ROE086: RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES

MCQ Questions

UNIT-I Introduction: Various non-conventional energy resources- Introduction,

availability, classification, relative merits and demerits. Solar Cells: Theory of
solar cells. Solar cell materials, solar cell array, solar cell power plant,
limitations.

UNIT-II Solar Thermal Energy: Solar radiation, flat plate collectors and their
materials, applications and performance, focussing of collectors and their
materials, applications and performance; solar thermal power plants, thermal
energy storage for solar heating and cooling, limitations.

UNIT-III Geothermal Energy: Resources of geothermal energy,

thermodynamics of geothermal energy conversion-electrical conversion, non-
electrical conversion, environmental considerations. Magneto-hydrodynamics
(MHD): Principle of working of MHD Power plant, performance and limitations.
Fuel Cells: Principle of working of various types of fuel cells and their working,
performance and limitations.

UNIT-IV Thermo-electrical and thermionic Conversions: Principle of working,

performance and limitations. Wind Energy: Wind power and its sources, site
selection, criterion, momentum theory, classification of rotors, concentrations
and augments, wind characteristics, performance and limitations of energy
conversion systems.

UNIT-V Bio-mass: Availability of bio-mass and its conversion theory. Ocean

Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC): Availability, theory and working principle,
performance and limitations. Wave and Tidal Wave: Principle of working,
performance and limitations. Waste Recycling Plants.
1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?
a) High pollution
b) Available only in few places
c) High running cost
d) Unreliable supply
2. A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light
directly into electricity by the ____________
a) Photovoltaic effect
b) Chemical effect
c) Atmospheric effect
d) Physical effect
3. Wood is a renewable resource.
a) True
b) False
4. In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power
throughout the year?
a) Dams filled with water
b) High amount of air
c) High intense sunlight
d) Nuclear power
5. The main composition of biogas is _______________
a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
6. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in
renewable energy sources such as wind power, small hydro, biogas and
solar power?
a) Human Resource Development
b) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
d) Health and Family Welfare
7. Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid
interactive renewable power capacity in India?
a) Wind power
b) Solar power
 c) Biomass power
d) Small Hydro power
8. The world‟s first 100% solar powered airport located at ____________
a) Cochin, Kerala
b) Bengaluru, Karnataka
c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
9. Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy?
a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Large hydro
10. Where is the largest Wind Farm located in India?
a) Jaisalmer Wind Park, Rajasthan
b) Muppandal Wind Farm, Tamil Nadu
c) Vaspet Wind Farm, Maharashtra
d) Chakala Wind Farm, Maharashtra
11. Nuclear Energy is a Renewable Energy.
a) True
b) False
12. Which Indian enterprise has the Motto “ENERGY FOREVER”?
a) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
b) Indian Non-Renewable Energy Development
c) Indian Agricultural Development
d) Indian Biotechnology Development
13. A non-renewable resource is a finite resource.
a) True
b) False
14. Which of the below theory is related to non-renewable resources?
a) Game Theory
b) Phlogiston Theory
c) Big Bang Theory
d) Hotelling’s Theory
15. Bill Gates, Chairman of the Board for Terra Power Company is
associated in which of the following non-renewable resources?
a) Earth minerals
 b) Fossil fuels
c) Nuclear energy
d) Metal ores
16. The below schematic diagram represents which life cycle?

a) Carbon Life Cycle

b) Earth minerals Life Cycle
c) Phosphorus Life Cycle
d) Fossil Fuel Life Cycle
17. The primary composition of coal is _______________
a) Nitrogen
b) Carbon
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
18. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for refining, distribution, import,
export of petroleum products and natural gas in India?
a) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
b) Ministry of Fossil Fuel
c) Ministry of Non-Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Oil
19. Where is the first oil well drilled in Asia?
a) Karachi, Pakistan
b) Assam, India
c) Tokyo, Japan
d) Kandy, Sri Lanka
20. The most abundantly available fossil fuel in India is _____________
a) Coal
 b) Natural Gas
c) Petroleum
d) Oil
21. Which of the following nonrenewable energy is not classified under a
fossil fuel?
a) Nuclear
b) Petroleum
c) Oil
d) Natural gas
22. The major non-renewable energy usage in India is___________
a) Coal
b) Petroleum and other liquids
c) Natural gas
d) Nuclear
23. Natural gas is a non-renewable energy.
a) True
b) False
24. How many Nuclear power stations are there in India?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
25. India‟s position in the Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC)
is_________
a) fourth
b) third
c) second
d) first
26. Which country leads in the production of biofuel in the world?
a) United States of America
b) Brazil
c) Germany
d) Argentina
27. India is placed within the top 25 nations, in terms of oil production in the
world.
a) True
b) False
28. Which country produces the largest share of electricity generated by
nuclear power?
a) India
b) France
c) China
d) Japan
29. Total primary energy consumption of fuel in the world is lead by
___________
a) Coal
b) Nuclear
c) Hydro
d) Oil
30. The world‟s top consuming country of domestically produced
hydroelectricity is ___________
a) India
b) Brazil
c) China
d) Japan
31. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they
are___________________
a) Pumped
b) Cooled
c) Burned
d) Pressurized
32. Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn.
a) True
b) False
33. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________
a) Thorium – 232
b) Uranium – 238
c) Uranium – 235
d) Plutonium – 239
34. The blades in wind turbines are connected to________________
a) Nacelle
b) Tower
c) Foundations
d) String
35. In the production of wave energy which form of energy is used?
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wind energy
36. A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a___________________
a) River bed
b) River estuary
c) River end
d) River starting
37. In hydroelectricity power_________________
a) Kinetic energy is transferred to potential
b) Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
c) Solar energy is transferred to wind energy
d) Wind energy is transferred to solar energy
38. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, where the energy is
stored in the batteries?
a) Nickel Sulfur
b) Zinc Cadmium
c) Nickel Cadmium
d) Nickel Zinc
39. According to WHO, how many premature deaths annually linked to air
pollution causing by the burning of fossil fuels?
a) One million
b) Three million
c) Five million
d) Seven million
40. SI unit for energy is_____________
a) Watt
b) Kilogram
c) Newton
d) Joule
41. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as_______________
a) Heat energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Thermal energy
42. A solar cell is a ___________
a) P-type semiconductor
b) N-type semiconductor
c) Intrinsic semiconductor
d) P-N Junction
43. Which of the following materials cannot be used as solar cells materials?
a) Si
b) GaAs
c) CdS
d) PbS
44. The principle of a solar cell is same as the photodiode.
a) True
b) False
45. What is the difference between Photodiode and Solar cell?
a) No External Bias in Photodiode
b) No External Bias in Solar cell
c) Larger surface area in photodiode
d) No difference
46. The I-V characteristics of a solar cell are drawn in the fourth quadrant.
a) True
b) False
47. What should be the band gap of the semiconductors to be used as solar
cell materials?
a) 0.5 eV
b) 1 eV
c) 1.5 eV
d) 1.9 eV
