Question Papers and Answer Keys PG Updated

ROLL NO.
: PG1BME69
BIO MEDICAL ENGINEERING

A
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
I
PAPER-I
C
Instructions:
T i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
E iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to
the wrong answer.
v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
programmable scientific calculator.
vi. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise specified.
vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
blue ball point pen.
viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
ix. Hand over your OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of examination
A before leaving the examination hall.
I
PART-A (80 X 1= 80 Marks)
C
T 1. If x(n) is a discrete-time signal, then the value of x(n) at non integer value of ‘n’ is:
(a) Zero
E (b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Not defined
2. The discrete time function defined as x(n)=n for n≥0; x(n)=0 for n<0 is a
(a) Unit sample signal
(b) Unit step signal
(c) Unit ramp signal
(d) Undefined signal
A 3. The phase function of a discrete time signal x(n)=an, where a=r.ejθ is:
(a) tan(nθ)
I (b) θ
(c) tan-1(nθ)
C (d) nθ
T 4. x(n)*δ(n-k)=?
a) x(n)
E b) x(k)
c) x(k)*δ(n-k)
d) x(k)*δ(k)
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5. If the system is initially relaxed at time n=0 and memory equals to zero, then the
A response of such state is called as:
(a) Zero-state response
I (b) Zero-input response
(c) Zero-condition response
C (d) None of the mentioned
T 6. The formula
E that gives the response y(n) of the LTI system as the function of the input signal x(n)
and the unit sample response h(n) is known as:
(a) Conventional sum of product
(b)Convolution sum
(c) Convolution product
(d) Convolution Difference
7. If the output of the discrete system at any ‘n’ depends only the present or the past
values of the inputs, then the system is said to be:
(a) Linear
A (b) Stable
(c) Causal
I (d) Thissituation is not possible
8. The process of converting discrete-time continuous valued signal into discrete-time

C discrete valued(digital) signal is known as:
(a) Sampling
T (b) Quantization
(c) Coding
E (d) Interpolation
9. For a continuous time signal x(t) to be periodic with a period T, then x(t+mT), m
integer, should be equal to:
(a) x(-t)
(b) x(mT)
(c) x(mt)
(d) x(t)
10. Which of the following series has an ROC as mentioned below?

A
E
(a) α-nu(n)
(b) αnu(n)
(c) α-nu(-n)
(d) αnu(-n)
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11. Which of the following is a method for implementing an FIR system?

A (a) Direct form
(b) Cascade form
I (c) Lattice structure
(d) All the above
C
12. Which of the following is the application of lattice filter?
T (a) Digital speech processing
(b) Adaptive filter
E (c) Electroencephalogram
(d) All of the mentioned
13. A closed form solution of the state space equations is easily obtained when the system
matrix F is:
(a) Transpose
(b) Symmetric
(c) Identity
(d) Diagonal
A 14. If NB and NC are the orders of the Butterworth and Chebyshev filters respectively to
meet the same frequency specifications, then which of the following relation is true?
I (a) NC=NB
(b) NC<NB
C (c) NC>NB
(d) Cannot be determined
T
15. In autoregressive models _______
E (a) Current value of dependent variable is influenced by current values of
independent variables
(b) Current value of dependent variable is influenced by current and past values of
independent variables
(c) Current value of dependent variable is influenced by past values of both
dependent and independent variables
(d) Current value of dependent variable is not influenced by any values
16. What should be the desired response for an optimum wiener filter to be an
approximate inverse filter?
A (a) u(n)
(b) δ(n)
I (c) u(-n)
(d) δ(-n)
C
17. The state space or the internal description of the system still involves a relationship
T between the input and output signals, what are the additional set of variables it also
involves?
E (a) System variables
(b) Location variables
(c) State variables
(d) Time variables
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18. Wavelet series equation is sum of

A (a) scaling coefficient
(b) detail coefficient
I (c) span coefficient
(d) Both (a) and (b)
C
19. Which gives a measure of the degree to which a pure color is diluted by white light?
(a) Saturation
T
(b) Hue
(c) Intensity
E
(d) Brightness
20. The range of values spanned by the gray scale is called:
(a) Dynamic range
(b) Band range
(c) Peak range
(d) Resolution range
21. What is the next step in image processing after compression?

(a) Wavelets
A (b) Segmentation
(c) Representation and description
I (d) Morphological processing
C 22. To convert a continuous sensed data into Digital form, which of the following is
required?
T (a) Sampling
(b) Quantization
(c) Both Sampling and Quantization
E
(d) Neither Sampling nor Quantization
23. Assume that an image f (x, y) is sampled so that the result has M rows and N
columns. If the values of the coordinates at the origin are (x, y) = (0, 0), then the
notation (0, 1) is used to signify:
(a) First sample along second row
(b) Second sample along first row
(c) First sample along first row
(d) Second sample along second row
A 24. What is the tool used in tasks such as zooming, shrinking, rotating, etc.?
(a) Sampling
I (b) Interpolation
(c) Filtering
C (d) Decimation
25. The procedure done on a digital image to alter the values of its individual pixels is
T
(a) Neighbourhood Operations
(b) Image Registration
E
(c) Geometric Spacial Transformation
(d) Single Pixel Operation
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26. Of the following, _________ has the maximum frequency.

A (a) UV Rays
(b) Gamma Rays
I (c) Microwaves
(d) Radio Waves
C
27. Enhancement of differences between images is based on the principle of ________
T (a) Additivity
(b) Homogeneity
E (c) Subtraction
(d) Filtering
28. Which of the following in an image can be removed by using smoothing filter?
(a) Smooth transitions of gray levels
(b) Smooth transitions of brightness levels
(c) Sharp transitions of gray levels
(d) Sharp transitions of brightness levels
29. What is the name of process used to correct the power-law response phenomena?
A (a) Beta correction
(b) Alpha correction
I (c) Gamma correction
(d) Pie correction
C
30. Which of the following is the primary objective of sharpening of an image?
T (a) Blurring the image
(b) Highlight fine details in the image
E (c) Increase the brightness of the image
(d) Decrease the brightness of the image
31. Which of the following is a second-order derivative operator?

(a) Histogram
(b) Laplacian
(c) Gaussian
(d) Gradient
32. What is the process of moving a filter mask over the image and computing the sum of
A products at each location called as?
(a) Convolution
I (b) Correlation
(c) Linear spatial filtering
C (d) Non linear spatial filtering
T 33. What is the difference between Convolution and Correlation?

(a) Image is pre-rotated by 90 degree for Correlation
E (b) Image is pre-rotated by 90 degree for Convolution
(c) Image is pre-rotated by 180 degree for Correlation
(d) Image is pre-rotated by 180 degree for Convolution
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34. What is the method that is used to generate a processed image that have a specified
A histogram?
(a) Histogram linearization
I (b) Histogram equalization
(c) Histogram matching
C (d) Histogram processing
35. In a dark image, the components of histogram are concentrated on which side of the
T
grey scale?
(a) High
E
(b) Medium
(c) Low
(d) Evenly distributed
36. Averaging filters is also known as ____________ filter.
(a) Low pass
(b) High pass
(c) Band pass
(d) Band reject
A 37. Which of the following is best suited for salt-and-pepper noise elimination?
(a) Average filter
I (b) Box filter
(c) Max filter
C (d) Median filter
38. At which of the following scenarios averaging filters is/are used?
T (a) In the reduction of irrelevant details in an image
(b) For smoothing of false contours
E (c) For noise reductions
39. Which of the following is/are a nonlinear operation?
(a) Computation of variance and median
(b) Computation of average and median
(c) Computation of average and variance
(d) Computation of average, variance and median
40. To set the average value of an image zero, which of the following term would be set 0
A in the frequency domain and the inverse transformation is done, where F(u, v) is
Fourier transformed function of f(x, y)?
I (a) F(0, 0)
(b) F(0, 1)
C (c) F(1, 0)
(d) F(1,1)
T 41. Which of the following filters has a less sharp detail than the original image because
of attenuation of high frequencies?
E (a) Highpass filter
(b) Lowpass filter
(c) Zero-phase-shift filter
(d) Bandpass filter
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42. Which of the following filtering is done in frequency domain corresponding to

A lowpass filtering in spatial domain?
(a) Gaussian filtering
I (b) Unsharp mask filtering
(c) High-boost filtering
C (d) Median Filtering
T 43. Which of the following fact is true for an image?

(a) An image is the addition of illumination and reflectance component
E (b) An image is the subtraction of illumination component from reflectance
component
(c) An image is the subtraction of reflectance component from illumination
component
(d) An image is the multiplication of illumination and reflectance component
44. Which process expands the range of intensity levels in an image so that it spans the
full intensity range of the display?
(a) Shading correction
(b) Contrast sketching
A (c) Gamma correction
(d) Intensity matching
I 45. What is Gamma Correction?
(a) A Power-law response phenomenon
C (b) Inverted Intensity curve
((c) Light brightness variation
T (d) Bit-plane slicing
E 46. A fuzzy set ‘A’ in Z is characterized by a ____________ that associates with element
of Z, a real number in the interval [0, 1].
(a) Grade of membership
(b) Generic element
((c) Membership function
(d) subset
47. Using IF-THEN rule to create the output of fuzzy system is called _______________.
(a) Inference
(b) Assignment
A (c) Fuzzification
(d) Defuzzification
I 48. In general, which of the following assures of no ringing in the output?
(a) Gaussian Lowpass Filter
C (b) Ideal Lowpass Filter
(c) Butterworth Lowpass Filter
T (d) Chebyshev Lowpass Filter
E 49. A type of Image is called as VHRR image. What is the definition of VHRR image?
(a) Very High Range Resolution image
(b) Very High Resolution Range image
(c) Very High Resolution Radiometer image
(d) Very High Range Radiometer Image
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50. If an image contains K disjoint regions, what does the union of all the regions
A represent?
(a) Background
I (b) Foreground
(c) Outer Border
C (d) Inner Border
T 51. The distance between pixels p and q, the pixels have a distance less than or equal to
some value of radius r centred at (x, y) is called:
E (a) Block distance
(b) Euclidean distance
(c) Radial distance
(d) None of the above
52. What is the quantity that is used to measure the total amount of energy flowing from
the light source?
(a) Brightness
(b) Intensity
(c) Luminence
(d) Radiance
A
53. What are the characteristics that are used to distinguish one color from the other?
I (a) Brightness, Hue and Saturation
(b) Hue, Brightness and Intensity
C (c) Saturation, Hue
(d) Brightness, Saturation and Intensity
T
54. How many bit RGB color image is represented by full-color image?
E (a) 32-bit RGB color image
(b) 24-bit RGB color image
(c) 16-bit RGB color image
(d) 8-bit RGB color image
55. The principal factor to determine the spatial resolution of an image is _______
(a) Quantization
(b) Sampling
(c) Contrast
(d) Dynamic range
A 56. What is the name of the phenomenon that corrupts the sampled image, and how does
it happen?
I (a) Shannon sampling, if the band-limited functions are undersampled
(b) Shannon sampling, if the band-limited functions are oversampled
C (c) Aliasing, if the band-limited functions are undersampled
(d) Aliasing, if the band-limited functions are oversampled
T
57. In terms of Sampling and Quantization, Zooming and Shrinking may be viewed as __
E (a) Oversampling for both
(b) Oversampling and Undersampling respectively
(c) Undersampling and Oversampling respectively
(d) Undersampling for both
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58. What is the full form for PDF, a fundamental descriptor of random variables i.e. gray
A values in an image?
(a) Pixel distribution function
I (b) Portable document format
(c) Pel deriving function
C (d) Probability density function
T 59. In terms of enhancement, what does mean and variance refers to?
(a) Average contrast and average gray level respectively
E (b) Average gray level and average contrast respectively
(c) Average gray levels in both
(d) Average contrasts in both
60. While implementing logic operation on gray-scale images, the processing of pixel
values is done as __________
(a) String of integer numbers
(b) String of floating numbers
(c) String of binary numbers
(d) None of the mentioned
A
61. In general, the ratio of truncation error to that of round off error is
I (a) 2:1
(b) 1:1
C (c) 1:2
(d) 1:3
T
62. The expected value of the random variable
E (a) Will also be the most likely value of the random variable?
(b) Is another term for the mean value?
(c) Is also called the variance?
(d) Cannot be greater than 1
63. True error is defined as

(a) Present Approximation – Previous Approximation
(b) True Value – Approximate Value
(c) abs (True Value – Approximate Value)
(d) abs (Present Approximation – Previous Approximation)
A
64. Solving an engineering problem requires four steps. In order of sequence the four
I steps are:
(a) formulate, model, implement, solve
C (b) formulate, solve, model, implement
(c) formulate, model, solve, implement
T (d) model, formulate, implement, solve
E 65. The number 0.01850×10-3has ________ significant digits

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
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66. Truncation error is caused by approximating

A (a) irrational numbers
(b) fractions
I (c) rational numbers
(d) exact mathematical procedures
C
67. The value of x that satisfies f(x) = 0 is called the
T (a) root of an equation f(x) = 0
(b) root of a function f(x)
E (c) zero of an equation f(x) = 0
(d) zero of a function f(x)
68. For a certain cubic equation, at least one of the roots is known to be a complex root.
How many total complex roots does the cubic equation have?
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) cannot be determined
A 69. The trapezoidal rule of integration is exact for integrating at most ________ order
polynomials.
I (a) first
(b) second
C (c) third
(d) fourth
T
𝑑𝑦
70. The differential equation 2 𝑑𝑥 + x2y = 2x + 3, y(0) = 5 is
E (a) linear
(b) nonlinear
(c) linear with fixed constants
(d) undeterminable to be linear or nonlinear
71. The process of finding the values inside the interval (X0, Xn) is called
(a) Iterative
(b) Extrapolation
(c) Interpolation
(d) Polynomial equation
A
72. According to Lax equivalence theorem, finite difference approximation converges if
I and only if it is
(a) Consistent
C (b) Stable
(c) Both consistent and stable
T (d) Nothing can be said about convergence
73. In Simpson’s 1/3 rule, the number of interval’s must be

E (a) Multiple of 3
(b) Multiple of 6
(c) Odd
(d) Even
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A 74. In Newton’s Forward Interpolation Formula, the first and second terms will give the
__________ interpolation:
I (a) Linear
(b) Parabolic
C (c) Hyperbolic
(d) Non-linear
T
75. The Runge-Kutta method of second order is in a way:
E (a) Euler method
(b) Taylor method
(c) Modified Euler Method
(d) Improved Euler Method
76. If the derivative is required at a point on the starting value in the table, we use ____
formula
(a) Newton Forward Interpolation Formula.
(b) Newton Backward Interpolation Formula.
(c) Newton Forward Difference Formula.
A (d) LaGrange's Interpolation Formula.
I 77. In Runge-Kutta Method of second order the value of y= _________ .

(a) K1
C (b) K2
(c) K1+K2
T (d) K1-K2
E 78. Sources of secondary data are:

(a) Published sources
(b) Unpublished sources
(c) Both a) and b) above
(d) Cannot be collected without primary data
79. Classifying the data on time basis is known as:

(a) Geographical
(b) Chronological
(c) Serial
A (d) Calendar
I 80. Standard Deviation is used to know the _________

(a) Quantity of data
C (b) Consistency of data
(c) Classification of data
T (d) Statistics
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Part-B (40x2 = 80Marks)

A
I 81. What is the condition for a signal x(n)=Brn where r=eαT to be called as a decaying
exponential signal?
(a) 0<r<∞
C
(b) 0<r<1
(c) r>1
T
(d) r<0
E
82. What is the homogenous solution of the system described by the first order difference
equation y(n)+ay(n-1) =x(n)?
(a) c(a)n, where ‘c’ is a constant
(b) c(a)-n
(c) c(-a)n
(d) c(-a)-n
83. What is the order of the four operations that are needed to be done on h(k) in order to
convolute x(k) and h(k)?
Step-1:Folding
A
Step-2:Multiplicaton with x(k)
Step-3:Shifting
I Step-4:Summation
C (a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-2-4-3
T (c) 2-1-3-4
(d) 1-3-2-4
E
84. Which of the following is the auto correlation of x(n)?
(a) rxy(l)=x(l)*x(-l)
(b) rxy(l)=x(l)*x(l)
(c) rxy(l)=x(l)+x(-l)
(d) rxy(l)=x(l).x(-l)
where * denotes convolution operation
85. What is the nyquist rate of the signal x(t)=3cos(50*pi*t)+10sin(300*pi*t)-

cos(100*pi*t)?
A (a) 50Hz
(b) 100Hz
I (c) 200Hz
(d) 300Hz
C
86. Which of the following is the odd component of the signal x(t)=e(jt)?
T (a) cost
(b) j*sint
E (c) j*cost
(d) sint
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A 87. What is the ROC of the signal x(n)=δ(n-k), k>0?

(a) z=0
I (b) z=∞
(c) Entire z-plane, except at z=0
C (d) Entire z-plane, except at z=∞
T 88. What is the width of the main lobe of the frequency response of a rectangular time
window of length M-1?
E (a) /M
(b) 2/M
(c) 4/M
(d) 8/M
89. As the value of the frequency Ω tends to ∞, then |H(jΩ)| tends to:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) ∞
A
90. The state space or the internal description of the system still involves a relationship
I between the input and output signals, what are the additional set of variables it also
involves?
C (a) System variables
(b) Location variables
T (c) State variables
E
91. Low pass Butterworth filters are also called as:
(a) All-zero filter
(b) All-pole filter
(c) Pole-zero filter
92. Which of the following means the assigning meaning to a recognized object?
(a) Interpretation
(b) Recognition
A (c) Acquisition
(d) Segmentation
I
93. What role does the segmentation play in image processing?
C (a) Deals with extracting attributes that result in some quantitative information of
interest
T (b) Deals with techniques for reducing the storage required saving an image, or the
bandwidth required transmitting it
E (c) Deals with partitioning an image into its constituent parts or objects
(d) Deals with property in which images are subdivided successively into smaller
regions
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94. How is sampling been done when an image is generated by a single sensing element
A combined with mechanical motion?
(a) The number of sensors in the strip defines the sampling limitations in one
I direction and Mechanical motion in the other direction.
(b) The number of sensors in the sensing array establishes the limits of sampling in
C both directions.
(c) The number of mechanical increments when the sensor is activated to collect data.
T (d) None of the mentioned.
E 95. An image is digitized with M rows and N columns.Maximum gray levels, L, are an
integer power k of 2 for each pixel. Then, the number b, of bits required to store the
digitized image is:
(a) b=M*N*L
(b) b=M*N*k
(c) b=M*L*k
(d) b=L*N*k
96. Quantitatively, spatial resolution can be represented in which of the following ways:
(a) line pairs
A (b) pixels
(c) dots
I (d) all the above
C 97. _____________ is the effect caused by the use of an insufficient number of intensity
levels in smooth areas of a digital image.
T (a) Gaussian smooth
(b) Contouring
E (c) False Contouring
(d) Interpolation
98. Which of the following is impractical to measure?

(a) Frequency
(b) Radiance
(c) Luminance
d) Brightness
99. Region of Interest (ROI) operations is commonly called as ___________

A (a) Shading correction
(b) Masking
I (c) Dilation
(d) Interpolation
C
100. The mask shown in the figure below belongs to which type of filter?
T
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(a) Sharpening spatial filter

A (b) Median filter
(c) Sharpening frequency filter
I (d) Smoothing spatial filter
C 101. Which of the following expression is used to denote spatial domain process?
(a) g(x,y)=T[f(x,y)]
T (b) f(x+y)=T[g(x+y)]
(c) g(xy)=T[f(xy)]
E (d) g(x-y)=T[f(x-y)]
102. In spatial domain, which of the following operation is done on the pixels in
sharpening the image?
(a) Integration
(b) Average
(c) Median
(d) Differentiation
103. Dark characteristics in an image are better solved using ___________

A (a) Laplacian Transform
(b) Gaussian Transform
I (c) Histogram Specification
(d) Power-law Transformation
C
104. An example of a continuous function of two variables is __________
T (a) Histogram
(b) Intensity function
E (c) Gaussian function
(d) Contrast stretching
105. While performing the median filtering, suppose a 3*3 neighborhood has value (10,
20, 20, 20, 15, 20, 20, 25, 100), then what is the median value to be given to the pixel
under filter?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 100
(d) 25
A
106. What is the equation used to obtain I(Intensity) component of each RGB pixel in RGB
I color format?
(a) I=1/2(R+G+B)
C (b) I=1/3(R+G+B)
(c) I=1/3(R-G-B)
T (d) I=1/3(R-G+B)
E 107. Nearest neighbor Interpolation has an undesirable feature, that is _________

(a) Aliasing effect
(b) False contouring effect
(c) Ridging effect
(d) Checkerboard effect
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108. A pixel p at coordinates (x, y) has neighbors whose coordinates are given by:
A (x+1, y+1), (x+1, y-1), (x-1, y+1), (x-1, y-1)
This set of pixels is called ____________
I (a) 4-neighbors of p
(b) Diagonal neighbors
C (c) 8-neighbors
(d) Circular neighbors
T
109. Which of the following transformations is particularly well suited for enhancing an
E image with white and gray detail embedded in dark regions of the image, especially
when there is more black area in the image:
(a) Log transformations
(b) Power-law transformations
(c) Negative transformations
110. Which of the following arithmetic operator is primarily used as a masking operator in
enhancement?
(a) Addition
A (b) Subtraction
(c) Multiplication
I (d) Division
𝑑𝑦
C 111. If y = 2sin(3x), the value of (𝑑𝑥 ) at x=1 is most nearly
(a) -5.9399
T (b) -1.980
(c) 0.31402
E (d) 5.9918
Given that cos 172° = -0.989
112. An engineer working for the Department of Defense is writing a program that
transfers non-negative real numbers to integer format. To avoid overflow problems,
the maximum non-negative integer that can be represented in a 5-bit integer word is
(a) 16
(b) 31
(c) 63
(d) 64
A
113. If A = 3.56  0.05 and B = 3.25 ± 0.04, the values of A + B are
I (a) 6.81 ≤ A+B ≤ 6.90
(b) 6.72 ≤ A+B ≤ 6.90
C (c) 6.81 ≤ A+B ≤ 6.85
(d) 6.71 ≤ A+B ≤ 6.91
T
114. Equation tan x = x has ________ root(s)
E (a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) infinite
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115. The trend in data can be found by the method of least squares:
A (a) If the nature of trend is known
(b) If the nature of trend is unknown
I (c) If the trend is linear
(d) If the trend is non-linear
C
116. Simpson 1/3 rule gives exact result when
T (a) the entire curve y =f(x) is itself a straight line
(b) y=f(x) is a parabola
E (c) y=f(x) is a hyperbola
(d) It never gives exact result
117. If h = interval on x-axis, the order of error in trapezoidal formula is:

(a) h
(b) h2
(c) h3
(d) cannot be determined
118. Difference between Taylor and Runge Kutta method is

A (a) Runge-Kutta method does not require prior calculation of higher derivatives of
y(x) as Taylor method does
I (b) Taylor method does not require prior calculation of higher derivatives of y(x) as
Runge-Kutta method does
C (c) Both require calculation of higher derivatives of y(x)
T
119. Numerical differentiation can be obtained by using
E (a) Methods based on interpolation
(b) Methods based on finite differences
(c) Both (a) or (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
120. Double integration in variables x and y

(a) Can be solved numerically by Trapezoidal rule
(b) Can be evaluated numerically by two successive integrations in x any y directions
respectively, taking into account one variable at a time
(c) Both a) and b) are true
A (d) Cannot be solved numerically
Page 17 of 17
PG1BME69
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Bio Medical Engineering
Paper: 1
1. d 45. a 96. d
2. c 46. c 97. c
3. d 47. a 98. d
4. c 48. a 99. b
5. a 49. c 100. d
6. b 50. b 101. a
7. c 51. b 102. d
8. b 52. d 103. d
9. d 53. a 104. c
10. b 54. b 105. b
11. d 55. b 106. b
12. d 56. c 107. d
13. d 57. b 108. b
14. b 58. d 109. c
15. c 59. b 110. c
16. b 60. c 111. a
17. c 61. a 112. b
18. d 62. b 113. b
19. a 63. b 114. d
20. a 64. c 115. c
21. d 65. b 116. b
22. c 66. d 117. b
23. b 67. a 118. a
24. b 68. b 119. c
25. d 69. a 120. c
26. b 70. a
27. c 71. c
28. c 72. c
29. c 73. d
30. b 74. a
31. b 75. c
32. b 76. a
33. d 77. b
34. c 78. c
35. c 79. b
36. a 80. b
37. d 81. b
38. d 82. c
39. a 83. d
40. a 84. a
41. b 85. d
42. a 86. b
43. d 87. c
44. b 88. c
89. a
90. c
91. b
92. a
93. c
94. c
95. b
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
BIO MEDICAL ENGINEERING

A
I
PAPER-II
C
Instructions:
the wrong answer.
I
C
1. The sensor in biomedical instrument is different from industrial sensor as
T
(a) It should not respond to variable other than the measurand
(b) It should have less noise
E
(c) It should be minimally invasive
(d) It should be more accurate
2. For biomedical instruments, prime requirement is that of
(a) Signal acquisition
(b) Signal processing
(c) Data storage
(d) Data transmission
3. Measurement of glucose level in a sample of blood drawn from the patient is _______
(a) In vivo
A
(b) In vitro
(c) Can be classified either way
I
(d) Neither in vivo nor in vitro
C 4. A transducer provides output in the form of current. Accurate measurement of the
variable requires
T (a) Source output impedance must be large compared to the preamplifier input
impedance
E (b) Source output impedance must be small compared to the preamplifier input
impedance
(c) Source output impedance must be equal to the preamplifier input impedance
(d) There is no consideration of impedances
Page 1 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
5. Which is not a method to improve signal to noise ratio?

A (a) Bandwidth reduction
(b) Adaptive noise cancellation
I (c) Clamping of signal
(d) Filtering of signal
C
6. Which type of transducer requires energy to be put into it in order to translate changes
T due to the measurand?
(a) active transducers
E (b) passive transducers
(c) powered transducers
(d) local transducer
7. Time for the sensor to reach a stable output once it is turned on is called _________
(a) rise time
(b) time constant
(c) response time
(d) settling time
8. LVDT stands for _________

A
(a) Linear Virtual Double Transformer
(b) Linear Virtual Differential Transducer
I
(c) Linear Variable Differential Transducer
(d) Linear Variable Differential Transformer
C
9. Linear encoder gives ___________ output
T (a) angular
(b) analog
E (c) digital
(d) unstable
10. Which of the following is a material employed making diaphragm to measure

pressure?
(a) tourmaline
(b) barium titanate
(c) phosphor bronze
(d) zirconate titanate
A 11. The figure of merit which describes the overall behavior of the strain gauge wire
under stress is determined from?
I (a) elastic modulus
(b) gauge factor
C (c) elastic factor
(d) gauge resistance
T 12. Which of the following has the widest range of temperature measurement?
(a) RTD
E (b) Thermocouple
(c) Thermistor
(d) Mercury thermometer
Page 2 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
13. The lower temperature junction in thermocouple is maintained at ________

A (a) -273 K
(b) 0 K
I (c) -327 K
(d) 273 K
C
14. Photodiodes work in ____
T (a) forward biased
(b) reverse biased
E (c) independent of forward and reverse biasing
(d) any configuration
15. Optical fibers are not immune to ________

(a) electronic disturbances
(b) magnetic disturbances
(c) ambient light interference
(d) electromagnetic disturbances
16. A chemical transduction system is interfaced to the optical fibre at its end. This type
of sensor is called?
A
(a) chemical sensor
(b) thermal sensor
I
(c) photoelectric sensor
(d) light sensor
C
17. Endoscopic imaging uses ___________
T (a) thermal sensors
(b) chemical sensors
E (c) optic fiber sensors
(d) pressure sensors
18. Home blood glucose sensor works on which principle?

(a) electro-physiological
(b) electrochemical
(c) physio-chemical
(d) chemical
19. Monopolar needle electrodes have a coating of which material over the stainless steel
A wires which are bare only at the tips?
(a) carbon
I (b) calcium
(c) sodium
C (d) teflon
T 20. In medical devices the amplifiers that are used for the amplification purpose of the
input signal have ______ frequency response
E (a) low
(b) high
(c) average
(d) frequency response has no role to play in it
Page 3 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
21. Which of the following component is not a part of passive filter?

A (a) resistor
(b) operational amplifier
I (c) capacitor
(d) inductor
C
22. The filter used to reject the 50Hz noise picked up from power lines or machinery is
T called?
(a) band reject filter
E (b) band stop filter
(c) notch filter
(d) all reject filter
23. To achieve the low frequency response for medical applications, the amplifier
configuration must contain?
(a) higher input resistance
(b) higher coupling capacitance
(c) lower output resistance
(d) lower bypass capacitance
A 24. Which of the following is not a passive transducer?
(a) Strain gauge
I (b) Ultrasonic transducer
(c) IR sensor
C (d) Doppler effect transducer
T 25. Unwanted signal at the output due either to internal sources or to interference is called
________
E (a) offset
(b) noise
(c) drift
(d) threshold
26. Closeness of a calibration curve to a specified curve for an inherently nonlinear

transducer is called
(a) conformance
(b) linearity
(c) saturation
(d) hysteresis
A
27. The range between the maximum and minimum values is applied to a parameter
I which can be measured is
(a) repeatability
C (b) span
(c) input range
T (d) output range
E 28. Which of the following is not a dynamic property?

(a) frequency response
(b) saturation
(c) settling time
(d) response time
Page 4 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
A 29. On increasing the distance between the plates of a variable capacitor, the
displacement- capacitance characteristics changes _______
I (a) proportionally
(b) linearly
C (c) exceptionally
(d) hyperbolically
T
30. How many coils are required to make LVDT?
E (a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 2
31. Which of the following is not a piezo-electric material?

(a) quartz
(b) rochelle salt
(c) aluminium
(d) barium titanate
A
32. Piezo-electricity is ____
I (a) sound electricity
(b) pressure electricity
C (c) temperature electricity
(d) photo electricity
T 33. Principle behind strain gauge is _____________
(a) variable resistance
E (b) variable inductance
(c) variable capacitance
(d) variable contact area
34. Compensation for temperature variation in the leads of strain gauge or RTD can be
provided by using ________ lead method.
(a) six
(b) four
(c) three
(d) two
A
35. Sudden involuntary drop in body core temperature below 35*C (95*F) is called
__________
I
(a) Accidental hyperthermia
(b) Accidental misothermia
C
(c) Accidental exothermia
(d) Accidental hypothermia
T
36. Which of the following is not caused by careless use of medical equipment?
E (a) Electric shock
(b) Burns
(c) Trauma
(d) Disruption of physiologic function
Page 5 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
37. Accidental transmission of electric current to human body can take place because of
A (a) Defect in equipment
(b) Human error
I (c) Simultaneous use of other equipment on the patient
(d) All the above
C
38. Fire hazard or explosion is possible in operation theatre because
T (a) There are carbon-di-oxide cylinders present there
(b) There is supply of oxygen for patients
E (c) There are cleaning agents present
(d) There are smokers present in the room
39. One of the situations accounting for hazards from electric shock is called
(a) Large shock
(b) Macro shock
(c) Gross shock
(d) Mega shock
40. Majority of electric accidents involve a current pathway through the victim from
A (a) One upper limb to feet
(b) Feet to one upper limb
I (c) One foot to other foot
(d) Body is an insulator and there cannot be such a pathway
C
41. Which of the following is the effect of electric current passing through the body?
T (a) Electric stimulation in tissues and nerves
(b) Resistive burning
E (c) Electro-chemical burns
(d) All the above
42. Threshold of Perception of ac mains electric shock is of the order of

(a) 1 A
(b) 1 mA
(c) 1 A
(d) 10 A
43. The organ most affected by electric currents is

A (a) Hand
(b) Leg
I (c) Lever
(d) Heart
C
44. The risk of producing ventricular fibrillation due to electric current depends upon
T (a) Current density
(b) Electrode area
E (c) Duration of current
(d) All the above
Page 6 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
45. Leakage current flows due to finite amount of insulation _____________

A (a) Resistance
(b) Resistance and capacitance
I (c) Inductance and capacitance
(d) Resistance, inductance and capacitance
C
46. The most important factor to stop effect of leakage current is
T (a) Good insulation of wires
(b) Presence of 3rd pin in the power socket
E (c) Good earth ground
(d) Good chassis of medical instrument which is connected to patient
47. To prevent hazardous situation, potential difference between the ground point at the
outlet and any conducting surface in the same area should not exceed
(a) 5 V
(b) 5 mV
(c) 100 mV
(d) 1 V
A 48. Which is not the intentional case of current flow through human body?
(a) Measurement of respiration by impedance method
I (b) Therapeutic process
(c) Recording of biosignals
C (d) Leakage current from the ventilator
T 49. Hospital situation is different from normal situation because in hospital

(a) Patient is ill
E (b) Skin resistance changes when one visits hospital
(c) Power failures are very common in hospitals
(d) Patient is surrounded by electromagnetic radiations
50. _________ shock is the one in which current passes directly through the heart wall
(a) Milli current
(b) Micro current
(c) Nanocurrent
(d) Cardiac current
A 51. The value of electric current which passes through the body of an individual depends
upon
I (a) Contact impedance
(b) Age and gender
C (c) Frequency of current
(d) All the above
T 52. As the current passing through the body increases, the following sequence is
experienced
E (a) Contraction of muscles, tingling, unable to release grip on the conductor
(b) Tingling, unable to release grip on the conductor, contraction of muscles
(c) Tingling, contraction of muscles, unable to release grip on the conductor
(d) Contraction of muscles, unable to release grip on the conductor, tingling
Page 7 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
53. Above the Let Go current the patient

A (a) Experiences tingling
(b) Cannot release his grip on the current carrying conductor
I (c) Muscles are contracted
(d) Has cardiac arrest
C
54. „Hold-on accident‟ is caused by current in the range of
T (a) Up to 0.5 mA
(b) 0.5 mA to 20 mA
E (c) 20 mA to 100 mA
(d) Above 100 mA
55. Myocardial contraction takes place when current through the body is in the range
(a) 100 mA to 1A
(b) 1 A to 6 A
(c) More than 6A
(d) This condition is independent of current
56. The threshold of perception depends greatly on

A (a) The current flowing and the voltage applied
(b) The voltage applied and the area of contact
I (c) The current flowing and the area of contact
(d) The voltage applied, current flowing and the area of contact
C
57. The current flowing continuously through the body which the body can withstand
T (a) Depends upon frequency
(b) Depends upon current amplitude
E (c) Depends upon both current amplitude and frequency
(d) Is independent of frequency
58. Fatal electric accidents in hospitals result due to

(a) Broken plugs, faulty sockets and defective power cords
(b) Spillage of blood and urine
(c) Catheters
(d) All the above
59. A cardiac catheter may lead to

A (a) Atrial contraction
(b) Myocardial infarction
I (c) Ventricular fibrillation
(d) All the above
C
60. Risk of ventricular fibrillation
T (a) Increases when the duration of current passing through the heart decreases
(b) Increases when the duration of current passing through the heart increases
E (c) Is independent of duration of current passing through the heart
(d) Largely depends upon the individual
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
61. Which types of material are used as bridges between human tissues and metals?
A (a) Polymeric biomaterials
(b) Ceramic biomaterials
I (c) Metallic biomaterials
(d) All of these
C
62. Biosensors are used in
T (a) medical field
(b) agricultural field
E (c) pollution monitoring
(d) all of the above
63. Materials which upon being placed within the human body interacts with the
surrounding bone and insome cases - even soft tissue
(a) Particulate Composites
(b) Bioactive Materials
(c) Bioceramics
(d) Biopolymers
A 64. They are also known as renewable polymers and these are produced from biomass for
use in the packaging industry
I (a) Polynucleotides
(b) Biopolymers
C (c) Polypeptides
(d) Polysaccharides
T
65. It is any substance (other than drugs) or combination of substances synthetic or
E natural in origin. It can be derived either from nature or synthesized in the laboratory
using a variety of chemical approaches utilizing metallic components or ceramics
(a) Polynucleotides
(b) Bioactive Materials
(c) Biomaterials
(d) Biocomposites
66. This type of biomaterial processing is only useful if it preserves the uniform porous
structure of the original membranes.
(a) Polynucleotides
A (b) Membrane Lamination
(c) Biopolymers
I (d) Fibrous Composites
C 67. This involves the use of a binder or by using the thermal method to fuse the fibers
together
T (a) Biocomposites
(b) Polypeptides
E (c) Biosensor
(d) Fiber Bonding
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
68. It is any material that - once placed in the human body - has minimal interaction with
A its surrounding tissue.
(a) Bioinert Materials
I (b) Polynucleotides
(c) Fibrous Composites
C (d) Biocomposites
T 69. These are used in artificial hip joints, dental implants, bone plates and screws, heart
pacemakers stents and other medical devices
E (a) Bioresorbable Materials
(b) Metallic Biomaterials
(c) Bioceramics
(d) Fiber Bonding
70. A type of biopolymer with short polymers of amino acids is

(a) Biopolymers
(b) Polynucleotides
(c) Polypeptides
(d) Biosensor
A
71. Also known as hard materials and it usually has a mechanical function - being strong -
I hard materials which use less energy for an organism to produce than an equally
strong organic material
C (a) Polynucleotides
(b) Particulate Composites
T (c) Biominerals
(d) Fibrous Composites
E
72. Type of biocomposites - a material which consists of voids/pores
(b) Porous Materials
(c) Fiber Bonding
(d) Bioactive Materials
73. Materials that upon placement within the human body starts to dissolve (resorbed) and
slowly replaced by advancing tissue (such as bone) i.e. tricalcium phosphate -
polylactic- polyglycolic acid copolymers
A (a) Metallic Biomaterials
(b) Porous Materials
I (c) Bioresorbable Materials
(d) Biocomposites
C
74. A type of biopolymer with linear bonded polymeric carbohydrate structures is
T (a) Bioinert Materials
(b) Biosensor
E (c) Polysaccharides
(d) Polypeptides
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
A 75. Type of biocomposites that consists of a matrix reinforced by a dispersed phase in

form of particles is
I (a) Bioactive Materials
(b) Biocomposites
C (c) Biomaterials
(d) Particulate Composites
T
76. Type ofbiocomposites that consists of a matrix reinforced by a dispersed phase in
E form of discontinuous fibers is
(b) Fibrous Composites
(c) Bioceramics
(d) Polynucleotides
77. An analytical device for the detection of an analyte that combines a biological
component with a physicochemical detector is
(a) Porous Material
(b) Bioinert Material
A (c) Biomaterial
(d) Biosensor
I
C 78. A type of biopolymer with long polymers composed of 13 or more nucleotide

monomers is
(a) Polysaccharides
T
(b) Polynucleotides
(c) Bioceramics
E
(d) Membrane Lamination
79. The materials formed by a matrix (resin) and a reinforcement of natural fibers
(usually derived from plants or cellulose) is called as
(a) Biocomposites
(b) Biosensor
(c) Biopolymers
(d) Polypeptides
A 80. It functions as joint or tissue replacements - can be used as coatings to improve the
biocompatibility of metal implants. They are also non - toxic and can be bioinert.
I What is the correct option?
(a) Bioceramics
C (b) Biomaterials
(c) Biopolymers
T (d) Fiber Bonding
Page 11 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)

A
I 81. One advantage of analog signal processing system over digital processing is
(a) It has less noise margin
C (b) It has more resolution
(c) It has better storage capability
T (d) Signal is more secure
E 82. What is most difficult in development of a medical instrument?

(a) Claim of accuracy
(b) Clinical trials in hospital
(c) Calibration
(d) Freezing specifications
83. A medical instrument has the prime requirement of

(a) Signal processing
(b) Recording
(c) Storage
(d) Controlling
A
84. The resistance Rt of a metallic conductor at any temperature t is given by _______
I (a) Rt = Ro(1+ɑt)
(b) Rt = Ro(1-ɑt)
C (c) Rt = Ro(ɑt-1)
(d) Rt = Ro(10+ɑt)
T
85. RTD stands for ________
E (a) resistance temperature device
(b) resistance temperature detector
(c) reluctance thermal device
(d) resistive thermal detector
86. What is the principle behind photoelectric transducers?

(a) conversion of wind energy to electrical energy
(b) conversion of light energy to electrical energy
(c) conversion of mechanical energy to electrical energy
(d) conversion of electrical energy to light energy
A 87. Which of the following is true for bimetallic type thermometer?
(a) Two metals have same temperature coefficients
I (b) Two metals have different temperature coefficient
(c) One metal is cooled always
C (d) One metal is kept at a temperature higher than the other which is at room
temperature
T
88. Which of the following shows resting potential?
E (a) Depolarised cell
(b) Polarised cell
(c) Ionic cell
(d) Resting cell
Page 12 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
89. If shear stress is proportional to velocity gradient, fluid is called as ______________

A (a) Newtonian fluid
(b) Viscous fluid
I (c) Laminar fluid
C
90. Science of precise and accurate measurement of various physical quantities is termed
T as___________
(a) Metrology
E (b) Meteorology
(c) Pedology
(d) Physiology
91. In a measurement, what is the term used to specify the closeness of two or more
measurements?
(a) Fidelity
(b) Accuracy
(c) Precision
(d) Threshold
A
92. During a measurement, for a measure value “B”, absolute error is obtained as “A”,
I what will be the relative error of measurement?
(a) (B+A)/A
C (b) B/A
(c) (A+1)/B
T (d) A/B
E 93. In a measuring system what is the term used to specify difference between higher and
lower calibration values?
(a) Range
(b) Span
(c) Drift
(d) Threshold
94. Which of the following can be measured using change in resistivity?

(a) Temperature
(b) Visible radiation
A (c) Moisture content
(d) All the above
I
95. What will happen to resistivity of metal and semiconductor if temperature is
C increased?
(a) Increases
T (b) Decreases
(c) For metal increases and for semiconductor decreases
E (d) For metal decreases and for semiconductor increases
Page 13 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
96. What is the relation of temperature coefficient of resistance to coefficient of thermal

A expansion in RTD?
(a) temperature coefficient of resistance is higher than coefficient of thermal
I expansion
(b) temperature coefficient of resistance is lower than coefficient of thermal
C expansion
(c) both are equal
T (d) cannot be compared
E 97. Resistive transducers are ______________

(a) Primary transducers
(b) Secondary transducers
(c) Either primary or secondary
(d) Cannot be categorized
98. A transducer converting ground movement or velocity to voltage is known as _____

(a) Geophone
(b) Pickup
(c) Hydrophone
A (d) Sonar transponder
I 99. Which transducer is known as „self-generating transducer‟?

(a) Active transducer
C (b) Passive transducer
(c) Secondary transducer
T (d) Analog transducer
E 100. Which of the following is an analog transducer?

(a) Encoders
(b) Strain gauge
(c) Digital tachometers
(d) Limit switches
101. What is the principle of operation of LVDT?

(a) Mutual inductance
(b) Self-inductance
(c) Permanence
A (d) Reluctance
I 102. _______________ of a measuring system refers to its ability to follow instant by

instant the measurand with time.
C (a) Bandwidth
(b) Fidelity
T (c) Measurement lag
(d) Settling time
E
103. Given input output characteristic of a typical system, name the region marked as „a‟
Page 14 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
T (a) Dead zone

(b) Range
E (c) Drift region
(d) Threshold
104. Most common cause of death by electrocution is

(a) Burn injury
(b) Electrochemical tissue damage
(c) Ventricular fibrillation
105. Leakage current may be due to faulty

A (a) Enclosure of equipment
(b) Earth
I (c) Patient circuits
(d) All the above
C
106. If the ground connection of the instrument breaks,
T (a) Full leakage current is bound to flow through the patient
(b) By electrically isolating the patient from mains, leakage current can be reduced
E (c) Power transformers with low leakage capacitances are easily available and may,
therefore, be used
(d) All the above statements are incorrect
107. According to standards, the resistance between equipment grounding point and earth
should be less than
(a) 0.015 Ω
(b) 0.15 Ω
(c) 1.5 Ω
(d) 15 Ω
A
108. Commercially available electrical safety analysers for testing medical facility power
I system have the feature of
(a) Mechanical testing of electrical outlets
C (b) Electrical testing of electrical outlets
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
T (d) There are only computerized systems for this purpose
E
109. Electrical testing of wall receptacle includes:
(a) Power availability at the receptacle
(b) Polarity of live, neutral and ground wires
(c) Loss of grounding
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
(d) All the above

A
110. Which of the following tests is not routinely conducted in hospitals?
I (a) Chassis leakage current measurement
(b) Patients leads leakage current
C (c) Ground continuity test
(d) Wire insulation test
T
111. The word „polymer‟ meant for material made from ______________.
E (a) Single entity
(b) Two entities
(c) Multiple entities
(d) Any entity
112. One of characteristic properties of polymer material __________.

(a) High temperature stability
(b) High mechanical strength
(c) High elongation
(d) Low hardness
A
113. Polymers are ___________ in nature.
I (a) Organic
(b) Inorganic
C (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
T
114. ___________ polymers cannot be recycled.
E (a) Thermoplasts
(b) Thermosets
(c) Elastomers
(d) All polymers
115. In general, strongest polymer group is __________.

(a) Thermoplasts
(b) Thermosets
(c) Elastomers
(d) All polymers
A
116. __________ polymers consist of coil-like polymer chains.
I (a) Thermoplasts
(b) Thermosets
C (c) Elastomers
(d) All polymers
T
E
117. Strong covalent bonds exist between polymer chains in __________.
(a) Thermoplasts
(b) Thermosets
(c) Elastomers
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2BME69
(d) All polymers

A
118. Following property is the unique to polymeric materials.
I (a) Elasticity
(b) Viscoelasticity
C (c) Plasticity
(d) None
T
119. Elastic deformation in polymers is due to _____________.
E (a) Slight adjustment of molecular chains
(b) Slippage of molecular chains
(c) Straightening of molecular chains
(d) Severe of Covalent bonds
120. Kevlar is commercial name for ___________.

(a) Glass fibers
(b) Carbon fibers
(c) Aramid fibers
(d) Cermets
A
Page 17 of 17
PG2BME69
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Bio Medical Engineering
Paper: 2
1. c 45. b 81. b
2. a 46. c 82. c
3. b 47. b 83. b
4. a 48. d 84. a
5. c 49. a 85. b
6. a 50. b 86. d
7. d 51. d 87. b
8. d 52. c 88. b
9. b 53. b 89. a
10. c 54. c 90. a
11. b 55. b 91. c
12. b 56. c 92. d
13. d 57. c 93. b
14. b 58. d 94. d
15. c 59. c 95. c
16. a 60. b 96. a
17. c 61. c 97. c
18. b 62. d 98. a
19. d 63. b 99. a
20. a 64. b 100. b
21. b 65. c 101. a
22. c 66. b 102. b
23. b 67. d 103. a
24. a 68. a 104. c
25. b 69. b 105. d
26. a 70. c 106. b
27. b 71. c 107. b
28. b 72. b 108. c
29. d 73. c 109. d
30. c 74. c 110. d
31. c 75. d 111. c
32. b 76. b 112. c
33. a 77. d 113. c
34. c 78. b 114. b
35. d 79. a 115. b
36. c 80. a 116. c
37. d 117. b
38. c 118. b
39. c 119. a
40. a 120. c
41. d
42. b
43. d
44. d
ROLL NO.: PG1CAD67
A COMPUTER AIDED DESIGN

I Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
C
PAPER-I
T
E Instructions:
i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
the wrong answer.
A vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
I viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
C before leaving the examination hall.
T
E PART-A (80 X 1= 80 Marks)
1. Each optimization problem must have certain parameters called

(a) linear variables
(b) dummy variables
(c) design variables
(d) none of the above
2. A “≤ type” constraint expressed in the standard form is active at a design point if it

has
A
(a) zero value
I (b) more than zero value
(c) less than zero value
C (d) Both (a) and (c)
T 3. Maximization of an objective function f(x) is equivalent to minimization of
(a) −𝑓(𝑥)
E (b) 1/ 𝑓(𝑥)
(c) √ 𝑓(𝑥)
4. When the optimization problem cost functions are differentiable, the problem is
referred to as
(a) rough
(b) non-smooth
(c) smooth
A (d) Both (a) and (b)
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5. The feasible region for the inequality constraints with respect to equality constraints
I (a) increases
(b) decreases
C (c) does not change
(d) initially decreases and later increases
T
E 6. The number of equality constraints in the design optimization problem can be
(a) larger than the number of design variables
(b) less than the number of design variables
(c) equal the number of design variables
(d) Both (a) and (c)
7. The Fibonacci sequence looks like this:

(a) 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 13, ...
(b) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, ...
(c) 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ...
A (d) 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, ...
I
8. The golden ratio is approximately:
C (a) 1.618
(b) 0.618
T (c) 3.14
(d) 1.543...
E
9. Which of the following parameters is not required to use the Golden Section Search
Method for optimization?
(a) The lower bound for the search region
(b) The upper bound for the search region
(c) The golden ratio
(d) The function to be optimized
10. Which of the following statements applies to the bisection method used for finding
A roots of functions?
(a) It may or may not give the right answer
I
(b) Guaranteed to work for all continuous functions
C (c) Is faster than the Newton-Raphson method
(d) Requires that there be no error in determining the sign of the function
T
11. Newton-Raphson method is applicable to the solution of
E (a) Both algebraic and transcendental Equations
(b) Both algebraic and transcendental and also used when the roots are complex
(c) Algebraic equations only
(d) Transcendental equations only
12. In which of the following methods, proper choice of initial value is very important?
(a) Bisection method
(b) False position
(c) Newton-Raphson
A (d) Bairsto method
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A
13. The region common to all the constraints including the non-regativity restrictions is
I called ----------------
(a) Unique solution
C (b) Solution space
(c) Optimum solution
T (d) Infeasible solution
E
14. The bisection method of finding roots of nonlinear equations falls under the category
of a (an) _________ method.
(a) open
(b) bracketing
(c) random
(d) graphical
15. The secant method of finding roots of nonlinear equations falls under the category of
_____________ methods.
A (a) bracketing
I (b) graphical
(c) open
C (d) random
T 16. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Equal Interval Search
and Golden Section Search methods?
E
(a) Both methods require an initial boundary region to start the search
(b) The number of iterations in both methods is affected by the size of ε
(c) Everything else being equal, the Golden Section Search method should find an
optimal solution faster.
(d) Everything else being equal, the Equal Interval Search method should find an
optimal solution faster.
17. Due to the manner in which the intermediate points in the Golden Section Search
method are determined, the initial search region size is reduced much quicker than the
A Equal Interval Search method and hence converges to an optimal solution faster.
(a) False
I
(b) True
(d) None (a) and (b)
T
18. The degree of freedom for an optimization problem that has four design variables is
E (a) ¼
(b) 4
(c) 4/4
(d) 8
19. An initial estimate of an optimal solution is given to be used in conjunction with the
steepest ascent method to determine the maximum of the function. Which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) The function to be optimized must be differentiable.
(b) If the initial estimate is different than the optimal solution, then the magnitude of
A
the gradient is nonzero.
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(c) As more iterations are performed, the function values of the solutions at the end of
A
each subsequent iteration must be increasing.
I (d) All 3 statements are correct.
C 20. Fuzzy Computing

(a) mimics human behavior
T (b) doesn’t deal with 2 valued logic
E (c) deals with information which is vague, imprecise, uncertain, ambiguous, inexact, or
probabilistic
(d) All of the above
21. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

(a) Evolutionary Computing
(b) inspired by Darwin's theory about evolution - "survival of the fittest"
(c) are adaptive heuristic search algorithm based on the evolutionary
ideas of natural selection and genetics
A
I 22. In less than or equal to constraint equations, variable which is used to balance both
side of equations is classified as
C (a) solving variable
(b) condition variable
T (c) slack variable
(d) positive variable
E
23. Which of the following statements is not a modeling Kernel used by many solid
modelling software packages?
(a) ACIS
(b) Proprietary
(c) Parasolid
(d) CSG
24. Newton-Raphson method of solution of numerical equation is not preferred when

A (a) Graph of A(B) is vertical
(b) Graph of x(y) is not parallel
I (c) The graph of f(x) is nearly horizontal-where it crosses the x-axis.
(d) None of these
C
25. Constraint in an LP model restricts
T
(a) value of the objective function
E (b) value of the decision variables
(c) use of the available resources
(d.) all the options
26. While solving a LP model graphically, the area bounded by the constraints is called
(a) feasible region
(b) infeasible region
(c) unbounded solution
(d) None of the options
A
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27. If two constraints do not intersect in the positive quadrant of the graph, then
A
(a) the problem is infeasible.
I (b) the solution is unbounded.
(c) One of the constraints is redundant.
C (d) None of the options
T 28. Types of computer graphics are
E (a) Vector and raster
(b) Scalar and raster
(c) Vector and scalar
(d) None of these
29. Vector graphics is composed of

(a) Pixels
(b) Paths
(c) Palette
(d) None of these
A
I 30. Raster images are more commonly called
(a) Pix map
C (b) bitmap
(c) both a & b
T (d) none of these
E
31. Several graphics image file formats that are used by most of graphics system are
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) TIFF
(d) All of these
32. The ISO standard for computer Graphics is?

(a) Computer graphics standard
(b) Graphics Standard System
A (c) Graphics Kernel System
(d) None of above
I
C 33. The resolution offered by SVGA is?
(a) 720 x 348 Pixels
T (b) 640 x 350 Pixels
(c) 1280 x 1024 Pixels
E (d) 1024 x 768 Pixels
34. Metafiles are __________ that contain both raster and vector data?
(a) Word
(b) WAV
(c) Multimedia
(d) Graphics
A
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35. The relationship among the data and objects which are stored in the database, called
A
application database, and referred by the
I (a) Application programs
(b) graphics display
C (c) application model
(d) none of these
T
36. Display processor is also called a
E (a) display coprocessor
(b) graphics controller
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) output device for graphics
37. The purpose of display processor is _______from the graphics routine task?
(a) To free the secondary memory
(b) to free the CPU
(c) to free the main memory
A (d) none of these
I 38. The main hardware components of a graphics workstation are____________

(a) display devices, recorder
C (b) input and output device
(c) CPU and Display Processor
T (d) plotter, joystick
E
39. Colors that are contained by the color guns of computer screen are
(a) red, green and blue
(b) yellow, red and green
(c) orange, red and green
(d) black, blue and green
40. Term which refers to the sharpness or clarity of an image, is

(a) pitch
(b) pixel
A (c) resolution
I (d) Signal
C 41. Quality of images that a monitor can display is defined as much by

(a) video card
T (b) video controller
(c) video adapter
E (d) all of these
42. Refresh rate in integer scale is measured in

(a) mbps
(b) hertz
(c) kilo hertz
(d) mega hertz
A
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43. Dot pitch is measured as a fraction of

A
(a) mm
I (b) bits
(c) mg
C (d) Hz
T 44. If you move the pointer too quickly, it seems to disappear, this effect is known as
(a) submarining
E (b) vanishing
(c) shadow
(d) refresh
45. Display of a sequence of images at some speed to create an impression of movement

is called
(a) Computer graphics
(b) Computer slideshow
(c) Computer videos
A (d) Computer animations
I 46. In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’, y’) by using the
equation
C (a) x’=x+dx and y’=y+dx
T (b) x’=x+dx and y’=y+dy
(c) X’=x+dy and Y’=y+dx
E (d) X’=x-dx and y’=y-dy
47. Polygons are translated by adding __________ to the coordinate position of each
vertex and the current attribute setting.
(a) Straight line path
(b) Translation vector
(c) Differences
A 48. To change the position of a circle or ellipse we translate

(a) Center coordinates
I (b) Center coordinates and redraws the figure in new location
(c) Outline coordinates
C (d) All of the above
T 49. A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by
E (a) Repositioning it along with straight line path
(b) Repositioning it along with circular path
(c) Both (a) and (b)
50. In Bresenham's algorithm, while generating a circle, it is easy to generate?

(a) One octant first and other by successive rotation
(b) One octant first and other by successive translation
(c) One octant first and other by successive reflection
(d) All octants
A
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51. Why a circle drawn on the screen appears to be elliptical?

A
(a) Screen has rectangular shape
I (b) It is due to the aspect ratio of monitor
(c) CRT is completely spherical
C (d) Our eyes are not at the same level on screen
T 52. Oblique projection with an angle of 45 degrees to the horizontal plane is called as
E (a) Cabinaet projection
(b) Cavalier projection
(c) Isometric projection
(d) None of these
53. The process which divides each element of the picture into its visible and invisible
portions, allowing the invisible portion to be discarded is called_____
(a) Windowing
(b) clipping
A (d) Projecting
I
54. A transformation that slants the shape of objects is called the_____________
C (a) reflection
(b) shear transformation
T (c) translation
(d) none of these
E
55. Which of the following is not a basic method to create a regular model?
(a) Boolean operation
(b) Meshes
(c) Resolution
(d) Spline approximation
56. A composite transformation matrix can be made by determining the ________of
matrix of the individual transformation
(a) Sum
A (b) Product
I (c) Difference
(d) Inverse of the matrix
C
57. Each successive transformation matrix _________ the product of the preceding
T transformation
(a) pre-multiplies
E (b) post-multiplies
(c) adds
(d) Subtracts
58. The quality of an image depends on

(a) Pixels per inch/cm on screen
(b) Smoothness of the screen
(c) Refresh rate of screen
(d) Resolution lines
A
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59. The point, from which the observer is assumed to view the object, is called
A
(a) Center of projection
I (b) Point of projection
(c) Point of observer
C (d) View point
T 60. A Bezier curve is a polynomial of degree ___________the number of control points
E used.
(a) One more than
(b) One less than
(c) Two less than
(d) None of these
61. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact loads
is known as
(a) elasticity
(b) endurance
A (c) strength
(d) toughness
I
62. Guest’s/Tresca theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
C (a) brittle
(b) ductile
T (c) elastic
E (d) plastic
63. Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
64. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be roughly predicted from following
hardness test
A (a) Brinell
(b) Rockwell
I (c) Vicker
(d) Shore’s scelero-scope
C
65. Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to
T (a) combined loading
(b) thermal stresses
E (c) wear and tear
(d) shock loading.
66. If a load W is applied instantaneously on a bar; then the stress induced in bar will
(a) be independent of ratio of mass of load W to mass of bar (y)
(b) increase with increase in y
(c) decrease with decrease in y
(d) depends on other considerations
A
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67. Stress concentration is caused due to

A
(a) variation in properties of material from point to point in a member
I (b) pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are applied
(c) abrupt change of section
C (d) all of the above
T 68. The endurance limit of a material with finished surface in comparison to rough
E surface is;
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on quantum of load
69. The maximum stress due to stress concentration in a bar having circular transverse
hole, as compared to its static stress without hole will be
(a) same in both cases
(b) 2 times more
A (c) 3 times more
I (d) 4 times more
C 70. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can withstand
for an infinite number of load applications without failure when subjected to
T (a) dynamic loading
(b) static loading
E
(c) combined static and dynamic loading
(d) completely reversed loading
71. Fatigue strength cannotbe increased by

(a) cold working
(b) shot peening
(c) grinding and lapping surface
(d) hot working
A 72. Which of the followings is correct statement?

Stress concentration in static loading is
I (a) very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials
(b) very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials
C (c) equally serious in both types of materials
T (d) seriousness would depend on other factors
E 73. If a material fails below its yield point, failure would be due to
(a) straining
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) sudden loading
74. Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
A (d) depends on other factors
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75. Residual stress in materials

A
(a) acts when external load is applied
I (b) becomes zero when external load is removed
(c) is independent of external loads
C (d) is always harmful
T 76. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable for
E (a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) elastic materials
77. In order to obtain bolt of uniform strength

(a) increase shank diameter
(b) increase its length
(c) drill an axial hole through head up to threaded portion so that shank area is equal
to root area of thread
A (d) tighten die bolt properly
I
78. Gear box is used
C (a) to produce torque
(b) for speed reduction
T (c) to obtain variable speeds
(d) to increase efficiency of system
E
79. Antifriction bearings are
(a) hydrodynamic bearings
(b) thin lubricated bearings
(c) ball and roller bearings
(d) none of the above.
80. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be
considered in order to prevent breakage at
A (a) shank
(b) head
I
(c) in the middle
C (d) at the thread
T
E PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
81. Using Bisection method, negative root of x3 - 4x + 9 = 0 correct to three decimal

places is
(a) - 2.506
(b) - 2.706
(c) - 2.406
(d) None of these
A
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82. The root of x3 - 2x - 5 = 0 correct to three decimal places by using Newton-Raphson

A
method is
I (a) 2.0946
(b) 1.0404
C (c) 1.7321
(d) 0.7011
T
E 83. Match LIST-I and LIST II
LIST-I LIST-II
A. Newton-Raphson 1. Integration
B. Runge-kutta 2. Root finding
C. Gauss-seidel 3. Ordinary Differential Equations
D. Simpson's Rule 4. Solution of system of Linear Equations
A B C D
(a) 2341
A (b) 3214
I (c) 1423
(d) 1 2 3 4
C
84. An open rectangular box with square base is to be made from 48 cm2 of material.
T What dimensions will result in a box with the largest possible volume?
(a) 2 x 3 x 4 cm
E (b) 4 x 4 x 3 cm
(c) 4 x 4 x 2 cm
(d) 4 x 3 x 4 cm
85. The correct objective equation for the problem in question no 84 is

3
(a) −12 − 4 𝑥 2
3
(b) 4 𝑥 2 − 12
A 1
(c) 4 𝑥 3 − 12𝑥
I 1
(d) 12𝑥 − 4 𝑥 3
C
T 86. The correct basic procedure for optimization in problem84 and 85 is
(a) Simplex method
E (b) Differenting above objective equation and equating it to zero
(c) Golden Section method
(d) Direct Search method
87. ______ identification completely eliminates the costs involved in purchasing,

stocking, and affixing a separate label.
(a) Printed slip
(b) Cast
(c) Colour coding without paint
A (d) Engraving
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88. A machine tool has a minimum speed of 100 r.p.m. How many speed ssteps are
A
required by it to achieve speed of 200 r.p.m? (Assume geometric progression ratio as
I 1.06.
(a) 20
C (b) 10
(c) 15
T (d) 12
E
89. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Equal Interval Search
and Golden Section Search methods?
(a) Both methods require an initial boundary region to start the search
(b) The number of iterations in both methods are affected by the size of ε
(c) Everything else being equal, the Golden Section Search method should find an
(d) optimal solution faster.
90. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Direct search methods are useful when the optimization function is not
A differentiable
I (b) The gradient of f (x, y) is a vector pointing in the direction of the steepest slope at
that point.
C (c) The Hessian is the Jacobian Matrix of second-order partial derivatives of a
function.
T (d) The second derivative of the optimization function is used to determine if we have
reached an optimal point.
E
91. The best hidden surface removal algorithm is
(a) Depth buffer
(b) Area subdivision
(c) Depends on the application
(d) painters
92. The subcategories of orthographic projection are

(a) isometric, dimetric, trimetric
A (b) cavalier, cabinet
(c) cavalier, cabinet, isometric
I
(d) isometric, cavalier, trimetric
C
93. In Bresenham's algorithm, while generating a circle, it is easy to generate
T (a) One octant first and other by successive rotation
(b) One octant first and other by successive translation
E (c) One octant first and other by successive reflection
(d) All octants
94. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point t P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a
line which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 450 couterclockwise with
the X-axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be
(a) (7.5, 5)
(b) (10, 5)
(c) (7.5, -5)
A (d) (10, -5)
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95. The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10, 10) by
I performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the
C following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
(a) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
T (b) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
(c) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
E (d) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
96. Special System designed for some training application are known as
(a) Video Display Devices
(b) Simulators
(c) GUI
(d) IGES
97. Graphics and image processing technique used to produce a transformation of one
A object into another is called
(a) Half toning
I (b) Morphine
(c) Animation
C (d) None of above
T 98. Reflection of a point about x-axis, followed by a counter-clockwise rotation of 900, is
equivalent to reflection about the line
E
(a) x = - y
(b) y = - x
(c) x + y = 1
(d) x = y
99. Oblique projection with an angle of 450 to the horizontal plane is called as
(a) Cabinaet projection
(b) Cavalier projection
(c) Isometric projection
A (d) None of these
I 100. Aspect ratio is generally defined as the ratio of the

(a) Vertical to horizontal points
C (b) Horizontal to vertical points
(c) Either a or b, depending on the convention followed
T (d) Vertical to (horizontal + vertical) points
E 101. Metafiles are __________ that contain both raster and vector data?
(a) Word
(b) WAV
(c) Multimedia
(d) Graphics
102. There are two standard methods of mathematically representing a circle centered at
the origin. They are?
(a) DDA, and Bresenham`s
A (b) Polynomial Method, and Trigonometric Method
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(c) Polynomial Method, and Bresenham`s

A
(d) Trigonometric Method and Bresenham`s
I
103. There are 2 types of polygons. They are?
C (a) squire and rectangle
(b) convex and concave
T (c) octagon and convex
(d) hexagon and squire
E
104. The process of determining the appropriate pixels for representing picture or graphics
object is known as?
(a) representation
(b) rasterization
(c) animation
105. The fatigue limit of a material

A (a) is greatly decreased by poor surface conditions
(b) remains same irrespective of surface conditions
I
(c) depends mainly on core composition
C (d) is dependent upon yield strength of material
T 106. A polygon in which the line segment joining any 2 points within the polygon lies
completely inside the polygon is called__?
E (a) convex polygon
(b) concave polygon
(d) none of these
107. The process of selecting and viewing the picture with different views is called ______
(a) Windowing
(b) clipping
A (d) projecting
I 108. The process which divides each element of the picture into its visible and invisible
portions, allowing the invisible portion to be discarded is called__?
C
(a) Windowing
T (b) clipping
E (d) Projecting
109. A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by repositioning it along a?
(a) upward in the x-y plane
(b) diagonals path in the x-y plane
(c) circular path in the x-y plane
(d) straight path in the x-y plane
110. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing
(a) metal strength by cycling
A (b) metal hardness by surface treatment
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(c) metal resistance to corrosion by coating

A
(d) fatigue limit by overstressing the metal by successively increasing loadings
I
111. The subcategories of orthographic projection are?
C (a) isometric, dimetric, trimetric
(b) cavalier, cabinet
T (c) cavalier, cabinet, isometric
E (d) isometric, cavalier, trimetric
112. The parametric form of 3D spline is

(a) X=f(t), y=g(t), z=h(t)
(b) X=a0, y=b0, z=c0
(c) F(t)=0, g(t)=0, h(t)=0
(d) None of these
113. The anti - aliasing technique which allows shift of 1/4,1/2 and 3/4 of a pixel diameter
enabling a closer path of a line is
A (a) Filtering
I (b) Pixel phasing
(c) Sampling technique
C (d) Intensity compensation
T 114. Which one stage is most important for deciding the product cost
(a) Generating and screening ideas
E
(b) Testing stage
(c) Design state
(d) Manufacturing stage
115. The significance of X in DFX stands for

(a) Design for unknown
(b) Design for cost
(c) Design for strength
(d) Design for excellence
A
116. If a relief valve has reliability of 0.989, how many failures are expected in testing
I
1000 such relief valves?
C (a) 989
(b) 111
T (c) 11
(d) 10
E
117. List which one activity is not in the domain of DFMA
(a) Brining cross functional teams together
(b) Optimize the design for cost effectiveness
(c) Shorten development time
(d) Designing for strength and reliability
118. Which one is not the basic strategies adopted for Design for X?
(a) Minimizing number of parts
A (b) Standardize the parts
I
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T
ROLL NO.: PG1CAD67
(c) Minimize assembly parts

A
(d) Use of computers and software
I
119. Process that does not allow very complex parts that result when separate parts are
C combined into one are
(a) Injection molding
T
(b) Turning
E (c) Investment casting
(d) 3D Printing
120. The deflection of a cantilever beam under load W is 8 mm. If its width is halved, then
the deflection under load W will be
(a) 28
(b) 8/2
(c) 48
(d) 8/4
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
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C
T
PG1CAD67
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Computer Aided Design
Paper: 1
Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO ANSWER

1. c 41 d 81. b
2. a 42 b 82. a
3. a 43 a 83. a
4. c 44 a 84. c
5. a 45 c 85. d
6. d 46 b 86. b
7. c 47 b 87. b
8. a 48 b 88. d
9. c 49 b 89. d
10. b 50 c 90. d
11. a 51 b 91. c
12. c 52 b 92. a
13. b 53 b 93. c
14. b 54 b 94. b
15. c 55 a 95. d
16. d 56 b 96. b
17. b 57 a 97. c
18. b 58 a 98. d
19. d 59 a 99. b
20. d 60 b 100. c
21. d 61 d 101. d
22. c 62 b 102. b
23. d 63 a 103. b
24. c 64 a 104. b
25. d 65 d 105. a
26. a 66 a 106. a
27. a 67 d 107. a
28. a 68 a 108. b
29. b 69 c 109. c
30. b 70 d 110. d
31. d 71 d 111. a
32. c 72 a 112. a
33. c 73 b 113. b
34. d 74 c 114. c
35. a 75 c 115. d
36. c 76 b 116. c
37. b 77 c 117. d
38. c 78 c 118. d
39. a 79 d 119. b
40. c 80 d 120. c
ROLL NO.: PG2CAD67
A COMPUTER AIDED DESIGN

C PAPER-II
T
Instructions:
E i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
the wrong answer.
A vi. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise specified.
I blue ball point pen.
C viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
T before leaving the examination hall.
E
1. Finite element method formulation of problem results in a system of

(a) algebraic equations
(b) logical equations
A (c) arithmetic equations
I (d) flow equations
C 2. To solve FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts that
are called
T (a) finite elements
(b) infinite elements
E (c) dynamic elements
(d) static elements
3. Which one increases the steady state accuracy?

(a) integrator
(b) differentiator
(c) phase lead compensator
A (d) phase lag compensator
I 4. A.C. servomotor resembles
C (a) two phase induction motor
(b) Three phase induction motor
T (c) direct current series motor
(d) universal motor
E
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A 5. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not

decrease?
I (a) band width
(b) overall gain
C (c) distortion
T (d) instability
E 6. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with

(a) oscillations
(b) step input
(c) negative sign
(d) positive sign
7. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of

A (a) reference and output
(b) reference and input
I (c) input and feedback signal
(d) output and feedback signal
C
8. Which of the following is not as special purpose simulator language?
T (a) BASIC
E (b) GPSS
(c) GASP
(d) SIMSCRIPT
9. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from

(a) saturation in amplifying stages
(b) loss of gain
(c) vibrations
A (d) oscillations
I
10. Zero initial condition for a system means
C (a) input reference signal is zero
(b) zero stored energy
T (c) ne initial movement of moving parts
(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
E
11. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following?
(a) the order of the system
(b) the time constant
(c) the output for any given input
(d) the steady state gain
A 12. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.

(a) remains unaffected
I (b) decreases by the same amount as the gain increase
(c) increases by the same amount as the gain decrease
C
(d) decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
T
E
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A 13. With a proportional-plus-integral controller, a sustained error will result in:

(a) windup
I (b) a fixed offset
(c) a temporary narrowing of the proportional band
C (d) a delay in the process
T
14. If proportional-plus-integral control is good, the addition of derivative:
E (a) will anticipate changes and speed up corrections
(b) will always improve control
(c) will make the controller adjustments easier to accomplish
(d) may create stability problems in some system
15. The advantage of adding derivative to a controller is always:

(a) increased stability
A (b) the ability to overcome a big pure dead time lag
(c) the ability to react more quickly to measurement change
I (d) a decrease in the pure dead time of the process
C 16. The scientific principle that makes hydraulic systems possible is

(a) Pascal’s principle
T (b) Boyle’s law
E (c) Bernoulli’s principle
(d) The fluid flow principle
17. Pneumatic and other power systems can support three kinds of motion; they are
(a) linear, reciprocating, and random motion
(b) linear, flowing, and rotary motion
(c) linear, zigzag, and spiral motion
(d) linear, reciprocating, and rotary motion
A
18. A single acting cylinder can be pressurized externally from one direction only.
I
(a) true
C (b) false
(c) can’t say
T (d) none of the above
E 19. A one-way valve that lets air into the reservoir of a compressor, but doesn’t let it out,
is a
(a) check valve
(b) receiver valve
(c) control valve
(d) three-way valve
A 20. In which stage the measurement system comes in contact with the measure and/or the
quantity to be measured?
I (a) transducer stage
(b) signal processor stage
C
(c) output stage
E
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A 21. The temperature control system which maintains the temperature of a room at 30 °C
when it is set is an example of------------
I (a) open loop system
(b) closed loop system
C (c) both (a) and (b)
E 22. Data acquisition is the process in which, physical variables from the real world are ---
(a) converted into electrical signals
(b) modified and converted into a digital format for processing
23. If the frequency of the input signal to a system is increased, the amplitude of the
A output
(a) start reducing
I (b) start increasing
(c) be remain constant
C (d) be unpredictable
T 24. Digital to Analog Conversion is -------- Analog to Digital Conversion
E (a) less complex than
(b) more complex than
(c) as complex as
(d) unpredictable
25. Arrange the following components of temperature measurement system in the

sequential order
(a) Hot body -Display system -Thermocouple -Amplifier and converter
A (b) Hot body -Amplifier and converter- Thermocouple - Display system
(c) Hot body - Thermocouple - Amplifier and converter - Display system
I
(d) Display system - Hot body -Thermocouple - Amplifier and converter
C
26. Data acquisition of all the physical quantities in the real world is done in
T (a) the analog mode
(b) the digital mode
E (c) either analog mode or digital mode
27. Which type of motion is transmitted by hydraulic actuators?

(a) linear motion
(b) rotary motion
(c) both a and b
A (d) none of the above
I 28. What is the function of electric actuator?

(a) converts electrical energy into mechanical torque
C
(b) converts mechanical torque into electrical energy
T (c) converts mechanical energy into mechanical torque
E
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A
29. The primary disadvantage of the flash analog to digital converter (ADC) is that:
I (a) a large number of output lines is required to simultaneously decode the input
voltage
C (b) it requires the input voltage to be applied to the inputs simultaneously
T (c) a large number of comparators is required to represent a reasonable sized binary
number
E (d) a long conversion time is required
30. Why are hydraulic cylinders cushioned?

(a) cushioning decelerates the piston of a cylinder
(b) stress and vibrations can be reduced
(c) both a and b
A
31. Which of these actions does a hydraulic cylinder perform?
I (a) pushing
(b) lifting
T
E 32. Leakage in welded type of hydraulic cylinder is prevented by
(a) wiper in gland cover
(b) rod seal in end cover
(c) rod seal in gland cover
(d) both (b) and (c)
33. In single acting hydraulic cylinders, the piston comes back to its original position due
to:
A (a) spring force
(b) self-weight
I (c) momentum of a flywheel
(d) all the above
C
34. Which of the following parts of piston act as bearing for connecting rod side thrust?
T (a) Reinforcing ribs
E (b) Piston barrel
(c) Piston gudgeon
(d) Piston skirt
35. Which is a part of the human temperature control system?
(a) digestive system
(b) perspiration system
(c) ear
A (d) leg movement
I 36. The characteristic that provides an output with respect to the relation with the input
iscalled as
C
(a) calibration of a system
T (b) response of a system
(c) characteristic relation of a system
E
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A (d) instrumentation of a system
I 37. The process of establishment of a relationship between the input to the instrument and
output from the instrument is called as ----------
C (a) static sensitivity
T (b) static characterization
(c) static accuracy
E (d) static calibration
38. Pneumatic system casually does not exceed:

(a) 1 hp
(b) 1 to 2 hp
(c) 3 to 4 hp
(d) 2 to 3 hp
A
39. The lubricator in a pneumatic circuit is the:
I (a) first element in line
(b) second element in line
C (c) last element in line
(d) third element in line
T
E 40. The laws of Robotics are:
(a) a robot may not injure a human being
(b) a robot must abbey the order given by human except when conflict with the first
law
(c) a robot must protect its own existence except when it is violating first and second
law
A 41. The basic components of robot are:

(a) the mechanical linkage
I (b) sensors and controllers
(c) user interface and power conversion unit
T
42. Classification of Robot is based on:
E (a) geometry and geometric classification
(b) left right classification
(c) based on control system
43. Non servo robots are also called as:
(a) pick and place
(b) fixed stop robot
A (c) both (a) and (b)
I
C 44. A valve positioner:
(a) takes the place of a cascade control system
T (b) provides more precise valve position
(c) makes a pneumatic controller in necessary
E
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A (d) provides a remote indication of valve position
I 45. The basic function of the spring in a control valve is to

(a) characterize flow
C (b) oppose the diaphragm so as to position the valve according to signal pressure
T (c) close the valve if air failure occurs
(d) open the valve if air failure occurs
E
46. A high- pressure flow process requires a valve with tight packing. This would suggest
that:
(a) a valve positioner should be employed
(b) the actuator must be sized to provide adequate force
(c) oversized pneumatic signals lines are required
(d) the controller supplying the signal to the valve must have a very narrow
A proportional band
I 47. A pressure control process using proportional plus integral control has a time constant
of 10 seconds. The best choice of actuator would be:
C (a) an electric motor
(b) a pneumatic diaphragm
T (c) a piston and cylinder
E (d) a solenoid electrical
48. In hydraulic systems,

(a) the mechanical energy is transferred to the oil and then converted into mechanical
energy
(b) the electrical energy is transferred to the oil and then converted into mechanical
energy
(c) the mechanical energy is transferred to the oil and converted into electrical energy
I
49. Which of the following is used as a component in hydraulic power unit?
C (a) pressure gauge
(b) filler gauge
T (c) valve
(d) reservoir
E
50. The difference between analog voltage represented by two adjacent digital codes, or
the analog step size, is the:
(a) accuracy
(b) quantization
(c) resolution
(d) monotonicity
A
51. Which type of pump is used for lifting water from the ground surface to the top of the
I building?
(a) centrifugal pump
C
(b) turbine pump
T (c) submersible pump
(d) all the above
E
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A
I 52. What is a positive displacement pump?
(a) oil from suction side of the pump flows completely to the delivery
C side
T (b) volume of fluid discharged cannot return back to the suction side of
the pump
E (c) discharges fixed volume of fluid every cycle
(d) all the above
53. Which method is used for stability analysis?

(a) Nyquist criteria
(b) Root locus method
(c) Routh Hurwitz criteria
A (d) All the above
I 54. Generally, liquids are non-compressible but when a large pressure of 70 bar is
applied,
C petroleum oil can be compressed up to
(a) 0.5% of its original volume
T (b) 1% of its original volume
E (c) 5% of its original volume
55. In a flash analog-to-digital converter, the output of each comparator is connected to an

input
(a) priority encoder
(b) decoder
(c) multiplexer
A (d) demultiplexer
I
56. In fixed displacement vane pump,
C (a) flow rate decreases with increase in working pressure
(b) flowrate increases with increase in working pressure
T (c) flow rate is constant and does not change with working pressure
E
57. Which type of motion is transmitted by hydraulic actuators?
(a) linear motion
(b) rotary motion
A 58. Which of the following factors is/are considered while selecting a compressor?
(a) type of oil filter required
I (b) volumetric efficiency
(c) viscosity of the liquids used
C
T
59. Where is an intercooler connected in a two stage compressor?
E
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A (a) intercooler is connected after the two stage compressor

(b) intercooler is connected between the two stages of the compressor
I (c) intercooler is connected before the two stage compressor
C 60. Which of the following logic valve is known as shuttle valve?
T (a) OR gate
(b) AND gate
E (c) NOR gate
(d) NAND
61. In pneumatic systems, AND gate is also known as

(a) check valve
(b) shuttle valve
(c) dual pressure valve
I 62. Which of the following statements is true for cascade method which is used to draw a
pneumatic circuit?
C (a) signal processing valves are connected in parallel
(b) when the numbers of signal processing valves are greater than 4, the signals are
T strong
E (c) cascade method does not consider the cost factor
63. Which of the following cannot be considered as data in Data Acquisition System
(DAQ)?
(a) temperature
(b) mechanical displacement
(c) flow rate
I 64. Which energy is converted into mechanical energy by the hydraulic cylinders?
(a) hydrostatic energy
C
(b) hydrodynamic energy
T (c) electrical energy
E
65. What is the advantage of using a single acting cylinder?
(a) high cost and reliable
(b) honing inside the inner surface of pump is not required
(c) piston seals are not required
66. The study of relationship between the input and output, when the input is invariant
A withrespect to time is called as
(a) static characteristics of instruments
I (b) dynamic characteristics of instruments
C (c) variable characteristics of instruments
T
67. A pneumatic symbol is:
E
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A (a) different from a hydraulic symbol used for the same function
(b) the same as a hydraulic symbol used for the same function
I (c) not to be compared to a hydraulic symbol used for the same function
(d) none of the mentioned
C 68. Most hydraulic circuits:
T (a) operate from a central hydraulic power unit
(b) use air-over-oil power units
E (c) have a dedicated power unit
(d) does not have dedicated power unit
69. A material with same mechanical properties in three mutually perpendicular

directions.
(a) Orthotropic material
(b) Smart material
(c) Non- linearity material
A (d) Isotropic material
I 70. The matrix, which contains the Young's modulus and Poisson's ratio details in stress
C problems and thermal conductivities in thermal problems.
(a) Stiffness Matrix
T (b) Material property matrix
(c) Strain energy matrix
E (d) Inverting a matrix
71. A method of predicting when a material can be considered to have failed.

(a) FMEA method
(b) DFMA method
(c) Von-Mises failure criterion
(d) Hybrid method
A 72. As a default option, mesh is refined in ANSYS using
(a) g-method
I
(b) h-method
C (c) p-method
(d) r-method
T
73. A model is
E (a) An essence of reality
(b) An approximation
(c) An idealization
74. Every mathematical model

(a) Must be deterministic
A (b) Requires computer aid for its solution
(c) Represents data in numerical form
I (d) Must have a complex mathematical form
C 75. Which of the following characteristics apply to queuing system?

(a) Customer population
T
(b) Arrival process
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A (c) Both (a)&(b)

I
C 76. Which of the cost estimates & performance measures are not used for economic
T analysis of a queuing system
(a) Cost per server per unit of time
E (b) Cost per unit of time for a customer waiting in the system
(c) Average number of customers in the system
(d) Average waiting time of customers in the system
77. In Markov analysis, state probabilities must

(a) Sum to one
(b) Be less than one
(c) Be greater than one
A (d) None of the above
I 78. If a matrix of transition probability is of the order n*n, then the number of equilibrium
equations would be
C (a) n
T (b) n-1
(c) n+1
E (d) None of the above
79. As simulation is not an analytical model, therefore the result of simulation must be
viewed as
(a) Unrealistic
(b) Exact
(c) Approximation
(d) Simplified
A
80. Simulation is defined as
I (a) A technique that uses computers
(b) An approach for reproducing the processes by which events by chance & changes
C are created in a computer
T (c) A procedure for testing & experimenting on models
E
81. A particular class of numerical simulation algorithms for simulation of physical

phenomena which was developed by combining mesh free methods with finite
A element method is
(a) XFEM
I (b) SFEM
(c) hpk-FEM
C (d) hp-FEM
T
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A 82. A type of finite element method in which extra independent variables are introduced
as nodal variables during discretization of a partial differential equation problem is
I called
(a) mixed FEM
C (b) SFEM
T (c) hpk-FEM
(d) hp-FEM
E 83. In choosing the right modelling method, which of the following is a key
consideration?
(a) accuracy
(b) end uses of model
(c) software capabilities
A 84. The least attractive feature of a physical model/prototype in the refinement phase is:
(a) storing the full-size prototype during the design process
I (b) a prototypes lack of flexibility
(c) high costs to create the prototype
C (d) accuracy
T
E
Based on the Fig.1 below, answer the question from 85 to 90.
A
A and C are fixed supports. B is a roller. A distributed load is acting on beam BC
I with peak at C being 6N/m. AB is 8 m. and BC is 6 m. Take EI as constant. All
moments options are in N-m.
C FEM=Fixed End Moments
T 85. How many separate parts will be required for this questions?
E (a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
86. What will be the FEM at point A in beam AB?

(a) 0
(b) 10
A (c) 20
(d) 30
I
C 87. What will be the FEM at Point B in beam AB?
(a) 0
T (b) 10
(c) 20
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A (d) 30
I 88. What will be the deflection of beam BC?

(a) 0
C (b) 1/EI
T (c) 2/EI
(d) can’t say
E
89. What will be the rotation of beam AB at point A?

(a) 0.2
(b) -0.2
(c) 0
(d) can’t say
A 90. Total how many equations will be generated?
I (a) 1
(b) 2
C (c) 3
(d) 4
T
91. In binomial probability distribution, dependents of standard deviations must include
E (a) probability of q
(b) probability of p
(c) trials
(d) all of above
92. Formula to calculate standardized normal random variable is

𝝁
(a) 𝒙 − 𝝈
A 𝝁
(b) 𝒙 + 𝝈
I 𝝈
(c) 𝒙 − 𝝁
C
𝝈
(d) 𝒙 + 𝝁
T
E 93. In random experiment, observations of random variable are classified as
(a) events
(b) composition
(c) trials
(d) functions
94. In binomial distribution, formula of calculating standard deviation is

(a) square root of p
A (b) square root of pq
(c) square root of npq
I (d) square root of np
C 95. Variance of random variable x of gamma distribution can be calculated as
(a) Var(x) = n + 2/ μsup2;
T
(b) Var(x) = n/μsup2;
E
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A (c) Var (x) = n * 2/μsup2;

(d) Var(x) = n - 2/μsup3;
I
96. If value of m in beta distribution is 35 and value of n in beta distribution is 50 then
C expected value of random variable x in beta distribution is
(a) 0.411
T
(b) 0.311
E (c) 0.511
(d) 0.211
97. Formula such as mn/(m +n)2 (m + n + 1) is used to calculate
(a) variance in exponential distribution
(b) variance in alpha distribution
(c) variance in gamma distribution
(d) variance in beta distribution
A 98. Formula of mean of uniform or rectangular distribution is as
I (a) mean =49b + a)/2b
(b) mean = (b + a)/2
C (c) mean =(b-2a)/4
(d) mean = (2a + 2b)/2a
T
99. Formula of calculating expected value of random variable x of gamma distribution is
E
as
(a) E(x)=n/𝜇
(b) E(x)=pq/𝜇
(c) E(x)=𝜇/np
(d) E(x)=𝛼/𝜇
100. Average residual service time, which again assumes Poisson arrivals as:
A (a) Average residual service time = I / Arithemtic mean+(1+ C^2)
(b) Average residual service time = 2 x Arithemtic mean+(1+ C^2)
I (c) Average residual service time = 1/ 2 x Arithemtic mean+(1+ C^2)
C (d) Average residual service time = 1/ 2 x Arithemtic meanx(l+ C^2)
T 101. Exponential distribution, is such a distribution in which ‘C’ value is

(a) 0
E (b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
102. An I/O system with a single disk gets on average 50 I/O requests per second and
average time for a disk to service an I/O request is 10 ms, utilization of I/O system
would be
(a) 0.2
A (b) 0.5
(c) 0.75
I
(d) 1.5
C 103. One of the most widely used exponential distributions is called a
T (a) passion distribution
(b) possible distribution
E
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A (c) poisson distribution

(d) poisson association
I
104. In an open loop control system
C (a) output is independent of control input
T (b) output is dependent on control input
(c) only system parameters have effect on the control output
E (d) none of the above
105. For open control system, which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) less expensive
(b) recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
(c) construction is simple and maintenance easy
A (d) errorsare caused by disturbances
I 106. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of
the system will
C (a) decrease
(b) increase
T (c) be unaffected
E (d) any of the above
107. Which of the following is an open loop control system?

(a) field controlled D.C. motor
(b) ward leonard control
(c) metadyne
(d) stroboscope
A 108. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system?
(a) input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
I
(b) presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
C (c) less expensive
(d) generally free from problems of non-linearities
T
109. Which has tendency to oscillate.
E (a) open loop system
(b) closed loop system
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
110. A good control system has all the following features except
(a) good stability
A (b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
I (d) sufficient power handling capacity
C
111. A car has a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback element
T for the driver?
(a) clutch
E
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A (b) eyes
(c) needle of the speedometer
I (d) steering wheel
C 112. The initial response when tune output is not equal to input is called
(a) transient response
T (b) error response
E (c) dynamic response
(d) either of the above
113. A control system working under unknown random actions is called

(a) computer control system
(b) digital data system
(c) stochastic control system
(d) adaptive control system
A
114. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
I
(a) feedback
C (b) stimulus
(c) signal
T (d) gain control
E 115. Group the followings into mechanical systems, electronic systems and information
technology.
1. Automation, 2. Mechanical elements, 3. Software engineering
4. Precision mechanics, 5. Microelectronics, 6. Artificial intelligence,
7. Sensors and actuators
(a) Mechanical Systems: 2, 4; Electronic System: 5, 7; Information Technology:1, 3,
6
A (b) Mechanical Systems: 2,7; Electronic System: 4, 5, 6; Information Technology:1, 3
(c) Mechanical Systems: 2,4; Electronic System: 5, 6, 7;Information Technology:1, 3
I (d) Mechanical Systems: 2,7; Electronic System: 4, 5; Information Technology: 1,3, 6
C 116. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a
T path?
(a) brain
E (b) hands
(c) legs
(d) eyes
117. Which is a closed loop system?

(a) auto-pilot for an aircraft
(b) direct current generator
A (c) car starter
(d) electric switch
I
118. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments?
C (a) vernistats
(b) microsyns
T (c) resolvers
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2CAD67
A (d) any of the above
I 119. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable?
(a) the gain of the system should be decreased
C (b) the gain of the system should be increased
T (c) the number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) the number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
E
120. Assertion (A): Degree of freedom is defined as the number of variables to define
motion in the body in space.
Reason (R): Maximum degree of freedom can be six in a robot.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
A (b) Both Aand R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
I (d) A is false but R is true
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
PG2CA D67
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Computer Aided Design
Paper: 2

1. a 41 d 81. b
2. a 42 d 82. a
3. a 43 c 83. d
4. a 44 b 84. b
5. a 45 b 85. c
6. d 46 b 86. a
7. a 47 b 87. a
8. b 48 a 88. a
9. a 49 c 89. c
10. d 50 c 90. d
11. c 51 d 91. d
12. c 52 d 92. a
13. a 53 d 93. c
14. d 54 a 94. c
15. c 55 a 95. b
16. a 56 a 96. a
17. d 57 c 97. d
18. a 58 b 98. b
19. a 59 b 99. a
20. a 60 a 100. c
21. b 61 c 101. b
22. c 62 c 102. b
23. a 63 d 103. c
24. a 64 a 104. a
25. c 65 c 105. b
26. a 66 a 106. a
27. c 67 a 107. b
28. b 68 a 108. b
29. c 69 d 109. b
30. c 70 b 110. b
31. c 71 c 111. c
32. c 72 b 112. a
33. d 73 d 113. c
34. d 74 c 114. b
35. b 75 c 115. a
36. b 76 d 116. d
37. d 77 a 117. a
38. a 78 a 118. d
39. c 79 c 119. b
40. d 80 d 120. b
ROLL NO.: PG1CIE59
A
I
C CONTROL & INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
T
E
PAPER-I
A Instructions:
I i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
C ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
T iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
E iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to
the wrong answer.
A vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
T ix. Hand over your OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of examination
E before leaving the examination hall.

