MEHAR COMPLEX, SAMALKOT MAX.MARKS- 160.

M
DATE: 06-08-2021 SR. EAMCET GRAND TEST – 5
MAX.TIME – 3.00 HR

MATHEMATICS
1. If the roots of 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑎 = 0 exceed a, then
1) 2 < 𝑎 < 3 2) 𝑎 < 3 3) −3 < 𝑎 < 3 4) 𝑎 < −2
2. If 𝑥 + 4𝑦 − 8𝑥 + 12 = 0 is satisfied by real values of 𝑥 and 𝑦 then 𝑥 must
lies between
1) 2, 6 2) 2, 5 3) – 1, 1 4) – 2, - 1
3. The value of 𝑏 so that 𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 5𝑥 − 33𝑥 + 𝑏 is divisible by 𝑥 − 5𝑥 + 6 is
1) 45 2) 48 3) 51 4) 54
4. If 𝐴, 𝐵 are symmetric matrices of the same order than 𝐴𝐵 − 𝐵𝐴 is
1) A symmetric matrix 2) Skew – symmetric matrix
3) Diagonal matrix 4) None
𝑝 𝑏 𝑐
5. If 𝑎 ≠ 𝑝, 𝑏 ≠ 𝑞, 𝑐 ≠ 𝑟 and 𝑎 𝑞 𝑐 = 0, then the value of + + =
𝑎 𝑏 𝑟
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
𝑎 𝑏 𝑎𝛼 + 𝑏
6. If 𝑏 𝑐 𝑏𝛼 + 𝑐 = 0, then
𝑎𝛼 + 𝑏 𝑏𝛼 + 𝑐 0
1) a, b, c are in A.P 2) a, b, c are in G.P
3) a, b, c in H.P 4) a, c, b are in A.P
1 −1 1 4 2 2
7. Let 𝐴 = 2 1 −3 and (10)𝐵 = −5 0 𝛼 if B is the inverse of
1 1 1 1 −2 3
matrix A, then 𝛼 is
1) – 2 2) 5 3) 2 4) – 1
8. If 𝑙 + 𝑚 + 𝑛 = 1 etc….. and 𝑙 𝑙 + 𝑚 𝑚 + 𝑛 𝑛 = 0 etc….. and ∆=
𝑙 𝑚 𝑛
𝑙 𝑚 𝑛 , then
𝑙 𝑚 𝑛
1) ∆= 0 2) |∆| = 2 3) |∆| = 3 4) |∆| = 1
9. The number of words of four letter containing equal number of vowels and
consonants where repetition is allowed is
1) 1052 2) 210 x 243 3) 105 x 243 4) 150 x 212
10. A crew of an 8 – boat is to be chosen from 12 men, of who 3 can row always
on the stroke - side only. The number of ways in which the crew can be
arranged is 1)
𝐶 × 𝐶 2) 𝐶 × 𝐶 × 4! × 4!
3) 9! 4) 𝐶 × 𝐶 × 4! × 4!
11. If 𝑆 = ∑ .
and 𝑡 = ∑ , then =

