Knock Out ProCLAT 10 2021 Offline Test

Knock Out ProCLAT 10 2021 Offline Test
Time: 2 hours
Total Questions: 150 Total Marks: 150
1. There are 5 Sections (Sections I - V) comprising 150 objective-type (multiple-choice)
questions. Each question carries 1 mark each.
2. Answer all questions.
3. There is a 0.25 NEGATIVE MARKING for Wrong Answer.
4. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each Section. Read them carefully before
answering.
SECTION
I English
II General Knowledge & Current Affairs
III Logical Reasoning
IV Legal Reasoning
V Quantitative Techniques
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SECTION 01 English
Direction for Questions 1-5): Each set of questions in this section is based on a single
passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
corresponding passage. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.
Aesthetics in this central sense has been said to start in the early eighteenth century, with the
series of articles on "The Pleasures of the Imagination" which the journalist Joseph Addison
wrote in the early issues of the magazine The Spectator in 1712. Before this time, thoughts
by notable figures made some forays into this ground, for instance in the formulation of
general theories of proportion and harmony, detailed most specifically in architecture and
music. But the full development of extended, philosophical reflection on Aesthetics did not
begin to emerge until the widening of leisure activities in the eighteenth century. By far the
most thoroughgoing and influential of the early theorists was Immanuel Kant, towards the
end of the eighteenth century. Therefore, it is important, first of all, to have some sense of
how Kant approached the subject. Kant is sometimes thought of as a formalist in art theory;
that is to say, someone who thinks the content of a work of art is not of aesthetic interest. But
this is only part of the story. Certainly, he was a formalist about the pure enjoyment of
nature, but for Kant most of the arts were impure, because they involved a "concept." Even
the enjoyment of parts of nature was impure, namely when a concept was involved- as when
we admire the perfection of an animal body or a human torso. But our enjoyment of, for
instance, the arbitrary abstract patterns in some foliage, or a color field (as with wild
poppies, or a sunset) was, according to Kant, absent of such concepts; in such cases, the
cognitive powers were in free play. By design, art may sometimes obtain the appearance of
this freedom: it was then "Fine Art"-but for Kant not all art had this quality. In all, Kant's
theory of pure beauty had four aspects: its freedom from concepts, its objectivity, the
disinterest of the spectator, and its obligatoriness. By "concept," Kant meant "end," or
"purpose," that is, what the cognitive powers of human understanding and imagination judge
applies to an object, such as with "it is a pebble," to take an instance. But when no definite
concept is involved, as with the scattered pebbles on a beach, the cognitive powers are held
to be in free play; and it is when this play is harmonious that there is the experience of pure
beauty. There is also objectivity and universality in the judgment then, according to Kant,
since the cognitive powers are common to all who can judge that the individual objects are
pebbles. These powers function alike whether they come to such a definite judgment or are
left suspended in free play, as when appreciating the pattern along the shoreline.
1) According to the information in the passage, each of the following is an accurate

statement about Kant's theory of art EXCEPT:
a) that most of the arts were impure.
b) that the enjoyment of the arts was impure.
c) that all art was not free from a purpose.
d) that even abstract art was impure.
2) Which one of the following statements about scattered pebbles is best supported by the
information in the passage?
a) The pebbles involve a free play of cognition.
b) The pebbles represent an aspect of true beauty.
c) The pebbles best exemplify the appreciation of true beauty.
d) The pebbles characterize one's inner beauty.
3) Which one of the following is the primary purpose of the passage?

a) To determine an argument.
b) To attempt an explanation of an occurrence.
c) To outline an assumption.
d) To strengthen studies and various findings.
4) The author's attitude as it is revealed in the language used is one of:

a) Admiration
b) Criticism
c) Exploratory
d) Reasoning
5) 'Cognitive' in the last paragraph means:

a) The process of getting awareness through knowledge.
b) The process of obtaining knowledge through experience and the senses.
c) The process of holding firmly together and forming a whole.
d) The process of thinking deeply.
Then, for some reason, something exploded inside me. I started shouting at the top of my
voice and I insulted him and told him not to pray for me. I'd grabbed him by the collar of his
cassock. I was pouring everything out at him from the bottom of my heart in a paroxysm of
joy and anger. He seemed so certain of everything, didn't he? And yet none of his certainties
was worth one hair of a woman's head. He couldn't even be sure he was alive because he was
living like a dead man. I might seem to be empty-handed. But I was sure of myself, sure of
everything, surer than he was, sure of my life and sure of the death that was coming to me.
Yes, that was all I had. But at least it was a truth which I had hold of just as it had hold of
me. I'd been right, I was still right, I was always right. I'd lived in a certain way and I could
just as well have lived in a different way. I'd done this and I hadn't done that. I hadn't done
one thing whereas I had done another. So what? It was as if I'd been waiting all along for this
very moment and for the early dawn when I'd be justified. Nothing, nothing mattered and I
knew very well why. He too knew why. From the depths of my future, throughout the whole
of this absurd life I'd been leading, I'd felt a vague breath drifting towards me across all the
years that were still to come, and on its way this breath had evened out everything that was
then being proposed to me in the equally unread years I was living through. What did other
people's deaths or a mother's love matter to me, what did his God or the lives people chose or
the destinies they selected matter to me, when one and the same destiny was to select me and
thousands of millions of other privileged people, who, like him, called themselves my
brothers. Didn't he understand? Everyone was privileged. There were only privileged people.
The others too would be condemned one day. He too would be condemned. What did it
matter if he was accused of murder and then executed for not crying at his mother's funeral?
Salamano's dog was worth just as much as his wife. The little automatic woman was just as
guilty as the Parisian woman Masson had married or as Marie who wanted me to marry her.
Didn't he understand that he was condemned and that from the depths of my future…I was
choking with all this shouting. But already the chaplain was being wrested from me and the
warders were threatening me. He calmed them though and looked at me for a moment in
silence. His eyes were full of tears. Then he turned away and disappeared.
6) According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred regarding the reason
behind the tears in the chaplain's eyes?
a) He was wounded by the guards who were wrestling him away from his silent
contemplation of the speaker's grief.
b) He was moved by the anguish of the speaker who was almost choking with his emotional
outburst.
c) He was saddened by the sudden realization that he was about to disappear from the
condemned man's life.
d) He was hurt by his failure to rescue the condemned man from a horrible fate.
7) According to the passage, which of the following can surely be inferred about privileged
people?
a) They were soon to be condemned.
b) They were destiny's favorite children.
c) They were ubiquitous.
d) They were ignorant of their destiny
8) According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred from the sentence "I was
pouring everything out at him from the bottom of my heart in a paroxysm of joy and anger"?
a) The speaker was frustrated with the unyielding certainty of the chaplain regarding the fate
of world.
b) The speaker was frustrated by his futile efforts to escape the impending doom.
c) The speaker was agitated as a result of his argument with the chaplain.
d) The speaker was agitated, and it resulted in his personal outburst.
9) All of the following act as synonyms of the word 'paroxysm' EXCEPT:

a) Bout
b) Outburst
c) Ebullition
d) Tranquil
10) Which of the following could be a possible logical corollary to the passage?
a) Once he was gone, I felt calm again. I was exhausted and I threw myself onto my bunk; I
think I must have fallen asleep because I woke up with stars shining on my face.
b) And I too felt ready to live my life again. as if this great outburst of anger had purged all
my ills, killed all my hopes, I looked up at the mass of signs and stars in the night sky and
laid myself open for the first time to the benign indifference of the world.
c) I realized that I'd been happy, and that I was still happy, my last wish was that there
should be a crowd of spectators at my execution and that they should greet me with cries of
hatred.
d) At that point, on the verge of daybreak, there was a scream of sirens; they were
announcing a departure to a world towards which I would now be forever indifferent.
Six thousand miles from the converted skating rink in which a handful of men were about to
decide the fate of the land of which it was the heart, the sacred city of Jerusalem waited
impassively for the newest sign of its destiny.
Whether in the sacrifice of animals on the altar of her ancient Jewish Temple, the sacrifice of
Christ upon a cross, or the constantly renewed sacrifice of men upon her walls, Jerusalem
had lived as no other city in the world, under the curse of bloodshed. Yet her name,
according to legend, came from the ancient Hebrew 'Yerushalayim' meaning 'City of Peace',
and her first settlements had stretched down from the Mount of Olives under a grove of palm
trees whose branches would become a universal symbol of peace. An unending stream of
prophets had proclaimed here the peace of God to man, and David, the Jewish king who had
made the city his capital, had celebrated it with the words 'Pray for the peace of Jerusalem'.
Sacred to three great religions, Judaism, Christianity, and Islam, Jerusalem's stones bore the
stigmata of her sanctity and her walls the memory of the crimes committed within them in
the name of religion. David and Pharaoh, Sennacherib and Nebuchadnezzar, Ptolemy and
Herod, Titus and the Crusaders of Godefroy de Bouillon, Tamerlane and the Saracens of
Saladin, all had fought and burned and killed here.
Now, in the midnight blue of this November night, Jerusalem offered a deceptively peaceful
appearance. A ring of lights surrounded the city like satellites: to the north, those of
Ramallah; far to the east (1) the Dead Sea floor, Jericho; to the south, Bethlehem. Closer by,
a second chain of lights leaped from hilltop to hilltop like lighthouses in the night standing
guard over the approaches to Jerusalem. Most important among them were the lights of
Kastel, blinking from the peak from which the village dominated the sole road linking
Jerusalem to the sea, the artery along which virtually every vital supply for the 100,000 Jews
of Jerusalem flowed. Those few miles of twisting asphalt were the hinge upon which Jewish
Jerusalem's existence hung that November evening. And, almost without exception, the
lights along its route belonged to Arab communities.
11) In the last paragraph of the passage, the author calls the peaceful appearance of
Jerusalem deceptive because
a) David and Pharaoh, Sennacherib and Nebuchadnezzar, Ptolemy and Herod, Titus and the
Crusaders of Godefroy de Bouillon, Tamerlance and the Saracens of Saladin, all had fought
and burned and killed in this city.
b) a ring of lights surrounded the city like satellites: to the north, those of Ramallah; far to
the east by the Dead Sea floor, Jericho; to the south, Bethelhem. Closer by, a second chain of
lights leaped from hilltop to hilltop like lighthouses in the night standing guard over the
approaches to Jerusalem and this made the city look peaceful.
c) in the midnight blue of the November night, the gory history of the city was shrouded by
the darkness which gave it a facade of tranquility.
d) the city's stones bore the stigmata of her sanctity and her walls the memory of the crimes
committed within them in the name of religion.
12) According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the setting of the
narrative?
a) This passage was written during a tranquil November night.
b) This passage was written during a period of violent bloodshed.
c) This passage was written against the backdrop of a recently concluded war.
d) This passage was written amidst an imminent political decision.
13) According to the passage, the author says "Jerusalem had lived as no other city in the
world" because
a) of her unique nomenclature which was proven correct by her first settlements.
b) of her legacy of being the city where Jesus was crucified and resurrected.
c) of her history of surviving under gruesome conditions.
d) an unending stream of prophets had proclaimed the peace of God to man here.
14) Select the preposition that can be used in place of (1) in the passage.
a) by
b) on
c) at
d) with
15) Which of the following can be identified as an irony about Jerusalem?

