Mock 4 Answers

1.
Answer D
Changing the Project Schedule means changing the project management plan which is an example of Risk
Avoidance. Here as per the questions, there is a big threat of completing the project within the given
timeline. Project team tried to remove the cause of threat by updating the schedule.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 443,445.
2. Answer C
Here the Project Manager needs to resolve the conflict. He must work with CCB to know, why they are
overloaded. A is not a good option, because giving full control to team (developers, Testers, etc.) cannot
be a recommended option. So, out of all options provided, reviewing the situations with CCB is the best
option.
3. Answer C
Termination clause and the General terms and Conditions are available in the contractual agreement. The
project Manager must review the agreement in order to proceed with the termination procedure.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 489.
4. Answer B
Merging of two organizations is an example for Project because project is a temporary endeavor and has
a start and end date.
5. Answer - A.
Sometimes we need to think in a practical manner. Some may select D thinking the question takes about
Close Project / Phase stage. But the question nothing to do with Closing phase, it just talks about "year-
end book closure". Among all options most practical answer is A.
6. Answer - B.
Crashing impacts project cost directly and since CPI is low, option A is ruled out. Option C and D are
resource optimization technique. Resource smoothing won’t change critical path, so application of
Resource smoothing would not give positive impact to project schedule. Resource levelling is used when
limits on the availability of resources are paramount, so it may not be right option here. Therefore, both
C and D are also ruled out.
Fast tracking is schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence
are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration. It’s a cost-effective technique which helps
to reduce the duration of critical path. Further the question also states that the project manager has taken
decision to bring the project on track after reviewing planned risk responses, so he should be aware of
the risks that may arise due to application of fast tracking.
So, among all options Option B is the best answer.
7. Answer - B.
Three points:
1. They gathered all the information at the end of initiation stage. This doesn’t mean that they are in
initiation stage now.
2. Then they collaborated everything into one document. PC does not have everything, but Project
Management Plan has everything
3. Project Charter is approved by Sponsor but not by many stakeholders. Project Management Plan may
be approved by multiple stakeholders.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 82, 83, 86.
8. Answer – A.
The question states that “Collect Requirements” process is getting performed. So, option C and D is ruled
out. Option B is also incorrect as Affinity diagram helps in grouping of ideas, it never states commonality
and differences of opinion among stakeholders. Mind mapping consolidate ideas created through
individual brain storming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in
understanding and to generate new ideas.
9. Answer – C.
Here in this scenario, the project manager should review the work assigned to the resource and his current
responsibilities in the project. For this RACI chart needs to be reviewed. After reviewing the RACI chart,
he can discuss and negotiate with the Functional Manager. Here among all options, C is the best answer.
A few may get confused with option A, project calendar can only reflect the working days of the resource
for scheduled activities. Its RACI, which can reflect the level of engagement (Responsible, Accountable,
Consult, Inform) of the resource on the tasks assigned to him. So, among all options, option C is the best
answer.
10. Answer – D.
Here in this scenario, the project manager should first review the Organization Process Assets (OPA) to
know the corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics and security.
11. Answer – C.
In large projects, kick-off meeting take place with processes in the Executing Process Group. Kick-off
meetings can be held in support of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process to foster the appropriate
level of stakeholder involvement in the project.
12. Answer - B.
Many may get confused with A, but the Control charts are established in Manage Quality process, and the
parameters such as mean, specification limits, control limits are defined during the process. During
Control Quality process, they are used to determine if the results of a process are within acceptable limits.
Rita Mulcahy 9th edition, RMC Publications, Inc.,2018, Page - 338.
13. Answer – A.
Contingency reserves are budget within the cost baseline that is allocated for identified risks.
14. Answer - C.
The Project Charter should be approved by the sponsor or an authorized representative who can take
financial decisions as well as provide financial resources for the project. Since Project Sponsor falls under
the Upward bracket when stakeholders are classified based on direction of influence, C seems to be the
best answer among all options.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 77, 513
15. Answer - A.
The project manager must select the correct risk response planning. Transfer strategy is used when the
existing project team has no or little solution to tackle such risks. But in this scenario, the project manager
should have planned mitigation strategy to reduce the impact of the threat. Also, while buying insurance,
it’s the duty of the project manager to check for clauses of insurance and on what ground the insurance
company may deny paying the insurance.
16. Answer – B.
Here, the sponsor and the project manager has adopted collaborate/problem solve conflict resolution
technique to reach a win-win situation. So, among all options, option B is the best answer.
17. Answer- C.
Although changes can be initiated verbally but they should be recorded in written form and entered into
the change and/or configuration management system. Further, request via telephone call is an example
of informal verbal communication. Communication regarding Changes should always be formal. So,
among all options provided, C is the best answer.
18. Answer – B.
The Confirmation of formal acceptance of sellers’ work happens during closing (close Project/phase
process).
19. Answer - B
The impact scale contains values from 0 to 1. A value of Zero indicates non-occurrence of the risk, while 1
is a certainty. A value greater than 1 indicates, risk has already occurred and it’s an issue now. Hence, a
risk impact of 0.8 represents the highest impact among all options .
20. Answer – B.
Work performance data, generated by Direct and Manage Project Work process contains information
related to activity duration, delivery status, start and end dates of scheduled activities which may act as
an important input for the Control Procurements process.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 493, 95.
21. Answer C
The Control chart is an example of Data Representation technique used to Control Quality process to
determine its stability.
22. Answer - C.
Simulation is a Data Analysis technique that explores the impact of variances on deliverables or outcomes
during a given project. Variances constitute a wide variety of unforeseen and unexpected events that may
delay or impact the timeliness of deliverables. In Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, Simulations
are typically performed using a Monte Carlo analysis.
23. Answer – D.
During closing, the project manager reviews the Project Management Plan to ensure all project work is
completed and the project has met its objectives.
24. Answer – B.
Work performance information is a summarized or analyzed version of work performance data. Most of
the processes in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group have Work Performance Information as
outputs, and it becomes inputs to the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 222-223, 228.
25. Answer – A.
Organizing Team building activities is an effective aid for building high performance team, which happen
during Develop team process. In Develop Team process, the project manager tries to improve overall team
environment to enhance project performance. So, among all options provided, A is the best answer.
26. Answer - C.
A, B, D are not correct because they are defined tools and techniques used for Quality Planning. A quality
metric specifically describes a project or product attribute and how the Control Quality process will verify
compliance to it. Quality metrics are outputs from the Plan Quality Management process.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 281 - 284.
27. Answer – B.
The scenario states that the Project Manager is performing Estimate Activity Resources process and EEF
is a valid input to the process. D is an example of OPA, so D is not correct. A, C are examples of EEF but
they are used as input for Estimate Activity Durations process, not the Estimate Activity Resources
