NEET XII

10-April-2018 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 720

• Please read the instruction carefully. You are alloted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
• You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

TEST TOPICS
Physics : EMI & AC, Electromagnetic Waves
Chemistry : Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, Metallurgy, P-Block, d & f block Elements
Biology : Genetics and Evolution

: INSTRUCTIONS :
A. General
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is PHYSICS, Part-II is CHEMISTRY and Part-III is BIOLOGY.
4. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in this booklet for your rough work. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
5. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers, and
electronic gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
6. Using a blue / black ball point pen, darken the bubbles on the OMR. Apply sufficient pressure so that the
impression is created on the bottom sheet.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE OMR OR THE BOOKLET
8. On breaking the seals of the booklet check that It contains 16 pages. Read carefully the Instructions printed at
the beginning of each section.

B. Filling the OMR

9. Write your Name, Registration Number and the name of examination centre and sign with pen in the boxes
provided on the right part of the OMR. Do not write any of this information anywhere else. Darken the
appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your Registration Number in such a way that the impression is
created on the bottom sheet. Also darken the paper CODE given on the right side of OMR.

C. Marking Scheme
10. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer(s)
ONLY and zero (0) marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one(–1) mark will be
awarded.

Student Name :

Roll No. : Signature of Student

IIT POINT, Block No. 12, Madhav nagar, S.V. Road, opp BSES Hospital, Andheri (W). Mumbai : 400 058.
Physics Page 2
[NEET-XII] PART - I
NEET Group Test 7

10-April-2018 EMI & AC, Electromagnetic Waves Marks : 180

=========================================================================================================================
• SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE •
This section given multiple choice questions. Each question has four
choices, (A), (B), (C) & (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. +4 marks
for each correct answer and –1 for each wrong answer.
01. An A.C. circuit containing only capacitance, the current :
(a) lags the voltage by 90°
(b) leads the voltage by 90° (a) 200V, 1A (b) 800V, 2A
(c) remains in phase with voltage (c) 100V, 2A(d) 220V, 2.2 A
(d) leads the voltage in 180°
07. The current gain for a transistor working as common
02. According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, changing of electric base amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter current is 7.2
field give rise to: mA, the base current will be :
(a) magnetic field (b) pressure gradient (a) 0.42 mA (b) 0.49 mA
(c) charge (d) voltage (c) 0.29 mA (d) 0.35 mA
03. A choke coil has: 08. In a circuit the coil of a choke :
(a) Low inductance and low resistance (a) decreases the current
(b) High inductance and high resistance (b) increases the current
(c) Low inductance and high resistance (c) has high resistance to D. C. circuit
(d) High inductance and low resistance (d) no effect with the current
04. Frequency of infrared wave is approximately: 09. In a circuit, the current lags behind the voltage by a
(a) 1018 Hz (b) 1014 Hz phase difference of  2 , the circuit will contain
(c) 109 Hz (d) 1016 Hz which of the following :
05. Turn ratio in a step up transformer is 1 : 2 if a Lechlanche (a) only R (b) only C
cell of 1.5 V is connected across the input, then the (c) R and C (d) only L
voltage across the output will be
10. The coefficient of mutual inductance, when magnetic
(a) 0.1 V (b) 1.5 V (c) 0.75 V (d) zero
flux changes by 2 × 10–2 Wb and current changes by
06. In the circuit shown below what will be the reading of 0.01 A is
the voltmeter and ammeter ? (Total impedance of circuit (a) 8 henry (b) 4 henry
Z = 100  ) (c) 3 henry (d) 2 henry

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 Page 3 NEET Group Test 7

11. In an ideal parallel LC circuit, the capacitor is charged

by connecting it to a DC source which is then
disconnected. The current in the circuit
(a) becomes zero instantaneously
(b) grows monotonically
(c) decays monotonically
(d) oscillates instantaneously (a) tuned filter (b) low pass filter
(c) high pass filter (d) rectifier
12. A capacitor of capacitance 2uF is connected in the tank
circuit of an oscillator oscillating with a frequency of 1 16. What should be the maximum acceptance angle at the
kHz. If the current flowing in the circuit is 2 m A, the air-core interface of an optical fibre if n1 and n2 are the
voltage across the capacitor will be: refractive indices of the core and the cladding,
(a) 0.16 V (b) 0.32 V respectively ?
(c) 79.5 V (d) 159 V (a) sin–1 (n2/n1) (b) sin 1 n12  n 22
13. A 50 Hz a.c. source of 20 volt is connected across R
and C as shown in figure. The voltage across R is  1 n 2   1 n1 
(c)  tan n  (d)  tan n 
12 volt. The voltage across C is :  1  2

17. Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries,

produces bright light. As the batteries wear out:
(a) The light intensity gets reduced with no
change in its color.
(b) Light color changes first to yellow and then
(a) 8V (b) 16V (c) 10V red with no change in intensity
(d) not possible to determine unless values of (c) It stops working suddenly while giving white
Rand Care given light
(d) Color changes to red and also intensity gets
14. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of reduced
intensity I (watt/m2) on a non-reflecting surface is : [c is
the velocity of light] 18. Which wavelength of sun is used finally as electric energy ?
(a) Ic (b) Ic2 (c) I/c (d) I/c2 (a) Radio waves (b) Infra red waves
(c) Visible light (d) Micro waves
15. The circuit shown below acts as :
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24. An inductor and a resistor in series are connected to an

19. In an AC circuit the potential differences across an
inductance and resistance joined in series are
respectively 16V and 20 V The total potential
difference of the source is
(a) 20.0V (b) 25.6V (c) 31.9V (d) 53.5V
A.C. supply of variable frequency. As the frequency of
the source is increased, the phase angle between current
and the potential difference across L will:

20. With the decrease of current in the primary coil from 2

amperes to zero value in 0.01s the emf generated in the
secondary coil is 1000 volts. The mutual inductance of
(a) first increase and then decrease
the two coils is
(b) first decrease and then increase
(a) 1.25 H (b) 2.50 H
(c) go on decreasing
(c) 5.00 H (d) 10.00 H
(d) go on increasing
21. An AC source of angular frequency  is fed across a
25. In a AC circuit the voltage and current are described
resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current
registered is I. If now the frequency of source is  
by V  200sin  319t   volts and
changed to  /3 (but maintaining the same voltage),  6
the current in the circuit is found to be halved.
Calculate the ratio of reactance to resistance at the  
i  50sin  314t   mA respectively..
original frequency   6

3 2 1 4 The average power dissipated in the circuit is:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 2. 5 watts (b) 5.0 watts
5 5 5 5
(c) 10.0 watts (d) 50.0 watts
22. If an AC main supply is given to be 220 V. The average
26. If we decrease the frequency of the applied A.C. with a
emf during a positive half cycle will be
purely capacitive load, do (1) the amplitude of Vc and
(a) 198V (b) 220V (2) amplitude of Ic increase, decrease of remain the
(c) 240V (d) 220 2 V same.
(a) (1) increase (2) same
23. A coil has an inductance of 0.7 henry and is joined in (b) (1) same (2) increase
series with a resistance of 220  . When the alternating (c) (1) same (2) decrease
emf of 220 Vat 50 Hz is applied to it then the phase (d) (1) decrease (2) same
through which current lags behind the applied emf and
the wattless component of current in the circuit will be 27. If the magnetic field of a light wave oscillates parallel to
respectively y-axis and is given by By = Bm sin (kz – t ), the
(a) 30°, 1 A (b) 45°, 0.5 A direction of wave travel and the axis along which the
(c) 60°, 1.5 A (d) none of these electric vector oscillates is :
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 Page 5 NEET Group Test 7

(a) + ve y-axis, z-axis (b) –ve z-axis, x-axis

E 2  B2 1 2 B2
(c) –ve x-axis, y-axis (d) –ve x-axis, z-axis (c) (d)  0 E 
c 2 2 0
28. An inductor coil of inductance L is cut into two equal
parts and both the parts are connected in parallel. 32. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in inductance is I
The net inductance is : = 5sin(100t –  2 ) amperes and the potential difference
(a) L (b) L/2 (c) L/4 (d) 2L
is V = 200 sin (100 t) volts. The power consumption is
29. The current in resistance R at resonance is equal to
(a) 1000 watt (b) 40 watt
(c) 20 watt (d) Zero

33. For the circuit shown in the fig., the current through the
inductor is 0.9 A while the current through the condenser
is 0.4 A. Then

(a) zero
(b) minimum but finite
(c) maximum but finite
(d) infinite

30. An inductance L having a resistance R is connected to (a) current drawn from generator I = 1.13 A
an alternating source of angular frequency  . The (b)  = 1/(1.5 LC)
Quality factor Q of inductance is (c) I = 0.5A
(d) I = 0.6A
(a) R L (b) (L R)2
34. L, C, R represent physical quantities inductance,
(c) (R L)1 2 (d) L R capacitance and resistance respectively. The
combinations which have the dimensions of
31. The energy of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given frequency are
by the relation
(a) 1/RC (b) R/L (c) 1 LC (d) C/L
2 2
E B 1 1
(a)  (b)  0 E 2   0 B2
2 0 2 0 2 2 ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

