NBDE Part 2 2004 Exam

1. Additional cured silicones (polyvinyl Siloxane) are often the materials of choice for impressions for
fixed restorations. Each of the following is true about these materials except one. Which one is this
exception?
a. give off ethyl alcohol during their setting reaction
b. can be poured more than once and still remain accurate
c. can be poured after 24 hours and still remain accurate
d. rebound from undercuts without permanent deformation
e. may released hydrogen gas during setting

2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the
physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm

4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the
following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heat
b. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light

5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which
of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band

6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?

a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 years
c. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years

7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete
condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional

8 The usual metabolic pathway of ingested fluoride primarily involves urinary excretion with the remaining
portion found largely in the
a. teeth
b. muscle tissue
c. skeletal tissue
d. epidermal tissue

9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following

a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility

10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation

frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a
true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of
edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic
loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading

12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard
swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago.
radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the
following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism

13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength

14 which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)?
a. oxycodone
b. ibuprofen
c. carbamazepine
d. hydrocortisone
e. acetylsalicylic acid

15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior

16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in
the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption

17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is
considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention

18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works

a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function

19 which of the following describes clindamycin

a. inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. does not penetrate well into bony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. is effective against gram-negative bacteria only
e. is effective against most anaerobes

20 dentists usually send their cemento-metal restoration cases to dental lab for fabrication. upon receiving
the cases, these technicians MOST frequently complain that the
a. margines have been ill-defined
b. teeth have been insufficiently reduced
c. shades for the restorations have been inadequately described
d. impressions or models are inaccurate

21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental
management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking

22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by

a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers

23 the dentist is performing a block of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve into which anatomical
area must the local anesthetic solution be deposited or diffused
a. pterygomandibular space
b. pterygopalatine space
c. retropharyngeal space
d. retrobulbar space
e. canine space

24 the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective
grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally
e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally

25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the
following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures

26 inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following
a. trauma from occlusion
b. the nutrient canals
c. the periodontal ligament
d. the course of the vascular channels

27 how many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST affective results
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
e. 14

28 which of the following outlines BEST describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular molar
with four canals
a. oval
b. trapezoidal
c. triangular
d. round

29 which of the following is primarily communicated nonverbally

a. ideas
b. beliefs
c. thoughts
d. emotions
e. concepts
30 which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with
reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion
31 when evaluating an extension-base removable partial denture several years after delivery, the dentist
should apply loading forces to the base area. if an indirect retainer elevates from its rest seat under these
forces, then this indicated the need to
a. tighten the clasps
b. adjust the occlusion
c. reline the base area
d. remake the partial denture
e. advise the patient to use a denture adhesive

32. current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery

33. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is MOST
important for the dentist to consider which of the following
a. The fluoride content of the drinking water
b. the child’s diet and caries activity
c. the child ago and the fluoride content of the drinking water
d. the child’s weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water.

34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is
INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious

35. a patient who takes dicumarol is probably being treated for

a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. coronary infarct
d. paroxysmal tachycardia
e. congestive heart failure

36. the retentive tip of a clasps arm is placed in an undercut BECAUSE a flexible arm is BEST suited for
reciprocation
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOOR the reason is correct

37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either
a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism

38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation

39. which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation
a. dilated pupils with increased light reflex
b. pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
c. dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
d. pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex

a. porphyria
b. progeria
c. acrodynia
d. cystic fibrosis
e. congenital heart disease

41. to enhance a patient’s comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST
important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patient’s oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy

42. which of the following groups of muscle influences the molding of the lingual border of the final
mandibular impression for an edentulous patient
a. hypoglossus, mylohyoid, medial pterygoid, digastric
b. mylohyoid, styloglossus, medial pterygoid, depressor anguli oris
c. palatoglossus, superior pharyngeal constrictor, mylohyoid, genioglossus
d. genioglossus, mylohyoid, middle pharyngeal constrictor, posterior belly of the digastric.

43. after the initial visit, a patient’s decision to return is MOST likely to be influence by the dentist
a. interpersonal skills
b. office design
c. office location
d. technical competence
e. educational credentials

44. which of the following can be a clinical feature of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
a. discrete, spherical vesical
b. temperature-sensitive teeth
c. solitary localized edematous gingival lesion
d. necrotic destruction of interdental gingival tissues

45. increasing mA setting of an x-ray unit raises which of the following

a. photon speed
b. photon wavelength
c. number of photons generated
d. voltage between anode and cathode
e. effective energy of the resultant beam

46. which of the following should be done when a patient presents with a low, attached maxillary frenum,
accompanied by a 3 mm diastema in the early transitional dentition
a. perform a frenectomy when it is first observed.
b. observe until after the eruption of the permanent canines
c. render treatment before the complete eruption of the maxillary incisors
d. instruct the patient to wear an elastic around the teeth to close the diastema

47. an examination of a complete denture patient reveals that the retromolar pad contacts the maxillary
tuberosity at the occlusal vertical dimension. To remedy this situation, which of the following should be
performed
a. reduced the maxillary tuberosity by surgery
b. cover the tuberosity with a metal base
c. increase the occlusal vertical dimension
d. reduce the retromolar pad by surgery
e. omit coverage of the retromolar pad by the mandibular denture.

48. the ability of a patient to make choices among treatment options represents the concept
a. autonomy
b. competence
c. beneficial
d. paternalism

49. a tissue-conditioning materials is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions
a. epulis fissuratum
b. papillary hyperplasia of the candida albicans
c. traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting denture
d. sharp, residual, mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas

50. maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by
surgery.
Therefore, they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prognosis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

51. according to ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist
can announce specialization in which of the following
a. implantology
b. hospital dentistry
c. aesthetic dentistry
d. dental public health
e. geriatric dentistry

52. a patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth, only 6 mandibular anterior teeth, and diastema
between several teeth. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient
a. a lingual bar
b. a lingual plate
c. a lingual bar with a Kennedy bar
d. a lingual plate with interruptions in the plate at the diastemas.

53. symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the
following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.

54. which of the following represents the MOST likely cause of plastic denture teeth being dislodged from
the acrylic resin of the denture base
a. excessive occlusal forces were applied
b. the occlusal surfaces were not placed in the teeth
c. retentive undercuts were not placed in the teeth
d. the mold was contaminated with wax before processing
5. before beginning tooth preparation, the dentist should visualize the outline form to
a. establish the convenience form
b. establish the resistance and retention form
c. prevent over cutting and overextension
d. aid in the finish of enamel walls and margins.

56. which of the following BEST describes adjunctive orthodontics treatment

a. orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliance
b. limited orthodontics treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics
c. orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation
d. early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion

57.a child has a sore ulceration of the lower lip. There is no history of obvious trauma. The ulceration
appeared several hours after the patient received dental treatment. Which of the following represents the
MOST likely diagnosis
a. herpes labialis
b. postanesthetic lip bite
c. chemical burn from aspirin
d. aphthous ulcers secondary to stress
e. allergic stomatitis to the rubber dam.

58 to prove its clinical effectiveness, an antimicrobial agent must demonstrate that it

a. reduces plaque mass
b. helps to reduce disease
c. specifically kills aerobic bacteria
d. specifically kills anaerobic bacteria

59. a 40 years old female patient complains of a painful rapidly developing ulcer on the left side of her
palate. This lesion appears crater like and measure 1.5 cm. Which of the following represents the MOST
likely diagnosis
a. actinomycosis
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. necrotizing sialometaplasia

60. examination reveals a soft, fluctuant, tender swelling in the middle of the hard palate. The teeth test
vital. Radiographs reveals a radiolucent area projected between the roots of the maxillary central incisors.
Which of the following cysts represents the MOST likely diagnosis
a. nasolabial
b. median palatal
c. periapical
d. nasopalatine duct
e. incisive papilla

61. incomplete removal of bacteria, pulp debris, and dentinal shaving is commonly caused by failure to
irrigate thoroughly. Another reason is failure to
a. use broaches
b. use a chelating agent
c. obtain a straight line access
d. use gates-Glidden burs

62. the pulpal floor is perforated during access preparation. Which of the following is the BEST course of
action
a. repair the perforation immediately and continue the root canal treatment
b. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment, only if associated
pathosis develops
c. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment
e. perform no further treatment at this time; repair the perforation and continue the root canal treatment at a
subsequent appointment

63. a 22 years old male patient complaint of dull pain in the posterior left mandibular region. A radiograph
made of this area reveals not only a radiolucency around the first molar roots, but also a radiopacity of bone
peripheral to this radiolucency. Which of the following BEST explains this conditions? It is
a. normal for this patient
b. a developmental abnormal
c. an error in radiograph technique
d. a manifestation of systemic bone disease
e. a reaction to an apical inflammatory disease

64. a 34 years old patient present for a routine oral examination. She has six mandibular anterior teeth
remaining in the mouth. She is asymptomatic and there is no evidence of decay or tooth destruction.
Although slight periodontal disease is present. Radiographically, there are periapical radiolucency present
on two mandibular central incisor. Electric pulp testing indicates all teeth are responsive in a small fashion.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice
a. initiate root canal treatment on the two teeth
b. test cavities on mandibular central incisors
c. identify the dark, potentially necrotic pulp chambers by translumination
d. extract and replace teeth with a mandibular partial denture.
e. no treatment is necessary at this time

65. which of the following represents an effective treatment for mottled enamel(chalky white color mixed
with brown spots)
a. microabrasion with HCL/pumice
b. vital tooth bleaching after root canal treatment
d. in office bleaching with 35% hydrogen peroxide

66. patient who have natural dentitions generate the GREATEST amount of occlusal force during
a. swallowing
b. mastication
c. centric relation
d. parafunctional movement

67. in which of the following teeth does the pulpal anatomy dictate a triangular-access cavity preparation
a. maxillary central incisor
b. maxillary first premolar
c. mandibular second premolar
d. mandibular canine

68. which of the following tissue is MOST sensitive to radiation

a. hemopoietic tissue
b. endothelium
c. skeletal muscle
d. adult brain
e. collagen

69. in communicating with children, which of the following should the dental team do
a. allow the patient to answer questions asked by the clinic at chairside
b. allow both the parent and the dentist to communicate simultaneously with the child
c. transmit word substitutes for dental procedures and equipment during the appointment
d. attain voice control to build the groundwork for future instructions

70. which of the following represents the purpose of an open-ended questions

a. to elicit specific information
b. to test a patient’s truthfulness
c. to gather medical/legal information
d. to produce maximal freedom in response
e. to probe the details about a specific topic

71. where you can find dental literature online?

a. MEDLINE
b. lexus
c. dental literature online
72. what is common to all form of shock
a. neurogenic
b. unconsciousness
c. inadequate perfusion
d. hypovolemia

73. the number of patients with disease divided by the number of patients defines
a. specificity
b. sensitivity
c. prevalence
d. incidence

74. 3.6 ml of prilocaine has how much anesthetic

a. 72 mg
b. 80mg
c. 144mg
d. 36mg

75. which tooth has the most cervical enamel projections

a. mandibular premolar
b. mandibular molars
c. maxillary molars
d. maxillary incisors

76. which can be used as a topical anesthetic

a. etidocaine
b. bupivacaine
c. lidocaine
d. procaine

77. a patient constantly questions and criticized the dentist. What should the dentist do
a. be silent
b. shout at the patient
c. state the criticism
d. clear the patients misconceptions

78. ratio of LD50 to ED50 gives

a. efficacy
b. potency
c. safety
d. toxicity

79. the rate of oral cancer in the US in the past 5 years is

a. increase
b. decrease
c. the same
80. which is the most sensitive to radiation
a. muscle
b. nerve
c. hematopoietic marrow
d. skin

81. after the first visit which of the following will cause the patient to return the MOST
a. office décor
b. front desk
c. interpersonal skills of the dentist
d. sterilization procedure