process. So, A, C are also incorrect. B is an example of EEF (enterprise environmental factors) which is
used as input for Estimate Activity Resources process.
28. Answer - D.
Here the question states about the data analysis technique called Variance Analysis which helps to
compare plan Vs. Actual results. Among all options provided, D is the correct answer.
29. Answer – B.
The situation states that the Project Manager is involved in Plan Cost Management process. A and D are
not correct as both the techniques are used in Estimate Costs process, not Plan Cost Management process.
C is wrong, because it’s used as technique for Control Costs process. B is a valid technique used in Plan
Cost management process to review strategic funding options and consideration of ways to acquire
project resources such as making, purchasing, renting, or leasing. So, among all options provided B is the
best answer.
30. Answer – C.
Customer inspection of Project deliverables is a part of Validate scope process.
In this very process, Customer inspects the deliverable(s), that is verified by QC team in Control Quality
process. In most frequent situation, QC team checks the correctness of the deliverable implemented in
recent Direct and Mange Project work process and marks them as Verified deliverable(s) if all conditions
are satisfied. This Verified deliverable(s) acts as an input for Validate Scope process for customer
inspection, followed by formal acceptance by customer. Options A and D are not correct because they are
output to the Validate Scope process. B is not a valid input for the validate scope process. So, among all
options provided, C is the right answer.
31. Answer – A.
As per the given scenario, the project team is involved in Sequence Activities process where activities are
sequenced and proper logical relationships among activities are established to define the logical sequence
of work in order to obtain greatest efficiency.
32. Answer – B.
The scenario states that the Project Manager is currently involved in Plan Risk Management process.
Options A and C are not correct, because they are used as Tools and Techniques for Identify Risks process.
Stakeholder Register is an example for project document, it’s not a Tools and Techniques. So, option D is
also not correct. Stakeholder Analysis is a valid Data Analysis technique used in Plan Risk Management
Process in order to determine the risk appetite of the project stakeholders. So, among all options
provided, Option B is the right answer.
33. Answer - D.
During Closing, Meetings can be used to confirm that the deliverables have been accepted, to validate
that the exit criteria is met, to evaluate the satisfaction of the stakeholders, gather lessons learned, and
to celebrate success. Typically, the types of meetings happen during Closing are: - Close-Out reporting
meetings, Customer wrap-up meetings, Lessons learned meetings, and celebration meetings. So, among
all options provided, D is the correct answer.
34. Answer – A.
The question here talks about Validate Scope process and several experts must decide the Formal
acceptance of a deliverable. Voting is a decision-making technique which is widely used in this process to
reach a decision or judgement.
B is a technique used in validate scope process but it’s not a Decision-Making technique. So, B is not
correct. C is again not a decision-making technique, so C is also not correct. D is an example decision
making technique but generally not used in Validate Scope process. Further in “Autocratic decision
making”, one individual takes a decision, but here the question clearly stated about reaching consensus
or agreement by applying a decision-making technique. So, D is also in correct.
Voting is a decision-making technique that is applied, to reach a consensus. Other than Validate scope
process, it’s also used in Collect Requirement and Perform Integrated Change Control processes as stated
in the question. Therefore, among all options provided, A is the best answer.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 163, 166, 113,138.
35. Answer – C.
The question here talks about Close project or phase process. A, B, D are valid input to the process. EEF is
not an input to the Close Project or Phase process. So, among all options provided C is the correct answer.
36. Answer – D.
The scenario states that Arun, the sponsor has involved few experts in Develop Project Charter process.
The Develop Project Charter is the process of developing a document that formally authorizes the
existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational
resources to project activities. This process has four tools and techniques: Expert Judgement, Data
Gathering, Interpersonal and Team skills (Conflict management, facilitation, etc.), Meetings. A and B are
not exampling of Tools and Techniques, so they are not correct. C is a tools and technique but not used in
Develop Project Charter process. Conflict management is an example of interpersonal and team skills
technique used in the Develop Project Charter process. Conflict management can be helpful in bringing
stakeholders into alignment on various elements of the charter. So, among all options provided D is the
right answer.
37. Answer – C.
The scenario suggests you are carrying out the Determine Budget process. Basis of Estimates is an input
to the process but it contains supporting details of cost estimates. It generally specifies any basic
assumptions dealing with inclusion or exclusion of indirect or other costs in the project budget, so A is not
correct. B is not an input for Determine Budget process, so B is not correct. D is an input for the Determine
Budget process, but Cost Management Plan describes how the project cost will be structured in the
project budget. So, D is also wrong. Based on elimination rule, C is the right answer. Further, the Resource
Management Plan which is a valid input to the process, provides information on rates (personnel and
other resources), estimation of travel costs, and other foreseen costs that are necessary to estimate the
overall project budget. Therefore, among all options provided, C is the best answer.
38. Answer – A.
Checklists are examples of data gathering technique that is generally used to check if a list of requirements
has been satisfied.
39. Answer – C.
Procurement Strategy and Bid documents are output for Plan Procurement Management process.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 466, 476,477.
40. Answer - D.
A, B, C are not correct. In Implement Risk responses process, experts with specialized knowledge are
sometimes required to validate or modify risk responses if needed. Expert Judgement is used in Conduct
Procurements to evaluate proposals. In Identify Stakeholder process, it is used to ensure all stakeholders
have been identified, listed, and assessed appropriately.
By following elimination rule, D is the right answer. Further, Manage Communications is part of the
Executing Process Group. As per PMBOK6, expert judgment is not required while managing
communications.
41. Answer – B.
A, C, D are tools and techniques used in Control quality process. B is an example of a technique used in
Manage Quality process. Among all options provided, B is right answer.
42. Answer – D.
In most of the processes, Organization Process Assets (OPA) acts as an input. But there are few processes
where OPA gets updated as an output, Manage Project Knowledge is one of them. Other processes where
OPA gets updated as an output are: - Manage Communication, Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Monitor
Risks, Plan Procurement Management, Control Procurements, Close project/phase.
43. Answer – B.
The given scenario indicates that the Validate Scope process is getting conducted to measure completion
of the product scope.
The completion of the project scope is measured against the components of the project management
plan, i.e. scope baseline. Completion of the product scope is measured against the product requirements
documentation, which also serves as an input to the validate scope process. So, among all options
provided B is the best answer.
44. Answer – D.
Options A, B, C uses meeting as a technique. Meetings are not among the tools and techniques explicitly
listed for the Define Scope process. So, among all options, option D is the right answer.
45. Answer – A.
The scenario states that the project team is currently engaged in applying Rolling Wave planning
technique where work to be done in near term is planned in detail, whereas the work to be done in future
is planned at higher level. Further this technique is effectively used in Define Activities process for planning
the work to be accomplished. So, among all options available, option A is the right choice.
46. Answer – B.
Here in this scenario, Resource Management Plan should be referred as Training strategies for team
members are recorded in Resource Management Plan.
47. Answer – C.
The scenario states that the Project Manager is involved in Manage Stakeholder Engagement Process. All
4 given options are input to the process. But it’s the communications management plan, that provides all
the communications details for stakeholder engagement that includes methods, formats, and