A
I
C
1. Which of the following should be done in order to convert a continuous-time signal to
T
a discrete-time signal?
E
(a) Sampling
(b) Differentiating
(c) Integrating
2. The process of converting discrete-time continuous valued signal into discrete-time

discrete valued(digital) signal is known as:
(a) Sampling
(b) Quantization
(c) Coding
3. A band limited signal with a maximum frequency of 5 KHz to be sampled. According

to the sampling theorem, the sampling frequency which is not valid is:
(a) 5 KHz
(b) 12 KHz
(c) 15 KHz
(d) 20 KHz
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A
I
C 4. What is the set of all values of z for which X(z) attains a finite value?
T (a) Radius of convergence
E (b) Radius of divergence
(c) Feasible solution
5. Statement (I): Aliasing occurs when the sampling frequency is less than twice the
A maximum frequency in the signal.
I Statement (II): Aliasing is a reversible process.
C (a) Both statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
T correct explanation of Statement (I).
E (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not
correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is False but Statement (II) is true
A 6. The transfer function of a Zero-Order-Hold system with sampling interval T is

1
I (a) 𝑠 (1 − 𝑒 −𝑇𝑠 )
C 1
(b) 𝑠 (1 − 𝑒 −𝑇𝑠 )2
T
1
E (c) 𝑠 𝑒 −𝑇𝑠
1
(d) 𝑠 2 𝑒 −𝑇𝑠
7. In discrete control system, the stability is found by

A (a) Lyapunov function
I (b) Routh-Hurwitz criterion
C (c) Jury‘s stability criterion
T (d) Bode plot
E
8. Which one of the following rules determine the mapping of s-plane to z-plane?
(a) Right side of the s-plane maps into outside of the unit circle in z-plane
(b) Left half of s-plane maps into inside of the unit circle
(c) Imaginary axis in s-plane maps into the circumference of the unit circle
(d) All of the above mentioned.
9. Which discretization method is used to overcome the problem of aliasing?

(a) Impulse-invariant
(b) Step-invariant
(c) Bilinear transformation
(d) Finite-difference approximation of derivatives
10. The use of sampled data control system are:

(a) For using analog components as the part of the control loop
(b) For time division of control components
(c) Whenever a transmission channel forms a part of closed loop
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I
C
T 11. Sampled data technique is appropriate as:
E (a) For long distance data transmission
(b) Pulses are transferred by little loss of accuracy
(c) More than one channel of information is sequentially sampled and transmitted.
(d) All of the above mentioned
A 12. Difference equation technique for higher order systems is used in:
I (a) Laplace transform
C (b) Fourier transform
T (c) Z-transform
E (d) None of the mentioned
13. Assertion (A): An LTI discrete system represented by the difference equation:
y (k+2)-5y(k+1)+6y(k) =x(k) is unstable.
Reason (R): A system is unstable if the roots of the characteristic equation lie outside
A the unit circle.
I (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
C (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
T (c) A is true but R is false
E (d) A is false but R is false
14. Assertion (A): The stability of the system is assured if the ROC includes the unit
circle in z-plane.
Reason (R): For a causal stable system all the poles should be outside the unit circle in
A the z-plane.
I (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
C (b) Both A and R are true bit R is NOT the correct explanation of A
T (c) A is true but R is false
E (d) A is false but R is true
15. The discrete time transfer function

1−2𝑧 −1
H(z)=1−0.5𝑧 −1
(a) Non-minimum phase and unstable
(b) Minimum phase and unstable
(c) Minimum phase and stable
(d) Non-minimum phase and stable
16. Find z-transform of unit-step functions that are delayed by 1 sampling period.
𝑧 −1
(a) 1+𝑧 −1
𝑧
(b) 1−𝑧 −1
𝑧
(c) 1+𝑧 −1
𝑧 −1
( d) 1−𝑧 −1
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I
C 17. Find z-transform of unit-step functions that are delayed by n sampling period.
𝑧 −𝑛
T (a) 1−𝑧 −1
E 𝑧𝑛
(b) 1−𝑧 −1
𝑧𝑛
(c) 1+𝑧 −1
𝑧 −𝑛
(d) 1+𝑧 −1
A
I 18. Fora nonlinearone-to-one mapping from s-plane to z-plane, bilinear transformation is
C defined by-
T (a) z = esT
2 𝑧−1
E (b) s = 𝑇 (𝑧+1)
(c) z =e-sT
2 𝑧+1
(d) s = ( )
𝑇 𝑧−1
19. A discrete time signal may be

A i) Samples of a continuous signal
I ii) A time series which is a domain of integers
C iii) Time series of sequence of quantities
T iv) Amplitude modulated wave
E
(a) i, ii and iii are correct
(b) i and ii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) All the four are correct
A 20. Calculate the Nyquist rate for sampling when a continuous time signal is given by
I x(t) = 5 cos 100πt +10 cos 200πt – 15 cos 300πt
C (a) 300Hz
T (b) 600Hz
E (c) 150Hz
(d) 200Hz
21. Which mechanism in control engineering implies an ability to measure the state by
taking measurements at output?
(a) Controllability
(b) Observability
(c) Differentiability
(d) Adaptability
22. State space analysis is applicable even if the initial conditions are _____
(a) Zero
(b) Non-zero
(c) Equal
(d) Not equal
23. In P-I controller, what does an integral of a function compute?
(a) Density of curve
(b) Area under the curve
(c) Volume over the curve
(d) Circumference of curve
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I
C 24. Digital controllers are superior over analog controllers with regard to the following
T characteristics:
E (a) Sensitivity
(b) Drift effects and Internal noise
(c) Reliability
A 25. The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called as
I (a)Transient response
C (b)Error response
T (c)Dynamicresponse
E (d)none of above mentioned
26. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from
(a)loss of gain
(b)saturation in amplifying stages
(c)vibrations
A (d)oscillations
I
C 27. In a control system integral error compensation _______steady state error
T (a)increases
E (b)minimizes
(c)does not have any effect
(d)any of the above
28. The impulse response of a continuous time system is given by
h(t) = δ (t-1) + δ(t-3). The value of the step response at t=2 is
A (a) 0
I (b) 1
C (c) 2
T (d) 3
E
29. The stability characteristics of PID based digital control loop with sampling time T
depends on
(a) Kc,
(b) Kc and τI
(c) Kc and τD
(d) Kc, τI, τD and T
30. A condition where integral control action drives the output of a controller into
saturation is called:
(a) Offset
(b) Wind-up
(c) Self-bias
(d) Noise
31. When the microcontroller executes some arithmetic operations, then the flag bits of
which register are affected?
(a) PSW
(b) SP
(c) DPTR
(d) PC
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A
I
C 32. How is the status of the carry, auxiliary carry and parity flag affected if the write
T instruction?
E MOV A, #9C
ADD A, #64H
(a) CY=0, AC=0, P=0
(b) CY=1, AC=1, P=0
(c) CY=0, AC=1, P=0
A (d) CY=1,AC=1,P=1
I
C 33. How many bytes of bit addressable memory is present in 8051 based
T microcontrollers?
E (a) 8 bytes
(b) 32 bytes
(c) 16 bytes
(d) 128 bytes
A 34. Which locations of 128 bytes on-chip additional RAM are generally reserved for
I special functions?
C (a) 80H to 0FFH
T (b) 70H to 0FFH
E (c) 90H to 0FFH
(d) 60H to 0FFH
35. Match the following:

(a) ISS ————————— 1) Monitors the status of interrupt pin
A (b) IER —————————2) Allows the termination of ISS
I (c) RETI ———————— 3) MCS-51 Interrupts Initialization
C (d) INTO ———————— 4) Occurrence of high to low transition level
T
E (a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(b) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(c) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
(d) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
36. Which among the following controls the timer1 especially when it is configured as a
timer in mode‘0′, where gate and TR1 bits are attributed to be ‗1‖ in TMOD register?
(a) TR1
(b) External input at (INT1)
(c) TF1
37. What kind of triggering configuration of external interrupt intimate the signal to stay
low until the generation of subsequent interrupt?
(a) Edge-Triggering
(b) Level Triggering
(c) Both (a)&(b)
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I
C 38. Which among the below mentioned functions does not belong to the category of
T alternate functions usually performed by Port 3 (Pins 10-17)?
E (a) External Interrupts
(b) Internal Interrupts
(c) Serial Ports
(d) Read / Write Control signals
A 39. Which address / location in the program memory is supposed to get occupied when
I CPU jump and execute instantaneously during the occurrence of an interrupt?
C (a) Scalar
T (b) Vector
E (c) Register
40. How many machine cycle/s is / are executed by the counters in 8051 in order to detect
'1' to '0' transition at the external pin?
(a) One
A (b) Two
I (c) Four
C (d) Eight
T
E 41. What does the symbol '#' represent in the instruction MOV A, #55H ?
(a) Direct datatype
(b) Indirect datatype
(c) Immediate datatype
(d) Indexed datatype
A
I 42. Which rotate instruction/s has an ability to modify CY flag by moving the bit-7 & bit
C 0 respectively to an accumulator?
T (a) RR & RL
E (b) RLC & RRC
(c) RR & RRC
(d) RL & RLC
43. Which pins of a microcontroller are directly connected with 8255?
(a) RD
(b) WR
(c) D0-D7
(d) all of the mentioned
44. What changes are to be made to send data to an LCD?

(a) set the R/W bit
(b) set the E bit
(c) set the RS bit
45. Which command of an LCD is used to shift the entire display to the right?
(a) 0x1C
(b) 0x18
(c) 0x05
(d) 0x07
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A
I
C 46. If we need to operate a key of a keyboard in an interrupt mode, then it will generate
T what kind of interrupt?
E (a) ES
(b) EX0/EX1
(c) T0/T1
(d) RESET
A 47. 8 input DAC has ________

I (a) 8 discrete voltage levels
C (b) 64 discrete voltage levels
T (c) 124 discrete voltage levels
E (d) 256 discrete voltage levels
48. Why two pins for ground are available in ADC0804?

(a) for controlling the ADCON0 and ADCON1 register of the controller
(b) for controlling the analog and the digital pins of the controller
A (c) for both parts of the chip respectively
I (d) none of the mentioned
C
T 49. What does the RAM location at 44H indicates about the seven segment code?
E (a) 7-segment code for the third character
(b) 7-segment code for the fourth character
(c) Display of select code for third display
(d) Display of select code for fourth display
A 50. Inter Integrated Circuit is a _____________

I (a) Single master, single slave
C (b) Multi master, single slave
T (c) Single master, multi slave
E (d) Multi master, multi slave
51. How many logic signals are there in SPI?

(a) 5 signals
(b) 6 signals
(c) 4 signals
(d) 7 signals
52. The SMOD bit is used to

(a) decrease the baud rate by 2
(b) increase the baud rate by 4
(c) increase the baud rate by 2
(d) triple the baud rate
53. Which one of the following is a real time operating system?

(a) RTLinux
(b) VxWorks
(c) Windows CE
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I
C 54. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the
T CPU first?
E (a) first-come, first-served scheduling
(b) shortest job scheduling
(c) priority scheduling
(d) none of the mentioned
A 55. The transfer of branch information to the microprocessor by an interrupting source

I through the data bus is called as ________.
C (a) Vectored Interrupt
T (b) Non-vectored Interrupt
E (c) Priority Interrupt
56. The microcontroller enters into power down mode when

(a) SMOD bit of PCON is set
A (b) GF1 bit of PCON is set
I (c) PD bit of PCON is set
C (d) GF2 bit of PCON is set
T
E 57. Liquid flow rate is measured using
(a) a Pirani gauge
(b) a pyrometer
(c) an orifice plate
(d) a Bourdon tube
A
I 58. A p-type semiconductor strain gauge has a nominal resistance of 1000Ω and a gauge
C factor of 200 + at 250 C. The resistance of the strain gauge in ohms when subjected to
T a strain of 10-4 m/m at the same temperature is _______ Ω.
E (a) 1005 Ω
(b) 1010 Ω
(c) 1015 Ω
(d) 1020 Ω
59. The pressure and velocity at the throat of a Venturi tube, measuring the flow of a
liquid, are related to the upstream pressure and velocity, respectively, as follows:
(a) pressure is lower but velocity is higher
(b) pressure is higher but velocity is lower
(c) both pressure and velocity are lower
(d) pressure and velocity are identical
60. Semiconductor strain gages typically have much higher gage factors than those of
metallic strain gages, primarily due to:
(a) higher temperature sensitivity
(b) higher Poisson‘s ratio
(c) higher piezoresitive coefficient
(d) higher magnetostrictive coefficient
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C 61. For a rotameter, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
T (a) the weight of the float is balanced by the buoyancy and the drag force acting on
E the float
(b) the velocity of the fluid remains constant for all positions of the float
(c) the measurement of volume flow rate of gas is not possible
(d) the volume flow rate is insensitive to changes in density of the fluid
A 62. A differential pressure transmitter of a flow meter using venture tube reads 2.5x105 Pa
I for a flow rate of 0.5 m3/s. The approximate flow rate in m3/s for a differential
C pressure of 0.9x105Pa is
T (a) 0.30
E (b) 0.18
(c) 0.83
(d) 0.60
63. An accelerometer has input range of 0-10g, natural frequency 30Hz and mass
A 0.001kg. The range of the secondary displacement transducer in mm required to cover
I the input range is
C (a) 0 to 2.76
T (b) 0 to 9.81
E (c) 0 to 11.20
(d) 0 to 52.10
64. The seismic mass of an accelerometer oscillates sinusoidally at 100 Hz with a

maximum displacement of 10 mm from its mean position. The peak acceleration of
A the seismic mass is
I (a) 3141.50 m/s2
C (b) 3947.84 m/s2
T (c) 314.15 m/s2
E (d) 100.00 m/s2
65. The output voltage of a transducer with an output resistance of 10 kΩ is connected to

an amplifier. The minimum input resistance of the amplifier so that the error in
recording the transducer output does not exceed 2% is
(a) 10 kΩ
(b) 49 kΩ
(c) 490 kΩ
(d) 1.2 MΩ
66. IPTS stands for ________________

(a) International Practical Temperature Scale
(b) Indian Primary Temperature Scale
(c) International Primary Temperature Scale
(d) International Practical Temperature Standard
67. Output of a bimetallic element will be __________________

(a) Strain
(b) Pressure
(c) Displacement
(d) Voltage
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C 68. Which of the following quantities can be measured using bellows?
T (a) Absolute pressure
E (b) Gauge pressure
(c) Differential pressure
69. Which of the following is detected using manometer devices?

A (a) Pressure difference between manometric and measuring liquid
I (b) pH difference between manometric and measuring liquid
C (c) Density difference between manometric and measuring liquid
T (d) None of the mentioned
E
70. Which of the following devices are used for level to force conversion?
(a) Load cell
(b) Membrane
(c) Diaphragm
A (d) Voltmeter
I
C 71. Differential pressure transmitter can be used for measurement of
T (a) Differential Pressure
E (b) Liquid level
(c) Liquid flow
72. Cascade control means

A (a) feed forward control
I (b) more than one feed-back loop
C (c) on-off control
T (d) one feed-back loop
E
73. Reset control action is often expressed in units of:
(a) percent
(b) seconds per rate
(c) minutes
(d) repeats per minute
74. Many digital control systems utilize Ethernet as a communications network, because--
-------
(a) no terminating resistors are necessary
(b) it is robust and inexpensive
(c) it is a wireless network standard
(d) it is fully deterministic
75. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of:

(a) Virtual relay contacts and coils
(b) Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
(c) Function blocks with connecting lines
(d) Text-based code
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C 76. The difference between online and offline PLC programming is . . .
T (a) whether the PLC is running or stopped
E (b) whether the programming PC has internet connectivity
(c) where the edited program resides
(d) the type of programmer used
77. The purpose of feedforward control is to:

A (a) eliminate the need for feedback control in a process
I (b) reduce the effect of load variation on the process variable
C (c) save energy
T (d) reduce the effect of process variable noise on stability
E
78. Ratio control is where:
(a) one variable is controlled in proportion to another
(b) a ―wild flow‖ variable sets the gain of the controller
(c) fuel must be precisely rationed for economy
A (d) process data is communicated in a digital format
I
C 79. Which architectural unit/block of PLC decides the sequence of different operations to
T be executed by means of instructions written in memory?
E (a) Memory
(b) Programming software
(c) I/O interface
(d) CPU
A 80. Which controller has the potential to eliminate/overcome the drawback of offset in
I proportional controllers?
C (a) P-I
T (b) P-D
E (c) Both (a) and (b)
81. The transfer function of a digital system is given by:

𝑏
1 − 𝑧 + 𝑎𝑧 −2
−1
where a is real. The transfer function is BIBO stable if the value of a is:
(a) -1.5
(b) - 0.75
(c) .05
(d)1.5
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C 82. For the state variable model: x(k+1) =F x(k)+g r(k) and y(k) = c x(k)
T 0 1
With F= ; g=[0 1]T ; c=[-1/2 1]
E −1/8 3/4
Find the eigenvalues of matrix F.
(a) 1/4, 1/2
(b) -1/4, 1/2
(c) 1/4, -1/2
A (d) -1/4, -1/2
I
C 83. Obtain the transfer function for following discrete-time system,
T x1(k + 1) 2 −5 T T
= [x (k)x2(k)] +[1 0] u(k) and y(k)= 2 x1(k)
E x2(k + 1) 0.5 −1 1
2𝑧−2
(a) G(z) = 𝑧 2 −𝑧+0.5
2𝑧+2
(b) G(z) = 𝑧 2 −𝑧+0.5
2𝑧+2
A (c) G(z) = 𝑧 2 +𝑧+0.5
I 2𝑧+2
(d) G(z) = 𝑧 2 −𝑧−0.5
C
T
E
84. What is the number of roots of the polynomial F(z) = 4z3-8z2-z+2, lying outside the
unit circle?
(a) 0
(b) 1
A (c) 2
I d)3
C
T 85. Consider the characteristic polynomial F(z) = z3+Kz2+0.5z+2. Find the values of
E constant K for which all the roots of F(z) lie inside the unit circle-Use Jury stability
criterion.
(a) 5/4 > K > 0
(b) 7/4 > K > 0
(c) -5/4 < K < 0
(d) -7/4 < K < 0
0 1
86. Find f(A) = A10 for A=
−2 −3
−1022 −1023
(a)
2046 2047
1022 −1023
(b)
2046 −2047
−1022 1023
(c)
−2046 2047
1022 −1023
(d)
2046 2047
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1
C 1− 𝑧 −1
3
87. The system function LTI is given by H(z) 1 . This system can be stable inverse
T 1− 𝑧 −1
4
E if the region of convergence H(z) is defined as
(a) z < ¼
(b) 𝑧 < 1/12
(c) z > 1/ 4
(d) <1/3
A
I 88. Investigate the controllability and observability of following systems
C 1 −2 1 −1
x(k+1)= x(k) + u(k)
T 1 −1 0 0
E 1 0
y(k)= x(k)
0 1
(a) Both controllable and observable
(b) Controllable only
(c) Observable only
A (d) Not controllable and not observable
I
C 89. For the state variable model: x(k+1) =F x(k)+g r(k) and y(k) = c x(k)
T 0 1
With F= ; g=[0 1]T ; c=[-1/2 1]
E −1/8 3/4
Find the transfer function G(z)= Y(z)/R(z)
(a) z/(z-1/4)
(b) z/(z+1/4)
(c) 1/(z-1/4)
A (d) 1/(z+1/4)
I
C 90. For the controllable discrete time system:
T 0 1
x(k+1)= x(k) + [0 1]Tu(k)
E −0.16 −1
Determine the state feedback gain matrix, K such that when control signal u(k)= -
Kx(k) is applied, the closed loop system exhibits deadband response to an initial state
x(0).
(a) [0.16 1]
(b) [0.16 -1]
(c) [-0.16 -1]
(d) [-0.16 1]
0 1
91. For the discrete time system with A= , find eAt.
0 −1
−𝑡
(𝑎) 1 1 −−𝑡𝑒
0 𝑒
−𝑡
(b) −1 1 − 𝑒−𝑡
0 −𝑒
−𝑡
(c) 1 1 −−𝑡𝑒
1 𝑒
−𝑡
(b) −1 1 − 𝑒−𝑡
−1 −𝑒
Page 14 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CIE59
A
I
C
T
E 92. Determine y(∞) for the following Y(z) function (a is a real constant):
Y(z)= K[ z3-2az2+(a3-a2+a)z] / [(z-1)(z-a)(z-a2)]
(a) 100
(b) 0
(c) ∞
A (d) 5
I
C 93. Which among the below mentioned sequence of program instructions represent the
T correct chronological order for the generation of 2kHz square wave frequency?
E 1. MOV TMOD, 0000 0010 B
2. MOV TL0, # 06H
3. MOV TH0, # 06H
4. SETB TR0
5. CPL p1.0
A 6. ORG 0000H
I (a) 6, 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
C (b) 6, 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
T (c) 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
E (d) 6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
94. Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are correct in case of program
execution related to program memory?
1. External Program memory execution takes place from 1000H through 0FFFFH
A only when the status of EA pin is high (1)
I 2. External Program memory execution takes place from 0000H through 0FFFH
C only when the status of EA pin is low (0)
T 3. Internal Program execution occurs from 0000H through 0FFFH only when the
E status of EA pin is held low (0)
4. Internal program memory execution occurs from 0000H through 0FFFH only
when EA pin is held high (1)
(a) 1&3
(b) 2&4
(c) 1&2
(d) Only 1
95. Which memory allow the execution of instructions till the address limit of 0FFFH
especially when the External Access (EA) pin is held high?
(a) Internal Program Memory
(b) External Program Memory
(c) Both (a)&(b)
96. Which signal from CPU has an ability to respond the clocking value of D- flipflop (bit
latch) from the internal bus?
(a) Write - to - Read Signal
(b) Write - to - Latch Signal
(c) Read - to - Write Signal
(d) Read - to - Latch Signal
Page 15 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CIE59
A
I
C 97. How many single byte, two-byte and three-byte instructions are supported by MCS-51
T from the overall instruction set?
E (a) 55 single - byte, 35 two-byte & 21 three-byte instructions
(b) 50 single - byte, 30 two-byte & 31 three-byte instructions
(c) 42 single - byte, 45 two-byte & 24 three-byte instructions
(d) 45 single - byte, 45 two-byte & 17 three-byte instructions
98. Find the control word for PA= out, PB= in, PCL=out, PCH=out (Mode0)?
A
a) 0xF0H
I
b) 0xF2H
C
c) 0xF4H
T
d) 0xFFH
E
99. What is described by this command:
CJNE A,#00001111b, ROW1
a) it masks the bit and then jumps to the label where ROW1 is written
b) it makes the value of the accumulator 0FH and then jumps at the address where
A ROW1 label is written
I c) it compares the value of the accumulator with 0FH and jumps to the location where
C ROW1 label is there if the value becomes equal
T d) it compares the value of the accumulator with 0FH and jumps to the location where
E ROW1 label is there if the value is not equal
100. While programming the ADC0804 IC what steps are followed?

(a) select the analog channel, start the conversion, monitor the conversion, display the
digital results
A (b) select the analog channel, activate the ALE signal (L to H pulse), start the
I conversion, monitor the conversion, read the digital results
C (c) select the analog channel, activate the ALE signal (H to L pulse), start the
T conversion, monitor the conversion, read the digital results
E (d) select the channel, start the conversion, end the conversion
101. Why do we need a ULN2803 in driving a relay?

(a) for switching a motor
(b) for increasing the current limit in the relays
(c) for increasing the power
(d) for decreasing the current limit in the relays
102. The main importance of ARM micro-processors is providing operation with ______
(a) Low cost and low power consumption
(b) Higher degree of multi-tasking
(c) Lower error or glitches
(d) Efficient memory management
103. Both the CISC and RISC architectures have been developed to reduce the ______
(a) Cost
(b) Time delay
(c) Semantic gap
Page 16 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CIE59
A
I
C 104. For real time operating systems, interrupt latency should be
T (a) minimal
E (b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) dependent on the scheduling
105. A thermopile is constructed using 10 junctions of Chromel-Constantan (sensitivity 60

A μV/oC for each junction) connected in series. The output is fed to an amplifier
I having an infinite input impedance and a gain of 10. The output from the amplifier is
C acquired using a 10-bit ADC, with reference voltage of 5V. The resolution of this
T system in units of oC is ______.
E (a) 0.833
(b) 0.915
(c) 0.735
(d) 0.984
A Common Data for Q. 106&107.

I A tungsten wire used in a constant current hot wire anemometer has the following
C properties: Resistance at 0°C is 10 Ω, surface area is m 10-4 m2. Linear temperature
T coefficient of resistance of the tungsten wire is 4.8 x 10-3 /oC, Convective heat transfer
E coefficient is 25.2 W/m2/oC, flowing air temperature is 30 oC, wire current is 100mA,
mass specific heat product is 2.5 x 10-5 J/oC
106. The thermal time constant of the hot wire under flowing air condition in ms is
(a) 24.5
A (b) 12.25
I (c) 6.125
C (d) 3.062
T
E 107. At steady state, the resistance of the wire in ohms is
(a) 10.000
(b) 10.144
(c) 12.152
(d) 14.128
108. A differential pressure transmitter is used to measure the flow rate in a pipe. Due to
aging, the sensitivity of the pressure transmitter is reduced by 5%. All other aspects of
the flow meter remaining constant, change in the sensitivity of the flow measurement
is
(a) 10.0%
(b) 5.0%
(c) 2.5%
(d) 2.2%
Common Data for Q. 109&110.

Consider a temperature measurement scheme shown in the adjoining figure. It uses an
RTD whose resistance at 0 oC is 100 Ω and temperature coefficient of resistance is
0.00392/ oC.
Page 17 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CIE59
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E 109. The differential gain of the instrumentation amplifier to achieve a voltage sensitivity
of 10mV/ oC at 0 oC should be approximately
(a) 26.02
(b) 13.41
(c) 57.53
A (d) 90.14
I
C 110. The RTD is placed in hot water bath of temperature 100 oC. Based on the gain
T calculated in Q.109, the error in the measured value of the temperature due to bridge
E nonlinearity is
(a) - 0.4 oC
(b) - 0.1 oC
(c) - 0.9 oC
(d) 1.2 oC
A
I 111. A resistant strain gauge with a gauge factor of 2 is fastened to a steel member, which
C is subjected to strain of 1x10-6. If the original resistance value of the gauge is 130Ω,
T calculate the change in resistance.
E (a) 250 μ Ω
(b) 240 μ Ω
(c) 260 μ Ω
(d) 270 μ Ω
112. A thermocouple produces an e.m.f. in mV according to the temperature difference

between the sensor tip θ1 and the gauge head θ2 such that e = α(θ1-θ2) + β (θ12 - θ22), α
= 3.5 x 10-2and β = 8.2 x 10-6. The gauge head is at 20oC. The mV output is 12 mV.
Calculate the temperature at the sensor.
(a) 251 oC
(b) 240 oC
(c) 260 oC
(d) 270 oC
113. Four strain gauges are formed into bridge with only one active gauge. The nominal
resistance of all of them is 120 Ω. The gauge factor is 2.1 and the supply voltage is 10
V. Calculate the strain when the output from the bridge is 20 mV.
(a) 4.825 x 10-3
(b) 3.825 x 10-3
(c) 5.825 x 10-3
(d) 6.825 x 10-3
Page 18 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CIE59
A
I
C
T 114. A Venturi meter has a meter constant of 0.008 m4 N-0.5 s-1. Calculate the flow rate
E when ∆p = 180 Pa.
(a) 0.1073 m3/s
(b) 0.5163 m3/s
(c) 1.107 m3/s
(d) 2.134 m3/s
A
I 115. The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:
C
T
E
(a) ABC + D
A (b) C + (A + B) D
I (c) C + D (A + B)
C (d) C (AB + D)
T
E
116. The following P&ID shows a/an control strategy:
A
I
C
T
E
(a) Adaptive gain

(b) Model predictive
(c) Cascade
(d) Feedforward
117. For a MIMO control system containing 4 different manipulated and 4 different
controlled variables, how many control configurations are possible for the system?
(a) 24
(b) 4
(c) 64
(d) 256
Page 19 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CIE59
A
I
C
T 118. A control system with a PD controller is shown in the figure
E
A
I
C
T If the velocity error constant Kv =1000, and the damping ratioζ = 0.5, then the
E values of KP and KD are
(a) KP = 100, KD = 0.09
(b) KP = 100, KD = 0.9
(c) KP = 10, KD = 0.09
(d) KP = 10, KD = 0.9
A
I 119. What does the sequential operation of setting the linearization factor at the
C programming level of data loggers convey?
T (a) Adjusted Output from signal amplifier is directly proportional to the measured
E quantity
(b) Adjusted Output from signal amplifier is inversely proportional to the measured
quantity
(c) Adjusted Input from signal amplifier is directly proportional to the measured
quantity
A (d) Adjusted Input from signal amplifier is inversely proportional to the measured
I quantity
C
T 120. A cascade control system is to be adjusted. You should first
E (a) Place the primary controller on manual and adjust the secondary controller
(b) Place the secondary controller on manual and adjust the primary controller
(c) Place both controllers on automatic and go through the conventional adjustment
routine
(d) Bypass the secondary controller and adjust the primary controller by the
conventional method
Page 20 of 20
PG1C IE59
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Control & Instrumentation Engg
Paper: I
Q. NO. Answer Q. NO. Answer Q. NO Answer

1. a 41 c 81. c
2. b 42 b 82. a
3. a 43 d 83. b
4. a 44 c 84. d
5. c 45 a 85. c
6. a 46 b 86. a
7. c 47 d 87. c
8. d 48 b 88. a
9. c 49 a 89. c
10. c 50 d 90. c
11. d 51 a 91. a
12. c 52 c 92. c
13. a 53 d 93. b
14. c 54 a 94. b
15. d 55 a 95. a
16. d 56 c 96. b
17. a 57 c 97. d
18. b 58 d 98. b
19. a 59 a 99. d
20. a 60 c 100. b
21. a 61 a 101. b
22. b 62 a 102. a
23. b 63 a 103. c
24. a 64 b 104. a
25. a 65 c 105. a
26. b 66 a 106. b
27. b 67 c 107. b
28. b 68 d 108. b
29. d 69 a 109. a
30. b 70 a 110. a
31. a 71 d 111. c
32. b 72 b 112. a
33. c 73 d 113. b
34. a 74 b 114. a
35. c 75 a 115. d
36. b 76 c 116. d
37. b 77 b 117. a
38. b 78 a 118. b
39. b 79 d 119. a
40. b 80 a 120. a
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A CONTROL & INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING

I
C Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
PAPER-II
T
E Instructions:
the wrong answer.
A programmable scientific calculator.
I vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
C blue ball point pen.
before leaving the examination hall.
E
1. The ___________ chooses the best tool based on where the mouse pointer is placed in
the LabVIEW environment.
A (a) Wiring tool
I (b) General Tool
(c) Automatic Tool Selector
C (d) Operating Tool
T
2. __________ any object in the LabVIEW environment provides quick access to most
E of the properties that can be changed.
(a) Left-Clicking
(b) Right-Clicking
(c) Selecting
(d) Ctrl-Clicking
3. A ____________ indicates that the VI is not executable.

(a) Broken Run Arrow
A (b) Run Arrow
(c) Wiring Diagram
I (d) VI Icon
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A 4. The ______ data structurecan be compared to a purse or wallet because a purse or

wallet can hold many different things just as this data structure can hold multiple data
I
types.
C (a) Array
(b) Cluster
T (c) Bundle
E (d) Container
5. For Loops have auto-index output tunnels, which automatically create _______ of
data at the tunnel.
(a) Arrays
(b) Containers
(c) Graphs
(d) Clusters
A
6. Being able to execute code based on a particular condition allows for logic to be built
I into a program. In LabVIEW, this is accomplished using a ____________.
(a) While Loop
C (b) For Loop
T (c) Case Structure
(d) Event Structure
E
7. A _________ allows a VI to run until a certain condition is met, such as pressing a
Stop button on the front panel.
(a) While Loop
(b) For Loop
(c) Case Structure
(d) Event Structure
A 8. A for Loop is different from a While Loop because it runs for a set number of
iterations and does not require a ___________. The number of iterations is set by the
I _______.
C (a) Input Tunnel, Count Terminal
(b) Conditional Terminal, Count Terminal
T (c) Conditional Terminal, Iteration Terminal
E (d) Input Tunnel, Count Terminal
9. To open a prebuilt VI to serve as a starting point or as a point of reference, open

____________ and browse or search for the appropriate VI.
(a) LabVIEW Detailed Help
(b) NI Example Finder
(c) LabVIEW Context Help
(d) Knowledge Base Archive
A 10. Use ___________ within the LabVIEW environment to see a quick description of any
I object on the block diagram or front panel.
(a) NI Example Finder
C (b) LabVIEW Manual
T (c) LabVIEW Context Help
(d) LabVIEW Detailed Help
E
Page 2 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A
11. Before connecting a sensor to your DAQ device, it is important to know the
I
_______________ of your device. You can find them online at ni.com by searching
C for the device specifications document.
(a) Device Pinouts
T (b) Signal Routing
E (c) Connection Diagram
(d) User Manual
12. A ____, which consists of eight digital lines, can be used to input or output digital
data.
(a) Multifunction Port
(b) Input Port
(c) Output Port
(d) Digital Port
A
13. To remove unwanted frequencies or noise from a measured signal in LabVIEW, use a
I
_______ Express VI.
C (a) Spectral Measurements
(b) Filter
T (c) Statistics
E (d) Amplitude and Level Measurements
14. If the desired filename already exists, but you would like to add data to the end of the
existing file, the best action to take in the Write to Measurement File Configuration
Window is to ___________.
(a) Rename Existing File
(b) Use Next Available Filename
(c) Append to File
(d) Overwrite File
A
15. Before you can output a signal on a DAQ device, you must first create a signal to be
I output. You can accomplish this using a __________ Express VI.
C (a) DAQ Assistant
(b) Instrument Assistant
T (c) Simulate Signal
E (d) Write to Measurement File
16. When selecting a DAQ device to indicate on a physical LED whether a threshold has
been passed, or if a value is true or false, it is best to use ________.
(a) Analog Input
(b) Analog Output
(c) Digital Input
(d) Digital Output
A 17. When logging data with the Write to Measurement VI, if the user of the VI prefers to
enter a filename before running the VI, you should ____________________.
I
(a) Create a Filename Control on the Front Panel
C (b) Create a Filename Constant on the Block Diagram
(c) Instruct the User to Open the Configuration Window and Manually Change the
T File path
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A (d) None of the above

I
18. Which of the following statements regarding the index of Arrays are NOT true?
C (a) The index is used to access a particular element of an Array
(b) The index ranges from 1 to n
T (c) A 2-D Array has both a column index and a row index
E (d) The index ranges from 0 to n-1
19. How do you document a VI so that the description appears in the Show Context Help
popup window?
(a) Use the VI Properties Documentation window
(b) Type in the Show Context Help window
(c) Create a free label on the front panel
(d) Edit the LabVIEW help files
A
20. Which of the following allows you to plot any set of points, evenly distributed or not?
I (a) Waveform Graph
(b) Waveform Chart
C (c) XY Graph
T (d) Both (a) and (c)
E 21. Which of the following statements regarding virtual instruments are true?
(a) user defined
(b) software based
(c) highly flexible and compatible with traditional instruments
(d) all the above
22. General Purpose Interface Bus (GPIB) is related to

(a) IEEE802.2
A (b) IEEE485
(c) IEEE488
I (d) IEEE
C
23. ADD ON DAQ card is used _______
T (a) to reduce noise
(b) for communicationand analysis of multiple measurement data
E (c) to boost the magnitude
(d) to measure voltage
24. Many channels can be monitored at the same time by

(a) Demultiplexing
(b) A/D conversion
(c) Multiplexing
(d) D/A conversion
A
25. What is the maximum device handling capacity of serial standard protocol RS485 in
I
terms of drivers and receivers on a single line?
C (a) 8
(b)10
T (c)16
E
Page 4 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A (d) 32
I
26. Which of the following statements regarding RS232 are true?
C (a) can provide hardware handshaking
(b) data is transmitted asynchronously
T (c) an be used for long distance communication
E (d) all the above
27. Robots are specified by

(a) pay load
(b) dimension of work envelope
(c) degree of freedom
A 28. A computer program that contains expertise in a particular domain is called an

(a) automatic processor
I (b) intelligent planner
C (c) expert system processor
(d) operations symbolizer
T
29. Which device is mostly associated with automation?
E
(a) flexible manufacturing
(b) robots
(c) computer graphics workstation
(d) NC machine
30. Thermistor, which has high temperature co-efficient of resistivity, is used as the
sensing element in resistance thermometer. It is a/an
(a) Insulator
A (b) conductor
I (c) solid semi-conductor
(d) liquid semi-conductor
C
31. Flapper nozzle is used in a/an __________ controller.
T
(a) Electronic
E (b) Hydraulic
(c) Pneumatic
(d) none of these
32. A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of ______________ material with

salient poles.
(a) Paramagnetic
(b) Ferromagnetic
A (c) Diamagnetic
(d) Non-magnetic
I
C 33. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which ….
(a) the technician enters the program
T (b) timers and counters are indexed by
(c) one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
E
Page 5 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A (d) the entire program takes to execute

I
34. What is the largest integer number that a PLC counter function can reach if it uses a
C 16-bit register?
(a) 32,768
T (b) 65,535
E (c) 65,536
(d) 65,537
35. An automatic apparatus or device that performs functions ordinarily ascribed to

humans or operate with what appears to be almost human intelligence is called ____
a) Robot
b) Human
c) Animals
d) Reptiles
A
I 36. A tachometer is added to servomechanism because
(a) It is easily adjustable
C (b) It can adjust damping
T (c) It reduces steady state error
(d) It converts velocity of the shaft to a proportional Dc voltage
E
37. A synchro Transmitter is used with control transformer for
(a) Feedback
(b) Amplification
(c) Error detection
(d) Remote sensing
38. Motors used for electronic actuator drives

A (a) AC servo motors
(b) DC servo motors
I (c) Stepper motors
C (d) All of the mentioned
T 39. The basic components of hydraulic fluid power system are

E (a) Reservoir
(b) Pump and lines
(c) Actuating devices and control valves
40. Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS) are reported to have a number of benefits.
Which is NOT a reported benefit of FMS?
(a) Lead time and throughput time reduction
(b) Increased quality
A (c) Increased utilisation
I (d) More flexible than the manufacturing systems they replace
C 41. Which of the following is an input device that measures data from the environment?
T (a) Actuator
(b) Microcontroller
E
Page 6 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A (c) Automated control

(d) Sensor
I
42. Which of the following functions can a control system carry out?
C (a) The system output can be controlled to some desired particular value for particular
input
T (b) If certain conditions are satisfied, it can give a particular sequence of output,
E corresponding to given input
(c) Either (a) or (b)
43. Clockwise or Anti clockwise rotation about the vertical axis to the perpendicular arm
is provided through
(a) Shoulder swivel
(b) Elbow extension
(c) Arm sweep
A
(d) Wrist bend
I
44. The Robot designed with Polar coordinate systems has
C (a) Three linear movements
T (b) Three rotational movements
(c) Two linear and one rotational movement
E (d) Two rotational and one linear movement
45. Proximity sensing is most closely akin to

(a) Direction measurement.
(b) Epipolar navigation.
(c) Distance measurement.
(d) Machine vision.
A 46. The region throughout which a robot arm can accomplish tasks is called its
(a) Coordinate geometry.
I (b) Reference axis.
C (c) Reference frame.
(d) Work envelope.
T
E 47. The device which controls a process is called a
(a) response
(b) command
(c) process control
(d) process controller
48. A basic control loop will consist of

(a) signal converter, resistor, knob, and control valve
(b) transducer, valve packing, hex-head wrench, and tubing
A (c) transmitter, controller, I/P transducer, and control valve
(d) resistor, capacitor, terminal block, and battery
I
C 49. The most common analog signal standard for industrial process instruments is
(a) 0 to 5 amps AC
T (b) 0 to 10 volts
(c) 0 to 20 milliamps
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A (d) 4 to 20 milliamps DC
I
C 50. The automatic control of the displacement or velocity or acceleration of a member of
a machine is called as
T (a) regulator
E (b) kinetic control
(c) feedback
(d) error detector
51. A SCADA system will include

(a) signal hardware (input and output) controllers
(b) networks and user interface (HMI)
(c) communications equipment and software
A
I 52. Before planning an alarm system within the SCADA one should consider
(a) What conditions triggers the alarm?
C (b) How operators will be notified of those alarms?
T (c) What actions will occur in response to those alarms?
E
53. A --------------- motor is a step incremental motion machine
(a) stepper
(b) servo
(c) DC motor
(d) AC motor
54. A color vision system can use three gray-scale cameras, equipped with filters that
A allow which three colors of light to pass?
(a) Blue, red, and yellow.
I (b) Blue, red, and green.
C (c) Cyan, magenta, and yellow.
(d) Orange, green, and violet.
T
E 55. The closed system has higher ________ than open loop control system, this implies
increased speed of response.
(a) Gain
(b) Bandwidth
(c) Frequency
(d) Speed
56. Feedback control systems are:

(a) Insensitive to both forward and feedback path parameter changes
A (b) Less sensitive to feedback path parameter changes than to forward path parameter
I changes
(c) Less sensitive to forward path parameter changes that to feedback path parameter
C changes
T (d) Equally sensitive to forward feedback path parameter changes
E
Page 8 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A 57. Which of the following is a structural unit of the nervous system?

(a) Alveoli
I
(b) Nephron
C (c) Neuron
(d) Leucocyte
T
E 58. Which of the following is an important function of spinal cord?
(a) Pumping of blood
(b) Transferring of substances
(c) Control of respiration
(d) Control of reflex actions
59. Which of the following carry the impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the
muscles?
(a) Mixed Nerves
A
(b) Motor Nerves
I (c) Sensory Nerves
(d) All the above
C
T 60. Why does blood turn dark red as it circulates through the body?
(a) It starts to clot.
E (b) It gets old and dirty flowing through the body.
(c) The oxygen in it is replaced with carbon dioxide.
(d) The farther blood is from the heart, the more dark red it is.
61. What electrical event represents repolarization of the ventricle?

(a) R wave
(b) T wave
(c) S wave
A (d) P wave
I 62. Diastolic pressure is:
C (a) maximum pressure during ventricular diastole
(b) minimum pressure during ventricular diastole
T (c) maximum pressure during atrial diastole
E (d) minimum pressure during atrial diastole
63. Which one of the followings is NOT correct regarding Exhalation (expiration)?
(a) Expiration is typically a passive process.
(b) Exhalation starts when the expiratory muscles relax.
(c) The elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air during
exhalation.
(d) During exhalation, elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air.
A 64. Opening to the trachea is covered by a small flap of tissues termed as the ______.
I (a) Glottis
(b) Trachea
C (c) Epiglottis
T (d) Larynx
E
Page 9 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A 65. Instrument to measure blood pressure is called as ______.

(a) sphygamometer
I
(b) sphygmomanometer
C (c) nanometer
(d) sphygmanometer
T
E 66. What unit is blood pressure measured in?
(a) cmH20
(b) g/dl
(c) mmHg
(d) mmol/l
67. Which of the following pairs in INCORRECT concerning the Einthoven triangle?
(a) Lead I: RA/LA
(b) Lead II: RA/LL
A (c) Lead III: LA/LL
I (d) All of the pairs are correct.
C 68. A major advantage of MRI is:

(a) the ease with which equipment is updated or replaced
T (b) its relatively low cost, compared to CT scans
E (c) does not require specialized room
(d) the ability to reposition the 'cross-section' through the body without repositioning
the patient.
69. When compared with conventional X-ray, Computed Tomography produces

diagnostic images with improved ---------.
(a) low contrast resolution
(b) spatial resolution
(c) minute detail
A (d) PT dose
I
70. What makes PET and SPECT so unique when it comes to nuclear imaging?
C (a) Do not require dyes
(b) Do not require X – Rays
T (c) They show the metabolic functions
E (d) They give more details about the imaged organ/tissue
71. A piezoelectric crystal is used to produce the ultrasound waves. What kind of
ultrasound is produced?
(a) Pressure wave ultrasound
(b) Electrical wave ultrasound
(c) Sound wave ultrasound
(d) Simple ultrasound
A 72. What is the yearly maximum permissible dose to the skin for a radiation worker?
I (a) 50mSv
(b) 100mSv
C (c) 150mSv
(d) 500mSv
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A 73. Does the size of the patients have any effect on the radiation exposure to the patient
and staff?
I
(a) No, the size of the patient has no effect on the radiation exposure to the patient
C and staff.
(b) Yes, the larger the patient the lower the radiation exposure to the patient and the
T higher the radiation exposure to the staff.
E (c) Yes, the larger the patient the higher the radiation exposure to the patient and the
lower the radiation exposure to the staff because a larger amount of radiation is
absorbed by the patient.
(d) Yes, the larger the patient the higher the technique that is needed resulting in an
increase dose to patient and staff.
74. Which of the following are electrodes used for EEG?

(a) Silver chloride disc electrode
(b) Small needle electrode
A
(c) Carbon cloth electrode
I (d) All the above
C 75. Smoking and use of open flames is not permitted within _____ feet of explosive
T materials except when separated by permanent non-combustible barriers.
(a) 25
E (b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 30
76. If explosive material is suspected of burning at a blast site, persons must be evacuated
from the area and not permitted to return for at least _____ hour(s) after the burning
or suspected burning has stopped.
(a) 2
A (b) 4
(c) 1
I (d) ½
C
77. Which of the following are the methods involved in direct blood pressure
T measurement?
(a) Auscultator method
E (b) Palpatory method
(c) Sphygmomanometer
78. Which of the following is the principal mode of heat exchange in an infant incubator?
(a) Radiation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Convection
A (d) Conduction
I 79. Infant incubators function relies on:
(a) Temperature control
C (b) Pressure control
T (c) Weight Control
(d) Both temperature and pressure control
E
Page 11 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A
80. What are the electrodes used for ECG?
I
(a) Limb electrode
C (b) Silver chloride disc electrode
(c) Depth electrode
T (d) Needle electrode
E
81. When inputting an Express Waveform into the Data terminal of the DAQ Assistant
configured for Analog Output, you can automatically configure the timing settings of
A the output to align with the waveform by selecting the __________ in the DAQ
Assistant Configuration window.
I (a) Continuous Acquisition
(b) N Samples
C
(c) Rate = 1 kHz
T (d) Use Waveform Timing
E 82. What is the correct order of execution of this code?
A
I
C
(a) Square Root, Add, Square Functions in Parallel
T (b) Square, Add, Square, Add, Square Root
(c) Add, Square Root, Square Functions in Parallel
E
(d) Square Functions in Parallel, Add, Square Root
83. Which of the following statements is NOT valid?

(a) You can make a Cluster of Clusters
(b) You can make an Array of Arrays.
(c) You can make a Cluster of Arrays.
(d) You can make an Array of Clusters.
A
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A 84. In the figure below, what will be displayed in Result when this calculation is
executed?
I
C
T
E
(a) 55
(b) 70
(c) 65
A (d) Indeterminate
I
85. What will be the value displayed in the Shift Register Answer after the following code
C has executed?
T
E
A
(a) 16
I (b) 24
C (c) 32
(d) 10
T
E 86. Which of the following is the best method to update an indicator on the front panel?
(a) Use a Value property node
(b) Wire directly to the indicator terminal.
(c) Use a local variable.
(d) Use a functional global variable.
87. You have a control on the front panel of a VI and you need to modify one of its
properties at run time. Which of the following is the best approach you would take?
(a) Create an implicit property node and select the property to modify
A (b) Create a control reference pass the reference to a property node and select the
I property to modify
(c) Create a linked shared variable and select the property to modify the property.
C (d) Create a local variable and select the property to modify.
T
E
Page 13 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A
88. When the USB is connected to a system, its root hub is connected to the ________
I
(a) PCI BUS
C (b) SCSI BUS
(c) Processor BUS
T (d) IDE
E
89. You are inputting data that represents a circle. The circle data includes an x position, a
y position, and a radius. All three pieces of data are double-precision. In the future,
you might need to store the colour of the circle, represented as an integer. How should
you represent the circle on your front panel window?
(a) Three separate controls for the two positions and the radius
(b) A cluster containing all of the data
(c) A type definition containing a cluster
(d) An array with three elements
A
I 90. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) SubVI connector pane defines where to wire inputs and outputs
C
(b) The color of a SubVI connector pane terminal matches the data type it is
T connectedto
(c) You must have an icon/connector to use a SubVI
E (d) A SubVI icon can be edited from the functions palette
91. Which of the following statements is true regarding the execution of the following
code?
A
I
C
T
E
(a) The loop will iterate 51 times.
(b) The loop will iterate 50 times.
(c) The loop will iterate 49 times.
(d) A For Loop that has a 50 wired to the count terminal will perform the same
operation.
92. Which of the following will cause an event to be captured by the LabVIEW Event
A Structure?
I (a) Changing a value on a Front Panel control via a mouse click
(b) Update of a Front Panel control using a property node
C (c) Programmatic update of a Front Panel control via a control reference
(d) Using VI Server to update aFront Panel control
T
E
Page 14 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A
93. Which of the following does not conform to data flow programming paradigm?
I
(a) Shift Registers
C (b) Tunnels
(c) SubVIs
T (d) Local Variables
E
94. How many degrees of freedom (DoF) has this manipulator?
A
I
C (a) 8
(b) 6
T (c) 4
E (d) 10
95.
A
I
C Decide whether each of these statements is True (T) or False (F).For the ladder
T diagram shown in Figure, there is an output from output 1 when:
(i) There is an input to In 2 and a momentary input to In 1.
E (ii) There is an input to In 1 or an input to In 2.
(a) (i) is True (ii) is True
(b) (i) is True (ii) is False
(c) (i) is False (ii) is True
(d) (i) is False (ii) is False
96. A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a
pulse rate of ------- pps.
A (a) 4000
(b) 8000
I
(c) 6000
C (d) 10,000
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A
97. What is the step angle of a permanent-magnet stepper motor having 8 stator poles and
I
4 rotor poles?
C (a) 60º
(b) 45º
T (c) 30º
E (d) 15º
98. Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program:

(a) Coil
(b) Start contact
(c) Seal-in contact
(d) Stop contact
A
I 99. Assertion (A): Degree of freedom is defined as the number of variables to define
motion in the body in space.
C Reason (R): Maximum degree of freedom can be six in a robot.
T (a) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
E (c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
100. Consider a simple mass spring friction system as given in the figure K1, K2 are spring
constants f-friction, M-Mass, F-Force, x-Displacement. The transfer function
X(s)/F(s) of the given system will be :
A
I
C
T
E (a) 1/(Ms2+fs+K1.K2)
(b) 1/(Ms2+fs+K1+K2)
(c) 1/(Ms2+fs+K1.K2/K1+K2)
(d) K2/(Ms2+fs+K1)
101. For a tachometer, if a(t) is the rotor displacement, e(t) is the output voltage and K is
the tachometer constant, then the transfer function is given by:
(a) Ks2
A (b) K/s
(c) Ks
I (d) K
C
T
E
Page 16 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A
I
102. Instructions available in PLCs can be grouped in two categories ___________ and
C __________ instructions.
(a) Basic ladder and enhanced ladder
T (b) Basic ladder and simple ladder
E (c) Enhanced ladder and relational ladder
(d) Enhanced ladder and simple ladder
103. When doing inverse kinematics, why don't we just find the homogeneous
transformation matrix, and set the displacement vector elements equal to the desired
end-effector position?
(a) There is no displacement vector in the homogeneous transformation matrix.
(b) We would get the correct answer, but it wouldn't make sense for our manipulator.
(c) This approach would require us to solve a nonlinear system of equations, which
A
would require a numerical, rather than analytical, solution.
I (d) This approach wouldn't give us the correct answer. It is necessary to use both the
top view and the side view of the manipulator.
C
T 104. Figure shows a kinematic diagram. Which diagram shows the 'top view' of this
E manipulator
A
I
a)
C
T
E
b)
c)
A
d)
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A 105. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not
decrease?
I
a) Band width
C b) Overall gain
c) Distortion
T d) Instability
E
106. The relationship between the force f(t) and the displacement x(t) of a spring-mass
system (with a mass M, viscous damping D and spring constant K) is
𝑑 2 𝑥(𝑡) 𝑑 𝑥 𝑡
𝑀 +𝐷 + 𝐾𝑥 𝑡 = 𝑓(𝑡)
𝑑𝑡 2 𝑑𝑡
X(s) and F(s) are the Laplace transforms of x(t) and f(t) respectively. With M = 0.1, D
𝑋 𝑠
= 2, K =10 in appropriate units, the transfer function 𝐺 𝑠 = 𝐹(𝑠)is
A
I 10
(a) 𝑠 2 +20𝑠+100
C
T (b) 𝑠 2 + 20𝑠 + 100
E 10𝑠 2
(c) 𝑠 2 +20𝑠+100
𝑠
(d) 𝑠 2 +20𝑠+100
107. There is a 4-degree-of-freedom manipulator. What should be the dimensions of the

Jacobian matrix?
(a) 2 rows and 4 columns
A (b) 4 rows and 2 columns
(c) 6 rows and 4 columns
I (d) 4 rows and 6 columns
C
108. Match the following
T Robot part Function
E A. Manipulator arm 1. For holding a piece or tool
B. Controllers 2. Move the manipulator arm and end effector
C. Drives 3. Number of degrees of freedom of movement
D. Gripper 4. Delivers commands to the actuators
(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
A (c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A 109. Match the following

I
Brain Wave Frequency
C A. Beta 1. 4 - 8 Hz
T B. Alpha 2. 13 - 30 Hz
C. Theta 3. 0.5-4 Hz
E
D. Delta 4. 8 -13 Hz
(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
A 110. Which of the following represents action potential?

(a) -20mV
I (b) 20mV
C (c) 70mV
(d) -70mV
T
E 111. Which of the following have higher action potential propagation rate?
(a) Thigh muscle
(b) Heart muscle
(c) Nerve cell
112. Evoked potentials are developed in which body part and how?
(a) Brain as the responses to external stimuli like light, sound etc.
(b) Muscles due to external stimuli
A (c) Heart due to internal stimuli
I (d) Eyes as the responses to external stimulilike light, sound etc.
C 113. What are the requirements of amplifiers used in biomedical recorders?

T (a) High power gain to activate the pen motor in the display.
(b) An ideal non inverting amplifier to avoid cross over distortion.
E (c) Excellent frequency response in the sub audio frequency range
114. Surface electrodes are used:

(a) To measure Potentials from the surface of skin and to sense potentials from heart,
brain and nerve.
(b) To measure the bioelectric potentials of highly localized extra cellular regions in
brain or Potentials from a specific group of muscles.
A (c) To measure the bioelectric potentials near or within a single cell. These are also
called as intracellular electrodes.
I (d) None of the above
C
T
E
Page 19 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2CIE59
A 115. What is the purpose of electrode paste?

(a) The electrode paste decreases the impedance of the contact and reducing the
I
artifacts resulting from the movement of the electrode or patient.
C (b) The electrode paste increases the impedance of the contact and reducing the
artifacts resulting from the movement of the electrode or patient.
T (c) The electrode paste decreases the impedance of the contact to detect the artifacts
E resulting from the movement of the electrode or patient.
116. What is the principle of Plethysmograph?

(a) Principle of operation of plethysmograph depends on Boyle’s law. Boyle’s law
states that at a given Kelvin temperature the pressure of given mass of the gas is
inversely proportional to its volume. (P* Vol = K* temp).
(b) Principle of operation of plethysmograph depends on charle’s law, a law stating
that the volume of an ideal gas at constant pressure is directly proportional to the
A absolute temperature.
I (c) Both (a) and (b)
C
117. Calculate the energy stored in 16μF capacitor of a DC defibrillator that is charged to a
T potential of 5000 Vdc.
E (a) 200 Joules
(b) 210 Joules
(c) 180 Joules
(d) 150 Joules
118. What is the difference between a pacemaker and the total artificial heart (TAH)?
a) A pacemaker is smaller in size and completely embedded in the body as compared
to TAH in which some system lies outside the body
b) A pacemaker replaces only the ventricles but a TAH replaces the whole heart
A c) A pacemaker is an assistive device which helps the original heart to generate
I impulses but a TAH completely replaces the heart
d) A pacemaker is made out of organic polymers while the TAH is metallic
C
119. The primary objectives of Cardio pulmonary bypass (CPB) are:
T (a) To provide adequate ventilation
E (b) To maintain circulation and perfusion
(c) Temperature regulation
(d) All the above
120. Which of the following guidelines should be strictly followed while reusing a
dialyzer?
(a) A dialyzer must be clearly labelled with the patient’s name and only used for the
same patient.
(b) A dialyzer must be tested after each use to make sure it is working properly.
A (c) Patients must be monitored for any reactions due to reuse.
I (d) All the above
C
T
E
Page 20 of 20
PG2C IE59
ANSWER KEY
Subject:Control & Instrumentation Engg
Paper:2
1. c 41 d 81. d
2. c 42 c 82. d
3. a 43 c 83. b
4. b 44 d 84. b
5. a 45 c 85. c
6. c 46 d 86. b
7. a 47 d 87. a
8. b 48 c 88. c
9. b 49 d 89. c
10. c 50 b 90. d
11. a 51 d 91. a
12. d 52 d 92. a
13. b 53 a 93. d
14. c 54 b 94. b
15. c 55 b 95. b
16. d 56 c 96. c
17. a 57 c 97. b
18. b 58 d 98. c
19. a 59 b 99. b
20. c 60 c 100. b
21. d 61 b 101. c
22. c 62 b 102. a
23. b 63 b 103. c
24. c 64 c 104. c
25. d 65 b 105. b
26. d 66 c 106. a
27. d 67 d 107. d
28. c 68 d 108. b
29. b 69 a 109. b
30. c 70 c 110. b
31. c 71 a 111. c
32. b 72 d 112. a
33. d 73 d 113. d
34. b 74 d 114. a
35. a 75 b 115. a
36. b 76 c 116. a
37. c 77 d 117. a
38. d 78 c 118. c
39. d 79 d 119. d
40. d 80 a 120. d
ROLL NO.: PG1CVE41
A CIVIL ENGINEERING
I PAPER-I
C Instructions:
T
E iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
wrong answer.
A vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue
ball point pen.
I
C ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
examination before leaving the examination hall.
T
E
1. Approximate ratio between the strengths of cement concrete at 7 days and 28 days is
a)3/4
b) 2/3
c) 1/2
A d) 1/3
I 2. The approximate ratio of strength of 15 cm x 30 cm concrete cylinder to that of the 15 cm cube of

the same concrete is
C a) 0.42
b) 0.54
T
c) 0.65
E d) 0.88
3. The approximate ratio of direct tensile strength to that of modulus of rupture of concrete is
a) 0.50
b) 0.75
A c) 0.80
d) 0.98
I
C 4. Type of cement used for mainly building construction where strength required with age is
a) Rapid Hardening Cement
T b) Low Heat Cement
c) Portland Pozzolana Cement
E
d) Quick Setting Cement
Page 1 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CVE41
A 5. Slump and compaction factor are two different measures of workability of concrete. For a
slump of 25 – 75 mm, the equivalent range of compaction factor is
I a) 0.55 – 0.67
b) 0.78 – 0.80
C c) 0.85 – 0.87
d) 0.90 – 0.96
T
6.Which one of the following information is not required for concrete mix design?
E a) Initial setting time of cement
b) Characteristic compressive strength of concrete
c) Durability
d) Workability
A 7. The final deflection due to all loads including the effects due to creep, shrinkage and temperature
in case of all horizontal members is restricted to
I a) Span/250
b) Span/200
C c) Span/150
T d) Span/100
E 8. A lower water to cement ratio leads to

a) Higher strength and durability
b) Higher strength but low durability
c) Lower strength but high durability
d) Lower strength and durability
A 9. Deflection can be controlled by using appropriate
I a) aspect ratio
b) modular ratio
C c) span/depth ratio
d) water/cement ratio
T
10. In limit state approach, spacing of main reinforcement controls primarily
E a) collapse
b) cracking
c) deflection
d) durability
A 11. For concrete compaction by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed
a) 25mm
I b) 50mm
c) 75mm
C d) 100mm
T
12. In the limit state method of concrete structure design, the failure criterion for reinforced
E concrete beams and columns is
a) Maximum principal stress theory
Page 2 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CVE41
A b) Maximum shear stress theory

c) Maximum principal strain theory
I d) Maximum shear strain theory
C 13. The modulus of rupture of concrete in terms of its characteristic cube compressive strength (fck)
in MPa according to IS 456:2000 is
T a) 5700fck
b) 0.7fck
E c) 5700√fck
d) 0.7√fck
14. When assessing the strength of a structure as per limit state of collapse, the value of partial
safety factor for concrete and steel are taken, respectively, as
A a) 1.0 and 1.15
b) 1.5 and 1.0
I c) 2.0 and 1.0
d) 1.5 and 1.15
C
T 15. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed
a) 1.5%
E b) 2%
c) 3 %
d) 4%
16. Which of the following sections perform better on the ductility criterion?
a) Balanced section
A
b) Over-reinforced section
I c) Under-reinforced section
d) Non-prismatic section
C
17. From limiting deflection point of view, use of high strength steel in RC beam results in
T a) increase in width
b) Reduction in depth
E
c) no change in depth and width
d) increase in depth
18. The adjustment of minimum cement content for aggregates of 40 mm nominal maximum size is
a) -30
A b) +30
c) -40
I d) +40
C
19. In post tensioning, the concrete units are cast by
T a) Ducts
b) Jacks
E c) Anchorages
d) Wedges
Page 3 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CVE41
A 20. Sum of the nodal forces at any yield line intersection in a slab is
a) infinity
I b) zero
c) indeterminate
C d) one
T
21. The compound which helps in retarding setting of cement is
E a) Tricalcium aluminate
b) Tricalcium silicate
c) Gypsum
d) Dicalcium silicate
A 22. According to the Indian Standard specifications, concrete should be cured under a humidity of
a) 90%
I b) 80%
c) 70%
C d) 60%
T
23. To obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is
E
a) Round
b) Angular
c) Triangular
d) Flinty
A 24. Drops are provided in flat slab to resist

a) Bending moment
I b) thrust
C c) shear
d) torsion
T
25. Type of cement is used in sewage and water treatment plants
E a) Rapid Hardening Cement
b) Low Heat Cement
c) Sulphate Resisting Cement
d) Acid Resisting Cement
A 26. Creep strains are caused by

a) Live load only
I b) Dead load only
c) Cyclic load only
C d) Both live load and dead load
T
E
Page 4 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CVE41
A 27. The maximum allowed percentage reduction of water with addition of super plasticizers without
reducing workability is
I a) 10
b) 20
C c) 30
d) 40
T
E 28. The main reinforcement of a RCC slab consists of 10 mm bars at 10 cm spacing. If the 10 mm
bars are replaced with 12 mm bars, the spacing should be
a) 12.0 cm
b) 13.2 cm
c) 14.4 cm
d) 16.7 cm
A
I 29. A RCC slab is 80 mm thick. The maximum size of the reinforcement bar which can be used is
a) 10 mm diameter
C b) 12 mm diameter
T c) 8 mm diameter
d) 6 mm diameter
E
30. In RCC beams, side face reinforcement is provided if its depth exceeds
a) 350 mm
b) 500 mm
c) 700 mm
d) 750 mm
A
I 31. Ultimate moment capacity of pre-stressed concrete beam depends on
a) Losses in pre-stressing
C b) Eccentricity of cable
c) Amount of tensioning
T d) All of the above
E
32. Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?
a) CBR method
b) Group index method
c) Westergaard’s method
d) McLeod’s method
A
33. The Grade Compensation on curve is the minimum of
I a) 56/R
b) 75/R
C c) 100/R
d) 156/R
T
E 34. Length of a vehicle controls the design of
a) vertical profile of the road
Page 5 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1CVE41
A b) overtaking distance
c) geometrics and cross-sectional characteristics
I d) axle load and wheel load
C 35.A rigid pavement can be directly laid on subgrade, if

a) K value is 2.0 kg/cm3
T b) K value is 5.0 kg/cm3
c) K value is ≥ 5.5 kg/cm3
E d) K value is 2.5 kg/cm3
36. The aggregate is said to be suitable for base course construction if the impact value is
a) less than 40%
b) more than 40%
A c) less than 50%
d) more than 50%
I
37. Maximum equivalent single wheel load as per IRC is
C a) 8160kg
b) 4080kg
T c) 2040kg
d) 1020kg
E
38. The purpose of providing dowel bars in rigid pavement is
a) to join two slabs
b) to break bond
c) to transfer the load
A d) to distribute the load
I 39.As per MORTH, for a rigid pavement the slump value is

a) 30±15mm
C b) 40±15mm
c) 50±15mm
T d) 50±5 mm
E
40.The thickness of separation membrane in rigid pavement is
a) 150µ
b)125µ
c) 200µ
d) 300µ
A
41.In bituminous macadam (80 to 100 mm thick), the bitumen content in per cent by weight of
I total
C mix is
a) 3.3 to 3.5
T b) 3.1 to 3.4
c) 4.1 to 4.5
E d) 4.5 to 4.8
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A
42. In Burmister’s theory, displacement factor depends
I a) Ratio of modulii of elasticity of pavement and subgrade layers
b) Ratio of vertical deflection of pavement and subgrade layers
C c) Poisson’s ratio of the pavement material
d) Thickness of wearing course
T
E 43. Benkelman Beam is a device which can be conveniently used to measure
a) Rebound compaction
b) Vertical deformation
c) Rebound deflection
d) Rebound stress
A
44. In CBR test the surcharge is used to simulate
I a) Subgrade
b) Subbase
C c) Surface course
d) Pavement section
T
E 45. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of base course under rigid pavements to
a) control pumping
b) control of frost action
c) expedition of construction
d) mainly contribute to the structural capacity
A 46. If P is the total load on the tire and p is the tire pressure then the radius of contact, a, is
I expressed
as:
C a) [P/p𝜋]0.5
b) [P/p𝜋]2
T c) [p/P𝜋]0.5
E d) [p/P𝜋]2
47. Which one of the following statements do not hold suitable for Semi-rigid pavements?
a) Semi-rigid pavement materials have low resistance to impact
b) Semi-rigid pavement materials have low resistance to abrasion
c) Semi-rigid pavement materials are usually provided with flexible pavement surface course
A d) Semi-rigid pavement materials do possess as much flexural strength as the cement concrete
I pavements
C 48. In the thickness design of pavement, which of the following statement is not true?
a) Higher wheel loads obviously need thickness pavement, provided other design factors are the
T same.
b) On an uneven pavement surface, as the speed increases, the rate of application of the stress is
E also increases resulting in a reduction in the pavement deformation under the load.
c) A subgrade with lower stability requires thicker pavement to protect it from traffic loads.
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A d) The stress distribution characteristics of the pavement component layers depend on

characteristicsof the materials used.
I 49. Equivalent Single Wheel Load (ESWL) may be determined based on
a) Equivalent deflection criterion
C b) Equivalent stress criterion
c) Both a and b
T
d) Neither a nor b
E
50. As per the Boussinesq’s theory, equation for vertical stress (𝛔z) at a depth, z, under a surface
pressure of p over a circular area of radius, a, can be expressed as:
a) p {1- 1/[(a/z)2+1]3/2}
b) p {1+ 1/[(a/z)2+1]3/2}
c) p {1/[(a/z)2+1]3/2}
A d) p {1- 1/[(z/a)2+1]3/2}
I
51. Boussinesq’s settlement equation for maximum vertical deflection, 𝚫 at the surface and the
C centre
T of rigid circular plate of diameter, a, under a uniform pressure of p, over a soil of subgrade
modulus, Es is expressed as:
E a) 1.5pa/Es
b) 1.18Es/pa
c) 1.5Es/pa
d) 1.18pa/Es
52. The size of particles preferred in GSB layer of pavement is

A a) 0.075 mm
b) 0.150 mm
I c) 0.300 mm
C d)0.600 mm
T 53. Which one of the following is not the assumption made in the Burmister’s method?
a) The surface layer is infinite in horizontal direction and finite in vertical directions
E b) The underlying layer in two layered system is considered finite in both directions
c) The layers are in continuous contact
d) The top layer is free of shearing and normal stresses outside the loaded area
54. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the sub grade soil as a highway
material?
A a) Stability
I b) Bitumen adhesion
c) Ease of compaction
C d) Good drainage
T 55. If the viscosity grade bitumen is got adulterated by using fine stone dust, then the same can be
detected by the____.
E
a) Flash point test
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A b) Penetration test
c) Solubility in trichloroethylene test
I d) Viscosity test
C 56. Type of cationic emulsion recommended for surface dressing works is

a) Rapid Setting - 1 (RS-1)
T
b) Medium Setting (MS)
E c) Slow Setting -1 (SS-1)
d) Slow Setting -2 (SS-2)
57. Which one of the following test methods, used for testing polymer modified bitumen (PMB) or
a natural rubber modified bitumen (NRMB), is only relevant to snowbound cold climatic areas.
a) Separation test
A b) Elastic recovery test
c) Fraass breaking point test
I d) Viscosity test
C
T 58. Which one of the following pavement layers do not require laboratory maximum dry density
value for the rolling operation?
E a) Granular sub-base
b) Water bound macadam
c) Wet mix macadam
d) Crusher-run macadam
59. The relative rate of spray of binder (mass per unit area) required for tack coat application on
A different type of surfaces are:
a) Bituminous surface > Granular surface treated with primer > Cement concrete pavement
I
b) Bituminous surface < Granular surface treated with primer < Cement concrete pavement
C c) Granular surface treated with primer <Bituminous surface < Cement concrete pavement
d) Cement concrete pavement <Bituminous surface <Granular surface treated with primer
T
60. In the design of bituminous mixes, the term Marshall Quotient is referred to
E a) Marshall Stability/Marshall Flow
b) Marshall Flow/Marshall Stability
c) Maximum value of Marshall Stability
d) Average value of Marshall Stability
A 61. The characteristic flexural strength of concrete used in concrete pavement shall not be
a) More than 4.5 MPa
I b) Less than 4.5 MPa
c) Less than 40 MPa
C d) Less than 45 MPa
T
62. Distress type caused by the repeated application of heavy wheel loads on flexible pavements is
E a) Map cracking
b) Block cracking
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A c) Reflection cracking
d) Longitudinal cracking
I
63. In concrete pavements, which type of cracks generally appear quite short and of random
C spacing, in both transverse and longitudinal direction?
a) Contraction cracks
T
b) Warping cracks
E c) Shrinkage cracks
d) All the above
64. Which one of the following types of distresses in concrete pavement is not structural
associated?
a)Blowup
A b) Corner crack
c) Depression
I
d) Durability ‘D’ cracking
C
65. Which one of the following is grouped under the Impulse Loads type Non-Destructive Test
T Equipment?
a) Benkelman Beam
E b) Dynaflect
c) Falling Weight Deflectometer
d) Road rater
66. For Fe415 grade steel xumax is

A a) 0.50d
b) 0.48d
I c) 0.46d
d) 0.60d
C
67. For slabs reinforced with HYSD bars the absolute minimum reinforcement is
T
a) 0.30 %
E b) 0.12 %
c) 0.50 %
d) 1.20 %
68. In chimneys, the allowable axial compression reduces with the ratio, d/t (d being the diameter
and t being the plate thickness) and not with l/r as in case of columns. This is to recognize the
A action of
I a) Hoop compressive strain produced by axial compression
b) Shell buckling
C c) Axial strain produced by the hoop tension
d) Temperature gradient created by hot gases
T
69. In an axially loaded spirally reinforced short column, the concrete inside the core is subjected to
E
a) bending and compression
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A b) biaxial compression
c) triaxial compression
I d) uniaxial compression
C 70. The assumption in doubly reinforced beam design by steel beam theory is
a) Only steel bars resist tension
T
b) Only concrete resists tension
E c) Stress in tension and Compression steel are same
d) Both concrete and steel resist compression
71. Substitute frame analysis is an approximate method for

a) Gravity load analysis
b) Lateral load analysis
A c) Both a) and b)
I d) neither a) nor b)
C 72. τv< τcmax under any circumstance is to avoid

a) Diagonal compression failure
T b) Diagonal tension failure
c) Flexural compression failure
E d) Flexural tension failure
73. In portal method it is assumed

a) Shear in interior columns is twice the shear in exterior columns
b) Shear in exterior columns is twice the shear in interior columns
A c) Shear in interior and exterior columns are the same.
d) Shear in interior columns is thrice the shear in exterior columns
I
74. In portal and cantilever method, points of contra-flexure are assumed at
C a) All joints
b) Middle of all members
T c) Ends of all members
E d) None of the above
75. A six storey 4-bay RC frame subjected to lateral loads would structurally behave
a) more as a portal frame than as a cantilever
b) more as a cantilever than as a portal frame
c) neither as cantilever nor as portal frame
A d) the behaviour depends on the load intensity
I 76. In a deep grain container
a) only the horizontal pressure on walls approaches a limit
C
b) only the vertical pressure at the bottom approaches a limit
T c) both horizontal and vertical pressures approach a limit
d) the vertical pressure increases continuously while the horizontal pressure approaches a limit
E
77. Shear walls are _______
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A a) Stiff against in plane bending

b) Stiff against out of plane bending
I c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Stiff against gravity load resisting systems
C 78. In a building with shear walls and frames
T a) All lateral load is supported by shear walls none by frames
b) All lateral load is supported by frames none by shear walls
E c) Lateral load is shared by shear walls and frames in proportion to their relative stiffness
d) Lateral load is equally shared by shear walls and frames
79. If the basic wind speed is Vb , the basic wind pressure is

a) 0.60 Vb2
b) 0.50 Vb2
A c) 0.10 Vb2
d) Vb2
I
C 80. For a very stiff building Sa/g is
a) Same as ground acceleration
T b) Greater than ground acceleration
c) Lesser than ground acceleration
E d) Half the ground acceleration
PART-B (40x2 = 80 Marks)
81. Consider the following in respect of concrete mix design according to IS 456-2000 and IS:
1343-
A 1980
I 1. Cement type
2. Degree of quality control
C 3. Durability
4. Grading of combined aggregates
T 5. Water-cement ratio
E The concrete mix design depends on which of the factors?
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 4 and 5 only
A 82. A concrete beam of rectangular cross section of 200 mm x 400 mm is pre-stressed with a force
I of
400 kN at an eccentricity of 100 mm. The maximum compressive stress in concrete is
C a) 2.5 N/mm2
b) 7.5 N/mm2
T c) 12.5 N/mm2
d) 15.5 N/mm2
E
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A 83. An ordinary mild steel bar has been pre-stressed to a working stress of 200 MPa. Young’s
modulus
I of steel is 200 GPa. Permanent negative strain due to shrinkage and creep is 0.0008. The effective
stress left in steel is -------
C a) 40 MPa
b) 100 MPa
T
c) 160 MPa
E d) 200 MPa
84. In design of pre-stressed concrete which of the following limit states will come under the limit
states of serviceability?
1. Flexure
2. Shear
A 3. Deflection
4. Cracking
I 5. Maximum compression
a) 1, 2 and 3
C b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 3, 4 and 5
T
d) 1, 2 and 5
E
85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Loss of pre-stres 1. Class 3
B. End block 2. Pre-tensioned members
A C. Transmission length 3. Bursting tension
I D. Partially pre-stressed 4. Elastic structures shortening
C Choose the most appropriate option

a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
T b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
E
d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
86. Assertion (A): Centrifugal pumps are not normally used for pumping of mixed concrete
Reason (R): Segregation of aggregates may occur, when dropping concrete
a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
A b) both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
I d) A is false but R is true
C
87. Assertion (A): Weigh batching method does not produce concrete of required strength
T Reason (R): Bulking ofaggregates does not influence the weigh batching method
a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
E b) both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
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A d) A is false but R is true
I 88. Consider the following statements in respect of use of pozzolanic material as admixture in
concrete:
C 1. improves workability with lesser amount of water
2. increases heat of hydration and sets the concrete quickly
T
3. increases resistance to chemical attack
E 4. leaches calcium hydroxide
5. reacts with calcium hydroxide
Which of the statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 5
A d) 2, 3 and 5
I
89. Consider the following statements in respect of addition of surfactants in concrete mix:
C 1. increases in water-cement ratio
2. decreases in water-cement ratio
T 3. increases in strength of concrete
4. decreases in the curing time of concrete
E 5. increase in density of concrete
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 5
A d) 2, 3 and 5
I 90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
C A. Water –reducing admixture 1. Sulphonated melanin formaldehyde
T B. Air-entraining agent 2. Sodium silicate
C. Super plasticiser 3. Calcium lignosulphonate
E D. Accelerator 4. Neutralised vinsol resin
Choose the most appropriate option

a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
A c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
I
91.If the compressive strength of pozzolanic cement concrete is 40 MPa after 90 days, the
C flexural strength is -----
a) 5.1 MPa
T b) 5.2 MPa
E c) 5.3 MPa
d) 5.4 MPa
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A
92. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
I List-I List-II
A. Group index method 1. Semi-theoretical
C B. CBR method 2. Quasi-rational
T C. US Navy method 3. Empirical method using soil
classification test
E D. Asphalt institute method 4. Empirical method using soil strength
test
Choose the most appropriate option
1. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
2. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
3. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
A
4. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
I
93. The extra widening (psychological and mechanical) for a four lane highway is(Assume,
C Spacing
between the axles = 8 m; Radius of the curve = 320 m and Speed = 80 km/hr)
T a) 1.2 m
E b) 1.5 m
c) 0.9 m
d) 0.5 m
94.After construction of WMM, the quality control test was done by making a pit 50 x 50 x 25 cm
(roughly) and the material was collected and its weight was 1,30,000 g. The pit was filled with
A sand and its weight was 84,375 g. The bulk density of sand was 1.35 g/cm3. The moisture in the
aggregate was 3%. Find the density of WMM.
I a) 2.01 g/cm3
C b) 1.2 g/cm3
c) 1.82 g/cm3
T d) 1.58 g/cm3
E 95. The design speed on a road is 60 km/hr. Assuming, the driver reaction time as 2.5 seconds and
the coefficient of friction of the pavement surface as 0.35, the required stopping distance for two-
way traffic on a single lane road is -------
a) 185.4 m
b) 164.2
A c) 102.2
d) 84.4
I
96. The rate of super elevation for a horizontal highway curve of 500 m and a speed 100 km/hr is ---
C ---
a) 0.078
T
b) 0.095
E c) 0.089
d) 0.065
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A
97. The CBR value of subgrade soil is 4%, calculate total thickness of a pavement using the
I equation
development by California State Highway Department. [Assume 4100 kg wheel load with a tyre
C pressure of 6 kg/cm2].
a) 50 cm
T
b) 45 cm
E c) 40 cm
d) 35 cm
98. Aggregate samples A and B were subjected to Impact Value test. After the test, weight of
aggregate passing through the 2.36 mm sieve of sample A and sample B were found to 45 and 55
g, respectively. Weight of aggregate retained on 2.36 mm sieve of sample A and sample B were
A found to 225 and 240 g, respectively. Aggregate impact values of sample-A and sample-B
are__________:
I
a) 16.7 and 18.6, respectively.
C b) 18.6 and 16.7, respectively.
c) 20.0 and 22.9, respectively.
T d) 22.9 and 20.0, respectively.
E 99. Bulk density of the Marshall compacted specimen found to be 2350 kg/m3 and the theoretical
specific gravity of mixture found to be 2450 kg/m3. Volume of bitumen in the compacted
specimen found to be 11%. Then, the percent voids in mineral aggregate is______.
a) 6.7
b) 6.9
A c) 15.1
d) 15.3
I
100. Length of recombined specimen of polymer modified bitumen sample after the elastic recovery
C test found to be 65 mm, then the elastic recovery (%) of the sample is ____.
a) 65
T
b) 35
E c) 6.5
d) 3.5
101. Viscosity tests were performed on VG 20 grade bitumen. Kinematic and absolute viscosity of
unaged bitumen found to be 250 cSt and 1000 Poise, respectively. While, absolute viscosity
A of rolling thin film aged bitumen found to be 2500 Poise. Then the viscosity ratio of the bitumen
sample is______.
I a) 10
b) 4
C
c) 2.5
T d) 0.4
E 102. The present average daily traffic of total vehicles found to be 1700 and that of commercial
vehicle found to be 1400. The annual rate of growth of traffic is found to be 7 percent. The
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ROLL NO.: PG1CVE41
A pavement construction is to be completed in two years after the last traffic count. If the design
life is ten years, the number of vehicles for pavement design is----
I a) 3150 vehicles/day
b) 3100 vehicles/day
C c) 3820 vehicles/day
d) 3350 vehicles/day
T
E
103. The spacing between contraction joints for 3.5 meter slab width having thickness of 200 mm
and coefficient of friction as 1.5, and allowable tensile stress in steel is 0.078 N/mm2 is
___________. [Assume the unit weight of concrete pavement as 2400 kg/m2]
a) 4.00 m
A b) 4.25 m
c) 4.50 m
I
d)5.00 m
C
104.At a corner of a concrete pavement experiences a load stress of 2.8 N/mm2 and warping stress
T of 0.92 N/mm2, then the critical combination of stress in summer mid-night is ___.
a) 1.88 N/mm2
E b) 3.72 N/mm2
c) 4.64 N/mm2
d) 4.68 N/mm2
105. What is the factor of safety available for a concrete pavement with a flexural strength of
A concrete
is 4.0 N/mm2, warping stress at edge is 2.18 N/mm2, and load stress at the edge region is 2.75
I N/mm2?
a) 0.55
C b) 0.79
c) 0.69
T
d) 0.66
E
106. Calculate the overlay thickness of granular material for an allowable deflection of 1.0 mm [The
characteristics deflection after correction for subgrade moisture is 1.99 mm].
a) 165 mm
b) 248 mm
c) 330 mm
A d) 495 mm
I
107. Thickness of a pavement made of a single layer of base course material is 660 mm with a
C modulus value of 40 N/mm2. If a bituminous concrete surface of thickness 75 mm with a
modulus value of 100 N/mm2, is laid on a base course layer, then how much is the required
T thickness of base course layer?
a) 102 mm
E
b) 330 mm
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A c) 557 mm
d) 585 mm
I
108. An axially loaded column is of 300 mm x 300 mm size. Effective length of the column is 3 m.
C The minimum eccentricity of the axial load for the column is ---
a) 30 mm
T
b) 20 mm
E c) 16 mm
d) 10 mm
109.. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A A. Serviceability 1. Sliding
I B. Shear key 2. Deflection
C. Shrinkage 3. Cracking
C D. Concrete Spalling 4. Corrosion
T Choose the most appropriate option
E a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
110.A reinforced column contains longitudinal steel equal to 1% of net cross sectional area of the
A column. Assume modular ratio as 10. If the load carried by longitudinal steel and net area of
concrete are Ps and Pc,respectively,the ratio Ps/Pc is
I a) 0.001
b) 0.01
C
c) 0.1
T d) 1.0
E 111. According to the concept of limit state design as per IS 456: 2000, the probability of failure of
a
structure is ------------
a) 0.0950
b) 0.0900
A c) 0.0975
d) 0.0985
I
112. A simply supported beam of 10 m length sags while undergoing shrinkage at a uniform
C curvature
of 0.004 m-1 along the span. The maximum deflection in m is -----
T a) 0.05
E b) 0.04
c) 0.10
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A d) 0.02
I 113. Determine the target flexural strength of concrete, whose 28-day flexural strength found to be
4.0 and standard deviation is 0.5 N/mm2.
C a) 4.825 N/mm2
b) 4.524 N/mm2
T
c) 3.565 N/mm2
E d) 4.415 N/mm2
A 114. A singly reinforced beam 250×500 mm effective is reinforced with 4 bars of 16 mm diameter.
If concrete grade is M 20 and steel grade is Fe 500 , the beam is
I a) Over reinforced
b) Under reinforced
C c) Balanced
d) Doubly reinforced
T
E 115.A reinforced concrete beam with 230 mm width and 450 mm depth is subjected to factored
shear force of 150 kN. If shear resistance is 0.75 MPa, the spacing of 8 mm diameter 2 legged
vertical stirrups is
a) 220 mm
b) 450 mm
c) 330 mm
A d) 230 mm
I 116.For a framed building with infills, if height is 30 m and width is 9 m the fundamental period is
C a) 0.9 s
b) 9 s
T c) 1 s
d) 1.9 s
E
117. A chimney has an external diameter of 4 m. If wind pressure at site in 2 kN/m 2 and shape
factor
is 0.7, the design pressure is
a) 2.8 kN/m2
A b) 5.6 kN/m2
c) 1.4 kN/m2
I d) 11.4 kN/m2
C 118. A RC beam has to resist a bending moment of 100 kNm and a twisting moment of 20 kNm.
T Width of the beam is 200 mm and over all depth is 480 mm. The equivalent moment for flexure
torsion interaction design is,
E a) 120 kNm
b) 140 kNm
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A c) 80 kNm
d) 60 kNm
I
119. A multi-storeyed frame has two bays and five stories. The columns are fixed at base. The
C degree of static indeterminacy is
a) 10
T
b) 30
E c) 15
d) 25
A 120. In a beam the design moment after 30% reduction of elastic static moment is 210 kN-m. The
maximum elastic service moment is
I
a) 210
C b) 220
c) 300
T d) 200
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 20 of 20
PG1CVE 41
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Civil Engineering
Paper: 1

1. b 41 b 81. a
2. d 42 a 82. c
3. a 43 c 83. a
4. c 44 d 84. c
5. c 45 d 85. d
6. a 46 a 86. b
7. a 47 d 87. d
8. b 48 b 88. c
9. c 49 c 89. d
10. b 50 a 90. d
11. b 51 b 91. c
12. c 52 a 92. c
13. c 53 b 93. c
14. d 54 b 94. a
15. d 55 c 95. b
16. c 56 a 96. c
17. d 57 c 97. c
18. a 58 b 98. a
19. a 59 b 99. c
20. b 60 a 100. b
21. c 61 b 101. a
22. a 62 a 102. a
23. a 63 c 103. c
24. c 64 c 104. b
25. c 65 c 105. d
26. b 66 b 106. a
27. c 67 b 107. c
28. c 68 a 108. b
29. a 69 c 109. b
30. d 70 c 110. c
31. d 71 a 111. c
32. c 72 a 112. a
33. b 73 a 113. a
34. c 74 b 114. b
35. c 75 b 115. a
36. a 76 d 116. a
37. a 77 a 117. b
38. c 78 c 118. b
39. a 79 a 119. b
40. b 80 a 120. d
ROLL NO.: PG2CVE41
A CIVIL ENGINEERING

PAPER-II
C
T Instructions:
E ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
wrong answer.
I vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue
ball point pen.
ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
T
E
1. Local shear failure generally occurs in

a) Dense sand
A
b) Non-cohesive soil
I c) Loose sand
d) All of the mentioned
C
T 2. The value of shape factors Sc, Sq and Sγ for circular base are
E a) 1.3, 1.2, 0.8
b) 1.3, 1.2, 0.6
c) 1.0, 1.0, 1.0
d) 1.2, 1.0 and 1.3
A 3. If the water table is located at the base of the footing, then the value of water table
I correction factor is taken as
a) 1
C b) 0.5
T c) 2
d) 0
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2CVE41
A 4. The standard penetration resistance is determined at a number of selected points at

intervals of
I a) 80 cm
C b) 75 cm
c) 100 cm
T d) 10 cm
E
5. The size of bearing plate, which used in plate load test varies from
a) 300 to 750 mm
b) 25 to 100 mm
c) 100 to 300 mm
A d) 25 to 300 mm
I
6. A seating pressure of___________is applied on the plate before starting the plate load test.
C
a) 70 g/cm2
T b) 30 g/cm2
c) 50 g/cm2
E
d) 100 g/cm2
7. The immediate settlement can be computed from the expression, based on

a) Theory of plasticity
b) Theory of elasticity
A
c) Terzaghi‟s analysis
I d) Pressure distribution
C
8. The value of Es used in the immediate settlement equation, can be found out using
T
a) Triaxial test
E b) Compression test
c) Direct shear test
d) Rankine‟s theory
A 9. Which of the following condition is true regarding the transfer of load from strap to soil,
used in strap footing?
I a) Transfer load to soil
C b) Does not transfer load to soil
c) Partially transfer to load
T d) None of the mentioned
E
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A 10. The piles that are used for protecting structures from ships and floating object is
a) Anchor piles
I b) Fender piles
C c) Compaction piles
d) Batter piles
T
E 11. If a hammer is raised by steam and allowed to fall by gravity on top of the pile, it is called
as
a) Diesel hammer
b) Vibratory hammer
c) Single acting hammer
A d) Drop hammer
I
12. Dynamic formulae are best suited for_________ type of soil.
C a) Fine grained soil
b) Coarse grained soil
T
c) Cohesive soil
E d) None of the mentioned
13. The downward drag acting on a pile due to the movement of the surrounding is called
a) Skin friction
b) Negative skin friction
A c) Frictional force
d) None of the mentioned
I
C 14. In case of friction pile, the pile spacing of each pile is taken as__________ diameter of
pile.
T
a) Four
E b) Five
c) Three
d) Ten
15. The diameter of the under-reamed pile is kept equal to_______ times the diameter of pile
A steam.
I a) 4
b) 5
C c) 2.5
T d) 3.5
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A 16. The Raymond standard pile is used primarily as a

a) Compaction pile
I b) Tension pile
C c) Friction pile
d) End bearing pile
T
E 17. In bored pile, concreting is done by using
a) Auger
b) Casing tube
c) Under-reamer
d) Concrete plug
A
18. What are the practical problems encountered with sand drains?
I
a) It gets clogged easily.
C b) Continuous drainage path is disturbed due to shear movements
c) Installation time is very high
T
d) All the above
E
19. What are the advantages of using geosynthetic in pavement?
a) Prevents the lateral spreading of aggregates
b) Improves the bearing capacity of subgrade
c) Reduces the pressure transferred to the subgrade soil
A d) All of the above
I 20. Negative skin friction on a pile

a) Acts downward and increases the load carrying capacity of the pile
C
b) Acts upward and increases the load carrying capacity of the pile
T c) Acts downward and reduces the load carrying capacity of the pile
d) Acts upward and reduces the load carrying capacity of the pile
E
21. As per IS code the minimum depth for all foundations below the natural ground level
is
a) 500 mm
b) 1200 mm
A
c) 250 mm
I d) 100 mm
C 22. If the angle of internal friction of a soil is about 25°, the shear failure that can be
T expected is
a) General shear failure
E b) Mixed shear failure
c) Local shear failure
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A d) Punching shear failure

23. The failure of a pile foundation is due to
I a) General shear failure
C b) Mixed shear failure
c) Local shear failure
T d) Punching shear failure
E
24. The minimum number of piles needed in a group of piles to support a column is
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
A d) Four
I 25. Under-reamed piles are generally

C a) driven piles
b) bored piles
T c) precast piles
E d) all the above
26. The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil, is

a) total load on the bearing area
b) safe load on the bearing area
c) load at which soil fails in shear
A
d) load at which soil fails due to settlement
I
27. For slopes of limited extent, the surface of slippage, is usually along
C
a) a parabolic arc
T b) an elliptical arc
c) a straight line
E
d) a circular arc
28. The Terzaghi's general bearing capacity equation for a continuous footing is given by
(where Nc, Nq and Nγ are bearing capacity factors.)
a) qf = cNc + γDNq + 0.5γBNγ
A
b) qf = cNc + γDNq + 0.5γDNγ
I c) qf = cNc + γBNq + 0.5γBNγ
d) qf = cNc - γDNq - 0.5γBNγ
C
T
E
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A 29. The angle of internal friction is maximum for

a) angular-grained loose sand
I b) angular-grained dense sand
C c) round-grained dense sand
d) round-grained loose sand
T
E 30. A grillage foundation
a) is provided for heavily loaded isolated columns
b) is treated as spread foundation
c) consists of two sets of perpendicularly placed steel beams
d) all the above
A
I 31. The settlement of a group of friction piles as compared to that of a single pile is
a) Same
C b) Less
T c) More
d) None of the above
E
32. Select the incorrect statement
a) Static formulae are suitable for friction piles driven through cohesive soils
b) Dynamic formulae are most suitable for friction piles driven through cohesive soils
c) Dynamic formulae are suitable for friction piles driven through cohesionless soils
A d) Dynamic formulae do not take into account the reduced bearing capacity of a pile
I in a group
C
33. The value of bearing capacity factor for cohesion Nc, for piles for cohesive soil (ɸ = 0)
T as per Meyerhof is taken as
E a) 6.2
b) 9.0
c) 5.14
d) 5.17
A 34. A cantilever sheet pile derives its stability from

a) lateral resistance of soil
I
b) self-weight
C c) the anchor rod
d) none of the above
T
E
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A 35. Deflection of a sheet pile in a braced cut

a) Increases from top to bottom
I b) Decreases from top to bottom
C c) Increases from top and then decreases
d) Decreases from top and then increases
T
E 36. Which of the following is used as a barrier to impede flow of leachate in landfill?
a) Geomembrane
b) Geotextile
c) Geogrid
d) Geocell
A
37. The primary function of Geogrid is
I
a) Filtration
C b) Drainage
c) Reinforcement
T
d) Separation
E
38. Confinement of soil can be done with the help of
a) Geocell
b) Geofoam
c) Geosynthetic clay liners
A d) Both (a) and (b)
I 39. In cuts and free-standing excavations in clay pore water pressure changes because
a) Stress increases due to excavation
C
b) Stress releases due to excavation
T c) Prevailing ground water conditions
d) None of these
E
40. Resistance of the grout against being displaced from the soil voids with time is called
as
a) Stability
b) Groutability
A
c) Permeance
I d) Cementability
C
41. Reinforced concrete slab decks are economical for culverts in the span range of
T a) 12 to 15 m
b) 10 to 12 m
E c) 6 to 8 m
d) 15 to 18 m
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A 42. The joints are provided in concrete bridge decks for which of the following reasons?
a) Differential shrinkage of concrete
I b) Creep or inelastic deformation of concrete
c) Elastic shortening of concrete due to prestress
C
d) All of the above
T
43. In case of abutments, a small retaining wall, located just behind the bridge seat and it
E prevents the earthfill from flowing into the bridge seat and bearings, is called as
a) Breast wall
b) Back wall
c) Box type wing wall
d) Splayed type wing wall
A
I 44. Distresses may be developed at articulation joints due to which of the following reasons.
a) Due to lower grade of concrete than the required
C b) Due to improper detailing of reinforcement
c) Due to creep of the concrete
T
E
45. According to the IRC:112-2011 specifications regarding the serviceability limit state of
deflection, the maximum deflection of the deck under vehicular live loads is limited to a
value of
a) Span/250
A b) Span/1000
c) Span/500
I d) Span/800
C
46. Which of the following inspection equipments is used for determination of rust pockets?
T a) Mechanical extensometer
b) Magnetic detector
E c) Electrical resistance meter
d) Rebound hammer
47. For prestressed concrete members, the minimum grade of concrete recommended by
IRC:1343-2012 for severe exposure conditions is
A a) M30
b) M25
I
c) M55
C d) M40
T
E
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A 48. Which one of the following components of well foundation should be strong enough to be
able to transmit superimposed loads from steining to the bottom plug?
I a) Well steining
b) Well curb
C
c) Bottom and top plug
T d) Well cap
E 49. For the analysis of T beam bridge decks, Courbon‟s method is applicable when span to
width ratio is between
a) 4 to 8
b) 2 to 4
c) 4 to 6
A d) 1 to 2
I
50. Anchorage type shear connectors are generally adopted when the supporting girders are
C a) Steel plate girders
b) Prestressed concrete girders
T
c) Reinforced concrete girders
E d) Rigid frame girders
51. The impact factor used in the design of bridge decks is always inversely proportional to
a) The width of bridge deck
b) The span length
A c) The type of bridge deck
d) The rise of bridge deck
I
52. In case reinforced concrete piles for bridges, the longitudinal reinforcement expressed as a
C
percentage of the cross-section should not be less than
T a) 1.8%
b) 2.5%
E c) 2.9%
d) 1.25%
53. Expansion joints in bridge decks are normally provided at the locations of
a) Maximum bending moment
A b) Maximum shear force
c) Maximum tension
I
d) Structural discontinuity
C
T
E
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A 54. The ratio of overall length to breadth of an elastomeric pad bearing should be equal to or
less than
I a) 2
b) 4
C
c) 6
T d) 8
E 55. The impact factor for reinforced concrete bridges specified in IRC code for spans
exceeding 45 m is restricted to value of
a) 25%
b) 15.4%
c) 10.2%
A d) 8.8%
I 56. In the steining of a reinforced concrete well, the minimum vertical reinforcement
distributed on both faces, expressed as a percentage of the cross-sectional area should not
C
be less than
T a) 0.12%
b) 0.15%
E c) 0.05%
d) 0.2%
57. In the curb of a reinforced concrete well foundation, the minimum reinforcement to be
used should not be less than
A a) 72 kg/m3
b) 50 kg/m3
I c) 60 kg/m3
d) 42 kg/m3
C
58. Rigid frame bridge structure resists the lateral earth pressure by
T a) The vertical column elements
E b) Abutments
c) Wing walls
d) Well steining
59. An articulation in the balanced cantilever bridge is referred to as

a) Wing wall
A b) Simply supported span
I c) The junction of cantilever and simply supported span
d) The junction of support and cantilever
C
T 60. Pachometer is an inspection instrument used for
a) Locating and measuring the size of steel bars embedded in concrete
E b) Detection of cracks in concrete
c) Measuring surface strains in concrete
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A d) Measuring the strains in steel
I
61. The most efficient traffic flow system is
C a) Simultaneous system
b) Alternate system
T c) Simple progressive system
E d) Flexible progressive system
62. The provision of traffic signals at intersection
a) reduces right angled and rear end collision
b) increases right angled and rear end collision
c) reduces right angled collision but may increase rear end collision
A d) reduces rear end collision but may increase right angled collision
I 63. The minimum distance of the Gates from the center line of the nearest broad gauge rail
C track as specified by IRC-39 is
a) 2.5 m
T b) 3.5 m
c) 3 m
E
d) 4 m
64. Which of the following is not a warrant for traffic signal installation as per IRC-93?
a) Minimum vehicular volume
b) Interruption of continuous traffic
A c) Speed of traffic
I d) Accident experience
C 65. An offset in traffic signal design is the difference between

a) start of green time and end of red time
T
b) start of red time at upstream and end of red time at downstream
E c) start of green time at successive upstream and downstream signals
d) start of red time at successive upstream and downstream signals
66. According to IRC-93 the height of the bottom of the housing of a signal phase from the
footpath should be
A a) 2 m
b) 2.5 m
I c) 3.5 m
C d) 4 m
T 67. Which of the following level of service is used for design of urban highways?
a) A
E
b) B
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A c) C
d) D
I 68. According to IRC-99, the height of speed breaker for crossing speed of 25 km/hr for
general traffic should be
C
a) 0.1 m
T b) 0.15 m
c) 0.2 m
E d) 0.25 m
69. An interchange is a
a) Grade saperated intersection
b) At-grade intersection
A c) Pedestrian intersection
I d) None of the above
C 70. Which of the following is a three legged interchange?

a) Diamond interchange
T
b) Cloverleaf interchange
E c) Trumpet interchange
d) Directional interchange
71. Which of the following intersection requires minimum land and involves small extra travel
distance for right turning traffic?
A a) Cloverleaf interchange
b) Diamond interchange
I c) Rotary interchange
d) Directional interchange
C
T 72. What is the minimum vertical clearance at underpass as per IRC-92?
a) 4.5 m
E
b) 5 m
c) 5.5 m
d) 6 m
73. The maximum value of Volume/Capacity ratio is

A
a) 35
I b) 100
c) 50
C d) 1
T
74. The minimum width of pavement required for a cycle track as per IRC-11 is
E a) 1 m
b) 1.5 m
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A c) 2 m
d) 2.5 m
I 75. The minimum radius for rotary recommended by IRC is
a) 1.3 times of entry radius
C b) 1.33 times of entry radius
T c) 1.5 times of entry radius
d) 1.7 times of entry radius
E
76. The direct interchange ramp involves
a) diverging to the right side and merging from left
b) diverging to the left side and merging from right
c) diverging to the right side and merging from right
A d) diverging to the left side and merging from left
I 77. Select the incorrect statement.