a) The proximity of the modern decision-making venue to the ancient city.
b) The meaning of the city's name and the bloodshed witnessed by it.
c) The ring of light surrounding the now dark city.
d) Both (a) and (b)
The Museum of London held a media briefing to detail some of the items it will be including
in its forthcoming exhibition, The Crime Museum Uncovered.
But, I was struck by a problem - displaying such items in a public exhibition. Though the
stress is on 'telling the victims' stories' as well as detailing the crimes - a laudable aim, how
do we avoid glorifying the acts of criminals in the process? Online articles about murders
already tend to stress the 'sensational' elements of offences and there is a danger that this
exhibition may both mythologize historical crime and further illustrate our obsession with
celebrity.
The emphasis is also on 'famous' (or infamous) crimes. Therefore, much is being made of
Jack the Ripper and the Acid Bath murders, whereas the tale of one abused wife in the early
20th century, who attempted to leave her violent husband and was, as a result, killed by him
on her way to work, was almost detailed as an aside in a Q&A, after one of the exhibition's
curators, Jackie Kiely, had been asked about the dangers of glorifying crime. She responded
that the important factor for her was the ability to tell the story of the offence - the
background and the characters involved - rather than simply showing, for example, the knife
used to kill the woman, with no context added.
br> The desire to include such narratives is laudable, as long as it does not glamorize the
offence. Most crimes are rather grubby affairs, the result of complex domestic lives that lack
Champagne or fame. I hope that the life of Annie Parker, a woman who embroidered a pin
cushion using her own hair, is explored sympathetically - she had over 400 arrests for drink-
related offences, and I would like to learn more about her background and why she may have
drunk, rather than simply be encouraged to gasp at the use of human hair in embroidery. But
the dichotomy between providing a nuanced context to some of the more mundane artefacts,
whilst also publicizing the more infamous crimes in order to get visitors into the museum, is
clear.
Now that select artefacts from the Black Museum are being opened up to us, it remains to be
seen whether they will really give the victims of crime a voice, or will they simply
emphasize our obsession with fame, even if the famous are those who commit horrific
offences that scar families for years to come?
16) Why does one of the exhibition's curators, upon being asked about the dangers of
glorifying crime, make a reference to the murder of an abused woman in the early 20th
century ?
a) She believes that the crime was not given the media attention it deserved.
b) She wanted to tell the story of that offense - the background and the characters involved.
c) She wanted to highlight that the intent of the project was to tell the victim's story and
detail the crime
d) The case in question was highly infamous due to its grotesque nature.
17) Why does the author make a reference to Annie Parker?

a) The case of Annie Parker has certain unique elements that deserve attention.
b) The tale of Annie Parker is morbid and intriguing for the general public.
c) To highlight the dilemma faced by the museum while creating a successful enterprise by
retaining the true spirit behind the endeavor.
d) To highlight the fact that museums have to present a range of avenues for the public to
explore in order to cater to all palates.
18) Which of the following can be a good title for the passage?
a) Crime over the years.
b) Ennobling the Abominable - inadvertent but possible.
c) Praise be to the Maleficent!
d) Society and crime - why the macabre interests?
19) What is the tone of the author in the passage?

a) Fearful
b) Curious
c) Cautionary
d) Sincere
20) The author lists all of the following as concerns with respect to the exhibition EXCEPT:
a) It might result in glorification of criminal acts
b) It could create an exaggerated image of the crime
c) It might highlight our obsession with fame
d) It could provide a pedestal to the mundane criminal
More than breathtaking adventure flowed from America's moon conquest. A new era of
exploration was opened. Scientific experiments were unprecedented. Important lessons were
learned for future missions. On top of that, a watching world began to re-evaluate U.S. and
Russian achievements in space. Worldwide, the mission was regarded as a landmark in
man's history, far surpassing all the greatest expeditions of centuries past. Here on earth,
practical evidence was given that the U.S. had emerged, after a decade of self-doubt, as the
most technologically and scientifically advanced of all nations.The U.S. won the race to the
moon and threw the challenge back into the face of the Soviet Union. Russia's failure to land
its unmanned Luna 15 spaceship safely on the moon on July 22 only served to sharpen the
contrast. Then there was this fact, virtually overriding all else in immediate terms: The
United States, at a time of unease and problems, was given a great psychological uplift. The
aim of President Nixon, clearly, was to keep the momentum going in dealing with problems
both at home and abroad. The rest of the world, with Communist China the only big
exception, shared the adventure, viewing it not only as a triumph for the U.S. but as a feat of
all mankind. As a French scholar put it: "Americans reached out and touched the moon. But
it was a victory for the indomitable spirit of every man. "Greatest success by far was the
collection by astronauts of an estimated 60 pounds of rocks and dust from several locations
around their Eagle spacecraft. The material was vacuum-packed in metal containers and
brought back to earth. They hoped to learn from the samples more about the moon's origin
and whether it has - or ever had - any form of life. These are questions men have been asking
for centuries. A moonquake detector, or seismometer, was set up and left on the moon to
measure vibrations in an effort to tell whether the moon is "alive" inside - or simply a cold
and dead body. Also erected and left on the moon was an 18-inch reflector. It was a target
for mapmakers and geologists on earth who started aiming laser beams at it in an effort to get
a "bounce" and thereby measure the distance between earth and the moon with a precision of
six inches, and perhaps also establish whether the earth's continents are slowly drifting apart.
A "solar wind" sampler was set up for more than an hour near the spaceship to collect atomic
particles raining in from the sun in a steady solar wind. This aluminum-foil shade was rolled
up and brought back for study by scientists who wanted to know what kind of material the
sun keeps pouring into space.
21) Which of the following was not brought back on the Earth by the astronauts?
a) Collection of rocks from the moon's surface
b) A boulder from the famous moon crater
c) Atomic particles raining from sun
d) Dust from the moon's surface, vacuum-packed in metal containers
22) Given below are the likely results from the exploration. Select the option that contains
the correct answer.
(1) A possible opportunity to discover whether the continents are moving away from each
other.
(2) Discovery of any trace of life inside the moon's core.
(3) Research on the emission of particles by the sun.
a) (1) and (2)
b) (1) and (3)
c) (2) and (3)
d) (1), (2) and (3)
23) Which of the following CANNOT be inferred to be a fallout of the success of the
voyage?
a) It gave America bragging rights against Russia in the space race.
b) It helped deflect attention from the various political, social and economic problems
plaguing America.
c) It helped unite the citizens of various nations in celebrating the success as mankind's
unique achievement.
d) It helped America gain political leverage over its opponents in global politics.
24) Which of the following CANNOT be assumed from the passage?

a) Russia had sent a spacecraft to moon before the successful voyage by America.
b) Prior to America's moon mission, Russia had overtaken America as the leader in space
exploration.
c) China is a communist nation and it is hostile to America.
d) Success of the American moon voyage was portrayed by some as the success of the
human spirit.
25) What is the meaning of the word 'indomitable', occurring in the passage?
a) Unyielding
b) Impenetrable
c) Unsurpassable
d) Insurmountable
Ben was lying face-down on a small sofa at Macomb Hospital's Behavioral Health Unit. He
was wearing a gray tracksuit, though it was highly unlikely that he was going to be
participating in a marathon anytime soon. His gray hair was strewn this way and that and it
stuck to the pillowcase once he sat down on the stretcher. He had bits of egg and what
looked like syrup - at least, I hoped it was syrup - on his jacket front and crystallized eye-
boogers encrusted his eyelids. It was two fifteen and he'd probably been sleeping all day.
And why not? Nothing else to do. There was Scrabble in the Unit's game-room, but I didn't
observe any potential companions that looked up to a Triple Word Score any more than Ben
did. We were taking Ben to a very upscale facility that specialized in "eldercare" and so this
__________ my interest a little bit. I am a very nosey person and, when I know we're taking
someone to a retirement home that has a yearlong waiting list to get in, I want to know a
little bit more about the individual we're taking there. Maybe he married money, maybe he's
a war profiteer, maybe he's a former member of the Johnson administration; I just want to
know, that's all. Because Ben didn't speak to me, I could snoop through his file. I had no
compunction about doing this. Occasionally there was something in there I actually needed
to know.
There was the usual bullshit: medications, allergies, lab results, safety checks, vital signs,
nursing notes. I usually skip all this if I'm reasonably sure the patient isn't going to croak
during the ride. I flip and flip through the pages until I get to what I'm really after: the
physician's narrative report. Ben's physician's report shocked me so much that I pulled out
my journal and copied it verbatim. Sue me.
26) Which of the following is the most likely assumption behind the last sentence, "Sue me":
a) The delinquent nature of the author
b) The boldness of the author
c) The graphic and disturbing contents of the report
d) The negligence of the institution
27) Which of the following best describes the author's tone?

a) Polemical
b) Flippant
c) Humorous
d) Graphic
28) Which of the following is the most appropriate word to fill the blank in the first sentence
of the second paragraph?
a) Piqued
b) Was Pricked
c) Was Pickled
d) Peaked
29) Which of the following best captures the author's response to the physician's report on
Ben as indicated by the following sentence, "Ben's physician's report shocked me so much
that I pulled out my journal and copied it verbatim."?
a) Morbid curiosity
b) Shock and awe
c) Aghast and outraged
d) Fascinated
30) Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

a) The author was helping to transfer Ben from one medical facility to another.
b) The author was a qualified physician who specialised in dealing with elderly patients.
c) Ben was most likely an affluent geriatric with a debilitating sickness.
d) The author does not have any ethical scruples about peeking into a patients' life.
SECTION 02 General Knowledge & Current Affairs

Direction for Questions 31-36): A gas leak, reminiscent of the 1984 Bhopal tragedy, has
claimed at least 12 lives and affected thousands of residents in five villages in
Visakhapatnam in [1]. The source of the leak was a [2] plant owned by South Korean
electronics giant LG, located at RRV Puram near Gopalapatnam, about 15 kms from the
coast city.
[2] is a flammable liquid that is used in the manufacturing of polystyrene plastics, fiberglass,
rubber, and latex. According to Tox Town, a website run by the US National Library of
Medicine, [2] is also found in vehicle exhaust, cigarette smoke, and in natural foods like
fruits and vegetables.
As per the US-based Environment Protection Agency (EPA), short-term exposure to the
substance can result in respiratory problems, irritation in the eyes, irritation in the mucous
membrane, and gastrointestinal issues. And long-term exposure could drastically affect the
central nervous system and lead to other related problems like peripheral neuropathy. It
could also lead to cancer and depression in some cases. However, EPA notes that there is no
sufficiet evidence despite several epidemiology studies indicating there may be an
association between [2] exposure and an increased risk of leukemia and lymphoma.
Symptoms include headache, hearing loss, fatigue, weakness, difficulty in concentrating etc.
Animal studies, according to the EPA, have reported effects on the CNS, liver, kidney, and
eye and nasal irritation from inhalation exposure to [2].
31) What is the name of the state where a gas has claimed at least 12 lives and affected
thousands of residents in five villages in Visakhapatnam in [1] whose name has been
redacted with [1]?
a) Telangana
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Assam
32) What is the name of the gas which is responsible for the Visakhapatnam gas leak
incident whose name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Arsine
b) Hydrogen cyanide
c) Phosphine
d) Styrene
33) On May 27 2020, natural gas has been continuously flowing out of a gas well in Assam
following a blowout at which of the following companies?
a) GAIL
b) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
c) Oil India Limited
d) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
34) The gas responsible for the 1984 Bhopal gas tragedy is
a) Methyl isocyanate
b) Hydrogen Azide
c) Methyl Bromide
d) Silane
35) Which of the following countries ordered a state of emergency and criticised a subsidiary
of metals giant Norilsk Nickel after a massive diesel spill into a Siberian River in June 2020?
a) Sweden
b) Norway
c) Finland
d) Russia
36) Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) The National Green Tribunal slapped an interim penalty of Rs 50 crore on LG Polymers
India in the gas leak incident in Visakhapatnam.
b) The National Green Tribunal Act of 2010 incorporates the absolute liability principle.
c) The section 17 of the NGT act mandates that the Tribunal should apply the absolute
liability principle even if the disaster caused is an accident.
d) In 1986, the Supreme Court in Rylands vs Fletcher evolved its own rule of “absolute
liability” providing no exceptions for hazardous industries and holding them absolutely
liable.
Direction for Questions 37-41): [1] was banned from the Olympics and world championships
in a range of sports for four years after the [2] WADA ruled to punish it for manipulating
laboratory data, a WADA spokesman said.
WADA's executive committee took the decision after it concluded that [1] had tampered
with laboratory data by planting fake evidence and deleting files linked to positive doping
tests that could have helped identify drug cheats.
The WADA committee's decision to punish [1] with a ban was unanimous, the spokesman
said. [1], which has tried to showcase itself as a global sports power, has been embroiled in
doping scandals since a 2015 report commissioned by the WADA found evidence of mass
doping in [1] athletics.
[1]'s doping woes have grown since, with many of its athletes sidelined from the past two
Olympics and the country stripped of its flag altogether at last year's Pyeongchang Winter
Games as punishment for state-sponsored doping cover-ups at the 2014 Sochi Games.
One of the conditions for the reinstatement of RUSADA, which was suspended in 2015 in
the wake of the athletics doping scandal but reinstated last year, had been that [1]provide an
authentic copy of the laboratory data.
The sanctions effectively strip the agency of its accreditation. Sports Minister Pavel
Kolobkov attributed the discrepancies in the laboratory data to technical issues.
The punishment, however, leaves the door open for clean [1]athletes to compete at major
international sporting events without their flag or anthem for four years, as was the case
during the 2018 Pyeongchang Olympics.
If RUSADA appeals the sanctions endorsed by WADA's executive committee, the case will
be referred to the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS), WADA has said.
37) What is the name of the country which has been banned from the Olympics and world
championships in a range of sports for four years by WADA whose name has been redacted
with [1] in the passage above?
a) Reunion
b) Russia
c) Rumania
d) Rwanda
38) What is the full form of WADA redacted with [2] in the passage above and also where is
the headquarters of WADA located?
a) World Anti-Drugs Agency, Tokyo
b) World Anti-Doping Agency, Montreal

