Tanishka SPM Mcqs Final

KIET GroupofInstitutions
Mechanical Engineering
B.TechSemester
SPM Question Bank, (2020-2021) EVEN Semester
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
In Software Project Management. the end users and developers require to know
the
A. cost of the project
B. duration
C. Length
D. All the above
ANSWER: D
Whatis the first step in Project Planning? Select one:

A. Determine the budget.
B. Select team organizational model.
C. Establish the objectives and scope.
D. Determine the project constraints.
ANSWER: C
Project Objectives should be SMART means

A. specified. measurable. achievable. relevance and time constrained
B. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant and time constrained
C. specified, measurable. achievable. relevant and time constrained
D. specific, measure, achievable, relevance and time constrained
ANSWER: B
Scanned with CamScanner

The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks and re-
sources, identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets for a specific
project is known as...
A. project management.
B. Software
C. Process
D. Activities
ANSWER: A
Payback Period for the project according to given data:- Cash Flows are
(-1,20.000/- for 0 year,20,000/- for Ist year, 40.000/- for 2nd year, 60,000/- for
3rd year, 70.000/- for 4th year) will be
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
ANSWER: C
What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness,
and
A. Consistency
B. Correctness
C. Concurrency
D. Noneof these
ANSWER: A
A software project that meetsall the given objectives is a success of

A.Project fundamental purpose
B. Project quality
C. Project requirement
D. Project management
ANSWER: D
is not an effective software project management focus.
A. people
B. product
C. process
popularity
ANSWER: D
is not a project manager’s activity.

A. project design
B. project management
C. project planning
D. project control
ANSWER: A
The is not an approach to software cost estimation?

A.Analytical
B. Critical
C. Empirical
D. Heuristic
ANSWER: B
Whatis the process each managerfollows during the life of a project is known as
A. Project Management
B. Project ManagementLife Cycle
C. Managerlife cycle
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: B
Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

A. customers
B. project manager
team
D. project
ANSWER:D
What should be done by the project managerto ensure that all work in the project
is included?
A. Create a contingency plan
B. Create a risk management plan
C. Create a WBS
D. Create sql queries
ANSWER: C
What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for

project completion?
A. Scope verification
B. Completing a scope statement
C. Scope definition
D. Process Management in OS
ANSWER: B
Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gath-

ered through a/an
A. Elicitation process
B. Interviewing
C. Meeting
D. None of given
ANSWER: A
Whichofthe following are valid step in SDLC framework?

A. Requirement Gathering
B. System Analysis
C. Software Design
D. All of them
ANSWER: D
Which model is being preferred when more focus on risks and their handling
A. Spiral Model
B. Prototype model
C. Iterative Model
D. V model
ANSWER: A
Waterfall model is not suitable for:

A. Small projects
B. Complex projects
C. Accommodating changes
D. Maintenance Projects
ANSWER: C
Before actual software development begins, this model requires to build the toy
implementationofit.
A. Spiral Model
B. Prototype Model
C. Waterfall Model
D. Evolutionary Model
ANSWER: B
The major drawback of RAD modelis

A.It requires highly skilled developers/designers.
B. It necessitates customer feedbacks.
C. It increases the component reusability.
D.It requires highly skilled developers/designers and also increases the compo-
nent reusability.
ANSWER: D
User requirements are expressed as in Extreme Programming.

A. Functionalities
B. Scenarios
C. Implementation tasks
D. Noneof the above
ANSWER: B
Agile software development is based on ?

A.Iterative development
B. Incremental development
C. Linear development
D. Both incremental and iterative development
ANSWER: D
How many phasesare there in Scrum?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Scrum is an agile method which meansit does not have phases
ANSWER: B
In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W.

Boehm?
A. Putnam model
B. COCOMO
C. Botha & b
D. Noneof the above
ANSWER: B
Whichone of the following function points is most suitable for use in embedded
system developmentprojects?
A. IFGUPfunction points
B. MarkII function points
C. COSMIC function points
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
RADstandsfor
A. Relative Application Development
B. Rapid Application Development
C. Rapid Application Document
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER: B
Which oneof the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

A. Quick Design
B. Coding
C. Prototype Refinement
D. Engineer Product
ANSWER: B
SDLCstands for
A. Software Development Life Cycle
B. System DevelopmentLife cycle
C. Software Design Life Cycle
D. System Design Life Cycle
ANSWER: A
Which model can beselected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
A. Waterfall Model
B. Prototyping Model
C. RAD Model
D. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
ANSWER:C
In the Analysis phase, the developmentof the occurs, whichis a

clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
A. documentation
B. flowchart
C. program specification
D. design
ANSWER: C
Actual programming of software code is done during the step in
the SDLC.
A. Maintenance and Evaluation
B. Design
C. Analysis
D. Development and Documentation
ANSWER:D
is the process oftranslating a task into a series of commandsthat

a computer will use to perform that task.
A. Project design
B. Installation
C. Systemsanalysis
D. Programming
ANSWER: D
Selection of a model is based on

A. Requirements
B. Development team & Users
C. Project type and associated risk
ANSWER:D
Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
A. Waterfall & RAD
B. Prototyping & Spiral
C. Prototyping & RAD
D. Waterfall & Spiral
ANSWER:B
Whichof the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team
has less experience on similar projects?
A. Spiral
B. Waterfall
C. RAD
D. Iterative Enhancement Model
ANSWER: A
Choose the correct option from the following statements?
A. CPManalysisis activity oriented
B. In CPM,the timeis related to cost
C. PERTanalysis is event oriented
D. All of the above
ANSWER:D
Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles
ANSWER: B
Monte Carlo simulation is

A. static
B. dynamic
C. static or dynamic
D. none
ANSWER: A
Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earli-
est finishing time for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the
earliest starting time for Y?
10
15
EP
D. Cannot be determined
ANSWER: B
Slack time in PERTanalysis

A. Can neverbe less than zero
B. Is minimum forcritical events
C. Can neverbe less than zero
D. Can never be greater than zero
ANSWER: B
Mark the wrong statement.

A. Forward pass calculations yield the earliest and the latest start and finish times
of various activities.
B. The difference between the latest and the earliest finish timesis the total slack
C. Backward pass determinesthe latest start and the latest finish
D. Determination of the earliest and the latest start time of various activities of a
project is useful for proper planning of their execution.
ANSWER: B

A. CPM analysis is activity oriented
B. In CPM,the timeis related to cost
C. PERT analysis is event oriented
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Andrew is a Project Manager for Green Valley project. A risk management plan
has been prepared for the project. Which of the following should Andrew do
next?
A. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
B. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
C. Identify risks
D. Plan Risk responses
ANSWER: C
PERTtechnique of network analysis is mainly useful for

A. Small projects
B. Deterministic activities
C. Large and complex projects
D. Research and developmentprojects
ANSWER: C
Whatassess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you
learn more about the risk?

A. Risk monitoring
B. Risk planning
C. Risk analysis
D.Risk identification
ANSWER: A
Amongthe following,critical path and slack time analysis most help

A. managersdefine the project activities.
B. highlight relationships among project activities.
C. point out whois responsible for variousactivities.
D. pinpoint activities that need to be closely watched.
ANSWER: D
Whatis the earliest start time rule?

A. It comparesthe activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
B. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
C. It directs when a project can start.
D. It regulates when a project must begin.
ANSWER: B
What happens whena project is scheduled by CPM?

A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequenceof variousactivities is made according to their importance
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Whichoneof the followingstatements regarding critical paths in a PERT chart is

true?
A. A critical path through a PERT chart is any path through the chart that contains
the least number of edges.
B. Some activities on the critical path can have slack.
C. Every PERT chart has exactly onecritical path.
D.It is possible that in the PERT chart for a project, there can be multiple critical
paths. all having exactly the same duration.
ANSWER: D
Risk managementis one of the most important jobs for a
A. Client
B. Investor
C. Production team
D. Project manager
ANSWER: D
Your actual cost is 145 and your earned value is 170. What is your cost variance?
A. 25
B. -25
ANSWER: A
The difference between budget at completion and estimate at completion is

called...
A. Difference at Completion
B. Deficit at Completion
C. Variance at Completion
D. Managementreserve
ANSWER: C
This activity is undertaken once the developmentactivities start?

A. Project Monitoring and Control
B. Project size estimation
C. Project cost estimation
D. Project Planning
ANSWER: A
Whatdoes a SPI value of 1 mean?

A. The index value = | refers to the first version of the schedule plan
B. The project is behind the planned schedule
C. The project is in line with the planned schedule
D. The project is ahead of the planned schedule
ANSWER: C
Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These

include
A. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
B. A separate configuration management team for each project
C. Software Configuration Managementdistributed among the project members
ANSWER: A
Whyis software difficult to build?

A. Controlled changes
B. Lack of reusability
C. Lack of monitoring
ANSWER: C
Whichof the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A. Configuration item identification
B. Risk management
C. Release management
D. Branch management
ANSWER: B
Calculate the estimate at completion based on the current cost performance index
for the following situation: AC=1150; EV=1000: BAC=2000
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER: A
do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

A. Gantt charts
B. Ball charts
C. Slip charts
D. Timeline
ANSWER: A
This activity is undertaken once the developmentactivities start?

D. Project Planning
ANSWER: A
for the following situation: AC=1150; EV=1000; BAC=2000
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER: A
The cumulative earned value is 40 with cumulative actual cost of 60. The budget
at completion is 400. What is your current to-complete-performance index?
A. 1.0588
15
C. 0.9444
D. 1.2841
ANSWER: A
Your SPI is 0.8 and your CPI 1.1. Which of the following statements describes
the current project status correctly?
A. The project incurred higher cost than planned and is behind schedule
B. Theproject incurred less cost than planned and is ahead of the schedule
C. The project incurred higher cost than planned but is ahead of the schedule
D. The project incurred less cost than planned but is behind schedule
ANSWER: B
Whatis the variance at completion (VAC)?

A. AC - EV
B. BAC - EAC
C. EAC - BAC
D. EV - AC
ANSWER: B
The difference between budget at completion and estimate at completion is

called...
D. Managementreserve
ANSWER: C
This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

D. Project Planning
ANSWER: A
Your project is behind schedule but has a positive cost variance. Completing the
project in time is a top-priority. Which approach to calculate the estimate at com-
pletion do you choose?
A. Continue to use BAC as the project needs to meet the plan
B. Estimate at completion using SPI and CPI
C. Estimate at completion with top-down ETC
D. Do the operational project work rather than wasting time calculating a new
EAC
ANSWER: B
Yourproject controlling shows you actual cost of 500 and an earned value of 600.
Calculate the schedule performance index.
A. 0.8333
B.1
12
D. Not enoughdata provided to calculate the SPI
ANSWER: D
You are managing a project with a cumulative cost variance of -30 and you ex-
pect the project to perform at the budgeted rate. Which of the following state-
ments is true?
A. You expect your project to be completed within the budget
B. Your projected Variance at Completion is -30
C. You need to get a bottom-up ETC to determine your EAC
D. You should calculate the EAC considering CPI and SPI
ANSWER: B
Calculate the budget at completion based on the current cost performance index
for the following situation: AC=1150; EV=1000: EAC=2300
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER:C
In the Tuckman model, groupsat the stage develop

guidelines and standards of acceptable behaviour.
A. Norming
B. Adjourning
C. Forming
D. Storming
ANSWER: A
A virtual team is a collection of people who are separated

but still together closely.
A.Physically: think
B. Temporally: work
C. Geographically; work
D. Geographically. decide
ANSWER: C
The team-role whichis likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagina-
tion and creativity but may show disregard for practical detailsis:
A. Shaper
B. Team Worker
Specialist
D.Plant
ANSWER: D
Job Characteristics Model is proposed by

A. Hockman and Coldham
B. Hockman and Oldcham
C. Hackman and Oldham
D. Horkman and Olatham
ANSWER: C
Decision making needs

A. Priors
B. Likelihoods
C. Priors & Likelihoods
ANSWER: C
Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises requirelittle:

A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Monitoring
D. Corrective action
ANSWER: B
Reasons for the formation of groups include:

A. The provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behaviour.
B. The provision of protection for its membership.
C. The performanceof certain tasks which can be performed only through com-
bined efforts of individuals working together.
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Brainstorming as a problem-solving and decision-making technique:

A. Encourages communication
B. Involves everyone
C. Focuses the mind
D. All three of the above
ANSWER: D
Whichof the following is a disadvantage of functional project management orga-

nization?
A. Lack of motivation of project team members
B. Longerproject duration
C. Lack of focus on the project
D. All
ANSWER: D
Whichoftheseis not part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project manage-

ment?
A. Negotiation
B. Resource allocation
C. Customer expectations
D. Leadership
ANSWER: B
The risky-shift phenomenon meansthat there is a tendency for groups to make

decisions which are than those which individual
members would make.
A. Lessrisky
B. More conservative
C. Less consistent
D. Morerisky
ANSWER:D
Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?

A. Sharing ofactivity

B. Listening
C. Ambiguity
D. Politeness
ANSWER: C
Motivating the employeesis classified as

A. Informational role
B. Interpersonal role
C. Decisionalrole
D. Conceptualrole
ANSWER: B
The team-role whichis likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic

vision and accurate judgement but may also be overly critical is:
A. Team Worker
B. Monitor-Evaluator
C. Specialist
D. Shaper
ANSWER: B
A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role

has:
A. A line managementrelationship
B. Meaningful interactions
C. Daily contact
D. Regular appraisals
ANSWER: B
Which ofthe following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

A. A belief in shared aims and objectives.
B. A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objec-
tives.
C. The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
D. The open expression of feelings and disagreements.
ANSWER: B

A potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groupsis:
A. A tendency to develop attitudes which are hard to change
B. A tendency to focus on social activities which may reduce output
C. A tendency to see other groupsas rivals
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one?

A. It means that the structure will fail under load
B. It meansthat the structure will only support the actual load
C. It means that the structure will support more than the actual load
D. There is no relation between factor safety and load application
ANSWER:B
Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and

work division are known as:
A. formal groups
B. operational groups
C. informal groups
D. target groups
ANSWER: A
Whydoes architecture dictate organizational structure?

A. Architecture describes the structure of the system being developed which be-
comesengraved in the developmentproject structure
B. An implementation exhibitsan architecture if it conformsto the structural de-
cisions described by the architecture
C. Architecture may not describe structure as whole
D. Noneof the mentioned
ANSWER: A

Teams occur when a numberof people have and recog-
nise that their personal success is dependent on the success ofothers.
A. common goal
B. Similar jobs
C. The same manager
D. A shared work environment
ANSWER: A
Project Planning assists in
A. Facilitating communication
B. Development of the Project Plan
C. Execution of the Project Plan
D.all of the above
ANSWER: D
A includes a numberof activities that must be completed in someparticular

order, or sequence.
A. Process
B. Program
C. Project
D.all of the above
ANSWER: C
Project management (PM) is the application of to meet project require-

ments.
A. knowledge, skills, tools and techniques
B. skills, tools and techniques
C. knowledge, tools and techniques
D. knowledge, skills and techniques
ANSWER: A
Whichofthe following costs is not part of the total effort cost?

A. Costs of support staff
B. Costs of lunch time food
C. Costs of networking and communications
D. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
ANSWER:B
The Mangers use the acronym SMARTwhile goal setting. What does SMART
stand for?
A. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
B. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
C. suitable, measurable, actionable, reviewed, timely
D. standardised, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
ANSWER: B
Whichofthe following is not project managementgoal?

A. Keeping overall costs within budget
B. Delivering the software to the customerat the agreed time
C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
D. Avoiding customer complaints
ANSWER: D
Cost-Benefit Analysis
A. evaluates the tangible and non-tangible factors
B. comparesthe cost, with the benefits, of introducing a computer-based system
C. estimates the hardware and software costs
D.All of the above
ANSWER: D
Payback Period for the project according to given data:- Cash Flowsare
(-1,20,000/- for 0 year,20,000/- for 1st year, 40.000/- for 2nd year, 60,000/- for
3rd year, 70,000/- for 4th year) will be
A. 2 year
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
ANSWER: B
Calculate the net profit for the project according to given data:- Cash Flowsare(-
1,20,000/- for 0 year,20.000/- for Ist year, 40,000/- for 2nd year, 60,000/- for 3rd
year, 80,000/- for 4th year):-
A. 50,000/-
B. 60,000/-
C. 70,000/-
D. 80,000/-
ANSWER: D
What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity. completeness.
and
A. Consistency
B. Correctness
C. Concurrency
D. None of these
ANSWER: A
If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit
a project/productwithin a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which
model would youselect?
A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
C. RAD
D. Incremental
ANSWER: C
Whichtwo ofthe following models will not be able to give the desiredoutcome
if user’s participation is not involved?
A. Waterfall & Spiral
B. RAD & Spiral
C. RAD & Waterfall
D. RAD & Prototyping
ANSWER: D
Identifying and estimating all of the costs and benefits of carrying out the project
and operating the delivered application:
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Feasibility analysis
C. Technical analysis
D. Businessanalysis
ANSWER: A
comparesthe sensitivity of each factor ofproject profiles by varying

parameters whichaffect the project cost benefits
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Risk profiles
C. Business analysis
D. None
ANSWER: B
Includes the salaries and other employmentcosts of the staff in the development
project.
A. DevelopmentCost
B. Set up cost
C. Operational cost
D. None
ANSWER: A
Agile software development is based on ?

A. Iterative development
B. Incremental development
C. Linear development
D. Both incremental and iterative development
ANSWER: D
How manyphasesare there in Scrum?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Scrum is an agile method which meansit does not have phases
ANSWER: B

Earning secondary benefits like increased accuracy of a proposed system
A. Direct benefits
B. Indirect benefits
C. Intangible benefits
D. None
ANSWER: B
Purpose of process is to deliver software

A.in time
B. with acceptable quality
C. that is cost efficient
D. both in time & with acceptable quality
ANSWER: D
Whichare the types of requirements ?

A. Availabili
B. Reliability
C. Usability
ANSWER: D
Amongthe following,critical path and slack time analysis most help .................
A. managers define the project activities.
B. highlight relationships among project activities.
C. point out who is responsible for various activities.
D. pinpoint activities that need to be closely watched.
ANSWER: D
Whichofthe optionsis not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

A. Deadlines exist
B. Independentactivities
C. Too many workers may be required
D. Costly delay
ANSWER: B
Whatis the particular task performance in CPM known as?

A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract
ANSWER: C
Whatis the earliest start time rule?

A. It comparesthe activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
B. It comparesthe activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
C. It directs when a project canstart.
D.It regulates when a project must begin.
ANSWER: B
Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earli-
est finishing time for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the
earliest starting time for Y?
10
15
12
ANSWER: B

A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles
ANSWER: B

A.static
B. dynamic
C. static or dynamic
D. none
ANSWER: A

Whichoneof the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the
project activities into smaller tasks that are more meaningfully managed?
A. PERT chart
B. GANTT chart
C. Task networkrepresentation
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
ANSWER: D
PERT method differs from CPM in which one of the following aspects?
A. PERTusesstatistical time durations where as CPM uses deterministic time du-
rations.
B. PERT uses dummyactivities whereas CPM does not
C. PERTuses free float. whereas CPM usestotal float in critical path calcula-
tions.
D. PERTusesactivity on arc whereas CPM uses activity on node networks.
ANSWER: A
Risk managementis one of the most important jobs for a

A. Client
B. Investor
C. Production team
D.Project manager
ANSWER: D
Your schedule performance index is 0.8. Which of the following statements is

true?
A. The planned value exceeds the earned value by 0.8$
B. The project is ahead of schedule
C. The earned value exceeds the planned value by 0.8$
D. The project is behind schedule
ANSWER: D
Your project controlling shows you actual cost of 500 and an earned value of 600.
Calculate the schedule performance index.
A. 0.8333
B.1
12
O
D. Not enough data provided to calculate the SPI

ANSWER: D
You are managing a project with a cumulative cost variance of -30 and you ex-
pect the project to perform at the budgeted rate. Which of the following state-
ments is true?
ANSWER: B
for the following situation: AC=1150; EV=1000. BAC=2000
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER: A
The CPI is > 1. Which ofthe following statementsis true?

A. The project has a cost overrun compared to the plan
B. The project has incurred less cost than planned
C. The earned value is higher than the planned value
D. The cost and performanceare in line with the plan
ANSWER: B
What does a CPI of | indicate?

A. The project is in line with the planned budget
B. The actual cost exceed the earned value by 1
C. The index value = 1 refers to the first version of the cost plan
D. The project is ahead of the planned budget
ANSWER: A
The cumulative earned value is 40 with cumulative actual cost of 60. The budget
at completion is 400. What is your current to-complete-performance index?
A. 1.0588
1.5
C. 0.9444
D. 1.2841
ANSWER: A
Your SPI is 0.8 and your CPI 1.1. Which of the following statements describes
the current project status correctly?
B. The project incurred less cost than planned and is ahead of the schedule
ANSWER: B
What does a CPI of less than 1 tell you about the cost situation of your project?
A. Theproject will not be completed within the budget
B. The incurred cost are lower than the earned value
C. The project will be completed within the budget
D. The incurred cost are higher than the earned value
ANSWER: D
Whatis the variance at completion?

A. AC - EV
B. BAC - EAC
C. EAC - BAC
D. EV - AC
ANSWER: B
Teams occur when a numberof people have and recog-

nise that their personal success is dependent on the success of others.
A. common goal
B. Similar jobs
C. The same manager
ANSWER: A
Groups which are formed as the consequence oforganisational structure and

work division are known as:
A. formal groups
C. informal groups
D. target groups
ANSWER: A

A. It meansthat the structure will fail under load
B. It means that the structure will only support the actual load
C. It meansthat the structure will support more than the actual load
D. Thereis no relation between factor safety and load application
ANSWER: B
A potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groups is:

C. A tendency to see other groupsas rivals
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Whichofthe following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

B. Asense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objec-
tives.
ANSWER: B
A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role

has:
A. A line managementrelationship
C. Daily contact
ANSWER:B
The team-role whichis likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic

vision and accurate judgement but mayalso be overlycritical is:
A. Team Worker
C. Specialist
D. Shaper
ANSWER: B
Motivatingthe employeesis classified as

A. Informationalrole
C. Decisional role
D. Conceptual role
ANSWER:B

A. Sharing ofactivity
B. Listening
C. Ambiguity
D. Politeness
ANSWER: C
The risky-shift phenomenon meansthat there is a tendency for groups to make

decisions which are than those whichindividual
members would make.
A.Lessrisky
C. Less consistent
D. Morerisky
ANSWER: D
Ajay Kumar Garg Engineering College, Ghaziabad
Department of CSE
Multiple Choice Questions
Subject Name/ Subject Code: Software Project Management (KOE-068)
Year/Semester: VI
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
UNIT I - PROJECT EVALUATION AND PROJECT
PLANNING
Q1. In problem definition, the use of the project is
a. Clarified
b. Identified
c. Elaborated
d. Distinguished
Q2. The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks and resources,
identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets for a specific project is known as
… a. project management.
b. Software
c. Process
d. Activities
Q3) Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d) Avoiding costumer complaints.
Q4) Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project

management? a. Specification delays
b. Product competition
c. Testing
d. Staff turnover
Q5) You are working in Career Ride as a project manager. What will you do to minimize the
risk of software failure?
a. Request a large budget
b. You will increase the team size
c. Track progress
d. None of the above.
Q6) Boehm suggests an approach that addresses project objectives, milestones and schedules,
responsibilities, management and technical approaches and required resources, This principle is
called as ______.
a. W3HH principle
b. WHO principle
c. W5HH principle
Q7) Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four
P’s? a. People, performance, payment, product
b. People, product, process, project
c. People, product, performance, project
d. All of the above.
Ajay Kumar Garg Engineering College, Ghaziabad
Department of CSE
Multiple Choice Questions
Subject Name/ Subject Code: Software Project Management (KOE-068)
Year/Semester: VI
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
UNIT I - PROJECT EVALUATION AND PROJECT
PLANNING
Q1. In problem definition, the use of the project is
a. Clarified
b. Identified
c. Elaborated
d. Distinguished
Q2. The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks and resources,
identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets for a specific project is known as
… a. project management.
b. Software
c. Process
d. Activities
Q3) Which of the following is not project management goal?

Q4) Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project

management? a. Specification delays
b. Product competition
c. Testing
d. Staff turnover
Q5) You are working in Career Ride as a project manager. What will you do to minimize the
risk of software failure?
c. Track progress
Q6) Boehm suggests an approach that addresses project objectives, milestones and schedules,
responsibilities, management and technical approaches and required resources, This principle is
called as ______.
a. W3HH principle
b. WHO principle
c. W5HH principle
Q7) Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four
P’s? a. People, performance, payment, product
Q8) For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the phase the developers
decide a roadmap for project plan?
a. Software Design
b. System Analysis
c. Coding
d. Testing
Q9) Developing a technology is an example of

(a) Process
(b) Project
(c) Scope
(d) All of the above
Q10)) Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct
order
1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and
delivery a) 3-2-1-4
b) 1-2-3-4
c) 2-3-1-4
d) 4-3-2-1
Q11) Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

a) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
b) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
c) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
d) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer
Q12) Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
Q13) Arrange the following steps to form a basic Engineering Process

Model. 1. Test 2. Design 3. Install 4. Specification 5. Manufacture 6.
Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Q14) Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management

a) Risk Assessment
b) Risk Control
c) Risk Ranking
d) All of the above
Q15) Many organizations assert that using project management provides advantages, such
as ____.
a. lower profit margins

b. lower costs
c. less internal coordination
d. lower worker morale
16). ___ must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software
work. a) Project Managers
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End Users
17) Risk the combination of both the possibility of occurrence of adverse event and the impact
of such bad event. (True / False)
a) False
b) True
18. A ___ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same
requirement is implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
d) None of the above
19 ___ can take place at any time during the project, though the sooner the better. (Pick right
option)
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk management planning
c) Risk resolution
d) Risk prioritization
20. ACAT stands for ___.

a. Avoid, Control, Accept or Transfer
b.account,construct,accept or transfer
c.avoid,construct, accept or trasfer
d.none of them
21. The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting.What does SMART stand
for? a. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
b. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
c. suitable, measurable, actionable, reviewed, timely
d. standardized, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
22) A ___ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same
requirement is implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
Q23) __ can take place at any time during the project, though the sooner the better. (Pick right
option)
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk management planning
c) Risk resolution
d) Risk prioritization
Q24) _ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project
sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the
project.
a. Managers
b. Stakeholders
c. Directors
d. Citizens
Q25). Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to
complete the project successfully.
a. scope
b. quality
c. time
d. cost
Q26). Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs
for which it was undertaken.
a. cost
b. time
c. scope
d. quality
Q27). Project ____ management is concerned with making effective use of the people involved
with the project.
a. human resource
b. risk
c. communications
d. procurement
Q28). Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing
project information.
a. risk
b. procurement
c. communications
d. resource
Q29). What works on one project may not work on another, so it is essential for project
managers to continue to develop their knowledge and ____ in managing projects. a.
time
b. resources
c. funding
d. skills
Q30) "All project leaders use a shared road map, focusing on key business aspects of their
projects while integrating goals across all parts of the organization" describes the ____ best
practice for project delivery.
a. Use an integrated toolbox
b. Grow project leaders
c. Develop a streamlined project delivery process
d. Measure project health using metrics
Q31. ____ project management software integrates information from multiple projects to show
the status of active, approved, and future projects across an entire organization. a. Investment
b. Active
c. Enterprise
d. Budget
Q32). A ____ can have many different job descriptions, which can vary tremendously based on
the organization and the project.
a. project supervisor
b. project manager
c. job coordinator
d. project coordinator
Q33) In an interview with two chief information officers (CIOs), both men agreed that the most
important project management skills seem to depend on ____.
a. the difficulty of the project and the resources involved

b. the difficulty of the task and the people involved
c. the uniqueness of the project and the difficulty of the task
d. the uniqueness of the project and the people involved
Q34). Achieving high performance on projects requires ____, otherwise called human relations
skills.
a. capital skills
b. soft skills
c. light skills
d. hard skills
Q35) A(n) ____ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while inspiring people
to reach those goals.
a. assistant
b. programmer
c. leader
d. manager
Q36) A(n) ____ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific
goals. a. manager
b. leader
c. programmer
d. analyst
Q37). Some people say that ____ achieve the vision of a project.
a. leaders
b. managers
c. stakeholders
d. supervisors
Q38). Most people agree that the modern concept of project management began with the
____. a. Great Wall of China
b. first space shuttle
c. Egyptian pyramids
d. Manhattan Project
Q39). During the Cold War years of the 1950s and '60s, ____ continued to be key in refining
several project management techniques.
a. NASA
b. the military
c. steel manufacturing
d. marine biology
Q40). The longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest completion of a
project is called the ____ path.
a. essential
b. important
c. critical
d. vital
Q41) What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project
completion?
a. Scope verification
b. Completing a scope statement
c. Scope definition
d. Process Management in OS
Q) 42. An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the
key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative method is available but involves lot of risk.
What should the project team do?
a. Drop the alternative approach
b.Work out a mitigation plan
c. Procure an insurance against the risk
d.Plan all precautions to avoid the risk
Q43): That is the objective of project manager behind the study of the work processes on a
project.
a. Quality control
b. Quality planning
c. Checking adherence to processes
d. Quality assurance
Q44) which of the following is NOT an input to project plan
execution? a)Work authorization system
b)Project plan
c)Corrective action
d)Preventive action
Q. (45) The model serves as the basis for the creation of ______ for the
Software. (a) Design
(b) Maintenance
(c) Testing
(d) Specifications
Q46) Insufficient identification is a

(a) Technology-related problems
(b) Process-related problems
(c) People-related problems
(d) Product-related problems
Q47) In problem evaluation area of effort is identified by.

(a) Analyst
(b) Designer
(c) Coder
(d)Manager
Q48). When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through a series of predictable
steps, the process which you follow to develop it is known as________
(a)Software design
(b)Software process
(c)Software schedule
(d)Framework
Q49__contains an analysis of what went wrong, what went right, and what you could have
done better in the software project.
Select correct option:
(a)Prepare closedown report
(b)Identify learning
(c)Identify reusable software components
(d)none
Q50) The three most important factors that influence project management are ___, ___and
___. a. Time, Cost, Scope
b. Money, time, budget
c. Time, staff, budget
d. None of them
Answer Keys:
Ans1 (a)
Ans2(a)
Ans3( d )
Ans4(c )
Ans5( c )
Ans6 (c)
Ans7 (b)
Ans8 (b)
Ans9 (a)
Ans 10 ( A )
Ans 11(B )
Ans12 ( c)
Ans13 (a)
Ans14 (D)
Answer15 : b
Ans 16 .( a)
Ans 17 (b)
Ans.18 (a)
Ans. 19(a)
Ans 20. a
Ans 21.(b)
Ans.22. a)
Ans.23 a)
Ans 24 : B
Ans25 : A
Ans26 : D
Ans 27 :A
Ans28 :D
Ans29 : D
Ans 30: C
Ans 31: D
Ans 32: B
Ans33: D
Ans34: B
Ans35: C
Ans 36: A
Ans 37: B
Ans 38: D
Ans 39: B
Ans 40: C
Ans 41(b)
Ans 42(a)
Ans 43.(d)
Ans 44. a
Ans 45(d)
Ans 46(b)
Ans 47(a)
Ans 48(b)
Ans49(a)
Ans 50. a
UNIT II - PROJECT LIFE CYCLE AND EFFORT ESTIMATION
Q1. RUP was created by a division of

a) Rational Unification Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Q2. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
Q3) The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model is referred
to as the waterfall model. Which phase may be defined as “The concept is explored and refined, and the
client’s requirements are elicited?”
(a) Requirements
(b) Specification
(c) Design
((d) Implementation
Q4) In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex products is referred to as
a) Embedded
b) Semidetached
c) Organic
d) Multiplicative
Q5) Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any
change? a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
Q6. A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall model with each
phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis
Q7) __ is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Throwaway prototyping model
d) Iterative / incremental development model
Q8) Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gathered through
a/an_______
(a) Elicitation process
(b) Interviewing
(c) Meeting
(d) None of given
Q (9) Technology-related problems include _____

(a) Overestimated savings from reusable components and new tools and
methods (b) Switching tools in mid-way
(c) Integrating different software products in cross-platform implementation
(d) All of given
Q10) Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of
Code). a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
11) RAD stands for

a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
Q12) . Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any
change? a) Build & Fix Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
Q13) Which is not one of the types of prototypes of Prototyping

Model? a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype
Q14. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping

Model? a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
Q15). Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is
wrong? a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects
Q16) SDLC stands for

a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
Q17) Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of
SDLC? a) Waterfall Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Q18) Object point method best suited for

Select one:
a. Designing
b. Testing
c. Coding
d. Estimation
Q19) This term is least critical from customer view point
Select one:
a. UAT
b. Unit testing
c. Delivery timeliness
d. Milestones
Q20) Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

Select one:
a. Predicting clients demands.
b. Predicting software schedules.
c. Predicting software cost.
d. Predicting staffing levels.
Q21 ____ model is not suitable for accommodating any change

Select one:
a. Waterfall Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. Build & Fix Model
d. RAD Model
Q22. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known
as a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Q23 Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of
a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
Q24 ___________is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
Q25. Most cost estimates are determined in terms of ________________.
a.person month
b.monthly cost
c.person cost
d.none of them
Q26.For normalization purposes, the productivity of a project is measured in terms of ___ per person
month.
a.functions
b.function point
c.cost
d.functional point
Q 27 Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics
Q28) RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________

a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
Q29 Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort
estimate? a) as estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
d)The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollar Q30)
What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable
estimation approach in their own right Automated estimation tool
a) Empirical estimation models

b) Decomposition techniques
c) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
d. None of them
Q31 What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
Q32 A ------------is developed using historical cost information that relates some metrics to the project
cost.
a) Algorithmic Cost Modeling
b) Expert Juggememt
c) Estimation by Anlogy
d) Parkison’a Law
Q33. What is the disadvantage of the Spiral Model?

a. Does not work well for smaller projects
b. The high amount of risk analysis
c. Additional Functionality can be added later
d. Strong approval and documentation control
e. both a & b
f. none of these
Q34 In which model the Project risk factor is considered?
a. Spiral model.
b. Waterfall model.
c. Prototyping model
d. incremental model
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
Q35 The spiral model was the first time proposed by

a. IBM
b. Pressman
c. Barry Boehm
d. Royce
e. both a & b
f. none of these
Q36-What is the most important use of the incremental model?

a. Customers can respond to each increment
b. Easier to test and debug
c. To use it when we need to get a product to the market early
d. Easier to test and debug & use it when we need to get a product to the market
early e. None of these
f. both a & b
Q37. The spiral model has two dimensions namely __ and __

a. diagonal, perpendicular
b. radial, perpendicular
c. radial, angular
d. diagonal, angular
e. both a & b
f. none of these
Q38) Which of the options is correct for the prototyping model of software
development? a. For projects with large development teams.
b. When requirements are well defined.
c. When a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
d. both a & b
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
Q39. In which model the requirements are implemented b through its

category? a. Evolutionary Development Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping
d. Iterative Enhancement Model
e. both a & b
f. none of these
Q40) In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed

a. In the first loop
b.In every loop
c.Before using the spiral model
d.in first and second loop
Q41. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
Q42. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system
? a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
Q43 Each iteration in the incremental model passes through the

a. communication and modeling phases
b. planning and construction phases
c. deployment and maintenance phases
d. all phases
Q44) In a university, students are asked to develop software. Which model would be
preferable? a. Waterfall model
b. Spiral model
c. Agile model
d. Code and fix model
Q45) an individual who plans and directs the work.

a Stakeholder
b. Project manager
c. Team leader
d. Programmer
Q46.which of the following testing strategy established during requirements analysis against
developed software?
a.Validation
b.Integration
c.Regression
d.System
Q47. The incremental model is

a. A reasonable approach when well-defined requirements.
b.good approach when a working core product quickly
c.approach to use projects with large development teams.
d.revolutionary model is not used for commercial.
Q48)The Incremental Model is combination of

_________ a. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall
b. Linear Model & RAD
c.Linear Model & Prototyping
d.Waterfall Model & RAD
Q49) Advantage of using an Incremental Model.

a. Customers can respond to each increment
b. Easier to test and debug
c.when there is a need to get a product to the market
early d.Both b & c
Q50) The Introduction of the software requirements specification states

the Select correct option:
(a)Goals
(b)Objective
(c)Design
(d)Goals and objectives of the software
Ans Keys:
Ans 1(d)
Ans2(b)
Ans3(a)
Ans4(a)
Ans5(d)
Ans6 (e)
Ans. 7) b
Ans 8(a)
Ans 9(d)
Ans 10(a)
Ans 11(b)
Ans 12(d)
Ans 13(c)
Ans 14(b)
Ans 15(d)
Ans 16(a)
Ans 17(c)
Ans 18(d)
Ans 19(d)
Ans 20(a)
Ans 21.a
Ans 22 .(c )
Ans 23(d)
Ans 24(b)
Ans25. a
Ans26. b
Ans 27 d
Ans28. d
Ans 29. d
Ans 30(b)
Ans 31(a)
Ans 32(a)
Answer 33.(a)
Answer 34 (a)
Ans 35(c)
Ans 36(d)
Answer 37(c)
Answer 38(c)
Ans 39( a)
Ans 40(b)
Ans 41. C
Ans 42. D
Ans 43. d
Ans 44(d)
Ans 45(b)
Ans 46(a)
Ans 47(a)
Ans 48(c)
Ans 49(d)
Ans 50(d)
UNIT III - ACTIVITY PLANNING AND RISK

MANAGEMENT
Q1. The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of sub process placed
in different stage called the
(A) Technical key resources
(B) Work key structure
(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
(D) None of the above
Q2) Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results aggregated to
produce an estimate for the overall job.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Bottom-up
(D) Top down
Q3 Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a similar nature whose
costs are known.
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Top down
(D) Analogy
Q4). Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time
available. a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement?
Q5) A is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project
cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law A
Q6) __ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

a) Gantt charts
b) PERT charts
c) Both a) and b)
Q7) wo general notations used for scheduling are ___ charts and ___
charts. a.Pert, histogram
b.PERT, gantt
c.CPM,gantt
d.none of them
Q)8 __ in an event indicates ahead of schedule. (Pick right option)

a) Positive slack (+)
b) Negative slack (–)
c) Zero slack
Q9) Which one of the following is a functional requirement?

a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
Q10) Which of the following can estimate size of project directly from problem
specification? A.LOC
B.Function Point Metric
C.Bothg
D.None
Q)11. In ____, Henry Gantt developed the famous Gantt chart as a tool for scheduling work in
factories.
a. 1897
b. 1917
c. 1927
d. 1957
Q12. A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project
activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____ format.
a. pie chart
b. line graph
c. bar graph
d. calendar
Q13) _ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business transaction or
customer request
Select one:
a. Model
b. Workflow
c. Prototype
d. Mock-up
Q) 14: Tool used for secure expert judgement

a.Peer Reviewb.
b.Delphi Technique
c.Expected value technique
d.Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
e. DBMS Architecture
Q15) What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is
included? a.Create a contingency plan
b.Create a risk management plan
c.Create a WBS
d.Create sql queries
Q)16. PERT stands

a.Program and evaluation review technique
b process and evaluation review technique
c program and evaluation recovery technique
d.none of them.
Q17) Following method is not used for project planning
a. Activity Diagram
b. CPM
c. Timesheet
d. Gantt chart
Q18 There are ________ types of Work Breakdown Structures.

Select one:
a. Four
b. Three
c. Two
d. None
Q19) Smith is a project manager for ABC Video games. He has produced a project network diagram
and has updated the activity list. Which process have he just finished?
Select one:
a. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the activities dependences b. The Activity
Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project c. The activity duration
Estimating process, which identifies all the dependent activities of the project d. The activity
duration Estimating process, which diagram project network time estimates
Q20) Which of the following is not the technique for network planning model
? a) PERT
b)CPM
c) Monte Carlo simulation
d) Hybrid approach tecnique
Q21) Which of the following activity is undertaken immediately after feasibility study and before the
requirement analysis and specification phase?
A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring
C.Project Control
D.Project Scheduling
Q22)
The particular task performance in CPM is known as
a) Event
b)Activity
c) Task
d) contract
Q23) This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring and Control
C.Project size estimation
D.Project cost estimation
Q24) Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?
A.project estimation
B.project scheduling
C.project monitoring
D.risk management
Explanation
Q25) In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the most basic parameter based
on which all other estimates are made?
A.project size
B.project effort
C.project duration
D.project schedule
Q26) During project estimation, project manager estimates following

A.project cost
B.project duration
C.project effort
D.all of the above
Q27 ) Once project planning is complete, project managers document their plan
in A.SPMP document
B.SRS document
C.Detailed Design documet
D.Excel Sheet
Q28) Which of the following serves as metrics for project size estimation?
A.Lines of codes
B.function point
C.Number of persons
D.Only A & B
Q29)What is PERT analysis based on?

A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All of the above
Q30)Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a

project? A. Deadlines exist
B. Independent activities
D. Costly delay
Q31)What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?

A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract
Q32What is the earliest start time rule?

A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
Q33)What is a critical path?

A. It is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
B. It is a mixture of all the paths
C. It is the longest path
D. It is the shortest path
Q34What is the completion of a CPM network diagram activity commonly known
as? A. Connector
B. Event
C. Node
D. All of the above
Q35) Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing time
for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the earliest starting time for Y? A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
Q36Activities P, Q, and R instantly follow activity M, and their current starting times are 12, 19, and
10. So, what is the latest finishing time for activity M?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 18
Q37)Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles
Q 38)What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?

C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All of the above
Q39) _____is the associated with the Product Risk.

A. Test object
B. non-availability of the test environment
C. Negative consequences
D. Control of test item
E. None of these
Q40) one of the following factors affect the probable
consequences? A. Risk timing
B. Contingency planning
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk monitoring
E. None of these
Q41) ____is the Risk management most important jobs.

A. Project manager
B. Production team
C. Investor
D. Client
E. None of these
Q 42 What is the PERT and CPM?
a) Network techniques
b) Assignment techniques
c) Project evaluation techniques
Q43. What does CPM stand
for?
a) Control Path Method

b) Critical Path Method
c) Critical Plan Management
d) Control Path Management
Q44. Which of the following colour is used to show the actual progress in bar
charts?
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Black
d) Green
Q45. Who introduced bar chart in
CPM?
a) Jane Gantt
b) Henry Gantt
c) Williams henry
d) Joseph henry
Q46). What does PERT analysis based

on? a) Most likely time
b) Optimistic time
c) Pessimistic time
d) All of the above
Q47). CPM is
the
a) Time oriented technique
b) Event oriented technique
c) Target oriented technique
d) Activity oriented technique
Q48. What is difference between PERT and
CPM?
a) PERT is a probabilistic model while CPM is a deterministic model b) PERT is an

event-oriented technique while CPM is an activity-oriented technique c) PERT is Project
Evaluation and Review Technique while CPM is Critical Path Method d) All of the above
Q49 The earliest start time

rule
Directs when a project can start

Regulates when a project must begin
Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor
Compares the activities starting time for an activity
successor
Q50. Slack time in pert analysis.
a) Can never be less than zero

b) Is minimum for critical events
c) Can never be less than zero
d) Can never be greater than zero
Ans Keys:
Ans1 c)
Ans2(C )
Ans 3(D)
Ans 4(c)
Ans5 (a)
Ans.6 a
Ans 7. b
Ans. 8(a)
Ans 9 d
Ans 10 (B)
Answe11(: B)
Answer:12( D)
Ans 13(b)
Ans 14(b)
Ans 15(c)
Ans16. a
Ans 17(c)
Ans 18(c)
Ans 19(b)
Ans 20(d)
Ans 21(A)
Ans 22(b)
Ans 23(b)
Ans 24(c)
Ans 25 (:A.)
Ans 26(D)
Ans 27(A)
.Ans 28(D)
Ans 29( D)
Ans 30(B)
Ans 31(c)
Ans 32(b)
Ans 33 c
Ans 34(D)
Ans 35(B)
Ans 36( A)
Ans 37(B)
Ans 38(D)
Ans 39(a)
Ans 40(a)
Ans 41(a)
Ans 42(c)
Ans 43(b)
Ans 44(d)
Ans 45(b)
Ans 46(d)
Ans 47(d)
Ans 48 (d)
Ans 49(c)
Ans 50(b)
UNIT-4- PROJECT MANAGEMENT

AND CONTROL
1. Team Leader is responsible for all aspects of the project.
a) True
b) False
2. ___ manage hardware/software requirements for development, testing, validation, and production
environments.
a) Logistics
b) Labour
c) staff
d) none
3. ___ define testing procedures and certification process.

a) Software Support
b) Software Development
c) Software Management
d) Software Testing
4. Project Management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities
to meet the project requirements.
a) True
b) False
5. Interoperability has become a key characteristic of many systems.

a) True
b) False
6. Conducting structured meetings is a form of ___ communication.
a) Informal
b) Formal
c) adhoc
d) general
7. ___ encompasses e-mail, or electronic dashboards, or video conferencing

system. a) Formal communication
b) Electronic communication
c) Informal communication
d) Interpersonal networking
8. Project implementation is the first stage in project development.
a) True
b) False
9. The ___ stage determines the nature and scope of the development.
a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance
10. Testing and Module Integration strategies are addressed in ___

phase. a) Initiation
b) Implementation
d) Maintenance
11. The project charter is a __________time announcement.
a) two
b) one
c) four
d) none
12. The purpose of a ___ is to detail the work requirements for projects and programs that have
deliverables and/or services performed.
a) Initiation
b) Statement of Work (SoW)
d) Maintenance
13. IAPPM stands for ___.

a) International Associative of Project and Program Management
b) International Association of Phase and Program Management
c) International Association of Project and Program Management
d) International Association of Plan and Program Management
14. The three most important factors that influence project management are ___, ___and ___.
a) Time, Cost, Scope

b) Time, Staff, Stakeholder
c) Both a) and b)
15. PERT stands for ___.
a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

b) Program Evaluation and Revision Technique
c) Program Evolution and Review Technique
16. ___ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

a) Gantt charts
b) PERT charts
c) Both a) and b)
17. The _____________ documented in 1970 by Royce was the first publicly documented life cycle
model.
a) RAD model
b) Spiral model
c) Waterfall model
18. Most life cycle models can be derived as special cases of the ___.
a) RAD model
b) Spiral model
c) Waterfall model
19. ___ is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
20. CMM stands for ___.

a) Capability Maturity Model
b) Capacity Maturity Model
c) Customer Maturity Model
d) Common Maturity Model
21. Project scope, pros and cons are discussed in the ___________ phase.
a) Initiation
b) Implementation
d) Maintenance
22. A semiformal way of breaking down the goal is called the ___.
a) RAD model
b) Spiral model
c) Waterfall model
d) Work Breakdown Structure
23. Two general notations used for scheduling are ___ charts and ___ charts.
a) bar, pert
b) PERT, Gantt
c) gantt, histogram
d) None
24. The purpose of planning a project is to identify the sequence of activities as per their complexities
and dependencies.
a) True
b) False
25. COCOMO stands for ___.
a) Constructive Cost Model
b) Construction Cost Model

c) Constructive Capable Model
d) None
26. In ___ mode the project is characterized by tight, stringent constraints and interface
requirements. a) Organic
b) Embedded
c) Semidetached
27. Budgeting in a business sense is the __________ allocation of available funds to each department
within a company.
a) Initiation
b) Implementation
d) planned
28. ROI stands for ___.

a) Return On Investment
b) Rare On Investment
c) Return Of Investment
d) Return Of Idea
29. ___ is a standard method for the financial appraisal of long-term

projects. a) Net Profit Value (NPV)
b) None Present Value (NPV)
c) Net Present Value (NPV)
d) Net Price Value (NPV)
30. __________in a project includes software, hardware and human resources.

a) Cost
b) Time
c) Planning
d) Design
31. A _____________ provides the idea about the start and finishes dates of key activities or terminal
elements of the project.
a) Schedule
b) Implementation
c) Design
d) plan
32. PERT stands for ___.

a) Program Evaluate and Review Technique
b) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Revision Technique
d) Plan Evaluation and Review Technique
33. ___ in an event indicates ahead of schedule. (Pick right option)

c) Zero slack
34. Booz Allen Hamilton, Inc. has developed a Gantt chart.
a) True
b) False
35. ___ is example of automated scheduling tools.

a) Microsoft Project
b) ABT’s Project Workbench for Windows
c) Symantec’s Timeline
d) all
36. Accelerating the project schedule is often termed as ___ of the schedule. (Pick right
option) a) Breaking
b) Crashing
c) Speeding
37. Most cost estimates are determined in terms of ___.
a) Person-Months
b) Plan-Months
c) Person-Years
d) None
38. ‘Work expands to fill the available volume’ is ___ principle.

a) Parkinson’s
b) James’s
c) John’s
39. COCOMO model was developed by Parkinson.
a) True
b) False
40. If there is a certain probability that the objectives of the project will not be achieved, this risk should
not be reported to higher management.
a) True
b) False
41. Risk the combination of both the possibility of occurrence of adverse event and the impact of such
_____ event.
a) bad
b) good
c) average
d) planned
42. When there are disagreements between the project lead and overall project manager, the same can be
resolved through ___.
a) Change control board
b) Implementation
c) Planning
d) Design
43. A ___ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same requirement is
implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
44. Tom DeMarco stated, “You can’t control what you can’t _________”.
a) Initiate
b) Implement
c) measure
d) plan
45. ___ is the statistics gathered over the course of the execution of the project.
a) Requirement
b) Software Metric
c) Software Plan
d) Cost
46. ___ is a software package used for preparing earned value analysis. (Pick right
option) a) MS Project
b) Primavera
c) Lotus Notes
47. Status meetings and status reporting are required for a medium-size project.
a) True
b) False
48. ___ is a set of practices originally developed by Motorola to systematically improve processes by
eliminating defects.
a) Six Sigma
b) four sigma
c) SMART
d) none
49. Six Sigma is a registered service mark and trademark of ___. (Pick right
option) a) Microsoft
b) Sun Microsystems
c) Motorola
50. ___ involves activities like typical strategies, processes, techniques, and tools involved in containing
the adverse impacts of risks on the software project.
a) Software risk management

b) Software planning management
c) Software management
d) none
ANSWER KEY
1. A
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. A
10.C
11.C
12.B
13.C
14.A
15.A
16.A
17.B
18.B
19.B
20.A
21.A
22.D
23.B
24.A
25.A
26.B
27.D
28.A
29.C
30.A
31.A
32.C
33.A
34.B
35.D
36.B
37.A
38.A
39.B
40.B
41.A
42.A
43.A
44.C
45.B
46.B
47.A
48.A
49.A
50.C
UNIT-V STAFFING IN SOFTWARE PROJECTS
1. What are the concerns in Managing People in Software

Environments?
a)Staff Development
b) Staff Motivation
c)Well-being Staff during course of project
d) All the above
2. Which of the following is not included in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics
model ofwork motivation?
a) Variety of
skill
b)Significance of
the taskc)Quality
of job life
d)Autonomy
3. Organizational
behavior is
a)A science
b)An art
c)A science as well as an art
d)None of the above
4. The field of organisational behaviour examines such questions as the nature of

leadership,effective team development, and
a)Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
b) Organisational control; conflict
managementc)Motivation of
individuals; planning d)Planning;
development
5.The field of organisational behavior is primarily concerned with
a)The behaviour of individual and groups.
b)How resources are effectively managed.
c)Control processes and interactions between organizations, external
context. d)Both a and c.
6.The study of organisation behaviour has certain basic assumptions. They

are a)An industrial enterprise is an organization of people.
b)These people must be motivated to work effectively.
c)The goals of the employee and the employer may not necessarily
coincide. d)All of the above.
7.Which of the following represents correct sequencing of historical developments

ofOrganizational Behaviour?
a) Industrial revolution —> Scientific management –> Human relations movement –
> OB
b)revolution —> Human relations movement —> Scientific management
–> OB
c)Scientific management —> Human relations movement –> Industrial revolution
–> OB
d)None of these.
8.Which of the following is not correct for the organisational

behaviour? a)Organisational behaviour is an integral part of
management
b)Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
c)Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of
behaviord)Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented
9.The is based on the environment. Though like thinking, expectations and perception do
exist, and they are not needed to manage or predict behaviou a)Behaviouristic approach,
Cognitive processes,
b)cognitive processes, behaviouristic approach
c) Social cognitive, behaviouristic
approachd)Cognitive processes, social
cognitive
10. Now a days a lot of stress is being put on the of the employee in theorganization
a)Character
b)improvemen
tc)Behaviour
d)Rewards
11. The purpose of job enrichment is to
a)expand the number of tasks an individual can do
b)increase job efficiency
c)increase job effectiveness
d)increase job satisfaction of middle management
12. Which of the following is not an example of Content

Theory?a)Maslow Theory
b)Herzberg’s Theory
c)Expectancy theory
d)Alderfer’s ERG
theory
13. theory emphasis that, Unsatisfied need can influence the behaviour satisfied one will not
act as a motivator.
a)Maslow Theory
b)Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy theory
d)Alderfer’s ERG
theory
14. Among the following which is not a problem in changing the attitude of the
employeea)Insufficient Information
b)Resistant by
employeec)Cognitive
Dissonance
d)Cognitive
Dissonance
15. Motivation
includesa)job
enrichment
b)Job rotation
c)Job enlargement
d)all of the above
16. The statement ―I don’t feel comfortable in crowdǁis an

example ofa)component of attitude.
b)Behavio
ral
c)Cognitiv
e
d)Affectiv
e
e)Positive
17. The statement ―I am going to apologies for my mistakeǁis an
example ofcomponent of
attitude. a)Behavioral
b)Cognitive
c)Affecti
ve
d)Positiv
e
18. In which stage of the team development process does hostility and infighting occur?
a)storming
b)forming
c)norming
d)performi
ng
19. What is the final stage of the team development

process?a)forming
b)storming
c)adjournin
g
d)performi
ng
20. Which of the following best defines the type of rewards that are distributed
toindividuals fortheir unique contribution to the team?
a)functional team rewards
b)competitive team rewards
c)cooperative team rewards
d)non-competitive team
rewards
21. Which of the following is not a type

of team?a)teams that recommend things
b)teams that organize things
c)teams that make or do things
d)teams that run things
22. What is the ideal size of a team in order for it to be productive and
successful?a)2 to 4
b)9 to 12
c)5 to 8
d)8 to 11
23. Which of the following best defines an organization where decision making authority is at
thetop of the organization and employees have little freedom to make their own decisions?
a)decentralized organization
b)centralized
organizationc)virtual
organization d)functional
organization
24. Which type of structure is also referred to as a team

structure?a)virtual structure
b)matrix
structure
c)horizontal
structured)staff
structure
25. Which of the following best describes functions that are advisory and supportive
in nature;designed to contribute to the efficiency and maintenance of
theorganization?
a)line
functions
b)organizati
onal
functions
c)matrix
functions
d)staff functions
26. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of

organizational peoplebecause;
a)It makes procedures cost effective
b)It helps in detecting the problems
c)It leads to product innovation
d)It assists in implementing new technology
27. The S in the acronym for SMART goals stands for

a)speci
fic
b)strai
ghtfor
ward
c)strate
gic
d)sour
ce
28. .A problem(s) with management by objectives is (are) that it can:

a)Be time consuming.
B0Result in immeasurable objectives.
c)1 and 2
d)None of the above.
29. On her work team Michelle develops detailed tasks lists and work flow charts to help
her team members understand the steps involved in each project. She also maintains
the project calendar and receives periodic updates from each team member to ensure
that projects are progressing on schedule.Which role does Michelle most likely fill
on her team?
a)assessorb)organizerc)maintainerd)creator
30. Coasting on the group effort is termed .

A)inconsistenc
y
b)incompetenc
c)social loafing
d)dysfunction
31.A unit of measurement to express the amount of business functionality an information

system provides to a user
e) Functi
onal Point
b)Control Point
c)Checkpoint
d)Cost trade
32. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
33. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
34. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project

management? a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
35. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known
as a) Project Management
36. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
37. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?
38. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
39. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
40. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
41. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the
external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
42. Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people, process,
and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an operational
implementation.
a) True
b) False
43. Which of the following is not an effective software project management

focus? a) people
b) product
c) popularity
d) process
44. PM-CMM stands for

a) people management capability maturity model
b) process management capability maturity model
c) product management capability maturity model
d) project management capability maturity model
45. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?

a) project control
b) project management
c) project planning
d) project design
46. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for
software development can be established.
a) people
b) product
c) process
d) none of the mentioned
47. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the
project? a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
48. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an
application? a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
49. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that
occurs when using the random paradigm?
a) asynchronous paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm
50. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?

a) Problem solving
b) Organization
c) Motivation
d) Project management
51. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team
members?
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
52. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost

estimation? a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical
d) Critical
53. ___ must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software
work. a) Project Managers
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End Users
54. The realistic percentage for striving to work in Software Project Development is
___. a) 40%
b) 80%
c) 50%
d) 100%
55. ___ organizations take the networked structure one step further by combining IT with
traditional components to form new types of components.
a) Hierarchical
b) Flat
c) T-form (Technology-based)
d) Matrix
ANSWER KEY
1. D
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. E
32.
D
33. B
34. C
35. C
36.
D
37.
D
38. B
39.
A
40. B
41. B
42.
A
43. C
44.
A
45.
D
46. C
47. C
48.
A
49. B
50.
D
51.
D
52.
D
53.
A
54. B
55. C
DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
403:Software Project Management
Multiple Choice Questions.
Q .no Questions Answer

In project planning, it explains…………………. that are needed to for the
growth of product.
a. a series of actions
1 c
b. steps
c. both a, b
d. none of the above
A project has never happened before, and it will never happen again
under the ……………conditions.
a. Same condition
2 b. Different condition A
c. Various condition
d. None of the above
COCOMO is a well-known experiential algorithmic ……

a. cost estimation procedure.
3 b. exact cost of any given project D
c. well-documented method
d. All the above
The chain of the activities is based on technical requirements, not on
management................................... A
4
a. True
b. False
Software project management includes the tools, techniques, and
essential to deal with the growth of software products
a. Knowledge
5 b. Skill A
c. Attitude
d. confidence
In Software Project Management, the end users and developers require

to know the
a. cost of the project,
6 b. duration D
c. Length
d. All the above
It is a process of ………………………… to develop computer software that

7 meets necessities D
a. Managing
Prof. Dhananjay Bhavsar www.dimr.edu.in

b. Allocating
c. timing resources
d. all the above
It consists of……………………tasks:
a. two
8 b. three D
c. four
d. eight
In problem identification and definition, the conclusions are made as
………………….projects
a. approving
9 b. declining D
c. prioritizing
d. all the above
In problem identification, project is
a. recognized
10 b. defined D
c. Justified
d. All the above
In problem definition, the use of the project is
a. Clarified
11 b. Identified A
c. Elaborated
d. Distinguished
The main product is………..
a. project proposal
b. Problem Identification
12 A
c. Problem Definition
d. Project Planning
In resource allocation, the resources are allocated to a project in order

that the………………. are attained
a. Goals
13 b. Objectives C
c. Both a, b
In project scheduling, resources are allocated so that project objectives

are attained within a ………
14 a. sensible time span A
b. lavish time
c. excessive
d. undue
In tracking, reporting and controlling, the process engage whether the
15 project results are in accordance with C
a. project plans

b. performance specification
c. both a, b
The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks
and resources, identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets
for a specific project is known as …
16 a. project management. A
b. Software
c. Process
d. Activities
A project is a sequence of
a. Unique
17 b. Complex D
c. connected activities
d. all the above
having one goal or purpose and that must be completed by …….
a) a specific time
18 b) within budget, D
c) according to specification
d) all the above
Which of the following is not project management goal?
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time. D
19
A project includes a number of activities that must be completed in some

…………
20 a. particular order D
b. sequence
c. both
d. all the above
The chain of the activities is based on …………………….
a. technical requirements
21 b. not on management concern C
c. both a, b
The activities in a project must be ….
a. Unique
22 b. Primary A
c. Important

Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a. True B
23
b. False
A project has never happened before, and it will never happen again
under the……..
a. same conditions.
24 b. Extreme case A
c. Other condition
Something is always ………….. each time the activities of a project are

repeated.
25 a. Different A
b. Same
c. Various
The variations are ……………… in nature
a. Random
26 b. Consistent A
c. Complex
d. Compound
27 C
Choose the correct option according to given below statement.
Statement 1: Umbrella activities are independent of any one

framework activity and occur throughout the process.
Statement 2: software quality assurance, software configuration
management are umbrella activity.
28 Statement 3: software quality assurance, software configuration B
management are not umbrella activity.
a. Only statement 1 is correct.
b. Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
c. Only statement 3 is correct.
d. Statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.
The activities that make up the project are not simple, repetitive acts,
such as mowing the lawn, painting the house, washing the car, or loading
the delivery truck.
29 a. They are complex A
b. They are simple
c. Different
d. Same

Constantine suggests four “organizational paradigms” for software

engineering teams. The best project team organizational model to use
when handling extremely complex problems is ________
a. Random paradigm
30 A
b. Open paradigm
c. Synchronous paradigm
d. Closed paradigm
You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. What will you do to

minimize the risk of software failure?
31 b. You will increase the team size C
c. Track progress
Which of the following is/are considered stakeholder in the software

process?
a. Customers
32 D
b. End-users
c. Project managers
Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope
of a software project?
a. Only performance.
33 C
b. Only context.
c. Information objectives, function, performance
Boehm suggests an approach that addresses project objectives,
milestones and schedules, responsibilities, management and technical
approaches and required resources, This principle is called as ______ .
a. W3HH principle
34 C
b. WHO principle
c. W5HH principle
35
What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?

36 a. The product scope is poorly defined. D
b. Deadlines are unrealistic.

c. Changes are managed poorly.

Software quality assurance is an umbrella activity.
37 a. True A
b. False
Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are
those four P’s?
a. People, performance, payment, product
38 B
For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the
phase the developers decide a roadmap for project plan?
a. Software Design
39 B
b. System Analysis
c. Coding
d. Testing
Object inherits a class is known as _____ .
a. Maintenance
40 b. Operations B
c. Transitional
d. Development
Which is the Estimation Software size should be known?
a. Time estimation
41 b. Effort estimation B
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed
towards achieving the goals of a project.
(A) Project
42 A
(B) Process
(C) Project management
(D) Project cycle
Resources refers to
(A) Manpower
(B) Machinery
43 D
(C) Materials
(D) All of the above
Developing a technology is an example of

(A) Process
44 (B) Project B
(C) Scope

The project life cycle consists of

(A) Understanding the scope of the project
45 (B) Objectives of the project D
(C) Formulation and planning various activities
Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager.
(A) Budgeting and cost control
46 (B) Allocating resources D
(C) Tracking project expenditure
Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange
them in correct order
1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection,
testing and delivery
47 A
(A) 3-2-1-4
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-3-1-4c
(D) 4-3-2-1
Design phase consist of
(A) Input received
48 (B) Output received C
(C) Both (A) and (B)
The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
(A) Project Management
49 (B) Manager life cycle C
(C) Project Management Life Cycle
(D) All of the mentioned
Five dimensions that must be managed on a project
(A) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
50 (B) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff B
(C) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
(D) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer
Resorce requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in
its _____ progress stage.
(A) 40 to 55%
51 D
(B) 55 to 70%
(C) 70 to 80%
(D) 80 to 95%
Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project
management?
a) Specification delays
52 C
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
53 Project performance consists of D

(A) Time
(B) Cost
(C) Quality
computing the costs of a software development project?
(A) travel and training costs
54 (B) hardware and software costs D
(C) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
(D) All of the mention
Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
(A) team
55 (B) project B
(C) customers
(D) project manager
The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon
the ____ .
(A) Uniform distribution curve
56 B
(B) Normal distribution curve.
(C) U-shaped distribution curve
Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration
management of a software system?
(A) Internship management
57 A
(B) Change management
(C) Version management
(D) System management
Identify the sub-process of process improvement
(A) Process introduction
(B) Process analysis
58 A
(C) De-processification
(D) Process distribution
In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project
is ___ .
(A) Zero
59 (B) High B
(C) Low
(D) Any of the above
An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can

be measured and the external quality attribute.
60 b
(A)True
(B) False
If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more
programmers and catch up.
61 B
(A)True
(B) False

The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on

number of sub process placed in different stage called the
(A) Technical key resources
62 C
(B) Work key structure
(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of
a similar nature whose costs are known.
63 D
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Top down
(D) Analogy
Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the
results aggregated to produce an estimate for the overall job.
64 C
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Bottom-up
(D) Top down
Choose an internal software quality from given below:
a) scalability
65 b) usability C
c) reusability
d) reliability
RUP stands for created by a division of
66 b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys D
Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.
67 a) True A
b) False
The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic,
static& practice. What does static perspective do?
68 a) It shows the process activities that are enacted. A
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process.
c) It shows the phases of the model over time.
Which of the following categories is part of the output of software
process?
a) computer programs
69 D
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) All of the above
The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the
70 B
working program.

a) True
b) False
Arrange the following steps to form a basic Engineering Process
Model.
i. Test
ii. Design
iii. Install
71 iv. Specification A
v. Manufacture
vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the
system ?
a) Transition
72 D
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to
control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
73 A
b) Source code
c) Data model
Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software
processes in software engineering ?
a) Software Verification
74 b) Software Validation A
c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution
e) Software specification
What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
75 B
b) Version control
c) SCIs
The longer a fault exists in software
a) the more tedious its removal becomes
76 D
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected

Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways.
These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole
organization
77 b) A separate configuration management team for each project A
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project
members
A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software

efforts.
78 A
a) True
b) False
What complements the formal technical review by assessing a
configuration object for characteristics that are generally not
considered during review?
79 a) Software configuration audit A
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
Which of the following is the process of assembling program
components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking
these to create an executable
system?
80 a) System building A
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management

Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
81 B
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch managemen
The definition and use of configuration management standards is
essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
82 D
b) CMM
c) CMMI

What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track
of the system versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
83 b) Release management B
Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement

Management of a product ?
84 a) User and Developer C
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a
library management.What type of management requirement is being
85 depicted here? A
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
Requirements traceability is one of the most important part
requirement management. It may also be referred to as the
86 heart of requirement management. A
a) True
b) False
Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does
not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
87 B
a) True
b) False
Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
88 b) Design D
c) Construction and Test
What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted
by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect
relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval
techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model
transformations.”
89 A
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
90 Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes D

a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.
Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented
Development.
91 A
a) True
b) False
Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench
tool ?
a) RTM
92 C
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management
(A) Risk Assessment
93 (B) Risk Control D
(C) Risk Ranking
According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software
projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the
remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the
reason for such a situation ?
94 a) Poor change management B
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
Following are the characteristics of Project Mindset.
(A) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes,
structured planning
(B) Time, Project management, Information sharing,
95 Processes, structured planning A
(C) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, capability,
structured planning
(D) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes,
project planning
“Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to accomplish
the business need” is
(A) Initiating process
96 B
(B) Planning process
(C) Executing process
(D) Controlling proces
Controlling the changes in the project may affect
97 D
(A) The progress of the project

(B) Stage cost

(C) Project scope
(D) All of the abov
Which of the following are parameters involved in computing
the total cost of a software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
98 b) Effort costs D
c) Travel and training costs
Following is (are) the tool(s) for changing a process

(A) Change Management System (CMS)
99 (B) Configuration Management (CM) C
(C) Both (A) and (B)
Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
100 b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space C
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff
The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to
software development, reuse, etc.
101 B
a) True
b) False
What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered
software?
102 A
Identify, from among the following, the correct statement.
a) One of the main challenges Software Engineering facing today is
the requirement of most software systems to workwith a multitude
of homogenous systems
b) ‘Legacy systems’ are custom developed software systems for the
legal domain
103 C
c) Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term,
but software does tend to deteriorate as it evolves
d) Since software is essentially ‘intangible’ it is relatively easy to
manage software projects With the advent of component based
software assembly, we find that only less than 20% of today’s software
is still custom built
A is developed using historical cost information that relates some
104 A
software metric to the project cost.


b) Expert judgement
d) Parkinson’s Law
It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project
when only a specification is available
105 A
a) True
b) False
Software Engineering:
a) Is a set of rules about developing software products
b) Has been around as a discipline since the early 50’s
106 c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late 90’s D
d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the
aspects of software production
e) Is now a mature discipline on par with other established engineering
fields
Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate
reusable components or program code that is automatically
generated by design or program translation tools?
107 a) An application-composition model C
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The
classical model is referred to as the waterfall model. Which phase may
be defined as “The concept is explored and refined, and the client’s
requirements are elicited?”
108 (a) Requirements A
(b) Specification
(c) Design
d) Implementation
(e) Integration.
Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same
analogy application domain have been completed?
109 C
b) Expert judgement
Which model assumes that systems are created fromreusable
components, scripting or database programming?
110 a) An application-composition model A
c) A reuse model


The final form of testing COTS software is ………………………testing.
a) Unit
(b) Integration
111 E
(c) Alpha
(d) Module
(e) Beta.
Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
112 b) Pricing to win C
d) Expert judgement
The individual or organisation who wants a product to be developed is
known as the:
a) Developer
113 (b) User E
(c) Contractor
(d) Initiator
(e) Client.
Which model is used during early stages of the system design
after the requirements have been established?
a) An application-composition model
114 D
c) A reuse model
Which of the following items should not be included in the software
project management plan?
a) The techniques and case tools to be used
b) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations
115 c) The life cycle model to be used E
d) The organisational structure of the development
organisation, project responsibilities, managerial
objectives and priorities
e) None of the above.
In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous
test cases. This is known as testing.
(a) Unit
116 (b) Integration C
(c) Regression
(d) Module
(e) Beta
Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?
117 a) The speed with which it can be developed C
b) The speed with which it can be modified
c) Its ability to determine the client’s real needs

d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are
of the ‘how not to do it’ variety
e) Its internal structure.
An example of the risk involved in software development is
a) Key personnel may resign before the product is complete
b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware
associated with a real-time system) may go bankrupt
118 E
c) Technology changes may render the product obsolete
d) Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent
package
e) All of these are risks involved in software development.
The degree of interaction between two modules is known as
a) Cohesion
b) Strength
119 c) Inheritance D
d) Coupling
e) Instantiation.
The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base class is
referred to as
a) Association
120 b) Inheritance B
c) Polymorphism
d) Instantiation
e) Aggregation.
Myers (1978) identifies seven levels of cohesion. Which level of cohesion
may be defined as followed; “the output from one element in the
component serves as
input for some other element”?
121 a) Communicational cohesion A
b) Functional cohesion
c) Communicational cohesion
d) Temporal cohesion
e) None of these.
A design is said to be a good design if the components are
a) Strongly coupled
b) Weakly cohesive
122 c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive E
d) Strongly coupled and strongly cohesive
e) Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled.

