OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ON RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES

GEOTHERMAL ENERGY

1. The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped inside the earth surface is called

a) Hydrothermal energy
b) Geo-Thermal energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wave energy

2. How much is the average temperature at depth of 10 km of earth surface?

a) 200oC
b) 900oC
c) 650oC
d) 20oC

3. What is hot molten rock called?

a) Lava
b) Magma
c) Igneous rocks
d) Volcano

4. How many kinds of Geo thermal steams are there?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

5. What does EGS stand for in geothermal energy?

a) Engraved Geothermal systems
b) Enhanced geothermal system
c) Exhaust gas system
d) Engineered geo physical system

6. Who invented first geothermal plant?

a) Michael Faraday
b) Piero Ginori Conti
c) Enrico Fermi
d) Guglielmo Marconi

7. A geothermal solution containing appreciable amounts of sodium chloride or other salts is

called as
a) Fluids
b) Brine
c) Solvent
d) Magma

8. Earth’s outer layer rock is called as _

a) Mantle
b) Crust
c) Outer core
d) Asthenosphere

9. The hole on earth’s surface from where the steam from the earth comes out is called as

a) Gash
b) Mud pot
c) Void
d) Fumarole

10. A spring that shoots jets of hot water and steam into the air is called as
a) Mine hole
b) Geyser
c) Hot spring
d) Mud pot

11. Which kind geothermal plant is most common type?

a) Dry steam
b) Flash
c) Binary
d) Wet steam

12. How much is the efficiency of geothermal

plant? a) 28%
b) 15%
c) 42%
d) 30%
 Magnetohydrodynamic Power Generation

1. In an open cycle MHD-steam power plant, the temperature at the entrance of MHD duct is (in
K)?
a) 2500-3000
b) 2000-2500
c) 1500-2000
d) 2250

2. The air at the entrance of MHD duct is seeded with potasium upto
a) 7%
b) 5%
c) 3%
d) 1%

3. Air pollution in an MHD-steam power plant is caused due to the formation of which of the
following compounds?
a) oxides and hydroxides
b) chlorides and hydroxides
c) oxides and carbonates
d) carbonates and bicarbonates

4. Which of the following device helps in recovery of seeding element?

a) ion precipitator
b) condenser
c) electrostatic precipitator
d) orsat’s apparatus

5. In closed cycle MHD-steam power plant, which of the following gas is seeded in the MHD
duct?
a) helium
b) xenon
c) sodium vapour
d) chlorine

6. Where is the input of the MHD duct heated in a closed cycle MHD-steam power plant?
a) blast furnace
b) nuclear reactor
c) reverabatory furnace
d) combustion chamber

7. Which of these materials are not used for MHD duct walls?
a) magnesium oxide
b) strontium zirconate
c) hafnia
d) manganese zirconate

8. To reduce the power consumption of electromagnets, which type of coils have been
suggested?
a) aluminium
b) high temperature resistant
c) cryogenic & superconducting
d) none of the mentioned

9. Which is the only fuel better than coal for use?

a) natural gas
b) char
c) kerosene
d) benzene

10. Which of these is not a property of MHD power generation?

a) has no moving part, so is reliable
b) overall generation cost is less
c) closed cycle has almost no pollution
d) conversion is about 80-90%
 SOLAR RADIATION

1. Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the sources of renewable
energy?
a) Solar energy
b) Wind Energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Hydro-electrical energy

2. What is the rate of solar energy reaching the earth

surface? a) 1016W
b) 865W
c) 2854W
d) 1912W

3. What is total amount of solar energy received by earth and atmosphere?

a) 3.8 X 1024 J/year
b) 9.2 X 1024 J/year
c) 5.4 X 1024 J/year
d) 2.1 X 1024 J/year