c) World Anti- Doping Authority, Paris
d) World Anti-Drugs Authority, Geneva
39) According to the latest report by WADA, which of the followings countries had the
largest number anti-doping rule violations (ADRVs)?
a) Italy
b) Brazil
c) Russia
d) India
40) In May 2020, WADA imposed a four-year ban on whom among following Indian
sportsperson?
a) Jagmal Singh
b) Kiranjeet Kaur
c) Budhia Singh
d) Ram Singh Yadav

a) The Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS) is an international quasi-judicial body
established to settle disputes related to sport through arbitration headquartered in Lausanne.
b) The WADA has suspended the accreditation of India?s National Dope Testing Laboratory
(NDTL) for six months in August 2019.
c) Discus thrower Sandeep Kumari has been imposed with a four-year ban by WADA's
Athletics Integrity Unit for flunking a dope test.
d) Narsingh Yadav was handed a four-year ban by the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS)
on a doping charge just 12 hour before his scheduled bout at the London Olympics.
Direction for Questions 42-46): The [1] extradition case has generated a lot of buzz in the
country as he has turned from the “king of good times” to the poster boy of the recent breed
of fugitive business tycoons after he fled the country in March 2016. The Government of
India made a formal extradition request to Britain in February 2017. The UK High Court, by
its judgement on April 20, dismissed the appeal filed by [1] against the judgement of
December 10, 2018 judgement of Westminster Court paving the way for him to be extradited
to India. After the dismissal of the appeal, [1] filed an application seeking permission to
approach the Supreme Court of the United Kingdom, which was also rejected by the UK
High Court on May 14, thus setting a 28-day deadline for him to be extradited. That deadline
expires on June 12.
[1]?s appeal before the UK High Court was admitted only on the ground of Section 84(1) of
the UK Extradition Act, 2003, a case where a person has not been convicted. Essentially, the
UK High Court had to decide whether a ?prima facie? case has been made so as to require
the person to face trial. The grounds of [1]?s appeal ? that the case against him was
politically motivated and of poor prison conditions in India -- were rejected.
Learning lessons from many alleged offenders going absconding, Parliament enacted the
Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, whereby a person can be declared a fugitive
economic offender in case of an offence involving [2] or more and the proceeds of crime in
India as well as abroad can be attached. In the case of [1] as well, the UK High Court had
passed an order allowing seizure of his properties in the UK in July 2018. The progressive
manner in which the UK courts have dealt with the [1] extradition case, coupled with the
stringent provisions of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, will make it really
difficult for other economic offenders who chose to flee to the UK.
It is likely that [1] has applied for asylum in the UK to earn a temporary reprieve. But he is
unlikely to succeed, but as per [3] of the Extradition Act, 2003, a person cannot be extradited
unless his asylum request is finally determined.
42) What is the name of the person for whom the Government of India made a formal
extradition request to Britain in February 2017 whose name has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) Nirav Modi
b) Vijay Mallya
c) Sujana Chowdary
d) Sunny Kalra
43) Indian Parliament enacted the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, whereby a
person can be declared a fugitive economic offender in case of an offence involving [2] or
more and the proceeds of crime in India as well as abroad can be attached. Which of the
following is redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Rs 100 crore
b) Rs 500 crore
c) Rs 1000 crore
d) Rs 1500 crore
44) The second person to be declared a fugitive economic offender under the Fugitive
Economic Offenders Act, was
a) Sudhir Kumar Kalra
b) Ashish Jobanputra
c) Nirav Modi
d) Pushpesh Baid
45) In the passage above, as per [3] of the Extradition Act, 2003, a person cannot be
extradited unless his asylum request is finally determined, which of the following sections
has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?
a) Section 9(3)
b) Section 19(3)
c) Section 29(3)
d) Section 39(3)
46) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Fugitive Economic
Offenders Act 2018?
a) The investigating agencies have to file an application in a Special Court under the
Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002.
b) The person who is declared as a Fugitive Economic Offender can challenge the
proclamation in the High Court within 90 days of such declaration under the act.
c) The new law allows designated special court to declare a person as fugitive economic
offender and to confiscate his property, including ?benami? ones.
d) The Enforcement Directorate (ED) will be the investigative agency under the Act.
Direction for Questions 47-51): On May 25, 2020, [1], an African American, was killed in
the Powderhorn Park neighborhood of Minneapolis, Minnesota, United States. During an
arrest, [2], a white American police officer, kept his knee on the side of [1]'s neck for almost
nine minutes while [1] was handcuffed and lying face down.
Officers Tou Thao, J. Alexander Kueng, and Thomas K. Lane participated in [1]'s arrest,
with Kueng holding [1]'s back, Lane holding his legs, and Thao looking on and forcibly
preventing intervention by an onlooker. The arrest was made after [1] was accused of using a
counterfeit $20 bill at a market.
[2] was charged with second-degree murder, third-degree murder, and second-degree
manslaughter and the other three officers were charged with aiding and abetting second-
degree murder. The FBI and the Minnesota Bureau of Criminal Apprehension are both
investigating the incident.
[1]'s death has been compared to that of Eric Garner, a black man who was killed in 2014
during an arrest for illicitly selling cigarettes, and who ? like [1] ? repeated "I can't breathe"
while a New York City police officer applied a fatal chokehold, and to the death of David
Smith in 2010, also in Minneapolis.
In 2013, after the acquittal of a civilian who fatally shot teenager Trayvon Martin in Florida
the year before, the hashtag #[3] began trending on social media and a movement against
systemic violence against the African American community sprung up.
47) What is the name of the African American, who was killed in the Powderhorn Park
neighborhood of Minneapolis, Minnesota whose name has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) James Earl Jones
b) George Perry Floyd
c) Edward Regan Murphy
d) Jamie Foxx
48) What is the name of the American police officer whose name has been redacted with [2]
in the passage above?
a) Darrell Lunsford
b) David C. Hennessy
c) Derek Chauvin
d) Darren Goforth
49) What is the name of the movement redacted with [3] in the passage above?
a) BlackRights Matter
b) AfricanLivesMatter
c) BlackLivesMatter
d) AfricanLivesand RightsMatter
50) American Civil War was a civil war in the United States from ________to _______,
fought between the northern United States (loyal to the Union) and the southern United
States (that had seceded from the Union and formed the Confederacy).
a) 1851 to 1855
b) 1861 to 1865
c) 1871 to 1875
d) 1915 to 1920
51) Martin Luther King Jr. is best known for advancing civil rights through nonviolence and
civil disobedience, inspired by his Christian beliefs and the nonviolent activism of
___________.
a) Leo Tolstoy
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Mother Mary Teresa
d) Nelson Rolihlahla Mandela
Direction for Questions 52-56): An alumnus of Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) and a
renowned agricultural soil scientist from Ohio State University (OSU), [1] has been declared
the winner of the World Food Prize 2020. The announcement was made by World Food
Prize Foundation president Barbara Stinson in an online ceremony from Washington on June
11.
PAU Vice-Chancellor Dr B S Dhillon, in a statement, said PAU may be the only institution
in the world to have two alumni as World Food Laureates. The honour was earlier won by
PAU alumnus Dr Gurdev Singh Khush, a plant breeder and pioneer in rice genetics.
Responding to the congratulatory message from PAU V-C, the winning scientist [1]
remarked, ?To be a graduate from PAU is a great honour in itself.
[1], referring to Khush, said he was ?a big inspiration and a unique role model to follow?. [1]
was born in Karyal in erstwhile Punjab (now in Pakistan). He was conferred the honorary
degree of Doctor of Science by PAU in 2001.
[1] did his graduation (B.Sc in agriculture) from Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) in
1963, M.Sc (soils) in 1965 from the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and PhD
(soils) in 1968 from Ohio State University.
A professor of Soil Science at Ohio State University, he is also the founding director of the
university?s Carbon Management and Sequestration Center.
Stinson, while announcing him as the winner, termed [1] as ?trailblazer in soil science with a
prodigious passion for research that improves soil health, enhances agricultural production,
improves the nutritional quality of food, restores the environment and mitigates climate
change?.
The World Food Prize is an international award recognizing the achievements of individuals
who have advanced human development by improving the quality, quantity, or availability
of food in the world. The prize was instituted in [2].
52) What is the name of the renowned agricultural soil scientist who has been declared as the
winner of the World Food Prize 2020 redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Dr Gurdev Singh Khush
b) Dr B S Dhillon
c) Dr Rangarajan Pule
d) Dr Rattan Lal
53) The World Food Prize was instituted in [2], which of the following years has been
redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) 1969
b) 1979
c) 1987
d) 1999
54) Who among the following received the first World Food Prize for spearheading the
introduction of high-yielding wheat and rice varieties to India?s farmers?
a) Dr. Monkombu Sambasivan Swaminathan
b) Verghese Kurien
c) Dr Robert F. Chandler
d) Surinder Vasal
55) The World Food Prize laureates are formally honored at the World Food Prize Laureate
Award Ceremony annually on or near the World Food Day. The World Food Day is
celebrated every year on:
a) 16 July
b) 16 August
c) 16 September
d) 16 October
56) Who was the "Father of the Green Revolution" and also received the Nobel Peace Prize
in 1970?
a) Barbara Stinson
b) Norman Ernest Borlaug
c) William S. Gaud
d) Gregg Easterbrook
Direction for Questions 57-61): The US Commission on International Religious Freedom

(USCIRF) has designated India as a [1] in its annual report of 2020, saying the country was
"engaging in and tolerating systematic, ongoing and egregious religious freedom violations".
In scathing remarks, it added that the "national government allowed violence against
minorities" and also "engaged in and tolerated hate speech and incitement to violence".
Rejecting the observations made in the report, the Indian government's official spokesperson
Anurag Srivastava said, "Its (the USCIRF's) biased and tendentious comments against India
are not new. But on this occasion, its misrepresentation has reached new levels. It has not
been able to carry its own Commissioners in its endeavour. We regard it as an organisation
of particular concern and will treat it accordingly."
The USCIRF is an independent, bipartisan US federal government commission. It makes

policy recommendations based on its review of global religious freedom to the US President,
the Secretary of State and the US Congress.
The list includes [2] nations that have been flagged as "[1]". These include nine countries
that the State Department designated as [1] in December, 2019 -- Myanmar, China, Eritrea,
Iran, North Korea, Pakistan, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan and Turkmenistan -- as well as five
others -- India, Nigeria, Russia, Syria, and Vietnam.
The annual report makes a mention of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) and Assam's
National Register of Citizens (NRC). It adds that the "BJP leaders have continued to
advocate for nation-wide NRC" and coupled with the CAA "Muslims alone would bear the
indignities and consequences of potential statelessness".
The USCIRF has recommended that the US government impose targeted sanctions on
"Indian government agencies and officials responsible for severe violations of religious
freedom by freezing those individuals? assets and/or barring their entry into the United
States".
57) The US Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) has designated India
as a [1], which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Country of Particular Concern
b) Positive Developments
c) Special Watch List
d) Systematic, ongoing, and egregious violations of religious freedom
58) The United States Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) is a U.S.
federal government commission created by the______________.
a) International Religious Freedom Act (IRFA) of 1990
b) International Religious Freedom Act (IRFA) of 1995
c) International Religious Freedom Act (IRFA) of 1998
d) International Religious Freedom Act (IRFA) of 2000
59) According to the latest report by USCIRF, how many countries are designated as [1]?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 14
60) Who is the current Union Minister of Minority Affairs?

a) Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi
b) Najma Akbar Ali Heptulla
c) K. Rahman Khan
d) Salman Khurshid Alam Khan
61) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the ?Freedom of religion in
India??
a) Freedom of religion in India is a fundamental right guaranteed by Article 25-28 of the
Constitution of India.
b) Indian constitution's preamble was amended in 1972 to state that India is a secular state.
c) Article 25 says "all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to
freely profess, practice, and propagate religion subject to public order, morality and health."
d) Article 26 says that all denominations can manage their own affairs in matters of religion.
Direction for Questions 62-66): Scripting a historic chapter for the US space programme,
[1]-run SpaceX sent two NASA astronauts to the International Space Station (ISS) onboard
the reusable Falcon 9 rocket. The SpaceX Crew Dragon spacecraft carrying NASA
astronauts [2] and [3] was on its way to the orbiting laboratory in the space and had safely
reached orbit, NASA said in a statement.
It is the first time that astronauts have been sent into space from the US soil since 2011. It is
also the first time that US astronauts have been sent into space by a private company,
signalling an end to the US dependence on the Russian space technology.
The Crew Dragon spacecraft lifted off from NASA''s Kennedy Space Center in Florida, the
same site used for the [4] in 1969.
After successfully docking, [2] and [3] will be welcomed aboard station and will become
members of the Expedition 63 crew. They will perform tests on Crew Dragon in addition to
conducting research and other tasks with the space station crew.
Although the Crew Dragon being used for this flight test can stay in orbit about 110 days, the
specific mission duration will be determined once on station based on the readiness of the
next commercial crew launch, said NASA. The operational Crew Dragon spacecraft will be
capable of staying in orbit for at least 210 days as a NASA requirement.
Upon conclusion of the mission, Crew Dragon will autonomously undock with the two
astronauts on board, depart the space station and re-enter the Earth''s atmosphere.
Upon splashdown just off Florida''s Atlantic Coast, the crew will be picked up at sea by
SpaceX''s Go Navigator recovery vessel and return to Cape Canaveral.
This Demo-2 mission is the final major step before NASA''s Commercial Crew Programme
certifies Crew Dragon for operational, long-duration missions to the space station, laying the
groundwork for future exploration of the Moon and Mars starting with the agency''s Artemis
programme, which will land the first woman and the next man on the lunar surface in 2024.
62) What is the name of the SpaceX founder whose name has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) Dumitru Popescu
b) Elon Musk
c) Gary Hudson
d) John Carmack
63) What are the names of the NASA astronauts whose names are redacted with [2] and [3]
in the passage above?
a) Malcolm Scott Carpenter and Karen LuJean Nyberg
b) Christopher Ferguson and Fred Wallace Haise
c) Robert Behnken and Douglas Hurley
d) Michael Scott Hopkins and John Herschel Glenn
64) The Crew Dragon spacecraft lifted off from NASA''s Kennedy Space Center in Florida,
the same site used for the [4] in 1969. Which of the following has been redacted with [4] in
the passage above?
a) First International space landing
b) First Moon landing
c) First satellite landing on Mars
d) First satellite landing on Asteroid Belt

a) Antrix Corporation Limited is a wholly owned Government of India Company under the
administrative control of the Department of Space.
b) Antrix Corporation Limited was incorporated as a private limited company owned by
Government of India in September 1992 as a Marketing arm of ISRO.
c) Antrix Corporation Limited is headquartered in Bengaluru
d) Blue Origin Federation is an American privately funded aerospace manufacturer and sub-
orbital spaceflight Services Company founded by Elon Musk.
66) TeamIndus is a private for-profit aerospace company headquartered in Bangalore. It

came together in 2010 with the aim of winning the ___________.
a) SpaceX Lunar X Prize
b) Google Lunar X Prize
c) Apple Lunar X Prize
d) Amazon Lunar X Prize
SECTION 03 Legal Reasoning

Direction for Questions 67-71): You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which
follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for
choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be
applied.
The Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code)
Rules of 2021 (hereinafter referred to as 'the Rules') has been enacted by the Central
Government under the powers conferred to it by Sections 69A(2), 79(2)(c) and 87 of the
Information Technology Act, with thorough coordination with the Ministry of Electronics
and Information Technology and the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. The
formulation of these Rules is in response to the growing criticism against the government,
while it recognizes the right to criticize and disagree as an essential element of democracy. It
aims to provide a robust complaint mechanism for social media and OTT platform users to
address their grievances, a mechanism earlier inexistent.
The proposed framework has been quoted to be progressive, liberal and contemporaneous, as
it lays a special emphasis on the protection of women against the progression of sexual
offences on social media. It emphasizes on the need of social media intermediaries and
online content providers, whether for entertainment or informative purposes, to strictly
comply with the Constitution and domestic laws of India. It extends its approach to instill a
sense of accountability against misuse and abuse by social media users and is the first of its
kind to bring social media use under the regulatory framework of the Information
Technology Act.
Rule 4 enlists certain due diligence obligations of an intermediary, which include the duty to
publish their rules and regulations, privacy policies and user agreements for access, either on
its website and/or application, to allow its users to access the same. The material so
published must crystalize the user's responsibility not to "host, display, upload, modify,
publish, transmit, store, update or share" any form of information which - Belongs to another
person; is defamatory, obscene, pornographic, pedophilic, invasive of one's privacy; is
libelous, or inconsistent to the laws of the land; is dangerous for minors; results in the
infringement of any intellectual property right; is deceiving or misleading regarding the
origin of the message; impersonates another person; hampers the integrity, defense, security
or sovereignty of the country, friendly relations with foreign states, public order or results in
the incitement of any cognizable offence; contains any software virus or any program
designed to corrupt or interrupt the functionality of any computer resource; or is patently

false and untrue, regardless of its form is published or in order to mislead or harass a person.
Non-compliance of any of these rules may result in termination of user's access or usage
rights or content holder's rights as the case may be.
(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'India: Information Technology (Guidelines for
Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021', Article on Mondaq.com, dated
March 4, 2021)
67) Presume Google is an intermediary. Raghav writes a defamatory letter alleging

corruption by the Prime Minister during his first term in office. The letter is published on
Raghav's own public blog. Jwala liked the Prime Minister's dedication to work and used to
read about him on google. While randomly browsing, she finds the defamatory letter indexed
by google in the search. Decide.
a) Google can block Jwala's account but not Raghav's.
b) Google can block Raghav's account but not Jwala's.
c) Google can block both Raghav's account as well as Jwala's.
d) Google cannot block either Raghav's account or Jwala's.
68) Presume Kirtel mobile telecom service provider is an intermediary. Manoj sends a
pornographic clip as MMS using Kirtel mobile sim to his friend Raka who also coincidently
uses Kirtel sim in his mobile. Raka watches the clip and deletes it. Decide.
a) Kirtel may block Raka or Manoj's mobile sim.
b) Kirtel may block Raka's mobile sim.
c) Kirtel cannot block Manoj's mobile sim.
d) Kirtel may block Manoj's mobile sim.
69) Presume YouTube is an intermediary. Manavi has a monetized YouTube channel. She
downloads a famous copyrighted song 'Laung Laachi' and uploads it on her channel. Her
channel gets 1000% percent increase in subscribers increasing her profits. Decide.
a) Manavi has to compensate YouTube.
b) YouTube can prosecute Manavi in Indian criminal courts.
c) YouTube can delete 'Laung Lacchi' song from Manavi's channel.
d) YouTube cannot delete 'Laung Lacchi' song from Manavi's channel.
70) Presume Netflix is an intermediary. Kaku Singh, a famous director in India makes a web
series titled 'Humro Bangla' available exclusively on Netflix. It wrongfully depicts the
historical facts about Bangladesh's independence giving a message that Bangladeshi soldiers
tortured Pakistani soldiers during the Bangladesh independence struggle in 1970's.

Bangladesh's ambassador meets the External Affairs Minister of India to raise his country's
objection to this film. The Minister officially acknowledges the distortion of facts and
assures to take some action to maintain friendly relations with Bangladesh. Decide.
a) Netflix can block the film.
b) Netflix cannot block the film as it is an intermediary and not the director of the film.
c) Kaku Singh is liable for prosecution under sedition.
d) Kaku Singh is liable to compensate the government of Bangladesh for hurting their
sentiments.
71) Presume Instagram is an intermediary. Rishika and Shivani go to women's only

swimming pool. No male is allowed in the pool and the attendants are also all females.
Rishika clicks a few pictures of Shivani in her one-piece swimsuit which exposes her thighs
and shoulder area. Shivani asks Rishika not share it with anyone else. Later Rishika posts it
on her public Instagram account tagging Shivani. Decide.
a) Instagram may delete the picture and block Rishika's account.
b) Instagram cannot delete the picture as one-piece swimsuits are common in contemporary
India.
c) Exposure of skin in swim-suit is not obscene as it is the standard female costume in
national and international swimming competitions.
d) No reasonable person will take the pictures seriously.
applied.
Hours after yoga guru Baba Ramdev's Patanjali Ayurved launched an Ayurvedic medicine
claiming to be a cure for Covid-19, the AYUSH Ministry set into action, asking it to stop
advertising such claims.In addition, it also pointed out that such advertisements of Ayurvedic
medicines are regulated by the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements)
Act, 1954 or the 'DMR' Act.
The DMR Act seeks to prohibit advertisements for "remedies alleged to possess magic
qualities".The Act specifically bars advertisements that claim to cause a miscarriage in
women or prevent conception of pregnancy or improve "capacity of human beings for sexual
pleasure".It also bars advertisements or usage of drugs, which claim to diagnose or cure any
of the 54 diseases or conditions of body mentioned in the schedule of the Act. These include
sexual impotency, plague, cancer, epilepsy, fairness of skin, height of kids, among others.
While it defines drugs as any medicines or substances intended for treatment of any disease,
it defines a "magic remedy" as a "talisman, mantra, kavacha, and any other charm of any
kind, which is alleged to possess miraculous powers" for treating any disease.
According to the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Rules 1955,
framed under the Act, anybody authorised by the state government can pull up the
manufacturer, packer, distributor or seller of the drug, which he thinks is being advertised in
violation of the law.They can ask the drug manufacturer, etc. to furnish information
"regarding the composition of the drug or the ingredients thereof or any other information in
regard to that drug as he deems necessary for holding the scrutiny of the advertisement and
where any such order is made".
Section 7 of the Act says anybody who violates the law shall be punished with a maximum
of 6 months imprisonment along with fine. This is, however, for the first conviction.In case
of a subsequent conviction, the perpetrator may be jailed for up to 1 year along with a fine.
In case a company violates the provisions of the Act, every person who was in-charge of the
company when the offence was committed shall be deemed to be guilty. However, he could
absolve himself if he shows that the offence was committed without his knowledge or if he
can prove that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the offence from being committed.
(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'All about Magic Remedies Act, law that landed
Patanjali in trouble over Covid 'cure' drug', Article published on The Print (theprint.in), dated
June 24, 2020)
72) Swarnarekha is studying in a biotechnology college in Chennai. She sees an

advertisement on television in which a cream claims to make skin fairer. Swarnarekha feels
insulted as she has a dark complexion and the advertisement seems to convey darker
complexion as undesirable. The name of the cream is 'Fair & Lucky' and is manufactured by
Parkinson Ltd. Decide.
a) Parkinson Ltd. is not liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
b) Parkinson Ltd. is liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
c) Swarnarekha is a sensitive case.
d) Fair skin is indeed undesirable and therefore, Parkinson Ltd. is justified in naming the
cream as 'Fair & Lucky'
73) Shanti lives in a village. She follows a guru named Swami Bhootnathji. She befriends
Arvind and the two decide to get married soon. Arvind persuades Shanti to develop physical
relations but Shanti refuses for the same till their marriage. Shanti asks Swami Bhootnathji
and the Swami gives her a wrist pendant which will protect her from any conception. Shanti
and Arvind get physically intimate. A month later, Shanti's pregnancy report tests positive.
Decide.
a) Swami Bhootnathji is liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
b) Swami Bhootnathji is not liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
c) Arvind is liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
d) Both Arvind and Swami Bhootnathji are liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
74) Mandodari works as a domestic help. Her son is suffering from epilepsy. She asks her
husband Raman to visit a doctor but Raman instead takes their son to a tantric, who gives a
powder for treating their son. Decide.
a) The tantric is not liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
b) Mandodari and Raman are liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
c) Only Mandodari is liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
d) The tantric is liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
75) Gopi was married to Abhishek and they lived in a village on the outskirts of Hyderabad.
Even after four years of marriage, Gopi could not get pregnant. She and Abhishek were
illiterate and hence, went to a Baba who claimed to have divine powers to treat non-
conceiving couples. He gives a mantra to Gopi and asks her to chant it in her mind eleven
times every night before going to bed. Decide.
a) Gopi and her husband Abhishek are liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
b) Gopi is liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
c) The Baba is liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
d) Gopi and the Baba are jointly liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies
76) A company Karan Foods marketed a powder, 'Moflex' which is a chocolate flavoured
powder blended in milk. The company claimed that if this powder is taken every day for a
month, the height of kids improves by 1 meter in one year. Decide.
a) Karan Foods is not liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
b) Karan Foods is a company and only individuals can be made liable under Drugs and
Magic Remedies Act.
c) The claim stated by Karan Foods is true.
d) Karan Foods is liable under the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act.
applied.
Eight years after Indian police arrested two Italian marines, a five-member international
tribunal rejected India's contention that the soldiers, who were accused of killing Indian
fishermen, could be tried in Indian courts and ordered India to cease all criminal proceedings
against them.On Thursday, the Hague-based Permanent Court of Arbitration published an
extract of the final award of the ad-hoc tribunal constituted to settle disputes related to the
United Nations Convention for the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).<br
On February 15, 2012, Indian police had contended that Massimiliano Latorre and Salvatore
Girone, two Italian marines posted on oil tanker Enrica Lexie, shot at two Indian fishermen
on an Indian vessel, apparently mistaking them for pirates operating near the Kerala Coast.
Under UNCLOS, the concept of 'Hot Pursuit' states that a state may pursue a vessel when the
competent authorities of that state have good reason to believe that the vessel has violated
the laws and regulation of that state. There are certain conditionalities. It can be undertaken
only when the violating vessel is within the territorial waters (an area upto 12 nautical miles
from the shore) of the pursuing state. Hot pursuit can be by ship or aircraft. A visual or
auditory signal to the violating vessel must be given before commencing the pursuit. It can
be exercised only by war ships, military aircraft and not by merchant ships or commercial
aircrafts. In case of unjustified use of hot pursuit, damages must be paid.
(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Enrica Lexie: In Setback for India, Tribunal Says
Country's Courts Can't Try Italian Marines', Article in The Wire, published on July 3,
2020)</br
77) An unflagged boat carrying 10 persons entered Indian territorial waters near the coast of
Gujarat. The Indian Navy raiding-boat asked the unflagged boat about their details. The
unflagged boat without giving any answer hurriedly sped away. The raiding-boat followed
them and arrested all the 10 persons. Decide.
a) Indian Navy undertook a hot pursuit.
b) The unflagged boat undertook a hot pursuit.
c) There is no hot pursuit in the instant case.
d) Both the Indian Navy and the unflagged boat undertook hot pursuit of each other.
78) A vessel suspected of carrying terrorists from Pakistan entered Indian territorial waters
near Mumbai shore. Indian Navy overpowered a merchant ship and used it to pursue the
suspected vessel. Decide.
a) Any action from Pakistani side is suspicious.
b) India should have shot down the suspected vessel.
c) India is not justified in the procedure of hot pursuit.
d) India is justified in the procedure of hot pursuit.
79) A merchant ship originating from Dubai and terminating at Sri Lanka, entered the
territorial waters of India near the Kerala shore. India suspected that some criminals are
hiding in the ship. Without giving any signal or warning, Indian Coast Guards pursue the
merchant ship. Decide.
a) Since the ship was from Dubai, there are high chances of it holding the criminals.
b) The merchant ship could be pursued as it was terminating in Sri Lanka.
c) Indian Coast Guards have followed the procedure properly.
d) Indian Coast Guards have not followed the procedure properly.
80) A ship with Chinese flag was 300 nautical miles away from Indian coast. It was
allegedly carrying drugs banned in India. The Indian Navy pursued the ship and seized a big
stock of the banned drugs. Decide.
a) Indian Navy is liable to pay damages to the Chinese ship.
b) Indian Navy followed the hot pursuit procedure properly.
c) Indian Navy's actions are justified as it caught a big contraband.
d) Indian Navy's actions are justified as there is hostility between the two countries.
81) An Australian Navy vessel entered the territorial waters of Japan. Japan, without giving
any signal, pursued and shot down the vessel killing the four persons of Australian Navy.
Decide.
a) The matter can be mediated by India.
b) The matter can be mediated by USA.
c) Australian Navy is not justified in its actions.
d) Japan is not justified in its actions.
applied.
It said while Gilead Sciences' anti-viral drug Remdesivir has shown efficacy in treating
coronavirus patients, media reports indicated that the US has bought the entire stock of the
drug from the company for the next three months.It also said that the price of Remdesivir in
the United States is USD 3,000 or Rs 2.25 lakh for a five-day course. The cost of
manufacturing Remdesivir for a full course as worked out by experts is less than USD 10 or
Rs 750 in the US, and about Rs 100 in India. Gilead, by virtue of its patent monopoly, is
holding the world to ransom by asking a price that is hundreds of times its cost.
Under Clause 92(1) of India's Patents Act, India has the right to issue a compulsory license
to manufacture the drug in India.Under Clause 92A of the Patents Act, compulsory license
can even be issued for export to countries that may require the drug and not have the
capability to manufacture it. Both section 92(1) and 92A are subject to Section 84. Under
Section 84, any interested person can apply for compulsory licenses from three years from
the date of grant of the patent after the failure of efforts to obtain a voluntary license from
the patent holder. This option is not available for Remdesivir because the date of the patent
grant is in 2020. Any application for a compulsory license before three years from the date of
grant is not possible under Section 84.
Another option, which is an exception to Section 84 requisites, is under Section 92 (3) - in

case of a national emergency or circumstances of extreme urgency, public noncommercial
use arises during a public health emergency or during a public health crisis, like an epidemic.
At this time, the controller of patents has the discretion to grant a compulsory license even
without hearing the patent holder or waiting for 3-year lock in period.
(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Drugs That Could Be Used to Beat COVID-19
Have Another Barrier - Patents', Article published in The Wire (thewire.in), May 15, 2020)
82) A company named Klenmark invented a novel drug for treatment of Herpes. It was
granted patent in July, 2018. The price of each tablet was Rs. 5000. The treatment lasted for
ten days taking one tablet each day which cost Rs. 50,000 for entire treatment per person;
which is quite high as far as average Indian citizens are concerned. 'Bijoy Medicare' a
pharma company applied for a compulsory license for the same drug in January, 2020. What
is the most likely outcome?
a) Bijoy Medicare cannot be granted a compulsory license as Herpes is not an infectious
disease.
b) Bijoy Medicare cannot be granted a compulsory license as three years have not elapsed
since the grant of patent to Klenmark.
c) Bijoy Medicare will be granted a compulsory license as the price set by Klenmark is too
high.
d) Bijoy Medicare will be granted a compulsory license as Klenmark has a monopoly for
treatment of Herpes.
83) Zimbabwe in a South African country having dilapidated pharmaceuticals infrastructure.

An infectious disease 'Yellow Fever' spread across the entire country. It killed over a lakh
people in just the first month. Indian company Adarsh Pharma has a patent over a drug
'Alfrox' which is effective against the 'Yellow Fever'. India grants a compulsory license, after
having failed to get a voluntary license from Adarsh Pharma, to KBI Labs. The entire stock
manufactured by KBI Labs is immediately sent to Zimbabwe. Decide.
a) The grant of compulsory license to KBI Labs is justified as Zimbabwe did not have a good
pharmaceutical infrastructure.
b) The grant of compulsory license to KBI Labs is justified as Zimbabwe is a friendly
country to India.
c) The grant of compulsory license to KBI Labs is not justified as it violates Adarsh
Pharma's patent rights.
d) The grant of compulsory license to KBI Labs is not justified as 'Yellow Fever' has not
affected Indian population.
84) A deadly infectious bacterial disease spread in Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir. It was
caused by rats and was ten times more lethal than the Bubonic plague in Mumbai in the late
19th century. Every day over a thousand persons were dying due to the disease and there
were no signs of it stalling. Every day the number of fatalities was almost doubling. 'Sanafi'
is a drug which was found to kill the bacteria in a short span of time. The drug was patented
a few months back and the patent holder company refused a voluntary license. Decide.
a) The government cannot grant a compulsory license, neither under Section 92(1) nor 92(3).
b) The government can grant a compulsory license, either under Section 92(1) or 92(3).
c) The government can grant a compulsory license under Section 92 (3) only.
d) The government can grant a compulsory license under Section 92 (1) only.
85) Dr. Ranga Labs was granted a patent over a drug for treatment of common cold. It was
priced at Rs. 400 per tablet. Without applying for a voluntary license from Dr. Ranga Labs,
Dr. Kerry Labs applied for a compulsory license to the patent office. Decide.
a) Dr. Kerry Labs' application for compulsory license will be accepted.
b) Dr. Kerry Labs' application for compulsory license will be rejected.
c) Dr. Kerry Labs has to pay a fixed percentage of royalty to government if its application is
accepted.
d) Dr. Kerry Labs has to share fifty percent profits with government if it is granted a
compulsory license.
86) A fatal fungal infection spread among the Pakistani soldiers posted on the Western front
along the border with Afghanistan. The disease led to swelling of feet and intense pain
making it impossible for soldiers to wear their boots and do their duty. Pakistan had many
generic companies manufacturing anti-fungal medicines. Besides, some Pakistani branded
private companies like Zoya Labs, Akhtar Pharma, etc. were also manufacturing myriad
types of drugs including anti-fungal which off course are patented. One such patented drug is
'Glomox' which relieves the fungus symptoms in just a single dose. Choose the most
appropriate option.
a) India can grant a compulsory license for 'Glomox'.
b) India cannot grant a compulsory license for 'Glomox'.
c) Pakistani military is very hostile to Indian soldiers and it is unethical for Indian
government to issue a compulsory license for helping such country.
d) Pakistan is a bankrupt country and would not be able to pay even for the generic
medicines.
applied.
In a crackdown on e-commerce companies, the government on Friday issued notices to e-