technologies to be used for stakeholder communication. So, among all options provided C is the best
answer.
48. Answer – D.
All Components of the Project Management Plan are inputs to the Plan Risk Management Process.
Information in the various project management plan components might influence the Plan Risk
Management process.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 401-403.
49. Answer – A.
B is not correct, because Perform Integrated Change Control process manages the change requests raised
across the life cycle of the project. C is incorrect because the control scope process only manages the
changes to the scope baseline, it doesn’t compare project performance against the project management
plan. D is incorrect because Define Scope is a process of Planning process group which mainly deals with
project inclusions and exclusions. So, by applying elimination technique, A is the right answer. Further,
Monitor and Control Project Work is the process of tracking, reviewing, the overall project progress to
meet the performance objectives defined in the Project Management Plan. This is accomplished by
comparing actual project performance against the Project Management Plan on a regular basis. So, among
all options provided, option A is the best answer.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 222-223, 228.
50. Answer – C.
The scenario states that the Project Manager is performing the Determine Budget process. The major
output for the process is cost baseline, which is not there in option. Other than cost baseline, project
funding requirements, project document updates (cost estimates, project schedule, risk register) are
other outputs.
Option A is an input to Determine Budget process, so A is not correct. Option B is a technique used in the
Determine Budget process, and it’s not an output. Cost Management Plan is not updated as a part of
Determine budget process, so D is also not correct. Project funding requirements include total funding
requirements and periodic funding requirements (e.g., Quarterly, annually) and acts as a valid output for
Determine Budget process. So, among all options, C is the best answer.
51. Answer – B.
In this scenario, the Project Charter should be reviewed to know the approval requirements, and who will
sign off the project. Some may get confused with agreements i.e. option C, but Agreements takes care of
contract closure, not project closure.
52. Answer – C.
Networking is an example of tool and technique used in processes like Manage Project Knowledge,
Manage Communications, Monitor Stakeholder Engagement, that creates the condition to share tacit and
explicit knowledge for stakeholders in an informal fashion.
53. Answer – A.
KPIs are example for Work Performance Data (WPD) which is generated as an output for Direct and
Manage Project work process.
54. Answer – B.
Some may get confused with C but Implement Risk responses are for Known-Unknown risks. Workaround
is planned when an unknown risk occurs in the project. They are identified as a part of Monitor Risks
process, where the project team, post identification raises a change request (also a valid output for the
process) that gets processed for review and disposition through Perform Integrated Change Control
process and ultimately when approved gets implemented as a part of the Direct and Manage Project
Work process.
**Workaround is not part of PMBOK6, but we must remember PMP exam is beyond PMBOK. It available
in Rita and other Project Management books.
55. Answer- C.
Quality Function Deployment (QFD) is a Facilitation technique widely used in Manufacturing industry that
helps to determine critical characteristics of a new product. QFD starts by collecting customer needs, also
known as Voice of the Customer. These needs are then objectively sorted and prioritized, and goals are
set for achieving them.
QFD, that falls under Facilitation technique category is an example of Interpersonal and Team Skills
technique used during Collect Requirements process.
56. Answer – D.
Mind Mapping is an example of Data Representation tools and Technique used Plan Stakeholder
Engagement process, but not in Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process, so A is not correct. Multi-
criteria Decision Analysis is an example decision analysis tools and techniques which is used in Monitor
Stakeholder Engagement process, but not Plan Stakeholder Engagement process, so B is also not correct.
Presentations are example communication skills used in Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process, but
not Plan Stakeholder Engagement process, so C is not correct. Stakeholder Engagement Assessment
Matrix is an example of Data Representation technique used in both Plan Stakeholder Engagement as well
as Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process.
So, among all options, Option D is the right answer.
57. Answer – A.
Performance Measurement Baseline is an additional component for the Project Management Plan. Its
returned as an output for Develop Project Management Plan process, So B is not the right answer. C and
D doesn’t have Performance Measurement Baseline as input or output, so C and D are incorrect.
Performance Measurement Baseline acts as a valid input for Control Scope process. In Control Scope
process, when Earned Value analysis is used, Performance Measurement Baseline is compared to actual
results to determine if a change, corrective action or preventive action is necessary. So, among all options
provided A is the best answer.
58. Answer – C.
A, B, D are valid examples of Tools and Techniques in conduct procurement process. Source Selection
Criteria (Procurement Documentation) describe how bidder proposals will be evaluated. It’s an input to
the Conduct Procurement process and does not belong to Tools and Techniques category.
59. Answer – D.
Approved Change Requests generated by Perform Integrated Change Control process becomes input to
Direct and Manage Project Work, Control Quality and Control Procurements processes. Option A and C
are not correct because these processes don’t have Approved Change Request as input. Though Control
Quality process has Approved Change request as input but Approved Change Requests for Control Quality
process only gets affected by actions like defect repair, preventive or corrective actions, and it never
includes any requests in relation to modification of contracts or related contractual documents. Approved
change requests such as modifications to the contract or the procurement statement of work would affect
the Control Procurements process and it also acts as valid input to the process. So, among all options
provided D is the best answer.
60. Answer – B.
Nominal group technique is part of the Interpersonal and team skills category of technique. It is a
technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for
further brainstorming or for prioritization. It is a structured form of brainstorming that involves the entire
group of stakeholders participating in requirement gathering (Collect Requirements) process.
61. Answer – A.
The disposition of all Change Requests is recorded in the Change log as a part of project document update.
Change Log is also an example for a project document that maintains the status of all change request. So,
among all options, A is the right answer.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 1
62. Answer – C.
Decomposition is explicitly listed as a tools and techniques for both the Create WBS and the Define
Activities processes. So, among all option C is the right answer.
63. Answer – B.
A is not correct, because Networking is used as technique in Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process
but not used in Plan Communication Management process. Communication styles assessment and Expert
judgement are used in Plan Communications Management process but not in Monitor Stakeholder
Engagement process, so both C and D are also not correct. By following elimination rule, and PMBOK 6; B
is the right answer as Political awareness is used in both Plan Communication Management as well as
Monitor Stakeholder Engagement processes. Political awareness helps the project manager to develop
communication strategies to connect with stakeholders by understanding who wields power and
influence in the required field.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 366,530, 534.
64. Answer – C.
Here in the scenario, the newly joined Project Manager should review the Project Management Plan.
Development approach is the additional component for Project Management Plan that defines whether
predictive, Iterative, agile, or a hybrid model or development approach or model should be used.
65. Answer – D.
The Ground rules are defined in the Team Charter which is an output for Plan Resource Management
Process. So, among all options, D is the right answer.
66. Answer – A.
The situation states that the project manager as well as the risk owners has just concluded the Plan Risk
Responses process. Risk Register gets updated as a valid output for Plan Risk Response process with
information like agreed-upon response strategies, triggers, warning signs of risk occurrence, residual risks