4. Which is most common source of energy from which electricity is produced?

a) Hydroelectricity
b) Wind energy
c) Coal
d) Solar energy

5. Oil is estimated to last for more.

a) 100 years
b) 500 years
c) A decade
d) 800 years

6. Complete the following reaction.

H2O + CO2 →
a) CH2O + O2
b) CO2 + O2
c) H + CO2 + O2
d) CH2O + H2O + O2

7. In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun?

a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves
8. What does MHD stands for in the energy field?
a) Magneto Hydro Dynamic
b) Metal Hydrogen Detox
c) Micro Hybrid Drive
d) Metering Head Differential

9. Solar radiation which reaches the surface without scattering or absorbed is called

a) Beam Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Diffuse radiation

10. The scattered solar radiation is called

a) Direct Radiation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse radiation
d) Infrared Radiation

11. Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called

a) Insolation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse Radiation
d) Infrared rays

12. Insolation is less

a) when the sun is low
b) when the sun right above head
c) at night
d) at sun rise

13. HHW stands for

a) High and Low water
b) High Level Waste
c) Heated Low Level water
d) High and Low Waste

14. What is unit of nuclear radiation?

a) Reaumur
b) Roentgen
c) Rankine
d) Pascal

15. Which type of fuel is removed from the reactor core after reaching end of core life service?
a) Burnt Fuel
b) Spent fuel
c) Engine oil
d) Radioactive fuel
 FLAT PLATE COLLECTOR

1. To how many types are flat plate collectors divided depending on type of heat transfer fluid?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

2. For what purpose are Gas heating collectors used?

a) To trap solar radiance
b) To act as a medium to help in conversion of sunlight to electrical energy
c) Employed as solar air heaters
d) They act as alternate panels in case of failure

3. Liquid heating collectors are mainly used for _

a) heating water
b) generating electricity
c) cooking
d) trapping sunlight

4. is a glazing which limits the radiation and convection heat losses.

a) Absorber plate
b) Selective surface
c) Insulation
d) Transparent cover

5. What are provided to minimize heat loss?

a) Absorber plate
b) Surface plate
c) Insulation
d) Casing

6. Which part of flat plate collectors is coated in black?

a) Transparent cover
b) Absorber plate
c) Insulation
d) Fins

7. The frame which contains all the parts is called

a) box
b) plate
c) enclose
d) container

8. In which collector does air flow without any obstruction?

a) Porous absorber plate
b) Non-porous absorber plate
c) Over lapped glass absorber
d) Finned absorber

9. In which absorber matrix material is arranged and the back absorber plate is eliminated?
a) Porous absorber plate
b) Non-porous absorber plate
c) Over lapped glass absorber
d) Finned absorber

10. Which type of absorber increases the heat transfer area over a simple flat plate absorber of
the same capacity?
a) Porous absorber plate
b) Non-porous absorber plate
c) Over lapped glass absorber
d) Finned absorber

11. In which type of absorber plate is the overall flow direction is along the absorber glass plate?
a) Overlapped glass absorber
b) Finned absorber
c) Non-porous absorber plate
d) Porous absorber plate

12. How is heat loss over come in liquid plate collectors?

a) By insulation
b) By casing
c) By the transparent cover
d) From provided tubes
 COMPONENTS OF WIND ENERGY CONVERSION SYSTEM

1. How much power does the small scale wind machine generate?
a) 18 KW
b) 2 KW
c) 12 KW
d) 30 KW

2. Which type of wind machines are used at several residence or local use?
a) Large size machines
b) Remote machines
c) Small size machines
d) Medium size machines

3. Which type of wind turbines produce 100 kW or greater?

a) Large machines
b) Small machines
c) Medium machines
d) Remote Machines

4. Which part of the wind mill acts as a housing for the turbine?
a) Wind Vane
b) Shaft
c) Wind mill head
d) Turbine

5. A rotor installed in a fixed orientation with the swept area perpendicular to the pre dominate
wind direction is called _
a) Nacelle
b) Yaw fixed machines
c) Blades
d) Anemometer

6. How is the action of yaw controlled in small turbines?

a) Tail vane
b) Blades
c) Shaft
d) Yaw motor

7. Which part of the wind turbines senses wind speed, wind direction, shaft speed and torque?
a) Turbine blade
b) Shaft
c) Rotor
d) Controller

