized (LHCP) antenna

p
will not respond to a right-hand circularly polarized (RHCP) signal and vice versa.

Ap
11. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the satellite into
smaller segments?
a) Spatial isolation
at
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
H
d) Modulation
View Answer
e

Answer: a
l

Explanation: By using narrow beam or spot beam antennas, the area on the earth covered by the
rp

satellite can be divided up into smaller segments. Earth stations in each segment may actually
use the same frequency, but because of the very narrow beam widths of the antennas, there is no
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interference between adjacent segments.

12. Spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) depends on satellite location and not frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Spatial-division multiple access uses spatial isolation technique. Earth stations in
each segment may actually use the same frequency, but because of the very narrow beam widths
of the antennas, there is no interference between adjacent segments. This technique is referred to
a spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) in that access to the satellite depends on location and
not frequency.
This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite
Subsystems”.

1. Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem?


a) Ground station
b) Power system
c) Telemetry tracking
d) Communication subsystem
View Answer

Answer: a

p
Explanation: The communication subsystem is the most important part of the satellite. It requires

Ap
varies additional systems like the power system, propulsion system, telemetry system for its
proper functioning. The ground system however is not one of the satellite subsystem and is
independent of the satellite. It is just a transponder to monitor and command the satellite.
at
2. Which of the following is not a part of the propulsion subsystem of a satellite?
a) Gyroscope
H
b) Jet thruster
c) AKM
d) Fuel control system
e

View Answer
l
rp

Answer: a
Explanation: The propulsion subsystem consists of the AKM(Apogee kick motor), jet thruster
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and the fuel control system. Gyroscopes and other attitude systems fall under the attitude control
subsystem.

3. Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth ground
station?
a) Navigational data, computer data, video
b) Computer data, navigational data, voice
c) Voice, video, computer data
d) Computer data
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An earth station takes the signals to be transmitted, known as baseband signals, and
modulates a microwave carrier. The three most common baseband signals are voice, video, and
computer data.
4. Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and re-transmits
the signal in a satellite?
a) Repeater
b) Relay
c) Transponder
d) Transducer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The uplink signals from earth are amplified, translated in frequency, and re-
transmitted on the downlink to one or more earth stations. The component that performs this
function is known as a transponder.

5. Why is there a huge spectrum space between the transmitted and received signal in satellite
communication?

p
a) Reduce interference

Ap
b) Maximum efficiency
c) Less attenuation
d) To reduce space occupied by filters
View Answer
at
Answer: a
H
Explanation: Because of the close proximity of the transmitter and the receiver in the satellite,
the high transmitter output power for the downlink is picked up by that satellite receiver.
Naturally, the uplink signal is totally obliterated. Furthermore, the transmitter output fed back
e

into the receiver input causes oscillation. To avoid this problem, the receiver and transmitter in
l

the satellite transponder are designed to operate at separate frequencies. In this way, they will not
rp

interfere with each other.


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6. Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink signal using two
mixers
a) Single conversion transponders
b) Dual conversion transponders
c) Regenerative transponders
d) Dual mixer transponder
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A dual-conversion transponder makes the frequency translation in two steps with
two mixers. No demodulation occurs.

7. In a regenerative transponder, the signal is demodulated and modulated again before


transmission.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A regenerative repeater demodulates the uplink signal after the frequency is
translated to some lower intermediate frequency. The recovered baseband signal is then used to
modulate the downlink signal.

8. What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency and
frequency reuse is implemented?
a) 12
b) 6
c) 24
d) 3
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Since in frequency reuse each channel can be used twice the numbers of

p
transponders are also doubled. 12 x 2 = 24 transponders, two for each frequency.

Ap
9. Why is it not possible to provide transmit function by wideband amplifier and mixer circuits?
a) Heavy attenuation
b) High power output over wideband is not possible
at
c) Economically not profitable
d) Weight of the system increases five fold
H
View Answer

Answer: b
e

Explanation: it is generally not possible to generate very high output power over such wide
l

bandwidth. The fact is that no components and circuits can do this well. The high-power
rp

amplifiers in most transponders are traveling-wave tubes that inherently have limited bandwidth.
They operate well over a small range but cannot deal with the entire 500-MHz bandwidth
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allocated to a satellite.

10. Which of the following is not true?


a) Battery is only used as a back up
b) When in orbit, solar power is always available
c) Battery is used for initial satellite orientation and stabilization
d) The batteries are charged using solar power
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When a satellite goes into an eclipse or when the solar panels are not properly
positioned, there is a temporary cut in solar power supply. In situations like this the batteries take
over temporarily and keep the satellite operating. The batteries are not large enough to power the
satellite for a long time; they are used as a backup system for eclipses, initial satellite orientation
and stabilization, or emergency conditions.
11. Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station to monitor and
control conditions in the satellite.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The telemetry system is used to report the status of the onboard subsystems to the
ground station. The telemetry system typically consists of various electronic sensors whose data
are selected by a multiplexer and then converted to a digital signal, which then modulates an
internal transmitter. This transmitter sends the telemetry information back to the earth station,
where it is recorded and monitored.

Q1. Satellite engine uses …………

p
Ap
a. Jet propulsion
b. Ion propulsion system
c. Liquid fuel
d. Solar jet
at
Answer : b
H

Q2. The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam is known as ……..
e

a. Beam width
l

b. Band width
rp

c. Footprint
d. Zone
Pu

Answer : c

Q3. What kind of battery used by older satellites ?

a. Lithium
b. Leclanche
c. Hydrogen
d. Magnesium

Answer : c

Q4. The location of AsiaSat I.

a. 105.5˚ East
b. 151.5˚ East
c. 115.5˚ East
d. 170.5˚ East

Answer : a

Q5. To make antenna more directional, either its size must be increased or

a. the number of its feed horns must be increased


b.the frequency of its transmission must be increased
c. its effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) must be increased
d. its footprint must be increased

Answer : b

Q6. India’s first domestic geostationary satellite 1NSAT-IA was launched on 10th April

p
1982 from

Ap
a. USSR
b.USA
c. UK
at
d. UP
H
Answer : b

Q7. Satellite launch sites are invariably located on Eastern seaboards to ensure that
l e

a. launch takes place eastward


rp

b. expenditure of propulsion fuel is reduced during plane changing


c. the satellite achieves circular orbit quickly
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d. spent rocket motor and other launcher debris falls into the sea

Answer : d

Q8. The owner of a communication satellite is usually required to keep the spacecraft on
station at its assigned place in the geosynchronous orbit with an accuracy of __________
degree.

a. 0.1
b. 1.0
c. 2.0
d. 0.5

Answer : a

Q9. The number of days when Earth’s shadow falls on a geosynchronous satellite is
a. 88
b. 277
c. 5
d. 10

Answer : a

Q10. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is ……….

a. Uplink
b. Downlink
c. Terrestrial
d. Earthbound

Answer : b

p
Q11. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of …………..

Ap
a. Circular polarization
b. Maneuverability
at
c. Beamwidth
d. Gain
H

Answer : a
e

Q12. What band does VSAT first operate?


l
rp

a. L-band
b. X-band
Pu

c. C-band
d. Ku-band

Answer : c

Q13. VSAT was made available in ……..

a. 1979
b. 1981
c. 1983
d. 1977

Answer : a

Q14. ……………. collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite


a. Helical antenna
b. Satellite dish
c. LNA
d. TWT

Answer : b

Q15. ………….is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth’s atmosphere.

a. Atmospheric loss
b. Path loss
c. Radiation loss
d. RFI

Answer : b

p
Q16. …………… is considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system.

Ap
a. Coverage
b. Cost
at
c. Access
d. Privacy
H

Answer : d
e

Q17. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite ……………
l
rp

a. Increases
b. Decreases
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c. Remains the same


d. None of the above

Answer : a

Q18. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earth’s surface is called ……………

a. Zone beam
b. Hemispheric beam
c. Spot beam
d. Global beam

Answer : d

Q19. A geosynchronous satellite


a. has the same period a that of the Earth
b. has a circular orbit
c. rotates in the equatorial plane
d. has all of the above

Answer : d

Q20. A transponder is a satellite equipment which

a. receives a signal from Earth station and amplifies


b. changes the frequency of the received signal
c. retransmits the received signal
d. does all of the above-mentioned functions

Answer : d

p
Ap
Q21. The INTELSAT-IV satellite launched in 1974 had two earth coverage antenna and
two narrower-angle antennas subtending 4.5°. The signal from narrow-angle antenna was
stronger than that from earth- coverage antenna by a factor of ……………
at
a. 17.34/4.5
b. 17.34/4.5
c. (17.34/4.5)2
H

d. (17.34/4.5)4
e

Answer : c
l
rp
Pu

Q22. The angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is ………..

a. 17.34°
b. 51.4°
c. 120°
d. 60°

Answer : a

Q23. The discussing sharing of a communication satellite by many geographically


dispersed Earth station, DAMA means

a. Demand-Assigned Multiple Access


b. Decibel Attenuated Microwave Access
c. Digital Analog Master Antenna
d. Dynamically-Assigned Multiple Access
Answer : a

Q24. A 20 m antenna gives a certain uplink gain at frequencies of 4/6 GHz. For getting
same gain in the 20/30 GHz band, antenna size required is ……… metre.

a. 100
b. 4
c. 1
d. 10

Answer : b

Q25. Of the four INSAT-I satellites planned by India so for, only …………… has proved to
be successful.

p
a. INSAT-IA

Ap
b. INSAT-IB
c. INSAT-IC
d. INSAT-ID
at
Answer : b

Q26. Radio broadcasting is a familiar example of …………….


H

a. space multiplexing
e

b. time multiplexing
l

c. frequency multiplexing
rp

d. none of the above


Pu

Answer : c

Q27. As compared to 17.34° antenna, the total increase in the signal relayed by 4.5°
antenna of INTELSAT-IV is ……….

a. 14.85
b. 220
c. 78
d. 3.85

Answer : b

Q28. Which one of the following statements regarding DSI is false?

a. It is a digital form of TASI


b. Though it is more efficient than TASI, it is much slower
c. A speaker has to wait (it at all) for only a few milliseconds for reallocation of channel
d. It has increased the capacity of satellite channels by a factor of 2.2 or more with out degrading
speech quality

Answer : b

Q29. Which one of the following statements regarding compandor is FALSE?

a. It compresses the higher-amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back
to normal again after demodulation.
b. It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c. For weaker signals it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error
d. Weaker signals, traverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing
error is reduced.

Answer : c

p
Q30. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the ………. ratio.

Ap
a. C/N
b. S/N
at
c. G/T
d. EIRP
H

Answer :a
e

Q31. The useful operational life of INSAT-IB (launched in 1983) is expected to end by
l
rp

a. 1992-93
b. 1991-92
Pu

c. 1989-90
d. 1993-94

Answer : c

Q32. At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is ……….

a. EHF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. SHF

Answer : d

Q33. Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the


a. moon
b. sun
c. earth
d. all of the above

Answer : d

Q34. Which one of the following statement is correct?

a. Satellite spacing is not affected by the bandwidth of the transmitting earth station
b. Beamwidth is independent of antenna size and frequency band used
c. The width of a beam in space is inversely proportional to the width of the transmitting antenna
d. Use of high-frequency bands permits less number of satellites to share the orbit

Answer : c

p
Ap
Q35. In a stop-and-wait ARQ system, the transmitting terminal

a. waits for positive or negative acknowled-gement from the receiving terminal after sending a
block
at
b. sends another block if positive acknowledge is received through ACK character
c. resends the previous block if negative acknowledgement is received through a NAK character
H
d. does not wait for acknowledgement after sending a block

Answer : d
l e

Q36. A geostationary satellite is one which


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a. hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth


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b. travels around the Earth in 24 hours


c. remains stationary above the Earth
d. appears stationary to everybody on Earth

Answer : d

Q37. The geostationary communication satellite APPLE is parked in the equatorial orbit at

a. 102° E longitude over Sumatra


b. 90° E longitude over Bangladesh
c. 74° E longitude over India
d. 67° E longitude over Pakistan

Answer : a

Q38. Power received from Sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite in
nearly…………. watt.
a. 100
b. 500
c. 2000
d. 1000

Answer : d

Q39. A certain sound has 10000 times more energy than another sound. The number of
times it would sound stronger to a listener is

a. 40
b. 10000
c. 100
d. 10

p
Answer : a

Ap
Q40. The bandwidth of C- band satellite frequency band in U.C is ………

a. 500 GHz
at
b. 1000 GHz
c. 1000 MHz
H
d. 500 MHz

Answer : d
e

Q41. Repeaters inside communication satellites are known as ………


l
rp

a. Trancievers
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b. Transponders
c. Transducers
d. TWT

Answer : b

Q42. What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites?

a. Germanium based panels


b. Silicon based panel
c. Galium Phosphate solar panel array

d. Galium Arsenide solar panel array

Answer : d
Q43. What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink frequency
in GHz band?

a. 3500 MHz
b. 4500 MHz
c. 2225 MHz
d. 2555 MHz

Answer : c

Q44. How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine Government from
ITU ?

a. 2
b. 4

p
c. 6

Ap
d. 8

Answer : c
at
Q45. The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satellite
array.
H

a. Series
b. Radial
e

c. Matrix
l

d. Shunt
rp

Answer : d
Pu

Q46. What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna elements
in a mobile satellite array ?

a. Radial divider
b. Divider/combiner
c. Radial combiner
d. Radial multiplexer

Answer : a

Q47. INTELSAT stands for ………….

a. Intel Satellite
b. International Telephone Satellite
c. International Telecommunications Satellite
d. International Satellite
Answer : c

Q48. …………. is an artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or)
another body of solar systems.

a. Satellite
b. moon
c. sun
d. none of the above

Answer : a

Q49. ………… is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive, amplify and retransmit
data to earth stations.

p
a. Optical communication

Ap
b. Digital communication
c. Analog communication
d. Satellite communication
at
Answer : d

Q50. ………… law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be
H

an ellipse.
e

a. Newton’s 1st law


b. kepler’s first law
l
rp

c. kepler’s second law


d. kepler’s third law
Pu

Answer : b

Q51. Which law states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas
in its orbital plane, focused at the barycenter.

a. Newton’s 1st law


b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law

Answer : c

Q52. Which law states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the
cube of the mean distance between the two bodies. A3 = 3/n2
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law

Answer : d

Q53. What is meant by GPRS ?

a. General packet receiver service


b. General packet radio service
c. Global packet radio service
d. none of these

Answer : b

p
Ap
Q54. Television transmission is an example of which type of transmission?

a. Simplex
b. Half Duplex
at
c. Full Duplex
d. None of the above
H

Answer : a
e

Q55. What are the limitations of FDMA-satellite access?


l
rp

a. If the traffic in the downlink is much heavier than that in the uplink, then FDMA is relatively
inefficient.
Pu

b. Compared with TDMA, FDMA has less flexibility in reassigning channels.


c. Carrier frequency assignments are hardware controlled
d. all of the above

Answer : d

Q56. What is meant by EIRP?

a. Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power


b. Energy Isotropic Radiated Power
c. Equivalent Isotropic Resonance Power
d. none of these

Answer : a
Q57. A satellite downlink at 12 GHz operates with a transmit power of 6 W and an antenna
gain of 48.2 dB. Calculate the EIRP in dBW.

a. 45 dBW
b. 50 dBW
c. 75 dBW
d. 56 dBW

Answer : d

Q58. The range between a ground station and a satellite is 42000 km. Calculate the free
space loss a frequency of 6 GHz.

a. 100 dB
b. 150 dB

p
c. 175dB

Ap
d. 200.4dB

Answer : d
at
Q59. The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is
known as ……….
H

a. Electric flux density


b. Magnetic flux density
e

c. Saturation flux density


l

d. Photon flux density


rp

Answer : c
Pu

Q60. ………….. is necessary to prevent the bursts from overlapping.

a. Preamble
b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency
d. Decoding quenching

Answer : b

Q61. In some phase detection systems, the phase detector must be allowed for some time to
recover from one burst before the next burst is receiving by it. This waiting time is known
as …………

a. Preamble
b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency
d. Decoding quenching

Answer : d

Q62. …………. is a measure of the fraction of frame time which is used for the
transmission of traffic.

a. . Preamble
b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency
d. Decoding quenching

Answer : c

p
Q63. What is meant by OMT ?

Ap
a. Orthogonal mode tube
b. Orthogonal modulation tube
c. Orthogonal mode transducer
at
d. none of these
H
Answer : c

Q64. Which of the following comes under methods of multiple access techniques?
l e

a. FDMA & TDMA


rp

b. SCPC & CDMA


c. CDMA & GSM
Pu

d. none of these

Answer : a

Q65. What is meant by SCPC?

a. Single channel per carrier


b. Single carrier per channel
c. Single code per channel
d. none of these

Answer : a

Q66. For satellite communication, standard Earth stations have antenna diameters in the
range of ………….. metre.
a. 27.5 to 30
b. 10 to 15
c. 30 to 50
d. 5 to 10

Answer : a

Q67. The most effective anti jamming technique is ………..

a. frequency hopping
b. spread-spectrum modulation
c. key leverage
d. once-only key

Answer : b

p
Ap
Q68. The ending part of the popular teleserial Mahabharat will be beamed to the viewers

a. WESTAT
b. INSAT-IC
at
c. ARABSAT
d. INSAT-ID
H

Answer : c
e

Q69. A communication satellite is a repeater between …………… and …………..


l
rp

a. a transmitting station and a receiving station


b. a transmitting station and many receiving station
Pu

c. many transmitting station and many receiving station


d. none

Answer : c

Q70. While keeping the down-link frequency constant, the diameter of a satellite antenna is
reduced by half. To offer the same EIRP over the increased coverage area, the RF output
power has to be increases by a factor of ………..

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

Answer : b
Q71. The Sun blots out the transmission of a geosynchronous satellite twice a year when
satellite passes directly in front of it. This outage lasts for about

a. 10 minutes on 5 consecutive days


b. 5 minutes on 10 consecutive days
c. 30 minutes for 5 consecutive days
d. one hour for 5 consecutive days

Answer : a

Q72. In satellite communication, frequency modulation is used because satellite channel


has

a. small bandwidth and negligible noise


b. large bandwidth and severe noise

p
c. maximum bandwidth and minimum noise

Ap
d. high modulation index

Answer : b
at
Q73. Which of the following factor does NOT contribute to the drift of a geostationary
satellite from its stationary position in space?
H

a. Pressure of solar radiations


b. Gravitational changes due to Sun and Moon
e

c. Oblateness of the Earth


l

d. Weight of the satellite


rp

Answer : d
Pu

Q74. In communication satellites, the up-link normally operates at a higher frequency than
the down-link because it

a. gives a narrow beam shining into space


b. results in lesser signal attenuation
c. gives better beam-shaping
d. is easier to polarize a high frequency beam

Answer : a

Q75. For global communication, the number of satellites needed is

a. 1
b. 3
c. 10
d. 5
Answer : b

Q76. The noise temperature of sky is about __________ °K.

a. 100
b. 273
c. 0
d. 30

Answer : d

Q77. Assuming earth to be a sphere of radius 6400 km and height of a geosynchronous


satellite above Earth as 36000 km, the velocity of a geosynchronous satellite is __________
km/hr.

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a. 28000

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b. 15000
c. 36000
d. 11100
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Answer : d

Q78. In the context of error detection in satellite transmission, ARQ stands for ……………
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a. Automatic Repeat Request


e

b. Automatic Relay Request


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c. Accelerated Recovery Request


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d. Automatic Radiation Quenching


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Answer : a

Q79. To cover all inhabited regions of the Earth, the number of geosynchronous
communication satellites required

a. 5
b. 3
c. 10
d. 2

Answer : b

Q80. Depending on the technique used, digitized television requires a bit rate between
__________ millions.

a. 40 and 92.5
b. 25 and 60
c. 30 and 82.5
d. 2

Answer : a

Q81. In selecting a satellite system, the First determining factor is its

a. EIRP
b. antenna size
c. coverage a sea
d. antenna gain

Answer : c

Q82. Phase modulation is commonly-used for data transmission mainly because

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a. phase can be varied from + 180° to 180°
b. it is resistant to the effects of noise
c. demodulation is very easy
d. it gives highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel
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Answer : b
H

Q83. India’s Polar Satellite Launch vehicle (PSLV) to be ready in 1991 is designed to
launch 1000 kg spacecraft into __________ orbit.
l e

a. geostationary
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b. equatorial
c. polar
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d. sun-synchronous polar

Answer : d

Q84. Most of the communication satellites are stationed to the West of their service areas in
order to reduce their ………..

a. eclipse period
b. loss of power
c. battery power provision
d. mass of station-keeping fuel

Answer : c

Q85. The degradation of satellite solar cells with time is mainly due to
a. their bombardment by electrons
b. collection of meteoric dust
c. increase in resistivity of silicon
d. gradual leakage of charge carriers from the semiconductor material

Answer : a

Q86. The echo heard by a telephone user on a satellite channel can be removed by using

a. a vocoder
b. a multiplexer
c. echo suppressor
d. digital techniques

Answer : c

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Ap
Q87. The 1150 kg geosynchronous satellite INSAT-IA parked 36000 km above India had
greatly improved India’s

a. intelligence gathering capacity


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b. domestic communications
c. meteorological capability
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d. both (b) and (c)

Answer : d
e

Q88. Presently, the worlds’s largest and most advanced multi-purpose communication
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satellite is ……………
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a. INSAT-2
b. Intelsat-V
c. INSAT-ID
d. Olympus-I

Answer : d

Q89. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to
……..

a. avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links


b. avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signal and weak in coming signal
c. minimise free-space losses
d. maximise antenna gain

Answer : b
Q90. Regarding TASI which one of the following statements is wrong?

a. It snatches the channel in his speech and may allocate it to another speaker needing it.
b. The same speaker is reassigned a channel almost instantly when he speaks again even when
the circuit is heavily loaded.
c. It increases the overall utilization of the transmission channel.
d. Intercontinental callers sometimes confuse the effects of TASI with the effects of satellite
delay

Answer : b

Q91. Master control facility (MCF) for INSAT-2 series satellites is located at …………..

a. Madras
b. New Delhi

p
c. Leh

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d. Hassan

Answer : d
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Q92. The communication satellite INSAT-IB had to take up the job of INSAT-IA because
the latter collapsed within …………… months of its launch.
H

a. 12
b. 20
e

c. 5
l

d. 36
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Answer : c
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Q93. The distance of a synchronous satellite from Earth’s surface is ………….. km.

a. 300
b. 10000
c.35900
d. 5

Answer : c

Q94. The traffic-handling capacity of an Earth station on the uplink depends on …………

a. its EIRP
b. satellite antenna gain
c. noise associated with the satellite
d. all of the above
Answer : d

Q95. System satellites orbit the Earth once in …………. hrs.

a. 24
b. 12
c. 1
d. 6

Answer : a

Q96. The lowest frequency used in satellite communications is ……….. GHz.

a. 0.8
b. 3

p
c. 18

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d. 30

Answer : a
at
Q97. Geosynchronous satellites are always launched in the equatorial plane because it is
the only plane which provides
H

a. 24-hour orbit
b. stationary satellite
e

c. global communication
l

d. zero-gravity environs
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Answer : c
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Q98. A few minutes disturbance in space communications occurs twice a year during
Sunblinding when __________ are in line.

a. Sun and satellite


b. Sun and Earth station
c. Satellite and Earth station
d. Sun, satellite and Earth station

Answer : d

Q99. After the death of INSAT-IB, the mainstay of the entire Indian satellite network for
some time to come would be

a. INSTELSAT-V
b. INSAT-ID
c. INSAT-2
d. ARABSAT

Answer : d

Q100. For satellite transmission, analog signals may be converted into digital form with the
help of ……………..

a. modem
b. transponder
c. codec
d. compandor

Answer : c

p
Q101. The maximum signal propagation time of a geosynchronous satellite transmission is
about ……….. millisecond

Ap
a. 540
b. 270
at
c. 135
d. 1080
H

Answer : b
e

Q102. The life time of a geosynchronous communication ……..


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a. 5
b. 10
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c. 20
d. 50

Answer : b

Q103. A typical error rate on satellite circuits is one bit error in

a. 107
b. 103
c. 102
d. 1010

Answer : a

Q104. In satellite communication, highly directional antennas are used to


a. direct the spot beam to a particular region of space on Earth
b. strengthen the beam to overcome the cosmic noise
c. make corrections in change of polarisation of the beam
d. select a particular channel in transmission and reception

Answer : a

Q105. The average noise temperature of Earth, as viewed from space, is ………. °K

a. 254
b. 303
c. 100
d. 500

Answer : a

p
Ap
Q106. Low-orbit satellites are not used for communications because they

a. produce sonic booms


b. do not provide 24 hour/ day contact to the users on Earth
at
c. heat up and melt
d. none
H

Answer : c
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rp
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Short Answers Questions

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____________________________________________
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BE (2015)Pattern
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e

404190 Broadband Communication Systems )


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Satellite Communication
ORBIT DYNAMICS

1. What is Satellite?

An artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or) another body of
solar systems.

Types: Information satellites and Communication Satellites

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2. Define Satellite Communication. It is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive,

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amplify and retransmit data to earth stations.

3. State Kepler’s first law.


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It states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
H
An ellipse has two focal points F1 and F2. The center o

f mass of the two body system,


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termed the barycenter is always centered on one of the


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foci. e = [square root of (a2– b2) ] / a


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4. State Kepler’s second law.

It states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas in its orbital
plane, focused at the barycenter.

5. State Kepler’s third law.

It states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the cube of the
mean distance between the two bodies.

a3= 3 / n22

Where, n = Mean motion of the satellite in rad/sec.

3 = Earth’s geocentric gravitational constant. With the

n in radians per sec. the orbital period in second is given by,


P=2/n

6. Define apogee. The point farthest from the earth.

7. Define Perigee. The point closest from the earth.

8. What is line of apsides? The line joining the perigee and apogee through the center of the
earth.

9. Define ascending node. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going
from south to north.

10. Define descending node. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going
from north to south.

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very small with the result that a region that is only a few hundred km in diameter is
illuminated on earth.

Ap
14. What is meant by momentum wheel stabilization?

During the spin stabilization, flywheels may be used rather than spinning the satellite.
at
These flywheels are termed as momentum wheels.
H

15. What is polarization interleaving?


e

Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternatively polarized left hand circular
and right hand circular to reduce interference to acceptable levels.
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rp

This is referred to as polarization interleaving.


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16. Define S/N ratio.

The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of signal power to
noise power at the receiver output. This is known as S/N ratio.

17. What is noise weighting?

The method used to improve the post detection signal to

noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.

18. What is noise power spectral density?

Noise power per unit Bandwidth is termed as the noise p

ower spectral density.


19. What is an intermodulation noise?

Intermodulation distortion in high power amplifier can result in signal product which
appear as noise and it is referred to as intermodulation noise.

20. What is an antenna loss?

It is added to noise received as radiation and the total antenna noise temperature is the
sum of the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.

21. Define sky noise.

It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation w

hich is present throughout universe and which appears to originate from matter in any

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form, at

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finite temperature.

22. Define noise factor.


at
An alternative way of representing amplifier noise is
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by means of its noise factor. Indefining the noise factor of an amplifiers, usually taken as
290 k.
e

23. What is TWTA?


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TWTA means Traveling Wave Tube Amplifier. The TWTA i


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s widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to the transtube
and its power supplies.

24. What is an OMT?

The polarization separation takes place in a device kno

wn as an orthocoupler or Orthogonal Mode Transducer.

SATELLITE ACCESS

1. What is a single mode of operation?

A transponder channel abroad a satellite may be fully loaded by a single transmission from
an earth station. This is referred to as a single access mode of operation.
2. What are the methods of multiple access techniques?

FDMA – Frequency Division Multiple Access Techniques

TDMA – Time Division Multiple Access Techniques

3. What is an CDMA?

CDMA – Code Division Multiple Access Techniques

In this method, each signal is associated with a particular code that is used to spread the
signal in frequency and time.

4. Give the types of CDMA.

• Spread spectrum multiple access

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• Pulse address multiple access

5. What is SCPC?
at
SCPC means Single Channel Per Carrier. In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36
MHz) may be occupied by a number of single carriers, each associated with its own
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voice circuit.
e

6. What is a thin route service?


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rp

SCPC systems are widely used on lightly loaded routes, this type of service being referred
to as a thin route service.
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7. What is an important feature of Intelsat SCPC system?

The system is that each channel is voice activated. This me

ans that on a two way telephone conversation only one carriers is operative at any one
time.

8. What is an TDMA? What are the advantages?

TDMA – Time Division Multiple Access Techniques Only one carrier uses the transponder
at any one time, and therefore Inter modulation products, which results from the non-
linear amplification of multiple carriers are absent.

Advantages : The transponder traveling wave tube can be operated at maximum power
output.
9. What is preamble?

Certain time slots at the beginning of each burst are used to carry timing and synchronizing
information. These time slots collectively are referred to as preamble.

10. Define guard time.

It is necessary to prevent the bursts from overlapping. The guard time will vary from burst
to burst depending on the accuracy with which the various bursts can be

positioned within each frame.

11. What is meant by decoding quenching?

In certain phase detection systems, the phase detector must

p
be allowed for some time to recover from one burst before the next burst is received by it.

Ap
This is known as decoding quenching.

12. What is meant by direct closed loop feedback?


at
The timing positions are reckoned from the last bit of the unique word in the preamble.
H
The loop method is also known as direct closed loop feed

back.
l e

13. What is meant by feedback closed loop control?


rp

The synchronization information is transmitted back to an earth station from a distant, that
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is termed feedback closed loop control.

14. Define frame efficiency.

It is measure of the fraction of frame time used for the transmission of traffic.

15. What is meant by digital speech interpolation?

The point is that for a significant fraction of the time, the channel is available for other
transmission and advantages are taken of this in a form of demand assignment known

as digital speech interpolation.

16. What is meant by telephone load activity factor?

The fraction of time a transmission channel is active is kno

wn as the telephone load activity factor.


17. What are the types of digital speech interpolation?

• Digital time assignment speech interpolation

• Speech predictive encoded communications

18. What is meant by freeze out?

It has assumed that a free satellite channel will be found for any incoming speed spurt, but
there is a finite probability that all channels will be occupied and the speech spurt lost.
Losing a speech spurt in this manner is referred to as freeze out.

19. What is DSI?

The DSI gain is the ratio of the number of terrestrial space channels to number of satellite

p
channels. It depends on the number of satellite channels provided as well as the design
objectives.

Ap
20. What are the advantages of SPEC method over DSI

method?
at
Freeze out does not occur during overload conditions.
H

21. Define satellite switched TDMA?


e

Space Division Multiplexing can be realized by switching the antenna interconnections in


l

synchronism with the TDMA frame rate, this being known as satellite switched TDMA.
rp

22. What is SS / TDMA?


Pu

A repetitive sequence of satellite switch modes, also referred to as SS / TDMA.

23. What is processing gain?

The jamming or interference signal energy is reduced by

a factor known as the processing gain.

24. What is burst code word?

It is a binary word, a copy of which is stored at each earth station.

25. What is meant by burst position acquisition?

A station just entering, or reentering after a long delay to acquire its correct slot position is
known as burst position acquisition.
26. What is an single access?

A transponder channel aboard a satellite may be fully

loaded by a single transmission from earth station.

27. What is an multiple access technique?

A transponder to be loaded by a number of carriers.

These may originate from a number of earth station may transmit one or more of the
carriers. This mode of

operation known as multiple access technique.

28. What is meant by frequency reuse?

p
Ap
The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth station

s widely separated geographically but transmitting on the same frequency that is known as
frequency reuse.
at
29. What is meant by space division multiple access?
H

The satellite as a whole to be accessed by earth stations widely separated geographically


but transmitting on the same frequency that is known as frequency reuse. This method of
e

access known as space division multiple


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access.
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30. What is an error detecting code?

A code which allows for the detection of errors is terme

d as error detecting code.

31. What are the limitations of FDMA-satellite access?

a. If the traffic in the downlink is much heavier than that in the uplink, then FDMA is
relatively inefficient.

b. Compared with TDMA, FDMA has less flexibility in r

eassigning channels.

c. Carrier frequency assignments are hardware controlled.

32. Write about pre-assigned TDMA satellite access.


Example for pre-assigned TDMA is CSC for the SPADE net

work. CSC can accommodate upto 49 earth stations in the network and 1 reference station.
All bursts are of equal length. Each burst contains 128 bits. The bit rate is 128 Kb / s.

33. Write about demand assigned TDMA satellite access.

The burst length may be kept constant and the number f bursts per frame used by the given
station is varied when the demand is varied.

EARTH SEGMENT

1. Define earth segment.

Earth segment of a satellite communication system consist

p
s of transmit earth station and receive earth station.

Ap
Example : TV Receive Only systems (TVRO systems)

2. Give the difference between KU-band and the C-band receive only systems. Operating
at
frequency of outdoor unit.
H
3. What is mean by ODU and IDU.

ODU – The Home Receiver Outdoor Unit


l e

IDU – The Home Receiver Indoor Unit


rp

4. Explain about MATV system.


Pu

MATV – Master Antenna TV system.

It is used to provide reception of DBS TV channels to the user group.

Example : Apartment users

It consists of one outdoor unit and various indoor units. Each user can independently
access all the channels.

5. Write about CATV system.

CATV – Community Antenna TV system.

As in MATV system, it consists of oneoutdoor unit and separ

ate feeds for each sense of polarization.


6. Define S/N ratio.

The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to

refer to the ratio of signal power to noise power at the receiver output. This is known as
S/N ratio.

7. What is noise weighting?

The method used to improve the post detection signal to

noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.

8. What is an EIRP?

EIRP means Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power. It is a

p
Ap
measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna.

9. What is noise power spectral density?


at
Noise power per unit Bandwidth is termed as the noise p

ower spectral density.


H

10. What is an inter modulation noise?


e

Inter modulation distortion in high power amplifier can result in signal product which
l
rp

appear as noise and it is referred to as inter modulation noise.

11. What is an antenna loss?


Pu

It is added to noise received as radiation and the total antenna noise temperature is the
sum of the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.

12. Define noise factor.

An alternative way of representing amplifier noise is

by means of its noise factor. In defining the noise factor of an amplifiers, usually taken as
290 k.

13. A satellite downlink at 12 GHz operates with a tra

nsmit power of 6 W and an antenna gain of 48.2 dB. Calculate the EIRP in dBW.

EIRP = 10 log 6 + 48.2 = 56 dBW


14. The range between a ground station and a satellite is 42000 km. Calculate the free

space loss a frequency of 6 GHz.

[Free space loss] = 32.4 + 20 log 42000 + 20 log 6000

= 200.4 dB

15. An antenna has a noise temperature of 35 K and it is matched into a receiver which has
a noise temperature of 100 K. Calculate the noise power density and the noise

power for a BW of 36 MHz.

N0 = ( 35 + 100 ) * 1.38 * 10-23= 1.86 * 1 -21

JP N = 1.86 * 10-21* 36 * 106= 0.067 PW

p
Ap
16. Define Saturation flux density.

The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is
termed the saturation flux density.
at
SATELLITE APPLICATIONS
H

1. Give the 3 different types of applications with respect to satellite systems.


e

• The largest international system (Intelsat)


l
rp

• The domestic satellite system (Dom sat) in U.S.

• U.S. National oceanographic and atmospheric administra


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tions (NOAA)

2. Mention the 3 regions to allocate the frequency for satellite services.

a. Region1: It covers Europe, Africa and Mangolia

b. Region2: It covers North & South Ameriaca and Greenland.

c. Region3: It covers Asia, Australia and South West Pacif

ic.

3. Give the types of satellite services.

a. Fixed satellite service


b. Broadcasting satellite service

c. Mobile satellite service

d. Navigational satellite services

e. Meteorological satellite services

4. What is mean by Dom sat?

Domestic Satellites. These are used for voice, data and v

ideo transmissions within the country.

5. What is mean by INTELSAT?

p
International Telecommunication Satellite.

Ap
6. What is mean by SARSAT?

Search and rescue satellite.


at
7. What are the applications of Radarsat?
H
a. Shipping and fisheries.

b. Ocean feature mapping


l e

d. Iceberg detection
rp

e. Crop monitoring
Pu

8. What is ECEF?

The geocentric equatorial coordinate system is used with the GPS system.It is called as
earth centered, earth fixed coordinate system.

9. What is dilution of precision?

Position calculations involve range differences and where the ranges are nearly equal, any
error is greatly magnified in the difference. This effect, brought a result of the satellite
geometry is known as dilution of precision.

10. What is PDOP?

With the GPS system, dilution of position is taken into account through a factor known as
the position dilution of precision.
11. What is DBS?

Satellites are used to provide the broadcast transmissions. It is used to provide direct
transmissions into the home. The service provided is known as Direct Broadcast

Satellite services.

Example : Audio, TV and internet services.

12. Give the frequency range of US DBS systems with hig

h power satellites.

a. Uplink frequency range is 17.3 GHz to 17.8 GHz

b. Downlink frequency range is 12.2 GHz to 12.7 GHz

p
Ap
13. Give the frequency range of US DBS systems with med

ium power satellites.


at
a. Uplink frequency range is 14 GHz to 14.5 GHz

b. Downlink frequency range is 11.7 GHz to 12.2 GHz


H

14. What is DTH?


e

DBS television is also known as Direct To Home ( DTH ).


l
rp

15. Write about bit rates for digital television.


Pu

It depends format of the picture.

Uncompressed Bit rate = (Number of pixels in a frame) *

(Number of pixels per second) * (Number of bits used to encode each pixel)

16. Give the satellite mobile services.

a. DBS – Direct Broadcast satellite

b. VSATS – Very Small Aperture Terminals

c. MSATS – Mobile Satellite Service

d. GPS – Global Positioning Systems

e. Micro Sats
f. Orb Comm – Orbital Communications Corporation

g. Iridium

17. What is GCC and GEC?

GCC - Gateway Control Centers

GEC – Gateway Earth Stations

18. What is INMARSAT?

It is the first global mobile satellite communication system operated at Lband and
internationally used by 67 countries for communication between ships and coast so that
mergency life saving may be provided. Also it provides modern communication services to

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maritime, land mobile, aeronautical and other users.

Ap
19. List out the regions covered by INMARSAT.

• Atlantic ocean region, east (AOR-E)


at
• Atlantic ocean region, west (AOR-W)
H
• Indian ocean region (IOR)\

• Pacific ocean region (POR)


l e

20.What is INSAT?
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INSAT – Indian National Satellite System.


Pu

INSAT is a Indian National Satellite System for telecommunications, broadcasting,


meteorology and search and rescue services. It was commissioned in 1983. INSAT

was the largest domestic communication system in the sia-Pacific region.

20. List out the INSAT series.

• INSAT-1

• INSAT-2

• INSAt-2A

• INSAT-2E

• INSAT-3
21.What is GSM?

GSM (Global System for Mobile communications: originally from Groupe Spécial Mobile) is
the most popular standard or mobile phones in the world. GSM differs from its
predecessors in that both signaling and speech channels are digital, and thus is considered
a second generation (2G) mobile phone system. This has also meant that data
communication was easy to build into the system.

22.What is GPRS?

General packet radio service (GPRS) is a packet oriented mobile data service available to
users of the 2G cellular communication systems global system for mobile communications
(GSM), as well as in the 3G systems. In the 2G systems, GPRS provides data rates of 56-114
kbit/s.

p
23. Define DAB.

Ap
DAB - Digital Audio Broadcast at
H
l e
rp
Pu
1) Which among the following misalignments give/gives rise to the occurrence of splice loss?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Longitudinal separation between the end-faces of fiber


b. Angular tilt between fiber ends
c. Transverse offset between fiber ends
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

2) Which among the following stages is/are adopted in Splice Loss Experiment?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Translational
b. Rotational
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Both a and b


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

3) In chromatic dispersion, which parameter for the modulation of the received signal is measured with the help of a vector voltmete
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Period
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Phase
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

4) For measuring the shape of input pulse in time-domain intermodal dispersion method, the test fiber is replaced by another fiber
whose length is less than ___ of the test fiber.
- Published on 23 Nov 15
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 20%
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 1%
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

5) Why is an electrical isolation required between several portions of an electronic circuit?


- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Provision of high voltage protection


b. Reduction in noise level
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Both a & b


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

6) Basically, solitons are pulses which propagates through the fiber without showing any variation in ______
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Amplitude
b. Velocity
c. Shape
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

7) Which band/s specify/ies the operation range of Erbium doped fiber amplifier (EDFA)?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. By O band
b. By C band
c. By S band
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: By C band
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

8) In an optical network, increase in the number of lasers ________the bit rate.


- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Increases
b. Stabilizes
c. Decreases
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Increases
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

9) Which among the following parameters is/are decided by the front-end of a receiver?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Sensitivity
b. Bandwidth
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Both a and b


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

10) Which nature of charge carriers give rise to the current fluctuations thereby resulting into the generation of shot noise?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Continuous
b. Discrete
c. Sampled
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Discrete
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

11) On which factor/s do/does the response time of photodiode depend/s?


- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Diffusion time of photo carriers outside the depletion region

b. Diffusion time of photo carriers within the depletion region

c. RC time constant

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

12) In an eye-diagram, digital signals with very bad interference resembles the shape of _____
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. circle

b. rectangle

c. triangle

d. straight line

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: straight line


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

13) When an optical signal is incident on a photo-detector, which noise originate/s due to statistical nature of production and collectio
of photoelectrons?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Dark Current Noise

b. Quantum Noise

c. Surface Leakage Current noise


d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Quantum Noise


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

14) Which photodiodes are crucially applicable to overcome the bandwidth-quantum efficiency trade-off along with its resemblence
the pyramid structure?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Mushroom Waveguide Photodiode

b. Traveling Wave Photodiode

c. Resonant Cavity Photodiode

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Mushroom Waveguide Photodiode


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

15) According to frequency response of photo-detector, the modulation frequency at which the output current decreases to ________
peak value.
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. one-third

b. one-fourth

c. half

d. one-tenth

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: half
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

16) The spectral response of an ideal photodetector depicts its efficiency as a function of _________
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. amplitude

b. frequency

c. period

d. wavelength

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: wavelength
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

17) In the dynamic response of Injection Laser Diode (ILD), the delay which is followed by ____ frequency damped oscillations give
to the generation of relaxation oscillations.
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Low

b. Medium

c. High

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: High
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

18) Which type of injection laser involves the use of geometry for fabrication of the multimode injection laser with a single or small
number of lateral modes?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Gain guided laser

b. Index guided laser

c. Quantum well laser

d. Quantum dot laser

Answer Explanation Related Ques


ANSWER: Gain guided laser
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

19) Which modes are acknowledged due to their association with electromagnetic field and beam profile in the direction perpendicul
to the plane of pn junction?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Longitudinal Modes

b. Transverse Modes

c. Lateral Modes

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Transverse Modes


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

20) Which among the following characteristics of Laser light specifies the precise movement of all individual light waves together
through time and space?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Monochromatic

b. Directional

c. Coherent

d. Brightness

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Coherent
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

21) Which optical devices are adopted or applicable for routing signals from one waveguide to another?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Optical Combiner
b. Optical Splitter
c. Optical Coupler
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Optical Coupler


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

22) Which type of fiber-optic coupler causes the distribution of an optical power from more than two input ports among the several
output ports?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Star Coupler
b. Tree Coupler
c. X Coupler
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Star Coupler


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

23) What is/ are the consequence/s of Self Phase Modulation in non-linear optics?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Modification in pulse spectrum


b. Limited transmission rate
c. Dispersion effect
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

24) Which reason/s is/are responsible for the occurrence of non-linear Cross Phase Modulation (XPM)?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Difference in transmission phase of peak pulse & leading or trailing edges of pulse
b. Third-order optical non-linearity
c. Intensity dependence of refractive index
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Intensity dependence of refractive index


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

25) In cables, water is prevented from filling the spaces with __________resistant compounds.
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. moisture
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. stress
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: moisture
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

26) Why are plastic clad silica fiber optic cables not used widely?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Difficulty in connector application due to excessive plasticity in cladding


b. Difficulty in bonding
c. Insolubility in organic solvents
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

27) Which among the following represents the lateral shift of a light beam on reflection at a dielectric interface?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Doppler's Shift
b. Goos-Haenchen's Shift
c. Frequency Shift
d. Phase Shift
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Goos-Haenchen's Shift


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

28) The order of mode is equal to the number of field____ across the guide.
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Zeros
b. Poles
c. Ones
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Zeros
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

29) In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive index of core is always _______the refractive index of cladding.
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Greater than


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

30) If a noisy channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz with signal to noise ratio of about 1, what would be the maximum capacity of the
channel?
- Published on 23 Nov 15

a. 2 Mb/sec
b. 4 Mb/sec
c. 6 Mb/sec
d. 8 Mb/sec
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 4 Mb/sec
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

31) For neglecting the pulse dispersion in the digital systems, the rms width of fiber impulse response must be _________one-quarter
the pulse spacing.
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Less than

b. Equal to

c. Greater than

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Less than


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

32) Consider the assertions/ characteristics given below. Which type of attenuation measurement technique exhibits these
characteristics?

1. Necessity of accessing both ends of fiber.


2. Measurements corresponding to specific wavelengths.
3. Requirement of spectral response over a range of wavelengths.
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Cutback Technique

b. Insertion Loss Technique

c. Use of OTDR Technique

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Cutback Technique


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

33) Which among the following is/are responsible for generating attenuation of an optical power in fiber?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Absorption

b. Scattering
c. Waveguide effect

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

34) In circulator, an optical path of signal follows _______


- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. An open loop

b. A closed loop

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: A closed loop


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

35) Which among the following controls the length of Fabry-Perot interferometer so that it can act as a tunable optical filter?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Transducer

b. Tachometer

c. Multimeter

d. Phase-meter

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Transducer
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

36) Which category/ies of wavelength division multiplexer comprise/s two 3dB couplers where the splitting of an incident beam takes
place into two fiber paths, followed by the recombination with second 3-dB coupler?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Interference filter based devices

b. Angular dispersion based devices

c. Mach-Zehnder Interferometers

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Mach-Zehnder Interferometers


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

37) Which among the following are the disadvantages of an optical feedback transimpedance receiver?