that are expected to remain because they are deliberately accepted, etc.
67. Answer – B.
In the first iteration of the Identify Stakeholder process, Business case and the Benefit Management Plan
are sources of information about project’s stakeholders. A is not correct because the project charter may
help in the identification of key stakeholder list, this information too project charter receives from
Business case. To be more precise, question asked about stakeholders not key stakeholders. C is incorrect,
because Project Management Plan is not yet created in this stage. Some may get confused between B and
D, as both the options are close. Benefit Management Plan emphasizes on those stakeholders who will
benefit from the delivery of the outcomes of the project. Business case helps with initial list of
stakeholders affected by the project (both positively and negatively, in most possible scenarios). So,
among all options B is the best answer.
68. Answer - C.
A is the output for Manage Quality process, it’s not the input. So, A is not correct. Work Performance
Information is neither input nor output to the Manage Quality process, though it’s a valid output for
Control Quality process. So, B is also not correct. D is an input for Manage Quality process, but not an
output for Control Quality process. Therefore, D is also not correct. Based on elimination rule, C is right
answer. Further Quality Control Measurements is a valid output for Control Quality process that
represents documented results of Control Quality activities. It acts as a valid input for Manage Quality
process to analyze and evaluate the quality of the processes and deliverables of the project against the
standards of the performing organization or the requirements specified. So, considering all options, option
C is the right answer.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 288, 291, 298, 305.
69. Answer – B.
Benefit Management Plan is a type of Business document that describes how and when the benefits of
the project will be delivered and describes the mechanism that should be in place to measure those
benefits. During Closing, its reviewed to measure whether the benefits of the project were achieved as
planned.
70. Answer – C.
The question states that the project is ready to move to operation (Business Realization phase) which
implies that the project manager should start the closure procedure. Since the company got merged in
recent past, most likely there should be few changes in company’s OPA. On top of it, OPA is an input for
Close Project/phase process which contain project closure guidelines or requirements. Organization
Process Assets include the corporate policies and procedures which the project manager should follow
for formal project closure.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s)- 126.
71. Answer – C.
Here in this scenario, the project team is involved in Perform Integrated Change Control process of which
Work Performance Report is an input. Work Performance Report include resource availability, schedule
and cost data, earned value reports, and Burn-up or Burn-down charts.
72. Answer- C.
The Project Scope Statement includes Project Scope, major deliverables, acceptance criteria and Project
exclusions. As per the question, Project team is engaged in Scope baseline approval meeting, where
stakeholders discovered that some of the out of scope requirements have been added in the Project
scope. So, among all options given above, C is the best answer.
73. Answer – B.
BAC or PMB is the approved project budget that has been baselined during planning. So A and D are
incorrect answers. ETC gives an approximate idea of how much money will be required to complete the
remaining balance of work. So, C is incorrect. The estimated project budget is your latest cost estimate or
forecast, represented by EAC (Estimate At Completion). So, B is the correct answer.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s)- 264,265.
74. Answer – A.
Smoothing, also known as accommodating, emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of
difference. Here the Project Manager applied the smoothing technique.
75. Answer – A.
The question implies that the project team is trying to get rid of a possible threat by changing the Project
Management Plan, which is an example of Risk avoidance. People may get confused between option A
and B. But option A looks a better answer. Further, option B talks about a known risk, which is not correct.
A risk can be Known-Unknown or Unknown-Unknown. So, among all options provided A is the best
answer.
76. Answer – C.
This is a classic example of tricky Closing question where hint is there in the last line of question. The
question talks about contract Closure not Project Closure. So, Option B and D are not correct since those
are performed during Closing. Option A talks about Validate Scope process, where project deliverables
are formally accepted, but that does not ensure closure of contract. Contract closure is part of Control
Procurements process where seller is provided with a formal notice that Contract is complete. So, among
all the provided options, option C can be the best answer.
77. Answer – C.
At this point, the project should have started, but has not. It is behind schedule, but no money has been
spent yet. As a result, PV is positive but EV and AC are Zero. SV = EV - PV = - PV (Negative value of PV). CV
= EV - AC = 0 SPI = EV/PV = 0/Value = 0. Some of these conditions are unusual. Normally, SPI would not
equal CV, but in this case, both are equal to zero (ignoring the units of measure). Since, CV is zero, Option
C is the correct answer.
78. Answer – A.
A secondary risk arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response. Here as the question states,
Team has decided to implement a planned risk response of doing automated testing. (PMBOK Guide) –
Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s)- 439.
79. Answer - C.
The question here talks about CPFF contract, where seller must provide the actual invoices for payment.
In addition, they get a fixed fee as their profit amount.
80. Answer – B.
The question states that the project manager has asked two team members to perform the Direct and
Manage Project Work process. Of the options provided, project management information system (PMIS)
is the only tool or technique listed. The change log and WBS are inputs to the process, while work
performance data is an output. The tool, that actually team members are required to refer here is the
Work Authorization system which is actually a sub-system of PMIS.
81. Answer – C.
Political awareness helps the project manager to plan communications based on the Project environment
as well as the organization’s political environment. Political awareness concerns the recognition of power
relationships, both formal and informal, and the willingness to operate within these structures.
82. Answer – D.
The above situation suggests that risk response was planned but never implemented. Project team already
considered the above situation during planning, made necessary resource replacement plan, if such
situation triggers. But the new resource was never on-boarded. The common problem in risk management
is that project teams may spend a lot of time and effort in identifying, analyzing, and documenting risks
and risk responses, but then no action is taken to manage those risks.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s)- 449-450.
83. Answer – A.
Prevention is keeping errors out of the process. Prevention over Inspection is the biggest slogan of Modern
Quality Management.
84. Answer- A.
The scenario states that the project manager used affinity diagram to organize and group the result of
RCA.
85. Answer – D.
The Project Manager should evaluate the other impacts of the project first. These include the impact on
other project level constraints like scope, cost, quality, resource, etc. Once evaluated, CCB (if exists) can
be notified to take a final decision of the Change Request.
86. Answer – C.
The opportunity cost is the monetary value of the lost opportunity. In this case, since Project Y is not
selected, the opportunity cost becomes $25,000.
Refer: -PMP Exam Prep 9th edition 2018 – Rita Mulcahy.
87. Answer – D.
Every project has a sponsor. The projects have CCB team when required, not always. The approval
authority for a Change Request is generally defined in Change Management plan. Option C is a good
option, but unless Sponsor is part of CCB, CCB decision cannot be marked as final. For all baseline level
changes, Sponsor approval is mandatory even after CCB approval (if sponsor is not part of CCB). Further,
all projects do not have CCB.
Here in the question, ultimate is the keyword. All change requests raised in large project require sponsor
approval even if there is CCB in the project.so, among all options, option D is the best choice.
88. Answer – A.
Variability risks can be addressed by using a simulation technique called Monte Carlo analysis which is
performed as a part of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
89. Answer – B.
The question states that the Project has just entered the planning phase. So, option D is incorrect as
