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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 20th July, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
The value of current in the 6 resistance is : be the time after the which one third of the material
(1) 4A (2) 8A (3) 10A (4) 6A remains ? (Take ln 3 = 1.1)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(1) 1110 years (2) 700 years
Sol.
(3) 340 years (4) 740 years
No.
f = µN N0
Sol. N 0 e net t
3
30°
1
mg n net t
3
At vmax, f will be limiting in nature.
Balancing force in vertical direction, 3 0.693
Ncos30° – mg – µNcos60° = 0 1.1 t t 740 years
1400
N [cos30° – µcos60°] = mg
800 10 Hence option 4
N 10.2 103 kg m / s 2
0.87 0.1
Hence option 1.
1
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4. A steel block of 10 kg rests on a horizontal floor as Sol.
shown. When three iron cylinders are placed on it C ~ V=20sint
as shown, the block and cylinders go down with an
acceleration 0.2 m/s2. The normal reaction R' by
From the given information,
the floor if mass of the iron cylinders are equal and
0 A 0 1
of 20 kg each, is ______ N. [Take g = 10 m/s2 and C F
d 2 103
µs = 0.2]
1 2 103 2 10 3
XC
C 2 500 25 4 0
2 103 18
XC 9 109 106
25 25
V0 20 25
i0 106 A = 27.47 µA.
XC 18
(1) 716 (2) 686 (3) 714 (4) 684
The value of amplitude of displacement current
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
will be same as value of amplitude of conventional
current.
Hence option 3.
Sol.
6. Region I and II are separated by a spherical surface
of radius 25 cm. An object is kept in region I at a
distance of 40 cm from the surface. The distance of
Writing force equation in vertical direction
the image from the surface is :
Mg – N = Ma
70g – N = 70 × 0.2
N = 70 [g – 0.2] = 70 × 9.8
N = 686 Newton
Note : Since there is no compressive normal from (1) 55.44 cm (2) 9.52 cm
the sides, hence friction will not act. (3) 18.23 cm (4) 37.58 cm
2 2M 2M C
(2) A2 B2 2AB Loss in internal energy = E + K.ENu
2
(3) A2 B2 2AB 1 h
h
2M C
(4) A2 B2 2AB
h
h 1 2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 2MC
3
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12. A certain charge Q is divided into two parts q and 14. Consider a mixture of gas molecule of types A, B
(Q–q). How should the charges Q and q be divided and C having masses mA < mB < mC. The ratio of
their root mean square speeds at normal
so that q and (Q–q) placed at a certain distance
temperature and pressure is :
apart experience maximum electrostatic (1) vA vB vC 0
repulsion ? 1 1 1
(2)
v A v B vC
q
(1) Q (2) Q = 2q
2 (3) vA = vB vC
1 1 1
(3) Q = 4q (4) Q = 3q (4)
v A v B vC
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
q Q–q
L 3RT
Sol. VRMS
Sol. M
kq Q q k mA < mB < mC
Fq 2
2 qQ q 2 VA VB VC
L L
1 1 1
dF
0 when force is maximum VA VB VC
dq
15. A butterfly is flying with a velocity 4 2 m/s in
dF k
Q 2q 0 North-East direction. Wind is slowly blowing at
dq L2 1 m/s from North to South. The resultant
Q – 2q = 0 Q = 2q displacement of the butterfly in 3 seconds is :
(1) 3 m (2) 20 m
13. A current of 5 A is passing through a non-linear
(3) 12 2 m (4) 15 m
magnesium wire of cross-section 0.04 m2. At every
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
point the direction of current density is at an angle
V BW =Velocity of butterfly
N
of 60° with the unit vector of area of cross-section. in frame of wind
4 2
The magnitude of electric field at every point of
the conductor is : 45
W E
°
(Resistivity of magnesium = 44 × 10 m) –8 Sol.
4 VW ˆj
5 J cos 60
100 VB VBW VW 4iˆ 3jˆ
J = 5 × 50 = 250 A/m2
SB VB t 4iˆ 3jˆ 3 12iˆ 9ˆj
Now, E J
12 9
2 2
SB 15m
–8 –5
= 44 × 10 × 250 = 11 × 10 V/m
4
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16. The value of tension in a long thin metal wire has 18. The arm PQ of a rectangular conductor is moving
been changed from T1 to T2. The lengths of the
from x = 0 to x = 2b outwards and then inwards
metal wire at two different values of tension T1 and
T2 are 1 and 2 respectively. The actual length of from x = 2b to x = 0 as shown in the figure. A
the metal wire is : uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane
T T2 1 T T
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 1 2 2
is acting from x = 0 to x = b. Identify the graph
T1 T2 T1 T2
2
1
showing the variation of different quantities with
(3) (4) T1 T2 1 2
2
distance :
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
FL
Sol. Y
AL P
T1 T2
Y 0
0
A 1 0 A 2 0 Q
T1 2 0
1
T2 1 0
x=0 x=b x=2b
T21 – T2 0 = T1 2 – T1 0
(T1 – T2) 0 = T1 2 – T2 1
A
T T
0 1 2 2 1
T1 T2 B
17. For the circuit shown below, calculate the value of
Iz :
RS=1000
x=0 C
b 2b b
Iz
Vi 100V R (1) A-Flux, B-Power dissipated, C-EMF
B 2000
Vz=50V
(2) A-Power dissipated, B-Flux, C-EMF
6
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NLP
3. The amplitude of wave disturbance propagating in
v 1
the positive x-direction is given by y at
(1 x)2
0.05m
Sol. 2m 1
time t = 0 and y at t = 1s, where x
1 (x 2)2
and y are in meres. The shape of wave does not
d
change during the propagation. The velocity of the
1 2 1
kx mv 2 wave will be ____m/s.
2 2
Kx2 = mv2 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
k 100 1
vx 0.05 0.05 10 10 Sol. At t = 0, y
m 0.1 1 x2
v 0.5 10
1
1 2 At time t = t, y
1 x vt
2
From h gt
2
2h 2 2 2 1
t At t = 1, y … (i)
1 x v
2
g 10 10
2
d vt 0.5 10 1m 1
10 At t = 1, y … (ii)
1 x 2
2
8
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m
disk
Sol. u
a
M,L rest
Sol. L
rest
If disk slips on inclined plane, then it’s
acceleration O
a1 = gsin
1 2
L a 1t1 v
2
2L Just after collision
t1 …. (i)
a1 From momentum conservation, Pi0 Pf
If disk rolls on inclined plane, its acceleration,
mu = Mv …. (i)
g sin
a2 From angular momentum conservation about O,
I
1
mR 2 L ML2
mu
g sin 2 12
a2
mR 2
1 6mu
2mR 2 … (ii)
ML
2
a 2 g sin
3 R.V.S
From e
1 R.V.A
Now L a 2 t 22
2 L
V
2L 1 2
t2 … (ii) u
a2
L
t a1 3 v u
Now 2 2
t1 a2 2
3mu
x=2 v u
M
7. A rod of mass M and length L is lying on a
mu 3mu
horizontal frictionless surface. A particle of mass u
'm' travelling along the surface hits at one end of M M
the rod with a velocity 'u' in a direction 4mu
perpendicular to the rod. The collision is u
M
completely elastic. After collision, particle comes
m 1 m 1
to rest. The ratio of masses is . The value
M x M 4
of 'x' will be ______.
X=4
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
9
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8. An object viewed from a near point distance of C
f1 f 0
25 cm, using a microscopic lens with CV
magnification '6', gives an unresolved image. A Again wall as a source
resolved image is observed at infinite distance with Frequency received by observer on car
a total magnification double the earlier using an
CV
eyepiece along with the given lens and a tube of f 2 f1
C
length 0.6 m, if the focal length of the eyepiece is
CV
equal to ______ cm. f2 f0
CV
Official Ans. by NTA (25)
CV
500 400
Sol. For simple microscope, CV
D 5 CV
m 1
f0 4 CV
D C = 9V
6 1
f0 C 330
V m/s
9 9
25
5
f0 330 18
V 132km / hr
9 5
f0 = 5 cm
For compound microscope, 10. A carrier wave VC(t) = 160 sin (2 × 106t) volts is
made to vary between Vmax = 200 V and
D
m Vmin = 120 V by a message signal
f0 fe
Vm(t) = Am sin(2 × 103t) volts. The peak voltage
60 25 Am of the modulating signal is _______.
12
5 fe Official Ans. by NTA (40)
fe = 25 cm Sol. Maximum amplitude
wall
Wall as an observer
Frequency received by wall
10
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 20th July, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
3d10 4s 4p
sp3 O
R O
Hybridisation
OH
+NH2–CH–C–OH
OH
4) Na2[NiCl4] Ni[Ar]183d84s0 OH
O
ClΘ weak O O
field ligand
t2 Hybridisation
C.N. 4 sp3 N + RCHO
tetrahedral +CO2
e +4H2O
splitting O O
Ninhydrin Test
1
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3. Green chemistry in day–to–day life is in the use of: 6. The species given below that does NOT show
(1) Chlorine for bleaching of paper disproportionation reaction is :
(2) Large amount of water alone for washing clothes (1) BrO 4 (2) BrO–
(3) Tetrachloroethene for laundry
(4) Liquified CO2 for dry cleaning of clothes (3) BrO2 (4) BrO 3
(PAN)
CN
2
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9. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R. [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4
Assertion A : The dihedral angles in H2O2 in (Dark brown ring)
gaseous phase is 90.2° and in solid phase is 111.5°.
Reason R : The change in dihedral angle in solid Cu2+ + (dil HCl + H2S)
and gaseous phase is due to the difference in the X (Group-II reagent)
(cation )
intermolecular forces.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below for A and R.
CuS
(1) A is correct but R is not correct.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the (Black ppt)
correct explanation of A. (Y)
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
Soluble
explanation of A. CuS Concn
(Y)
HNO3
Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + S + H2O
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.
Excess
Official Ans. by NTA (4) NH4OH Soln.
H H [Cu(NH3)4]2+
Deep blue colour solution.
Sol.
111.5° 90.2° X Cu(NO3)2
94.8°
H
101.9°
H
12. CH2 CH2
(a) Gas phase (a) Solid phase CH2 CH2
H
(a) H2O2 structure in gas phase, dihedral angle
is 111.5°. (b) H2O2 structure in solid phase at O
H
110K, dihedral angle is 90.2°. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Hence given statement (A) is not correct
Among the given species the Resonance stabilised
But statement (B) is correct.
10. Chemical nature of the nitrogen oxide compound carbocations are:
obtained from a reaction of concentrated nitric acid (1) (C) and (D) only
and P4O10 (in 4 : 1 ratio) is :
(1) acidic (2) basic (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
(3) amphoteric (4) neutral (3) (A) and (B) only
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(4) (A), (B) and (C) only
Sol. 4HNO3 + P4O10
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
2N2O5 + (HPO3)4 Sol. (A) and (B) only in Resonance
Ans. N2O5 is acidic in nature.
CH2
11. An inorganic Compound 'X' on treatment with (A) CH2
concentrated H2SO4 produces brown fumes and
gives dark brown ring with FeSO4 in presence of
concentrated H2SO4. Also Compound 'X' gives
precipitate 'Y', when its solution in dilute HCl is
treated with H2S gas. The precipitate 'Y' on
CH2 CH2
treatment with concentrated HNO3 followed by
excess of NH4OH further gives deep blue coloured
solution, Compound 'X' is:
(1) Co(NO3)2 (2) Pb(NO2)2
(3) Cu(NO3)2 (4) Pb(NO3)2
Official Ans. by NTA (3) CH2
NO3 H2SO4 NO 2 H2O
Sol. X (Conc.) Brown fumes
(Anion)
(B)
FeSO4 H2SO4 NO 3
Sol n conc. X
3
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13. A s-block element (M) reacts with oxygen to form 16. Compound A is converted to B on reaction with
an oxide of the formula MO2. The oxide is pale CHCl3 and KOH. The compound B is toxic and can
yellow in colour and paramagnetic. The element be decomposed by C. A, B and C respectively are :
(M) is: (1) primary amine, nitrile compound, conc. HCl
(1) Mg (2) Na (2) secondary amine, isonitrile compound, conc.
(3) Ca (4) K NaOH
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (3) primary amine, isonitrile compound, conc. HCl
Sol. (A) 2Mg + O2 2MgO (Diamagnetic) (4) secondary amine, nitrile compound, conc. NaOH
(B) 2Na + O2 Na2O (Diamagnetic) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
2Na + O2 Na2O2 (Diamagnetic) Sol.
(excess) CHCl3 H3O
(C) 2Ca + O2 2CaO (Diamagnetic) R–NH2 R–NC R-NH2
(HCl)
Ca + O2 CaO2(Diamagnetic) 1° amine (B)
(C) +HCOOH
(D) K + O2 KO2 (Paramagnetic) (A) (Isonitrile)
(excess)
14. In the given reaction 3-Bromo-2, 2-dimethyl 17. The conditions given below are in the context of
butane
C2 H5OH
'A' Product A is: observing Tyndall effect in colloidal solutions:
(Major Product)
(A) The diameter of the colloidal particles is
(1) 2-Ethoxy-3, 3-dimethyl butane
comparable to the wavelength of light used.
(2) 1-Ethoxy-3, 3-dimethyl butane
(B) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much
(3) 2-Ethoxy-2, 3-dimethyl butane
smaller than the wavelength of light used.
(4) 2-Hydroxy-3, 3-dimethyl butane
(C) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
larger than the wavelength of light used.
CH3 Br CH3
Sol.
(D) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
C2H5OH
CH3 – C – CH – CH3
CH3–C–CH–CH 3 and the dispersion medium are comparable.
–Br
CH3 CH3 (E) The dispersed phase has a very different
3-Bromo-2, 2-dimethyl butane 1,2-methyl refractive index from the dispersion medium.
H shift
Choose the most appropriate conditions from the
C2H5OH
O–CH2–CH3 CH3–C – CH – CH3 options given below:
(1) (A) and (E) only (2) (C) and (D) only
CH3–C – CH–CH3 CH3 CH3
(3) (A) and (D) only (4) (B) and (E) only
CH3 CH3 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. The phenomenon of scattering of light by colloidal
particles as a result of which the path of the beam
O–CH2–CH3 becomes visible is called a tyndall effect.
1 2 3 4
CH3–C – CH–CH3 smaller the diameter and similar the magnitude of
refractive indices, lesser is the scattering and hence
CH3 CH3 the tyndall effect and viced-versa.
2 Ethoxy –2,3–dimethyl butane The diameter of the dispersed phase particle should
not be smaller than the wavelength of light used
15. The metal that can be purified economically by because they won't be able to scatter the light so,
fractional distillation method is: therefore, the diameter of the dispersed particles
(1) Fe (2) Zn (3) Cu (4) Ni should be equal or not much smaller than the
Official Ans. by NTA (2) wavelength of the light used.
Sol. Zinc can be purified economically by fractional 2. The refractive indies (i.e. the ratio of the
velocity of light in vacuum to the velocity of light
distillation.
in any medium) of the dispersed phase and the
dispersion medium should differ greatly in
magnitude than only the particles will be able to
4
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scatter the light and tyndall effect will be obersved. 20.
On the other hand, if the refractive indices of the KMnO4
dispersed phase and dispersion medium are almost 'A'
H2SO4, (major product)
similar in magnitude, then there will be no KMnO4
scattering of light and hence, therefore, no tyndall 'B'
H2O, 273K (major product)
effect effect is observed.
Hence answer A and E are correct. For above chemical reactions, identify the correct
18. Identify the incorrect statement from the following
statement from the following:
(1) Amylose is a branched chain polymer of glucose
(1) Both compound 'A' and compound 'B' are
(2) Starch is a polymer of -D glucose
(3) -Glycosidic linkage makes cellulose polymer dicarboxylic acids
(4) Glycogen is called as animal starch (2) Both compound 'A' and compound 'B' are diols
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (3) Compound 'A' is diol and compound 'B' is
Sol. Amylose is a linear chain polymer of -D-glucose
dicarboxylic acid
while amylopectine is branched chain polymer of
-D-glucose. (4) Compound 'A' is dicarboxylic acid and
19. OH compound 'B' is diol
5
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2. 250 mL of 0.5 M NaOH was added to 500 mL of 1 M Transference of electrons
HCl. The number of unreacted HCl molecules in the 3d 4s 4p 4d
Co2+ : [Ar] ` ` D`
solution after complete reaction is _______ ×1021.
3d 4s 4p 4d
(Nearest integer)
Co2+ : [Ar] ` `
(NA = 6.022 × 1023) d2sp3 hybridisation
Official Ans. by NTA (226) It has one unpaired electron (n) in 4d-subshell.
So spin only magnetic moment (µ) =
Sol. We known that no. of moles = Vlitre × Molarity
& No. of millimoles = Vml × Molarity n(n 2) B.M
6
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7. To synthesise 1.0 mole of 2-methylpropan-2-ol 9. An average person needs about 10000 kJ energy
from Ethylethanoate ________ equivalents of per day. The amount of glucose (molar mass
CH3MgBr reagent will be required. (Integer value) = 180.0 g mol–1) needed to meet this energy
Official Ans. by NTA (2) requirement is _________ g.
7
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Final JEE-Main
JEE Main Exam July, 2021/20
2021/20-07-2021/Morning
2021/Morning Session
FINAL JEE–MAIN
JEE MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held
eld On Tuesday 20th July,
July, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM
M to 12 : 00 NOON
ß ß
4
4. The value of the integral ò loge ( 1 - x + 1 + x)
x )dx
dx
-1
1
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1 (12 )8 (27)8
Sol. Let I 2 ln 1 x 1 x 1 dx
0 (I) (II) 96 (3)24
(I.B.P.)
Similarly 96 (3)24
I 2 x.ln 1 x 1 x 0
1
96 (12 1) 96 (12 1) (3)24 52
1
1
1 1 Option (3) is correct.
x. ·
dx
0 1 x 1 x 2 1 x 2 1 x 2 3
6. Let A = , a R be written as P + Q where P
1 a 0
2 x 1 x 1 x dx
2 ln 2 0
2 0 1 x 1 x 1 x2 is a symmetric matrix and Q is skew symmetric
matrix. If det(Q) = 9, then the modulus of the sum of
x · 2 2 1 x2
1
loge 2 dx all possible values of determinant of P is equal to :
0 2x 1 x2
(1) 36 (2) 24 (3) 45 (4) 18
(After rationalisation)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
1
1 1 x 2
loge 2 dx 2 3
A
0
1 x2
Sol. , a R
a 0
loge 2 sin 1 x 0 1
1
3a
AA 2 T
2
and P
log e 2 0 1 2 a 3 0
2 2
I loge 2 1 3a
2 0
A AT 2
Option (3) is correct. and Q
2 a 3 0
5. If and are the distinct roots of the equation 2
x2 + (3)1/4x + 31/2 = 0, then the value of
As, det (Q) = 9
96(12 – 1) + 96(12–1) is equal to :
(a – 3)2 = 36
(1) 56 × 325 (2) 56 × 324
(3) 52 × 324 (4) 28 × 325 a = 3 ± 6
Official Ans. by NTA (3) a 9, 3
Sol. As, 3 3 ·
2 1/4
4 2 32 3 32 (On squaring)
( 4 3) () 32
8 64 9 3 (Again squaring)
3 9 0
8 4
2
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Final JEE-Main
JEE Main Exam July, 2021/20-07-
2021/20 -2021/Morning
2021/Morning Session
Þ Option (1) is correct So, option (2) is correct.
arg ç
æ1- 2 z w ö then the area (in sq. units) of DABC
ABC is :
÷ is :
è 1+ 3 z w ø
(1) 10 + 6 2 (2) 8 + 2 2
(Here arg(z) denotes the principal argument of
(3) 6 + 8 3 (4) 4 + 2 3
complex number z)
Official Ans. by NTA ((3))
p 3p p 3p
(1) (2) - (3) - (4) Sol.
4 4 4 4
Official Ans. by NTA ((33) A
1 B a=? C
Þ If |z|| = r, then ||w| =
r
3
As, cosB = Þ B = 53°
Let arg (z) = q 5
æ 3p ö c
\ arg (w
w) = ç q - ÷ As, R = 5 Þ = 2R
è 2 ø sin c
So, z = reiq 5
Þ =
=sin c Þ C =
=30°
( )
10
Þ z = re i -q
b æ4ö
æ
1 iç q- ÷
3p ö Now, = 2R Þ b = 2 ( 5) ç ÷ = 8
w= e è 2 ø sin B è5ø
r
Now, by cosine formula
Now, consider
æ 3p ö a 2 + c2 - b2
iç - ÷ cos B =
1 - 2zw 1 - 2e æ 1 - 2i ö
è 2 ø
2ac
= =ç ÷
1 + 3zw æ 3p ö
iç - ÷ è 1 + 3i ø
1 + 3e è 2 ø 3 a 2 + 25 - 64
Þ =
=
5 2 ( 5) a
(1 - 2i ) (1 - 3i ) 1
= = - (1 + i )
(1 + 3i ))(1 - 3i ) 2 Þ a2 – 6a – 3g = 0
æ 1 - 2zw ö Þ 3 + 4 3 (Reject a = 3 – 4 3 )
= prin arg ç ÷
è 1 + 3zw ø
abc ( 3 + 4 3 ) (8)( 5 ) (
æ 1 ö Now, D = = = 2 3+ 4 3)
= ç - (1 + i ) ÷ 4R 4 ( 5)
è 2 ø
p ö -3 p Þ D = (6 + 8 3 )
æ
= -ç p - ÷ =
è 4ø 4 Þ Option (3) is correct.
3
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Final JEE-Main
JEE Main Exam July, 2021/20
2021/20-07-2021/Morning
2021/Morning Session
9. Let [x] denote the greatest integer < x, where Sol. We have
x Î R.. If the domain of the real valued function æy y ö
x ç × tan - 1 ÷
dy
= èx x ø
[x] - 2 dx y
f(x) = x tan
[x] - 3 x
is (– ¥,a) È [b,c) È [4, ¥),a < b < c, then the value dy y æyö
\ = - cot ç ÷
dx x èxø
of a + b + c is: y
Put = v
(1) 8 (2)1 x
(3) –2 (4) –3 Þ y = vn
dy ndv
Official Ans. by NTA ((33) \ =v+
dx dx
Sol. For domain,
Now, we get
[x] - 2 dv
³0 v+n = v - cot ( v )
[x] - 3 dx
dx
Case I : When [x] - 2 ³ 0 Þ ò ( tan )dv = - ò
x
and [x] - 3 > 0 æyö
\ ln sec ç ÷ = -ln x + c
\ x Î (––¥, -3)) È [4, ¥)) .....(1) èxø
æ1ö æyö
Case III : When [x] - 2 £ 0 As ç ÷ = ç ÷ Þ C = 0
è2ø èxø
and [x] - 3 < 0 æyö 1
\ sec ç ÷ =
\ x Î [––2, 3) .....(2) èxø x
== (13 - x3 )
100
in the upper half plane is: (1 - x )
== (1 - x3 )
100
1 1 (1 - x )
(1) (p - 1) (2) (p - 3)
8 12
== (1 x3 )3 - x14
(1 -24
x 3 )3
100 100
-24
14
1 1 No term of x256 find cofficient of x 255
(3) (p - 2) (4) ( p - 1) We
Wefind
4
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Final JEE-Main
JEE Main Exam July, 2021/20-07-
2021/20 -2021/Morning
2021/Morning Session
12. Let A = [aij] be a 3 × 3 matrix, where 14. The number of real roots of the equation
ì 1 , if i = j
ï p
a ij = í - x , if | i - j |= 1 tan–1 x(x + 1) + sin –1 x 2 + x + 1 = is :
4
ï2x + 1 , otherwise.
î
(1) 1 (2) 2
Let a function f : R ® R be defined as f(x) = det(A).
Then the sum of maximum and minimum values of (3) 4 (4) 0
f on R is equal to: Official Ans. by NTA (4)
20 88
(1) - (2) p
27 27 Sol. tan -1 x 2 + x + sin -1 x 2 + x + 1 =
20 88 4
(3) (4) -
27 27 For equation to be defined,
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
x2 + x ³ 0
é 1 -x 2x + 1ù
Sol. ê
A = ê -x 1 -x úú Þ x2 + x + 1 ³ 1
êë 2x + 1 -x 1 úû
\ only possibility that the equation is defined
|A| = 4x3 – 4x2 – 4x = f(x)
f'(x) = 4(3x2 – 2x – 1) = 0 x2 + x = 0 Þ x = 0; x = –1
-1
Þx=1;x= None of these values satisfy
3
æ 1ö 20 \ No of roots = 0
\ f(1)
1424 =-34 ;f çè - 3 ÷ø = 27
min 14 4244 3 15. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
max.
20 88 æ yö
Sum = -4 + =- equation e x 1 - y 2 dx + ç ÷ dy = 0,y(1) = –1.
27 27 è xø
r r r
13. Let a = 2iˆ + ˆj - 2kˆ and b = ˆi + ˆj. If c is a vector
r r r r r Then the value of (y(3))2 is equal to:
such that a × c =| c |,| c - a |= 2 2 and the angle
(1) 1 – 4e3 (2) 1 – 4e6
r r r p
between (a ´ b) and c is , then the value of
6 (3)1 + 4e3 (4) 1 + 4e6
r r r
( )
a ´ b ´ c is : Official Ans. by NTA (2)
2 y
(1) (2) 4 Sol. e x 1 - y 2 dx + dy = 0
3 x
3
(3) 3 (4) -y
2 Þ e x 1 - y 2 dx + dy
Official Ans. by NTA (4) x
r r r
Sol. | a | = 3 = a ; a.c = c -y ex x
r r
Now ||cc - a |= 2 2
Þ ò 1- y 2
dy = ò
II 1
dx
r r
Þ c 2 + a 2 - 2 c.a = 8
Þ c2 + 9 – 2 (c) = 8 Þ 1 - y 2 = e x (x - 1) + c
r
Þ c2 – 2c + 1 = 0 Þ c = 1 = | c |
r r Given : At x = 1, y = – 1
Also, a ´ b = 2iˆ - 2 ˆj + kˆ
Þ0=0+c Þc=0
r r r r r p
Given (a ´ b) = | a ´ b || c | sin
6
\ 1 - y 2 = e x (x - 1)
= (3) (1) (1/2)
= 3/2 At x = 3 1 – y2 = (e3 2)2 Þ y2 = 1 – 4e6
5
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Final JEE-Main
JEE Main Exam July, 2021/20
2021/20-07-2021/Morning
2021/Morning Session
16. Let 'a' be a real number such that the function Official Ans. by NTA ((2))
2
f(x) = ax + 6x – 15, x Î R is increasing in Sol. Continuous at x = 0
f(0+) = f(0–) Þ a – 1 = 0–ee0
æ 3ö æ3 ö
çè -¥, 4 ÷ø and decreasing in çè 4 , ¥ ÷ø . Then the Þa=0
6
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Final JEE-Main
JEE Main Exam July, 2021/20-07-
2021/20 -2021/Morning
2021/Morning Session
2 1
= Þ cos2
cos2qq=-
9 3
20. Let the tangent to the parabola S : y2 = 2x at the Þ 36 cos22q
2 = 4
point P(2, 2) meet the xx--axis
axis at Q and normal at it
meet the parabola S at the point R. Then the area æ 1 -1 0 ö
ç ÷
(in sq. units) of the triangle PQR is equal to: 2. Let A = ç 0 1 -1 ÷ and B = 7A20 – 20A7 + 2I,
25 35 15 ç0 0 1 ÷ø
(1) (2) (3) (4) 25 è
2 2 2 where I is an identity matrix of order 3 × 3. If
Official Ans. by NTA ((11)
B = [bij], then b13 is equal to _________.
Sol. Official Ans. by NTA ((910
910)
y2=2x æ 1 -1 0 ö
a=1/2 ç ÷
Q Sol. Let A = ç 0 1 -1 ÷ = I + C
ç0 0 1 ÷
è ø
R æ1 0 0ö æ 0 -1 0 ö
ç ÷ ç ÷
where I = ç 0 1 0 ÷ ,C = ç 0 0 -1 ÷
ç0 0 1÷ ç0 0 0 ÷
è ø è ø
Tangent at P : y(2) = 2 (1/2) (x + 2) æ0 0 1ö
Þ 2y = x + 2 2 ç ÷
C = ç 0 0 0 ÷,
\ Q = (––2, 0) ç0 0 0÷
(2) è ø
Normal at P : y – 2 = – (x - 2)
2. 1 2 æ0 0 0ö
ç ÷
Þ y – 2 = – 2(x – 2) C = ç 0 0 0 ÷ = C 4 = C 5 = ......