commerce majors Flipkart and Amazon for not mandatorily displaying information,
including country of origin, about products sold on their platforms.While notices have been
issued to Amazon and Flipkart, the department has asked the states to ensure compliance of
rules by all e-commerce companies especially and generally all companies.The department
has asked them to ensure compliance of Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules.
The Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules provides that an e-commerce entity or
a company has to ensure that the mandatory declarations including the country of origin,
besides others. Whether a product is sold through an offline or online platform, directly or
indirectly, it is mandatory to display 'country of origin' besides other details like:
• Maximum retail price ("MRP");
• Day of expiry;
• Month and year in which the commodity is manufactured or packed or imported;
• Functional name, address, telephone number, e-mail address of the person who can be or
the office which can be contacted, in case of consumer complaints;
• Actual corporate name and complete address of domestic manufacturer or importer or
packer;
• The identity of the commodity contained in the package;
• The total number of retail package contained in such wholesale package or the net quantity
in terms of standard units of weights, measures or number of the commodity contained in
wholesale package.
(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Amazon, Flipkart slapped with govt notice for not
displaying country of origin on products sold', Article published in The Financial Express,
October 16, 2020)
87) Mohan purchased a table lamp of 'Khilips' brand. It did not light up. He called the
customer care executive number mentioned on the lamp box but there was no response. He
called all seven day of the week during office hours; the phone rang each time but there was
no response. Decide.
a) Khilips violated the Legal Metrology Rules.
b) Khilips did not violate the Legal Metrology Rules.
c) Mohan should have checked the lamp before buying.
d) Mohan should instead write an email.
88) Pratham Fast Foods is a well-known FMCG company. It makes prepackaged food items
and sells both online and offline. On one of its snacks 'Kays', the expiry date was written as
"taste and check for yourself". Choose the most appropriate option.
a) Tasting is the best way to check the expiry rather than just mentioning a date.
b) Food items should be eaten freshly cooked and not prepackaged.
c) Pratham Fast Food has not violated the Legal Metrology Rules.
d) Pratham Fast Foods has violated the Legal Metrology Rules.
89) Rekha purchased a mobile phone from a retail shop. The cover had an image of the
mobile phone and below it was written "for representation purposes only". Thinking that the
size of mobile is exactly the same as shown on the cover image, she purchased the phone.
Besides the image the exact dimensions of the phone were also given. On unboxing it, she
learned that the mobile was half the size of the displayed image but confirms the dimensions
written besides the image. Decide.
a) The mobile manufacturer has violated the Legal Metrology Rules.
b) The mobile manufacturer has not violated the Legal Metrology Rules.
c) Rekha should have asked the shopkeeper about her doubt before making the payment.
d) Rekha can return the mobile phone.
90) Roshni purchased a make-up kit of 'Dakme' brand from the company's official website.
The product display page did not mention what all items are included in the kit. It only read
"all basic items included". In common parlance basic items invariably include - brushes,
primer, concealer, foundation, eyeliner, among others. On receiving the product, Roshni
discovers that the make-up kit has only a single brush and foundation. Decide.
a) Dakme has not violated the Legal Metrology Rules as the kit contained brush and
foundation.
b) Dakme has not violated the Legal Metrology Rules as Roshni should have been careful.
c) Dakme has violated the Legal Metrology Rules as the company charged more than the
MRP.
d) Dakme has violated the Legal Metrology Rules as the kit did not contain the basic make-
up items.
91) A company based in Beijing, China exported cheap ladies' sandals in the Indian market.
The footwear consignment is generally sent via road through Nepal to India. Hence, on the
cover of the sandal box across the 'Country of Origin', 'Nepal' was written. Decide.
a) Indians should boycott Chinese goods.
b) No Chinese goods should be allowed in India as it spoils Indian market.
c) The company has violated the Legal Metrology Rules.
d) The company has not violated the Legal Metrology Rules.
applied.
Reservations in promotions to members of SC/ST community can be provided but certain

conditions, in toto, must be met. There must be quantifiable data to show that there is
backwardness of the SC/ST community, there is inadequate representation of the community
and lastly such reservations in promotions must not lose sight of efficiency.
Freedom to Speech and Expression under Article 19(1) of the Indian Constitution can be
restricted on limited grounds of, inter alia, Sovereignty and Integrity of India, Public Order,
Decency and Morality, Security of State, Friendly relations with Foreign countries,
Contempt of Court, Incitement to an offence. Hurting religious sentiments of a person is an

offence.
Reasonable restrictions can be put on right to life guaranteed by the Indian Constitution
under Article 21. Such restrictions must be by procedure established by law and such
procedure must be just, fair and not arbitrary.
{Extracted, with edits and revisions, from M Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006), Article 19 of
the Indian Constitution and KS Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2018)}
92) A government study revealed that in senior level teaching staff positions in Indian
Institutes of Management (IIMs) across India, only 0.01% are occupied by members of the
SC/ST community. It also shows that members of SC/ST community are socially backward.
The government enacted a law which reserved 2% of promotions to senior faculty staff for
members of SC/ST community. Decide.
a) Reservations are eating away merit in India.
b) Reservations are leading to brain drain in India.
c) The law is most likely valid in the eyes of law.
d) The law is not valid in the eyes of law.
93) Kamal was born and brought up in Jammu. He became friends with Vikrant, another
Jammu resident. Vikrant was a secret Pakistani agent working to spread discontent among
the Jammu and Kashmir residents, which was unknown to Kamal and others. Kamal was
brainwashed into supporting an independent Kashmir. Kamal wrote many posts on his
Facebook timeline along with pictures and videos which were photoshopped and were given
to him by Vikrant. The posts got viral and some incidents of violence against the Indian
Army stationed in Jammu were reported. The government blocked Facebook account of
Kamal. Decide.
a) Kamal's right to freedom of speech and expression is violated.
b) Vikrant is the real culprit and his social media account should be blocked and not Kamal.
c) Both Kamal and Vikrant must be arrested and put behind bars.
d) The government's action is justified.
94) Fiza is a state level lawn tennis player and has won many laurels. While playing, Fiza
wears full ankle length tights covered with a mid-thigh skirt. She wears elbow length top and
a hijab to cover her neck and hair. She feels comfortable in this dress and always wears the
same attire with different colour combination to maintain her modesty, to subscribe to her
religious faith, along with maintaining contemporary fashionable trends. While playing a
match in Bangalore, Shivani took a picture of Fiza and posted on social media with caption
"#stupid girl #full body covered #man gropes if skin exposed". The post gets viral and when
Fiza discovers it, she files a complaint against Shivani. Decide.
a) It is common for women to wear only a skirt and tank top in lawn tennis. The dress by
Fiza is weird and hence, Shivani's post is justified.
b) Fiza's dress is not subscribing to norms of modernity and must be shunned at all costs.
c) Shivani has hurt the religious sentiments of Fiza and therefore, her post can be blocked.
d) Shivani has the right to free speech and expression and therefore, can post anything on her
social media account.
95) Mr. Shukla was working on tribal rights. He organized many peaceful protests against
the government laws which displace tribals in the name of national development. A law is
enacted by the government which bars any protest whether peaceful or violent against any
government action. Mr. Shukla is arrested under the law. Decide.
a) Mr. Shukla's arrest is not justified as the law is not fair or reasonable.
b) Mr. Shukla's arrest is not justified as his suggestion was not considered before enacting
the law.
c) Mr. Shukla's arrest is justified as he violated the new law.
d) Mr. Shukla's arrest is justified as the law is enacted by procedure established by law.
96) Due to growing incidents of rape, the government enacts a new law. Among some major
changes introduced is that the victim's testimony is final and the accused can be convicted
solely based on it. The minimum punishment is life imprisonment with castration and
maximum is death. Decide.
a) The law is not valid as many reported rape cases are fake.
b) The law is harsh but valid as it is enacted by procedure established by law.
c) The law is not just to the accused and is arbitrary.
d) The law is a welcome step and will help stop the increasing number of rape crimes in the
country.
applied.
Under International law, States are bound to fulfill in good faith the obligations assumed by
them under International agreements or treaties. Similarly, only party states to a treaty are
bound under it. Moreover, other States cannot object to a treaty not concerning them. This
concept is similar to privity of contract. If, however, material circumstances upon which a
treaty is based are changed, it is a ground for avoidance or termination of the treaty.
A treaty is void if at the time of its conclusion, it conflicts with a peremptory norm of
International Law. A peremptory norm is a norm accepted and recognized by the
international community of states on the whole, as a norm from which no derogation is
permitted. No use of force is one such peremptory norm.
Under International Law, a custom is a habit that has been repeated for a long time and has
ultimately assumed the force of law. A custom has a force of law under International Law. It
is a custom which exempts fishing vessels from being captured and taken as prizes of war.
97) Pakistan and China signed a treaty to nuclear bomb India if India does not come to the
talking table to discuss the Kashmir issue with Pakistan. Decide.
a) Pakistan is always inimical to India.
b) The treaty is not valid under International Law.
c) The treaty is valid under International Law.
d) India can complain to the United Nations.
98) There is a bilateral treaty between India and UK regarding export of garments from India
to UK via the Suez Canal at a particular price. An unprecedented war breaks between Egypt
and Israel leading to the closure of Suez Canal. Resultantly, India is forced to demand higher
prices as the UK consignment via ship has to take a detour circling Africa which is twice the
distance via the Suez Canal; Or in the worst case avoid the treaty altogether. Decide.
a) India cannot demand higher prices.
b) India can claim compensation from UK.
c) India can file a case in WTO against the UK.
d) India can demand higher prices or avoid the treaty as there is material change in the
circumstances.
99) A fishing vessel, Pickachu, was travelling from Spain to US(a) It was owned by a
Spanish national. USA declares war on Spain and henceforth, captures Pickachu as prize of
war. Decide.
a) USA cannot capture Pickachu as it's a fishing vessel.
b) USA cannot capture Pikachu as it is owned by a Spanish national.
c) USA cannot capture Pickachu as the custom prohibits it.
d) Both (a) and (c).
100) India and Pakistan enter into a treaty to start a train from Lahore to Srinagar. China
objects to this treaty. Decide.
a) China can object as it shares a common border with India and Pakistan.
b) China cannot object as it is not involved in the treaty.
c) China cannot object as it is not India's friend.
d) China cannot object as it is biased towards Pakistan.
101) India imports a substantial quantity of petroleum from UAE by virtue of a bilateral
treaty between the two nations. Due to adverse local conditions in UAE, the cost of
production rises. It seeks to avoid the treaty with India on this ground. Decide.
a) UAE can avoid the treaty as there is no enforcement mechanism.
b) UAE cannot avoid the treaty as there is no material change.
c) UAE cannot avoid the treaty as India is heavily dependent on it.
d) UAE can avoid the treaty as material circumstances have changed.
Direction for Questions 102-105): You have been given some passages followed by
questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option
which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used
for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be
applied.
A person can claim unsoundness of mind as a defence against criminal prosecution. This is
known as the defence of insanity. The test to determine insanity is the McNaughton Rule.
McNaughton Rule states that every man is presumed sane unless contrary is proved. To
successfully claim insanity, the accused must have mental defect at the time of committing
the wrongful act, to not know the nature and quality of the act he is doing or in other words,
his mental faculty to distinguish right and wrong is not present.
A person can claim intoxication as a defence against criminal prosecution. However, not
every case of intoxication will fall within this defence. To successfully claim this defence, it
is mandatory that such intoxication was without knowledge or against the will of the
accused. Also, the accused must be so much intoxicated so as to be incapable of
understanding the nature and consequences of his act.
{Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'McNaughton's Case (England 1843) and Sections
84, 85 and 86 of IPC}
102) Radha leaves her child with her brother, Sanjeev, as she had to go to a wedding out of
city with her husband for a couple of days. Sanjeev suffers from episodes of hallucinations
but till date hasn't done anything serious. Sanjeev was watching 'Sri Krishna' program on
television. All of the sudden the hallucination bout occurs. He thinks himself to be 'Putana', a
character in 'Sri Krishna', and the child as 'Krishna' whom 'Putana' was duty bound to kill. He
takes a knife from the kitchen and slits the child's throat. The child dies. Sanjeev then calls
the police and tells he has accomplished his task of killing Krishna. Decide.
a) In all probability Sanjeev suffers from jealously towards Radha's child.
b) In all probability Sanjeev is not fit live in a society.
c) In all probability Sanjeev suffers from mental insanity.
d) Radha is liable as she should not have left her child with a maniac.
103) X, got a licensed mauser gun for his safety. He loved keeping short hair straightened
from front. He took many pictures of his hair and posted on his social media. Once while he
was jogging, Shrey, another jogger, makes fun of X's hairstyle and says it resembles a
peacock's head. X get infuriated, takes out his gun and shoots Shrey on his leg. Shrey
survives but is injured. Decide.
a) X can claim the defence of insanity under McNaughton's Rule.
b) X can claim the defence of grave and sudden provocation.
c) X cannot claim the defence of insanity under McNaughton's Rule.
d) Shrey is liable for hurting emotional sentiments of X.
104) Akshay goes to a friends' birthday party where Surbhi is also present. Akshay has a
crush on Surbhi but did not have the courage to speak up. To create some fun, Mohit,
another invitee, surreptitiously laces alcohol in Akshay's soft drink. An hour after consuming
his drink, Akshay goes up to Surbhi, holds her waist, kisses on her cheek and says, 'I love
you' and runs away. This happens in front of all friends. Surbhi is embarrassed and files a
molestation case against Akshay. Decide.
a) Surbhi should not file molestation case as Akshay only expressed his love for her through
not in an appropriate manner.
b) Akshay cannot claim the defence of intoxication as he kissed Surbhi which was totally
uncalled for and not necessary for expressing love.
c) Akshay cannot claim the defence of intoxication as it would set a bad precedent.
d) Akshay can claim the defence of intoxication.
105) Rahul goes to a marriage reception of his best friend organized in a hotel. Late in the
night, past midnight, he along with some other friends, start drinking alcoholic beverages.
Rahul also takes a couple of pegs and feels hungry. He orders the waiter to get some food.
The waiter refuses as the policy of the hotel prohibits serving food past midnight. Rahul due
to the alcoholic effect, stands up and slaps the waiter. Decide.
a) Rahul can claim the defence of intoxication.
b) Rahul cannot claim the defence of intoxication as he was voluntarily intoxicated.
c) Rahul cannot take the defence of intoxication as the waiter's refusal was as per the hotel
policy.
d) The job of waiter is to serve and a slap or two is no big deal for a hotel waiter.
SECTION 04 Logical Reasoning