48. Which of the following should not be the characteristic of the solar cell
material?
a) High Absorption
b) High Conductivity
c) High Energy Band
d) High Availability
49. __________ photo voltaic devices in the form of thin films.
a) Cadmium Telluroide
b) Cadmium oxide
 c) Cadmium sulphide
d) Cadmium sulphate
50. __________ is one of the most important materials is also known as
solar grade silicon.
a) Crushed silicon
b) Crystalline silicon
c) Powdered silicon
d) Silicon
51. The term photo voltaic comes from ________
a) Spanish
b) Greek
c) German
d) English
52. A module in a solar panel refers to
a. Series arrangement of solar cells.
b. Parallel arrangement of solar cells.
c. Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
d. None of the above.
53. The efficiency of the solar cell is about
a. 25 %
b. 15 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
54. For satellites the source of energy is
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
d. Cryogenic storage
55. The output of the solar cell is of the order
a. 0.5 W
b. 1.0 W
c. 5.0 W
d. 10.25 W
56. In a fuel cell cathode is of
a. Oxygen
b. Ammonia
 c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon monoxide
57. What is the maximum possible output of a solar array?
a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
58. Output of an average solar cell is
a. 0.5 V
b. 1 V
c. 1.1 V
d. 0.2 V
59. The output of a solar cell is of the order of
a. 0.1 W
b. 0.5 W
c. 1 W
d. 5 W
60. A module is a
a. newly installed solar cell
b. series parallel arrangement of solar cells
c. a series of solar cells when not used for power generation
d. none of the above
61. The major disadvantage, with solar cells for power generation is
a. lack of availability
b. large area requirement
c. variable power
d. high cost
62. The maximum theoretical efficiencies of solar cells could be around
a. 99%
b. 60%
c. 48%
d. 1%
63. Winds caused by greater solar heating of the earth's surface near the
equator than near the northern or southern poles, are known as
a. local winds
b. equatorial winds
c. planetary winds
 d. trade winds
64. Local winds are caused by
(A) differential heating of land and water
(B) differential heating of plains and mountains
(C) any of the above
(D) none of the above
65. The total power of a wind stream is proportional to
(A) velocity of stream
(B) ( velocity of stream )2
(C) (velocity of stream )3
(D) 1/ (velocity of stream)
66. Tidal energy mainly makes use of
(A) kinetic energy of water
(B) potential energy of water
(C) both kinetic as well as potential energy of water
(D) none of the above
67. Which of the following is a reaction turbine
(A) Banki turbine
(B) Jonval turbine
(C) Girard turbine
(D) None of the above
68. Thermal storage of energy is possible in the form of
(A) sensible heat
(B) latent heat
(C) chemical reaction
(D) any of the above
69. Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of
energy?
(A) Tidal power
(B) Geothermal energy
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Wind power
70. Pulverized coal is
(A) coal free from ash
(B) non-smoking coal
(C) coal which bums For long time
(D) coal broken into fine particles
71. Water gas is a mixture of
(A) CO2 and O2
(B) O2and H2
(C) H2, N2 and O2
(D) CO, N2 and H2
72. Coal used in power plant is also known as
(A) steam coal
(B) charcoal
(C) coke
(D) soft coal
73. A 100 MW thermal power-plant will consume nearly how many tonnes
of coal in one hour ?
(A) 50 tonnes
(B) 150 tonnes
(C) 1500 tonnes
(D) 15,000 tonnes
74. For low head and high discharge, the hydraulic turbine used is
(A) Kaplan turbine
(B) Francis turbine
(C) Pelton wheel
(D) Jonual turbine
75. In pumped storage
(A) Power is produced by means of pumps
(B) Water is stored by pumping to high pressures
(C) Downstream water is pumped up-stream during off load periods
(D) Water is re circulated through turbine
76. Cost of operation of which plant is least?
(A) Gas turbine plant
(B) Thermal power plant
(C) Nuclear power plant
(D) Hydroelectric plant
77. In a hydro-electric plant a conduct system for taking water from the
intake works to the turbine is known as
(A) Dam
(B) Reservoir
(C) Penstock
(D) Surge tank
78. A Pelton wheel is
(A) inward flow impulse turbine
(B) Outward flow impulse turbine
(C) Inward flow reaction turbine
(D) Axial flow impulse turbine
79. Running away speed of a Pelton wheel is
(A) Actual operating speed on no load
(B) Full load speed
(C) No load speed when governor mechanism fails
(D) 90% greater than the normal speed
80. Outward radial flow turbines
(A) are impulses turbines
(B) are reaction turbines
(C) are partly impulse partly reaction turbines
(D) may be impulse or reaction turbines
81. A Francis turbine is
(A) Inward flow reaction turbine
(B) Inward flow impulse turbine
(C) Outward flow reaction turbine
(D) Outward flow impulse turbine
82. A Kaplan turbine is
(A) a high head mixed flow turbine
(B) an impulse turbine, inward flow type
(C) an reaction turbine, outward flow type
(D) low head axial flow turbine
83. Advantage of hydro-electric power station is
(A) low operating cost
(B) free from pollution problems
(C) no fuel transportation problems
(D) all of the above
84. Dam: Hydro plant::
(A) Chimney : Gases
(B) Coal: Steam plant
(C) Gas turbine: Steam turbine
(D) Reactor: Nuclear plant
85. In hydro power plants
(A) Initial cost is high and operating cost is low
 (B) Initial cost as well as operating costs are high
(C) Initial cost is low and operating cost is high
(D) Initial cost as well as operating cost is low
86. In which of the following power plant the availability of power is least
reliable ?
(A) Solar power plant
(B) Wind energy
(C) Tidal power plant
(D) Geothermal power plant
87. Geothermal energy is
(A) a renewable energy resource
(B) alternative energy source
(C) inexhaustible energy source
(D) any of the above
88. The disadvantage of renewable sources of energy is
(A) lack of decidability
(B) availability in low energy densities
(C) intermittency
(D) all of the above
89. In the Geysers steam is continuously vented through fissures in the
ground. These vents are called
(A) vent holes
(B) pot holes
(C) fumaroles
(D) sun spots
90. Geologists believe that below the earth's crust, the molten mass exists in
the form of
(A) magma
(B) vent
(C) hot cell
(D) liquation
91. In hydrothermal source of geothermal energy
(A) hot water or steam is available
(B) hot gases are available
(C) molten lava is available
(D) none of the above
92. In axial flow turbines
 (A) only part of the available head is converted into velocity before the
water enters the wheel
(B) water is admitted over part of the circumference
(C) it is possible that the wheel may run full
(D) it is possible to regulate the flow
93. In hydrothermal systems when steam, water and dissolved solids are
available as source of energy, the entrained solids are removed by
(A) filters
(B) centrifugal separators
(C) strainers
(D) none of the above
94. Presence of sand in geopressurized water is likely to cause problems of
(A) erosion
(B) heat exchange
(C) water circulation
(D) all of the above
95. Presence of non-condensable gases in geopressurized water causes
(A) corrosion of parts
(B) pollution
(C) flow problems
(D) all of the above
96. When geothermal energy is available in the form of saline water, power
is developed using
(A) flashed-steam system
(B) binary-cycle system
(C) total flow system
(D) any of the above
97. Petrothermal systems are composed of hot dry rock with
(A) no underground water
(B) large underground water
(C) petrochemicals
(D) dense gases
98. In petrothermal systems of geothermal energy there is hot dry rock but
no underground water. In such systems energy is obtained by
(A) circulating compressed air
(B) pumping water
(C) creating water wells
 (D) none of the above
99. Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called
(A) diffusers
(B) ponds
(C) heliostats
(D) mantle
100. Which of the following area is preferred for solar thermal electric plants
?
(A) mountain tops
(B) hot arid zones
(C) coastal areas
(D) high rainfall zones
101. In solar thermal conversion systems the solar heat is transferred to
(A) water-steam
(B) liquid metals
(C) molten salts
(D) any of the above