C a) Stop or red time of a signal is the sum of go and clearance intervals for the cross flow
b) Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the cross
T flow.
c) Clearance time is generally 3 to 5 seconds.
E
d) The cycle length is normally 40 to 60 seconds for two phase signals.
78. When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the road is important, then
the suitable shape of rotary is
A a) circular
b) tangent
I
c) elliptical
C d) turbine
T 79. Weaving length is the distance

E a) equal to half the perimeter of central rotary
b) between the channelizing island
c) equal to total width of adjoining radial roads
d) equal to diameter of central rotary
A 80. Enoscope is used to find

a) average speed
I b) spot speed
c) space-mean speed
C
d) time-mean speed
T
E
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A
I
PART – B (40x2 = 80 Marks)
C
81. A single acting steam hammer weighing 22.5 kN and falling through a height of 1.2 m
T
drivesa pile. If the final set is 12.5 mm, then according to Engineering News formula
E a) Allowable load for the pile is 300 kN
b) Ultimate bearing capacity of the pile is 300 kN
c) Allowable load for the pile is 120 kN
d) Ultimate bearing capacity of the pile is 120 kN
A 82. A cast in situ bored pile 0.5 m diameter and 10 m deep is placed in a purely cohesive soil.
I If the cohesion of the soil is 4 t/m2 and adhesion between the pile and the soil is half the
value of cohesion, then the ultimate bearing capacity of the pile is given by
C 19𝜋
a) tonnes
4
T 29𝜋
b) tonnes
4
E 39𝜋
c) tonnes
4
49𝜋
d) tonnes
4
83. Consider the following field tests:

A 1. Vertical pile load test
2. Cyclic pile load test
I
3. Lateral pile load test
C 4. Instrumented test pile
While estimating the load carrying capacity of a pile, the tests that can be used for separating
T
the skin resistance from point resistance, would include
E a) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 4
A 84. A rectangular footing 1 m × 2 m is placed at a depth of 2 m in a saturated clay behaving

I an
unconfined compressive strength of 100 kN/m2. According to Skempton, the net ultimate
C bearing capacity is
T a) 420 kN/m2
b) 412.5 kN/m2
E c) 385 kN/m2
Page 14 of 22
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A d) 350 kN/m2
I
C 85. A 30 cm diameter friction pile is embedded 10 m into a homogeneous consolidated
deposit.
T Unit adhesion developed between clay and pile shaft is 4 t/ m2 and adhesion factor is 0.7.
Thesafe load for factor of safety 2.5 will be
E a) 21.50 t
b) 11.57 t
c) 10.55 t
d) 6.35 t
A 86. As per Terzaghi‟s equation, the bearing capacity of strip footing resting on cohesive soil
I (c = 10 kN/ m2) for unit depth and unit width (assume Nc= 5.7) is
a) 47 kN/m2
C b) 57 kN/m2
T c) 67 kN/m2
d) 77 kN/m2
E
87. The width and depth of a footing are 2 m and 1.5 m respectively. The water table at the
site
is at a depth of 3 m below the ground level. The water table correction factor for the
calculation of the bearing capacity of soil is
A a) 0.875
I b) 1.000
c) 0.925
C d) 0.500
T
88. Consider the following statements about the under reamed pile in swelling soils:
E 1. Its bulb provides anchor against movement due to volume changes of soil
2. It is a driven pile
3. Its bulb diameter is 2.5 times its shaft diameter
Which of these statements are correct?
A a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
I c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
C
89. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
T
lists:
E List-I (Type of Pile) List-II (Situation)
Page 15 of 22
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A A. Friction Pile 1. Stiff Clay

B. Batter Pile 2. Loose granular soil
I C. Tension Pile 3. Lateral Load
C D. Compaction Pile 4. Uplift Load
T
E A B C D
a) 3 1 2 4
b) 1 3 4 2
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 1 3 2 4
A
I 90. The maximum vertical depth of excavation that can be made in a saturated soft clay,
C havingc= 30 kN/m2 and γ = 20 kN/m3 without any lateral support is
T a) 3 m
b) 6 m
E c) 2.67 m
d) 8 m
91. A suspension bridge of span 100 m supports a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m. The
cable dip is 10 m. The horizontal thrust in cable anywhere is
a) 250 kN
A b) 1000 kN
c) 2500 kN
I
d) 4000 kN
C 92. An abutment is 6 m high. If γ = 18 kN/m3 and φ = 30°, the maximum lateral earth pressure
T per meter is
a) 36 kN/m
E b) 108 kN/m
c) 10.8 kN/m
d) 180 kN/m
93. A bridge pier rectangular in plan is 10 m high above bed. The plan dimensions are
A 2m × 8m. The water level is 5m above bed. The buoyancy force is (assume unit
weight of water as 10 kN/m3)
I a) 900 kN
b) 80 kN
C
c) 600 kN
T d) 800 kN
E 94. Tier contact dimensions are 300 mm × 500 mm. Wearing coat thickness is 100 mm and slab
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A thickness is 400 mm. Assuming spread of 1:1 in wearing coat and 1H:2V in slab, the
dimensions of wheel load spread are
I
a) 900 mm × 1100 mm
C b) 900 mm × 500 mm
c) 300 mm × 900 mm
T d) 300 mm × 500 mm
E
95. If constant C = 4.8 and discharge is 100 m3/s, the linear water way required to safely
pass the discharge is
a) 48 m
b) 4.80 m
A c) 4800 m
d) 480 m
I
C 96. If qc is the static cone resistance from SCPT, the unit point bearing resistance
and skin resistance for driven piles are, respectively:
T a) qc and qc/2
b) qc and qc
E c) qc and qc/4
d) qc/4 and qc/2
97. For bearing capacity calculations, if total load acts at an eccentricity of 0.2 m with respect to
both the axis (square footing of 2 mx2 m), corrected length and width of footing are
A a) L'=1.6m, B' =1.6m
b) L'=1.8m, B' =1.8m
I c) L'=1.8m, B' =1.6m
C d) L'=1.6m, B' =1.8m
T 98. A steel bridge girder is restrained from movements. If temperature rise is 25 °C and α =
12×10-6/°C, E = 2×105 N/mm2, the stress due to temperature is
E
a) 30 MPa
b) 60 MPa
c) 250 MPa
d) 120 MPa
A
99. A simply supported steel plate girder bridge is subjected to a load of 100 kN/m. The span
I is 8 m, E = 2 × 105 N/mm2, I = 2.666X10-3 m4. The deflection at centre is
C a) 10 mm
b) 100 mm
T c) 1 mm
d) 0.1 mm
E
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A 100. Determine the pressure due to water current for the pier with shape factor 0.66 and
velocity of water current 3.5 m/sec
I
a) 0.42 kN/ m2
C b) 32 kN/ m2
c) 4.20 kN/m2
T d) 54 kN/m2
E
101.Determine the effective width of dispersion in the direction parallel to the supported edge
for a single concentrated load, if the distance of C.G of concentrated load from the face of
the cantilever support is 1m and breadth of tyre concentration area of load is 0.6 m.
a) 1.8 m
b) 1.2 m
A
c) 2.8 m
I d) 3.8 m
C 102. For a relationship u = 55 - 0.44 k where u is speed in kmph and k is density in vehicles per
km, what will be the maximum flow in vehicles per hour?
T a) 1718
E b) 1250
c) 625
d) 125
103. It was noted that on a section of road, the free speed was 80 kmph and the jam density
was 70 vehicles/km.The maximum flow in vehicle/hr that could be expected on this road
A is
a) 800
I b) 1400
c) 2800
C d) 5600
T
104. If the normal flows on two approach roads at an intersection are respectively 500 PCU per
E hour and 300 PCU per hour, the saturation flows are 1600 PCU per hour on each road and
the total lost time per signal cycle is 16 sec, then the optimum cycle time by Webster‟s
method is
a) 72.5 sec
b) 58 sec
A c) 48 sec
d) 19.3 sec
I
C 105. Match list 1 with list 2 correctly.
T List 1:
E
A. Pre-timed signals
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A B. Vehicle actuated signals

C. Semi-vehicle actuated signals
I
D. Linked traffic signals
C
T
E
List 2:
1. Useful for junction of a side street having low traffic volume with a main street
having a heavy flow
2. Overall optimization of traffic flow
A 3. Delay is held to a minimum, and maximum lane capacity is achieved
I 4. Most successfully used in linked system
Codes:
C A B C D
T a) 3 4 1 2
b) 4 3 1 2
E c) 3 4 2 1
d) 4 3 2 1
106. Match list 1 with list 2 correctly.
A List 1 :
A. Cloverleaf interchange
I
B. Traffic studies
C C. Rotary island
D. Road junction approach line
T
List 2 :
E 1. Informatory sign
2. Traffic control devices
3. Traffic flow characteristics
4. Grade-separation
Codes :
A A B C D
I a) 4 3 2 1
b) 2 1 4 3
C c) 4 1 2 3
T d) 2 3 4 1
E 107. The design speed of traffic lane is 70 kmph . What is the theoretical capacity per hour
taking the total reaction time to be 2 sec and average length of vehicle 8 m.
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A a) 828
b) 728
I
c) 628
C d) 428
T
E
108. A toll booth at the entrance to a bridge can handle 120 veh/hr, the time to process a vehicle
being exponentially distributed. The flow is 90 veh/hr with a poissonianarrival pattern.
Determine the average number of vehicle in the system.
a) 3
b) 4
A c) 5
I d) 6
C 109. In a traffic lane the traffic moving extreme left is 250 PCU and in extreme right it is 240
PCU, the sum of the weaving traffic crossing left and right is 500 PCU, find proportion of
T weaving traffic
a) 0.5
E b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3.0
110. A roundabout is provided with an average entry width of 8.4 m, width of weaving section
as 14 m, and length of weaving section between channelizing island as 34 m. The crossing
A traffic and total traffic on the weaving section are 1000 and 2000 PCU per hour respectively
The nearest rounded capacity of the roundabout in PCU per hour is
I
a) 3300
C b) 3700
c) 4500
T d) 5200
E 111. A single lane unidirectional highwayhas a design speed of 65 kmph. The perception-break
reaction time of driver is 2.5 seconds and the average length of vehicle is 5m. The coefficient
of longitudnal friction of pavement is 0.4. The capacity of this road in terms of
„vehicle per hour per lane‟ is
a) 1440
A b) 750
c) 710
I d) 680
C 112. In signal design as per IRC, if the sum of the ratios of normal flows to saturation flow of
T two directional traffic flow is 0.50 and the total lost time per cycle is 10 seconds, the optimum
cycle length in seconds is
E a) 100
b) 80
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A c) 60
d) 40
I
C 113. Two major roads with lanes each are crossing in an urban area from an uncontrolled
intersection. The number of conflict points when both roads are one-way is “X” and
T when both roads are two-way is “Y”. The ratio of X and Y is
a)0.25
E b) 0.33
c)0.50
d) 0.75
114. The lost time due to starting delay on a traffic signal approach is noted to be 3 seconds,
A the actual green time is 25 seconds and the amber time is 3 seconds. How much is the
effective green time?
I a) 22 seconds
b) 25 seconds
C c) 27 seconds
d) 31 seconds
T
E 115. Which of the following factors are not strictly related to design of traffic rotary
Intersections?
1) Radius of central island
2) Weaving length
3) Ramps and interchanges
4) Acceleration lanes
A
I Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
C b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
T d) 3 and 4
E
116. An isolated three-phase traffic signal is designed by Webster‟s method. The critical flow
ratios forthree phases are 0.20, 0.30 and 0.25 respectively and lost time per phase is 4
seconds. The optimum cycle length is
a) 92 seconds
b) 100 seconds
A c) 120 seconds
d) 85 seconds
I
C 117. A 400 mm square precast driven (RC) pile made of M40 grade concrete. A rough estimate
of its structural capacity in compression
T a) 1600 kN
b) 3200 kN
E c) 5568 kN
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A d) 6400 kN
I 118. Assertion (a): Negative skin friction will act on piles in filled up soils, which should be
C considered in design of pile foundations
Reason (r): The filled up soils start consolidating and develop a drag force on the pile
T a) Both „a‟ and „r‟ are true, but „r‟ is not a correct explanation of „a‟
b) Both „a‟ and „r‟ are true, and „r‟ is the correct explanation of „a‟
E c) „a‟ is true but „r‟ is false
d) „a‟ is false but „r‟ is true
119. Extra widening required at a horizontal curve on a single lane hill road of radius 80 m for
a design speed of 50 kmph and for a vehicle with wheel base 6.0 m is
A a) 0.225 m
b) 0.588 m
I c) 0.813 m
d) None of these
C
T 120. In calculation of safe bearing capacity, effect of water table is neglected if it is at a depth
more than ------ from the base of the footing. (B: width of footing, D: depth of foundation)
E a) 2B
b) 2(B+D)
c) 1B
d) (B+D)
A
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E
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ANSWER KEY
Subject: Civil Engineering

Paper: 2
1. c 41. c 81. a
2. b 42. d 82. d
3. b 43. b 83. d
4. b 44. b 84. c
5. a 45. d 85. c
6. a 46. c 86. b
7. b 47. d 87. a
8. a 48. b 88. d
9. b 49. b 89. b
10. b 50. b 90. b
11. c 51. b 91. c
12. b 52. d 92. b
13. b 53. d 93. d
14. c 54. a 94. a
15. c 55. b 95. a
16. c 56. b 96. a
17. b 57. d 97. a
18. d 58. a 98. b
19. d 59. d 99. a
20. c 60. b 100. c
21. a 61. d 101. a
22. c 62. c 102. a
23. d 63. c 103. b
24. c 64. c 104. b
25. b 65. c 105. a
26. c 66. b 106. a
27. d 67. c 107. b
28. a 68. a 108. a
29. b 69. a 109. a
30. d 70. c 110. b
31. c 71. b 111. c
32. b 72. c 112. d
33. b 73. d 113. a
34. a 74. c 114. a
35. a 75. b 115. d
36. a 76. c 116. a
37. c 77. b 117. a
38. a 78. b 118. b
39. b 79. b 119. c
40. c 80. b 120. c
ROLL NO.: PG1CTE42
CIVIL & TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING (MTCE/MTCTE)/CIVIL

A
TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING/TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
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PAPER-I
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Instructions:
the wrong answer.
C
ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion
T of examination before leaving the examination hall.
1. The type of signalling system in which it ispossible to vary the length of cycle,
cycledivision and the time schedule at each signalpoint is called
(a) Simultaneous system
(b) Alternate system
A (c) Simple progressive system
(d) Flexible progressive system
I
C 2. In revised CBR design method recommended by the IRC for the design of flexible
pavement, the total thickness depends upon
T (a) Only the CBR value of the soil
(b) The CBR value of the soil and magnitude of wheel load
E (c) The CBR value of the soil and cumulative standard axle loads
(d) The CBR value of the soil and number of commercial vehicles passing per day
3. Select the strength parameter of concrete used in design of plain jointed cement
pavement from the following choices:
(a) Tensile strength
(b) Compressive strength
(c) Flexural strength
(d) Shear strength
A
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4. The average number of vehicles per day passing on a section of the road during a
A
particular year, is called
I (a) Peak hour traffic
(b) Average daily traffic
C (c) Design hourly volume
(d) Any one of these
T
E 5. The diagram which shows the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians involved
in accidents is known as
(a) Spot maps
(b) Pie charts
(c) Condition diagram
(d) Collision diagram
6. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) Stop or red time of a signal is the sum of go and clearance intervals for the cross
flow.
A (b) Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the
I cross flow.
(c) Clearance time is generally 3 to 5 seconds.
C (d) The cycle length is normally 40 to 60 seconds for two phase signals.
T 7. As per IRC: 67-2001, a traffic sign indicating the Speed Limit on a road should be of
(a) Circular shape with white background and red border
E
(b) Triangular shape with white background and red border
(c) Triangular shape with red background and white border.
(d) Circular shape with red background and white border
8. The warping stress is dependent on

(a) Length of slab
(b) Length and Width of slab
(c) Thickness of slab
(d) Water content in slab
A
9. Dowel bars in concrete pavement are placed
I (a) Along the direction of traffic
C (b) Perpendicular to the direction of traffic
(c) Along 45° to the direction of traffic
T (d) Can be placed along any direction
E 10. Aggregated Analysis for Multiple Linear Regression Analysis is

(a) Where each household is treated as an observation.
(b) Where each traffic zone is treated as one observation.
(c) Not considered for providing more reliable future estimates as compared with the
disaggregated analysis.
(d) Based on the assumption that contiguous household does not exhibit similarity in
travel characteristics.
A
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A
11. In a concrete pavement during summer at and soon after mid day, the combined stress
I at the interior of the slab is equal to
(a) Wheel load stress + temperature warping stress + sub grade resistant stress
C (b) Wheel load stress + temperature warping stress - sub grade resistant stress
(c) Wheel load stress - temperature warping stress + sub grade resistant stress
T (d) Wheel load stress - temperature warping stress - sub grade resistant stress
E
12. The maximum jam density occurs at
(a) Zero speed
(b) 15th percentile speed
(c) 30th percentile speed
(d) 98th percentile speed
13. Which of the following is not a growth factor method for calculating trip distribution?
(a) Furness method
(b) Fratar method.
A (c) Average factor method
I (d) Tanner Model
C 14. The specific gravity of paving bitumen as per IS: 73-1992 lies between
(a) 1.06 and 1.10
T (b) 1.02 and 1.06
(c) 0.97 and 1.02
E
(d) 0.92 and 0.97
15. Which of the following statement is false?

In order to reduce congestion
(a) Shift industries and excess tele ineffective services to settled town.
(b) Confine the tele effective services to small towns and cities only.
(c) Provide frequent and rapid asses between the centers of main cities and towns.
(d) To maximum possible extent, distribute the tele effective services of the main city
along a ring rail, to provide the single route asses all of them.
A
16. Traffic density is defined as the total number of vehicles
I (a) That can be accommodated on a unit length of the road
C (b) That can pass a given point in a unit period of time
(c) That can pass a given point in a specified period of time
T (d) None of the above
E 17. Which of the following is not a criterion for zoning?

(a) Zones should match other administrative divisions, particularly census zones.
(b) Zones should have regular geometric shape.
(c) Zone boundaries should match cordon and screen lines, but should not match
major roads.
(d) Zones should have homogeneous characteristics, especially in land use,
population etc.
A
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A 18. Bituminous concrete is a mix comprising of

(a) Fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
I
(b) Fine aggregate and bitumen
C (c) Coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
(d) Coarse aggregate, filler and bitumen
T
19. Temperature stresses in concrete pavements may cause the slab to crack. If a slab
E cools uniformly then the crack will develop at which of the following locations of the
slab?
(a) At centre
(b) Near edges
(c) At corners
(d) Near edges and at corners
20. The initial concavity in the load-penetration curve of a CBR test is not due to
(a) Uneven top surface
A (b) High impact at start of loading
(c) Inclined penetration plunger
I (d) Soft top layer of soaked soil
C
21. Which of the following is incorrect?
T (a) Modal split depends upon the size of the family.
(b) As the travel time ratio increases, the usage of the public transport system
E increases.
(c) Higher density areas are served well by public transport system.
(d) Modal split depends upon the time spent walking from public transport vehicle at
destination.
22. The prevailing conditions referred to under the possible capacity of a traffic lane are
ideal if
(a) There are at least two lanes for the exclusive use to traffic moving in one direction
(b) All the vehicles move at the same uniform speed
A (c) The widths of lanes, shoulders and clearances to vertical obstructions beyond the
edge of the traffic lane are adequate
I (d) All of the above
C 23. If the total number of commercial vehicles per day ranges from 3000 to 6000, the
T minimum percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed for axle load is
(a) 15
E (b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 30
24. The allowable maximum water content in bitumen should not be more than
(a) 2 % by weight
(b) 0.2 % by weight
(c) 2.5 % by weight
(d) 5% by weight
A
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A 25. Which of the following statements CANNOT be used to describe free flow speed (uf)
I of a traffic stream?
(a) uf is the speed when flow is negligible
C (b) uf is the speed when density is negligible
(c) uf is affected by geometry and surface conditions of the road
T (d) uf is the speed at which flow is maximum and density is optimum
E 26. Which of the following is an assumption for Multiple Linear Regression Analysis?
(a) All the variables are dependent on each other.
(b) All the variables are normally distributed.
(c) All the variables are discontinuous.
(d) No relationship exists between the dependent variable and the independent
variables.
27. The traffic census is carried out to study
(a) Speed and delay
(b) Traffic volume
A
(c) Road parking
I (d) Origin and destination
C 28. If C is basic capacity per lane, V is velocity in km/hour, S is stopping distance plus
length of the vehicles in metres, the formula is applicable to
T (a) District roads
E (b) Two lane roads
(c) Two lane roads in one direction
(d) None of these.
29. The traffic population is estimated by

(a) Arithmetic method
(b) Geometric method
(c) Incremental increase method
(d) Harmonic method
A 30. Which of the following statement is false?

(a) Not all traffic assignment techniques are based on route selection.
I
(b) The purpose of traffic assignment is to evaluate the effects of limited
C improvements and additions to the existing transportation system by assigning
estimated future trips to the improved network.
T (c) The purpose of traffic assignment is to provide design hour traffic volumes on
highway and turning movements at junctions.
E (d) Traffic assignment is the stage in the transport planning process wherein the trip
interchanges are allocated to different parts of the network forming the
transportation system.
31. The capacities of “One-way 1.5m wide sidewalk (persons per hour)” and “One-way
2-lane urban road (PCU per hour, with no frontage access, no standing vehicles and
very little cross traffic)” are respectively
(a) 1200 and 2400
(b) 1800 and 2000
A (c) 1200 and 1500
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(d) 2000 and 1200

A
32. An example of combination of Rectangular with Radial street system is
I (a) New Delhi
(b) Bhubaneshwar
C (c) Chandigarh
(d) Gandhinagar
T
E 33. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Capacity restraint assignment is a process in which the travel resistance of a link is
increased according to a relation between the practical capacity of the link and the
volumes assigned to the link.
(b) Capacity restraint assignment has been developed to overcome the inherent
weakness of all-or-nothing assignment technique which takes no account of the
capacity of the system between a pair of zones.
(c) All-or- nothing assignments have been found to yield more accurate assignment
than multiple route models.
(d) All-or- nothing is the simplest technique and is based on the premise that the route
A followed by traffic is one having the least travel resistance.
I
34. For how much amount of rainfall soaking of specimen is not required?
C (a) 100 mm
(b) 200 mm
T (c) 300 mm
(d) 500 mm
E
35. The Road Safety Week is celebrated, every year, in the first week of
(a) December
(b) January
(c) March
(d) April
36. The resilient modulus (MR) for granular sub-base is given by the following equation:
(a) MRgsb=0.2 h0.45 * MR subgrade h=Thickness of sub-base layer in mm
A (b) MRgsb=0.4 h0.54 * MR subgrade h=Thickness of sub-base layer in mm
0.54
(c) MRgsb=0.2 h * MR subgrade h=Thickness of sub-grade layer in mm
I (d) MRgsb=0.2 h0.45 * MR subgrade h=Thickness of sub-grade layer in mm
C
37. Which of the following statement is true?
T (a) Trip interchange is directly proportional to the relative attraction between the
zones.
E (b) Trip interchange is directly proportional to the measure of spatial separation.
(c) Trip interchange is inversely proportional to the measure of spatial separation.
(d) Trip interchange is inversely proportional to the relative attraction between the
zones.
38. The surface dressing over an existing worn out flexible pavement is known as
(a) Prime Coat
(b) Seal coat
(c) Tack coat
A (d) Grout coat
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A
I 39. Which of the following equation represents a simple equation for gravity model?
(a) Ti-j = K Pi Aj/dnij
C (b) Ti-j = K Pi dnij /Aj
(c) Ti-j = K Pi / Aj dnij
T (d) Ti-j = K Aj/dnij
E
40. The essential differences between flexible and rigid pavements is
(a) Rigidity
(b) Flexibility
(c) Load carrying Capacity
(d) The manner of distribution of load over the sub-grade
41. For a comfortable travel on Highways, the centrifugal ratio should not exceed
(a) 0.10
(b) 0.15
A (c) 0.20
I (d) 0.25
C 42. If V is the design speed of vehicles in km/hour, the change of radial acceleration in
metres/sec3, is
T (a) 65/ (70 + V)
(b) 80/ (70 + V)
E
(c) 80/ (75 + V)
(d) 70/ (60 + V)
43. Which of the following is false?

(a) Pre-distribution modal split is the one in which the modal split is considered prior
to trip distribution stages.
(b) Pre-distribution modal split procedure is also known as trip interchange modal
split procedure.
(c) Pre-distribution modal split procedure is also known as trip end modal split
A procedure.
(d) Post-distribution modal split is the one in which the modal split is considered after
I trip distribution stage.
C
44. The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water from
T hill slopes is known as
(a) Sloping drain
E (b) Catchwater drain
(c) Side drain
(d) Cross drain
45. The cement slab is provided with

(a) Long joints
(b) Longitudinal joints
(c) Transverse joints
(d) Both Longitudinal and transverse joints
A
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A
I 46. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) There are two types of trip distribution methods: Growth factor methods and
C reduction factor methods.
(b) Fratar method is not based on predicting future inter-zonal movements by
T successive approximations.
E (c) The growth factor methods are relatively simpler to use and understand.
(d) The growth factor methods cannot be used for studies of small areas and for
updating stable and uniform data.
47. The elastic recovery of deflection is called

(a) Rebound deflection
(b) Elastic deflection
(c) Rigid deflection
(d) Semi rigid deflection
A 48. The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction
(a) 0.4%
I (b) 0.6%
C (c) 0.8%
(d) 1.0%
T
49. In hill roads the side drains are provided
E (a) Only on the hill side of road
(b) Only on the opposite side of hill
(c) On both sides of road
50. In the aggregate impact value test, the height of fall of hammer is
(a) 30 cm
(b) 32 cm
(c) 38 cm
A (d) 39 cm
I 51. In urban transportation planning, the „Modal Split‟ is the process of which one of the
following?
C (a) Staggering of working hours
(b) Segregation of fast and slow modes
T
(c) Separation of traffic streams by flyovers
E (d) Deciding the choice for a mode
52. Maximum aggregate size in CBR method is

(a) 20 mm
(b) 30 mm
(c) 40 mm
(d) 50 mm
53. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to

(a) Relieve warping stresses
A (b) Relieve shrinkage stresses
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(c) Resist stresses due to expansion

A
(d) Allow free expansion
I
54. Maximum number of vehicles that can pass a given point on a lane during one hour
C without creating unreasonable delay, is known as
(a) Traffic density of lane
T (b) Basic capacity of lane
E (c) Probable capacity of lane
(d) Practical capacity of lane
55. When load is applied on concrete pavement

(a) Away from edges, the maximum bending moment is negative
(b) Away from edges, the maximum bending moment cause compression
(c) On the edges, the maximum stress is parallel to the edge of the slab
(d) None of these
56. Transverse joints are provided at distances varying from

A (a) 10 m to 15 m
I (b) 12 m to 18 m
(c) 16 m to 24 m
C (d) 17 m to 27 m
T 57. The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less
than
E
(a) 30 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 60 cm
58. The minimum safe distance headway increases linearly with speed. Which model
follows this assumption?
(a) Forbe‟s model
(b) Pipe‟s model
A (c) General motor‟s model
(d) Optimal velocity model
I
C 59. If d is the economic designed depth of a slab, the thickness of the cement concrete
pavement slab at interior, is kept
T (a) 1.275 d
(b) 1.125 d
E (c) 0.85 d
(d) 0.75 d
60. The length of the side of warning sign boards of roads is

(a) 30 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 45 cm
(d) 50 cm
A
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61. Which one of the following tests is performed in the lab to determine the extent of
I weathering of aggregates for road works?
(a) Soundness test
C (b) Crushing test
(c) Impact test
T (d) Abrasion test
E 62. The maximum stress sustained by concrete pavements in kg/cm2 is
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) 55
63. Which one of the following sets of factors is related to the design of thickness of rigid
pavement by Westerguard‟s method?
(a) CBR value and stiffness index of soil
A (b) Deflection factor and traffic index
(c) Swelling index and bulk modulus
I (d) Radius of relative stiffness and modulus of subgrade reaction
C 64. Thickness of broken line markings on multi-lane road for lanes is generally kept
(a) 10 cm
T (b) 12 cm
E (c) 15 cm
(d) 18 cm
65. The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is

(a) 2.5 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 4.5 m
(d) 5.5 m
66. Name the traffic survey data which is plotted by means of Desire lines.
A (a) Accident
(b) Classified volume
I (c) Origin and Destination
(d) Speed and Delay
C
67. If the CBR value obtained at 5mm penetration is higher than that of 2.5 mm then the
T
test is repeated for checking and if the check test reveals a similar trend, then the CBR
E value is to be reported as the
(a) Mean of the value for 5mm and 2.5mm penetration
(b) Higher value - lower value
(c) Lower value corresponding to 2.5mm penetration
(d) Higher value obtained at 5mm penetration
68. Softening point of bitumen to be used for road construction at a place where
maximum temperature is 40◦C should be
(a) Less than 40◦C
(b) Greater than 40◦C
A (c) Equal to 40◦C
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A
69. The term ESWL stands for
I (a) Equivalent Standard Wheel Load
(b) Equivalent Safe Wheel Load
C (c) Engineering Standard Wheel Load
(d) Engineering Significant Wheel Load
T
E 70. For conditions prevailing in India, at which location in a cement concrete pavement
will the combined stresses due to traffic wheel load and temperature have to be
critically checked during design?
(a) Corner
(b) Corner and interior
(c) Corner and edge
(d) Corner, edge and interior
71. Given that

r = radius of load distribution; E = modulus of elasticity of concrete; K= modulus of
A subgrade reaction; µ = Poisson ratio of concrete; h = Thickness of slab; P = Wheel
I load
The combination of parameters required for obtaining the radius of relative stiffness
C of cement concrete slab is
(a) E, K, µ and r
T (b) h, K, µ and r
(c) E, h, K and µ
E
(d) P, h, K and µ
72. Which one of the traffic survey scheme is most relevant when deciding on locating
major routes in a city?
(a) Traffic volume survey
(b) Origin and Destination survey
(c) Speed survey
(d) Traffic capacity survey
A 73. A journey from work to home made by walking to the bus, traveling by bus to station
and completing the journey by train is regarded as
I (a) 4 trips
C (b) 3 trips
(c) 2 trips
T (d) 1 trip
E 74. The specifications for road signs are specified by

(a) IRC 6
(b) IRC 21
(c) IRC 67
(d) IRC 9
75. The cone of vision for a driver having very clear vision is
(a) Beyond 8◦
(b) 3◦ to 5◦
A (c) 5◦ to 7◦
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(d) 6◦ to 8◦
A
I 76. The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is
(a) 0
C (b) 25 mm
(c) 50 mm
T (d) 100 mm
E
77. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) In aggregate analysis, the data is inefficiently used.
(b) Multiple linear regression Analysis is of two types: household least square
regression and aggregate analysis.
(c) Multiple linear regression analysis is a well known statistical technique for fitting
mathematical relation between dependent and independent variables.
(d) Multiple Linear Regression Analysis is of two types: zonal least square regression
and aggregate analysis.
A 78. Modulus of subgrade reaction is
I (a) K = P/2.15 kg/cm2/cm
(b) K = P/0.125 kg/cm2/cm
C (c) K = P2/2.15 kg/cm2/cm
(d) K = P/2.5 kg/cm2/cm
T
79. Excessive camber on pavements may cause
E
(a) Deterioration of central portion
(b) Slip of the speedy vehicles towards the edges
(c) Erosion of the berms
(d) All the above
80. IRC has specified that the maximum value of stripping value of bitumen should not
exceed
(a) 2 %
(b) 3 %
A (c) 4 %
(d) 5 %
I
C
T
E 81. A traffic survey conducted on a road yield on average daily traffic count of 5000
vehicles. The axle load distribution on the same road is given in the following table,
Axle load Frequency of traffic ( % )
(Tonnes)
18 10
14 20
10 35
8 15
6 20
A
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The design period of the road is 15 years the yearly traffic growth rate is 7.5%. The
A
load safety factor LSF is 1.3. If the vehicle damage factor VDF is calculated from the
I above data, the design traffic (in msa) is
(a) 316
C (b) 254
(c) 218
T (d) 270
E 82. A pavement designer has arrived at a design traffic of 100 million standard axles for a
newly developing national highway as per IRC: 37 guidelines using the following
data: life = 15 years, commercial vehicle count before pavement construction = 4500
vehicles/day, annual traffic growth rate = 8%. The vehicle damage factor used in the
calculation was
(a) 1.53
(b) 2.24
(c) 3.66
(d) 4.14
A
83. Choose the incorrect statement.
I (a) In Macroscopic traffic flow models, the traffic is considered as a one-dimensional
compressible fluid.
C (b) In Greenshield‟s model, a logarithmic relation between speed and density was
assumed.
T
(c) The Stock‟s shockwave formula is given as v (to) p = (q2 – q1) / (k2 – k1), here v-
E velocity, q -flow and k – density
(d) In Macroscopic traffic flow models, the behavior of an individual vehicle is
considered.
84. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Normal traffic growth is defined as the increase in traffic volume due to increase
in number of transportation vehicles.
(b) Generated traffic is the traffic created due to construction of new facilities which
would not have been present otherwise had the facilities not been provided.
(c) Development traffic is the traffic created due to construction of new facilities
A which would not have been present otherwise had the facilities not been provided.
(d) Current trafficis the volume of traffic that would immediately use a new road or
I an improved one when open to traffic.
C 85. The free mean speed on a roadway is found to be 70 km/h. Under stopped condition
T the average spacing between vehicles is 6.9 m. Determine the capacity of flow (in
vehicles/km)
E (a) 120
(b) 145
(c) 160
(d) 175

(a) A system of links and nodes, on a network, indicates roadways and other
transportation routes.
(b) Links represent sections of roadway (or railway etc) that are heterogeneous, while
nodes are simply points at which links meet.
A
(c) The main disadvantage of registration number method is its high cost.
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(d) Circumferential trips are between local area activity to travel at the beginning or
A
completion of a longer trip with in an urban region.
I 87. For designing a 2-phase fixed type signal at an intersection having North-South and
C East-West road where only straight ahead traffic is permitted, the following data is
available.
T Parameter North South East West
Design Hour Flow 1000 700 900 550
E (PCU/hr)
Saturation Flow 2500 2500 3000 3000
(PCU/hr)
Total time lost per cycle is 12 seconds. The cycle length (seconds) as per Webster‟s
approach is
(a) 67
(b) 77
(c) 87
A (d) 91
I 88. A Marshall specimen is prepared for bituminous concrete with a bitumen content of 5
C per cent by weight of total mix. The theoretical and the measured unit weights of the
mix are 2.442 g/cm3 and 2.345 g/cm3, respectively. The bitumen has a specific
T gravity of 1.02. The per cent voids in mineral aggregate filled with bitumen (VFB) are
(a) 34.55
E (b) 35.9
(c) 73.55
(d) 74.3
89. Match List-1 (Lane Distribution Factor) with List-2 (Number of Lanes) and select the
correct answer.
List 1
1. 50 per cent of the total number of commercial vehicles in both directions
2. 40 per cent of the total number of commercial vehicles in both directions
A 3. 60 per cent of the number of commercial vehicles in each direction
4. 45 per cent of the number of commercial vehicles in each direction
I List 2
A. Two-lane single carriageway roads
C B. Dual three-lane carriageway
T C. Dual four-lane carriageway
D. Four-lane single carriageway roads
E
1 2 3 4
(a) A C D B
(b) A D B C
(c) C A B D
(d) C B D A
90. A subgrade soil sample was tested using standard CBR apparatus and the observations
are given below.
Load, kg Penetration, mm
A
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60.5 2.5
A
80.5 5
I Assuming that the load-penetration curve is convex throughout, the CBR value (%) of
the sample is
C (a) 6.5
(b) 5.5
T
(c) 4.4
E (d) 3.9
91. If the standard deviation of the spot speed of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph and
the mean speed of the vehicles is 33 kmph, the coefficient of variation in speed is
(a) 0.1517
(b) 0.1867
(c) 0.2666
(d) 0.3646
A 92. What will be the theoretical maximum capacity (to nearest 10 units) for a single lane
of highway given that the speed of the traffic stream is 40 kmph?
I (a) 3000 veh/h
(b) 2860 veh/h
C (c) 2010 veh/h
(d) 2510 veh/h
T
E 93. Match list 1 with list 2 correctly.
List 1: List 2:
A. Vertical sand drains 1. Urban road drainage
B. Causeways and culverts 2. Hill roads
C. Scuppers and catch water drains 3. High embankments in soft soils
D. Inlets and gratings 4. Cross drainage in road alignments
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
A (c) 3 4 2 1
I (d) 1 2 4 3
C 94. The radius of relative thickness for a 20 cm thick slab with E = 3 x 105 kg/cm2 and
Poisson‟s ratio = 0.15, resting on a subgrade having modulus of 5 kg/cm2 is
T (a) 10 cm
(b) 80 cm
E
(c) 120 cm
(d) 320 cm
95. Estimate trip rate for a residential land use with 2744 thousands of square feet and
6574 person trips
(a) 2.4
(b) 10
(c) 11.2
(d) 7.6
A
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A
I
C List 1: List 2:
A. Space mean speed 1. Road condition studies
T B. Journey speed 2. Regulatory measures
C. Running speed 3. Traffic flow studies
E D. Spot speed 4. Delay studies
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
97. The critical flow ratios for a three-phase signal are found to be 0.30, 0.25, and 0.25.
A The total time lost in the cycle is 10 s. Pedestrian crossings at this junction are not
significant. The respective Green times (expressed in seconds and rounded off to the
I
nearest integer) for the three phases are
C (a) 34, 28 and 28
(b) 40, 25 and 25
T (c) 40, 30 and 30
(d) 50, 25 and 25
E
98. 18. Road markers along roads from the edge of a kerb should not be less than
(a) 60 cm
(b) 45 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 55 cm

A List 1: List 2:
A. Primary road system 1. Population distribution
I B. Economic studies 2. Expressways
C. Engineering studies 3. Traffic volume
C D. Road user studies 4. Topographic details
T
A B C D
E (a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
100. An upgrade g1% is followed by a downgrade g2%. The equation of the parabolic
curve of length L to be introduced, is given by
(a) y = g [(g1 – g2)/100 L] x2
(b) y = [(g1 + g2)/200 L] x2
A (c) y = [(g1 – g2)/400 L] x2
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(d) y = [(g1 + g2)/800 L] x2

A
I
C (a) Post-distribution modal split is useful in situations where serious consideration is
given to public transport planning.
T (b) The trip interchange model is less complex.
E (c) Logit analysis is based on the principle that if members of population are
subjected to a stimulus that can range over an infinite scale, the frequency of
response to stimulus (assuming that the response is a 0-1 response) will be
normally distributed.
(d) The higher density areas are not served well by public transport system.

List 1: List 2:
A. Traffic volume study 1. Workspot interview method
B. Speed and delay study 2. Doppler radar
A C. Spot speed study 3. Floating car method
I D. Multiple character studies 4.Automatic vehicle counter and
classifier
C 5. Electronic detector
A B C D
T (a) 5 3 2 4
(b) 1 3 2 5
E
(c) 5 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
103. During an investigation of pavement failure, an engineer reconstructed the graphs P,

R and S, using partial and damaged old reports.
A
I
C
T
E
Theoretically probable correct graphs according to the 'Marshall Mixture design

output' are
(a) P, Q, R
(b) P, Q, S
A (c) Q, R, S
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(d) R, S, P
A
I
104. For a relationship u = 55 - 0.44k where u is speed in kmph and k is density in vpkm,
C what will be the maximum flow in vph?
(a) 1718
T (b) 1250
E (c) 625
(d) 125

List 1: List 2:
A. Pre-timed signals 1. Useful for junction of a side street having low
traffic volume with a main street having a heavy
flow
B. Vehicle actuated signals 2. Overall optimization of traffic flow
C. Semi-vehicle actuated signals 3. Delay is held to a minimum, and maximum
A lane capacity is achieved
I D. Linked traffic signals 4. Most successfully used in linked system
C A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
T (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
E
(d) 4 3 2 1
106. Which of the following factors are used for calculating temperature stress at the
critical edge region in rigid pavement design?
1. Maximum temperature difference between summer and winter
2. Coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete
3. Slab length
4. Slab width
Select the correct answer using codes given below.
A (a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 4
I (c) 1, 2
C (d) 1, 3
T 107. The equation for logit analysis can be written as

(a) P1= 1/ (1+eG(x))
E (b) P1= eG(x)/ (1+eG(x))
(c) P1= (1+eG(x))/ eG(x)
(d) P1= 1+eG(x) / (1-eG(x))
108. If the normal flows on two approach roads at an intersection are respectively 500pcu
per hour and 300pcu per hour, the saturation flows are 1600pcu per hour on each road
and the total lost time per signal cycle is 16 sec, then the optimum cycle time by
Webster‟s method is
(a) 72.5 sec
A (b) 58 sec
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(c) 48 sec
A
(d) 19.3 sec
I
109. During a CBR test, the load sustained by a remolded soil specimen at 5.00 mm
C penetration is 50 kg. The CBR value of the soil will be
(a) 10.0%
T (b) 5.0%
E (c) 3.6%
(d) 2.4%

List 1: List 2:
A. Public transport inventory study 1.Starting and destination of riders
B. Public transport O and D study 2. Available routing and scheduling
C. Public transport Usage study 3. Vehicle-Km, earning per Km
D. Public transport operator‟s study 4. Passenger-km, IVTT, Walking time, Waiting
time
A A B C D
I (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
C (c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
T
111. The Fuller law is expressed as
E
(a) p = 100 x [d/D] n
(b) p = 100 x [D/d] n
(c) p = 100 x [d2/D] n
(d) p = 100 x [d/D2] n
112. Based on the O & D survey, 25% commuters choose transit for their daily trip. There
are 5 commuters being randomly selected from an organization. Estimate the
probability that 1 portion among 5 will choose transit for travel.
(a) 0.39
A (b) 0.45
(c) 0.77
I (d) 0.66
C 113. Which of the following is not a derived characteristic?
(a) Time headway
T (b) Distance headway
(c) Travel time
E
(d) Density
114. Consider the following statements in the context of cement concrete pavements:
1. Warping stresses in cement concrete pavements are caused by the seasonal
variation
in temperature.
2. Tie bars are generally provided across transverse joints of cement concrete
pavements.
The correct option evaluating the above statement is
A (a) 1 true and 2 false
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(b) 1 false and 2 true

A
(c) 1 true and 2 true
I (d) 1 false and 2 false
115. If present A.D.T. is 5000 vehicles and annual increase is 10%, the average future flow
C after 5 years will be
(a) 6050 vehicles
T (b) 7050 vehicles
E (c) 8050 vehicles
(d) 9050 vehicles
116. Which of the flowing stress combinations are appropriate in identifying the critical
condition for the design of concrete pavements?
Type of stress Location
A. Load 1. Corner
B. Temperature 2. Edge
3. Interior
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A (a) A-2, B-3
(b) A-1, B-3
I (c) A-3, B-1
C (d) A-2, B-2
117. In the moving observer experiment, if the density is k, speed of the observer is vo,
T
length of the test stretch is 𝑙, t is the time taken by the observer to cover the road
E stretch, the number of vehicles overtaken by the observer np is given by,
(a) np = k.t
(b) np = k.𝑙
(c) np = k / (vo.t)
(d) np = k. vo. t
118. In case of governing equation for calculating wheel load stresses using Westergaard‟s
approach, the following statements are made:
1. Load stresses are inversely proportional to wheel load.
2. Modulus of subgrade reaction is useful for load stress calculation.
A (a) Both statements are TRUE
(b) 1 is TRUE and 2 is FALSE
I (c) Both statements are FALSE
(d) 1 is FALSE and 2 is TRUE
C
119. Broken lines
T (a) Allows crossing with discretion
E (b) Does not allow crossing except for entry or exit from a side road
(c) Allows crossing only in case of extreme emergency
(d) Are not at all used as road markings.
120. If aggregate size of 50-40 mm is to be tested for finding out the portion of elongated
aggregates using length gauge, the slot length of the gauge should be
(a) 81 mm
(b) 45 mm
(c) 53 mm
(d) 90 mm
A
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PG1CTE42
ANSWER KEY 7
Subject: Civil and Transport Engg

Paper: 1

1. d 41 d 81. a
2. c 42 c 82. b
3. c 43 b 83. d
4. b 44 b 84. c
5. d 45 d 85. b
6. b 46 c 86. a
7. a 47 a 87. b
8. b 48 b 88. d
9. a 49 a 89. b
10. b 50 c 90. c
11. b 51 b 91. c
12. a 52 a 92. b
13. d 53 d 93. c
14. c 54 d 94. b
15. b 55 c 95. a
16. a 56 d 96. c
17. b 57 c 97. a
18. c 58 b 98. a
19. a 59 c 99. a
20. b 60 c 100. b
21. b 61 a 101. a
22. d 62 b 102. a
23. a 63 d 103. b
24. b 64 a 104. a
25. d 65 c 105. a
26. b 66 c 106. b
27. c 67 d 107. a
28. c 68 b 108. b
29. b 69 a 109. d
30. a 70 c 110. d
31. a 71 c 111. a
32. a 72 b 112. a
33. c 73 c 113. d
34. d 74 c 114. d
35. b 75 b 115. c
36. a 76 b 116. a
37. c 77 d 117. d
38. b 78 b 118. d
39. a 79 d 119. a
40. d 80 a 120. a
ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
CIVIL &TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING(MTCE/MTCTE)/CIVIL

A
TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING/TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
I
T PAPER-II
E
Instructions:
A the wrong answer.
I programmable scientific calculator.
C
T blue ball point pen.
E ix. Hand over your OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of examination

A
I 1. The camber of road should be approximately equal to
(a) Longitudinal gradient
C (b) Two times the longitudinal gradient
(c) Three times the longitudinal gradient
T (d) Half the longitudinal gradient
E
2. Wheel load distribution in one side of Benkelman beam test is
(a) 1080 kg
(b) 2880 kg
(c) 4085 kg
(d) 8170 kg
A
3. The rate of structural deterioration of flexible pavement does not depend on.
I (a) Stability of pavement
C (b) Magnitude of traffic
(c) Growth rate
T (d) Climatic change
E 4. The structural evaluation cannot be evaluated by

(a) Dynaflect
(b) Road rater
(c) FWD
(d) Bump integrator
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A
5. The plasticity index in soil used for low volume roads should be less than
I (a) 10
(b) 9
C (c) 7
(d) 6
T
E 6. The excessive flexural stress can lead to
(a) Cracks
(b) Bending
(c) Torsion
(d) Settlement
A 7. The characteristics deflection value is

(a) Dm+s
I
(b) Dm-s
C (c) Dm×s
(d) Dm/s
T
Where, Dm is the mean deflection and s is the standard deviation.
E
8. At highway stretches where the required overtaking sight distance cannot be provided,
it is necessary to incorporate in such section the following.
(a) At least twice the SSD
(b) Half the OSD
A (c) One third OSD
(d) Three times SSD
I
9. For two major-roads with divided carriage way crossing at right angle, a full clover
C leaf interchange with four indirect ramps is provided. Following statements are made
T on turning movement of vehicles to all direction from both roads, identity the correct
statement.
E (a) Merging from left is not possible, but diverging to left is possible
(b) Merging from left and diverging to left is possible
(c) Merging from left is possible but diverging is not possible
(d) Neither merging from left nor diverging to left is possible
10. In case of summit curves, the deviation angle will be maximum when
A
(a) An ascending gradient meets with another ascending gradient
I (b) An ascending gradient meets with descending gradient
(c) A descending gradient meets with another descending gradient
C (d) An ascending gradient meets with a level surface
T 11. ITS technology used in Public Transport
(a) Public Transport Travel Information
E
(b) Electronic Toll Collection System
(c) Vehicle actuated signals
(d) Pelican Signals
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12. When the width of car parking space and width of street are limited, generally
A
preferred parking system is
I (a) Parallel parking
(b) 45◦ angle parking
C (c) 65◦ angle parking
(d) 90◦ angle parking
T
E 13. In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is
(a) Sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted
(b) Premixed with aggregates and then spread
(c) Sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted
A 14. The failure in GSB layer of rigid pavement is

(a) Pumping
I
(b) Blowing
C (c) Pumping and blowing
(d) Fatigue
T
15. The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is
E (a) Single side lighting
(b) Staggered System
(c) Central lighting system
(d) None of the Above
A 16. The full width of land acquired before finalizing a highway alignment is known as
(a) Width of formation
I (b) Right of way
(c) Carriage way
C (d) Roadway
T
17. Select the correct statement.
E (a) Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat
(b) Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam
during bituminous road construction
(c) Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements
(d) A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback
A 18. The ideal shape of a transition curve is
(a) Clothoid
I
(b) Cubic spiral
C (c) Cubic Parabola
(d) Lamniscate
T
19. A traffic rotary is justified where
E (a) Number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7
(b) Space is limited and costly
(c) When traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour
(d) When traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour
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20. Design of horizontal and vertical alignments, super-elevation and sight distance, is
A
most affected by
I (a) Length of the vehicle
(b) Height of the vehicle
C (c) Width of the vehicle
(d) Speed of the vehicle
T
E 21. The GIVE WAY control
(a) Requires the driver in the minor road to slow down to a minimum speed and allow
the vehicle on the major road to proceed.
(b) Requires the driver in the major road to slow down to a minimum speed and allow
the vehicle on the minor road to proceed.
(c) Requires the drivers on both minor and major roads to stop.
A (d) Is similar to one-way control.
I
22. Set-back distance is the distance between
C (a) Road land boundary and building line
(b) Road land boundary and control line
T (c) Building line and control line
E
23. At intersection of roads, the traffic volume study is carried out to ascertain the number
of vehicles
(a) Moving along straights
(b) Turning left
A (c) Turning right
(d) All the above
I
24. The procedure of adopting medians and traffic island in an un-channelized
C intersection is called
(a) Dividing
T
(b) Crossing
E (c) Channelizing
(d) Designing
25. To compensate the loss of tractive force of vehicles along curves of radius R, the
percentage reduction of gradient, is
(a) 50/R
A (b) 75/R
(c) 100/R
I
(d) 125/R
C
26. Roundabouts are not suitable if number of vehicles exceed
T (a) 3000
(b) 4000
E (c) 5000
(d) 6000
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27. Which of the following premix methods is used for base course?
A
(a) Bituminous carpet
I (b) Mastic asphalt
(c) Sheet asphalt
C (d) Bituminous bound macadam
T 28. The weaving length of a roadway is the distance
(a) Between the channelizing islands
E (b) Equal to half circumference
(c) Equal to total width of adjoining radial roads
(d) Equal to diameter of rotary
29. Sheep-foot-rollers is most suitable for compacting

A (a) Fine-grained soil
(b) Cohesive soil
I (c) Cohesionless soil
(d) Coarse-grained soil
C
30. At a road junction, 7 cross conflict points are severe if
T (a) Both are one-way roads
(b) Both are two-way roads
E (c) One is two-way road and other is one-way road
(d) None of these
31. The cross slope of the pedestrian access route shall be maximum
(a) 1:48
(b) 1:54
A
(c) 1:36
I (d) 1:16
C 32. The size of particles preferred in GSB layer of pavement is

(a) 0.075 mm
T (b) 0.150 mm
E (c) 0.300 mm
(d) 0.600 mm
33. The minimum value of camber provided for thin bituminous surface hill roads, is
(a) 2.2. %
(b) 2.5 %
A (c) 3.0 %
(d) 3.5 %
I
C 34. For the movement of vehicles at an intersection of two roads, without any
interference, the type of grade separator generally preferred to, is
T (a) Delta
(b) Trumpet
E (c) Diamond interchange
(d) Clover leaf
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35. Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly constructed bituminous surface followed by
A
spreading of 6.3 mm coarse aggregates and rolled. Which one of the following is
I indicated by this type of construction?
(a) Surface dressing
C (b) Gravel bitumen mix
(c) Liquid seal coat
T (d) Seal coat
E 36. Any gradient on a road is said to be an exceptional gradient, if it is
(a) More than ruling gradient
(b) Less than average gradient
(c) More than floating gradient
(d) Less than minimum gradient or more than maximum gradient
A
37. The distance travelled by a moving vehicle during perception and brake reaction
I times, is known as
(a) Sight distance
C (b) Stopping distance
(c) Lag distance
T (d) None of these
E 38. For a 6.6 m wide two lane pavement, berms are provided on either side having a
width of
(a) 1.00 m
(b) 1.25 m
(c) 1.50 m
A (d) 1.75 m
I 39. On concrete roads, the camber generally provided, is

(a) 1 in 20 to 1 in 24
C (b) 1 in 30 to 1 in 48
(c) 1 in 36 to 1 in 48
T (d) 1 in 60 to 1 in 72
E 40. If no super elevation is provided on a road along curves, potholes may develop at
(a) Inner edges of the road
(b) Outer edge of the road
(c) Center of the road
(d) Nowhere on the road
A
41. Roughness index of roads, is expressed as
I (a) Size of the stones on the pavement
(b) Number of patches on the pavement
C (c) Cumulative deformation of surface per horizontal distance
(d) Type of the road surface
T
42. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a
E
highway material?
(a) Stability
(b) Ease of compaction
(c) Good drainage
(d) Bitumen adhesion
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43. Benkelman beam deflection method is used for the design of

A
(a) Rigid overlays on a rigid pavement
I (b) Rigid overlays on a flexible pavement
(c) Flexible overlays on a flexible pavement
C (d) Flexible overlays on a rigid pavement
T 44. A road surface is corrected by spreading a layer of dry sand in a thickness varying
from 5mm to 10 mm and rolling the surface by heavy rollers. Which one of the
E following maintenance works does it apply to?
(a) Repair of ruts and patches
(b) Repairing of blow ups
(c) Repair of bleeding surface
(d) Sealing of joints and cracks
A
45. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The super-elevation on roads is
I (a) Directly proportional to width of pavement
(b) Directly proportional to velocity of vehicles
C (c) Inversely proportional to acceleration due to gravity
(d) Inversely proportional to the radius of curvature
T
46. The safety within a roundabout and the efficiency of a roundabout can be increased,
E
respectively, by
(a) Increasing the entry radius and increasing the exit radius
(b) Increasing the entry radius and decreasing the exit radius
(c) Decreasing the entry radius and increasing the exit radius
(d) Decreasing the entry radius and decreasing the exit radius
A
47. Which one of the following defects indicates progressive disintegration of bituminous
I premix carpet surfacing by loss of aggregates?
(a) Potholes
C (b) Ravelling
(c) Edge breaking
T (d) Rutting
E 48. Which one of the following causes ravelling in bituminous pavement?
(a) Use of soft bitumen
(b) Excessive bitumen content
(c) Low bitumen content
(d) Use of open graded aggregates
A
49. If the elevations along a road increase, the slope of the road along the longitudinal
I direction, is known as
(a) Gradient
C (b) Grade
(c) Positive grade
T
(d) Negative grade
E
50. The usual width of parapet walls along Highways in hilly region, is
(a) 50 cm
(b) 60 cm
(c) 70 cm
(d) 75 cm
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51. Land use, transportation and road network plans are

A
(a) Inter linked
I (b) Intra linked
(c) Not linked
C (d) Depends on the network
T 52. A well-designed signalized intersection is one in which the
E (a) Crossing conflicts are increased
(b) Total delay is minimized
(c) Cycle time is equal to the sum of red and green times in all phases
(d) Cycle time is equal to the sum of red and yellow times in all phases
53. The mechanical extra widening required for 10.5 m wide pavement on a horizontal
A curve of radius R meter is given by
(a) l2/2R
I
(b) 2l2/3R
C (c) l2/R
(d) 3l2/2R
T
Where, l is the length of the wheel base of vehicles in meter.
E 54. Which movement is useful for planning a bye pass?
(a) Internal to Internal
(b) Internal to External
(c) External to Internal
(d) External to External
A 55. On a right angled road intersection with two-way traffic, the total number of conflict
I points is
(a) 6
C (b) 11
(c) 18
T (d) 24
E 56. The average delay per pedestrian (dp) for a crosswalk is given by the equation
(a) dp = 0.9(C − g)/ C2
(b) dp = 0.5(C − g)2/ C
(c) dp = 0.9(C − g)2/ C
(d) dp = 0.5(C − g)/ C2
A
Where, g = effective green time (for pedestrians) and C = cycle length.
I
57. The given figure represents which type of grade separated intersection
C
T
E
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(a) Trumpet Interchange

A
(b) Diamond Interchange
I (c) Cloverleaf Interchange
(d) Partial Cloverleaf Interchange
C
58. The length of summit curve on a two lane two-way highway depends upon
T (a) Allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
(b) Coefficient of lateral friction
E (c) Required stopping sight distance
(d) Required overtaking sight distance
59. As per IRC: 37-2012, in order to control subgrade rutting in flexible pavements, the
parameter to be considered is
(a) Horizontal tensile strain at the bottom of bituminous layer
A
(b) Vertical compressive strain on top of subgrade
I (c) Vertical compressive stress on top of granular layer
(d) Vertical deflection at the surface of the pavement
C
60. In highway construction, rolling starts from
T (a) Sides and proceed to center
E (b) Center and proceed to sides
(c) One side and proceed to other side
(d) Any of the above
61. Stopping sight distance and frictional coefficients are

(a) Directly proportional to each other
A (b) Inversely proportional to each other
(c) Unrelated
I (d) Either directly or inversely proportional to each other depending on the nature of
pavement
C
T 62. Shoulders for high traffic volume roads, should
(a) Support and protect the ends of carriage ways
E (b) Be stable throughout the year to be used by vehicles in the case of emergency
(c) Not allow entrance of water to sub-grade
(d) All the above
63. General land use planning deals with,

A (a) Residential
(b) Institutional
I (c) Forests
(d) Commercial
C
64. Speed regulations on roads is decided on the basis of
T
(a) 60thpercentile cumulative frequency
E (b) 75thpercentile cumulative frequency
(c) 80thpercentile cumulative frequency
(d) 85thpercentile cumulative frequency
Page 9 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
65. The spacing between the highway lamps is

A
(a) 10 to 15 m
I (b) 15 to 30 m
(c) 30 to 45 m
C (d) 30 to 60 m
T 66. When load is applied on concrete pavement
E (a) Away from edges, the maximum bending moment is negative
(b) Away from edges, the maximum bending moment cause compression
(c) On the edges, the maximum stress is parallel to the edge of the slab
(d) None of these
67. For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of
A operations after spreading coarse aggregates is
(a) Dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler
I
(b) Dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening
C (c) Dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
(d) Dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling
T
68. Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is
E (a) More than that in tar
(b) Less than that in tar
(c) Equal to that in tar
A 69. The minimum width of side walk is

(a) 1.0m
I (b) 1.5m
(c) 1.25m
C (d) 1.45m
T
70. If an additional pavement is provided for lane change, then that intersection is called
E (a) Tee intersection
(b) Rotary intersection
(c) Flared intersection
(d) Skewed intersection
71. If the side walk is 1.5m, then the capacity of pedestrians in one way is
A (a) 1200
(b) 800
I
(c) 1600
C (d) 2400
T 72. The minimum radius for rotary recommended by IRC is

(a) 1.25 times of entry radius
E (b) 1.33 times of entry radius
(c) 1.5 times of entry radius
(d) 1.7 times of entry radius
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ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
73. The cross slope of paved footpath may be

A
(a) 1 to 2%
I (b) 2 to 3%
(c) 3 to 4%
C (d) 4% only
T 74. Which of the following model is based on entropy maximization and is a break
E through contribution in the urban spatial allocation models?
(a) Hutchinson’s Model
(b) Projective Land Use Model
(c) Wilson Model
(d) Time Oriented Metropolitan Model
A 75. The minimum amount of highway lighting to be provided on urban roads is

I (a) 30 Lux
(b) 15 Lux
C (c) 10 Lux
(d) 40 Lux
T
E 76. The Lowry model does not
(a) Assumes an economic base mechanism where employment is divided into basic
and non -basic sectors.
(b) Assumes that the location of basic industry is independent of the location of
residential areas and service centers.
(c) Ensures that populations located in any zones does not violate a maximum density
A or holding capacity constraint is placed on each category of service employment.
(d) Relate the population and employment at one particular time horizon.
I
C 77. If the object appears darker than the road surface it is called
(a) Discernment
T (b) Silhouette
(c) Partial discernment
E (d) Reverse silhouette
78. The steepest gradient permitted on roads which, in ordinary conditions, does not
exceed, is known
(a) Exceptional gradient
A (b) Ruling gradient
(c) Maximum gradient
I (d) Floating gradient
C
79. An embankment is classified as high if height exceeds
T (a) 5.0 m
(b) 4.0 m
E (c) 3.0 m
(d) 6.0 m
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ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
80. Choose the incorrect statement. In the Intervening Opportunities model

A
(a) Spatial distribution of an activity is viewed as the successive evaluation of
I alternative opportunities for sites which are rank ordered in time from an urban
center.
C (b) Opportunities are defined as the product of available land and density of activity.
(c) It is presumed that the settlement rate per unit of opportunity is lowest at the point
T of maximum access.
E (d) The concept of an opportunity for a unit of activity involves both land and
measure of the intensity of use of that land.

A
I 81. The maximum superelevation to be provided on a road curve is 1 in 15. If the rate of
C change of superelevation is specified as 1 in 120 and the road width is 10 m, then the
minimum length of the transition curve on each end will be
T (a) 120 m
(b) 100 m
E (c) 80 m
(d) 180 m
82. A four- lane divided highway, with each carriageway being 7.0m wide, is to be
constructed in a zone of high rainfall. In this stretch, the highway has a longitudinal
slope of 3% and is provided a camber of 2%. What is the hydraulic gradient on this
A
highway in this stretch?
I (a) 4.0%
(b) 3.6%
C (c) 4.5%
(d) 3.0%
T
E 83. Two major roads with two lanes each are crossing in an urban area to form an un-
controlled intersection. The number of conflict points when both roads are one-way is
“X” and when both roads are two-way is “Y”. The ratio of X to Y is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.33
(c) 0.50
A (d) 0.75
I 84. What will be the non-passing sight distance on a highway for a design speed of 100
C kmph when its ascending gradient is 2%? Assume coefficient of friction as 0.7 and
brake efficiency as 50%.
T (a) 176 m
(b) 200 m
E (c) 150 m
(d) 185 m
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ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
85. While designing a hill road with a ruling gradient of 6%, if a sharp horizontal curve of
A
50 m radius is encountered, the compensated gradient as per IRC is
I (a) 5.0%
(b) 4.75%
C (c) 4.4%
(d) 5.45%
T
E 86. If the coefficient of friction on the road surface is 0.15 and a maximum super-
elevation 1 in 15 is provided, the maximum speed of the vehicles on a curve of 100
meter radius, is
(a) 32.44 km/hour
(b) 42.44 kg/hour
(c) 52.44 km/hour
A (d) 62.44 km/hour
I
87. The capacity of rotary in PCU per hour for a proportion of weaving traffic 0.5 and the
C width of weaving section is 12 m, average width of entry is 0.4m and length of the
weaving section is 7.2 m
T (a) 1088 PCU
(b) 1100 PCU
E (c) 1200 PCU
(d) 1300 PCU
88. Which of the following are the criteria associated with the design of sag vertical
curve?
A 1. Provision of minimum stopping distance during day time
2. Adequate drainage
I 3. Comfortable operation
4. Pleasant appearance
C Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a) 1, 2 and 4
T
(b) 2 and 3
E (c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
89. In a traffic lane the traffic moving extreme left is 250 PCU and in extreme right it is
240 PCU, the sum of the weaving traffic crossing left and right is 500 PCU, find
proportion of weaving traffic
A (a) 0.5
(b) 1.5
I
(c) 2.5
C (d) 3.0
T 90. While driving at a speed of 30 kmph (with available friction 0.4) down the grade, the
driver requires a breaking distance twice the required for stopping the vehicle when
E he travels up the same grade. The grade is
(a) 7%
(b) 10.6 %
(c) 13.3%
(d) 33.3 %
Page 13 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
A
91. A sign is required to be put up asking drivers to slow down to 30 km/h before entering
I Zone Y (see figure). On this road, vehicles require 174 m to slow down to 30 km/h
(the distance of 174 m includes the distance travelled during the perception-reaction
C time of drivers). The sign can be read by 6/6 vision drivers from a distance of 48 m.
The sign is placed at a distance of “x” m from the start of Zone Y so that even a 6/9
T vision driver can slow down to 30 km/h before entering the zone. The minimum value
E of “x” is
A
I
C
T (a) 136 m
(b) 142 m
E (c) 152 m
(d) 156 m
92. Consider the following statements in reference to WBM and WMM.

1. WBM is a road mix and WMM is a plant mix.
2. WBM usually has plastic filler while WMM has non plastic filler.
A 3. WBM is a modern road mix and WMM is a traditional road mix.
I Which of these are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
C (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
T (d) 2 only
E
93. For a highway with design speed of 100 kmph, the safe overtaking sight distance is (a
= 0.53 m/sec2)
(a) 300 m
(b) 750 m
(c) 320 m
A (d) 470 m
I
94. If the velocity of moving vehicles on a road is 24 km/per hour, stopping distance is 19
C meters and average length of vehicles is 6 meters, the basic capacity of lane, is
(a) 560 vehicles per hour
T (b) 760 vehicles per hour
(c) 960 vehicles per hour
E
(d) 1160 vehicles per hour
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A 95. Match the following.

I
1. A road is having a horizontal curve of 400 m radius on which a A. 0.13
C super elevation of 0.07 is provided. The coefficient of lateral friction
mobilized on the curve when a vehicle is travelling at 100 kmph is B. 280 m
T
2. For a road with camber of 3% and the design speed of 80 kmph, the C. 0.154
E
minimum radius of the curve beyond which NO super elevation is
needed is D. 585 m
3. Design rate of super elevation for horizontal highway curve of E. 0.07

radius 450 m for a mixed traffic condition, having speed of 125 kmph
A is
I 1 2 3
C (a) C D A
(b) C B E
T (c) A D C
(d) A B C
E
96. A road is being designed for a speed of 110 km/hr on a horizontal curve with a super
elevation of 8%. If the coefficient of side friction is 0.10, the minimum radius of the
curve (in m) required for safe vehicular movement is
(a) 115.0
(b) 152.3
A
(c) 264.3
I (d) 528.5
C 97. A valley curve is formed by a descending grade of 1 in 20 meeting an ascending grade

of 1 in 30. What is the length of valley curve (in m) to fulfill comfort condition for a
T design speed of 85 kmph? Assume allowable rate of change of centrifugal
E acceleration, C = 0.65 m / sec3.
(a) 82.15
(b) 75.36
(c) 68.23
(d) 83.40
A 98. The capacity of a roundabout is 3733 PCU per hour and the provided width of
weaving section is 14 m. The length of the weaving section between channelizing
I
islands is 35 m. The crossing traffic and total traffic on the weaving section are 1000
C and 2000 PCU per hour respectively. Then the average entry width is,
(a) 8.4 m
T (b) 9.2 m
(c) 7.6 m
E (d) 10.2 m
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ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
A
99. Q19. Match list 1 with list 2 correctly.
I List 1: List 2:
A. Settlement 1. A localized rather abrupt lowering of the road surface
C B. Subsidence 2. A general lowering of road surface
C. Depression 3. Irregular deformation of the road
T D. Distortion 4. Dished localized deformation
E A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
A 100. The extra widening required for a two-lane national highway at a horizontal curve of
300 m radius, considering a wheel base of 8 m and a design speed of 100 kmph is
I
(a) 0.42 m
C (b) 0.62 m
(c) 0.82 m
T (d) 0.92 m
E 101. Benkelman beam deflection studies were carried out on 15 selected points on a stretch
of flexible pavement during summer season using a dual wheel load of 4085 Kg, 5.6
kg/cm2 pressure. The deflection values obtained in mm after making the necessary leg
correction are given below.
1.40, 1.32, 1.25, 1.35, 1.48, 1.60, 1.65, 1.55, 1.45, 1.40, 1.36, 1.46, 1.50, 1.52, 1.45
A mm
The characteristics deflection Dc will be
I (a) 1.99 mm
(b) 1.45 mm
C (c) 0.107 mm
(d) 1.56 mm
T
E 102. A vehicle was stopped in 2 seconds by fully jamming the brakes. The skid marks
measured 9.8m. The average skid resistance coefficient will be
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.25
A
103. The design speed for a two-lane road is 80 kmph. When a design vehicle with a
I
wheelbase of 6.6 m is negotiating a horizontal curve on that road, the off-tracking is
C measured as 0.096 m. The required widening of carriageway of the two-lane road on
the curve is approximately
T (a) 0.55 m
(b) 0.65 m
E (c) 0.75 m
(d) 0.85 m
Page 16 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
A
104. The radius of a horizontal circular curve on a highway is 120 m. The design speed is
I 60 km/hour, and the design coefficient of lateral friction between the tyre and the road
surface is 0.15. The estimated value of superelevation required (if full friction is
C assumed to developed), and the value of coefficient of friction needed (if no
superelevation is provided) will, respectively, be
T (a) 111.6 and 0.10
E (b) 110.5 and 0.37
(c) 111.6 and 0.24
(d) 112.9 and 0.24
105. Over taking time required for a vehicle with design speed 50 kmph and overtaking
acceleration 1.25 m/sec2 to overtake a vehicle moving at a speed 30 km ph, is
A (a) 5.0 secs
(b) 6.17 secs
I
(c) 25.48 secs
C (d) 30 secs
T 106. What is the deflection at the surface of a flexible pavement due to a wheel load of 40
KN and tyre pressure of 0.5 MPa? The value of E for pavement and subgrade is
E 20MPa.
(a) 15 mm
(b) 11 mm
(c) 9 mm
(d) 6 mm
A 107. If a descending gradient of 1 in 25 meets an ascending gradient of 1 in 40, then the
length of valley curve required for a head light sight distance of 100 m will be
I (a) 30 m
C (b) 130 m
(c) 310 m
T (d) 630 m
E 108. In a braking test, a vehicle traveling at 28 kmph was stopped at a braking distance of
8.0 m. The average value of the vehicle's skid resistance (friction coefficient) is
(a) 0.48
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.38
(d) 0.16
A
109. If the average width of the entry section is 3m and the exit is 6m, then the average
I
width is
C (a) 4m
(b) 4.5m
T (c) 5.0m
(d) 5.5m
E
110. The number of parking spaces for a kerb of 59 m and having the length of car as 5.0
m is
(a) 9
(b) 10
Page 17 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
(c) 11
A
(d) 12
I
111. In an area of heavy rainfall, a State Highway of high-type bituminous surface with
C four lanes (14.0 m wide) is to be constructed. What will be the height of the crown of
the road relative to the edges for a composite camber (i.e. middle half as parabolic and
T the rest as straight lines)?
E (a) 14 cm
(b) 21 cm
(c) 28 cm
(d) 7 cm
112. What is the value of the resultant retardation in m/s2, when a longitudinal friction
A coefficient of 0.4 is allowed for stopping the vehicle on road?
I (a) 0.98
(b) 1.95
C (c) 2.93
(d) 3.93
T
113. A super -elevation e is provided on a circular horizontal curve such that a vehicle can
E be stopped on the curve without sliding Assuming a design speed v and maximum
coefficient of side friction fmax, which one of the following criteria should be
satisfied?
(a) e ≤ fmax
(b) e > fmax
(c) No limit one can be set
A
(d) e = [1−(fmax)2]/ fmax
I
114. A vehicle negotiates a transition curve with uniform speed v. If the radius of the
C horizontal curve and the allowable jerk are R and J, respectively, the minimum length
of the transition curve is
T (a) R3/ (v J)
(b) J3/ (R v)
E (c) v2 R/J
(d) v3/ (R J)
115. Consider the following statements in the context of geometric design of roads:
1. A simple parabolic curve is an acceptable shape for summit curves.
2. Comfort to passengers is an important consideration in the design of summit
A
curves.
I The correct option evaluating the above statements and their relationship is
(a) 1 is true, 2 is false
C (b) 1 is true, 2 is true and 2 is the correct reason for 1
(c) 1 is true, 2 is true and 2 is not the correct reason for 1
T (d) 1 is false and 2 is true
E 116. Which of the following are not strictly related to design of traffic rotary intersection?
1. Radius of central island
2. Weaving action
3. Ramps and interchanges
4. Acceleration lanes
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG2CTE42
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A
(a) 1 and 2
I (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
C (d) 1 and 4
117. In order to facilitate the drainage of water in hill roads where rainfall is heavy, it is
T recommended that culverts should be provided every
E (a) 60 to 90 m
(b) 40 to 60 m
(c) 110 to 140 m
(d) 40 to 80 m
118. In reinforced concrete pavements, the reinforcement recommended for heavy traffic
A intensity is
(a) 10 kg/m2
I
(b) 3 kg/m2
C (c) 7 kg/m2
(d) 5 kg/m2
T
119. Design a street lightning system for the following conditions
E Street width = 15 m
Mounting height = 7.5 m
Lamp size = 6000 lumen
Coefficient of utilization = 0.44
Maintenance factor = 0.8
A Calculate the spacing between lightings units to produce average Lux= 6
(a) 23.2
I (b) 16.1
(c) 18.4
C (d) 26.3
T
120. The ratio of weaving width to weaving length of the roundabout is in between
E (a) 0.16 and 0.30
(b) 0.12 and 0.40
(c) 0.18 and 0.70
(d) 0.08 and 0.30
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
PG2CTE42
ANSWER KEY 7
Subject: Civil and Transport Engg

Paper: 2

1. d 41 c 81. c
2. c 42 d 82. d
3. d 43 c 83. a
4. d 44 b 84. a
5. d 45 b 85. c
6. a 46 c 86. c
7. a 47 a 87. a
8. a 48 d 88. c
9. b 49 a 89. a
10. b 50 b 90. c
11. a 51 a 91. b
12. a 52 b 92. a
13. c 53 d 93. b
14. c 54 d 94. c
15. a 55 d 95. d
16. b 56 b 96. d
17. d 57 b 97. a
18. a 58 d 98. a
19. a 59 b 99. a
20. d 60 a 100. c
21. a 61 b 101. d
22. a 62 d 102. b
23. d 63 c 103. b
24. c 64 d 104. c
25. b 65 d 105. b
26. a 66 c 106. d
27. d 67 c 107. b
28. b 68 b 108. c
29. a 69 b 109. b
30. c 70 c 110. b
31. a 71 a 111. a
32. a 72 b 112. d
33. b 73 c 113. a
34. d 74 c 114. d
35. a 75 a 115. a
36. d 76 d 116. b
37. c 77 b 117. a
38. c 78 c 118. c
39. d 79 a 119. a
40. b 80 c 120. b
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS

PAPER-I
C
Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue
I
ball point pen.
T examination before leaving the examination hall.
4 2
1. The lowest eigenvalue of the 2x2 matrix is
1 3
a) 0
A b) 1
c) 2
I d) 3
C
2. If a square matrix A is real and symmetric, the eigen values
T a) Are always real
b) Are always real and positive
E c) Are always real and non-negative
d) Occur in complex conjugate pairs
3. The interference between the neighbouring base stations is avoided by

a) Assigning different group of channels
A b) Using transmitters with different power level
I c) Using different antennas
d) All of the above
C
T
E
Page 1 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 4. Which of the following is not a common microwave application?

a) Satellite communication
I b) Mobile radio
C c) Radar
d) Telephone
T
E 5. For a unilateral transistor, the S parameter that is zero is
a) S11
b) S12
c) S21
d) S22
A
6. The wavelength of microwaves at 100 GHz will be
I a) 30 cm
C b) 3 cm
c) 0.3 cm
T d) 0.03 cm
E
7. If the Hamming distance between a data word and the corresponding code word is three,
the number of bits in error will be
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
A
I
8. A simple parity-check code can detect
C a) An odd number of errors
T b) An even number of errors
c) Two errors
E d) No errors
9. In linear block code, the any two valid code words create another valid code word using
a) ANDing operation
b) XORing operation
A c) ORing operation
I
C 10. If the generator matrix for a linear binary code is G =
0 0 1 1 1 0 1
T
0 1 0 0 1 1 1
E 1 0 0 1 1 1 0
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ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A then what is the minimum distance of the code?

a) 3
I b) 5
C c) 4
d) 7
T
E 11. The eigen values of a skew-symmetric matrix are
a) Always zero
b) Always pure imaginary
c) Either zero or pure imaginary
d) Always real
A
12. Suppose that the eigen values of matrix A are 1, 2 and 4. The determinant of
I
(A-1)T is
C
a) 0.5
T b) 2
c) 0.125
E d) 1
0 1 1
13. The dimension of the null space of the matrix 1 −1 0
−1 0 −1
A a) 0
b) 1
I c) 2
C d) 3
T 14. On which of the following principle does Klystron operates?

