Ats 6

PHYSICS
1 Two identical solid copper spheres of radius R placed 1 R

in contact with each other. The gravitational attrac-
tion between them is proportional to -
(1) R2 (2) R–2 (1) R2 (2) R–2
(3) R4 (4) R–4 (3) R4 (4) R–4
2 An object is placed at a distance of R/2 from the 2 R/2
centre of earth. Knowing mass is distributed
uniformly, acceleration of that object due to (g =
gravity at that point is: (g = acceleration due to R )
gravity on the surface of earth and R is the
radius of earth)
(1) g (2) 2 g (1) g (2) 2 g
(3) g/2 (4) none of these (3) g/2 (4) none of these
3 A body of mass m is taken to the bottom of a deep
mine. Then -
(1) Its mass increases
(2) Its mass decreases
(3) Its weight increases
(4) Its weight decreases
4. The change in potential energy, when a body of mass 4. m nR

m is raised to a height nR from the earths surface is (R= )
(R = Radius of earth).
n n
(1) mgR (2) nmgR (1) mgR (2) nmgR
n 1 n 1
n2 n n2 n
(3) mgR 2
(4) mgR (3) mgR (4) mgR
n 1 n 1 2
n 1 n1
5. Escape velocity on a planet is ve. If radius of the planet 5. ve
remains same and mass becomes 4 times, the escape 4 -
velocity becomes -
(1) 4ve (2) 2ve (1) 4ve (2) 2ve
1 1
(3) ve (4) v (3) ve (4) v
2 e 2 e
TARGET (NEET) (24-07-2021) (ATS - 06 : ELECTROSTATICS + GRAVITATION, ELECTRO CHEMISTRY + CHEMICAL KINETICS, ORGAN-
ISMS & POPULATION +ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES, BODY FLUIS & CIRCULATION
2
AAYAAM CAREER ACADEMY : PIPRALI ROAD, SIKAR, Ph. 7300335555, 01572-249955
6. In a binary star system one star has thrice the mass 6.
of other. The stars rotate about their common centre :
of mass then :
(1) Both stars have same angular momentum about (1) )
common centre of mass.
(2) Both stars have angular momentum of same mag- (2) )
nitude about common centre of mass.
(3) Both stars have same angular speeds. (3)
(4) Both stars have same linear speeds. (4)
7. A satellite revolves around the earth in an elliptical 7.
orbit. Its speed. :
(1) Is the same at all points in the orbit (1)
(2) Is greatest when it is closest to the earth (2)
(3) Is greatest when it is farthest from the earth (3)

(4) Goes on increasing or decreasing continuously (4)
depending upon the mass of the satellite
8. For a satellite escape velocity is 11 km/s. If the satel- 8. 11 km/s.
lite is launched at an angle of 60º with the vertical, 60º -
then escape velocity will be -
(1) 11 km/s (2) 11 3 km/s (1) 11 km/s (2) 11 3 km/s

11 11
(3) km/s (4) 33 km/s (3) km/s (4) 33 km/s
3 3
9. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from 9. r1 r2

the sun are r1 and r2, its distance from the sun when it
is at the perpendicular to the major axis of the orbit
drawn from the sun.
r1  r2 r1 r2 r1  r2 r1 r2
(1) (2) r  r (1) (2) r  r
4 1 2 4 1 2
2r1 r2 r1  r2 2r1 r2 r1  r2
(3) r  r (4) (3) r  r (4)
1 2 3 1 2 3
3
10. A planet is moving in an elliptic orbit. If T, V, E, L 10.
stand respectivley for its kinetic energy, gravitational T, V, E, L
potential energy, total energy and magnitude of an-
gular momentum about the centre of force, which of
the following statements is correct
(1) T is conserved (1) T
(2) V is always positive (2) V
(3) E is always negative (3) E

(4) L is conserved but the direction of vector L (4) L
changes continuously
11. A satellite is moving round the earth. In order to make 11.
it move to infinity, its velocity must be increased by
(1) 20% (1) 20%
(2) it is impossible to do so (2)
(3) 82.8% (3) 82.8%
(4) 41.4% (4) 41.4%
12. The relay satellite transmits the television programme 12.
continuously from one part of the world to another
because its
(1) period is greater than the period of rotation of the (1)
earth
(2) period is less than the period of rotation of the (2)
earth about its axis
(3) period has no relation with the period of the earth (3)
about its axis
(4) period is equal to the period of rotation of the (4)
earth about its axis
13. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around 13. S, (elliptical)
the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small
compared to the mass of the earth :
(1) The acceleration of S is always directed towards (1) S
the centre of the earth
(2) The angular momentum of S about the centre of (2) S
the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude
remains constant
4
(3) The total mechanical energy of S varies (3) S
periodically with time
(4) The linear momentum of S remains constant in (4) S
magnitude.
14. The earth is revolving round the sun in an elliptical 14.
OA OA
orbit. If  x, (where O represent position of sun)  x, o
OB OB
the ratio of speeds of earth at B and A will be ) B A
(1) x (2) x (1) x (2) x

(3) x 2
(4) x x (3) x2 (4) x x
15. A double star system consists of two stars A and B 15. A B
which have time period TA and TB. Radius RA and RB TA TB RA RB
and mass MA and MB. Choose the correct option. MA MB
(1) If TA > TB then RA > RB (1) If TA > TB then RA > RB
(2) If TA > TB then MA > MB (2) If TA > TB then MA > MB
2 3 2 3
 TA  R   TA  R 
(3)     A  (3)     A 
 TB   RB   TB   RB 
(4) TA = TB (4) TA = TB
16 Two identical metallic sphere are charged with 10 16 10 –20
and -20 units of charge. If both the spheres are first
brought into contact with each other and then are
placed to their previous positions, then the ratio of :-
the force in the two situations will be :-
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (1) 8 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
5
17 A negative charge is placed at some point on the line 17 +Q
joining the two +Q charges at rest. The direction of
motion of negative charge will depend upon the : :–
(1) position of negative charge alone (1)
(2) magnitude of negative charge alone (2)
(3) both on the magnitude and position of negative (3)
charge
(4) magnitude of positive charge. (4)
18 Two point charges placed at a distance r in air exert 18 r
a force F on each other. The value of distance R at F R
which they experience force 4F when placed in a 4F K = 16
medium of dielectric constant K = 16 is : :
(1) r (2) r/4 (1) r (2) r/4
(3) r/8 (4) 2r (3) r/8 (4) 2r
19 Two infinite linear charges are placed parallel at 0.1 19 0.1
m apart. If each has charge density of 5 C/m, then 5
the force per unit length of one of linear charges in
N/m is : :
(1) 2.5 (2) 3.25 (1) 2.5 (2) 3.25
(3) 4.5 (4) 7.5 (3) 4.5 (4) 7.5
20 A simple pendulum has a length , mass of bob 20  m
m. The bob is given a charge q coulomb. The pen- q
dulum is suspended in a uniform horizontal elec- E
tric field of strength E as shown in figure, then
calculate the time period of oscillation when the
bob is slightly displace from its mean position is
6
   
 2
    2
  
(1) 2 g (2) 
 g  qE


(1) 2
g (2) 
 g  qE


 m   m 
     
  
2   
2
2 2
2    qE  2    qE 
(3)  g  qE 
(4) g2    (3)  g  qE 
(4) g2   
 m  m  m  m 
21 An object is charged with positive charge. The 21

potential at that object will be - -
(1) positive only (1)
(2) negative only (2)
(3) zero always (3)
(4) may be positive, negative or zero. (4)
22 64 charged drops coalesce to from a bigger charged 22 64
drop. The potential of bigger drop will be times that
of smaller drop - -
(1) 4 (2) 16 (1) 4 (2) 16
(3) 64 (4) 8 (3) 64 (4) 8
23 Figure represents a square carrying charges 23 +q, +q, –q,
+q, +q, –q, –q at its four corners as shown. –q
Then the potential will be zero at points
(1) A, B, C, P and Q (1) A, B, C, P Q

(2) A, B and C (2) A, B C
(3) A, P, C and Q (3) A, P, C Q
(4) P, B and Q (4) P, B Q
7
24 Two equal positive charges are kept at points A 24 A B
and B. The electric potential at the points between A B ) A B
A and B (excluding these points) is studied while
moving from A to B. The potential
(1) continuously increases (1)
(2) continuosly decreases (2)
(3) increases then decreases (3)
(4) decreases than increases (4)
25 In the electric field of charge Q, another charge is 25 Q A B,
carried from A to B. A C, A D A E
A to C, A to D and A to E, then work done will be -
(1) minimum along path AB. (1) AB