These questions consist of two statement, each printed

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 Page 6 NEET Group Test 7

as assertion and reason. While answering these question (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
you are required to choose any one of the following
five responses. 41. Assertion : The resistance offered by an inductor in a
(a) If both assertion and reason are true but the d.c circuit is always constant.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. Reason : The resistance of inductor in steady state is
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but the non-zero.
reason is not the correct explanation of (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
assertion.
42. Assertion : Long distance power transmission is done
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. at high voltage.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
Reason : At high voltage supply power losses are less.
35. Assertion: Ii series LCR circuit resonance can take (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
place.
Reason : Resonance takes place if inductance and 43. Assertion : A capacitor blocks direct current in the
capacitive reactances are equal and opposite. steady state.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Reason : The capacitive reactance of the capacitor
is inversely proportional to frequency f of the source
36. Assertion: X-ray travel with the speed of light. of emf.
Reason : X-rays are electromagnetic rays. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
44. Assertion : In the purely resistive element of a series
37. Assertion : Faraday’s laws are consequences of LCR, AC circuit the maximum value of rms current
conservation of energy. increases with increase in the angular frequency of
Reason : In a purely resistive A.C. circuit, the current the applied e.m.f.
lags behind the e.m.f. in phase. 2
  1 
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Reason : Imax  max , z  R 2   L  
z  C 
38. Assertion : Dipole oscillations produce electromagentic where Imax is the peak current in a cycle.
waves. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Reason : Accelerated charge produces electromagnetic
waves. 45. Assertion : Lenz’s law violates the principle of
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D conservation of energy.
Reason : Induced emf always opposes the change
39. Assertion : No power loss associated withpure in magnetic flux responsible for its production.
capacitor in ac circuit. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Reason: No current is flowing in this circuit.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D    
40. Assertion: Ohm’s law cannot be applied to a.c circuit.
Reason: Resistance offered by capacitor for a.c source
depends upon the frequency of the source.
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Chemistry Page 7
[NEET-XII] PART - II
NEET Group Test 7

10-April-2018 Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, Metallurgy, P-Block, d & f block Elements Marks : 180
=========================================================================================================================
• SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE • Identify the pair X and Y.
This section given multiple choice questions. Each question has four
(a) Cl–, HCl (b) SO32  , SO 2
choices, (A), (B), (C) & (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. +4 marks
for each correct answer and –1 for each wrong answer.
(c) S2–, H2S (d) CO32  , CO 2
46. Which one of the following is used for drying of
ammonia? 52. The catalyst used in the manufacture of H2SO4 by
(a) conc. H2SO4 (b) CaO contact process is:
(c) P2O5 (d) anhydrous CaCl2 (a) platinised asbestos (b) Ni
(c) Fe (d) NO
47. The following statements are the characteristics of
phosphorus: 53. Oleum/Fuming sulphuric is:
(i) Phosphorus is kept in water, (a) a mixture of conc. H2SO4 and oil
(ii) The number of vacant orbitals in the valence (b) sulphuric acid saturated with SO3
shell of phosphorus is five. (c) a mixture of H2SO4 and HNO3
(iii) White phosphorus is less reactive than red (d) a mixture of H2SO4 and HCl
phosphorus.
54. In disulphurous acid or pyrosulphurous acid, the
(iv) p -p multiple bonding is usually not observed
oxidation states of sulphur can be :
in phosphorus.
(a) +6 and –2 (b) +6 and 0
The correct statements are:
(c) +5 and +3 (d) +5 and –2
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) 55. SF6 is unreactive towards water because :
(a) sulphur has very small size
48. A hydride of nitrogen which is acidic in nature:
(b) fluorine is most electronegative element
(a) N3H (b) N2H4 (c) NH3 (d) N4H4
(c) sulphur shows +6 oxidation state
49. Which one of the oxides of nitrogen dimerises into (d) due to steric hindrance water molecule cannot
colourless solid/liquid on cooling? attack S-atom
(a) N2O (b) NO (c) N2O3 (d) NO2
56. Which statement is correct about halogen?
50. The number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is : (a) They are all diatomic and form univalent ions
(a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 7 (d) 6 (b) They are all capable of exhibiting several
oxidation states
51. From the following information (c) They are all diatomic and form diatomic ions
X + H2SO4  Y (a colourless and irritating gas) (d) They are all reducing agents
Y + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4  green coloured solution

