1

EXCELLENCE REVIEW CENTER,

INC.

NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION

EXAM DRILL 2 (REFRESHER-NOV. 2021)
Situation 1: Proper counseling of couples on the importance of Family Planning will help them be
informed of the right choice of Family Planning Method, proper birth spacing, and addressing the
right number of children.
1) Rosita, 24 years old is sexually active. She complains of burning sensation on urination, itchiness and greenish
vaginal discharges. Which of the following contraceptive methods is contraindicated for Rosita? A. Condom B.
IUD C. OCP D. DMPA
2) In counseling couples about the appropriate Family Planning method for them, which of the following should the
nurse consider as the most important?
A. Occurrence of side effects C. Lifestyle of the couple
B.

Religiosity of the couple D. Cost of the preferred method

3) Suzanne and her partner use a condom as a contraceptive method, but seldom forget to wear one prior to
penile penetration. Her menstrual cycle is 34 days. She tells you that she had unprotected coitus on days 8,
10, 15 and 20 of her last cycle. Which day did she most likely conceive?
A. The 8th day B. The 10th day C. The 15th day D. The 20th day 4) A 24 year old woman comes to
the clinic and says she wants to use a fertility awareness method of contraception. The nurse tells her
that she can determine her fertile days:
A. When she feels hot, as if she has an elevated temperature
B. By assessing whether her cervical mucus is thin and watery
C. By monitoring her emotions for sudden anger or crying
D. By assessing whether her breasts feels sensitive to cool air
5) Dana, 20 years old, chooses subcutaneous implant (Norplant) as her method of reproductive life planning. How
long will these implants be effective?
A. Three months B. Six months C. Three years D. Five years

Situation 2: Consolacion, a 38-week pregnant client with twins, is admitted to a birthing center
in early labor.
6) The nurse is collecting data during an admission assessment of Consolacion. The client has a healthy 5-year-old
 child that was delivered at 35 weeks and tells the nurse that she does not have a history of any type of abortion
or fetal demise. The nurse would document the GTPAL for this client as:
A. G = 3, T = 2, P = 0, A = 0, L = 1 C. G = 1, T = 1, P = 1, A = 0, L = 1
B. G = 2, T = 0, P = 1, A = 0, L = 1 D. G = 2, T = 0, P = 0, A = 0, L = 1
7) One of the fetuses is a breech presentation. Of the following interventions, which will the nurse list as the
lowest priority in planning the nursing care of this client?
A. Attach electronic fetal monitoring
B. Prepare the client for a possible cesarean section
C. Measure fundal height
D. Visually examine the perineum and vaginal opening
8) The nurse monitors the fetal heart rates by placing the external fetal monitor:
A. Over the fetus that is most anterior to the mother’s abdomen
B. Over the fetus that is most posterior to the mother’s abdomen
C. So that each fetal heart rate is monitored separately
D. So that one fetus is monitored for a 15-minute period followed by a 15-minute fetal monitoring period for
the second fetus
9) Upon assessment, the following were noted, oral temperature 99.1oF, pulse 92 bpm, respirations 24 cpm, blood
pressure 140/88 mmHg, fetal heart rate of twin (1) 138 bpm and fetal heart rate of twin (2) 156 bpm. One hour
later, the following changes were noted: blood pressure 156/92 mmHg, fetal heart rate of twin (1) 140 bpm,
and fetal heart rate of twin (2) 154 bpm. The nurse should:
A. Record the vital signs as normal
B. Encourage the client to ambulate to simulate her labor
C. Notify the physician of the change in the blood pressure
D. Apply internal fetal scalp electrode at the next vaginal exam

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10) The nurse knows that which of the following complications is most likely associated with a twin
pregnancy? A. Maternal anemia C. Hemorrhoids
B. Post-term labor D. Gestational diabetes