3
Þ y = 6 – 2x ç0 0 0÷
è ø
æ9 ö B = 7 A20 – 20 A7 + 2I
\ Solving with y2 = 2x Þ R ç - 3 ÷
è2 ø = 7 (I + C)20 – 20 (I + C)7 + 2I
= 7(I + 20C + 20C2 C2) – 20 (I + 7C + 7C2 C2) + 2I
2 2 1
1 So
PQR) = -2 1 1
\ Ar (DPQR)
2 b13 = 7 × 20C2 – 20 × 7C2 = 910
9
3- 1
2 3. Let P be a plane passing through the point points
25 (1, 0, 1), (1, –2, 2, 1) and (0, 1, –2).
–2). Let a vector
= sq.units r r
2 a = aˆi + bˆj + gkˆ be such that a is parallel to the
r r r
SECTION-B
SECTION (
plane P, perpendicular to ˆi + 2ˆj + 3kˆ and)
r
1. Let a , b , c be three mutually perpendicular
vectors of the same magnitude and equally inclined
( )
a × ˆi + ˆj + 2kˆ = 2 , then (a
( – b + gg)2 equals
r r r
at an angle q,, with the vector a + b + c . Then _______.
36 cos22qq is equal to _________. Official Ans. by NTA ((81
81)
Official Ans. by NTA ((44)
Sol. Equation of plane :
r r r r r r rr rr rr
Sol. | a + b + c |2 =| a |2 + | b |2 + | c |2 +2(a.b + a.c + b.c) x -1 y - 0 z -1
=3 1-1 1-1 = 0
r r r 2
Þ | a + b + c |= 3 1- 0 0 -1 1+ 2
r r r r r r r r
a.(a + b + c) =| a | + | a + b + c | cos q
Þ 3x – z – 2 = 0
Þ1= 3 cosq r
a = aˆi + bˆj + gkˆ || to 3x – z – 2 = 0
7
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Final JEE-Main
JEE Main Exam July, 2021/20
2021/20-07-2021/Morning
2021/Morning Session
Þ 3a - 8 = 0 .....(1) æ 1 ö
x = 5 is a 5 + b + g cos–1 ç 5 ÷ , then
r è ø
a ^ i + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ
Þ a + 2b
2 + 38 = 0 ..... (2) a + b + g is equal to __________.
r ˆ ˆ ˆ =0
a.(i + j + 2k) Official Ans. by NTA ((1))
Þ a + b + 28 = 2 ..... (3)
on solving 1, 2 & 3 Sol. x=1
a = 1, b = –5,
5, 8 = 3
P(1,1)
( – b + 8) = 81
So (a
expansion of ( 4 )
120
1 1 2 2
4
+ 56 is _________. E : x + 4y = 5
8
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Final JEE-Main
JEE Main Exam July, 2021/20-07-
2021/20 -2021/Morning
2021/Morning Session
x - 2l 1 x + a 1 8
Þ m= & c=
Þ l 2l - 1 0 l =2 2 2 2
4l 0 2l
æ 17 ö
2 2 4 2(m + c) = 4 2 ç ÷ = 34
Þ l (4l – 4l + 22l) = 2 è2 2 ø
Þ l2 = 1 æ x+2 ö
If the value of lim ( 2 - cosx
cos x cos2x )è
ç 2 ÷
10. x ø
is equal
x ®0
8. There are 15 players in a cricket team, out of
which 6 are bowlers, 7 are batsmen and 2 are to ea, then a is equal to ________.
is__________. form: 1¥
æ 1- cos x cos 2x ö
Official Ans. by NTA ((777
777) lim ç ÷÷´( x +2 )
x ® 0çè x2 ø
=e
Sol. 15 : Players
1 - cos x cos2x
cos 2x
6 : Bowlers Now limt
x ®0 x2
7 : Batsman =
2 : Wicket keepers 1
sin x cos2x - cos
cosxx´ ´ (-2sin 2x)
Total number of ways for : limt 2 cos2x
x ®0 2x
at least 4 bowlers, 5 batsman & 1 wicket keeper
(by L' Hospital Rule)
= 6C4(7C6 × 2C1 + 7C5 × 2C2) + 6C5 × 7C5 × 2C1
sin x cos2x + sin 2x.cos
2x.cosxx
limt
= 777 x ®0 2x
1 3
9. Let y = mx + c, m > 0 be the focal chord of = +1 =
2 2
y2 = –64x,
64x, which is tangent to (x + 10)2 + y2 = 4. æ 1- cos x cos 2x ö
limt çç ÷÷(x +2)
x ®0è x2 ø
Then, the value of 4 2 (m + c) is equal So, e
3
to_______. ´2
= e2 = e3
Official Ans. by NTA ((34
34) Þ a=3
2
Sol. y = –64x
64x
focus : (–
(–16, 0)
y = mx + c is focal chord
Þ c = 16m .......(1)
y = mx + c is tangent to (x + 10)2 + y2 = 4
Þ y = m(x + 10) ± 2 1 + m 2
Þ c = 10m ± 2 1 + m 2
Þ 16m = 10m ± 2 1 + m 2
Þ 6m = 2 1 + m 2 (m > 0)
Þ 9m2 = 1 + m2
9
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 20th July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
1
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5. The length of a metal wire is 1, when the tension Sol. R = 100
XL L 50 103
in it is T1 and is 2 when the tension is T2. The
1 1011
XC
natural length of the wire is : C 100
T – 2 T1 XC XL
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 2
T2 – T1 & | XC XL | R
T 2 T1 8. Which of the following graphs represent the
(3) 1 2
(4) 1 2
T2 k( 2 0 )
(1) (2)
T1
1 0
T2 2 0 T T
T1 T2 PV PV
2 1
0
T1 T2
6. In an electromagnetic wave the electric field vector (3) (4)
2
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10. An electron having de-Broglie wavelength is 13. The correct relation between the degrees of
incident on a target in a X-ray tube. Cut-off
freedom ƒ and the ratio of specific heat is :
wavelength of emitted X-ray is :
2m 2 c 2 2 2 2
(1) 0 (2) (1) ƒ (2) ƒ
h2 1 1
2mc 2 hc 1 1
(3) (4) (3) ƒ (4) ƒ
h mc 2 1
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
h
Sol.
mv 2
Sol. 1
P 2
h hc 2 f
kinetic energy,
2m 2m2 c
2
f
2m c2
1
C
h
14. For a certain radioactive process the graph between
11. A body rolls down an inclined plane without
slipping. The kinetic energy of rotation is 50% of In R and t(sec) is obtained as shown in the figure.
its translational kinetic energy. The body is : Then the value of half life for the unknown
(1) Solid sphere
radioactive material is approximately :
(2) Solid cylinder
(3) Hollow cylinder
(4) Ring 8 R = decay rate
6
In R
m t 1v2 1
3
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15. Consider a binary star system of star A and star B 18. Two vectors P and Q have equal magnitudes. If
with masses mA and mB revolving in a circular
orbit of radii rA and rB, respectively. If TA and TB the magnitude of P + Q is n times the magnitude
are the time period of star A and star B,
of P – Q , then angle between P and Q is :
respectively,
then :
n –1 n –1
3 (1) sin –1 (2) cos–1
TA rA 2 n 1 n 1
(1) =
TB rB
n2 – 1 n2 – 1
(2) TA = TB (3) sin –1 2 (4) cos–1 2
n 1 n 1
(3) TA > TB (if mA > mB)
(4) TA > TB (if rA > rB) Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Sol. |P||Q| x …(i)
Sol. TA TB (since A B )
|P Q| n|P Q|
16. At an angle of 30° to the magnetic meridian, the
apparent dip is 45°. Find the true dip : P2 + Q2 + 2PQcos = n2(P2 + Q2 – 2PQcos
1 Using (i) in above equation
(1) tan –1 3 (2) tan –1
3
n2 1
cos
2 3 1 n2
(3) tan –1 (4) tan –1
3 2
n2 1
Official Ans. by NTA (4) cos1 2
n 1
Sol. A tan tan 'cos
= tan 45 cos30 19. Two small drops of mercury each of radius R
3 coalesce to form a single large drop. The ratio of
tan 1
2
total surface energy before and after the change is :
3
1
tan
2 1 1
(1) 2 3 :1 (2) 1: 2 3 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
17. A body at rest is moved along a horizontal straight
line by a machine delivering a constant power. The Official Ans. by NTA (1)
distance moved by the body in time 't' is
proportional to :
3 1 1 3
(1) t 2 (2) t 2 (3) t 4 (4) t 4 Sol. R + R = R'
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. P = constant
1 2
mv Pt
2 4 3 4 3 4
v t R R R '3
3 3 3
dx
C t C = constant 1
dt R ' 23 R ….(i)
by integration.
1
Ai 2[4R 2 ]
1
t 2
xC Af 4R'2
1
1
2 Ui Ai 2R 2
2/3 2 21/3
x t 3/2 Uf Af 2 R
4
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20. The magnetic susceptibility of a material of a rod 1
–7
Sol. ta td
is 499. Permeability in vacuum is 4 × 10 H/m. 2
Absolute permeability of the material of the rod is :
2s 1 2s
–4 ….(i)
(1) 4 × 10 H/m aa 2 ad
(2) 2 × 10–4 H/m aa gsin gcos
–4
(3) 3 × 10 H/m
g 3
(4) × 10–4 H/m g
2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (2) a d gsin gcos
Sol. µ = µ0 (1 + xm)
= 4 ×10–7×500 g 3
g
= 2 ×10–4 H/m 2 2
a S1 S2 b
6 4 12
– +
20 V Official Ans. by NTA (10)
Official Ans. by NTA (192 ) Sol. when switch S1 and S2 are closed
Sol. P = Vi 4
12 6
0.5 = 8i
1
i A a b
16
E = 20 = 8 + i RP
RP = 12 × 16 = 192 6 4 12
5
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4. Two bodies, a ring and a solid cylinder of same dV 1 1
Sol. Rd
material are rolling down without slipping an di di 5 1 10 3
inclined plane. The radii of the bodies are same. dv 0.75 0.65
The ratio of velocity of the centre of mass at the
100
bottom of the inclined plane of the ring to that of 25
4
x
the cylinder is . Then, the value of x is _____. 6. A series LCR circuit of R = 5, L = 20 mH and
2
C = 0.5 µF is connected across an AC supply of
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
250 V, having variable frequency. The power
Sol. I in both cases is about point of contact
dissipated at resonance condition is_____× 10 2 W.
Ring
Official Ans. by NTA (125)
1
mgh I2
2 Sol. XL = XC (due to resonance)
1 v2 V V
mgh (2mR 2 ) R2 Z = R so i rms
2 R Z R
v R gh V 2 250 250
= 125 ×102 W
Solid cylinder R 5
vR 3
200 A(P1V1)
vC 2
P(N/m2)
2 4
V(m3)
8
7 Official Ans. by NTA (17258)
6
5 Sol. Process of isothermal
4
V
3 W nRT n 2
2 V1
1
= 1 × 8.3 × 300 × ln2
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9
VD(V)
= 17258 ×10–1 J
Official Ans. by NTA (25)
6
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8. A certain metallic surface is illuminated by 9. A body rotating with an angular speed of 600 rpm
monochromatic radiation of wavelength . The is uniformly accelerated to 1800 rpm in 10 sec.
stopping potential for photoelectric current for this The number of rotations made in the process is___.
radiation is 3V0. If the same surface is illuminated Official Ans. by NTA (200)
with a radiation of wavelength 2, the stopping Sol. f = 0 + t
potential is V0. The threshold wavelength of this
= 1200 × 6
surface for photoelectric effect is_____.
1
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 0 t t 2
2
hc
Sol. KE = hc 10 1 1
= 600 1200 6
60 2 36
hc
e(3V0 ) …(i) = 200
0
th
1
hc 10. A radioactive substance decays to of its
eV0 …(ii) 16
20
initial activity in 80 days. The half life of the
Using (i) & (ii) radioactive substance expressed in days is____.
hc hc Official Ans. by NTA (20)
4 0 t t1
N 0 t 12 N 0 t 12 N 0 t 12 N 0
Sol. N 0
2
t = 40 2 4 8 16
4 t1/2 80
t1/2 = 20 days
7
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 20th July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
(4)
O O Br Br (B)
and 3. The major product (P) in the following reaction is :
Official Ans. by NTA (4) O
CHO
O (i) KOH (alc.)
Sol.
(ii) H+,
P
(major product)
O
O
O
are metamers. OHC O
O (1) (2)
NH2 O
2. KOBr
A
(major product) O
Br CHO
O (3) (4)
NH2 LiAlH4
O O
H O+
B
3
(major product) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Br H3C
CH=O C=O
Sol. CH2–CH2 (i) KOH (alc.) O
NH2 O (ii)H .
+
O
(1) NH2 Intramolecular Aldol condenstion (P)
, (Major Product)
Br
4. The single largest industrial application of
NH2
(2) NH2 dihydrogen is :
, (1) Manufacture of metal hydrides
Br (2) Rocket fuel in space research
NH2 (3) In the synthesis of ammonia
(3) NH2
, (4) In the synthesis of nitric acid
1
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Official Ans. by NTA (3) 7. Outermost electronic configuration of a group 13
Sol. Informative, according to ncert uses of di element, E, is 4s2, 4p1. The electronic configuration
hydrogen. of an element of p-block period-five placed
In fact NH3 largest production in used to diagonally to element, E is :
manufacture nitrogenous fertilisers. (1) [Kr] 3d10 4s2 4p2 (2) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p2
5. Consider two chemical reactions (A) and (B) that (3) [Xe] 5d10 6s2 6p2 (4) [Kr] 4d10 5s2 5p2
take place during metallurgical process : Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(A) ZnCO3(s) Sol. The element E is Ga and the diagonal element of
ZnO(s) CO 2(g)
5th period is 50Sn having outer electronic
(B) 2ZnS(s) 3O2(g) 2ZnO(s) 2SO2(g) configuration will be [Kr] 5s2 4d10 5 p2.
The correct option of names given to them 8. Metallic sodium does not react normally with :
respectively is : (1) gaseous ammonia (2) But-2-yne
(1) (A) is calcination and (B) is roasting (3) Ethyne (4) tert-butyl alcohol
(2) Both (A) and (B) are producing same product Official Ans. by NTA (2)
so both are roasting Sol. Metallic sodium does not react with 2-butyne
(3) Both (A) and (B) are producing same product because 2-butyne does not have acidic hydrogen.
so both are calcination 9. Spin only magnetic moment of an octahedral
(4) (A) is roasting and (B) is calcination complex of Fe2+ in the presence of a strong field
ligand in BM is :
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(1) 4.89 (2) 2.82 (3) 0 (4) 3.46
Sol. (A) ZnCO3 (S) ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Heating in absence of oxygen in calcination.
Sol. In presence of SFL 0 > P means pairing occurs
(B) 2Zns(s) + 3O2(g) 2ZnO(g) + 2SO2(g)
therefore
heating in presence of oxygen in roasting
For Fe+2 3d6
Hence (A) is calcination while (B) in roasting.
6. A solution is 0.1 M in Cl– and 0.001 M in CrO24 .
Solid AgNO3 is gradually added to it Splitting will be
2
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(1)O2+ 1s2 1s*2 22s *2
2s 2pz 2px 2py 2px 2py
2 2 2 *1 *
(3) both H2SO4 and HNO3 act as an acids
unpaired e– = 1 = 1.73 BM (4) HNO3 acts as a base and H2SO4 acts as an acid
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(1) Cu+I– Cu+ [Ar]3d10 unpaired e– = 0
Sol. Reagent for nitration of Benzene
I– [Xe] unpaired e– = 0
therefore µ = 0 H 2SO 4 HNO3 HSO 4 H 2 N O3
(Acid) (Base)
3. [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2
Cu [A] 3d3 unpaired = 1 µ = 1.73 BM H 2 N O3 H 2O N O2
4. O2– d NO2
1s2 1s
*2
22s *2
2s 2px 2px 2py 2px 2py
2 2 2 *1 *
+ NO2
(11e–)
unpaired µ = 1.73 BM Nitrobenzene
11. Which one of the following statements is not true
about enzymes ? CH3
NH2 N
(1) Enzymes are non-specific for a reaction and CH3
NaNO2,HCl
substrate. 15. A B
273 - 278 K 273 K
(2) Almost all enzymes are proteins. (major (major
(3) Enzymes work as catalysts by lowering the SO3H product) product)
activation energy of a biochemical reaction. Consider the above reaction, compound B is :
(4) The action of enzymes is temperature and pH CH3
specific N
CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (1) HO3S N=N
Sol. Fact
12. The hybridisations of the atomic orbitals of CH3
(2) N=N N
nitrogen in NO2 , NO2 and NH 4 respectively are. CH3
(1) sp3, sp2 and sp (2) sp, sp2 and sp3 CH3
(3) sp3, sp and sp2 (4) sp2, sp and sp3 (3) HO3S N=N N
Official Ans. by NTA (4) CH3
Sol. 2 + 1 lp CH3
N
O O –
sp2 (4) HO3S N
CH3
2 + 0 lp
O=N=O Official Ans. by NTA (3)
sp
H +
NH2 N2
N+ 4 + 0
H sp3 NaNO2 + HCl
H A(major product)
H
Sol. 0–5°C
13. Bakelite is a cross-linked polymer of formaldehyde SO3H SO3H
and :
+
(1) PHBV (2) Buna-S (3) Novolac (4) Dacron N2 NMe2 NMe2
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. Novolac (phenol formaldehyde Resin) Bakelite +
3
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16. (i) (C6H5CO)2O2,HBr
Sol. According to NCERT only NO2 from the given
P options can retard the photosynthesis process in
(ii) CoF2 (major product)
Br plants.
Major product P of above reaction, is : O O O
F 20. (A) (B)
R Cl R O R
F
(1) (2) O
Br F
O H
(C) R (D) R N
F R O H
(3) F
(4)
Br Br The correct order of their reactivity towards
Official Ans. by NTA (4) hydrolysis at room temperature is :
(C6H5CO)2 O2, HBr (1) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)
Sol.
Br AMKR (2) (D) > (A) > (B) > (C)
Product
(3) (D) > (B) > (A) > (C)
4
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2. The wavelength of electrons accelerated from rest PB X B PBo
i.e. YB = 0.1 1 10 1
through a potential difference of 40 kV is PT 60
x × 10–12 m. The value of x is _______. (Nearest
therefore: x = 1
integer)
4. 4g equimolar mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3
Given : Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg
contains x g of NaOH and y g of Na2CO3. The
Charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C value of x is _______ g. (Nearest integer)
Planck's constant = 6.63 × 10–34 Js Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (6) Sol. Total mass = 4g
Sol. De-broglie-wave length of electron: Now
h
e is accelerated NaOH : a mol WNaOH + WNa2CO3 = 4
e = from rest
2m(KE) KE q V Na2CO3 : 'a' mol 40a + 106 a = 4
h 4
= a= mol
146
2mqv
4
6.63 10 34 therefore mass of NaOH is : 40g
= 146
2 1.6 10 19 9.1 10 31 40 103
= 1.095 1
= 0.614 × 10–11 m
5. When 0.15 g of an organic compound was
= 6.14 × 10–12 m analyzed using Carius method for estimation of
Nearest integer = 6 bromine, 0.2397 g of AgBr was obtained. The
OR percentage of bromine in the organic compound is
_______. (Nearest integer)
12.3
Å
V [Atomic mass : Silver = 108, Bromine = 80]
Official Ans. by NTA (68)
12.3
= 6.15 10 12 m Sol. Moles of Br = Moles of AgBr obtained
200
Ans. is 6 0.2397
Mass of Br = 80g
188
3. The vapour pressures of A and B at 25°C are
90 mm Hg and 15 mm Hg respectively. If A and B therefore % Br in the organic compound
are mixed such that the mole fraction of A in the WBr
= 100
mixture is 0.6, then the mole fraction of B in the WT
vapour phase is x × 10–1. The value of x is ______.
0.2397 80
(Nearest integer) = 100 0.85 80
188 0.15
Official Ans. by NTA (1) = 68
Sol. Given PA° = 90 mm Hg, at 25°C
Nearest integer is '68'
PB° = 15 mm Hg
6. 100 ml of 0.0018% (w/v) solution of Cl– ion was
and
X A 0.6
P X A PAo X B PBo
X B 0.4 T
the minimum concentration of Cl– required to
precipitate a negative sol in one h. The coagulating
= (0.6 × 90) + (0.4 × 15) value of Cl– ion is _______ (Nearest integer)
= 54 + 6 = 60 mm Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Now mol fraction of B in the vapour phase ALLEN Ans. (Bonus)
Sol.
5
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7. PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) Pairing will be there zero unpaired electron
6
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 20th July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
1
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Sol. Truth Table 7. If the real part of the complex number
P q Pq
1
T T T (1– cosisin)–1 is for (0,), then the
T F F 5
F T T
F F T value of the integral 0
sin x dx is equal to :
5. The lines x = ay – 1 = z – 2 and
x = 3y – 2 = bz – 2, (ab 0) are coplanar, if : (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) –1 (4) 0
(1) b = 1, a R 0 (2) a = 1, b R 0 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(3) a = 2, b = 2 (4) a = 2, b = 3
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 1
Sol. z
x 1 z 1 1 cos 2isin
Sol. y
a a
x2 z 2sin 2 2isin
y 2
3 3/b 1 cos 2 4sin 2
sin 2i cos
(–2, 0, 01 = 2 2
2
4sin sin 4 cos2
(–1, 0,1) 2 2 2
1 1
lines are Co-planar Re(z) =
5
2 sin 2 4 cos2
a a 1 2 2
3 3 2 5
3 1 0 a 1(a 3) 0 sin 4cos2
b b 2 2 2
1 0 1 5
1 cos2 4cos
3 2 2 2
a a3 0
b 3
b 1,a R 0 3cos2
2 2
6. If [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal
1
to x, then the value of the integral cos2
/ 2 2 2
/ 2
[[x] sin x]dx is equal to :
(1) – (2) (3) 0 (4) 1 n
2 4
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2 2n
2
Sol. I [x] [ sin x] dx
.....(i)
2 2n
2
2
(0, )
I [x] [sin x] dx …..(2)
2
(King property) 2
2 2
2I [x] [ x] [sin x] [ sin x] dx
1 1 sin d [ cos ]0 2
0
2
= – (0 – 1)
2
=1
2I (2)dx 2()
2
I = –
2
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8. Let f : R
6
R be defined by f (x)
5x 3
6x
.
10. Let A, B and C be three events such that the
probability that exactly one of A and B occurs is
Then the value of for which (fof)(x) = x, for all (1 – k), the probability that exactly one of B and C
(1) No such exists (2) 5 all A, B and C occur simultaneously is k2, where
0 < k < 1. Then the probability that at least one of
(3) 8 (4) 6
A, B and C occur is :
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
1 1
5x 3 (1) greater than but less than
Sol. f(x) = y ......(i) 8 4
6x
1
5x + 3 = 6xy – y (2) greater than
2
x (6y – 5) = y + 3
1 1
y 3 (3) greater than but less than
x 4 2
6y 5
1
x 3 (4) exactly equal to
f –1 (x) .....(ii) 2
6x 5 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
fo f(x) = x
Sol. P(A B) P(A B) 1 k
f(x) = f–1(x)
From eqn (i) & (ii) P(A C) P(A C) 1 2k
Clearly ( = 5) P(B C) P(B C) 1 k
P(A B C) k 2
9. If ƒ : R R is given by ƒ(x) = x + 1, then the value of P(A) + P(B) – 2 P(A B) 1 k .....(i)
P(B) P(C) 2P(B C) 1 k .....(ii)
1 5 10 5 n 1
lim ƒ 0 ƒ ƒ ..... ƒ , P(C) P(A) 2P(A C) 1 2k .....(iii)
n n n n n
(1) + (2) + (3)
is :
P(A) + P(B) + P(C) – P(A B) P(B C)
3 5 1 7
(1) (2) (3) (4) 4k 3
2 2 2 2 –P(C A)
2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) So
n 1
5r 1 4k 3
Sol. I f P(A B C) k2
r 0 n n
2
1 2k 2 4k 3
I f(5x)dx P(A B C)
2
0
2(k 1) 2 1
1
I (5x 1)dx 2
0
1
1 P(A B C)
5x 2 2
I x
2 0
5 7
I 1
2 2
3
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11. The sum of all the local minimum values of the 12. Let in a right angled triangle, the smallest angle be
twice differentiable function ƒ : R R defined by
. If a triangle formed by taking the reciprocal of
3ƒ 2
ƒ x x 3 3x 2 x ƒ 1 is : its sides is also a right angled triangle, then sin is
2
(1) –22 (2) 5 (3) –27 (4) 0 equal to :
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
5 1 5 1 2 1 5 1
3 (1) (2) (3) (4)
Sol. f(x) = x3 – 3x2 – f"(2) x + f"(1) .....(i) 4 2 2 4
2
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
2 3
f'(x) = 3x – 6x – f "(2) .....(ii) A
2 Sol.
f"(x) = 6x – 6 .....(iii)
C
rd
b
Now is 3 equation
90 –
f" (2) = 12 – 6 = 6 C B
a
f " (11 = 0)
Use (ii) <A =
3
f'(x) = 3x2 – 6x – f"(2) <B = 90 –
2
3 a = smallest side
f'(x) = 3x2 – 6x – 6
2
c 2 = a2 + b 2
2
f'(x) = 3x – 6x – 9
1 1 1
f'(x) = 0 2
2 2
a b c
3x2 – 6x – 9 = 0
b2 c2
2
b2 c2
x=–1&3 a
3
f(x) = x3 – 3x2 – ×6×x+0 3 5
2 sin2
2
f(x) = x3 – 3x2 – 9x
5 1
sin =
f(3) = 27 – 27 – 9 × 3 = – 27 2
4
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dy Sol. Plane p is r to line
13. Let y=y(x) satisfies the equation A 0 ,
dx x 3 y 1 z 2
y sin x 1 2 1 1
for all x > 0 , where A = 0 1 1 . If & passes through pt. (2, 3) equation of plane p
1 2(x – 2) + 1 (y – 3) + 1 (z + 1) = 0
2 0
x 2x + y + z – 6 = 0
pt (1,2,2) satisfies above equation
y() = +2, then the value of y is :
2
4 1 3 1 4 15. If the mean and variance of six observations
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2 20
7, 10, 11, 15, a, b are 10 and , respectively,
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 3
y then the value of a b is equal to :
Sol. | A | 2sin x 2
x
(1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 7 (4) 1
dy
| A | Official Ans. by NTA (4)
dx
dy y 7 10 11 15 a b
2sin x 2
Sol. 10
dx x 6
dy y a + b = 17 .....(i)
2sin x 2
dx x 20 7 10 11 15 a 2 b 2
2 2 2 2
1 10 2
dx
3 6
I.F. e x
x
5
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17. Let P be a variable point on the parabola 19. If sum of the first 21 terms of the series
y = 4x2 +1. Then, the locus of the mid-point of the
point P and the foot of the perpendicular drawn log91/2 x log91/3 x log91/4 x ..... , where x > 0 is
from the point P to the line y = x is :
(1) (3x – y)2 + (x – 3y) + 2 = 0
504, then x is equal to
(2) 2(3x – y)2 + (x – 3y) + 2 = 0
(3) (3x – y)2 + 2(x – 3y) + 2 = 0
(1) 243 (2) 9 (3) 7 (4) 81
(4) 2(x – 3y)2 + (3x – y) + 2 = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
P
Sol. R(h,k) Sol. s = 2log9 x + 3 log9 x+ ...... + 22 log9 x
Q(c,c)
s = log9 x (2 + 3 + ..... + 22)
P=(x,y) 21
s = log9x (2 22)
KC 2
1
h C
Given 252 log9 x 504
hK
C P(x,y)
2
log9x = 2 x = 81
xC yC
R ,
2 2
x h K y h k
R ,
2 4 4 2 4 4 20. In a triangle ABC, if BC 3 , CA 5 and
x h K
h=
2 4 4 BA 7 , then the projection of the vector BA on
y h K
K
2 4 4 BC is equal to
3h K 3K h
x ,y
2 2 2 2 19 13 11 15
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Y = 4x2 + 1 2 2 2 2
2
3k h 3h k
4 1 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
2 2
Sol. A
18. The value of k R, for which the following system
7 5
of linear equations
3x – y + 4z = 3,
B D3 C
x + 2y – 3z = – 2,
6x + 5y + kz = – 3,
Projection of BA
has infinitely many solutions, is :
(1) 3 (2) – 5 (3) 5 (4) –3
on BC is equal to
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
3 1 4 = | BA | cos ABC
Sol. 1 2 3 0
6 5 K 72 32 52 11
= 7
273 2
3(2K + 15) + K + 18 – 28 = 0
7K + 35 = 0 K = –5
6
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SECTION-B 3. Let a curve y = y(x) be given by the solution of the
differential equation
1. Let A {a ij} be a 3 × 3 matrix, where 1
cos cos 1 (e x ) dx e 2x 1 dy
2
If it intersects y-axis at y = –1, and the intersection
(1) ji if i j , point of the curve with x-axis is (, 0), then e is
equal to ________.
a ij 2 if i j ,
Official Ans. by NTA (2
(1) if i j ,
i j
1
Sol. cos cos 1 (e x ) dx e 2x 1 dy
–1
then det (3Adj(2A )) is equal to ______. 2
Put cos–1(e–x) ,
Official Ans. by NTA (108)
cos = e–x 2 cos2 1 = e–x
2
2 1 1 ex 1 ex 1
cos
Sol. A 1 2 1 2 2 2c x
1 1 2
ex 1
dx e 2x 1 dy
2c x
|A| = 4
1 dx
2
x
ex 1
dy
3adj 2A 3.2 adj A
1 2 1 e
dt
Put ex = t, ex
dx
123 123
123 adj A 1 123 A 1
2
108 1 dt
dy
2
A 16
2 ex e x
ex 1
2. The number of solutions of the equation dt
t t2 t
2y
log(x1) (2x2 7x 5) log(2x5) (x 1)2 4 0 ,
1 dt 1
Put t , 2
x > 0, is z dz z
dz
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 2
1 1z 1 2y
Sol. log(x1) (2x2 7x 5) log(2x5) (x 1)2 4 0
z z2 z
log(x 1) (2x 5) x 1 2 log(2x 5) (x 1) 4 dz
2y
1 z
log(x 1) (2x 5) 1 2 log(2x 5) (x 1) 4
2 1 z
1/2
2y c
Put log(x + 1)(2x + 5) = t 1
1/2
1
2 2 1 2y c
t 3 t2 – 3t + 2 = 0 t
t
2 1 e x
1/2 0,1
2y c c 2
t = 1, 2
2(1-e–x)1/2 = 2 y 1 , passes through (, 0)
log(x + 1)(2x + 5) = 1 & log(x + 1)(2x + 5) = 2
2
2(1-e–)1/2 = 2
x + 1 = 2x + 3 & 2x + 5 = (x + 1)
1 1
1 e 1 e
x = – 4 (rejected) x2 = 4 x = 2, –2 (rejected) 2 2
So, x = 2 e e 2
No. of solution = 1
7
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4. For p > 0, a vector v2 2iˆ (p 1)ˆj is obtained by A(–2, 3)
_________.
B = 90°
Official Ans. by NTA (6)
1 11
Circum-center = ,
2 2
Sol. 17
Mid point of BC = 2,
2
11 1 9
Line : y 2 x y = 2x +
2 2 2
V1 V2 Passing though 0,
2
3P2 + 1 = 4 + (P + 1)2 9
9
2 2
2P2 – 2P – 4 = 0 P2 – P – 2 = 0
6. If the point on the curve y2 = 6x, nearest to the
P = 2, –1 (rejected)
3
point 3, is (), then 2() is equal to
V1 V2 2 3P P 1 2
cos _______.