If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an

example of
coupling.
123 a) Content C
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
e) Data.
Which of the following is a type of abstraction?
a) Data
b) Procedural
124 D
c) Iteration
d) All of the above
In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team member
responsible
for maintaining the detailed design and coding is
a) The chief programmer
125 b) The programming secretary D
c) A specialized function that exists outside ‘the team’
d) The individual coder (i.e. programmer)
e) The back-up programmer.
Internal costs include
a) Developers salaries
b) Managers and support personnel salaries
126 A
c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior managers
d) Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel
e) All of the above.
Problems with using Lines of Code to measure the size of a product
include(s)
a) The creation of source code is only part of the development effort
b) The Lines of Code (LOC) will differ between languages and cannot
127 be measured for some languages E
c) Should comments, data definitions etc (i.e. non-executable LOC) be
included as well?
D) The final size (kLOC) can only be determined once the product is
delivered
Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on
128 D
a) Files (Fi), Flows (Fl) and Processes (Pr)

b) Lines of Code (kLOC)

c) Function Points (FP)
d) operands and operators
e) Feature Points (FeP).
In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex products is
referred to as
a) Embedded
129 b) Semidetached A
c) Organic
d) Multiplicative
e) onolithic.
Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to any
specific phase of software development is termed a(n)
a) Milestone
130 b) Project function B
c) Activity
d) Task
e) Baseline.
The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a Software
Project Management Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard 1059.1 1987 – is
a) It is drawn up by representatives from major
software development organisations
b) It is designed for all types of software products
131 E
c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process
model or specific techniques
d) It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular
application area, development team or technique.
The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) is by
a) Prototyping
b) Inspection
132 B
c) Simulation
d) Compilation
e) Debugging.
Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be
different for the same application development, because
a) Different organisations consider complexity factors differently
133 b) Different organisations may use different programming languages E
c) Developers’ skills may vary
d) Techniques for the measurement of productivity may vary
e) All of the above may be true.

The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is

a) Fault-free
b) Delivered on time
134 E
c) Delivered within budget
d) Satisfies users’ needs
e) All of these are the aims of software engineering
Object-oriented concepts are not new. The first OO language was
considered to be
a) ALGOL-68
135 B) FORTRAN 77 E
c) CMODULA
d) SIMULA 67.
A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a
waterfall model with each phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
136 b) Freezing E
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis
Which of the following is not a phase of project management?
a) Project planning
137 b) Project scheduling D
c) Project controlling
d) Project being
Who introduced the bar charts?
a) Williams henry
138 b) Henry Gantt B
c) Jane Gantt
d) Joseph henry
Bar charts were modified later to obtain the milestone charts.
139 a) True A
b) False
The full form of PERT is ___________
a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology
140 b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique D
c) Program Evaluation and Robot Technology
d) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
The full form of CPM is ___________
a) Critical Path Method
141 b) Control Path Method A
In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?
142 a) Red D
b) Black

c) Blue
d) Green
A PERT network is activity-oriented while a CPM network is event-
oriented.
143 A
a) True
b) False
______ are used to represent activity in a network diagram.
a) Circles
144 b) Squares D
c) Rectangles
d) Arrows
The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under
ideal circumstances is known as ________
a) Pessimistic time estimate B
145
b) Optimistic time estimate
c) Expected time estimate
d) The most likely time estimate
According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the
maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as
__________
146 a) The most likely time estimate C
c) Pessimistic time estimate
d) Expected time estimate
In a network, a critical path is the time-wise shortest path.
147 a) True b
b) False
The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time
needed to perform an activity is known as _________
a) Free float
148 c
b) Independent float
c) Total float
d) Half float
Network Diagrams are a ………. of the activities of a given project.
a) graphical representation
b) statistical representation
149 A
c) mathematical representation
d) none of the above
Activities drawn in a …………in a network diagram

a) imaginary activity
150 b) random relationship C
c) serial relationship
d) none of the above
A Dummy activity is an activity which does not require a………………….
151 a) time or resource A
b) imaginary activity.

c) dependence
d) operations in the diagram.
The best way to generate the WBS is as part of
the………………………………..session.
a) Joint Project Planning
152 A
b) decomposition
c) completion
d) Project Overview Statement
The technique for generating the WBS will ........................... even the
most complex project to a set of clearly defined activities.
a) document
153 b) reduce B
c) guide
d) all the above
Once the team is satisfied it has completed the activity list for the first-
level breakdown, the members are ………………...
a) finished
154 b) reported A
c) Joined
d) all the above
Which of these is not a cause of project failure?

(A) Improper Planning
155 (B) Poor weather condition B

(C) Lack of technical skills
(D) Defective structural design
A construction schedule is prepared after collecting

(A) Number of operations
156 (B) Output of Labour and Machinery D
(C) Quantity of various items

(D) All the above
In the time-cost optimization, using CPM method for network analysis, the
crashing of the activities along the critical path is done starting with the
157 activity having C
(A) Longest duration

(B) Highest cost slope

(C) Least cost slope
(D) Shortest duration
Which qualities should a good project manager posse?
(A) Leadership
(B) Intigrity
158 D
(C) Knowledge of Construction
Construction Manager should have __________ skills.

(A) Technical Skills
(B) Conceptual Skills
159 D
(C) Adaptability
Process control is carried out

a) before production
b) during production
160 B
c) after production control
d) All of the above
Low cost, higher volume items requires

a) no inspection
b) little inspection
161 B
c) intensive inspection
d) 100% inspection
High cost, low volume items requires

a) no inspection
b) little inspection
162 C
c) intensive inspection
d) 100% inspection
The mean of sampling distribution is

a) less than mean of process distribution
b) more than mean of process distribution
163 C
c) equal to mean of process distribution
d) any of the above
The percent of the sample means will have values that are within ±3
standard deviations of the distribution mean is
a. 95.5
164 b. 96.7 D
c. 97.6
d. 99.7

The dividing lines between random and non random deviations from
mean of the distribution are known as
a) upper control limit
165 b) lower control limit C
c) control limits
d) two sigma limits
The chart used to monitor variable is

a) Range chart
b) p-chart
166 A
c) c-chart
d) All of the above
The chart used to monitor attributes is

a) Range chart
167 b) Mean chart C
c) p-chart
d) All of the above
Central tendency of a process is monitored in
a. Range chart
168 b. Mean chart B
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
Dispersion of a process in monitored in
a. Range chart
169 b. Mean chart A
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
The control chart used for the fraction of defective items in a sample is
a. Range chart
170 b. Mean chart C
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
The control chart used for the number of defects per unit is
a. Range chart
171 b. Mean chart D
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
Risk Table is……………. representation of the expected risks in a project
A. Round Table
172 B. Assessment Table D
C. Time Table
D. Tabular
16. CCTA stands for___________.
A. central commission of telecommunication agency.
173 B
B. central computing and telecommunication agency.
C. central computing and telecom agency.

D. an NGO.
17. Hardware and software standards are needed so that various
………………can communicate with each other.
A. Hardware.
174 B
B. Systems
C. Software.
D. Shareware
The complete products handed over to the customers at the end of
projects are called as __________.
A. software
175 C
B. application program
C. deliverables
D. intermediate products
Product is the result of ……………..
A. Software.
176 B. System. D
C. Control.
D. Activity
Product description contains___________.
A. name of the product
177 B. form of the product D
C. quantity of the product
D. both a and b
Which one of the following is NOT an agile method?
A. SCRUM
178 B. Extreme Programming (XP) D
C. DSDM
D. Waterfall
Same generic fragment relates to more than _________ instance of the
particular type of the product.
A. one.
179 A
B. two.
C. three
D. four
. _________ is the amount of work that needs to be done.
A. Effort.
180 B. Energy. A
C. Capacity.
D. Strength.
Project planning is an _________ process.
A. continuous.
181 B. iterative. B
C. time consuming.
D. conventional
In order to carry out a successful strategic assessment of a potential
182 project there should be strategic plan clearly defining the organization's A
_________.

A. objectives.
B. rules.
C. conditions.
D. ideas.
The standard way of evaluating the economic benefits of any projects is
to carry out a ________ analysis.
A. price-benefit.
183 B
B. cost-benefit.
C. cash flow.
D. fund flow
……………………………….of actual measured results against those planned is
the fundamental principle of project monitoring process.
a) variance,
184 D
b) Evaluation
c) corrective action
d) Evaluation and comparison
Whenever there is a variance,………………..is required to keep the project
on schedule and to budget
a) variance,
185 C
b) Evaluation
c) corrective action
d) Evaluation and comparison
When multifunctional terms are used to plan complex projects, the work
must be
a) Integrated and coordinated
186 A
b) Managed
c) Translated
d) Interfaced
he items to be delivered from a project which includes reports and plans
as well as physical objects, is known as
a) Task assigned
187 b) Deliverables B
c) Non-deliverables
d) Hierarchy planning
The individual components of a system to achieve the desired

performance, is taken care a
a) Performance
188 C
b) Critical Analysis
c) Effectiveness
d) Cost analysis
Person in charge of the basic product design and development and is
responsible for functional analysis, is
a) Contract Administrator
189 B
b) System Architect
c) Test Engineer
d) Support Services Manager

A description of a task that defines all the work required to accomplish it,
including inputs and desired outputs, is known as
a) Work statement
190 b) Problem statement A
c) Work Definition
d) Problem definition
What should be the function of organization?

a) Co-ordination of various department
191 b) To prepare structure of organisation D
c) To monitor various activities and progress
d) All of the above
Select from the below principles of ideal organization?

(A) Unity of job assignment
192 (B) Span of management D
(C) Separation of work
What is the significance of Unity of Command as principle of organization?

(A) Employee should be able to work independently
193 (B) Employee should work in team unity C
(C) Employee should know to whom he is answerable
Delegation of authority as principle of organisation means _________ .
(A) To allocate duties and responsibility
194 (B) To allocate funds and resources A
(C) To allocate time
By which pattern different structures of organizations can be formed?
(A) Number of employees
195 (B) Manner of distribution of authority B
(C) Number of divisions
(D) Type of work done
Which of the following is a type of structure of organization?
(A) Line or military organization
196 (B) Line and staff organization C
(C) Both a & b
Which of these is not an advantage of line organization?

197 (A) It permits quick decision D
(B) It provides strong discipline

(C) It is most effective and economical

(D) It is rigid and inflexible
Which if these are disadvantage of line organization?

(A) Top executives are over loaded
198 (B) System has no provision of rewarding good workers D
(C) Inadequacy of communication
Line and staff organization structure is not suitable for ___________
(A) Large and Complex enterprise
199 (B) Enterprise undertaking heavy projects D
(C) Key men needs expert advice
___________ is the advantage of line and staff organization

(A) Project can be executed with batter quality
200 (B) It provides more job opportunity D
(C) Discipline problems are solved by line authority
Which of these is not a type of project management organization?

(A) Multinational organization
201 (B) Functional organization A
(C) Matrix organization
(D) Pure project organization
Which of these is not a disadvantages of functional organization?
(A) Co-ordination is difficult
202 (B) Quality of work is enhanced B
(C) Difficult to fix responsibility
(D) High overhead cost
What are the advantages of matrix organization?
(A) Removes weakness of line and staff organization
203 (B) Quick response to changes C
(C) Higher administrative cost
(D) Batter balance between time, cost and performance
Who is the key responsible person in Pure Project organization?
(A) Project Manager
204 (B) Site Engineer A
(C) Contractor
(D) Structural Engineer
Which of these is not a responsibility of Project Manager?
(A) Planning
205 B
(B) Designing
(C) Organising

(D) Directing

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Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
IT8075 Software anticipating risks that might affect the
project schedule or the quality of the
Project Management software being developed, and then taking
action to avoid these risks.
CSE - Professional Which of the following is not considered as a
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risk in project management?
Elective - II a) Specification delays
nt
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c) Testing
Regulations 2017 d) Staff turnover
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Answer: c
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Explanation: Testing is a part of project,
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thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
_B
UNIT I PROJECT The process each manager follows during
the life of a project is known as
EVALUATION AND es
a) Project Management
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PROJECT PLANNING
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TOPIC 1.1 IMPORTANCE

Answer: c
OF SOFTWARE PROJECT
K
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle

MANAGEMENT
A
is necessary to repeatedly implement and

manage projects successfully.
e/
Which of the following is not project

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management goal? A 66.6% risk is considered as a)

/t.
a) Keeping overall costs within budget very low

s:/
b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

the agreed time c) moderate
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c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high

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development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints Answer: d
:-
Explanation: The probability of the risk

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Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%),

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xplanation: Projects need to be managed low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high

because professional software engineering is (50– 75%), or very high (>75%).
always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints. Which of the following is/are main
parameters that you should use when
Project managers have to assess the risks computing the costs of a software
that may affect a project. development project?
a) True a) travel and training costs
b) False b) hardware and software costs
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effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
engineers and managers) identified.
all of the mentioned
An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
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total cost of activities.
Answer: b
Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality
nt
developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the
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a) team b) value of the attribute than can be measured.
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project c)
customers .
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d) project manager
TOPIC 1.2 ACTIVITIES
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Answer: b
- METHODOLOGIES
_B
Explanation: The quality plan should set out
the desired software qualities and describe
how these are to be assessed. es
Which of these truly defines Software
ot
design?
Which of the following is incorrect activity a) Software design is an activity subjected to
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for the configuration management of a constraints

software system? b) Software Design specifies nature and
TU
a) Internship management composition of software product

b) Change management c) c) Software Design satisfies client needs and
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Version management d) desires

A
System management d) All of the mentioned

e/
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Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management
/t.
Explanation: Software design explains all of

policies and processes define how to record the statements as its definition.
s:/
and process proposed system changes, how

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to decide what system components to change, Which of the following statement is false?
how to manage different versions of the a) A process is a collection of related tasks
ht
system and its components, and how to that transforms a set of inputs to the set of
:-
distribute changes to customers. output

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b) A design notation is a symbolic

Identify the sub-process of process
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representational system
improvement c) A design heuristic is a rule proceeding
a) Process introduction guidance, with guarantee for achieving
b) Process analysis c) some end
De-processification d) d) Software design method is orderly
Process distribution procedure for providing software
design solutions
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed,

Answer: b Software Engineering)

Explanation: A heuristic is a rule followed Wide support by CASE, More detailed and
but there is no guarantee that we get output. flexible processes
Which of these describes stepwise Answer: d
refinement? Explanation: Notations used are more
a) Nicklaus Wirth described the first specialized and sophisticated one.
software engineering method as stepwise
refinement b) Stepwise refinement follows Which of the following is an incorrect
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its existence from 1971 method for structural design?
c) It is a top down approach a) Transition of problem models to
nt
d) All of the mentioned solution models
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b) Handling of larger and more complex
_Q
Answer: d products
Explanation: It is top down approach and c) Designing Object oriented systems
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not bottom up. d) More procedural approach
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What is incorrect about structural design? a) Answer: b
_B
Structural design introduced notations and Explanation: It does not account for
heuristics larger and complex products.
b) Structural design emphasis on procedural
decomposition
es
What is followed by the design task? a)
ot
c) The advantage is data flow representation Choosing specific classes, operations b)
_N
d) It follows Structure chart Checking model’s completeness

c) Following design task
TU
Answer: c heuristics d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: The biggest drawback or
K
problem is a data flow diagram of structure Answer: d

A
design. Explanation: All of these tasks are followed

e/
by a design task.
m
What is the solution for Structural design?

a) The specification model following data Which of this analysis are not acceptable?
/t.
flow diagram a) Object oriented design is a far better

s:/
b) Procedures represented as bubbles c) approach compared to structural design

tp
Specification model is structure chart b) Object oriented design always

showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow dominates structural design
ht
of data in and out of procedures c) Object oriented design are given more
:-
d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition preference than structural design

in
d) Object oriented uses more specific

Answer: c
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notations
xplanation: It is solution to central
problem. Rest others are problems. Answer: b
Explanation: Though object oriented design
Which of these are followed by the latest is considered a far better approach but it
versions of structural design? never dominates structural approach.
a) More detailed and flexible
processes b) Regular Notations Which of these does not represent object
c) Wide support by CASE(Computer Aided oriented design?

It follows regular procedural Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with

decomposition in favor of class and reference to one of the eight principles as per
object decomposition the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
Programs are thought of collection of a) The product should be easy to use
objects b) Software engineers shall ensure that their
Central model represents class diagrams that products and related modifications meet the
show the classes comprising a program and highest professional standards possible
their relationships to one another c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
um
Object-oriented methods incorporates products and related modifications satisfy
Structural methods the client
nt
d) It means that the product designed /created
Answer: a should be easily available
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Explanation: It does not follow
_Q
regular procedural decomposition. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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TOPIC 1.3 CATEGORIZATION Identify an ethical dilemma from the
oo
OF SOFTWARE PROJECTS situations mentioned below:
_B
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
Choose the correct option in terms of system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional es
system
ot
responsibility a) Confidentiality b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
_N
b) Intellectual property rights

c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual senior management
TU
property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships
Answer: a
K
Answer: c Explanation: None.

A
Explanation: Engineers should normally

e/
respect the confidentiality of their employers Identify the correct statement: “Software
m
or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall

/t.
formal confidentiality agreement has been a) act in a manner that is in the best
interests of his expertise and favour.”
s:/
signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
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the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
SRS.”
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patents, copyright, etc.

:-
“Software engineers should not use their

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technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b

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computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in
a) Unauthorized access to computer a manner that is in the best interests of their
material b) Unauthorized modification of client and employer consistent with the
computer material public interest and shall ensure that their
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware products and related modifications meet the
d) All of the mentioned highest professional standards possible.Thus
options a & c are ruled out.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

Select the incorrect statement: “Software Answer: c

engineers should Explanation: Software companies are
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside responsible for making policies and providing
your competence.” working atmosphere for the software
b) not use your technical skills to misuse development, so in turn these companies
other people’s computers.” become a part of software development
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new
d) maintain integrity and independence thing. Thus option c answers the question.
in their professional judgment.”
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Company has latest computers and state-of
Answer: c the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry
nt
Explanation:None. about the quality of the product
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a) True
_Q
Efficiency in a software product does not b) False
include ________
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a) responsiveness Answer: b
b) licensing Explanation: The infrastructure is only
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c) memory utilization one of the several factors that determine
_B
d) processing time the quality of the product.
Answer: b . es
ot
Explanation: Licensing of a software product
comes under corporate part of the software
_N
TOPIC 1.4 SETTING

company.
BJECTIVES
TU
As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get

cancelled before they are completed, 53% Which of these are not among the eight
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overrun their cost estimates by an average of principles followed by Software Engineering

A
189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
e/
restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics a) PUBLIC

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? b) PROFESSION
/t.
a) Lack of adequate training in software c) PRODUCT

engineering d) ENVIRONMENT
s:/
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding

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c) Management issues in the company Answer: d

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d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Rest all are clauses for

software ethics, environment does not focus
:-
Answer: a on specific clause nor its of importace related

in
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of to question.

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Software Engineering as a subject,hence

option a covers them both. 2. What is a Software ?
Software is set of programs
The reason for software bugs and failures is Software is documentation and
due to configuration of data
a) Software companies Software is set of programs, documentation &
b) Software Developers configuration of data
c) Both Software companies and None of the mentioned
Developers d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c engineering
Explanation: Software is not just set of Software engineering is concerned with the
program but it is also associated practicalities of developing and delivering
documentation and configuration of data to useful software
make program run.
Answer: c
Which of these does not account for Explanation: Software engineering is a vast
software failure ? sub domain which comes under computer
a) Increasing Demand
um
science which is main domain.
b) Low expectation c)
Increasing Supply 7. Which of these is true ?
nt
d) Less reliable and expensive Generic products and customized products
ua
are types of software products
_Q
Answer: c Generic products are produced by
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead organization and sold to open market
ks
to more production and not failure. Customized products are commissioned by
particular customer
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What are attributes of good software ? All of the mentioned
_B
a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality Answer: d
c) Software development es
Explanation: All of them are true.
ot
d) Software maintainability & functionality
Which of these does not affect different
_N
Answer: d types of software as a whole?

Explanation: Good software should deliver a) Heterogeneity
TU
the required functinality, maintainability. b) Flexibility

Software development is not an attribute but a c) Business and social
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fundamental. change d) Security

A
e/
Which of these software engineering Answer: b

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activities are not a part of software processes Explanation: Option b & c are a part of
? Software Engineering as a subject,hence
/t.
a) Software dependence option a covers them both.

s:/
b) Software development
The fundamental notions of software
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c) Software validation d)
engineering does not account for ?
ht
Software specification
a) Software processes
:-
Answer: a b) Software Security

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Explanation: Software dependence is an c) Software reuse

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attribute and not an engineering activity for d) Software Validation

process.
Answer: d
6. Which of these is incorrect ? Explanation: Software validation is an
oftware engineering belongs to Computer activity for software process and not the
science fundamental for engineering.
Software engineering is a part of more
general form of System Engineering 10. Which of these is not true ?
Computer science belongs to Software a) Web has led to availability of software

services and possibility of developing highly Answer: a

distributed service based systems Explanation: For systems with a long
Web based systems have led to degradation life, maintenance costs may be several
of programming languages times development costs.
Web brings concept of software as service
Web based system should be developed Which one of the following is not an
and delivered incrementally application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system
Answer: b b) pattern recognition game playing
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Explanation: Web based systems has led c) digital function of dashboard display in a
car
nt
to important advances in programming
languages. d) none of the mentioned
ua
_Q
. Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses
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TOPIC 1.5 MANAGEMENT Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.
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PRINCIPLES Purpose of process is to deliver software a)
_B
in time
Which one of the following is not a b) with acceptable quality
software process quality? es
c) that is cost efficient
ot
a) Productivity d) both in time & with acceptable quality
b) Portability
_N
c) Timeliness Answer: d
Explanation: Cost of a software is a
TU
d) Visibility
management issue & is not related to process
Answer: b activities.
K
Explanation: Portability is a software

A
product quality which means software can run The work associated with software
e/
on different hardware platforms or software engineering can be categorized into three

m
environments. generic phases,regardless of application

area, project size, or complexity namely
/t.
_____________&_____________ are two the phase which focuses on what,

s:/
kinds of software products. the_________ phase which focuses on how

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a) CAD, CAM and the_________ phase which focuses on

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b) Firmware, Embedded change.

c) Generic, Customised d) support
:-
None of the mentioned development

in
definition a)
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Answer: c 1, 2, 3
xplanation: rest all are sub b) 2, 1, 3
categories/applications of option c. c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
oftware costs more to maintain than it
does to develop. Answer: c
a) True Explanation: None.
b) False

Which of the following activities of a Answer: a

Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in
feedback report? the development phase.
a) Communication
b) Planning .
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment TOPIC 1.6 MANAGEMENT
Answer: d CONTROL
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Explanation: In Deployment the product is
delivered to the customer who evaluates the 1. SCM stands for
nt
product and provides feedback based on the Software Control Management
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evaluation. Software Configuration Management
_Q
Software Concept Management
Process adopted for one project is same as None of the mentioned
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the process adopted from another project. a)
True Answer: b
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b) False Explanation: In software engineering,
_B
software configuration management (SCM) is
Answer: b the task of tracking and controlling changes
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, es
in the software, part of the larger cross-
ot
actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to discipline field of configuration management.
the software team and the inter dependencies
_N
among two process can never be the same. When code is made available to others, it
goes in a/an
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Which one of the following is not an a) hard drive

Umbrella Activity that complements the five b) access-controlled
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process framework activities and help team library c) servers

A
manage and control progress, quality, d) access control

e/
change, and risk.

m
a) Reusability management Answer: b

/t.
b) Risk management Explanation: None.

c) Measurement
s:/
d) User Reviews Which of the following is not a main phase in

tp
Configuration Management (CM) Process? a)

Answer: d CM Planning
ht
Explanation: None. b) Executing the CM process

:-
c) CM audits
in
Four types of change are encountered d) None of the mentioned

during the support phase.Which one of
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the following is not one that falls into Answer: d

such category? Explanation: All are main phases of CM.
a) Translation
b) Correction CM is about managing the different items
c) Adaptation in the product, and changes in them.
d) Prevention a) True
b) False

Answer: a How are baselines verified? a)

Explanation: None. By reviews
b) By inspections
What allows different projects to use the c) By testing of code d)
same source files at the same time? All of the mentioned
a) Version Control
b) Access control Answer: c
c) CM Process Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-
d) Version Control and Access control
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to description.
Answer: a Which of the following is a example of
nt
Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?
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continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures
_Q
when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code
c) Software design descriptions
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Which of the following is not a change d) All of the mentioned
management process?
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a) Log the changes Answer: d
_B
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned es
CM controls only the products of the
development process.
ot
Answer: d a) True
_N
Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False

TU
Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.
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a) True
A
b) False 12. CCB stands for

e/
Change Control Board

Answer: a
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Change Control Baseline

Explanation: None. Cumulative Changes in Baseline
/t.
None of the mentioned

s:/
What is one or more software configuration

items that have been formally reviewed and Answer: a
tp
agreed upon and serve as a basis for further Explanation: None.

ht
development?
What information is required to process a
:-
a) Baseline
change to a baseline?
in
b) Cumulative changes
c) CM a) Reasons for making the changes
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d) Change Control b) A description of the proposed changes

c) List of other items affected by the
Answer: a changes d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: In configuration management, a
“baseline” is an agreed-to description of the Answer: d
attributes of a product, at a point in time, Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to
which serves as a basis for defining change. description of the product, changes
require multiple reasons..

. of the solution, negotiate different

approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
TOPIC 1.7 PROJECT requirements.
PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT 4. CLSS stands for
conveyor line sorting system
Which of the following is an important conveyor line sorting software
factor that can affect the accuracy and conveyor line sorting speed
conveyor line sorting specification
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efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size
Answer: a
nt
b) Planning process c)
Project complexity Explanation: The conveyor line sorting
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d) Degree of structural uncertainty system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along
_Q
a conveyor line. Each box is identified by
Answer: a a barcode that contains a part number and
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Explanation: As size increases, the is sorted into one of six bins at the end of
the line.
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interdependence among various elements
of the software grows rapidly.
_B
The project planner examines the statement
What describes the data and control to be of scope and extracts all important software
processed? es
functions which is known as
ot
a) Planning process a) Association
b) Software scope c) b) Decomposition
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External hardware d) c) Planning process

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Project complexity
Answer: b Answer: b
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Explanation: Functions described in the Explanation: None

A
statement of scope are evaluated and in some

e/
cases refined to provide more detail prior to The environment that supports the software
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the beginning of estimation project is called

a) CLSS
/t.
A number of independent investigators have b) SEE

s:/
developed a team-oriented approach to c) FAST

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requirements gathering that can be applied to d) CBSE

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establish the scope of a project called

a) JAD b) Answer: b
:-
CLASS c) Explanation: Software engineering

in
FAST environment (SEE), incorporates hardware

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d) None of the mentioned and software.
Answer: c Which of the following is not an option to

Explanation: Facilitated achieve reliable cost and effort estimate? a)
application specification techniques Base estimates on similar projects that have
(FAST), this approach encourages the already been completed
creation of a joint team of customers b) Use one or more empirical models for
and developers who work together to identify software cost and effort estimation
the problem, propose elements c) Use relatively simple decomposition

techniques to generate project cost and effort TOPIC 1.8 COST-BENEFIT

estimates
The ability to translate the size estimate into EVALUATION TECHNOLOGY
human effort, calendar time, and dollars
Which one of the following is not an
Answer: d Evolutionary Process Model?
Explanation: None. a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
What can be used to complement
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c) Concurrent Development
decomposition techniques and offer a Model d) All of the mentioned
potentially valuable estimation approach
nt
in their own right? Answer: d
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a) Automated estimation tools Explanation: None.
_Q
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques The Incremental Model is a result of
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d) Both Automated estimation tools combination of elements of which two
and Empirical estimation models models?
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a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall
_B
Answer: b Model b) Linear Model & RAD Model
Explanation: An estimation model for Linear Model & rototyping Model
computer software uses empirically derived es
Waterfall Model & RAD Model
ot
formulas to predict effort as a function of
LOC or FP. Answer: c
_N
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces

Which of the following is not achieved by a deliverable “increment” of the software and
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an automated estimation tools? particularly when we have to quickly deliver

a) Predicting staffing levels a limited functionality system.
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b) Predicting software cost

A
c) Predicting software schedules What is the major advantage of using

e/
d) Predicting clients demands Incremental Model?

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a) Customer can respond to each increment

Answer: d
/t.
b) Easier to test and debug

Explanation: Demands can vary from client c) It is used when there is a need to get a
s:/
to client. product to the market early

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d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when

Software project estimation can never be an
ht
there is a need to get a product to the market

exact science, but a combination of good early
:-
historical data and systematic techniques can

in
improve estimation accuracy. Answer: d

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a) True Explanation: Incremental Model is generally

b) False easier to test and debug than other methods of
software development because relatively
Answer: a smaller changes are made during each
Explanation: None. iteration and is popular particularly when we
have to quickly deliver a limited functionality
.
system.However, option “a” can be seen in
other models as well like RAD model,hence
option “d” answers the question.

The spiral model was originally proposed Answer: a

by Explanation: All other options are the
a) IBM advantages of Spiral Model.
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman d) Spiral Model has user involvement in all its
Royce phases.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: None.
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Answer: b
The spiral model has two dimensions Explanation: None.
nt
namely _____________ and ____________
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a) diagonal, angular How is Incremental Model different from
Spiral Model?
_Q
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular a) Progress can be measured for Incremental
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d) diagonal, perpendicular Model
b) Changing requirements can be
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Answer: c accommodated in Incremental Model
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Explanation: The radial dimension of the c) Users can see the system early in
model represents the cumulative costs and the Incremental Model
angular dimension represents the progress es
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made in completing each cycle. Each loop of
the spiral from X-axis clockwise through Answer: a
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o Explanation: None.
360 represents one phase.
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How is WINWIN Spiral Model different If you were to create client/server

from Spiral Model? applications, which model would you go for?
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a) It defines tasks required to define a) WINWIN Spiral Model

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resources, timelines, and other project b) Spiral Model

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related information c) Concurrent Model

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b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at d) Incremental Model

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the beginning of each pass around the spiral

Answer: c
c) It defines tasks required to assess both
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Explanation: When applied to client/server

technical and management risks
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d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, applications, the concurrent process model
defines activities in two dimensions: a system
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install, and provide user support

dimension and a component dimension.Thus
:-
Answer: b Concurrency is achieved by system and

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Explanation: Except option “b” all other component activities occurring

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tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model simultaneously and can be modeled using the
as well. state-oriented approach.
Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model. .

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects b)
High amount of risk analysis TOPIC 1.9 RISK EVALUATION
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a
later date

Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are
a) Client common in the competitive environment
b) Investor of software engineering.
c) Production team
d) Project manager What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
Answer: d more about the risk?
Explanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring
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anticipating risks that might affect the b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
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software being developed, and then taking d) Risk identification
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Answer: a
Which of the following risk is the failure of a Explanation: None.
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purchased component to perform as
expected? Which of the following risks are derived
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a) Product risk from the organizational environment where
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b) Project risk the software is being developed?
c) Business risk a) People risks
d) Programming risk es
b) Technology risks c)
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Estimation risks d)
Answer: a Organizational risks
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Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or

performance of the software being developed. Answer: d
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Explanation: These risks are at

Which of the following term is best defined management level.
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by the statement: “There will be a change of

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organizational management with different Which of the following risks are derived
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priorities.”? from the software or hardware technologies

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a) Staff turnover that are used to develop the system?

a) Managerial risks b)
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b) Technology change
c) Management change Technology risks c)
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d) Product competition Estimation risks d)

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Organizational risks
Answer: c
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Explanation: None. Answer: b

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Explanation: The risks associated

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Which of the following term is best defined by with technology might affect the
the statement: “The underlying technology on
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product development.
which the system is built is superseded by new
technology.”? Which of the following term is best defined
a) Technology change b) by the statement: “Derive traceability
Product competition c) information to maximize information hiding
Requirements change d) in the design.”?
None of the mentioned a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring

Requirements changes Project managers have to assess the risks

None of the mentioned that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: c b) False
Explanation: Tracing the requirements
can help us understand the risk. Answer: b
Which of the following strategies means anticipating risks that might affect the
that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
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a) Avoidance strategies software being developed, and then taking
b) Minimization strategies
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c) Contingency plans
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d) All of the mentioned Which of the following is not considered as a
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risk in project management?
Answer: b a) Specification delays
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Explanation: None. b) Product competition
c) Testing
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Risk management is now recognized as d) Staff turnover
one of the most important project
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management tasks. Answer: c
a) True
b) False
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Answer: a The process each manager follows during

Explanation: None. the life of a project is known as
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. b) Manager life cycle
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TOPIC 1.10 STRATEGIC d) All of the mentioned

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PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
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Answer: c
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Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and

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management goal? manage projects successfully.

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b) Delivering the software to the customer at A 66.6% risk is considered as a)
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the agreed time very low

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c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning b) low

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development team c) moderate

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d) Avoiding customer complaints d) high
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed Explanation: The probability of the risk
because professional software engineering is might be assessed as very low (<10%),
always subject to organizational budget and low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high
schedule constraints. (50– 75%), or very high (>75%).

Which of the following is/are main Process analysis

parameters that you should use when De-processification
computing the costs of a software Process distribution
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
software engineers and managers) identified.
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Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute
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_Q
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Answer: b
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project c)
customers . es
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d) project manager
TOPIC 1.11 STEPWISE
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Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out PROJECT PLANNING
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how these are to be assessed. Which of the following is an important
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factor that can affect the accuracy and

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Which of the following is incorrect activity efficacy of estimates?

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for the configuration management of a a) Project size

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software system? b) Planning process c)

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a) Internship management Project complexity

b) Change management c) d) Degree of structural uncertainty
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Version management d)
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System management Answer: a

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Explanation: As size increases, the

Answer: a interdependence among various elements
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Explanation: Configuration management of the software grows rapidly.

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policies and processes define how to record

What describes the data and control to be
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to decide what system components to change, processed?
how to manage different versions of the a) Planning process
system and its components, and how to b) Software scope c)
distribute changes to customers. External hardware d)
Project complexity
Identify the sub-process of process
improvement Answer: b
a) Process introduction Explanation: Functions described in the

statement of scope are evaluated and in some The environment that supports the software
cases refined to provide more detail prior to project is called
the beginning of estimation. a) CLSS
b) SEE
A number of independent investigators have c) FAST
developed a team-oriented approach to d) CBSE
requirements gathering that can be applied to
establish the scope of a project called Answer: b
a) JAD b) Explanation: Software engineering
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CLASS c) environment (SEE), incorporates hardware
FAST
nt
and software.
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Which of the following is not an option to
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Answer: c achieve reliable cost and effort estimate? a)
Explanation: Facilitated Base estimates on similar projects that have
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application specification techniques already been completed
(FAST), this approach encourages the b) Use one or more empirical models for
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creation of a joint team of customers software cost and effort estimation
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and developers who work together to identify c) Use relatively simple decomposition
the problem, propose elements techniques to generate project cost and effort
of the solution, negotiate different es
estimates
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approaches, and specify a preliminary set of d) The ability to translate the size estimate
requirements. into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
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4. CLSS stands for Answer: d

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conveyor line sorting system Explanation: None.

conveyor line sorting software
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conveyor line sorting speed What can be used to complement

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conveyor line sorting specification decomposition techniques and offer a

e/
potentially valuable estimation approach

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Answer: a in their own right?

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Explanation: The conveyor line sorting a) Automated estimation tools

system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along b) Empirical estimation models
s:/
a conveyor line. Each box is identified by c) Decomposition techniques

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a barcode that contains a part number and d) Both Automated estimation tools
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is sorted into one of six bins at the end of and Empirical estimation models
the line.
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Answer: b
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The project planner examines the statement Explanation: An estimation model for
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of scope and extracts all important software computer software uses empirically derived
functions which is known as formulas to predict effort as a function of
a) Association LOC or FP.
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process Which of the following is not achieved by
d) All of the mentioned an automated estimation tools?
a) Predicting staffing levels
Answer: b b) Predicting software cost
Explanation: None

Predicting software schedules Firmware, Embedded

Predicting clients demands Generic, Customised
Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client Answer: c
to client. Explanation: rest all are sub
categories/applications of option c.
Software project estimation can never be an
exact science, but a combination of good Software costs more to maintain than it
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historical data and systematic techniques can does to develop.
improve estimation accuracy. a) True
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a) True b) False
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b) False
Answer: a
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Answer: a Explanation: For systems with a long
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Explanation: None. life, maintenance costs may be several
times development costs.
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.
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application of embedded software product?
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b) pattern recognition game playing
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UNIT II PROJECT LIFE c) digital function of dashboard display in a
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CYCLE AND EFFORT car

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ESTIMATION
Answer: b
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Explanation: Pattern recognition uses

TOPIC 2.1 SOFTWARE
A
Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.

e/
PROCESS AND PROCESS

Purpose of process is to deliver software a)
m
MODELS
in time
/t.
b) with acceptable quality

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Which one of the following is not a c) that is cost efficient

software process quality?
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d) both in time & with acceptable quality

a) Productivity
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b) Portability Answer: d
c) Timeliness
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Explanation: Cost of a software is a

d) Visibility
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management issue & is not related to process

activities.
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Answer: b
xplanation: Portability is a software The work associated with software
product quality which means software can run engineering can be categorized into three
on different hardware platforms or software generic phases,regardless of application area,
environments. project size, or complexity namely
the__________ phase which focuses on what,
_____________&_____________ are two
the_________ phase which focuses on how
kinds of software products. and the_________ phase which focuses on
a) CAD, CAM

change. Answer: d
support Explanation: None.
development
definition a) Four types of change are encountered
1, 2, 3 during the support phase.Which one of
b) 2, 1, 3 the following is not one that falls into
c) 3, 2, 1 such category?
d) 3, 1, 2 a) Translation
b) Correction
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Answer: c c) Adaptation
Explanation: None.
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d) Prevention
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Which of the following activities of a Answer: a
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Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in
feedback report? the development phase.
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a) Communication
b) Planning .
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d) Deployment TOPIC 2.2 CHOICE OF PROCE
Answer: d esMODELS - RAPID
APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
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Explanation: In Deployment the product is
delivered to the customer who evaluates the
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product and provides feedback based on the Build & Fix Model is suitable for
evaluation.
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programming exercises of ___________

LOC (Line of Code).
Process adopted for one project is same as
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a) 100-200 b)
the process adopted from another project. a)
200-400 c)
A
True
400-1000 d)
e/
b) False above 1000

m
Answer: b
/t.
Answer: a
Explanation: the overall flow of activities,
s:/
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable

actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to for small projects & programming exercises
tp
the software team and the inter dependencies of 100 or 200 lines.
among two process can never be the same.
ht
2. RAD stands for

:-

Relative Application Development
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Umbrella Activity that complements the five

Rapid Application Development
process framework activities and help team
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Rapid Application Document

manage and control progress, quality,
change, and risk.
a) Reusability management Answer: b
b) Risk management Explanation: None.
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews Which one of the following models is not
suitable for accommodating any change? a)
Build & Fix Model

Prototyping Model 5 phases

RAD Model 6 phases
Waterfall Model
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: RAD Model consists of five
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow phases namely:Business modeling,Data
the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model modeling,Process modeling,Application
proposes. generation and Testing & Turnover.
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Which is not one of the types of prototype What is the major drawback of using RAD
of Prototyping Model? Model?
nt
a) Horizontal Prototype a) Highly specialized & skilled
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b) Vertical Prototype c) developers/designers are required
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Diagonal Prototype d) b) Increases reusability of components
Domain Prototype c) Encourages customer/client feedback
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d) Increases reusability of components,
Answer: c Highly specialized & skilled
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Explanation: Their is no such thing as developers/designers are required
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Diagonal Prototype whereas other options
have their respective definitions. Answer: d
Which one of the following is not a phase

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Explanation: The client may create an
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unrealistic product vision leading a team to
of Prototyping Model? over or under-develop functionality.Also,
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a) Quick Design the specialized & skilled developers are not

b) Coding easily available.
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d) Engineer Product 9. SDLC stands for
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Software Development Life Cycle

A
Answer: b System Development Life cycle

e/
Explanation: A prototyping model Software Design Life Cycle

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generates only a working model of a system. System Design Life Cycle

/t.
Which of the following statements Answer: a

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regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong? Explanation: None.

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a) No room for structured design

b) Code soon becomes unfixable & Which model can be selected if user is
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unchangeable involved in all the phases of SDLC?

:-
c) Maintenance is practically not possible a) Waterfall Model b)

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d) It scales up well to large projects Prototyping Model c)

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RAD Model
Answer: d d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
xplanation: Build & Fix Model is
suitable for 100-200 LOC Answer: c
Explanation: None.
RAD Model has a)
2 phases .
b) 3 phase
TOPIC 2.3 AGILE METHODS

Select the option that suits the Manifesto for to be able to respond quickly to changing
Agile Software Development requirements without excessive rework.
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software How is plan driven development different
c) Customer collaboration from agile development ?
d) All of the mentioned a) Outputs are decided through a process of
negotiation during the software
Answer:d development process
Explanation: None. b) Specification, design, implementation
um
and testing are interleaved
Agile Software Development is based on c) Iteration occurs within
nt
a) Incremental Development activities d) All of the mentioned
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b) Iterative Development
_Q
c) Linear Development Answer:c
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Explanation: A plan-driven approach to
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Development software engineering is based around separate
development stages with the outputs to be
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Answer:d produced at each of these stages planned in
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Explanation: The software is developed in advance.
increments with the customer specifying the
requirements to be included in each increment es
How many phases are there in Scrum ? a)
Two
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and the highest priority is to satisfy the
customer through early and continuous b) Three
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delivery of valuable software. They are c) Four

iterative because they work on one iteration d) Scrum is an agile method which means it
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followed by improvements in next iteration does not have phases

K
Which on of the following is not an agile Answer:b

A
method? Explanation: There are three phases in

e/
a) XP Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning

m
b) 4GT phase followed by a series of sprint cycles

/t.
c) AUP and project closure phase.

s:/
Agile methods seem to work best when

tp
Answer:b team members have a relatively high skill

Explanation: The 4GT approach does not level.
ht
incorporate iteration and the continuous a) True

:-
feedback,which is the fundamental aspect b) False

in
of an agile method.
Answer:a
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Agility is defined as the ability of a project Explanation: None.

team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True Which of the following does not apply to
b) False agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
Answer:b b) Only essential work products are produced
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to c) Eliminate the use of project planning and
reduce overheads in the software process and

testing 2. RAD stands for

d) All of the mentioned Relative Application Development
Rapid Application Development
Answer:c Rapid Application Document
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each None of the mentioned
software development process which can’t be
avoided. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Which three framework activities are
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present in Adaptive Software Which one of the following models is not
Development(ASD) ? suitable for accommodating any change? a)
nt
a) analysis, design, coding Build & Fix Model
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b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle b) Prototyping Model
_Q
planning, iterative development c) RAD Model
c) speculation, collaboration, learning d) Waterfall Model
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Answer: d
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Answer:c Explanation: Real projects rarely follow
_B
Explanation: None. the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model
proposes.
In agile development it is more important to
build software that meets the customers’
es
Which is not one of the types of prototype
ot
needs today than worry about features that of Prototyping Model?
_N
might be needed in the future. a) Horizontal Prototype

a) True b) Vertical Prototype c)
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b) False Diagonal Prototype d)

Domain Prototype
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Answer:a
A
Explanation: None. Answer: c

e/
Explanation: Their is no such thing as

.
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Diagonal Prototype whereas other options

have their respective definitions.
/t.
TOPIC 2.4 DYNAMIC SYSTEM

s:/
Which one of the following is not a phase

DEVELOPMENT METHOD
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of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
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Build & Fix Model is suitable for b) Coding

:-
programming exercises of ___________ c) Prototype Refinement

in
LOC (Line of Code). d) Engineer Product

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a) 100 200 b)
200-400 c) Answer: b
400-1000 d) Explanation: A prototyping model
above 1000 generates only a working model of a system.
Answer: a Which of the following statements

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
for small projects & programming exercises a) No room for structured design
of 100 or 200 lines. b) Code soon becomes unfixable &

unchangeable Waterfall Model

Maintenance is practically not possible Prototyping Model
It scales up well to large projects RAD Model
both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is Answer: c
suitable for 100-200 LOC Explanation: None.
RAD Model has a) .
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2 phases
b) 3 phase
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TOPIC 2.5 EXTREME
c) 5 phases
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d) 6 phases PROGRAMMING
_Q
Answer: c Incremental development in Extreme
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Explanation: RAD Model consists of five Programming (XP) is supported through
phases namely:Business modeling,Data a system release once every month.
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modeling,Process modeling,Application a) True
_B
generation and Testing & Turnover. b) False
What is the major drawback of using RAD
Model?
es
Answer: b
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Explanation: Incremental development is
a) Highly specialized & skilled supported through small, frequent system
_N
developers/designers are required releases.

b) Increases reusability of components
TU
c) Encourages customer/client feedback In XP, as soon as the work on a task is

d) Increases reusability of components, complete, it is integrated into the whole
K
Highly specialized & skilled system.

A
developers/designers are required a) True

e/
b) False
m
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an Answer: a
/t.
unrealistic product vision leading a team to Explanation: XP follows a continuous

s:/
over or under-develop functionality.Also, integration approach.After any such

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the specialized & skilled developers are not integration, all the unit tests in the system
easily available.
ht
must pass.
:-
9. SDLC stands for In XP Increments are delivered to

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Software Development Life Cycle customers every _______ weeks. a)

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System Development Life cycle One

Software Design Life Cycle b) Two
System Design Life Cycle c) Three
d) Four
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP)
Which model can be selected if user is takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative
involved in all the phases of SDLC? development.New versions may be built

several times per day, hence delivering the Answer: a

increment for approval every 2nd week after Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very
testing the new version. difficult to write incrementally.For example,
in a complex user interface, it is often
User requirements are expressed as difficult to write unit tests for the code that
__________ in Extreme Programming. implements the ‘display logic’ and
a) implementation tasks workflow between screens.
b) functionalities
c) scenarios Tests are automated in Extreme
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d) none of the mentioned Programming.
a) True
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Answer: c b) False
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Explanation: User requirements are
_Q
expressed as scenarios or user stories.These Answer: a
are written on cards and the development Explanation: Automated test harnesses are
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team break them down into implementation used to run all component tests each time
tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule that a new release is built.
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and cost estimates.
_B
In XP an automated unit test framework is
Is a customer involved test development used to write tests for a new piece of
and validation in XP ? es
functionality before that functionality itself
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a) Yes is implemented.
b) No a) True
_N
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer b) False

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Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: XP follows Test-
K
Explanation: The role of the customer in the first development approach.

A
testing process is to help develop acceptance

e/
tests for the stories that are to be Developers work individually on a release
m
implemented in the next release of the system and they compare their results with other
developers before forwarding that release to
/t.
However, people adopting the customer role

have limited time available and so cannot customers.
s:/
work full-time with the development team. a) True

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They may feel that providing the b) False

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requirements was enough of a contribution

and so may be reluctant to get involved in the Answer: b
:-
testing process. Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair

in
programming which means developers work

in pairs, checking each other’s work and
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Programmers prefer programming to

testing and sometimes they take shortcuts providing the support to always do a good
when writing tests. For example, they may job.
write incomplete tests that do not check for
all possible exceptions that may occur. Which four framework activities are
a) True found in the Extreme Programming(XP)
b) False ? a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding

c) planning, design, coding, testing 5. CIM and WBEM has been defined by ?
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing a) DMTF
b) SMI Standards Organization
Answer: c c) Open Standards Body
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four d) None of the mentioned
activities, and in the same in order.
Answer: a
.
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_________ instruments one or more aspects
of the CIM Schema
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TOPIC 2.6 MANAGING
a) Distributor
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b) Provider
This set of multiple choice SAN storage c) Manager
_Q
questions and answers focuses on Storage d) None of the mentioned
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Management aspects.
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Answer: b
A Subprofile can reference other subprofiles
_B
a) True The server can operate directly on the
b) False es
underlying system by calling the system’s
commands, services, and library functions. a)
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Answer: a True
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b) False
Clients use which protocol to discover SMI
TU
Agents on Storage Area Network? Answer: a

a) SLP (Service Location Protocol)
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b) AGP(Agent Discovery Protocol) Transport protocol used for XMLCIM is

A
c) SMIP (SMI Protocol) a) UDP

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d) None of the mentioned b) HTTP

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c) SNMP
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
/t.
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Encoding mechanism of CIM Data as XML Answer: b

Elements ?
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a) CIM-XML A single CIM based management application

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b) xmlCIM can manage storage arrays from multiple

c) SGML
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vendors.
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a) True
b) False
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Answer: b
Answer: a
4. Can a vendor implement additional Classes 10. Collects responses from providers and
or support additional Properties than are returns to the client
defined in a Profile and still be considered a) xmlCIM
conformant? b) CIMOM
a) True c) DMTF
b) False d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: b
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tp
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Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Answer: c

Series – Storage Area Networks. Explanation: None.
A semaphore is a shared integer variable
TOPIC 2.7 INTERACTIVE __________
PROCESSES a) that can not drop below zero b)
that can not be more than zero c)
Which process can be affected by other that can not drop below one d)
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processes executing in the system? that can not be more than one
a) cooperating process
Answer: a
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b) child process
c) parent process Explanation: None.
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d) init process
6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
_Q
Answer: a
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Explanation: None. mutex locks
binary semaphores
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When several processes access the same both mutex locks and binary semaphores
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data concurrently and the outcome of the none of the mentioned
execution depends on the particular order
in which the access takes place, is called? es
Answer: c
Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known
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a) dynamic condition
b) race condition as mutex locks.
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c) essential condition
When high priority task is indirectly
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d) critical condition
preempted by medium priority task
Answer: b effectively inverting the relative priority
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Explanation: None. of the two tasks, the scenario is called

A
e/
If a process is executing in its critical priority inversion

m
section, then no other processes can be priority removal

priority exchange
/t.
executing in their critical section This

condition is called? priority modification
s:/
a) mutual exclusion
Answer: a
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b) critical exclusion
Explanation: None.
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c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion Process synchronization can be done on
:-
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Answer: a __________
a) hardware level
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xplanation: None.
b) software level
Which one of the following is a c) both hardware and software
synchronization tool? level d) none of the mentioned
a) thread
b) pipe Answer: c
c) semaphore Explanation: None.
d) socket A monitor is a module that encapsulates
__________

shared data structures Costs of lunch time food

procedures that operate on shared data Costs of support staff
structure
synchronization between concurrent Answer: c
procedure invocation Explanation: This is a incurred by the
all of the mentioned employees.
Answer: d What is related to the overall functionality

Explanation: None. of the delivered software?
um
To enable a process to wait within the b) Product-related metrics
nt
monitor __________ c) Size-related metrics
ua
a) a condition variable must be declared as d) None of the mentioned
_Q
condition
b) condition variables must be used Answer: a
ks
as boolean objects Explanation: Productivity is expressed in
c) semaphore must be used terms of the amount of useful functionality
oo
d) all of the mentioned produced in some given time. Function
_B
points and object points
Answer: a are the best-known metrics of this type.
Explanation: None. es
4. A is developed using historical cost
ot
information that relates some software
_N
TOPIC 2.8 BASICS OF

metric to the project cost.
SOFTWARE ESTIMATION Algorithmic cost modelling
TU
Expert judgement
TOPIC 2.9 EFFORT AND COST Estimation by analogy
K
Parkinson’s Law
A
ESTIMATION TECHNIQUES
e/
Answer: a
m
Which of the following are parameters Explanation: The model uses a basic
regression formula with parameters that are
/t.
involved in computing the total cost of a

software development project? derived from historical project data and
s:/
a) Hardware and software current as well as future project

tp
costs b) Effort costs characteristics.

ht

It is often difficult to estimate size at an
:-
early stage in a project when only a

in
Answer: d specification is available

Jo
xplanation: All these are accounted for in a) True

estimating a software development cost. b) False
Which of the following costs is not part of Answer: a

the total effort cost? Explanation: Function-point and object-point
a) Costs of networking and estimates are easier to produce than estimates of
communications b) Costs of providing code size but are often still inaccurate.
heating and lighting office space

Which technique is applicable when other Answer: d

projects in the same analogy application Explanation: Estimates are based on function
domain have been completed? points, which are then converted to number
a) Algorithmic cost modelling of lines of source code. The formula follows
b) Expert judgement the standard form discussed above with a
c) Estimation by analogy simplified set of seven multipliers.
Which model is used to compute the effort
Answer: c required to integrate reusable components or
um
Explanation: The cost of a new project is program code that is automatically generated
by design or program translation tools?
nt
estimated by analogy with these completed
projects. a) An application-composition model
ua
_Q
Which model assumes that systems are c) A reuse model
created from reusable components, scripting d) An early design model
ks
or database programming?
a) An application-composition model Answer: c
oo
b) A post-architecture model Explanation: None.
_B
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model The COCOMO model takes into account
Answer: a
es
different approaches to software
development, reuse, etc.
ot
Explanation: It is designed to make a) True
_N
estimates of prototype development. b) False

TU
Which of the following states that work Answer: b

expands to fill the time available. Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model.
K
a) CASE tools b) COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-

A
Pricing to win c) models that produce increasingly detailed

e/
Parkinson’s Law d) software estimates.

m
Expert judgement
.
/t.
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: The cost is determined by TOPIC 2.10 COSMIC

tp
available resources rather than by objective

assessment. If the software has to be FULL FUNCTION POINTS
ht
delivered in 12 months and 5 people are

:-
available, the effort required is estimated to Which of the following is not a metric for
in
be 60 person-months. design model?

Jo

Which model is used during early stages of the b) Component-level metrics
system design after the requirements have c) Architectural metrics
been established? d) Complexity metrics
b) A post-architecture model Answer: d
c) A reuse model Explanation: Complexity metrics measure
d) An early design model the logical complexity of source code.

Statement and branch coverage metrics are Architectural Design Metrics are
part of ___________ in
a) Analysis Model nature. a) Black Box
b) Testing b) White Box
c) Design Model c) Gray Box
d) Source Code d) Green Box
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: These metrics lead to the Explanation: They are “black box” in that
um
design of test cases that provide program they do not require any knowledge of the
nt
coverage. inner workings of a particular software
component.
ua
Function Points in software engineering
_Q
was first proposed by Structural complexity of a module i is
a) Booch b) given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f
ks
Boehm c) symbolizes here?
Albrecht d) a) “fan check-out” of module i
oo
Jacobson b) “fan check-in” of module i
_B
c) “fan in” of module i
Answer: c d) “fan out” of module i
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in es
Answer: d
ot
1979, hundreds of books and papers have
been written on functions points since then. Explanation: Fan out is number of
_N
modules directly invoked by module i.

How many Information Domain Values are
TU
used for Function Point Computation? 8. SMI stands for

a) three Software Mature Indicator
K
b) four Software Maturity Index

A
c) five Software Mature Index

e/
d) six Software Maturity Indicator

m
Answer: c Answer: b
/t.
Explanation: The five values are: External Explanation: None.

s:/
Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries,

As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software
tp
Internal Logical Files and External Interface

product starts becoming unstable
ht
Files.
a) True
:-
Function Point Computation is given by the b) False

in
formula
Answer: b
Jo
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]. Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0,
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) the software product begins to stabilize.
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is
Answer: b the number of modules
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula a) in the current release
for Function Point Computation. b) in the current release that have been
changed

from the preceding release that were development team

deleted in the current release d) Avoiding customer complaints
none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: Projects need to be managed
Explanation: None. because professional software engineering is
The amount of time that the software is schedule constraints.
available for use is known as
um
a) Reliability b) Project managers have to assess the risks
Usability c) that may affect a project.
nt
Efficiency d) a) True
ua
Functionality b) False
_Q
Answer: a Answer: b
ks
Explanation: None. Explanation: Risk management involves
anticipating risks that might affect the
oo
Usability in metric analysis is defined as the project schedule or the quality of the
degree to which the software
_B
software being developed, and then taking
a) stated needs action to avoid these risks.
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system
es
Which of the following is not considered as a
ot
resources d) none of the mentioned risk in project management?
_N
Answer: b b) Product competition
TU
Explanation: None. c) Testing

d) Staff turnover
K
.
A
Answer: c
e/

m

/t.
UNIT III ACTIVITY The process each manager follows during

s:/

PLANNING AND RISK
tp
MANAGEMENT b) Manager life cycle
ht

:-
TOPIC 3.1 OBJECTIVES d) All of the mentioned

in
OF ACTIVITY PLANNING Answer: c

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Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and
management goal? manage projects successfully.
A 66.6% risk is considered as a)
b) Delivering the software to the customer at
very low
the agreed time
b) low
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning

moderate and process proposed system changes, how

high to decide what system components to change,
how to manage different versions of the
Answer: d system and its components, and how to
Explanation: The probability of the risk distribute changes to customers.
might be assessed as very low (<10%),
low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high Identify the sub-process of process
(50– 75%), or very high (>75%). improvement
um
Which of the following is/are main b) Process analysis c)
nt
De-processification d)
ua
_Q
ks
oo
_B
Explanation: Estimation involves working es
and the external quality attribute.
ot
_N

Answer: b
TU

K

A
project c)
e/
customers .
m
d) project manager
/t.
TOPIC 3.2 PROJECT

Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: The quality plan should set out SCHEDULES

tp

how these are to be assessed. Which of the following is the reason that
ht
software is delivered late?

:-
Which of the following is incorrect activity a) Changing customer requirements that

in
for the configuration management of a are not reflected in schedule changes

Jo
software system? b) Technical difficulties that could not

a) Internship management have been foreseen in advance
b) Change management c) c) Human difficulties that could not
Version management have been foreseen in advance
d) ystem management d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management Explanation: None.

Which of the following is an activity that What is used to determine the recommended
distributes estimated effort across the degree of rigor with which the software
planned project duration by allocating the process should be applied on a project?
effort to specific software engineering tasks? a) Degree of Rigor
a) Software Macroscopic schedule b) Adaptation
b) Software Project scheduling c) criteria c) Task Set
Software Detailed schedule d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation
d) None of the mentioned criteria
um
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: Four different degrees of rigor
nt
are: casual, structured, strict, and quick
ua
Every task that is scheduled should be reaction.
_Q
assigned to a specific team member is
termed as What evaluates the risk associated with the
ks
a) Compartmentalization technology to be implemented as part of
b) Defined milestones project scope?
oo
c) Defined responsibilities a) Concept scoping
_B
d) Defined outcomes b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
Answer: c es
d) Customer reaction to the concept
ot
Explanation: These responsibilities
are domain specific. Answer: b
_N
Explanation: None.
What is a collection of software
TU
engineering work tasks, milestones, and Which of the following is not an adaptation
deliverables that must be accomplished to criteria for software projects?
K
complete a particular project? a) Size of the project

A
a) Task set b) Customers Complaints

e/
b) Degree of milestone c) Project staff

m
c) Adaptation criteria d) Mission criticality

/t.

Answer: b
s:/
Answer: a Explanation: These can vary from client

tp
Explanation: None. to client.

ht
Ensuring that no more than the allocated Which of the following is a project
:-
number of people are allocated at any given scheduling method that can be applied to
in
time in Software Scheduling is known as a) software development?

a) PERT
Jo
Time Allocation
ffort Validation b) CPM
Defined Milestone c) CMM
Effort Distribution d) Both PERT and CPM
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: Program evaluation and review
technique (PERT) and critical path method

(CPM) are two project scheduling methods TOPIC 3.4 SEQUENCING AND
that can be applied to software development.
SCHEDULING
A technique for performing quantitative
analysis of progress is known as Round robin scheduling falls under the
a) BCWS category of ____________
b) EVA a) Non-preemptive scheduling
c) BAC b) Preemptive scheduling
um
d) CBSE c) All of the mentioned d)
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: The earned value system Answer: b
ua
provides a common value scale for every Explanation: None.
_Q
task, regardless of the type of work being
performed. The total hours to do the whole With round robin scheduling algorithm in a
ks
project are estimated, and every task is given time shared system
an earned value based on its estimated a) using very large time slices converts it into
oo
percentage of the total. First come First served scheduling algorithm
_B
b) using very small time slices converts it
What is the recommended distribution of into First come First served scheduling
effort for a project? es
algorithm c) using extremely small time
ot
a) 40-20-40 slices increases performance
b) 50-20-30 d) using very small time slices converts it
_N
c) 30-40-30 into Shortest Job First algorithm

d) 50-30-20
TU
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: All the processes will be able to
K
Explanation: A recommended distribution of get completed.

A
effort across the software process is 40%

e/
(analysis and design), 20% (coding), and The portion of the process scheduler in an
m
40% (testing). operating system that dispatches processes is

/t.
concerned with
A project usually has a timeline chart a) assigning ready processes to CPU
s:/
which was developed by b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue

tp
a) Henry Gantt c) assigning running processes to blocked

b) Barry Boehm
ht
queue
c) Ivar Jacabson d) all of the mentioned
:-

in
Answer: a
Answer: a
Jo
Explanation: None.
xplanation: Timeline chart, also called a
Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an Complex scheduling algorithms
industrial engineer in 1917 . ____________
a) are very appropriate for very
. large computers
b) use minimal resources
TOPIC 3.3 ACTIVITIES c) use many resources d)
all of the mentioned

IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017
Answer: a tQ = 45ms
Explanation: Large computers are tQ = 50ms
overloaded with a greater number of
processes. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. What is FIFO algorithm?
first executes the job that came in last in Orders are processed in the sequence they
the queue arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs. a)
first executes the job that came in first in earliest due date
um
the queue b) slack time remaining
first executes the job that needs minimal c) first come, first
nt
processor served d) critical ratio
ua
first executes the job that has maximum
Answer: c
_Q
processor needs
Explanation: None.
ks
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Which of the following algorithms tends to
oo
minimize the process flow time?
_B
The strategy of making processes that are a) First come First served
logically runnable to be temporarily hortest Job First
suspended is called ____________ es
Earliest Deadline First
Longest Job First
ot
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
_N
c) Shortest job first Answer: b

d) First come First served Explanation: None.
TU
Answer: b Under multiprogramming, turnaround time

K
Explanation: None. for short jobs is usually ________ and that

A
for long jobs is slightly ___________

e/
7. What is Scheduling? a) Lengthened; Shortened

m
allowing a job to use the processor b) Shortened; Lengthened

making proper use of processor c) Shortened; Shortened
/t.
all of the mentioned d) Shortened; Unchanged

s:/
none of the mentioned

Answer: b
tp
Answer: a Explanation: None.

ht
Explanation: None.
Which of the following statements are
:-
in
There are 10 different processes running on a true? (GATE 2010)

workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an
Jo
I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling

input event in the input queue. Busy
processes are scheduled with the Round- Preemptive scheduling may cause starvat III.
Robin time sharing method. Which out of the
following quantum times is the best value for Round robin is better than FCFS in ter
small response times, if the processes have a
short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms? I only
a) tQ = 15ms I and III only
b) tQ = 40ms
um
nt
ua
_Q
ks
oo
_B
es
ot
_N
TU
K
A
e/
m
/t.
s:/
tp
ht
:-
in
Jo
II and III only are 7 layers namely Application, Presentation,

I, II and III Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and
Physical layer. Each layer uses a protocol to
Answer: d perform its designated function, for example,
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first the data link layer uses error detection
scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest protocols for error control functions.
job scheduling. It may cause starvation as
shorter processes may keep coming and a TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer
long CPU burst process never gets CPU. but OSI model have this layer.
um
Preemption may cause starvation. If priority a) session layer b)
based scheduling with preemption is used,
nt
transport layer c)
then a low priority process may never get application layer
ua
CPU. d) network layer
_Q
Round Robin Scheduling improves response
time as all processes get CPU after a Answer: a
ks
specified time. Explanation: In SI reference model, there
. are two layers which are not present in
oo
TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and
_B
Session layer. The functions of
TOPIC 3.5 NETWORK
Presentation and ession layer in the OSI
PLANNING MODELS es
model are handled by the transport layer
ot
itself in TCP/IP.
OSI stands for __________
_N
a) open system interconnection Which layer is used to link the network

support layers and user support layers? a)
TU
b) operating system interface

c) optical service implementation session layer
b) data link layer
K
d) open service Internet

c) transport layer
A
Answer: a d) network layer

e/
Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for

m
Open System Interconnection OSI model Answer: c

/t.
provides a structured plan on how Explanation: Physical, data link and network
layers are network support layers and session,
s:/
applications communicate over a network,

which also helps us to have a structured plan presentation and application layers are user
tp
for troubleshooting. It is recognized by the support layers. The transport layer links these
ht
ISO as the generalized model for computer layers by segmenting and rearranging the data.
network i.e. it can be modified to design any It uses protocols like TCP and UDP.
:-
kind of computer network.

in
Which address is used on the internet for

Jo
The number of layers in ISO OSI reference employing the TCP/IP protocols?
model is __________ a) physical address and logical
a) 4 address b) port address
b) 5 c) specific address
c) 6 d) all of the mentioned
d) 7
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: The physical, logical, port
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there and specific addresses are used in TCP/IP

IT8075 Software Project Management *************** Join:-
https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum
***************
protocol. All the addressing schemes, that is
physical (MAC) and logical address, port
address and specific address are employed in
both TCP/IP model and OSI model. In
TCP/IP, the addresses are more focused on
the internet implementation of these
addresses.
TCP/IP model was developed _____ the
um
OSI model.
a) prior to
nt
b) after
ua
c) simultaneous to
_Q
d) with no link to
ks
Answer: a
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes
oo
were developed at multiple research
_B
centers between 1978 and 1983, whereas
OSI reference model was developed in the
year 1984. TCP/IP was developed with the es
ot
intention to create a model for the Internet
while OSI was intended to be a general
_N
network model.
TU
Which layer is responsible for process to

process delivery in a general network model?
K
a) network layer
A
b) transport layer
e/
c) session layer
m
d) data link layer

/t.
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: The role of Transport layer

tp
(Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end

ht
connection between two systems in a

network. The protocols used in Transport
:-
layer is TCP and UDP. The transport layer is

in
responsible for segmentation of the data. It

Jo
uses ports for the implementation of process-

to-process delivery.
Which address is used to identify a process
on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
Regulations 2017
Answer: c
Explanation: A port number is a way to
identify a specific process to which an
Internet or other network message is to be
forwarded when it arrives at a server. Some
examples of port numbers are port 20 which
is used for FTP data, port 22 which is used for
SSH remote login ,and port 23 which is used
um
for TELNET.
Which layer provides the services to user? a)
nt
application layer
ua
b) session layer
_Q
c) presentation layer
d) physical layer
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly
_B
interacts with application layer to create and
send information to other computer or
network. Application layer provides the es
ot
interface between applications and the
network. It is the top-most layer in both the
_N
TCP/IP and the OSI model.

TU
10. Transmission data rate is decided by

K
network layer
A
physical layer
e/
data link layer

m
transport layer
/t.
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device

tp
which deals with network cables or the

ht
standards in use like connectors, pins, electric

current used etc. Basically the transmission
:-
speed is determined by the cables and

in
connectors used. Hence it is physical layer that

Jo
determines the transmission speed in network.

Some of the cables used for high speed data
transmission are optical fiber cables and twisted
pair cables.
TOPIC 3.6 | 3.7 | 3.8

FORMULATING NETWORK
MODEL, FORWARD PASS &
35
BACKWARD PASS Retesting

Sanity testing
TECHNIQUES
Breadth test and depth test
Confirmation testing
Which of the following term describes
testing? Answer: c
a) Finding broken code Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors on the already deployed software. The
c) A stage of all projects deployed software needs to be enhanced,
um
d) None of the mentioned changed or migrated to other hardware. The
Testing done during this enhancement,
nt
Answer: b change and migration cycle is known as
ua
Explanation: Software testing is the process maintenance testing.
_Q
of evaluation a software item to detect
differences between given input and White Box techniques are also classified as
ks
expected output. a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
oo
What is Cyclomatic complexity? a) c) Error guessing technique
Black box testing
_B
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
es
Answer: b
Explanation: The structural testing is the
ot
testing of the structure of the system or
_N
Answer: b component. Structural testing is often

Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or
TU
measures the amount of decision logic in ‘clear-box testing’ because in structural

the program module.Cyclomatic complexity testing we are interested in what is happening
K
gives the minimum number of paths that ‘inside the system/application’.

A
can generate all possible paths through the

e/
module. Exhaustive testing is

m
a) always possible
Lower and upper limits are present in
/t.
b) practically possible
which chart? c) impractical but possible d)
s:/
a) Run chart b) impractical and impossible

tp
Bar chart c)
Control chart Answer: c
ht
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing

:-
where we execute single test case for multiple

in
Answer: a test data.It means if we are using single test

xplanation: A run chart is used to monitor
Jo
case for different product or module under

the behavior of a variable over time for a manual testing.
process or system. Run charts graphically testing .
display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random
patterns in behavior over time. It contains Which of the following is/are White box
lower and upper limits. technique?
a) Statement Testing
Maintenance testing is performed using b) Decision Testing
which methodology?
um
nt
ua
_Q
ks
oo
_B
es
ot
_N
TU
K
A
e/
m
/t.
s:/
tp
ht
:-
in
Jo
Condition Coverage TOPIC 3.10 RISK

All of the mentioned
IDENTIFICATION
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision What is the main purpose of hazard
testing, condition coverage all of them identification?
uses white box technique. a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
b) For better risk management
What are the various Testing Levels?
um
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
a) Unit Testing d) To reduce probability of occurrence
b) System Testing
nt
c) Integration Testing Answer: c
ua
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
_Q
step in risk assessment. he goal is to
Answer: d understand the concentration of toxins,
ks
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing spatial distribution and there movement.
all of them are levels in testing.
oo
2. The process determines whether exposure
Boundary value analysis belong to?
_B
to a chemical can increase the incidence of
a) White Box Testing adverse health effect.
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box
es
Hazard identification
ot
Exposure assessment
Testing d) None of the mentioned
_N
Toxicity assessment
Answer: b Risk characterization
TU
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is Answer: a

based on testing at the boundaries Explanation: Hazard identification traces the
K
between partitions and checks the output path of the toxins and also determines the
A
with expected output. likelihood of occurrence in humans.

e/
Alpha testing is done at a)

m
Which of the following data is not required

Developer’s end
/t.
for hazard identification?

b) User’s end a) Land use
s:/
c) Developer’s & User’s end b) Contaminant levels

tp
d) None of the mentioned c) Affected population

ht
Answer: a d) Estimation of risk

:-
Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the Answer: d

developer’s end. Developers observe the
in
Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at

users and note problems. Alpha testing is
Jo
risk characterization whereas land use,

testing of an application when development is contaminant level, affected population and
about to complete. Minor design changes can biota data play a major role while identifying
still be made as a result of alpha testing. a hazard.
TOPIC 3.9 CRITICAL Hazard is defined as the probability of

suffering harm or loss.
PATH (CRM) METHOD a) True
b) False

Answer: b humans and ecological systems

Explanation: Risk is the probability of Poses threat to surrounding
suffering harm whereas hazard is a Monitoring is failed
potential source of harm. Outburst of chemicals
Why does site history have to be Answer: a
considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure
um
humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes results in catastrophic.
of contamination on site
nt
d) For determination of remedial actions The purpose of risk management is to
ua
identify potential problems before they occur
_Q
Answer: c so that risk-handling activities may be
Explanation: Site history provides precise planned.
ks
information about the activities that had been a) False
carried on the area. Most of the instance b) True
oo
contamination is due to past activities on site.
_B
Answer: b
What is the main objective of risk Explanation: The main goal of risk
assessment?
a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the
es
management is to reduce the threats from an
ot
activity so that harm to the surrounding is
risks b) Remediation of contaminated sites minimized.
_N
c) Hazard management
d) To know source of pollutants 10. Hazard identification mainly focus on
TU
Answer: a Chemical source and concentration

K
Explanation: Risk assessment helps to Chemical exposure

A
understand possible problems and Chemical analysis

e/
provides alternatives as well as control Chemical pathway

m
measures to reduce the accident.