1) 𝑛 2) 3) 𝑛 − 1 4) 𝑛 − 1
12. Mean deviation of 6, 8, 12, 15, 10, 9 through mean is
1) 10 2) 2.33 3) 2 4) 4
13. The result of conducting an examination in two papers A and B for 20
candidates were recorded as under : ‘’8 passed in paper A;7 passed in paper
B;8 failed in both A and B. If one is selected at random’’, the probability
that the candidate passed in both papers A and B is
1) 3/20 2) 1/20 3) 1/5 4) 1/4
14. Three numbers are selected at random without replacement form the set of
number{1, 2, … , 𝑛}. The conditional probability that the third number lays
between the first two. If the first number is known to be smaller than the
second is
1) 1/6 2) 1/3 3) 1/2 4) 1/9
15. A car is parked by a driver amongst 25 cars in a row, not at either end. When
he returns he finds that 10 places are empty. The probability that both
neighboring places of driver’s car are vacant is
1) 9/92 2) 15/92 3) 21/92 4) 27/92
16. The range of a random variable 𝑋 = {1, 2, 3, … . } and the probabilities are
given by 𝑝(𝑥 = 𝑘) = (𝑘 = 1, 2, 3, … . ) and c is a constant. Then 𝑐 =
!
( )
1) log(log 2) 2) log (log 2) 3) 4) log (log 3)
17. Twenty identical coins each with probability p of showing heads are tossed.
The probability of heads showing on 10 coins is same that of heads showing on
 11 coins. The 𝑝 =
1) 10/11 2) 10/21 3) 11/21 4) 11/20
18. Cycle tyres are supplied in lots of 10 and there is a chance of i in 500 tyres
to be defective using Poisson’s distribution the approximate number of lots
containing no defective tyres in a consignment of 10,000 lots is
1) 9980 2) 9998 3) 9802 4) 9982
19. Let 𝑓(𝑥 ) = 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏, 𝑎 < 0, then 𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 𝑓 (𝑥 ), ∀𝑥 if and only if
1) 𝑎 = −1, 𝑏 ∈ 𝑅 2) 𝑎 = −2, 𝑏 = 4
3) 𝑎 = −3, 𝑏 ∈ 𝑅 4) 𝑎 ∈ 𝑅, 𝑏 = 3
20. Sum of the series 𝑆 = 1 − 2 + 3 − 4 + ⋯ − 2002 + 2003 is
1) 2007006 2) 1005004 3) 2000506 4) 2000508
21. If P is a point on the line passing through the point A with position vector
2𝑖 + 𝑗 − 3𝑘 and parallel to 𝑖 + 2𝑗 + 𝑘 such that 𝐴𝑃 = 2√6 then the position
vector of P is
1) 4𝑖 + 5𝑗 + 𝑘 2) 3𝑗 + 5𝑘 3) 4𝑖 + 5𝑗 − 𝑘 4) 3𝑗 − 4𝑘
22. The distance between the line 𝑟 = 2𝑖 − 2𝑗 + 3𝑘 + 𝜆(𝑖 − 𝑗 + 4𝑘) and the plane.
𝑟. (𝑖 + 5𝑗 + 𝑘) = 5 is
1) 10/9 2) 10/3√3 3) 3/10 4) 10/3
23. The values of c so that for all real 𝑥, the vectors 𝑐𝑥𝑖 − 6𝑗 + 3𝑘, 𝑥𝑖 + 2𝑗 + 2𝑐𝑥𝑘
make an obtuse angle are
1) 𝑐 < 0 2) 𝑐 < 0 < 4/3
3) −4/3 < 𝑐 < 0 4) 𝑐 > 0
24. If 𝑥. 𝑎 = 0, 𝑥 × 𝑏 = 𝑐 × 𝑏 then 𝑥 =
. . . .
1) 𝑐 − 𝑏 2) 𝑐 − 𝑎 3) 𝑎 − 𝑏 4) 𝑏 − 𝑏
. . . .
25. Let 𝑎 = 2𝑖 − 𝑗 + 𝑘, 𝑏 = 𝑖 + 2𝑗 − 𝑘 and 𝑐 = 𝑖 + 𝑗 − 2𝑘 be three vectors A
vector in the plane of b and c whose projection on 𝑎 is of magnitude 2/3 is
1) 2𝑖 + 3𝑗 − 𝑘 2) 2𝑖 + 3𝑗 + 𝑘
3) −2𝑖 + 𝑗 + 5𝑘 4) 2𝑖 + 𝑗 + 5𝑘
26. If 𝑑 = 𝑥 𝑎 × 𝑏 + 𝑦 𝑏 × 𝑐 + 𝑧(𝑐 × 𝑎) and [𝑎𝑏𝑐 ] = 1/8, then 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 =
1) 8𝑑. 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 2) 𝑑. 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐
3) 4𝑑. 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 4) 10𝑑. 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐
27. If sin 𝜃 , cos 𝜃 , tan 𝜃 are in G.P then cos + 𝜃 + cos 𝜃 + 3 cos 𝜃 − 1 =
1) – 1 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2
28. If cos(𝐴 − 𝐵) = 3/5 and tan 𝐴 tan 𝐵 = 2 , then which one of the following is
true ?
1) sin(𝐴 + 𝐵) = 1/5 2) sin(𝐴 + 𝐵) = −1/5
3) cos(𝐴 − 𝐵) = 1/5 4) cos(𝐴 + 𝐵) = −1/5
29. If 2 sin = √1 + sin 𝐴 + √1 − sin 𝐴, then lies between
1) 2𝑛𝜋 + 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑛𝜋 + ,𝑛 ∈ 𝑍 2) 2𝑛𝜋 − 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑛𝜋 + , 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍
3) 2𝑛𝜋 − 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑛𝜋 − , 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍 4) −∞ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 + ∞
30. cos 76 + cos 16 − cos 76 cos 16 =
1) 1/2 2) 0 3) – 1/4 4) 3/4
31. Minimum values of 27 sec +64 cosex 𝑖𝑠
1) 125 2) 144 3) 225 4) 25
32. cos 2𝑥 = √2 + 1 cos 𝑥 − , cosx ≠ ⇒ 𝑥 ∈
√

1) 2𝑛𝜋 ± : 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍 2) 2𝑛𝜋 ± : 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍
3) 2𝑛𝜋 ± : 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍 4) 2𝑛𝜋 ± : 𝑛 ∈ 𝑍
33. If Tan 2 , Tanh 3 = 𝛼, then sinh 𝛼 is equal to
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 750
34. If sinh 2 + sinh 3 = 𝛼 , then sinh 𝛼 is equal to
1) 3√10 + 2√5 2) 2√10 + 3√5
3) 2√10 + 3√2 4) √10 + √5
35. The base of a triangle is 80 and one of the base angles is 600. If the sum of
the length of the other two sides is 90, then the shortest side is
1) 15 2) 17 3) 19 4) 21
36. If the median of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is perpendicular in AB, then tan 𝐴 + 2 tan 𝐵 =
1) 1 2) s 3) 0 4) 2∆
37. The angles of elevation measured from two points A and B on a horizontal
line from the foot of a tower are 𝛼 and 𝛽. If 𝐴𝐵 = 𝑑, then the height of the
tower is
 1) ( )
2) ( )

3) ( )
4) ( )

