Mech Pgcet 2013 Que Bank

1 The rate of change of linear momentum is equal to
A active force B reactive force
C torque D work done

2 An air vessel is provided at the summit in a syphon to
A Avoid interruption in the flow B Increase discharge
C Increase velocity D Maintain pressure difference

3 A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its
sides. The total pressure on the wall per unit length is (where w = Specific weight
of liquid, and H = Height of liquid)
A wH B wH/2
C wH2/2 D wH2/3
4 The length of the divergent cone in a venturimeter is __________ that of the
convergent cone.
A Equal to B Double
C Three to four times D Five to six times

5 The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece depends upon
A velocity of liquid B pressure of liquid
C area of mouthpiece D length of mouthpiece

6
3
A vessel of 4 m contains oil which weighs 30 kN. The specific weight of the oil is
A 4.5 kN/m3 B 6 kN/m3
C 7.5 kN/m3 D 10 kN/m3

7 The critical depth meter is used to measure
velocity of flow in an open
A B depth of flow in an open channel
channel
C hydraulic jump D depth of channel
8 A two -stage compressor takes in air at 1.1bars and discharges at 20 bars. For
maximum efficiency, the intermediate pressure is
A 10.55 bars B 7.33 bars
C 5.5 bars D 4.7 bars

9 An error of 1% in measuring head over the apex of the notch (H) will produce an
error of __________ in discharge over a triangular notch
A 1% B 1.50%
SUJJECT CODE: 1/20 PGCET

C 2% D 2.50%
10 The pressure of fluid due to hammer blow is
directly proportional to density of inversely proportional to density
A B
fluid of fluid
directly proportional to inversely proportional to
C 1/2 D 1/2
(density) of fluid (density) of fluid
11
A body floating in a liquid is said to be in neutral equilibrium, if its metacentre
A coincides with its centre of gravity B lies above its centre of gravity
lies between the centre of

C lies below its centre of gravity D
buoyancy and centre of gravity
12 A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called
A steady uniform flow B steady non-uniform flow
C unsteady uniform flow D unsteady non-uniform flow

13 Select the wrong statement
An equivalent pipe is treated as an The length of an equivalent pipe is

A B
ordinary pipe for all calculations equal to that of a compound pipe
The discharge through an The diameter of an equivalent

C equivalent pipe is equal to that of D pipe is equal to that of a
a compound pipe compound pipe
14 The velocity through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the
depth of water is __________ the diameter of the circular channel.
A 0.34 times B 0.67 times
C 0.81 times D 0.95 times

15 The purpose of a surge tank is
to control the pressure variations

to eliminate water hammer
A due to rapid changes in the pipe B
possibilities
line flow
to regulate flow of water to

C turbines by providing necessary D all of the above
retarding head of water
16 The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine
A Reynold's number B Froude's number

C Mach number D Euler's number
17 A weir, generally, used as a spillway of a dam is
A narrow crested weir B broad crested weir
C Ogee weir D submerged weir

18 The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel competely filled up
with a liquid is
A directly proportional to (radius)2 B inversely proportional to (radius)2
C directly proportional to (radius)4 D inversely proportional to (radius)4
19 When the Mach number is more than 6, the flow is called
A sub-sonic flow B sonic flow
C super-sonic flow D hyper-sonic flow

20
The discharge through a convergent mouthpiece is __________ the discharge
through an internal mouthpiece of the same diameter and head of water.
A equal to B one-half
C three fourth D double

21 In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a venturimeter, the ratio of
the diameter at throat to the diameter of pipe should be
A 1/16 to 1/8 B 1/8 to 1/4
C 1/4 to 1/3 D 1/3 to 1/2
22 A channel is said to be of most economical cross-section, if

it gives maximum discharge for a
A given cross-sectional area and bed B it has minimum wetted perimeter
slope
it involves lesser excavation for

C D all of the above
the designed amount of discharge
23 The specific gravity of water is taken as
A 0.001 B 0.01
C 0.1 D 1

24 The magnitude of water hammer depends upon the
elastic properties of the pipe elastic properties of the liquid

A B
material flowing through the pipe
C speed at which the valve is closed D all of the above
25 The force present in a moving liquid is
A inertia force B viscous force
C gravity force D all of these

26 In a lock gate, the reaction between two gates is (where P = Resultant pressure
on the lock gate, and α = Inclination of the gate with the normal to the side of
the lock)
A P/sinα B 2P/sinα
C 2P/2sinα D P/sinα/2
27 The viscosity of water at 20°C is
A one stoke B one centistroke
C one poise D one centipoise

28
The discharge through a channel of rectangular section will be maximum, if
A its depth is twice the breadth B its breadth is twice the depth
C its depth is thrice the breadth D its breadth is thrice the depth
29 A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its
sides. Which of the following statement is correct?
The pressure on the wall at the The pressure on the bottom of the
A B
liquid level is minimum. wall is maximum.
The pressure on the wall at the

The pressure on the bottom of the
C liquid level is zero, and on the D
wall is zero.
bottom of the wall is maximum
30 The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a
venturimeter
A remains constant B increases
C decreases D depends upon mass of liquid

31
A point, in a compressible flow where the velocity of fluid is zero, is called

A critical point B vena contracta
C stagnation point D none of these

32 In case of flow through parallel pipes,
the head loss for all the pipes is the total discharge is equal to the
A B
same sum of discharges in the various
the total head loss is the sum of pipes
C D Both (A) and (B)
head losses in the various pipes
33 The metacentric height of a ship is 0.6 m and the radius of gyration is 4 m. The
time of rolling of a ship is
A 10.4 s B 4.1 s
C 5.2 s D 14.1 s
34 The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point
gives the direction of motion at that point, is known as
A path line B stream line
C streak line D potential line

35 When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if
gravitational force is equal to the gravitational force is less than the
A B
upthrust of the liquid upthrust of the liquid
gravitational force is more than
C D none of the above
the upthrust of the liquid
36 A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called
A one-dimensional flow B two-dimensional flow
C three-dimensional flow D four-dimensional flow

37 A flow whose streamline is represented by a straight line, is called __________
dimensional flow.
A one B two
C three D four
38 A venturiflume is used to measure
A pressure of liquid B discharge of liquid

pressure difference between two pressure difference between two
C D
points in a channel points in a pipe
39 The specific weight of sea water is __________ that of pure water.
A same as B less than
C more than D none of these

40 When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is revolved, the surface of the liquid
takes the shape of
A a triangle B a paraboloid
C an ellipse D none of these

41 In a depressed nappe
the pressure below the nappe is the pressure below the nappe is
A B
atmospheric negative
the pressure above the nappe is the pressure above the nappe is
C D
42 Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?
A Under ground flow B Flow past tiny bodies

Flow of oil in measuring
C D all of these
instruments
43 The stability of a dam is checked for
A tension at the base B overturning of the wall or dam
C sliding of the wall or dam D all of these

44 The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the
liquid displaced.
A equal to B less than
C more than D none of the above

45 Assertion (A): In general, viscosity in liquids increases and in gases it decreases
with rise in temperature.
Reason (R): Viscosity is caused by intermolecular forces of cohesion and due to
transfer of molecular momentum between fluid layers; of which in liquids the
former and in gases the later contribute the major part towards viscosity.
Both A and R are individually true Both A and R are individually true
A and R is the correct explanation of B but R is not the correct
A explanation of A
C A is true but R is false D A is false but R is true
46 The shear stress developed in lubricating oil, of viscosity 9.81 poise, filled
between two parallel plates 1 cm apart and moving with relative velocity of 2
m/s is:
A 20 N/m2 B 196.2 N/m2
C 29.62 N/m2 D 40 N/m2

47 The top of the weir over which the water flows is known as

A sill or crest B nappe or vein
C orifice D none of these

48 When the pressure on a given mass of liquid is increased from 3.0 MPa to 3.5
3 3
MPa, the density of the liquid increases from 500 kg/m to 501 kg/m What is
the average value of bulk modulus of the liquid over the given pressure range?
A 700 MPa B 600MPa
C 500MPa D 250MPa
49 The shear stress distribution for a fluid flowing in between the parallel plates,
both at rest, is
Maximum at the mid-plane and
A Constant over the cross-section B varies linearly with distance from
mid-plane
Zero at the mid-point and varies
Zero at the plates and varies
C linearly with distance from mid- D
exponentially to mid-point
plane
50 An imaginary curve drawn through a flowing fluid in such a way that the tangent
to it at any point gives the direction of velocity of flow at that point, is known
as
A Flow-contour B Line of flow
C Path line D Streamline

51 The losses are maximum in
A Laminar flow B Turbulent flow
C Critical flow D Transition flow

52 The equation of continuity holds good when the flow
A Is steady B Is one dimensional

Velocity is uniform at all the cross
C D All of the above
sections
53
The horizontal component of force on a curved surface is equal to the
Product of pressure at its centre Weight of liquid retained by the

A B
and area curved area
Force on a vertical projection of Weight of liquid vertically above
C D
the curved surface the curved surface
54 Density of water is maximum at
A 0°C B 0°K
C 4°C D 100°C

55 For very great pressures, viscosity of most gases and liquids
A remains same B Increases
C Decreases D Shows erratic behaviour

56
3 2
A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m at 50kg/cm and a
3 2
volume of 0.039 m at 150 kg/cm . The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
A B
400 kg/cm2 4000 kg/cm2
C 40 x 105 kg/cm2 D 40 x 106 kg/cm2
57 Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
A B
Dissolved air Dissolved salt
C Suspended matter D all of the above
58 If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid
and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
A higher than the surface of liquid B the same as the surface of liquid
C lower than the surface of liquid D unpredictable

59 Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the
principle of
A Gas law B Boyle's law
C Charles’s law D McLeod's law.

60 The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as it’s
A Absolute temperature, B Temperature
C Density D Modulus of elasticity

61 Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity
A U-tube with water B Inclined U-tube
C U-tube with mercury D micro-manometer with water

62 A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in
water. Its specific gravity is
A 1 B 5
C 7 D 6
63 A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity,
at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?

A 10 m/sec B 25 m/sec
C 2 m/sec D 50 m/sec
64 For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should be installed in
A Vertical line B Horizontal line

In any direction and in any
C Inclined line with flow downward D
location.
65
In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is
A Maximum B Minimum
C Zero D Unpredictable.
66 The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the
solid body is known as
A Wake B Drag
C Lift D Boundary layer

67 Principle of similitude forms the basis of
comparing two identical designing models so that the
A B
equipments result can be converted to
comparing similarity between prototypes
C D
design and actual equipment performing acceptance tests.
68 For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the
following in both cases should also be equal
ratio of inertial force to force due ratio of inertial force to force due
A B
to viscosity to gravitation
all the four ratios of inertial force
ratio of inertial force to force due
C D to force due to viscosity,
to surface tension gravitation, sur-face tension, and
69 elasticity
Cavitation will begin when
The pressure at any location pressure becomes more than
reaches an absolute pressure critical pressure
A B
equal to the saturated vapour
pressure of the liquid
C Flow is increased D Pressure is increased
70
A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is
required to lift a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
A 10 kg B 100 kg
C 1000 kg D 1 kg

71 Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
A Mass B Momentum
C Energy D
Work
72 Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantities
are same
A friction loss and flow B length and diameter
C flow and length D friction factor and diameter

73 The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
A gravity, pressure and viscous B gravity, pressure and turbulent
C pressure, viscous and turbulent D gravity, viscous and turbulent

74 Reynolds number is significant in
supersonics, as with projectile and full immersion or completely
A B enclosed flow, as with pipes,
jet propulsion
simultaneous motion through two aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
fluids where there is a surface of
75 Froude number is significant in
full immersion or completely

supersonics, as with projectile and
A B enclosed flow, as with pipes,
jet propulsion
aircraft wings, nozzles
simultaneous motion through two

fluids where there is a surface of
C dis-continuity, gravity forces, and D all of the above
wave making effect, as with ship's
hulls
76 The equation of continuity holds good when the flow
A is steady B is one dimensional

velocity is uniform at all the cross
sections
77 According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow
principle of conservation of mass velocity and pressure are inversely

A B
holds proportional
the energy is constant along a
total energy is constant
C D stream-line but may vary across
throughout
streamlines
78 The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect
incompressible fluid flowing in continuous stream

A Keeps on increasing B Keeps on decreasing
C remains constant D may increase/decrease

79 Hydrometer is used to determine
A specific gravity of liquids B specific gravity of solids
C specific gravity of gases D relative humidity

80 In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
A non-zero finite B minimum
C zero D maximum
81 A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6.
What fraction of its volume is under mercury ?
A 0.5 B 0.4
C 0.515 D 0.65
82 Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is
A steady B unsteady
C laminar D rotational
83 An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
A Pascal law B Newton's law of viscosity
C boundary layer theory D continuity equation

84 Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can be measured by
A orifice plate B venturimeter
C rotameter D pitot tube

85 Total pressure on a 1mx1m gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the
free water surface will be
A 1000 kg B 4000 kg
C 2000 kg D 8000 kg
86 Select the correct statement
Local atmospheric pressure Standard atmospheric pressure is

A depends upon elevation of locality B the mean local atmospheric
only pressure at sea level
Local atmospheric pressure is A barometer reads the difference
C always below standard D between local and standard
atmospheric pressure atmospheric pressure

87 Consider the following statements pertaining to a centrifugal pump: 1.The
manometric head is the head is developed by the pump 2.The
suction pipe has, generally, a larger diameter as compared to the discharge pipe.
3. The suction pipe is provided with a foot valve and a strainer. 4.The
delivery pipe is provided with a foot valve and a strainer.
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct B 1 and 2 are correct
C 2 and 3 are correct D 1 and 3 are correct

88 The convergent divergent pipe with inlet outlet diameters of 20cm and 15cm
carries oil whose specific gravity is 0.8. if the velocity of oil at entry is 2.5m/s, the
velocity of oil at exit and flow rates are
A 4.42m/s, 62.8Kg/s B 4.42m/s, 52.8 Kg/s
C 62.8m/s, 4.42Kg/s D 42m/s, 52.8Kg/s

89
A dirty sample of water when tested was found that the volume is decreased by
1% with an increase in pressure of 180 bar. The bulk modulus of this sample is
A 1.8 bar B 18000bar
C 18 bar D 1800 bar

90 The rain drops are spherical because of
A Surface tension of water B Capillarity of water
C Incompressibility of water D None of the above

91 what is the pressure increase required to reduce the volume of water by 2%.
6
Assume modulus of elasticity for water 2.2 X 10 KPa
A 440 bar B 480 bar
C 380 bar D 280 bar

92 The analysis of laminar boundary layer by Blasius is based on
A Exact analysis of boundary layers B Parabolic velocity distribution
C Logarithmic velocity distribution D 1/7 power of velocity distribution
93 Within boundary layer the pressure

Remains constant and has same
A value as that at the edge of the B Is atmospheric
boundary
Varies linearly with the thickness
C D Is same as approaching flow
of the boundary layer

94 Aging of pipes causes
A Decreases absolute roughness B Increases absolute roughness

Decreases discharge for same
C Increases discharge for same head D
head
95 In a laminar flow of liquid down an inclined plane , the surface velocity is
0.3m/s. the average velocity of flow in m/s is
A 0.2 B 0.225
C 0.15 D 0.1
96 The minimum value of friction factor f in a laminar flow through a circular pipe
is
A 0.025 B 0.032
C 0.05 D 0.064
97 A circular pipe carrying oil at Reynolds number 100. If the discharge is tripled ,
the power input will be
A 3 times of original B 9 times of original
C d/ 3 of original D Increases by 100%

98 2
The pressure drop in 8 cm diameter and 15cm length of pipe is 75 KN/m . The
2
shear stress at the pipe in KN/m
A 0.2 B 2
C 4 D 6
99 The maximum velocity in a pipe when flow is laminar occurs at
A Top of pipe B Centre of the pipe

Somewhere at the section except
C Bottom of the pipe D
at the centre
100 3
A 20 cm diameter pipe carries an oil of density 900Kg/m . If the shear stress at
2
the pipe wall is 0.5 N/ m , the head loss in 100m length of pipe is
A 11.35m B 5.85m
C 8.6m D 6.8m
101
A nozzle of 5 cm diameter emits liquid at a velocity 20m/s making an angle 30˚
to the horizontal at the point of maximum height the jet is assumed to be
unbroken, then the diameter of jet is
A 5 cm B 5.4 cm
C 2.6 cm D 4.7cm

102 The general impulse-momentum principle can be applied if
Flow is in compressible or in The fluid is real or ideal
A B
compressible
C The energy losses are unknown D All the above
103 Bernoulli’s equation takes into account
A Friction loss B Loss due to change of friction
C All type of losses D None of the above

104 The forces considered in the derivation of Euler’s equation of motion are
A Pressure, inertia, and gravity B Pressure shear and gravity

Pressure, gravity and
C D None of these
compressibility
105 A venture meter is preferable to orifice meter because
A It is cheap B It is more convenient
C Energy loss is less D Energy loss is less

106 The velocity at highest point on the cylinder due to uniform flow U is
A U B 0
C U/2 D 2U
107 The pressure on the half body is the same as the static pressure of uniform
stream approaching at a location 0 whose value is
A 113˚ B 120˚
C 90˚ D 60˚
108 The continuity equation is mathematical representation of the principle of
A Conservation of mass B Conservation of momentum
C Conservation of energy D All of the above

109 2 2
A two dimensional flow field is represented by y=x -y , the velocity at point
P(1,1) is
A 2√2 B 2
C 4 D 8
110 The depth of the centre of pressure from free surface of water in a vertical wall
is
A 2h/3 B h/3
C h/2 D None of these

111 Which of the following is a possibility of dam failure?
Failure due to tension or
A Failure due to sliding B
compression
C Failure due to overturning D All of the above
112 A wooden platform 2m X 2m and 1 m height having sp.gr. =0.5 floats in water.
When a load of 9.81 KN is kept non platform centrally, it will be submerged to a
depth of
A 0.3m B 0.75m
C 0.375m D 0.5
113 In a broad-crested weir, the discharge is maximum if the head of water on the
downstream side of weir is __________ the head of water on the upstream side
of weir.
A equal to B one-third
C two-third D three-fourth
114 In a free nappe,
the pressure below the nappe is the pressure below the nappe is
A B
the pressure above the nappe is the pressure above the nappe is
C D
115
1. In a pelton wheel, the bucket peripheral speed is 10m/s, the water jet velocity
is 25m/s and volumetric flow rate of jet is 0.1m/s. If the jet deflection is 120°
and flow is ideal , the power developed is
A 7.5 kW B 15 kW
C 22.5 kW D 37.5 Kw
116 A Large hydraulic turbine is to generate 300 kW at 1000 rpm under a head of
40m. For initial testing a 1:4 scale model of the turbine operates under a head
of 10 m. The power generated by model in KW will be
A 2.34 B 4.68
C 9.38 D 18.75
117 Water at 25°C is flowing through a 1.0 km long G.I pipe of 200mm diameter at
3
the rate of 0.07m /s. If value of Darcy friction factor for this pipe is 0.02 and
3
density of water is 1000kg/m , the pumping power (in kW) required to maintain
the flow is
A 1.8 B 17.4
C 20.5 D 41

118 For a Newtonian fluid
Shear stress is proportional to Rate of shear stress is
A shear strain. B proportional to shear strain.
Shear stress is proportional to rate Rate of shear stress is