102. Turn around efficiency of pump hydro-schemes seldom exceeds

(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 25%
(D) 65%
103. Batteries used for electrical energy storage are
(A) Laclanche cells
(B) Edison cells
(C) Lead acid cells
(D) Any of the above
104. Turn around efficiency of battery energy storage system is around
(A) 75 percent
(B) 50 percent
(C) 25 percent
(D) 10 percent
105. Sodium sulphur batteries use electrolyte consisting of
(A) solid aluminium oxide
(B) dilute sulphuric acid
(C) brine
(D) KOH
106. Which power plant is free from environmental pollution problems ?
(A) Thermal power plant
(B) Nuclear power plant
(C) Hydro-power plant
(D) Geothermal energy power plant
107. In geothermal power plants waste water is
(A) re circulated after cooling in cooling towers
(B) discharged into sea
(C) discharged back to earth
(D) evaporated in ponds
108. Which of the following is not needed in magneto hydrodynamic power
plants ?
(A) Chimney
(B) Combustor
(C) Steam-turbine
(D) Fuel
109. Natural gas is obtained
(A) as by product from blast furnace
(B) as by product from petroleum refining
(C) from earth's surface usually along with crude
(D) from ammonia
110. The amount of energy available in the wind at any instant is proportional
to ___ of the wind speed.
(A) Square root power of two
(B) Square root power of three
(C) Square power
(D) Cube power
111. Wind energy is harnessed as ______ energy with the help of windmill or
turbine.
(A) Mechanical
(B) Solar
(C) Electrical
(D) Heat
112. Winds having following speed are suitable to operate wind turbines.
(A) 5 – 25m/s
(B) 10 – 35m/s
(C) 20 – 45m/s
 (D) 30 – 55m/s
112. The following is (are) the classification of winds
(A) Global wind
(B) Local wind
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
113. Global Cold wind move from
(A) Polar to equatorial region
(B) Equatorial to polar region
(C) Equatorial to oceanic region
(D) Oceanic to Equatorial region
114. Global Cold wind generated from Oceans moves to
(A) Mountains
(B) Equator
(C) Plain areas
(D) Poles
115. _____ force is responsible for forcing the global winds towards
westernly direction.
(A) Coriolis
(B) Gravitational
(C) Centripetal
(D) Centrifugal
116. Global winds towards westernly direction are known as
(A) Trade winds
(B) Western winds
(C) Eastern winds
(D) None of the above
117. Uneven heating occurs on land surface and water bodies are due to
(A) Air Currents
(B) Solar radiation
(C) Lunar eclipse
(D) None of the above
118. The following factor(s) affects the distribution of wind energy
(A) Mountain chains
(B) The hills, trees and buildings
(C) Frictional effect of the surface
(D) All of the above
119. The wind intensity can be described by
(A) Reynolds number
(B) Mach number
(C) Beaufort number
(D) Froude number
120. The wind speed is measured using an instrument called
(A) Pyranometer
(B) Manometer
(C) Anemometer
(D) Wind vane
121. The rate of change of wind speed with height is called
(A) Wind shear
(B) Wind rose
(C) Wind solidity
(D) None of the above
122. At gradient height the shear force is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of the above
123. The gradient height is about _____ m from the ground.
(A) 500
(B) 1000
(C) 1500
(D) 2000
124. The atmosphere with uniform wind speed is called the ____ atmosphere
(A) Plain
(B) Surface
(C) Free
(D) Shear
125. Surface layer is the air layer considered from the height of local
obstruction to a height of about
(A) 50m
(B) 100m
(C) 150m
(D) 200m
126. Air layer from 100m that extends up to the gradient height is known as
(A) Surface layer
(B) Ekman layer
(C) Boundary layer
(D) None of the above
127. Low solidity rotors use which of the following force for rotation
(A) Drag
(B) Lift
(C) Centrifugal
(D) Centripetal
128. The following is the tangential velocity of the blade due to the rotation
of blade.
(A) Wind velocity
(B) Incident wind velocity
(C) Blade linear velocity
(D) Relative velocity
129. Turbines blades have ____ type cross section to extract energy from
wind.
(A) Aerofoil
(B) Elliptical
(C) Rectangular
(D) All of the above
130. The Nacelle of windmill houses
(A) Gearbox
(B) Brakes
(C) Generator
(D) All of the above
131. What does Heating and cooling of the atmosphere generates?
a) Thermo line circulation
b) Radiation currents
c) Convection currents
d) Conduction currents
132. How much is the energy available in the winds over the earth surface is
estimated to be?
a) 2.9 X 120 MW
b) 1.6 X 107 MW
 c) 1 MW
d) 5MW
133. How much wind power does India hold?
a) 20,000 MW
b) 12,000 MW
c) 140,000 MW
d) 5000 MW
134. What is the main source for the formation of wind?
a) Uneven land
b) Sun
c) Vegetation
d) Seasons
135. Which country created wind mills?
a) Egypt
b) Mongolia
c) Iran
d) Japan
136. “During the day, the air above the land heats up more quickly than the
air over water”.
a) True
b) False
137. What happens when the land near the earth‟s equator is heated?
a) All the oceans gets heated up
b) Small wind currents are formed
c) Rise in tides
d) Large atmospheric winds are created
138. What type of energy is wind energy?
a) Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy
139. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades
140. What is the diameter of wind turbine blades?
a) 320 feet
b) 220 feet
c) 80 feet
d) 500 feet
141. At what range of speed is the electricity from the wind turbine is
generated?
a) 100 – 125 mph
b) 450 – 650 mph
c) 250 – 450 mph
d) 30-35 mph
142. When did the development of wind power in India began?
a) 1965
b) 1954
c) 1990
d) 1985
143. How much power does the small scale wind machine generate?
a) 18 KW
b) 2 KW
c) 12 KW
d) 30 KW
144. Which type of wind machines are used at several residence or local use?
a) Large size machines
b) Remote machines
c) Small size machines
d) Medium size machines
145. Which type of wind turbines produce 100 kW or greater?
a) Large machines
b) Small machines
c) Medium machines
d) Remote Machines
146. Which part of the wind mill acts as a housing for the turbine?
a) Wind Vane
b) Shaft
c) Wind mill head
d) Turbine
147. A rotor installed in a fixed orientation with the swept area perpendicular
to the pre dominate wind direction is called ___________
a) Nacelle
b) Yaw fixed machines
c) Blades
d) Anemometer
148. How is the action of yaw controlled in small turbines?
a) Tail vane
b) Blades
c) Shaft
d) Yaw motor
149. Which part of the wind turbines senses wind speed, wind direction, shaft
speed and torque?
a) Turbine blade
b) Shaft
c) Rotor
d) Controller
150. Which type of wind turbine has low RPM?
a) Small wind turbine
b) Large wind turbine
c) Medium wind turbine
d) Remote wind turbine
151. Why recommendation of fixed ratio gears done for top mounted
equipment?
a) Because they are easy install
b) Requires less space
c) Due to its low cost
d) Because of their high efficiency
152. Which type of generator are made use in wind turbines?
a) Recreational generators
b) Synchronous generator
c) Asynchronous generator
d) Alternator
153. In which part do we find sensors and actuators?
a) Fixed gears
b) Turbines
 c) Control systems
d) Blades
154. How many types of supporting tower for wind mill are generally used?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
155. On what does the selection of supporting structure depends?
a) Length of blades
b) Rotating capacity
c) Capacity of generator
d) Transmission systems
156. At what type of location vibrations are more in the wind turbine?
a) Downwind location
b) Up wind location
c) Windward
d) Leeward
157. At what type of location vibrations are less in the wind turbines?
a) Windward
b) Leeward
c) Downwind location
d) Upwind Location
158. Select the formula for total power pt?
a) Pt = 12gc ρAVi3
b) Pt = ρAVi3D3
c) Pt = 12gc Vi3D3
d) Pt = 2gcVi3
159. Why blade velocity of wind turbine varies?
a) Due to varying wind speeds
b) Long length of blades
c) Due to the height of mount
d) Because of hotness of Sun
160. When was the Halladay wind mill introduced?
a) 1920
b) 1923
c) 1854
d) 1864
161. How much ideal efficiency should practical turbine have?
a) 10 – 12%
b) 18 – 25%
c) 80 – 90%
d) 50 – 70%
162. How many types are acting on propeller type wind mill?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
163. Calculate the air density, when 10m/s wind is at 1std atmospheric
pressure and 15oC?
a) 1.226 kg/m3
b) 1.033 kg/m3
c) 2.108 kg/m3
d) 0.922 kg/m3
Explanation: For air, gas constant R = 287 J/kgK, 1atm = 1.01325 X 10 5 Pa
Air density, ρ = P/RT = (1.01325 ×105)/(287(15+273.15)) = 1.226 kg/m3.
164. Calculate the air density when 18m/s wind is at 1std atmospheric
pressure and 34oC?
a) 1.149 kg/m3
b) 1.9 kg/m3
c) 2.88 kg/m3
d) 5.89 kg/m3
165. What is the total power produced if the turbine diameter is 120m?
a) 0.277 KW
b) 1.224 KW
c) 4.28 KW
d) 0.89 KW
Explanation: Total power P,
P = 0.245 X (πD2/4)
= 0.245 X (π (120)2/4)
= 0.277 KW
166. What is the total power produced if the turbine diameter is 90m?
a) 0.155KW
b) 0.982 KW
 c) 1.452 KW
d) 3.12 KW
167. What is the inherent weakness of all wind machines?
a) Their efficiencies
b) Requires powerful winds to make fan rotate
c) Their dependency on the wind speed
d) Cannot be easily repaired
168. Why severe fluctuations in power are always undesirable in windmill?
a) Because they pose power oscillations problems
b) Damage of parts due to fluctuations
c) The efficiency of the plant will be reduced
d) Results in damage to the whole plant
169. Maintenance of constant output at all wind speeds above rating is called
a) Numeric rating scale
b) Tenancy
c) Flat Rating
d) TRP
170. A wind turbine designed too to come into operation at a minimum wind
speed is called _________
a) Cut in velocity
b) Windward
c) Cut out velocity
d) Upwind location
171. Why is wind turbine designed to stop operation at cut out velocity?
a) To protect wheel against damage
b) To make a quick stop in emergencies
c) To improve the efficiency
d) In order to adjust the blades to wind direction
172. The fraction of time during a given period that the turbine is actually on
line is called?
a) Availability factor
b) Flat rating
c) Cut in velocity
d) Cut out velocity
173. Over load factor is also called as _____________
a) availability factor
b) plant operating factor
 c) flat rating
d) cut out velocity