Situation 3: A child is admitted to the hospital with a history of vomiting and diarrhea for two days.
The admitting diagnosis is gastroenteritis and isotonic dehydration.
11) The nurse understands that isotonic dehydration:
A. Occurs when water and electrolytes are lost in about the same proportions as they exist in the body
B. Occurs when the loss of electrolytes is greater than the loss of water
C. Occurs when the loss of water is greater than the loss of electrolytes
D. Causes the serum sodium level to rise above 150 mEq/L
12) What type of room assignment should the nurse make?
A. A room near the nurse's station so that he can be checked frequently and heard if he vomits
B. A single room with a sink nears the doorway for isolation use
C. A double room with another toddler who also has vomiting and diarrhea
D. A bed in the pediatric intensive care unit, in case dehydration develops
13) Which priority nursing intervention should be included when caring for a client diagnosed with
gastroenteritis? A. Encouraging optimal nutritional intake
B. Alleviating abdominal pain and cramping
C. Administering an oral anti-emetic every 2 hours
D.
 Monitoring intake and output, and electrolyte levels
14) The nurse is assessing the child for dehydration. The nurse determines that the child is moderately
dehydrated if which symptom is noted on assessment?
A. Flat fontanels C. Pale skin color
B. Moist mucous membranes D. Oliguria
15) The nurse prepares to take the child's temperature and avoids which method of
measurement? A. Tympanic B. Axillary C. Rectal D. Electronic

Situation 4: Anacita, a 37-week multigravida pregnant client, and her husband are vacating their
flooded house when her bag of water suddenly ruptures. The hospital is an hour-ride away, and
transportation is not accessible because of the flood. A nurse nearby decides to assist in an
emergency childbirth.
16) The nurse places the client on a dorsal recumbent position. The baby's head emerges through the birth
canal with the bag of water still intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention? A. Tear
the bag of water with fingers C. Assess for the color of amniotic fluid B. Wait for the bag of water to rupture
D. Note the time of crowning
17) As the baby is expelled, the nurse notices that the newborn appears dark blue. In stimulating the newborn
to breathe, the nurse should initially do which of the following?
A. Stroke along the baby's neck from its chest toward its mouth
B. Rub its back or flick the bottom of its feet with your thumb and forefinger
C. Lower its head by grasping the ankles with your hand
D. Give artificial respirations in gentle puffs every 5 seconds
18) As the newborn's head emerges, the nurse observes that the cord coils around the newborn's head. The
nurse knows that to prevent strangulation the cord has to be cut. The nurse appropriately does the following
EXCEPT: A. Wait until pulsations of the cord have stopped before cutting the cord
B. Use a one-edged razor blade soaked in alcohol for 20 minutes to cut the cord
C. Use narrow strips of clean white cloth boiled for 20 minutes to tie the cord
D. Cut 3 inches from the infant's navel
19) After home delivery, the nurse performs the following EXCEPT:
A. Pour soapy water over the vaginal opening
B. Lay a sanitary napkin across the vaginal opening
C. Cleanse the infant
D. Do not wash the infant’s eyes, ears or nose
20) If any part of the baby other than the head is seen at the opening of the birth canal, the nurse has to do the
following EXCEPT:
A. Do not attempt to deliver the infant C. Instruct the mother to cross the legs to delay delivery B.
Proceed to the nearest hospital D. Encourage the mother to rapidly breathe in and out