Direction for Questions 106-110): Each set of questions in this section is based on the
reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on
the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any
information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one
option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
A game of strategy, as currently conceived in game theory, is a situation in which two or

more "players" make choices among available alternatives (moves). Thus the "interests" of
the players are generally in conflict. Whether these interests are diametrically opposed or
only partially opposed depends on the type of game.
Psychologically, most interesting situations arise when the interests of the players are partly
coincident and partly opposed, because then one can postulate not only a conflict among the
players but also inner conflicts within the players. Each is torn between a tendency to
cooperate, so as to promote the common interests, and a tendency to compete, so as to
enhance his own individual interests.
Internal conflicts are always psychologically interesting. What we vaguely call "interesting"
psychology is in very great measure the psychology of inner conflict. Inner conflict is also
held to be an important component of serious literature as distinguished from less serious
genres. The classical tragedy, as well as the serious novel reveals the inner conflict of central
figures.
The effort of solving the problem is in itself not a conflict if the adversary (the unknown
criminal) remains passive, like Nature, whose secrets the scientist supposedly unravels by
deduction. If the adversary actively puts obstacles in the detective's path toward the solution,
there is genuine conflict. But the conflict is psychologically interesting only to the extent that
it contains irrational components such as a tactical error on the criminal's part or the
detective's insight into some psychological quirk of the criminal or something of this sort.
Chess may be psychologically interesting but only to the extent that it is played not quite
rationally. Played completely rationally, chess would not be different from Tic-tac-toe.
Source:
https://books.google.co.in/books?id=yPtNnKjXaj4C&pg=PA9&lpg=PA9&dq=#v=onepage
&q&f=false
106) According to the passage, internal struggles are psychologically more interesting than
external conflicts because:
a) Internal conflicts, as opposed to external conflicts, are a significant characteristic of
serious literature, as opposed to less serious genres.
b) External conflict affects only teenagers or a limited number of "adults," while internal
conflict is more widespread in society.
c) Individuals face a challenge in addressing their own desires for various outcomes in cases
of internal conflict.
d) In the event of external disputes, the reader (or viewer) is not endangered.
107) Which of the following, according to the author, would be interesting psychology?
a) A statistician's quandary regarding which approach to use to solve an optimization
problem.
b) The dilemma of a chess player facing an offensive opponent while following a defensive
strategy.
c) The best route to Mt. Everest from base camp, as chosen by a mountaineer.
d) The problem of a finance manager trying to find out the best way to collect money from
the market.
108) Which of the following claims about the application of game theory to a conflict-of-
interest situation is right, according to the passage?
a) Assume that each player's choice for options is ranked in a different order.
b) Accepting that various players' interests are often at odds.
c) Not assuming that the preferences are diametrically opposed.
d) All of the above.
109) A scientist's problem-solving method varies from that of a detective because:

a) Detectives deal with living criminals or law suspects, whereas scientists research
inanimate artefact
b) Scientists research well-known artefacts, while detectives must deal with unidentified
suspects or lawbreakers.
c) Scientists look at phenomena that aren't consciously manipulated, while investigators look
at phenomena that have been manipulated to deceive.
d) Detectives deal with "adult" analogues of childhood adventure stories, while scientists
research psychologically curious phenomena.
110) Based on the passage, what field of study is psychology?

a) Study of the mind and behavior

b) Study of human society
c) Study of past human history
d) Study of heart
War, natural disasters and climate change are destroying some of the world's most precious
cultural sites. Google is trying to help preserve these archaeological wonders by allowing
users access to 3D images of these treasures through its site. These images are part of a
collaboration with CyArk, a nonprofit that creates the 3D scanning of historic sites. Google
says it doesn't make money off this website, but it fits in with Google's mission to make the
world's information available and useful.
Critics say the collaboration could be an attempt by a large corporation to wrap itself in the
sheen of culture. Ethan Watrall, an archaeologist, says he's not comfortable with the
arrangement between CyArk and Google. Watrall says this project is just a way for Google
to promote Google. "They want to make this material accessible so people will browse it and
be filled with wonder by it," he says. "But at its core, it's all about advertisements and
driving traffic," Watrall says these images belong on the site of a museum or educational
institution, where there are serious scholarships and a very different mission.
There's another issue - CyArk owns the copyrights of the scans -that means the countries
need CyArk's permission to use these images for commercial purposes. Erin Thompson, a
professor of art crime, says it's the latest example of a Western nation appropriating a foreign
culture, a centuries-long battle. CyArk says it copyrights the scans so no one can use them in
an inappropriate way. The company says it works closely with authorities during the process,
even training local people to help. But critics like Thompson are not persuaded. She would
prefer the scans to be owned by the countries and people where these sites are located.
Source: https://www.npr.org/sections/alltechconsidered/2018/05/21/609084578/
111) CyArk holding the rights to its digital scans of archaeological sites, in Dr. Thompson's
opinion, is akin to?
a) A Western museum seizing control over ancient Egyptian artefacts.
b) downloading content from the internet without authorization.
c) Tourists posting a monument's images on social media.
d) Collection of users' data via digital platforms for market research.
112) Which of the following claims is the LEAST likely to be used by companies that search
cultural sites digitally?
a) It assists in the protection of priceless photographs in the event that the sites are damaged
or lost.
b) It gives all users free access to photos.
c) It helps people who are unable to physically visit these places to share in the experience.
d) It helps a large company to portray itself as a cultural defender.
113) Which of the following claims, if correct, will most strongly refute Dr. Watrall's
arguments?
a) Only museum websites receive CyArk's scanned photographs of archaeological sites.
b) Advertisements on Google's website hosting CyArk's scanned images have been removed.
c) The scanning of archaeological sites in other countries is forbidden by CyArk.
d) The copyright on scanned photographs of archaeological sites does not belong to CyArk.
114) Based on his viewpoints noted in the text, one might best classify Dr. Watrall as also
being?
a) opposed to the use of digital technologies at a developing country's archaeological and
cultural sites.
b) concerned about laypeople's access to expert photographs of archaeological and cultural
sites.
c) unconvinced about the partnership between a non-profit and a commercial tech platform
for distributing archaeological images.
d) uneasy about the commercial use of archaeological photographs by companies including
Google and CyArk.
115) It can be inferred that critics of the CyArk-Google project might use the term "digital
colonialism" to describe the fact that?
a) CyArk and Google have been scanning photos without the host country's permission.
b) The scanning process can cause damage to the sites' delicate frescoes and statues.
c) The specifics of digitization have not been shared with the host countries by CyArk and
Google.
d) The scan copyrights do not belong to the countries where the scanned pages are located.
The February 2021 announcement of a renewed ceasefire by Pakistan and India was greeted
with both a cautious welcome and considerable scepticism. Tensions between the two
countries plunged to their nadir after August 2019, when the Indian government removed the
special status of Jammu and Kashmir and locked down the former state. Since then there
have been close to 7,000 incidents of crossfire across the Line of Control, accompanied by
rising invective by the two countries' leaders. Most Pakistan and India analysts, therefore,
see the ceasefire as a purely tactical move serving the short-term interests of both countries
(calming India's western borders while negotiations with China continue; calming Pakistan's
eastern border while Afghan negotiations gather momentum).
Even as a purely tactical move, this small step to de-escalate must be welcomed, especially if
it is seen by each country as serving its own interests. In our view, moreover, there is no such
thing as a purely tactical move in peacemaking. More often than not, what appears to be a
one-step tactical move expands to a series of small steps, which may together set the stage
for bolder measures towards a lasting peace.
Source: https://www.southpunjabnews.com/2021/03/ice-is-melting-hope-for-pakistan-
india.html
116) Out of the following options, which one appropriately captures the central idea of the
given passage?
a) India's foreign policies vis-a-vis South Asia
b) The acrimonious relationship between India and Pakistan
c) An overview of Indo-Pak relations
d) Small step to lasting Indo-Pak peace
117) In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