174. How many of windmills are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
175. Name the windmill which has four blades mounted on a central post.
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
176. Name the type of windmill which consists of a sloping, horizontally
weather boarded or thatched tower.
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
177. Which are further improvements on smock mill?
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
178. Which type of windmills are been used for primary purposes?
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
179. In which of the following, does machine rotor drives through a step up
gear box?
a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill
180. The rotor blades are continuously flexed by unsteady aerodynamic
gravitational and inertia loads.
 a) True
b) False
181. Which type of the following consists of single blade?
a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill
182. Which windmill blades are made by an array of wooden slats?
a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Horizontal axis wind mill Dutch type
183. Which type of windmill blades are made out of sheet metal or
aluminum?
a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill
184. Which type of wind mills blade are made out of cloth?
a) Horizontal axis with two aerodynamic blades
b) Horizontal axis propeller type wind mill
c) Horizontal axis multi bladed type wind mill
d) Sail type wind mill
185. Which type of windmill has better performance?
a) Vertical type wind mills
b) Darrieus type machines
c) Magnus effect rotor
d) Horizontal type windmills
186. What does TSR stand for in design consideration of wind mills?
a) Tip speed ratio
b) Torque-synchronous ratio
c) Tip suspension ratio
d) Temporary speed restriction
187. With upto how many propellers can windmills are built?
a) 4
b) 2
 c) 7
d) 6
188. Turbines with how many propellers are used in order to avoid
vibrations?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
189. What type of cross sections does wind turbine blades have?
a) Penta hedral cross section
b) Air foiled type cross section
c) Radar cross section
d) Turbo cross section
190. What does WECS stands for?
a) Wind energy conversion system
b) Wind engine control system
c) Wind energy combined system
d) Wind engine comparison system
191. In which wind measuring device a tubular piece of thin flexible fabric
hanged vertically to determine direction?
a) Wind socks
b) Weather vane
c) Pin wheels
d) Anemometers
192. A device which is used as device for showing direction wind as well
used as a decorative purpose?
a) Wind socks
b) Weather vane
c) Pin wheels
d) Anemometers
193. Which is the wind direction showing device that spins perpendicularly?
a) Wind socks
b) Weather vane
c) Pin wheels
d) Anemometers
194. Which is the device that measures wind direction and its intensity?
a) Wind socks
 b) Weather vane
c) Pin wheels
d) Anemometers
195. What units does the anemometer measure in?
a) Feet per minute
b) Liters per minute
c) Centimeters per minute
d) Meter per seconds
196. Which of the following type of turbine or the rotor requires relatively
low velocity winds for operation?
a) Cup anemometer
b) Savonius rotor
c) Darrieus type rotor
d) Magnus effect rotor
197. Which type of axis does a Savonius Rotor has?
a) Horizontal axis
b) Mediolateral axis
c) Vertical axis
d) Lateral Axis
198. Why is Savonius rotor not suitable for installation?
a) Because of long drive shaft
b) Because of its low capacity motor
c) Because of its typical blade design
d) Due to the light material it is made of
199. When was the Darrieus type machine invented?
a) 1925
b) 1932
c) 1929
d) 1948
200. What form of force acts on the blades of Darrieus machine?
a) Pure tension
b) Compression
c) Shear force
d) Air resistance force
201. Which type of vertical wind machine has relatively low solidity and low
starting torques?
a) Cup anemometer
 b) Savonius rotor
c) Darrieus type rotor
d) Magnus effect rotor
202. Which type of vertical wind machine consists of spinning cylinders?
a) Cup anemometer
b) Savonius rotor
c) Darrieus type rotor
d) Magnus effect rotor
203. Aero turbine is the fraction of power in the wind through the swept area
which is converted into useful mechanical shaft power is called
_____________
a) Coefficient of performance
b) Coefficient of variation
c) Coefficient of lift
d) Coefficient of spin
204. How many basins does a single pool tidal system have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
205. How much energy is estimated as total tidal power that is generated
throughout the world?
a) 2.4 X 106 MW
b) 8.3 X 106 MW
c) 4.9 X 106 MW
d) 12 X 106 MW
206. What is time period for one tide to occur in a day?
a) 6h, 12.5 min
b) 6h, 40.5 min
c) 6h, 0 min
d) 6h, 25.6 min
207. How many high peaks occur in a single pool tidal system?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
208. What happens if the turbine generators are smaller and operate much
longer?
a) Resulting work is reduced
b) High power generation
c) Less power loss
d) Less sound is created
209. On what is two-pool tidal system is less dependent?
a) Barrage
b) Tidal fluctuation
c) Reservoir
d) Gravitational force
210. How much must be the tidal range over barrage to be feasible?
a) 7 meters
b) 25 meters
c) 10 meters
d) 20 meters
211. Any location where the fresh water meets salty water is called
a) Dredging
b) River
c) Delta
d) Estuary
212. What tide of tide is it called when two high tides and two low tides of
approximately equal size occur?
a) Diurnal tide
b) Spring tide
c) Neap tide
d) Semi-Diurnal tide
213. Difference between water height at high tide and water height at low tide
is called _______
a) Tidal Variation
b) Tidal volume
c) Tidal Range
d) Tidal Current
214. What is the movement of water generated by or associated with the
change in mean sea level called?
a) Tidal Variation
b) Tidal volume
c) Tidal Range
d) Tidal Current
215. What is the movement of water away from the shore called?
a) Flood tide
b) Spring tide
c) Ebb tide
d) Neap tide
216. What is the term used for transport of non-cohesive sediments?
a) Dirt drop
b) Flick
c) Littoral drift
d) Droplet drifts
217. Name the process of excavation activity usually carried underwater of
purpose of gathering up bottom sediments.
a) Police drag
b) Dredging
c) Auger suction
d) Anti-eutrophication
218. One Terra-watt is equal ______________
a) 1 trillion-watts
b) 100 trillion-watts
c) 5 trillion-watts
d) 10 trillion-watts
219. How is OTEC caused?
a) By wind energy
b) By geothermal energy
c) By solar energy
d) By gravitational force
220. What does OTEC stand for?
a) Ocean thermal energy cultivation
b) Ocean thermal energy conversion
c) Ocean techno energy conservation
d) Ocean thermal energy consumption
221. Which country has world‟s largest tidal power plant?
a) Netherlands
b) South Korea
c) Laos
d) Bolivia
222. Which type of turbine is commonly used in tidal energy?
a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton wheel
d) Gorlov turbine
223. How is water trapped from coastal waters?
a) By building canals
b) By building dams
c) By digging wells
d) By storing in tanks
224. Water to the turbine is allowed through the __________
a) Pipes
b) Sluice gates
c) Canals
d) Pumps
225. The tides are rhythmic and constant.
a) True
b) False
226. For exactly how much time does it take for one tidal cycle?
a) 22h, 20min
b) 24h, 50min
c) 20h, 10min
d) 22h, 50min
227. What type of tide is it if the difference between high and low tide is
greatest?
a) Diurnal tide
b) Neap tide
c) Spring tide
d) Ebb tide
228. A tide whose difference between high and low tides is least is called as
__________
a) Diurnal tide
b) Neap tide
c) Spring tide
d) Ebb tide
229. Which of the turbine can be mounted vertically and horizontally?
a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Gorlov turbine
d) Francis turbine
230. What types of tides occur when there is so much interference with
continents?
a) Diurnal tide
b) Neap tide
c) Spring tide
d) Ebb tide
231. Kinetic energy that results from the oscillation of water is called
a) Wave energy
b) Tidal energy
c) Ocean thermal energy
d) Hydro energy
232. How is height of wave determined?
a) By wind speed
b) By force of wave
c) By a immersion scale
d) By a floating device
233. What does oscillatory motion at ocean produce?
a) Microseisms
b) Froth
c) Disturbance of currents
d) Currents
234. Waves are caused indirectly by ______
a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Geo-thermal energy
d) Wave energy
235. What are used to reduce to reduce the motion of floats?
a) Back pressure
b) Tubes
c) Damping fins
d) Anchor
236. From what material is the float (platform) made of _____________
a) Molded plastic
b) Thermocole
c) Stainless steel
d) Tubes
237. A _______ attached to the float moves up and down inside a cylinder.
a) chain
b) barrel
c) piston
d) load
238. What type of energy is wave energy?
a) Non – conventional
b) Commercial
c) Non – renewable
d) Exhaustible
239. What is major disadvantage of wave energy?
a) It is not efficient enough
b) It is available only in ocean
c) The harnessing cost is more
d) Unstable during high wind pressures
240. Motion of water in a wave is primarily ________
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Linear
d) Opposite
241. How many number of manifolds are part of a platform of floating
device?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
242. Which device uses the float which has two motions?
a) High level reservoir wave machine
b) Dolphin type wave generator
c) Hydraulic accumulator
d) Float wave power conversion device
243. In which wave machine instead of compressing air, the water itself is
pressurized?
a) High level reservoir wave machine
b) Dolphin type wave generator
c) Hydraulic accumulator
d) Float wave power conversion device
244. Select the correct formula of potential energy in wave energy?
a) PE/A=(1/4)ρa2×g/gc
b) PE = (1/4)ρa2× g/gc
c) A/PE=(1/4)ρa2× g/gc
d) PE/A=(1/4)ρa2 × g
245. Select the correct formula of kinetic energy of a wave?
a) KE/A=(1/4)ρa2× g/gc
b) KE = (1/4)ρa2× g/gc
c) KE = (1/4)ρa2
d) KE/A=(1/4)ρa2
246. Which is the type of energy where the energy is harnessed by the heat
accumulated on the surface of water?
a) Wind energy
