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Previous Year Question Paper of NEET (AIPMT) Exams: Central Board of Secondary Education, Delhi
Previous Year Question Paper of NEET (AIPMT) Exams: Central Board of Secondary Education, Delhi
Previous Year Question Paper of NEET (AIPMT) Exams: Central Board of Secondary Education, Delhi
AIPMT 2011
(Main Examination)
Solutions
1. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the 3. Select the correct statement with respect to
category of diseases and immunisation
(1) Columnar epithelium (1) Certain protozoans have been used to mass
produce hepatitis B vaccine
(2) Connective tissue
(2) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
(3) Smooth muscle tissue bite is an example of active immunisation
(1) Both occur round the year Sol. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as
the sleep wake cycle is regulated by melatonin
(2) Both produces progeny identical to the parent
(3) Both are applicable to only dicot plants 18. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(4) Both bypass the flowering phase matched while the remaining three are correct?
Sol. Both processes do not involves meiosis and (2) Agave – Bulbils
syngamy. (3) Penicillium – Conidia
15. Read the following statement having two blanks (4) Water hyacinth – Runner
(A and B)
Ans. (4)
"A drug used for (A) patients is obtained
Sol. Water hyacinth – Offset.
from a species of the organism (B) ."
19. Function of companion cells is
The one correct option for the two blanks is
(1) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by
Blank-A Blank-B
passive transport
(1) Swine flu Monascus
(2) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements
(2) AIDS Pseudomonas
(3) Providing energy to sieve elements for active
(3) Heart Penicillium transport
Sol. Cyclosporin drug is obtained from the fungus Sol. Companion cell maintains pressure gradient in
Trichoderma and is used in organ-transplantation. sieves.
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(3)
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20. Which one of the following is not considered as a 24. Which one of the following is a possibility for most
part of the endomembrane system? of us in regard to breathing, by making a
conscious effort ?
(1) Vacuole
(1) One can consciously breathe in and breathe
(2) Lysosome out by moving the diaphragm alone, without
(3) Golgi complex moving the ribs at all
(4) (1) - aestivation, (2) - escape, (3) - stable, (4) - 64. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis)
mutualism with velocity v collides and sticks to a mass of 3m
moving vertically upward (along the y-axis) with
Ans. (2) velocity 2v. The final velocity of the combination is
Sol. Hibernation - winter sleep; triangular pyramid
shows positive growth. 2 ˆ 1 ˆ 3 ˆ 1 ˆ
(1) vi + vj (2) vi + vj
3 3 2 4
61. A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a
resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the
circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in 1 ˆ 3 ˆ 1 ˆ 2 ˆ
(3) vi + vj (4) vi + vj
series with the galvanometer is 4 2 3 3
G Ans. (3)
G2
(1) (2)
(S + G ) (S + G )
mv iˆ + 3m2v jˆ
Sol.
m + 3m
S2 SG
(3) (4)
(S + G ) (S + G )
v ˆ 3v ˆ
= i+ j
Ans. (1) 4 2
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65. A converging beam of rays is incident on a Ans. (4)
diverging lens. Having passed through the lens
the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens T
Vo2 .
on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the Sol. 2 = Vo
point where the rays meet will move 5 cm closer T 2
to the lens. The focal length of the lens is 69. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a
spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The
(1) –30 cm (2) 5 cm
magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point
(3) –10 cm (4) 20 cm a
situated at distance from the centre, will be
Ans. (1) 2
4GM GM
Sol. v = +15 (1) (2)
a a
u = +10
2GM 3GM
(3) (4)
1 1 1 a a
− =
v u f Ans. (4)
∴ f = –30 cm GM GM 3GM
Sol. + =
66. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal a2 a a
is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz 70. Two particles are oscillating along two close
is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the parallel straight lines side by side, with the same
photoelectric emission is nearly frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other,
(1) 5 V (2) 1 V moving in opposite directions when their
displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean
(3) 2 V (4) 3 V positions of the two particles lie on a straight line
Ans. (3) perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The
phase difference is
(8.2 − 3.3) × 1014 6.628 10
× –34 × π
Sol. V = = 2V
1.6 × 10 –19 (1) π (2)
6
67. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from
2π
excited state n to the ground state. The (3) 0 (4)
3
wavelength so emitted illuminates a photosensitive
material having work function 2.75 eV. If the Ans. (4)
stopping potential of the photoelectron is 10 V, then Sol. X = A sinθ
the value of n is
A
(1) 5 (2) 2 = A sin θ
2
(3) 3 (4) 4 ∴ θ = 30°, 150°
Ans. (4) 2π
−13.6 ∴ Difference = 150° – 30° = 120° =
3
Sol. –13.6 + 10 + 2.75 = –0.85 =
n2 71. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential
∴ n=4 at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point
68. The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in B is
the figure is 2V
R1 D
Vo B
(1)
1A
2 V
R2 2Ω 2A
Vo
(2) Vo
3
A
1A C 2A
(3) Vo 1V
O t
T/2 T (1) –2 V (2) +1 V
Vo
(4) (3) –1 V (4) +2 V
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Ans. (2) 76. Out of the following which one is not a possible
Sol. 0 + 1 + 2 – 2 = VB energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen
atom according to Bohr's atomic model?
