51.

Which one of the following was set as a target of average growth of GDP of India over the plan
period 2012 — 2017 by the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan?

A. 7 percent B. 8 percent
C. 9 percent D. 10 percent

Ans. C

Sol- The Prospects for the Twelfth Plan reads that- “Having achieved 8.2 percent growth in the
Eleventh Plan, it is reasonable to aim at 9 percent growth for the Twelfth Plan”.

Rapid GDP growth, targeted at 9 percent per annum, was regarded necessary for two reasons: first,
to generate the income and employment opportunities that were needed for improving in living
standards for the bulk of the population; and second, to generate the resources needed for financing
social sector programmes, aimed at reducing poverty and enabling inclusiveness.

52. Which one of the following is not a subject that has been devolved to the Panchayati Raj
Institutions by the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A. Non-Conventional energy resources
B. Roads
C. Higher Education
D. Libraries

Ans. C

Sol-

The subject that has been devolved to the Panchayati Raj Institutions by the 11th Schedule of the
Constitution of India are:

• Non-conventional sources of energy

• Road, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication
• Libraries
• Agriculture including agricultural expansion
• Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation.
• Animal Husbandry, Dairying and poultry
• Fisheries Industry
• Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development
• Social forestry and farm forestry
• Small scale industries in which food processing industry is involved
• Minor forest produce
• Safe water for drinking
• Khadi, village and cottage industries
• Rural housing
• Fuel and fodder
• Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity
 • Education including primary and secondary schools
• Technical training and vocational education
• Adult and non-formal education
• Public distribution system
• Maintenance of community assets
• The welfare of the weaker sections of the in particular of the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled
Tribes
• Social welfare, including the welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded
• Family welfare
• Women and child development
• Markets and Fairs
• Cultural activities
• Poverty Alleviation Programmes
• Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries

53. Who among the following used the term Industrial Revolution for the first time in English to
describe the changes that occurred in the British industrial development between 1760 and
1820?

A. Friedrich Engels
B. Eric Hobsbawm
C. Arnold Toynbee
D. Georges Michelet
Ans. C

Sol-

Arnold Joseph Toynbee, a British historian, was born in London on 14th April 1889 and died on 22
October 1975 in North Yorkshire, England. Arnold Toynbee used the term Industrial Revolution for the
first time in English to describe the changes that occurred in the British industrial development
between 1760 and 1820 in a series of lectures delivered at Oxford in 1875. As an economic historian,
Toynbee argued that a stronger historical orientation in the interpretation of economic development
was crucial.

54. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Indian Struggle, 1920 - 1934’?

A. Maulana Abul Kalam

B. Jayprakash Narayan
C. Subhash Chandra Bose
D. Manabendra Nath Roy

Ans. C

Sol-

The Indian Struggle, 1920–1942 is authored by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose. It is divided into two
parts and covers the Indian Independence movement in between the 1920s to the 1940s.
The first part covered : Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movements of the early 1920s to the Quit India
and another part covered- Azad Hind movements of the early 1940s. The 2nd part of the book was
written by Bose during the Second World War

The book was first published in 1948 due to a ban on it by the British Government.

55. Which one of the following about the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 is not correct?

A. Its centre was Maharashtra

B. Its main participants were students
C. It opposed the levy of tariff on imports
D. It publicly burnt foreign clothes
Ans. C

Sol-

The ideas of Swadeshi and Boycott, which became popular during the anti-Partition movement of
1905, were not new to India. Bholanath Chandra, a renowned mathematician, had proposed to
boycott British goods in order to develop the Indian industry and revive the Indian economy in 1874.

In 1896 Plague spread in parts of Bombay and Pune and became epidemic. British government
adopted a harsh measure to control the epidemic and gave its troops a free hand to enter any
household and in the name of examining.

Tilak wrote about this extensively in his Paper Kesari. And he adopted the slogan “Swaraj is my
Birthright and I shall have it”. He was of the view that Swadeshi and Boycott movement are two sides
of the same coin.

56. Which one of the following associations was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?

A. The Bengal British India Society

B. The East India Association
C. The British Indian Association
D. The Madras Native Association

Ans. B

Sol-

The East India Association was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866. It was a successor to the London
Indian Society established in 1865 by 4 Indian students in London - Pherozeshah Mehta, W. C.
Banerjee, Badruddin Tyabji and Manmohan Ghose.

Its main objective was to serve as a platform for advocating and promoting public interests and
welfare of Indians. And also to present grievances of Indian to the British Public and British press.
57. Mariana Trench is located on the ocean floor of –

A. Southern Atlantic Ocean

B. Western Pacific Ocean
C. Eastern Pacific Ocean
D. Northern Atlantic Ocean

Ans. B

Sol-

The Mariana Trench is located in the western Pacific Ocean, east of the Philippines. The Mariana
Trench is a 2,550 km long and 69 km wide crescent-shaped scar in the Earth’s crust.

Such trenches are formed at convergent plate boundaries where one of the plates dives beneath the
other into the Earth’s mantle, creating an ocean trench.

The depths of the Mariana Trench were first plumbed in 1875 by the British ship H.M.S. Challenger
and after his name, its deepest point was named as “the Challenger Deep”, which is about 300 km
southwest of Guam, a U.S.A island.

58. Taklamakan Desert is situated in -

A. Western Asia
B. Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa
C. South America
D. Central Asia

Ans. D

Taklamakan Desert is situated in the Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region of the People's Republic of
China.
‘Taklamakan’ which in local language means- “you can get in, but you can’t get out”, is the second-
largest non-polar sand-shifting desert in the world. It is also known as ‘The Sea of Death’.

59. Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and

A. Bhagirathi B. Mandukini
C. Nandakini D. Dhauliganga

Ans. A

Sol-

Alaknanda river meets Dhauliganga river at Vishnuprayag.

Alaknanda river meets Nandakini river at Nandprayag.

Alaknanda river meets Pindar river at Karnaprayag.

Alaknanda river meets Mandakini river at Rudraprayag, and

Alaknanda river meets the Bhagirathi river at Devprayag to form Ganga river.

60. Arrange the following Indian cities according to their locations from West to East:

1. Bilaspur
2. Jodhpur
3. Bhopal
4. Ranchi

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 3-2-1-4 B. 2-3-1-4
C. 4-1-2-3 D. 2-1-3-4

Ans. B
61. The Kashmir region receives an additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought
by

A. South-west Monsoon
B. Western Disturbances
C. Retreating Monsoon
D. Temperate Cyclone

Ans. B

Sol-

Western Disturbances are extra-tropical storm driven by the westerlies that originate in the
Mediterranean region that brings sudden winter rain to the north-western parts of the Indian sub-
continent. This is due to the low-pressure depressions gets created in the region during winters.

Thus,it brings additional rain to the North-West region of the Indian sub-continent.

62. Which part of India has the Kalakot tertiary Coal Field –

A. Brahmaputra river basin of Assam

B. Damodar river basin of Jharkhand and West Bengal
C. Himalayan mountain region
D. Cardamom Hills in Kerala
Ans. C

Sol-

Tertiary Coal is of younger age and is extracted from the rocks of the Oligocene period of the Tertiary
Era (around 15 to 60 million years ago). The Tertiary Coal is also known as the 'brown coal'.
Tertiary coal contributes only about 2% of the total coal production of the country.

Tertiary Coal Fields in Jammu and Kashmir- Kalakot, Mohogala, Metka, Ladda and Saugar Marg.

63. Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compact bundles of which
one of the following long fibrous protein -

A. Fibrin B. Collagen
C. Elastin D. Cellulose
Ans. A

Sol-

Fibrin is a component of blood and is involved in the clotting process. The combined action of
polymerized fibrin and platelets forms a hemostatic plug (clot) over a wound site.