V1 V2 P 12 4 3P2 1
Official Ans. by NTA (9)
4 3 3 4 3 3
cos
13 13 13 Sol.
P
112 24 3 6 3 2 3 2
tan = Q
4 3 3 4 3 3 4 3 3
=6 3
P t 2 ,3t
2
Normal at point P
5. Consider a triangle having vertices A(–2, 3), B(1, 9) 3
tx + y = 3t + t3
and C(3, 8). If a line L passing through the 2
circum-centre of triangle ABC, bisects line BC, 3
Passes through 3,
2
and intersects y-axis at point 0, , then the 3 3
2 3t 3t t 3
2 2
value of real number is ________.
3
P ,3 ,
Official Ans. by NTA (9) 2
t3 1 t 1
3
2 2 3 9
2
8
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7. Let a function g : [0, 4] R be defined as 1 20
A
Sol. k
3
6t 2 9t 3} , 0 x 3
1 ..... 20 k 0 k
0max{t
g(x) t x ,
, 3x4 1 1
4 x A14
14 13 ..... 11 ..... 6 14! !
then the number of points in the interval (0, 4)
1 1
A15
where g(x) is NOT differentiable, is _______. 15 14 ..... 11 ..... 5 15! 5!
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 1 1
A13
13 ..... 11 ..... 7 13! 7!
Sol. f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + 9x – 3
A14 1 7 1
f(x) = 3x2 – 12x + 9 = 3(x – 1) (x – 3) 13! 7!
A13 14! 14 2
f(1) = 1 f(3) = –3
A15 1 42 1
13! 7!
A13 15! 5! 15 14 5
+ – +
2 2
3 A A 1 1
100 14 15 100 9
A13 A13 2 5
3
O
9. Let {a n }n 1 be a sequence such that a1 = 1, a2 = 1
1
and an + 2 = 2an + 1 + an for all n 1. Then the value
an
of 47 3n
is equal to ________.
f x 0 x 1 n 1 2
gx 0 1 x 3 Official Ans. by NTA (7)
1 3 x 4
an
g(x) is continuous Sol. a n 2 2a n 1 a n , let n
P
n 1 8
3 x 1 x 3 0 x 1 Divide by 8n we get
g x 0 1 x 3 a n 2 2a n 1 a n
1 3x 4 n n
8n 8 8
g(x) is non-differentiable at x = 3 a n 2 16a n 1 a n
64 n 1 n
8n 2 8 8
a n 2 a n 1 a n
8. For k N, let 64 n 2
16 n 1
n
n 1 8 n 1 8 n 1 8
20
1 A
k , a a a
( 1)( 2).......( 20) K 0 k 64 P 1 22 16 P 1 P
8 8 8
A A15
2 1 1 1
where > 0. Then the value of 100 14 64 P 16 P P
is 8 64 8
A13
64P – 8 – 1 = 16 P – 2 + P
equal to ________. 47P = 7
9
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xe x loge (1 x) x 2e x
10. If lim 10 , R,
x 0 xsin2 x
then the value of is ________.
x2 x 2 x3
x 1 x x x 2 1 x
Sol. lim 2 2 3
x 0 x3
x x 2 x3
lim 2 2 3 10
x 0 x3
10
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Thursday 22nd July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
Eg ~ IC C VC Cu
A B
Al
2
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9. Choose the correct option :
Sol.
(1) True dip is not mathematically related to
apparent dip.
(2) True dip is less than apparent dip. Iring > Isolid cylinder > Isolid sphere
(3) True dip is always greater than the apparent aring < asolid cylinder < asolid sphere
dip.
vring < vsolid cylinder < vsolid sphere
(4) True dip is always equal to apparent dip.
11. Consider a situation in which reverse biased
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
current of a particular P-N junction increases when
Sol. If apparent dip circle is at an angle with true dip
it is exposed to a light of wavelength 621 nm.
circle then
During this process, enhancement in carrier
concentration takes place due to generation of
True dip circle hole-electron pairs. The value of band gap is
BH nearly.
(1) 2 eV (2) 4 eV
tan = (3) 1 eV (4) 0.5 eV
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
3
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13. An electron of mass me and a proton of mass mP 15. What should be the height of transmitting antenna
are accelerated through the same potential and the population covered if the television telecast
difference. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength is to cover a radius of 150 km ? The average
associated with the electron to that with the proton
population density around the tower is 2000/km2
is :-
and the value of Re = 6.5 × 106 m.
(1) (2) 1 (3) (4) (1) Height = 1731 m
Population Covered = 1413 × 105
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(2) Height = 1241 m
Sol. KE = eV Population Covered = 7 × 105
(3) Height = 1600 m
Population Covered = 2 × 105
(4) Height = 1800 m
Population Covered = 1413 × 108
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. Radius covered r =
4
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Sol. B
Anet
A t
B0 = 2.77 × 10–8 T
Anet =
18. The motion of a mass on a spring, with spring
constant K is as shown in figure.
x=
x x = C cos(t – )
The equation of motion is given by x(t) = Asint +
K
Bcost with
m
x 0 , tan 1
2
(2) C 19. An electric dipole is placed on x-axis in
2v 0
2
x 0 , tan 1
2
(3) C
v 0
2 positive and negative charge of dipole is at a
distance of 10 mm and 12 mm from the origin
v 0 v 0
2
respectively. If total force of 4 N is exerted on the
x 0 , tan 1
2
(4) C
2
x 0
dipole, find out the amount of positive or negative
charge of the dipole.
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(1) 815.1 nC (2) 8.8 µC
Sol. x = A sin t + Bcos t
(3) 0.485 mC (4) 4.44 µC
v= = Acost – Bsint Official Ans. by NTA (4)
At t = 0, x (0) = B
v (0) = A
x = A sin t + B sin (t + 90°)
5
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Sol.
+
+ F+q F– q
+ 2
Sol. + q -q
r
+
+ r x
+ 1
+
r = 10 mm, x = 2,,
Applying energy conservation from (1) to (2)
=
.
q = 4.44 C
Re h
3/2
1. In a given circuit diagram, a 5 V zener diode along
(1) 1 1 with a series resistance is connected across a 50 V
2g R e
power supply. The minimum value of the
resistance required, if the maximum zener current
2 Re h
3/2
1 is 90 mA will be _____ .
(2) 1
g R e I I2
R
I1
1 R e
3/2
h
(3) 1 1 RL Vz
3 2g R e Vi=50V
z
1 2 Re h
3/2
(4) 1 1
3 g R e
Official Ans. by NTA (500)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Sol.
6
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resistance of 5 . However, it provides a potential
I I2
difference of 1 V across a load resistance of 2.
R
I1
x
RL Vz The emf of the cell is given by V. Then the
Vi=50V 10
z
value of x is ________.
v
So
1st 1.25 =
..(i)
2. The position of the centre of mass of a uniform
3. In an electric circuit, a call of certain emf provides Sol. Electric flux density
7
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6. The centre of a wheel rolling on a plane surface
moves with a speed v0. A particle on the rim of the
wheel at the same level as the centre will be
moving at a speed x v0. Then the value of x is
Also by Gauss’s law _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
=
Sol.
R
v0
v0
C
At origin
R
Now
Direction of Q
Angle between
x=3
A = 60°
8
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8. The area of cross-section of a railway track is 10. In 5 minutes, a body cools from 75°C to 65°C at
0.01 m2. The temperature variation is 10°C. room temperature of 25°C. The temperature of
Coefficient of linear expansion of material of track body at the end of next 5 minutes is _______°C.
is 10–5/°C. The energy stored per meter in the track Official Ans. by NTA (57)
is _______ J/m.
Sol. By newton’s law of cooling (with approximation)
(Young's modulus of material of track is 1011 Nm–2)
Official Ans. by NTA (5)
Sol. Elastic energy =
1st
Elastic energy per unit length =
2nd =
9 (T – 65) = – (T + 15)
9. Three students S1, S2 and S3 perform an experiment 10T = 570
for determining the acceleration due to gravity (g)
T = 57°C
using a simple pendulum. They use different
lengths of pendulum and record time for different Alternate Solution :
number of oscillations. The observations are as Newton’s law of cooling (without approximation)
shown in the table.
9
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Thursday 22nd July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
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O OH N2+Cl–
CH3MgBr CH3 B, Anhyd. CH2CH3
CH3 (excess)
CH3 7. + A + H2O
AlCl3
H3O+
Major product
OH
Phenolic –OH group and tertiary
alcohol is present thus two In the chemical reactions given above A and B
functional groups are present in respectively are :
the product
(1) H3PO2 and CH3CH2Cl
O OH HO CH3 (2) CH3CH2OH and H3PO2
CH3MgBr
(excess) (3) H3PO2 and CH3CH2OH
H3O+
+
(4) CH3CH2Cl and H3PO2
O OH HO CH3 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Two 3° alcohol Sol.
Since the given question is single correct choice H
the best appropriate option is (A) [A] [B]
H3PO2 Et-Cl
5. Which of the following compounds does not Reduction AlCl3
exhibit resonance? –N2
(1) CH3CH2OCH=CH2 8. Isotope(s) of hydrogen which emits low energy –
CH2OH particles with t½ value > 12 years is/are
(2)
(1) Protium
(2) Tritium
(3) CH3CH2CH2CONH2
(3) Deuterium
(4) CH3CH2CH=CHCH2NH2
(4) Deuterium and Tritium
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol.
Sol.
CH3–CH2–CH = CH–CH2–NH2 1
H and 12 H are stable while 13 H is radioactive.
No conjugation thus resonance is not possible. 1
2
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10. When silver nitrate solution is added to potassium 14. Match List-I with List-II :
iodide solution then the sol produced is :
List-I List-II
(1) AgI / I– (2) AgI / Ag+
(3) KI / NO3 (4) AgNO3 / NO3 (a) Chloroprene (i)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. Cl
AgNO3 (aq.) KI(aq.)
AgI / I –
(b) Neoprene (ii)
(drop by drop) excess Sol
3
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16. Thiamine and pyridoxine are also known Official Ans. by NTA (1)
respectively as : Sol.
(1) Vitamin B2 and Vitamin E OH
(2) Vitamin E and Vitamin B2
FeCl3
(3) Vitamin B6 and Vitamin B2 C6H6O = Dark
(4) Vitamin B1 and Vitamin B6 [A] green
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Reimer–tiemann reaction CHCl3 + KOH
Sol.
O
Vitamine-B1 is also known as Thiamine while OH OH
PCC
vitamin B-6 is known as Pyridoxine CH2–OH C–H
Oxidation
17. Sulphide ion is soft base and its ores are common
for metals. [C] [B]
(a) Pb (b) Al
(c) Ag (d) Mg
Choose the correct answer from the options given 19. Which one of the following reactions does not
below : occur ?
(1) (a) and (c) only NH2 NHCOCH3
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (1) + (CH3CO)2O/Pyridine
(4) (c) and (d) only
Official Ans. by NTA (1) NH2 NH2
Sol.
Pb and Ag commonly exist in the form of sulphide (2) + H2SO4
ore like PbS (galena) and Ag2S (Argentite)
SO3H
'Al' is mainly found in the form of oxide ore
whereas 'Mg' is found in the form of halide ore.
NH2 NH2
18. An organic compound A (C6H6O) gives dark green (3) + AlCl3 + CH3Cl
colouration with ferric chloride. On treatment with
CHCl3 and KOH, followed by acidification gives CH3
compound B. Compound B can also be obtained
from compound C on reaction with pyridinium NH2 NH2
chlorochromate (PCC). Identify A, B and C .
(4) + HNO3/H2SO4
OH OH
OH CHO CH2OH
B= C= NO2
(1) A =
AC ACl A
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
+ –
OH CH2OH OH NH2 NH2–AlCl3
OH CHO
(2) A= B= C= Sol. + AlCl3
A A A Lewis Lewis Deactivated
base base Ring
CH2OH OH OH
OH CHO Me–Cl
Friedel craft
(3) A= B= C=
Alkylation AlCl3
A A A not occurs
HO CH2OH OH (1) Aniline is lewis base give acid base reaction
CHO OH with AlCl3 and form Anilinium ion
(4) A= B= C=
A (2) Anilinium ion has strongest deactivated ring so
A A
further Friedel craft Alkylation not occurs.
4
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20. Which one of the following 0.06 M aqueous 3. The number of acyclic structural isomers
solutions has lowest freezing point ? (including geometrical isomers) for pentene are ____
(1) Al2(SO4)3 (2) C6H12O6 Official Ans. by NTA (6)
(3) KI (4) K2SO4
Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol.
Tf – Tf' = i Kf.m (trans)
5
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7. A copper complex crystallising in a CCP lattice 1
9. N 2 O5(g) 2NO 2(g) O 2(g)
with a cell edge of 0.4518 nm has been revealed by 2
employing X-ray diffraction studies. The density In the above first order reaction the initial
–3
of a copper complex is found to be 7.62 g cm . concentration of N2O5 is 2.40 × 10–2 mol L–1 at 318
The molar mass of copper complex is ______ g mol–1. K. The concentration of N2O5 after 1 hour was 1.60
(Nearest integer) × 10–2 mol L–1. The rate constant of the reaction at
[Given : NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1] 318 K is _______ × 10–3 min–1. (Nearest integer)
M Sol.
4
gm NA
d 2.303 [N O ]
cc (a cm)
3 K log 2 5 0
t [N 2 O5 ]t
4 M / 6.022 10 23
7.62 M 105.8 g / mol 2.303 2.4
(0.4518 10 7 cm)3 log 6.76 10 3 min 1 7 10 3 min 1
60 1.6
8. Number of electrons that Vanadium (Z = 23) has in 10. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood
p-orbitals is equal to ______ is 0.72 g L–1, the molarity of glucose in blood is
Official Ans. by NTA (12) ______ × 10–3M. (Nearest integer)
Sol. [Given : Atomic mass of C = 12, H = 1, O = 16 u]
23V : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Number of electrons in p-orbitals is equal to 12.00 C(gm / ) 0.72
Sol. [Glu cose] 4 10 3 M
M(gm / mol) 180
6
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Thursday 22nd July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
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3. Let f : R R be defined as
y 0
4 3 4
x 2x 3x , x 0
2
f x 3 . Then f is 1 1
0 e 2
c c e 2
3xe x
, x 0
increasing function in the interval y e
sin 2x
2 e
sin 2x
2
e
1
2
1 at x = 0
(1) ,2 (2) (0,2)
2 1
y = 1 e 2
3 1
(3) 1, (4) (–3, –1) y(0) = 1 e 2
(y(0) + 1)2 = e–1
2
5. Four dice are thrown simultaneously and the
Official Ans. by NTA (3) numbers shown on these dice are recorded in
4x 2 4x 3 x 0 2 × 2 matrices. The probability that such formed
Sol. f x matrices have all different entries and are
3e 1 x x 0
x
non-singular, is :
45 23 22 43
(1) (2) (3) (4)
162 81 81 162
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
a b
Sol. A |A| = ad – bc
For x > 0, f(x) = –4x2 + 4x + 3 c d
1 3 Total case = 64
f(x) is increasing in ,
2 2 For non-singular matrix |A| 0 ad – bc 0
x
For x 0, f(x) = 3e (1 + x)
ad bc
f(x) > 0 x (–1, 0)
f(x) is increasing in (–1, 0) And a, b, c, d are all different numbers in the set
So, in complete domain, f(x) is increasing in {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
3 Now for ad = bc
1,
2 (i) 6 × 1 = 2 × 3
4. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation
a 6, b 2, c 3, d 1
cosec2xdy + 2dx = (1 + y cos2x) cosec2xdx, with or a 1, b 2, c 3, d 6 8 such cases
y 0 . Then, the value of (y(0) + 1)2 is equal
4
to : (ii) 6 × 2 = 3 × 4
1/2 –1/2 –1
(1) e (2) e (3) e (4) e a 6, b 3, c 4, d 2
Official Ans. by NTA (3) or a 2, b 3, c 4, d 6 8 such cases
dy
Sol. 2sin 2 x 1 y cos2x
dx
dy
cos2x y cos2x favourable cases
dx
= 6C4 4 – 16
sin 2x
I.F. e
cos2x dx
e 2 required probability
Solution of D.E. 6
C4 4 16 43
y e
sin 2x
2 cos2x e
sin 2x
2 dx c 6 4
162
y e
sin 2x
2 e
sin 2x
2
c
Given
2
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cos2x 0 e
x x
e 2sin 2x dx
6. Let a vector a be coplanar with vectors
b 2iˆ ˆj kˆ and c ˆi ˆj kˆ . If a is perpendicular 1 e 1 2 e sin 2x dx
x
1 e 1 2 e sin 2x 0 e 2 cos2xdx
x x
value of a b c a b d a c d is
0
equal to :
1 e 1 42 I 2
(1) – 42 (2) – 40 (3) – 29 (4) – 38
1 e 1
Official Ans. by NTA (1) I2
1 4 2
1 e 1
Sol. a b c ˆi 2 ˆj kˆ I 50 1 e 1
1 4 2
a d 0 3 2 2 6 200 1 e 1 3
14+ 7 = 0 = –2 1 4 2
a 0 ˆi 3ˆj kˆ 8. Let three vectors a, b and c be such that
a b c, b c a and a 2 . Then which one of
a 10 10 || = 1
the following is not true ?
= 1 or –1
(1) a b c b c 0
a bc 0
(2) Projection of a on b c is 2
a bc a bd acd a b c d (3) a b c c a b 8
0 3 (4) 3a b 2c 51
2
3
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9. The values of and such that the system r1 r2 38
of equations x + y + z = 6, 3x + 5y + 5z = 26,
1 14 5
x + 2y + z = has no solution, are :
38 38
(1) = 3, = 5 (2) = 3, 10
|14 – 5| = 1
(3) 2, 10 (4) = 2, 10
14 – 5 = 1 or 14 – 5 = –1
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
13
Sol. x + y + z = 6 …(i) = or 3
5
3x + 5y + 5z = 26 …(ii)
Integral value of = 3.
x + 2y + z = …(iii)
11. Which of the following Boolean expressions is not
5 × (i) – (ii) 2x = 4 x = 2
a tautology ?
from (i) and (iii)
(1) p q ~ q p
y+z=4 …(iv)
2y + z = – 2 …(v) (2) q p ~ q p
(v) – 2 × (iv) (3) p ~ q ~ q p
(– 2)z = – 10 (4) ~ p q ~ q p
10 10
z= &y=4– Official Ans. by NTA (4)
2 2
Sol. (1) (p q) (~q p)
For no solution = 2 and 10.
= (~p q) (q p)
10. If the shortest distance between the straight lines
=(~p p) q
3(x – 1) = 6(y – 2) = 2(z – 1) and
=t q=t
1
4(x – 2) = 2(y – ) = (z – 3), R is , then (2) (q p) (~q p)
38
= (~ q p) (q p)
the integral value of is equal to : =(~q q) p
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) –1 =t p=t
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (3) (p ~ q) (~q p)
x 1 y 2 z 1 = (~p ~q) (q p)
Sol. L1: = = r1 2iˆ ˆj 3k
2 1 3 = (~p p) (~q q)
x 2 y z3 = tt = t
L2: = = r2 ˆi 2ˆj 4kˆ
1 2 4 (4) (~ q q) (~q p)
= (p q) (q p)
(1, 2, 1) = (p p) (q p)
=p q
Which is not a tautology.
(2, , 3) 12. Let A = [aij] be a real matrix of order 3 × 3, such
that ai1 + ai2 + ai3 = 1, for i = 1, 2, 3. Then, the sum
3
Shortest distance = Projection of a on r1 r2 of all the entries of the matrix A is equal to :
a. r1 r2
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 9
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
r1 r2
a11 a12 a13
1 2 2
Sol. A a 21 a 22 a 23
a r1 r2 2 1 3 14 5 a 31 a 32 a 33
1 2 4
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1 10 C
x 2 y 2 3x y 0
Let x 1 3 36
1 3 10
Centre g, f ,
2 6
a11 a12 a13 1
AX a 21 a 22 a 23 1 radius = r
9 100 C
4 36 36
a 31 a 32 a 33 1
AX = X
Replace X by AX
A2X = AX = X
Replace X by AX r
A3X = AX = X
x1 x 2 x 3
Let A y1 y 2 y 3
3
z1 z 2 z3 Now,
1 x1 x 2 x 3 1 3
r
A 1 y1 y 2 y 3 1
3 2
9 100 C 9
1 z1 z 2 z 3 1
4 36 36 4
Sum of all the element = 3
C > 100 .....(1)
13. Let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or
Now point of intersection of x – 2y = 4 and
equal to x. Then, the values of x R satisfying the 2x – y = 5 is (2, –1), which lies inside the circle S.
equation [ex]2 + [ex + 1] – 3 = 0 lie in the interval :
S(2, –1) < 0
1 10 C
(1) 0, (2) [loge2, loge3) (2)2 + (–1)2 –3(2) + (–1) + <0
e 3 36
(3) [1, e) (4) [0, loge2) 10 C
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 4 + 1 – 6 – 0
2
3 36
Sol. e x e x 1 3 0 C 156 .....(2)
2 From (1) & (2)
e x e x 1 3 0
100 C 156 Ans.
Let e x t 15. Let n denote the number of solutions of the
t2 + t – 2 = 0 equation z2 3z 0 , where z is a complex
t = – 2, 1
1
e x 2 (Not possible)
number. Then the value of n
k 0
k
is equal to
or e x 1 1 ex 2 4 3
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4) 2
ln(1) x ln(2) 3 2
0 x ln(2) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
x [0, ln2) Sol. z2 3z 0
14. Let the circle S : 36x2 + 36y2 – 108x + 120y + C = 0
be such that it neither intersects nor touches the Put z = x + iy
co-ordinate axes. If the point of intersection of the x 2 y 2 2ixy 3(x iy) 0
lines, x – 2y = 4 and 2x – y = 5 lies inside the
circle S, then : (x 2 y 2 3x) i(2xy 3y) 0 i0
25 13 x 2 y 2 3x 0 .....(1)
(1) C (2) 100 < C < 165
9 3 2xy 3y 0 .....(2)
(3) 81 < C < 156 (4) 100 < C < 156 3
Official Ans. by NTA (4) x ,y
2
3
Put x in equation (1)
Sol. S : 36x 2 36y 2 108x 120y C 0 2
5
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9 9
y2 0 2x 1
Also, 0 sin 1
4 2 2 2
27 3 3 2x 1
y2 y 0 1
4 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 0 < 2x – 1 2
(x,y) , , , 1 < 2x 3
2 2 2 2
1 3
Put y = 0 x2 – 0 + 3x = 0 x
x= 0, –3 2 2
Taking intersection
(x, y) = (0, 0), (–3, 0)
No of solutions = n = 4 1
x ,1
2
1 1 1
n k = 4 k , 1
K 0 K 0 2
1 1 1 1 3
......
1 4 16 64 2
18. Let ƒ : R R be defined as
1 4
1 3
1 x3 1 2xe 2x
4 loge , x0
f x 1 cos2x 2
1 xe x 2 .
16. The number of solutions of sin7x + cos7x = 1,
x [0, 4] is equal to , x0
(1) 11 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 9 If ƒ is continuous at x = 0, then is equal to :
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 2
Sol. sin7x sin2x 1 …(1)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
and cos7x cos2x 1 …(2)
Sol. For continuity
also sin2x + cos2x = 1
x3
equality must hold for (1) & (2) lim
x 0 4sin 4 x
n 1 2xe 2x 2 n 1 xe x
sin7x = sin2x & cos7 = cos2x =
1
sinx = 0 & cosx = 1 lim 2xe 2x 2xe x
x 0 4x
or
1
cosx = 0 & sinx = 1 4 1
4
5 19. Let a line L : 2x + y = k, k > 0 be a tangent to the
x = 0, 2, 4, ,
2 2
hyperbola x2 – y2 = 3. If L is also a tangent to the
5 solutions
parabola y2 = x, then is equal to :
1
cos x x 1
2
17. If the domain of the function ƒ x (1) 12 (2) –12 (3) 24 (4) –24
2x 1
1
sin Official Ans. by NTA (4)
2
Sol. Tangent to hyperbola of
is the interval (, ], then + is equal to :
Slope m = –2 (given)
3 1
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4) 1
2 2 y 2x 3 3
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2
y mx a 2 m 2 b2
Sol. O x – x + 1 1
x2 – x 0 y + 2x = ± 3 2x + y = 3 (k > 0)
x [0, 1] For parabola y2 = x
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b
y = mx + c=
4m e
b a2
y = –2x +
8 e b
b2
3 e= 1 e2
8 a2
e2 + e – 1 = 0
= –24.