A. Increase in receiver input capacitance


B. Increase in dark current
C. Decrease in receiver input capacitance
D. Decrease in dark current
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. A & B

b. C & D

c. A & D

d. B & C

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: A & B
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

38) In high impedance preamplifier, how are the noise sources kept to minimum level?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. By reducing dark current with proper selection of photodiode

b. By reducing thermal noise of biasing resistor


c. By using high impedance amplifier

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

39) Which type of preamplifier plays a crucial role in reducing the effect of thermal noise?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Low Impedance Pre-amplifier

b. High Impedance Preamplifier

c. Transimpedance Preamplifier

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: High Impedance Preamplifier


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

40) In pyroelectric photodetectors, the consequent increase in dielectric constant due to temperature variation by the photon absorpt
is generally measured as change in _______
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. resistance

b. inductance

c. admittance

d. capacitance

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: capacitance
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

41) In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is ______ bright from all directions.
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Less

b. Equally

c. More

d. Unpredictably

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Equally
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

42) The small section of fiber which is coupled to the optical source is known as _________
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Flylead

b. Pigtail

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Both a and b


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

43) In a laser structure, the existence of standing waves is possible at frequencies for which the distance between the mirrors is an
integral number of ________
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. λ / 2

b. λ / 4

c. λ / 6

d. λ / 8

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: λ / 2
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

44) Consider a crystal of ruby laser whose length is 6 cm and the refractive index is 1.8, emits the wavelength of about 0.55 μm. Wha
will be the value of number of longitudinal modes?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. 3.9 x 105

b. 4.9 x 105

c. 5.6 x 105

d. 7.7 x 105

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 3.9 x 105


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

45) In Stimulated Emission, which among the following parameters of generated photon is/are similar to the photon of incident wave
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Phase

b. Frequency

c. Polarization & direction of travel

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

46) How many mating cycles are being rated by typically matched SC Connectors?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. 500

b. 600
c. 800

d. 1000

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 1000
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

47) Which among the following is regarded as a keyed bayonet connector along with its feasibility of easiest insertion and removal fr
the fiber optic cable?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. FC Connectors

b. LC Connectors

c. MT-RJ Connectors

d. ST Connectors

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: ST Connectors
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

48) Which component of fiber-optic connector has a provision of entry for the fiber along with the fixation to connector housing?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Ferrule

b. Cable

c. Connector Housing

d. Coupling Device

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Cable
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
49) Which type of mechanical splicing exhibits the permanent bonding of prepared fiber ends with the rigid alignment of the tube?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Snug Tube Splicing

b. Loose Tube Splicing

c. Elastomeric Splicing

d. Precision Pin Splicing

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Snug Tube Splicing


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

50) The macroscopic bending losses show an exponential increase due to ________ in radius of curvature.
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Increase

b. Decrease

c. Stability

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Decrease
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

51) Which type of scattering occurs due to interaction of light in a medium with time dependent optical density variations thereby
resulting into the change of energy (frequency) & path?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)

b. Stimulated Raman Scattering (SRS)

c. Mie Scattering

d. Rayleigh Scattering

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

52) In Rayleigh scattering of light in glass, at which type of temperature does the glass attain the state of thermal equilibrium and
exhibits its relativity to annealing temperature?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Junction

b. Fictive

c. Breakdown

d. Decomposition

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Fictive
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

53) Assuming no ISI, the maximum possible bandwidth of a multimode graded index fiber with 5 MHz, shows the total pulse broade
of 0.1s for the distance of about 12km. What would be the value of bandwidth length product?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. 40 MHz

b. 60 MHz

c. 90 MHz

d. 120 MHz

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 60 MHz
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

54) At which level of temperature does the oxidation process occur in MCVD?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Low
b. Moderate

c. High

d. Unpredictable

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: High
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

55) Consider the assertions given below. Which is the correct sequential order of process adopted in glass fiber preparation?

A. Drawing of fiber
B. Production of pure glass
C. Pulling of fiber
D. Conversion of pure glass into preform
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. B, D, A, C

b. A, B, C, D

c. C, A, D, B

d. D, B, A, C

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: B, D, A, C
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

56) Consider the statements given below. Which among them is not a drawback of double crucible method?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Utility in mass production of fibers

b. High attenuation

c. High OH content in drawn fiber

d. Addition of impurity while the fiber is drawn

Answer Explanation Related Ques


ANSWER: Utility in mass production of fibers
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

57) On which of the following factor/s do/does the 'Hydrogen Effect' depend/s?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Type of fiber & Cable Design

b. Operating Wavelength

c. Installation Method

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

58) With respect to single mode and graded index fibers, which parameter specifies the propagation of polarization modes with diffe
phase velocities & the difference between their effective refractive indices?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Mode field diameter

b. Birefringence

c. Fiber beat length

d. Spot Size

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Birefringence
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

59) Which kind of dispersion phenomenon gives rise to pulse spreading in single mode fibers?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Intramodal
b. Intermodal

c. Material

d. Group Velocity

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Intramodal
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

60) If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of about 10 μm, n1 = 1.30, Δ = 0.80% , V = 3.5, then how many modes will it have
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. 6.125

b. 9.655

c. 12.95

d. 16.55

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 6.125
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

61) Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the fiber?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Meridional

b. Skew

c. Leaky

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Skew
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

62) Which is the transmission medium for VLF electromagnetic waves especially applicable for aeronautical and submarine cables?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Paired wires

b. Coaxial cable

c. Waveguide

d. Wireless

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Paired wires


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

63) In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional strength and prevents the fiber from any damage?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Core

b. Cladding

c. Buffer Coating

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Buffer Coating


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

64) In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to total internal ______
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. reflection

b. refraction

c. diffraction

d. dispersion

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: reflection
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

65) Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero between each pulse & takes place even due to occurrence of
consecutive 0's & 1's in the signal?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Return-to-zero (RZ)

b. Non-Return to zero space

c. Return to zero inverted

d. Non-return to zero inverted

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Return-to-zero (RZ)


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

66) In fiber fault location, the equation of length (l) for time difference (t) is expressed as L = ct / 2n1 . Which factor in this equation
implies that the light travels a length from source to break point and then through another length on the return trip?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. L

b. c

c. t

d. 2

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 2
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

67) From the tests carried out in fiber characterization, which among the following measures the total light reflected back to the
transmitter caused by the fiber as well as the components like connector pairs and mechanical splices?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. ORL
b. OTDR

c. LTS

d. PMD

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: ORL
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

68) Which among the following is/are determined by the fiber characterization?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Fiber integrity & performance for desired transmission rate

b. Installation practices

c. Service Implementation

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

69) Speckle pattern is generated due to interference of nodes from a coherent source especially when the coherence time of source is
_________ the intermodal dispersion time in the fiber.
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Less than

b. Greater than

c. Equal to

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Greater than


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
70) Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width broadening under the direct modulation of injection current?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Modal Noise

b. Mode-partition Noise

c. Frequency Chirping

d. Reflection Noise

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Frequency Chirping


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

71) Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?


- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Link power budget


b. Rise time budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Rise time budget


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

72) Which feature of an eye-diagram assists in the measurement of additive noise in the signal?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Eye opening (height, peak to peak)


b. Eye overshoot/ undershoot
c. Eye width
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Eye opening (height, peak to peak)


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
73) In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled analog signals after their quantization into discrete levels?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. ASCII
d. Excess-3
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Binary
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

74) Which component of an optical receiver is a linear frequency shaping filter used for the compensation of signal distortion and In
Symbol Interference (ISI)?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Photodetector
b. Amplifier
c. Equalizer
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Equalizer
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

75) For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 A/W & optical power of about 12μW, what would be the value of generated
photocurrent?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. 3 μA
b. 6 μA
c. 9 μA
d. 12 μA
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 6 μA
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

76) Which among the following results in the removal of LED lens interface for achieving high coupling efficiency?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Spherical lens
b. Cylindrical lens
c. Integral lens LED
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Integral lens LED


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

77) While coupling of LEDs with fiber, on which factor/s does the size of source and lighting angle generated within the semiconduct
depend/s?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Geometry of die
b. Refractive index of semiconductor
c. Encapsulation Medium
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

78) Which among the following is a key process adopted for the laser beam formation as it undergoes the light amplification?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Spontaneous Emission
b. Stimulated Emission
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Stimulated Emission


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

79) In spontaneous emission, the light source in an excited state undergoes the transition to a state with _______
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Higher energy
b. Moderate energy
c. Lower energy
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Lower energy


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

80) In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and from fiber to detector must take place with _________coupli
efficiency.
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. maximum
b. stable
c. minimum
d. unpredictable
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: maximum
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

81) By using Springroove splicing technique, what is the value of mean insertion loss for multi mode graded index fiber?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. 0.01

b. 0.03

c. 0.05

d. 0.09

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 0.05
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

82) Which splicing technique involves the alignment and locking of broken fiber edges by means of positioning devices & optical
cement?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Fusion
b. Mechanical

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Mechanical
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

83) Which is the correct order of sequential steps for an electric arc fusion technique?

A. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion


B. Application of heat for smoothening of end-surfaces
C. Alignment of broken fiber edges
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. A, B, C

b. B, A, C

c. C, B, A

d. C, A, B

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: C, B, A
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

84) Which kind/s of misalignment assist/s in the reduction of overlap region in fiber?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Angular

b. Longitudinal

c. Lateral

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Lateral
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

85) Which among the following is regarded as an inelastic scattering of a photon?


- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Kerr Effect

b. Raman Effect

c. Hall Effect

d. Miller Effect

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Raman Effect


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

86) In Kerr effect, induced index change has its proportionality with respect to _________
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. square of electric field

b. cube of electric field

c. cube root of electric field

d. one-fourth power of electric field

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: square of electric field


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

87) Which among the following represent/s the measure/s to minimize the inhomogenities for Mie scattering reduction?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Extrusion Control

b. Increase in relative R.I. difference


c. Removal of imperfections due to glass manufacturing process

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of the above


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

88) During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are responsible for an extrinsic absorption?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Atomic defects in the composition of glass

b. Impurity atoms in glass material

c. Basic constituent atoms of fiber material

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Impurity atoms in glass material


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

89) In multifiber cable system, which form of outer jacket/s consist/s of polyolefin compounds and are regarded as halogen free?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. OFNR

b. OFNP

c. LSZH

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: LSZH
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

90) Which type of fiber optic cable has/have its/their core with the size of about 480 μm to 980 μm & made up of
polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Glass fiber optic cable

b. Plastic fiber optic cable

c. Plastic clad silica fiber optic cable

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Plastic fiber optic cable


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

91) Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their similarity to the periodic crystalline lattice in a semiconductor?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Index guiding fiber

b. Photonic bandgap fiber

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Photonic bandgap fiber


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

92) Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation process?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. OVPO

b. MCVD

c. PCVD

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: PCVD
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

93) In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing the ability of __________
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Light Collection

b. Light Scattering

c. Light Dispersion

d. Light Polarization

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Light Collection


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

94) If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically denser medium with high refractive index, then it is
regarded as _______
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. External Reflection

b. Internal Reflection

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: External Reflection


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

95) What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. 1

b. 1.36

c. 2.6
d. 3.4

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 1.36
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

96) In single-mode fibers, how does the fraction of energy traveling through bound mode appear in the cladding?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. As a crescent wave

b. As a gibbous wave

c. As an evanescent wave

d. All of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: As an evanescent wave


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

97) Which property/ies of PCM stream determine/s the fidelity to original analog signal?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Sampling rate

b. Bit depth

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Both a and b


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

98) For a sine wave, the frequency is represented by the cycles per ______
- Published on 21 Nov 15
a. Second

b. Minute

c. Hour

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Second
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

99) Which among the following is provided by an optical receiver for the regeneration of data signal with minimum error?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Photo-diode

b. Signal Processing Circuits

c. Linear Circuitry

d. None of the above

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Linear Circuitry


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

100) In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a typical transmitter function?
- Published on 21 Nov 15

a. Coding for error protection

b. Decoding of input data

c. Electrical to optical conversion

d. Recoding to match output standard

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Recoding to match output standard


Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
1) In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a typical transmitter function?
a. Coding for error protection
b. Decoding of input data
c. Electrical to optical conversion
d. Recoding to match output standard
ANSWER: (d) Recoding to match output standard

2) Which among the following is provided by an optical receiver for the regeneration of data signal with minimum error?
a. Photo-diode
b. Signal Processing Circuits
c. Linear Circuitry
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (c) Linear Circuitry

3) For a sine wave, the frequency is represented by the cycles per ______
a. Second
b. Minute
c. Hour
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (a) Second

4) Which property/ies of PCM stream determine/s the fidelity to original analog signal?
a. Sampling rate
b. Bit depth
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (c) Both a and b

5) In single-mode fibers, how does the fraction of energy traveling through bound mode appear in the cladding?
a. As a crescent wave
b. As a gibbous wave
c. As an evanescent wave
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) As an evanescent wave

6) What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?


a. 1
b. 1.36
c. 2.6
d. 3.4
ANSWER:(b) 1.36

7) If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically denser medium with high refractive index, then it
is regarded as _______
a. External Reflection
b. Internal Reflection
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (a) External Reflection

8) In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing the ability of __________
a. Light Collection
b. Light Scattering
c. Light Dispersion
d. Light Polarization
ANSWER:(a) Light Collection

9) Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation process?
a. OVPO
b. MCVD
c. PCVD
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) PCVD

10) Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their similarity to the periodic crystalline lattice in a semiconductor?
a. Index guiding fiber
b. Photonic bandgap fiber
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Photonic bandgap fiber

11) Which type of fiber optic cable has/have its/their core with the size of about 480 μm to 980 μm & made up of
polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)?
a. Glass fiber optic cable
b. Plastic fiber optic cable
c. Plastic clad silica fiber optic cable
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Plastic fiber optic cable

12) In multifiber cable system, which form of outer jacket/s consist/s of polyolefin compounds and are regarded as halogen
free?
a. OFNR
b. OFNP
c. LSZH
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) LSZH
13) During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are responsible for an extrinsic absorption?
a. Atomic defects in the composition of glass
b. Impurity atoms in glass material
c. Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Impurity atoms in glass material

14) Which among the following represent/s the measure/s to minimize the inhomogenities for Mie scattering reduction?
a. Extrusion Control
b. Increase in relative R.I. difference
c. Removal of imperfections due to glass manufacturing process
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above

15) In Kerr effect, induced index change has its proportionality with respect to _________
a. square of electric field
b. cube of electric field
c. cube root of electric field
d. one-fourth power of electric field
ANSWER: (a) square of electric field

16) Which among the following is regarded as an inelastic scattering of a photon?


a. Kerr Effect
b. Raman Effect
c. Hall Effect
d. Miller Effect
ANSWER: (b) Raman Effect

17) Which kind/s of misalignment assist/s in the reduction of overlap region in fiber?
a. Angular
b. Longitudinal
c. Lateral
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Lateral

18) Which is the correct order of sequential steps for an electric arc fusion technique?
A. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion
B. Application of heat for smoothening of end-surfaces
C. Alignment of broken fiber edges

a. A, B, C
b. B, A, C
c. C, B, A
d. C, A, B
ANSWER: (c) C, B, A
19) Which splicing technique involves the alignment and locking of broken fiber edges by means of positioning devices &
optical cement?
a. Fusion
b. Mechanical
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER:(b) Mechanical

20) By using Springroove splicing technique, what is the value of mean insertion loss for multi mode graded index fiber?
a. 0.01
b. 0.03
c. 0.05
d. 0.09
ANSWER: (c) 0.05

21) In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and from fiber to detector must take place with
_________coupling efficiency.
a. maximum
b. stable
c. minimum
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: (a) maximum

22) In spontaneous emission, the light source in an excited state undergoes the transition to a state with _______
a. Higher energy
b. Moderate energy
c. Lower energy
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Lower energy

23) Which among the following is a key process adopted for the laser beam formation as it undergoes the light amplification?
a. Spontaneous Emission
b. Stimulated Emission
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Stimulated Emission

24) While coupling of LEDs with fiber, on which factor/s does the size of source and lighting angle generated within the
semiconductor depend/s?
a. Geometry of die
b. Refractive index of semiconductor
c. Encapsulation Medium
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above

25) Which among the following results in the removal of LED lens interface for achieving high coupling efficiency?
a. Spherical lens
b. Cylindrical lens
c. Integral lens LED
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Integral lens LED

26) For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 A/W & optical power of about 12μW,
what would be the value of generated photocurrent?
a. 3 μA
b. 6 μA
c. 9 μA
d. 12 μA
ANSWER: (b) 6 μA

27) Which component of an optical receiver is a linear frequency shaping filter used for the compensation of signal distortion
and Inter Symbol Interference (ISI)?
a. Photodetector
b. Amplifier
c. Equalizer
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (c) Equalizer
28) In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled analog signals after their quantization into discrete
levels?
a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. ASCII
d. Excess-3
ANSWER: (a) Binary

29) Which feature of an eye-diagram assists in the measurement of additive noise in the signal?
a. Eye opening (height, peak to peak)
b. Eye overshoot/ undershoot
c. Eye width
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (a) Eye opening (height, peak to peak)

30) Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?


a. Link power budget
b. Rise time budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Rise time budget

31) Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width broadening under the direct modulation of injection current?
a. Modal Noise
b. Mode-partition Noise
c. Frequency Chirping
d. Reflection Noise
ANSWER: (c) Frequency Chirping

32) Speckle pattern is generated due to interference of nodes from a coherent source especially when the coherence time of
source is _________ the intermodal dispersion time in the fiber.
a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Greater than

33) Which among the following is/are determined by the fiber characterization?
a. Fiber integrity & performance for desired transmission rate
b. Installation practices
c. Service Implementation
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above

34) From the tests carried out in fiber characterization, which among the following measures the total light reflected back to
the transmitter caused by the fiber as well as the components like connector pairs and mechanical splices?
a. ORL
b. OTDR
c. LTS
d. PMD
ANSWER: (a) ORL

35) In fiber fault location, the equation of length (l) for time difference (t) is expressed as L = ct / 2n1 . Which factor in this
equation implies that the light travels a length from source to break point and then through another length on the return trip?
a. L
b. c
c. t
d. 2
ANSWER: (d) 2

36) Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero between each pulse & takes place even due to occurrence of
consecutive 0’s & 1’s in the signal?
a. Return-to-zero (RZ)
b. Non-Return to zero space
c. Return to zero inverted
d. Non-return to zero inverted
ANSWER: (a) Return-to-zero (RZ)
37) In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to total internal ______
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. diffraction
d. dispersion
ANSWER: (a) reflection

38) In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional strength and prevents the fiber from any damage?
a. Core
b. Cladding
c. Buffer Coating
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (c) Buffer Coating

39) Which is the transmission medium for VLF electromagnetic waves especially applicable for aeronautical and submarine
cables?
a. Paired wires
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Wireless
ANSWER: (a) Paired wires

40) Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the fiber?
a. Meridional
b. Skew
c. Leaky
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Skew

41) If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of about 10 μm, n1 = 1.30, Δ = 0.80% , V = 3.5, then how many modes will
it have?
a. 6.125
b. 9.655
c. 12.95
d. 16.55
ANSWER: (a) 6.125
42) Which kind of dispersion phenomenon gives rise to pulse spreading in single mode fibers?
a. Intramodal
b. Intermodal
c. Material
d. Group Velocity
ANSWER: (a) Intramodal

43) With respect to single mode and graded index fibers, which parameter specifies the propagation of polarization modes
with different phase velocities & the difference between their effective refractive indices?
a. Mode field diameter
b. Birefringence
c. Fiber beat length
d. Spot Size
ANSWER: (b) Birefringence

44) On which of the following factor/s do/does the ‘Hydrogen Effect’ depend/s?
a. Type of fiber & Cable Design
b. Operating Wavelength
c. Installation Method
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above

45) Consider the statements given below. Which among them is not a drawback of double crucible method?
a. Utility in mass production of fibers
b. High attenuation
c. High OH content in drawn fiber
d. Addition of impurity while the fiber is drawn
ANSWER: (a) Utility in mass production of fibers

46) Consider the assertions given below. Which is the correct sequential order of process adopted in glass fiber preparation?
A. Drawing of fiber
B. Production of pure glass
C. Pulling of fiber
D. Conversion of pure glass into preform

a. B, D, A, C
b. A, B, C, D
c. C, A, D, B
d. D, B, A, C
ANSWER: (a) B, D, A, C

47) At which level of temperature does the oxidation process occur in MCVD?
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: (c) High

48) Assuming no ISI, the maximum possible bandwidth of a multimode graded index fiber with 5 MHz, shows the total pulse
broadening of 0.1s for the distance of about 12km. What would be the value of bandwidth length product?
a. 40 MHz
b. 60 MHz
c. 90 MHz
d. 120 MHz
ANSWER: (b) 60 MHz

49) In Rayleigh scattering of light in glass, at which type of temperature does the glass attain the state of thermal equilibrium
and exhibits its relativity to annealing temperature?
a. Junction
b. Fictive
c. Breakdown
d. Decomposition
ANSWER: (b) Fictive

50) Which type of scattering occurs due to interaction of light in a medium with time dependent optical density variations
thereby resulting into the change of energy (frequency) & path?
a. Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)
b. Stimulated Raman Scattering (SRS)
c. Mie Scattering
d. Rayleigh Scattering
ANSWER: (a) Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)
10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

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Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice


Questions :-
1. The macroscopic bending losses show an exponential
increase due to ________ in radius of curvature.

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Stability
D. None of the above

2. Which type of mechanical splicing exhibits the


permanent bonding of prepared fiber ends with the rigid
alignment of the tube?

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

A. Snug Tube Splicing Questions -


B. Loose Tube Splicing 5,865 likes

C. Elastomeric Splicing
D. Precision Pin Splicing
Like Page

3. Which component of fiber-optic connector has a


Be the first of your friends t
provision of entry for the fiber along with the fixation to
connector housing?

A. Ferrule
B. Cable
C. Connector Housing
D. Coupling Device

4. Which among the following is regarded as a keyed


bayonet connector along with its feasibility of easiest
insertion and removal from the fiber optic cable?

A. FC Connectors
B. LC Connectors
C. MT-RJ Connectors
D. ST Connectors

5. How many mating cycles are being rated by typically


matched SC Connectors?

A. 500
B. 600
C. 800
D. 1000

6. In Stimulated Emission, which among the following


parameters of generated photon is/are similar to the
photon of incident wave?

A. Phase
B. Frequency
C. Polarization & direction of travel
D. All of the above

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

7. Consider a crystal of ruby laser whose length is 6 cm


and the refractive index is 1.8, emits the wavelength of
about 0.55 μm. What will be the value of number of
longitudinal modes?

A. 3.9 x 105
B. 4.9 x 105
C. 5.6 x 105
D. 7.7 x 105

8. In a laser structure, the existence of standing waves is


possible at frequencies for which the distance between
the mirrors is an integral number of ________

A. λ / 2
B. λ / 4
C. λ / 6
D. λ / 8

9. The small section of fiber which is coupled to the


optical source is known as _________

A. Flylead
B. Pigtail
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

10. In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is


______ bright from all directions.

A. Less
B. Equally
C. More
D. Unpredictably

11. In pyroelectric photo detectors, the consequent


increase in dielectric constant due to temperature
variation by the photon absorption, is generally
measured as change in _______

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

A. resistance
B. inductance
C. admittance
D. capacitance

12. Which type of preamplifier plays a crucial role in


reducing the effect of thermal noise?

A. Low Impedance Pre-amplifier


B. High Impedance Preamplifier
C. Transimpedance Preamplifier
D. None of the above

13. In high impedance preamplifier, how are the noise


sources kept to minimum level?

A. By reducing dark current with proper selection of photodiode


B. By reducing thermal noise of biasing resistor
C. By using high impedance amplifier
D. All of the above

14. Which among the following are the disadvantages of


an optical feedback transimpedance receiver?

A. Increase in receiver input capacitance


B. Increase in dark current
C. Decrease in receiver input capacitance
D. Decrease in dark current

A. A & B
B. C & D
C. A & D
D. B & C

15. Which category/ies of wavelength division multiplexer


comprise/s two 3dB couplers where the splitting of an
incident beam takes place into two fiber paths, followed
by the recombination with second 3-dB coupler?

A. Interference filter based devices


B. Angular dispersion based devices

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

C. Mach-Zehnder Interferometers
D. All of the above

16. Which among the following controls the length of


Fabry-Perot interferometer so that it can act as a tunable
optical filter?

A. Transducer
B. Tachometer
C. Multimeter
D. Phase-meter

17. In circulator, an optical path of signal follows


_______

A. An open loop
B. A closed loop
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

18. Which among the following is/are responsible for


generating attenuation of an optical power in fiber?

A. Absorption
B. Scattering
C. Waveguide effect
D. All of the above

19. Consider the assertions/ characteristics given below.


Which type of attenuation measurement technique
exhibits these characteristics?

1. Necessity of accessing both ends of fiber.


2. Measurements corresponding to specific wavelengths.
3. Requirement of spectral response over a range of wavelengths.

A. Cutback Technique
B. Insertion Loss Technique
C. Use of OTDR Technique
D. None of the above

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

20. For neglecting the pulse dispersion in the digital


systems, the rms width of fiber impulse response must be
_________one-quarter of the pulse spacing.

A. Less than
B. Equal to
C. Greater than
D. None of the above

21. If a noisy channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz with


signal to noise ratio of about 1, what would be the
maximum capacity of the channel?

A. 2 Mb/sec
B. 4 Mb/sec
C. 6 Mb/sec
D. 8 Mb/sec

22. In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive


index of core is always _______the refractive index of
cladding.

A. Less than
B. Equal to
C. Greater than
D. None of the above

23. The order of mode is equal to the number of


field____ across the guide.

A. Zeros
B. Poles
C. Ones
D. All of the above

24. Which among the following represents the lateral


shift of a light beam on reflection at a dielectric interface?

A. Doppler’s Shift
B. Goos-Haenchen’s Shift

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

C. Frequency Shift
D. Phase Shift

25. Why are plastic clad silica fiber optic cables not used
widely?

A. Difficulty in connector application due to excessive plasticity in


cladding
B. Difficulty in bonding
C. Insolubility in organic solvents
D. All of the above

26. In cables, water is prevented from filling the spaces


with __________resistant compounds.

A. moisture
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. stress

27. Which reason/s is/are responsible for the occurrence


of non-linear Cross Phase Modulation (XPM)?

A. Difference in transmission phase of peak pulse & leading or


trailing edges of pulse
B. Third-order optical non-linearity
C. Intensity dependence of refractive index
D. All of the above

28. What is/ are the consequence/s of Self Phase


Modulation in non-linear optics?

A. Modification in pulse spectrum


B. Limited transmission rate
C. Dispersion effect
D. All of the above

29. Which type of fiber-optic coupler causes the


distribution of an optical power from more than two
input ports among the several output ports?

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

A. Star Coupler
B. Tree Coupler
C. X Coupler
D. All of the above

30. Which optical devices are adopted or applicable for


routing signals from one waveguide to another?

A. Optical Combiner
B. Optical Splitter
C. Optical Coupler
D. None of the above

31. Which among the following characteristics of Laser


light specifies the precise movement of all individual light
waves together through time and space?

A. Monochromatic
B. Directional
C. Coherent
D. Brightness

32. Which modes are acknowledged due to their


association with electromagnetic field and beam profile
in the direction perpendicular to the plane of pn
junction?

A. Longitudinal Modes
B. Transverse Modes
C. Lateral Modes
D. All of the above

33. Which type of injection laser involves the use of


geometry for fabrication of the multimode injection laser
with a single or small number of lateral modes?

A. Gain guided laser


B. Index guided laser
C. Quantum well laser
D. Quantum dot laser

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

34. In the dynamic response of Injection Laser Diode


(ILD), the delay which is followed by ____ frequency
damped oscillations give rise to the generation of
relaxation oscillations.

A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
D. All of the above

35. The spectral response of an ideal photodetector


depicts its efficiency as a function of _________

A. amplitude
B. frequency
C. period
D. wavelength

36. According to frequency response of photo-detector,


the modulation frequency at which the output current
decreases to ________of peak value.

A. one-third
B. one-fourth
C. half
D. one-tenth

37. Which photo diodes are crucially applicable to


overcome the bandwidth-quantum efficiency trade-off
along with its resemblence to the pyramid structure?

A. Mushroom Waveguide Photodiode


B. Traveling Wave Photodiode
C. Resonant Cavity Photodiode
D. All of the above

38. When an optical signal is incident on a photo-


detector, which noise originate/s due to statistical nature
of production and collection of photoelectrons?

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

A. Dark Current Noise


B. Quantum Noise
C. Surface Leakage Current noise
D. All of the above

39. In an eye-diagram, digital signals with very bad


interference resembles the shape of _____

A. circle
B. rectangle
C. triangle
D. straight line

40. On which factor/s do/does the response time of


photodiode depend/s?

A. Diffusion time of photo carriers outside the depletion region


B. Diffusion time of photo carriers within the depletion region
C. RC time constant
D. All of the above

41. Which nature of charge carriers give rise to the


current fluctuations thereby resulting into the generation
of shot noise?

A. Continuous
B. Discrete
C. Sampled
D. All of the above

42. Which among the following parameters is/are


decided by the front-end of a receiver?

A. Sensitivity
B. Bandwidth
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

43. In an optical network, increase in the number of


lasers ________the bit rate.

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

A. Increases
B. Stabilizes
C. Decreases
D. None of the above

44. Which band/s specify/ies the operation range of


Erbium doped fiber amplifier (EDFA)?

A. By O band
B. By C band
C. By S band
D. All of the above

45. Basically, solitons are pulses which propagates


through the fiber without showing any variation in
______

A. Amplitude
B. Velocity
C. Shape
D. All of the above

46. Why is an electrical isolation required between


several portions of an electronic circuit?

A. Provision of high voltage protection


B. Reduction in noise level
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above

47. For measuring the shape of input pulse in time-


domain intermodal dispersion method, the test fiber is
replaced by another fiber whose length is less than ___ of
the test fiber.

A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

48. In chromatic dispersion, which parameter for the


modulation of the received signal is measured with the
help of a vector voltmeter?

A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Phase
D. Period

49. Which among the following stages is/are adopted in


Splice Loss Experiment?

A. Translational
B. Rotational
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

50. Which among the following misalignments give/gives


rise to the occurrence of splice loss?

A. Longitudinal separation between the end-faces of fiber


B. Angular tilt between fiber ends
C. Transverse offset between fiber ends
D. All of the above

Optical Fiber Communication Objective Questions Pdf ::


51. In an optical fiber communication system, which
among the following is not a typical transmitter function?

A. Coding for error protection


B. Decoding of input data
C. Electrical to optical conversion
D. Recoding to match output standard

52. Which among the following is provided by an optical


receiver for the regeneration of data signal with
minimum error?

A. Photo-diode
B. Signal Processing Circuits

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

C. Linear Circuitry
D. None of the above

53. For a sine wave, the frequency is represented by the


cycles per ______

A. Second
B. Minute
C. Hour
D. None of the above

54. Which property/ies of PCM stream determine/s the


fidelity to original analog signal?

A. Sampling rate
B. Bit depth
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

55. In single-mode fibers, how does the fraction of energy


traveling through bound mode appear in the cladding?

A. As a crescent wave
B. As a gibbous wave
C. As an evanescent wave
D. All of the above

56. What is the typical value of refractive index for an


ethyl alcohol?

A. 1
B. 1.36
C. 2.6
D. 3.4

57. If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets


reflected off an optically denser medium with high
refractive index, then it is regarded as _______

A. External Reflection
B. Internal Reflection

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

58. In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture


is applicable in describing the ability of __________

A. Light Collection
B. Light Scattering
C. Light Dispersion
D. Light Polarization

59. Which among the following do/does not support/s the


soot formation process?

A. OVPO
B. MCVD
C. PCVD
D. All of the above

60. Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their


similarity to the periodic crystalline lattice in a
semiconductor?

A. Index guiding fiber


B. Photonic bandgap fiber
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

61. Which type of fiber optic cable has/have its/their core


with the size of about 480 μm to 980 μm & made up of
polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)?

A. Glass fiber optic cable


B. Plastic fiber optic cable
C. Plastic clad silica fiber optic cable
D. All of the above

62. In multifiber cable system, which form of outer


jacket/s consist/s of polyolefin compounds and are
regarded as halogen free?

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A. OFNR
B. OFNP
C. LSZH
D. All of the above

63. During the design of FOC system, which among the


following reasons is/are responsible for an extrinsic
absorption?

A. Atomic defects in the composition of glass


B. Impurity atoms in glass material
C. Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
D. All of the above

64. Which among the following represent/s the


measure/s to minimize the inhomogenities for Mie
scattering reduction?

A. Extrusion Control
B. Increase in relative R.I. difference
C. Removal of imperfections due to glass manufacturing process
D. All of the above

65. In Kerr effect, induced index change has its


proportionality with respect to _________

A. square of electric field


B. cube of electric field
C. cube root of electric field
D. one-fourth power of electric field

66. Which among the following is regarded as an inelastic


scattering of a photon?

A. Kerr Effect
B. Raman Effect
C. Hall Effect
D. Miller Effect

67. Which kind/s of misalignment assist/s in the


reduction of overlap region in fiber?

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A. Angular
B. Longitudinal
C. Lateral
D. All of the above

68. Which is the correct order of sequential steps for an


electric arc fusion technique?

A. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion


B. Application of heat for smoothening of end-surfaces
C. Alignment of broken fiber edges

A. A, B, C
B. B, A, C
C. C, B, A
D. C, A, B

69. Which splicing technique involves the alignment and


locking of broken fiber edges by means of positioning
devices & optical cement?

A. Fusion
B. Mechanical
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

70. By using Springroove splicing technique, what is the


value of mean insertion loss for multi mode graded index
fiber?

A. 0.01
B. 0.03
C. 0.05
D. 0.09

71. In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber
to another and from fiber to detector must take place
with _________coupling efficiency.

A. maximum
B. stable

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C. minimum
D. unpredictable

72. In spontaneous emission, the light source in an


excited state undergoes the transition to a state with
_______

A. Higher energy
B. Moderate energy
C. Lower energy
D. All of the above

73. Which among the following is a key process adopted


for the laser beam formation as it undergoes the light
amplification?

A. Spontaneous Emission
B. Stimulated Emission
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

74. While coupling of LEDs with fiber, on which factor/s


does the size of source and lighting angle generated
within the semiconductor depend/s?

A. Geometry of die
B. Refractive index of semiconductor
C. Encapsulation Medium
D. All of the above

75. Which among the following results in the removal of


LED lens interface for achieving high coupling efficiency?

A. Spherical lens
B. Cylindrical lens
C. Integral lens LED
D. All of the above

76. For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 A/W &


optical power of about 12μW, what would be the value of
generated photocurrent?

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A. 3 μA
B. 6 μA
C. 9 μA
D. 12 μA

77. Which component of an optical receiver is a linear


frequency shaping filter used for the compensation of
signal distortion and Inter Symbol Interference (ISI)?

A. Photodetector
B. Amplifier
C. Equalizer
D. None of the above

78. In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate


the sampled analog signals after their quantization into
discrete levels?

A. Binary
B. Decimal
C. ASCII
D. Excess-3

79. Which feature of an eye-diagram assists in the


measurement of additive noise in the signal?

A. Eye opening (height, peak to peak)


B. Eye overshoot/ undershoot
C. Eye width
D. None of the above

80. Which method determines the dispersion limitation


of an optical link?

A. Link power budget


B. Rise time budget
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

81. Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width


broadening under the direct modulation of injection

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

current?

A. Modal Noise
B. Mode-partition Noise
C. Frequency Chirping
D. Reflection Noise

82. Speckle pattern is generated due to interference of


nodes from a coherent source especially when the
coherence time of source is _________ the intermodal
dispersion time in the fiber.

A. Less than
B. Greater than
C. Equal to
D. None of the above

83. Which among the following is/are determined by the


fiber characterization?

A. Fiber integrity & performance for desired transmission rate


B. Installation practices
C. Service Implementation
D. All of the above

84. From the tests carried out in fiber characterization,


which among the following measures the total light
reflected back to the transmitter caused by the fiber as
well as the components like connector pairs and
mechanical splices?

A. ORL
B. OTDR
C. LTS
D. PMD

85. In fiber fault location, the equation of length (l) for


time difference (t) is expressed as L = ct / 2n1 . Which
factor in this equation implies that the light travels a
length from source to break point and then through
another length on the return trip?

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A. L
B. c
C. t
D. 2

86. Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal


to zero between each pulse & takes place even due to
occurrence of consecutive 0’s & 1’s in the signal?

A. Return-to-zero (RZ)
B. Non-Return to zero space
C. Return to zero inverted
D. Non-return to zero inverted

87. In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through


the core due to total internal ______

A. reflection
B. refraction
C. diffraction
D. dispersion

88. In the structure of a fiber, which component provides


additional strength and prevents the fiber from any
damage?

A. Core
B. Cladding
C. Buffer Coating
D. None of the above

89. Which is the transmission medium for VLF


electromagnetic waves especially applicable for
aeronautical and submarine cables?

A. Paired wires
B. Coaxial cable
C. Waveguide
D. Wireless

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

90. Which rays exhibit the variation in the light


acceptability ability of the fiber?

A. Meridional
B. Skew
C. Leaky
D. All of the above

91. If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of


about 10 μm, n1 = 1.30, Δ = 0.80% , V = 3.5, then how
many modes will it have?

A. 6.125
B. 9.655
C. 12.95
D. 16.55

92. Which kind of dispersion phenomenon gives rise to


pulse spreading in single mode fibers?

A. Intramodal
B. Intermodal
C. Material
D. Group Velocity

93. With respect to single mode and graded index fibers,


which parameter specifies the propagation of
polarization modes with different phase velocities & the
difference between their effective refractive indices?

A. Mode field diameter


B. Birefringence
C. Fiber beat length
D. Spot Size

94. On which of the following factor/s do/does the


‘Hydrogen Effect’ depend/s?

A. Type of fiber & Cable Design


B. Operating Wavelength

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

C. Installation Method
D. All of the above

95. Consider the statements given below. Which among


them is not a drawback of double crucible method?

A. Utility in mass production of fibers


B. High attenuation
C. High OH content in drawn fiber
D. Addition of impurity while the fiber is drawn

96. Consider the assertions given below. Which is the


correct sequential order of process adopted in glass fiber
preparation?

A. Drawing of fiber
B. Production of pure glass
C. Pulling of fiber
D. Conversion of pure glass into preform

A. B, D, A, C
B. A, B, C, D
C. C, A, D, B
D. D, B, A, C

97. At which level of temperature does the oxidation


process occur in MCVD?

A. Low
B. Moderate
C. High
D. Unpredictable

98. Assuming no ISI, the maximum possible bandwidth of


a multimode graded index fiber with 5 MHz, shows the
total pulse broadening of 0.1s for the distance of about
12km. What would be the value of bandwidth length
product?

A. 40 MHz
B. 60 MHz

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP Optical Fiber Communication Multiple Choice Questions

C. 90 MHz
D. 120 MHz

99. In Rayleigh scattering of light in glass, at which type


of temperature does the glass attain the state of thermal
equilibrium and exhibits its relativity to annealing
temperature?

A. Junction
B. Fictive
C. Breakdown
D. Decomposition

100. Which type of scattering occurs due to interaction of


light in a medium with time dependent optical density
variations thereby resulting into the change of energy
(frequency) & path?

A. Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)


B. Stimulated Raman Scattering (SRS)
C. Mie Scattering
D. Rayleigh Scattering

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SATELLITE COMMUNICATION Questions :-
1. Which of the following is the first active satellite?

A. Echo I
B. Telstar I
C. Early Bird
D. Sputnik I

2. Which of the following is the first commercial satellite?

A. Early Bird
B. Telstar

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP SATELLITE COMMUNICATION Questions and Answers pdf

A. Orthomode transducer
B. Crystal detector
C. Optoisolator
D. Isomode detector

16. _________ detects the satellite signal relayed from


the feed and converts it to an electric current, amplifies
and lower its frequency.

A. Horn antenna
B. LNA
C. Satellite receiver
D. Satellite dish

17. Is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to


earth’s atmosphere.

A. Atmospheric loss
B. Path loss
C. Radiation loss
D. RFI

18. What height must a satellite be placed above the


surface of the earth in order for its rotation to be equal to
earth’s rotation?

A. 26,426.4 miles
B. 27,426.4 miles
C. 23,426.4 miles
D. 22,426.4 miles

19. Point on the satellite obits closest to the earth.

A. Apogee
B. Perigee
C. Prograde
D. Zenith

20. The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam.

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP SATELLITE COMMUNICATION Questions and Answers pdf

A. Beamwidth
B. Bandwidth
C. Footprint
D. Zone

21. What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the


satellite with an uplink frequency in GHz band?

A. 3500 MHz
B. 4500 MHz
C. 2225 MHz
D. 2555 MHz

22. What kind of battery panels are used in some advance


satellites

A. Germanium based panels


B. Silicon based panel
C. Galium Phosphate solar panel array
D. Galium Arsenide solar panel array

23. Satellite engine uses

A. jet propulsion
B. ion propulsion system
C. liquid fuel
D. solar jet

24. A satellite batter has more power but lighter.

A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium

25. What kind of battery used by older satellites?

A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium

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SATELLITE COMMUNICATION Questions and Answers pdf ::


26. VSAT was made available in

A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1983
D. 1977

27. What band does VSAT first operate?

A. L-band
B. X-band
C. C-band
D. Ku-band

28. The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite has how many


channels?

A. 30
B. 24
C. 48
D. 50

29. The first Philippine Agila I will have how many


transponders.

A. 36
B. 48
C. 24
D. 12

30. How may satellite orbital slots are requested by the


Philippine Government from ITU?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

31. The location of AsiaSat I.

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP SATELLITE COMMUNICATION Questions and Answers pdf

A. 105.5˚ East
B. 151.5˚ East
C. 115.5˚ East
D. 170.5˚ East

32. AsiaSat I covers how many countries in Asia?

A. 38
B. 10
C. 28
D. 15

33. The owner of AsiaSat 2 is

A. Asia Satellite Telecommunications Company (ASTC)


B. Japan Satellite System (JSAT)
C. China Great Wall Industry Corporation
D. Singapore Satellite Commision

34. What is the approximate path loss from satellite-to-


earth station?

A. 100 dB
B. 150 dB
C. 175 dB
D. 200 dB

35. INTELSAT stands for

A. Intel Satellite
B. International Telephone Satellite
C. International Telecommunications Satellite
D. International Satellite

36. The frequency of Ku band for satellite


communications.

A. 6/4 GHz
B. 14/11 GHz
C. 12/14 GHz
D. 4/8 GHz

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37. A satellite cross-link means

A. Earth-to-satellite link
B. Satellite-to-earth link
C. Satellite-to-satellite link
D. None of these

38. Earth station uses what type of antenna

A. Despun antenna
B. Helical antenna
C. Toroidal antenna
D. Cassegrain antenna

39. What is the delay time for satellite transmission from


earth transmitter to earth receiver?

A. 0.5 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 ms

40. The bandwidth of C-band satellite frequency band in


U.S.

A. 500 GHz
B. 1000 GHz
C. 1000 MHz
D. 500 MHz

41. The most common device used as an LNA is

A. zener diode
B. tunnel diode
C. IMPATT
D. Shockley diode

42. The radiation patterns of earth coverage antennas


have a beamwidth of approximately

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10/09/2020 300+ TOP SATELLITE COMMUNICATION Questions and Answers pdf

A. 21˚
B. 5˚
C. 17˚
D. 35˚

43. A mobile satellite array has usually how many


elements?

A. 6
B. 88
C. 12
D. 14

44. In a typical mobile satellite array antenna if three


elements are activated, how many elements are
deactivated?

A. 3
B. 11
C. 5
D. 9

45. What circuit is responsible in activating and


deactivating adjacent antenna elements in a mobile
satellite array?

A. Radial divider
B. Divider/combiner
C. Radial combiner
D. Radial multiplexer

46. Most mobile satellite array uses ___________ in


transforming 50 to 150 Ω impedance.

A. stub
B. balun
C. quarter-wavelength transformer
D. microstrip tapers.

47. The switching from one element to the other element


in a typical mobile satellite array.

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A. Series
B. Radial
C. Matrix
D. Shunt

48. A method of multiple accessing where a given RF


channel bandwidth is divided inot smaller frequency
band.

A. CDMA
B. ANIK-D
C. TDMA
D. FDMA

49. What is the delay time for satellite transmissions


from earth transmitter to earth receiver?

A. 0.5 s
B. 1s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 s

50. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed


of the satellite _________.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. None of the above

SATELLITE COMMUNICATION Questions and Answers pdf free


download ::

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NEW PRICE DROP PRICE DROP NEW NEW NEW

A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam

12. What is the frequency range of C-band?

A. 8.5 to 12.5 GHz


B. 3.4 to 6.425 GHz
C. 12.95 to 14.95 GHz
D. 27.5 to 31 GHz

13. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite


transponder to earth’s station.

A. Uplink
B. Downlink
C. Terrestrial
D. Earthbound

14. Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite

A. Helical antenna
B. Satellite dish
C. LNA
D. TWT

15. What is a device that detects both vertically and


horizontally polarized signals simultaneously?

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2 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP SATELLITE COMMUNICATION


QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PDF”

Mohammed Husain Ansari


SEPTEMBER 6, 2020 AT 11:34 AM

Very good, it is very beneficial and children will get


more benefit from it.

REPLY

Hammad
OCTOBER 5, 2016 AT 6:24 AM

It’s really knowledgeable stuff . . I like to know about


calculating link budget analysis . How to calculate
uplink/ downlink frequency and others parameters

REPLY

LEAVE A REPLY

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C. Explorer Questions -
D. Courier 5,865 likes

3. What is the first passive satellite transponder?


Like Page

A. Sun
Be the first of your friends t
B. Early Bird
C. Score
D. Moon

4. The first satellite to receive and transmit


simultaneously

A. Intelsat I
B. Agila I
C. Syncorn I
D. Telstar I

5. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because


of

A. circular polarization
B. maneuverability
C. beamwidth
D. gain

NEW PRICE DROP PRICE DROP NEW NEW NEW

6. Repeaters inside communications satellites are known


as

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A. Trancievers
B. Transponders
C. Transducers
D. TWT

7. Considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system

A. Coverage
B. Cost
C. Access
D. Privacy

8. ___________ is a satellite that rotates around the


earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern.