It is a viscoelastic polymer, i.e. it has both reversible elastic characteristics and irreversible plastic or
viscous properties, and it undergoes strain stiffening, or increasing stiffness at high strains, which
helps to prevent damage under harsh conditions, as in arterial shear.

64. Which one of the following is the scientific name of the causal organism of elephantiasis?

A. Ascaris Lurnbricoid’s
B. Culexpipiens
C. Wuchereria Bancrofti
D. Fasciola Hepatica
Ans. C

Sol-

Two nematode species are associated with elephantiasis, Wuchereria Bancrofti and Brugia Malayi.

Wuchereria Bancrofti is distributed throughout the tropical regions of Asia, Africa and China. They
tend to damage the lymphatic vessels of the humans, which are mediated by the immune system's
response to the adult worms living in them.

This can end up in gross enlargement of the affected lymph nodes. Such conditions are called
elephantiasis.

65. Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides
protection against -

A. Ultraviolet Radiation
B. Infrared Radiation
C. X-ray Radiation
D. Short Wave Radio Radiation
Ans. A

Sol-

Melanin is a pigment that occurs in both humans and animal skin and is responsible for the dark colour
of hair, skin, and eyes. Melanin is produced by cells called melanocytes.

It has been found that melanin protects the skin from Ultra Violet rays and may also help block skin
cancer-causing processes in the body.

66. Intake of which one of the following food components should be minimized by patients
having Gouty Arthritis due to elevated serum uric acid level -

A. Food fibres B. Nucleic acids

C. Lipids D. Carbohydrates

Ans. B

Sol-

The amines that form Nucleic Acids fall into two categories: Purines and Pyrimidines.

Gouty Arthritis is caused by the deposition of needle-like crystals of Uric Acid in a joint. It is treated by
lowering the Uric Acid level in the body. Such patients are advised to avoid food items having a high
amount of fibres because these are rich in Purines and when purines are broken down, their end
product is Uric Acid.

67. Which one of the following statements about microbes is not correct?

A. They are used in sewage treatment plants.

B. They are used in industrial fermenters for the production of beverages.
C. No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.
D. They are used to get many bioactive molecules for the treatment of diseases.
Ans. C

Sol-

Most of the antibiotics used today are obtained from one or other microbes. It should be noted that
“Gramicidin”, one of the first antibiotics to be manufactured commercially, is a heterogeneous
mixture of six antibiotic compounds, all of which are obtained from the soil bacterial species Bacillus
Brevis. The bacteria produce vital antibiotic like Polymyxin, Bacitracin etc.

Other microbes such as Bacillus Subtilis, Penicillium Chrysogenum and Streptomyces also produce
certain anti-biotic. Most of the naturally produced antibiotics are synthesized by bacteria.
68. Golden rice is a genetically-modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the
biosynthesis of –

A. Omega-3 fatty acids

B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin C
Ans. B

Sol-

The International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) and its national research partners have developed
“Golden Rice” to complement existing interventions to address vitamin A deficiency (VAD).

The White Rice is naturally low in the pigment beta-carotene, which is used by the body to make
Vitamin A. Golden rice is rich in beta-carotene, which also gives the rice a golden colour.

69. An object moves in a circular path with a constant speed. Which one of the following
statements is correct?

A. The Centripetal Acceleration of the object is smaller for a gentle curve (i.e., the curve of
larger radius) than that for a sharp curve (i.e., the curve of smaller radius).
B. The Centripetal Acceleration is greater for a gentle curve than that for a sharp curve.
C. The Centripetal Acceleration is the same for both the gentle and sharp curves.
D. The Centripetal Acceleration causes the object to slow down.
Ans. A

Sol-

The magnitude of the Centripetal Acceleration (ac) of an object moving in a circle of radius “r” at a
speed “v” = v2 / r

Now since ac is inversely proportional to a radius so the centripetal acceleration of the object is smaller
for a gentle curve (i.e., the curve of larger radius) than that for a sharp curve (i.e., the curve of smaller
radius).

71. The symbol of the SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for -

A. Holm

B. Halogen

C. Henry

D. Hertz

Ans. C
Henry.
The Henry (H) is the SI unit of inductance. Reduced to base SI units, one henry is the equivalent
of a one-kilogram meter squared per second squared per ampere squared (kg m 2 s -2 A -2 ). The
Hertz is a unit derived from time which measures the frequency in the International System of
Units (SI). Symbol: Hz, definition: 1/s.

72. In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a feather of a sparrow bird and a mango are dropped
simultaneously from the same height. The time taken by them to reach the bottom is t 1,
t2 and t3 respectively. In this situation, we will observe that

(a) t1 > t2 > t3

(b) t1 > t3 > t2
(c) t3 > t1 > t2
(d) t1 = t2 = t2

Ans. D

If the objects are dropped from the same height, they will reach the bottom
simultaneously. Gravitational force is independent of the mass of the body. The acceleration
due to gravity is same for all the objects, so t1 = t2 = t3.

73. Electron Emission from a metallic surface by application of light is known as -

A. Thermionic Emission

B. Photoelectric Emission

C. High field Emission

D. Auto electronic Emission

Ans. B
Emission refers to a process by which any object is liberated. In the same way, the process by
which free electrons are released from the metal and enter a vacuum is called electron emission
and when it absorbs light energy, free electrons are released from the metal. Photoelectric
emission is also called photoemission or photoelectron emission or photoelectric effect.

• Thermionic emission occurs when a large amount of external energy in the form of heat
is supplied to the free electrons in the metals.
• Field emission, also called Cold Emission, discharge of electrons from the surface of a
material subjected to a strong electric field.
• Due to the creation of the electric field intensity needed for obtaining the auto electronic
emission sufficient for excitation of the magnetron, provides for the possibility of the
instant start of the magnetron without the need for first heating the cathode.

74. How long does light take to reach the Earth from the Sun?
 A. About 4 minutes

B. About 8 minutes

C. About 24 minutes

D. About 24 hours

Ans. B

About 8 minutes. Sunlight travels at the speed of light, photons emitted from the surface of the
sun need to travel in the vacuum of space to reach our eyes. The short answer is that it takes 8
minutes and 20 seconds of sunlight to travel from the Sun to the Earth.

75. Radioactivity is measured by –

A. GM Counter

B. Polarimeter

C. Calorimeter

D. Colorimeter

Ans. A

GM Counter.
A Geiger Counter is a device used to detect and measure radiation. Also known as the Geiger-
Mueller counter, it is widely used in applications such as radiation dosimetry, radiological
protection, experimental physics, and the nuclear industry.

A Polarimeter is a scientific instrument used to measure the angle of rotation, which

alternately passes polarized light through an active substance.

A Calorimeter is a device used to measure the heat flow of a chemical reaction or physical
change. The process of measuring this heat is called Calorimetry.

A basic Calorimeter consists of a metal container of water above a combustion chamber, in

which a thermometer is used to measure changes in water temperature. A colorimeter is a
photosensitive device that is used to measure the transmittance and absorption of light passing
through a liquid sample. The device measures the intensity or concentration of the colour that
develops upon introducing a specific reagent into a solution.

76. The mirrors used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles are -

A. Concave

B. Convex
 C. Cylindrical

D. Plane

Ans. B

Convex.

Convex mirrors are commonly used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles because they give an erect,
virtual, full size diminished image of distant objects with a wider field of view.

• Plane Mirrors - These are flat mirrors that represent images in their normal proportions,
reversed from left to right. It is the most common type of mirror used in bedrooms and
bathrooms.
• Concave Mirrors - Concave mirrors are spherical mirrors that tilt inward like a spoon.
They cause confusion of largeness and are usually found in bathrooms and bedrooms.
• Convex Mirrors - Convex mirrors are also spherical mirrors. However, unlike concave
mirrors, they magnify and distort the reflected image, making it smaller.
• Cylindrical lenses can be used in single axial convergence or divergence of beams and
can be found in optical measurements, laser scanning, spectroscopy, laser diode output
beam shaping, X-ray light microscopic imaging, etc.