1 5
x2 y2 e
20. Let E1 : 2 2 1 , a > b. Let E2 be another 2
a b
ellipse such that it touches the end points of major
axis of E1 and the foci of E2 are the end points of
SECTION-B
minor axis of E1. If E1 and E2 have same
1. Let A = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}. Then the number
eccentricities, then its value is :
of bijective functions ƒ : A A such that
1 5 1 8
(1) (2) ƒ(1) + ƒ(2) = 3 – ƒ(3) is equal to
2 2
b2 Sol. 2,4,6,8
e2 1
a2
4 4 3 2 1
a2
e2 1 2 = 4 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 96
c
b2 a 2 0 1 0
a 2 c2 3. Let A 1 0 0 . Then the number of 3 × 3
a4 a2 0 0 1
c2 = c
b2 b matrices B with entries from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Also b = ce and satisfying AB = BA is _______.
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Official Ans. by NTA (3125) 243a + 111b = 3054
81a 37b 1018 (1)
a b c
a b 26
Sol. Let matrix B d e f a b
Now, Median = 12 + 2 6 14
g n i 12
AB = BA 13 a b
2
2 4
0 1 0 a b c a b c 0 1 0 ab 9
1 0 0 d e f d e f 1 0 0
4 2
0 0 1 g h i g h i 0 0 1 a b 18 (2)
From equation (1) & (2)
d e f b a c a = 8, b = 10
a b c e d f (a – b)2 = (8 – 10)2
g h i h g i 5. The sum of all the elements in the set {n {1, 2, ….., 100} |
H.C.F. of n and 2040 is 1} is equal to _______.
d = b, e = a, f = c, g=h Official Ans. by NTA (1251)
Sol. 2040 = 23 × 3 × 5 × 17
a b c n should not be multiple of 2, 3, 5 and 17.
Matrix B = b a c Sum of all n = (1 + 3 + 5 ….. + 99) – (3 + 9 + 15 +
g g i 21 + ….. + 99) – (5 + 25 + 35 + 55 + 65 + 85 + 95)
– (17)
No. of ways of selecting a, b, c, g, i 17
= 2500 3 99 365 17
=5×5×5×5×5 2
= 2500 – 867 – 365 – 17
= 55 = 3125 = 1251
No. of Matrices B = 3125 6. The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the
curves x2 + 2y – 1 = 0, y2 + 4x – 4 = 0 and y2 – 4x – 4 = 0,
4. Consider the following frequency distribution : in the upper half plane is _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Class : 0 6 6 12 12 18 18 24 24 30
Sol.
Frequency : a b 12 9 5
y
309
If mean = and median = 14, then the value (a – b)2 y2 – 4x – 4 = 0
22 (0,2)
is equal to _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (1,0)
x (–1,0) x
Sol.
12-18 12 15 180
Required Area (shaded)
18-24 9 21 189
24-30 5 27 135 2 4 y2 1
1 x2
= 2 dy 2 dx
N=(26+a+b) (504+3a+9b) 0 4 0
3x
2 4 x 2 210 R 10 CR 180 …….. (1)
3x
Sol. f x 2 2 x 0 & (10 – R) r – 2R = 0
2
0 x , 4 0,
2R
r=
10 R
3x
2 0x2
2 R 10 20
3x
f x 2 6 2 x 4 r
10 R
10 R
2
0 x ,0 4,
20
r = –2 + …… (2)
3x 10 R
2 6 4 x 2
3x 2 x 2 R = 8 or 5 reject equation (1) not satisfied
g x f x 2 f x 2 2
3x
6 2x4 At R = 8
2
0 x , 4 4,
210 R 10 CR 180 r 8
y
9. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
(–2, 3) y 1
equation x 2 e x 2 y 1 dx = (x + 2) dy,
y(1) = 1. If the domain of y = y(x) is an open
x x
interval (, ), then | + | is equal to _______.
–4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. y + 1 = Y dy = dY
x + 2 = X dx = dX
(2, –3)
y Xe
Y
X
Y dX XdY
Y
XdY YdX Xe XdX
n=0
m = 4 (n + m = 4)
9
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Y
Y dX
d e X
X X
Y
e X X c
2
(3, 2 e 3 3 c
Y 2
e X n X e 3 n3
Y
e X e 2/3 n3 n X 0
n X e /3 n3
Let e /3
n3
|x + 2| < e
–e < x + 2 < e
–e – 2 < x < e – 2
+ = –4 | + | = 4
Although x = –2 should be excluded from domain
but according to the given problem it will the most
appropriate solution.
10. The number of elements in the set {n {1, 2, 3, …., 100} |
(11)n > (10)n + (9)n} is _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (96 )
Sol. 11n > 10n + 9n
11n – 9n > 10n
(10 + 1)n – (10 – 1)n > 10n
n C1 n 1 n C3 10 n 0 n C5 10 n 5 10 n
10
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Sunday 25th July, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00
NOON
PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 3. What should be the order of arrangement of
1. For a gas CP – CV = R in a state P and de-Broglie wavelength of electron (e), an
CP – CV = 1.10 R in a state Q, TP and TQ are the -particle () and proton (p) given that all have
temperatures in two different states P and Q the same kinetic energy ?
respectively. Then (1) e = p =
(1) TP = TQ (2) e < p <
(2) TP < TQ (3) e > p >
(3) TP = 0.9 TQ
(4) e = p >
(4) TP > TQ
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
h h 1
Sol. CP – CV = R for ideal gas and gas behaves as ideal Sol.
p 2mE m
gas at high temperature
m > mp > me
so TP > TQ
2. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as so e > p >
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. 4. Identify the logic operation carried out.
Assertion A : Moment of inertia of a circular disc
of mass 'M' and radius 'R' about X, Y axes (passing
through its plane) and Z-axis which is
perpendicular to its plane were found to be Ix, Iy (1) OR (2) AND (3) NOR (4) NAND
and Iz respectively. The respective radii of gyration Official Ans. by NTA (2)
about all the three axes will be the same.
Reason R : A rigid body making rotational motion Sol. A
A
has fixed mass and shape. In the light of the above
statements, choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below :
B So AND gate
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the B
correct explanation of A.
(2) A is not correct but R is correct. 5. A particle of mass 4M at rest disintegrates into two
particles of mass M and 3M respectively having
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
non zero velocities. The ratio of de-Broglie
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
wavelength of particle of mass M to that of mass
explanation of A.
3M will be :
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Iz = Ix + Iy (using perpendicular axis theorem) (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 1
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
& I = mk2 (K : radius of gyration)
h
so mKz2 = mKx2 + mKy2 Sol.
p
Kz2 = Kx2 + Ky2 both the particles will move with momentum same
so radius of gyration about axes x, y & z won't be in magnitude & opposite in direction.
same hense asseration A is not correct reason R is So De-Broglie wavelength of both will be same i.e.
correct statement (property of a rigid body) ratio 1 : 1
1
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6. Some nuclei of a radioactive material are Sol. (a) C A B
undergoing radioactive decay. The time gap Option (iv)
between the instances when a quarter of the nuclei
(b) A B C C B
have decayed and when half of the nuclei have
Option (iii)
decayed is given as :
(where is the decay constant) (c) B A C
1 ln2 ln2 Option (i)
(1) (2)
2 (d) A B C 0
3 Option (ii)
ln
2l n 2 2 8. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area 'A' and
(3) (4)
distance of separation 'd' is filled with a dielectric.
Official Ans. by NTA (4) What is the capacity of the capacitor when
3N0 permittivity of the dielectric varies as :
Sol. N0 e – t1
4
d
N0 (x) 0 kx, for 0 x
N0 e – t 2 2
2
d
ln(3/4) = –t1 .....(i) (x) 0 k(d x), for x d
2
ln(1/2) = –t2 .....(i)
2/ kA
ln(3/4) – ln(1/2) = t2–t1) .....(i) kd kA
(1) 0 (2)
2 20 kd
ln(3 / 2) 2 ln
t
2 0
7. Match List I with List II. kA 20
(3) 0 (4) ln
List I List II 2 2 0 kd
(a) C A B 0 (i)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(c) B A C 0 (iii)
2
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9. A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1 11. Two wires of same length and radius are joined
is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless end to end and loaded. The Young's modulii of the
piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically materials of the two wires are Y1 and Y2. The
combination behaves as a single wire then its
to a temperature T2 by releasing the piston
Young's modulus is :
suddenly. If l1 and l2 are the lengths of the gas
2Y1Y2 2Y1Y2
column, before and after the expansion (1) Y (2) Y
3(Y1 Y2 ) Y1 Y2
T1
respectively, then the value of will be : Y1Y2 Y1Y2
T2 (3) Y (4) Y
2(Y1 Y2 ) Y1 Y2
2 2
l 3 l 3 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(1) 1 (2) 2
l2 l1 Sol. In series combination l = 1 + 2
l2 l1 F/A F
(3) (4) Y =
l1 l2 / AY
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
r Y
Sol. PV = const.
Equivalent length of rod after joing is = 2
TVr–1 = const.
5
1 As, lengths are same and force is also same in
T( ) 3 = const.
series
2/3
T1 = 1 + 2
2
T2 1
eq 2
10. A ray of laser of a wavelength 630 nm is incident
Yeq Y1 Y2 Y Y1 Y2
at an angle of 30° at the diamond-air interface. It is
2Y1Y2
going from diamond to air. The refractive index of Y
Y1 Y2
diamond is 2.42 and that of air is 1. Choose the
12. The half-life of 198Au is 3 days. If atomic weight of
correct option. 198
Au is 198 g/mol then the activity of 2 mg of
(1) angle of refraction is 24.41° 198
Au is [in disintegration/second] :
(2) angle of refraction is 30° (1) 2.67 × 1012 (2) 6.06 × 1018
(3) refraction is not possible (3) 32.36 × 1012 (4) 16.18 × 1012
1 1 ln 2 ln 2
Sol. sin C sin C sec 1 2.67 10 6 sec 1
22 t1/2 3 24 60 60
N = Number of atoms in 2 mg Au
sin sin C
2 10 3
6 10 23 6.06 1015
> C 198
Total internal reflection will happen A = N = 1.618 × 1013 = 16.18 × 1012 dps
3
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13. Two billiard balls of equal mass 30 g strike a rigid 15. Two different metal bodies A and B of equal mass
wall with same speed of 108 kmph (as shown) but are heated at a uniform rate under similar
at different angles. If the balls get reflected with conditions. The variation of temperature of the
the same speed then the ratio of the magnitude of bodies is graphically represented as shown in the
impulses imparted to ball 'a' and ball 'b' by the wall figure. The ratio of specific heat capacities is :
along 'X' direction is :
Y Y
150
u 45° A
Temp T(°C)
X X 120
X' X' B
90
Y' Y' 60
ball (a) ball (b)
30
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 :1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Time t(s)
8 3 3 4
Sol. Impulse = change in momentum (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 8 4 3
Ball (a) | p | = 2mu = J1
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Ball (b) | p | = 2mu cos45° = J2 Q Q
Sol.
J1 1 t A t B
2
J 2 cos45 T T
mSA mSB
14. In the Young's double slit experiment, the t A t B
distance between the slits varies in time as T
d(t) = d0 + a0 sint ; where d0, and a0 are SA t A 90 / 6 15 3
constants. The difference between the largest SB T 120 / 3 40 8
fringe width and the smallest fringe width obtained t B
4
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17. In the given figure, there is a circuit of Sol. In 4 sec. 1st drop will travel
potentiometer of length AB = 10 m. The resistance 1
(9.8) (4)2 = 78.4 m
per unit length is 0.1 per cm. Across AB, a 2
battery of emf E and internal resistance 'r' is 2nd drop would have travelled
connected. The maximum value of emf measured
78.4 – 34.3 = 44.1 m.
by this potentiometer is :
r Time for 2nd drop
E
+ – 1
(9.8)t 2 44.1
G 2
t 3sec
A B
550 cm J each drop have time gap of 1 sec
450cm
1 drop per sec
+ – 20. The minimum and maximum distances of a planet
K revolving around the Sun are x1 and x2. If the
6V 20
minimum speed of the planet on its trajectory is v0
(1) 5 V (2) 2.25 V (3) 6 V (4) 2.75 V
then its maximum speed will be :
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
v x2 v x2 v x v x
Sol. Max. voltage that can be measured by this potentiometer (1) 0 2 1 (2) 0 2 2 (3) 0 1 (4) 0 2
x2 x1 x2 x1
will be equal to potential drop across AB
RAB = 10 × 0.1 × 100 100 ohm. Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. Angular momentum conservation equation
6 100
VAB 100 6 5V v0x2 = v1x1
20 100 120
18. In amplitude modulation, the message signal vx
v1 0 2
x1
Vm(t) = 10 sin (2 × 105 t) volts and
Carrier signal SECTION-B
1. A body of mass 2 kg moving with a speed of
VC(t) = 20 sin (2 × 107 t) volts
4 m/s. makes an elastic collision with another body
The modulated signal now contains the message
at rest and continues to move in the original
signal with lower side band and upper side band
direction but with one fourth of its initial speed.
frequency, therefore the bandwidth of modulated
The speed of the two body centre of mass is
signal is kHz. The value of is : x
m / s . Then the value of x is_______.
(1) 200 kHz (2) 50 kHz 10
(3) 100 kHz (4) 0 Official Ans. by NTA (25)
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Sol. pi = pf
Sol. Bandwidth = 2 × fm 2 × 4 = 2 × 1 + m 2 × v2
= 2 × 105 HZ = 200 KHZ m2v2 = 6 ....(i)
by coefficient of restitution
19. Water droplets are coming from an open tap at a
v 1
particular rate. The spacing between a droplet 1 2 v2 5 m / s
4
observed at 4th second after its fall to the next by (i)
droplet is 34.3 m. At what rate the droplets are m2 × 5 = 6
coming from the tap ? (Take g = 9.8 m/s2) m2 = 1.2 kg
(1) 3 drops / 2 seconds m v m 2 v2
vcm 1 1
m1 m 2
(2) 2 drops / second
2 1 1.2 5 8 25
(3) 1 drop / second v cm
2 1.2 3.2 10
(4) 1 drop / 7 seconds
x 25
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
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2. Student A and Student B used two screw gauges of V 20V
Sol. Imax = 2mA
equal pitch and 100 equal circular divisions to R 10K
For LR – decay circuit
measure the radius of a given wire. The actual
I = Imax e–Rt/L
value of the radius of the wire is 0.322 cm. The 1010 3 110 6
–3
100
0.322 = 0.300 + CSR + 5 × LC
t
0.322 = 0.300 + CSR + 0.005 4 10 3 (1)2 1
100
CSR = 0.017 d
For B dt
Reading = MSR + CSR + Error d 3 t
4 10 1
dt 100
0.322 = 0.200 + CSR + 0.092
1
CSR = 0.030 4 10 3 5
4 10 V
100
Difference = 0.030 – 0.017 = 0.013 cm When B = 0
0.013 t
Division on circular scale = 13 1 0
0.001 100
3. An inductor of 10 mH is connected to a 20 V t = 100 sec
2
battery through a resistor of 10 k and a switch. Heat = t
R
After a long time, when maximum current is set up (4 10 5 ) 2
Heat = 100 J
in the circuit, the current is switched off. The 2 10 6
x 16 10 10 100
current in the circuit after 1 s is mA . Then x Heat = J
100 2 10 6
Heat = 0.08 J
is equal to ______. (Take e–1 = 0.37)
Heat = 80 mJ
Official Ans. by NTA (74)
6
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5. In the reported figure, two bodies A and B of 7. A particle of mass 1 mg and charge q is lying at the
masses 200 g and 800 g are attached with the mid-point of two stationary particles kept at a
system of springs. Springs are kept in a stretched distance '2 m' when each is carrying same charge
position with some extension when the system is 'q'. If the free charged particle is displaced from
released. The horizontal surface is assumed to be its equilibrium position through distance 'x'
frictionless. The angular frequency will be (x << 1 m). The particle executes SHM. Its angular
_______ rad/s when k = 20 N/m. frequency of oscillation will be _____ × 105 rad/s
k 4k if q2 = 10 C2.
A B Official Ans. by NTA (6)
S1 S2
Sol. q q q
Official Ans. by NTA (10) x
k eq d d
Sol.
Net force on free charged particle
= reduced mass kq 2 kq 2
F
(d x)2 (d x)2
springs are in series connection
4dx
kk F –kq 2 2 2 2
k eq 1 2 (d x )
k1 k 2
4kq 2 d x
a–
k 4k 4k m d4
k eq
5k 5 4kq 2
a – x
4 20 md 3
k eq N / m 16 N / m
5 So, angular frequency
m1m 2 0.2 0.8 4kq 2
µ 0.16 kg
m1 m 2 0.2 0.8 md 3
4 9 10 9 10
16
100 10 1 10 6 13
0.16 = 6 × 108 rad/sec
6. The value of aluminium susceptibility is 2.2 × 10–5. 8. An electric bulb rated as 200 W at 100 V is used in
The percentage increase in the magnetic field if a circuit having 200 V supply. The resistance 'R'
space within a current carrying toroid is filled with that must be put in series with the bulb so that the
bulb delivers the same power is _____
x
aluminium is . Then the value of x is ______. Official Ans. by NTA (50)
10 4
V2
Sol. Power, P =
Official Ans. by NTA (22) RB
Sol. B = µ.(H+I) V2 100 100
RB
P 200
I
B = µ.H 1 RB = 50
H
R
B = B0(1+x)
RB
B–B0 = B0x
B B0
x
B0
200 V
B B0
100 100x To produce same power, same voltage (i.e. 100 V)
B0
should be across the bulb
22 Hence, R = RB
= 2.2 × 10–3 = R = 50
10 4
7
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9. A pendulum bob has a speed of 3 m/s at its lowest 10. A particle of mass 'm' is moving in time 't' on a
position. The pendulum is 50 cm long. The speed trajectory given by
of bob, when the length makes an angle of 60° to r 10 t 2 ˆi 5 (t 5)ˆj
the vertical will be (g = 10 m/s2) ______ m/s.
Where and are dimensional constants.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
The angular momentum of the particle becomes
//////////
the same as it was for t = 0 at time
Sol.
60° t = ______seconds.
l=0.5m v Official Ans. by NTA (10)
A u v 20tiˆ 5ˆj
8
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Sunday 25th July, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
1
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4. Sodium stearate CH3(CH2)16COO–Na+ is an
OH O O
anionic surfactant which forms micelles in oil.
Choose the correct statement for it from the (3) (4)
CHO OH
following :
(1) It forms spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16 – Official Ans. by NTA (4)
group pointing towards the centre of sphere. Sol.
(2) It forms non–spherical micelles with –COO–
group pointing outwards on the surface.
(3) It forms spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16 – O O
O CH3–C–H O O
group pointing outwards on the surface of sphere OH
(4) It forms non–spherical micelles with H CH
CH3
Enolate RDS
CH3(CH2)16–group pointing towards the centre.
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
H–O–H
Sol.
O
Forms spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16 group O O OH
C–ONa
pointing towards the centre of sphere (i) I2, NaOH
+ CHI3 CH3
5. The water soluble protein is : (Yellow ppt) Iodoform Test
(Filtrate)
(1) Fibrin (2) Albumin
(3) Myosin (4) Collagen HCl
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
O O
Sol.
Albumin is water soluble. OH
6. At 298.2 K the relationship between enthalpy of
bond dissociation (in kJ mol–1) for hydrogen (EH)
OH OH
and its isotope, deuterium (ED), is best described
by :
1 8.
(1) EH = ED (2) EH = ED
2
Br
(3) EH ED 7.5 (4) EH = 2ED (Major product)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
The given reaction can occur in the presence of :
Sol.
(a) Bromine water (b) Br2 in CS2, 273 K
Enthalpy of bond dissociation (kJ/mole) at 298.2K
(c) Br2/FeBr3 (d) Br2 in CHCl3, 273 K
For , hydrogen = 435.88
Choose the correct answer from the options given
For , Deuterium = 443.35
below :
EH ED – 7.5
(1) (b) and (d) only
O (2) (a) and (c) only
CH3CHO (i) I2/NaOH, Filter (3) (b), (c) and (d) only
7. 'P' 'X'
NaOH (ii) Filtrate + HCl (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
(Major
product) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Consider the given reaction, the product 'X' is: Sol.
O OH O O Bromine water gives tribromo products, other
(1) (2) gives monobromo products in which para is major
product.
2
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9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Concentration
Concentration
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (R) : Gabriel phthalimide synthesis (c) (d)
cannot be used to prepare aromatic primary
Time Time
amines.
Reason : Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic
substitution reaction. Rate
(e)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Concentration
correct answer from the options given below :
Choose from the options given below, the correct
(1) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct one regarding order of reaction is :
explanation of (A). (1) (b) zero order (c) and (e) First order
(2) (a) and (b) Zero order (e) First order
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) (b) and (d) Zero order (e) First order
(3) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct (4) (a) and (b) Zero order (c) and (e) First order
explanation of (A). Official Ans. by NTA (1)
ALLEN Ans. (2)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false. Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (3) For zero order reaction's
rate = K [Reactant]0
Sol. Gabriel pthalamide synthesis r=k
O O
C C
KOH R–X
N–H N K Rate
C C SN2
(This step
is not Time
O O given by
Aryl halide)
[A]0
O t1\2 = for zero order
O 2K
C –OH C
HOH / H
N–R
C –OH C Slope =
t1/2
O O
+ R – NH2 [A]0
(primary aliphatic amine)
For first order reaction
r = K [Concentration]
10. For the following graphs,
Rate Slope = K
t1/2
(a) Rate (b) Concentration
Initial
Time concentration Reactant concentration after time t
Ct = C0 e kt
3
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13. Which one of the following compounds of Group–14
Concentration
elements is not known?
(1) [GeCl6]2– (2) [Sn(OH)6]2–
2–
(3) [SiCl6] (4) [SiF6]2–
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Time Sol.
[SiCl6]2– does not exist due to steric crowding of
11. Which one of the products of the following surrounding atoms.
reactions does not react with Hinsberg reagent to 14. Which one among the following resonating
form sulphonamide? structures is not correct?
CN
(1) O
N
(1) + Na/Hg C2H5OH
O
O
NO2 (2) N
CN
O
CN O
O
(4)
N
(3) + LiAlH4 H3O
O
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
CHO Sol.
CN
O
+ H2/Ni N
(4)
O—
CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
It is unstable RS (due to similar charge on adjacent
Sol.
atom)
Imino Group
CN 15. Given below are two statements :
CH=NH
Statement I : None of the alkaline earth metal
SnCl2 + HCl hydroxides dissolve in alkali.
Srtatement II : Solubility of alkaline earth metal
hydroxides in water increases down the group.
Imino group does not react
with Hinsberg reagent
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
12. The ionic radii of K+, Na+, Al3+ and Mg2+ are in the (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
order : incorrect.
(1) Na+ < K+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) Al3+ < Mg2+ < K+ < Na+ correct.
(3) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < K+ (3) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) K+ < Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ incorrect.
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (4) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
Sol. Al3+, Mg2+ and Na+ are isoelectronic ionic species. Official Ans. by NTA (2)
For monoatomic ionic isoelectronic species as Sol.
positive charge increases ionic size decreases. Statement-I is incorrect
The order of size of Na+ & K+ is Na+ < K+, Be(OH)2 dissolve in alkali due to it’s amphoteric
order of ionic radii is : Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < K+ nature.
4
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Statement-II is correct 19. In the leaching of alumina from bauxite, the ore
Solubility of alkaline earth metal hydroxide in expected to leach out in the process by reacting
water increases down the group due to rapid with NaOH is :
decreases in lattice energy as compared to (1) TiO2 (2) Fe2O3
hydration energy. (3) ZnO (4) SiO2
16. The correct order of following 3d metal oxides, Official Ans. by NTA (4)
according to their oxidation numbers is : Sol.
(a) CrO3 (b) Fe2O3 (c) MnO2 (d) V2O5 (e) Cu2O In bauxite impurities of Fe2O3, TiO2 and SiO2 are
(1) (d) > (a) > (b) > (c) > (e) present , Fe2O3 and TiO2 are basic oxides therefore
(2) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b) > (e) does not reacts with or dissolve in NaOH whereas
(3) (a) > (d) > (c) > (b) > (e) SiO2 is acidic oxide it gets dissolve in NaOH,
(4) (c) > (a) > (d) > (e) > (b) hence leach out
Official Ans. by NTA (3) SiO2 + 2NaOH Na2SiO3(aq.) + H2O
Sol. 20. An organic compound 'A' C4H8 on treatment with
6 5
KMnO4/H+ yields compound 'B' C3H6O.
(a) Cr O 3 (d) V2 O 5
Compound 'A' also yields compound 'B' an
3 1
(b) Fe 2 O 3 (e) Cu 2 O ozonolysis. Compound 'A' is :
4
(1) 2–Methylpropene
(c) Mn O 2 (2) 1–Methylcyclopropane
So order of oxidation state (3) But–2–ene
a>d>c>b>e (4) Cyclobutane
17. Which one of the following chemical agent is not Official Ans. by NTA (1)
being used for dry–cleaning of clothes? Sol.
(1) H2O2 (2) CCl4 CH3
KMnO4/H H3C
(3) Liquid CO2 (4) Cl2C = CCl2
Official Ans. by NTA (2) H3C Ozonolysis
O
CH2
H3C
ALLEN Ans. (1) 2-Methylpropene C3H6O
Sol.
CO2, CCl4 and Cl2C = CCl2 are used as dry SECTION-B
cleaning agents for clothes.
1. The number of sigma bonds in
H2O2 is used as bleaching agent in laundry.
18. Which one of the following compounds will H3C – C = CH – C C – H is _________ .
liberate CO2, when treated with NaHCO3? H
Official Ans. by NTA (10)
(1) (CH3)3NHCl (2) (CH3)4NOH
O Sol.
CO2 + H2O
5
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2. Three moles of AgCl get precipitated when one 400 10 7 10 26
=
mole of an octahedral co-ordination compound 6.626 3
with empirical formula CrCl3.3NH3.3H2O reacts 40 10 20
=
with excess of silver nitrate. The number of 6.626 3
chloride ions satisfying the secondary valency of = 2.01 × 1020
the metal ion is________ . 4. CO2 gas is bubbled through water during a soft
Official Ans. by NTA (0) drink manufacturing process at 298 K. If CO2
Sol. exerts a partial pressure of 0.835 bar then x m mol
Mole of AgCl precipitated is equal the mole of Cl– of CO2 would dissolve in 0.9 L of water. The value
present in ionization sphere. of x is ________ . (Nearest integer)
[Cr(H2O)3(NH3)3]Cl3 [Cr(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+ + 3Cl– (Henry's law constant for CO 2 at 298 K is
1 mole 1 mole 3 mole 1.67 × 10 3 bar)
Official Ans. by NTA (25)
AgNO3
Sol. From Henry's law
(Excess)
Pgas = KH.Xgas
n(CO2 )
AgCl 0.835 = 1.67 × 103 ×
0.9 1000
(3mole) 18
n(CO2) = 0.025
Since none of Cl– is present in the co-ordination
Millimoles of CO2 = 0.025 × 1000 = 25
sphere. Therefore answer is zero.
5. For the reaction
3. A source of monochromatic radiation of
wavelength 400 nm provides 1000 J of energy in A + B 2C
10 seconds. When this radiation falls on the
the value of equilibrium constant is 100 at 298 K.
surface of sodium, x × 1020 electrons are ejected
If the initial concentration of all the three species is
per second. Assume that wavelength 400 nm is
1 M each, then the equilibrium concentration of C
sufficient for ejection of electron from the surface
is x × 10–1 M. The value of x is ________ .
of sodium metal. The value of x is ________ .
(Nearest integer)
(Nearest integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (25)
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
5. Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
A + B 2C
Sol.