Answer: a
/t.
What is the first stage of risk assessment? Explanation: The main aim of hazard
s:/
a) Exposure assessment identification is to identify chemical

tp
b) Hazard identification source, concentration and its movement in

c) Toxicity study environment.
ht
d) Risk characterization
:-
TOPIC 3.11 ASSESSMENT

in
Answer: b
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xplanation: Hazard identification is the first

stage of risk assessment. It provides clear What is the main purpose of hazard
understanding about chemical contaminants, identification?
their concentration and distribution in a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
environment. b) For better risk management
An incident can be called hazardous only d) To reduce probability of occurrence
when?
a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

Answer: c contamination on site

Explanation: Hazard identification is the first d) For determination of remedial actions
step in risk assessment. The goal is to
understand the concentration of toxins, Answer: c
spatial distribution and there movement. Explanation: Site history provides precise
information about the activities that had been
The ____________ process determines carried on the area. Most of the instance
whether exposure to a chemical can increase contamination is due to past activities on site.
the incidence of adverse health effect.
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a) Hazard identification What is the main objective of risk
assessment?
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b) Exposure assessment
c) Toxicity assessment a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the
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d) Risk characterization risks b) Remediation of contaminated sites
_Q
Answer: a d) To know source of pollutants
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Explanation: Hazard identification traces the
path of the toxins and also determines the Answer: a
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likelihood of occurrence in humans. Explanation: Risk assessment helps to
_B
understand possible problems and
Which of the following data is not required provides alternatives as well as control
for hazard identification? es
measures to reduce the accident.
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a) Land use
b) Contaminant levels What is the first stage of risk assessment?
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c) Affected population a) Exposure assessment

d) Estimation of risk b) Hazard identification
TU
c) Toxicity study
Answer: d d) Risk characterization
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Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at

A
risk characterization whereas land use, Answer: b

e/
contaminant level, affected population and Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
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biota data play a major role while identifying stage of risk assessment. It provides clear
understanding about chemical contaminants,
/t.
a hazard.
their concentration and distribution in
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Hazard is defined as the probability of environment.

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suffering harm or loss.

a) True An incident can be called hazardous only
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b) False when?
:-
a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

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Answer: b humans and ecological systems

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xplanation: Risk is the probability of b) Poses threat to surrounding

suffering harm whereas hazard is a c) Monitoring is failed
potential source of harm. d) Outburst of chemicals
Why does site history have to be Answer: a
considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes of results in catastrophic.

The purpose of risk management is to Which of the following risk is the failure of a
identify potential problems before they occur purchased component to perform as
so that risk-handling activities may be expected?
planned. a) Product risk
a) False b) Project risk
b) True c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: b
Explanation: The main goal of risk Answer: a
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management is to reduce the threats from an Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or
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activity so that harm to the surrounding is performance of the software being developed.
minimized.
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Which of the following term is best defined
by the statement: “There will be a change of
_Q
Hazard identification mainly focus on
______________ organizational management with different
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a) Chemical source and priorities.”?
concentration b) Chemical exposure a) Staff turnover
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c) Chemical analysis b) Technology change
_B
d) Chemical pathway c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: a es
Answer: c
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Explanation: The main aim of hazard
identification is to identify chemical Explanation: None.
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source, concentration and its movement in

environment. Which of the following term is best defined by
TU
the statement: “The underlying technology on

which the system is built is superseded by new
K
TOPIC 3.12 RISK PLANNING

technology.”?
A
a) Technology change b)
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TOPIC 3.13 RISK Product competition c)

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Requirements change d)
MANAGEMENT
/t.

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Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

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important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are

common in the competitive environment
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a) Client
b) Investor of software engineering.
:-
c) Production team
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d) Project manager What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
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Answer: d more about the risk?

xplanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring
anticipating risks that might affect the b) Risk planning
project schedule or the quality of the c) Risk analysis
software being developed, and then taking d) Risk identification
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Which of the following risks are derived Risk management is now recognized as
from the organizational environment where one of the most important project
the software is being developed? management tasks.
a) People risks a) True
b) Technology risks c) b) False
Estimation risks d)
Organizational risks Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
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Explanation: These risks are at .
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management level.
TOPIC 3.14 PERT TECHNIQUE
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Which of the following risks are derived
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from the software or hardware technologies
that are used to develop the system? Which of the following is not a phase of
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a) Managerial risks b) project management?
Technology risks c) a) Project planning b)
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Estimation risks d) Project scheduling c)
_B
Organizational risks Project controlling d)
Project being
Answer: b es
Answer: d
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Explanation: The risks associated
with technology might affect the Explanation: There are three phases of
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product development. project management. These are project

planning, project scheduling and project
TU
Which of the following term is best defined controlling. Project management refers to a
by the statement: “Derive traceability highly specialised job to achieve the
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information to maximize information hiding objectives of a project.

A
in the design.”?
e/
a) Underestimated development time Who introduced the bar charts? a)

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b) Organizational restructuring Williams henry

b) Henry Gantt
/t.
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned c) Jane Gantt d)
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Joseph henry
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Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements Answer: b
ht
can help us understand the risk. Explanation: Henry Gantt introduced the
:-
bar charts around 1900 A.D. They give

in
Which of the following strategies means pictorial representation in two dimensions of

that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
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a project by breaking it down into numerous

a) Avoidance strategies manageable units.
c) Contingency plans Bar charts were modified later to obtain the
d) All of the mentioned milestone charts.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: None.

Answer: a progress, black colour is used and for progress

Explanation: The various tools or techniques behind schedule, red colour is used.
used for project management are bar charts,
milestone charts and network diagrams. Bar A PERT network is activity-oriented while a
charts were modified later to obtain the CPM network is event-oriented.
milestone charts. a) True
b) False
The full form of PERT is ___________
a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology Answer: b
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b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique Explanation: A CPM network is activity-
oriented while a PERT network is event-
nt
c) Program Evaluation and Robot
Technology d) Program Evaluation and oriented. Event is the completion of an
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Review Technique activity or the commencement of an
_Q
activity. An event may be head event, tail
Answer: d event or dual role event.
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Explanation: There are various network
techniques that are called by various names are used to represent activity in a network
oo
like PERT, CPM, TOPS and LESS. diagram.
_B
Network technique is one of the major a) Circles
advancements in management science. The quares
full form of PERT is Program Evaluation es
Rectangles
ot
and Review Technique. Arrows
_N
The full form of CPM is Answer: d

a) Critical Path Method b) Explanation: A network is a flow diagram
TU
Control Path Method that consists of events and activities which

c) Critical Plan Management are connected sequentially and logically.
K
d) Control Path Management Arrows are used to represent activity in a

A
network diagram. Events are generally

e/
Answer: a represented by circles.

m
Explanation: The full form of CPM is the

The shortest possible time in which an
/t.
Critical Path Method. CPM networks are

mainly used for those projects for which a activity can be achieved under ideal
s:/
fairly accurate estimate of time of circumstances is known as ________

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completion can be made for each activity. a) Pessimistic time estimate

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In bar charts, which colour is used to show c) Expected time estimate
:-
the actual progress? d) The most likely time estimate

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a) Red
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b) Black Answer: b
c) Blue Explanation: There are three kinds of time
d) Green estimates made by PERT planners. These are
the optimistic time estimate, the pessimistic
Answer: d time estimate and the most likely time
Explanation: In bar charts, different colours estimate. The shortest possible time in which
are sometimes filled in the bars for showing an activity can be achieved under ideal
various control information. For actual circumstances is known as the optimistic time
progress, green colour is used. For anticipated estimate.

According to the time estimates made by the A randomized algorithm uses random bits as
PERT planners, the maximum time that input inorder to achieve a _____________
would be needed to complete an activity is good performance over all possible choice of
called as __________ random bits.
a) The most likely time estimate a) worst case
b) Optimistic time estimate b) best case c)
c) Pessimistic time estimate average case
d) Expected time estimate d) none of the mentioned
um
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: According to the time estimates Explanation: A randomized algorithm is an
nt
made by the PERT planners, the maximum algorithm that employs a degree of
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time that would be needed to complete an randomness as a part of its logic using
_Q
activity is called the pessimistic time random bits as inputs and in hope of
estimate. This estimate does not include producing average case good performace.
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possible effects of floods, earthquakes, etc.
Which of the following options match the
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In a network, a critical path is the time- given statement:
_B
wise shortest path. Statement: The algorithms that use the
a) True random input to reduce the expected
b) False es
running time or memory usage, but always
ot
terminate with a correct result in a bounded
Answer: b amount of time.
_N
Explanation: In a network, a critical path is a) Las Vegas Algorithm

the time-wise longest path. The critical path b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
TU
in the Critical Path Method plays an essential c) Atlantic City Algorithm

role in scheduling and planning. d) None of the mentioned
K
A
The difference between the maximum time Answer: a

e/
available and the actual time needed to Explanation: The other type of algorithms
m
perform an activity is known as are probabalistic algorithms, which

/t.
a) Free float depending upon the random input, have a

b) Independent chance of producing incorrect results or fail
s:/
float c) Total float to produce a result.

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d) Half float
Which of the following are probalistic
ht
Answer: c algorithms?
:-
Explanation: The difference between the a) Las Vegas Algorithm

in
maximum time available and the actual time b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
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needed to perform an activity is known as the c) Atlantic City Algorithm

total float. Hence, the total float is the excess d) All of the mentioned
of the maximum available time throughout
the time of the activity. Answer: d
Explanation: Monte Carlo algorithms are
TOPIC 3.15 MONTE CARLO very vast, but only probably correct. On thr
other side, Las Vegas algorithms are
SIMULATION always correct, but probably fast.

Which of the following algorithms are randomized algorithms as probalistic

probably correct as well as fast? turing machines. A probalistic turing
a) Las Vegas Algorithm machine is a non deterministic turing
b) Monte Carlo Algorithm machine which randomly chooses between
c) Atlantic City Algorithm the available transitions at each point
d) All of the mentioned according to some probalistic distribution.
Answer: c For the given algorithm, find the
Explanation: The atlantic city algorithms
um
probability of finding after k iterations:
which are bounded polynomial time
find_a(array A, n, k)
nt
algorithms are probably correct and probably
fast. It is correct more than 75% of the times.
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begin
Prisonner’s dilemma can be related to the
_Q
i=0
following:
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a) cooperative behaviour repeat
b) graph theory
oo
Randomly select one element
c) Both (a) and (b)
_B
d) None of the mentioned out i=i+1
Answer: a
Explanation: Prisonner’s dilemma is a
es until i=k or a is found
ot
end
standard example of a game analysed in game
_N
theory where rational cooperative behaviour k

is judged on the basis of rewards and (1/2)
TU
k
punishment. (1-(1/3))
1-(1/2)k
K
6. Unix sort command uses as its None of the mentioned

A
sorting technique.
e/
a) Quick Sort Answer: c

m
b) Bucket Sort Explanation: The given is known as Monte

Carlo Algorithm. If a is fount, the algorithm
/t.
c) Radix Sort
d) Merge Sort succeeds, else the algorith fails. The
s:/
algorithm doesn not guarantee success but the

tp
Answer: a run time is bounded.

ht
Explanation: Quicksort is the method of

choice in many applications( Unix sort Which of the following can be solved in
:-
command) with O(nlogn) in worst case. computer science?

in
a) P=BPP problem
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7. State true or false: b) NP=co-NP problem

Statement: A turing machine has the c) Do one way problems exist?
capability of using randomly ‘generated’ d) All of the mentioned
numbers.
true Answer: d
false Explanation: There exists a list of unsolved
problems in computational theory which
Answer: a includes many problems including the ones
Explanation: Complexity theories models given.

Which of the following can be referred to as In _________ the embedded devices and
applications of Randomized algorithm? a) objects working under IoT are resource
Quicksort constrained.
b) Min Cut a) Health
c) Verifying Matrix Multiplication b) Industry
d) All of the mentioned c) Home
d) Information system
Answer: d
Explanation: Freivalds algorithm is a Answer: d
um
probabalistic randomized algorithm we use to Explanation: In the information system the
verify matrix multiplication. On the other
nt
embedded devices and objects working under
hand, Randomness can be useful in quicksort. IoT implementation are resource constrained.
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If the algorithm selects pivot element
_Q
uniformaly at random, it has a probably high What type of networks is interacting under
probabilty of finishing the work in O(nlogn) IoT?
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time regardless of the input. a) Heterogeneous only
b) Homogeneous nly
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TOPIC 3.16 RESOURCE c) Both hetero and homogeneous
_B
d) Neither hetero nor Homo
ALLOCATION
es
Answer: a
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What is the popular method of organizing Explanation: Due to the huge number of
heterogeneous network elements interacting
_N
wireless network topologies?

a) Software and working under IoT based information
systems, there is an enormous need for
TU
b) Synchronization
c) Network resource management for the smooth
running of IoT operations.
K
d) Cluster
A
Answer: d Managing of resources can be done by

e/
Explanation: Clustering is a popular implementing

m
method of organising wireless network a) Protocols

/t.
topologies, in which a few nodes, the cluster b) Algorithms

c) Networks
s:/
heads are elected as representing to route the

traffic originated in the entire network. d) Protocols and algorithms
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Answer: d
ht
_________ will enable the humans to

access, control and manage the Explanation: Managing of resources by
:-
operation. a) IoT implementing protocols, algorithms or

in
b) Bigdata techniques is required to enhance the

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c) Network scalability, reliability and stability in the

d) Communication operations of IoT across different domains
of technology.
Answer: a
This section is to solicit the efforts and
Explanation: IoT enables the humans to
access, control and manage the operations ongoing research work in the domain of
and data of the objects working under _______
different information systems of their a) Information Management
surroundings. b) Resource Management

Industrial Management –> QoS in communication

Network Management protocol –> Mac layer issues
–> Secure communication in D2D.
Answer: b
Explanation: The motivation of this section Which of the following is the future
is to solicit the efforts and ongoing research application of IoT?
work in the domain of resource management a) Role of green IoT system
in IoT. b) QoS in communication c)
Secure communication
um
Resource management will elaborate the d) Multimedia communication
key aspects of _________
nt
a) Industrial management Answer: a
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b) Energy management c) Explanation: Future applications of IoT:
–> IoT based information system for
_Q
Network management d)
Information management Ambient living
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–> Cyber Physical System in IoT
Answer: c –> Role of Green IoT system –>
oo
Explanation: Resource management will Fog computing.
_B
elaborate the key aspects of energy
management, communication protocols and 11. The object of IoT will be empowered by
future applications of IoT for information es
Network
ot
systems.
Cloud
_N
Resource management includes Devices

___________ Connectivity
TU
a) IoT Devices
b) IoT Cloud c) Answer: c
K
IoT Networks Explanation: The objects of the Internet of

A
d) IoT Web Things will be empowered by embedded

e/
devices whose constrained resources will

m
Answer: b need to be managed efficiently.

Explanation: Resource management includes
/t.
IoT Cloud, IoT based industrial and home The embedded devices will form _______
s:/
environment and integration of IoT concept in network.

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upcoming technologies of Cyber Physical a) ATM b)

System, Ambient living and Fog Computing. Ethernet c)
ht
FDDI d)
:-
What is the role of communication protocol Ad-hoc

in
in IoT?
Answer: d
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a) Smart cities
b) Cyber physical system Explanation: It is envisioned that these
c) Mac layer issue devices will be able to form ad-hoc network,
d) Managing energy and that the connection from these networks
to the Internet of Things infrastructure will
Answer: c not always be possible.
Explanation: Role of communication
protocol in IoT : _______ are used to overcome the
–> Multimedia communication challenges of managing the resources of the

IoT. Architectural design is a creative process

Clustering satisfying only functional-requirements of a
Software agents system.
Synchronization techniques a) True
Cluster, Software agent, and b) False
Synchronization techniques
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: In architectural design you
Explanation: The use of Cluster, Software
um
design a system organization satisfying the
agent, and Synchronization techniques in functional and non-functional requirements
order to overcome the challenges of
nt
of a system.
managing the resources of the Internet of
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Things objects. 2. A view shows the system hardware and
_Q
how software components are distributed
Which will reduce the energy across the processors in the system.
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expenditure?
a) Clustering physical
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b) Software agents logical
_B
c) Synchronization techniques process
d) Cluster, Software agent, and all of the mentioned
Synchronization techniques es
Answer: a
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Answer: a Explanation: A physical view is
_N
Explanation: Clustering will be beneficial to implemented by system engineers

reduce the energy expenditure and improve implementing the system hardware.
TU
the scalability and robustness of the object

networks. 3. The UML was designed for describing
K
A
Synchronization techniques will be necessary object-oriented systems

e/
to address the various challenges of architectural design

m
harmonising. SRS
/t.
a) False Both object-oriented systems and

b) True Architectural design
s:/
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Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Synchronization techniques Explanation: The UML was designed for
ht
will be necessary to address the various describing object-oriented systems and, at

:-
challenges of harmonising plenty of copies the architectural design stage, you often want
in
of object data with potentially partially to describe systems at a higher level of

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disconnected Internet of Things architecture abstraction.

components.
Which of the following view shows that
the system is composed of interacting
TOPIC 3.17 CREATION processes at run time?
OF CRITICAL PATHS, a) physical
COST SCHEDULES. b) development
c) logical
d) process

Answer: d Which of the following pattern is the basis

Explanation: This view is useful for of interaction management in many web-
making judgments about non-functional based systems?
system characteristics such as performance a) architecture
and availability. b) repository pattern
c) model-view-controller
Which of the following is an architectural d) different operating system
conflict?
a) Using large-grain components improves Answer: c
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performance but reduces maintainability b) Explanation: Model-View-Controller
Introducing redundant data improves
nt
pattern is the basis of interaction
availability but makes security more management in many web-based systems.
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difficult c) Localizing safety-related features
_Q
usually means more communication so What describes how a set of interacting
degraded performance components can share data?
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d) All of the mentioned a) model-view-controller
b) architecture pattern c)
oo
Answer: d repository pattern
_B
Explanation: High availability architecture d) none of the mentioned
can be affected by several design factors
that are required to be maintained to ensure es
Answer: c
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that no single points of failure exist in such Explanation: The majority of systems that
design. use large amounts of data are organized
_N
around a shared database or repository.

Which of the following is not included in
TU
Architectural design decisions? Which view in architectural design shows the

a) type of application key abstractions in the system as objects or
K
b) distribution of the system object classes?

A
c) architectural styles a) physical

e/
d) testing the system b) development

m
c) logical
Answer: d
/t.
d) process
Explanation: Architectural design decisions
s:/
include decisions on the type of application, Answer: c

tp
the distribution of the system, the Explanation: It is possible to relate the

system requirements to entities in a
ht
architectural styles to be used, and the ways

in which the architecture should be logical view.
:-
documented and evaluated.

in
Which of the following is a type of

Architectural Model?
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Architecture once established can be

applied to other products as well. a) Static structural model b)
a) True Dynamic process model c)
b) False Distribution model
Answer: b
Explanation: Systems in the same domain Answer: d
often have similar architectures that reflect Explanation: All these models reflects the
domain concepts.

basic strategy that is used to structure Answer: a

a system. Explanation: LOC or Line of Code is a
direct measure to estimate project size.
.
Which software project sizing approach
develop estimates of the information domain
characteristics?
a) Function point
UNIT IV PROJECT sizing b) Change sizing
um
MANAGEMENT AND c) Standard component sizing
nt
d) Fuzzy logic sizing
CONTROL
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Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: None.
TOPIC 4.1 FRAMEWORK FOR
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MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL The expected value for the estimation
variable (size), S, can be computed as a
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Why is decomposition technique required? weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt),
_B
a) Software project estimation is a form of most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Spess)
estimates given as
problem solving
b) Developing a cost and effort estimate for a es
a) EV = ( opt + 4Sm + Spess)/4 b)
ot
EV = ( opt + 4Sm + Spess)/6 c)
software project is too complex
EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6 d)
_N
c) All of the mentioned d)

EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4
TU
Answer: b
Answer: c
Explanation: This assumes that there is a
K
Explanation: For these reasons, we

very small probability that the actual size
A
decompose the problem, re-characterizing it

result will fall outside the optimistic or
as a set of smaller problems.
e/
pessimistic values.
m
Cost and effort estimation of a software uses

How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s
/t.
only one forms of decomposition, either

COCOMO Model?
s:/
decomposition of the problem or

a) Two
decomposition of the process.
tp
b) Three
a) True
c) Four
ht
b) False
d) No form exists
:-
Answer: b
in
Answer: b
Explanation: Estimation uses one or both
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Explanation: The three forms include the

forms of partitioning.
basic, intermediate and advanced COCOMO
If a Direct approach to software project model.
sizing is taken, size can be measured in a)
Who suggested the four different
LOC
approaches to the sizing problem?
b) FP
a) Putnam
c) LOC and FP
d) None of the mentioned b) Myers

Boehm Answer: b
Putnam and Myers Explanation: The planner must determine the
cause of divergence and then reconcile the
Answer: d estimates.
Explanation: None.
Programming language experience is a
In many cases, it is often more cost- part of which factor of COCOMO cost
effective to acquire, rather than drivers?
develop, computer software. a) Personnel Factor
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a) True b) Product Factor c)
b) False
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Platform Factor d)
Project Factor
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Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: Managers are faced with a Answer: a
make-buy decision in such situations. Explanation: None.
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A make-buy decision is based on whether a) If an Indirect approach is taken, then the
oo
The software may be purchased off-the- sizing approach is represented as
_B
shelf a) LOC
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” b) FP
software components should be used
c) Customer-built software should
es
c) Fuzzy Logic
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d) LOC and FP
be developed
_N
d) All of the mentioned Answer: b

Explanation: A function point (FP) is a unit
TU
Answer: d of measurement to express the amount of

Explanation: None.. business functionality an information
K
system provides to a user.

A
Which of the following is not one of the

e/
five information domain characteristics of .

Function Point (FP) decomposition?
m
a) External inputs b)
/t.
TOPIC 4.2 COLLECTION OF

External outputs c)
s:/
External process d) DATA

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External inquiries
Project management involves the planning,
ht
Answer: c monitoring, and control of the people,

:-
Explanation: External inputs, external process, and events that occur as software
in
outputs, external inquiries, internal evolves from a preliminary concept to an

logical files, external interface files are
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operational implementation.
the five domains. a) True
The project planner must reconcile the b) False
estimates based on decomposition techniques Answer: a
to produce a single estimate of effort. Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False Which of the following is not an effective
software project management focus?

people Answer: c
product Explanation: A small number of
popularity framework activities are applicable to all
process software projects, regardless of their size or
complexity.
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective software project Who defines the business issues that often
management focuses on the four P’s: have significant influence on the project? a)
Practitioners
um
people, product, process, and project.
b) Project managers
3. PM-CMM stands for c) Senior managers
nt
people management capability maturity d) None of the mentioned
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model
_Q
process management capability maturity Answer: c
model Explanation: None.
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product management capability maturity
model Who delivers the technical skills that are
oo
project management capability maturity necessary to engineer a product or an
_B
model application?
a) Practitioners
Answer: a
Explanation: The people management
es
b) Project managers
ot
enior managers
maturity model defines the following key None of the mentioned
_N
practice areas for software people: recruiting,

selection, performance management, training, Answer: a
TU
compensation, career development, Explanation: None.

organization and work design, and
K
team/culture development. Which of the following paradigm attempts to

A
structure a team in a manner that achieves

e/
Which of the following is not a project some of the controls associated with the
m
manager’s activity? closed paradigm but also much of the

innovation that occurs when using the random
/t.
a) project control
b) project management paradigm?
s:/
c) project planning d) a) asynchronous paradigm

tp
project design b) open paradigm

c) closed paradigm
ht
Answer: d d) synchronous paradigm

:-
Explanation: The design part of any project

in
management is done by the project team. Answer: b

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Explanation: Open paradigm team structures

5. A software provides the framework from are well suited to the solution of complex
which a comprehensive plan for software problems but may not perform as efficiently
development can be established. as other teams.
people
product Which of the following is a people-
process intensive activity?
none of the mentioned a) Problem solving
b) Organization

Motivation Who interacts with the software once it is

Project management released for production use?
a) End-users
Answer: d b) Client
Explanation: For this reason, competent c) Project (technical) managers
practitioners often make poor team leaders. d) Senior managers
Which paradigm structures a team loosely Answer: a
and depends on individual initiative of the Explanation: A product is always built
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team members? to satisfy an end-user.
a) random paradigm
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b) open paradigm c) Which of the following is not an effective
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closed paradigm project manager trait?
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d) synchronous paradigm a) Problem solving b)
Managerial identity
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Answer: d c) Influence and team building
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned
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Which of the following is not an approach to
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Answer: d
software cost estimation? Explanation: All are key traits of an effective
a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
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project manager.
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c) Analytical Which type of software engineering team has
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d) Critical a defined leader who coordinates specific

tasks and secondary leaders that have
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Answer: d responsibility for sub tasks?

Explanation: Critical is no such standard a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
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approach of cost estimation. b) Democratic decentralized

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(DD) c) Controlled centralized

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. (CC) d) None of the mentioned

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Answer: a
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TOPIC 4.3 VISUALIZING

Explanation: Problem solving remains a
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PROGRESS group activity, but implementation of

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solutions is partitioned among subgroups

Which paradigm relies on the natural by the team leader.
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compartmentalization of a problem and

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organizes team members to work on pieces of Commitments to unrealistic time and

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the problem with little active communication resource estimates may result in
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among themselves? a) project delay

a) random paradigm b) poor quality work
b) open paradigm c) c) project failure
closed paradigm d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.

Which software engineering team has no the functionality that must be delivered and
permanent leader? the process that will be used to deliver it.
a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
b) Democratic decentralized Which of the following is not a sign that
(DD) c) Controlled Centralized indicates that an information systems project
(CC) d) None of the mentioned is in jeopardy?
a) Software people don’t understand
Answer: b their customers needs
Explanation: Here Communication among b) Changes are managed poorly
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team members is horizontal. c) Sponsorship is gained
d) Users are resistant
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Which of the following is not a project factor
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that should be considered when planning the Answer: c
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structure of software engineering teams? Explanation: Other options are contradictory
a) The difficulty of the problem to be solved to the question.
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b) High frustration caused by personal,
business, or technological factors that 11. SPMP stands for
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causes friction among team members Software roject Manager’s Plan
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c) The degree of sociability required for the Software roject Management Plan
project oftware roduct Management Plan
d) The rigidity of the delivery date esoftware Product Manager’s Plan
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Answer: c Answer: b
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Explanation: Development is irrelevant of Explanation: After planning is complete,

social quotient. documenting of the plans is done in a
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Software Project Management Plan(SPMP)

Which of the following is a collection of document.
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project coordination technique?

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a) Formal approaches .
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b) Formal, interpersonal procedures

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c) Informal, interpersonal procedures TOPIC 4.4 COST MONITORING

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Answer: d Which of the following categories is part of

the output of software process?
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Explanation: None.
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Which activity sits at the core of software b) documents that describe the computer
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requirements analysis? programs

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a) Problem decomposition c) data

b) Partitioning d) all of the mentioned
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c) Problem elaboration
d) All of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: None
Answer: d
Explanation: During the scoping activity Which is a software configuration
decomposition is applied in two major areas: management concept that helps us to control
change without seriously impeding
justifiable change?

Baselines Baseline
Source code None of the mentioned
Data model
None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the Which of the following is the process of
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a assembling program components, data, and
software configuration item becomes a libraries, and then compiling and linking
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baseline, change may be made quickly and these to create an executable system?
a) System building
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informally.
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Software Configuration Management can c) Change management
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be administered in several ways. These d) Version management
include
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a) A single software configuration Answer: a
management team for the whole Explanation: None.
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organization b) A separate configuration
Which of the following option is not tracked
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management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management by configuration management tools? a)
distributed among the project members es
Tracking of change proposals
toring versions of system components
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Tracking the releases of system versions to
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Answer: a customers
Explanation: None None of the mentioned
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What combines procedures and tools to Answer: d

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manage different versions of configuration Explanation: All the options are tracked.
A
objects that are created during the software

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process? Which of the following is not a Software

Configuration Management Activity?
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a) Change control
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b) Version control
c) SCIs b) Risk management
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d) None of the mentioned c) Release management

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d) Branch management
Answer: b
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Explanation: Configuration management Answer: b

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allows a user to specify alternative Explanation: Risk management is an entirely

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configurations of the software system through different domain.

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the selection of appropriate versions.

The definition and use of configuration
What complements the formal technical management standards is essential for
review by assessing a configuration object for quality certification in
characteristics that are generally not a) ISO 9000
considered during review? b) CMM c)
a) Software configuration audit CMMI
b) Software configuration management d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d which components in the system have been

Explanation: It is defined in all the changed.
mentioned options.
Which of the following is not a Version
What involves preparing software for management feature?
external release and keeping track of the a) Version and release identification
system versions that have been released for b) Build script generation
customer use? c) Project support
a) System building d) Change history recording
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Answer: b
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d) Version management Explanation: All other options are a part
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of version management.
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Answer: b
Explanation: None. Which method recommends that very
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frequent system builds should be carried out
. with automated testing to discover software
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problems?
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TOPIC 4.5 EARNED a) Agile method
b) Parallel compilation method
VALUE ANALYSIS es
c) Large systems method
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Which of the following process ensures
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that versions of systems and components are Answer: a

recorded and maintained? Explanation: In keeping with the agile
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a) Codeline methods notion of making many small

b) Configuration changes, continuous integration involves
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control c) Version rebuilding the mainline frequently, after

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d) Workspace small source code changes have been made.

e/
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Answer: b Which of the following is not a build

system feature?
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Explanation: In configuration control

changes are managed and all versions of a) Minimal recompilation
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components are identified and stored for the b) Documentation generation

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lifetime. c) Storage management

d) Reporting
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Which of the following process is

:-
concerned with analyzing the costs Answer: c

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and benefits of proposed changes? Explanation: To reduce the storage space

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a) Change management required by multiple versions of components

b) Version management that differ only slightly, version management
ystem building systems usually provide storage
Release management management facilities.
Answer: a Which of the following is a collection of

Explanation: It involves approving those component versions that make up a
changes that are worthwhile, and tracking system? a) Version
b) Codeline

Baseline new codeline from a version in an

None of the mentioned existing codeline”?
Branching
Answer: c Merging
Explanation: Baselines are controlled, which Codeline
means that the versions of the components Mainline
making up the system cannot be changed.
Answer: a
Which of the following is a configuration Explanation: The code may then
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item? be developed independently.
a) Design & Test
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specification b) Source code .
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c) Log information
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d) All of the mentioned TOPIC 4.6 PRIORI IZING
MONITORING
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Answer: d
Explanation: A configuration item is an
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approved and accepted deliverable, changes “Robustness” answers which of the
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have to be made through formal procedure. following description?
a) CA E tools be used to support the process
Which of the following is a part of system
release?
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activities
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b) Process errors are avoided or trapped
a) electronic and paper documentation before they result in product errors
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describing the system c) Defined process is acceptable and usable

b) packaging and associated publicity that
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by the engineers responsible for producing

have been designed for that release the software
c) an installation program that is used to help d) Process continues in spite of
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install the system on target hardware unexpected problems

A

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Answer: d
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Answer: d Explanation: None.

Explanation: Release creation is the process
/t.
of creating the collection of files and Process improvement is the set of activities,
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documentation that includes all of the methods, and transformations that

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components of the system release. developers use to develop and maintain

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information systems.
A sequence of baselines representing a) True
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different versions of a system is known b) False

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as a) System building
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b) Mainline Answer: b
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI) Explanation: The definition is of a
d) None of the mentioned system development process.
Answer: b “Understandability” answers which of the
Explanation: None. following description?
a) The extent to which the process is
Which of the following term is best explicitly defined
defined by the statement “The creation of a b) Process errors are avoided or trapped

before they result in product errors Process analysis

Defined process is acceptable and usable by Process modelling
the engineers responsible for producing the None of the mentioned
software product
Process continues in spite of unexpected Answer: c
problems Explanation: Process models may be
presented from different perspectives.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. It is always best to start process analysis
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with a new test model.
How many stages are there in process a) True
nt
improvement? b) False
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a) three
Answer: b
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b) four
c) five Explanation: It is always best to start
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d) six process analysis with an existing model.
People then may extend and change this.
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Answer: a
What is a tangible output of an activity that is
_B
Explanation: Process measurement, analysis
and change are the three stages. predicted in a project plan?
In which stage of process improvement

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a) Deliverable
b) Activity c)
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bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified? Condition d)
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a) Process measurement Process

b) Process analysis
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c) Process change Answer: a

d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.
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A
Answer: b What is often undefined and is left to the

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Explanation: In Process analysis the ingenuity of the project managers and

engineers?
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current process is assessed and bottlenecks

and weaknesses are identified a) Role
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b) Exception
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Prototypes and 4GL business systems are c) Activity

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categorized under which process? d) Process

a) Informal b)
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Managed c) Answer: b
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Methodical d) Explanation: Exceptions are often undefined

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Supported and it is left to the ingenuity of the project

managers and engineers to handle the
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Answer: a exception.
xplanation: Here the development team
chose their own way of working. Which of the following is not a part of
process change?
The documentation of a process which a) Introducing new practices, methods or
records the tasks, the roles and the entities processes
used is called b) Introducing new team members to existing
a) Process metric project

Introducing or removing deliverable Project managers have to assess the risks

Introducing new roles or responsibilities that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: Adding more developers aid to
process completion rather than changing it. Answer: b
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a anticipating risks that might affect the
continuous model.
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a) True software being developed, and then taking
b) False
nt
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Answer: b Which of the following is not considered as a
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Explanation: The CMM is discrete rather risk in project management?
than continuous. a) Specification delays
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The CMMI assessment is based on a x- c) Testing
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point scale. What is the value of x? d) Staff turnover
_B
a) 0
b) 2 Answer: c
c) 4
d) 6
es
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Answer: d The process each manager follows during

Explanation: Not performed, performed, the life of a project is known as
TU
managed, defined, quantitatively managed, a) Project Management

and optimizing are the six points. b) Manager life cycle
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. d) All of the mentioned

e/
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TOPIC 4.7 PROJECT Answer: c

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TRACKING is necessary to repeatedly implement and

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Which of the following is not project

management goal? A 66.6% risk is considered as a)
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a) Keeping overall costs within budget very low

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in

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development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints Answer: d
Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%),
Explanation: Projects need to be managed low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high
because professional software engineering is (50– 75%), or very high (>75%).
schedule constraints.

Which of the following is/are main Process analysis

parameters that you should use when De-processification
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Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute
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_Q
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Answer: b
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_B
project c)
customers . es
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d) project manager
TOPIC 4.8 CHANGE CONTROL
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Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out
TU
the desired software qualities and describe 1. SCM stands for

how these are to be assessed. Software Control Management
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Software Configuration Management

A
Which of the following is incorrect activity Software Concept Management

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for the configuration management of a None of the mentioned

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software system?
Answer: b
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b) Change management c) Explanation: In software engineering,
s:/
Version management d) software configuration management (SCM) is

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System management the task of tracking and controlling changes

in the software, part of the larger cross-
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Answer: a discipline field of configuration management.

:-

When code is made available to others, it
in

goes in a/an
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to decide what system components to change, a) hard drive
how to manage different versions of the b) access-controlled
system and its components, and how to library c) servers
distribute changes to customers. d) access control
Identify the sub-process of process Answer: b

improvement Explanation: None.

Which of the following is not a main phase in What is one or more software configuration
Configuration Management (CM) Process? a) items that have been formally reviewed and
CM Planning agreed upon and serve as a basis for further
b) Executing the CM process development?
c) CM audits a) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned b) Cumulative changes
c) CM
Answer: d d) Change Control
Explanation: All are main phases of CM.
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Answer: a
CM is about managing the different items Explanation: In configuration management, a
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in the product, and changes in them. “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the
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a) True attributes of a product, at a point in time,
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b) False which serves as a basis for defining change.
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Answer: a How are baselines verified? a)
Explanation: None. By reviews
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b) By inspections
What allows different projects to use the
_B
c) By testing of code d)
same source files at the same time? All of the mentioned
a) Version Control
b) Access control
es
Answer: c
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c) CM Process Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-
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d) Version Control and Access control to description.

TU
Answer: a Which of the following is a example of

Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?
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continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures

A
when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code

e/

Which of the following is not a change
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management process?
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a) Log the changes Answer: d

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b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
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d) None of the mentioned SCM controls only the products of the
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development process.
:-
Answer: d a) True
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Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False

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Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False 12. CCB stands for
Change Control Board
Answer: a Change Control Baseline
Explanation: None. Cumulative Changes in Baseline

Answer: a Software Configuration Management can

Explanation: None. be administered in several ways. These
include
What information is required to process a a) A single software configuration
change to a baseline? management team for the whole
a) Reasons for making the changes organization b) A separate configuration
b) A description of the proposed changes management team for each project
c) List of other items affected by the c) Software Configuration Management
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changes d) All of the mentioned distributed among the project members
Answer: d
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Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to Answer: a
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description of the product, changes Explanation: None
_Q
require multiple reasons..
What combines procedures and tools to
.
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manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software
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TOPIC 4.9 SOFTWARE process?
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a) Change control
CONFIGURATION b) Version control
MANAGEMENT esCIs
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Which of the following categories is part of
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the output of software process? Answer: b

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b) documents that describe the computer allows a user to specify alternative
configurations of the software system through
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programs
c) data the selection of appropriate versions.
A

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What complements the formal technical

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Answer: d review by assessing a configuration object for

characteristics that are generally not
/t.
Explanation: None
s:/
Which is a software configuration a) Software configuration audit

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management concept that helps us to control b) Software configuration

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change without seriously impeding management c) Baseline

justifiable change? d) None of the mentioned
:-
a) Baselines b)
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Source code c) Answer: a

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Data model Explanation: None.

Which of the following is the process of
Answer: a assembling program components, data, and
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the libraries, and then compiling and linking
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a these to create an executable system?
software configuration item becomes a a) System building
baseline, change may be made quickly and b) Release management
informally.

Change management Answer: b

Version management Explanation: None.
Answer: a .
Explanation: None.
Which of the following option is not tracked TOPIC 4.10 MANAGING
by configuration management tools? a) CONTRACTS - CONTRACT
Tracking of change proposals MANAGEMENT.
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b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to
nt
A voluntary arrangement between two or
customers
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more parties that is enforceable by law as a
d) None of the mentioned binding legal agreement is known as
_Q
Answer: d
job
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Explanation: All the options are tracked.
loan
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Which of the following is not a Software contract
Configuration Management Activity? mutual fund
_B
a) Configuration item identification Answer: c
b) Risk management
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Explanation: A contract arises when the
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parties agree that there is an agreement.
_N
Formation of a contract generally requires an

Answer: b offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual
TU
Explanation: Risk management is an entirely intent to be bound. Each party to a contract

must have capacity to enter the agreement.
different domain.
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Minors, intoxicated persons, and those under a

A
The definition and use of configuration mental affliction may have insufficient
capacity to enter a contract. Some types of
e/
management standards is essential for

quality certification in contracts may require formalities, such as a
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a) ISO 9000 memorialization in writing.

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b) CMM c)
s:/
What is the type of mistake which occurs

CMMI
when only one party to a contract is mistaken
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as to the terms or subject-matter?
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Answer: d a) Mutual mistake b)

Unilateral mistake c)
:-
Explanation: It is defined in all the

Bilateral mistake d)
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mentioned options.
Individual mistake
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What involves preparing software for

external release and keeping track of the Answer: b
system versions that have been released for Explanation: The courts will uphold such a
customer use? contract unless it was determined that the non-
a) System building mistaken party was aware of the mistake and
b) Release management tried to take advantage of the mistake. It is
c) Change management also possible for a contract to be void if there
d) Version management was a mistake in the identity of the contracting
party. An example is in Lewis v.

Avery where Lord Denning MR held that the Which tender allows anyone to submit a
contract can only be voided if the plaintiff can tender to supply the goods or services that are
show that, at the time of agreement, the required?
plaintiff believed the other party’s identity a) Framework tendering
was of vital importance. A mere mistaken b) Selective tendering
belief as to the credibility of the other party is c) Open tendering
not sufficient. d) Close tendering
_______________ contract is one that has Answer: c
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automatic renewals until one party requests Explanation: On larger projects, there may
termination. then be a pre-qualification process that
nt
a) Uniform b) produces a short-list of suitable suppliers who
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Evergreen c) will be invited to prepare tenders his sort of
_Q
Moderate d) pre-qualification process is not the same as
On-demand selective tendering.
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Open tendering has been criticised for
Answer: b attracting tenders / expressions of interest
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Explanation: If these are left unattended, they from large numbers of suppliers, some of
_B
can have significant cost impacts with little whom may be entirely unsuitable for the
value. If these agreements won’t work for the contract and as a result it can waste a great
company, the clauses stating the contract es
deal of time, effort and money. However,
ot
automatically renews should be removed. If open tendering offers the greatest competition
the clause makes sense or cannot be taken out,
_N
and has the advantage of allowing new or

alerts can still be set in a contract management emerging suppliers to try to secure work.
TU
platform as a reminder.
6. involves the preparation of tenders
How are final contracts signed in modern based on a typical or notional bill of
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business? quantities or schedule of works.

A
a) e-Signatures
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b) Document scanning Framework tendering

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c) Thump impression Selective tendering

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d) Shaking hands Negotiated tendering

s:/
Serial tendering
Answer: a
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Explanation: Electronic signatures, or e- Answer: d

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Signatures, have become crucial for Explanation: The rates submitted can then be
businesses as they seek to increase the speed used to value works over a series of similar
:-
of time to signature, e-Signatures are legally projects, often for a fixed period of time
in
binding and have the same legal status as a following which the tendering procedure may
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written signature, as long as it fulfills the be repeated. Serial tendering can reduce
requirements of the regulation it was created tender costs, and may encourage suppliers to
under. submit low rates to secure an ongoing
A contract management platform should program of work.
include the ability to integrate with an e-
Signature software, or include e-Signatures as _______________ tendering is used when
part of the platform. all the information necessary to calculate a
realistic price is available when tendering
commences.

Single-stage The form of contract.

Double-stage A tender pricing document.
Framework A drawing schedule.
Serial Design drawings.
Specifications.
Answer: a
Explanation: Single-stage tendering is the Mutual mistake occurs when both parties
more traditional route, used when all the of a contract are mistaken as to the terms.
information necessary to calculate a realistic a) False
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price is available when tendering commences: b) True
An invitation to tender is issued to
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prospective suppliers (perhaps following Answer: b
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completion of a pre-qualification Explanation: Each believes they are
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questionnaire and/or a pre-tender contracting to something different. Courts
interview). The invitation to tender will usually try to uphold such mistakes if a
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include information describing the goods or reasonable interpretation of the terms can be
services required in sufficient detail to found. However, a contract based on a
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enable prospective suppliers to prepare an mutual mistake in judgment does not cause
_B
accurate tender. the contract to be voidable by the party that is
Tenders are prepared and returned by adversely affected.
prospective suppliers (this may involve es
10. In chedule contract the contractor
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questions and answers and a mid-tender
interview to clarify the client’s requirements). undertakes the execution or construction of
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Submitted tenders are then assessed and specific work with all its contingencies, to
complete it in all respect within a specified
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compared (this may involve further

interviews). time for a fixed amount.
The preferred tenderer is selected and False
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negotiations opened. True

A
Subject to the outcome of those negotiations

e/
Answer: a
the preferred tenderer may then be appointed.
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Explanation: In lump sum contract the

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An invitation to tender might not include? contractor undertakes the execution or

a) Holiday packages construction of specific work with all its
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b) Preliminarie contingencies, to complete it in all respect

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c) A letter of invitation to tender within a specified time for a fixed amount. In

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d) Design drawing this an owner agrees to pay a contractor a

specified lump sum after the completion of
:-
Answer: a work without a cost breakdown. After work

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Explanation: An invitation to tender might no detailed measurements are required.

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be issued for a range of contracts,

including; equipment supply, the main
construction contract (perhaps including
design by the contractor), demolition,
enabling works and so on. UNIT V STAFFING IN
An invitation to tender might include:
A letter of invitation to tender.
SOFTWARE PROJECTS
The form of tender.
Preliminaries. TOPIC 5.1 MANAGING PEOPLE

Project management involves the planning, Answer: d

monitoring, and control of the people, Explanation: The design part of any project
process, and events that occur as software management is done by the project team.
evolves from a preliminary concept to an
operational implementation. A software ________ provides the
a) True framework from which a comprehensive plan
b) False for software development can be established.
a) people
Answer: a b) product
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Explanation: None. c) process
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Which of the following is not an effective
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software project management focus? Answer: c
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a) people b) Explanation: A small number of
product c) framework activities are applicable to all
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popularity software projects, regardless of their size or
d) process complexity.
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_B
Answer: c Who defines the business issues that often
Explanation: Effective software project have significant influence on the project? a)
management focuses on the four P’s: es
Practitioners
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people, product, process, and project. b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
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3. PM-CMM stands for d) None of the mentioned

people management capability maturity
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model Answer: c
process management capability maturity Explanation: None.
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model
A
product management capability maturity Who delivers the technical skills that are
e/
model necessary to engineer a product or an

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project management capability maturity application?

a) Practitioners
/t.
model
b) Project managers
s:/
Answer: a c) Senior managers

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Explanation: The people management d) None of the mentioned

maturity model defines the following key
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practice areas for software people: recruiting, Answer: a

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selection, performance management, training, Explanation: None.

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compensation, career development,

Which of the following paradigm attempts to
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organization and work design, and

team/culture development. structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the
Which of the following is not a project closed paradigm but also much of the
manager’s activity? innovation that occurs when using the random
a) project control paradigm?
b) project management a) asynchronous paradigm
c) project planning d) b) open paradigm
project design

closed paradigm None

synchronous paradigm
Answer: b TOPIC 5.3 BEST METHODS OF
Explanation: Open paradigm team structures STAFF SELECTION
are well suited to the solution of complex
problems but may not perform as efficiently TOPIC 5.4 MOTIVATION
as other teams.
um
Which of the following is a people- Interviews are conversations with a)
intensive activity? fun
nt
a) Problem solving b) purpose
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b) Organization c) c) friendliness
_Q
Motivation d) informality
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Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: The correct statement is:
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Explanation: For this reason, competent Interviews are conversations with purpose.
_B
practitioners often make poor team leaders. For the employer the purpose is to determine
the most suitable person for the job.
Which paradigm structures a team loosely
and depends on individual initiative of the
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A job interview is a formal meeting
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team members? between a job seeker and an employer.
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a) random paradigm a) True

b) open paradigm c) b) False
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closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm Answer: a
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Explanation: The statement is true. Interview

A
Answer: d is a formal face-to-face meeting. A job

e/
Explanation: None. interview is a formal meeting between a job

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seeker and an employer.

Which of the following is not an approach to
/t.
software cost estimation? All job interviews have the same objective. a)
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a) Empirical True
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b) Heuristic b) False
c) Analytical
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d) Critical Answer: a
:-
Explanation: The statement is true. All job

in
Answer: d interviews have the same objective, but

xplanation: Critical is no such standard
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employers reach that objective in a variety of

approach of cost estimation. ways.
. Which of these is not a type of interview? a)
Screening interview
TOPIC 5.2 ORGANIZATIONAL b) Stress interview
c) Music interview
BEHAVIOR d) Lunch interview

Answer: c Which of these interviews is adapted for

Explanation: Interviews can be of nine types: computer programmers?
They are Screening interview, stress interview, a) The stress interview b)
behavioural interview, the audition, group The group interview c)
interview, telephone, lunch interview, video The screening interview
interview and sequential interview. d) The audition
Which kind of interview includes a process Answer: d
in which the employability of the job Explanation: For some positions such as
um
applicant is evaluated? computer programmers or trainers, companies
a) Stress interview
nt
want to see you in action before they make
b) Screening interview their decision. Here, the audition type is
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c) Group interview adapted.
_Q
d) Behavioural interview
In which of these, more than one candidate is
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Answer: b interviewed?
Explanation: In the screening interview, a) The behavioural interview
oo
companies use screening tools to ensure b) The stress interview
_B
that candidates meet minimum qualification c) The group interview
requirements. d) The audition
How many styles are used in a screening

es
Answer: c
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interview? Explanation: In group interview, more than
_N
a) Two one candidate is interviewed. Interviewing

b) Five simultaneously with other candidates can be
TU
c) Three disconcerting, but it provides the company

d) Four with a sense of your leadership potential
K
and style.
A
Answer: a
e/
Explanation: There are two styles used in a Which of these interviews is taken for a
m
screening interview. They are: the directive candidate far away?

/t.
style and the meandering style a) Lunch interview

b) Telephone
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In which of these interviews, insults are c) Stress interview

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common? d) Group interview

a) Screening interview
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b) Stress interview Answer: b

:-
c) Behavioural interview Explanation: Many organizations will

in
d) Group interview conduct jnterviews by telephone to narrow a

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field of candidates. Telephone interviews

Answer: b may also be used as a preliminary interview
xplanation: In stress interview, insults for candidates who live far away.
and miscommunication is common. All this
is designed to see whether you have the TOPIC 5.5 THE OLDHAM-
mettle to withstand the company culture or
other potential stress. HACKMAN JOB
CHARACTERISTIC MODEL

https://study.com/academy/practice/quiz- Factor of safety is used to find out the

worksheet-hackman-oldham-s-job- reliability of the design.
characteristics-model.html a) True
b) False
TOPIC 5.6 STRESS , Answer: a
HEALTH AND SAFETY Explanation: Factor of safety tells us about
how much load the material can take before it
um
Which of the following is the numerator of fails. Basically, it states the load carrying
factor safety formula? capacity of a material beyond the actual load.
nt
a) Working stress
b) Shear stress c) What can understand by the factor of safety
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Tensile stress d) equal to one?
_Q
Ultimate stress a) It means that the structure will fail under
load
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Answer: d b) It means that the structure will only
support the actual load
oo
Explanation: Factor of safety is defined as
ratio of ultimate stress and working stress. c) it means that the structure will support
_B
It is also called as factor of ignorance. The more than the actual load
factor of safety is dependent on the type of d) There is no relation between factor
load. es
safety and load application
ot
Which of the following can be the factor of Answer: b
_N
safety for a dead load? Explanation: When the factor of safety is one
it means that the ultimate stress is equal to the
TU
a) 6
b) 2 working stress and therefore the body can
only support load up to actual load and no
K
c) 4
d) 7 more before failing.
A
e/
Answer: c For which of the following design factor of

m
Explanation: For dead load, the range in safety the design will work properly?
/t.
which the factor of safety can lie is 4 to 5. a) 0.1

Therefore only 4 lies in that range and 6, 2, 7 b) 1
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are all values which are beyond that range. c) 2

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d) 0.9
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Which of the following can be the factor of

safety for shock loading? Answer: c
:-
a) 11 Explanation: If the design factor of safety is

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b) 13 not more than 1 then the design may not work

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c) 4 and will fail under certain conditions.

d) 7
What is a safe factor of failure for a
Answer: b component which on failure can result in
Explanation: For shock loading, the range in financial loss or serious injury?
which the factor of safety can lie is 12 to 15. a) 1
Therefore only 13 lies in that range and 11, 4, b) 2
7 are all values which are beyond that range. c) 3
d) 4

Answer: d Dissemination of viruses or other malware

Explanation: For components which on All of the mentioned
failing can be hazardous and can lead to
serious injuries, death and financial loss, the Answer: d
factor of safety should be taken equal to or Explanation: None.
more than 4.
Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with
Design factor for most aircraft structures is reference to one of the eight principles as per
the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
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a) True a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their
nt
b) False
products and related modifications meet the
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Answer: b highest professional standards possible
_Q
Explanation: The design factor of safety for c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
most aircraft structures or components is products and related modifications satisfy
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taken to be 1.5 and not 2. More factors the client
affect this value, but it is most of the time d) It means that the product designed /created
oo
taken as 1.5. should be easily available
_B
Answer: b
TOPIC 5.7 ETHICAL AND
PROFESSIONAL CONCERNS OF
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Explanation: None.
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WORKING IN TEAMS Identify an ethical dilemma from the
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situations mentioned below:

a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
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Choose the correct option in terms of

system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional
system
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responsibility a) Confidentiality
b) Refusing to undertake a project
A

c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual
e/
senior management
property rights
m

/t.
Answer: a
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Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Explanation: Engineers should normally
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respect the confidentiality of their employers Identify the correct statement: “Software
ht
or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall

formal confidentiality agreement has been
:-
a) act in a manner that is in the best

signed.
in
interests of his expertise and favour.”

They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
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the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
patents, copyright, etc. SRS.”
“Software engineers should not use their d) all of the mentioned
technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b
computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a
a) Unauthorized access to computer manner that is in the best interests of their
material b) Unauthorized modification of client and employer consistent with the public
computer material

interest and shall ensure that their products The reason for software bugs and failures is
and related modifications meet the highest due to
professional standards possible.Thus options a) Software companies
a & c are ruled out. b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and
Select the incorrect statement: “Software Developers d) All of the mentioned
engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside Answer: c
your competence.” Explanation: Software companies are
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b) not use your technical skills to misuse responsible for making policies and providing
other people’s computers.” working atmosphere for the software
nt
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” development, so in turn these companies
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d) maintain integrity and independence become a part of software development
_Q
in their professional judgment.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new
thing. Thus option c answers the question.
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Answer: c
Explanation:None. Company has latest computers and state-of
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the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry
_B
Efficiency in a software product does not about the quality of the product.
include ________ a) True
a) responsiveness es
b) False
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b) licensing
c) memory utilization Answer: b
_N
d) processing time Explanation: The infrastructure is only

one of the several factors that determine
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Answer: b the quality of the product.

Explanation: Licensing of a software product
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comes under corporate part of the software .

A
company.
e/
As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get TOPIC 5.8 DECISION MAKING
m
cancelled before they are completed, 53%

/t.
overrun their cost estimates by an average of Software Maintenance includes

s:/
189% and for every 00 projects, there are 94 a) Error corrections

restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics
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b) Enhancements of capabilities c)
? Deletion of obsolete capabilities
ht
Lack of adequate training in software d) All of the mentioned

:-
engineering
in
Lack of software ethics and understanding Answer: d

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Management issues in the company Explanation: None.

Maintenance is classified into how many
Answer: a categories ?
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of a) two
Software Engineering as a subject,hence b) three
option a covers them both. c) four
d) five

Answer: c Selective retest techniques may be more

Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective economical than the “retest-
and preventive are the four types of software all”technique.How many selective retest
maintenance. techniques are there?
a) two
The modification of the software to match b) three
changes in the ever changing environment, c) four
falls under which category of software d) five
maintenance?
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a) Corrective Answer: b
b) Adaptive Explanation: The three categories include:
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c) Perfective Coverage, Minimization and Safe techniques.
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d) Preventive
_Q
Which selective retest technique selects
Answer: b every test case that causes a modified
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Explanation: None. program to produce a different output than its
original version?
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How many phases are there in Taute a) Coverage
_B
Maintenance Model? b) Minimization
a) six b) afe
seven c) es
Maximization
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eight d)
nine Answer: c
_N
Explanation: Safe techniques do not focus

Answer: c on coverage criteria, instead they select every
TU
Explanation: None. test case that cause a modified program to

produce different output than its original
K
What type of software testing is generally version.

A
used in Software Maintenance?

e/
a) Regression Testing 9. measures the ability of a regression test

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b) System Testing c) selection technique to handle realistic

Integration Testing d) applications.
/t.
Unit Testing Efficiency

s:/
Precision
Answer: a
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Generality
Explanation: All other options are known as
ht
Inclusiveness
levels of software testing which further have
:-
types of software testing. Answer: c

in
Explanation: Generality measures the ability

Regression testing is a very expensive
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of a technique to handle realistic and diverse

activity. language constructs, arbitrarily complex
a) True modifications, and realistic testing
b) False applications.
Answer: a Which regression test selection technique
Explanation: As regression testing is exposes faults caused by modifications?
performed many times over the life of the a) Efficiency
software product, it becomes a costly affair. b) Precision

Generality An implementation exhibits an architecture if

Inclusiveness it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture and the
Answer: d implementation must be divided into
Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the prescribed components
extent to which a technique chooses test cases None of the mentioned
that will cause the modified program to
produce different output than the original Answer: c
Explanation: An implementation exhibits an
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program, and thereby expose faults caused by
modifications. architecture if it conforms to the structural
nt
decisions described by the architecture, the
. implementation must be divided into
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prescribed components.
_Q
TOPIC 5.9 ORGANIZATIONAL
Why does architecture dictates
STRUCTURES
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organizational structure?
a) Architecture describes the structure of the
oo
Why is Software architecture so important? system being developed which becomes
_B
a) Communication among stakeholders engraved in the development project structure
b) Early Design decisions b) An implementation exhibits an architecture
c) Transferable abstraction of a es
if it conforms to the structural decisions
ot
system d) All of the mentioned described by the architecture
c) Architecture may not describe structure
_N
Answer: d as whole
Explanation: Reasons of the architecture to d) None of the mentioned
TU
be important are all the mentioned above.

Answer: a
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Why is software architecture called vehicle Explanation: Architecture describes the

A
for stakeholder communication? structure of the system being developed

e/
a) Each stakeholder of a software system is which becomes engraved in the

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concerned with different characteristics of development project structure.

/t.
the system affected by architecture

b) Architecture provides a common language Which of the following is right dependence
s:/
in which different concerns can be expressed relationship?

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c) All of the mentioned a) Performance depends on how strongly

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d) None of the mentioned components are coupled with other

components in system
:-
Answer: d b) Re-usability depends on the volume and

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Explanation: All of the mentioned are complexity of the inter-component

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correct. communication and coordination

c) Modifiability depends on
Which lines depict that architecture defines system’s modularization
constraints on an implementation? d) All of the mentioned
a) An implementation exhibits an
architecture if it conforms to the structural Answer: c
decisions described by the architecture Explanation: Performance depends on the
b) The implementation need not be volume and complexity of the inter-component
divided into prescribed components communication and coordination,

re-usability depends on how strongly Which change is accomplished by

components are coupled with other modifying a single component?
components in system and modifiability a) A local change
depends on system’s modularization. b) Non Local Change
c) Architectural change
Which of the following is correct for d) All of the mentioned
decisions made at life cycle level?
a) Decisions at all level of like cycle from Answer: a
high level design to coding, Explanation: A local change is accomplished
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implementation affect system quality by modifying a single component.
b) Decisions at all level of like cycle from
nt
high level design to coding, implementation An architecture help in evolutionary
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may or may not affect system quality prototyping in which of the following ways?
_Q
c) Decisions at all level of like cycle from a) Potential performance problem can be
high level design to coding,implementation identified early in the product’s life cycle b)
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does not affect system quality The system is executable early in the
d) None of the mentioned product’s life cycle
oo
c) All of the mentioned d)
_B
Answer: a None of the mentioned
Explanation: Decisions at all level of like
cycle from high level design to coding, es
Answer: c
ot
implementation affect system quality. Explanation: All the mentioned are the
valid ways.
_N
Is it possible to make quality predictions

about a system based solely on evaluation Which of the following are software
TU
of its architecture? structures?

a) Yes a) Module Structure
K
b) No b) Conceptual or logical
A
c) May be structure c) Process structure

e/
d) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned

m
Answer: a Answer: d
/t.
Explanation: Yes it is possible to make Explanation: All of the mentioned are

s:/
quality predictions about a system based the valid structures.

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solely on evaluation of its architecture.

Which structure describes units as
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Every possible architecture partition abstraction of system’s functional

:-
possible changes into which of the requirements?

in
following categories? a) Conceptual structure

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a) Local b) Module structure c)

b) Non Local Physical structure d)
c) Architectural Calls structure
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Conceptual structure-describes
Explanation: All of the mentioned are true. units as abstraction of system’s functional
requirements.

Which structure’s view is orthogonal to the as-you-go usage model allows for costs to
module and conceptual view? be applied to individual accounts directly.
a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure 2. Point out the correct statement.
c) Uses Structure d) Except for tightly managed SaaS cloud
Data flow providers, the burden of resource
management is still in the hands of the user
Answer: b Cloud computing vendors run very reliable
Explanation: Process Structure-view is networks
um
orthogonal to the module and conceptual The low barrier to entry cannot be
accompanied by a low barrier to provisioning
nt
view.
ua
Which structure’s view shows the
_Q
mapping of software onto hardware? Answer: b
a) Module Structure Explanation: Often, cloud data is load-
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b) Process Structure balanced between virtual systems and
c) Physical Structure replicated between sites.
oo
d) Class Structure
_B
captive requires that the cloud
Answer: c accommodate multiple compliance regimes.
Explanation: Physical Structure- view shows es
a) Licensed
ot
the mapping of software onto hardware. b) Policy-based
c) Variable
_N
Which structure describes units are d) All of the mentioned

programs or module?
TU
a) Calls Structure Answer: b

b) Uses Structure Explanation: Compliance with laws and
K
c) Data Flow policies varies by geographical area.

A
d) Control Flow
e/
Security methods such as private

m
Answer: d encryption, VLANs and firewalls comes

Explanation: Control Flow-structure under subject area.
/t.
describes units are programs or module. Accounting Management

s:/
Compliance
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TOPIC 5. 0 DISPERSED AND Data Privacy

ht
VI TUAL TEAMS
:-
Answer: c
in
Which of the following subject area deals Explanation: To ensure data privacy in the
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with pay as you-go usage model? cloud, additional security methods such as
a) Accounting Management private encryption, VLANs, firewalls, and
b) Compliance local storage of sensitive data are necessary.
c) Data Privacy
d) All of the mentioned 5. Point out the wrong statement.
Large cloud providers with geographically
Answer: a dispersed sites worldwide, therefore, achieve
Explanation: For cloud computing, the pay- reliability rates that are hard for private
systems to achieve

Private data centers tend to be located in Cloud ________ are standardized in order to
places where the company or unit was appeal to the majority of its audience.
founded or acquired a) SVAs
A network backbone is a very low-capacity b) SLAs
network connection c) SALs
None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: On the Internet, an Internet Explanation: Custom SLAs that allow for
um
backbone consists of the high-capacity multiple data sources are difficult to obtain
routes and routers that are typically operated
nt
or enforce.
by an individual service provider such as a
ua
government or commercial entity. 10. is a function of the particular enterprise
_Q
and application in an on-premises
Which of the following captive area deals deployment.
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with monitoring? Vendor lock
a) Licensed Vendor lock-in
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b) Variable but under Vendor lock-ins
_B
control c) Low None of the mentioned
Answer: b
es
Answer: b
ot
Explanation: Vendor lock-in for a cloud
Explanation: For private systems, any computing solution in a PaaS model is very
_N
monitoring system the organization wishes high.

to deploy can be brought to bear.
TU
Network bottlenecks occur when PIC 5.11 COMMUNICATIONS

K
data sets must be transferred. GENRES

A
a) large
e/
b) small
TOPIC 5.12
m
c) big
COMMUNICATION PLANS
/t.

s:/
Answer: a Which of these is the external sounds

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Explanation: This is the case for staging, present in the channels of communication?
ht
The reputation for cloud computing a) Noise

b) Semantic problems
:-
services for the quality of those services is

c) Cultural barriers
in
shared by
d) Over communication
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a) replicas
b) shards Answer: a
c) tenants Explanation: Noise is the external sounds
d) all of the mentioned present in the channels of communication,
Answer: c which results in the reduction of the audibility
Explanation: Clouds often have or omission of some words from the message.
higher reliability than private systems. Which of these should not be avoided for
effective communication?

Noise the jungle of information whereas in

Planning under communication the sender is
Semantic problems blamed for sharing less information.
Wrong assumptions
Communication should serve as a conflict-
Answer: b reduction exercise.
Explanation: Lack of planning must be a) True
avoided for effects communication. There b) False
are innumerable examples of people who
um
would give an ill planned, long winding Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true
nt
lecture while a short presentation with tables
or graphs would be sufficient. Communication should serve as a conflict-
ua
reduction exercise. When people start
_Q
__________ are problems arising from competing for the fulfillment of their narrow
expression. interests communication suffers.
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a) Cultural barriers b)
Semantic problems c) means to impart understanding of the
oo
Wrong assumptions d) message.
_B
Selecting perception a) Encoding
b) Receiver
Answer: b es
c) Decoding
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Explanation: The correct statement is: d) Feedback
Semantic problems are problems arising from
_N
expression or transmission of meaning in Answer: c

communication. Explanation: The correct statement is:
TU
Decoding means to impart understanding of

Both encoding and decoding of message the message. Receiver has to identify the
K
are influenced by our emotions. person, words symbols, etc..

A
a) True
e/
b) False When is the communication process

m
complete?
Answer: a a) When the sender transmits the
/t.
Explanation: The statement is true. Both message b) When the message enters the
s:/
encoding and decoding of message are channel c) When the message leaves the
tp
influenced by our emotions. Emotions play a channel d) When the receiver

very important role in our lives. understands the message.
ht
:-
In which of these problems, is the actual Answer: d

in
message lost in the abundance of Explanation: Communication is complete

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transmitted information? only when the receiver understands the

a) Selecting perception b) message. Many communication problems
Over communication c) arise because of misunderstandings.
Under communication d)
Filtering ______ is the first enemy of
communication.
Answer: b a) Noise
Explanation: In the case of over b) Clarity
communication, the actual message is lost in

Politeness important. The sender of the message should

Completeness be careful to see that the receiver does not
have to go beyond the text of the message.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Noise Which of these is not a commandment of
is the first and foremost enemy of effective communication?
communication. Every possible effort must be a) Clarity in language
made to eliminate the element of noise that b) Listen poorly
c) Home communication skills
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distorts communication.
d) Adequate medium
Which of these must be avoided for
nt
effective communication? Answer: b
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a) Sharing of activity Explanation: In order to ensure an effective
_Q
b) Listening communication one must take care of ten
c) Ambiguity commandments: Clarity in language, home
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d) Politeness communication skills, listen attentively, etc..
oo
Answer: c
_B
Explanation: Ambiguity must be avoided.
Clarity and crispness of the message is very
es
ot
_N
TU
K
A
e/
m
/t.
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tp
ht
:-
in
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SPM QUESTION BANK
EITHER THE ANSWER SPECIFICALLY WRITTEN OR IT IS MARKED WITH *

1 What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness, and_____
A. Consistency*
B. Correctness
C. Concurrency
D. None of these
2 A software project that meets all the given objectives is a success of _________.
A. Project fundamental purpose
B. Project quality
D. Project management*
3. ___________ is not an effective software project management focus.