77. Which one of the following waves is used for detecting forgery in currency notes?

A. Ultraviolet Waves

B. Infrared Waves

C. Radio Waves

D. Microwaves

Ans. A

Ultraviolet waves or UV rays are used to detect fake currency. The paper currency consists of
a strip that is embedded in a note. This bandage cannot be forged like the original pose. So, to
detect a forgery in currency notes, UV rays are used.

Radio waves have the longest wavelength of all electromagnetic waves. They range in length
from about one foot to several miles. Radio waves are often used to transmit data and are used
for all types of applications, including radio, satellite, radar, and computer networks.

Microwave waves are accompanied by radio waves that are measured in centimetres. We use
microwaves in cooking, disseminating information and radar, which helps in forecasting the
weather. Microwaves are useful in communication because they can penetrate clouds, smoke
and light rain.

Infrared waves have waves that are close to visible light at wavelengths. These are infrared
waves used to change channels in your TV remote. Far-infrared waves are far from visible light
in wavelengths. Far-infrared waves are thermal and give heat. Anything that gives heat
transmits infrared waves.

Ultraviolet light is used by powerful telescopes such as the Hubble Space Telescope to
visualize distant stars. Some insects, such as the bumblebee, may see ultraviolet light.

78. The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor are –

A. Free Electrons

B. Conduction Electrons

C. Ions

D. Holes

Ans. D

The charge carriers that are present in large quantities are called ‘Majority Charge Carriers’.
The majority of charge carriers carry most of the electric charge or electric current into the
semiconductor. Therefore, the majority of charge carriers are mainly responsible for the electric
current in the semiconductor. When a trivalent atom such as boron or gallium is added to the
inner semiconductor, a p-type semiconductor is formed. In P-type semiconductor, a large
number of holes are present. Therefore, holes are the majority charge carriers in P-type
semiconductors.

79. The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom in the ground state is -

A. 13.6 MeV

B. 13.6 eV

C. 13.6 Joule

D. Zero

Ans. B

The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom in the ground state is 13.6 eV. Ionization energy
is the amount of energy required to remove the most relaxed electron or valence electron from
an atom.
Ionization energy, also known as Ionization Potential, IE, IP, ΔH°, is the energy required to
extract an electron from a gaseous atom or ion. The first or initial ionization energy or E i of an
atom or molecule is the energy required to remove one mole of electrons from one mole of
individual gaseous atoms or ions. The higher the ionization energy, the more difficult it is to
remove an electron. Therefore, ionization is an indicator of energy reactivity. Ionization energy
is important because it can be used to help estimate the strength of chemical bonds. Ionization
energy is reported in units of kilojoule per mole (kJ/mole) or electron volts (eV).
80. When pure water boils vigorously, the bubbles that rise to the surface are composed
primarily of –

A. Air

B. Hydrogen

C. Hydrogen and Oxygen

D. Water Vapour

Ans. A

When pure water boils vigorously, the bubbles that rise to the surface are composed primarily
of air. The bubbles are mostly of nitrogen with oxygen and a bit of argon and carbon dioxide.

81. Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic
solution?

A. HCl

B. CH3COOH

C. CH3OH

D. NaOH

Ans. D

The strong electrolyte is an ionic compound that completely dissolves in water and conducts
electricity. Of the given alternatives, only NaOH and HCl are strong electrolytes, and NaOH
alone forms a basic solution when dissolved in water.

NaOH is a strong electrolyte.

82. The principal use of Hydrofluoric Acid is -

A. in etching glass

B. as a bleaching agent

C. as an extremely strong oxidizing agent

D. in the preparation of strong organic fluorine compounds

Ans. D
The main use of Hydrofluoric Acid is in organ fluorine chemistry. Many organ fluorine
compounds are prepared using HF as a fluorine source, including Freon such as Teflon, Fluor
polymer, Fluorocarbon, and Refrigerant.

𝟑𝟓
83. The species that have the same number of an electron as 𝟏𝟕𝑪𝒍 is -

𝟑𝟐
A. 𝟏𝟔𝑺

𝟑𝟒 +
B. 𝟏𝟔𝑺

𝟒𝟎 +
C. 𝟏𝟖𝑨𝒓

𝟑𝟓 2-
D. 𝟏𝟔𝑺

Ans. C

Number of Electrons = Number of Protons = Atomic number.

𝟑𝟓
In 𝟏𝟕𝑪𝒍 Mass number= 35, Symbol = Cl, Atomic number = 17.

𝟑𝟓
𝟏𝟕𝑪𝒍 → Number of electrons = 17

𝟑𝟐
In 𝟏𝟔𝑺 → Number of electrons = 16

𝟑𝟒 +
𝟏𝟔𝑺 → Number of electrons = 16 − 1 = 15

𝟒𝟎
𝟏𝟖𝑨𝒓 → Number of electrons = 18 − 1 = 17
+
In

𝟑𝟓 2-
In 𝟏𝟔𝑺 → Number of electrons = 16 + 2 = 18

∴ 𝟑𝟓 𝟒𝟎 +
𝟏𝟕𝑪𝒍 and 𝟏𝟖𝑨𝒓 has the same number of electrons.

84. The compound C6H12O4 contains –

A. 22 atoms per mole

B. twice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of C

C. six times the mass percent of C as compared to the mass percent of H

 D. thrice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of 0

Ans. C

Molar mass of C in C6H12O4 = 6 × 12 = 72 Molar mass of H in C6H12O4 = 1 × 12 = 12

∴Mass percent of C is six times as compared to the mass percent of H.

85. The proposition 'equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules
at the same temperature and pressure' is known as -

A. Avogadro's Hypothesis

B. Gay-Lussac's Hypothesis

C. Planck's Hypothesis

D. Kirchhoff's Theory

Ans. B

According to Gay-Lussac’s Law, ‘the volume of gas at constant temperature and pressure is
proportional to the number of moles or molecules of gas present.’ P/T = K. Hence option B is
the correct answer.

Avogadro's Hypothesis states that two gases of equal volume, at the same temperature and
pressure, contain the same number of molecules. Avogadro's hypothesis allows chemists to
predict the behaviour of ideal gasses.

According to the Planck Hypothesis, all electromagnetic radiation is quantized and occurs in
photons. The quantum of energy for a photon is not Planck's constant is the product of h and
the frequency. Kirchhoff's current law (1st Law) states that current flowing into a junction must
be equal to the current flowing out of it. This is a consequence of charge conservation.

Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (2nd Law) states that the sum of all voltages around any closed loop
in a circuit must equal zero.

86. Which one of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill is correct?

A. It proposed that the Indian Magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases.

B. It allowed Indians to file criminal cases against Europeans.

C. It authorized Indian ICS officers to try Europeans in courts.

D. It was an agitation led by Ilbert in support of the nationalists.

Ans. A

It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases. Ilbert Bill was
passed during the period of Lord Ripon (Viceroy) in 1883-84. As per this bill, Indian Magistrate
could preside over the trial of Englishmen, European and Anglo-Indians. Introduction of the
bill led to intense opposition in Britain and this growing bitterness led to the formation of Indian
National Congress.

87. Who among the following can attend the meetings of both Houses of Parliament while
not being a member of either House?

A. The Solicitor General of India

B. The Vice-President of India

C. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

D. The Attorney General of India

Ans. D

The Attorney General of India is the only person under the Indian system that can participate
in the proceedings of Parliament or any Parliamentary Committee but cannot vote. He has the
right to participate in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament and their Joint Sitting
and any committee of Parliament in which he can be nominated as a member but without the
right to vote.

88. Who among the following was believed to be a leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs
conspiring against the British in 1857?

