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UEE MCQS All in One
UEE MCQS All in One
(22626)
1. The return circuit for tramcars is through
A. neutral wire
B. rails
C. cables
D.common earthing
Answer => B
Answer => A
Answer => B
4.
Answer => A
Answer => B
If the blowpipe is moved to and fro frequently while cutting the kerf will
1. not be affected
2. be less
3. of correct size
4. be more
Answer-4
3) The top edge is melted round and the cutface is not smooth in gas cutting. This is due to
4) In a gas cut plate, the cut shows groove sand has deep drag lines. This is due to
5) In a gas cut plate, the cut is high quality although there is some surface roughness caused by vertical drag
lines.This is due to
6) The size of the cutting nozzle used in oxyacetylene cutting process depends mainly on
1. T-joint
2. Corner joint
3. lap joint
4. butt joint
Answer-4
8) Double-V and double-U butt welds are used for plates of thickness
1. 1 – 5 mm
2. 5 – 10 mm
3. 10 – 15 mm
4. above 15 mm
Answer-4
1. Carbon
2. Tungsten
3. Graphite
4. Sodium
Answer-4
10) Which of the following is an example of plastic welding
1. Gas welding
2. Arc welding
3. Thermit welding
4. Forge welding
Answer-4
1. Submerged
2. Plasma
3. Air-acetylene
4. Electro-slag
Answer-3
1. Arc welding
2. Resistance welding
3. Thermit welding with pressure
4. Forge welding
Answer-1
13) Which of the following welding process is used for welding of sheet metals in automobile and air craft industries
1. Resistance welding
2. Thermit welding
3. Gas tungsten arc welding
4. Shield metal arc welding
Answer-1
1. Seam welding
2. Spot welding
3. Projection welding
4. Forge welding
Answer-4
1. Copper
2. Iron
3. Bronze
4. Aluminium
Answer-1
1. Oxidising flame
2. Carburising flame
3. Neutral flame
4. None of these
Answer-1
1. Oxidising flame
2. Carburising flame
3. Neutral flame
4. None of these
Answer-2
1uinit illumination
1. Candela is the unit of which?
(a) Wavelength
(b) Luminous intensity.
(c) Luminous flux.
(d) Frequency.
Answer:
Option (b)
2. Solid angle is expressed in terms of
(a) Radians / meter
(b) Radians.
(c) Steredians
(d) Degree
Answer:
Option (c)
3. Which lamp has the best Colour Rendering Index (CRI)?
(a) LED
(b) Fluorescent
(c) Incandescent
(d) High pressure sodium vapour
Answer:
Option (c)
4What is the ratio of illuminance at a point 5m just below a lamp emitting 100 candelas and at a point
. 5m away from the first point on the same horizontal plane?
(a) 1:2
(b) 2√2 : 1
(c) 1: 2√2
(d) 2:1
Answer:
Option (b)
5Which lamps can be directly connected to a solar cell?
. (a) Incandescent
(b) Metal Halide
(c) Compact Fluorescent
(d) LED
Answer:
Option (d)
6. Candela/metre square is the unit of which quantity?
(a) Illuminance
(b) Luminous flux
(c) Luminance
(d) Luminous Intensity
Answer:
Option (c)
7. Which lamp is best suited for lighting an International sports arena?
(a) Incandescent
(b) Metal Halide
(c) Compact Fluorescent
(d) LED
Answer:
Option (b)
8. What is the work of a driver in case of an LED?
(a) To convert AC to DC
(b) To convert DC to AC
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of these
Answer:
Option (a)
9. What will be the number of lamps, each having 300 lumens, required to obtain an average illuminance
of 50 lux on a 4m × 3m rectangular room?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
Option (a)
10. The range of visual spectrum is
(a) 300nm - 1000nm.
(b) 480nm - 1000nm.
(c) 480nm - 760nm.
(d) 300nm - 760nm.
Answer:
Option (c)
11. A 1000 W bulb fitted with a reflector illuminates an area of 3 m x 3 m with an average illumination of 450 lux.
If the bulb has and efficiency of 9 lumens / watt the efficiency of the reflector is
(a)70 %.
(b 30 %.
)
(c)20%
(d 45 %.
)
Answer:
Option (d)
12. What will be the total flux emitted by a source of 60 candle power?
(a) 754.2 lumens.