C of shear strain D proportional to rate of shear
strain
119
Consider an incompressible laminar boundary layer over a flat plate of length L,
aligned with the direction of an oncoming uniform free stream. If F is the ratio of
drag force on front of the plane to the drag force on rear half then
A F<1/2 B F=1/2
C F=1 D F>1
120 Match the following
Column I Column II
P: Centrifugal compressor 1: Axial flow
Q: Centrifugal pump 2: Surging
R: Pelton Wheel 3: Priming
S: Kaplan turbine 4: Pure impulse
A P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 B P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
C P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 D P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
121 Kaplan turbine is
A A high head mixed flow turbine B A low axial flow turbine
C An outward flow reaction turbine D An impulse inward flow turbine
122 Specific speed of Kaplan turbine ranges between
A 30 to 60 B 60 to 300
C 3 to 6 D 600 to 1000
123 A multistage pump is to lift 4200 liters/min against a total head of 185m at a
speed of 750 rpm. The specific speed is not exceed 700, the manometric head
required per stage will be
A 15.62m B 18.62m
C 20.12m D 25.12m
124 A water turbine develops 130 KW at 230rpm under a head of 16m. The scale
ratio of similar machine which will generate 660 KW when working under a head
of 25 m will be
A D2/D1=1.4 B D2/D1=1.6
C D2/D1=1.9 D D2/D1=2.4

125 Degree of reaction in for Parson ‘s turbine is equal to
A 40% B 50%
C 60% D 100%
126 De-Laval turbines are mostly used
Small power purpose and low
A Where low speed are required B
speed
Small power purpose and high
C D Large power purpose
speed
127 In modern steam turbine the steam rate is nearly
A 1Kg/kWhr B 2 Kg/kWhr
C 4 Kg/kWhr D 8 Kg/kWhr
128
Forced draught fan delivers air at 10 m/s against a draught of 25mm water
across the fuel bed on grate. The total draught developed by force fan will be
A 310 N/m2 B 250 N/m2
C 300 N/m2 D 305 N/m2

129 isentropic heat drop in the nozzle of an impulse steam turbine with nozzle
efficiency 0.9, blade velocity rati0o 0.5 and mean velocity 150m/s in KJ/Kg is
A 50 B 40
C 60 D 75
130 In Kaplan turbine runner the number of blades is generally
A 2 TO 4 B 8 TO 16
C 4 TO 8 D 16 TO 24
131 A multi stage pump is to lift 4200 litre/min against a total head of 185m at speed
of 750rpm. The specific speed is not to exceed 700, the manometric head
required per stage will be
A 15.62m B 18.62m
C 20.12m D 25.12m
132 A plot between power generated in MW and time is known as
A Load curve B Load duration curve
C Load factor D Demand curve

133 The angle of taper on draft tube is
A Greater than 15 B Greater than 8

C Greater than 5 D Less than 8
134 In reciprocating pump cavitation occurs during delivery stroke at
A The beginning of the stroke B end of the stroke
C middle of the stroke D Both (A) and (B)

135 In a single acting reciprocating pump the work saved in friction due to fitting of
air vessel is
A 32.90% B 50%
C 65% D 84.80%
136 3
Two identical pumps in all respects and each is capable to deliver Q m /s against
the head of H are connected in parallel , the resultant discharge is
A 2Q against a head of 2H B Q against a head of 2H
C 2Q against a head of H D 2Q against a head of H/2

137 A Pump delivers 100 lt/s at a head of 25 m when running at 1500 rpm. A
homologous pump delivers 100 lt/s at 12.5m will have a specific speed of
A 10 B 41
C 20 D 82
138 Inlet angle of centrifugal pump is designed to get
relative velocity vector in radial absolute velocity vector in radial
A B
directioin directioin
peripheral velocity of flow to be
C velocity of flow to be zero D
zero
139 Specific speed of a turbine is
A greater than actual speed B less than actual speed
C equal ro actual speed D None of the above

140 Three main characteristics of of water turbine are
unit power, unit discharge, and unit power, unit discharge, and
A B
unit speed unit head
power developed, flow rate, and
C D None of the above
head
141 For a model and prototype turbine, the following parameters are common
A unit speed B unit discharge
C unit power D all of the above

142 The water turbines may be arranged in following decreasing order of sepecific
speed as
A Propeller, Francis, Pelton B Pelton, Francis, Kaplan
C Kaplan, Pelton, Francis D Francis, Kaplan, Pelton

143 Francis turbine is a
A an impulse turbine B a radial flow impulse turbine
C an axial flow turbine D a radial flow reaction turbine

144 In all reaction turbines, for maximum efficiency
the velocity of swirl at entry must the velocity of swirl at outlet must
A B
be zero be zero
the velocity of flow at entry must the velocity of flow at exit must be
C D
be zero zero
145 The efficiency of a jet of water having a velocity V striking a series of vertical
plates moving with velocity U is maximum when
A U=2V B U=V/2
C 3V/2 D 4V/3
146 Fluid is a substance that
cannot be subjected to shear always expands until it fills any

A B
forces conitainer
has the same shear stress.at a cannot remain at rest under

C D
point regardless of its motion action of any shear force
147 A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
A inviscous and incompressible. B incompressible
C inviscous D inviscous and compressible

148 If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is
known as
A fluid B ideal fluid
C gas D perfect solid

149 The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress
is known as
A compressibility B cohesion
C surface tension D adhesion

150 When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every
point, then flow is said to be

A quasi static B steady state
C laminar D uniform

1. A Plate having 10 cm2 area each side is hanging in the middle of a room of 100m2 total surface
area. The plate temperature and emissivity are respectively 800 K and 0.6. The temperature and
emissivity values for the surfaces of the room are 300 K and 0.3 respectively. Boltzmann’s
constant ߪ = 5.67 × 10 -8 W/ m2K4. The total heat loss from the two surfaces of the plate is
A 13.66 W B 27.32 W
C 27.87 W D 13.66 MW
2. In a counter flow heat exchanger, for the hot fluid the heat capacity = 2 kJ/kg K, mass flow rate =
5 kg /s, inlet temperature = 150˚C, outlet temperature = 100˚C. For the cold fluid, heat capacity
= 4 kJ/ kg K, mass flow rate = 10 kg/s, inlet temperature = 20˚C. Neglecting heat transfer to the
surroundings, the outlet temperature of the cold fluid is ˚C is
A 7.5 B 32.5
C 45.5 D 70.0
3. Consider a laminar boundary layer over a heated flat plate. The free stream velocity is Uஶ . At
some distance x from the leading edge the velocity boundary layer thickness is dV and the
thermal boundary layer thickness is dT. If the prandtl number is greater than 1, then
A dV > dT B dT > dV
C ߜ V≈ ߜ T~(Uஶ X) -1/2
D ߜ V≈ ߜ T~X-1/2
A 0.0 B 4.8
C 6 D 750
4. One dimensional unsteady state heat transfer equation for a sphere with heat generation at the
rate of ‘q’ can be written
A ଵ ப ቀr ப୘ቁ+୯ = ଵ ப୘ B ଵ ப ப୘ ୯ ଵ ப୘
ቀr ଶ ቁ+ =
௥ ப୰ ப୰ ୩ ஑ ப୲ ୰మ ப୰ ப୰ ୩ ஑ ப୲
C பమ ୘ ୯ ଵ ப୘ D பమ ୯ ଵ ப୘
+ =
ப୰మ ୩ ஑ ப୲ ப୰మ
(rT) + ୩ = ஑ ப୲
5. A stainless steel tube (ks = 19 W/m K) of 2 cm ID and 5 cm OD in insulated with 3 cm thick
asbestos (ka = 0.2 W/m K). If the temperature difference between the inner most and outermost
surfaces is 600˚C, the heat transfer rate per unit length is
A 0.94 W/m B 9.44 W/m
C 944.72 W/m D 9447.21 W/m
6. A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706 mm is to be used for the measurement of
temperature of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer co-coefficient on bend surface is 400
W/m2 K. Thermophysical properties of thermocouple material are k = 20 W/m2K, C = 400J/kg K
and ρ = 8500 kg/m3. If the thermocouple initially at 30˚C is placed in a hot stream of 300˚C, the
time taken by the bead to reach 298˚C , is
A 2.35 s B 4.9 s
C 14.7 s D 29.4 s
7. In a condenser, water enters at 30˚C and flows at the rate 1500 kg/hr. The condensing steam is
at a temperature of 120˚C and cooling water leaves the condenser at 80˚C. Specific heat of
water is 1.187 kJ/ kg K. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 2000 W/m2 K, the heat transfer
area is
A 0.707 m2 C 7.07 m2
2
B 70.7 m D 141.4 m2
8. In a case of one dimensional heat conduction in a medium with constant properties, T is the
ப୘
temperature at position x, at time t. Then ப୲ is proportional to
A T B ∂T
x ∂x
C ∂ଶ T D ∂ଶ T
∂x ∂t ∂x ଶ
9. A small copper ball of 5 mm diameter at 500 K is dropped into an oil bath whose temperature is
300K. The thermal conductivity of copper is 400W/m K, its density 9000 kg/m3 and its specific heat
385 J/kg K. If the heat transfer coefficient is 250 W/m2 K and lumped analysis is assumed to be
valid, the rate of fall of the temperature of the ball at the beginning of cooling will be, in K/s,
A 8.7 B 13.9
C 17.3 D 27.7
10. A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the centre of a hollow sphere (surface 1). The diameter
of the sphere is 1m, while the cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5m each. The radiation
configuration factor F11 is
A 0.375 B 0.625
C 0.75 D 1
11. Hot oil is cooled from 80 to 50˚C in an oil cooler which uses air as the coolant. The air
temperature rises from 30 to 40˚C. The designer uses a LMTD value of 26˚C. The type of heat
exchanger is
A Parallel flow B Double pipe
C Counter flow D Cross flow
A 3.8 B 5.3
C 89 D 769
12. In a composite slab, the temperature at the interface (Tinter) between two materials is equal to
the average of the temperature at the two ends. Thickness of slab 1 is twice of that of slab 2.
Assuming steady one dimensional heat conduction, which of the following statements is true
about the respective thermal conductivities?
A 2 k1 = k2 B k1 = k2
C 2 k1 = 3 k2 D k1 = 2 k2
13. A 100 W electric bulb was switched on in a 2.5 m × 3 m × 3 m size thermally insulated room
having a temperature of 20˚C. The room temperature at the end of 24 hours will be
A 321˚C B 341˚C
C 450˚C D 470˚C
14. A thin layer of water in a field is formed after a farmer has watered it. The ambient air
conditions are: temp. 20˚C and relative humidity 5%. An extract of steam tables is given below.
Temperature (˚C) -15 -10 -05 0.01 5 10 15 20

Saturation
0.10 0.26 0.40 0.61 0.87 1.23 1.71 2.34
Pressure (kPa)
Neglecting the heat transfer between the water and the ground, the water temperature in the
field after phase equilibrium is reached equals
A 10.3˚C B -10.3˚C
C -14.5˚C D 14.5˚C
15. With an increase in the thickness of insulation around a circular pipe, heat loss to surroundings
due to
A Convection increases, while that due B Convection decreases, while that due to
to conduction decreases conduction increases
C Convection and conduction D Convection and conduction increases
decreases
16. The temperature distribution within the thermal boundary layer over a heated isothermal flat
୘ି ୘౭ ଷ ୲ ଵ ௬ ଷ
plate is given by ୘ = ቀఋ ቁ - ଶ ቀఋ ቁ , where TW and Tஶ are the temperature of plate and
ಮ ି ୘౭ ଶ ೟ ೟
free stream respectively, and y is the normal distance measured from the plate. The local
Nusselt number base on the thermal boundary layer thickness δ୲ is given by
A 1.33 B 1.50
C 2.0 D 4.64
17. In a counter flow heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 60˚C and cold fluid leaves at 30˚C. Mass
flow rate of the hot fluid is 1kg/s and that the cold fluid is 2 kg/s. Specific heat of the hot fluid is
10 kJ/kgK and that of the cold fluid is 5 kJ/kgK. The Log Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD)
for the heat exchanger in ˚C is
A 15 B 30
C 35 D 45
18. The average heat transfer coefficient on a thin hot vertical plate suspended in still air can be
determined from observations of the change in plate temperature with time as it cools. Assume
the plate temperature to be uniform at any instant of time and radiation heat exchange with the
surroundings negligible. The ambient temperature is 25˚C, the plate has a total surface area of
0.1 m2 and a mass of 4kg. The specific heat of the plate material is 2.5 kJ/kg K. The convective
heat transfer coefficient in W/m2K, at the instant when the plate temperature is 225˚C and the
change in plate temperature with time dT/dt = -0.02 K/s, is
A 200 B 20
C 15 D 10
A 160 B 165
C 200 D 250
19. For flow of fluid over a heated plate, the following fluid properties are known: viscosity = 0.001
Pa.s; specific heat at constant pressure = 1 KJ/Kg.K; thermal conductivity = 1 W/m.K.
The hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness at a specified location on the plate is 1 mm. The
thermal boundary layer thickness at the same location is
A 0.001 mm B 0.01 mm
C 1 mm D 1000 mm
20. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD) of a counter flow heat exchanger is 20˚C.
The cold fluid enters at 20˚C and the hot fluid enters at 100˚C. Mass flow rate of the cold fluid is
twice that of the hot fluid. Specific heat at constant pressure of the hot fluid is twice that of the
cold fluid. The exit temperature of the cold fluid is
A 40˚C B 60˚C
C 80˚C D Cannot be determined
21. A hollow enclosure is formed between two infinitely long concentric cylinders of radii 1 m and 2
m, respectively. Radiative heat exchange takes place between the inner surface of the larger
cylinder (surface-2) and the outer surface of the smaller cylinder (surface-1). The radiating
surface are diffuse and the medium in the enclosure is non-participating. The fraction of the
thermal radiation leaving the larger surface and striking itself is
A 0.25 B 0.5
C 0.75 D 1
22. A coolant fluid at 30˚C flows over a heated flat plate maintained at a constant temperature of
100˚C. The boundary layer temperature distribution at a given location on the plate may be
approximated as T = 30 + 70 exp (-y) where y (in m) is the distance normal to the plate and T is in
˚C. If thermal conductivity of the fluid is 1.0 W/m K, the local convective heat transfer coefficient
(in W/m2K) at that location will be
A 0.2 B 1
C 5 D 10
23. In a parallel flow that exchanger operating under steady state, the heat capacity rates (product
of specific heat at constant pressure and mass flow rate) of the hot and cold fluid are equal. The
hot fluid, flowing at 1 kg/s with Cp = 4 kJ/kg K, enters the heat exchanger at 102˚C while the cold
fluid has an inlet temperature of 15˚C. The overall heat transfer coefficient for the heat
exchanger is estimated to be 1 kW/m2K and the corresponding heat transfer surface area is
5m2. Neglect heat transfer between the heat exchanger and the ambient. The heat exchanger is
characterized by the following relation: 2ε = 1 – expt (-2NTU). The exit temperature (in ˚C) for
the cold fluid is
A 45 B 55
C 65 D 75
24. A fin has 5 mm diameter and 100 mm length. The thermal conductivity of fin material is 400 Wm-1 K-
1. One end of the fin is maintained at 130˚C and its remaining surface is exposed to ambient air at
30˚C. If the convective heat transfer coefficient is 40 Wm-2 K-1, the heat loss (in W) from the fin is
A 0.08 B 5.0
C 7.0 D 7.8
25. Heat transfer takes place according to law of thermodynamics
A Zeroth B First
C Second D Third
26. Heat transmission is directly linked with the transport of medium itself,. i.e. there is actual
motion of heated particles during
A Conduction only B Convection only
C Radiation only D Conduction as well as radiation
27. The material medium between the heat source and receiver is not affected during the process of
heat transmission by
A Conduction B Convection
C Radiation D Conduction as well as convection
28. Heat transfer in liquids and gases is essentially due to
C Radiation D Conduction and convection put together
29. A satellite in space exchanges heat with the surroundings essentially by
30. A pipe carrying steam at 215°C traverses a room and heat is lost to the surrounding air at 27°C.
The major fraction of heat loss to the surroundings will be essentially due to
31. All the three modes of heat transmission are involved in
A B Cooling of a small metal casting in a
Melting of ice
quenching bath
C Heat flow through the walls of a D Automobile engine equipped with a
refrigerator thermosyphon cooling system
32. Steady state heat flow implies
A B No difference of temperature between the
Negligible flow of heat
bodies
C Constant heat flow rate, i.e. heat flow D
Uniform rate in temperature rise of a body
rate independent of time
33. dt
The Fourier heat conduction equation Q = − kA
dx
Presumes
1. Steady state conditions
2. Constant value of thermal conductivity
3. Uniform temperature at the wall surfaces
4. One-dimensional heat flow
Which of these statements are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4
C 2, 3 and 4 D 1, 3 and 4
34. In M-L-T-θ system (T begin time and θ temperature), what is the dimension of thermal
conductivity?
A ML-1 T -1 θ -3 B MLT -1 θ -1
-1 -3
C MLθ T D MLθ S-1 T -2
35. In which of the following materials, the heat energy propagation due to conduction heat
transfer will be minimum?
A Lead B Copper
C Water D Air
36. A wall of thickness 0.6m has normal area 1.5 m2 and is made up of a material of thermal
conductivity 0.4 W/m K. If the temperatures on the two sides are 800°C and 100°C, the thermal
resistance of the wall material could be?
A 1 W/K B 1.8 W/K
C 1 K/W D 1.8 K/W
37. Heat is conducted through a 10 cm thick wall at the rate of 30 W/m2 when the temperature
difference across the wall is 10°C. What is the thermal inductivity of the wall material?
A 0.03 W/m K B 0.3 W/m K
C 3.0 W/m K D 30.0 W/m K
38. A steel plate of thermal conductivity 50 W/m K and thickness 10 cm passes a heat flux by
conduction of 25 kW/m2. If the temperature of hot surface of the plate is 100°C, then what is the
temperature of cooler surface of the plate?
A 30°C B 40°C
C 50°C D 60°C
39. 6 kJ of conduction heat transfer has to take place in 10 minutes from one end to other end of a
metallic cylinder of 10 cm2 cross-sectional area, length 1 meter and thermal conductivity as 100
W/m K. what is the temperature difference between the two ends of the bar?
A 800 C B 1000 C
C 1200 C D 1600 C
40. Two walls of same thickness and cross-sectional area have thermal conductivities in the ratio
1:2. If same temperature difference is maintain across the wall faces, the ratio of heat flow
Q1/Q2 will be
A 1/2 B 1
C 2 D 4
41. A composite wall of a furnace has two layers of equal thickness having thermal conductivities in
the ratio 3 : 2. What is the ratio of temperature drop across the two layers?
A 2:3 B 3:2
C 1:2 D Loge 2 : loge 3
42. A composite wall is made of two layers of thickness δ1 and δ2 having thermal conductivities k
and 2k and equal surface area normal to the direction of heat flow. The outer surfaces of the
composite wall are at 1000 C and 2000 C respectively. The heat transfer takes place only by
conduction and the required surface temperature at the junction is 1500 C. What will be ratio of
wall thickness δ1:δ2?
A 1:1 B 2:1
C 1:2 D 2:3
43. Which one of the following expresses the thermal diffusivity of a substance in terms of thermal
conductivity k, mass density ρ and specific heat c?
A B 1
ρ2kc
ρkc
C k D ρc
ρc k2
44. Thu unit of thermal diffusivity is
A m2 /hr 0C B kcal /m2-hr
C m /hr 0C D m2 /hr
45. A cube at high temperature is immersed in a constant temperature bath. It loses heat from its
top, bottom and side surfaces with heat transfer coefficients of h1, h2 and h3 respectively. The
average heat transfer coefficient for the cube is
A − B −
h = h1 + h2 + h3 h = ( h1 + h2 + h3 )1/ 3
C 1 1 1 1 D
−
= + + None of the above
h h h h
1 2 3
46. Two insulating materials of thermal conductivity k and 2k are available for lagging a pipe carrying a
hot fluid. If the radial thickness of each material is the same, then for minimum heat loss
A Material with higher thermal B Material with lower thermal conductivity
conductivity should be used for the should be used for the inner layer and one
inner layer and one with lower with higher thermal conductivity for the
thermal conductivity for the outer inner
C It is immaterial in which sequence D It is not possible to judge unless numerical
the insulting materials are used values of dimensions are given
47. Up to the critical radius of insulation
A Added insulation increases heat loss B Added insulation decreases heat loss
C Convection heat loss is less than D
Heat flux decreases
conduction heat loss
48. With an increase in the thickness of insulation around a circular pipe, heat loss to surroundings
due to
A Convection increases while that due B Convection decreases while that due to
to conduction decreases conduction increases
C Convection and conduction D
Convection and conduction increases2
decreases
49. A copper wire radius 0.5 mm is insulated with a sheathing of thickness 1 mm having a thermal
conductivity 0.5 W / mK. The outside surface convective heat transfer coefficient is 10 W / m2K.
If the thickness of insulation sheating is raised by 10 mm, then the electrical current carrying
capacity of the wire will
A Increase B Decrease
C D Vary depending upon the electrical
Remain the same
conductivity of the wire
50. On a heat transfer surface, fins are provided to
A Increase temperature gradient so as B Increase turbulence in flow for enhancing
to enhance heat transfer heat transfer
C Increase surface area to promote the D
Decrease the pressure drop of the fluid
rate of heat transfer
51. In order to achieve maximum heat dissipation the fin should be designed in such a way that it
has
A Maximum lateral surface at the root B Maximum lateral surface towards the tip
side of fin side of fin
C Maximum lateral surface near the D Minimum lateral surface near the centre of
centre of fin fin
52. Fins are made as thin as possible to
A Reduce the total weight B Accommodate more number of fins
C Increase the width for the same D
Improve flow of coolant around the fin
profile area
53. A finned surface consists of root or base area of 1 m2 and fin surface area of 2 m2. The average
heat transfer coefficient for fined surface is 20 W/m2 K, and effectiveness of fins provided is
0.75. If the finned surface with root or base temperature of 500 C is transferring heat to a fluid at
300 C, then rate of heat transfer is
A 400 W B 800 W
C 1000 W D 1200 W
54. Consider the following statements pertaining to heat transfer through fins and identify the
correct statements.
1. Fins must be arranged at right angles to the direction of flow of the working fluid
2. The temperature along the fin is variable and accordingly the heat transfer rate varies along
the fin elements
3. Fins are equally effective irrespective whether they are on the hot side or cold side of the fluid
4. Fins are made of materials that have thermal conductivity higher than that of the wall
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4
55. Consider convection heat flow to water at 750 C from a cylindrical nuclear reactor fuel rod of 50
mm diameter. Under steady state condition, the rate of heat generation within the fuel element
is 5 x 107 W /m3 and the convective heat transfer coefficient is 1 kW / m2K. The outer surface
temperature of the fuel element would be
A 7000 C B 6250 C
0
C 550 C D 4000 C
56. Which of the following statements is not correct?
In a transient flow process
A The rates of inflow and the outflow B The state of matter inside the control
of mass are different volume varies with time
C There can be work and heat D
There is no accumulation of energy inside
interactions across the control
the control volume
volume
57. The curve for unsteady state cooling or heating of bodies is
A Parabolic curve asymptotic to time B
Exponential curve asymptotic to time axis
axis
C Exponential curve asymptotic both to D Hyperbolic curve asymptotic both to time
time and temperature axes and temperature axes
58. The time constant of a thermocouple is the time taken to
A Attain the final value to the B Attain 63.2% of the value of initial
measured temperature difference
C Attain 50% of initial temperature D Minimum time taken to record a
difference temperature reading
59. Heisler charts are used to determine the transient heat flow rate and temperature distribution
when
A Solids possess infinitely large thermal B Internal conduction resistance is small and
conductivity the convective resistance is large
C Internal conduction resistance is D
Both conduction and convection resistance
large and the convective resistance is
are almost of equal importance
small
60. A large concrete slab 1 m thick has one dimensional temperature distribution prescribed as
T = 4 – 10x2 + 20 x2 + 10x3
Where T is temperature and x is distance from one face towards other face of the wall. If the
slab material has thermal diffusity of 2 x 10-3 m2 /hr, what is the rate of change of temperature
at the other face of the wall?
A 0.1°C/hr B 0.2°C/hr
C 0.3°C/hr D 0.4°C/hr
61. The sun with an effective surface temperature of 5600 K emits most of its radiations in the
spectrum of frequency range
A 0.1 to 4 micron B 1 to 10 micron
C 0.01 to 0.1 micron D At all the wavelengths
62. A body which partly absorbs and partly reflects but does not allow any radiation to pass through
it (α + ρ = 1 and τ = 0) is called
A Diathermanous B Opaque
C Grey D Specular
63. A surface for which emissivity is constant at all temperatures and throughout the range of
wavelength is called
A Opaque B Grey
C Specular D Diathermanous
64. The roof of a house has been given a coating of shining metallic paint. Consequently the
temperature inside the room will
A Fall B Rise
C D Cannot be decided as it depends on factors
Remain unaffected
other than the type of paint
65. The emissivity is likely to be higher in case of
A Rubber B Paper
C Carbon D Iron oxide
66. A thermally transparent surface of transmissivity 0.15 receives 2000 kj/min of radiation and
reflects back 800 kJ/min out of it. The emissivity of the surface is then
A 0.15 B 0.4
C 0.45 D 0.55
67. The temperature of a solid surface changes from 270 C to 6270 C. The emissive power changes
would than confirm to the ratio
A 6:1 B 9:1
C 27 : 1 D 81 : 1
68. A body at 500 K cools by radiating heat to ambient atmosphere maintained at 300 K. When the
body has cooled to 400 K, the cooling rate as a percentage of original rate is about
A 31.1 B 41.5
C 50.3 D 80.4
69. The radiation intensity in a particular direction is the radiant energy per unit time
A B Per unit solid angle per unit area of
Per unit area of radiating surface
radiating surface
C Per unit solid angle per unit projected D
Per unit projected area of the radiating
area of the radiating surface in the
surface in the given
given direction
70. Two spheres A and B of same material have radii 1m and 4m, and temperature 4000 K and 2000
K respectively. Then the energy radiated by sphere A is
A Greater than that of sphere B B Equal to that of sphere B
C Less than that of sphere B D Two times that of sphere B
71. The earth receives at its surface radiation from the sun at the rate of 1400 W/m2. The distance
of the centre of sun from the surface of earth is 1.5 x 1011 m and the radius of the sun is 7.0 x
108 m. Treating the sun as black body, it follows from the above data that sun’s surface
temperature is about
A 3650 K B 4520 K
C 5800 K D 6150 K
72. What is the value of shape factor for two infinite parallel surfaces separated by a distance x
A 0 B ∞
C 1 D x
73. What is the equivalent emissivity for radiant heat exchange between a small body (emissivity =
0.4) in a very large enclosure (emissivity = 0.5)?
A 0.5 B 0.4
C 0.2 D 0.1
74. A radiation shield should
A Have high transmissivity B Absorb all the radiation
C D Partly absorb and partly transmit the
Have high reflective power
incident radiation
75. Two long parallel plates of same emissivity 0.5 are maintained at different temperatures and
have radiation heat exchange between them. A radiation shield of emissivity 0.25 placed in the
middle will reduce radiation heat exchange to
A 1 B 1
2 4
C 3 D 3
10 5
76. Two long parallel surfaces, each of emissivity 0.7 are maintained at different temperatures and
accordingly have radiation exchange between them. It is desired to reduce 75% of this radiant
heat transfer by inserting thin parallel shields of equal emissivity 0.7 on both sides. What should
be the number of shields?
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
77. An enclosure consists of four surfaces 1, 2, 3 and 4. The view factors for radiation heat transfer
are:
F11 = 0.1; F12 = 0.4 and F13 = 0.25
The surface areas A1, A4 are 4 m2 and 2 m2 respectively. The view factor F41
A 0.75 B 0.50
C 0.25 D 0.1
78. For an opaque plane surface, the irradiation, radiosity and emissive power are 20, 12 and 10
W/m2 respectively. Then emissivity of the surface is
A 0.2 B 0.4
C 0.8 D 1.0
79. Solar radiation of 1200 W/m2 falls perpendicularly on a grey opaque surface of emissivity 0.5. If
the surface temperature is 500 C and surface emissive power is 600 W/m2, the radiosity of that
surface will be
A 600 W/m2 B 1000 W/m2
2
C 1200 W/m D 1800 W/m2
80. Forced convection in a liquid bath is caused by
A Density difference brought about by B
Molecular energy interaction
temperature gradients
C Flow of electrons in a random fashion D Intense stirring by an external agency
81. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all made of the same material and having the same
mass are initially heated to a temperature of 2500 C. When left in air at room temperature, what
will be their response to cooling?
A They will cool at the same rate B Circular plate will cool at slowest rate
C Sphere will cool faster D Cube will cool faster than sphere but
slower than the circular plate
82. A steel plate of thickness 5 cm and thermal conductivity 20 W/mK is subjected to a uniform heat
flux of 800 W/m2 on one surface A and transfer heat by convection with a heat transfer
coefficient of 80 W/m2K from the surface B into the ambient air at 250 C temperature. The
temperature of the surface B transferring heat by convection is
A 250 C B 350 C
0
C 45 C D 550 C
83. On a summer day, a scooter rider feels more comfortable while on the move than while at a
stop light because
A An object in motion captures less B Air is transparent and hence it is cooler
radiation than the body
C Air has a low specific heat and hence D More heat is lost by convection and
it is cooler radiation while in motion
84. Heat is low from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 300 C. If
the Nusselt number is 25 W/m2k and thermal conductivity of air is 0.03 W/mK, then the heat
transfer coefficient will be
A 7.5 W/m2K B 16.5 W/m2K
2
C 25 W/m K D 30 W/m2K
85. Which one of the following numbers represents the ratio of kinematics viscosity to thermal
diffusivity?
A Grashoff number B Prandtl number
C Mach number D Nusselt number
86. The non-dimensional parameter known as Stanton number is used in
A Forced convection heat transfer in B Condensation heat transfer with laminar
flow over flat plate film layer
C D Unsteady heat transfer from bodies in
Natural convection heat transfer over
which internal temperature gradient
flat plate
cannot be neglected
87. Which one of the following non-dimensional numbers is used to determine the transaction from
laminar to turbulent flow in free convection?
A Reynolds number B Grashoff number
C Peclet number D Rayleigh number
88. The convective heat transfer coefficient from a hot cylindrical surface exposed to still air varies
in accordance with
Where ∆T is the temperature difference between the hot surface and the surrounding ambient
air
A (∆T)0.25 B (∆T)0.5
0.75
C (∆T) D (∆T)1.25
89. For laminar flow over a flat plate, the local heat transfer coefficient hx, varies is x-1/2 where x is the
distance from the leading edge (x = 0) of the plate. The ratio of the average coefficient hav between
the leading edge and some location A at x = x on the plate to the local heat transfer coefficient is
A 1 B 2
C 4 D 8
90. Thermal boundary layer is a region where
A B Inertia and convection terms are of the
Heat dissipation is negligible
same order of magnitude
C Convection and dissipation terms are D Convection and conduction terms are of
of the same order of magnitude the same order of magnitude
91. For a fluid having Prandtl number equal to unity, the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness δ
and thermal boundary layer thickness δt are related as
A δ = δt B δ > δt
C δ < δt D δt = δ1/3
92. In a convective heat transfer situation, Reynolds number is very large but the Prandtl number is
so small that the product (Re*Pr) is less than one. In such a condition
A Thermal boundary layer does not B Viscous boundary layer thickness equals the
exist thermal boundary layer thickness
C Viscous boundary layer thickness is D
Viscous boundary layer thickness is greater
less than the thermal boundary layer
than the thermal boundary layer thickness
thickness
93. The convective coefficients for boiling and condensation usually lie in the range
A 30-300 B 60-3000
C 300-10,000 D 2500-10,000 W/m2 K
94. Dropwise condensation usually occurs on
A Galzed surface B Smooth surface
C Oily surface D Coated surface
95. Saturated steam is allowed to condense over a vertical flat surface and the condensate film
flows down the surface. The local coefficient of heat transfer for condensation.
A Remains constant at all heights of the B Decreases with increasing distance from the
surface top of the surface
C Increases with increasing thickness of D Increase with increase temperature
condensate film differential between the surface and vapour
96. For filmwise condensation on a vertical plane, the film thickness δ and heat transfer coefficient h
vary with distance x from the leading edge as
A δ distance, h increases B Both δ distance and h increases
C δ distance, h decreases D Both δ and h increases
97. The overall heat transfer coefficient for a shell and tube heat exchanger for clean surfaces is u0 =
400 W /m2 K. The fouling factor after one year of operation is found to be h0 = 2000 W /m2 K.
The overall heat transfer coefficient at this time is
A 1200 W /m2k B 894 W /m2k
C 333 W /m2k D 287 W /m2k
98. In a counter flow heat exchange, cold fluid enters at 300 C and leaves at 500 C, wheras the hot
fluid enters at 1500 C and leaves at 1300 C. The mean temperature difference for this case is
A 200 C B 800 C
C 1000 C D Indeterminate
99. In a heat exchanger, the hot liquid enters with a temperature of 1800 C and leaves at 1600 C. The
cooling fluid enters at 300 C and leaves at 1100 C. The capacity ratio of the heat exchanger is
A 0.25 B 1.5
C 0.33 D 0.2
100. A cross flow type air heater has an area of 50 cm2. The overall transfer coefficient is 200 W /m2K
and heat capacity of both hot and cold stream is 1000 W / K. The value of NTU is
A 1000 B 500
C 5 D 0.2
101. In a balanced counter flow heat exchanger with mh, Ch = mc, cc, the NTU is equal to unity. What is
the effectiveness of heat exchanger?
A 0.5 B 1.5
C 0.33 D 0.2
1 Which of the following statements is correct?
A Extensive properties are independent of B Potential energy is an extensive
the mass of the system property
C Intensive properties depend on the mass D
Density is an extensive property
of the system
2 Choose the correct system
A A gas turbine is a closed system B Automobile battery along with leads is
an open system
C A pressure cooker is a closed system D A mixture of water and steam in a vessel
is an isolated system
3 A closed system traces a cycle of operations. Which of the following is the correct statement?
A
∫ dp = 0 B
∫ dW = 0
C
∫ dQ = 0 D all of above
4 Zeroth law of thermodynamics is the basis of
A Temperature measurement B Pressure measurement
C Heat transfer measurement D Internal energy measurement
5 Which one of the following is not the intensive property of the system?
A Composition B Density
C Volume D Velocity
6 dq = du + p dv is true for
A any process and any system B any process and closed system
C reversible process and closed system D any process and open system
7 dq – dw = 0 holds for
A any cycle B any process
C reversible process only D none of the above
8 dq – dw = du is true for
A any process and open system B any process and any system
C reversible process and closed system D any process and closed system
9 Choose the wrong statement
A Internal energy is a property of the B
Velocity is an intensive property
system
C Stored energy is an intensive property D Kinetic energy is an extensive property
10 Which one of the following statements is correct?
A Cv is a function of temperature for an B Heat transfer is equal to change in
ideal gas internal energy in the case of non-flow
constant pressure process
C Cv is a path function D Work transfer is equal to heat transfer
in the case o non-flow constant volume
pressure
A Specific heat of a gas at constant B Heat transfer is equal to change in
pressure is three times the specific heat enthalpy in the case of non-flow
at constant volume constant pressure process
C Cp is a function of pressure for ideal gas D Work transfer is equal to heat transfer
in the case of non-flow constant
volume process
12 Heat transferred is equal to work done in the case of
A non-flow constant pressure process B non-flow constant volume process
C non-flow adiabatic process D non-flow isothermal process
13 Change of internal energy is equal to work transfer in the case of
A non-flow adiabatic process B non-flow isothermal process
C non-flow constant volume process D non-flow constant pressure process
14 dq = dw + dh is true for
A any process any system B steady flow process
C any process and closed system D none of the above
15 Choose the correct statement
A Energy is non-conservative B Energy is conservative
C First law of thermodynamics deals with D Open system permits the passage of
conservation of mass energy only across the control surface
16 During a throttling process, which of the following property remains constant?
A Internal energy B Pressure
C Pressure and temperature D Enthalpy
17 A perpetual motion machine of 1st kind is
A impossible according to first law of B possible according to first law of
thermodynamics thermodynamics
C impossible according to zeroth law of D possible according to zeroth law of
thermodynamics thermodynamics
A the net work can be produced during a B heat and work are mutually convertible
cycle with some supply of heat
C a process in which temperature remains D unit of Power in S.I. system is Joule
constant is called an adiabatic process
19 When the gas undergoes free expansion, the change of internal energy during the process is
A Positive B Negative
C Zero D Positive or Negative
20 When a gas expands in an adiabatic manner the work done by the gas is
A Zero B Positive
C Negative D Positive or Negative
21 If a thermos bottle containing tea is shaken vigorously, the temperature of the tea
C Decreases D Can’t be predicted
22 If a gas is compressed in an adiabatic manner, its internal energy will
A Increase B Decrease
C remain constant D Increase or decrease
23 A tank of compressed air develops a small leak. The process is
A isobaric B adiabatic
C isothermal D Isochoric
24 If the air in the cylinder with a frictionless piston held by a constant weight on it is heated,
then the process is
A adiabatic B isothermal
C Isochoric D isobaric
A Energy change of thermodynamics system B A block slides down a rough plane and
can proceed in either direction becomes warmer
C A block slides up a rough plane and D Completer conversion of heat into work
becomes cooler is possible.
26 Which one of the following statement is correct?
A It is impossible to construct a perpetual B It is possible to construct a perpetual
motion machine of second kind motion machine of second kind
C It is possible to construct a perpetual D It is possible to build an engine which
motion machine of first kind has 100 percent thermal efficiency
27 If thermal efficiency of Carnot engine is 50% the coefficient of performance of a Carnot
refrigerator working between same temperature limit is
A 3 B 2
C 1 D 4
A B Second law of thermodynamics defines
Second law of thermodynamics defines
internal energy as property of the
entropy as the property of the system
system
C D A perpetual motion machines of second
The reversible engines have the same
kind is impossible according to first law
efficiency as the irreversible engines
of thermodynamics
29 Which one of the following is a correct statement?
A Thermodynamic temperature scale B Thermodynamic temperature scale is
depends upon the nature of the working independent of the nature of working
substance substance
C Thermal efficiency of reversible engines D
Negative temperatures can be attained
depends upon the nature of the working
on the absolute temperature scale.
substance
30 A process will be irreversible if it involves.
A friction only B unrestrained expansion
C heat transfer with a finite temperature D
all of the above
difference
31 Which of the following processes can approach reversibility?
A Mixing of different substances B Expansion of gas in a cylinder
C Diffusion D Chemical reactions
A Entropy is an intensive property of the B (a) Entropy is conservative
system
C Entropy is a measure of the level of D Entropy of the universe is always
irreversibility associated with a process decreasing.
33 During a reversible process, the total entropy of the interacting bodies.
A remains constant B Decreases
C Increases D none of the above
34 During an irreversible process, the total entropy of interacting bodies
A Decreases B remains constant
C Increases D none of the above
35 Entropy change for all naturally occurring processes will be
A unpredictable B less than zero
C zero D greater than zero
A a positive value for change in entropy B a positive value for change in entropy
indicates a decrease in the amount of indicates an increase in the amount of
disorder of system disorder of a system
C a negative value for change in entropy D
the freezing of water is accompanied
indicates increase in the amount of
by increase in entropy.
disorder of a system
37 dQ
If cycle, ∫ T
> 0 the cycle is
A irreversible B Impossible
C Reversible D none of the above
38 The condition for a cycle to be reversible is
A dQ B dQ
cyclic
T ∫
=0 cyclic ∫ T
>0
C dQ D
cyclic ∫ <0 none of the above
T
39 The condition for a cycle to be irreversible is
A dQ B dQ
cyclic
T ∫
=0 cyclic ∫ T
>0
C dQ D
cyclic ∫ <0 none of the above
T
40 A heat engine is supplied with 100 kJ/s of heat at a fixed temperature of 250°C. If 50 kJ/s are
rejected at 10°C, the cycle is
A Reversible B Irreversible
C impossible D none of the above
A Both internal energy and entropy are B Both internal energy and enthalpy are
state functions path functions
C Internal energy is a state function D Entropy is a state function whereas
whereas entropy is a path function. internal energy is path function
42 T ds = du + p dv is true for
A any system, reversible process B closed system, any process
C closed system and reversible process only D any system, any process
43 The amount of heat transfer is represented by the area under
A an irreversible process on a T-S diagram B a reversible process on p-v diagram
C a reversible process on T-S diagram D none of the above
44 A reversible isothermal process on a T-S diagram is represented by a
A straight line B vertical line
C Curve D horizontal line
45 A reversible adiabatic process on a T-S diagram is represented by
A horizontal line B vertical line
C straight line D none of the above
46 Choose the correct answer
A An irreversible adiabatic process is B A reversible adiabatic process is an
constant entropy process isentropic process
C An isentropic process is an adiabatic D Entropy decreases during an
process irreversible adiabatic process
47 The entropy change for a system may be
A Positive B Negative
C Zero D all the above
48 The net entropy change for the universe during a reversible process is
A Zero B greater than zero
C less than zero D none of the above
49 Which one of the following is the property of the system
A actual work output B Heat transfer
C Irreversibility D none of the above
50 A portion of the heat which is rejected to the cold reservoir is called by
A ) available energy B work output
C unavailable energy D none of the above
51 When a system is in a dead state, its available energy is
A Unpredictable B greater than zero
C less than zero D equal to zero
A B Coefficient of performance is the term
Efficiency is the term used to measure the
used to measure the performance of
performance of refrigerators
cyclic engines
C Coefficient of performance is the term D
Efficiency is the term used to measure
used to measure the performance of heat
the performance of heat pumps.
pumps
A In a reversible process, degradation will B Entropy increase is proportional to
be greater than zero exergy degradation
C In an irreversible process degradation will D Availability is not a property of the
be less than zero system
54 Which one of the following statement is correct?
A Critical point involves equilibrium of solid, B Triple point involves equilibrium of
liquid and vapour phases solid, liquid and vapour phases
C Critical point involves equilibrium of solid D Critical point involves equilibrium of
and vapour phases solid and liquid phases
A Freezing temperature of water decreases B Boiling point of water decreases with
with increasing pressure increasing pressure
C Specific volume of carbon dioxide D Specific volume of water decreases on
decreases on freezing freezing
56 Which of the following is correct statement
A The slope of sublimation curve is negative B The slope of fusion curve is positive for
for all pure substances all pure substances
C The slope of vaporization curve is always D The slope of vaporization curve is
negative always positive
57 The temperature and pressure at critical state for water are
A 374.15°C and 22.12 MPa B 405.5 K and 11.28 MPa
C 0.01°C and 0.6113 kPa D none of the above
A Pressure and temperature are B An isothermal line is also constant
independent during phase change pressure line during wet region
C The term dryness fraction is used to D
describe the fraction by mass of liquid in The process of passing from liquid to
the mixture of liquid water and water vapour is condensation
vapour
59 The dryness fraction is to be measured with the help of a combined separating and throttling
calorimeter. If x1 is the theoretical dryness fraction of the same of steam measured by the
separating calorimeter and x2 is the dryness fraction of steam leaving the separating
calorimeter then x, the actual dryness fraction of sample of steam is given by
A x1 B x2
x2 x1
C x2 D x1x2
A If the temperature of the liquid is below B If the pressure of the state of the liquid
the saturation temperature for the same is below the saturation pressure for the
value of pressure, such a state is called same temperature, such a state is called
the state of compressed liquid the state of compressed liquid
C D If the temperature of the liquid is
If the pressure of the state of the liquid is
above the saturation temperature for
below the saturation pressure for the
the same value of pressure, such a
same temperature, such a state is called
state is called the state of a subcooled
the state of a subcooled liquid
liquid
61 Constant enthalpy line a on a Molier’s Chart is represented by a
A vertical line B straight line
C horizontal line D curve
A B Constant pressure lines are straight lines
Constant process lines are curved lines in
in the wet region but bend slightly
the wet region but straight lines in the
upwards in the superheat region in h-s
surperheat region in a h-s diagram
diagram
C Constant pressure lines are parallel in the D Constant pressure lines are horizontal
wet region in a h-s diagram in the superheat region in h-s diagram
63 At critical point, latent heat of vaporization of steam is
A Zero B less than zero
C greater than zero D none of the above
64 The Gibbs function in a two phase liquid vapour mixture
A Increases B remains constant
C decreases D none of the above
65 In a reversible isothermal constant volume process, Helmholtz function
C decreases D may increase or decrease
66 Maxwell’s relations give us the relationship between
A enthalpy, p, v and T B ternal energy, p, v and T
C entropy, p, v and T D none of the above
67 T ds equation holds true for
A any system any process B open system any process
C closed system and reversible process D open system and reversible process
68 dh = Cp dT holds true for
A an ideal gas and constant pressure only B an ideal gas and all processes
C vapour and all processes D gas and vapour and all processes
69 du = Cv dT holds true for
A any gas and constant volume process only B any gas and all processes
C an ideal gas and all processes D gas, vapour and all processes
70 For an ideal gas obeying pv = RT, Cv is function of
A pressure only B temperature only
C both pressure and temperature D volume and temperature
71 For an ideal gas obeying pv =RT, Cv is function of
A volume only B pressure only
C both volume and temperature D temperature only
72 Internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of
A pressure only B temperature alone
C pressure and temperature D volume and temperature
73 The relationship between entropy, internal energy and work is given by
A T ds = du – pdv B du = pdv – Tds
C D du
Tds = du + pdv pdv =
Tds
74 The coefficient of expansion β is defined by
A 1  ∂p  B 1  ∂v 
  −  
p  ∂T  v  ∂p  v
C 1  ∂v  D 1  ∂p 
   
v  ∂T  v v  ∂v  T
75 The compressibility k, is defined as
A 1  ∂v  B 1  ∂p 
k = −   k=  
v  ∂p  T v  ∂v  T
C 1  ∂p  D 1  ∂v 
k=   k=  
v  ∂T  v v  ∂T  v
76 The coefficient of expansion is a function of
A volume only B temperature only
C pressure only D all the above
77 The compressibility is a function of
A temperature only B volume only
C pressure only D all the above
78 The slope of a constant pressure line on Mollier’s chart in the wet region
A increases B decreases
C may increases or decrease D remains constant
79 The Clapeyron equation expresses on a p-T plot the slope of
A vaporization curve only B fusion curve only
C sublimation curve only D all the above
80 At a triple point, the slope of sublimation line is
A greater than that of the vaporization line B less than that of the vaporization line
C equal to that of the vaporization line D zero
81 When a real gas is throttled, the temperature of the gas
C may increase or decrease D remains constant
82 When a perfect gas is throttled, the temperature of the gas
A increases B remains constant
C decreases D none of the above
A the left of the inversion curve on the T-p B the left of the inversion curve of the T-p
diagram is the heating region whereas diagram is the cooling regions whereas
the right is the cooling region the right is the heating region
C the left as well as the right of the D the left as well as the right of the
inversion curve on T-p diagram are inversion curve on T-p diagram are
heating region cooling region
84 If the Joule-Thomson coefficient of the real gas approaching a valve is negative as it passes
through the valve, the temperature will
A Fall B remains constant
C Rise D fall or rise
85 The simple Rankine cycle consists of
A two adiabatic and two constant volume B two isothermal and two constant
processes pressure processes
C two adiabatic and two constant pressure D two isothermal and two constant
processes volume processes
86 Efficiency of the Rankine cycle can be increased by
A decreasing the maximum pressure of the B increasing the temperature of which
cycle heat is rejected
C increasing the exhaust pressure D lowering the exhaust pressure
87 In an steam power plant, the effect of lowering the exhaust pressure is
A to increase the thermal efficiency but to B to decrease the thermal efficiency but
decrease the moisture content of steam to increase moisture content of steam
leaving the turbine leaving the turbine
C to increase the thermal efficiency as also D to decrease thermal efficiency as also
the moisture content of steam leaving the the moisture content of steam leaving
turbine the turbine
88 The effect of superheating the steam at turbine inlet without increase in maximum pressure
in steam power plant, on thermal efficiency and the quality of steam leaving the turbine is
A to increase thermal efficiency but to B to increase both thermal efficiency and
decrease quality quality
C to decrease thermal efficiency but to D to decrease both thermal efficiency and
increase quality quality
89 The effect of maximum pressure in a Rankine cycle, by keeping the maximum temperature as
well as the exhaust pressure constant, on thermal efficiency and quality of steam leaving the
turbine is
A to decrease the quality but to increase B to increase both the quality and the
the efficiency efficiency
C to increase quality but to decrease D to decrease both the quality and the
efficiency efficiency
A B Steam power plant is a closed system
Both steam power plants and internal
whereas internal combustion engine is
combustion engines are closed systems
an open system
C D Steam power plant is an open systems
Both steam power plant and internal
whereas internal combustion engine is
combustion engines are open systems
an closed system
91 Air standard efficiency is defined as
A Heat supplied − heat rejected B Heat supplied + heat rejected
Heat supplied Heat supplied
C Heat supplied − heat rejected D Heat supplied
Heat rejected Heat supplied - Heat rejected
92 Otto Cycle consists of
A two constant pressure and two adiabatic B one constant pressure, one constant
processes volume and two isothermal processes
C two constant volume and two isothermal D two constant volume and two adiabatic
processes processes
93 Air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is equal to supplied
A r B 1
1− 1−
1 − r γ −1 1 − r γ −1
C 1 D
1 − γ −1 none of the above
r
94 Compression ratio is defined as the ratio of
A Swept volume B Swept volume + clearance volume
Swept volume + clearance volume Clearance volume
C Swept volume + clearance volume D Swept Volume
Swept volume Clearance Volume
95 Air standard efficiency of the Otto cycle depends upon
A compression ratio (r) only B ratio of specific heats ( γ) only
C both (a) and (b) D none of the above
96 Diesel cycle consist of
A one constant pressure, one constant B two constant volume and two adiabatic
volume and two adiabatic processes processes
C two constant pressure and two D two isothermal and two adiabatic
isothermal processes processes
97 Air standard efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon
A compression ratio (r) only B cut off ratio (ρ) only
C ratio of specific heats (γ)only D all the above
98 With increasing cut off ratios, the efficiency of diesel cycle
A Decreases B increases
C remains constant D can either increase or decrease
99 For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of Diesel cycle
A is equal to that of Otto cycle B is more that of Otto cycle
C is less than that of Otto cycle D cannot be predicted
A Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel B Diesel cycle is more efficient than Dual
cycle for the same compression ratio cycle for the same compression ratio
C The efficiency of diesel cycle decreases D Diesel cycle consists of two constant
with decrease in cut off ratio volume and two adiabatic processes
101 Dual cycle consist of
A two adiabatic, one constant volume and B two isothermals, one constant pressure
two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes
C two adiabatic, one isothermal, one D
two adiabatic, one constant pressure
constant volume and one constant
and two constant volume processes
pressure process
102 The compression ratio of diesel engines normally falls in the range of
A 30 to 40 B 4 to 7
C 15 to 20 D 2 to 5
103 Mean effective pressure is defined as work done per cycle divided by
A clearance volume B swept volume
C total volume D none of the above
104 For the same maximum pressure and maximum temperature, thermal efficiency of Diesel
cycle is
A higher than that of Otto cycle B less than that of Otto cycle
C equal to Otto cycle D none of the above
105 The efficiency of dual cycle as compared to the efficiency of the Diesel cycle for the same
compression ratio is
A less B more
C equal D may be less or more
106 Brayton cycle consists of
A two constant volume and two constant B two constant volume and two
pressure processes isothermal processes
C two constant pressure and two adiabatic D two isothermal and two adiabatic
processes processes
107 For the same compression ratio, the Brayton cycle efficiency is
A equal to Otto cycle efficiency B equal to Diesel cycle efficiency
C more to Otto cycle efficiency D less than Otto cycle efficiency
108 Thermal efficiency of Brayton cycle depends upon
A pressure ratio (rp) only B adiabatic index (γ ) only
109 For the same pressure ratio, with increase in turbine inlet temperature the thermal efficiency
of gas turbine plant.
A decreases B increases
C may increase or decrease D none of the above
110 The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle can be increased by
A reheating only B regeneration only
C intercooling only D none of the above
111 In gas turbine power plant the regenerative heat exchangers are of
A parallel flow type B counter flow type
C cross flow type D none of the above
An industrial heat pump operates between the temperatures of 27˚C and -13˚C. The rates of
heat addition and heat rejection are 750 W and 1000 W, respectively. The COP for the heat
1. pump is
A 7.5 B 6.5
C 4.0 D 3.0
For air with a relative humidity of 80%
A The dry bulb temperature is less than the B The dew point temperature is less than
2. wet bulb temperature wet bulb temperature
C The dew point and web bulb temperature D The dry bulb and dew point temperature
are equal are equal
A refrigerator based on ideal vapour compression cycle operates between the temperature
limits of -20˚C and 40˚C. The refrigerant enters the condenser as saturated vapour and leaves as
saturated liquid. The enthalpy and entropy values for saturated liquid and vapour at these
temperatures are given in the table below.
T˚C hf (kJ/kg) hg (kJ/kg) Sf (kJ/kg K) Sg (kJ/kg K)
3.
-20 20 180 0.07 0.7366
40 80 200 0.3 0.67
If refrigerant circulation rate is 0.025 kg/s, the refrigeration effect is
A 2.1 kW B 2.5 kW
C 3.0 kW D 4.0 kW
A refrigerator based on ideal vapour compression cycle operates between the temperature
limits of -20˚C and 40˚C. The refrigerant enters the condenser as saturated vapour and leaves as
saturated liquid. The enthalpy and entropy values for saturated liquid and vapour at these
temperatures are given in the table below.
T˚C hf (kJ/kg) hg (kJ/kg) Sf (kJ/kg K) Sg (kJ/kg K)
4.
-20 20 180 0.07 0.7366
40 80 200 0.3 0.67
The COP of the refrigerator is
A 2.0 B 2.33
C 5.0 D 6.0
In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is
5. A Capillary tube B Thermostatic expansion valve
C Automatic expansion valve D Float valve
During the chemical dehumidification process of air
A Dry bulb temperature and specific B Dry bulb temperature increases and
6. humidity decrease specific humidity decreases
C Dry bulb temperature decreases and D Dry bulb temperature and specific
specific humidity increases humidity increases
Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its
chemical formula is
7.
A CH CI F2 B C2 CI3 F3
C C2 CI2 F4 D C2 H2 F4
A heat engine having an efficiency of 70% is used to drive a refrigerator having a coefficient of
performance of 5. The energy absorbed from low temperature reservoir by the refrigerator for
8. each kJ of energy absorbed from high temperature source by the engine is
A 0.14 kJ B 0.71 kJ
C 3.5 kJ D 7.1 kJ
Dew point temperature of air at one atmospheric pressure (1.013 bar) is 18˚C. The air dry bulb
temperature is 30˚C. The saturation pressure of water at 18˚C and 30˚C are 0.02062 bar and
0.04241 bar respectively. The specific heat of air and water vapour respectively are 1.005 and
9. 1.88 kJ/kg K and the latent heat of vaporization water of 0˚C is 2500 kJ/kg. The specific humidity
(kg/kg of dry air) and enthalpy (kJ/kg of dry air) of this moist air respectively, are
A 0.01051, 52.64 B 0.01291, 63.15
C 0.01481, 78.60 D 0.01532, 81.40
For a typical sample of ambient air (at 30˚C, 75% relative humidity and standard atmospheric
pressure), the amount of moisture in kg per kg of dry air will be approximately
10.
A 0.002 B 0.027
C 0.25 D 0.75
Water at 42˚C is sprayed into a stream of air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of
40˚C and a wet bulb temperature of 20˚C. The air leaving the spray humidifier is not saturated.
11. Which of the following statements is true?
A Air gets cooled and humidified B Air gets heated and humidified
C Air gets heated and dehumidified D Air gets cooled and dehumidified
Dew point temperature is the temperature at which condensation begins when the air is cooled
at constant
12.
A Volume B Entropy
C Pressure D enthalpy
Which of the following statements concern to Psychrometric chart are correct?
1. Constant relative humidity lines are uphill straight lines to the right
2. Constant wet bulb temperature lines are downhill straight lines to the right
13. 3. Constant specific volume lines are downhill straight lines to the right
4. Constant enthalpy lines are coincident with constant web bulb temperature line
A 2 and 3 B 1 and 2
C 1 and 3 D 2 and 4
A building has to be maintained at 21˚C (dry bulb) and 14.5˚C (wet bulb). The dew point
temperature under these conditions is 10.17˚C. The outside temperature is -23˚C (dry bulb) and
the internal and external surface heat transfer coefficients are 8 W/m2K and 23 W/m2K
14. respectively. If the building wall has a thermal conductivity of 1.2 W/mK, the minimum
thickness (in m) of the wall required to prevent condensation is
A 0.471 B 0.407
C 0.321 D 0.125
Atmospheric air at a flow rate of 3 kg/s (on dry basis) enters a cooling and dehumidifying coil
with an enthalpy of 85 kJ/kg of dry air and a humidity ratio of 19 grams/kg of dry air. The air
leaves the coil with an enthalpy of 43 kJ/kg of dry air and a humidity ratio of 8 grams/kg of dry
15. air. If the condensate water leaves the coil with an enthalpy of 67 kJ/kg, the required cooling
capacity of the coil in kW is
A 75.0 B 123.8
C 128.2 D 159.0
Moist air at a pressure of 100 kPa is compressed to 500 kPa and then cooled to 35˚C in an after
cooler. The air at the entry to the after cooler is unsaturated and becomes just saturated at the
exit of the after cooler. The saturation pressure of water at 35˚C is 5.628 kPa. The partial
16.
pressure of water vapour (in kPa) in the moist air entering the compressor is closest to
A 0.57 B 1.13
C 2.26 D 4.52
Air (at atmospheric pressure) at a dry bulb temperature of 40˚C and web bulb temperature of
20˚C is humidified in an air washer operating with continuous water recirculation. The wet bulb
depression (i.e. the difference between the dry and wet bulb temperature) at the exit is 25% of
17.
that at the inlet. The dry bulb temperature at the exit of the air washer is closest to
A 10˚C B 20˚C
C 25˚C D 30˚C
In an ideal vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the specific enthalpy of refrigerant (in kJ/kg)
at the following states is given as:
Inlet of condenser: 283
Exit of condenser: 116
18.
Exit of evaporator: 232
The COP of this cycle is
A 2.27 B 2.75
C 3.27 D 3.75
A moist air sample has dry bulb temperature of 30˚C and specific humidity of 11.5 g water
vapour per kg dry air. Assume molecular weight of air as 28.93. If saturation vapour pressure of
water at 30˚C is 4.24 kPa and the total pressure is 90 kPa, then the relative humidity (in %) of air
19.
sample is
A 50.5 B 38.5
C 56.5 D 68.5
The cooling effect in refrigeration is obtained by
1. Mechanical refrigeration technique
2. Passing direct current through junction of two dissimilar metals
3. Sublimation of carbon dioxide
20.
4. Throttling of a real gas
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1 and 2 B 1, 3 and 4
C 1, 2 and 4 D 1, 2, 3, and 4
The throttling of certain gases may be used for getting the refrigerant effects. For such a
throttling process, the value of joule-Thomson coefficient (ߤ) is
21.
A (ߤ) = 0 B (ߤ) = 1
C (ߤ) < 1 D (ߤ) > 1
Thermoelectric refrigeration system is based on
22. A Peltier effect B Joule effect
C Joule-Thomson throttling D Adiabatic demagnetization
The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator working on Carnot cycle is
Where T1 and T2 are the highest and lowest operating temperature in the cycle
A Tଵି Tଶ B Tଵି Tଶ
23.
Tଵ Tଶ
C Tଶ D Tଵ
Tଵି Tଶ Tଵି Tଶ
The COP of a Carnot refrigeration cycle decreases on
A Decreasing the difference in operating B Keeping the upper temperature constant
24. temperature and increasing the lower temperature
C Increasing the upper temperature and D Increasing the upper temperature and
keeping the lower temperature constant decreasing the lower temperature
For the same operating temperature limits, the coefficient of performance (COP) of a heat
pump equals
25. A COP of refrigerator B 1 + (COP of refrigerator)
C D 1
(COP of refrigerator) - 1
(COP of refrigerator)
The capacity of refrigerating machine is expressed as
A Inside volume of cabinet B Lowest temperature attained
26.
C D Rate of abstraction of heat from the space
Gross weight of machine in tons
being cooled
One ton of refrigeration is equivalent to
27. A 1 kW B 2.5 kW
C 3.5 kW D 5 kW
The domestic refrigerator has a refrigerating load of the order of
28. A Less than 0.25 ton B Between 0.5 to 1 ton
C More than 1 ton D More than 5 ton
Round the clock cooling of an apartment having a load of 300 MJ/ day requires an air-
conditioning plant of capacity about
29.
A 1 ton B 5 tons
C 10 tons D 25 tons
In a one ton capacity water cooler, water enters at 30˚C at the rate of 200 liters per hour.
Taking specific heat of water as 4.16 kJ/kg K, the outlet temperature of water will be
30.
A 3.5˚C B 6.3˚C
C 23.7˚C D 15˚C
An ideal refrigerator is operating between a condenser temperature of 37˚C and an evaporator
temperature of -3˚C. If the machine is functioning as a heat pump, its coefficient of
31. performance will be
A 6.00 B 6.75
C 7.00 D 7.75
A refrigerator based on reversed Carnot cycle works between two such temperatures that the
ratio between the lowest and highest temperature is 0.8. If a heat pump is operated between
32. same temperature range, then what would be its COP?
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
A refrigerator operates between the temperatures of - 23˚C and 27˚C. If one TR = 3.5 kW, the
minimum power required per TR to operate the refrigerator is
33.
A 0.5 kW B 0.7 kW
C 0.9 kW D 1.0 kW
A Carnot refrigerator rejects 3000 kJ of heat at 400 K while using 1000 kJ of work. The lowest
operating temperature in the cycle should be about
34.
A 15˚C B 27˚C
C -6˚C D 0˚C
A heat engine having an efficiency of 70% is used to drive a refrigerator having a coefficient of
performance of 5. The energy absorbed from low temperature reservoir by the refrigerator for
35. each kJ of energy absorbed from high temperature source by the engine is
A 0.14 kJ B 0.71 kJ
C 3.5 kJ D 7.1 kJ
A heat pump is used to heat a house in winter and then reversed to cool the house in summer.
The inside temperature of the house is to be maintained 20˚C. The heat transfer through the
house wall is 7.9 kJ/s and the temperature in winter is 5˚C. What is the minimum power
36.
(approximate) required to drive the pump?
A 40.5 W B 405 W
C 42.5 W D 425 W
The operating temperature of a cold storage is -2˚C. From the surroundings at ambient
temperature of 40˚C, the heat leakage into the cold storage is 30 kW. If the actual COP of the
plant is 1/10 th of the maximum possible COP, then what will be the power required to pump
37.
out the heat to maintain the cold storage at -2˚C
A 1.90 kW B 3.70 kW
C 20.28 kW D 46.50 kW
A reversible heat engine operates between temperature limits of T1 and T2 where T1 > T2. The
work output from this engine is utilized to operate a reversible refrigerator that absorbs heat
from a system at T3 and rejects the heat to the system at temperature T2. The coefficient of
performance of this combined system would be
38. Tଵ Tଷ
A B Tଵ − Tଶ Tଷ
× ×
Tଵ − Tଶ Tଶ − Tଷ Tଵ Tଶ − Tଷ
C Tଵ Tଷ D Tଵ − Tଶ Tଶ − Tଷ
× ×
Tଵ − Tଶ Tଵ − Tଷ Tଵ Tଷ
The refrigerating system of passenger aircraft works on reversed
39. A Brayton cycle B Atkinson cycle
C Ericsson cycle D Carnot cycle
Air refrigeration cycle is generally employed in
40. A Domestic refrigerators B Commercial refrigerators
C Air-conditioning D Gas liquefaction
Which aspect is not true in the context of a refrigerating machine working on Bell-Coleman
cycle?
41. A Low coefficient of performance B Simplicity of design and operation
C High power consumption per ton of D
Large amount of air circulation per minute
refrigeration
42. The primary purpose of Boot-strap system is to
A Improve coefficient of performance B Reduce the weight of the machine
C Reduce power required to run the D
Provide additional cooling
machine
Which is the most suitable type of air-refrigeration system for supersonic planes with Mach
number 3 or above?
43.
A Boot-strap B Simple evaporative
C Regenerative D Boot-strap evaporative
The flash chamber in a single stage simple vapour compression cycle serves to
44. A Increase the refrigerating effect B Decrease the refrigerating effect
C Increase the compressor pressure ratio D Reduce the size of evaporator
In a refrigeration system, expansion valve is incorporated between
45. A Evaporator and compressor B Condenser and evaporator
C Compressor and condenser D Superheater and subcooler
A capillary tube is used in a small refrigerator to serve the purpose of
46. A Thermostat B Expansion valve
C Drier D Evaporator
The throttling operation in a refrigeration cycle is carried out in
47. A Evaporator B Discharge valve
C Capillary tube D Condenser
During which component of vapour compression refrigeration system, the enthalpy remains
constant?
48.
A Condenser B Throttle valve
C evaporator D Compressor
The pressure in a capillary tube decreases due to which of the followings:
1. Frictional resistance offered by the tube wall
2. Acceleration of refrigerant in the tube
3. Heat transfer from the tube
49.
4. Decrease in potential energy
Select your answer from the following code:
A 1 and 2 B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4 D 1 and 4
In vapour compression refrigeration system, at entrance to which component the working fluid
is superheated vapour?
50.
A Evaporator B Condenser
C Compressor D Expansion valve
For small installation of refrigeration systems (up to 35 kW), which type of condenser is used?
51. A Shell and tube type B Shell and coil type
C Double tube type D Air cooled type
Which of the following type of compressor is generally used in domestic refrigerator
52. A Axial B Centrifugal
C Reciprocating D Rotating screw
In a hermetically sealed compressor unit,
A Both the motor and compressor are B
53. Only compressor is sealed
sealed
C Only motor is sealed D Either motor or compressor is sealed
In the vapour compression refrigeration system, the refrigerant before entering the expansion
device or throttle valve is in the form of
54.
A Wet vapour at low pressure B Wet vapour at high pressure
C High pressure saturated liquid D Low pressure saturated liquid
What is the state of refrigerant before and after the expansion valve in a vapour compression
system?
55.
A Saturated liquid; very wet vapour B Very wet vapour; fairly dry vapour
C Superheated vapour; saturated liquid D Fairly dry vapour; superheated vapour
Which of the following statements is not true in the context of vapour compresson refrigeration
56.
cycle?
A The refrigerant occurs as high pressure B
The refrigerant is generally in the form of
saturated liquid between the condenser
wet vapour in the evaporator
and expansion valve
C D The high temperature of refrigerant
The refrigerant occurs as high pressure
occurs when the vapour leaves the
liquid in the condenser
throttle valve
In a domestic refrigerator, periodic defrosting required because frosting
57. A Causes corrosion of materials B Reduces heat extraction
C Overcools food stuff D Partially blocks refrigerant flow
In a vapour compression refrigeration system, liquid to suction heat exchanger is used to
A B Prevent the liquid refrigerant from
Keep the COP constant
58. entering the compressor
C Subcool the liquid refrigerant leaving D Subcool the vapour refrigerant from the
condenser evaporator
Subcooling in the condenser of a refrigeration system is advisable when
1. Expansion valve is at a higher elevation than condenser
2. There is large pressure drop in the line connecting condenser to the expansion valve
3. The refrigeration effect is to increased
59.
4. The compressor work is to be reduced
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A 1 and 2 B 1, 3 and 4
C 2, 3 and 4 D 1, 2 and 3
In a vapour compression refrigeration plant, the enthalpy values at different points are:
1. At exit of evaporator = 350 kJ/kg
2. At exit from compressor = 375 kJ/kg
3. At exit from condenser = 225 kJ/kg
60.
The refrigerating efficiency of the plant is 0.8. What is the power required per kW of cooling to
be produced?
A 0.25 kW B 4.0 kW
C 12.5 kW D 11 kW
In a vapour absorption refrigerator, heat is rejected in
61. A Condenser only B Generator only
C Absorber only D Condenser and absorber
The most common type of absorption system in use in industrial applications is based on the
refrigerant absorbent combination of
62.
A Air-water B Lithium bromide-air
C Carbon dioxide-water D Ammonia-water
Solar energy can be directly used in
63. A Air refrigeration system B Jet refrigeration system
C Vapour compression refrigeration system D Vapour absorption refrigeration system
Consider the following statements in respect of absorption refrigeration and vapour
compression refrigeration systems:
1. The former runs on low grade energy
2. The pumping work in the former is negligible since specific volume of strong liquid
solution in small
64.
3. The latter uses an absorber while the former uses a generator
4. The liquid pump alone replaces compressor of the latter
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3
C 1 and 4 D 2 and 4
Maximum possible COP of a solar absorption refrigeration system with a generator
temperature of 360 K, condenser and absorber temperature of 300 K each and evaporator
65. temperature of 270 K is
A 9 B 6
C 3 D 1.5
66. Global warming is caused by
A Ozone B Carbon dioxide
C nitrogen D Carbon monoxide
Environmental protection agencies advise against the use of chloro-fluro carbon refrigerants
because these react with
67.
A Water vapour and cause acid rain B Plants and cause green house effect
C Oxygen and cause its depletion D Ozone layer and cause its depletion
In conventional refrigerants, what is the element responsible for ozone depletion?
68. A Chlorine B Fluorine
C Carbon D Hydrogen
Ozone depletion by CFC occurs by break down of
A Chlorine atoms from refrigerant by UV B Fluorine atoms from refrigerant by UV
radiation and reaction with ozone into radiation and reaction with ozone in
69. troposphere troposphere
C Chlorine atoms from refrigerant by UV D Fluorine atoms from refrigerant by UV
radiation and reaction with ozone in radiation and reaction with ozone in
stratosphere stratosphere
Which is an azeotrope?
A A non-halogenic refrigerant B A refrigerant dissolved in alcohol
70.
C A mixture of refrigerants without phase D
An eco-friendly refrigerant
separation
Environment friendly refrigerant R22 is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its
chemical formula is
71.
A CHCIF2 B C2CI3F3
C C2CI2F4 D C2H2F4
The leaks in refrigeration system using Freon are detected by
A A halide torch which on detection B Suphur sticks which on detection given
72.
produces greenish flame lighting white smoke
C Using reagents D Sensing reduction in pressure
73. Heat is picked up by the refrigerant during a refrigeration cycle in the
A evaporator B condenser
C compressor D none of the above
74. The device which operates on reversed heat engine cycle is called
A heat pump only B refrigeration only
75. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A Subcooling of the liquid refrigerant in B
With decreasing evaporator pressures, the
vapour compression refrigeration system
C.O.P. of the refrigeration system increases
decreases C.O.P.
C D Superheating of vapour before entry to
With increases in condensing
the compressor in a vapour compression
temperature, the performance of
refrigeration system decreases the work
refrigeration system is affected adversely.
of compression
76. Air refrigeration system operates on
A reversed Carnot cycle B reversed Brayton cycle
C reversed Otto cycle D none of the above
77. The condenser in the vapour compression refrigerator system removes from the refrigerant
A sensible heat only B latent heat only
C both latent and sensible heat D neither latent nor sensible heat
78. Which of the following statements is correct?
A the evaporator is sometime called the B the evaporator is a device to reject heat
high side of the system from the refrigeration system
C the temperature of the medium being D the evaporator is that part of the
cooled must be below that of the refrigeration system in which refrigerant
evaporator absorbs heat
79. C.O.P. of carnot heat pump is
A T1 B T2
T1 − T2 T1 − T2
C T1 − T2 D T1
T1 T2
80. A refrigeration system operates on the reversed Carnot cycle. The higher temperature of the
refrigerant in the system is 300 K and the lower temperature 250 K. The C.O.P. of the cycle is
A 0.4 B 1.25
C 6 D 5
81. Compare the compressor displacement to produce –15°C temperature for the following four
common types of refrigerants. Identify them in ascending order.
A R-22, R-134a, NH3, R-11 B NH3, R-22, R-134a, R-11
C NH3, R-22, R-11, R – 134a D NH3, R-11, R-134a, R-22
82. When the liquid refrigerant leaving the condenser in the vapour compression refrigeration
system is subcooled, the refrigerating effect.
C remains constant D first increases and then decreases
83. Ice plant and air conditioner both use the same refrigerant and have water cooled condensers.
The C.O.P. of the ice plant will be
A the same as that of the air conditioner B higher than that of the air conditioner
C lower than that of the air conditioner D none of the above
84. The refrigerant used in a household refrigerator working on vapour compression system is
A Ammonia B Freon 134a
C Carbon Dioxide D none of the above
85. As the suction pressure in a simple refrigeration cycle decreases, the C.O.P.
A remain unchanged B decreases
C increases D may increases or decreases
86. With the increase in discharge pressure in a simple refrigeration cycle, C.O.P.
A decreases B increases
C remains constant D none of the above
87. In a simple saturated vapour compression cycle, the state of the refrigerant before entering the
expansion device is
A dry saturated vapour B subcooled liquid
C partly liquid and partly vapour D saturated liquid
88. In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle the highest pressure occurs in
A Condenser B Evaporator
C Throttle valve D none of the above
The equation mx + kx = 0 represents
1 A Free vibrations B Forced Vibrations
C Periodically forced vibrations D Free vibrations with viscous damping
In vibration isolation systems, the transmissibility that is ratio of force transmitted to the disturbing force
will be less than unity, for all values of damping factors if is
2
A equal to 1 B below √2
C above √2 D less than 1
At a node of the shaft, the vibrations are
3 A minimum B maximum
C corresponding to natural frequency D zero
A shaft carrying two rotors at ends will have following number of nods
4
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 0
In under damped vibrating system the amplitude of vibration with reference to time
5
A Increases linearly B increases exponentially
C Decreases linearly D decreases exponentially
In vibration isolation systems, the transmissibility that is ratio of force transmitted to the disturbing force
will be less than unity, for all values of damping factors if is
6
A equal to 1 B below √2
C above √2 D less than 1
The rate of decay of oscillations is known as
7 A Critical damping B damping co-efficient
C Transmissibility D Logarithmic decrement
In forced vibrations the magnitude of damping force at resonance equals
8 A Inertia force B impressed force
C infinity D spring force
The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibrations to the deflection due to the static force
is called
9
A logarithmic decrement B damping factor
C logarithmic decrement D magnification factor
The ratio of actual damping co-efficient to the critical damping co-efficient is called
10 A magnification factor B damping factor
C logarithmic decrement D transmissibility
In vibration isolation systems, transmissibility is unity for all values of damping factor, if ω/ωn is equal to
11
A unity B √2
C >√2 D <√2
In a damped vibration system, the damping force is proportional to
12
A displacement B velocity
C acceleration D vibrations
Rated life of a ball bearing in relation to load (P) varies as
13 A P B P2
2
C 1/P D 1 / P3
Stub tooth in gears
14 A Is standard tooth B Is longer than standard tooth
C Is shorter than standard tooth D Has special profile
Backlash is spur gears is the
Difference between the dedendum of one Difference between the tooth space of one gear
15 A gear and the addendum of the mating B and the tooth thickness of the mating gear
gear measured on the pitch circle
Intentional extension of centre distance
C D Does not (B) (C) (D)
between two gears
In which type of teeth, variation in centre distance within limits does not affect the velocity ratio of the
mating gears
16
A Cycloidal B involute
C hypoid D all of the above
35. Lewis equation in gears is used to find the
17 A tensile stress B compressive stress in bending
C contact stress D endurance stress
Involute profiles in gears are very popular because of the following advantage
18 A pressure angle is constant B face and flank of a tooth form a continuous curve
all gears having the same pitch and
pressure angle work correctly together
Miter gears are
right angled bevel gears having same
19 A B spur gears of equal diameter and pitch
number of teeth
C helical gears of same module D gears of different module
Larger pressure angles in comparison to smaller pressure angles make the gear
20 A weaker B stronger
C have no effect as regards strength D increase wear
Interference is inherently absent in following type of gears
21 A involute B cycloidal
C epicycloid D hypocycloid
In skew bevel gears, the axes
are non-parallel and non-intersecting, and are non-parallel and non-intersecting, and the
A B
22 the teeth are carved teeth are straight
intersect, and the teeth are curved and intersect, and the teeth are curved and can be
C D
oblique ground
If the number of teeth on two bevel gears in mesh is 30 and 60, then the come pitch angle of the pinion
will be
23 -1 -1
A tan 2 B tan 0.5
-1 -1
C sin 0.5 D sin 2.0
The type of tooth profile used for gears in watches and clocks is
24 A In volute B cycloidal
C hypocycloid D any one of the above
For accurately cut gears operating at velocities upto 20 m/sec, the velocity factor is equal to
25
A 3/3+v (v-pitch line velocity) B 6/6+v
C 9/9+v D none of the above
If both pinion and gear are made of the same material, then the load transmitting capacity is decided by
26 A gear B pinion
both should be considered independently for
C any one of the two D
tooth strength
Surface endurance limit of gear material is dependent on its
27 A Coefficient of elasticity B Elastic strength
C Brinell hardness number D Yield strength
The initial contact in helical gears is
28
28 A point B line
C surface D unpredictable
Which of the following is antifriction bearing
29 pedestal bearing collar bearing
A B
C full journal bearing D needle bearing
Anti-friction bearings are
30 A sleeve bearing B gas lubricated bearings
C ball and roller bearings D plastic bearings
Which of the following is called the divided journal bearings
31 A ball and roller bearings B pivot bearing
C split carbon bearings D plummer block
Which of the following parameters should be monitored for determining safe operation of journal
bearing?
32
A oil pressure B bearing metal temperature
C drain oil temperature D all of the above
In case of ball bearings, which part is made harder than others
33 A ball B outer race
C inner race D all are made equally hard
Railroad car baring is a
34 A ball bearing B partial journal bearing
C roller bearing D needle bearing
To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting,
use
35
A Spur gear B spiral gear
C bevel gear D worm gear
Addendum is given by
36 A diametral pitch B (C) One module
C 1.25 modules D none of the above
The ratio of the number of teeth and pitch circle diameter is called
37 A pitch B circular pitch
C diametral pitch D module
The circle passing through the bottom of the teeth of gear is known as
38 A Inner circle B prime circle
C base circle D addendum circle
Intermediate gears
39 A Obtaining rotation in desired direction B Reducing the size of the individual gear
Bridging the gap between the first and last
C D Any one of the above
wheels of the train
According to law of gearing
Clearance between mating teeth should be
40 A Teeth should be of involute type B
provided
C Dedendum should be equal to 1.157 m D none of the above
Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between two shafts whose axes are
41
A parallel B non-intersecting
C non-coplaner D none of the above
Partial balancing in locomotive results in
Hammer blow, variation of tractive effort,
42 A B Least wear
swaying couple
C Most smooth operation D Better performance of engine
In hydrostatic bearing, pressure to lubricant is supplied by
43 Partially external and partially from rotation of
A External source B
journal
C Not supplied by external source D Shaft driven pump
Swaying couple results due to
44 A Primary distributing force B secondary distributing force
C partial balancing D use of two cylinders
The effect of swaying couple is resisted by
The side pressure between the flanges of

45 A the tyres of the wheel and the inside of B Cylinders
the rails
C Dead weight on the wheels D Balancing weight in the wheels

Gear box of car utilises
46 A Compound train B simple train
C epicyclic train D complex train
The critical speed depends on
47 A Mass B stiffness
C mass and stiffness D mass, stiffness and eccentricity
The factor which affects critical speed depends of shaft is
48 A eccentricity B span of shaft
C diameter of disk D all of the above
The maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force in line perpendicular to the line of stroke is known as
49
A swaying couple B hammer couple
C variation in tractive effort D unbalanced force
Usually following fraction of reciprocating masses, is balanced in case of reciprocating engines

50
A full B half
C one-quarter D two-thirds
In order to facilitate the starting of the locomotive in any position, the cranks of locomotive with two
cylinders are placed at following angle to each other
51
A 45° B 90°
C 135° D 180°
Hammer blow occurs when the c.g. of the balance weight is
52 A Directly above the wheel centre B Directly below the wheel centre
C Directly above or below the wheel centre D Perpendicular to wheel vertical plane
The secondary critical speed of shaft occurs at
53 A Twice the speed of primary critical speed B half the speed of primary critical speed
Tour times the speed of primary critical
C D One-fourth the speed of primary critical speed
speed
The gear box in automobiles is placed between
54 A The clutch and differential B the steering and engine
C the engine and clutch D the differential and Hook’s joint
The usefulness of critical damping is that it
55 A Totally eliminates vibrations B provide basis of determining critical damping
provides measure of the relatives amount of
C enables measurements of damping D
damping in system
For a vibrating system, if the damping factor is unity, then maximum magnification factor will be occurs
for ω/ωn value of
56
A 0 B 1
C more than 1 D unpredictable
An over damped system when disturbed from equilibrium position with an initial velocity will
57 A Vibrate above equilibrium position B Immediately return to equilibrium position

Return to equilibrium position after 1 to 2
C Not cross the equilibrium position D
oscillation
A three rotor system has following number of natural frequencies
58 A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
Guest’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
59
A brittle B ductile
C elastic D plastic
Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
60 A brittle B ductile
C elastic D plastic
Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to
61 A Combined loading B fatigue
C thermal stresses D shock loading
If the longitudinal strain in a material is doubled in comparison to lateral strain, ratio of modulus of
62 A 0.2 B 0.25
C 0.33 D 0.4
Stress concentration is caused due to
Variation in properties of material from Pitting at points or areas at which loads on a
63 A B
point to point in a member member are applied
C Abrupt change of section D All of the above
The endurance limit of a material with finished surface in comparison to rough surface is
64
A more B less
C same D more or less depending on quantum of load
The maximum stress due to stress concentration in a bar having circular transverse hole, as compared
to its static stress without hole will be
65
A Same in both cases B 2 times more
C 3 times more D 4 times more
The fatigue life of a part can be improved by
66 A electroplating B polishing
C coating D shot peening
Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in
67 A ductile materials B brittle materials
C equally serious in both cases D depends on other factors
Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more serious in
68 A ductile materials B brittle materials
C equally serious in both cases D depends on other factors
Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can withstand for a infinite number
of load applications without failure when subjected to
69
A Dynamic loading B static loading
C combine static and dynamic loading D completely reversed loading
In testing of material for endurance strength, it is subjected to
70 A Static load B dynamic load
C completely reversed load D impact load
If a material fails below its yield point, failures would be due to
71 A straining B fatigue
C creep D sudden loading
The fatigue limit of material
Is greatly decreased by poor surface
72 A B Remains same irrespective of surface condition
condition
C Depends mainly on core composition D Is dependent upon yield strength of material
Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is
73 A same B higher
C lower D none of the above
Residual stress in the materials
74 A Acts when external load is applied B Becomes zero when external load is removed
C Is independent of external loads D Is always be harmful
Which process will increase the fatigue duration of parts?
75 A Finishing and polishing B shot-peening
C decarburisation D electroplating
Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by
76 A Young’s modulus B coefficient of elasticity
C elastic limit D endurance limit
A bolt
Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to Has head at one end and other end fits into a
77 A B
the each other tapped hole in the other part to be joined
C Has both the ends threaded D Is provided with pointed threads
Maximum principal stress theory is applicable for
C elastic D plastic
A stud
Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to Has head at one end and other end fits into a
A B
79 the each other tapped hole in the other part to be joined
C Has both the ends threaded D

has pointed threads
Spring index is
80 A Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter B Load required to produce unit deflection
C Its capability of storing energy D Indication of quality of spring
Spring stiffness is
81 A Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter B Load required to produce unit deflection
C Its capability of storing energy D Its ability to absorb shocks
When two springs are in series (having stiffness K), the equivalent stiffness will be
82 A K B K/2
C 2K D K/4
When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to
83 A tension B compression
C shear D all of the above
If a spring is cut down into two springs the stiffness of cut springs will be
84 A half B same
C double D unpredictable
Aircraft body is usually fabricated by
85 A welding B precasting
C rivetting D casting
If two springs are in parallel then their overall stiffness will be
86 A half B same
C double D unpredictable
If p = bearing pressure on projected bearings area, z = absolute viscosity of lubricant, and N = speed of
journal, then the bearing characteristic number is given by
87
A ZN/p B p/ZN
C Z/pN D N/Zp
The rated life of a bearing varies
88 A Directly as load B inversely as square of load
C inversely as cube of load D inversely as fourth power of load
In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of taper of outer race way
89
89 A 5° B 8°
C 15° D 25°
Resilience of a bolt may be increased by
90 A Increasing its length B Increasing its shank diameter
C Increasing diameter of threaded portion D Increasing head size
Factors of safety is the ratio of
A Yield stress / working stress B tensile stress / working stress
91
C compressive stress / working stress D bearing stress / working stress
A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation frequency of
vibration of machine to the natural frequency of the isolation system is equal to 0.5, the transmissibilty
92 ratio of isolation is
A 0.5 B 0.75
C 1.33333 D 2
There are four samples P, Q, R and S with natural frequencies 64, 96, 128 and 256 Hz respectively.
They are mounted on test setup for conducting vibration experiments. If a loud pure note of frequency
144 Hz is produced by some instrument, which of the sample will show the most perceptible induced
93
vibration?
A P B Q
C R D S
In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 Kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 KN/m. By introducing a
damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90 % of the original value. What is damping
94 coefficient of the damper?
A 1.2 Ns/m B 3.4 Ns/m
C 8.7 Ns/m D 12.0 Ns/ m
A machine of 250 kg mass is supported on spring of total stiffness 100 KN/m. Machine has an
unbalance rotating force of 350 N at speed of 3600 rpm. Assuming a damping factor of 0.15, the
95 valuetransmissibilty ratio is
A 0.0531 B 0.9922
C 0.0162 D 0.0028
A vibratory system consists of a mass 12.5 Kg, a spring of stiffness 1000 N/m, and a dashpot with
damping coefficient of 15 Ns/m. The value of critical damping of the system is
96
A 0.223 Ns/m B 17.88 Ns/m
C 71.4 Ns/m D 223.6 Ns/m
For an under damped harmonic oscillator, resonsnce will
97 occures when excitation frequency is occures when excitation frequency is less than
A B
greater than undamped natural frequency undamped natural frequency
occures when excitation frequency is
C D never occures
equal to undamped natural frequency
A uniform rigid rod of mass 1 Kg and length 1 meter is hinged at its centre and laterally supported at
one end by a spring of stiffness 300 N/m The natural frequnecy in rad /sec is
98 A 10 B 20
C 30 D 40
the natural frequnecy of a spring -mass system on earth is wn. The natural frequency of this system on
the moon is ( gmoon = gearth / 6)
99
A wn B 0.408 wn
C 0.204 wn D 0.167 wn
A wire rope is designated as 6 x 19 standard hoisting. The numbers 6 x 19 represent

100
100 A diameter in millimeter x length in meter diameter in centimeter x length in meter
number of strands x number of wires in number of wires in each strand x number of
C
each strand strands
Square key of side 'd/4' each and length l is used to transmit torque T from the shaft of diameter d to the
hub of a pulley. Assuming the length of the key to be equal to the thickness of the pulley, the average
101 shear stress developed in the key is given by
2
A 4T / ld B 16 T / ld
2
C 8 T / ld D 16 T/ πd3
In a band brake the ratio of tight side band tension to the tension on the slake side is 3. If the angle of
0
overlap of band on the drum is 180 the coefficient of friction required between drum and the bank is
102
A 0.2 B 0.25
C 0.3 D 0.35
Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and
transmits a torque of 20 Nm. The torque transmitted by gear is
103
A 6.6 Nm B 20 Nm
C 40 Nm D 60 Nm
In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (Kt) and fatique stress concentration factor (Kf), the
notch sensitivity q is expressed as
104
A (Kf-1) / (Kt-1) B (Kf-1) / (Kt+1)
C (Kt-1) / (Kf-1) D (Kf+1) / (Kt+1)
The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
105 A 3
B 10 4 cycles
10 cycles
C 10 6 cycles D 10 9 cycles
Which of the following is criterion in the design of hydrodynamic journal bearings?
106 A Sommerfeld number B Rating life
C specific dynamic capacity D rotating factor
Twenty degree full depth involute profiled 19 teeth pinion and 37 teeth gears are in mesh. If the module
is 5 mm, the centre distance between the gear pair will be
107
A 140 mm B 150 mm
C 280 mm D 300 mm
A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld carries a seatdy load of 15 KN along the weld. The shear
strength of the weld material is equal to 200 Mpa. The factor of safety is
108
A 2.4 B 3.4
C 4.8 D 6.8
A ball bearing opeating at a load F has 8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing, in hours, when the
load is doubled to 2F is
109
A 8000 B 6000
C 4000 D 1000
A natural feed journal bearing of diameter 50 mm and length 50 mm operating at 20 revolutions/sec
carries a load of 2.0 KN. The lubricant used has viscosity of 20 mPa/s. The radial clearance is 50
110 micrometer. The Sommerfield number for the bearings is
A 0.062 B 0.125
C 0.25 D 0.785
The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice its inside diameter. The ratio of its torque carrying
capacity to that of a solid shaft of the same material and the same outside diameter is
111
A 0.94 B 0.75
C 0.5 D 0.0625
1 Ability of material to resist fracture due to high impact load is called
A toughness B stiffness
C plasticity D hardness
2 Grey casr iron has
A brittleness B low ductility
C low cimpressive strength D all of these
3 Heat treatment process used for castings is
A normalising B annealing
C tempering D hardeneing
4 Gibs phase rule is given by
A F=C+P B F=C+P-2
C F=C-P-2 D F=C-P+2
5 Structure of common glass is
A amorphous B partially crystalline
C fully crystalline D none of these
6 the alloying element mainly contribute to improve the endurance strength of steel matreial is
A nickel B vanadium
C molybdenum D tungsten
7 martensite is a super saturated solution of carbon in
A alpha iron B beta iron
C gamma iron D delta iron
8 Recryastallisation temperature is one at which
A crystal start growing In size B change of allotropic form takes place
new spherical crystals first begin to
C form, the old deformed ones when a D crystal again begin to appear
strained metal is heated
9 the iron carbon diagram and the TTT curves are determined under
equillibrium and non equillibrium non-equillibrium and equillibrium
A B
conditions respectively conditions respectively
C equillibrium both D non-equillibrium both
10 In metals subjected to cold working, strain hadrening effect is
A slip mechanism B turning mechanism
C disloaction mechanism D fracture mechanism
11 investment casting uses pattern made of
A wax B clay
C metal D wood
12 the most suitable material for die casting is
A steel B cast iron
C nickel D copper
13 Hot tear is
rusting of metals when exposed to
A a defect in castings B
moisture
C clean of casting D none of these
14 The tool used for lifting the pattern from the mould is called
A lifter B slick
C draw spike D trowel
15 true centrifugal casting is used to get

A accurate casting B dynamically balanced casting
C statically balanced casting D chilled casting
16 Cores are used to
A make desired recess in castings B strengthen moulding sand
C support loose pieces D remove pattern easily
17 shrink rule is used for providing
A machining allowance B contraction allowance
C draft allowance D distoration allowance
18 The main purpose of chaplets is
A to ensure directional solidification B to provide efficient venting
C for aligning the mold boxes D to support the cores
19 for small and intricate casting the sand grain should be
A fine B medium
C coarse D rounded
20 which one of following material require the largest size of riser for the same size of casting?
A aluminium B cast iron
C steel D copper
21 Hot working is carried out
A below recrystallistaion temperature B at the recrystallisation temperature
C above recrystallistaion temperature D none of these
22 Cold working is carried out
A below recrystallistaion temperature B at the recrystallisation temperature
C above recrystallistaion temperature D none of these
23 In drawing operation the metal flows due to
A ductility B work hardening
C plasticity D shearing
24 In the forging operation, fullering is done to
A draw out material B bend material
C upset material D extrude material
25 In blanking operation, the angle of shear is provided on
A die only B punch only
C both on die and punch D depends on the material of work piece
26 Cold or hot rolling does not produce
A a hollow circular section B T section
C I section D channel section
27 A moving mandrel is used in
A wire drawing B babe drawing
C metal cutting D forging
28 In sheet metal working, shear is provided on punches and dies so that
A press load is reduced B good cut edge is obtained
C warping of sheet is minimesd D cut blanks are straight
29 the cutting force in punching and blanking operations mainely depends on
A the modulus of elasticity B the shear strength of metal
C the bulk modules of metals D the field strength of the metal
30 In the rolling process, roll separating force can be decreased by
A reducing the roll diameter B increasing the roll diameter
C providing back-up rolls D increasing friction

31 Which one of the following welding process uses non-consumable electordes
A TIG B MIG
C Manual arc welding D SAW
32 The process of joining metal sheet by means of a fusible alloy or metal applied in the molten
A brazing B soldering
C diffusion D lancing
33 Seam welding is ____________________ process
A continuous spot welding B multi spot welding
C arc welding D thermit welding
34 Open circuit voltage for arc welding is of the order of
A 18-40 volts B 40-95 volts
C 100-125 volts D 130-170 volts
35 Electron beam welding can be carried out in
A open air B shielding gas environment
C pressurized inert gas chamber D vaccum
36 In arc welding, eyes needed to protected against
A light B infrared rays
C ultraviolet rays D ultraviolet and infrared rays
37 Thermit welding is form of
A resistance B gas
C fusion D forge
38 In arc welding, DC reverse polarity is used to bear greater advantage in
A over head welding B flat welding of lap joints
C edge welding D flat welding of butt joints
39 which one of welding process consists of minimum heat affected zone?
A SMAW B Laser beam
C Ultrasonic D MIG
40 Arc blow is more common in
A dc B ac welding with base electrodes
C dc welding with straight polarity D dc welding with base electrodes
41 Which one of the following is a single point cutting tool?
A hacksaw blade B milling cutter
C grinding wheel D parting tool
42 The velocity of the tool relative to work piece is the
A chip velocity B cutting velocity
C shear velocity D feed
43 which of the following is not a part of shaper
A ram B table
C knee D cross slide
44 A steady rest is the lathe unit that is used for
A supporting the bed B hloding very long and heavy job
C external taper turning D performing the kurnling operation
45 Grinding process used for steel balls of a ball bearing is
A cylindrical B spherical
C surface D centreless
46 Identify the machining method which uses abrasive slurry
A EDM B ECM

C USM D LBM
47 In ECM, metal removal rate is due to
A corrosion B erosion
C fusion D ion displacement
48 For turning mild steel, type of tool used is
A left hand type B right hand type
depends on the cutting angles and tool
C any one of the above two D
material
49 Flank wear occurs mainly on
A nose part and top face B cutting edges
nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool at a short distance
C D
face from the cutting edge
50 Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by
A milling B shaping with rack cutter
C shaping with piston cutter D hobbing
51 Reaming is one of the operations that needs to be done on a job. Which of the following
A drilling B tapping
C boring D counter boring
52 Tool life is most affected by
A cutting speed B tool geometry
C feed and depth D microstructure of workpiece
53 Drill jigs are used to hold the workpiece when
A drilling and reaming B spotfacing and tapping
C counter boring and countersinking D all of these
54 In EDM, tool is made of
A stainless steel B tunsten carbide
C diamond D brass
55 Which one of the following machine operations is carried out by employing gang milling?
A threads B bores
C grooves D stpes on prismatic bars
56 Removal of metal in drilling operation is by
A shearing B compression
C shearing and compression D shearing and extrusion
57 No cutting fluid is normally used while machining
A aluminium B alloy steel
C low carbon steel D brass
58 In ASA system, if the tool nomenclature is 8-6-5-5-10-15-2, the side rack angle will be
A 5 B 6
C 8 D 10
59 cutting power consumption in turning can be significantly reduced by
A increasing rake angle B increasing cutting angle
C widening the nose radius D increasing clearance angle
60 Which one of following is not used as abrasive material in grinding wheel?
A aluminium oxide B silicon carbide
C cubic boron nitride D maganese oxide
61 Autocollimator is used to check
A roughness B flatness

C angle D automobile balance
62 The surface roughness on a drawing is represented by
A circles B squares
C zig-zag lines D triangles
63 Which of the following are not controllable errors?
A Calibration errors B Environmental error
C Avoidable error D Random error
64 The diameter of finigh turned shaft can best be checked with a
A combination set B slip gauge
C heighe gauge D micrometer screw guage
65 Tolerance are basically specified in
A unilateral form B bilateral form
C both way D none of these
66 A dead weight tester is used for
A producing high pressure B dead load measurement
calibration pressure measuring
C testing the magnitude of dead load D
instruments
67 Tachometers are used to measure
A displacement B angular velocity
C acceleration D vibration amlitude
68 A rotameter is used to measure
A vaccum B rotational speed
C torque D flow of liquids
69 The two slip gauge in precision measurement are joined by
A assembling B sliding
C adhesion D wringing
70 Sensitivity and range of measuring instrument have
A direct relationship B linear relationship
C inverse relationship D none of these
71 Small pressure changes in low velocity gas flows can be measured accurately by
A U-tube manometer B single column manometer
C compound U-tube manometer D draft guage
72 High vaccum pressure is most commonly expressed in
A cm of water B pascal
C torr D micron
73 A Mcleod guage is used for
A discharge through a river B diameter of fine particles
C the acidity of solution D vaccum pressure
74 Mark odd one out
A bevel protector B straight edge
C sine bar D combination set
75 Mechanical strain gauge can measure
A static strain only B dynamic strain only
C static and dynamic strain D static and quasi-static strain
76 What should be the shape of an ideal thermometer bulb?
A cylindrical B spherical
C elliptical D circular

77 A ring guage is used to measure
A outside diameter but not roundness B roundness but not outside diameter
C both outside diameter and roundenes D only external threads
78 Which one of the following tolerances set on inner diameter and out diameter respectively of
A G7h6 B F7h6
C H7h6 D F7j6
79 A triangular notch
A has no end contractions B must have an inclined angle of 90
is more accurate than rectangular notch is more accurate than rectangular notch
C D
for low discharge for all flow rates
80 Which of the following devices is used for precise measurements of all the thread
A talysurf B tool maker microscope
C optical projector D gear tooth vernier
81 In CNC programming Code G means
A Standard Code B Preparatory Code
C Machine Code D Auxillary code
82 Robot motion
A imitates human motion B is same fpr all robots
C is not dependant on robot structure D none of these
83 PERT stands for
Process evaluation and reporting
A Project evaluation and review technique B
technique
Planning evaluation and reporting Planning estimation and review
C D
technique techniques
84 All machines and equipment are grouped together at one location according to their functions
A process layout B product layout
C fixed position D hybrid layout
85 MRP indicates
A Material Recording Point B Material Reordering Planning
C Material Requirement Planning D Material Requirement Programme
86 Which one of following steps would lead to interchangeability?
A Quality control B Process planning
C operator training D Product design
87 ABC analysis is used in
A job analysis B Production schedule
C inventory control D simulation
88 SIMO charts are associated with
A method study B motion study
C process analysis D collection of statistical data
89 A device, which does the general population associate most with automation is
A flexible manufacturing B robots
C computer graphics workstation D numerical control machine
90 Components of a control system may include
A amplifier B actuators
C sensors D all of these
91 The individual human variability in time studies to determine the production standards is
A personal allowance B work allowance

C rating factor D none of these
92 The type of layout suitable for use of the concept, principles and approaches of group
A product layout B job shop layout
C fixed position layout D cellular layout
93 CPM consider the trade between cost and
A man power B machines
C material D time
94 Queing theory is associated with
A Sales forecasting B Inventory control
C Waiting time D Production schedule
95 Setup costs do not include
A total cost of setting up machines B ordering cost of raw material
C maintenance cost of machines D cost of pressing the work piece
96 Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided by
A synchronous motors B induction motor
C stepper motor D servo mototr
97 The reason for diversification in an industry is to
A reduce production cost B satify more customer
balance low demand high capacity
C D improve capacity utilization
situation
98 The value engineering technique in which experts of the same rank assemble for product
A delphi B brain stroming
C morphological analysis D direct expert comparision
99 A dummy activity is used in PERT network to
A precedence relationship B necessary delay time
C resource restriction D resource idleness
100 In the graphical method of linear programming problem, the optimum solution would be lie in
A its one corner B its center
C middle of any side D none of these

Question Description
The number of degrees of fredom in a continuous system would be
1 A zero B one
C two D dpend upon the geometry of system
The type of gear used for speed reduction of 50:1 will be
2 A herringbone B spur
C bevel D worm wheel
Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following typeof pair
3 A lower pair B higher pair
C spherical pair D cylindrical pair
In S.H.M., acceleration is proportional to
4 A velocity B displacement
C rate of change of velocity D none of above
5 The natural frequency of a spring mass system when the mass of spring is also considered,
A more B less
C same D depending on the mass of spring
The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position, is called
6 A potential energy B kinetic energy
C electrical energy D chemical energy
Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam?
7 A Locomotive boiler B Lancashire boiler
C Cornish boiler D Babcock and Wilcox boiler
In rainy season, desert coolers become ineffetive because of
8 A Low humidity B Fine weather
C Low humudity D High humidity
The coefficient of friction at higher velocities, with increase in velocity
A Increases B decreases
9
may increase/decrease depending on
C remains constant D
pressure acting on the surfaces
Which of the following cycle is used as the basis for analysis of gas turbine operation
10 A Carnot B Otto
C Diesel D Joule
The isentropic expansion of superheated steam is fairly represented by pv^n = constant,
11 A 1.315 B 1
C 1.27 D 1.41
The unit of power in S.I. units is
12 A newton meter B watt
C joule D kg.m/sec
Which of the following is a vector quantity ?
13 A energy B mass
C mometum D angle
A 20 tonne press implies that the
press can handle works weighing upto 20
A weight of press is 20 tonnes B
14 tonnes
its foundation should be designed for 20
C it can exert pressure upto 20 tonnes D
tonnes
The units of moment of inertia of an area is
15
15 A kg.m^2 B m^4
C m^3 D kg/m^2
The coefficient of friction depends on
16 A area of contact B shape of surfaces
C strength of surfaces D nature of surface
Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
17 A same B more
C less D has no corelation
The product of mass and velocity is known as
18 A work B moment
C power D momentum
Power is defined as
19 A rate of doing work B capacity of doing work
C power of doing work D none of the above
Work is equal to
20 A force X velocity B force X time
C force X distance D mass X acceleration
Rate of change of momentum is proportional to the
21 A displacement B velocity
C acceleration D impressed force
In simple harmonic motion, acceleration of a particle is proportional to
22 A rate of change of velocity B displacement
C velocity D direction
The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as
23 A resilience B proof resilience
C modulus of resilience D toughness
Moment of inertia of an area will be least w.r.t.
24 A horizontal axis B vertical axis
C bottom most axis D central axis
The load taken by a laminated spring to make it flat is called
25 A ultimate load B proof load
C bending load D maximum safe load
Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as
26 A creep B fatigue
C edurance D plastic deformation
Pure iron is the structure of
27 A ferrite B pearlite
C austenite D ferrite and cementite
The unique property of cast iron is its high
28 A malleability B ductility
C surface finish D damping characteristics
Annealing of white cast iron results in production of
29 A nodular iron B malleable iron
C spheroidal iron D grey iron
The stress induced in a body due to suddenly applied load compared to when it is applied
30 A same B half
C two times D four times
A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy before fracture is known as
31 A ductility B toughness
C resilience D plasticity
The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain within elastic limit is known as
32 A Poisson's ratio B Young's modulus
C modulus of rigidity D bulk modulus
Twisting couple in a shaft introduces in it
33 A bending moment B deflection
C shear stress D shear strain
Which of the following materials is most elastic
34 A rubber B plastic
C glass D steel
A steel is specified as En 42. This is as per following standard
35 A French B American
C British D Japanese
The power is generated from water on account of its
36 A mass and force B momentum
C head and quantity D gravitational force
Vertical shaft arrangement in hydroelectric plants is used to
37 A permit smallest power house B encounter minimum vibrations
C have high efficiency D have simple structure
Compression members tend to buckle in the direction of
38 A axis of load B perpendicular to axis of load
C minimum cross-section D least radius of gyration
If the section modulus of a beam decreases, then bending stress will
39 A decrease B increase
C remains same D there is no such corelation
The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called
40 A plasticity B ductility
C elasticity D drawability
A body which absorbs all radiation falling on it is known as
41 A opaque body B transparent body
C black body D polished body
If two objects are weighed in water and both of them lose the same weight, then the two
42 A specific gravities B weights in air
C densities D volumes
The basic purpose of using a flywheel on rotating machinery is to
43 A allow rapid acceleration B store and release energy as required
C control rotational speed D balance the rotating parts
Which of the following metals has the greatest specific gravity
44 A mercury B zinc
C lead D nickle
The property of steel that makes it suitable for use in cable is its strength in
45 A compression B tension
C shear D bending
Cavitation in a centrifugal pump results from
46 A high discharge pressure B low barometric pressure
C high discharge velocity D high discharge rate
Rotameter is used for measuring
47 A discharge through pipes B discharge through open channels
C velocity of flow D kinetic energy of flow
Priming is needed in a
48 A reciprocating pump B gear pump
C centrifugal pump D diaphragm pump
In which of the following cases, the strength of joint obtained is lowest
49 A welding B brazing
C soldering D rivetting
Which of the following is the binding material in cemented carbides?
50 A vanadium B nickle
C cobalt D iron
Manganese in steel increases its
51 A tensile strength B hardness
C ductility D malleability
The hardness of steel increases if it contains
52 A austenie B martensite
C pearlite D cementite
Which of the following elemnets does not impart hardness to steel?
53 A copper B chromium
C nickle D silicon
Which of the following is used for bearing liner ?
54 A gun metal B bronze
C brass D babbit metal
Which of the following has better capability to bear sudden and excessive shocks ?
55 A cats iron B pig iron
C stainless steel D wrought iron
Normalising operation is carried out in
56 A furnace B air
C water D oil
Work study is done with the help of
57 A process chart B material handling
C stop watch D all of the above
In arc welding, arc is created between the electrode and work by
58 A flow of current B constant resistance
C voltage D material characteristics
Copper is
A easily spot welded B very difficult to be spot weled
59
as good for spot welding as any other
C D preferred to be welded by spot welding
material
The most commonly used flame in gas welding is
60 A neutral B oxidising
C carburising D all of the above
Least shrinkage allowance is provided in the case of following
61 A brass B aluminium
C cast iron D steel
The increase in hardness due to cold working is called
62 A cold hardening B hot hardening
C work hardening D induction hardening
The seamless tubes in mass production are manufactured by the following process
63 A rolling B extrusion
C drawing D spinning
Compression moulding is the ideal method of processing
64 A plastics B thrmosetting plastics
C thermoplastics D non ferrous materials
A 20 tonne press implies that the
press can handle works weighing upto 20
A weight of press is 20 tonnes B
65 tonnes
its foundation should be designed for 20
C it can exert pressure upto 20 tonnes D
tonnes
Which of the following is a gear finishing operation
66 A hobbing B shaping
C milling D shaving or burnishing
Cutting and forming operations can be done in a single operation on
67 A simple die B progressive die
C compound die D combination die
In blanking operation, the angle of shear is provided on
68 A die B punch
C both on punch and die D not provided at all
Lathe spindle has got
69 A internal threads B external threads
C taper threads D no threads
The clearance in blanking operation is provided on
70 A die B punch
C half on die and half on punch D not provided at all
No lubricant is required when cutting threads in
71 A tungsten carbide B mild steel
C titanium D brass or cast iron
The power is transmitted by lead screw to the carriage through
72 A gear box B worm and gear
C rack and pinion D half nut
The following gauge is used for checking of holes
73 A ring gauge B snap gauge
C plug gauge D dial gauge
Compression moulding is the ideal method of processing
74 A plastics B thrmosetting plastics
C thermoplastics D non ferrous materials
75 In transformer steel, the element which provides the required property is
A manganese B silicon
C nickle D chromium
The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as
76 A rolling friction B dynamic friction
C limiting friction D static friction
Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the
77 A v B v/2
C v/4 D asbestose
If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the
78 A 30° B 60°
C 90° D 120°
The unit of energy in S.I. units is
79 A dyne B watt
C kg-m D joule
An ideal machine is one whose efficiency is
80 A between 60 and 70 % B between 70 and 80%
C between 80 and 90% D 100%
If the damping factor for a vibrating system is unity, then the system is
81 A critically damped B not damped
C under damped D over damped
Which of the following effects is more dangerous for a ship?
82 A rolling B waving
C pitching D steering
For eccentrically loaded strut, following section is preferred
83 A solid B hollow
C reinforced D composite
A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut coils will be
84 A double B half
C same D none of above
85 A hollow shaft of same cross section area as solid shaft transmits
A same torque B less torque
C more torque D none of the above
86 The path of the contact in involute gears is
A A straight line B involute path
C curved line D circle
To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor
87 A Spur gear B spiral gear
C bevel gear D worm gear
The surface of the gear tooth below the pitch surface is called
88 A Bottom tooth B face
C flank D tooth depth
The pressure angle for involute gears is
89 A variable B always constant
C dependent on type of mashing D never constant
Swaying couple results due to
90 A Primary distributing force B secondary distributing force
C partial balancing D hammer blow
The critical speed depends on
91 A Mass B stiffness
C mass and stiffness D mass, stiffness and eccentricity
Partial balancing in locomotive results in
92 A Hammer blow B variation in tractive effort
C swaying couple D all of the above
For a vibrating system, if the damping factor is unity, then then maximum magnification
93 A 0 B 1
C more than 1 D unpredictable
Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
C elastic D plastic
If the longitudinal strain in a material is doubled in comparison to lateral strain, ratio of
95 A 0.20 B 0.25
C 0.33 D 0.40
The fatigue life of a part can be improved by
96 A electroplating B polishing
C coating D shot peening
Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is
97 A Same B higher
C lower D depends on other factors
When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to
98 A tension B shear
C compression D all of the above
In testing of material for endurance strength, it is subjected to
99 A Static load B dynamic load
C completely reversed load D impact load
Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by
100 A endurance limit B Young’s modulus
C elastic limit D ultimate tensile strength
1 A thermal power plant operates on a regenerative cycle with a single open feed water
heater as shown in figure. For the state points shown, the specific enthalpies are
h1=2800 kJ/Kg, h2=200KJ/Kg. The bleed to feed water heater is 20% of boiler steam
generation rate. The specific enthalpy at state point 3 is
A a) 2280 KJ/Kg B 720 KJ/Kg
C 1500 KJ/Kg D 3000 KJ/Kg

2
The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be
A 25% B 50%
C 70% D 100%
3
The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
iso-octane and alpha-methyl

A B normal octane and aniline
naphthalene
C iso-octane and normal hexane D normal heptane and iso-octane
4 The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given
compression ratio is
A same B less
C more D more or less depending on power rating
5
The crankcase scavenging the the crankcase or underside of the piston acts as
A An air compressor B A blower
C A ventilator D A breather
6 If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will
A increase B decrease
C remain same D depend on other factors

7 If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the
%age increase in efficiency will be
A 2% B 4%
C 8% D 14%
8
In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve
opens at 20° before top dead opens at top dead center and closes at
A center and closes at 35° after the B bottom dead center
bottom dead center
opens at 10° after top dead center may open or close anywhere
C and closes 20° before the bottom D
dead center
9 The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol engine are
of the order of
A 4 - 6 kg/cm2 and 200 - 250°C B 6 - 12 kg/cm2 and 250 - 350°C
C 12 - 20 kg/cm2 and 350 - 450°C D 20 - 30 kg/cm2 and 450 - 500°C

10 Maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of
A 500- 1000°C B 1000- 1500°C
C 1500-2000°C D 2000-2500°C
11
Pick up the wrong statement
2-stroke engine can run in any In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is

A B
direction obtained in 4-strokes
thermal efficiency of 4-stroke
petrol engines occupy more space than
C engine is more due to positive D
diesel engines for same power output.
scavenging
12 The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of
A 5-10 kg/cm2 B 20-25 kg/cm2
C 60-80 kg/cm2 D 90-130 kg/cm2

13
The specific fuel consumption per BHP for a petrol engine is approximately
A 0.15 kg B 0.2 Kg
C 0.25 kg D 0.3kg
14 The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical required
for complete combustion is
A more B less

may be more or less depending on engine
C same D
capacity
15
As the number of cylinders in multi cylinder engines increases the power to weight ratio
A Remains the same B Increases

C Becomes zero D Decreases
16 The conventional mechanical type fuel pump develops .............pressure
A 0.15 Kg/cm2 B 1.0 Kg/cm2
C 0.5 Kg/cm2 D 0.3 Kg/cm2

17 Aeroplanes employ following type of compressor
A Radial flow B Axial flow
C Centrifugal D Combination of above

18
Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
A as large as possible B as small as possible
C about 50% of swept volume D about 100% of swept volume

19 Mining industry usually employs following motive power
A A.C. electric motor B compressed air
C petrol engine D diesel engine

20 Which is false statement about air receivers
These are used to dampen These act as reservoir to- take care of
A B
pulsations , sudden demands
These increase compressor
C D These knock out some oil and moisture
efficiency
21
Pick up wrong statement.Surging phenomenon in centrifugal compressor depends on
A mass flow rate B pressure ratio
C change in load D stagnation pressure at the outlet

22 The diesel index of the fuel for most high speed diesel should be of the order of
A 50 to 60 B 80 to 90

C 90 to 100 D 100 to 120
23 The average percentage of carbon in petrol is routhly
A 85% B 65%
C 50% D 35%
24 If infinite number of heaters are to be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process in
turbine approaches
A isothermal B isentropic
C adiabatic D isobaric.
25 In order to burn 1 Kg of CH4 completely minimum number of Kg of oxygen need is ( take
atomic weights of H,C, and O as 1,12,16 resply)
A 3 B 4
C 5 D 6
26 An IC engine has a bore and stroke of 2 units each. The area to calculate heat loss can
be taken as
A 4π B 5π
C 6π D 8π
27 In a four stroke diesel engine for combustion of 1 litre of fuel , the volume of air
required would be approximately
A 1 cu.m B 2 cu.m.
C 5 to 7 cu.m. D 9 to 10 cu.m.
28 In an automobile choke is applied for
A Increasing speed B Fuel economy
C Starting in cold weather D Starting in hot weather

29 In an IC Engine approximate amount of heat loss from cylinder walls is
A 5% B 10%
C 25-30% D 45-50%
30 which part is not common between petrol and diesel engine
A Air cleaner B exhaust silencer
C battery D fuel injector

31
Which one of the following is NOT a necessary assumption for air –standard Otto cycle?

All processes are both internally Intake and exhaust are constant volume
A B
as well as externally reversible. heat rejection processes.
The combustion process is a

The working fluid is an ideal gas with gas
C constant volume heat addition D
constant specific heat.
process.
32 In an air-standard Otto cycle, the compression ratio is 10. The condition at the
beginning of the compression process is 100kPa and 27°C. Heat added at constant
volume is 1500kJ/kg, while 700kJ/kg of heat is rejected during the other constant
volume process in the cycle. Specific gas constant for air=0.287 kJ/kgK. The mean
effective pressure (in kPa) of the cycle is
A 1032 B 515
C 310 D 103
33 The temperature of the piston will be more at
A The piston walls B The crown of the piston
C The skirt of the piston D The piston pin

34
One of the major causes of FHP in an engine is
A High speed B High volumetric efficiency
C Piston-ring friction D Low fuel supply

35 Engine torque is highest at
A Low speed B Intermediate speed
C High speed D Low or intermediate speed
36 As the number of cylinders in multi cylinder engines increases the power to weight ratio
.........
A Remains the same B Increases
C Becomes zero D Decreases

37 In general the design of the current regulator is such that its main actuating winding
carries full
A Generator voltage B Generator output
C Field current D Battery voltage

38 If compression ratio is increased

Thermal efficiency will be
A B Volumetric efficiency will be increased
increased
Air standard efficiency will be
C D Air standard efficiency will be increased
decreased
39 The duration of the fuel injection at full load in a diesel engine running at 1800 rpm
when it has 200 of crank travel is
A 1/600 sec B 1/640 sec
C 1/540 sec D 1/530 sec

40
A negative loop in the P.V diagram of an I.C engine is due to
A Pre ignition in the engine B Suction of air for engine
C Pre opening of the exhaust valve D High pressure in the cylinder
41 Consider the following statements:

1. Octane rating of gasoline is based on iso-octane and iso-heptane fuels which are
paraffin’s.
2. Tetraethyl lead is added to gasoline to increase octane number.
3. Ethylene dibromide is added as scavenging agent to remove lead deposits on spark
plugs.
4. Surface ignition need not necessarily cause knocking.
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 2, 3 and 4
C 1 and 4 D 1, 2 and 3
42 Match List I (Components) with List II
(Functions) and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Steam trap
B. Fusible plug
C. Blow-off cock
D. Feed check valve
List II
1. Controls steam flow rate
2. Controls rate of water flow to boiler
3. Puts off furnace fire when water level reaches unsafe limit
4. Removes mud and dirt collected at the bottom of boiler
5. Drains off water collected by partial condensation of steam in pipes
ABCD ABCD
A B
5142 1354
ABCD ABCD
C 5342 D 1254

43 Free air is the air at
Atmospheric conditions at any 2
A B 20°C and 1 kg/cm and relative humidity
specific location of 36%
0°C and standard atmospheric
C D 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
conditions
44 Standard air is the air at
2
A 20°C and 1 kg/cm and relative B 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
humidity 36%
C 15°C and 1 kg/cm2 D 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and RH of 60%.
45 1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs approximately
A 0.5 kg B 1.0 kg
C 1.3 kg D 2.2 kg
46 The- most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it
A isothermally B adiabatically
C isentropically D isochronically
47 The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the suction of compressor are
Pressure sightly less than atmospheric

A Slightly more than atmospheric B and temperature slightly more than
atmospheric
Pressure slightly more than atmospheric

C Slightly less than atmospheric D and temperature slightly less than
atmospheric
48
Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high speed, can be
approached by using
A multi-stage compression B cold water spray
C both (a) and (b) above D fully insulating the cylinder

49 Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
A As large as possible B As small as possible
C About 50% of swept volume D About 100% of swept volume
50 Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential

To accommodate Valves in the
A B To provide cushioning effect
cylinder head
To provide cushioning effect and also to
To attain high volumetric
C D avoid mechanical bang of piston with
efficiency
cylinder head.
51 Euler's equation is applicable for
A Centrifugal compressor B Axial compressor
C Pumps D all of the above

52 Rotary compressor is best suited for
Large quantity of air at high
A B Small quantity of air at high pressure
pressure
Large quantity of air at low
C D Any one of the above.
pressure
53 To avoid moisture troubles, the compressed air main line should
Rise gradually towards the point
A B Drop gradually towards the point of use
of use
C Be laid vertically D Be laid exactly horizontally
54 The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal compressor is produced by
A radial component B axial component
C tangential component D resultant component

55 The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 100 m
increase in elevation
A 0.10% B 0.50%
C 1.00% D 5%
56 The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal compressor is
called
A slip factor B velocity factor
C velocity coefficient D blade effectiveness

57 For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure, following compressor is
best suited
A Centrifugal B Reciprocating
C Axial D Screw
58 Maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is of the order of

A 6 kg/cm2 B 10 kg/cm2
C 16 kg/cm2 D 25 kg/cm2
59 Pick up wrong statement.
Surging phenomenon in centrifugal compressor depends on
A Mass flow rate B Pressure ratio
C Change in load D All of the above.

60 Stalling of blades in axial flow compressor is the phenomenon of
A Air stream blocking the passage B Motion of air at sonic velocity

Unsteady periodic and reversed Air stream not able to follow the blade
C D
flow contour
61 Gas turbines for power generation are normally used
A To supply base load requirements B To supply peak load requirements
To enable start thermal power

C D When other sources of power fail
plant
62 The ratio of specific weight/h.p. of gas turbine and I.C engines may be typically of the
order of
A 02:01 B 01:06
C 04:01 D 01:02
63
Gas turbine blades are given a rake
A Equal to zero B In the direction of motion of blades
opposite to the direction of

C D depending on the velocity
motion of blades
64
The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is
A more B Less
C Same D Depends on other factors
65 A gas turbine used in air craft should have
A High h.p, speed and low weight B Low weight and small frontal area
C Small frontal area and high h.p. D High speed and high h.p.
66
Pick up the correct statement

Gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio Gas turbine uses high air-fuel ratio to
A B
to economies on fuel reduce outgoing temperature
Gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio
C to develop the high thrust D all of the above
67 required
If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process in turbine
approaches
A isothermal B Isentropic
C Adiabatic D Isochoric
68 Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to

A Control temperature B Control output of turbine
C Control fire hazards D Increase efficiency
69 Pick up the correct statement
Gas turbine uses high air-fuel ratio to
A B reduce outgoing temperature
to economies on fuel

C to develop the high thrust D all of the above
70 required
The volumetric efficiency of reciprocating compressor is about
A 10 to 40% B 40-60%
C 60-70% D 70-90%
71 In three lobbed rotor the air delivered in one revolution is
A Two times B Three times
C Four times D Six times

72
A compressor mainly used for supercharging in an IC engine is
A Radial flow compressor B Axial flow compressor
C Roots blower D Reciprocating compressor

73 The efficiency of jet engines is higher at
A Low speeds B High speeds
C Low altitudes D High altitudes

74 The energy released during the fission of one atom of Uranium 235 in million electron
volts is about
A 100 B 200

C 300 D 400
75 The maximum propulsive efficiency of a turbo-jet engine is at speed of
A 1000 Km/hr B 2000 Km/hr
C 2400 Km/hr D 3000Km/hr
76 3 3
A gas engine has a swept volume of 300cm and clearance volume of 25 cm . Its
volumetric efficiency is 0.88 and mechanical efficiency is 0.90. The volume of the
mixture taken per stroke is
A 284 cm3 B 252 cm3
C 264 cm3 D 286cm3
77 In petrol engines the delay period is about
A 0.001 sec B 0.002 sec
C 0.003 sec D 0.004 sec
78
The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is
A Minimum turbulence B Low compression ratio
C High efficiency and power output D Low volumetric efficiency
79 A spark gap is kept from
A 0.3 to 0.7 mm B 0.2 to 0.8mm
C 0.4 to 0.9mm D 0.6 to 1.0mm

80 The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about
A 10 bar B 100 bar
C 150 bar D 500 bar

81
The ratio of work done on blades to energy supplied to blades is called
A Blading efficiency B Nozzle efficiency
C Stage efficiency D Mechanical efficiency

82
The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blades is two third of the isentropic enthalpy
heat drop in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
A 0.4 B 0.56

C 0.67 D 1.67
83
In a 50% reaction turbine stage , tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor
inlet is 537m/s and blade velocity is 454m/s. The power output in KW of steam will be
A 260 KW B 282 KW
C 296 KW D 302 KW
84
A single stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 1.2 m runs at 3000 rpm. If the blade
speed ratio is 0.42 then the inlet velocity of steam will be
A 79 m/s B 188 m/s
C 450m/s D 900m/s
85
The effect of super saturation is that the
Mass of the steam discharged Entropy and specific volume of steam

A B
increases increases
C Exit velocity of steam reduces D All of the above
86
When the nozzle operates with a maximum mass flow the nozzle is said to be
A Chocked B Under damping

C Over damping D None of these
87 The density of super-saturated steam is about how many times that of the ordinary
saturated vapour at the corresponding pressure
A Same as B 2 times
C 4 times D 8 times
88 A turbine is said to have axial discharge when steam leaves the blade tip at ______the
direction of blade motion
A 60° B 90°
C 180° D 270°
89
Reheating of steam in a turbine
Increases the work done through

A B Increases the efficiency of the turbine
the turbine
C Reduces wear on the blades D All of the above
90 William’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam
consumption per hour and
A Indicated power B Efficiency
C Brake power D Pressure of steam

91 A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter of 190mm and a 300mm stroke
has a cut off of 0.35, the expansion ratio for this engine is nearly
A 1.05 B 2.86
C 6.65 D 10.05
92 A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its
pressure is called
A Blow off cock B Fusible plug
C Super heater D Stop valve
93 The coefficient of discharge for fuel jet depends on

A Size and shape of jet nozzle B Viscosity of fuel
C Rate of fuel flow D All of the above
94 Which of the following statements is false
F: A ratio during starting an engine F: A ratio during warming up of an engine
A B
is about 0.2:1 is about 0.15:1
F: A ratio during full throttle an F: A ratio during acceleration of an engine
C D
engine is about 1:1 is about 0.1:1
95 Which of the following statements is true
As injection pressure increase the
As fuel density increases the depth of
A penetration of fuel in air mass B
penetration increases
decreases
Penetration decreases with Penetration does not depend on jet
C decrease in angle of spiral groove D
velocity, air density, nozzle size
96 of injection valve
The amount of volume of fuel injected at full throttle is about
A 0.005 X 10-3 B 5 X10

2
C 0.5 X 10-1 D 0.5 X 103

97
Which of the following statements is false
The single hole nozzle is The diameter of multihole nozzle lies

A B
approximate 0.02 cm upwards between 0.25 to 0.35cm
To improve cold starting Circumferential nozzles are used for
C performances pintaux nozzle is D minimise the possible contact area of fuel
used and air
98
In 8 cylinder I.C engines the possible firing orders are

A 1-6-2-5-8-3-7 B 1-5-4-8-6-3-7
C 1-8-4-3-6-5-7 D None of the above

99 A 2 stroke 4 cylinder petrol engine is running at 6000rpm. The total number of strokes
created by ignition system is
A 400/sec B 200/sec
C 100/sec D 50/sec
100 The most accurate method of determining friction power is by
A William’s line B Morse test

Measurement of brake and
C D Motoring test
indicated power
101
The air box/swept volume ratio should be in the range for single cylinder engine
A 10-100% B 200-300%
C 500-600% D >1000%
102 The best method of measuring speed is by
Electrical tachometer
A Mechanical tachometer B
C Magnetic pickup D None of these

103 Non-dispersive infra-red analyzer is widely accepted instrument for measuring
A N0x B HC
C CO D CO2
104 Most perfect method of scavenging is
A Cross scavenging B Uniform scavenging
C Loop scavenging D Reverse flow scavenging

105 Crankcase scavenged engine have delivery ratio of
A Greater than 1 B Less than 1
C Equal to 1 D None of the above

106 If delivery ratio is 1.8, the excess air factor in case of two stroke engine is
A 0.8 B 0.9
C 1 D None of these
107
Two wheelers without deflector type piston use

A Cross scavenging B Loop scavenging
C Uniform scavenging D Reverse scavenging

108
At the same speed two stroke engine of the same size as four stroke engine will develop
A Same power B Half the power
C Twice the power D Four times the power

109 Centrifugal type superchargers is preferable only for
A Low speeds B High speeds
C High pressures D None of the above

110
Supercharging is normally done in
A Racing cars B Marine engines
C Automotive diesel engines D None of the above

111 The advantages of Root’s supercharges is
A High pressure B Minimum maintenance
C Consumes less power D Occupies less space

112
With disassociation the exhaust gas temperature
A Decreases B Increases
Increases up to certain air-fuel ratio and
C No effect D
then decreases
113
Fuel air ratio affects maximum power output of the engine due to
A Higher specific speed B Chemical equilibrium
C Both (a) and (b) D None of the above

114 For compression process with variable specific heat and peak temperature and pressure
are
A Lower B Higher
C No effect D None of the above

115 Time loss factor in actual cycle is due to
A Progressive combustion B Heat loss through cylinder walls
C Gas leakage D Friction

116 When the spark is advanced, work output is less as

A The peak pressure is low B Peak temperature is low
Additional work is required to
C D Frictional losses increases
compress the burning gas
117 The major loss in a SI engine is due to
A Exhaust blow down B Pumping

Variation in specific heat and chemical
C Incomplete combustion D
equilibrium
118 The ratio of actual efficiency and fuel air cycle efficiency for CI engines is about
A 0.2 - 0.3 B 0.5 - 0.6
C 1 D 0.6 –0.8
119
The volumetric efficiency is affected by
The exhaust gas in the clearance

A B Design of intake and exhaust valve
volume
C Valve timing D All of the above
120 A simple carburettor supplies rich mixture during
A Starting B idling
C Cruising D Acclerating
121 Precise petrol injection system is
A direct injection B sequential injection
C throttle body injection D port injection
122 Economiser is used to provide enriched mixture during
A Starting B idling
C Cruising D full throttle operation

123 For petrol engines the method of governing is
A hit and miss governing B quality governing
C quantity governing D none of the above

124 The limits of air fuel for SI engine are
A 8/1 to 18/1 B 8/1 to 50/1
C 25/1 to 50/1 D 50/1 to 100/1

125 Venturi in the carbuerator results in
A decrease in air velocity B increase in air velocity

C decrease in fluid flow D increase of manifold vacuum
126 Indicated power is directly propotional to
A Torque B air consumption
C cylinder peak pressure D none of the above

127 Sankey diagram represents
A thermal efficiency Vs Brake power B Air consumption Vs speed
C heat balance of engine D Torque Vs speed

128
In CI engines the delay period is affected by
A compression ratio B engine speed
C output D all of the above

129 The advantages of the indirect injection combustion chamber are
A low injection pressure B direction of spary is not critical
C Both (a) and (b) D good cold starting performance

130 In CI engines by increasing inlet air pressure the knockng tendency
A Increases B decreases
C No effect D first decreases and then increases

131 Detonation in S I engines occurs due to
Preignition of the charge before sudden ignition of the charge before the
A B
the spark spark
autoignition of the charge after
C D none of the avove
the spark in struck
132 In CI engines with increase in compression ratio the delay period
A increase B decreases
C first increases and then decreases D not affected
133 In SI engines flame speed increases
A with turbulence B with fuel-air ratio
C Both (a) and (b) D none of the above

134 The radiator cooling tubes are generally made of
A rubber B plastic

C brass D copper
135 Engine overheating may be due to
A struck radiator pessure caps B open thermostat
C broken fan belt D excess coolant

136
Exhaust gas recirculation is the most effective way of reducing emission of
A Nox B CO
C HC D CO andHC
137 Rhodium promotes the reduction of
A HC B CO
C Nox D CO and HC
138 Blue smoke in diesel engine indicates
A Nox B HC
C CO D unburnt oil
139 Additives are added in lubricants to have
detergent -dispersion
A B pour point depression
characteristics
C antifoam characteristics D all of the above
140 Oil pressure in dry sump lubrication system is around
A 5 bar -10 bar B 11 bar- 15 bar
C 3 bar -8 bar D 1 bar

141 Strain gauges are mainly used to measure
A pressure B temperature
C velocity D Viscosity
142
Brayton cycle is used in
A Ramjet engines B gas turbines
C pulse jet engines D C I Engines

143 Vacuum advance mechanism shifts the ignition point under
A no load opeartion B full load operation
C part load opeartion D under sudden accleration

144 Dwell meter is used for
A setting spark plug gap B contack breaker gap
C setting the ignition advance D setting

145 The major loss in a CI engine is
A DIrect heat loss B loss due to incomplete combustion
C rubbbing friction loss D pumping loss

146 With disassociation the peak temperature is obtained
A at the stoichiometric air fuel ratio B when the mixture is slightly lean
C when the mixture is slightly rich D none of thw above

147 Chemiluminescence analyser is used for measuring
A Nox B CO
C HC D CO2
148 Continuous injection system usually has
A plunger pump B rotary pump
C gear pump D vane pump

149 Common rail injection system uses injection pressure of the order
A 100-200 bar B 200-400bar
C 400-600bar D 1500bar
150
EFI system can achive
A proper injection timing B proper injection quantity
C proper injection pressure D all of the above

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1 The rate of change of linear momentum is equal to

A active force B reactive force

C torque D work done

A Avoid interruption in the flow B Increase discharge

C Increase velocity D Maintain pressure difference

C Three to four times D Five to six times

A velocity of liquid B pressure of liquid

C area of mouthpiece D length of mouthpiece

A 4.5 kN/m3 B 6 kN/m3

C 7.5 kN/m3 D 10 kN/m3

C 5.5 bars D 4.7 bars

SUJJECT CODE: 1/20 PGCET

lies between the centre of

A steady uniform flow B steady non-uniform flow

C unsteady uniform flow D unsteady non-uniform flow

An equivalent pipe is treated as an The length of an equivalent pipe is

The discharge through an The diameter of an equivalent

A 0.34 times B 0.67 times

C 0.81 times D 0.95 times

to control the pressure variations

to regulate flow of water to

16 The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine

A Reynold's number B Froude's number

SUJJECT CODE: 2/20 PGCET

A narrow crested weir B broad crested weir

C Ogee weir D submerged weir

A directly proportional to (radius)2 B inversely proportional to (radius)2

C directly proportional to (radius)4 D inversely proportional to (radius)4

19 When the Mach number is more than 6, the flow is called

A sub-sonic flow B sonic flow

C super-sonic flow D hyper-sonic flow

C three fourth D double

A 1/16 to 1/8 B 1/8 to 1/4

C 1/4 to 1/3 D 1/3 to 1/2

22 A channel is said to be of most economical cross-section, if

it involves lesser excavation for

23 The specific gravity of water is taken as

SUJJECT CODE: 3/20 PGCET

elastic properties of the pipe elastic properties of the liquid

C speed at which the valve is closed D all of the above

25 The force present in a moving liquid is

A inertia force B viscous force

C gravity force D all of these

27 The viscosity of water at 20°C is

A one stoke B one centistroke

C one poise D one centipoise

The pressure on the wall at the

C decreases D depends upon mass of liquid

SUJJECT CODE: 4/20 PGCET

C stagnation point D none of these

C streak line D potential line

A one-dimensional flow B two-dimensional flow

C three-dimensional flow D four-dimensional flow

A pressure of liquid B discharge of liquid

A same as B less than

C more than D none of these

SUJJECT CODE: 5/20 PGCET

C an ellipse D none of these