82. you notice a red area on the palatal of the tooth which was extracted on the previous day. The area is
covered with white slough and is at site of the needle injection. Which is it most likely
a. aspirin burn
b. herpes
c. necrosis due to vasoconstriction
d. normal

83 where do you inject to achieve a block of the maxillary nerve

a. infratemporal fossa
b. pterygomandibular fossa
c. sphenopalatine fossa
d. pterygotympanic fissure

84. in an edentulous patient the tuberosity touches the retromolar pad. What should you do
a. reduce the pad
b. reduce both
c. reduce the tuberosity
d. do not put the borders of the CD on the pad

85. digitalis can lead to

a. hypokalcemia
b. hyponatremis
c. hypocalcemia

86. what is the name for the phenomena of porcelain appearing different under different lights
a. fluorescene
b. incandescence
c. metamerism
d. isomerism

87. a patient has a high caries index, short crowns and minimum horizontal overlap. What restoration will
you plce
a. 3/4 frown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM
d. resin bonded retainer

88. a black female has multiple periapical lucency in the mandibular incisor area. What is the treatment
a. extract
b. RCT
c. no treatment
d. periapical surgery
89. tetracycline stain is incorporated during
a. apposition
b. mineralization
c. calcification

90. Cantilever bridges are not good in the long term BECAUSE periodontal forces are best along the long
axes of tooth
a. statement is correct reason is not
b. statement and reason are correct NOT related
c. statement and reason are correct and related
d. statement is wrong but reason is correct
e. both are wrong

91. how would you treat an unconscious diabetic

a. IV insulin
b. 5% dextrose in water
c. 50% dextrose in water
d. orange juice

92. what drug is used to treat HIV patient

a. acyclovir
b. amantadine
c. zidovudine
d. carbamazepine

93. how stress and illness related?

Stress can lead to illness and illness is stressful

94. which is the most personal relationship of dentist to patient

a. sit directly in front of the patient
b. touch the patient’s shoulder
c. lean slightly towards the patient
d. sit at least 2 feet away

95. after the dentist explains the treatment plan the patient is sad. How will he/she express this
a. gesture
b. ideas
c. eye sign and facial expression
d. by shouting at the dentist

96. which is the most important sign of ankylosis of tooth

a. dull sounding
b. resonant
c. cessation of eruption
d. cross bite

97. in the absent of the permanent tooth, the deciduous tooth will
a. not resorb
b. resorb like usually
c. resorb slowly
d. resorb at the faster rate

98. which of the following is least useful in endo diagnosis of children

a. percussion
b. palpation
c. electric test
d. thermal test

99. which of the following is most likely to cause pulp necrosis

a. intrusion
b. extrusion
c. lateral displacement
d. concussion

100. the initial instrumentation in endo treatment is done until

a. radiographic apex
b. DEJ junction
c. CDJ junction
d. cemental pulpal junction

101. drainage of an acute abscess. Also important is

a. antibiotic
b. analgesic
c. relieve the occlusion
through debridement of the tooth

102. recurrent lesions on ono-keratinized tissue in 20 year old female are most likely
a. herpes labialis
b. herpetic gingivostomatitis
c. aphthous
d. shingles

103. why ask patient open ended questions

a. obtain specific information
b. allows freedom of response
c. obtain yes/no answer

104. a patient gets a blow to the chin. He complains of pain on the right side and the jw deviates to the
right. What is the cause
a. fracture of symptoms
b. fracture of left subcondylar
c. fracture of right subcondylar

105. while doing the access preparation in a mandibular molar you perforate. What will you do next
a. do the endo now and repair later
b. do nothing now, repair both at a later visit
c. repair the perforation and do the endo
d. extract the tooth

106. you will use a larger condenser and lateral condensation in which alloy
a. lathe cut
b. admixed
c. spherical
d. high copper
e. low copper

107. a mandibular molar has 4 canals. How should the access opening be
a. round
b. oval
c. trapezoidal
d. triangular
108. anatomy of which tooth dictates a triangular access opening in to the root canal
a. maxillary premolar
b. maxillary molar
c. maxillary central incisor
d. mandibular lateral incisor

109. repeated asking of questions by a child indicates

a. curiosity of the child
b. interest in the procedure
c. trying to delay the procedure
d. child is abnormal

110. after sedating a child

a. ask child to play alone
b. ask mom to play with the child
c. always keep eye on the status of the child
d. let the child fall asleep

111. autism presents as a problem due to

a. metal retardation of child
b. child playing with hair constantly
c. inability to communication
d. involuntary jerky movements of the child

112. which muscles that affect the lingual border of a mandibular CD

a. mylohyoid, genioglossus, omohyoid, middle constrictor
b. mylohyoid, genioglossus, superior constrictor
c. mylohyoid, genioglossus, superior constrictor, palatoglossus

113. which computer database stored dental literature

a. LEXUS
b. Medline
c. online of dental literature

114. pharmacokinetics and biotransformation of drugs is affected in the elderly due to

a. rapid biotransformation
b. increased half life
c. decreased renal excretion

115. after injection of local anesthesia for the posterior superior alveolar nerve block a sudden swelling
seen on the ipsilateral side extending in the canine region. What is the cause
a. buccal pad of fat
b. loose areolar tissue
c. rupture of posterior superior alveolar vessel
d. leakage of saliva

116. which principle of ethics allows the patient the right to choose his treatment
a. paternalism
b. justice
c. autonomy
d. Malefecience

117. which is the most common complaint of lab technicians regarding a PFM prosthesis
a. improper buccal reduction
b. improper occlusal reduction
c. improper shade selection
d. improper margins in the impression
118. which surface of mandibular first primary molar requires least reduction for a stainless steel crown
a. occlusal
b. buccal
c. lingual
d. proximal

119. which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat
a. deficient margins
b. overextended margins
c. proximal contacts
d. buccal over contouring

120. a patient complains of dull pain and has a carious tooth with a periapical lucency surrounded by an
opacity. What is it
a. abnormal
b. cementoblastoma
c. reaction to inflammation
d. normal