Physical resource assignments are created during execution. Assumption log records the assumption and
constraints available at project level, so Option C is also incorrect. Resource Management plan determines
how resources would be acquired; it does not contain information of available resources. Further, since
the project is at early stage of planning, Resource Management plan may not be drafted yet. So, answer
is B by following elimination technique. Project Charter contains Pre-approved financial resources.
Sometimes, Physical and human resources are determined in advance, even before Resource
Management plan is drafted. This is also called Pre-assignment. Pre-assignment include team members
or physical resources already assigned during Develop Project Charter process. So, among all the options
provided, B is the best answer.
90. Answer – A.
The scenario in the question states that Project is in Execution, which mean baselines are already created.
Once baselines are created, formal change requests are required to establish any changes in the project
control documents.
91. Answer – C.
Reserve analysis compares the amount of Contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining
at any time in the project in order to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate.
92. Answer – D.
The scenario over here states that the initial plan is no longer valid, so formula for EAC would be
summation of actual costs incurred till date and the expected cost to finish the remaining work. EAC =
AC + ETC AC = 82% of the original budget = 1,000,000 * 82% = 820,000.
ETC = Half of the planned cost of the remaining work = $500,000/2 = $250,000.
EAC = $820,000 + $250,000 = $1,070,000.
93. Answer – D.
Here the question talks about Task 8 of Domain 1, which states "Inform stakeholders of the approved
project charter to ensure a common understanding of the key deliverables, milestones, and their roles
and responsibilities." The project charter includes high-level information, such as project objectives,
milestones, and the roles and responsibilities of key stakeholders and its approval should be
communicated to all the stakeholders before project planning starts.
Please see - Process Domain I: Initiation – Task 9
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 53,81
94. Answer- D.
The question states that the project team is involved in Estimate Activity Resources process, where they
are estimating the type and quantities of physical resources required to complete project work. Physical
resources or team resources cannot be estimated at activity level, using three-point estimation.
95. Answer – B.
Here in this scenario, Team member wants to review the description of scope of work assigned to him,
which means he must review work package level information. Some may get confused between option B
and D, Activity Lists may relate the work package, but they do not contain the detailed description of the
work package. The WBS dictionary is a document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and
scheduling information about each component in the WBS. It also contains description of work at work
package level. Further, from high level point of view, Activity List focuses on your schedule activities (i.e.
on the "tasks") while the WBS Dictionary focuses on describing your deliverables (the "scope").
96. Answer – A.
The question states that the project is running behind schedule but within budget and the project
manager must complete the project soon to remain competitive in the market. Since the project is already
risk prone, Fast tracking is not advisable in the current situation. As per the situation stated above crashing
is the best solution. Crashing is a schedule compression technique that shortens the project schedule
without affecting the project scope. Approving overtime, bringing in additional resources and paying to
expedite delivery activities are valid examples of crashing. Further, as the project still under budget, the
application of crashing technique won’t hamper the project budget to a great extent.
97. Answer - B.
The question implies that the Project Team has categorized the identified stakeholders using
Power/Interest grid. Business operational end-users are those people who usually handle day-to-day
operational activities of a company. They may not be powerful, but may have high interest on the project,
as they are one who will use the website when it gets developed. In Power-Interest grid, they fall under:
- Low Power/High Interest category. It’s the responsibility of the project team to keep these people
adequately informed, talk to them from time to time to ensure that there no major issues cropping up.
These people can often be very helpful, especially with the details of your intervention. So, among all
options provided, B is the correct answer.
98. Answer is A.
Feedback and Presentations are only communication tools used in two processes Manage
Communications and Monitor Stakeholder Engagement. Feedback is used to ensure that the information
to stakeholders is received and understood. Presentation is used to provide clear information to
stakeholders.
99. Answer - C.
As per the scenario stated above, Portfolio governing body is having a meeting to make approval decision
of project charter. Project Charter shows organization commitment to the project and provides direct link
between the project and the strategic objectives of the organization.
100. Answer – D.
The scenario states that here Active Risk acceptance strategy has been adopted to handle the low
probability and high impact risk. In this case, no response plan has been initiated and contingency reserve
has been kept handling the risk if it occurs.
101. Answer – C.
In case of Job Shadowing you follow an expert and gain knowledge from him or a group, whereas reverse
shadowing is a situation where expert follows you and rectifies your way of work if required. The question
states that the new Project Manager has started taking responsibilities, under the close observation of
outgoing senior Project Manager which is like Reverse-KT situation. Knowledge fairs and cafés is creative
knowledge sharing session among group of people of common interests, generally happens face-to-face.
So, among all options provided C is the right answer.
102. Answer – B.
In general, manage team process of the executing process group takes care of Project performance
appraisal. In a Project Performance Appraisal team member get feedback from project work supervisors.
103. Answer – C.
The question states that the Project Manager is involved in Close Project/Phase process. As per the given
scenario, A and D are already completed. Celebration party can be organized any time, but option C, i.e.
Task 6 for closing domain is very important task associated to closing. All project documents must be
archived, so that they can be referred in future projects. So, among all options provided C is the best
answer.
Process Domain V: Closing – Task 6
104. Answer – A.
The question states that the Project Manager is analyzing schedule control. Run Chart evaluates how a
process is running, So D is not true. Why-why diagram is mainly a tool for RCA, so C is not applicable here.
A burndown chart shows how much work is remaining to be done, whereas a burnup chart shows how
much work has been completed, and the total amount of work. So, among all options provided, A is right
answer.
105. Answer – C.
Transfer involves shifting of ownership of a threat to a third party to manage the risk and bear the impact,
if the threat occurs. The question states that, the project manager has to find a best approach that involves
transference of pure risk that is currently part of the project. Among all the given options "Hiring an
outside organization" to do the work that involves pure risk is the best choice.
106. Answer – A.
B, C, D are examples of Hierarchical Charts where positions and relationships are shown in graphical, top-
down format. RACI chart is an example RAM (Responsibility assignment matrix) and is not an example of
Hierarchical charts.
107. Answer – B.
The question implies that the Project Team is involved in Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. All the
provided options are input to this process. But, it’s the EEF, that helps to determine the organizational
culture, political climate, as well as stakeholder risk appetites.
08. Answer – C.
The Change Management plan provides the direction for managing the change control process and
describes how the change requests throughout the project will be formally authorized and incorporated.
109. Answer – D.
A, B, C are input to Create WBS process, where D is the output of the Create WBS process. So, D is the
correct answer.
110. Answer – B.
Lessons learned is collected throughout the Life Cycle of the project. During closing, the final Lessons
learned is collected and transferred to Lessons Learned repository so that future projects benefit out of
it. So, here among all options provided, B is the best option in the current scenario.
111. Answer – C.
Resource leveling is a resource optimization technique in which start, and finish dates are adjusted based