(2) minimum along path AD. (2) AD
(3) minimum along path AE. (3) AE
(4) zero along all the paths. (4)
26 A family of equipotential surfaces are shown. 26
The direction of the electric field at point A is along A
(1) AB (1) AB
(2) AC (2) AC
(3) AD (3) AD
(4) AF (4) AF
8
27 The electric field in a region is directed outward 27
and is proportional to the distance r from the ori- r r
gin. Taking the electric potential at the origin to
be zero, the electric potential at a distance r :
(1) is uniform in the region (1)
(2) is proportional to r (2) r
(3) is proportional to r 2 (3) r2
(4) increases as one goes away from the origin. (4)
28 An electric dipole is made up of two equal and 28 3 2 x 10–6
opposite charges of 2 x 10–6 coulomb at a distance
of 3 cm. This is kept in an electric field of 2 x 105 2 x 105 N/C
N/C, then the maximum torque acting on the dipole -
(1) 12 x 10–1 Nm (2) 12 x 10–3 Nm (1) 12 x 10–1 Nm (2) 12 x 10–3 Nm
(3) 24 x 10–3 Nm (4) 24 x 10–1 Nm (3) 24 x 10–3 Nm (4) 24 x 10–1 Nm
29 Eight charges, 1C,. -7C, -4C, 10C, 2C, -5C, 29 , 1C,. -7C, -4C, 10C, 2C, -
-3C and 6C are situated at the eight corners of a 5C, -3C 6C 20
cube of side 20 cm. A spherical surface of radius 80 80
cm encloses this cube. The centre of the sphere coin-
cides with the centre of the cube. Then the total out-
going flux from the spherical surface (in unit of volt
meter) is-
(1) 36 x 103 (2) 684 x 103 (1) 36 x 103 (2) 684 x 103
(3) zero (4) none of the above (3) (4)
30 The fig. shows lines of constant potential in a region 30
in which an electric field is present. The value of the
potential are written in brackets of the points A, B
and C, the magnitude of the electric field is greatest A, B C
at the point -
(1) A (2) B (1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) A & C (3) C (4) A & C
9
31 The amount of work done in Joules in carrying a 31 +q
charge +q along the closed path PQRSP between PQRSP (
the oppositely charged metal plates is (where E is E )
electric field between the plates)
(1) zero (2) q (1) zero (2) q

(3) qE (PQ + QR + SR + SP) (4) q /  0 (3) qE (PQ + QR + SR + SP) (4) q /  0
32. Five balls, numbered 1 to 5, are suspended using 32. 1 5
separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4), (4, 1) show (1, 2), (2, 4),
electrostatic attraction, while pairs (2, 3) and (4, (4, 1) (2, 3) (4, 5)
5) show repulsion. Therefore ball 1 : 1:
(1) Must be positively charged (1)
(2) Must be negatively charged (2)
(3) May be neutral (3)
(4) Must be made of metal (4)
33. A charge ' q ' is placed at the centre of a conducting 33. 'q' R
spherical shell of radius R, which is given a charge Q q R
Q. An external charge Q is also present at distance (R > R) Q' r<R
R (R > R) from ' q '. Then the resultant field will
be best represented for region r < R by: [ r, q ]
[ where r is the distance of the point from q ]
10
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
34. A positive point charge Q is kept (as shown in the 34. Q

figure) inside a neutral conducting shell whose ( ) C,
centre is at C. An external uniform E
electric field E is applied. Then :
(1) Force on Q due to E is zero (1) E Q

(2) Net force on Q is zero (2) Q
(3) Net force acting on Q and conducting shell (3) Q
considered as a system is zero
(4) Net force acting on the shell due to E is zero. (4) E
35. The linear charge density on upper half of a seg- 35. 
ment of ring is  and at lower half, it is –  . The – O
direction of electric field at centre O of ring is : :
(1) along OA (2) along OB (1) OA (2) OB

(3) along OC (4) along OD (3) OC (4) OD
11
36. A total charge of 20 C is divided into two parts 36. 20 C
and placed at some distance apart. If the charges
experience maximum coulombian repulsion, the
charges should be :
(1) 5 C , 15 C (2) 10 C , 10 C (1) 5 C , 15 C (2) 10 C , 10 C
40 20 40 20
(3) 12 C , 8 C (4) C, C (3) 12 C , 8 C (4) C, C
3 3 3 3
37. The net charge given to an isolated conducting 37.
solid sphere:
(1) must be distributed uniformly on the surface (1)
(2) may be distributed uniformly on the surface (2)
(3) must be distributed uniformly in the volume (3)
(4) may be distributed uniformly in the volume. (4)
38. The given figure gives electric lines of force due 38. q1 q2
to two charges q1 and q2. What are the signs of the ?
two charges?
(1) Both are negative (2) Both are positive (1) (2)
(3) q1 is positive but q 2 is negative (3) q 1 q2
(4) q1 is negative but q 2 is positive (4) q 2 q1
39. For an infinite line of charge having charge density 39. x
 lying along x-axis, the work required in moving  CA q C A
charge q from C to A along arc CA is : :
q q q q
(1)  loge 2 (2) 4 loge 2 (1)  0 loge 2 (2) 4 0 loge 2
0 0
q q 1 q q 1
(3) 4  loge 2 (4) 2 loge (3) 4 0 loge 2 (4) 2 loge
0 0 2 0 2
12
40. A dipole having dipole moment p is placed in front 40. p)
of a solid uncharged conducting sphere as shown in
the diagram. The net potential at point A lying on A :
the surface of the sphere is :
kp cos  k p cos 2  kp cos  k p cos 2 

(1) 2 (2) 2 (1) (2)
r r r2 r2
2kp cos 2  2kp cos 2 
(3) zero (4) (3) zero (4)
r2 r2
41. Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long 41. 1
straight wire of radius 1 mm. The charge per cm 1
length of the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical Q 50
surface of radius 50 cm and length 1m symmetri- 1
cally encloses the wire as shown in fig . The total
electric flux passing through the cylindrical surface
is -
Q 100 Q
(1) (2) Q 100 Q
0 0 (1)  (2) 0
0
10 Q 100 Q 10 Q 100 Q
(3) (  ) (4) (  ) (3) (  ) (4) (  )
0 0
0 0
13
42. Electric potential at any point is V = –5x + 3y + 42. V = –5x + 3y + 15 z
15z , then the magnitude of the electric field is -
(1) 3 2 (2) 4 2 (1) 3 2 (2) 4 2
(3) 5 2 (4) 7 (3) 5 2 (4) 7
43. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed 43. 1
surface respectively is 1 and 2, the electric charge 2
inside the surface will be
(1) (2 – 1) 0 (1) (2 – 1) 0

(2) (1 + 2)/0 (2) (1 + 2)/0
(3) (2 – 1)/ 0 (3) (2 – 1)/ 0
(4) (1 + 2) 0 (4) (1 + 2) 0
44. Six charges q,q,q, – q, –q and –q are to be arranged 44. q,q,q, – q, –q –q
on the vertices of a regular hexagon PQRSTU such PQRSTU
that the electric field at centre is double the field R ‘q’
produced when only charge ‘q’ is placed at vertex P U
R. The sequence of the charges from P to U is
(1) q, –q, q, q, –q, –q (1) q, –q, q, q, –q, –q

(2) q, q, q, –q, –q, –q (2) q, q, q, –q, –q, –q
(3) –q, q, q, –q, –q, q (3) –q, q, q, –q, –q, q
(4) –q, q, q, q, –q, –q (4) –q, q, q, q, –q, –q
14
45. Three large parallel plates have uniform surface 45.
charge densities as shown in the figure. Find out P
electric field intensity at point P.
4 4
(1) – k̂ (2) k̂ 4 4
0 0 (1) – k̂ (2) k̂
0 0
2 2
(3) – k̂ (4) k̂ 2 2
0 0 (3) – k̂ (4) k̂
0 0
15
CHEMISTRY
46. The ratio of t0.75 and t0.5 for first order reaction is :- t0.75 t0.5
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
47. For the First order reaction, the half life is 47. [A]
5 minutes when [A] = 0.1M. If the concen = 0.1M A
tration of [A] becomes twice then half life
becomes :-
(1) half (2) double (1) (2)
(3) remains same (4) 10 minutes (3) (4)
48. For the reaction 2P + Q  R. If the rate of 48. 2P + Q  R R 0.5
appearance of R is 0.5 mol/L-hour then the rate P
of disappearance of P and Q are :-
(1) equal (1)
(2) 0.5 mol/L-hour (2) 0.5
(3) 1 mol/L-hour and 0.5 mol/L-hour (3) 1 0.5
(4) 1.5 mol/L-hour (4) 1.5
49. For a certain reaction the expression for half life is 49.
1 1
t t
a n 1 a n 1
then the order of reaction is :-