38. If 𝜔 is a complex cube root of unity, then (𝜔 + 𝜔 )𝜋 − =

1) 1/√2 2) 1/2 3) 1 4) √3/2
39. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are different complex number with |𝛽 | = 1 then the value of
is
1) 1/2 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
( ) ( )
40. The value of 1 + ∑ cos + is
1) 0 2) – 1 3) 1 4) 2
41. T is a parameter. Observe the following and match the lists
List – I List – II
a) The locus of the point (𝑎𝑡 , 2𝑎𝑡) is i) 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐
b) The locus of the point (𝑐𝑡, 𝑐/𝑡) is ii) 𝑦 + 4𝑥 = 4
c) The locus of the point (cos 𝑡 , 2 sin 𝑡) iii) 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 2
d) The locus of the point iv) 𝑦 = 4𝑎𝑥
(cos 𝑡 + sin 𝑡, cos 𝑡 − sin 𝑡) v) 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 16𝑥𝑦
vi) 𝑥/𝑦 = 𝑐
The correct match is
1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv 2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – v
3) A – v, B – i, C – ii, D – iii 4) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii
42. The point (4, 1) undergoes the following transformations successively
i) Reflection about the line 𝑦 = 𝑥
ii) Translation through 4 units along the positive direction of X – axis
iii) Rotation through an angle 𝜋/4 about the origin in the clock wise
direction. The final position of the point is
1) , 2) ,− 3) − ,− 4) − ,
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
43. The equation of perpendicular bisectors of the sides AB and AC of triangle ABC
are 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 5 = 0 and 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 0 respectively. If the vertex A is (1, −2),
 then the vertex B is
1) , 2) , 3) (−7, 6) 4) (−7, −6)
44. The equation of two sides of a square whose area is 25sq. units are 3𝑥 − 4𝑦 =
0 and 4𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 0. The equations of the other sides of the square are
1) 3𝑥 − 4𝑦 ± 25 = 0, 4𝑥 + 3𝑦 ± 25 = 0
2) 3𝑥 − 4𝑦 ± 5 = 0, 4𝑥 + 3𝑦 ± 5 = 0
3) 3𝑥 − 4𝑦 ± 5 = 0, 4𝑥 + 3𝑦 ± 25 = 0
4) 3𝑥 − 4𝑦 = 0, 4𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 0
45. 𝑝 , 𝑝 , 𝑝 be the product of perpendicular from origin to the pairs of lines
𝑥𝑦 + 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 1 = 0, 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑥 + 1 = 0, 2𝑥 + 3𝑥𝑦 − 2𝑦 + 2𝑥 + 1 = 0
respectively then
1) 𝑝 > 𝑝 > 𝑝 2) 𝑝 < 𝑝 < 𝑝
3) 𝑝 < 𝑝 < 𝑝 4) 𝑝 < 𝑝 > 𝑝
46. If H, G, S, I are respectively orthocenter, centroid circumcentre and incentre
of a triangle formed by the points (1, 2, 3), (2, 3, 1) and (3, 1, 2)
1) (2, 2, 2) 2) (4, 4, 4) 3) (6, 6, 6) 4) (8, 8, 8)
47. If the angles made by straight line with 𝑋, 𝑌, 𝑍 axes are 𝛼, 𝜋/2 − 𝛼, 𝛽
respectively then 𝛽 =
1) 𝜋/3 2) 𝜋/6 3) 𝜋/2 4) 𝜋
48. A variable plane which is at a distance 3 from the origin meets the coordinate
axes in P, Q, R. Equation of the locus of the centroid triangle PQR is
1) + + =1 2) 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 9
3) 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 9 4) 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 9
49. The equation of the plane through (5, −27) and parallel to 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 11𝑧 +
6 = 0 is
1) 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 11𝑧 − 4 = 0 2) 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 11𝑧 − 18 = 0
3) 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 11𝑧 − 81 = 0 4) 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 11𝑧 − 6 = 0
50. If the length of the chord made on the circle by its secant 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 2 = 0 is 6
and centre of the circle is (2, 4) then the equation of the circle is
1) 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 4𝑥 − 8𝑦 − 21 = 0 2) 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 4𝑥 + 8𝑦 + 21 = 0
3) 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 4𝑥 + 8𝑦 − 21 = 0 4) 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 4𝑥 − 8𝑦 − 21 = 0
51. Observe the following statement
I : The circle 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 4𝑥 − 4𝑦 + 4 = 0 touches both the coordinate axes
II : The circle 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 2𝑔𝑥 + 2𝑓𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 touches both the coordinates axes
if 𝑐 = 𝑔
Which of the following is correct
1) I is true, II is true and II is a correct explanation of I
2) I is true II is false, II is not correct explanation of I
3) I is false, II is false
4) Both I, II are true
52. The line perpendicular to the radical axis of two circles 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 5𝑥 + 6𝑦 +
12 = 0, 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 6𝑥 − 4𝑦 − 14 = 0 and passing through (1, 1) is
1) 10𝑥 + 11𝑦 + 21 = 0 2) 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 2 = 0
3) 10𝑥 + 11𝑦 − 21 = 0 4) 11𝑥 + 10𝑦 − 21 = 0
53. The equation of the normal to the parabola 𝑦 = 12𝑥 making an angle of 450
with the axis is
1) 𝑥 − 𝑦 − 9 = 0 2) 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 9 = 0
3) 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 9 = 0 4) 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 9 = 0
54. If three normals to the parabola 𝑦 = 𝑥 are drawn from a point (c, 0) then
1) 𝑐 = 1/4 2) 𝑐 = 1/2 3) 𝑐 > 1/2 4) 𝑐 = −1/2
55. The locus of the vertices of family of parabolas 𝑦 = 𝑎 𝑥 ⁄3 + 𝑎 𝑥 ⁄2 − 2𝑎 is
1) 𝑥𝑦 = 105/64 2) 𝑥𝑦 = 3/4
3) 𝑥𝑦 = 35/16 4) 𝑥𝑦 = 64/105
56. The angle between pair of tangents drawn to the ellipse 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 5 from
the point (1, 2) is
1) Tan (12/5) 2) Tan (6/√5)
3) Tan (12/√5) 4) Tan (√12/5)
57. If S and S are foci of an ellipse B is an end of the minor axis and if ∆𝐵𝐵𝑆 is
equilateral then e is
1) 1/4 2) 1/3 3) 1/2 4) 1/5
58. If the coordinates of a point are (4 tan 𝜙 , 3 sec 𝜙) where 𝜙 is a parameter then
the point lies on a conic section whose eccentricity is
1) 5/3 2) 5/4 3) 3/4 4) 3/5
59. 𝑥 (𝑦 − 1) − 𝑥 + (𝑦 + 1) = 𝑘 will represent a hyperbola if
1) 𝑘 ∈ (0, 2) 2) 𝑘 ∈ (0, 1) 3) 𝑘 ∈ (1, ∞) 4) 𝑘 ∈ 𝑅
60. Rolle’s theorem can not applicable for
1) 𝑓(𝑥 ) = 𝑥 − 6𝑥 + 11𝑥 − 6 𝑖𝑛 [1, 3]
2) 𝑓(𝑥 ) = sin 𝑥 𝑖𝑛 [0, 𝜋]
3) 𝑓(𝑥 ) = 1 − (𝑥 − 1) / 𝑖𝑛 [0, 2]
4) 𝑓(𝑥 ) = 𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 2 𝑖𝑛 [1, 2]
61. lim → + + + ⋯+ =
1) 1/6 2) 1/4 3) 1/3 4) 1/2
√
𝑖𝑓 𝑥 ≠
62. If 𝑓(𝑥 ) =   is continuous at 𝑥 = then 𝑎 =
𝑎 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 =
1) 4 2) 2 3) 1 4) 1/4