A. people
B. product
C. process
D. popularity*
4. _________ is not a project manager’s activity.
A. project design*
C. project planning
D. project control
5. The __________ is not an approach to software cost estimation?
A. Analytical
B. Critical*
C. Empirical
E. Heuristic
6. Which one of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
A. Staff turnover*
B. Testing
C. Product competition
D. Specification delays
7. What is the process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
B. Project Management Life Cycle*
C. Manager life cycle
8. What is the process during the life of a software development is known as
B. sdlc*
9. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for_________.
A. customers
B. project manager
C. team
D. project*
10. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included?
a.Create a contingency plan
c.Create a WBS*
11. What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project completion?
a.Scope verification
b.Completing a scope statement*
c.scope definition
d.Process Management in OS
12. Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gathered through a/an_______
(a) Elicitation process*
(b) Interviewing
(c) Meeting
(d) None of given
13. When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through a series of predictable steps , the process which you
follow to develop it is known as________
(a)Software design
(b)Software process*
(d)Framework
14. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints*
c) Project staff
d) Mission criticality
15. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in
a) project delay
b) poor quality work
c) project failure
d) all of the mentioned*
16. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned*
17. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the
effort to specific software engineering tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling*
c) Software Detailed schedule
18. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning8
c) Project staff
20. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring*
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
21. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks*
22. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the
system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks*
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
23. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True*
b) False
24. If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return then it is classified as
a)future cash flows
b)present cash flows
c)positive cash flows
d)negative cash flows*
25. The present value of cash inflows is 50000 US $ and the present value of cash outflows is $ 55000 then NPV is
____________
26. If desired rate of return is exceeded by actual rate of return then it is classified as
a)positive cash flows
b)negative cash flows
c) future cash flows*
d)present cash flows
27. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size*
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty
28. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a) Planning process
b) Software scope*
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity
29. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager*
30. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk*
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
a) Risk monitoring*
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
32. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being
developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
33. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the
system?
a) Managerial risks
c) Estimation risks
34. Software consist of
a)programs
b) associated documentation
c) operating procedures
d) all of the above*
35. __ What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks*
36. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks*
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
37. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection*
38. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks*
d) Development environment risks
39. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its
requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk*
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
40. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation*
c) Risk control
d) Avoiding customer complaints*
a) True
b) False*
43. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
c) Testing*
d) Staff turnover
44. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development
project?
45. What is followed by the design task?
a) Choosing specific classes, operations
b) Checking model’s completeness
c) Following design task heuristics
46. Which of the following is project management goal?
47. Risk managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True *
b) False
48. Which of the following is considered as a risk in project management?
c) Delay in schedule
a) team
b) project*
c) customers
d) project manager
50. Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management plan?
c) The life cycle model to be used
d) nONE*
51. The effective software project management focuses on four P’s People, Process, Product and Management True/ False
52. _____must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software work
a) Project Managers*
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End users
53. Project management, is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements
a. True*
b. False
54. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification*
d) Development and Documentation
55. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm*
56. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and
objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification*
d) design
57. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation*
58. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that
task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming*
59. Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
c) Project type and associated risk
60. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral*
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
61. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral*
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
62. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated
time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD*
d) Incremental
63. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping*
64. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False*
65 Investigation into whether a prospective project is worth starting, probable development cost, operational cost and
benefits of the new system are investigated.
a) Feasibility study*
b) Planning
c) System analysis
d) SRS
66. Difference between total cost and total income over the life of the project.
a) Net profit*
b) Payback period
c) Return on investment(ROI)
d) Net present value
67. Time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment
a) Net profit
b) Payback period*
68. Also known as the accounting rate of return (ARR)
a) Net profit
b) Payback period
c) Return on investment(ROI)*
69. A project evaluation technique that takes into account the profitability of a project and the timing of the cash flows that
are produced
a) Net profit
b) Payback period
d) Net present value*
70. ____________sum of all incoming and outgoing payments, discounted using an interest rate, to a fixed point in time
(the present)
a) Net profit
b) Payback period
71. ____________is the discount rate that would produce an NPV of 0 for the project.
a) IRR*
e) Payback period
f) Return on investment(ROI)
g) Net present value
72 Identifying and estimating all of the costs and benefits of carrying out the project and operating the delivered application:
a) Cost-benefit analysis*
b) Feasibility analysis
c) Technical analysis
d) Business analysis
73. ________compares the sensitivity of each factor of project profiles by varying parameters which affect the project cost
benefits
a) Sensitivity analysis
b) Risk profiles*
c) Business analysis
d) None
74. Strategic Project Management is about forming clear links between your Projects and Strategic Objectives
True*
False
75. It is important to review plan to review quality aspects of the project plan.
a) True*
b) False
76. Includes the salaries and other employment costs of the staff in the development project.
a) Development Cost*
b) Set up cost
c) Operational cost
d) None
77. Includes costs of any new hardware and ancillary equipment in the development project.
a) Development Cost
b) Set up cost*
c) Operational cost
d) None
78. Consist of the cost of operating the system Once it has been installed.
a) Development Cost
b) Set up cost
c) Operational cost*
d) None
79. Earning directly from the operation of the proposed system.
a) Direct benefits*
b) Indirect benefits
c) Intangible benefits
d) None
80. Earning secondary benefits like increased accuracy of a proposed system
a) Direct benefits
b) Indirect benefits*
d) None
81 benefits difficult to quantify like lower recruitment cost:
a) Direct benefits
c) Intangible benefits*
d) None
82 Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
83 Purpose of process is to deliver software
a) in time
d) both in time & with acceptable quality*
84 Which are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
85. Select the developer-specific requirement?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability*
86. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design*
c) analysis
d) documentation
87. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.
a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customised*
88. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.
a) True*
b) False
89 Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?
b) pattern recognition game playing*
c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
90. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.
a) True
b) False
91. The longer a fault exists in software
92 Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200*
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
93 What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) *Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early*
94. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
1. Test
2. Design
3. Install
4. Specification
5. Manufacture
6. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6*
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
95. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
a) responsiveness
b) licensing*
c) memory utilization
d) processing time
96. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about the quality of the
product.
a) True
b) False
97. RAD stands for
b) Rapid Application Development*
98. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding*
d) Engineer Product
99. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle*
100. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
c) RAD Model*
Which one of the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the project activities
into smaller tasks that are more meaningfully managed?

a) PERT chart
b) GANTT chart
c) Task network representation
d) Work breakdown structure
Answer: d
which one of the following is the critical path for the activity network given below?
a) A, B, F, H, G, I,L
b) A,B,F,H,I,L
c) A, C, D, J, K,L
d) A,C,D,G,K,L
Answer: c
Consider a portion of a PERT network diagram given below. What is the LF of activity C?
a) 10
b) 11
c) 16
d) 17
Answer: d
Consider a portion of a PERT network diagram given below. What is the ES of activity C?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Answer: b
PERT method differs from CPM in which one of the following aspects?
a) PERT uses statistical time durations where as CPM uses deterministic time durations.
b) PERT uses dummy activities whereas CPM does not
c) PERT uses free float, whereas CPM uses total float in critical path calculations.
d) PERT uses activity on arc whereas CPM uses activity on node networks.
Answer: a
Consider the data regarding the activities, their duration, and precedence for ascertain project given in the following table. What is the total project
duration?
Activity Duration Predecessors
A 14
B 13 A
C 20 A
D 10 B,C
a)37
b)44
c)47
d)57
Answer: b
Which one of the following is true of a critical path in a PERT chart?
a) It is the path having maximum number of tasks.

b) It is the shortest path in terms of time
c) It is the longest path in terms of time
d) It is the path with the largest amount Df slack time
Answer: c
Which one of the following statements regarding critical paths in a PERT chart is true?
a) A critical path through a PERT chart is any path through the chart that contains the least number
of edges.
b) Some activities on the critical path can have slack.
c) Every PERT chart has exactly one critical path.
d) It is possible that in the PERT chart for a project, there can be multiple critical paths, all having exactly the same duration.
Answer: d
For a project whose activities, their precedence ordering, estimated time for completion are given in the following table.
Immediate Estimated time
Activity in
follower
weeks
A E,B 3
B C,F 2
C D,G B
D F 4
E F 5
F 10
G 10
Which one of the following sequence Df activities is on the critical path?

a) A-E-F
b) A—B-C—G
c) A—B-C—D—F
d) A—B-F
Answer: c
For a project whose activities, their precedence ordering, estimated time for completion are given .For a project whose activities, their precedence
ordering, estimated time for completion are given in the following table.
Immediate Estimated time in
Activity
follower weeks
A E,B 3
B C,F 2
C D,G 8
D F 4
E F
F 10
10
Which one of the following paths has the greatest slack time
a. A-E-F
b. A—B-C—G
c. A—B-C—D—F
d. A—B---F
Answer: d
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer: d
What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
Answer: a
Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
Answer: b
Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a)Specification delays
b)Product competition
c)Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
a. Identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.

b. Identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
c. Identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
d. Identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.
Answer: b
Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
a. The life cycle phases.
b. The logical order of tasks.
c. The scope of the project.
d. Project costs.
Answer: c
The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

a. Identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.
b. Identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.
c. Identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
d. Satisfy the organization’s project management process.
Answer: a
What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar called?
a. A Gantt chart.
b. A critical path network.
c. A product flow diagram.
d. A Pareto chart.
Answer: a
Resource allocated is done using

A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. UML
D. pi-chart
Answer: B
Which chart representation is suitable for project monitoring and control?

A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. THETA chart
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Milestones are used to

A. Know the cost of the project
B. Know the user expectations
C. Know the status of the project
D. None of the above
Answer: C
PERT/CPM is
A. Network techniques
B. Assignment techniques
C. Project evaluation techniques
Answer: c
What does CPM stand for?

a Control Path Method
b Critical Path Method
c Critical Plan Management
d Control Path Management
Answer: b
What does PERT analysis base on?

a Most likely time
b Optimistic time
c Pessimistic time
d All of the above
Answer: d
What is difference between PERT and CPM?

a PERT is a probabilistic model while CPM is a deterministic model
b PERT is an event-oriented technique while CPM is an activity-oriented technique
c PERT is Project Evaluation and Review Technique while CPM is Critical Path Method
d All of the above
Answer: d
The earliest start time rule

a Directs when a project can start
b Regulates when a project must begin
c Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor
d Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor
Answer: c
Slack time in PERT analysis
a Can never be less than zero
b Is minimum for critical events
c Can never be less than zero
d Can never be greater than zero
Answer: b

a CPM analysis is activity oriented
b In CPM, the time is related to cost
c PERT analysis is event oriented
d All of the above
Answer: d
Which of these statements is not one of the Critical Chain fundamental principles?
A. The project performance first lies into the performance of each task
B. The resource availability is taken into account.
C. Project execution is managed by the relative consumption of buffers.
D. The project performance requires a mutulisation of the time Security margin.
PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for
a Small projects
b Deterministic activities
c Large and complex projects
d Research and development projects
Answer: c
PERT analysis is based upon
a Optimistic time
b Most likely time
c Pessimistic time
d All of the above
Answer: d
Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known as
a Event
b Node
c Connector
d All the above
Answer: D
The critical path ...........
a Is the longest path

b Is the shortest path
c Is a mixture of all paths
d Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
Answer: a
a Event
b Activity
c Dummy
d Contract
Answer: b
Which of the following is used for computations in cpm?
a normal time
b most likely time
c pessimistic time
d optimistic time
Answer: a
Among the following, critical path and slack time analysis most help .................
a managers define the project activities.

b highlight relationships among project activities.
c point out who is responsible for various activities.
d pinpoint activities that need to be closely watched.
Answer: D
with respect to pert and cpm, slack ...............
a marks the start or completion of a task.

b is a task or subproject that must be completed.
c is the latest time an activity can be started without delaying the entire project.
d is the amount of time a task may be delayed without changing the overall project completion time
Answer: D
which of the following statements regarding pert analysis is true?
a Each activity has three estimates of its duration.

b Only critical activities contribute to the project variance.
c Project variance is the sum of all critical activity variances.
d The most likely time is different from the expected activity time.
Answer: a
Which of the following statements regarding pert times is true?
a The probable time estimate is calculated as t = (a + 4m + b)/6.

b Optimistic time estimate is an estimate of the maximum time an activity will require.
c pesimistic time estimate is an estimate of the minimum time an activity will require.
d None of the above
Answer: a
What is PERT analysis based on?

A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
A. Deadlines exist
B. Independent activities
D. Costly delay
Answer: B
What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?
A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract
Answer: C
What is the earliest start time rule?
A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
Answer: B
What is a critical path?
A. It is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
B. It is a mixture of all the paths
C. It is the longest path
D. It is the shortest path
Answer: C
What is the completion of a CPM network diagram activity commonly known as?
A. Connector
B. Event
C. Node
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing time for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will
be the earliest starting time for Y?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
Answer: B
Activities P, Q, and R instantly follow activity M, and their current starting times are 12, 19, and 10. So, what is the latest finishing time for activity M?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 18
Answer: A

A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles
Answer: B
What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All of the above
Answer: D
A. static
B. dynamic
c. static or dynamic
d. none
Answer: A
Your actual cost is 155 and your earned value is 170. What is your cost variance?
A. 15
B. -15
C. 162.5
D. -155
ANSWER: A
The difference between budget at completion and estimate at completion is called…

D. Management reserve
ANSWER: C

D. Project Planning
ANSWER: A
What does a SPI value of 1 mean?

A. The index value = 1 refers to the first version of the schedule plan
B. The project is behind the planned schedule
C. The project is in line with the planned schedule
D. The project is ahead of the planned schedule
ANSWER: C
Your project is behind schedule but has a positive cost variance. Completing the project in time is a top-priority. Which
approach to calculate the estimate at completion do you choose?
A. Continue to use BAC as the project needs to meet the plan
B. Estimate at completion using SPI and CPI
C. Estimate at completion with top-down ETC
D. Do the operational project work rather than wasting time calculating a new EAC
ANSWER: B
___ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

A. Gantt charts
B. Ball charts
C. Slip charts
D. Timeline
ANSWER: A
Your schedule performance index is 0.8. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The planned value exceeds the earned value by 0.8$
B. The project is ahead of schedule
C. The earned value exceeds the planned value by 0.8$
D. The project is behind schedule
ANSWER: D
Your project controlling shows you actual cost of 500 and an earned value of 600. Calculate the schedule performance index.
A. 0.8333
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. Not enough data provided to calculate the SPI
ANSWER: D
You are managing a project with a cumulative cost variance of -30 and you expect the project to perform at the budgeted rate.
Which of the following statements is true?
ANSWER: B
Calculate the estimate at completion based on the current cost performance index for the following situation: AC=1150;
EV=1000; BAC=2000
A. 2300
B. 1739
C. 2000
D. 2150
ANSWER: A
The CPI is > 1. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The project has a cost overrun compared to the plan
B. The project has incurred less cost than planned
C. The earned value is higher than the planned value
D. The cost and performance are in line with the plan
ANSWER: B
What does a CPI of 1 indicate?

A. The project is in line with the planned budget
B. The actual cost exceed the earned value by 1
C. The index value = 1 refers to the first version of the cost plan
D. The project is ahead of the planned budget
ANSWER: A
The cumulative earned value is 40 with cumulative actual cost of 60. The budget at completion is 400. What is your current to-
complete-performance index?
A. 1.0588
B. 1.5
C. 0.9444
D. 1.2841
ANSWER: A
Your SPI is 0.8 and your CPI 1.1. Which of the following statements describes the current project status correctly?
B. The project incurred less cost than planned and is ahead of the schedule
ANSWER: B
What does a CPI of less than 1 tell you about the cost situation of your project?
A. The project will not be completed within the budget
B. The incurred cost are lower than the earned value
C. The project will be completed within the budget
D. The incurred cost are higher than the earned value
ANSWER: D
What is the variance at completion?

A. AC - EV
B. BAC - EAC
C. EAC - BAC
D. EV - AC
ANSWER: B
How do you interpret a SPI value of 1.24?

A. The planned value is higher than the earned value
B. The project is ahead of the planned schedule
C. The project is behind the planned schedule
D. The earned value is higher than the actual cosT
ANSWER: B
Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include

A. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
B. A separate configuration management team for each project
C. Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
ANSWER: A
Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
A. Configuration item identification
B. Risk management
C. Release management
D. Branch management
ANSWER: B
Why is software difficult to build?

A. Controlled changes
B. Lack of reusability
C. Lack of monitoring
ANSWER: C
Teams occur when a number of people have ____________________ and recognise that their personal
success is dependent on the success of others.
A. common goal
B. Similar jobs
C. The same manager
ANSWER: A
Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and work division are known as:
A. formal groups
C. informal groups
D. target groups
ANSWER: A

A. The provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behaviour.
B. The provision of protection for its membership.
C. The performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through combined efforts of individuals
working together.
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

A. It means that the structure will fail under load
B. It means that the structure will only support the actual load
C. It means that the structure will support more than the actual load
D. There is no relation between factor safety and load application
ANSWER: B
In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of
acceptable behaviour.
A. Norming
B. Adjourning
C. Forming
D. Storming
ANSWER: A
A potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groups is:

C. A tendency to see other groups as rivals
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

B. A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.
ANSWER: B
A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still
__________________ together closely.
A. Physically; think
B. Temporally; work
C. Geographically; work
D. Geographically; decide
ANSWER: C
A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role has:
A. A line management relationship
C. Daily contact
ANSWER: B
The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagination and creativity but may
show disregard for practical details is:
A. Shaper
B. Team Worker
C. Specialist
D. Plant
ANSWER: D
Job Characteristics Model is proposed by ____________

A. Hockman and Coldham
B. Hockman and Oldcham
C. Hackman and Oldham
D. Horkman and Olatham
ANSWER: C
The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic vision and accurate
judgement but may also be overly critical is:
A. Team Worker
C. Specialist
D. Shaper
ANSWER: B

A. Priors
B. Likelihoods
C. Priors & Likelihoods
ANSWER: C
Motivating the employees is classified as___________.

A. Informational role
C. Decisional role
D. Conceptual role
ANSWER: B

A. Sharing of activity
B. Listening
C. Ambiguity
D. Politeness
ANSWER: C
The risky-shift phenomenon means that there is a tendency for groups to make decisions which are
_______________________ than those which individual members would make.
A. Less risky
C. Less consistent
D. More risky
ANSWER: D

A. Encourages communication
B. Involves everyone
C. Focuses the mind
D. All three of the above
ANSWER: D
Which of these is not part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project management?

A. Negotiation
B. Resource allocation
C. Customer expectations
D. Leadership
ANSWER: B
Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little:

A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Monitoring
D. Corrective action
ANSWER: B
Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional project management organization?

A. Lack of motivation of project team members
B. Longer project duration
C. Lack of focus on the project
D. A, B, and C are all correct
ANSWER: D
Who among the following is not a project stakeholder?
A) Project manager
B) customer
C) Project team member
D) Security personnel guarding the project building
ANSWER: D
Managing a software development project is much harder than managing a road construction project. Which
one of the following is NOT a major reason for this?
A) Large sized project
B) Managing something that is intangible
C) Managing intellectual work
D) Large impact of any requirements change
ANSWER: A
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a software development project?
A) A software development project can have several non-routine tasks that involve challenge
B) A software development project can have several routine tasks
C) The resources available for a software development project are usually constrained
D) Every software development project has a well-defined starting point but may continue indefinitelyEvery
software development project has a well-defined starting point but may continue indefinitely
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following statements concerning the business case for a project
A) It clearly states the cost that would be incurred to complete the project
B) It provides the benefits that are expected to accrue from undertaking the project
C) It presents a cost-benefit analysis
D) Once the business case is completed and approved by the project sponsor, the feasibility study is
undertaken
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following is the most acceptable definition of a project?
A) A series of activities
B) A set of activities undertaken within a defined time period in order to meet a specific set of
goals/objectives within a budget
C) A coordinated effort to accomplish a well-defined goal but in general can continue indefinitely
D) Once the businesAny activity that requires human and other resources for it to proceed
ANSWER: B
Which one of the following is usually not recognized as a phase of the software project management life
cycle?
A) Execution
B) Initiation
C) Maintenance
D) none
ANSWER: C
Which one of the following most closely describes the sequence of phases o f a project management life
cycle?
A) Initiation, planning, executing, and closing.
B) Concept, definition, development, closure
C) Initiation, definition, planning, monitoring.
D) Concept, definition, implementation, maintenance
ANSWER: A
Which one of the following is not a pertinent question to ask for defining the scope of a project?
A) Why is the software being built?
B) What will be done?
C) When will it be done?
D) Who will be the project manager
ANSWER: D
1) Which one of the following can be considered to be a job rather than a project?
A) Constnuc tion of a houseb} A p olitical election campa ignc} Buying grocery from a supe rm arket d}
A wedding
B) political election campaignc} Buying grocery from a supe rm arket d} A weddingb} A p olitical election
campa ignc} Buying grocery from a supe rm arket d} A wedding
C) Buying grocery from a super market
D) A wedding
ANSWER: C
Which one of the following is not a software service type of project?
A) A software customization project
B) A novel antivirus software development project
C) A software maintenance projectsoftware maintenance projectsoftware maintenance project
D) A software testing project
ANSWER: B
_________ is not a project manager’s activity.
A) project design
B) project management
C) project planning
D) project control
ANSWER: A
Which one of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
A) Staff turnover
B) Testing
C) Product competition
D) Specification delays
ANSWER: A
Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for_________.
A) customersB
B) project manager
C) team
D) project
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
A) Size of the project
B) Customers Complaints
C) Project staff
D) Mission criticality
ANSWER: B
Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in
A) project delay
B) poor quality work
C) project failure
D) all of the above
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
A) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
B) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
C) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
D) all of above
ANSWER: D
Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance Which of the following is an activity that
distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software
engineering tasks?
A) Software Macroscopic schedule
B) Software Project scheduling
C) Software Detailed schedule
D) none
ANSWER: B
What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
A) Risk monitoring
B) Risk planning
C) Risk analysis
D) NONE
ANSWER: A
Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being
developed?
A) People risks
B) Technology risks
C) Estimation risks
D) Organizational risks
ANSWER: D
A) client
B) team member
C) project manager
D) NONE
ANSWER: C
Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
A) Build & Fix Model
B) Prototyping Model
C) RAD Model
D) Waterfall Model
ANSWER: D
Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the lifecycle?
A) RAD and Waterfall
B) spiral and Prototyping
C) Spiral & RAD
D) RAD and Waterfall
ANSWER: B
The agile software development model is built based on __________.
A) Linear development
B) incremental development
C) iterative development
D) Both incremental and iterative development
ANSWER: D
Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile software development?
A) Producing only the essential work products.
B) Utilizing the strategy of incremental product delivery.
C) Abolishing the project planning and testing.
D) NONE
ANSWER: C
Is a customer involved test development and validation in Extreme Programming ?
A) Yes
B) NO
C) It may vary from Customer to Customer
D) None of above
ANSWER: C
Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP)
A) analysis, design, coding, testing
B) planning, analysis, design, coding
C) planning, design, coding, testing
D) planning, analysis, coding, testing
ANSWER: C
DSDM is an approach
A) waterfall
B) spiral
C) incremental
D) iterative and incremental
ANSWER: D
How many man -hours is a man-month?
A) 142
B) 152
C) 162
D) 172
ANSWER: B
Which one of the following is the correct order in which a software project manager estimates various
project parameters while using COCOMO?
A) cost, effort, duration, size
B) cost, duration, effort, size
C) size, effort, duration, cost
D) size, cost, effort, duration
ANSWER: C
Which one of the followings is NOT a factor for "Lines of co de" being considered a poor software size metric?
A) It is programming language dependent.I
B) It penalizes efficient and compact coding.
C) it is programmer dependent.g.It is programmer dependent.It is programmer dependent
D) It is dependent on the complexity of the requirements.
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following estimating methods is most appropriate when detailed information about the
project is lacking
A) Parametric Models
B) Basic Expert Judgement Technique
C) Analogy -Based Method
D) Price to win
ANSWER: D
Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?
A) Horizontal Prototype
B) Vertical Prototype
C) Diagonal Prototype
D) Domain Prototype
ANSWER: C
Which one of the followings is NOT a limitation of bottom-up estimation?
A) It may overlook many of the system-level costs.
B) It may be inaccurate because the necessary information may not be available in the early phase
C) It tends to underestimate and overlook complexities of low-level components.
D) It tends to be more time-consuming.
ANSWER: C
Which one of the followings is NOT a desirable characteristic of a good algorithmic estimation model?
A) A clear procedure for estimation is providedS
B) Subjective factors are avoidedR
C) Results are valid for a wide range of parameter values
D) Requires data that are accurately known only in future
ANSWER: D
Which one of the followings is NOT a key component in function point analysis?
A) External Inputs
B) External Outputs
C) External Operations
D) External Inquiries
ANSWER: C
In function point analysis, how many general systems characteristics are evaluated and used to compute the
Value Adjustment Factor (VAF)
A) 12
B) 13
C) 14
D) 15
ANSWER: C
which one of the followings is NOT a is a disadvantage of function point analysis?
A) It is labor intensive.
B) Extensive Lobour is required
C) Does not consider algorithm complexities of function
D) It is hard to fudge
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following function points is most suitable for use in embedded system development projects
A) IFPUG function points
B) MARK II Function Point
C) Cosmic Function Points
ANSWER: C
THE MODEL THAT ASSUMES THAT EFFORT AND DEVELOPMENT TIME ARE FUNCTIONS OF
PRODUCTSIZE ALONE IS
A) BASIC COCOMO MODEL
B) INTERMEDIATE COCOMO MODEL
C) DETAILED COCOMO MODEL
D) ALL THE THREE COCOMO MODELS
ANSWER: A
FP-BASED ESTIMATION TECHNIQUES REQUIRE PROBLEM DECOMPOSITION BASED ON
A) INFORMATION DOMAIN VALUES
B) project schedule
C) software function
D) Activity schedule
ANSWER: C
Which one of the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the project activitiesinto smaller
tasks that are more meaningfully managed?
A) PERT chart
B) GANTT chart
C) Task network representation
D) Work breakdown structure
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following statements regarding critical paths in a PERT chart is true?
A) A critical path through a PERT chart is any path through the chart that contains the least numberof edges.
B) Some activities on the critical path can have slack.
C) Every PERT chart has exactly one critical path.
D) It is possible that in the PERT chart for a project, there can be multiple critical paths, all having exactly the
same duration.
ANSWER: D
A) Client
B) Investor
C) team member
D) project Manager
ANSWER: D
What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the
risk?
A) Risk monitoringb
B) Risk Planning
C) Risk Analysis
D) Risk Identification
ANSWER: A
What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar called?
A) A Gantt chart
B) CPM
C) PERT
D) None
ANSWER: A
Which chart representation is suitable for project monitoring and control
A) PERT chart
B) Gantt chart
C) Theta chart
D) All of Above
ANSWER: A
A) . Know the cost of the project
B) . Know the user expectations
C) Know the status of the project
D) None Of Above
ANSWER: C
What is PERT/CPM?
A) . Network techniques
B) Assignment techniques
C) Project evaluation techniques
D) none of above
ANSWER: C
What does CPM stand for?
A) Control path method
B) critical path method
C) common path method
D) common plan method
ANSWER: B
What does PERT analysis base on?
A) Most likely time
B) Optimistic time
C) Pessimistic time
D) All of above
ANSWER: D
What is difference between PERT and CPM?
A) PERT is a probabilistic model while CPM is a deterministic model
B) PERT is an event-oriented technique while CPM is an activity-oriented technique
C) PERT is Project Evaluation and Review Technique while CPM is Critical Path Method
D) All of above
ANSWER: D
The earliest start time rule
A) Directs when a project can start
B) Regulates when a project must begin
C) PERT is Project Evaluation andCompares the activities end time for an activity predecessorReview
Technique while CPM is Critical Path MethodCompares the activities end time for an activity predecessor
D) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor
ANSWER: C
Slack time in PERT analysis
A) Can never be less than zero
B) Is minimum for critical events
C) Can never be less than zero
D) Can never be greater than zero
ANSWER: B
A) CPM analysis is activity oriented
B) In CPM, the time is related to cost
C) PERT analysis is event orientedPERT analysis is event oriented
D) all of above
ANSWER: D
Which of these statements is not one of the Critical Chain fundamental principles?
A) The project performance first lies into the performance of each task
B) The resource availability is taken into account.
C) Project execution is managed by the relative consumption of buffers.
D) The project performance requires a mutualization of the time Security margin.
ANSWER: A
PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for
A) Small projects
B) Deterministic activities
C) Large and complex projects
D) Research and development projects
ANSWER: C
Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known as
A) event
B) node
C) connector
D) all
ANSWER: D
The critical path is -------
A) shortest path
B) longest path
C) Mixed of all paths
D) none
ANSWER: B
A) event
B) activity
C) dummy
D) node
ANSWER: B
Which of the following is used for computations in cpm?
A) Normal time
B) expected time
C) optimistic time
D) pessimistic time
ANSWER: A
WHICH ACTIVITY IS UNDERTAKEN ONCE THE DEVELOPMENT ACTIVITIES START?
A) Project Monitoring and Control
B) Project size estimation
C) Project cost estimation
D) project planning
ANSWER: A
WHAT DOES A SPI VALUE OF 1 MEAN?
A) The index value = 1 refers to the first version of the schedule plan
B) The project is behind the planned schedule
C) The project is in line with the planned schedule
D) none
ANSWER: C
YOUR PMO TEAM PRESENTS AN BOTTOM-UP ETC OF 875, YOUR ACTUAL COST ARE 250 AND THE
BAC IS 1000. WHAT IS YOUR ESTIMATE AT COMPLETION?
A) 1250
B) 1125
C) 1875
D) 1175
ANSWER: B
YOUR PROJECT IS BEHIND SCHEDULE BUT HAS A POSITIVE COST VARIANCE. COMPLETING THE
PROJECT IN TIME IS A TOP-PRIORITY. WHICH APPROACH TO CALCULATE THE ESTIMATE AT
COMPLETION DO YOU CHOOSE?
A) Continue to use BAC as the project needs to meet the plan
B) Estimate at completion using SPI and CPI
C) Estimate at completion with top-down ETC
D) Do the operational project work rather than wasting time calculating a new EAC
ANSWER: B
YOUR SCHEDULE PERFORMANCE INDEX IS 0.8. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS
TRUE?
A) The planned value exceeds the earned value by 0.8$
B) The project is ahead of schedule
C) The earned value exceeds the planned value by 0.8$
D) The project is behind schedule
ANSWER: D
YOUR PROJECT CONTROLLING SHOWS YOU ACTUAL COST OF 500 AND AN EARNED VALUE OF
600. CALCULATE THE SCHEDULE PERFORMANCE INDEX.
A) 1.33
B) 1.2
C) 100
D) Not enough data provided to calculate the SPI
ANSWER: D
YOU ARE MANAGING A PROJECT WITH A CUMULATIVE COST VARIANCE OF -30 AND YOU EXPECT
THE PROJECT TO PERFORM AT THE BUDGETED RATE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS
IS TRUE?
A) You expect your project to be completed within the budget
B) Your projected Variance at Completion is -30
C) You need to get a bottom-up ETC to determine your EAC
D) You should calculate the EAC considering CPI and SPI
ANSWER: B
YOUR ACTUAL COST IS 155 AND YOUR EARNED VALUE IS 170. WHAT IS YOUR COST VARIANCE?
A) 165
B) 15
C) 325
D) 20
ANSWER: B
CALCULATE THE ESTIMATE AT COMPLETION BASED ON THE CURRENT COST PERFORMANCE
INDEX FOR THE FOLLOWING SITUATION: AC=1150; EV=1000; BAC=2000
A) 3150
B) 2300
C) 1875
D) 2000
ANSWER: B
THE CPI IS > 1. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS TRUE?
A) The project has a cost overrun compared to the plan
B) The project has incurred less cost than planned
C) The earned value is higher than the planned value
D) The cost and performance are in line with the plan
ANSWER: B
YOUR COST PERFORMANCE INDEX IS 0.9 AND THE EARNED VALUE IS 100. CALCULATE THE
ACTUAL COST.
A) 111
B) 90
C) 99
D) 121
ANSWER: A
WHAT DOES A COST VARIANCE OF 0 MEAN?
A) No costs have been incurred
B) There is no variance between AC and EV
C) There is no variance between AC and PV
D) The project will be completed at the approved budget
ANSWER: B
THE CUMULATIVE AC IS 30 AND THE BAC IS 200. THE CUMULATED PLANNED VALUE IS 60.
CALCULATE THE TCPI.
A) 0.2
B) 0.8
C) 1.2
D) Not sufficient data
ANSWER: D
THE TO-COMPLETE-PERFORMANCE INDEX IS 1.5. WHICH MANAGEMENT ACTION DOES THIS
SUGGEST?
A) Take actions to reduce incurred cost and increase earned value going forward
B) No action required as the project performs well
C) Take on additional tasks that are not in scope, given that the budget wouldn't be used up otherwise
D) Stop the project as soon as possible, as it won't be completed within the budget
ANSWER: A
YOUR CURRENT COST VARIANCE IS -1235. WHAT IS THE VALUE OF YOUR COST PERFORMANCE
INDEX?
A) -1.2
B) 0.8
C) Not enough data provided to calculate the CPI, EV is missing
D) Not enough data provided to calculate the CPI, PV is missing
ANSWER: C
IN WHICH RANGE IS THE VALUE OF THE SCHEDULE VARIANCE IF YOUR PROJECT IS AHEAD OF
THE SCHEDULE. _ _
A) >0
B) ==0
C) <0
D) >1
ANSWER: A
THE ACTUAL COST IS 100, THE EARNED VALUE IS 150, THE PLANNED VALUE IS 120 AND THE
BUDGET AT COMPLETION IS 2500. CALCULATE THE ESTIMATE AT COMPLETION BASED ON THE
INITIALLY BUDGETED RATE.
A) 2450
B) 2400
C) 2300
D) 2500
ANSWER: A
YOUR SPI IS 0.8 AND YOUR CPI 1.1. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS DESCRIBES THE
CURRENT PROJECT STATUS CORRECTLY?
A) The project incurred higher cost than planned and is behind schedule T
B) The project incurred less cost than planned and is ahead of the schedule
C) _ __ _The project incurred higher cost than planned but is ahead of the schedule The project incurred
higher cost than planned but is ahead of the schedule _ _The project incurred higher cost than planned but is
ahead of the schedule
D) The project incurred less cost than planned but is behind schedule
ANSWER: B
THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN BUDGET AT COMPLETION AND ESTIMATE AT COMPLETION IS
CALLED…
A) Difference at Completion
B) Deficit at Completion
C) Variance at Completion
D) none
ANSWER: C
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SOFTWARE CONFIGURATION MANAGEMENT ACTIVITY?
A) Configuration item identification
B) Risk management
C) Release management
D) Branch management
ANSWER: B
Teams occur when a number of people have ____________________ and recognise that their personal
success is dependent on the success of others.
A) common goal
B) Similar jobs
C) The same manager
D) A shared work environment
ANSWER: A
Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and work division are known as:
A) formal groups
B) operational groups
C) informal groups
D) target groups
ANSWER: A
A) The provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behaviour.
B) The provision of protection for its membership.
C) The performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through combined efforts of individuals
working together
D) All of above
ANSWER: D
A) It means that the structure will fail under load
B) It means that the structure will only support the actual load
C) It means that the structure will support more than the actual load
D) There is no relation between factor safety and load application
ANSWER: B
In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of
acceptable behaviour.
A) Norming
B) adjourning
C) forming
D) storming
ANSWER: A
potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groups is:
A) A tendency to develop attitudes which are hard to change
B) A tendency to focus on social activities which may reduce outputC
C) A tendency to see other groups as rivals
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?
A) A belief in shared aims and objectives.
B) A belief in shared aims and objectives.
C) The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
D) The open expression of feelings and disagreements
ANSWER: B
A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still
__________________ together closely.
A) Physically; think
B) Temporally; work
C) Geographically; work
D) Geographically; decide
ANSWER: C
A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role has:
A) A line management relationship
B) Meaningful interactions
C) Daily contact
D) Regular appraisals
ANSWER: B
The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagination and creativity but may
show disregard for practical details is:
A) Shaper
B) Team Worker
C) Specialist
D) Plant
ANSWER: D
Job Characteristics Model is proposed by ____________
A) Hockman and Coldham
B) Hockman and Oldcham
C) Hackman and Oldham
D) Horkman and Olatham
ANSWER: C
The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic vision and accurate
judgement but may also be overly critical is:
A) Team Worker
B) Monitor-Evaluator
C) Specialist
D) Shaper
ANSWER: B
A) Priors
B) Priors & Likelihoods
C) Likelihoods
D) None of the mentioned
ANSWER: B
Motivating the employees is classified as___________.
A) Informational role
B) Interpersonal role
C) Decisional role
D) None of the above
ANSWER: B
A) Sharing of activity
B) Listening
C) Politeness
D) Ambiguity
ANSWER: D
A) Encourages communication
B) Involves everyone
C) Focuses the mind
D) All of the Above
ANSWER: D
Which of these is not part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project management?
A) Negotiation
B) Resource allocation
C) Customer expectations
D) Leadership
ANSWER: B
Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little:
A) Management
B) Leadership
C) Monitoring
D) Corrective action
ANSWER: B
Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional project management organization?
A) Lack of motivation of project team members
B) Longer project duration
C) Lack of focus on the project
D) All of above
ANSWER: D
Which one of the following may be highest motivator for a software development company
A) lunch allowance
B) HRA
C) company provided car
D) More interesting job assignment at the same pay
ANSWER: D
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MCQ QUESTIONS
Different activity of a project management is

A. project planning
B. project monitoring
C. project control
D. All of the above
ANS:D
2. Different activity of a project management is
A. project planning
B. project monitoring
C. project control
D. All of the above
3. This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?
A. Project Planning
B. Project Monitoring and Control
C. Project size estimation
D. Project cost estimation
4. Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?
A. project estimation
B. project scheduling
C. project monitoring
D. risk management
5. In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the
most basic parameter based on which all other estimates are made?
A. project size
B. project effort
C. project duration
D. project schedule
6. During project estimation, project manager estimates following
A. project cost

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B. project duration
C. project effort
D. all of the above
7. Once project planning is complete, project managers document
their plan in
A. SPMP document
B. SRS document
C. Detailed Design documet
D. Excel Sheet
8. Which of the following serves as metrics for project size
estimation?
A. Lines of codes
B. function point
C. Number of persons
D. Only A & B
9. Lines of Code measures the size of project by counting
A. the number of source instructions

B. the comments in the code
C. the header lines
D. All of the above
10."Larger code size doesnot necessarily mean better quality or higher
efficiency."
A. True
B. False
C. NA
D. NA
11. We can accurately estimate lines of code from the problem
specification.
A. True
B. False
C. NA
D. NA

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12. Which of the following technique overcomes drawback related to

LOC?
A. Project Planning Sheet

B. Function Point Metric
C. COCOMO
D. COCOMO2
13. Which of the following can estimate size of project directly from
problem specification?
A. LOC
B. Function Point Metric
C. Bothg
D. None
14. Which of the following serves as project estimation technique?
A. Empirical estimation
B. Heuristic technique
C. Analytical estimation
D. All of the above
15. Heuristics estimation techniquedepends on
A. educated guess
B. prior experience
C. Common sense
D. All of the above
16. Which of the following is empirical estimation technique?
(i) expert judgement (ii) Delphi estimation (iii) COCOMO (iv)
Critical path Method
A. only i, ii & iii
B. only i & ii
C. only i, iii & iv
D. All of the above

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17. Which of the following is example of multi-variable cost

estimation model?
A. COCOMO
B. intermediate COCOMO
C. both
D. None
Explanation
Correct Option :B.

18. Which of the following technique overcomes the drawbacks of
expert judggement technique?
A. Heuristic technique
B. Delphi cost esttimation
C. Basis COCOMO
D. only a & b
Explanation
Correct Option :B.

19. What is the full form of COCOMO?
A. Conditional Cost Estimation Model

B. Complete Cost Estimation Model
C. Construction Cost Estimation Model
D. Collaborative Cost Estimation Model
Explanation
Correct Option :C.

20. Staffing level estimation pattern is greatly influenced by
A. Norden's Work
B. Putnam's Work
C. Both

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D. None of the these
Explanation
Correct Option :C.

21. Resource allocated is done using
A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. UML
D. pi-chart
Explanation
Correct Option :B.

22. Resource allocated is done using
A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. UML
D. pi-chart
Explanation
Correct Option :B.

23. This technique decompose a given task set recursively into small
activities?
A. Sotware Configuration Management

B. Configuration indentification
C. Work breakdown Structure
D. both a & c
Explanation
Correct Option :C.

24. The ways in Which a software development organisation can be
structured.

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A. functional formation
B. project format
C. both
D. none
Explanation
Correct Option :C.

25. Which of the following are different team structures used in Point
Management?
A. Chief programmer team

B. Democratic team
C. Mixed Control team
D. All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.

26. Which of the following is not a characteristics of a good software
engineer?
A. Ability to work in different team

B. Good Domian Knowledge
C. Weak programming knowledge
D. Good Communication Skills
Explanation
Correct Option :C.

27. Which of the following are important activities of Risk
Management?
A. Risk indentification
B. Risk Assessment
C. Risk Containment

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D. All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.

28. When we rank risks in terms of their damage causing potential,
we are doing
A. Risk Containment
B. Risk Assessment
C. Risk indentification
D. Risk Mapping
Explanation
Correct Option :B.

29. Which of the following is not strategies for containment?
A. Risk avoiding
B. Transfer risk
C. Risk indentification
D. Risk reduction
Explanation
Correct Option :C.

30. This deals with effectively tracking and controlling the
configuration of a software product during its life cycle.
A. Software Configuration management

B. Software Risk Monitoring
C. Gantt chart
D. COCOMO
Explanation
Correct Option :A.

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31. Which of the following are two popular configuration

management tools on most UNIX system
A. SCCS & RCS

B. SSCS & PCS
C. PSCS & PCS
D. RCCS & MPI
Explanation
Correct Option :A
32. Coding is undertaken
A. after design phase is complete

B. design document is reviewed
C. while design document is in review
D. a & b only
Explanation
Correct Option :D.

33.The objective of this phase is to transform the design of the system
into high-level language
A. design phase
B. unit testing
C. coding
D. testing
Explanation
Correct Option :C.

34. The main advantage of adhering to coding standard is
A. uniform appearance to code

B. Code understandibility
C. good programming practice
D. All of the above

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Explanation
Correct Option :D.

35. This activity for a module is undertaken after module sucessfully
compiles
A. code review
B. Unit testing
C. integration testing
D. All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :A.

36. Which of the following are type of code review?
A. code inspection
B. code walkthrough
C. both
D. None
Explanation
Correct Option :C
37. Which of the following helps detect algorithmic and logical error
in code?
A. code walkthrough
B. code inspection
C. both
D. None
Explanation
Correct Option :A.

38. Which of the following helps detect common programming errors
in code?

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A. code walkthrough
B. code inspection
C. both
D. None
Explanation
Correct Option :B.

39. Which of the following are some classical programming error?
A. use of uninitialized variables

B. jumps into loops
C. Arrrary indices out of bound
D. All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.

Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional
software engineering is always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might
affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being
developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
42. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project
management?

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c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as
risk
43. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is
known as
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly
implement and manage projects successfully.
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low
(<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very
high (>75%)
45. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use
when computing the costs of a software development project?
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is
required to complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total
cost of activities.
a) team
b) project

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c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software
qualities and describe how these are to be assessed.
47. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes
define how to record and process proposed system changes, how to
decide what system components to change, how to manage different
versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute
changes to customers.
b) Process analysis
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses
and bottlenecks are identified.
49. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that
can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer:b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in
some way, to the value of the attribute than can be measured.
50.Tool used for secure expert judgment

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A. Peer Review
B. Delphi Technique
C. Expected value technique
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. DBMS Architecture
51.What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all

work in the project is included?
A. Create a contingency plan
B. Create a risk management plan
C. Create a WBS
D. Create a scope statement
1. Create a scope statement
52. Relationship between completion of a successor is dependent on

initiation of its predecessor is known as ?
1. FS
2. FF
3. SS
4. SF
53. What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear

boundaries for project completion?
1. Scope verification
2. Completing a scope statement
3. scope definition
4. Risk management plan

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54.An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard

and uses that as the key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative
method is available but involves lot of risk. What should the project
team do?
1. Drop the alternative approach

2. Work out a mitigation plan
3. Procure an insurance against the risk
4. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk
55.That is the objective of project manager behind the study of the

work processes on a project.
1. Quality control
2. Quality planning
3. Checking adherence to processes
4. Quality assurance
56.Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution?
1. Work authorization system

2. Project plan
3. Corrective action
4. Preventive action
57. Coral reefs in India can be found in
1. the coast of Orissa

2. Waltair
3. Rameshwaram

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4. Trivandrum
58.Fate smiles …… those who untiringly grapple with stark realities

of life.
1. with
2. over
3. on
4. round
5. 46%
59. The model serves as the basis for the creation of ______ for the
Software.
(a) Design
(b) Maintenance
(c) Testing
(d) Specifications
60.Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they

must be gathered through a/an_______
(a) Elicitation process
(b) Interviewing
(c) Meeting

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(d) None of given
61.Technology-related problems include _____
(a) Overestimated savings from reusable components and new tools

and methods
(b) Switching tools in mid-way
(c) Integrating different software products in cross-platform

implementation
(d) All of given
62.Insufficient identification is a
(a) Technology-related problems
(b) Process-related problems
(c) People-related problems
(d) Product-related problems
63. Throughout evaluation and solution synthesis, the analyst’s

primary focus is on ______
(a) “Not what, not “how”

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(b) “What, also “how”
(c) “What, not “how”
(d) None of given
64. The overall role of Software in a larger system is identified

during
(a) Requirements engineering
(b) Process engineering
(c) System engineering
(d) All of given
65. Many software projects digress from the original scope because
of the nature of the software product or technology used, it’s happen
in ________
(a) Product scope changed toward the end of the project life cycle
(b) Research-oriented software development
(c) Defined scope
(d) Fuzzy users

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66.In problem evaluation area of effort is identified by.
(a) Analyst
(b) Designer
(c) Coder
(d)Manager
67. A ‘facilitator’ controls the meeting can be ________
(a) Customer
(b) A developer
(c) An outsider
(d) All of given
68. Version control combines ______ to manage different versions of

configuration objects that are created during software product
development.
(a) Procedure
(b) Tools
(c) Procedure and Tools

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(d) None of given
69..Many software projects digress from the original scope because of

the nature of the software product or. technology used, it’s happen in
________
(a)Product scope changed toward the end of the project life cycle
(b)Research-oriented software development
(c)Defined scope
(d)Fuzzy users
70..When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through

a series of predictable steps , the process which you follow to develop
it is known as________
(a)Software design
(b)Software process
(d)Framework
71.Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they

must be gathered through a/an_______

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(a)Elicitation process
(b)Interviewing
(c)Meeting
(d)None of given
72.Defined scope is a
(a)Technology-related problems
(b)Product-related problems
(c)Process-related problems
(d) People-related problems
73..You can use the Item Traceability Matrix to identify _______ at

the end of each phase
(a)SCIs
(b)SCM
(c)Design
(d)Construction

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74..Most software project manager’s practice a lot of management

techniques that are of doubtful authenticity are called
(a)Project management tools
(b)Project management myths
(c)Project management thumb rules
(d) Project management fundamentals
75..The Introduction of the software requirements specification states

the
(a)Goals
(b)Objective
(c)Design
(d)Goals and objectives of the software
76.The code generation step performs the task
(a) Translated specification into a machine-readable form

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(b)Translated design into a machine-readable form
(c)Translated requirements into a machine-readable form
(d)Translated user data into a machine-readable form
77..———–is the ability to encourage by “push or pull” technical

people to produce to their best ability.
(a)Evaluating
(b)Motivation
(c)None of the given
(d)Monitoring
78..__________contains an analysis of what went wrong, what went

right, and what you could have done better in the software project.
(a)Prepare closedown report
(b)Identify learning
(c)Identify reusable software components

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(d)none
79.Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways

1.likelihood and exposure
2.likelihood and consequences
3.likelihood and cost
4.likelihood and impact
The correct answer/s : likelihood and exposure
80.A project budget report shows spending of Rs. 350,000/- against a

budgeted amount of Rs. 400,000/-. Which of the following is true?
1.The project will complete within budget
2.They are doing a good job managing the project
3.We can not be sure how the project is going
4.Project is spending less than the required amount
The correct answer/s : They are doing a good job managing the
project
81.The 40-20-40 rule suggests that the least of amount of

development effort be spent on:
1.Planning
2.Coding
3.Testing
4.Modeling
The correct answer/s : Planning
82.A task set is a collection of

1.responsibilities, milestones, documents
2.engineering work tasks, milestones, deliverables
3.milestones, deliverables, metrics
4.task assignments, cost estimates, metrics
The correct answer/s : responsibilities, milestones, documents
83.Resource leveling can not help with
1.Reduced fluctuations in resource demand
2.Improvement in critical path
3.Reduced resource need over the life of the project
4.Lower peak demand

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The correct answer/s : Reduced fluctuations in resource demand
84.The level of review formality is not determined by

1.reviewer follow-up
2.structure of review
3.size of project budget
4.amount of preparation
The correct answer/s : structure of review
85.While scheduling a project, effort validation is required for

1.Checking size estimates
2.Work load of members
3.Competence of team
4.Timely completion
The correct answer/s : Checking size estimates
86.The purpose of earned value analysis is to

1.provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress
2.set the price point for a software product based on development
effort
3.provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress
4.determine how to compensate developers based on their
productivity
The correct answer/s : set the price point for a software product based
on development effort
87.Process indicators enable management to

1.improve software process
2.adjust work flow
3.track potential risks
4.Assess the status of an on-going project
88.Which of the following is not an approach to sizing problem
1.Fuzzy Logic
2.Schedule Focus
3.Component Sizing
4.Function Point
The correct answer/s : Fuzzy Logic

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89.Which of the following are objectives for formal technical

reviews?
1.determining who introduced an error into a program
2.assess programmer productivity
3.allow senior staff members to correct errors
4.uncover errors in software work products
The correct answer/s : allow senior staff members to correct errors
90.Which of the following provide useful measures of software

quality?
1.reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
2.correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability
3.correctness, controlability, integrity, usability
4.correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
The correct answer/s : reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
91.Risk tables are sorted by

1.probability and impact
2.probability and consequences
3.probability and exposure
4.probability and cost
92.Three categories of risks in software projects are

1.management risks, technical risks, design risks
2.planning risks, technical risks, personnel risks
3.business risks, personnel risks, budget risks
4.project risks, technical risks, business risks
The correct answer/s : business risks, personnel risks, budget risks
93.The best indicator of progress on a software project is the

completion of
1.successful budget review meeting on time
2.successful review of a defined software work product
3.successful acceptance of project prototype by the customer
4.defined engineering activity task

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The correct answer/s : successful budget review meeting on time
94.In earned value analysis, it is desirable that variance and index are
1.positive and less than 1
2.negative and greater than 1
3.negative and less than 1
4.positive and greater than 1
The correct answer/s : negative and less than 1
95.Software risk always involves two characteristics

1.uncertainty and loss
2.fire fighting and crisis management
3.staffing and budget
4.known and unknown risks
The correct answer/s :
96.The IEEE software maturity index (SMI) is used to provide a

measure of the
1.stability of a software product as it is modified during maintenance
2.maintainability of a software product based on its availability
3.reliability of a software product following regression testing
4.relative age of a software product being considered for retirement
97.Empirical estimation models are typically based on

1.refinement of expected value estimation
2.regression model derived from historical project data
3.trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients
4.expert judgement based on past project experiences
98.The correct answer/s : refinement of expected value estimationAs
per Putnam's Software Equation, when development time is reduced
by 5%, effort goes up by
1.5%
2.Effort goes down
3.Over 20%
4.About 10%
The correct answer/s : Effort goes down

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99. analysis focuses on the identification and assessment of potential

hazards that can cause
1.an entire system to fail
2.project termination
3.schedule slippage
4.cost overruns
100.Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of

software project scheduling:
1.Effort Validation
2.Market assessment
3.Time allocation
4.Compartmentalization
The correct answer/s : Effort Validation
101.A risk table will not contain following information about risk
1.Impact
2.Probability
3.Category
4.Source
The correct answer/s : Category
102.Which of the following is not one of the attributes of software

quality?
1.Useful products satisfy stakeholder requirements
2.Adds value for developers and users
3.Effective software process creates infrastructure
4.Removes need to consider performance issues
The correct answer/s : Effective software process creates
infrastructure
103.The critical path in a project network is the

1.Shortest path through the network
2.Network path with the most difficult activities
3.Network path using the most resources

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4.Longest path through the network

The correct answer/s : Network path using the most resources
104.Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences

affecting
1.planning, resources, cost, schedule
2.marketability, cost, personnel
3.business, technology, process
4.performance, cost, support, schedule
The correct answer/s : business, technology, process
105.The first step in project planning is to

1.determine the budget
2.determine the project constraints
3.establish the objectives and scope
4.select a team organizational model
The correct answer/s : determine the project constraints
106."To construct a high-quality, custom home within five months at

costs not to exceed Rs15,00,000" is best classified as
1.Deliverable
2.Objective
3.Milestone
4.Exclusion
The correct answer/s : Deliverable
107.Why is it important to measure the process of software

engineering and software it produces?
1.To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set
2.To make software engineering more like other engineering
processes
3.To determine whether a software group is improving or not
4.It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex
The correct answer/s : To make software engineering more like other
engineering processes
108. Changes made to an information system to add the desired but
not necessarily the required features is called

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1.Perfective Maintenance
2.Preventive Maintenance
3.Adaptive Maintenance
4.Corrective Maintenance
109.Software feasibility is based on which of the following
1.business and marketing concerns
2.scope, constraints, market
3.technology, finance, time, resources
4.technical prowess of the developers
The correct answer/s : scope, constraints, market
110.Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software

Process?
1.Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager
2.Emphasizes personal measurement of work product
3.Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling
4.Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work
products
111.The prototyping model of software development is

1.A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
2.The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
3.A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product
4.A useful approach when customer can not define requirements
clearly
The correct answer/s : A risky model that rarely produces a
meaningful product
112.From among the following activities, which is the best example

of a project?
1.Producing automobiles
2.Writing a term paper
3.Developing HIV vaccine
4.Processing insurance claims
The correct answer/s : Producing automobiles

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113.To be an effective aid in process improvement the baseline data

used must be
1.measured consistently across projects
2.based only on successful projects
3.based on reasonable guestimates from past projects
4.drawn from projects on same platforms
114.Which of following are advantages of using LOC(lines of code)
as a size-oriented metric?
1.LOC is easily computed
2.LOC is language dependent
3.LOC can be computed early in the process
4.LOC is language independent
115.Which measurement activity is missing from the list below?

Formulation, Collection, Analysis, Interpretation
1.Measurement
2.Quantification
3.Feedback
4.Design
The correct answer/s : Quantification
116.In agile software development estimation techniques focus on the

time required to complete each
1.use-case
2.scenario
3.increment
4.task
The correct answer/s : scenario
117.Which of the following items are not measured by software

project metrics?
1.Outputs
2.Markets
3.Results
4.Inputs
The correct answer/s : Outputs
118.The most important feature of spiral model is

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1.quality management
2.configuration management
3.risk management
4.requirement analysis
The correct answer/s : configuration management
119.One of the most important attributes for a software product metric

is that it should be
1.easy to compute
2.qualitative in nature
3.reliable over time
4.widely applicable
120.Which of the following is not a measurable characteristic of an

object-oriented design?
1.size
2.volatility
3.efficiency
4.completeness
The correct answer/s : volatility
121.The objective of software project planning is to

1.enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule
2.determine the probable profit margin prior to bidding on a project
3.make use of historical project data
4.convince the customer that a project is feasible
122.Which of the following is not a main project objective?

1.Quality
2.Structure
3.Cost
4.Time
The correct answer/s : Quality
123.Requirements can be best refined using

1.Prototyping Model

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2.Evolutionary Model
3.Waterfall model
4.Spiral Model
124.Which of the following is NOT a main element of the project

management activities?
1.Estimate
2.Monitor
3.Design
4.Schedule
The correct answer/s : Monitor
125.Make/Buy decisions are usually not driven by

1.Support concerns
2.Cost of acquisition
3.Time to market
4.Staff aspirations
The correct answer/s : Time to market
126.When can selected common process framework activities be

omitted during process decomposition?
1.never the activities are invariant
2.rapid prototyping does not require their use
3.any time the software is mission critical
4.when the project is extremely small in size
127.Which of the following is not one of the commonly heard

comments of project managers?
1.How can all these projects be first priority?
2.Where are we going to get the resources to do this project?
3.Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
4.Why are we doing this project?
The correct answer/s : Where are we going to get the resources to do
this project?

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128. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering

framework activities?
1.analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing
2.communication, risk management, measurement, production,
reviewing
3.communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment
4.analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance
The correct answer/s : communication, risk management,
measurement, production, reviewing
129.LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition

based on
1.project schedule
2.software functions
3.information domain values
4.process activities
The correct answer/s : project schedule
130.FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition

based on
1.process activities
2.information domain values
3.software functions
4.project schedule
The correct answer/s : process activities
131.The Process Models differ from one another based on following

factors except
1.Manner of Quality Assurance
2.Team Organization and Roles
3.Conformance to quality standards
4.Based on flow of activities
The correct answer/s : Team Organization and Roles
132.One reason to involve everyone on the software team in the

planning activity is to
1.control feature creep

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2.get all team members to "sign up" to the plan

3.understand the problem scope
4.adjust the granularity of the plan
The correct answer/s : control feature creep
133.Which of the following is not a weak point of waterfall lifecycle?

1.Difficult to keep entire team busy with work
2.Difficult to prepare a plan early
3.Difficult for the customer to state all requirements
4.Working version of the program is not available soon
The correct answer/s : Difficult to keep entire team busy with work
134.Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a

software process?
1.Process allows team to streamline tasks
2.Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
3.Uses incremental product delivery strategy
4.Only essential work products are produced
The correct answer/s : Process allows team to streamline tasks
135.The incremental model of software development is

3.A good approach when a working core product is required quickly
4.A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products
The correct answer/s : The best approach to use for projects with large
development teams
136.The waterfall model of software development is

2.A good approach when a working program is required quickly
3.An old fashioned model that is not used any more
The correct answer/s : An old fashioned model that is not used any
more
137.Project selection criteria are typically classified as

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1.Short-term and long-term

2.Strategic and tactical
3.Financial and non-financial
4.Required and optional
The correct answer/s : Strategic and tactical
138.Learning curves are more likely to apply in situations where most
of the costs are
1.Personnel
2.Outsourced contract
3.Material
4.Overhead
139.Which of these are reasons for using technical product measures

during software development?
1.Provides software engineers with an objective mechanism for
assessing software quality
2.Allow software quality information to be expressed unambiguously
as a single number
3.Large body of scientific evidence supports their use
4.They help capturing client requirements clearly
140.Which of the following is not an example of a business process?

1.testing software
2.designing a new product
3.hiring an employee
4.purchasing services
141.The first reverse engineering activity involves seeking to
understand
1.business trends
2.user interface
3.processing
4.data
The correct answer/s : user interface

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142.Which of the following is not considered one of the four

important elements that should exist when a configuration
management system is developed?
1.human elements
2.component elements
3.process elements
4.validation elements
The correct answer/s : process elements
143.Which of the following tasks is not part of software configuration

management?
1.version control
2.statistical quality control
3.change control
4.reporting
The correct answer/s : version control
144.Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on

hazards that
1.prevent profitable marketing of the final product
2.affect the reliability of a software component
3.may result from user input errors
4.may cause an entire system to fail
The correct answer/s : may result from user input errors
145.A review summary report answers which three questions?

1.what defects were found, what caused defects, who was responsible
2.terminate project, replace producer, request a time extension
3.project situation, success story, improvement point
4.what was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings
The correct answer/s : project situation, success story, improvement
point
146.Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to

1.errors in operation
2.errors in design
3.errors in accuracy

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4.errors in requirements
The correct answer/s : errors in operation
147.Which of the following is not ISO 9126 software quality factors?

1.Portability
2.Functionality
3.Reliability
4.Security
The correct answer/s : Reliability
148.Which of the following activities is not part of the software
reengineering process model?
1.inventory analysis
2.reverse engineering
3.forward engineering
4.prototyping
The correct answer/s : forward engineering
149.The Hofstede framework for global engagements includes all of

the following dimensions except
1.Power distance
2.Language Skills
3.Uncertainty avoidance
4.Masculinity-feminity
The correct answer/s : Power distance
150.Which of these is not a benefits achieved when software is

restructured?
1.higher quality programs
2.software easier to test
3.improved performance
4.reduced maintenance effort
The correct answer/s : software easier to test
151.When software configuration management is a formal activity the

software configuration audit is conducted by the
1.senior managers
2.quality assurance group

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3.test team
4.development team
The correct answer/s : senior managers
152.Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps.

1.define, measure, control
2.define, measure, analyze
3.analyze, improve, control
4.analyze, design, verify
The correct answer/s : define, measure, control
153.Software reengineering process model does not include

restructuring activities for
1.code
2.organizational structure
3.documentation
4.data
The correct answer/s : code
154.At the end of a formal technical review all attendees can decide to
1.modify the work product and continue the review
2.reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies
3.accept the work product without modification
4.advise developer about the problem domain
The correct answer/s : reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies
155.Which of these are not valid software configuration items?

1.test data
2.email
3.documentation
4.Utility programs
The correct answer/s : test data
156.Which of these is not an example of data restructuring?

1.data name rationalization
2.refining entity relationships
3.data record standardization

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4.data analysis
The correct answer/s : data record standardization
157.Advantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of

the following except
1.Shortened project completion
2.Reduced costs
3.Higher level of expertise
4.Reduced conflict
The correct answer/s : Higher level of expertise
158. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software
engineering is
1.ISO 9002
2.ISO 9000
3.ISO 9003
4.ISO 9001
The correct answer/s : ISO 9003
159.Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse

engineering?
1.directionality
2.connectivity
3.completeness
4.abstraction level
The correct answer/s : directionality
160.Which of these activities is not one of the activities recommended

to be performed by an independent SQA group?
1.serve as the test team for software produced
2.review software engineering activities to verify process compliance
3.prepare SQA plan for the project
4.report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management
d) Avoiding costumer complaints. Answer:D

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162. Software Project Management Multiple Choice Questions:- 1.

Which of the following is not project management goal?
Answer:D
163. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a
project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
164.Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project
management?
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer:C 4.
165.process each manager follows during the life of a project is
known as
Answer:C
166.A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
e) very high
Answer:D
167. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should
use when computing the costs of a software development project?

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Answer:D
168.Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer:B
) Version management
Answer:A

) Process analysis
Answer:B 10.
171.An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that

can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more
programmers and catch up
a) True
b) False
Answer:B

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172. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
Answer:C
173.RUP stands for____________ created by a division of

____________.
Answer:D
174. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-

dynamic, static & practice.What does static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process
c) It shows the phases of the model over time
Answer:A
175. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the
working program.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
176. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for
the system
a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
Answer:D

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177. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for

software processes in software engineering ?
b) Software Validation
Answer:A
178. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed

software efforts
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
Answer:D
180. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
181. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering
Process Model. i. Test ii. Design iii. Install iv. Specification v.
Manufacture vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Answer:B
182. Which of the following categories is part of the output of
software process?

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c) data
Answer:D
183. Which is a software configuration management concept that
helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable
change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
Answer:A
184. Software Configuration Management can be administered in
several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole
organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project
members
Answer:A 25.
185.What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions
of configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
Answer:B
186. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a
configuration object for characteristics that are generally not
a) Software configuration audit
c) Baseline

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Answer:A
187. Which of the following is the process of assembling program
components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these
to create an executable system?
a) System building
Answer:A
188. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration
management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
Answer:D
189. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration
Management Activity?
b) Risk management
Answer:B
190. The definition and use of configuration management standards is
essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
Answer:D
191. What involves preparing software for external release and
keeping track of the system versions that have been released for
customer use?
a) System building

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Answer:B
192. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement
Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
Answer: C
193. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging
etc. in a library management.What type of management requirement
is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
Answer:A
194. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the
changes
b) in technology
d) in all of the mentioned
. Answer:D
195. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented
Development.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
196. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part
requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of
requirement management.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
197. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but
does not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B

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198.Which of the following is not a Requirement Management

workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
Answer:C
199. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
Answer:D
200. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is
depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically
detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval
techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model
transformations.”

Answer:A
201. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software
projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the
remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason
for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
Answer:B
202. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing
the total cost of a software development project?
b) Effort costs

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Answer:D
203. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? a)
Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space

Answer:C
204. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered
software?
Answer:A
205. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that
relates some software metric to the project cost.
b) Expert judgement
Answer:A
206. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project
when only a specification is available
a) True
b) False
Answer:a
207. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same
analogy application domain have been completed?
b) Expert judgement
Answer:c

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208. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable
components, scripting or database programming?
c) A reuse model
Answer:A
209. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time
available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
d) Expert judgement
Answer:C
210. Which model is used during early stages of the system design
after the requirements have been established?
c) A reuse model
Answer:D
211. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate
reusable components or program code that is automatically generated
by design or program translation tools?
c) A reuse model
Answer:C
212. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to
software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
213.Identify, from among the following, the correct statement.

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a) One of the main challenges Software Engineering facing today is

the requirement of most software systems to work with a multitude of
homogenous systems
b) ‘Legacy systems’ are custom developed software systems for the
legal domain
c) Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but
software does tend to deteriorate as it evolves
d) Since software is essentially ‘intangible’ it is relatively easy to
manage software projects
e) With the advent of component based software assembly, we find
that only less than 20% of today’s software is still custom built.
Answer:C
214.Software Engineering:

c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late
90’s
d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of
software production
e) Is now a mature discipline on par with other established
engineering fields.
Answer:D
215. Read the following paragraph and identify the correct statement.
“Imagine that you were recently hired as a software engineer to a
company that specializes in aircraft navigation control software.
While orientating yourselves to the company’s work practices, you
observe that they in fact do not conduct a few tests that they should in
order to comply with the relevant safety standard. When you inquire
about this from the project manager, he dismisses it saying that those
tests are really unnecessary (and takes an unreasonably long time to
conduct, as well as being superfluous) and that they have managed
with the other tests for so long, without any problems.”
a) You should immediately resign from the company and file a
complaint with the relevant standard institution
b) You should do nothing and let the matter slide

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c) Although you are new to the company, and you hardly know
anything about the internal processes and politics, you should insist
on the company changing its work practices immediately; failing
which you threaten to report the matter
d) Since you are new to the company, and you are unfamiliar with the
internal processes and politics, you should first find-out more about
the issue and its background
e) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer:D
216. With regard to Evolutionary development, identify the correct
statement.
a) Evolutionary development usually comes in two flavors;
exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are natural candidates for an evolutionary
development based approach
c) Exploratory development is used in situations where most of the
requirements are well understood in advance
d) One of the strong points of evolutionary development is that it
facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of
documentation it generates
e) Often the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed
by a reimplementation of the system using a more structured
approach.
Answer:A
217. What is the fundamental reason that software cannot be
considered to be engineered?
a) It is designed by humans and therefore flawed
b) Software engineering (as opposed to other forms of engineering,

such as Civil) is an art – not a science
c) The discipline is relatively new, say in comparison to bridge
building that is an activity that has millennia of practice
d) None of these are true. Software Engineering is a truly rigorous
discipline
e) The complexity of systems and their interaction continues faster
than we can understand it.
Answer:E

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218. The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of

phases. The classical model is referred to as the waterfall model.
Which phase may be defined as “The concept is explored and refined,
and the client’s requirements are elicited?”
a) Requirements
(b) Specification
(c) Design
d) Implementation
(e) Integration.
Answer:A
219. The individual or organisation who wants a product to be
developed is known as the:
a) Developer
(b) User
(c) Contractor
(d) Initiator
(e) Client.
Answer:E
220. Which of the following items should not be included in the
software project management plan?
d) The organisational structure of the development organisation,
project responsibilities, managerial objectives and priorities
Answer:E
221. The final form of testing COTS software is _________ testing.
a) Unit
(b) Integration
(c) Alpha
(d) Module
(e) Beta.
Answer:E
222. In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against
previous test cases. This is known as __________ testing.

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a) Unit
(b) Integration
(c) Regression
(d) Module
(e) Beta.
Answer:C
223. Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?
a) The speed with which it can be developed
d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are
of the ‘how not to do it’ variety
Answer:C
224. An example of the risk involved in software development is
b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware
associated with a real-time system) may go bankrupt
d) Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent
package
Answer:E
225. A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is
as a waterfall model with each phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis.
Answer:E
226. The degree of interaction between two modules is known as
a) Cohesion
b) Strength
c) Inheritance
d) Coupling
e) Instantiation.

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Answer:D
227. The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base
class is referred to as
a) Association
b) Inheritance
c) Polymorphism
d) Instantiation
e) Aggregation
. Answer:B
228. Myers (1978) identifies seven levels of cohesion. Which level of
cohesion may be defined as followed; “the output from one element in
the component serves as input for some other element”?
a) Communicational cohesion
e) None of these
. Answer:A
229. A design is said to be a good design if the components are
a) Strongly coupled
b) Weakly cohesive
c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive
Answer:E
230. If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of
_______ coupling.
a) Content
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
e) Data.
Answer:C
231. Which of the following is a type of abstraction?
a) Data
b) Procedural
c) Iteration

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d) All of the above

Answer:D
232. In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team
member responsible for maintaining the detailed design and coding is
b) The programming secretary
Answer:D
233. Internal costs include
d) Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel e) All of
the above. Answer:a
234. Problems with using Lines of Code to measure the size of a
product include(s)
b) The Lines of Code (LOC) will differ between languages and cannot
be measured for some languages
c) Should comments, data definitions etc (i.e. non-executable LOC)
be included as well?
d) The final size (kLOC) can only be determined once the product is
delivered
Answer:e
235. Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on
b) Lines of Code (kLOC) c) Function Points (FP)
Answer:d
236. In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex
products is referred to as
a) Embedded

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b) Semidetached
c) Organic
d) Multiplicative
e) Monolithic.
Answer:A
237. Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to
any specific phase of software development is termed a(n)
a) Milestone
b) Project function
c) Activity
d) Task
e) Baseline.
Answer:B
238. The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a
Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard
1059.1 1987 – is
a) It is drawn up by representatives from major software development
organisations
c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or
specific techniques
d) It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular application
area, development team or technique.
Answer:E
239. The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan
(SPMP) is by
a) Prototyping
b) Inspection
c) Simulation
d) Compilation
e) Debugging.
Answer:B
240. Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be
different for the same application development, because

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b) Different organisations may use different programming languages

Answer:E
241. The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is a)
Fault-free
e) All of these are the aims of software engineering.
Answer:E
242. Object-oriented concepts are not new. The first OO language was
considered to be
a) ALGOL-68
B) FORTRAN 77
c) C
d) MODULA
e) SIMULA 67.
Answer:E

Answer: b
IT8075 Software anticipating risks that might affect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being
Project Management
M
developed, and then taking action to avoid
these risks.
CSE - Professional
O
3. Which of the following is not considered as
a risk in project management?
Elective - II a) Specification delays
C
c) Testing
T.
Regulations 2017 d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
O
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus
it can’t be categorized as risk.
SP
UNIT I PROJECT 4. The process each manager follows during
EVALUATION AND a) Project Management
PROJECT PLANNING b) Manager life cycle
G
LO
TOPIC 1.1 IMPORTANCE OF

SOFTWARE PROJECT Answer: c
MANAGEMENT is necessary to repeatedly implement and
.B
1. Which of the following is not project

management goal? 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) Keeping overall costs within budget a) very low
17

development team
Answer: d
-R

Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%), low
Explanation: Projects need to be managed (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–
SE
because professional software engineering is 75%), or very high (>75%).

schedule constraints. 6. Which of the following is/are main
computing the costs of a software
C
2. Project managers have to assess the risks

that may affect a project. development project?
a) True a) travel and training costs
b) False b) hardware and software costs
Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 1

SEMESTER VIII
Multiple Choice Questions.
1. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as

A. Project
B. Job
C. Process
D. Task
ANSWER: A
2. formalizes acceptance and bnngs project to an orderly end.

A. planning.
B. closing process.
C. control process.
D. executing process.
ANSWER: B
3. The Stepwise Project Planning has 0- steps

A. 9
B. 10
C. 8
D. 11
ANSWER: B
4. Software systems are likely to be subject to a high degree of .

A. performance
B. change
C. time
D. strength
ANSWER: B
Prepared by S.PRABU Asso.Prof

5. In type of system, system interfaces with the machine.
A. embedded
B. stock control
C. process control
D. information
ANSWER: A
6. Projects may be distinguished by whether their aim is to produce a or meet certain .

A. product, objective
B. product, tasks
C. tasks, objective
D. tasks and null objects
ANSWER: A
7. The first stage of the software project is a which results in a recommended course of action.
A. system driven project
B. software driven project
C. hardware driven project
D. objectives driven project
ANSWER: D
8. The second stage of software project is .

A. to create software product
B. to meet the objective
C. to make up resources
D. to close the project
ANSWER: C
9. In case of product-driven projects, the objectives of the project are defined in terms of .
A. functional requirements only
B. resource and non-functional requirements
C. functional and quality requirements
D. resource requirements only
ANSWER: C
10. defines what the end product of the project is to do.

A. product perspective.
B. Non-functional requirements.
C. Quality requirements.
D. Functional requirements.
ANSWER: D

11. is a system analysis and design method designed primarily to provide functional requirements.
A. SSTD.
B. SADT.
C. SGTH.
D. STDH.
ANSWER: B
12. Quality requirements in requirement specification include .

A. response time.
B. ease of using the system.
C. reliability.
D. a, b and c.
ANSWER: D
13. is record of how much the organization is willing to spend to the system
A. Resource requirements.
B. Functional requirements.
C. Security requirements.
D. Non-functional requirements.
ANSWER: A
14. Projects are by definition and therefore more uncertain than normal undertakings.
A. routine
B. non-routine
C. specific
D. controllable
ANSWER: B
15. is tabular representation of the expected risks in a project

A. Risk Table
B. Assessment Table
C. Time Table
D. Round Table
ANSWER: A
16. CCTA stands for .

A. central commission of telecommunication agency.
B. central computing and telecommunication agency.
C. central computing and telecom agency.
D. an NGO.
ANSWER: B

17. standards are needed so that various systems can communicate with each other.
A. Hardware.
B. Hardware and software.
C. Software.
D. Shareware
ANSWER: B
18. The organization as part of its monitoring and control policy may have a programme in place which dictates that certain statistics have to be collected at
various stages of a project.
A. measurement.
B. system.
C. software.
D. testing.
ANSWER: A
19. The products handed over to the clients at the end of projects are called as .
A. software
B. application program
C. deliverables
D. intermediate products
ANSWER: C
20. is the result of an activity.