Situation 5: Elvira Magalpok is a 26-yearl-old woman you admit to a birthing room. She’s been having
contractions 45 seconds long and 3 minutes apart for the last 6 hours. She tells you she wants to have
her baby “natural” without analgesia or anesthesia. Her husband is in the army assigned overseas, so
he is not with her. Although her sister lives only two blocks from the birthing center, Elvira doesn’t
want her called. She asks if she can talk to her mother on the telephone. As you finish assessing
contractions, she screams with pain and shouts, “Ginagawa ko na ang lahat ng makakaya ko!
Kailan ba matatapos ang paghihirap kong ito?”
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21) Elvira did not recognize for over an hour that she was in labor. A sign of true labor
is: A. Sudden increased energy from epinephrine release
B. “Nagging” but constant pain in the lower back
C. Urinary urgency from increased bladder pressure
D. “Show” or release of the cervical mucus plug
22) Elvira asks which fetal position and presentation are ideal. Your best answer would
be: A. Right occipitoanterior full flexion
B. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion
C. Right occipitoposterior with no flexion
D. Left sacroanterior with flexion
23) Elvira is having long and hard uterine contraction. What length of contraction would you report as
abnormal? A. Any length over 30 seconds C. A contraction that peaks at 20 seconds B. A contraction over
70 seconds in length D. A contraction shorter than 60 seconds
24) You assess Elvira’s uterine contractions. In relation to the contraction, when does a late deceleration
begin? A. 45 seconds after the contraction is over C. After every tenth or more contraction B. 30 seconds
after the start of a contraction D. After a typical contraction ends
25) Immediately after the membranes rupture, which of the following should the nurse
check? A. Check the presence of infection C. Check for maternal heart rate
B. Assess for prolapsed umbilical cord D. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid
Situation 6: There had been an increase number of Leptospirosis cases in the country today,
especially in Luzon, as a result of the continuous flooding brought about by typhoons Ondoy and
Pepeng. 26) The period between exposure to Leptospira interrogans and the clinical onset of Leptospirosis is: A.
Ranges from 7-19 days, with average of 10 days
B. 1 day, usually less than 4 days
C. From few hours to 5 days; usually 3 day
D. Short, usually 24 to 72 hours
27) During the Leptospiremic phase, leptospires are present in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
The following are signs and symptoms present in this phase, except:
A. Increase temperature, chest pain and nausea
B. Nausea, vomiting and increase blood pressure
C. Headache, muscle pain and cough
D. Vomiting, myalgia and cephalalgia
28) How many days after infection with leptospires do the blood examination become
positive? A. Fourth week of illness C. Second week of illness
B. Third week of illness D. First week of illness
29) Management and treatment of Leptospirosis is symptomatic but a drug medication is prescribed at 200
mg orally once a week for prevention. What is the drug of choice?
A. Mebendazole B. Zidovudine C. Doxycycline D. Amphotericin 30) A mother of a 9-year-old child asked if it is
possible to be infected while swimming in flood water. Which of the following statements made by the nurse is
true?
A. “This is not possible as long as you have no open wounds while swimming in flood water.” B. “Infection
with leptospirosis is possible with swimming in water contaminated with urine of animals having the
infection.”
C. “You can protect yourself by applying 70% alcohol before swimming
D. “There is no danger during daytime because leptospires die when exposed to sunlight.”

Situation 7: Dengue is a major health concern in the community. There had been a sudden increase in
the incidence of dengue as a result of poor environmental sanitation and increase breeding places for
mosquitoes.
31) In what stage of the acute febrile infection wherein tourniquet test, which may be positive on the 3rd day, may
become negative due to low or vasomotor collapse?
A. Febrile stage C. Invasive Stage
B. Hemorrhagic stage D. Convalescent stage
32) During the first 3 days of infection, the following signs and symptoms are common,
except: A. Abdominal pain and headache
B. Flushing which may be accompanied by vomiting
C. Lowering of temperature
D. Epistaxis and conjunctival infection
33) The nurse should frequently monitor a patient with dengue for developing signs and symptoms of
Dengue Shock Syndrome, which include all of the following, except:
A. Restlessness and cold clammy skin
B. Rapid weak pulse and narrowing of pulse pressure
C. Severe abdominal pain
 D. Hypertension and massive hemorrhage
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34) Rumpel-Leede Capillary-Fragility test is a clinical diagnostic method performed to determine possible
dengue infection. Which of the following steps, done by the nurse, would be considered incorrect? A.
Inflate the blood pressure cuff on the lower arm to a point midway between the systolic and diastolic
pressure for 5 minutes
B. Release the cuff and make an imaginary 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square just below the cuff, at the
antecubital fossa
C. Count the number of petechiae inside the box
D. A test is positive when 25 petechiae per 1 inch square are observed
35) Supportive and symptomatic treatment should be provided to patients with dengue. This includes which of
the following, except:
A. For headache give analgesics such as aspirin
B. Includes intensive monitoring and follow-up
C. Give ORS to replace fluid as in moderate dehydration at 75 ml/kg in 4-6 hours or up to 2-3 liters in adults
D. For fever and muscles pains give paracetamol

Situation 8: WHO is actively monitoring the progress of the pandemic H1N1 infection through
frequent consultations with the WHO Regional Offices. Here in the Philippines, the Department
of Health is strengthening its efforts in the fight against pandemic (H1N1) 2009. 36) The following
are true statements regarding pandemic (H1N1) 2009 infection, except: A. It is a swine origin Influenza A
virus subtype H1N1 virus strain
B.