63. If + = 6 then =
( )
1) 2) 3) 4)
64. If 𝑓(𝑥) is an even function and 𝑓(𝑥) exists for all 𝑥, then 𝑓 (0) is
1) Negative 2) Positive 3) Non – zero number 4) Zero
65. If 𝑓(𝑥 ) = for 𝑥 ∈ 𝑅, then 𝑓 (0) =
| |
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
66. A condition that 𝑥 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 may be have no extremum is
1) 𝑎 ≥ 3𝑏 2) 𝑏 < 3𝑎 3) 𝑎 < 3𝑏 4) 𝑏 ≥ 3𝑎
67. Tangents are drawn for the origin to the curve 𝑦 = cos 𝑥. Then their point
of contact lies on the curve
1) 𝑥 𝑦 = 𝑦 − 𝑥 2) 𝑥 𝑦 = 𝑥 + 𝑦
3) 𝑥 𝑦 = 𝑥 − 𝑦 4) +𝑥 +𝑦

68. Let 𝑄 (𝑥 ) = 𝑓(𝑥 ) + 𝑓(1 − 𝑥) and 𝑓 (𝑥 ) < 0 for 0 < 𝑥 < 1. Then, on 0,
1) 𝑄(𝑥) is increasing 2) 𝑄(𝑥) is decreasing
3) 𝑄(𝑥) is constant 4) 𝑄(𝑥) is not increasing
69. If 𝑥 = sin 𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = sin 𝑝𝑡 , 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛(1 − 𝑥 )𝑦 − 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑝 𝑦 =
1) 0 2) 1 3) – 1 4) 1/√2
70. The eccentricity of locus of point (3ℎ + 2, 𝑘) where (ℎ, 𝑘) lies on the circle
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 1 is
1) 1/3 2) √2/3 3) 2√2/3 4) 1/√3
71. ∫ 𝑑𝑥 =
1) ln(1 + cos 𝑥) + 𝑐 2) ln(𝑥 + sin 𝑥 ) + 𝑐
3) 𝑥 +𝑐 4) 𝑥(1 + cos 𝑥) + 𝑐
72. If 𝐼 = ∫(log 𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 , 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 (𝐼 + 10𝐼 ) =
1) 𝑥(log 𝑥) 2) 𝑥(log 𝑥) 3) (log 𝑥) 4) (log 𝑥)
| ( )|
73. If ∫(1 + tan(𝑥 − 𝛼 ) tan(𝑥 + 𝛼 )𝑑𝑥 = 𝜆 ln + 𝑐, then 𝜆 =
| ( )|

1) cot 2𝛼 2) tan 2𝛼 3) – cot 2𝛼 4) – tan 2𝛼

/
74. ∫ / =
1) 𝜋/12 2) 𝜋/3 3) 𝜋/6 4) 5𝜋/12
75. ∫ cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
1) 2/𝜋 2) 3/𝜋 3) 6/𝜋 4) 12/𝜋
/
76. ∫– /
sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
1) 𝜋 2) 0 3) 4) 𝜋
77. Area bounded by the curve 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑎 , the lines 𝑥 = 𝑎, 𝑥 = 4𝑎 (𝑎 > 0) and X –
axis is
1) 𝑎 ln 2 2) ln 2 3) 2𝑎 ln 2 4) 4𝑎 ln 2
78. If 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾 are the roots of 𝑥 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 then (𝛼 + 1)(𝛽 + 1)(𝛾 +
1=
1) (𝑐 − 𝑎) + (𝑏 − 1) 2) (𝑐 − 𝑎) − (𝑏 − 1)
3) (𝑐 + 𝑎) + (𝑏 + 1) 4) (𝑐 + 𝑎) − (𝑏 + 1)
79. If (1 + 𝑦) 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑒 − 𝑥 𝑑𝑦 then