A. Software.
B. System.
C. Control.
D. Product.
ANSWER: D
21. Product description contains .

A. name of the product
B. form of the product
C. quantity of the product
D. both a and b
ANSWER: D
22. The relationship between program design and program specification can be portrayed in .
A. PFD.
B. DFD.
C. PDF.
D. DDF.
ANSWER: A
23. Which one of the following is NOT an agile method?
A. SCRUM
B. Extreme Programming (XP)
C. DSDM
D. Waterfall
ANSWER: D
24. Same generic fragment relates to more than instance of the particular type of the product.
A. one.
B. two.
C. three
D. four
ANSWER: A
25. is the amount of work that needs to be done.

A. Effort.
B. Energy.
C. Capacity.
D. Strength.
ANSWER: A
26. Project planning is an process.

A. continuous.
B. iterative.
C. time consuming.
D. conventional
ANSWER: B
27. In order to carry out a successful strategic assessment of a potential project there should be strategic plan clearly defining the organization's .
A. objectives.
B. rules.
C. conditions.
D. ideas.
ANSWER: A
28. The standard way of evaluating the economic benefits of any projects is to carry out a analysis.
A. price-benefit.
B. cost-benefit.
C. cash flow.
D. fund flow.
ANSWER: B
29. The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved in the development project and all associated costs are .
A. operational cost.
B. development cost.
C. setup cost
D. direct cost.
ANSWER: B
30. Long term or benefits that are considered very difficult to quantify is called .
A. direct benefits.
B. assessable benefits.
C. indirect benefits.
D. intangible benefits.
ANSWER: D
31. will indicate when expenditure and income will take place.
A. Cash flow forecast.
B. Cost analysis.
C. Fund flow.
D. Technical forecast.
ANSWER: A
32. is the time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment.
A. Back period.
B. Payback period.
C. Cash back period.
D. Rate of Return.
ANSWER: B
33. Uncertainties are associated with .

A. products, processes and resources.
B. products, properties and resources
C. products, prosperities and resources.
D. products, processes and recoveries.
ANSWER: A
34. The availability of staff and experience will be under .

A. process uncertainty.
B. product uncertainty.
C. resource uncertainty.
D. profit uncertainty.
ANSWER: C
35. Number of interrelated activities can be organized in different ways are called .
A. activity model.
B. network model.
C. hierarchical model.
D. process model.
ANSWER: D
36. RAD is .
A. Resource Application Development.
B. Resource Allocation Development.
C. Rapid Application Development.
D. Rapid Action Development.
ANSWER: C
37. JAD is .
A. J2EE Application Development.
B. J2ME Allocation Development.
C. J2SE Application Development.
D. Joint Action Development.
ANSWER: D
38. The alternate name for Waterfall model is .

A. two-shot.
B. phase shot.
C. three-phase.
D. one-shot.
ANSWER: D
39. The first phase of waterfall model is .

A. analysis.
B. feasibility Study.
C. coding.
D. user requirements.
ANSWER: B
40. The spiral model is originated by .

A. B.W.Boehm.
B. B.W.Williams.
C. B.W.Britto.
D. B.W.Hackman.
ANSWER: A
41. An Elaboration of Waterfall which stresses the necessity for validation activities is known as .
A. extended Waterfall.
B. iterative Model.
C. V-Process model.
D. spiral Model.
ANSWER: C
42. prototypes are used and discarded when the true development of the operational system is commenced.
A. Evolutionary.
B. Throw away.
C. Operational.
D. Real.
ANSWER: B
43. is as when copies of input screens are shown to the users on a workstation, but the screens cannot actually be used.
A. Simulation.
B. Annealing.
C. Mock-ups.
D. RAD system.
ANSWER: C
44. Partial working model is classified as .

A. vertical and horizontal.
B. vertical and straight.
C. bended and horizontal.
D. elevated and horizontal.
ANSWER: A
45. The scope of the deliverables for an increment is rigidly constrained by an agreed deadline called as .
A. sand boxing.
B. time boxing.
C. time delaying.
D. local delaying.
ANSWER: B
46. would mean the change can be implemented without software development.
A. One cost.
B. Total cost.
C. Zero cost.
D. No cost.
ANSWER: C
47. SSADM means .
A. Straight Systems Analysis Design Method.
B. Structured Systems Analysis Design Method.
C. Software Systems Analysis Design Method.
D. Solutions Systems Analysis Design Method.
ANSWER: B
48. Frequent redesigns of the code is often called as .

A. refactoring.
B. redesigning.
C. recoding.
D. rearranging.
ANSWER: A
49. Which are the two levels of development suggested by Booch?

A. Micro and Macro processes.
B. Inter and Intra processes.
C. Internal and External processes.
D. Small and Large processes.
ANSWER: A
50. What is SLOC?

A. Secret Lines of Code.
B. Source Lines of Code.
C. Selected Lines of Code.
D. Suppressed Lines of Code.
ANSWER: B
51. Homogeneity refers to .

A. not similar.
B. similarity.
C. singleness.
D. house full.
ANSWER: B
52. "Work expands to fill the time available"is .

A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's Law.
D. Brokers Law.
ANSWER: C
53. The statement "Putting more people on a late job makes it later" is from .
A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's Law.
D. Brokers Law.
ANSWER: A
54. The statement "If a system does not have to reliable, it can meet any other objective" is from .
A. Brooks Law.
B. Peters Law.
C. Parkinson's first Law.
D. Weinberg's Zeroth Law.
ANSWER: D
55. KLOC indicates .

A. hundred lines of code.
B. source lines of code.
C. thousand lines of code.
D. million lines of code.
ANSWER: C
56. Engineering practice to derive estimates of software development is called as .

A. algorithmic model.
B. software effort estimation technique.
C. software extra estimation technique.
D. Markov models.
ANSWER: B
57. The top-down approach is normally associated with models.

A. process.
B. product.
C. effort.
D. parametric.
ANSWER: D
58. Effort = .
A. system size x productivity rate.
B. system size x KLOC.
C. person in months / SLOC.
D. person in months x productivity rate.
ANSWER: A
59. The estimator seeks out projects that have been completed and that have similar characteristics to the new project is called .
A. code based reasoning.
B. case based reasoning.
C. case based analysis.
D. code based analysis.
ANSWER: B
60. UFP indicates .

A. unused function points.
B. unstructured function points.
C. uniform function points.
D. unadjusted function points.
ANSWER: D
61. Effort = c x sizek refers to.

A. parametric Design.
B. COCOMO model.
C. organic mode.
D. embedded Mode.
ANSWER: B
62. is refined by Barry Boehm and his co-workers.

A. COCOMO III
B. COCOMO IV.
C. COCOMO II.
D. COCOMO I.
ANSWER: C
63. the degree to which there is a large dispersed team as opposed to there being a small tightly knit team.
A. Small cohesion.
B. Team cohesion.
C. Process maturity.
D. Team maturity.
ANSWER: B
64. is one of the objectives of activity planning.

A. Designing.
B. Detailed costing.
C. Cooperation.
D. Team work.
ANSWER: B
65. In the resources are not a constraint for each activity is.
A. resource planning.
B. schedule production.
C. ideal activity plan.
D. technical Plan
ANSWER: C
66. What is PFD?

A. Process Flow Diagram.
B. Product Flow Diagram.
C. Project Flow Diagram.
D. Procurement Flow Diagram.
ANSWER: B
67. PERT is .
A. Process Evaluation and Review Technique.
B. Product Evaluation and Review Technique.
C. Program Evaluation and Review Technique.
D. Project Evaluation and Review Technique.
ANSWER: C
68. CPM is an acronym for .

A. Control Path Method.
B. Critical Path Method.
C. Cohesion Path Method.
D. Control Path Model.
ANSWER: B
69. The activities have zero duration but are assumed to start at the same time as the first and the end at the same time as the last one is called .
A. hijacked activity.
B. heuristic activity.
C. hammocked activity.
D. hole activity.
ANSWER: C
70. is carried out to calculate the earliest dates on which each activity may be started and completed.
A. Backward pass.
B. Forward pass.
C. No pass.
D. Increasing pass.
ANSWER: B
71. The time by which an activity may be delayed without affecting any subsequent activity is called .
A. action float.
B. terminal float.
C. free float
D. null float
ANSWER: C
72. The objective of is to avoid or minimize the adverse effects of unforeseen events is called
A. risk management.
B. risk maintenance.
C. risk taking.
D. risky job.
ANSWER: A
73. A is an event that might occur and if it occurs, create a problem for the successful completion of the project.
A. planning.
B. hazard.
C. safety.
D. start.
ANSWER: B
74. = risk likelihood x risk impact.

A. Risk estimate.
B. Risk expenditure.
C. Risk identification
D. Risk exposure.
ANSWER: D
75. RRL is .
A. risk reduction leverage.
B. risk relax leverage.
C. risk reading letter.
D. risk resource letter.
ANSWER: A
76. WBS is known as

A. Wealth Breaking Scheme
B. Wealth Brokerage Scheme
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Work Breakup Structure
ANSWER: C
77. The impact of some risks can be transferred away from the project by .
A. risk analysis.
B. risk control.
C. risk transfer.
D. risk evaluation.
ANSWER: C
78. The shortest time in which we could expect to complete the activity, barring outright miracles called .
A. Optimistic Time
B. Pessimistic Time
C. Most Likely Time
D. Shortest Time
ANSWER: A
79. PERT combines three estimates of time and obtains a single expected duration is .
A. te
B. tp
C. tm
D. ts
ANSWER: A
80. is proportional to the difference between the optimistic and pessimistic estimates.
A. Activity Regression
B. Activity mean
C. Activity Standard Deviation
D. Activity Variance
ANSWER: C
81. The value in PERT is calculated for each node that has a target date.
A. x value.
B. y value.
C. t value.
D. z value.
ANSWER: D
82. simulation is an alternate to PERT.

A. Morris mano.
B. Monte Carlo.
C. Markov.
D. Hidden Markov.
ANSWER: B
83. talks about how to match the activity plan to the available resources.
A. Risk management.
B. Allocation management.
C. Activity management.
D. Resource management
ANSWER: D
84. A is any item or person required for the execution of the project.
A. risk.
B. allocation.
C. activity.
D. resource.
ANSWER: D
85. According to Bob Hughes and Mike Cotterell, resources fall into categories.
A. five.
B. four.
C. seven.
D. two.
ANSWER: C
86. is a secondary resource. .

A. Money.
B. Time.
C. Materials.
D. Labour
ANSWER: A
87. "Each activity has been scheduled to start at its earliest start date" is called as .
A. likelihood.
B. activity schedule.
C. probability.
D. planning.
ANSWER: A
88. In activities are allocated resources in ascending order of total float.

A. total free priority.
B. total float priority.
C. technical float priority.
D. top float priority
ANSWER: B
89. is the selection of individuals in which the final shape of the project team is taken into account
A. Independent building.
B. Construction building.
C. Team building.
D. Recruitment.
ANSWER: B
90. To know whether a particular individual is available when required is known as .

A. reliability.
B. consistency.
C. availability.
D. portability.
ANSWER: C
91. Activity plans can be illustrated using .

A. activity bar charts
B. activity pie charts.
C. activity ball charts
D. activity flow charts
ANSWER: A
92. represents expenditure that an organization incurs, which cannot be directly related.
A. Under head
B. Over head.
C. Top head.
D. Miscellaneous expenses
ANSWER: B
93. Cost schedule of an activity plan is represented by .

A. ascending steps.
B. descending steps.
C. sequence of steps.
D. reverse steps
ANSWER: C
94. is the group to ensure the satisfactory progress of a project.

A. Product board.
B. Purpose board.
C. Project board.
D. Perfect board.
ANSWER: C
95. Check points of a project plan must be .
A. regular.
B. irregular.
C. random
D. fixed.
ANSWER: A
96. is an activity bar chart indicating scheduled activity dates and durations frequently augmented with activity floats. .
A. Bar chart.
B. Ball chart.
C. Slip Chart.
D. Gantt chart
ANSWER: D
97. Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under process.
A. monitoring.
B. verification.
C. control.
D. visualization.
ANSWER: D
98. is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have changed throughout the duration of the project.
A. Gantt chart.
B. Bar chart.
C. Timeline.
D. Schedule.
ANSWER: C
99. The total value credited to a project at any point is known as .

A. earned value.
B. moral value.
C. money value.
D. recurred value
ANSWER: A
100. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as .

A. deciding monitoring.
B. monitoring.
C. tracking.
D. prioritized monitoring.
ANSWER: D
101. Risk management will occur in the step of step wise planning.
A. 7
B. 8
C. 6
D. 4
ANSWER: C
102. relates to the physical resources used when the software is executed.
A. Functionality.
B. Maintainability.
C. Reliability.
D. Efficiency.
ANSWER: D
103. Deployment diagrams illustrate the view of the system.

A. static.
B. dynamic.
C. behavioural.
D. activities.
ANSWER: A
104. A is a container-like element for organizing other elements into groups.

A. classes.
B. adornments.
C. packages.
D. activities.
ANSWER: C
105. are denoted by a hollow-diamond adornment on the association.

A. Associations.
B. Constants.
C. Messages.
D. Aggregations.
ANSWER: D
106. indicates the range of items in association relationships.

A. Multiplicity.
B. Adornments.
C. Roles.
D. Instructors.
ANSWER: A
107. Generalization/Specialization is implemented in Object Oriented Programming as .
A. polymorphism.
B. inheritance.
C. overloading.
D. abstract.
ANSWER: B
108. are building a software product.

A. Acquirere.
B. Developers.
C. Independent evaluators.
D. All the above.
ANSWER: B
109. An is a named property of a class that describes the object being modeled.
A. method.
B. constant.
C. message.
D. attribute.
ANSWER: B
110. A Class symbol in UML has chambers.

A. 4.
B. 2.
C. 5.
D. 3.
ANSWER: D
111. is a description of a set of objects that share the same attributes,operations, relationships, and semantics.
A. Object.
B. Class.
C. Process.
D. Instance
ANSWER: B
112. will divide the domain of the task hierarchy in activity diagrams.
A. Swim lane.
B. Activity.
C. Interface.
D. Split.
ANSWER: A
113. is the task/process which describes the way in which the actor interact the system.
A. Class.
B. Flow.
C. Object.
D. Use case.
ANSWER: D
114. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
ANSWER: B
115. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
A. Process metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test metrics
ANSWER: B
116. What are the Types of Integration Testing?

A. Big Bang Testing
B. Bottom Up Testing
C. Top Down Testing
D. All the above
ANSWER: D
117. Component Level is implemented using software tools.

A. client.
B. server.
C. middleware.
D. peer.
ANSWER: C
118. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
A. adHoc Testing
B. Unit Testing
C. Regression testing
D. Functional testing.
ANSWER: A
119. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors
and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
A. White Box Testing
B. Grey Box Testing
C. Black Box Testing
D. Open Box Testing
ANSWER: C
120. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting
ANSWER: B
121. Defects are less costly if detected in which of the following phases
A. Coding
B. Design
C. Requirements Gathering
D. Implementation
ANSWER: C
122. User Acceptance testing is

A. White box testing
B. Black box testing
C. Gray box testing
ANSWER: B
123. Error guessing is a

A. Test verification techniques
B. Test execution techniques
C. Test control management techniques
D. Test data management technique
ANSWER: D
124. Histogram refers to

A. Bar chart
B. Run chart
C. Pareto diagram
D. Correlation diagram
ANSWER: A
125. Pareto principle advocates

A. 20-80 rule
B. 80-20 rule
C. 40-60 rule
D. 60-40 rule
ANSWER: B
126. Which one is not Structural Testing?

A. Regression
B. Parallel
C. Acceptance
D. Stress
ANSWER: C
127. Testing comes under which category of cost of quality?

A. Preventive.
B. Appraisal
C. Failure.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: B
128. Which of the following is not true about Incremental testing?

A. Top-Down approach can be used
B. Use of stubs or drivers are required
C. All modules need to be completed prior to testing
D. Bottom up approach is also possible
ANSWER: C
129. Which of the following is not a part of test plan?

A. Scope
B. Mission
C. Objective
D. Risk
ANSWER: B
130. Which one is not Statistical Tool?

A. Cause and effect Graphing
B. Stratification
C. Run Chart
D. Regression Analysis
ANSWER: A
131. The 'V' represent the following term:

A. Verification and validation
B. Static testing and Dynamic testing
C. Black box testing and white box testing
D. Software development process and software testing process
ANSWER: D
132. Function point is a measure of

A. Effort
B. Complexity
C. Usability
D. Size
ANSWER: D
133. You are told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring product defects. You review the software defect reports, which categories the defects of coding
errors, requirement errors, documentation errors, etc. The best tool to report this information is
A. A histogram
B. A pareto diagram
C. A cause and effect diagram
D. A scatter plot
ANSWER: A
134. A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process is
A. Pareto chart
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Histogram
ANSWER: B
135. The following are incremental testing approaches .

A. Top-down approach
B. Bottom-up approach
C. Both A and B
ANSWER: C
136. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the terms as
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Calibration
D. Ease of use and simplicity
ANSWER: A
137. Test Readiness review is conducted by the

A. Project manager
B. Test manager
C. Quality assurance personnel
D. User/Customer
ANSWER: B
138. To which phase will training cost fall?

A. Failure
B. Prevention
C. Build
D. Appraisal
ANSWER: B
139. You are performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a drop down box containing a list of values.
What kind of testing are you doing?
A. White box testing
B. Black box testing
C. Load testing
D. Regression testing
ANSWER: B
140. Which is the reputed testing standard?

A. M Bridge awards
B. QAI
C. ISO
D. Microsoft
ANSWER: C
141. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases
A. Test Matrix
B. Checklist
C. Test bed
D. Traceablity Matrix
ANSWER: D
142. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
A. Regression Testing
B. ReTesting
C. Ad hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing
ANSWER: B
143. To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not. It is a static process
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: B
144. To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: A
145. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hieraechy

A. TIM (Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
C. TQM(Total Quality Management)
ANSWER: B
146. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand
A. Usability Testing
B. Security Testing
C. Unit testing
D. Block Box Testing
ANSWER: A
147. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle
& Deals with Process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
D. Quality Control
ANSWER: C
148. Variance from product specifications is called?

A. Report
B. Requirement
C. Defect
ANSWER: C
149. White box testing is not called as

A. Glass box testing
B. Closed box testing
C. Open box testing
D. Clear box testing
ANSWER: B
150. Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called
as
A. Pareto Analysis
B. Cause and Effect Diagram
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Pie Charts
ANSWER: A

MG6088 - Software Project Management
Multiple Choice Questions – PART -2
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer:C
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
Vi Institute of Technology Page 1

Answer:C
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
e) very high
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer:B
system?

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b) Process analysis
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured
and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch up.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12. Choose an internal software quality from given below:
a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. RUP stands for created by a division of .
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
14. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What
does static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process.
c) It shows the phases of the model over time.
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
16. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ?
a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
Answer:D
17. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in

software engineering ?
b) Software Validation
Answer:A
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
18. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software efforts.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer:D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
20. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
i. Test
ii. Design

iii. Install
iv. Specification
v. Manufacture
vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
22. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
c) data
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
23. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change
without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
24. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include

a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
25. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects
that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
26. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for
characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
c) Baseline
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
27. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and
libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
28. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
29. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
b) Risk management
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
30. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality
certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
31. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system
versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building

Answer:B
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
32. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
Answer: C
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
33. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library
management. What type of management requirement is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
Answer:A
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
34. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes
b) in technology
d) in all of the mentioned.
Answer:D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
35. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
36. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It

may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
37. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing
funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
38.Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
39. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
40. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement:
“the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example
information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model
transformations.”

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
41. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before
completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the
reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
42. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software
b) Effort costs

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
43. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

44. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
45. A is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric
to the project cost.
b) Expert judgement
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
46. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is
available
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
47. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application
domain have been completed?
b) Expert judgement
Answer:C

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
48. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or
database programming?
c) A reuse model
Answer:A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
49. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
d) Expert judgement
Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
50. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements
have been established?
c) A reuse model
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
51. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or
program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
c) A reuse model

Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
52. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse,
etc.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
53.Identify, from among the following, the correct statement.
a) One of the main challenges Software Engineering facing today is the requirement of most
software systems to work with a multitude of homogenous systems
b) ‘Legacy systems’ are custom developed software systems for the legal domain
c) Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but software does tend to
deteriorate as it evolves
d) Since software is essentially ‘intangible’ it is relatively easy to manage software projects
e) With the advent of component based software assembly, we find that only less than 20% of
today’s software is still custom built.
Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
54.Software Engineering:
c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late 90’s

d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of software production
e) Is now a mature discipline on par with other established engineering fields.
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

55.Read the following paragraph and identify the correct statement.
“Imagine that you were recently hired as a software engineer to a company that specializes in
aircraft navigation control software. While orientating yourselves to the company’s work
practices, you observe that they in fact do not conduct a few tests that they should in order to
comply with the relevant safety standard. When you inquire about this from the project manager,
he dismisses it saying that those tests are really unnecessary (and takes an unreasonably long
time to conduct, as well as being superfluous) and that they have managed with the other tests
for so long, without any problems.”
a) You should immediately resign from the company and file a complaint with the relevant
standard institution
b) You should do nothing and let the matter slide
c) Although you are new to the company, and you hardly know anything about the internal
processes and politics, you should insist on the company changing its work practices
immediately; failing which you threaten to report the matter
d) Since you are new to the company, and you are unfamiliar with the internal processes and
politics, you should first find-out more about the issue and its background
e) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
56. With regard to Evolutionary development, identify the correct statement.
a) Evolutionary development usually comes in two flavors; exploratory development, and

throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are natural candidates for an evolutionary development based approach
c) Exploratory development is used in situations where most of the requirements are well
understood in advance
d) One of the strong points of evolutionary development is that it facilitates easy project
management, through the high volume of documentation it generates
e) Often the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a reimplementation

of the system using a more structured approach.

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
57. What is the fundamental reason that software cannot be considered to be engineered?
a) It is designed by humans and therefore flawed
b) Software engineering (as opposed to other forms of engineering, such as Civil) is an art – not a
science
c) The discipline is relatively new, say in comparison to bridge building that is an activity
that has millennia of practice
d) None of these are true. Software Engineering is a truly rigorous discipline
e) The complexity of systems and their interaction continues faster than we can understand it.
Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
58.The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model is
referred to as the waterfall model. Which phase may be defined as “The concept is explored and
refined, and the
client’s requirements are elicited?”
a) Requirements (b) Specification (c) Design
d) Implementation (e) Integration.

Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
59.The individual or organisation who wants a product to be developed is known as the:
a) Developer (b) User (c) Contractor (d) Initiator (e) Client.
Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
60.Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management plan?
d) The organisational structure of the development organisation, project responsibilities,

managerial objectives and priorities

Answer:E
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61.The final form of testing COTS software is testing.
a) Unit (b) Integration (c) Alpha (d) Module (e) Beta.
Answer:E
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62.In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous test cases. This is known
as
testing.
a) Unit (b) Integration (c) Regression (d) Module (e) Beta.
Answer:C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
63.Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?
a) The speed with which it can be developed
d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are of the ‘how not to do it’
variety
Answer:C
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64.An example of the risk involved in software development is
b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware associated with a real-time
system) may go bankrupt
d) Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent package


Answer:E
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65.A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall model with
each phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis.
Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
66.The degree of interaction between two modules is known as
a) Cohesion
b) Strength
c) Inheritance
d) Coupling
e) Instantiation.
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
67.The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base class is referred to as
a) Association
b) Inheritance
c) Polymorphism
d) Instantiation
e) Aggregation.
Answer:B
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68.Myers (1978) identifies seven levels of cohesion. Which level of cohesion may be defined as

followed; “the output from one element in the component serves as input for some other element”?
a) Communicational cohesion
e) None of these.
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
69.A design is said to be a good design if the components are
a) Strongly coupled
b) Weakly cohesive
c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive
Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
70.If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of coupling.
a) Content
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
e) Data.
Answer:C
71.Which of the following is a type of abstraction?
a) Data

b) Procedural
c) Iteration
d) All of the above
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
72.In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team member responsible for maintaining
the detailed design and coding is
b) The programming secretary

Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
73.Internal costs include
d) Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel
Answer:A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
74.Problems with using Lines of Code to measure the size of a product include(s)
b) The Lines of Code (LOC) will differ between languages and cannot be measured for some
languages

c) Should comments, data definitions etc (i.e. non-executable LOC) be included as well?
D) The final size (kLOC) can only be determined once the product is delivered
Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
75.Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on
b) Lines of Code (kLOC)
c) Function Points (FP)
Answer:D
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
76.In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex products is referred to as
a) Embedded
b) Semidetached
c) Organic
d) Multiplicative
e) Monolithic.
Answer:A
77.Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to any specific phase of software
development is termed a(n)
a) Milestone
b) Project function

c) Activity
d) Task
e) Baseline.
Answer:B
78.The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a Software Project Management
Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard 1059.1 1987 – is
a) It is drawn up by representatives from major software development organisations
c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or specific techniques
d) It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular application area, development
team or technique.
Answer:E
79.The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) is by
a) Prototyping
b) Inspection
c) Simulation
d) Compilation
e) Debugging
Answer:B
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
80Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be different for the same application
development, because
b) Different organisations may use different programming languages

Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
81.The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is
a) Fault-free
e) All of these are the aims of software engineering.
Answer:E
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
82.Object-oriented concepts are not new. The first OO language was considered to be
a) ALGOL-68
b) FORTRAN 77
c) C
d) MODULA
e) SIMULA 67.
Answer:E

(MCQs) Question Bank on “Software Project Management”.
Subject Code: KOE068
UNIT-I : Project Evaluation and Project Planning

Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always
subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule
or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage
projects successfully.
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%),
moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
6. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of
estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software
grows rapidly.
a) Planning process
b) Software scope
Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases
refined to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how
these are to be assessed
9. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.
11. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential
magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
12. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
Answer: d
Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification,
and maintenance problems.
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
Answer: b
Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.
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14. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment
Answer: c
Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection
Answer: d
Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step
toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when necessary.
c) Product size risks
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
17. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
18. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that
the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
19. Purchasing insurance coverage for your project equipment is an example of ________ risk
response.
a) Transfer
b) Mitigation
c) Acceptance
d) Avoidance
Answer: a
Explanation:
This is an example of transfer as the financial risk is transferred to the insurance company.
20. A project manager is managing a pilot project of a short duration and has started the risk
management planning process. He has identified new risks and prioritized them based on the
probability and impact matrix. The project manager now proceeds to plan responses for the risks
without analyzing the risks numerically. According to you, this decision of project manager is:
a)Incorrect, as it is important to numerically analyzeeach risk so that it can be responded
properly
b) Correct, as quantitative risk analysis is a waste of time and not required if risks are already
assessed qualitatively
c) Incorrect, as quantitative risk analysis is important to calculate EMV for each risk and then
later move to risk response planning
d) Correct, as this is a short project and project manager might skip quantitative risk analysis if
he feels it is not assisting in the risk management process
Answer: d
Explanation:
The amount of rigor in the analysis is dependent upon the duration and complexity of the project.
For a project with a short duration, it may not be necessary to perform numeric (quantitative) risk
analysis.
UNIT-II: Project Life Cycle and Risk Management
21. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs
of a software development project?
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each
activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.
system?
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process
proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage
different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.
b) Process analysis
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the
attribute than can be measured.
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Project Planning”.
25. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to

requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
Answer: c
Explanation: Facilitated application specification techniques
(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers
and developers who work together to identify the problem, propose elements
of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.
26. CLSS stands for
a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed
d) conveyor line sorting specification
Answer: a
Explanation: The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor
line. Each box is identified by a barcode that contains a part number and is sorted into one of six
bins at the end of the line.
27. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
Answer: b
Explanation: None
28. The environment that supports the software project is called
a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineering environment (SEE), incorporates hardware and software.
29. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
30. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable
estimation approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
Answer: b
Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to
predict effort as a function of LOC or FP.
31. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands
Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client to client.
32. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good
historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
b) Effort costs
Answer: d
Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost.
Answer: c
Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.
Answer: a
Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in
some given time. Function points and object points
are the best-known metrics of this type.
36. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric
to the project cost.
b) Expert judgement
Answer: a
Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from
historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics.
available
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of
code size but are often still inaccurate.
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38. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain
have been completed?
b) Expert judgement
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed projects.
c) A reuse model
Answer: a
Explanation: It is designed to make estimates of prototype development.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
d) Expert judgement
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment.
If the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is
estimated to be 60 person-months.
UNIT-III : Activity Planning and Risk Management
41.Who is typically responsible for approving project charter.
a) Project Sponsor
b) Senior Management
c) Project Manager
d) Project Stakeholder
Answer : a
Explanation: Project Sponsor is typically responsible for Project charter
42. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project?
a)Repeats every week
b)Temporary
c)Definite beginning and end
d)Interrelated activities
Answer: A
Explanation: Characteristic of the project based on the project definition. Except the choice a,
everything else is a part of a project definition itself.
43.What does ITTO stands for

a) Information, Tools, Techniques, Outputs
b)Inputs, Timing, Tasks, Outputs
c)Inputs, Tools, Techniques, Outputs
d)Information, Tools, Tasks, Outcomes
Answer: C
Inputs, Tools, Techniques, Outputs
44. A project manager is validating the scope. Which Process Group is the project manager
working in?
a) Planning
b) Monitoring and Controlling
c) Initiating
d) Closing
Answer: b
Monitoring and Controlling During project closure the project manager reviews the acceptance
documentation from scope validation to ensure that all project requirements are completed.
45. Who is in control of the project during the Planning Processes?

a)Project manager
b)Functional manager
c)Team members
d) Stakeholders
Answer is: a
The project manager is in control of the project throughout the project life cycle.
46. The high level project schedule constraints have been determined. Which Process Group is
the project in?
a)Planning
b)Closing
c)Monitoring and Controlling
d)Initiating
Answer: d
The high level constraints of schedule and budget are determined during the Initiating Process
Group. The detailed planning is done during the Planning Process Group.
47. Which of the following is not true about project life cycle?
a)Cost of changes increases as the project approaches completion
b)Stakeholder influences are greatest towards the end of the project
c)Risk and uncertainty are greatest at the start of the project
d) Cost and staffing levels are low at the start, peak as the work is carried out, and
drop rapidly as the project draws to a close
Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholder influences are greatest towards the beginning of the project.
48. Which of the following Process Groups should be included in all the projects?
a) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, Closing
b) Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling
c) Monitoring and Controlling
d) Initiating, Planning, and Executing
Answer: a
In every project, all five Process Groups must be included but the level of attention given to each
Process Group will be governed by the project manager depending on the project size and
complexity.
49. A project manager is working on a project to construct a new bridge. The resources report to
the functional manager and are mainly occupied with operational work. The project manager has
no authority to properly assign resources. What type of organizational structure is the project
manager in?
a)Functional
b) Projectized
c) Strong Matrix
d) Weak Matrix
Answer: a
Explanation : In a functional organization, team members are more concerned with their daily
functional activities than with the project activities.
50. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project?

a) Repeats every week
b) Temporary
c) Definite beginning and end
d) Interrelated activities
Answer:a
Explanation: Characteristic of a project is based on the project definition. Except for choice a,
everything else is part of the project definition itself.
51. How is a project life cycle different from product life cycle?
a) A project life cycle has no methodology
b) A project life cycle depends on the control needs of the performing organization
c) A project life cycle can contain many product life cycles
d) A project life cycle only includes specific project management activities
Answer: b
Explanation:
A project life cycle depends on the control needs of the performing organization. Choice C is just
the opposite, i.e., a product life cycle can include many projects through its life cycle, not the
other way around.
52 With respect to change, which of the following is the most important for a project manager to
focus on?
Undertake the change
Track and record the change
Prevent uncontrolled change
Inform project sponsor of the change
It is the responsibility of the project manager to proactively manage the project. This includes
53. Which of the following theory was suggested by Deming?

a) Apply continuous small improvements to reduce costs and ensure consistency.
b) Marginal Analysis
c) Expectancy theory - people expect to be rewarded for their efforts.
d) Plan-do-check-act to improve quality.
Answer. D
Explanation:
The Plan-do-Check-Act philosophy was proposed by Deming. Continuous small improvements
are part of Kaizen theory.
54. What makes Project Integration Management unique among the other ten knowledge areas?
a)It is the only knowledge area with processes in each of the project process groups (Initiating,
Planning, Execution and Monitoring and Controlling).
b) Integration Management is the only knowledge area where no resources are assigned as it is a
coordination function that is the responsibility of the project manager.
c) Integration Management is the only knowledge area that can be completed in the Planning
phase.
d) When closing integration planning, it is not necessary to have sign-off as it only delivers
subsidiary plans.
The correct answer is: a

Explanation:
Project integration manage has processes within each project process group and ensures that the
entire project is planned, executed and managed effectively.
55). What is the most important thing that a project manager should ensure during the Validate
Scope process?
a) Accuracy
b) Timeliness
c) Acceptance
d) Completeness
Ans: C
Explanation: Scope validation involves formal acceptance of the work deliverables.
56. The WBS for your project has been prepared and distributed to the project team members.
When execution begins, which document will provide the detailed descriptions of the WBS
elements?
a) Scope Statement
b) Project Management Plan
c) WBS dictionary
d) Project Statement of Work
Answer: C
Explanation:
The WBS dictionary provides detailed descriptions about the deliverables listed in the WBS.
57. Which of the following is not true regarding subdividing the work in the WBS?
a) Subdivide until it has a meaningful conclusion
b) Subdivide until it can be done by a single person
c) Subdivide until it cannot be logically subdivided further
d) Subdivide until it can be realistically estimated
Answer : b
Explanation:
WBS need not be decomposed until it can be done by a single person.
58 A project team is working on the network diagram of a project and wants to determine the
float of a project activity. Which of the following is the correct formula?
a) Late Finish-Early finish (LF-EF)
b) Late Finish-Early finish (LF-EF) or Late Start-Early Start (LS-ES)
c) Late Start-Early Start (LS-ES)
d) Late Finish-Late Start (LF-LS)
Answer: B
Explanation: Float is calculated by subtracting either the Early Finish (EF) from the Late
Finish (LF) or the Early Start (ES) from the Late Start (LS). Float for an activity = LS-ES or
LF-EF.
59. A sequence of tasks within a project schedule that has zero slack is called ________.
a) Critical Chain
b) Critical Path
c) Zero Slack Track
d) Network Dependency Diagram
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Critical Path in a project has zero slack, and any delays on tasks on the critical path will
delay the end date of the project.
60.If Earned Value (EV) is $550, Actual Cost (AC) is $650, and Planned Value (PV) is $600,
what is the Cost Variance (CV)?
a) -100
b) +50
c) -50
d) +100
Answer: a
Explanation: Apply the formula CV = EV –AC to get the answer. Note that although PV is
provided, it is not used in solving this problem.
UNIT:IV :Project Management and Control

61. Which of the following is not a project management goal?
Answer: d
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule
or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of a project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and

65.A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called
a) milestone
b) goal
c) Gantt chart
d) PERT chart
Answer : (c) Gantt chart
66. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have
changed throughout the duration of the project.
a) Gantt chart.
b) Bar chart.
c) Timeline.
d) Schedule.
ANSWER: c
67. Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually
accomplished?
a) Earned value (EV)
b) Planned value (PV)
c) Actual cost (AC
d) Cost variance (CV)
Answer : a
68. ________ is the group to ensure the satisfactory progress of a project.

a) Product board.
b) Purpose board.
c) Project board.
d) Perfect board
Answer : c
69. Check points of a project plan must be _____.
a) regular.
b) irregular.
c) random
d) fixed.
Answer: a
70. Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under ___________ process.
a) monitoring.
b) verification.
c) control.
d) visualization.
Answer: d
71. _______ is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have
changed throughout the duration of the project.
a) Gantt chart.
b) Bar chart.
c) Timeline.
d) Schedule.
Answer: c
72. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as ______.
a) Deciding monitoring.
b) monitoring.
c) tracking.
d) prioritized monitoring.
Answer: d
c) data

Answer: d
74. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control

change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a

software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and
informally
75. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
Answer: b
Explanation: Configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations

of the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.
76. What is the main aim of Software Configuration Management (SCM)?

a. Identify change
b. Control change
c. Ensure that change is being properly implemented
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
77. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:
a. Project is on budget and on
b. Schedule Variance Index is 1
c. There is no schedule variance
d. There is no cost variance
Answer: D
78. Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?
a) Cost plus percentage fee
b) Cost plus incentive fee
c) Cost plus fixed fee
d) Fixed price plus incentive fee
e) Firm fixed price
Answer: e
79. From a contract management perspective, the project manager must consider the:
a) acquisition process
b) contract administration
c) ecological environment
d) offer, acceptance, and consideration
e) a and b
Answer: e
80. You have been asked to assist the contract manager in drafting the contract for a large project
with limited scope clarity. Which type of contract would you suggest so that your organization
does not incur any financial losses?
a)Time and material
b) Fixed price
c) Cost plus fixed fee
d) Cost plus incentive fee
Answer: c
Explanation: In a cost plus fixed fee project, the seller can exercise control over the cost
rather than getting locked into a rate or a price. In a project with limited scope clarity, incentives
are hard to define and agree.
Answer: d
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or
the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Answer: c

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a
software development project?
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity
and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these
are to be assessed.
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
Answer: a

b) Process analysis
Answer: b
identified.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
11. Which of these truly defines Software design?
a) Software design is an activity subjected to constraints
b) Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product
c) Software Design satisfies client needs and desires
Answer: d
Explanation: Software design explains all of the statements as its definition.
12. Which of the following statement is false?

a) A process is a collection of related tasks that transforms a set of inputs to the set of output
b) A design notation is a symbolic representational system
c) A design heuristic is a rule proceeding guidance, with guarantee for achieving some end
d) Software design method is orderly procedure for providing software design solution
Answer: b
Explanation: A heuristic is a rule followed but there is no guarantee that we get output.
13. Which of these describes stepwise refinement?

a) Nicklaus Wirth described the first software engineering method as stepwise refinement
b) Stepwise refinement follows its existence from 1971
c) It is a top down approach
Answer: d
Explanation: It is top down approach and not bottom up.
14. What is incorrect about structural design?

a) Structural design introduced notations and heuristics
b) Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition
c) The advantage is data flow representation
d) It follows Structure chart
Answer: c
Explanation: The biggest drawback or problem is a data flow diagram of structure design.
15. What is the solution for Structural design?

a) The specification model following data flow diagram
b) Procedures represented as bubbles
c) Specification model is structure chart showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow of data in and
out of procedures
d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition
Answer: c
Explanation: It is solution to central problem. Rest others are problems.
16. Which of these are followed by the latest versions of structural design?
a) More detailed and flexible processes
b) Regular Notations
c) Wide support by CASE(Computer Aided Software Engineering)
d) Wide support by CASE, More detailed and flexible processes
Answer: d
Explanation: Notations used are more specialized and sophisticated one.
17. Which of the following is an incorrect method for structural design?

a) Transition of problem models to solution models
b) Handling of larger and more complex products
c) Designing Object oriented systems
d) More procedural approach
Answer: b
Explanation: It does not account for larger and complex products.

Answer: d
Explanation: All of these tasks are followed by a design task.
19. Which of this analysis are not acceptable?

a) Object oriented design is a far better approach compared to structural design
b) Object oriented design always dominates structural design
c) Object oriented design are given more preference than structural design
d) Object oriented uses more specific notations
Answer: b
Explanation: Though object oriented design is considered a far better approach but it never
dominates structural approach.
20. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

a) It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition
b) Programs are thought of collection of objects
c) Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another
d) Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods
Answer: a
Explanation: It does not follow regular procedural decomposition.
21. What is the full form of TQM?

a) True quality machining
b) Total quality management
c) True quantitative machining
d) Total queue management
Answer: b
Explanation: Total quality management is a process that promotes unending improvement in the
efficiency and effectiveness of all elements of a business. Quality finds the 1st place in the entire
business action.
22. Which of the following is correct for TQM?

a) Quality strategy in TQM emanates from top
b) TQM is a static process
c) It is a management approach to short-term success through customer
d) It is used to improve processes not products
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality strategies and values in TQM emanates from top. Strategy of defect prevention
leads to plans of action and strategic goals. Customer orientation is also a principle of TQM. Regular
feedback is needed to meet the needs of customers.
23. Which part in quality management is the critical part?

a) Process thinking
b) Performance measurement
c) Customer’s view
d) Systematic approach
Answer: d
Explanation: A critical part of quality management is the systematic and strategic approach to
achieving an organization’s vision and goals. This process includes the formulation of a strategic
plan that integrates quality as a core component.
24. Which of the following is not true for communication in TQM?

a) Three way communication
b) It should be clear
c) Forceful
d) Open involvement
Answer: a
Explanation: Communication is two way in total quality management. It should be forceful, effective,
consistent and clear. It is very essential for active and open involvement in all company’s visions.
25. Which of the following is correct option for given statements about TQM?
Statement 1: Design of the formal system is a one time effort.
Statement 2: TQM is a management philosophy.
a) F, F
b) F, T
c) T, T
d) T, F
Answer: b
Explanation: Design of a system is not a onetime effort but it wills changes continuously according to
the customer need and organization.
TQM is a management philosophy to a journey of excellence of organization and also to satisfy
needs of customer.
26. What are the core principles of the TQM in a company-wide effort?
a) Customer and process orientation only
b) Continuous improvement only
c) Process orientation and continuous improvement only
d) Continuous improvement, process and customer orientation
Answer: d
Explanation: TQM as a company-wide effort emphasizes 3 core principles. These principles are
process orientation, customer orientation and continuous improvement. Some core areas are
essential to implement these principles that organization need to follow.
27. Which drivers are used in TQM system?

a) Competition, Survival and export drive
b) Teamwork participation and customer satisfaction
c) Quality tools and technique
d) Management commitment and vision
Answer: a
Explanation: Management commitment and vision, teamwork participation, Quality tools and
techniques are the system models and competition. Survival, profitability, Customer expectations are
the drivers. System models, drivers and TQM all together forms a TQM system.
28. What is included in the quality assessment in TQM?

a) Strategic quality planning
b) Management of process quality
c) Quality and operational results
d) Information and analysis
Answer: b
Explanation: Any TQM company needed a good process management. These include design, R &
D, process management quality for all work units and suppliers and also quality improvement and
assessment.
29. How many stages are needed for inspection and testing in TQM as per ISO 9001?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three stages of inspection and testing as per ISO 9001. These stages are
receiving inspection and testing, in process inspection and third is testing and final inspection and
testing.
30. Which factor is the basis of Decision making in TQM?

a) Facts only
b) Opinions only
c) Facts and opinions both
d) neither facts nor opinions
Answer: a
Explanation: Decision-making within the organization should be only based on facts. It is not based
on opinions like personal interests and emotions. Data should support this type of decision-making
process.
31. SCM stands for

a) Software Control Management
b) Software Configuration Management
c) Software Concept Management
Answer: b
Explanation: In software engineering, software configuration management (SCM) is the task of
tracking and controlling changes in the software, part of the larger cross-discipline field of
configuration management.
32. When code is made available to others, it goes in a/an

a) hard drive
b) access-controlled library
c) servers
d) access control
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
33. Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM) Process?
a) CM Planning
b) Executing the CM process
c) CM audits
Answer: d
34. CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
35. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?
a) Version Control
b) Access control
c) CM Process
Answer: a
Explanation: It allows software engineers to continue development along a branch even when a line
of development is frozen.
36. Which of the following is not a change management process?

a) Log the changes
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule
Answer: d
Explanation: All are required for a change.
37. Configuration management (CM) is needed to deliver product to the client

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
38. What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed and agreed
upon and serve as a basis for further development?
a) Baseline
c) CM
d) Change Control
Answer: a
Explanation: In configuration management, a “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the attributes
of a product, at a point in time, which serves as a basis for defining change.
39. How are baselines verified?

a) By reviews
b) By inspections
c) By testing of code
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-to description.
40. Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?

a) SCM procedures
b) Source code
Answer: d
Explanation: All are covered in CM.
41. SCM controls only the products of the development process.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
42. CCB stands for
a) Change Control Board
b) Change Control Baseline
c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
43. What information is required to process a change to a baseline?

a) Reasons for making the changes
b) A description of the proposed changes
c) List of other items affected by the changes
Answer: d
Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to description of the product, changes require multiple
reasons..
estimates?
a) Project size
b) planning process
Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software grows
rapidly.

a) Planning process
b) Software scope
Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases refined
to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.
46. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to

requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
Answer: c
Explanation: Facilitated application specification techniques(FAST), this approach encourages the
creation of a joint team of customers and developers who work together to identify the problem,
propose elements of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.
47. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
Answer: b
Explanation: None
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
49. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable
estimation approach in their own right?
Answer: b
Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to predict
effort as a function of LOC or FP.

Answer: d
51. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical
data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer: d
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: a
Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or performance of the software being developed.
54. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of
organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
c) Management change
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
55. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on
which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
c) Requirements change
Answer: a
Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software
engineering.
56. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more
about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
57. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software
is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
Answer: d
Explanation: These risks are at management level.
58. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are
used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
Answer: b
Explanation: The risks associated with technology might affect the product development.
59. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to
maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can help us understand the risk.
60. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
Answer: b
Explanation: Portability is a software product quality which means software can run on different
hardware platforms or software environments.

a) CAD, CAM
c) Generic, Customized
Answer: c
Explanation: rest all is sub categories/applications of option c.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: For systems with a long life, maintenance costs may be several times development
costs.
4. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?

a) Keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.
5. Purpose of process is to deliver software

a) in time
d) both in time & with acceptable quality
Answer: d
Explanation: Cost of software is a management issue & is not related to process activities.
6. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases,
regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase which
focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how and the_________ phase which
focuses on change.
i. support
ii. development
iii. definition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report?
a) Communication
b) Planning
d) Deployment
Answer: d
Explanation: In Deployment the product is delivered to the customer who evaluates the product and
provides feedback based on the evaluation.
8. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, actions, tasks, the level of autonomy given to the software
team and the inter dependencies among two process can never be the same.
9. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process
framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Reusability management
b) Risk management
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of the following is
not one that falls into such category?
a) Translation
b) Correction
c) Adaptation
d) Prevention
Answer: a
Explanation: Translation is done in the development phase.
11. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12. Agile Software Development is based on

a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Answer: d
Explanation: The software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the requirements
to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and
continuous delivery of valuable software. They are iterative because they work on one iteration
followed by improvements in next iteration
13. Which one of the following is not an agile method?

a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP
Answer: b
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous feedback, which
is the fundamental aspect of an agile method.
14. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and to be
able to respond quickly to changing requirements without excessive rework.
15. How is plan driven development different from agile development?

a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities
Answer: c
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate development
stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in advance.
16. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
17. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software development process which can’t be avoided.
18. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development (ASD) ?
a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
19. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs
today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
20. RAD stands for

b) Rapid Application Development
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
21. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.
22. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?

a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype
Answer: c
Explanation: There is no such thing as Diagonal Prototype whereas other options have their
respective definitions

a) Quick Design
b) Coding
d) Engineer Product
Answer: b
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.
24. RAD Model has

a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
Answer: c
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases namely: Business modeling, Data modeling,
Process modeling, Application generation and Testing & Turnover.
25. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are
required
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-
develop functionality. Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.
26. SDLC stands for

a) Software Development Life Cycle
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
a) Waterfall Model
c) RAD Model
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
28. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release
once every month.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Incremental development is supported through small, frequent system releases.
29. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows a continuous integration approach.After any such integration, all the unit
tests in the system must pass.
30. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks.

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP) takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative development.New
versions may be built several times per day, hence delivering the increment for approval every 2nd
week after testing the new version.
31. User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.

a) Implementation tasks
b) functionalities
c) scenarios
Answer: c
Explanation: User requirements are expressed as scenarios or user stories.These are written on
cards and the development team break them down into implementation tasks. These tasks are the
basis of schedule and cost estimates.
32. Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) it may vary from Customer to Customer
Answer: c
Explanation: The role of the customer in the testing process is to help develop acceptance tests for
the stories that are to be implemented in the next release of the system.However, people adopting
the customer role have limited time available and so cannot work full-time with the development
team. They may feel that providing the requirements was enough of a contribution and so may be
reluctant to get involved in the testing process.
33. Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing
tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that
may occur.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very difficult to write incrementally.For example, in a complex
user interface, it is often difficult to write unit tests for the code that implements the ‘display logic’ and
workflow between screens.
34. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Automated test harnesses are used to run all component tests each time that a new
release is built.
35. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality
before that functionality itself is implemented.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows Test-first development approach.
36. Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers
before forwarding that release to customers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair programming which means developers work in pairs,
checking each other’s work and providing the support to always do a good job.
37. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding
c) planning, design, coding, testing
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
Answer: c
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four activities, and in the same in order.
b) Effort costs
Answer: d
Answer: c

Answer: a
Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in
some given time. Function points and object points
41. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to
the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modeling
b) Expert judgments
Answer: a
Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from
historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics.
available
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of code
size but are often still inaccurate.
43. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have
been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modeling
b) Expert judgments
Answer: c
c) A reuse model
Answer: a
a) CASE tools
b) pricing to win
d) Expert judgments
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment. If
the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is
estimated to be 60 person-months.
46. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been
established?
c) A reuse model
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to number of lines of
source code. The formula follows the standard form discussed above with a simplified set of seven
multipliers.
47. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or
program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
c) A reuse model
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
48. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse,
etc
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-models that
produce increasingly detailed software estimates.
49. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?

b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics
Answer: d
Explanation: Complexity metrics measure the logical complexity of source code.
50. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of

a) Analysis Model
b) Testing
c) Design Model
d) Source Code
Answer: b
Explanation: These metrics lead to the design of test cases that provide program coverage.
51. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
Answer: c
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in 1979, hundreds of books and papers have been written
on functions points since then.
52. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
Answer: c
Explanation: The five values are: External Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries, Internal
Logical Files and External Interface Files.
53. Function Point Computation is given by the formula

a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Answer: b
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula for Function Point Computation.
54. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.

a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box
Answer: a
Explanation: They are “black box” in that they do not require any knowledge of the inner workings of
a particular software component.
55. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
a) Reliability
b) Usability
c) Efficiency
d) Functionality
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
56. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
a) stated needs
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Answer: c

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a
software development project?
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity
and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these
are to be assessed.
Answer: a

b) Process analysis
Answer: b
identified.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project
duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?
b) Software Project scheduling
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
13. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as
a) Compartmentalization
b) Defined milestones
c) Defined responsibilities
d) Defined outcomes
Answer: c
Explanation: These responsibilities are domain specific.
14. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must
be accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
c) Adaptation criteria
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
15. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in
Software Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation
b) Effort Validation
c) Defined Milestone
d) Effort Distribution
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
16. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process
should be applied on a project?
a) Degree of Rigor
b) Adaptation criteria
c) Task Set
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria
Answer: b
Explanation: Four different degrees of rigor are: casual, structured, strict, and quick reaction.
17. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project
scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
b) Customers Complaints
c) Project staff
Answer: b
Explanation: These can vary from client to client.
19. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software
development?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM
Answer: d
Explanation: Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM) are
two project scheduling methods that can be applied to software development.
20. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as

a) BCWS
b) EVA
c) BAC
d) CBSE
Answer: b
Explanation: The earned value system provides a common value scale for every task, regardless of
the type of work being performed. The total hours to do the whole project are estimated, and every
task is given an earned value based on its estimated percentage of the total.
21. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?

a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30
c) 30-40-30
d) 50-30-20
Answer: a
Explanation: A recommended distribution of effort across the software process is 40% (analysis and
design), 20% (coding), and 40% (testing).
22. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by

a) Henry Gantt
b) Barry Boehm
c) Ivar Jacabson
Answer: a
Explanation: Timeline chart, also called a Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an industrial
engineer in 1917.
23. What is Scheduling?

a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
24. Which of the following term describes testing?

a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
Answer: b
Explanation: Software testing is the process of evaluation a software item to detect differences
between given input and expected output.
25. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in the program
module.Cyclomatic complexity gives the minimum number of paths that can generate all possible
paths through the module.
26. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?

a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
Answer: a
Explanation: A run chart is used to monitor the behavior of a variable over time for a process or
system. Run charts graphically display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random patterns in behavior
over time. It contains lower and upper limits.
27. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
Answer: c
Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done on the already deployed software. The deployed software
needs to be enhanced, changed or migrated to other hardware. The Testing done during this
enhancement, change and migration cycle is known as maintenance testing.
28. White Box techniques are also classified as

a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
Answer: b
Explanation: The structural testing is the testing of the structure of the system or component.
Structural testing is often referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box testing’ because in
structural testing we are interested in what is happening ‘inside the system/application’.
29. Exhaustive testing is

a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
Answer: c
Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing where we execute single test case for multiple test
data.It means if we are using single test case for different product or module under manual testing.
testing.
30. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision testing, condition coverage all of them uses white box
technique.
31. What are the various Testing Levels?

a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing all of them are levels in testing.
32. Boundary value analysis belong to?

a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is based on testing at the boundaries between partitions and
checks the output with expected output.
33. Alpha testing is done at

a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the developer’s end. Developers observe the users and
note problems. Alpha testing is testing of an application when development is about to complete.
Minor design changes can still be made as a result of alpha testing.
34. What is the main purpose of hazard identification?

a) To minimize the effect of a consequence
b) For better risk management
d) To reduce probability of occurrence
Answer: c
Explanation: Hazard identification is the first step in risk assessment. The goal is to understand the
concentration of toxins, spatial distribution and there movement.
35. Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification?
a) Land use
b) Contaminant levels
c) Affected population
d) Estimation of risk
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at risk characterization whereas land use, contaminant level,
affected population and biota data play a major role while identifying a hazard.
36. Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk is the probability of suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential source of harm.
37. What is the main objective of risk assessment?

a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks
b) Remediation of contaminated sites
d) To know source of pollutants
Answer: a
Explanation: Risk assessment helps to understand possible problems and provides alternatives as
well as control measures to reduce the accident.
38. The purpose of risk management is to identify potential problems before they occur so that risk-
handling activities may be planned.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: The main goal of risk management is to reduce the threats from an activity so that harm
to the surrounding is minimized.

a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer: d
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: a
41. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of
organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
42. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on
which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
Answer: a
Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software
engineering.
about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
44. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software
is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
Answer: d
45. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are
used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
Answer: b
46. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to
maximize information hiding in the design.”?
Answer: c
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
49. Which of the following is not a phase of project management?

a) Project planning
b) Project scheduling
c) Project controlling
d) Project being
Answer: d
Explanation: There are three phases of project management. These are project planning, project
scheduling and project controlling. Project management refers to a highly specialized job to achieve
the objectives of a project.
50. The full form of PERT is ___________

a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology
b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Robot Technology
d) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
Answer: d
Explanation: There are various network techniques that are called by various names like PERT,
CPM, TOPS and LESS. Network technique is one of the major advancements in management
science. The full form of PERT is Program Evaluation and Review Technique.
51. The full form of CPM is ___________

a) Critical Path Method
b) Control Path Method
Answer: a
Explanation: The full form of CPM is the Critical Path Method. CPM networks are mainly used for
those projects for which a fairly accurate estimate of time of completion can be made for each
activity.
52. A PERT network is activity-oriented while a CPM network is event-oriented.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A CPM network is activity-oriented while a PERT network is event-oriented. Event is
the completion of an activity or the commencement of an activity. An event may be head event, tail
event or dual role event.
53. According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be
needed to complete an activity is called as __________
a) The most likely time estimate
c) Pessimistic time estimate
d) Expected time estimate
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that
would be needed to complete an activity is called the pessimistic time estimate. This estimate does
not include possible effects of floods, earthquakes, etc.
54. In a network, a critical path is the time-wise shortest path.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a network, a critical path is the time-wise longest path. The critical path in the Critical
Path Method plays an essential role in scheduling and planning.
55. The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an
activity is known as _________
a) Free float
b) Independent float
c) Total float
d) Half float
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to
perform an activity is known as the total float. Hence, the total float is the excess of the maximum
available time throughout the time of the activity.
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is
always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid
these risks.
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Answer: c
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–
25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
Answer: d
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
these are to be assessed.
system?
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and
process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how
to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute
b) Process analysis
Answer: b
identified.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of
the attribute than can be measured.
11. In a similar way to structure prediction methods models can be evaluated using RMSD to
measure the similarity between two molecular complexes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This is only the case if an experimental structure already exists. Several
docking methods have been evaluated at ‘Critical Assessment of Structure Prediction 2’
(CASP2) for both protein-ligand and protein-protein interactions.
12. In practical circumstances there exists an experimental structure of the complex.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In practical circumstances an experimental structure of the complex does not
already exist. Some other evaluation criteria are needed. This is by necessity experimental
validation. The hypothetical protein-biomolecular complex predicts a mode of interaction
between the two molecules that can be tested experimentally.
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is
always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid
these risks.
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Answer: c
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–
25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
Answer: d
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
these are to be assessed.
system?
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and
process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how
to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute
b) Process analysis
Answer: b
identified.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of
the attribute than can be measured.
23. A voluntary arrangement between two or more parties that is enforceable by law as a binding
legal agreement is known as __________
a) job
b) loan
c) contract
d) mutual fund
Answer: c
Explanation: A contract arises when the parties agree that there is an agreement. Formation
of a contract generally requires an offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual intent to be
bound. Each party to a contract must have capacity to enter the agreement. Minors,
intoxicated persons, and those under a mental affliction may have insufficient capacity to
enter a contract. Some types of contracts may require formalities, such as a memorialization
in writing.
24. _______________ contract is one that has automatic renewals until one party requests
termination.
a) Uniform
b) Evergreen
c) Moderate
d) On-demand
Answer: b
Explanation: If these are left unattended, they can have significant cost impacts with little
value. If these agreements won’t work for the company, the clauses stating the contract
automatically renews should be removed. If the clause makes sense or cannot be taken out,
alerts can still be set in a contract management platform as a reminder.
25. How are final contracts signed in modern business?
a) e-Signatures
b) Document scanning
c) Thump impression
d) Shaking hands
Answer: a
Explanation: Electronic signatures, or e-Signatures, have become crucial for businesses as
they seek to increase the speed of time-to-signature, e-Signatures are legally binding and
have the same legal status as a written signature, as long as it fulfills the requirements of the
regulation it was created under.
A contract management platform should include the ability to integrate with an e-Signature
software, or include e-Signatures as part of the platform.
26. An invitation to tender might not include?
a) Holiday packages
b) Preliminarie
c) A letter of invitation to tender
d) Design drawing
Answer: a
Explanation: An invitation to tender might be issued for a range of contracts, including;
equipment supply, the main construction contract (perhaps including design by the
contractor), demolition, enabling works and so on.
An invitation to tender might include:
• A letter of invitation to tender.
• The form of tender.
• Preliminaries.
• The form of contract.
• A tender pricing document.
• A drawing schedule.
• Design drawings.
• Specifications.
27. Mutual mistake occurs when both parties of a contract are mistaken as to the terms.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: Each believes they are contracting to something different. Courts usually try to
uphold such mistakes if a reasonable interpretation of the terms can be found. However, a
contract based on a mutual mistake in judgment does not cause the contract to be voidable
by the party that is adversely affected.
c) data
Answer: d
Explanation: None
29. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change
without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a
software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and
informally.
30. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
Answer: a
Explanation: None
31. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects
that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
Answer: b
Explanation: Configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations of
the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.
32. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for
characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
c) Baseline
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
33. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries,
and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
34. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are tracked.
35. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
b) Risk management
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management is an entirely different domain.
36. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality
certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
Answer: d
Explanation: It is defined in all the mentioned options.
37. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system
versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
38. SCM stands for
a) Software Control Management
b) Software Configuration Management
c) Software Concept Management
Answer: b
Explanation: In software engineering, software configuration management (SCM) is the task
of tracking and controlling changes in the software, part of the larger cross-discipline field of
configuration management.
39. When code is made available to others, it goes in a/an
a) hard drive
b) access-controlled library
c) servers
d) access control
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
40. Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM) Process?
a) CM Planning
b) Executing the CM process
c) CM audits
Answer: d
41. CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
42. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?
a) Version Control
b) Access control
c) CM Process
Answer: a
Explanation: It allows software engineers to continue development along a branch even
when a line of development is frozen.
43. Which of the following is not a change management process?
a) Log the changes
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule
Answer: d
Explanation: All are required for a change.
44. Configuration management (CM) is needed to deliver product to the client
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
45. What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed and
agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development?
a) Baseline
c) CM
d) Change Control
Answer: a
Explanation: In configuration management, a “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the
attributes of a product, at a point in time, which serves as a basis for defining change.
46. How are baselines verified?
a) By reviews
b) By inspections
c) By testing of code
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-to description.
47. Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?
a) SCM procedures
b) Source code
Answer: d
Explanation: All are covered in CM.
48. SCM controls only the products of the development process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
49. CCB stands for
a) Change Control Board
b) Change Control Baseline
c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
50. What information is required to process a change to a baseline?
a) Reasons for making the changes
b) A description of the proposed changes
c) List of other items affected by the changes
Answer: d
Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to description of the product, changes require multiple
reasons.
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT MCQ
1. The effective software project management focuses on four P’s – People, Process, Product, and Project.
(True / False)
Ans. True
2. People Management Capability Maturity Model (PM-CMM) has been developed by ____.
Ans. Software Engineering Institute (SEI)
3. ____ must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software work.
a) Project Managers
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End Users
Ans. a
4. Organization structure depends on the people working in it. (True / False)

Ans. False
5. Wheelwright and Clark define a continuum of organizational structures between two extremes, ____
organizations and ____ organizations.
Ans. Functional, Project
6. The realistic percentage for striving to work in Software Project Development is ____.
a) 40%
b) 80%
c) 50%
d) 100%
Ans. b
7. In flat structured organizations, work is more flexible and the employee does whatever is needed. (True / False)
Ans. True
8. In ____ organizations, work is organized into small workgroups and integrated regionally and nationally/globally.
Ans. Matrix
9. ____ organizations take the networked structure one step further by combining IT with traditional components to
form new types of components.
a) Hierarchical
b) Flat
c) T-form (Technology-based)
d) Matrix
Ans. C
10. Team Leader is responsible for all aspects of the project. (True / False)
Ans. True
11. ____ manage hardware/software requirements for development, testing, validation, and production
environments.
Ans. Logistics
1
12. ____ define testing procedures and certification process.
a) Software Support
b) Software Development
c) Software Management
d) Software Testing
Ans. d
13. Project Management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements. (True /False)
Ans. True
14. Interoperability has become a key characteristic of many systems. (True/ False)
Ans. True
15. Conducting structured meetings is a form of ____ communication.

Ans. Formal
16. ____ encompasses e-mail, or electronic dashboards, or video conferencing system.

a) Formal communication
b) Electronic communication
c) Informal communication
d) Interpersonal networking
Ans. B
17. Project implementation is the first stage in project development. (True / False)
Ans. False
18. The ____ stage determines the nature and scope of the development.
Ans. Initiation
19. Testing and Module Integration strategies are addressed in ____ phase.
a) Initiation
b) Implementation
d) Maintenance
Ans. C
20. The project charter is a one-time announcement. (True / False)

Ans. True
21. The purpose of a ____ is to detail the work requirements for projects and programs that have deliverables and/or
services performed.
Ans. Statement of Work (SoW)
22. IAPPM stands for ____.

Ans. International Association of Project and Program Management
24. The three most important factors that influence project management are ____, ____and _____.
Ans. Time, Cost, Scope
25. PERT stands for ____.

Ans. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
2
26. ____ do not highlight inter-task dependencies.
a) Gantt charts
b) PERT charts
c) Both a) and b)
Ans. a) Gantt charts
27. The "spiral model", documented in 1970 by Royce was the first publicly documented life cycle model. (True /
False)
Ans. False
28. Most life cycle models can be derived as special cases of the ____.
Ans. Spiral model
29. ____ is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
Ans. b) Waterfall model
30. CMM stands for ____.

a) Capability Maturity Model
b) Capacity Maturity Model
c) Customer Maturity Model
d) Common Maturity Model
Ans. A
31. Project scope, pros and cons are discussed in the initiation phase. (True/ False)
Ans. True
32. A semiformal way of breaking down the goal is called the ____.
Ans. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
33. Two general notations used for scheduling are ____ charts and ____ charts.
Ans. PERT, Gantt
34. The purpose of planning a project is to identify the sequence of activities as per their complexities and
dependencies. (True / False)
Ans. True
35. COCOMO stands for ____.

Ans. COnstructive COst MOdel
36. In ____ mode the project is characterized by tight, stringent constraints and interface requirements.
a) Organic
b) Embedded
c) Semidetached
Ans. b) Embedded
3
37. Budgeting in a business sense is the planned allocation of available funds to each department within a company.
(True / False)
Ans. True
38. ROI stands for ____.

Ans. Return On Investment
39. ____ is a standard method for the financial appraisal of long-term projects.
Ans. Net Present Value (NPV)
40. Cost in a project includes software, hardware and human resources. (True / False)
Ans. True
41. A schedule provides the idea about the start and finishes dates of key activities or terminal elements of the
project. (True / False)
Ans. True
42. PERT stands for ____.

Ans. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
43. ____ in an event indicates ahead of schedule. (Pick right option)

c) Zero slack
Ans. a) Positive slack (+)
44. Booz Allen Hamilton, Inc. has developed a Gantt chart. (True / False)
Ans. False
45. ____, ____, ____, are examples of automated scheduling tools.

Ans. Microsoft Project, ABT’s Project Workbench for Windows, Symantec’s Timeline
46. Accelerating the project schedule is often termed as ____ of the schedule. (Pick right option)
a) Breaking
b) Crashing
c) Speeding
Ans. b) Crashing
47. Most cost estimates are determined in terms of ____.