121. Tylenol and ASA are same in all of the following except
a. modes of action
b. onset of action
c. duration of action
d. toxicity

122. which of the following combinations is least addictive

a. Tylenol+ASA
b. tetracycline + penicillin
c. caffeine + amphetamine

123. what will you see if a patient receives a dose of 4Gy on the arm all at one time
a. ulcers
b. vesicles
c. erythema
d. osteosarcoma

124. which of the following cn we see on the radiograph

a. buccal curvature of roots
b. gingival fibers
c. calcification
d. periodontal ligament

125. there is a root fracture in the apical third of the root of a mandibular tooth. What will be the most
likely result
a. root resorption
b. ankylosis
c. vitality will be preserved
d. tooth will show internal resorption

126. there is a root fracture in the middle third of the root in an 11 year old patient. The tooth is mobile and
vital. What will you do
a. extract
b. pulpectomy
c. splint and observe
d. do nothing
127. what is the median of 1111223379?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 7

128. which of the following is a definite sign of traumatic occlusion

a. bone loss
b. gingival recession
c. wear facets
d. food impaction

129. greatest amount of occlusal forces is seen in

a. mastication
b. swallowing
c. parafunctional habit
d. centric relation

130.spread of infection from the gingiva to the bone is via

a. traumatic occlusion
b. vasculature of the periosteum
c. periodontal ligament
d. vasculature of the gingiva

131. which of the following cause the bone loss

a. C3a, C5a
b. endotoxin
c. interleukin
d. B-glucuronidase
132. aspirin burn is what
a. atrophy
b. hyperkeratosis
c. necrosis
d. hyperplasia

133. how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite

a. osteotomy
b. anterior maxillary surgery
c. Le Fort 1
d. Le Fort 2

134. a 6 years old patient has acute lymphatic leukemia. Her deciduous molar has a large carious lesion and
furcation lucency. How will you treat this person
a. pulpotomy
b. pulpectomy
c. extraction
d. nothing

135. bleaching is best when done in which of the following situations

a. necrotic pulp
b. amalgam leached through the tubules
c. precipitation

136. the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient

a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%

137. patient presents tenderness on palpation of the right joint, the jaw deviates to the right on opening and
there is an open bite. What is the cause
a. fracture of the left side
b. bilateral fracture
c. fracture of the right side
d. symphysis fracture

138. which of the following is most radiopaque

a. quartz
b. silica
c. barium

139. an extra oral incision for a submandibular space abscess passes through
a. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, masseter
b. skin, superficial fascia, buccinator
c. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep cervical fascia

140. in restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior overbite of about 2mm. The buccal cusps f
posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true

141. a non working interference occurs in which of the following

inner incline of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth and inner incline of lingual cusp of maxillary teeth

142. a FPD was placed on teeth #18-20 with both retainers being gold crowns. After cementation the
patient returns complaining of sensitivity. What is the next step to do
a. check vitality
b. refer to endodontics
c. check occlusal
d. do a cavity test.

143. which of the following is the composition of water glass ionomer

a. zinc oxide powder and poly acrylic acid
b. aluminosilicate glass and polycitric acid
c. aluminosilicate glass and polyacrylic acid
d. zinc oxide powder and polyacrylic acid.
144. antibiotics help to reduce pockets by
a. resection
b. shrinkage
c. reattachment
d. regeneration

145. scaling is the removal of surface deposits on teeth. Scaling can be done on crown and root surfaces
a. both are false
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are true
d. only the first statement is true
146.all of the following are endogenous opioids except
a. endorphin
b. enkephalin
c. bradykinin
d. dynorphin

147. why is a post placed in an endodontically treated tooth

a. increase the strength of the teeth
b. increase retention of the crown
c. increase retention of the core

148. after a gingivectomy how does the site heal

a. from the epithelium of the pockets
b. epithelium of the adjacent alveolar mucosa
c. endothelium of the blood vessels
d. primary intention

149. what does an interrupted suture accomplished

a. brings the flap closer
b. covers all exposed bone
c. immobilized the flap

150. how is suturing best done

a. over the incision line
b. in a figure of eight to evert the margines
c. from movable to fixed

151. optimal incisal reduction for a metal ceramic crown

a. 1mm
b. 1.5mm
c. 2mm
d. 2.5mm

152. you are considering the placement of an upper and lower important retained complete denture. How
many implants will you place in the anterior region
a. maxillary one and mandibular one
b. maxillary two and mandibular two
c. maxillary four and mandibular two
d. maxillary four and mandibular six

153. what best describes porcelain

a. low compressive strength
b. high tensile strength
c. biocompatible
d. high impact strength

154. a routine class V composite restoration was placed and patient returned the following day complaining
of pain. Which best explains why
a. preparation too deep
b. no liner or base used
c. cervical dentin was exposed during polishing

155. which is the most common intraoral site for a melanoma

a. gingiva
b. buccal mucosa
c. hard palate
d. floor of the mouth

156. patient complains of pain in the lower left posterior region 2 days after extraction. What is the most
common reason
a. normal
b. tumor
c. alveolar osteitis
d. paresthesia

157. patient has front bossing bifid ribs multiple missing teeth. What is the diagnosis
a. cleidocranial dysplasia
b. ectodermal dysplasia
c. Peutz Jeghers syndrome
d. basal cell nevus syndrome

158. which of the following methods is likely to increase the chance of successful dental visits with young
children
a. rewarding appropriate behavior verbally
b. using cooperative patients as model
c. tell/show/do
d. using voice control in negative situations
e. all of above

159. each of the following have increased blood levels due to an active metabolite except
a. diazepam
b. flurazepam
c. taxozin
d. oxazepam
e. chloral hydrate

160. all of the following are mechanism of action of N2O

a. increased onset of action
b. rapidly reversible
c. rapid biotransformation in the liver