b) Wave energy
c) Ocean thermal energy conversion
d) Solar energy
247. Water _________ decreases with an increase in temperature.
a) volume
b) density
c) pressure
d) force
248. How many essentially infinite heat reservoirs are present in tropical
waters?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
249. Who first recognized the OTEC?
a) d’Arsonval
b) Alexander Edmond Becquerel
c) James Prescott joule
d) LA Rance
250. From which cycle does maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine
operating between two temperature limits cannot exceed?
a) Carnot cycle
b) Otto cycle
c) Open cycle
d) Anderson cycle
251. Which of the following has the lowest efficiency?
a) Solar energy
b) Wind energy
c) Wave energy
d) OTEC
252. The Claude cycle is also called as __________
a) Open cycle
b) Anderson cycle
c) Closed cycle
d) Otto cycle
253. Anderson cycle is also known as _________
a) Open cycle
b) Claude cycle
c) Closed cycle
d) Otto cycle
254. Who proposed closed cycle approach?
a) Barjot
b) Alexander Edmond Becquerel
c) James Prescott joule
d) LA Rance
255. The working fluid chosen by Anderson OTEC cycle is ______
a) Propane
b) Water
c) Engine oil
d) ISO-butane
256. Which is the working fluid in open cycle?
a) Propane
b) Water
c) Engine oil
d) ISO-butane
257. A continuous movement of water in specific direction is called as
a) float
b) waves
c) current
d) tides
258. The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped inside the
earth surface is called _________
a) Hydrothermal energy
b) Geo-Thermal energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wave energy
259. How much is the average temperature at depth of 10 km of earth
surface?
a) 200oC
b) 900oC
c) 650oC
d) 20oC
260. What is hot molten rock called?
a) Lava
b) Magma
c) Igneous rocks
d) Volcano
261. How many kinds of Geo thermal steams are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
262. What does EGS stand for in geothermal energy?
a) Engraved Geothermal systems
b) Enhanced geothermal system
c) Exhaust gas system
d) Engineered geo physical system
263. Who invented first geothermal plant?
a) Michael Faraday
b) Piero Ginori Conti
c) Enrico Fermi
d) Guglielmo Marconi
264. A geothermal solution containing appreciable amounts of sodium
chloride or other salts is called as __________
a) Fluids
b) Brine
c) Solvent
d) Magma
265. Earth‟s outer layer rock is called as __________
a) Mantle
b) Crust
c) Outer core
d) Asthenosphere
266. The hole on earth‟s surface from where the steam from the earth comes
out is called as ________
a) Gash
b) Mud pot
c) Void
d) Fumarole
267. A spring that shoots jets of hot water and steam into the air is called as
a) Mine hole
b) Geyser
c) Hot spring
d) Mud pot
268. Which kind geothermal plant is most common type?
a) Dry steam
b) Flash
c) Binary
d) Wet steam
269. How much is the efficiency of geothermal plant?
a) 28%
b) 15%
c) 42%
d) 30%
270. What is range of temperature at Hydro thermal reservoirs?
a) 350oC
b) 210oC
c) 50oC
d) 1900oC
271. When do hydrothermal resources arise?
a) When the movement of tectonic plates occurs
b) When the area is prone to volcanic eruptions
c) When water has access to high temperature
d) When temperature on earth surface is very high
272. How does the hot water or steam escape through earth surface?
a) Through fissures
b) Through Pot holes
c) From Wells
d) Through water bodies
273.What is the range of depth of most Hydro thermal wells?
a) 600 – 2100m
b) 50 – 60 m
c) 8 – 10 km
d) 1200 – 5400m
274. How the steam after passing turbine is cooled down in the geo thermal
energy plant?
a) Water cooled
b) Cooling towers
c) Air cooled (Blowers/ air vents)
d) Chemically cooled
275. How much percent of Non-condensable gases are contained in steam?
a) 0.5 – 5%
b) 10 – 25%
c) 75 – 85%
d) 50%
276. The withdrawal of large amounts of steam from a hydrothermal
reservoir may result in ____________
a) landslides
b) surface subsidence
c) light surface
d) loss of land fertility
277. What is the range of range of the water, which comes from degrees of
salinity?
a) 300 – 8000 ppm
b) 4500 – 50,000 ppm
c) 70000 – 85000 ppm
d) 3000 – 280,000 ppm
278. Which among the following systems is used for water in high
temperature range?
a) Vapor dominated systems
b) Flashed steam system
c) Liquid dominated total flow concept
d) Petro thermal systems
279. Which geothermal systems are composed of hot dry rock (HDR) but no
underground water?
a) Hybrid geothermal Fossil system
b) Flashed steam system
c) Liquid dominated total flow concept
d) Petro thermal systems
280. How many possible arrangements are there for Hybrid geothermal
plants?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
281. Which geothermal system utilizes relatively low temperature heat of
geothermal sources?
a) Hybrid geothermal Fossil system
b) Flashed steam system
c) Liquid dominated total flow concept
d) Petro thermal systems
282. How are solids present in steam and water of geothermal energy
removed?
a) Flocculation
b) De-sanding Hydro clones
c) Centrifugal separators
d) Gravity setting
283. How do Non-condensable gases escape from geothermal plant?
a) Air vents
b) Trap holes
c) Condenser ejectors
d) Centrifugal Filters
284. Non condensable are environmentally undesirable because __________
a) tare not soluble
b) they contain Solid particles
c) they partly escape into atmosphere
d) they damage the machineries
285. Which is the environmental problem caused by geothermal energy?
a) Landslide
b) Loose soil
c) Land surface subsidence
d) Loss of fertility of land
286. What is the material used for building turbines in geothermal plant?
a) Chrome steel
b) Bronze alloys
c) Cast iron
d) Copper alloys
287. Which material is recommended for condensate pipes?
a) Cast iron
b) Aluminum
c) Copper
d) Steel
288. Which gas is always present in geothermal fields?
a) CO2
b) H2S
c) N2O
d) H2O
289. Which process could avoid discharging large quantities into the river?
a) Filtration
b) Centrifuge distillation
c) Re-injection
d) Condensation
290. Which among the following is problem caused by geothermal plant?
a) Land usage
b) Noise pollution
c) Global warming
d) Greenhouse effect
291. Which of the following can affect the fisheries in river?
a) Heat pollution
b) Noise pollution
c) Land erosion
d) Air borne poisons
292. Does harnessing of geothermal energy cause earthquakes.
a) True
b) False
293. How many known geothermal areas are there in India?
a) 200
b) 340
c) 147
d) 60
294. Which is an organic matter produced by plants in direct or indirect
forms?
a) Solar energy
b) Biomass
c) Wind energy
d) Bio-fuel
295. What type of energy is biomass energy?
a) Conventional energy
b) Non renewable
c) Commercial energy
d) Sustainable energy
296. The use of biomass energy has the potential to greatly reduce
greenhouse gas emissions.
a) True
b) False
297. __________ is made by combining alcohol with vegetable oil, animal
fat or recycled cooking grease.
a) Biodiesel
b) Biomass
c) Bioelectricity
d) Syngas
298. What type of fire system is used in Bio power?
a) Hand firing
b) Mechanical stoke firing
c) Direct firing
d) Indirect firing
299. Mixing biomass with fossil fuels in conventional power plants is
referred to as ___________
a) Agitation
b) Infuse
c) Co-firing
d) Interbreed
300. Which gas can be chemically converted into other fuels or products,
burned in a conventional boiler, or used instead of natural gas in gas turbine?
a) Freon
b) Natural gas
c) Syngas
d) Noble gas
301. What does natural decay of biomass produces?
a) Ozone
b) Methane
c) Ethane
d) Hydrogen
302. What is used to decompose organic matter in absence of oxygen in
closed reactors?
a) Slugs
b) Fungi
c) Natural consortia
d) Methane
303. What is Ethanol called?
a) Phenol
b) Alcohol
c) Amino acid
d) Butanol
304. Which type of bio products include Antifreeze, plastics, glues, artificial
sweeteners, and gel for toothpaste?
a) Bio products made from sugars
b) Bio products made by waste products
c) Bio products made from decomposition
d) Bio products made from catalytic cracking
305. What is BTU used to measure?
a) Heat content
b) Area
c) Density
d) Volume
306. The process by which plants, some bacteria and some protistans use the
energy from sunlight to produce sugar?
a) Taxonomy
b) Metabolism
c) Photosynthesis
d) Osmosis
307. What is used in conversion of sunlight energy into usable chemical
energy in plants?
a) Anthocyanin
b) Cythochrome
c) Chlorophyll
d) Chitin
308. Complete the following reaction.
H2O + CO2 → ________
a) 6H2O + 6CO2 → C6H12O6 + 6O2
b) 6H2O + 3CO2 → C6H6O6 + 4O2
c) 6H2O + 6CO2 → C6H12O12 + 12O2
d) 6H2O + 4CO2 → C+ HO3
309. Photosynthesis is carried in how many stages?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
310. Photosynthetic organisms which convert light energy into the chemical
energy they need to develop grow, and reproduce are called as?
a) Rubisco
b) Pigment
c) Autotrophs
d) Glucose
311. What is the full form of ATP?
a) Adenosine Tetra-phosphate
b) Adenosine tri-phosphate
c) Adenosine Terra-phosphate
d) Ambient temperature and pressure
312. What does NADPH?
a) Nicotinamide adenosine deca-nucleotide phosphate
b) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
c) Nicotinamide adenine deca-nucleotide phosphate
d) Nicotinamide adenosine dinucleo phosphor
313. Which cycle is preferred for production of carbohydrates?
a) Nutrient cycle
b) Bio geo chemical cycle
c) Calvin – Benson Cycle
d) Sonnet cycle
314. Which is the region within thylakoid where water is split into oxygen?
a) Foramen
b) Serosa
c) Lumen
d) Mucosa
315. Choose the general formula of carbohydrates?
a) [C2H2O2]n
b) [CHO]n
c) [CH2O]n
d) [C2O2]n
316. Energy plantation does not have any impact on Bio-energy.
a) True
b) False
317. ”ATP and NADPH are used to fix CO 2 into carbohydrates” this process
is termed as ________
a) Carbon fixation
b) Reduction
c) Carbon dating
d) Oxidation
318. The organelle in a plant cell where photosynthesis occurs is called
_________
a) Rubisco
b) Chloroplast
c) Thylakoid
d) Pigment
319. A colored molecule is called ________
a) Epoxy
 b) Pigment
c) Gouache
d) Plaster
320. C6H12O6 is a _________
a) Osmophile
b) Trapiche
c) Sugar
d) Butanol fuel
321. How many types of basic organic decomposition occur in Biomass
energy conversion?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