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 Page 8 NEET Group Test 7

57. Fluorine is the best oxidising agent because :

(b) ClO2 < Cl2O < ClO 2
(a) it has the highest electron affinity
(b) it has the highest electronegativity (c) Cl2O < ClO 2 < ClO2
(c) it has the highest E oox
(d) ClO 2 < Cl2O < ClO2
(d) it has the highest E ored
63. A radioactive element which can decay to give two noble
58. Iodine vapours are violet in colour because: gases is
(a) the molecules of iodine in vapour phase absorb (a) U 238 (b) Th 232 (c) Ac 239 (d) Ra 226
green and yellow radiations
64. The first noble gas compound obtained was
(b) the molecules of iodine absorb red and violet
radiations and then emit them (a) XePtF6 (b) XeF2 (c) XeF4 (d) XeOF4
(c) it is a solid
(d) it is easily volatile 65. The coloured discharge tube for advertisement mainly
contains
59. Among the elements of group 17, fluorine is the most (a) xenon (b) helium (c) neon (d) argon
reactive owing to its:
(a) electronegativity 66. Maximum number of compound are known in the case
of
(b) small size
(a) neon (b) xenon (c) krypton (d) argon
(c) extremely high oxidising power and low
dissociation energy of F—F bond
67. XeOF6 complete hydrolysis gives
(d) all the above factors are responsible for high
reactivity of fluorine (a) Xe (b) XeO 2 (c) XeO3 (d) XeO 4

60. Which one of the following reacts with chlorine to form

68. XeF4 exists as ......... under ordinary atmospheric
phosgene?
(a) SO2 (b) CO2 (c) NO (d) CO conditions.
(a) solid (b) liquid (c) gas (d) None
61. Which of the following is the anhydride of perchloric
acid? 69. Potassium permanganate acts as an oxidant in alkaline
(a) Cl2O (b) ClO2 (c) Cl2O6 (d) Cl2O7 and acidic media. The final products formed from
KMnO4 in the two conditions are respectively
62. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the
following species is : (a) MnO2– and Mn3+ (b) Mn3+ and Mn2+
(c) Mn2+ and Mn3+ (d) MnO2 and Mn+2
(a) Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO 2
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70. Number of electrons in 3d-orbital of V2+, Cr2+, Mn2+ 75. Which is not an ore of copper?
and Fe2+ are 3, 4, 5, and 6 respectively. Which of the (A) Atacamite (B) Copper glance
following ions will have largest value of magnetic moment (C) Chalcopyrite (D) Cerrusite
(n) ? 76. Which of the following options is incorrectly matched
(a) V2+ (b) Cr2+ (c) Mn2+ (d) Fe2+ ?
Column I Column II
71. Which of the following is the green coloured powder (Metal) (Electrolyte used for electrorefining)
produced when ammonium dichromate is used in (A) Al Al2(SO4)3 aqueous solution
fire works ? (B) Cu (CuSO4 + H2SO4) aqueous solution
(a) Cr (b) CrO3 (C) Zn (ZnSO4 + H2SO4) aqueous solution
(c) Cr2O3 (d) CrO(O2) (D) Sn (SnSO4 + H2SO4) aqueous solution

77. Incorrect match is :

72. When I– is oxidized by MnO 4 in alkaline medium,
(a) Purification of Al metal : Baeyer’s method
I– converts into (b) Polling : Reduction of Cu2O
(c) FeCr2O4 (chromite ore) : NaOH/Na2CO3
(a) IO3 (b) I2 (c) IO4 (d) IO–
(d) Ag : Mac Arthur cyanide process

73. Consider the following statements. 78. Which of the following pair of ores cannot be converted
into corresponding metals by pyrometallurgy ?
(I) La(OH)3 is the least basic among hydroxides of
(a) Ag2S, ZnS (b) Cu2S, HgS
lanthanides.
(c) MnO2, SnO2 (d) None of these
(II) Zr4+ and and Hf4+ possess almost the same ionic
radii 79. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(III) Ce4+ can act as an oxidizing agent Column-I (Metals) Column-II (Ores)
Which of the above is/are wrong ? (A) Tin (1) Calamme
(a) (I) and (III) (b) (II) and (III) (B) Zinc (2) Cassiterite
(c) (II) only (d) (I) only (C) Titanium (3) Cerrusite
(D) Lead (4) Rutile
74. Lanthanide contraction is due to increase in A B C D
(a) shielding by 4f-electrons (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) atomic number (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) effective nuclear charge (c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
(d) size of 4f-orbitals