Total energy provided by 1 1 1
–x –x 2x
1000
Source per second = 100J _____________________
10
1 –x 1–x 1 + 2x
hc
Energy required to eject electron _____________________
6.626 10 34 [C]2eq (1 2x)2
3 108 K
400 10 9 [A]eq [B]eq (1 x)(1 x)
Number of electrons ejected 1 2x
2
100 =
100 1 x
=
6.626 10 34 3 108
1 2x
400 10 9 1 x 10
6
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3 8. A home owner uses 4.00 × 103 m3 of methane
x (CH4) gas, (assume CH4 is an ideal gas) in a year
4
to heat his home. Under the pressure of 1.0 atm
[C]eq. = 1 + 2x and 300 K, mass of gas used is x × 105 g. The
3 value of x is ________ . (Nearest integer)
=1+2
4 (Given R = 0.083 L atm K–1 mol–1)
= 2.5 M Official Ans. by NTA (26)
25 × 10–1 M Sol.
PV
6. Consider the cell at 25°C n(CH4 )
RT
Zn | Zn2+(aq), (1 M) || Fe3+(aq), Fe2+(aq) | Pt(s)
1 4 103 1000
The fraction of total iron present as Fe3+ ion at the
cell potential of 1.500 V is x × 10–2. The value of x 0.083 300
is ________ . (Nearest integer) Weight of CH4
(Given : E 0
0.77V, E 0
0.76V ) 40 16 105
Fe3 /Fe 2 Zn 2 /Zn gm
0.083 300
Official Ans. by NTA (24)
= 25.7 × 105 gm
Sol.
9. When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of Fe 2+ ions
Zn
Zn2+ + 2e–
was titrated in the presence of dil H 2SO4 using
2Fe3+
2e– + 2e2+ diphenylamine indicator, 15 mL of 0.02 M
_____________________________________________
solution of K2Cr2O7 was required to get the end
point. The molarity of the solution containing
Zn + 2Fe 3+
Zn 2+
+ 2Fe2+
Fe2+ ions is x × 10–2 M. The value of x is ________.
_____________________________________________ (Nearest integer)
E0cell 0.77 – (0.76) Official Ans. by NTA (18)
= 1.53 V Sol.
2
0.06 Fe 2 milli-equivalents of Fe2+ = milli-equivalents of
1.50 = 1.53 – log 3
2 Fe K2Cr2O7
Fe 2 0.03 1 M × 10 × 1 = 0.02 × 15 × 6
log 3 M = 0.18 = 18 × 10–2 M
Fe 0.06 2
10. Consider the complete combustion of butane, the
[Fe 2 ] amount of butane utilized to produce 72.0 g of
= 101/2 = 10
[Fe 3 ] water is ________ × 10–1 g. (in nearest integer)
[Fe3 ] 1 Official Ans. by NTA (464)
2
[Fe ] 10 Sol.
3
[Fe ] 1 1 13
2 3
C4 H10 O2
4CO2 5H2 O
[Fe ] [Fe ] 1 10 4.16 2
= 0.2402 72
= 24 × 10–2 Moles of H2O 4
18
7. At 298 K, the enthalpy of fusion of a solid (X) is
1
2.8 kJ mol–1 and the enthalpy of vaporisation of the Moles of C4 H10 used 4
liquid (X) is 98.2 kJ mol–1. The enthalpy of 5
sublimation of the substance (X) in kJ mol–1 is 4
Weight of C4 H10 used 58
________ . (in nearest integer) 5
Official Ans. by NTA (101) = 46.4 gm
Sol.
Hsub Hfus. Hvap.
= 2.8 + 98.2
= 101 kJ/mol
7
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Sunday 25th July, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
O
Decreasing in ,0
16 6
3. Let Sn be the sum of the first n terms of an
P arithmetic progression. If S3n = 3S2n, then the value
30°
30° S4n
45° of is :
S2n
A R
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 8
O centre of sphere
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
P,Q point of contact of tangents from A
Sol. Let a be first term and d be common diff. of this
Let T be top most point of balloon & R be foot of
A.P.
perpendicular from O to ground.
Given S3n = 3S2n
From triangle OAP, OA = 16cosec30° = 32
3n 2n
From triangle ABO, OR = OA sin75° = 32
3 1
2
2a 3n 1 d 3 2a 2n 1 d
2
2 2 2a + (3n – 1)d = 4a + (4n – 2)d
So level of top most point = OR + OT 2a + (n – 1)d = 0
=8 6 2 2 4n
2a 4n 1 d
2 2a n 1 d 3nd
Now S4n
2
0
be co-planar. Then which of the following is true? Official Ans. by NTA (3)
cos2x
1/3
(1) 2b = a + c (2) 3c = a + b 5 /24
Sol. Let I dx ….(i)
/24 cos2x sin 2x
(3) a = b + 2c (4) 2a = b + c 1/3 1/3
dy dx
5 /24 Sol. x dx
eyx
Hence 2I
/24
dx [(i) + (ii)]
dy dx
x dx
4 eyx
2I I
24 12 x2
e x y c
8. If b is very small as compared to the value of a, so 2
b At x = 0, y = 0 c = –1
that the cube and other higher powers of can be
a
2 x2
neglected in the identity exy
2
1 1 1 1
.... = n + n2 + n3, 2 x2
a b a 2b a 3b a nb yx n
2
then the value of is :
dy 2x 2 2x x 2
a2 b ab b2 a b2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) dx 2x 2
2 x2
3a 3 3a 2 3a 3 3a 3
Official Ans. by NTA (3) – +
2 42 3
1 n rb r b
y 1 3 1 3 n
2 2
1 2 terms to be neglected 2
a r 1
a a
1
n
n n 1 b n n 1 2n 1 b 2
. . 2
1 3 n 3 1
a 2 a 6 a
10. The Boolean expression
1 b 2
(p q) (q ~ p) is equivalent to :
n3 2 ....
a 3a (1) ~q (2) q (3) p (4) ~p
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
b2
So Sol. (p q) (q ~p)
3a 3
9. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential (~p q) (~q ~p) {p q ~p q}
equation
dy
1 x e y x , 2 x 2, y(0) 0 (~p q) (~p ~q) {commutative property}
dx
~p (q ~q) {distributive property}
~p
3
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11. The area (in sq. units) of the region, given by the Then which of the following statements is true ?
2
set {(x, y) R × R | x 0, 2x y 4 – 2x} is : (1) There exists an onto function f : N N such
8 17 13 7 that fog = f
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3
(2) There exists a one–one function f: N N such
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
that fog = f
Sol.
(3) gogog = g
2
y = 2x
2
(4) There exists a function f : N N such that gof = f
2x =4–2x
x=1,–2 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(rej.)
y = 4–2x
Sol. g : N N g(3n + 1) = 3n + 2
g(3n + 2) = 3n + 3
g(3n + 3) = 3n + 1
1 1
3
2x
Required area = 4 2x 2x dx 4x x x 1 x 3k 1
2 2
g x x 1 x 3k 2
0
3 0
2 7 x 2 x 3k 3
=4–1– =
3 3
x 2 x 3k 1
12. The sum of all values of x in [0, 2], for which g g x x 1 x 3k 2
sinx + sin2x + sin3x + sin4x = 0, is equal to : x 1 x 3k 3
(1) 8 (2) 11
x x 3k 1
(3) 12 (4) 9
g g g x x x 3k 2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) x x 3k 3
4
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(3) f is continuous everywhere except at the integer 3
9
contains exactly 3 balls is k then k lies in the
points in [0, ). 4
(4) f is differentiable at every point in [0, ). set :
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (1) {x R : |x – 3| < 1} (2) {x R : |x – 2| 1}
x
(3) {x R : |x – 1| < 1} (4) {x R : |x –5| 1}
Sol. ƒ : [0, ) [0, ), ƒ(x) = y dy
0 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
9
Let x = n + ƒ, ƒ (0, 1) C3 .36
Sol. required probability =
nƒ 49
So ƒ(x) = 0 + 1 + 2 + … + (n – 1) + n dy 9
C3 3
9
n
.
27 4
n n 1
ƒ x nƒ 9
2 28 3 28
. k
x x 1 9 4 9
x x
2 Which satisfies |x – 3| < 1
x2 y2
19. Let an ellipse E : 1 , a2 > b2, passes
a2 b2
3 1 N(,0,–)
through ,1 and has eccentricity
. If a
2 3
circle, centered at focus F(, 0), > 0, of E and
PN.(iˆ k)
ˆ 0
2
radius , intersects E at two points P and Q, then
3 N(1, 0, –1)
PQ2 is equal to : Now,
8 4 16
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3
3 3 3
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
3 1 b2 1 P(1,2,–1)
Sol. 1 and 1 Q(, 0, –)
2a 2 b 2 a2 3
a2 = 3 b2 = 3
x2 y2
1 .....(i)
3 2
x + y + 2z = 0
Its focus is (1,0)
Now, eqn of circle is
4
PQ. ˆi ˆj 2kˆ 0
x 1 y2
2
.....(ii)
3 µ = –1
Solving (i) and (ii) we get Q (–1, 0, 1)
2 PN 2ˆj and PQ 2iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ
y ,x 1
3
1
2 cos =
4 16 3
PQ2 =
3 3
6
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SECTION-B 2S 4 4 4
....
1. Let y = y(x) be solution of the following 3 3 32 33
differential equation 3 4 /3
S 3
2 1 1 / 3
dy
ey 2e y sinx + sinx cos2x = 0, y = 0 1/3
3
log 0.25
dx 2 Now 11/3
1
log1/4
If y(0) = loge( + e–2), then 4( + ) is equal to 3 2
31/2 3
________. 2 = 3
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 3. Consider the following frequency distribution :
y
Sol. Let e = t class : 10–20 20–30 30–40 40–50 50–60
dt Frequency : 110 54 30
(2sin x)t sin x cos2 x
dx
If the sum of all frequencies is 584 and median is
I.F. = e2cosx
45, then || is equal to _________.
t e 2cos x
e 2cos x
.( sin x cos x)dx
2
Official Ans. by NTA (164)
ey e2cos x e2z z2dz,z e2cos x Sol. Sum of frequencies = 584
1 1 e2cos x + = 390
e y e2cos x .cos 2 x e 2cos x cos x e 2cos x C
2 2 4 584
Now, Median is at 292 th
3 2
at x ,y 0 C
2 4
Median = 45 (lies in class 40 – 50)
1 1 1 3
e cos 2 x cos x e2cos x
y
2 2 4 4 + 110 + 54 + 15 = 292
cos2 x cos x 1 3 2 cos x = 113, = 277
y log e
2 2 4 4 | – | = 164
Put x = 0 4. Let p 2iˆ 3jˆ kˆ and q ˆi 2ˆj kˆ be two vectors.
1 3 1 3 If a vector r (ˆi ˆj k)
ˆ is perpendicular to
y log e 2 ,
4 4 4 4
each of the vectors p q and p q , and
2. If the value of
| r | 3 , then || + || + || is equal to _______.
1 1 1
log .......upto
2 6 10 (0.25) 3 32 33 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
1 3 2 3 ......upto
3 3 Sol. p 2iˆ 3ˆj kˆ (Given)
2
is l, then l is equal to ________.
Official Ans. by NTA (3) q ˆi 2ˆj kˆ
1 1
log0.25 2 ... ˆi ˆj kˆ
3 3
2 6 10 Now p q p q 3 5 2
Sol. 1 2 3 ...
3 3 3 1 1 0
S
2 6 10 2iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ
S 1 2 3 ....
S
3 3
1 2 6
3
r 3
p q p q
3 2iˆ 2jˆ 2kˆ
....
3 3 32 33 p q p q 22 22 22
– – – –
________________________
2S 1 4 4
1 2 3 ....
r ˆi ˆj kˆ
3 3 3 3
7
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According to question Total number of ways = 23800
r ˆi ˆj kˆ According to question
100 K = 23800
So || = 1, || = 1, || = 1
K = 238
|| + || + || = 3
8. If , are roots of the equation
5. The ratio of the coefficient of the middle term in n
x 5( 2)x 10 0 , > and Pn = – for
2 n
1
10 r
10
Sol. Class 10 th
11 th
12 th Tr+1 = Cr x1/3 . 1/2
x
Total student 5 6 8
For independent term
2 3 5 5C2 × 6C3 × 8C5
10 r r
Number of selection 2 2 6 5C2 × 6C2 × 8C6 0 r=4
3 2
3 2 5 5C3 × 6C2 × 8C5 T5 = 10C4 = 210
8
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10. Let
n
0 i a b a b
S n N a, b,c,d R ,
1 0 c d c d
9
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Sunday 25th July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
1
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TL mv1
Sol. 1 … (i)
TH mv R qB v q q v
Sol. R 1 1 1 2 2 1
qB R 2 mv 2 q1 v 2 q1 v 2
2 1
TL 62 1 TL 62 q2B
TH TH TH
2 2 4
62 1 62
TH = 6 × 62 = 372K 1 3 3
TH 6 TH
8. A 10 resistance is connected across 220V – 50Hz
In °C 372 – 273 = 99°C AC supply. The time taken by the current to
change from its maximum value to the rms value
6. In the given potentiometer circuit arrangement, the is:
balancing length AC is measured to be 250 cm. (1) 2.5 ms (2) 1.5 ms
When the galvanometer connection is shifted from (3) 3.0 ms (4) 4.5 ms
point (1) to point (2) in the given diagram, the Official Ans. by NTA (1)
balancing length becomes 400 cm. The ratio of the 10
Sol.
emf of two cells, 1 is :
2
V = 220V/50Hz
K V
C
A B i = i0sint
G When i = i0
1
2 i 0 i 0 sin t1 t1 … (i)
2
1 2
i0
5 8 4 3 When i
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2
3 5 3 2
i0
Official Ans. by NTA (1) i0 sin t 2 t 2 … (ii)
2 4
Sol. E1 = k1 … (i) Time taken by current from maximum value to rms
value
E1 + E2 = k2 … (ii)
t1 t 2
2 4 4 4 2f
E1 250 5
1
1
E1 E 2 2 400 8
8 50
8E1 = 5E1 + 5E2
1
sec
3E1 = 5E2 400
E1 5 = 2.5 ms
E2 3 9. A balloon was moving upwards with a uniform
velocity of 10 m/s. An object of finite mass is
7. Two ions having same mass have charges in the dropped from the balloon when it was at a height
ratio 1 : 2. They are projected normally in a of 75 m from the ground level. The height of the
balloon from the ground when object strikes the
uniform magnetic field with their speeds in the ground was around :
ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of the radii of their circular
(takes the value of g as 10 m/s2)
trajectories is :
(1) 300 m (2) 200 m
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 3 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 3 (3) 125 m (4) 250 m
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
2
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u = 10m/s Sol. Density is same
4 4
M R 3 , 2m R '3
3 3
Sol.
75m R ' 21/3 R
GMm
R2
Object is projected as shown so as per motion G2Mm
2
under gravity R '2
1 2 21/3
S ut at 2
2 12. Two ideal electric dipoles A and B, having their
1 dipole moment p1 and p2 respectively are placed on
75 10t 10 t 2 t = 5 sec a plane with their centres at O as shown in the
2 figure. At point C on the axis of dipole A, the
Object takes t = 5 s to fall on ground resultant electric field is making an angle of 37°
Height of balloon from ground with the axis. The ratio of the dipole moment of A
H = 75 + ut p 3
and B, 1 is : (take sin 37° = )
= 75 + 10 × 5 = 125 m p2 5
10. If q f is the free charge on the capacitor plates and –
q b is the bound charge on the dielectric slab of
dielectric constant k placed between the capacitor A– O + C
plates, then bound charge q b can be expressed as : +
1 1 3 3 2 4
(1) q b q f 1 (2) q b q f 1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
k k 8 2 3 3
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
1 1
(3) q b q f 1 (4) q b q f 1
k k kP2/r3 E
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Sol. 37°
2kP1/r3
qf qb qf qb P1 C
E0
P2
Sol. E=E0/k = + E0/k
kP2
3 3 P 3
tan 37 r 2
4 2kP1 2P1 4
When a dielectric is inserted in a capacitor
r3
Due to free charge E E0 only P2 3
E0 P1 2
After dielectric E '
k P1 2
1 P2 3
q B q f 1
k 13. Two spherical soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 in
11. Consider a planet in some solar system which has a vacuum combine under isothermal conditions. The
mass double the mass of earth and density equal to resulting bubble has a radius equal to :
the average density of earth. If the weight of an rr
(1) 1 2 (2) r1 r2
object on earth is W, the weight of the same object r1 r2
on that planet will be :
r1 r2
1 (3) r12 r22 (4)
(1) 2W (2) W (3) 2 W 3
(4) 2W 2
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
3
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Sol. 20V 20V 0V
r1 r2 r3 Sol. 5 V0
20V 0V
2 5
20V V0
no. of moles is conserved
n 1 + n 2 = n3 20 V0 0 V0 20 V0
P1V1 + P2V2 = P3V
0
5 5 2
4S 4 3 4S 4 3 4S 4 3 2V V
r1 r2 r3 4 10 0 0
r1 3 r2 3 r3 3 5 2
r12 r22 r32 4V 5V0
14 0
10
r3 r12 r22 140
V0 Volt
14. The force is given in terms of time t and 9
Potential difference across 2 resistor is 20 – V0
displacement x by the equation
140
F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt That is 20 Volt
9
AD 40
The dimensional formula of is :
B Hence answer is Volt
9
(1) [M0 L T–1] (2) [M L2 T–3] 16. An electron moving with speed v and a photon
moving with speed c, have same D-Broglie
(3) [M1 L1 T–2] (4) [M2 L2 T–3] wavelength. The ratio of kinetic energy of electron
Official Ans. by NTA (2) to that of photon is :
3c v v 2c
Sol. [A] = [MLT–2] (1) (2) (3) (4)
v 3c 2c v
[B] = [L–1] Official Ans. by NTA (3)
[D] = [T–1] Sol. e Ph
AD MLT T
2 1
h h
B L1
p e p ph
AD E ph
2mk e
B ML T
2 3
c
E
2
15. The given potentiometer has its wire of resistance ph
2mk e
10. When the sliding contact is in the middle of c2
k e E ph 1
the potentiometer wire, the potential drop across 2
E ph c 2m
2 resistor is :
p ph 1
20V c 2m
p 1
e
A B c 2m
2
mv 1
c 2m
40 40
(1) 10 V (2) 5 V (3) V (4) V v
9 11
2c
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
4
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17. The instantaneous velocity of a particle moving in µ=1
a straight line is given as v = t + t2, where and
are constants. The distance travelled by the A
particle between 1s and 2s is :
3 7 Sol. '
(1) 3 + 7 (2)
2 3
3 7
(3) (4)
2 3 2 2 "
B
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. V t t 2
ds
t t 2 At maximum angle ray at point B goes in gazing
dt emergence, at all less values of , TIR occurs.
S2 2
At point B
ds t t dt
2
4
S1 1 sin " 1 sin 90
3
2
t 2 t 3 3
S2 S1 " sin 1
2 3 1 4
As particle is not changing direction
' "
So distance = displacement. 2
4 1 8 1 At point A
Distance = 4
2 3 1 sin sin '
3
3 7
4
2 3 sin sin "
3 2
18. A ray of light entering from air into a denser
4 4 7
medium of refractive index , as shown in figure. sin cos cos 1
3 3 4
The light ray suffers total internal reflection at the
adjacent surface as shown. The maximum value of
angle should be equal to : 4
3
"
'
4 7
sin
3 4
7
" sin 1
3
19. When radiation of wavelength is incident on a
metallic surface, the stopping potential of ejected
7 5 photoelectrons is 4.8 V. If the same surface is
(1) sin 1 (2) sin 1 illuminated by radiation of double the previous
3 4
wavelength, then the stopping potential becomes
7 5 1.6 V. The threshold wavelength of the metal is :
(3) sin 1 (4) sin 1
4 3 (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 6
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
5
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Sol. VS h SECTION-B
1. A system consists of two types of gas molecules A
hc
4.8 … (i) and B having same number density 2 × 1025 / m3.
The diameter of A and B are 10 Å and 5 Å
hc respectively. They suffer collision at room
1.6 … (ii) temperature. The ratio of average distance covered
2 by the molecule A to that of B between two
Using above equation (i) – (ii) successive collision is ______ × 10–2
hc hc Official Ans. by NTA (25)
3.2
2 Sol. mean free path
hc
3.2 … (iii) 1
2
2 d 2 n
hc
6.4 1 d 22 n 2
2 d12 n1
Put in equation (ii)
2
= 1.6 5
0.25 = 25 × 10–2
hc 10
1.6
th 2. A light beam of wavelength 500 nm is incident on
a metal having work function of 1.25 eV, placed in
hc a magnetic field of intensity B. The electrons
th
1.6 emitted perpendicular to the magnetic field B, with
maximum kinetic energy are bent into circular
hc arc of radius 30 cm. The value of B is
4 4
6.4 _______ × 10–7 T.
20. Two vectors X and Y have equal magnitude. The Given hc = 20 × 10–26 J-m, mass of electron
= 9 × 10–31 kg
magnitude of (X Y) is n times the magnitude of Official Ans. by NTA (125)
(X Y) . The angle between X and Y is : Sol. By photoelectric equation
hc
n 2 1
1 n2 1
1
k max
(1) cos 2 (2) cos 2
n 1 n 1
1240
k max 1.25 1.25
n 1
2
n 1
2
500
(3) cos1 2 (4) cos1 2
n 1 n 1 2mk
r
Official Ans. by NTA (2) eB
6
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4. A 16 wire is bend to form a square loop. A 9V 6. From the given data, the amount of energy
supply having internal resistance of 1 is 27
required to break the nucleus of aluminium 13 Al is
connected across one of its sides. The potential –3
_____ x × 10 J.
drop across the diagonals of the square loop is
_________ × 10–1 V Mass of neutron = 1.00866 u
Official Ans. by NTA (45) Mass of proton = 1.00726 u
Sol. here assume current as Mass of Aluminium nucleus = 27.18846 u
i 4
4i (Assume 1 u corresponds to x J of energy)
(Round off to the nearest integer)
3i
Official Ans. by NTA (27)
9V 4
4 Sol. m = (ZmP + (A – Z)mn) – MA
1
= (13 ×1.00726 + 14 × 1.00866) – 27.18846
4 = 27.21562 – 27.18846
By KVL in outer loop = 0.02716 u
9 – 12i – 4 i = 0 E = 27.16 x × 10–3 J
16i = 9
9 7. A force of F = (5y + 20) ĵ N acts on a particle. The
8i 4.5 workdone by this force when the particle is moved
2
from y = 0 m to y = 10 m is ______ J.
= 45 × 10–1
5. Two circuits are shown in the figure (a) & (b). At a Official Ans. by NTA (450)
frequency of _______ rad/s the average power
Sol. F (5y 20)ˆj
dissipated in one cycle will be same in both the
circuits. 10
R C R L 10
5y 2
20y
2 0
5
220 V 220 V = 100 20 10
2
figure (a) figure (b)
= 250 + 200 = 450 J
Official Ans. by NTA (500)
8. A solid disc of radius 20 cm and mass 10 kg is
Sol. For figure (a)
rotating with an angular velocity of 600 rpm, about
v 2rms an axis normal to its circular plane and passing
Pavg
R through its centre of mass. The retarding torque
v 2rms v 2rms required to bring the disc at rest in 10 s is _____
R 1 × 10–1 Nm.
Z2 R
R2 = Z2 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
L I(f i )
2
25 (x C x L )2 52 Sol.
t t
25 = (xc – xL)2 + 25
mR2
1 [0 ]
x c = xL L
2
C
t
1 106
2 10 (20 10 2 )2 600
LC 0.1 40
2 30 10
= 500
= 0.4 = 4 ×10–2
7
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9. In a semiconductor, the number density of intrinsic 10. The nuclear activity of a radioactive element
16 3
charge carriers at 27°C is 1.5 × 10 / m . If the 1
th
8
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Sunday 25th July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
1
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Sol. (a) Concentration of Ag is performed by leaching
with dilute NaCN solution 8. C6H5NO2 Sn + HCl "A" C6H5N2Cl
P
H (Yellow
(b) Pig iron is formed in blast furnace
coloured
(c) Blister Cu is produced in Bessemer converter compound)
(d) Froth floatation method is used for sulphide
Consider the above reaction, the Product "P" is :
ores.
Note : During extraction of Cu reverberatory N=N
furnace is involved. (1)
6. The ionic radii of F– and O2– respectively are 1.33 NH2
Å and 1.4 Å, while the covalent radius of N is
N=N NH2
0.74 Å. (2)
The correct statement for the ionic radius of N3–
from the following is :
H
(1) It is smaller than F– and N
(2) It is bigger than O2– and F– N
(3) It is bigger than F– and N, but smaller than of (3)
O2–
H
(4) It is smaller than O2– and F–, but bigger than of
N N=N–N
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (4)
Sol. F–, O2– and N3– all are isoelectronic species in
which N3– have least number of protons due to Official Ans. by NTA (2)
which it's size increases as least nuclear attraction Sol.
is experienced by the outer shell electrons. NO2
NH2
3– 2– – NH2 +
Size order N >O >F Sn + HCl Ph–N2Cl–
O
It gives positive Iodoform test
2
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10. The spin only magnetic moments (in BM) for free 13. Which one of the following metals forms
Ti3+, V2+ and Sc3+ ions respectively are interstitial hydride easily ?
(At.No. Sc : 21, Ti : 22, V : 23) (1) Cr (2) Fe (3) Mn (4) Co
(1) 3.87, 1.73, 0 (2) 1.73, 3.87, 0 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(3) 1.73, 0, 3.87 (4) 0, 3.87, 1.73 Sol. Elements of group 7,8,9 do not form hydrides thus
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Cr will only form hydride among the given
Sol. n(n 2) BM elements (Fe, Mn, Co)
O
Ti+3 = [Ar]3d1 n=1 µ = 1.73 BM
14.
V+2 = [Ar]3d3 n=3 µ = 3.87 BM O
Sc+3 = [Ar]3d04s0 n=0 µ=0
11. Which one of the following is correct structure for O
cytosine ? Maleic anhydride
O Maleic anhydride can be prepared by :
N H3C (1) Heating trans-but-2-enedioic acid
(1) (2) N–H
N (2) Heating cis-but-2-enedioic acid
H3C O N O (3) Treating cis-but-2-enedioic acid with alcohol
H
H and acid
NH2 (4) Treating trans-but-2-enedioic acid with alcohol
H2N and acid
(3) N (4) N
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
N O N O Sol. Cis but 2-enoic acid
H H
O
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
CH – CO2H CH – C
Sol. The correct structure of cytosine O
CH – CO2H CH – C
NH2
O
N Maleic anhydride
15. Given below are two statements :
N O Statement I : Chlorofluoro carbons breakdown by
H radiation in the visible energy region and release
chlorine gas in the atmosphere which then reacts
12. Identify the species having one -bond and with stratospheric ozone.
maximum number of canonical forms from the Statement II : Atmospheric ozone reacts with
following : nitric oxide to give nitrogen and oxygen gases,
(1) SO3 (2) O2 (3) SO2 (4) CO 32 which add to the atmosphere.
For the above statements choose the correct answer
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
from the options given below :
2–
Sol. Among SO3, O2, SO2 and CO 3 , only O2 and (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
true
CO32– has only one -bond
(2) Both statement I and II are false
O O– O– (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(4) Both statement I and II are correct
C C C
– –
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
O O O O – –
O O
3
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Sol. Statement (1) 17. Match List I with List II :
CFCs are broken down by powerful UV radiation List-I List-II
and releases chlorine free radical which reacts with Example of colloids Classification
ozone and start chain reaction. (a) Cheese (i) dispersion of liquid in liquid
(b) Pumice stone (ii) dispersion of liquid in gas
CF2Cl2(g)
UV
Cl(g) CF2Cl(g)
(c) Hair cream (iii) dispersion of gas in solid
Cl(g) O3(g) ClO(g) O2(g) (d) Cloud (iv) dispersion of liquid in solid
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
ClO(g) O(g) Cl(g) O2(g) options given below
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Statement (2)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Atmosphere ozone reacts with nitric oxide to
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
produce nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
NO(g) + O3(g) NO2(g) + O2(g)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
t – + 17. Cheese liquid in solid
16. Br EtOH excess
CHO BuO K
"A" "B"
dry HCl gas
(major (major Pumice stone gas in solid
product) product) Hair cream liquid in liquid
t
[where Et –C2H5 Bu (CH3)3C–] Cloud liquid in gas
Consider the above reaction sequence, Product "A" 18. What is the major product "P" of the following
and Product "B" formed respectively are : reaction ?