E a) Amplitude Modulation
b) Frequency Modulation
c) Pulse Modulation
d) Velocity Modulation
A 15. In multicavity Klystron additional cavities are inserted between buncher& catcher
cavities to achieve
I
a) Higher gain
C b) Higher efficiency
c) Higher frequency
T
d) Higher bandwidth
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 16. A transmission line has a VSWR of 3, the reflection coefficient is

a) 0
I b) 1/2
C c) 1
d) 1/4
T
17. The wavelength of a wave propagating in a wave guide is
E a) Smaller than the free space wavelength
b) Greater than the free space wavelength
c) Directly proportional to the group velocity
d) Inversely proportional to the phase velocity
A
18. A convolutional code is described by g1 = [1 0 1], g2 = [1 1 1], g3 = [1 1 1]
I a) 8
b) 9
C
c) 7
T d) 6
E 19. The spectral density and auto correlation function of white noise is
a) Delta and uniform
b) Uniform and delta
c) Gaussian and Uniform
d) Gaussian and delta
A
20. If random process X(t) and Y (t) are orthogonal then
I
a) SXY (f) = 0
C b) SXY (f) = SX (f) = Sy (f)
T c) RXY (𝜏) = h (𝜏)
d) H (f) = 0
E
21. In case of open circuit transmission lines the reflection coefficient is
a) -1
b) 0
c) 0.5
A
d) 1
I
22. What does the voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) of unity imply?
C a) Transmission line is open circuited
T b) Transmission line is short circuited
c) Transmission line’s characteristic impedance is equal to load impedance
E d) None of above
Page 4 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 23. In case the characteristic impedance of the line is equal to the load impedance
a) All the energy will pass to the earth
I b) All the energy will be lost in transmission losses
C c) The system will resonate badly
d) All the energy sent will be absorbed by the load
T
24. Scattering matrix for a lossless network is
E
a) Unitary
b) Symmetric
c) Identity matrix
d) Null matrix
A
25. If the reflection coefficient of a two port network is 0.75 then the return loss in the network
I is
C a) -1.25 dB
b) 1.25 dB
T c) 2.5 dB
E d) -2.5 dB
26. If the input power is divided in the ratio of 2:1 in a T-junction coupler and the characteristic
impedance of the 2 output lines is 300 𝛺 and 150 𝛺, then the impedance of the input line is
a) 100 𝛺
A b) 150 𝛺
c) 300 𝛺
I d) 450 𝛺
C
27. The diagonal elements of the s-matrix of a resistive T junction are
T
a) 0
E b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 1.5
28. The auto-correlation function Rx (𝜏) discrete time random process has the property that Rx
A (0) is equal to
I a) The square of the mean value of the process
b) The mean squared value of the process
C c) The smallest value of Rx (𝜏)
1
T d) [Rx(𝜏) +Rx (−𝜏)]
2
E
Page 5 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 29. The probability cumulative distribution function must be monotone and

a) Increasing
I b) Decreasing
C c) Non-increasing
d) Non-decreasing
T
30. Refractive index of materials is approximately equal to square root of
E a) Electrical permittivity
b) Magnetic permeability
c) Electrical permittivity x magnetic permeability
A 31. The multicavity Klystron
I a) Has a higher repeller voltage to ensure a rapid transit time
b) Is not suitable for pulsed operation
C c) Is not a good low-level amplifier because of noise
T d) Needs a long transit time through the buncher cavity to ensure current modulation
E 32. The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling-wave tube is to

a) Ensure broadband operation
b) Prevent the electron beam from spreading in the long tube
c) Reduce the noise figure
d) Reduce the axial velocity of the RF field
A
33. To avoid difficulties with strapping at high frequencies, the type of cavity structure used in
I
the magnetron is
C a) Rising sun
b) Vane
T
c) Slot
E d) Hole and slot
34. A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to

a) Help in focusing the electron beam, thus preventing spreading
b) Ensure that the electrons will orbit around the cathode
A c) Prevent anode current in the absence of oscillation
d) Ensure that the oscillations are pulsed
I
C 35. In a circular waveguide the dominant mode is
a) TE01
T
b) TE11
E c) TE20
d) TE21
Page 6 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 36. The diagram to show distance time history of electrons in klystron amplifier is called
a) Apple gate diagram
I b) Bunching diagram
C c) Velocity modulation diagram
d) Asynchronous diagram
T
E 37. A rate 1/2 convolutional code with dfree = 10 is used to encode a data sequence occurring at
a rate of 1000 bit/s. The modulation is binary PSK. The DS spread spectrum sequence has a
chip rate of 10 MHZ. The processing gain is
a) 37 dB
b) 50 dB
A c) 32 dB
d) 40 dB
I
C 38. A micromachining technique where suspended structures are formed on silicon substrates is
a) RF MEMS
T
b) MMIC
E c) HIC
39. The noise produced in a microwave tube due to random nature of emission and electron
flow is called as
A a) Thermal noise
b) White noise
I
c) Johnson noise
C d) Shot noise
T 40. In a directional coupler
E a) Directivity (dB) equals isolation plus coupling
b) Isolation (dB) equals coupling plus directivity
c) Isolation (dB) equals (coupling) (directivity)
d) Coupling dB) equals isolation plus directivity
A 41. The frequency of oscillation in a backward wave oscillator can be changed by

I a) Changing the rate of thermionic emission
b) Varying the voltage which controls beam velocity
C c) Varying the beam current
T d) Both by varying the beam current and by light varying the voltage which controls beam
velocity
E
Page 7 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 42. The action of backward wave oscillator is similar to that of

a) Reflex klystron oscillator
I b) Klystron amplifier
C c) Magnetron
d) TWT
T
43. The semiconductor diode which can be used in switching circuit in microwave range is
E
a) Gunn diode
b) Tunnel diode
c) Varactor diode
d) PIN diode
A
44. Bandwidth of the CDMA system is spread by a factor of N where N is the
I a) Number of Chips in Spreading Code
b) Number of Antennas
C
c) Number of Users
T d) Number of Multipath Components
E 45. Hartley’s law is_________ (B=Bandwidth, I=Information Capacity, t = time)

a) I 𝛼B x t
b) B 𝛼 It
c) t𝛼 𝐼𝐵
d) None
A
I 46. Nyquist formula for channel capacity is fb =
a) 2B log10M
C b) B log2M
T c) 2B loge M
d) 2B log10 M
E
47. Trellis coding introduces controlled redundancy in the bit stream with _______ code.
a) Non-binary code
b) Convolution code
c) Cyclic code
A d) None of the above
I
48. If the line speed is 8-bit PCM for a speech signal ranging up to 1V then the resolution is
C ________
a) 0.003922 V
T
b) 0.03922 V
E c) 0.3922 V
Page 8 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 49. If the reliability is 0% and its outage time is 100% then for a reliability of 99.9999, what is
the outage time in %?
I a) 0.01
C b) 1.0
c) 0.0001
T d) None of the above
E
50. Space diversity provides _________ redundancy but not _________ redundancy.
a) Path, time
b) Path, equipment
c) Time, equipment
A d) Path, angle
I 51. S-parameters are expressed as a ratio of

a) Voltage and current
C b) Impedance at different parts
T c) Incident and reflected voltage wave
E
52. The relation between incident voltage matrix, reflected voltage matrix and S matrix for a
microwave network is
a) [V-] = [S][V+]
b) [V+] = [S][V-]
A c) [V-][V] = [S]
d) [S] = [V][V-]
I
C 53. The specific element Sij of the scattering matrix can be determined as
a) Sij = Vi-/Vj+
T
b) Sij = Vi-/Vj-
E c) Sij= Vj+/Vi-
54. The device used to get the measurement of S parameter of n-port microwave network is
a) CRO
A b) Network Analyzer
c) Spectrum Analyzer
I
d) Circulator
C
55. Scattering matrix for a reciprocal network is
T a) Symmetric
b) Unitary
E c) Skew symmetric
d) Identity matrix
Page 9 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 56. S12 = 0.85-45o and S21 = 0.85 + 45ofor a two port network. Then the two port network is
a) Non -reciprocal
I b) Lossless
C c) Reciprocal
d) Lossy
T
57. Microstrip can be fabricated using
E a) Photo Lithographic process
b) Electrochemical process
c) Mechanical method
A 58. The mode of propagation in microstrip line is
I a) TEM
b) TE
C c) TM
T d) Quasi TEM
E 59. The effective dielectric constant of a microstrip line is

a) One
b) Equal to material permittivity
c) Greater than one
d) None of above
A
60. The effective dielectric constant of a microstrip line is 2.4 than the phase velocity in the
I
line is
C a) 1.5x108m/s
b) 1.936x108m/s
T
c) 3x108 m/s
E d) None
61. A T junction power divider can be used only for division of power
a) True
b) False
A c) Sometime true
d) None
I
C 62. Hybrid couplers are also a type of directional coupler
a) True
T
b) False
E c) Always false
d) None
Page 10 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 63. If the input power is divided in the ratio of 2:1 in a T-junction coupler and the characteristic
impedance of the 2 output lines is 150-𝛺 and 75𝛺, then the impedance of input line is
I a) 100𝛺
C b) 150𝛺
c) 50 𝛺
T d) None
E
64. _______ compensates for IST and compensates the fading impairments
a) Equalization, Diversity
b) Diversity, Equalization
c) Diversity, Coding
A d) Coding, Equalization
I 65. Rake receiver in CDMA improves link through ________ diversity.

a) Space
C b) Time
T c) Angle
d) Polarization
E
66. An equalizer is usually implemented at ________ in a receiver.
a) Mixer
b) IF
c) Oscillator
I 67. TDMA wireless system are _______ suited for equalizer.

a) Not
C
b) Well
T c) Partially
E
68. SSMA (Spread spectrum multiple access) is not very _________ efficient in case of single
user
a) Power
b) Bandwidth
A
c) Speed
C 69. In FHMA, the frequency hopped signal changes channels at _______ intervals.
T a) Rapid
b) Long
E c) Medium
d) None
Page 11 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 70. Home RF and Bluetooth uses ________ for low cost and power efficiency.
a) CDMA
I b) SSMA
C c) FHMA
T
71. Channel data rates are ___________ in CDMA resulting the symbol (chip) duration _____.
E a) High, short
b) Low, fast
c) High, fast
A 72. Self jamming is a problem in ________.

I a) CDMA
b) TDMA
C c) FDMA
E 73. Turbo codes combine the capabilities of ______ with channel estimation theory
a) Convolutional code
b) Trellis code
c) Cyclic code
d) None
A
74. ____ dB coding can be achieved by Trellis code without compromising effective
I information rate and without any bandwidth expansion
C a) 2
b) 6
T c) 9
E d) 12
75. Coding gain is what allows a channel error rate of 10 -2 to support decoded user data rate
which are_____ or better
a) 10-3
b) 10-4
A
c) 10-5
I d) 10-1
C 76. Bit rate and Band are same
T a) True
b) False
E c) Non link
d) None
Page 12 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 77. The rate of change of ASKW waveform is same as the rate of change of binary input thus
the bit rate equals the band
I a) True
C b) False
c) No link
T d) None
E 78. Which is a low performance type digital modulation?
a) ASK
b) FSK
c) PSK
d) None
A
I 79. QAM is similar to
a) ASK
C b) PSK
T c) FSK
d) None
E
80. If ina 8-PSK system the band is 8000, bandwidth is 8000 Hz and bitrate is 24 kbps then the
bandwidth efficiency
a) 3 bits/second/cycle
b) 6 bits/second/cycle
A c) 5 bits/second/cycle
I d) None
C PART-B(40x2 = 80 Marks)
T
81. The probability density function of a continuous random variable is of the form
E 1
𝑓 x(X)= 𝑒-|x| for - ∞ < 𝑥 < +∞
2
The mean of random variables is
a) 4
b) 2
A c) 0.5
d) 0
I
C 82. A stationary random process X(t) is applied to the input of the system for which
h(t)=3t2e-8tu(t). If E [X(t)] = 2], the mean value of the system’s response Y(t) is
T 1
a) 128
E 3
b) 128
Page 13 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
1
A c)
64
1
I d) 32
C 3
83. A random noise X(t) having a power spectrum 𝜌𝑋𝑋 (𝑤) = 49+𝑤 2 is applied to a
T differentiator that has a transfer function H (w) = 𝑗w. The output is applied to a network
E for which h(t) = t2e -7t u(t). The average power in X (t) is
a) 5/21
b) 5/24
c) 5/42
d) 3/14
A
84. Which of the following statement is/are true?
I 1.For stationary process, statistical averages are independent of Time
C 2.In Ergodic process, time averages equal corresponding ensemble average
a) Both 1 and 2 are true
T b) 1 is true and 2 is false
E c) Both 1 and 2 are false
d) 1 is false and 2 is true

1.For Wide sense stationary process, mean and auto-correlation are independent on time
A 2.In Cyclostationary process, statistical averages are periodic in time
a) Both 1 and 2 are true
I b) 1 is true and 2 is false
C c) Both 1 and 2 are false
d) 1 is false and 2 is true
T
E 86. Which statements about autocorrelation function are true?
1. It is discrete-time random process
2. It is a continuous-time random process
3.|Rx (𝜏)|>Rx (0)
4.|Rx (𝜏)|<Rx (0)
A a) Only 1
b) 2 and 4
I
c) 1 and 3
C d) 2 and 4
T
E
Page 14 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 87. Assertion (A) : A backward wave oscillator has an internal positive feedback.
Reasons (R) : A positive feedback is necessary for sustained oscillations
I a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
C b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
T d) A is wrong but R is correct
E
88. In the given figure reflection coefficient at load is
A
I
C
T
E a) 0.6
b) -0.6
c) 0.4
d) -0.4
A 89. A lossless transmission line of Zo = 100 𝛺 is terminated by an unknown impedance. The

termination is found to be at a maximum of the voltage standing wave and the VSWR is 5.
I
What is the value of the terminating impedance?
C a) 20 𝛺
b) 100𝛺
T
c) 500𝛺
E d) 1000𝛺
90. A rectangular waveguide with dimension of 3 x2 cm operates in TM11 mode at 10 GHz.

What is its characteristic wave impedance?
a) 50 𝛺
A
b) 62 𝛺
I c) 77 𝛺
d) 377 𝛺
C
T
E
Page 15 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 91. An isolator has an insertion loss of 0.5 dB and an isolation of 30 Db. What would be the
scattering matrix of the isolator if the isolated parts are perfectly matched to the junction?
I 0 10−1.5
a)
10−0.025 0
C
T b) 10−0.025 0
0 10−1.5
E
c) 1 10−1.5
10−0.025 1
d) 10−0.025 1
1 10−1.5
A
92. Double minimum method is used to determine the VSWR value on a waveguide. If the
I
separation between two nulls is 3.5 cm and that between twice minimum power points is
C 2.5 mm. What is the value of VSWR?
a) 5.5
T
b) 9
E c) 10
d) 12
93. In phase shift measurement setup, without the waveguide component (whose phase is to be
measured) the guide wavelength measured was 7.2 cm and the reference null was 10.5 cm.
A With the component, the reference null got shifted to 9.3 cm. What is the phase shift of the
component?
I
a) 450
C b) 600
c) 900
T
d) 1800
E
94. Two identical directional couplers are used in a waveguide to sample the incident and
reflected powers. The output of the two couplers is found to be 2.5 mW and 0.15 mW.
What is the value of VSWR in the waveguide?
a) 0.64
A b) 0.127
I c) 1.127
d) 1.64
C
T
E
Page 16 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 95. A two cavity Klystron amplifier has beam voltage of 900 V. What would be the electron
velocity?
I a) 1.779 x 106 m/sec
C b) 17.79 x 106 m/sec
c) 1.977 x 106 m/sec
T d) 1.977 x 104 m/sec
E
96. A coaxial RF cable has a characteristic impedance of 50𝛺 and C=40 pF/m. The inductance
is
a) 0.01𝜇H/m
b) 0.1𝜇H/m
A c) 1𝜇H/m
d) 10𝜇H/m
I
C 97. A helical TWT has a diameter of 2mm with 50 turns per cm. What would be the axial phase
velocity?
T
a) 9.548 x 106m/sec
E b) 95.48 x 106m/sec
c) 9.426 x 109m/sec
d) 94.26 x 109m/sec
98. An X-band pulsed cylindrical magnetron has V0 = 30 kV, I0 = 80 A, B0 = 0.01 Wb/m2, a =

A 4 cm and b = 8 cm. What would be cyclotron angular frequency?
a) 17.58 x 106 rad/sec
I b) 17.58 x 109 rad/sec
C c) 1.758 x 109 rad/sec
d) 1.758 x 106 rad/sec
T
E 99. Which line code in pcm indicates the return of signal to zero between each pulse & takes
place even due to occurrence of consecutive 0’s & 1’s in the signal?
a) Return-to-zero (RZ)
b) Non-Return to zero space
c) Return to zero inverted
A d) Non-return to zero inverted
I
100. Let g (p) = p8+p6+p4+p2+1 be a polynomial over the binary field. Find the lowest-rate
C cyclic code whose generator polynomial is g (p). What is the rate of this code?
a) 2/9
T
b) 1/5
E c) 2/11
d) 1/4
Page 17 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 101. Three messages m1, m2 and m3 are to be transmitted over an AWGN channel with noise
power spectral density N/2. The messages are
I S1 (t) = 1 for 0 < t < T
C = 0 otherwise
𝑇
S2(t) = -S3(t) = for 0 < t < ( 2 )
T
=-1 for (T/2) < t < T)
E = 0 otherwise
Which of these messages is more vulnerable to errors?
a) m1
b) m2
c) m3
A d) Both b) and c)
I
102. Suppose that the loop filter for a PLL has the transfer function G(s) = 1/(s+ 2). The
C
damping factor and the natural frequency of the loop are respectively
T a) 1/2, 2
b) 1/ 2, 2
E
c) 1/2, 1
d) 1/ 2, 1
103. Determine the number of states in the state trellis diagram for a full response binary
A CPFSK with modulation index h = 2/3.
2𝜋 4𝜋
a) 0, ,
I 3 3
𝜋 2𝜋
b) 0, 3 ,
C 3
2𝜋 4𝜋 6𝜋 8𝜋 10𝜋
c) 0, ,
T 3 3 3 3 3
E
104. A binary communication system employs the signal S0(t)=0 and S1 (t) = A for 0 <, t <, T
for transmitting the information. This is called as on-off signaling The demodulator cross-
correlates the received signal r(t) and s(t) and samples the output of the correlator at t+T.
The probability of error as a function of SNR is
A
a) Q ( 𝑆𝑁𝑅)
I
b) Q (2 𝑆𝑁𝑅)
C c) Q (SNR)
d) Q (SNR/2)
T
E
Page 18 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A 105. Which of the following expression correctly indicates the pulse transmission rate
In terms of the transmission bandwidth BT and the roll-off factor r? Assume a scheme using
I Nyquist’s first criterion
2
C a) Rb= (1+𝑟)) BT
𝑟
T b) Rb= (1+𝑟)) BT
2
E c) Rb= (𝑟2)) BT
d) Rb= (1+r) BT
106. Find the matching probabilities of errors listed in column 2 with the digital modulation
types listed in column 1. Here Ebis energy per bit and white noise power spectral density is
A
N/2.
I Column 1 (Digital Modulation Type) Column 2 (Probability of Bit Error)
I. BPSK A. Q( 1.217𝐸𝑏/𝑁)
C
II.FSK B. Q ( 𝐸𝑏/𝑁)
T
III.MSK C. 2Q( 𝐸𝑏/𝑁)
E IV.QPSK D. Q 2𝐸𝑏/𝑁)
a) I- A, II - C, III-B, IV-D
b) I- D, II - A, III - B, IV -C
c) I- D, II - A, III - B, IV- D
d) I - D, II - B, III - C, IV - D
A
I 107. In a MSK signal, the initial state for the phase is 0 rad. The terminal phase states for the
input pairs of input data 00 and 01 respectively are
C
a) 𝜋, 𝜋,
T b) 2𝜋, 0
c) 0, 0
E
d) - 𝜋, 0
108. Two quadrature carriers cos(2𝜋fct) and sin(2𝜋fct)are used to transmit digital information
through an AWGN channel at two different data rates 10 kbits/s and 100 kbits/s. Determine
A the relative amplitudes of the signals for the two carriers so that Eb/N for the two channels
is identical.
I a) 0.5676
C b) 0.3162
c) 0.5
T d) 0.44
E
Page 19 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A
109. What is the approximate BER of an AWGN channel at SNR = 15 dB?
I a) 6.8 X 10-2
C b) 6.8 X 10-4
c) 6.8 X 10-8
T d) 6.8 X 10-1
E
110. The PDF of a random variable X is PX (x). A random variable Y is defined as Y = aX + b
where a < 0. The PDF of Y in terms of the PDF of X is
a) (1/ 𝑎 )/Px ((y - b)/a)
b) (1/a)Px ( (y - b)/a)
A c) (1/b)Px ( (y + b)/a)
d) Px ((y - b)/a)
I
C 111. The random variable Y = X1 +X2 where X1 and X2 are independent random variables
such that probability of having value 1 is p and value 0 is (1-p). The E(Y) and
T E (Y2) are respectively.
E a) P, p (1-p)
b) 2p, 2p(1-p)
c) 2p, (4p2+2p(1-p))
d) 4p, 8p2
A 112. Which of the following statements are true about Gaussian random variables, vectors and
process?
I I. If the Gaussian process is wide sense stationary, then it is also strict sense stationary.
C II. The linear transformation of a set of jointly Gaussian random variables results in a set of
jointly Gaussian random variables.
T III.Uncorrelated Gaussian random variables are independent
E a) Only I
b) I, II
c) II, III
d) I, II, III
A 113. Each code ward contains n symbols and conveys K bits of information. Then in block
code, the information rate of the encoder output is_______ bits/symbol which is referred to
I
as_______
𝑛
C a) 𝑘 , code
𝑛
T b) , code rate
𝑘
𝑘
E c) , coderate
𝑛
Page 20 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
𝑘
A d) , code
𝑛
I 114. The transmitter power is 20 watts. 10 symbols are output from the source in 5 second. The
C received energy per symbol is_________ without coding
a) 10
T b) 15
E c) 5
d) 20
115. In a linear code, the matrix
𝑌 = 𝑋𝐺 in which 𝐺 = ____________, 𝑋 = __________
a) General matrix, sequency
A b) General matrix, information sequency
c) Generator matrix information
I
d) Generator matrix, information sequence
C
T 116. In cyclic code, encoding is accomplished by using ____stage shift register and decoding
by using_____stage shift register
E a) K, n-K
b) K, n
c) Only K
d) None of these
A 117. In a CDMA No is the total interference interference power received, Uiis the number of
user in the ith adjacent cell, Nai is the average interference power for user in ith cell then the
I
frequency reuse factor f is =
C a) NoxNo+ 𝑖 𝑈𝑖 𝑁𝑎𝑖
𝑁𝑜
T b) 𝑁𝑜 + 𝑖 𝑈𝑖 𝑁𝑎𝑖
E
No+ 𝑖 𝑈𝑖 𝑁𝑎𝑖
c) 𝑁𝑜
𝑁𝑜
d)
𝑖 𝑈 𝑖 𝑁 𝑎𝑖
A 118. Capacity of ________ system is limited

a) CDMA
I
b) FDMA
C c) TDMA
d) None of these
T
E
Page 21 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A
I
C 119. What is the symbol rate Rsthat can be passed through a baseband raised cosine roll off
T Filter having bandwidth B and roll off factor 𝛼
a) 2B+𝛼
E 2𝐵
b) 𝛼
2𝐵+1
c) 𝛼
2𝐵
d) 1+𝛼
A
120. For a PCM system with input frequency of 4 KHz what will the minimum sample rate and
I alias frequency produced if 5 KHz audio signals enters the sample-and hold circuit
C a) 8,3
b) 4, 5
T c) 3, 8
E d) 5, 4
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 22 of 23
ROLL NO.: PG1COS56
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 23 of 23
PG1COS56
ANSWER KEY
Subject:Communication Systems
PG:
Paper: I
Set:
1. c 41 b 81. d
2. a 42 d 82. b
3. a 43 d 83. d
4. d 44 a 84. a
5. b 45 a 85. a
6. b 46 D 86. b
7. c 47 B 87. b
8. a 48 A 88. b
9. b 49 C 89. c
10. c 50 B 90. b
11. c 51 C 91. a
12. c 52 A 92. b
13. b 53 A 93. b
14. d 54 B 94. d
15. a 55 A 95. b
16. b 56 A 96. b
17. b 57 a 97. a
18. a 58 d 98. c
19. b 59 c 99. a
20. a 60 b 100. b
21. d 61 b 101. a
22. c 62 a 102. d
23. d 63 c 103. a
24. a 64 a 104. a
25. c 65 b 105. a
26. a 66 b 106. c
27. a 67 b 107. d
28. b 68 b 108. b
29. d 69 a 109. c
30. a 70 c 110. a
31. c 71 a 111. c
32. d 72 a 112. d
33. a 73 a 113. c
34. b 74 b 114. a
35. b 75 c 115. d
36. a 76 b 116. a
37. a 77 a 117. b
38. a 78 b 118. a
39. d 79 b 119. d
40. b 80 a 120. a
ROLL NO.: PG2COS56
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
A
I
PAPER-II
C
Instructions:
the wrong answer.
I
C
T
1. Coherent optical transmission
(a) have sufficiently narrow linewidth
E
(b) several methods of modulation possible
(c) heterodyne and homodyne detection is possible
2. Optical amplifier
A. is a single in-line component
B. can be used for any kind of modulation at virtually any transmission rate
(a) A is correct, B is incorrect
(b) A is correct, B is correct
(c) A is incorrect, B is correct
A (d) A is incorrect, B is incorrect
I 3. Semi-conductor laser amplifier can be used in which mode of operation?

(a) linear
C (b) non-linear
(c) linear and non-linear
4. Semi-conductor laser amplifier exhibits ----------- power consumption
E
(a) low
(b) high
(c) maximum
(d) none of these
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5. In fiber amplifiers, the variations resulting from temperature changes, ageing and
A pump power are ----------- significant compared to SLAs
(a) prominently
I (b) highly
(c) less
C (d) both (a) and (b)
T 6. State the order of the recursive filter as 𝑦𝑛 = 𝑥𝑛 −1 − 𝑥𝑛−3 − 2𝑦𝑛 −1

(a) 1
E (b) n
(c) 2
(d) 3
7. The transfer function of the filter expressed by 𝑦𝑛 = 2𝑥𝑛 −1 − 𝑥𝑛−1 + 𝑦𝑛−1

𝑦𝑛 𝑧 −1
(a) =
𝑥𝑛 𝑧 −1 +1
𝑦𝑛 2−𝑧 −1
(b) =
𝑥𝑛 1− 𝑧 −1
A
𝑦𝑛 𝑧 𝑛 −1 −1
(c) =
𝑥𝑛 𝑧 𝑛 −1 +1
I
𝑦𝑛 𝑧 −1 −2
C (d) =
𝑥𝑛 1−𝑧 −1
T
8. If the Levinson-Durbin algorithm is implemented on a serial computer, then the
computational time require is in order of
E
(a) O (p+1)
(b) O (p2)
(c) O (p2+1)
(d) O (p)
9. If the Levinson-Durbin algorithm is performed by P parallel processors, then the time

required is
(a) O (log p)
(b) O (p log p)
(c) p log p
A (d) O (p log p2)
I 10. The normal equation is expressed by
𝑃
C 𝑎𝑝 𝐾 𝑟𝑥𝑥 𝑙 − 𝐾 0, 𝑙 = 1, 2, − − 𝑃, 𝑎𝑝 0 = 1
𝐾=0
T If the Levinson-Durbin algorithm is used for solving this, then it will be
(a) computationally efficient
E (b) computationally inefficient
(c) computationally not viable
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A 11. The input sequence to the filter is x(n) = s(n)+w(n) and its output sequence is y(n).
The error sequencing is e(n)=d(n)-y(n). Then if d(n) =s(n), the linear estimation
I problem is referred to as
(a) prediction
C (b) smoothing
(c) filtering
E 12. If in above problem (Q.11), we consider d(n)=S(n-D), where D>0, then it is referred
to
(a) filtering
(b) estimating
(c) prediction
(d) smoothing
13. Echo cancellers are implemented as adoptive filters with -----------

(a) zero coefficient
(b) unity coefficient
A (c) adjustable coefficient
(d) non-adjustable
I
14. To mitigate echoes in voice transmission, the telephone companies employ a device
C called
(a) echo canceller
T (b) echo suppresser
(c) echo balancer
15. In modem ---------- is used to mitigate echoes.

(a) echo balancer
(b) echo coupler
(c) echo canceller
(d) echo suppresser
16. Signals from stationary random process do not have finite energy, hence do not have
Fourier transformation
A (a) true
(b) false
I (c) only finite energy is true
(d) none of these
C
17. Periodogram estimate can be obtained by passing signal through a bank of parallel
T turned filters and ----------their outputs
(a) doubling
E (b) dividing
(c) subtracting
(d) squaring
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A 18. Nonparametric methods for power spectrum estimation is a method in which about
low data is generated is --------
I (a) not assumed
(b) assumption made
C (c) both (a) and (b)correct
(d) none of these
T
19. Blackman method for power spectrum estimation is ------------
E (a) parametric
(b) nonparametric
(c) sometime parametric
20. Bartlett’s method for reducing variance in the periodogram involves --------- steps
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 7
(d) 3
A
21. Turkey method is used for smoothing periodogram
I (a) true
(b) false
C (c) neither true nor false
T
22. Turkey power spectrum estimation are somehow better than Bartlett estimate
E (a) false
(b) true
(c) sometime false
23. Welch method requires --------- computational power then Turkey method
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) half
A
24. Nonparametric method of power spectrum estimation is more complex compared to
I parametric method
(a) true
C (b) false
(c) sometime true
E 25. Long data record is required in ------

(a) parametric method
(b) non-parametric method
(e) in both(a) and (b)
(c) none of these
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A 26. For non-parametric methods, the auto correction estimate rxn (m) is zero for m≥N
(a) true
I (b) false
(c) non-relational at all
C (d) none of these
T 27. To avoid leakage and to provide better frequency, resolution one should use
(a) non-parametric method
E (b) parametric method
(c) FFT method
(d) none of these
28. The Burg method of power spectrum estimation is usually associated with maximum
entropy spectrum estimation
(a) true
(b) false
(c) not entropy
(d) none of these
A
29. For adoptive filter design ------- filter is a first choice
I (a) IIR
(b) FIR
C (c) both are equal
(d) none of these
T
30. Optimization is an essential requirement in
E (a) FIR
(b) IIR
(c) adopting
(d) none of these
31. The RMS delay spread in urban area is in the range of --------
(a) 10-25 μs
(b) 10-25 ns
(c) 30-50 ns
(d) 30-50 μs
A
32. The time resolution (∆τ) of multi path component using spread system with sliding
I correlation is
1
(a) ∆τ = 𝑅𝑐
C 3
(b) ∆τ = 𝑅𝑐
T 2
(c) ∆τ = 𝑅𝑐
E 4
(d) ∆τ = 𝑅𝑐
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33. A RAKE receiver consists of a bank of correlators. At the output, the correlator
A outputs are ---------- to obtain final signal estimate
(a) weighted and summed
I (b) weighted and subtracted
(c) only weighted
C (d) only divided
T 34. It is a common thumb rule that WCDMA provides -------- times increase in spectral
efficiency over GSM
E (a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
35. WCDMA requires a minimum spectrum allocation of ----- MHz

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
A
36. Average fade duration primarily -------- as the maximum Doppler frequency becomes
I large
(a) increases
C (b) decreases
(c) doubled
T (d) halved
37. Spectrum Efficiency of a cellular network is
E (a) the tract carried by whole network
(b) the tract carried per cell divided by the bandwidth of the system and the area of a
cell
(c) expressed in Erlang / MHz /km2
38. The Erlang B formula can be used to calculate

(a) total traffic
(b) blocking
(c) No. of lines
A (d) all of the above
I 39. The principle employed by the Rake receiver is

(a) correlation with delayed versions of code followed by simulation
C (b) matched filtering followed by thresholding
(c) summation across chips followed by thresholding
T (d) correlation with delayed versions of code followed by maximum ratio combining
40. OFDM is a technique of

E 1. Encoding digital data
2. Multiple carrier frequencies
3. Wide band digital communication
4. 4G mobile communication
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

A (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
I (d) all the four are correct
C 41. 3G W-CDMA is also known as

(a) UMTS
T (b) DECT
(c) DCS-1800
E (d) ETACS
42. Wireless LANs implement security measures in the

(a) session layers
(b) data link layers
(c) sub layers
(d) application layers
43. RAKE diversity receiver used in CDMA works on the principle of

(a) frequency diversity
A (b) time diversity
(c) polarization diversity
I (d) space diversity
C 44. As compared to the analog systems, the digital processing of signals allows
1. Programmable operations
T 2. flexibility in the system design
3. cheaper systems
E 4. more reliability
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(d) all the four are correct
45. Adaptive filters are
(a) digital filters
(b) electronic filters
(c) analog filters
A
46. Least mean squares (LMS) algorithms are a class of
I (a) analog filters
(b) electronic filters
C (c) adaptive filters
T
47. In signal processing, a periodogram is an estimate of the
E (a) amplitude of a signal
(b) spectral density of a signal
(c) phase of a signal
(d) both (a) and (b)
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48. The recursive least squares algorithm offers

A (a) fast convergence and high computation complexity
(b) fast convergence and low computation complexity
I (c) slow convergence and high computation complexity
(d) slow convergence and low computation complexity
C
49. The input signals for RLS (Recursive Least Squares) and LMS (Least Mean Squares)
T algorithms are considered as
(a) deterministic and stochastic respectively
E (b) deterministic only
(c) stochastic only
(d) stochastic and deterministic respectively
50. The LMS algorithm converges quickly for

(a) white input signals only
(b) colored inputs signals only
A 51. Which of the following is/are not the application/s of the adaptive filter?
(a) noise cancellation
I (b) echo cancellation
(c) adaptive feedback cancellation
C (d) none of the above
T 52. A noise cancellation speaker emits a sound wave with

(a) same amplitude and inverted phase to the original sound
E (b) different amplitude and same phase to the original sound
(c) different amplitude and inverted phase to the original sound
(d) same amplitude and same phase to the original sound
53. Active noise control is sound reduction by

(a) sound absorbing tiles
(b) power source only
(c) insulation or a muffler
A 54. Passive noise cancelling and active noise cancelling is best suited for
(a) low frequency and low frequency
I (b) low frequency and high frequency
(c) high frequency and low frequency
C (d) high frequency and high frequency
T 55. Optical fiber operates on the principle of

(a) total internal reflectance
E (b) tyndall effect
(c) photo-electric effect
(d) laser technology
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56. During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are
A responsible for an extrinsic absorption?
(a) atomic defects in the composition of glass
I (b) impurity atoms in glass material
(c) basic constituent atoms of fiber material
T 57. Which component of an optical receiver is a linear frequency shaping filter used for
the compensation of signal distortion and Inter Symbol Interference (ISI)?
E (a) Photodetector
(b) Amplifier
(c) Equalizer
58. Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?

(a) Link power budget
(b) Rise time budget
A
59. With respect to single mode and graded index fibers, which parameter 1 specifies the
I propagation of polarization modes with different phase velocities& the difference
between their effective refractive indices?
C (a) Mode field diameter
(b) Birefringence
T (c) Fiber beat length
(d) Spot Size
E
60. The transforming relations performed by DTFT are
1. Linearity
2. Modulation
3. Shifting
4. Convolution
(c) 1and 3 are correct
(d) All the four are correct
A
61. The IIR filter designing involves
I (a) designing of analog filter in analog domain and transforming into digital
domain
C (b) designing of digital filter in analog domain and transforming into digital
domain
T (c) designing of analog filter in digital domain and transforming into analog
domain
E (d) designing of digital filter in digital domain and transforming into analog
domain
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62. Which among the following represent/s the characteristic/s of an ideal filter?
A (a) constant gain in passband
(b) zero gain in stop band
I (c) linear phase response
C
63. Which of the following is false statement?
T (a) An intended transmission is avoided unnecessarily due to exposed node problem
(b) GSM employs FDD technique to separate uplink and downlink frequencies.
E (c) Classical ALOHA performs better than slotted ALOHA
(d) Cell breathing is the techniques used in CSMA
64. In Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA), possibility of collision still exists because
of
(a) Propagation delay
(b) Queueing delay
(c) Sensing delay
(d) Transmission delay
A 65. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) is used in which of the

following wireless technologies
I (a) Long Term Evolution (LTE)
(b) Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)
C (c) 802.1 la for WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network)
T
66. OFDM converts a frequency selective channel into
E (a) A single flat fading channel
(b) N parallel flat-fading channels, where N is the number of subcarriers
(c) Time selective channel
(d) Stationary channel
67. The principle employed to combat fading and improve the BER performance of a
wireless communication system is
(a) Power Balancing
(b) Load Balancing
(c) Diversity
A (d) User Scheduling
I 68. The probability of deep fade in a wireless channel is proportional to

(a) SNR
C (b) I/SNR
(c) (SNR)2
T (d) 1/(SNR)2
E 69. Delay spread of the wireless channel can be calculated from the
(a) Velocity
(b) Carrier Frequency
(c) Cell Radius
(d) Multipath Power Profile
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A 70. Coherence bandwidth of wireless channel is the

(a) Band over which transmission is not possible
I (b) Allocated bandwidth for wireless communication
(c) Bandwidth over which frequency response is approximately flat
C (d) Band over which there is no attenuation
T 71. The distribution of amplitude of the fading channel coefficient is

(a) Gaussian
E (b) Exponential
(c) Uniform
(d) Rayleigh
72. For a wireless system with independent fading coefficients across the antennas, the
probability of deep fade is equal to
(a) The product of the probabilities of the individual fade events
(b) The sum of the probabilities of the individual events
(c) The lowest of the probability of the deep fade events
(d) The maximum of the probability of the deep fade events
A
73. Condition for Inter Symbol Interference in wireless communication is
I (a) Delay spread greater than symbol time
(b) Symbol time greater than Delay spread
C (c) Velocity greater than threshold
(d) Transmit power greater than threshold
T
74. The approximate data rate of4G Wireless systems is
E (a) 100 Kbps
(b) 1 Mbps
(c) 10 Mbps
(d) 200 Mbps
75. The performance of a wireless communication system can be intuitively explained by

(a) Additive Noise
(b) Multiplicative Noise
(c) Deep fade event
(d) Gaussian Noise
A
76. The BER of a wireless channel is approximately
I (a) Proportional to the speed of the mobile
(b) Probability of deep fade
C (c) Amplitude of the channel coefficient
(d) Number of multipath components
T
77. Which statement from the following is true?
E (a) At different places we cannot use same frequencies at the same time.
(b) TDM needs more bandwidth as compared to FDM.
(c) CDM has built in security.
(d) No synchronization is needed in TDM.
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A 78. Choose the FALSE statement.

(a) The transmission bandwidth of OQPSK is exactly the same as that of QPSK.
I (b) Although QPSK and OQPSK signals have different waveforms, their magnitude
spectra are identical
C (c) A simple way of demodulating an MSK signal is to use a frequency discriminator.
(d) The process of angle modulation involved in the generation of an MSK signal is
T nonlinear
E 79. In Frequency Selective Fading

(a) coherence bandwidth of the channel is less than bandwidth of transmitted channel
(b) coherence bandwidth of the channel is more than bandwidth of transmitted
channel
(c) coherence bandwidth of the channel is equal to bandwidth of transmitted channel
80. In troposcatter links, diversity system makes use of

(a) increase in bandwidth
(b) increase in directivity of the antenna
A (c) prevent noise effects
(d) detect signal in presence of fading
I
C PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
T
81. What is the average fade duration for threshold level ρ =0.01 when the Doppler
E frequency is 200 Hz?
(a) 200 μs
(b) 3.43 μs
(c) 19.9 μs
82. For a GSM which is a TDMA/FDD system uses 25 MHz for forward link which is
distributed into radio channels of 200 KHz. If 8 speech channels are supported on a
single radio channel, find the number of simultaneous users that can be
accommodated (assume no guard land)
A (a) 2000
(b) 200
I (c) 1000
(d) 100
C
83. The frame efficiency for a normal GSM having time slot consists of six trailing bits,
T 8.25 guard bits, 26 training bits and two traffic bits of 58 bits of data is
(a) 75%
E (b) 76.25%
(c) 74.24%
(d) 74%
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𝐸
84. If RF band width W= 1.25 MHz, R =9600 bps (base band information bit rate) 𝑏 =
𝑁0
A 10 𝑑𝐵, then the maximum number of users that can be supported in single-cell
CDMA is
I (a) 12
(b) 13
C (c) 14
(d) 15
T
85. Consider a sub-band coding scheme, when the speech bandwidth is partitioned into 4
E bands. The corner frequencies of band are 450-900. If number bites used to encode
are 3 then the minimum encoding rate is -------- (assume no side information needed)
(a) 450 samples/s
(b) 900 samples/s
(c) 1800 samples/s
(d) none of these
86. What is the rms delay spread for the multi profile given below? Maximum excess
delay is 10 dB.
A 0dB
-10dB
I
-20dB
C
-30dB
T
E
0 1 2 5 τ(μs)
(a) 1 μs
(b) 1.37 μs
(c) 1.47 μs
(d) 1.57 μs
87. What is RMS delay spread of the following power delay profile
Ρ(τ) 0dB
0dB
A
T
0 1 μs τ
E (a) 0.5μs
(b) 1 μs
(c) 1.5 μs
(d) 2 μs
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88. A transmitter has a carrier frequency 1850 MHz. A vehicle is moving with 26.82 m/s
A towards transmitter. What is the received carrier frequency?
(a) 1850.00016 MHz
I (b) 1950.00016 MHz
(c) 1850.0016 MHz
C (d) 1850.0016 MHz
T 89. OC-9 (STS-9) is the level of the SONET signal.Which has a line rate of -----M bits/s
(a) 51.840
E (b) 1244.160
(c) 466.560
90. If SDH level is STM-12 corresponding line rate is 1866.240 then the SONET level ---
--- with ------ line rate
(a) OC-36, 1866.240
(b) OC-12, 1866.240
(c) OC-24, 1244.16
(d) OC-48, 1244.16
A
91. Soliton propagation is ----------- phenomenon and dependent on --------- of the pulse
I (a) Linear, intensity
(b) Non-linear, intensity
C (c) Linear, source
T
92. Fiber directional coupler is __________ wavelength division multiplexer/
E demultiplexer has around _______ interchannel crosstalk level.
(a) active, -10dB
(b) passive, -10dB
(c) active, -20dB
(d) passive, -20dB
93. Prism has a channel spectral bandwidth of ______ nm and has a channel separation of
_________.
(a) 5-9 nm, 20 nm
(b) 10-20 nm, 20 nm
A (c) 5-9 nm, 30 nm
(d) 10-20 nm, 30 nm
I
94. Raman gain GR is expressed as GR=
𝑔 𝑅 𝑃𝑃 𝐿𝑒𝑓𝑓
C (a) exp( )
𝐴𝑒𝑓𝑓 𝐾
T (b) ( )
𝐴𝑒𝑓𝑓 𝐾
(c) exp( )
E 1
(d) exp(𝐴 )
𝑒𝑓𝑓 𝐾
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95. Theoretically Raman gain becomes ________as the fiber lengths increase then it
A _____
(a) increases, constant
I (b) increases, decreases
(c) decreases, constant
T 96. Chirp is more in --------------- type of laser

(a) CSBH
E (b) DCPBH
(c) Gainguided
(d) Ridge waveguide
97. The size of chirp at any given modulating frequency is proportional to ----------
(a) line width enhancement factor and photon life time
(b) only photon life time
(c) only linewidthenhancement factor
(d) none of these.
A 98. A GSM cellular telephone standard requires a minimum of 9 dB rejection of

interfering signal levels of -23dBm at 3 MHz from the carrier, -33dBm at 1.6 MHz
I from the carrier, and -43 dBm at 0.6 MHz from the carrier, for a carrier level of -99
dBm. Determine the required local oscillator phase noise at 3 MHz carrier frequency
C offset.
(a) -118 dB/Hz
T (b) -128 dB/Hz
(c) -138 dB/Hz
99. The gain g at the output of the maximal ratio combiner in a multiple antenna wireless
system with independent identically distributed Rayleigh fading coefficients is
distributed as
(a) Gaussian random variable
(b) Exponential random variable
(c) Chi-squared random variable
(d) Uniform random variable
A 100. After addition of the cyclic prefix (CP) in an OFDM system, the output of the channel
i.e. signal at the receiver after removal of CP is
I (a) Linear convolution between transmitted signal and channel taps
(b) Element wise product between transmitted signal and channel taps
C (c) Circular convolution in time domain between OFDM signal and channel taps
(d) Circular convolution in frequency domain between symbols and subcarrier
T channel coefficients
E 101. Consider the assertions given below. Which is the correct sequential order of process
adopted in glass fiber preparation?
A. Drawing of fiber
B. Production of pure glass
C. Pulling of fiber
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ROLL NO.: PG2COS56
D. Conversion of pure glass into preform

A
(a) B, D, A, C
I (b) A, B, C, D
(c) C, A, D, B
C (d) D, B, A, C
T 102. Specify most appropriate advantage of Kalman RLS (Recursive Least Square)
algorithm for adaptive equalization
E (a) Low Computational complexity
(b) Fast Convergence, good tracking ability
(c) Better numerical properties
(d) Fast Convergence, Low Computational complexity
103. In optical communication, the losses in optical fibers can be caused by

1.Impurities
2.Microbending
3.Attenuation in glass
4.Stepped index operations
A Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
I (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
C (d) 2, 3 and 4
T 104. In optical communication, now a days the wavelength 1550 nm is used due to
following possible reasons
E l . Dispersion is very low
2.Loss is very low
3.WDM and optical amplification are feasible
Select the correct answer
(a) 1,2and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
105. In terrestrial microwave links, the number of 'fades' per unit increases as
A (a) both the transmission frequency and the distance between the antennas are
increased
I (b) the transmission frequency is increased but the distance between the antennas is
decreased
C (c) the transmission frequency is decreased but the distance between the antennas is
increased
T (d) both the transmission frequency and the distance between the antennas are
decreased
E
106. The performance of algorithms for Adaptive Equalization are given by
1.Rate of convergence
2.Computational complexity
3.Numerical properties
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4.Frequency change
A
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
I (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
C (d) All are correct
T 107. Advantage of using Spread Spectrum modulation is/are

1.Interference rejection capability
E 2.Frequency planning is not required
3.Resistance to multipath fading
4.ISI is lesser
(b) l, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) all the four are correct
108. Consider the following statements regarding Weiner filter

1. Signal and (additive) noise are stationary linear stochastic processes with known
A auto-correlation and cross correlation.
2. It maximizes the mean square error between estimated random process and
I desired process.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
C (a) 1 is true and 2 is false
(b) Both statements are true
T (c) 1 is false and 2 is true
(d) Both statements are false
E
109. Consider the following statements regarding Levinson-Durbin algorithm
1. It is computationally faster algorithm
2. It is more sensitive to computational inaccuracies like round of errors
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 is true and 2 is false
(b) 1 is true & 2 is also true
(c) 1 is false and 2 is true
(d) 1 is false and 2 is also false
A 110. Arrange the Acoustic Echo Cancellation (AEC) process in proper sequence
i. A far-end signal is delivered to the system
I ii. The far-end signal is filter and delayed to resemble the near-end signal
iii. The far-end signal is reproduced
C iv. The filtered far-end signal is subtracted from near-end signal
a) i, iii, ii, iv
T b) i, ii, iii, iv
c) i, iv, iii, ii
E d) i, iii, iv, ii
111. Consider the following statements regarding kalman filter

1. The algorithm is recursive
2. It cannot run in real time as past information is required
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Which of the following statements is/are true?

A
a) 1 is true and 2 is false
I b) 1 is true and 2 is true
c) 1 is false and 2 is true
C d) 1 is false and 2 is false
T 112. The mean power launched in a fiber link is 1.5 mW and the fiber has an attenuation of
0.5 dB/km. What would be the maximum possible link length when the minimum
E mean power at the detector is 2 μW?
(a) 5.75 km
(b) 57.5 km
(c) 0.9 km
(d) 9 km
113. Optical signal after propagating through a fiber that is 1 km long is reduced by 40% of
its original value. What would be the fiber loss in dB?
(a) 2.21 dB/km
(b) 4.42 dB/km
A (c) 3.98 dB/km
(d) 7.96 dB/km
I
114. What will be intermodal dispersion for a 1.5 km long fiber with ncore =1.55
C andnclad=1.48
(a) 17.5μs
T (b) 1.75μs
(c) 5.27 μs
E (d) 52.7 μs
115. A fusion splice is made for a broken multimode step index fiber. The splice shows a
loss of 0.36 dB which is due to small air gap. What is the refractive index of the fiber
core?
(a) 1
(b)2
(c) 1.5
(d)2.5
A 116. What will be the internal quantum efficiency for an LED whose radiative life time is
3.5 ms and non-radiative life time is 50 ms?
I (a) 6.54%
(b) 86.92%
C (c) 93.45%
(d) 90%
T
117. A 5 km long optical fiber link has a fiber cable which has an attenuation of 4 dB/km.
E The splice loss is 0.7 dB/km and the connector losses at the source and detector are
4dB and 3.5dB respectively. Considering no dispersion on the link, what will be total
channel loss?
(a) 31 dB
(b) 16 dB
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG2COS56
(c) 23.5 dB
A (d) 7.5 dB
118. What is the BER of a wireless communication system for SNR in dB = 30 dB?
I (a) 5 x 10-4
(b) 5 x 10-3
C (c) 5 x 10-2
(d) 5 x 10-1
T
119. Consider the following statements
E i. SONET/SDH is a transport protocol
ii. SONET/SDH allowed for the simultaneous transport of many different
circuits of differing origin with a single framing protocol
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only i
(b) Both i and ii
(c) Only ii

A i. ATM encodes data into fixed sized packets called cells
ii. Internet protocol or Ethernet uses variable sized packets and
I frame
C (a) Only i
(b) Both i and ii
T (c) Only ii
E
Page 19 of 19
PG2COS56
ANSWER KEY
Subject:Communication Systems
Paper: II
1. d 41 a 81. c
2. b 42 b 82. c
3. c 43 b 83. c
4. a 44 d 84. c
5. c 45 a 85. b
6. d 46 c 86. b
7. b 47 b 87. a
8. b 48 a 88. a
9. b 49 a 89. c
10. a 50 a 90. a
11. c 51 d 91. b
12. d 52 a 92. d
13. c 53 b 93. d
14. b 54 c 94. a
15. c 55 a 95. a
16. a 56 b 96. c
17. d 57 c 97. a
18. a 58 b 98. c
19. b 59 b 99. c
20. d 60 d 100. c
21. a 61 b 101. a
22. b 62 d 102. b
23. a 63 c 103. a
24. b 64 a 104. d
25. b 65 d 105. c
26. a 66 b 106. b
27. b 67 c 107. d
28. a 68 b 108. a
29. b 69 d 109. b
30. c 70 c 110. a
31. a 71 d 111. a
32. c 72 a 112. b
33. a 73 a 113. a
34. c 74 d 114. d
35. d 75 c 115. c
36. b 76 b 116. c
37. d 77 c 117. a
38. d 78 d 118. a
39. d 79 a 119. b
40. d 80 d 120. b
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGINEERING/COMPUTER SCIENCE/

COMPUTER ENGINEERING
I
C PAPER-I
T
Instructions:
wrong answer.
I
C ball point pen.
T ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
E
1. Which is not an essential characteristic of algorithm?

a) Definiteness
A b) Finiteness
c) Efficiency
I d) Effectiveness
C 2. If f(n ) = 3x log n + 7n + 3, then f(n) is
a) Ω(n)
T b) Ω (n 2 )
E c) Ω (log n)
d) All of the above
3. Definiteness property of algorithm means
a) Considering the time taken to accomplish the task and the memory usage
b) Each step of an algorithm must be precisely defined, unambiguously
A c) The number of steps in an algorithm must be finite and further each step must be
executable in finite amount of time
I d) Each step must be sufficiently basic so that it can be done exactly by a person using
pencil and paper
C
4. Which of the following cannot be solved by recursion?
T a) Fibonacci series
b) Factorial of a number
E c) Power function
d) All of the above can be solved by recursion
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 5. Which of the following is a method to solve recursive equation?

a) Tree method
I b) Substitution method
c) Master theorem
C d) All of the above
T 6. Which of the following is not a proving technique?
a) Pumping lemma
E
b) Contradiction
c) Induction
d) Inception
7. Which of the following follows the principle of First In First Out (FIFO)?
A a) Stack
b) Queue
I c) Tree
d) Graph
C
T 8. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure?
a) Stack
E b) Queue
c) Tree
9. Which of the following must be defined by an abstract data structure?

a) Operations on the data
A b) Constraints on operations
I c) Both a) and b)
C
10. Which of the following is the best in terms of flexibility?
T a) Linked List
b) Array
E c) Both a) and b)
11. Which of the following is not a type of tree?
a) Binomial
b) Fibonacci
A c) Binary search
d) All of the above are trees
I
C 12. A cycle that covers all the vertices of the given graph, without having to cover any vertex
twice is called
T a) Hamiltonian cycle
b) Euler cycle
E c) Hamming cycle
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 13. Which of the following is never planar?

a) 3 × 3
I b) 2 × 2
c) 1 × 1
C d) None of the above
T 14. If a graph satisfies the equation f = e − v + 2, then it is
a) Planar
E b) Euler
c) Hamiltonian
15. Depth first search can be implemented by using

A a) Stack
b) Queue
I c) Both a) and b)
C
16. Which of the following is topological sorting?
T a) Vertices of a graph are traversed in the order in which they appear in the graph
E b) Vertices of a graph are traversed in the opposite order in which they appear in the graph
c) Both of the above
17. A tree that covers all the vertices of a given graph is called a
a) Search tree
A b) Parse tree
c) Spanning tree
C 18. Which of the following is correct?
T a) All the problems can be solved in polynomial time
b) P = NP
E c) If SAT3 can be solved in polynomial time, then P = NP
19. A 2 clique problem is

a) NP
b) NP-hard but not NP-complete
A c) NP-complete
I
C 20. Which of the following can give a „good solution‟ to an NP-hard problem?
a) Heuristic
T b) Approximation
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 21. Which of the following can guarantee that the solution is at least r times as good as the
optimal solution?
I a) Heuristic
b) Approximation
C c) Both of the above
T
E 22. Which of the following are the types of optimization algorithms?
a) Minimization
b) Maximization
c) Both a) and b)
A 23. Which type of approximation algorithm is the max-3CNF (approximation)?

a) 2-approximation
I b) 3-approximation
c) 5-approximation
C
T
24. Which of the following can be used to store biological data?
E a) Ontology
b) Databases
c) Both a) and b)
25. Bioinformatics is used in which of the following?
A a) Signal processing
b) Genomics
I c) Biophysics
d) All of the above
C
26. Sequencing is a task that can be accomplished by which of the following?
T a) Biochemistry
E b) Bioinformatics
c) Biophysics
27. Which of the following envelopes a cell and maintains the required potential difference?
a) Cell membrane
A b) Cytoskeleton
c) Both
C 28. Which of the following maintains the structure of a cell?
T a) Cell membrane
b) Cytoskeleton
E c) Both
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 29. A cell that contains a nucleus is

a) Prokaryotic
I b) Eukaryotic
c) Both
T 30. Which of the following technique is not using for solve a 0-1knapsack problem?
a) Greedy
E
b) Dynamic programming
c) Branch and bound
d) All of the above
31. T (n) = 9T (n/3) + n then T (n) =

A a) ϴ (n4)
b) ϴ (n3)
I c) ϴ (n2)
d) ϴ (n)
C
32. 4. Application layer is implemented in
T
a) End system
E b) NIC
c) Ethernet
33. The functionalities of presentation layer includes

a) Data compression
A b) Data encryption
c) Data description
I d) All of the above
C 34. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are
_______
T
a) Added
E b) Removed
c) Rearranged
35. The attackers of a network of compromised devices known as

a) Internet
A b) Botnet
c) Telnet
I d) D-net
C
36. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack ?
T a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
E c) Connection flooding
d) All of the above
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 37. Packet sniffers involve

a) Active receiver
I b) Passive receiver
c) Both Active receiver and Passive receiver
T 38. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is
a) String of characters
E
b) String of integers
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero‟s and one‟s
39. The main advantage of UDP is

A a) More overload
b) Reliable
I c) Less overload
d) Fast
C
T 40. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of
a) Only UDP header
E b) Only data
c) Only checksum
d) UDP header plus data
41. Header size of the ICMP message is

a) 8-bytes
A b) 8-bits
c) 16-bytes
I d) 16-bits
C
42. ICMP error message will not be generated for a datagram having a special address such as
T a) 127.0.0.0
b) 12.1.2
E c) 11.1
d) 127
43. What is stat frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet frame?

a) 10101010
b) 10101011
A c) 00000000
I d) 11111111
C 44. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a network protocol for

a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet frames
T b) encapsulating ethernet frames inside PPP frames
c) for security of ethernet frames
E d) for security of PPP frames
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 45. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet frame is

a) 1000 bytes
I b) 1200 bytes
c) 1300 bytes
C d) 1500 bytes
T 46. In SONET, STS-1 level of electrical signalling has the data rate of
a) 51.84 Mbps
E
b) 155.52 Mbps
c) 466.56 Mbps
d) none of the mentioned
47. A linear SONET network can be

A a) point-to-point
b) multi-point
I c) both point-to-point and multi-point
C
T 48. WiMAX stands for
a) wireless maximum communication
E b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
49. Which one of the following frequency is not used in WiMAX for communication?
a) 2.3 GHz
A b) 2.4 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
I d) 3.5 GHz
C
50. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning VPNs?
T a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
E c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public networks
d) Is the backbone of the Internet
51. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined in which of the following standards?
a) IPsec
b) PPTP
A c) PPP
I d) L2TP
C 52. L2F was developed by which company?

a) Microsoft
T b) Cisco
c) Blizzard Entertainment
E d) IETF
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 53. Which component is included in IP security?

a) Authentication Header (AH)
I b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
C d) All of the mentioned
T 54. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in
a) Browser security
E
b) Email security
c) FTP security
55. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority
A giving that information, then it is called
a) DNS lookup
I b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
C d) None of the mentioned
T
56. Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP address
E change?
a) dynamic DNS
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server
A 57. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is
represented by bits
I a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
C
c) 80 to 95
T d) 64 to 79
E 58. A few leftmost bits in each address of IPv6 address define its category is called
a) Prefix type
b) Postfix type
c) Reserved type
d) Local type
A 59. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C network ID, which subnet mask would you
use?
I
a) 255.255.255.252
C b) 255.255.255.255
c) 255.255.255.240
T d) 255.255.255.248
E
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 60. ATM can be used for

a) local area network
I b) wide area network
c) any of local or wide area network
C d) none of the mentioned
T
61. ______ have been developed specifically for pipelined systems.
E a) Utility software
b) Speed up utilities
c) Optimizing compilers
62. If a unit completes its task before the allotted time period, then _______
A a) It‟ll perform some other task in the remaining time
b) Its time gets reallocated to a different task
I
c) It‟ll remain idle for the remaining time
T 63. If an exception is raised and the succeeding instructions are executed completely, then the
processor is said to have ______
E a) Exception handling
b) Imprecise exceptions
c) Error correction
A 64. The ______ plays a very vital role in case of super scalar processors.
a) Compilers
I b) Motherboard
c) Memory
C d) Peripherals
T 65. In super-scalar processors, ________ mode of execution is used.
E a) In-order
b) Post order
c) Out of order
66. A special unit used to govern the out of order execution of the instructions is called as
A ______
a) Commitment unit
I b) Temporal unit
C c) Monitor
d) Supervisory unit
T
E
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 67. The important feature of the VLIW is _______

a) ILP
I b) Cost effectiveness
c) Performance
T 68. The VLIW processors are much simpler as they do not require of _____
a) Computational register
E
b) Complex logic circuits
c) SSD slots
d) Scheduling hardware
69. The VLIW architecture follows _____ approach to achieve parallelism.

A a) MISD
b) SISD
I c) SIMD
d) MIMD
C
T 70. EPIC stands for
a) Explicitly Parallel Instruction Computing
E b) External Peripheral Integrating Component
c) External Parallel Instruction Computing
71. RTN stands for ___________

a) Register Transfer Notation
A b) Register Transmission Notation
c) Regular Transmission Notation
I
d) Regular Transfer Notation
C
72. Both the CISC and RISC architectures have been developed to reduce the ______
T a) Cost
b) Time delay
E c) Semantic gap
73. The techniques which move the program blocks to or from the physical memory is called as
______
A a) Paging
b) Virtual memory organisation
I c) Overlays
d) Framing
C
T
E
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 74. The main aim of virtual memory organisation is ________

a) To provide effective memory access
I b) To provide better memory transfer
c) To improve the execution of the program
T 75. The reason for the implementation of the cache memory is ________
a) To increase the internal memory of the system
E
b) The difference in speeds of operation of the processor and memory
c) To reduce the memory access and cycle time
76. The temporal aspect of the locality of reference means ________

A a) That the recently executed instruction won‟t be executed soon
b) That the recently executed instruction is temporarily not referenced
I c) That the recently executed instruction will be executed soon again
C
77. The correspondence between the main memory blocks and those in the cache is given by
T
_________
E a) Hash function
b) Mapping function
c) Locale function
d) Assign function
78. The write-through procedure is used ________

A a) To write onto the memory directly
b) To write and read from memory simultaneously
I c) To write directly on the memory and the cache simultaneously
C
T 79. The bit used to signify that the cache location is updated is ________
a) Dirty bit
E b) Update bit
c) Reference bit
d) Flag bit
80. The copy-back protocol is used ________

a) To copy the contents of the memory onto the cache
A b) To update the contents of the memory from the cache
c) To remove the contents of the cache and push it on to the memory
I
C
T
E
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A PART-B (40X2 = 80 Marks)
I 81. The upper bound on the time complexity of the nondeterministic sorting algorithm is
a) O(n)
C
b) O(n log n)
T c) O(1)
d) O( log n)
E
82. The worst case time complexity of the nondeterministic dynamic knapsack algorithm is
a) O(n log n)
b) O( log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n)
A
I 83. The time complexity of the normal quick sort, randomized quick sort algorithms in the worst
case is
C a) O(n2), O(n log n)
b) O(n2), O(n2)
T c) O(n log n), O(n2)
E d) O(n log n), O(n log n)
84. Let there be an array of length „N‟, and the selection sort algorithm is used to sort it, how many
times a swap function is called to complete the execution?
a) N log N times
b) log N times
A c) N2 times
d) N-1 times
I
85. The Sorting method which is used for external sort is
C a) Bubble sort
b) Quick sort
T c) Merge sort
d) Radix sort
E
86. In analysis of algorithm, approximate relationship between the size of the job and the amount of
work required to do is expressed by using _________
a) Central tendency
b) Differential equation
A c) Order of execution
d) Order of magnitude
I
87. P, Q and R are pointer variables. The statements below are intended to swap the contents of the
C nodes pointed to by P and Q. rewrite it so that it will work as intended.
P = Q; R = Q; Q = R;
T a) R=Q; P=R; Q=R;
b) R=P; P=P; Q=Q;
E c) P=P; P=Q; R=Q;
d) R=P; P=Q; Q=R;
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 88. Consider the usual algorithm for determining whether a sequence of parentheses is balanced.
What is the maximum number of parentheses that will appear on the stack AT ANY ONE TIME
I when the algorithm analyzes: (()(())(()))
a) 1
C b) 2
c) 3
T
d) 4
E
89. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______
a) Greedy
b) Dynamic 0 / 1
c) Back tracking
d) Branch & Bound 0/1
A
90. Choose the correct answer for the following statements:
I
I. The theory of NP–completeness provides a method of obtaining a polynomial time for
C NPalgorithms.
II. All NP-complete problem are NP-Hard.
T
a) I is FALSE and II is TRUE
E b) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
c) Both are TRUE
d) Both are FALSE
91. For 0/1 KNAPSACK problem, the algorithm takes ________ amount of time for memory table,
A and ______time to determine the optimal load, for N objects and W as the capacity of
KNAPSACK.
I a) O(N+W), O(NW)
b) O(NW), O(N+W)
C c) O(N), O(NW)
d) O(NW), O(N)
T
E 92. When a large number of registers are included in the CPU, it is most efficient to connect then
through a ______.
a) ALU
b) Memory Register
c) STACK
d) QUEUE
A
I 93. HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) has similarities to both of the following protocols
a) FTP; SMTP
C b) FTP; SNMP
c) FTP; MTV
T d) FTP; URL
E
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 94. What is the bit combination used by the SAPI field of ISDN‟s data link layer, to control call for
end-to-end signaling in LAPD addressing format?
I a) 000000
b) 000010
C c) 010000
d) 000001
T
E 95. Which category of AAL of ATM is intended to support connection-oriented data services?
a) AAL1
b) AAL2
c) AAL3
d) AAL4
A 96. In the process of congestion control, the bits FECN and BECN of frame relay protocol are useful to
a) Warn sender and receiver of congestion in the network respectively
I
b) Warn receiver and sender of congestion in the network respectively
C c) Warn only receiver of congestion in the network respectively
d) Warn only sender of congestion in the network respectively
T
97. MIME allows what type of data to be sent through SMTP?
E a) Audio
b) Video
c) Image
d) All of the above
98. Which of the following application protocol is a framework for managing devices in an internet
A using
I the TCP/IP protocol suite.
a) SMTP
C b) SNMP
c) FTP
T d) TELNET
99. Which of the following component of SMTP can transform non-SMTP mail to SMTP format and
E vice versa.
a) mail spool
b) mail gateway
c) mail file
d) mail exchanger
A
100. What names objects, defines the type of data that can be stored in an object, and encodes data for
I network transmission.
a) MIB
C b) SMI
c) SNMP
T
d) ASN.1
E
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 101. Flow Control in data communications .

a) Can be implemented using a CSMA/CD Protocol
I b) Makes a channel an error-free one.
c) Can be implemented using a Stop-and-Wait Protocol
C d) Cannot be implemented on a simplex link
T
102. Which of the following is not correct regarding the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and
E Post
Office Protocol3 (POP3)?
a) SMTP delivers email by having the source machine establish a TCP connection to port 25 of
the destination machine
b) SMTP and POP3 are simple one ASCII protocols
c) POP3 uses the port 20 by default to establish a connection
A d) POP3 is used for fetching email from a remote mailbox
I
103. The pipelining process is also called as ______
C a) Superscalar operation
b) Assembly line operation
T c) Von Neumann cycle
E
104.To increase the speed of memory access in pipelining, we make us
a) Special memory locations
b) Special purpose registers
c) Cache
A d) Buffers
I
105. The situation wherein the data of operands are not available is called ______
C a) Data hazard
b) Stock
T
c) Deadlock
E d) Structural hazard
106. The contention for the usage of a hardware device is called ______
a) Structural hazard
b) Stalk
A c) Deadlock
I
107.The logic operations are implemented using _______ circuits.
C a) Bridge
T b) Logical
c) Combinatorial
E
d) Gate
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A
108.The carry generation function: ci + 1 = yici + xici + xiyi, is implemented in ____________
I
a) Half adders
C b) Full adders
T c) Ripple adders
d) Fast adders
E
109.Which option is true regarding the carry in the ripple adders?

a) Are generated at the beginning only
b) Must travel through the configuration
A
c) Is generated at the end of each operation
I d) None of the mentioned
C
110.In full adders the sum circuit is implemented using ________
T
a) AND&OR gates
E b) NAND gate
c) XOR
d) XNOR
A 111.The usual implementation of the carry circuit involves _________

a) And & or gates
I
b) XOR
C c) NAND
T d) XNOR
E
112. A _______ gate is used to detect the occurrence of an overflow.
a) NAND
b) XOR
c) XNOR
A
d) AND
I
113.VLIW stands for?
C
a) Very Long Instruction Word
T b) Very Long Instruction Width
c) Very Large Instruction Word
E
d) Very Long Instruction Width
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 114.To compute the direction of the branch the VLIW uses _____
a) Seekers
I
b) Heuristics
C c) Direction counter
T d) Compass
E
115.EPIC stands for?
a) Explicitly Parallel Instruction Computing
b) External Peripheral Integrating Component
c) External Parallel Instruction Computing
A
d)None of the mentioned
I
C 116. ______ translates the logical address into a physical address.
a) MMU
T
b) Translator
E c) Compiler
d) Linker
117.The associatively mapped virtual memory makes use of _______

a) TLB
A
b) Page table
I c) Frame table
C
T 118.The special memory used to store the micro routines of a computer is ________
a) Control table
E
b) Control store
c) Control mart
d) Control shop
A 119.To read the control words sequentially _________ is used.

a) PC
I b) IR
C c) UPC
T
E
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1CSE48
A 120.Every time a new instruction is loaded into IR the output of ________ is loaded into UPC.
a) Starting address generator
I b) Loader
C c) Linker
d) Clock
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG1CSE 48
ANSWER KEY 1
Subject: COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGINEERING/COMPUTER SCIENCE/
Paper: 1

1. c 41 a 81. a
2. c 42 a 82. d
3. b 43 b 83. b
4. d 44 a 84. d
5. d 45 d 85. c
6. d 46 a 86. d
7. b 47 c 87. d
8. c 48 b 88. c
9. c 49 b 89. d
10. a 50 d 90. a
11. d 51 a 91. b
12. a 52 b 92. c
13. c 53 d 93. a
14. a 54 b 94. d
15. c 55 c 95. c
16. a 56 a 96. b
17. c 57 a 97. d
18. c 58 a 98. b
19. a 59 c 99. b
20. c 60 c 100. b
21. b 61 c 101. c
22. c 62 c 102. c
23. a 63 b 103. b
24. c 64 a 104. c
25. d 65 c 105. a
26. b 66 a 106. a
27. a 67 a 107. c
28. b 68 d 108. b
29. b 69 d 109. b
30. a 70 a 110. c
31. c 71 a 111. b
32. a 72 c 112. b
33. d 73 b 113. a
34. b 74 d 114. b
35. b 75 b 115. a
36. d 76 c 116. a
37. b 77 b 117. a
38. a 78 c 118. b
39. c 79 a 119. c
40. d 80 b 120. a
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGINEERING/COMPUTER SCIENCE/

I
PAPER-II
T
Instructions:
wrong answer.
I
C ball point pen.
E
PART-A (80x1 = 80 Marks)
1. Which one manages both current and historic transactions?

a) OLTP
A b) OLAP
c) Spread sheet
I d) XML
C 2. Which of the following is the collection of data objects that are similar to one another within the
same group?
T
a) Partitioning
E b) Grid
c) Cluster
d) Table
3. Which of the following data mining techniques are used to analyze the intent of a user query,
provided additional generalized or associated information relevant to the query?
A a) Iceberg query method
I b) Data analyzer
c) Intelligent query answering
C d) DBA
T
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 4. Which of the following process includes data cleaning, data integration, data selection, data
transformation, data mining, pattern evolution and knowledge presentation?
I a) KDD process
b) ETL process
C c) KTL process
d) MDX process
T
E 5. At which level we can create dimensional models?
a) Business requirements level
b) Architecture models level
c) Detailed models level
d) Implementation level
A 6. Which of the following is not related to dimension table attributes?

a) Verbose
I
b) Descriptive
C c) Equally unavailable
d) Complete
T
7. Data warehouse bus matrix is a combination of
E a) Dimensions and data marts
b) Dimensions and facts
c) Facts and data marts
d) Dimensions and detailed facts
A 8. Which of the following is not the managing issue in the modeling process?
I a) Content of primary units column
b) Document each candidate data source
C c) Do regions report to zones
d) Ensure that the transaction edit flat is used for analysis.
T
E 9.Who writes the Software Requirement Specifications Document(SRS)?
a) System Developer
b) System Tester
c) System Analyst
d) None of these above
A
10. What is the goal of the requirements analysis and specifications phase of software development
I life cycle?
a) Understanding the customer requirements and organize them in an informal document
C
b) Analyzing the cost of development
T c) Determining scope of the software
d) None of these above
E
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 11. What is the final outcome of the requirements analysis and specifications phase ?
a) Drawing the data flow diagram
I b) The SRS Document
c) Coding the project
C d) The User Manual
T
12. Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of SRS document ?
E a) Concise
b) Ambiguous
c) Traceable
d) Verifiable
13. What is noise in terms of software development ?

A a) Writing irrelevant statement to the software development in the SRS document
b) Adding contradictory requirements in SRS document
I
c) Writing over-specific requirements
C d) None of these above
T 14. Which of the following is not included in the Software Requirements Specification(SRS)
Document ?
E a) Functional Requirements
b) Non-functional requirement
c) Goals of implementation
d) User manual
A 15. SRS document is called black box specification of a system because

a) It does not contain the contradictory materials
I b) It does not contain the user documentation
c) SRS document should specify only the external behaviour of the system
C d) None of these above
T
16. The CASE tools are used for
E a) system requirements analysis
b) system designing
c) input output design
17. Automated tools for design are also known as

A a) CASE Tools
I b) System design
c) DFD
C d) RAD
T
E
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 18. Speeding up the development process significantly is one of the process of

a) Prototyping
I b) Object model
c) Process Model
C d) Computer-aided Systems Engineering
T 19. The protocol which works without handshaking
a) IP
E b) TCP
c) UDP
d) All of the above
20. UMLs are used for

A a) Object oriented module development
b) Coding of system
I c) Testing of system
d) All of these
C
T 21. A new instance of a class is created by
a) query operation
E b) constructor operation
c) update operation
d) destructor operation
22. UML stands for

a) Unified Modeling Language
A b) Unified Modular Language
c) Unique Modeling Language
I
C
23. An update operation in an object instance
T a) Updates the class
b) Create temporary object
E c) Alters the state of an object
d) Deletes an instance
24. Software Configuration Management is the discipline for systematically controlling

a) the changes due to the evolution of work products as the project proceeds.
A b) the changes due to defects (bugs) being found and then fixed.
c) the changes due to requirement changes.
I d) all of the above
C
25. Which of the following is not a component of Audit risk ?
T a) Inherent risk
b) Control risk
E c) Detection risk
d) Management risk
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A
26. Who plays the role of policy maker in Change Management ?
I a) Project manager
b) Consumer
C c) SCM manager
T
E 27. Controls in processing, must be established in a System in order to :
a) Prohibit tampering with information by unauthorized persons
b) Verify that all data has been processed
c) Block or trap faulty data from entering into processing
d) All of the above
A 28. Which one of the following is not a function of Software Configuration Management Process ?
a) Change Control
I
b) Status Accounting of running change processes
C c) Risk analysis of the project
T
29. What is the aim of Software Configuration Management Process ?
E a) To identify the configuration of the software at specific time
b) Maintaining the integrity and traceability of the software by controlling configuration
changes in a systematic manner
c) Neither b nor a
d) Both a) and b)
A
30. Software Configuration auditing activity is :
I a) determining the cost of development
b) the extent to which a software satisfies the required functional and physical characteristics
C c) delivering information about the changes to members of an organization
d) none of these above
T
E 31. Data Flow Diagrams are used for :
a) Process modelling
b) Modelling interactions in a real time environment
c) Data modelling
A 32. The basic tool used in structured design is a :
I a) Structure Chart
b) Data flow diagram
C c) ER diagram
d) Program flowchart
T
E
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 33. ER diagram is related with :

a) Entity relationship
I b) Data flow
c) Foreign key
C d) System testing
T
34. A Zero level DFD describes :
E a) The fully blown up System Design
b) Data flow in all the modules
c) Overview of processes, inputs and output
d) None of these
35. Depth of inheritance tree (DIT) can be measured by:

A a) Number of ancestors classes
b) Number of successor classes
I
c) Number of failure classes
C d) Number of root classes
T 36. A dynamic page is:

a) where contents are not dependent on the actions of the user
E b) where contents are dependent on the actions of the user
c) where contents cannot be displayed
37. What is testing process‟ first goal?

A a) Bug prevention
b) Testing
I c) Execution
d) Analyses
C
38. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
T
a) Productivity
E b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
39. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
a) Market
A b) Product
I c) Technology
d) People
C
T
E
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 40. Test should be conducted for every possible

a) data
I b) case
c) variable
C d) all of the mentioned
T
41. Which of the following is not a part of bug report?
E a) Test case
b) Output
c) Software Version
d) LOC
42. Which of the following is not a part of Execution Flow during debugging?
A a) Step Over
b) Step Into
I
c) Step Up
C d) Step Out
T 43. Which of the following is the way of ensuring that the tests are actually testing code
a) Control structure testing
E b) Complex path testing
c) Code coverage
d) Quality assurance of software
44. Effective testing will reduce _______ cost.

A a) maintenance
b) design
I c) coding
d) documentation
C
45. Which one is not a phase of “bath tub curve” of hardware reliability
T
a) Burn-in
E b) Useful life
c) Wear-out
d) Test-out
46. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
A b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
C
47. Fault is
T a) Defect in the program
b) Mistake in the program
E c) Error in the program
d) All of the above
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 48. One fault may lead to

a) One failure
I
b) Two failures
C c) Many failures
d) All of the above
T
49. Which „time‟ unit is not used in reliability studies
E a) Execution time
b) Machine time
c) Clock time
d) Calendar time
A 50. Unit testing is done by

a) Users
I b) Developers
c) Customers
T 51. Failure occurrences can be represented as
E a) Time to failure
b) Time interval between failures
c) Failures experienced in a time interval
d) All of the above
52. Maximum possible value of reliability is

A a) 100
b) 10
I c) 1
d) 0
C
T 53. Minimum possible value of reliability is
a) 100
E b) 10
c) 1
d) 0
54. As the reliability increases, failure intensity

A a) Decreases
b) Increases
I c) No effect
C
T
E
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 55. If failure intensity is 0.005 failures/hour during 10 hours of operation of a software, its
reliability can be expressed as
I a) 0.10
b) 0.92
C c) 0.95
d) 0.98
T
E 56. In distributed system each processor has its own
a) local memory
b) clock
c) both local memory and clock
A 57. If one site fails in distributed system

a) the remaining sites can continue operating
I
b) all the sites will stop working
C c) directly connected sites will stop working
T
58. Network operating system runs on
E a) server
b) every system in the network
c) both server and every system in the network
A 59. Which technique is based on compile-time program transformation for accessing remote
data in a distributed-memory parallel system?
I a) cache coherence scheme
b) computation migration
C c) remote procedure call
d) message passing
T
E 60. Logical extension of computation migration is
a) process migration
b) system migration
c) thread migration
d) data migration
A 61. Processes on the remote systems are identified by
I a) host ID
b) host name and identifier
C c) identifier
d) process ID
T
E
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 62. Which routing technique is used in distributed system?

a) fixed routing
I b) virtual routing
c) dynamic routing
C d) all of the above
T
63. In distributed systems, link and site failure is detected by
E a) polling
b) handshaking
c) token passing
64. The capability of a system to adapt the increased service load is called
A a) scalability
b) tolerance
I
c) capacity
T 65. Internet provides _______ for remote login.

a) telnet
E b) http
c) ftp
d) RPC
66. What are parts of network structure ?

A a) Workstation
b) Gateway
I c) Laptop
C
67. What are valid network topology ?
T
a) Multiaccess bus
E b) Ring
c) Star
68. What are sites in network topology compared ?

a) Basic cost
A b) Communication cost
I c) Reliability
C
T
E
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 69.Which design features of a communication network are important ?

a) Naming and name resolution
I b) Routing strategies
c) Connection strategies
T
70. What are characteristics of Naming and Name resolution ?
E a) name systems in the network
b) address messages with the process-id
c) virtual circuit
d) message switching
71. What are routing strategies which is not used in distributed systems ?
A a) Fixed routing
b) Token routing
I
c) Virtual circuit
C d) Dynamic routing
T 72. What are connection strategies not used in distributed systems ?

a) Circuit switching
E b) Message switching
c) Token switching
d) Packet switching
73. How is are collisions avoided in network ?

A a) Carrier sense with multiple access (CSMA); collision detection (CD)
b) Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance
I c) Message slots
C
74. What is common problem found in distributed system ?
T
a) Process Synchronization
E b) Communication synchronization
c) Deadlock problem
d) Power failure
75. What is not true about distributed system ?

a) It is a collection of processor
A b) All processors are synchronized
I c) They do not share memory
C
T
E
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 76. What are characteristics of processor in distributed system ?

a) They vary in size and function
I b) They are same in size and function
c) They are manufactured with single purpose
C d) They are real-time devices
T
77. What are characteristics of distributed file system ?
E a) Its users, servers and storage devices are dispersed
b) Service activity is not carried out across the network
c) They have single centralized data repository
d) There are multiple dependent storage devices
78. What is not a major reason for building distributed systems ?

A a) Resource sharing
b) Computation speedup
I
c) Reliability
C d) Simplicity
T 79. What are types of distributed operating system ?

a) Network Operating system
E b) Zone based Operating system
c) Level based Operating system
80. What are characteristic of Network Operating Systems ?

A a) Users are aware of multiplicity of machines
b) They are transparent
I c) They are simple to use
C
T PART - B (40X2 = 80 Marks)
E 81. How are access to resources of various machines is done ?

a) Remote logging using ssh or telnet
b) Zone are configured for automatic access
c) FTP is not used
A d) All of the mentioned
I 82. What are characteristics of Distributed Operating system ?

a) Users are aware of multiplicity of machines
C b) Access is done like local resources
c) Users are aware of multiplicity of machines
T d) They have multiple zones to access files
E
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 83. What are characteristics of data migration ?

a) transfer data by entire file or immediate portion required
I b) transfer the computation rather than the data
c) execute an entire process or parts of it at different sites
T
84. What are characteristics of computation migration ?
E a) transfer data by entire file or immediate portion required
b) transfer the computation rather than the data
c) execute an entire process or parts of it at different sites
85. Data scrubbing is which of the following?
A a) A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
I b) A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
c) A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse
C d) A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse
T 86. The @active data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?
a) At least one data mart
E
b) Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external
sources
c) Near real-time updates
d) All of the above
A 87. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

a) To explain some observed event or condition
I b) To confirm that data exists
c) To analyze data for expected relationships
C d) To create a new data warehouse
T
88. An operational system is which of the following?
E a) A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on
historical data.
b) A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on
current data.
c) A system that is used to support decision making and is based on
current data.
A
d) A system that is used to support decision making and is based on
I historical data.
C 89. A data warehouse is which of the following?

a) Can be updated by end users.
T b) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
E c) Organized around important subject areas.
d) Contains only current data.
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A
90. A snowflake schema is which of the following types of tables?
I a) Fact
b) Dimension
C c) Helper
d) All of the above
T
E 91. The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?
b) Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
c) Near real-time updates
d) All of the above.
A 92. Fact tables are which of the following?

a) Completely denoralized
I
b) Partially denoralized
C c) Completely normalized
d) Partially normalized
T
93. Data transformation includes which of the following?
E a) A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level
b) A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level
c) Joining data from one source into various sources of data
d) Separating data from one source into various sources of data
A 94. Reconciled data is which of the following?

a) Data stored in the various operational systems throughout the organization.
I b) Current data intended to be the single source for all decision support systems.
c) Data stored in one operational system in the organization.
C d) Data that has been selected and formatted for end-user support applications.
T
95. The load and index is which of the following?
E a) A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
b) A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
c) A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse
b) A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse
96. The extract process is which of the following?

A a) Capturing all of the data contained in various operational systems
I b) Capturing a subset of the data contained in various operational systems
c) Capturing all of the data contained in various decision support systems
C d) Capturing a subset of the data contained in various decision support systems
T
E
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 97. Transient data is which of the following?

a) Data in which changes to existing records cause the previous version of the records
I to be eliminated
b) Data in which changes to existing records do not cause the previous version of the
C records to be eliminated
c) Data that are never altered or deleted once they have been added
T
d) Data that are never deleted once they have been added
E
98. A multifield transformation does which of the following?
a) Converts data from one field into multiple fields
b) Converts data from multiple fields into one field
c) Converts data from multiple fields into multiple fields
d) All of the above
A
I 99. …………………… is a good alternative to the star schema
C a) Star schema
b) Snowflake schema
T c) Fact constellation
d) Star-snowflake schema
E
100. The ………………………. exposes the information being captured, stored, and
managed by operational systems.
a) top-down view
b) data warehouse view
A c) data source view
d) business query view
I
101. The type of relationship in star schema is ……………
C
a) many to many
T b) one to one
c) one to many
E d) many to one
102. The ……………… allows the selection of the relevant information necessary for the
data warehouse.
a) top-down view
A b) data warehouse view
c) data source view
I d) business query view
C 103. Which of the following is not a component of a data warehouse?

a) Metadata
T b) Current detail data
E c) Lightly summarized data
d) Component Key
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 104. Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?

a) Information processing
I b) Analytical processing
c) Data mining
C d) Transaction processing
T
105. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
E a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project
b) track potential risk
c) help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
106. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
A performance?
I a) Market
b) Product
C c) Technology
d) People
T
107. The intent of project metrics is
E a) minimization of development schedule
b) for strategic purposes
c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
d) minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing
basis
A
108. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
I a) Efficiency
b) Cost
C c) Effort Applied
T d) All of the mentioned
E 109. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned
A
110. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________
I a) number of functions
b) number of user inputs
C c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage
T
E
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 111. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point in FPA ?
I a) Number of user input
b) Number of user inquiries
C c) Number of external interfaces
d) Number of errors
T
E 112. Usability can be measured in terms of:
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
c) Net increase in productivity
A 113. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are
meaningful is known as
I
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
C b) Function points analysis
c) Control Chart
E 114. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on
a) errors found before software delivery
b) defects found after delivery to user
c) Both a) and b)
d) Varies with project
A
115. Which of the following is not project management goal?
I a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
C c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
T
E 116. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
A 117. 66.6% risk is considered as
I a) very low
b) low
C c) moderate
d) high
T
E
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2CSE48
A 118. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
I b) project
c) customers
C d) project manager
T
119.Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
E software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
A 120.Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
I
b) Process analysis
C c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG2CSE 48
ANSWER KEY 1
Subject: COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGINEERING/COMPUTER SCIENCE/
Paper: II

1. b 41 d 81. a
2. c 42 c 82. b
3. c 43 c 83. a
4. a 44 a 84. b
5. b 45 d 85. d
6. c 46 a 86. d
7. a 47 d 87. a
8. d 48 d 88. b
9. c 49 b 89. c
10. a 50 b 90. d
11. b 51 d 91. b
12. b 52 c 92. c
13. a 53 d 93. a
14. d 54 a 94. b
15. c 55 c 95. b
16. b 56 c 96. b
17. a 57 a 97. a
18. d 58 a 98. d
19. c 59 b 99. c
20. a 60 a 100. c
21. b 61 b 101. c
22. a 62 d 102. a
23. c 63 b 103. d
24. d 64 a 104. d
25. a 65 a 105. c
26. c 66 d 106. a
27. d 67 d 107. d
28. c 68 d 108. a
29. d 69 d 109. d
30. b 70 b 110. c
31. a 71 c 111. d
32. a 72 c 112. d
33. a 73 d 113. c
34. c 74 c 114. c
35. a 75 b 115. d
36. b 76 a 116. c
37. a 77 a 117. d
38. b 78 d 118. b
39. a 79 a 119. a
40. d 80 a 120. b
ROLL NO.: PG1EVE44
A ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
I
C
T
PAPER-I
E
Instructions:
the wrong answer.
A
I vi. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
C vii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
viii. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion
ix. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise specified.
E
A 1. The two major components in biogas are

(a) methane and carbon dioxide
I (b) methane and ammonia
C (c) methane and hydrogen sulphide
(d) ammonia and hydrogen sulphide
T
2. Mesophilic bacteria grow in the temperature range of _____0C
E (a) 20 - 45
(b) 10-25
(c) 35-50
(d) 0-20
A 3. Which among the following microbial processes produces maximum energy?

(a) anaerobic respiration
I (b) aerobic respiration
(c) fermentation
C (d) anoxic process
T 4. Conversion of nitrate nitrogen to nitrogen gas anaerobically by bacteria is known as
(a) nitrification
E
(b) denitrification
(c) anaerobic process
(d) biological process
Page 1 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1EVE44
5. Constructed wetlands could be an ideal low-cost wastewater treatment system for

A
India because
I (a) tropical climate is ideal for its working
(b) wastewater in India has low strength
C (c) wastewater in India is homogeneous
(d) India is a developing country
T
E 6. During biochemical reactions the organisms that thrive at 0-100C are called
(a) psychrophilic
(b) thermophilic
(c) mesophilic
7. Enzymes are composed mostly of

(a) lipids
A (b) carbohydrates
I (c) proteins
(d) polysaccharides
C
8. Nitrifiers are
T (a) autotrophic
(b) heterotrophic
E (c) phototrophic
9. Which of the following is not used an indicator of faecal pollution in testing

microbiological water quality?
A (a) total coliforms
(b) faecal coliforms
I (c) E. coli
(d) Salmonella typhi
C
T 10. UASB process is an example of
(a) aerobic attached growth process
E (b) aerobic suspended growth process
(c) anaerobic suspended growth process
(d) anaerobic attached growth process
11. Compared to aerobic process, sludge production in anaerobic processes is

(a) higher
A (b) lower
I (c) the same
(d) depends on the type of wastewater
C
12. Which of the following is a water-borne disease?
T (a) malaria
(b) dengue fever
E (c) chicken pox
(d) polio
Page 2 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1EVE44
13. E. coli is
A
(a) gram negative
I (b) gram positive
(c) gram neutral
T 14. According to Monod’s equation, maximum specific growth rate is achieved when
(a) substrate concentration is high
E (b) substrate concentration is low
(c) when biomass concentration is high
(d) when biomass concentration is low
15. Nitrification involves
(a) nitrosomonas
(b) nitrobacter
(c) both nitrosomonas and nitrobacter
A
(d) E-Coli
I 16. In a biological wastewater treatment process, biomass is measured as
(a) BOD
C
(b) COD
T (c) TSS
(d) VSS
E
17. In bacterial growth pattern in a batch reactor, the limiting parameter during
exponential growth phase is
(a) concentration of substrate
(b) concentration of nutrients
(c) temperature
A (d) distribution of bacteria in the reactor
I 18. In raw and treated wastewater, nitrogen can occur in __________ form
(a) organic-N
C (b) ammonia-N
(c) nitrate-N
T
(d) all the above
E 19. Trophic level refers to
(a) area in the tropics
(b) an organism’s position in a food chain
(c) organism’s position in an ecosystem
(d) an organism’s position in a biome
A 20. --------- are obligate parasites.
(a) bacteria
I
(b) protozoa
C (c) viruses
(d) algae
T
21. Constructed wetlands are effective in removing
E (a) heavy metals
(b) organic matter
(c) nitrogen
(d) all the above
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22. In Monod equation, Ks, the half saturation constant, has a typical unit of
A
(a) mg/L
I (b) L/mg
(c) m/sec
C (d) sec/m
T 23. Typical MLSS concentration in conventional ASP is (mg/L)
E (a) 2500
(b) 5000
(c) 250
(d) 500
24. Typical detention time used in constructed wetlands treating low strength municipal
wastewater is
(a) 1 hour
A (b) 8 hour
I (c) 2 days
(d) 1 month
C
25. The process in which microbes are added to enhance the degradation is known as
T (a) biotreatment
(b) bioremediation
E (c) biolistics
(d) biostimulation
26. The enzyme kinetics is described by

(a) Charle’s law
A (b) Henry’s law
(c) Michaelis-Menton equation
I (d) Monod equation
C 27. Conventional activated sludge process is aimed at removing
T (a) phosophorus
(b) nitrogen
E (c) BOD
(d) pathogens
28. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of a septic tank?
(a) Effluent from septic tank can be directly disposed of into natural water course
(b) Septic tank is an anaerobic treatment process
A (c) Septic tank effluent may contain pathogens
(d) Septic tank is an onsite treatment unit
I
C 29. In water quality engineering, nutrients are
(a) N, P and K
T (b) N and K
(c) P and K
E (d) N and P
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30. Relation between hydraulic retention time (HRT) and cell retention time (BSRT) in
A
activated sludge process is
I (a) HRT = BSRT
(b) HRT > BSRT
C (c) HRT < BSRT
(d) Depends on type of treatment plant
T
E 31. The dominating microorganisms in activated sludge process are
(a) aerobic heterotrophs
(b) anaerobic heterotrophs
(c) autotrophs
(d) phototrophs
32. During endogenous phase bacterial number
(a) increases exponentially
A (b) decreases
(c) increases linearly
I (d) remains the same
C 33. Typhoid is a disease caused by
(a) algae
T (b) virus
E (c) protozoa
(d) bacteria
34. Bacterial metabolic processes are

(a) oxidation processes
(b) reduction processes
A (c) both oxidation and reduction processes
I
C 35. Which of the following is an algicide?
(a) alum
T (b) copper sulphate
(c) iron chloride
E (d) sodium nitrate
36. In which wastewater treatment unit, there is interaction between algae and bacteria?
(a) activated sludge plant
(b) tricking filter
A (c) oxidation pond
(d) anaerobic digester
I
37. The growth of methanogenic bacteria during anaerobic digestion is normally inhibited
C at pH values less than
(a) 4.0
T
(b) 8.0
E (c) 6.5
(d) 10.0
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38. Theoretical methane production is about -------- L/g COD removed

A
(a) 0.35
I (b) 3.50
(c) 35
C (d) 350
T 39. What is the most abundant Greenhouse Gas in atmosphere?
(a) carbon dioxide
E (b) methane
(c) water vapor
(d) tropospheric ozone
40. Approximate carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere is
(a) 10 ppm
(b) < 1 ppm
(c) 100 ppm
A
(d) 400 ppm
I 41. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
C (a) CO
(b) SO2
T (c) O3
(d) SPM
E
42. Incomplete combustion of fuel produces
(a) SO2
(b) CO
(c) CO2
(d) NO2
A
43. Lean fuel mixtures produce
I (a) more sulphur dioxide
(b) more nitrogen oxides
C (c) more CO
T (d) more CO2
44. Gravity settling chambers are used for removing air-borne particles of size
E
(a) > 50 µm
(b) < 50 µm
(c) > 1 µm
(d) < 1 µm
A 45. A device that can be used for removing both gaseous and particulate air pollutants
(a) ESP
I (b) fabric filter
(c) gravity settling chamber
C (d) scrubber
T 46. Horizontal pockets of relatively warm air surrounded by cooler air is called
(a) hazardous air pollutant
E (b) heat island
(c) temperature inversion
(d) coning
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47. ---------- plume is formed when the atmosphere is neutrally stable

A
(a) looping
I (b) coning
(c) fanning
C (d) lofting
T 48. Spray tower is an example of
(a) absorption unit
E (b) leaching unit
(c) filtration unit
(d) disinfection unit
49. Three-way catalytic converter removes
(a) CO, HC and SO2
(b) CO2,HC and SO2
(c) CO, HC and NOx
A (d) CO, NOx and SO2
I 50. When the environmental lapse rate equals to adiabatic lapse rate and both the lines
coincide, the environment is called
C (a) neutral
T (b) unstable
(c) stable
51. Which pollutants are formed in the atmosphere due to photochemical reactions?
(a) CO and ammonia
(b) PAN and ammonia
(c) ozone and PAN
A (d) ammonia and ozone
I 52. Looping occurs when

(a) vertical temperature gradient is super adiabatic
C (b) vertical temperature gradient is sub adiabatic
(c) temperature gradient neutral
T (d) during inversion
E 53. The aerosols in the air have effective diameter less than _________ µm
(a) 10
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 25
A 54. Haemoglobin of the blood forms carboxy-haemoglobin with
(a) sulphur dioxide
I
(b) carbon dioxide
C (c) carbon monoxide
(d) ozone
T
55. Most air pollution episodes have occurred in
E (a) summer
(b) rainy season
(c) winter
(d) all the above
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56. The atmospheric layer closest to the earth surface is

A
(a) the mesosphere
I (b) the stratosphere
(c) the thermosphere
C (d) the troposphere
T 57. What type of colloid is an aerosol?
(a) solid in gas
E (b) gas in liquid
(c) liquid in gas
(d) liquid or solid in gas
58. Which of the following is an indicator of Air Pollution?