(1) n–1 (2) n + 1 (1) n–1 (2) n + 1
(3) n (4) n – 2 (3) n (4) n – 2
50. In a first order reaction concentration of reactant 50.
decreased from 0.4 M to 0.1 M in 20 minutes then 0.4 M 0.1 M
rate constant of reaction will be:-
(1) 0.693 min–1 (2) 6.93 min–1 (1) 0.693 min–1 (2) 6.93 min–1
(3) 0.0693 min–1 (4) 69.3 min–1 (3) 0.0693 min–1 (4) 69.3 min–1
51. The degree of dissociation of first order reaction 51
is :
(1) e–kt (2) ae–kt (1) e–kt (2) ae–kt
(3) 1 – e+kt (4) 1 – e–kt (3) 1 – e+kt (4) 1 – e–kt
16
52. E° values of Mg2+/Mg, Zn2+/Zn and Fe2+/Fe are 52. Mg2+/Mg, Zn2+/Zn Fe2+/Fe E° –
–2.37V, –0.76V and –0.44V respectively. 2.37V, –0.76V
Which of the following statements is correct :-
(1) Zn will reduce Fe2+ (1)Zn Fe2+
(2) Zn will reduce Mg2+ (2)Zn Mg2 +
(3) Mg oxidises Fe (3)Mg Fe
(4) Zn oxidises Fe (4)Zn Fe
53. Four alkali metals A, B, C & D have standard 53 A, B, C D
electrode potentials –3.05, –1.66, –0.40 & 0.80 V –3.05, –1.66, –0.40 0.80 V
respectively. Which metal will be the most reac
tive:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
54. Consider the cell given below : 54.
2+
Ag(s) / Ag || Cu /Cu(s)

Ag(s) / Ag  || Cu2+/Cu(s)
Ag + e   Ag ; E° = x Ag  + e  Ag ; E° = x
Cu2+ + 2e–  Cu ; E° = y Cu2+ + 2e–  Cu ; E° = y
E°Cell is :- E°Cell is
(1) x + 2y (2) 2x + y (3) y – x (4) y – 2x (1) x + 2y (2) 2x + y (3) y – x (4) y – 2x
55. If the specific conductance of 1M H2SO4 solution 55. 1M H2SO4
–2 –1
is 26 × 10 S cm , then the equivalent conduc 26 × 10–2 S cm–1
tivity would be :-
(1) 1.3 × 102 S cm2 eq–1 (1) 1.3 × 102 S cm2 eq–1
(2) 1.6 × 102 S cm2 eq–1 (2) 1.6 × 102 S cm2 eq–1
(3) 13 S cm2 mol–1 (3) 13 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 1.3 × 103 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 1.3 × 103 S cm2 mol–1
56. On electricity flow the concentration of anode 56.
solution in galvanic cell–
(1) increases (2) decreases (1) (2)
(3) Remains constant (4) None of these (3) (4)
57. When an aqueous solution of sodium chloride 57
is electrolysed using platinum electrodes, the ions
discharged at electrodes are
(1) Na  , H  (2) Na  ,Cl (1) Na  , H  (2) Na  ,Cl
(3) H  , Cl (4) OH  ,Cl  (3) H  ,Cl (4) OH  ,Cl
17
58. The highest electrical conductivity from the 58
following aqueous solutions will be of :
(1) 0.1 M acetic acid 0.1 M
(2) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid 0.1 M
(3) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid 0.1 M
(4) 0.1 M difluroacetic acid 0.1 M
59.  m of BaCl2, H2SO4 and HCl(aq) solutions are x1, 59. BaCl2, H2SO4 HCl(aq)  m
x2 and x3 respectively then  m (BaSO4) will be : x1, x2 x3  m (BaSO4)

(1) x1 + x2 – x3 (1) x1 + x2 – x3
(2) x1 – x2 – x3 (2) x1 – x2 – x3
(3) x1 + x2 – 2x3 (3) x1 + x2 – 2x3
(4) x1 – 2x2 + x3 (4) x1 – 2x2 + x3
60. If pH is 10 for the used solution then potential of 60. pH
hydrogen electrode will be :- :-
(1) – 0.059 V (2) –0.0295 V (1) – 0.059 V (2) –0.0295 V
(3) –0.591 V (4) –0.0296 V (3) –0.591 V (4) –0.0296 V
61. How much electricity in terms of Faraday is 61. KMnO4 MnO2
required for reduction of 1 mole of KMnO4 to ?
MnO2 ?
(1) 1 F (2) 3 F (3) 5 F (4) 7 F (1) 1 F (2) 3 F (3) 5 F (4) 7 F
62. Which of the following relation is correct ? 62. ?
E.i.t 1 W 2 W E.i.t 1 W 2 W
(1) W = (2) E  E (1) W = (2) E  E
96500 1 2 96500 1 2
(3) If q = 1, then W = Z (4) All of these (3) If q = 1, then W = Z

63. For the same charge passed, deposited mole ratio 63. Ag, Cu Al
of Ag, Cu and Al is :- :-
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 3 (1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
1 1 1 1
(3) 1: : (4) 3 : 2 : 1 (3) 1: : (4) 3 : 2 : 1
2 3 2 3
64. Weight of Ag obtained when 1 ampere current is 64. Ag+
passed for 100 second in Ag+ ion solution :- Ag :-
(1) 0.11 g (2) 1.08 g (1) 0.11 g (2) 1.08 g
(3) 10 g (4) 0.05 g (3) 10 g (4) 0.05 g
18
Ag | Ag  || Ag  | Ag Ag | Ag  || Ag  | Ag
65. 65.
1.0M 1.0M 1.0M 1.0M
For this cell which of the following is correct :

(1) E°cell = 0 (2) G °cell = 0 (1) E°cell = 0 (2) G °cell = 0
(3) Ecell = 0 (4) All of the above (3) Ecell = 0
66. For a reaction - A(s) + 2B+  A2+ + 2B(s) 66. A(s) + 2B+  A2+ + 2B(s)
KC has been found to be 106. The E ocell is: K E ocell
(1) 0.177 V (2) 0.708 V (1) 0.177 V (2) 0.708 V
(3) 0.0098 V (4) 1.36 V (3) 0.0098 V (4) 1.36 V
67. The following four colourless salt solutions are 67.
placed in separate test tubes and a strip of Cu is Cu
placed in each solution which finally turns blue :–
(1) Zn(NO3)2 (2) Mg(NO3)2 (1) Zn(NO3)2 (2) Mg(NO3)2
(3) KNO3 (4) Hg(NO3)2 (3) KNO3 (4) Hg(NO3)2
68. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, 68.
the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine 0.10
gas using a current of 2 amperes, is
(1) 48250 sec (2) 96500 sec (1) 48250 sec (2) 96500 sec
(3) 4825 sec (4) 9650 sec (3) 4825 sec (4) 9650 sec
69. The resistance of 0.1 N solution of formic acid is 69. 0.1 N ohm
200 ohm and cell constant is 2.0 cm–1. The 2.0 cm–1 0.1 N
equivalent conductivity (in S cm2eq–1) of 0.1 N (S cm2eq–1) :-
formic acid solution is :-
(1) 100 (2) 10 (1) 100 (2) 10
(3) 1 (4) None of these (3) 1
70. In an electrochemical cell following reaction 70.
occurs than predict which changes will decrease
the cell potential :
Fe2+(aq) + Ag+(aq)  Ag(s) + Fe3+(aq) Fe2+(aq) + Ag+(aq)  Ag(s) + Fe3+(aq)
(I) Decrease the [Ag+] (I) [Ag+]
(II) Increase in [Fe3+] (II) [Fe3+]
(III) Increase in amount of Ag (III) Ag
(1) I (2) II and III (3) II (4) I and II (1) I (2) II and III (3) II (4) I and II
19
71. Based on the cell representation for a spontaneous 71.
reaction, at the anode :
Ag(s)|AgCl(s)| cl (aq)|| Br  (aq)| Br2 () |C(s) Ag(s)|AgCl(s)| cl (aq)|| Br  (aq)| Br2 () |C(s)
(1) AgCl becomes reduced (1) AgCl

(2) Ag becomes oxidized (2) Ag
(3) Br  becomes oxidized (3) Br 
(4) Br2 becomes reduced (4) Br2
72. Eº for Cl2(g) + 2e–  2Cl–(aq) is 1.36 V; Eº for 72. Cl2(g) + 2e–  2Cl–(aq) Eº 1.36 V
Cl–(g)  1/2Cl2(g) + e– is : Cl–(g)  1/2Cl2(g) + e– Eº :
(1) 1.36 V (2) –1.36 V (1) 1.36 V (2) –1.36 V
(3) –0.68 V (4) 0.68 V (3) –0.68 V (4) 0.68 V
73. If EoNi 2 / Ni  0.25V,E o Au3 / Au  1.50V are then 73. EoNi 2 / Ni  0.25V,E o Au3 / Au  1.50V
theemf of voltaic cell