OEt H2C OEt CH3
(1) Br
(i) NaNO2 , HCl, 278K
P
, NH2 (ii) H2 O (Major product)
OEt OEt
CH3 CH3
OtBu (1) (2)
(2) EtO CH3 Cl
CHO EtO
, OH CH3
OH
(3) (4)
N2Cl OH
OEt H2C OEt
(3) EtO Official Ans. by NTA (4)
,
OEt OEt Sol.
OEt OEt +
(4) Br t
BuO NH CH2 – N2
,
OEt OEt NaNO2 + HCl
278 K
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol.
EtOH (excess)
H2O
Br – CH2 – CH = O
Dry HCl gas
H3C CH2 – OH
OEt
Br – CH2 – CH (Acetal)
(A) (P)
OEt Major
E2 Tertiary
mechanism butoxide
product
OEt
CH2 = C
(B)
OEt
4
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19. Identify the process in which change in the 3. Number of electrons present in 4f orbital of Ho3+
oxidation state is five : ion is __________ . (Given Atomic No. of Ho = 67)
2
(1) Cr2 O 2
7 2Cr 3
(2) MnO Mn 4 Official Ans. by NTA (10)
2 3 2
(3) CrO 4 Cr (4) C2 O 4 2CO2 3. Ho = [Xe]4f116s2
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Ho3 [Xe] 4f 10
Sol. MnO4 5e Mn 2
so number of e– present in 4f is 10.
20. Which among the following is the strongest acid ?
4. H3C H
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (2) CCl4
+ Br2 Product "P"
H3C H
(3) (4)
Consider the above chemical reaction. The total
Official Ans. by NTA (4) number of stereoisomers possible for Product 'P' is
Sol. ; because its conjugate __________ .
base is aromatic
Strongest acid Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(–) Sol.
SECTION-B H3C H CH
Br2 H Br
1. A system does 200 J of work and at the same time
(CCl4) + ENT
absorbs 150 J of heat. The magnitude of the change Br H
H3C H CH3
in internal energy is __________ J. (Nearest integer)
The total number of products
Official Ans. by NTA (50)
possible = 2
1. w = –200 J, q = +150 : U = q + w
U = 150 – 200 = –50 J : magnitude = 50 J = |U | 5. For a chemical reaction A B, it was found that
2. An accelerated electron has a speed of 5 × 106 ms–1 concentration of B is increased by 0.2 mol L–1 in
with an uncertainty of 0.02%. The uncertainty in 30 min. The average rate of the reaction is
finding its location while in motion is x × 10–9 m. __________ × 10–1 mol L–1 h–1. (in nearest integer)
The value of x is __________ . (Nearest integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
[Use mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg,
A
B
h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, = 3.14]
5. t 0 0
Official Ans. by NTA (58)
t 30min 0.2M
.02
2. 5 106 103 m / s [A] [B] (0.2 – 0)
100 Av. rate of reaction –
t t 1
h
x . 2
4m
= 0.4 = 4 × 10–1 mol / L × hr
6.63 10 –34
x 10 –9 10 6. The number of significant figures in 0.00340 is
4 3.14 9.110 –31
x × 10–9 × 103 = 0.058 × 10–3 __________ .
5
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6. Number of significant figures = 3 9. When 3.00 g of a substance 'X' is dissolved in 100 g of
7. Assuming that Ba(OH) 2 is completely ionised CCl4, it raises the boiling point by 0.60 K. The molar
in aqueous solution under the given conditions mass of the substance 'X' is ________ g mol–1.
(Nearest integer).
the concentration of H 3O + ions in 0.005 M
aqueous solution of Ba(OH)2 at 298 K is __________ [Given Kb for CCl4 is 5.0 K kg mol–1]
× 10–12 mol L–1. (Nearest integer) Official Ans. by NTA (250)
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 9. Tb = Kb × molality
+2 –
7. Ba (OH)2 Ba + 2OH 3/ M
0.60 = 5
100 /100
2 × 0.005 = 0.01 = 10–2 M = 250
At 298 K : in aq. solution [H3O+] [OH–] = 10–14
10. An LPG cylinder contains gas at a pressure of 300
0–14 kPa at 27°C. The cylinder can withstand the
[H3O+] = 10–12
10–2 pressure of 1.2 × 106 Pa. The room in which the
cylinder is kept catches fire. The minimum
8. 0.8 g of an organic compound was analysed by temperature at which the bursting of cylinder will
Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen. If take place is __________ °C. (Nearest integer)
the percentage of nitrogen in the compound was Official Ans. by NTA (927)
found to be 42%, then __________ mL of 1 M P1 P2 300 103 1.2 106
10.
H2SO4 would have been neutralized by the T1 T2 300 T2
ammonia evolved during the analysis.
T2 = 1200 K
Official Ans. by NTA (12) T2 = 927°C
8. Organic compound : 0.8 gm
42
wt. of N 0.8 gm
100
42 0.8 2.4
mole of N mol
100 14 100
2.4
moles of NH3 =
100
2NH3 H 2SO4
(NH 4 ) 2 SO4
2.4 1.2
mole mole
100 100
1.2
1 V( )
100
1.2
VH 2SO4 = 12 m
100
6
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Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2021/25-07-2021/Evening Session
( ) ( )
r 12 - r
Sol. Tr +1 = 12 C r 21/3 . 31/4 11 x2 1
= + 4x + -4-
2 2 2
Tr+1 will be rational number
when r = 0, 3, 6, 9, 12 x2
= + 4x + 1
& r = 0, 4, 8, 12 2
ƒ(2+) = 2 + 8 + 1 = 11
Þ r = 0, 12
ƒ(2) = ƒ(2–) = 5 × 2 + 1 = 11
T1 + T13 = 1 × 33 + 1 × 24 × 1
Þ continuous at x = 2
= 24 + 16 = 43
2. The first of the two samples in a group has 100 Clearly differentiable at x = 1
items with mean 15 and standard deviation 3. If the Lf’(2) = 5
Rf’(2) = 6
whole group has 250 items with mean 15.6 and
Þ not differentiable at x = 2
standard deviation 13.44 , then the standard
deviation of the second sample is :
4. If the greatest value of the term independent of ‘x’
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 5 10
Official Ans. by NTA (3) æ cosa ö 10!
in the expansion of ç x sin a + a ÷ is ,
Sol. n1 = 100 m = 250 è x ø ( 5!)2
X1 = 15 X = 15.6 then the value of ‘a’ is equal to:
(1) –1 (2) 1 (3) –2 (4) 2
V1(x) = 9 Var(x) = 13.44
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
n1s12 + n 2 s22 n1 n 2
2 ( 1
x - x2 )
2
s2 = + r
n1 + n 2 (n 1 + n 2 ) æ a cos a ö
Sol. Tr +1 = 10 C r (x sin a)10 - r ç ÷
n2 = 150, x2 = 16 , V2(x) = s2 è x ø
ï ( 5 + 1 - t ) dt, x > 2
If f ( x ) = í ò0
5
æ a cos a ö
3. , then T6 = 10 C 5 (x sin a)5 ´ ç ÷
ï5x + 1, è x ø
î x£2
(1) f(x) is not continuous at x = 2 1
= 10 C 5 ´ a 5 ´ (sin 2a)5
25
(2) f(x) is everywhere differentiable
(3) f(x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 2 will be greatest when sin2a = 1
(4) f(x) is not differentiable at x = 1
a 5 10
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Þ 10
C5 = C5 Þ a = 2
25
1
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Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2021/25-07-2021/ Evening Session
5. Consider the statement "The match will be played Official Ans. by NTA (1)
only if the weather is good and ground is not wet". 10100
æ 1 ö
Select the correct negation from the following: Sol. Let P = ç 1 + 100 ÷ ,
è 10 ø
(1) The match will not be played and weather is
Let x = 10100
not good and ground is wet. x
(2) If the match will not be played, then either æ 1ö
Þ P = ç1 + ÷
weather is not good or ground is wet. è xø
(3) The match will be played and weather is not æ 1 ö (x)(x - 1) 1
Þ P = 1 + (x) ç ÷ + . 2
good or ground is wet. èxø 2 x
(4) The match will not be played or weather is (x)(x - 1)(x - 2) 1
+ . 3 + ...
good and ground is not wet. 3 x
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (upto 10100 + 1 terms)
Sol. p : weather is food
æ1 1 ö æ1 ö
q : ground is not wet Þ P =1 +1 + ç - 2 ÷
+ ç - ... ÷ + ... so on
è 2 2x ø è 3 ø
: (p Ù q) º ~ p Ú ~ q
º weather is not good or ground is wet æ 1 1 1 ö
Þ P = 2 + ç Positive value less then + + + ... ÷
è 2 3 4 ø
p
6. The value of cot is:
24 1 1 1 1
Also e= 1 + + + + + ...
(1) 2 + 3+2- 6 (2) 2 + 3 + 2 + 6 1 2 3 4
1 1 1
(3) 2 - 3 - 2 + 6 (4) 3 2 - 3 - 6 Þ + + + ... = e - 2
2 3 4
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Þ P = 2 + (positive value less then e – 2)
æ 3 +1ö
1 + çç ÷ Þ P Î (2, 3)
1 + cos 2q è 2 2 ÷ø
Sol. cot q = = Þ least integer value of P is 3
sin 2q æ 3 -1ö
çç ÷÷ 1
=
( )´(
2 2 + 3 +1 3 +1 )
( 3 - 1) ( 3 + 1) \I=0
9. Let a, b and c be distinct positive numbers. If
2 6 + 2 2 + 3 + 3 + 3 +1
= ˆ ˆi + kˆ and ciˆ + cjˆ + bkˆ are
the vectors aiˆ + ajˆ + ck,
2
co-planar, then c is equal to:
= 6 + 2 + 3+2
2 a+b 1 1
(1) (2) (3) + (4) ab
7. The lowest integer which is greater than 1 1 2 a b
+
10100
a b
æ 1 ö
ç 1 + 100 ÷ is ________. Official Ans. by NTA (4)
è 10 ø
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
2
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Sol. Because vectors are coplanar 4
sin q = ±
a a c 5
rr r r
Hence 1 0 1= 0 \ a.b = a b cos q
c c b
æ 3ö
= 10. ç ± =
÷ ±6
Þ c2 = ab Þ c = ab è 5ø
rr
a.b = 6
10. If [x] be the greatest integer less than or equal to x,
100 é ( -1) n n ù 13. The number of real solutions of the equation,
then å ê
n =8 ë 2 û
ú is equal to:
x2 – |x| – 12 = 0 is:
(1) 0 (2) 4 (3) –2 (4) 2 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Official Ans. by NTA (1)
100
é ( -1) n .n ù Sol. |x|2 – |x| – 12 = 0
Sol. å ê
n =8 ë 2 û
ú (|x| + 3)(|x| – 4) = 0
|x| = 4 Þ x = ±2
= 4 – 5 + 5 – 6 + 6 + … – 50 + 50 = 4
14. Consider function f : A ® B and
11. The number of distinct real roots of
sin x cos x cos x g : B ® C (A, B, C Í R) such that (gof)–1 exists,
cos x sin x cos x = 0 in the interval then:
cos x cos x sin x (1) f and g both are one-one
p p (2) f and g both are onto
- £ x £ is:
4 4 (3) f is one-one and g is onto
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (4) f is onto and g is one-one
sin x cos x cos x Official Ans. by NTA (3)
-p p
Sol. cosx sin x cosx = 0 , £x£ Sol. \ (gof)–1 exist Þ gof is bijective
4 4
cosx cosx sin x Þ ‘ƒ’ must be one-one and ‘g’ must be ONTO
Apply : R1 ® R1 – R2 & R2 ® R2 – R3 é1 0ù
sin x - cos x cos x - sin x 0 15. If P = ê ú , then P is:
50
1 1
ëê 2 úû
0 sin x - cos x cos x - sin x = 0
cos x cos x sin x é1 0 ù é1 50 ù
(1) ê ú (2) ê ú
ë 25 1 û ë0 1 û
1 -1 0
é1 25ù é1 0ù
(sin x - cosx) 2
0 1 -1 = 0 (3) ê ú (4) ê ú
cos x cos x sin x ë0 1 û ë 50 1 û
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(sinx – cosx)2(sinx + 2cosx) = 0
é1 0ù
p
\x = Sol. P = ê1 ú
4 ê 1ú
êë 2 úû
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
r r r r r r
12. If a = 2, b = 5 and a ´ b = 8 , then a × b is equal é1 0ù é 1 0ù
P2 = ê 1 ú ê1 ú = é1 0 ù
to : ê ê ú
1ú ê 1 ú ë1 1 û
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5 êë 2 úû êë 2 úû
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
r r é 1 0ù é 1 0ù
Sol. a = 2 , b = 5 é1 0 ù ê ú = ê3 ú
P =ê
3
ú ê1
r r r r ë1 1 ûê 1 ú ê 1ú
a ´ b = a b sin q = ±8 ë2 úû êë 2 úû
3
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Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2021/25-07-2021/ Evening Session
é1 0 ù é1 0 ù é1 0 ù æ 1 + cos q ö æ 1 - cos q ö
P4 = ê ú=ê B ç -2, , C ç 2,
úê ú
ë1 1 û ë1 1 û ë2 1 û è sin q ÷ø è sin q ÷ø
M æ qö
B ç -2, cot ÷
æ qö
C ç 2, tan ÷
é 1 0ù è 2ø è 2ø
\ P 50 = ê ú
ë25 1 û Equation of circle is
1 1 æ q qö
P(X = 0) = , P(X = j) = j (j = 1, 2, 3, …., ¥). x2 – 4 + y2 – ç tan + cot ÷ y + 1 = 0
2 3 è 2 2ø
Then the mean of the distribution and P(X is so, ( )
3, 0 satisfying option (1)
positive and even) respectively are:
18. Let the equation of the pair of lines, y = px and
3 1 3 1
(1) and (2) and y = qx, can be written as (y – px) (y – qx) = 0.
8 8 4 8
Then the equation of the pair of the angle bisectors
3 1 3 1
(3) and (4) and of the lines x2 – 4xy – 5y2 = 0 is:
4 9 4 16
(1) x2 – 3xy + y2 = 0 (2) x2 + 4xy – y2 = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(3) x2 + 3xy – y2 = 0 (4) x2 – 3xy – y2 = 0
¥
1 3
Sol. mean = Sxipi = å r. 3
r=0
r
=
4
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
x 2 - y 2 xy
1 1 Sol. =
p(x is even) = + + ...¥ 1 - (-5) -2
32 3 4
x 2 - y 2 xy
1 =
1/ 9 1 6 -2
= 9 = =
1 8/9 8 Þ x2 – y2 = –3xy
1-
9 Þ x2 + 3xy – y2 = 0
17. If a tangent to the ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 4 meets the 19. If n Pr = n Pr +1 and n
C r = n Cr -1 , then the value of r
tangents at the extremities of its major axis at B
is equal to:
and C, then the circle with BC as diameter passes
through the point : (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) ( 3, 0 ) (2) ( 2, 0 ) (3) (1, 1) (4) (–1, 1) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (1) n! n!
Sol. n
Pr = nPr+1 Þ =
Sol. (n - r)! (n - r - 1)!
Þ (n – r) = 1 …(1)
n n
B Cr = Cr–1
2cos qx n! n!
4
+ sin qy = 1 C Þ =
r!(n - r)! (r - 1)!(n - r + 1)!
(–2, 0) (2, 0) 1 1
Þ =
r(n - r)! (n - r + 1)(n - r)!
Þn–r+1=r
Þ n + 1 = 2r …(2)
x 2 y2 (1) Þ 2r – 1 – r = 1 Þ r = 2
+ =1
4 1
Equation of tangent is (cosq)x + 2sinqy = 2
4
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Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2021/25-07-2021/ Evening Session
20. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential é n - 1ù é 99 ù
2ê ú = 2 ê ú = 98
equation xdy = (y + x3 cosx)dx with y(p) = 0, then ë 2 û ë2û
æ pö P(x)
y ç ÷ is equal to: 2. Consider the function f ( x ) = , x¹2
è2ø sin ( x - 2 )
=7 , x=2
p2 p p2 p
(1) + (2) + Where P(x) is a polynomial such that P¢¢ (x) is
4 2 2 4
always a constant and P(3) = 9. If f(x) is
p2 p p2 p
(3) - (4) -
2 4 4 2 continuous at x = 2, then P(5) is equal to ______.
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Official Ans. by NTA (39)
Sol. xdy = (y + x3cosx)dx ì P(x)
ï , x¹2
xdy = ydx + x3cosxdx Sol. ƒ(x) = í sin(x - 2)
ï7 , x=2
xdy - ydx x 3 cos x dx î
=
x2 x2 P”(x) = const. Þ P(x) is a 2 degree polynomial
d æyö ƒ(x) is cont. at x = 2
dx çè x ÷ø ò
= x cos x dx
ƒ(2+) = ƒ(2–)
y P(x)
Þ = xsinx – ò 1.sin x dx lim+ =7
x x ®2 sin(x - 2)
y (x - 2)(ax + b)
= xsinx + cosx + C lim = 7 Þ 2a + b = 7
x x ®2 + sin(x - 2)
Þ 0 = –1 + C Þ C = 1, x = p, y = 0 P(x) = (x – 2)(ax + b)
y P(3) = (3 – 2)(3a + b) = 9 Þ 3a + b = 9
so = xsinx + cosx + 1
x
a = 2, b = 3
p
y = x2sinx + xcosx + x x=
2 P(5) = (5 – 2)(2.5 + 3) = 3.13 = 39
æ pö p p 2
yç ÷ = + 3. The equation of a circle is
è2ø 4 2 Re(z2) + 2 (Im(z))2 + 2Re(z) = 0, where z = x + iy.
SECTION-B
A line which passes through the center of the
1. Let n Î N and [x] denote the greatest integer less
given circle and the vertex of the parabola,
than or equal to x. If the sum of (n + 1) terms x2 – 6x – y + 13 = 0, has y-intercept equal to ____.
n
C 0 ,3 × n C1 ,5 × n C 2 , 7 × n C 3 ,..... is equal to 2
100
×101, Official Ans. by NTA (1)
5
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Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2021/25-07-2021/ Evening Session
r r
4. If a rectangle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle Sol. ( ar + 3b ) ^ ( 7ar - 5b )
r r
of side length 2 2 as shown in the figure, then the
( ar + 3b ) . ( 7ar - 5b ) = 0
square of the largest area of such a rectangle
r2 r2 rr
is_______. 7 a - 15 b + 16a.b = 0 …(1)
r r r r
( )(
a - 4b . 7a - 2b = 0 )
r2 r2 rr
7 a + 8 b - 30a.b = 0 …(2)
from (1) & (2)
r r
a = b
r
b
Official Ans. by NTA (3) cosq = r \ q = 60°
2a
tan 60° =
2b
Þ b=
(
3 2 2 -l ) Þ ln|y| = 2ln|lnx| + C
2 2 -l 2 put x = 2, y = (ln2)2
A = Area of rectangle = l × b Þc=0
Þ y = (lnx)2
A=l×
2
3
2 2 -l ( ) Þ ƒ(e) = 1
l. 3
dA
dl
=
2
3
(
2 2 -l -
2
=0 ) 7. If a + b + c = 1, ab + bc + ca = 2 and abc = 3, then
the value of a4 + b4 + c4 is equal to _________.
l= 2 Official Ans. by NTA (13)
Sol. a2 + b2 + c2 = (a + b + c)2 – 2Sab = –3
A=l×b= 2´
2
3
( 2) = 3
(ab + bc + ca)2 = S(ab)2 + 2abcSa
Þ S(ab)2 = –2
Þ A =32
a4 + b4 + c4 = (a2 + b2 +c2)2 – 2S(ab)2
r r r r
5. If ( a + 3b ) is perpendicular to ( 7a - 5b ) and = 9 – 2(–2) = 13
r r r r 8. A fair coin is tossed n-times such that the
( a - 4b ) is perpendicular to ( 7a - 2b ) , then the
r r probability of getting at least one head is at least
angle between a and b (in degrees) is ________. 0.9. Then the minimum value of n is _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (60) Official Ans. by NTA (4)
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Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2021/25-07-2021/ Evening Session
1
Sol. P(Head) =
2
1 – P(All tail) ³ 0.9
n
æ1ö
1 - ç ÷ ³ 0.9
è2ø
n
æ1ö 1
Þç ÷ £
è 2 ø 10
Þ nmin = 4
9. If the co-efficient of x7 and x8 in the expansion of
n
æ xö
ç 2 + ÷ are equal, then the value of n is equal to
è 3ø
_______.
Official Ans. by NTA (55)
1 n 1
Sol. n
C7 2 n -7 7
= C 8 2 n -8 8
3 3
Þ n – 7 = 48 Þ n = 55
x - k y -2 z -3
10. If the lines = = and
1 2 3
x +1 y + 2 z + 3
= = are co-planar, then the value
3 2 1
of k is _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
k +1 4 6
Sol. 1 2 3 =0
3 2 1
(k + 1)[2 – 6] – 4[1 – 9] + 6[2 – 6] = 0
k=1
7
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 27th July, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
2
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8. The figure shows two solid discs with radius R and 10. In the reported figure, there is a cyclic process
ABCDA on a sample of 1 mol of a diatomic gas.
r respectively. If mass per unit area is same for
The temperature of the gas during the process
both, what is the ratio of MI of bigger disc around A B and C D are T1 and T2 (T1 > T2)
axis AB (Which is to the plane of the disc and respectively.
P
passing through its centre) of MI of smaller disc A
5P0
around one of its diameters lying on its plane? B
Given 'M' is the mass of the larger disc. (MI stands
for moment of inertia)
A
P0 C
D
r V
D
O V0 1.5V0 3.5V0 5.5V0
C R
M Choose the correct option out of the following for
work done if processes BC and DA are adiabatic.
(1) WAB = WDC (2) WAD = WBC
B (3) WBC + WDA > 0 (4) WAB < WCD
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Sol. Polygon law is applicable in both but the equation 1 2
Sol. E = Ka
given in the reason is not useful in explaining the 2
assertion. 3E 1
K(a 2 y 2 )
12. A light cylindrical vessel is kept on a horizontal 4 2
surface. Area of base is A. A hole of cross-
3 1 2 1
sectional area 'a' is made just at its bottom side. Ka K(a 2 y 2 )
4 2 2
The minimum coefficient of friction necessary to
3a 2
prevent sliding the vessel due to the impact force y2 = a2 –
4
of the emerging liquid is (a < < A) :
a
A y=
2
14. If 'f' denotes the ratio of the number of nuclei
decayed (Nd) to the number of nuclei at t = 0 (N0)
then for a collection of radioactive nuclei, the rate
a
of change of 'f' with respect to time is given as :
[ is the radioactive decay constant]
A
(1) (2) None of these (1) – (1 – e –t) (2) (1 – e –t)
2a
2a a (3) e –t (4) –e –t
(3) (4)
A A Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. N = N0e t
Sol. For no sliding
Nd = N0 – N
f av2
mg av2 Nd = N0 (1 – e–t)
Ahg a2gh Nd
f 1 e t
N0
2a
A df
e t
Option (3) dt
13. A particle starts executing simple harmonic motion 15. Two capacitors of capacities 2C and C are joined
(SHM) of amplitude 'a' and total energy E. At any in parallel and charged up to potential V. The
3E
instant, its kinetic energy is then its battery is removed and the capacitor of capacity C
4
is filled completely with a medium of dielectric
displacement 'y' is given by :
(1) y = a constant K. The potential difference across the
a capacitors will now be :
(2) y =
2 V V
(1) (2)
a 3 K 2 K
(3) y =
2
3V 3V
(3) (4)
a K2 K
(4) y =
2
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
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2C 17. A 0.07 H inductor and a 12 resistor are
+2CV –2CV
connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac source.
The approximate current in the circuit and the
C phase angle between current and source voltage are
22
Sol. CV –CV respectively. [Take as ]
7
11
(1) 8.8 A and tan–1
6
V
11
Now, (2) 88 A and tan–1 6
11
(3) 0.88 A and tan–1 6
K 6
(4) 8.8 A and tan–1 11
2CV CV
VC
KC 2C Official Ans. by NTA (1)
3V X L L
= X
K2 Sol. tan 1 L 22
R XL 2 50 0.07 22
16. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity so that it 7
reaches a height 'h'. Find the ratio of the two
22
h tan 1 R = 12
different times of the ball reaching in both the 12
3
directions.
2 –1 1 11
(1) (2) tan 1
2 1 3 6
3– 2 3 –1
(3) (4) Z= X2L R2 = 25.059
3 2 3 1
Official Ans. by NTA (3) V 220
I 8.77A
Sol. u 2gh Z 25.059
Now, 18. Two identical tennis balls each having mass 'm'
h and charge 'q' are suspended from a fixed point by
S = a = –g
3 threads of length 'l'. What is the equilibrium
1 separation when each thread makes a small angle
S = ut + at 2
2 '' with the vertical ?
h 1 1
2gh t (g)t 2 q2l 2
3 2 (1) x =
g h 2 0 mg
t2 2gh t 0
2 3 1
g q 2l2 3
(3) x = 2
4gh 2 0 m g
2gh
t1 3 1
q2l2 3
t2 4gh (4) x =
2gh 2 2
3 2 0 m g
3 2 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
=
3 2
5
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20. A body takes 4 min. to cool from 61° C to 59°C. If
the temperature of the surroundings is 30°C, the
T
time taken by the body to cool from 51°C to 49° C
Sol. is :
q m m q (1) 4 min. (2) 3 min.
x mg
(3) 8 min. (4) 6 min.
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Tcos = mg
T
kq 2 Sol. K(Tt TS ) Tt = average temp.
Tsin= 2 t
x
TS = surrounding temp.
kq 2
tan 2 61 59 61 59
x mg K 30 ....(1)
4 2
x
as tan sin 51 49 51 49
2L K 30 ....(2)
2 t 2
x Kq
2 Divide (1) & (2)
2L x mg
t 60 30 30
q2 L
1/3
x 4 50 30 20
20mg so, t = 6 minutes
19. Assertion A : If in five complete rotations of the
circular scale, the distance travelled on main scale of the SECTION-B
screw gauge is 5 mm and there are 50 total divisions on
1. Consider an electrical circuit containing a two way
circular scale, then least count is 0.001 cm. switch 'S'. Initially S is open and then T1 is
Reason R : connected to T2. As the current in R = 6 attains a
Least Count = Pitch maximum value of steady state level, T1 is
Totaldivisionson circular scale
disconnected from T2 and immediately connected
In the light of the above statements, choose the
to T3. Potential drop across r = 3 resistor
most appropriate answer from the options given immediately after T1 is connected to T3 is______V.
below : (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
(1) A is not correct but R is correct. R = 6 T2 T3
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct S T1
explanation of A. L
6V r = 3
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
correct explanation of A.
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Sol. When T1 and T2 are connected, then the steady
6
Pitch state current in the inductor I 1A
Sol. Least count = 6
total division on circular scale
In 5 revolution, distance travel, 5 mm When T1 and T3 are connected then current
In 1 revolution, it will travel 1 mm. through inductor remains same. So potential
1 difference across 3
So least count = 0.02
50 V = Ir = 1 × 3 = 3 volt
6
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2. Suppose two planets (spherical in shape) of radii R 3. In Bohr's atomic model, the electron is assumed to
and 2R, but mass M and 9 M respectively have a revolve in a circular orbit of radius 0.5 Å. If the
centre to centre separation 8 R as shown in the speed of electron is 2.2 × 166 m/s, then the current
figure. A satellite of mass 'm' is projected from the associated with the electron will be ___________
v P Sol. Tm = 30 ms
Sol.
