1.

Second generation cephalosporin which can cross blood brain barrier is

A. cefuroxime

B. cefaclor

C. cefoxitin

D. cefazolin

2. All of the following drugs show their action by attaching to 50 S subunit except

A. erythromycin

B. chloramphenicol

C. clindamycin

D. ciprofloxacin

3. All of the following drugs show their action by attaching to 30 S subunit except

A. Tetracycline

B. netilmicin

C. Lincomycin

D. Gentamycin

4. Semisynthetic aminoglycoside antibiotic is

A. kanamycin

B. amikacin

C. streptomycin

D. sisomycin

5. Which of the following does not interferes with absorption of tetracycline from GIT

A. Presence of food

B. acidic PH

C. milk

D. antacid

6. Grey baby syndrome is side effect of which drug

A. kanamycin

B. amikacin

C. streptomycin

D. chloramphenicol

7. Antibiotic produced from Actinomycete isolated from soil of India is

A. chloramphenicol

B. Vancomycin

C. streptomycin

D. kanamycin

8. Antibacterial drugs becomes ineffective in presence of pus is

A. chloramphenicol

B. penicillin

C. sulphonamide

D. kanamycin

9. Crystalluria is well known side effect of which drug

A. chloramphenicol

B. penicillin

C. sulphonamide

D. streptomycin

10. For synergistic effect sulphamethoxazole is combined with which drug

A. chloramphenicol

B. trimethoprim

C. sulphonamide

D. streptomycin

11. For synergistic effect sulpha methoxazole is combined with which drug

A. chloramphenicol
B. trimethoprim

C. sulphonamide

D. streptomycin

12. For synergistic which one of the following is a broad spectrum topical antifungal agent?

A. Miconazole

B. tolnaftate

C. Naftifine

D. Ciclopirox olamine

13. The antifungal drug which acts by inhibiting fungal mitosis is

A. griseofulvin

B. ketoconazole

C. flucytosine

D. amphotericin B

Which one of the following is not a triazole derivative?