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80. The size of colloidal particles is in between 87. A first order reaction is 60% complete in 20 min. How
(a) 10–7 – 10–9 cm (b) 10–9 – 10–11 cm long will the reaction take to be 84% complete?
(c) 10–5 – 10–7 cm (d) 10–2 – 10–3 cm (a) 68 min (b) 40 min
81. Among the electrolytes Na2SO4, CaCl2, Al2(SO4)3 and (c) 76 min (d) 54 min
NH4Cl, the most effective coagulating agent for Sb2S3 88. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature
sol is
changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation energy of
(a) Na2SO4 (b) CaCl2
such a reaction will be (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 and
(c) Al2(SO4)3 (d) NH4Cl
log 2 = 0.301)
82. Which is more powerful to coagulate the negative colloid? (a) 53.6 kJ mol–1 (b) 48.6 kJ mol–1
(a) ZnSO4 (b) Na3PO4 (c) 58.5 kJ mol–1 (d) 60.5 kJ mol–1
(C) AlCl3 (d) K4[Fe(CN)6]
89. The half-life of a reaction is halved as the initial
83. The ion that is more effective for the coagulation of As2S3 concentration of the reactant is doubled. The order
sol is of the reaction is
(a) Al3+ (b) Na+ (c) PO34 (d) SO 24  (a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 0

90. For the non-stoichiometric reaction 2A + B  C + D,

84. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are
the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate
0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005, respectively. The correct order
of their protective powers is experiments, all at 298 K.
(a) D < A < C < B (b) C < B < D < A
(c) A < C < B < D (d) B < D < A < C

85. Sulphur colloid is prepared by

(a) mechanical dispersion (b) oxidation
(c) electrical dispersion (d) reduction
The rate law for the formation of C is
86. For a first order reaction the ratio of times to complete
(a) (b)
99.9% and half of the reaction is
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 12 (c) (d)

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Biology Page 11
[NEET-XII] PART - III
NEET Group Test 7

10-April-2018 Genetics and Evolution Marks : 360

=========================================================================================================================
• SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE • 99. What is correct for Blood group ‘O’ ?
This section given multiple choice questions. Each question has four (a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present
choices, (A), (B), (C) & (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. +4 marks (b) A Antigen and b antibody
for each correct answer and –1 for each wrong answer. (c) Antigen and antibody both absent
91. During transcription, if nucleotide sequence of DNA (d) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies.
strand, that is being coded is ATACG, then the
nucleotide sequence in m-RNA would be : 100. Sickle cell anaemia induce to :

(a) UATGC (b) TATGC (a) Change of Amino Acid in  -chain of Haemoglobin
(c) TCTGG (d) UAUGC (b) Change of Amino Acid in  -chain of Haemoglobin

92. Which one of the following triplet codes is correctly (c) Change of Amino Acid in both a or  -chain of
matched with its specificity for an amino acid in haemoglobin
protein synthesis or as ‘start’ or ‘stop’ signal ? (d) Change of Amino Acid either a or  -chain of
(a) UUU-Stop (b) UGU-Leucine Haemoglobin.
(c) UAC-Tyrosine (d) UCG-Start.
101. Independent assortment of genes does not take place
93. According to Operon concept, regulator gene forms when :
(a) An inducer (b) A repressor (a) Genes are located on homologous chromosomes
(c) A small peptide (d) A general inhibitor (b) Genes are linked and located on the same
chromosome
94. In the Operon concept, the regulator gene regulates
(c) Genes are located on non-homologous
chemical reactions by :
chromosomes
(a) Inhibiting transcription of mRNA
(d) All the above.
(b) Inactivating enzymes in the reaction
(c) Inhibiting the substrate in the reactions 102. Dihybrid test cross ratio is :
(d) Inhibiting the migration of m-RNA in cytoplasm (a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
95. Experimental material in the study of DNA replication
has been : 103. Two individuals with similar external appearance but
(a) Escherichia coli different genetic make up have the similar :
(b) Neurospora crassa (a) Genotype(b) Phenotype
(c) Pneumococcus (c) Heterozygote (d) Homozygote
(d) Drosophila melanogaster.
104. Two crosses between the same pair of genotype or
96. The process of translation is : phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes are
(a) Ribosome synthesis reversed in one cross, is known as :
(b) Protein synthesis (a) Test cross (b) Reciprocal cross
(c) DNA synthesis (c) Dihybrid cross (d) Reverse cross.
(d) RNA synthesis 105. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied

97. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA by Mendel are now known to be located on how many
polymerase binds, is called : different chromosomes ?
(a) Regulator (b) Receptor (a) Seven (b) Six (c) Five (d) Four.
(c) Enhancer (d) Promoter. 106. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied
by Mendel was a recessive feature ?
98. When dominant and recessive allele express itself
together, it is called : (a) Round seed shape
(a) Co-dominance (b) Dominance (b) Axial flower position
(c) Amphidominance (d) Pseudodominance. (c) Green seed colour
(d) Green pod colour.
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116. Cause of speciation is :