a) Owing to the myopic leaders of India and Pakistan, peace can hardly be attained.
b) Leaders of both India and Pakistan lack communication skills and so, peace is next to
impossible.
c) Leaders of both India and Pakistan have not always been respectful towards each other.
d) Leaders of both India and Pakistan have always been respectful towards each other.
118) The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following proverbs:
a) The early bird catches the worm.
b) A journey of a thousand miles must begin with the first step.
c) A picture is worth a thousand words.
d) It's better to be safe than sorry.
119) Out of the following options, which one strengthens the author's argument as expressed
in the passage?
a) The ceasefire can be beneficial only to Pakistan.
b) The ceasefire between India and Pakistan is a utopian idea.
c) International mediation is required to establish peace between India and Pakistan.
d) The ceasefire can be mutually beneficial for both the countries.
120) Out of the following options, which one, if true, would the author of the passage most
likely agree with?
a) Religious pilgrimages would once again be revived between India and Pakistan.
b) Cross border terrorism would escalate in the present scenario.
c) India will not play against Pakistan because of the hostilities.
d) Indian leaders will continue their tirade against Pakistan.
After Hiroshima, some suggested that any aliens bright enough to colonize spaceships would
be bright enough to make thermonuclear bombs and would use them on each other sooner or
later. I suggest a different, even darker solution to the Paradox. Basically, I think the aliens
forget to send radio signals or colonize space because they're too busy with runaway
consumerism and virtual-reality narcissism. The fundamental problem is that an evolved
mind must pay attention to indirect cues of biological fitness, rather than tracking fitness
itself. This was a key insight of evolutionary psychology in the early 1990s; although
evolution favours brains that tend to maximize fitness (as measured by numbers of great-
grandkids), no brain has capacity enough to do so under every possible circumstance.
Technology is fairly good at controlling external reality to promote real biological fitness,
but it's even better at delivering fake fitness - subjective cues of survival and reproduction
without the real-world effects. Fitnessfaking technology tends to evolve much faster than our
psychological resistance to it. With the invention of Xbox 360, people would rather play a
high-resolution virtual ape in Peter Jackson's King Kong than be a perfect-resolution real
human. Teens today must find their way through a carnival of addictively fitness-faking
entertainment products. The traditional staples of physical, mental and social development -
athletics, homework, dating - are neglected. Around 1900, most inventions concerned
physical reality and in 2005 focus shifted to virtual entertainment. Freud's pleasure principle
triumphs over the reality principle. Most bright alien species probably go extinct gradually,
allocating more time and resources to their pleasures, and less to their children. Heritable
variation in personality might allow some lineages to resist the Great Temptation and last
longer.
Source: https://www.edge.org/response-detail/11475
121) Which of the following options best reflects the most pressing issue posed in the
passage?
a) The effect of extraterrestrial life on humans.
b) Lack of desire to improve one's health.
c) Pleasure-seeking activity for a brief period of time.
d) Knowledge extinction due to technological innovation.
122) Which of the following is the most plausible reason for the lack of interaction between
humans and extraterrestrials?
a) Aliens' technical potential is overestimated.
b) Achieving genetic variation in alien personality is still a work in progress.
c) All aliens may have been killed by thermonuclear bombs.
d) Aliens have been egotistical and pleasure-oriented.
123) With which of the following claims is the passage's author likely to agree with the
most?
a) Despite the proliferation of fitness faking innovations, violent crime, including gang
warfare for turf security and expansion coexists in all technologically advanced societies.
b) The government's ability to monitor citizens' minds and prevent them from participating
in trouble-making behaviors drives the creation of fitness-faking technology.
c) Sometimes, the countries with the most sophisticated technologies are at the forefront of
imperial conquest by wars.
d) Warfare and imperial expansion by European nations after the Renaissance would not
have happened if fitness-faking devices and consumerism had been available in those
countries at the time.
124) Which of the following claims, if valid, poses the greatest challenge to the passage's
ideas?
I. Despite the emergence of fitness-faking technology, violent crime, including gang warfare
for turf security and expansion coexists in all technologically advanced societies.
II. The government's ability to monitor citizens' minds and prevent them from participating
in trouble-making behaviors drives the development of fitness-faking technology.
III. The countries with the most sophisticated technologies are always at the forefront of war
preparations.
IV. If the technology to manufacture fitness-faking devices had existed at the time, the
European nations' post-renaissance period of colonial expansion would never have occurred.
V. Teens who have access to technology indulge in greater violence than those who do not.
a) I & III
b) II & III
c) III & IV
d) I, III & V
125) With respect to the passage, what does the word "circumstance" mean?
a) Situation
b) Environment
c) Susceptibility
d) None of the above
An elected State government can certainly, during its five-year tenure, attempt to provide
high quality local infrastructure to attract new businesses. State governments also have the
ability to provide land at affordable prices or for free to attract investments. However, the
availability of skilled local labour is a function of many decades of social progress of the
State and cannot be retooled immediately. After the introduction of the Goods and Services
Tax (GST), State governments in India have lost their fiscal autonomy and have no powers
to provide any tax concessions to businesses. So, while State governments have the ability to
use land and local infrastructure as tools to attract businesses, they do not have control over
immediate availability of skilled manpower or to use taxes as a tool to lure. In America,
States compete against each other vigorously using tax concessions and land offers to bring
new jobs to their States.
But, beyond all these, the most critical factor in the choice of a location for a large business
is what economists term as the 'agglomeration effect' - the ecosystem of supply chain, talent,
good living conditions and so on. A State with an already well-established network of
suppliers, people, schools, etc. is at a greater advantage to attract even more businesses than
the States that are left behind. Put simply, if Amazon's competitor Walmart is already
established in Karnataka, then there is a greater incentive for Amazon to also locate itself in
Karnataka to take advantage of the established ecosystem. This leads to a cycle of the more
prosperous States growing even faster at the expense of the lagging States.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-job-crunch-and-the-growing-fires-of-
nativism/ article34068695.ece
126) Which of the following would be the central idea of the given passage?
a) Better developed States attract more businesses than the poor States do.
b) States are responsible for attracting investors in order to solve the unemployment
problem.
c) States in India do not have the autonomy to provide tax concessions to businesses.
d) To attract business investments, States have to provide land to big companies.
127) Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
a) New businesses will create new jobs.
b) States need not compete against one another in order to attract new businesses.
c) Some States deliberately do not provide land to new businesses.
d) Some States in India have greater advantages over others in attracting new businesses.
128) Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the author's argument in the given
passage?
a) Any tax advantages that a particular State can provide vis-à-vis others will increase its
attractiveness for new investors.
b) If a new company believes that the Indian economy is poised to grow robustly, it may not
invest in India.
c) Any tax advantages that a particular State can provide vis-à-vis others will not impact its
attractiveness for new investors.
d) If a new company believes that the Indian economy is poised to grow robustly, it may
invest in its own country only.
a) States ultimately do have control over the availability of skilled manpower.
b) Training a man to become a skilled worker takes time.
c) Skilled local labour can be provided to any investors immediately.
d) Skilled manpower is easily available in any State in India.
a) States in India can levy separate taxes on any business now.
b) Rich states are likely to become less prosperous in the future.
c) Rich States are likely to grow richer and poor states are likely to stay poor.
d) Rich States are likely to help poor states by providing jobs to people from poor States.
Direction for Questions 131-133): Following is an array of questions to test your reasoning
ability in different situations. Answer each of them according to the question asked in each
of them respectively:
131) Digitalis is a medication extracted from the foxglove plant in the US that can be used to
treat arrhythmia, which has been fatal for 68 percent of those infected up until now. The
foxglove plant is extremely rare in the US, and large quantities are needed to produce
Digitalis. As a result, if Digitalis continues to be manufactured, foxgloves will become
extinct.
If true, which of the following most calls into question the conclusion above?
a) Digitalis is costly, and most big insurance companies do not currently cover it.
b) In certain parts of the world, foxgloves are considered a gourmet delicacy.
c) While native to the US, foxgloves are easy to grow in other parts of the world.
d) Digitalis production is time-consuming and costly for the pharmaceutical industry.
132) Which alternative applies to the following statement and assumption?

Statement: Rachel emailed her friend again after a few days because she had not got a
response to her first email.
Assumptions:
I. Her friend did not get the email due to some technical issue.
II. Her friend responded to the first e-mail, but it was not received by Rachel due to some
technical issue.
III. Her friend is usually quite prompt in responding to the emails that Rachel sends.
a) All are implicit.
b) Only I and III are implicit.
c) Only III is implicit.
d) Only II and III are implicit.
133) But Anderson said that more vegetation may not actually increase warming and flood
risks in the Himalayas, with the only study in the region, in Tibet, finding that the water in
the plants that is evaporated through their leaf surface actually exerted a cooling influence.
"We really don't know much about this area and we need to direct research attention towards
it because it's a major part of the water supply story in the Himalayas," she added. The study,
published in Global Change Biology, was made possible by Google's new Earth Engine,
which provides researchers with a freely accessible collection of government agency satellite
data in the cloud. Previously, researchers would have had to build a super-computer to sift
through the enormous quantities of satellite data.
Out of the following options, which one is a logical corollary to the given passage?
a) "We will also report back on our own progress as an organization, as we take important
steps to address our impact on the environment", ascertained Anderson.
b) "We have made several important changes to our style guide to ensure the language we
use accurately reflects the environmental catastrophe.", claimed Anderson.
c) "It has really revolutionized this kind of work and enables large-scale, long time-series
investigations like this to happen," said Anderson.
d) "We will keep reporting on the efforts of individuals and communities around the world
who are fearlessly taking a stand for future generations and the preservation of human life on
earth." said Anderson.
134) Seven girls - Alia, Piya, Mira, Dipa, Soni, Riya and Nita - live in a building with seven
floors, numbered 1 to 7 from bottom to top. Each girl studies in a different school - RPS,
GHS, DPS, NPS, TPS, KPS and LPS - not necessarily in the same order. Alia lives at a gap
of three floors above the girl who studies in NPS, who lives just above the one who studies
in DPS. Soni lives three floors below Piya, who lives two floors below the one who studies
at LPS. Mira, who studies in KPS, lives on the lowermost floor and Nita lives at a gap of one
floor from her. Dipa lives on the 4th floor whereas Nita studies in NPS. Neither Piya nor
Dipa studies in GHS. The one studying in RPS lives on an odd numbered floor.
Select the statement that is TRUE regarding the girls who live in the building.
a) Riya who studies in GHS lives on the fifth floor.
b) Soni who is from DPS lives on the third floor.
c) Piya who lives on the sixth floor is from RPS.
d) Dipa lives below Riya, who studies in GHS.
135) In a family of six people, Gurprit and Pulkit are the only sisters of Daljit, whose mother
is the wife of Kamaljit's father, who is a businessman. Gurprit and Daljit are students
whereas the other two children are teachers. Their mother is a housewife.
How is Kamaljit related to Gurprit and what are their occupations respectively?
a) Sister; teacher, student
b) Brother, teacher, student
c) Mother, housewife, student
d) Brother, student, Teacher
SECTION 05 Quantitative Techniques

Direction for Questions 136-140): Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
The pie chart given below shows the distribution of under trial prisoners in a country by their
education profile in the beginning of 2020.
136) What is the ratio of illiterate under trial prisoners to PG under trial prisoners
respectively?
a) 19 : 5
b) 5 : 2
c) 19 : 2
d) 2 : 17
137) What approximate percentage of under trial prisoners have educational qualification
below class X or are illiterate?
a) 58.28%
b) 62.35%
c) 71.72%
d) 69.28%
138) If 15% of the graduate under trial prisoners pay a bail amount of Rs.50,000 per head,
then what is the total bail amount collected from them?
a) Rs.15.75 crore
b) Rs.18.25 crore
c) Rs.13.75 crore
d) Rs.21.50 crore
139) If 10% of the under trial prisoners who are in the below Class X category pass their
Class X exam during their trial months, then what will be the approximate percentage
increase in the total number of prisoners in the above class X below graduation category?
a) 13%
b) 15%
c) 19%
d) 21%
140) If the government spends a minimum of Rs.250 per day for the upkeep of each under
trial prisoner, then what is the minimum total expenditure for the upkeep of all the above
mentioned prisoners for one year?
a) Rs.3229.5 crore
b) Rs.2429.5 crore
c) Rs.1629.5 crore
d) Rs.3029.5 crore
given below.
The bar graph given below shows the quantity (in Thousand metric tonnes, TMT) of
Petroleum Products exported by India from 2012-13 to 2018-19 whereas the line graph
shows the total value (in Rs. crore) of the exported Petroleum Products from 2012-13 to
2018-19.
141) During which year was the average value of the exported Petroleum Products the
maximum?
a) 2012-13
b) 2013-14
c) 2016-17
d) 2017-18
142) What was the average annual export of Petroleum Products (in Thousand metric tonnes)
during the given period?
a) 62169.29 TMT
b) 64299.26 TMT
c) 61149.29 TMT
d) 64169.29 TMT
143) What was the approximate percentage decrease in the total value of exported Petroleum
Products from 2012-13 to 2016-17?
a) 24%
b) 31%
c) 39%
d) 27%
144) What was the difference between the maximum and the minimum quantity of
Petroleum Products exported per year during the given time period?
a) 7325 TMT
b) 7225 TMT
c) 5725 TMT
d) 3275 TMT
145) During the year when the total value of exported Petroleum Products was minimum,
what was the price for thousand metric tonnes of Petroleum Products?
a) Rs.1.69 crore
b) Rs.2.92 crore
c) Rs.3.01 crore
d) Rs.2.67 crore
given below.
The Pizza House has three varieties of pizza - small, medium, and large. Unless otherwise
specified these pizzas are all circular in shape. The small pizza has a radius of 10 cm, the
medium pizza has a radius of 15 cm, and the large pizza has a radius of 20 cm. The small
pizza costs Rs.80, the medium pizza costs Rs. 125 and the large pizza costs Rs. 200.
146) If 100 g of flour is used in the preparation of one small pizza, then how much flour will
be used in preparing one medium and one large pizza?
a) 625 g
b) 725 g
c) 500 g
d) 800 g
147) Which variety of pizza has the highest area to cost ratio?
a) Small
b) Medium
c) Large
d) Small and Large have the same ratio
148) Which of the following equally priced combos offered at Pizza House has the
maximum pizza (i.e., maximum area)?
a) 6 small-sized Pizzas
b) 1 medium plus 1 large pizza

c) 2 medium pizzas plus 2 small pizzas
d) 1 large plus 2 small pizzas
149) What will be the cost of a new improved small pizza having radius 10% more than the
original small pizza?
a) Rs.92.80
b) Rs.88.00
c) Rs.121.00
d) Rs.96.80
150) Pizza House changes the shape of pizza from circles to squares for a limited period of
time. The small square pizza has a side of 16 cm, the medium square pizza has side 26 cm
and the large square pizza has side 36 cm. For how many varieties of pizzas is there a
decrease in the cost of production? (Take π = 3.14)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 0

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