161. a 5 years old patient comes for first dental visit

there are no problems. All contacts can be visualized and oral hygiene is good. According to the FDA
guidelines how many radiographs will you take
a. BWS and occlusal
b. BWS
c. none
d. pano

162 what is the common reason for a toxic reaction to local anesthesia
a. hypersensitivity to the anesthesia
b. hypersensitivity to the epi
c. increase vascular concentration of anesthesia
d. extra vascular deposition of anesthesia

163. what is most difficult orthodontic movement to achieve

a. distal mvt of maxillary teeth
b. tilting
c. intrusion

164. A 6 years old child is initially frightened on sitting in the dental chair for the first time. The best
approach for ensuring a productive dental visit for this child is for the dentist to
a. tell child not to move
b. tell child not to be frightened
c. ask the child about his /her fears
d. ask the parent to control the child
e. reschedule the appointment

165. what is radiograph sign of successful pulpotomy in permanent tooth

a. open apex
b. that the apex has found
c. loss of periapical lucency
d. no internal resorption

166. the patient complains that the lower denture keeps popping up what is the most likely reason
a. underextended
b. lack of the tongue space
c. overextended

167. which is the most important factor for the retention of a complete denture
a. periapical seal and atmosphere pressure
b. capillary action
c. peripheral seal and maximum contact of basal tissue

168. all of the following are congenital except

a. dentinal dysplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. regional odontodysplasia
d. ectodermal dysplasia

169. osteoma are seen in

a. Gorlin Goltz syndrome
b. Peutz Jeghers
c. gardener syndrome
d. cleidocranial dysplasia

170. what is the problem if you want to perform apically repositioned flap surgery in the mandibular
second and third molar areas
a. mandibular ramus
b. external oblique ridge
c. mylohyoid ridge
d. poor blood supply to the area

171. mucous gland are seen every where except

a. palate
b. tongue
c. gingiva
d. buccal mucosa

172. stimulation of beta2 receptor will cause

a. vasodilator
b. sweating
c. broncho constriction
d. broncho dilation

173. what would you use to reverse the effect of a narcotic

naloxone
174. cholinomimetic drugs produce
a. mydriasis
b. vasodilation
c increase salivation
d. decrease salivation

175. if the distance is double, the intensity will be

a. same
b. half
c. quarter
d. double

176. how will you increase the number of photon in the x-ray machine
a. increase kVp
b. use a shorter cone
c. increase mA
d. use a film with faster thin speed

177. all forms of the hepatitis are transmitted through blood or bodily fluid except
a. non A non B
b. B
c. A
d. C
e. D

178. a young child aged 4 loses the second primary molar. How will you maintain the space
a. no need to maintain the space
b. lingual bar
c. distal shoes
d. cantilever bridge

179. alcohol abuse is someone who

a. unknown symptom after stop drinking
b. drink more than legal limit
c. intoxicate regularly
d. drink enough to compromise relationship, job, and health.

180. lost apical seating by overinstrument

a. prescribe analgesic and antibiotic
b. increase file size and reduced filling length
c. filled with warm GP

181. degeneration of the myelin sheath of the peripheral nerves in a diabetes may be manifested intraorally
a. causalgia and neuralgia
b. acanthosis and acantholysis
c. vesical and ulcer formation
d. glossopyrosis and glossodynia

182. in cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is

a. silver
b. nickel
c. cobalt
d. chromium
e. tungsten
183. an examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged patient who has worn maxillary complete dentures
for many years against six mandibular anterior teeth would probably show
a. cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine
b. loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch
c. flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch
d. insufficient interocclusal distance

184. overextension of a mandibular denture base in the distofacial area will cause dislodgement of the
denture during function as the result of the action of the
a. masseter muscle
b. buccinator
c. pterygomandibular raphe
d. superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
e. lateral tendon of the temporal muscle

185. corticosteroid may be used to treat

a. asthma
b arthritis
c. allergy
d. addison’s disease
e. any of the above

186. excretion of acidic drugs will be accelerated if

a. Na Bicar
b. NaCl
c. HCl

187. all of the dental procedure will damage soft tissue except one, which one
a. topical treatment of fluoride
b. matrix retainer
c. rubber dam clamp
d. bleaching

188. the most sensitive tissue to radiation

a. thyroid
b. nerve tissue of the pulp
c. salivary tissue
d. prostate gland

189. dentist is doing research on 5 unrelated patient with different background. He record data ……etc.
dentist is doing what kind of research?
a. clinical trial
b. cohort
c. sectional

190. relationship of sugar and cavity except one, which one

a. type
b. time
c. amount
d. consistency
e. concentration

191. difference between acetaminophen and aspirin

a. asthma patient

192. which sedative medication cause dissociation from the world

a. ketamine

193 to be clinical effective, antimicrobial agents needs to show

a. reduced plaque
b. reduced disease
c. specially kill aerobic bacteria
d. specially kill anaerobic bacteria

193. dental management of hearing impairment patient

194. dental management of patient needs wheelchair to transport

195. what precaution you need to take for patient who has cardiac pacemaker
a. antibiotic prophylaxis
b. avoid electrocautery

196. dentist present his treatment to patient and think this is BEST for him/her is called
a. paternalism
c. autonomy
c. mal

197. best antibiotic for children with dental infection

a. penicillin
b. amoxicillin
c. tetracycline
d. streptomycin

198. dental phobia is hard to eliminate because it is

a. self reinforcing
b. become habit
c. patient can not seen

199. 2 factors contribute to protrusive of CD

200. best scale for gingival index

a. ratio
b. nominal
c. interval

201. most of dental fear are from

a. patient’s experiences
b. family and friends

202. “moon face” is seen in

a. hyperthyroidism
b. Addison’s disease
c. corticosteroid

203 Studer-Weber syndrome

a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog

204. patient’s #8 and #9 PFM is little darker than adjacent teeth but is clinically acceptable, what is
treatment you would propose except one
a. redo PFM
b. indirect resin bond to
c. porcelain bond to

205. in DMFS, what does the “S” stand for?