8. Which type of wind turbine has low RPM?

a) Small wind turbine
b) Large wind turbine
c) Medium wind turbine
d) Remote wind turbine

9. Why recommendation of fixed ratio gears done for top mounted equipment?
a) Because they are easy install
b) Requires less space
c) Due to its low cost
d) Because of their high efficiency

10. Which type of generator are made use in wind turbines?

a) Recreational generators
b) Synchronous generator
c) Asynchronous generator
d) Alternator

11. In which part do we find sensors and actuators?

a) Fixed gears
b) Turbines
c) Control systems
d) Blades

12. How many types of supporting tower for wind mill are generally used?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5

13. On what does the selection of supporting structure depends?

a) Length of blades
b) Rotating capacity
c) Capacity of generator
d) Transmission systems

14. At what type of location vibrations are more in the wind turbine?
a) Downwind location
b) Up wind location
c) Windward
d) Leeward

15. At what type of location vibrations are less in the wind turbines?
a) Windward
b) Leeward
c) Downwind location
d) Upwind Location
 Velocity and Power from Wind

1. Select the formula for total power pt?

a) Pt = 12gc ρAVi3
b) Pt = ρAVi3D3
c) Pt = 12gc Vi3D3
d) Pt = 2gcVi3

2. Why blade velocity of wind turbine varies?

a) Due to varying wind speeds
b) Long length of blades
c) Due to the height of mount
d) Because of hotness of Sun

3. When was the Halladay wind mill introduced?

a) 1920
b) 1923
c) 1854
d) 1864

4. How much ideal efficiency should practical turbine have?

a) 10 – 12%
b) 18 – 25%
c) 80 – 90%
d) 50 – 70%

5. How many types are acting on propeller type wind mill?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

6. Calculate the air density, when 10m/s wind is at 1std atmospheric pressure and 15oC?
a) 1.226 kg/m3
b) 1.033 kg/m3
c) 2.108 kg/m3
d) 0.922 kg/m3

7. Calculate the air density when 18m/s wind is at 1std atmospheric pressure and 34oC?
a) 1.149 kg/m3
b) 1.9 kg/m3
c) 2.88 kg/m3
d) 5.89 kg/m3

8. What is the total power produced if the turbine diameter is 120m?

a) 0.277 KW
b) 1.224 KW
c) 4.28 KW
d) 0.89 KW

9. What is the total power produced if the turbine diameter is 90m?

a) 0.155KW
b) 0.982 KW
c) 1.452 KW
d) 3.12 KW
 Wind Turbine Operation

1. What is the inherent weakness of all wind machines?

a) Their efficiencies
b) Requires powerful winds to make fan rotate
c) Their dependency on the wind speed
d) Cannot be easily repaired

2. Why severe fluctuations in power are always undesirable in windmill?

a) Because they pose power oscillations problems
b) Damage of parts due to fluctuations
c) The efficiency of the plant will be reduced
d) Results in damage to the whole plant

3. Maintenance of constant output at all wind speeds above rating is called

a) Numeric rating scale
b) Tenancy
c) Flat Rating
d) TRP

4. A wind turbine designed too to come into operation at a minimum wind speed is called

a) Cut in velocity
b) Windward
c) Cut out velocity
d) Upwind location

5. Why is wind turbine designed to stop operation at cut out velocity?

a) To protect wheel against damage
b) To make a quick stop in emergencies
c) To improve the efficiency
d) In order to adjust the blades to wind direction

6. The fraction of time during a given period that the turbine is actually on line is called?
a) Availability factor
b) Flat rating
c) Cut in velocity
d) Cut out velocity

7. Over load factor is also called as

a) availability factor
b) plant operating factor
c) flat rating
d) cut out velocity
8. How many of windmills are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

9. Name the windmill which has four blades mounted on a central post.
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill

10. Name the type of windmill which consists of a sloping, horizontally weather boarded
or thatched tower.
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill

11. Which are further improvements on smock mill?

a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill

12. Which type of windmills are been used for primary purposes?
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
 Horizontal Axis Wind Mill

