PRESSURISATION AIRFRAME EXAMS 2018

1) The pressure source for aircraft brakes is:

a) The main hydraulic system

b) The power brake reservoir
c) A master cylinder

2) The purpose of a relief valve in a brake system is to:

a) Reduce pressure for brake application

b) Prevent the tyre from skidding
c) Compensate for thermal expansion

3) Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to determine the:

a) Amount of oil in strut

b) Physical condition of the strut itself
c) Proper operating position of the strut

4) In an aircraft anti – skid system, the electrical solenoid:

a) Allow less brake pressure by allowing a shuttling of the brake booster

b) Relieves the pressure to the brakes of the affected wheels
c) Immediately creates a transfer of pressure to the unaffected wheel brakes

5) Which repair would required a landing gear retraction test?

a) Landing gear safety switch

b) Red warning light bulb
c) Gear down lock micro switch

6) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal to
sound?

a) Landing gear locked down and throttle advanced

b) Landing gear locked down and throttle retarded
c) Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded

7) Landing gear warnings systems usually provide which of the following indications?

a) Red light for unsafe gear, no light for gear down, green light for gear up
b) Green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear
c) Red light for unsafe gear, green light for gear down, no light for gear up
8) The valve stem of the tube of an airplane tyre should be lined up with:

a) The red dot on the tyre

b) The line that indicated a possible slippage of the tyre on the wheel
c) The valve core of the tube at the red dot on the tyre

9) After bleeding the brakes, an engineer finds they are still spongy. This is probably caused by:

a) Extremely rigid flexible hose installed in the brake system

b) Flexible hose that has deteriorated
c) Incorrect fluid in the brake system

10) The name of the hydraulic valve that opens the landing gear door prior to landing gear
extension:

a) Sequence valve
b) Gear – door time lag valve
c) Time lag extension valve

11) The principal types of hydraulic fluid used in aircraft systems are:

a) Butylene, polyvinyl and mineral based

b) Vegetable, phosphate ester and mineral based
c) Viscous naphthalene, mineral based

12) The purpose of a hydraulic actuator is:

a) To act physically during fluid flow

b) To actuate hydraulic motions
c) To transform fluid flow into linear or rotary motion

13) The purpose of a restrictor in a hydraulic system is to restrict:

a) The rate of building – up of hydraulic hydraulic pressure

b) The distance of travel of a actuator
c) The rate of operation of a service component

14) The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to:

a) Relieve excess pressure from the system

b) Store hydraulic fluid under pressure
c) Collect air from the hydraulic fluid thus reducing the requirement for frequent bleeding
15) Pneumatic systems utilize:
 a) Return lines
b) Relief valves
c) Diluter valves

16) What type of selector valve is most commonly used in hydraulic systems to provide for
simultaneous flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit:

a) Four – port, closed – center valve

b) Three – port, four – way valve
c) Two – port, open – center valve

17) Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to:

a) Relieve system pressure

b) Discharge the preload
c) Drain the reservoir

18) The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called:

a) Volatility
b) Viscosity
c) Acidity

19) If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?

a) Down
b) Up
c) Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation

20) Quick – disconnect couplings in hydraulic system provide a means of:

a) Easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where leaks are common

b) Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines and eliminate the possibility of
contaminates entering the system
c) Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines without loss of fluid or entrance of
air into the system

21) Ailerons controls the aircraft in the.

a) Longitudinal plane
b) Directional plane
c) Lateral plane

22) Dutch roll is movement in.

 a) Yaw and roll
b) Yaw and pitch
c) Pitch and roll

23) What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system:

a) Shuttle valve
b) Vacuum pump
c) Distributor valve

24) A hydraulic system operational check during ground run up of an aircraft indicates that the
Wing
Flaps cannot be lowered using the main hydraulic system, but can be lowered by the
Emergency
hand pump, which is the most likely cause.

a) The flap selector valve has a severe internal leak

b) The pressure accumulator is not supplying pressure to the system
c) The fluid level in the reservoir is low

25) Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight.
a) Nose should be lowered, reducing AoA
b) Nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA
c) Nose should be raised, including AoA

26) A hydraulic accumulator is charge with an air preload of 1,000 PSI. When a hydraulic system
pressure of 3,000 PSI is developed, the pressure on the air side of the accumulator will be:

a) 1,000 PSL
b) 3,000 PSL
c) 4,000 PSL

27) How is the air in the hydraulic accumulator prevented from entering into the fluid system?

a) By forcing the oil/air mixture through a centrifugal separating chamber that prevents the
air from leaving the accumulator
b) By physically separating the air chamber from the oil chamber with flexible or movable
separator
c) By including a valve that automatically closes when the fluid level lowers to a preset
amount.