Ni | Ni+2(1M) || Au+3(1M) | Au is :- Ni | Ni+2(1M) || Au+3(1M) | Au is :-
(1) 1.25 V (2) –1.75 V (1) 1.25 V (2) –1.75 V
(3) 1.75 V (4) 4V (3) 1.75 V (4) 4V
74. When one faraday of electricity is passed, the mass 74.
deposited is equal to :- :-
(1) one gram equivalent (1)
(2) one gram mole (2)
(3) electrochemical equivalent (3)
(4)Half gram equivalent (4)
75. For the reaction, 2N2O5(g)  4 NO2(g) + O2(g) , 75. 2N2O5(g)  4 NO2(g) + O2(g) O2
the rate of formation of O2 is 0.032g hour–1, then 0.032g hour–1 N2O5
rate of conversion of N2O5 in g hour–1 is :- g hour–1 :-
(1) 0.216 (2) 0.098 (1) 0.216 (2) 0.098
(3) 0.627 (4) 0.313 (3) 0.627 (4) 0.313
76. For a reaction for which the activation energies of 76. 49.
the forward and reverse directions are equal in
value: (1)
(1) the stoichiometry is the mechanism (2) H = 0
(2) H = 0 (3) S = 0
(3) S = 0 (4)
(4) the order is zero.
20
77. The mechanism of the reaction 2NO 2 + F2  2NO 2 F 77. 2NO 2 + F2  2NO 2 F
is :-
slow slow
(i) NO2   NO + O (i) NO2   NO + O
fast fast
(ii) F2 + O + NO  NO2F + F (ii) F2 + O + NO  NO2F + F
fast fast
(iii) F + NO2  NO2F.. (iii) F + NO2  NO2F
Select the correct one
(1) the reaction is of 3rd order
(2) the molecularity of the reaction is sum of
molecularities of all steps
(3) reaction is zero order w.r.t. F2 F2
(4) half life of reaction depends upon initial NO2
concentration of NO2.
78. At 300 K the half-life of a sample of a gaseous 78. atm
compound intially at 1 atm is 100 s. When the
pressure is 0.5 atm the half-life is 50 s. The order
of reaction of compound is :- :-
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
79. The rate of reaction is expressed in different ways 79.
as follows :
1 d[C] d[D] 1 d[A] d[B] 1 d[C] d[D] 1 d[A] d[B]
       
2 dt dt 4 dt dt 2 dt dt 4 dt dt
The reaction is :
(1) 4A + B  2C + 3D (2) B + 3D  4A + 2C (1) 4A + B  2C + 3D (2) B + 3D  4A + 2C
(3) A + B  C+D (4) B + D  A+ C (3) A + B  C+D (4) B + D  A+ C
80. For the reaction 2A  B + 3C ; if 80. 2A  B + 3C
d[A] d[B] d[C]

  K1[A]2 ;  K 2 [A]2 ; K 3[A]3 the 
d[A]
 K1[A]2 ;
d[B]
 K 2 [A]2 ;
d[C]
K 3[A]3
dt dt dt dt dt dt
correct relation between k1, k2 and k3 is : k1, k2 k3
(1) k1 = k2 = k3 (2) 2k1 = k2 = 3k2 (1) k1 = k2 = k3 (2) 2k1 = k2 = 3k2
k1 k k1 k
(3) 4k1 = k2 = 3k2 (4)  k2  3  k2  3
2 3 (3) 4k1 = k2 = 3k2 (4)
2 3
21
81. For A(g) + B(g)  C(g) ; rate = k[A]1/2[B]2, if 81. A(g) + B(g)  C(g) = k[A]1/2[B]2
initial concentration of A and B are increased by A B
factors 4 and 2 respectively, then the initial rate is
changed by the factor :
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) None of these
82. The reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2(g) is of 82. 2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2(g)
first order. If volume of reaction vessel is reduced 1/3
to 1/3, the rate of reaction would be :
(1) 1/3 times (2) 2/3 times 1/3 2/3
(3) 3 times (4) 6 times
83. A first order reaction is 75% completed in 83 75%
100 minutes. How long time will it take for it’s 87.5%
87.5% completion ?
(1) 125 min (2) 150 min (1) 125 min (2) 150 min
(3) 175 min (4) 200 min (3) 175 min (4) 200 min
84. Rate constant for a chemical reaction takes place 84. K=
–1000 –1000
at 500 K is expressed as K = A. e . The A. e
activation energy of the reaction is :
(1) 100 cal/mol (2) 1000 kcal/mol
(3) 104 kcal/mol (4) 106 kcal/mol
85. Which of the following represents the expression 85.
3 3
for 4 th life of first order reaction ? 4
k 2.303 k 2.303
(1) log 4 / 3 (2) log 4 / 3 (1) log 4 / 3 (2) log 4 / 3
2.303 k 2.303 k
2.303 2.303 2.303 2.303
(3) log 4 (4) log 3 (3) log 4 (4) log 3
k k k k
86. The minimum energy for molecules required to 86.

give effective collision is called :
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Potential energy
(3) Threshold energy (4) Activation energy
22
87. For a hypothetical reaction A + B products, the 87. A + B  ,
rate law is, r = k [B] [A]º, the order of reaction is - r = k [B] [A]º, –
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
88. For a certain gaseous reaction rise of temperature 88. 25° C 35° C
from 25° C to 35° C doubles the rate of reaction.
What is the value of activation energy :–
10 10
(1) 2.303R  298  308 (1) 2.303R  298  308
2.303  10 2.303 10

(2) (2)
298  308R 298  308R
0.693R 10 0.693R  10
(3) 290  308R (3) 290  308R
0.693R  298  308 0.693R  298  308

(4) 10
(4) 10
89. For a reaction 89.
6H+ + 5Br- + BrO3-  3Br2 + 6H2O 6H+ + 5Br- + BrO3-  3Br2 + 6H2O
- –1 –1 -
If rate of consumption of BrO3 is x mol L s BrO3 x L–1s–1
then calculate rate of formation of Br2 :- Br2 :-
X 2X X X 2X X
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3X (1) (2) (3) (4) 3X
3 3 4 3 3 4
90. Arrhenius equation may not be written as :– 90. :–
Ea Ea
(1) K  Ae  RT (1) K  Ae  RT
E E
(2) nk  nA  2.303RT
a
(2) nk  nA  2.303RT
a
Ea Ea
(3) log k  log A  (3) log k  log A 
2.303RT 2.303RT
d E d E
(4) dT (nk)  RTa 2 (4) dT (nk)  RTa 2
23
BIOLOGY
BOTANY BOTANY
91. Autecology means the study of- 91.
(1) Effect of temperature on vegetation (1)
(2) Effect of soil on vegetation (2)
(3) Ecology of individual organism (3)
(4) Effect of precipitation on vegetation (4)
92. The transitional zone where two different communities 92.
meet is called-
(1) Niche (2) Ecotone (1) (2)
(3) Ecad (4) Ecotype (3) (4)
93. What ecological factors are most strong determinants 93.
of various biomes-
(1) Soil and wind (1)
(2) Light and wind (2)
(3) Temperature and precipitation (3)
(4) pH and humidity (4) pH
94. A soil is said to be fertile when- 94.
(1) It is rich in organic matter (1)
(2) It has capacity to hold water (2)

(3)
(3) It has a capacity to hold nutrients
(4)
(4) It holds water & all essential nutrients in a definite
proportion
95.
95. The natural process by which different groups or
communities colonize the same area over a period of
time in definite sequence is called –
(1) (2)
(1) Succession (2) Adaptation
(3) (4)
(3) Biological rhythm (4) Variation
96.
96. Complete the following equation by putting one of the
Birth + ...... = Death + ..........
following option respectively. For constant size
population : Birth + ...... = Death + ..........
(1)
(1) emigration, immigration
(2)
(2) immigration, emigration
(3)
(3) emigration, population density
(4)
(4) immigration, population density
24
97. Which of the following statement is correct? 97.
(1) Two species within given community can have (1)
exactly the same niche.
(2) Two species within given community cannot have (2)
exactly the same niche
(3) Two species can live permanently together (3)
(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) (2) (3)
98. The carrying capacity of a population mean – 98.
(1) The rate at which the density of individual increase (1)
over time
(2) The maximum number of individual which can be (2)
supported in a given environment
(3) The proportion of individual which are most (3)
responsible for population growth
(4) The minimum number of individual necessary to (4)
avoid extinction
99. The traditional concept of succession includes the idea 99.
of an equilibrium states called a climax community.
Ecologist now think that there may be no such thing as
climax community because
(1) Disturbance is on going in ecosystem (1)
(2) All organism eventually die (2)
(3) Species diversity generally increases (3)
(4) Each succession is different from other (4)
100. An area was cleared for road. Road was not constructed 100.
and the land was left to overgrow. The process by which
the vegetation reestablished is called
(1) Primary succession (2) Secondary succession
(3) Tertiary succession (4) Regenerative (1) (2)
succession (3) (4)
101. In a hydrosere the submerged stage is followed by 101. (Submerged stage)
(1) Phytoplenktons (2) Reed swamp (1) (2)