1. In which of the following, does machine rotor drives through a step up gear box?
a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill

2. The rotor blades are continuously flexed by unsteady aerodynamic gravitational and inertia
loads.
a) True
b) False

3. Which type of the following consists of single blade?

a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill

4. Which windmill blades are made by an array of wooden slats?

a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Horizontal axis wind mill Dutch type

5. Which type of windmill blades are made out of sheet metal or aluminum?
a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill

6. Which type of wind mills blade are made out of cloth?

a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill

7. Which type of windmill has better performance?

a) Vertical type wind mills
b) Darrieus type machines
c) Magnus effect rotor
d) Horizontal type windmills

8. What does TSR stand for in design consideration of wind mills?

a) Tip speed ratio
b) Torque-synchronous ratio
c) Tip suspension ratio
d) Temporary speed restriction

9. With upto how many propellers can windmills are built?

a) 4
b) 2
c) 7
d) 6

10. Turbines with how many propellers are used in order to avoid vibrations?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

11. What type of cross sections does wind turbine blades have?
a) Penta hedral cross section
b) Air foiled type cross section
c) Radar cross section
d) Turbo cross section

12. What does WECS stands for?

a) Wind energy conversion system
b) Wind engine control system
c) Wind energy combined system
d) Wind engine comparison system
 Vertical Axis Wind Mill

1. In which wind measuring device a tubular piece of thin flexible fabric hanged vertically to
determine direction?
a) Wind socks
b) Weather vane
c) Pin wheels
d) Anemometers

2. A device which is used as device for showing direction wind as well used as a decorative
purpose?
a) Wind socks
b) Weather vane
c) Pin wheels
d) Anemometers

3. Which is the wind direction showing device that spins perpendicularly?

a) Wind socks
b) Weather vane
c) Pin wheels
d) Anemometers

4. Which is the device that measures wind direction and its intensity?
a) Wind socks
b) Weather vane
c) Pin wheels
d) Anemometers

5. What units does the anemometer measure in?

a) Feet per minute
b) Liters per minute
c) Centimeters per minute
d) Meter per seconds

6. Which of the following type of turbine or the rotor requires relatively low velocity winds for
operation?
a) Cup anemometer
b) Savonius rotor
c) Darrieus type rotor
d) Magnus effect rotor

7. Which type of axis does a Savonius Rotor has?

a) Horizontal axis
b) Mediolateral axis
c) Vertical axis
d) Lateral Axis

8. Why is Savonius rotor not suitable for installation?

a) Because of long drive shaft
b) Because of its low capacity motor
c) Because of its typical blade design
d) Due to the light material it is made of

9. When was the Darrieus type machine invented?

a) 1925
b) 1932
c) 1929
d) 1948

10. What form of force acts on the blades of Darrieus machine?

a) Pure tension
b) Compression
c) Shear force
d) Air resistance force

11. Which type of vertical wind machine has relatively low solidity and low starting torques?
a) Cup anemometer
b) Savonius rotor
c) Darrieus type rotor
d) Magnus effect rotor

12. Which type of vertical wind machine consists of spinning cylinders?

a) Cup anemometer
b) Savonius rotor
c) Darrieus type rotor
d) Magnus effect rotor

13. Aero turbine is the fraction of power in the wind through the swept area which is converted
into useful mechanical shaft power is called
a) Coefficient of performance
b) Coefficient of variation
c) Coefficient of lift
d) Coefficient of spin
 Energy from Biomass

1. Which is an organic matter produced by plants in direct or indirect forms?

a) Solar energy
b) Biomass
c) Wind energy
d) Bio-fuel

2. What type of energy is biomass energy?

a) Conventional energy
b) Non renewable
c) Commercial energy
d) Sustainable energy

3. The use of biomass energy has the potential to greatly reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
a) True
b) False

4. is made by combining alcohol with vegetable oil, animal fat or recycled cooking
grease.
a) Biodiesel
b) Biomass
c) Bioelectricity
d) Syngas