A. Geosynchronous satellite
B. Non synchronous satellite
C. Pro grade satellite
D. Retrograde satellite

9. Is the geographical representation of a satellite


antenna radiation pattern

A. Footprint
B. Spot
C. Earth
D. Region

10. The smallest beam of a satellite antenna radiation


pattern

A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam

11. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earths


surface.

https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/satellite-communication-questions-answers-pdf/ 3/13
J.S.P.M.’s
Jayawantrao Sawant College of Engineering, Hadapsar, Pune-28
Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering
Academic year (2019-20) Semester-II

UNIT_I

1. Multimode step index fiber has ___________


a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture
2. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber shows as variation of
attenuation in range of ___________
a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.69μm
b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.59μm
c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.85μm
d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1 at wavelength 0.90μm
3. Multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range is ___________
a) 100 to 300 μm
b) 100 to 300 nm
c) 200 to 500 μm
d) 200 to 500 nm
4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of ___________
a) 2 to 30 MHz km
b) 6 to 50 MHz km
c) 10 to 40 MHz km
d) 8 to 40 MHz km
5. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with ___________
a) Lower purity
b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.
c) No impurity
d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.
6. The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are ___________
a) Better than multimode step index fibers
b) Same as multimode step index fibers
c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers
d) Negligible
7. Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode step
index fibers but have core diameters ___________
a) Larger than multimode step index fibers
b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers
c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers
d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers
8. Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical aperture
of 0.29 have core/cladding diameter of ___________
a) 62.5 μm/125 μm
b) 100 μm/140 μm
c) 85 μm/125 μm
d) 50 μm/125μm
9. Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only.
a) True
b) False
10. In single mode fibers, which is the most beneficial index profile?
a) Step index
b) Graded index
c) Step and graded index
d) Coaxial cable
11. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
___________
a) Single mode fibers
b) Multimode step fibers
c) Coaxial cables
d) Multimode graded index fibers
12. Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be at
least ___________
a) Twice the core diameter
b) Thrice the core diameter
c) Five times the core diameter
d) Ten times the core diameter
13. A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is?
a) Coaxial cables
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Standard multimode fibers
d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers
14. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for operation in ___________
a) C-band
b) L-band
c) O-band
d) C-band and L-band
15. Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength transmission in O-band is?
a) Low-water-peak non dispersion-shifted fibers
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Low minimized fibers
d) Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fibers
16. When optical fibers are to be installed in a working environment, the most important
parameter to be considered is?
a) Transmission property of the fiber
b) Mechanical property of the fiber
c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber
d) Numerical aperture of the fiber
17. Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from ___________
a) Plastic
b) Silica or multicomponent glass
c) Ceramics
d) Copper
18. ____________ results from small lateral forces exerted on the fiber during the
cabling process.
a) Attenuation
b) Micro-bending
c) Dispersion
d) Stimulated Emission
19. Microscopic meandering of the fiber core axis that is micro-bending is caused due to
___________
a) Environmental effects
b) Rough edges of the fiber
c) Large diameter of core
d) Polarization
20. What does micro-bending losses depend on _____________
a) Core material
b) Refractive index
c) Diameter
d) Mode and wavelength
21. The fiber should be________________ to avoid deterioration of the optical
transmission characteristics resulting from mode-coupling-induced micro-bending.
a) Free from irregular external pressure
b) Coupled with plastic
c) Large in diameter
d) Smooth and in a steady state
22. The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber affects the ______________
a) Transmission of optical light in the fiber
b) Spectral attenuation characteristics of the fiber
c) Core of the fiber
d) Cladding of the fiber
23. __________ can induce a considerable amount of attenuation in optical fibers.
a) Micro-bending
b) Dispersion
c) Diffusion of hydrogen
d) Radiation Exposure
24. The ratio r = (n1 – n)/(n1 – n) indicates ____________
a) Fresnel reflection
b) Reflection coefficient
c) Refraction coefficient
d) Angular power distribution coefficient
25. Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter, numerical aperture,
relative refractive index differences, different refractive index profiles, fiber faults
are known as ____________
a) Intrinsic joint losses
b) Extrinsic losses
c) Insertion losses
d) Coupling losses
26. A step index fiber has a coupling efficiency of 0.906 with uniform illumination of all
propagation modes. Find the insertion loss due to lateral misalignment?
a) 0.95 dB
b) 0.40 dB
c) 0.42 dB
d) 0.62 Db
Loss10t = -10log10t η10t
Where, Loss10t = insertion loss due to lateral misalignment
η10t = Coupling efficiency.
27. A graded index fiber has a parabolic refractive index profile (α=2) and core diameter
of 42μm. Estimate an insertion loss due to a 2 μm lateral misalignment when there is
index matching and assuming there is uniform illumination of all guided modes
only.
a) 0.180
b) 0.106
c) 0.280
d) 0.080
Lt = 0.85(y/a)
Where y = lateral misalignment
a = core radius.
28. In a single mode fiber, the losses due to lateral offset and angular misalignment are
given by 0.20 dB and 0.46 dB respectively. Find the total insertion loss.
a) 0.66 dB
b) 0.26 dB
c) 0.38 dB
d) 0.40 dB
TT = TL + Ta
Where, TT = total insertion loss
TL = lateral offset loss
Ta = Angular misalignment loss.
29. A permanent joint formed between two different optical fibers in the field is known
as a ____________
a) Fiber splice
b) Fiber connector
c) Fiber attenuator
d) Fiber dispersion
30. The insertion losses of the fiber splices are much less than the Fresnel reflection loss
at a butted fiber joint.
a) True
b) False
31. The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing point with the application
of required axial pressure between the two optical fibers is called as ____________
a) Mechanical splicing
b) Fusion splicing
c) Melting
d) Diffusion
32. Average insertion losses as low as _________ have been obtained with multimode
graded index and single-mode fibers using ceramic capillaries.
a) 0.1 dB
b) 0.5 dB
c) 0.02 dB
d) 0.3 dB
33. _____________ are formed by sandwiching the butted fiber ends between a V-
groove glass substrate and a flat glass retainer plate.
a) Springroove splices
b) V-groove splices
c) Elastic splices
d) Fusion splices
34. When considering source-to-fiber coupling efficiencies, the ________ is an important
parameter than total output power.
a) Numerical aperture
b) Radiance of an optical source
c) Coupling efficiency
d) Angular power distribution
35. It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch fibers.
a) Optical fiber coupler
b) Optical fiber splice
c) Optical fiber connector
d) Optical isolator
36. Optical fiber couplers are also called as ________________
a) Isolators
b) Circulators
c) Directional couplers
d) Attenuators
37. The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is limited by ____________
a) Numerical apertures of fibers
b) Varying refractive index of fibers
c) Angular power distribution at source
d) Number of modes propagating in each fiber
38. ________ couplers combine the different wavelength optical signal onto the fiber or
separate the different wavelength optical signal output from the fiber.
a) 3-port
b) 2*2-star
c) WDM
d) Directional
39. Which is the most common method for manufacturing couplers?
a) Wavelength division multiplexing
b) Lateral offset method
c) Semitransparent mirror method
d) Fused bi-conical taper (FBT) technique
40. A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μW optical power launched into
port 1. The measured output power at ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5 μW
respectively. Determine the excess loss.
a) 0.22 dB
b) 0.33 dB
c) 0.45 dB
d) 0.12 dB
Excess loss = 10log10 P1/(P3+P4)
WhereP1, P3, P4 = output power at ports 1,3 and 4 resp.
41. A four-port FBT coupler has 60μW optical power launched into port one. The output
powers at ports 2, 3, 4 are 0.0025, 18, and 22 μW respectively. Find the split ratio?
a) 42%
b) 46%
c) 52%
d) 45%
Split ratio = [P3/(P3+P4)]*100%
Where P3 and P4 are output powers at ports 3 and 4 respectively.
42. Calculate the splitting loss if a 30×30 port multimode fiber star coupler has 1 mW of
optical power launched into an input port.
a) 13 dB
b) 15 dB
c) 14.77 dB
d) 16.02 dB
Splitting loss (Star coupler) = 10log10N (dB).
43. A number of three-port single-mode fiber couplers are used in the fabrication of a
ladder coupler with 16 output ports. The three-port couplers each have an excess
loss of 0.2 dB along with a splice loss of 0.1 dB at the interconnection of each stage.
Determine the excess loss.
a) 1.9 dB
b) 1.4 dB
c) 0.9 dB
d) 1.1 dB
Excess loss = (M×loss in each 3-port coupler) + (Number of splices×Loss in each
stage)
Where number of splices = 3 (as the value of M is equal to 4).
44. A device which is made of isolators and follows a closed loop path is called as a
____________
a) Circulator
b) Gyrator
c) Attenuator
d) Connector
45. The commercially available circulators exhibit insertion losses around
________________
a) 2 dB
b) 0.7 dB
c) 0.2 dB
d) 1 dB
46. A device which converts electrical energy in the form of a current into optical energy
is called as ___________
a) Optical source
b) Optical coupler
c) Optical isolator
d) Circulator
47. How many types of sources of optical light are available?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
48. The frequency of the absorbed or emitted radiation is related to difference in energy
E between the higher energy state E2 and the lower energy state E1. State what h
stands for in the given equation?
E = E2 - E1 = hf
a)Gravitation constant
b) Planck’s constant
c) Permittivity
d) Attenuation constant
49. The radiation emission process (emission of a proton at frequency) can occur in
__________ ways.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
50. An incandescent lamp is operating at a temperature of 1000K at an operating
frequency of 5.2×1014 Hz. Calculate the ratio of stimulated emission rate to
spontaneous emission rate.
a) 3×10-13
b) 1.47×10-11
c) 2×10-12
d) 1.5×10-13
Stimulated emission rate/ Spontaneous emission rate = 1/exp (hf/KT)-1.
51. The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper level under the conditions
of ________________
a) Isothermal packaging
b) Population inversion
c) Thermal equilibrium
d) Pumping
52. __________________ in the laser occurs when photon colliding with an excited atom
causes the stimulated emission of a second photon.
a) Light amplification
b) Attenuation
c) Dispersion
d) Population inversion
53. A ruby laser has a crystal of length 3 cm with a refractive index of 1.60, wavelength
0.43 μm. Determine the number of longitudinal modes.
a) 1×102
b) 3×106
c) 2.9×105
d) 2.2×105
q = 2nL/λ
Where
q = Number of longitudinal modes
n = Refractive index
L = Length of the crystal
λ = Peak emission wavelength.
54. A semiconductor laser crystal of length 5 cm, refractive index 1.8 is used as an
optical source. Determine the frequency separation of the modes.
a) 2.8 GHz
b) 1.2 GHz
c) 1.6 GHz
d) 2 GHz
δf = c/2nL
Where
c = velocity of light
n = Refractive index
L = Length of the crystal.
55. A perfect semiconductor crystal containing no impurities or lattice defects is called
as __________
a) Intrinsic semiconductor
b) Extrinsic semiconductor
c) Excitation
d) Valence electron
56. The energy-level occupation for a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is described
by the __________
a) Boltzmann distribution function
b) Probability distribution function
c) Fermi-Dirac distribution function
d) Cumulative distribution function
57. What is done to create an extrinsic semiconductor?
a) Refractive index is decreased
b) Doping the material with impurities
c) Increase the band-gap of the material
d) Stimulated emission
58. The majority of the carriers in a p-type semiconductor are __________
a) Holes
b) Electrons
c) Photons
d) Neutrons
59. _________________ is used when the optical emission results from the application of
electric field.
a) Radiation
b) Efficiency
c) Electro-luminescence
d) Magnetron oscillator
60. How many types of hetero-junctions are available?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Four
61. The ______________ system is best developed and is used for fabricating both lasers
and LEDs for the shorter wavelength region.
a) InP
b) GaSb
c) GaAs/GaSb
d) GaAs/Alga AS DH
62. P-n photodiode is forward biased.
a) True
b) False
63. The depletion region must be ____________ to allow a large fraction of the incident
light to be absorbed in the device(photodiode).
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Long
d) Inactive
64. The process of excitation of an electron from valence band to conduction band leaves
an empty hole in the valence band and is called as ____________
a) Detection
b) Absorption
c) Degeneration of an electron-hole pair
d) Regeneration of an electron-hole pair
65. __________________ always leads to the generation of a hole and an electron.
a) Repulsion
b) Dispersion
c) Absorption
d) Attenuation
66. The electron hole pairs generated in a photodiode are separated by the ____________
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Static field
d) Depletion region
67. The photocurrent of an optical detector should be __________
a) Less
b) More
c) Linear
d) Non-linear
68. How many types of optical detectors are available?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
69. The absorption of photons in a photodiode is dependent on __________
a) Absorption Coefficient α0
b) Properties of material
c) Charge carrier at junction
d) Amount of light
70. The photocurrent in a photodiode is directly proportional to absorption coefficient.
a) True
b) False
71. The absorption coefficient of semiconductor materials is strongly dependent on
__________
a) Properties of material
b) Wavelength
c) Amount of light
d) Amplitude
72. In optical fiber communication, the only weakly absorbing material over wavelength
band required is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
73. The threshold for indirect absorption occurs at wavelength __________
a) 3.01 μm
b) 2.09 μm
c) 0.92 μm
d) 1.09 μm
74. The semiconductor material for which the lowest energy absorption takes place is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
75. The wavelength range of interest for Germanium is __________
a) 0.8 to 1.6 μm
b) 0.3 to 0.9 μm
c) 0.4 to 0.8 μm
d) 0.9 to 1.8 μm
76. A photodiode should be chosen with a ________________ less than photon energy.
a) Direct absorption
b) Band gap energy
c) Wavelength range
d) Absorption coefficient
77. ________________ photodiodes have large dark currents.
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
78. For fabrication of semiconductor photodiodes, there is a drawback while
considering _________________
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
79. _________________ materials are potentially superior to germanium.
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) III – V alloys
80. ____________ alloys such as InGaAsP and GaAsSb deposited on InP and GaSb
substrate.
a) Ternary
b) Quaternary
c) Gain-guided
d) III – V alloys
81. _________________ alloys can be fabricated in hetero-junction structures.
a) InGaSb
b) III – V alloys
c) InGaAsP
d) GaAsSb
82. The alloys lattice matched to InP responds to wavelengths up to 1.7μm is?
a) InAsSb
b) III – V alloys
c) InGaSb
d) InGaAs
83. The fraction of incident photons generated by photodiode of electrons generated
collected at detector is known as ___________________
a) Quantum efficiency
b) Absorption coefficient
c) Responsivity
d) Anger recombination
84. In photo detectors, energy of incident photons must be ________________ band gap
energy.
a) Lesser than
b) Greater than
c) Same as
d) Negligible
85. GaAs has band gap energy of 1.93 eV at 300 K. Determine wavelength above which
material will cease to operate.
a) 2.431*10-5
b) 6.424*10-7
c) 6.023*103
d) 7.234*10-7
The long wavelength cutoff is given by
λc = hc/Eg = 6.6268*10-34*2.998*108/1.93*1.602*10-19
= 6.424*10-7μm.
86. The long cutoff wavelength of GaAs is 0.923 μm. Determine bandgap energy.
a) 1.478*10-7
b) 4.265*10-14
c) 2.784*10-9
d) 2.152*10-19
λc = hc/Eg
Eg = hc/λc = 6.6268*10-34*2.998*108/0.923*10-6
= 2.152*10-19eV.
87. Quantum efficiency is a function of photon wavelength.
a) True
b) False
88. Determine quantum efficiency if incident photons on photodiodes is 4*1011 and
electrons collected at terminals is 1.5*1011?
a) 50%
b) 37.5%
c) 25%
d) 30%
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by
Quantum Efficiency = No. of electrons collected/No. of incident photons
= 1.5*1011/4*1011
= 0.375 * 100
= 37.5%.
89. A photodiode has quantum efficiency of 45% and incident photons are 3*1011.
Determine electrons collected at terminals of device.
a) 2.456*109
b) 1.35*1011
c) 5.245*10-7
d) 4.21*10-3
Explanation: Quantum efficiency is given by
Quantum efficiency = No. of electrons collected/No. of incident photons
Electrons collected = Quantum efficiency * number of incident photons
= 45/100 * 3*1011
= 1.35*1011.
90. The quantum efficiency of photodiode is 40% with wavelength of 0.90*10-6.
Determine the responsivity of photodiodes.
a) 0.20
b) 0.52
c) 0.29
d) 0.55
Explanation: Responsivity of photodiodes is given by
R = ηe λ/hc
= 0.4*1.602*10-19 * 0.90*10-6/6.626*10-34 * 3*108
= 0.29 AW-1.
91. The Responsivity of photodiode is 0.294 AW-1at wavelength of 0.90 μm. Determine
quantum efficiency.
a) 0.405
b) 0.914
c) 0.654
d) 0.249
Explanation: Responsivity of photodiode is
R = ηe λ/hc
η = RXhc/eλ
= 0.294*6.626*10-34*3*108/ 1.602*10-19*0.90*108
= 0.405 AW-1.
92. Determine wavelength of photodiode having quantum efficiency of 40% and
Responsivity of 0.304 AW-1.
a) 0.87 μm
b) 0.91 μm
c) 0.88 μm
d) 0.94 μm
The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = ηe λ/hc
λ = Rhc/ηe
= 0.304*6.626*10-34*3*108/0.4*1.602*10-19
= 0.94 μm.
93. Determine wavelength at which photodiode is operating if energy of photons is
1.9*10-19J?
a) 2.33
b) 1.48
c) 1.04
d) 3.91
Explanation: To determine wavelength,
λ = hc/t
= 6.626*10-34*3*108/1.9*10-19
= 1.04 μm
94. Determine the energy of photons incident on a photodiode if it operates at a
wavelength of 1.36 μm.
a) 1.22*10-34J
b) 1.46*10-19J
c) 6.45*10-34J
d) 3.12*109J
Explanation: The wavelength of photodiode is given by
λ = hc/t
E = hc/λ
= 6.626*10-34*3*108/1.36*10-6
= 1.46*10-19J.
95. Determine Responsivity of photodiode having o/p power of 3.55 μm and photo
current of 2.9 μm.
a) 0.451
b) 0.367
c) 0.982
d) 0.816
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = Ip/Po
= 2.9*10-6/3.55*10-6
= 0.816 A/W.
96. Determine incident optical power on a photodiode if it has photocurrent of 2.1 μA
and responsivity of 0.55 A/W.
a) 4.15
b) 1.75
c) 3.81
d) 8.47
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is
R = Ip/Po
Po = Ip/R
= 2.1*10-6/0.55
= 3.81 μm.
97. If a photodiode requires incident optical power of 0.70 A/W. Determine
photocurrent.
a) 1.482
b) 2.457
c) 4.124
d) 3.199
Explanation: The Responsivity of photodiode is given by
R = Ip/Po
Ip = R*Po
= 0.70*3.51*10-6
= 2.457μm.
98. _____________ refers to any spurious or undesired disturbances that mask the
received signal in a communication system.
a) Attenuation
b) Noise
c) Dispersion
d) Bandwidth
99. ______________ is caused due to thermal interaction between the free electrons and
the vibrating ions in the conduction medium.
a) Thermal noise
b) Dark noise
c) Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise
100. A digital optical fiber communication system requires a maximum bit-error-
rate of 10-9. Find the average number of photons detected in a time period for a given
BER.
a) 19.7
b) 21.2
c) 20.7
d) 26.2
Explanation: The probability of error is given by-
P(e) = exp(-Zm)
Where, Zm = No. of photons
Here P(e) = 10-9, therefore Zm is calculated from above relation.
101. For a given optical fiber communication system, P(e) = 10-9, Zm = 20.7, f =
2.9×1014, η = 1. Find the minimum pulse energy or quantum limit.
a) 3.9×10-18
b) 4.2×10-18
c) 6.2×10-14
d) 7.2×10-14
Explanation: The minimum pulse energy or quantum limit is given by –
Emin = Zmhf/η
Where, Zm = Number of photons
h = Planck’s constant
f = frequency
η = Quantum efficiency.
102. An analog optical fiber system operating at wavelength 1μmhas a post-
detection bandwidth of 5MHz. Assuming an ideal detector and incident power of
198 nW, calculate the SNR (f = 2.99×1014Hz).
a) 46
b) 40
c) 50
d) 52
Explanation: The SNR is given by –
S/N = ηP0/2hfB
Where, η = 1 (for ideal detector)
P0 = incident power
h = Planck’s constant
B = Bandwidth.
103. The incident optical power required to achieve a desirable SNR is 168.2nW.
What is the value of incident power in dBm?
a) -37.7 dBm
b) -37 dBm
c) – 34 dBm
d) -38.2 dBm
Explanation: Incident power in denoted by P0. It is given by –
P0 = 10log10(P0(watts))
Where P0(watts) = incident power in Watts/milliWatt.
104. Which are the two main sources of noise in photodiodes without internal
gain?
a) Gaussian noise and dark current noise
b) Internal noise and external noise
c) Dark current noise & Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise and Quantum noise
105. The dominating effect of thermal noise over the shot noise in photodiodes
without internal gain can be observed in wideband systems operating in the range of
________
a) 0.4 to 0.5 μm
b) 0.8 to 0.9 μm
c) 0.3 to 0.4 μm
d) 0.7 to 0.79 μm

106. A silicon p-i-n photodiode incorporated in an optical receiver has following


parameters:

Quantum efficiency = 70%

Wavelength = 0.8 μm

Dark current = 3nA

Load resistance = 4 kΩ

Incident optical power = 150nW.


Bandwidth = 5 MHz

Compute the photocurrent in the device.

Compute the photocurrent in the device.


a) 67.7nA
b) 81.2nA
c) 68.35nA
d) 46.1nA

Explanation: The photocurrent is given by


Ip = ηP0eλ/hc
Where η = Quantum efficiency
P0 = Incident optical power
e = electron charge
λ = Wavelength
h = Planck’s constant
c = Velocity of light.
107. In a silicon p-i-n photodiode, if load resistance is 4 kΩ, temperature is 293 K,
bandwidth is 4MHz, find the thermal noise in the load resistor.
a) 1.8 × 10-16A2
b) 1.23 × 10-17A2
c) 1.65 × 10-16A2
d) 1.61 × 10-17A2

Explanation: The thermal noise in the load resistor is given by –


it2 = 4KTB/RL
Where T = Temperature
B = Bandwidth
RL = Load resistance.

108. A photodiode has a capacitance of 6 pF. Calculate the maximum load resistance
which allows an 8MHz post detection bandwidth.
a) 3.9 kΩ
b) 3.46 kΩ
c) 3.12 kΩ
d) 3.32 kΩ

Explanation: The load resistance is given by-


RL = 1/2πCdB
Where
B = Post detection bandwidth
Cd = Input capacitance
RL = Load resistance.

109. The internal gain mechanism in an APD is directly related to SNR. State whether
the given statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False

110. ___________ is dependent upon the detector material, the shape of the electric field
profile within the device.
a) SNR
b) Excess avalanche noise factor
c) Noise gradient
111. For silicon APDs, the value of excess noise factor is between _________
a) 0.001 and 0.002
b) 0.5 and 0.7
c) 0.02 and 0.10
d) 1 and 2

112. How many design considerations are considered while determining the receiver
performance?
a) Three
b) Two
c) One
d) Four

113. FET preamplifiers provide higher sensitivity than the Si-bipolar device.
a) True
b) False

114. What is the abbreviation of HBT?


a) Homo-junction unipolar transistor
b) Homo-junction bipolar transistor
c) Hetero-junction bipolar transistor
d) Hetero-Bandwidth transcendence

115. What type of receivers are used to provide wideband operation, low-noise
operation?
a) APD optical receivers
b) Optoelectronic integrated circuits (OEICs)
c) MESFET receivers
d) Trans-impedance front-end receivers

116. ___________ circuits extends the dynamic range of the receiver.


a) Monolithic
b) Trans-impedance
c) Automatic Error Control (AEC)
d) Automatic Gain Control (AGC)

117. What is generally used to determine the receiver performance characteristics?


a) Noise
b) Resistor
c) Dynamic range & sensitivity characteristics
d) Impedance
118. The __________ technique eliminates the thermal noise associated with the
feedback resistor in the trans-impedance front end design.
a) Compensation
b) Resonating impedance
c) Electromagnetic
d) Optical feedback

119. The removal of the feedback resistor in the optical feedback technique allows
reciever sensitivity of the order of _______________
a) -54 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
b) -12 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
c) -64 dBm at 2Mbit/sec
d) -72 dBm at 2Mbit/sec

120. The optimum filter bandwidth is typically in the range ________________


a) 0.1 to 0.3 nm
b) 0.5 to 3 nm
c) 0.1 to 0.3 μm
d) 0.5 to 3 μm

121. For linear as well as in nonlinear mode _______________ are most important
network elements.
a) Optical amplifier
b) Optical detector
c) A/D converter
d) D/A converters

122. The more advantages optical amplifier is ____________


a) Fiber amplifier
b) Semiconductor amplifier
c) Repeaters
d) Mode hooping amplifier

123. ________________ cannot be used for wideband amplification.


a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier

124. ____________ is used preferably for channel selection in a WDM system.


a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier

125. For used in single-mode fiber __________ are used preferably.


a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier

126. Mostly ____________ are used in nonlinear applications.


a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) FPAs

127. _______________ is superior as compared to _________________


a) TWA, FPA
b) FPA, TWA
c) EDFA, FPA
d) FPA, EDFA

128. An uncoated FPA has peak gain wavelength 1.8μm, mode spacing of 0.8nm, and
long active region of 300 v. Determine RI of active medium.
a) 4.25×106
b) 3.75×107
c) 3.95×107
d) 4.25×109

Explanation: n=λ2/2δλL=1.8×10-6/2×0.8×10-9×300×10-6=3.75×107.

129. Determine the peak gain wavelength of uncoated FPA having mode spacing
of 2nm,and 250μmlong active region and R.I of 3.78.
a)2.25×10-4
b)4.53×10-8
c)1.94×10-6
d)4.25×109
Explanation: The peak gain wavelength is given by
λ2=n2δλL=3.78×2×2×10-9×250×10-6=1.94×10-6m.
130. An SOA has net gain coefficient of 300, at a gain of 30dB. Determine length of
SOA.
a) 0.32 m
b) 0.023 m
c) 0.245 m
d) 0.563 m
Explanation: The length of SOA is determined by
L = Gs(dB)/10×g×loge = 30/10×300×0.434`= 0.023 m.
131. An SOA has length of 35.43×10-3m, at 30 dB gain. Determine net gain
coefficient.
a) 5.124×10-3
b) 1.12×10-4
c) 5.125×10-3
d) 2.15×10-5
132. An SOA has mode number of 2.6, spontaneous emission factor of 4, optical
bandwidth of 1 THz. Determine noise power spectral density.
a) 1.33×10-3
b) 5.13×1012
c) 3.29×10-6
d) 0.33×10-9
Explanation: The noise power spectral density Past is
Past = mnsp(Gs-1) hfb
= 2.6×4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1×1012
= 1.33×10-3W.
133. An SOA has noise power spectral density of 1.18mW, spontaneous emission
factor of 4, optical bandwidth of 1.5 THz. Determine mode number.
a) 1.53 × 1028
b) 6.14 × 1012
c) 1.78 × 1016
d) 4.12 × 10-3
Explanation: The mode number is determined by
m = Past/nsp(Gs-1) hfB
= 1.18×10-3/4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1.3×1012
= 1.53 × 10-
404190 Item Bank Name
Broadband Communication Systems

Option Text 1 Option Text 2 Option Text 3 Option Text 4


Item Text
An optical fiber has core-index of 1.480
and a cladding index of 1.478. What should 7.31μm 8.71μm 5.26μm 6.50μm
be the core size for single mode operation
at 1310nm?
A single mode fiber has mode field
diameter 10.2μmand V=2.20. What is the 11.1μm 13.2μm 7.6μm 10.1μm
core diameter of this fiber?
A monochromatic wave propagates along a
waveguide in z direction. These points of Vp=ω/β Vp=ω/c Vp=C/N Vp=mass/acceleration
constant phase travel in constant phase
travel at a phase velocity Vp is given by
A multimode step index fiber has a large
100 to 300 μm 100 to 300 nm 200 to 500 μm 200 to 500 nm
core diameter of range _____
Multimode step index fibers have a
2 to 30 MHz km 6 to 50 MHz km 10 to 40 MHz km 8 to 40 MHz km
bandwidth of _____________
Multimode graded index fibers with
wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical
62.5 μm/125 μm 100μm/140 μm 85 μm/ 125 μm 50 μm/ 125μm
aperture of 0.29 have core/cladding
diameter of _______
Which law gives the relationship between
Law of reflection Law of refraction (Snell’s Law). Millman’s Law Huygen’s Law
refractive index of the dielectric?
The ________ ray passes through the axis
Reflected Refracted Meridional Skew
of the fiber core.
Light incident on fibers of Less than and equal
angles________the acceptance angle do Less than Greater than Equal to
to
not propagate into the fiber.
What is the numerical aperture of the fiber
0.5 0.36 0.2 0.27
if the angle of acceptance is 16 degree ?
The ratio of speed of light in air to the
speed of light in another medium is called Speed factor Dielectric constant Reflection index Refractive index
as_________
Which is the correct order of sequential
steps for an electric arc fusion technique?
A. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion
B. Application of heat for smoothening of A, B, C B, A, C C, B, A C, A, B
end-surfaces
C. Alignment of broken fiber edges

Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of 1.8,


3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are linked together. The 7.5 dB 19.8 dB 29.1 dB 650 dB
total loss is
Which among the following is provided by
an optical receiver for the regeneration of Photo-diode Signal Processing Circuits Linear Circuitry Connector
data signal with minimum error?
Which among the following represents the Removal of
measure/s to minimize the inhomogenities imperfections due
for Mie scattering reduction? Increase in relative R.I.
Extrusion Control to glass All of the above
difference
manufacturing
process
Which among the following is regarded as
Kerr Effect Raman Effect Hall Effect Miller Effect
an inelastic scattering of a photon?
The main benefit of light-wave
communications over microwaves or any Freedom from
Lower cost Better security Wider bandwidth
other communications media is interference

Common types of Antennas used in


Horn antenna Parabolic reflector antenna Array antenna All of these
satellite subsystems are
Most important characteristics of the highly
Narrow beam width Low gain side lobes None of these
directional antennas used in satellite is
AOCS does not perform Orbit insertion Orbit maintenance Fine pointing Tracking
UNIT-1
1) In single-mode fibers, how does the fraction of energy traveling through bound mode
appear in the cladding?
a. As a crescent wave
b. As a gibbous wave
c. As an evanescent wave
d. All of the above
Answer: c

2) What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?


a. 1
b. 1.36
c. 2.6
d. 3.4
Answer: b

3) If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically denser
medium with high refractive index, then it is regarded as _______
a. External Reflection
b. Internal Reflection
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: a

4) In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing the


ability of __________
a. Light Collection
b. Light Scattering
c. Light Dispersion
d. Light Polarization
Answer: a

5) During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are
responsible for an extrinsic absorption?

a. Atomic defects in the composition of glass


b. Impurity atoms in glass material
c. Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
d. All of the above

Answer: b

6) Which kind/s of misalignment assist/s in the reduction of overlap region in fiber?


a. Angular
b. Longitudinal
c. Lateral
d. All of the above
Answer: c

7) In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and from fiber to
detector must take place with _________coupling efficiency.
a. maximum
b. stable
c. minimum
d. unpredictable
Answer: a

8) In spontaneous emission, the light source in an excited state undergoes the transition to
a state with _______
a. Higher energy
b. Moderate energy
c. Lower energy
d. All of the above
Answer: c

9) In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to total internal
______
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. diffraction
d. dispersion
Answer: a

10) In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional strength and
prevents the fiber from any damage?
a. Core
b. Cladding
c. Buffer Coating
d. None of the above
Answer: c
11) Which is the transmission medium for VLF electromagnetic waves especially
applicable for aeronautical and submarine cables?
a. Paired wires
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Wireless
Answer: a

12) Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the fiber?
a. Meridional
b. Skew
c. Leaky
d. All of the above
Answer: b

13) If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of about 10 μm, n1 = 1.30, Δ =
0.80% , V = 3.5, then how many modes will it have?
a. 6.125
b. 9.655
c. 12.95
d. 16.55
Answer: a

14) Which among the following is a key process adopted for the laser beam formation as
it undergoes the light amplification?
a. Spontaneous Emission
b. Stimulated Emission
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Answer: b

15) Which component of an optical receiver is a linear frequency shaping filter used for
the compensation of signal distortion and Inter Symbol Interference (ISI)?
a. Photodetector
b. Amplifier
c. Equalizer
d. None of the above

Answer: c
16) Which kind of dispersion phenomenon gives rise to pulse spreading in single mode
fibers?
a. Intramodal
b. Intermodal
c. Material
d. Group Velocity
Answer: a

17) If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of about 10 μm, n1 = 1.30, Δ =
0.80% , V = 3.5, then how many modes will it have?
a. 6.125
b. 9.655
c. 12.95
d. 16.55
Answer: a

18) Which type of scattering occurs due to interaction of light in a medium with time
dependent optical density variations thereby resulting into the change of energy (
a. Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)
b. Stimulated Raman Scattering (SRS)
c. Mie Scattering
d. Rayleigh Scattering

Answer: a

19) In Stimulated Emission, which among the following parameters of generated photon
is/are similar to the photon of incident wave?
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Polarization & direction of travel
d. All of the above
Answer: d

20) Which among the following is/are responsible for generating attenuation of an
optical power in fiber?
a. Absorption
b. Scattering
c. Waveguide effect
d. All of the above
Answer: d

21) The order of mode is equal to the number of field____ across the guide.
a. Zeros
b. Poles
c. Ones
d. All of the above
Answer: a

22) In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive index of core is always
_______the refractive index of cladding.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
d. None of the above
Answer: c

23) The spectral response of an ideal photodetector depicts its efficiency as a function of
_________
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. period
d. wavelength
Answer: d

24) In an optical network, increase in the number of lasers ________the bit rate.
a. Increases
b. Stabilizes
c. Decreases
d. None of the above
Answer: a

25) Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero between each pulse &
takes place even due to occurrence of consecutive 0's & 1's in the signal?
a. Return-to-zero (RZ)
b. Non-Return to zero space
c. Return to zero inverted
d. Non-return to zero inverted
Answer: a

26) For measuring the shape of input pulse in time-domain intermodal dispersion
method, the test fiber is replaced by another fiber whose length is less than ___ of the test
fiber.
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 20%
Answer: a

27) In chromatic dispersion, which parameter for the modulation of the received signal
is measured with the help of a vector voltmeter?
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Period

Answer: c

28) Which among the following misalignments give/gives rise to the occurrence of
splice loss?
a. Longitudinal separation between the end-faces of fiber
b. Angular tilt between fiber ends
c. Transverse offset between fiber ends
d. All of the above
Answer: d

29) Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter, numerical aperture, relative
refractive index differences, different refractive index profiles, fiber faults are known as
a) Intrinsic joint losses
b) Extrinsic losses
c) Insertion losses
d) Coupling losses

Answer: a

30) The intrinsic loss through a multimode fiber joint is independent of direction of
propagation. State whether the given statement is true or false
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

31) Which process gives the laser its special properties as an optical source?
a) Dispersion
b) Stimulated absorption
c) Spontaneous emission
d) Stimulated emission

Answer: d

32) The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper level under the conditions of
________________
a) Isothermal packaging
b) Population inversion
c) Thermal equilibrium
d) Pumping

Answer: c

33) __________________ in the laser occurs when photon colliding with an excited atom
causes the stimulated emission of a second photon.
a) Light amplification
b) Attenuation
c) Dispersion
d) Population inversion

Answer: a

34) A perfect semiconductor crystal containing no impurities or lattice defects is called as


a) Intrinsic semiconductor
b) Extrinsic semiconductor
c) Excitation
d) Valence electron

Answer: a

35) What is done to create an extrinsic semiconductor?


a) Refractive index is decreased
b) Doping the material with impurities
c) Increase the band-gap of the material
d) Stimulated emission

Answer: b

36)Multimode step index fiber has


a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture

Answer: a

37) A multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range
a) 100 to 300 μm
b) 100 to 300 nm
c) 200 to 500 μm
d) 200 to 500 nm

Answer: a

38) Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with
a) Lower purity
b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.
c) No impurity
d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.

Answer: b

39)The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are


a) Better than multimode step index fibers.
b) Same as multimode step index fibers.
c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers
d) Negligible

Answer: a

40)Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode step
index fibers but have core diameters
a) Larger than multimode step index fibers.
b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers.
c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers.
d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers.

Answer: b

41)Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical aperture
of 0.29 have core/cladding diameter of
a) 62.5 μm/125 μm
b) 100μm/140 μm
c) 85 μm/ 125 μm
d) 50 μm/ 125μm

Answer: b

42)Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only. State whether the
following statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

43)In single mode fibers, the most beneficial index profile is


a) Step index
b) Graded index
c) Step and graded index
d) Coaxial cable

Answer: b

44)The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
a) Single mode fibers
b) Multimode step fibers
c) Coaxial cables
d) Multimode graded index fibers

Answer: a

45)Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be at
least
a) Twice the core diameter
b) Thrice the core diameter
c) Five times the core diameter
d) Ten times the core diameter

Answer: d

46) When optical fibers are to be installed in a working environment, the most important
parameter to be considered is
a) Transmission property of the fiber
b) Mechanical property of the fiber
c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber
d) Numerical aperture of the fiber

Answer: b

47) Multimode step index fiber has


a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture

Answer: a

48) A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is


a) Coaxial cables
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Standard multimode fibers
d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers

Answer: b

49) It is not important to cover these optical fibers required for transmission. State
whether the given statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

50) Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of


a) 2 to 30 MHz km
b) 6 to 50 MHz km
c) 10 to 40 MHz km
d) 8 to 40 MHz km

Answer: b

51) After Total Internal Reflection the Meridional ray


a) Makes an angle equal to acceptance angle with the axial ray
b) Makes an angle equal to critical angle with the axial ray
c) Travels parallel equal to critical angle with the axial ray
d) Makes an angle equal to critical angle with the axial ray
Answer: d

52) __________________ always leads to the generation of a hole and an electron.


a) Repulsion
b) Dispersion
c) Absorption
d) Attenuation

Answer: c

53) Number of modes supported in single mode fiber ____________

a)V2/2

b) V2

c)V/2

d) V2/4

Answer: a

54) Number of modes supported in multi-mode fiber ____________

a)V2/2

b) V2

c)V/2

d) V2/4

Answer: d

55) Core diameter of step index fiber __________

a)125-400µm

b) 50-100µm

c) 125-300µm
d) 50-200µm

Answer: a

55) Core diameter of graded index fiber __________

a)125-400µm

b) 50-100µm

c) 125-300µm

d) 50-200µm

Answer: b

56) Coupling of light is easier in step index fiber.

a)True

b)False

Answer: a

56) Coupling of light is difficult in graded index fiber.

a)True

b)False

Answer: a

57) Intermodal dispersion is _____________ step index fiber.

a) more

b) less

c)medium

d)none

Answer: a
58) Intermodal dispersion is __________ graded index fiber.

a) more

b) less

c)medium

d)none

Answer: b

59)In graded index fiber refractive index profile is___________.

a)Uniform

b)Nonuniform

c)none of the above

d)Moderate

Answer: b

60) Single mode fiber is excited with ____________source.

a) Laser

b) LED

c) APD

d) All of the above

Answer: a

61) For long distance communication __________used.

a) Single mode fiber

b) Step index fiber

c) Graded index fiber

d) All of the above

Answer: a
62) Bandwidth requirement is less in ____________

a) Multi mode fiber

b) Step index fiber

c) Graded index fiber

d) All of the above

Answer: a

63) For Short distance communication __________used.

a) Multi mode fiber

b) Step index fiber

c) Graded index fiber

d) All of the above

Answer: a

64) Bandwidth requirement is more in ____________

a) Single mode fiber

b) Step index fiber

c) Graded index fiber

d) All of the above

Answer: a

65) Scattering created by homogeneities are _________

a) Rayleigh Scattering

b) Mie Scattering

c) Raman Scattering

d) Stimulated Raman Scattering

Answer: b
66) Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with
a) Lower purity
b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.
c) No impurity
d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.
Answer: b
67) The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are
a) Better than multimode step index fibers.
b) Same as multimode step index fibers.
c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers
d) Negligible
Answer: a

68) In single mode fibers, the most beneficial index profile is


a) Step index
b) Graded index
c) Step and graded index
d) Coaxial cable
Answer: b

69) Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from
a) Plastic
b) Silica or multicomponent glass
c) Ceramics
d) Copper
Answer: b

70) It is not important to cover these optical fibers required for transmission. State
whether the given statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

71) what is the typical value of refractive index of Glass?


a. 1
b. 1.36
c. 2.6
d. 1.5
Answer: d

72) what is the typical value of refractive index of air?


a. 1
b. 1.36
c. 2.6
d. 1.5
Answer: a
73) The numerical aperture is the __________________of the angle of acceptance.
a. Sine
b. Cosine
c. tan
d. None
Answer: a
74) The quantum of light is called the __________________
a. Photon
b. Electron
c. Photon-electron pair
d. none
Answer: a
75) Dispersion can be expressed in units of _____________rather than bandwidth.
a. frequency
b. time
c. wavelength
d. none
Answer: b
76) In the core, the angle of incidence equals the angle of _________________.
a. refraction
b. reflection
c. internal reflection
d. none
Answer: b
77) The __________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection.
a. Sine
b. Cosine
c. Critical
d. None
Answer: c
78) The core is surrounded by the ______________.
a. Glass
b. Jacket
c. shield
d. Cladding
Answer: d

79) Optical fiber relies on total ____________reflection.


a. external
b. internal
c. Both a and b
d. None
Answer: b
80) Good connections are more critical with ___________mode fiber.
a. single
b. multi
c. graded index
d. step index
Answer: a

81) The macroscopic bending losses show an exponential increase


due to ________ in radius of curvature.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stability
d. None of the above
Answer: b

82) In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is ______ bright


from all directions.
a. Less
b. Equally
c. More
d. Unpredictably
Answer: b

83)If a noisy channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz with signal to noise


ratio of about 1, what would be the maximum capacity of the
channel?
a. 2 Mb/sec
b. 4 Mb/sec
c. 6 Mb/sec
d. 8 Mb/sec
Answer: b

84) Which modes are acknowledged due to their association with


electromagnetic field and beam profile in the direction perpendicular
to the plane of pn junction?
a. Longitudinal Modes
b. Transverse Modes
c. Lateral Modes
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b
UNIT-2
1) A _________________ is a network connecting several regional or national networks
together.
a) Long-haul network
b) Domain network
c) Short-haul network
d) Erbium network

Answer: a

2) What is the range of transmission of extended long haul network?


a) 200-400 km
b) 600-1000 km
c) 1000-2000 km
d) 2000-4000 km

Answer: c

3) Which feature plays an important role in making the longer haul networks feasible?
a) Channeling
b) Forward error control
c) Backward error control
d) Interconnection

Answer: b

4) The fraction of incident photons generated by photodiode of electrons generated


collected at detector is known as
a) Quantum efficiency
b) Absorption coefficient
c) Responsivity
d) Anger recombination

Answer: a

5) In photo detectors, energy of incident photons must be ________________ band gap


energy
a) Lesser than
b) Greater than
c) Same as
d) Negligible

Answer: b
6) Quantum efficiency is a function of photon wavelength. Determine the given
statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

7) The long cutoff wavelength of GaAs is 0.923 μm. Determine bandgap energy
a) 1.478*10-7
b) 4.265*10-14
c) 2.784*10-9
d) 2.152*10-19

Answer: d

8) Determine quantum efficiency if incident photons on photodiodes is 4*10 11 and


electrons collected at terminals is 1.5*1011
a) 50%
b) 37.5%
c) 25%
d) 30%

Answer: b

9) A photodiode has quantum efficiency of 45% and incident photons are 3*1011 .
Determine electrons collected at terminals of device.
a) 2.456*109
b) 1.35*1011
c) 5.245*10-7
d) 4.21*10-3

Answer: b

10) The quantum efficiency of photodiode is 40% with wavelength of 0.90*10-6.