322. Which decomposition process produces carbon dioxide and ammonia?

a) Aerobic decomposition
b) Anaerobic decomposition
c) Thermolysis
d) Thermal decomposition

323. Which decomposition process produces Carbon dioxide and methane?

a) Aerobic decomposition
b) Anaerobic decomposition
c) Thermolysis
d) Thermal decomposition
324. Anaerobic fermentation is how many staged process?
a) Single stage
b) Two – stage
c) 3-stage
d) 4 – stage
325. In what PH range does anaerobic digestion occurs at best?
a) 6.8 – 8.0
b) 0 – 5.0
c) 2.3 – 4.5
d) 3.5 – 7.2
326. Which amount is the ideal carbon-nitrogen ratio for the raw material into
a biogas plant?
a) 30: 1
b) 20: 10
c) 5: 15
d) 1: 8
327. Below which temperature the action off digesting bacteria decreases?
a) 16oC
b) 35oC
c) 28oC
d) 0oC
328. Which is the most suitable temperature for the production of methane in
anaerobic fermentation?
a) 32 – 35oC
b) 18 – 26oC
c) 40 – 48oC
d) 10 – 15oC
329. Too nitrogen will cause ____________
a) Poisonous gases
b) Reduction in fertility of mixture
c) Reduction in quantity of mixture
d) Mixture to harden
330. How much percentage of solid content is present in anaerobic digestion?
a) 8%
b) 2%
c) 32%
d) 50%
331. The central part of an anaerobic plant in an enclosed tank is known as
a) Pit
b) Digester
c) Mixer
d) Feeder
332. What is ADP stand for?
a) Adenosine terra phosphate
b) NADPH
c) Adenosine pyrophosphate
d) Adenosine tri-phosphate
333. What is C3H7O6P?
a) Glyceraldehydes’ 3-phosphate
b) 3-bisphosphoglycerate
c) NADPH
d) Tryptophan
334. Product of anaerobic decomposition involves ___________
a) Methane
b) Lactic acid
c) Oxygen
d) Alcohol
335. Solid remnants of the original input material to the digesters are called
a) Ordure
b) Egests
c) Digestate
d) Manure
336. How are systems intended for the digestions are filled and emptied?
a) Manually
b) By evaporation
c) By pumps and pipes
d) By channels and pits
337. Cow manure is rich in __________
a) Hydrogen
b) Phosphorus
c) Nitrogen
d) Potassium
338. How many weeks does complete digestion of cow manure takes about?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
339. How many weeks does a batch digester need to produce biogas?
a) 1 week
b) 2 – 4 week
c) 12 week
d) 4 – 8 week
340. Which of the following matter has a much higher carbon – nitrogen
ratio?
 a) Vegetable matter
b) Cow dung
c) Plant waste
d) Organic waste from industry
341. Which of the following waste produces more gases comparatively?
a) Vegetable matter
b) Cow dung
c) Plant waste
d) Organic waste from industry
342. How much thick layer of insulation is done inside of digester?
a) 10 cm
b) 15 – 25 mm
c) 8 mm
d) 50 – 100 cm
343. What happens if the organic matter is not stirred while in process of
digestion?
a) It will evaporate
b) It solidifies
c) It will form hard scum on layer
d) It gets struck to digester walls
344. How is biogas from an anaerobic digester collected?
a) In a compressor
b) In the pipelines
c) In inverted drum
d) In a storage tank
345. Which type of valve is used to prevent air being drawn into the digester?
a) Non return valve
b) Poppet vale
c) Return valve
d) Check valve
346. Which types of plants are filled and then emptied completely after fixed
retention time?
a) Batch plants
b) Continuous plants
c) Floating gas holder plants
d) Flexible bag biogas plant
347. What is the major disadvantage of batch plants?
a) Their output is not steady
b) Comes to frequent breakdown
c) They are not efficient
d) They are very costly
348. Which among the following best suitable treatment of waste products?
a) Aerobic fermentation
b) Anaerobic fermentation
c) Autolysis
d) Thermal reaction
349. What does PSD stand for?
a) Post source decay
b) Particle size distribution
c) Polystyrene deuterated
d) Post synaptic density
350. Which is the third stage of anaerobic digestion?
a) Acetogenesis
b) Methanogenesis
c) Acidogenesis
d) Hydrolysis
351. Which types of plant are fed and emptied regularly?
a) Batch type plants
b) Continuous type plants
c) Dome type plants
d) Drum type plants
352. Gas production of continuous plant is higher than which of the following
plant?
a) Batch plant
b) Dome plant
c) Drum plant
d) Flexible gas biogas plant
353. What type of plant is a floating gas holder plant?
a) Batch plant
b) Continuous plant
c) Semi-batch plant
d) Semi-continuous plant
354. For how much percent is biogas normally designed to hold?
a) 35%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 80%
355. Where was fixed dome concept plant developed?
a) China
b) America
c) India
d) Japan
356. Indian fixed dome digesters are designed for holding what pressure
capacity?
a) 0 – 90 cm of water column
b) 70 – 90 cm of water column
c) 50 – 65 cm of water column
d) 10 – 25 cm of water column
357. Fixed dome biogas plant is best suitable for which type of plant?
a) Continuous type
b) Batch type
c) Semi-batch type
d) Semi continuous type
358. Which plants digester is fabricated by using rubber?
a) Flexible Bag biogas plant
b) Fixed dome biogas plant
c) Floating drum biogas plant
d) Khadi and village industries type biogas plant
359. Which type of plant is portable?
a) Flexible Bag biogas plant
b) Fixed dome biogas plant
c) Floating drum biogas plant
d) Khadi and village industries type biogas plant
360. In which type of plant the weight needs to be added on top to build the
desired pressure?
a) Flexible Bag biogas plant
b) Fixed dome biogas plant
c) Floating drum biogas plant
d) Khadi and village industries type biogas plant
361. What is the main advantage of flexible bag plant?
a) The fabrication can be centralized for mass production
b) It has highest gas storage capacity
c) It is portable from place to place
d) Easy to understand and work on it
362. Khadi village industries type biogas plant is example of _________
a) flexible Bag biogas plant
b) fixed dome biogas plant
c) floating drum biogas plant
d) semi-batch type
363. Vertical type KVIC is more commonly used than horizontal type.
a) True
b) False
364. Which part of the KVIC is made of mixture of cement concrete and
brick ballast?
a) Foundation
b) Digester
c) Gas holder
d) Inlet and outlet pipe
365. The ____________ is made of bricks and cement mortar and it‟s inside
wall are plastered with a mixture of cement and sand.
a) Foundation
b) Digester
c) Gas holder
d) Inlet and outlet pipe
366. From what material is biogas holder drum made?
a) Mild steel
b) Cast iron
c) Aluminum alloys
d) Rot iron
367. What is the weight of biogas holder?
a) 8-10 kg/m2
b) 10-15 kg/m2
c) 8-18 kg/m2
d) 25-30 kg/m2
368. What type of movement does a biogas holder of KVIC has?
a) Linear Movement
 b) Transverse movement
c) Rotary movement
d) Circular movement
369. How is the inlet pipe of KVIC made?
a) Cement mortar
b) Asbestos cement concrete
c) White cement
d) PVC
370. How is the outlet pipe of KVIC made?
a) Cement mortar
b) Asbestos cement concrete
c) White cement
d) PVC
371. How is the Biogas outlet pipe of KVIC made?
a) Cement
b) PVC
c) Asbestos
d) GI pipe
372. What is the life time of Floating drum plant?
a) Short
b) Large
c) Life time
d) Average
373. Which plant has no movable parts?
a) KVIC
b) JANATA model
c) Pragati design plant
d) Ferro – cement plant
373. Which part of the janata bio gas plant comprises of the fermentation
chamber and the gas storage chamber?
a) Foundation
b) Digester
c) Inlet chamber
d) Outlet chamber
374. The Gas storage chamber of the digester of janata model is designed to
store what percentage og daily gas?
a) 5%
 b) 19%
c) 33%
d) 58%
375. Which plant has fixed hemi-spherical roof?
a) Fixed dome plant
b) Floating drum plant
c) Chinese plant
d) Flexible bag biogas plant
376. The upper portion of the ______________ is in the shape of bell mouth
and constructed using bricks and cements mortar in fixed dome plant.
a) gas storage chamber
b) inlet chamber
c) outlet chamber
d) digester
377. The outer chamber upper is called as ___________
a) outlet displacement chamber
b) outlet discharge chamber
c) outlet density chamber
d) outlet dwell chamber
378. For minimum of how many days within starting of fermentation,
initiates anaerobic bacterial action?
a) 2
b) 10
c) 14
d) 20
379. What should be the ratio of raw material to water?
a) 1:1
b) 4:1
c) 5:2
d) 3:6
380. Higher loading rates have been used when the ambient temperature is
a) High
b) Low
c) At 0o
d) At medium temperature
381. What is the full form of TVS?
a) Tempered volatile solid
 b) Total variant solid
c) Total volatile solid
d) Termed variant solid
382. ______________ is a major factor in determining the methane yield and