28) After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air chamber charged, the main system
Hydraulic pressure gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until:
 a) At least one sector valve has been actuated to allow fluid flow into the fluid side of the
accumulator
b) The air pressure has become equal to the fluid pressure
c) The fluid side of the accumulator has been charged
29) The air that is expended and no longer needed when an actuating unit is operated IN A
Pneumatic System is?

a) Exhausted or dumped, usually overboard

b) Returned to the compressor
c) Charged or pressurized for use during the next operating cycle

30) Before removing the filter cap of a pressurized hydraulic reservoir, in order to service the
system,
You must:

a) Relieve the hydraulic system pressure

b) Pressurize all components in the system
c) Relieve the air pressure

31) What device in a hydraulic system with a constant delivery pump allows circulation of the
fluid
When no demands are on the system?

a) Pressure relief valve

b) Shuttle valve
c) Pressure regulator

32) The primary function of the cabin pressurization system outflow valve is to:

a) Provide protection against over pressurization

b) Maintain the desired cabin pressure
c) Maintain the same cabin air pressure at all altitudes

33) Which best describes cabin differential pressure:

a) Difference between cabin flight altitude pressure and Mean Sea Level Pressure
b) Difference between the ambient and internal air pressure
c) Difference between cabin pressure controller setting and actual cabin pressure

34) On some cabin pressurization systems, pressurization on the ground is restricted by the:

a) Main landing gear operated switch

 b) Cabin pressure regular
c) Negative pressure – relief valve

35) What is the purpose of a mixing valve in air – conditioning system?

a) Control the supply of hot, cool, and cold air

b) Distribute conditioned air evenly to all parts of the cabin
c) Combine ram air with conditioned air

36) In the diluter demand oxygen regulator, when does the demand valve operate?

a) When the diluter control is set at normal

b) When the user demand 100 percent oxygen
c) When the user breathes

37) If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable

a) Aircraft becomes too sensitive
b) Aircraft returns to trimmed attitude
c) C of P moves back

38) When an aircraft’s oxygen system has developed a leak, the lines and fittings should be:

a) Removed and replaces

b) Inspected using a special oxygen system dye penetrant
c) Bubble tested with a special soap solution manufactured specifically for this purpose

39) What test is used to determine the serviceability of an oxygen cylinder?

a) Pressure test with manometer

b) Pressure test with nitrogen
c) Pressure test with water

40) At which component in air – cycle cooling system does air undergo a pressure and temperature
Drop?

a) Expansion turbine
b) Primary heat exchanger
c) Refrigerator bypass valve
41) Hot compressor bleed air operates the conditioned air system on some turbine aircraft; How is
cold
Air supplied?

a) By air cycle machine turbine

b) By the flow control unit
 c) By the ram cycle cooling unit

42) Cabin heating systems that utilize an exhaust heat exchanger as a source of Heated air:

a) Should be checked frequently for leaks of exhaust gases

b) Should be checked with a carbon monoxide testing instrument
c) Both A and B are correct

43) If the compressor fails, which of the following prevents loss of cabin pressurization:

a) Air that is available from the secondary system

b) A check valve (one – way valve) in the air duct
c) The secondary cabin outflow valve

44) When checking for oxygen leaks, you should use:

a) A high flash – point mineral solution

b) A soap solution specially prepared for this purpose
c) Any suitable solution that will be compatible since oxygen is not inflammable

45) The purpose of a mass flow controller is to:

a) Ensure that a constant mass of air is delivery to the cabin at all times
b) Allow the pilot to select the desire cabin altitude
c) Ensure that there is an adequate supply of cool air through the heat exchangers

46) To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are.

a) Installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root

b) Installed at the wing tip
c) Installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
47) Failure of the normal maximum differential control is catered for by fitting:

a) Safely relief valves

b) Inward relief valves
c) Altitude selector valves1

48) During a normal pressurized climb following Take – off:

a) The cabin ROC is less than the aircraft’s ROC

b) The cabin ROC is more than the aircraft’s ROC
c) The ROC is constant
49) Cabin pressurization is achieved by:

a) Controlling the supply of air to the cabin

b) Controlling the amount of air release from the cabin
c) Varying the output of the compressor

50) In a pneumatic pressurization system, positive pressure signals from the controller will cause:

a) The discharge valve to move towards closed

b) The discharge valve to move towards open
c) An excessive rate of cabin air discharge

51) In pressurized aircraft, temperature control is mainly achieved by:

a) Adding heat to the pressurizing air

b) Extracting heat from the pressurizing air
c) Varying the cabin pressure

52) The purpose of a spill valve is to:

a) Provide additional heat by creating back pressure

b) Release excess air being delivered at sea level and lower altitude
c) Relieve excess pressure in the air supply ducting.

53) When aircraft stalls.

a) Lift decreases and drag increases
b) Lift and drag increase
c) Lift and drag decreases

54) The exhaust heater system uses:

a) Charge air to heat the cabin

b) Ram air to heat the cabin
c) Compressor air to heat the cabin

55) To ensure the correct mixing of the conditioned air, mixing chamber has:

a) Jet pumps
b) Baffles
c) Swirl devices

56) The water extractor is normally located:

 a) Before the cold air unit
b) Between the cold air unit and the outlet to the cabin
c) Between the cold air unit compressor and turbine

57) Turbine engine air used for air – conditioning and pressurization is generally called:

a) Compressed air
b) Ram air
c) Bleed air

58) What controls the operation of the cabin pressure regulator?

a) Cabin altitude
b) Bleed air pressure
c) Compression air pressure

59) The basic air – cycle cooling system consists of:

a) A source of compressed air, heat exchangers and a turbine

b) Heaters, coolers and compressors
c) Ram air source, compressors and engine bleeds

60) The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of
airflow, is known as.

a) Camber layer
b) None of the above is correct
c) Boundary layer

61) Where does the last stage of cooling in an air – cycle air – conditioning system occur?

a) Refrigeration unit compressor

b) Secondary heat exchange
c) Expansion turbine

62) The cabin pressure control setting has a direct influence upon the:

a) Outflow valve opening

 b) Pneumatic system pressure
c) Inflow valve opening

63) Which of the following instruments normally have operating range and unit markings?

a) Directional gyro and airspeed indicator

b) Cylinder head temperature gage (CHT) and altimeter
c) Airspeed indicator and CHT
64) (1) An airspeed indicator measure the differential between pilot and static air pressures
surrounding the aircraft at any moment of flight.
(2) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pilot and cabin air pressures
at any
moment of flight.

Regarding the above statements:

a) Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true

b) Only No. 2 is true
c) Only No.1 is true

65) The primary purpose of the autopilot is to:

a) Hold a predetermined heading of the aircraft under adverse wing conditions

b) Relieve the pilot of undue stress during long period of flight
c) Aid the pilot when the actual landing (not simulated) on the runway

66) A radar altimeter determines attitude by:

a) Transmitting a signal and receiving back a reflected signal

b) Receiving signals transmitted from ground radar stations
c) Means of transponder interrogation

67) A radar altimeter indicates:

a) Flight level (pressure) altitude

b) Altitude above sea level
c) Altitude above ground level

68) When flags such as NAV, HDG or GS are displayed on an HIS, the indication is:

a) That function is inoperative

b) That function is operative
c) To call attention to deviation from desired setting or flight path, or heading
69) A fully integrated autopilot controls the aircraft around how many axes:

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four

70) Dutch roll, a combination OF yawing and rolling oscillation that Affects many swept wing
aircraft, is Counteracted with:
a) A flight director system
b) An aileron damper system
c) A yaw damper

71) Installed radio equipment is protected from damage due to jolts and vibration by:

a) Shocks mounts
b) Spring and/or viscous damper mounted racks
c) Rubber or foam cushioning material between circuit chassis and case

72) How does temperature affect fuel weight?

a) Cold fuel is heavier per gallon

b) Warm fuel is heavier per gallon
c) Temperature has no effect

73) Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight

a) Nose should be lowered, reducing AoA

b) Nose should remain in the same position, maintain same AoA
c) Nose should be raised, increasing AoA

74) An electrical – type fuel quality indicating system consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a:

a) Float – operated transmitter installed in the tank

b) Float resting on the surface of the tank
c) Float – operated receiver installed in the tank