C = 200 F
x 8R–x
1
q Q 0 e t /RC Q 0 t RC
e
N N 0 e t N0
Acceleration due to gravity will be zero at P
Since q/N is constant hence
therefore,
1
GM G9M
RC
x 2
(8R x)2
1 T 30 10 3
8R – x = 3x R m 150
C C 200 10 6
x = 2R 5. A particle of mass 9.1 × 10–31 kg travels in a
Apply conservation of energy and consider medium with a speed of 106 m/s and a photon of a
velocity at P is zero. radiation of linear momentum 10–27 kg m/s travels
7
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h 6.6 10 34 Sol. By energy conservation
Sol. For photon 1
P 10 27 1 YA 2 1 2
. .x mv
h 6.6 10 34 2 L 2
For particle 2
mv 9.1 10 31 10 6 0.5 109 10 6 (0.04)2 20 2
v
0.1 1000
1
910
2 v2 = 400
= 6 × 10–7 Amplitude
= 600 nm AC
Sol.
7. A stone of mass 20 g is projected from a rubber
catapult of length 0.1 m and area of cross section
C–m C C+m
10–6 m2 stretched by an amount 0.04 m. The
velocity of the projected stone is __________ m/s. a b AC
(Young's modulus of rubber = 0.5 × 10 N/m ) 9 2
10 10 2
I
Sol. T = 2
MB
B = 80 × 10–4 = 8mT
9
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 27th July, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
2. The product obtained from the electrolytic (3) mol1–n Ln–1s–1 (4) mol1–n L1–n s–1
oxidation of acidified sulphate solutions, is : Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. Rate = k[A]n
(1) HSO4
comparing units
(2) HO3SOOSO3H
mol / mol
n
(3) HO2SOSO2H k
sec
(4) HO3SOSO3H
k = mol(1–n) (n–1) s–1
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Electrolysis of concentrated solution of acidified
sulphate solution yields H2S2O8.
1
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6. Given below are two statements : Sol.
Statement I : Aniline is less basic than acetamide.
Statement II : In aniline, the lone pair of electrons
on nitrogen atom is delocalised over benzene ring
due to resonance and hence less available to a
proton.
Choose the most appropriate option ;
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Explanation :- aniline is more basic than acetamide
because in acetamide, lone pair of nitrogen is
delocalised to more electronegative element
oxygen.
In Aniline lone pair of nitrogen delocalised over
benzene ring.
7. The type of hybridisation and magnetic property of
the complex [MnCl6]3–, respectively, are : 9. Which one of the following statements is NOT
correct ?
(1) sp3d2 and diamagnetic
(1) Eutrophication indicates that water body is
(2) d2sp3 and diamagnetic
polluted ?
(3) d2sp3 and paramagnetic (2) The dissolved oxygen concentration below
(4) sp3d2 and paramagnetic 6 ppm inhibits fish growth
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (3) Eutrophication leads to increase in the oxygen
level in water
Sol. [MnCl6]3–
(4) Eutrophication leads to anaerobic conditions
3 4s 4p 4d Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Mn3+ [Ar] d
Sol. Eutrophication leads to decrease in oxygen level of
sp3d2 water.
Paramagnetic and having 4 unpaired electrons. 3rd statement is incorrect
8. The number of geometrical isomers found in the 10. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Rutherford's gold foil experiment
metal complexes [PtCl2(NH3)2],
cannot explain the line spectrum of hydrogen atom.
[Ni(CO)4], [Ru(H2O)3Cl3] and [CoCl2(NH3)4]+ Statement II : Bohr's model of hydrogen atom
respectively, are : contradicts Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.
(1) 1, 1, 1, 1 (2) 2, 1, 2, 2 In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) 2, 0, 2, 2 (4) 2, 1, 2, 1 most appropriate answer from the options given
Official Ans. by NTA (2) below :
ALLEN Ans. (3) (1) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
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Sol. Rutherford's gold foil experiment only proved that Sol. furacine acts as Antiseptic
electrons are held towards nucleus by electrostatic Arsphenamine also known as salvarsan acts as
forces of attraction and move in circular orbits with antibiotic
very high speeds. Dimetone is synthetic histamine
Bohr's model gave exact formula for simultaneous valium is a Tranqulizer
calculation of speed & distance of electron from
14. The statement that is INCORRECT about Ellingham
the nucleus, something which was deemed
diagram is
impossible according to Heisenberg.
(1) provides idea about the reaction rate.
11. Presence of which reagent will affect the
(2) provides idea about free energy change.
reversibility of the following reaction, and change
it to a irreversible reaction : (3) provides idea about changes in the phases
during the reaction.
hv (4) provides idea about reduction of metal oxide.
CH4 + I2 CH3 – I + HI
Reversible
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(1) HOCl Sol. Ellingham diagram is a plot between G° and T
(2) dilute HNO2 and does not give any information regarding rate of
(3) Liquid NH3 reaction
(4) Concentrated HIO3 OH
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
H3PO4
Sol. lodination of alkane is reversible reaction. A
15. 120°C Major Product
It can be irreversible in the presence of strong
oxidising agent like conc. HNO3 or conc. HIO3
(BH3)2
12. Which one among the following chemical tests is used – P
H2O2/OH, H2O Major Product
to distinguish monosaccharide from disaccharide ?
(1) Seliwanoff's test Consider the above reaction and identify the
(2) Iodine test Product P :
(3) Barfoed test OH CH3 OH
(4) Tollen's test
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (1) (2)
Sol. Barford test is used for distinguish mono-
saccharide from disaccharide OH
CH3
13. Match List-I with List-II :
OH OH
List-I List-II
(3) (4)
(Drug) (Class of Drug)
(a) Furacin (i) Antibiotic
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(b) Arsphenamine (ii) Tranquilizers
Sol.
(c) Dimetone (iii) Antiseptic OH
(d) Valium (iv) Synthetic antihistamines
H3PO
Choose the most appropriate match : dehedration of alcohol by E1 Rxn
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) H.B.O
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) OH
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) H-attached at more hindard
site while OH attached at less
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
hindard site in H.BO. Reaction
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
3
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16. O
H3 C H CH2
N 19.
CH2=CH CH3–CH2 HCC
H N O
A B C D
H
(A) The correct order of stability of given carbocation
The compound 'A' is a complementary base of is :
__________ in DNA stands. (1) A > C > B > D (2) D >B > C > A
(1) Uracil (2) Guanine (3) D > B > A > C (4) C > A > D > B
(3) Adenine (4) Cytosine Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
CH2
Sol. Given structure is Thymine and Thymine being > CH3–CH2 > CH2 = CH > CHC
paired with adenine Sol.
+ve charge stable on less
17. Staggered and eclipsed conformers of ethane are : electronegative elements
Stable due to Resonance
(1) Polymers (2) Rotamers
(3) Enantiomers (4) Mirror images
20. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
Official Ans. by NTA (2) as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R.
Sol. Staggered and eclipsed conformers of ethane also Assertion A : Lithium halides are some what
known as rotamers covalent in nature.
18. Match List - I with List - II : Reason R : Lithium possess high polarisation
List - I List - II capability.
(a) NaOH (i) Acidic In the light of the above statements, choose the
(b) Be(OH)2 (ii) Basic most appropriate answer from the options given
(c) Ca(OH)2 (iii) Amphoteric below:
(d) B(OH)3 (1) A is true but R is false
(e) Al(OH)3 (2) A is false but R is true
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
options given below correct explanation of A
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii) (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii) explanation of A
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii) Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii), (e)-(iii) Sol. Lithium due to small size has very high
Official Ans. by NTA (2) polarization capability and thus increases covalent
Sol. NaOH Basic nature in Halides.
Be(OH)2 Amphoteric
Ca(OH)2 Basic
B(OH)3 Acidic
Al(OH)3 Amphoteric
4
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SECTION-B
Sol. m 1000
1. The density of NaOH solution is 1.2 g cm . The–3 M
molality of this solution is ________ m. 2 10 –5
= 1000 = 20 S cm2 mol–1
0.001
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
m 20 2
[Use : Atomic masses : Na : 23.0 u O : 16.0 u =
m 190 19
H : 1.0 u
Density of H2O : 1.0 g cm–3] HA H A–
5
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0.3849g 7. In gaseous triethyl amine the "–C–N–C–" bond
Sol. ncin compound = n AgCl g/mol
107.87 35.5 angle is ________ degree.
mass of chlorine = nCl × 35.5 = 0.0953 gm Official Ans. by NTA (108)
0.0953
% wt of chlorine = 100 Sol. In gaseous triethyl amine the "–C–N–C–" bond
0.5
angle is 108 degree.
= 19.06%
8. For water at 100°C and 1 bar,
OR
vap H – vap U = ________ × 102 J mol–1.
Sol. Mass of organic compound = 0.5 gm.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
mass of formed AgCl = 0.3849 gm
atomic mass of Cl mass formed AgCl [Use : R=8.31 J mol–1 K–1]
%of Cl = 100
molecular mass of AgCl mass of organic compound
[Assume volume of H2O(l) is much smaller than
35.5 0.3849 volume of H2O(g). Assume H2O(g) treated as an
100
143.37 0.5 ideal gas]
= 19.06 Official Ans. by NTA (31)
19 Sol. H2O( H2O V
)
PCl 3 Cl 2 x 1.844
2
PCl 5 3x
x2 + 1.844 – 5.532 = 0
1.844
2
1.844 4 5.532
x
2
1.604
6
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10. The difference between bond orders of CO and
x
NO is where x = _______.
2
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (0)
Sol. Bond order of CO = 3
Bond order of NO+ = 3
x
Difference = 0 =
2
x=0
7
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 27th July, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
a b a a b b b
1. If the mean and variance of the following data:
6, 10, 7, 13, a, 12, b, 12 vector product is
37
are 9 and respectively, then (a – b)2 is equal to: equal to :
4
(1) 24 (2) 12
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(3) 32 (4) 16
(1) 5 34iˆ 5jˆ 3kˆ
(2) 7 34iˆ 5jˆ 3kˆ
Sol. Mean
6 10 7 13 a 12 b 12
9 (3) 7 30iˆ 5jˆ 7kˆ (4) 5 30iˆ 5jˆ 7kˆ
8
60 + a + b = 72 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
a + b = 12 …(1) Sol. a ˆi ˆj 2kˆ
x x i 37
2 2
variance
i
b ˆi 2ˆj 3kˆ
n n 4
x i 6 10 7 13 a b2 122 122
2 2 2 2 2 2 a b 3ˆj 5kˆ ; a.b 1 2 6 7
= a2 + b2 + 642
a 2 b2 642 2 37
a a b b b
9
8 4 a a b b b b
a b
2 2
321 37
81
8 4 4 a a b 0 b
a 2 b2 37 321
81 a a b b
8 4 4
a b a.b a a.a b b
2 2
81 71
8
a2 + b2 = 80 …(2) a.b a b a.a b b
From (1) a2 + b2 + 2ab = 144
80 + 2ab = 144 2ab = 64
a.b a b
(a – b)2 = a2 + b2 – 2ab = 80 – 64 = 16 i j k
1 n (2j 1) 8n
2. The value of lim is equal to : a b 1 1 2 ˆi 5jˆ 3kˆ
j1 (2j 1) 4n
n n
1 2 3
3 2
(1) 5 loge (2) 2 loge
2 3 7 ˆi 5jˆ 3kˆ
2 3
(3) 3 2 loge
3
(4) 1 2 loge
2 a b 7 ˆi 5jˆ 3kˆ
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
7 0iˆ 3jˆ 5kˆ ˆi 5jˆ 3kˆ
2j 1
8
1 n n n
Sol. lim ˆi ˆj kˆ
n n 2 j 1
4
j1
0 3 5
n n
1 1 1 1 5 3
2x 8 4
0 2x 4 dx 0 dx 0 2x 4 dx 34iˆ 5 ˆj 3kˆ
1
1 4 n 2x 4 0
1
1
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4. The value of the definite integral 1
I0
2 2 2 2
4
dx
(1 e
x cos x
)(sin 4 x cos4 x)
5. Let C be the set of all complex numbers. Let
4 S1 = {z C | |z – 3 – 2i|2 = 8},
S2 = {z C | Re(z) > 5} and
is equal to :
S3 = {z C| | z – z | 8}.
(1) (2) (3) – (4) Then the number of elements in S1 S2 S3 is
2 2 2 4 2
equal to
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) Infinite
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
4
dx
Sol. I 1 e
x cos x
sin 4 x cos4 x
…(1) Sol.
2
S1 : z 3 2i 8
4
z 3 2i 2 2
x 3 2 y 2 2 2 2
b b 2
Using ƒ x dx ƒ a b x dx
a a
S2 : x > 5
/4
dx S3 : z z 8
I
/4
1 e x cos x
sin x cos x
4 4
2iy 8
Add (1) and (2)
2 y 8 y 4,y 4
4
dx
2I sin
4
x cos4 x
4
(5,4)
y=4
4
dx
2I 2
0
sin x cos4 x
4
4 1 tan 2 x sec 2 x
I dx
0
tan 4 x 1
1 2 x=5
1
4 sec x –4
I tan x 2
2
dx
0
tan x
1
2 n S1 S2 S3 1
tan x
6. If the area of the bounded region
1
tan x t
tan x
1
R (x,y) : max{0,loge x} y 2x , x 2
1 2 2
1 sec xdx dt
tan 2 x
is, (loge 2)–1 (loge 2) , then the value of
0 0
dt 1 t
I t
2
2 2
tan 1
2 ( 2 )2 is equal to :
2
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Official Ans. by NTA (2) (4) 2x – 7y – 39 = 0 or 2x – 7y – 7 = 0
Sol. 1
R x, y : max 0, log e x y 2 x , x 2
2 Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
2x (5,3
(–2,1) (2,1)
1/2 1 2
1 1 7y 7 2x 4
2
2
2x 7y 11 0
2x
x ln x x 1
2
Let the equation of other directrix is
ln 2 1/2
2x – 7y +
1/2
(2 ) 2 Distance of directrix from Focub
(2 ln 2 1)
loge 2 a 8
ae
2 2
2 e 53
2 ln 2 1
log e 2 a 8 3
3a or a
3 53 53
22 2 , 2 , = 1
a
()2 Distance from other focus ae
e
(22 2 2 2)2
a 10a 10 3 10
2 3a
( 2) 2 3 3 3 53 53
7. A ray of light through (2,1) is reflected at a point 2a
Distance between two directrix
e
P on the y-axis and then passes through the point
3 18
2 3
(5, 3). If this reflected ray is the directrix of an 53 53
11 18
1
ellipse with eccentricity and the distance of the 53 53
3
– 11 = 18 or – 18
8 = 29 or – 7
nearer focus from this directrix is , then the
53 2x – 7y – 7 = 0 or 2x – 7y + 29 = 0
11
equation of the other directrix can be: 1
8. If the coefficients of x7 in x 2 and x–7 in
bx
(1) 11x + 7y + 8 = 0 or 11x + 7y – 15 = 0
11
1
(2) 11x – 7y – 8 = 0 or 11x + 7y + 15 = 0 x bx 2 , b 0, are equal, then the value of b
(3) 2x – 7y + 29 = 0 or 2x – 7y – 7 = 0 is equal to:
(1) 2 (2) –1 (3) 1 (4) –2
3
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Official Ans. by NTA (3) 1
10. If sin cos , then
11 2
1
Sol. Coefficient of x7 in x 2 16(sin(2) + cos(4) + sin(6)) is equal to:
bx
r
(1) 23 (2) –27 (3) –23 (4) 27
11 r 1
11
Cr x2 . Official Ans. by NTA (3)
bx 1
Sol. sin cos
1 2
11
C r x 22 3r . r
b 1
sin cos 2sin cos
2 2
22 – 3r = 7 4
r=5 3
1 sin 2
11 C 5 . 5 .x 7 4
b Now :
11
b cos4 1 2sin2 2
Coefficient of x in x 2
–7
2
bx 3
r 1 2
11 r 1 4
11
Cr x . 2
bx 9 1
1 2
1r 16 8
11
Cr x113r . sin6 = 3sin2 – 4 sin32
br
11 3r 7 r = 6 3 4sin 2 2 .sin 2
1 9 3
11
C6 . 6 x 7 3 4 .
b 16 4
1 1 3 3 9
11
C 5 . 5 11C 6 . 6
b b 4 4 16
Since b 0 b=1
16sin2 cos4 sin6
9. The compound statement (P Q) (~ P) Q is
3 1 9
equivalent to: 16 = – 23
(1) P Q (2) P ~ Q 4 8 16
(3) ~ (P Q) (4) ~ (P Q) P ~ Q 1 2
11. Let A –1
. If A = I + , , R, I is
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 1 4
Sol. Using Truth Table a 2 × 2 identity matrix, then 4( – ) is equal to :
P Q PQ ~ P P Q P P Q ~ P Q 8
T T T F F T
(1) 5 (2) (3) 2 (4) 4
3
T F T F F T Official Ans. by NTA (4)
F T T T T T 1 2
F F F T F T Sol. A , |A| = 6
1 4
2 1
P Q ~ Q P ~ Q P Q ~ P Q
adjA 1 4 2 3 3
A 1
T T F F T F A 6 1 1 1 1
T F T T F T 6 6
F T F F T F 2 1
F F T F T F 3 3 0 2
~ P Q P ~ Q ~ P Q P ~ Q 1 1 0 4
F F T 6 6
2
T T T
3 2 1 5
F F T
1 3 6 6
F F T
6
4() = 4(1) = 4
4
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14. Let the plane passing through the point (–1, 0, –2)
12. Let f : , R be defined as and perpendicular to each of the planes 2x + y – z = 2
4 4
and x – y – z = 3 be ax + by + cz + 8 = 0. Then the
3a
value of a + b + c is equal to:
(1 | sin x |) |sin x|
, x0
4 (1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 4
f(x) b , x0 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
e cot 4x /cot 2x , 0x
Sol. Normal of req. plane 2iˆ ˆj kˆ ˆi ˆj kˆ
4
2iˆ ˆj 3kˆ
2
If f is continuous at x = 0, then the value of 6a + b Equation of plane
is equal to: –2(x + 1) + 1(y – 0) – 3(z + 2) = 0
(1) 1 – e (2) e –1 (3) 1 + e (4) e –2x + y – 3z – 8 = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 2x – y + 3z + 8 = 0
a+b+c=4
Sol. lim ƒ x b
x 0 15. Two tangents are drawn from the point P(–1, 1) to
cot 4x 1 the circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 6y + 6 = 0. If these tangents
lim xe cot 2x e 2 b touch the circle at points A and B, and if D is a
x 0
point on the circle such that length of the segments
3a 1
lim 1 sin x sin x e 3a e 2 AB and AD are equal, then the area of the triangle
x 0
ABD is equal to:
3a 1
lim 1 sin x sin x e 3a e 2 (1) 2 (2) (3 2 2)
x 0
(3) 4 (4) 3( 2 1)
1
a 6a 1 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
6
y
(6a + b2) = (1 + e) Sol.
13. Let y = y(x) be solution of the differential equation
2
Sol. x2 5 20 x 2
x4 = –5 x8 = 25 5
C1C3
8 + 8 = 50 2
19. The probability that a randomly selected 2-digit 5
number belongs to the set{n N : (2n – 2) is a r 1
5
r 1 2
multiple of 3} is equal to
2 3
1 2 1 1 r 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2
6 3 2 3
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 3
C 2 C3 5 r
2
Sol. Total number of cases = 90C1 = 90 3
r 5
Now, 2n – 2 = (3 – 1)n – 2 2
n n 1
C0 3n n C1 .3n 1 ... 1 . n Cn 1 3 1 . n Cn 2
n
3
r 5
3 3n 1 n3n 2 ... 1 .n 1 2
n 1 n
2
3 2 0 2x 4 or 2x 8
2 X = 2 (Rejected)
1 2 1 Or x = 3
2 1 1 2 0 4. Let the domain of the function
2 1
f(x) log 4 log5 log3 18x x 2 77 be (a, b).
11 2 2 1 4 2 0 Then the value of the integral
7 0 b
sin 3 x
=7
(sin3 x sin3 (a b x)) dx is equal to ________.
a
b. a c sin 3 a b x
b
I
ac a
sin 3 x sin 3 a b x
2 4 ba
a 8 and b 10
2
2I b a I
6 6 2
3 2
2 10 8
I 1
2
7
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5. Let 7. Let a plane P pass through the point (3, 7, –7) and
sin 2 x 2 cos2 x cos2x x 2 y 3 z 2
contain the line, . If distance
f(x) 2 sin x 2
cos x 2
cos2x , x [0, ] 3 2 1
sin x 2
cos x 2
1 cos2x of the plane P from the origin is d, then d2 is equal
BA ˆi 4ˆj 5kˆ
Official Ans. by NTA (6)
Sol.
2 2 0
R1 R1 R 2
Sol. 2 0 1 BA ˆi 4ˆj 5kˆ
sin x cos x 1 cos2x
2 2 & R2 R2 R3
ˆi ˆj kˆ
2 cos2 x 2 2 2cos2x sin 2 x
BA n 3 2 1
4 4cos2x 2 cos2 x sin 2 x
1 4 5
ƒ x 4 2cos2x
aiˆ bjˆ ckˆ 14iˆ ˆj 14 kˆ 14
max 1
ƒ x max 4 2 6
a = 1, b = 1, c = 1
6. Let F : [3, 5] R be a twice differentiable
Plane is (x – 2) + (y – 3) + (z + 2) = 0
function on (3, 5) such that
x x + y + z –3 = 0
F(x) e x (3t 2 2t 4F (t)) dt.
3 d 3 d2 3
e 224 8. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}. Then the number of
If F(4) , then is equal to
(e 4)2 possible functions f : S S such that f(m·n) = f(m)·f(n)
_________. for every m, n S and m · n S is equal to______.
Official Ans. by NTA (16)
Official Ans. by NTA (490)
Sol. F(3) = 0
x Sol. F(mn) = f(m). f(n)
e x F x 3t 2 2t 4F' t dt
3 Put m = 1 f(n) = f(1). f(n) f(1) = 1
e F x e F' x 3x 2x 4F' x
x x 2
Put m = n = 2
e x 4 dy e x y 3x2 2x f(2) 1 f(4) 1
dx
f 4 f 2 .f 2 or
dy ex 3x2 2x f(2) 2 f(4) 4
x y
dx e 4 ex 4
Put m = 2, n = 3
ex
3x 2 2x e e 4 dx
x
ex 4 dx
x
ye e dx
ex 4 when f(2) 1
f(3) 1 to 7
y. ex 4 3x2 2x dx c
f 6 f 2 .f 3
y e x 4 x3 x 2 c f(2) 2
Put x = 3 c = –36
f(3) 1 or 2 or3
x3 x2 36
Fx f(5), f(7) can take any value
ex 4
3x 2 2x e x 4 x 3 x 2 36 e x Total = (1 × 1 × 7 × 1 × 7 × 1 × 7)
F' x
e x 4 2 + (1 × 1 × 3 × 1 × 7 × 1 × 7)
= 490
Now put value of x = 4 we will get = 12 & = 4
8
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10. Let f : [0, 3] R be defined by
9. If y = y(x), y 0, is the solution of the
2 f(x) = min {x – [x], 1 + [x] – x}
differential equation
where [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to
dy x. Let P denote the set containing all x [0, 3] where
sec y sin(x y) sin(x y) 0 , with y(0) = 0, f is discontinuous, and Q denote the set containing all
dx
x (0, 3) where f is not differentiable. Then the sum
of number of elements in P and Q is equal to
then 5y is equal to _________. _________.
2
Official Ans. by NTA (5)
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Sol.
dy
Sol. sec y 2sin x cos y 1-{x}
dx
tany = –2cosx + 2 at x =
2
tan y = 2 0 1 2 3
dy
sec 2 y 2sin x
dx Non differentiable at
dy 1 3 5
5 2 x ,1, ,2,
dx 2 2 2
9
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 27th July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
2w R 2 g
=
(3) (4) 9
400
= m/s
81
1
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4. One mole of an ideal gas is taken through an 6. Match List I with List II.
adiabatic process where the temperature rises from
27°C to 37°C. If the ideal gas is composed of List-I List-II
polyatomic molecule that has 4 vibrational modes,
which of the following is true? (a) Capacitance, C (i) M1L1T–3A–1
[R = 8.314 J mol–1 k–1]
(b) Permittivity of free space, 0 (ii) M–1L–3T4A2
(1) work done by the gas is close to 332 J
(2) work done on the gas is close to 582 J
(c) Permeability of free space, 0 (iii) M–1L–2T4A2
(3) work done by the gas is close to 582 J
(4) work done on the gas is close to 332 J (d) Electric field, E (iv) M1L1T–2A–2
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Since, each vibrational mode, corresponds to two Choose the correct answer from the options given
degrees of freedom, hence, f = 3 (trans.) + 3(rot.) + below
8 (vib.) = 14
2 (1) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (iv), (d) (i)
& = 1
f
2 8 (2) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (ii), (d) (i)
= 1
14 7 (3) (a) (iv), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (i)
nR T
W= = –582
–1 (4) (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i)
As W < 0. work is done on the gas.
5. An object of mass 0.5 kg is executing simple Official Ans. by NTA (1)
harmonic motion. It amplitude is 5 cm and time Sol. q = CV
period (T) is 0.2 s. What will be the potential
T q (A T)2
energy of the object at an instant t s starting [C] =
4 V ML T
2 –2
1 5
(500)
2 100 = [M1L1T–2A–2]
= 0.6255
2
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7. Given below is the plot of a potential energy 9. A simple pendulum of mass 'm', length 'l' and charge
function U(x) for a system, in which a particle is in '+q' suspended in the electric field produced by two
one dimensional motion, while a conservative conducting parallel plates as shown. The value of
force F(x) acts on it. Suppose that Emech = 8 J, the deflection of pendulum in equilibrium position will be
incorrect statement for this system is :
Medium l
(K) –V1
m
+V2 +q
air
t
d
q C1 (V2 V1 )
(1) tan 1
mg (C1 C2 )(d t)
q C2 (V2 V1 )
(1) at x > x4, K.E. is constant throughout the region. (2) tan 1
(2) at x < x1, K.E. is smallest and the particle is mg (C1 C2 )(d t)
moving at the slowest speed. q C2 (V1 V2 )
(3) tan 1
(3) at x = x2, K.E. is greatest and the particle is mg (C1 C2 )(d t)
moving at the fastest speed. q C1 (V1 V2 )
(4) tan 1
(4) at x = x3, K.E. = 4 J.
mg (C1 C2 )(d t)
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. Emech. = 8J
(A) at x > x4, U = constant = 6J l
K = Emech. – U = 2J = constant
T
(B) at x < x1, U = constant = 8J Medium +qE –V1
K = Emech. – U = 8 – 8 = 0 J Sol. +V2 (K)
mg
Particle is at rest.
(C) At x = x2, U = 0 Emech. = K = 8 J d–t
KE is greatest, and particle is moving at fastest t
d
speed. Let E be electric field in air
(D) At x = x3, U=4J T sin = qE
T cos = mg
U+K=8J
qE
K=4J tan =
mg
8. A 100 resistance, a 0.1 F capacitor and an k
inductor are connected in series across a 250 V
supply at variable frequency. Calculate the value of V2 –V1
inductance of inductor at which resonance will C2 C1
occur. Given that the resonant frequency is 60 Hz. CC
(1) 0.70 H (2) 70.3 mH Q = 1 2 [V1 + V2]
C1 C 2
(3) 7.03 × 10–5 H (4) 70.3 H
Q C C V1 V2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) E= = 1 2
Sol. C = 0.1 µF = 10–7 F A o C1 C 2 A o
Resonant frequency = 60 Hz A C2 [V1 V2 ]
C1 = o E=
1 d–t (C1 C2 )(d – t)
o =
LC q.E
Now = tan–1
1 1 mg
2fo = L= q C2 (V1 V2 )
LC 4 f C
2 2
= tan 1
o
by putting values L 70.3 Hz. mg (C1 C2 )(d t)
3
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10. Two Carnot engines A and B operate in series such A A·B
that engine A absorbs heat at T1 and rejects heat to
a sink at temperature T. Engine B absorbs half of Sol. Y
B
the heat rejected by Engine A and rejects heat to
the sink at T3. When workdone in both the cases is
equal, to value of T is : Y = A·B B
2 3 1 2
(1) T1 T3 (2) T1 T3 A B Y
3 2 3 3
3 1 2 1 0 0 1
(3) T1 T3 (4) T1 T3 0 1 0
2 3 3 3
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 1 0 1
WA WB 1 1 1
F=
Gm2
= mR2
(1)
1 q
40 l 2
(2)
1 q
40 (2l 2 )
2 2 1
2
(2R)
1 G
(3)
q
40 (2l) 2
(4)
1 2q
40 2l 2
2
=
2 R3 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
14. Consider the following statements : kq
Sol. E1 = 2 = E2
A. Atoms of each element emit characteristics
spectrum. kq kq
E3 = =
B. According to Bohr's Postulate, an electron in a ( 2 )2 2 2
hydrogen atom, revolves in a certain stationary
orbit. E=
2kq
2
kq
2 2 =
kq
2 2
2 2 1
C. The density of nuclear matter depends on the
size of the nucleus. A(–q) C l D
(2)q (+q)
D. A free neutron is stable but a free proton decay
l l E3
is possible.
E. Radioactivity is an indication of the instability (+)q O G(2q)
B
of nuclei. l E1 l
Choose the correct answer from the options given E2 l l
(2q) l (q) (–q)
below :
E F H
(1) A, B, C, D and E
(2) A, B and E only 16. A physical quantity 'y' is represented by the
(3) B and D only
3
of 9.0 × 103 km. Find the mass of Mars. at 100°C is 20. What will be the temperature
coefficient of resistance of the conductor?
42
Given 6 1011 N1 m 2 kg2 (1) 0.010°C–1
G
19 21
(2) 0.033°C–1
(1) 5.96 × 10 kg (2) 3.25 × 10 kg
25
(3) 0.003°C–1
(3) 7.02 × 10 kg (4) 6.00 × 1023 kg
(4) 0.042°C–1
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. Option D is correct
Sol. 16 = Ro [1+ (15 – To ]
4 2 3
T2 = ·r 20 = Ro [1+ (100 – To ]
GM
Assuming To = 0°C, as a general convention.
4 2 r 3
M= · 16 1 15
G T2
20 1 100
by putting values
= 0.003 °C–1
23
M = 6 × 10
6
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SECTION-B 3. The maximum amplitude for an amplitude
1. In the given figure, two wheels P and Q are modulated wave is found to be 12V while the
minimum amplitude is found to be 3V. The
connected by a belt B. The radius of P is three
modulation index is 0.6x where x is ______.
times as that of Q. In case of same rotational Official Ans. by NTA (1)
I Sol. Amax = Ac + Am = 12
kinetic energy, the ratio of rotational inertias 1 Amin = Ac – Am = 3
I2 15 9
Ac = & Am =
will be x : 1. The value of x will be _____. 2 2
Am 9 / 2
modulation index = 0.6
Ac 15 / 2
Q x=1
P R 4. In the given figure the magnetic flux through the
3R
loop increases according to the relation
B B(t) = 10t2+ 20t, where B is in milliwebers and t
is in seconds.
Official Ans. by NTA (9) The magnitude of current through R = 2 resistor
v at t = 5 s is ______ mA.
v
× × × × ×
1 2 R=2
Sol.
P Q × × × × ×
R
3R v
× × × × ×
1 1 × × × × ×
I1 (1 )2 I 2 (2 )2
2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (60)
2 2
v v d
I1 I2 R Sol. || = 20t 20 mV
3R dt
I1 9 ||
|i| = 10t 10 mA
I2 1 R
at t = 5
2. The difference in the number of waves when |i| = 60 mA
yellow light propagates through air and vacuum 5. A particle executes simple harmonic motion
columns of the same thickness is one. The represented by displacement function as
thickness of the air column is ______ mm. x(t) = A sin (t + )
[Refractive index of air = 1.0003, wavelength of If the position and velocity of the particle at
yellow light in vacuum = 6000 Å] t = 0 s are 2 cm and 2 cm s–1 respectively, then its
Official Ans. by NTA (2) amplitude is x 2 cm where the value of x is ____.
Sol. Thickness t = n Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. x(t) = A sin (t + )
So, n vac = (n + 1) air v(t) = A cos (t + )
2 = A sin ......(1)
n = (n + 1)
µair 2 = A cos ......(2)
From (1) and (2)
1 104 tan = 1
n=
µair – 1 3 = 45°
Putting value of in equation (1)
t = n
1
10 4 2 = A
= 6000Å 2
3
A= 2 2
= 2 mm x=2
7
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6. A swimmer wants to cross a river from point A to Sol. From graph voltage at t = 3.2 sec is 6 volt.
point B. Line AB makes an angle of 30° with the
flow of river. Magnitude of velocity of the R=1
swimmer is same as that of the river. The angle
6V
with the line AB should be ____°, so that the 5V
swimmer reaches point B. i
B
6–5
i
1
i=1A
30° 8. A small block slides down from the top of
A hemisphere of radius R = 3 m as shown in the
figure. The height 'h' at which the block will lose
Official Ans. by NTA (30)
contact with the surface of the sphere is ____m.
v R
(Assume there is no friction between the block and
Sol. the hemisphere)
30°
v
Both velocity vectors are of same magnitude A (R–h)
R
therefore resultant would pass exactly midway h
through them O
= 30°
7. For the circuit shown, the value of current at time Official Ans. by NTA (2)
t = 3.2 s will be ______ A.
(R–h)
Sol. R R
mgsin h
mg
mv2
mg cos = ....(1)
R
h
cos =
R=1 R
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9. The K X-ray of molybdenum has wavelength 10. The water is filled upto height of 12 m in a tank
0.071 nm. If the energy of a molybdenum atoms having vertical sidewalls. A hole is made in one of
with a K electron knocked out is 27.5 keV, the the walls at a depth 'h' below the water level. The
energy of this atom when an L electron is knocked value of 'h' for which the emerging stream of water
strikes the ground at the maximum range is ___ m.
out will be ______ keV. (Round off to the nearest
integer) Official Ans. by NTA (6)
hc (12–h)
Ek – EL
k
(12 – h) 2
hc R= 2gh
EL Ek – g
k
4h 12 – h = R
12.42 10 –7 eVm
= 27.5 KeV – For maximum R
0.071 10 –9 m
dR
EL = (27.5 – 17.5) keV =0
dh
= 10 keV
h = 6m
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 27th July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
1
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(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct In the light of the above statements, choose the
explanation of A. correct answer from the options given below :
(3) A is not correct but R is correct. (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(4) A is correct but R is not correct. (2) Both statement I and statement II are false
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
Sol. Gases having higher critical temperature absorb to (4) Both statement I and statement II are are true
a greater extent. Official Ans. by NTA (4)
6. The CORRECT order of first ionisation enthalpy is : Mn CN 6
3–
Fe CN 6
3–
Co C2O4 3
3–
Sol.
(1) Mg < S < Al < P (2) Mg < Al < S < P
(3) Al < Mg < S < P (4) Mg < Al < P < S
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Mn3+ CN– Fe3+, CN– Co3+, C2O24
Sol. Mg Al P S IE. order Al< Mg < S < P d4 configuration, SFL d5 configuration, SFL d6
Mg A P S configuration, Chelating ligand
Valence [Ne] : 3s2 3s2 3p1 3s2 3p3 3s2 3p4
All will have larger splitting hence d2sp3
hybridisation
Full Half
MnCl6 Fe F6
3– 3–
and
Filled Filled
d4 configuration, Cl– d5 configuration, F–
Stable Stable
WFL WFL
7. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Hyperconjugation is a permanent
effect.
Statement II : Hyperconjugation in ethyl cation 4 unpaired 5 unpaired
electrons electrons
CH3 CH 2 involves the overlapping of
9. To an aqueous solution containing ions such as
Csp2 H1s bond with empty 2p orbital of other Al3+, Zn2+, Ca2+, Fe3+, Ni2+, Ba2+ and Cu2+ was
carbon. added conc. HCl, followed by H2S.
Choose the correct option : The total number of cations precipitated during this
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false reaction is/are :
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(4) Both Statement I and statement II are true. Sol. Al3+ and Fe3+ sulphides hydrolyse in water.
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Ni2+ and Zn2+ require basic medium with H2S
Sol. Statement I : It is correct statement to form ppt
Ca2+ and Ba2+ sulphides are soluble
Statement II : CH3 – CH 2 involve C sp3 – H1s hence we will receive only CuS ppt.
bond with empty 2p orbital hence given statement 10. Given below are two statements :
is false. Statement I : Penicillin is a bacteriostatic type
8. Given below are two statements : antibiotic.
Statement I : [Mn(CN)6]3–, [Fe(CN)6]3– and Statement II : The general structure of Penicillin is:
[Co(C2O4)3]3– are d2sp3 hybridised.
Statement II : [MnCl6]3– and [FeF6]3– are
paramagnetic and have 4 and 5 unpaired electrons,
respectively.
2
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O OH
Conc.
R N S CH3 H2SO4
H +
CH3 13.
A B
N
O H COOH consider the above reaction, and choose the correct
statement :
Choose the correct option :
(1) The reaction is not possible in acidic medium
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(2) Both compounds A and B are formed equally
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true (3) Compound A will be the major product
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true (4) Compound B will be the major product
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is false Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Sol.
Sol. Statement I : Pencillin is bactericidal not H
bacteriostatic hence given statement is false. OH +O–H
Statement II : Structure of pencilline given is
correct H
S (from H2SO4)
CH3
R–C–NH CH3 –H2O
O N
O COOH CH=CH–CH3
11. Compound A gives D-Galactose and D-Glucose on –H2SO4
Show GI H
hydrolysis. The compound A is : HSO4
(1) Amylose (2) Sucrose
(3) Maltose (4) Lactose
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (A) (B)
Sol. Lactose : It is a disaccharide of –D–Galactose [Trans]
(More stable product) [cis]
and –D–Glucose with C1 of galactose and C4 of (Saytzeff's Alkene)
glucose link. (Major)
Lactose : –D–Galactose + –D–Glucose
(i) DIBAL H 14. Match List - I with List - II :
12. R – CN
(ii) H O
R–Y
2 List - I List - II
Consider the above reaction and identify "Y" (compound) (effect/affected species)
(1) –CH2NH2 (2) –CONH2 (a) Carbon monoxide (i) Carcinogenic
(3) –CHO (4) –COOH (b) Sulphur dioxide (ii) Metabolized by
Official Ans. by NTA (3) pyrus plants
(1) DiBAL–H (c) Polychlorinated (iii) Haemoglobin
Sol. R–CN R–CH
(2) H2O biphenyls
O
(d) Oxides of Nitrogen (iv) Stiffness of
Here Y is –C–H Aldehyde flower buds
O Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
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15. If the Thompson model of the atom was correct, 18. What is A in the following reaction ?
then the result of Rutherford's gold foil experiment
O
would have been :
(1) All of the -particles pass through the gold foil (i) NK
CH2Br
without decrease in speed.
O A
(2) -Particles are deflected over a wide range of angles.
(ii) OH/H2O (Major Product)
(3) All -particles get bounced back by 180o
(4) -Particles pass through the gold foil deflected
by small angles and with reduced speed. O
Official Ans. by NTA (4) NH–CH2
(1)
Sol. As in Thomson model, protons are diffused
(charge is not centred) - particles deviate by
CH2OH
small angles and due to repulsion from protons,
(2)
their speed decreases.
16. Number of Cl = O bonds in chlorous acid, chloric
O
acid and perchloric acid respectively are :
(1) 3, 1 and 1 (2) 4, 1 and 0 (3) NH
(3) 1, 1 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3
O
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. Number of Cl = O bonds
HClO2 HClO3 HClO4
CH2NH2
O O O
(4)
Cl Cl Cl
H O H O H
O O O
O
Perchloric acid
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Chlorous acid Chloric acid
3
Sol.
1 2
17. Select the correct statements.
O
(A) Crystalline solids have long range order. CH2–Br
(B) Crystalline solids are isotropic. + N
(C) Amorphous solid are sometimes called pseudo solids. O
(D) Amorphous solids soften over a range of SN2
HO O
temperatures. H
(E) Amorphous solids have a definite heat of fusion. CH2–N
Choose the most appropriate answer from the O
H
options given below. OH
(1) (A), (B), (E) only HO H2O
O
(2) (B), (D) only CH2– NH2
(3) (C), (D) only OH
+
OH
(4) (A), (C), (D) only
(Benzyl amine)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) O
(Pthalic acid)
Sol. (A) Crystalline solids have definite arrangement of
constituent particles and have long range order.
(C), (D) Different constituent particles of an
amorphous solid have different bond strengths and
soften over a range of temperatures.
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19. The correct sequence of correct reagents for the SECTION-B
following transformation is :- 1. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
NO2 OH
1
A(s) M(s) O2 (g)
2
Cl 400 0.2
Sol. n H 2 0.16
1000
20. The addition of silica during the extraction of
copper from its sulphide ore :- 600 0.1
(1) converts copper sulphide into copper silicate n OH – 0.06 (L.R)
1000
(2) converts iron oxide into iron silicate
(3) reduces copper sulphide into metallic copper Now, heat liberated from reaction
(4) reduces the melting point of the reaction
mixture = heat gained by solutions
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
or, 0.06 × 57.1 × 103
Sol. Silica is used to remove FeO impurity from the ore
of copper = (1000 × 1.0) × 4 .18 × T
FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3
T = 0.8196 K
iron silicate
(Slag) = 81.96 ×10–2 K 82 × 10–2 K
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3. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) 6. 3 moles of metal complex with formula Co(en)2Cl3
The above reaction is carried out in a vessel gives 3 moles of silver chloride on treatment with
starting with partial pressure PSO2 250 m bar , excess of silver nitrate. The secondary valency of
Co in the complex is _____.
PO2 750m bar and PSO3 0 bar . When the
(Round off to the nearest integer)
reaction is complete, the total pressure in the
Official Ans. by NTA (6)
reaction vessel is _____ m bar. (Round off of the
nearest integer). Sol. 3 Co en 2 Cl2 C AgNO3 3AgCl
(excess) (white ppt.)
Official Ans. by NTA (875)
Secondary valency of Co = 6
Sol. 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
(C. N.)
Initial 250 m bar 750 m bar O
7. In a solvent 50% of an acid HA dimerizes and the
( L. R.) rest dissociates. The van't Hoff factor of the acid is
Final –250 m bar – 125 m bar 250 m bar _____ × 10–2.
________ __________ ________ (Round off to the nearest integer)
0 625 m bar 250 m bar Official Ans. by NTA (125)
Final total pressure = 625 + 250 = 875 m bar Sol. 2HA H2A2 HA H A
4. 10.0 mL of 0.05 M KMnO4 solution was consumed
50 50
in a titration with 10.0 mL of given oxalic acid Initial moles a 0 a 0 0
100 100
dihydrate solution. The strength of given oxalic
acid solution is ........ × 10–2 g/L. Final moles 0 0.25 a 0 0.5a 0.5a
(Round off to the nearest integer) final moles 0.25a 0.5a 0.5a
Now, i =
initial moles 0.5a 0.5a
Official Ans. by NTA (1575)
Sol. neq KMnO4 = neq H2C2O4 . 2H2O = 1.25 = 125 × 10–2
10 0.05 10 M
8. The dihedral angle in staggered form of Newman
or , 5 = 2 projection of 1, 1, 1-Trichloro ethane is .........
1000 1000
degree. (Round off to the nearest integer)
Conc. of oxalic acid solution = 0.125 M
(Round off to the nearest integer)
= 0.125 × 126 g /L = 15.75 g/L
Official Ans. by NTA (60)
= 1575 ×10–2 g/L
Sol. 1,1,1–Trichloro ethane [CCl3–CH3]
5. The total number of electrons in all bonding
Cl
H H
molecular orbitals of O22 is ........ .
Dihedral angle() = 60°
(Round off to the nearest integer)
Cl Cl
Official Ans. by NTA (10)
H
Sol. M. O. Configuration of O22 ( 18e (Newmonns stqqared form)
* *
1s2 1s2 2s2 2s2 2p 2z 2p 2x 2p 2y
* *
2p 2x = 2p 2y
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9. For the first order reaction A 2B, 1 mole of 10. For the cell
reactant A gives 0.2 moles of B after 100 minutes.
The half life of the reaction is ...... min. (Round off Cu(s) | Cu2+(aq) (0.1M) || Ag+ (aq) (0.01M) | Ag(s)
to the nearest integer).
the cell potential E1 = 0.3095 V
[Use : ln 2 = 0.69, ln 10 = 2.3
For the cell
y
Properties of logarithms : ln x = y ln x;
Cu(s) | Cu2+ (aq) (0.01 M) || Ag+(aq) (0.001 M) | Ag(s)
x the cell potential = ______ × 10–2 V. (Round off
ln ln x ln y]
y the Nearest Integer).
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 27th July, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
3
10 20
1 1
log3 5 1
sin(k)sin(k f (k))
x 1
log3 5 1
1
8
x 1
(1) cosec2(21) cos(20) cos(2)
the increasing powers of 3 is equal to
(2) sec2(1) sec(21) cos(20)
180, is : (3) cosec2(1) cosec(21) sin(20)
(1) 0 (2) –1 (3) 2 (4) 1 (4) sec2(21) sin(20) sin(2)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
1
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Sol. f(x) = cos x 3
,
4 4
1
f 1
2 5
2
2
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1 7
Sol. x tan tan
2 9 18
Sol.
5
and 2y tan tan
9 18
1 7 1
so, x 2y tan tan
2 9 18
5 –1 2
tan tan
9 18
y – x = 2 , x2 = y
cot tan
|x – 2y| 9 9 tan 5 Now, x2 = 2 + x
2 18 x2 – x – 2 = 0
2 2 (x + 1)(x – 2) = 0
cot cot 0 2
9 9
(2 x x )
2
Area =
5 2 7 1
as tan cot ;tan cot 2
18 9 18 9 x 2 x3
2x
8. Let the mean and variance of the frequency 2 3 1
distribution 8 1 1
= 4 2 2
x: x1 = 2 x2 = 6 x3 = 8 x4 = 9 3 2 3
f: 4 4 1 9
=6–3+2– =
be 6 and 6.8 respectively. If x3 is changed from 8 2 2
to 7, then the mean for the new data will be: 10. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
equation (x – x3)dy = (y + yx2 – 3x4)dx, x > 2.
(1) 4 (2) 5
If y(3) = 3, then y(4) is equal to :
17 16 (1) 4 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 16
(3) (4)
3 3 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Sol. (x – x3)dy = (y + yx2 – 3x4)dx
xdy – ydx = (yx2 – 3x4)dx + x3dy
Sol. Given 32 + 8 + 9 = (8 + + ) × 6
xdy ydx
2 + 3 = 16 …(i) = (ydx + xdy) – 3x2dx
x2
Also, 4 × 16 + 4 × + 9 = (8 + + ) × 6.8
y
640 + 40 + 90 = 544 + 68 + 68 d = d(xy) – d(x3)
x
28 – 22= 96 Integrate
14 – 11 = 48 …(ii) y
= xy – x3 + c
from (i) & (ii) x
=5&=2 given ƒ(3) = 3
32 35 18 85 17 3
so, new mean = = 3 × 3 – 33 + c
15 15 3 3
c = 19
9. The area of the region bounded by y – x = 2 and
y
x2 = y is equal to :- = xy – x3 + 19
x
16 2 9 4
(1) (2) (3) (4) y
3 3 2 3 at x = 4, = 4y – 64 + 19
4
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
15y = 4 × 45
y = 12
3
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x Sol. Both the lines pass through origin.
11. The value of lim 8 is equal
1 sin x 1 sin x
8
x0
to : D C
(1) 0 (2) 4 (3) – 4 (4) –1
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
x (0,0)A 7x + 2y = 0 B
Sol. lim 8
1 sin x 1 sin x
x 0 8
= lim 8
x
point D is equal of intersection of 4x + 5y = 0 &
1 sin x 1 sin x
x 0 8
11x + 7y = 9
5 4
= lim 8
x So, coordinates of point D ,
3 3
x 0
1 sin x 8
1 sin x
Also, point B is point of intersection of 7x + 2y = 0
8 1 sin x 8 1 sin x & 11x + 7y = 9
8
1 sin x 1 sin x
8
2 7
So, coordinates of point B = ,
3 3
4 1 sin x 4 1 sin x
4 diagonals of parallelogram intersect at middle
1 sin x 4 1 sin x let middle point of B,D
2 1 sin x 2 1 sin x 5 2 4 7
2
1 1
3 3 , 3 3 ,
1 sin x 2 1 sin x 2 2 2 2
x equation of diagonal AC
= lim
x 0 1 sin x 1 sin x
1
0
y 0 0
8 1 sin x 8 1 sin x 4 1 sin x 4 1 sin x 1
0
2 1 sin x 2 1 sin x y=x
x diagonal AC passes through (2, 2).
lim 8 1 sin x 8 1 sin x
x 0 2sin x 13. Let max 82sin 3x 44cos3x and
xR
1
= lim (2) (2) (2)
x 0 2 lim
x 0
sin x
x
1 = –4 quadratic equation whose roots are 1/5 and 1/5 ,
then the value of c – b is equal to :
12. Two sides of a parallelogram are along the lines (1) 42 (2) 47 (3) 43 (4) 50
4x + 5y = 0 and 7x + 2y = 0. If the equation of one Official Ans. by NTA (1)
of the diagonals of the parallelogram is Sol. = max 82sin 3x 44cos3x
11x + 7y = 9, then other diagonal passes through
max 26sin3x 28cos3x
the point :
max 26sin 3x 8cos3x
(1) (1,2) (2) (2,2) (3) (2,1) (4) (1,3)
and min 82sin 3x 44cos3x = min 26sin3x 8cos3x
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Now range of 6 sin 3x + 8 cos 3x
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15. Let N be the set of natural numbers and a relation
= 62 82 , 62 82 10,10
R on N be defined by
= 210 & = 2–10
R = {(x,y) N × N : x3 – 3x2y – xy2 + 3y3 = 0}.
1/5 2
So, =2 =4 Then the relation R is :
1/5 –2
= 2 = 1/4 (1) symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
quadratic 8x2 + bx + c = 0, c – b = (2) reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
8 (product of roots sum of roots (3) reflexive and symmetric, but not transitive
(4) an equivalence relation
1 1 21
= 8 4 4 = 8 42 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
4 4 4
14. Let ƒ : [0, ) [0, 3] be a function defined by Sol. x3 – 3x2y – xy2 + 3y3 = 0
max sin t : 0 t x , 0 x x(x2 – y2) – 3y (x2– y2) = 0
ƒ x
2 cos x, x (x – 3y) (x – y) (x + y) = 0
Then which of the following is true ? Now, x = y (x,y) N N so reflexive
(1) ƒ is continuous everywhere but not differentiable
But not symmetric & transitive
exactly at one point in (0, )
See, (3,1) satisfies but (1,3) does not. Also (3,1) &
(2) ƒ is differentiable everywhere in (0, )
(1,–1) satisfies but (3, –1) does not
(3) ƒ is not continuous exactly at two points in (0, )
16. Which of the following is the negation of the
(4) ƒ is continuous everywhere but not differentiable
exactly at two points in (0, ) statement "for all M > 0, there exists xS such that
Official Ans. by NTA (2) x M" ?
Sol. Graph of max{ sin t : 0 t x } in x [0, ] (1) there exists M > 0, such that x < M for all xS
(2) there exists M > 0, there exists xS such that x M
(3) there exists M > 0, there exists xS such that x < M
(4) there exists M > 0, such that x M for all xS
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2 Sol. P : for all M > 0, there exists x S such that x M .
& graph of cos for x [, ) ~ P : there exists M > 0, for all x S
Such that x < m
y
Negation of ‘there exsits’ is ‘for all’.
17. Consider a circle C which touches the y-axis at
(0, 6) and cuts off an intercept 6 5 on the x-axis.
Then the radius of the circle C is equal to :
So graph of (1) 53 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 82
max{sin t : 0 t x, 0 x Official Ans. by NTA (2)
f (x)
2 cos x xh
Sol.
y (0,6)
r 6
3 5
x
r 62 3 5
2
2
f(x) is differentiable everywhere in 0,
36 45 9
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18. Let a,b and c be three vectors such that 20. Let ƒ : (a,b) R be twice differentiable function
x
a b b c . If magnitudes of the vectors a,b such that ƒ(x) = g t dt for a differentiable
a
and c are 2,1 and 2 respectively and the angle function g(x). If ƒ(x) = 0 has exactly five distinct
roots in (a, b), then g(x)g'(x) = 0 has at least :
between band c is 0 , then the value (1) twelve roots in (a, b) (2) five roots in (a, b)
2
(3) seven roots in (a, b) (4) three roots in (a, b)
of 1+ tan is equal to : Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(1) 3 1 (2) 2
3 1 Sol.
(3) 1 (4) a b
3
x
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
f (x) g(t)dt
Sol. a b c b b.b c a
f x 5
1.2cos b c
f '(x) 4
a 2cos b c
g(x) 4
| a | 2cos 2 2.2cos b c
2 2 2
g'(x) 3
2 4cos2 4 4cos 2cos SECTION-B
1. Let a ˆi ˆj kˆ , b 3iˆ ˆj kˆ and
2 4cos2
1 c ˆi 2ˆj kˆ , where and are integers.
cos 2
2 If a . b 1 and b c 10 , then a b c is
sec2 2 equal to____ .
Official Ans. by NTA (9)
tan 2 1
Sol. a 1,
4 b 3, ,
1 + tan = 2. c , 2,1 ; I
19. Let A and B be two 3 × 3 real matrices such that
a.b 1 3 – –
(A2 –B2) is invertible matrix. If A5 = B5 and
3 2 2 3
A B = A B , then the value of the determinant of 1 2
the matrix A3+B3 is equal to : 2 1
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 0 1 2
2 1
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
b c 10
Sol. C A2 B2 ;| C | 0
–3 – 2 – = 10
A5 = B5 and A3B2 = A2B2 2 + + 5 = 0
Now, A5 – A3B2 = B5 – A2B3 = –2;
A3 A 2 B2 B3 A 2 B2 0 1 2 1
a b c 3 1 2
A3 B3 A2 B2 0 2 2 1
Post multiplying inverse of A2 – B2 : = 1(–1 + 4) – 2 (3 – 4) – 1(– 6 + 2)
A3 + B3 = 0 =3+2+4=9
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2. The distance of the point P(3, 4, 4) from the point x 3 2 y 4
2
Hence, PT = 7.
is equal to _____ .
3. If the real part of the complex number
3 2 i cos Official Ans. by NTA (5)
z= , 0, is zero, then the value
1 3 i cos 2 /2
I 2 sin 3 x e sin x dx
2
2 2
of sin 3 + cos is equal to______. Sol.
0
Sol. Re (z) = 0
1 9cos 2 0 0 I II
/2
/2
2 sin xe sin x dx cos x e sin x 0
2 2
4
0
Hence, sin2 3 + cos2 = 1.
/ 2
4. Let E be an ellipse whose axes are parallel to the
sin x e sin
2
x
dx
co-ordinates axes, having its center at (3, – 4), one 0
2 1 1
Sol. Given C(3,–4), S(4,–4) 1 (Put –sin2 x = t)
1
3 ex
2e 0 x
= dx 1 (put 1 + = x)
A
C S
1
3 x 1
2e 0
e dx 1
x
II
II
and A(5,–4)
1
Hence, a = 2 & ae = 1 3 x
e 0
= 2 e x dx
1
e
2
Hence, 5
b2 = 3.
7
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6. The number of real roots of the equation Sol. N = 210 × 510 × 1111 × 1313
e dy ex dx
y
Sol.
So, A (B C) {7,13,19,...,97}
e x
e–y = c ...(i) 16
Hence, sum = 7 97 832
2
Put (x,y) = (n2, n2)
1 1 1
1 2 10. If A 0 1 1 and M = A + A2 +A3+…..+A20,
C ...(ii) 0 0 1
2
Put (x,y) 0, n2 in (i) then the sum of all the elements of the matrix M is
1 equal to______.
2 C ...(iii)
Official Ans. by NTA (2020)
(ii) – (iii)
n2 n
2 1 3 1 n
2
2 Sol. A n 0 1 n
0 0 1
2 (as )