Existing vaccines against seasonal flu provide no protection

C. The virus is contagious and is believed to spread from human to human in much the same way as seasonal
flu. However, pandemic (H1N1) 2009 infection is more contagious than seasonal flu
D. Pandemic (H1N1) 2009 virus can be transmitted from pigs to humans
37) Individuals that have been identified as “at greatest risk” or highly susceptible to infection by pandemic
(H1N1) influenza virus include the following, except:
A. Elderly (more than 65 years of age) and obese patients
B. Pregnant women during the third trimester of pregnancy
C. Infants and children less than 2 years of age
D. Patients with chronic health conditions, such as cardiovascular, respiratory or liver disease, or diabetes
38) Antiviral drugs are being used to treat pandemic (H1N1) 2009 infection. Which of the following statements
is true?
A. Zanamivir (Relenza) is taken PO as a tablet
B. It is necessary to wait for a laboratory result before starting antiviral drug treatment with either oseltamivir
or zanamivir
C. For oseltamivir (Tamiflu), the standard adult treatment course is one 75 mg capsule twice a day for five
days.
D. M2 inhibitors (amantadine and rimantadine) can be effective for treating pandemic (H1N1) 2009
infection 39) Which of these complications is the most common cause of death among patients with pandemic
(H1N1) influenza?
A. Sepsis B. Respiratory failure C. Dehydration D. Electrolyte imbalance 40) Nurses should be knowledgeable
on the WHO Pandemic Influenza Phases. This six-phased approach allows for easy incorporation of new
recommendations and approaches into existing national preparedness and response plans. The current WHO
phase of pandemic alert is 6, which means:
A. An animal influenza virus circulating among domesticated or wild animals is known to have caused infection
in humans, and is therefore considered a potential pandemic threat
B. There is verified human-to-human transmission of an animal or human-animal influenza reassortant virus
able to cause “community-level outbreaks”
C. A human-animal influenza reassortant virus has caused sporadic cases or small clusters of disease in people,
but has not resulted in human-to-human transmission sufficient to sustain community-level outbreaks D. There
is human-to-human spread of the virus into at least two countries in one WHO region and community level
outbreaks in at least one other country in a different WHO region

Situation 9: The management of solid wastes in the Philippines currently is undergoing several
important changes.
41) Hospitals provide four types of trash bags. In addition, hospitals were required to match the color of the
plastic bag to the color of the storage receptacle to facilitate efficient collection. In a green trash bag, what
type of garbage should be thrown?
A. Non-infectious wet waste or biodegradable/compostable waste
B. Dry and wet infectious waste
C. Non-infectious dry waste or non-biodegradable/non-compostable waste
D. Radioactive waste

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42) Solid wastes are discarded materials such as garbage, rubbish, trash, litter, junk, and refuse from any source
with insufficient liquid content to flow. It can be divided into several components under two broad categories.
The following are biodegradable or putrescible waste, except:
A. Manure B. Carcasses C. Cullet D. Innards
43) Under Section 2 of Presidential Decree No. 825 (providing penalty for improper disposal of garbage and
other forms of uncleanliness and for other purposes). Any person, who shall litter or throw garbage or other
waste matters in public places shall suffer a fine of not less than Php 100 nor more than Php 2,000 or an
imprisonment of:
A. Not less than 6 months nor more than 4 years
B. Not less than 4 weeks nor more than 3 years
C. Not less than 10 days nor more than 2 years
D. Not less than 5 days nor more than 1 year
44) Which among the following is an important requirement for registration and renewal of licenses of
newly constructed and existing hospitals?
A. Hospital waste management program
B. Municipal refuse disposal system
C. Incineration system of hazardous hospital wastes
D. Disinfection treatment to prevent transmission of diseases
45) Which of the following is responsible for the promotion of healthy environmental conditions and prevention
of environmental related diseases?
A.
 Environmental Sanitation Code of the Philippines
B. Center for Health and Development
C. Rural Health and Sanitary Office
D. Environmental and Occupational Health Office (EOHO)