(a) lichens
(b) algae
A (c) cycas
(d) bryophytes
I
59. Which law is called as an umbrella act for Environment in India?
C (a) Environment Protection Act-1986
T (b) Indian Forest Act -1980
(c) Biological Diversity Act- 2002
E (d) Wildlife Protection Act- 1972
60. Number of Sustainable Development Goals and Millennium Development Goals are
respectively
(a) 18, 8
(b) 18, 7
A (c) 17, 8
I (d) 17, 9
C 61. Earth hour is organized by

(a) Wildlife Fund for Nature
T (b) UNESCO
(c) Earth Hour Foundation
E
(d) UNEP
62. Environmental Audit for industries is mandatory in

(a) Assam
(b) Kerala
A (c) Gujarat
(d) Himachal Pradesh
I
63. Which among the following multilateral convention seeks to protect the environment
C
and human health from Persistent Organic Pollutants?
T (a) Bonn convention
(b) Stockholm Convention
E (c) Rotterdam Convention
(d) Basel Convention
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64. Which of the following item is not included in Environmental Auditing?

A
(a) Pollution monitoring schemes
I (b) Storage of toxic chemicals
(c) Scrutiny by the Government Agencies
C (d) Safety provisions for Industrial Works
T 65. What does Environmental Management system cover?
E (a) Establish environment objectives/targets
(b) Establish an environment policy
(c) Conduct a preliminary environment review
66. What is the first stage of EMS process?

(a) Define Organization's Goals for EMS
(b) Secure Top Management Commitment.
A (c) Build an Implementation Team.
I (d) Conduct Preliminary Review
C 67. Which is the central government nodal agency, responsible for planning, promotion
and coordination of all environmental activities?
T (a) The Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Municipal Corporation
E (c) State Pollution Control Boards
(d) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
68. Which convention adopted the protection of ozone layer treaty?

(a) Vienna Convention
A (b) Basel Convention
(c) Rotterdam Convention
I (d) Stockholm Convention
C 69. The primary concept of industrial ecology is to study
T (a) flow of materials and energy
(b) reduced use of material resources and reduction of waste generation
E (c) opportunities to improve efficiency of industrial process
(d) all the above
70. Which of the following is the goals of Environmental Management System (EMS)?
(a) preventing and resolving Environmental problems
(b) identifying threats and opportunities
A (c) improving the quality of life
I (d) all of the above
C 71. Which one is not an Environmental Management tool?

(a) Environment assessment
T (b) Environment audits
(c) Life cycle assessment
E
(d) Cost reduction
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72. An emission inventory is a database containing information regarding

A
(a) air pollutants released to the environment data
I (b) production process data
(c) economic data
C (d) all the above
T 73. Sustainable development is
E (a) the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the
ability of future generations to meet their own needs
(b) a model of development where the resource uptake and waste generation are
within the supportive and assimilative capacities of the environment, respectively
(c) the practice of developing land and construction projects in a manner that reduces
their impact on the environment by allowing them to create energy efficient
models of self-sufficiency.
A (d) All of the above
I
74. The Solid Waste Management Rules are enacted in the year
C (a) 1972
(b) 1987
T (c) 2004
(d) 2016
E
75. What is the first step in IS 14000 certification programme?
(a) Creating an EMS
(b) Establish a project committee
(c) Perform a gap analysis
A (d) Prepare a draft environment policy
I 76. Life Cycle Analysis is

(a) The amount of environmental degradation that the average person creates within
C their lifetime, expressed in monetary terms
(b) Assessment of the area of biosphere required to sustain an individual,
T company/organization or country
(c) Evaluation of all the environment impacts of a product from the time the raw
E
materials are gathered to their ultimate disposal
(d) Evaluation of the difference in the amount of environmental impacts caused by
individuals from different parts of the world
77. The maximum number of individual that can be supported by a given environment is
A called
(a) biotic potential
I (b) carrying capacity
(c) environmental resistance
C (d) population size
T 78. The chemical formula for CFC - 11 is
(a) CF2Cl2
E
(b) CFCl3
(c) CHFCl2
(d) CHFCl3
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79. Which of the following appears to contribute to global cooling rather than global
A
warming?
I (a) nitrous oxide
(b) aerosols
C (c) methane
(d) chlorofluorocarbons
T
80. The ‘Ecomark’ logo followed by the Bureau of Indian Standards is
E
(a) an earthen pot
(b) Gandhiji’s spectacles
(c) a pair of dove
(d) two green leaves

A
I 81. The food-to-microorganism ratio in activated sludge process is defined as
Q 𝑆0 –S
C (a) VX
T VX
(b)
Q 𝑆0 –S
E
Q 𝑆0 –S
(c) X
𝑄𝑆
(d) 𝑉𝑋
A 82. In an aerobic complete mix biological treatment process without recycle has
wastewater inflow 1000 m3/d and biodegradable soluble COD is 500 g/m3. The
I reactor effluent has biodegradable soluble COD 10 g/m3 and VSS concentration 200
C g/m3. The observed yield in g VSS/g COD removed/d
(a) 0.81
T (b) 1.42
(c) 0.41
E (d) 1.64
83. An anaerobic reactor treats wastewater stream with a flow rate of 3000 m3/d and the
biodegradable COD is 5000 g/m3. At 95% COD removal, net biomass yield is 0.04 g
VSS/g CODremoved/d. The methane produced in L/d is
A (a) 200.28
(b) 283.29
I (c) 300.45
(d) 400.12
C
84. Which of the following are basic steps involved in anaerobic process?
T i. Hydrolysis
ii. Acidogenesis
E iii. Sludge digestion
iv. Methanogenesis
v. Fermentation
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A
(a) i, ii, iii, v
I (b) ii, iii, iv, v
(c) i, iii, iv, v
C (d) i, ii, iv, v
T 85. Correct hierarchy of waste management options in the descending order of
importance
E 1. disposal
2. minimization
3. prevention
4. recycling
(a) 3, 2, 4, 1
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
A (c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
I
86. In a trickling filter if volume of filter is 2440 m3, Organic loading rate 805 kg per day,
C
recirculation factor is 1.89. Percentage Efficiency of filter will be
T (a) 90%
(b) 85%
E (c) 55%
(d) 33%
87. In stationary phase of bacterial growth in batch culture

(a) death rate = growth rate
(b) growth rate > death rate
A (c) growth rate < death rate
(d) none of these
I
88. Monod equation describes relationship between
C
(a) specific substrate utilization rate and specific growth rate
T (b) specific substrate utilization rate and biomass yield
(c) substrate concentration and specific growth rate
E (d) substrate concentration and biomass yield
89. 120 mg/m3 of SO2 is equivalent to ------- ppm. (Take S – 32, O – 16)
(a) 45
(b) 64
(c) 120
A (d) 138
I 90. Population projections are quite often mathematically modelled with a logistic growth curve
dN N
C of the form  rN (1  ) , where N is the population size, r is the growth rate and K is
dt K
T the carrying capacity of the environment. The maximum sustainable yield of the ecosystem is
E (a) 𝐾 2
𝐾
(b) 4
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ROLL NO.: PG1EVE44
𝐾
A (c)
2
(d) K
I 91. Bacteria are generally represented by the chemical formula C4H7O2N. Analysis of 100
g of bacterial biomass will give ____ g of nitrogen. (Given: Molecular weight of O =
C
16; H = 1; N = 14; C = 12)
T (a) 1
(b) 2
E (c) 14
(d) 10
92. Generation time of a bacteria is 30 min. If we start with 100 bacteria in batch culture,
the number of bacteria after 4 hours is
(a) 25600
(b) 108
A (c) 104
(d) 1030
I
93. 100 g of glucose converted during batch culture produced 40 g of excess biomass.
C Biomass yield is
T (a) 1.0
(b) 0.4
E (c) 40
(d) 100
94. The amount of methane formed in a anaerobic treatment plant of 1 MLD treating
wastewater with a initial COD of 2500 mg/L with an efficiency of 60% is about
(a) 500 m3
A (b) 100 m3
(c) 5 m3
I
(d) 10 m3
C
95. In anaerobic treatment methane is produced from
T (a) acetic acid
(b) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
E (c) from both acetic acid and carbon dioxide & hydrogen
(d) none of these
96. Which of the following thermodynamics principles used for calculating gas-aerosol
equilibrium?
A (a) equilibrium constant or chemical potential
(b) solute activity coefficient and water activity
I (c) relative humidity of deliquescence
(d) all the above
C
T 97. Which of the following air pollutants are responsible for photchemical smog?
1. NOx
E 2. HC
3. CO
4. O3
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5. SO2
A
I (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
C (c) 2, 3 and 4
T (d) 3, 4 and 5
98. A coal-burning power plant burns coal at a rate of 4000 tons/day. The ash content of
E
the coal is 5%. Assume 30% of the ash drops out of the furnace and 70% becomes fly
ash. Calculate the efficiency required for a control device to meet a particulate matter
emission limit of 2 tons/day.
(a) 98.6%
(b) 99.1%
(c) 99.5%
(d) 99.9%
A
99. Stoichiometric air-fuel ratio for petrol (C8H18) is around
I (a) 14.5
(b) 1.45
C (c) 2.45
T (d) 2.85
E 100. A coal-burning power plant burns coal at a rate of 4000 tons/day. The sulphur content
of the coal is 1.5%. The rate of CaCO3 needed to capture 90% of the SO2 generated is
about (Atomic weights are C 12; O 16; S 32; Ca 40)
(a) 54 tons/day
(b) 85 tons/day
(c) 108 tons/day
A (d) 169 tons/day
I
101. The volume occupied by one g mole of an ideal gas at 250C and at 1 atm is nearly
C (a) 2.05 L
(b) 22.4 L
T (c) 24.5 L
(d) 28.9 L
E
102. The ozone concentration at a monitoring station is measured as 0.11 ppm at 250C and
1 atm. What is the concentration in µg/m3? (Molecular weight of ozone is 48).
(a) 155
(b) 190
A (c) 215
(d) 260
I
103. Polluted air in a fertilizer plant flows through a 73% cyclone and then through an
C ESP. The inlet air to the cyclone has a dust loading of 8 g/m 3. In order to meet a
T standard of 98.5% collection efficiency for the fertilizer plant as a whole, what is the
allowable concentration of dust (in g/m3) in the air that exists from the ESP?
E
(a) 0.015
(b) 0.12
(c) 2.16
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(d) 5.84
A
I 104. Polluted air in a fertilizer plant flows through a 73% cyclone and then through an
ESP. The inlet air to the cyclone has a dust loading of 8 g/m 3. In order to meet a
C standard of 98.5% collection efficiency for the fertilizer plant as a whole, what is the
required collection efficiency for just the ESP?
T (a) 91.5%
E (b) 94.5%
(c) 97.5%
(d) 98.5%
105. The annual and 24-hour ambient air quality standards for SO2 for residential areas
(µg/m3) are
(a) 500 and 120
(b) 120 and 500
A (c) 50 and 80
(d) 80 and 50
I
106. A feed water has contaminant C0 = 100 mg/L which is degraded following first-order
C reaction kinetics and a rate constant of 0.5 1/h. The feed flow rate is 100 L/h. When
two continuous stirred tank reactor (CSTR) are connected in series with each of
T detention time 1 h, the conversion of feed contaminant is
E (a) 84%
(b) 80%
(c) 72%
(d) 60%
107. An anemometer at a height of 10 m above the ground measures the wind speed as 2.5
m/s. The wind speed at an elevation 300 m in rough terrain for stability class C with
A
exponent p = 0.2 will be
I (a) 4.9 m/s
(b) 9.8 m/s
C (c) 2.4 m/s
(d) 2.5 m/s
T
108. In Gaussian dispersion model for air pollution, σzrefers to
E (a) vertical dispersion coefficient
(b) maximum mixing depth
(c) diffusion coefficient
109. In air pollution meteorology, when the ELR meets the DALR, one can obtain
A (a) pressure
I (b) MMD
(c) ventilation coefficient
C (d) wind speed
T 110. Statement (I): Electrostatic precipitators (ESP) can remove particles of sub-micron
size.
E Statement (II): Due to high voltage supply, ESPs attract any charged particle.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
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(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not
A
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
I (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
C 111. It was decided to construct a fabric filter, using bags of 0.45 diameter and 7.5 m long,
for removing industrial stack gas containing particulates. The rate of airflow into the
T filter is 10 m3/s. If the filtering velocity is 2 m/min, the minimum number of bags
E required for continuous cleaning operation is
(a) 25
(b) 29
(c) 30
(d) 31
112. An electrostatic precipitator with 560 m2 of collector plate area is 90% efficient in
treating flue gas a thermal power plant. It was found that in order to achieve 99%
A efficiency, the collector area should be 1120 m2. In order to achieve 99.9% efficiency,
I the area required would be
(a) 1130 m2
C (b) 1680 m2
(c) 2240 m2
T (d) 2530 m2
E 113. The two air pollution control devices that are usually used to remove very fine
particles from the flue gas are
(a) cyclone and venture scrubber
(b) cyclone and packed scrubber
(c) electrostatic precipitator and fabric filter
A (d) settling chamber and tray scrubber
I 114. A parcel of air having 300C temperature moves from ground level to 500 m elevation
in dry air following the adiabatic lapse rate. The resulting temperature of air parcel at
C 500 m elevation will be
T (a) 250C
(b) 350C
E (c) 200C
(d) 400C
115. What does the aerodynamic diameter of an aerosol indicate?
(a) size of the aerosol particle when floating in air
(b) equivalent diameter of a sphere having same volume as that of the aerosol
A (c) average diameter of aerosol particles present in unit volume of air
(d) maximum size of aerosol particle that can float in air
I
116. Which of the following describes the principles and framework for life cycle
C assessment (LCA)?
(a) ISO 14040
T
(b) ISO 14050
E (c) ISO 14060
(d) ISO 14080
117. Environment performance evaluation standard is based on
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(a) checklist
A
(b) PDCA model
I (c) matrices method
(d) network method
C 118. Which of the following is NOT present in acid rain?
(a) nitric acid
T (b) sulphuric acid
E (c) acetic acid
(d) carbonic acid
119. Precursors to photochemical oxidants are

(a) NOx, VOCs and sunlight
(b) SO2, CO2 and sunlight
(c) H2S, CO and sunlight
(d) SO2, NH3 and sunlight
A
I 120. Yearly average solar intensity reaching the earth is
(a) 1372 W/m2
C (b) <100 W/m2
(c) 15,000W/m2
T (d) 1250 W/m2
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
PG1EVE4 4
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Environmental Engineering
Paper: 1
Q No Ans Q No Ans Q No Ans Q No Ans Q No Ans

1 a 26 c 51 c 76 c 101 c
2 a 27 c 52 a 77 b 102 c
3 b 28 a 53 b 78 b 103 b
4 b 29 d 54 c 79 b 104 b
5 a 30 c 55 c 80 a 105 c
6 a 31 a 56 d 81 a 106 a
7 c 32 b 57 d 82 c 107 a
8 a 33 d 58 a 83 b 108 a
9 d 34 c 59 a 84 d 109 b
10 c 35 b 60 c 85 a 110 a
11 b 36 c 61 a 86 b 111 b
12 d 37 c 62 c 87 a 112 c
13 a 38 a 63 b 88 c 113 c
14 a 39 c 64 c 89 a 114 a
15 c 40 d 65 d 90 c 115 b
16 d 41 c 66 a 91 c 116 a
17 c 42 b 67 d 92 a 117 b
18 d 43 b 68 a 93 b 118 c
19 b 44 a 69 d 94 a 119 a
20 c 45 d 70 d 95 c 120 a
21 d 46 b 71 d 96 d
22 a 47 b 72 d 97 b
23 a 48 a 73 d 98 a
24 c 49 c 74 d 99 a
25 b 50 a 75 a 100 d
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
A ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
I
C
T PAPER-II
E Instructions:
A the wrong answer.
I
C vi. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise specified.
T blue ball point pen.
E ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion
of examination before leaving the examination hall.

A
I 1. BOD reaction rate constant depends on
(a) incubation temperature
C (b) type of waste
(c) both temperature and type of waste
T
(d) neither temperature nor type of waste
E
2. The unit of sludge volume index (SVI) is
(a) g/mL
(b) mL/g
(c) cm/g
(d) g/cm
A
3. The relationship that establishes the behaviour of gases in contact with water is
I known as (a) Bailey’s law
(b) Henry’s law
C (c) Charle’s law
T (d) Darcy’s law
E 4. The ratio of 5-day BOD to ultimate BOD of municipal wastewater is around

(a) 4/5
(b) 1/3
(c) 2/3
(d) none of these.
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5. Collecting particles with less mass density at the fluid surface due to upward
A
movement is called
I (a) sedimentation
(b) floatation
C (c) batch flow operation
(d) upflow operation
T
E 6. Typical reject water percent during desalination of sea water using reverse osmosis is
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 60%
A 7. Approximate percentage of water in municipal wastewater is

(a) 90%
I
(b) 99%
C (c) 99.9%
(d) 98.9%
T
8. The mathematical equation which describes the dissolved oxygen variation in river is
E known as
(a) Miachelis-Menton equation
(b) Monod equation
(c) Henry’s equation
(d) Streeter-Phelps equation
A
9. Uniformity coefficient of filter sand is given by
I (a) D10/D60
(b) D60/D10
C (c) D10/D90
(d) D90/D10
T
E 10. Alum treatment in wastewater treatment is generally used for removal of
(a) nitrogen
(b) phosphorus
(c) nitrogen and phosphorus
(d) COD
A 11. Ultimate BOD of a wastewater sample
(a) increases with incubationtemperature
I
(b) decreases with incubation temperature
C (c) doubles with every 10oC rise in temperature
(d) does not depend on temperature
T
12. Which one the following is a toxic byproduct of chlorination
E (a) benzene
(b) formaldehyde
(c) chloramines
(d) chloroform
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13. Disinfection cannot be achieved by

A
(a) ammonia
I (b) ozone
(c) UV radiation
C (d) bleaching powder
T 14. Particulates in water and wastewater
E (a) increases the efficiency of chlorination
(b) reduces the efficiency of chlorination
(c) do not affect the efficiency
15. In Langmuir isotherm, qe refers to

A (a) X/M
(b) M/X
I
(c) n/X
C (d) X/n
T 16. Coagulation in water treatment is greatly affected by

(a) chlorides
E (b) alkalinity
(c) total hardness
(d) temperature
17. In sludge settling, Type IV refers to
(a) compression settling
A (b) hindered settling
(c) zone settling
I (d) flocculent settling
C 18. Tricking filter is an example for
(a) attached growth aerobic system
T (b) attached growth anaerobic system
E (c) suspended growth aerobic system
(d) suspended growth anaerobic system
19. If total hardness is greater than its total alkalinity, then carbonate hardness will be
equal to
(a) total alkalinity
A (b) carbonate hardness
(c) non-carbonate hardness
I (d) total hardness
C
20. Which of the following disinfectant can provide residual disinfecting ability?
T (a) ozone
(b) chlorine
E (c) both ozone and chlorine
(d) UV radiation
Page 3 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
21. Chick’s law of disinfection states that rate of kill of organisms is

A
(a) directly proportional to the number of organisms present
I (b) inversely proportional to the number of organisms present
(c) do not depend on the number of organisms
T 22. Disinfection in drinking water is aimed at
(a) removing all microorganisms
E (b) removing pathogenic organisms
(c) removing toxic organic chemicals
23. Blue baby disease (methemoglobinemia) is caused by
A (a) nitrates in air
(b) nitrates in water
I (c) CO in air
(d) CO in water
C
24. Adsorption capacity depends on
T (a) pH
(b) temperature
E (c) initial concentration
25. Dissolved oxygen in a river should be maintained at
(a) above 4 mg/L
(b) below 4 mg/L
A (c) above 8 mg/L
I (d) below 8 mg/L
26. Saturation value of dissolved oxygen
C
(a) increases with increase in temperature
T (b) decreases with increase in temperature
(c) does not depend on temperature
E (d) depends on rate of aeration
27. Typical sludge retention in septic tank is
(a) 1 day
(b) 1 week
(c) 1 month
(d) 1 year
A
I 28. Typical total nitrogen concentration in raw municipal wastewater is
(a) < 0.1 mg/L
C (b) 1 mg/L
(c) 5 mg/L
T (d) 25 mg/L
E
29. Typical total phosphorus content in raw municipal wastewater is
(a) 10 mg/L
(b) 1 mg/l
(c) 0.1 mg/L
(d) < 0.1 mg/L
Page 4 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
A 30. If 5-day BOD of a municipal wastewater is 200 mg/L, its COD value could be
I (a) 200 mg/L
(b) 220 mg/L
C (c) 350 mg/L
(d) 1000 mg/L
T
31. Typical detention time in grit chamber in municipal wastewater treatment is
E (a) 1 sec
(b) 1 min
(c) 1 hour
(d) 2 hour
32. BOD reaction is an example of
A (a) zero order reaction
I (b) first order reaction
(c) second order reaction
C (d) none of these
T 33. Aeration removes _______________ from water

(a) taste and odour caused due to gases and organic decomposition
E (b) heavy metals and suspended matter
(c) biological impurities
(d) chemical and biological contaminants
34. Minamata disease is caused due to

(a) consumption of lead polluted water
A (b) consumption of mercury contaminated fish
I (c) consumption of arsenic polluted water
(d) consumption of zinc contaminated livestock
C
35. A diffuse pollutant source
T (a) cannot be traced to a specific point
(b) is always a mobile source?
E (c) is a waste pipe from a high rise building?
(d) requires movement of the pollutant through air until an even concentration is
reached.
36. Which Indian state has severe arsenic contamination in groundwater reported?
A (a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
I (c) U.P.
(d) West Bengal
C
T 37. Absence of fluorides in drinking water causes
(a) dental caries
E (b) dental fluorosis
(c) methemoglobinemia
(d) none of these
Page 5 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
38. Eutrophication is
A
(a) improved quality of water in lakes
I (b) a process in carbon cycle
(c) accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies
C (d) accumulation of heavy metals in water bodies
T 39. Gaseous air pollutants from an industry can be controlled by
(a) incineration
E (b) adsorption
(c) absorption
(d) all the above
40. Specific surface area of activated carbon is expressed as
(a) m2/g
A (b) g/m2
(c) m2/m3
I
(d) m3/m2
C
41. Typical depth of fine sand media in rapid sand filter is
T (a) 75 cm
(b) 40 cm
E (c) 1 m
42. Typical size of fine sand used in slow sand filter is
(a) 0.50 mm
(b) 0.40 mm
A (c) 0.30 mm
I
43. In natural waters, electrical conductivity is directly proportional to
C (a) TSS
(b) total solids
T
(c) TDS
44. Turbidity is a measure of
(a) TSS
(b) total solids
(c) TDS
A (d) colloidal and suspended solids
I 45. From the stand point of aquatic organisms in a river, the minimum DO required is
(a) 10 mg/l
C (b) 6 mg/L
(c) 4 mg/L
T (d) 2 mg/L
E 46. Tertiary treatment in wastewater is generally meant for removal of
(a) nutrients
(b) trace organics
(c) heavy metals
(d) all the above
Page 6 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
47. For removal of hardness, the method used is

A
(a) ion exchange
I (b) lime-soda process
(c) boiling
T 48. Which among the following contributes to hardness?
(a) magnesium
E (b) sodium
(c) potassium
(d) carbonates
49. BOD is a measure of
(a) pollution potential
A
(b) strength of wastewater
I (c) oxygen demand
(d) all the above
C
50. Eutrophication of lakes is related to
T (a) sodium
(b) potassium
E (c) phosphorus
(d) Sulphur
51. Rapid test to indicate the intensity of pollution in river water is

(a) BOD
A (b) dissolved oxygen
(c) total coliform MPN
I (d) total Solids
C 52. Total Kjeldahl Nitrogen (TKN) in a wastewater is the sum of the concentrations of
(a) organic and inorganic nitrogen
T
(b) organic and ammonia nitrogen
E (c) ammonia and nitrite nitrogen
(d) organic and nitrate nitrogen
53. In India, drinking water standard for iron is

(a) 0.1 mg/L
(b) 0.3 mg/L
A (c) 1.0 mg/L
I
C 54. Removal of iron from water can be achieved by
(a) oxidation of Fe(II) to Fe(III) followed by sedimentation
T (b) filtration
(c) coagulation
E (d) reduction of Fe(III) to Fe(II) followed by filtration
Page 7 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
55. For similar BOD removal efficiency, volume of reactor required for a plug flow
A
reactor is __________ the volume required for CSTR.
I (a) more than
(b) less than
C (c) same as
T
56. Tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic levels is known
E as (a) bioremediation
(b) biomagnification
(c) biopiracy
(d) biorhythm
57. Centrifugation, drying beds and incineration are used for
A (a) water treatment
I (b) wastewater treatment
(c) air pollution control
C (d) sludge treatment
T 58. Presence of excess nitrate in river water indicates

(a) recent pollution with sewage
E (b) past pollution with sewage
(c) very recent pollution with sewage
(d) no pollution with sewage
59. Removal of dissolved organic matters occur in

(a) trickling filter
A (b) slow sand filter
I (c) rapid sand filter
(d) dual media filters
C
60. In anaerobic treatment, the process by which higher molecular weight compounds are
T converted to low molecular weight compounds is called
(a) hydrolysis
E
(b) acidogenesis
(c) methanogenesis
61. The average time for which biomass is retained in the biological reactor is
A (a) mean cell residence time
(b) hydraulic retention time
I (c) overflow rate
C (d) F/M ratio
T 62. Settling velocity of a particle in a fluid is affected by

(a) size
E (b) viscosity of fluid
(c) density
(d) all the above
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
63. Likely characteristics of a hazardous waste

A
(a) alkalinity and acidity
I (b) fermentation
(c) putrescible and biodegradable
C (d) ignitability and reactivity
T 64. Schmutzdecke layer is formed in
E (a) slow sand filter
(b) rapid sand filter
(c) dual media filter
(d) pressure filter
65. Which one of the following is an example of chronic toxicity?

A (a) food poisoning
(b) bioaccumulation of a heavy metal in a population
I
(c) increased sensitivity to pollen in infants
C (d) dysentery infection by contaminated water
T 66. Wastewater from a city containing high concentration of biodegradable organics is

being steady discharged into a river at location S. If the rate of aeration of the river
E water is lower than the rate of degradation of the organics, then the dissolved oxygen
of the river water
(a) is the lowest at the location S
(b) is the lowest at a point upstream of the location S
(c) remains constant along the length of the river
A (d) is lowest at a point downstream of the location S.
I 67. Some of the non-toxic metals normally found in natural water are
(a) arsenic, lead and mercury
C (b) calcium, sodium and silver
(c) cadmium, chromium and copper
T
(d) iron, manganese and magnesium
E
68. Heavy metals generally have specific gravity more than
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 10
A
69. Heavy metal removal can be achieved using
I
(a) precipitation method
C (b) reverse osmosis
(c) adsorption
T (d) all the above
E 70. Chromium is a heavy metal produced from
(a) textile industry
(b) food processing industry
(c) leather industry
(d) all the above
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
71. High level radioactive waste can be managed by

A
(a) pulverization
I (b) incineration
(c) neutralization
C (d) indefinite deep storage
T 72. What is the final stage of Risk Assessment?
E (a) hazard identification
(b) risk characterization
(c) exposure assessment
(d) toxicity assessment
73. The plot of response versus dose in case of carcinogenic pollutants pass through
A (a) (t, 0)
(b) (0, 0)
I
(c) (t+1, 0)
C (d) (t-1, 0)
where ‘t’ is the threshold dose
T
74. Which of the following is not a characteristic of toxicant?
E (a) bioavailability
(b) high concentration
(c) present in the environment
(d) cause metabolic dysfunction
A 75. Public hearing is conducted

(a) prior to site selection
I (b) prior to approval of terms of reference
(c) after preparation of EIA
C (d) after environmental clearance
T
76. Who does the scoping for Category A projects?
E (a) Expert Appraisal Committee
(b) State Expert Appraisal Committee
(c) Union Expert Appraisal Committee
(d) Public Expert Appraisal committee
77. ______________ in EIA seeks to identify, at an early stage, the key, significant
A environmental issues from among a host of possible impacts of a project and all the
available alternatives
I (a) screening
(b) scoping
C
(c) mitigation
T (d) predicting
E 78. Which of the following is the first country to assign mandatory status to the EIA?
(a) Canada
(b) United States of America
(c) Australia
(d) India
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
79. Which category of projects have significant adverse environment impacts and require
A
a full EIA?
I (a) Category A
(b) Category B
(d) Category A1
T
E 80. Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under which one of the
following Indian legislations?
(a) Indian Forest Act
(b) Air Act
(c) Wildlife Protection Act
(d) Environment Protection Act
A
I
C
T 81. For a sewage sample, initial DO was 7 mg/L, final DO was 2 mg/L and dilution was
2%. The BOD of the sample is
E (a) 250 mg/L
(b) 500 mg/L
(c) 200 mg/L
(d) 700 mg/L
82. In anaerobic treatment process is to be effective, the BOD : N : P ratio should be

A
(a) 100:5:1
I (b) 100: 10:1
(c) 100: 1: 1
C (d) 100: 1: 10
T 83. If the 5-day BOD and ultimate BOD of a wastewater sample were 200 and 300 mg/L
E respectively, the BOD reaction rate constant k (base e) will be
(a) 0.15 /day
(b) 0.12/day
(c) 0. 22/day
(d) 0.1/day
A 84. A town has a population of 50,000 and its wastewater is disposed by land treatment. If
the sewage production in 125 litre per capita per day, and the land application rate is
I 100 m3/hectare/day, the minimum land area required is (in hectares)
C (a) 62
(b) 40
T (c) 55
(d) 48
E
Page 11 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
85. An ASP treats 100 m3/day of wastewater with a BOD of 200 mg/L. If the reactor
A
volume is 25 m3, the organic loading rate of the reactor (in kg/m3/day) is
I (a) 0.2
(b) 0.25
C (c) 0.5
(d) 0.8
T
E 86. An ASP treats 100 m3/day of wastewater with a BOD of 200 mg/L. If the reactor
volume is 25 m3, the HRT of the reactor (in hours) is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
A
87. The MLSS concentration in the aeration tank of an ASP is 2500 mg/L. If one litre of
I
sample is settled in 30 min and measuring cylinder showed a sludge volume of 250
C mL, the sludge volume index would be nearly
(a) 250
T (b) 100
(c) 75
E (d) 50
88. Fresh sludge has moisture content of 99% and, after thickening; its moisture contest is
reduced to 96%. The reduction in volume of sludge is
(a) 3%
A (b) 40%
(c) 60%
I (d) 75%
C 89. For a given discharge, efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by

(a) increasing the surface area of the tank
T
(b) decreasing the surface area of the tank
E (c) increasing the depth of the tank
(d) decreasing the depth of the tank
90. The total hardness of a water sample is 200 mg/L as CaCO3. If the total alkalinity of
the sample is 150 mg/L as CaCO3 the non-carbonate hardness of the water is
(a) 200 mg/L
A (b) 150 mg/L
(c) 50 mg/L
I
(d) none of these
C
91. Alum requirement for a plant treating 10 MLD of water at an alum dose of 10 mg/L is
T (a) 1 kg/d
(b) 10 kg/d
E (c) 100 kg/d
(d) 1000 kg/d
Page 12 of 17
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92. Adsorption onto activated carbon can be used for removal of

A
(a) heavy metals
I (b) dissolved organic matter
(c) both heavy metals and dissolved organic matter
T 93. Standard for TSS for discharging into inland surface waters is
(a) 100 mg/L
E
(b) 250 mg/L
(c) 50 mg/L
94. A waste water sample diluted to 100 times with aeration water had an initial dissolved
A oxygen of 7.0 mg/L and after 5 days of incubation at 20°C, the DO was zero. The
BOD of waste water is
I (a) 700
(b) 70
C (c) 7
T (d) cannot be determined
E 95. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
List I List II
(Treatment Units) (Detention time)
A. Grit Chamber 1. 6 hours
B. Primary sedimentation 2. 2 minutes
A C. Activated sludge 3. 2 hours
I D. Sludge digestion 4. 20 days
C Codes:
A B C D
T (a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
E (c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
96. A water treatment plant treats 60 MLD of water and consumes 60 kg of chlorine per
day. The chlorine dose is (mg/L)
A (a) 1
(b) 6
I (c) 0.1
(d) 0.6
C
T 97. Filter sand used in rapid sand filter should have uniformity coefficient in the range
(a) 1.2 - 2.2
E (b) 1.8 – 2.5
(c) 1.2 – 1.8
(d) 2.0 – 2.5
Page 13 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
98. The chlorine demand of a water sample is found to be 0.2 mg/L. The amount of
A
bleaching powder containing 30% available chlorine to be added to 1 m3 of water is
I (a) 0.06 g
(b) 0.67 g
C (c) 1.33 g
(d) 1.44 g
T
E 99. The pH of a water sample is 7.3. What is the concentration of OH-?
(a) 10-7.3 mole/L
(b) 10-6.7 mole/L
(c) 10-6.7 mg/L
(d) 10-7.3 mg/L
A 100. The correct sequence in a water treatment plant for the following units is
(a) coagulation/flocculation - primary settling – filtration –– chlorination
I
(b) primary settling – filtration – coagulation/flocculation - chlorination
C (c) coagulation/flocculation - chlorination - primary settling – filtration
(d) primary settling – coagulation/flocculation - filtration –- chlorination
T
101. A water sample analysis gave the following data: Ca = 60 mg/L, Mg = 30 mg/L,
E HCO3 = 400 mg/L. The total hardness in mg/L as CaCO3 is (Molecular
weights: Ca = 40, Mg = 24, HCO3 = 61)
(a) 90
(b) 490
(c) 275
A (d) 310
I 102. As per IS 10500, for drinking water in absence of alternate sources of water, the
permissible limits for chloride and sulphate in mg/L, respectively are
C (a) 250 and 200
(b) 1000 and 400
T
(c) 200 and 250
E (d) 500 and 1000
103. Effluent from an industry A has a pH of 4. The effluent from another industry B has
ten times the OH- concentration than the effluent from industry A. pH of effluent from
industry B will be
(a) 8
A (b) 2
(c) 5
I
(d) 3
C
104. A town is required to treat 4.2 m3/min of raw water for domestic supply. An overflow
T rate of 0.2 mm/sec was found to produce satisfactory particle removal in a settling
basin of 3.5 m. The required surface area (in m2) for settling is
E (a) 210
(b) 350
(c) 1728
(d) 2100
Page 14 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
105. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A
Type of filter Rate of filtration (L/m2/h)
I (a) slow sand filter 100-200
(b) rapid sand filter 3000-6000
C (c) dual media filter 25,000-30,000
(d) pressure filter 6000-15,000
T
E 106. Two treatment units operated in series produce an overall efficiency of 96%. If the
first process shows an efficiency of 80%, the efficiency of second process would be
(a) 80%
(b) 90%
(c) 96%
(d) 16%
A
107. The population of a new city is 15 lakhs and is growing at 20% annually. How many
I
years would it take to double at this growth rate?
C (a) 3-4 years
(b) 4-5 years
T (c) 5-6 years
(d) 20 years
E
108. If a chemical is conservative, the mass balance is given by
(a) accumulation = inputs – outflows
(b) accumulation = inputs – outflows ± reactions
(c) accumulation = outflows – reactions
A (d) accumulation = inputs – reactions
I 109. An effluent containing sodium concentration of 4000 mg/L is discharged to a stream.

The upstream (background) concentration of sodium in the stream is 40 mg/L. If the
C effluent flow is 100 m3/day and stream flow is 1500 m3/day, what would be the
resulting sodium concentration in the mixed stream?
T
(a) 200 mg/L
E (b) 365 mg/L
(c) 287 mg/L
(d) 540 mg/L
110. If the hardness of water is 1 millieqv/L, its concentration in mg/L as CaCO3 is

(a) 50
A (b) 100
(c) 150
I
(d) 200
C
111. Permissible level of nitrates in drinking water in mg/L is
T (a) 75
(b) 45
E (c) 200
(d) 5
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
112. A groundwater sample was found to contain 500 mg/L total dissolved solids (TDS).
A
TDS in % present in the sample is
I (a) 5%
(b) 1%
C (c) 0.5%
(d) 0.05%
T
E 113. A water treatment plant of capacity 1 m3/sec has filter dimensions 6 m x 10 m. The
loading rate of filters is (in m3/m2/day)
(a) 60
(b) 144
(c) 120
(d) 288
A
114. The ultimate BOD of a river water sample is 20 mg/L. The BOD rate constant (base
I
e) is 0.15/day. The respective values of BOD (in %) exerted and remaining after 7
C days are
(a) 45 and 55
T (b) 55 and 45
(c) 65 and 35
E (d) 75 and 25
115. The amount of carbon dioxide (in kg) while completely oxidizing one kg of methane
to end products is
(a) 1
A (b) 2
(c) 2.75
I (d) 44
C 116. In a plug flow reactor operating at steady state conditions, pollutant concentration
(a) remains the same throughout the length of the reactor
T
(b) increases along the reactor ‘
E (c) decreases along the reactor
117. Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) has ________disinfection capacity compared to OCl ions.
(a) similar
(b) higher
A (c) lower
(d) no
I
C 118. The relationship between theoretical oxygen demand (ThOD), biochemical oxygen
demand (BOD) and chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by
T (a) ThOD> BOD> COD
(b) ThOD> COD> BOD
E (c) COD >ThOD> BOD
(d) COD> BOD>ThOD
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EVE44
119. In a completely mixed reactor (CSTR), at steady state, the effluent pollutant
A
concentration will be
I (a) equal to the concentration in the reactor
(b) less than the concentration in the reactor
C (c) higher than the concentration in the reactor
T
120. In a sedimentation tank of effective dimension 20 m x 20 m x 3 m and flow rate 14
E MLD, the detention time will be
(a) 6 hour
(b) 4 hour
(c) 2 hour
(d) 8 hour
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
PG2EVE44
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Environmental Engineering
Paper: 2
Q No Ans Q No Ans Q No Ans Q No Ans Q No Ans

1 c 26 b 51 b 76 a 101 c
2 b 27 d 52 b 77 b 102 b
3 b 28 d 53 b 78 b 103 c
4 c 29 a 54 a 79 a 104 b
5 b 30 c 55 b 80 d 105 c
6 d 31 b 56 b 81 a 106 a
7 c 32 b 57 d 82 a 107 a
8 d 33 a 58 b 83 c 108 a
9 b 34 b 59 a 84 a 109 c
10 b 35 a 60 a 85 d 110 a
11 d 36 d 61 a 86 d 111 b
12 d 37 a 62 d 87 b 112 d
13 a 38 c 63 d 88 d 113 b
14 b 39 d 64 a 89 a 114 c
15 a 40 a 65 b 90 c 115 c
16 b 41 a 66 d 91 c 116 c
17 a 42 c 67 d 92 c 117 b
18 a 43 c 68 b 93 a 118 b
19 a 44 d 69 d 94 d 119 a
20 b 45 c 70 c 95 b 120 c
21 a 46 d 71 d 96 a
22 b 47 d 72 b 97 c
23 b 48 a 73 b 98 b
24 d 49 d 74 b 99 b
25 a 50 c 75 c 100 d
ROLL NO.: PG1ELE51
A ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
I
C
T
PAPER-I
E
Instructions:
the wrong answer.
1. In a 100 bus power system, there are 10 generators. In a particular iteration of Newton
A
Raphson load flow technique (in polar coordinates), two of the PV buses are converted
I to PQ type. In this iteration
(a) The number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of
C unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two
(b) The number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of
T unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two
E (c) The number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of
unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two
(d) The number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of
unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two
A
2. A power system has 100 buses including 10 generator buses. For the load flow
I analysis using Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian
C is
(a) 189 x 189
T (b) 100 x 100
(c) 90 x 90
E (d) 180 x 180
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1ELE51
A
3. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason
I [r]. Assertion: Fast decoupled load flow method gives approximate load flow solution
because it uses several assumptions. Reason: Accuracy depends on the power
C mismatch vector tolerance.
(a) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
T (b) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
E (c) Both [a] and [r] are false
(d) [a] is false and [r] is true
4. Series capacitive compensation in EHV transmission lines is used to

(a) Reduce the line loading
(b) Improve the stability of the system
(c) Reduced the voltage profile
(d) Improve the protection of the line
5. For an unbalanced fault, with path for zero sequence currents, at the point of fault
A (a) The negative and zero sequence voltages are minimum
I (b) The negative and zero sequence voltages are maximum
(c) The negative sequence voltage is minimum and zero sequence voltage is
C maximum
(d) The negative sequence voltage is maximum and zero sequence voltage is
T minimum
E
6. A connected network of N > 2 nodes has almost one branch directly connecting any
pair of the nodes. The graph of the network
(a) Must have at least N branches for one or more closed paths to exist
(b) Can have unlimited number of branches
(c) Can only have at most N branches
A (d) Can have a minimum number of branches not decided by N
I 7. The graph of an electrical network has N nodes and B branches. The number of links
L, with respect to choice of a tree is given by
C
(a) B – N + 1
T (b) B + N
(c) N – B + 1
E (d) N – 2B – 1
8. The number of branches in a network is B, the number of nodes is N, and the number
of dependent loops is L, then the number of independent node equations will be
A (a) N + L – 1
I (b) B – 1
(c) B – N
C (d) N – 1
T 9. An electric circuit with 10 branches and 7 nodes will have

(a) 3 loop equations
E
(b) 4 loop equations
(c) 7 loop equations
(d) 10 loop equations
Page 2 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1ELE51
A
I 10. The Ybus matrix of a 100- bus interconnected system is 90% sparse, the number of
transmission lines in the system is
C (a) 450
(b) 500
T (c) 900
E (d) 1000
11. One of the disadvantages of Gauss- Seidel load flow analysis method is
(a) Unreliable convergence
(b) Slow convergence
(c) Choice of slack bus affects convergence
(d) A good initial guess for voltages is essential for convergence
12. A power system consists of 300 buses out of which 20 buses are generator buses, 25
buses are the ones with reactive power support and 15 buses are the ones with fixed
A shunt capacitors. All the other buses are load buses. It is proposed to perform a load
I flow analysis using Newton-Raphson method. The size of the Jacobian matrix is
(a) 553×553
C (b) 540×540
(c) 555×555
T (d) 554×554
E
13. TheV/f control of induction motors is used for
(a) Constant torque operation
(b) Speed reversal
(c) Reduced magnetic loss
(d) Harmonic elimination
A
14. Speed control by variation of field flux results in
I (a) Constant power drive
(b) Constant torque drive
C
(c) Variable power drive
15. In a four-quadrant operation of a hoist, 3rdquadrant operation represents
E
(a) Reverse motoring
(b) Reverse braking
(c) Forward braking
A (d) Forward motoring
I 16. The phase difference between two windings of anAC Servo Motor is
(a) 30°
C (b) 90°
(c) 120°
T (d) 180°
E 17. The operation of stepper motor at higher speed is expressed in terms of
(a) Crawling
(b) Jogging
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(c) Slewing
A
(d) Running
I 18. The 2-phase ac servomotor differs from the standard induction motor because it has
(a) High rotor resistance
C (b) High power rating
(c) Low rotor resistance
T (d) Greater inertia
E
19. Typical squirrel cage induction motors are constructed with.…insulation materials and
are designed for a……. temperature rise at full load (assuming 400C ambient
temperature)
(a) Class B and Class F
(b) Class F and Class B
(c) Class B and Class B
(d) Class F and Class F
20. The maximum operating temperature allowed in Class H insulation is ….and Hot spot
A margin in Class B is......
I (a) 1800C and 100C
(b) 1550C and 100C
C (c) 1300C and 100C
(d) 1050C and 50C
T
21. The internationally accepted rating of motor insulation is based on
E (a) IEC 60085
(b) IEC 60075
(c) IEC 60089
(d) IEC 60065
22. The phenomenon of oscillating neutral occurs in
A (a) Star-delta transformer
(b) Delta-star transformer
I
(c) Star-Star transformer
C (d) Autotransformer
T 23. Large transformers are provided with a secondary harmonic restrain feature in biased
differential protection scheme to overcome
E (a) Doubling Effect
(b) Oscillating Neutral
(c) Large Power loss
(d) None
A
24. The phasor group Yd11 provide phase difference of
I (a) 300 lead
C (b) 300lag
(c) 450 lead
T (d) 900 lag
E 25. The capacity of V-connection used in 3 phase transformers is …. of normal capacity

(a) 75.7 %
(b) 33.3%
(c) 66.7%
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(d) 57.7%
A
I 26. The phenomenon of oscillating neutral occurs because of
(a) Presence of 3rd harmonic flux
C (b) Absence of 3rd harmonic flux
(c) Presence of 5th harmonic flux
T (d) Absence of 5th harmonic flux
E
27. Which of the following starting method of induction motor has highest torque /line
ampere ratio?
(a) Direct on-line starting
(b) Impedance Starting
(c) Autotransformer Starting
(d) Star-Delta Starting
28. The quickest way of braking of an induction motor is

(a) Plugging
A (b) Dynamic braking
I (c) Regenerative braking
(d) None of above
C
29. In VVVF speed control of Induction motor, for speed control below base speed, the
T maximum torque is
(a) Proportional to Voltage
E
(b) Proportional to square of voltage
(c) Constant
(d) Proportional to slip of motor
30. According to sampling theorem (notations are usual)

A (a) fm<fs
(b) fs>fm
I (c) fs>=2fm
(d) fs=2fm
C
T 31. Condition for aliasing problem
(a) fs<fm
E (b) fs<2fm
(c) fs=fm
(d) all of these
A 32. The process of quantization introduces
I (a) Error
(b) Noise
C (c) Power
(d) None
T
33. What is the result of taking more samples during the quantization process?
E
(a) More errors in the analog-to-digital conversion
(b) More bit requirements
(c) More accurate signal representation
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(d) More bit requirements and more accurate signal representation

A
34. In A/D converter, what is the time relation between sampling period T and the duration
I of the sample mode and the hold mode?
(a) Should be larger than the duration of sample mode and hold mode
C (b) Should be smaller than the duration of sample mode and hold mode
(c) Should be equal to the duration of sample mode and hold mode
T (d) Should be larger than or equals to the duration of sample mode and hold mode
E
35. Which IC is mostly preferred for sample and hold circuit?
(a) µ771
(b) IC741
(c) LF398
(d) µ351
36. The input of a controller is

(a) Sensed signal
(b) Error signal
A (c) Desired variable value
I (d) Signal of fixed amplitude not dependent on desired variable value
C 37. Lead compensation leads to

(a) Increases bandwidth
T (b) Attenuation
(c) Increases damping factor
E
(d) Second order
38. The integral control

(a) Increases the steady state error
(b) Decreases the steady state error
A (c) Increases the noise and stability
(d) Decreases the damping coefficient
I
39. The region of convergence of the z – transform of a unit step function is
C
(a) |𝑧| > 1
T (b) |𝑧| < 1
(c) (Real part of z) > 0
E (d) (Real part of z) < 0
40. The s plane and z plane are related as

(a) z = esT
A
(b) z = e2sT
I (c) z = 2esT
(d) z = esT/2
C
41. Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state response?
T (a) Proportional action
(b) Proportional + Integral action
E
(c) Proportional + Differential action
(d) Proportional + Integral + Differential action
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42. In a PID controller, the overshoot has increased. The derivative time constant has to be
A
____________ so as to reduce the overshoots
I (a) Increased
(b) Reduced
C (c) Reduced to zero
T
E 43. The configuration for choosing the compensator must be
(a) Forward path
(b) Cascade and feedback compensation
(c) Feed forward configuration
44. For the stable system in discrete optimal control systems

(a) Poles must lie outside the unit circle
(b) Poles must lie within the unit circle
(c) Poles must be on the unit circle
A (d) Pole must be in infinity
I
45. State variable analysis has several advantages overall transfer function as
C (a) It is applicable for linear and non-linear and variant and time-invariant system
(b) Analysis of MIMO system
T (c) It takes initial conditions of the system into account
E
46. Design criteria for deadbeat controller is
(a) The system must have a zero steady state error at sampling instants
(b) The time to reach final output must be finite and minimum
(c) The controller should be physically realizable i.e. it should be causal
A (d) All of the mentioned
I 47. Typically, which is not an objective of control design?

(a) Regulation
C
(b) Tracking
T (c) Disturbance rejection
(d) Parameter identification
E
48. State space description gives
(a) Information only about the input-output relationship of the system
(b) Information only about the internal behaviour of the system
A (c) Information about the internal and input-output relationship of a system
C 49. Transfer function and state space representation of the system is

(a) Unique for transfer function, and not unique for state space representation
T (b) Not unique for both the representations.
(c) Not unique for transfer function and unique for state space representation.
E
(d) Unique for both the representations.
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50. Eigen value is associated with

A
(a) Square matrix
I (b) Matrix of any dimension
(c) Row vector
C (d) Column vector
T 51. Consider the following assumptions for the pole placement control design:
E (1) The system is completely state controllable.
(2) The state variables are measurable and available for feedback.
(3) The system is observable.
(4) Control input is unconstrained.
Choose the correct ones,

(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1), (2) and (4)
(c) (1), (3) and (4)
(d) (2), (3) and (4)
A
I 52. Which of the following conditions are required for observer design?
(a) Observability condition must be satisfied.
C (b) Observability condition needs not be satisfied.
(c) Controllability condition must be satisfied
T (d) None of these
E
53. Which one of the following statements is true for all real symmetric matrices?
(a) All the eigenvalues are real
(b) All the eigenvalues are positive
(c) All the eigenvalues are distinct
(d) Sum of all the eigenvalues is zero
A
54. In an open loop control system
I (a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
C
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
E 55. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Less expensive
(b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
A (c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy
(d) Errors are caused by disturbances
I
56. ____has tendency to oscillate
C (a) Open loop system
T (b) Closed loop system
E (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
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57. Which of the following is true for bimetallic type thermometer?

A
(a) Two metals have same temperature coefficients
I (b) Two metals have different temperature coefficient
(c) One metal is cooled always
T 58. A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a
E pulse rate of ____________ pps
(a) 4000
(b) 8000
(c) 6000
(d) 10,000
59. A stepper motor may be considered as a ____________ converter

(a) DC to DC
(b) AC to AC
(c) DC to AC
A (d) Digital-to-analog
I
60. What is the step angle of a permanent-magnet stepper motor having 8 stator poles and
C 4 rotor poles?
(a) 60º
T (b) 45º
(c) 30º
E
(d) 15º
61. The steady state accuracy is increased by

(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
A (c) Phase lead compensator
(d) Phase lag compensator
I
62. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used?
C
(a) Error detector
T (b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
E (d) Oscillator
63. Which element is not a part of the digital control system?

(a) A/D converter
A (b) D/A converter
I (c) Computer
(d) None
C
64. An example of discrete (digital) control is
T (a) Varying the volume of a music system
(b) Turning a lamp ON or OFF
E
(c) Varying the brightness of a lamp
(d) Controlling the speed of a fan
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65. A 10 bit A/D converter is used to digitise an analog signal in the 0 V to 5 V range. The
A
maximum peak to peak ripple voltage that can be allowed in the dc supply voltage is
I (a) nearly 100 mV
(b) nearly 5.0 mV
C (c) nearly 25 mV
(d) nearly 75 mV
T
E 66. In z-plane, the unit circle corresponds to
(a) imaginary axis of s-plane
(b) negative real axis of s-plane
(c) positive real axis of s-plane
(d) origin of the s-plane
67. The ‘equal area criterion’ for the determination of transient stability of the
synchronous machine connected to an infinite bus
(a) ignores lines as well as synchronous machine resistances and shunt capacitances
(b) assumes accelerating power acting on the rotor as constant
A (c) ignores the effect of voltage regulator and governor but considers the inherent
I damping present in the machine
(d) takes into consideration the possibility of machine loosing synchronism after it has
C survived during the first swing
T 68. A chopper controlled dc motor is to be operated in forward and reverse motoring

modes only, which of the following quadrant(s) operation of chopper is required
E
(a) First only
(b) Third only
(c) First and third only
(d) All four quadrants
A 69. Two parallel connected transformers share load in the ratio of their kVA ratings if their
ohmic impedances are
I (a) Equal
(b) In direct ratio of their ratings
C
(c) In inverse ratio of their ratings
E 70. A three–phase 400 V, 6-pole, 50-Hz squirrel cage induction motor is running at a slip
of 5%. The speed of rotor magnetic field with respect to stator magnetic field is
(a) zero
(b) 950 rpm
A (c) 1000 rpm
I (d) 50 rpm
C 71. A dc series motor should not be run at light/no-load, because

(a) It will draw a dangerously large current
T (b) It will run at a dangerously high speed
(c) It will stall
E
(d) None of these
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72. Which of following motors produces high starting torque?

A
(a) Squirrel cage induction motor
I (b) DC shunt motor
(c) Synchronous motor
C (d) DC series motor
T 73. Which of the following quantities are specified for a slack bus?
E (a) Active and reactive power
(b) Active power and magnitude of bus voltage
(c) Reactive power and magnitude of bus voltage
(d) Magnitude of bus voltage and its angle
74. The angle δ in the swing equation of a synchronous generator is the

(a) Angle between stator voltage and current
(b) Angular displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator
(c) Angular displacement of the stator mmf with respect to a synchronously rotating
axis
A (d) Angular displacement of an axis fixed to the rotor with respect to a synchronously
I rotating axis
C 75. The speed of conversion is maximum in

(a) Successive-approximation A/D converter
T (b) Parallel-comparative A/D converter
(c) Counter ramp A/D converter
E (d) Dual-slope A/D converter
76. For transient stability analysis, as long as equal area criterion is satisfied, the
maximum angle to which rotor angle can oscillate is
(a) 90º
(b) 45º
A (c) Greater than 90º
(d) Less than 90º
I
77. For a fault in a power system, the term critical clearing time is related to
C (a) Reactive power limit
T (b) Transient stability limit
(c) Short circuit current limit
E (d) Steady state stability limit
78. Which one of the following is correct sequence for power system static security levels?
(a) Secure, correctively secure, alert, correctable emergency, restorative
A (b) Alert, secure, correctively secure, correctable emergency, restorative
(c) Restorative, secure, correctively secure, alert, correctable emergency
I (d) Correctable emergency, secure, correctively secure, alert, restorative
C 79. An example of a motor having short-time duty is found in
T (a) Centrifugal pumps
(b) Crane drives
E (c) Drilling machines
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80. A 240 V DC series motor takes 40 A when giving its rated output at 1500 rpm. Its
A
resistance is 0.3 Ω. The value of resistance which must be added to obtain rated torque
I at 1000 rpm is
(a) 6 Ω
C (b) 4 Ω
(c) 1.9 Ω
T (d) 0.5 Ω
E PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
81. Determine the half-hour rating of a 25 kW motor having a time constant of 1.5 hours.
Assume that the motor cools down completely between each load period.
(a) 60 kW
(b) 75 kW
(c) 37 kW
(d) 30 Kw
A 82. A 3-phase, 11.2kW, 1750rpm, 460V, 60-Hz, 4-pole, Y-connected induction motor has
following parameters:Rs=0Ω, Rr’= 0.38Ω, Xs= 1.14Ω, Xr’= 1.71Ω and Xm= 33.2Ω.
I The motor is controlled by varying the supply frequency. What will be the supply
frequency if the breakdown torque requirement is 35Nm?
C
(a) 138Hz
T (b) 148Hz
(c) 158Hz
E (d) 168Hz
83. A 3-phase, 11.2kW, 1750 rpm, 460V, 60-Hz, 4-pole, Y-connected induction motor has
following parameters: Rs = 0Ω, Rr’ = 0.38Ω, Xs = 1.14Ω, Xr’ = 1.71Ω and Xm =
33.2Ω. The motor is controlled by varying the supply frequency. What will be the
speed of the motor at maximum torque if the breakdown torque requirement is 35Nm?
A (a) 4275 rpm
(b) 2875 rpm
I (c) 2275 rpm
C (d) 1275 rpm
84. The self and mutual inductances of a two winding transformer are: L1 = 4mH, L2 =
T
6mH, M21 = M12 = 1.8mH. What would be the current through winding 1 when this
E winding is connected to 130V,500/3.14-Hz supply and a load of 0.2mH is connected
across winding 2 (assume negligible power loss in windings and in magnetic circuit)
(a) 20A
(b) 26A
A (c) 34A
(d) 37A
I
85. An industrial load takes 100A at 0.8p.f. lagging from a 3 phase 11kV/400V, 50-Hz,
C star-delta transformer. The power consumed by load in kW is
T (a) 45.42
(b) 50.42
E (c) 55.42
(d) 60.42
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86. An industrial load takes 100A at 0.8 p.f. lagging from a 3 phase 11kV/400V, 50-Hz,
A
star-delta transformer. The kVA rating of the transformer is
I (a) 49.28
(b) 59.28
C (c) 69.28
(d) 79.28
T
E 87. Two single phase transformers rated 100kVA and 500kVA have p.u. impedance of
0.02+j0.06 and 0.025+j0.08 respectively. The largest load kVA that can be delivered
by parallel combination of these transformers without overloading any one
(a) 1077
(b) 1377
(c) 1577
(d) 1777
88. The z – transform of a system is F(𝑧) = 𝑧 / (𝑧 − 0.2)

If the ROC is |𝑧| < 0.2, then the impulse response of the system is
A
(a) (0.2) 𝑛 [𝑛]
I (b) (0.2) 2 [−𝑛 − 1]
(c) −(0.2) 2𝑢[𝑛]
C (d) −(0.2) 𝑛𝑢[−𝑛 − 1]
T 89. The ROC of function f(n)= (5/ 6)𝑛𝑢(𝑛) − (6/5)𝑛𝑢(−𝑛 − 1) must be
E (a) |𝑧| < 5/ 6
(b) |𝑧| > 5 /6
(c) 5 /6 < |𝑧| < 6/5
(d) 5 /6 < |𝑧| < ∞
90. Consider the z – transform F (𝑧) = 5𝑧2 + 4𝑧−1 + 3; 0< |𝑧| < ∞. The inverse z – transform
A f[𝑛] is
(a) 5[𝑛 + 2] + 3[𝑛] + 4𝛿 [𝑛 − 1]
I
(b) 5𝛿 [𝑛 − 2] + 3𝛿[𝑛] + 4𝛿 [𝑛 + 1]
C (c) 5[𝑛 + 2] + 3 [𝑛] + 4 [𝑛 − 1]
(d) 5𝑢 [𝑛 − 2] + 3 𝑢[𝑛] + 4 𝑢 [𝑛 + 1]
T
91. The system mode described by the state variable equations, the system is
E 0 1 0 1
X= x+ u andy = x
2 −3 1 1
(a) Controllable but not observable
A (b) Controllable and observable
(c) Neither Controllable nor observable
I (d) Observable but not Controllable
C
92. If F ( z )  ( z 2  z ) ( z 2  2 z  1) is z-transform of sequence f (k ) . The value of f ( 2) is
T (a) 1
(b) 4
E
(c) 3
(d) 5
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93. The state variable equations of a system are

A
x1 = −3x1 − x2 + u
I x2 = 2x1 and y = x1 + u. Then the system is
(a) Controllable but not observable
C (b) Controllable and observable
(c) Neither Controllable nor observable
T
(d) Observable but not Controllable
E
94. A first-order dynamic system is represented by the differential equation
5x t + x t = u t andy ( t ) = x ( t )
The corresponding transfer function is
(a) G(s)= 10/(1+5s)
(b) G(s)= 1/(s+5)
(c) G(s)= 1/(1+5s)
A
95. A state variable representation of given transfer function T(s) is
I
C Y(s) 5(s + 10)
=T s = 3
X(s) s + 10s2 + 20s + 50
T
−10 −20 1 0
E (a) X = x+ u and y = x
0 1 0 5
−10 −20 −50 1 0
(b) X = 1 0 0 x + 0 u and y = 5 x
0 1 0 0 50
A −10 −20 −50 1 1
(c) X = 1 0 0 x + 0 u and y = 0 x
I 0 1 0 0 50
−10 −20 −50 1 0
C
(d) X = 1 0 0 x + 1 u and y = 5 x
T 0 1 0 0 50
E
96. The characteristic polynomial F ( z )  2 z 4  7 z 3  10z 2  4 z  1 is
(a) stable
A (b) marginally stable
(c) unstable
I (d) none of these
C
97. The trace and determinant of a 2 × 2 matrix are known to be -2 and -35 respectively.
T Its eigen values are
(a) -30 and -5
E (b) -37 and -1
(c) -7 and 5
(d) 17.5 and -2
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5 6 17
A
98. The eigenvalues of matrix 0 −19 23 are
I 0 0 37
(a) -19,5,37
C (b) 19, -5, -37
(c) 2, - 3,7
T (d) 3, - 5,37
E
99. A two bus power system shown in the figure supplies load of 1.0+j0.5 p.u. The values
of V1 in p.u. and δ2 respectively are
A
I
C (a) 0.95 and 6.00º
(b) 1.05 and -5.44º
T (c) 1.1 and -6.00º
E (d) 1.1 and -27.12º
100. Consider two buses connected by an impedance of (0+j5) Ω. The bus 1 voltage is
100∠30°100∠30°V, and bus 2 voltage is 100∠ 0o100∠0°100∠0°V.The real and
reactive power supplied by bus 1, respectively, are
(a) 1000W, 268VAR
A (b) –1000W, –134VAR
(c) 276.9W, –56.7VAR
I (d) –276.9W, 56.7VAR
C 101. A 10-bus power system consists of four generator buses indexed as G1, G2, G3, G4
and six load buses indexed as L1, L2, L3, L4, L5, L6. The generator-bus G1 is
T connected as slack bus, and the load buses L3 and L4 are voltage controlled buses. The
generator at bus G2 cannot supply the required reactive power demand, and hence it is
E
operating at its maximum reactive power limit. The number of non-linear equations
required for solving the load flow problem using Newton-Raphson method in popular
form is
A (a) 10
(b) 12
I (c) 14
(d) 16
C
102. In a load flow problem solved by Newton-Raphson method with polar coordinates, the
T size of the Jacobian is 100 × 100. If there are 20 PV buses in addition to PQ buses and
a slack bus, the total number of buses in the system is
E
(a) 31
(b) 41
(c) 51
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(d) 61
A
103. When a 50MVA, 11kV 3-phase generator is subjected to a 3-phase fault, the fault
I current is – j5p.u. When it is subjected to a line-to-line fault, the positive sequence
C current is –j4p.u. The positive and negative sequence reactances in p.u. are
respectively
T (a) j0.2 and j0.05
(b) j0.2 and j0.25
E (c) j0.25 and j0.25
(d) j0.05 and j0.05
104. A 20MVA, 6.6kV, 3-phase alternator is connected to a 3-phase transmission line. The
p.u. positive-sequence, negative-sequence and zero-sequence impedances of the
alternator arej0.1, j0.1 and j0.04 respectively. The neutral of the alternator is
connected to groundthrough an inductive reactor of j0.05p.u. The p.u. positive,
negative and zerosequenceimpedances of transmission line are j0.1, j0.1 and j0.3
respectively. All p.u.values are based on the machine ratings. A solid ground fault
A occurs at one phase of the farend of the transmission line. The voltage of the alternator
neutral with respect to groundduring the fault is
I (a) 513.8V
C (b) 889.9V
(c) 1112.0V
T (d) 642.2V
E 105. A 3-phase 50-Hz generator is rated at 500MVA, 20kV with Xd=0.2p.u.It supplies
purely resistive load of 400MW at 20kV. The load is connected directly across the
terminal of thegenerator. If all the three phases of the load are short circuited
simultaneously through a faultreactance of 0.1p.u, the initial symmetrical rms value of
current (in kA) in the generator on a base of 500MVA, 20kV is
(a) 72.17
A
(b) 27.75
I (c) 38.45
(d) 56.28
C
106. Two 11kV, 20MVA, three phase, star connected generators operate in parallel.
T Thepositive, negative and zero sequence reactances of each being respectively j0.18,
j0.15 andj0.1 p.u. The star point of one of the generator is isolated and the other is
E earthed through a2Ω resistor. The potential of the neutral for a line to ground fault in
p.u. is
(a) 0.33
A (b) 0.96
(c) 2.89
I (d) 1.44
C 107. A 10MVA, 13.8kV alternator has positive, negative and zero sequence reactance of
30%, 40% and 5 % respectively. What reactance must be put in the generator neutral
T so that the fault current for a line to ground fault of zero fault impedance will not
exceed the rated line current?
E (a) 13.28Ω
(b) 14.28Ω
(c) 15.25Ω
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(d) 16.25Ω
A
108. An isolated synchronous generator with transient reactance equal to 0.1 p.u. on a base
I of 100MVA is connected to the high voltage bus through a step up transformer of
C reactance 0.1 p.u. on a 100MVA base. The fault level in MVA at the bus is
(a) 1000
T (b) 500
(c) 50
E (d) 10
109. For given base voltage and base volt amperes, the p.u. impedance value of an element
is x. What will be the p.u. value of this element when the voltage and volt ampere
bases are both doubled?
(a) 0.5x
(b) 2x
(c) 4x
(d) x
A 110. The severity of line to ground and three phase faults at the terminal of an unloaded
synchronous generator is to be same. If the terminal voltage is 1.0p.u and
I Z1=Z2=j0.1p.u., Z0=j0.05p.u.for the alternator, then the required inductive reactance
C (in p.u.) for neutral grounding is
(a) 0.0166
T (b) 0.05
(c) 0.1
E (d) 0.15
111. A 50-Hz alternator is rated 500MVA, 20kV, with Xd = 1.0p.u and Xd’’= 0.2p.u. It
supplies a purely resistive load of 400MW at 20kV. The load is connected directly
across the generator terminal when a symmetrical fault occurs at the load terminals.
The initial value (in rms) of current (in p.u.) in the generator is
A (a) 7.22
(b) 6.4
I
(c) 3.22
C (d) 2.22
T 112. A single line to ground fault occurs on an unloaded generator, positive, negative and
zero sequence impedances of the generator are j0.25p.u, j0.25p.u and j0.15p.u
E respectively. The generator neutral is grounded through a reactance of j0.05p.u. The
pre fault generator terminal voltage is 1.00p.u. The fault current in p.u. is
(a) 3.75
(b) 2.75
A (c) 1.75
I (d) 3.00
113. A 500MVA, 50-Hz generator produces power at 22kV. Generator is Y- connected and
C
its neutral is solidly grounded. The sequence reactances of the generator are X1= X2=
T 0.15p.u.and X0= 0.05p.u. It is operating at rated voltage and disconnected from the
rest of the system. The magnitude of the sub-transient line current for single line to
E ground fault at the generator terminals in p.u will be
(a) 2.851
(b) 3.333
Page 17 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1ELE51
(c) 6.667
A
(d) 8.553
I 114. The p.u parameters for a 500MVA machine on its own base are: Inertia M = 20p.u;
C reactance X = 2p.u. The p.u. value of inertia and reactance on a base 100MVA,
respectively are
T (a) 4, 0.4
(b) 100, 10
E (c) 4, 10
(d) 100, 0.4
115. At a 220kV substation of a power system, it is given that the three phase fault level is
4000MVA and single line to ground fault level is 5000MVA. Neglecting the
resistance and the shunt susceptances of the system, the positive sequence driving
point reactance at the bus is
(a) 2.5Ω
(b) 4.033Ω
A (c) 5.5Ω
(d) 12.1Ω
I
C 116. In a power system with negligible resistance, the fault current at a point is 8.00p.u.
The series reactance (p.u.) to be included at the fault point to limit the short circuit to
T 5.00p.u is
(a) 3.00
E (b) 0.200
(c) 0.125
(d) 0.075
117. When the LG fault occurs, the current in a faulted phase is 100A. The zero sequence
current in this case will be
A
(a) 0A
I (b) 33.3A
(c) 66.6A
C (d) 100A
T 118. An isolated synchronous generator with transient reactance of 0.1p.u. on a 100MVA
E base is connected to a high voltage bus through a step up transformer of reactance 0.1
p.u. on a base of 100MVA. The fault level at the bus is
(a) 1000MVA
(b) 500MVA
A (c) 50MVA
(d) 20MVA
I
119. The p.u. impedance of a circuit element is 0.15. If the base kV and base MVA are
C
halved, then the new value of the per unit impedance of the circuit element will be
T (a) 0.075
(b) 0.15
E (c) 0.30
(d) 0.60
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1ELE51
A
120. The p.u impedance of a synchronous machine is 0.25. The machine is rated at
I 10MVA. The short circuit capacity of the machine is
(a) 25MVA
C (b) 40MVA
(c) 50MVA
T (d) 100MVA
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
M. Tech. in ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Key for Paper – 1
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1 b 25 d 49 a 73 d 97 c
2 a 26 a 50 a 74 d 98 c
3 d 27 b 51 b 75 b 99 a
4 b 28 a 52 a 76 c 100 b
5 b 29 c 53 a 77 b 101 a
6 a 30 c 54 a 78 a 102 c
7 a 31 d 55 b 79 b 103 d
8 d 32 a 56 b 80 c 104 b
9 b 33 d 57 b 81 a 105 d
10 a 34 a 58 c 82 c 106 b
11 c 35 c 59 d 83 a 107 b
12 d 36 c 60 b 84 d 108 b
13 a 37 a 61 a 85 c 109 a
14 a 38 b 62 d 86 c 110 a
15 a 39 a 63 d 87 b 111 b
16 b 40 a 64 b 88 d 112 a
17 c 41 d 65 b 89 c 113 d
18 a 42 a 66 a 90 a 114 d
19 b 43 d 67 a 91 b 115 d
20 a 44 b 68 c 92 d 116 d
21 a 45 d 69 c 93 b 117 b
22 c 46 d 70 a 94 c 118 b
23 a 47 d 71 b 95 b 119 c
24 a 48 c 72 d 96 c 120 b
ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
C
PAPER-II
T
E Instructions:
the wrong answer.
C
T ix. Hand over your Question Paper andOMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion
of examination before leaving the examination hall.
E
1. What is the purpose of back up protection?

(a) To increase the speed
(b) To increase the reach
(c) To leave no blind spot
A
(d) To guard against failure of primary
I
2. Protective relays can be designed to respond to
C (a) Light intensity, impedance
(b) Temperature, resistance, reactance
T
(c) Voltage and current
E (d) All of these
3. On what factor does the operating speed of the relay depend upon?
(a) Rate of flux built up
(b) Armature core air gap
(c) Spring tension
(d) All of these
4. Plug setting of an electromagnetic relay can be altered by varying
A (a) Number of ampere turns
(b) Air gap of magnetic path
I (c) Adjustable back stop
C (d) None of these
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 5. The most efficient torque producing actuating structure for the induction type relays is
(a) Shaded pole structure
I
(b) Watt hour meter structure
C (c) Induction cup structure
(d) Single induction loop structure
T
E 6. An impedance relay is used for
(a) Earth faults
(b) Interphase faults
(d) None of these
7. An instantaneous relay is
(a) Permanent moving magnet
A (b) Induction cup
(c) Shaded pole
I (d) Moving coil
C 8. Thyrite is used in lightning arrestors because of its
T (a) Straight line characteristic
(b) Non-linear characteristic
E (c) None of these
(d) All of these
9. In a generator, 3-phase short circuit current is limited by

(a) Transient reactance
(b) Synchronous reactance
(c) Sub-transient reactance
(d) All of these
A
10. Circuit breaker rating is designed based on the following fault current
I (a) LG
C (b) LLG
(c) LL
T (d) 3 phase fault
E
11. A fault is more severe from the view point of RRRV if is a
(a) Short line fault
(b) Medium length line fault
(c) Long line fault
(d) None of these
12. A reactance relay is

(a) Voltage restrained directional relay
A (b) Directional restrained over-current relay
I (c) Voltage restrained over-current relay
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 13. Rate of rise of restriking voltage depends

(a) Type of circuit breaker
I
(b) Inductance of the system only
C (c) Capacitance of the system only
(d) Inductance and capacitance of the system
T
E 14. Stability of arc in vacuum depends upon
(a) The contact material only
(b) The contact material and its vapour pressure
(c) The circuit parameters only
(d) The combination of (b) and (c)
15. Carrier current protection scheme is normally used for
(a) HV transmission lines only
(b) HV cables only
A (c) HV transmission and cables
C 16. Arcing on transmission lines is prevented by connecting a suitable

(a) Circuit breaker
T (b) Protective relay
E (c) Inductor in the neutral
(d) Capacitor in the neutral
17. A Mho relay is a
(a) Voltage restrained directional relay
(b) Voltage controlled over current relay
(c) Directional restrained over current relay
(d) Directional restrained over voltage relay
A 18. Number of pilot wires required for protecting 3-phase transmission lines using
translay system of protection is
I (a) 6
C (b) 4
(c) 3
T (d) 2
E 19. Directional relays respond to
(a) Power
(b) Voltage
(c) Current
(d) Reactance
20. In carrier current protection, wave trap is used is for trapping

(a) High frequency waves entering in generating units
A (b) Power frequency waves
I
(d) None of these
C
T
E
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A 21. For phase fault on long line, which relay is used?

(a) MHO relays
I
(b) Reactance relays
C (c) Impedance relays
(d) All of these
T
E 22. Which relay is used for motor protection?
(a) Thermocouple type relays
(b) Bimetallic relays
(c) Electronic relays
(d) All of these
23. For protection against synchronizing power surges, which relay is used?
(a) Split-phase relays
A (b) Impedance relays
(c) Reactance relays
I (d) MHO relays
C 24. Pilot wire protection is for
T (a) Overhead lines
(b) Transformer
E (c) Motors
(d) Cables
25. Under voltage relays are used for

(a) Motors
(b) Alternators
(c) Bus bars
(d) All of these
A
26. A thermal protection switch provides protection against what?
I (a) Overload
C (b) Temperature
(c) Short circuit
T (d) Over voltage
E
27. What is the main purpose of oil in oil circuit breakers?
(a) Provide insulation
(b) Quenching arc
(c) Provide cooling of contacts.
28. For rural electrification in India, which circuit breaker is generally used?
(a) Oil
A (b) SF6
I (c) Vacuum
(d) Air blast
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 29. During arc extinction SF6 gas gets converted to which among these?
(a) Gets decomposed to SF4 and SF2
I
(b) Gets decomposed to S and F
C (c) Gets reduced to SF6
(d) Gets oxidized
T
E 30. Why is it difficult to interrupt a capacitive circuit?
(a) The current has a leading power factor
(b) The restriking voltage can be high
(c) Current magnitude is very small
(d) Stored energy in the capacitor is very high
31. For a high speed circuit breaker what will the total clearing time?
(a) Few minutes.
A (b) Few seconds.
(c) 1 to 2 cycles.
I (d) 5 to 20 cycles
C 32. Which of the following circuit breakers has the lowest operating voltage?
T (a) SF6 circuit breaker
(b) Air break
E (c) Air blast
(d) Minimum oil circuit breaker
33. What is the major cause of the failure of the circuit breaker?
(a) Trip circuit open
(b) Trip latch defective
(c) Spring defective
(d) All of these
A
34. The isolators used in the transmission lines are capable of breaking
I (a) Fault current
C (b) No current
(c) Charging current
T (d) Load current
E
35. Which among these circuit breakers produce the least arc energy?
(a) Plain oil
(b) Minimum oil
(c) Air blast
(d) Air break
36. Which of the following circuit breakers is used for the railway electrification?
(a) Air blast circuit breaker
A (b) SF6 circuit breaker
I (c) Bulk oil circuit breaker
(d) Minimum oil circuit breaker
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 37. What is the most important property which makes the SF6 very efficient medium for
circuit breaking?
I
(a) Is non toxic and non inflammable
C (b) Has a high dielectric constant?
(c) Has a high breakdown strength?
T (d) Is highly electronegative gas
E
38. What is the major drawback of using SF6 circuit breakers?
(a) Sealing problems of the gas
(b) Ingress of moisture in the gas system – dangerous
(c) Deterioration of SF6 gas with time
39. Why do the SF6 gases have an excellent heat transfer property?
A (a) Low gaseous viscosity
(b) High dielectric strength
I (c) Higher molecular weight
(d) Both (a) and (c)
C
T 40. The breaking capacity of the air blast circuit breaker is
(a) 3000MVA
E (b) 4000MVA
(c) 7000MVA
(d) 10000MVA
41. When using air blast circuit breaker, current chopping is a phenomenon observed
when
(a) A long overhead line is switched off
(b) A bank of capacitors is switched off
A (c) A transformer on no load is switched off
(d) A heavy load is switched off
I
C 42. Which of the following is not the distribution system normally used?
(a) 3 phase-4 wire
T (b) 3 phase-3 wire
E (c) Single phase - 3 wire
(d) Single phase -4 wire
43. Transmission efficiency increases as

(a) Voltage and power factor both increase
(b) Voltage and power factor both decrease
(c) Voltage increases but power factor decreases
(d) Voltage decreases but power factor increases
A 44. In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the
I length of line is less than
(a) 200 km
C (b) 160 km
T (c) 100 km
(d) 80 km
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 45. For constant voltage transmission, the voltage drop is compensated by installing
(a) Synchronous motors
I
(b) Capacitors
C (c) Inductors
T
E 46. The effect of corona is
(a) Increased energy loss
(b) Increased reactance
(c) Increased inductance
47. Corona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in the air around the conductor
succeeds
A (a) 30kV (maximum value)/cm
(b) 22kV (maximum value)/cm
I (c) 11kV (rms value)/cm
C (d) 6.6kv (rms value)/cm
T 48. Corona effect can be detected by

(a) Hissing sound
E (b) Faint luminous flow of bluish colour
(c) Presence of ozone detected by odour
49. Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because

(a) It gives bad odour
(b) It corrodes the material
(c) It transfers energy to the ground
A (d) Reduces power factor
I
50. For transmission lines the standing wave ratio is the ratio of
C (a) Maximum voltage to minimum voltage
(b) Maximum current to minimum voltage
T (c) Peak voltage to rms voltage
E (d) Maximum reactance to minimum reactance
51. The bundling of conductors is done primarily to

(a) Reduce reactance
(b) Increase reactance
(c) Increase ratio interference
(d) Reduce radio interference
A 52. Which of the following regulation is considered to be the best?

(a) 2%
I (b) 30%
(c) 70%
C (d) 98%
T
E
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A 53. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line depends upon

(a) Shape of the conductor
I
(b) Surface treatment of the conductors
C (c) Conductivity of the material
(d) Geometrical configuration of the conductors
T
E 54. For a distortion-less transmission line (notations have their usual meaning)
(a) R/L = G/C
(b) RL=GC
(c) RG=LC
(d) RLGC=0
55. The chances of corona are maximum during

(a) Summer heat
A (b) Winter
(c) Dry weather
I (d) Humid weather
C 56. When two conductors each of radius r are at a distance D, the capacitance between the
T two conductors is proportional to
(a) loge (D/r)
E (b) loge (r/D)
(c) 1/loge (D/r)
(d) 1/loge (r/D)
57. In a transmission line having negligible resistance, the surge impedance is

(a) (L+C)1/2
(b) (C/L)1/2
(c) (1/LC)1/2
A (d) (L/C)1/2
I 58. The function of steel wire in a ACSR conductor is to
C (a) Take care of surges
(b) Prevent corona
T (c) Reduce inductance and hence improve power factor
E (d) Provide additional mechanical strength
59. In high voltage transmission lines, the top most conductor is

(a) R-phase conductor
(b) Y- phase conductor
(c) B-phase conductor
(d) Earth conductor
60. The permissible voltage variation in transmission and distribution system is

A (a) ± 0.1%
I (b) ± 1%
(c) ±10%
C (d) ± 25%
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 61. Which distribution system is more reliable?

(a) Ring main system
I
(b) Tree system
C (c) Radial system
(d) All are equally reliable
T
E 62. Out of the following systems of distribution, which system offers the best economy?
(a) Direct current system
(b) AC single phase system
(c) AC 3-phase 3-wire system
(d) AC 3-phase 4-wire system
63. The main advantage of a.c. transmission system over d.c. transmission system is
(a) Easy transformation
A (b) Less losses in transmission over long distances
(c) Less insulation problems
I (d) Less problem of instability
C 64. Consumers having low power factor equipment are advised to install
T (a) Tap changing transformer
(b) Capacitor bank
E (c) Induction Motors
65. The relation between travelling voltage wave and current wave is
(a) e = i (L/C) 1/2
(b) e = i (C/L) 1/2
(c) e = i (iL/C) 1/2
(d) (L/iC) ½
A
66. HVDC transmission lines are __________ as compared to HVAC lines
I (a) Difficult to erect
C (b) More expensive for long distances
(c) More expensive for short distances
T (d) Less expensive for short distances
E
67. In HVDC transmission lines
(a) Both the stations operate as an inverter
(b) Both the stations operate as a converter
(c) One acts as a converter and other as an inverter
(d) Depends upon the type of the load
68. Which among these is a part of HVDC link?

(a) Two earth electrodes
A (b) Converter valves
I (c) Bipolar DC line
C
T
E
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 69. Which of the following is a property of all linear programming problems?

(a) Alternate course of action to choose from
I
(b) Minimization of some objective
C (c) Use of Graphs
(d) Usage of linear and nonlinear equations and inequalities
T
E 70. The first step in formulation of a linear programming problem is
(a) Graph the problem
(b) Identify the objective and the constraints
(c) Define the decision variables
(d) Understand the managerial problem being faced
71. For linear inequalities, solution set for a group of inequalities is classified as
(a) Concave set
A (b) Convex set
(c) Loss set
I (d) Profit set
C 72. Choose the Correct statement
T (a) The optimal solution is within the feasible region where the iso-cost line is as
close as possible to the origin
E (b) The iso-contribution lines are always parallel
(c) The origin must form part of the feasible region
(d) The maximum customer demand for a product must form part of the feasible
region
73. In linear programming (LP) context, sensitivity analysis is a technique to

(a) Allocate resources optimally
(b) Minimize cost of operations
A (c) Spell out relation between primal and dual
(d) Determine how optimal solution to LPP changes in response to problem inputs
I
C 74. Unboundedness is usually a sign that the LP problem
(a) Has multiple finite solutions
T (b) Is degenerate
E (c) Contains too many redundant constraints
(d) Has been formulated properly
75. LP theory states that the optimal solution to any problem will lie at
(a) Origin
(b) A corner point of the feasible region
(c) The highest point of the feasible region
(d) Lowest point of feasible region
A 76. In simplex method basic solution set as (n-m), all variables other than basic are
I classified as
(a) Constant variable
C (b) Non positive variables
T (c) Basic variables
(d) Non-basic variable
E
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A 77. In a simplex method, feasible basic solution must satisfy the

(a) Negative even values
I
(b) Odd values
C (c) Even values
(d) Non-negative values
T
78. Variable in dual problem which can assume negative values, positive values or zero
E
values is classified as
(a) unrestricted constant
(b) restricted constant
(c) restricted variable
(d) unrestricted variable
79. Dual problem statement is formulated with help of information available in another
statement called
A (a) primal problem
(b) prime problem
I
(c) optimal problem
C (d) primal constants
T 80. In propositional logic P ⇔ Q is equivalent to (Where ~ denotes NOT operation)
E (a) ~ (P ˅ Q) ˄ ~ (Q ˅ P)
(b) (~ P ˅ Q) ˄ (~ Q ˅ P)
(c) (P ˅ Q) ˄ (Q ˅ P)
(d) ~ (P ˅ Q) → ~ (Q ˅ P)

A
81. In Delta Rule for error minimization
I (a) Weights are adjusted w.r.t. change in the output
C (b) Weights are adjusted w.r.t. difference between desired output and actual output
(c) Weights are adjusted w.r.t. difference between input and output
E 82. Which of the following is NOT required for using Newton’s method for optimization?
(a) The lower bound for search region
(b) Twice differentiable optimization function
(c) The function to be optimized
(d) A good initial estimate that is reasonably close to the optimal
83. The room temperature is hot. Here the hot (use of linguistic variable is used) can be
represented by………
A (a) Fuzzy set
I (b) Crisp set
(c) Fuzzy & Crisp set
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 84. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as

(a) IF-THEN-ELSE rules
I
(b) IF-THEN rules
T
E 85. According to algebra of simplex method, slack variables are assigned zero
coefficients because
(a) no contribution in objective function
(b) high contribution in objective function
(c) divisor contribution in objective function
(d) base contribution in objective function
86. Which of the following neural networks uses supervised learning?