107. When a cluster of genes show linkage behaviour they :
(a) Random mating (b) Hybridization
(a) induce cell division (c) Isolation (d) Migration
(b) do not show a chromosome map
(c) show recombination during meiosis 117. Sickle-cellanaemia, the best example of natural
(d) do not show independent assortment. selection, is due to gene modification related to
amino acid of :
108. Alleles represent :
(a) First  chain (b) Second  chain
(a) different forms of a gene
(c) Second  chain (d) First a chain.
(b) same loci on homologous chromosomes
(c) two or more forms 118. Darwin’s theory does not include :
(d) All the above. (a) Natural selection
(b) Survival of the fittest
109. If a cross between two plants give 50% tall and 50%
(c) Evolution through inheritance
dwarf progeny, then the parents genotype are :
(d) Struggle for existence.
(a) Tt × Tt (b) Tt × tt
(c) TT × tt (d) TT × Tt. 119. A bacterial culture is treated with streptomycin and a
cast is made. A few columns are able to survive due to:
110. How many different types of gametes can be formed
(a) Selection (b) Adaptation
by F1 progeny, resulting from the cross AABBCC ×
aabbcc ? (c) Induced mutation (d) Mimicry
(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 27 (d) 64 120. Darwin is associated with :

111. A person with blood group A has : (a) Natural selection (b) Mutation
(a) Antigen A and antibody b (c) Inorganic evolution (d) All the above
(b) Antigen B and antibody a 121. Homo sapien directly evolved from :
(c) Antigen A and antibody B (a) Peking man (b) Java man
(d) No antibody and no antigen. (c) Neanderthal (d) Australopithecus
112. Self-fertilising trihybrid plants form : 122. Which of the following features is closely related
(a) Eight different gametes and 64 different zygotes specially with the evolution of humans ?
(b) Four different gametes and sixteen different zygotes (a) loss of tail (b) Binocular vision
(c) Eight different gametes and sixteen different zygotes (c) Flat nails (d) shortening of jaws
(d) Eight different gametes and thirty two different
zygotes. 123. Advanced feature of man over ape is that :
(a) man’s hands are longer
113. In order to find out the different types of gametes (b) man’s hands are shorter
produced by a pea plant having the genotype AaBb, (c) man’s brain is smaller
it should be crossed to a plant with the genotype : (d) man’s spinal cord is curved
(a) aaBB (b) AbBb
(c) AABB (d) aabb. 124. Which of the following is most primitive ancestor of man
?
114. At a particular locus frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and (a) Homo habilis (b) Ramupithecus
that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of (c) Australopithecus (d) Homo
heterozygotes in a random mating population at
equilibrium ? 125. All genes located on the same chromosome :
(a) 0.16 (b) 0.48 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.24. (A) Form different groups depending upon their relative
distance
115. Which of the following provides most evident proof of
(B) Form one linkage group
evolution ?
(C) Will not form any linkage groups
(a) Fossils (b) Morphology
(D) Form interactive groups that affect the phenotype
(c) Embryo (d) Vestigial organs.