5. What type of fire system is used in Bio power?

a) Hand firing
b) Mechanical stoke firing
c) Direct firing
d) Indirect firing

6. Mixing biomass with fossil fuels in conventional power plants is referred to as

a) Agitation
b) Infuse
c) Co-firing
d) Interbreed

7. Which gas can be chemically converted into other fuels or products, burned in a conventional
boiler, or used instead of natural gas in gas turbine?
a) Freon
b) Natural gas
c) Syngas
d) Noble gas

8. What does natural decay of biomass produces?

a) Ozone
b) Methane
c) Ethane
d) Hydrogen

9. What is used to decompose organic matter in absence of oxygen in closed reactors?

a) Slugs
b) Fungi
c) Natural consortia
d) Methane

10. What is Ethanol called?

a) Phenol
b) Alcohol
c) Amino acid
d) Butanol

11. Which type of bio products include Antifreeze, plastics, glues, artificial sweeteners, and
gel for toothpaste?
a) Bio products made from sugars
b) Bio products made by waste products
c) Bio products made from decomposition
d) Bio products made from catalytic cracking

12. What is BTU used to measure?

a) Heat content
b) Area
c) Density
d) Volume
 Photosynthesis

1. The process by which plants, some bacteria and some protistans use the energy from sunlight
to produce sugar?
a) Taxonomy
b) Metabolism
c) Photosynthesis
d) Osmosis

2. What is used in conversion of sunlight energy into usable chemical energy in plants?
a) Anthocyanin
b) Cythochrome
c) Chlorophyll
d) Chitin

3. Complete the following reaction.

H2O + CO2 →
a) 6H2O + 6CO2 → C6H12O6 + 6O2
b) 6H2O + 3CO2 → C6H6O6 + 4O2
c) 6H2O + 6CO2 → C6H12O12 + 12O2
d) 6H2O + 4CO2 → C+ HO3

4. Photosynthesis is carried in how many stages?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

5. Photosynthetic organisms which convert light energy into the chemical energy they need to
develop grow, and reproduce are called as?
a) Rubisco
b) Pigment
c) Autotrophs
d) Glucose

6. What is the full form of ATP?

a) Adenosine Tetra-phosphate
b) Adenosine tri-phosphate
c) Adenosine Terra-phosphate
d) Ambient temperature and pressure

7. What does NADPH?

a) Nicotinamide adenosine deca-nucleotide phosphate
b) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
c) Nicotinamide adenine deca-nucleotide phosphate
d) Nicotinamide adenosine dinucleo phosphor
8. Which cycle is preferred for production of carbohydrates?
a) Nutrient cycle
b) Bio geo chemical cycle
c) Calvin – Benson Cycle
d) Sonnet cycle

9. Which is the region within thylakoid where water is split into oxygen?
a) Foramen
b) Serosa
c) Lumen
d) Mucosa

10. Choose the general formula of carbohydrates?

a) [C2H2O2]n
b) [CHO]n
c) [CH2O]n
d) [C2O2]n

11. Energy plantation does not have any impact on Bio-energy.

a) True
b) False

12.”ATP and NADPH are used to fix CO2 into carbohydrates” this process is termed as

a) Carbon fixation
b) Reduction
c) Carbon dating
d) Oxidation

13. The organelle in a plant cell where photosynthesis occurs is called

a) Rubisco
b) Chloroplast
c) Thylakoid
d) Pigment

14. A colored molecule is called

a) Epoxy
b) Pigment
c) Gouache
d) Plaster

15. C6H12O6 is a
a) Osmophile
b) Trapiche
c) Sugar
d) Butanol fuel
 Tidal Power

1. How many basins does a single pool tidal system have?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

2. How much energy is estimated as total tidal power that is generated throughout the world?
a) 2.4 X 106 MW
b) 8.3 X 106 MW
c) 4.9 X 106 MW
d) 12 X 106 MW