∴ VB = 1 volt
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 0.65 eV
72. A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of
2 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The (3) 1.9 eV (4) 11.1 eV
coefficient of friction between them is μ = 0.5. The Ans. (4)
distance that the box will move relative to belt
Sol. Energy values are –13.6 eV, –3.4 eV, –1.51 eV,
before coming to rest on it, taking g = 10 ms–2, is
– 0.85 eV etc. See the difference by hit and trial.
(1) Zero (2) 0.4 m
77. In the following figure, the diodes which are
(3) 1.2 m (4) 0.6 m forward biased are
Ans. (2) + 10 V
Sol. u = 2 m/s
a = –gμ = –10 × 0.5 = –5 m/s2
(a)
R
v2 = u2 + 2as (v = 0)
+5V
22
∴ s= = 0.4 m R
2×5 (b)
– 10 V
73. A mass of diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) at a pressure of
2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that
its temperature rises from 27°C to 927°C. The
pressure of the gas in the final state is
(1) 256 atm (2) 8 atm
(3) 28 atm (4) 68.7 atm (c)
– 12 V
Ans. (1)
R
7
⎛ 1200 ⎞ 2
Sol. P = 2⎜ ⎟ = 256 atm – 5V
⎝ 300 ⎠
74. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of
radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a (d)
uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of
R
magnetic induction at the center of the ring is :
μ0 q μ 0 qf
(1) (2) +5V
2πfR 2πR
μ0qf μ0 q (1) (b) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (4)
2R 2 fR (3) (c) only (4) (c) and (a)
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
μ0 I μ0qf Sol. P should be at higher voltage than N.
Sol. B = =
2R 2R 78. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q in a given sample
75. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0,
15 V is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown number of P species are 4N0 and that of Q are N0.
in figure. The current through the diode is : Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute
(1) 20 mA whereas that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are
+
(2) 5 mA 250 Ω
no nuclei of R present in the sample. When
20 V 15V 1KΩ number of nuclei of P and Q are equal the number
(3) 10 mA of nuclei of R present in the sample would be :
(4) 15 mA –
5N0
Ans. (2) (1) (2) 2N0
2
20 – 15 15 9 N0
Sol. – = 5 mA (3) 3N0 (4)
250 1000 2
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Ans. (4) 82. A small mass attached to a string rotates on a
frictionless table top as shown. If the tension in
Sol. 4N0e –2λt = N0e –λt
the string is increased by pulling the string causing
4 = e λt the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a
ln2 factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will
2 ln2 = ·t ∴ t = 4 min
2
⎛ N ⎞ N 9N0 ⎛ ⎞ r
∴R = ⎜ 4 N 0 – 0 ⎟ + N0 – 0 ⎜ = ⎟
⎝ 4 ⎠ 4 2 ⎝ ⎠
79. Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne)
and hole (n h) concentrations of 1.5 × 1016m–3.
Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. (1) Increase by a factor of 4
The doped semiconductor is of : (2) Decrease by a factor of 2
(1) n-type with electron concentration (3) Remain constant
ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3
(4) Increase by a factor of 2
(2) p-type having electron concentrations
Ans. (1)
ne = 5 × 109 m–3
Sol. mvr = constant
(3) n-type with electron concentration
ne = 2.5 × 1022 m–3 r
mvr = mv′· ∴ v′ 2v =
(4) p-type with electron concentration 2
ne = 2.5 × 1010 m–3
1
Ans. (2) ∴ KE ′ = m(2v )2 = 4 (K E)
2
83. The electric potential V at any, point (x, y, z), in
(1.5 × 1016 )2 meters in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The
Sol. = ne = 5 109 m
×–3
4.5 × 1022 electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter, is
80. A thin prism of angle 15° made of glass of (1) 16 along positive X-axis
refractive index μ1 = 1.5 is combined with another (2) 8 along negative X-axis
prism of glass of refractive index μ2 = 1.75. The (3) 8 along positive X-axis
combination of the prisms produces dispersion
(4) 16 along negative X-axis
without deviation. The angle of the second prism
should be Ans. (2)
(1) 12° (2) 5° −∂V
Sol. E = = – 8x – 8 V/m =
(3) 7° (4) 10° ∂x
Ans. (4) 84. Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners
Sol. (1.5 – 1) (15°) = (1.75 – 1)A of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and AC,
2a. D and E are the mid points of BC and CA.