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126. Conditions of a karyotype 2 n+1 and 2n ± 2 are called: 135. Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good
(A) Aneuploidy (B) Polyploidy for genes situated on the :
(C) Allopolyploidy (D) Monosomy (A) non-homologous chromosomes
(B) homologous chromosomes ‘
127. Distance between the genes and advantage of (C) extra nuclear genetic element
recombination shows :
(D) same chromosome
(A) a direct relationship
(B) an inverse relationship 136. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one
(C) a parallel relationship effect. The phenomenon is called :
(D) no relationship (A) multiple allelism (B) mosaicism
(C) pleiotropy (D) polygeny
128. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically
normal but carrier female to only some of the male 137. In a certain taxon of insects some have 17 chromosomes
progeny, the disease is : and the others have 18 chromosomes. The 17 and 18
(A) Autosomal dominant chromosome-bearing organisms are
(B) Autosomal recessive (A) males and females, respectively
(C) Sex-linked dominant (B) females and males, respectively
(D) Sex-linked recessive (C) all males
129. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine.
(D) all females
Which one of the following triplets codes for valine ? 138. The inheritance pattern of a gene over general ions among
(A) GGG (B) AAG (C) GAA (D) GUG humans is studied by the pedigree analysis. Character
130. Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood
studied in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to :
group as AB. This is because of: (A) quantitative trait (B) Mendelian trait
(A) Pleiotropy (B) Co-dominance (C) polygenic trait (D) maternal trait
(C) Segregation
139. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling
(D) Incomplete dominance any character is discrete and independent. This
131. ZZ / ZW type of sex determination is seen in :
proposition was based on the:
(A) Platypus (B) Snails (A) results of F3 generation of a cross.
(C) Cockroach (D) Peacock (B) observations that the offspring of a cross made
between the plants having two contrasting
132. A Across between two tall plants resulted in offspring characters shows only one character without any
having few dwarf plants. What would be the genotypes blending.
of both the parents ? (C) self pollination of F1 offsprings
(A) TT and Tt (B) Tt and Tt (D) cross pollination of parental generations
(C) TT and TT (D) Tt and tt
140. Two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are linked. In a dihybrid cross
133. In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3:3:1 ratio it denotes involving these two genes, the F1 heterozygote is
that: crossed with homozygous recessive parental type
(A) The allels of two genes are interacting with each (aa bb) . What would be the ratio of offspring in the
other next generation ?
(B) It is a multigenic inheritance (A) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(C) It is a case of multiple allelism (C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 1
(D) The allels of two genes are segregating
independently. 141. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the
number of phenotypes and genotypes are :
134. Which of the following will not result in variations among (a) phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 16
siblings ? (b) phenotypes - 9; genotypes - 4
(A) Independent assessment of genes (c) phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 8
(B) Crossing over (C) Linkage (d) phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 9
(D) Mutation
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142. In DNA strand the nucleotides are linked by:
(A) glycosidic bonds
(B) phosphodiester bonds
(C) peptide bonds (D) hydrogen bonds
143. Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of sugars
called :
(A) trioses (B) hexoses
(C) Pentoses (D) polysaccharides
144. The fact that
a purine base always paired ^ through
hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base leads to, in
the DNA double helix :
(A) the antiparallel nature
(B) the semiconservative nature
(C) uniform width throughout DNA
(D) uniform length in all DNA
145. The net electric charge on DNA and histones is :
(A) both positive (B) both negative
(C) negative and positive, respectively
(D) zero
146. The promoter site and the terminator site for
transcription are located at :
(A) 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end,
respectively of the transcription unit
(B) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end,
respectively of the transcription unit
(C) the 5' (upstream) end
(D) the 3' (downstream) end
147. Which of the following statements is the most
appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?
(A) It cannot be treated with iron supplements
(B) It is a molecular disease
(C) It confers resistance of acquiring malaria
(D) All of the above
148. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes :
(A) exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(B) exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature
RNA
(C) introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature
RNA
(D) both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA
149. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to
each other by 3'-5' phosphodiester bond. To prevent
polymerisation of nucleotides, which of the following
modifications would you choose ?
(A) Replace purine with pyrirudines
14
NEET Group Test 7
(B) Remove/Replace 3' OH group in deoxy ribose
(C) Remove/Replace 2' OH group with some other
group in deoxy ribose
(D) Both’B’and’C’
150. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand,
because :
(A) DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
(B) DNA dependent DNA polymearse catalyses
polymerisation only in one direction (5' - 3')
(C) it is a more efficient process
(D) DNA ligase has to have a role
151. Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed
by RNA polymerse ?
(A) Initiation (B) Elongation
(C) Termination (D) All of the above
152. Control of gene expression takes place at the level of:
(A) DNA-replication (B) Transcription
(C) Transiation (D) None of the above
153. Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that
interact with RNA polymerase and affect its role in
transcription. Which of the following statements is
correct about regulatory protein ?
(A) They only increase expression
(B) They only decrease expression
(C) They interact with RNA polymerase but do not
affect the expression
(D) They can act both as activators and as repressors
154. Which of the following are the functions of RNA ?
(A) It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to
ribosomes synthesising polypeptides
(B) It carries amino acids to ribosomes
(C) It is a constituent component of ribosomes
(D) All of the above.
155. While analysing the DNA of an organism a total number
of 5386 nucleotides were found out of which the
proportion of different bases were : Adenine = 29%,
Guanine = 17%,, Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = 17%.
Considering the Chargaff s rule it can be concluded that
:
(A) It is a double stranded circular DNA
(B) It is single stranded DNA
(C) It is a double stranded linear DNA
(D) No conclusion can be drawn
156. If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for four
generations in bacteria, the ratio of 15N/15N : 15N/14N
 Page 15 NEET Group Test 7

: 14N/14N containing DNA in the fourth generation (C) biometrics (D) molecular genetics
would be :
165. Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example
(A) 1 : 1 : 0 (B) 1 : 4 : 0
of :
(C) 0 : 1 : 3 (D) 0 : 1 : 7
(A) adaptive radiation (B) transduction
157. In the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand (C) pre-existing variation in the population
of DNA in a transcription unit is : 5' - A T G A A T G - (D) divergent evolution
3', the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would
be: 166. Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of