Situation 10: There are other public health programs that the Public Health Nurse must be aware of
as they are an important support in the achievement of quality health services in the community.
46) The Department of Health embarked on a Quality Assurance Program (QAP) with the goal of making DOH
and
LGUs active partners in providing quality health services. QAP was renamed Sentrong Sigla or Centers of
Vitality Movement (SSM), also known as SS Phase I. The goal of SSM was:
A. Integrated public health function standards
B. Quality health care, services and facilities
C. Strengthen local health systems development
D. Establish an efficient system of providing technical and other forms of assistance
47) The following are Core Public Health Programs, except:
A. Safe Motherhood and Family Planning
B. Child Care
C. Prevention and Control of Non-communicable diseases
D. Promotion of Healthy Lifestyle
48) As part of primary health care and because of the increasing cost of drugs, the use of locally available medicinal
plants has been advocated by the Department of Health. Which of the following herbal plant is used primarily as
an anti-fungal?
A. Akapulko B. Tsaang gubat C. Niyug-niyogan D. Sambong
49) Being a country particularly vulnerable to various manmade and natural disasters, the public health nurse
should be able to act accordingly when disaster strikes based on the preparedness and response plan. Which
of the following is a correct principle of emergency preparedness?
A. It should concentrate on documentation rather than on process and people
B. The main objective is to increase morbidity and prevent disability
C. Government officials play a very vital role in the management of disaster
D. Every hospital should have a regularly updated disaster plan.
50) Botika ng Barangay (BnB) refers to a drug outlet created to sell, distribute, offer for sale and/or make
available low-priced generic home remedies over-the-counter (OTC) drugs. Its main goal is to:
A. To promote equity in health by ensuring the availability and accessibility of affordable, safe and effective
quality essential drugs to all, with priority for marginalized, underserved, critical and hard to reach areas B.
To rationalize the distribution of common drugs and medicines among intended beneficiaries C. To serve as
mechanism for the DOH to establish partnership with LGUs and Community Organizations. D. To optimize
involvement of the barangay health workers addressing the health need of the community

Situation 11: Caridad, a 55-year-old woman who has ceased having menses has a family history
of osteoporosis and increasing cholesterol levels over the past several years. Hormone
replacement therapy with conjugated estrogenic substances has been prescribed.
51) Caridad asks why she should take pills since she feels quite well. The nurse’s answer would
be: A. HRT is thought to protect women from heart disease and osteoporosis
B. HRT will help to reestablish the menstrual cycle, thus providing natural protection against heart disease and
osteoporosis
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C. Even though she feels well now, she will soon begin having major health problems and HRT will protect her
against these problems
D. She will be protected from breast cancer by HRT
52) When teaching Caridad about conjugated estrogenic substances, the nurse includes information about
potential drug reactions. Which drug may decrease estrogenic activity?
A. Ampicillin (Omnipen) C. Propranolol (Inderal)
B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
53) The nurse should inform Caridad that estrogens might interfere with the absorption of which of the
following nutrients?
A. Folic acid B. Calcium C. Vitamin K D. Iron
54) The nurse should advise Caridad that estrogen therapy places her at risk for which type of cancer? A. Cervical
cancer B. Endometrial cancer C. Vaginal cancer D. Colon cancer 55) At a follow-up visit, the nurse should assess
Caridad for which of the following adverse cardiovascular reactions to estrogen?
A. Myocardial ischemia B. Cardiac arrhythmias C. Pericarditis D. Hypertension

Situation 12: A child is brought by the mother to the health center. The mother reports that her child
has been experiencing diarrhea for 3 days. Upon assessment, the child cries a lot and has sunken
eyes, but drinks very eagerly.
56) The child's illness can be classified as:
A.

Severe persistent diarrhea C. Severe dehydration

B. Persistent diarrhea D. Some dehydration
57) In treating the child, the nurse should initially:
A. Refer the child to the hospital immediately
B. Give ORS every 4 hours at the health center
C. Give zinc supplements
D. Determine the amount of ORS to give for the first 4 hours
58) If the child vomits while the mother is feeding ORS, the nurse should instruct the mother
to: A. Wait 10 minutes, and then resume feeding the child slowly
B. Continue giving the child extra fluid until the diarrhea stops
C. Give frequent small sips from a cup
D. Wait 10 minutes, and then feed the child with breastmilk
59) In giving extra fluid to the child, which of the following should NOT be given to the
child? A. ORS B. Evaporated milk C. Buko juice D. Rice water
60) The nurse instructs the mother to return to the health center for the following reasons
EXCEPT: A. Follow-up check-up in 2 days C. There is presence of blood in the stool
B. Child is drinking poorly D. Child has not improved in 5 days