A. Terconazole

B. Itraconazole

C. Fluconazole

D. Econazole

15. Orally y and topically active antifungal drug having allylamine structural feature is

A. Itraconazole

B. Fluconazole

C. ketoconazole

D. Terbinafine

16. The antifungal drug that can effectively cross the blood brain barrier is

A. butoconazole

B. flucytosine
C. cotrimazole

D. amphotericin B

17. Name the DNA virus which does not utilise host cell RNA polymerase for replication

A. Adino virus

B. Herpes virus

C. Papilloma virus

D. poxy virus

18. The drug of choice for blocking the replication of small pox virus is

A. acyclovir

B. interferon

C. methisazone

D. Gamma-globulin

19. Which one of the following is not a first line antitubercular drug?

A. ethambutol

B. rifampin

C. rifabutin

D. pyrazinamide

20. Urate concentration in urine is increased by

i) Pyrazinamide ii) ethambutol iii) ethionamide iv) INH

A. i) & ii)

B. ii) & iii)

C. iii) & iv)

D. i) & iv)

21. INH drug is

A. Isoniazid

B. rifampin

C. ethambutol
D. pyrazinamide

22. TB is caused by

A. Mycobacterium leoprae

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C. E coli

D. Basili

23. Leprosy is caused by

A. Mycobacterium

B. Cocai

C. E coli

D. Basilus

24. Dapsone is well known

A. Anti TB drug

B. Anti-leprosy drug

C. antibiotic

D. antifungal

25. Mycobacterium is which type of bacteria

A. Gram positive

B. Gram negative

C. Acid fast

D. all of above

26. Malaria is caused by

A. Gram positive bacteria

B. Gram negative bacteria

C. Acid fast bacteria

D. None of above
27. Malaria is which type of disease

A. bacterial

B. viral

C. protozoal

D. all of above

28. Primaquine sensitivity is due to deficiency of

A. Glucose-6 phosphatase

B. Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase

C. Pseudocholinesterase’s

D. None of the above

29. The most common side effect of chloroquine in dark-skinned persons is

A. pruritis

B. headache

C. urticaria

D. visual disturbances

30. All of the following statements concerning sulphonamides are correct except:

A. They are bacteriostatic

B. Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase

C. Crystalluria may occur

D. more effective in presence of pus

31. All of the following drugs are effective in amoebiasis for the treatment of asymptomatic

cysts passers except

A. pentamidine

B. melarsoprol

C. eflornithine

D. suramine
32. Metronidazole is not effective in which of the following case?

A. Giardiasis

B. fragilis infection

C. Symptomatic amoebiasis

D. Asymptomatic cyst passer infected with E. hisolytica

33. Causative organism of amoebiasis

A. E. hisolytica

B. Plasmodium

C. Bacteria

D. virus

34. Drug of choice for treatment of systemic fungal infection

A. Miconazole

B. Clotrimazole

C. Ketoconazole

D. Amphotericin–B

35. Which of the following is not an anti-fungal agent?

A. Miconazole

B. Clotrimazole

C. Neomycin

D. Amphotericin–B

36. Which of the sulphonamide used in the treatment of malaria?

A. Sulfadoxine

B. Sulfadimidine

C. Sulfafurazole

D. Sulfasalazine

37. The preferred drug used to treat metastatic testicular tumours is

A. vincristin+bleomycin+cisplatin

B. vinrosidine+bleomycin+cisplatin

C. vindesine+bleomycin+cisplatin

D. vinblastin+bleomycin+cisplatin

38. Effective vinka alkaloid to treat lung cancer is

A. vinrosidine

B. vinrosidine

C. vinorelbine

D. vinblastine

39. Peripheral neuritis caused by

A. INH

B. ethambutol

C. ethionamide

D. rifampin

40. Peripheral neuritis caused by isoniazid can be prevented by pre-treatment with

A. Riboflavine

B. Pyridoxine

C. Thiamine

D. All of the above

41. The antineoplastic agent that is classified as an alkylating agent is

A. Bleomycin

B. Tamoxifen

C. Vincristine

D. Busulfan

42. The antineoplastic agent methothrexate is

A. Folic acid antagonist

B. Purine antagonist

C. Pyrimidine antagonist

D. None of above
1. Coagulation Factor(s) targets of heparin:

A. Fibrinogen

B. Prothrombin

C. Christmas factor

D. Proaccelerin

E. antihemophilic globulin (AHG)

2. Fibro lytic drugs:

A. Streptokinase

B. alteplase

C. reteplase

D. urokinase

3. Tissue plasmin activator _______________

a) helps in wound healing

b) allergy response

c) immunity

d) dissolves clot in blood vessels

4. The vitamin essential for blood clotting is _______

a) vitamin A

b) vitamin B

c) vitamin C

d) vitamin K

5. What prevents clotting of blood in blood vessels?

a) Serotonin

b) Fibrinogen

c) Heparin

d) Fibrin
6. In the clotting mechanism pathway, thrombin activates factors ___________

a) XI VIII V

b) XI IX X

c) VIII X V

d) IX VIII X

7. Which of the following drugs is a calcineurin inhibitor?

A. Azathioprine

B. Methotrexate

C. IFN-B

D. Tacrolimus

8. Which immunosuppressant drug binds dihydrofolate reductase and prevents synthesis of

tetrahydrofolate?

A. Methotrexate

B. Mercaptopurine

C. Muromonab

D. Mycophenolate mofetil

9. Which of the following immunosuppressant drugs is a pyrimidine analogue?

A. Azathioprine

B. Carmustine

C. Fluorouracil

D. Methotrexate

10. Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initation of warfarin

therapy

A. Factor VII

B. Factor IX

C. Factor X
D. Prothrombin

11. The most important complication of streptokinase therapy is

A. Hypotension

B. Bleeding

C. Fever

D. Anaphylaxis

12. Anticoagulants are indicated in

A. Immobilized elderly patients

B. Buerger’s disease

C. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis

D. All of these

13. Aldosterone enhances Na+ reabsorption in renal tubules by

A. Stimulating carbonic anhydrase

B. Inhibiting Na+ K+ ATP ase

C. Inducing the synthesis of Na+ K+ ATP ase

D. Promoting K+ secretion

14. Diuretic effective in diabetes insipidus is

(a) Thiazides

(b) Loop diuretic

(c) Mercurial diuretic

(d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.

15. Choose the hemoglobin level in the newborn:

A) 100–140 g/l

B) 110–130 g/l

C) 120–140 g/l

D) 180–240 g/l.
16. Choose the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in early childhood:

A. chronic diseases

B. nutritional factor

C. chronic bleeding

D. iron absorption disorders

17. Which of the following initiates the coagulation cascade IN VIVO?

A. Factor XII

B. Thrombin

C. Tissue factor

D. Factor X

E. Prekallikrein