(3) Sedges (4) Flating plant (3) (4)
25
102. Mimicry is a device for 102.
(1) Concealing from predator (1)
(2) Concealing from prey (2)
(3) Both 1 & 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Becoming conspicuous (4)
103. Competition for food, light and space is most severe 103.
in -
(1) Closely related species growing in the same area (1)
(in the same niche)
(2) Closely related species growing in different habitat (2)
(3) Distantly related species growing in the same (3)
habitat
(4) Distantly related species growing in different (4)
habitat
dN FG
K–N IJ
104. In the equation for S-shaped population growth 104. S-
dt
 rN
H
K K
dN K–NFG IJ r
dt
 rN
K H K
, r represents
(1) Carrying capacity (1)

(2) Environmenal resistance (2)
(3) Biotic potential (3)
(4) Population size (4)
105. Which is not true J-shaped growth curve? 105. J-
(1) Exponential phase is prolonged (1)
(2) Population never grows beyond carrying capacity (2)
(3) Population crash occur (3)
(4) Population seldom reaches equilibrium (4)
106. Which statement is not related to S-shaped populations 106. S-
curve?
(1) Environmental resistance suddenly become (1)
effective
(2) Exponential phase is followed by decline phase (2)
(3) Mass mortality and population crash occurs (3)
(4) Both 1 & 3 (4) 1 3
26
107. The interaction between two living organism of 107.
different species which is beneficial to both but is not
obligatory because they can live without each other is
known as
(1) Proto-cooperation (1)
(2) Mutualism or symbiosis (2)
(3) Commensalism (3)
(4) Amensalism (4)
108. Find the odd one out 108.
(1) Lianas in tropical rain forest (1)
(2) E.coil in large intestine of man (2)
(3) Pilot fish remora and shark (3)
(4) Rafflesia on roots of forest tree (4)
109. 'Edge effect' refers to 109.
(1) Occurrence of ecophenes and ecotypes in a (1)
community
(2) Low diversity of organisms in ecotone (2)
(3) High diversity of organisms in ecotone (3)
(4) Defence of territories by organisms (4)
110. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is 110.
called as -
(1) Biotic potential (2) Fertility (1) (2)
(3) Carring capacity (4) Birth rate (3) (4)
111. Two different species can not live for long duration in 111. /
the same niche or habitat. This law is –
(1) Allen's law (1)
(2) Gause's law (2)
(3) Competitive exclusion principal (3)
(4) Weiseman's theory (4)
112. What is a keystone species ? 112.
(1) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet (1)
has fairly low impact on the community's organization
(2) A rare species that has minimal impact on the (2)
biomass and on other species in the community
27
(3) A dominant species that constitutes a large (3)
proportion of the biomass and which effects many
othter species
(4) A species which makes up only a small proportion (4)
of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge
impact on the community's organization and survival
113. Which of the following is not true for a species ? 113.
(1) Members of a species can interbreed (1)
(2) Gene flow does not occur between the populations (2)
of a species
(3) Each species is reproductively isolated from every (3)
other species
(4) Variations occur among members of a species (4)
114. Niche overlap indicates – 114. ) (overlap)
(1) sharing of one or more resources between the two (1)
species
(2) mutualsim between two species (2)
(3) active cooperation between two species (3)
(4) two different parasites on the same host (4)
115. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the 115.
same species if they –
(1) Have same number of chromosomes (1)
(2) Can reproduce freely with each other and form new (2)
seeds
(3) Have more then 90 percent similar genes (3) 90
(4) Look similar and possess identical secondary (4)
metabolites
116. Which one of the following is most appropriately 116.
defined –
(1) Amensalism is a relationship in which one species (1) ( )
is benefited where as the other is unaffected
(2) Predator is an organisms that catcheds and kills (2)
other organism for food.
28
(3) Parasite is an organism which always lives inside (3)
the body of other organism and may kill it.
(4) Host is an organism which provides food to another (4)
organism.
117. Which one of the following statements is correct for 117.
secondary succession? (1)
(1) It is similar to primary succession except that it
has a relatively fast pace (2)
(2) It begins on a bare rock. (3)
(3) It occurs on deforested site
(4) It follows primary succession (4)
118. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite 118.
in true sense?
(1) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow's nest (1)
(2) The female anopheles bites and sucks blood from (2)
humans
(3) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws (3)
nourishment from the mother
(4) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as (4)
laying eggs on human hair
119. The logistic population growth is expressed by the 119.
equation :
FG N – K IJ FG N – K IJ FG N – K IJ FG N – K IJ
(1) dN/dt = rN
H N K (2) dt/dN = Nr
H K K (1) dN/dt = rN
H N K (2) dt/dN = Nr
H K K
(3) dN/dt = rN GH
F K – N IJ (3) dN/dt = rN GH
F K – N IJ
K K K K
(4) dN/dt = rN (4) dN/dt = rN
120. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell 120.

lining of hermit crab. The association is-
(1) Commensalism (1)
(2) Amensalism (2)
(3) Ectoparasitism (3)
(4) Symbiosis (4)
29
121. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He 121.
found that the average natality was 250, average 250 240
mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The 20 30
net increase in population is-
(1) 05 (2) Zero (1) 05 (2) Zero
(3) 10 (4) 15 (3) 10 (4) 15
122. Which one of the following processes during 122.
decomposition is correctly described-
(1) Catabolism - Last step in the decomposition under (1) -
fully anaerobic condition
(2) Leaching - Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise (2) -
to the top layers of soil
(3) Fragmentation - Carried out by organisms such as (3) -
earthworm
(4) Humification - Leads to the accumulation of a dark (4) -
coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial
action at a very fast rate
123. Niche is 123.
(1) all the biological factors in the organism (1)
environment
(2) the physical space where an organism live (2)
(3) the range of temperature that the organism needs to (3)
live
(4) the functional role played by the organism where it (4)
lives
124. Which one of the following population interactions is 124.
widely used in medical science for the production of ?
antibiotics ?
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism (1) (2)
(3) Parasitism (4) Amensalism (3) (4)
30
125. Identify the organism on the basis of following 125.
characters :-
(a) loss of digestive system (a)
(b) have lost its unnecessary sense organ (b)
(c) have high reproduction potential (c)
(d) presence of suckers (d)
(1) Prey (2) Predator (1) (2)
(3) Parasite (4) Host (3) (4)
126. About succession which of the following statement is 126.
correct :
(1) In xerosere, xeric conditions progress to hydric (1)
conditions
(2) In hydroseres, mesic environment progress to hydric (2)
conditions
(3) In hydrosere hydric environment progress to mesic (3)
conditions
(4) Abnandoned farm lands show primary succession (4)
127. Nile perch, parthenium, Lantana Eicchornia and Clarias 127.
gariepinus
In above , how many are alien species ?
(1) Three (2) Two (1) (2)
(3) Four (4) Five (3) (4)
128. Which one of the following is generally not used for 128.
construction of ecological pyramids ?
(1) Rate of energy flow (1)
(2) Fresh weight (2)
(3) Dry weight (3)
(4) Number of individuals (4)
129. Decomposition rate depends on :- 129.
(i) Lignin rich detritus (i)
(ii) Chitin rich detritus (ii)
(iii) Nitrogen rich detritus (iii)
(iv) Water soluble sugar (iv)
(v) Moist environment (v)
31
(vi) Low environment (vi)
(vii) Anaerobic condition (vii)
How many of above favour to fast decomposition?
(1) Four (2) Six (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Five (3) (4)
130. Find out the correct match from the followintg : 130.
131. How many statement are true ? 131.