∴ A = 10° The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is
81. Two identical piano wires, kept under the same A
tension T have a fundamental frequency of
600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of E
one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6
beats /s when both the wires oscillate together B D C
would be
3qQ
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.01 (1) Zero (2) 4πε a
0
(3) 0.02 (4) 0.03
3qQ qQ
Ans. (3) (3) 8πε a (4) 4πε a
0 0
Δf 1 ΔT T 1 Δ Ans. (1)
Sol. = ∴ 0.02 = =
f 2 T T 50 Sol. Both D and E are at same potential.
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85. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the Ans. (4)
surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass Sol. tanφ + tanφ = tanθ
and the radius of the earth are, respectively, M
and R.G is gravitational constant and g is tan 45°
∴ tan φ =
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the 2
earth. The minimum value of u so that the 89. A coil has resistances 30 ohm and inductive
particle does not return back to earth, is reactance 20 Ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac
2GM source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz is connected across the
(1) 2gR2 (2) coil, the current in the coil will be
R2
2GM 2gM 20
(1) A (2) 2.0 A
(3) (4) 13
R R 2
−1 1 Ans. (4)
(3) 60° (4) tan
2 Sol. Fact
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92. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 96. Which of the following compounds undergoes
nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?
(1) Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH to give
Al(OH)3 Cl
CH3 I P1 V1 P2 V2
Sol. Q =
T1 T2
(1) trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
1.5 × V1 1 × V2
(2) cis-3-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene ⇒ =
288 298
(3) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene 1.5 × 298 × V1
∴ V2 =
(4) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene 288
= 1.55 V1
Ans. (3)
≈ 1.6 V1
(1) Cl CH2CH3(2)
C=C 98. An organic compound 'A' on treatment with NH3
Sol. (2) H3C I(1) gives 'B' which on heating gives 'C' when treated
trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound
with Br in the 'A' is
95. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
(1) SiO2 (2) CO2 (1) CH3 — CHCOOH (2) CH3CH2COOH
CH3 – CH2 – NH2 102. In qualitative analysis, the metals of group I can
Ethyl amine be separated from other ions by precipitating them
99. Consider the following process as chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag+
and Pb2+ at a concentration is 0.10 M. Aqueous
ΔH(kJ/mol) HCl is added to this solution until the Cl –
concentration is 0.10 M. What will the
1
A→B + 150 concentration of Ag+ and Pb2+ be at equilibrium?
2
(Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 × 10–10, Ksp for PbCl2 = 1.7 × 10–5)
3B → 2C + D – 125
(1) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–9 M
E + A → 2D + 350
[Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–3 M
For B + D → E + 2, ΔH will be (2) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11 M
(1) – 325 kJ/mol (2) 325 kJ/mol [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–4 M
(3) 525 kJ/mol (4) – 175 kJ/mol (3) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–7 M
Ans. (4) [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–6 M
Sol. We have, (4) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11 M
1 [Pb2+] = 8.5 × 10–5 M
A ⎯⎯→ B ; ΔH = +150 ...(i)
2 Ans. (1)
3B ⎯⎯→ 2C + D ; ΔH = –125 ...(ii) + −
Sol. K sp( AgCl ) = [Ag ][Cl ]
;
E + A ⎯ → 2D⎯ ΔH = +350 ...(iii)
1.8 × 10−10
By [2 × (i) + (ii)] – (iii), we have ∴ [Ag+] =
10 −1
= 1.8 × 10–9 M
2C ;
B + D ⎯ → E +⎯
++ − 2
ΔH = 150 × 2 + (–125) – 350 and K sp( PbCl2 ) = [Pb ][Cl ]
= –175 kJ 1.7 × 10 −5
∴ [Pb++] =
100. A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% 10−1 × 10 −1
ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86°C/m, the freezing = 1.7 × 10–3 M
point of the solution will be
103. Which of the following structures is the most
(1) – 0.36°C (2) – 0.24°C preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3?
(3) – 0.18°C (4) – 0.54°C |O| |O|
Ans. (2)
(1) S (2) S
Sol. For 30% dissociation,
|O
|
|O
|O
|
|O
|O|
|
i = 1.3
|
|O|
∴ ΔT f = 1.3 × 1.86 × 0.1
S
= 0.2418 (3) S (4)
|O
|
|O
|O
|
|O
Ans. (2)
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:O : 107. The rate of the reaction
2N2O5 ⎯→ 4NO2 + O2
S
Sol. has maximum no. of covalent bonds. can be written in three ways :
.. ..
O
.. O
.. −d[N 2 O5 ]
= k[N 2O5 ]
104. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction dt
is d[NO2 ]
= k′[N 2O5 ]
(1) L2 mol–2 s–1 (2) s–1 dt
d[O2 ]
(3) mol L–1 s–1 (4) L mol–1 s–1 = k″[N 2O5 ]
dt
Ans. (3) The relationship between k and k′ and between
Sol. For zero order reaction, k and k″ are
(1) k′ = 2k; k″ = 2k (2) k′ = k; k″ = k
Rate = K ⋅ [Reactant]0
(3) k′ = 2k; k″ = k (4) k′ = 2k; k″ = k/2
∴ Rate = K
Ans. (4)
∴ Unit of K is mol L–1 s–1
1 d ⎡⎣N 2O5 ⎤⎦ 1 d NO2 d ⎡O2 ⎤⎦
105. A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I– ions. This Sol. Rate = − = = ⎣
2 dt 4 dt dt
solution was treated with iodine at 35°C. E° for
Fe3+/Fe2+ is +0.77 V and E° for I2/2I– = 0.536 V. ∴ 2k = k′ = 4k′′
The favourable redox reaction is 108. The half life of a substance in a certain enzyme -
(1) I– will be oxidised to I2 catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required for
the concentration of the substance to fall from
(2) Fe2+ will be oxidised to Fe3+ 1.28 mg L–1 to 0.04 mg L–1 is
(1) 31011 g mol–1 (2) 61038 g mol–1 (1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
(3) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
(3) 51022 g mol–1 (4) 122044 g mol–1
(At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
w × 1000
Sol. Q π = ×R × T [Cr(NH3)6]3(+) has 3 unpaired e(–)
M×V
110. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the
w × 1000 radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the
∴ M= × R ×T
π×V anion (Y–) will be
Ans. (3)
N – COCH3
(1)
Sol. Electron gain enthalpy is reverse of ionisation
H
energy.
(2) NH2 116. Which of the following carbonyls will have the
strongest C – O bond?
8 g H2 ⇒ 4 mole H2 ⇒ 4 × NA molecules 118. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic
114. Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II behaviours are noted below. Which of the following
and select the suitable option using the code given presents the correct description?
below.
(1) O2+, O2 – Both paramagnetic
List-I List-II
(2) O, O22– – Both paramagnetic
a. Benzaldehyde (i) Phenolphthalein
b. Phthalic anhydride (ii) Benzoin condensation (3) O2–, O22– – Both diamagnetic
c. Phenyl benzoate (iii) Oil of wintergreen (4) O+, O22– – Both paramagnetic
O 2–– : σ1s 2, σ*1s 2, σ2s 2, σ*2s2, σ2pz 2, π2px2 = (i) (CH3 )2 CH − CH2 Br
π2py2, π*2px2 = π*2py2 C H OH
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 5
(CH3 )2 CH − CH2OC2 H5 + HBr
O 2 : σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ*2s 2 , σ2p z 2 , π2p x 2 =
π2py2, π*2px1 = π*2py1 (ii) (CH3 )2 CH − CH2 Br
And the electronic configurations of O and O+ are C H O−
⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 5
→ (CH3 )2 CH − CH2OC2 H5 Br −
O : 1s2 2s2 2px2 2py1 2pz1 The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are
O+ : 1s2 2s2 2px 1 2py1 2pz1 respectively
119. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the (1) SN2 and SN2 (2) SN2 and SN1
following transitions in the hydrogen atom will (3) SN1 and SN2 (4) SN1 and SN1
give rise to the least energetic photon?
Ans. (1)
(1) n = 6 to n = 5 (2) n = 5 to n = 3 Sol. The product formed according to SN2 mechanism
(3) n = 6 to n = 1 (4) n = 5 to n = 4 in both the reactions.