A. Mangal Pandey

B. Bahadur Shah II

C. Queen Zeenat Mahal

D. Nana Sahib

Ans. B

The Sanyasis and Fakirs revolted against the British from 1763 to 1800 AD due to the ban
imposed on their pilgrimage by the officials of the East India Company. The central leadership
consisted of the rebel council headed by Emperor Bahadur Shah Jaffer. Although Bahadur Shah
Jaffer's wife Zeenat Mahal tried to confide with the English, she was not part of the central
leadership

89. Who among the following was the founder of the Avadh Kingdom in the 18th century?
 A. Murshid Quli Khan

B. Saadat Khan

C. Alivardi Khan

D. Sarfaraz Khan

Ans. B

The Nawabs of Awadh was the title of the rulers who ruled the state of Awadh in northern
India during the 18th and 19th centuries. The Nawabs of Awadh were of Persian descent from
Nishapur (Iran).
In 1724, Nawab Saadat Khan established the kingdom of Awadh.

90. Who among the following was the founder of the Young Bengal Movement?

A. Henry Vivian Derozio

B. David Hare

C. Dwarkanath Tagore

D. Prasanna Kumar Tagore

Ans. A

The Young Bengal Movement was launched by Henry Louis Vivian Derozio (1809–31), who
came to Calcutta in 1826 and was appointed as a teacher of English literature and history at the
Hindu College. In addition, he edited the Hesperus and the Calcutta Literary Gazette. He was
also associated with the India Gazette.

91. Which one of the following statements about the Quit India Movement is not correct?

A. It broke out in August 1942.

B. Ahmedabad Textile Mills went on strike for more than three months.

C. Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha actively participated in the movement.

D. Communist Party did not support the movement.

Ans. C

Hindu nationalist parties like the Hindu Mahasabha openly opposed the call of Quit India
Movement and officially boycotted it. The Muslim League opposed the Quit India movement
because it was believed that if the British left India in their current state, Muslims as a minority
would be persecuted by the Hindu majority.
The Communist Party of India was banned by the British government at that time. To lift the
embargo, as well as assist the Soviet Union in its war against Nazi Germany, it supported the
British war effort despite the support of Quit India by many industrial workers. In response,
the British lifted the ban on the party.

92. Who among the following is the winner of the Singapore Open Superseries Badminton
Men's Singles title 2017?

A. Kidambi Srikanth

B. Lin Dan

C. Sai Praneeth

D. Kento Momota

Ans. C

The 2017 Singapore Super Series was the fourth Super Series tournament of the 2017 BWF
Super Series. The tournament takes place from 11 to 16 April 2017 in Singapore City,
(Singapore) with a total of $ 350,000.
B Sai Praneeth won the Singapore Super Series 2017.
2019 Singapore Open (badminton) takes place in Singapore. Men's Singles: Kento Momota,
Women's Singles: Tai Tzu-ying

93. Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in -

A. Nagpur

B. Raipur

C. Mumbai

D. Secunderabad

Ans. A

Koradi Thermal Power Station is located at Koradi near Nagpur, Maharashtra. The power plant
is one of the four major power plants in Vidarbha – a power surplus region of India.
94. Which one of the following is the theme of the International Day for Monuments and
Sites (World Heritage Day) 2017?

A. The Heritage of Sport

B. Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism

C. Past and Present Heritage

D. Heritage and Science

Ans. B

World Rural Day 2019 was celebrated on 18 April with the rural theme landscape. The Rural
Landscape theme is related to the theme of the 2019 International Council on Monuments and
Sites (ICOMOS) Scientific Symposium on Rural Heritage on October in Marrakesh, Morocco.

95. In April 2017, USA dropped MOAB (Massive Ordnance Air Blast, popularly known
as the Mother of All Bombs) in the suspected hideouts of militants in which one of the
following countries?

A. Iran

B. Syria

C. Afghanistan

D. Somalia

Ans. C

The USA dropped the ‘mother of all bombs’, the most powerful conventional bomb in the
American arsenal, on an Islamic State cave complex in Afghanistan. The strike was the first
combat use of what is formally named the GBU-43/B Massive Ordinance Air Blast.

96. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Interdisciplinary Committee
constituted recently by the Government of India to examine the framework for virtual
currencies?

A. Secretary, Department of Financial Services

B. Special Secretary, Department of Revenue

C. Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs

D. Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

Ans. C

The nine-member Inter-Disciplinary Committee will be chaired by Dinesh Sharma, Special

Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs.

97. SAMPADA Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of –

A. Finance

B. Housing and Urban Affairs

C. Food Processing Industries

D. Earth Sciences

Ans. C

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) called SAMPADA, Scheme for Agro-
Marine Processing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters as Pradhan Mantri Kisan
Sampada Yojana (PMKSY). The SAMPADA scheme was approved by the CCEA in May 2017
for a period of 2016–20 coterminous with the 14th Finance Commission cycle. The objective
of the scheme is to supplement agriculture, modernize processing and reduce agro-waste.

98. The shortest day length that occurs in the Northern hemisphere is on –

A. 21st March

B. 23rd September

C. 22nd November

D. 22nd December

Ans. D

The shortest day and the longest night of the year in the northern hemisphere occur during
Winter Solstice which is usually observed on December 21 or sometimes on December 22
UTC. This is also the day of the longest day and the shortest night in the Southern Hemisphere.
99. The Indian Railways have gone in for qualitative improvements since independence.
Which of the following has taken place in recent years?

1. Gauge conversion

2. Track electrification

3. Automatic signals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

Indian Railways have an impressive record of qualitative improvements. The major areas of
qualitative improvement during the recent years are gauge conversion, rolling stock, track
electrification, automatic signalling, the introduction of fast trams and amenities and facilities
for rail users.

100. In India, the maximum amount of rainfall is received from -

A. Western Disturbances
 B. North-East Monsoon

C. South-West Monsoon

D. Retreating Monsoon

Ans. C

The average annual rainfall is 300–650 millimetres, but much more unreliable than the rest of
India, with the southwest monsoon accounting for most of the rainfall. India receives southwest
monsoon winds in summer and northeast monsoon winds in winter. The southwest monsoon
is caused by the intense low-pressure system formed over the Tibetan Plateau. The Northeast
Monsoon is associated with high-pressure cells over the Tibetan and Siberian plateaus.

101. Which set of the following Biosphere Reserves in India is included in the World
Network of Biosphere Reserves?

A. Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Simlipal

B. Gulf of Mannar, Kanchanjunga, Nokrek and Seshachalam

C. Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Panna

D. Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Seshachalam

Ans. A

The UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) covers internationally

designated protected areas. The WNBR has more than 650 Biosphere Reserves in 120
countries. 10 Biosphere Reserves from India have been included in the list of World Network
of Biosphere Reserves -

1. Nilgiri
2. Gulf of Mannar
3. Sunderban
4. Nanda Devi
5. Nokrek
6. Pachmarhi
7. Similipal
8. Achanakmar-Amarkantak
9. Great Nicobar
10. Agasthyamala

102. Which of the following statements about magnetite ore of iron is/are correct?

1. It is known as black ore.

2. It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron.

3. It possesses magnetic properties.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

Magnetite is one of the main iron ores, with the chemical formula Fe3O4. It is one of the
oxides of Iron and is ferromagnetic. It is attracted to a magnet and can be magnetized to
become a permanent magnet itself. It is the most magnetic of all the naturally-occurring
minerals on Earth. Magnetite is known as Black Ore. It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron.
Magnetite (Fe 3O4) ore possesses magnetic properties.

103. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in Blood Clotting -

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin E

D. Vitamin K

Ans. D

Vitamin K acts as an essential cofactor for a carboxylase that catalyzes the

carboxylation of Glutamic Acid, that residues on Vitamin K dependent proteins.

Major Vitamin K dependent proteins include:

• Coagulation Proteins: Factor II (prothrombin), VII, IX and X.