75) What is the purpose of flapper – type check valves in integral fuel tanks:

a) To allow defueling of the tanks by suction

b) To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pumps
 c) To allow the engine – driven pumps to draw fuel directly from the tank if the boost pump
fails

76) Aircraft defueling should be accomplished:

a) With the aircraft’s communication equipment on and in contract with the tower in case of
fire
b) In a hanger where activities can be controlled
c) In the open air for good ventilation

77) When removing ground power from an aircraft after starting engines:

a) Removal of the ground power plug always automatically transfers power to the aircraft
system
b) The ground power supply should be switched off before removing the ground power
supply plug
c) The ground power unit will automatically stop on removal of the ground power plug

78) If the Aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?
a) Up to move elevator up
b) Down to move elevator up
c) Up to move elevator down

79) Since electrical supply taken from a bus – bar are parallel, isolating some of the services
would:

a) Reducing the current consumption from the bus – bar

b) Not affect the current consumption, it would reduce the voltage
c) Increase the current consumption from the bus – bar

80) When resistor are in parallel:

a) The total resistance is smaller than the smallest resistor

b) The total resistance is large than smaller resistor
c) The total resistance is the sum of all resistor

81) If a Ni – Cad battery overheats, it is an indication of:

a) Thermal runaway
b) The generator not being connected to the bus – bar
c) Tool low generator voltage regulator setting

82) The result of an insulation resistance test of an electrical cable:

 a) Also indicates continuity of the cable
b) May vary with the weather conditions under which the aircraft is tested
c) Will always be infinity if the cable is correctly installed

83) What is required when operating two aircraft AC generators in parallel?

a) Amperes and frequency must both be equal

b) Frequency and voltage must both be equal
c) Amperes and voltage must both be equal

84) Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object to the primary structure. One
purpose of
Grounding is to:

a) Prevent current return paths

b) Allow static charge accumulation
c) Prevent development of radio frequency potentials

85) Circuits that must be operated only in an emergency or whose in advertent activation could
endanger
a system frequently employ:

a) Guarded switches
b) Push – pull – type circuit breakers only (no switches)
c) Spring – loaded to off toggle or rocker switches

86) If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture, the
mechanic
should:

a) Coat the connector with grease

b) Use a special moisture – proof type
c) Spray the connector with varnish or zinc – chromate

87) The three kinds of circuit – protection devices used most commonly in aircraft circuits are:

a) Circuit breakers, resistors and current limiters

b) Circuit breakers, fuses and current limiters
c) Circuit breakers, capacitors and current limiters plugins mechanical reset types
88) A battery – generator system provides direct current. On installations requiring alternating
current
from the battery – generator system, it is necessary to have:

a) A transformer
b) An inverter
c) A variable resistor between the battery and generator

89) Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall:

a) Is imminent
b) Is starting to occur
c) First affects the outboard portions of the wing

90) The identification of the horn for the landing gear and the stall warning is achieved by:

a) Pulsing the gear warning horn

b) Using horns of different notes
c) Pulsing the stall warning horn

91) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal to
sound:

a) Landing gear locked down and throttled advance

b) Landing gear locked down and throttled retarded
c) Landing gear not locked down and the throttle retarded

92) What safely device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?

a) Up lock switch
b) Downlock switch
c) Ground safety switch

93) What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system:

a) Shuttle valve
b) Vacuum pump
c) Distributor valve

94) Which of the following regulates the vacuum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots deflated
when the pneumatic deicing system is off?

a) Distributor valve
 b) Pressure regulator
c) Suction relief valve

95) What may be used to clean deicer boots?

a) Unleaded gasoline or Jet A fuel

b) Naphtha
c) Soap and water

96) During aircraft operation, a wheel brake fire occurs. Which of the following should be used to
extinguish this type of fire:

a) Dry chemicals
b) Moist chemicals
c) Foam similar as that used to coat the runway in case of an aircraft wheels up landing

97) You are instructed to check a fire extinguisher bottle for full charge. You can determine the
amount
of the content by:

a) Checking the pressure of the extinguisher bottle

b) Checking the height of the content by looking the sight gage
c) Weighing the bottle

98) Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called:

a) Electromechanical devices
b) Photoelectrical devices
c) Visual devices

99) A fire – extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by:

a) Attaching a remote pressure gauge

b) Weighing the container and its contents
c) A hydrostatic test

100) The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous – loop fiRe – detection system is:

a) Improper routing or clamping loops

b) Moisture
c) Dents, kinks or crushed sensor