A A. Multilayer perceptron
B. Self organizing feature map
I C. Hopfield network
(a) A only
C (b) B only
T (c) A and B only
(d) A and C only
E
87. Back propagation is a learning technique that adjusts weights in the neural network by
propagating weight changes.
(a) Forward from source to sink
(b) Backward from sink to source
(c) Forward from source to hidden nodes
(d) Backward from sink to hidden nodes
A 88. Which of following components are integral parts of static over-current relays?
(a) Bridge rectifier
I (b) Zero-level detector
C (c) Amplifier
T
E 89. Following effects are associated with transmission lines
I. Corona effect II. Proximity effect III. Skin effect.
The effective resistance of a conductor is increased by
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III
90. For protection of parallel feeders fed from one end, the relays required are
A (a) Non-directional relays at the source end and directional relays at the load end
I (b) Non-directional relays at both the ends
(c) Directional relays at the source end and non-directional at the load end
C (d) Directional relays at both the ends
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 91. The neutral of the three phase 20 MVA, 11kV alternator is earthed through a
resistance of 5 ohms, the relay is set to operate when there is an out of balance current
I
of 1.5 A. The CTs have a ratio of 100/5. What should be the minimum value of the
C earthing resistance to protect 90% of winding?
(a) 2.12 Ω
T (b) 1.12 Ω
E (c) 4.24 Ω
(d) 3.24 Ω
92. Direction of flow of active and reactive power between two nodes in any electric
system depends on
(a) magnitude and phase angle of voltage of nodes respectively
(b) magnitude of voltage of nodes only
(c) phase angle of voltage of nodes only
A (d) phase angle and magnitude of voltage of nodes respectively
I 93. In a 3-phase converter used in HVDC transmission, the three anodes conduct
sequentially. Due to overlap caused by the circuit inductances, two anodes conduct
C simultaneously during the overlap period. The output voltage waveform during this
T period is the
(a) voltage of the 1st anode, because the 2nd anode has not completely taken over
E (b) mean of the two anode voltages, as they conduct together
(c) voltage of the 2nd anode, because the voltage of this anode is greater than the 1st
(d) sum of the 1st and the 2nd anode voltages, because both the anode are conducting.
94. Two areas, each having several synchronous generators and loads, are interconnected
by an ac line and a HVDC link. Which of following statements is true in the steady
state?
(a) both areas should have the same frequency
A (b) both areas need not have the same frequency
(c) the direction of power flow in the HVDC link cannot be reversed
I (d) the total power flow between the areas can be changed by controlling the HVDC
C converters alone
T 95. An overhead line with surge impedance of 600 Ω is terminated through a resistance R.
E A surge travelling over the line will not suffer any reflection at the junction, if the
value of R is
(a) 100 Ω
(b) 200 Ω
(c) 400 Ω
(d) 800 Ω
96. A loss-less transmission line with characteristic impedance of 600 Ω is terminated in a

purely resistive load of 900 Ω. The reflection coefficient is
A (a) 0.2
I (b) 0.5
(c) 0.667
C (d) 1.5
T
E
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A 97. In the HVDC system, the ac harmonics which get effectively eliminated with 12-pulse
converters, are
I
(a) triple harmonics
C (b) triple and 5th harmonics
(c) triple, 5th and 7th harmonics
T (d) 5th and 7th harmonics
E
98. In HVDC system a converter acts as a rectifier when the firing angle α has avalue
(a) 0° < α< 120°
(b) 0° < α< 90°
(c) 90° < α< 180°
(d) 90° < α< 120°
99. The charging reactance of 50 km length of the line is 1500 Ω. What is charging
reactance for 100 km length of the line?
A (a) 1500 Ω
(b) 3000 Ω
I
(c) 750 Ω
C (d) 600 Ω
T 100. A 3-phase transmission line has its conductors at the corners of an equilateral triangle
with side 3 m. The diameter of each conductor is 1.63 cm. The inductance of line per
E
phase per km is
(a) 1.232 mH
(b) 1.182 mH
(c) 1.093 mH
(d) 1.043 mH
101. The corona loss on a particular system at 50-Hz is 1kW/km per phase. What is the
corona loss at 60-Hz in kW/km per phase?
A (a) 0.83
(b) 1.0
I (c) 1.13
C (d) 1.2
T 102. In a 3-step distance protection, the reach of the three zones of the relay at the
beginning of the first line typically extends into
E (a) 100% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 20% of the third line
(b) 80% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 20% of the third line
(c) 80% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 10% of the third line
(d) 50% of the first line, 50% of second line and 20% of the third line
103. A 3-phase 11/66kV delta/star transformer, protected by Merz-Price scheme has CT

ratio of 400/5 on LT side. The ratio of CT on HT side will be equal to
(a) 1:23
A (b) 23:1
(c) 23:1.732
I (d) 1.732: 23
C
T
E
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 104. If the inductance and capacitance of a power system are respectively 1H and 0.01µF
and the instantaneous value of interrupted current is 10A, then the voltage across the
I
breaker contact will be
C (a) 50kV
(b) 57kV
T (c) 60kV
E (d) 100kV
105. An artificial neuron receives n inputs x1, x2, x3............xn with weights w1, w2,
..........wn attached to the input links. The weighted sum (i.e. the input to activation
function) is
(a) Σ wi
(b) Σ xi
(c) Σ wi + Σ xi
A (d) Σ wi* xi
I 106. The plug setting of a negative sequence relay is 0.2A. The CT ratio is 5:1. The
C minimum value of line to line fault current for the operation of the relay is
(a) 1A
T (b) 1/1.732A
E (c) 1.732A
(d) 2A
107. The neutral of a 10MVA, 11kV alternator is earthed through a resistance of 5Ω. The
earth fault relay is set to operate at 0.75A. Current Transformer (CT) has a ratio of
1000/5. What percentage of the alternator winding is protected?
(a) 85
(b) 88.2
(c) 15
A
(d) 11.8
I
108. The inductance and capacitance of a power system network up to a circuit breaker
C location are 1H and 0.01µF respectively, the value of shunt resistor across the circuit
breaker, required for critical damping of the restriking voltage is
T (a) 2kΩ
E (b) 3kΩ
(c) 5kΩ
(d) 8kΩ
109. An initial estimate of an optimal solution is given to be used in conjunction with the
steepest ascent method to determine the maximum of the function. Which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) The function to be optimized must be differentiable
(b) If the initial estimate is different than the optimal solution, then the magnitude of
A
the gradient is nonzero
I (c) As more iterations are performed, the function values of the solutions at the end of
each subsequent iteration must be increasing
C (d) All (a), (b) and (c) statements are correct
T
E
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 110. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Direct search methods are useful when the optimization function is not
I
differentiable
C (b) The gradient of f (x, y) isa vector pointing in the direction of the steepest slope at
that point
T (c) The Hessian is the Jacobian Matrix of second-order partial derivatives of a
E function
(d) The second derivative of the optimization function is used to determine if we have
reached an optimal point
111. If the fault current is 2000A, the relay setting is 50% and Current Transformer (CT)
ratio is 400/5, the PSM will be
(a) 25A
(b) 15A
A (c) 50A
(d) 10A
I
112. If the time of operating of a relay for unity TMS is 10 s, the time of operation for 0.5
C TMS will be
T (a) 20 s
(b) 5 s
E (c) 10 s
113. Breakdown strength of air at STP is 24 kV/cm. Its breakdown strength at 30°C and 72
cm of Hg will be
(a) 24.25 kV/cm
(b) 20.2 kV/cm
(c) 23 kV/cm
A (d) 49.5 kV/cm
I 114. A three phase, 33kV oil circuit breaker is rated 1200A, 2000MVA, 3s. What is its
C symmetrical breaking current?
(a) 1200A
T (b) 3600A
E (c) 35kA
(d) 104.8kA
115. The following three constraints have been determined for a graphical linear
programming problem
2x + 3y < 600; x + 2y < 500; 3x + 2y < 690
What is the maximum number of units of x that will be within the feasible region?
(a) 230
(b) 250
A (c) 260
I (d) 330
C
T
E
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A
116. Which of the following is one of the constraints of this linear program? Apply linear
I
programming to this problem. A firm want to determine how many units of each of
C two products (products X and Y) they should produce in order to make the most
money. The profit from making a unit of product X is $190 and the profit from
T making a unit of product Y is $11B. The firm has a limited number of labor hours and
E machine hours to apply to these products. The total labor hours per week are 3,000.
Product X takes 2 hours of labor per unit and Product Y takes 6 hours of labor per
unit. The total machine hours available are 750 per week. Product X takes 1 machine
hour per unit and Product Y takes 5 machine hours per unit
(a) 1 X + 5 Y =< 750
(b) 2 X + 6 Y => 750
(c) 2 X + 5 Y = 3,000
(d) 2 X + 6 Y =>3,000
A
117. Leo has $12.50 to spend on his weekly supply of sweets, crisps and apples. A bag of
I crisps costs $0.65, a bag of sweets costs $0.85, and one apple costs $0.50. The total
C number of packets of crisps, sweets and apples consumed in a week must be at least
seven, and he eats at least twice as many packets of sweets as crisps. His new healthy
T diet also means that the total number of packets of sweets and crisps must not exceed
one-third of the number of apples. If s, c and a, denote the number of packets of
E sweets, packets of crisps, and apples respectively, which one of the following
represents one of the constraints defining the feasible region? Which of the following
represents one of the constraints in the question?
(a) 3s - 3c + a ≥ 0
(b) C ≤ 2s
(c) 17s + 10a + 13c ≤ 250
(d) 3c + 3s + a ≤ 0
A 118. Apply linear programming to this problem. A one-airplane airline wants to determine
I the best mix of passengers to serve each day. The airplane seats 25 people and flies 8
one-way segments per day. There are two types of passengers: first class (F) and
C coach (C). The cost to serve each first class passenger is $15 per segment and the cost
to serve each coach passenger is $10 per segment. The marketing objectives of the
T
airplane owner are to carry at least 13 first class passenger-segments and 67 coach
E passenger-segments each day. In addition, in order to break even, they must at least
carry a minimum of 110 total passenger segments each day. Which of the following is
one of the constraints for this linear program?
(a) 15 F + 10 C => 110
(b) 1 F + 1 C => 80
(c) 13 F + 67 C => 110
(d) 1 F => 13
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2ELE51
A 119. Two models of a product – Regular (X) and Deluxe (Y) – are produced by a
company. A linear programming model is used to determine the production schedule.
I
The formulation is as follows
C Maximize profit 50X + 60Y
T Subject to 8X + 10Y 800 (labor hours)
X + Y 120 (total units demanded)
E
4X + 5Y 500 (raw materials)
all variables 0
The optimal solution is X = 100 Y = 0

How many units of the labor hours must be used to produce this number of units?
(a) 400
(b) 200
A (c) 500
I (d) None
C 120. Consider the following linear programming problem

Maximize 12X + 10Y
T
Subject to 4X + 3Y 480
E 2X + 3Y 360
all variables 0
Which of the following points (X, Y) is feasible?
(a) (10,120)
(b) (120,0)
(c) (30,100)
(d) (60,90)
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
M. Tech. in ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Key for Paper – 2
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1 d 25 d 49 b 73 d 97 d
2 d 26 a 50 a 74 d 98 b
3 d 27 b 51 a 75 b 99 c
4 d 28 b 52 a 76 d 100 a
5 c 29 c 53 d 77 d 101 c
6 c 30 a 54 a 78 d 102 b
7 a 31 c 55 d 79 a 103 b
8 b 32 b 56 c 80 b 104 d
9 b 33 d 57 d 81 b 105 d
10 d 34 c 58 d 82 a 106 c
11 a 35 b 59 c 83 a 107 b
12 b 36 a 60 a 84 b 108 c
13 d 37 d 61 d 85 a 109 d
14 d 38 d 62 a 86 a 110 d
15 a 39 c 63 b 87 b 111 c
16 c 40 c 64 b 88 d 112 b
17 a 41 c 65 a 89 b 113 d
18 d 42 d 66 c 90 a 114 c
19 a 43 a 67 c 91 a 115 a
20 a 44 d 68 d 92 d 116 a
21 c 45 a 69 a 93 b 117 c
22 d 46 a 70 d 94 a 118 d
23 d 47 a 71 b 95 c 119 d
24 a 48 d 72 b 96 a 120 c
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A EMBEDDED SYSTEM TECHNOLOGIES

I
T
PAPER-I
E
Instructions:
A the wrong answer.
I v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
T vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
E viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.

A
I 1. Maximum number of inputs connected to gate is called
C (a) fan
(b) fan in
T (c) fan out
E (d) out come
2. Exceeding maximum load on circuit causes

(a) malfunction
(b) high performance
(c) low performance
(d) out come
A 3. Behavior of a positive logical NAND gate in terms of low input produces a

I (a) low
(b) medium
C (c) high
T (d) both (a) and (b)
E 4. Voltage between Vcc and Voh is referred as

(a) low level state
(b) high level state
(c) mid-level state
(d) transition
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A
5. ECL stands for
I
(a) Emitter collector league
C (b) Emitter coupled league
(c) Emitter collector logic
T
(d) Emitter coupled logic
E
6. Term being used for loading is
(a) fan
(b) fan in
(c) fan out
(d) out come
A
7. Unit of noise margin is
I
(a) V
C (b) I
(c) S
T
(d) T
E
8. For proper operation gate requires
(a) input
(b) current
(c) voltage
(d) output
9. Forward biased transistor has voltage greater than

A
(a) 0.3
I (b) 0.5
(c) 0.6
C
(d) 0.9
T
10. Which of the following logic families has the highest maximum clock frequency?
E (a) S-TTL
(b) AS-TTL
(c) HS-TTL
(d) HCMOS
11. Logic circuits that are designated as buffers, drivers or buffers/drivers are designed to
have:
A (a) A greater current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic circuit
(b) Greater input current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic circuit
I (c) A smaller output current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic
C (d) Greater the input and output current/voltage capability than an ordinary logic
circuit
T
E 12. What is the static charge that can be stored by your body as you walk across a carpet?
(a) 300 volts
(b) 3000 volts
(c) 30000 volts
(d) Over 30000 volts
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A
13. What causes low-power Schottky TTL to use less power than the 74XX series TTL?
I (a) The Schottky-clamped transistor
C (b) A larger value resistor
(c) Using NAND gates
T (d) A large value capacitance
E
14. According to the IC fabrication process logic families can be divided into two broad
categories as:
(a) RTL and TTL
(b) HTL and MOS
(c) ECL and DTL
A (d) Bipolar and MOS
I 15. The full form of DIP is

C (a) Dual-in-Long Package
(b) Dual-in-Line Package
T (c) Double Integrated Package
E (d) Double-in-Line Package
16. Which of the following logic expressions represents the logic diagram shown?
A
I
C (a) X=AB’+A’B
(b) X=(AB)’+AB
T (c) X=(AB)’+A’B’
E (d) X=A’B’+AB
17. The device shown here is most likely a ________
A
I
C
(a) Comparator
T (b) Multiplexer
(c) Inverter
E
(d) Demultiplexer
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 18. Which is the storage element in DRAM?

(a) inductor
I
(b) capacitor
C (c) resistor
(d) diode
T
E 19. Which of the following combinations of logic gates can decode binary 1101?
(a) One 4-input AND gate
(b) One 4-input AND gate, one inverter
(c) One 4-input AND gate, one OR gate
(d) One 4-input NAND gate, one inverter
A 20. The carry propagation can be expressed as ________

(a) Cp = AB
I
(b) Cp = A + B
C (c) Cp = A XOR B
(d) Cp = A + B’
T
E 21. CMOS inverter has ______ regions of operation
(a) three
(b) four
(c) two
(d) five
22. If p-transistor is conducting and has small voltage between source and drain, then the
it is said to work in
A (a) linear region
(b) saturation region
I
(c) non saturation resistive region
C (d) cut-off region
T 23. Fast gate can be built by keeping
E (a) low output capacitance
(b) high on resistance
(c) high output capacitance
(d) input capacitance does not affect speed of the gate
24. In latch-up condition, parasitic component gives rise to __________ conducting path
(a) low resistance
(b) high resistance
A (c) low capacitance
(d) high capacitance
I
C 25. How many transistors might bring up latch up effect in p-well structure?
(a) two
T (b) three
E (c) one
(d) four
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 26. One of the factor in reducing the latch-up effect is

(a) reduced p-well resistance
I
(b) reduced n-well resistance
C (c) increased n-well resistance
(d) increased p-well resistance
T
E 27. The reduction in carrier lifetime brings about
(a) reduction in alpha
(b) reduction in beta
(c) reduction in current
(d) reduction in voltage
28. The n-well collector is formed by:

A
(a) Lightly doped n-type epitaxial layer on p-Substrate
I (b) Heavily doped n-type epitaxial layer on p-Substrate
(c) Lightly doped n-type diffused layer on p-Substrate
C
(d) Heavily doped n-type diffused layer on p-Substrate
T
29. The BJT in BiCMOS works as a:
E (a) Current controlled Voltage source
(b) Voltage controlled Voltage source
(c) Current controlled current source
(d) Voltage controlled current source
30. The number of pass transistors connected in series can be increased if

(a) compressor is connected
A (b) buffer is connected
(c) ground is connected
I (d) voltage regulator is connected
C 31. While CPU is executing a program, an interrupt exists then it
T (a) follows the next instruction in the program
(b) jumps to instruction in other registers
E (c) breaks the normal sequence of execution of instructions
(d) stops executing the program
32. An interrupt breaks the execution of instructions and diverts its execution to
(a) Interrupt service routine
(b) Counter word register
(c) Execution unit
(d) control unit
A
I 33. Whenever a number of devices interrupt a CPU at a time, and if the processor is able
to handle them properly, it is said to have
C (a) interrupt handling ability
T (b) interrupt processing ability
(c) multiple interrupt processing ability
E (d) multiple interrupt executing ability
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 34. The Programmable interrupt controller is required to

(a) handle one interrupt request
I
(b) handle one or more interrupt requests at a time
C (c) handle one or more interrupt requests with a delay
(d) handle no interrupt request
T
E 35. The INTR interrupt may be masked using the flag
(a) direction flag
(b) overflow flag
(c) interrupt flag
(d) sign flag
36. Which pin of the LCD is used for adjusting its contrast?
A
(a) pin no 1
I (b) pin no 2
(c) pin no 3
C
(d) pin no 4
T
37. Which command of an LCD is used to shift the entire display to the right?
E (a) 0x1C
(b) 0x18
(c) 0x05
(d) 0x07
38. Which instruction is used to select the first row first column of an LCD?
(a) 0x08
A (b) 0x0c
(c) 0x80
I (d) 0xc0
C
39. What are the contents of the IE register, when the interrupt of the memory location
T 0x00 is caused?
(a) 0xFFH
E
(b) 0x00H
(c) 0x10H
(d) 0xF0H
40. Which pin of the external hardware is said to exhibit INT0 interrupt?
(a) pin no 10
(b) pin no 11
A (c) pin no 12
(d) pin no 13
I
C 41. Which bit of the IE register is used to enable TxD/RxD interrupt?
(a) IE.D5
T (b) IE.D2
E (c) IE.D3
(d) IE.D4
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 42. A valid division instruction always makes:

(a) CY=0,AC=1
I
(b) CY=1,AC=1
C (c) CY=0,AC=0
(d) no relation with AC and CY
T
E 43. In 8 bit signed number operations, OV flag is set to 1 if:
(a) a carry is generated from D7 bit
(b) a carry is generated from D3 bit
(c) a carry is generated from D7 or D3 bit
(d) a carry is generated from D7 or D6 bit
A 44. In unsigned number addition, the status of which bit is important?

I (a) OV
(b) CY
C (c) AC
T (d) PSW
E 45. XRL, ORL, ANL commands have _______

(a) accumulator as the destination address and any register, memory or any immediate
data as the source address
(b) accumulator as the destination address and any immediate data as the source
address
(c) any register as the destination address and accumulator, memory or any immediate
data as the source address
A (d) any register as the destination address and any immediate data as the source
address
I
C 46. To initialize any port as an output port what value is to be given to it?
(a) 0xFF
T
(b) 0x00
E (c) 0x01
(d) A port is by default an output port
47. Which operator is the most important while assigning any instruction as register
indirect instruction?
(a) $
(b) #
A (c) @
(d) &
I
C 48. What is the advantage of register indirect addressing mode?
(a) it makes use of registers R0 and R1
T
(b) it uses the data dynamically
E (c) it makes use of operator @
(d) it is easy
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 49. DJNZ R0, label is how many bit instructions?

(a) 2
I
(b) 3
C (c) 1
(d) Can’t be determined
T
E 50. LCALL instruction takes
(a) 2 bytes
(b) 4 bytes
(c) 3 bytes
(d) 1 byte
A 51. JZ, JNZ, DJNZ, JC, JNC instructions monitor the bits of which register?
I (a) DPTR
(b) B
C (c) A
T (d) PSW
E 52. MAX1112 is a _________ type of ADC converter?

(a) parallel
(b) 12 bit
(c) serial
(d) 8 bit
53. Why do we connect a capacitor between the Vref and the Gnd pin?
A (a) to remove the leakage
(b) to ensure more current at that place
I (c) to make more Vref
C (d) to make Vref stable and also to increase the precision of the ADC
T 54. What is the internal Vref of an Atmega32 series?
E (a) 5V
(b) 3.3V
(c) 2.56V
(d) 4.4 V
55. The output of a DAC0808 is in the form of ____________

(a) electrical pulse
(b) current
A (c) voltage
I (d) all of the mentioned
C 56. ADC0848 is a ____________ bit converter?

T (a) 16
(b) 4
E ((c) 8
d) 48
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 57. A machine language instruction format consists of

(a) Operand field
I
(b) Operation code field
C (c) Operation code field & operand field
(d) High level mnemonics
T
E 58. If the occurrence of one event means that another cannot happen, then the events are
(a) Independent
(b) Mutually Exclusive
(c) Bayesian
(d) Empirical
A 59. Which of the following is not a condition of the binomial distribution?

(a) Only 2 possible outcomes
I
(b) have constant probability of success
C (c) Must have at least 3 trials
(d) trials must be independent
T
E 60. In a Poisson probability distribution
(a) The mean and variance of the distribution are same (equal)
(b) The probability of success is always greater than 5
(c) The number of trials is always less than 5
(d) It always contains a contingency table
61. Hypergeometric distribution has parameters

(a) 2
A
(b) 1
I (c) 3
(d) 4
C
T 62. The mean of binomial distribution is
(a) npq
E
(b) np
(c) √npq
(d) √np
63. If in a binomial distribution n = 1 then E(X) is

(a) q
(b) p
A (c) 0
(d) 1
I
C 64. The variance of binomial distribution is always
(a) Less than mean
T
(b) Equal to mean
E (c) Greater than mean
(d) Equal to standard deviation
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 65. The successive trials are with replacement in

(a) Hypergeometric distribution
I
(a) Binomial distribution
C (c) Geometric distribution
(d) normal distribution
T
E 66. If in a binomial distribution n = 1 then E(X) is
(a) q
(b) p
(c) 0
(d) 1
67. The mean, median and mode for binomial distribution will be equal when
A (a) p=0.5p=0.5
I (b) p<0.5p<0.5
(c) p>0.5p>0.5
C (d) p=1
T
68. The probability of success changes from trial to trial in
E (a) Binomial Distribution
(b) Geometric Distribution
(c) Sampling Distribution
(d) Hypergeometric Distribution
69. Base of image pyramid contains
(a) low resolution
(b) high resolution
A (c) intensity
I (d) blurred portion
C 70. FWT stands for

(a) Fast wavelet transformation
T (b) Fast wavelet transform
E (c) Fourier wavelet transform
(d) Fourier wavelet transformation
71. Orthonormal filter is developed around filter called
(a) up sampling
(b) filtering
(c) Digital segment filtering
(d) prototype
A
72. Subband of input image, showing dH(m, n) is called
I (a) approximation
C (b) vertical detail
(c) horizontal detail
T (d) diagonal detail
E 73. Heisenberg uncertainty principle is viewed as
(a) tiles
(b) blocks
(c) squares
(d) circles
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 74. What is the circular convolution of the sequences x1(n)={2,1,2,1} and

x2(n)={1,2,3,4}?
I
(a) {14,14,16,16}
C (b) {16,16,14,14}
(c) {2,3,6,4}
T
(d) {14,16,14,16}
E
75. Monte Carlo simulation of queues is used when
(a) Arrival and service time distributions are not standard
(b) Gausiandistributions are not standard
(c) mathematical analysis is adopted
(d) Space
A
76. Which of the following mentioned standard Probability density functions is applicable
I
to discrete Random Variables ?
C (a) Gaussian Distribution
(b) Poisson Distribution
T
(c) Rayleigh Distribution
E (d) Exponential Distribution
77. What would be the probability of an event ‘G’ if H denotes its complement, according
to the axioms of probability?
(a) P (G) = 1 / P (H)
(b) P (G) = 1 – P (H)
(c) P (G) = 1 + P (H)
(d) P (G) = P (H)
A
I 78. A table with all possible value of a random variable and its corresponding
probabilities is called
C
(a) Probability Mass Function
T (b) Probability Density Function
(c) Cumulative distribution function
E
(d) Probability Distribution
79. If a variable can certain integer values between two given points is called
(a) Continuous random variable
(b) Discrete random variable
(c) Irregular random variable
(d) Uncertain random variable
A
80. The expected value of a discrete random variable ‘x’ is given by
I
(a) P(x)
C (b) ∑ P(x)
(c) ∑ x P(x)
T
(d) 1
E
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A
I
C
81. Why is the fan-out of CMOS gates frequency dependent?
T
(a) Each CMOS input gate has a specific propagation time and this limits the number
E of different gates that can be connected to the output of a CMOS gate
(b) When the frequency reaches the critical value the gate will only be capable of
delivering 70% of the normal output voltage and consequently the output power
will be one-half of normal and this defines the upper operating frequency
(c) The higher number of gates attached to the output the more frequently they will
have to be serviced thus reducing the frequency at which each will be serviced
A with an input signal
(d) The input gates of the FETs are predominantly capacitive and as the signal
I
frequency increases the capacitive loading also increases thereby limiting the
C number of loads that may be attached to the output of the driving gate
T
82. What must be done to interface TTL to CMOS?
E (a) A dropping resistor must be used on the CMOS of 12 V supply to reduce it to 5 V
for the TTL
(b) As long as the CMOS supply voltage is 5 V they can be interfaced (however, the
fan-out of the TTL is limited to five CMOS gates)
(c) A 5 V zener diode must be placed across the inputs of the TTL gates in order to
protect them from the higher output voltages of the CMOS gates
(d) A pull-up resistor must be used between the TTL output-CMOS input node and
Vcc; the value of RP will depend on the number of CMOS gates connected to the
A
node
I
C 83. What are the major differences between the 5400 and 7400 series of ICs?
(a) The 5400 series are military grade and require tighter supply voltages and
T temperatures
E (b) The 5400 series are military grade and allow for a wider range of supply voltages
and temperatures
(c) The 7400 series are an improvement over the original 5400s
(d) The 7400 series was originally developed by Texas Instruments and the 5400
series was brought out by National Semiconductors after TI’s patents expired as a
second supply source.
84. For a two-input XNOR gate, with the input waveforms as shown below, which output
A
waveform is correct?
I
C
T
E
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A (a) OUTPUT d
(b) OUTPUTa
I
(c) OUTPUTc
C (d) OUTPUTb
T 85. In the given 4-to-1 multiplexer, if C1 = 0 and C0 = 1 then the output M is
E
A
I
C
T (a) x0
E (b) x1
(c) x2
(d) x3
86. If βn = βp, then Vin is equal to

(a) Vdd
(b) Vss
(c) 2Vdd
A (d) 0.5Vdd
I
87. In CMOS inverter, transistor is a switch having
C (a) infinite on resistance
T (b) finite off resistance
(c) buffer
E (d) infinite off resistance
88. The high current driving capability of the BiCMOS is due to:
(a) NMOS in saturation mode
(b) PMOS in saturation mode
(c) CMOS
(d) BJT
A
89. The n-well collector is formed by:
I (a) Lightly doped n-type epitaxial layer on p-Substrate
C (b) Heavily doped n-type epitaxial layer on p-Substrate
(c) Lightly doped n-type diffused layer on p-Substrate
T (d) Heavily doped n-type diffused layer on p-Substrate
E
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 90. The overall delay is ______ to the relative resistance r

(a) directly proportional
I
(b) inversely proportional
C (c) exponentially proportional
(d) not dependent
T
E 91. How many rows and columns are present in a 16*2 alphanumeric LCD?
(a) rows=2, columns=32
(b) rows=16, columns=2
(c) rows=16, columns=16
(d) rows=2, columns=16
A 92. What is the correct order of priority that is set after a controller gets reset?
I (a) TxD/RxD> T1 > T0 >EX1 > EX0
(b) TxD/RxD< T1 < T0<EX1 < EX0
C (c) EX0 > T0 > EX1 >T1>TxD/RxD
T (d) EX0 < T0 < EX1 < T1 <TxD/RxD
E 93. What is the difference between UART and USART communication?

(a) they are the names of the same particular thing, just the difference of A and S is
there in it
(b) one uses asynchronous means of communication and the other uses synchronous
means of communication
(c) one uses asynchronous means of communication and the other uses asynchronous
and synchronous means of communication
A (d) one uses angular means of the communication and the other uses linear means of
communication
I
C 94. With what frequency UART operates( where f denoted the crystal frequency )?
(a) f/12
T (b) f/32
E (c) f/144
(d) f/384
95. What should be done if we want to double the baud rate?

(a) change a bit of the TMOD register
(b) change a bit of the PCON register
(c) change a bit of the SCON register
(d) change a bit of the SBUF register
A
I 96. Which of the following is the logic level understood by the micro-controller/micro-
processor?
C (a) TTL logic level
T (b) RS232 logic level
(c) None of the mentioned
E (d) TTL & RS232 logic level
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 97. What is a null modem connection?

(a) no data transmission
I
(b) no MAX232
C (c) the RxD of one is the TxD for the other
(d) no serial communication
T
E 98. Which of the following best states the reason that why baud rate is mentioned in serial
communication?
(a) to know about the no of bits being transmitted per second
(b) to make the two devices compatible with each other, so that the transmission
becomes easy and error free
(c) to use Timer 1
A (d) for wasting memory
I 99. A-7-input AND gate has a fan-in of

(a) 4
C (b) 5
T (c) 6
(d) 7
E
100. Which out of the four ports of 8051 needs a pull-up resistor for using it is as an input
or an output port?
(a) PORT 0
(b) PORT 1
(c) PORT 2
(d) PORT 3
A
101. Which of the ports act as the 16 bit address lines for transferring data through it?
I (a) PORT 0 and PORT 1
C (b) PORT 1 and PORT 2
(c) PORT 0 and PORT 2
T (d) PORT 1 and PORT 3
E
102. Which instruction is used to check the status of a single bit?
(a) MOV A,P0
(b) ADD A,#05H
(c) JNB PO.0, label
(d) CLR P0.05H
103. Which of the following comes under the indexed addressing mode?
A (a) MOVX A, @DPTR
I (b) MOVC @A+DPTR,A
(c) MOV A,R0
C (d) MOV @R0,A
T
104. If SUBB A,R4 is executed, then actually what operation is being applied?
E (a) R4+A
(b) R4-A
(c) A-R4
(d) R4+A
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 105. Calculate the jump code for again and here if code starts at 0000H
MOV R1, #0
I
MOV A, #0
C MOV R0, #25H
AGAIN: ADDA, #0ECH
T
JNC HERE
E HERE: INC R1
DJNZ R0, AGAIN
MOV R0, A
END
(a) F3,02
(b) F9,01
A (c) E9,01
(d) E3,02
I
C 106. Find the number of times the following loop will be executed
MOV R6, #200
T
BACK:MOV R5, #100
E HERE: DJNZ R5, HERE
DJNZ R6, BACK
END
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 20000
(d) 2000
A
107. What is the meaning of the instruction MOV A,05H?
I (a) data 05H is stored in the accumulator
(b) fifth bit of accumulator is set to one
C
(c) address 05H is stored in the accumulator
T (d) address 05H is not stored in the accumulator
E
108. Do the two instructions mean the same?
1) BACK: DEC R0
JZ BACK
2) BACK: DJNZ RO, BACK
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) can’t be determined
A (d) yes and the second one is preferred
I
109. In an ADC, we can calculate the output voltage from the formula
C (a) Step size / Vin
(b) Step size * Vin
T
(c) Vin / step size
E (d) Vref / step size
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 110. If a card is chosen from a standard deck of cards, what is the probability of getting a
diamond (♦) or a club(♣)?
I
(a) 26/52=1/2
C (b) 13/52
(c) 20/52
T
(d) 12/52
E
111. In a binomial probability distribution it is impossible to find
(a) P(X<0)P(X<0)
(b) P(X=0)P(X=0)
(c) P(X>0)P(X>0)
(d) P(0≤X≤n)
A
112. If x(n)=xR(n)+jxI(n) is a complex sequence whose Fourier transform is given as
I
X(ω)=XR(ω)+jXI(ω), then what is the value of XR(ω)?
C (a) ∞ 𝑛=0 𝑥𝑅 (𝑛)𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑤𝑛 − 𝑥1 𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑤𝑛
(b) ∞ 𝑛=0 𝑥𝑅 𝑛 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑤𝑛 + 𝑥1 𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑤𝑛
T
(c) ∞ 𝑛=−∞ 𝑥𝑅 𝑛 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑤𝑛 + 𝑥1 𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑤𝑛
E (d) ∞ 𝑛=−∞ 𝑥𝑅 𝑛 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑤𝑛 − 𝑥1 𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑤𝑛
113. If x(n) is a real sequence, then what is the value of XI(ω)?

(a) ∞ 𝑛=−∞ 𝑥 𝑛 sin⁡ (𝑤𝑛)
∞
(b) - 𝑛=−∞ 𝑥 𝑛 sin⁡ (𝑤𝑛)
(c) ∞ 𝑛=−∞ 𝑥 𝑛 cos⁡
(𝑤𝑛)
(d) - ∞𝑛=−∞ 𝑥 𝑛 cos⁡ (𝑤𝑛)
A
114. If x(n) is a real and odd sequence, then what is the expression for x(n)?
I 1 𝜋
(a) 𝜋 0 𝑋1 𝑤 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑤𝑛 𝑑𝑤
C 1 𝜋
(b) -𝜋 0
𝑋1 𝑤 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑤𝑛 𝑑𝑤
T 1 𝜋
(c) 0
𝑋1 𝑤 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑤𝑛 𝑑𝑤
𝜋
E 1 𝜋
(d) -𝜋 0
𝑋1 𝑤 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑤𝑛 𝑑𝑤
115. What is the value of XI(ω) given X(ω)=1/(1-ae-jω ) ,|a|<1?

(a) asinω/(1-2acosω+a2 )
(b) (1+acosω)/(1-2acosω+a2 )
(c) (1-acosω)/(1-2acosω+a2 )
(d) (-asinω)/(1-2acosω+a2 )
A
116. If x(n)=A, -M<n<M, then what is the Fourier transform of the signal?
I
=0, elsewhere
C (a) Asin[(M-1/2)ω]/sin(ω/2)
(b) A2 sin[(M+1/2)ω]/sin(ω/2)
T
(c) Asin[(M+1/2)ω]/sin[(ω/2)].
E (d) sin[(M+1/2)ω]/sin(ω/2)
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1EST57
A 117. Subband of input image, showing dH(m, n) is called

(a) approximation
I
(b) vertical detail
C (c) horizontal detail
(d) diagonal detail
T
E 118. What is the z-transform of the finite duration signal?
x(n) = {2,4,5,7,0,1}
(a) 2 + 4z + 5z2 + 7z3 + z4

(b) 2 + 4z + 5z2 + 7z3 + z5
(c) 2 + 4z-1 + 5z-2 + 7z-3 + z-5
A (d) 2z2 + 4z + 5 +7z-1 + z-3
I
119. What is the z-transform of the signal x(n)=(0.5)nu(n)?
C 1
(a) 1−0.5𝑧 −1 ; ROC: 𝑧 >0.5
T 1
(b) ; ROC: 𝑧 <0.5
1−0.5𝑧 −1
1
E (c) ; ROC: 𝑧 >0.5
1+0.5𝑧 −1
1
(d) ; ROC: 𝑧 <0.5
1+0.5𝑧 −1
120. What is the ROC of the z-transform of the signal x(n)= anu(n)+bnu(-n-1)?
(a) |a|<|z|<|b|
(b) |a|>|z|>|b|
(c) |a|>|z|<|b|
A (d) |a|<|z|>|b|
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
M. Tech in Embedded system technology
Paper 2
Marks 1 Marks2(Q No.81 Onwards)
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (b) 81 (c) 112. (d)

4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (b) 82 . (a) 113. (b)
7(d) 8 (b) 9 (b) 83. (a) 114 (a)
10 (b) 11 (d) 12 (a) 84. (a) 115. (b)
13 (c) 14 (B) 15 (c) 85. (b) 116. (d)
16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (c) 86. (b) 117. (d)
19 (a) 20 (b) 21 (a) 87.(a) 118. (b)
22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (b) 88. (d) 119. (a)
25 (a) 26 (c) 27 (a) 89. (b) 120. (b)
28 (a) 29 ( c) 30 (c) 90 (d)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (c) 91 (a)
34 (d) 35 (a) 36 (d) 92 (d)
37(b) 38 (c) 39 (b) 93. (d)
40 (a) 41 (b) 42 (c) 94. (b)
43(d) 44 (a) 45(a) 95. (d)
46 (d) 47 (b) 48 (d) 96. (a).
49 (a) 50 (c) 51 (a) 97. (d)
52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (c) 98. (b)
55 (d) 56 (b) 57 (a ) 99. ( a)
58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (a) 100. (a)
61 (a) 62 (c) 63 (c) 101. (b)
64 (c) 65 (c) 66 (a) 102. (c)
67 (b) 68 (a) 69 (a) 103. (d)
70 (c) 71 (a) 72 (d) 104. (a)
73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (c) 105. (a)
76 (d) 77 (b) 78 (c) 106. (d)
79 (d) 80 (a) 107. (c)
108. (a)
109. (a)
110. (b)
111. (b)
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C EMBEDDED SYSTEM TECHNOLOGIES
T
E Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
PAPER-II
Instructions:
A i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
I ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
C iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
T iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to
E the wrong answer.
A blue ball point pen.
C ix. Hand over your OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of examination
E
A
I 1. Embedded systems applications typically involve processing information as
C (a) Block level
T (b) Logical volumes
E (c) Distance
(d) Signals
2. Caches can be converted into software-managed on-chip memories via

(a) Block level
(b) Seek time
(c) Line locking
(d) Line blocking
3. Which are the 4 segmented registers in intel 80286?

(a) AX,BX,CX,DX
(b) AS,BS,CS,DS
(c) SP,DI,SI,BP
(d) IP,FL,SI,DI
4. Which lines are utilized during the enable state of hardware flow control in DTE and
DCE devices of RS232 ?
(a) CD & IR
(b) DSR & DTR
(c) RTS & CTS
Page 1 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 5. Which of the following technique is used by the UNIX operating system?
T (a) logical address memory
E (b) physical address memory
(c) virtual memory technique
(d) translational address
6. How is the nature of instruction size in CISC processors?

A (a) Fixed
I (b) Variable
E
7. While designing an embedded system, which sub-task oriented process
allocates the time steps for various modules that share the similar resources?
(a) Simulation and Validation
(b) Iteration
(c) Hardware-Software Partitioning
A
(d) Scheduling
I
C 8. What is the size range of the alphanumeric LCDs?
T (a) 1 to 8 characters
E (b) 8 to 80 characters
(c) 100 to 150 characters
(d) 250 to 400 characters
9. What is the directional nature of two active wires SDA & SCL usually adopted in I2C
A Bus for carrying the information between the devices ?
I (a) Uni-directional
C (b) Bi-directional
T (c) Multi-directional
10. What is the maximum speed of operating frequency exhibited by SPI as compared to
that of TWI?
(a) Less than 10 MHz
(b) Greater than 10 MHz
(c) Equal to 10 MHz
11. Embedded systems applications typically involve processing information as
(a) Block level
(b) Logical volumes
(c) Distance
(d) Signals
12. A code of rate m/n has m information bits for (m + n) check bits, such codes are
known as
(a) Trellis codes
(b) Unillis codes
(c) Dillis codes
(d) None of above
Page 2 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 13. Two partitions must be insulated to prevent operations on one half from affecting
T other, such floating-point operations are called
E (a) Single-instruction operation
(b) Vector operation
(c) Paired single operations
(d) Fetch operation
A 14. Which type of non-privileged processor mode is entered due to raising of high priority
I of an interrupt?
C (a) User mode
T (b) Fast Interrupt Mode (FIQ)
E (c) Interrupt Mode (IRQ)
(d) Supervisor Mode (SVC)
15. In Von Neumann architecture, which among the following handles all the operations
of the system that are inside and outside the processor?
A (a) Input Unit
I (b) Output Unit
C (c) Control Unit
T (d) Memory Unit
E
16. In ADSP 21xx architecture, which notation represents ALU overflow condition?
(a) AC
(b) AV
(c) NE
A (d) EQ
I
C 17. A “glue” between client and server parts of application is
T (a) Middleware
E (b) Firmware
(c) Package
(d) System Software
18. What is the other name for object middleware?

(a) Object request interface
(b) Object enabled interface
(c) Object Request broker
(d) Object enabled broker
19. An example of a web design OSS is
(a) Nvu
(b) KOffice
(c) AbiWorld
(d) Open Office
20. The _______ calls certain procedures on remote systems and is used to perform
synchronous or asynchronous interactions between systems.
(a) Procedure
(b) RPC
(c) Message Oriented
(d) DB
Page 3 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 21. Which of the following processor are designed to perform calculations in graphics?
T rendering?
E (a) GPU
(b) digital signal processor
(c) microprocessor
(d) microcontroller
A 22. Which of the following statement is true for concurrency?

I (a) different parts of the program executes physically
C (b) different parts of the program executes sequentially
T (c) different parts of the program executes conceptually
E (d) different parts of the program executes sequentially and physically
23. Which of the following has programmable hardware?

(a) microcontroller
(b) microprocessor
(c) coprocessor
A
(d) FPGA
I
C 24. Which memory storage is widely used in PCs and Embedded Systems?
T (a) SRAM
E (b) DRAM
(c) Flash memory
(d) EEPROM
25. An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a _________

A (a) High-speed data acquisition system
I (b) Failure of a power supply in an embedded system
C (c) Both High-speed data acquisition system AND Failure of a power supply in an
T embedded system
E (d) None of the mentioned
26. One example of the use of an S-R flip-flop is as

(a) Transition pulse generator
(b) Racer
(c) Switch debouncer
(d) A stable oscillator
27. Which of the following is correct for a gated D-type flip-flop?

(a) The Q output is either SET or RESET as soon as the D input goes HIGH or LOW
(b) The output complement follows the input when enabled
(c) Only one of the inputs can be HIGH at a time
(d) The output toggles if one of the inputs is held HIGH
28. Two J-K flip-flops with their J-K inputs tied HIGH are cascaded to be used as
counters. After four input clock pulses, the binary count is ________
(a) 00
(b) 11
(c) 01
(d) 10
Page 4 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 29. Synchronous counter is a type of
T (a) SSI counters
E (b) LSI counters
(c) MSI counters
(d) VLSI counters
30. In a 4-bit decade counter, four master-slave flip-flops are internally connected to
A provide a ________ bit counter.
I (a) Divide-by-2 & divide-by-6
C (b) Divide-by-6 & divide-by-8
T (c) Divide-by-2 & divide-by-5
E (d) Divide-by-4 & divide-by-8
31. A reliable method for eliminating decoder spikes is the technique called ________
(a) Strobing
(b) Feeding
A (c) Wagging
I (d) Waving
C
T 32. The difference between a PLA and a PAL is:
E (a) The PLA has a programmable OR plane and a programmable AND plane while
the PAL only has a programmable AND plane.
(b) The PAL has a programmable OR plane and a programmable AND plane, while
the PLA only has a programmable AND plane.
(c) The PAL has more possible product terms than the PLA
A (d) PALs and PLAs are the same thing.
I
33. Difference in conventional flowchart and ASM chart is
C
(a) master clock
T
(b) flow
E
(c) time relationship
(d) clock
34. Sequential circuit is also called
(a) state
(b) encoder
(c) flip-flop
(d) state machine
35. For going to next state flip-flop is set to
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) y
(d) don't cares
36. Third level of design with multiplexer consists of
(a) Demultiplexer
(b) mux
(c) encoder
(d) decoder
Page 5 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 37. ASM chart has
T (a) 4 entrances
E (b) 3 entrances
(c) 2 entrances
(d) 1 entrance
38. In Moore machine, output is a function of

A (a) input
I (b) present state
T (d) neither (a) nor (b)
E
39. Sequential operations in digital system are described by
(a) map
(b) ASM chart
(c) flowchart
A (d) graph
I
C 40. Master-slave flip-flop consists of
T (a) 2 flip-flops
E (b) 3 flip-flops
(c) 4 flip-flops
(d) 5 flip-flop
41. Major difference between various types of flip-flops are

A (a) output that they generate
I (b) input that they posses
C (c) gates
E
42. Two states are said to be equal if they have exactly same
(a) inputs
(b) next state
(c) output
(d) both (a) and (b)
43. A circuit that goes through prescribed sequence of state is called

(a) flip-flops
(b) truth tables
(c) latches
(d) counters
44. ROM is a
(a) non-volatile memory
(b) secondary memory
(c) volatile memory
(d) small memory
Page 6 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 45. Discrete quantities of information are represented in digital system with
T (a) Uni code
E (b) ASCII code
(c) Binary Code
(d) Octal code
46. Blowing of fuses are referred to as ROM's
(a) memory
A
(b) cells
I
(c) blocks
C
(d) programming
T
E
47. ROM is a two level implementation in
(a) sum of maxterms
(b) sum of minterms
(c) product of maxterms
A (d) product of minterms
I
C 48. In VHDL, which class of scalar data type represents the values necessary for a
T specific operation?
E (a) Integer types
(b) Real types
(c) Physical types
(d) Enumerated types
A 49. Among the VHDL features, which language statements are executed at the same time
I in parallel flow?
C (a) Concurrent
T (b) Sequential
E (c) Net-list
(d) Test-bench
50. Each unit to be modelled in a VHDL design is known as

(a) behavioural model
(b) design architecture
(c) design entity
(d) structural model
51. One bit transfer of information at a time is called

(a) serial transfer
(b) parallel transfer
(c) shifting
(d) rotating
52. Table that lists inputs for required change of states is called
(a) truth table
(b) excitation table
(c) state table
(d) clock table
Page 7 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 53. The inputs in the PLD is given through
T (a) NAND gates
E (b) OR gates
(c) NOR gates
(d) AND gates
54. A PLA is similar to a ROM in concept except that

A (a) It hasn‟t capability to read only
I (b) It hasn‟t capability to read or write operation
C (c) It doesn‟t provide full decoding to the variables
T (d) It hasn‟t capability to write only
E
55. Which type of device FPGA are?
(a) SLD
(b) SROM
(c) EPROM
A (d) PLD
I
C 56. The use of VHDL can be done in _____ ways.
T (a) 2
E (b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
57. Statement 1: Null string is accepted in Moore Machine.

A Statement 2: There are more than 5-Tuples in the definition of Moore Machine.
I Choose the correct option:
C (a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is true
T (b) Statement 1 is true while Statement 2 is false
E (c) Statement 1 is false while Statement 2 is true
(d) Statement 1 and Statement 2, both are false
58. Mealy and Moore machine can be categorized as:

(a) Inducers
(b) Transducers
(c) Turing Machines
(d) Linearly Bounder Automata
59. The major difference between Mealy and Moore machine is about:
(a) Output Variations
(b) Input Variations
(c) Both
60. For a give Moore Machine, Given Input=‟101010‟, thus the output would be of
length:
(a) |Input|+1
(b) |Input|
(c) |Input-1|
(d) Cannot be predicted
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 61. Physical verification tools in design process includes
T (a) circuit extractors
E (b) textual entry
(c) graphical entry
(d) simulation
62. Cursor position is controlled using

A (a) mouse
I (b) bitpad digitizer
C (c) mouse and bitpad digitizer
T (d) keyboard
E
63. Which verification capture‟s the design intent and not physical layout?
(a) mask level layout language
(b) transistor level layout language
(c) circuit description language
A (d) switch level layout language
I
C 64. Which is used to interpret physical layout in circuit terms?
T (a) circuit converter
E (b) layout converter
(c) circuit extractor
(d) layout extractor
65. ______ architecture is used to design VLSI

A (a) system on a device
I (b) single open circuit
C (c) system on a chip
T (d) system on a circuit
E
66. Which is the high level representation of VLSI design
(a) problem statement
(b) logic design
(c) HDL program
(d) functional design
67. Simulators are available for

(a) transistor level logic
(b) switch level logic
(c) gate level logic
(d) design level logic
68. CIF code is a ______ layout language

(a) mask level
(b) floor level
(c) design level
(d) transistor level
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 69. Once a PAL has been programmed:
T (a) it cannot be reprogrammed
E (b) its outputs are only active HIGHs
(c) its outputs are only active LOWs
(d) its logic capacity is lost
70. PLA is used to implement

A (a) A complex sequential circuit
I (b) A simple sequential circuit
C (c) A complex combinational circuit
T (d) A simple combinational circuit
E
71. Which type of CPLD packaging comprises pins on all four sides that wrap around
the edges of
(a) Plastic-Leaded Chip Carrier (PLCC)
(b) Quad Flat Pack (QFP)
A (c) Ceramic Pin Grid Array (PGA)
I (d) Ball Grid Array (BGA)
C
T 72. How many logic gates can be implemented in the circuit by complex programmable
E logic devices (CPLDs)?
(a) 10
(b) 100
(c) 1000
(d) 10000
A
I 73. Which among the following are used in programming array logic (PAL) for
C reducing the loading on inputs?
T (a) Input buffers
E (b) Output buffers
(c) OR matrix
(d) AND matrix
74. The utilization of CAD tools for drawing timing waveform diagram and
transforming it into a network of logic gates is known as ________.
(a) Waveform Editor
(b) Waveform Estimator
(c) Waveform Simulator
(d) Waveform Evaluator
75. Which among the following is a process of transforming design entry information
of the circuit into a set of logic equations?
(a) Simulation
(b) Optimization
(c) Synthesis
(d) Verification
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A
I
C 76. In VLSI design, which process deals with the determination of resistance &
T capacitance of interconnections?
E (a) Floor planning
(b) Placement & Routing
(c) Testing
(d) Extraction
A 77. An Antifuse programming technology is predominantly associated with _____.

I (a) SPLDs
C (b) FPGAs
T (c) CPLDs
E (d) PLDs
78. In signal integrity, which noise/s occur/s due to impedance mismatch, stubs, vias
and other interconnection discontinuities?
(a) Power/Ground Noise
(b) Crosstalk Noise
A
(c) Reflection Noise
I
(d) Thermal noise
C
T
79. Which among the following EDA tool is available for design simulation?
E
(a) OrCAD
(b) ALDEC
(c) Simucad
(d) VIVE logic
A 80. Which among the following is/are regarded as the function/s of translation step in
I synthesis process?
C (a) Conversion of RTL description to boolean unoptimized description
T (b) Conversion of an unoptimized to optimized boolean description
E (c) Conversion of unoptimized boolean description to PLA format
(d) Conversion of unoptimized boolean description to CPLD format
81. Which verification capture‟s the design intent and not physical layout?
(a) mask level layout language
(b) transistor level layout language
(c) circuit description language
(d) switch level layout language
82. Which among the following is/are regarded as an/the active resistor/s?
(a) MOS diode
(b) MOS transistor
(c) MOS switch
(d) FET
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A
I
C 83. Which among the following is regarded as an electrical fault?
T (a) Excessive steady-state currents
E (b) Delay faults
(c) Bridging faults
(d) Logical stuck-at-0 or stuck-at-1
84. In logic synthesis, ________ is an EDIF that gives the description of logic cells &
A their interconnections.
I (a) Netlist
C (b) Checklist
T (c) Shitlist
E (d) Dualist
85. which among the following wait statement execution causes the enclosing process to
suspend and then wait for an event to occur on the signals?
(a) Wait until Clk = „1‟
A (b) Wait on x, y, z
I (c) Wait on clock until answer > 80
C (d) Wait for 12 ns
T
E 86. A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing the nibble 1101. Its input is HIGH. The
nibble 1011 is waiting to be entered on the serial data-input line. After three clock
pulses, the shift register is storing ________
(a) 1101
(b) 0111
A (c) 0001
I (d) 1110
C
T 87. A 4-bit shift register that receives 4 bits of parallel data will shift to the ________ by
E ________ position for each clock pulse.
(a) Right, one
(b) Right, two
(c) Left, one
(d) Left, three
88. How many clock pulses will be required to completely load serially a 5-bit shift
register?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
89. An 8-bit serial in/serial out shift register is used with a clock frequency of 150 kHz.
What is the time delay between the serial input and the Q3 output?
(a) 1.67 s
(b) 26.67 s
(c) 26.7 ms
(d) 267 ms
Page 12 of 17
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A
I
C 90. Which among the following is not taken into account for post-layout simulation?
T (a)Interconnect delays
E (b) Propagation delays
(c) Logic cells
(d) design processing delay
91. Which level of system implementation includes the specific function oriented
A registers, counters & multiplexers?
I (a) Module level
C (b) Logical level
T (c) Physical level
E (d) All of the above
92. In VLSI design, which process deals with the determination of resistance &
capacitance of interconnections?
(a) Floor planning
A (b) Placement & Routing
I (c) Testing
C (d) Extraction
T
E 93. The utilization of CAD tools for drawing timing waveform diagram and transforming
it into a network of logic gates is known as ________.
(a) Waveform Editor
(b) Waveform Estimator
(c) Waveform Simulator
A (d) Waveform Evaluator
I
C 94. Maze routing is also known as ________
T (a) Viterbi's algorithm
E (b) Lee/Moore algorithm
(c) Prim's algorithm
(d) Quine-McCluskey algorithm
95. In spartan-3 family architecture, which programmable functional element accepts two
18 bit binary numbers as inputs and computes the product?
(a) Configurable Logic Blocks
(b) Input Output Blocks
(c) Block RAM
(d) Multiplier Blocks
96. Which type of CPLD packaging comprises pins on all four sides that wrap around the
edges of chip?
(a) Plastic-Leaded Chip Carrier (PLCC)
(b) Quad Flat Pack (QFP)
(c) Ceramic Pin Grid Array (PGA)
(d) Ball Grid Array (BGA)
Page 13 of 17
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A
I
C 97. Match the following STKY multiplier (MAC) flag notations with their meanings in
T ADSP 21 xx family architecture.
E A. MOS ------------------ 1) Multiplier floating-point invalid operation
B. MIS ------------------- 2) Multiplier Underflow
C. MUS ------------------ 3) Multiplier floating-point overflow
D. MVS ------------------ 4) Multiplier fixed-point overflow
A (a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

I (b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
C (c) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
T (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
E
98. In Modbus Protocol, which codes are included in Request PDU?
(a) Function code, Response data
(b) Function code, Function data
(c) Error code, Exception code
A (d) Only response mode
I
C 99. In Cortex-A processor series, which among the following is the standalone and
T smallest processor in size constraints with high-end application support?
E (a) Cortex-A5
(b) Cortex-A9
(c) Cortex-A53
(d) Cortex-A59
A 100. Which types of an embedded systems involve the coding at a simple level in an
I embedded 'C', without any necessity of RTOS?
C (a) Small Scale Embedded Systems
T (b) Medium Scale Embedded Systems
E (c) Sophisticated Embedded Systems
(d) large scale embedded system
101. What is the size range of the alphanumeric LCDs?

(a) 1 to 8 characters
(b) 8 to 80 characters
(c) 100 to 150 characters
(d) 250 to 400 characters
102. In DAC 0808, what is the high speed multiplying input slew rate?
(a) 2 mA/μ sec
(b) 4 mA/μ sec
(c) 8 mA/μ sec
(d) 16 mA/μ sec
103. While designing an embedded system, which sub-task oriented process allocates the
time steps for various modules that share the similar resources?
(a) Simulation and Validation
(b) Iteration
(c) Hardware-Software Partitioning
(d) Scheduling
Page 14 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 104. If the three stages of execution in pipelining are overlapped, how would be the speed
T of execution?
E (a) Higher
(b) Moderate
(c) Lower
(d) Unpredictable
A 105. Abort mode generally enters when _______

I (a) an attempt access memory fails
C (b) low priority interrupt is raised
T (c) ARM processor is on rest
E (d) undefined instructions are to be handled
106. Which unit in 80386 DX architecture plays a crucial role in the conversion of linear
address to physical address?
(a) Execution
A (b) Protection
I (c) Segmentation
C (d) Paging
T
E 107. The cleavage plane for silicon is
(a) (100)
(b) (110)
(c) (111)
(d) (211)
A
I 108. Cross compiler is a compiler
C (a) which is written in a different language from the source language.
T (b) that generates object code for the machine it‟s running on.
E (c) which is written in the same language as the source language.
(d) that runs on one machine but produces object code for another machine.
109. In designing ASM with multiplexers, registers hold

(a) present binary state
(b) input
(c) next binary state
(d) output
110. All inputs are synchronized with

(a) master clock
(b) clock pulses
(c) counter
(d) latch
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 111. Given the following Verilog code, what value of "a" is displayed? always @ (clock)
T begin
E a = 0;
a <= 1;
$display(a);
end
(a) 0
A (b) 1
I (c) either 0 or 1 depending on depending on simulator implementation
C (d) Nil
T
E 112. If time scale is defined as `timescale 10ns/1ns and #1.55 a = b;
then 'a' gets 'b' after
(a) 10ns
(b) 11 ns
(c) 5ns
A (d)16ns
I 113. Write A Verilog Code to Swap Contents of Two Registers Without a Temporary
C Register?
T Which is the correct code?
E (a) always @ (posedge clock)
begin
temp=b;
b=a;
a=temp;
A end
I (b) always @ (posedge clock)
C begin
T a <= b;
E b <= a;
end
(c) always @ (posedge clock)
begin
a = b;
b <= a;
end
(d) always@
begin
a = b;
b = a;
end
114. In Gray coding, when the state machine changes state, ______ bit/s in the state vector
changes the value.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) four
(d) eight
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2EST57
A
I
C 115. In SM chart for UART transmitter, which state/s indicate/s the waiting of sequential
T machine for the rising edge of bit clock and the consequent clearing of low order bit
E of TSR in order to transmit logic '0' for one bit time?
(a) IDLE State
(b) Sync State
(c) Transmit_Data_State
(d) Busy state
A
I 116. Which method/s is not adopted for acquiring spike-free outputs?
C (a) Moore machine with clocked outputs
T (b) Mealy machine with clocked outputs
E (c) Output-state machine
(d) input state
117. Which among the following constraint/s is not involved in a state-machine

description?
A (a) State variable & clock
I (b) State transitions & output specifications
C (c) Reset condition
T (d) off state
E
118. The output of sequential circuit is regarded as a function of time sequence of _____.
A. Inputs
B. Outputs
C. Internal States
A D. External States
I
C (a) A&D
T (b) A&C
E (c) B&D
(d) B&C
119. How many test patterns are required to test the circuit using counters?
(a) 2n
(b) 2(n-1)
(c) 2n -1
(d) 2n +1
120. _______ is used to control the read and write operations
(a) active low synchronous reset
(b) active high synchronous reset
(c) active low synchronous preset
(d) active high synchronous preset
Page 17 of 17
M. Tech in Embedded system technology
Paper 1 Answer Key
1 (c) 31 (c) 61 (c) 91 (d)
2 (a) 32 (a) 62 (b) 92 (c)
3 (c) 33 (c) 63 (b) 93 (c)
4 (b) 34 (b) 64 (a) 94 (d)
5 (d) 35 (c) 65 (b) 95 (b)
6 (c) 36 (c) 66 (b) 96 (a)
7 (a) 37 (a) 67 (a) 97 (c)
8 (b) 38 ( c) 68 (d) 98 (b)
9 (c) 39 (b) 69 (b) 99 (d)
10 (b) 40 (c) 70 (b) 100 (a)
11 (a) 41 (d) 71 (d) 101 (c)
12 (d) 42 (c) 72 (c) 102 (c)
13 (b) 43 (d) 73 (a) 103 (b)
14 (d) 44 ( b) 74 (d) 104 (c)
15 (b) 45 (a) 75 (a) 105 (c)
16 (d) 46 (d) 76 (b) 106 (c)
17 (d) 47 (c) 77 (b) 107 (c)
18 (b) 48 (b) 78 (d) 108 (b)
19 (d) 49 (a) 79 (b) 109 (c)
20 (b) 50 (c) 80 (c) 110 (a)
21 (d) 51 (d) 81 (d) 111 (a)
22 (c) 52 (c) 82 (d) 112 (c)
23 (a) 53 (d) 83 (b) 113 (b)
24 (a) 54 (c) 84 (a) 114 (b)
25 (a) 55 (b) 85 (b) 115 (d)
26 (b) 56 (c) 86 (d) 116 (c)
27 (b) 57 (c) 87 (b) 117 (c)
28 (a) 58 (b) 88 (d) 118 (d)
29 (d) 59 (c) 89 (a) 119 (a)
30 (b) 60 (a) 90 (a) 120 (a)

ROLL NO.: PG1HWE45
A HYDRAULICS & WATER RESOURCE ENGINEERING

I
C
PAPER-I
T Instructions:
E
wrong answer.
I vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue ball
C point pen.
E
1. The total energy head for an open channel flow is written with usual notation as H = z + y +
v2/2g, which of the following statements is correct?
a) Energy in kg - m/kg mass of fluid
A
b) Energy in N m/N of fluid
I c) Power in kW/kg mass of fluid
d) Energy in N m/ mass of fluid
C
2. At critical depth
T a) The discharge is minimum for a given specific energy
E b) The discharge is maximum for a given specific force
c) The discharge Is maximum for a given specific energy
d) The discharge is minimum for a given specific force
3. For an exponential channel (A = kya) the first hydraulic exponent M is

a) (a + 1)
A b) 2a
c) (2a + 1)
I
d) a2
C
T
E
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1HWE45
A
I 4. The standard-step method aims to solve
a) the differential equation of GVF
C b) the differential energy equation of GVF
c) the Bernoulli equation
T
d) the momentum equation
E
5. The direct-step method for calculating the GVF profile uses the relation
a) ∆E= ∆x( Mean S0 - Mean Sf)
b) ∆x= ∆E/(Mean Sf - Mean S0)
c) ∆x= ∆E/( Mean S0 - Mean Sf)
d) ∆x= ∆E (S0 - Sf)/(1- F2)
A
6. The direct-step method
I
a) Is best-suited for natural channels
C b) Is accurate for all step sizes
c) Is most accurate for calculating supercritical flow profiles
T d) Is suited for none of these
E 7. A mild channel connecting two reservoirs is called a short channel if
a) The discharge varies with the downstream-pool elevation
b) The channel is on a steep slope
c) The channel is frictionless
d) Some M2 curves extended all at the way up to the reservoir
A
8. A hydraulic jump occurs when there is a break in grade from a
I a) Mild slope to steep slope
b) Steep slope to mild slope
C c) Steep slope to steeper slope
d) Mild slope to milder slope
T
E 9. In a hydraulic jump taking place in a horizontal rectangular channel, the sequent depths are
0.30 m and 1.50 m respectively. The energy loss in this jump is
a) 1.92 m
b) 1.50 m
c) 0.96 m
d) 1.20 m
A
I 10. A suppressed sharp-crested weir is 0.50 m high and carries a flow with a head of 2.0 over
the weir crest. The discharge coefficient Cd for the weir is
C a) 1.06
b) 0.931
T c) 0.738
d) 0.611
E
11. A normal 90° triangular notch was found to have 2% error in the vertex angle. While
Page 2 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1HWE45
A discharge under a constant head, the error in the estimated discharge is

a) π%
I b) π /4%
c) π /2%
C d) 2%
T
12. A Cipolletti weir is a
E a) triangular weir with side slopes of 1 horizontal: 4 vertical
b) trapezoidal weir with side slopes of 1 horizontal: 4 vertical
c) trapezoidal weir with side slopes of 4 horizontal: 1 vertical
d) trapezoidal weir with sides sloping at 45⁰
13. A suppressed rectangular notch and a triangular V-notch are installed in a large tank such
A that the vertex of both the notches is at the same level. If Cd of both the notches is the same
then
I
a) The discharge from the rectangular notch will be larger than the V-notch for all
C heads
b) The discharge from the V-notch will be larger for all heads
T c) The rectangular notch will have higher discharge from zero value of head to a
critical head beyond which it will be smaller than that of the V-notch
E d) The triangular notch will have higher discharge from zero value of head to a critical
head beyond which it will be smaller than that of the rectangular notch
14. When a super critical flow is guided by a curved convex wall

a) The Froude number decreases
A b) The disturbance lines converge
c) The water surface becomes steeper at distances away from the wall
I d) The depth decrease along the wall
C 15. An oblique jump occurs when
T a) A subcritical flow is turned by a convex corner
b) A supercritical flow is turned by a convex corner
E c) An obstruction is obliquely placed in a channel
d) A supercritical flow is deflected by a concave corner
16. In an oblique shock

a) The flow after the shock is always subcritical
b) The depth of flow downstream of the shock is lower than the upstream depth
A c) The flow after the shock is always supercritical
I d) None of these
C 17. For a gravel of 11 mm median size, the critical shear stress is about
a) 3.2 Pa
T b) 10 Pa
c) 0.62 Pa
E
d) 22 Pa
Page 3 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1HWE45
A
18. Shields diagram is a plot of non-dimensional shear stress Ƭ*c against
I a) Reyonlds number of flow
b) Relative depth of grain size, d/R
C c) Shear Reynolds number, u*c d/v
d) u*c R/v,
T
where R=hydraulic radius
E
19. In Shields diagram the minimum shear Reynolds number R*c =[u*c d/v] beyond which the
critical shear stress is independent of R*c is about
a) 10
b) 2000
c) 2
A d) 400
I
20. The term wash load refers to
C a) The saltating part during a flood
b) Suspended load during a flood
T c) Part of suspended load comprising of particles not available in the bed material
d) Bed load after the fines have been washed out
E
21. An alluvium with a median size of 0.32 mm has Lacey‟s silt factor „f ‟of value
a) 1.76
b) 1.00
c) 0.57
A d) 0.80
I 22. Steady flow in an open channel exists when the

a) flow is uniform
C b) depth does not change with time
c) channel is frictionless
T
d) channel bed is not curved
E
23. The velocity and depth of flow in a 3.0 m wide rectangular channel are 2.0 m/s and 2.5m,
respectively, If the channel has its width enlarged to 3.5 m at a section, the discharge past
that section is:
a) 10.0 m3/s
b) 20.0 m3/s
A c) 15.0 m3/s
I d) 17.5 m3/s
C 24. At the critical depth, for a given discharge

a) the total energy is maximum
T b) the specific energy is maximum
c) the total energy is minimum
E
d) the specific energy is minimum
Page 4 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1HWE45
A 25. For a given discharge in a channel, the two depths which have the same specific force are
known as
I a) alternate depths
b) sequent depths
C c) specific depths
d) normal depth and critical depths
T
26. In a rectangular channel, if the critical depth is 2.0 m, the specific energy at critical depth is
E a) 3.0 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 2.5 m
A 27. The depth at the toe of a hydraulic jump in a rectangular horizontal channel is 0.5m and the
sequent depth ratio is 12.0 . The length of the jump is about
I a) 12.0 m
b) 36.5 m
C c) 25.5 m
d) 60.0 m
T
E 28. If a sediment particle size is designated as d85 = 0.20 mm, it means that in a sample
a) 85% of the material by weight is coarser than 0.2 mm
b) 85% of the material by volume is finer than 0.2 mm
c) 85% of the material by weight is finer than 0.2 mm
d) 85% of the number of grains is coarser than 0.2 mm
A
29. In the transportation of sediment by water in a channel, the term bed load refers to
I a) the sum of suspended load and contact load
b) the sum of contact load and saltation load
C c) the sum of saltation and suspended loads
d) the material that remains on the bed
T
E 30. Base flow separation is performed
a) on a unit hydrograph to get the direct-runoff hydrograph
b) on a flood hydrograph to obtain the magnitude of effective rainfall
c) on flood hydrographs to obtain the rainfall hyetograph
d) on hydrographs of effluent streams only
A 31. In the hydrological cycle, the average residence time of water in the global
a) Atmospheric moisture is larger than that of the global groundwater
I
b) Oceans is smaller than that of the global groundwater
C c) Rivers is larger than that of the global groundwater
d) Oceans is larger than that of the global groundwater
T
32. Orographic precipitation occurs due to air masses being lifted to higher altitudes by
E a) the density difference of air masses
b) a frontal action
Page 5 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1HWE45
A c) the presence of mountain barriers

d) extra tropical cyclones
I
33. Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to
C a) pressure difference
b) temperature difference
T
c) natural topographical barriers
E d) all of the above
34. Rate of evaporation from a water surface increases, if

i) difference of vapour pressure between water and air is increased
ii) velocity of wind is decreased
iii) concentration of soluble solids in water is decreased.
A The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
I
b) (i) and (iii)
C c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
T
35. Assertion A: To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the number of
E rain gauges required per unit area is large for hilly areas.
Reason R: Rainfall gradient is steep.
Select your correct answer according tothe coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
I
36. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of
C a) shorter duration from longer duration
b) longer duration from shorter duration
T
c) both (a) and (b)
E d) none of the above
37. The standard recording raingauge adopted in India is of

a) Weighing bucket type
b) Natural siphon type
c) Tipping bucket type
A d) Telemetry type
I 38. The following recording raingauges does not produce the mass curve of precipitation as
C record
a) Symons‟ raingauge
T b) Tipping bucket type gauge
c) Weighing bucket type gauge
E d) Natural siphon gauge
Page 6 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1HWE45
A 39. The double-mass curve technique is adopted to

a) Check the consistency of raingauge records
I b) To find the average rainfall over a number of years
c) To find the number of rainguage required
C d) To estimate the missing rainfall data
T
40. A 70 % index of wetness means
E a) rain excess of 30 %
b) rain deficiency of 30 %
c) rain deficiency of 70 %
41. If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the
A infiltration rate will be
a) equal to rate of rainfall
I
b) equal to infiltration capacity
C c) more than rate of rainfall
d) more than infiltration capacity
T
42. The probable maximum depth of precipitation over a catchment is given by the relation
E PMP=
a) P+KAn
b) mean of (P)+K . σ
c) Pexp (-KAn)
d) mP
A
43. The chemical that is found to be most suitable as water evaporation inhibitor is
I a) ethyl alcohol
b) methyl alcohol
C c) cetyl alcohol
d) butyl alcohol
T
E 44. Evapotranspiration is confined
a) to daylight hours
b) night time only
c) land surface only
d) a combination of evaporation & transpiration
A 45. The science and practice of water flow measurement is known as
a) Hypsometry
I b) Hydro-meteorology
C c) Fluvimetry
d) Hydrometry
T
46. The dilution method of stream gauging is ideally suited for measuring discharge in
E a) A large alluvial river
b) Flood flow in a mountain stream
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A c) Steady flow in a small turbulent stream

d) A stretch of a river having heavy industrial pollution loads
I
47. The slope-area method is extensively used in
C a) Development of rating curve
b) Estimation of flood discharge based on high-water marks
T
c) Cases where shifting control exists
E d) Cases where backwater effect is present
48. A mean annual runoff of 1 m3/s from a catchment of area 31.54 km2 represents an effective
rainfall of
a) 100 cm
b) 1.0 cm
A c) 100 mm
d) 3.17 cm
I
C 49. The lapse rate of temperature in the troposphere is
a) -4 °C/km
T b) -1.3 °C/km
c) -10°C/km
E d) -6.5°C/km
50. The specific speed for a turbine has the dimensions of

a) T-1
b) Dimensionless
c) F1/2 L-3/4 T-3/2
A
d) F1/2 L-5/2 T-3/2
I
51. Humidity is measured by a
C a) Hygrometer
b) Hyetometer
T c) Hydrometer
E d) Pyrheliometer
52. Instruments for measuring the intensity of incoming radiation are called
a) Pyrhelio meters
b) Sunshine recorders
c) Hygrometers
A d) Psychrometers
I
53. Clouds are
C a) Accumulated steam
b) Colloidal suspensions of finely divided liquid and solid particles
T c) Accumulation of condensation nuclei
d) Rain at high altitude
E
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A 54. Indicate the incorrect statement

A tropical cyclone is also known by the following names in various parts of the world
I a) Cyclone
b) Tornado
C c) Typhoon
d) Hurricane
T
E 55. A rainfall with an intensity of 5 mm/h is classified as
a) Traces
b) Light rain
c) Moderate rain
d) Heavy rain
A 56. When the density of snowfall is not known, it is usual to assume that water equivalent of
snowfall as
I
a) 10%
C b) 30%
c) 50%
T d) 90%
E 57. St. Venant equations for unsteady open-channel flow are
a) Continuity and momentum equations
b) Momentum equation in two different forms
c) Momentum and energy equations
d) Energy and continuity equations
A
58. In the Muskingum method of channel routing of x= 0.5, it represents an outflow hydrograph
I a) That has reduced peak
b) With an amplified peak
C c) That is exactly the same as the inflow hydrograph
d) With a peak which is exactly half of the inflow peak
T
E 59. When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at
the Water surface and at the base respectively will be
a) 0 and wH²/2
b) wH²/2 and wH²/3
c) wH and 0
d) 0 and wH
A
I 60. The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as
a) Hydrostatic pressure at toe
C b) Average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel
T c) Two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
d) None of these
E
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A 61. When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced
a) At the toe
I b) At the heel
c) Within the middle third of base
C d) At centre of base
T
62. Neglecting uplift pressure, the base width of an elementary profile of a gravity dam shall be
E taken as
a) H/√G
b) H/μG
c) Lesser of H/√G and H/μG
d) Greater of H/√G and H/μG
A 63. Leakage through the transverse joints in a gravity dam is prevented by

a) Shear keys
I
b) Key ways
C c) Water stops
d) None of these
T
64. The bottom portion of a concrete or a masonry gravity dam is usually stepped, in order to
E a) Increase the overturning resistance of the dam
b) Increase the shear strength at the base of the dam
c) Decrease the shear strength at the base of the dam
A 65. Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in

a) hydrodynamic pressure
I b) inertia force into the body of the dam
c) both (a) and (b)
C d) none of the above
T 66. For usual values of permissible compressive stress and specific gravity of concrete , a high
Concrete gravity dam is the one, whose height exceeds
E
a) 48 m
b) 70 m
c) 88 m
d) None of these
A 67. For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to
a) 0.5 h
I b) 0.75 h
c) 1.25 h
C d) 1.50 h
T where h = Height of wave
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A 68. The focus of base parabola for a dam having a horizontal drainage filter is at a distance of
a) B/2 from toe
I b) (B-b) from toe
c) b from toe
C d) b/2 from toe
where B is base width of dam and b is the width of horizontal drainage filter
T
E 69. The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type
dam is
a) clay
b) coarse sand
c) silty clay
d) clay mixed with fine sand
A
70. Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing
I
a) rock toe
C b) horizontal blanket
c) impervious cut off
T d) chimney drain
E 71. For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is
a) sudden drawdown
b) steady seepage
c) during construction
d) sloughing of slope
A
72. Provision of a filter and a rock toe in an earthen dam is done
I a) to prevent the piping action in the dam section
b) to collect and drain out the seeping water
C c) to reduce the seepage quantity
d) to have the resultant in the middle third of the base
T
E 73. A graded inverted filter used in a diversion structure, consists of
a) graded sand with coarse part in contact with the foundation and finest part on top
b) graded sand with fine part in contact with the foundation and coarsest part on top
c) a blanket of uniform size sand set inclined to direction of seepage and loaded by
masonry blocks
d) a sand blanket covered by graded heavy stones on top
A
74. Identify the component that is not used in a shaft spillway:
I a) radial piers
C b) radial gates
c) a bridge around the spillway
T d) a tunnel
E 75. Currently the most commonly used form of vertical gates on a spillway crest is:
a) Stoney gate
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A b) sliding gate
c) fixed wheel gate
I d) tainter gate
C 76. Identify the incorrect statement:

a) Gestation period for hydro-power station is usually large
T
b) In a hydro-power plant, generally, the firm power is large compared to the total
E capacity
c) The hydro-generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load
d) The life expectancy of hydro –power equipment is high.
77. The load factor is the ratio of

a) Average load or maximum load during any period
A b) Energy consumed in a time t to the maximum demand in the time
c) Maximum demand to connected load
I
d) Average output of the plant for a given period of time to the plant capacity.
C
78. Identify the incorrect statement:
T Pondage requirement in a hydro-power plant includes the need to
a) Balance the varying demand
E b) Compensate for wastage and spillage
c) Improve the load factor of the plant
d) Balance short time fluctuations in the flow.
79. Pumped storage plants

a) Use thermal energy to pump water and generate hydro-power to meet peak demand
A
b) Allow thermal power to take up peak load while the hydro-power can take up the
I base load
c) Convert low value “off peak” energy into high value “on peak” capacity and energy
C d) Convert low value thermal power into high value hydro-power
T 80. If the velocity of a pipe line changes from V1and V2 very rapidly due to partial closing of a
E value, the water hammer pressure head produced is equal to
a) pC (V 1  V 2)
CV 1
b)
g
c) C(V1-V2 )/g
A d)  CV2
I PART B (40x2 = 80 Marks)

C 81. A Steep channel has a depth of flow 'h', measured normal to the bed, if the inclination of the
channel to the horizontal is θ, the overturning moment of a side wall is
T a) 1/6 γh3cos4θ
b) 1/6 γh3cos θ
E c) 1/6 γh3cos2θ
d) 1/6 γh3/cos θ
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A
82. A steep rectangular channel has a slope of 30° with the horizontal. At a section the bed is
I 1.20 m above the datum, the depth of flow is 0.70 m. The discharge is 3.10 m3/s per metre
width. The total energy head at that section by assuming α=1.10 is
C a) 3.00 m
b) 2.91 m
T
c) 1.90 m
E d) 3.10 m
83. A rectangular channel carries a certain flow for which the alternate depths are found to be
3.0 m and 1.0 m. the critical depth in m for this flow is
a) 2.65
b) 1.65
A c) 0.65
d) 1.33
I
84. A triangular channel has vertex angle of 90° and carries a discharge of 1.90m3/d at a depth
C of 0.8 m. the Froude number of the flow is
T a) 0.68
b) 1.06
E c) 0.75
d) 1.50
85. Flow happens at critical depth of 0.5 m in a rectangular channel of 4.0 m width. What is the
value of discharge in m3/s?
a) 5.42
A b) 5.13
I c) 4.82
d) 4.43
C
86. In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel, the sequent depth ratio is
T 8.0 and the Froude number leaving the jump is 0.265. the Froude number of the flow
entering the jump is
E a) 6.0
b) 2.1
c) 30
d) 36
87. A regime canal has a discharge of 100 m3/s. It will have a perimeter of
A
a) 4.8 m
I b) 10.0 m
c) 47.5 m
C d) 22.0 m
T 88. In a flood, the water surface at a section in a river was found to increase at a rate of 6 cm/h.
E If the slope of the river is known to be 1/5000 and the velocity of the flood wave is assumed
as 2.0 m/s, the normal discharge for the river stage read from the stage discharge curve 𝑄𝑛 is
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ROLL NO.: PG1HWE45
A related to the actual discharge 𝑄 as 𝑄/𝑄𝑛 equal to

a) 1.021
I b) 1.206
c) 1.014
C d) 0.980
T
89. In a rectangular channel of depth 1.2 m and velocity 2.0 m/s, an elementary wave travelling
E upstream will have an absolute velocity of
a) 5.43 m/s
b) 3.43 m/s
c) 1.43 m/s
d) 2.0 m/s
A 90. A positive surge travels upstream in a canal with an absolute velocity Vw. With suffixes 1
and 2 referring to sections upstream and downstream of the surge respectively, the
I
continuity equation is written as
C a) A1V1 = A2 V2
b) A1 (V1 + Vw) = A2 (V2 - Vw)
T c) A2 (Vw - V2) = A1 (Vw+ V1)
d) A1 (V1 + Vw) = A2 (V2 + Vw)
E
91. The planform of a meandering river is given by y/B = 1/2 (sin (6 π x/B)) with the x axis
coinciding with the axis of the valley. The meander length, meander belt and meander ratio
of this river are respectively,
a) 3B, B, 1/3
A b) B/3, 2B, 3/2
c) B/3, B, 3
I d) 3B, 2B, 3/2
C 92. An alluvial channel has a bed material of 0.9 mm median size. The Manning‟s coefficient n
of this bed when it is plane and without motion of particles is
T a) 0.0009
E b) 0.0123
c) 0.0273
d) 0.0147
93. In a trapezoidal channel having a side slope of„m‟ horizontal :1 vertical, depth of flow =
D,
A
Longitudinal slope = S0,
I The maximum shear stress on the sides is about
a) γD S0
C b) 0.99 γD S0
c) 0.76 γD S0
T d) [1/m] γD S0
E
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A 94. Match the following two lists:

List I (flow situation) List II (Classification)
I A) Sudden closure of a sluice gate 1. Uniform flow
B) Hydraulic jump in a stilling basin 2. Rapidly varied flow
C C) Spreading of irrigation water on a field 3. Unsteady flow
D) Flow in main irrigation canal 4. Spatially Varied Flow
T
E Codes A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 3 2 4 1
c) 2 4 1 3
d) 3 1 4 2
A 95. If a stream with F1= 5.0 flows past a convex corner which produces a Prandtl-Meyer fan of
angular spread 3° 36‟, the Froude number downstream of the corner is
I
a) 3.89
C b) 7.24
c) 9.57
T d) 5.02
E
96. Rainfall of 20mm/h intensity occurred over a watershed of 100 ha area for a duration of 6h
Measured direct runoff volume in the stream draining the watershed was found to be
30000m3. The precipitation not available to runoff in this case is
a) 9 cm
A b) 3 cm
c) 17.5 mm
I d) 5 mm
C 97. The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm and
65 cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annual precipitation over the above basin of
T
250 square km will be
E a) 50 cm
b) 55 cm
c) 56 cm
d) 60 cm
A 98. A one day rainfall of 18 hours at station C was found to have a return period of 50 years.
The probability that a one-day rainfall of this or larger magnitude will occur at station C
I during next 50 years is
a) 0.636
C b) 0.020
c) 0.364
T d) 0.371
E
99. The rainfall in five successive days on a catchment was 3, 5, 9, 6, 1 cm respectively. The φ-
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1HWE45
A index for the storm can be assumed to be 3 cm/day. The total direct runoff from the
catchment due to this storm was
I a) 8 cm
b) 11 cm
C c) 20 cm
d) 23 cm
T
E 100. In a river carrying a discharge of 142 m3/s, the stage at a station A was 3.6 m and the water
surface slope was 1/3000, the flood discharge (in m3/s) was approximately
a) 100
b) 284
c) 71
d) 200
A
101. In a triangular channel, the top width and depth of flow were 2.0 m and 9.0 m respectively.
I
Velocity measurement on the centre line at 18 cm and 72 cm below water surface indicated
C velocities of 0.60 m/s and 0.40 m/s respectively. The discharge in the channel (in m3/s) is
a) 0.90
T b) 1.80
c) 0.45
E d) None of these
102. The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm
and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100
mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will be
A a) 70mm
b) 80mm
I c) 90 mm
d) 105 mm
C
T 103. A 3-hour storm over a watershed had an average depth of 27 mm. The resulting flood
hydrograph was found to have a peak flow of 200 m3/s and a base flow of 20 m3/s. If the
E loss rate could be estimated as 0.3 cm/h unit hydrograph for this watershed will have a peak
of
a) 66.7 m3/s
b) 100 m3/s
c) 111.1 m3/s
d) 33.3 m3/s
A
I 104. The probability that a hundred year flood may not occur at all during the 50 year life of
project is
C a) 0.395
b) 0.001
T c) 0.386
d) 0.632
E
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A 105. The return period that a designer must use in the estimation of a flood for a hydraulic
structure, if he is willing to accept 20% risk that a flood of that or higher magnitude will
I occur in the next 10 years is
a) 95 years
C b) 75 years
c) 45 years
T
d) 25 years
E
106. The hydraulic risk of a 100-years flood occurring during the 2-year service life of a project
is
a) 9.8%
b) 99%
c) 19.9%
A d) 1.99%
I
107. The term mean annual flood denotes
C a) Mean floods in partial-duration series
b) Mean of annual flood flow series
T c) A flood with a recurrence interval of 2.33 years
d) A flood with a recurrence interval of N/2 years,
E where N = number of years of record
108. Which of the following is a proper reservoir-routing equation?

a) ½ (I1-I2)∆t + (S1+ (Q1. ∆t/2)) = (S2 – (Q2. ∆t/2))
b) (I1+I2)∆t + ((2S1/∆ t) - Q1) = ((2S2/∆t) + Q2)
A c) ½ (I1+I2)∆t + (S2 –(Q2. ∆t/2)) = (S1+ (Q1. ∆t/2))
d) (I1+I2) + ((2S1/∆ t)- Q1) = ((2S2/∆t )+ Q2)
I
where I, Q and S denote inflow rate, outflow rate and storage, respectively.
C
109. The maximum possible height of a safe dam having an elementary profile is
T a) f/w(G+1)1/2
b) f/w G1/2
E c) f/w(G+1)
d) f/w(G-1)1/2
where f = allowable stress on dam material
G = specific gravity of dam material
w = unit weight of water
A
110. The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million
I cubic metres. If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per
year, then the usefulness of the reservoir will start reducing after
C a) 50 years
T b) 150 years
c) 200 years
E d) 250 years
Page 17 of 19
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A 111. The horizontal destabilizing force caused by the formation of waves in a storage reservoir
Having a fetch of 40km, due to high wind of 160 km/h, is about
I a) 30 kN
b) 60 kN
C c) 90 kN
d) 130 kN
T
E 112. According to IS 6512-1984, the wind set up in a reservoir having maximum fetch of F km,
and average reservoir depth along this fetch length as D m, as caused by wind velocity of
V km/h, is given by
a) V²F/62000D
b) V²F/D
c) V²F/6200D
A d) V²F/620D
I
113. In all reaction turbines, maximum efficiency is obtained, if
C a) The guide vane angle is 900
b) The blade angle of the runners is 900 at the inlet
T c) The blade angle of the runners is 900 at the outlet
d) The angle of the absolute velocity vector at the outlet is 900.
E Note: All angles are measured with respect to the direction of the peripheral velocity.
114. A turbine develops 10,000 kW under a head of 36 m at a speed of 90 rpm. Its specific speed
in SI units is
a) 102
A b) 612
c) 12
I d) 91
C 115. A turbine with a specific speed of 400 is connected to a generator on the same shaft. The
generator has 10 pairs of poles and produces an AC current with a frequency of 50 Hz.
T
Then synchronous speed, in rpm, is
E a) 300
b) 400
c) 500
d) 600
116. In a ski-jump bucket, the lip angle is 30o and the actual velocity of the flow entering the
A bucket is 30 m/s. The vertical distance of throw of the jet above the lip, in m, is
I a) 45.87
b) 34.40
C c) 22.94
d) 11.47
T
117. A weir across an alluvial river has a horizontal floor of length 60 m and retains 6 m of water
E
under full point condition. If the downstream sheet pile is driven to a depth of 6 m below
Page 18 of 19
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A the average bed level, the exit gradient for this case is
a) 0.135
I b) 0.100
c) 0.318
C d) 0.200
T
118. A hydro-electric reservoir can supply water continuously at a rate of 100 m3/s. The head is
E 75 m. The theoretical power (in) that can be developed is
a) 10000 metric horse power
b) 1,00,000 metric horse power
c) 7500 metric horse power
d) 7500 kW
A 119. The Thoma number is used in connection with

a) Water hammer phenomenon
I
b) Mass oscillation phenomenon
C c) Fluid friction in a boundary layer
d) Cavitation phenomenon
T
E 120. A geometrically similar spillway model is constructed to a scale of 1:16. Corresponding to a
discharge of 1024 cumecs in the prototype, the discharge in the model (in cumecs) will be
a) 1
b) 12
c) 16
A d) 64
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
PG1HWE45
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Hydraulics & Water Resource Engineering
Paper: 1

1. b 41 b 81. a
2. c 42 b 82. b
3. c 43 c 83. b
4. c 44 d 84. d
5. c 45 d 85. c
6. d 46 c 86. a
7. d 47 b 87. c
8. b 48 a 88. a
9. c 49 d 89. a
10. b 50 c 90. d
11. a 51 a 91. c
12. b 52 a 92. d
13. c 53 b 93. c
14. b 54 b 94. b
15. d 55 c 95. a
16. d 56 a 96. a
17. b 57 a 97. c
18. c 58 a 98. c
19. d 59 d 99. b
20. c 60 c 100. d
21. c 61 a 101. c
22. b 62 d 102. a
23. c 63 c 103. b
24. d 64 b 104. c
25. b 65 c 105. c
26. a 66 c 106. d
27. b 67 d 107. c
28. c 68 c 108. d
29. b 69 d 109. c
30. b 70 c 110. a
31. d 71 a 111. d
32. c 72 b 112. a
33. a 73 b 113. d
34. b 74 b 114. a
35. a 75 c 115. a
36. c 76 a 116. d
37. b 77 a 117. a
38. b 78 c 118. b
39. a 79 c 119. d
40. b 80 c 120. a
ROLL NO.: PG2HWE45
A HYDRAULICS AND WATER RESOURCE ENGINEERING

C PAPER-II
Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
I vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue
ball point pen.
E PART-A (80X1= 80 Marks)
1. The following equation for a flow field represents,
(𝛛Et/𝛛t) + ∇. Et .V = (𝛛Q/𝛛t) - ∇.q + ρ . f . V + ∇ . (πij .V)
a) Momentum equation
b) Mass conservation
A c) Energy equation
I
C 2. Difference between iterative solution result and exact solution to discretized equations
is called
T a) Modeling error
b) Discretization error
E c) Convergence error
d) None of these
3. Aboundary condition which specifies the value of the function itself

a) Dirichlet Boundary Condition
A b)Neumann Boundary Condition
c) Forced Boundary Condition
I d)Discrete Boundary Condition
C 4. For compressible, two-dimensional flows, the minimum number of partial differential

equations (PDE) to be solved is
T a) 3
b) 4
E c) 5
d) 6
Page 1 of 21
ROLL NO.: PG2HWE45
A
5. Formula of forward differencing is
I a) Δhf(x) = f(x+h) - f(x)
b) 2Δhf(x) = f(x+h) - f(x-h)
C c) Δhf(x) = f(x) - f(x+h)
d) Δhf(x) = f(x+h) + f(x-h)
T
E 6. The diffusion term in the momentum conservation equation in the ith direction for
constant property Newtonian fluid flow can be written as
a) μ (∂2uj/∂xi2 )
b) μ (∂2ui/∂xj2 )
c) μ(∂2ui/∂xi 2 )
A
7. The stream function-vorticity approach cannot be used for
I
a) time-dependent flows
C b) three-dimensional flows
c) incompressible flows
T d) all of the above.
E 8. When Mach number < 1.0, density is
a) Relatively constant
b) Highly variable
c) No relation
d) None of these
A
9. Which of the following describes the solution of the continuity equation in the pressure
I correction method in steady flows?
a) fully explicit
C b) fully implicit except for the influence of pressure gradient
c) fully implicit
T
E
10. The conserved variables that are solved for in MacCormack method are
a) ρ, u, v, w, et
b) ρ, ρu, ρv, ρw, ρet
c) ρ, u, v, w, e
d) ρ, u, v, w, T
A
I 11. Under optimal condition, the number of arithmetic operations required for convergence
using the SOR method varies with the number of equations, n, as
C a) n5/4
b) n7/4
T c) n3/2
d) n8/4
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2HWE45
A 12. The turbulent kinetic energy is representative of velocity fluctuations of

a) large eddies
I b) small eddies
c) inertial range eddies
C d) all of the above
T
13. A staggered grid system is used mainly
E a) to overcome the stability problem
b) to enable treatment of flow domain of irregular shape
c) to simplify grid generation
d) to eliminate chequerboard oscillations in pressure
14. Most commercial CFD codes have built in _________ designed for quick graphical
A analysis of fluid flow
a) Post-Processor
I
b) Pre-Processor
C c) Both (a) &(b)
T
15. Which of the following, is the main category for predicting turbulent flow in most
E exact form and is used for the verification of other ones?
a) DNS (direct numerical simulation)
b) RANS (Reynolds averaged Navier-Stokes)
c) LES (large eddy simulation)
A
16. In geological logging,
I a) the thickness cannot be determined
b) the log provides both geological character and thickness of each stratum
C c) only the thickness of each stratum
d) none of these
T
E 17. What is the most important error in rainfall measurements?
a) Radiation error
b) Wind error
c) Thermal error
A 18. Which of the following statements is true about the evaluation of pressure in
I MacCormack scheme?
a) pressure is obtained from the continuity equation
C b) pressure is obtained from the momentum equation
c) pressure is obtained from the equation of state
T d) evaluation of pressure is not necessary for compressible flows.
E
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A 19. The Neumann condition specifies

a) Derivative of variable at boundary
I b) Force terms at boundary
c) Value of the variable at boundary
C d) Both (a) & (c)
T
20. Adaptive stepping is used to
E a) Obtain faster solution
b) Optimize the computer time with the level of accuracy
c) Improve the computer usage time
d) Improve the accuracy
21. Predictor and corrector steps are used in