• Anticoagulation Proteins: Proteins C, S and Z.

Together, this vitamin quartet, i.e. (Vitamin A, D, E & K) helps to keep your eyes, skin,
lungs, gastrointestinal tract and nervous system in good shape. Here are some other
essential roles of these vitamins -
 • Bone formation would be impossible without vitamins A, D, and K.
• Vitamin A also helps keep cells healthy and protects your eyesight.
• Without vitamin E, your body will have difficulty absorbing and storing vitamin
A.
• Vitamin E also acts as an antioxidant.

104. The term `Probiotic' is applied to -

A. Organic food

B. Antacid

C. Antibiotic

D. Live microbial food supplement

Ans. D

The term 'Probiotic' is applied to supplement microbial food. These are living micro-organisms
that provide health benefits when consumed. Probiotics are living bacteria and yeast that are
good for you, especially for your digestive system. We usually think of these germs that cause
diseases. But your body is full of bacteria, both good and bad. Probiotics are often called
"Good" or "Supportive" bacteria because they help keep your gut healthy.

105. Which one of the following microbes causes acidification and curding of milk?

A. Lactic Acid Bacillus

B. Clostridium botulinum

C. Vibrio Cholerae

D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Ans. A

Lactic Acid Bacillus causes acidification and curdling of milk. If ferments lactose to lactic acid
and other end products. When Lactococcus Lactis is added to milk, the bacterium uses an
enzyme to produce energy (ATP) from lactose. The by-product of ATP production is Lactic
Acid. Lactic Acid turns milk into curd, which is then separated to make curd, which is used to
make cheese and whey.

106. Who among the following shared the Nobel Prize in 1962 along with Francis Crick
and James Watson for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic
acids?

A. Erwin Chargaff
 B. Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins

C. Rosalind Franklin

D. Phoebus Levene

Ans. B
The 1962 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded jointly to Francis Harry
Compton Crick, James Dewey Watson and Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins for their
discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids and its importance for
information transfer in living materials. "

107. Water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes because

A. the air pressure is less

B. outside temperature is less

C. latent heat is less

D. None of the above

Ans. A

High-Altitude cooking is the opposite of Pressure Cooking in that the boiling point of water is
lower at higher altitudes due to the decreased atmospheric pressure. This often requires an
increase in cooking times or temperature and alterations of recipe ingredients.

108. Concave Mirror is used in headlights of vehicles because it

A. focuses light from the bulb onto nearby vehicles

B. sends parallel rays

C. fits well into the shape of the headlight

D. is cheaper than other mirrors

Ans. B

When a lighted bulb is placed at the focus of the Concave Mirror Reflector, then Reflector of
the mirror turns the incoming rays from the source in the parallel direction.

That’s why it is used in vehicle headlights to send parallel rays because it allows light to be
focused as a single beam.

109. If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight
compared to its weight in the air?
 A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain exactly the same

D. Increase or decrease cannot be predicted

Ans. B

Weight of the object will decrease as compared to its weight in the air. This is because by
Archimedes’ Principle if an object is immersed in a fluid, it experiences an apparent loss of
weight which is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. All objects are immersed in the
buoyancy or high force of water experience. Even if the object is too heavy (denser than water)
to float, it will still experience a force.

110. Light year is a measure of –

A. time

B. distance

C. the total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year

D. the average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year

Ans. B

According to the International Astronomical Union (IAU), a light-year is a distance that light
travels in a vacuum in one Julian year (365.25 days). Because it includes the word "year", the
term light-year can be misinterpreted as a unit of time.

Astronomical units: 63241 au; 0.3066 pc. It is about 9.47 quadrillion metres or 5.9 trillion
miles.

111. Which one of the following statements about a satellite orbiting around the Earth is
correct?

A. Satellite is kept in orbit by remote control from the ground station.

B. Satellite is kept in orbit by retro-rocket, and solar energy keeps it moving around the
Earth.
 C. Satellite requires energy from solar panels and solid fuels for orbiting.

D. Satellite does not require any energy for orbiting.

Ans. C

Elliptical Geosynchronous Orbits are used in communications satellites to keep the satellite in
view of its assigned ground stations and receivers. The Solar Panel mounted on a satellite
provides continuous energy supply to satellites in orbit. Besides, the solid fuels are also used
in times of crisis or when a satellite is under the shadow of the Earth

112. Which one of the following statements about energy is correct?

A. Energy can be created as well as destroyed.

B. Energy can be created but not destroyed.

C. Energy can neither 'be created nor destroyed.

D. Energy cannot be created but can be destroyed.

Ans. C

Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. This statement is stated in the ‘First Law
of Thermodynamics’ which is also known as Law of Conservation of Energy. Energy
can only be transferred from one form to another form.

The ‘Second Law of Thermodynamics’ states that disorder always increases in the
universe. After cleaning your room, it always has a tendency to get messy again. This
is a consequence of the second law. As the disorder increases in the universe, energy
changes to less useful forms. Thus, the efficiency of any process will always be less
than 100%.

The ‘ThirdLlaw of Thermodynamics’ tells us that all molecular movements stop at a

temperature we call absolute zero, or 0 Kelvin (-273oC). Since temperature is a measure
of molecular movement, there cannot be a temperature less than absolute zero. At this
temperature, there is no disorder in a complete crystal.

113. Step-up transformers are used for –

A. increasing Electrical Power

B. decreasing Electrical Power

 C. decreasing Voltage

D. increasing Voltage

Ans. D

The Step-Up Transformer increases the voltage from primary to secondary. Secondary
Winding has more windings than the primary winding. Step-up transformers are used in
transmission lines to replace the high voltage produced by the alternator. The power loss of a
transmission line is directly proportional to the square of the current flow through it.

114. Which one among the following waves carries the maximum energy per photon?

A. X-rays

B. Radio waves

C. Light waves

D. Microwaves

Ans. A

E = hf

E = Electric Filed

H = Planks Constant

F = Frequency

Therefore, if you increase the frequency of the wave, you get more energy per photon. Higher
frequency gamma rays are the maximum energy of photons than other photons in the
electromagnetic spectrum. This is followed by X-rays, UV rays, Light Waves, Infrared,
Microwave and Radio waves.

The correct option is A. Thus, X-rays is used by the diagnostic centre for imaging our teeth and
bones.

115. How much CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg of carbon?

(a) 11/3 kg

(b) 3/11 kg

(c) 4/3 kg
(d) 3/4 kg

Ans. A

CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg of carbon: { C + O2 → CO2 }

= 12 g of C on heating produces
= 44 g of CO2
Or
12
= 1000 kg of C produces
44
= 1000 kg of CO2

44 1000
1kg of C produces = 1000 × kg of CO2
12

11
= 3 kg ans.

116. Zinc is used to protect the iron from corrosion because zinc is -

A. more electropositive than iron

B. cheaper than iron

C. a bluish-white metal

D. a good conductor of heat and electricity

Ans. A

Zinc metal is used to protect the iron from corrosion because Zinc is more
electropositive than iron. The process of Coating the iron surface by zinc is called
Galvanisation. Zinc metal present on the surface of iron forms a thin protective layer of
basic Zinc Carbonate due to the reaction between Zinc, Oxygen, CO2 and moisture in
the air. Since, the standard reduction potential of zinc is less than iron, hence iron will
not undergo corrosion.

117. Which one of the following gases is placed second in respect of abundance in the
Earth's atmosphere?

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Nitrogen
 D. Carbon dioxide

Ans. A

According to NASA, gases in the Earth's atmosphere include:

• Nitrogen - 78 percent.
• Oxygen - 21 percent.
• Argon - 0.93 percent.
• Carbon dioxide - 0.04 percent.
• Amounts of neon, helium, methane, krypton and hydrogen, as well as water vapor.