(b) 0.001326 lumens.
(c) 60 lumens.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
Option (a)
13. From a uniform light source having luminous intensity of 300 candelas, there exists a
plane surface 15 m below. The value of illuminance at a point on the plane surface where
the luminous flux rays are inclined at an angle of 30 to the surface is.
(a) 1.53 lux.
(b) 1.15 lux.
(c) 58.45 Kilo lux
(d) 17.32 lux.
Answer:
Option (b)
14. The solid angle subtended by an area of 2400 cm2 on the surface of a sphere of diameter 1.2 m is
(a) 3 / 2.
(b) 1 / 3.
(c) 2 / 3.
(d) 2 / 5.
Answer:
Option (c)
15. In illumination technology total lumens emitted by source / total lumens available after waste of light is equal to
(a) Waste light factor.
(b) Utilization factor.
(c) Beam factor.
(d) Absorption factor.
Answer:
Option (a)
16. The illumination at a point 5 meters below a lamp is 6 lux. The candle power of the lamp is
(a) 30
(b) 140
(c) 150
(d) 200
Answer:
Option (c)
17. Which among the following lamps has the maximum burning hours?
(a) LED.
(b) Incandescent.
(c) Metal halide.
(d) Compact fluorescent.
Answer:
Option (a)
18. A 200 candle power lamp is hung 4 m above the centre of circular area of 5 m diameter. The illumination
at centre of the area is
(a) 13.5 lux.
(b) 12.5 lux.
(c) 17.5 lux.
(d) 18.5 lux.
Answer:
Option (b)
19. Illumination can be expressed in
(a) Radians.
(b) Lux.
(c) Lumens.
(d) Candela.
Answer:
Option (b)
d) all of above
a) 3 * 1010 CM/s
b) 3 * 1020 CM/s
c) 3 * 104 CM/s
d) 3 * 1020 CM/s
a) Domestic lighting
b) Street lighting
c) cinema projectors
d) photography
b) radian
c) steradian
d) candela
a) luminous flux
b) luminous intensity
c) wavelength
d) none
a) steradian
b) candela
c) lux
d) lumen
7. The illumination is directly proportional to the cosine of the angle made by the normal to the illuminated surf
Page 2 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
a) Planck’s law
b) Macbeth’s law
c) Bunsen’s law
d) lambert’s law
8. illumination level required for precision work is around
a) 50 Im / m2
b) 100 Im / m2
c) 200 Im / m2
d) 500 Im / m2
a) Proof reading
b) bed rooms
c) hospital wards
d) railway platforms
10. Which of the following will need the lowest level of illumination?
a) displays
b) fine engraving
c) railway platform
d) auditorium
a) 10-20 lumen/m2
b) 30 - 50 lumen/m2
c) 40-75 lumen/m2
d) 100-140 lumen/m2
a) 5- 10 lumens/watt
b) 15-20 lumens/watt
c) 30 - 40 lumens/watt
Page 3 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
d) 60 - 65 lumens/watt.
a) One Lux
b) One candela
a) 10 W
b) 40 W
c) 65 W
d) 100 W
d) GLS lamps
Different colours.
a) Bunsen photometer
b) Grease spot photometer
c) Lummer Brodhum photometer
d) Guilds Flicker Photometer
Square Law?
a) Guilds Flicker Photometer
b) Brodhum Photometer
c) Macbeth Illuminometer
d) Trotter Illumination Photometer.
