LATIHAN SOAL US

Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There
are four parts to this section, with special direction for each part.

PART I Picture
Questions 1 to 3
Directions: There are three items in this part. For each item, you will see a picture in your test book and four
statements about it. These statements will be spoken twice but are NOT WRITTEN in your test book, so
you must listen listen carefully. You must choose one statement – (A), (B), (C), or (D) – thet best describes
the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, mark your choice.

Example:
Look at the picture and listen to the four sentences.

a. The man is washing the car.

b. The man is holding a hose
c. The car is covered in water.
d. The car is covered in soap foam.
Choice (A) – “The man is washing the car.” – best describes what can be seen in the picture. Therefore,
you should mark (A) on your answer sheet.
Now let’s begin with picture number one.

1.
 2.

3.

Part II. Question – Response

Questions 4 to 7
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several questions spoken in English, followed by four responses, also
spoken in English. The question and responses will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your
test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You have to choose the best
response to each question.

Now listen to a sample question:

You hear :
Man : what is your name?
You will also hear :
Woman :
a. I am Bella.
b. Her name is Linda.
c. You can call him Jack.
d. I named him Choki.

Choice (A) – “I am Bella.” – is the appropriate response to the question “What is your name?” Therefore,
you should mark (A) on your answer sheet.
Now let’s begin with question number 4.
 4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

Questions 8 to 11.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several short conversations. You will hear the conversation twice. The
conversations will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers say.
In your test book, you will read a question about each conversation. The question will be followed by four
answers. You have to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

Example:
You will hear :
Woman : do you know where Tio is?
Man : Yes, I saw him in the living room. He is reading the newspaper.
You will read :
Who is the woman looking for?
a. The living room
b. The newspaper.
c. A friend.
d. Tio.
Choice (D) – “Tio.” – best answers the question [Who is the woman looking for?]. what is Therefore, you
should mark (D) on your answer sheet.

Now let’s begin with question number 8.

8. What does the man do during the holidays?
a. Stays at home.
b. Does many jobs.
c. Hangs out with his friends.
d. Helps his mother selling cookies.

9. What is the man’s origin?

a. Sundanese
b. Javanese.
c. Japanese.
d. Dayak.

10. What do the man think about the book fair?

a. The cashier is very small.
b. The discount is too small.
c. The place is sufficiently big.
 d. The venue is not big enough.

11. What will the man order?

a. A burger.
b. Fries and drink.
c. A burger and drink.
d. A burger, fries and drink.

Part IV. Short Talk

Question 12 to 15
In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. Each will be spoken two times. They will not be
printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is said.
In your test book, you will read two or more questions about each short talk. Each question will be followed
by four answers. You have to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

12. What is the announcement about?

a. Buying flank steak for 28.000.00 a pound.
b. Having extra steak service for that day
c. Getting a special discount for meat.
d. Visiting the store’s daily section.

13. What will the shopper’s do after hearing the announcement?

a. They will go shopping at Super Indo store.
b. They will spend all morning in the store.
c. They will buy meat at Super Indo store.
d. They will look for items with red bags.

14. What does the text tell us about?

a. How to know day and time.
b. How to set date and time.
c. How to change time.
d. How to set date.

15. What do you need to adjust time and date on windows 10?
a. An e-mail
b. A computer.
c. A wrist watch.
d. A mobile phone.
This is the end of the listening section.

Questions number 16
 16. What is the topic of the announcement above?
a. Students’ association
b. Teachers’ gathering
c. Students’ association office
d. Students’ gathering

Questions 17 to 19 refer to the following text.

Stevie Wonder was born in Michigan, on May 13, 1950. A premature infant, he was put on
oxygen treatment in an incubator, it was likely an excess of oxygen that exacerbated a visual
condition known as retinopathy of prematurity, causing his blindness. In 1961, Stevie was
discovered by Ronnie White, who helped arrange an audition with Berry Gordy t Motown.
Wonder released his first album in 1962.
1971 proved a turning point in wonder’s career. On his 21 st birthday, his contract with Motown
expired, and the royalties set aside in his trust fund became available to him. A month before his
birthday, Wonder released Where I’m Coming From, his first entirely self – produced album and
the first time his keyboard and synthesizer work dominated his arrangements.
By the age of twenty-five, he was a multiple Grammy – Award winner and at the age of twenty –
five several talented musicians he was on the verge of making what came to be one of this most
admirable masterpieces, an album called, Songs In The Key of Life.

17. Why did the writer write this text?

a. To describe a physically disabled person.
b. To tell a short biography of a blind musician.
 c. To persuade the reader to be a philanthropist.
d. To introduce an inspiring person to the readers.

18. What did Stevie do in 1975?

a. He made an album with other musicians.
b. He ended his contract with Motown.
c. He won several Grammy Awards.
d. He released his first album.

19. “A premature infant he was put on oxygen treatment in an incubator, ….“ (paragraph 1)
The underlined word has the closest meaning to …….
a. Son
b. Adult
c. Person
d. Newborn

The text below is for questions numbers 20 to 21

Apt BLK 30, Eunos St. #05 – 116

Singapore 1441
2nd April 2009

Dear Liza,
I have received you letter asking me to meet you at your house this Sunday to discuss the urgent matter
you have. I regret however to say that it will not be possible for me to see you on Sunday as I already
have a previous appointment. I shall see you on Monday next week at 5 p.m. Hoping the change of date
will be convenient to you.

Your sincerely
Daisy

20. What does the letter tell about ….

a. Liza’s problem
b. Liza’s appointment
c. Daisy’s previous letter to Liza
d. Daisy’s regret for not being able to come (Jawaban Benar)

21. Why did Liza ask Daisy to come to her house….

a. Liza wanted Daisy to solve her problem (Jawaban Benar)
b. Daisy would discuss her problem with Liza.
c. Liza persuaded Daisy to go somewhere.
d. Daisy wanted to meet Liza’s family.
The following text is for number 22 to 26

How to Make Flannel Rose Ring

 

Ingridients

1. Red Flannel around 10×10 cm

2. Scissors
3. Glue

The ways:

1. Cut round the flannel about 5×3 cm and make spiral in it.
2. Glue each side of spiral flannel.
3. Twist it from central until the end (look like a rose).
4. Cut the flannel in a rectangle (the size depend on your finger).
5. Put the rose in a rectangle and glue it.
6. Flannel rose ring is ready to wear.