(A) Temperature is the most relevant ecologically (A)
environmental factor. It ranges from subzero levels
in polar areas and high altitudes to >500C in
tropical deserts in summer.
(B) A few organism can tolerate and thrive in a (B)

wide range of temperatures, they are called
enrythermal.
(C) The productivity and distribution of plants is (C)
also heavily dependent on water.
(D) In the aquatic environment, the sediment (D)
characteristics often determine the type of benthic
animals that can thrive there.
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
32
132. Match the following :- 132.
(1) A-iv, B-iii,C-ii,D-i (2) A-ii,B-iii,C-i,D-iv (1) A-iv, B-iii,C-ii,D-i (2) A-ii,B-iii,C-i,D-iv
(3) A-ii,B-i,C-iii,D-iv (4) A-i,B-ii,C-iv,D-iii (3) A-ii,B-i,C-iii,D-iv (4) A-i,B-ii,C-iv,D-iii
133. Which of the following is example of 133.
commensalism ?
(1) Mange- Loranthus (1)
(2) Cattle-Cattle egert bird (2)
(3) Sea anemone - Clown fish (3)
(4) Both(2)& (3) (4)

134. Some stages in the hydrarch are labeled as 134. hydrarch
A. Marsh meadow stage
B. Reed swamp stage A.
C. Rooted Submerged stage B.
D. Phytoplankton stage C.
E. Forest stage D.
Identify the choice that represents the correct E.
sequence of these stages.
(1) D,C,B,A,E (2) C,E,A,B,D (1) D,C,B,A,E (2) C,E,A,B,D
(3) B,D,C,A,E (4) D,E,C,B,A (3) B,D,C,A,E (4) D,E,C,B,A
135. Asymptote in logistic growth curve is obtained 135.
when (1) K = N (2) K > N
(1) K = N (2) K > N (3) K< N (4) 'r'
(3) K< N (4) 'r' near to zero
33
ZOOLOGY ZOOLOGY
136. Match column I with column II : 136. I II :
-I -II
A
(i)
B
(ii)
C
D (iii)
(iv)
E
(v)
F
(vi)
(1) A– I, B – IV, C – V, D– IV, E – III, F– II (1) A– I, B – IV, C – V, D– IV, E – III, F– II

(2) A– I, B – IV, C – III, D– V, E – IV, F– II (2) A– I, B – IV, C – III, D– V, E – IV, F– II
(3) A– II, B – IV, C – VI, D– V, E – III, F– I (3) A– II, B – IV, C – VI, D– V, E – III, F– I
(4) A– III, B – V, C – VI, D– IV, E – I, F– I (4) A– III, B – V, C – VI, D– IV, E – I, F– I
137. Which of the following has the thickest walls : 137. :
(1) Right ventricle (2) Left ventricle (1) (2)
(3) Right auricle (4) Left auricle (3) (4)
138. 138.
Label the diagram : :

(1) ADorsal Aorta, BVena cavae(Great vein), (1) A  , B (Great vein),
CPulmonary Artery, DSmooth muscle C , D
(2) ADorsal Aorta, BSmooth muscle, CVena (2) A  , B ,
cavae(Great vein), DPulmonary Artery C (Great vein), D
(3) AVena cavae(Great vein), BDorsal Aorta, (3) A  (Great vein), B  ,
CSmooth muscle, DPulmonary Artery C , D
(4) ADorsal Aorta, BVena cavae(Great vein), (4) A  , B (Great vein),
CSmooth muscle, DPulmonary Artery C , D
34
139. Systemic heart refers to : 139. :
(1) entire heart in lower vertebrates (1)
(2) the two ventricles together in humans (2)
(3) left auricle & left ventricle in higher vertebrates (3)
(4) the heart that contracts under stimulation from (4)
nervous system
140. Cardiac output is determined by : 140. :
(1) Heart rate (2) Strocke volume (1) (2)
(3) Blood flow (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) (4) (1) (2)
141. Given Figure represents the standard ECG of a normal 141. ECG P
person. The P- wave represents the : :
(1) Initiation of the verticular contraction (1)

(2) Beginning of the systole (2)
(3) End of systole (3)
(4) Contraction of both the atria (4)
142. 142.
Which of the following is incorrect matching : :

(1) A - Chordae Tandanae - It joins papillary muscule (1) A - - AV
to AV valves
(2) C - Apex - formed by left ventricle only. (2) C - -
(3) B - SA node - it generates impulse with lesser speed (3) B - SA - AV
than AV node.
(4) D - interventicular septum (4) D -
35
143. In human heart valves occur in between : 143. :
(a) Pulmonary veins and left atrium (a)
(b) Right ventricle and pulmonary artery (b)
(c) Left ventricle and aorta (c) aorta
(d) Right atrium and left atrium (d)
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c (1) a, b, c (2) b, c
(3) b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d (3) b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
144. During cardiac cycle about ____ % of ventricular 144.
filling occurs prior to atrial contraction — % ____ % ___ %
ventricular filling occurs due to atrial contraction : :
(1) 50, 50 (2) 70, 30 (1) 50, 50 (2) 70, 30
(3) 30, 70 (4) 10, 90 (3) 30, 70 (4) 10, 90
145. Match the Column I with Column II : 145. I II :
I II I II
A. Heart failure I. Heart muscle is suddenly A. I.
damaged by an inadequate
blood supply
B. Cardiac arrest II. Chest pain due to B. II.

inadequate O2 reaching O2
the heart muscles
C. Heart Attack III. Atherosclosis C. III.
D. Coronary Artery IV. Heart not pumping D. IV.
disease blood effectively enough
to meet the needs of the
body
E. Angina pectoris V. Heart stops beating E. V.
A B C D E A B C D E
(1) IV V I III II (1) IV V I III II
(2) V IV I III II (2) V IV I III II
(3) IV V I II III (3) IV V I II III
(4) V IV II III I (4) V IV II III I
146. System of blood vessels present in our body 146.
exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from :
cardiac musculature, is called :
(1) Coronary system (2) Pulmonary system (1) (2)
(3) Arterial system (4) Venus system (3) (4)
36
147. What is true for Q-T interval : 147. Q-T :
(1) beginning of ventricular depolarisation and end of (1)
ventricular repolarisation
(2) Atrial depolarisation & ventricular repolarisation (2)
(3) Joint diastole (3)
(4) None (4)
148. Read the following statements carefully : 148. :
I. Open circulatory system – Mollusc, Hemichordates I.
II. Closed circulatory system – Neris II.
III. Open blood circulatory system – Less advantageous III.
than closed one.
IV. Single blood circulation – Trygone (sting ray) IV.
Select the right option regarding statement and
example/information given against it : :
(1) I, III and IV (2) I, II, III, IV (1) I, III and IV (2) I, II, III, IV
(3) III and IV (4) I, III and IV (3) III and IV (4) I, III and IV
149. Match the events of heart given in column-A with their 149. A B
time interval given in column – B : :
Column-A Column-B Column-A Column-B
i. Joint diastole a. 0.5 sec i. a. 0.5 sec
ii. Atrial systole and b. 0.4 sec ii. b. 0.4 sec
ventricular diastole
iii. Atrial diastole and c. 0.3 sec iii. c. 0.3 sec
ventricular systole
iv. Ventricular diastole d. 0.1 sec iv. d. 0.1 sec
(1) i – b, ii – d, iii – c, iv – a (1) i – b, ii – d, iii – c, iv – a
(2) i – b, ii – a, iii – c, iv – d (2) i – b, ii – a, iii – c, iv – d
(3) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c (3) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c
(4) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b (4) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
150. A = Auricle/Atrium 150. A =
V = Ventricle V=
Following are figures of hearts in different animals
Identify with their characteristic hearts : :

(1) I-Fishes I-Reptiles (1) I- II-
III-All reptiles IV-Birds, mammals III- IV- ,
(2) I-Fishes II-Birds (2) I- II-
III-Reptiles, birds IV-Mammal III- IV-
37
(3) I-Fishes II-Amphibians (3) I- II-
III-Reptiles IV-Crocodiles, Birds, Mammal III- IV- , ,
(4) I-Fishes II-Crocodile (4) I- II-
III-Amphibians, Reptiles IV-Birds, Mammals III- IV- ,
151. Decreased level of Ca+2 and estrogen collectively leads 151. Ca+2
a disorder, called : :
(1) Tetany (2) Osteoporosis (1) (2)
(3) Arthritis (4) Muscular spasm (3) (4)
152. Arteries do not have valves but veins do, because : 152.
:
(1) Arteries have a narrower lumen than veins (1)
(2) Arteries have thicker walls than veins (2)
(3) Arteries carry oxygenated blood whereas veins (3)
carry deoxygenated blood
(4) Valves prevent backflow of blood in veins (4)
153. Which statement is false : 153. ?
(1) Veins are typically larger in diameter than (1)
arteries (2)
(2) Because of their small size capillaries contain blood
that is moving more quickly than in other parts of
the circulatory system (3)
(3) The walls of arteries are elastic,enabling them to
stretch and shrink with changes in blood pressure.
(4) Veins contain more blood than any other part of (4)
the circulatory system
154. One difference between blood & lymph is that: 154. :
(1) blood contains WBC and lymph contains RBC (1) WBC WBC
(2) blood contains RBC and WBC and lymph contains (2) RBC, WBC
only WBC WBC
(3) blood contains RBC and lymph contains WBC (3) RBC WBC
(4) blood is liquid while lymph is solid (4)
155. Blood cells that increase in number during allergic 155.
colditions like asthma are : -
(1) Neutrophils (2) Basophils (1) (2)
(3) Eosinophils (4) Iymphocytes (3) (4)
156. Saturated dietary fats increase the risk of heart disease 156. (risk)
by : :
(1) widening arteries by thinning their walls (1)
(2) narrowing veins by carbohydrate deposition (2)