a) 50 K
b) 160 K
c) 600 K
d) 6000 K
d) carbon electrodes
a) Light flux
b) Luminous intensity
c) Brightness
d) Luminous efficiency
a) Light flux
b) Luminous intensity
c) Brightness
d) Luminous efficiency
a) Argon
b) Krypton
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
26. Which bulb operates on lowest power?
a) Night bulb
b) Neon bulb
Page 5 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
c) GLS bulb
d) Torch bulb
a) size of lamp
b) size of shell
c) temperature of filament
a) no power
b) about 5 to 7 W power
c) about 15 to 1 W power
d) about 25 to 30 W power
a) 2000°K
b) 2500°K
c) 655°K
d) 3655°K
1) If the blowpipe is moved to and fro frequently while cutting the kerf will
1. not be affected
2. be less
3. of correct size
4. be more
Answer-D
2) In gas cutting, if too little cutting oxygen is supplied
1. the metal will be cooled down
2. the kerf will be narrow
3. the kert will be wide
4. the metal will fail to cut completely
Answer-D
3) The top edge is melted round and the cutface is not smooth in gas cutting. This is due to
1. extremely slow cutting speed
2. insufficient acetylene pressure
3. the tip being held too high
4. too much cutting oxygen pressure
Answer-C
4) In a gas cut plate, the cut shows groove sand has deep drag lines. This is due to
1. tip too close to the cut surface
2. too much travel speed
3. less oxygen pressure
4. smaller size cutting nozzle
Answer-A
5) In a gas cut plate, the cut is high quality although there is some surface roughness caused by
vertical drag lines.This is due to
1. too slow cutting speed
2. smaller size cutting nozzle
3. impure cutting oxygen
4. less preheating flame
Answer-A
6) The size of the cutting nozzle used in oxyacetylene cutting process depends mainly on
1. thickness of metal to be cut
2. purity of oxygen
3. duration of cut
4. type of cutting blowpipe
Answer-A
7) Which of the following types is not fillet weld
1. T-joint
2. Corner joint
3. lap joint
4. butt joint
Answer-D
8) Double-V and double-U butt welds are used for plates of thickness
1. 1 - 5 mm
2. 5 - 10 mm
3. 10 - 15 mm
4. above 15 mm
Answer-D
9) Which material is not used for making non-consumable electrodes
1. Carbon
2. Tungsten
3. Graphite
4. Sodium
Answer-D
10) Which of the following is an example of plastic welding
1. Gas welding
2. Arc welding
3. Thermit welding
4. Forge welding
Answer-D
11) Which of the following is not a type of arc welding
1. Submerged
2. Plasma
3. Air-acetylene
4. Electro-slag
Answer-C
12) Which of the following is an example of fusion welding
1. Arc welding
2. Resistance welding
3. Thermit welding with pressure
4. Forge welding
Answer-A
13) Which of the following welding process is used for welding of sheet metals in automobile and
air craft industries
1. Resistance welding
2. Thermit welding
3. Gas tungsten arc welding
4. Shield metal arc welding
Answer-A
14) In which of the following process, heat is created by blacksmith fire
1. Seam welding
2. Spot welding
3. Projection welding
4. Forge welding
Answer-D
15) Heat is created by chemical reaction in
1. Tungsten arc welding
2. Thermit welding
3. Oxy-acetylene welding
4. Resistance welding
Answer-B
Answer-A
17) Acetylene can be prepared by the chemical reaction between
1. Hydrogen and Calcium carbide
2. Water and Calcium carbonate
3. Water and Calcium carbide
4. Hydrogen and Calcium carbonate
Answer-C
18) Which flame is suitable for cutting operations
1. Oxidising flame
2. Carburising flame
3. Neutral flame
4. None of these
Answer-A
19) Which flame is suitable for welding steel
1. Oxidising flame
2. Carburising flame
3. Neutral flame
4. None of these
Answer-B
20) Which of the following is not true for gas welding
1. There are safety problems in storing and handling the gases
2. Heat effected zone and distortion are less as compare to arc welding
3. It is slower than arc welding
4. It is suitable for thin sheets
Answer-B
Penetrate is proportional to
a) Frequency
b) (Frequency)2
c) 1/(Frequency)
d) 1/(Frequency)1/2
d) Botharenegatlve
Be capable of carrying
a) High voltage, High Current
b) High voltage, low Current
c) Low Voltage, High Current
d) Low Voltage, Low Current
5. For welding pipes, Rods & wires the most suitable method ls
a) Butt Welding
b) Spot welding
c) Seam welding
d) Arc welding
a) Shunt generators
b) Series Generator
c) Dielectric heating
d) Coal-tired furnace
a) Air
b) Water
c) Glass
d) Copper
c) On dc supply only
d) On AC supply
Page 8 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
12. Which of the following elements will have the least range
Of temperature?
a) Eureka
b) Chrome
c) Silicon carbide
d) Kanthal
a) 2000°C
b) 1600°C
c) 1450 °C
d) 1150°C
a) Phase angle
b) Frequency
c) Current
d) Voltage
Page 9 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
17. The temperature inside a furnace ls usually measured
a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Brass
d) Steel
Used is
a) Arc heating
b) Resistance heating
c) Induction heating
d) Dielectric heating
23. The sun’s rays reach the earth without heating the atmosphere,
This is due to
a) Convection
b) Radiation
c) Conduction
d) None Of these
a) Self-Bath Furnaces
b) Resistance Welding
d) All of above
motors
d) Any of the above
starts on load ?