206. which is the acronym for a patient management system

a. recruit
b. success
c. optimum

207. where/how would you administer dextrose to a diabetes patient

a. IM injection
b. oral
c. IV
d. sublingual

208. #29,30,31 all need DO amalgam, which one do first

209. who pay for most of dental care

a. government
b. insurance
c. cash

210. which test is reliable on primary teeth

a. hot
b. cold
c. electric pulp test
d. percussion

211. for beveling gingival margin, what not to use

a. hatches
b. gingival margin trimmer
c. thin taper bur

212. hatches and gingival trimmer different in what

213. all of the following are affected in removed plaque except one
a. toothpick
b. H2O irrigation
c. toothbrush
d. floss

214. preload of implant is comparable t what force

a. torque
b. compressive

215. top of the implant is what mm from adjacent CEJ

a. 2-3mm
b. 4-5mm
c. 7-8mm
d. 5-6mm

216. keratosis happen where in the mouth

a. palate
b. buccal mucosa
c. floor of mouth
d. upper lip

217. what is longitudinal test

218. what is vestibuloplasty

a. adding the bone to the chin
b. adding the soft tissue inter occlusal for better denture fitting

219. all of the following are good reasons for dentist to retire early except
a. back pain
b. tunnel syndrome
c. HBP
d. mercury toxicity

220. what metal help chemical bond to porcelain

221. which following symptom represent fluoride overdose

222. If dentist accidentally leave caries when seal occlusal pit and fissure
a.

223. all of the following reasons to restore erosion lesion except one, which one
a. prevent future erosion
b. reduced sensitivity
c. esthetic

224. systemic fluoride are least effective on

a. proximal surface
b. smooth surface
c. root surface
d. pits and fissure

225 When finishing the occlusal portion of a posterior composite restoration, the dentist should carefully
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins

226 The long term prognosis of a single-abutment cantilever fixed partial denture is compromise
BECAUSE forces are best tolerated by the periodontal supporting structure when directed in the long axes
of the teeth.
a. both statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

227 A practitioner has stabilized a permanent anterior tooth that had a fracture in the apical-one-third of the
root. The tooth will MOST likely
a. require extractions
b. remain functional and vital
c. become ankylosed
d. resorb internally and externally

228 Which of the following is the LEAST effective in removing crevicular plaque
a. toothpick
b. dental floss
c. a soft, nylon toothbrush
d. a water-irrigating device

229 A two day-old developing plaque consists primarily of

a. filamentous organism
b. spirochetal organism
c. gram + cocci and rods
d. gram – motile organism
e. a structureless, non-mineralized pellicle.

230 A patient who has Parkinson’s disease is being treated with levodopa. Which of the following
characterizes this drug’s central mechanism of action
a. it replenishes a deficiency of dopamine
b. it increases concentrations of norepinephrine
c. it stimulates specific L-dopa receptors
d. it acts through a direct serotonergic action

231 Establishing drainage is an important aspect of emergency treatment for an acute apical abscess. An
equally important aspect is
a. adjusting the occlusion
b. prescribing systemic antibiotic
c. prescribing appropriate analgesics
d. introducing antimicrobial medicaments into the pulp space

232 daily cleaning of the root surface by the patient has been shown to
a. cause root sensitivity
b. cause root resorption
c. stimulates the epithelial attachment
d. allow remineralization of the root surface.

233 What is Bennett angle

a. it is the angle that is formed by the non-working condyle and the sagittal plane during lateral
movement
b. it is the angle that is formed by the condyle and the horizontal plane during protrusive movements.
c. It is an difference in condylar inclination between protrusive and lateral movements
d. It is the difference between in the condylar and incisal inclinations.

234 A cast gold restoration might be indicated for the replacement of a faulty amalgam to obtain
a. better margin
b. more ideal contours
c. less trauma to the pulp
d. less removal of tooth structure

235 an adult patient presents with multiple, soft nodules and with macular pigmentation of the skkin.
Which of the following BEST represents this condition
a. lipomatosis
b. neurofibromatosis
c. metastatic malignant melanoma
d. polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
e. bifid rib-basal cell carcinoma syndrome

236 radiographs of an asymptomatic, 20 years old patient reveal a sharply outline radiolucent lesion in the
mandibular first molar area. This 2 cm lesion scallops between the roots of vital teeth. The MOST probable
diagnosis is
a. radicular cyst
b. dentigerous cyst
c. traumatic bone cyst
d. odontoma

237 which of the following abnormal findings is diagnostic of a trochlear nerve dysfunction
a. proptosis
b. dilated pupil
c. eyes fail to move laterally
d. eyes fail to move down and out

238 a 5 years old child has a posterior unilateral crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift of the
mandible. When should this crossbite be corrected
a. immediately without waiting for the eruption of permanents first molar
b. when all the primary teeth have exfoliated
c. after the permanent first molars have fully erupted
d. when the child is approximately 9 years old

239 stress and illness are often related. The BEST description of their relationship is which of the following
a. stress is a primary cause of illness
b. illness is an adaptation to stress
c. stress is psychological
d. stress is contributory to illness and illness is usually stressful

240 after a dentist explained his diagnosis and treatment plan, a patient became saddened. By which of the
following did this patient MOST likely communicate his feeling to the dentist
a. words
b. gestures
c. respiration rate
d. facial expression

241 persistent and repetitions questions asked by an 8 years old patient during treatment are a
a. attempted to delay treatment
b. medication of hyperactivity
c. sign that child may be autistic
d. expression of the child’s curiosity about the dental treatment

242 what does the moyers probability chart predict when a transitional dentition analysis is performed?
a. the widths of mandibular anterior teeth
b. the space available for permanent canine and premolar
c. the width of permanent canines and premolars
d. the space needed for alignment of permanent mandibular central and lateral incisors

243 which of the following agents is used for HIV infection

a. amantadine
b. acyclovir
c. zidovudine
d. ribavirin
e. isoniazid

244 for oral sedation in the dental setting, the MOST ideal group of agents is
a. narcotics
b. barbiturates
c. antihistamines
d. benzodiazepines
e. anticholinergics
245 which of the following is the MOST common postoperative problem associated with mandibular
sagittal-split osteotomies
a. infection
b. TMJ pain
c. Periodontal defects
d. Devitalization of teeth
e. Neurosensory disturbances