38
(3) narrowing arteries by fat deposition (3)
(4) narrowing arteries by carbohydrate deposition (4)
157. Although blood flows through large arteries at high 157.
pressure, when the blood reaches small capillaries the
pressure decreases because : :
(1) the values in the arteries regulate at he rate of blood (1) (value)
flow into the capillaries
(2) the volume of blood in the capillaries is much lesser (2)
than the that in the arteries
(3) the total cross-sectional area of capillaries arising (3)
form an artery is much greater than that of the
artery
(4) elastin fibers in the capillaries help to reduce the (4)
arterial pressure
158. In mammals, which of the following contains blood 158.
with the highest oxygen content : :
(1) Right atrium (2) Jugular vein (1) (2)
(3) Pulmonary artery (4) Left ventricle (3) (4)
159. How many of the following valves are in contact with 159.
oxygenated blood only?
(1) Three (2) Four (1) (2)

(3) Two (4) One (3) (4)
160. Complete the following statement: 160.
The first heart sound is (A) which is associated (A) (B)
with closure of (B) and the second heart sound is (C)
(C) which is associated with closure of (D) . (D)
39
161. How many of the following statements are wrong? 161.
(A) In human heart the atrium and ventricle of same (A)
side are separated by a thick fibrous tissue called
atrio-ventricular septum.
(B) Heart is situated between the two lungs in the (B)
thoracic cavity.
(C) When sino-atrial node gets affected, (C)
atrio-ventricular node takes over its functions and
starts producing action potentials at the rate of 70 70 – 75 min–1
– 75 min–1.
(D) Purkinje fibres are modified nerve fibres. (D)
(1) One (2) Two (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Four (3) (4)
162. During ventricular systole 162.
(A) Blood gets filled in atria from vena cava (A)
(B) Atrio- ventricular valves are opened (B)
(C) Semilunar valves get open (C)
(D) About 70 ml blood is pumped by each ventricle (D) 70 ml
into large arteries normally
(1) A, B, C & D (1) A, B, C D
(2) C & D (2) C D
(3) A & C (3) A C
(4) A, C & D (4) A, C D
163. The number of QRS complexes observe per minute in 163. ECG QRS
an ECG of a person was 85. What could be the heart 85
rate of that person during observation?
(1) 72 (2) 85 (1) 72 (2) 85
(3) 65 (4) 90 (3) 65 (4) 90
164. The portal circulation in human body exists between 164.
(A) Hypothalamus and neurohypophysis (A)

(B) Intestine and liver (B)
(C) Hind limbs and kidney (C)
(D) Gonads and kidney (D)
(1) A & B (1) A B
(2) A, B & C (2) A, B C
(3) C & D (3) C D
(4) B only (4) B
40
165. Which of the following function of sympathetic 165.
nervous system is not attributed towards vascular
system in human body?
(1) Tachycardia (1)
(2) Increase in cardiac output (2)
(3) Increase in the strength of ventricular contraction (3)
(4) Decrease in blood pressure through dilation of (4)
nearly all blood vessels
166. Which of the following is an incorrect statement w.r.t. 166.
electrocardiogram?
(1) P-wave represents depolarisation of atria (1) P-
(2) Ventricular systole begins shortly after Q wave (2) Q
(3) T-wave represents the return of ventricles from (3) T-
excited to normal state
(4) The end of T-wave marks the end of atrial systole (4) T-
167. Find out the correct statement w.r.t. blood. 167.
(1) Formed elements constitute nearly 55 percent of (1) 55
blood.
(2) Mineral elements contribute 6-8 percent of blood (2) 6-8
plasma
(3) Albumins help in osmotic balance and globulins (3)
primarily are involved in defense mechanisms of
the body
(4) Factors for coagulation of blood are always (4)
present in active form in plasma
168. Which of the following is correct match w.r.t. 168.
component of blood and its normal amount in human
blood?
(1) WBC count – 5 - 5.5 million/mm3 of blood (1) WBC – 5 - 5.5 mm3
(2) Haemoglobin – 12 - 16 gm/dl of blood (2) – 12 - 16 gm/dl
(3) RBC count – 1,500,00 - 3,500,00/mm3 (3) RBC – 1,500,00 - 3,500,00/mm3
of blood
(4) Platelet count – 6000 - 8000/mm3 of blood (4) – 6000 - 8000/mm3
169. Which of the following vein is not a part of hepatic 169.
portal vein?
(1) Superior mesenteric vein (1)
(2) Gastric vein (2)
(3) Subclavian vein (3)
(4) Splenic vein (4)
170. All of the following lead to hypertension, except 170.
(1) Over-eating and obesity (1)

(2) Emotional stress (2)
(3) Smoking (3)
(4) Severe internal haemorrhage (4)
171. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t. Arteriosclerosis. 171.
(1) Calcium salts precipitate with the cholesterol (1)
forming plaque
(2) The artery becomes loose and elastic (2)
(3) May lead to heart attack (3)
(4) The lumen of artery becomes narrower (4)
172. By the end of joint diastole, the ventricles are almost 172.
____________ filled. ___________
(1) 30% (2) 70% (1) 30% (2) 70%
(3) 90% (4) 40% (3) 90% (4) 40%
173. All of the following factors increase cardiac output of 173.
an individual, except
(1) Catecholamines (2) Sympathetic stimulation (1) (2)
(3) Acetylcholine (4) Epinephrine (3) (4)
174. How many of the following are present in ventricles 174.
of human heart?
Eustachian valve, mod erator band, chordae tendinae, Eustachian valve, mod erator band, chordae tendinae,
columnae carnaeae, papillary muscles, coronary sinus columnae carnaeae, papillary muscles, coronary sinus
(1) Six (2) Five (1) (2)

(3) Four (4) Three (3) (4)
175. The blood pressure of a person is measured as 130/75 175. 130/75 mm Hg
mm Hg. His pulse pressure is
(1) 45 mm Hg (1) 45 mm Hg
(2) 55 mm Hg (2) 55 mm Hg
(3) 40 mm Hg (3) 40 mm Hg
(4) 205 mm Hg (4) 205 mm Hg
176. Which of the following factor is not related with 176.
delayed blood clotting?
(1) Deficiency of vitamin K (1) K
(2) Deficiency of calcium (2)
(3) Thrombopenia (3)
(4) Presence of B antigen on RBC (4) RBC B
42
177. The part of conducting system present in ventricular 177.
wall of human heart is
(1) Sinoatrial node (1)
(2) Atrioventricular node (2)
(3) Purkinje fibres (3)
(4) Internodal pathways (4)
178. Angina pectoris 178.
(1) Occurs due to conditions that effect the blood flow (1)
(2) Is common in children (2)
(3) Involves acute chest pain when no enough oxygen (3)
is reaching heart muscle
(4)Both (1) & (3) (4) (1) (3)
179. First heart sound (LUBB) coincides with which wave 179. ECG (LUBB)
of ECG ?
(1) R-wave (2) T-wave (1) R- (2) T-
(3) P-wave (4) Q-wave (3) P- (4) Q-
180. “X” is a fibrous tissue of the membranous septum of 180.
the heart just above the septal cusp of the tricuspid valve. “X”
It separates the atrium and the ventricle of the same “X”
side. Identify “X” :
(1) Sino artrial node (1)
(2) Artrioventricular septum (2)
(3) Artrioventricular node (3)
(4) Interventricular septum (4)
43
PHYSICS
Adding the equations (i) and (ii) , we have
m1m 2
1 F=G r1 + r2 = a (1+e) +a (1–e) = 2a
R2
r1  r2
or a
4 2
m1  m 2  V  R 3 Dividing the equations (i) by (ii) , we have
3
r1 a(1  e) (1  e)
2 The acceleration due to gravity at a distance x (x <  
r2 a(1  e) (1  e)
R) from centre of earth (of radius R) is
Applying componendo and dividendo, we have
x R  g r1  r2
g(x) = g  g  = (1  e)  (1  e) 1
R 2 
2 r1  r2 = (1  e)  (1  e ) e
r1  r2
or e
3 Because acceleration due to gravity decreases r1  r2
Also, for an elliptical orbit, we have
mgh mgnR
h nmgR 2
4. U = 1  = 1  nR = r1  r2 r – r 
n1 b = a 1 e 2
= 1 –  1 2 
R R 2  r1  r2 
2GM
5. ve =  ve  M if R = constant
R r1  r2 (r1  r2 )2  (r1  r2 )2 1
= 2 2
 4r1 r2
6. Theory (r1  r2 ) 2
7. Theory or b  r1 r2
8. Escape velocity is same for all angles of projection. Let l be the distance of the earth from the sun, when
it is at perpendicular to the major-axis of the orbit
9. When the earth is at the points A and B of its orbit, it drawn from the sun. It is called semi-latus rectum
is at the largest and shortest distance r 1 and r2 .Let l and is given by
be the distance of the earth from sun, when it is at
perpendicular to the major-axis of the orbit drawn from b2 ( r1r2 )2 2r r
l   1 2
the sun as shown in fig. a (r1  r2 ) / 2 r1  r2
10. In case of planet total energy of planet is always

nagtive.
11. Satellite orbital velocity = gR
escape velocity = 2gR

The distance l is called semi-latus rectum of the el-
liptical orbit. Let a and b the semi-major axis and % change in velocity of satellite to move infinity =
semi-minor axis of the elliptical orbit of the earth and
e be its eccentricity. 2gR – gR
× 100 = 41.4%
From the coordinate geometry, the maximum dis- gR
tance of the earth from the sun (at focus),
r1 = a (1+ e) 12. Theory
and the minimum distance of the earth from the sun,
r2 = a(1– e)