a) Conveyor motor
b) Floor mill motor
c) Fan motor
d) All of the above
Page 12 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
6. Which of the following motors ls preferred
machine is/are
a) Low efficiency
b) Low overload capacity
c) can't be used for constant operation
d) All of the above
drive are
a) High efficiency
b) Low noise
c) Constant speed
d) All of the above
drive
a) lndividual drive
b) Mu|timotor drive
c) Group Drive
d) None of the above
Speed motor.
a) Synchronous motor
b) Schrage motor
c) Induction motor
d) Universal motor
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bhopal
(c) Jaipur
(d) Chandigarh
8. The number of passenger coaches that can be attached to a
(a) 60 kmph
(b) 75 kmph
(c) 100 kmph
(d) more than 100 kmph
10. The efficiency of diesel locomotives is nearly
(a) 2o to 25 percent
(b) 30 to 40 percent
(c) 45 to 55 percent
(d) 60 to 7o percent
11. Which of the following is the disadvantage of electric traction over other
systems of traction ?
(a) Corrosion problems in the under-ground pipe work
(b) Short time power failure interrupts traffic for hours
(c) High capital outlay in fixed installations beside route limitation
(d) Interference with communication lines
(e) All of the above
12. The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are slightly
Page 19 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
(a) reduce friction
(b) increase friction
(c) facilitate braking
(d) facilitate in taking turns
13. Electric locomotives in India are manufacture
(a) Jamalpur
(b) Bangalore
(c) Chittranjan
(d) Gorakhpur
14. The steam engine provided on steam locomotion
(a) 1 to 4 kgf/cm2
(b) 5 to 8 kgf/cm2
(c) 10 to 15 kgf/cm2
(d) 25 to 35 kgf/cm2
16. Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually restricted to
(a) 2 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c)20 percent
(d) 40 percent
17. In case of locomotives the tractive power is provided by
(a) 5 to 10 percent
(b) 15 to 2o percent
(c) 25 to 35 percent
(d) 35 to 45 percent
22. The horsepower of steam locomotives is
(a) up to 1500
(b) 15oo to 2ooo
(c) 2ooo to 3ooo
(d) 3ooo to 4ooo
23. ________ locomotive has the highest operational availability
(a) Electric
(b) Diesel
(c) Steam Page 21 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
24. For diesel locomotives the range of horsepower is
(a) 50 to 200
(b) 500 to 1000
(c) 1500 to 2500
(d) 300 to 5000
25. in India diesel locomotives are manufactured at
(a) Ajmer
(b) Varanasi
(c) Bangalore
(d) Jamalpur
26. Main traction systems used in India are, those using
(a)electric locomotives
(b)diesel engine locomotives
(c)steam engine locomotives
(d)diesel electric locomotives
(e)all of the above
27. The speed of a locomotive is controlled by
(a) flywheel
(b)gear box
(c)applying brakes 11.
(d)regulating steam flow to engine
28. Long distance railways use which of the following?
(a)25KV
(b) 440KV
(c)5kV
(d) 15 kV
(e) None of the above Page 22 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
30. Which of the following is an advantage of electric traction over other methods
of traction ?
(a) Faster acceleration
(b) No pollution problems
(c) Better braking action
(d) All of the above Page 23 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
Chap 5 – Traffic & Power Factor Improvement
1. Shunt compensation in EHV line is adopted to
a. Unified
b. Unitary
c. Unique
d. None of these
Ans. a. Unified
8. Synchronous compensator is
shaft load.
a.V curve
Ib.Inverted V curve
c.Both the curves
None of these
Ans. a. V curve
13. When compared to leading power factor the armature current
is _____ .
a.Maximum
b.Infinite
c.Minimum
d. Zero
Ans. c.Minimum
14. Best suited location for power factor improvement
machines in order
a. To set up armature reaction
b. To compensate for core loss
c. To set up flux in manetic circuit
d. All of above
Ans. c. To set up flux in manetic circuit Page 26 of 26
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH
16. What is the main advantage of synchronous condensers?
a. DC machines
b. Induction machines
c. Transformers
d. Synchronous machines
Ans. b. induction machine
18. Which of the following are the power factor improve
devices?