1) 𝑥 = + 𝑐𝑒 2) 𝑥𝑒 =𝑒 +𝑐
3) 𝑥 = 2 + 𝑐𝑒 4) 𝑥 = + 𝑐𝑒
80. The equation of the point curve whose gradient at any point (𝑥, 𝑦) is
1− and which passes through the point (1, 1) is
1) 𝑦 = 𝑥 − + 1 2) 𝑦 = 𝑥 + − 1
3) 𝑦 = 𝑥 − +1 4) 𝑦 = 𝑥 + −1
PHYSICS
81. A steel wire of 2.0 mm2 cross section is held straight by fixing between two
rigid supports separated by 1.5 m at 300C. If the temperature now decreased
to – 100C, what will be the tension in the wire
(𝑌 = 2 × 10 𝑃𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛼 = 1.1 × 10 / 𝐶 )
1) 176 N 2) 88 N 3) 44 N 4) 22 N
82. According to second law of thermodynamics
A) All heat can be converted into work
B) The efficiency of heat engine is always lesser than unity
C) It is not possible to transfer heat from lower to higher temperature by it self
1) Both A and B are true 2) Both B and C are true
3) Both A and C are true 4) A, B, C are true
83. A wall has two layers ‘A’ and ‘B’ made of different materials. The layer ‘A’ is
10 cm thick ‘B’ is 20 cm thick. The thermal conductivity of ‘A’ is thrice that of
‘B’. In this steady the temperature difference across the wall is 350C. The
temperature difference across the layer ‘A’ is
1) 300C 2) 140C 3) 8.750C 4) 50C
84. During an adiabatic compression, 830J of work is done on 2 moles of a diatomic
ideal gas to reduce its volume by 50%. The change in temperature is nearly (R
= 8.3 J K – 1 mol – 1)
1) 40 K 2) 33 K 3) 20 K 4) 14 K
85. A person travelling in car along east with speed ‘u’ observes the velocity of
another car as √5𝑢 𝑎𝑡 tan (2)𝑆 of W. The velocity of other car is
1) 2𝑢 tan (1⁄2)𝑆 𝑜𝑓 𝐸 2) √6𝑢 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑡ℎ
3) 2𝑢 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑡ℎ 4) √6𝑢 tan (1⁄2)𝑆𝑜𝑓 𝐸
86. For Boyles law to hold good the gas should be
1) Perfect and at constant temperature and mass
 2) Real and at constant temperature and mass
3) Perfect and at constant temperature but at variable mass
4) Real and at constant temperature but at variable mass
87. Two equal masses are connected by a light string which is made to pass over a
smooth light pulley. The percentage of mass to be transferred from one
body to another so that the bodies move 50 m in 5 sec is (g = 10ms – 2)
(nearly)
1) 20% 2) 40% 3) 25% 4) 50%
88. A juggler maintains 4 balls in motion, making each in turn rises to a height 20m
from his hand. Where will the other be at the instant when fourth one is
just leaving the hand g = 10m/s2
1) 15m, 20m, 20m 2) 10m, 20m, 10m
3) 4m, 16m, 4m 4) 15m, 20m, 15m
89. Assertion (A) : Mean free path of gas molecules varies inversely as density
of the gas
Reason (R) : Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is not true
4) A is not true but R is true
90. If frequency ‘n’ velocity ‘v’ and density ‘d’ are considered as fundamental
units, then the dimensional formula for linear momentum will be
1) 𝑑 𝑛 𝑣 2) 𝑑𝑛𝑣 3) 𝑑𝑛 𝑣 4) 𝑛 𝑣 𝑑
91. Two particles of masses 1kg and 5kg move towards each other under their
mutual force of attraction. No other force acts on them when the relative
velocities of the two particles is 3 m/s, their centre of mass has velocity of
0.5 m/s. But when the relative velocity of approach becomes 4m/s. the
velocity of centre of mass is
1) 0.5 m/s 2) 1.5m/s 3) Zero 4) 1m/s
92. A vertically projected body attains the maximum height in 6s. The ratio of
kinetic energy at the end of 3rd second to decrease in kinetic energy in the
next 3 seconds is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 3 3) 3 : 1 4) 9 : 1
93. A capillary tube of radius ‘R’ is immersed in water and rises to a height ‘H’.
Mass of water in capillary tube is ‘M’. If radius of tube is doubled mass of
water that will rise in capillary will be
1) 4M 2) 2M 3) M 4) M/2
94. Water in a river 20 m deep is flowing at a speed of 10m/s. The shearing stress
between the horizontal layers of water in the river in (In N/m2) ___
(𝜂 = 10 𝑆𝐼 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠)
1) 1 x 10 – 2 2) 1 x 10 – 3 3) 0.5 x 10 – 2 4) 0.5 x 10 – 3
95. Calculate the elastic potential energy per unit volume of water at a depth
of 1km. (Compressibility of water 𝐶 = 5 × 10 SI units, density of water =
103kg/m3)
1) 4.2 x 104 J/m3 2) 2.4 x 104 J/m3
3) 6.1 x 104 J/m3 4) 8.2 x 104 J/m3
96. A block of mass M is held against a rough vertical wall by pressing it with a
finger. If the coefficients of friction between the block and the wall is 𝜇 and
the acceleration due to gravity is g, what is the minimum force required to
be applied by the finger to hold the block against the wall ?
1) 𝜇𝑀𝑔 2) 𝑀𝑔 3) 𝑀𝑔/𝜇 4) 2𝜇/𝑀𝑔
97. A meter stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins each
of mass 5g are but one on top of the other at the 12 cm mark. The stick is
found to be balanced at 45 cm. The mass of the metre stick is 1)
56 g 2) 66 g 3) 76 g 4) 86 g
98. An automobile engine develops 100 kW power when rotating at a speed of
1800 rpm. The torque delivered by the engine is
1) 𝑁𝑚 2) 𝑁𝑚 3) 𝑁𝑚 4) 𝑁𝑚
99. A particle oscillating under a force 𝐹 = −𝑘𝑥 − 𝑏𝑣 is a (k and b constants)
1) Simple harmonic oscillator 2) Linear oscillator
3) Damped oscillator 4) Forced oscillator
100. A stone is dropped from a height equal to nR, (where R is the radius of the
earth) from the surface of earth. The velocity of the stone on reaching the
 surface of the earth is
( )
1) 2) 3) 4) 2𝑔𝑛𝑅
101. A parallel plate condenser is charged using a constant current. The ratio
of the magnetic fields at a distance of R/3 and R from the axis is (R is the
radius of plate)
1) 1 : 1 2) 3 : 1 3) 1 : 3 4) 2 : 3
102. Al alternating current passes through a coil when current in coil decreases
from maximum to zero, then
1) Energy is absorbed from source
2) Energy is being returned to source
3) Energy is neither absorbed (or) returned
4) Energy is continuously absorbed and returned to source
103. In YDSE the thickness of a glass slab (𝜇 = 1.5) which should be placed
before the upper slit, so that the central maximum now lies at a point
where 5th bright fringe was lying earlier (before inserting the slab). Wave
length of light used is 5000 A0
1) 50,000 A0 2) 25,000 A0 3) 30,000 A0 4) 10,000 A0
104. The focal length of the lenses of an astronomical telescope are 50 cm and
5cm. The length of the telescope when the image is formed at the least
distance of distinct vision is
1) 45 cm 2) 55 cm 3) cm 4) cm
105. The power of a lens having refractive index 1.25 is + 3D. When placed in a
liquid its power is – 2D. The refractive index of liquid is
1) 1.2 2) 1.4 3) 1.5 4) 1.6
106. The number density of electrons and holes in a pure germanium at room
temperature are equal and its value is 3 x 1016/m3 on doping with
aluminium the hole density increases to 4.5 x 1022/m3. Then the electron
density in doped Germanium is
1) 2 x 1010m – 3 2) 5 x 109m – 3 3) 4.5 x 109m – 3 4) 3 x 109m – 3
107. Half – lives of two radioactive substances P and Q are respectively 20 years
and 40 years. Initially the samples of P and Q have equal number of nuclei.
 After 80 years the ratio of the remaining numbers of P to Q nuclei is
1) 4 : 1 2) 1 : 16 3) 1 : 1 4) 1 : 4
108. One mill watt of light of wave length 4560 A0 is incident on a cesium
surface of work function 1.9 eV. Given that quantum efficiency of photo
electric emission is 0.5%, ℎ = 6.62 × 10 𝐽𝑠, 𝐶 = 3 × 10 𝑚𝑠 , the photo
electric current liberated is
1) 1.856 x 10 – 7A 2) 1.856 x 10 – 6A
3) 1.856 x 10 – 4A 4) 1.856 x 10 – 5A
109. The shortest wave length of the bracket series of a hydrogen like atom
(atomic number = Z) is the same as the shortest wavelength of the Balmer
series of hydrogen atom. The value of ‘z’ is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 6 4) 2
110. A proton a deutron and an 𝛼 − partial having the same kinetic energy are
moving in circular trajectories in a constant magnetic field. If 𝑟 , 𝑟 and 𝑟
denotes the radii of the trajectories of these particles respectively then
1) 𝑟 > 𝑟 > 𝑟 2) 𝑟 = 𝑟 = 𝑟
3) 𝑟 = 𝑟 > 𝑟 4) 𝑟 > 𝑟 < 𝑟
111. Infinite number of lone wires each having current 2A are arranged parallel
to the Y – axis and located at 𝑋 = +1𝑚, 𝑋 = +2𝑚, 𝑋 = +4𝑚, 𝑋 = +8𝑚 and
so on but currents are in opposite directions as shown. The resultant
magnetic field at origin (in Tesla) would be
1) – 2.67 x 10 – 7 𝑘
2) 1.33 x 10 – 7 𝑘
3) – 1.33 x 10 – 7 𝑘
4) 2.67 x 10 – 7 𝑘
112. A circular coil of radius 10 cm. 500 turns and resistance 2Ω is placed with
its plane perpendicular to the horizontal component of the earth’s
magnetic field. It is rotated about its vertical diameter through 1800 in 𝜋
second. The current induced in the coil is (Horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field at the place is 3 x 10 – 5Tesla)
1) 1.5 x 10 – 4A 2) 3 x 10 – 4A
3) 4 x 10 – 4A 4) 2 x 10 – 4A
113. Three wires of same material are connected in parallel to a source of emf.
The length ratio of the wires is 1 : 2 : 3 and the ratio of their area of cross
section is 2 : 4 : 1. Then match the following
Table – I Table – II
A) Resistance ratio P) 6 : 6 : 1
B) Current ratio Q) 1 : 6 : 6
C) Power ratio R) 1 : 1 : 6
The correct match is
1) A – R, B – P, C – P 2) A – P, B – R, C – P
3) A – P, B – P, C – R 4) A – R, B – R, C – P
114. The figure below shows two equipotential lines in XY plane for an electric
field. The scales are marked the X – component Ex and Y – component Ey of
the field, in the space between these equipotential lines are respectively
1) +100 𝑉𝑚 , −200 𝑉𝑚
2) −100 𝑉𝑚 , +200 𝑉𝑚
3) +200 𝑉𝑚 , −100 𝑉𝑚
4) −200 𝑉𝑚 , −100 𝑉𝑚
115. An electric dipole consists of two equal and opposite point charges + Q and
– Q, separated by a distance 2𝑙. The electric intensity at a point ‘P’
collinear with the charges and outside the charges such that its distance
from the positive charge is half of its distance from the negative charge is
1) 2) 3) 4)
∈ ∈ ∈ ∈
116. The output ‘Y’ of the logic circuit shown in figure is best represented as
1) 𝐴 + 𝐵. 𝐶
2) 𝐴 + 𝐵𝐶
3) 𝐴 + 𝐵𝐶
4) 𝐴 + 𝐵. 𝐶
117. What type of modulation is employed in INDIA for ratio transmission
1) Amplitude modulation 2) Phase modulation
3) Frequency modulation 4) All the above
118. A magnet needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires ‘W’ units of work to
turn it through 600. The torque required to maintain the needle in this
 position will be
√
1) √3𝑤 2) 𝑤 3) 𝑤 4) 2w
119. A car sounding a horn of frequency1000 Hz passes an observer at rest. The
ratio of frequencies of thee horn noted by the observer before and after
passing of the car is 11 : 9. The speed of thee sound is v. The speed of the car
is
1) 𝑣 2) 𝑣 3) 𝑣 4) 𝑣
120. A progressive wave is given by 𝑌 = 3 sin 2𝜋 − . where Y is ‘cm’
. .
frequency of wave and maximum acceleration of particle will be
1) 100 Hz, 4.7 x 103 cm/s2 2) 50Hz, 7.5 x 103 cm/s2
3) 25 Hz, 4.7 x 104 cm/s2 4) 25 Hz, 7.4 x 104 cm/s2
CHEMISTRY

121. Rate of the diffusion of NO2 is

1) Greater then that of NO 2) Less than that of NO
3) Same as that of NO 4) Half of that of NO
122. An alkaline earth element has the I1, I2 and I3 values 9.2 ev/atom
18.5ev/atom and ‘x’ ev/atom then ‘x’ is
1) 3ev/atom 2) 154ev/atom
3) 20ev/atom 4) 10ev/atom
123. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crustal of NaCl of
mass 1gr
1) 1.7 x 1021 unit cell 2) 2.57 x 1021 unit cell
3) 5.14 x 1021 unit cell 4) 1.28 x 1021 unit cell
124. When 10grs of methane is completely burnt in oxygen the heat evolved is
560KJ what is the heat of combustion (in KJ. Mol – 1)
1) – 1120 2) – 968 3) – 896 4) – 560
125. Perhydrol is
1) 30% (w/v) of H2O2 2) 10% (w/v) of H2O2
3) 3% (w/v) of H2O2 4) 100% (w/v) of H2O2
126. Which of the following compound (are) not soluble in water?
1) Li2CO3 2) LiF 3) Li3PO4 4) All of these
127. Cement contains mainly
1) Ca, Al, O 2) Ca, Si, O 3) Ca, S, Al, O 4) Ca, Sl, Si, O
128. The number of hydrogen atoms bridging the boron atoms in a diborane
molecule is
1) 2 2) 1 3) 3 4) 6
129. Which of the following is a conductor of electricity
1) Diamond 2) Coke
3) Graphite 4) Carborundum
130. The most thermodynamically stable allotropic from of phosphorous is
1) Red P 2) Yellow P 3) Black P 4) All are stable
131. Car’s acid is
1) H2SO5 2) H2S2O8 3) H2SO3 4) H2S2O3
132. What are the precuts obtainer when excess ammonia is reacted with
chlorine ?
1) N2 and NCl3 2) N2 and HCl
3) N2 and NH4Cl 4) NCl3 and HCl
133. The number of 𝑝𝜋 − 𝑝𝜋 bonds in XeO4 is
1) Zero 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
134. Find the correct statement
i) Magnetic moment Mn+2 ion is √25
ii) Ti4+ is exhibit purple color
iii) I Bohr magneton = 9.273 x 10 – 24 J. Teals – 1
iv) Secondary valency of transition metal ion is equal to its coordinate number
1) Only (i) is correct 2) Only (ii) is correct
3) i, iii, iv are correct 4) All are correct
135. Percentage of Cu is minimum in
1) Brass 2) Broneze 3) Gun metal 4) Duralumin
136. Oxidation state of Fe in Mohr’s salt is
1) + 1 2) + 2 3) 3 4) + 4
137. The IUPAC name of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁ℎ ) 𝑂𝑁𝑂] ion is
1) Penta amine nitrito cobalt (III) ion
2) Penta amine nitro cobalt (III) ion
 3) Penta amine nitrito cobalt (IV) ion
4) Penta amine nitrite cobalt (III) ion
138. The basic component of smog is
1) PAN 2) PBN 3) NO2 4) All of these
139. The chemical composition of slag formed during smelting process in the
extraction of Cu is
1) CuO + FeS 2) FeSiO3 3) CuFeS2 4) Cu2S + FeO
140. Following graph will be true when
1) 𝑃 = 0
2) 𝑃 = 1
3) = 0
4) = ∞
141. Sodium atom crystallizes in body centered cubic lattice with cell edge
𝑎 = 4.29𝐴 .
1) 18.6A0 2) 1.86 A0 3) 186nm 4) 1860pm
142. Number of coulombs of current required to convert completely 1 mole of
𝑀𝑛𝑂 ions in acid medium to one mole of Mn2+ ions celetrolytically is
1) 96500 2) 5 x 96500 3) 96500 x 2 4) 96500 x 6
0
143. The vapour pressure of water at 23 C is 19.8 mm 0.1 mole of glucose is
dissolved in 178.2g of water is the vapour pressure (in mm) of the resultant
solutions ?
1) 19.0 2) 19.602 2) 19.402 4) 19.202
144. The anhydride of acid H3PO4 and HPO3 are
1) P2O5 and P2O3 2) P2O3
3) Both 1 and 2 4) P2O5