246 Which of the following exhibits the MOST personal behavior by the dentist
A. leaning toward the patient
B. facing directly toward the patient
C. being seated 2 feet from the patient
D. touching the patient gently on the arm

247 the facial surface of the posterior mandible often presents limiting factors to proper treatment of
periodontal defects. Primary among these factors is/are the
a. genital tubercles
b. mentalis muscle
c. external oblique ridge
d. internal pterygoid muscle

248 a radiographic exanimation reveals a radiolucent area in the region of the mandibular left third molar.
The third molar is not present. The clinical differential diagnoses included all of the following EXCEPT
one which one is this EXCEPTION
a. ameloblastoma
b. residual cyst
c. odontogenic keratocyst
d. dentigerous cyst
e. odontogenic myxoma

250 which of the following should be included to ensure the BEST prognosis in the management of
localized juvenile periodontitis
a. systemic antibiotic
b. chlorhexidine
c. high dose of vitamin C
d. free gingival grafts
e. peroxide rinses

251a patient presents for multiple extractions. For the last 10 years, he has been taking 10 mg of prednisone
daily for colitis. after consulting with patient’s physician, the practitioner should
a. discontinues the patient’s steroid therapy preoperatively
b. halve the patient’s dose of prednisone to 5 mg on the day of surgery
c. switch the patient to another steroid for the preoperative period
d. ask the patient to continue taking the prednisone and consider temporarily increase the dose.

252 Initial instrumentation for the biomechanical preparation of a vital tooth should begin at the canal
orifice and should end at the
a. radiographic apex
b. cementodentinal junction
c. cementoenamel junction
d. cement pulpal junction

253 in the absence of a second premolar, the roots of the primary second molar will MOST likely
a. not resorb
b. resorb slowly
c. resorb rapidly
d. resorb normally

254 a patient complains that a tooth with a recently placed large MOD restoration is tender to mastercation
and exhibits occasional thermal sensitivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause
a. microleakage
b. recurrent caries
c. gingival recession
d. premature occlusion

255 an x-radiation dose of 4Gy administered locally to a patient’s arm is MOST likely to cause
a. erythema
b. bone marrow death
c. carcinoma of the skin
d. acute radiation syndrome

256 biologic changes in the aging patient affect both pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of drugs,
which in turn, are manifested as each of the following EXCEPT one, which one is this EXCEPTION
a. decreased renal excretion
b. increased plasma protein binding
c. increased half lives of some drugs
d. decreased volume of distribution and sequestration of drug in body fat

257 which of the following precautions should the dentist observe when providing dental care for a child
with insulin-dependent diabetes
a. no specific precautions are necessary
b. the patient should be seen after a meal and insulin injection
c. the patient should have an empty stomach and should take the insulin before the procedure
d. the patient should have an empty stomach and postpone the insulin injection until after the procedure
e. the patient should be seen after a meal and postpone the insulin injection until after the procedure

258 a patient repeatedly criticizes a dentist’s actions. Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to
open a positive dialogue with the patient
a. maintain simple silence
b. state the patient’s concern
c. ignore the patient’s complaints
d. recognize that the patient has a problem
e. correct the patient’s misconception

259 following flap surgery, new junctional epithelium can form on either cementum or dentin
junctional epithelium is reestablished as early as one week

a. both statements are true

b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

260 each of the following types of viral hepatitis is usually transmitted through blood or bodily fluid
EXCEPT one, which one is this EXCEPTION
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis C
d. hepatitis D
e. non A-non B hepatitis

261 a patient’s early recovery from an ultrashort acting barbiturate is related primarily to
a. redistribution
b. breakdown in the liver
c. excretion in the urine
d. breakdown in the blood
e. binding to plasma protein

262 A patient has pain over the left pre-auricular area, this patient can open approximately 45 mm and has
a “pop-and-click” in the joint area. The MOST likely diagnosis is
a. myofacials pain dysfunction syndrome
b. internal derangement with reduction
c. auriculotemporal syndrome
d. coronoid hyperplasia

263 to expose a mandibular lingual torus of a patient who has a full complement of teeth, the incision
should to
a. semilunar
b. paragingival
c. in the gingival sulcus and embrasure area
d. directly over the most prominent part of the torus
e. inferior to the lesion, reflecting the tissue superior

264 in which stage of tooth development does tetracycline discoloration occur

a. apposition
b. proliferation
c. mineralization
d. histodifferentiation

265 a 4 years old child has a history of frequent spontaneous pain in a primary mandibular second molar.
This molar has a necrotic pulp which of the following represents the treatment of choice
a. pulpectomy
b. pulpotomy
c. extraction
d. pulp cap

266 administration of which of the following narcotics will result in life-threatening complications for a
patient who is taking monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors
a. fentanyl
b. morphine
c. nalbuphine
d. meperidine
e. pentazocine

267 for a population, the research divides the number of disease cases by the number of people. By so
doing, this investigator will have calculated which of the following rates
a. incidence
b. odds ratio
c. prevalence
d. specificity

268 which of the following represents the BEST aid to diagnoses an irreversible pulpitis
a. electric pulp test
b. thermal test
c. radiograph
d. percussion
e. test cavity

269 an apically displaced flap is generally impossible in which of the following areas
a. mandibular facial
b. mandibular lingual
c. maxillary facial
d. maxillary palatal

270 a 26 years old female patient states that for several years, small, red to white oral lesions have occurred
irregularly. They are painful but reveals these lesions are located on alveolar non keratinized mucosa. The
MOST likely diagnosis is
a. recurrent aphthous stomatitis
b. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
c. recurrent herpes labialis
d. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

271 a mandibular first molar crown is severely decayed due to caries. Each of the following procedures can
be used to remove this tooth EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION
a. using a cowhorn forceps
b. removing the thin lingual cortical plate of bone
c. elevating the root sections with an east-west elevator
d. reflecting a modest buccal flap and removing the buccal bone

