Section-I Physical Sciences (Physics) : Sample Question Papers Nest Junior Scholarships Test

Sample Question Papers SET 5 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST
SECTION-I
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
(PHYSICS)
Q.1. The radius of the sphere is 5.3 + 0.1 𝑐𝑚. The percentage error in the volume is
0.1 0.1 1 0.1 0.1
(A) 5.3 × 100% (B) 3 × 5.3 × 100% (C) 3 × 5.3 × 100% (D) 3 + 5.3 × 100%
Q.2. The physical quantity having the unit 𝑁 𝑘𝑔is
(A) acceleration (B) Force (C) Velocity (D) mass
Q.3. 𝑆 = 𝐴 1 − 𝑒 −𝐵𝑥𝑡 where S is speed and x is displacement. Then unit of B is
(A) 𝑚−1 𝑠 −1 (B) 𝑚−2 𝑠 (C) 𝑠 −2 (D) 𝑠 −1
Q.4. If the magnitude of the vector product is 3 times the magnitude of scalar product, the
angle between the two vectors is
(A) 𝜋 2 (B) 𝜋 6 (C) 𝜋 3 (D)

𝜋
4
Q.5. Two forces 3N & 4N acts on a body of mass 5 kg at right angles. The acceleration of the body
is
2 1 5
(A) 𝑚 𝑠 2 (B) 1𝑚𝑠 −2 (C) 𝑚 𝑠 −2 (D) 𝑚 𝑠 −2
5 5 7
Q.6. If a body has uniform speed, it
(A) has uniform velocity (B) has zero acceleration

(C) has uniform acceleration (D) may have acceleration
Q.7. Shape of a displacement time graph for a body projected vertically up
(A) Curve with constant slope (B) Curve with positive slope
(C) Curve with decreasing slope (D) Curve with increasing slope
Q.8. An aeroplane takes off the ground after covering a distance of 8 m of runway in 16 sec. Its
acceleration will be
(A) 100 𝑚 𝑠 2 (B) 50 𝑚 𝑠 2 (C) 16.25 𝑚 𝑠 2 (D) 6.25 𝑚 𝑠 2
Q.9. A cold soft drink is kept on balance when the cap is open then the weight
(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) first increases and then decreases (D) remains same
2
Q.10. If the pressure at half the depth of lake is equal to 3 pressure at the bottom of the lake. then
what is depth of lake
(A) 10 m (B) 20 m (C) 30 m (D) 60 m
1
Q.11. 1 litre of an ideal gas at 27⁰c is heated at a constant pressure to 297⁰c. The final volume is
approximately
(A) 1.2 litre (B) 1.9 litre (C) 2.4 litre (D) 19 litre
Q.12. In a vertical U-tube containing a liquid, the two arms are maintained at different
temperature 𝑡1 &𝑡2 . The liquid columns in the two arms have heights ℓ1 & ℓ2 respectively.
The coefficient of volume expansion of the liquid is equal to
ℓ1 −ℓ2 ℓ1 −ℓ2 ℓ1 +ℓ2 ℓ1 −ℓ2
(A) ℓ (B) ℓ (C) ℓ (D) ℓ
2 𝑡 2 −ℓ1 𝑡 1 2 𝑡 1 −ℓ1 𝑡 2 2 𝑡 1 +ℓ1 𝑡 2 2 𝑡 2 −ℓ1 𝑡 1
Q.13. A tuning fork produces waves in a medium. If the temperature of the medium changes then
which of the following will change
(A) amplitude (B) frequency (C) wavelength (D) time-period
Q.14. Which of the following does not work on the phenomenon of total internal reflection
(A) optical fibre (B) Prism binoculars

(C) Achromatic combination of prism (D) All of these
Q.15. A person wears spectacle with left eye glass of red colour and right eye glass of yellow
colour. He stands in front of plane mirror. He observes
(A) Both eyes of red colour

(B) Right eye yellow colour and left eye red colour
(C) Right eye Red colour and left eye yellow colour
(D) Both eyes of yellow colour
Q.16. Beyond the earth’s atmosphere, the sky will look
(A) Dark (black) because there is no scattering

(B) White only because there is equal scattering
(C) Blue because there is medium scattering
(D) Violet because there is maximum scattering
1
Q.17. A convex mirror of focal length 𝑓 produces an image 𝑛 𝑡𝑕 size of the object. The distance of
the object from the mirror is
𝑛+1
(A) 𝑛 − 1 𝑓 (B) 𝑛
𝑓 (C) 𝑛 − 2 𝑓 (D) 𝑛 − 3 𝑓
Q.18. When 1012 electrons are removed from a neutral metal sphere the charge on the sphere
becomes
(A) 0.16𝜇𝑐 (B) −0.16𝜇𝑐 (C) 32𝜇𝑐 (D) −32𝜇𝑐
Q.19. A soap bubble is charged to a potential of 16 V. Its radius is then double. The potential of
bubble now will be
(A) 16 V (B) 8 V (C) 4 V (D) 2 V
2
Q.20. The propagation of current is at the speed of
(A) light (B) sound (C) zero (D)

infinity
Q.21. Certain substance lose their electrical resistance at very low temperature. These substances
are called
(A) good conductors (B) semi conductors (C) Super Conductors (D) dielectric
Q.22. An electron and a proton are injected in to a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the
direction of the field with the same momentum then
(A) electron path will be less curved than protons path

(B) protons path will be less curved than electrons path
(C) the path of both will be equally curved
(D) the path of both will be straight
Q.23. A mariner’s compass shows
(A) geographic N-S direction

(B) magnetic N-S direction
(C) both a & b
(D) neither a nor b
Q.24. A magnet of magnetic moment 50𝑖𝐴𝑚2 is placed along the X-axis in a magnetic field
𝐵 = 0.5𝑖 + 0.3𝑗 𝑇. The torque acting on the magnet is
(A) 175𝑘 𝑁−𝑚 (B) 150𝑘 𝑁−𝑚 (C) 75𝑘 𝑁−𝑚 (D) 25 37𝑘 𝑁−𝑚
Q.25. The electromagnetic waves are
(A) Longitudinal in nature (B) stationary in nature

(C) Transverse in nature (D) Polarising waves
ANSWER SET TO SECTION-I PHYSICS
1 B 6 D 11 B 16 A 21 C
2 A 7 C 12 B 17 A 22 C
3 A 8 D 13 C 18 B 23 C
4 C 9 C 14 C 19 A 24 A
5 B 10 B 15 C 20 C 25 A
3
SECTION-I
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
(CHEMISTRY)
Q.1. How many grams of 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 will give 56 gm of 𝑎𝑂 ?

(A) 120 g (B) 56 g
(C) 100 g (D) 112 g
Q.2. Microgram is written as -------------

(A) 103 𝑔 (B) 106 𝑔
−3
(C) 10 𝑔 (D) 10−6 𝑔
Q.3. Which of the following is the lightest metal?

(A) 𝐶𝑢 (B) 𝐿𝑖
(C) 𝐴𝑢 (D) 𝐹𝑒
Q.4. Which of the following does not affect the reflect the periodicity of elements?
(A) Bonding behavior (B) Electronegativity
(C) Ionization potential (D) Neutron/Proton ratio
Q.5. Metallic crystalline solids have ------------

(A) Low melting & boiling point
(B) Are bad conductors
(C) Are good conductors of heat & electricity
(D) Only conduct heat
Q.6. Absolute temperature is the temperature at which ----------

(A) All molecular motion ceases
(B) Volume ceases to zero
(C) Mass becomes zero
(D) None of these
Q.7. 𝑝𝐻 of a solution can not be ------------

(A) Negative (B) more than 14
(C) less than zero (D) all of these
Q.8. What is the unit of refractive index?

(A) Metre (B) Metre/second
(C) Dioptre (D) Unitless
Q.9. When the temperature of reactions will increase then the effect on 𝑝𝐻 value will -----------
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) First increases then decreases
(D) Remains same
4
Q.10. What is the potential difference between the two ends of a wire of resistance 200 ohm, if a
current of 0.5 A flows through it?
(A) 400 V (B) 200 V
(C) 100 V (D) 50 V
Q.11. Electroplating was discovered by ------------------

(A) Newton (B) Faraday
(C) Dalton (D) Arrhenius
Q.12. Which of the following phosphorous is most reactive?

(A) Scarlet phosphorus (B) Red phosphorus
(C) Violet phosphorus (D) White phosphorus
Q.13. Percentage of free space is bcc lattice by ----------------

(A) 24 (B) 32
(C) 48 (D) 52
Q.14. Glass is soluble in -------------------

(A) 𝐻𝐶 𝑂4 (B) 𝐻𝐹
(C) Aqua regia (D) 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4
Q.15. Diamond is used in glass cutting due to it’s ---------------------

(A) High metallic bonding (B) Extreme hardness
(C) Low metallic bonding (D) High refractive index
Q.16. Vapour density of a gas is 22. What is molecular weight?

(A) 33 (B) 44 (C) 22 (D) 11
Q.17. Triple point of water is ------------------
(A) 273 K (B) 373 K (C) 203 K (D) 193 K
Q.18. The isomer which can be converted into another form by rotation of the molecule around a
single bond are ------------------
(A) Geometrical (B) Conformers
(C) Enantiomers (D) Diastereomers
Q.19. Baeyer reagent is used in the laboratory for -----------------

(A) Detection of glucose (B) Reduction process
(C) Oxidation process (D) Detection of double bond
Q.20. In which type of reaction oxygen is converted into zone?

(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(C) Photochemical (D) Addition
Q.21. The most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant is ----------------

(A) Methane (B) Ethane
(C) Propane (D) Butane
5
Q.22. Hydrolysis of trichloromethane with aqueous KOH gives ---------------

(A) Methanol (B) Acetic acid
(C) Ethanol (D) Formic acid
Q.23. Paraldehyde is formed by the polymerization of ------------------

(A) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 (B) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝑂
(C) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 (D) 𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂
Q.24. Aspirin is -----------------
(A) Salicylic acid (B) Acetylsalicylic acid

(C) Methylsalicylic acid (D) Carbonic acid
Q.25. Which of the following is not essential for photosynthesis?

(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide
ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-I CHEMISTRY
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
1 C 6 A 11 B 16 B 21 A
2 D 7 D 12 D 17 A 22 D
3 B 8 D 13 B 18 B 23 B
4 D 9 B 14 B 19 D 24 B
5 C 10 C 15 B 20 B 25 A
6
SECTION-II
MATHEMATICS
Q.1. A letter is chosen at random, from the letter in the word “ASSASSINATION” Find the
probability that the letter chosen is a vovel.
3 7 6 5
(A) 13 (B) 13 (C) 13 (D) 13
Q.2. For an A.P if 𝑡4 = 12 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑑 = −10 𝑤𝑕𝑎𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚.
(A) −10𝑛 + 52 (B) −10𝑛 − 52 (C) 10𝑛 + 52 (D) 10𝑛 − 52
Q.3. Three times the square of natural number is 363 is written in the mathematical equation
from is
𝑥2
(A) 3𝑥 2 = 363 (B) = 363 (C) 𝑥 2 − 3 = 363 (D) 𝑥 3 + 3 = 363
3
1
Q.4. 𝑥2 + = ⋯⋯
𝑥2
1 2 1 2 1 2
(A) 𝑥 − 𝑥 2 −2 (B) 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 +2 (C) 𝑥 − 𝑥 +2 (D) None of these
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
Q.5. If 𝑎 1 = 𝑏1 = 𝑐1 then the two simultaneous equation have .............
2 2 2
(A) one solution

(B) no solution
(C) infinitely many solution
(D) two solution
Q.6. Without solving simultaneous equation decide 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 16 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 − 𝑦 = 6 𝑕𝑎𝑣𝑒 … … ….

(A) Unique solution (B) no solution (C) infinity many solution
(D) None of these
Q.7. If 2 fair dice is thrown then probability that sum of points on upper most face is perfect
square or divisible by u is
19 13 4
(A) (B) (C) (D) 5 12
36 36 9
Q.8. In step deviation method ui is given by

𝑋 𝑖 −𝐴 𝑋 𝑖 +𝐴
(A) 𝐴 + 𝑑 (B) 𝑋𝑖 − 𝐴 (C) 𝑕
(D) 𝑕
Q.9. fi in the mode formula defines
(A) frequency of per modal class

(B) modal class
(C) frequency of post modal class
(D) None of these
7
Q.10. Frequency can gives idea about . . . . . . .

(A) Mean (B) Mode (C) Median (D) Mean, Mode and Median
Q.11. Frequency curve is ……….. shaped
(A) ball (B) bell (C) tail (D) cone
Q.12. In class interval is given in the range 0 – 8 , 8 – 16 , m – 24 , 24 – 32 then value of m is
(A)8 (B) 24 (C) 32 (D) None of these
Q.13. If a committee of 2 members are form a group of 3 boys and 2 girls then the number of
sample point n(s) is . . . . . . . .
(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 5
Q.14. The perimeters of a rectangle is 64 is expressed in the mathematical equation form as. . . . . .
1 𝑥𝑦
(A) 2 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 64 (B) 2 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 64 (C) 𝑥 × 𝑦 = 64 (D) 2
= 64
Q.15. If one root of quadratic equation is 1 − 3 then product of root is . . . . . . .
(A) 2 (B) -2 (C) -44 (D) 44
Q.16. if 𝑥 = 33𝑙𝑜𝑔32 then what is the value of x
(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 5
Q.17. What is the range of the relation 𝑅 = 𝑎, 𝑏 𝑎 𝜖 𝑁 , 𝑎 < 5, 𝑏 = 4 is . . . . . .
(A) 3 , 4 (B) 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 (C) 4 (D) 5,4

1
Q.18. Simplify 𝑖 65 + 𝑖 145 ∵ 𝑖 = −1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) -1 (D) None of these
Q.19. If 𝜔 is complex cube root of unity, what is the value of 1 + 𝜔 − 𝜔2 6
(A) – 64 (B) 16 (C) – 16 (D) 64
Q.20. If 𝑡3=17 , 𝑡7 = 37. 𝑤𝑕𝑎𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑆16 ⋯
(A) 217 (B) 712 (C) 721 (D) 271

1 3 1
Q.21. What is the value 𝑥 𝑖𝑓 4!
+ 6! = 8!
(A) 4818 (B) 4188 (C) 1848 (D) 1488
Q.22. In how many ways can 9 boys sir around a table?
(A) 42003 (B) 40230 (C) 20340 (D) 40320
8
Q.23. What is n if 18𝐶2𝑛 = 18𝐶𝑛 2 +3
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) – 3 (D) 5

5 5
Q.24. What is the value 5+1 − 5−1
(A) 523 (B) 325 (C) 352 (D) 235
𝑥 𝑦 10
Q.25. The middle term in the expansion + is .....
𝑦 𝑥
(A) 924 (B) 249 (C) 429 (D) None of these

4𝑥−1
Q.26. What is the value of lim𝑥→1 𝑖𝑠 ⋯ ⋯
4 2 𝑥−1
(A) 2 (B) – 2 (C) 4 (D) -4

𝜋
Q.27. If 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑥, 𝑤𝑕𝑎𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑓 1 4
= 𝑓 1𝜋
4
(A) − 2 + 2 (B) 2 + 2 (C) − 2 − 2 (D) – 2 + 2

1
Q.28. What is the value of 1−𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 2
𝑑𝑥
𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥
(A) 2 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 + 𝑐 (B) 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 + 𝑐
𝑥 𝑥
(C) −2 𝑡𝑎𝑛 − 𝑠𝑒𝑐 +𝑐 (D) None of these
2 2
Q.29. What is the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles, if their corresponding altitudes are in
the ratio 1: 2 ?
(A) 1 ∶ 2 (B) 2 ∶ 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
Q.30. In ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐴𝐵 = 12 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵 = 10 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐶 = 8𝑐𝑚. what type of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is?
(A) An acute angled triangle (B) An obtuse angled triangle
(C) A right angled triangle (D) An isosceles triangle
Q.31. What is the number of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles touching
internally?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) No common tangent
Q.32. □𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷 is the cyclic quadrilateral in which 4∠𝐴 = 5∠𝐶 what is the measure of ∠𝐴 =?
(A) 100° (B) 80° (C) 72° (D) 108°
Q.33. Where does the orthrocentre of right angled triangle lie?
(A) In the interior of the triangle (B) on the hypotenuse
(C) In the exterior of the triangle (D) At the vertex of right angle
9
Q.34. What is the point of concurrence of the medians of a triangle known as?
(A) Circumcentre (B) Incentre (C) orthrocentre (D) Centriod
Q.35. If ∝ +𝛽 = 90° 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ∝= 7 25 then what is the value of 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽?
24
(A) 7 25 (B) (C) 7 24 (D) 24 7
25
Q.36. 𝐼𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 3 4 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜃 is an acute angle then what is the value of 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃?
7 −7 4 −4
(A) 25 (B) 25 (C) 25 (D) 25
Q.37. For what value of x will the points −1, 𝑥 , −3,2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 −1,4 lie on a line
(A) -3 (B) 3 (C) -2 (D) 2
Q.38. A (3,2) B(1,-1) C(6,-2) are the vertices of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, what is the slope of line AC
−4 −3 −3 −2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 2 3
Q.39. What is the equation of a line passing through (2,-1) and parallel to the line 3x + 4y =10?
(A) 3x + 4y + 2 = 0 (B) 3x + 4y – 2 = 0
(C) 3x – 4y -2 =0 (D) -3x + 4y – 2 = 0
Q.40. The radius of a circle is 5.5 cm. what is the measure of the arc of this circle whose length is
6.05 cm?
(A) 31.5° (B) 60° (C) 63° (D) 120°
Q.41. What is the curved surface area of a cone having base diameter 14cm. and height 24cm?
(A) 110 cm2 (B) 220 cm2 (C) 440 cm2 (D) 550 cm2
Q.42. The diameter of a circle is 20 cm. The measure of an arc is 108°. What is the area of the
sector? 𝜋 = 3.14
(A) 376.8 cm2 (B) 188.4 cm2 (C) 94.2 cm2 (D) 47.1 cm2
2 −3 𝑥 1
Q.43. Find 𝑥 𝑖𝑓 =
4 3 −2 𝑥
(A) ±4 (B) ±2 (C) 4 (D) 6

4 𝜋
Q.44. If 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴 = , < 𝐴 < 𝜋 what is sec A.
5 2
5 −5 3 −3
(A) 3 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 5
Q.45. What is the value 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −300° ∙ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −330°
(A) -1 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
10
Q.46. What is the length of the perpendicular from P(2,3) to the line 3𝑥 − 𝑦 = 8
5 5 2 5
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 2
Q.47. What is the acute angle between the lines 3𝑥 − 𝑦 = 4 , 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3 is

𝜋
(A) 8 (B) 𝜋 4 (C) 𝜋 3 (D) 𝜋 6
1 1
Q.48. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝐴 = 2 , 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝐵 = 3 What is the value of 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2𝐴 + 𝐵
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
1 2 2 6 𝑇
Q.49. If 𝐴 = 𝐵= What is 𝐴𝐵
5 3 −3 4
4 1 −4 −1 4 −1 −4 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 42 1 42 −1 42 1 42
1 3 −1 1
Q.50. If 𝐴 = 𝐵= What is 𝐴𝐵
2 1 2 0
5 1 1 5 2 0
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
0 2 2 0 1 5
ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-II MATHEMATICS
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
1 C 11 B 21 C 31 C 41 D
2 A 12 D 22 D 32 A 42 C
3 A 13 B 23 A 33 D 43 A
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 D 44 B
5 C 15 B 25 A 35 A 45 B
6 A 16 C 26 A 36 B 46 A
7 B 17 C 27 C 37 C 47 B
8 C 18 B 28 A 38 A 48 C
9 D 19 D 29 C 39 B 49 D
10 B 20 B 30 A 40 C 50 A
11
SECTION-II
BIOLOGY
1. Vomiting & respiratory center is located in

a. medulla b. cerebrum c. cerebellum d. diencephalon
2. Name the CAM Plant

a. Wheat b. Kalanchoe c. Maize d. jowar
3. The cause of retinoblastoma in children is

a. mutation b. variation c. virus d. heredity
.
4. F1 generation shows characters intermediate to the parents in
a. Pure inheritance b. complete dominance
c. blended inheritance d. epistasis
5. Which part of the brain controls gait, posture, balance & equilibrium
a. cerebrum b. Mesencephalon
c. cerebellum d. Medulla oblongata
6. Histone core is formed by

a. H1 b. H2a , H2b , H3 & H4
c. H2a & H2b d. H1 H2a H2b H3 & H4
7. In replication, formation of DNA on template strand is initiated by

a. RNA primer b. DNA polymerase
c. RNA polymerase d. DNA primer
8. Phosphorylation in respiration is known as

a. oxidative phosphorylation b. photophosphorylation
c. reductive photophosphorylation d. reductive-oxidative phosphorylation
9. Jacobson's corpuscles is responsible for

a. pressure b. sound c. light d. smell
10. Acetyl Co-A connects

a. EMP and glycolysis b. calvin cycle & EMP
c. Glycolysis & krebs cycle d. krebscycle & ETS
11. The cavity in mature graffian follicle is

a. discus proligerus b. liquour folliculi c. theca folliculi d. antrum
12. One primary spermatocyte gives 4 spermatozoa then one primary oocyte leads to
a. one ovum b. 2 ova c. 3 ova d. 4 ova
13. Bhopal gas tragedy was due to

a. MIC b. SO2 & SO3 c. NO2 & NO d. CO & CO2
12
14. Ejection of milk is caused by

a. prolactin b. GH c. Oxytocin d. ADH
15. Fresh water bony fishes maintain water balance by excreting

a. a hypotonic urine b. salt across their gills
c. waste in the form of uric acid d. none of these
16. In respiration, 1 molecule of glucose gives.

a. 10NADH2, 2FADH2, 1GTP, 2ATP b. 8NADH2, 4FADH2, 2GTP, 2ATP
c. 8NADH2, 2FADH2, 2GTP, 2ATP d. None of these
17. The unit of natural selection is

a. population b. individual c. species d. community
18. Poison glands of snakes are actually modified of

a. lacrymal b. sebaceous c. salivary d. sweat gland
19. Counter current mechanism is found in

a. PCT b. DCT c. Henle's loop d. CT
20. What is the net gain of ATP during anaerobic respiration by bacteria?
a. 8 b. 2 c. 10 d. 12
21. Lateral lines are present in

a. salamander b. bat c. shark d. lizard
22. In ETS, cytochromes are arranged in order of

a. cyt b, c, a, a3 b. c, b, a, a3 c. a3, a, c, b d. a, a3, b, c
23. Which of the following gases affects the respiratory system most
a. CO2 b. NO2 c. CO d. SO2
24. Australopithecus was

a. omnivorous b. herbivorous c. carnivorous d. insectivorous
25. Cactoblastis cactorum is used to control

a. ergot fungus b. opuntia c. aphids d. ballworms
26. HIV is transmitted from person to person through

a. killer cells b. helper T-cells c. suppressor T-cells d. B-cells
27. Third cleavage of embryo development is

a. Vertical b. equatorial c. Latitudinal d. None of these
28. The disease caused by mercury poisoning is

a. minamata b. itai-itai c. flurosis d. chlorosis
13
29. Mammary glands without teats are present in

a. prototheria b. metatheria
c. Eutheria d. All of the above
30. Nourishing layer in the internal layer of anther is

a. tapetum b. endothecium c. exine d. nucellus
31. Male grasshopper has sex chromosome

a. xy b. xo c. xx d. zz
32. Mixed nerves are

a. V, VII, IX, X b. II, III, IV c. IX, X, XI, XII d. I, II, VIII, IX
33. Eukaryotic nucleus does not show

a. circular DNA b. nucleolus
c. chromatin material d. nuclear envelop
34. Placoid scales are found in

a. Labeo b. catla c. shark d. snake
35. Which is the best fertilizer for paddy fields.

a. Rhizobium b. Azobacter
c. symbiotic & non symbiotic anabaena d. clostridium
36. Rate of heart beat is determined by

a. Purkinje fibres b. S.A. node c. A.V. node d. bundle of His
37. Corpora quadregemina are found in

a. Mesencephalon b. telencephalon
c. rhomben cephalon d. Prosencephalon
38. The estrous cycle is characterized in

a. human male only b. human female only
c. mammalian males & primates d. mammalian females other than primate
39. Sebaceous gland is associated with

a. hair follicles b. external ear c. hair bulb d. hair root
40. Physiological state of the body is controlled by

a. thalamus b. cerebellum
c. hypothalamus d. none of these
41. Aleurone layer is

a. Peripheral part of seutellum b. Peripheral part of coleoptiles
c. peripheral part of Coleorrhiza d. peripheral part of endosperm
42. Which plant shows kranz anatomy?

a. Sedum b. Sugarcane c. kalanchoe d. Agave
14
43. Central core of silk is made up of

a. fibrin b. serecin c. glutamine d. albumin
44. Who controls basal metabolic rate?

a. Adrenal b. Thyroid c. Testes d. ovary
45. The sperm acrosome is derived from

a. golgi complex b. mitochondria c. head d. endoplasmic reticulum
46. When a heterozygous yellow and tall plant is selfed, the yellow & tall progeny will
be
a. 9/16 b. 1/16 c. 3/16 d. 1/10
47. Which of the following is an anticoagulant used as a preservative for fresh blood.
a. Ca2+ b. Heparin c. ACD d. None of these
48. Sensory area of hearing is situated in

a. parietal lobe b. Occepital lobe c. temporal lobe d. frontal lobe
49. The beginning of menstrual cycle in women is called as

a. Puberty b. ovulation c. menopause d. Menarche
50. Failure of descending testes into the scrotum is known as:

a. Paedogenesis b. castration c. impotency d. cryptorchidism
ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-II BIOLOGY
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
1 A 11 B 21 A 31 B 41 D
2 B 12 A 22 A 32 A 42 B
3 D 13 A 23 D 33 A 43 A
4 B 14 C 24 D 34 C 44 B
5 C 15 D 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 C 36 B 46 A
7 A 17 A 27 C 37 A 47 C
8 C 18 C 28 A 38 C 48 C
9 D 19 C 29 A 39 A 49 D
10 C 20 B 30 A 40 A 50 D
15
SECTION-III
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Use correct articles (Q. 1 to 5):
1. _____ most important first step in choosing _____ correct articles is to categorize it.
a) a, an b) an, the c) the, an d) the, the
2. _____ count noun is _____noun that can have a number in front of it.
a) a, a b) an, a c) the, a d) a, an
3. ______ uncount noun is _______noun that cannot have a number in front of it.
a) a, an b) an, a c. the, a d) a, the
4. Did you like ______ music they played at ______ party?
a) a, a b) an, an c) the, the d) a, the
5. Please shut ______ door and open all ______ windows.
a) a, a b) an, an c) an, the d) the, the
Choose the correct alternative (Q. 6 to 10):
6. Animated movies _________________ a lot over the last 100 years.
a) has changed b) have changed c) had changed d) will change
7. The sun ____________ at 6:03 this morning.
a) rise b) raised c) rased d) rose
8. Cotton ______________ fire easily.
a) catch b) catches c) caught d) burn
9. Do you need _____________ help?
a) further b) farther c) father d) farthest
10. Over ninety ________________ of the inhabitants are given to drinking.
a) per cent b) percentile c) percentage d) precent
Choose the correct replaceable word for the underlined expression (Q. 11 to 13):
11. No player can flout the rules and remain in the team.
a) boast about b) obey c) disobey d) disdain
12. He felt mortified at his student’s failure to give the correct answer.
a) depressed b) unhappy c) humiliated d) tease
16
13. Developing indigenous technology is important to lead the nation to self-sufficiency
a) native b) intelligent c) capitalistic d) Vast
Choose the correct synonyms (Q. 14 to 19):
14. TITANIC
a) diminutive b) static c) sporadic d) gigantic
15. RUPTURE
a) break b) continue c) enthusiasm d) abundant
16. OVATION
a) oration b) gesture c) emulation d) applause
17. MELEE
a) dance b) found c) state of confusion d) a simple song
18. PHONY
a) unreal b) an electronic device c) communicative d) pleasant
19. INNOCUOUS STATEMENT
a) brief b) offensive c) harmful d) harmless
20. EQUANIMITY
a) equality b) composure c) enmity d) glee
21. BRACKISH
a) salty b) dark c) rough d) brave
22. PERIL
a) jeopardy b) shelter c) stability d) warmth
23. OUTLANDISH
a) clear b) distant c) under d) strange
24. INCORRIGIBLE
a) incurable b) correctable c) silent d) disproportionate
choose the correct antonyms (Q. 25 to 30):
25. ACCOLADE
a) permeate b) blame c) reticent d) decorate
26. DEIFY
17
a) dishonour b) rectify c) reticent d) decorate
27. Malevolent
a) insolvent b) benevolent c) corpulent d) eloquent
28. MESMERIZE
a) bore b) sever c) forget d) eloquent.
29. FURTIVE
a) depressive b) evil c) open d) successful
30. TACIT
a) deceptive b) receptive c) clear d) close
Choose the correct spelling (Q. 31 to 37):
31. a) superintendent b) superintendant c) suprindendent d) superentendant
32. a) disburcement b) disbarsement c) disbursement d) debursment
33. a) sinthesizes b) synthesizes c) senthesizes d) senthesises
34. a) deconstructionist b) decanconstractionist c) deconstractinst

d) deconstrionst
35. a) imbadiment b) embadement c) embodiment

d) embodyment
36. In most countries, courts are the places where ________ can be righted.
a) judges b) lawyers c) audiences d) wrongs
37. He boasts that he is a man without prejudices. This ________ itself a very great ________.
a)realization, accomplishment b) fact, concession
c) pretension, prejudice d) statement, achievement
Identify the grammatically CORRECT option (Q. 38 to 42):
38. a) My father know the chief guest well.

b) My father is knowing the chief guest well.
c) My father knows the chief guest well.
d) My father known the chief guest well.
39. a) Tolerance has long been the quality most Indians have cherished about our civilisation.
b) Tolerance is long being the quality most Indians have cherished about our civilisation.
c) Tolerance had long been the quality most Indian have cherished about our civilization.
18
d) Tolerance has been long the quality most Indian have cherished about our civilization.
40. a)There were times in his life when he struggled for one square meal a day
b) There was times in his life when he struggled for one square meal a day
c) There were times in his life when he would be struggled for one square meal a day
d) There were times in his life when he was struggling for one square meal a day
41. a) We don’t realize that the sources of water fit for human use are limited.
b) We doesn’t realize that the sources of water fit for human use is limited.
c) We do not realize that the sources of water fit for human use are limited.
d) We do not realize that the sources of water fit for human use is limited.
42. a) You are never bank on a person who had left you in the lurch.
b) You can never bank on a person who had left you in the lurch.
c) You are never bank on a person who has left you in the lurch.
d) You can never bank on a person who has left you in the lurch.
Fill in the blanks the right option from the pairs of confusing words in the options (Q. 43 to
47):
43. A polite letter will always _________ a reply.
a) illicit b) elicit c) lucid d) elastic
44. Tennis is an __________ game.
a) exhausting b) exhaustive c) intensive d) incentive
45. You can be ______________ in driving only at a risk to your life.
a) neligible b) negligent c) prominent d) reticent
46. He was _____________ for rash driving.
a) prosecuted b) persecuted c) prohibited d) elecrocuted
47. Strict ____________ of rules is the mark of a good sportsman.
a) observation b) observance c) supervision d0 ratification
Fill in the blanks the correct phrases (Q.48 to 50):
48. ‘It has been raining since morning.’ is an example of –
a) Present participle sentences

b) Past participle sentences
c) Present perfect continuous sentence
d) pas perfect continuous sentence
19
49. Passive voice of “He has not returned my book yet.” is –
a) The book has not been returned by him yet.

b) He has been returned my book yet.
c) He has returned my book not yet.
d) My book has not been returned by him yet.
50. Mention the correct Indirect Speech of the following sentence:
The doctor said to the old man, “There is no cure of your sickness.”
a) The doctor told the old man that there was no cure of his sickness.
b) The doctor told the old man that his sickness was not curable.
c) The old man asked the doctor that there was no cure of his sickness.
d) The doctor informed the old man that there was the cure of his sickness.
ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-III ENGLISH
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
1 D 11 C 21 A 31 A 41 A
2 A 12 A 22 A 32 C 42 D
3 B 13 A 23 D 33 B 43 B
4 C 14 D 24 A 34 A 44 B
5 D 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 B
6 B 16 D 26 A 36 D 46 A
7 D 17 C 27 B 37 C 47 B
8 B 18 A 28 A 38 C 48 C
9 A 19 D 29 C 39 A 49 D
10 A 20 B 30 C 40 A 50 A
20
SECTION-IV
REASONING
Q. 1 A wooden cube whose edges are 4 inches painted red. The cube is then cut into 64 small
cubes whose edges are 1 inch. Let A is the number of small cubes that have exactly three
red faces and B is the number of small cubes that have no red faces. Then
a. A > B b. A = B c. A < B d. data inadequate
Q. 2 If x means +, ÷ means - , - means x and + means ÷, then 8x 7 - 8 + 40 ÷ 2 = ?
a. 1 b. 7 and 2/5 c. 8 and 3/5 d. 44
Q. 3 If 5/9 of the members of the school chorus are boys, what is ratio of girls to boys in the
chorus?
a. 4/9 b. 4/5 c. 5/4 d. 9/4
Q. 4 Count the number of triangles in the following figure.
a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14
Q5 Let X is the area of triangle ABC and Y is the area of triangle DEF. Then
a. X > Y b. X = Y c. X < Y d. X < = Y
Q 6 Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is sister of Atul. Ravi is son of Rekha. How is Deepak Related to
Rekha?
a. son b. brother c. nephew d. father
Q. 7 Optimist is to cheerful as pessimist is to
a. gloomy b. petty c. mean d. helpful
21
Q. 8 Ravi is not wearing white and Ajay is not wearing blue. Ravi and Sohan wear different
colours. Sachin alone wears red. What is Sohan's colour, if all four of them weardifferent
colours?
a. red b. blue c. white d. can't say
Q. 9 x and y are positive integers with x<="" then="" x,="" by="" divided="" is="" y="" when=""
remainder="" b="" and="" x="" a="" let="">
a. A > B b. A = B c. A < B d. Can't be calculated
Q. 10 Which is the number that comes next in the sequence: 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
a. 240 b. 290 c. 336 d. 504
Q. 11 Tim is older than Elena. Curtis is older than Tim. Elena is older than Curtis. If the first
two statements are true, the third statement is
a. true b. False c. Uncertain
Q. 12 DDT is related to Abbreviation in the same way as LASER is related to ?
a. Antithesis b. Acronym c. Epigram d. Epithet
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions:
Madhu and Shobha are good in Dramatics and Computer Science.

Anjali and Madhu are good in Computer Science and Physics.
Anjali, Poonam and Nisha are good in Physics and History.
Nisha and Anjali are good in Physics and Mathematics.
Poonam and Shobha are good in History and Dramatics.
Q. 13 Who is good is Computer Science, History and Dramatics?

a. Anjali b. Madhu c. Shobha d. Nisha
Q. 14 Who is good in Physics, Dramatics and Computer Science?
a. Shobha b. Poonam c. Madhu d. Anjali
Q. 15 Who is good in Physics, History and Dramatics?

a. Poonam b. Shobha c. Madhu d. Anjali
Q. 16 Who is good in History, Physics, Computer Science and Mathematics?

a. Poonam b. Nisha c. Madhu d. Anjali
Q. 17 Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics but not in Computer Science?
a. Madhu b. Poonam c. Nisha d. Anjali
22
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a circle facing the center.

P sits second to the right of W who is 3rd to the left of T.
Only 3 persons sit between R and V.
S and T are immediate neighbors of R and V.
V sits between R and S.
V is not an immediate neighbors to T.
18 Who is facing u?
a. P b. Q c. R d. V
19 Who is immediate right of P?

a. Q b. T c. S d. U
20 Who is third to the left of D?

a. U b. Q c. R d. T
21 Who is immediate left of S?

a. R b. U c. W d. None of these
22 Which of the following statements are not true?
a. R and Q are neighbors of Q b. R is third left of D

c. U is immediate left of S d. Q is immediate right of P
Examine the given statements carefully and find out which two of the statements cannot be
true simultaneously, but can both be false
23 1. All animals are carnivorous.

2. Some animals are not carnivorous.
3. Animals are not carnivorous.
4. Some animals are carnivorous.
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 3 and 4
24 1. All children are inquisitive.

2. Some children are inquisitive.
3. No children are inquisitive.v 4. Some children are not inquisitive.
25 1. Some nations wish for peaceful coexistence.

2. All nations wish for peaceful coexistence.
3. Some nations are not wishing for peaceful coexistence.
4. No nations are wishing for peaceful coexistence.
23
ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-IV REASONING
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
1 C 6 A 11 B 16 D 21 B
2 B 7 A 12 B 17 C 22 D
3 A 8 D 13 C 18 A 23 C
4 C 9 A 14 C 19 B 24 A
5 A 10 C 15 D 20 C 25 C
24
SECTION-V
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Q. 1 ISRO launched Mangalyaan to Mars orbit and became ?
a. the fifth space agency in the world to send a mission to Mars successfully
b. the sixth space agency in the world to send a mission to Mars successfully
c. the fourth space agency in the world to send a mission to Mars successfully
d. the ninth space agency in the world to send a mission to Mars successfully
Q. 2 First state in India to launch Health Adalat is
a. Karnataka b. Maharashtra c. Andhra Pradesh d. Tamil Nadu
Q. 3 Chief Guest of Republic Day 2015 was
a. US President Barack Obama b. Pakistan Prime minister Nawaz Sharif

c. Nepal Prime minister Sushil Koirala d. Russian President Vladimir Putin
Q. 4 Depreciation means
a. closure of a plant due to lock-out

b. closure of a plant due to labour trouble
c. loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear
d. destruction of a plant in a fire accident
Q. 5 Which was the 1st non Test playing country to beat India in an international match?
a. Canada b. Sri Lanka c. Zimbabwe d. East Africa
Q. 6 The most affected country by 2014 Ebola epidemic was
a. Guinea and Sierra Leone of West Africa b. Spain

c. United States d. Mali
Q. 7 National Police Academy is located at
a. Bangalore b. Hyderabad c. Abu Road d. Dehradun
Q. 8 Tripitakas are sacred books of
a. Buddhists b. Hindus c. Jains d. None of the above
Q. 9 Telangana became the ------ state of India
a. 28th b. 27th c. 29th d. 30th
Q. 10 Forbes list of World's Most Powerful People 2014 was topped by
a. American President Barack Obama b. Russian President Vladimir Putin

c. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi d. German chancellor Angela Merkel
25
Q. 11 Gross domestic capital formation is defined as
a. flow of expenditure devoted to increase or maintaining of the capital stock

b. expenditure incurred on physical assets only
c. production exceeding demand
d. net addition to stock after depreciation
Q. 12 The preamble says that the state in India will assure the dignity of the individual. The
constitution seeks to achieve this object by guaranteeing
a. equal fundamental rights to each citizen

b. the right to adequate means of livelihood to each individual
c. just and humane conditions of work to each individual
d. equal wages for equal work to each individual irrespective of sex
Q. 13 Which scientist discovered the radioactive element radium?
a. Isaac Newton b. Albert Einstein c. Benjamin Franklin d. Marie Curie
Q. 14 The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term
a. of six years b. determined by the state legislative assembly of a state

c. of four years d. None of the above
Q. 15 Which of the following is used in pencils?
a. Graphite b. Silicon c. Charcoal d. Phosphorous
Q. 16 According to C. Rangarajan committee on poverty
a. 19.6 per cent of the Indian population is poor.