(A) 5' - A U G A A U C - 3' moving from :

(B) 5' - U A C U U A C - 3' (A) land to water
(C) 5' - C A U U C A U - 3' (B) dry land to wet land
(D) 5' - G U A A G U A - 3' (C) fresh water to sea water
(D) water to land
158. If the base sequence of a codon mmRNA is 5'-AUC-
3', the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be : 167. Which type of selection is industrial melanism observed

(A) 5'-UAC-3' (B) 5'-CAU-3' in moth. Biston bitularia :

(C) 5' - AUG - 3' (D) 5' - GUA - 3' (A) Stabilising (B) Directional
(C) Disruptive (D) Artif
159. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its : 168. Which of the following is an example for connecting
(A) 5'-end (B) 3'-end link species ?
(C) Anti codon site (D) DHU loop (A) Lobe fish (B) Dodo bird
160. To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to :
(C) Sea weed (D) Tyrannosaurus rex
(A) The smaller ribosomal sub-unit, 169. Match the scientists listed under column ‘A’ with ideas
(B) The larger ribosomal sub-unit listed column ‘B’.
(C) The whole ribosome Column - I Column - II
(D) No such specificity exists.
i. Darwin M. abiogenesis
161. In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when : ii. Oparin N. use and disuse of organs
(A) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor iii. Lamarck O. continental drift theory
(B) repressor binds to operator iv. Wagner P. evolution by natural selection
(C) RNA polymerase binds to the operator (a) i-M; ii-P; iii-N; iv-O (b) i-P; ii-M; iii-N; iv-O
(D) lactose is present and it binds to RNA (c) i-N; ii-P; iii-O; iv-M (d) i-P; ii-O; iii-N; iv-M
polymerase.
170. In 1953 S.L. Miller created primitive earth conditions
162. The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man in the laboratory and gave experimental evidence for
are similar in structure, because : origin of first form of life from pre-existing non-living
(A) one organism has given rise to another organic molecules. The primitive earth conditions
(B) they share a common ancestor created include :
(C) they perform the same function (A) low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich
(D) the have biochemical similarities in oxygen
(B) low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing
163. Analogous organs arise due to :
atmosphere
(A) divergent evolution (C) high temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing
(B) artificial selection atmosphere
(C) genetic drift (D) high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing
(D) convergent evolution atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc.
164. (p + q) 2 = P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 represents an equation 171. In case of haemophilia, if the carrier daughter marries a
used in : normal man, then among their daughters
(A) population genetics (B) Mendelian genetics (a) 25% are carrier only
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 Page 16 NEET Group Test 7

(b) 50% carrier and 50% hemophilic

(c) 50% are carrier only
(d) 75% carrier and 25% hemophilic

172. Dominant gene for tallness is T and for yellow colour is

Y. A plant heterozygous for both the traits is selfed, then
the ratio of pure homozygous dwarf and green offspring
would be
(a) 1/4 (b) 4/16 (c) 3/16 (d) 1/16

173. What is possibility of a child with blood group ‘O’ being

born to a mother and father having blood group ‘O’ The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is
and ‘B’ respectively : (a) dominant X-linked (b) recessive X-linked
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100% (c) dominant Y-linked (d) recessive Y-linked
174. If a certain couple shows the probability of having only
179. Haemophilia is a condition where there is .....
half of the sons haemophilic and only half of the
(a) no production of haemoglobin in blood
daughters haemophilic, the parents are likely to be
(b) no production of melanin in the skin
(a) normal mother and haemophilic father
(c) a failure in the clotting mechanism of blood
(b) haemopilic mother and normal father
(d) a delay in the clotting of blood
(c) haemohilia carrier mother and normal father
(d) non-haemophilic carrier mother and haemophilic 180. Trisomy (aneuploidy) is
father (a) 2n + 1 (b) n + 1 (c) n – 1 (d) 2n – 1
175. A normal woman whose father is colourblind marries a
colourbind man. Of all the daughters produced the    
percentage of colourblind would be
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%

176. A dihybrid ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 is obtained instead of

9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This is an example of
(a) complementary genes
(b) supplementary genes
(c) polygenic inheritance
(d) pleiotropic genes

177. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was

colour blind, marries a colour blind man. Suppose
that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This
boy
(a) may be colour blind or may be of normal vision
(b) must be colour blind
(c) must have normal colour vision
(d) will be partially colour blind since he is
heterozygous for the colour blind mutant allele

178. Given below si a pedigree chart showing the inheritance

a certain sex-linked trait in human

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