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Digital Communication MCQs
Digital Communication MCQs
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Digital Communication
Module 01
1.The Central Limit Theorem says that the sampling distribution of the sample
mean is approximately normal if
a. all possible samples are selected.
b. the sample size is large.
c. the standard error of the sampling distribution is small.
Ans:B
2. The Central Limit Theorem says that the mean of the sampling distribution
of the sample means is
a. equal to the population mean divided by the square root of the sample size.
b. close to the population mean if the sample size is large.
c. exactly equal to the population mean.
Ans:C
3. The Central Limit Theorem says that the standard deviation of the sampling
distribution of the sample means is
a. equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the
sample size.
b. close to the population standard deviation if the sample size is large.
c. exactly equal to the standard deviation.
Ans: A
4. Samples of size 25 are selected from a population with mean 40 and
standard deviation 7.5. The mean of the sampling distribution of sample
means is
a. 7.5
b. 8
c. 40
Ans: C
5.Samples of size 25 are selected from a population with mean 40 and
standard deviation 7.5. The standard error of the sampling distribution of
sample means is
a. 0.3
b. 1.5
c. 7.5
Ans:C
6. Least Squares Estimation minimizes
a. summation of squares of errors
b. summation of errors
c. summation of absolute values of errors
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d. All
ANS : A
7. Random variables give relationship between _____
a) Two random events
b) Probability of occurence of two random events
c) Random event and a real number
d) Random event and its probability of occurrence
Answer: c
Explanation: A random variable gives a functional relationship between a random
event and a real number.
8. The distribution function of random variable is
a) P(X less than or equal to x)
b) P(X greater than or equal to x)
c) P(X less than x)
d) P(X greater than x)
Answer: a
Explanation: The distribution function of a random variable is the probability that
the value taken by the random variable is less than or equal to the real number x.
9. The distribution function of -(infinity) and (infinity) is _____
a) 0 and 1
b) 1 and 0
c) Both 0
d) Both 1
Answer: a
Explanation: F(minus infinity) is 0 and F(infinity) is 1.
10. The value of the probability density function of random variable is
a) Positive function
b) Negative function
c) Zero
d) One
Answer: a
Explanation: The probability density function is always greater than 0. It is a non
negative function with the area of 1.
11. Which gives the measure of randomness of the random variable?
a) Mean
b) Variance
c) Standard variance
d) Pdf
Answer: b
Explanation: Variance gives the randomness of the random variable. It is the
difference between the mean square value and square of the mean.
12. Random process is a function of ______
a) Random event and time
b) Random event and frequency
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Explanation: The average power of white noise is infinity because its bandwidth is
infinite.
18. White noise has _____ mean and ______ variance.
a) Zero and zero
b) Finite and zero
c) Zero and finite
d) One and zero
Answer: c
Explanation: White noise is a zero mean function with infinite average power, finite
variance and infinite bandwidth.
Module 02
1. The minimum nyquist bandwidth needed for baseband transmission of Rs
symbols per second is
a) Rs
b) 2Rs
c) Rs/2
d) Rs2
Answer: c
Explanation: Theoretical minimum nyquist bandwidth needed for the baseband
transmission of Rs symbols per second without ISI is Rs/2.
2. The capacity relationship is given by
a) C = W log2 ( 1+S/N )
b) C = 2W log2 ( 1+S/N )
c) C = W log2 ( 1-S/N )
d) C = W log10 ( 1+S/N )
Answer: a
Explanation: The capacity relationship from Shannon-hartley capacity theorem is
given by C = W log2 ( 1+S/N ).
3. Which parameter is called as Shannon limit?
a) PB/N0
b) EB/N0
c) EBN0
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: There exists a limiting value for EB/N0 below which they can be no
error free communication at any information rate. This EB/N0 is called as Shannon
limit.
4. Entropy is the measure of
a) Amount of information at the output
b) Amount of information that can be transmitted
c) Number of error bits from total number of bits
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
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22) Which among the following is used to construct the binary code that
satisfies the prefix condition?
a. Information Rate
b. Noiseless Channel
c. Channel Coding Theorem
d. Kraft Inequality
ANSWER: Kraft Inequality
23) Which coding technique/s exhibit/s the usability of fixed length codes?
a. Lempel Ziv
b. Huffman
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Lempel Ziv
24) Which lossy method for audio compression is responsible for encoding the
difference between two consecutive samples?
a. Silence Compression
b. Linear Predictive Coding (LPC)
c. Adaptive Differential Pulse Code modulation (ADPCM)
d. Code Excited Linear Predictor (CELP)
ANSWER: Adaptive Differential Pulse Code modulation (ADPCM)
25) Which among the following compression techniques is/are intended for
still images?
a. JPEG
b. H.263
c. MPEG
d. All of the above
ANSWER: JPEG
26) In dictionary techniques for data compaction, which approach of building
dictionary is used for the prior knowledge of probability of the frequently
occurring patterns?
a. Static Dictionary
b. Adaptive Dictionary
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Static Dictionary
27) Which bitmap file format/s support/s the Run Length Encoding (RLE)?
a. TIFF
b. BMP
c. PCX
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
28) Huffman coding technique is adopted for constructing the source code with
________ redundancy.
a. Maximum
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b. Constant
c. Minimum
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: Minimum
29) Which coding terminology deals with the inverse operation of assigned
words of second language corresponding to the words in the first language?
a. Enciphering
b. Deciphering
c. Codeword
d. Codebook
ANSWER: Deciphering
30) In discrete memoryless source, the current letter produced by a source is
statistically independent of _____
a. Past output
b. Future output
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
31. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman
codes?
a) exhaustive search
b) greedy algorithm
c) brute force algorithm
d) divide and conquer algorithm
Answer: b
Explanation: Greedy algorithm is the best approach for solving the Huffman codes
problem since it greedily searches for an optimal solution.
32. How many printable characters does the ASCII character set consists of?
a) 120
b) 128
c) 100
d) 98
Answer: c
Explanation: Out of 128 characters in an ASCII set, roughly, only 100 characters are
printable while the rest are non-printable.
33. Which bit is reserved as a parity bit in an ASCII set?
a) first
b) seventh
c) eighth
d) tenth
Answer: c
Explanation: In an ASCII character set, seven bits are reserved for character
representation while the eighth bit is a parity bit.
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34. How many bits are needed for standard encoding if the size of the
character set is X?
a) log X
b) X+1
c) 2X
d) X2
Answer: a
Explanation: If the size of the character set is X, then [log X] bits are needed for
representation in a standard encoding.
35. The code length does not depend on the frequency of occurrence of
characters.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: The code length depends on the frequency of occurrence of
characters. The more frequent the character occurs, the less is the length of the
code.
36. In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur?
a) roots
b) leaves
c) left sub trees
d) right sub trees
Answer: b
Explanation: In Huffman encoding, data is always stored at the leaves of a tree
inorder to compute the codeword effectively.
37. From the following given tree, what is the code word for the character ‘a’?
a) 011
b) 010
c) 100
d) 101
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Answer: a
Explanation: By recording the path of the node from root to leaf, the code word for
character ‘a’ is found to be 011.
38. From the following given tree, what is the computed codeword for ‘c’?
a) 111
b) 101
c) 110
d) 011
Answer: c
Explanation: By recording the path of the node from root to leaf, assigning left
branch as 0 and right branch as 1, the codeword for c is 110.
39. What will be the cost of the code if character ci is at depth di and occurs at
frequency fi?
a) cifi
b) ∫cifi
c) ∑fidi
d) fidi
Answer: c
Explanation: If character ci is at depth di and occurs at frequency fi, the cost of the
codeword obtained is ∑fidi.
40. An optimal code will always be present in a full tree.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: An optimal tree will always have the property that all nodes are either
leaves or have two children. Otherwise, nodes with one child could move up a level.
41. The type of encoding where no character code is the prefix of another
character code is called?
a) optimal encoding
b) prefix encoding
c) frequency encoding
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d) trie encoding
Answer: b
Explanation: Even if the character codes are of different lengths, the encoding
where no character code is the prefix of another character code is called prefix
encoding.
42. What is the running time of the Huffman encoding algorithm?
a) O(C)
b) O(log C)
c) O(C log C)
d) O( N log C)
Answer: c
Explanation: If we maintain the trees in a priority queue, ordered by weight, then
the running time is given by O(C log C).
43. What is the running time of the Huffman algorithm, if its implementation
of the priority queue is done using linked lists?
a) O(C)
b) O(log C)
c) O(C log C)
d) O(C2)
Answer: d
Explanation: If the implementation of the priority queue is done using linked lists,
the running time of Huffman algorithm is O(C2).
44. For M equally likely messages, M>>1, if the rate of informaon R > C,
the probability of error is
a) Arbitrarily small
b) Close to unity
c) Not predictable
d) Unknown
Ans:B
44. For M equally likely messages, M>>1, if the rate of informaon R = C,
the probability of error is
a) Arbitrarily small
b) Close to unity
c) Not predictable
d) Unknown
Ans:A
45. The negative statement for Shannon’s theorem states that
a) If R is greater than C, the error probability increases towards Unity
b) If R is less than C, the error probability is very small
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
Ans:A
46. According to Shannon Hartley theorem,
a) The channel capacity becomes infinite with infinite bandwidth
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b) The channel capacity does not become infinite with infinite bandwidth
c) Has a trade off between bandwidth and Signal to noise rao
d) Both b and c are correct
Ans:D
47. The capacity of a binary symmetric channel, given H(P) is binary
entropy funcon is
a) 1 – H(P)
b) H(P) – 1
c) 1 – H(P)2
d) H(P)2 – 1
Ans:A
Module 03
1.For a (7, 4) block code, 7 is the total number of bits and 4 is the number of
a) Information bits
b) Redundant bits
c) Total bits- information bits
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Information bits
2.Interleaving process permits a burst of B bits, with l as consecutive code bits
and t errors when
a) B <= 2tl
b) B >= tl
c) B <= tl/2
d) B <= tl
ANSWER: d) B <= tl
3.The code in convolution coding is generated using
a) EX-OR logic
b) AND logic
c) OR logic
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) EX-OR logic
4.For decoding in convolution coding, in a code tree,
a) Diverge upward when a bit is 0 and diverge downward when the bit is 1
b) Diverge downward when a bit is 0 and diverge upward when the bit is 1
c) Diverge left when a bit is 0 and diverge right when the bit is 1
d) Diverge right when a bit is 0 and diverge left when the bit is 1
ANSWER: a) Diverge upward when a bit is 0 and diverge downward when the bit is 1
5.A linear code
a) Sum of code words is also a code word
b) All- zero code word is a code word
c) Minimum hamming distance between two code words is equal to weight of any
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Answer: a
Explanation: Linear codes are used in forward error correction. It allows for more
efficient encoding and decoding procedures.
17. The k-bit message forms ____ distinct messages which is referred to as k-
tuples.
a) 2k
b) K2
c) 2k
d) 21/k
Answer: c
Explanation: The k bit messages for 2k distinct message sequences which are
referred to as k-tuples or sequence of k digits.
18. The sum of any two vectors in subset S is also in S. This is called as
a) Addition property
b) Subset property
c) Closure property
d) Similarity property
Answer: c
Explanation: The closure property states that the sum of any two vectors in subset S
is also in S.
19. To avoid corruption during transmission, the code-word should be
a) Near
b) Far apart
c) Far
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The code-words should be far apart from one and another as possible
so even when the vectors experience some corruption they may still be correctly
decoded.
20. In a standard matrix set code-word there are _______ cosset.
a) 2k
b) 2n+k
c) 2n-k
d) 2n
Answer: c
Explanation: Each n-tuple appears in only one location none are missing and none
are replicated. There are 2n-k cosets.
21. Syndrome is calculated by
a) HT/r
b) rHT
c) rH
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The syndrome is calculated using S=rHT.
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22. The _____ of the code-word is the number of non zero elements.
a) Size
b) Weight
c) Distance
d) Subspace
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of the code-word is the number of code words. The weight of
the code word can be given as the number of non zero elements and the distance
between two code words is the hamming distance between them.
23. Some examples of linear codes
a) Hamming code
b) Reed-Solomon code
c) Parity code
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Some examples of linear codes are block codes, parity codes, reed-
Solomon codes, hamming code, cyclic codes, polynomial codes, go-lay codes etc.
24. In layering, n layers provide service to
a) n layer
b) n-1 layer
c) n+1 layer
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In layering n layer provides service to n+1 layer and use the service
provided by n-1 layer.
25. Which can be used as an intermediate device in between transmitter
entity and receiver entity?
a) IP router
b) Microwave router
c) Telephone switch
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: IP router, microwave router and telephone switch can be used as an
intermediate device between communication of two entities.
26. Which has comparatively high frequency component?
a) Sine wave
b) Cosine wave
c) Square wave
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Square wave has comparatively high frequency component in them.
27. Which has continuous transmission?
a) Asynchronous
b) Synchronous
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Module 04
1. Wavelength and antenna size are related as
a) λ/2
b) λ/4
c) 2λ
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d) 4λ
Answer: b
Explanation: The transmission of Em field in space is done with the help of
antennas. Antenna size depends of the wavelength. The length of the antenna is
equal to λ/4.
2. The detection method where carrier’s phase is given importance is called as
a) Coherent detection
b) Non coherent detection
c) Coherent detection & Non coherent detection
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: When the receiver uses carrier’s phase as major factor for detection
then it is called as coherent detection and when carrier is not given importance it is
called as non coherent detection.
3. The coherent modulation techniques are
a) PSK
b) FSK
c) ASK
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Some of the examples of coherent modulation techniques are phase
shift keying, amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying and continuous phase
modulation.
4. The real part of a sinusoid carrier wave is called as
a) Inphase
b) Quadrature
c) Inphase & Quadrature
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The two main parts of sinusoid carrier wave – real part is called as
inphase and the imaginary part is called as quadrature.
5. Antipodal signal sets are those vectors that can be illustrated as
a) Two 180 opposing vector
b) Two 90 opposing vector
c) Two 360 opposing vector
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In BPSK the two vectors, the signal set can be illustrated as two 180
opposing vector which is called as antipodal signal sets.
6. The FSK signal which has a gentle shift from one frequency level to another
is called as
a) Differential PSK
b) Continuous PSK
c) Differential & Continuous PSK
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d) Communication limit
Answer: c
Explanation: Eb/N0 curve has waterfall shape. Shannon limit gives the threshold
value below which reliable communication cannot be maintained.
12. M-ary signalling produces _______ error performance with orthogonal
signalling and _______ error performance with multiple phase signalling.
a) Degraded, improved
b) Improved, degraded
c) Improved, improved
d) Degraded, degraded
Answer: b
Explanation: In M-ary signalling as k increases, the curve moves towards the
degraded error performance. It produces improved error performance in case of
orthogonal signalling and degraded error performance in case of multiple phase
signalling.
13. Which is more vulnerable to noise?
a) 2-ary system
b) 4-ary system
c) Binary system
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum energy noise vector for 4-ary system is smaller than 2-
ary system. So 4-ary system is more vulnerable to noise.
14. In which system, bit stream is portioned into even and odd stream?
a) BPSK
b) MSK
c) QPSK
d) FSK
Answer: c
Explanation: In QPSK bit stream is portioned into even and odd stream, I and Q bit
streams. Each new stream modulates as orthogonal component at half bit rate.
15. The error performance of MPSK ______ as M or k increases.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Stays constant
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The error performance of MPSK degrades as M or k increases.
16. In MPSK adding new signals _______ make it vulnerable to noise and in MFSK
_______ make it vulnerable.
a) Does, does not
b) Does not, does
c) Does, does
d) Does not, does not
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Answer: a
Explanation: In MPSK adding new signals that is on crowding the signals it makes it
vulnerable to noise where as in MFSK it does not.
17. In orthogonal signalling with symbols containing more number of bits we
need ____ power.
a) More
b) Less
c) Double
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In orthogonal signalling with symbols having more number of bits need
more power but requirement per bit is reduced.
18. For FSK signalling, WT is equal to
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.737
d) Infinity
Answer: b
Explanation: For FSK signalling the detection bandwidth is typically equal to symbol
rate 1/T that is WT is nearly equal to 1.
19. Energy per symbol Es is given as
a) Es=Eb(log2M)
b) Es=Eb/(log2M)
c) Es=2Eb(log2M)
d) Es=Eb/2(log2M)
Answer: a
Explanation: In M-ary PSK signalling, the energy per symbol is given as
Es=Eb(log2M).
20. The relation between the probability of bit error and probability of symbol
error in M-ary orthogonal signalling is
a) M/M-1
b) 2M/M-1
c) (M/2)/M-1
d) M/M+1
Answer: c
Explanation: The relationship between the probability of bit error and probability of
symbol error is (M/2)/M-1 in M-ary orthogonal signalling.
21. As limit of k increases, the ratio of PB/PE becomes
a) 1:2
b) 2:1
c) 1:3
d) 3:1
Answer: a
Explanation: As the limit of k increases, the ratio of PB/PE becomes 1:2.
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Answer: a
Explanation: Class A amplifiers have 50% maximum power efficiency.
27. Which generates high distortion?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class AB
Answer: c
Explanation: Class C amplifiers generate high distortion and it is closer to switch
than an amplifier.
28. Class B linear amplifiers have maximum power efficiency of
a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 78.5%
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Class B linear amplifiers have maximum power efficiency of 78.5%.
29. Which has the maximum power efficiency?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class AB
Answer: c
Explanation: Class C has the maximum power efficiency when compared to the
other linear amplifiers.
30. Free space in idealization which consists
a) Transmitter
b) Receiver
c) Transmitter & Receiver
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Free space is an idealization that consists of only transmitter and
receiver.
31. Average energy per bit is given by
a) average energy symbol/log2 M
b) average energy symbol * log2 M
c) log2 M/ Average energy symbol
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Average energy per bit is given by average energy symbol divided by
log2 M.
32. Which FSK has no phase discontinuity?
a) Continuous FSK
b) Discrete FSK
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c) Uniform FSK
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Continuous frequency shift keying has no phase discontinuity between
symbols.
33. FSK reception is
a) Phase Coherent
b) Phase non coherent
c) Phase Coherent & non coherent
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Reception of FSK can be either phase coherent or phase non coherent.
34. FSK reception uses
a) Correlation receiver
b) PLL
c) Correlation receiver & PLL
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Frequency shift keying uses correlation receiver and phase locked loop.
35. In non coherent reception _____ is measured.
a) Phase
b) Energy
c) Power
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In non coherent reception of FSK, energy in each frequency is
measured.
36. Every frequency has ____ orthogonal functions.
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Six
Answer: b
Explanation: Every frequency has two orthogonal functions – sine and cosine.
37. If we correlate the received signal with any one of the two orthogonal
function, the obtained inner product will be
a) In phase
b) Quadrature
c) Zero
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: c
Explanation: If we correlate the received signal with only one of the orthogonal
function for example sine, the inner product obtained will be zero.
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38. If we correlate the received signal with both orthogonal function the inner
product will be
a) In phase
b) Quadrature
c) In phase and quadrature
d) Unity
Answer: c
Explanation: If we correlate the received signal with both the orthogonal function,
the two inner products obtained will be in phase and quadrature.
39. Simulation is used to determine
a) Bit error rate
b) Symbol error rate
c) Bit error
d) Symbol error
Answer: a
Explanation: A simulation of digital communication system is used to estimate bit
error rate.
40. Matched filter is a _____ technique.
a) Modulation
b) Demodulation
c) Modulation & Demodulation
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Matched filter is a demodulation technique with LTI.
41. Which is called as on-off keying?
a) Amplitude shift keying
b) Uni-polar PAM
c) Amplitude shift keying & Uni-polar PAM
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Amplitude shift keying and uni-polar PAM both schemes are called as
on off keying.
42. QAM uses ______ as the dimensions.
a) In phase
b) Quadrature
c) In phase & Quadrature
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: QAM uses in phase and quadrature which is cosine and sine
respectively as the dimensions.
43. Which has same probability of error?
a) BPSK and QPSK
b) BPSK and ASK
c) BPSK and PAM
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48.In Binary Phase Shift Keying system, the binary symbols 1 and 0 are represented
by carrier with phase shift of
a) Π/2
b) Π
c) 2Π
d) 0
ANSWER: Π
49.BPSK system modulates at the rate of
a) 1 bit/ symbol
b) 2 bit/ symbol
c) 4 bit/ symbol
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) 1 bit/ symbol
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Module 05
1. The method in which the tail of one pulse smears into adjacent symbol
interval is called as
a) Intersymbol interference
b) Interbit interference
c) Interchannel interference
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to the effect of system filtering the received pulse can overlap on
one and another. The tail of one pulse smears into the adjacent symbol interval
thereby interfering the detection process. This process is called as intersymbol
interference.
2. If each pulse of the sequence to be detected is in _____ shape, the pulse can
be detected without ISI.
a) Sine
b) Cosine
c) Sinc
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The sinc shaped pulse is the ideal nyquist pulse. If each pulse in the
sequence to be detected is in sinc shape the pulses can be detected without ISI.
3. What is symbol rate packing?
a) Maximum possible symbol transmission rate
b) Maximum possible symbol receiving rate
c) Maximum bandwidth
d) Maximum ISI value allowed
Answer: a
Explanation: A system with bandwidth Rs/2 can support a maximum transmission
rate of Rs without ISI. Thus for ideal Nyquist filtering the maximum possible symbol
transmission rate is called as symbol rate packing and it is equal to 2 symbols/s/Hz.
4. A nyquist pulse is the one which can be represented by _____ shaped pulse
multiplied by another time function.
a) Sine
b) Cosine
c) Sinc
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A nyquist filter is one whose frequency transfer function can be
represented by a rectangular function convolved with any real even symmetric
frequency function and a nyquist pulse is one whose shape can be represented by
sinc function multiplied by another time function.
5. Examples of nyquist filters are
a) Root raised cosine filter
b) Raised cosine filter
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Answer: c
Explanation: ASK and PSK needs twice the transmission bandwidth of equivalent
baseband signals. Thus these are called as double side band signals.
11. Channel’s phase response must be a linear function of
a) Time
b) Frequency
c) Time & Frequency
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: To achieve ideal transmission characteristics, the signal’s bandwidth
must be constant and the channel’s phase response must be a linear function of
frequency.
12. Amplitude distortion occurs when
a) Impulse response is not constant
b) Impulse response is constant
c) Frequency transfer function is constant
d) Frequency transfer function is not constant
Answer: d
Explanation: When modulus of channel’s transfer function is not constant within W
then amplitude distortion occurs.
13. Phase distortion occurs when
a) Phase response is function of frequency
b) Phase response is not a function of frequency
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: When channels phase response is not a linear function of frequency
within W then phase distortion occurs.
14. Equalization process includes
a) Maximum likelihood sequence estimation
b) Equalization with filters
c) Maximum likelihood sequence estimation & Equalization with filters
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Equalization process can be divided into two major categories called as
maximum likelihood sequence estimator and equalizer with a filter.
15. The maximum likelihood sequence estimator adjusts _______ according to
_____ environment.
a) Receiver, transmitter
b) Transmitter, receiver
c) Receiver, receiver
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In maximum likelihood sequence estimator it measures the impulse
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response value and adjusts the receiver environment according to that of the
transmitter.
16. The filters used with the equalizer is of ______ types.
a) Feed forward
b) Feed backward
c) Feed forward and feedback
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The filters used with equalizers can be linear devices that contain only
feed forward elements or non linear devices with both feed forward and feed back
elements.
17. Transversal equalizers are ________ and decision feedback equalizers are
______
a) Feed forward, feed back
b) Feed back, feed forward
c) Feed forward, feed forward
d) Feedback, feedback
Answer: a
Explanation: Linear devices with only feed forward elements are called as
transversal equalizers and non linear devices with both feed forward and feed back
elements are called as decision feedback equalizers.
18. Symbol spaced has ____ sample per symbol and fractionally spaced has ___
samples per symbol.
a) One, many
b) Many, one
c) One, one
d) Many, many
Answer: a
Explanation: Predetection samples are provided only on symbol boundaries. A
condition in which only one sample per symbol are provided is called as symbol
spaced and the condition in which multiple samples are provided per symbol is
called as fractionally spaced.
19. The _______ of the opening of eye pattern indicates the time over which the
sampling for detection might be performed.
a) Length
b) Width
c) X-axis value
d) Y-axis value
Answer: b
Explanation: An eye pattern is a display that results from measuring a system’s
response to baseband signals in a prescribed way. The width of the opening gives
the time over which the sampling for detection might be performed.
20. Range of time difference of the zero crossing gives the value of
a) Width
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b) Distortion
c) Timing jitter
d) Noise margin
Answer: c
Explanation: The time difference of the zero crossing in the eye pattern gives the
value of timing jitter.
21.As the eye opens, ISI _______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option 2- Decreases
22.The _______ of the opening of eye pattern indicates the time over which the
sampling for detection
might be performed.
a. Length
b. Width
c. X-axis value
d. Y-axis value
Answer: Option 2 – Width
23. A nyquist pulse is the one which can be represented by _____ shaped pulse
multiplied by another time
function.
a. Sine
b. Cosine
c. Sinc
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option 3 – Sinc
24. Which value of r (roll off factor) is considered as Nyquist minimum
bandwidth case?
a. 0
b. 1
c. Infinity
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option 1 – 0
25.Examples of nyquist filters are
a. Root raised cosine filter
b. Raised cosine filter
c. Root raised & Raised cosine filter
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option 3 – Root raised & Raised cosine filter
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Module 06
1. ____________ limits receiver sensitivity.
a) Noise
b) Depletion layer
c) Avalanche
d) Current
Answer: a
Explanation: Receiver noise affects receiver sensitivity. It can dictate the overall
system design. The noise can be temperature, environmental factor or due to
components.
2. A ____________ performs the linear conversion of the received optical signal
into an electric current.
a) Receiver
b) Converter
c) Detector
d) Reflector
Answer: c
Explanation: An optical signal is always fed to a detector. A detector is an
optoelectronic converter which linearly converts the received optical signal into an
electric current.
3. __________ are provided to reduce distortion and to provide a suitable signal
shape for the filter.
a) Detector
b) Equalizer
c) Filters
d) Amplifier
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical detectors are linear devices. They do not introduce distortion
themselves but other components may exhibit nonlinear behaviour. To compensate
for distortion, an equalizer is provided in the receiver circuit.
4. A _________ maximizes the received signal-to-noise ratio in the receiver
circuitry.
a) Filter
b) Equalizer
c) Detector
d) Reflector
Answer: a
Explanation: A filter reduces the noise bandwidth as well as inbounds noise levels. A
filter maximizes the received signal-to-noise ratio while preserving the essential
features of the signal. It also reduces ISI.
5. ________ can be operated in three connections.
a) Reflectors
b) Diodes
c) LED’s
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d) FET’s
Answer: d
Explanation: FET’s or bipolar transistors are operated in three useful connections.
These are the common emitter, the common base or gate, and the emitter or
source follower.
6. How many structures of pre-amplifiers exist?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
Answer: b
Explanation: The basic structures of pre-amplifiers are observed in three forms.
These are low-impedance, high-impedance and trans-impedance front end
preamplifier structures.
7. What is the main factor contributing to the choice of the operational
amplifier?
a) Gain
b) Impedance
c) Conductance
d) Gain-Bandwidth product
Answer: d
Explanation: A TTL interface stage is always used with the operational amplifier. A
device that requires higher accuracy often tends to depend on gain-bandwidth
product.
The choice of amplifier for receiver accuracy is dependant on gain-bandwidth
product.
8. The multiplication factor for the APD varies with the device temperature.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Optimum multiplication factor is required for smooth voltage variance.
The multiplication factor for APD varies with the device temperature thus making
provision of fine control for bias voltage.
9. How many categories of dynamic gain equalizers are available?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic gain equalizers are categorized into two types. These are
single-channel and multichannel equalizers, thus providing operation using single or
multiple wavelengths.
10. How many simultaneous channels can be provided in a band DGE(Dynamic
gain equalizer)?
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a) Six
b) Two
c) Eight
d) Ten
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, eight channels are provided simultaneously in a band DGE.
These are for the attenuation purpose of channels along with gain equalization.
11. Matched filter may be optimally used only for
a) Gaussian noise
b) Transit time noise
c) Flicker
d) All of the above
ANSWER: a) Gaussian noise
12. Characteristics of Matched filter are
a) Matched filter is used to maximize Signal to noise ratio even for non Gaussian
noise
b) It gives the output as signal energy in the absence of noise
c) They are used for signal detection
d) All of the above
ANSWER: d) All of the above
13. Matched filters may be used
a) To estimate the frequency of the received signal
b) In parameter estimation problems
c) To estimate the distance of the object
d) All of the above
ANSWER: d) All of the above