Determine the responsivity of photodiodes
a) 0.20
b) 0.52
c) 0.29
d) 0.55

Answer: c

11) The Responsivity of photodiode is 0.294 AW -1at wavelength of 0.90 μm. Determine
quantum efficiency.
a) 0.405
b) 0.914
c) 0.654
d) 0.249

Answer: a

12) Determine wavelength of photodiode having quantum efficiency of 40% and


Responsivity of 0.304 AW -1
a) 0.87 μm
b) 0.91 μm
c) 0.88 μm
d) 0.94 μm

Answer: d

13) Determine Responsivity of photodiode having o/p power of 3.55 μm and photo
current of 2.9 μm.
a) 0.451
b) 0.367
c) 0.982
d) 0.816

Answer: d

14) Determine incident optical power on a photodiode if it has photocurrent of 2.1 μAand
responsivity of 0.55 A/W
a) 4.15
b) 1.75
c) 3.81
d) 8.47

Answer: c

15) Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?

a. Link power budget


b. Rise time budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: b

16)An analog signal is converted to _____________by using LED light source.

a. electrical signal
b. optical signal
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: b
17) Regenerator is a device to overcome____________ problems.

a. attenuation
b. dispersion
c. bending
d. None of the above
Answer: a

18) An optic amplifier/repeater merely _____________the power of the signal.

a. increases
b. decreases
c. fixed
d. None of the above
Answer: a

19) A regeneration _____________the digital signal into sharp, well-defined 1's and 0's

a. converts
b. reshape
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: b

20) Bit rate for (typical Multimode Fiber)wavelength 800-900nm is___________ in LED
systems.

a. 150 Mb/s.km
b. 2500 Mb/s.km
c. 250 Mb/s.km
d. 1500 Mb/s.km
Answer: a

21) Bit rate for (typical Multimode Fiber)wavelength 800-900nm is___________ in LASER
systems.

a. 150 Mb/s.km
b. 2500 Mb/s.km
c. 250 Mb/s.km
d. 1500 Mb/s.km
Answer: b

22) Bit rate for 1300 nm (Lowest dispersion) ___________ in LED systems.

a. 150 Mb/s.km
b. 2500 Mb/s.km
c. 250 Mb/s.km
d. 1500 Mb/s.km
Answer: d

23) Bit rate for 1300 nm (Lowest dispersion) ___________ in LASER systems.

a. 150 Mb/s.km
b. 2500 Gb/s.km
c. 25 Gb/s.km
d. 1500 Mb/s.km
Answer: c

24) Bit rate for 1550 nm (Lowest Attenuation) ___________ in LED systems.

a. 150 Mb/s.km
b. 2500 Gb/s.km
c. 25 Gb/s.km
d. 1200 Mb/s.km
Answer: d

25) Bit rate for 1550 nm (Lowest Attenuation) ___________ in LASER systems.

a. upto 150 Mb/s.km


b. upto 500 Gb/s.km
c. upto 25 Gb/s.km
d. 1200 Mb/s.km
Answer: b

26) Selection of _____________requires the parameters to be seen as signal dispersion, data


rate, transmission distance and cost.

a. source
b. detector
c. fiber
d. amplifier
Answer: a

27) Selection of ____________depends on type of source and amount of dispersion that can
be tolerated.

a. source
b. detector
c. optical fiber
d. amplifier
Answer: c
28) While selecting a_____________, we determine, how much minimum optical power must
to fall.

a. source
b. photo detector
c. optical fiber
d. amplifier
Answer: b

29) Selection of _____________to transmit the data decides the components which operates
in this wavelength region.

a. frequency
b. time
c. Wave Length
d. none
Answer: c

30) In__________________, it is checked that the desired overall system performance

a. Rise time budget


b. Link time budget
c. both a and b
d. none
Answer: a

31) A ________________ analysis determines the dispersion limitation of an optical fiber link.

a. Rise time budget


b. Link time budget
c. both a and b
d. none
Answer: a

32) A rise-time budget analysis determines the ___________limitation of an optical fiber link.

a. scattering
b. attenuation
c. dispersion
d. none
Answer: c

33) The total rise time tsys is the _____________of the rise times from each contributor ti to the
pulse rise-time degradation.

a. root sum square


b. root square
c. sum of root
d. sum of square
Answer: a

34) _____________loss due to component ageing & temp. Fluctuations.

a. Receiver
b. Transmitter
c. System margin
d. Bandwidth
Answer: c

35) In equation of Pf = η.Ps where η is ___________________.

a. responsitivity
b. quantum efficiency
c. speed of detector
d. noise
Answer: b

36) In long-haul optical systems, the goal is to minimize the number of ____________per unit
distance.

a. regenerators
b. repeaters
c. detectors
d. sources
Answer: b

37) ____________ are necessary at intervals in a length of fiber optic cable to keep the signal
quality from deteriorating to the point of non-usability.

a. regenerators
b. repeaters
c. detectors
d. sources
Answer: b

38) Long-haul optics refers to the __________of visible light signals over optical fiber cable for
great distances

a. modulation
b. reception
c. transmission
d. none
Answer: c
39) _____________optics refers to the transmission of visible light signals over optical fiber
cable for great distances.

a. Short-haul
b. Long-haul
c. both a and b
d. none
Answer: b

40) Long-haul optics refers to the transmission of visible light signals over ____________cable
for great distances.

a. twisted pair
b. co-axial
c. optical fiber
d. none
Answer: c

41) Long-haul optics refers to the transmission of __________ signals over optical fiber cable for
great distances.

a. visible light
b. photon
c. electromagnetic
d. electron
Answer: a

42) Today's fiber optic transmission links transmit multiple channels of _____________ signals
over a worldwide distances.

a. video and audio


b. video
c. audio
d. none
Answer: a

43) Fiber optic transmission links __________multiple channels of video and audio signals over
worldwide distances.

a. receive
b. demodulate
c. transmit
d. modulate
Answer: c

44) A unidirectional application where the DWDM transmits eight ___________ signals over
one single-mode fiber.
a. 1550nm
b. 1500nm
c. 155nm
d. 150nm
Answer: a

45) A unidirectional application where the DWDM transmits eight 1550nm signals over
one _____________fiber.
a. multi-mode
b. single-mode
c. step-index
d. all the above
Answer: a

46) A unidirectional application where the ____________transmits eight 1550nm signals


over one single-mode fiber.
a. WDM
b. DWDM
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer: b

47) Total loss power in point to point link is PT =________________


a. PS-PR
b. PS+PR
c. PR-PS
d. none of the above
Answer: a

48) For long distance transmission _____________are used.


a. connectors
b. optical fiber
c. splices
d. all of the above
Answer: c

49) In Link budget safety margin ranges of ___________________.


a. 3 db to 6 db
b. 2 db to 6 db
c. 5 db to 6 db
d. all of the above
Answer: a

50) Cable attenuation is usually specified by the _______________.


a. user
b. manufacturer
c. programmer
d. all of the above
Answer: b

51) Cable attenuation is in the range of ______________________per km.


a. 0.22db to 5db
b. 0.2db to 5db
c. 0.22db to 50db
d. all of the above
Answer: a

52) In long distance communication splice produces a loss of ____________.


a. 0.1 db
b. 0.2db
c. 0.22db
d. all of the above
Answer: a

53) For connector loss ___________the value of loss per connector by no. of connectors.
a. add
b. divide
c. multiply
d. subtract
Answer: c

54) For connector loss multiply the value of ___________per connector by no. of
connectors.
a. attenuation
b. gain
c. loss
d. none
Answer: c

55) Losses are measured in _____________ in fiber communications.


a. dBs
b. dBm
c. mw
d. watt
Answer: a

56) Absolute power is measured in __________ in fiber communications.


a. dBs
b. dBm
c. mw
d. watt
Answer: b
57) If the value of allowed loss is____________ it indicates sufficient power margin is
available.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: a

58) In case of RZ format bandwidth and total system rise time are related by
_____________.
a. Bandwidth=BTmax=0.35/Tsys
b. Bandwidth=BTmax=0.70/Tsys
c. Bandwidth=BTmax=0.30/Tsys
d. None of the above
Answer: a

58) In case of NRZ format bandwidth and total system rise time are related by Bandwidth
_____________.
a. BTmax=0.35/Tsys
b. BTmax=0.70/Tsys
c. BTmax=0.30/Tsys
d. None of the above
Answer: b

59) Modal dispersion rise time t mod= _____________.


a. 44Lq/B0
b. 400Lq/B0
c. 440Lq/B0
d. 40Lq/B0
Answer: c

60) Receiver rise time t rx= _____________.


a. 300/Brx
b. 35/Brx
c. 350/Brx
d. 3500/Brx
Answer: c

61) Group velocity dispersion rise time tmat=__________


a. DLσλ
b. DLCσλ
c. LDσλ
d. 2DLσλ
Answer: a
62) Half power spectral width of light source is denoted by _____________
a. Lσλ
b. ɳσλ
c. 2σλ
d. σλ
Answer: d

63) Bandwidth of optical length of link Lq is denoted by Bm where Bm=___________.


a. B0 /4Lq
b. 400Lq/B0
c. B0 /Lq
d. B0 /2Lq
Answer: c

64) In case of telephone exchange NIUs are located at _________________location.


a. central office
b. subscribers
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer: b

65) In case of ______________RN distributes different data to all NIUs.


a. switched network
b. broadcast network
c. frame network
d. distribution network
Answer: a

66) broadcast network and switched network comes under ____________________


a. mobile network
b. broadband network
c. frame network
d. distribution network
Answer: d

67) It is easier to find fault location in _____________network.


a. switched network
b. broadcast network
c. frame network
d. distribution network
Answer: a

68) Cable network is ___________ network.


a. switched network
b. broadcast network
c. frame network
d. distribution network
Answer: b

69) The architecture which carries multiple subcarrier modulated data is_____________.
a. Fiber to the crub
b. Hybrid fiber co-axial
c. Subcarrier modulted fiber co-axial
d. None of the above
Answer: c

70) Optical Network Units performs the job of ___________.


a. NIUs
b. RNs
c. COs
d. All of the above
Answer: a

71) _____________cable used in telephone access network.


a. Co-axial
b. Optical
c. Twisted pair
d. All of the above
Answer: c

72)_________________network is also called as hybrid fiber co-axial network.


a. Cable
b. Optical
c. Telephone access
d. All of the above
Answer: a

73) Cable bandwidth is in the range of _____________.


a. 50 MHZ to 550 MHZ
b. 5 MHZ to 500 MHZ
c. 5 MHZ to 55 MHZ
d. All of the above
Answer: a

74) In HFC ____________________modulation is used.


a. QPSK
b.16- QAM
c. QAM
d. BPSK
Answer: c
75) In HFC Quadrature Amplitude Modulation provides spectral efficiency __________.
a. 16 bits/Hz.
b. 8 bits/Hz.
c. 256 bits/Hz.
d. 128 bits/Hz.
Answer: b

76) Which among the following parameters is/are decided by the front-end
of a receiver?
a. Sensitivity
b. Bandwidth
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c
Matoshri College of Engineering & Research Centre , Nashik
Department of Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering
Class: B. E. E & TC Sub: BCS
A.Y.2019-2020 Semester -II
Sr.No. Question A B C D Correct Answer
1 A technique used for determining the total fiber attenuation per unit length is ________ method. a) Frank b) Cut-off c) cut-back d) Erlangen C
2 The system designer finds greatest interest in the ______________ a) Overall fiber a b) Fiber dispers c) Latitude of the d) Durability A
3 How many parameters are usually worked upon by the measurement techniques in attenuation? a) Three b) Two c) One d) Five B
4 What type of a light source is usually present in the cut-back method? a) Tungsten or x b) LED c) Laser d) Photo-sensor A
5 The device used to remove any scattered optical power from the core is __________ a) Mode setup teb) Nodal spectruc) Mode stripper d) Attenuator C
6 What is the hierarchy of the process at the receiving end of the cut-back technique? a) Photodiode – b) Photodiode – c) Photodiode – p d) Photo-detector – lo A
7 What is the unit of measurement of the optical attenuation per unit length? a) dB-km b) dB/km c) km/dB d) V B
8 Determine the attenuation per kilometer for a fiber whose length is 2 km, output voltage is 2.1 V at a) 2.8dB/km b) 3.1dB/km c) 3.5dB/km d) 8dB/km C αdB= 10 log10(V2/V1)/(L1-L2) dB/km where L1-L2=1.998 and V2,V1are output voltages.
9 ___________ are used to allow measurements at a selection of different wavelengths. a) Diaphragms b) Spot attenuat c) Belts d) Interference filters D
10 Which technology is used by the backscatter measurement method? a) Refraction b) Francis flat rec) Optical time do d) Optical frequency C
11 ________________ measurements checks the impurity level in the manufacturing process. a) Material reflecb) Material abso c) Material attenu d) Calorimetric loss B
12 _____________ may be achieved by replacing the optical fibers with thin resistance wires. a) Diffraction b) Segmentationc) Calorimetric ca d) Electrical calibratio D
13 A scattering cell consists of ______ square solar cells called as Tynes cell. a) Five b) Four c) Six d) Three C
14 ___________ removes the light propagating in the cladding. a) Cladding mod b) Core strippersc) Mode enhance d) Attenuators A
15 _____________ refers to any spurious or undesired disturbances that mask the received signal in a) Attenuation b) Noise c) Dispersion d) Bandwidth B
16 How many types of noise are observed because of the spontaneous fluctuations in optical fiber co a) One b) Four c) Two d) Three D
17 ______________ is caused due to thermal interaction between the free electrons and the vibratinga) Thermal noiseb) Dark noise c) Quantum noised) Gaussian noise A
18 A small leakage current still flows from the device terminals even if there is no optical power incide a) True b) False A
19 ___________ distribution provides the description the random statistics of light emitted in black bo a) Poisson b) Cumulative c) Probability d) Bose-Einstein D
20 The minimum pulse energy needed to maintain a given bit-error-rate (BER) which any practical reca) Minimal energb) Quantum limi c) Point of reversed) Binary signaling B
21 An analog optical fiber system operating at wavelength 1μmhas a post-detection bandwidth of 5MHa) 46 b) 40 c) 50 d) 52 C The SNR is given by –S/N = ηP0/2hfB Where, η= 1 (for ideal detector) P0= incident power h= Planck’s constant B= Bandwidth .
22 In the equation given below, what does τ stands for? Zm=ηP0τ/hf a) Velocity b) Time c) Reflection d) Refractive index B
23 How many circuits are present in an equivalent circuit for the digital optical fiber receiver? a) Four b) One c) Three d) Two A
24 __________ compensates for distortion of the signal due to the combined transmitter, medium anda) Amplification b) Distortion c) Equalization d) Dispersion C
25 ____________ is also known as frequency-shaping filter. a) Resonator b) Amplifiers c) Attenuator d) Equalizer D
26 The phase frequency response of the system should be ____________ in order to minimize inter- a) Non-Linear b) Linear c) More d) Less B
27 Noise contributions from the sources should be minimized to maximize the receiver sensitivity. Stat a) True b) False A
28 How many amplifier configurations are frequently used in optional fiber communication receivers? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four C
29 How many receiver structures are used to obtain better receiver characteristics? a) Two b) One c) Four d) Three D
30 The high-impedance front-end amplifier provides a far greater bandwidth than the trans-impedanc a) True b) False A
31 ___________ is the lowest noise amplifier device. a) Silicon FET b) Amplifier-A c) Attenuator d) Resonator-B A
32 The properties of a bipolar transistor are superior to the FET. State whether the given statement is a) True b) False B
33 High-performance microwave FETs are fabricated from ___________ a) Silicon b) Germanium c) Gallium arsenidd) Zinc C
34 Gallium arsenide MESFETs are advantageous than Silicon FETs. State whether the given stateme a) True b) False A
35 The PIN-FET hybrid receivers are a combination of : a) Hybrid resista b) Pin photodiodc) P-N photodioded) Attenuator and low B
36 It is difficult to achieve higher transmission rates using conventional __________ a) Voltage amplifb) Waveguide S c) PIN-FET or AP d) MESFET C
37 Which receiver can be fabricated using PIN-FET hybrid approach? a) Trans-impeda b) Gallium arsenc) High-impedanc d) Low-impedance fro A
38 A silicon p-i-n photodiode utilized with the amplifier and the receiver is designed to accept data at aa) 276Mbits-1 b) 274 Mbits-1 c) 278Mbits-1 d) 302Mbits-1 B
39 What is usually required by FETs to optimize the figure of merit? a) Attenuation of b) Matching withc) Dispersion of thd) Matching with the d D
40 What is the abbreviation of HBT? a) Homo-junctionb) Homo-junctio c) Hetero-junctiond) Hetero-Bandwidth t C
41 What type of receivers are used to provide wideband operation, low-noise operation? a) APD optical reb) Optoelectroni c) MESFET receivd) Trans-impedance f B
42 ___________ circuits extends the dynamic range of the receiver. a) Monolithic b) Trans-impedac) Automatic Erro d) Automatic Gain Co D
43 The sensitivity of the low-impedance configuration is ____________ a) Good b) Poor c) Great d) Same as that of hig B
44 What is generally used to determine the receiver performance characteristics? a) Noise b) Resistor c) Dynamic range d) Impedance C
45 The __________ technique eliminates the thermal noise associated with the feedback resistor in t a) Compensationb) Resonating imc) Electromagnet d) Optical feedback D
46 The optical feedback technique is useful at low transmission rates. State whether the given statem a) True b) False A
47 How many types of optical amplifier technologies are available. a) One b) Three c) Four d) Two D
48 . A device which converts electrical energy in the form of a current into optical energy is called as a) Optical sourceb) Optical couplec) Optical isolator d) Circulator A
49 How many types of sources of optical light are available? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four C
The frequency of the absorbed or emitted radiation is related to difference in energy E between
the higher energy state E2 and the lower energy state E1. State what h stands for in the given
50 equation? E =E2 – E1 = hf a) Gravitation co b) Planck’s cons c) Permittivity d) Attenuation consta B
51 The radiation emission process (emission of a proton at frequency) can occur in __________ waysa) Two b) Three c) Four d) One A
52 Which process gives the laser its special properties as an optical source? a) Dispersion b) Stimulated abc) Spontaneous e d) Stimulated emissio D
53 The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper level under the conditions of __________ a) Isothermal pa b) Population invc) Thermal equilibd) Pumping C
54 __________________ in the laser occurs when photon colliding with an excited atom causes the sa) Light amplificab) Attenuation c) Dispersion d) Population inversio A
55 A ruby laser has a crystal of length 3 cm with a refractive index of 1.60, wavelength 0.43 μm. Dete a) 1×102 b) 3×106 c) 2.9×105 d) 2.2×105 D The number of longitudinal modes is given by-
56 Doppler broadening is a homogeneous broadening mechanism. State whether the given statemen a) True b) False B q = 2nL/λ
57 Longitudinal modes contribute only a single spot of light to the laser output. State whether the give a) True b) False A Where
58 ____________ converts the received optical signal into an electrical signal. a) Detector b) Attenuator c) Laser d) LED A
59 The first generation systems of optical fiber communication have wavelengths between _________a) 0.2 and 0.3 μmb) 0.4 and 0.6 μ c) 0.8 and 0.9 μm d) 0.1 and 0.2 μm C
60 The quantum efficiency of an optical detector should be high. State whether the given statement is a) True b) False A
61 Which of the following does not explain the requirements of an optical detector? a) High quantum b) Low bias voltac) Small size d) Low fidelity D q = Number of longitudinal modes
62 How many device types are available for optical detection and radiation? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four B n = Refractive index
63 The ___________ process takes place in both extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors. a) Avalanche mub) External phot c) Internal photoe d) Dispersion C L = Length of the crystal
64 ____________ are widely used in first generation systems of optical fiber communication. a) p-n diodes b) 4-alloys c) 3-alloys d) Silicon photodiodes D λ = Peak emission wavelength.
65 A semiconductor laser crystal of length 5 cm, refractive index 1.8 is used as an optical source. Det a) 2.8 GHz b) 1.2 GHz c) 1.6 GHz d) 2 GHz C The modes of laser are separated by a frequency internal δf and this separation is given by-
66 Which of the following detector is fabricated from semiconductor alloys? a) Photoconduct b) p-i-n detector c) Photodiodes d) Photoemission dete A δf = c/2nL
67 P-n photodiode is forward biased. State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False B Where
68 The depletion region must be ____________ to allow a large fraction of the incident light to be absa) Thick b) Thin c) Long d) Inactive A c = velocity of light
69 The process of excitation of an electron from valence band to conduction band leaves an empty hoa) Detection b) Absorption c) Degeneration od) Regeneration of an D n = Refractive index
70 __________________ always leads to the generation of a hole and an electron. a) Repulsion b) Dispersion c) Absorption d) Attenuation C L = Length of the crystal.
71 The electron hole pairs generated in a photodiode are separated by the ____________ a) Magnetic field b) Electric field c) Static field d) Depletion region B
72 The photocurrent of an optical detector should be __________ a) Less b) More c) Linear d) Non-linear C
73 The absorption of photons in a photodiode is dependent on: a) Absorption Cob) Properties of c) Charge carrier d) Amount of light A
74 The photocurrent in a photodiode is directly proportional to absorption coefficient. State whether th a) True b) False A
75 The absorption coefficient of semiconductor materials is strongly dependent on a) Properties of mb) Wavelength c) Amount of light d) Amplitude B
76 Direct absorption requires assistance of photon. State whether the given statement is true or false a) True b) False B
77 In optical fiber communication, the only weakly absorbing material over wavelength band required a) GaAs b) Silicon c) GaSb d) Germanium C
78 The threshold for indirect absorption occurs at wavelength __________ a) 3.01 μm b) 2.09 μm c) 0.92 μm d) 1.09 μm D
79 The semiconductor material for which the lowest energy absorption takes place is : a) GaAs b) Silicon c) GaSb d) Germanium D
80 The wavelength range of interest for Germanium is: a) 0.8 to 1.6 μm b) 0.3 to 0.9 μm c) 0.4 to 0.8 μm d) 0.9 to 1.8 μm A
81 A photodiode should be chosen with a ________________ less than photon energy. a) Direct absorpt b) Band gap enec) Wavelength ra d) Absorption coefficie D
82 ________________ photodiodes have large dark currents. a) GaAs b) Silicon c) GaSb d) Germanium C
83 For fabrication of semiconductor photodiodes, there is a drawback while considering ___________a) GaAs b) Silicon c) GaSb d) Germanium D
84 _________________ materials are potentially superior to germanium. a) GaAs b) Silicon c) GaSb d) III – V alloys D
85 ____________ alloys such as InGaAsP and GaAsSb deposited on InP and GaSb substrate. a) Ternary b) Quaternary c) Gain-guided d) III – V alloys A
86 _________________ alloys can be fabricated in hetero-junction structures. a) InGaSb b) III – V alloys c) InGaAsP d) GaAsSb B
87 The fraction of incident photons generated by photodiode of electrons generated collected at deteca) Quantum effic b) Absorption coc) Responsivity d) Anger recombinatio A
88 In photo detectors, energy of incident photons must be ________________ band gap energy a) Lesser than b) Greater than c) Same as d) Negligible B
89 GaAs has band gap energy of 1.93 eV at 300 K. Determine wavelength above which material will ca) 2.431*10-5 b) 6.424*10-7 c) 6.023*103 d) 7.234*10-7 B λ = hc/t E = hc / λ = 6.626*10-34*3*108/ 1.36*10-6 = 1.46*10-19J
90 Determine Responsivity of photodiode having o/p power of 3.55 μmand photo current of 2.9 μm. a) 0.451 b) 0.367 c) 0.982 d) 0.816 D R = Ip/Po = 2.9*10-6/ 3.55*10-6 = 0.816 A/W.
91 Determine incident optical power on a photodiode if it has photocurrent of 2.1 μAand responsivity oa) 4.15 b) 1.75 c) 3.81 d) 8.47 C R = Ip/Po Po = Ip/R = 2.1*10-6/0.55 = 3.81 μm.
92 If a photodiode requires incident optical power of 0.70 A/W. Determine photocurrent. a) 1.482 b) 2.457 c) 4.124 d) 3.199 B Same as above formula
93 Compute intrinsic region width of p-i-n photodiode having junction capacitance of 4pF and materia a) 7.45×10-6 b) 2.26×10-7 c) 4.64×10-7 d) 5.65×10-6 B Cj= εsA/ W w = εsA/Cj = 16.5×10-13×0.55×10-6/ 4×10-12 = 2.26×10-7.
94 Determine permittivity of p-i-n photodiode with junction capacitance of 5pF, area of 0.62×10-6m2ana) 7.55×10-12 b) 2.25×10-10 c) 5×10-9 d) 8.5×10-12 B
95 Determine response time of p-i-n photodiode if it has 3 dB bandwidth of 1.98×108Hz. a) 5.05×10-6sec b) 5.05×10-7Secc) 5.05×10-9 sec d) 5.05×10-8Sec C Maximum response time = 1/Bm=1/1.98×108= 5.05×10-9sec.
96 Compute maximum 3 dB bandwidth of p-i-n photodiode if it has a max response time of 5.8 ns. a) 0.12 GHz b) 0.14 GHz c) 0.17 GHz d) 0.13 GHz C = 1/Bm =1/ 5.8×10-9= 0.17 GHz.
Bm = Vd/ 2ΠW
Vd = Bm× 2Π× W
= 1.98×108×2Π×24×10-6
97 Determine carrier velocity of a p-i-n photodiode where 3dB bandwidth is1.9×108Hz and depletion r a) 93.43×10-5 b) 29.55×10-3 c) 41.56×10-3 d) 65.3×10-4 B = 29.55×10-3.
Bm= Vd/2ΠW
W=Vd/Bm2Π
= 2×10-5/1.91×108×2Π
98 Compute depletion region width of a p-i-n photodiode with 3dB bandwidth of 1.91×108and carrier va) 1.66×10-5 b) 3.2×10-3 c) 2×10-5 d) 2.34×104 A = 1.66×10-5m.
For linear as well as in nonlinear mode _______________ are most important network elements. a) Optical amplif b) Optical detectc) A/D converter d) D/A converters A
The more advantages optical amplifier is a) Fiber amplifie b) Semiconductoc) Repeaters d) Mode hooping amp B
________________ cannot be used for wideband amplification a) Semiconductob) Erbium-dopedc) Raman fiber amd) Brillouin fiber ampli D
____________ is used preferably for channel selection in a WDM system. a) Semiconductob) Erbium-dopedc) Raman fiber amd) Brillouin fiber ampli D
For used in single-mode fiber, ___________ are used preferably a) Semiconductob) Erbium-dopedc) Raman fiber amd) Brillouin fiber ampli A
Mostly ____________ are used in nonlinear applications a) Semiconductob) Erbium-dopedc) Raman fiber amd) FPAs D
_______________ is superior as compared to _________________ a) TWA, FPA b) FPA, TWA c) EDFA, FPA d) FPA, EDFA A
_____________ are operated at current beyond normal lasing threshold current, practically a) Semiconductob) Erbium-dopedc) Raman fiber amd) Brillouin fiber ampli A
An uncoated FPA has peak gain wavelength 1.8μm, mode spacing of 0.8nm, and long active regio a) 4.25×106 b) 3.75×107 c) 3.95×107 d) 4.25×109 B n=λ2/2δλL=1.8×10-6/2×0.8×10-9×300×10-6=3.75×107
An SOA has net gain coefficient of 300, at a gain of 30dB. Determine length of SOA. a) 0.32 m b) 0.023 m c) 0.245 m d) 0.563 m B L = Gs(dB)/10×g×loge=30/10×300×0.434`=0.023 m
g=L×10×loge/Gs(dB)=35.43×10-3×10×0.434/30
An SOA has length of 35.43×10-3m, at 30 dB gain. Determine net gain coefficient. a) 5.124×10-3 b) 1.12×10-4 c) 5.125×10-3 d) 2.15×10-5 C =5.125×10-3.
Past = mnsp(Gs-1) hfb
= 2.6×4(1000-1)×6.63×10-34×1.94×1014×1×1012
An SOA has mode number of 2.6, spontaneous emission factor of 4, optical bandwidth of 1 THz. Da) 1.33×10-3 b) 5.13×1012 c) 3.29×10-6 d) 0.33×10-9 A = 1.33×10-3W.
The spectral dependence on gain is always constant. State whether the given statement is true or a) True b) False B
ESA ________ the pumping efficiency of device. a) Increases b) Does not affe c) Reduces d) Has negligible effec C
Signal amplification is obtained in ____________ a) Erbium-dopedb) Rare-earth-doc) Raman fiber sy d) Brillouin fiber ampli A
It is possible to construct a single rare-earth-doped fiber amplifier which provides amplification for aa) True b) False B
_______________ is constructed using erbium-doped glass. a) An erbium-basb) Rare-earth-doc) Raman fiber sy d) Brillouin fiber ampli A
____________ uses Er3+-doped erbium glass. a) An erbium-basb) Rare-earth-doc) Raman fiber sy d) Brillouin fiber ampli A
The most advantageous amplification is ____________ a) An erbium-basb) Rare-earth-doc) Raman fiber sy d) Brillouin fiber ampli C
_________ is also known as lump Raman amplifiers. a) An erbium-basb) Rare-earth-doc) Raman fiber sy d) Discrete Raman am D
_______________ extends the pump power into transmission line fiber. a) An erbium-basb) Rare-earth-doc) Raman fiber sy d) Distributed Raman D
_____________ are called hybrid Raman amplifier. a) Lumped and db) Rare-earth-doc) Raman fiber sy d) Distributed Raman A
In ___________ the ASE contributes most of noise. a) An erbium-basb) Rare-earth-doc) Raman fiber sy d) Distributed Raman D
Matoshri College of Engineering & Research Centre , Nashik
Department of Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering
Class: B. E. E & TC Sub: BCS
A.Y.2019-2020 Semester -II
Sr.No. Question A B C D Correct Answer
1 ___________________ is defined as a process by which thea) Wavelength conversion b) Attenuation c) Sigma management d) Wavelength dispersion A
2 The device which is used to perform wavelength conversion a) Attenuator b) Wavelength c) Wavelength Circulat d) Wavelength translator D
3 A wavelength converter is termed as _______ if the convertea) Down converter b) Up converterc) Attenuator d) Shifter B
4 The ___________ converters cannot process different modua) Shifting b) Optoelectronc) Opt-circular d) Magnetic simulating B
5 The optical medium, in case of optical wavelength conversio a) Depleted b) Linear c) Non-linear d) Dispersive C
6 The process of imposing the nonlinear response of the medi a) Demodulation b) Absorption c) Cross-modulation d) Repeater mixing C
7 How many approaches are adopted by the cross-modulation a) Four b) Three c) Two d) Five A
8 __________ wavelength converters make use of a passive oa) Bipolar b) Optoelectronc) Magnetic d) Coherent D
9 A _____________ wavelength converter utilizes the nonlineaa) Cross-gain modulation b) Cross-phase c) Cross-absorption m d) Differential polarization A
10 The intensity modulated data on one signal wavelength is ca a) Dispersed data b) Pump signal c) Probe signal d) Frequency signal B
11 The probe signal is inverse to that of the pump signal. State a) True b) False A
12 In the XGM converter, the transfer function maintains the rec a) True b) False B
13 The speed of operation of XGM wavelength conversion is de a) Depletion level b) Hole concen c) Carrier dynamics d) Electron concentration C
14 . ____________ is defined as the deviation in the emission f a) Intensity probe b) Dispersion c) Attenuation d) Frequency chirp D
15 When frequency chirp shifts the optical frequency towards th a) Red shift b) Green shift c) Yellow shift d) Blue shift D
16 What is the full form of ETDM? a) Electronic tube di-cyclic b) Electrical tim c) Emphasis tier divisiod) Electrical tube dielectric B
17 The practical limitations of the speed of electronic circuits ha a) 100 MHz b) 120 MHz c) 100GHz d) 80 Hz C
18 A strategy used for increasing the bitrate of digital optical fibea) Optical time division mu b) Electrical tim c) Frequency division md) Code division multiplexi A
19 ____________ semiconductor laser sources provide low dut a) Diameter preferred b) Mode locked c) Divine d) Depletion B
20 ______________ are the devices which are employed to elima) Optical intensity modula b) Demodulatorc) Circulators d) Optical Isolators A
21 _____________ provides operation at high transmission ratea) Optical intensity modula b) Demodulatorc) Circulators d) Electro-absorption mod D
22 In __________ the microwave frequency are modulated witha) Subcarrier multiplexing b) TDM c) FDM d) Code division multiplexi A
23 Which of the following techniques is easy to implement? a) Amplitude shift keying b) Phase shift k c) Frequency shift key d) SCM C
24 Which of the following is the disadvantage of SCM? a) Source nonlinearity b) Linearity c) Distortion d) Narrow bandwidth C
25 The IF signal can be input to a demodulator to recover the b a) True b) False A
26 Which of the following is not an application of optical amplifie a) Power amplifier b) In-line repea c) Demodulator d) Preamplifier C
27 _________ reconstitutes a transmitted digital optical signal. a) Repeaters b) Optical ampl c) Modulators d) Circulators A
28 _____________ are transparent to any type of signal modul a) Repeaters b) Optical ampl c) Modulators d) Circulators B
29 _________________ imposes serious limitations on the syst a) Fiber attenuation b) Fiber modulac) Fiber demodulation d) Fiber dispersion D
30 __________ is the ratio of input signal to noise ratio to the o a) Fiber dispersion b) Noise figure c) Transmission rate d) Population inversion B
31 How many factors govern the noise figure of the device? a) Four b) Three c) Two d) One A
32 What is the typical range of the noise figure? a) 1 – 2 dB b) 3 – 5dB c) 7 – 11 dB d) 12 – 14 dB C
Matoshri College of Engineering & Research Centre , Nashik
Department of Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering
Class: B. E. E & TC Sub: BCS
A.Y.2019-2020 Semester -II
Sr.No. Question A B C D Correct Answer
1 The satellite that is used as a relay to extend communication distance is called as __________ a) Relay satellites b) Communication satellites c) Repeater satellites d) Geosynchronous satellites B
2 The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______ a) Relay b) Repeater c) Transponder d) Duplexer C
3 The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency. a) True b) False A
4 What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite? a) More number o b) Better reception c) More gain d) Redundancy A
5 Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication? a) More bandwidthb) More spectrum space c) Are not diffracted b d) Economically viable C
6 What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite communication? a) Lesser attenuat b) Less power requirements c) More bandwidth d) Overcrowding D
7 Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication? a) MF b) Ku c) X d) C A
8 What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary transmission and hasa) 32Mpbs b) 72Mpbs c) 36Mpbs d) 12Mpbs B
9 Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out? a) Reduce traffic lob) More gain c) High speed d) Error detection A
10 Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency? a) Spatial isolation b) Frequency reuse c) Multiplexing d) Modulation B
11 Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the satellite into smaller sa) Spatial isolation b) Frequency reuse c) Multiplexing d) Modulation A
12 Spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) depends on satellite location and not frequency. a) True b) False A
13 What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design altitude? a) Continue to orb b) Fall back c) Overshoots the altit d) Stays where it was release B
14 The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth. a) True b) False A
15 Why does the orbit take the shape of an ellipse or circle? a) Position can be b) Consume less fuel c) Most efficient geomd) Better coverage on earth A
16 The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______ a) Retrograde b) Posigrade c) Perigee d) Apogee B
17 When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit? a) Retrograde b) Posigrade c) Perigee d) Apogee C
18 Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that are far away from earth. a) True b) False B
19 The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________ a) Lapsed time b) Time period c) Sidereal period d) Unit frequency C
20 The period of time that elapses between the successive passes of the satellite over a given meridiaa) synodic period b) Lapsed time c) Time period d) Sidereal period A
21 What is the angle of inclination for a satellite following an equatorial orbit? a) 0° b) 180° c) 45° d) 90° A
22 The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line between th a) Angle of inclina b) Angle of elevation c) Apogee angle d) LOS angle B
23 To use a satellite for communication relay or repeater purposes what type of orbit will be the best?a) Circular orbit b) Elliptical orbit c) Geosynchronous o d) Triangular orbit C
24 What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see? a) 20 b) 50 c) 70 d) 40 D
25 Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem? a) Ground station b) Power system c) Telemetry tracking d) Communication subsystem A
26 Which of the following is not a part of the propulsion subsystem of a satellite? a) Gyroscope b) Jet thruster c) AKM d) Fuel control system A
27 Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth ground station? a) Navigational da b) Computer data, navigationc) Voice, video, comp d) Computer data C
28 Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and re-transmits the s a) Repeater b) Relay c) Transponder d) Transducer C
29 Why is there a huge spectrum space between the transmitted and received signal in satellite comma) Reduce interfer b) Maximum efficiency c) Less attenuation d) To reduce space occupied A
30 Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink signal using two mixers a) Single conversi b) Dual conversion transpondc) Regenerative trans d) Dual mixer transponder B
31 In a regenerative transponder, the signal is demodulated and modulated again before transmissiona) True b) False A
32 What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency and frequency rea) 12 b) 6 c) 24 d) 3 C
33 Why is it not possible to provide transmit function by wideband amplifier and mixer circuits? a) Heavy attenuat b) High power output over wi c) Economically not prd) Weight of the system increaB
34 Which of the following is not true? a) Battery is only ub) When in orbit, solar power c) Battery is used for i d) The batteries are charged B
35 Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station to monitor and contro a) True b) False A
36 What is the use of the band pass filter in the receiver section? a) Protects the recb) Increases antenna gain c) Reduces noise d) To reduce it to an intermed A
37 The satellite in the earth station must be steerable even for a geosynchronous satellite. a) True b) False A
38 In Rf tuning, what is the first local oscillator? a) Quartz oscillato b) Frequency synthesizer c) Magnetic oscillator d) Electric oscillators B
Explanation: fIF = fs – fLO
39 If the earth station downlink signal received is at fs = 4.08 GHz, what first stage local-oscillator freq a) 3310 MHz b) 4080 MHz c) 1203 MHz d) 3250 MHz A fLO = fs – fIF = 4080 – 770 = 3310 MHz.
40 Which of the following amplifiers is used in the transmitter substation? a) RF amplifiers b) Buffer amplifiers c) Klystron amplifier d) Operational amplifiers C
41 Which part of the transmitter subsystem modulates the baseband signal? a) Antenna b) Up converter c) Power amplifiers d) Mixer B
42 In digital systems, analog signals are first digitized with PCM converters before modulation. a) True b) False A
43 In RF tuning, _________ provides the final up conversion to the microwave frequency? a) Fixed-frequenc b) RF frequency synthesizer c) Quartz oscillator d) Magnetic oscillator B
44 When individual up converters are used to modulate a channel, what is used to combine them into a) Microwave com b) Multiplexer c) Mixer d) Amplifier A
Matoshri College of Engineering & Research Centre , Nashik
Department of Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering
Class: B. E. E & TC Sub: BCS
A.Y.2019-2020 Semester -II
Sr.No. Question A B C D Correct
Who proposed the idea of transmission of light via dielectric
1 waveguide structure? a) Christian Huygens b) Karpon and Bockham c) Hondros and debye d) Albert Einstein :c

2 Who proposed the use of clad waveguide structure? a) Edward Appleton b) Schriever c) Kao and Hockham d) James Maxwell :c

Which law gives the relationship between refractive index b) Law of refraction (Snell’s
3 of the dielectric? a) Law of reflection Law). c) Millman’s Law d) Huygen’s Law :b

4 The light sources used in fibre optics communication are : a) LED’s and Lasers b) Phototransistors c) Xenon lights d) Incandescent :a

The ________ ray passes through the axis of the fiber


5 core. a) Reflected b) Refracted c) Meridional d) Shew :c

Light incident on fibers of angles________the acceptance


6 angle do not propagate into the fiber a) Less than b) Greater than c) Equal to d) Less than and equal to :b

What is the numerical aperture of the fiber if the angle of


7 acceptance is 16 degree a) 0.50 b) 0.36 c) 0.20 d) 0.27 :d

The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in


8 another medium is called as_________ a) Speed factor b) Dielectric constant c) Reflection index d) Refraction index :d

When a ray of light enters one medium from another


9 medium, which quality will not change a) Direction b) Frequency c) Speed d) Wavelength :b

An optical fiber has core-index of 1.480 and a cladding


index of 1.478. What should be the core size for single
10 mode operation at 1310nm? a) 7.31μm b) 8.71μm c) 5.26μm d) 6.50μm :d

An optical fiber has a core radius 2μmand a numerical


aperture of 0.1. Will this fiber operate at single mode at 600
11 nm? a) Yes b) No :a

What is needed to predict the performance a) The intermodal delay b) Geometric distribution of c) Fractional power flow in the
12 characteristicsics of single mode fibers? effect light in a propagating mode cladding of fiber d) Normalized frequency :b

13 Which equation is used to calculate MFD? a) Maxwell’s equations b) Peterman equations c) Allen Cahn equations d) Boltzmann’s equations :b
A single mode fiber has mode field diameter 10.2μmand
14 V=2.20. What is the core diameter of this fiber? a) 11.1μm b) 13.2μm c) 7.6μm d) 10.1μm :d

The difference between the modes’ refractive indices is


15 called as a) Polarization b) Cutoff c) Fiber birefringence d) Fiber splicing :c

A single mode fiber has a beat length of 4cm at 1200nm.


16 What is birefringence? a) 2*10-5 b) 1.2*10-5 c) 3*10-5 d) 2 :c

How many propagation modes are present in single mode


17 fibers? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Five :b

Numerical aperture is constant in case of step index fiber.


18 State whether the statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

Plastic fibers are less widely used than glass fibers. State
19 whether the statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

Which equations are best suited for the study of


20 electromagnetic wave propagation? a) Maxwell’s equations b) Allen-Cahn equations c) Avrami equations d) Boltzmann’s equations :a

When λ is optical wavelength in vacuum, k is given by a) Phase propagation


21 k=2Π/λ. What does k stand for in the above equation? constant b) Dielectric constant c) Boltzmann’s constant d) Free-space constant :a

Constructive interference occurs when total phase change


after two successive reflections at upper and lower
22 interfaces is equal to? (Where m is integer) a) 2Πm b) Πm c) Πm/4 d) Πm/6 :a

. When light is described as an electromagnetic wave, it


consists of a periodically varying electric E and magnetic
23 field H which are oriented at an angle a) 90 degree to each other b) Less than 90 degree c) Greater than 90 degree d) 180 degree apart :a

A monochromatic wave propagates along a waveguide in z


direction. These points of constant phase travel in constant
24 phase travel at a phase velocity Vp is given by a) Vp=ω/β b) Vp=ω/c c) Vp=C/N d) Vp=mass/acceleration :a

A most important velocity in the study of transmission


25 characteristics of optical fiber is a) Phase velocity b) Group velocity c) Normalized velocity d) Average velocity :b

26 Refraction is the a) Bending of light waves b) Reflection of light waves c) Diffusion of light waves d) Refraction of light waves :a

The phenomenon which occurs when an incident wave


strikes an interface at an angle greater than the critical
27 angle with respect to the normal to the surface is called as a) Refraction b) Partial internal reflection c) Total internal reflection d) Limiting case of refraction :c

28 Photonic crystal fibers also called as a) Conventional fibers b) Dotted fibers c) Stripped fibers d) Holey fibers :d
Conventional optical fibers has more transmission losses
than photonic crystal fibers. State whether the statement is
29 true or false. a) True b) False :a

30 Losses in photonic crystal fibers are reduced to a level of a) 0.1dB/km b) 0.2dB/km c) 0.3dB/km d) 0.4dB/km :c

The high index contrast enables the PCF core to be


31 reduced from around 8 μmin conventional fiber to a) Less than 1μm b) More than 5μm c) More than 3μm d) More than 2μm :a

The periodic arrangement of cladding air holes in photonic


band gap fibers provides for the formation of a photonic
32 band gap in the a) H-plane of fiber b) E-plane of fiber c) E-H-plane of fiber d) Transverse plane of fiber :d

In index-guided photonic crystal fiber structure, the dark


33 areas are air holes. What does white areas suggests? a) Air b) Silica c) Water d) Plasma d

34 The unit of measurement of attenuation in optical fibers is a) km b) dB c) dB/km d) Coulomb’s :c

The optical fiber incurs a loss in signal power as light


35 travels down the fiber which is called as a) Scattering b) Attenuation c) Absorption d) Refraction :b

If the input power 100μW is launched into 6 km of fiber, the


mean optical power at the fiber output is 2μW. What is the
overall signal attenuation through the fiber assuming there
36 are no connectors or splices? a) 15.23dB b) 16.98dB c) 17.12dB d) 16.62dB :b

A device which reduces the intensity of light in optical fiber


37 communications is a) compressor b) Optical attenuator c) Barometer d) Reducer :b

. A decibel may be defined as the ratio of input and output


optical power for a particular optical wavelength. State
38 whether the following statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

. When the input and output power in an optical fiber is


120μW & 3μW respectively and the length of the fiber is 8
39 km. What is the signal attenuation per km for the fiber? a) 3dB/km b) 2dB/km c) 1dB/km d) 4dB/km :b

A multimode step index fiber has a normalized frequency of


40 72. Estimate the number of guided modes. a) 2846 b) 2592 c) 2432 d) 2136 :b

A graded-index fiber has a core with parabolic refractive


index profile of diameter of 30μm, NA=0.2, λ=1μm.
41 Estimate the normalised frequency. a) 19.32 b) 18.84 c) 16.28 d) 17.12 :b

A step-index fiber has core refractive index 1.46 and


radius 4.5μm. Find the cutoff wavelength to exhibit single
42 mode operation. Use relative index difference as 0.25%. a) 1.326μm b) 0.124μm c) 1.214μm d) 0.123μm :c
A single-mode step-index fiber or multimode step-index
fiber allows propagation of only one transverse
43 electromagnetic wave. a) True b) False : True
a) Low in single mode and
One of the given statements is true for intermodal considerable in multimode b) Low in both single mode c) High in both single mode and d) High in single mode and low in
44 dispersion. Choose the right one. fiber and multimode fiber multimode fiber multimode fiber :a

a) Single mode fiber is b) Photonic crystal fibers c) Coaxial cables are d) Multimode fiber is
45 For lower bandwidth applications, advantageous are advantageous advantageous advantageous :d

Most of the optical power is carried out in core region than


46 in cladding. State true or false: a) True b) False :a

a) Straight path along the b) Curved path along the c) Path where rays changes
47 Meridional rays in graded index fibers follow axis axis angles at core-cladding interface d) Helical path :b
48 What is the unit of normalized frequency? a) Hertz b) Meter/sec c) Coulombs d) It is a dimensionless quantity :d

a) Hyperbolic path along b) Parabolic path along the d) Path where rays changes
49 . Skew rays follow a the axis axis c) Helical path angles at core-cladding interface :c
A multimode step index fiber has a normalized frequency of
50 72. Estimate the number of guided modes. a) 2846 b) 2592 c) 2432 d) 2136 :b
A graded-index fiber has a core with parabolic refractive
index profile of diameter of 30μm, NA=0.2, λ=1μm.
51 Estimate the normalised frequency. a) 19.32 b) 18.84 c) 16.28 d) 17.12 :b

A step-index fiber has core refractive index 1.46 and radius


4.5μm. Find the cutoff wavelength to exhibit single mode
52 operation. Use relative index difference as 0.25%. a) 1.326μm b) 0.124μm c) 1.214μm d) 0.123μm :c

A single-mode step-index fiber or multimode step-index


fiber allows propagation of only one transverse
53 electromagnetic wave. a) True b) False : True
a) Low in single mode and
One of the given statements is true for intermodal considerable in multimode b) Low in both single mode c) High in both single mode and d) High in single mode and low in
54 dispersion. Choose the right one. fiber and multimode fiber multimode fiber multimode fiber :a
a) Single mode fiber is b) Photonic crystal fibers c) Coaxial cables are d) Multimode fiber is
55 For lower bandwidth applications, advantageous are advantageous advantageous advantageous :d
Most of the optical power is carried out in core region than
56 in cladding. State true or false: a) True b) False :a
a) Straight path along the b) Curved path along the c) Path where rays changes
57 Meridional rays in graded index fibers follow axis axis angles at core-cladding interface d) Helical path :b
58 What is the unit of normalized frequency? a) Hertz b) Meter/sec c) Coulombs d) It is a dimensionless quantity :d
a) Hyperbolic path along b) Parabolic path along the d) Path where rays changes
59 Skew rays follow a the axis axis c) Helical path angles at core-cladding interface :c

a) A loss mechanism
related to the material
Which of the following statements best explain the concept composition and b) A transmission loss for c) Results in attenuation of d) Causes of transfer of optical
60 of material absorption? fabrication of fiber. optical fibers. transmitted light. power :a
How many mechanisms are there which causes
61 absorption? a) One b) Three c) Two d) Four :b
b) Missing molecules, d) Interaction with other
62 Absorption losses due to atomic defects mainly include- a) Radiation oxygen defects in glass c) Impurities in fiber material components of core :b

c) Suitable choice of core and


63 The effects of intrinsic absorption can be minimized by- a) Ionization b) Radiation cladding components d) Melting :c

Which of the following is not a metallic impurity found in


64 glass in extrinsic absorption? a) Fe2+ b) Fe3+ c) Cu d) Si :d

Optical fibers suffer radiation losses at bends or curves on


65 their paths. State true or false a) True b) False :a
b) Refractive index c) Radiation attenuation
66 In the given equation, state what αr suggests; a) Radius of curvature difference coefficients d) Constant of proportionality :c

A multimode fiber has refractive indices n1= 1.15, n2=1.11


and an operating wavelength of 0.7μm. Find the radius of
67 curvature? a) 8.60μm b) 9.30μm c) 9.1μm d) 10.2μm :b

A single mode fiber has refractive indices n1=1.50, n2=


2.23, core diameter of 8μm, wavelength=1.5μm cutoff
68 wavelength= 1.214μm. Find the radius of curvature? a) 12 mm b) 20 mm c) 34 mm d) 36 mm :c

a) By designing fibers with


How the potential macro bending losses can be reduced in large relative refractive b) By maintaining direction a) By operating at larger
69 case of multimode fiber? index differences of propagation c) By reducing the bend wavelengths :a

Sharp bends or micro bends causes significant losses in


70 fiber. State true or false a) True b) False :a

A multimode step index fiber has source of RMS spectral


width of 60nm and dispersion parameter for fiber is
150psnm-1km-1. Estimate rms pulse broadening due to
71 material dispersion. a) 12.5ns km-1 b) 9.6ns km-1 c) 9.0ns km-1 d) 10.2ns km-1 :c

. A multimode fiber has RMS pulse broadening per km of


12ns/km and 28ns/km due to material dispersion and
intermodal dispersion resp. Find the total RMS pulse
72 broadening. a) 30.46ns/km b) 31.23ns/km c) 28.12ns/km d) 26.10ns/km :a

73 Γg= dβ / C*dk. What is β in the given equation? a) Attenuation constant b) Propagation constant c) Boltzmann’s constant d) Free-space :b

Most of the power in an optical fiber is transmitted in fiber


74 cladding. State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b
A single mode fiber has a zero dispersion wavelength of
1.21μm and a dispersion slope of 0.08 psnm-2km-1. What is
75 the total first order dispersion at wavelength 1.26μm. a) -2.8psnm-1 km-1 b) -3.76psnm-1 km-1 c) -1.2psnm-1 km-1 d) 2.4psnm-1 km-1 :b

The dispersion due to material, waveguide and profile are


-2.8nm-1km-1, 20.1nm-1km-1 and 23.2nm-1km-1respectively.
76 Find the total first order dispersion? a) 36.2psnm-1 km-1 b) 38.12psnm-1 km-1 c) 40.5psnm-1 km-1 d) 20.9psnm-1 km-1 :c

a) Increasing fiber core b) Decreasing fiber core c) Decreasing fiber core diameter d) Increasing fiber core diameter
diameter and decreasing diameter and decreasing and increasing fractional index and increasing fractional index
77 Dispersion-shifted single mode fibers are created by fractional index difference fractional index difference difference difference :c

An alternative modification of the dispersion characteristics


of single mode fibers involves achievement of low
dispersion gap over the low-loss wavelength region
78 between – a) 0.2 and 0.9μm b) 0.1 and 0.2μm c) 1.3 and 1.6μm d) 2 and 3μm :c

The fibers which relax the spectral requirements for optical


sources and allow flexible wavelength division multiplying a) Dispersion-flattened b) Dispersion-enhanced c) Dispersion-compressed single d) Dispersion-standardized single
79 are known as- single mode fiber single mode fiber mode fiber mode fiber :a

For suitable power confinement of fundamental mode, the


normalized frequency v should be maintained in the range
1.5 to 2.4μm and the fractional index difference must be
linearly increased as a square function while the core b) Increasing level of
diameter is linearly reduced to keep v constant. This a) Increasing level of silica germanium doping in fiber c) Decreasing level of silica d) Decreasing level of silica
80 confinement is achieved by- doping in fiber core core germanium in fiber core doping in fiber core :b

Any amount of stress occurring at the core-cladding


interface would be reduced by grading the material
composition. State whether the given statement is true or
81 false. a) True b) False :a

a) Dispersion flattened
82 The variant of non-zero-dispersion-shifted fiber is called as fiber b) Zero-dispersion fiber c) Positive-dispersion fiber d) Negative-dispersion fiber :d

b) Non-linear scattering
83 Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering are the types of a) Linear scattering losses losses c) Fiber bends losses d) Splicing losses :a
Dominant intrinsic loss mechanism in low absorption
84 window between ultraviolet and infrared absorption tails is a) Mie scattering b) Rayleigh scattering c) Stimulated Raman scattering d) Stimulated Brillouin scattering :b
Rayleigh scattering can be reduced by operating at
smallest possible wavelengths. State whether the following
85 statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b
The scattering resulting from fiber imperfections like
core-cladding RI differences, diameter fluctuations, strains,
86 and bubbles is a) Rayleigh scattering b) Mie scattering c) Stimulated Brillouin scattering d) Stimulated Raman scattering :b
87 Mie scattering has in-homogeneities mainly in a) Forward direction b) Backward direction c) All direction d) Core-cladding interface :a

The in-homogeneities in Mie scattering can be reduced by


coating of a fiber. State whether the following statement is
88 true or false. a) True b) False :a
a) Low optical power b) Medium optical power
89 Raman and Brillouin scattering are usually observed at densities densities c) High optical power densities d) Threshold power densities :c

The phonon is a quantum of an elastic wave in a crystal


90 lattice. State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

A single-mode optical fiber has an attenuation of 0.3dB/km


when operating at wavelength of 1.1μm. The fiber core
diameter is 4μmand bandwidth is 500 MHz. Find threshold
91 optical power for stimulated Brillouin scattering. a) 11.20 mw b) 12.77 mw c) 13.08 mw d) 12.12 mw :b

0.4 dB/km, 1.4μm, 6μm, 550MHz. Find threshold optical


92 power for stimulated Raman scattering. a) 1.98 W b) 1.20 W c) 1.18 W d) 0.96 W :c
93 Stimulated Brillouin scattering is mainly a a) Forward process b) Backward process c) Upward process d) Downward process :b

High frequency optical phonon is generated in stimulated


94 Raman scattering. State true or false a) False b) True :b

For many applications which involve optical fiber


transmission, an intensity modulation optical source is not
95 required. State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b
96 The optical source used for detection of optical signal is a) IR sensors b) Photodiodes c) Zener diodes d) Transistors :b
An optical fiber behaves as a birefringence medium due to a) Effective R-I and core c) Transmission/propagation time d) Refractive indices of glass and
97 differences in geometry b) Core-cladding symmetry of waves silica :a

The beat length in a single mode optical fiber is 8 cm,


when light from a laser with a peak wavelength 0.6μm is
98 launched into it. Estimate the modal birefringence. a) 1×10-5 b) 3.5×10-5 c) 2×10-5 d) 4×10-5 :a

Beat length of a single mode optical fiber is 0.6cm.