A a) Explicit method
b) Implicit method
I
c) Semi-implicit method
C d) Semi-explicit method
T 22. If scalar flux across boundary is zero, values of properties just adjacent to solution
domain are taken as
E a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Values of nearest node
d) Minimum
A 23. The volume of water that can be extracted by force of gravity from a unit volume of
aquifer material is called
I a) Specific yield
b) Specific retention
C c) Specific capacity
d) Specific storage
T
E 24. The continuity equation for steady compressible flow can be written as
a) ∂um/∂xm = 0
b) ∂ui/∂xj = 0
c) Dρ/Dt = 0
A 25. A taut string vibrating at low amplitude is as simple physical system that can be
I characterized by a ____________ PDE
a) Parabolic
C b) Hyperbolic
c) Elliptic
T d) None of these
E
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A 26. One dimensional method of flow analysis is that in which

a) Flow parameters are considered as functions of time, and one space co-ordinate
I only
b) Flow parameters are considered as functions of one space co-ordinate only
C c) Components of flow parameters in a given direction are analysed one at a time
d) Only one flow parameters is assumed to have dimensions.
T
E 27. A stream line is a line
a) In space, independent of the nature of flow and time
b) That is mixed in space in steady flow
c) That exists only for flow under pressure in conduits
d) That exists in ideal-fluid flow only
A 28. In a flow visualisation experiment, a continuous release of marked particles (such as a

dye) is produced from a point and the resulting line noted. This line is a
I
a) Stream line
C b) Path line
c) Streak line
T d) Potential line
E 29. In two dimensional flow, the equation of a streamline is given as
dy dx
a) =
u v
dx dy
b) =
v u
A dx dy
c)   u, v
I dt dt
u dy
d) 
C dx v
T
30. In a steady radical flow into an intake, the velocity is found to vary as (1/r2), where r =
E radical distance. The acceleration in this flow is proportional to
a) r-5
b) r-3
c) r-2
d) r-1
A 31. Any function  that satisfies the Laplace equation
I a) Is a possible rotational flow case
b) Is a possible irrotational fluid flow case
C c) Does not necessarily satisfy the continuity equation
d) Is a possible steady flow case
T
E
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A 32. The basic boundary conditions for steady flow of an ideal fluid is
a) The velocity component normal to the boundary is zero
I b) The velocity component tangential to the boundary is zero
c) The velocity potential at the boundary is zero
C d) The stream function at the boundary is zero
T
33. The piezometric head of a flow is
E a) The sum of the velocity head and datum head
b) The sum of the pressure head and datum head
c) The sum of the pressure head and velocity head
d) The sum of the velocity head, pressure head and datum head
34. p v2
A The constant in the equation,   Z = constant, will have the same value for any
 2g
I point in a flow, only if
a) The flow is inviscid, steady, irrotational and incompressible
C b) The flow is incompressible, steady and irrotational
T c) The flow is steady, compressible and irrotational
d) The flow is uniform, real and incompressible
E
35. In a flow through a siphon
a) The total energy line will be below the centre line of the siphon
b) The hydraulic gradient coincides with the centre line
c) The hydraulic gradient will be below the centre line of the siphon at some
places
A d) The velocity will be negative at the simmit.
I
36. The stagnation pressure in front of an object in a fluid flow is equal to
C a) Dynamic pressure
b) Static pressure
T c) Peizometric head
d) Sum of static and dynamic pressure
E
37. If the porosity of a gravel formulation is 35%, its specific capacity can be expected to
be about
a) 0.5 %
b) 100 %
A c) 35 %
d) 25 %
I
38. For turbulent flow in a long straight reach of a pipe, the momentum correction factor
C
 can be expected to be in the range
T a) 2.0 to 4.0
b) 1.7 to 2.0
E c) 1.30 to 1.75
d) 1.01 to 1.10
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A
39. The equations of motion for laminar flow of real fluid are known as
I a) Euler’s equations
b) Navier-Stokes equation
C c) Bernoulli equations
d) Hagen-Poiseuille equations
T
E 40. In a steady laminar flow through a pipe, the shear stress is
a) Maximum at the centre
b) Varies parabolically with zero value at the boundary
c) Zero at the centre
d) Varies linearly with zero value at the boundry
A 41. In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the
head loss is proportional to
I
a) (D)-1/2
C b) D-1
c) D-2
T d) D-4
E 42. In a laminar flow through a pipe, the discharge for a given head loss rate varies
a) Directly with viscosity
b) Inversely with viscosity
c) Directly as the square root of viscosity
d) Directly as the square of viscosity
A
43. The velocity potential function for a source varies with distance ‘r’ as
I a) 1/r
b) 1/r2
C c) cr
d) ln r
T
E 44. In Rankine’s half body, the dividing streamline
a) Is orthogonal to the streamline that passes through the stagnation point at z = a
b) Is orthogonal to the streamline that passes through the stagnation point at z = -a
c) Coincides the streamline that passes through the stagnation point at z = -a
d) Coincides the streamline that passes through the stagnation point at z = a
A 45. The value of the velocity potential (Φ) at any point located at (r, θ) for a doublet with
I strength of source and sink to be +m and -m (for ∂r/r<< 1) approximates to
a) m ∂r/ 4πr3
C b) ∂r/(m. 4πr2)
c) m ∂r/ 4πr2
T d) ∂r/ (m. 4πr3)
E
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A 46. Drag force is a function of

i) Projected area of the body
I ii) Mass density of the fluid
iii) Velocity of the body
C a) i) and ii)
b) i) and iii)
T
c) ii) and iii)
E d) i), ii) and iii)
47. In a uniform laminar flow through a two dimensional passage, the ratio of maximum
velocity to the average velocity is
a) 2.0
b) 1.67
A c) 1.5
d) 1.33
I
C 48. The nominal thickness of boundary layer is the distance
a) From the boundary to a point where the velocity is within 99% of its asymptotic
T limit
b) From the wall to a point where the velocity is within 1% of its asymptotic limit
E c) The main flow can be assumed to be shifted
d) From the wall to a point where the bflow ceases to be laminar
49. The displacement thickness  * of a boundary layer is defined as  * =


u u
A a)  1   dy
0
v v

I
b)  u / U dy
C 0

 u
T c)  1  v  dy
0
E  2
 u
d)   1   dy 
0
v
50. A laminar boundary layer has a velocity distribution given by u/V=y/  . The
displacement thickness  * for this boundary layer is
A
a) 
I b)  /2
c)  /4
C d)  /6
T
E
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A 51. In a laminar boundary layer, the shear stress  0 at a location y = 0, is

𝜕𝑢
a) 𝜇 𝜕𝑦
I
C 𝜕𝑢
b) 𝜇 𝜕𝑥
T
𝜕2𝑢
E c) 𝜇 𝜕𝑥 2
𝜕2𝑢
d) 𝜇 𝜕𝑦 2
52. In a boundary layer flow over a flat plate, the transition from laminar to turbulent
A boundary layer takes place at a Reynolds number of about
a) 2x103
I b) 5x105
C c) 5x106
d) 2x107
T
53. Indicate the incorrect statement
E In a boundary layer flow
a) Greater the ambient stream velocity, larger is the boundary layer thickness at a
section
b) Greater the kinetic viscosity, smaller is the thickness at a section
c) The boundary layer growth is retarded by negative pressure gradient
d) The boundary layer thickness increases with the distance from the leading edge.
A
I 54. The upper limit for the existence of the law of the wall, in terms of y/  ,is about
a) 0.01
C b) 0.1
c) 0.2
T d) 0.5
E
55. The velocity defect law of velocity distribution in turbulent boundary layers states
U u
a)  f (y / )
u*
U  U  u* 
b)  f 
A u*  u 
U  yu 
I c)  f *
u*  v 
C U
d)  fn  y /  
T 𝑢U∗
Where u=velocity at any distance y, U=asymptotic value of u, 𝑢∗ = shear velocity, 
E =boundary layer thickness and v = kinematic viscosity.
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A 56. In wall turbulence situations the Prandt1 mixing length is assumed to be equal to
a) ky2
I b) ky
c) k
C d) k/y
T
57. In a horizontal pipe flow, if ∆p is the difference between two sections distance L apart
E in a pipe of diameter D then  0 =
a) (∆pD)/4L
b) (∆pL)/D
c) 1/8 ∆p L ∆2
d) ∆p/8
A 58. In a turbulent flow through a fully rough pipe of radius r0 and relative roughness ϵs/ r0 a
plot of u/um with y/ r0
I
a) Shows that an increase in ks/R causes an increase in the peakedness of the
C profile
b) Shows that a decrease in ks/R causes a peaking of the profile
T c) Is independent of ks/R
d) Ia a function of the Reyonlds number
E
59. In a pipe flow of the boundary shear stress is related to friction factor f and mean
velocity V as  0 =
a) fpV2/2
b) fpV2/6
A c) fpV2/8
d) fpV2/4
I
60. In a fully rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is
C a) A function of the Reynolds number and the relative roughness
T b) A function of the relative roughness only
c) A function of the relative number only
E d) Independent of the Reynolds number and the relative roughness
61. Which one of the following is not an ideal solution for tackling water shortages?
a) Controlling population growth
b) Conserving water in irrigation
A c) Controlling water pollution
d) Drilling large number of deep bore wells
I
62. Conjunctive use of water for irrigation purposes doesn’t intend:
C a) usage of water from the two different sources for consumptive purposes
b) to offer benefits in terms of economic and social outcomes
T
c) non-judicious lowering down of water-table
E d) increased water use efficiency
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A 63. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

a) Perched aquifer is found in unconfined aquifer
I b) The top surface of the water held in the perched aquifer, is known as perched
water table
C c) Perched aquifer is formed in unfinedaccquifer if an impervious layer exists
d) All the above
T
E 64. Resistivity logging is a method of geologic logging that determines
a) The resistivity to the drilling operation during logging
b) The resistivity measured by embedded electrodes
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
A 65. Choose the correct option for the relation between the coefficient of permeability (k),
coefficient of percolation (kp) and porosity (n)
I
a) kp= kn
C b) k= kp/n
c) kp= k/(n-1)
T d) kp= k/n
E 66. In Universal Soil Loss Equation (USLE), the extent of soil erosion is
a) Directly proportional to rainfall erosivity factor
b) Inversely proportional to rainfall erosivity factor
c) Directly proportional to soil erodibility factor
d) Both (a) and (c)
A
67. In one dimensional flow in an unconfined aquifer between two water bodies when
I there is a recharge, the water table profile is
a) A parabola
C b) Part of an ellipse
c) A straight line
T
d) An arc of a circle
E
68. The infiltration of water into the subsurface is called the __________ .
a) Influent
b) effluent
c) discharge
d) recharge
A
I 69. Excessive pumping in relation to recharge can cause ________
a) the water table to decline
C b) a cone of depression to form
c) the well to go dry
T d) all of these
E
70. When an aquifer is used to artificially recharge by making it pass through an
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A intervening layer, the aquifer acts as

a) A cooling agent
I b) An aerating agent
c) An odour agent
C d) A filter plant
T
71. Amongst the following, which method of artificial recharging is much effective in
E areas with hilly regions with low rainfall
a) Percolation Tank
b) Flooding
c) Ditch and furrow system
d) Contour Bunds
A 72. Accelerated erosion of soil is caused by

a) Physical agencies in nature
I
b) Management errors and overexploitation
C c) Gravitational forces
d) Both (a) and (b)
T
73. The method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners
E is
a) Construction of recharge trenches
b) On channel storage of water
c) Creation of new water bodies
d) Roof-top rainwater harvesting
A
74. The percentage of world’s fresh water resources that exit in the form of groundwater
I a) 11%
b) 22%
C c) 31%
d) 66 %
T
E 75. Vadose zone is the same as
a) Unsaturated zone
b) Saturated zone
c) Phreatic zone
d) Capillary zone
A 76. An artesian aquifer is
I a) An unconfined aquifer
b) A confined aquifer
C c) A water table aquifer
d) Same as a perched water-table
T
77. A geological formation which is essentially impermeable for flow of water, even
E
though it may contain water in its pores, is called
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A a) Aquifer
b) Aquifuge
I c) Aquitard
d) Aquiclude
C
78. In the electrical resistivity method of sub-surface investigation, Apparent resistivity
T
(∆), is given by
E a) 2ᴨI/DV
b) 2ᴨDV/I
c) 2ᴨIV/D
d) 2ᴨIDV
where, D is the distance between spikes, V is the potential difference
observed between the plates and I is the current
A
79. The surface obtained by joining the static water levels in several wells, penetrating a
I
confined aquifer represents
C a) Water table
b) Capillary fringe
T c) Piezometric surface of the aquifer
d) Cone of depression
E
80. A stream that provides water to the water table is termed
a) Affluent
b) Influent
c) Ephemeral
A d) Effluent
I
C
81. Match Column 1 Properties with suitable Units indicated in Column 2
T
Column1 Column 2
E
A) ν (nu) (Kinematic molecular viscosity) i) kg/ms
B) η (catch ratio) ii) m2/s
C) ε (the turbulence dissipation rate) iii) No units
2 3
D) μ (mu) (Dynamic molecular viscosity) iv) m /s
A
a) A(i), B(iii), C(iv), D(ii)
I b) A(i), B(iv), C(iii), D(ii)
c) A(ii), B(iii), C(iv), D(i)
C d) A(ii), B(iii), C(i), D(iv)
T
E 82. Amongst the following, what are certain errors that are observed in CFD
i) Physical modeling defects (physical modeling errors)
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A ii) Compensating errors

iii) Iteration-convergence error
I iv) Discretisation error
v) Cumulative errors
C a) i), ii), iii) & v)
b) i), iii) & iv)
T
c) i), ii), iii) & iv)
E d) i), ii) & iii)
83. A high Reynolds number means

i) Pressure forces are more important than inertia forces
ii) Inertia forces are more important than the viscous forces
iii) Viscous forces are more important than the inertial forces
A a) Both i) and ii)
b) Only ii)
I
c) i), ii) & iii)
C d) i) & iii)
T 84. In which of the following methods is proper triangulation of concave surfaces ensured
so that no area lying outside the computational domain is triangulated:
E a) Advancing front method
b) Bowyer-Watson algorithm
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) nor b)
A 85. Boundary layer is the layer of the fluid in the immediate vicinity of a bounding surface
in which
I a) the fluid speed rapidly decreases from a constant value at the surface
to zero
C b) the fluid speed rapidly increases from zero at the surface to a constant
value
T
c)the fluid speed experiences no change
E d) the fluid speed increases from zero to a peak and falls back to zero
86. In case of two balls in airflow, one being relatively smoother(with laminar boundary
layer) and other dimples like a golf ball (with turbulent boundary layer), which of the
following statements are true
i) The turbulent boundary layer has more energy than the laminar boundary
A layer
I ii) The turbulent boundary layer has less energy than the laminar boundary layer
iii)The turbulent boundary layer separates from the surface of the ball much
C later than the laminar boundary layer
iv) The turbulent boundary layer separates from the surface of the ball much
T earlier than the laminar boundary layer
a) Only i)
E
b) Both i) and ii)
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A c) Both i) and iii)

d) Only iv)
I
87. Which of the following, is the main category for predicting turbulent flow that involves
C modeling of additional unknowns generated due to filtering of small-scale motions
a) DNS (direct numerical simulation)
T
b) RANS (Reynolds averaged Navier-Stokes)
E c) LES (large eddy simulation)
88. Amongst the following, what are the circumstances for the use of non-uniform grid in
CFD problem
i) for resolving solutions that are very strong in local regions
A ii) for equal amplitudes of gradient of solution variables, in different area of
solution domains
I
iii)for differing amplitudes of gradient of solution variables, in different area of
C solution domains
a) Both i) and iii)
T b) Only i)
c) Only iii)
E d) i), ii) & iii)
89. Following are the factors on which the Mesh Skewness Ratio and Mesh Aspect Ratio
depend, mark the exact dependency
a) Mesh Skewness Ratio: Longest Side, Shortest Side
Mesh Aspect Ratio: Optimal Cell Size, Cell Size
A b) Mesh Skewness Ratio: Optimal Cell Size, Cell Size
Mesh Aspect Ratio: Longest Side, Shortest Side
I
c) Mesh Skewness Ratio: Optimal Cell Size, Shortest Side
C Mesh Aspect Ratio: Longest Side, Cell Size
d) Mesh Skewness Ratio: Longest Side, Cell Size
T Mesh Aspect Ratio: Optimal Cell Size, Shortest Side
E 90. The steady-state, 2-D momentum balance in the y-direction, neglecting gravity, can be
written for constant property flow as
a) u∂u/∂x + v∂v/∂y = -1/ρ ∂p/∂x + μ/ρ (∂2u/∂x2 + ∂2v/∂y2)
b) u ∂v/∂x + v ∂v/∂y = -1/ρ ∂p/∂y + μ/ρ (∂2v/∂x2 + ∂2v/∂y2)
c) u ∂v/∂x + v ∂v/∂y = -1/ρ ∂p/∂y + μ/ρ (∂2u/∂x2 + ∂2v/∂y2)
A
91. If we expand f(x0 - 3Δx) about the point x0 in Taylor series, then the fourth term in the
I expansion is given by
C a) -(1/6) d3f/dx3|x0 Δx3
b) -(9/2) d2f/dx2|x0 Δx2
T c) (9/2) d2f/dx2|x0 Δx2
d) -9/2 d3f/dx3|x0 Δx3
E
92. Correct the sequence for the following practical steps that you will have to proceed
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A when performing a CFD study of a well described flow problem.

1. Give the boundary conditions
I 2. Do the geometry
3. Validate
C 4. Give a grid of (how good, structured / uniform)
5. Compute
T
a) 1,3,5,4,2
E b) 1,2,5,4,3
c) 2,4,1,5,3
d) 5,2,3,1,4
93. The solution of ∂2y/∂x2 + t2y = 0, for the boundary condition of y(0) = P and y’(0) = Q
is
A a) y = Pt + Qx
b) y = P cos(tx) + Q Sin(tx)
I
c) y = P cos(tx) + (Q/t) Sin(tx)
C d) y = (P/t) cos(tx) + (Q/t) Sin(tx)
T 94. A wall shear stress of 28 Pa exists in a laminar flow in an 8 cm diameter pipe. At a

radical distance of 3 cm from the axis, the shear stress, in Pa, is
E a) 21.0
b) 28.0
c) 7.8
d) 12.25
A 95. In a steady uniform laminar flow through a circular pipe of Diameter D, the ratio of the
velocity at D/4 from the centre to the maximum velocity is
I a) 0.25
b) 0.50
C c) 0.75
d) 0.90
T
E 96. A sphere of certain diameter, when towed submerged under water, experiences a
dragforce of 4 N at a velocity of 1.5 m/s. If another sphere of twice the diameter of the
sphere referred to above, is towed with the same velocity in water, the drag force
experienced by this sphere will be
a) 8 N
b) 16 N
A c) 24 N
d) 32N
I
C
T
97. The momentum correction factor is given by  =
E
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1
V 3 A A
A a) u 3 dA
I 1
VA A
b) u dA
C
1
A2 A
T c) A2 du
E 1
d) 2
V A A  u 2 dA
98. The length of a 10 cm diameter (f = 0.02) pipe that is equivalent to a square entrance of
a pipe from a reservoir is
A a) 5 m
b) 1.0 m
I c) 10 m
C d) 0.5 m
T 99. Divergent nozzle

a) accelerates the supersonic flow
E b) decelerates the supersonic flow
c) has no effect on supersonic flow
d) None of these
100. For a Newtonian fluid, τzz in incompressible flow is given by

a) ½ μ(∂ui/∂xj + ∂uj/∂xi)
A
b) ½ μ (∂u/∂y + ∂v /∂x)
I c) μ ∂w/∂z
C
T 101. The kinetic energy correction factor  is defined as  =
1
3 3 
E a) v 3 dA
AV
1
b)
A
 v 3 dA
1
c)
A V3
 v dA
A 1
3 
d) v 3 dA 
I AV
C
T
E
102. Flow is to take place in a pipe of a diameter 10 cm with a Reynolds number of 1000.
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A The entrance length required for the formation of fully developed velocity profile in the
pipe is about
I a) 10.0 m
b) 1.0 m
C c) 7.0 m
d) 3.5 m
T
E 103. The discharge in m3/s for laminar flow through a pipe of diameter 0.04 m having a
centreline velocity of 1.5 m/s is
a) 3π/50
b) 3π/2500
c) 3π/5000
d) 3π/10000
A
104. Ratio of momentum diffusivity and thermal diffusivity is called
I
a) Reynolds number
C b) Mach number
c) Euler number
T d) Prandtl number
E 105. Match the following two lists relating to dimensionless groups in fluid mechanics.
List I-parameter
(A) Mach Number
(B) Froude Number
(C) Weber Number
A (D) Strouhal Number
I List II – Importance
1. Cavitation
C 2 Free surface flow
3. Oscillating flow
T
4. Compressible flow
E 5. Surface tension
Codes A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 4 2 5 3
A c) 3 5 2 1
I d) 5 2 4 1
C
T
E
106. Match the items of List I with the corresponding dimensions in List II
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A List I
(A) Surface tension, ơ
I (B) Volume modulus of elasticity, E
(C) Manning’s coefficient, n
C (D) Kinetic viscosity, ν
List II
T
1) L2T-1 (2) MT-2
E 3) ML-1 T-2 (4) L-1/3 T
Codes A B C D
a) 3 2 4 1
b) 2 3 1 4
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 1 2 3
A
107. Match the following two lists:
I
List I List II
C A) Hele-Shaw flow 1 Surface of equal pressure
B) Stokes law 2 Settling of fine particles
T C) Hagen-Poiseuille flow 3 Laminar flow between parallel
plates
E D) Pascal’s law 4 Laminar flow in tubes
Codes A B C D
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 3 2 4 1
A c) 2 1 3 4
d) 1 2 4 3
I
108. In a front part of a stationary cylinder immersed in a moving fluid, the velocity
C variation at a radius r = 3.0m is given by v = 3.0 sin  m/s. The tangential acceleration
T at that radial distance, but at an angle  = 45⁰, in m2/s, is
a) -5
E b) 0
c) 1.5
d) 4.5
109. In a field test of a formation having a porosity of 25%, the hydraulic gradient was
found to be 0.04, and the velocity of a tracer added to the groundwater was 6 m/hr. The
A permeability of the aquifer is
I a) 1 cm/s
b) 4 cm/s
C c) 0.04 cm/s
d) 0.01 cm/s
T
E
Page 19 of 21
ROLL NO.: PG2HWE45
A 110. In the seismic refraction method for geophysical exploration of subsurface, the critical
angle ( ic)is given by
I a) Sin-1(velocity of direct wave/ velocity of refracted wave)
b) Sin-1(velocity of refracted wave/ velocity of direct wave)
C c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
T
E 111. What will be the ratio of average permeability in the horizontal direction to that in
vertical direction for a soil deposit consisting of three layers if the thickness and
permeability of the second layer are twice those of the first and those of the third layer
is twice those of the second?
a) 9/8
b) 8/9
A c) 9/7
d) 7/8
I
C 112. For an anisotropic earthen dam section with base width 20 m, determine the base width
for the equivalent isotropic section if the vertical permeability is 1 cm/day and the
T horizontal permeability is 16 cm/day
a) 80 m
E b) 10 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 5 m
113. In raindrop erosion, the terminal velocity of raindrops ( Vt)under natural conditions is
A a) (ρw – ρa)/1.8g d
b) (ρa – ρw)/1.8g d
I c) (ρa – ρw) g d /1.8
d) (ρw – ρa) g d /1.8
C
114. The storativity(S) for unconfined aquifer equals
T
a) γw.b.(α + nβ)
E b) specific yield(Sy)
c) (∆V . A)/h
d) None of these
115. A flownet for flow around a single row of sheet pile in a potential soil with a + net
head difference of 3 m consists of 3 flow channels and 6 potential drops , the rate of
A seepage per flow channel per unit width (given k = 5x10-2 mm/s) is
I a) 75 mm3/s/mm
b) 30 mm3/s/mm
C c) 25 mm3/s/mm
d) 15 mm3/s/mm
T
E
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A 116. For a laboratory permeability test on sandy soil sample, the discharge was measured as
1 m3/h passing through a soil sample of plan area 1 m2, across a length of 1.5m and a
I net head of 0.5 m, the value of coefficient of permeability 'k' is
a) 1.5 m/hr
C b) 2.0 m/hr
c) 0.75 m/hr
T
d) 3.0 m/hr
E
117. In a pumping artesian well the well loss is
a) the head drop required to cause laminar porous media flow
b) the head drop required to cause turbulent porous media flow
c) the head loss through well screens and casing
A d) the sum of head losses through screens, casing, etc. and that due to turbulent
porous media flow
I
118. Water is pumped from a well tapping an unconfined aquifer at a certain discharge rate
C and the steady state drawdown (X) in an observation well is monitored. Subsequently,
T the pumping discharge is doubled and the steady state drawdown in the same
observation well is found to be more than double (>2X). This disproportionate
E drawdown is caused by
a) Well losses
b) Decrease in the saturated thickness of the aquifer
c) Non linear flow
d) Delayed gravity yield
A 119. A volume of 3.0 x 106 m3 of groundwater was pumped out from an unconfined aquifer
uniformly from an area of 5 km2. The pumping lowered the watertablefrom the initial
I
level of 102 m to 99 m. The specific yield of the aquifer is
C a) 0.20
b) 0.30
T c) 0.40
d) 0.50
E
120. For a soil stratum, the specific retention was observed to be 10% and the void ratio as
43%, the specific yield is
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 30%
A
d) 10%
I
C
T
E
Page 21 of 21
PG2HWE45
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Hydraulics & Water Resource Engineering
Paper: II

1. c 41 c 81. c
2. c 42 b 82. b
3. a 43 d 83. b
4. b 44 c 84. a
5. a 45 c 85. b
6. b 46 d 86. c
7. b 47 c 87. c
8. a 48 b 88. a
9. b 49 c 89. b
10. b 50 b 90. b
11. c 51 a 91. d
12. a 52 b 92. c
13. d 53 a 93. c
14. b 54 c 94. a
15. a 55 a 95. c
16. b 56 b 96. b
17. b 57 a 97. d
18. c 58 a 98. a
19. d 59 c 99. a
20. b 60 b 100. c
21. d 61 d 101. d
22. c 62 c 102. c
23. a 63 d 103. d
24. d 64 b 104. d
25. b 65 d 105. d
26. a 66 d 106. c
27. b 67 b 107. b
28. c 68 d 108. c
29. b 69 d 109. a
30. a 70 d 110. a
31. b 71 d 111. c
32. a 72 b 112. d
33. b 73 d 113. d
34. a 74 c 114. b
35. c 75 a 115. c
36. d 76 b 116. c
37. d 77 d 117. d
38. d 78 b 118. c
39. b 79 c 119. a
40. c 80 b 120. b
ROLL NO.: PG1INF49
A INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

PAPER-I
C
Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
v. No programmable calculator is permitted.However, students can use non-
I
ball point pen.
E PART-A (80 x 1= 80 Marks)
1. Effectiveness property of algorithm means

a) Considering the time taken to accomplish the task and the memory usage
A b) Each step of an algorithm must be precisely defined, unambiguously
c) The number of steps in an algorithm must be finite and further each step must be
I executable in finite amount of time
d) Each step must be sufficiently basic so that it can be done exactly by a person using
C pencil and paper
T
2. Algorithm must be
E a) Programming language dependent
b) Programming language independent
c) Either of the above
3. If f(n) = 2×n + 5, then f(n) is

A a) O( n )
I b) O( n2 )
c) O( n3 )
C d)All of the above
T 4. If f n( ) = 3x log n + 7n + 3, then f(n) is

E a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
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ROLL NO.: PG1INF49
A c) Ω (1)
d) All of the above
I
5. Which of the following is necessary to prevent stack overflow in recursion?
C a) An initial condition
b) A recursion relation
T c) Range of variables
E
6. What is the time complexity of the above recursive implementation to find the nth fibonacci
number?
a) O(1)
b) O(2*n)
A c) O(n2)
d) O(2n)
I
7. A generating function is used in context of recursive functions to
C a) Derive explicit formula from recursive formula
b) Derive recursive formula from explicit formula
T c) Both
E
8. Which of the following requires assuming the kth instance of the equation to be correct and
proving the (k + 1)th instance to be correct?
a) Induction
b) Conduction
A c) Convection
d) Radiation
I
9. Which of the following is generally used to prove the statements of the type „8 + √7‟ is an
C irrational number?
a) Induction
T b) Contradiction
c) Conduction
E
d) Radiation
10. Which of the following precisely represent the complexity of Tower of Hanoi?
a) O(2n )
b) O(2n )
A c) O( n )
I
11. Which of the following follows the principle of Last In First Out (LIFO)?
C a) Stack
T b) Queue
c) Tree
E d) Graph
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ROLL NO.: PG1INF49
A 12. Which of the following is a linear data structure?

a) Stack
I b) Graph
c) Tree
T 13. Which of the following are facilitated by a data structure?
a) Access of data
E b) Organization of data
c) Manipulation of data
d) All of the above
14. Which of the following uses a queue?
A a) Round Robin
b) Round Martin
I c) Martin Robin
d) Robin Robin
C
15. Which of the following does not use a stack?
T a) Round Robin
b) Conversion to postfix
E c) Evaluation of postfix
d) Conversion to prefix
16. Which of the following is used in the dynamic implementation of a queue?
a) Stack
b) Linked List
A
c) Array
C 17. Which of the following is the most efficient sorting technique?

a) Heap sort
T b) Selection sort
c) Bubble sort
E d) All the above are equally efficient
18. In a binomial tree what is the order of second sub-tree of the root (from the right)?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0
A
I
19. Which of the following is the best data structure in terms of height?
C a) B-tree
b) Binary search tree
T c) AVL tree
E
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A 20. Which of the following is not true for a B-tree?

a) A B-tree is a balanced tree in which all the leaf nodes are at the same level
I b) A node has a minimum of two and a maximum of (M/2) children
c) Each node has maximum of (M - 1) keys
C d) All the above points are true for a B-tree
T 21. A cycle that covers all the edges of the given graph, without having to cover any edge twice
is called
E
a) Hamiltonian cycle
b) Euler cycle
c) Hamming cycle
A 22. Which of the following is not true?

a) Every graph has a Hamiltonian cycle
I b) A graph can have both Euler and Hamiltonian cycle
c) A graph that has Euler cycle may not have a Hamiltonian cycle
T 23. Which of the following is never non-planar?
a) 3 × 3
E
b) 2 × 2
c) 4 × 4
24. Breadth first search requires which of the following?
a) Stack
A
b) Queue
I c) Both
C
25. Which algorithm is used for graph colouring?
T a) Welsh-Powell
b) FulkFlockerson
E c) Bellman Ford
26. What is chromatic number?
a) Minimum number of colours required to colour a graph such that no two adjacent
vertices have same colour
A
b) Maximum number of colours required to colour a graph such that no two adjacent
I vertices have same colour
c) Minimum number of colours required to colour a graph such that two adjacent vertices
C have same colour
d) Maximum number of colours required to colour a graph such that two adjacent vertices
T have same colour
E
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A 27. A 3 clique problem is

a) NP
I b) NP-hard but not NP-complete
c) NP-complete
T 28. If vertex cover is NP-complete then which of the following is NP-complete?
a) Independent set
E b) SAT3
c) Both
d) None of the following
29. Which of the following is a 2-approximation algorithm?

A a) Greedy load balancing
b) Travelling salesman with triangular inequality
I c) Both
C
30. The greedy (approximation) vertex cover problem is a
T a) 2-approximation problem
b) 3-approximation problem
E c) Both
31. Which type of approximation algorithm is the greedy set cover, given in the chapter?
a) 2-approximation
b) 3-approximation
A c) 5-approximation
32. For which type of problems are approximation algorithms used?
C
a) NP-hard
T b) P
c) Both
33. Which of the following approaches can be used to solve TSP?

a) Approximation
b) Randomization
c) Heuristics
A
d) All of the above
I
34. In a PRAM model, which of the following is essential?
C a) A common memory
b) Private memory
T c) Both
E
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A 35. What is SRAM in context of parallel computing?

a) Standard RAM
I b) Static RAM
c) Sober RAM
T 36. Which of the following are the advantages of presorting?
a) Finding an element
E b) Finding median
c) Finding the number of occurrences of an element
d) All of the above Transform and Conquer
37. Which of the following can be solved using transform and conquer?
a) Finding LCM of two numbers
A
b) AVL
I c) Both
C
38. Which of the following is the advantage of binary search?
T a) Reduces time complexity
b) Reduces space complexity
E c) Both
d) None
39. Which of the following is correct as regards Gauss elimination?
a) In this method the coefficient matrix is converted into diagonal form
b) In this method the determinant of coefficient matrix is evaluated
A c) In this method the inverse of coefficient matrix is evaluated
d) All of the above
I
40. Randomized quick sort is an example of which of the following?
C
a) Monte Carlo
T b) Las Vegas
41. In which of the following the running time is constant?

a) Monte Carlo
b) Las Vegas
I 42. In which of the following, Monte Carlo algorithms are not used?
a) Physics
C
b) Simulation of evaluation of galaxies
T c) For finding correlated variations in digital ICs
d) For firing missiles
E
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A 43. In which of the following, the probability of the Turing machine accepting the string that
does not belong to the language is greater than or equal to half, whereas in the other case,
I the probability is 0.
a) RP
C b) Co-RP
c) BPP
T
d) PP
E 44. For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of permitted values, called the ________ of that
attribute.
a) Domain
b) Relation
c) Set
A d) Schema
I 45. Course(course_id,sec_id,semester)
Here the course_id,sec_id and semester are __________ and course is a _________
C a) Relations, Attribute
b) Attributes, Relation
T c) Tuple, Relation
E d) Tuple, Attributes
46. Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation, deleting relations
and relating schemas?
a) DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
b) DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
A c) Query
d) Relational Schema
I
47. An attribute A of datatype varchar(20) has the value “Avi”. The attribute B of datatype
C char(20) has value ”Reed”. Here attribute A has ____ spaces and attribute B has ____
spaces.
T a) 3, 20
b) 20, 4
E c) 20, 20
d) 3, 4
48. Which of the following is used to store movie and image files?
a) Clob
b) Blob
A
c) Binary
I d) Image
C 49. In E-R diagram generalization is represented by

a) Ellipse
T b) Dashed ellipse
c) Rectangle
E d) Triangle
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A 50. One approach to standardization storing of data?

a) MIS
I b) Structured programming
c) CODASYL specification
T 51. The file organization which allows us to read records that would satisfy the join condition by
using one block read is
E a) Heap file organization
b) Sequential file organization
c) Clustering file organization
d) Hash file organization
52. A lock that allows concurrent transactions to access different rows of the same table is
A
known as a
I a) Database-level lock
b) Table-level lock
C c) Page-level lock
d) Row-level lock
T
53. Which of the following are introduced to reduce the overheads caused by the log-based
E recovery?
a) Checkpoints
b) Indices
c) Deadlocks
d) Locks
A 54. Which refers to a property of computer to run several operation simultaneously and possible
as computers await response of each other
I a) Concurrency
C b) Deadlock
c) Backup
T d) Recovery
E 55. 55.Which of the following protocols ensures conflict serializability and safety from
deadlocks?
a) Two-phase locking protocol
b) Time-stamp ordering protocol
c) Graph based protocol
A
56. Which of the following is a procedure for acquiring the necessary locks for a transaction
I where all necessary locks are acquired before any are released?
C a) Record controller
b) Exclusive lock
T c) Authorization rule
d) Two phase lock
E
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A 57. In crabbing protocol locking

a) Goes down the tree and back up
I b) Goes up the tree and back down
c) Goes down the tree and releases
C d) Goes up the tree and releases
T 58. Writing the buffered log to __________ is sometimes referred to as a log force.
a) Memory
E b) Backup
c) Redo memory
d) Disk
59. There are situations in which it is necessary to write back the block to disk, even though the
buffer space that it occupies is not needed. This write is called the
A a) Pinned block strategy
b) Forced output block
I
c) Buffer replacement strategy
60. What are the after triggers?
T a) Triggers generated after a particular operation
E b) These triggers run after an insert, update or delete on a table
c) These triggers run after an insert, views, update or delete on a table
61. Strategic value of data mining is ......................
a) cost-sensitive
b) work-sensitive
A c) time-sensitive
I d) technical-sensitive
62. The full form of KDD is ..................
C
a) Knowledge Database
T b) Knowledge Discovery Database
c) Knowledge Data House
E d) Knowledge Data Definition
63. …………………….. is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a target
class of data.
a) Data Characterization
b) Data Classification
A c) Data discrimination
d) Data selection
I
64. An ……………… system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge
C workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
a)OLAP
T b) OLTP
E c) Both of the above
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A 65. The ………………………. exposes the information being captured, stored, and managed by
operational systems.
I a)top-down view
b) data warehouse view
C c) data source view
d) business query view
T
66. Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?
E a)Information processing
b) Analytical processing
c) Data mining
d) Transaction processing
67. ………………… is a good alternative to the star schema.
A a)Star schema
b) Snowflake schema
I c) Fact constellation
d) Star-snowflake schema
C
68. What is ETL Stand for?
T a) Execute tramit and load
E b) Extract transform and load
c) Excute Transform and load
d) All the above
69.A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?
a) Many to many
A b) One to one
c)One to many
C 70.The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?
T b) Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
c) Near real time updates
E
d) All of the above
71.Data cleaning is
a) Large collection of data mostly stored in a computer system
b) The removal of noise errors and incorrect input from a database
c) The systematic description of the syntactic structure of a specific database. It describes
A
the structure of the attributes the tables and foreign key relationships.
I d) None of these
C 72.Data cleaning is
T b) The removal of noise errors and incorrect input from a database
E the structure of the attributes the tables and foreign key relationships.
d) None of these
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A 73. Classification task referred to

a) A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes
I b) A measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain
theory
C c) The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples
d) None of these
T
74.Cluster is
E
a) Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects
b) Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare it for a
machine-learning algorithm
c) Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can potentially be
extracted
A d) None of these
I 75. Knowledge is referred to
a) Non-trivial extraction of implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information
C from data
b) Set of columns in a database table that can be used to identify each record within this
T
table uniquely
E c) collection of interesting and useful patterns in a database
d) none of these
76. Machine learning is
a) An algorithm that can learn
b) A sub-discipline of computer science that deals with the design and implementation of
A learning algorithms
c) An approach that abstracts from the actual strategy of an individual algorithm and can
I therefore be applied to any other form of machine learning.
d) None of these
C
77. Operational database is
T a) A measure of the desired maximal complexity of data mining algorithms
b) A database containing volatile data used for the daily operation of an organization
E c) Relational database management system
d) None of these
78.Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples, then
the maximum size of join is:
a) mn
A
b) m+n
I c) (m+n)/2
d) 2(m+n)
C
T
E
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A 79.Decision support systems (DSS) is

a) A family of relational database management systems marketed by IBM
I b) Interactive systems that enable decision makers to use databases and models on a
computer in order to solve ill-structured problems
C c) It consists of nodes and branches starting from a single root node. Each node represents a
test, or decision
T
d) None of these
E
80.Data dictionary is
b) The removal of noise errors and incorrect input from a database
the structure of the attributes the tables and foreign key relations hips.
A d) None of these
I
C
81.………………. is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract
T data patterns.
a) Data warehousing
E b) Data mining
c) Text mining
d) Data selection
82. The out put of KDD is ………….

A a) Data
b) Information
I c) Query
d) Useful information
C
83. The various aspects of data mining methodologies is/are ……………….
T
i) Mining various and new kinds of knowledge
E ii) Mining knowledge in multidimensional space
iii) Pattern evaluation and pattern or constraint-guided mining.
iv) Handling uncertainty, noise, or incompleteness of data
a) i, ii and iv only
b) ii, iii and iv only
c) i, ii and iii only
A d) All i, ii, iii and iv
I
84.……………………….. is a comparison of the general features of the target class data
C objects against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes.
a) Data Characterization
T b) Data Classification
c) Data discrimination
E d) Data selection
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A 85. ……………………….. is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes
data classes or concepts.
I a) Data Characterization
b) Data Classification
C c) Data discrimination
d)Data selection
T
86. The process of removing the deficiencies and loopholes in the data is called as
E
a)Aggregation of data
b)Extracting of data
c)Cleaning up of data.
d)Loading of data
e)Compression of data.
A
87. If all c(i, j )‟s and r(i, j)‟s are calculated, then OBST algorithm in worst case takes
I one of the following time.
a) O(n log n)
C
b) O(n3)
T c) O(n2)
d) O(log n)
E e) O(n4)
88. Which of the following is the oldest database model?

a) Relational
b) Deductive
c) Physical
A
d) Network
I
89. The upper bound on the time complexity of the nondeterministic sorting algorithm is
C a) O(n)
b) O(n log n)
T c) O(1)
E d) O( log n)
a) O(n log n)
b) O( log n)
c) O(n2)
A d) O(n)
I 91.Which of the following is not a deadlock handling strategy?
C a) Deadlock prevention
b) Timeout
T c) Deadlock detection and recovery
d) Deadlock annihilation
E 92. Which of the following does refer to the size of the data item chosen as the unit of protection
by a concurrency control program?
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ROLL NO.: PG1INF49
A a) Granularity
b) Lock
I c) Starvation
d) Timestamp
C 93. Which of the following hashing techniques does allow a hash file to expand and shrink its
number of buckets dynamically without needing a directory?
T
a) Linear hashing
E b) Extensible hashing
c) Internal hashing
d) External hashing
94. Which of the following indexes is based on the values being uniformly distributed using a
mathematical function?
a) Ordered index
A b) Hashed index
c) Dense index
I
d) Sparse index
C . 95. A join in which the joining condition is based on equality between values in the common
columns is called
T a) Equi-join
b) Uni-lateral join
E c) Natural join
d) Both (a) and (c) above
. 96A type of query that is placed within a WHERE or HAVING clause of another query is called
a) Master query
b) Query
A c) Superquery
d) Multi-query
I . 97. The entity integrity rule states that
a) No primary key attribute can be null
C b) Referential integrity must be maintained across all entities
c) Each entity must have a primary key
T
d) A primary key must have only one attribute
E 98. A transaction completes its execution is said to be
a) Committed
b) Aborted
c) Rolled back
d) Failed
A
I 99. The process of managing simultaneous operations on the database without having them interfere
with one another is
C a) Serializability
b) Recoverability
T c) Concurrency control
d) Transaction management
E
. 100. A schedule where the operations of each transaction are executed consecutively without any
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ROLL NO.: PG1INF49
A other interference from other transactions is called

a)Non-serial schedule
I b) Serial schedule
c) Recoverable schedule
C d) Non-recoverable schedule
T
101. The upper bound on the time complexity of the nondeterministic sorting algorithm is
E a) O(n)
b) O(n log n)
c) O(1)
d) O( log n)
A a) O(n log n)
b) O( log n)
I
c) O(n2)
C d) O(n)
T 103. The time complexity of the normal quick sort, randomized quick sort algorithms in the worst
case is
E a) O(n2), O(n log n)
b) O(n2), O(n2)
c) O(n log n), O(n2)
d) O(n log n), O(n log n)
A 104. Let there be an array of length „N‟, and the selection sort algorithm is used to sort it, how many
times a swap function is called to complete the execution?
I a) N log N times
b) log N times
C c) N2 times
T d) N-1 times
E 105. The Sorting method which is used for external sort is

a) Bubble sort
b) Quick sort
c) Merge sort
d) Radix sort
A 106. In analysis of algorithm, approximate relationship between the size of the job and the amount
I of work required to do is expressed by using _________
a) Central tendency
C b) Differential equation
c) Order of execution
T d) Order of magnitude
E
107. P, Q and R are pointer variables. The statements below are intended to swap the contents of the
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A nodes pointed to by P and Q. rewrite it so that it will work as intended.

P = Q; R = Q; Q = R;
I a) R=Q; P=R; Q=R;
b) R=P; P=P; Q=Q;
C c) P=P; P=Q; R=Q;
d) R=P; P=Q; Q=R;
T
108. Consider the usual algorithm for determining whether a sequence of parentheses is balanced.
E What is the maximum number of parentheses that will appear on the stack AT ANY ONE
TIME when the algorithm analyzes: (()(())(()))
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
A d) 4
I 109. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______
a) Greedy
C b) Dynamic 0 / 1
T c) Back tracking
d) Branch & Bound 0/1
E
110. Choose the correct answer for the following statements:
I. The theory of NP–completeness provides a method of obtaining a polynomial time for
NPalgorithms.
II. All NP-complete problem are NP-Hard.
a) I is FALSE and II is TRUE
A b) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
I c) Both are TRUE
d) Both are FALSE
C
111. For 0/1 KNAPSACK problem, the algorithm takes ________ amount of time for memory
T table, and ______time to determine the optimal load, for N objects and W as the capacity of
KNAPSACK.
E a) O(N+W), O(NW)
b) O(NW), O(N+W)
c) O(N), O(NW)
d) O(NW), O(N)
A
112. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?
I a)Greedy
b)Dynamic
C
c)Branch and Bound
T d)Backtracking.
E 113. Sorting is not possible by using which of the following methods?

a)Insertion
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1INF49
A b)Selection
c)Deletion
I d)Exchange
C 114. Which of the following method is taking overcharge for some operations in amortized
analysis?
T
a) Aggregate method
E b) accounting method
c) potential method
d) both (a) and (c)
115. Which of the following method is most flexible in amortized analysis?

a) Aggregate method
A b) accounting method
c) potential method
I
d) both (A) and (B)
C
116. Which of the following method is taken different operations different charges in amortized
T analysis?
i. a) Aggregate method
E ii. b) accounting method
c) potential method
iii. d) both (A) and (B)
117. Which of the following method is computing total cost of an algorithm in amortized analysis?
A a) Aggregate method
b) accounting method
I c) potential method
(d) both (C) and (B)
C
118. which of the following method is credit as the potential energy to pay for future operations?
T
a) Aggregate method
E b) accounting method
c) potential method
d) both (A) and (B)
A 119. A table can be logically connected to another table by defining a

I a) Super key
b) Candidate key
C c) Primary key
d) Unique key
T
120. If the state of the database no longer reflects a real state of the
E world that the database is supposed to capture, then such a state
is called
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ROLL NO.: PG1INF49
A a) Consistent state
b) Parallel state
I c) Durable state
d) Atomic state
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG1INF49
ANSWER KEY
Subject: INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Paper: 1

1. d 41 a 81. b
2. b 42 d 82. d
3. d 43 b 83. d
4. a 44 a 84. c
5. a 45 b 85. b
6. d 46 b 86. c
7. c 47 a 87. b
8. a 48 b 88. d
9. b 49 d 89. a
10. a 50 c 90. d
11. a 51 c 91. d
12. a 52 d 92. a
13. d 53 a 93. b
14. a 54 a 94. b
15. a 55 b 95. b
16. b 56 d 96. b
17. a 57 a 97. a
18. b 58 d 98. a
19. a 59 b 99. c
20. d 60 b 100. d
21. b 61 c 101. a
22. a 62 b 102. c
23. b 63 a 103. b
24. b 64 a 104. d
25. a 65 c 105. c
26. a 66 d 106. d
27. c 67 c 107. d
28. c 68 b 108. c
29. b 69 c 109. d
30. a 70 b 110. a
31. a 71 b 111. b
32. a 72 b 112. d
33. d 73 c 113. c
34. a 74 a 114. b
35. a 75 c 115. c
36. d 76 b 116. b
37. c 77 b 117. a
38. a 78 a 118. c
39. b 79 b 119. c
40. b 80 c 120. d
ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A INFORMATION & TECHNOLOGY

PAPER-II
C Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
ball point pen.
I
T
E
1. Information systems can facilitate supply chain management by
a)Tracking the status of orders
b)Rapidly communicating orders
c)Providing product specifications
A d) Doing all of the above
I 2. What term refers to the structure, and substructures, of an organization’s information

systems?
C a) Subsystems
b)System formations
T c)IT Configurations
E d) Infrastructure
3. The criteria used to access how user and business needs are met in software.
a) Compatibility
b) Security
c) Scalability
A d) Functionality
I 4. Which of the system uses Multidimensional data analysis?
a) DSS
C c) MIS
T c) ESS
d)All of the above
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 5. Which of the following can be used to determine the tangible value of information?
a) Profit-cost of gathering information
I b)Labor costs-cost of gathering information
c)Quality of information-cost of gathering information
C d)Value of information-cost of gathering information
T 6. A human order taker can be bypassed when using a(n) ……
a) Office automation system
E b)Management Information System
c)Transaction Processing System
d)Decision Support System
7. Which of the following level of managers develop short and medium range plans, schedules
and budgets and specify the policies, procedures and business objectives for their sub units
A of the company?
I a)Strategic
b)Tactical
C c)Operational
d) Front Line
T
8. Preparing short-term budgets is an example of a finance and accounting information system
E operating at the
a) operational level
b) management level
c) knowledge level
d) strategic level
A 9. ……. is an overall performance summary to date and compared with the previous periods,
budgets.
I
a) Sales recap
C b) Sales data
c)Sales product
T d) Sales objective
E 10. In which of the following types of analysis, the value of only one variable is changed
repeatedly, and the resulting changes on other variables are observed.
a) What if analysis
b)Sensitivity analysis
c)Goal seeking analysis
d)None of the above
A
11. Which category of computer based information systems are concerned with improving
I efficiency by applying information technology to common administrative tasks, such as
C creating business documents?
a) Office automation systems
T b) Strategic information systems
c) Expert systems
E d) Business information systems
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 12. The final element of feedback is essential for system operation and for ……….
a) self-regulation
I b) correct errors
c)testing
C f) debugging
T
13. The expert system uses a(n) …….. to select the most appropriate response.
E a) inference
b) decision support system
c) knowledge base
d)data source
14. The most advanced graphics software in any system used by management is normally found
A in ….
a)TPS
I
b)ESS
C c)intranets
d) enterprise systems
T
15. In MIS ……. plays economically sound and logically in development process.
E a) information
b)data
c)statements
d) data flow
16. A storage device that is connected directly to a network is an example of ……..

A a) network attached storage
b) storage area network
I
c) direct attached storage
C d) RAID
T 17. Supply chain decision support pertaining to specific products produced at specific plants in a
specific quantity falls under.
E a)supply chain decision support at strategic level
b)supply chain decision support at operational level
c). supply chain decision support at operational level
d) either at strategic level or at tactical level
A 18. In among the firms executives, managers, and supervisors are comes under …… of workers.
a) knowledge
I b)leader
c). informer
C d)higher level
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 19. ……….. are knowledge based system to which present rules are applied to solve a
particular problem.
I a) ES
b) AI
C c) KBS
d) Base rule
T
20. To easily modify the existing system it is necessary to
E
a) use good software tools
b) use the best hardware available
c) design the system which can be changed at low cost
d) keep the programming team happy
A 21. Which of the following models are developed on the principles of business management,
accounting and econometrics?
I a) Behavioral model
b) Management science models
C c) Operations research models
T d) Policy making models
E 22. An …………………. is a set of processes and procedures that transform data into
information and knowledge.
a) information system
b) Knowledge system
c) Database system
d) Computer system
A
23. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is
I known as
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
C
b) Function points analysis
T c) Control Chart
E
24. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
a) E – errors found before software delivery
b) D – defects found after delivery to user
c) Both E and D
d) Varies with project
A
I 25. The testing in which code is checked
a) Black box testing
C b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
T d) Green box testing
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 26. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

a) Unit testing
I b) Regression testing
c)Adhoc testing
T 27. The purpose of regression testing is to
a) Increase confidence in the correctness of the modified program
E
b) Locate errors in the modified program
c) Preserve the quantity and reliability of software
d) All of the above
28. Behavioral testing is

A a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
I c) Grey box testing
C
29. All the modules of the system are integrated and tested as complete system in the
T case of
E a) Bottom up testing
b) Top-down testing
c) Sandwich testing
d) Big-Bang testing
30. A fault simulation testing technique is

A a) Mutation testing
b) Stress testing
I c) Black box testing
C d) White box testing
T 31. Each time a defect gets detected and fixed, the reliability of a software product
a) increases.
E b) decreases.
c) remains constant.
d) cannot say anything.
32. Output comparators are used in
a) static testing of single module
A b) dynamic testing of single module
c) static testing of single and multiple module
I d) dynamic testing of single and multiple module
C
33. The level at which the software uses scarce resources is
T a) reliability
b) efficiency
E c) portability
d) all of the above
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 34. The main purpose of integration testing is to find

a) design errors
I b) analysis errors
c) procedure errors
C d) interface errors
T 35. If a program in its functioning has not met user requirements is some way, then it is
a) an error.
E b) a failure.
c) a fault.
d) a defect.
36. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?
a) Process
A b) Manufacturing
I c) Methods
d) Tools
C
37. Which of the following are advantages of using LOC (lines of code) as a size-oriented
T metric?
a) LOC is easily computed.
E b) LOC is a language dependent measure.
c) LOC is a language independent measure.
d) LOC can be computed before a design is completed.
38. A key concept of quality control is that all work products

a) are delivered on time and under budget
A b) have complete documentation
I c) have measurable specification for process outputs
d) are thoroughly tested before delivery to the customer
C
39. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is
T a) ISO 9000
b) ISO 9001
E c) ISO 9002
d) ISO 9003
40. What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?
a) unit, integration, system, validation
b) system, integration, unit, validation
A c) unit, integration, validation, system
I
41. Grady Booch, James Rumbaugh, and Ivar Jacobson combined the best features of their
C
individual object-oriented analysis into a new method for object oriented design known as
T a) HTML
b) XML
E c) UML
d) SGML
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 42. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as

a) SQA
I b) SQM
c) SQI
C d) SQA and SQM
T
43. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
E a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
(c) Delivery within budget and schedule
44. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?

A a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
I
c) External Failure
C d) Appraisal
T 45. According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all causes. What are
the values of x and y?
E a) 60, 40
b) 70, 30
c) 80, 20
d) No such principle exists
A 46. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to
shipment?
I a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
C c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
T
E 47. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known
as
a) Quality of design
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality of testing
A
48. What is validating the completeness of a product?
I
a) Identification
C b) Software
c) Auditing and Reviewing
T d) Status Accounting
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 49. Standard Enforcer is a

a) Static Testing Tool
I b) Dynamic Testing
c) Static & Dynamic Testing
T 50. Many applications using static analysis find 0.1-0.2% NCSS. NCSS stands for
a) Non-Code Source Statement
E b) Non Comment Source Sentence
c) Non-Comment Source Statement
51. Which testing tool does a simple job of enforcing standards in a uniform way of many
programs?
A
a) Static Analyzer
I b) Code Inspector
c) Standard Enforcer
C d) Both Code Inspector & Standard Enforcer
T 52. Software Testing with real data in real environment is known as
a) alpha testing
E b) beta testing
c) regression testing
53. Which of the following testing tools examine program systematically & automatically?
a) Code Inspector
A b) Static Analyzer
I c) Standard Enforcer
d) Coverage Analyzer
C 54. Which testing tool is responsible for documenting programs ?
T a) Test/File Generator
b) Test Harness System
E c) Test Archiving Systems
d) Coverage Analyzer
55. Debugging Program is a program which runs concurrently with the program under test &
provide commands to
a) examine memory & registers
A b) stop execution at a particular point
c) search for references for particular variables, constant and registers
I
d) all of the mentioned
C 56. Execution Verifier is a dynamic tool that is also known as
T a) Test File Generator
b) Coverage Analyzer
E c) Output Comparator
d) Test Harness System
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 57. Which of the following is a common pointwer problem?

a) Data sharing errors
I b) Accessing data elements of the wrong type
c) Attempting to use memory areas after freeing them
T 58. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
E b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
59. In Basic execution time model, failure intensity is given by

a) λ (µ)= λ0(1- µ2/ V0)
A
b) λ (µ)= λ0(1- µ/ V0)
I c) λ (µ)= λ0(1- V0/ µ)
d) λ (µ)= λ0(1- V0/ µ2)
C
60. In Basic execution time model, additional number of failures required to achieve a failure
T intensity objective is expressed as
E a) ∆µ = V0/ λ0(λp- λf)
b) ∆µ = V0/ λ0(λf -λp)
c) ∆µ = λ0 / V0 (λp- λf)
d) ∆µ = λ0 / V0 (λf -λp)
61. In halstead theory of software science, volume is measured in bits. The bits are
A a) Number of bits required to store the program
b) Actual size of a program if a uniform binary encoding scheme for vocabulary is
I used
c) Number of bits required to execute the program
T 62. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
E b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
63. Which of the following metrics is an object oriented specific metric?
a) Comment percentage
A
b) Cyclomatic Complexity
I c) Cohesion and Coupling
d) Size in LOC
C
64. A proxy firewall filters at the
T a) Physical layer
b) Application layer
E c) Data link layer
d) Network layer
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 65. A packet.filter firewall filters at the

a) Application or transport
I b) Data link layer
c) Physical Layer
C d) Network or transport layer
T 66. Gateway software should be smart enough to handle ___________
a) GPS
E b) Message
c) Logging
d) Sensors
67. Which mode assumes that it is the gateway’s responsibility to connect to the central
A repository server?
a) Factory Bootstrap
I b) Server limited Bootstrap
c) Client Initiated Bootstrap
C d) Bootstrap
T 68. The password is sent to the server using ________ command
a) PASSWD
E
b) PASS
c) PASSWORD
69. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in internet?
A a) remote procedure call
b) internet relay chat
I c) resource reservation protocol
C
70. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?
T a)ethernet
E b) digital subscriber line
c) fiber distributed data interface
71. What is the correct syntax of the declaration which defines the XML version?:
a) <xml version="A.0" />
A b)<?xml version="A.0"?>
c)<?xml version="A.0" />
I d)None of the above
C 72. Which statement is true?
a)All the statements are true
T
b)All XML elements must have a closing tag
E c)All XML elements must be lower case
d) All XML documents must have a DTD
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 73. Kind of Parsers are

a) well-formed
I b)well-documented
c)non-validating and validating
C d)none of the above
T 74. Which of the following strings are a correct XML name?
a)_myElement
E
b)my Element
c)#myElement
75. There is a way of describing XML data, how?

A a)XML uses a DTD to describe the data
b)XML uses XSL to describe data
I c)XML uses a description node to describe data
d) Both A and C
C
76. Which of the following XML documents are well-formed?
T a)<firstElement>some text goes here
E <secondElement>another text goes here</secondElement></firstElement>
b) <firstElement>some text goes here</firstElement>
<secondElement> another text goes here</secondElement>
c) <firstElement>some text goes here <secondElement> another text goes
here</firstElement>
</secondElement>
A d) </firstElement>some text goes here </secondElement>another text goes here
<firstElement>
I
77. DTD includes the specifications about the markup that can be used within the document, the
C specifications consists of all EXCEPT
a) the browser name
T
b) the size of element name
E c)entity declarations
d) element declarations
78. In XML
a) the internal DTD subset is read before the external DTD
b)the external DTD subset is read before the internal DTD
A c)there is no external type of DTD
d) there is no internal type of DTD
I
79. Microsoft XML Schema Data types for Hexadecimal digits representatingoctates
C a) UID
b) UXID
T
c) UUID
E d) XXID
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 80. The XML DOM object is

a)Entity
I b) Entity Reference
c)Comment Reference
C d) Comment Data
T
PART -B (40x2 = 80 Marks)
E 81. Which one is not a software quality model?
a) McCall model
b) Boehm model
c) ISO 9000
d) ISO 9126
A
82. Basic execution time model was developed by
I a) Bev.Littlewood
b) J.D.Musa
C c) R.Pressman
d) Victor Baisili
T
83. NHPP stands for
E
a) Non Homogeneous Poisson Process
b) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Process
c) Non Homogeneous Poisson Product
d) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Product
A 84. In Logarithmic Poisson execution model, ‘θ’ is known as

(a) Failure intensity function parameter
I (b) Failure intensity decay parameter
(c) Failure intensity measurement
C (d) Failure intensity increment parameter
T 85. CMM level 1 has
a) 6 KPAs
E b) 2 KPAs
c) 0 KPAs
86. MTBF stands for
a) Mean time between failure
A b) Maximum time between failures
c) Minimum time between failures
I
d) Many time between failures
C
87. CMM model is a technique to
T a) Improve the software process
b) Automatically develop the software
E c) Test the software
d) All of the above
Page 12 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 88. Total number of maturing levels in CMM are

a) 1
I b) 3
c) 5
C d) 7
T 89. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?
a) Efficiency
E
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness
90. Reliability of a software is dependent on number of errors

A a) removed
b) remaining
I c) both ((a) & ((b)
C
91. Reliability of software is usually estimated at
T a) Analysis phase
E b) Design phase
c) Coding phase
d) Testing phase
92. CMM stands for
a) Capacity maturity model
b) Capability maturity model
A
c) Cost management model
I d) Comprehensive maintenance model
C 93. Which level of CMM is for basic project management?

a) Initial
T b) Repeatable
c) Defined
E d) Managed
94. Which level of CMM is for process management?

a) Initial
b) Repeatable
A c) Defined
d) Optimizing
I
95. CMM was developed at
C a) Harvard University
b) Cambridge University
T c) Carnegie Mellon University
d) Maryland University
E
Page 13 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 96. McCall has developed a

a) Quality model
I b) Process improvement model
c) Requirement model
C d) Design model
T 97. The model to measure the software process improvement is called
a) ISO 9000
E b) ISO 9126
c) CMM
d) Spiral model
98. The number of clauses used in ISO 9001 are
a) 15
A
b) 25
I c) 20
d) 10
C
99. ISO 9126 contains definitions of
T a) quality characteristics
b) quality factors
E c) quality attributes
d) All of the above
100. In ISO 9126, each characteristics is related to

a) one attributes
b) two attributes
A c) three attributes
I d) four attributes
101. In McCall quality model; product revision quality factor consist of
C
a) Maintainability
T b) Flexibility
c) Testability
102. Dynamic web page

a) is same every time whenever it displays
b) generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
c) both (a) and (b)
A d) none of the mentioned
I 103. Common gateway interface is used to
C a) generate executable files from web content by web server
b) generate web pages
T c) stream videos
E
Page 14 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 104. URL stands for

a) unique reference label
I b) uniform reference label
c) uniform resource locator
C d) unique resource locator
T 105. What is document object model (DOM)?
a) convention for representing and interacting with objects in html documents
E b) application programming interface
c) hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET
106. AJAX stands for
A a) asynchronous javascript and xml
b) advanced JSP and xml
I c) asynchronous JSP and xml
d) advanced javascript and xm
C
107. Who is making the Web standards?
T - Published on 26 Feb 17
a)Mozilla
E
b)Microsoft
c)The World Wide Web Consortium
d) NVDIA
108. Management information systems (MIS)
a) create and share documents that support day-today office activities
A
b) process business transactions (e.g., time cards, payments, orders, etc.)
I c) capture and reproduce the knowledge of an expert problem solver
d) use the transaction data to produce information needed by managers to run the business
C
109. If a university sets up a web-based information system that faculty could access to record
T student grades and to advise students, that would be an example of a/an
a) CRM
E b) Intranet
c) ERP
d) Extranet
110. Which of the following is not a technology driver for an information system?
A a) enterprise applications
b) object technologies
I c) knowledge asset management
d) collaborative technologies
C
T
E
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A 111. To improve the performance of a business process, which of the following is most
relevant?
I a) Input
b) Processing
C c) All of the above
d) Control and feedback
T
112. The flow of transactions through business processes to ensure appropriate checks and
E approvals are implemented is called:
a) Procedures
b) work flow
c) process flow
d) process requirements
A 113. The tasks of defining acceptance tests, structuring functional requirements, and validating
I functional requirements are performed in which one of the phases?
a) problem analysis phase
C b) decision analysis phase
c) systems analysis phase
T d) logical design phase
E 114. FTP is built on _____ architecture
a) Client-server
b) P2P
c) Both of the mentioned
A 115. Mode of data transfer in FTP, where all the is left to TCP
I a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
C c) Compressed mode
T
116. In telnet, the client echoes the character on the screen but does not send it until a whole line
E is completed in
a) default mode
c) character mode
c) server mode
A 117. Arrange the search engines by their year of development.
1. Bing
I
2. Yahoo
C 3. Ask
4. Google
T a) 2134
b) 2341
E c) 2413
d) 2314
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ROLL NO.: PG2INF49
A
118. Web search engines stores information about many web pages by a ______.
I a) Web Indexer
b) Web Organizer
C c) Web Router
d) Web Crawler
T
E 119. SEO Stands for ___________.
a) Search Engine Operation
b) Search Entry Optimization
c) Search Engine Optimization
d) None of these
A 120. MIME stands for

a) Multipurpose Internet Mail Extra
I
b) Multipurpose Internet Mail End
C c) Multipurpose Internet Mail Email
d) Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
PG2INF49
ANSWER KEY
Subject: INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Paper: II

1. d 41 c 81. c
2. d 42 a 82. b
3. d 43 d 83. a
4. a 44 d 84. b
5. d 45 c 85. c
6. c 46 b 86. a
7. b 47 b 87. a
8. b 48 c 88. c
9. a 49 a 89. d
10. b 50 c 90. b
11. a 51 d 91. d
12. a 52 b 92. b
13. a 53 b 93. b
14. b 54 c 94. d
15. d 55 d 95. c
16. a 56 b 96. a
17. b 57 d 97. c
18. a 58 b 98. c
19. a 59 b 99. d
20. c 60 a 100. a
21. b 61 b 101. d
22. a 62 d 102. b
23. c 63 c 103. a
24. c 64 b 104. c
25. b 65 d 105. a
26. c 66 c 106. a
27. d 67 c 107. a
28. b 68 b 108. d
29. d 69 c 109. b
30. a 70 d 110. c
31. a 71 b 111. d
32. d 72 b 112. b
33. b 73 c 113. d
34. d 74 a 114. a
35. d 75 d 115. a
36. b 76 b 116. a
37. a 77 a 117. c
38. c 78 a 118. d
39. b 79 c 119. c
40. a 80 b 120. d
ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING/PRODUCTION
TECHNOLOGY
I
C
T
PAPER-I
E
Instructions:
iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded
to the wrong answer.
vi. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
I specified.
vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black
C or blue ball point pen.
T
A 1. The angle between the face and flank of the single point cutting tool is known as
(a) rake angle
I (b) clearance angle
(c) lip angle
C (d) point angle
T 2. Single point thread cutting tool should ideally have
(a) zero rake
E (b) positive rake
(c) negative rake
(d) normal rake
3. Crater wear is predominant in
(a) carbon steel tools
A (b) tungsten carbide tools
I (c) high speed steel tools
(d) ceramic tools
C
4. The primary tool force used in calculating the total power consumption in
T machining is the
(a) radial force
E (b) tangential force
(c) axial force
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A (d) frictional force

5. Which one of the following sets of the forces are encountered by a lathe parting
I tool while groove cutting?
(a) Tangential, radial and axial
C (b) Tangential and radial
(c) Tangential and axial
T (d) Radial and axial
E
6. Crater wear starts at some distance from the tool tip because
(a) cutting fluid cannot penetrate that region
(b) stress on the rake face is maximum at that region
(c) tool strength is minimum at that region
(d) tool temperature is maximum at that region
7. Dry and compressed air is used as cutting fluid for machining

(a) steel
(b) aluminum
A
(c) cast iron
I (d) brass
C 8. Which one of the following is the hardest cutting tool material next only to
diamond?
T (a) cemented carbides
(b) ceramics
E
(c)silicon
(d) cubic boron nitride
9. In a milling operation two side milling cutters are mounted with a desired distance
between them so that both sides of a workpiece can be milled simultaneously. This
A setup is called
(a) gang milling
I (b) straddle milling
(c)string milling
C
(d) side milling
T
10. Assertion (A): Negative rake is usually provided on carbide tipped tools
E Reason (R): Carbide tools are weaker in compression.
(a) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c)A is true but R is false
A
11. Flank wear occurs mainly on which of the following:
I (a) Nose part and top face
(b) Cutting edge only
C (c) Nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
(d) Face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A
12. In Taylor’s tool life equation 𝑉𝑇 𝑛 = C, the constant n and C depends upon
I 1. workpiece material
2. tool material
C 3. coolant
(a) 1, 2 and 3
T (b) 1 and 2 only
E (c)2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
13. In an orthogonal turning process the chip thickness = 0.32mm, feed = 0.2 mm/rev.
Then the cutting ratio will be
(a) 2.6
(b) 3.2
(c) 1.6
(d) 1.8
A
14. The size of BUE in metal cutting increases with
I (a) very high speed
(b) large uncut chip thickness
C (c) use of cutting fluid
(d) increase in positive rake angle
T
E 15. For cutting double start screw threads of pitch 1.0mm on a lathe, the thread cutting
tool should have feed rate of
(a) 0.5mm/rev
(b) 1.0mm/rev
(c) 2.0mm/rev
(d) 4.0mm/rev
A
16. Friction at the tool chip interface can be reduced by
I (a) decreasing the rake angle
(b) increasing the depth of cut
C
(c)decreasing the cutting speed
T (d) increasing the cutting speed
E 17. In ECM, the material removal rate will be higher for metal with
(a) large density
(b) largervalency
(c) larger chemical absorption tendency
(d) large chemical weight
A
18. The two main criteria for selecting the electrolyte in ECM is that the electrolyte
I should
(a) chemically stable and nonconductive
C (b) not allow dissolution of cathode material and have high electrical conductivity
(c) not allow dissolution of anode material
T (d) all of the above
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A
19. Inter electrode gap in electrochemical grinding (ECG) is controlled by
I (a) controlling the pressure of electrolyte flow
(b) controlling the applied static load
C (c) Controlling the size of diamond particle in the wheel
(d) controlling the texture of the work
T
E 20. In EDM, the tool is made of
(a) Copper
(b) HSS
(c) Cast iron
(d) Plain carbon steel
21. Deed hole drilling of small diameter, say 0.2mm is done with EDM by selecting
the tool material as
(a) copper wire
(b) tungsten wire
A
(c) brass wire
I (d) Tungsten carbide
C 22. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is

(a) Melting and evaporation
T (b) Melting and corrosion
(c) Erosion and cavitation
E
(d) Cavitation and evaporation
23. In electro discharge machining(EDM), if the thermal conductivity of tools is high
and the specific heat of work piece is low, then the tool wear rate and material
removal rate are expected to be respectively
A (a) high and high
(b) low and low
I (c) high and low
(d) low and high
C
24. A 10mm square hole can be cut in a 2mm thick glass plate by
T (a) USM
(b) EDM
E (c) LBM
(d) ECM
25. The maximum depth to width ratio in EBM is

(a) 1: 1
A (b) 2: 1
(c)10: 1
I (d) 25: 1
C 26. In an AJM process, if Q= flow rate of abrasives and d= mean diameter of the
abrasives, then the MRR is proportional to
T (a) Q/d2
(b) Qd
E
(c) Qd2
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A (d) Qd3
27. The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for material removal is
I (a) ultrasonic machining (USM)
(b) electrochemical machining (ECM)
C (c) abrasive jet machining (AJM)
(d) laser beam machining (LBM)
T
E 28. The non-traditional machining process that essentially requires vacuum is
(a) electron beam machining (EBM)
(c) electrochemical discharge machining (ECDM)
(d) electro discharge machining (EDM)
29. Which one of the following processes does not cause tool wear?
(a) ultrasonic machining (USM)
(c)electric discharge machining (EDM)
A
(d) Anode mechanical machining
I
30. During ultrasonic machining, the metal removal is achieved by
C (a) high frequency eddy currents
(b) high frequency sound waves
T (c) hammering action of abrasives
(d) rubbing action between tool and workpiece
E
31. By which one of the following processes the metering hole in injector nozzles of
diesel engines can be suitably made?
(a) ultrasonic machining (USM)
(b) abrasive jet machining (AJM)
A (c)electron beam machining (EBM)
(d) Chemical machining
I
32. USM has good machining performance for
C
(a) Al
T (b) Steel
(c) Super alloys
E (d) Refractory material
33. Which of the following process hasvery high material removal rate efficiency?
(a) electron beam machining (EBM)
(c)electro discharge machining (EDM)
A
(d) plasma arc machining
I
34. Which one of the following properties of work materials is responsible for the
C material removal rate in electrochemical machining?
(a) Hardness
T (b) atomic weight
E (c) thermal conductivity
(d) Ductility
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A
35. During AJMM of C.I., the mechanism of material removal is
I (a) Shear deformation
(b) Brittle fracture
C (c) Both shear deformation and brittle fracture
(d) None of these
T
E 36. In EBM, the material removal take place due to
(a) Ions hitting the workpiece
(b) Electrons hitting the workpiece
(d) None of these
37. In ECMM, cathode reaction results in the evolution of:

(a) O2 gas
(b) H2 gas
(c) H2O vapor
A
I
38. In ECMM, the preferred power supply is
C (a) Smooth D.C. or Pulsed D.C
(b) Pulsed A.C.
T (c) A.C.
(d) None of these
E
39. In ECMM, the inter electrode gap (IEG) lies between:
(a) 1-2 mm
(b) 100-500 µm
(c) 5 -15 µm
A (d) Any one of the above
I 40. When the magnetic field is applied in magnetorheological nano finishing, the
apparent viscosity of MR fluids changes in
C
(a) A few seconds
T (b) Tens of seconds
(c) A few milliseconds
41. Which one does not exhibit yield stress

(a) MR fluid
(b) ER fluid
(c) Ferro fluid
A
I
42. The base fluid which can be used for the preparation of MR polishing fluid is
C (a) Silicon oils
(b) Water
T (c) Mineral oils
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A
43. To minimize sedimentation of abrasive particles in MRP fluid, one can use
I (a) Fibres, mineral oil and grease mixture
(b) Silicon oil and abrasive particles
C (c) Water
T
E 44. AFM processing causes:
(a) Tensile residual stresses on the surface
(b) Compressive residual stresses on the surface
(c) No mechanical stresses
45. The range of machined surface finish obtained bymagnetorheological finishing

processis:
(a) 1-2μm
(b) 0.1-2μm
A
(c) 0.05-2μm
I (d) 2-4μm
C 46. Increasing volume concentration of abrasive in slurry would affect MRR in the
following manner:
T (a) increase MRR
(b) decrease MRR
E
(c)would not change MRR
(d)none of the above
47. In EBM, high traverse speed of beam results in

(a) Narrow cut
A (b) Wide cut
(c) More heat affected zone
I (d) Distorted workpiece
C
48. EBM, is generally used for
T (a) Electrically non-conductive materials
(b) Electrically conductive materials
E (c) Both (a) & (b)
49. In EBM, pulse beam is used to

(a) Reduce conduction losses
(b) Increase heat affected zone
A
(c) Increase diameter of the hole
I (d) Cut channels on workpiece
C 50. The in-process dressing provides:

(a) Uninterrupted grinding
T (b) Producing good surface finish
E (c) Dressing the wheel inside the machine
(d) Stimulating electrolysis
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A
51. ElectrolyticIn-process dressing (ELID) grinding, the size of the electrode should
I be at least
(a) Half the perimeter of the grinding wheel
C (b) 1/4th of the perimeter of the grinding wheel
(c) 1/8th of the perimeter of the grinding wheel
T (d) 1/6th of the perimeter of the grinding wheel
E
52. Electrolytic In-process dressing (ELID) grinding, a small gap between the grinding
wheel and electrode should be maintained:
(a) To avoid electrical contact
(b) To avoid direct contact
(c) To avoid removal of oxide layer
(d) To pass an adequate flow of electrolyte
53. The term ‘dressing’ in grinding means

(a) Creating the profile of the grinding wheel
A
(b) Producing oxide layer
I (c) Producing sufficient grit protrusion on the grinding wheel
(d) Determining out of balance force
C
54. The nonlinear electrolysis occurs during ELID grinding because of
T (a) Supply of current drop
(b) The oxidized layer is formed on wheel surface
E
(c) The voltage drop during grinding
(d) Voltage and current drop due to the rotational speed of the wheel
55. The electrode-less ELID grinding is used

(a) To grind ceramics
A (b) To grind glasses
(c) To grind semiconductor
I (d) To grind a conductive material
C
56. Which lithography techniques can produce the minimum feature size in mm?
T (a) E-beam
(b) Ion beam
E (c) X-ray
57. Which type of photolithography is the best obtain lithographic resolution?

(a) Contact
(b) Proximity
A
(c) Both contact and proximity
C 58. Which device do you use for feed rate control in micro EDM process?
(a) Stepper motor with a feeding rate of 0.1 µm /pulse
T (b) DC motor with a feeding rate of 1 µm /pulse
E (c) Servo motor with a feeding rate of 1.1 µm /pulse
Page 8 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A
59. In case of micro EDM process, heat generated during plasma formation and
I expansion of heat is transferred to cathode and anode by the mechanism of
(a) Radiation heat transfer, ion and electron bombardment
C (b) Conduction heat transfer, bombardment of atom
(c) Convection heat transfer, removal of material
E
60. Which of the following process is used for finishing a turbulated cooling holes in a
turbine blade?
(a) EDMM
(b) NEMS
(c) Abrasive finishing process
(d) PBM
61. A plug gauge is used for measuring
(a) cylinders
A (b) cylindrical bores
(c) spherical holes
I (d) screw threads
C 62. A master gauge is
(a) a new gauge
T
(b) an international reference standard
E (c) a standard gauge for checking accuracy of gauges used on shop floor
(d) a gauge is used by experienced technician
63. The more sensitive instrument used in AVI process
(a) first oscillates more
(b) oscillates more slowly
A (c) has no oscillations
(d) is never stable
I
64. In conventional AVI technique, for the measurement of which of the following is
C McLeod gauge used?
(a) low pressure
T (b) very low pressure
(c) high pressure
E
(d) very high pressure
65. In accurate inspection and checking, auto-collimator is used to check and
measurement of
(a) small angular differences
(b) flatness
A
(c) linear surfaces
I (d) concavity
C 66. In which of the following new concept of inspection systems, the inspection keeps
pace with the production?
T (a) sampling inspection
(b) cent percent inspection
E (c) cage inspection
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A (d) centralized inspection

67. Wear allowance is provided on
I (a) GO gauge
(b) NO-GO gauge
C (c) both Go and NO-GO gauges
(d) when both are combined in one gauge
T
E 68. In robots system automated inspection, which of the following is exhibited by root
locus diagrams?
(a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
(b) The bandwidth of the system
(c) The response of a system to a step input
(d) The frequency response of a system
69. Which of the following is used in electron microscope?

(a) electron beams
(b) magnetic fields
A
(c) light waves
I (d) electron beams and magnetic fields
C 70. Which among the following helps us in getting a three-dimensional picture of the
specimen?
T (a) Transmission Electron Microscope
(b) Scanning Electron Microscope
E
(c) Compound Microscope
(d) Simple Microscope
71. Where do we obtain the magnified image of the specimen in SEM?

(a) cathode ray tube
A (b) phosphorescent screen
(c) anode
I (d) scanning generator
C
72. Machine vision (MV) is the technology and methods used to
T (a) provide imaging-based automatic inspection
(b) provide imaging-based automatic analysis for such applications as process
E control,
(c) provide imaging-based automatic robot guidance
73. What classification is given to robots which grip tools, for various types of
A metalworking operations, joining of materials and surface treatment?
(a) handling robots
I (b) tooling robots
(c) assembly robots
C (d) process robots
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A 74. Robots are specified by

(a) pay load
I (b) dimension of work envelope
(c) degree of freedom
C (d) all of the mentioned
T 75. Which device is mostly associated with automation in flexible tooling?
E (a) flexible manufacturing
(b) robots
(c) computer graphics workstation
(d) NC machine
76. Choose the robot component used in CMM tool handling robots from the
following:
(a) microcomputer
(b) coaxial cable
(c) arm
A
(d) software
I
77. A computer program that contains expertise in a particular domain applied to
C artificial intelligence techniques in AVI is called an
(a) automatic processor
T (b) intelligent planner
E (c) expert system processor
(d) operations symbolizer
78. Non-Traditional advanced machining is recommended when we need which of the

following features?
(a) Complex shapes
A (b) High surface quality
(c) Low-rigidity structures
C
79. In automatic tool changers, the tool change requires activities of motions is /are
T (a) Tool change arm moves to the spindle
(b) Tool change arm picks the tool from the spindle
E (c) Tool change arm moves back to its parking position
80. The application of automated tooling in machining, the advantages in utilization of

automatic tool changer is/are
A (a) Increase in operator safety by changing tools automatically
(b) Increases flexibility and decreases total production time
I (c) Heavy and large multi-tools can easily be handled
C
T
E
Page 11 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A
I
C 81. An orthogonal cutting operation is being carried out under the following
T conditions: cutting speed = 2 m/s, depth of cut = 0.5 mm, chip thickness = 0.6 mm.
Then the chip velocity is
E (a) 2.0 m/s
(b) 2.4 m/s
(c) 1.0 m/s
(d) 1.66 m/s
82. A cutting tool has a nose radius of 1.8 mm, the feed rate for a theoretical surface
roughness of Rt = 5 microns is
(a) 0.268 mm/rev
(b) 0.187 mm/rev
A (c) 0.036 mm/rev
(d) 0.0187 mm/rev
I
83. In orthogonal machining operation, the chip thickness and uncut chip thickness are
C equal to 0.45 mm. If the tool rake angle is 0 deg. The shear plane angle will be
(a) 450
T
(b) 300
E (c) 180
(d) 600
84. For turning NiCr alloy steel at cutting speed of 64 m/min and 100 m/min, the
respective tool lives are 15 min and 12 min respectively. The tool life for a cutting
speed of 144 m/min is
A (a) 8min
(b) 9min
I (c) 10min
C (d) 11.5 min
T 85. While removing material from iron of atomic weight = 56, valency = 2 and density
= 7.8 g/cc by electrochemical machining, if desire metal removal rate is 2
E cc/min,thenthe current (in A) required to achieve this material removal rate is
(a) 896.07
(b) 14.93
(c) 448.03
(d) 53764.29
A
86. A side and face cutter 125 mm diameter has 10 teeth. If it operates at a cutting
I speed of 14 m/min with a table traverse 100 mm/min, thenthe feed per tooth of the
cutter is
C (a) 10 mm
T (b) 2.86 mm
(c) 0.286 mm
E (d) 0.8 mm
Page 12 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A 87. A 31.8 mm H.S.S. drill is used to drill a hole in a cast iron block 100 mm thick at a
cutting speed 20 m/min and feed 0.3 mm/rev. If the over-travel of drill is 4 mm
I and approach 9 mm, the time required to drill the hole is
(a) 1 min 40 s
C (b) 1 min 44 s
(c) 1 min 49 s
T (d) 1 min 53 s
E
88. Which one of the following is the correct expression of Merchant’s theory for
metal cutting? Where, ϕ = shear angle, γ = friction angle and α = rake angle.
𝜋
(a) 2ϕ + γ – α = 2
𝜋
(b) 2ϕ - γ + α =
2
𝜋
(c) 2ϕ - γ – α = 2
𝜋
(d) ϕ + γ – α = 2
A
89. Match List -I (unconventional machining process) with List-II (basic process) and
I select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I
C A. chemicalmachining
B. Electro chemical machining
T
C. Abrasive jet machining
E D. Electrical discharge machining
List-II
1. thermal
2. mechanical
3. electro-chemical
4. chemical
A Codes:
A B C D
I
(a) 4 3 2 1
C (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
T (d) 2 3 4 1
E
90. Consider the following
1. Tool life
2. Cutting forces
3. Surface finish
Which of the above is/are the machinability criterion/ criteria?
A (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
I (c) 2 and 3 only
C (d) 2 only
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A 91. A carbide tool (having n = 0.25) with a mild steel workpiece was found to give life
of 1 hour 21 minutes while cutting at 60 m /min. The value of C in Taylor’s tool
I life equation 𝑉𝑇 𝑛 = C would be equal to
(a) 200
C (b) 180
(c) 150
T (d) 100
E 92. If n = 0.5 and C = 300 for the cutting speed and the tool life relation, when cutting
speed is reduced by 25%, the tool life will be increased by
(a) 100%
(b) 95%
(c) 78%
(d) 50%
93. Match List -I (contents) with List-II (machining) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists
A List-I
A. Machining of conductive materials
I B. Ruby rod
C C. Electrolyte
D. Abrasive slurry
T List-II
1. ECM
E 2. EDM
3. USM
4. LBM
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
A
(b) 4 2 3 1
I (c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
C
94. Match List -I (machining process) with List-II (application) and select the correct
T answer using the codes given below the lists
E List-I
A. EDM
B. LBM
C. USM
D. ECM
List-II
A 1. Holes and cavities in hard and brittle materials
2. Micro-drilling and micro welding of materials
I
3. Shaping of hard metals or reshaping of cemented carbide tools
C 4. Shaping of cemented carbide dies and punches
T
E
Page 14 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A Codes:
A B C D
I (a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 32 1 4
C (c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
T
E 95. Consider the following statements
In electrochemical grinding,
1. A rubber bonded alumina grinding wheelacts as the cathode and the workpiece
as the anode
2. A copper bonded alumina grinding wheel acts as the cathode and the
workpiece as the anode
3. Metal removal takes place due to the pressure applied by the grinding wheel
4. Metal removal takes place due to electrolysis.
A (a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
I (c) 2 and 3
C (d) 1 and 4
T 96. In a single point turning tool, the side rake angle and orthogonal rake angle are
equal, ϕ is the principal cutting edge angle and its range is 00 ≤ ϕ ≤ 900. The chip
E flows in the orthogonal plane. The value of ϕ is closest to
(a) 00
(b) 450
(c) 600
(d) 900
A
97. In orthogonal turning of medium carbon steel, the specific machining energy is 2.0
I J/mm3. The cutting velocity, feed and depth of cut are 120 m/min, 0.2 mm/rev and
2 mm respectively. The main cutting force (in N) is
C (a) 40
(b) 80
T (c) 400
E (d) 800
98. The turning of low carbon steel pipe was done with principal cutting edge angle of
900, the main cutting force is 1000 N and the feed force is 800 N. The shear angle
is 250 and orthogonal rake angle is zero. Employing Merchant’s theory, the ratio of
friction force to normal force acting on the cutting tool is
A (a) 1.56
(b) 1.25
I (c) 0.80
C (d) 0.64
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A 99. Two cutting tools are being compared for a machining operation. The tool life
equations are: For carbide tool VT1.6 = 3000 and for HSS tool VT 0.6 = 200,
I Where, V is the cutting speed in m/min and T is the tool life in min. The carbide
toolwill provide higher tool life if the cutting speed (in m/min) exceeds
C (a) 15.0
(b) 39.4
T (c) 49.3
E (d) 60.0
100. A researcher conducts electrochemical machining (ECM) on a binary alloy

(density 6000 kg/m3) of iron (atomic weight = 56, valency = 2) and metal P
(atomic weight =24, valency= 4). Faraday’s constant = 96500 coulomb/mole.
Volumetric material removal rate of the alloy is 50 mm3/s ata current of 2000 A.
Based on the machining experiment, the percentage of the metal P in the alloy is
closest to
(a) 40.5
(b) 24.5
A
(c) 15.5
I (d) 59.5
C 101. Electrochemical machining is performed to remove material from an iron surface

of 20 mm x 20 mm under the following conditions:
T Inter electrode gap = 0.2 mm; Supply voltage (DC) = 12 V; Specific resistance of
electrolyte = 2 ohm-cm; Atomic weight of iron = 55.85; Valency of iron = 2;
E
Faraday’sconstant = 96540 Coulombs.
The material removal rate (in g/s) is
(a) 0.3471
(b) 3.471
(c) 34.71
A (d) 347.1
I 102. Arrange the processes in the increasing order of their maximum material removal
rate.
C
Electrochemical machining (ECM),
T Ultrasonic machining (USM),
Electron beam machining (EBM),
E Laser beam machining (LBM),
Electric discharge machining (EDM)
(a) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM
(b) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(c) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(d) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM
A
I 103. Some of the typical machining operations are to be performed on hard-to-machine
materials by using the processes listed below. Choose the best set of Operation-
C Process combinations
Operation
T A. Deburring (internal surface)
E B. Die sinking
C. Fine hole drilling in thin sheets
Page 16 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A D. Tool sharpening
Process
I 1. Plasma beam machining
2. Abrasive flow machining
C 3. Electric discharge machining
4. Ultrasonic machining
T 5. Laser beam machining
E 6. Electrochemical machining
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 15 3 4
(b) 34 1 2
(c) 5 1 2 6
(d) 2 3 5 6
Common data for Questions No. 104 and 105

A
In an EDM process using RC relaxation circuit, a 12 mm diameter through hole is
I made in a steel plate of 50 mm thickness using a graphite tool and kerosene as
dielectric. Assume discharge time to be negligible. Machining is carried out under
C the following conditions.
Resistance = 40 ohm
T Capacitance = 20 µF
Supply voltage = 220 V
E
Discharge voltage = 110 V
104. The time for one cycle (in milliseconds) is

(a) 0.55
(b) 0.32
A (c) 0.89
(d) 0.24
I
105. Average power input (in kW) is
C
(a) 0.37
T (b) 0.13
(c) 0.22
E (d) 0.50
106. The following four unconventional machining processes are available in a shop
floor. The most appropriate one to drill a hole of square cross-section of 6 mm x 6
mm and 25 mm deep is
(a) Abrasive jet machining
A
(b) Plasma beam machining
I (c) Laser beam machining
(d) Electro discharge machining
C
T
E
Page 17 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A 107. A resistance-capacitance relaxation circuit is used in an electrical discharge

machining process. The discharge voltage is 100 V. At a spark cycle time of 25µs,
I the average power input required is 1 kW. The capacitance (in µF) in the circuit is
(a) 2.5
C (b) 5.0
(c) 7.5
T (d) 10.0
E 108. In a wire-cut micro machining the necessary condition that have to be meet for
making a successful cut that are
(a) Wire and work-piece are electrically non-conductive
(b) Wire and work-piece are electrically conductive
(c) Wire is electrically conductive and work-piece is electrically non-conductive
(d) Work-piece is electrically conductive and wire is non-conductive
109. In an ultrasonic machining process, the material removal rate is plotted as a
function of the feed force of the USM tool. With increasing feed force, the
A material removal rate exhibits the following behavior:
(a) Increases linearly
I (b) Decreases linearly
(c) Does not change
C (d) First increases and then decreases
+0.050
T 110. GO and NO-GO plug gauges are to be selected for a hole 20.000 −0.010 mm.
Gauge tolerances can be taken as 10% of the hole tolerance. Following ISO system
E
of inspection and checking, select the GO and NO-GO gauge with sizes are
(a) 20.010 mm and 20.050 mm
(b) 20.014 mm and 20.046 mm
(c) 20.006 mm and 20.054 mm
(d) 20.014 mm and 20.054 mm
A
111. A ring gauge is used to measure
I (a) Outside diameter but not roundness
(b) Roundness but not outside diameter
C
(c) Both outside diameter and roundness
T (d) Only external threads
E 𝐷 0.4
112. Tool life in drilling of steel using HSS drill is expressed as 𝑇 0.2 = 9.8 ( 0.5 ) ,
𝑉.𝑠
where, D is the drill diameter (in mm), T is the tool life (in min), V is the cutting
speed (in m/min) and ‘s’ is the feed (mm/rev). The feed is set at maximum
possible value of 0.4 mm/rev for a given drill diameter of 30 mm, the length of
drill is 50 mm. For the given conditions, the Tailor’s exponent and constant are
A (a) 0.2 and 60.4 respectively
(b) 0.4 and 60.4 respectively
I (c) 0.2 and 30 respectively
C (d) 0.5 and 9.8 respectively
T
E
Page 18 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A 113. During abrasive jet machining, the mixing ratio used is 0.2. If the ratio of density
of abrasive and density of carrier gas equal to 20, then the mass ratio will be
I (a) 0.6
(b) 0.8
C (c) 0.2
(d) 0.5
T
E 114. If the tool material is changed from copper to stainless steel during machining of
WC plates by USM, the percentage of change in machining time is
(a) 56 %
(b) 64 %
(c) 36 %
(d) 50 %
115. During laser micro machining of tungsten sheet identified the following thermal
properties:Melting point = 34200C, thermal conductivity = 2.16 W/cm 0C, volume
specific heat = 2.72 J/cm30C, heat flux (H) = 106 W/cm2., thermal diffusivity =
A
0.79 cm2/s. Time required to reach melting point of the workpiece surface is
I (a) 0.000013 s
(b) 0.000054 s
C (c) 0.000076 s
(d) 0.000085 s
T
116. Match List -I (Tools used in forging) with List-II (application) and select the
E
correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I
A. To make recesses of any shape in hot metal
B. To forge art, bend and shape the work
A C. To forge light and medium work
D. To forge big jobs
I
List-II
C
1. Sledge hammers, straight, flat and cross peen
T 2. Smith ball peen hammer
3. Punches
E 4. Anvil
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 1 4 23
A
(d) 3 4 2 1
I
117. The fabrication of tooling for micro manufacturing can be done by
C (a) electro-discharge machining and wire electro-discharge machining
(b) laser beam machining and focused ion beam machining
T (c) micro-end mill
E (d) all of the above
Page 19 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG1MFE63
A 118. The MEMS technology usually consist is /are of the following

(a) micro-electronic elements, actuators, sensors
I (b) mechanical structures built onto a substrate
(c) substrate usually used in MEMS is silicon
T 119. The tooling used for forming by forging, the forging die (without ejectors) to
E facilitate removal of forgings from die, the draft for inside force must be
(a) 1 – 2°
(b) 3 – 5°
(c) 5 – 10°
(d) 10 – 13°
120. The micro drilling operation utilized ECMM is done on stainless steel plate under
the following conditions: applied voltage = 5 V, tool diameter = 200 µm, pulse
frequency 2 MHz, pulse on-time = 60 nanoseconds/pulse, inter electrode gap = 10
µm, electrolyte = 0.2M/liter H2SO4 having specific gravity = 50 ohm-cm,
A
dissolution efficiency = 90%. The MRR will be
I (a) 9.23 x 10-7 g/s
(b) 6.03 x 10-7 g/s
C (c) 12.53 x 10-7 g/s
(d) 0.23 x 10-5 g/s
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 20 of 20
M.Tech. (Manufacturing Engineering/Production Technology)
Paper-I
01 Mark Questions Answer 02 Marks Question Answer
1. (c) 41. (c) 81. (d)

2. (b) 42. (b) 82. (a)
3. (b) 43. (a) 83. (a)
4. (c) 44. (b) 84. (c)
5. (a) 45. (c) 85. (a)
6. (d) 46. (a) 86. (c)
7. (c) 47. (a) 87. (d)
8. (d) 48. (c) 88. (a)
9. (b) 49. (a) 89. (a)
10. (c) 50. (a) 90. (a)
11. (c) 51. (b) 91. (b)
12. (a) 52. (b) 92. (c)
13. (c) 53. (c) 93. (d)
14. (b) 54. (b) 94. (c)
15. (c) 55. (d) 95. (b)
16. (d) 56. (d) 96. (d)
17. (d) 57. (a) 97. (d)
18. (b) 58. (a) 98. (c)
19. (c) 59. (a) 99. (b)
20. (a) 60. (c) 100. (b)
21. (b) 61. (b) 101. (a)
22. (a) 62. (c) 102. (d)
23. (d) 63. (b) 103. (d)
24. (a) 64. (b) 104. (a)
25. (d) 65. (a) 105. (c)
26. (d) 66. (c) 106. (d)
27. (d) 67. (a) 107. (b)
28. (a) 68. (a) 108. (b)
29. (b) 69. (d) 109. (d)
30. (c) 70. (b) 110. (b)
31. (c) 71. (a) 111. (c)
32. (d) 72. (d) 112. (a)
33. (d) 73. (d) 113. (b)
34. (b) 74. (d) 114. (a)
35. (b) 75. (b) 115. (b)
36. (b) 76. (c) 116. (d)
37. (b) 77. (c) 117. (d)
38. (a) 78. (d) 118. (d)
39. (c) 79. (d) 119. (c)
40. (c) 80. (d) 120. (a)
ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING/PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY

I
T PAPER-II
E Instructions:
the wrong answer.
C ix. Hand over your OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of examination
E
1. In oxy-acetylene gas welding, for complete combustion, the volume of oxygen

required per unit acetylene is
(a) 1
(b) 1.5
(c) 2
(d) 2.5
A
2. In manual arc welding, the equipment should have drooping characteristics in order
I to maintain the
(a) voltage constant when arc length changes
C (b) current constant when arc length changes
(c) temperature in the arc constant
T (d) weld pool red-hot
E 3. Brazing is the non-fusion method of joining dissimilar metals with metals whose
most appropriate meting temperature is greater than
(a) 4000C
(b) 2200C
(c) 7230C
(d) 9100C
Page 1 of 22
A
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 4. Consider the following statements:

MIG welding process uses
I 1. Consumable electrode
2. Non-consumable electrode
C 3. D.C. power supply
4. A.C. power supply
T Which of these statements are correct?
E (a) 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
5. In arc welding, the arc length should be equal to
(a) 4.5 times the rod diameter
(b) 3 times the rod diameter
(c) 1.5 times the rod diameter
(d) 0.8 times rod diameter
A
6. During plasma arc welding of aluminum, improved removal of the surface oxide
I from the base metal is obtained the typical polarity of
(a) DC straight
C (b) DC reverse
(c) AC potential
T (d) reverse polarity of phase of AC potential
E 7. Oxyacetylene reducing flame is used while carrying out the weld on
(a) mild steel
(b) high carbon steel
(c) gray cast iron
(d) alloy steels
8. In which of the following welding techniques vacuum environment is required
(a) ultrasonic welding
(b) laser beam welding
(c) plasma arc welding
A (d) electron beam welding
I 9. In arc welding d. c. reverse polarity is used to bear greater advantage in
(a) overhead welding
C (b) flat welding of lap joints
(c) edge welding
T
(d) flat welding of butt joints
E
10. Preheating before welding is done to
(a) Make the steel softer
(b) Burn away oil, grease etc. from the plate surfaces
(c) Prevent cold cracks
(d) Prevent plate distortion
Page 2 of 22
A
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 11. Which of the following process can be used for welding of aluminum alloys?
P. Submerged arc welding
I Q. Gas metal arc welding
R. Electroslag welding
C S. Gas tungsten arc welding
(a) P and Q
T (b) Q and S
E (c) Q and R
(d) R and S
12. In oxyacetylene gas welding, temperature at the inner cone of the flame is around
(a) 35000C
(b) 31500C
(c) 28500C
(d) 25500C
13. High speed electron beam welding is focused on the weld spot using
A
(a) vacuum lens
I (b) inert gas lens
(c) optical lens
C (d) magnetic lens
T 14. High alloy steel components are preheated before welding for reducing
E (a) heat affected zone
(b) total energy consumption
(c) total time of welding
(d) welding stresses
15. In DC welding, the straight polarity (electrode negative) results in

(a) Lower penetration
(b) Lower deposition rate
(c) Less heating of work piece
(d) Smaller weld pool
A
16. In a linear arc welding process, the heat input per unit length is inversely
I
proportional to
C (a) welding current
(b) welding voltage
T (c) welding speed
(d) Duty cycle of the power source
E
17. The mode of metal transfer in CO2 –MIG welding at low temperature is
(a) Spray transfer
(b) Short circuiting type of transfer
(c) Globular transfer
(d) Droplet transfer
Page 3 of 22
A
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 18. Which pair amount the following solid state welding processes uses heat from an
external source
I P. Diffusion welding
Q. Friction welding
C R. Ultrasonic welding
S. Forge welding
T (a) P and R
E (b) R and S
(c) Q and S
(d) P and S
19. Which of the following arc welding processes does not use consumable electrode?
(a) GMAW
(b) GTAW
(c) SAW
(d) None
A
20. In resistance seam welding, the electrode is in the form of a
I (a) cylinder
(b) flat plate
C (c) coil of wire
(d) Circular disc
T
E 21. In solid-state welding, the contamination layers between the surfaces to be welded
are removed by
(a) alcohol
(b) plastic deformation
(c) water jet
(d) sand blasting
22. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000 A. Assuming
effective resistance to be 200 micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2 second, heat
generated during the process will be
A (a) 0.2 Joule
(b) 1 Joule
I
(c) 5 Joule
C (d) 1000 Joule
T 23. With increasing joint thickness, the tensile strength of a brazed joint
(a) Continuously decreases
E (b) First decreases and then increases
(c) Continuously increases
(d) First increases and then decreases
Page 4 of 22
A
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 24. Which of the following powders should be fed for effective oxy-fuel cutting of
stainless steel?
I (a) steel
(b) aluminum
C (c) copper
(d) Ceramic
T
25. The maximum heat in resistance welding is at the
E (a) Tip of the positive electrode
(b) Tip of the negative electrode
(c) Top surface of the plate at the time of electric contact with the electrode
(d) Interface between the two plates being joined
26. In atomic hydrogen welding, hydrogen acts as
(a) A heating agent
(b) One of the gases to generate the flame
(c) An effective shielding gas protecting the weld
A (d)A lubricant to increase the flow characteristics of weld metal
I 27. Bottom gating system is sometimes preferred in casting because

(a) it enables rapid filling mould cavity
C (b) it is easier to provide in the mould
(c) it provides cleaner metal
T (d) it reduces splashing and turbulence
E 28. According to Chovrinov’s equation, the solidification time of a casting is
proportional to
(a) v2
(b) v
(c) 1/v
(d) 1/v2
29. In gating system design, which one of the following is the correct sequence in which
choke area, pouring time, pouring basin and sprue sizes are calculated?
(a) Choke area - pouring time - pouring basin - sprue
A (b) Pouring basin – sprue - choke area - pouring time
I (c) Choke area – sprue - pouring basin - pouring time
(d) Pouring basin - pouring time - choke area - sprue
C
30. Directional solidification in castings can be improved by using
T (a) chills and chaplets
(b) chills and padding
E (c) chaplets and padding
(d) chills, chaplets and padding
Page 5 of 22
A
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 31. For a general two dimensional stress system, what are the coordinates of the centre
of Mohr’s circle?
𝜎𝑥 −𝜎 𝑦
I (a) 2 , 0
𝜎𝑥 + 𝜎 𝑦
C (b) 0, 2
𝜎𝑥 + 𝜎 𝑦
T (c) ,0
2
𝜎𝑥 − 𝜎 𝑦
E (d) 0, 2
32. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr’s Circle

(a) is equal to radius of Mohr’s circle
(b) is greater than radius of Mohr’s circle
(c) is less than radius of Mohr’s circle
(d) could be any of the above
33. Mohr’s circle construction is valid for both stress as well as the area moment of
A inertia because
(a) both are tensors of first order
I (b) both are tensors of second order
(c) both are axial vectors
C (d) both occur under plane stress condition
T
34. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone
E (a) tensile stress increases at a faster rate
(b) tensile stress decreases at a faster rate
(c) tensile stress increases in linear proportion to the stress
(d) tensile stress decreases in linear proportion to the stress
35. A shaft made of ductile material and subjected to a combined bending and twisting
moments. Calculations based on which one of the following failure theories would
give the most conservative value?
(a) Maximum principal stress theory
(b) Maximum shear stress theory
A (c) Maximum strain energy theory
I (d) Maximum distortion energy theory
C 36. A rod having cross sectional area 100 x 10-6 m2 is subjected to a tensile load. Based
on the Tresca failure criterion, if the uniaxial yield stress of the material is 200 MPa
T then the failure load will be
(a) 10 kN
E
(b) 20 kN
(c) 100 kN
(d) 200 kN
Page 6 of 22
A
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 37. In wire drawing process, the bright shining surface on the wire is obtained if one
(a) not using a lubricant
I (b) low tooling cost
(c) used thick paste lubricant
C (d) use thin fluid lubricant
T 38. Which of the following assumptions are correct for cold rolling?
E 1. the material is plastic
2. the arc of contact is circular with a radius greater than the radius of the roll
3. coefficient of friction is constant over the arc of contact and acts in one direction
throughout the arc of contact.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
I 39. Which of the following types of stresses is/are involved in the wire drawing
operation?
C (a) Tensile only
(b) Compressive only
T (c) A combination of tensile and compressive stresses
E (d) A combination of tensile, compressive and shear stresses
40. Which metal forming process is used for manufacturing of long steel wire?
(a) Deep drawing
(b) Forging
(c) Drawing
(d) Extrusion
41. Who postulated the maximum distortion energy theory?