118. Which one of the following is a chemical change?

A. Cutting of hair

B. Greying of hair naturally

C. Swelling of resin in water

D. Cutting of fruit

Ans. B

Cutting of hair, swelling of resin in water and cutting of fruit are physical change as these
processes involve only change in size.

Greying of hair naturally is an example of Chemical Change.

119. Which one among the following chemicals is used as washing soda?

A. Calcium carbonate

B. Calcium bicarbonate

C. Sodium carbonate

D. Sodium bicarbonate

Ans. C

Sodium carbonate, Na₂CO₃, commonly known as Washing Soda, is the inorganic

compound with the formula Na₂CO₃ and its various hydrates.
It's all forms are white. Water-soluble salts have a strongly alkaline taste and give
moderately alkaline solutions in water. Historically it was extracted from the ashes of
plants growing in sodium-rich soils.

120. Why is potassium permanganate used for purifying drinking water?

A. It kills germs

B. It dissolves the impurities

C. It is a reducing agent

D. It is an oxidizing agent

Ans. D

Potassium permanganate (KMnO4) is used for purifying water and treat stinking wells.
It is an inorganic chemical compound and also used as an oxidizing agent, for cleaning
wounds and Dermatitis.
KMnO4 is a salt consisting of K and MnO4 ions.

121. Consider the following movements :

1. Moplah Rebellion
2. Bardoli Satyagraha
3. Champaran Satyagraha
4. Salt Satyagraha

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above in ascending order?

A. 1-3-4-2 B. 3-1-2-4
C. 2-3-1-4 D. 4-2-1-3
Ans. B

Sol-

The farmer of Champaran, Bihar used to follow the "Panchkathiya" system, (5 katthas of land in a
bigha had to be planted with indigo), which was later forcefully transitioned into "Tinkathiya" system
(3 katthas of land in a bigha was to be planted with indigo). Gandhiji started his first Satyagraha here
for the rights of the peasants in 1917.

The Muslims peasants were known as Moplahs in Kerala. Moplah Rebellion, also known as the
Malabar Rebellion, was an extended version of the Khilafat Movement in Kerala in 1921. Important
leaders associated with this rebellion were -Variyankunnath Kunjahammed Haji and Ali Musliyar.
The farmers of Bardoli, Gujarat protested against the unjust raising of taxes in late 1928 and this is
called ‘The Bardoli Satyagraha’. The movement was led by Sardar Vallabhai Patel.

Gandhiji started a mass Civil Disobedience Movement initiated against the salt tax imposed by the
British government. This came to be known as the Salt Satyagrah. On 12th March 1930, Gandhiji
started his march from Sabarmati Ashram till Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat, and on 6th April 1930,
he along with other followers broke the salt law by producing salt from seawater.

122. Which one of the following travelogues has given an insight into the reign of Muhammad Bin
Tughlaq?

A. Ibn Battuta’s Rihla

B. Francois Bernier’s Travels in the Mogul Empire
C. Niccolo Manuccis Storm do Mogor
D. Tavernier Travels in India

Ans. A

Sol-

Ibn Battuta reached Delhi in 1334 from Afghanistan, during the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq of
Tughlaq dynasty.

Ibn Batutta, in his book ‘Rihla’, wrote extensively about the society, culture and administration of
Delhi Sultanate under Muhammad Bin Tughlaq.

He wrote about the punishments and tortures given to rebels. He also wrote about bribe that was
demanded by the officers. It is through his note that we come to know about the famine that spread
in Delhi around 1335 AD which took thousands of lives. In his book, he also talks about Qutb complex,
Quwat al-Islam Mosque and Qutb Minar.

123. Which one of the following was not a Chishti Sufi saint?

A. Khwaja Moinuddin
B. Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar
C. Nizamuddin Auliya
D. Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya

Ans. D

Sol-
Shaikh Baha-ud-din Zakariya was born in 1170 and is the founder of the Sufi order, Shurawardiyah
Silsila. He completed his spiritual training under Sheikh-ul-Shauookh Shahab-ud-din Shurawardi of
Baghdad and became his khalifah (chief disciple).

Khwaja Muin-ud-Din Chishti founded the Sufi order, Chishti Silsila. He came to India along with
Mahmud of Ghazni. His important disciples were - Nizamuddin Auliya (also known as ‘Chirag-i-Delhi’),
Bakhtiyar Kaki and his Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar.

124. In April 2017, India celebrated 100 years of Mahatma Gandhi’s -

A. Satyagraha in Kheda
B. Dandi March
C. Satyagraha in Champaran
D. Return from South Africa

Ans. C

Sol-

The farmer of Champaran, Bihar used to follow the "Panchkathiya" System, (5 katthas of land in a
bigha had to be planted with indigo) which was later forcefully transitioned into "Tinkathiya" System
(3 katthas of land in a bigha was to be planted with indigo). Gandhiji started his first Satyagrah here
for the rights of the peasants in 1917.

A cultivator Rajkumar Shukla persuaded Gandhiji to visit Champaran. However, local authorities tried
to dissuade him, and he was charged with violating the law and was told to leave Champaran, but he
was adamant on enquiring into the matter. His Satyagrah in Champaran led to abolishing of
exploitative Tinkathia system.

125. A rainbow is produced due to which one of the following phenomena?

A. Dispersion of light
B. Interference of light
C. Diffraction of light
D. Scattering of light by atmospheric dust
Ans. A

Sol-

A Rainbow is produced due to Dispersion of light by tiny water droplets present in the atmosphere.
The suspended water droplets in the atmosphere serve as a prism and refract the light.

The visible light is a collection of 7 colours. Upon passage through the prism, the light is separated into
its component colours namely - Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo and Violet. The process of
separation of white light into its component colours is known as “Dispersion”.
126. Bats detect obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected -

A. Infrasonic waves
B. Ultrasonic waves
C. Radio waves
D. Microwaves

Ans. B

Sol-

Ultrasonic Waves are sound waves having a frequency above 20,000 Hz. They are inaudible to human
ears.

They are widely used in Communication devices, Medical application, in Defense equipment and other
industries.

Bats use Ultrasonic Waves to navigate and catch prey. They emit Ultrasonic Waves while moving at
high speed and in pitch darkness. When the sounds are reflected back, bats sense it and can trace the
prey.

127. The statement that ‘heat cannot flow by itself from a body at a lower temperature to a body
at a higher temperature’, is known as

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

Ans. C

Sol-

There are 4 basic laws of Thermodynamics.

The 2nd law of Thermodynamics state that- “heat transfer occurs spontaneously only from a body at
higher temperature towards lower temperature”. It states that the final entropy of the system must
be greater than or identical to the initial entropy. Entropy is a measure of the amount of disorder
within a system.

128. Which one of the following waves does not belong to the category of the other three?

A. X-rays B. Microwaves
 C. Radio waves D. Sound waves
Ans. D

Sol-

Micro wave, Visible light, Infrared, Ultraviolet, Gamma Rays, X-ray and Radio Waves are
Electromagnetic Waves. They don’t need a medium to propagate and can travel through a vacuum.

However, Sound Wave is a longitudinal, mechanical wave needs a medium to propagate and cannot
travel through a vacuum.

129. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Human eye is a refracting system containing a diverging lens.

B. The retina of the human eye contains millions of light-sensitive cells, called rods and
cones, which convert the light into electrical messages.
C. Every image that is focused on the retina is upside down.
D. We need both eyes to judge the relative positions of objects accurately.

Ans. A

Sol-

The Human Eye lens is thicker at the centre than at the edges and thus act as a convex lens which
converges the light rays on the retina of the eyes and produces an inverted real image.

Both eyes are required for stereopsis. Stereopsis or stereoscopic depth perception is the ability of
both eyes to see the same object as one image and to create a perception of depth. It is a measure of
binocular visual function, i.e. how well both eyes work together

130. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Ultrasonic Waves cannot get reflected, refracted or absorbed.