Ans. Person-Months (PM)
48. ‘Work expands to fill the available volume’ is ____ principle.

a) Parkinson’s
b) James’s
c) John’s
Ans. a) Parkinson’s
49. COCOMO model was developed by Parkinson. (True / False)

Ans. False
4
50. If there is a certain probability that the objectives of the project will not be achieved, this risk should not be
reported to higher management. (True / False)
Ans. False
51. Risk the combination of both the possibility of occurrence of adverse event and the impact of such bad event.
(True / False)
Ans. True
52. When there are disagreements between the project lead and overall project manager, the same can be resolved
through ____.
Ans. Change control board
53. A ____ is a discrepancy between how a requirement was mentioned and how the same requirement is
implemented. (Pick right option)
a) Defect
b) Change
c) Risk
Ans. a) Defect
54. Tom DeMarco stated, “You can’t control what you can't measure”. (True / False)
Ans. True
55. ____ is the statistics gathered over the course of the execution of the project.
Ans. Software Metric
56. _____ is a software package used for preparing earned value analysis. (Pick right option)
a) MS Project
b) Primavera
c) Lotus Notes
Ans. b) Primavera
57. Status meetings and status reporting are required for a medium-size project. (True / False)
Ans. True
58. ____ is a set of practices originally developed by Motorola to systematically improve processes by eliminating
defects.
Ans. Six Sigma
59. Six Sigma is a registered service mark and trademark of ____. (Pick right option)
a) Microsoft
b) Sun Microsystems
c) Motorola
Ans. c) Motorola
60. ____ involves activities like typical strategies, processes, techniques, and tools involved in containing the
adverse impacts of risks on the software project.
Ans. Software risk management
5
61. Software Configuration Management (SCM) is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software
process. (True / False)
Ans. True
62. A ____ becomes the basis to further elaboration of Project plan and the Software Requirement specification as
the project progresses.
Ans. Scope and Vision document
63. A ____ has a name, attributes, and is "connected" to other objects by relationships.
Ans. Configuration Object
64. Software configuration management is not an element of software quality assurance. (True / False)
Ans. False
65. Two types of objects that can be identified in configuration management are ____ and _____.
Ans. Base Objects, Aggregate Objects
66. ____ combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created
during the software process.
Ans. Version Control
67. For a large software engineering project, uncontrolled change rapidly leads to chaos. (True / False)
Ans. True
68. The results of the evaluation are presented as a change report, which is used by a ____.
Ans. Change Control Authority
69. ____ helps to eliminate the problems by improving communication among all people involved.
Ans. Status Reporting
70. ____ can take place at any time during the project, though the sooner the better. (Pick right option)
a) Risk assessment b) Risk management planning
c) Risk resolution d) Risk prioritization
Ans. a) Risk assessment
71. Project risks are those risks that could result in project slippage, budget constraints related issues, and resource
and customer requirement related issues. (True / False)
Ans. True
72. ____ threaten the applicability of the software product being built.
Ans. Business risk
73. ACAT stands for ____. Ans. Avoid, Control, Accept or Transfer
74. The risk associated with the degree of uncertainty that the project schedule will be maintained and that the
product will be delivered on time is a schedule risk. (True / False)
Ans. True
75. The risk associated with the degree of uncertainty that the resulting software will be easy to correct, adapt and
enhance is a ____.
Ans. Support risk
6
Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Risk
Management
« Prev Next »
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Risk Management”.
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the
quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
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a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational
management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
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4. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the
system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software engineering.
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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6. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being
developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
View Answer
Answer: d
7. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to
develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
View Answer
Answer: b
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8. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize
information hiding in the design.”?
View Answer
Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.
Here’s the list of Best Reference Books in Software Engineering.
To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers on Software Engineering.
Participate in the Sanfoundry Certification contest to get free Certificate of Merit. Join our social networks
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Software Engineering Questions and Answers –
Project Management
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This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Project
Management”.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always subject to
organizational budget and schedule constraints.
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a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the
quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
View Answer
Answer: c
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage projects
successfully.
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–
50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
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6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity and,
from this, calculating the total cost of activities.
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these are to be
assessed.
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process proposed
system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different versions of
the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.
b) Process analysis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are identified.
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10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external
quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the attribute
than can be measured.
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SPM MCQ | Software Project

Management Questions & Answers
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SPM MCQ | Software Project

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Project management in software engineering is distinct from traditional Unit 4 Software
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that requires multiple rounds of testing, updating, and customer feedback. Questions for AKTU
Most IT-related projects are managed in the Agile style to keep up with the Exams
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July 27,
Software project management MCQ | SPM
2021
MCQ
Unit 3 Software
Engineering MCQ
Question 1: Project has uncertainties on some functionalities at the beginning Questions for AKTU
which will improve over time. Which software development model is suitable?
Exams
Select one:
world.com/unit-3-
a. None of the above
b. Waterfall
mcq-questions-for-
c. Iterative
aktu-exams/)
July 27,
d. Incremental
2021
Answer: None of the above Unit 2 Software

Engineering MCQ
Question 2: Object point method best suited for Questions for AKTU
Exam 2021
a. Designing
b. Testing
world.com/unit-2-
c. Coding
d. Estimation mcq-questions-for-
aktu-exam-2021/)
July
Answer: Estimation 24, 2021
Unit 1 Software
Question 3: This term is least critical from customer view point
Engineering MCQ
a. UAT
Questions for AKTU

b. Unit testing
Exam 2021
d. Milestones world.com/unit-1-
Answer: Milestones mcq-questions-for-
aktu-exam-2021/)
July
Question 4: Following method is not used for project planning 24, 2021
a. Activity Diagram
How to Fill Invalid
b. CPM
Activity Appeal For
Google AdSense 2021
c. Timesheet
d. Gantt chart
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MCQ (Formatting
Analog Information)
UNIT-2
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information-unit-2/)
July 5, 2021
Digital Communication
MCQ (Signals and
Spectra) UNIT-1
world.com/digital-
communication-mcq-
Question 5: There are __ types of Work Breakdown Structures. multiple-choice-
questions/)
July 4, 2021
a. Four
Renewable Energy
b. Three
MCQ (Geothermal
c. none
Energy) Unit – 6
d. Two
world.com/renewable-
Answer: Two
energy-mcq-
geothermal-energy-
Question 6: If Task A to complete, it takes 10 days of human effort. It started 5
unit-6/)
July 4, 2021
days earlier to the scheduled date and completed on 35th day. Then, the float
value
a. 25
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15
Question 7: Which of the following is not achieved by an automated

estimation tools?
a. Predicting clients demands.
Archives
July 2021
world.com/2021/07/)
Answer: Predicting clients demands.
June 2021
Question 8: The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting. What (https://www.deepcrazy
does SMART stand for?
world.com/2021/06/)
a. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
May 2021
world.com/2021/05/)
d. standardised, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
We use cookies on our website to give you the most relevant experience by remembering your preferences
April 2021 and repeat
Answer: specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
world.com/2021/04/)

Question 9 Which of these is NOT true for a matrix organizational structure?
February 2021
a. It follows the unity of command principle rigorously
b. Task and personality conflicts are a disadvantage of Matrix structure
world.com/2021/02/)
c. Individual operators have to do double reporting both to a Project Manager
January 2021
and to the Functional manager
d. It is generally employed in project driven organizations
world.com/2021/01/)
Answer: It follows the unity of command principle rigorously December 2020

Question 10 Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering world.com/2020/12/)
Process Model.
November 2020
1)Test
2)Design
world.com/2020/11/)
3)Install
October 2020
4)Specification
5)Manufacture
world.com/2020/10/)
6)Maintain Select one:
September 2020
a. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
world.com/2020/09/)
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
August 2020
d. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
world.com/2020/08/)
Answer: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
July 2020
Question 11: Project management (PM) is the application of _____ to meet (https://www.deepcrazy
project requirements. world.com/2020/07/)
June 2020
a. skills, tools and techniques
b. knowledge, skills, tools and techniques
world.com/2020/06/)
c. knowledge, tools and techniques
d. knowledge, skills, tools May 2020

Answer: knowledge, skills, tools and techniques world.com/2020/05/)
March 2020
Question 12: A __ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles
one business transaction or customer request
world.com/2020/03/)
a. Model February 2020

b. Workflow
c. Prototype
world.com/2020/02/)
d. Mock-up
January 2020
Answer: Workflow
world.com/2020/01/)
Question 13: __ model is not suitable for accommodating any change December 2019
We use cookies on our website to give you the most relevant experience by remembering your preferences and repeat
a. Waterfall Model
world.com/2019/12/)
November 2019
Cookiec.settings ACCEPT
Build & Fix Model

d. RAD Model
Answer: Waterfall Model world.com/2019/11/)
October 2019
Question 14: Smith is a project manager for ABC Video games. He has
produced a project network diagram and has updated the activity list. Which
world.com/2019/10/)
process have he just finished?
September 2019
a. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the activities (https://www.deepcrazy
dependences
world.com/2019/09/)
b. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of
August 2019
the project
c. The activity duration Estimating process, which identifies all the dependent world.com/2019/08/)
activities of the project
d. The activity duration Estimating process, which diagram project network

time estimates
Answer: The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific
activities of the project
Question 15: Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? Follow Us
a. Costs of support staff
 
b. Costs of lunch time food
c. Costs of networking and communications
d. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space (https: (https:
Answer: Costs of lunch time food //twitt //www
Question 16: Which of the following is the process of assembling program

er.co .faceb
components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to
create an executable system?
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a. Change management
b. Version management
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c. Release management
d. System building
hnic? hnicd
Answer: System building

s=08) ude/)
Question 17: Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?
a. Project management

b. Organization
c. Motivation
(https: 
d. Problem solving
//www (https:
Answer: Project management
Question 18 What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?
.insta //in.pi
a. Changes are managed poorly.
b. Deadlines are unrealistic
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The product scope is poorly define

d. All of the given options. com/t t.com/
Answer: All of the given options.
echni techni
Question 19: If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more
programmers and catch up.
c_dud cdude
a. True
b. False
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Answer: False

Question 20 The project life cycle consists of
(https:
a. Objectives of the project
b. All of the above
//www
c. Formulation and planning various activities
d. Understanding the scope of the project

.youtu
Answer: All of the above
be.co
Question 21: Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the
total cost of a software development project?
m/c/T
a. All of the mentioned
b. Travel and training costs

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c. Hardware and software costs
d. Effort costs cDud
Answer: All of the mentioned

e)
Question 22 An estimation technique ____________measure the size of the

functionality to be developed.
a. Analogy
b. Function Point
c. WBS
Answer: Function Point
Question 23 Which of the following is not generally considered a stakeholder

Most Popular
in the software process?
Post
a. end users
b. project team
c. sales team
d. customer
Answer: sales team
Question 24 What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?

Top 10 WordPress
We usea.cookies
Big Bang
onmodel
themes
our website to give you the most relevant experience by remembering your for 2020and
preferences – repeat
visits. By clicking “Accept”,
b. Spiral model
you consent to the use of ALL the cookies. Responsive Themes
c. V-model

world.com/top-10- 
d. Waterfall model
wordpress-themes/)
Answer: Waterfall model (DeepCrazyWorld)
(1,920)
Question 25 The PERT technique gives most weightage to
a. the most pessimistic estimate obtained
b. the most optimistic estimate obtained
c. the most likely estimate obtained
d. all the estimates obtained have equal weights
Answer: the most likely estimate obtained How to make Student

Portal System Android
Question 26: Which of the following is not a commonly used technique for Project
schedule compression
a. quality reduction
world.com/student-
b. use of overtime
portal-system-android-
c. scope reduction
project/)
d. resource reduction (DeepCrazyWorld)

(1,502)
Answer: resource reduction
Question 27 To detect fraudulent usage of credit cards, the following data

mining task should be used
a. Outlier analysis
b. prediction
How to Make All in One

c. association analysis
Status Saver App in
d. feature selection Android Studio
Answer: Outlier analysis world.com/status-saver-
app-in-android-studio/)
Question 28 One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software (DeepCrazyWorld)
development process is to (1,484)
a. Hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
b. Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
c. Give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
d. Reward programmers based on their productivity.
Answer: Give team members more control over process and technical
How to Make a
decisions.
Wallpaper App with
pixel in Android Studio
Question 29 Select from the following which is not project management goal
world.com/how-to-
a. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
make-a-wallpaper-app-
b. Keeping overall costs within budget.
with-pixel-in-android-
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
studio/)
d. Avoiding costumer complaints. (DeepCrazyWorld)
(1,456)
We useAnswer:
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on our website
costumerto complaints.
give you the most relevant experience by remembering your preferences and repeat
Question 30 Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering


Process Model.
1. Test
2. Design
3. Install
4. Specification
5. Manufacture
6. Maintain
How to make Photo
Select one:
Video Maker app With
a. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
Music in android studio
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
world.com/how-to-
d. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3 make-photo-video-
maker-app/)
Answer: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6 (DeepCrazyWorld)
(1,450)
Question 31: —————— is the linear software development lifecycle
methodology
a. Prototyping
b. Spiral
c. Agile
d. Waterfall
Answer: Waterfall
Question 32 Which of the following is a reliability tactic?
A) improving individual components
B) increasing repair speed
C) providing redundancy
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
Answer : A and C
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software

engineering is always subject to organizational budget and schedule
constraints.
We use cookies
a) True
on our website to give you the most relevant experience by remembering your preferences and repeat
b) False


Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect

the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then
taking action to avoid these risks.
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly

implement and manage projects successfully.
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%),
low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
38. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to

complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.
a) team
b) project
c) customers


d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and
describe how these are to be assessed.

Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to

record and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system
components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and
its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.
b) Process analysis
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and

bottlenecks are identified.
42. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be
measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to
the value of the attribute than can be measured.
According to Forbes, there are eight ways to improve and streamline the
software project management process.
These tips include:
Taking non-development work off your team’s plate to let them focus on
the product
Motivating your team by sharing others’ success stories
Avoiding any changes to tasks once assigned
Trying to stick to the plan (until it needs to be changed)
Encouraging organization by being organized yourself
Streamlining productivity through effective delegation
Getting to know your team and building a rapport
Breaking down the plan and assigning specific daily tasks 
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Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Size
and Cost Estimation of Software
« Prev Next »
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Size and Cost
Estimation of Software”.
1. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development
project?
b) Effort costs
View Answer
Answer: d
advertisement
View Answer
Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in some given
time. Function points and object points
advertisement
4. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project
cost.
b) Expert judgement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from historical
project data and current as well as future project characteristics.
5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is available
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of code size but
are often still inaccurate.
advertisement
6. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been
completed?
b) Expert judgement
View Answer
Answer: c
7. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database
programming?
c) A reuse model
View Answer
Answer: a
advertisement
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
d) Expert judgement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment. If the
software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is estimated to be
60 person-months.
9. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established?
c) A reuse model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to number of lines of source
code. The formula follows the standard form discussed above with a simplified set of seven multipliers.
advertisement
10. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code
that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
c) A reuse model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
11. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-models that produce
increasingly detailed software estimates.
« Prev - Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Project Planning

» Next - Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Empirical Estimation Models
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Software Engineering Questions and Answers –
Project Planning
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This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Project Planning”.
1. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software grows rapidly.
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a) Planning process
b) Software scope
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases refined to
provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.
3. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements

gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Facilitated application specification techniques
(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers
and developers who work together to identify the problem, propose elements
of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.
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4. CLSS stands for
a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed
d) conveyor line sorting specification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor line. Each box is
identified by a barcode that contains a part number and is sorted into one of six bins at the end of the line.
5. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is
known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None
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6. The environment that supports the software project is called
a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineering environment (SEE), incorporates hardware and software.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
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8. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation
approach in their own right?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort
as a function of LOC or FP.
View Answer
Answer: d
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10. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical data and
systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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1 What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness, and_____
A. Consistency*
B. Correctness
C. Concurrency
D. None of these
2 A software project that meets all the given objectives is a success of _________.
B. Project quality
D. Project management*
3. ___________ is not an effective software project management focus.
A. people
B. product
C. process
D. popularity*
A. project design*
C. project planning
D. project control
A. Analytical
B. Critical*
C. Empirical
E. Heuristic
A. Staff turnover*
B. Testing
B. Project Management Life Cycle*
8. What is the process during the life of a software development is known as
B. sdlc*
A. customers
B. project manager
C. team
D. project*
10. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is
included?
a.Create a contingency plan
c.Create a WBS*
11. What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project
completion?
a.Scope verification
b.Completing a scope statement*
c.scope definition
d.Process Management in OS
12. Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gathered through
a/an_______
(a) Elicitation process*
(b) Interviewing
(c) Meeting
(d) None of given
13. When you build a product or system, it’s important to go through a series of predictable
steps , the process which you follow to develop it is known as________
(a)Software design
(b)Software process*
(d)Framework
c) Project staff
15. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in
a) project delay
b) poor quality work
c) project failure
17. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned
project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?
b) Software Project scheduling*

18. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project
scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning8
c) Project staff
about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring*
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
21. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the
software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
22. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that
are used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
c) Estimation risks
23. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management
tasks.
a) True*
b) False
24. If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return then it is classified as
a)future cash flows
b)present cash flows
c)positive cash flows
d)negative cash flows*
25. The present value of cash inflows is 50000 US $ and the present value of cash outflows is $
55000 then NPV is ____________
26. If desired rate of return is exceeded by actual rate of return then it is classified as
a)positive cash flows
b)negative cash flows
c) future cash flows*
d)present cash flows
estimates?
a) Project size*
b) Planning process
a) Planning process
b) Software scope*
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager*
a) Product risk*
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring*
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
32. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the
software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
33. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that
are used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
c) Estimation risks
34. Software consist of
a)programs
b) associated documentation
c) operating procedures
d) all of the above*
35. __ What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks*

a) Known risks
b) Business risks*
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection*
c) Product size risks*
39. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty
that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk*
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation*
c) Risk control
d) Avoiding customer complaints*

a) True
b) False*
c) Testing*
d) Staff turnover
46. Which of the following is project management goal?
47. Risk managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True *
b) False
48. Which of the following is considered as a risk in project management?
c) Delay in schedule
a) team
b) project*
c) customers
d) project manager
50. Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management
plan?
d) nONE*
51. The effective software project management focuses on four P’s People, Process, Product
and Management True/ False
52. _____must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do software work
a) Project Managers*
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End users
53. Project management, is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project
activities to meet the project requirements
a. True*
b. False
54. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification*
d) Development and Documentation
55. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm*
56. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear
statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification*
d) design
57. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation*
58. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer
will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming*
59. Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
60. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral*
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
61. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral*
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
62. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD*
d) Incremental
63. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s
participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping*
64. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False*
65 Investigation into whether a prospective project is worth starting, probable development

cost, operational cost and benefits of the new system are investigated.
a) Feasibility study*
b) Planning
c) System analysis
d) SRS
66. Difference between total cost and total income over the life of the project.
a) Net profit*
b) Payback period
67. Time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment
a) Net profit
b) Payback period*
68. Also known as the accounting rate of return (ARR)
a) Net profit
b) Payback period
c) Return on investment(ROI)*
69. A project evaluation technique that takes into account the profitability of a project and the
timing of the cash flows that are produced
a) Net profit
b) Payback period
70. ____________sum of all incoming and outgoing payments, discounted using an interest
rate, to a fixed point in time (the present)
a) Net profit
b) Payback period
71. ____________is the discount rate that would produce an NPV of 0 for the project.
a) IRR*
e) Payback period
f) Return on investment(ROI)
g) Net present value
72 Identifying and estimating all of the costs and benefits of carrying out the project and
operating the delivered application:
a) Cost-benefit analysis*
b) Feasibility analysis
c) Technical analysis
d) Business analysis
73. ________compares the sensitivity of each factor of project profiles by varying parameters
which affect the project cost benefits
a) Sensitivity analysis
b) Risk profiles*
c) Business analysis
d) None
74. Strategic Project Management is about forming clear links between your Projects and
Strategic Objectives
True*
False
75. It is important to review plan to review quality aspects of the project plan.
a) True*
b) False
76. Includes the salaries and other employment costs of the staff in the development project.
a) Development Cost*
b) Set up cost
c) Operational cost
d) None
77. Includes costs of any new hardware and ancillary equipment in the development project.
a) Development Cost
b) Set up cost*
c) Operational cost
d) None
78. Consist of the cost of operating the system Once it has been installed.
a) Development Cost
b) Set up cost
c) Operational cost*
d) None
79. Earning directly from the operation of the proposed system.

a) Direct benefits*
d) None
80. Earning secondary benefits like increased accuracy of a proposed system
a) Direct benefits
b) Indirect benefits*
d) None
81 benefits difficult to quantify like lower recruitment cost:
a) Direct benefits
c) Intangible benefits*
d) None
82 Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
83 Purpose of process is to deliver software
a) in time
d) both in time & with acceptable quality*
84 Which are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
85. Select the developer-specific requirement?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability*
86. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design*
c) analysis
d) documentation
a) CAD, CAM
c) Generic, Customised*
a) True*
b) False
89 Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?
b) pattern recognition game playing*
a) True
b) False
92 Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200*
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
93 What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) *Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early*
1. Test
2. Design
3. Install
4. Specification
5. Manufacture
6. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6*
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
a) responsiveness
b) licensing*
d) processing time
96. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry
about the quality of the product.
a) True
b) False
97. RAD stands for
b) Rapid Application Development*

a) Quick Design
b) Coding*
d) Engineer Product
99. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle*
a) Waterfall Model
c) RAD Model*

Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Software Risks
and Identification
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This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Software Risks and Identification”.
1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.
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a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.
3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification, and maintenance problems.
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.
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6. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step toward avoiding them when
possible and controlling them when necessary.
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its
requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Software
Engineering.
Participate in the Sanfoundry Certification contest to get free Certificate of Merit. Join our social networks below and stay updated
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Manish Bhojasia, a technology veteran with 20+ years @ Cisco & Wipro, is Founder and CTO at Sanfoundry. He
is Linux Kernel Developer & SAN Architect and is passionate about competency developments in these areas.
He lives in Bangalore and delivers focused training sessions to IT professionals in Linux Kernel, Linux
Debugging, Linux Device Drivers, Linux Networking, Linux Storage, Advanced C Programming, SAN Storage
Technologies, SCSI Internals & Storage Protocols such as iSCSI & Fiber Channel. Stay connected with him @
Name*
Email*
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SPM
1. The four major mile stones occur at the____________ between life cycle phases
a. periodic points
b. iterative points
c. transition points
d. synchronizing points
2. The plan of product release mile stone is
a. next generation product plan

b. high fidelity transition plan
c. low fidelity transition phase plan
d. high fidelity elaboration phase plan
3. ___________ has the goal to present to all stake holders a recommendation on how to
proceed with development industry plans
a. life cycle objec tive milestone

b. life cycle architecture milestone
c. initial operational capability mile stone
d. product release milestone
4. __________ serve as project snapshots
a. iteration design
b. iteration readiness
c. periodic status assessments
d. iteration assessment
5. How many simple planning guide lines should be considered when a project plan is being
initiated or assessed?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
6. ______are project specific.
a. top-down perspectives
b. evolutionary work break down structure
c. conventional work break down structure
d. software engineering economies
7. ___________ is extremely important to project success.
a. objective plans
b. the art of planning
c. construction
d. iteration
8. Architecture frame work is done in ________ phase.
a. inception
b. elaboration
c. construction
d. transition
9. After product release _________________ is done.
a. transition iteration
b. transition management
c. transition cost
d. transition coding
10. ________are motivated by the cost, schedule and quality of specific deliverables.
a. Software lines of business

b. Project teams
c. Software Engineering Environmental Authority
d. Software Engineering Process Authority
11. __________is a necessary role in any organization.
a. Software lines of business

b. Software Engineering Environmental Authority
c. Software Engineering Process Authority
d. Project review authority
12. The Architecture team is responsible for _______________
a. System level quality

b. User level quality
c. De sign level quality
d. Integration level quality
13. ______ is the responsibility of Software Management team.
a. Resource commitments
b. Requirement tradeoffs
c. Initial integration
d. Technical Risk resolution
14. ________team takes ownership of all aspects of quality.
a. Software Assessment team

b. Software Development team
c. Software Management team
d. Software Architecture team
15. An organization has_______________ types of teams.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
16. The _____________ is a architecture focused organization.
a. elaboration team
b. transition team
c. construction team
d. inception team
17. Inception team focuses on ________
a. architecture
b. coding
c. planning
d. user evaluation
18. _______________captures the contract between the development group and the buyer.
a. Infrastructure
b. Design model
c. Process automation
d. Vision statement
19. In modern process, the system requirements are captured in _______
a. Infrastructure
b. Design model
c. Process automation
d. Vision statement
20. ___________provides the change management instrumentation necessary to automate

metrics and control release baselines.
a. Vision statement
b. Meta process
c. Defect tracking
d. Testing
Chapter# 1 MCQs
The advent of project management has been most profound in
Automobile manufacturing
A)
Construction
B)
Information technology
C)
The U.S. Department of Defense

D)
Film making
E)
Which of the following is not considered to be a characteristic of a project?
An established objective
A)
A clear beginning and end

B)
Complex tasks
C)
Only for internal use

D)
Never been done before

E)
From among the following activities, which is the best example of a project?
Processing insurance claims

A)
Producing automobiles
B)
Writing a term paper

C)
Completing a college degree

D)
All of these are good examples of projects

E)
Which of the following choices is not one of the stages of a project life cycle?
Conceptualizing
A)
Defining
B)
Planning
C)
Executing
D)
Delivering
E)
In which of the following stages are project objectives established, teams

formed, and major responsibilities assigned?
Conceptualizing
A)
Defining
B)
Planning
C)
Executing
D)
Delivering
E)
In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many
changes, and the creation of forecasts?
Conceptualizing
A)
Defining
B)
Planning
C)
Executing
D)
Delivering
E)
Which of the following choices is not one of the driving forces behind the
increasing demand for project management?
Compression of the product life cycle

A)
Knowledge explosion
B)
Development of third world and closed economies

C)
More emphasis on the product and less on the customer

D)
Corporate downsizing
E)
Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of

the following except
Accountability
A)
Flexibility
B)
Innovation
C)
Speed
D)
Repeatability
E)
Which of the following is the number one characteristic that is looked for in
management candidates?
Overall intelligence
A)
Works well with others

B)
Experience
C)
Past successes
D)
Good references
E)
A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that

a six-month project delay can result in a loss of product revenue share of ___
percent.
10
A)
20
B)
33
C)
45
D)
50
E)
Integration of project management with the organization takes place with the
Master budget
A)
Strategy plan
B)
Process of managing actual projects

C)
Both b and c are correct

D)
A, B, and C are all correct

E)
Which of these is not part of the "technical dimension" of project management?
WBS
A)
Budgets
B)
Problem solving
C)
Schedules
D)
Status reports
E)
Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward
Reducing the number of projects a company initiates

A)
Outsourcing significant segments of project work

B)
Using dedicated project teams

C)
Shorter project lead times

D)
Longer project lead times

E)
A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over extended

time intended to achieve a goal is known as a
Strategy
A)
Program
B)
Campaign
C)
Crusade
D)
Venture
E)
From 1994 to 2009 the trend for projects late or over budget was:
Significantly better
A)
Slightly better
B)
About the same

C)
Slightly worse
D)
Significantly worse
E)
Ch#2 MCQs
1
Which of the following is not one of the commonly heard comments of project managers?
Where did this project come from?

A)
Why are we doing this project?

B)
How can all these projects be first priority?

C)
Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?

D)
Where are we going to get the resources to do this project?

E)
2
Strategy considered to be under purview of senior management is
Old school thinking

A)
A new school of management thought

B)
Necessary in a company structure

C)
Beneficial to the Project Manager

D)
Dependent on company goals

E)
3
The intended outcome of strategy/projects integration is
Clear organization focus

A)
Best use of scarce organization resources
B)
Improved communication across projects and departments

C)
Both A and C are correct

D)

E)
4
Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing
the organization's strategy tend to make all the following mistakes except:
Focusing on low priority problems

A)
Overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself

B)
Focusing on the immediate customer

C)
Trying to solve every customer issue

D)
All the above are likely mistakes

E)
5
The textbook indicated that ________ is the major dimension of strategic management.
Responding to changes in the external market

A)
Allocating scarce resources of the organization

B)
Beating competition to the market

C)
Both a and b are correct

D)
Both a and c are correct

E)
6
Which of the following questions does the organization's mission statement answer?
What are our long-term strategies?

A)
What are our long-term goals and objectives?

B)
How do we operate in the existing environment?

C)
What do we want to become?

D)
All of these are answered by the mission statement

E)
7
Strategy formulation includes which of the following activities?
Determining alternatives
A)
Creating profitability targets

B)
Evaluating alternatives
C)
Both a and c are correct

D)

E)
8
The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______ analysis.
SWOT analysis
A)
Competitive
B)
Industry
C)
Market
D)
Strategic
E)
9
Which of the following is not one of the requirements for successful implementation of
strategies through projects?
Allocation of resources
A)
Prioritizing of projects
B)
Motivation of project contributors

C)
Adequate planning and control systems

D)
All of these are requirements

E)
10
Susie's department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping
work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to the work on the
original task. Susie is experiencing
Poor scheduling
A)
Excess work burden

B)
Flexible tasking
C)
Multitasking
D)
Burnout
E)
11
Project selection criteria are typically classified as:
Financial and non-financial

A)
Short-term and long-term

B)
Strategic and tactical

C)
Required and optional

D)
Cost and schedule

E)
12
Which of the following is not one of the classifications for assessing a project portfolio?
Sacred cow
A)
Bread-and-butter
B)
Pearls
C)
Oysters
D)
White elephants
E)
13
Which of the following is the reason(s) why project managers need to understand their
organization's mission and strategy?
To make appropriate decisions and adjustments

A)
To be effective project advocates

B)
To be able to get their job done

C)
Both A and B are correct

D)

E)
14
Which of the following is not true of multi-weighted scoring models?
Will include quantitative criteria

A)
Will include qualitative criteria
B)
Each criterion is assigned a weight

C)
Projects with higher scores are considered more desirable

D)
All of the above are true

E)
15
Which of the following is a common multicriteria selection model?
Checklist
A)
Net Present Value

B)
Weighted criteria model

C)
Both A and C are correct

D)
All of these are common multicriteria selection models

E)
CH#07 MCQs
1
An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative
effect on a project objectives is termed.
Random chance
A)
A disaster
B)
Risk
C)
Hazard
D)
Bad luck
E)
2
The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life
cycle tends to
Slowly rise
A)
Drop sharply and then level out

B)
Rise sharply and then level out

C)
Remain about the same

D)
Slowly drop
E)
3
Which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management process?
Risk response development

A)
Risk assessment
B)
Risk identification
C)
Risk tracking
D)
Risk response control

E)
4
One common mistake made early in the risk identification process is
Not all possibilities are considered

A)
Participants are over-optimistic

B)
Participants are over-pessimistic

C)
Focus on objectives and not on the events that could produce
D) consequences.
Too much attention is given to past events

E)
5
The 1999 NASA Mars Climate Orbiter is an example of
Disaster avoidance through proactive risk management

A)
Murphy's Law
B)
Proper use of critical thinking

C)
Mismanaged risk control

D)
Using historical records to assess risk

E)
6
A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is
termed a risk
Profile
A)
Questionnaire
B)
Research
C)
Query
D)
Checklist
E)
7
All of the following are included in the risk identification process except
Customers
A)
Subcontractors
B)
Competitors
C)
Vendors
D)
None of these are included

E)
8
The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is _____
analysis.
Probability
A)
Scenario
B)
Payback
C)
Risk/reward
D)
Impact
E)
9
A risk profile is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on
a project that answers developed from:
When the event might occur in the project

A)
Chances of the event occurring

B)
Interaction with other parts of the project or with other projects

C)
From previous, similar projects

D)
Magnitude or severity of the event's impact

E)
10
The risk assessment form contains all of the following except
Likelihood of the risk event occurring

A)
Potential impact of the risk event
B)
Who will detect the occurrence of the risk event.

C)
Difficulty of detecting the occurrence of the risk event

D)
When the risk event may occur

E)
11
Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools?
Ratio/range analysis
A)
Decision tree
B)
PERT simulation
C)
PERT
D)
All of these are probability analysis tools

E)
12
The demolition of the Seattle Kingdome (Snapshot from Practice) is an example
of which of the following?
Mitigating
A)
Retaining
B)
Ignoring
C)
Transferring
D)
Sharing
E)
13
Technical risks are:
Often the kind that can cause the project to be shut down.
A)
Problematic
B)
Imposed duration dates

C)
Both A and B are correct

D)

E)
14
Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of
occurring, impact, responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is
called:
Management reserves
A)
Change control
B)
Contingency reserves
C)
Risk register
D)
Risk profiles
E)
15
Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following
except:
Track all changes that are to be implemented

A)
Review, evaluates, and approve/disapprove proposed changes formally

B)
Identify expected effects of proposed changes on schedule and budget

C)
Reflect scope changes in baseline and performance measures

D)
All of the above are correct

E)
22413 Software Engineering MCQ Question Banks with Answers
#QB1
Download all 4th Semester computer Engineering Group MCQ Question Banks, This article is
aimed to provide MCQ Question banks for 22413 SEN (Software Engineering). As we all know
MSBTE Online examination pattern is totally different it based on Objective Questions(MCQs)
because of this it is difficult to study but we are here for Diploma Students, here on cwipedia
Students can download MCQ question banks, I scheme syllabus, a model answer, and many
more things. (credit: engineeringinterviewquestions)
22413 SEN MCQ QB 1:
SEN MCQ QB 2:
SEN MCQ QB 3:
SEN MCQ QB 4:
SEN MCQ QB 5:
1. What are the characteristics of software?
a. Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense.
b. Software doesn’t “ wear out ”.
c. Software can be custom built or custom build.
d. All mentioned above
ANSWER: All mentioned above

2. Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?
a. System software
b. Application software
c. Scientific software
ANSWER: System software
3. Software Engineering is defined as a systematic, disciplined and quantifiable approach

for the development, operation and maintenance of software.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
4. RAD Software process model stands for _____ .
a. Rapid Application Development.
b. Relative Application Development.
c. Rapid Application Design.
d. Recent Application Development.
ANSWER: Rapid Application Development.
5. Software project management comprises of a number of activities, which contains

_________.
a. Project planning
b. Scope management
c. Project estimation
6. COCOMO stands for ______ .
a. COnsumed COst MOdel
b. COnstructive COst MOdel
c. COmmon COntrol MOdel
d. COmposition COst MOdel
ANSWER: COnstructive COst MOdel
7. Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification

(SRS) document?
a. Functional Requirement.
b. Nonfunctional Requirement.
c. Goals of implementation.
d. Algorithm for software implementation.
ANSWER: Algorithm for software implementation.
8. What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?
a. Spiral model
b. Big Bang model
c. V-model
d. Waterfall model
ANSWER: Waterfall model
9. Which of the following is the understanding of software product limitations, learning

system related problems or changes to be done in existing systems beforehand, identifying
and addressing the impact of project on organization and personnel etc?
a. Software Design
b. Feasibility Study
c. Requirement Gathering
d. System Analysis
ANSWER: System Analysis
10. Which design identifies the software as a system with many components interacting
with each other?
a. Architectural design
b. High-level design
c. Detailed design
d. Both B & C
ANSWER: Architectural design

11. Software consists of ______ .
a. Set of instructions + operating procedures
b. Programs + documentation + operating procedures
c. Programs + hardware manuals
d. Set of programs
ANSWER: Programs + documentation + operating procedures
12. Which is the most important feature of spiral model?
a. Quality management
b. Risk management
c. Performance management
d. Efficiency management
ANSWER: Risk management
13. If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only
one interpretation, SRS is said to be correct _____ .
a. Unambiguous
b. Consistent
c. Verifiable
ANSWER: Unambiguous
14. Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?
a. Requirements elicitation
b. Requirements analysis
c. Requirements design
d. Requirements documentation
ANSWER: Requirements design
15. FAST stands for ________ .
a. Functional Application Specification Technique
b. Fast Application Specification Technique
c. Facilitated Application Specification Technique
ANSWER: Facilitated Application Specification Technique
16. The level at which the software uses scarce resources is ______ .
a. Reliability
b. Efficiency
c. Portability
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Efficiency
17. Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called
__________ .
a. Adaptive maintenance
b. Corrective maintenance
c. Perfective maintenance
d. Preventive maintenance
ANSWER: Adaptive maintenance
18. If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is
_________ .
a. Verifiable
b. Traceable
c. Modifiable
d. Complete
ANSWER: Verifiable
19. Aggregation represents ______ .
a. is_a relationship
b. part_of relationship
c. composed_of relationship
d. none of above
ANSWER: composed_of relationship

20. If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as_____ .
a. RE = P/L
b. RE = P + L
c. RE = P*L
d. RE = 2* P *L
ANSWER: RE = P*L
21) Number of clauses used in ISO 9001 to specify quality system requirements are _____ .
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 28
ANSWER: 20
22) ER model shows the _______ .
a. Static view
b. Functional view
c. Dynamic view
d. All the above
ANSWER: Static view
23) IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for _______ .

a. Software Requirement Specification
b. Software design
c. Testing
d. Both (A) and (B)
ANSWER: Software Requirement Specification
24) One of the fault base testing techniques is ______ .
a. Unit Testing
b. Beta Testing
c. Stress Testing
d. Mutation Testing
ANSWER: Mutation Testing
25) If the objects focus on the problem domain, then we are concerned with ______.
a. Object Oriented Analysis
b. Object Oriented Design
c. Object Oriented Analysis and Design
ANSWER: Object Oriented Analysis
26) In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to:
i. Determine the test technique to be employed

ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
a. ii is True; i, iii, iv and v are False
b. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c. ii and iii are True; i, iv are False
d. ii, iii and iv are True; i is false
ANSWER: i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
27) Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase?
a. Creating test suites from the test cases
b. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c. Comparing actual results
d. Designing the Tests
ANSWER: Designing the Tests
28) The Test Cases Derived from use cases _______ .
a. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the
system.
b. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the
system.
c. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the
system.
d. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level.
ANSWER: Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of
the system.
29) What can static analysis NOT find?
a. The use of a variable before it has been defined.
b. Unreachable (“dead”) code.
c. Memory leaks.
d. Array bound violations.
ANSWER: Memory leaks.
30) Which plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will
be developed ?
a. HR Plan
b. Manager Plan
c. Team Plan
d. Staff Development Plan
ANSWER: Staff Development Plan
31) Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of _______ .
a. Acceptance testing
b. Integration testing
c. System Testing
d. Unit testing
ANSWER: Acceptance testing
32) The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is ______ .
a. Evolutionary Development Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping
d. Iterative Enhancement Model
ANSWER: Evolutionary Development Model
33) A COCOMO model is ________ .
a. Common Cost Estimation Model.
b. Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
c. Complete Cost Estimation Model.
d. Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model
ANSWER: Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
34) SRD stands for _______ .
a. Software Requirements Definition
b. Structured Requirements Definition

c. Software Requirements Diagram
d. Structured Requirements Diagram
ANSWER: Structured Requirements Definition
35) The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called
_______ .
a. CASE Tools
b. CAME tools
c. CAQE tools
d. CARE tools
ANSWER: CASE Tools
36) Which defect amplification model is used to illustrate the generation and detection of
errors during the preliminary steps of a software engineering process?
a. Design
b. Detailed design
c. Coding
37) Which method is used for evaluating the expression that passes the function as an
argument?
a. Strict evaluation
b. Recursion
c. Calculus
d. Pure functions
ANSWER: Strict evaluation
38) Which factors affect the probable consequences if a risk occur?
a. Risk avoidance
b. Risk monitoring
c. Risk timing
d. Contingency planning
ANSWER: Risk timing
39) Staff turnover, poor communication with the customer are risks that are extrapolated
from past experience are called _____ .
a. Business risks
b. Predictable risks
c. Project risks
d. Technical risks
ANSWER: Predictable risks
40) Organization can have in-house inspection, direct involvement of users and release of
beta version are few of them and it also includes usability, compatibility, user acceptance
etc. is called ______ .
a. Task analysis
b. GUI requirement gathering
c. GUI design & implementation
d. Testing
ANSWER: Testing
41) Which project is undertaken as a consequence of a specific customer request?
a. Concept development projects
b. Application enhancement projects
c. New application development projects
d. Application maintenance projects
ANSWER: New application development projects
42) Requirement engineering process includes which of these steps?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Software Requirement specification & Validation
43) Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that may cause
an entire system to fall.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
44) Give the disadvantages of modularization.
a. Smaller components are easier to maintain
b. Program can be divided based on functional aspects
c. Desired level of abstraction can be brought in the program
ANSWER: None of the above
45) Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four
P’s?
a. People, performance, payment, product
ANSWER: People, product, process, project
46) Give the Real-world factors affecting maintenance Cost.
a. As technology advances, it becomes costly to maintain old software.
b. The standard age of any software is considered up to 10 to 15 years.

c. Most maintenance engineers are newbie and use trial and error method to rectify problem.
47) Mention any two indirect measures of product.
a. Quality
b. Efficiency
c. Accuracy
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
ANSWER: Both A and B
48) Which testing is the re-execution of some subset of tests that have already been
conducted to ensure the changes that are not propagated?
a. Unit testing
b. Regression testing
c. Integration testing
d. Thread-based testing
ANSWER: Regression testing
49) State if the following are true for Project Management.
During Project Scope management, it is necessary to –

1) Define the scope
2) Decide its verification and control
3) Divide the project into various smaller parts for ease of management.
4) Verify the scope
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
50) Software Requirement Specification (SRS) is also known as specification of _______.
a. White box testing
b. Acceptance testing
c. Integrated testing
d. Black box testing
ANSWER: Black box testing
Happy Learning!
#QB2
Download all 4th Semester computer Engineering Group MCQ Question Banks, This article is
aimed to provide MCQ Question banks for 22413 SEN (Software Engineering). As we all know
MSBTE Online examination pattern is totally different it based on Objective Questions(MCQs)
because of this it is difficult to study but we are here for Diploma Students, here on cwipedia
Students can download MCQ question banks, I scheme syllabus, a model answer, and many
more things. (credit: engineeringinterviewquestions)
22413 SEN MCQ QB 1:
SEN MCQ QB 2:
SEN MCQ QB 3:
SEN MCQ QB 4:
SEN MCQ QB 5:
1) Which of the following is/are considered stakeholder in the software process?
a. Customers
b. End-users
c. Project managers
ANSWER: All of the above.

2) Software components provide interfaces, which can be used to establish
communication among different components.
a. Yes
b. No
ANSWER: Yes
3) Which SDLC activity does the user initiates the request for a desired software
product?
a. Requirement gathering
b. Implementation
c. Disposition
d. Communication
ANSWER: Communication
4) In Risk management process what makes a note of all possible risks, that may occur
in the project?
a. Manage
b. Monitor
c. Categorize
d. Identification
ANSWER: Identification
5) What is a measure of how well a computer system facilities learning?

a. Usability
b. Functionality
c. Reliability
ANSWER: Usability
6) The process togather the software requirements from Client, Analyze and Document
is known as ______ .
a. Requirement engineering process
b. Requirement elicitation process
c. User interface requirements
d. Software system analyst
ANSWER: Requirement engineering process
7) Refinement is actually a process of elaboration.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
8) Who manages the effects of change throughout the software process?
a. Software project tracking and control
b. Software configuration management

c. Measurement
d. Technical reviews
ANSWER: Software configuration management
9) When elements of module are grouped together that are executed sequentially in
order to perform a task, is called ______ .
a. Procedural cohesion
b. Logical cohesion
c. Emporal cohesion
d. Co-incidental cohesion
ANSWER: Procedural cohesion
10) Which coupling is also known as “Global coupling”?
a. Content coupling
b. Stamp coupling
c. Data coupling
d. Common coupling
ANSWER: Common coupling
11) What is the detailed sequence of steps that describes the interaction between the
user and the application?
a. Scenario scripts
b. Support classes
c. Key classes
d. Subsystems
ANSWER: Scenario scripts
12) Which risks identify Potential Design, Implementation, Interface, Verification and
Maintenance Problems?
a. Project risk
b. Business risk
c. Technical risk
d. Schedule risk
ANSWER: Technical risk
13) Abbreviate the term BSS.
a. Box Structure Specification
b. Box Statistical Specification
c. Box Statistical System
d. Box Structure Sampling
ANSWER: Box Structure Specification
14) What is the testing to ensure the WebApp properly interfaces with other
applications or databases?
a. Compatibility
b. Interoperability
c. Performance
d. Security
ANSWER: Interoperability
15) Which Variation control in the context of software engineering involves controlling
variation?
a. Process applied
b. Resources expended
c. Product quality attributes
16) Which classes represent data stores (e.g., a database) that will persist beyond the
execution of the software?
a. Process classes
b. System classes
c. Persistent classes
d. User interface classes
ANSWER: Persistent classes

17) Abbreviate the term CMMI.
a. Capability Maturity Model Integration
b. Capability Model Maturity Integration
c. Capability Maturity Model Instructions
d. Capability Model Maturity Instructions
ANSWER: Capability Maturity Model Integration
18) First level of prototype is evaluated by ______ .
a. Developer
b. Tester
c. User
d. System Analyst
ANSWER: User
19) Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?
a. Process
b. Manufacturing
c. Methods
d. Tools
ANSWER: Manufacturing
20) Line of code(LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures?
a. Indirect measures
b. Direct measures
c. Coding
ANSWER: Direct measures
21) What is the main aim of Software engineering?
a. Reliable software
b. Cost effective software
c. Reliable and cost effective software
ANSWER: Reliable and cost effective software
22) Choose the correct option according to the given statement.
Statement 1: Software is a physical rather than a logical system element.
Statement 2: Computer software is the product that software engineers design and
build.
Statement 3: Software is a logical rather than a physical system element.
Statement 4: Software is a set of application programs that are built by software

engineers.
a. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
b. Only Statement 2 and 3 are correct.
c. Statement 2 and 3 and 4 are correct.
d. All statements are correct
ANSWER: Statement 2 and 3 and 4 are correct.
23) You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. What will you do to minimize
the risk of software failure?
c. Track progress
ANSWER: Track progress
24) Constantine suggests four “organizational paradigms” for software engineering

teams. The best project team organizational model to use when handling extremely
complex problems is ________ .
a. Random paradigm
b. Open paradigm
c. Synchronous paradigm
d. Closed paradigm
ANSWER: Random paradigm

25) For the best Software model suitable for the project, in which of the phase the
developers decide a roadmap for project plan?
a. Software Design
b. System Analysis
c. Coding
d. Testing
ANSWER: System Analysis
Happy Learning!
#QB4
Download all 4th Semester computer Engineering Group MCQ Question Banks, This article is aimed to
provide MCQ Question banks for 22413 SEN (Software Engineering). As we all know MSBTE Online
examination pattern is totally different it based on Objective Questions(MCQs) because of this it is
difficult to study but we are here for Diploma Students, here on cwipedia Students can download MCQ
question banks, I scheme syllabus, a model answer, and many more things. (credit:
engineeringinterviewquestions)
22413 SEN MCQ QB 1:
SEN MCQ QB 2:
SEN MCQ QB 3:
SEN MCQ QB 4:
SEN MCQ QB 5:
1) Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?
b. Only context.
ANSWER: Information objectives, function, performance
2) Which level of sub-system is used of an application?
a. Application level
b. Component level
c. Modules level
ANSWER: Component level
3) SDLC is not a well-defined, structured sequence of stages in software engineering to develop

the intended software product.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
4) In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W. Boehm?
a. Putnam model
b. COCOMO
c. Both A & B
ANSWER: COCOMO
5) From the following select the correct option that is used to display the available option for
selection.
a. Check-box
b. Text-box
c. Button
d. Radio-Button
ANSWER: Radio-Button
6) CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of ______ .
a. Develop the software.
b. Improve the software process.
c. Improve the testing process.
ANSWER: Improve the software process.
7) Transformers is one of the broad category used to classify operations.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
8) The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called as ______
.
a. CASE Tools
b. CAME tools
c. CAQE tools
d. CARE tools
ANSWER: CASE Tools

9) Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?
10) Which of the level carries out goal, objective, work tasks, work products and other activities
of the software process?
a. Performed
b. INCOMPLETE
c. Optimized
d. Quantitatively Managed
ANSWER: Performed
11) If you have no clue of how to improve the process for the quality software which model is
used?
a. A Continuous model
b. A Staged model
c. Both A & B
ANSWER: A Staged model

12) In Software validation, requirements can be checked against following conditions:
1) If they can be practically implemented
2) If they are valid and as per functionality and domain of software
3) If there are any ambiguities
4) If they are completed
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
13) In OOD, the attributes(data variables) and methods( operation on the data) are bundled
together is called _______ .
a. Classes
b. Objects
c. Encapsulation
d. Inheritance
ANSWER: Encapsulation
14) Which design defines the logical structure of each module and their interfaces that is used to
communicate with other modules?
a. High-level designs
b. Architectural designs
c. Detailed design
ANSWER: Detailed design
15) Which tools are used in Implementation, Testing and Maintenance?
a. Upper case tools
b. Lower case tools
c. Integrated case tools
ANSWER: Lower case tools
16) Which tools are used for project planning, cost, effort estimation, project scheduling and
resource planning?
a. Process modeling tools
b. Project management tools
c. Diagram tools
d. Documentation tools
ANSWER: Project management tools
17) Which design deals with the implementation part in which it shows a system and its
sub-systems in the previous two designs?
c. Detailed design
d. Both A & B
18) Modularization is a technique to divide a software system into multiple discrete and
independent modules.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
19) What is the project and process level that provides the Quality Metric benefit?
a. Defect amplification
b. Defect removal efficiency
c. Measuring quality
ANSWER: Defect removal efficiency
20) Cohesion metrics and coupling metrics are metrics in which level of design?
a. User interface design
b. Pattern-based design
c. Architectural design
d. Component-level design
ANSWER: Component-level design
21) Which condition defines the circumstances for a particular operation is valid?
a. Postcondition
b. Precondition
c. Invariant
ANSWER: Precondition
22) Which subsystem implements a repository that encompasses the following elements,
1) Content database
2) Database capabilities
3) Configuration management functions
a. The publishing subsystem
b. The management subsystem
c. The collection subsystem
ANSWER: The management subsystem
23) Which is not a SQA activity?
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing

d. Unit testing
ANSWER: White box testing
24) PAD is metric indicates the number of classes that can access another class attributes and a
violation of encapsulation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
25) Find out which phase is not available in SDLC?
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Maintenance
d. Abstraction
ANSWER: Abstraction
c. Measure
ANSWER: Measure
16) Which tools are helpful in all the stages of SDLC, for requirement gathering to testing and
documentation?
a. Upper case tools
b. Lower case tools
ANSWER: Integrated case tools
17) OOD languages provide a mechanism where methods performing similar tasks but vary in
arguments, and that can be assigned to the same name is called _____ .
a. Classes
b. Object
c. Polymorphism
d. Encapsulation
ANSWER: Polymorphism
18) Abbreviate the term SMI.
a. Software Maturity Index
b. Software Model Instruction
c. Software Maturity Instruction
d. Software Model Index
ANSWER: Software Maturity Index
19) What computer-based system can have a profound effect on the design that is chosen and
also the implementation approach will be applied?
a. Scenario-based elements
b. Class-based elements
c. Behavioural elements
d. Flow-oriented elements
ANSWER: Behavioural elements
20) SRS is a document created by system analyst after the requirements are collected from
various stakeholders.
a. Yes
b. No
ANSWER: Yes
21) Which structures in Organizational Paradigms on a team loosely and depends on individual
initiative of the team members?
a. Closed paradigm
b. Open paradigm
c. Random paradigm
d. Synchronous paradigm
ANSWER: Random paradigm
22) Give the name to diagram that represents the flow of activities described by the use cases and
at the same time the captors are involved in UML .
a. State diagram
b. Swim lane diagram
c. Activity diagram
d. Component diagram
ANSWER: Swim lane diagram
23) Which phase is refers to the support phase of software development?
a. Acceptance Phase.
b. Testing.
c. Maintenance.
ANSWER: Maintenance.
24) Which model is also called as the classic life cycle or the Waterfall model?
a. Iterative Development
b. Linear Sequential Development
c. RAD Model.
d. Incremental Development
ANSWER: Linear Sequential Development
25) What is the average effective global activity rate in an evolving E-type system is invariant
over the lifetime of the product?
a. Self-regulation
b. Reducing quality
c. Feedback systems
d. Organizational stability
ANSWER: Organizational stability
Happy Learning!
#QB5
22413 SEN MCQ QB 1:
SEN MCQ QB 2:
SEN MCQ QB 3:
SEN MCQ QB 4:
SEN MCQ QB 5:
1) Which document is created by system analyst after the requirements are collected from
Various stakeholders?
a. Software requirement specification
b. Software requirement validation
c. Feasibility study
d. Requirement Gathering
ANSWER: Software requirement specification
2) Which is focused towards the goal of the organization?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement gathering
c. Software requirement specification
d. Software requirement validation
ANSWER: Feasibility study
3) The architectural model is derived from which of these sources?
A) Information about the application domain for the software to be built;
B) Specific requirements model elements such as data flow diagrams or analysis classes, their
relationships and collaborations for the problem at hand;
C) The availability of architectural styles and patterns.
a. Both A & B
b. Both B & C
c. Both A & C
4) What is the correctness, completeness, and consistency of the requirements model will
have a strong influence on the quality of all work products that follow?
a. Requirement quality
b. Design quality
c. Code quality
d. Quality control effectiveness

ANSWER: Requirement quality
5) An entity in ER Model is a real world being, which has some properties called_____ .
a. Attributes
b. Relationship
c. Domain
ANSWER: Attributes
6) Waht is the most common measure for correctness?
a. Defects per KLOC
b. Errors per KLOC
c. $ per KLOC
d. Pages of documentation per KLOC
ANSWER: Defects per KLOC
7) Which documentation works as a key tool for software designer, developer and their test
team is to carry out their respective tasks?
a. Requirement documentation
b. User documentation
c. Software design documentation
d. Technical documentation
ANSWER: Requirement documentation
8) Which tools are used in implementation,testing and maintenance?
a. Upper case tools
b. Integrated case tools
c. Lower case tools
9) Which risk gives the degree of uncertainty and the project schedule will be maintained
so that the product will be delivered in time?
a. Business risk
b. Technical risk
c. Schedule risk
d. Project risk
ANSWER: Schedule risk
10) You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. Company wants to develop a
project. You are also involved in planning team. What will be your first step in project
planning?
a. Establish the objectives and scope of the product.
b. Determine the project constraints.
c. Select the team.

ANSWER: Establish the objectives and scope of the product.
11) Configuration management is an essential part of the system maintenance. It is aided

with version control tools to control versions, semi-version or patch management.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
12) Which model is also known as Verification and validation model?
a. Waterfall model
b. Big Bang model
c. V-model
d. Spiral model
ANSWER: V-model
13) Software project management is the process of managing all activities that are involved
in software development, they are _____ .
a. Time
b. Cost
c. Quality management

14) A small picture representing an associated application, what does it mean?
a. Icon
b. Window
c. Menu
d. Cursor
ANSWER: Icon
15) What is the meaning of requirement elicitation in software engineering?
a. Gathering of requirement.
b. Understanding of requirement.
c. Getting the requirements from client.
16) Which of the following is/are Project Estimation Technique?
a. Empirical Estimation Technique.
b. Heuristic Estimation Technique.
c. Analytical Estimation Technique.

17) The maximum number of objects that can participate in a relationship is
called________ .
a. Cardinality
b. Attributes
c. Operations
d. Transformers
ANSWER: Cardinality
18) What is legacy system?
a. A legacy system refers to newer version of software.
b. A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of available
upgraded versions.
c. A legacy system always devolved by advance technology.
ANSWER: A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of
available upgraded versions.
19) Which of the following cannot be applied with the software according to Software
Engineering Layers?
a. Process
b. Methods
c. Manufacturing

ANSWER: Manufacturing
20) Which software is used to control products and systems for the consumer and
industrial markets?
a. System software
b. Artificial intelligence software
c. Embedded software
d. Engineering and scientific software
ANSWER: Embedded software
21) Which software enables the program to adequately manipulate information?
a. Instructions
b. Data Structures
c. Documents
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Data Structures
22) Which coding element is generally omitted at the end of line?
a. Naming conventions
b. Identifying
c. Whitespace
d. Operators
ANSWER: Whitespace
23) The rules of writing ‘if-then-else’, ‘case-switch’, ‘while-until’ and ‘for’ control flow
statements are called _____ .
a. Comments
b. Functions
c. Line length and wrapping
d. Control Structure
ANSWER: Control Structure
24) If an application allows executing multiple instances of itself, they appear on the screen
as separate windows are called ______ .
a. Window
b. Tabs
c. Menu
d. Cursor
ANSWER: Tabs
25) Match the List 1 to List 2 and choose the correct option.
1. Requirement Elicitation ——- a. Module Development and integration.
2. Design——————————b. Analysis
3. Implementation——————c. Structure and behavioral
4. Maintenance ——————— d. Performance tuning.

a. 1-c , 2-a , 3-d , 4-b
b. 1-c , 2-a , 3-b , 4-d
c. 1-a , 2-c , 3-d , 4-b
d. 1-b , 2-c , 3-a , 4-d
ANSWER: 1-b , 2-c , 3-a , 4-d
26) Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?
a. Unit testing
b. Regression testing
c. Sandwich testing
d. Thread-based testing
ANSWER: Thread-based testing
27) In which elicitation process the developers discuss with the client and end users and
know their expectations from the software?
a. Requirement gathering
b. Organizing requirements
c. Negotiation & discussion
d. Documentation
ANSWER: Requirement gathering

28) If requirements are easily understandable and defined then which model is best suited?
a. Spiral model
b. Waterfall model
c. Prototyping model
ANSWER: Waterfall model
29) Which Software-end factors affecting maintenance Cost?
a. Structure of Software Program
b. Programming Language
c. Dependence on external environment
e. None of the above
30) Software quality assurance is an umbrella activity.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31) Software process and improvement are assessed by ____.
a. ISO 9000
b. ISO 9001
c. SPICE (ISO/IEC15504)
d. Both B and C
ANSWER: Both B and C
32) CASE Tool stands for.
a. Computer Aided Software Engineering
b. Component Aided Software Engineering
c. Constructive Aided Software Engineering
d. Computer Analysis Software Engineering
ANSWER: Computer Aided Software Engineering
33) Software is defined as ____ .
a. Instructions
b. Data Structures
c. Documents
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
34) During security testing the tester plays the role of the individual who desires to______ .
a. Penetrates the system
b. Penetrates the listener

c. Both A & B
ANSWER: Penetrates the system
35) Which of the following is not a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by
IEEE?
a. Budget
b. Time
c. People
ANSWER: Budget
36) Which box specifies the behavior of a system or a part of a system?
a. State box
b. Clear box
c. Black box
ANSWER: Black box
37) FAST stands for ______ .
a. Facilitated Application Software Technique.

b. Functional Application Software Technique.
c. Facilitated Application Specification Technique.
ANSWER: Facilitated Application Specification Technique.
38) Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code) or by calculating
number of function points in the software?
a. Time estimation
b. Effort estimation
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
ANSWER: Software size estimation
39) SDLC Models are adopted as per requirements of development process. It may vary
Software-to-software to ensuring which model is suitable.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
40) The always growing and adapting nature of software hugely depends upon the
environment in which user works in ____________ .
a. Cost
b. Dynamic Nature
c. Quality Management
d. Scalability
ANSWER: Dynamic Nature
41) When the customer may ask for new features or functions in the software, what does it
mean in Software maintenance?
a. Host modifications
b. Client requirements
c. Market conditions
d. Organization changes
ANSWER: Client requirements
42) Reliability is measured by considering processing speed, response time, resource

consumption, throughput, and efficiency.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
43) Abbreviate the term CASE.
a. Computer Authorized Software Engineering
b. Computer Aided Software Engineering
c. Common Authorized Software Engineering

d. Common Aided Software Engineering
ANSWER: Computer Aided Software Engineering
44) What is described by means of DFDs as studied earlier and represented in algebraic
form?
a. Data flow
b. Data storage
c. Data Structures
d. Data elements
ANSWER: Data flow
45) Which metrics are derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity measures by
considering the size of the software that has been produced?
a. Size oriented
b. Function-Oriented
c. Object-Oriented
d. Use-case-Oriented
ANSWER: Size oriented
46) What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?
a. The product scope is poorly defined.
b. Deadlines are unrealistic.

c. Changes are managed poorly.
47) Application that generate a dialogue to get confirmation from user and to delete a file it
is an example for _____ .
a. Radio-Button
b. Text-box
c. Check-box
d. Dialogue box
ANSWER: Dialogue box
48) What is used for implementing the changes in existing or new requirements of user in
software maintenance?
a. Preventive maintenance
b. Perfective maintenance
c. Corrective
d. Adaptive
ANSWER: Perfective maintenance
49) Lehman has given eight laws for software evolution and he divided software into three
categories. In which category software works strictly according to defined specifications
and solutions.
a. Static-type
b. Embedded-type
c. Practical-type
ANSWER: Embedded-type
50) Computer software is a complete package, which includes software program, its
documentation and user guide on how to use the software.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
Happy Learning!
#QB3
22413 SEN MCQ QB 1:
SEN MCQ QB 2:
SEN MCQ QB 3:
SEN MCQ QB 4:
SEN MCQ QB 5:
1) Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?
b. Only context.
ANSWER: Information objectives, function, performance
2) Which level of sub-system is used of an application?

a. Application level
b. Component level
c. Modules level
ANSWER: Component level
3) SDLC is not a well-defined, structured sequence of stages in software engineering to develop the
intended software product.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
4) In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W. Boehm?
a. Putnam model
b. COCOMO
c. Both A & B
ANSWER: COCOMO
5) From the following select the correct option that is used to display the available option for selection.
a. Check-box
b. Text-box
c. Button
d. Radio-Button
ANSWER: Radio-Button
6) CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of ______ .

a. Develop the software.
b. Improve the software process.
c. Improve the testing process.
ANSWER: Improve the software process.
7) Transformers is one of the broad category used to classify operations.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
8) The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called as ______ .
a. CASE Tools
b. CAME tools
c. CAQE tools
d. CARE tools
ANSWER: CASE Tools
9) Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering?

10) Which of the level carries out goal, objective, work tasks, work products and other activities of the
software process?
a. Performed
b. INCOMPLETE
c. Optimized
d. Quantitatively Managed
ANSWER: Performed
11) If you have no clue of how to improve the process for the quality software which model is used?
a. A Continuous model
b. A Staged model
c. Both A & B
ANSWER: A Staged model
12) In Software validation, requirements can be checked against following conditions:

● 1) If they can be practically implemented
● 2) If they are valid and as per functionality and domain of software
● 3) If there are any ambiguities
● 4) If they are completed
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
13) In OOD, the attributes(data variables) and methods( operation on the data) are bundled together is
called _______ .
a. Classes
b. Objects
c. Encapsulation
d. Inheritance
ANSWER: Encapsulation
14) Which design defines the logical structure of each module and their interfaces that is used to
communicate with other modules?
a. High-level designs
b. Architectural designs
c. Detailed design
15) Which tools are used in Implementation, Testing and Maintenance?

a. Upper case tools
b. Lower case tools
16) Which tools are used for project planning, cost, effort estimation, project scheduling and resource
planning?
a. Process modeling tools
b. Project management tools
c. Diagram tools
d. Documentation tools
ANSWER: Project management tools
17) Which design deals with the implementation part in which it shows a system and its sub-systems in
the previous two designs?
c. Detailed design
d. Both A & B
18) Modularization is a technique to divide a software system into multiple discrete and independent
modules.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
19) What is the project and process level that provides the Quality Metric benefit?
a. Defect amplification
b. Defect removal efficiency
c. Measuring quality
ANSWER: Defect removal efficiency
20) Cohesion metrics and coupling metrics are metrics in which level of design?
a. User interface design
b. Pattern-based design
c. Architectural design
d. Component-level design
ANSWER: Component-level design
21) Which condition defines the circumstances for a particular operation is valid?
a. Postcondition
b. Precondition
c. Invariant
ANSWER: Precondition
22) Which subsystem implements a repository that encompasses the following elements,
1) Content database
2) Database capabilities
3) Configuration management functions
a. The publishing subsystem
b. The management subsystem
c. The collection subsystem
ANSWER: The management subsystem
23) Which is not a SQA activity?

a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
d. Unit testing
ANSWER: White box testing
24) PAD is metric indicates the number of classes that can access another class attributes and a violation
of encapsulation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
25) Find out which phase is not available in SDLC?
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Maintenance
d. Abstraction
ANSWER: Abstraction
Happy Learning!
394) Which type of risk factor is most likely to cause problems for a software project developing
commercial software?
(a) Inadequate user documentation

(b) Litigation expense
(c) Low productivity
(d) Cancellation of project
395) Defect prevention is defined as:
(a) Finding and fixing errors after insertion

(b) Finding and fixing errors before release but after insertion
(c) Finding and fixing errors after release
(d) Avoiding defect insertion
396) Product quality is defined as:
(a) Delivering a product with correct requirements

(b) Delivering a product using correct development procedures
(c) Delivering a product which is developed iteratively
(d) Delivering a product using high quality procedures
397) Which of the following is NOT a main reason to undertake software quality assurance
activities:
(a) Reduce software personnel turnover

(b) Legal liability
(c) Insistence by the user on a satisfactory software quality assurance programme
(d) Marketing reasons
398) The main goal of quality assurance is:
(a) Set coding standards.

(b) Improve software project management
(c) Reduce the technical and programmatic risks in developing the software
(d) Specify corrective actions.
399) Software interoperability is:
(a) The ability of a software system to work on different hardware platforms.

(b) The ability of a software system to work under different operating systems.
(c) The ability of a software system to exchange information with other software systems and
to use the exchanged information.
(d) The ability to replace a software system with another software system that has similar
functionality
400) With respect to software metrics, which statement is NOT true:

(a) A indirect measure focuses on attributes of a project which can be measured by
examining a process, product or resource
(b) A direct measure focuses on attributes of a project which can be measured by examining
a process, product or resource
(c) External attributes are always measured indirectly
(d) Lines of code is a direct measurement
401) Which of the following statements is NOT true.
(a) Coding standards address naming of constants.

(b) Coding standards address the number of errors encountered per 1000 lines of code.
(c) Coding standards address layout of code text.
(d) Coding standards address the use of program comments.
402) Which of the following statements is NOT true:
(a) A good design methodology should provide a clear division of design from
implementation
(b) A good design methodology should not promote a top-down decomposition strategy.
(c) A good design methodology should encourage phased development of the software
(d) A good design methodology should help to minimise future maintenance.
403) Formal Reviews seek to:
(a) Identify system faults, but not to attribute blame or seek solutions
(b) Identify system faults, attribute the source of errors, but not seek solutions
(c) Identify system faults, attribute the source of errors and seek solutions
(d) Identify system faults, seek solutions, but not to attribute blame
404) Which form of software development model is most suited to a system where all the
requirements are known at the start of a project and remain stable throughout the project.
(a) Waterfall model

(b) Incremental model
(c) Evolutionary model
(d) Spiral model
405) What type of software development model is shown in the following diagram:
(a) Waterfall model

(b) Incremental model
(c) Evolutionary model
(d) Spiral model
Memory Management
Memory Management
Memory Management
Process Management
I/O Subsystem
I/O Subsystem
Kernel Kernel Kernel
406) Which of the following statements is NOT true:
(a) Requirements must be testable

(b) Requirements must be concerned with system functionality only
(c) Requirements must be complete
(d) Requirements must be unambiguously stated
407) Which of the following is NOT part of a software quality assurance plan:
(a) Reference documents

(b) Configuration Action
(c) Supplier Control
(d) Customer Control
408) Who of the following is NOT usually present in a technical review
(a) User
(b) Quality Engineer
(c) The programming tools supplier
(d) Specialist with knowledge of the application
409). Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are
a) people, performance, payoff, product

b) people, product, performance, process
c) people, product, process, project
d) people, process, payoff, product
410. The first step in project planning is to

a) determine the budget.
b) select a team organizational model.
c) determine the project constraints.
d) establish the objectives and scope.
411. Process framework activities are populated with

a) Milestones
b) work products
c) QA points
d) All of the above
412. Which of the following is not generally considered a player in the software process?
a) Customers
b) end-users
c) project managers
413. Which factors should be considered in choosing the organizational structure for a software
team?
a) degree of communication desired
b) predicted size of the resulting program
c) rigidity of the delivery date
d) size of the project budget
e) a, b, and c
414. One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to
a) give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
b) give team members less control over process and technical decisions
c) hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
d) reward programmers based on their productivity.
415. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software
project?
a) context, lines of code, function
b) functionality to be delivered
c) process used to deliver functionality
d) software process model
e) both b and c
416. How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of software failure?
a) double the project team size

b) request a large budget
c) start on the right foot
d) track progress
e) both c and d
417. Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project management?
a) assessing product usability

b) defect tracking against quality targets
c) empirical cost estimation
d) formal risk management
e) b, c, and d
Software Project Management MCQ Questions with Answers.
1. The aim of an organizational structure is to facilitate cooperation towards a common goal. (True /
False)
Ans. True
2. Cutting out unnecessary requirements in the software project is called ___.
Ans. Requirements Scrubbing
3. ___ team organization attempts to combine the benefits of centralized and decentralized control
while minimizing or avoiding their disadvantages.
Ans. Mixed-Control
4. Decentralized control is best when communication among engineers is necessary for achieving a good
solution. (True / False)
Ans. True
5. ___ is best when the speed of development is the most important goal and the problem is well
understood.
Ans. Centralized-Control
6. ___ refers to the long-term management of intractable conflicts.
Ans. Conflict Management
7. The risk associated with the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be
fit for its intended use is a ___.
a) Cost risk
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
Ans. b) Performance risk
8. SEI-CMM stands for ___.
Ans. Software Engineering Institute – Capability Maturity Model
9. ANSI stands for ___.
Ans. American National Standards Institute
10. Software quality assurance (SQA) is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the lifecycle of
the project across all phases. (True / False)
Ans. True
11. The term CASE is applied to software product development that uses extensive software engineering
principles and these processes are implemented either partly or majorly through the supporting
software.
(True / False)
Ans. True
12. CASE stands for ___.
Ans. Computer-Aided Software Engineering
13. The ___ is the heart of a CASE system.
a) Repository
b) Dictionary
c) Design
d) Coding
Ans. a) Repository
14. Business process engineering tools provide the basic model of the information which acts as the
meta-data from which the specific information can be derived. (True / False)
Ans. True
15. ___ model the processes by representing the key elements of the process.
Ans. Process modeling tools
16. Screen painter is an example of ___ tools.
a) Programming
b) Prototyping
c) Design
d) Analysis
Ans. b) Prototyping
17. The term integration implies both combination and closure. (True /False)
Ans. True
18. SCI stands for ___.
Ans. Software Configuration Items
19. ___ control the behavior of tools within the environment.
Ans. Tools management services

20. ___ is a database that acts as the center for both accumulation and storage of software engineering
information.
Ans. CASE Repository
21. Software testing is the process of running through the application or a software product with the
intention of uncovering the errors. (True / False)
Ans. True
22. ___ to ensure that the software will function well when the number of users is increased on the
system.
Ans. Scalability Testing
23. Software testing typically represents ___ of a software development budget.
a) 40%
b) 20%
c) 70%
d) 90%
Ans. a) 40%
24. Black Box Testing tests the internal structure of the system. (True / False)
Ans. False
25. ___ method leads to a selection of test cases that exercise boundary values.
Ans. Boundary Value Analysis
26. ___ technique provides a logical representation of various possible operational scenarios of the
application being tested.
a) Boundary Value Analysis
b) Cause-effect graphing
c) Equivalence Partitioning
d) Basis Path Testing
Ans. b) Cause-effect graphing
27. White box testing is a test case design method that uses the control structure of the procedural
design to derive test cases. (True / False)
Ans. True
28. ___ is a software metric that provides a quantitative measure of the logical complexity of a program.
Ans. Cyclomatic complexity
29. Which one of the following is a Software Testing tool?
a) Rational Rose
b) Oracle
c) Win Runner
d) Linux
Ans. c) Win Runner
30. ___ is an SQA activity that assures standards and procedures defined for the project are followed
properly and follows the compliance as stated.
Ans. Product evaluation

31. Software maintenance is the modification of a software product after delivery to correct errors,
improve performance, or adapt to new requirements. (True / False)
Ans. True
32. ___ Allow legacy applications to adapt to changing requirements in quick time.
Ans. Reengineering
33. In a recent study, the top 10 most expensive software errors were ___ errors.
a) Maintenance
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Coding
Ans. a) Maintenance
34. Legacy application of the organization holds a lot of business-critical details and represents the
enterprise architecture of the corporation. (True / False)
Ans. True
35. Around 80% of the coding of the legacy applications is done using ___.
Ans. COBOL
36. ___ is the fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic
improvements in critical, contemporary measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and
speed.
a) Software Engineering
b) Business Process Reengineering
c) Software Reengineering
d) Business Process Outsourcing
Ans. b) Business Process Reengineering
37. Reengineering of information systems is an activity that will absorb information technology
resources for a short time. (True / False)
Ans. False
38. There are ___ phases in the life-cycle of the software reengineering process model.
Ans. Six
39. ___ for software is the process of analyzing a program in an effort to create a representation of the
program at a higher level of abstraction than source code.
a) Software Engineering
b) Business Process Reengineering
c) Reverse engineering
d) Business Process Outsourcing
Ans. c) Reverse Engineering
40. Reengineering tools are platform-independent and can work on any platform. (True / False)
Ans. False
41. I-CASE stands for ___.
Ans. Integrated Computer-Aided Software Engineering
42. The data obtained during the closure analysis are used to populate the ___.
Ans. Process Database (PDB)

43. The final project closure analysis report is submitted to the ___ of the project.
a) Business Manager
b) Project Manager
c) System Manager
d) Database Manager
Ans. a) Business Manager
44. At Infosys, many projects use the top-down method for estimation. (True / False)
Ans. False
45. For normalization purposes, the productivity of a project is measured in terms of ___ per person-
month.
Ans. Function Points (FP)
46. Lack of support from the database architect and database administrator of the customer is
considered a risk. (True / False)
Ans. True
47. RUP stands for ___.
Ans. Rational Unified Process (RUP)
48. ___ is an SQA activity that ensures that appropriate steps to carry out the process are being
followed.
Ans. Process monitoring
49. Software Reliability is measured in Mean-Time-To-Failure (MTTF). (True / False)

Ans. True
50. ___ is defined as the ease of finding and correcting errors in the software.
Ans. Software maintainability
Question 1 Project has uncertainties on some functionalities at the beginning which will improve over
time. Which software development model is suitable? Select one:
a. None of the above
b. Waterfall
c. Iterative
d. Incremental
The Correct answer is: None of the above
Question 2 Object point method best suited for Select one:
a. Designing
b. Testing
c. Coding
d. Estimation
The Correct answer is: Estimation
Question 3 This term is least critical from customer view point Select one:
a. UAT
b. Unit testing
d. Milestones
The Correct answer is: Milestones
Question 4 Following method is not used for project planning Select one:
a. Activity Diagram
b. CPM
c. Timesheet
d. Gantt chart
The Correct answer is: Timesheet
Question 5 There are ________ types of Work Breakdown Structures. Select one:
a. Four
b. Three
c. none
d. Two
The Correct answer is: Two Question
6 If Task A to complete, it takes 10 days of human effort. It started 5 days earlier to the scheduled date
and completed on 35th day. Then, the float value Select one:
a. 25
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15
Question 7 Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools? Select one: a.
Predicting clients demands.
The Correct answer is: Predicting clients demands.
Question 8 The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting. What does SMART stand for? Select
one:
a. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
d. standardised, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
The Correct answer is: specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
Question 9 Which of these is NOT true for a matrix organizational structure? Select one:
a. It follows the unity of command principle rigorously
b. Task and personality conflicts are a disadvantage of Matrix structure
c. Individual operators have to do double reporting both to a Project Manager and to the Functional
manager
d. It is generally employed in project driven organizations
The Correct answer is: It follows the unity of command principle rigorously
Question 10 Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
1)Test 2)Design 3)Install 4)Specification 5)Manufacture 6)Maintain Select one:
a. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
d. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
The Correct answer is: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6

Question 11 Project management (PM) is the application of _________________ to meet project
requirements. Select one:
a. skills, tools and techniques
b. knowledge, skills, tools and techniques
c. knowledge, tools and techniques
d. knowledge, skills, tools
The Correct answer is: knowledge, skills, tools and techniques
Question 12 A ____ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business
transaction or customer request Select one:
a. Model
b. Workflow
c. Prototype
d. Mock-up
The Correct answer is: Workflow Question
13 ______ model is not suitable for accommodating any change Select one:
a. Waterfall Model
c. Build & Fix Model
d. RAD Model
The Correct answer is: Waterfall Model
Question 14 Smith is a project manager for ABC Video games. He has produced a project network
diagram and has updated the activity list. Which process have he just finished? Select one:
a. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the activities dependences
b. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project
c. The activity duration Estimating process, which identifies all the dependent activities of the project
d. The activity duration Estimating process, which diagram project network time estimates
The Correct answer is: The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of the
project
Question 15 Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? Select one:
a. Costs of support staff
b. Costs of lunch time food
c. Costs of networking and communications
d. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
The Correct answer is: Costs of lunch time food
Question 16 Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and
libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system? Select one:
a. Change management
b. Version management
c. Release management
d. System building
The Correct answer is: System building
Question 17 Which of the following is a people-intensive activity? Select one:
a. Project management
b. Organization
c. Motivation
d. Problem solving
The Correct answer is: Project management
Question 18 What are the signs that a software project is in trouble? Select one:
a. Changes are managed poorly.
b. Deadlines are unrealistiC)
c. The product scope is poorly defineD)
d. All of the given options.