methane production rates from the digestion of biomass.
a) Seeding
b) Contamination
c) Substrate composition
d) Moisture content
383. What is anaerobic digestion PH range?
a) 6.0 – 8.0
b) 1.3 – 4.2
c) 2.5 – 6.5
d) 7.2 – 10.0
384. With a mesophilic flora digestion precedes best at what temperature?
a) 30 – 40oC
b) 65 – 75oC
c) 10 – 30oC
d) 10 -15oC
385. Which of the following two are most important nutrients?
a) Carbon and nitrogen
b) Methane and carbon
c) Methane and oxygen
d) Methane and nitrogen
386. What does excess availability of nitrogen lead?
a) NO3
b) NO2
c) NH3
d) NH4
387. How is potential toxicity, due to ammonia is corrected?
a) By dilution
b) By adding urea
c) By adjusting the temperature
d) By adding extra carbon rich content
388. Which of the following salt group is stimulatory or toxic in action?
a) Sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium
b) Copper, zinc, sodium and magnesium
 c) Copper, calcium, magnesium and potassium
d) Sodium, magnesium, zinc, and potassium
389. Agitation is performed ___________
a) Mechanically
b) Manually
c) By help of cattle
d) Feedstock
390. Which is the initial issue of the biogas plant?
a) Feedstock
b) Contaminants
c) Moisture contents
d) Nutrients
391. The anaerobic digestion can be inhibited.
a) True
b) False
392. What is the percentage at which rated power from biogas in petrol
engine can be developed?
a) 45%
b) 65%
c) 75%
d) 85%
393. Which engine can run on dual fuel with little engine modification?
a) Diesel engine
b) Petrol engine
c) IC engine
d) External combustion engine
394. Which of the SI engine can be run on biogas?
a) Diesel engine
b) Petrol engine
c) IC engine
d) External combustion engine
395. What does CNG stands?
a) Converted natural gas
b) Compressed natural gas
c) Compressed Non-soluble gas
d) Compressed natural gasoline
396. What is the full form of VRA?
a) Vibration resistant appliance
b) Vehicle Refueling Appliances
c) Volatile removal assembly
d) Validated requirement authority
397. A device for converting substances (chemically or physically) into gas is
called ______
a) Gasifies
b) Biogas plants
c) Draughts
d) Gas chambers
398. How many types of gasifiers are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
399. Which is the oldest and simplest type of gasifier?
a) Counter current gasifier
b) Cross draught gasifier
c) Co-current gasifier
d) Fluidized bed gasifier
400. Which is the gasifier that can be operated in small scale/amounts?
a) Counter current gasifier
b) Cross draught gasifier
c) Co-current gasifier
d) Fluidized bed gasifier
401. Which gasifier has better tar converting capacity?
a) Counter current gasifier
b) Cross draught gasifier
c) Co-current gasifier
d) Fluidized bed gasifier
402. Which gasifier has a minimum tar converting capability?
a) Counter current gasifier
b) Cross draught gasifier
c) Co-current gasifier
d) Fluidized bed gasifier
403. Which gasifier equipment has inability to operate on a number of
unprocessed fuels?
a) Counter current gasifier
b) Cross draught gasifier
c) Co-current gasifier
d) Fluidized bed gasifier
404. Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the
sources of renewable energy?
a) Solar energy
b) Wind Energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Hydro-electrical energy
405. What is the rate of solar energy reaching the earth surface?
a) 1016W
b) 865W
c) 2854W
d) 1912W
406. What is total amount of solar energy received by earth and atmosphere?
a) 3.8 X 1024 J/year
b) 9.2 X 1024 J/year
c) 5.4 X 1024 J/year
d) 2.1 X 1024 J/year
407. Which is most common source of energy from which electricity is
produced?
a) Hydroelectricity
b) Wind energy
c) Coal
d) Solar energy408. Oil is estimated to last for ________ more.
a) 100 years
b) 500 years
c) A decade
d) 800 years
409. Complete the following reaction.
H2O + CO2 → _______
a) CH2O + O2
b) CO2 + O2
 c) H + CO2 + O2
d) CH2O + H2O + O2
410. In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun?
a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves
411. What does MHD stands for in the energy field?
a) Magneto Hydro Dynamic
b) Metal Hydrogen Detox
c) Micro Hybrid Drive
d) Metering Head Differential
412. Solar radiation which reaches the surface without scattering or absorbed
is called _____________
a) Beam Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Diffuse radiation
413. The scattered solar radiation is called ____________
a) Direct Radiation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse radiation
d) Infrared Radiation
414. Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called ______________
a) Insolation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse Radiation
d) Infrared rays
415. Insolation is less ____________
a) when the sun is low
b) when the sun right above head
c) at night
d) at sun rise
416. HHW stands for ____________
a) High and Low water
b) High Level Waste
 c) Heated Low Level water
d) High and Low Waste
417. What is unit of nuclear radiation?
a) Reaumur
b) Roentgen
c) Rankine
d) Pascal
418. Which type of fuel is removed from the reactor core after reaching end
of core life service?
a) Burnt Fuel
b) Spent fuel
c) Engine oil
d) Radioactive fuel
419. The amount of energy received in unit time on a unit area perpendicular
to the sun‟s direction at the mean distance of the earth from the sun is called
________
a) Solar radiation
b) Solar constant
c) Intensity of solar radiation
d) Air Mass
420. What is „n‟ in the following solar intensity formula?
I = Isc {1 + 0.033cos (360n/365)}
a) Day of the year
b) Month of the year
c) The year
d) Week of the year
421. When the sun is directly on the top of head, it as referred to _________
a) Zenith
b) Azimuth
c) Declination
d) Hour angle
422. Path length of radiation through the atmosphere to the length of path
when the sun is at zenith is called ___________
a) Declination
b) Air mass
c) Azimuth
d) Solar Constant
423. Radiation intensity „I‟ normal to the surface is given by __________
a) ICosθ
b) Itanθ
c) ICotθ
d) Isinθ
424. Angle made by radial line joining the location to the centre of the earth
with the projection of the line on the equatorial plane is called _________
a) Latitude
b) Zenith angle
c) Hour angle
d) Declination
425. Angular distance of sun‟s rays north or south of the equator is called
a) Declination
b) Hour angle
c) Latitude
d) Air mass
426. By which of the following symbol is solar Declination denoted by
a) δ
b) ρ
c) Δ
d) γ
427. The angle through which the earth must turn to bring the meridian of a
point directly in sun‟s rays is called __________
a) Hour angle
b) Declination
c) Latitude
d) Air mass
428. Solar Altitude is also called as ________
a) Declination
b) Altitude angle
c) Zenith angle
d) Azimuth angle
429. The angle between the sun‟s rays and a line perpendicular to the
horizontal plane through angle the beam of the sun and vertical is called
a) Solar Azimuth angle
b) Zenith angle
 c) Altitude angle
d) Declination
430. The solar angle in degrees along the horizon east or west of north or it is
the horizontal angle measured from north to the horizontal projection of
sun‟s rays is called ___________
a) Solar azimuth angle
b) Zenith angle
c) Altitude angle
d) Declination
431. Angle made by plane surface with horizontal is called ________
a) Slope
b) Altitude angle
c) Zenith angle
d) Hour Angle
432. The angle of deviation of the normal to the surface from the local
meridian is called as _________
a) Surface azimuth angle
b) Solar azimuth angle
c) Solar altitude
d) Hour angle
433. The angle being measured from a plane and which is equal to angle
between the beam of rays and normal to the plane is called __________
a) Incident angle
b) Azimuth angle
c) Hour angle
d) Declination
434. The vector sum of the components along the line normal of the titled
surface in a direction normal to the tilted surface is called as __________
a) Solar intensity
b) Declination
c) Incident angle
d) Hour angle
435. The time from sunrise to sunset is termed as _______________
a) Slope
b) Day length
c) Local solar time
d) Solar intensity
436. LST stands for __________
a) Local standard time
b) Local solar temperature
c) Low surface temperature
d) Land surface temperature
437. How much would be the angle of declination on DECEMBER 21 at
0900 h (LAT). The collector s located in New Delhi (28 o35‟N, 77o12‟E) and
is tilted at an angle of 36o with the horizontal and is pointing south?
a) -44.28o
b) -28.92o
c) -23.45o
d) -42.22o
Explanation: In the case γ = 0o, on December 21, n=355