Situation 13: Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of its
potential effect on the pregnancy, fetus, or newborn. The following questions pertain to STDs. 61)
Frankie, a promiscuous woman in Manila, submits herself to the clinic for check-up. She complains of vaginal
irritation, redness and a thick cream cheese-like vaginal discharge. As a nurse, you will suspect that Frankie
is having a vaginal infection caused by
A. Gardnerella vaginalis C. Treponema pallidum
B. Candida albicans D. Herpes simplex virus type 2
62) Cecil comes to the health center. Her doctor examines Cecil’s vaginal secretions and finds out that she
has Trichomoniasis infection. Trichomoniasis is diagnosed through which of the following methods? A.
Vaginal secretions are examined in a wet slide that has been treated with potassium hydroxide B. Vaginal
speculum is used to obtain secretions from the cervix
C. A litmus paper is used to test if the vaginal secretions are infected with Trichomoniasis
D. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide treated with zephiram solution
63) The drug of choice for a client with Trichomoniasis is:
A. Flagyl B. Cotrimazole C. Monistat D. Zovirax
64) Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction maybe experienced by the client with syphilis after therapy with
benzathine penicillin G. The characteristic manifestation of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction are:
A. Rashes, itchiness, hives and pruritus
B. Confusion, drowsiness, and numbness of extremities
C. Sudden episode of hypotension, fever, tachycardia, and muscle aches
D. Episodes of nausea and vomiting, with bradypnea and bradycardia
65) Cryocautery may be used in removing the lesions of a client with venereal warts. The healing period after
cryocautery may be completed in 4-6 weeks but may cause some discomforts to the woman. What measures
can alleviate these discomforts?
A. Kegel’s exercise C. Topical steroids
 B. Cool air D. Sitz bath and lidocaine cream

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Situation 14: Human development is one of the time important concepts that a nurse should learn
to be able to deal appropriately with their clients of developmental stages.
66) Which statement best describes when fertilization occurs?
A. When the spermatozoon passes into the ovum and the nuclei fuse into a single cell
B. When the ovum is discharged from the ovary near the fimbriated end of the fallopian tube
C. When the embryo attaches to the uterine wall
D. When the sperm and the ova undergo developmental changes resulting in reduction in the number of
chromosomes
67) A pregnant client asks about fetal development. At approximately what gestational age does the fetus’
single chambered heart begin to pump its own blood through the main blood vessels?
A. 10 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 5 weeks D. 3 weeks
68) How long is the gestational period of a full term pregnancy?
A. Ranging from 245 days to 259 days C. More than 294 days
B. Around 5,554 hours to 5,880 hours D. Averaging 259 to 294 days
69) An 18-year-old woman in her 18th week of pregnancy is being evaluated. Which positive sign of pregnancy
should the nurse expect to be present?
A. Fetal heart tones detectable by Doppler
B. Fetal movement detectable by palpation
C. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound examination
D. Fetal heart tones detectable by fetoscope
70)
A

22-year-old client is 20 weeks pregnant. She asks the nurse about the development of her fetus at this stage.
Which of the following developments occur at 20 weeks age of gestation?
A. The pancreas starts producing insulin and kidneys produce urine
B. The fetus follows a regular schedule of turning, sleeping, sucking and kicking
C. Swallowing reflex has been mastered and the fetus sucks its thumb
D. Surfactant forms in the lungs

Situation 15: A nurse working in the OB ward is aware that she must be familiar with the laws
regulating the practice of Maternal and Child Health Nursing.
71) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Maternity and Paternity Leave Act? A. These acts entitle
leave of 7 days with full pay to all male employees, and 60 days with full pay to women employees giving
birth vaginally
B. Maternity leave is available to a woman-employee giving birth, whether or not she is married to the father
of the child
C. For a male employee to be entitled to paternity leave, he must be married to the woman giving birth and
they must be cohabiting
D. Both maternity and paternity leave are applicable only to first five deliveries
72) Which of the following laws terminate parental authority over the person and property of the
child? A. RA 7876 B. RA 7641 C. RA 6809 D. RA 7610
73) The Rooming-in and Breastfeeding Act of 1992 (RA 7600) promotes mother-infant bonding and
initiates breastfeeding. The following statements are stipulated in the this act EXCEPT:
A. Infants born via NSVD shall be roomed-in within 30 minutes
B. Infants born via cesarean section shall be roomed-in within 5 to 6 hours
C. Infants whose mothers are seriously ill can feed from another mother’s breast
D. Infants with low birth weight but who can suck shall be roomed within 30 minutes
74) Which of the following laws mandate that the fetal death should be registered within 30 days from the time
of death?
A. RA 3573 B. RA 3753 C. RA 9255 D. RA 9262
75) The National Newborn Screening System shall ensure that every baby born in the Philippines is offered the
opportunity to undergo newborn screening and thus be spared from heritable conditions that can lead to
mental retardation and death if undetected and untreated. Which of the following is NOT true regarding RA
9288? A. Spearheaded by the Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG)
B. Newborns requiring intensive care shall be tested by 7 days of age
C. Screening is performed after 24 hours of life but not later than 3 days post delivery
D. Refusal to be tested requires proper documentation