The Correct answer is: All of the given options.
Question 19 If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch
up. Select one:
a. True
b. False
The Correct answer is: False
Question 20 The project life cycle consists of Select one:
a. Objectives of the project
b. All of the above
c. Formulation and planning various activities
d. Understanding the scope of the project
The Correct answer is: All of the above
Question 21 Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software
development project? Select one:
a. All of the mentioned
b. Travel and training costs
c. Hardware and software costs
d. Effort costs
The Correct answer is: All of the mentioned
Question 22 An estimation technique ____________measure the size of the functionality to be

developed. Select one:
a. Analogy
b. Function Point
c. WBS
The Correct answer is: Function Point
Question 23 Which of the following is not generally considered a stakeholder in the software process?
Select one:
a. end users
b. project team
c. sales team
d. customer
The Correct answer is: sales team
Question 24 What is the simplest model of software development paradigm? Select one:
a. Big Bang model
b. Spiral model
c. V-model
d. Waterfall model
The Correct answer is: Waterfall model
Question 25 The PERT technique gives most weightage to: Select one:
a. the most pessimistic estimate obtained
b. the most optimistic estimate obtained
c. the most likely estimate obtained
d. all the estimates obtained have equal weights
The correct answer is: the most likely estimate obtained
Question 26 Which of the following is not a commonly used technique for schedule compression: Select
one:
a. quality reduction
b. use of overtime
c. scope reduction
d. resource reduction
The correct answer is: resource reduction
Question 27 To detect fraudulent usage of credit cards, the following data mining task should be used
Select one:
a. Outlier analysis
b. prediction
c. association analysis
d. feature selection
The correct answer is: Outlier analysis
Question 28 One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to:
Select one:
a. Hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
b. Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
c. Give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
d. Reward programmers based on their productivity.
The Correct answer is: Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
Question 29 Select from the following which is not project management goal Select one:
a. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
b. Keeping overall costs within budget.
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d. Avoiding costumer complaints.
The Correct answer is: Avoiding costumer complaints.
Question 30 Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model. 1. Test 2.
Design 3. Install 4. Specification 5. Manufacture 6. Maintain Select one:
a. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3,
6 d. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
The Correct answer is:4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
Question 31 —————— is the linear software development lifecycle methodology Select one:
a. Prototyping
b. Spiral
c. Agile
d. Waterfall
The Correct answer is: Waterfall
Question 32 Which of the following is a reliability tactic?
A) improving individual components
B) increasing repair speed
C) providing redundancy
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
Feedback The correct answer is:A and C
Software Project Management MCQ Set 1

Different activity of a project management is
A.project planning
B.project monitoring
C.project control
D.All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.
Which of the following activity is undertaken immediately after feasibility study and before the
requirement analysis and specification phase?
A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring
C.Project Control
D.Project Scheduling
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
A.Project Planning
B.Project Monitoring and Control
C.Project size estimation
D.Project cost estimation
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?
A.project estimation
B.project scheduling
C.project monitoring
D.risk management
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the most basic parameter based on
which all other estimates are made?
A.project size
B.project effort
C.project duration
D.project schedule
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
During project estimation, project manager estimates following
A.project cost
B.project duration
C.project effort
D.all of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.
Once project planning is complete, project managers document their plan in
A.SPMP document
B.SRS document
C.Detailed Design documet
D.Excel Sheet
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
Which of the following serves as metrics for project size estimation?
A.Lines of codes
B.function point
C.Number of persons
D.Only A & B
Explanation
Correct Option :D.
Lines of Code measures the size of project by counting

A.the number of source instructions
B.the comments in the code
C.the header lines
D.All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
"Larger code size doesnot necessarily mean better quality or higher efficiency."
A.True
B.False
C.NA
D.NA
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
We can accurately estimate lines of code from the problem specification.

A.True
B.False
C.NA
D.NA
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
Which of the following technique overcomes drawback related to LOC?

A.Project Planning Sheet
C.COCOMO
D.COCOMO2
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
Which of the following can estimate size of project directly from problem specification?
A.LOC
C.Bothg
D.None
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
Which of the following serves as project estimation technique?
A.Empirical estimation
B.Heuristic technique
C.Analytical estimation
D.All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.
Heuristics estimation techniquedepends on

A.educated guess
B.prior experience
C.Common sense
D.All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.
Which of the following is empirical estimation technique?

(i) expert judgement (ii) Delphi estimation (iii) COCOMO (iv) Critical path Method
A.only i, ii & iii
B.only i & ii
C.only i, iii & iv
D.All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
Which of the following is example of multi-variable cost estimation model?

A.COCOMO
B.intermediate COCOMO
C.both
D.None
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
Which of the following technique overcomes the drawbacks of expert judggement technique?
A.Heuristic technique
B.Delphi cost esttimation
C.Basis COCOMO
D.only a & b
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
What is the full form of COCOMO?

A.Conditional Cost Estimation Model
B.Complete Cost Estimation Model
C.Construction Cost Estimation Model
D.Collaborative Cost Estimation Model
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
Staffing level estimation pattern is greatly influenced by

A.Norden's Work
B.Putnam's Work
C.Both
D.None of the these
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
Resource allocated is done using

A.PERT chart
B.Gantt chart
C.UML
D.pi-chart
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
Which chart representation is suitable for project monitoring and control?
A.PERT chart
B.Gantt chart
C.THETA chart
D.All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
This technique decompose a given task set recursively into small activities?
A.Sotware Configuration Management
B.Configuration indentification
C.Work breakdown Structure
D.both a & c
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
Which of the following are different team structures used in Point Management?
A.Chief programmer team
B.Democratic team
C.Mixed Control team
D.All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a good software engineer?

A.Ability to work in different team
B.Good Domian Knowledge
C.Weak programming knowledge
D.Good Communication Skills
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
Which of the following are important activities of Risk Management?
A.Risk indentification
B.Risk Assessment
C.Risk Containment
D.All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.
When we rank risks in terms of their damage causing potential, we are doing
A.Risk Containment
B.Risk Assessment
C.Risk indentification
D.Risk Mapping
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
Which of the following is not strategies for containment?

A.Risk avoiding
B.Transfer risk
C.Risk indentification
D.Risk reduction
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
This deals with effectively tracking and controlling the configuration of a software product during its life
cycle.
A.Software Configuration management
B.Software Risk Monitoring
C.Gantt chart
D.COCOMO
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
Which of the following are two popular configuration management tools on most UNIX system
A.SCCS & RCS
B.SSCS & PCS
C.PSCS & PCS
D.RCCS & MPI
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
A.Know the cost of the project
B.Know the user expectations
C.Know the status of the project
D.None of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
Know the status of the project is the correct answer
Which of the following is not Risk characteristic?
A.Inherent in every project
B.Neither intrinsically good not bad
C.Something to fear but not something to manage
D.Probability of loss
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
Something to fear but not something to manage is the correct answer
Which is not the responsibility of customer/ user of the software?
A.Plan how and by whom each acceptance activity will be performed

B.Prepare the acceptance plan
C.Prepare resource plan
D.Plan resources for providing information on which to base acceptance decisions
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
Prepare resource plan is the correct answer
A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
State True/False
A.True
B.False
C..
D..
Explanation
Correct Option :B.
False is the correct answer
Major component of Risk Analysis are
A.The probability that the negative event will occur
B.The potential loss is very high
C.The potential loss or impact associated with the event
D.A and C
E.A and B
Explanation
Correct Option :D.
A and C is the correct answer
Change cannot be easily accommodated in most software systems, unless the system was designed with
change in mind.
State True/False
A.True
B.False
C..
D..
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
True is the correct answer
The work products produced during requirement elicitation will vary
A.size of the product being built
B.size of the budget
C.software process being used
D.stakeholders needs
Explanation
Correct Option :A.
size of the product being built is the correct answer
Management of software development is dependent upon
A.People
B.Product
C.Process
D.All of the above
Explanation
Correct Option :D.
All of the above is the correct answer
The ways in Which a software development organisation can be structured.
A.functional formation
B.project format
C.both
D.none
Explanation
Correct Option :C.
1. What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness, and_____
A. Consistency
B. Correctness
C. Concurrency
D. None of these
Answer - Click Here:

A
2. A software project that meets all the given objectives is a success of _________.
B. Project quality
D. Project management myth
E. None of these

D
3. ___________ is not an effective software project management focus..
A. people
B. product
C. process
D. popularity

D
4. What is the abbreviation of PM-CMM…
A. product management capability maturity model
B. process management capability maturity model
C. people management capability maturity model
D. project management capability maturity model

C

A. project design
C. project planning
D. project control
A
A. Analytical
B. Critical
C. Empirical
E. Heuristic

B
A. Staff turnover
B. Testing

A
B. Project Management Life Cycle

B
A. customers
B. project manager
C. team
D. project

D
10. Which of the following is the sub-process of process improvement?
A. Process introduction
B. De-processification
C. Process analysis
D. Process distribution

C
11. Which one the following is an internal software quality from given below?
A. reusability
B. reliability
C. scalability
D. usability
A
12. What is the symbolic representation of RUP __________________

A. Rational Unified Process
B. Rational Unified Process
C. Rational Unified Program
D. Rational Unified Process

A
1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the scope statement should address all of the
following issues EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. project constraints.
b. project assumptions.s
c. project exclusions.
d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project.
e. project deliverables.
Ans – d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project
2. Fill in the blank. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention and
the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.
Select one:
a. cost-benefit analysis
b. implicit cost
c. cost of quality
d. variable cost
e. cost-utility analysis
Ans- c. cost of quality
3. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash
flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?
Select one:
a. Schedule baseline
b. Cost performance baseline
c. Scope baseline
d. Plan baseline
e. Initiation baseline
Ans – b. Cost performance baseline
4. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more information is
known, the project team can develop a:
Select one:
a. work breakdown structure
b. critical estimate
c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
d. scope of work
e. ballpark estimate
Ans – c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
5. Petri is working for Nokia in Finland. He has completed 10 months of his 12-month project, budgeted
at $800,000. His earned value analysis shows that variance at completion is $75,000. What is the
estimate at completion value for this project?
Select one:
a. 725,000
b. -725,000
c. -$875,000
d. $875,000
e. $800,000
Ans – d. $875,000
6. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?
Select one:
a. Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis represents
the frequency of occurrence.
b. If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to it
by flowcharting.
c. A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.
d. If some of the functions of a project are repetitive, flowcharting can be used to identify trends.
e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.
Ans – e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.
7. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency.
Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without
producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in this
scenario?
Select one:
a. No project team ground rules were set up.
b. The current communications plan was very poorly designed.
c. The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.
d. There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more
responsibilities.
e. The project team was not very cooperative.
Ans – a. No project team ground rules were set up.
mcq for project management

8. Fill in the blank. Work breakdown structure (WBS) is a ______________ of the work with increasing
detail in each layer.
Select one:
a. layered description
b. step change
c. ballpark estimate
d. project execution plan
e. project logic diagram
Ans – a. layered description
9. According to the PMBOK guide which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve
analysis to determine a project budget ?
Select one:
a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs,
which are part of your project budget.
b. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
c. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to
determine your project budget.
d. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.
Ans – a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project
costs, which are part of your project budget.
10. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made regarding
whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________ must be considered and
weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success.
Select one:
a. completion, cost
b. closeout, resources
c. execution, performance
d. planning, timing
e. initiation, risk
Ans – e. initiation, risk
11 TO 20 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

11. What is the most critical aspect in developing a project plan that meets project specifications within
the timeframe and at the lowest costs?
Select one:
a. Assessing risk management
b. Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use
c. Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction
d. Requiring commitment to quality by all the employees and business partners
e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project
Ans – e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project
12. Fill in the blank. Risk represents the likelihood that an event will happen during the life of the project
that will negatively affect the ________________ of project goals.
Select one:
a. scope creep
b. achievement
c. float
d. rough order of magnitude
e. slack
Ans – b. achievement
13. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in the project is included?
Select one:
a. Create a contingency plan.
b. Create a risk management plan.
c. Create a WBS.
d. Create a statement of work.
e. Create a scope statement.
Ans – c. Create a WBS
14. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the
project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project charter
and scope.
Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection
Ans – b. start-up
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15. After the celebration of the successful milestone completion, a project manager will often do which
of the following?
Select one:
a. Continue to increase the intensity of the project to achieve the next milestone.
b. Continue to follow the exact same project plan that helped the team achieve the milestone.
c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
d. Select an upcoming key event and designate it as the next milestone.
e. Stretch the goals of the project team, making them more tough and rigorous.
Ans – c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
16. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase of
the project life cycle?
Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the
project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis
Ans – d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities
17. What is the first step in project planning?
Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.
Ans – a. Establish the objectives and scope.
18. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.
Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation
Ans – e. initiation
19. According to PMBOK, project management process groups are iterative, which was originally defined
by Walter Shewhart and later modified by Edward Deming. Generally, one outcome from a previous
process can serve as input for the next process. Which of the following best identifies with the
description of this concept?
Select one:
a. Project life cycle
b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
c. Project phases
d. PM processes
e. HR process cycle
Ans – b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
20. Determining the policies that are needed for the smooth execution of a project relates to which of
the following agenda items of alignment sessions?
Select one:
a. Developing a common understanding of the project purpose
b. Establishing trust among team members
c. Engaging stakeholders in dialogue
d. Developing role clarification on projects
e. Agreeing on the means and methods for accomplishing the purpose
Ans – d. Developing role clarification on projects
21 TO 30 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

21. Which of the following is true about management meetings?
Select one:
a. They are short meetings to develop a common understanding of what the short-term priorities are for
the project.
b. They focus on short-term activities, usually less than a week in duration.
c. They are purely fact-based meetings with a left-brain type focus.
d. They have very little dialogue except to ask clarification questions.
e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making
adjustments to plans in response to new information.
Ans – e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making
adjustments to plans in response to new information.
22. Do it because I said to” is the mantra for project managers who use _____ as the default approach to
resolve conflict.
Select one:
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. accommodating
d. forcing
e. avoiding
Ans – d. forcing
23. A(n) _ is a review of the quality plan, procedures, data collection, and analysis by an outside group.
Select one:
a. scope document
b. project appraisal
c. cost performance index
d. analogous estimate
e. quality audit
Ans – e. quality audit
24. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project evaluation
process?
Select one:
a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used
when making decisions about the project during later phases.
b. It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the project
manager who is involved in the evaluation.
c. It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity
profile of the project.
d. It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the
chosen project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.
e. It helps achieve greater buy-in from the top management of the parent organization.
Ans – a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be
used when making decisions about the project during later phases.
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25. Which of the following statements is true regarding contracts?
Select one:
a. They are the filters through which project members screen information that is shared.
b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
c. The success of larger, more complex projects is more dependent on contracts than on relationships of
trust.
d. Without contracts, projects that are highly dependent on an information-rich environment will suffer.
e. Contracts promote the growth of a trusting project culture.
Ans – b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
26. Role clarification facilitates the development of all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. communication planning.
b. key milestones.
c. work flow organization.
d. approval processes.
e. role boundary spanning processes.
Ans – b. key milestones.
27. During a new project planning process to sequence activities, the project manager, Nate, decides to
use the precedence diagraming method to show the identified activity dependencies. Which of the
following logical relationships is Nate’s least favorite choice?
Select one:
a. Finish-to-start
b. Start-to-finish
c. Finish-to-finish
d. Start-to-start
e. All of these answers
Ans – b. Start-to-finish
28. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global virtual
teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by a local team
member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of the culture of his
home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How would you respond to this
situation as a PMP?
Select one:
a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global
project.
b. Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.
c. Do nothing.
d. Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members for
this global project equally.
e. Fire the local team member because of his discrimination behavior.
Ans – a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this
global project.
29. Which of the following is true about a project manager?
Select one:
a. Project managers analyze work processes and explore opportunities to make improvements.
b. Project managers are focused on the long-term health of the organization.
c. Project managers are process focused.
d. Project managers are goal oriented.
e. Project managers standardize the work processes.
Ans – d. Project managers are goal oriented.
30. Shauna has recently been appointed as a project manager for Project SkyNorth, which is regarded as
an important project in her organization. During the project planning meeting, Shauna is capable of
allocating key resources and personnel that she needs for this project. Which organizational structure is
best for Shauna’s company?
Select one:
a. Balanced matrix organization
b. Matrix organization
c. Functional organization
d. Projectized organization
e. Hierarchical organization
Ans – d. Projectized organization
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MCQ 31 TO 40
31. Complete the following statement. The method of incorporating change into project planning and
execution processes is called the:
Select one:
a. project logic diagram.
b. change management process.
c. milestone schedule
d. critical path
e. rough order of magnitude
Ans – b. change management process
32. BCR>1 indicates which of the following?
Select one:
a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
b. Costs are greater than the benefits.
c. Costs and benefits are well balanced.
d. Benefits are less than the costs
e. Costs are less than the benefits.
Ans – a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
33. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met for
the project to finish on time?
Select one:
a. Critical path
b. Ballpark estimate
c. Pert diagram
d. Slack chart
e. Milestone schedule
Ans – e. Milestone schedule
34. Which of the following statements about risk is true?
Select one:
a. Project risk focuses on identifying, assessing, and eliminating the risks on the project.
b. Risk management is all about eliminating risk.
c. Project risk is an uncertain event that, even if it occurs, has no effect on project objectives.
d. There are no risk-free projects.
e. Risk management involves identification, evaluation, and elevation of risk
Ans – d. There are no risk-free projects.
35. Why are changes to the project scope necessary?
Select one:
a. To understand reports
b. To reflect new information
c. To begin planning the project
d. To teach team members what they need to know about their jobs
e. To establish a trusting project culture
Ans – b. To reflect new information
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36. Fill in the blank. Crashing refers to when the task duration’s are __ along the critical path to meet the
project completion date.
Select one:
a. scope creep
b. floated
c. slack
d. compressed
e. expedited
Ans – d. compressed
37. An Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of $100000 on a potential project event in the project means
which of the following?
Select one:
a. A number that can be ignored
b. An opportunity that must be explored
c. Actual losses on the event
d. Actual investment returns on the event
e. A threat that must be considered to minimize the project risk
Ans – b. An opportunity that must be explored
38. Which of the following is a form of trust that is built on the examination of the person’s motives and
the conclusion that he or she is not hostile?
Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. Unequivocal liberality
e. High cost of lying
Ans – b. Attribution of benevolence
39. When calculating EVM, Peter noticed that the cumulative planned value is 150% of the cumulative
earned value. What does this mean?
Select one:
a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.
b. SPI>1, so the project is OK to complete on time.
c. SPI<1, so the project is ahead of time.
d. SPI>1, so the project is behind schedule.
e. SPI>1, so the project is on schedule.
Ans – a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.
40. Fill in the blank. A __ represents the sequence of the activities needed to complete the project.
Select one:
a. work break down structure
b. scope of work
c. project logic diagram
d. run chart
e. step change
Ans – c. project logic diagram
MCQ OF PROJECT MANAGEMENT
1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management

is defined as "the application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to
project activities to meet the project requirements".
Select one:
a. skills, analysis
b. tools, analysis
c. analysis, theories
d. skills, tools
e. skills, theories
Answer : (D) skills, tools
2. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project deliverable

have been accomplished by his project team. What is the next step for his
project to proceed in order to verify the project scope by his project client?
Select one:
a. Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.
b. Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.
c. Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the project.
d. Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project
deliverables.
e. Invite a few experts to judge the quality of all the completed project deliverables.
Answer : (d) Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed
project deliverables
3. What is the first step in project planning?
Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.
Answer : (a) Establish the objectives and scope
4. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some

uncontrolled process variations. Which of the following would be the
appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?
Select one:
a. Pareto diagram
b. PERT chart
c. Control chart
d. HR personnel chart
e. Critical path
Ans:- C. Control chart
5. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what
happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?
Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without
loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project's success in
order to decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk
analysis
Answer : - D. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
6. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed
against the potential benefit of the project's success in order to decide if the
project should be chosen.
Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation
Answer is - (E) initiation
7. Due to the rapid expansion of your company, your boss decides to establish a
project management office (PMO) within the company and asks you to take the
lead. According to the PMBOK guide, to be the ideal PMO you can do which of
the following?
Select one:
a. Speed up a specific ongoing project.
b. Find opportunities for collaborative project management.
c. Reassign the resources that have been assigned to ongoing projects.
d. Reduce the assigned resources to existing projects.
e. Reduce the number of project managers in the company.
Ans - B. Find opportunities for collaborative project management
8. Why does the creation of processes for developing teams, establishing

priorities, and distributing work and tasks require different sets of skills?
Select one:
a. Because resources on the project management team may view it as permanent
b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
c. Because resources on the project team are not aware of the technical aspects of
the initiative
d. Because members of the project management team are not aware of the
knowledge and skills of the other people working on the project
e. Because project management teams do not look after the operational aspects of
the project and are concerned only with the strategy
Ans - b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as

temporary
Question 9. According to Bruce Tuckman's five stages of team development,

project team members compete for control at which stage?
Select one:
a. Forming
b. Storming
c. Norming
d. Performing
e. Adjourning
Answer- (b) Storming
10. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following
functions EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. maintaining the organization's project management policies and procedures.
b. supervising the project managers.
c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract
project managers.
d. monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like
project scheduling and project cost analysis
Ans - c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring
contract project managers.
11. Under which of the following conditions would teams be more effective
than individuals?
Select one:
a. When speed is important
b. When the activities involved in solving the problem are very detailed
c. When the actual document needs to be written
d. When innovation is required
e. When a commitment to the solution is needed by small portions of the project tea
Ans - d. When innovation is required
12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge,

skills, and abilities needed to manage a task and then matching the team
members with the right skills to do that work?
Select one:
a. Benchmarking
b. Expediting
c. Procurement
d. Delegation
e. Solicitation
Ans - d. Delegation
13. Which of the following defines what tasks the project resources are
expected to accomplish and, just as importantly, what is not part of the project
team's responsibilities?
Select one:
a. Punch list
b. Check sheet
c. Project logic diagram
d. Checklist
e. Scope document
Ans - e. Scope document
14. After Marta obtained her PMP certificate, her boss assigned her to be in
charge of a long-term project, which a recently resigned project manager,
Todd, had been working on for three years. When Marta looks at historical
information that Todd achieved for this project, which of the following is
deemed most critical for Marta to manage her project team?
Select one:
a. Project contract
b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary
c. Legal documents
d. Project lessons
e. Learn who are the project investors
Ans - b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary
15. Fill in the blank. There is _______ correlation between project complexity and
project risk. Select one:
a. an unknown
b. a positive
c. no
d. a negative
e. a general
Ans - b. a positive
16. As a new project manager, Karen was worried about a statement from her
client: "your project deliverable is in low quality with low grade". According to
PMBOK, how can you help Karen distinguish the differences between "quality"
and "grade"?
Select one:
a. Quality and grade represent the same thing.
b. Low quality can never be a problem, but low grade is.
c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case.
d. Low quality with high grade is always desirable to your client. e. High quality
always represents high grade.
Answer - c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be
the case
17. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited

that he is assigned to be in charge of the most important project this year.
After being chartered for the project, he analyzes the information in the project
charter and the stakeholder register to:
Select one:
a. decide how to draft a scope statement.
b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements. c.
prepare for the template to monitor project progress.
d. estimate the entire project budget.
e. learn how to get project budget approved by stakeholders.
Answer - b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.
18. After Ling finished drafting a new project charter, she sent a copy of the
charter to all key project parties including the project sponsor, senior
management and key stakeholders, and scheduled a kick-off meeting with
them. What will be the most important goal for Ling to complete the project
charter?
Select one:
a. Make a professional looking project charter to impress the key project parties.
b. Get confirmation from the key parties that they have read the charter.
c. Invite the key parties for a nice lunch to establish a friendly relationship. d. Gather
promises from the key project players.
e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.
Answer - e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.
19. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager
focuses on developing the project infrastructure needed to execute the project
and developing clarity around the project charter and scope.
Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection
Answer - b. start-up
20. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of
knowledge is known as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
b. Scope of work estimate
c. Conceptual estimate
d. Line estimate
e. Milestone schedule estimate
Answer - c. Conceptual estimate
21. What is the first step in developing a risk management plan?
Select one:
a. Analyze the risks.
b. Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.
c. Identify potential project risks.
d. Develop a risk mitigation plan.
e. Estimate the potential impact of risk on the project goals.
Answer - c. Identify potential project risks
22. According to the PMBOK guide, which of the following statements is right
in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget?
Select one:
A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope
and project costs, which are part of your project budget.
B. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
C. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis
when you try to determine your project budget.
D. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
E. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.
Answer - A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected

project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.
23. Complete the following statement. As the project progresses into the
execution phase:
Select one:
a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
b. the total risk on the project typically increases.
c. risks are identified with each major group of activities.
d. a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk
analysis.
e. the risk breakdown structure needs to be examined to be sure all the risk events
have been avoided.
Answer - a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
24. Which of the following statements about achieving a common

understanding of the project purpose is true?
Select one:
a. A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement
regarding a project's purpose is often fatal to project execution.
b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success,
determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying
decision-makers.
c. The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding
depend on the duration of the project.
d. Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common understanding
usually involves informal discussions that last a few hours.
e. When developing a common understanding of the purpose of a project,
participants are often instructed to refrain from expressing skepticism.
Answer - b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project

success, determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and
identifying decision-makers.
25. Which of the following is typically a written document that defines what
work will be accomplished by the end of the project?
Select one:
a. Scope of work (SOW)
b. Project logic diagram
c. Milestone schedule
d. Ballpark estimate
e. Work breakdown structure
Answer - a. Scope of work (SOW)
26. What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who
works in a matrix environment in order to achieve project goals?
Select one:
a. Leadership skill
b. Influencing
c. Conflict management skill
d. Time management
e. Planning skill
Answer - b. Influencing
27. Marco is an investor, and Jon is a project team member. Both have intensive
technical background for the project that you are managing. However, recently
they have disagreed on the next step to take for the project. They both decide
to defer to whoever has the authority to make this decision. Who has the
authority to decide which direction should be taken for the project?
Select one:
a. Project manager
b. Stakeholders
c. The project team
d. Investors
e. The board of trustees of this company
Answer - c. The project team
28. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential
risks for her new construction project M based on levels of probability and
impact on the project, she identified a potential risk, regarding a schedule
conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a short time
period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M,
Kathy wants to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she
should document this type of risk. According to the PMBOK guide, where
should Kathy document this risk?
Select one:
a. Watch list
b. Risk management plan
c. Project management plan
d. WBS
e. Scope management plan
Answer - d. WBS
29. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to
specialists and requires a cost-benefit analysis?
Select one:
a. Lean accounting
b. Business process re-engineering
c. Kaizen
d. Six Sigma
e. Total Quality Management
Answer - d. Six Sigma
30. Which one of the following is the last step of project closings?
Select one:
a. The client has accepted the product.
b. Archives are complete.
c. The client appreciates your product.
d. Lessons learned are documented.
e. Temporary staff is released.
Answer - b. Archives are complete.
31. As a project manager of Project Cool at the company, Samira is responsible

for monitoring and controlling two project management processes: process A
and process B. She recently noticed a high priority risk X has been imposed on
her project process A in Project Cool. While she tried to control the risk X, she
also noticed that a new potential risk Y will be added to process B. Which of the
following best explains this situation?
Select one:
a. If risk Y happens, then it is all Samira's fault, because she did not do a good job of
carefully monitoring the risks for Project Cool.
b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.
c. The potential risk might happen, but Samira can ignore risk Y, as risk X takes higher
priority.
d. Samira is not experienced enough for handling risk management, so her boss will
probably fire her.
e. Risk Y is called a low priority risk, which is not considered to be a real concern, so
Samira should not worry about risk Y.
Answer - b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk

X.
32. Roberto is in charge of a new project to help Company A upgrade its old HR
system to a cutting-edge, cross-platform system with the most recent mobile
technologies. After his project team assessed the available system
documentations, the team found the existing documentations too large and
complicated to implement the system updates. Roberto advised his team to
decompose the major project deliverables into more executable components. In
this project process, Robert advised his team to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Document requirements
b. Create WBS
c. Define project scope
d. Verify project scope
e. Plan project milestones
Answer - b. Create WBS
33. Complete the following statement. In a weak matrix environment, the

project manager, Eric, has to constantly make an effort to influence his project
team and stakeholders to ensure project success. This is because:
Select one:
a. Eric has a lot of authority.
b. Eric has no or little authority.
c. Eric is controlled by his functional managers.
d. there are no functional managers.
e. Eric has flexibility on authority.
Answer - b. Eric has no or little authority.
34. Jack is in charge of a project team. Due to an unexpected project change,

some issues with the project have come up. Two key team members, Samantha
and Felix, are arguing their solutions to the project problems. They cannot
convince each other, and their conflict is creating a negative impact on the
project's progress. As a PMP, which of the following would be the best advice
for Jack to manage this conflict?
Select one:
a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private
meetings.
b. Force Felix to give up and to support Samantha.
c. Suggest that Samantha concede to Felix.
d. Let Felix and Samantha exercise their concerns through conflict resolution.
e. Delay this issue for now until it becomes a significant conflict.
Answer - a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to
private meetings.
35. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant

internal and external stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project
teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all of them are covered in the
stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to look at?
Select one:
a. Project team activities
b. Scope statement
c. Project charter
d. Work packages
e. Project funding agents
Answer - c. Project charter
36. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that reflects the

truthfulness of an individual that can be checked against observable facts?
Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. High cost of lying
e. Acknowledgment of munificence
Answer - a. Objective credibility
37. When a project manager starts to plan a new project budget, the cost of
which project management process group is expected to be lowest?
Select one:
a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Monitoring and controlling
d. Closing
e. Planning
Answer - d. Closing
38. CV = $70,000; AC = 90,000; Budget = $200,000. What percent of the project

is complete?
Select one: a. 80% b. 53% c. 45% d. 35% e. 75%
Answer - a. 80%
39. As a project manager, John was finally relieved because a major project led
by him was just announced a success. According to the PMBOK, which of the
following has likely happened in order to consider John's project a success?
Select one:
a. John's project has met all of the stakeholders' expectations.
b. The phase completion of John's project has been approved.
c. John's client has paid off the project.
d. John's boss is happy.
e. John and his team are promoted and get salary increases.
Answer - c. John's client has paid off the project.
40. As a project manager, Neel has a team member, Kate, who has not been
performing well. Due to many repeated mistakes, she has significantly delayed
the whole project progress. Neel tried to offer relevant trainings for Kate to
improve her performance, and he was not able to see any progress in two
months. However, Kate is a single mom with three kids, and she needs this job
to support her family. Based on what you know about conflict management, in
this situation, how should Neel proceed?
Select one:
a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member.
b. Neel should help Kate find another job in the firm.
c. Neel should assign Kate more challenging tasks.
d. Neel should let Kate stay on the job and pick up her slack.
e. Neel should reduce Kate's salary to reflect her performance.
Answer - a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member
Project Management MCQ part 2 - Go here ( Click back if any other website opens or
copy this link and paste on your browser to open part -2 )
PROJECT MANAGEMENT MCQS
PDF
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Project Management multiple choice questions (MCQs) in PDF. These project

management related quizzes are available to download in PDF for free at
https://sheir.org/edu/project-management-mcqs-pdf/
eBook MCQs: Project Management (Updated on 22 July 2020)

Project Management MCQs (PDF)
1. A project is basically a _____activity.

(A) temporary
(B) permanent
(C) continue
(D) global
2. Which of the following statement is NOT true about a project?

(A) It is temporary
(B) It has an end date
(C) It contains no risk
(D) It is unique and brings change
3. Which of the following is NOT considered as a project?

(A) building another room
(B) maintenance of the building
(C) Switching to new business process
(D) Renovating the conference room
4. A graphical chart that shows project tasks against time is known as

(A) milestone
(B) goal
(C) PERT chart
(D) Gantt chart
ANSWERS
1. (A) temporary
2. (C) It contains no risk
3. (B) maintenance of the building [maintenance is a continuous process]
4. (D) Gantt chart
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software engineering and project management mcq sppu pdf is available for SEPM mcq sppu
online exam. These SEPM mcqs are some of the most important 50+ mcq question on SEPM.
MCQ questions below are choosen from the SPPU comp engg question bank specially created
by the University professors themselves and most probably will get asked into your online
exam.
Q. 1. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s

module ?
A : Availability
B : Testability
C : Usability
D : Flexibility
Show Answer
Availability
Q. 2. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis
B : Code inspection
C : Usability assessment
D : Installation test
Show Answer
Installation test
Q. 3. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects
B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object
decomposition
C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another
D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods
Show Answer
Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods
Q. 4. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A

camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?
A : Functional requirement
B : Non-Functional requirement
C : Design requirement
D : Design constraint
Show Answer
Functional requirement
Q. 5. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing
B : Path testing
C : Statement testing
D : Data flow testing
Show Answer
Data flow testing
Q. 6. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling
B : Stamp Coupling
C : Data Coupling
D : Content Coupling
Show Answer
Content Coupling
Q. 7. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints

and external utilities of a building
A : Architectural Design
B : Component level design
C : Data design
D : Interface design
Show Answer
Architectural Design
Q. 8. Which one of the following is not a standard software development

process model?
A : Waterfall Model
B : Recursive Model
C : RAD Model
D : V Model
Show Answer
Recursive Model
Q. 9. Exhaustive testing is
A : always possible
B : practically possible
C : impractical but possible
D : impractical and impossible
Show Answer
always possible
Q. 10. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid

discussing which one of the following?
A : Functional requirements
B : Non-functional requirements
C : Design specification
D : Constraints on the implementation
Show Answer
Non-functional requirements
Q. 11. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?
A : Incremental development
B : Iterative development
C : Linear development
D : Both incremental and iterative development
Show Answer
Incremental development
Q. 12. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?
A : Functional
B : Non-Functional
C : Known Requirement
D : None of the mentioned
Show Answer
Known Requirement
Q. 13. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer
B : Investor
C : Developer
D : Project team
Show Answer
Developer
Q. 14. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?
A : Uncertainity & loss
B : Certainity & Profit
C : Staff size and budget
D : Project Deadline and budget
Show Answer
Uncertainity & loss
Q. 15. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?
A : Provide for flexible interaction
B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
C : Show technical internals from the casual user
D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Show Answer
Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
Q. 16. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing
B : During execution
C : During review
D : Throughout life-cycle
Show Answer
During testing
Q. 17. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?
A : Coding
B : Testing
C : Designing
D : Specification
Show Answer
Coding
Q. 18. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing
B : White box testing
C : Alpha Testing
D : Beta testing
Show Answer
Beta testing
Q. 19. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver
B : Selenium RC
C : Selenium IDE
D : Selenium Grid
Show Answer
Selenium IDE
Q. 20. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?
A : Development team members
B : Project manager
C : Marketing personnel
D : Personnel from finance department
Show Answer
Marketing personnel
Q. 21. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE
A : Unix
B : Linux
C : Windows
D : Solaries
Show Answer
Windows
Q. 22. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID
B : Name
C : Password
D : Link Text
Show Answer
Link Text
Q. 23. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975
B : 1966
C : 1977
D : 1967
Show Answer
1975
Q. 24. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to

change management is known as
A : component element
B : process element
C : construction element
D : human elements
Show Answer
component element
Q. 25. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is .

A : Functional and Behavioral
B : Architectural and Structural
C : Usability and Reliability
D : Algorithmic and Data Structure
Show Answer
Architectural and Structural
Q. 26. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with

Scalability?
A : Data Flow Architecture
B : Call and Return Architecture
C : Data Centered Architectures
D : Virtual Machine Architecture
Show Answer
Call and Return Architecture
Q. 27. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project
A : generic risk
B : project risk
C : product risk
D : business risk
Show Answer
business risk
Q. 28. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model
B : V model
C : Iterative model
D : Agile model
Show Answer
V model
Q. 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

Show Answer
Data Flow Architecture
Q. 30. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse

engineering?
A : directionality
B : connectivity
C : completeness
D : abstraction level
Show Answer
directionality
Q. 31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software
B : To give confidence in the software
C : To prove that the software has no faults
D : To find performance problems
Show Answer
To prove that the software has no faults
Q. 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing
C : Integration testing
D : Unit testing
Show Answer
Black box testing
Q. 33. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules
B : Hardware modules
C : Functional modules
D : Process support modules
Show Answer
Functional modules
Q. 34. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming

software testing. Which testing principle implies this?
A : Pareto principle
B : Testing is Context dependent
C : Testing shows presence of defects
D : Absence of errors-fallacy
Show Answer
Testing shows presence of defects
Q. 35. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation
D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components
Show Answer
Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of

some other arbitrary components
Q. 36. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of

A : Versioning
B : Audit trails
C : Change control
D : SCI
Show Answer
Change control
Q. 37. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as
B : process element
D : human elements
Show Answer
construction element
Q. 38. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang
B : Bottom-up
C : Design based
D : Top-down
Show Answer
Q. 39. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be
accommodated in any testing strategy
Show Answer
Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
Q. 40. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process
A : testing level
B : abstraction level
C : design level
D : maintainence level
Show Answer
maintainence level
Q. 41. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as
A : reactive risk mode
B : proactive risk mode
C : fire fighting mode
D : quick rectification mode
Show Answer
reactive risk mode
Q. 42. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks
B : Unreachable (“dead”) code
C : The use of a variable before it has been defined
D : Array bound violations
Show Answer
Memory leaks
Q. 43. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans
B : The analysis of batch programs
C : The use of black box testing
D : The analysis of program code
Show Answer
The analysis of batch programs
Q. 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

Show Answer
Q. 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?
A : Testing shows presence of defects
B : Pesticide paradox
C : Testing is context dependent
D : Defect Clustering
Show Answer
Q. 46. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author
B : Moderator
C : Reviewer
D : Scribe
Show Answer
Author
Q. 47. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification
B : Design
C : Coding
D : Integration
Show Answer
Requirement Specification
Q. 48. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their

information
A : Determinacy
B : Content
C : Complexity
D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3
Show Answer
Complexity
Q. 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk
B : project risk
C : business risk
D : management rsik
Show Answer
project risk
Q. 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring
B : back engineering
C : document engineerinhg
D : implementation engineering
Show Answer
implementation engineering
Q. 51. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:
A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.
B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.
C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.
D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.
Show Answer
its nature, its scope, and its timing.
Q. 52. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is

called as, a
A : Test suite
B : Test procedure
C : Test data
D : Test log
Show Answer
Test data
Q. 53. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System
B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance
C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
D : It depends on the nature of a project
Show Answer
Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
Q. 54. A _ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.
A : repeat until
B : condition
C : do while tests
D : if then-else
Show Answer
condition
Q. 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up
B : Top down
C : Big-bang
D : Functional incrimination
Show Answer
Functional incrimination
Q. 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?
A : Configuration management
B : Requirementss tracing
C : Reporting
D : Change control
Show Answer
Reporting
Q. 57. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis
B : During designing
C : During coding
D : During testing
Show Answer
During requirement analysis
Q. 58. The main focus of _ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.
A : QA
B : QC
C : Six Sigma
D : tracking
Show Answer
QC
Q. 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by
A : testing specialists
B : development team
C : senior managers
D : quality assurance group
Show Answer
senior managers
Q. 60. The ___ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential

specification of behavior.
A : Data flow diagram
B : State transition diagram
C : Control specification
D : Activity diagram
Show Answer
Data flow diagram
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PROJECT MANAGEMENT MCQS
PDF
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Project Management multiple choice questions (MCQs) in PDF. These project

management related quizzes are available to download in PDF for free at
eBook MCQs: Project Management (Updated on 22 July 2020)

Project Management MCQs (PDF)
1. A project is basically a _____activity.

(A) temporary
(B) permanent
(C) continue
(D) global
2. Which of the following statement is NOT true about a project?

(A) It is temporary
(B) It has an end date
(C) It contains no risk
(D) It is unique and brings change
3. Which of the following is NOT considered as a project?

(A) building another room
(B) maintenance of the building
(C) Switching to new business process
(D) Renovating the conference room
4. A graphical chart that shows project tasks against time is known as

(A) milestone
(B) goal
(C) PERT chart
(D) Gantt chart
ANSWERS
1. (A) temporary
2. (C) It contains no risk
3. (B) maintenance of the building [maintenance is a continuous process]
4. (D) Gantt chart
We are currently updating this file. Please download later from the URL
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software engineering and project management mcq sppu pdf is available for SEPM mcq sppu
online exam. These SEPM mcqs are some of the most important 50+ mcq question on SEPM.
MCQ questions below are choosen from the SPPU comp engg question bank specially created
by the University professors themselves and most probably will get asked into your online
exam.
Q. 1. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s

module ?
A : Availability
B : Testability
C : Usability
D : Flexibility
Show Answer
Availability
Q. 2. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis
B : Code inspection
C : Usability assessment
D : Installation test
Show Answer
Installation test
Q. 3. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects
B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object
decomposition
C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another
D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods
Show Answer
Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods
Q. 4. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A

camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?
A : Functional requirement
B : Non-Functional requirement
C : Design requirement
D : Design constraint
Show Answer
Functional requirement
Q. 5. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing
B : Path testing
C : Statement testing
D : Data flow testing
Show Answer
Data flow testing
Q. 6. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling
B : Stamp Coupling
C : Data Coupling
D : Content Coupling
Show Answer
Content Coupling
Q. 7. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints

and external utilities of a building
A : Architectural Design
B : Component level design
C : Data design
D : Interface design
Show Answer
Architectural Design
Q. 8. Which one of the following is not a standard software development

process model?
A : Waterfall Model
B : Recursive Model
C : RAD Model
D : V Model
Show Answer
Recursive Model
Q. 9. Exhaustive testing is
A : always possible
B : practically possible
C : impractical but possible
D : impractical and impossible
Show Answer
always possible
Q. 10. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid

discussing which one of the following?
A : Functional requirements
B : Non-functional requirements
C : Design specification
D : Constraints on the implementation
Show Answer
Non-functional requirements
Q. 11. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?
A : Incremental development
B : Iterative development
C : Linear development
D : Both incremental and iterative development
Show Answer
Incremental development
Q. 12. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?
A : Functional
B : Non-Functional
C : Known Requirement
Show Answer
Known Requirement
Q. 13. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer
B : Investor
C : Developer
D : Project team
Show Answer
Developer
Q. 14. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?
A : Uncertainity & loss
B : Certainity & Profit
C : Staff size and budget
D : Project Deadline and budget
Show Answer
Uncertainity & loss
Q. 15. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?
A : Provide for flexible interaction
B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
C : Show technical internals from the casual user
D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Show Answer
Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
Q. 16. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing
B : During execution
C : During review
D : Throughout life-cycle
Show Answer
During testing
Q. 17. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?
A : Coding
B : Testing
C : Designing
D : Specification
Show Answer
Coding
Q. 18. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing
C : Alpha Testing
D : Beta testing
Show Answer
Beta testing
Q. 19. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver
B : Selenium RC
C : Selenium IDE
D : Selenium Grid
Show Answer
Selenium IDE
Q. 20. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?
A : Development team members
B : Project manager
C : Marketing personnel
D : Personnel from finance department
Show Answer
Marketing personnel
Q. 21. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE
A : Unix
B : Linux
C : Windows
D : Solaries
Show Answer
Windows
Q. 22. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID
B : Name
C : Password
D : Link Text
Show Answer
Link Text
Q. 23. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975
B : 1966
C : 1977
D : 1967
Show Answer
1975
Q. 24. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to

change management is known as
B : process element
D : human elements
Show Answer
component element
Q. 25. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is .

A : Functional and Behavioral
B : Architectural and Structural
C : Usability and Reliability
D : Algorithmic and Data Structure
Show Answer
Architectural and Structural
Q. 26. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with

Scalability?
Show Answer
Call and Return Architecture
Q. 27. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project
A : generic risk
B : project risk
C : product risk
D : business risk
Show Answer
business risk
Q. 28. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model
B : V model
C : Iterative model
D : Agile model
Show Answer
V model
Q. 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

Show Answer
Q. 30. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse

engineering?
A : directionality
B : connectivity
C : completeness
D : abstraction level
Show Answer
directionality
Q. 31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software
B : To give confidence in the software
C : To prove that the software has no faults
D : To find performance problems
Show Answer
To prove that the software has no faults
Q. 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing
C : Integration testing
D : Unit testing
Show Answer
Black box testing
Q. 33. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules
B : Hardware modules
C : Functional modules
D : Process support modules
Show Answer
Functional modules
Q. 34. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming

software testing. Which testing principle implies this?
A : Pareto principle
B : Testing is Context dependent
C : Testing shows presence of defects
D : Absence of errors-fallacy
Show Answer
Q. 35. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation
D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components
Show Answer
Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of

some other arbitrary components
Q. 36. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of

A : Versioning
B : Audit trails
C : Change control
D : SCI
Show Answer
Change control
Q. 37. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as
B : process element
D : human elements
Show Answer
Q. 38. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang
B : Bottom-up
C : Design based
D : Top-down
Show Answer
Q. 39. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be
accommodated in any testing strategy
Show Answer
Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
Q. 40. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process
A : testing level
B : abstraction level
C : design level
D : maintainence level
Show Answer
maintainence level
Q. 41. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as
A : reactive risk mode
B : proactive risk mode
C : fire fighting mode
D : quick rectification mode
Show Answer
reactive risk mode
Q. 42. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks
B : Unreachable (“dead”) code
C : The use of a variable before it has been defined
D : Array bound violations
Show Answer
Memory leaks
Q. 43. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans
B : The analysis of batch programs
C : The use of black box testing
D : The analysis of program code
Show Answer
The analysis of batch programs
Q. 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

Show Answer
Q. 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?
A : Testing shows presence of defects
B : Pesticide paradox
C : Testing is context dependent
D : Defect Clustering
Show Answer
Q. 46. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author
B : Moderator
C : Reviewer
D : Scribe
Show Answer
Author
Q. 47. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification
B : Design
C : Coding
D : Integration
Show Answer
Requirement Specification
Q. 48. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their

information
A : Determinacy
B : Content
C : Complexity
D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3
Show Answer
Complexity
Q. 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk
B : project risk
C : business risk
D : management rsik
Show Answer
project risk
Q. 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring
B : back engineering
C : document engineerinhg
D : implementation engineering
Show Answer
implementation engineering
Q. 51. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:
A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.
B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.
C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.
D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.
Show Answer
its nature, its scope, and its timing.
Q. 52. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is

called as, a
A : Test suite
B : Test procedure
C : Test data
D : Test log
Show Answer
Test data
Q. 53. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System
B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance
C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
D : It depends on the nature of a project
Show Answer
Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
Q. 54. A _ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.
A : repeat until
B : condition
C : do while tests
D : if then-else
Show Answer
condition
Q. 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up
B : Top down
C : Big-bang
D : Functional incrimination
Show Answer
Functional incrimination
Q. 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?
A : Configuration management
B : Requirementss tracing
C : Reporting
D : Change control
Show Answer
Reporting
Q. 57. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis
B : During designing
C : During coding
D : During testing
Show Answer
During requirement analysis
Q. 58. The main focus of _ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.
A : QA
B : QC
C : Six Sigma
D : tracking
Show Answer
QC
Q. 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by
A : testing specialists
B : development team
C : senior managers
D : quality assurance group
Show Answer
senior managers
Q. 60. The ___ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential

specification of behavior.
A : Data flow diagram
B : State transition diagram
C : Control specification
D : Activity diagram
Show Answer
Data flow diagram
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software engineering and project management mcq, software engineering and project
management mcq sppu, software engineering and project management mcq pdf, software
engineering and project management mcq pdf download
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Below are the 60 most important computer networks Software Testing Quality Assurance Here are 60 most Q. 1. For Apriori algorithm, what is the second phase? A
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1) Which one of the following can be considered to be a job rather than a project?
a) Construction of a house
b) A political election campaign
c) Buying grocery from a supermarket
d) A wedding
No, the answer is incorrect.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Buying grocery from a supermarket
2) Who among the following is not a project stakeholder?

a) Project manager
b) Customer
c) Project team member
d) Security personnel guarding the project building
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
d) Security personnel guarding the project building
3) Managing a software development project is much harder than managing a road construction project. Which one
of the following is NOT a major
reason for this?
a) Large sized project
b) Managing something that is Intangible
c) Managing intellectual work
d) Large impact of any requirements change
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a) Large sized project
4) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a software development project?

a) A software development project can have several non-routine tasks that involve challenge
b) A software development project can have several routine tasks
c) The resources available for a software development project are usually constrained
d) Every software development project has a well-defined starting point but may continue indefinitely
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d) Every software development project has a well-defined starting point but may continue indefinitely
5) Which one of the following statements concerning the business case for a project is false?
a) It clearly states the cost that would be incurred to complete the project
b) It provides the benefits that are expected to accrue from undertaking the project
c) It presents a cost-benefit analysis
d) Once the business case is completed and approved by the project sponsor, the feasibility study is undertaken
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d) Once the business case is completed and approved by the project sponsor, the feasibility study is
undertaken
6) Which one of the following is the most acceptable definition of a project?

a) A series of activities
b) A set of activities undertaken within a defined time period in order to meet a specific set of goals/objectives withi
n a budget.
c) A coordinated effort to accomplish a well-defined goal but in general can continue indefinitely
d) Any activity that requires human and other resources for it to proceed
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) A set of activities undertaken within a defined time period in order to meet a specific set of
goals/objectives within a budget.
7) Which one of the following is usually not recognized as a phase of the software project management life cycle?
a) Execution
b) Initiation
c) Maintenance
d) Closing
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Maintenance
8) Which one of the following most closely describes the sequence of phases of a project management life cycle?
a) Initiation, planning, executing, and closing.
b) Concept, definition, development, closure.
c) Initiation, definition, planning, monitoring.
d) Concept, definition, implementation, maintenance.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a) Initiation, planning, executing, and closing.
9) Which one of the following is not a pertinent question to ask for defining the scope of a project?
a) Why is the software being built?
b) What will be done?
c) When will it be done?
d) Who will be the project manager?
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d) Who will be the project manager?
10) Which one of the following is not a software service type of project?
a) A software customization project
b) A novel antivirus software development project
c) A software maintenance project
d) A software testing project
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b) A novel antivirus software development project
1) How many man-hours is a man-month?

a. 142
b. 152
c. 162
d. 172
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. 152
2) Which one of the following is the correct order in which a software project manager estimates various project par
ameters while using COCOMO?
a. cost, effort, duration, size
b. cost, duration, effort, size
c. size, effort, duration, cost
d. size, cost, effort, duration
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c. size, effort, duration, cost
3) Which one of the followings is NOT a factor for "Lines of code" being considered a poor software size metric?
a. It is programming language dependent.
b. It penalizes efficient and compact coding.
c. It is programmer dependent.
d. It is dependent on the complexity of the requirements.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. It is dependent on the complexity of the requirements.
4) Which one of the following estimating methods is most appropriate when detailed information about the project is
lacking?
a. Parametric Models
b. Basic Expert Judgement Technique
c. Analogy-Based Method
d. Price to win
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. Price to win
5) Which one of the followings is NOT a limitation of bottom-up estimation?

a. It may overlook many of the system-level costs.
b. It may be inaccurate because the necessary information may not be available in the early phase.
c. It tends to underestimate and overlook complexities of low-level components.
d. It tends to be more time-consuming.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. It tends to underestimate and overlook complexities of low-level components.
6) Which one of the followings is NOT a desirable characteristic of a good algorithmic estimation model?
a. A clear procedure for estimation is provided
b. Subjective factors are avoided
c. Results are valid for a wide range of parameter values
d. Requires data that are accurately known only in future
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. Requires data that are accurately known only in future
7) Which one of the followings is NOT a key component in function point analysis?
a. External Inputs
b. External Outputs
c. External Operations
d. External Inquiries
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. External Operations
8) In function point analysis, how many general systems characteristics are evaluated and used to compute the Value
Adjustment Factor (VAF)?
a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. 14
9) Which one of the followings is NOT a disadvantage of function point analysis?

a. It is labor intensive.
b. Extensive training is required.
c. Does not consider algorithmic complexity of a function.
d. It is hard to fudge
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. It is hard to fudge
10) Which one of the following function points is most suitable for use in embedded system development projects?
a. IFPUG function points
b. Mark II function points
c. COSMIC function points
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c. COSMIC function points
1) Which one of the following is true regarding activity schedule?

a. It indicates the planned start and completion dates for each activity
b. It shows the dates on which each resource will be required and level of requirement
c. It shows the planned cumulative expenditure incurred by the use of resources over time
d. All of the above
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. It indicates the planned start and completion dates for each activity
2) Which one of the following shows the dates on which each resource will be required for an activity and level of th
at requirement?
a. Activity schedule
b. Resource schedule
c. Cost schedule
d. All of the above
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b. Resource schedule
3) Which one of the following is FALSE regarding resource scheduling?

a. Resource scheduling may lead to changing the durations of some activities on the PERT chart
b. Resource scheduling may not affect the critical path
c. Resource scheduling usually shortens the critical path
d. Resource scheduling can create additional critical paths
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. Resource scheduling usually shortens the critical path
4) Given the followings, which one represents the correct order of priorities in Burman's priority list? 1. shortest criti
cal activity 2. critical activities 3.
non-critical activities. 4. non-critical activity with least float 5. shortest non-critical activity
a. 1-2-3-4-5
b. 1-2-5-4-3
c. 2-1-5-4-3
d. 5-4-3-2-1
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. 1-2-5-4-3
5) Which one of the followings is the best way of publishing and communicating project schedules?
a. activity plan
b. activity bar charts
c. resource histograms.
d. work schedule
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. work schedule
6) Which one of the followings is the proper scheduling sequence?

a. activity plan, resource allocation, risk assessment, cost schedule
b. activity plan, risk assessment, cost schedule resource allocation,
c. activity plan, risk assessment, resource allocation, cost schedule
d. activity plan, cost schedule, risk assessment, resource allocation
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. activity plan, risk assessment, resource allocation, cost schedule
7) Which one of the followings is an example of oral formal regular reporting method?
a. Weekly progress meetings
b. End-of-stage review meetings
c. Progress reports
d. Exception reports
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. Weekly progress meetings
8) Which one of the following check points is a time driven check point?
a. Production of SRS document
b. Production of a coding module
c. Production of test cases
d. Checking the progress monthly
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. Checking the progress monthly
9) In Red/Amber/Green reporting, Amber represents which one of the following?
a. The tasks are 'on target'
b. The tasks are 'not on target but recoverable'
c. The tasks are 'not on target and recoverable only with difficulty'
d. The tasks are 'not on target and not recoverable'
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. The tasks are 'not on target but recoverable'
10) Which one of the following statements concerning reviews is true?

a. Usually, review is more cost-effective in removing defects as compared to testing.
b. Usually, review is less cost-effective in removing defects as compared to testing.
c. Usually, review is as much cost-effective in removing defects as testing.
d. Reviews are considered as a dynamic analysis technique.
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
a. Usually, review is more cost-effective in removing defects as compared to testing.
1) Code review does not target to detect which one of the following types of errors:
a. Logical error
b. Algorithmic error
c. Syntax error
d. Programming errors.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. Syntax error
2) When is code review performed during software life cycle?

a. After unit testing
b. After coding and compiling
c. During integration testing
d. During system testing
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b. After coding and compiling
3) Cleanroom technique does not use which one of the following activities?
a. Code walkthrough
b. Code inspection
c. Formal verification for bug removal
d. Testing of code by executing it
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. Testing of code by executing it
4) In a slip chart, the more the slip line bends,

a. The greater is the variation from the plan.
b. The smaller is the variation from the plan.
c. No change happens in the plan.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. The greater is the variation from the plan.
5) Which of the following charts shows the slippage of the project completion date through the life of the project?
a. Gantt chart
b. Slip chart
c. Timeline chart
d. PERT chart
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. Timeline chart
6) Which one of the following methods is preferred for assigning an earned value (EV) in software projects?
a. The 0/100 technique
b. The 50/50 technique
c. The 75/25 technique
d. The milestone technique
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. The 0/100 technique
7) Suppose, the work with a PV of Rs. 40,000 should have been completed by now. In fact, some of that work has n
ot been done, so that the EV is only 1 point
Rs. 30,000. What is the value of Schedule Variance (SV)?
a. 10000
b. -10000
c. 70000
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. -10000
8) The cost performance index (CPI) is given by which of the following expressions?
a. CPI - AC/EV
b. CPI - EV/AC
c. CPI - AC&EV
d. CPI - EV-AC
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. CPI EVAC
9) Which one of the following would equal EV/PV?

a. SPI
b. CPI
d. CV
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. SPI
10) Assume that a medium-sized project is experiencing considerable schedule slippage. Which one of the following
may not help to get the project backf point
on schedule?
a. Shortening the critical path
b. Altering the activity precedence requirements
c. speeding up non-critical path activities
d. Reducing scope of the project
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c. speeding up non-critical path activities
1) In software configuration management, system accounting deals with
a. Keeping track of who made a particular change to a configuration item, what change was exactly made, and when
the change was made.
b. Controlling access to the different deliverable objects.
c. Undoing changes to some part of a revision
d. Preventing unauthorized changes to the work products.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. Keeping track of who made a particular change to a configuration item, what change was exactly made,
and when the change was made.
2) Which one of the following scenarios can occur even while a software development organization is impeccably us
ing a configuration management
tool?
a. Two team members overwrite each other's code that are under configuration control
b. Accidental deletion of a work product that is under configuration control, by a developer and consequent loss of
work
c. A user reporting a software configuration error during installation
d. Unauthorized modifications to a work product under configuration control by one of the developers
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c. A user reporting a software configuration error during installation
3) Pre-controlled work products are

a. those that are put under configuration control
b. those that are not yet under configuration control, but will eventually be under configuration control
c. those that will not be subject to configuration control
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. those that are not yet under configuration control, but will eventually be under configuration control
4) Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding SCCS tool?
a. It is a popular configuration management tool on UNIX systems
b. It can be used for controlling and managing different versions of text files.
c. It can handle binary files.
d. It provides an efficient way of storing versions that minimize the amount of occupied disk space.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. It can handle binary files.
5) Which is true concerning bespoke system?

a. It is a system which is created especially for one customer
b. It is a package which is bought 'as is'
c. It is a core system which is customized to meet the needs of the client
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. It is a system which is created especially for one customer
6) The contract in which the customer is charged at a fixed rate per unit of effort, is known as
a. fixed price contracts
b. time and materials contracts
c. fixed price per unit delivered contracts
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. time and materials contracts
7) Which one of the following is typically not expected in a fixed price contract?
a. Vendors tend to overprice the bids
b. The selected vendor may demand higher price to accommodate new requirements
c. Better quality of software is realized compared to time and material contracts
d. Best model to follow when the bidder has stringent budget restrictions
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. Better quality of software is realized compared to time and material contracts
8) Which one of the following is a project proposal evaluation method?

a. Interviews
b. Demonstrations
c. Practical tests
d. All of the above
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. All of the above
9) Which one of the following is NOT true concerning project closeout report?
a. It documents the important results obtained from various project closeout tasks.
b. It starts with a historical summary of the projects deliverables and baseline activities over the course of the project
.
c. It presents the summary of the survey results and the quantitative data gathering about the project's performance.
d. It does not contain any recommendation for improvement for other similar projects.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. It does not contain any recommendation for improvement for other similar projects.
10) Which one of the following most accurately states the main aim of a post-project review?
a. Validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.
b. Capture knowledge and document it for future usage.
c. Ensure all documentation is accepted and signed by the sponsor.
d. Establish that project benefits have been identified.
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b. Capture knowledge and document it for future usage.
1) Which one of the following is the basic focus of the modern quality assurance paradigms?
a) Process assurance
b) Product assurance
c) Thorough testing
d) Thorough testing and rejection of bad products
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a) Process assurance
2) Which one of the following ISO quality assurance standard applies to software development organizations?
a) ISO 9000
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9002
d) ISO 9003
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b) ISO 9001
3) A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which one of the following does the organizatio
n need to achieve, for satisfying one 1 point
of the KPAs of CMM Level 5?
a) Defect detection
b) Defect prevention
c) Defect isolation
d) Defect localization
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Defect prevention
4) Which one of the following can be considered to be the focus of "quality control"?
a) All development work products are delivered on time and under budget
b) The development process is completely documented and adhered to during development
c) The performance of the development work products are measured
d) All development work products are thoroughly tested before delivery to the customer
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d) All development work products are thoroughly tested before delivery to the customer
5) Which one of the following is expected to observed in a software development organization assessed at the SEI C
MM repeatable level?
a) Success in development of a software can be repeated
b) Success in development of a software can be repeated on similar software development projects.
c) Success in development of a software can be repeated in all software development projects that the organization
might undertake.
d) When the same development team is chosen to develop another software, they can repeat their success.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Success in development of a software can be repeated on similar sofåyare development projects.
6) Which one of the following is a requirement for ISO 9001 certification?

a) Demonstrate that the developed software has fulfilled its quality requirements
b) Submit the reliability assessment of all the developed software
c) Document the process being followed
d) Demonstrate that through stringent design and use of coding standards, testing is largely made redundant
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Document the process being followed
7) In CMMI, which one of the following is the name of the maturity level 5?
a) Six Sigma
b) Optimized
c) Statistical
d) Optimizing
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d) Optimizing
8) Which one of the following summarizes an important difference between quality assurance and quality control?
a) Thorough product testing
b) Ensuring that a good process is in place and has been documented
c) Ensuring that a good team is in place
d) Ensuring adequate usage of modern automated development tools
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Ensuring that a good process is in place and has been documented
9) Which one of the following SEI CMM maturity levels should be recommended to a small startup company that fo
cuses on outsourced software
development and software maintenance work.
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 4
d) Level 5
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Level 2
10) Which one of the following is a software defect?
a) A mistake made by a team member during requirements specification
b) A change that the team needs to make based on a finding during code review
c) A configuration management plan that is too elaborate
d) A change request that has been launched by the customer
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b) A change that the team needs to make based on a finding during code review
) Which one of the following is not a factor contributing to the increased difficulty in software reliability measureme
nt, as compared to hardware
reliability measurement?
a) The reliability improvement due to fixing a single bug depends on where the bug is located in the code.
b) The perceived reliability of a software product is observer-dependent.
c) The reliability of a software product keeps changing as errors are detected and fixed.
d) Software is invisible in contrast to hardware, though the effect of execution of software can be observed.
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
d) Software is invisible in contrast to hardware, though the effect of execution of software can be observed.
2) Which one of the following can be said about the overall reliability behavior of a typical software during its life ti
me?
a) Initially increases, but later decreases
b) Initially decreases, but later increases
c) Increasing trend throughout the life cycle
d) Decreasing trend throughout the life cycle
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
a) Initially increases, but later decreases
3) After a software is maintained, which one of the following types of testing involves repeating execution of tests th
at were already performed to ensure
that the code modifications carried out during maintenance have not introduced additional faults?
a) Beta testing
b) Functional testing
c) Bottom-up testing
d) Regression testing
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d) Regression testing
4) Which one of the following statements is not an objective of software verification?
a) Ensuring that the software development steps are carried out correctly.
b) Ensuring that the correct software has been developed.
c) Achieving phase containment of errors.
d) Ensuring that the outputs produced at a development stage conform to the outputs of the previous phase.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Ensuring that the correct software has been developed.
5) Which of the following is a practical use of reliability growth modelling?

a) Determine the operational life of an application software
b) Determine when to stop testing
c) Incorporate reliability growth information while designing
d) Incorporate reliability growth information in the code
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Determine when to stop testing
6) Which one of the following is the objective of statistical testing?

a) Use statistical techniques to design test cases
b) Apply statistical techniques to the results of testing to determine the number of latent bugs in the software
c) Estimate software reliability
d) Apply statistical techniques to the results of testing to determine how long testing needs to be carried out
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Estimate software reliability
7.) What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures? Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)
— 45 days, Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) 5 hours.
d) 99%
8) On 4000 service invocations, a software failed on 10 occasions. What is its POFOD (Probability Of Failure On D
emand)?
c) 0.25%
9) On a bug fix, the reliability of a software may actually decrease, rather than increase. Which one of the following
explains this phenomenon?
a) The fixed bug is in the core part
b) The fixed bug is in the non-core part
c) Bug-fix induces several other bugs
d) Bug-fix is not proper
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Bug-fix induces several other bugs
10) Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

a) Every failure is caused due to a fault
b) A fault is a synonym for a bug
c) An error may or may not cause a fault
d) Every mistake committed by a programmer shows up as a failure
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
d) Every mistake committed by a programmer shows up as a failure
) Which one of the followings is not an element to project portfolio management?

a. Portfolio definition
b. Portfolio management
c. Portfolio optimization
d. Portfolio deletion
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. Portfolio deletion
2) Which one of the followings is the proper sequence of undertaking project portfolio management activities?
a. portfolio definition, portfolio optimization, portfolio management
b. portfolio optimization, portfolio definition, portfolio management
c. portfolio definition, portfolio management, portfolio optimization
d. portfolio management, portfolio definition, portfolio optimization
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c. portfolio definition, portfolio management, portfolio optimization
3) Consider a softw•are development department of a company is being set up. Which one of the followings can be c
onsidered to be a direct cost?
a. Insurance
b. Building maintenance
c. Purchase of a box of CDs
d. Air conditioning
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. Purchase of a box of CDs
4) Consider a company has undertaken a software development project. Which of the followings is not a tangible be
nefit?
a. Benefits due to bonus payment on completing the project in fewer hours
b. Benefits due to an improved corporate image
c. Benefits due to producing reports with no errors.
d. Benefits due to saving manpower costs
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. Benefits due to an improved corporate image
5) Method of IRR is considered to be inferior to the NPV method, because

a. it may give multiple rates of return.
b. it is relatively difficult to compute.
c. it does not indicate the absolute size of the return.
d. All of the above
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. All of the above
6) In break-even analysis, investment period is the period when

a. the cost of the candidate system is less than that of the current system
b. the cost of the candidate system is higher than that of the current system
c. the cost of the candidate system is equal to that of the current system
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. the cost of the candidate system is higher than that of the current system
7) Where a project is relatively risky, it is a common practice to use

a. a lower discount rate to calculate net present value.
b. an average discount rate to calculate net present value.
c. a higher discount rate to calculate net present value.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. a higher discount rate to calculate net present value.
8) Which one of the following risk evaluation methods is suitable when it is required to evaluate whether the risk is i
mportant and, decide on a suitable
course of action?
a. Risk identification and ranking
b. C-B Analysis
c. Risk profile analysis
d. Using decision trees
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. Using decision trees
9) The projects that an organization undertakes within a planning cycle are referred to as
a. Business cycle programmes
b. Strategic programmes
c. Infrastructure programmes
d. Research and development programmes
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. Business cycle programmes
10) Benefits that BSNL will get from obtaining local administration approval for constructing a mobile tower in a str
eet, can be
a. quantified and valued
b. quantified but not valued
c. identified and easily quantified
d. identified but not easily quantified
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
d. identified but not easily quantified
1) Which one of the followings is an example of organic project?

a. An accounting system development project
b. A compiler writing project
c. An operating system development project
d. A real-time database system development project
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. An accounting system development project
2) Which one of the following statements is true of the COCOMO model?
a. Cost is considered to be the most fundamental attribute of a software product, based on which the project size and
duration are measured.
b. Size is considered to be the most fundamental attribute of a software product, based on which the project cost and
duration are measured.
c. Effort is considered to be the most fundamental attribute of a software product, based on which the project size an
d cost are measured.
d. Duration is considered to be the most fundamental attribute of a software product, based on which the project size
and effort are measured.
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b. Size is considered to be the most fundamental attribute of a software product, based on which the
project cost and duration are measured.
3) In intermediate COCOMO, if modern programming practices are used, then the initial cost and effort estimates ob
tained by the basic COCOMO, are 1 point
a. scaled downwards
b. scaled upwards
c. remained unchanged
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. scaled downwards
4) Which one of the following COCOMO estimation models considers the project as a collection of heterogeneous s
ub-systems?
a. Basic COCOMO
b. Intermediate COCOMO
c. Detailed (Complete) COCOMO
d. All of the above
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. Detailed (Complete) COCOMO
5) Which one of the following COCOMO II estimation levels would provide most accurate estimations?
a. Application composition
b. Early design
c. Post-architecture
d. All COCOMO II estimation levels provide equally accurate results
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. Post-architecture
6) Early design model of COCOMO II would be used

a. when software is composed from existing parts
b. when requirements are available but design has not yet started
c. to compute the effort of integrating reusable components
d. once the system architecture has been designed and more information about the system is available
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b. when requirements are available but design has not yet started
7) In COCOMO II, the scale factor Architecture/risk resolution (RESL) refers to

a. The degree to which there are past examples that can be consulted
b. The degree of flexibility that exists when implementing the project
c. The degree of uncertainty about requirements
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c. The degree of uncertainty about requirements
8) In Halstead's software science, higher the level of a language,

a. The less effort it takes to develop a program using that language.
b. The more effort it takes to develop a program using that language.
c. The same effort it takes to develop a program using that language.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a. The less effort it takes to develop a program using that language.
9) Suppose the development time of a large software product has been estimated to be one and half year. Then in ord
er to develop the product in nine 1 point
months, what will be total increase in development effort? (Use Putnam's model).
a. 2 times
b. 4 times
c. 8 times
d. 16 times
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d. 16 times
10) Boehm observed that "There is a limit beyond which the schedule of a software project cannot be reduced by bu
ying any more personnel or
equipment." This limit occurs roughly at
a. 25% of the nominal time estimate.
b. 50% of the nominal time estimate.
c. 75% of the nominal time estimate.
d. 90% of the nominal time estimate.
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c. 75% of the nominal time estimate.
1) Which one of the following SDLC models would be suitable for use in a moderate-sized project involving custom
ization of a student registration and 1 point
grading package for academic institutions? Assume that the project would be developed by a team of experienced pe
rsonnel and that the schedule for the project
has been very aggressively set.
a) Spiral model
b) Iterative waterfall model
c) V model
d) Agile model
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d) Agile model
2) Which one of the following is not an agile software development methodology?

a) Extreme Programming (XP)
b) Scrum
c) Prototyping model
d) Lean software development
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c) Prototyping model
3) Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following questions during a daily Scrum
meeting?
a) What did you do yesterday?
b) Why are you getting delayed?
c) What will you do today?
d) What obstacles are in your way?
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Why are you getting delayed?
4) Which one of the following is not a Sprint ceremony in Scrum?

a) Sprint planning meeting
b) Daily stand-up meeting
c) Sprint retrospective meeting
d) Project start up meeting
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d) Project start up meeting
5) Which one of the following characteristics of a moderate-sized project would indicate the suitability of the Extre
me Programming (XP) model in
preference to the waterfall model?
a) Stable and well understood requirements
b) Mission critical software
c) Service-oriented project
d) Extremely large project
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Service-oriented project
6) Which one of the following life cycle models is least similar with the waterfall model?
a) Prototyping model
b) V model
c) Spiral model
d) Scrum
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
d) Scrum
7) Which one of the following is not a goal of requirements analysis?

a) Weed out ambiguities in the requirements
b) Weed out inconsistencies in the requirements
c) Weed out non-functional requirements
d) Weed out incompleteness in the requirements
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Weed out non-functional requirements
8) How is agility achieved in the agile model of software development?

a) Elaborate documentation
b) Rigorous planning
c) Avoidance of things that waste time
d) Prototype construction
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Avoidance of things that waste time
9) In the agile model, why are spikes constructed during development?

a) To explore potential solutions
b) To propose a common vision of what is required.
c) To restructure code without affecting behaviour
d) To construct simpler use cases
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
a) To explore potential solutions
10) Which one of the following is false about an iteration in the agile model?
a) A new release is made at the end of each iteration
b) A new release may not be made at the end of some iterations
c) No new functionality may have been incorporated at the end of an iteration
d) Existing functionalities may have been enhanced at the end of an iteration
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b) A new release may not be made at the end of some iterations
1) Which one of the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the project activities
into smaller tasks that are more meaningfully managed?
a) PERT chart
b) GANTT chart
c) Task network representation
d) Work breakdown structure
b)
c)
d)
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
d)
1) Which one of the following may be the highest motivator for a senior manager of a software development organiz
ation?
a) Lunch allowance
b) House rent allowance
c) Company provided car
d) More interesting job assignment at the same pay
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
d) More interesting job assignment at the same pay
2) Which one of the following is the most accurate ranking of human needs as per Maslow?
a) Self actualization; self promotion; social; security and physiological needs
b) Self esteem; self actualization; social; security and physiological
c) Self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological
d) Self fulfillment; self esteem; social; security and physiological
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c) Self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological
3) Which one of the following has been identified by Herzberg as a factor, which, if present, will lead to increased m
otivation.
a) Good supervision
b) Job security
c) Regular promotions
d) Documented company policies
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c) Regular promotions
4) If a team member is finding it extremely stressful, which one of the following stress management techniques woul
d be suggested by a systemic
approach?
a) Rolling head from side to side
b) Change of job role
c) Deep breathing
d) Increased social interactions
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Change of job role
5) Which one is not a factor in job satisfaction according to Oldham-Hackman job characteristics model?
a) Skill variety
b) Task identity
c) Task complexity
d) Task significance
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Task complexity
6) Which one of the following is a "hygiene factor" under Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory?
a) Recognition for excellent work
b) Self-actualization
c) Good relations with co-workers and managers
d) Clean work environment
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Good relations with co-workers and managers
7) Which one of the following types of team organization would be most suitable for a small yet complex project?
a) Chief programmer
b) Democratic
c) Hybrid
d) Squat
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Democratic
8) In which one of the following types of organization is team building likely to be most difficult?
a) Functional
b) Projectized
c) Matrix
d) Hybrid
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
c) Matrix
9) Joy is a software engineer who works for a software development company. The company accepts outsourcing pr
ojects from overseas clients. Each 1 point
time it accepts a project, it sets up a team to handle the project. When the project completes, the team is dissolved an
d the engineers are assigned to other
projects. Which one of the following is the organization structure of Joy's company?
a) Matrix
b) Projectized
c) Functional
d) Hybrid
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
b) Projectized
10) Assume that you are the project manager for a software development project. Sunrise Engineering Works, a hard
ware vendor has intimated you that 1 point
a problem in customs clearance is preventing your network equipment from being delivered on time and may get del
ayed by several months. For handling this risk,
you have arranged for leasing a network equipment from a local company as an interim arrangement. You one of the
following risk response strategies have you
adopted?
a) Transference
b) Acceptance
c) Mitigation
d) Avoidance
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c) Mitigation
1) What is the correct sequence of stages in group development?
Forming, Norming, Performing, Storming
Forming, Norming, Storming, Performing
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing
Forming, Performing, Norming, Storming

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing
2) Which of the following is not a category of conflict?
Goal-oriented
Administrative
Normative
Interpersonal
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Normative
4) Which of the following is not an organizational source of conflict?
Rewards
Grudges
Scarce resources
Uncertainty over lines of authority

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Grudges
5) Defusion is also known as which of the following types of conflict resolution?
Mediate
Arbitrate
Control
Eliminate
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Mediate
6) The process of identifying and documenting relationships among project activities is known I point
Schedule management
Defining activities
Sequencing activities
Estimating activity resources

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Sequencing activities
7) Which of the following is not a project scheduling and controlling technique?
Bar chart
Life cycle curves
Network techniques (PERT/CPM)
House of quality
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
House of quality
8) Which of the following is not true about Critical Path Method (CPM)?
It is a probabilistic technique
The duration of project is fixed
Looping events are not allowed in network

None of the above

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
It is a probabilistic technique
9) PERT is known as
Program Evolution and Research Technique
Program Evaluation and Research Technique
Program Evaluation and Review Technology
Program Evaluation and Review Technique

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Program Evaluation and Review Technique
10)An activity can be represented by
Only one arrow
Two arrows
Three arrows
Any number of arrows

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Only one arrow
1) Which of the following statement is false in crashing network?
Direct cost decreases as project duration decreases
Direct cost increases as project duration decreases

Direct cost decreases as project duration increases
Direct cost increases as project duration increases

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Direct cost increases as project duration decreases
2) An act (i,j) as critical if and only if
Total float = O
Free float = O
Independent float O
All of the above

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
All of the above
4) If the earliest starting time for an activity is 8 weeks, the latest finish time is 37 weeks and
the duration time of the activity is II weeks, then the total float is equal to:
18 weeks
14 weeks
56 weeks
40 weeks
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
18 weeks
5) Earliest finish time can be regarded as
EST + duration of activity
EST - duration of activity
LET + duration of activity
LFT - duration of activity

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
EST + duration of activity
6) Latest start time can be regarded as
LFT + duration of activity
EFT - duration of activity
EFT + duration of activity

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
7) What is the additional time available for the performance of an activity in PERT and CPM
calculated on the basis that all activities will start at their earliest start time, called?
Slack
Total float
Free float
Independent float
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Free float
8) In CPM network critical path denotes the
Path where maximum resources are used
Path where minimum resources are used
Path where delay of one activity prolongs the duration of completion of project
Path that gets monitored automatically
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Path where delay of one activity prolongs the duration of completion of project
9) A dummy activity is used in PERT network to describe

precedence relationship
Necessary time delay

Resource restriction
Resource idleness
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Precedence relationship
10)In PERT, the distribution of activity times is assumed to be:

Normal
o
Gamma
O
Beta
O
Exponential
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Beta
1) Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it 1 point
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of development?
a. Increased documentation overhead
b. Increased development cost
c. Decreased maintainability
d. Increased development time

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
a. Increased documentation overhead
2) A software process model represents which one of the following?
a. The way in which software is developed
b. The way in which software processes data
c. The way in which software is used
d. The way in which software may fail

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
a. The way in which software is developed
4) Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle
(SDLC)?
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Project management
d. Design
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
c. Project management
5) The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the following
phases?
a. Coding and unit testing phase
b. Integration and system testing phase
c. Maintenance phase
d. Design phase
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
6) The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?
b. Integration and system testing phase
d. Design phase
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
7) Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?
a. Implementation phase
b. Testing phase
d. Design phase
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
a. Implementation phase
8) Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development of 1 point
a typical software?
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Designing
d. Specification
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b. Testing
9) Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?
a. Waterfall Model
b.
Recursive Model
c. RAD Model
d. V Model
Score: O
Accepted Answers:
b. Recursive Model
IO Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall model?
a. Design phase to feasibility study phase
b. Implementation phase to design phase
c. Implementation phase to requirements specification phase
d. Design phase to requirements specification phase

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
a. Design phase to feasibility study phase
1) What is a Project?
A series of actions or steps taken in order to achieve a particular end
An individual or collaborative enterprise that is carefully planned to achieve a particular aim
The action of making or manufacturing from components or raw materials, or the process of being so manufactured
All of these

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
An individual or collaborative enterprise that is carefully planned to achieve a particular aim
2) Which of the following is/are TRUE for Projects?
They are complex and unique.
They have a clear goal or set of goals.
They are limited by budget, schedule, and resources.
All of these

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
All of these
3) Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRIJE?
l. The TASK perspective of Project Management emphasizes methods and techniques for planning and control
II. The ORGANIZATIONAL perspective of Project Management emphasizes organization and human relationships.
only I
only II
I and II
None of these

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
I and II
4) Which of the following is FALSE for Agile Project Management strategy?
In the agile environment, projects are the business, while in the traditional environment, the triple constraint of scop
e, resources and schedule, is the main
focus.
In an agile strategy, the project manager takes an outward-facing perspective to facilitate the disintegration of the pr
oject and the business.
Focus is on delivering business results rather than staying within preset boundaries, as the original project boundarie
s will quickly diverge from the business
reality in an uncertain environment.
only I
only II
I and II
None of these

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
only 11
5) Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
l. Project success follows a quadruple constraint, consisting of Time, Cost, Quality and Functionality and Client Sati
sfaction.
II. Key performance indicators are parameters, indicators or values that can be measured to evaluate whether a proje
ct is successful or not where as Success
factors are conditions or factors that must be present for a project to be successful.
Ill. Key performance indicators may be observed and influenced during project execution. Success factors can only
be measured after a project has been
completed.
IV. A perfect project management organization is no guaranty for a successful project. Opposite, unsuccessful proje
ct management may complete a project
successfully.
I and II
only Ill
l, II and IV
All of these

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
All of these
6) Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE?

1 point
l. Project management maturity measurement is a tool to achieve continuous improvement and organizational learni
ng. It is a strategic tool for developing
project management competence and building a project culture characterized by excellence.
II. Measurement of project management maturity will help a company to understand what processes influence comp
etitiveness and what processes need further
development and improvement.
Ill. Benchmarking and best practice definitions within the manufacturing industry have for a long time been regarde
d as a good approach to enhance
competitiveness.
IV. For the measurement of performance of a process, key performance indicators (KPIs) and Success criterion are u
sed.
only I
only IV
I and II
None of these

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
only IV
7) The sub-category of the project management objectives which measures the "Successful influence or impact on th
e society by the project" is termed f point
as
project objective
business objective
social objective
management objective

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
social objective
8) Which of the following Characteristics of the Project Management is TRIJE?
The focal point of the project management is the project manager.
Responsibility, awards, etc., are shared amongst the top management of the project management team.
All projects, which originate at different places, have different goals.
The project manager delivers a particular product/service at his/her desired time.

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
The focal point of the project management is the project manager.
9) Which stage of the of the project management life cycle needs the maximum time of completion?
Conceptualization
Planning
Execution
Termination

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
Execution
10) The Sponsor, the Owner and the User are the three constituent stakeholders of
Project Owner
Project Organization
Project Society
Project Manager

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
Project Owner
1) Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique, commonly known as GERT, is a network analysis technique used i
n project management that allows
analysis of general stochastic networks.
probabilistic treatment both network logic and estimation of activity duration.
analysis of the tasks involved in completing a given project, especially the time needed to complete each task, and to
identify the minimum time needed to
complete the total project.
None of these

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
probabilistic treatment both network logic and estimation of activity duration.
2) The primary difference between PERT/CPM and GERT networks is that
GERT addresses deterministic network only whereas PERT/CPM addresses stochastic or probabilistic networks onl
y.
GERT is represented in diagrammed network whereas PERT/CPM is represented by symbols.
GERT has two types of nodes, deterministic and probabilistic whereas PERT/CPM has one deterministic branch (arr
ow).
There is no such difference. Both are same.

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
GERT has two types of nodes, deterministic and probabilistic whereas PERT/CPM has one deterministic
branch (arrow).
3) GERT is relatively easy to use since it requires only that the project of interest be
diagrammed in network form.
converted to program input data describing the network.

simulated using the prewritten GERTS-IIIZ simulation package.
All of these.

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
All of these.
4) In general, the GERT network is not as sensitive to activity time changes as node branching probability changes.
Of course, if the project activity
times are extremely cost sensitive then a slight alteration in an activity time can affect network (project) cost even th
ough the overall network time might not be
affected significantly.
True
False
May be or May be Not
None of These

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
True
5) One of the unique capabilities available with GERT is
the GERT model is ideal for testing trade-off situations between project time and cost.
the ability to use any one of nine probability distributions for activity times.
GERT networks in general are usually sensitive to outcome probability changes.
All of these

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
All of these
6) Q-GERT is a network modelling technique developed to:
perform data modelling tasks.

provide superior results to deterministic PERT/CPM models.
analyses general stochastic networks.
None of these.

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
analyses general stochastic networks.
7) Which project management technique has features such as probabilistic branching (stochastic models), network lo
oping (feedback loops), multiple
sink nodes (multiple outcomes), and multiple node realization (repeat events)?
PERT
CPM
GERT
DECISION TREES

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
GERT
8)
can model queues at nodes and route items through servers based on user established decision rules.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
Q-GERT
9) One of the key ideas in Goldratt's theory of constraints is to maximize throughput by
balancing the production line, i.e., equal capacity at each operation.

balancing the flow of work in the plant.
maximizing production at each operation.
A and B

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
balancing the flow of work in the plant.
10) An objective in the theory of constraints is to
balance the capacity of each operation in the plant so that all operations will produce at the same pace.
balance the flow of work by allowing the most binding constraint to set the pace for the plant.
balance the capacity of each operation by recognizing the variability within the system.
balance the flow of work by allowing each operation to produce at its own pace.

Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
balance the flow of work by allowing the most binding constraint to set the pace for the plant.
11) How can we define drum, rope and the buffer in a theory of constraints system?
Drum: enforces the pace; Rope: sets the pace; Buffer: protects the pace.
Drum: authorizes production; Rope: enforces the pace; Buffer: sets the pace.
Drum: sets the pace; Rope: enforces the pace; Buffer: protects the pace.
Drum: protects the pace; Rope: sets the pace; Buffer: enforces the pace.
Score: 0
Accepted Answers:
Drum: sets the pace; Rope: enforces the pace; Buffer: protects the pace.
12) A bottleneck is where
the demand on a resource is greater than the capacity of the resource.

the demand on a resource is equal to the capacity of the resource.
buffer inventory should be avoided.
A and B

Score: O
Accepted Answers:
A and B
Solutions for Assignment- 1
1. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?

a. Scope
b. Resources
c. Team
d. Budget
2. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?

a. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.
b. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase
c. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.
d. All the above statements are correct.
3. Effective communication is one of the most important skills required by

a. The project team
b. The management
c. The project Manager
d. The project Contractor
4. Which of the following is not an objective of a project?

a. Scope
b.Schedule
c. Cost
d.Accurate
5. Which of the following is not a basic function of project manager?

a. Controlling
b. Programming
c. Scheduling
d. Directing
6. Project scope defines:
a. A project manager’s visibility to the end date.

b. The magnitude or size of the job.
C. How often a project has been changed.
d. The limits of a project manager’s authority.
7. Which of the following is the definition of a project?

a. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
b. An ongoing activity that is a part of daily operations.
c. Neither A nor B
d. Both A and B
8. Which of the following conditions of a project is wrong?
a. A project is finite
b. Usually complex
c. Repetitive
d. It is unique
9. ___________________ is an organizational structure with specific mandated that that

can include an enterprise-wide perspective?
a. Project Management
b. Project Management Office
c. Functional department
10. Which of the following does not constitute the role of a project manager?
a. Integrator and coordinator
b. Business case approval
c. Project delivery
d. Project planning and controlling
Univ. Roll No:
KIET Group of Institutions

(Department Of Information Technology)
B.Tech, 6th Semester
Online CT-1, (2020-21) Even Semester
Software Engineering (KCS-601)
Duration: 60 Minutes Max. Marks:100
NOTE:
1) Each question carries 2 marks.
2) Every correct answer has weightage of +2 marks and for every wrong answer -0.5 marks will be
deducted.
Q. No. Question Marks CO BL
If limited user participation is available, which model is to be selected?
(a) Waterfall model
1 (b) Spiral model 2 1 1
(c) Iterative enhancement model
(d) all of the mentioned
Statistically, the maximum percentage of errors belong to the following
phase of SDLC
(a) Coding
2 (b) Design
2 1 1
(c) Specifications
(d) Installation and maintenance
Software is a collection of
A. Programs
B. Documentation
3 2 1 2
C. Operating procedures
D. All mentioned
Software Development can start program with general statement of

objectives.
4 2 1 2
A. True
B. False
Reliability is
A. The extent to which a program satisfies its specifications
B. Extent of effort required to learn
5 C. Extent to which a software performs its intended functions 2 1 2
without failure
D. None of mentioned
Feasibility study in SDLC model is carried out to _____?

(a) Check if project is technically feasible
6 (b) Check if project is financially feasible 2 1 2
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Installation guide is type of

7 2 1 2
A. Operating procedure
B. Documentation Manual
C. Software
D. Program
The spiral model was originally proposed by -
(a) Barry Boehm
8 (b) Pressman 2 1 2
(c) Royce
(d) Pressman
Where there is a need of Software Engineering?
(a) For Large Software
9 (b) To reduce Cost 2 1 2
(c) Software Quality Management
Which of the following is not an objective of software verification?
(a) Ensuring that the software development steps are carried out
correctly.
10 (b) Ensuring that correct software has been developed. 2 1 2
(c) Achieving phase containment of errors.
(d) Ensuring that the output produced at a development stage
conform to the outputs of the previous phase.
Product Transition:
A. Quality factors directly affect the operation of software
B. Quality factors to adapt to the change of environments
11 2 1 2
C. Quality factors required for testing and maintenance
Which is part of operating procedure manuals?

A. User manuals
B. Operational manuals
12 2 1 2
C. Documentation manuals
Which of the following is not software characteristic?

A. Software does not wear out
B. Software is flexible
13 2 1 2
C. Software is not manufactured
D. Software is always correct
Management of software development is dependent upon?

A. People
B. Product
14 2 1 2
C. Process
The problems can be contributing to the present software crisis:

I. large problem size
II. lack of rapid progress of software engineering
15 2 1 2
III. lack of intelligent engineers
IV. shortage of skilled manpower
A. Only I
B. II and III
C. I,II,IV
D. Only IV
In a classical waterfall model, which phase precedes the

Requirement Analysis and Specification phase?
A. Coding and unit testing
16 B. Maintenance 2 1 2
C. Design
D. Feasibility study
SDLC is:
A. Systematic process for building software
B. Only for Quality Assurance System
17 2 1 2
C. Same as manufacturing of hardware
In Iterative model requirements are implemented:

A. Sequential Order
B. Priority order
18 2 1 1
C. First Come First Serve
The development is supposed to proceed linearly through the phase in

(a) Spiral model
19 (b) Waterfall model 2 1 2
(c) Prototyping model
Which one is not a step of requirement engineering?
(a) Requirements elicitation
20 (b) Requirements analysis 2 1 1
(c) Requirements design
(d) Requirements documentation
Requirements elicitation means
(a) Gathering of requirements
21 (b) Capturing of requirements 2 1 2
(c) Understanding of requirements
Requirements review process is carried out to
(a) Spend time in requirements gathering
22 (b) Improve the quality of SRS 2 1 2
(c) Document the requirements
Which one of the statements is not correct during requirements
engineering?
(a) Requirements are difficult to uncover
23 (b) Requirements are subject to change
2 1 2
(c) Requirements should be consistent
(d) Requirements are always precisely known.
Which one is not a type of requirements?
24 (a) Known requirements
2 1 3
(b) Unknown requirements
(c) Undreamt requirements
(d) Complex requirements
Which one is not a requirements elicitation technique?
(a) Interviews
25 (b) The use case approach 2 1 2
(c) FAST
(d) Data flow diagram.
FAST stands for
(a) Functional Application Specification Technique
26 (b) Fast Application Specification Technique 2 1 2
(c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
Context diagram explains
(a) The overview of the system
27 (b) The internal view of the system 2 1 2
(c) The entities of the system
Software Process is _____________________ that achieve an end or a
result:
I. A system of operations in producing something
II. a series of actions, changes, or functions
III. about environment setup
28 IV. All mentioned 2 1 3
A. Only I
B. II and III
C. I,II
D. Only IV
SDLC has ___ number of phases

A. 7
29 B. 5 2 1 1
C. 6
D. 8
A software process model represents which one of the following:
A. The way in which software is developed
30 B. The way in which software processes data 2 1 2
C. The way in which software is used
D. The way in which software may fail
Which one of the statements is not correct during requirements

engineering?
A. Requirements are difficult to uncover
31 B. Requirements are subject to change
2 1 1
C. Requirements should be consistent
D. Requirements are always precisely known.
Outcome of requirements specification phase is
A. Design Document
32 B. Software requirements specification 2 1 2
C. Test Document
APIs stand for:
A. Application performance interfaces
33 B. Application programming interfaces
2 1 1
C. Application programming integration
D. Application performance integration
Which of the following is not a feasibility type:
A. Technical
34 B. Programming 2 1 1
C. Operational
D. Legal
The architectural model is derived from which of these sources?
I. Information about the application domain for the software to be built;
II. Specific requirements model elements such as data flow diagrams or
analysis classes, their relationships and collaborations for the problem at
hand;
35 III. The availability of architectural styles and patterns. 2 2 1
A. Only I
B. II and III
C. I,II,III
D. Only II
Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework

activities ?
(a) Communication, planning, modelling, construction, deployment
36 (b) Communication, risk management, measurement, production, 2 2 1
reviewing
(c) Analysis, designing, programming, Debugging, maintenance
(d) Analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing
Many causes of the software crisis can be traced to mythology based on
(a) Management Myths
37 (b) Customer Myths 2 2 2
(c) Practitioner Myths
Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with
each client proposing his or her version is the right one.
38 A. True 2 2 3
B. False
Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?

A. Entry level personnel
39 B. Middle level stakeholder 2 2 1
C. Managers
D. Users of the software
Which of the following is software requirement:
A. Functional Requirement
40 B. User Requirements 2 2 1
C. Customer Requirements
Functional requirements are basic facility demand by user.
41 A. Yes 2 2 2
B. No
Inverse Requirements are:
A. Specify the constraint on non-allowable behavior
42 B. Specify the constraint on allowable behavior 2 2 2
C. Specify the requirements
Software engineering approach is used to achieve:
43 (a) Better performance of hardware
2 2 3
(b) Error free software
(c) Reusable software
(d) Quality software product
A context diagram
A. describes the context of a system
44 B. is a DFD which gives an overview of the system 2 2 1
C. is a detailed description of a system
D. is not used in drawing a detailed DFD
Data cannot flow between two data stores because
45 A. it is not allowed in a DFD 2 2 3

B. a data store is a passive repository of data
C. data can get corrupted
D. they will get merged
Decision Tables are preferred when

A. Too many conditions need to be tested
46 2 2 2
B. Sequencing of testing conditions is important
C. When there are many loops to be performed
D. When too many actions are to be taken
(a) know the cost of the project
47 (b) know the status of the project 2 2 3
(c) know user expectations
(d) none of the above
Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
48 b) Development team & Users 2 2 2
The entity relationship set is represented in E-R diagram as
A. Double diamonds
49 B. Undivided rectangles 2 2 2
C. Dashed lines
D. Diamond
Given the basic ER and relational models, which of the following is
INCORRECT?
A. An attribute of an entity can have more than one value
50 B. An attribute of an entity can be composite 2 2 3
C. In a row of a relational table, an attribute can have more than
one value
D. In a row of a relational table, an attribute can have exactly one
value or a NULL value
Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
A. Performance
51 B. Functionality 2 1 2
C. Design solutions
D. External Interfaces
______________ and ______________ are the two view points
discussed in Controlled Requirements Expression ?
52 A. Functional, Non-Functional 2 2 2
B. User, Developer
C. Known, Unknown
Most suitable model for new technology that is not well understood is:
(a) Waterfall model
53 (b) Build and fix model 2 2 2
(c) Iterative enhancement model
(d) Evolutionary development model
Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the
changes___________________?
54 A. to the environment 2 2 2
B. in technology
C. in customer’s expectations
D. in all of the mentioned.
Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?
i. SRS is written by customer

ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
55 2 2 2
A. Only i is true
B. Both ii and iii are true
C. All are true
. Which of the following is included in SRS ?
A. Cost
56 B. Design Constraints 2 2 2
C. Staffing
D. Delivery Schedule
The SRS document is also known as ________________

specification ?
57 A. black-box 2 2 2
B. white-box
C. grey-box
D. none of the mentioned
Which of the following property does not correspond to a good

Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
58 2 2 2
A. Verifiable
B. Ambiguous
C. Complete
D. Traceable
What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?
A. Identifying Stakeholder
59 B. Listing out Requirements 2 2 2
C. Requirements Gathering
Which of the following statements explains portability in

non-functional requirements ?
A. It is a degree to which software running on one platform can

easily be converted to run on another platform
60 B. It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are 2 2 2
universally available and standardized
C. The ability of the system to behave consistently in a
user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for
which the system was intended
. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
A. Maintainability
61 B. Portability 2 2 2
C. Robustness
Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement
Specification (SRS) document?
(a) Functional Requirement
62 (b) Nonfunctional Requirement
2 2 2
(c) Goals of implementation
(d) Algorithm for software implementation
QFD stands for
(a) quality function design
63 (b) quality function development 2 2 1
(c) quality function deployment
(d) none of the mentioned
“Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and
alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system
is providing ?
A. Functional
64 B. Non-Functional 2 2 1
C. Known Requirement
Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’?

65 A. True 2 2 1
B. False
66 Select the developer-specific requirement ? 2 2 1
A. Portability
B. Maintainability
C. Availability
D. Both Portability and Maintainability
. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement

engineering ?
A. elicitation
67 2 1 2
B. design
C. analysis
D. documentation
By levelling a DFD we mean
(a) splitting it into different levels
(b) make its structure uniform
68 (c) expanding a process into one with more sub-processes giving more 2 1 2
detail
(d) summarizing a DFD to specify only the essentials
The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
A. SDD
69 B. SRS 2 1 2
C. DDD
D. SRD
Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing

environment is called
A. adaptive maintenance
70 2 1 2
B. corrective maintenance
C. perfective maintenance
D. preventive maintenance
The reason for software bugs and failures is due to____________.
A. Software Developers
71 2 1 2
B. Software companies
C. Both A and B
Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
A. licensing
72 B. processing time 2 1 2
C. responsiveness
D. memory utilization
Which of the following is the Characteristics of good software?
A. Transitional
73 B. Operational 2 1 2
C. Maintenance
D. All of the above
Software consists of
A.Set of instructions + operating procedures
B.Programs + documentation + operating procedures
74 C.Programs + hardware manuals 2 1 2
D. Set of programs
Where is alpha testing done

A. Software Company
B.Installation place
75 C.Any where 2 1 2
D.None of the above
Which of the following is not a point of concern for Software

engineering?
A.Quality of Software
76 2 1 2
B.Time taken to complete the software
C.User Interface of the software
D.Customer satisfaction
Management of software development is dependent upon ?
A.People
77 B.Product 2 1 2
C.Process
D.All of above
Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ?
A.Software does not wear out
78 B.Software is flexible 2 1 2
C.Software is not manufactured
D.Software is always correct
The attribute due to which Software uses less resources is
A. Reliability
79 B. Maintainability 2 1 2
C. Efficiency
D. Portability
Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a
developer’s module ?
A. Availability
80 2 1 2
B. Testability
C. Usability
D. Flexibility
The first phase of software development is
A. Coding
81 B. Testing 2 1 2
C. Design
D. Requirement Analysis
Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of
software processes?
A. Software development
82 2 1 2
B. Software dependence
C. Software validation
D. Software specification
More the delay in removal of errors and bugs
A. Less is the cost of removal
B. More is the cost of removal
83 2 1 2
C. No relation of cost to the removal of errors and bugs
D. None of these
What are attributes of good software ?
A. Software functionality
84 2 1 2
B. Software development
C. Software maintainability
D. Both A and C
It is better to remove the errors and bugs in
A. Requirement phase
85 B. Testing Phase 2 1 2
C. Design Phase
D. Coding Phase
Intangibility is that property of Software
A. Which relates to quality of software
B. Which relates to the non-existence of the solution to the
86 current problem and its uncertainty of the development 2 1 2
process.
C. Which related to customer satisfaction
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good software
design?
A. Correctness
87 2 1 2
B. Understandability
C. Complex design
D. Efficiency
Which of the following statements is true?
i. A software once deployed cannot be modified later on.
ii. A software product is the deliverable program that can
be presented in front of the customer.
88 A. Only i is true 2 1 2
B. Only ii is true
C. Both i and ii are true
D. None of them is true
Coders are generally not employed in testing
A. They cannot do testing
B. They will not be able to track bugs in their own codes
89 effectively as a different team will be able to do. 2 1 2
C. They are involved in other activities
D. None of the above.
Objective of Software Engineering is to produce a Software that is

A. maintainable,
90 B. delivered on time 2 1 2
C. within budget
D. All the above.
Soon after the customer approaches for a project
A. Software Development can start and requirements may

be later collected
91 B. We need to work out complete requirement set and then 2 1 2
start with the implementation activities.
C. We can ask the customer about the cost if customer
agrees we can do coding
The application of systematic, disciplined and quantifiable approach

to the development, operation, and maintenance of software is
called
92 A. Software Reliability 2 1 2
B. Software System
C. Engineering System
D. Software Engineering
Generic Software is developed

A. For a specific customer
B. To be sold to defence needs
93 2 1 2
C. To be sold to different customers
D. For hospital needs
Testing of Software
A. Ensures removal of all bugs
B. Ensures that non fault is there in the software
94 C. Ensures the quality of software 2 1 2
D. Ensures that the software will never fail
Documentation in Software
A. Creates a better quality software
95 B. Consumes a lot of time and effort which is wasteful 2 1 2
C. Increases the time of development
D. Is of little help
Which model is most popular for student’s small projects?
(a) Waterfall model
96 (b) Spiral model 2 1 2
(c) Quick and fix model
(d) Prototyping model
Waterfall model is not suitable for
(a) small projects
97 (b) accommodating change 2 1 2
(c) complex projects
(d) none of the above
If requirements are frequently changing, which model is to be selected?
(a) Waterfall model
98 (b) Prototyping model 2 1 2
(c) RAD model
(d) Iterative enhancement model
Project risk factor is considered in
(a) Waterfall model
99 (b) Prototyping model 2 1 2
(c) Spiral model
(d) Iterative enhancement model
Effort is measured in terms of:
(A) Person-months
100 (B) Rupees 2 1 2
(C) Persons
(D) Months
KIET Group of Institutions
(Department Of Information Technology)
IT, 6 th sem
Question Bank
Q. No. Question
Which of the following is reason of Software Crisis?
(i) Software development is personalized
(ii) Maintenance is easy
(iii) Easily traceable
1 A. Only (i) is true
B. Only (ii) is true
C. Only (iii) is true
D. All (i), (ii) and (iii) is true
ANSWER: A
Cost of hardware and software is _________ by the time
A. Increased
B. Decreased
2 C. Can’t Say
ANSWER: B
Factors directly affect the operation of software are:
A. Product Transition Factors
B. Product Revision Factors
3 C. Product Operation Factors
ANSWER: B
First phase of waterfall model is
A. Feasibility Study
B. Requirement Engineering
4 C. Design
ANSWER: A
Spiral model is invented by:
A. Barry Bohem
B. Halstead
5 C. J. Mccabe
Answer: A
Waterfall model is good:
A. For changing requirements
B. For phase wise getting requirements
6 C. Requirements are well known
Answer: A
SDLC:
System Development Life Cycle
Software Development Life Cycle
7
Software Deployment Life Cycle
None of mentioned
Answer. B
Evolutionary models are:
(i) Iterative
(ii) Non Linear
(iii) Incremental
8 A. (i) and (iii) is true
B. (i) and (ii) is true
C. (i), (ii) and (iii) is true
D. (ii) and (iii) is true
ANSWER. B.
In Iterative model:
(i) Parallel development can be done
(ii) Easier to mange risk
(iii) Less costly to change requirement
9 A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
B. (i) and (iii) are true
C. (i) and (ii) are true
D. (ii) and (iii) are true
ANSWER: A.
Customer able to see partial product in Early Life Cycle
A. Waterfall Model
B. Spiral Model
10
C. Prototype Model
D. Software Development Life Cycle
ANSWER: C.
Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but
software does tend to deteriorate as it evolves, because
A. Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments.
B. Defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often.
11 C. Multiple change requests introduce errors in component
interactions.
D. Software spare parts become harder to order.
Answer: C
Engineering uses
(i) (i) Methods
(ii) (ii) Procedures
(iii) Tools
(iv) Standards
12 A. Only (i) is true
B. Only (ii) is true
C. Only (iii) is true
D. All are true
Installation guide is type of

A. Operating procedure
B. Documentation Manual
13 C. Software
D. Program
Answer. A
Evolutionary life cycle model is good for:
A. Small products
B. Medium size product
14
C. Large products
ANSWER A.
Which of the following is an example of Software Failure?
A. Y2K Problem
B. Production Failure
15
C. Machine Failure
ANSWER A
Zero level DFD is called Context diagram
A. True
16 B. False
Answer: A
In ER diagram, ternary cardinality shows relationship among ____ entity
A. 2
B. 3
17 C. 1
ANSWER: B
ISO is:
18 (i) Specific to Software industry
(ii) Not specific to any industry
(iii) The base level of a quality system
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) is true
B. (ii) and (iii) is true
C. (i) and (iii) is true
D. (i) and (ii) is true
ANSWER: B
Which of the following level establish the plans and strategies to develop
a quantitative analysis:
A. Level-5
19 B. Level-3
C. Level-2
D. Level-4
ANSWER C
Full form of SQA is
A. Software Quality Audit
B. Software Quality Assurance
20
C. Software Quality Assessment
ANSWER B
Which of the following is SQA technique:
A. Auditing
B. Design Inspection
21 C. Code Inspection
D. All mentioned
ANSWERD
SRS is said to be unambiguous if:
A. All requirements are correct
B. All requirements are consistent
22
C. All requirements have only 1 interpretation
ANSWER C
Modifiability in SRS is:
A. Capable to accept changes
B. Properly Indexed
23
C. Cross-Referenced
D. All Mentioned
ANSWER: D
Testability in SRS helps:
A. To test the system in testing phase
B. Made easy to generate test cases and test plans
24
C. To test the system in all phases
ANSWER: B
SRS contains
A. Functional Requirements
B. Non-Functional Requirements
25 C. Constraint Requirements
D. All mentioned
ANSWER D
Outcome of requirements specification phase is

A. Design Document
B. Software requirements specification
26 C. Test Document
ANSWER B
Which one is not a step of requirement engineering?

A. Requirements elicitation
B. Requirements analysis
27
C. Requirements design
D. Requirements documentation
ANSWER C
Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
A. Entry level personnel
B. Middle level stakeholder
28
C. Managers
D. Users of the software
ANSWER D
Inverse Requirements are:
29
A. Specify the constraint on non-allowable behavior
B. Specify the constraint on allowable behavior
C. Specify the requirements
ANSWER B
Which one is not a requirements elicitation technique?
A. Interviews
B. The use case approach
30
C. FAST
D. Data flow diagram
ANSWER B
Which of the following is decreasing order of coupling?
A. Content, common, external, stamp
B. Common, content, stamp external
31
C. External, control, Data
D. Common, Control, Data
ANSWER D
Coupling is:
A. Independence between two modules
B. Interdependence between two modules
32 C. Strength of modules
ANSWER B
What is the meaning of Functional Cohesion?
A. Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in
same procedures.
B. All operations that access the same data are defined within one
33
class.
C. All operations that access the data from outside the module.
ANSWER: A.
Which is the most desirable form of coupling?
A. Control coupling
B. Data coupling
34
C. Common coupling
D. Stamp coupling
ANSWER: B.
Abstraction is higher in:
Upper-level modules
Lower-levels module
At any level abstraction can be high
35
None of mentioned
ANSWER A
In Top Down Strategy, design start from

Detailed Design
Module Design
36
Abstract Design
Low Level Design
ANSWERC
Hash Directives, blank lines and comments in Halstead Measures are:
A. Counted as operand
B. Counted as operator
37 C. Ignored
D. blank lines and comments as operand/ hash directives as
operator
ANSWER: C
Function point method was developed by
A. B.Boehm
B. M.halstead
38 C. B.Beizer
D. Alan Albrecht
ANSWER D
How many domain values are used in Function point:
A. 4
B. 3
39
C. 2
D. 5
ANSWER: D
The valid reasons for measuring software processes, products and
resources are: (i) to evaluate (ii) to improve (iii) No benefit
A. (i) and (ii) is true
40 B. (ii) and (iii) is true
C. (i) and (iii) is true
D. (i), (ii) and (iii) all are false
ANSWER: A
Advantage of LOC is
A. LOC gives exact value
B. LOC is language dependent
41
C. LOC is done in Analysis phase
D. It is easy to calculate
ANSWER: D
CAF in function point stands for:
A. Complex Adjust Factor
B. Complexity Adjustment Factor
42
C. Complexity Average Factor
ANSWER B
No. of Enquiries in function point measure is same as Inputs taken.
A. True
43
B. False
ANSWER: B
Pseudo Code is:
A. Need the compilation
B. No need of knowledge of programming language
44
C. Need specific programming language background
ANSWER B
Object Oriented Design System is:
A. Collection of classes
B. Collection of Objects
45
C. Collection of Data and methods both
ANSWER B
In walkthrough, focus is on:
A. Discover Errors
B. Solution to correct error
46
C. Developer is also evaluated
ANSWER: A
Static testing is done:
A. By executing the code
B. Non-execution techniques
47
C. Can use both execution and non-execution
ANSWER: B
Requirement document, Design testing is done using:
A. Unit Testing
B. Integration Testing
48
C. Static testing
ANSWER: C
Cyclomatic complexity is used to measure
A. Path Complexity
B. Logical Complexity
49
C. Statement Complexity
ANSWER: B
Cyclomatic complexity for a flow graph can be computed as:
A. V(G)=e+n-2
B. V(G)=e+n+2
50
C. V(G)=e-n+2
D. V(G)=e-n-2
ANSWER: C
All statement of code execution ensures that
A. Every decision will be executed once
B. Every path is executed
51
C. Every branch is executed
ANSWER: A
52 Beta Test is conduct in:
A. Controlled Environment
B. Friendly Environment
C. End User Environment
ANSWER: C
In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in
order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40
marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the
exam.
53 A. 22, 23, 26
B. 21, 39, 40
C. 29, 30, 31
D. 0, 15, 22
ANSWER: C
System Testing follows:
A. Functional Testing Technique
B. Structural Testing Technique
54
C. Non-functional Testing Technique
ANSWER: A
Non-functional Testing is done in:
A. Unit Testing phase
B. Integration Testing Phase
55
C. System Testing Phase
ANSWER: C
If any bug is fixed or new functionality is added:
A. Security Testing is done
B. Regression Testing is done
56
C. Usability Testing is done
D. Stress Testing is done
ANSWER: B
For unit testing of a module, there is a need of: (i) Driver (ii) Stub (iii)
Neither Stub nor Driver
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
B. (ii) and (iii) are true
57
D. (i) and (iii) is true
ANSWER: C
Sandwich Integration use

A. Only Bottom up
B. Only top down
58
C. Bottom up and Top Down
D. Neither Bottom up Nor Top Down
ANSWER: C
Validation to ensure that
A. Software is traceable to requirements
B. Software is traceable to design
59
C. Software is perfectly working
ANSWER: A
Black box testing uncovers the (i) Incorrect functions (ii) Missing functions
(iii) Independent paths
A. All True
60 B. i and iii are true
C. ii and iii are true
D. i and ii are true
ANSWER: D
Risk Management is:
A. Minimizing the impact of risk
B. Do not work on risk elements
61
C. Done when risk comes
D. Done of mentioned
ANSWER: A.
Risk is:
A. Event which surely occur
B. Probabilistic event
62
C. Event which will not occur in any situation if handled
ANSWER: B.
63
Risk Assessment is done:
A. After the project is developed
B. When problem occur then assessed
C. At the time of project planning
ANSWER: C.
In Risk Assessment: (i) Prioritize the risk (ii) Identify the risk (iii) Solve the
risk
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
64 B. (ii) and (iii) are true
D. (i) and (iii) is true
ANSWER: C
During the change control object to be changed is:
A. Checked in to project database to do changes
B. No baseline criteria
65
C. Checked out from project database for changes
ANSWER: C.
Synchronization control helps during change control:
A. No change is allowed
B. Any one can change in baseline
66
C. Allow to do parallel changes
ANSWER: C
If change request is approved by Change control authority then:
A. Engineering Change Order is generated
B. Effective Change Order is generated
67
C. Escalate Change Order is generated
ANSWER: A
Design specification in Configuration Management is the:
A. Basic Object
B. Aggregate Object
68
C. Intra Object
D. Inter Object
ANSWER: B.
What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
A. Change control
69 B. Version control
C. SCIs
ANSWER: B
____ is created in same version for support different feature
A. Multiple version
B. Variation
70
C. Variant
ANSWER: C
Before Re-engineering, It is necessary to:
i. Study Code
ii. No need to see overall control flow
iii. Use modern design techniques
71
A. All true
B. i. and ii is true
C. i, iii is true
D. ii and iii is true
ANSWER: C.
The main activity of reverse engineering is called
A. restructure code
B. directionality
72
C. extract abstractions
D. interactivity
ANSWER: C.
Software Evolution includes:
A. Always developing a new software
B. Add or remove obsolete functionalities
73
C. Doing negotiation with client
ANSWER: B.
Software Maintenance is done:
A. During the development after the analysis phase
B. After the delivery of software
74
C. After the design phase
ANSWER: B.
Adaptive Maintenance is done:
A. To make software product usable with changed environment
B. Imposed by internal environment
75
C. Often requested by client
ANSWER: A.
1. Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people,
process, and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an
operational implementation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None
2. Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?
a) people
b) product
c) popularity
d) process
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s: people,
product, process, and project.
3. PM-CMM stands for
a) people management capability maturity model
b) process management capability maturity model
c) product management capability maturity model
d) project management capability maturity model
Answer: a
Explanation: The people management maturity model defines the following key practice
areas for software people: recruiting, selection, performance management, training,
compensation, career development, organization and work design, and team/culture
development.
4. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?
a) project control
b) project management
c) project planning
d) project design
Answer: d
Explanation: The design part of any project management is done by the project team.
5. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for
software development can be established.
a) people
b) product
c) process
Answer: c
Explanation: A small number of framework activities are applicable to all software
projects, regardless of their size or complexity.
6. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an
application?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation
that occurs when using the random paradigm?
a) asynchronous paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
Answer: b
Explanation: Open paradigm team structures are well suited to the solution of complex
problems but may not perform as efficiently as other teams.
9. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?
a) Problem solving
b) Organization
c) Motivation
Answer: d
Explanation: For this reason, competent practitioners often make poor team leaders.
10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the
team members?
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
11. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?
a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical
d) Critical
Answer: d
Explanation: Critical is no such standard approach of cost estimation.
12. Which of the following is the valid component of the predictor?
a) data
b) question
c) algorithm
Answer: d
Explanation: A prediction is a statement about the future.
13. Point out the wrong statement.
a) In Sample Error is also called generalization error
b) Out of Sample Error is the error rate you get on the new dataset
c) In Sample Error is also called resubstitution error
Answer: a
Explanation: Out of Sample Error is also called generalization error.
14. Which of the following is correct order of working?
a) questions->input data ->algorithms
b) questions->evaluation ->algorithms
c) evaluation->input data ->algorithms
Answer: a
Explanation: Evaluation is done in the last.
15. Which of the following shows correct relative order of importance?
a) question->features->data->algorithms
b) question->data->features->algorithms
c) algorithms->data->features->question
Answer: b
Explanation: Garbage in should be equal to garbage out.
16. Point out the correct statement.
a) In Sample Error is the error rate you get on the same dataset used to model a predictor
b) Data have two parts-signal and noise
c) The goal of predictor is to find signal
Answer: d
Explanation: Perfect in sample prediction can be built.
17. Which of the following is characteristic of best machine learning method?
a) Fast
b) Accuracy
c) Scalable
Answer: d
Explanation: There is always a trade-off in prediction accuracy.
18. True positive means correctly rejected.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: True positive means correctly identified.
19. Which of the following trade-off occurs during prediction?
a) Speed vs Accuracy
b) Simplicity vs Accuracy
c) Scalability vs Accuracy
Answer: d
Explanation: Interpretability also matters during prediction.
20. Which of the following expression is true?
a) In sample error < out sample error
b) In sample error > out sample error
c) In sample error = out sample error
Answer: a
Explanation: Out of sample error is given more importance.
21. Backtesting is a key component of effective trading-system development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Backtesting is the process of applying a trading strategy or analytical
method to historical data to see how accurately the strategy or method would have
predicted actual results.
22. Interviews are conversations with _______

a) fun
b) purpose
c) friendliness
d) informality
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Interviews are conversations with purpose. For the
employer the purpose is to determine the most suitable person for the job.
23. A job interview is a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Interview is a formal face-to-face meeting. A job interview is
a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer.
24. All job interviews have the same objective.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. All job interviews have the same objective, but employers
reach that objective in a variety of ways.
25. Which of these is not a type of interview?

b) Stress interview
c) Music interview
d) Lunch interview
Answer: c
Explanation: Interviews can be of nine types: They are Screening interview, stress interview,
behavioural interview, the audition, group interview, telephone, lunch interview, video interview
and sequential interview.
26. Which kind of interview includes a process in which the employability of the job applicant is
evaluated?
a) Stress interview
b) Screening interview
c) Group interview
d) Behavioural interview
Answer: b
Explanation: In the screening interview, companies use screening tools to ensure that candidates
meet minimum qualification requirements.
27. How many styles are used in a screening interview?

a) Two
b) Five
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two styles used in a screening interview. They are: the directive style and
the meandering style.
28. In which of these interviews, insults are common?

b) Stress interview
c) Behavioural interview
d) Group interview
Answer: b
Explanation: In stress interview, insults and miscommunication is common. All this is designed
to see whether you have the mettle to withstand the company culture or other potential stress.
29. Which of these interviews is adapted for computer programmers?

a) The stress interview
b) The group interview
c) The screening interview
d) The audition
Answer: d
Explanation: For some positions such as computer programmers or trainers, companies want to
see you in action before they make their decision. Here, the audition type is adapted.
30. In which of these, more than one candidate is interviewed?

a) The behavioural interview
b) The stress interview
c) The group interview
d) The audition
Answer: c
Explanation: In group interview, more than one candidate is interviewed. Interviewing
simultaneously with other candidates can be disconcerting, but it provides the company with a
sense of your leadership potential and style.
31. Which of these interviews is taken for a candidate far away?

a) Lunch interview
b) Telephone
c) Stress interview
d) Group interview
Answer: b
Explanation: Many organizations will conduct jnterviews by telephone to narrow a field of
candidates. Telephone interviews may also be used as a preliminary interview for candidates
who live far away.
32. Which of the following is the numerator of factor safety formula?
a) Working stress
b) Shear stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Ultimate stress
Answer: d
Explanation: Factor of safety is defined as ratio of ultimate stress and working stress. It is
also called as factor of ignorance. The factor of safety is dependent on the type of load.
33. Which of the following can be the factor of safety for a dead load?
a) 6
b) 2
c) 4
d) 7
Answer: c
Explanation: For dead load, the range in which the factor of safety can lie is 4 to 5.
Therefore only 4 lies in that range and 6, 2, 7 are all values which are beyond that range.
34. Which of the following can be the factor of safety for shock loading?
a) 11
b) 13
c) 4
d) 7
Answer: b
Explanation: For shock loading, the range in which the factor of safety can lie is 12 to 15.
Therefore only 13 lies in that range and 11, 4, 7 are all values which are beyond that
range.
35. Factor of safety is used to find out the reliability of the design.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Factor of safety tells us about how much load the material can take before it
fails. Basically, it states the load carrying capacity of a material beyond the actual load.
36. What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one?
a) It means that the structure will fail under load
b) It means that the structure will only support the actual load
c) it means that the structure will support more than the actual load
d) There is no relation between factor safety and load application
Answer: b
Explanation: When the factor of safety is one it means that the ultimate stress is equal to
the working stress and therefore the body can only support load up to actual load and no
more before failing.
37. For which of the following design factor of safety the design will work properly?
a) 0.1
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0.9
Answer: c
Explanation: If the design factor of safety is not more than 1 then the design may not
work and will fail under certain conditions.
38. What is a safe factor of failure for a component which on failure can result in financial
loss or serious injury?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: For components which on failing can be hazardous and can lead to serious
injuries, death and financial loss, the factor of safety should be taken equal to or more
than 4.
39. Design factor for most aircraft structures is 2.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The design factor of safety for most aircraft structures or components is
taken to be 1.5 and not 2. More factors affect this value, but it is most of the time taken as
1.5.
40. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility
a) Confidentiality
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights
Answer: c
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the confidentiality of their employers or
clients irrespective of whether or not a formal confidentiality agreement has been signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing the use of intellectual property such as
patents, copyright, etc.
41. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s
computers.”Here the term misuse refers to:
a) Unauthorized access to computer material
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
42. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per
the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics?
a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the
highest professional standards possible
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the
client
d) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
43. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the
system
b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
44. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall
a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favour.”
b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their
client and employer consistent with the public interest and shall ensure that their products
and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible.Thus options a
& c are ruled out.
45. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
b) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”
Answer: c
Explanation:None.
a) responsiveness
b) licensing
d) processing time
Answer: b
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes under corporate part of the software
company.
47. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53%
overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are
94 restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
Answer: a
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a
covers them both.
48. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to
a) Software companies
b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers
Answer: c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for making policies and providing
working atmosphere for the software development, so in turn these companies become a
part of software development process.Bugs from developers side is no new thing. Thus
option c answers the question.
49. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry
about the quality of the product.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the several factors that determine the
quality of the product.
50. Fading channel has memory.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Fading channel has memory and the received samples are correlated
with each other in time.
51. How can frequency selective distortion be minimized?
a) By using pilot signal
b) By adaptive equalization
c) By spread spectrum
Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency selective distortion can be minimized by using adaptive
equalization, by using spread spectrum, by using pilot signal and also by using
orthogonal FDM modulation.
52. How can slow fading be minimized?
a) By diversity technique
b) Error correcting codes
c) By diversity technique & Error correcting codes
Answer: c
Explanation: Slow fading can be minimized by using error correcting codes and also
by using diversity technique to get additional uncorrelated estimates of a signal.
53. Fast fading can be minimized by
a) Robust modulation
b) Coding and interleaving
c) Robust modulation, Coding and interleaving
Answer: c
Explanation: Fast fading can be minimized by using coding and interleaving, by using
robust modulation and by introducing signal redundancy to increase signalling rate.
54. The decision feedback equalizer has a linear traversal filter which is
a) Feed forward section
b) Feedback section
c) Feed forward section & Feedback section
Answer: a
Explanation: The decision feedback filter has a feed forward section which is a linear
traversal filter.
55. Decision making needs
a) Priors
b) Likelihoods
c) Priors & Likelihoods
Answer: c
Explanation: Decision making needs both priors and likelihoods and Bayes decision rule
combines them to achieve minimum probability of error.
56. Why is Software architecture so important?
a) Communication among stakeholders
b) Early Design decisions
c) Transferable abstraction of a system
Answer: d
Explanation: Reasons of the architecture to be important are all the mentioned above.
57. Why is software architecture called vehicle for stakeholder communication?
a) Each stakeholder of a software system is concerned with different characteristics of the
system affected by architecture
b) Architecture provides a common language in which different concerns can be
expressed
c) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are correct.
58. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?
a) An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture
b) The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components
c) An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed
components
Answer: c
Explanation: An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the
structural decisions described by the architecture, the implementation must be divided
into prescribed components.
59. Why does architecture dictates organizational structure?
a) Architecture describes the structure of the system being developed which becomes
engraved in the development project structure
b) An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture
c) Architecture may not describe structure as whole
Answer: a
Explanation: Architecture describes the structure of the system being developed
which becomes engraved in the development project structure.
60. Which of the following is right dependence relationship?
a) Performance depends on how strongly components are coupled with other components
in system
b) Re-usability depends on the volume and complexity of the inter-component
communication and coordination
c) Modifiability depends on system’s modularization
Answer: c
Explanation: Performance depends on the volume and complexity of the inter-
component communication and coordination, re-usability depends on how strongly
components are coupled with other components in system and modifiability depends
on system’s modularization.
61. Which of the following is correct for decisions made at life cycle level?
a) Decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding, implementation
affect system quality
b) Decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding, implementation
may or may not affect system quality
c) Decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding,implementation
does not affect system quality
Answer: a
Explanation: Decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding,
implementation affect system quality
62. Is it possible to make quality predictions about a system based solely on evaluation of its
architecture?
a) Yes
b) No
c) May be
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes it is possible to make quality predictions about a system based
solely on evaluation of its architecture.
63. Every possible architecture partition possible changes into which of the following
categories?
a) Local
b) Non Local
c) Architectural
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are true.
64. Which change is accomplished by modifying a single component?
a) A local change
b) Non Local Change
c) Architectural change
Answer: a
Explanation: A local change is accomplished by modifying a single component.
65. An architecture help in evolutionary prototyping in which of the following ways?
a) Potential performance problem can be identified early in the product’s life cycle
b) The system is executable early in the product’s life cycle
c) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: All the mentioned are the valid ways.
66. Which of the following are software structures?
a) Module Structure
b) Conceptual or logical structure
c) Process structure
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned are the valid structures.
67. Which structure describes units as abstraction of system’s functional requirements?
a) Conceptual structure
b) Module structure
c) Physical structure
d) Calls structure
Answer: a
Explanation: Conceptual structure-describes units as abstraction of system’s
functional requirements.
68. Which structure’s view is orthogonal to the module and conceptual view?
a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure
c) Uses Structure
d) Data flow
Answer: b
Explanation: Process Structure-view is orthogonal to the module and conceptual
view.
69. Which structure’s view shows the mapping of software onto hardware?
a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure
c) Physical Structure
d) Class Structure
Answer: c
Explanation: Physical Structure- view shows the mapping of software onto hardware.
70. Which structure describes units are programs or module?
a) Calls Structure
b) Uses Structure
c) Data Flow
d) Control Flow
Answer: d
Explanation: Control Flow-structure describes units are programs or module.
71. Which of these is the external sound present in the channels of communication?
a) Noise
c) Cultural barriers
d) Over communication
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise is the external sounds present in the channels of
communication, which results in the reduction of the audibility or omission of
some words from the message.
72. Which of these should not be avoided for effective communication?
a) Noise
b) Planning
c) Semantic problems
d) Wrong assumptions
Answer: b
Explanation: Lack of planning must be avoided for effects communication. There
are innumerable examples of people who would give an ill planned, long winding
lecture while a short presentation with tables or graphs would be sufficient.
73. __________ are problems arising from expression.
a) Cultural barriers
c) Wrong assumptions
d) Selecting perception
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct statement is: Semantic problems are problems arising
from expression or transmission of meaning in communication
74. Both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Both encoding and decoding of message are
influenced by our emotions. Emotions play a very important role in our lives.
75. In which of these problems, is the actual message lost in the abundance of transmitted
information?
a) Selecting perception
b) Over communication
c) Under communication
d) Filtering
Answer: b
Explanation: In the case of over communication, the actual message is lost in the
jungle of information whereas in under communication the sender is blamed for
sharing less information
76. Communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Communication should serve as a conflict-
reduction exercise. When people start competing for the fulfillment of their
narrow interests communication suffers.
77. _______ means to impart understanding of the message.
a) Encoding
b) Receiver
c) Decoding
d) Feedback
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct statement is: Decoding means to impart understanding
of the message. Receiver has to identify the person, words symbols, etc..
78. When is the communication process complete?
a) When the sender transmits the message
b) When the message enters the channel
c) When the message leaves the channel
d) When the receiver understands the message.
Answer: d
Explanation: Communication is complete only when the receiver understands the
message. Many communication problems arise because of misunderstandings.
79. ______ is the first enemy of communication.
a) Noise
b) Clarity
c) Politeness
d) Completeness
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Noise is the first and foremost enemy of
communication. Every possible effort must be made to eliminate the element of
noise that distorts communication.
80. Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?
a) Sharing of activity
b) Listening
c) Ambiguity
d) Politeness
Answer: c
Explanation: Ambiguity must be avoided. Clarity and crispness of the message is
very important. The sender of the message should be careful to see that the
receiver does not have to go beyond the text of the message.
81. Which of these is not a commandment of effective communication?
a) Clarity in language
b) Listen poorly
c) Home communication skills
d) Adequate medium
Answer: b
Explanation: In order to ensure an effective communication one must take care of
ten commandments: Clarity in language, home communication skills, listen
attentively, etc..
82. ___________ is increasing Leadership rapidly:

A. Strategy
B. Command
C. Control
D. Getting others to follow
Answer: D
83. Regarding leadership, which statement is false?

A. Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an organisation
B. When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined
C. Not every leader is a manager
D. All of the above
Answer: B
84. __________ are the approaches to the study of leadership which emphasise the
personality of the leader:
A. Contingency theories
B. Group theories
C. Trait theories
D. Inspirational theories
Answer: C
85. The effectiveness of a leader is dependent upon meeting _______ areas of need within
the workgroup:
A. One
B. Three
C. Five
Answer: B
86. Needs, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing sub-leaders
according to Adair’s approach, called as:
A. Work functions
B. Task functions
C. Individual functions
D. Team functions
Answer: D
87. The Ohio State Leadership Studies revealed _____________ and initiating structure as
two major dimensions of leadership behaviour:
A. Control
B. Communication
C. Collaboration
D. Consideration
Answer: D
88. _________ used the terms “employee-centred” and “production-centred” to describe
leader behaviour:
A. Blake and McCanse
B. Fiedler
C. McGregor
D. Likert
Answer: D
89. Identify the four main styles of leadership displayed by the manager which identified in
Tannenbaum and Schmidt’s continuum of possible leadership behaviour:
A. Tells, help, joins and leads
B. Commands, sells, consults and resists
C. Tells, sells, consults and joins
D. Commands, help, joins and leads
Answer: C
90. Contingency theories of leadership based upon:

A. That there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
B. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers
C. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
Answer: A
91. Leaders with a low LPC score gain satisfaction from _______________ according to
Fiedler’s LPC scale:
A. Developing team relationships
B. Achieving objectives
C. Both of these
Answer: B
92. Model of leadership based on which aspects of a leader’s decision is Vroom and
Yetton’s contingency?
A. Decision acceptance
B. Decision quality
C. Both of these
Answer: C
93. An individual’s motivation is dependent on:
A. Whether path-goal relationships are clarified
B. Expectations that increased effort to achieve an improved level of performance will be
successful
C. Their effective performance
D. The necessary direction, guidance, training and support is provided
Answer: B
94. A firm that chooses a cost-leadership business strategy focuses on gaining advantages
by reducing its costs to a level equal to all of its competitors.
True/ False
Answer: False
95. A cost-leadership competitive strategy helps reduce the threat of entry by creating cost-based
barriers to entry.
True/False
Answer: True
96. Cost leadership and product differentiation are so widely recognized that they are often
called generic business strategies.
True/False
Answer: True
97. Firms implementing cost-leadership strategies will generally adopt what is known as a
functional organizational structure.
True/False
Answer: True
98. In general, economies of scale and diseconomies of scale are relatively easy-to-duplicate
bases of cost leadership.
True/False
Answer: True
99. The best example of a firm following a cost-leadership business strategy is
(A) Wal-Mart
(B) Rolls Royce
(C) Mercedes Benz.
(D) .Macy’s
Answer: A) Wal-Mart
100. Cost-leadership and product-differentiation strategies are so widely recognized that
they are often called
(A) common business strategies.
(B) generic business strategies.
(C) generic corporate strategies
(D) common corporate strategies.
Answer: B) generic business strategies.
101. Compensation at cost-leadership firms is usually tied directly to product innovation and
customer service efforts.
True/ False
Answer: False
102. Cost leadership as a strategy requires a firm to __.
(A). aim at a cost advantage in a niche market
(B). be unique in its product offering
(C). aggressively search out efficiencies to maintain the lowest cost structure
(D). aim to be similar to its competition in most operations
Answer: (C). aggressively search out efficiencies to maintain the lowest cost structure
103. Firms implementing cost-leadership strategies will generally adopt a
(A) multidivisional structure.
(B) functional organizational structure.
(C) product divisional structure.
(D) matrix structure.
Answer: (B) functional organizational structure.
104. Firms implementing cost-leadership strategies will have ________ layers in their reporting
structure.
(A) relatively complex
(B) relatively simple
(C) relatively few
(D) many
Answer: (D) many
105. One aspect of using a cost leadership strategy is that experience effects may lead to
lower costs.
True/False
Answer: True
106. The typical risks of a cost leadership strategy includes:

(A). production and distribution processes becoming obsolete
(B). the inability to balance high differentiation and low price.
(C). excessive differentiation to
(D). loss of customer loyalty.
Answer: (A). production and distribution processes becoming obsolete
lower costs.
True/False
Answer: True
108. The typical risks of a cost leadership strategy includes:
(A). production and distribution processes becoming obsolete
(B). the inability to balance high differentiation and low price.
(C). excessive differentiation to
(D). loss of customer loyalty
Answer: (A). production and distribution processes becoming obsolete
109. Under which condition would a cost leadership strategy be especially effective?
Answer: Cost leadership strategy is more effective under the following two conditions;
1. When price competition among competitive sellers is too much.
2 When the products of competitive sellers is identical to your product and supplies are
readily available.
lower costs. Experience effects are achieved by……?
ANswer: repeating a process until a task becomes easier.
111. Firms pursuing a cost-leadership strategy are typically characterized by?
(A) loose cost control systems.
(B) close supervision of labor, raw materials, inventory, and other costs.
(C) Both A and B
(D) a de -emphasis on quantitative cost goals and costs.
(E). None of these
Answer: B) close supervision of labor, raw materials, inventory, and other costs.
112. What must a cost-leadership strategy accomplish to be successful?
(A). It must increase the firm’s cost above that of its competitors while offering adequate value.
(B. It must reduce the firm’s cost below that of its competitors while offering superior value.
(C). Both A and B
(D). It must reduce the firm’s cost below that of its competitors while offering adequate value.
(E). None of these
Answer: (D). It must reduce the firm's cost below that of its competitors while offering
adequate value.
113. Organisational behaviour is_______
a) A science
b) An art
c) A science as well as an art
Answer: c) A science as well as an art
114. Communication begins with _____
a. encoding
b. idea origination
c. decoding
d. channel selection
Answer: b. idea origination
115. A study of the culture and practises in different societies is called _____
a) Personality
b) Anthropology
c) Perception
d) Attitudes
Answer: b) Anthropology
116. Forces affecting organisational behaviour are _______
a) People
b) Environment
c) Technology
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
117. Scope of Organizational Behaviour does not include ______
a. Leadership
b. Perception
c. Job Design
d. Technology
Answer: d. Technology
118. In present context, challenges for Organizational Behaviour are _____
a) Employee expectation
b) Workforce diversity
c) Globalization
d) All of the above
119. Meso organisation behaviour is related with
a) Individual behaviour
b) Group behaviour
c) Organisational behaviour
d) None of these
Answer: b) Group behavior
120. Organizational behaviour focuses at 3 Levels-
a. Individuals, Organisation, Society
b. Society, Organisation, Nation
c. Employee, Employer, Management
d. Individual, Groups, Organisation.
Answer: d. Individual, Groups, Organisation.

121.__________ is recognised as father of “Human relations”
a) William Gilbreth
b) Hendry Fayol
c) F.W.Taylor
d) Elton Mayo
Answer: d) Elton Mayo
122. Some of OB’s challenges and opportunities include all of the following except
a) reinforcing the importance of traditional methods of management
b) offering specific insights to improve interpersonal and people skills
c) helping us learnt to cope in a continues changing world
d) facilitating the improvement of quality and employee productivity
Answer: a) reinforcing the importance of traditional methods of management
123. Hawthorne Studies is related to which stage of the organisational behaviour evolution?
a) Industrial revolution
b) Scientific management
c) Organisational behaviour
d) Human relations movement
Answer: d) Human relations movement
124. The field of organizational behaviour examines such questions as the nature of
leadership, effective team development, and______
b) Organisational control; conflict management
a) Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
c) Motivation of individuals; planning
d) Planning; development
Answer: a) Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
125. Organisational Behaviour is a field of study backed by a body associated with growing
concern for people at the workplace
a) Theory
b) Research
c) Application
d) All of the above
126. Which of the following is not correct for the organisational behaviour?
a) Organisational behaviour is an integral part of management
b) Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
c) Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of behaviour
d) Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented
Answer: b) Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
127. Contribution/s of human relations movement is/are

a) Great Depression
b) Labour Movement
c) Hawthorne Studies
d) All of these
Answer: d) All of these
128.Nowadays a lot of stress is being put on the __________ of the employee in the
organisation
a. Character
b. improvement
c. Behaviour
d. Rewards
Answer: c. Behaviour
129. The term ‘psychology’ is derived from the word ‘psyche’, which means ‘soul’ or
‘spirit’_______
a) Latin
b) French
c) Greek
d) None of these
Answer: c) Greek
130. The field of organisational behaviour is primarily concerned with _____

a) The behaviour of individual and groups.
b) How resources are effectively managed.
c) Control processes and interactions between organisations, external context.
d) Both a and c.
Answer: d) Both a and c.
131. The____________ is based on the environment. Though____________ like thinking,

expectations and perception do exist, and they are not needed to manage or predict
behaviour.
a) Behaviouristic approach, Cognitive processes,
b) cognitive processes, behaviouristic approach
c) Social cognitive, behaviouristic approach
d) Cognitive processes, social cognitive
Answer: a) Behaviouristic approach, Cognitive processes,
132. Organisational Behaviour is the study of _____________ in the organisation
A. Human
B. Employer
C. Human Behaviour
D. Employees
Answer: C. Human Behaviour

133. The Hawthorne experiment was conducted by________
a) William Gilbreth
b) Hendry Fayol
c) F.W.Taylor
d) Elton Mayo
Answer: d) Elton Mayo
134. OB Helps to understand behaviour of human in ___________.
a) work place and Society
b) work place only
c) Society only
d) Department only
Answer: b) work place only
135. OB does Not contributed to improve
a) Motivation
b) Efficiency
c) interpersonal relations
d) Communication
Answer: c) interpersonal relations

136. Due to emphasis on productivity & efficiency, employee are not allowed to work with
harmony with one another is a limitation of_____
a) Organizational Cultural
b) Organizational Structure
c) Organizational Behaviour
d) Organisational Value
Answer: c) Organizational Behaviour
137. Common uniform, canteen, office does not mean common treatment is a limitation of
a) Organizational Cultural
b) Organizational Structure
c) Organizational Behaviour
d) Organisational Value
Answer: c) Organizational Behaviour
138. Which of the following is not a contributing discipline of OB
a) Anthropology
b) Psychology
c) physiology
d) sociology
Answer: c) physiology
139. ____________ is a Study of individual Behaviour
a) Anthropology
b) Psychology
c) political science
d) sociology
Answer: b) Psychology
140.__________ is a Study of Group Behaviour
a) Anthropology
b) Psychology
c) physiology
d) sociology
Answer: d) sociology
141. ___________ is a Study of man, his work and Culture
a) Anthropology
b) Psychology
c) Social psychology
d) sociology
Answer: a) Anthropology
142. _________ focuses on the influence of people on one another
a) Anthropology
b) Psychology
c) Social psychology
d) sociology
Answer: c) Social psychology

Tanishka SPM Mcqs Final

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KIET GroupofInstitutions

Whatis the first step in Project Planning? Select one:

Project Objectives should be SMART means

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A software project that meetsall the given objectives is a success of

is not a project manager’s activity.

The is not an approach to software cost estimation?

Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for

Before requirements can be analyzed, modeled, or specified they must be gath-

Whichofthe following are valid step in SDLC framework?

Waterfall model is not suitable for:

The major drawback of RAD modelis

User requirements are expressed as in Extreme Programming.

Agile software development is based on ?

How many phasesare there in Scrum?

In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W.

Which oneof the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

In the Analysis phase, the developmentof the occurs, whichis a

is the process oftranslating a task into a series of commandsthat

Selection of a model is based on

Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

Monte Carlo simulation is

Slack time in PERTanalysis

Mark the wrong statement.

Choose the correct option from the following statements?

PERTtechnique of network analysis is mainly useful for

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Amongthe following,critical path and slack time analysis most help

Whatis the earliest start time rule?

What happens whena project is scheduled by CPM?

Whichoneof the followingstatements regarding critical paths in a PERT chart is

The difference between budget at completion and estimate at completion is

This activity is undertaken once the developmentactivities start?

Whatdoes a SPI value of 1 mean?

Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These

Whyis software difficult to build?

Whichof the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

do not highlight inter-task dependencies.

This activity is undertaken once the developmentactivities start?

Whatis the variance at completion (VAC)?

The difference between budget at completion and estimate at completion is

This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?

In the Tuckman model, groupsat the stage develop

A virtual team is a collection of people who are separated

Job Characteristics Model is proposed by

Decision making needs

Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises requirelittle:

Reasons for the formation of groups include:

Brainstorming as a problem-solving and decision-making technique:

Whichof the following is a disadvantage of functional project management orga-

Whichoftheseis not part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project manage-

The risky-shift phenomenon meansthat there is a tendency for groups to make

Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?

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Motivating the employeesis classified as

The team-role whichis likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic

A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role

Which ofthe following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

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What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one?

Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and

Whydoes architecture dictate organizational structure?

Q28) RUP stands for created by a division of

Q37. The spiral model has two dimensions namely and