438. What is angle of declination on 305th day of year and what day is it?
a) -23.26o, November 2
b) -15.06o, November 1
c) -18.96o, November 2
d) -10.52o, November 1
439. What is the angle of declination on May 12 considering it‟s a leap year?
a) 20.34o
b) 22.85o
c) 29.42o
d) 12.4o
440. What is the angle of declination on 60th day of the leap year?
a) -8.29
b) 8.29
c) 4.82
d) 12.44
441. Which type of device is used to measure solar irradiance on a planar
surface?
a) Pyranometer
b) Net radiometer
 c) Gardon gauge
d) Pyrheliometer
442. Instrument used to measure direct beam of solar irradiance is called
a) Pyranometer
b) Net radiometer
c) Gardon gauge
d) Pyrheliometer
443. To how many types are flat plate collectors divided depending on type
of heat transfer fluid?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
444. For what purpose are Gas heating collectors used?
a) To trap solar radiance
b) To act as a medium to help in conversion of sunlight to electrical energy
c) Employed as solar air heaters
d) They act as alternate panels in case of failure
445. Liquid heating collectors are mainly used for _________
a) heating water
b) generating electricity
c) cooking
d) trapping sunlight
446. _______ is a glazing which limits the radiation and convection heat
losses.
a) Absorber plate
b) Selective surface
c) Insulation
d) Transparent cover
447. What are provided to minimize heat loss?
a) Absorber plate
b) Surface plate
c) Insulation
d) Casing
448. Which part of flat plate collectors is coated in black?
a) Transparent cover
b) Absorber plate
 c) Insulation
d) Fins
449. The frame which contains all the parts is called __________
a) box
b) plate
c) enclose
d) container
450. In which collector does air flow without any obstruction?
a) Porous absorber plate
b) Non-porous absorber plate
c) Over lapped glass absorber
d) Finned absorber
451. In which absorber matrix material is arranged and the back absorber
plate is eliminated?
a) Porous absorber plate
b) Non-porous absorber plate
c) Over lapped glass absorber
d) Finned absorber
452. Which type of absorber increases the heat transfer area over a simple flat
plate absorber of the same capacity?
a) Porous absorber plate
b) Non-porous absorber plate
c) Over lapped glass absorber
d) Finned absorber
453. In which type of absorber plate is the overall flow direction is along the
absorber glass plate?
a) Overlapped glass absorber
b) Finned absorber
c) Non-porous absorber plate
d) Porous absorber plate
454. How is heat loss over come in liquid plate collectors?
a) By insulation
b) By casing
c) By the transparent cover
d) From provided tubes
455. Which of these is not a major direct energy conversion device?
a) magnetohydrodynamic
 b) thermionic
c) geothermal
d) fuel cell
456. Which of these is the most promising power generation system?
a) magnetohydrodynamic
b) thermoelectric
c) hydrogen
d) fuel cell
457. Which of these is not a limitation of conventional energy sources?
a) Resources are limited some are seasonal
b) Most of them emit harmful gases contributing to global warming
c) Situated in remote areas and higher T and D losses
d) requires small areas
458. Which of these is a conventional source of energy?
a) sun
b) wind
c) fossil fuels
d) fuel cells
459. Which of these is a non-conventional type of power generation without
prime movers?
a) hydro power
b) thermal
c) nuclear
d) thermoelectric
460. Which of these is not a type of collector in solar power generation?
a) flat plate
b) focusing or concentrating collectors
c) cylindrical parabolic concentrator
d) hyperbolic concentrator
461. Which of these is not a merit of tidal power generation?
a) free from problems of ecology balance
b) everlasting
c) no extra submerging of land is required
d) uneven operation
462. Which of these is not an effect of distributed generation system on
power generation?
a) affects over power generation setting
 b) effect in auto reclosing
c) creation of ferro resonance
d) protection from insulation failure
463. Which of these is not a component of natural gas?
a) methanol
b) methane
c) ethane
d) propane
464. In an open cycle MHD-steam power plant, the temperature at the
entrance of MHD duct is (in K)?
a) 2500-3000
b) 2000-2500
c) 1500-2000
d) 2250
465. The air at the entrance of MHD duct is seeded with potasium upto
a) 7%
b) 5%
c) 3%
d) 1%
466. Air pollution in an MHD-steam power plant is caused due to the
formation of which of the following compounds?
a) oxides and hydroxides
b) chlorides and hydroxides
c) oxides and carbonates
d) carbonates and bicarbonates
467. Which of the following device helps in recovery of seeding element?
a) ion precipitator
b) condenser
c) electrostatic precipitator
d) orsat‟s apparatus
468. In closed cycle MHD-steam power plant, which of the following gas is
seeded in the MHD duct?
a) helium
b) xenon
c) sodium vapour
d) chlorine
469. Where is the input of the MHD duct heated in a closed cycle MHD-
steam power plant?
a) blast furnace
b) nuclear reactor
c) reverabatory furnace
d) combustion chamber
470. Which of these materials are not used for MHD duct walls?
a) magnesium oxide
b) strontium zirconate
c) hafnia
d) manganese zirconate
471. To reduce the power consumption of electromagnets, which type of coils
have been suggested?
a) aluminium
b) high temperature resistant
c) cryogenic & superconducting
d) none of the mentioned
472. Which is the only fuel better than coal for use?
a) natural gas
b) char
c) kerosene
d) benzene
473. Which of these is not a property of MHD power generation?
a) has no moving part, so is reliable
b) overall generation cost is less
c) closed cycle has almost no pollution
d) conversion is about 80-90%
474. Fuel cell converts chemical energy to electrical energy using a reaction
that __________
a) eliminates combustion of fuel
b) requires combustion of fuel
c) requires no ignition of fuel
d) fuel is not required
475. Fuel cell performance is not limited by __________
a) First law of Thermodynamics
b) Second law of Thermodynamics
 c) Third law of Thermodynamics
d) All three laws are applicable
476. For which of these devices does negative charge carriers flow from
anode to cathode in the external circuit?
a) MHD generator
b) Thermionic generator
c) Thermoelectric generator
d) Fuel cell
477. The fuel cell is considered a battery in which ___________ is
continuously replaced.
a) fuel only
b) oxidizer
c) both fuel and oxidizer
d) none of the mentioned
478. The type of reactions in a fuel cell is not determined by __________
a) fuel and oxidizer combination
b) composition of electrolyte
c) materials of anode and cathode
d) catalytic effects of reaction container
479. What is the voltage output of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)
a) -1.23
b) -1.45
c) -1.01
d) -.93
480. What is the voltage output of carbon-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)
a) -.91
b) -1.24
c) -1.02
d) -1.17
481. What is the voltage output of methane-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)
a) -1.16
b) -1.06
c) -1.26
d) -0.96
482. Which of these gases or liquids are not used as source of hydrogen in
fuel cells?
a) C2H6
 b) C2H2
c) C6H6
d) C2H5OH
483. The hydrocarbons cracked with steam in fuel cells do not give rise to
a) CO
b) CO2
c) H2
d) H2O
484. Which of these should not be a properties of fuel cell electrodes?
a) good electrical conductors
b) highly resistant to corrosive environment
c) should perform charge seperation
d) take part in chemical reactions
485. Which of these fuel cell operates at temperature below 100.C?
a) phosphoric fuel cell
b) solid polymer electrolyte fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell
486. Which of these fuel cells operates at high temperatures and pressures?
a) high temperature solid oxide fuel cell
b) alkaline fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) phosphoric acid fuel cell
487. A fuel cell is used to convert chemical energy into ____________
a) Mechanical energy
b) Solar energy
c) Electrical energy
d) Potential energy
488. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.
a) Fuel cells have high efficiency
b) The emission levels of fuel cells are far below the permissible limits
c) Fuel cells are modular
d) The noise levels of fuel cells are high
489. ______________ and suitable catalyst are required to promote high rate
of electrode processes.
a) Lower temperature
b) Higher temperature
 c) Moderate temperature
d) Very low temperature
490. Fuel cells are free from vibrations, heat transfer and thermal pollution.
a) True
b) False
491. A stable interface between solid _________ liquid ____________ and
gaseous ___________ promotes high rate of electrode processes.
a) Fuel, electrolyte, electrode
b) Electrode, fuel, electrolyte
c) Electrode, electrolyte, fuel
d) Fuel, electrode, electrolyte
492. Which of the following is not an example of a fuel cell?
a) Hydrogen-oxygen cell
b) Methyl-oxygen-alcohol cell
c) Propane-oxygen cell
d) Hexanone-oxygen cell
493. The electrolytic solution used in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is
a) 75% KOH solution
b) 25% KOH solution
c) 75% NaOH solution
d) 25% NaOH solution
494. The standard emf of the hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is ____________
a) 1.23 V
b) 2.54 V
c) 3.96 V
d) 0.58 V
495. The residual product discharged by the hydrogen-oxygen cell is
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Alcohol
c) Water
d) Potassium permanganate
496. Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell can produce drinking water of potable
quality.
a) True
b) False
497. Thermocouple is a device which converts thermal energy to electrical
energy and it can be treated as a
 a) Primary device
b) Secondary transducer
c) Tertiary transducer
d) None of the mentioned
498. Operation of thermocouple is governed by _______________
a) Peltier effect
b) Seebeck effect
c) Thomson effect
d) All of the mentioned
499. ______________ describes current flow between two junctions formed
by two different metals.
a) Peltier effect
b) Thomson effect
c) Seebeck effect
d) None of the mentioned
500. Amount of heat liberated or absorbed when 1A current passes is called
____________
a) Thomson coefficient
b) Peltier coefficient
c) Seebeck coefficient
d) None of the mentioned
501. Total seebeck effect can be found as _____________
a) Total peltier effect
b) Total Thomson effect
c) Partly peltier and partly Thomson effect
d) None of the mentioned
502. Which of the following element is used as a thermocouple in nuclear
reactor?
a) Boron
b) Platinum
c) Copper
d) Iron
503.Thermocouple cannot used for measurement of temperature of liquid.
a) True
b) False
504. _________________ can be used as a replacement for thermocouple
lead.
 a) Replacement lead
b) Replica lead
c) Compensating lead
d) None of the mentioned
505. Thermo couple cannot be used to measure ____________
a) Temperature of gas
b) Temperature of liquid
c) IR radiation
d) None of the mentioned
506. Peltier effect is reverse of seebeck effect.
a) True
b) False
507. Thermoelectric energy conversion is due to
A) radiation
B) emission effect
C) thermal energy
D) none of the above
508. The working principle of thermoelectric generator is based on the
principle of
A) Hall
B) Seebeck
C) Faraday
D) None of the above
509. Materials which are employed for electrodes in thermoelectric
generators are of
A) insulators
B) semi-conductors
C) metals
D) conductors
510. Thermionic converter utilizes
A) Thermionic emission effect
B) Peltier effect
C) Seeback effect
D) None of the above