272 superficial decalcification and staining are evident in the buccal groove of a mandibular molar, which
of the following is the treatment of choice
a. oral prophylaxis at 3-month intervals
b. daily irrigation with pressurized water
c. complete elimination of the area by preparation and restoration
d. enamel plasty limited to the superficial depth of the decalcified enamel

273 which of the following is the treatment of choice for lidocaine-induced seizures
a. diazepam
b. naloxone
c. epinephrine
d. flumazenil
e. succinylcholine

274 which of the following is the earliest clinical sign of a carious lesion
a. radiolucency
b. patient sensitivity
c. change in enamel opacity
d. rough surface texture
e. cavitation of enamel

275 what is apical position flap? When it is frequently performed

after the flap has been elevated and the necessary treatment has been performed, the gingival is positioned
at the crest of bone. Most frequently performed after osseous surgery (crown lengthening)
276 what percentage of the population sees a dentist regularly
60-65%

277 why is midazolam preferred to diazepam for IV injection

more water soluble

278 composite is shrinkage toward

core of the composite

279 toxic effect of lidocaine

stimulation and then depress the CNS
280 “punch-out “ lesion on x-ray? Multiple myeloma

281 what is the method of HMO payment?

Capitation

282 what is the percentage of chlorhexidine (0.1-0.2%) remain after rinse

30%

283 what kind amalgam wrks best to restore proximal contours

admixed

284 reverse architecture mean what in perio

interproximal bone .

285 preload of implant is comparable to what force

tongue

286 keratosis happen in where in mouth

palate

287 if a dentist does not his patient his treatment, what kind of behavioral attitude has he taken
negligence

288 what are the advantages of direct bonding brackets over the conventional ortho band or brackets
a. easier b better OH c. no separation d. all of the above

289 how does a light cured composite resin hold to the tooth after the etching has been done
a. mechanically b. physically c. chemically d. adhesion

290 serial extraction should be used in a patient with which type of malocclusion
a. class 1 b. class 2 c. class 3 d. abnormal overbite

291 what is the advantage of sagittal split osteotomy over the transoral vertical subcondylar osteotomy
a. correct a mandibular protrusion
b. it is safer and in the operation room and less painful
c. correct mandibular retrognathia
d. correct mandibular prognathism and apertognathia
e. all of the above
f. a,c, and d only

292 each of the following is characteristic of ectodermal dysplasia except

a. atrophic skin b. blue sclera c. defective hair d. anodontia

293 which of the following is used in restored a small portion of a mandible

a. silastic b. tantalum c. homogenous bone d. autogenous bone

294 what is the side effect of phenothiazine

tardive dyskinesia

295 smooth muscle relaxation is caused by which of the following drugs

a. prazosin b. atropine c. theophylline d. amphetamine

296 when should the lateral sliding flap procedure be done

a. shallow vestibule
b. prominent recipient root
c. normal vestibule
d. adequate amount of keratinized donor tissue

297 best prognosis with surgery for genioplasty

inferior border osteotomy

298 patient with thyroid problem, what drug must not be used
epinephrine

299 what is the organism associated with ANUG infection

a spirochete

300 for child with herpetic gingivostomatitis you will do all the following except
a. antibiotic b. give oral rinses before eating c. plenty of bed rest and keep away from other children

301 what is the most common psychiatric problem in elderly

a. dementia b. depression c. mania

302 why bead for RPD

to have space for acrylic processes

303 patient has faulty amalgam, the dentist proposed treatment to replaced with grown, why?
a. protect pulp b. get better contour c. get better margin

304 why have guiding plane

to provide better retention

305 antidote for fluoride overdose

milk or calcium supplement

306 high ceiling drugs

cause ototoxicity with deafness

307 barbiturates should not be taking with

cumadine

308 why does upper max complete denture break in midline

alveolar resorption

309 how long after eating is the PH in the mouth significantly lower
a. 10-30 min b. 1-2 hours c. 2-4 min d. 3-6 hours e. 10-15 min

310 all f the following cause vasoconstriction except

a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. phenylephrine d. levonor defrin

311 patient have history of complains of pain in the lower left posterior region 2 days after extraction. What
is the most common reason
a. normal b. tumor c. alveolar osteitis d. paresthesia

312 patient have history of fracture in the mandibular premolar area few years ago. Patient now complains
of a soft, nodular swelling in the region. What is most common reason
a. lipoma b. hemangioma c. traumatic neuroma d. neurofibroma

313 which of the following can cause bilateral angular cheilitis in a patient with complete denture
a. increase VDO b. improper centric relation c. increased interocclusal distance

314 opioid agonists act by

a. stimulating GABAergic neuron b. increase pain threshold c. acting as Mu receptor agonists

315 critical instrument used in or near the oral cavity, which may become contaminated
a. with blood and saliva must be b. disinfected between uses c. sterilized between uses d. can be either
disinfected or sterilized between uses

316 a young child dental patient has had a previous negative experience with a dental handpiece. This child
expresses fear when the dentist reaches for a prophy angle to begin a cleaning. A term that best describes
this phenomenon is
a. negative reinforcement b. extinction c. stimulus generalization d. modeling

317 which dental employee is least likely to be “exposed” according to OSHA regulation
a. dentist b. dental assistant c. dental receptionist d. dental hygienist

318 how will you distinguish between periapical cemental dysplasia and chronic apical periodontitis
a radiograph b percussion c. vitality test d. pain

319 you have given a patient o local anesthetic injection containing epinephrine. The patient feels cold and
clammy and the BP goes down to 46. what has most likely occurred
a. MI b. stroke c. vasovagal attach d. heart attack

320 CHIP
a. use in perio diagnosis only b. use in children

321 postural hypotension is a common complaint of patients who take antihypertensive agents because
many of these agents interfere with the
a. sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
b. release of acetylcholine in the ganglia
c. epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla
d. parasympathetic control of vascular resistance
e. neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles