PUSHPARAJ CLASSES, OTUR : NEET & MHT-CET (BIOLOGY) XII

Unit‐VII : Genetics and Evolution

Chapter No. 7 : Evolution
Class‐
1.One of the possible early sources of energy was/were
(a) CO2 (b) chlorophyll (c) green plants (d) UV rays and lightning.
2. Abiogenesis theory of origin supports
(a) spontaneous generation (b) origin of life from blue‐green algae
(c) origin of life is due to pre‐existing organisms (d) organic evolution is due to chemical reactions.
3. Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated
spontaneously from non‐living matter?
(a) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
(b) (b)Microbes can appear on bread kept at a moist place.
(c) Microbes appear on unsterilised organic matter.
(d) (d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel.
4. Read the given statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Swan‐necked flask experiment was done by Louis Pasteur.
(ii) The early belief of the spontaneous origin of life was disproved by Louis Pasteur.
(iii) Louis Pasteur is famous for germ theory of diseases.
(iv) The idea that life originates from pre‐existing life is referred to as biogenesis theory.
(v) Father Suarez was one of the greatest supporter of theory of special creation.
(vi) Cosmozoic theory of the origin of life was proposed by Richter.
(vii) The founder of 'theory of catastrophism' is Georges Cuvier.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi) (b) (ii), (v) and (vii) (c)(iii),(iv),(v) and (vii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi), (vii)
5. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
A. Francesco Redi (i) Theory of chemical evolution of life
B. L.Pasteur (ii) Disproval of spontaneous generation
C. Richter (iii) Swan necked flask experiment
D. Oparin (iv)Mutation
(v)Panspermia
(a) A‐(v), B‐(i), C‐(iv), D‐(ii) (b) A‐(ii),B‐(iii),C‐(v), D‐(i) (c) A‐(v), B‐(iv), C‐(ii),D‐(i) (d) A‐(i), B‐(ii),C‐(iii),D‐(iv)
6. Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre‐existing non‐living organic molecules?
(a) S.L.Miller (b) Oparin and Haldane (c)Charles Darwin (d) Alfred Wallace
7. According to one of the most widely accepted theories, earth's atmosphere before origin of life was
(a) oxidising (b) oxidising along with H2
(c) reducing with free O2 in small amount (d) reducing with oxygen absent in O2 form.
8. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth ?
(a) Methane (b) Oxygen (c) Hydrogen (d)Water vanour
Direction: Refer to the given figure and answer the question 9 and 10.

9. In the experiment in given diagram which of the following groups of gases were used to simulate primitive
atmosphere?
(a) N2, H2,CH4,C2H6 (b) NH3,H20,CH4,H2 (c) N2O,H2O,NO2,SO2 (d) CH4,H2,NO2,SO2
10.The diagram given here is the representation of
(a) Miller's experiment (b) Redi's experiment
(c) Louis Pasteur's experiment (d) Spallanzani's experiment.
11.From the point of view of early chemical evolution that preceded the origin of life on earth,the most important
simple organic molecules formed were
(a) sugars and amino acids (b) glycerol and fatty acids
(c) purines and pyrimidines (d) all of these.

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 PUSHPARAJ CLASSES, OTUR : NEET & MHT-CET (BIOLOGY) XII
Unit‐VII : Genetics and Evolution
Chapter No. 7 : Evolution
12.The correct sequence for the manufacture of the compounds on the primitive earth is
(a) NH3, CH4,protein and carbohydrate (b) protein,carbohydrate,water and nucleic acid
(c) NH3, CH4,carbohydrate and nucleic acid (d) NH3,carbohydrate,protein and nucleic acid.
13. The prebiotic atmosphere of the earth was of a reducing nature. It was transformed into an oxidising
atmosphere of present day due to the emergence of
(a)cyanobacteria (b) angiosperms (c) photosynthetic protists (d) eukaryotic algae.
14. The first non‐cellular form of life could have originated billion years back.
(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 1
15. The first life originated
(a) on land (b) in air (c) in water (d) all of these.
16.On the primitive earth,polymers such as proteins and nucleic acids in aqueous suspension formed the spherical
aggregates. These are called
(a) primitosomes (b) liposomes (c) primitogens (d) coacervates.
17.Coacervates are
(a) colloid droplets (b) nucleoprotein containing entities
(c) microspheres. (d) both (a) and (b)
18.Consider following statements regarding microspheres.
(i) They were spherical in shape and 1‐2 μm in diameter.
(ii) They had concentric double‐layered boundaries.
(iii)They could grow in size but were not able to reproduce.
(iv) They used ATP as source of energy.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) (i) only (b) (ii)only (c) (iii) only (d) none of these.
19. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics ofprotobionts(coacervates and microspheres)
as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life?
(a) They were partially isolated from the surroundings.
(b) They could maintain an internal environment.
(c) They were able to reproduce sexually.
(d) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings.
20. The sequence of origin of life may be
（a) Inorganic materials→ Organic materials →Colloidal aggregate→Eobiont→Cell
（b) Organic materials → Inorganic materials →Colloidal aggregate→Eobiont→Cell
（c) Inorganic materials→Organic materials →Eobiont→Cell→Colloidal aggregate
（d) Organic materials → Inorganic materials →Eobiont→Cell→Colloidal aggregate.
21.The following are some major events in the early history of life:
P. First heterotrophic prokaryotes Q. First genes R. First eukaryotes
S. First autotrophic prokaryotes T. First animals
Which option below places these events in the correct order?
(a) P→Q→S→R→T (b) Q→S→P→T→R (c) Q→P→S→R→T (d) Q→S→P→R→T
22. First life form on earth was a
(a)cyanobacterium (b) chemoheterotroph (c) autotroph (d) photoautotroph.
23. The ship used by Charles Darwin during his sea voyages was
(a) HMS Beagle (b) HSM Beagle (c) HMS Eagle (d) HSM Eagle.
24. Fitness according to Darwin refers
(a) to number of species in a community (b) useful variation in population
(c) strength of an individual (d) reproductive fitness of an organism.
25. Alfred Wallace worked in
(a) Galapagos Island (b) Australian Island Continent
(c) Malay Archipelago (d) none of these.
26. The theory of natural selection was given by
(a) lamarck (b) Alfred Wallace (c) Charles Darwin (d) Oparin and Haldane.
27. The preserved fossil remains of Archaeopteryx show that
(a) It was a flying reptile from the Permian period (b) reptiles gave rise to birds during Jurassic period
(c) it was a flying reptile In the Triassic period (d) reptiles gave rise to birds during Permian period.
28. Which of the following isotopes is used for finding the fossil age maximum about 35,0000 years?

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 PUSHPARAJ CLASSES, OTUR : NEET & MHT-CET (BIOLOGY) XII
Unit‐VII : Genetics and Evolution
Chapter No. 7 : Evolution
(a) 238U (b) 14C (c) lH (d) 206pb
29. In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered fish
like heart, three chambered frog like heart and finally four chambered stage.
To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated ?
(a) Lamarck's principle (b) Mendelian principle (c) Biogenetic law (d)Hardy Weinberg law
30. Which of the following statements is related to Karl Ernst von Baer?
(a) Embryos never pass through the adult stages of other animals.
(b) Comparative anatomy shows differences among organisms of today and those that ex1sted years ago.
(c) Certain features during embryonic stages are common to all vertebrates that are absent in adult.
(d) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.
31. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates, supports the theory of
(a) metamorphosis (b) biogenesis (c) organic evolution (d) recapitulation
32. What can you infer about the structures shown in figure?

(a) They are homolgous strutures.

(b) They are vestigial structures.
(c) They are analogous structures.
(d) They have nothing to do with each other.

33. Which one of the following corrtectly describes the homologous structures ?
( a) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions.
(b) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but prforming same function.
(c) Orgars that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors .
(d) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult.
34. According to Lamarckism, long necked giraffes evolved because
(a) nature selected only long necked ones
(b) humans preferred only long necked ones
(c) short necks suddenly changed into long necks
(d) of stretching of necks over many generations by short necked ones.
35. Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired
characters?
(a) Lack of pigment in cave‐dwel ling animals (b) Melanisation in peppered moth
(c) Absence of limbs in snakes (d) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
36. "Human population grows in geometric ratio while food materials increase in arithmetic proportion." It is a
statement from
(a) Darwin (b) Bateson (c) Amartya Sen (d) Malthus.
37. Which one of the following scientist's name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
(a) de Vries ‐ Theory of natural selection (b) Darwin ‐Theory of pangenesis
(c) Weismann ‐Theory of continuity of germplasm (d) Pasteur ‐Theory of inheritance of acquired characters
38. Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called
(a) founder effect (b) saltation (c) branching descent (d)natural selection.
39. At a particular locus, frequency of allele A is 0.6 and that of allele a is 0.4. What would be the frequency of
heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
(a) 0.36 (b) 0.16 (c) 0.24 (d) 0.48
40. Hardy‐Weinberg equilibrium is known to be affected by gene flow,genetic drift,mutation, genetic
recombination and
(a) evolution (b) limiting factors (c) saltation (d) natural selection.
41. The Hardy‐Weinberg principle cannot operate if
(a) a population does not migrate for a longtime to a new habitat
(b) frequent mutations occur in the population
(c) the population has no chance of interaction with other populations
(d) free interbreeding occurs among all members of the population.
42. Refer to the given statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms in rocks.
(ii) Dinosaurs disappeared about 65 mya.

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 PUSHPARAJ CLASSES, OTUR : NEET & MHT-CET (BIOLOGY) XII
Unit‐VII : Genetics and Evolution
Chapter No. 7 : Evolution
(iii) Animals called lobe fins evolved into reptiles.
(iv) Study of fossils is called palaentology.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of these
43. Which of following represents correct order of evolution?
(a) Amoeba → Leucosolenia → Hydra → Ascaris (b) Leucosolenia → Hydra → Amoeba → Ascaris
(c) Ascaris → Amoeba → Leucosolenia → Hydra (d) None of these
44. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
(a) fishes were amphibious in the past (b) fishes evolved from frog‐like ancestors
(c) frogs will have gills in future (d) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors.
45. The character that proves that frogs have evolved from fishes is
(a) their ability to swim in water (b) tadpole larva in frogs
(c) similarity in the shape of the head (d) their feeding on aquatic plants.
46. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Amphibians evolved into reptiles.
(b) Fish with stout and strong fins could move on land and go back to water. This was about 350 mya.
(c) Giant ferns were present but they all fell to form coal deposits slowly.
(d) All of these
47. Golden age of reptiles was
(a) Proterozoic era (b) Palaeozoic era (c) Mesozoic era (d) Coenozoic era.
48. Amphibians were dominant during period.
(a) Carboniferous (b) Silurian (c) Ordovician (d) Cambrian
49. The primate which existed 15 mya was
(a) Homo habilis (b) Australopithecus (c) Ramapithecus (d) Homo erectus.
50. The extinct human ancestor, who ate only fruits and hunted with stone weapons was
(a) Ramapithecus (b) Australopithecus (c) Dryopithecus (d) Homo erectus.
51. 0ne of the oldest, best preserved and most complete hominid fossil commonly known as 'Lucy' belongs to the
genus
(a) Australopithecus (b) Oreopithecus (c) Dryopithecus (d) Pithecanthropus.
52. The brain capacity of Homo erectus was about
(a) 650 c.c. (b) 900 c.c. (c) 1500 c.c. (d) 1400 c.c.
53.The extinct humans who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago,in East and Central Asia, used hides to protect
their bodies and had brain capacity of 1400 c.c. were
(a) Homo habilis (b) Neanderthal man (c) Cro‐Magnon man (d) Ramapithecus.
54. Which of the following statements is corred?
(a) Australopithecus has large brain around 900 c.c.
(b) Neanderthal man lived in East Africa and ate fruits.
(c) Homo erectus had brain capacity of 900 c.c.
(d) Homo sapiens arose in Central Asia and moved to other continents and developed into distind races.
55. Which of the following statements is correct regarding evolution of mankind?
(a) Homo erectus is preceded by Homo habilis.
(b) Neanderthalman and Cro‐Magnon man were living at the same time.
(c) Australopithecus was living in Australia
(d) None of these
56. The crania l capacity was largest among the
(a) Peking man (b) Java ape man (b) Java ape man (d) Neanderthal man.
57. The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in
(a) loss of body hair (b) walking upright
(c) shortening of the jaws (d) remarkable increase in the brain size.
58. Which of the following eras, in geological time scale, corresponds to the period when life had not originated
upon the earth?
(a) Azoic (b) Palaeozoic (c) Mesozoic (d) Archaeozoic
59. Homo sapiens arose during which epoch?
(a) Pleistocene (b) Pliocene (c) Oligocene (d) Holocene
60. Study of human evolution is called
(a) archaeology (b) anthropology (c) pedigree analysis (d) chronobiology

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 PUSHPARAJ CLASSES, OTUR : NEET & MHT-CET (BIOLOGY) XII
Unit‐VII : Genetics and Evolution
Chapter No. 7 : Evolution
Home Assignment‐
1. Which of the following is used as an atmospheric pollution indicator?
(a) Lepidoptera (b) Lichens (c) Lycopersicon (d) Lycopodium
2. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that
(a) life arose from living forms only
(b) life can arise from both living and non‐living
(c) life can arise from non‐living things only
(d) life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non‐living.
3. Animal husbandry and plant breeding programmes are the examples of
(a) reverse evolution (b) artificial selection (c) mutation (d) natural selection
4. Palaentological evidences for evolution refer to the
(a) development of embryo (b) homologous organs (c) fossils (d) analogous organs.
5. The bones of forelimbs of wha le, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because
(a) one organism has given rise to another (b) they share a common ancestor
(c) they perform the same function (d) the have biochemical similarities.
6. Analogous organs arise due to
(a) divergent evolution (b) artificial selection (c) genetic drift (d) convergent evolution.
7. (p+q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 represents an equation used in
(a) population genetics (b) Mendelian genetics (c) biometrics (d) molecular genetics.
8. Appearance of antibiotic‐resistant bacteria is an example of
(a) adaptive radiation (b) transduction
(c) pre‐existing variation in the population (d) divergent evolution
9. Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from
(a) land to water (b) dryland to wet land (c) fresh water to sea water (d) water to land.
10.Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because
(a) the young ones are left on their own
(b) the young ones are protected by a thick shell
(c) the young ones are protected inside the mother's body and are looked after they are born leading to more
chances of survival
(d) the embryo takes a long time to develop
11. Fossils are generally found in
(a) sedimentary rocks (b) igneous rocks (c) metamorphic rocks (d)any type of rock.
12. For the MN‐blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively.The expected
frequency of MN‐blood group bearing organisms is likely to be
(a) 42% (b) 49% (c) 9% (d) 58%.
13. Which type of selection is industrial melanism observed in moth, Biston betu/aria?
(a) Stabilising (b) Directional (c) Disruptive (d) Artificial
14. The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is
(a) Austra/opithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
(c) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(d) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens.
15. Which of the following is an example for link species?
(a) Lobe fish (b) Dodo bird (c) Sea weed (d) Chimpanzee
16. Match the scientists listed under Column 'A' with ideas listed under Column 'B'.
Column A Column B
A. Darwin (i) Abiogenesis
B. Oparin (ii) Use and disuse of organs
C. Lamarck (iii) Continental drift theory
D. Wagner (iv) Evolution by natural selection
(a) A‐(i); 8‐(iv); C‐(ii); D‐(iii) (b) A‐(iv); 8‐(i); C‐(ii); D‐(iii)
(c) A‐(ii); 8‐(iv); C‐(iii); D‐(i) (d) A‐(iv); 8‐(iii); C‐(ii); D‐(i)
17. In 1953, 5. L. MiIIer created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave exper imental evidence for
origin of first form of life from pre‐existing non‐living organic molecules. The primitive earth conditions created
include

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 PUSHPARAJ CLASSES, OTUR : NEET & MHT-CET (BIOLOGY) XII
Unit‐VII : Genetics and Evolution
Chapter No. 7 : Evolution
(a) low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in Oxygen
(b) Low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
(c) high temperature, volcanic storms, non‐reducing atmosphere
(d) High temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3, etc.
18. Variations during mutations of meiotic recombinations are
(a) random and directionless (b) random and directiona l
(c) random and small (d) random, small and directional.
19. The force that initiates evolution is ______
(a) Variation (b) Mutation (c) Extinction (d) Adaptation
20. ___________ is a vestigial organ
(a) Intestinal villi (b) Papillae (c) Vermiform appendix (d) None of the above
21. The earliest geological time period among the following is _______
(a) Cambrian (b) Permian (c) Jurassic (d) Quaternary
22. The experiment that simulated conditions thought to be present on the early earth
(a) Hershey–Chase experiment (b) Geiger–Marsden experiment
(c) Miller–Urey experiment (d) Schiehallion experiment
23. Example of a homologous organ
(a) The arm of a human, wing of a bird (b) Wing of an insect, wing of a bird
(c) Leg of a dog, leg of a spider (d) None of the above
24. Primordial soup is a set of hypothetical conditions on ancient earth first proposed by______
(a) Dmitri Ivanovsky (b) Alexander Oparin (c) Dmitry Anuchin (d) Nikolay Shatsky
25. Which condition can be explained by Lamarckism?
(a) How giraffes got their long neck (b) How humans lost their tail
(c) How humans became bipedal (d) All of the above
26. Observation of species on ___________ heavily inspired Darwin’s theory of evolution.
(a) Ilha da Queimada Grande (b) Guatemala (c) Faroe Islands (d) Galapagos Islands
27. _____________ was considered as a missing link between reptiles and birds.
(a) Archaeopteryx (b) Pteranodon (c) Avimimus (d) Caudipteryx
28. The oldest mineral discovered so far was __________, which dates back to 4.4 billion years.
(a) Iron (b) Zircon (c) Cadmium (d) Silicon
29. Pidgeon, platypus and panda are _______
(a) Homeothermic (b) Poikilothermic (c) Hyperthermic (d) None of the above
30. The last common ancestor of humans is
(a) Pan troglodytes (b) Homo neanderthalensis (c) Lemuroidea (d) Dromaeosaurus
31. An example of convergent evolution is
(a) Wing of Hawkmoths, the wing of hawks (b) Teeth of domestic dog, teeth of a wolf
(c) Wings of Geospiza magnirostris, wings of Geospiza fortis (d) None of the above
32. On the Origin of Species was written by ______
(a) Charles Darwin (b) Ludmila Kuprianova (c) Mikhail A. Fedonkin (d) None of the above
33. When did dinosaurs die off?
(a) 105.1 million years ago (b) 65.5 million years ago
(c) 75.5 million years ago. (d) None of the above
34. Stellar distances are measured in _____
(a) Kilometer (b) Light years (c) Per second (d) Chandrasekhar limit
35. Oxygen in atmosphere has been formed by _____
(a) Evaporation of water (b) Metabolism of microorganisms
(c) Decaying organisms (d) Photosynthesis of blue green algae
36. Which scientist in his Recapitulation theory stated that “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny”?
(a) Ernst Haeckel (b) Louis Pasteur (c) Charles Darwin (d) S.L. Miller
37. The universe is almost very old–almost 20 billion years ago.
(a) True (b) False (c) Partially True (d) Partially False
38. Which theory attempts to explain to us the origin of universe?
(a) Explosion theory (b) Big‐Bang theory (c) Black hole theory (d) Gamma theory
39. During evolution, the first cellular form of life appeared before how many million years?
(a) 2000 (b) 3000 (c) 4000 (d) 4500

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 PUSHPARAJ CLASSES, OTUR : NEET & MHT-CET (BIOLOGY) XII
Unit‐VII : Genetics and Evolution
Chapter No. 7 : Evolution
40. Who demonstrated that life originated from pre‐existing cells?
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Hugo de Vries (c) Charles Darwin (d) Stanley Miller
41. During origin of life, which among the following was not found in free form?
(a) Methane (b) Ammonia (c) Oxygen (d) Hydrogen
41. Miller in his experiment, synthesized simple amino‐ acid from ______
(a) Methane, ammonia, oxygen, nitrogen (b) Hydrogen, methane, ammonia, water
(c) Ammonia, methane, carbon dioxide, oxygen (d) Hydrogen, water, oxygen, helium
42. According to spontaneous generation, life originated _____
(a) From microorganisms (b) From similar organisms (c) From air (d) Only spontaneously
43. Stanley Miller performed his experiment for explanation of the origin of life, in which year?
(a) 1953 (b) 1809 (c) 1864 (d) 1901
44. Universe originated
(a) 10‐20 billion years ago (b) 1‐2 billion years ago
(c) 500‐700 million years back (d) 250‐500 million years ago
45. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that
(a) life arose from living forms only
(b) life can arise from both living and non‐living
(c) life can arise from non‐living things only
(d) life arises spontaneusly, neither from living nor from the non‐living.
46. Animal husbandry and plant breeding programmes are the examples of
(a) reverse evolution (b) aritifical selection (c) mutation (d) natural selection.
47. Palaentological evidences for evolutaion refer to the
(a) development of embryo (b) homologous organs (c) fossils (d) analogous organs.
48. The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheeah and man are similar in structure, because
(a) one organism has given rise to another (b) they share a common ancestor
(c) they perform the same function. (d) the have biochemical similarities.
49. Analogous organs arise due to
(a) divergent evolution (b) artificial selection (c) genetic drift (d) convergent evolution.
50. (p+q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 represents an equation used in
(a) population genetics (b) Mendilian genetics (c) biometircs (d) molecular genetics.
51. Appearnace of antibiotic‐resistant bacteria is an example of
(a) adaptive radiation (b) transduction
(c) pre‐existing variation in the population (d) divergent evolution.
52. Fossils are generally found in
(a) sedimentasry rocks (b) igneous rocks (c) metamorphic rocks (d) any type of rock.
53. Which type of selection is industrial melanism observed in moth, Biston betularia?
(a) Stabilising (b) Directional (c) Disruptive (d) Artificial
54. Which of the following is an example for link species ?
(a) Lobe fish (b) Dodo bird (c) Seaweed (d) Chimpanzee
55. ariations during mutations of meiotic recombinations are
(a) random and directionless (b) random and directional
(c) random and small (d) random small and directional
56. One of the possible early sources of energy was/were
(a) CO2 (b) chlorophyll (c) green plants (d) UV rays and lightning.
57. Abiogenesis theory of origin supports
(a) spontaneous generation (b) origin of life from blue‐green algae
(c) origin of life is due to pre‐existing organisms (d) organic evolution is due to chemical reactions.
58. Who proposed that the first form of the could have come from pre‐existing non‐living organic molecules ?
(a) S.L. Miller (b) Oparin and Haldane (c) Charles Darwin (d) Alfred Wallace
59. According to one of the most widely accepted theories, earth’s atmosphere before origin of life was
(a) oxidising (b) oxidising along with H2
(c) reducing with free O2 in small amount (d) reducing with oxygen absent in O2 form.
60. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth ?
(a) Methane (b) Oxygen (c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour

PROF. NILESH R. THIKEKAR 7