145. A chemical reaction was carried out of 300k and 280k. The rate constants
were found to be K1 and K2 respectively. Then
1) K2 = 4K1 2) K2 = 2K1 3) K2 = 0.25K4 4) K2 = 0.5K1
146. In the sequence of changes/process 𝑋 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 𝑌 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 𝑍
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ proteins x, y and z are
 1) DNA, DNA & RNA 2) RNA, RNA & DNA
3) DNA, RNA & RNA 4) DNA, RNA & DNA
147. Vitamin B1 is known as
1) A scorbic acid 2) Carotenoids
3) Thiamine 4) Pyridoxine
148. Hydrolysis of source with dilute aqueous sulphuric acid yields
1) 1 ∶ 1 𝐷 (+) − Glucose, 𝐷 − (−) fructose
2) 1 ∶ 2 𝐷(+) − Glucose, 𝐷 − (−) fructose
3) 1 ∶ 1 𝐷 − (−) − Glucose, 𝐷 − (+) − fructose
4) 1 ∶ 2𝐷 − (−) Glucose, 𝐷 − (+) − fructose
149. Which of the following is not a polyamide
1) Wool 2) Leather 3) Nylon 4) Natural rubber
150. Heroin is derivative of
1) Caffeine 2) Cocaine 3) Nicotine 4) Morphine
151. Assertion (A) : Wet ether is not used in Wurtz reaction
Reason (R) : Sodium reacts with moisture due to which product is not an
alkane
1) I is true, II is true and II is a correct explanation of I
2) I is true, II is false, II is not correct explanation of I
3) I is false, II is false
4) Both I, II are true
152. A photon of 3105A0 wavelength is allowed to fall on a metal surface
whose threshold energy is 2eV. Calculator the kinetic energy of the
electron emitted ?
1) 3.2 x 1019J 2) 3.2 x 10 – 19J
3) 32 x 10 – 19J 4) 32 x 1019J
153. 2 moles of ‘A’ 3 moles of ‘B’ 1 mole of ‘C’ and 4 moles of ‘D’ are taken
initially in a litre flask At, equilibrium the conc of ‘A’ is half of the conc of ‘C’
calculate KC for the following equilibrium 𝐴 + 2𝐵 ⇒ 3𝐷
1) 686 2) 686 x 10 – 2 3) 686 x 102 4) 68.6
154. 𝐴 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 𝐵 + 𝑚𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑙, 𝐵 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 𝐷 ⎯⎯⎯ 𝐸 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 𝐹
⁄
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ oil of mirbane. Then A is
⁄
 1) Ethylene 2) Acetylene
3) Propylene 4) But – 2 – ene
155. 0.24 gr of organic compound containing phosphorous gave 0.44gr Mg2P2O7
by the usual analysis calculate the percentage of phosphorous in
compound ?
1) 51% 2) 62% 3) 78% 4) 32%
156. The no. of structural isomers for C6H14 is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
157. The correct IUPAC name for is
1) neononane 2) Tetra ethyl methane
3) 3 – ethyl entane 4) 3, 3 – diethyl pentane
158. ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 𝑥. 𝐻𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑥 𝑖𝑠
∆

1) 2) 3) 4)

159. 𝐶 𝐻 + 𝐻𝑁𝑂 + 𝐻 𝑆𝑂 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 𝑋 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 𝑌. Then Y is

1) C6H5NH – NH – C6H5 2) C6H5 – NH2
3) C6H5 – N – N – C6H5 4) C6H5 – NHOH
160. When acetylene is passed through red hot iron tube compound X is formed.
Which one of the following reactions will yield X as the major product
1) 𝐶 𝐻 𝑂𝐻 + 𝑍𝑛 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 2) 𝐶 𝐻 3𝐻 ⎯⎯
∆
3) 𝐶 𝐻 𝑆𝑂 𝐻 + 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂 ⟶ 4) 𝐶 𝐻 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻 𝑂 ⎯⎯⎯