Situation 16: The following are national environmental laws and DOH policies affecting
environmental health and sanitation. Nurses should be knowledgeable on this.
76) The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 provides a comprehensive air pollution management and control
program to achieve and maintain healthy air. This is otherwise known as:
A. R.A. 9003 B. R.A. 8749 C. P.D. 1566 D. P.D. 856
77) Section 28 of Republic Act No. 9275 or the “Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004” states that any person
who commits any of the prohibited acts provided in the immediately preceding section or violates any of
the provision of the said Act or its implementing rules and regulations, shall be fined in the amount of: A.
Not less than Php 1,000 nor more than Php 20,000 for every day of violation
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B. Not less than Php 5,000 nor more than Php 10,000 for every day of violation
C. Not less than Php 10,000 nor more than Php 200,000 for every day of violation
D. Not less than Php 50,000 nor more than Php 100,000 for every day of violation
78) In pursuant of Section 48 of Republic Act No. 9003 or the “Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of
2000,” the following are prohibited acts and is punishable by law, except:
A. Littering, throwing, dumping of waste matters in public places
B. Open dumping, burying of biodegradable or non-biodegradable materials in flood prone areas
C. Open burning of solid waste
D. Causing or permitting the collection of segregated or sorted wastes
79) According to the Supplemental Implementing Rules and Regulations of Chapter II (Water Supply) of the Code
on Sanitation of the Philippines, water refilling stations should regularly monitor their drinking water quality in
the following schedules: monthly (bacteriological quality), every six months (physical and chemical properties)
and annually (biological quality). This law is otherwise known as:
A. R.A. 6969 B. P.D. 856 C. R.A. 7305 D. P.D. 825
80) Citing the need for a full-scale national plan to adapt to global warming and to reduce disaster losses,
President Arroyo signed the Climate Change Act of 2009 or R.A. 9729 that would boost the Philippines’
capacity to brave threats posed by climate change. The following are true regarding the said act, except:
A. Appointment of three commissioners that will assume office for a span of three years B. One
of the commissioners shall serve as the vice chairperson of the anti-climate change body C.
Provides the creation of the Climate Change Commission
D.
 Government agencies, local government units and representatives from the academe, business sector, and
non-government organizations (NGOs) will compose the body’s advisory board to ensure accountability

Situation 17: Jonna Lane is a 6-year-old preschooler. She was reported by her sister to have measles.
She is at home because of fever, upper respiratory problems and white spots in her mouth. 81)
Sources of infection in measles are secretions of the nose and throat of the infectious person. Filterable virus of
measles is transmitted through:
A. Water supply B. Droplet C. Food ingestion D. Sexual contact 82) To render comfort measure is one of the
priorities. This includes care of the skin, eyes, ears, mouth and nose. To clean the mouth, your antiseptic
solution is in some form of which one below?
A. Water B. Sulfur C. Alkaline D. Salt
83) As a public health nurse, you teach the mother and family members of Jonna Lane on the prevention
of complications. Which of the following should be closely watched?
A. Temperature fails to drop C. Inflammation of the nasopharynx
B. Inflammation of the conjunctiva D. Ulcerative stomatitis
84) Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning “red,” the rash appears on the skin in the invasive stage, prior to
eruption, behind the ears. As a nurse, your physical examination must determine complications especially: A.
Otitis media C. Inflammatory conjunctiva
B. Bronchial pneumonia D. Membranous laryngitis
85) Nursing responsibilities for rehabilitation of Jonna Lane includes the provision of:
A. Terminal disinfection C. Immunization
B. Injection of gamma globulin D. Comfort measures

Situation 18: Children with various health conditions although considered common diseases are
difficult to manage. The DOH adopted the recommended integrated case management process
on childhood illnesses.
86) A 4-year-old child, who had recently traveled to a malaria-risk area, developed fever with stiff neck. The
child can be classified by the public health nurse as:
A. Fever: Malaria Unlikely C. Very Severe Febrile Disease
B. Malaria D. Very Severe Febrile Disease/Malaria
87) If a 5-year-old child with a fever of 38.8°C is blood smear positive with no runny nose, the nurse should do
the following as forms of specific treatment, except:
A. Treat the child with an oral antimalarial drug
B. Give first dose of quinine
C. Give one dose of paracetamol
D. Advise to follow up in 2 days if fever persists
88) A 3-year-old child that is classified as having Measles with Eye or Mouth Complications should be given which
of the following for pus draining from the eye?
A. Gentian violet C. First dose of appropriate antibiotics
B. Vitamin A D. Tetracycline eye ointment
89) A 4-year-old child, who lived in a dengue risk area, develops fever and experienced bleeding episodes from
the nose and was tested positive in tourniquet test. The nurse should classify the child under which card
color? A. Pink B. Red C. Green D. Orange

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90) A 5-year-old child who has visible severe wasting and severe palmar pallor should be classified
as: A. Anemia or Very low weight C. Severe malnutrition/anemia
B. Moderate malnutrition/anemia D. Malnutrition with severe anemia

Situation 19: AIDS cases have been all over the country and yet only few are reported cases due to
the stigma attach to it. When caring for AIDS patients, standards of care must be exercised. 91)
When caring for Ms. Boom Boom with AIDS, Nurse Keith should:
A. Use standard precautions C. Plan care to limit direct contact
B. Employ airborne precautions D. Discourage long visits from family members 92)
Which question is least useful in the assessment of Ms. Boom Boom?
A. Are you a drug user? C. What is your method of birth control?
B. Do you have many sex partners? D. How old were you when you became sexually active? 93) Ms. Boom
Boom is receiving a treatment protocol that includes a protease inhibitor. When assessing the client’s response to
this drug, Nurse Keith is aware that a common side effect associated with this classification of drugs is:
A. Diarrhea C. Paresthesias of the extremities
B. Hypoglycemia D. Seeing yellow halos around lights
94) When assessing the oral cavity of Ms. Boom Boom who developed Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia secondary
to AIDS, Nurse Keith notes areas of white plaque on the tongue and plate. At this time, the nurse should: A.
Instruct the client to use meticulous oral hygiene at least once daily
 B.

Scrape an area of one of the lesions and send the specimen for a biopsy
C. Document the presence of the lesions, describing their size, location, and color
D. Realize these lesions are almost universally found in clients with AIDS and require no special treatment
95) The friend of Ms. Boom Boom, who is dying of AIDS, tells Nurse Keith, “Life is not worth living without
my partner.” To help the friend cope with the impending death of his partner, the nurse should plan to: A.
Involve the friend’s support system
B. Explore the friend’s psychotic thoughts
C. Refer the friend to a bereavement group
D. Reinforce the friend’s current self-image

Situation 20: Nursing research is the term used to describe the evidence used to support nursing
practice. Nursing, as evidence based area of practice, has been developing since the time of Florence
Nightingale to the present day, where many nurses now work as researchers based in universities as
well as in the health care settings.
96) Nurse Quedan plans to undertake a research on Community A and B on how they manage their health
on Primary Health Care after an organization and training seminar. This type of research is: A.
Experimental B. Historical C. Descriptive D. Basic
97) The independent variable is:
A. Primary Health Care C. Organization and training seminar
B. Community A and B D. Management of their health
98) In this design, the variable that is being manipulated is:
(1) Independent variable
(2) Organization and training seminar
(3) Dependent variable
(4) Management of Primary Health Care
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4
99) In general, the research process follows the following ordered sequence:
(1) Determination of design
(2) Statement of the problem
(3) Definition of variables
(4) Collection and analysis of data
(5) Review of related literature
A. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 B. 3, 5, 4, 1, 2 C. 2, 5, 3, 4, 1 D. 2, 5, 1, 3, 4 100) Studies done in natural setting
such as this one possess difficulty of controlling which variables? A. Independent variable C.
Extraneous variable
B. Dependent variable D. Organismic variable

***END OF NLE EXAM DRILL 2 (REFRESHER)***

TATAK PEAKER!
TATAK TOPNOTCHER!
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