Calculate the difference between propagation constants for
99 the orthogonal modes a) 69.8 b) 99.86 c) 73.2 d) 104.66 :d

A polarization maintaining fiber operates at a wavelength


1.2μm and have a modal birefringence of 1.8*10-3.
100 Calculate the period of perturbation. a) 0.7 seconds b) 0.6 seconds c) 0.23 seconds d) 0.5 seconds :b

When two components are equally excited at the fiber


input, then for polarization maintaining fibers δΓgshould be
101 around a) 1.5ns/km b) 1 ns/km c) 1.2ns/km d) 2ns/km :b

Polarization modal noise can _________ the performance


102 of communication system. a) Degrade b) Improve c) Reduce d) Attenuate :a

b) Broadening of
a) Compression of light transmitted light pulses c) Overlapping of light pulses on
103 What is dispersion in optical fiber communication? pulses along the channel compression d) Absorption of light pulses :b
a) Invisible size b) Infrared size
104 What does ISI stands for in optical fiber communication? interference interference c) Inter-symbol interference d) Inter-shape interference :c

a) Less than the reciprocal b) More than the reciprocal c) Same as that of than the
For no overlapping of light pulses down on an optical fiber of broadened pulse of broadened pulse reciprocal of broadened pulse
105 link, the digital bit rate BT must be: duration duration duration d) Negligible :a

The maximum bit rate that may be obtained on an optical


fiber link is 1/3Γ. State whether the given statement is true
106 or false. a) True b) False :b

3dB optical bandwidth is always ___________ the 3dB


107 electrical bandwidth. a) Smaller than b) Larger than c) Negligible than d) Equal to :b

A multimode graded index fiber exhibits a total pulse


broadening of 0.15μsover a distance of 16 km. Estimate
the maximum possible bandwidth, assuming no intersymbol
108 interference. a) 4.6 MHz b) 3.9 MHz c) 3.3 MHz d) 4.2 MHz :c

What is pulse dispersion per unit length if for a graded


index fiber, 0.1μs pulse broadening is seen over a distance
109 of 13 km? a) 6.12ns/km b) 7.69ns/km c) 10.29ns/km d) 8.23ns/km :b

Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal


110 dispersion. State whether the given statement true or false. a) True b) False :b

Chromatic dispersion is also called as intermodal


111 dispersion. State true or false a) True b) False :b

The optical source used in a fiber is an injection laser with


a relative spectral width σλ/λ of 0.0011 at a wavelength of
112 0.70μm. Estimate the RMS spectral width. a) 1.2 nm b) 1.3 nm c) 0.77 nm d) 0.98 nm :c

113 In waveguide dispersion, refractive index is independent of a) Bit rate b) Index difference c) Velocity of medium d) Wavelength :d

Intermodal dispersion occurring in a large amount in b) Propagating through the


114 multimode step index fiber results in Propagation of the fiber fiber c) Pulse broadening at output d) Attenuation of waves :c

a) Makes an angle equal to b) Makes an angle equal to


acceptance angle with the critical angle with the axial c) Travels parallel equal to critical d) Makes an angle equal to critical
115 After Total Internal Reflection the Meridional ray axial ray ray angle with the axial ray angle with the axial ray :d

Consider a single mode fiber having core refractive index


116 n1= 1.5. a) 1.00μsec b) 0.06μsec c) 0.90μsec d) 0.30μsec :b
The fiber length is 12m. Find the time taken by the axial ray
to travel along the fiber
A 4 km optical link consists of multimode step index fiber
with core refractive index of 1.3 and a relative refractive
index difference of 1%. Find the delay difference between
117 the slowest and fastest modes at the fiber output. a) 0.173 μsec b) 0.152 μsec c) 0.96 μsec d) 0.121 μsec :a

A multimode step-index fiber has a core refractive index of


1.5 and relative refractive index difference of 1%. The
length of the optical link is 6 km. Estimate the RMS pulse
118 broadening due to intermodal dispersion on the link. a) 92.6 ns b) 86.7 ns c) 69.3 ns d) 68.32 ns :b

The differential attenuation of modes reduces intermodal


pulse broadening on a multimode optical link. State
119 whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

The index profile of a core of multimode graded index fiber a) N (r) = n1 [1 – b) N (r) = n1 [3 – c) N (r) = n1 [5 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2;
120 is given by- 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a r>a d) N (r) = n1 [1 – 2Δ(r2/a)2]1/2; r<a :d

Intermodal dispersion in multimode fibers is minimized with


the use of step-index fibers. State whether the given
121 statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b

Estimate RMS pulse broadening per km due to intermodal


dispersion for multimode step index fiber where length of
122 fiber is 4 km and pulse broadening per km is 80.6 ns. a) 18.23ns/km b) 20.15ns/km c) 26.93ns/km d) 10.23ns/km :b

Practical pulse broadening value for graded index fiber lies


123 in the range of a) 0.9 to 1.2 ns/km b) 0.2 to 1 ns/km c) 0.23 to 5 ns/km d) 0.45 to 8 ns/km View : b

The nonlinear effects in optical fibers are large. State


124 whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b

How many categories of nonlinear effects are seen in


125 optical fibers? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four :b

126 Which of the following is not related to Kerr effects? a) Self-phase modulation b) Cross-phase modulation c) Four-wave mixing d) Stimulated Raman Scattering :d

127 Linear scattering effects are _______ in nature. a) Elastic b) Non-Elastic c) Mechanical d) Electrical :a

Which thing is more dominant in making a fiber function as


128 bidirectional optical amplifier? a) Core material b) Pump source c) Cladding material d) Diameter of fiber :b

_________ semiconductor laser sources generally have


129 broader bandwidths. a) Injection b) Pulsed c) Solid-state d) Silicon hybrid :b

Nonlinear effects which are defined by the intensity –


130 dependent refractive index of the fiber are called as a) Scattering effects b) Kerr effects c) Raman effects d) Tomlinson effects :b
Self-phase modulation causes modifications to the pulse
spectrum. State whether the given statement is true or
131 false. a) True b) False :a
a) Enhancing the core
132 Self-phase modulation can be used for diameter b) Wavelength shifting c) Decreasing the attenuation d) Reducing the losses in the fiber :b

The beating between light at different frequencies or b) Amplitude modulation of


133 wavelengths in multichannel fiber transmission causes a) Attenuation channels c) Phase modulation of channels d) Loss in transmission :c
What is different in case of cross-phase modulation from a) Overlapping but same b) Overlapping but c) Non-overlapping and same d) Non-overlapping but
134 self-phase modulation? pulses distinguishable pulses pulses distinguishable pulses :b

When three wave components co-propagate at angular


frequency w1, w2, w3, then a new wave is generated at
135 frequency w4, which is given by a) w4 = w1-w2-w3 b) w4 =w1+w2+w3 c) w4 =w1+w2-w3 d) w4 =w1-w2+w3 :c

_____________ results from case of nonlinear dispersion


compensation in which the nonlinear dispersion
compensation in which the nonlinear dispersion
compensation in which the nonlinear chirp caused by
self-phase modulation balances, postpones, the temporal
136 broadening induced by group velocity delay. a) Four wave mixing b) Phase modulation c) Soliton propagation d) Raman scattering :c
What is a fundamental necessity in the fabrication of fibers a) Same refractive index d) Variation of refractive index
137 for light transmission? for both core and cladding. b) Pump source c) Material composition of fiber inside the optical fiber :d

Which materials are unsuitable for the fabrication of graded b) Mono-crystalline


138 index fiber? a) Glass-like-materials structures c) Amorphous material d) Silica based material :b

How many different categories are available for the


139 methods of preparing optical glasses? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 :b

a) Preparation of ultra-pure
140 What is the first stage in liquid-phase-technique? material powders b) Melting of materials c) Decomposition d) Crystallization :a

a) Filtration,
Which processes are involved in the purification stage in Co-precipitation, b) Decomposition,
141 liquid-phase-technique? Re-crystallization Filtration, Drying c) Doping, Drying, Decomposition d) Filtration, Drying, Doping :a

At what temperature range, does the melting of multi


142 components glass systems takes place? a) 100-300 degree Celsius b) 600-800 degree Celsius c) 900-1300 degree Celsius d) 1500-1800 degree Celsius :c

Fiber drawing using preform was useful for the production


of graded index fibers. State whether the given statement is
143 true or false. a) True b) False :b

The minute perturbations and impurities in the fiber


drawing process using preform technique can result in very a) Between 500 and 1000 b) Between 100 and 300 c) Between 1200 and 1600 dB/
144 high losses of dB/km dB/km km d) More than 2000 dB/km :a

The liquid-phase melting technique is used for the a) With a core diameter of b) With a core diameter c) With a core diameter more
145 production of fibers 50μm. less than 100μm. than 200μm. d) With a core diameter of 100μm. :c
Graded index fibers produced by liquid-phase melting
technique are less dispersive than step-index fibers. State
146 whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

Which of the following is not a technique for fabrication of a) Vapor phase oxidation d) Chemical vapor deposition
147 glass fibers? method b) Direct melt method c) Lave ring method technique :c

_____________ technique is method of preparing b) Radio frequency


148 extremely pure optical glasses. a) Liquid phase (melting) induction c) Optical attenuation d) Vapor Phase Deposition (VPD) :d

Which of the following materials is not used as a starting


149 material in vapor-phase deposition technique? a) SiCl4 b) GeCl4 c) O2 d) B2O3 :d

150 P2O5 is used as a _____________ a) Dopant b) Starting material c) Cladding glass d) Core glass :a
How many types of vapor-phase deposition techniques are
151 present? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four :b

___________ uses flame hydrolysis stems from work on


soot processes which were used to prepare the fiber with a) Outside vapor phase b) Chemical vapor
152 losses below 20 dB/km. oxidation deposition c) Liquid phase melting d) Crystallization :a

153 Complete the given reaction a) 2HCl b) 4HCl c) 2Cl2 d) 4Cl2 :b


SiCl4+ 2H2O→ SiO2+ ______

In modified chemical vapor deposition, vapor phase


154 reactant such as _________ pass through a hot zone. a) Halide and oxygen b) Halide and hydrogen c) Halide and silica d) Hydroxides and oxygen :a

_________ is the stimulation of oxide formation by means


of non-isothermal plasma maintained at low pressure in a a) Outside Vapor Phase b) Vapor Axial Deposition c) Modified Chemical Vapor d) Plasma-activated Chemical
155 microwave cavity surrounding the tube. Oxidation (OVPO) (VAD) Deposition (MCVD) Vapor Deposition (PCVD) :d

Only graded index fibers are made with the help of


vapor-phase deposition techniques. State whether true or
156 false. a) True b) False :b

Modified Chemical Vapor Deposition (MCVD) process is


also called as an inside vapor phase oxidation (IVPD)
technique. State whether the given statement is true or
157 false. a) True b) False :a

a) Large core diameter & b) Large core diameter and c) Small core diameter and large d) Small core diameter & small
158 Multimode step index fiber has large numerical aperture small numerical aperture numerical aperture numerical aperture :a

. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1at b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1at c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1at d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1at wavelength
159 shows as variation of attenuation in range of wavelength 0.69μm wavelength 0.59μm wavelength 0.85μm 0.90μm :c
A multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of
160 range a) 100 to 300 μm b) 100 to 300 nm c) 200 to 500 μm d) 200 to 500 nm :a

161 Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of a) 2 to 30 MHz km b) 6 to 50 MHz km c) 10 to 40 MHz km d) 8 to 40 MHz km :b
b) Higher purity than
Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from multimode step index d) Impurity as same as multimode
162 materials with a) Lower purity fibers. c) No impurity step index fibers. :b

The performance characteristics of multimode graded a) Better than multimode b) Same as multimode step c) Lesser than multimode step
163 index fibers are step index fibers. index fibers. index fibers d) Negligible :a

Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets


same as multimode step index fibers but have core a) Larger than multimode b) Smaller than multimode c) Same as that of multimode d) Smaller than single mode step
164 diameters step index fibers. step index fibers. step index fibers. index fibers. :b
a) Larger than multimode step index fibers.
b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers.
c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers.
d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers.
:b

Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm


have numerical aperture of 0.29 have core/cladding
165 diameter of a) 62.5 μm/125 μm b) 100μm/140 μm c) 85 μm/ 125 μm d) 50 μm/ 125μm :b

Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only.


166 State whether the following statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b
167 In single mode fibers, the most beneficial index profile is a) Step index b) Graded index c) Step and graded index d) Coaxial cable :b

The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber


168 communication system are a) Single mode fibers b) Multimode step fibers c) Coaxial cables d) Multimode graded index fibers :a

Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the


169 cladding diameter must be at least a) Twice the core diameter b) Thrice the core diameter c) Five times the core diameter d) Ten times the core diameter :d
b) Standard single mode d) Non zero dispersion shifted
170 A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is a) Coaxial cables fibers c) Standard multimode fibers fibers :b

Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for


171 operation in a) C-band b) L-band c) O-band d) C-band and L-band :c
Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength transmission in a) Low-water-peak non b) Standard single mode d) Non-zero-dispersion-shifted
172 O-band is dispersion-shifted fibers fibers c) Low minimized fibers fibers :b

When optical fibers are to be installed in a working


environment, the most important parameter to be a) Transmission property b) Mechanical property of
173 considered is of the fiber the fiber c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber d) Numerical aperture of the fiber :b

It is not important to cover these optical fibers required for


transmission. State whether the given statement is true or
174 false. a) True b) False :b
Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated b) Silica or multicomponent
175 from a) Plastic glass c) Ceramics d) Copper :b

An Si-O bond with a Young’s modulus of 9*1010Nm-1 have


an elliptical crack of depth 7nm. The surface energy is 2.29
176 J. Estimate fracture stress for silica fiber. a) 4.32*109Nm-1 b) 6.32*109Nm-1 c) 5.2*109Nm-1 d) 3*109Nm-1 :a

Calculate percentage strain at break for a Si-O bond with a


fracture strength of 3.52*1010Nm-1 and Young’s modulus of
177 9 *109Nm-1. a) 3.1 % b) 2.8 % c) 4.5 % d) 3.9 % :d

Stress corrosion must be considered while designing and


testing optical fiber cables. State whether the given
178 statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

Which statistics are used for calculations of strengths of


179 optical fibers? a) Edwin statistics b) Newton statistics c) Wei-bull statistics d) Gamma statistics :c

What does n denotes in the equation given below, if vc is


the crack velocity; A is the constant for the fiber material b) Stress corrosion
180 and KI is the strength intensity factor? a) Refractive index susceptibility c) Strain d) Young’s modulus :b
When optical fibers are to be installed in a working
environment, the most important parameter to be a) Transmission property b) Mechanical property of
181 considered is of the fiber the fiber c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber d) Numerical aperture of the fiber :b

It is not important to cover these optical fibers required for


transmission. State whether the given statement is true or
182 false. a) True b) False :b

Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated b) Silica or multicomponent
183 from a) Plastic glass c) Ceramics d) Copper :b

An Si-O bond with a Young’s modulus of 9*1010Nm-1 have


an elliptical crack of depth 7nm. The surface energy is 2.29
184 J. Estimate fracture stress for silica fiber. a) 4.32*109Nm-1 b) 6.32*109Nm-1 c) 5.2*109Nm-1 d) 3*109Nm-1 :a

Calculate percentage strain at break for a Si-O bond with a


fracture strength of 3.52*1010Nm-1 and Young’s modulus of
185 9 *109Nm-1. a) 3.1 % b) 2.8 % c) 4.5 % d) 3.9 % :d

Stress corrosion must be considered while designing and


testing optical fiber cables. State whether the given
186 statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

Which statistics are used for calculations of strengths of


187 optical fibers? a) Edwin statistics b) Newton statistics c) Wei-bull statistics d) Gamma statistics :c
What does n denotes in the equation given below, if vc is
the crack velocity; A is the constant for the fiber material b) Stress corrosion
188 and KI is the strength intensity factor? a) Refractive index susceptibility c) Strain d) Young’s modulus :b
vc= AKIn

. ____________ results from small lateral forces exerted


189 on the fiber during the cabling process. a) Attenuation b) Micro-bending c) Dispersion d) Stimulated Emission :b

Microscopic meandering of the fiber core axis that is


190 micro-bending is caused due to a) Environmental effects b) Rough edges of the fiber c) Large diameter of core d) Polarization :a

How many forms of modal power distribution are


191 considered? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four :b

192 What does micro-bending losses depend on? a) Core material b) Refractive index c) Diameter d) Mode and wavelength :d

The fiber should be________________ to avoid


deterioration of the optical transmission characteristics a) Free from irregular
193 resulting from mode-coupling-induced micro-bending. external pressure b) Coupled with plastic c) Large in diameter d) Smooth and in a steady state :a

The diffusion of hydrogen into optical fiber affects the a) Transmission of optical b) Spectral attenuation
194 ______________ light in the fiber characteristics of the fiber c) Core of the fiber d) Cladding of the fiber :b

__________ can induce a considerable amount of


195 attenuation in optical fibers. a) Micro-bending b) Dispersion c) Diffusion of hydrogen d) Radiation Exposure :d

The radiation-induced attenuation can be reduced through


photo-bleaching. State whether the given statement is true
196 or false. a) True b) False :a

The losses due to hydrogen absorption and reaction with


fiber deposits can be temporary. State whether the given
197 statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b

The losses caused due to hydrogen absorption


198 mechanisms are in the range of a) 20 dB/km to25 dB/km b) 10 dB/km to15 dB/km c) 25 dB/km to50 dB/km d) 0 dB/km to5 dB/km :c

The cable must be designed such that the strain on the


199 fiber in the cable does not exceed__________ a) 0.002% b) 0.01% c) 0.2% d) 0.160% :c

200 How many categories exists in case of cable design? a) Two b) Three c) One d) Four :b

How many types of buffer jackets are used in fiber


201 buffering? a) Three b) One c) Two d) Four :a

Loose tube buffer jackets exhibits a low resistance to


movement of the fiber. State whether the given statement is
202 true or false. a) True b) False :a
An inclusion of one or more structural members in an
optical fiber so as to serve as a cable core foundation
around which the buffer fibers may be wrapped is called
203 _____________ a) Attenuation b) Splicing c) Buffering d) Stranding :d

Which of the following is not a strength member used in


204 optical cable? a) Steel wire b) Germanium c) Aramid yarns d) Glass elements :b

When the stranding approach consists of individual


elements (e.g. single-fiber or multi fiber loose tube buffer)
205 than the cable is termed as a) Optical unit cable b) Coaxial cable c) Layer cable d) Bare glass cable :c

The primary function of the structural member is load


206 bearing. State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b

What is the Young’s modulus of Kevlar, an aromatic


207 polyester? a) 9 ×1010Nm-2 b) 10 ×1010Nm-2 c) 12 ×1010Nm-2 d) 13 ×1010Nm-2 :d

The cable is normally covered with an outer plastic sheath


208 to reduce _______________ a) Abrasion b) Armor c) Friction d) Dispersion :a
A measure of amount of optical fiber emitted from source b) Angular power
209 that can be coupled into a fiber is termed as a) Radiance distribution c) Coupling efficiency d) Power-launching :c
d) Angular power distribution
210 The ratio r = (n1 – n)/ (n1 – n) indicates a) Fresnel reflection b) Reflection coefficient c) Refraction coefficient coefficient :b

A GaAs optical source having a refractive index of 3.2 is


coupled to a silica fiber having a refractive index of 1.42.
Determine Fresnel reflection at interface in terms of
211 percentage. a) 13.4% b) 17.4% c) 17.6% d) 14.8% :d

A particular GaAs fiber has a Fresnel reflection magnitude


of 17.6% i.e. 0.176. Find the power loss between the
212 source and the fiber? a) 0.86 dB b) 0.78 dB c) 0.84 dB d) 0.83 dB :c

Two joined step index fibers are perfectly aligned. What is


the coupling loss of numerical aperture are NAR= 0.26 for
213 emitting fiber? a) -0.828 dB b) -0.010 dB c) -0.32 dB d) 0.32 dB :b

Two joined graded index fibers that are perfectly aligned


have refractive indices αR=1.93for receiving fiber αE= 2.15
214 for emitting fiber. Calculate the coupling loss a) 0.23 dB b) 0.16 dB c) 0.82 dB d) 0.76 dB :a

How many types of misalignments occur when joining


215 compatible fiber? a) One b) Two c) Five d) Three :d

Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter,


numerical aperture, relative refractive index differences,
216 different refractive index profiles, fiber faults are known as a) Intrinsic joint losses b) Extrinsic losses c) Insertion losses d) Coupling losses :a
A step index fiber has a coupling efficiency of 0.906 with
uniform illumination of all propagation modes. Find the
217 insertion loss due to lateral misalignment? a) 0.95 dB b) 0.40 dB c) 0.42 dB d) 0.62 dB :c

A graded index fiber has a parabolic refractive index profile


(α=2) and core diameter of 42μm. Estimate an insertion
loss due to a 2 μm lateral misalignment when there is index
matching and assuming there is uniform illumination of all
218 guided modes only. a) 0.180 b) 0.106 c) 0.280 d) 0.080 :d

Determine coupling efficiency if the misalignment loss in a


219 graded index fiber is 0.102 a) 0.136 b) 0.898 c) 0.982 d) 0.684 :b
In a single mode fiber, the losses due to lateral offset and
angular misalignment are given by 0.20 dB and 0.46 dB
220 respectively. Find the total insertion loss a) 0.66 dB b) 0.26 dB c) 0.38 dB d) 0.40 dB :a

The intrinsic loss through a multimode fiber joint is


independent of direction of propagation. State whether the
221 given statement is true or false a) True b) False :b

The expanded beam connectors use ____________ for


222 beam expansion and reduction. a) Square micro-lens b) Oval micro-lens c) Spherical micro-lens d) Rectangular micro-lens :c

Lens-coupled expanded beam connectors exhibit average


losses of _________ in case of single mode and graded
223 index fibers. a) 0.3 dB b) 0.7 dB c) 0.2 dB d) 1.5 dB :b

Sapphire ball lens expanded beam design is successful


than spherical lens coupled design. State whether the given
224 statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

The fiber is positioned at the ________ of the lens in order


to obtain a collimated beam and to minimize lens-to-lens
225 longitudinal misalignment effects. a) Aperture b) Focal length c) Curve d) Exterior circumference :b

___________ exhibits a parabolic refractive index profile


226 with a maximum at the axis similar to graded index fiber. a) Lens coupled design b) Sapphire ball lens c) Spherical micro-lens d) GRIN-rod lens :d

The GRIN-rod lens can produce a collimated output beam


with a divergent angle αof between _____________ from a
227 light source situated on, or near to, the opposite lens face. a) 1 to 5 degrees b) 9 to 16 degrees c) 4 to 8 degrees d) 25 to 50 degrees :a

In the given equation, if r is the radial distance, n is the b) Distance along the
228 refractive index; what does z stands for? a) Focal length optical axis c) Axial angle d) Diameter :b
dr2/dz2= (1/n) (d n/dr)

The majority of the GRIN-rod lenses have diameters in the


229 range of ____________ a) 2 to 2.5 mm b) 3 to 4 mm c) 0.1 to 0.4 mm d) 0.5 to 2 mm :d
Which of the following factors does not cause divergence of
230 the collimated beam from a GRIN-rod lens? a) Lens cut length b) Size of fiber core c) Refractive index profile d) Chromatic aberration :c

GRIN-rod lens connectors have loss characteristics which


are independent of the modal power distribution in the fiber.
231 State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

A permanent joint formed between two different optical


232 fibers in the field is known as a a) Fiber splice b) Fiber connector c) Fiber attenuator d) Fiber dispersion :a

233 How many types of fiber splices are available? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four :b

The insertion losses of the fiber splices are much less than
the Fresnel reflection loss at a butted fiber joint. State
234 whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

What is the main requirement with the fibers that are a) Smooth and oval end b) Smooth and square end
235 intended for splicing? faces faces c) Rough edge faces d) Large core diameter :b

In score and break process, which of the following is not


236 used as a cutting tool? a) Diamond b) Sapphire c) Tungsten carbide d) Copper :d

The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing


point with the application of required axial pressure
237 between the two optical fibers is called as a) Mechanical splicing b) Fusion splicing c) Melting d) Diffusion :b

Which of the following is not used as a flame heating


238 source in fusion splicing? a) Microprocessor torches b) Ox hydric burners c) Electric arc d) Gas burner :d

Average insertion losses as low as _________ have been


obtained with multimode graded index and single-mode
239 fibers using ceramic capillaries. a) 0.1 dB b) 0.5 dB c) 0.02 dB d) 0.3 dB :a

_____________ are formed by sandwiching the butted


fiber ends between a V-groove glass substrate and a flat
240 glass retainer plate. a) Springroove splices b) V-groove splices c) Elastic splices d) Fusion splices :b

Mean splice insertion losses of 0.05 dB are obtained using


multimode graded index fibers with the Springroove splice.
241 State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

Alignment accuracy of the order ___________ is obtained


242 using the three glass rod alignment sleeve. a) 0.23 μm b) 0.15 μm c) 0.05 μm d) 0.01 μm :c
In case of multiple fusion, splice losses using an electric
arc fusion device with multimode graded index fiber range
243 from a) 0.01 to 0.04 dB b) 0.19 to 0.25 dB c) 0.12 to 0.15 dB d) 0.04 to 0.12 dB :d

A permanent joint formed between two different optical


244 fibers in the field is known as a a) Fiber splice b) Fiber connector c) Fiber attenuator d) Fiber dispersion :a

245 How many types of fiber splices are available? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four :b

The insertion losses of the fiber splices are much less than
the Fresnel reflection loss at a butted fiber joint. State
246 whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

What is the main requirement with the fibers that are a) Smooth and oval end b) Smooth and square end
247 intended for splicing? faces faces c) Rough edge faces d) Large core diameter :b

In score and break process, which of the following is not


248 used as a cutting tool? a) Diamond b) Sapphire c) Tungsten carbide d) Copper :d

The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing


point with the application of required axial pressure
249 between the two optical fibers is called as a) Mechanical splicing b) Fusion splicing c) Melting d) Diffusion :b

Which of the following is not used as a flame heating


250 source in fusion splicing? a) Microprocessor torches b) Ox hydric burners c) Electric arc d) Gas burner :d

The rounding of the fiber ends with a low energy discharge


before pressing the fibers together and fusing with a
251 stronger arc is called as a) Pre-fusion b) Diffusion c) Crystallization d) Alignment :a

_____________ is caused by surface tension effects


252 between the two fiber ends during fusing. a) Pre-fusion b) Diffusion c) Self-alignment d) Splicing :c

Average insertion losses as low as _________ have been


obtained with multimode graded index and single-mode
253 fibers using ceramic capillaries. a) 0.1 dB b) 0.5 dB c) 0.02 dB d) 0.3 dB :a

_____________ are formed by sandwiching the butted


fiber ends between a V-groove glass substrate and a flat
254 glass retainer plate. a) Springroove splices b) V-groove splices c) Elastic splices d) Fusion splices :b

Mean splice insertion losses of 0.05 dB are obtained using


multimode graded index fibers with the Springroove splice.
255 State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

Alignment accuracy of the order ___________ is obtained


256 using the three glass rod alignment sleeve. a) 0.23 μm b) 0.15 μm c) 0.05 μm d) 0.01 μm :c
In case of multiple fusion, splice losses using an electric
arc fusion device with multimode graded index fiber range
257 from a) 0.01 to 0.04 dB b) 0.19 to 0.25 dB c) 0.12 to 0.15 dB d) 0.04 to 0.12 dB :d

When considering source-to-fiber coupling efficiencies, the


________ is an important parameter than total output b) Radiance of an optical
258 power. a) Numerical aperture source c) Coupling efficiency d) Angular power distribution :b

It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one


259 or more branch fibers. a) Optical fiber coupler b) Optical fiber splice c) Optical fiber connector d) Optical isolator :a

Optical fiber couplers are also called as


260 ________________ a) Isolators b) Circulators c) Directional couplers d) Attenuators :c

How many types of multiport optical fiber couplers are


261 available at present? a) Two b) One c) Four d) Three :d
The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is a) Numerical apertures of b) Varying refractive index c) Angular power distribution at d) Number of modes propagating
262 limited by fibers of fibers source in each fiber :d

________ couplers combine the different wavelength


optical signal onto the fiber or separate the different
263 wavelength optical signal output from the fiber. a) 3-port b) 2*2-star c) WDM d) Directional :c

How many fabrication techniques are used for 3 port fiber


264 couplers? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four :b

The most common method for manufacturing couplers is a) Wavelength division c) Semitransparent mirror d) Fused bi-conical taper (FBT)
265 ____________ multiplexing b) Lateral offset method method technique :d

Couplers insertion loss is same as that of excess loss.


265 State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b

A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μWoptical


power launched into port 1. The measured output power at
ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5 μW respectively.
266 Determine the excess loss. a) 0.22 dB b) 0.33 dB c) 0.45 dB d) 0.12 dB :a

A four-port FBT coupler has 60μW optical power launched


into port one. The output powers at ports 2, 3, 4 are
267 0.0025, 18, and 22 μW respectively. Find the split ratio? a) 42% b) 46% c) 52% d) 45% :d

How many manufacturing methods are used for producing


268 multimode fiber star couplers? a) Two b) One c) Three d) Five :a

Calculate the splitting loss if a 30×30 port multimode fiber


star coupler has 1 mW of optical power launched into an
269 input port. a) 13 dB b) 15 dB c) 14.77 dB d) 16.02 dB :c
14. A _____________ coupler comprises a number of
cascaded stages, each incorporating three or four-port FBT
270 couplers to obtain a multiport output. a) Star b) Ladder c) WDM d) Three-port :a

A number of three-port single-mode fiber couplers are


used in the fabrication of a ladder coupler with 16 output
ports. The three-port couplers each have an excess loss of
0.2 dB along with a splice loss of 0.1 dB at the
271 interconnection of each stage. Determine the excess loss. a) 1.9 dB b) 1.4 dB c) 0.9 dB d) 1.1 dB :d

An FBG is developed within a fiber core having a refractive


index of 1.30. Find the grating period for it to reflect an
272 optical signal with a wavelength of 1.33μm. a) 0.51 μm b) 0.58 μm c) 0.61 μm d) 0.49 μm :a

It is a passive device which allows the flow of optical signal


power in only one direction and preventing reflections in the
273 backward direction. a) Fiber slice b) Optical fiber connector c) Optical isolator d) Optical coupler :c

Which feature of an optical isolator makes it attractive to


274 use with optical amplifier? a) Low loss b) Wavelength blocking c) Low refractive index d) Attenuation :b

Magneto-optic devices can be used to function as isolators.


275 State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

How many implementation methods are available for


276 optical isolators? a) One b) Four c) Two d) Three :d

A device which is made of isolators and follows a closed


277 loop path is called as a ____________ a) Circulator b) Gyrator c) Attenuator d) Connector :a

The commercially available circulators exhibit insertion


278 losses around ________________ a) 2 dB b) 0.7 dB c) 0.2 dB d) 1 dB :d

A combination of a FBG and optical isolators can be used


to produce non-blocking optical wavelength division add/
draw multiplexers. State whether the given statement is
279 true or false. a) True b) False :b

A device which converts electrical energy in the form of a


280 current into optical energy is called as a) Optical source b) Optical coupler c) Optical isolator d) Circulator :a

281 How many types of sources of optical light are available? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four :c

The frequency of the absorbed or emitted radiation is


related to difference in energy E between the higher energy
state E2 and the lower energy state E1. State what h stands h=
282 for in the given equation? a) Gravitation constant b) Planck’s constant c) Permittivity d) Attenuation constant :b 6.626×10
E =E2 – E1 = hf
The radiation emission process (emission of a proton at
283 frequency) can occur in __________ ways. a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One :a

Which process gives the laser its special properties as an


284 optical source? a) Dispersion b) Stimulated absorption c) Spontaneous emission d) Stimulated emission :d

An incandescent lamp is operating at a temperature of


1000K at an operating frequency of 5.2×1014 Hz. Calculate
the ratio of stimulated emission rate to spontaneous
285 emission rate. a) 3×10-13 b) 1.47×10-11 c) 2×10-12 d) 1.5×10-13 :b

The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper


286 level under the conditions of ________________ a) Isothermal packaging b) Population inversion c) Thermal equilibrium d) Pumping :c

__________________ in the laser occurs when photon


colliding with an excited atom causes the stimulated
287 emission of a second photon. a) Light amplification b) Attenuation c) Dispersion d) Population inversion :a

A ruby laser has a crystal of length 3 cm with a refractive


index of 1.60, wavelength 0.43 μm. Determine the number
288 of longitudinal modes. a) 1×102 b) 3×106 c) 2.9×105 d) 2.2×105 :d

A semiconductor laser crystal of length 5 cm, refractive


index 1.8 is used as an optical source. Determine the
289 frequency separation of the modes. a) 2.8 GHz b) 1.2 GHz c) 1.6 GHz d) 2 GHz :c

Doppler broadening is a homogeneous broadening


mechanism. State whether the given statement is true or
290 false. a) True b) False :b

An injection laser has active cavity losses of 25 cm-1and


the reflectivity of each laser facet is 30%. Determine the
291 laser gain coefficient for the cavity it has a length of 500μm. a) 46 cm-1 b) 51 cm-1 c) 50 cm-1 d) 49.07 cm-1 :d

Longitudinal modes contribute only a single spot of light to


the laser output. State whether the given statement is true
292 or false. a) True b) False :a

Considering the values given below, calculate the mode


293 separation in terms of free space wavelength for a laser. a) 1.4×10-11 b)1.6×10-12 c) 1×10-12 d) 6×10-11 :b
Frequency separation = 2GHz
Wavelength = 0.5 μm.

____________________ lasers are presently the major


294 laser source for optical fiber communications a) Semiconductor b) Non-Semiconductor c) Injection d) Solid-state :c

In Nd: YAG lasers, the maximum doping levels of


295 neodymium is ____________ a) 0.5 % b) 1.5 % c) 1.8 % d) 2 % :b
Which of the following is not a property of Nd: YAG laser
that enables its use as an optical fiber communication d) Semiconductors and integrated
296 source? a) Single mode operation b) Narrow line-width c) Long lifetime circuits :d

The Nd: YAG laser has a narrow line-width which is


297 ________________ a) < 0.01 nm b) > 0.01 nm c) > 1 mm d) > 1.6 mm :a

The strongest pumping bands is a four level system of Nd:


298 YAG laser at wavelength of range_________________ a) 0.25 and 0.56 nm b) 0.75 and 0.81 nm c) 0.12 and 0.23 nm d) 1 and 2 nm :b

The Nd: YAG laser is costlier than earth-doped glass fiber


299 laser. State whether the following statement is true or false a) True b) False :a

It is a resonant cavity formed by two parallel reflecting


mirrors separated by a mirror separated by a medium such
300 as air or gas a) Optical cavity b) Wheatstone’s bridge c) Oscillator d) Fabry-perot resonator :d

In a three level system, the threshold power decreases


inversely with the length of the fiber gain medium. State
301 whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b

9. Which of the following co-dopant is not employed by


302 neodymium and erbium doped silica fiber lasers? a) Phosphorus pent oxide b) Germania c) Nitrogen d) Alumina :c

Dopants levels in glass fiber lasers are generally c) Same as that of GRIN rod lens d) Same as that of semiconductor
303 ___________ a) Low b) High laser laser :a

. _______________ fibers include addition of lead fluoride


to the core glass in order to raise the relative refractive
304 index. a) Solid-state b) GaAs c) Semiconductor d) ZBLANP :d

The lasing output of the basic Fabry-perot cavity fiber is


305 restricted to between ____________ a) 1 and 2 nm b) 5 and 10 nm c) 3 and 6 nm d) 15 and 30 nm :b

a) Increasing the refractive b) Decreasing the


306 In Fabry-perot laser, the lower threshold is obtained by index refractive index c) Reducing the slope efficiency d) Increasing the slope efficiency :c

307 When did the non-semiconductor laser developed? a) 1892 b) 1946 c) 1985 d) 1993 :c

308 Y3Al5 O12 Is a molecular formula for _____________ a) Ytterbium aluminate b) Yttrium oxide c) Ytterbium oxy-aluminate d) Yttrium-aluminum garnet :d

A perfect semiconductor crystal containing no impurities or


309 lattice defects is called as a) Intrinsic semiconductor b) Extrinsic semiconductor c) Excitation d) Valence electron :a

The energy-level occupation for a semiconductor in thermal a) Boltzmann distribution b) Probability distribution c) Fermi-Dirac distribution
310 equilibrium is described by the function function function d) Cumulative distribution function :c

a) Refractive index is b) Doping the material with c) Increase the band-gap of the
311 What is done to create an extrinsic semiconductor? decreased impurities material d) Stimulated emission :b
The majority of the carriers in a p-type semiconductor
312 are__________. a) Holes b) Electrons c) Photons d) Neutrons :a

_________________ is used when the optical emission


313 results from the application of electric field. a) Radiation b) Efficiency c) Electro-luminescence d) Magnetron oscillator :c

314 In the given equation, what does p stands for? a) Permittivity b) Probability c) Holes d) Crystal momentum :d
p=2πhk

The recombination in indirect band-gap semiconductors is


315 slow. State whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False : True

Calculate the radioactive minority carrier lifetime in gallium


arsenide when the minority carriers are electrons injected
into a p-type semiconductor region which has a hole
concentration of 1018cm-3. The recombination coefficient
316 for gallium arsenide is a) 2ns b) 1.39ns c) 1.56ns d) 2.12ms :b
7.21*10-10cm3s-1.

Which impurity is added to gallium phosphide to make it an


317 efficient light emitter? a) Silicon b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Phosphorus :c

a) Heavy doping of p-type b) Heavy doping of n-type d) Heavy doping of both p-type
318 Population inversion is obtained at a p-n junction by material material c) Light doping of p-type material and n-type material :d

A GaAs injection laser has a threshold current density of


2.5*103Acm-2and length and width of the cavity is
240μmand 110μm respectively. Find the threshold current
319 for the device. a) 663 mA b) 660 mA c) 664 mA d) 712 mA :b

A GaAs injection laser with an optical cavity has refractive


index of 3.6. Calculate the reflectivity for normal incidence
320 of the plane wave on the GaAs-air interface. a) 0.61 b) 0.12 c) 0.32 d) 0.48 :c

A homo-junction is an interface between two adjoining


single-crystal semiconductors with different band-gap
energies. State whether the given statement is true or
321 false. a) True b) False :b

322 How many types of hetero-junctions are available? a) Two b) One c) Three d) Four :a

The ______________ system is best developed and is


used for fabricating both lasers and LEDs for the shorter
323 wavelength region. a) InP b) GaSb c) GaAs/GaSb d) GaAs/Alga AS DH :d

Stimulated emission by recombination of injected carriers is a) Semiconductor injection


324 encouraged in laser b) Gas laser c) Chemist laser d) Dye laser :a
In semiconductor injection laser, narrow line bandwidth is of
325 the order a) 1 nm or less b) 4 nm c) 5 nm d) 3 nm :a

326 Injection laser have a high threshold current density of a) 104Acm-2and more b) 102Acm-2 c) 10-2Acm-2 d) 10-3Acm-2 :a

327 ηT Is known as slope quantum efficiency. State true or false a) True b) False :b

The total efficiency of an injection laser with GaAs active


region is 12%. The applied voltage is 3.6 V and band gap
energy for GaAs is 2.34 eV. Determine external power
328 efficiency. a) 7.8 % b) 10 % c) 12 % d) 6 % :a

In a DH laser, the sides of cavity are formed by a) Cutting the edges of b) Roughening the edges d) Covering the sides with
329 _______________ device of device c) Softening the edges of device ceramics :b

A particular laser structure is designed so that the active


region extends the edges of devices. State whether the
330 following statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

331 Gain guided laser structure are a) Chemical laser b) Gas laser c) DH injection laser d) Quantum well laser :c

332 Laser modes are generally separated by few a) Tenths of micrometer b) Tenths of nanometer c) Tenths of Pico-meter d) Tenths of millimeter :b

The spectral width of emission from the single mode device a) Smaller than broadened b) Larger than broadened c) Equal the broadened transition
333 is transition line-width transition line-width line-width d) Cannot be determined :a

a) Eliminating all b) Eliminating all


334 Single longitudinal mode operation is obtained by transverse mode longitudinal modes c) Increasing the length of cavity d) Reducing the length of cavity :d

A correct DH structure will restrict the vertical width of


335 waveguide region a) 0.5μm. b) 0.69 μm c) 0.65 μm d) Less than 0.4 μm :d

The external power efficiency of an injection laser with a


GaAs is 13% having band gap energy of 1.64 eV.
336 Determine external power efficiency a) 0.198 b) 0.283 c) 0.366 d) 0.467 :a

337 The strip width of injection laser is a) 12 μm b) 11.5 μm c) Less than 10 μm d) 15 μm :c

Some refractive index variation is introduced into lateral


structure of laser. State whether the given statement is true
338 or false. a) True b) False :a

Buried hetero-junction (BH) device is a type of


_____________ laser where the active volume is buried in
339 a material of wider band-gap and lower refractive index. a) Gas lasers. b) Gain guided lasers. c) Weak index guiding lasers. d) Strong index guiding lasers. :d
In Buried hetero-junction (BH) lasers, the optical field is d) Both transverse and lateral
340 confined within a) Transverse direction. b) Lateral direction. c) Outside the strip. direction. :d

A double-channel planar buried hetero-structure (DCP BH)


341 has a planar active region, the confinement material is a) Alga AS b) InGaAsP c) GaAs d) SiO2 :b

Problems resulting from parasitic capacitances can be a) Through regrowth of c) By using a planar InGaAsP d) By using a AlGaAs active
342 overcome semi-insulating material. b) By using oxide material. active region. region. :a

343 Quantum well lasers are also known as a) BH lasers. b) DH lasers. c) Chemical lasers. d) Gain-guided lasers. :b

Quantum well lasers are providing high inherent advantage


344 over a) Chemical lasers. b) Gas lasers. c) Conventional DH devices. d) BH device. :c

Strip geometry of a device or laser is important. State


345 whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

a) Multi Quantum well b) Single Quantum well


346 Better confinement of optical mode is obtained in lasers. lasers. c) Gain guided lasers. d) BH lasers. :a

347 Multi-quantum devices have superior characteristics over a) BH lasers. b) DH lasers. c) Gain guided lasers. d) Single-quantum-well devices. :b

348 Dot-in-well device is also known as a) DH lasers. b) BH lasers. c) QD lasers. d) Gain guided lasers. :c

A BH can have anything from a single electron to several


electrons. State whether the given statement is true or
349 false. a) True b) False :b

QD lasers have a very low threshold current densities of


350 range a) 0.5 to 5 A cm-2 b) 2 to 10 A cm-2 c) 10 to 30 A cm-2 d) 6 to 20 A cm-2 :d

__________________ may be improved through the use


of frequency-selective feedback so that the cavity loss is b) Longitudinal mode
351 different for various longitudinal modes. a) Frequency selectivity selectivity c) Electrical feedback d) Dissipated power :b

Device which apply the frequency-selective feedback


technique to provide single longitudinal operation are
352 referred to as ________________ a) DSM lasers b) Nd: YAG lasers c) Glass fiber lasers d) QD lasers :a

Which of the following does not provide single frequency


353 operation? a) Short cavity resonator b) DSM lasers c) Coupled cavity resonator d) Fabry-Perot resonator :d

A method for increasing the longitudinal mode


discrimination of an injection laser which is commonly
354 used?

Conventional cleaved mirror structures are difficult to a) 200μmand greater than b) 100 μm and greater
355 fabricate with the cavity lengths below 150 μm than 50 μm c) 50 μm d) 150 μm :c
In the given equation, corrugation period is given by
lλb/2Ne. If λb is the Bragg wavelength, then what does ‘l’
356 stand for? a) Length of cavity b) Limitation index c) Integer order of grating d) Refractive index :c

The first order grating (l=1) provide the strongest coupling


within the device. State whether the given statement is true
357 or false. a) True b) False :a

The semiconductor lasers employing the distributed


feedback mechanism are classified in _________________
358 categories a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four :b

DBF-BH lasers exhibit low threshold currents in the range


359 of ________________ a) 40 to 50 mA b) 21 to 30 mA c) 2 to 5 mA d) 10 to 20 mA :d

Fabry-Perot devices with BH geometries high modulation


speeds than DFB-BH lasers. State whether the given
360 statement is true or false a) True b) False :b

The InGaAsP/InP double channel planar DFB-BH laser with


a quarter wavelength shifted first order grating provides a
single frequency operation and incorporates a phase shift
361 of ______________ a) π/2 Radians b) 2π Radians c) π Radians d) 3π/2 radians :a

The narrow line-width obtained under the CW operation for


quarter wavelength shifted DFB laser is
362 ________________ a) 2 MHz b) 10 MHz c) 3 MHz d) 1 MHz :c

Line-width narrowing is achieved in DFB lasers by a


363 strategy referred as _______________ a) Noise partition b) Grating c) Tuning d) Bragg wavelength detuning :d

_________________ is a technique used to render the


non-conducting material around the active cavity by
364 producing permanent defects in the implanted area a) Dispersion b) Ion de-plantation c) Ion implantation d) Attenuation :c

The threshold temperature coefficient for InGaAsP devices


365 is in the range of a) 10-40 K b) 40-75 K c) 120-190 K d) 150-190 K :b

The process where the energy released during the


recombination of an electron-hole event getting transferred a) Inter-valence bond
366 to another carrier is known as absorption b) Auger recombination c) Carrier leakage effects d) Exothermic actions :b

a) Strained MQW c) Gain-guided strained


367 Auger recombination can be reduced by using structure. b) Strained SQW structure. structure. d) Strained Quantum dots lasers. :a

High strain in strained MCQ structure should be


incorporated. State whether the given statement is true or
368 false. a) True b) False :b
b) Inter-valence band
369 The parameter that prevents carrier from recombination is a) Auger recombination absorption c) Carrier leakage d) Low temperature sensitivity :c

Determine the threshold current density for an AlGaAs


370 injection laser with T0=180k at 30°C. a) 6.24 b) 9.06 c) 3.08 d) 5.09 :d

The phenomenon occurring when the electron and photon


population within the structure comes into equilibrium is b) Inter-valence band
371 known as a) Auger recombination absorption c) Carrier leakage d) Relaxation oscillations :d

When a current pulse reaches a laser having parasitic


372 capacitance after the initial delay time, that pulse will a) Have no effect b) Will get vanished c) Becomes narrower d) Gets broader :d

Reducing delay time and ____________ are of high b) Inter-valence band


373 importance for lasers. a) Auger recombination absorption c) Carrier leakage effects d) Relaxation oscillations :d

Dynamic line-width broadening under the direct modulation b) Inter-valence band


374 of injection current is known as a) Auger recombination absorption c) Carrier leakage effects d) Frequency Chirping :d

A particular characteristic or parameter that occurs during


375 analog transmission of injection lasers is a) Noise b) Mode hopping c) Carrier leakage effects d) Frequency Chirping :a

Intensity of output from semiconductor injection lasers a) Fluctuations in


376 leading to optical intensity noise is due to amplitude b) Mode hopping c) Carrier leakage effects d) Frequency Chirping :a

In multimode lasers the optical feedback from unnecessary


external reflections affecting stability of frequency and
377 intensity is a) Remains unaffected b) Increased gradually c) Reduced d) Gets totally vanished :c

Reduction in the number of modes in multimode fiber


increases the mode partition noise. State whether the given
378 statement is true or false. a) False b) True :a

The behavior of laser occurring when current is increased


379 above threshold particularly is a) Mode hopping b) Auger recombination c) Frequency chirping d) Noise :a

____________________ lasers are presently the major


380 laser source for optical fiber communications a) Semiconductor b) Non-Semiconductor c) Injection d) Solid-state :c

In Nd: YAG lasers, the maximum doping levels of


381 neodymium is ____________ a) 0.5 % b) 1.5 % c) 1.8 % d) 2 % :b

Which of the following is not a property of Nd: YAG laser


that enables its use as an optical fiber communication d) Semiconductors and integrated
382 source? a) Single mode operation b) Narrow line-width c) Long lifetime circuits :d

The Nd: YAG laser has a narrow line-width which is


383 ________________ a) < 0.01 nm b) > 0.01 nm c) > 1 mm d) > 1.6 mm :a
The strongest pumping bands is a four level system of Nd:
384 YAG laser at wavelength of range_________________ a) 0.25 and 0.56 nm b) 0.75 and 0.81 nm c) 0.12 and 0.23 nm d) 1 and 2 nm :b

The Nd: YAG laser is costlier than earth-doped glass fiber


385 laser. State whether the following statement is true or false a) True b) False :a

It is a resonant cavity formed by two parallel reflecting


mirrors separated by a mirror separated by a medium such
386 as air or gas a) Optical cavity b) Wheatstone’s bridge c) Oscillator d) Fabry-perot resonator :d

In a three level system, the threshold power decreases


inversely with the length of the fiber gain medium. State
387 whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :b

Which of the following co-dopant is not employed by


388 neodymium and erbium doped silica fiber lasers? a) Phosphorus pent oxide b) Germania c) Nitrogen d) Alumina :c

Dopants levels in glass fiber lasers are generally c) Same as that of GRIN rod lens d) Same as that of semiconductor
389 ___________ a) Low b) High laser laser :a

_______________ fibers include addition of lead fluoride to


390 the core glass in order to raise the relative refractive index. a) Solid-state b) GaAs c) Semiconductor d) ZBLANP :d

The lasing output of the basic Fabry-perot cavity fiber is


391 restricted to between ____________ a) 1 and 2 nm b) 5 and 10 nm c) 3 and 6 nm d) 15 and 30 nm :b

a) Increasing the refractive b) Decreasing the


392 In Fabry-perot laser, the lower threshold is obtained by index refractive index c) Reducing the slope efficiency d) Increasing the slope efficiency :c

393 When did the non-semiconductor laser developed? a) 1892 b) 1946 c) 1985 d) 1993 :c

394 Y3Al5 O12 Is a molecular formula for _____________ a) Ytterbium aluminate b) Yttrium oxide c) Ytterbium oxy-aluminate d) Yttrium-aluminum garnet :d

Which of these factors are critical in affecting the system


performance in the case of coherent optical fiber a) Laser line-width and b) Refractive index and
395 transmission? stability index difference c) Core cladding diameter d) Frequency :a

_______________ occurs as a result of the change in


396 lasing frequency with gain a) Frequency multiplication b) Dispersion c) Attenuation d) Line-width broadening :d

a) Increasing the refractive c) Introduction of external


397 Laser cavity length can be extended by index b) Reducing frequency feedback d) Using GRIN-rod lenses :c

What is the purpose of wavelength dispersive element is


398 LEC lasers? a) Wavelength selectivity b) Reduction of line-width c) Frequency multiplication d) Avalanche multiplication :a

An effective method to reduce the line-width is to make the


cavity longer. State whether the following statement is true
399 or false. a) True b) False :a
Which devices are used to modulate the external cavity in
400 order to achieve the higher switching speeds? a) Electromagnetic b) Acousto-optic c) Dispersive d) Lead :b

How many techniques are used to tune monolithic


401 integrated devices (lasers)? a) Five b) One c) Two d) Three :c

_________________ laser can be produced when a


coupler section is introduced between the amplifier and
402 phase sections of a structure a) SG-DBR b) GCSR c) Y 4-shifted d) DSM :b

The rare-earth-doped fiber lasers have spectral line-width


403 in the range of _________________ a) 0.1 to 1 nm b) 1.2 to 1.5 nm c) 6 to 10 nm d) 2 to 2.3 nm :a

The lasing line-width of Fox-smith resonator is


404 ____________________ a) Less than 1 MHz b) 1 MHz c) 2 MHz d) Greater than 3 MHz :a

What is the widest tuning range obtained in optical fiber


405 laser structure? a) 60 nm b) 80 nm c) More than 100 nm d) 100 nm :c

The mechanism which results from a refractive index


406 change in the passive waveguide layer is called as a) Absorption b) Spontaneous emission c) Monolithic inversion d) Bragg wavelength control :d

How many sections are included in a sampling grating


407 distributed Bragg-reflector laser (SG-DBR)? a) Four b) Five c) Three d) Two :b

Fiber based lasers provide diffraction-limited power at


higher levels than solid-state laser. State whether the given
408 statement is true or false a) True b) False :a

The parameters having a major role in determining a) Angle recombination


409 threshold current of efficiency of injection laser are: and optical losses b) Frequency chirping c) Relaxation oscillation d) Mode hopping :a

Auger current is mostly ___________________ for


material with band gap providing longer wavelength
410 emission. a) Unaffected b) Lesser c) Larger d) Vanishes :c

Injection lasers operating in smaller wavelengths are


subjected to increased carrier losses. State whether the
411 following statement is true or false? a) True b) False :b

Devices based on quaternary PbSnSeTe and their ternary


412 compounds, emit at wavelength ? a) Between 3-4 μm b) Longer than 4 μm c) Between 3.5 to 4.2 μm d) Between 2 to 3 μm :b

Replacing Sn with Eu, Cd or Ge in some


413 _________________ the band gap. a) Remove the band gap b) Does not affect c) Decreases d) Increases :d

Lasing obtained in __________ when 191 mW of pump a) Ternary PbSnSeTe alloy b) Quaternary PbSnSeTe
414 light at a wavelength of 0.477 μm is launched into laser. laser alloy laser c) Doped Fluoro-zirconate fiber d) Ternary PbEuTe alloy laser :c
The thulium doped fiber laser when pumped with
415 alexandrite laser output at 0.786 μm, the laser emits at a) 0.6 μm b) 0.8 μm c) 2.3 μm d) 1.2μm :c

The diode-cladding-pumped Erbium praseodymium-doped


416 fluoride device operates at wavelength. a) Around 3 μm b) 4 μm c) 2.6 μm d) 1.04 μm :a

A technique based on inter-sub band transition is known


417 as a) Auger recombination b) Frequency chirping c) Inter-valence band absorption d) Quantum cascading :d

In a QC laser, a same electron can emit number of


418 photons. State the given statement is true or false? a) True b) False :a

The phenomenon resulting in the electrons to jump from


one state to another each time emitting of photon is known a) Inter-valence band
419 as : absorption b) Mode hopping c) Quantum cascading d) Quantum confinement :d

420 A QC laser is sometimes referred as: a) Unipolar laser b) Bipolar laser c) Gain guided laser d) Non semiconductor laser :a

In QC lasers, it is possible to obtain different output signal a) Inter-valence band d) Selecting layers of different
421 wavelengths. This can be achieved by absorption b) Mode hopping c) Quantum cascading thickness :d

QC lasers ______________ the performance


422 characteristics. a) Have negligible effects b) Does not affects c) Improves d) Degrades :c

An MQW cascaded laser is more advantageous because


423 of: a) Mode hopping b) Auger recombination c) Control over layers of material d) Properties of material :c

The absence of _______________ in LEDs limits the c) Optical amplification through d) Optical amplification through
424 internal quantum efficiency. a) Proper semiconductor b) Adequate power supply stimulated emission spontaneous emission :c

The excess density of electrons Δnand holes Δpin an LED


425 is a) Equal b) Δpmore than Δn c) Δn more than Δp d) Does not affects the LED :a

The hole concentration in extrinsic materials is _________


426 electron concentration. a) much greater than b) lesser than c) equal to d) negligible difference with :a

d) Optical amplification through


427 In a junction diode, an equilibrium condition occurs when a) Δngreater than Δp b) Δnsmaller than Δp c) Constant current flow stimulated emission :c

Determine the total carrier recombination lifetime of a


double heterojunction LED where the radioactive and
nonradioactive recombination lifetime of minority carriers in
428 active region are 70 ns and 100 ns respectively. a) 41.17 ns b) 35 ns c) 40 ns d) 37.5 ns :a

Determine the internal quantum efficiency generated within


a device when it has a radiative recombination lifetime of
429 80 ns and total carrier recombination lifetime of 40 ns. a) 20 % b) 80 % c) 30 % d) 40 % :b
Compute power internally generated within a
double-heterojunction LED if it has internal quantum
efficiency of 64.5 % and drive current of 40 mA with a peak
430 emission wavelength of 0.82 μm. a) 0.09 b) 0.039 c) 0.04 d) 0.06 :b

The Lambertian intensity distribution __________ the


431 external power efficiency by some percent. a) Reduces b) Does not affects c) Increases d) Have a negligible effect :a

A planar LED fabricated from GaAs has a refractive index


of 2.5. Compute the optical power emitted when
432 transmission factor is 0.68. a) 3.4 % b) 1.23 % c) 2.72 % d) 3.62 % :c

A planar LED is fabricated from GaAs is having a optical


power emitted is 0.018% of optical power generated
internally which is 0.018% of optical power generated
internally which is 0.6 P. Determine external power
433 efficiency. a) 0.18% b) 0.32% c) 0.65% d) 0.9% :d

For a GaAs LED, the coupling efficiency is 0.05. Compute


434 the optical loss in decibels. a) 12.3 dB b) 14 dB c) 13.01 dB d) 14.6 dB :c

13. In a GaAs LED, compute the loss relative to internally


generated optical power in the fiber when there is small air
gap between LED and fiber core. (Fiber coupled = 5.5 *
435 10-4Pint) a) 34 dB b) 32.59 dB c) 42 dB d) 33.1 dB :b

Determine coupling efficiency into the fiber when GaAs LED


is in close proximity to fiber core having numerical aperture
436 of 0.3 a) 0.9 b) 0.3 c) 0.6 d)0.12 :a

If a particular optical power is coupled from an incoherent


LED into a low-NA fiber, the device must exhibit very high
radiance . State whether the given statement is true or
437 false. a) True b) False :a

438 The amount of radiance in planer type of LED structures is a) Low b) High c) Zero d) Negligible :a

In optical fiber communication, ______________ major


439 types of LED structures are used a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3 :c

As compared to planar LED structure, Dome LEDs have


______________ External power efficiency, ____________
440 effective emission area and _____________ radiance. a) Greater, lesser, reduced b) Higher, greater, reduced c) Higher, lesser, increased d) Greater, greater, increased :b

The techniques by Burros and Dawson in reference to


homo structure device is to use an etched well in GaAs
441 structure. Determine the given statement is True or false. a) True b) False :a

In surface emitter LEDs, more advantage can be obtained


442 by using a) BH structures b) QC structures c) DH structures d) Gain-guided structure :c
Internal absorption in DH surface emitter Burros type LEDs
443 is a) Cannot be determined b) Negligible c) High d) Very low :d

a) More coupled optical b) Less coupled optical d) Low radiance emission


444 DH surface emitter generally give power power c) Low current densities into-fiber :a

A DH surface emitter LED has an emission area diameter


445 of 60μm. Determine emission area of source a) 1.534*10-6 b) 5.423*10-3 c) 3.564*10-2 d) 2.826*10-9 :d

Estimate optical power coupled into fiber of DH SLED


having emission area of 1.96*10-5, radiance of 40 W/rcm2,
numerical aperture of 0.2 and Fresnel reflection coefficient
446 of 0.03 at index matched fiber surface. a) 5.459*10-5 b) 1.784*10-3 c) 3.478*102 d) 9.551*10-5 :d

In a multimode fiber, much of light coupled in the fiber from


447 an LED is a) Increased b) Reduced c) Lost d) Unaffected :c

Determine the overall power conversion efficiency of lens


coupled SLED having forward current of 20 mA and
forward voltage of 2 V with 170 μWof optical power
448 launched into multimode step index fiber. a) 1.256*10-5 b) 4.417*102 c) 4.25*10-3 d) 2.14*10-3 :c

The overall power conversion efficiency of electrical lens


coupled LED is 0.8% and power applied 0.0375 V.
449 Determine optical power launched into fiber a) 0.03 b) 0.05 c) 0.3 d) 0.01 :a

450 Mesa structured SLEDs are used a) To reduce radiance b) To increase radiance c) To reduce current spreading d) To increase current spreading :c

The InGaAsP is emitting LEDs are realized in terms of


451 restricted a) Length strip geometry b) Radiance c) Current spreading d) Coupled optical power :a

452 The active layer of E-LED is heavily doped with a) Zn b) Eu c) Cu d) Sn :a

453 Intrinsically _________________ are a very linear device. a) Injection lasers b) DH lasers c) Gain-guided d) LEDs :d

Linearizing circuit techniques are used for LEDs. State


454 whether the given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

The internal quantum efficiency of LEDs decreasing a) Exponentially,


455 _______________ with ________________ temperature. decreasing b) Exponentially, increasing c) Linearly, increasing d) Linearly, decreasing :b

To utilize _____________________ of SLDs at elevated


temperatures, the use of thermoelectric coolers is
456 important. a) Low-internal efficiency b) High-internal efficiency c) High-power potential d) Low-power potential :c

For particular materials with smaller bandgap energies


operating in _____________ wavelength, the linewidth
457 tends to ______________ a) 2.1 to 2.75 μm, increase b) 1.1 to 1.7 μm, increase c) 2.1 to 3.6 μm, decrease d) 3.5 to 6 μm, decrease :b
The active layer composition must be adjusted if a
particular center wavelength is desired.State whether the
458 given statement is true or false. a) True b) False :a

In optical fiber communication, the electrical signal


dropping to half its constant value due to modulated portion
459 of optical signal corresponds to _______ a) 6 dB b) 3 dB c) 4 dB d) 5 db :b

The optical 3 dB point occurs when currents ratio is equal


460 to a) ⅝ b) ⅔ c) ½ d) ¾ :c

The optical bandwidth is _____________ the electrical


461 bandwidth. a) Smaller b) Greater c) Same as d) Zero with respect to :b

When a constant d.c. drive current is applied to device, the


optical o/p power is 320 μm. Determine optical o/p power
when device is modulated at frequency 30 MHz with
462 minority carrier recombination lifetime of LED i.e. 5ns. a) 4.49*10-12 b) 6.84*10-9 c) 1.29*10-6 d) 2.29*10-4 :d

The optical power at 20 MHz is 246.2 μW. Determine dc


drive current applied to device with carrier recombination
463 lifetime for LED of 6ns. a) 3.48*10-4 b) 6.42*10-9 c) 1.48*10-3 d) 9.48*10-12 :a

Determine the 3 dB electrical bandwidth at 3 dB optical


464 bandwidth Bopt of 56.2 MHz. a) 50.14 b) 28.1 c) 47.6 d) 61.96 :b

The 3 dB electrical bandwidth B is 42 MHz. Determine 3dB


465 optical bandwidth Bopt: a) 45.18 b) 59.39 c) 78.17 d) 94.14 :b

Determine degradation rate βrif constant junction


466 temperature is 17 degree celsius. a) 7.79*10-11 b) 7.91*10-11 c) 6.86*10-11 d) 5.86*10-11 :a

Determine CW operating lifetime for LED with βrt = -0.58


467 and degradation rate βr= 7.86*10-11 h-1. a) 32.12 b) 42 c) 22.72 d) 23.223 :c
Q1. The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human eye
(A) Infrared
(B) Amber
(C) Visible
(D) Ultraviolet

Answer: Infrared
Explanation:

Q2. The term power budgeting in optical fiber communication refers to


(A) the cost of cables, connectors, equipment, and installation
(B) the loss of power due to defective components
(C) the total power available minus the attenuation losses
(D) the comparative costs of fiber and copper installations

Answer: the total power available minus the attenuation losses


Explanation:

Q3. Which of the following cables will have the highest launch power capability?
(A) 50/125/0.2
(B) 85/125/0.275
(C) 62.5/125/0.275
(D) 100/140/0.3

Answer: 100/140/0.3
Explanation:

Q4. EMD is best described by which statement?


(A) 70 percent of the core diameter and 70% of the fiber NA should be filled with light
(B) 70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70% of the cone of acceptance should be filled
with light
(C) 50 percent of input light should be measured at the output
(D) 70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths should be attenuated by the fiber

Answer: 70 percent of the core diameter and 70% of the fiber NA should be filled with
light
Explanation:

Q5. The mechanical splice is best suited for


(A) quicker installation under ideal conditions
(B) minimum attenuation losses
(C) field service conditions
(D) situations in which cost of equipment is not a factor

Answer: field service conditions


Explanation:

Q6. Loss comparisons between fusion splices and mechanical splices are
(A) 01:10:00
(B) 10:01:00
(C) 05:01:00
(D) 01:05:00

Answer: 01:10:00
Explanation:

Q7. What is responsivity of a light detector


(A) the time required for the signal to go from 10 to 90 percent of maximum amplitude
(B) the ratio of the diode output current to optical input power
(C) the ratio of output current to output power
(D) the ratio of output current to input current

Answer: the ratio of the diode output current to optical input power
Explanation:

Q8. When connector losses, splice losses, and coupler losses are added, what is
the final limiting factor?
(A) Source power
(B) Fiber attenuation
(C) Connector and splice losses
(D) Detector sensitivity

Answer: Detector sensitivity


Explanation:

Q9. As light is coupled in a multipoint reflective device, the power is reduced by


(A) 1.5 dB
(B) 0.1 dB
(C) 0.5 dB
(D) 0.001 dB

Answer: 0.5 dB
Explanation:
Q10. The three major groups in the optical system are
(A) the components, the data rate and response time
(B) the source, the link, and the receiver
(C) the transmitter, the cable, and the receiver
(D) the source, the link, and the detector

Answer: the source, the link, and the detector


Explanation:

Q11. The higher the index number


(A) the higher the speed of light
(B) the lower the speed of light
(C) has no effect on the speed of light
(D) the shorter the wavelength propagation

Answer: the higher the speed of light


Explanation:

Q12. The terms single mode and multimode are


(A) the number of fibers placed into a fiber-optic cable
(B) the number of voice channels each fiber can support
(C) the number of wavelengths each fiber can support
(D) the index number

Answer: the number of wavelengths each fiber can support


Explanation:

Q13. What is reflective index number


(A) a number which compares the transparency of a material with that of air
(B) a number assigned by the manufacturer to the fiber in question
(C) a number which determines the core diameter
(D) a term for describing core elasticity

Answer: a number which compares the transparency of a material with that of air
Explanation:

Q14. The cladding which surrounds the fiber core


(A) is used to reduce optical interference
(B) is used to protect the fiber
(C) acts to help guide the light in the core
(D) ensures that the refractive index remains constant

Answer: acts to help guide the light in the core


Explanation:

Q15. The term critical angle describes


(A) the point at which light is refracted
(B) the point at which light becomes invisible
(C) the point at which light has gone from the refractive mode to the reflective mode
(D) the point at which light has crossed the boundary layers from one index to another

Answer: the point at which light has gone from the refractive mode to the reflective
mode
Explanation:

Q16. Which of the following terms describes the reason that light is refracted at
different angles?
(A) Photon energy changes with wavelength
(B) Light is refracted as a function of surface smoothness
(C) The angle is determined partly by a and b
(D) The angle is determined by the index of the materials

Answer: The angle is determined by the index of the materials


Explanation:

Q17. The term dispersion describes the process of


(A) separating light into its component frequencies
(B) reflecting light from a smooth surface
(C) the process by which light is absorbed by an uneven rough surface
(D) light scattering

Answer: separating light into its component frequencies


Explanation:

Q18. An incident ray can be defined as


(A) a light ray reflected from a flat surface
(B) a light ray directed toward a surface
(C) a diffused light ray
(D) a light ray that happens periodically

Answer: a light ray directed toward a surface


Explanation:
Q19. A single fiber can handle as many voice channel as a
(A) pair of copper conductors
(B) 1500-pair cable
(C) 500-pair cable
(D) 1000-pair cable

Answer: 1500-pair cable


Explanation:

Q20. Approximately what is the frequency limit of the optical fiber?


(A) 20 MHz
(B) 1 MHz
(C) 100 MHz
(D) 40 GHz

Answer: 40 GHz
Explanation:
1. Founded the wave theory of light

a. Francesco Grimaldi

b. Edward Appleton

c. James Clerk Maxwell

d. Christian Huygens

Answer: Option D

2. Proposed the use of clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide

a. Karpon and Keck

b. Karpon and Bockham

c. Bockham and Kao

d. Kao and Keck

Answer: Option C

3. Developed the first laser

a. Charles Townes

b. Theodore Maiman

c. Gordon McKenzie

d. Albert Einstein

Answer: Option B

4. The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human
eye

a. Amber
b. Visible

c. Infrared

d. Ultraviolet

Answer: Option C

5. The band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the human
eye

a. Amber

b. Visible

c. Infrared

d. Ultraviolet

:
Answer: Option C

6. Which color has the shortest wavelength of light?

a. Red

b. Yellow

c. Blue

d. Green

:
Answer: Option C

7. What generates a light beam of a specific visible frequency?

a. Laser

b. Maser
c. Infrared

d. Flashlight

:
Answer: Option A

8. Which of the following materials is sensitive to light?

a. Photoresist

b. Photosensitive

c. Light Sensitive

d. Maser

:
Answer: Option A

9. The core of an optical fiber has a

a. Lower refracted index than air

b. Lower refractive index than the cladding

c. Higher refractive index than the cladding

d. Similar refractive index with the cladding

:
Answer: Option C

10. Is the different angle of entry of light into an optical fiber when the
diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted.

a. Acceptance angle

b. Modes

c. Sensors
d. Aperture

Answer: Option B

11. The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is called

a. Dispersion

b. Scattering

c. Absorption

d. Attenuation

Answer: Option D

12. The bandwidth of optical fiber

a. 900M Hz

b. 900 PHz

c. 900 THz

d. 900 EHz

Answer: Option C

13. If a mirror is used to reflect light, the reflected light angle is ____ as the
incident angle

a. Smaller

b. Larger

c. The same

d. Independent
Answer: Option C

14. What is a specific path the light takes in an optical fiber corresponding to
a certain angle and number of reflection

a. Mode

b. Grade

c. Numerical Aperture

d. Dispersion

Answer: Option A
:

15. Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by the light source

a. Bandwidth

b. Chromatic Dispersion

c. Spectral width

d. Beamwidth

Answer: Option C

16. Which theory states that the light wave behaves as if it consists of many
tiny particles?

a. Huygen’s theory

b. Wave theory of light

c. Nyquist theory

d. Quantum theory

Answer: Option D
:
17. Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies near

a. 20 MHz

b. 200 MHz

c. 2G Hz

d. 800 THz

Answer: Option D
:

18. When a beam of light enters one medium from another, which quantity
will not change?

a. Direction

b. Speed

c. Frequency

d. Wavelength

Answer: Option C

19. Dispersion is used to describe the

a. Splitting of white light into its component colors

b. Propagation of light in straight lines

c. Bending of a beam of light when it goes from one medium to another

d. Bending of a beam light when it strikes a mirror

Answer: Option A
:

20. Luminance efficiency is minimum for a

a. Fluorescent tube
b. High wattage light bulb

c. Mercury vapor lamp

d. Low wattage light bulb

Answer: Option D
:

21. An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has
a/an _____ image.

a. Inverted

b. The same in size

c. Virtual

d. Smaller size

Answer: Option A
:

22. An object nearer to a converging lens than its focal point always has
a/an ______ image.

a. Inverted

b. The same in size

c. Virtual

d. Smaller size

Answer: Option C
:

23. The real image formed by a spherical mirror is ____ relative to its object

a. Erect

b. Inverted

c. Smaller
d. Larger

Answer: Option D
:

24. The wavelength of light has no role in

a. Diffraction

b. Interference

c. Polarization

d. Reflection

Answer: Option C
:

25. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit

a. Polarization

b. Refraction

c. Reflection

d. Diffraction

Answer: Option A
:

26. ________ dispersion is caused by the difference in the propagation


times of light rays that take different paths down a fiber.

a. Material dispersion

b. Wavelength dispersion

c. Modal dispersion

d. Delay dispersion

Answer: Option C
:
27. What is the average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics?

a. 0.09 dB

b. 0.9 dB

c. 0.19 dB

d. 0.009 dB

Answer: Option A
:

28. What is the insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single mode
fiber optics?

a. 0.51 dB

b. 0.31 dB

c. 0.49 dB

d. 0.38 dB

Answer: Option D
:

29. What is the lifetime of LEDs?

a. 200,000 minutes

b. 200,000 hours

c. 150,000 minutes

d. 150,000 hours

Answer: Option B
:

30. What is the lifetime of ILDs?

a. 50,000 hours
b. 75,000 hours

c. 100,000 hours

d. 125,000 hours

Answer: Option A
:

31. Photodiodes used as fiber optic directors are

a. Unbiased to generate a voltage same as a solar cell

b. Forward bias

c. Reversed bias

d. Thermoelectrically cooled

Answer: Option C
:

32. What type of fiber has the highest modal dispersion?

a. Step-index multimode

b. Graded index multimode

c. Step-index single mode

d. Graded index mode

Answer: Option A
:

33. Laser light is ______ emission.

a. Coherent

b. Stimulated

c. Spontaneous

d. Coherent and stimulated


Answer: Option D
Solution

34. A dielectric waveguide for the propagation of electromagnetic energy at


light frequencies

a. Stripline

b. Microstrip

c. Laser beam

d. Fiber optics

:
Answer: Option D
:

35. Is a non-coherent light source foe optical communications system.

a. ILD

b. LED

c. APD

d. PIN Dio

Answer: Option B

36. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its
excitation?

a. Semiconductor

b. Ruby

c. Helium-neon

d. Neodymium-YAG

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

37. Which laser emits light in the visible range 400 to 700 nm?

a. Argon-ion

b. Nitrogen

c. Carbon-dioxide

d. Neodymium-YAG

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

38. Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a pulsed


laser?

a. Energy x time

b. Pulse energy x repetition rate

c. Pulse energy / repetition rate

d. Peak power x pulse length

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

39. What is the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10^12
Hz?

a. 10.6 x 10^34 joules

b. 6.63 x 10^-34 joules

c. 6.63 x 10^-22 joules

d. 10.6 x 10^22 joules

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
40. A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an
object 20 cm away from the lens. How far is the real image from the lens?

a. 5 cm

b. 10 cm

c. 15 cm

d. 20 cm

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

41. Which of the following factor does not harm laser efficiency?

a. Atmospheric absorption

b. Excitation energy not absorbed

c. Problems in depopulating the lower laser level

d. Inefficiency in populating the upper laser level

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

42. Which of the following contributes to the broadening of laser emission


bandwidth?

a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules

b. Amplification within the laser medium

c. Coherence of the laser light

d. Optical pumping of the laser transition

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

43. The first laser emitted


a. Pulses of 694 nm red light

b. A continuous red beam

c. Pulses of white light from a helical flash lamp

d. Spontaneous emission

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

44. What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon?

a. Liquid

b. Gas

c. Molten

d. Hot

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

45. Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter on the Fiber


Optical Communications?

a. APD

b. LSA diode

c. PIN diode

d. LED

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

46. Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics


communications

a. APD
b. Tunnel diode

c. Laser diode

d. LED

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

47. The numerical aperture of a fiber if the angle of acceptance is 15


degrees, is

a. 017

b. 0.26

c. 0.50

d. 0.75

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

48. The inner portion of the fiber cable is called

a. Cladding

b. Coating

c. Inner conductor

d. Core

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

49. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its
excitation?

a. Semiconductor

b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon

d. Neodymium-YAG

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

50. The laser frequency when the light has the wavelength 800 nm is

a. 375 x 10^12 Hz

b. 475 x 10^15 Hz

c. 375 x 10^9 Hz

d. 375 x 10^18 Hz

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution

51. Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable?

a. Computer networks

b. Long-distance telephone systems

c. Closed circuit TV

d. Consumer TV

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

52. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at
an angle with what relationship to the critical angle?

a. Less than
b. Greater than

c. Equal to

d. Zero

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

53. The operation of the fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of

a. Refraction

b. Reflection

c. Dispersion

d. Absorption

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

54. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable?

a. Single-mode step-index

b. Multimode graded-index

c. Single-mode graded-index

d. Multimode step-index

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

55. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of

a. Loss per foot

b. dB/km

c. intensity per mile


d. voltage drop per inch

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

56. Which of the cable length has the highest attenuation?

a. 1 km

b. 2 km

c. 95 ft

d. 5500 ft

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

57. The upper pulse rate and information carrying capacity of a cable is
limited by

a. Pulse shortening

b. Attenuation

c. Light leakage

d. Modal dispersion

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

58. The core of a fiber optic cable is made of

a. Air

b. Glass

c. Diamond

d. Quartz
View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

59. The core of a fiber optic is surrounded by

a. Wire braid shield

b. Kevlar

c. Cladding

d. Plastic insulation

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

60. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is

a. Slower

b. Faster

c. The same

d. Either lower or faster

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

61. Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic cable?

a. Immunity from interference

b. No electrical safety problems

c. Excellent data security

d. Lower cost

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
62. The main benefit of light-wave communications over microwaves or any
other communications media is

a. Lower cost

b. Better security

c. Wider bandwidth

d. Freedom from interference

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

63. Which of the following is not part of the optical spectrum?

a. Infrared

b. Ultraviolet

c. Visible color

d. X-rays

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

64. The wavelength of visible light extends from

a. 0.8 to 1.0 nm

b. 400 to 750 nm

c. 200 to 660 nm

d. 700 to 1200 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

65. The speed of light is


a. 186,000 mi/h

b. 300 mi/h

c. 300,000 m/s

d. 300,000,000 m/s

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

66. Refraction is the

a. Bending of light waves

b. Reflection of light waves

c. Distortion of light waves

d. Diffusion of light waves

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

67. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another
substance is called the

a. Speed factor

b. Index of reflection

c. Index of refraction

d. Dielectric constant

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

68. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is

a. 0.7 µm
b. 1.3 µm

c. 1.5 µm

d. 1.8 µm

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

69. Which type of fiber optic cable is most widely used?

a. Single-mode step-index

b. Multimode step-index

c. Single-mode graded-index

d. Multimode graded-index

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

70. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the best for very high speed data?

a. Single-mode step-index

b. Multimode step-index

c. Single-mode graded-index

d. Multimode graded-index

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

71. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?

a. Single mode step-index

b. Multimode step-index

c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

72. Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss?

a. Reflection

b. Absorption

c. Scattering

d. Dispersion

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

73. A distance of 8 km is the same as

a. 2.5 mi

b. 5 mi

c. 8 mi

d. 12.9 mi

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

74. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15 dB/km. The attenuation in a cable,


100 ft long is

a. 4.57 dB

b. 9.3 dB

c. 24 dB

d. 49.2 dB
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

75. Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are
linked together. The total loss is

a. 7.5 dB

b. 19.8 dB

c. 29.1 dB

d. 650 dB

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

76. Which light emitter is preferred for high speed data in a fiber-optic
system

a. Incandescent

b. LED

c. Neon

d. Laser

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

77. Most fiber-optic light sources emit light in which spectrum?

a. Visible

b. Infrared

c. Ultraviolet

d. X-ray

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

78. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with

a. Forward bias

b. Reverse bias

c. Neither A or B

d. Either A or B

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

79. Single-frequency light is called

a. Pure

b. Intense

c. Coherent

d. Monochromatic

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

80. Laser light is very bright because it is

a. Pure

b. White

c. Coherent

d. Monochromatic

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
81. Which of the following is NOT a common light detector

a. PIN photodiode

b. Photovoltaic diode

c. Photodiode

d. Avalanche photodiode

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

82. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor

a. PIN photodiode

b. Photovoltaic diode

c. Phototransistor

d. Avalanche photodiode

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

83. Photodiodes operate property with

a. Forward bias

b. Reverse bias

c. Neither A or B

d. Either A or B

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

84. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits
km/s. What is the maximum rate at 5 km?
a. 100 Mbits/s

b. 200 Mbits/s

c. 400 Mbits/s

d. 1000 Gbits/s

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

85. Which fiber-optic system is better?

a. 3 repeaters

b. 8 repeaters

c. 11 repeaters

d. 20 repeaters

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

86. An important requirement for successful transmission system using light

a. Powerful, reliable light source

b. Strong glass

c. Reliable, high cost transmission medium

d. Powerful regenerators

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

87. What is used to block light from a laser and let other light through

a. Neutral density

b. Color
c. Interference

d. Spatial

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

88. ________ is a light that can be coherent

a. Spontaneous emission

b. Monochromatic and in-phase

c. Narrow beam divergence

d. Monochromatic

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

89. Coherence of laser light is important for _________

a. Light propagation

b. Getting laser light to pass through air

c. Drilling holes

d. Holography

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

90. The ultrapure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is approximately


____ pure

a. 99.9 %

b. 99.99 %

c. 99.999 %
d. 99.9999 %

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

91. In fiber optics, PCS stands for

a. Plastic-clad-silica

b. Polyethylene-clad-silica

c. Personal carrier system

d. Personal communication

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

92. How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser’s gain bandwidth?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 9

d. No fixed limit, dependent on bandwidth and mode spacing

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

93. _________ is the result of photons of light that are absorbed by the
atoms of the glass core molecules

a. Ion resonance absorption

b. Ultraviolet absorption

c. Infrared absorption

d. Absorption loss
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

94. In fiber optics, SCS stands for

a. Suppressed-clad-silicon

b. Silicon base-class-silica

c. Silica-clad-silica

d. Serial-clad-silicon

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

95. Human laser was developed by A. Javen at Bell laboratory in

a. 1960

b. 1962

c. 1963

d. 1964

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

96. What parameter of light detector determines the range or system length
that can be achieved for a given wavelength?

a. Transit time

b. Spectral response

c. Dark current

d. Responsitivity

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

97. Dark current in light detectors is caused by

a. Thermally generated carriers in the diode

b. The absence of light input

c. Small leakage current

d. Its imperfection

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

98. What is the unit of responsitivity?

a. Ampere/volt

b. Ampere/watt

c. Watt/ampere

d. Volts/ampere

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

99. One of the following is not a characteristic of light detectors.

a. Responsitivity

b. Spectral response

c. Transmit time

d. Dispersion

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
100. What is the typical wavelength of light emitted from epitaxially grown
LEDs?

a. 840 nm

b. 490 nm

c. 480 nm

d. 940 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution

101. SONET stands for

a. System Optical Network

b. Synchronous Optical Network

c. Silica Optic Network

d. System Optical Fiber Net

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

102. Band loss is


a. A reduction in transmitter power caused by earth’s surface curvature

b. A reduction in strength of the signal caused by folded dipole bends

c. An attenuation increase caused by bends radiating from the side of the


fiber

d. All of these

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

103. Infrared range for fiber optics

a. 400 – 700 nm

b. 700 – 1200 nm

c. 300 – 2000 nm

d. 400 – 7000 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

104. Which of the following is a disadvantage for plastic fiber optics?

a. Noise immunity

b. Electric hazards

c. Higher losses

d. All of these

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

105. OTDR stands for

a. Optical Time Domain Reflectometer


b. Optical Transmit Direction Return

c. Optical Time Domain Time Regeneration

d. Overtime Direct Reference

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

106. Which of the following is determined by an OTDR?

a. Distance to trouble

b. Length of fiber

c. Refractive index

d. All of these

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

107. Under normal condition, a single fiber should not be used for a two-way
communication mainly because of

a. Loss

b. Fading

c. Noise

d. Attenuation

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

108. A single mode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.

a. 0.1

b. 0.01
c. 0.2

d. 0.05

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

109. A step-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.

a. 0.02

b. 0.2

c. 2

d. 0.002

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

110. The graded-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____
nm.

a. 0.5

b. 0.05

c. 0.0005

d. 5

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

111. Which is not a possible cause of optical fiber loss?

a. Impurities

b. Glass attenuation

c. Stepped index operation


d. Microbending

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

112. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum and the speed of light in the
material used.

a. S/N ratio

b. Refractive index

c. Intermodal dispersion

d. Monomode ratio

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

113. Splicing fibers means

a. Fusion

b. Butt

c. Glue

d. Both fusion and butt

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

114. An IC that represents a short distance one-way optical communications

a. Optoisolator

b. Insulator

c. Multivibrator

d. Optical IC
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

115. When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, it produces a loss of

a. 14%

b. 4%

c. 10%

d. 1%

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

116. When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, the fiber loss produced
can be reduced by

a. Splicing

b. Antireflection coating

c. Insulation jacket

d. All of these

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

117. In fiber optics, higher-order mode refers to

a. Cladding boundary at high angle

b. Backscattering electromagnetic signals

c. Diffracting signals

d. All of these

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

118. The following are the cause of light attenuation in fiber optics except

a. Backscattering

b. Absorption

c. Refraction

d. Microbends

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

119. Why are visible-light LEDs not used for fiber optics?

a. It has high losses

b. It has short wave

c. It has low attenuation

d. It has weak signal

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

120. Optical cable testers are used for

a. Checking refractive index

b. Light power out of a fiber

c. Non-calibrated light into a fiber

d. Checking maximum distance covered

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

121. A function of an optic isolator


a. Cancels reflective waves

b. Amplifies signal transmitted

c. Filters unnecessary signals

d. All of these

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

122. An increase in light intensity produces fast optic switching due to

a. Increase in index of glass

b. Amplification of optical signal

c. High gain

d. Photoconductivity

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

123. Light traveling in optical fiber follows which of the following principles.

a. Huygen’s principle

b. Reflection theory

c. Light theory

d. Snell’s law

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

124. Optical fibers for telecommunications are typically about _____ mils
thick and consists of a glass core, a glass cladding of lower index of
refraction, and a protective coating

a. 5
b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

125. Material dispersion is caused by the

a. Wavelength dependence of the index of refraction

b. Wavelength independence of the index of refraction

c. Dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number

d. Independence of the propagation constant on the mode number

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

126. Modal dispersion is caused by the

a. Dependence of wavelength on index of refraction

b. Dependence of propagation constant on index of refraction

c. Dependence of the propagation constant on the wavelength

d. Dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

127. The dominant loss mechanisms in silica fiber are

a. Absorption and radiation losses

b. Absorption and Rayleigh scattering

c. Coupling and radiation losses


d. Radiation and modal dispersion

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

128. The bandwidth of a fiber is limited by

a. Mode

b. Wavelength

c. Dispersion

d. Frequency

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

129. Fiber bandwidth is generally specified as the

a. Product of the bandwidth and distance

b. Sum of the bandwidth and distance

c. Difference of the bandwidth and distance

d. Quotient of bandwidth and distance

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

130. The _____ of a detector is the fraction of incident photons that produce
a photoelectron or electron-hole pair

a. Responsitivity

b. Photon efficiency

c. Aperture

d. Quantum efficiency
View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

131. In solid-state optical detectors, the excited charge is transported in the


solid by

a. Holes and protons

b. Holes and electrons

c. Anion and cation

d. Protons and photons

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

132. One of the following is not a solid-state optical detector

a. APD

b. PIN

c. PMT

d. Phototransistors

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

133. Optical detectors are square-law devices because they respond to


_____ rather than amplitude

a. Intensity

b. Light

c. Density

d. Photon

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

134. The _____ is equal to the number of electrons emitted per second
times the electron charge

a. Intensity

b. Optical power

c. Photocurrent

d. Responsitivity

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

135. Which optical detector is used when high sensitivity and bandwidth are
required?

a. PMT

b. APD

c. PIN

d. Phototransistor

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

136. What is the average loss in fiber splice?

a. 0.10 dB

b. 0.15 dB

c. 0.20 dB

d. 0.25 dB

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

137. Which of the following colors is not found in the visible light wave
spectrum?

a. Red

b. White

c. Orange

d. Yellow

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

138. What is the frequency limit of an optical fiber?

a. 20 GHz

b. 30 GHz

c. 40 GHz

d. 50 GHz

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

139. The mechanical splice attenuation loss is _____ dB or less

a. 0.1

b. 0.01

c. 0.001

d. 1

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
140. _____ is applied to protect core and cladding of the fiber

a. Insulation

b. Fiber insulation

c. Silica

d. Polymer jacket

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

141. The energy of the photon is

a. Directly proportional to its bandwidth

b. Directly proportional to the Planck’s constant

c. Directly proportional to Boltzmann’s constant

d. Inversely proportional to the Planck’s constant

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

142. Refractive index of glass

a. 1.0

b. 1.2

c. 1.4

d. 1.5

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

143. Refractive index of diamond

a. 1.0
b. 1.4

c. 1.8

d. 2.0

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

144. What is the unit of light wavelength?

a. Micrometer

b. Angstroms

c. Mils

d. Fathom

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

145. How much is the power loss of the fusion splice?

a. 0.1 dB or less

b. 0.01 dB or less

c. 1 dB or less

d. 10 dB or less

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

146. Used to test a fiber optics splice

a. Spectrum analyzer

b. Oscilloscope

c. Optical power meter


d. Field strength meter

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

147. A coupler which consists of a series of lenses and a partly reflective


surface

a. Beam-splitting coupler

b. Reflective star coupler

c. Fused coupler

d. None of these

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

148. Reflections in many directions

a. Diffuse reflection

b. Diffraction

c. Scattering

d. Dispersion

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

149. Commonly used electro-optic crystal for polarization modulation

a. Lithium Niobate

b. Tourmaline

c. Sodium Chlorate

d. Sphalerite
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

150. Which modulation methods are the most widely used in optical
systems?

a. Phase and frequency modulations

b. Polarization modulation and phase modulation

c. Intensity modulation and phase modulation

d. Intensity modulation and polarization modulation

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
151. A device that was constructed from mirrors and selenium detectors that transmitted sound
waves over a beam of light.

A. lightphone

B. photophone

C. cameraphone

D. walletphone

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
152. Which fiber-optic system is better?

A. 3 repeaters

B. 8 repeaters

C. 11 repeaters

D. 20 repeaters

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

153. What is the frequency limit of a copper wire?

A. approximately 0.5 MHz

B. approximately 1.0 MHz

C. approximately 40 GHz

D. none of the above

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
154. They were granted patents for scanning and transmitting television images through
uncoated fiber cables.

A. Baird and Hansel

B. Bockham and Kao

C. Kapron and Keck

D. Maiman and Schawlow

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
155. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits-km/s. What is the
maximum rate at 5 km?

A. 100 Mbits/s

B. 200 Mbits/s

C. 400 Mbits/s

D. 1000 Gbits/s

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
156. Approximately what is the frequency limit of the optical fiber?

A. 20 MHz

B. 1 MHz

C. 100 MHz

D. 40 GHz

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
157. They experimented with light transmission cables through bundle of fibers and lead to the
development of flexible fiberscope.

A. Townes, Schawlow and Kao

B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham

C. Maurer, Kapron and Keck

D. Van Heel, Hopkins and Kapany

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
158. Photodiodes operate properly with

A. forward bias

B. reverse bias

C. neither forward nor reverse bias

D. either forward or reverse bias

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
159. He coined the term “fiber optics” in 1956.

A. Kapany
B. Kao

C. Bockham

D. Keck

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
160. They wrote a paper describing how it was possible to use stimulated emission for
amplifying light waves (laser) as well as microwaves (maser).

A. Theodore Maiman

B. KC Kao and GA Bockham

C. Charles Townes and Arthur Schawlow

D. Kapron, Keck and Maurer

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
161. The scientist who built the first optical maser

A. Charles Townes

B. GA Bockham

C. Theodore Maiman

D. ACS Van Heel

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
162. A single fiber can handle as many voice channels as

A. a pair of copper conductors

B. a 1500-pair cable

C. a 500-pair cable
D. a 1000-pair cable

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
163. They proposed a new communication medium using cladded fiber cables.

A. Kao and Bockham

B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham

C. Kapron, Keck and Maurer

D. Maiman and Schawlow

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
164. An incident ray can be defined as

A. a light ray reflected from a flat surface

B. a light directed toward a surface

C. a diffused light ray

D. a light ray that happens periodically

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
165. Developed an optical fiber with losses less that 2 dB/km

A. Kao and Bockham

B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham

C. Maiman and Schawlow

D. Kapron, Keck and Maurer

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
166. The band of light frequencies that are too high to be seen by the human eye.

A. Ultraviolet

B. Visible light

C. Infrared

D. Yellow

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
167. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor?

A. PIN photodiode

B. Photovoltaic diode

C. Photodiode

D. Avalanche photodiode

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
168. Range of infrared

A. 360 nm to 440 nm

B. 670 nm to 10^3 nm

C. 110 nm to 240 nm

D. 770 nm to 10^6 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

169. The term dispersion describes the process of


A. separating light into its component frequencies

B. reflecting light from a smooth surface

C. the process by which light is absorbed by an uneven rough surface

D. light scattering

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
170. The band of light frequencies to which human eye will respond

A. Infrared

B. Visible light

C. Ultraviolet

D. Cosmic ray

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
171. Laser light is very bright because it is

A. pure

B. white

C. coherent

D. monochromatic

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
172. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor?

A. PIN photodiode

B. Photovoltaic diode
C. Photodiode

D. Avalanche photodiode

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
173. Range of wavelength of visible light

A. 670 nm to 10^3 nm

B. 440 nm to 540 nm

C. 110 nm to 240 nm

D. 390 nm to 770 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
174. The band of light frequencies that are too low to be seen by the human eye

A. Infrared

B. X-rays

C. Visible

D. Ultraviolet

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
175. Which of the following terms best describes the reason that light is refracted at different
angles?

A. Photon energy changes with wavelength

B. Light is refracted as a function of surface smoothness

C. The angle is determined partly by a and b

D. The angle is determined by the index of the materials


View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
176. Range of wavelengths of ultraviolet

A. 670 nm to 10^3 nm

B. 440 nm to 540 nm

C. 110 nm to 240 nm

D. 10 nm to 390 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
177. Single frequency light is called

A. pure

B. intense

C. coherent

D. monochromatic

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
178. The coating in a fiber helps protect fiber from moisture, which reduces the possibility of the
occurrence of a detrimental phenomenon called

A. static fatigue

B. mechanical fatigue

C. stress fatigue

D. coating fatigue

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
179. The term critical angle describes

A. the point at which light is refracted

B. the point at which light becomes invisible

C. the point at which light has gone from the refractive mode to the reflective mode

D. the point at which light has crossed the boundary layers from one index to another

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
180. The ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substance is called

A. speed factor

B. index of reflection

C. index of refraction

D. speed gain

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
181. The three essential types of fiber commonly used today except:

A. Plastic core and cladding

B. Plastic core and glass cladding

C. Glass core and glass cladding (SCS)

D. Glass core and plastic cladding (PCS)

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
182. What phenomenon will result if the glass fiber is exposed to long periods of high humidity?

A. stress fatigue
B. core corrosion

C. stress corrosion

D. cladding corrosion

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
183. The law that states “When visible light of high frequency electromagnetic radiation
illuminates a metallic surface, electrons are emitted” is known as ____________.

A. Einstein law of photon

B. Marconi’s law

C. Maxwell’s law

D. Plank’s law

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
184. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with

A. forward bias

B. reverse bias

C. neither forward nor reverse bias

D. either forward or reverse bias

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
185. Any energy above the ground state is called ___________.

A. normal state

B. above-ground state

C. excited state
D. spontaneous state

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
186. The process of decaying from one energy level to another energy level is called
__________.

A. Spontaneous emission

B. Excited emission

C. Absorption

D. Any of these

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
187. The process of moving from one energy level to another is called ____________.

A. Spontaneous emission

B. Excited emission

C. Absorption

D. Spontaneous decay

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
188. Most fiber optic light sources emit light in which spectrum?

A. visible

B. infrared

C. ultraviolet

D. X-ray

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

189. A packet of energy which is equal to the difference between the two energy levels.

A. Photons

B. Electronvolt

C. Quantum

D. Quanta

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
190. It is the science of measuring only light waves that are visible to the human eye.

A. Radiometry

B. Photometry

C. Ophthalmology

D. Optometry

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
191. The refractive index number is

A. a number which compares the transparency of a material with that of air

B. a number of assigned by the manufacturer to the fiber in question

C. a number which determines the core diameter

D. a term describing core elasticity

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
192. It is a science of measuring light throughout the entire electromagnetic spectrum
A. Radiometry

B. Photometry

C. Ophthalmology

D. Optometry

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
193. Which light emitter is preferred for high-speed data in a fiber-optic system?

A. incandescent

B. LED

C. neon

D. laser

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
194. Light intensity is generally described in terms of __________ and measured in _________.

A. Luminous flux density; Lumens per unit area

B. Luminous flux intensity; Lumens per unit area

C. Luminous flux density; Lumens per unit volume

D. Luminous flux intensity; Lumens per unit volume

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
195. In radiometric terms, it measures the rate at which electromagnetic waves transfer light
energy

A. Optical radiation

B. Optical impedance
C. Optical illusion

D. Optical power

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
196. It is described as the flow of light energy past a given point in a specified time

A. Optical radiation

B. Optical impedance

C. Optical illusion

D. Optical power

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
197. The term single mode and multimode are best described as

A. a number of fibers placed into fiber-optic cable

B. the number of voice channels each fiber can support

C. the number of wavelengths each fiber can support

D. the index number

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
198. Optical power is sometimes called __________.

A. Radiant emission

B. Radiant power

C. Radiant flux

D. Radiant optics
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
199. In refraction that occurs in air/glass interfaces, among the visible light, which is bent the
most?

A. red

B. violet

C. yellow

D. green

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
200. Fiber-optic cables with attenuation of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9 and 18 dB are linked together. The total
loss is

A. 7.5 dB

B. 19.8 dB

C. 29.1 dB

D. 650 dB

View Answer:
Answer: Option C

201. In refraction that occurs in air/glass interfaces, among the visible light,
which is the bent the least?

A. violet

B. blue

C. red

D. orange

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

202. Ratio of the velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space to the
velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space in a given material.

A. refractive index

B. standing wave ratio

C. velocity factor

D. propagation velocity

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

203. It is the angle at which the propagating ray strikes the interface with
respect to the normal.

A. refracted angle

B. incident angle

C. reflected angle

D. critical angle

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

204. It is the angle formed between the propagating ray and the normal
after the ray has entered the second medium.

A. angle of incidence

B. angle of reflection

C. propagation angle

D. angle of refraction

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

205. Between silicon and gallium arsenide, which has the greatest index of
refraction?

A. Gallium arsenide

B. Neither of silicon nor gallium arsenide

C. Silicon

D. They are equal

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

206. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15 dB/km. The attenuation in a cable


1000 ft. long is

A. 4.57 dB

B. 9.3 dB

C. 24 dB

D. 49.2 dB

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

207. Medium 1 is a glass (n1 = 1.5) and medium 2 is an ethyl alcohol (n2 =
1.36). For an angle of incidence of 30 degrees, determine the angle of
refraction.

A. 44.5 degrees

B. 14.56 degrees

C. 33.47 degrees

D. 75 degrees
View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

208. The minimum angle of incidence at which the light ray may strike the
interface of two media and result in an angle of refraction of 90 degrees or
greater.

A. optimum angle

B. angle of refraction

C. refracted angle

D. critical angle

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

209. The higher the index number

A. the higher the speed of light

B. the lower the speed of light

C. has no effect on the speed of light

D. the shorter the wavelength propagation

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

210. The maximum angle in which external light rays may strike the
air/glass interface and still propagate down the fiber.

A. Acceptance cone half-angle

B. Acceptance cone

C. Critical angle

D. Angle of incidence
View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

211. It is the figure of merit used to measure the magnitude of the


acceptance angle.

A. acceptance angle

B. numerical aperture

C. index profile

D. refractive index

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

212. The effect of a large magnitude of the numerical aperture

A. The amount of external light the fiber will accept is greater.

B. The amount of external light the fiber will accept is less.

C. The amount of modal dispersion will be less.

D. The amount of chromatic dispersion will be greater.

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

213. Only one path for light rays to take down the fiber

A. Multimode

B. Step-index

C. Single mode

D. Graded index

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

214. More than one path for light rays to take down the fiber

A. Multimode

B. Step-index

C. Single mode

D. Graded index

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

215. The three major groups of the optical system are

A. the components, the data rate and the response time

B. the source, the link and the receiver

C. the transmitter, the cable and the receiver

D. the source, the link and the detector

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

216. Infrared light has a wavelength that is

A. less than 400 nm

B. more than 700 nm

C. less than 700 nm

D. a little over 400 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
217. How many modes possible with a multimode step-index with a core
diameter of 50 um, a core refractive index of 1.6, a cladding refractive index
of 1.584, and a wavelength of 1300 nm.

A. 456

B. 213

C. 145

D. 372

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

218. It is a graphical representation of the magnitude of the refractive index


across the fiber.

A. mode

B. index profile

C. numerical aperture

D. refractive index

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

219. A type of index profile of an optical fiber that has a central core and
outside cladding with a uniform refractive index

A. multimode

B. graded index

C. step-index

D. single mode

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

220. A type of index of an optical fiber that has no cladding and whose
central core has a non-uniform refractive index.

A. graded index

B. multimode

C. single mode

D. step-index

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

221. Results in reduction in the power of light wave as it travels down the
cable.

A. power loss

B. absorption loss

C. resistive loss

D. heat loss

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

222. Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss?

A. reflection

B. absorption

C. scattering

D. dispersion

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
223. It is analogous to power dissipation to copper cables, impurities in the
fiber absorb the light and covert it to heat.

A. power loss

B. absorption loss

C. resistive loss

D. heat loss

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

224. It is caused by valence electrons in the silica material from which the
fiber are manufactured.

A. ion resonance absorption

B. infrared absorption

C. ultraviolet absorption

D. visible light absorption

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

225. It is a result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the
glass core molecule.

A. ion resonance absorption

B. infrared absorption

C. ultraviolet absorption

D. visible light absorption

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
226. It is caused by hydroxide ions in the material

A. visible light absorption

B. infrared absorption

C. ultraviolet absorption

D. ion resonance absorption

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

227. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?

A. single-mode step-index

B. multimode step-index

C. single-mode graded-index

D. multimode graded-index

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

228. For a single mode optical cable with 0.25 dB/km loss, determine the
optical power 100 km from a 0.1-mW light source.

A. -45 dBm

B. -15 dBm

C. -35 dBm

D. –25 dBm

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
229. Light rays that are emitted simultaneously from an LED and propagated
down an optical fiber do not arrive at the far end of the fiber at the same
time results to

A. intramodal dispersion

B. pulse length dispersion

C. modal dispersion

D. wavelength dispersion

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

230. Chromatic dispersion can be eliminated by __________.

A. using a monochromatic light source

B. using a very small numerical aperture fiber

C. using a graded-index fiber

D. using a very sensitive photo detector

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

231. Type of bend that occurs as a result of differences in thermal


contraction rates between the core and the cladding material.

A. Macrobending

B. Microbending

C. Quad bending

D. Constant-radius bending

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:
232. These bends are caused by excessive pressure and tension and
generally occur while fiber are bent during handling or installation.

A. microbending

B. macrobending

C. constant-radius bending

D. kinks

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

233. As light is coupled in a multiport deflective device, the power is reduced


by

A. 1.5 dB

B. 0.1 dB

C. 0.5 dB

D. 0.001 dB

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

234. It is caused by the difference in the propagation time of light rays that
take different paths down the fiber.

A. modal dispersion

B. microbending

C. Rayleigh scattering

D. chromatic dispersion

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:
235. How can modal dispersion reduced entirely?

A. Use a graded index fiber

B. Use a single-mode fiber

C. Use a monochromatic light source

D. Use a very sensitive light detector

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

236. It indicates what signal frequencies can be propagated through a given


distance of fiber cable.

A. Bandwidth Distance Product

B. Pulse width dispersion

C. Rise time

D. Cutoff frequency

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

237. For a 300-m optical fiber cable with a bandwidth distance product of
600 MHz-km, determine the bandwidth.

A. 5 GHz

B. 1 GHz

C. 2 GHz

D. 3 GHz

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
238. For an optical fiber 10 km long with a pulse spreading constant of 5
ns/km, determine the maximum digital transmission rates using Return to
Zero (RZ) and Non-return to Zero (NRZ).

A. 5 Mbps and 10 Mbps

B. 10 Mbps and 5 Mbps

C. 10 Mbps and 20 Mbps

D. 20 Mbps and 10 Mbps

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

239. What is the spectral width of a standard LED?

A. 20 to 40 nm

B. 30 to 50 nm

C. 10 to 30 nm

D. 40 to 60 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

240. What is the spectral width of an ILD?

A. 0.1 nm to 1 nm

B. 2 nm to 5 nm

C. 1 nm to 3 nm

D. 3 nm to 4 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:
241. When connector losses, splice losses and coupler losses are added,
what is the limiting factor?

A. source power

B. fiber attenuation

C. connector and splice loss

D. detector sensitivity

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

242. A pn-junction diode emits light by spontaneous emission

A. LED

B. APD

C. PIN

D. Zener diode

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

243. Which type of fiber optic cable is best for very high speed data?

A. single-mode step-index

B. multimode step-index

C. single-mode graded-index

D. multimode graded-index

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

244. A measure of conversion efficiency of a photodetector.


A. Efficiency

B. Responsivity

C. Dark current

D. Spectral response

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

245. The leakage current that flows through a photodiode with no light input

A. dark voltage

B. dark impedance

C. dark power

D. dark current

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

246. The time it takes a light induced carrier travel across the depletion
region of the semiconductor.

A. dispersion

B. response time

C. irradiance

D. transit time

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

247. The range of wavelength values that a given photodiode will respond.

A. spectral response
B. permeance

C. dark current

D. reluctance

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

248. The term responsivity as it applies to a light detector is best described


as

A. the time required for the signal to go from 10 to 90 percent of maximum


amplitude

B. the ratio of the diode output current to the input optical power

C. the ratio of the input power to output power

D. the ratio of output current to input current

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

249. The minimum optical power a light detector can receive and still
produce a usable electrical output signal.

A. light responsivity

B. light sensitivity

C. light collectivity

D. illumination

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

250. Type of lasers that uses a mixture of helium and neon enclosed in glass
tube.

A. gas lasers
B. solid lasers

C. semiconductor lasers

D. liquid lasers

View Answer:
Answer: Option A

251. Type of lasers that use organic dyes enclosed in glass tube for an active
medium.

A. liquid lasers

B. plasma lasers

C. neon lasers

D. ruby lasers

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

252. A popular light wavelength fiber-optic cable is

A. 0.7 micrometer

B. 1.3 micrometer

C. 1.5 micrometer

D. 1.8 micrometer

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

253. Type of lasers that use solid, cylindrical crystals such as ruby

A. solid lasers

B. ILD
C. gas lasers

D. liquid lasers

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

254. Type of lasers that are made from semiconductor ph-junctions


commonly called ILDs

A. semiconductor lasers

B. liquid lasers

C. plasma lasers

D. gas lasers

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

255. Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable?

A. computer networks

B. long-distance telephone system

C. closed-circuit TV

D. consumer TV

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

256. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface
at an angle with what relationship to the critical angle?

A. less than

B. greater than

C. equal to
D. zero

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

257. Loss comparisons between fusion splices an mechanical splices

A. 1:10

B. 10:1

C. 20:1

D. 1:20

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

258. The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of

A. refraction

B. reflection

C. dispersion

D. absorption

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

259. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable?

A. single-mode step-index

B. multimode graded-index

C. single-mode graded-index

D. multimode step-index

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

260. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of

A. loss per foot

B. dB/km

C. intensity per mile

D. voltage drop per inch

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

261. Which cable length has the highest attenuation?

A. 1 km

B. 2 km

C. 95 ft.

D. 500 ft.

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

262. The mechanical splice is best suited for

A. quicker installation under ideal condition

B. minimum attenuation losses

C. field service conditions

D. situations in which cost of equipment is not a factor

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:
263. The upper pulse rate and information-carrying capacity of a cable is
limited by

A. pulse shortening

B. attenuation

C. light leakage

D. modal dispersion

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

264. The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of

A. air

B. glass

C. diamond

D. quartz

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

265. The core of fiber-optic cable is surrounded by

A. wire braid shield

B. Keviar

C. cladding

D. plastic insulation

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

266. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is
A. less

B. more

C. the same

D. zero

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

267. Which of the following is not a major benefit of a fiber-optic cable?

A. immunity from interference

B. no electrical safety problems

C. excellent data security

D. lower cost

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

268. EMD is best described by which statement?

A. 70 percent of the core diameter and 70% of the fiber NA should be filled
with light.

B. 70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70% of the cone of acceptance


should be filled with light.

C. 70 percent of input light should be measured at the output.

D. 70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths should be attenuated by the


fiber.

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

269. The main benefit of light wave communications over microwaves or any
other communications media are
A. lower cost

B. better security

C. wider bandwidth

D. freedom from interface

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

270. Which of the following is not a part of the optical spectrum?

A. infrared

B. ultraviolet

C. visible color

D. x-rays

View Answer:
Answer: Option D
Solution:

271. The wavelength of a visible extends from

A. 0.8 to 1.6 um

B. 400 to 750 nm

C. 200 to 660 nm

D. 700 to 1200 nm

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

272. Single-mode step-index cable has a core diameter in the range of

A. 100 to 1000 micrometer

B. 50 to 100 micrometer
C. 2 to 15 micrometer

D. 5 to 20 micrometer

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

273. Refraction is the

A. bending of light

B. reflection of light waves

C. distortion of light waves

D. diffusion of light waves

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

274. Which of the following cables will have the highest launch power
capability?

A. 50/125/0.2

B. 85/125/0.275

C. 62.5/125/0.275

D. 100/140/0.3

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
Solution:

275. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the most widely used?

A. single-mode step-index

B. multimode step-index

C. single-mode graded index


D. multimode graded index

View Answer:
Answer: Option B
Solution:

276. The term power budgeting refers to

A. the cost of cable, connectors, equipment and installation

B. the loss of power due to defective components

C. the total power available minus the attenuation losses

D. the comparative costs of fiber and copper installations

View Answer:
Answer: Option C
Solution:

277. It refers to the abrupt of change in refractive index from core to clad

A. step index

B. graded index

C. semi-graded index

D. half step index

View Answer:
Answer: Option A
1) If a noisy channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz with signal to noise ratio of
about 1, what would be the maximum capacity of the channel?

a. 2 Mb/sec
b. 4 Mb/sec
c. 6 Mb/sec
d. 8 Mb/sec
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 4 Mb/sec

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

2) In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive index of core is always
_______the refractive index of cladding.

a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Greater than

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

3) The order of mode is equal to the number of field____ across the guide.

a. Zeros
b. Poles
c. Ones
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Zeros

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

4) Which among the following represents the lateral shift of a light beam on
reflection at a dielectric interface?

a. Doppler's Shift
b. Goos-Haenchen's Shift
c. Frequency Shift
d. Phase Shift
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Goos-Haenchen's Shift

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

5) Why are plastic clad silica fiber optic cables not used widely?

a. Difficulty in connector application due to excessive plasticity in cladding


b. Difficulty in bonding
c. Insolubility in organic solvents
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

6) In cables, water is prevented from filling the spaces with __________resistant


compounds.

a. moisture
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. stress
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: moisture

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

7) Which reason/s is/are responsible for the occurrence of non-linear Cross Phase
Modulation (XPM)?

a. Difference in transmission phase of peak pulse & leading or trailing edges of


pulse
b. Third-order optical non-linearity
c. Intensity dependence of refractive index
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Intensity dependence of refractive index

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

8) What is/ are the consequence/s of Self Phase Modulation in non-linear optics?

a. Modification in pulse spectrum


b. Limited transmission rate
c. Dispersion effect
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

9) Which type of fiber-optic coupler causes the distribution of an optical power


from more than two input ports among the several output ports?

a. Star Coupler
b. Tree Coupler
c. X Coupler
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Star Coupler

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

10) Which optical devices are adopted or applicable for routing signals from one
waveguide to another?
a. Optical Combiner
b. Optical Splitter
c. Optical Coupler
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Optical Coupler

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

11) Which among the following characteristics of Laser light specifies the
precise movement of all individual light waves together through time and space?

a. Monochromatic
b. Directional
c. Coherent
d. Brightness
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Coherent

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

12) Which modes are acknowledged due to their association with electromagnetic
field and beam profile in the direction perpendicular to the plane of pn junction?

a. Longitudinal Modes
b. Transverse Modes
c. Lateral Modes
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Transverse Modes

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

13) Which type of injection laser involves the use of geometry for fabrication of
the multimode injection laser with a single or small number of lateral modes?

a. Gain guided laser


b. Index guided laser
c. Quantum well laser
d. Quantum dot laser
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Gain guided laser

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

14) In the dynamic response of Injection Laser Diode (ILD), the delay which is
followed by ____ frequency damped oscillations give rise to the generation of
relaxation oscillations.

a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: High
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

15) The spectral response of an ideal photodetector depicts its efficiency as a


function of _________

a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. period
d. wavelength
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: wavelength

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

16) According to frequency response of photo-detector, the modulation frequency


at which the output current decreases to ________of peak value.

a. one-third
b. one-fourth
c. half
d. one-tenth
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: half

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

17) Which photodiodes are crucially applicable to overcome the bandwidth-quantum


efficiency trade-off along with its resemblence to the pyramid structure?

a. Mushroom Waveguide Photodiode


b. Traveling Wave Photodiode
c. Resonant Cavity Photodiode
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Mushroom Waveguide Photodiode

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

18) When an optical signal is incident on a photo-detector, which noise


originate/s due to statistical nature of production and collection of
photoelectrons?

a. Dark Current Noise


b. Quantum Noise
c. Surface Leakage Current noise
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Quantum Noise

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

19) In an eye-diagram, digital signals with very bad interference resembles the
shape of _____
a. circle
b. rectangle
c. triangle
d. straight line
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: straight line

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

20) On which factor/s do/does the response time of photodiode depend/s?

a. Diffusion time of photo carriers outside the depletion region


b. Diffusion time of photo carriers within the depletion region
c. RC time constant
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

21) Which nature of charge carriers give rise to the current fluctuations thereby
resulting into the generation of shot noise?

a. Continuous
b. Discrete
c. Sampled
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Discrete

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

22) Which among the following parameters is/are decided by the front-end of a
receiver?

a. Sensitivity
b. Bandwidth
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Both a and b

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

23) In an optical network, increase in the number of lasers ________the bit rate.

a. Increases
b. Stabilizes
c. Decreases
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
24) Which band/s specify/ies the operation range of Erbium doped fiber amplifier
(EDFA)?
a. By O band
b. By C band
c. By S band
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: By C band

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

25) Basically, solitons are pulses which propagates through the fiber without
showing any variation in ______

a. Amplitude
b. Velocity
c. Shape
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

26) Why is an electrical isolation required between several portions of an


electronic circuit?

a. Provision of high voltage protection


b. Reduction in noise level
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Both a & b

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

27) For measuring the shape of input pulse in time-domain intermodal dispersion
method, the test fiber is replaced by another fiber whose length is less than ___
of the test fiber.

a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 20%
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 1%

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

28) In chromatic dispersion, which parameter for the modulation of the received
signal is measured with the help of a vector voltmeter?

a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Period
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Phase
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

29) Which among the following stages is/are adopted in Splice Loss Experiment?

a. Translational
b. Rotational
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Both a and b

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

30) Which among the following misalignments give/gives rise to the occurrence of
splice loss?

a. Longitudinal separation between the end-faces of fiber


b. Angular tilt between fiber ends
c. Transverse offset between fiber ends
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

1) In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a


typical transmitter function?

a. Coding for error protection


b. Decoding of input data
c. Electrical to optical conversion
d. Recoding to match output standard
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Recoding to match output standard

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

2) Which among the following is provided by an optical receiver for the


regeneration of data signal with minimum error?

a. Photo-diode
b. Signal Processing Circuits
c. Linear Circuitry
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Linear Circuitry

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

3) For a sine wave, the frequency is represented by the cycles per ______

a. Second
b. Minute
c. Hour
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Second

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

4) Which property/ies of PCM stream determine/s the fidelity to original analog


signal?

a. Sampling rate
b. Bit depth
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Both a and b

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

5) In single-mode fibers, how does the fraction of energy traveling through bound
mode appear in the cladding?

a. As a crescent wave
b. As a gibbous wave
c. As an evanescent wave
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: As an evanescent wave

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

6) What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?

a. 1
b. 1.36
c. 2.6
d. 3.4
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 1.36

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

7) If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically


denser medium with high refractive index, then it is regarded as _______

a. External Reflection
b. Internal Reflection
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: External Reflection

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

8) In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in


describing the ability of __________
a. Light Collection
b. Light Scattering
c. Light Dispersion
d. Light Polarization
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Light Collection

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

9) Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation process?

a. OVPO
b. MCVD
c. PCVD
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: PCVD

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

10) Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their similarity to the
periodic crystalline lattice in a semiconductor?

a. Index guiding fiber


b. Photonic bandgap fiber
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Photonic bandgap fiber

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

11) Which type of fiber optic cable has/have its/their core with the size of
about 480 μm to 980 μm & made up of polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)?

a. Glass fiber optic cable


b. Plastic fiber optic cable
c. Plastic clad silica fiber optic cable
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Plastic fiber optic cable

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

12) In multifiber cable system, which form of outer jacket/s consist/s of


polyolefin compounds and are regarded as halogen free?

a. OFNR
b. OFNP
c. LSZH
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: LSZH
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

13) During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are
responsible for an extrinsic absorption?

a. Atomic defects in the composition of glass


b. Impurity atoms in glass material
c. Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Impurity atoms in glass material

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

14) Which among the following represent/s the measure/s to minimize the
inhomogenities for Mie scattering reduction?

a. Extrusion Control
b. Increase in relative R.I. difference
c. Removal of imperfections due to glass manufacturing process
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

15) In Kerr effect, induced index change has its proportionality with respect to
_________

a. square of electric field


b. cube of electric field
c. cube root of electric field
d. one-fourth power of electric field
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: square of electric field

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

16) Which among the following is regarded as an inelastic scattering of a photon?

a. Kerr Effect
b. Raman Effect
c. Hall Effect
d. Miller Effect
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Raman Effect

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

17) Which kind/s of misalignment assist/s in the reduction of overlap region in


fiber?

a. Angular
b. Longitudinal
c. Lateral
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Lateral

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

18) Which is the correct order of sequential steps for an electric arc fusion
technique?

A. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion


B. Application of heat for smoothening of end-surfaces
C. Alignment of broken fiber edges

a. A, B, C
b. B, A, C
c. C, B, A
d. C, A, B
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: C, B, A

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

19) Which splicing technique involves the alignment and locking of broken fiber
edges by means of positioning devices & optical cement?

a. Fusion
b. Mechanical
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Mechanical

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

20) By using Springroove splicing technique, what is the value of mean insertion
loss for multi mode graded index fiber?

a. 0.01
b. 0.03
c. 0.05
d. 0.09
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 0.05

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

21) In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and from
fiber to detector must take place with _________coupling efficiency.

a. maximum
b. stable
c. minimum
d. unpredictable
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: maximum

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

22) In spontaneous emission, the light source in an excited state undergoes the
transition to a state with _______

a. Higher energy
b. Moderate energy
c. Lower energy
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Lower energy

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

23) Which among the following is a key process adopted for the laser beam
formation as it undergoes the light amplification?

a. Spontaneous Emission
b. Stimulated Emission
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Stimulated Emission

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

24) While coupling of LEDs with fiber, on which factor/s does the size of source
and lighting angle generated within the semiconductor depend/s?

a. Geometry of die
b. Refractive index of semiconductor
c. Encapsulation Medium
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

25) Which among the following results in the removal of LED lens interface for
achieving high coupling efficiency?

a. Spherical lens
b. Cylindrical lens
c. Integral lens LED
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Integral lens LED

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

26) For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 A/W & optical power of about
12μW, what would be the value of generated photocurrent?
a. 3 μA
b. 6 μA
c. 9 μA
d. 12 μA
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 6 μA

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

27) Which component of an optical receiver is a linear frequency shaping filter


used for the compensation of signal distortion and Inter Symbol Interference (ISI)?

a. Photodetector
b. Amplifier
c. Equalizer
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Equalizer

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

28) In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled analog
signals after their quantization into discrete levels?

a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. ASCII
d. Excess-3
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Binary

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

29) Which feature of an eye-diagram assists in the measurement of additive noise


in the signal?

a. Eye opening (height, peak to peak)


b. Eye overshoot/ undershoot
c. Eye width
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Eye opening (height, peak to peak)

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

30) Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?

a. Link power budget


b. Rise time budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Rise time budget
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

31) Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width broadening under the direct
modulation of injection current?

a. Modal Noise
b. Mode-partition Noise
c. Frequency Chirping
d. Reflection Noise
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Frequency Chirping

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

32) Speckle pattern is generated due to interference of nodes from a coherent


source especially when the coherence time of source is _________ the intermodal
dispersion time in the fiber.

a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Greater than

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

33) Which among the following is/are determined by the fiber characterization?

a. Fiber integrity & performance for desired transmission rate


b. Installation practices
c. Service Implementation
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

34) From the tests carried out in fiber characterization, which among the
following measures the total light reflected back to the transmitter caused by the
fiber as well as the components like connector pairs and mechanical splices?

a. ORL
b. OTDR
c. LTS
d. PMD
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: ORL

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

35) In fiber fault location, the equation of length (l) for time difference (t)
is expressed as L = ct / 2n1 . Which factor in this equation implies that the light
travels a length from source to break point and then through another length on the
return trip?

a. L
b. c
c. t
d. 2
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 2

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

) Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero between each
pulse & takes place even due to occurrence of consecutive 0's & 1's in the signal?

a. Return-to-zero (RZ)
b. Non-Return to zero space
c. Return to zero inverted
d. Non-return to zero inverted
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Return-to-zero (RZ)

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

2) In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to total
internal ______

a. reflection
b. refraction
c. diffraction
d. dispersion
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: reflection

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

3) In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional strength and


prevents the fiber from any damage?

a. Core
b. Cladding
c. Buffer Coating
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Buffer Coating

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

4) Which is the transmission medium for VLF electromagnetic waves especially


applicable for aeronautical and submarine cables?

a. Paired wires
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Wireless
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Paired wires

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

5) Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the
fiber?

a. Meridional
b. Skew
c. Leaky
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Skew

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

6) If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of about 10 μm, n1 = 1.30, Δ =


0.80% , V = 3.5, then how many modes will it have?

a. 6.125
b. 9.655
c. 12.95
d. 16.55
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 6.125

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

7) Which kind of dispersion phenomenon gives rise to pulse spreading in single


mode fibers?

a. Intramodal
b. Intermodal
c. Material
d. Group Velocity
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Intramodal

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

8) With respect to single mode and graded index fibers, which parameter specifies
the propagation of polarization modes with different phase velocities & the
difference between their effective refractive indices?

a. Mode field diameter


b. Birefringence
c. Fiber beat length
d. Spot Size
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Birefringence

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

9) On which of the following factor/s do/does the 'Hydrogen Effect' depend/s?


a. Type of fiber & Cable Design
b. Operating Wavelength
c. Installation Method
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

10) Consider the statements given below. Which among them is not a drawback of
double crucible method?

a. Utility in mass production of fibers


b. High attenuation
c. High OH content in drawn fiber
d. Addition of impurity while the fiber is drawn
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Utility in mass production of fibers

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

11) Consider the assertions given below. Which is the correct sequential order of
process adopted in glass fiber preparation?

A. Drawing of fiber
B. Production of pure glass
C. Pulling of fiber
D. Conversion of pure glass into preform

a. B, D, A, C
b. A, B, C, D
c. C, A, D, B
d. D, B, A, C
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: B, D, A, C

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

12) At which level of temperature does the oxidation process occur in MCVD?

a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. Unpredictable
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: High

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

13) Assuming no ISI, the maximum possible bandwidth of a multimode graded index
fiber with 5 MHz, shows the total pulse broadening of 0.1s for the distance of
about 12km. What would be the value of bandwidth length product?

a. 40 MHz
b. 60 MHz
c. 90 MHz
d. 120 MHz
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 60 MHz

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

14) In Rayleigh scattering of light in glass, at which type of temperature does


the glass attain the state of thermal equilibrium and exhibits its relativity to
annealing temperature?

a. Junction
b. Fictive
c. Breakdown
d. Decomposition
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Fictive

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

15) Which type of scattering occurs due to interaction of light in a medium with
time dependent optical density variations thereby resulting into the change of
energy (frequency) & path?

a. Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)


b. Stimulated Raman Scattering (SRS)
c. Mie Scattering
d. Rayleigh Scattering
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

16) The macroscopic bending losses show an exponential increase due to ________
in radius of curvature.

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stability
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Decrease

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

17) Which type of mechanical splicing exhibits the permanent bonding of prepared
fiber ends with the rigid alignment of the tube?

a. Snug Tube Splicing


b. Loose Tube Splicing
c. Elastomeric Splicing
d. Precision Pin Splicing
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Snug Tube Splicing
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

18) Which component of fiber-optic connector has a provision of entry for the
fiber along with the fixation to connector housing?

a. Ferrule
b. Cable
c. Connector Housing
d. Coupling Device
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Cable

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

19) Which among the following is regarded as a keyed bayonet connector along with
its feasibility of easiest insertion and removal from the fiber optic cable?

a. FC Connectors
b. LC Connectors
c. MT-RJ Connectors
d. ST Connectors
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: ST Connectors

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

20) How many mating cycles are being rated by typically matched SC Connectors?

a. 500
b. 600
c. 800
d. 1000
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 1000

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

21) In Stimulated Emission, which among the following parameters of generated


photon is/are similar to the photon of incident wave?

a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Polarization & direction of travel
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

22) Consider a crystal of ruby laser whose length is 6 cm and the refractive
index is 1.8, emits the wavelength of about 0.55 μm. What will be the value of
number of longitudinal modes?
a. 3.9 x 105
b. 4.9 x 105
c. 5.6 x 105
d. 7.7 x 105
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 3.9 x 105

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

23) In a laser structure, the existence of standing waves is possible at


frequencies for which the distance between the mirrors is an integral number of
________

a. λ / 2
b. λ / 4
c. λ / 6
d. λ / 8
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: λ / 2

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

24) The small section of fiber which is coupled to the optical source is known as
_________

a. Flylead
b. Pigtail
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Both a and b

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

25) In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is ______ bright from all
directions.

a. Less
b. Equally
c. More
d. Unpredictably
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Equally

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

26) In pyroelectric photodetectors, the consequent increase in dielectric


constant due to temperature variation by the photon absorption, is generally
measured as change in _______

a. resistance
b. inductance
c. admittance
d. capacitance
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: capacitance

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

27) Which type of preamplifier plays a crucial role in reducing the effect of
thermal noise?

a. Low Impedance Pre-amplifier


b. High Impedance Preamplifier
c. Transimpedance Preamplifier
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: High Impedance Preamplifier

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

28) In high impedance preamplifier, how are the noise sources kept to minimum
level?

a. By reducing dark current with proper selection of photodiode


b. By reducing thermal noise of biasing resistor
c. By using high impedance amplifier
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

29) Which among the following are the disadvantages of an optical feedback
transimpedance receiver?

A. Increase in receiver input capacitance


B. Increase in dark current
C. Decrease in receiver input capacitance
D. Decrease in dark current

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: A & B

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

30) Which category/ies of wavelength division multiplexer comprise/s two 3dB


couplers where the splitting of an incident beam takes place into two fiber paths,
followed by the recombination with second 3-dB coupler?

a. Interference filter based devices


b. Angular dispersion based devices
c. Mach-Zehnder Interferometers
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Mach-Zehnder Interferometers
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

31) Which among the following controls the length of Fabry-Perot interferometer
so that it can act as a tunable optical filter?

a. Transducer
b. Tachometer
c. Multimeter
d. Phase-meter
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Transducer

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

32) In circulator, an optical path of signal follows _______

a. An open loop
b. A closed loop
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: A closed loop

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

33) Which among the following is/are responsible for generating attenuation of an
optical power in fiber?

a. Absorption
b. Scattering
c. Waveguide effect
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

34) Consider the assertions/ characteristics given below. Which type of


attenuation measurement technique exhibits these characteristics?

1. Necessity of accessing both ends of fiber.


2. Measurements corresponding to specific wavelengths.
3. Requirement of spectral response over a range of wavelengths.

a. Cutback Technique
b. Insertion Loss Technique
c. Use of OTDR Technique
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Cutback Technique

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
35) For neglecting the pulse dispersion in the digital systems, the rms width of
fiber impulse response must be _________one-quarter of the pulse spacing.

a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: Less than

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
Sinhgad Technical Education Society’s
SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
(Af f iliated to Sav itribai Phule Pune Univ ersity , Pune and Approv ed by , AICTE, New Delhi.)
Gat No. 309/310 , Kusgaon (Bk), of f Mumbai –Pune, Expressway .
Lonav ala, Pune, 410401, Website : www.sinhgad.edu
Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering

SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY, LONAVALA


BE (E&TC) BCS (404190) Credits: 04
UNIT-I: Light wave System Components
Subject Teachers: Prof.P.R.Dike, Prof.Mayur Raut
ONE MARK MCQ

1.Multimode step index fiber has


a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture

Answer: a
Explanation: Multimode step-index fiber has large core diameter and large numerical aperture. These
parameters provides efficient coupling to inherent light sources such as LED’s.

2. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber shows as variation of attenuation in range of
a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1at wavelength 0.69μm
b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1at wavelength 0.59μm
c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1at wavelength 0.85μm
d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1at wavelength 0.90μm

Answer: c
Explanation: A multimode step index fibers show an attenuation variation in range of 2.6 to 50dBkm-1. The
wide variation in attenuation is due to the large differences both within and between the two overall
preparation methods i.e. melting and deposition.

3.A multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range
a) 100 to 300 μm
b) 100 to 300 nm
c) 200 to 500 μm
d) 200 to 500 nm

Answer: a
Explanation: A multimode step index fiber has a core diameter range of 100 to 300μm. This is to facilitate
efficient coupling to inherent light sources.

4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of


a) 2 to 30 MHz km
b) 6 to 50 MHz km
c) 10 to 40 MHz km
d) 8 to 40 MHz km

Dept Tel.:+91 2114-673 401, Office :673355 ,673356, email:hodentc.sit@sinhgad.edu, Web Site: www.sinhgad.edu
Sinhgad Technical Education Society’s
SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
(Af f iliated to Sav itribai Phule Pune Univ ersity , Pune and Approv ed by , AICTE, New Delhi.)
Gat No. 309/310 , Kusgaon (Bk), of f Mumbai –Pune, Expressway .
Lonav ala, Pune, 410401, Website : www.sinhgad.edu
Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering

Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of 6 to 50 MHz km. These fibers with this
bandwidth are best suited for short -haul, limited bandwidth and relatively low-cost application.

5. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with


a) Lower purity
b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.
c) No impurity
d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have higher purity than multimode step index fiber. To reduce
fiber losses, these fibers have more impurity.

6.The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are


a) Better than multimode step index fibers.
b) Same as multimode step index fibers.
c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers
d) Negligible
Answer: a
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers use a constant grading factor. Performance characteristics of
multimode graded index fibers are better than those of multimode step index fibers due to index graded and
lower attenuation.

7.Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode step index fibers but have
core diameters
a) Larger than multimode step index fibers.
b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers.
c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers.
d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers.
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have smaller core diameter than multimode step index fibers. A
small core diameter helps the fiber gain greater rigidity to resist bending.

8.Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical aperture of 0.29 have
core/cladding diameter of
a) 62.5 μm/125 μm
b) 100μm/140 μm
c) 85 μm/ 125 μm
d) 50 μm/ 125μm
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers with numerical aperture 0.29 having a core / cladding diameter
of 100μm/ 140μm. They provide high coupling frequency LED’s at a wavelength of 0.85 μm and have low
cost. They are also used for short distance application.

Dept Tel.:+91 2114-673 401, Office :673355 ,673356, email:hodentc.sit@sinhgad.edu, Web Site: www.sinhgad.edu
Sinhgad Technical Education Society’s
SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
(Af f iliated to Sav itribai Phule Pune Univ ersity , Pune and Approv ed by , AICTE, New Delhi.)
Gat No. 309/310 , Kusgaon (Bk), of f Mumbai –Pune, Expressway .
Lonav ala, Pune, 410401, Website : www.sinhgad.edu
Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering

9.Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only. State whether the following statement is true or
false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers are used for short haul and medium to high bandwidth
applications. Small haul applications require LEDs and low accuracy lasers. Thus either incoherent or
incoherent sources like LED’s or injection laser diode are used.

10. In single mode fibers, the most beneficial index profile is


a) Step index
b) Graded index
c) Step and graded index
d) Coaxial cable
Answer: b
Explanation: In single mode fibers, graded index profile is more beneficial as compared to step index. This
is because graded index profile provides dispersion-modified-single mode fibers.

11.The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
a) Single mode fibers
b) Multimode step fibers
c) Coaxial cables
d) Multimode graded index fibers
Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode fibers are used to produce polarization maintaining fibers which make them
expensive. Also the alternative to them are multimode fibers which are complex but accurate. So, single-
mode fibers are not generally utilized in optical fiber communication.

12. Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be at least
a) Twice the core diameter
b) Thrice the core diameter
c) Five times the core diameter
d) Ten times the core diameter

Answer: d
Explanation: The cladding diameter in single mode fiber must be ten times the core diameter. Larger ratios
contribute to accurate propagation of light. These dimension ratios must be there so as to avoid losses from
the vanishing fields.

13. A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is


a) Coaxial cables
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Standard multimode fibers
d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers

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Answer: b
Explanation: A standard single mode fiber having step index profile is known as non-dispersion shifted
fiber. As these fibers have a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.31μm and so are preferred for single -
wavelength transmission in O-band.

14. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for operation in
a) C-band
b) L-band
c) O-band
d) C-band and L-band
Answer: c

Explanation: SSMFs are utilized for operation in O-band only. It shows high dispersion in range of 16 to
20ps/nm/km in C-band and L-band. So SSMFs are used in O-band.

15. Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength transmission in O-band is


a) Low-water-peak non dispersion-shifted fibers
b) Standard single mode fibers
c) Low minimized fibers
d) Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fibers
Answer: b
Explanation: Standard single mode fibers with a step index profile is called non dispersion shifted fiber and
it is particularly used for single wavelength transmission in O-band and as if has a zero-dispersion
wavelength at 1.31μm.

16. Each stage of information transfer is required to follow the fundamentals of ____________
a) Optical interconnection
b) Optical hibernation
c) Optical networking
d) Optical regeneration

Answer: c
Explanation: Optical networking uses optical fiber as a transmission medium. It provides a connection
between users to enable them to communicate with each other by transporting information from a source to a
destination.

17. ___________ is a multi-functional element of optical network.


a) Hop
b) Optical node
c) Wavelength
d) Optical attenuation

Answer: b
Explanation: An optical node is a multi-functional element which acts as a transceiver unit capable of

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receiving, transmitting and processing the optical signal. The optical nodes are interconnected with optical
fiber links.

18. The system designer finds greatest interest in the ______________


a) Overall fiber attenuation
b) Fiber dispersion
c) Latitude of the fiber
d) Durability

Answer: a
Explanation: Fiber attenuation results from various aspects such as signal degradation and physical factors
such as the environment. The system designer has to look upon the overall fiber attenuation while the
relative magnitude is important for the development team.

19. How many parameters are usually worked upon by the measurement techniques in attenuation?
a) Three
b) Two
c) One
d) Five

Answer: b
Explanation: The measurement techniques used to obtain fiber attenuation usually gives two parameters.
One is spectral loss characteristic and the other is the spot measurement. The spot measurement is usually
referred to as the loss at a single wavelength.

20. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of ___________


a) 2 to 30 MHz km
b) 6 to 50 MHz km
c) 10 to 40 MHz km
d) 8 to 40 MHz km

Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of 6 to 50 MHz km. These fibers with this
bandwidth are best suited for short -haul, limited bandwidth and relatively low-cost application.

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TWO MARK MCQ

21. Which law gives the relationship between refractive index of the dielectric?
a) Law of reflection
b) Law of refraction (Snell’s Law).
c) Millman’s Law
d) Huygen’s Law
Answer: b
Explanation: Snell’s Law of refraction states that the angle of incidence Ø1 and refraction Ø2 are related to
each other and to refractive index of the dielectrics.
It is given by- n1sinØ1 = n2sinØ2
where n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of two mediums. Ø1 and Ø2 are angles of incidence and
refraction.

22.The light sources used in fibre optics communication are :


a) LED’s and Lasers
b) Phototransistors
c) Xenon lights
d) Incandescent
Answer: a
Explanation: LED’s and Lasers are the light sources used in optical communication. During the working
process of optical signals they are both supposed to be switched on and of rapidly and accurately enough to
transmit the signal. Also they transmit light further with fewer errors.

23. The ________ ray passes through the axis of the fiber core.
a) Reflected
b) Refracted
c) Meridional
d) Shew
Answer: c
Explanation: When a light ray is passed through a perfect optical fiber, any discontinuities at the core
cladding interface would result in refraction rather than total internal reflection. Such light ray passes
through the axis of fiber core and is called as meridional ray. This principle is used while stating the
fundamental transmission properties of optical fiber.

24. Light incident on fibers of angles________the acceptance angle do not propagate into the fiber
a) Less than
b) Greater than
c) Equal to
d) Less than and equal to
Answer: b
Explanation: Acceptance angle is the maximum angle at which light may enter into the fiber in order to be

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propagated. Hence the light incident on the fiber is less than the acceptance angle, the light will propagate in
the fiber and will be lost by radiation.

25. What is the numerical aperture of the fiber if the angle of acceptance is 16 degree
a) 0.50
b) 0.36
c) 0.20
d) 0.27
Answer: d
Explanation: The numerical aperture of a fiber is related to the angle of acceptance as follows:
NA = sin Ѳa
Where NA = numerical aperture
Ѳ= acceptance angle.

26. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another medium is called as_________
a) Speed factor
b) Dielectric constant
c) Reflection index
d) Refraction index
Answer: d
Explanation: When a ray travels from one medium to another, the ray incident from a light source is called
as incident ray. In passing through, the speed varies. The ratio of the speed of incident and the refracted ray
in different medium is called refractive index.

27. When a ray of light enters one medium from another medium, which quality will not change
a) Direction
b) Frequency
c) Speed
d) Wavelength
Answer: b
Explanation: The electric and the magnetic field have to remain continuous at the refractive index boundary.
If the frequency is changed, the light at the boundary would change its phase and the fields won’t match. In
order to match the field, frequency won’t change.

28. _________________ in the laser occurs when photon colliding with an excited atom causes the
stimulated emission of a second photon.
a) Light amplification
b) Attenuation
c) Dispersion
d) Population inversion
Answer: a
Explanation: Laser emits coherent radiation of one or more discrete wavelength. Lasers produce coherent

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light through a process called stimulated emission. Light amplification is obtained through stimulated
emission. Continuation of this process creates avalanche multiplication.

29. A device which converts electrical energy in the form of a current into optical energy is called as
a) Optical source
b) Optical coupler
c) Optical isolator
d) Circulator

Answer: a
Explanation: An Optical source is an active component in an optical fiber communication system. It converts
electrical energy into optical energy and allows the light output to be efficiently coupled into the Optical
fiber.

30. Which process gives the laser its special properties as an optical source?
a) Dispersion
b) Stimulated absorption
c) Spontaneous emission
d) Stimulated emission

Answer: d
Explanation: In Stimulated emission, the photon produced is of the same energy to the one which cause it.
Hence, the light associated with stimulated photon is in phase and has same polarization. Therefore, in
contrast to spontaneous emission, coherent radiation is obtained. The coherent radiation phenomenon in
laser provides amplification thereby making laser a better optical source than LED.

31. The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper level under the conditions of
________________
a) Isothermal packaging
b) Population inversion
c) Thermal equilibrium
d) Pumping
Answer: c
Explanation: Under the conditions of thermal equilibrium, the lower energy level contains more atoms than
the upper level. To achieve optical amplification, it is required to create a non-equilibrium distribution such
that the population of upper energy level is more than the lower energy level. This process of excitation of
atoms into the upper level is achieved by using an external energy source and is called as pumping.

32. The spectral width of emission from the single mode device is
a) Smaller than broadened transition line-width
b) Larger than broadened transition line-width
c) Equal the broadened transition line-width
d) Cannot be determined

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Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode device has a smaller spectral width as compared to that of broadening transition
line-width. This is because for a single-mode operation, the laser optical output must have only a single
longitudinal and single transverse mode.

33. The width of depletion region is dependent on ___________ of semiconductor.


a) Doping concentrations for applied reverse bias
b) Doping concentrations for applied forward bias
c) Properties of material
d) Amount of current provided

Answer: a
Explanation: The depletion region is formed by immobile positively and immobile negatively charged donor
and acceptor atoms in n- and p-type respectively. When carriers are swept towards majority side under
electric field, lower the doping, wider the depletion region.

34. Electron-hole pairs are generated in


a) Depletion region
b) Diffusion region
c) Depletion region
d) P-type region
Answer: c
Explanation: Photons are absorbed in both depletion and diffusion regions. The position and width of
absorption region depends on incident photons energy. The absorption region may extend throughout device
in weakly absorption of photons. Thus carriers are generated in both regions.

35. The process of excitation of an electron from valence band to conduction band leaves an empty hole in
the valence band and is called as
a) Detection
b) Absorption
c) Degeneration of an electron-hole pair
d) Regeneration of an electron-hole pair
Answer: d
Explanation: A photon is incident in the depletion region of a device has an energy greater than or equal to
the band gap energy of the fabricating material. This will cause excitation of an electron from valence to the
conduction band. This creates an empty hole in valence band which is referred to as photo-generation of an
electron-hole pair.

36. The ___________ process takes place in both extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors.
a) Avalanche multiplication
b) External photoemission
c) Internal photoemission
d) Dispersion

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Answer: c
Explanation: During intrinsic absorption, the received photons excite electrons from the valence band and
towards the conduction band in the semiconductor. Extrinsic absorption involves impurity centers created
with the material. Generally, intrinsic absorption is preferred for internal photoemission.

37. Which of the following detector is fabricated from semiconductor alloys?


a) Photoconductive detector
b) p-i-n detector
c) Photodiodes
d) Photoemission detectors

Answer: a
Explanation: The detectors fabricated from semiconductor alloys can be used for longer wavelengths.
Photoconductive detector and hetero-junction transistor have found favor as a potential detector over a
wavelength range of 1.1 to 1.6μm.

38. Coherent optical transmission is degraded by the ________ associated with the transmitter and local
oscillator lasers.
a) Phase noise
b) White noise
c) Dissipation
d) Power

Answer: a
Explanation: Phase noise is determined by the laser line width. The phase noise associated with both the
transmitter and the mid-tier section severely degrades the coherent optical transmission as well as reception.

39. ____________ is the principal cause of line width broadening in the coherent devices.
a) Electromagnetic field
b) Power dissipation
c) Injection laser phase noise
d) Gaussian noise

Answer: c
Explanation: Injection laser phase noise affects the system performance. The system performance
considerations include receiver noise, power loss and line width broadening.

40. Which technique was started for narrowing of injection laser line widths?
a) External resonator cavity
b) Long-hauled oscillator
c) Circulator
d) Gyrator Answer: a
Explanation: Many approaches evolved in time for laser line width problem. The one which sustained and
showed effects was the use of external resonator cavity in the lasers

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THREE MARK MCQ

41. The electron hole pairs generated in a photodiode are separated by the ____________
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Static field
d) Depletion region
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric field separates the electron-hole pairs in a photodiode. The electric field distribution is
determined by an internal and an external field component. A reverse bias voltage is usually applied to the p-
n photodiode.

42. The fraction of incident photons generated by photodiode of electrons generated collected at detector is
known as
a) Quantum efficiency
b) Absorption coefficient
c) Responsively
d) Anger recombination
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a particular device is obtained by ratio of input given to that of output obtained.
Thus, similarly, in photodiode, input i.e. incident photon and output generated electrons and their ratio is
quantum efficiency.

43. What is the unit of measurement of the optical attenuation per unit length?
a) dB-km
b) dB/km
c) km/dB
d) V
Answer: b
Explanation: The optical fiber attenuation per unit length is measured by unit dB/km. dB refers to the
electrical parameter used to calculate the attenuation in the form of losses and spot measurements.

44. _______________ measurements checks the impurity level in the manufacturing process.
a) Material reflectometry
b) Material absorption loss
c) Material attenuation loss
d) Calorimetric loss
Answer: b
Explanation: The material absorption loss measurements check the absorption losses. It checks the impurity
level in the fiber at the manufacturing stage. Thus, it is efficient than the attenuation measurement methods.

45. Intermodal dispersion is nonexistent in ________ fibers.


a) Multimode
b) Single mode

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c) Step index- multimode


d) Al-GU
Answer: b
Explanation: Intra-modal as the name suggests need multimode fibers to propagate. In single mode fibers,
only one mode is there to propagate. Hence, Intermodal dispersion is nonexistent in single mode fibers.

46. In the single mode fibers, the dominant dispersion mechanism is ____________
a) Intermodal dispersion
b) Frequency distribution
c) Material dispersion
d) Intra-modal dispersion
Answer: d
Explanation: In single mode case, the dominant dispersion mechanism is chromatic. Chromatic dispersion is
called as intra-modal dispersion.

47. An optical fiber has core-index of 1.480 and a cladding index of 1.478. What should be the core size for
single mode operation at 1310nm?
a) 7.31μm
b) 8.71μm
c) 5.26μm
d) 6.50μm

Answer: d
Explanation: Normalized frequency V<=2.405 is the value at which the lowest order Bessel func tion J=0.

Core size(radius)

48. A monochromatic wave propagates along a waveguide in z direction. These points of constant phase
travel in constant phase travel at a phase velocity V p is given by
a) Vp=ω/β
b) Vp=ω/c
c) Vp=C/N
d) Vp=mass/acceleration

Answer: a
Explanation: Velocity is a function of displacement. Phase velocity V p is a measure of angular velocity.

49. Refraction is the


a) Bending of light waves
b) Reflection of light waves
c) Diffusion of light waves
d) Refraction of light waves
Answer: a

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Explanation: Unlike reflection, refraction involves penetration of a light wave from one medium to another.
While penetrating, as it passes through another medium it gets deviated at some angle.

50. Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering are the types of


a) Linear scattering losses
b) Non-linear scattering losses
c) Fiber bends losses
d) Splicing losses
Answer: a
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering both result from non-ideal physical properties of the
fiber. These losses may be impossible to eradicate. Linear scattering mechanisms cause the transfer of
optical power contained within one propagating mode to be transferred linearly into a different mode.

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SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY, LONAVALA


BE (E&TC) BCS (404190) Credits: 04
UNIT-II: Light wave System
Subject Teachers: Prof.P.R.Dike, Prof.Mayur Raut
ONE MARK MCQ

1. In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and from fiber to detector must take place
with _________coupling efficiency.

a. maximum
b. stable
c. minimum
d. unpredictable

Answer: maximum

2. __________ is the unique property of the glass fiber.


a) Transmission
b) Opaque property
c) Ductile
d) Malleable
Answer: a
Explanation: Glass fibres have a unique property as a transmission medium which enables their use in the
communication. The major transmission characteristics are dispersion and attenuation.

3. ________ limits the maximum distance between the optical fiber transmitter and receiver.
a) Attenuation
b) Transmission
c) Equipment
d) Fiber length
Answer: a
Explanation: Attenuation along with dispersion and the conductor size are some of the factors that limit the
maximum distance between the optical transmitter and the receiver. The associated constraints within the
equipment also affect the distance.

4. The ___________ incorporates a line receiver in order to convert the optical signal into the electrical
regime.
a) Attenuator
b) Transmitter
c) Repeater
d) Designator
Answer: c
Explanation: Repeaters are a mediator between transmitter and receiver. The weak signal is strengthened
back by the repeaters on its path to the receiver.

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5. A regenerative repeater is called as ____________


a) Repetitive repeater
b) Regenerator
c) Attenuator
d) Gyrator
Answer: b
Explanation: When digital transmission techniques are used, the repeater also regenerates the original digital
signal in the electrical signal before it is retransmitted as an optical signal via a line transmitter.

6. he wavelength range of __________ will be fruitful for the operating wavelength of the system re ferring
to the system performance.
a) 0.8 – 0.9 μm
b) 1.1 – 2 μm
c) 5.2 – 5.7 μm
d) 3.1 – 3.2 μm

Answer: a
Explanation: It is useful if the operating wavelength of the system is established to range of 0.8-0.9μm. This
will be dictated by the overall requirements for the system performance, cost etc.

7. In ________ the optical channel bandwidth is divided into non-overlapping frequency bands.
a) Time division multiplexing
b) Frequency division multiplexing
c) Code division multiplexing
d) De-multiplexing
Answer: b
Explanation: In FDM, the non-overlapping frequency bands are divided to the individual frequencies. These
individual signals can be extracted from the combined FDM signal by electrical filtering at the receiver
terminal

8. Which of the following is not an optical fiber component?


a) Fiber
b) Connector
c) Circulator
d) Detector
Answer: c
Explanation: Circulator is a device used in electromagnetic theory. All others are optical components.

9. ____________ limits receiver sensitivity.


a) Noise
b) Depletion layer
c) Avalanche

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d) Current
Answer: a
Explanation: Receiver noise affects receiver sensitivity. It can dictate the overall system design. The noise
can be temperature, environmental factor or due to components.

10. A ____________ performs the linear conversion of the received optical signal into an electric current.
a) Receiver
b) Converter
c) Detector
d) Reflector
Answer: c
Explanation: An optical signal is always fed to a detector. A detector is an opto – electronic converter which
linearly converts the received optical signal into an electric current.

11. ________ are provided to reduce distortion and to provide a suitable signal shape for the filter.
a) Detector
b) Equalizer
c) Filters
d) Amplifier
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical detectors are linear devices. They do not introduce distortion themselves but other
components may exhibit nonlinear behaviour. To compensate for distortion, an equalizer is provided in the
receiver circuit.

12. A _________ maximizes the received signal-to-noise ratio in the receiver circuitry.
a) Filter
b) Equalizer
c) Detector
d) Reflector
Answer: a
Explanation: A filter reduces the noise bandwidth as well as inbounds noise levels. A filter maximizes the
received signal-to-noise ratio while preserving the essential features of the signal. It also reduces ISI.

13. What is the main factor contributing to the choice of the operational amplifier?
a) Gain
b) Impedance
c) Conductance
d) Gain-Bandwidth product
Answer: d
Explanation: A TTL interface stage is always used with the operational amplifier. A device which requires
higher accuracy often tend to depend on gain-bandwidth product.
The choice of amplifier for receiver accuracy is dependant on gain-bandwidth product.

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14. The multiplication factor for the APD varies with the device temperature. State whether the given
statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Optimum multiplication factor is required for smooth voltage variance. The multiplication
factor for APD varies with the device temperature thus making provision of fine control for bias voltage.

15. Sampling rate for each speech channel on 32-channel PCM is 8 KHz each encoded into 8 bits. Determine
number of bits in a frame.
a) 64
b) 128
c) 32
d) 256
Answer: d
Explanation: Number of bits in a frame can be calculated as follows:
Bits in a frame = No. of channels * Sampling rate for each channel.

16. In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a typical transmitter
function?
a. Coding for error protection
b. decoding of input data
c. Electrical to optical conversion
d. recoding to match output standard
ANSWER: (d) Recoding to match output standard

17. If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically denser medium with high
refractive index, then it is regarded as _______
a. External Reflection
b. Internal Reflection
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (a) External Reflection

18. During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are responsible for an extrinsic
absorption?
a. Atomic defects in the composition of glass
b. Impurity atoms in glass material
c. Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
d. All of the above

ANSWER: (b) Impurity atoms in glass material

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19. Which splicing technique involves the alignment and locking of broken fiber edges by means of
positioning devices & optical cement?
a. Fusion
b. Mechanical
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

ANSWER :(b) Mechanical

20. which among the following is a key process adopted for the laser beam formation as it undergoes the
light amplification?
a. Spontaneous Emission
b. Stimulated Emission
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

ANSWER: (b) Stimulated Emission

TWO MARK MCQ

21. Determine total channel loss if connector loss at source and detector is 3.5 and 2.5 dB and attenuation of
5 dB/km.
a) 34 dB
b) 35 dB
c) 36 dB
d) 38 dB
Answer: a
Explanation: The total channel loss isC L=(αfc+αj)L +αcr. Here αcr=loss at detector and source combined, α fc=
attenuation in dB/km.

22. Determine length of the fiber if attenuation is 5dB/km, splice loss is 2 dB/km, connector loss at source
and detector is 3.5 and 2.5.
a) 5 km
b) 4 km
c) 3 km
d) 8 km
Answer: b
Explanation: Length of the fiber is L=CL/(αfc+αj) – αcr. Here αcr=loss at detector and source combined, α fc=
attenuation in dB/km.

23. A strategy used for increasing the bitrate of digital optical fiber systems beyond the bandwidth
capabilities of the drive electronics is known as ___________
a) Optical time division multiplexing
b) Electrical time division multiplexing

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c) Frequency division multiplexing


d) Code division multiplexing
Answer: a
Explanation: OTDM is favourable for long distance transmission of signal. It is designed to push the bitrate
of the fiber systems beyond the bandwidth limits to gain performance.

24. Which of the following is not a drawback of regenerative repeater?


a) Cost
b) Bandwidth
c) Complexity
d) Long haul applications
Answer: d
Explanation: The regenerative repeaters are useful in long haul applications. However, such devices increase
the cost and complexity of the optical communication system. It act as a bottleneck by restricting the system
operational bandwidth.

25. How many configurations are available for employment of optical amplifiers?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical amplifiers can be employed in three configurations. These are simplex mode, duplex
mode, multi-amplifier configuration.

26. Repeaters are bidirectional. State whether the given statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: Repeaters are unidirectional. Optical amplifiers have the ability to operate simultaneously in both
directions at the same carrier wavelength.

27. Which of the following is not an application of optical amplifier?


a) Power amplifier
b) In-line repeater amplifier
c) Demodulator
d) Preamplifier
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical amplifiers have a wide variety of applications in the transmitter as well as receiver side.
It is used as the power amplifier in the transmitter side and as preamplifier at the receiver side.

28. ____ reconstitutes a transmitted digital optical signal.


a) Repeaters
b) Optical amplifiers
c) Modulators

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d) Circulators
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical amplifiers simply act as gain blocks on an optical fiber link. However, in contrast, the
regenerative repeaters reconstitute a transmitted digital optical signal.

29. ___________ are transparent to any type of signal modulation.


a) Repeaters
b) Optical amplifiers
c) Modulators
d) Circulators
Answer: b
Explanation: The main benefit of acting as a gain block for optical amplifier is that it can be transparent to
modulation bandwidth. However, both the noise and signal distortions are continuously amplified.

30. ___ is the ratio of input signal to noise ratio to the output signal to noise ratio of the device.
a) Fiber dispersion
b) Noise figure
c) Transmission rate
d) Population inversion
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise figure judges the performance factor of the devices. It is the in and out ratio of signal to
noise degradation for any device.

31. Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?

a. Link power budget


b. Rise time budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Answer:b

32. If a noisy channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz with signal to noise ratio of about 1, what would be the
maximum capacity of the channel?

a. 2 Mb/sec
b. 4 Mb/sec
c. 6 Mb/sec
d. 8 Mb/sec

Answer:b

33. In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive index of core is always _______the refractive index of
cladding.

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a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
d. None of the above

Answer:c

34. On which factor/s do/does the response time of photodiode depend/s?

a. Diffusion time of photo carriers outside the depletion region


b. Diffusion time of photo carriers within the depletion region
c. RC time constant
d. All of the above

Answer:d

35. Which among the following misalignments give/gives rise to the occurrence of splice loss?

a. Longitudinal separation between the end-faces of fiber


b. Angular tilt between fiber ends
c. Transverse offset between fiber ends
d. All of the above

Answer:d

36. Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?


a. Link power budget
b. Rise time budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

ANSWER: (b) Rise time budget

37. Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width broadening under the direct modulation of injection
current?
a. Modal Noise
b. Mode-partition Noise
c. Frequency Chirping
d. Reflection Noise

ANSWER: (c) Frequency Chirping

38. Which among the following is/are determined by the fiber characterization?
a. Fiber integrity & performance for desired transmission rate
b. Installation practices

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c. Service Implementation
d. All of the above

ANSWER: (d) All of the above

39. In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to total internal ______
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. diffraction
d. dispersion

ANSWER: (a) reflection

40. In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional strength and prevents the fiber from any
damage?
a. Core
b. Cladding
c. Buffer Coating
d. None of the above

ANSWER: (c) Buffer Coating

THREE MARK MCQ

41. If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of about 10 μm, n1 = 1.30, Δ = 0.80% , V = 3.5, then
how many modes will it have?

a. 6.125
b. 9.655
c. 12.95
d. 16.55

Answer:a

42. The ratio r = (n1 – n)/ (n1 – n) indicates


a) Fresnel reflection
b) Reflection coefficient
c) Refraction coefficient
d) Angular power distribution coefficient

Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio, r = (n1-n)/ (n1-n) is known as Reflection coefficient. It relates the amplitude of the
reflected ray to the amplitude of the incident wave.

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43. A particular GaAs fiber has a Fresnel reflection magnitude of 17.6% i.e. 0.176. Find the power loss
between the source and the fiber?
a) 0.86 dB
b) 0.78 dB
c) 0.84 dB
d) 0.83 dB
Answer: c
Explanation: The optical losses in decibels at the joint is given by
Loss = -10log10(1-r)
Where L = loss due to Fresnel reflection
R = magnitude of Fresnel reflection.

44. Two joined step index fibers are perfectly aligned. What is the coupling loss of numerical aperture are
NAR= 0.26 for emitting fiber?
a) -0.828 dB
b) -0.010 dB
c) -0.32 dB
d) 0.32 dB
Answer: b
Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined step index fibers is given by
LF (NA)= -10 log (NAR/NAE) 2
Where LF= coupling loss
NAR= Numerical aperture of receiving fiber
NA= Numerical aperture of emitting fiber.

45. Two joined graded index fibers that are perfectly aligned have refractive indices α R=1.93for receiving
fiber αE= 2.15 for emitting fiber. Calculate the coupling loss
a) 0.23 dB
b) 0.16 dB
c) 0.82 dB
d) 0.76 dB
Answer: a
Explanation: Coupling loss for two joined and perfectly aligned graded index fiber is given by
LF (α)= -10log10αR(αE+2) / αE(αR+2)
Where LF(α)= Coupling loss
αR= refractive index of receiving fiber
αE= refractive index of emitting fiber.

46. A graded index fiber has a parabolic refractive index profile (α=2) and core diameter of 42μm. Estimate
an insertion loss due to a 2 μm lateral misalignment when there is index matching and assuming there is
uniform illumination of all guided modes only.
a) 0.180
b) 0.106

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c) 0.280
d) 0.080
Answer: d
Explanation: The misalignment loss (assuming there is uniform illumination of all guided modes) is given
by
Lt= 0.85(y/a)
Where y=lateral misalignment
a=core radius.

47. Measurements give an indication of the distortion to the optical signals as they propagate down optical
fibers.
a) Attenuation
b) Dispersion
c) Encapsulation
d) Frequency
Answer: b
Explanation: Dispersion measurements provide the exact parameters to truly determine the quality and
degradation to the optical signals. It gives an indication of the distortion to the optical signals as they
propagate down the optical fibers.

48. n pulse dispersion measurements, the 3dB pulse broadening for the fiber is 10.5ns/km and the length of
the fiber is 1.2 km. Calculate the optical bandwidth for the fiber.
a) 32 MHz km
b) 45 MHz km
c) 41.9 MHz km
d) 10 MHz km
Answer: c
Explanation: The optical bandwidth for the fiber is given by –
Bopt= 0.44/ 3dB pulse broadening
Where, 0.44 = constant.

49. Calculate the splitting loss if a 30×30 port multimode fiber star coupler has 1 mW of optical power
launched into an input port.
a) 13 dB
b) 15 dB
c) 14.77 dB
d) 16.02 dB
Answer: c
Explanation: The splitting loss is related to the number of output ports N of a coupler. It is given by-
Splitting loss (Star coupler) = 10log10N (dB).

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50. ___________ is a combination of shunt capacitances and resistances


a) Attenuation
b) Shunt impedance
c) Shunt admittance
d) Thermal capacitance
Answer: c
Explanation: Admittance is a measure of how easily a circuit will allow a current to flow. It is the inverse of
impedance and is measured in Siemens. It is a combination of shunt capacitances and resistances.

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SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY, LONAVALA


BE (E&TC) BCS (404190) Credits: 04
UNIT-III: Multichannel systems
Subject Teachers: Prof.P.R.Dike, Prof.Mayur Raut
ONE MARK MCQ
1. It is a device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch fibers.
a) Optical fiber coupler
b) Optical fiber splice
c) Optical fiber connector
d) Optical isolator
Answer: a
Explanation: Nowadays, requirements to divide combined optical signals for applications are increasing. Optical fiber
coupler is one such device that is used for dividing and combining optical signals. It is generally used in LANs,
computer networks etc.

2. Optical fiber couplers are also called as ________________


a) Isolators
b) Circulators
c) Directional couplers
d) Attenuators
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical fiber couplers are passive devices. The power transfer in couplers takes place either through the
fiber core cross-section by butt jointing the fibers or by using some form of imaging optics between the fibers. It
distributes light from one fiber to many fibers and hence it is also called as a directional coupler.

3. How many types of multiport optical fiber couplers are available at present?
a) Two
b) one
c) Four
d) Three
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiport optical fiber couplers are subdivided into three types. These are three and four port couplers,
star couplers and wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) couplers. These couplers distribute light among the branch
fibers with no scattering loss.

4. The optical power coupled from one fiber to another is limited by


a) Numerical apertures of fibers
b) varying refractive index of fibers
c) Angular power distribution at source
d) Number of modes propagating in each fiber
Answer: d
Explanation: When two fibers are coupled to each other, the optical power is limited by number of modes propagating
in each fiber. For example, when a fiber propagating with 500 modes is connected to a fiber that propagates only 400
modes, then at maximum, only 80% of power is coupled into the other fiber.

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5. __ couplers combine the different wavelength optical signal onto the fiber or separate the different wavelength
optical signal output from the fiber.
a) 3-port
b) 2*2-star
c) WDM
d) Directional
Answer: c
Explanation: WDM coupler is abbreviated as wavelength division multiplexing coupler. It is a category of multiport
optical fiber couplers. It is designed to permit a number of different peak wavelength optical signals to be transmitted
in parallel on a single fiber.

6. A four-port multimode fiber FBT coupler has 50 μWoptical power launched into port 1. The measured output
power at ports 2,3 and 4 are 0.003, 23.0 and 24.5 μW respectively. Determine the excess loss.
a) 0.22 dB
b) 0.33 dB
c) 0.45 dB
d) 0.12 dB
Answer: a
Explanation: Excess loss is a ratio of power input to power output of the fiber and it is given by Excess loss =
10log10 P1 /(P3 +P4 )
WhereP1 , P3 , P4 = output power at ports 1,3 and 4 resp.

7. A four-port FBT coupler has 60μW optical power launched into port one. The output powers at ports 2, 3, 4 are
0.0025, 18, and 22 μW respectively. Find the split ratio?
a) 42%
b) 46%
c) 52%
d) 45%
Answer: d
Explanation: Split ratio indicates the percentage division of optical power between the outputs ports. It is given by
Split ratio =[ P 3 /(P3 +P4)]*100%
Where P3 and P4 are output powers at ports 3 and 4 respectively.

8. A _____________ coupler comprises a number of cascaded stages, each incorporating three or four-port FBT
couplers to obtain a multiport output.
a) Star
b) Ladder
c) WDM
d) Three-port
Answer: a
Explanation: A star coupler can be realized by constructing a ladder coupler. It consists of many cascaded stages. If a
three-port coupler is used, then a ladder coupler does not form symmetrical star coupler. It is a useful device to
achieve a multiport output with low insertion loss.

9. It is a passive device which allows the flow of optical signal power in only one direction and preventing reflections
in the backward direction.
a) Fiber slice

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b) Optical fiber connector


c) Optical isolator
d) Optical coupler
Answer: c
Explanation: Ideally, an optical isolator transmits the signal power in the desired forward direction. Material
imperfections in the isolator medium generate backward reflections. Optical isolators c an be implemented by using
FBG.

10. Which feature of an optical isolator makes it attractive to use with optical amplifier?
a) Low loss
b) Wavelength blocking
c) Low refractive index
d) Attenuation
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical isolators are made using FBGs. Since FBGs are wavelength dependent, the optical isolators can
be designed to allow or block the optical signal at particular wavelength. The wavelength blocking feature makes the
optical isolator a very attractive device for use with optical amplifier in order to protect them from backward
reflections.

11. A device which is made of isolators and follows a closed loop path is called as a ____________
a) Circulator
b) Gyrator
c) Attenuator
d) Connector
Answer: a
Explanation: Isolator can be connected together to form multiport devices. A circulator is formed from isolators
connected together to form a closed circular path. In circulator, the signal continues to travel in closed loop and does
not get discarded unlike isolator.

12. A permanent joint formed between two different optical fibers in the field is known as a
a) Fiber splice
b) Fiber connector
c) Fiber attenuator
d) Fiber dispersion
Answer: a
Explanation: The jointing of two individual fibers is called as fiber splicing. It is used to establish long-haul optical
fiber links by joining two small length fibers

13. What is the main requirement with the fibers that are intended for splicing?
a) Smooth and oval end faces
b) Smooth and square end faces
c) Rough edge faces
d) Large core diameter
Answer: b
Explanation: A curved mandrel is used which cleaves the fiber to achieve end preparation. The edges must be smooth
and have square face at the end for splicing purpose.

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14. For linear as well as in nonlinear mode _______________ are most important network elements.
a) Optical amplifier
b) Optical detector
c) A/D converter
d) D/A converters
Answer: a
Explanation: In single-mode fiber system, signal dispersion is very small, hence there is attenuation. These systems
don’t require signal regeneration as optical amplification is sufficient so optical amplifier are most important.

15. The more advantages optical amplifier is


a) Fiber amplifier
b) Semiconductor amplifier
c) Repeaters
d) Mode hooping amplifier
Answer: b
Explanation: Semiconductor optical amplifiers are having smaller size. They can be integrated to produce subsystems.
Thus are more profitable than other optical amplifier.

16. The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human eye
(A) Infrared
(B) Amber
(C) Visible
(D) Ultraviolet

Answer: Infrared

17. The term power budgeting in optical fiber communication refers to


(A) the cost of cables, connectors, equipment, and installation
(B) the loss of power due to defective components
(C) the total power available minus the attenuation losses
(D) the comparative costs of fiber and copper installations

Answer: the total power available minus the attenuation losses

18. In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled analog signals after their quantization into
discrete levels?
a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. ASCII
d. Excess-3
ANSWER: (a) Binary

19. Which is the transmission medium for VLF electromagnetic waves especially applicable for aeronautical and
submarine cables?
a. Paired wires
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Wireless

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ANSWER: (a) Paired wires

20. Which kind of dispersion phenomenon gives rise to pulse spreading in single mode fibers?
a. Intramodal
b. Intermodal
c. Material
d. Group Velocity

ANSWER: (a) Intramodal

TWO MARK MCQ


21. ____________ are operated at current beyond normal lasing threshold current, practically
a) Semiconductor optical amplifier
b) Erbium-doped fiber amplifier
c) Raman fiber amplifier
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier

Answer: a
Explanation: The anti-reflection facet coatings affects in the form of increasing lasing current threshold. This causes
SOAs to be operated at current beyond normal lasing threshold current.

22. Signal amplification is obtained in ____________


a) Erbium-doped fluoro-zir-carbonate fiber multimode
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
Answer: a
Explanation: To avoid excited state absorption (ESA). We should use different glass technology in place by using a
488 nmpump wavelength; erbium-doped multimode fluoro zir carbonate fiber provides gain at 1.525 μmwavelengths.

23. ______________ is constructed using erbium-doped glass.


a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
Answer: a
Explanation: As compared to other glass, erbium-based micro fiber amplifier is more advantageous. This amplifier
provides high optical gain over just a few centimeters of fiber over many meters.

24. the most advantageous amplification is ____________


a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
Answer: c

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Explanation: As compared to all the amplifications, Raman amplification is more advantageous. It has self -phase
matching between pump of signal together with broad gain bandwidth as compared to other nonlinear processes.

25. ______________ extends the pump power into transmission line fiber.
a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
Answer: d
Explanation: In Distributed Raman amplification, all pump power is confined to lumped element. And it is distributed
when the amplification takes place among several kilometers.

26. 0. _____________ are called hybrid Raman amplifier.


a) Lumped and distributed Raman Amplifiers
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Distributed Raman amplification
Answer: a
Explanation: Lumped and distributed Raman Amplifiers can be combined together to be used in wideband application.
This combination increases overall amplified spectral bandwidth.

27. Which band/s specify/ies the operation range of Erbium doped fiber amplifier (EDFA)?

a. By O band
b. By C band
c. By S band
d. All of the above

Answer: b

28. In circulator, an optical path of signal follows _______

a. An open loop
b. A closed loop
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Answer: b

29. WDM technology uses --------------------to transmit information over a single fiber

a. multiple wavelengths

b. multiple frequencies

c.multiple data

d.amplifiers
Answer:a. multiple wavelengths

30. First WDM networks used just two wavelengths were ----------------

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Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering

a. 1310 nm and 1550 nm

b. 850nm and 890nm

c.1000nm and 1200nm

d.1500nm and 1700nm


Answer:a

31. WDM Passive Optical Components

a.Wavelength Selective Couplers

b.Tunable Optical Filter

c.Tunable Source

d.Optical amplifier

Answer:a.

32. WDM Active Optical Components

a.Add-drop Multiplexer and De-multiplexer

b.bwavelength Selective Splitters

c.Tunable Source

d.All of these

Answer:d

33. Grating play an important role in:

a.Wavelength filtering

b.Dispersion compensation

c.Optical sensing

d.all of these

Answer:d

34.FBG is passive device


a.true

b.false

Answer:a

35. A typical diffraction grating will have ---------- lines per millimetre

a.500

Dept Tel.:+91 2114-673 401, Office :673355 ,673356, email:hodentc.sit@sinhgad.edu, Web Site: www.sinhgad.edu
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SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
(Af f iliated to Sav itribai Phule Pune Univ ersity , Pune and Approv ed by , AICTE, New Delhi.)
Gat No. 309/310 , Kusgaon (Bk), of f Mumbai –Pune, Expressway .
Lonav ala, Pune, 410401, Website : www.sinhgad.edu
Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering

b.600

c.700

d.900

Answer: b
Explanation: A (transmission) diffraction grating is an arrangement of identical, equally spaced parallel lines ruled

on glass. A typical diffraction grating will have something like.600 lines per millimetre

36. ___________ provides operation at high transmission rate.


a) Optical intensity modulators
b) Demodulators
c) Circulators
d) Electro-absorption modulators

Answer: d
Explanation: Electro-absorption modulators are employed at the transmitter and receiver sections.

They provide operation at high transmission rate and for field trial.

37. In __________ the microwave frequency are modulated with an optical carrier and transmitted using

a single wavelength channel.


a) Subcarrier multiplexing
b) TDM
c) FDM
d) Code division multiplexing

Answer: a
Explanation: Optical Subcarrier multiplexing (SCM) is transmitted using a single wavelength channel.

It enables multiple broadband signals to be transmitted over single-mode fiber.

38. Which of the following techniques is easy to implement?


a) Amplitude shift keying
b) Phase shift keying
c) Frequency shift keying
d) SCM

Answer: c
Explanation: Frequency shift keying has an advantage of being simple to implement at the modulator

as well as demodulator side. It is formed by up converting to a narrowband channel at high frequency

employing frequency.

39. Which of the following is the disadvantage of SCM?


a) Source nonlinearity
b) Linearity
c) Distortion
d) Narrow bandwidth

Dept Tel.:+91 2114-673 401, Office :673355 ,673356, email:hodentc.sit@sinhgad.edu, Web Site: www.sinhgad.edu
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(Af f iliated to Sav itribai Phule Pune Univ ersity , Pune and Approv ed by , AICTE, New Delhi.)
Gat No. 309/310 , Kusgaon (Bk), of f Mumbai –Pune, Expressway .
Lonav ala, Pune, 410401, Website : www.sinhgad.edu
Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering

Answer: a
Explanation: The problem associated with SCM is source nonlinearity. The distortion caused by this becomes

Noticeable when several subcarriers are transmitted from a single optic al source.

40. ____________ provides operation at high transmission rate.


a) Optical intensity modulators
b) Demodulators
c) Circulators
d) Electro-absorption modulators

Answer: d
Explanation: Electro-absorption modulators are employed at the transmitter and receiver sections. They provide

Operation at high transmission rate and for field trial.

THREE MARK MCQ


41. The spacing between two adjacent slits is called the -----------

a.pitch

b.line

c.FBG

d.isolator

Answer: a
42. When a grating with 300 lines per mm is illuminated normally with a parallel beam of monochromatic light a second order
principle maximum is observed at 18.9 0 to the straight through direction. Find the wavelength of the light

a.5.40 x 10 -7 m

b. 5.40 x 10 -8 m

c. 8.40 x 10 -7 m

d. 9.40 x 10 -7 m

Answer: a

Explanation: 300 lines per mm is 3.00 x 105 lines per metre and therefore the spacing

d =1/3.00 x 105 m

A second order maximum means n=2

Using nλ= dsinθ

Dept Tel.:+91 2114-673 401, Office :673355 ,673356, email:hodentc.sit@sinhgad.edu, Web Site: www.sinhgad.edu
Sinhgad Technical Education Society’s
SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
(Af f iliated to Sav itribai Phule Pune Univ ersity , Pune and Approv ed by , AICTE, New Delhi.)
Gat No. 309/310 , Kusgaon (Bk), of f Mumbai –Pune, Expressway .
Lonav ala, Pune, 410401, Website : www.sinhgad.edu
Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering

1
 sin 18.9 0
2  3.00  10 5

  5.40  10 7 m
43. Erbium-doped fiber amplifier (EDFA) Works best in the range --------

a. 1530 to 1565 nm

b.1100 to 1200nm

c.700 to 800nm

d.1000 to 1100nm
Answer :a

44. SOA stands for……

a. . Semiconductor Oscillator Amplifier

b. Semiconductor Optical Amplifier

c. . Semiconductor Obsolete Amplifier

d. . Semiconductor Obstacle Amplifier

Answer:b
45. SOAs are made with layers of antireflection coatings to prevent -------

a.isolation

amplification

diffraction

d. light from reflecting back into the circuit.

Answer:d

46. A diffraction grating has 600 lines per mm. If such a grating is illuminated with yellow light at 6 x 10 -7 m
calculate the angle at which zero order diffraction will be observed

a. 22.23

b. zero order diffraction is always at 00 to the normal

c.25.43

d.23.32

Answer: b

47. A diffraction grating has 600 lines per mm. If such a grating is illuminated with yellow light at 6 x 10 -7 m

calculate the angle at which first order diffraction will be observed

Dept Tel.:+91 2114-673 401, Office :673355 ,673356, email:hodentc.sit@sinhgad.edu, Web Site: www.sinhgad.edu
Sinhgad Technical Education Society’s
SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
(Af f iliated to Sav itribai Phule Pune Univ ersity , Pune and Approv ed by , AICTE, New Delhi.)
Gat No. 309/310 , Kusgaon (Bk), of f Mumbai –Pune, Expressway .
Lonav ala, Pune, 410401, Website : www.sinhgad.edu
Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering

a. 21.1o

b. 28.8o

c. 29.4o

d. 30.5o
Answer: a

Explanation: The spacing of the

lines(d) is 1/600 000 mm

Using nλ= dsinθ


n
sin  
d
1 6  10 7
sin    6  10 7  6  105
 1 
 
 600000
 0.36
  21.10

48. A diffraction grating has 600 lines per mm. If such a grating is illuminated with yellow light at 6 x 10 -7 m

calculate the angle at which second order diffraction will be observed

a. 21.1o

b. 46.1o

c. 48.8o

d. 42.5o

Answer:b

49. ______________ is constructed using erbium-doped glass.


a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Brillouin fiber amplifier
Answer: a
Explanation: As compared to other glass, erbium-based micro fiber amplifier is more advantageous.

This amplifier provides high optical gain over just a few centimeters of fiber over many meters.

50. _______ is also known as lump Raman amplifiers.


a) An erbium-based micro fiber amplifier
b) Rare-earth-doped fiber amplifiers
c) Raman fiber systems
d) Discrete Raman amplifiers
Answer: d

Dept Tel.:+91 2114-673 401, Office :673355 ,673356, email:hodentc.sit@sinhgad.edu, Web Site: www.sinhgad.edu
SINHGAD INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY, LONAVALA
BE (E&TC) BCS (404190) Credits: 04
UNIT-IV: Orbital Mechanics and Launchers
Subject Teachers: Prof.Mayur Raut, Prof.P.R.Dike

ONE MARK MCQS:


1. Name India's first satellite and when it was launched?
(a). Bhaskara, 7June, 1979
(b). Aryabhatta, 19 April, 1975
(c) Rohini, 25 APril, 1975
(d). INSAT, 10 April, 1978
Ans. b
Explanation: Aryabhatta was India's first satellite launched on 19 April, 1975. It was an active
technological experience in building and operating a satellite system at that time
2. The Mars Orbiter Mission informally known as___________.
(a) Mangalyan
(b)Gaganyan
(c)Prithviyan
(d) None of the above
Ans. a
Explanation: Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) informally known as Mangalyan and is India's first
Mars orbiter. It was launched on 5 November, 2013.

3. The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line
between the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s horizon is called as ___________
(a).Angle of inclination
(b)Angle of elevation
(c)Apogee angle
(d) LOS angle
Answer:b
Explanation: The angle of elevation of a satellite is the angle that appears between the line from
the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line between the earth station’s antenna and the
earth’s horizon. If the angle of elevation is too small, the signals between the earth station and
the satellite have to pass through much more of the earth’s atmosphere. Because of the very low
powers used and the high absorption of the earth’s 4.

4.Ascending node?
(a) The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to north
(b) The point longest from earth
(c)The point closest approach to earth
(d) None of the above
Answer:a
5.What is meant by azimuth angle?
(a) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & the plane
passing
through the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
(b) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local vertical plane & the plane passing
through
the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
(c) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & center of earth.
(d) None of above
Answer:a

6.What are the types of antenna losses?


(a) sky noise
(b) Antenna losses
(c) sky noise , Antenna losses
(d) all of these
Answer:d

7.What is an antenna losses?


(a) It is add to noise received as radiation & the total antenna noise temperature is in the sum of
the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.
(b) It is add to noise received as radiation & the total antenna noise temperature is in the divider
of the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.
(c) It is add to noise received as radiation is in the sum of the equivalent noise temperature of all
these sources.
(d) None of above
Answer:a

8. What is a single mode of operation?


(a) A transponder channel aboard a satellite may be fully loaded by a single transmission from an
earth-station. This is referred to as a single access mode of operation.
(b) A transponder channel aboard a satellite may be fully loaded by a full duplex transmission
channel from an earth-station. This is referred to as a single access mode of operation.
(c) a&b
(d) None of above
Answer:a

9. What is preamble?
(a) Certain time slots at the beginning of each burst are used to carry timing &synchronizing
information. These time slots collectively are referred to as preamble.
(b) Certain time slots at the beginning of two burst are used to carry timing & synchronizing
information.These time slots collectively are referred to as preamble.
(c) a&b
(d) None of above
Answer:a
10. Which area is least effectively coverd by geostationary satellites?
a) Equatorial region
b) Polar region
c) A and C
d) None of the above
Answer:b

11. Satellite used for intercontinental communications are known as_____.


a) COMAT
b) DOMSAT
c) INTELSAT
d) EARSAT
Answer:c

12.The main advantage of satelliite comminication is


a) Low cost
b) Low distortion
c) High reliability
d) High band width
Answer:c

13. Transmission bandwidth for satellite system least depends on_____.


a) Modulation method
b) Overall costs
c) Available technology
d) Ionospheric characteristics
Answer:d

14.The major difference between the Ku-band and the C-band that satellites intended for
DBS have much ________.
(a) higher equivalent isotropic radiated power(EIRP)
(b) The indoor unit
(c) The home unit
(d) None of these
Answer:a

15. If all 32 transponders are in use, each will operate at the lower power rating
of__________.
(a) 12 W
(b) 120 W
(c) 1200 W
(d) None of these
Answer:b
16. In the GPS system, a constellation of 24 satellites circles the earth in near-
circular________.
(a) GEO
(b) MEO
(c) Inclined orbits
(d) None of these
Answer:c

17. The GPS system uses_____________, from satellites to users, so that the user does not
require a transmitter, only a GPS receiver.
(a) One-way transmissions
(b) Two-way transmissions
(c) Half-way transmissions
(d) None of these
Answer:a

18.The Orbital Communications Corporation (Orbcomm) system is a___________, which


provides two-way message and data communications services and position determination.
(a) MEO satellite system
(b) GEO satellite system
(c) LEO satellite system
(d) None of these
Answer:c

19. The Orbital Communications Corporation (Orbcomm) system is a LEO satellite


system, which provides __________message and data communications services and position
determination.
(a) Two-way
(b) One-way
(c) Half-way
(d) None of these
Answer:a

20. The Asian Cellular System, or AceS, utilizes one _________covering the Asia Pacific
area, an area of over 11 million square miles.
(a) Garuda MEO satellite
(b) Garuda geosynchronous satellite
(c) Garuda LEO satellite
(d) None of these
Answer:b
TWO MARKS MCQS:

1. Kepler’s second law states?


a) If t2-t1=t4-t3, then A12=A34.
b) If t2+t1 = t4+t3, then A12=A34.
c) If t2/t1=t4/t3, then A12=A34.
d) None of the above
Answer:a

2. What is an attitude control system.


(a) It is the system that achieves & maintains the required attitudes. The main functions of
attitude control system include maintaining accurate satellite position throughout the life span of
the system.
(b) The main functions of attitude control system include maintaining accurate satellite velocity
throughout the life span of the system.
(c) It is the system that achieves & maintains the required attitudes. The main functions of
attitude control system include maintaining accurate satellite acceleration throughout the life
span of the system.
(d) None of above
Answer:a

3. What is declination?
(a) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the
magnetic declination used in correcting compass readings.
(b) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must be confused with the
magnetic declination used in correcting compass readings.
(c) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the
electric declination used in correcting compass readings.(d) None of above
Answer:a

4. Define the terms in Eclipse.


(a) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result that
earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight fails to reach the satellite solar cells.
(b) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result that
earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight success to reach the satellite solar cells.
(c) a & b (d) None of above
Answer:a

5. Define sky noise.


(a) It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation which is present throught out universe &
which appears to originate from matter in any form ,at finite temperature.
(b) It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation which is present throught out universe &
which appears to originate to matter in any form , at infinite temperature.
(c) It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation which appears to originate from matter
from any form , at infinite temperature.
(d) None of above
Answer:a
6. An antenna has a noise temperature of 35k & its matched into a receiver which has a
noise temp of 100k. Calculate the noise power density & the noise power for a BW of
36MHZ.
(a) 0.067pw
(b) 0.07pw
(c) 67pw
(d) None of above
Answer:a

7. What is a thin route service?


(a) SCPC systems are widely used on lightly loaded routes, this type of service being referred to
as a thin route service.
(b) SCPC systems are widely used on heavily loaded routes, this type of service being referred to
as a thin route service.
(c) a&b
(d) None of above
Answer:a

8. What is an important feature of Intelsat SCPC system?


(a) The system is that each channel is voice activated. This means that on a two way telephone
conversation only one carrier is operative at any one time.
(b) The system is that each channel is video activated. This means that on a two way telephone
conversation only one carrier is operative at any one time.
(c) a&b
(d) None of above
Answer:a

9.Geostationary satellites are located at a height of______.


a) 3600 km from earth’s surface
b) 36000 km from earth’s surface
c) 360,000 km from earth’s surface
d) 3600,000 km from earth’s surface
Answer:b

10. Geostationary satellite follow_____.


a) Circular path
b) Elliptical path
c) Inclined path
d) Cycloidal path
Answer:b
11.In the Americas, for example, the down-link band is ________.
(a) 12.2 to 12.7 GHz
(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the
disturbance torques.
(c) The Ku (12-GHz) band
(d) None of these
Answer:a

12. The most widely advertised receiving system for C-band system appears to be 4DTV
manufactured by Motorola. This enables reception of:______.
(a) Free, analog signals and “wild feeds”
(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the
disturbance
torques.
(c) Free DigiCipher 2 services
(d) All of these
Answer:d

13. A major difference between DBS TV and conventional TV is that with DBS,
___________ is used, whereas with con-ventional TV, ___________in the form of vestigial
single side-band (VSSB) is used.
(a) Frequency modulation, amplitude modulation
(b) Frequency modulation, digital modulation
(c) Phase modulation, amplitude modulation
(d) None of these
Answer:a

14.In remote areas where a cable distribution system may not be installed, the signal can be
rebroadcast from____________.
(a) EHF TV transmitter
(b) A low-power VHF TV transmitter
(c) TV transmitter
(d) None of these
Answer:b

15.Broadcast services include______________.


(a) Audio services
(b) Television services
(c) Internet services
(d) All of these
Answer:d
16. The velocity of a geostationary satellite is nearly_____.
a) 1255 km/hr
b) 6757 km/hr
c) 9422 km/hr
d) 12644 km/hr
Answer:c

17. Geostationary satellite are generally put in……..orbit and domestic satellite in
…….orbit
a) Polar, inclined orbit
b) Polar, equatorial
c) Equatorial, polar
d) Inclined , polar
Answer:c

18. The angle subtended by earth at a geostationary communication satellite is nearly_____


a) 66.5
b) 47.34
c) 17.34
d) 7.34
Answer:c

19. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design altitude?
a) Continue to orbit the earth
b) Fall back
c) Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed
d) Stays where it was released
Answer:b: b
Explanation: If a satellite were launched vertically from the earth and then released, it would fall
back to earth because of gravity. For the satellite to go into orbit around the earth, it must have
some forward motion. For that reason, when the satellite is launched, it is given both vertical and
forward motion.
20. Kepler’s first law states?
a) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
b) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an circle.
c) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an sphere
d) None of the above
Answer:a
THREE MARKS MCQS:
1. An antenna has a noise temperature of 35k & its matched into a receiver which has a
noise temp of 100k. Calculate the noise power density.
(a) 1.86*10-21J
(b) 1.6*10-25J
(c) 186*10-21J
(d) None of above
Answer:a

2. A certain sound has 1000 times more eneergy then another sound. The number of
times it would sound stronger to a listener will be
a) 1000
b) 100
c) 30
d) 3
Answer:C

3..Direct broadcast satellite (DBS) service ________.


(a) Planned broadcasting directly to home TV receivers
(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the
disturbance torques.
(c) Proper moment
(d) None of these
Answer:a

4. Planned broadcasting directly to home TV receivers takes place in ________.


(a) Planned broadcasting directly to home TV receivers
(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the
disturbance torques.
(c) The Ku (12-GHz) band
(d) None of these
Answer:C

5. By doubling up the high-power amplifiers, the number of transponders is reduced by


half to 16, but each transponder operates at____________.
(a) The higher power rating of 120 W
(b) The higher power rating of 240 W
(c) Same
(d) None of these
Answer:b
6. A geosynchronous satellite
(a) has the same period a that of the Earth
(b) has a circular orbit
(c) rotates in the equatorial plane
(d) has all of the above
Answer:d

7.What is ratio of bit rate IF bandwidth?


a). Rb/BH=m/(1+p)
(b). Rb/BH=m2/(1+p)
(c) Rb/BH=m/(1+p)2
(d) None of above
Answer:a

8. Write the equations of C/N ratio.


(a). C/N0=(EIRP)+(G/T)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.
(b). C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.
(c) C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dB.
(d) None of these
Answer:a

9. In TV broadcast via satellite the TV signal from the main broadcast station is routed to
the earth station via
a) Low power transmitters
b) Microwave links
c) TV relay stations
d) Microwave repeater stations
Answer:d

10. A 20 meter antenna give a certain up-link gain at 5 GHz. For getting the same gain
at 25 GHz ate antenna size required will be______.
a) 100 m
b) 80 m
c) 20 m
d) 4 m
Answer:d

11. A satellite is orbiting in the equatorial plane with a period from perigee to perigee of 12
h. Given that the eccentricity is 0.002, calculate the semi-major axis. The earth’s equatorial
radius is 6378.1414 km.
(a) 26610Km (b) 2660Km
(c) 6610m (d) 266Km
Answer:a
12. The losses for clear-sky conditions are______.
(a) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML] +[AA] +[PL]
(b) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]
(c) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]
(d) none of these
Answer:a

13. The Link-Power Budget Equation?


(a) [PR] =[EIRP] +[GR] -[LOSSES]
(b) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]
(c) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]
(d) none of these
Answer:a

14. In the Americas, for example, the down-link band is ________.


(a) 12.2 to 12.7 GHz
(b) With active attitude control, there is no overall stabilizing torque present to resist the
disturbance torques.
(c) The Ku (12-GHz) band
(d) None of these
Answer:a

15.A satellite is orbiting in the equatorial plane with a period from perigee to perigee of 12
h.Given that the eccentricity is 0.002, calculate the semi-major axis. The earth’s equatorial
radius is 6378.1414 km.
(a) 26610Km (b) 2660Km
(c) 6610m (d) 266Km
Answer:a

16.A tropical year contains?


(a) 365.2422 days (b) 365days
(c) 366days (d) none of these
Answer:a

17.________ Satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for
handheld terminals.
a) GPS
b) Iridium
c) Teledesic
d) none of the above
Answer:b
18.________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet access.
a) GPS
b) Iridium
c) Teledesic
d) none of the above
Answer:c

19. The payload refers to:


a) The payload refers to the equipment used to pro-vide the service for which the satellite has
been launched.
b) Satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld terminals.
c) data communications
d) none of the above
Answer:a

20.The bus refers to:


a) The payload refers to the equipment used to pro-vide the service for which the satellite has
been launched.
b) The bus refers not only to the vehicle which carries the payload but also to the various
subsystems which provide the power, attitude control, orbital control, thermal control, and
command and telemetry functions required to service the payload.
c) data communications
d) none of the above
Answer:b

------------------------------------BEST OF LUCK-----------------------------

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