b. Poverty line is pegged at 2015 rupees per month for urban India
c. Poverty line is pegged 1072 rupees per month for rural India
d. 29.6 per cent of the Indian population is poor.
Q. 17 Which track and field star overcame childhood polio to become one of the greatest
athletes of her time?
a. Wilma Rudolph b. Gail Devers c. Florence Griffith Joyner d. Jackie Robinson
Q. 18 'Natya Shastra' the main source of India's classical dances was written by
a. Nara Muni b. Bharat Muni c. Abhinav Gupt d. Tandu Mun
Q. 19 Predecessor of speaker of the 16th Lok Sabha Sumitra Mahajan was?
a. P. A. Sangma b. Meira Kumar c. Somnath Chatterjee d. Manohar Joshi
26
Q. 20 Ozone hole refers to
a. hole in ozone layer

b. decrease in the ozone layer in troposphere
c. decrease in thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere
d. increase in the thickness of ozone layer in troposphere
Q. 21 The ratio of width of our National flag to its length is
a. 3:5 b. 2:3 c. 2:4 d. 3:4
Q. 22 The World Environment Day is celebrated on
a. April 7 b. June 5 c. August 6 d. June 16
Q. 23 Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched on
a. 15 August 2013 b. 15 August 2014 c. 10 August 2014 d. 28 August 2014
Q. 24 The two states of India, most richly endowed with iron ore, are
a. Bihar and Orissa b. Madhya Pradesh and Orissa

c. Bihar and West Bengal d. Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal
Q. 25 The main aim of Swachh Bharat Mission is
a. Making India Clean by 02/10/2016 b. Making India clean by 2016

c. Making India clean by 2019 d. Making India Green Zone
ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-V GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
1 C 6 A 11 D 16 D 21 B
2 A 7 B 12 A 17 A 22 B
3 A 8 A 13 D 18 B 23 D
4 C 9 C 14 A 19 B 24 A
5 B 10 B 15 A 20 C 25 C
27

Section-I Physical Sciences (Physics) : Sample Question Papers Nest Junior Scholarships Test

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Sample Question Papers SET 5 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q.2. The physical quantity having the unit 𝑁 𝑘𝑔is

(A) acceleration (B) Force (C) Velocity (D) mass

Q.3. 𝑆 = 𝐴 1 − 𝑒 −𝐵𝑥𝑡 where S is speed and x is displacement. Then unit of B is

(A) 𝑚−1 𝑠 −1 (B) 𝑚−2 𝑠 (C) 𝑠 −2 (D) 𝑠 −1

(A) 𝜋 2 (B) 𝜋 6 (C) 𝜋 3 (D)

Q.6. If a body has uniform speed, it

(A) has uniform velocity (B) has zero acceleration

Q.7. Shape of a displacement time graph for a body projected vertically up

(A) increases (B) decreases

(A) 10 m (B) 20 m (C) 30 m (D) 60 m

(A) amplitude (B) frequency (C) wavelength (D) time-period

(A) optical fibre (B) Prism binoculars

(A) Both eyes of red colour

Q.16. Beyond the earth’s atmosphere, the sky will look

(A) Dark (black) because there is no scattering

(A) 0.16𝜇𝑐 (B) −0.16𝜇𝑐 (C) 32𝜇𝑐 (D) −32𝜇𝑐

(A) 16 V (B) 8 V (C) 4 V (D) 2 V

Q.20. The propagation of current is at the speed of

(A) light (B) sound (C) zero (D)

(A) electron path will be less curved than protons path

Q.23. A mariner’s compass shows

(A) geographic N-S direction

Q.25. The electromagnetic waves are

(A) Longitudinal in nature (B) stationary in nature

ANSWER SET TO SECTION-I PHYSICS

Q.1. How many grams of 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 will give 56 gm of 𝑎𝑂 ?

Q.2. Microgram is written as -------------

Q.3. Which of the following is the lightest metal?

Q.5. Metallic crystalline solids have ------------

Q.6. Absolute temperature is the temperature at which ----------

Q.7. 𝑝𝐻 of a solution can not be ------------

Q.8. What is the unit of refractive index?

Q.11. Electroplating was discovered by ------------------

Q.12. Which of the following phosphorous is most reactive?

Q.13. Percentage of free space is bcc lattice by ----------------

Q.14. Glass is soluble in -------------------

Q.15. Diamond is used in glass cutting due to it’s ---------------------

Q.16. Vapour density of a gas is 22. What is molecular weight?

Q.17. Triple point of water is ------------------

(A) 273 K (B) 373 K (C) 203 K (D) 193 K

Q.19. Baeyer reagent is used in the laboratory for -----------------

Q.20. In which type of reaction oxygen is converted into zone?

Q.21. The most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant is ----------------

Q.22. Hydrolysis of trichloromethane with aqueous KOH gives ---------------

Q.23. Paraldehyde is formed by the polymerization of ------------------

Q.24. Aspirin is -----------------

(A) Salicylic acid (B) Acetylsalicylic acid

Q.25. Which of the following is not essential for photosynthesis?

ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-I CHEMISTRY

Q.2. For an A.P if 𝑡4 = 12 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑑 = −10 𝑤𝑕𝑎𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚.

(A) −10𝑛 + 52 (B) −10𝑛 − 52 (C) 10𝑛 + 52 (D) 10𝑛 − 52

(A) one solution

Q.6. Without solving simultaneous equation decide 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 16 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 − 𝑦 = 6 𝑕𝑎𝑣𝑒 … … ….

Q.8. In step deviation method ui is given by

Q.9. fi in the mode formula defines

(A) frequency of per modal class

Q.10. Frequency can gives idea about . . . . . . .

Q.11. Frequency curve is ……….. shaped

(A) ball (B) bell (C) tail (D) cone

Q.12. In class interval is given in the range 0 – 8 , 8 – 16 , m – 24 , 24 – 32 then value of m is

(A)8 (B) 24 (C) 32 (D) None of these