3. What is time period for one tide to occur in a day?

a) 6h, 12.5 min
b) 6h, 40.5 min
c) 6h, 0 min
d) 6h, 25.6 min

4. How many high peaks occur in a single pool tidal system?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

5. What happens if the turbine generators are smaller and operate much longer?
a) Resulting work is reduced
b) High power generation
c) Less power loss
d) Less sound is created

6. On what is two-pool tidal system is less dependent?

a) Barrage
b) Tidal fluctuation
c) Reservoir
d) Gravitational force

7. How much must be the tidal range over barrage to be feasible?

a) 7 meters
b) 25 meters
c) 10 meters
d) 20 meters

8. Any location where the fresh water meets salty water is called _
a) Dredging
b) River
c) Delta
d) Estuary

9. What tide of tide is it called when two high tides and two low tides of approximately equal
size occur?
a) Diurnal tide
b) Spring tide
c) Neap tide
d) Semi-Diurnal tide

10. Difference between water height at high tide and water height at low tide is called
a) Tidal Variation
b) Tidal volume
c) Tidal Range
d) Tidal Current

11. What is the movement of water generated by or associated with the change in mean sea
level called?
a) Tidal Variation
b) Tidal volume
c) Tidal Range
d) Tidal Current

12. What is the movement of water away from the shore called?
a) Flood tide
b) Spring tide
c) Ebb tide
d) Neap tide

13. What is the term used for transport of non-cohesive sediments?

a) Dirt drop
b) Flick
c) Littoral drift
d) Droplet drifts
 Tidal Energy

1. How is OTEC caused?

a) By wind energy
b) By geothermal energy
c) By solar energy
d) By gravitational force

2. What does OTEC stand for?

a) Ocean thermal energy cultivation
b) Ocean thermal energy conversion
c) Ocean techno energy conservation
d) Ocean thermal energy consumption

3. Which country has world’s largest tidal power plant?

a) Netherlands
b) South Korea
c) Laos
d) Bolivia

4. Which type of turbine is commonly used in tidal energy?

a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton wheel
d) Gorlov turbine

5. How is water trapped from coastal waters?

a) By building canals
b) By building dams
c) By digging wells
d) By storing in tanks

6. Water to the turbine is allowed through the

a) Pipes
b) Sluice gates
c) Canals
d) Pumps

7. The tides are rhythmic and constant.

a) True
b) False

8. For exactly how much time does it take for one tidal cycle?
a) 22h, 20min
b) 24h, 50min
c) 20h, 10min
d) 22h, 50min

9. What type of tide is it if the difference between high and low tide is greatest?
a) Diurnal tide
b) Neap tide
c) Spring tide
d) Ebb tide

10. A tide whose difference between high and low tides is least is called as
a) Diurnal tide
b) Neap tide
c) Spring tide
d) Ebb tide

11. Which of the turbine can be mounted vertically and horizontally?

a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Gorlov turbine
d) Francis turbine

12. What types of tides occur when there is so much interference with continents?
a) Diurnal tide
b) Neap tide
c) Spring tide
d) Ebb tide
 Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion

1. Which is the type of energy where the energy is harnessed by the heat accumulated on
the surface of water?
a) Wind energy
b) Wave energy
c) Ocean thermal energy conversion
d) Solar energy

2. Water decreases with an increase in temperature.

a) volume
b) density
c) pressure
d) force

3. How many essentially infinite heat reservoirs are present in tropical waters?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

4. Who first recognized the OTEC?

a) d’Arsonval
b) Alexander Edmond Becquerel
c) James Prescott joule
d) LA Rance

5. From which cycle does maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine operating between two
temperature limits cannot exceed?
a) Carnot cycle
b) Otto cycle
c) Open cycle
d) Anderson cycle

6. Which of the following has the lowest efficiency?

a) Solar energy
b) Wind energy
c) Wave energy
d) OTEC

7. The Claude cycle is also called as

a) Open cycle
b) Anderson cycle
c) Closed cycle
d) Otto cycle
8. Anderson cycle is also known as
a) Open cycle
b) Claude cycle
c) Closed cycle
d) Otto cycle

9. Who proposed closed cycle approach?

a) Barjot
b) Alexander Edmond Becquerel
c) James Prescott joule
d) LA Rance

10. The working fluid chosen by Anderson OTEC cycle is

a) Propane
b) Water
c) Engine oil
d) ISO-butane

11. Which is the working fluid in open cycle?

a) Propane
b) Water
c) Engine oil
d) ISO-butane

12. A continuous movement of water in specific direction is called as

a) float
b) waves
c) current
d) tides
 Geothermal Energy
1. The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped inside the earth surface is called

a) Hydrothermal energy
b) Geo-Thermal energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wave energy

2. How much is the average temperature at depth of 10 km of earth surface?

a) 200oC
b) 900oC
c) 650oC
d) 20oC

3. What is hot molten rock called?

a) Lava
b) Magma
c) Igneous rocks
d) Volcano

4. How many kinds of Geo thermal steams are there?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

5. What does EGS stand for in geothermal energy?

a) Engraved Geothermal systems
b) Enhanced geothermal system
c) Exhaust gas system
d) Engineered geo physical system

6. Who invented first geothermal plant?

a) Michael Faraday
b) Piero Ginori Conti
c) Enrico Fermi
d) Guglielmo Marconi

7. A geothermal solution containing appreciable amounts of sodium chloride or other salts is

called as
a) Fluids
b) Brine
c) Solvent
d) Magma
8. Earth’s outer layer rock is called as _
a) Mantle
b) Crust
c) Outer core
d) Asthenosphere

9. The hole on earth’s surface from where the steam from the earth comes out is called as

a) Gash
b) Mud pot
c) Void
d) Fumarole

10. A spring that shoots jets of hot water and steam into the air is called as
a) Mine hole
b) Geyser
c) Hot spring
d) Mud pot

11. Which kind geothermal plant is most common type?

a) Dry steam
b) Flash
c) Binary
d) Wet steam

12. How much is the efficiency of geothermal

plant? a) 28%
b) 15%
c) 42%
d) 30%
 Fuel Cell

1. Fuel cell converts chemical energy to electrical energy using a reaction that
a) eliminates combustion of fuel
b) requires combustion of fuel
c) requires no ignition of fuel
d) fuel is not required

2. Fuel cell performance is not limited by

a) First law of Thermodynamics
b) Second law of Thermodynamics
c) Third law of Thermodynamics
d) All three laws are applicable

3. For which of these devices does negative charge carriers flow from anode to cathode in the
external circuit?
a) MHD generator
b) Thermionic generator
c) Thermoelectric generator
d) Fuel cell

4. The fuel cell is considered a battery in which _ is continuously replaced.

a) fuel only
b) oxidizer
c) both fuel and oxidizer
d) none of the mentioned

5. The type of reactions in a fuel cell is not determined by

a) fuel and oxidizer combination
b) composition of electrolyte
c) materials of anode and cathode
d) catalytic effects of reaction container

6. What is the voltage output of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)

a) -1.23
b) -1.45
c) -1.01
d) -.93

7. What is the voltage output of carbon-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)

a) -.91
b) -1.24
c) -1.02
d) -1.17
8. What is the voltage output of methane-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)
a) -1.16
b) -1.06
c) -1.26
d) -0.96

9. Which of these gases or liquids are not used as source of hydrogen in fuel cells?
a) C2H6
b) C2H2
c) C6H6
d) C2H5OH

10. The hydrocarbons cracked with steam in fuel cells do not give rise to
a) CO
b) CO2
c) H2
d) H2O

11. Which of these should not be a properties of fuel cell electrodes?

a) good electrical conductors
b) highly resistant to corrosive environment
c) should perform charge seperation
d) take part in chemical reactions

12. Which of these fuel cell operates at temperature below 100.C?

a) phosphoric fuel cell
b) solid polymer electrolyte fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell

13. Which of these fuel cells operates at high temperatures and pressures?
a) high temperature solid oxide fuel cell
b) alkaline fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) phosphoric acid fuel cell