B. Ultrasonic Waves are used to detect the presence of defects like cracks, porosity, etc. in
the internal structure of common Structure materials.
C. Ultrasonic Waves can be used for making holes in very hard materials like Diamond.
D. Ultrasonic Waves cannot travel through a vacuum.

Ans. A

Sol-

When an Ultrasonic Wave transmits from one material/medium to another having different indices of
refraction, then due to the different velocities of the waves within the two materials/medium both
reflected and refracted waves are produced.
Certain Gases (like CO2, N2, H2) and liquid absorb the Ultrasound Energy which as a result increases
their temperature.

131. According to the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) 2017 released by the World
Economic Forum, among the 136 economies across the world, India ranked

A. 50th B. 40th
C. 30th D. 20th
Ans. B

Sol-

Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index released by the World Economic Forum (WEF) ranks 136
countries based on 14 dimensions. It measures a set of factors and policies that enable sustainable
development of the travel and tourism sector, which in turn, contributes to the development and
competitiveness of a country

Top 5 ranked Countries are:

1. Spain
2. France
3. Germany
4. The United Kingdom
5. The United States

India is placed at 40th position among the 136 countries, a 12 place jump from earlier 52nd position in
2015 Index.

132. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Health Day, 2017, celebrated by the
World Health Organization?

A. Diabetes
B. Food Safety
C. Depression : Let’s Talk
D. Ageing and Health

Ans. C

Sol-

World Health Awareness Day celebrated by the World Health Organization (WHO) each year on 7 th
April. This year’s theme was- “Depression: Let’s Talk”.

WHO’s a year-long campaign –“Depression: let’s talk focus” is on depression, that is touted to be one
of the main reasons behind mental illnesses across the world. The campaign ends on 10 October.

133. Which one of the following Ministries has launched a new programme on interdisciplinary
Cyber-Physical Systems (ICPS) to foster and promote R&D?
 A. Ministry of Earth Sciences
B. Ministry of Science and Technology
C. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
D. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Ans. B

Sol-

Department Of Science & Technology under the aegis of Ministry Of Science And Technology has
recently launched a new programme “Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (ICPS)” to foster and
promote R&D in this emerging field of research.

A Cyber-Physical System (CPS) is a mechanism controlled or monitored by computer-based

algorithms, tightly integrated with internet and its users. It is an engineered system that is built from
and depends upon, the seamless integration of computational algorithms and physical components.

In general, Cyber means computation, communication and control that are discrete and logical.
Physical means natural and human-made systems governed by the laws of physics and operating in
continuous time. Computing and communication systems bridges with the physical world are referred
to as Cyber-Physical Systems. CPS are physical and engineered systems whose operations are
monitored, coordinated, controlled and integrated by a computing and communication core.

134. Consider the following statements about the Nagara style of temple architecture:

1. This style of temples is commonly found in the areas between Himalayas and Vindhyas.
2. The most striking feature of this style is its pyramidal Shikhara.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. A

Sol-

North Indian Temple, is also known as Nagara styles of the temple are commonly found in the areas
between Himalayas and Vindhyas and had developed into various sub-styles viz. Odisha School,
Solanki School, and Khajuraho School.

Salient Feature :

• Temples are built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.

 • Temples have more than one Shikhara, and the Shikhara of the temple is gradually inclining
inwards forming a convex curve.
• Shikhara is capped by a spheroid slab called Amalaka.
• The Garbhagriha is located under the tallest Shikhara.
• Prominent examples are Dashavatara temple in Deogarh, Vishwanatha temple and Lakshman
Temple in Khajuraho and Jagannath Temple in Puri.

135. Ashoka’s connection with Buddhism is evident from which one of the following edicts -

A. Major Rock Edict - XIII

B. Rock Edict - VI
C. Minor Rock Edict - I
D. Pillar Edict - IV
Ans. C

Sol-

The Edicts of Ashoka have been broadly classified into:

• Major Rock Edicts (total 14)

• Minor Rock Edicts
• Pillar Edicts (total 7)

Minor Rock Edict - I talk about Ashoka becoming a lay-disciple, his visits to the Sangha and his inclusion
in Buddhist Sangha.

Minor Rock Edict – II talks about Promotion of Dhamma.

Minor Rock Edict - III talks about Buddhist Sangha.

136. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a –

A. Federation
B. Confederation
C. Unitary form of Government
D. Union of States

Ans. A

Sol-

Cabinet Mission sent by British PM C.R Attlee was composed of three Cabinet Ministers Sir Pethick
Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and Alexander. The mission reached India on March 24, 1946.

Recommendations of Cabinet Mission:

 • The Union of India so formed would deal with the defence, foreign affairs and
communications.
• A federal structure for Indian Union and turned down the Muslim league’s demand for a
separate Pakistan.
• Residuary powers would be vested in the provinces and similar provision for Princely states.
• A Constituent Assembly to be formed composed of the representatives of the Provincial
Assemblies and the Princely states.
• Opposed the Communal representation
• Interim cabinet would comprise of only India.

137. The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by -

A. Law Commission
B. Santhanam Committee
C. Shah Commission
D. Administrative Reforms Commission

Ans. D

Sol-

In November 1965, the Government of India headed by Lal Bahadur Shastri announced its intention
of setting up an Administrative Reforms Commission to conduct a comprehensive examination of
public administration in India.

The Commission was formally constituted in January 1966 with Morarji Desai as its chairman. In
1970, at the end of the prescribed term of the Commission, the Commission consisted of K.
Hanumanthaiya (Chairman) and four other members.

The main recommendation regarding Grievance Redressal Machinery was –

“two-tier machinery to redress the grievances of public, i.e. Lokpal and Lokayukta”

The Lokpal should deal with complaints against Ministers and Secretaries of Central Government
as well as in the States. The Lokayukta, one for the Centre and one in each State, should attend
complaints against the rest of the bureaucracy.

138. Which one of the following is a cause of acid rains?

A. Ozone
B. Ammonia
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Carbon monoxide
Ans. C

Sol-

The main causative factor of Acid Rain is Sulfur dioxide and Nitrogen oxides.

The primary source of these oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen are emissions from industries and
combustion of fossil fuel. They rise into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen,
and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants and fall on the surface along with precipitation.

139. The desirable range of pH for drinking water is

A. 6.5 to 8.5 B. 5.0 to 6.5

C. 6.5 to 7.0 D. 7.0 to 8.5

Ans. A

Sol-

In a ‘Background document for development of WHO Guidelines for Drinking-water Quality’, WHO has
concluded that-“Although pH usually has no direct impact on water consumers, it is one of the most
important operational water quality parameters.

Careful attention to pH control is necessary at all stages of water treatment to ensure satisfactory
water clarification and disinfection. For effective disinfection with chlorine, the pH should preferably
be less than 8. The optimum pH will vary in different supplies according to the composition of the
water and the nature of the construction materials used in the distribution system, but is often in the
range 6.5–9.5”

In the same document, it has described that-“The pH of most raw water lies within the range 6.5–8.5.
In pure water, a decrease in pH of about 0.45 occurs as the temperature is raised by 25 °C. In water
with a buffering capacity imparted by bicarbonate, carbonate, and hydroxyl ions, this temperature
effect is modified”.

140. Consider the following reaction:

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

Which of the following about the reaction given above is/are correct?

1. Carbon is oxidized.
 2. Hydrogen is oxidized.
3. Hydrogen is reduced.
4. Carbon is reduced.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only D. 2 and 4 only

Ans. B

Sol- CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

The above reaction is the combustion reaction of Methane. It is an exothermic reaction and generates
approx. 803 kJ of energy per mole.

It is a Redox Reaction where the methane gets oxidised, and oxygen gas gets reduced. Here Oxygen is
the oxidising agent, and methane is a reducing agent.