on resource constraints. This technique can change the critical path and acts as an effective aid to control
over-allocation. Resource smoothing is also a resource optimization tool, but it doesn’t change the project
schedule, so D is not correct. Option A and B are examples of schedule compression techniques. So, among
all options provided, C is the best answer.
112. Answer – D.
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) is the procedure for settling disputes without litigation. At project
level, ADR mechanisms are generally defined in agreements in advance.
113. Answer - C.
The question talks about Risk avoidance strategy which can be applied for addressing high probability
risks. Risk response planning are made during Plan Risk Responses process.
114. Answer – B.
Statistical Sampling is a tool that control quality process uses to test a sample population for inspection.
The size and the frequency measurements are determined during Plan Quality Management Process.
115. Answer – A.
Interactive communication happens between two or more parties for performing a multi-directional
exchange of information in real time. Videoconferencing is a good example for Interactive
communication.
116. Answer - D.
The situation states that 60% of the deliverables are not accepted by customer during last inspection.
Work Performance Information, also an output for validate scope process includes information about
project progress, such as which deliverables have been accepted and which have not been accepted, along
with the reasons behind acceptance and non-acceptance. So, among all options provided, D is the best
answer.
117. Answer – B.
The situation states that the project management team is currently involved in Plan Procurement
Management process and the data analysis tool: - Make-or-buy analysis is being used in this scenario to
come up with a Make-or-buy decision, one key output for Plan Procurement Management process. Make-
or-buy analysis generally determines whether work will be accomplished by the team or would be
outsourced.
118. Answer - C.
In Project Management, negotiation is a popular tool for reaching consensus on project needs. Here the
Project Manager needs to apply his interpersonal skill by negotiating with the Functional Manager and try
to reach a win-win result. B is incorrect because in Matrix organization, Functional Manager plays the role
of resource manager. Option A or D can only be considered if option C fails. So, among all options
provided, C is the best answer.
119. Answer – B.
Here in this situation the scope change needs to be implemented as the CR evolved out of change in
government regulation. So, option C is wrong. Project Manager has no authority to change the
Management reserve, so A is also not applicable. D is also wrong, because it’s never wise to wait for the
government regulation getting implemented. Project Sponsor is an individual with overall accountability
of the project and is responsible for fund allocation and maintenance. Among all options provided B is the
best answer, as it’s the Project Sponsor who can take the best decision here.
120. Answer – C.
A promotion would be the trigger to force the project team to execute the risk response plan. The correct
answer is: Trigger
121. Answer – A.
Delphi Technique is not part of PMBOK6. so, it’s not the best Answer. Best Answer is interviewing, which
can be done to an individual, as well as to group. Further, Delphi technique is limited to technical risks,
while interviewing addresses risks in detail and generates engagement of stakeholders.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 80,142, 282,409
Practice Standard for Project Risk Management, Project Management Institute Inc., 2009
122. Correct Answer is D. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017,
Page(s) – 341.
123. Answer – D.
Face to face meetings are interactive, and hence are the most effective means for communicating and
resolving issues with stakeholders. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) – 371.
124. Answer – B. Risk
Report should be reviewed during closing to check the existence of any risks which are still open. (PMBOK
Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 125
125. Answer – B.
As per scenario stated in the question, since the usage of unofficial communication platform is not part of
Communication Management Plan, so it should not be used. It’s the duty of the project manager to
prevent the project level processes. The project manager should review the Communication Management
Plan and direct the team to use communication platform stated in the Communication Management plan.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) –377.
126. Answer – D.
Advertising is a good avenue to expand existing lists of sellers. Advertisements can be placed in general
circulation publications in order to achieve this. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management
Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 487.
127. Answer – A.
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) provides the framework for the schedule management plan (PMBOK
Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 182.
128. Answer – B.
Employee development plan records, skill assessments are recorded in EEF. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth
Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 344.
129. Answer – B.
In Test driven development, Test cases can be prepared even before coding gets initiated. Here in this
scenario, though you are using Adaptive development approach, but having Finish-to-Start dependencies
in adaptive environment makes little sense. Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique in the
activities or phases which are normally done in sequence can be done in parallel.
130. Correct answer is D.
131. Answer – D.
Project Charter also captures the overall project risks at high level. Since the question states that the exit
of the Scrum Master has already been documented as risk during Initiation, so it’s obvious that, the project
manager or any related responsible authority should consult the project charter, risk response plan
developed to handle the stated risk, and then work with the functional manager to execute necessary
steps involved in resolving the issue.
Options A and B are not correct as role changes or implementation of dual roles are not examples of best
practices. Option C is also ruled out as it won’t provide any solution.
Among all options, Option D is the best choice.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) –81.
132. Answer – D.
Any baseline related changes (as in this case schedule baseline) can only be approved through Perform
Integrated Change Control process. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) – 223.
133. Answer –D.
Risk Management plan tells how the risks will be handled in entire project life cycle.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 405
134. Answer – C.
Here in the question, keyword here is information not communication the situation states that the
Monitor Communication process is being carried out, where both Communication management plan and
Stakeholder Engagement plan are valid input. Project Manager is trying to ensure whether information is
floating and getting managed as per plan. Communication Management plan - contain plan for
information creation, collection and distribution. Stakeholder Engagement plan - Helps to identify
communication strategies required to engage stakeholders. As per the situation mentioned in the above
question, both Communication Management plan and Stakeholder Engagement plan needs to be referred
to conclude.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 390.
135.Answer – B. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 373.
136. Answer – A.
During the norming stage, the project team members start to work together and adjust their work habits
and behaviors to support each other. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) - 338
137. Answer – C.
The Product owner is responsible for guiding the direction of the product that includes features and
functionality, cost, schedule. A and D are not correct as formal Change Control procedure that is followed
in projects with predictive life cycle, is not followed in Agile projects. Agile team consists of Cross-
functional team members who is responsible for carrying out the project work without any external
dependencies. But team cannot decide the product direction, so Option B is also not correct. Here, as per
the scenario stated in the question, best approach for the scum master would be to set up a meeting
between the project stakeholder and the product owner. The product owner is the person who is
ultimately accountable for the product that is built. The product owner generally works with customers
and the teams to define and maintain the product direction.
So, among all options provided option C is the best answer.
Agile Practice Guide - Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 40,41
138. Answer- C.
Post identification, Risk needs to be analyzed. Numerically analyzing risk is costly, not possible in all
projects. Qualitative analysis of risk helps project team to know the probability and impact of risk which
would further help the team to plan risk responses. A, B, D are example of analyzing risk in quantitative
fashion. C is the correct answer.
139. Answer – A.
Communication Management Plan contains plan for information creation, collection and distribution. It
also determines which stakeholder will receive confidential information.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) -377.
140. Answer – C.
Business case is prepared by doing cost-benefit analysis with key stakeholders and contains information
related to financial success factors associated to the project.
141. Answer – A.
The question states that the work has been completed as per the technical specifications mentioned in
the contract. Therefore, the seller has met the acceptance criteria as described in the terms and conditions
of the contract. Realistically, you would likely negotiate a new or amended contract with the seller to align
the deliverable with your requirements better. However, negotiation was not listed as an answer choice.
Therefore, among all available options, accepting the deliverable is the best answer to question asked.
142. Answer - A.
The question suggests that a Middle-ware version change has occurred during project execution which
triggered the Implement Risk Responses process. In this case, however, the scenario suggests the use of
management reserves is necessary to restart project execution. Since, Management reserves are not
included in the cost baseline, an approved change request is required to transfer funds from management
reserves into the cost baseline. Once the required portion of management reserves has been released
and moved from management reserves to the cost baseline, the project manager can access the funds as
part of the cost baseline and restart project execution. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project
Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 254-255, 451.
143. Answer - C.
A risk review meeting is conducted as part of the Monitor Risks process. The risk register, assumption log,
and issue log may be updated as a result of this process. The question describes a situation, results of
which may need to be documented in some or all of these project documents.
The assumption log (sometimes referred to as the assumptions and constraints log) is a project document
used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project life cycle.
So, among all options, option C seems to be the best answer.
144. Correct Answer is D. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017,
Page(s) -264-265
145. Correct answer is B. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017,
Page(s) -283.
146. Correct answer is A.
147. Correct answer is C.
148. Answer - B.
Successful Project Managers with good people skill always have great Emotional intelligence.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) -349.
149. Answer - A.
Some may get confused between A and B. Payment schedule is recorded in Procurement SOW before
contract gets signed. After contract is signed its available in Agreement. So, among all options available A
is the best answer.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) -481
150. Answer – B.
Project Closure documents capture the termination reason.
151. Answer – B.
Trial engagement is the modern trend of procurement management, where sometimes Buyer engages
with Seller temporarily or on trial basis before allotting them the big chunk of work. It helps Buyer to
evaluate whether seller is suited to Buyer’s organization culture.
In this scenario, among all options provided B is the best solution. D is also good option, but it may kill lot
of time.
152. Answer – B.
A Project Charter cannot be considered as a contract because there is no consideration, or any money
promised or exchanged in its creation. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) - 77.
153. Answer – B.
Problem should be evaluated first. You know the SV, not the CV. After determination of CV take a call on
crashing or fast tracking based on further detailed evaluation. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project
Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 262.
154. Correct Answer is A.
155. Answer – C.
In this case Risk has been transferred to the third party. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project
Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 443
156. Answer- C.
An award fee is dependent on the satisfaction of the client and is evaluated subjectively. Award fee is not
subjected to an appeal. So, among all options provided C is the best answer.
157. Answer - A.
The question focuses on resolving the issue rather than documenting the same. Recording in issue log
may be the first step the PM should take, but it won’t resolve the issue, as stated in the question. If the
Question was what Project Manager should do first, then answer could have been D. So, among all options
provided A is the best option.
158. Answer - B.
In Project Charter its mentioned, who will sign-off the project.
159. Answer – D.
If identified risks, do not occur, the unused contingency reserve may be removed from the project budget
to free up resources for other projects and operations.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 202, 254, 439,443.
160. Answer- B.
This is another classic example of Gold plating. The main objective of the project team is to meet customer
need, not exceeding the same. Working 4 extra hours without Change request is not recommended.
161. Answer – C.
Contract Change Control System include Paperwork, tracking systems, dispute resolution procedures, and
approval levels necessary for authorizing changes to the contract. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project
Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) -470.
162. Answer B
The correct answer is US$ 93,000. The calculation is as follows: Incentive fee based on budgeted costs =
8% of 100,000 = 8,000 Actual costs = 80,000 Share of cost savings = 25% of 20,000 = 5,000 (since the cost
savings is 100,000 - 80,000). Hence the payout = 80,000 + 8,000 + 5,000 = US$ 93,000. (PMBOK Guide) –
Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 472.
163. Answer – B.
Intellectual property rights are included among other non-technical requirements in the requirements
documentation (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) - 485.
164. Answer - D.
In performing stage, Leader delegates. Leadership style in each stages of Tuckman ladder: - Forming –
Directive, Storming –Coach, Norming- Facilitator Performing- Delegation, Adjourning- Reassure and
communicate.
165. Answer – C.
Risk Probability assessment considers the likelihood that a specific risk will occur. Risk impact assessment
considers the potential effect on one or more project objectives such as cost, schedule, quality,
performance. Among all given options, option C is the best choice, which is also a valid tool for Perform
Qualitative Risk Analysis process.
166. Correct Answer is B.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s)-550.
167. Answer – C.
The following scenario indicates that the Project Team is doing Scope control. Here Requirements
Documentation should be reviewed to detect any deviation in the agreed-upon scope to the project.
168. Answer – D.
The Question suggests that you are in Define Activities process and what this process will create. Activity
list, Activity attributes, milestone list are major output created during the Define Activities process. Among
all options given above, D is the correct one. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 183-186
169. Answer- B.
A performance review is a technique that is used to measure, compare, and analyze actual performance
of work in progress on the project against the baseline. The question suggests that the project manager
has to perform Control Procurements , where has to use the data analysis tool performance review, to
prepare vendor performance report, against what is there in the agreement. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth
Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 498.
170. Answer – D.
The Change Management Plan provides the direction for managing the change control process and
documents the roles and responsibilities of the Change Control Board (CCB). The change management
plan also defines each committee member’s role and level of authority within the group, and committee
rules and procedures for decision making, it also specifies the number of people needed to pass a vote,
who has the authority to break ties when voting on change requests, and who may have the ability to
overrule the committee in certain cases.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 116, 120.
171. Answer – C.
Time-boxing helps to minimize scope-creep as it forces the teams to process essential features first, then
other features when time permits.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 182.
172. Answer – D.
Contract is generally terminated via mutual consent. However, Buyer can take the call when its explicitly
mentioned in Agreement. A and B are examples of Termination of Cause and C is an example of
termination of convenience.