13. Fo rc e o n s ate llite is a lwa ys to war ds ea rth , 
therefore, acceleration of satellite S is always 20 T = 2 g w he r e = g e ff =
eff
directed towards centre of the earth. Net torque
of this gravitational force F about centre of earth 2
m 2g2  q2E 2  qE 
is zero. Therefore, angular momentum (both in = g 
m m 
magnitude and direction) of S about centre of
earth is constant throughout. Since the force F 21 Thoery
is conservative in nature, therefore mechanical
22 Potential of single drop
energy of satellite remains constant. Speed of
S is maximum when it is nearest to earth and kq
v =
minimum when it is farthest. r
Radius of bigger drop R = 4r

k 64q 16kq
V' (potential of bigger drop) = 
4r r
14. mv1r1=mv2r2
23 Point having equidistance from positive and
15. negative will produce zero potential.
Gm A m B 4 2 4 2
 = mAr A = m B rB 24 Near the charge potential will be maximum and at
(rA  rB ) 2 TA2 TB2
midpoint it will be minimum.
m A rA mBrB
  25 w = qV (v  Potential of diff.)
TA2 TB2
w= 0 Potential of all the points are same
As C is com  mArA = m Br B
hence TA = TB 26 Electric field is always perpendicular to equipotential
16 final charge on both spheres = 10 C each. surface. Opposite to electric field potential increases.
F1 (q1 q2 ) i 800 v r
 
F2 ( q1 q2 )f 100 = 8 : 1 27 Er   
 dV  rd r 
0 0
17 It will move in the direction of resultant force. r2

V (– )  V  r2
2
k q1q2
18 F= ....(1) 28 Maximum torque =  | P  E | = PE sin 
r2
max = PE
k q1q2 r
4F = 16 R 2 ...(2)  R= = 0 × 2 × 10–6 × 10 –2 × 2 × 105
8
= 12 × 10–3 NM
19 Electric field due to one line charge at a distance r
29 Net charge enclose by the sphere is zero .So, total
2k associated flux will be zero.
is E =
r
(  1)2k 2k2 30 At the point B – Equipotential surface are very close

F = qE = =
r r to each the

v v a 
sin E  W CA = W BA . =–  2 r q dr..
r r 2a 0
  is smaller so E is greater at B q
= 2 ln 2.
31 Since electric field produced by charge is conser- 0
vative. 40. In a conductor, potential is same everywhere

Potential at A = potential at centre = Vdue to p + Vdue to
32. Attraction is possible between a charged and a
induced charges
neutral object.
kp kp cos 2 
=
33. Inside the given sphere, there will not be any effect (r sec )2 + 0 =
r2
of external electric field. So net electric field will
only be due to point charge 'q' at centre. 
41. 
 Graph is (A) cm
34. Force on Q due to E is QE. and not zero. Force on qm Q  100cm
Q is zero due to E & electric field of induced outer = E =
0 cm
charges on sphere.
Charge density on inner surface is not uniform 100Q
therefore net force on charge Q is not zero. 
e0
Due to E, net force on shell is zero because net
charge on shell is zero.  V
42. E  5iˆ  3jˆ  15kˆ
35. Given diagram shows : r

E 7
Ch arg e enclosed
43. [From Gauss law,
0
= Flux leaving
the surface]
The direction of E net is along OC. q

  2 – 1  q = (2 – 1) 0
0
44. According to optioin (D) the electric field due to P

6. and S and due to Q and T add to zero. While due to
U and R will be added up. Hence the correct option is
Let the two charges are q & (20 – q)C
(D).
K ( q) ( 20  q)
 Fe =
r2
dFe
Fe will be max, when dq = 0
45.
dFe K
or = 2 (20 – 2q) = 0
dq r
  q = 10 C.
 2  4
37. By definition Resultant electric field= 2  + 2  + 2  = 2 
0 0 0 0
38. By definition
2 2
39. B & C are equipotential and field is conservative, =   = ( – k̂ )
0 0
therefore :

CHEMISTRY

5

6

7

8

9

Target (NEET) ATS_06 [24-07-2021]
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 4 4 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 4 1 1 4 1 1 3 3 4
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 2 2 4 4 4 3 2 3 2 1 3 1 4 3 2 1 1 1 2
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 3
Qus. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 4 3 1 4 1 4 4 1 4 2 2 3 1 1 2 3 1 2 4
Qus. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 3 3 2 2 3 4 2 4 4 2 3 2 3 4 1 2 4 2 1 2
Qus. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 4 3 1 3 2 4 1 4 3 1 2 4 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 1
Qus. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 4 1 1 3 2 4 3 4
Qus. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 4 3 2 2 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 4
Qus. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 2 4 2 4 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 2 4 3 4 1 2
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PHYSICS

1 Two identical solid copper spheres of radius R placed 1 R

4. The change in potential energy, when a body of mass 4. m nR

(3) Is greatest when it is farthest from the earth (3)

(1) 11 km/s (2) 11 3 km/s (1) 11 km/s (2) 11 3 km/s

9. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from 9. r1 r2

(1) x (2) x (1) x (2) x

21 An object is charged with positive charge. The 21

(1) A, B, C, P and Q (1) A, B, C, P Q

(1) minimum along path AB. (1) AB

(1) A (2) B (1) A (2) B

(1) zero (2) q (1) zero (2) q

(3) (4) (3) (4)

34. A positive point charge Q is kept (as shown in the 34. Q

(1) Force on Q due to E is zero (1) E Q

(1) along OA (2) along OB (1) OA (2) OB

kp cos  k p cos 2  kp cos  k p cos 2 

(1) (2 – 1) 0 (1) (2 – 1) 0

(1) q, –q, q, q, –q, –q (1) q, –q, q, q, –q, –q

then the order of reaction is :-

x2 and x3 respectively then  m (BaSO4) will be : x1, x2 x3  m (BaSO4)

(3) If q = 1, then W = Z (4) All of these (3) If q = 1, then W = Z

For this cell which of the following is correct :

(1) AgCl becomes reduced (1) AgCl

theemf of voltaic cell

d[A] d[B] d[C]

86. The minimum energy for molecules required to 86.

2.303  10 2.303 10

0.693R  298  308 0.693R  298  308

(1) It is rich in organic matter (1)

(2) It has capacity to hold water (2)

(1) Phytoplenktons (2) Reed swamp (1) (2)

(1) Carrying capacity (1)

120. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell 120.

131. How many statement are true ? 131.

(B) A few organism can tolerate and thrive in a (B)

(3) A-ii,B-i,C-iii,D-iv (4) A-i,B-ii,C-iv,D-iii (3) A-ii,B-i,C-iii,D-iv (4) A-i,B-ii,C-iv,D-iii

133. Which of the following is example of 133.

(2) Cattle-Cattle egert bird (2)

(3) Sea anemone - Clown fish (3)

(4) Both(2)& (3) (4)

(1) A– I, B – IV, C – V, D– IV, E – III, F– II (1) A– I, B – IV, C – V, D– IV, E – III, F– II

Label the diagram : :

(1) Initiation of the verticular contraction (1)

Which of the following is incorrect matching : :

B. Cardiac arrest II. Chest pain due to B. II.

Identify with their characteristic hearts : :

(2) narrowing veins by carbohydrate deposition (2)

(1) Three (2) Four (1) (2)

(A) Hypothalamus and neurohypophysis (A)

(1) Over-eating and obesity (1)

(1) Six (2) Five (1) (2)

10. In case of planet total energy of planet is always

11. Satellite orbital velocity = gR

escape velocity = 2gR

AAYAAM CAREER ACADEMY : PIPRALI ROAD, SIKAR, Ph. 7300335555, 01572-249955

Radius of bigger drop R = 4r