a. Synchronous condensers
b.Resistors
c. Static capacitors
d. Both a and c
Ans. d. Both a and c
19. The main advantages of static capacitors are
a.Lower losses
b. Easy installation
c.Lower maintenance
d.All of the above
Ans. d.Alloftheabove
24. In single phase high frequency ac system power on which frequency feed
સિંગલ ફે ઝ હાઈ ફ્રિકવન્સી એસી સિસ્ટમ માં કઈ ફ્રિકવન્સી ઉપર પાવર આપવામાં આવે છે
(a) 1KHZ
(b) 2KHZ
(c) 2.5 to 3KHZ
(d) 4KHZ
Answer:
Option (c)
1. In electric iron the heating element is kept
ઇલેક્ટ્રિક ઇસ્ત્રીમાં માં હિટીંગ કોઈલ રાખવામાં આવે છે
(a) Over the pressure plate
દબાણ પ્લે ટ પર
(b) Between the asbestos sheet and pressure plate
એસ્બેસ્ટોસ શીટ અને પ્રેશર પ્લે ટ વચ્ચે
(c) Between the Sole plate and pressure plate
સોલ પ્લેટ અને પ્રેશર પ્લે ટ વચ્ચે
(d) Between the Sole plate and asbestos sheet
સોલ પ્લેટ અને એસ્બેસ્ટોસ શીટ વચ્ચે
Answer:
Option (d)
2. Which one of the following is not the cause of blowing about fuse when electric iron is switched on?
જ્યારે ઇલેક્ટ્રિક આયર્ન ચાલુ કરવામાં આવે છે ત્ત્યારે નીચેનામાંથી કોઈ એક ફ્યુઝ ઉડી જવાનું કારણ નથી
(a) Line and neutral terminal are sorted terminal plate
લાઇન અને ન્યુટ્રલ ટર્મિનલ શોર્ટ હોય ટર્મિનલ પ્લે ટથી
(b) Lead of heating element is disconnect from terminal plate
હીટિં ગ એલિમેન્ટની લીડ ડિસ્કનેક્ટ હોય ટર્મિનલ પ્લે ટથી
(c) Supply code are sorted
સપ્લાય કોડ શોર્ટ હોય
(d) Line and neutral terminal are sorted in three pin top
લાઈનઅને ન્યુટ્રલ ટર્મિનલ થ્રિ પિન ટોપમાં શોર્ટ હોય તો
Answer:
Option (b)
3. Which one of the following is not the cause when the automatic electric iron does not heat properly?
નીચેનામાંથી કોઈ એક કારણ ઓટોમેટીક ઇલે ક્ટ્રિક આયર્ન યોગ્ય રીતે ગરમ થતી નથી તે આપતું નથી
(a) Supply voltage is less
ઓછા સપ્લાય વોલ્ટે જ
(b) Setting of thermostat are not proper
થર્મોસ્ટે ટનું સેટિંગ યોગ્ય નથી
(c) Heating element is open circuited
હીટિં ગ એલિમેન્ટ ઓપન સર્કીટ
(d) Connection are loose
કનેક્શન લુસ છે
Answer:
Option (c)
24. Which part of washing machine actually perform the cleaning operation of cloth clothes?
વોશિંગ મશીન નાં જે ભાગ થી કપડાં ખરેખર સાફ થાય છે ?
(a) Agitator
એજીટે ટર
(b) Timer
ટાઈમર
(c) Drain
ડ્ રેઇન
(d) Tub
ટબ
Answer:
Option (a)
25. What is slogan of star labeling?
સ્ટાર લેબલીંગનું સૂત્ર શું છે
(a) More power saving
મોર પાવર સેવિગ
ં
(b) Bijali Bachao
બિજલી બચાવો
(c) More star more saving
મોર સ્ટાર મોર સેવિગ
ં
(d) None
એક પણ નહી
Answer:
Option (c)
26. In star labeling Energy consumption units Display per
સ્ટાર લેબલીંગમાં દર્શાવેલ ઊર્જા નો વપરાશ_____હોય છે
(a) Year
વાર્ષિક
(b) Month
મહિના નો
(c) Hour
કલાક નો
(d) Daily
દરરોજ નો
Answer:
Option (a)