It should be noted that methane is a greenhouse and if released into the atmosphere before it is
burned is harmful to the environment as it traps heat. However, Methane is the cleanest burning fossil
fuel. It produces more heat and energy by mass in comparison to other hydrocarbons, or fossil fuel.

141. Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about how many hours before the sunrise in
western Gujarat -

A. One hour B. Two hours

C. Three hours D. Four hours

Ans. B

Sol-

Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be approx. 2 hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat.

The eastern-most district of Arunachal Pradesh is Anjaw whose eastern boundary is located till 98°24’E
longitude (say 98° E) whereas the western-most district of Gujarat is Kutch and is located till at 68°72’
E (say 68° E).
So the longitudinal difference between both the places is around 30° which translates to 2 hours’ time
difference (since 15° amounts to 1-hour time change).

142. Consider the following States of India in terms of percentage of forest area in relation to the
total area of the State:

1. Karnataka
2. Odisha
3. Kerala
4. Andhra Pradesh

Which one of the following is the correct descending order?

A. 1-2-4-3 B. 3-1-2-4
C. 3-2-1-4 D. 2-3-1-4

Ans. B

Sol-

States/Uts Geographical area Forest Cover (Area in Percent of geographical

in km2 km2) area
Andhra Pradesh 1,60,204 24,424 15.25
Karnataka 1,91,791 36,421 18.99
Kerala 38,863 19,239 49.5
Odisha 1,55,707 50,354 32.34

143. Which one of the following States in India has the longest coastline?

A. Odisha B. Tamil Nadu

C. Karnataka D. West Bengal

Ans. B

Sol-

The nine coastal States and four Union Territories amount for a total 7,517 km of coastline for India.

The coastal states of India include- Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra
Pradesh, Odisha and West Bengal.

The coastal UTs include- Puducherry, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
The Indian coasts are broadly classified into Western coast, Eastern coast and Coast of Lakshadweep
and A&Nicobar Islands (22.6% of total coasts).

States-wise distribution of Coastline:

Gujarat 1915.29

Andhra Pradesh 1037

Tamil Nadu 864.73

Kerala 560

Maharashtra 510.31

Orissa 457.2

West Bengal 374

Karnataka 258.15

Goa 113.03

Daman & Diu —

Total 6089.71

144. Which one of the following States in India has the largest area under forest cover?

A. Maharashtra
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Andhra Pradesh

Ans. C

Sol-

States/Uts Geographical Forest Cover Percent of the

area (Area in km2) geographical
in km2 area
Andhra Pradesh 1,60,204 24,424 15.25
 Madhya 3,08,245 77,462 25.13
Pradesh
Chhattisgarh 1,35,191 55,586 41.12
Maharashtra 3,07,713 50,628 16.45

Madhya Pradesh is the 2nd largest state in the country with an area of 3,08,245 km2 and
according to India State of Forest Report 2015, the state has a total forest cover of 77,462
km2 . MP is followed by Arunachal Pradesh (67,248 km2), Chhattisgarh (55,586 km2),
Maharashtra (50,628 km2) and Orissa (50,354 km2).

145. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?

A. Gabbro B. Granite
C.Dolomite D. Basalt

Ans. C

Sol-

Igneous Rocks also known as Primary Rocks, are formed by solidification of magma (molten
rock below the surface) and lava (molten rock above the surface) that rise towards the
surface. Gabbro, Granite and basalt, are some common examples of igneous rocks.

Since these rocks are formed under high temperatures conditions thus they are
unfossiliferous. Igneous rocks are divided into two groups, intrusive or extrusive, depending
upon where the molten rock solidifies

Dolomite is made of Calcium Magnesium Carbonate and is an example of Sedimentary Rock

that is organically formed. They are fossiliferous

146. The Coriolis effect is the result of –

A. Pressure gradient
B. Earth’s axis of inclination
C.Earth’s rotation
D. Earth’s revolution
Ans. C

Sol-

The Coriolis effect or the Coriolis force is a pseudo force that is defined as the apparent
deflection of objects (can be an airplane or even wind) moving in a straight path relative to
the earth’s surface. This deviation is the result of the earth’s rotation.

The Coriolis Effect is the result of the earth’s rotation. As the earth rotates about its axis in a
counter-clockwise direction, any object above the surface gets deflected towards right in
Northern Hemisphere and towards left in Southern Hemisphere because the earth is rotating
towards east.(refer the Image above)

Coriolis Effect increases as the latitude increases since the speed of the earth’s rotation
decreases.

147. Where is Mekong Delta located?

A. Thailand B. Cambodia
C.Myanmar D. Vietnam

Ans. D

Sol-

The Mekong River originates from China and flows through Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
before reaching Vietnam and flowing to the sea through the distributaries network. The river
is locally known as” Nine Dragon River” in Vietnam and forms a Delta in the South-West of
Vietnam.

Mekong delta is spread in an area of about 40,000 km2. And it is known as one of the widest
and richest deltas in ASEAN, in Vietnam, it is considered as the biggest granary of Vietnam
The Delta region is known as “The Rice Bowl” for it produces about half of the total of
Vietnam’s agricultural output.

148. Which one of the following pairs of rivers and tributaries is not correctly matched?

A. Godavari : Indravati
B. Ganga : Penganga
C.Krishna : Bhima
D. Luni : Sukri

Ans. B

Sol-

Important Right Bank Tributaries of Ganga River

Right Bank-

• Yamuna River
• Chambal River
• Banas River
• Sind River
• Betwa River
• Ken River
• Son River

Left Bank-

• Ramganga River
• Ghaghra River
• Kali River
• Gandak River
• Burhi Gandak
• Kosi River

Important Tributaries of Godavari river

Left Bank-

• Shivana
 • Purna
• Kadam
• Pranahita (formed by confluence of Penganga, Venganga and Wardha)
• Indravati
• Taliperu
• Sabari

Right Bank -

• Nasardi
• Darna
• Pravara
• Sindphana
• Manjira
• Manair
• Kinnerasani

149. Consider the following characteristics of a tropical cyclone:

1. A warm sea temperature of > 26oC

2. High relative humidity of atmosphere at a height of > 700 m
3. Atmospheric instability

The above-mentioned characteristics are associated with which one of the following cycles of its
development?

A. Formulation and initial stage

B. Modification stage
C.Full maturity
D. Decay

Ans. A

Sol-

Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas and are
generally associated with heavy rainfall and storm surge.

These cyclones move anti-clockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the
southern hemisphere because of Coriolis force.
Favourable Conditions for Tropical Cyclone Formation-

• Large sea surface with the temperature near 27° C,

• Presence of the Coriolis force (this is the reason tropical cyclone are not found near
equators)
• A pre-existing Atmospheric instability (like thunderstorms – that seed the cyclones) in
the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
• A pre-existing weak low-pressure area and a divergence area above the sea level
system,
• Source of moisture which feeds the storm (provided by sea). The condensation of
moisture releases enough latent heat of condensation to drive the storm.

150. In the Mesopotamian records, which one of the following terms was used for the Indus
Valley (Harappans)?

A. Dilmun B. Meluha
C.Magan D. Failaka

Ans. B

Sol- Ancient Mesopotamian Sumer civilization’s records speak about their trade relations with
the other neighbouring civilizations. It speaks of ships coming from Dil-mun, Makan and
Meluha or Melukhkha.

Ancient Dil-mun or Tilmun, is linked with the current island of Bahrain, is said to be the
clearing-house for goods bound for Sumer from the east.

The text speaks of ships from Makan and Meluha which brought copper and implements in
huge quantities – carnelian, ivory, shell, lapis lazuli, pearls, spices, etc. These materials are
specifically associated with the contemporary Indus Civilization. Thus it had been affirmed
that Makan and Meluha describe the ‘Indus civilization’.