173. Answer – C.
The authority of PM is least in Weak Matrix organization among all specified above. It’s the proper
utilization of influencing skill which PM requires for his success in project as a project manager. Further,
any matrix organization has two reporting bosses. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management
Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 350.
174. Answer – B.
Issue log is the project document which should updated first to register the issue.
175. Answer – C.
Prototypes allow stakeholders to experiment with model of the final product or requirement.
176. Answer – A.
Management reviews are additional component to Project Management Plan. It determines the point in
the project when PM and stakeholder will review the project progress to determine need of Preventive
and corrective actions if performance is not as expected.
177. Answer- C.
Tornado diagram helps to display the greatest potential Risk to your project. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth
Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 425- 426.
178. Answer – A.
179. Answer – A.
Here the Project Manager is reviewing the Project exit criteria defined in Project Charter. (PMBOK Guide)
– Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81.
180. Answer – D.
Expert judgment is judgment provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area,
discipline, industry, etc., as appropriate for the activity being performed. Such expertise may be provided
by any group or person with specialized education, knowledge, skill, experience, or training. The inclusion
of representatives from various departments to evaluate seller proposals is an example of using expert
judgment.
181. Correct Answer is C. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017,
Page(s) 86.
182. Answer- B.
The risk register serves as the central repository for planned risk responses and lists risk owners. In a
project, any time a new risk emerges on a project, the first step to take is to immediately document it in
the risk register.
183. Answer – C.
Procurement Strategy which is an output of Plan Procurement Management process determines project
delivery methods, type of legally binding agreement(s), how the procurement will advance through the
procurement phases.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 476, 481.
184. Answer – B.
Here the scenario suggests that the Project Manager is in Risk Identification process, and the Stakeholder
Register which is an input to Identify Risk process, contain the information of individuals who will
participate in the risk identification process and those who are available to act as risk owners.
185. Answer - C.
Data gathering techniques that can be used for the Identify Stakeholders process include questionnaires
and surveys, brainstorming, and brain writing. Brain writing is a refinement of brainstorming that allows
individual participants time to consider the questions individually before the group creativity session is
held. Therefore, the first step of brain writing is providing the participants with the questions before the
creativity session. This process will allow the participants to be better prepared which will make the
meeting more effective than a traditional brainstorming session. So among all options provided , C is the
best answer.
186. Answer - B.
187. Answer – A.
Scatter diagram shows relationship among two variables.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 293,304.
188. Answer – A.
The question states that you, as the project manager, have completed project initiation and are about to
start planning your project. The project management plan is created during the Develop Project
Management Plan process which is part of the Planning Process Group. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition,
Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 82.
189. Correct Answer is D.
Very important topic for real life exam. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc.,
2017, Page(s) – 406.
190. Answer- C.
Multi-criteria decision analysis utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach to
evaluate requested changes according to a set of predefined criteria. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition,
Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 119.
191. Answer – D.
Here the PM is performing Control resources process. For selecting the best supplier, PM team should do
Cost-benefit analysis to determine the corrective action in case of such project deviation. (PMBOK Guide)
– Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s)- 282,356.
192. Answer – D.
Project Manager should review Procurement management plan to review timetable of key procurement
activities and constraints and assumption that can effect planned procurements. Since this option is not
provided, Project Management plan is the best answer as procurement Management plan is a subsidiary
plan for Project management plan.
193. Answer – B.
The law of diminishing returns states that, at some point, adding an additional factor( here in this case
resource) of production results in smaller increases in output.
194. Answer – A.
Resisting to change is not a valid interpersonal skill.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) – 144-145, 153, 709.
195. Answer – D.
The work authorization system is a part of your company’s Internal Enterprise Environmental Factors, and
its generally part of any change control system. It defines how work is assigned to people. If work needs
to be approved by specific managers, the work authorization system will make sure that the right people
are notified when a team member’s work assignments change.
196. Answer – C.
Key word here is " Investigation and analysis from various sources". If you are using a Tools and
techniques, then options B and D are out because they are outputs. Cost aggregation is a technique where
you take the individual work package cost estimates are then aggregate the same for the higher
component levels of the WBS (such as control accounts) and, ultimately, for the entire project. So A is also
not Correct. Therefore, based on elimination rule, B is the right answer. Further, Financing entails
acquiring funding for projects. You can investigate and analyze different financing sources. You can
finance using internal sources such as: common stock, preferred stock, bonds or external sources: credit
line, loans, mortgage, others. Here, you are trying to determine which one is best for the project and for
your company, so among all options C is the best answer.
197. Answer – A.
This is a calculation question that’s asking you to use SPI and CPI to evaluate your project.
First calculate SPI = EV / PV = $15,000 / $12,000 = 1.25 – this means your project is ahead of schedule.
Then calculate CPI = EV / AC = $15,000 / $11,000 = 1.36 – so your project is within its budget or under
budget.
(PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 263,267.
198. Answer – C.
The above scenario states that team is engaged Monitor risk process. Since, a new type of Technical risk
is identified, Risk Breakdown Structure should be updated with the new risk information, so that risk
identification checklist of future projects can also be developed based on the updated Risk Breakdown
Structure (RBS). Organization Process Assets (OPA), that are updated as a result of monitor risk include
Risk breakdown structure. Therefore, among all options, C is the best answer.
199. Answer – C.
The problems, gaps, inconsistencies, and conflicts are collectively known as issues. Issues are recorded in
the issue log. (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute Inc., 2017, Page(s) 96.
200. Answer – A.
A Quality checklist is a structured tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed. It’s
a valid data gathering tool used in Manage Quality process. Quality checklists are also used to incorporate
the acceptance criteria included in the scope baseline.
Here, in this scenario, among all options, option A seems to be the best answer.

Mock 4 Answers

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mock 4 Answers

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1.

Rita Mulcahy 9th edition, RMC Publications, Inc.,2018, Page - 338.

Customer inspection of Project deliverables is a part of Validate scope process.

So, among all options, Option D is the right answer.

Refer: -PMP Exam Prep 9th edition 2018 – Rita Mulcahy.

EAC = $820,000 + $250,000 = $1,070,000.

Please see - Process Domain I: Initiation – Task 9

Process Domain V: Closing – Task 6

124. Answer – B. Risk

130. Correct answer is D.

Among all options, Option D is the best choice.

133. Answer –D.

So, among all options provided option C is the best answer.

So, among all options, option C seems to be the best answer.

146. Correct answer is A.

147. Correct answer is C.

Project Closure documents capture the termination reason.

154. Correct Answer is A.

In Project Charter its mentioned, who will sign-off the project.

Scatter diagram shows relationship among two variables.

189. Correct Answer is D.

Resisting to change is not a valid interpersonal skill.

You might also like