(a) Tresca
A (b) Rankine
(c) St. Venant
I
(d) Mises-Henky
C
42. Auto frettage is the method of
T (a) joining thick cylinders
(b) calculating stresses in thick cylinders
E (c) prestressing thick cylinders
(d) increasing the life of thick cylinders
Page 7 of 22
A
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 43. A thick cylinder with internal diameter ‘d’ and outside diameter ‘2d’ is subjected to
internal pressure ‘p’. Then the maximum Hoop stress developed in the cylinder is
I (a) p
2
C (b) p
3
5
T (c) 3 p
E (d) 2p
44. In a thick cylinder pressurized from inside, the hoop stress is maximum at
(a) the centre of the wall thickness
(b) the outer radius
(c) the inner radius
(d) both the inner and outer radii
45. In Hill’s anisotropic plasticity theory, Hill developed his anisotropic yield criterion
A
building on Von Mises' concept of the plastic potential, and defined as (symbols
I used as usual notation)
(a) f (σij) = Constant
C (b) f (σij) = 𝜕𝑓/𝜕𝑖𝑗
(c) f (σij) = d∈ij
E
46. Theory of Anisotropic Yield Criteria to predict the
(a) macroscopic yielding of materials are crucial to modeling metallic materials to
ensureadequate performance
(b) failure prevention in a variety of applications
(c) a yield criterion allows a designer to determine whether a structure under loading
will exceed the limits of elastic deformation
47. In slip line field theory, the theory simplifies the governing equations for plastic
A solids by making assumption is/are
(a) Plane strain deformation i.e. displacement components u3 = 0, u1 and u2 are
I functions of x1and x2 only
C (b) Quasi-static loading
(c) No temperature changes and no body forces
T (d) All of the above
E 48. In deep drawing of sheets, the values of limiting draw ratio depend on
(a) percentage elongation of sheet metal
(b) yield strength of sheet metal
(c) type of press used
(d) thickness of sheet
Page 8 of 22
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 49. According to the upper bound theorem the rate of energy dissipation calculated form
the assumed velocity field is
I (a) always higher than that by the actual velocity field
(b) always lower than that by the actual velocity field
C (c) always equal to the actual velocity field
T
E 50. Flexible manufacturing allows for:
(a) Tool design and tool production
(b) Automated design
(c) Quick and inexpensive product changes
(d) Quality control
51. What precise movement does coordinate measuring machine have?

(a) Precise movement in x coordinate
(b) Precise movement in x and y coordinates
(c) Precise movement in y and z coordinates
A
(d) Precise movement in x, y and z coordinates
I
52. Rank order clustering as applied to manufacturing automation is
C (a) A technique of identifying process sequence in production of a component
(b) A just in time method
T (c) An approach of grouping the machines into cells in an FMS system
E (d) A tool to generate bill of materials
53. In which of the following machining manual part programming is done?

(a) CNC machining
(b) NC machining
(c) DNC machining
(d) FMS machining
54. Transfer machines can be defined as

(a) Material processing machines
A (b) Material handling machines
(c) Material processing and material handling machines
I
(d) Components feeders for automatic assembly
C
55. Machining centre is
T (a) An automatic tool changing unit
(b) A group of automatic machine tools
E (c) A next logical step beyond NC machines
(d) An NC machine tool
Page 9 of 22
A
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 56. Interpolation in the controller refers to control of which one of the following in a
CNC machine?
I (a) Loading/unloading of jobs on machine.
(b) Loading/unloading of tools from the tool changer.
C (c) Axes of machine for contouring.
(d) Coolant and miscellaneous function on machine.
T
E 57. In point-to-point type of NC system
(a) Control of position and velocity of the tool is essential
(b) Control of only position of the tool is sufficient
(c) Control of only velocity of the tool is sufficient
(d) Neither position nor velocity need to be controlled
58. NC contouring is an example of

(a) Continuous path positioning
(b) Point-to-point positioning
(c) Absolute positioning
A
(d) Incremental positioning
I
59. The function of interpolator in a CNC machine controller is to
C (a) Control spindle speed
(b) Coordinate feed rates of axes
T (c) Control tool rapid approach speed
E (d) Perform miscellaneous (M) functions (tool change, coolant control etc.)
60. Trajectory of a robot means

(a) Path traced by the end effector
(b) Kinematics of robot
(c) Robot joints
(d) Robot programming
61. The configuration of a robot using a telescoping arm that can be raised or lowered
on a horizontal pivot mounted on a rotating base is called
A (a) Polar
(b) Cylindrical
I
(c) Cartesian coordinate
C (d) Jointed arm
T 62. Which type of coordinate measuring machine is most suited for large heavy
workpieces?
E (a) Cantilever type
(b) Bridge type
(c) Horizontal boring mill type
(d) Floating bridge type
Page 10 of 22
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 63. The basic components of a flexible manufacturing system (FMS):

(a) Processing stations, material handling and storage, computer control system.
I (b) Tool library management and computer control.
(c) Tool offset downloading and machine control.
C (d) None of the above
T 64. The degree of freedom of a SCARA robot are
(a) Six
E (b) Five
(c) Four
(d) Three
65. In manufacturing management, the term dispatching is used to describe
(a) Dispatch of sales order
(b) Dispatch of factory mail
(c) Dispatch of finished product to the user
(d) Dispatch of work orders through shop floor
A
66. The routing function in a production system design is concerned with
I (a) Manpower utilization
(b) Machine utilization
C (c) Quality assurance of the product
(d) Optimizing material flow through the plan
T
67. Cellular manufacturing is suitable for
E (a) a single production in large volumes
(b) one off production of several varieties
(c) production with similar features made in batches
(d) large variety of products in large volume

1. robots take permissible actions only
2. all actions that are obligatory for robots are actually performed by them subject
to ties and conflicts among available actions
A 3. all permissible actions can be proved by the robot to be permissible and it can be
explained in ordinary English.
I Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
C (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
T
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
E
69. A flexible manufacturing system may be
(a) An automated assembly line
(b) Expensive to alter
(c) Very difficult to change when new products are introduced
Page 11 of 22
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A 70. Robots consist of three basic components: power supply unit, control (memory)
console and
I (a) Microcomputer
(b) Coaxial cable
C (c) Mechanical unit (arm)
(d) Software
T
E 71. Numerical control
(a) Applies only to milling machines
(b) Is a method for producing exact number of parts per hour
(c) Is a method for controlling by means of a set of instructions
72. Which of the following best describes a pick-and-place manipulator?

(a) Mainly used for large parts handling
(b) Capable of point-to-point operation
(c) Most flexible of all robots
A
(d) An intelligent robot
I
73. The axis of movement of a robot may include
C (a) elbow rotation
(b) wrist rotation
T (c) X-Y coordinate motion
E (d) all of the above
74. Automatic loading and unloading of materials can be accomplished by means of

(a) power push or pull device
(b) power roller, belt and chain
(c) automatic couple and uncouple
75. The essential physical components of FMS is

(a) potentially independent NC machine tools
A (b) a conveyance network to move parts and sometimes tools between machines and
fixturing stations
I
(c) an overall control network that coordinates the machine tools, the parts-moving
C elements and the workpieces
T
76. What is computer numerical control (CNC)?
E (a) CNC is a self-contained NC system for a single machine tool using a computer
controlled by a part program to perform basic NC functions.
(b) CNC is a self-contained system for a single operated manual controlled machine,
(c) CNC is a self-contained NC system for a multi machine tool operated by a
conventional technique.
Page 12 of 22
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A 77. The material handling is concerned with

(a) The identification of the various materials in the handling system.
I (b) To move raw material, work-in-process and tools.
(c) It must be performed safety and accurately
C (d) All of the above
T 78. In NC machine, preparatory word i.e. ‘g-word’ is used to
E (a) Prepare the NC controller for instructions that are to follow.
(b) Identify the block.
(c) Specify certain auxiliary function which may be available in the machine tool.
(d) Specify the cutting speed of the process.
79. In robotics, precision of movement is a complex issue, one of the attributes is spatial
resolution which refers to
(a) The smallest increment of motion at the wrist end that can be controlled by the
robot.
(b) The capability to position its wrist end at a given target point with in its work
A
volume.
I (c) The ability to position its wrist end back to a point in space.
C
80. In part programming
T (a) Programmer plans the process for the portions of the job to be accomplished by
E NC.
(b) Programmers are knowledgeable about the machining process
(c) Programmers are capable for planning the sequence of machining steps and
document these in a special format.
A 81. Consider the following statements:

I The magnitude of residual stresses in welding depends upon
1. Metal melted/deposited
C 2. Design of weldment
3. Support and clamping of components
T 4. Welding process used
E (a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
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A 82. In an arc welding process, the voltage and current are 25 V and 300 A respectively.
The arc heat transfer efficiency is 0.85 and welding speed is 8 mm/s. The net heat
I input (in J/mm) is
(a) 64
C (b) 797
(c) 1103
T (d) 79700
E
83. Consider the following statements:
In metal arc welding
1. Utilizes a consumable electrode
2. A welding torch used is connected to acetylene gas supply
3. The electrode and work piece are connected to the welding power supply
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
A
(d) 2 and 3 only
I
84. Which of the following effects are possible due to residual stresses in welding?
C 1. Reduce dimensional stability
2. Weld cracking
T 3. Effect on fatigue strength
E 4. Reduction in creep strength
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
85. Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists
List-I
A A. Welding of aluminium alloy
B. Ship building
I
C. Joining of HSS drill bit to shank
C D. Deep penetration precision welds
List-II
T 1. Submerged arc welding
2. Electron beam welding
E 3. TIG welding
4. Gas welding
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A Codes:
A B C D
I (a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 4 1 2 3
C (c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
T
E 86. In a DC arc welding operation, the voltage-arc length characteristics was obtained as
Varc = 20 + 5l, where arc length l was varied between 5 mm and 7 mm. Here, Varc
denotes the arc voltage in Volts. Assuming linear power source characteristics, the
open circuit voltage and the short circuit current for the welding operation are
(a) 45 V, 450 A.
(b) 75 V, 750 A
(c) 95 V, 950 A
(d) 150 V, 1500 A
Common data for question 87 &88

A
A weld is made using MIG welding process with the following welding parameters:
I Current: 200 A; Voltage: 25 V; Welding speed: 18 cm/min; Wire diameter: 1.2 mm;
Wire feed rate: 4 m/min. Thermal efficiency of the process: 65%.
C
87. The heat input per unit length of the weld in kJ/cm is
T (a) 0.18.
E (b) 0.28
(c) 10.83
(d) 16.66
88. The area of cross-section of weld bead in mm2 is

(a) 16.3
(b) 25.1
(c) 30.3
(d) 38.6
A 89. During a TIG welding process, the arc current and arc voltage were 50 A and 60 V
respectively, when the welding speed was 150 mm/min. In another process, the TIG
I
welding is carried out at a welding speed 120 mm/min at the same arc voltage and
C heat input to the material so that weld quality remains the same. The welding current
(in A) for this process is
T (a) 40.00.
(b) 44.72
E (c) 55.90
(d) 62.25
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A 90. For a resistance welding of two steel sheets (base metal) each of 3 mm thickness,
welding current was 10000 A applied for 0.2 s. The heat dissipated to the base metal
I was 1000 J. Assuming that the heat required for melting 1 mm3 volume of steel is 20
J and interfacial contact resistance between sheets is 0.0002 ohm, the volume (in
C mm3) of weld nugget is
(a) 100 mm3.
T (b) 150 mm3
E (c) 200 mm3
(d) 250 mm3
91. Consider the following statements in respect of the laser beam welding:
1. It can be used for welding any metal or their combinations because of very high
temperature of the focal points.
2. Heat affected zone is very large because of quick heating.
3. High vacuum is required to carry the process.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only.
A
(b) 2 and 3 only
I (c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3.
C
92. Hot cracks occur in the weld and fusion zone as the metal solidifies. Which of the
T following are the causes for hot cracks?
E 1. Presence of sulphur and phosphorus in the base metal
2. High carbon or alloy content of the base metal
3. Moisture in the joint or electrode
4. Joint restraint
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A 93. Match List -I (welding defects) with List-II (causes) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists
I
List-I
C A. Spatter
B. Distortion
T C. Slag inclusion
D. Porosity
E List-II
1. Damp electrodes
2. Arc blow
3. Improper cleaning in multi-pass welding
4. Poor joint selection
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A Codes:
A B C D
I (a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
C (c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 4 3 1
T
E 94. A casting of size 100 mm x 100 mm x 50 mm is required. Assume volume shrinkage
of casting as 2.6%. If the height of the riser is 80 mm and riser volume desired is 4
times the shrinkage in casting, what is the appropriate riser diameter in mm?
(a) 14.38
(b) 20.34
(c) 26.76
(d) 57.52
95. Gating ratio of 1:2: 4 is used to design the gating system for magnesium alloy
casting. This gating ratio refers to the cross-section areas of the various gating
A elements as given below:
I 1. Down sprue
2. Runner
C 3. Ingates
The sequence of the above elements in the ratio 1:2: 4 is
T (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 2
E
(c) 2, 3 and 1
(d) 3, 1 and 2
96. Match List -I (casting defects) with List-II (probable causes) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I
A. Hot tear
B. Shrinkage
C. Blow holes
A D. Cold shunt
List-II
I 1. Improper fusion of two streams of liquid metal
2. Low permeability of the sand mould
C 3. Volumetric contraction both in liquid and solid stage
T 4. Differential cooling rate
Codes:
E A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 4 3 2
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A 97. To analyze the shrinkage phenomenon, the gray cast iron blocks of size 100 mm x
50 mm x 10 mm with a central spherical cavity of diameter 4 mm are sand cast. The
I shrinkage allowance for the pattern is 3%. The ratio of the volume of the pattern to
volume of the casting is
C (a) 0.913
(b) 0.623
T (c) 0.475
E (d) 0.373
98. Proper gating design in metal casting

1. Influences the freezing range of the melt
2. Compensates the loss of fluidity of the melt
3. Facilitates top feeding of the melt
4. Avoids misrun
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
A
(c) 3 and 4
I (d) 1 and 4
C 99. A circular solid shaft is subjected to bending moment of 400 kN-m and a twisting
moment of 300 kN-m. On the basis of the maximum principal stress theory, the
T direct stress is σ and according to the maximum shear stress theory, the shear stress
E is τ. The ratio of σ/τ is
(a) 1/5
(b) 3/9
(c) 9/5
(d) 11/6
100. In wire drawing operation, the maximum reduction per pass for perfectly plastic
material in ideal condition is
(a) 68 %
(b) 63 %
A (c) 58 %
(d) 50 %
I
C 101. Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists
T List-I
A. Drawing
E B. Rolling
C. Wire drawing
D. Sheet metal operations using progressive dies
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A List-II
1. Soap solution
I 2. Camber
3. Pilots
C 4. Crater
5. Ironing
T Codes:
E A B C D
(a) 2 5 1 4
(b) 4 1 5 3
(c) 5 2 3 4
(d) 5 2 13
102. A wide strip is rolled to a final thickness of 6.35 mm with a reduction of 30 percent.
The roll radius is 50 cm and coefficient of friction is 0.2. Then angle of contact is
(a) 0.5 radians
(b) 0.0738 radians
A
(c) 0.0123 radians
I (d) 0.0235 radians
C 103. Consider the following statements

In comparison to hot working, in cold working
T 1. Higher forces are required
E 2. No heating is required
3. Less ductility is required
4. Better surface finish is obtained
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

A In a thick wall cylindrical pressure vessel subjected to internal pressure, the
tangential and radial stresses are
I
1. Minimum at outer side
C 2. Minimum at inner side
3. Maximum at inner side and both reduce to zero at outer wall
T 4. Maximum at inner wall but the radial stress reduces to zero at outer wall
E (a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 4 only
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A 105. A water main of 1 m diameter contains water at a pressure head of 100 m. The
permissible tensile stress in the material of the water main is 25 MPa. What is the
I minimum thickness of the water main? Take g = 10 m/s2.
(a) 10 mm
C (b) 20 mm
(c) 50 mm
T (d) 60 mm
E 106. Consider a body which is stressed so that it yields. A shear stress of 200 MPa is
acting on octahedral plane. What would be the yield strength of the material under
tension?
(a) 200 MPa
(b) 424.26 MPa
(c) 400.36 MPa
(d) 530.26 MPa
107. The load on a bolt consist of an axial pull of 10 kN together with a transverse shear
force of 5 kN. Take permissible tensile stress at elastic limit = 100 MPa. According
A
to Von Mises theory, diameter of the bolt is
I (a) 13.40 mm
(b) 16.80 mm
C (c) 20.50 mm
(d) 25.40 mm
T
108. A metal body is in plastic state under the action of following stress state
E 120 60 40
𝑇 = 60 −100 30 ; According to Von Mises yield condition, the yield
40 30 80
strength of material in tension and shear are
(a) 100.25 N/mm2, 200.40 N/mm2
(b) 140.83 N/mm2, 243.92 N/mm2
(c) 160.35 N/mm2, 250.40 N/mm2
(d) 180.85 N/mm2, 280.50 N/mm2
109. A hexagonal wire of side length 6 mm is drawn through a conical die of the same
A shape to a hexagonal wire of side 4.5 mm. The flat faces of the die make an angle of
10 degrees with wire axis. If the coefficient of friction is 0.06 and yield strength is
I
200 N/mm2, then pull (in N) required is
C (a) 8898.66 N
(b) 7767.88 N
T (c) 9876.98 N
(d) 6789.75 N
E
110. A cylindrical test specimen of diameter 10 mm and gauge length 50 mm is extended
to 65 mm. Neglect the elastic deformation. If the ultimate strength occurs at a force
of 25000 N and at an extension of 70 mm then true strain will be
(a) 0.1683
(b) 0.3364
(c) 0.1345
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ROLL NO.: PG2MFE63
A (d) 0.5123
111. In a point-to-point control NC machine, the slides are positioned by an integrally
I mounted stepper motor drive. If the specification of the motor is 10/pulse, and the
pitch of the lead screw is 3.6 mm, what is the expected positioning accuracy?
C (a) 1 µm
(b) 10 µm
T (c) 50 µm
E (d) 100 µm
Common statement for questions 112 to 114

A cylinder of 155 mm is to be reduced 150 mm diameter in single pass turning with
a feed of 0.15 mm/rev and cutting speed of 150 m/min on a NC lathe.
112. What are the programmed spindle speed?

(a) 268 rpm
(b) 288 rpm
(c) 308 rpm
A
(d) 328 rpm
I
113. What was the programmed feed rate?
C (a) 0.67 mm/s
(b) 0.69 mm/s
T (c) 0.77 mm/s
E (d) 0.82 mm/s
114. What is the material removal rate?

(a) 7.2 g/s
(b) 8.4 g/s
(c) 8.2 g/s
(d) 9.8 g/s
115. Consider the following characteristics of a robot:
1) The tip of the robot arm moves from one point to another with it’s in between
A path on being defined.
2) It can be used for drilling holes at different points in a workpiece
I 3) It can be used for V butt joint welding between two points
4) The memory capacity required for its control unit is low.
C
Which of these are the characteristics associated with a point to point robot?
T (a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
E (c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
116. Consider the following statements regarding programming logic controller (PLC):
1. It was developed to replace the microprocessor.
2. Wiring between devices and relay contacts are done in its program
3. Its input /output interface section connects it to external field devices.
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A 4. It requires extensive wiring in the application.

Which of the above statements are correct?
I (a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
C (c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
T
117. Which of following input data are needed for MRP?
E 1. Master production schedule
2. Inventory position
3. Machine capacity
4. Bill of material
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and3
(b) 2, 3 and4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
A
I The MRP inventory status file contains
1. Material on hand
C 2. Planned order
3. Planned order release
T
E (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
119. Consider the following characteristics:
1. Single machine tool
2. Manual material handling system
3. Computer control
4. Random sequencing of part of the machines
A
Which of the above characteristics are associated with flexible manufacturing
I system?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
C
(b) 1 and 2
T (c) 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
E
120. One of the joints of a robot is ‘L-joint’ with a range of 0.5 m. The bit storage
capacity of the robot controller is 10 bits for its joints, the control resolution is
(a) 0.4883 mm
(b) 0.2880 mm
(c) 0.3813 mm
(d) 0.1854 mm
Page 22 of 22
A
I
Answer Key
M.Tech. (Manufacturing Engineering /Production Technology)
Paper-II
01 Marks questions answer 02 Marks questions answer
1. (d) 41. (d) 81. (b)

2. (b) 42. (c) 82. (b)
3. (a) 43. (c) 83. (a)
4. (d) 44. (c) 84. (d)
5. (d) 45. (a) 85. (a)
6. (b) 46. (d) 86. (c)
7. (b) 47. (d) 87. (c)
8. (d) 48. (d) 88. (b)
9. (a) 49. (a) 89. (a)
10. (d) 50. (c) 90. (b)
11. (b) 51. (d) 91. (c)
12. (b) 52. (c) 92. (d)
13. (d) 53. (b) 93. (d)
14. (d) 54. (c) 94. (a)
15. (b) 55. (b) 95. (d)
16. (c) 96. (b)
56. (c)
17. (d) 97. (a)
57. (b)
18. (d) 98. (b)
58. (a)
19. (b) 99. (c)
59. (b)
20. (d) 100. (b)
60. (a)
21. (b) 101. (d)
22. (d)
61. (b)
102. (b)
23. (d) 62. (c)
103. (b)
24. (a) 63. (a)
104. (c)
25. (d) 64. (c)
105. (b)
26. (a) 65. (d)
106. (b)
27. (d) 66. (d)
107. (a)
28. (a) 67. (c)
108. (b)
29. (a) 68. (b)
109. (a)
30. (b) 69. (a)
110. (b)
31. (c) 70. (c)
111. (b)
32. (a) 71. (c)
112. (c)
33. (b) 72. (b) 113. (c)
34. (b) 73. (d) 114. (a)
35. (b) 74. (d) 115. (c)
36. (b) 75. (d) 116. (c)
37. (d) 76. (a) 117. (c)
38. (a) 77. (d) 118. (a)
39. (a) 78. (a) 119. (c)
40. (c) 79. (a) 120. (a)
80. (d)
ROLL NO.: PG1MEE60
A MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

PAPER-I
C
Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
I
ball point pen.
1. A partial differential equation has

a) one independent variable
b) two or more independent variables
A c) more than one dependent variable
d) equal number of dependent and independent variables
I
2 z 2 z
C 2. The partial differential equation 5  3  xy is classified as
x 2 y 2
T a) elliptic
b) parabolic
E c) hyperbolic
3. Consider the following statement

“The Z Transform is linear”
A Which is correct
a) Statement is True
I b) Statement is False
c) Statement is un-conditional
T
4. The order of difference equation yn 2  2 yn1  yn  0 is
E a) First
b) Second
Page 1 of 21
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A c) Tertiary
I
5. Which of the following statements applies to the bisection method used for finding roots of
C functions?
a) Converges within a few iterations
T
b) Guaranteed to work for all continuous functions
E c) Is faster than the Newton-Raphson method
d) Requires that there be no error in determining the sign of the function
6. The convergence of which of the following method is sensitive to starting value?

a) False position
b) Gauss seidal method
A c) Newton-Raphson method
d) All of these
I
C 7. The number of significant digits in the number 204.020050 is
a) 5
T b) 6
c) 8
E d) 9
8. In general, the ratio of truncation error to that of round off error is

a) 2:1
b) 1:1
A c) 1:2
d) 1:3
I
9. As soon as a new value of a variable is found by iteration, it is used immediately in the
C following equation, this method is called
a) Gauss-Jordan Method
T
b) Gauss-Seidal Method
E c) Jacobi’s Method
d) Relaxation Method
10. In application of Simpson’s 1/3rd rule, the interval h for closer approximation should be
a) even and small
b) even and large
A c) odd and small
I d) odd and large
C 11. Which of the following is a step-by-step method

a) Taylor’s
T b) Adams Basforth
c) Picard’s
E
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A
I “Runge-Kutta method is a self-starting method”
Which is correct
C a) Statement is True
b) Statement is False
T
13. Pivoting in the matrix means

a) Turning the matrix about any diagonal element
b) adding a small number to any two rows of matrix
c) subtracting a large number from any two columns of a matrix
I
14. The second order Runge-Kutta formula is
C a) modified Euler’s method
b) modified Gauss method
T c) modified Goodman method
d) modified Simo method
E

“Jacobi iteration method cannot be used to solve a system of non-linear equations”
Which is correct
a) Statement is True
A b) Statement is False
C
16. The eigen value of a square positive definite matrix Aobtained using Ax   x are
T a) real and complex
b) real and distinct
E c) complex and distinct
17. Eigen vectors of a matrix are

a) Orthogonal vectors
b) Orthonormal vectors
A
c) Euclidean vectors
I d) Stretch vectors
C 18. For an ill-conditioned equation Ax  b , the condition number   A A1 of matrix A is

T a) a large number
b) a real number
E c) can be positive or negative
d) all of the above
Page 3 of 21
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A 19. A function f(x) is piecewise continuous on a finite interval a  x  b if

a) f(x) is explicitly defined in the interval
I b) f(x) is continuous in the sub-intervals
c) f(x) has finite limits at the end points
C
d) All of the above
T 20. Laplace transform can be treated as a method of solving differential equation because
E a) it replaces operations of algebra by operation of calculus on transform
b) it replaces operations of calculus by operation of algebra on transform
c) it replaces operations of matrices by operation of algebra on transform
21. The Unit step function is also called

A a) Heaviside function
b) differential function
I
c) Fourier function
T 22. The triangular matrix is

a) if every element on one side of diagonal are Unity
E b) if every element on one side of diagonal are zero
c) all elements are zero except non-diagonal elements
d) all elements are zero except diagonal elements
23. Consider the following statement regarding determinant for matrices A and B
A “ AB  A B  B A  BA ”
Which is correct
I a) Statement is True
C b) Statement is False
E 24. If U is a square, complex matrix, then the following conditions are equivalent:
a) U is unitary.
b) the conjugate transpose U * is unitary.
c) U is invertible
d) All of the above
A
25. If a Hermitian matrix A is real, then
I a) it is symmetric
b) it is triangular
C c) it is diagonal
T
26. A set of linear equations is represented by the matrix equation Ax  b . The necessary
E condition for the existence of a solution for this system is
a) A must be invertible
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ROLL NO.: PG1MEE60
A b) b must be linearly depended on the columns of A

c) b must be linearly independent of the columns of A
I d) None of these
C 27. The adjoining figure shows four curves, A, B, C and D on for and a plot of
viscous shear stress verses velocity gradient for three fluids viz. Newtonian,
T
non-Newtonian, and ideal and and ideal solid. For ideal solid, the
E applicable curve is
a) Curve A
b) Curve B
c) Curve C
d) Curve D
A 28. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, then the value of 0.85 represents its
a) specific weight
I
b) specific mass
C c) specific gravity
d) specific density
T
29. A body is floating in a liquid. The normal pressure exerted by the liquid on the body acts at
E a) bottom surface of the body
b) centre of gravity of the body
c) metacentre
d) All points on the surface of the body
A 30. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction
of its volume depped in mercury
I a) 0.505
b) 0.515
C c) 0.525
d) 0.500
T
E 31. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
a) centriod of the volume of fluid vertically above the body
b) centre of the volume of the floating body
c) centre of gravity of the submerged body
A 32. The density of the water is 1000 kg/m3 at (in oC)
I a) 0
b) 2
C c) 4
d) 20
T
33. Separation of fluid is caused by
E
a) reduction of pressure in the direction of flow
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A b) reduction of the boundary layer thickness

c) presence of adverse pressure gradient
I d) presence of favourable pressure gradient
C 34. The shear stress developed in a lubricating oil of viscosity of 9.81 poise, filled between two
parallel plates 1 cm apart and moving with relative velocity of 2 m/sec is
T
a) 20 N/m2
E b) 19.62 N/m2
c) 29.62 N/m2
d) 40 N/m2
35. In a fully Laminar developed flow at an average velocity of 5 m/sec occurs in a pipe of 10 cm
radius. The velocity of fluid at 5 cm radius is
A a) 10 m/sec
b) 7.5 m/sec
I
c) 5.0 m/sec
C d) 2.5 m/sec
T 36. For a fluid flow, the volumetric flow rate Q, the acceleration due to gravity g and the fluid
head H form a dimensionless group, which is given by
E
gH 5
a) Q
Q
b) gh
A
gH 5
I Q
c)
C gH
d) Q
T
E 37. Consider steady laminar incompressible anti-symmetric fully developed viscous flow through
a straight circular pipe of constant cross-sectional area at a Reynolds number of 5. The ratio of
inertia force to viscous force on a fluid particle is
a) 5
b) 1/5
c) 0
A d) 3
I
38. Surface tension is due to
C a) viscous forces
b) cohesion
T c) adhesion
d) the difference between adhesive and cohesive forces
E
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A 39. When a flat plate of 0.1 m2 area is pulled at a constant velocity of 30 cm/sec parallel to
another stationary plate located at a distance 0.01 cm from it and the space in between is filled
I with a fluid of dynamic viscosity = 0.001 N-sec/m2, the force required to be applied is
a) 0.3 N
C b) 3 N
c) 10 N
T
d) 16N
E
40. A liquid compressed in a cylinder has a volume of 0.0113 m3 at 6.87 MPa pressure and a
volume of 0.0112 m3 at 13.73 MPa. The bulk modulus of elasticity for the liquid is
a) 2 GPa
b) 1.225 GPa
c) 0.775 GPa
A d) 0.515 GPa
I
41. At a certain point in the castor oil the shear stress is 0.216 Pa and the velocity gradient is
C 0.216 /sec. If the mass density of the castor oil is 959.42 kg/m3, the kinematic viscosity of the
oil will be
T a) 1.042 x 10-3 m2/sec
b) 1.042 x 10-4 m2/sec
E c) 2.042 x 10-2 m2/sec
42. In river models

a) Reynolds model law is the basic similitude criteria
A b) Froude model law is the basic similitude criteria
c) Both Reynolds and Froude model are equally important
I d) Distortion is occasionally present
C 43 The distance y from pipe boundary at which the point velocity is equal to the average velocity
for turbulent flow is (R is the radius of pipe)
T
a) 0.223R
E b) 0.323R
c) 0.423R
d) 0.523R
44. The shear stress in a fluid flowing in a circular pipe

a) is constant over the section
A b) is zero at the walls and increases linearly to the centre
I c) is zero at the centre and varies linearly with the radius
d) varies parabolically across the section
C
 p
T 45. The relation  is valid for a laminar flow between two plates when
y x
E a) both the plates are stationary
b) both the plates are moving
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A c) one plate is moving and the other is stationary

d) Any of the above
I
46. If a stream function   2xy then the velocity at a point (1,2) is equal to
C a) 2
T b) 4
c) 20
E d) 16
47. The vertical component of the pressure force on a submerged curved surface is equal to
a) its horizontal component
b) the force on a horizontal projection of the curved surface
A c) the weight of liquid vertically above the curved surface
d) the product of pressure at the centroid and surface area
I
48. A streamline and an equipotential line in a flow field
C a) are parallel to each other
T b) are perpendicular to each other
c) intersect at an acute angle
E d) are identical
49. A static fluid can have

a) non-zero normal and shear stress
b) negative normal stress and zero shear stress
c) positive normal stress and zero shear stress
A d) zero normal stress and non-zero shear stress
I 50. If there are m physical quantities and n fundamental dimensions in a particular process, the
number of non-dimensional parameters is
C
a) (m + n)
T b) (m × n)
c) (m – n)
E d) (m / n)
51. Pressure drop of flowing through a pipe (density 1000 kg/m3) between two points is measured
by using a vertical U-tube manometer. Manometer uses a liquid with density 2000 kg/m3. The
difference in height of manometric liquid in the two limbs of the manometer is observed to be
10 cm. The pressure drop between the two points is:
A
a) 98.1 MPa
I b) 981 MPa
c) 1962 MPa
C d) 19620 MPa
T
52. For a fluid element in a two-dimensional flow field (x-y plane), if it will undergo
E a) translation only
b) translation and rotation
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A c) translation and deformation

d) deformation only
I
C a) Dimensional analysis is used to determine the number of variables involved in a certain
phenomenon
T
b) The group of repeating variables in dimensional analysis should include all the
E fundamental
units.
c)Buckingham's theorem stipulates the number of dimensionless groups for a given
phenomenon.
d) The coefficient in Chezy's equation has no dimension.
Which of these are correct?
A a) a, b, c and d
b) b, c and d
I
c) a and d
C d) b and c
T 54. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (I) and Reason (II)
Assertion (I): The thickness of boundary layer is an ever increasing one as its distance from
E the leading edge of the plate increases.
Reason (II): In practice, 99% of the depth of the boundary layer is attained within a short
distance of the leading edge.
a) Both (I) and (II) are true and (II) is the correct reason for (I)
b) Both (I) and (II) are true but (II) is NOT the correct reason for (I)
A c) Both (I) and (II) are false
d) (I) is true but (II) is false
I
55. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
C a) Pascal’s Law
b) Newton’s Law of viscosity
T
c) Boundary layer theory
E d) Continuity equation
56. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is opened

a) steady
b) unsteady
c) laminar
I
57. The truncation error is caused by approximating
C a) irrational numbers
b) fractions
T c) rational numbers
d) exact mathematical procedures
E
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A 58. The figure shows the transfer of heat through a square cross section plate of some thickness.
The temperature on one side is T1 and on other side is T2. The temperature at any interface is
I x
given by T  T1  (T1  T2 ) . This case of heat transfer represents
L
C
a) steady state, two-dimensional heat transfer
T b) unsteady state, two-dimensional heat transfer
c) steady state, one-dimensional heat transfer
E d) unsteady state, one-dimensional heat transfer
59. The heat exchanger type shown in the

adjoining figure is
a) Concentric pipe parallel-flow,
b) fin-tube compact heat exchanger cores,
A
c) shell-and-tube heat exchanger
I d)cross-flow with unmixed fluids heat
exchanger
C
60. The main type of predictive models for the design and optimization of thermal system are
T a) Analog model, and Physical model
E b) Mathematical model, and Numerical model
c) Both (a) and (b) above
61. In the design and analysis of the thermal system, the thermal similarity is defined as
a) temperature profile in the model and prototype be geometrically similar
A b) convective profile in the model and prototype be geometrically similar
c) shape and size of the model and prototype be same
C
62. Few of the commonly use methods for obtaining the initial design of the system for further
T optimization are
a) Selection of components to meet given requirements and constraints
E b) Use of existing systems
c) Selection from a library of previous design
d) All of the above
63 Thermal systems are to be design and to be optimized for maximization of the variables. The
A commonly used maximization type variables for a general thermal system are
a) Efficiency, and Heat exchange rate
I b) Energy input for system, and rate of fuel consumed
T
64. The common approach for multi-objective optimization problem is
E a) State all Objective functions separately and satisfy each individually.
b) Combine all to a single Objective function as a trade-off
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A c) State all Objective functions separately and satisfy each one-by-one in pre-defined
sequence
C 65. The set of design that constitute the Pareto Set represent
a) formal solution in the design space to multi-objective optimization
T
b) Final solution in the global space to multi-objective optimization
E c) Least solution in the global space to multi-objective optimization
d) Maximum solution in the design space to multi-objective optimization
66. There are several approaches adopted for the search methods in optimization problems. The
commonly used search method type of optimization approach are
a) Elimination approach
A b) Hill-Climbing techniques
c) Constrained Optimization
I
d) All of the above
C
67. The degree of difficulty (D) for the optimization problem is defined as (N) is the total number
T of terms in the objective function and in constraints, and n is the number of independent
variables)
E
a) D  N  (n  1)
b) D  N  (n  1)
c) D  N  (n  1)
A 68. Few of the widely used computational environment for the engineering design and
I optimization of the system are
a) MATLAB, MATHCAD etc
C b) OBJECT ORIENTED DESIGN TOOL
E 69. NTU method is used in the design of heat exchangers when
a) The outlet temperatures of both fluid are not known
b) The outlet temperatures of both fluid are known
c) The inlet temperatures of both fluids are known
d) The outlet temperature of one fluid is known and other fluid is not known
A
70. An automobile radiator is an example of
I a) Counter flow heat exchanger
b) Cross flow heat exchanger
C
c) Regenerative heat exchanger
T d) Recuperative heat exchanger
E
71.The fluid is treated is incompressible if
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A a) Enthalpy of the fluid does not change appreciably

b) Density of the fluid does not change appreciably
I c) Mass of the fluid does not change appreciably
C
72. According to the Boyle’s Law (p is pressure, m is mass and  is density, v is volume)
T
a) p   constant
b) p v  constant
E
c) p m  constant
d) v   constant
73. The amount of radiation mainly depends on

A
a) nature of body
I b) temperature of body
c) type of surface of body
T 74. The condition of perfect vacuum I.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at
a) a temperature of (-)273 K
E
b) a temperature of (-)273 oC
c) a temperature of 273 K
d) a temperature of 0 oC at negative pressure
75. As per the law, the reversible polytropic process is (p is pressure, v is volume)
a) pv  constant
n
A
 pv   constant
n
I b)
 p v   constant
n
C c)
T
76. Prandtl Number is expressed as
E
Inside diameter of tube
a)
Equivalent thcikness of film
viscous diffusion rate
b)
thermal diffusion rate
A elastic diffusion rate
c)
viscous diffusion rate
C
T
E 77. In free convection heat transfer, Nusselt number is a function of
a) Grashoff Number and Reynolds Number
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A b) Grashoff Number and Prandtl Number

c) Prandtl Number and Reynolds Number
I d) Grashoff Number, Prandtl Number and Reynolds Number
C 78. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD) for a heat exchanger is given by
t2  t1
T a)
log  t2 t1 
E t2  t1
b)
log  t1 t 2 
log  t2  t1 
c)
 t2 t1 
A log  t2  t1 
d)
I  t1 t 2 
C
79. Lapace Transform is a
T a) Linear transform
b) binomial transform
E c) canonical transform
d) none of these
80.Division by zero during forward elimination steps in Naïve Gaussian elimination of the set of
equations [A][X ] = [B] implies the coefficient matrix [A]
a) is invertible
A
b) is nonsingular
I c) may be singular or nonsingular
d) is singular
C
T
E x2 y 2
81. The partial differential equation for 2 z   is given by
a 2 b2
x z y z
a) 2 z  
a x b y
x z y z
b) 2 z  
A b x a y
z z
I c) 2 z  x  y
x y
C z z
d) 2 z  x 2  y 2
T x y
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A 2 y 2  y
2
82. The possible solution of the wave equation  c is given by
t 2 x 2
I
 
a) y  c1 cos px2  c2 sin px 2 c3 cos  cpt   c2 sin  cpt 
C b) y   c1 cos px  c2 sin px  c3 cos cpt   c2 sin cpt 
T c) y   c1 cos px  c2 sin pt  c3 cos cpx   c2 sin cpt 
83. The following is true for the following partial differential equation used in mechanics
z  3 z z
 3  6z  0
t x x
a) linear; 3rd order
A
b) nonlinear; 3rd order
I c) linear; 1st order
d) nonlinear; 1st order
C
 1 
T The solution value of L1  2
84.
  s  a  
E
at
a) e
 at
b) e
 at
c) te
at
d) te
A
85. If F    is the Fourier transform of f(x), then the Fourier transform of f(ax) is
I
1 
a) F 
C a a
T 1 a
b) F  
a 
E

c) aF  
a
a
d) aF  

A 1
dx
I
86. The value of  1 x
0
by Simpson rule is
a) 0.96315
C
b) 0.63915
T c) 0.69315
d) 0.69351
E
87. The finite difference form of  2u x 2 is
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A ui 1, j  2ui , j  ui 1, j

a)
h2
I ui 1, j  2ui , j  ui 1, j
b)
C h2
ui 1, j  2ui , j  ui 1, j
T c)
h2
88. Consider the following two statements:

i. The maximum number of linearly independent column vectors of a matrix A is
called the rank of A.
ii. If A is an n x n square matrix, it will be non-singular is rank A = n.
A
With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies?
I a) Both the statements are false
b) Both the statements are true
C c) (i) is true but (ii) is false.
d) (i) is false but (ii) is true.
T
1
E 89. The L1  n  is possible only when “n” is
s 
a) zero
b) -ve integer
c) +ve integer
d) negative rational
A
90. Which one of the following results is correct
I n 1
a) x  nx
n
C     n 1
b) x  nx
n
c)  e  e
n x x
T
E
91. The value of upward velocity of a rocket as a function of time are given in Table
Time (t) in sec 0 10 15 20 22.5 30
vel (m/sec) 0 227.04 362.78 517.35 602.97 901.67
The Lagrange weighting function for 1st order polynomial using Lagrange interpolation of
A data for finding the velocity at 16 sec are
a) 0.8, 0.2
I b) 0.7, 0.3
c) 0.6, 0.4
C
T
92. A cubical block with dimension 10 mm long, 2.5 mm wide and 2 mm height is to be carried
E through water. The weight of the block is 196200 N. The minimum depth of the waterway
required to carry the block will be (g=9.81 m/sec2)
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A a) 2m
b) 1m
I c) 0.8 m
C
93. Every valve and fitting in fluid flow line introduces resistance to flow. The resistance offered
T
is expressed as equivalent length to pipe diameter (l/D) ratio. Arrange the following devices in
E decreasing order of l/D ratio
A. Gate valve fully open, B. 90o standard elbow,
C. Globe valve fully open, D. Gate valve 25% open,
E. Angle valve fully open
a) D, C, E, B, A
b) D, E, C, A, B
A c) B, C, E, A, D
d) D, C, E, A, B
I
C 94. In the case of a laminar flow, the friction factor f is independent of the relative roughness and
is only a function of the Reynolds number Re. In that case, f is proportional to
T a) Re
b) 1/Re
E c) (1/Re)2
95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I: List-II
A Name of Number Significance and field of use
P Weber Number 1. Viscous force/load force (lubrication)
I Q Truncation Number 2. Net positive suction head (cavitation in pumps)
R Thoma number 3. Shear stress/normal stress (viscous flow)
C
S Sommerfield number 4. Inertia force/Surface tension force (Bubble
T formation)
E a) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
c) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
A 96. In a turbulent boundary layer over the entire length of a plate, the boundary layer thickness
increases with its distance X from the leading edge as
I a) X1/2
b) X1/5
C c) X2/5
d) X4/5
T
E 97. When a cylinder is placed in an ideal fluid and the flow is uniform, the pressure coefficient is
equal to
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A a) 1  sin 2 
b) 1  2sin 2 
I
c) 1  4sin 2 
C d) 1  8sin 2 
T 98. Mach number is the ratio of inertia forces to

a) Pressure force
E
b) Elastic force
c) Surface tension force
d) Gravity force
99. A rectangular tank of square cross section is having its height equal to twice the length of any
A side at the base. If the tank is filled up with a liquid, the ratio of the total hydrostatic force on
any vertical wall to that at the bottom is
I a) 2.0
C b) 1.5
c) 1.0
T d) 0.5
E 100. A block of Aluminium having mass of 12 kg is suspended by a wire and lowered until
submerged into a tank containing oil of relative density of 0.8. Taking the relative density of
Aluminium as 2.4, the tension in the wire will be (take g=10 m/sec2)
a) 12 kN
b) 800 N
c) 120 N
A
d) 80 N
I
u y
101. The velocity distribution in the boundary layer is given as  , where u is the velocity at a
C us 
T distance y from the boundary, us is the free stream velocity and  is the boundary layer
thickness at a certain distance from the leading edge of a plate. The ratio of displacement to
E momentum thickness is
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
A
102. According to Blasius law, the local skin friction coefficient in the boundary layer over a flat
I plate is given by (Re is the Reynolds number)
0.332
C a)
Re
T 0.664
b)
E Re
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A 0.647
c)
Re
I
1.328
d)
C Re
T f ( x  h)  f ( x )
103. The truncation (true) error in evaluating f '(2) for f ( x)  x 2 by f '( x)  with
E h
h  0.2 is given by
a) 0.2
b) (-)0.2
c) 4.0
d) (-)4.2
A
I 104. The energy balance at a furnace wall for a heat exchanger, under steady-state conditions, the
applicable equation is (Th is the temperature of the heater radiating to the inner surface at
C temperature T, Ta is the temperature of air adjacent to the inner surface, and Ts is the outer
surface temperature of the wall, d is the thickness, and other symbols have usual meaning)
T
  k
a)  Th4  T 4  h T  Ta   (T  Ts )
d
E
  k
b)  Th4  T 4  h T  Ta   (T  Ts )
d
 k
c)  Th4  T 4  (T  Ts )  h T  Ta 
d
I 105. The main strategy adopted for the validation of the thermal model is
a) Physical behaviour of the system
C b) Comparison with results from simpler system
c) Comparison with data from full scale system
E
106. In the design of a thermal system, the function for the determination of the temperature at a
point is given by
 
f (T )  3.402x10-8 Th4  T 4  40(T  Ta )
The surface wall is maintained at Th  850 oC and surrounding temperature is Ta  350 oC .
A The problem being non-linear is solved using non-linear optimization algorithm using
T f (T )  Ti f (Ti 1 )
I Ti 1  i 1 i , where i  1, i, i  1 represents the values for three consecutive
f (Ti )  f (Ti 1 )
C iterations. Assuming Ti 1  350 oC and Ti  850 oC , the next value of temperature is
T a) 550.0605
b) 581.5302
E c) 601.5302
d) 680.0605
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A
107. For the designing of thermal systems, the simulation of the process is an important step. The
I simulation of the any fluid/thermal system is performed to
a) Evaluate different design for selection of acceptable design
C b) Determine safety limits of the system
c) Improve or modify the system
T
d) All of the above
E
108. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD) of a counterflow heat exchanger is
20oC. The cold fluid enter at 20oC and the hot fluid enters at 100oC. Mass flow rate of the cold
fluid is twice that the hot fluid. Specific heat at constant pressure of the hot fluid is twice that
of the cold fluid. The exit temperature of the cold fluid
a) is 40oC
A b) is 60oC
c) is 80oC
I
d) cannot be determined
C
109. A thermal system is to be designed to maintain the temperature in the range -15 to -5 oC
T while, the outside temperature varies from 15 to 22 oC. The total thermal load on the unit is 20
kW. Assuming a safety factor of 1.32, the thermal system should be designed for the
E approximate thermal load of (assume 1 kW = 3.517 Tons)
a) 7.5 Tons
b) 12.5 Tons
c) 15.5 Tons
d) 20 Tons
A
110. In the design of a thermal system, the function for the determination of the temperature at a
I point is given by
C  
f (T )  3.402x10-8 Th4  T 4  40(T  Ta )
The surface wall is maintained at Th  850 oC and surrounding temperature is Ta  350 oC .
T
The problem being non-linear is solved using non-linear optimization algorithm using
E T f (T )  Ti f (Ti 1 )
Ti 1  i 1 i , where i  1, i, i  1 represents the values for three consecutive
f (Ti )  f (Ti 1 )
iterations. Assuming Ti 1  631oC and Ti  646 oC , the value of the given function at the next
value of temperature is
a) 0.001
A b) 0.099
I c) 0.109
d) 1.001
C
T
E
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A 111. In an algebraic solution step, the solution to variables X is obtained by solving equation
AX  B . At the last step of the solution the relevant matrices are given by
I  4x104 16.005 12.013  10 
   
C A 0 5.025 17.251 , B   127 
 0 0.006  16x106 
 0  
T
The determinant of the coefficient matrix is given by
E a) 1.206x10-5
b) 1.260x10-6
c) 1.602x10-7
d) 1.206
2 z
A 112. A simple partial differential equation given by  z  0, and it is given
x 2
I z
x  0, z  e y , &  1 , The solution for this equation is
C x
a) z  sin x  e y cos x
T b) z  e y sin x  cos x
E c) z  e y  sin x  cos x 
113. During the eigen function expansion, if un n0 is the sequence of eigenfunctions of a Sturm-

Liouville problem on an interval [a, b] of the real axis, and f is any function defined on this
A interval, then f is given by ( cn are the constants)
1
I a) f ( x)   cnun ( x)
0
C 
b) f ( x)   cnun ( x)
T 0
 
E c) f ( x)   cnun ( x)
x 0

d)
x n cnun ( x)dx
f ( x)  
A 114.The value of x that satisfies f ( x)  0 is called the

a) root of an equation f ( x)  0
I b) root of a function f ( x )
C c) zero of an equation f ( x)  0
T
E
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A 115. The speed of propagation of a small amplitude wave in quite water with depth y is
a) 2gy
I
b) 2gy 2
C
c) gy
T d) gy 2
E
116. Which one of the following statements is correct for a fully developed pipe flow
a) The velocity profile is changing continuously
b) Pressure gradient is greater than the wall shear stress
c) Pressure gradient balances the wall shear stress only and has a constant value
d) Inertia force balances the wall shear stress
A
117. The ratio of total emissive power of a Grey body to total emissive power of black body at
I same temperature is known as
a) Absorptivity
C b) Reflectivity
T c) Emissivity
d) Transmissivity
E
118. In a heat exchanger, the inside heat transfer coefficient hi= 5 kW/m2-oC and outside heat
transfer coefficient ho= 50 W/m2-oC. If the thermal conductivity of the wall is neglected, then
overall heat transfer coefficient is
a) nearer to hi
b) nearer to ho
A c) nearer to 2525 W/m2-oC
d) nearer to 500 W/m2-oC
I
119. The heat exchangers generally fail under following conditions
C a) Choking of tubes and Increase of tube pressure
T b) Failure to clean the tube and Excessive and hard scaling
c) Increased percentage of non-corrosive material in tube material
E d) Both (a) and (b) above
120. A body at 100 oC is cooled to 80 oC in surrounding air at 30 oC in 12 minutes. The time taken
to cool the same body from 80 oC to 60 oC in the same atmosphere will be
a) 12 min
b) less than 12 min
A c) more than 12 min
d) Unpredictable
I
C
T
E
Page 21 of 21
PG1ME E60
ANSWER KEY 1
Subject: Mechanical Engineering
Paper: 1

1. b 41 a 81. c
2. a 42 b 82. b
3. b 43 a 83. b
4. b 44 c 84. c
5. b 45 d 85. a
6. c 46 c 86. c
7. d 47 c 87. b
8. a 48 b 88. b
9. b 49 c 89. c
10. a 50 c 90. b
11. b 51 b 91. a
12. b 52 b 92. c
13. a 53 d 93. a
14. a 54 d 94. b
15. a 55 d 95. b
16. b 56 b 96. d
17. b 57 d 97. a
18. d 58 c 98. b
19. d 59 c 99. c
20. b 60 c 100. d
21. a 61 a 101. c
22. b 62 d 102. d
23. a 63 a 103. b
24. d 64 b 104. a
25. a 65 a 105. d
26. a 66 d 106. b
27. d 67 a 107. d
28. c 68 a 108. c
29. d 69 a 109. a
30. b 70 b 110. b
31. d 71 b 111. a
32. c 72 a 112. a
33. c 73 d 113. b
34. b 74 b 114. a
35. c 75 a 115. c
36. c 76 b 116. c
37. a 77 b 117. c
38. b 78 a 118. b
39. a 79 a 119. d
40. c 80 c 120. c
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

PAPER-II
C Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
ball point pen.
I
T
E
1. A string of length l is fixed at both ends. The string is vibrating in two segments. The
wavelength of the corresponding wave will be
a) l
b) l/2
A c) l/4
I
2. The name of the device used for investigating the vibration of a wire is
C a) Barometer
b) Stroboscope
T
c) Sonometer
E d) Accelerometer
3. The frequency of the string under tension is 100 Hz. To increase the frequency of the string to
400 Hz, the tension in the string should be increased by
a) 2 times
b) 4 times
A c) 8 times
I d) 16 times
C 4. Fundamental natural frequency obtained by Rayleigh‟s method is

a) Always larger than the exact value
T b) Always smaller than the exact value
c) Can be larger or smaller than the exact value
E
d) Equal to the exact value
Page 1 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 5. Holzer‟s method is used to find the natural frequency of

a) Undamped system
I b) Damped system
c) Semi definite system
T
6. The acceleration in simple harmonic motion is proportional to
E a) length of pendulum
b) Angular velocity
c) Displacement
d) All of the above
7. Which of these techniques is/are used in machine vibration monitoring techniques?

A a) Time domain
b) Frequency domain
I
c) Quefrency domain
T 8. The natural frequency of a spring-mass system on earth is n . The natural frequency of this
E system on the moon (gmoon = gearth/6) is
a) n
b) 0.408n
c) 0.204n
d) 0.167n
A
9. When the axial force approaches the Euler buckling load, the fundamental frequency of the
I
beam reaches
C a) Infinity
b) The frequency of a taut string
T c) Natural frequency
d) Zero
E
10.The following function plays an important role in the experimental modal analysis
a) Time-response function
b) Modal-response function
c) Frequency-response function
I 11. The method of subjecting a system to a known force as an initial condition and then releasing
is known as
C a) Step relaxation
b) Excitation by electromagnetic shaker
T
c) Impactor
Page 2 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 12.During the initial running-in period, usually the deterioration of a machine

a) Decreases
I b) Increases
c) Can decrease or increase
C d) Remains constant
T 13.What is meant by the “node point”
a) the point at which amplitude of vibration is maximum
E
b) the point at which amplitude of the vibration is minimum
c) The point at which amplitude of vibration is zero
14. The ……….method is more extensively applied to torsional systems, although the method is
A equally applicable to linear systems
a) Rayleigh‟s
I b) Stodola‟s
c) Holzer‟s
C d) Dunkerley‟s
T
15. When a transducer is used in conjunction with another device to measure vibration, it is called
E a
a) Vibration sensor
b) Vibration actuator
c) Vibration pickup
d) Vibration detector
A 16. What will be the frequency ratio when the amplitude in forced vibration is maximum (  is the
I damping ratio)
C
a) 1  2 
2
T b)  1  2  2
E c) 1  2 
2
d)  1  2  2
17. If a system is subjected to a suddenly applied non-periodic force, the response will be
a) Periodic
A b) Transient
I c) Steady
d) None
C
18. The configuration of a system vibrating at one of its natural frequency is called
T a) Natural mode
b) Natural frequency
E c) Solution
d) None
Page 3 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 19. When the mass of a critically damped single degree of freedom system is deflected from its
equilibrium position and released, it will
I a) Return to equilibrium position without oscillation
b) Oscillate with increasing time period
C c) Oscillate with decreasing amplitude
d) Oscillate with constant amplitude
T
20. In a forced vibration with viscous damping, the maximum amplitude occurs when forced
E frequency is
a) Equal to natural frequency
b) Slightly less than natural frequency
c) Slightly greater that natural frequency
d) Zero
A
21. When a two-degree of freedom system are subjected to a harmonic force, the system vibrate at
I the
a) Frequency of applied force
C b) Smaller natural frequency
c) Larger natural frequency
E
22. A two degree of freedom of system, which has two natural frequencies, when disturbed will
vibrate with
a) Its lower frequency
b) Its higher frequency
c) Both the natural frequency
A d) Any of these two natural frequencies
I 23. A rotary system having damping coefficient of 50 N-s-m/rad, when twisted with an angular
velocity of 2 rad/s will experience the damping torque of
C a) 50 N-m
T b) 100 N-m
c) 25 N-m
E d) 200 N-m
24. For a vibrating body under steady state forced vibration, if ratio  n is very low, the phase
angle would tend to approach
a) 0o
b) 90o
A c) 180o
I d) 270o
C 25. A machine mounted on a single coil spring has a period of free vibration of T, If the spring is
cut into four equal parts and placed in parallel and the machine is mounted on them, then the
T period of free vibration of the new system will become
a) 16T
E b) 4T
Page 4 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A T
c)
4
I T
d)
C 16
T 26. Which among the following is the value of static deflection for a fixed beam with central
point load?
E
Wl 3
a)
192 EI
Wl 2
b)
192 EI
A Wl 3
c)
384 EI
I
Wl 3
d)
C 3 EI
T 27. In a multi degree of freedom system the normal mode of vibration occurs when one mode
E shape corresponds to a value which is
a) Unity
b) Zero
c) Infinity
A 28. In a two-rotor torsional system which is also known as a degenerate system, the square of the
non-zero natural frequency is given by:
I K t ( J1  J 2 )
a)
C J1 J 2
K t ( J1 J 2 )
T b)
J1  J 2
E J1 J 2
c)
K t ( J1  J 2 )
( J1  J 2 )
d)
K t ( J1 J 2 )
A
29. Which of the following vibrations are classified according to magnitude of actuating force?
I a) Torsional vibrations
b) Deterministic vibrations
C c) Transverse vibrations
d) All of the above
T
E
Page 5 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 30. In which type of vibrations, amplitude of vibration goes on decreasing in every cycle?
a) Damped vibrations
I b) Undamped vibrations
c) Both (a) and (b)
T
31.   cx  kx  0 . For
The governing differential equation for a linear vibration system is mx
E torsional system, the term „m‟ is replaced by
a) G, the modulus of rigidity
b) I , the mass moment of inertia
c) W, the weight of the system
d)  , angle in radians
A 32. What is the function of the controller in active vibration isolation systems?
I a) Detect vibrations to be controlled
b) Reposition the masses
C c) Interpret detected vibrations and execute commands
d) All of the above
T
33. Which of the following factors are not responsible for unbalancing in rotating systems
E
a) Errors
b) Tolerances
c) Shape of the rotor
A 34. The critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural frequency
of the system in
I a) Transverse vibrations
b) Torsional vibrations
C c) Longitudinal vibrations
T d) None of the mentioned
E 35. What is meant by phase difference or phase angle in forced vibrations?

a) Difference between displacement vector (xp) and velocity vector Vp
b) Angle in which displacement vector (xp) leads force vector by F0 sin t
c) Angle in which displacement vector (xp) lags force vector by F0 sin t
A
36. The energy dissipated per cycle in viscous damping with damping constant „c‟ during simple
I harmonic motion x(t )  X sin  dt , is given by ______
C a)  c X 2
b)  X 2
T c)  c
E d)  c X
Page 6 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 37. According to D‟Alembert‟s principle, mx   cx  kx  0 is the differential equation for a

damped free vibration having single degree of freedom. What will be the solution to this
I differential equation, if the system is critically damped?
a) x   A  Bt  et
C
b) x  Xet  sin t   
T
c) x   A  Bt  et
E d) x  Xet  cos t   
38. Transmissibility is the ratio of _____

a) Force transmitted to the supporting structure and force impressed upon the system
b) Displacement amplitude of mass and displacement amplitude of supporting structure
A c) Both (a) and (b)
I
C 39. An old pendulum clock is found to be running slow. How to make it run correct?
a) Reduce the length of the pendulum
T b) Increase he length of the pendulum
c) Reduce the mass of the pendulum
E d) Increase the mass of the pendulum
40. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to maximum
potential energy at extreme position?
a) Energy method
A b) Rayleigh‟s method
c) Equilibrium method
C 41. Rolling element bearing are also classified as

a) Hydrostatic bearings
T
b) Journal Bearing
E c) Antifriction bearing
d) Torsional bearing
42. Tapered roller bearing can take

a) Radial load only
b) Axial load only
A c) Both radial and axial load and the ratio of these being less than unity
d) Both radial and axial load and the ratio of these being greater than unity
I
C 43. Spherical roller bearing are normally used
a) for increased radial load
T b) for increased thrust load
c) when there is less radial load
E d) To compensate for angular misalignment
Page 7 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 44. Removal of metal particles from the race way of a rolling contact bearing is a kind of failure
of bearing is known as
I a) Pitting
b) Wearing
C c) Spalling
d) Scuffing
T
E 45. What are the sources of friction inside the bearing?
a) Friction due to load
b) Friction due to sliding
c) Friction due to churning action of the load
d) All of the above
A 46. On what factors the load capacity of a bearing depends

a) Operational speed of the bearing and the contact angle
I
b) Lubrication behaviour
C c) Material properties of rings and rolling element
d) All of the above
T
47. Load capacity of a cylindrical contact bearing compared to spherical contact bearing is
E a) Higher
b) Smaller
c) Similar
d) Cannot not be compared without specifying the dimensions.
A 48. When  and Young‟s Modulus of Elasticity E remain constant, the energy absorbing
capacity of the part subjected to dynamic forces is a function of its
I a) Length
b) Cross Section
C c) Volume
E 49. Which one of the following is the most conservative fatigue failure criterion?
a) Soderberg Method
b) Modified Goodman Method
c) ASME Elliptic Method
d) Gerber‟s Method
A 50. The yield strength of a steel shaft is twice its endurance limit. Which one of the following
I torque fluctuations represent the most critical situation according to Soderberg‟s Method?
a) -T to +T
C b) -T/2 to + T
c) 0 to T
T d) +T/2 to +T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 51. What are the basic modes of failure

a) Failure by elastic strain
I b) Failure by General yielding
c) Failure by fracture
T
52. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
E a) 103 cycles
b) 104 cycles
c) 106 cycles
d) 109 cycles
53. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of

A a) Elastic limit to Working stress
b) Elastic limit to Yield stress
I
c) Endurance limit to the Working stress
C d) Young‟s Modulus to the Ultimate tensile strength
T 54. What is the value of fatigue stress concentration factor, when the theoretical stress
concentration factor is 1.62 and the notch sensitivity is equal to 0.9?
E a) 1.558
b) 2.358
c) 3.162
d) 3.558
A 55. Fuzzy logic is a form of

a) Two-valued logic
I b) Crisp set logic
c) Many-valued logic
C d) Binary set logic
T
56. What is the Fuzzy Approximation Theorem(FAT) ?
E a) A fuzzy system can model any continuous system
b) The conversion of fuzzy logic to probability.
c) A continuous system can model any fuzzy system.
d) Fuzzy patches covering a series of fuzzy rules.
A represented by
I a) Fuzzy set
b) Crisp set
C c) Binary set
d) True set
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 58.Which of the following is not true regarding the principles of fuzzy logic?
a) Fuzzy logic is a concept of `certain degree'.
I b) Fuzzy logic follows the principle of Aristotle and Buddha.
c) Japan is currently the most active users of fuzzy logic.
C d) Boolean logic is a subset of fuzzy logic.
T 59. Martensite is a supersaturated solution of carbon in
a) Alpha iron
E b) Beta iron
c) Gamma iron
d) Delta iron
60. 30C8 steel has its yield strength of 400 N/mm2 and Modulus of Elasticity of 200 GPa.
Assuming the material to obey Hooke‟s Law upto yielding, what is the proof resilience?
A a) 0.8
I b) 0.7
c) 0.6
C d) 0.4
T 61. For a Rhombohedral space lattice, which one of the following is correct?
a)       90o
E
b)       90o
c)     90o  
d)       90o
62. Malleability is the property by which a metal or alloy can be plastically deformed by applying
A a) Tensile stress
b) Bending stress
I c) Shear stress
C d) Compressive stress
T 63. Babbitts are used for

a) Gears
E b) Bearings
c) Bolts
d) Clutch liners
64. Which one of the following is correct for “Burger‟s Vector” in screw dislocation
a) Perpendicular to the dislocation line
A b) Inclined to the dislocation line
c) Parallel to the dislocation line
I d) Opposite to the dislocation line
C
65. What are the metal requirements to have creep resistance property?
T a) Low melting point
b) High oxidation resistance
E c) High malleability strength.
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A 66. Shape factor is the property which depends

a) Only on the Ultimate strength of the material
I b) Only on the yield strength of the material
c) Only on the geometry of the section
C d) Both on the yield strength and shear strength of the material
T
67. The most economical section for a column is
E a) Square section
b) Tubular section
c) Circular section
d) Trapezium cross section
68. The performance indices of a shaft, which is loaded in torsion, with minimum cost based on
A stiffness limited design is given by (  is density and G is shear modulus)
I a) 
G
b) 
C
2 G
T
c)

E G
d)

2G
69. The performance of the element can be described by
a) Specified functional requirement
A b) Specified geometric parameters
c) Specified material properties
I
d) All of the above
C
70. Shape factor for a beam subjected to bending load only (I is 2nd moment of area, A is the
T cross-sectional area)
12I
E a)
A2
I
b)
12 A2
12A2
c)
A I
I
71. Material index characterizes the
C a) Performance of a material in a given application and the material's properties.
b) Performance of a material in a given functional requirements,
T
c) Performance of a material for specified geometry
E d) All of the above
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ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 72. From a phenomenological standpoint the ductility of metallic alloys can be improved
a) by permanently providing strain hardening during deformation that opposes any
I geometrical softening effects
b) by machining and making the smooth the cross-section
C c) by heating and oil quenching
T
E 73.Which of the following frequency range represents audible frequency range of humans?
a) Below 20Hz
b) Between 20Hz and 20 kHz
c) Between 20 kHz and 200 kHz
A 74.The Fullarton Tachometer has

a) a variable length cantilever strip with a mass attached at one of its ends
I
b) a fixed length cantilever strip with a mass attached at one of its ends
C c) a variable length column strip with a mass attached at one of its ends
T
75. In a vibration setup, the vibrating force created by two masses (each of mass m) rotating at an
E angular velocity of  at Radius R is
a) F  2m 2 R cos(t )
b) F  4m 2 R cos(t )
c) F  m 2 R cos(2t )
I 76. A decibel (dB) of a quantity (such as power, P) is defined as

 P 
C a) dB  log10  
 Pref 
T
 P 
b) dB  10 log10  
E  Pref 
P 
c) dB  10 log10  ref 
 P 
A 77. The deformation factor C in the Buckingham‟s equation for gear design is given by (k is the
form tooth factor, q is the notch factor, Ep and Eg are Modulus of elasticity for pinion and
I
gear)
C k
a)
T  1 1 
  
 E p Eg 
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A k
b)
 1 1 
I   
 E p Eg 
C q
c)
T  1 1 
  
E  E p Eg 
78. Two spur gears of 20o full depth involute system are transmitting motion with a gear ratio of
2. The ratio of the base circle radii of the gears would be
a) 1.02
A b) 0.70
I c) 0.50
d) 0.30
C
79. Euler's formula is applicable only (  c is the crushing stress and E is Young‟s Modulus)
T 1. for short columns
2. for long columns
E
3. if slenderness ratio is greater than  2 E  c
4. if crushing stress < buckling stress
5. if crushing stress ≥ buckling stress
Which is the correct option
a) 1, 2 and 3
A b) 2, 3 and 5
I c) 3 and 4
d) all of the above
C
80. In case of design of bevel gears, the angle (  ) between the axes of the shafts is given by (  p
T
and d p are pitch angle and pitch diameter for pinion and  g and d g are pitch angle and pitch
E diameter for gear)
a)    p   g
dg
b)    p  g
dp
A dp
c)    p g
dg
I
C
T
E
Page 13 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A PART-B (40x2 = 80 Marks)
I 81 A cable of length l and mass per unit length  is stretched under a tension P. One end of the
cable is fixed and the other end is connected to a pin which can move in a frictionless slot.
C Natural frequencies of vibration of the cable is given by
(2n  1) c
T a) n 
2l
E (n  1) c
b) n 
2l
(2n  1) c
c) n 
l
(2n  1) c
A d) n 
2l
I
82. A steel wire of 2 mm in diameter is fixed between two points which are located 2 m apart.
C The applied tensile force on the wire is 250 N. The fundamental frequency of vibration will be
a) 50.4062 rad/s
T b) 25.2031 rad/s
E c) 79.1778 rad/s
d) 158.3557 rad/s
83. A spring-mass system with mass m=0.5 kg and spring constant k=10000 N/m, with negligible
damping, is used as a vibration pickup. When mounted on a structure vibration with amplitude
o 4 mm, the total displacement of the mass of the pickup is observed to be 12 mm. Frequency
A of the vibration is
a) 70.7170 rad/s
I b) 115.4705 rad/s
C c) 141.4213 rad/s
d) 173.04355 rad/s
T
84. Maximum %error of a vibrometer on the frequency ratio range 4  r   with a damping
E ratio of   0.67 is given by
a) 0.45
b) 0.67
c) 6.67
d) 0.53
A
85. A thin bar of length l and mass m is clamped at one end and free at the other end. What mass
I M must be attached to the free end in order to decrease the fundamental frequency of the
longitudinal vibration by 50% from its fixed free value
C a) 1.2732 m
T b) 1.1397 m
c) 1.3451 m
E d) 1.4213 m
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A 86. In a two mass 3-spring vibrating system the two masses each are of 9.8 kg. Coupling spring is
having a stiffness of 3430 N/m whereas the other two springs have each a stiffness of 8820
I N/m. The two natural frequencies in rad/s are
a) 10 & 20
C b) 20 & 30
c) 30 & 40
T
d) 40 & 50
E
87. A body of mass 70 kg is suspended from a spring which deflects 2 cm under the load. It is
subjected to a damping effect which is adjusted to a value 0.23 times with respect to that is
required for critical damping. Find the ratio of successive amplitudes for damped vibrations
a) 4.39
b) 5.4
A c) 3.5
d) 2.8
I
C 88. Calculate the natural frequency of a shaft of diameter 10 cm and length 300 cm carrying two
disk of diameter 125 cm and 200 cm respectively at the end points of the shaft. Modulus of
T rigidity of the shaft may be taken as 2x106kgf/cm2.
a) 45.3 Hz
E b) 40.2 Hz
c) 50 Hz
d) 55.4 Hz
89. There are four samples P, Q, R, and S, with natural frequencies 64, 96, 128 and 256 Hz
A respectively. They are mounted on test setups for conducting vibration experiments. If a loud
pure note of frequency 144 Hz is produced by some instruments, which of the samples will
I show the most perceptible induced vibration
a) P
C b) Q
c) R
T
d) S
E
90. A vehicle suspension system consists of a leaf spring and a damper. The stiffness of the leaf
spring is 3.6 kN/m and damping constant of the damper is 400 N-s/m. If the mass is 50 kg,
then the damping factor and damped natural frequency respectively are
a) 0.471 and 1.19 Hz
b) 0.471 and 7.48 Hz
A c) 0.666 and 1.35 Hz
I d) 0.666 and 8.50 Hz
C 91. In a spring-mass system the mass is m and the spring constant is k. The critical damping
coefficient of the system is 0.1 kg/s. In another spring mass system, the mass is 2m and the
T spring constant is 8k. The critical damping coefficient (in kg/s) of this system lies between
a) 0.38 to 0.42
E
b) 0.15 to 0.19
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ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A c) 0.82 to 0.86
d) 0.65 to 0.69
I
92. The forced-deflection characteristic of a spring is described by F  500 X  2 X 3 , where the
C force (F) is in Newtons and the deflection (X) is in millimetres. The approximate and exact
values of the spring forces at X = 9 mm are:
T a) 5200 N and 5260 N
b) 5900 N and 5960 N
E
c) 5420 N and 5400 N
d) 5715 N and 5755 N
93. A vibratory body of mass 150 kg supported on spring of total stiffness 1050 kN/m has a
rotating unbalance force of 525 N at a speed of 6000 rpm. If the damping factor is 0.3, the
A amplitude caused by unbalance is
a) 9x10-6 m
I b) 7x10-6 m
c) 3x10-5 m
C d) 11x10-5 m
T 94. An unknown mass m is attached to one end of a spring of stiffness k having natural frequency
E of 6 Hz. When 1 kg mass is added with mass m, the natural frequency of the system is
reduced by 20%. The value of unknown mass is
a) 1.31 kg
b) 1.17 kg
c) 1.25 kg
d) 1.77 kg
A
95. A torsional pendulum when immersed in oil indicates its natural frequency as 200 Hz. But
I when it was made to vibrate in vacuum having no damping, its natural frequency was
observed as 250 Hz. Damping factor of oil is
C a) 0.92
T b) 0.6
c) 0.2
E d) 1.1
96. Match the items in the two columns below

1. Piezoelectric accelerometer A. produces light pulses intermittently
2. Electrodynamic transducer B. has high output and is insensitive to temp
3. LVDT transducer C. frequency used in velocity pickups
A 4. Stroboscope D. has high sensitivity and frequency range
a) 1-A,2-C, 3-D, 4-B
I
b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
C c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
T
97. A bar having length L and uniform cross section with area A is subjected to both a tensile
E force P and torque T. If G is the shear modulus and E is the Young‟s Modulus, the internal
strain energy stored in the bar is
Page 16 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A T 2 L P2 L
a) 
2GJ AE
I
T 2 L P2 L
b) 
C GJ 2 AE
T 2 L P2 L
T c) 
2GJ 2 AE
E T 2 L P2 L
d) 
GJ AE
98.Which one of the flowing statements is not true for rolling contact bearing
a) the bearing characteristic number is given by ZN/p, where Z is the absolute viscosity of
the lubricant, N is the shaft speed and p is the bearing pressure
A
b) Inner race of a radial ball bearing has an interference fit with the shaft and rotates along
I with it.
c) Outer race of the bearing has an interference fit with bearing housing and does not rotate
C d)In some cases, the inner race is stationary and outer race rotates.
T 99. Two identical ball bearings X and Y are operating under applied load of 30 kN and 45 kN
respectively. The ratio of life of these bearing is
E a) 81/16
b) 27/8
c) 9/4
d) 3/2
100. A ball bearing is characterised by basic static capacity of 11 kN and dynamic capacity of 18
A kN. This bearing is subjected to equivalent static load of 5.5 kN. The bearing loading ratio
I and life in million revolutions respectively are given by
a) 3.27 and 52.0
C b) 3.27 and 35.0
c) 2 and 10.1
T d) 1.60 and 4.1
E
101. Match List 1 (type of antifriction bearing) with List 2 (specific uses) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-1
A) Self-aligning ball bearing
B) Taper roller bearing
A C) Deep groove ball bearing
D) Thrust ball bearing
I List-2
1. For pure axial load
C
2. For hinger condition
T 3. For pure radial load
4. For axial and radial load
E
Page 17 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A Codes
A B C D
I a) 2 1 3 4
b) 3 4 2 1
C c) 2 4 3 1
d) 3 1 2 4
T
E 102. Match List 1 (type of antifriction bearing) with List 2 (specific uses) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-1
A.ball bearing
B.Taper roller bearing
C.Spherical roller bearing
A D.Needle bearing
List-2
I
1. For pure axial load
C 2. For hinger condition
3. For pure radial load
T 4. For axial and radial load
Codes
E A B C D
a) 2 3 1 4
b) 4 1 3 2
c) 2 1 3 4
d) 4 3 1 2
A
103. Maximum stress developed on the surface of a solid circular shaft under pure torsion is 240
I MPa. If the shaft diameter is doubled then the maximum shear stress developed corresponding
to the same torque will be
C a) 120 MPa
b) 60 MPa
T
c) 30 MPa
104. A rod is subjected to a uniaxial load within the elastic limit. When the change in the stress is
200 MPa the change in the strain is 0.001. If the Poisson‟s ratio for the rod material is 0.3,
then the Modulus of rigidity is given by
a) 70 GPa
A b) 76 GPa
I c) 85 GPa
C
T
E
Page 18 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 105. A solid circular shaft needs to be designed to transmit a torque of 50 N-m. If the allowable
shear stress of the material is 140 MPa. Assuming a factor of safety of 2. The minimum
I allowable design diameter in mm is
a) 8
C b) 16
c) 24
T
d) 32
E
106. A small element at the critical section of component is in a bi-axial state of stress with two
principal stresses of 360 MPa and 140 MPa. The maximum working stress according to the
Distortion energy theory will be
a) 110 MPa
b) 220 MPa
A c) 314 MPa
d) 417 MPa
I
C 107.Endurance limit is of primary concern for the design of a
1. Rotating shaft,
T 2. Column
3. Machine base
E 4. Beam
Which of the above is/are the correct choice
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
I 108. A shaft is subjected to fluctuating tensile load from 20 kN to 100 kN. The material has yield
strength of 240 Mpa and the endurance stress is 160 MPa. According to the Soderberg‟s
C principle, the area of cross-section of shaft for a factor of safety of 2 will be
a) 400 mm2
T
b) 600 mm2
E c) 750 mm2
d) 1000 mm2
109. In a machine tool, a link made of steel is made of uniform diameter of 30 mm is subjected to
an axial force that varies from 40 kN in compression to 160 kN in tension. The tensile, yield
and endurance strength of the steel is 600 MPa, 420 MPa, and 240 MPa respectively. The
A factor of safety against fatigue endurance as per Soderberg‟s Criterion is given by
I a) 1.26
b) 1.37
C c) 1.45
d) 1.56
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 110. Match List 1 (Materials) with List 2 (Applications) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
I List-1
A. Tungsten Carbide
C B. Silicon Nitride
C. Aluminium Oxide
T
D. Silicon Carbide
E List-2
1. Abrasive Wheels
2. Heating Elements
3. Pipes carrying liquid metals
4. Drawing dies
Codes
A A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
I
b) 4 3 2 1
C c) 3 4 2 1
d) 4 3 1 2
T
111. The highest stress which a material can withstand for a specified length of time without
E excessive deformation is called
a) Fatigue strength
b) Endurance strength
c) Creep strength
d) Creep rupture strength
A
112. Match List 1 (Steel type) with List 2 (Product) and select the correct answer using the codes
I given below the lists:
List-1
C A. Mild steel
B. Tool steel
T
C. Medium carbon steel
E D. High carbon steel
List-2
1. Screw driver
2. Commercial beams
3. Crane hooks
4. Blanking dies
A Codes
I A B C D
a) 1 4 3 2
C b) 2 4 1 3
c) 1 3 4 2
T d) 2 4 3 1
E
Page 20 of 22
ROLL NO.: PG2MEE60
A 113. Stainless 18/8 steel contains

a) 18% steel and 8% chromium
I b) 18% chromium and 8% nickel
c) 18% tungsten and 8% nickel
C d) 18% tungsten and 8% chromium
T
114. Grain structure is improved in
E a) Casting
b) Machining
c) Forging
d) Extrusion
115. Pick the correct sequence of steps for designing a fuzzy logic machine
A a) Fuzzification, Rule Evaluation and defuzzification
b) Rule Evaluation, Fuzzification, defuzzification.
I
c) Evaluation, Rule creation, fuzzification, defuzzification
T 116. Involutive property of the standard fuzzy complement c, for each a  [0.1] is
a) c(c(a)) = c(a)
E
b) c(c(a)) = 1
c) c(c(a)) = 0
d) c(c(a)) = a
117. Considering a graphical representation of the „tallness‟ of people using its appropriate
A member function, which of the following combinations are true?
i. TALL is usually the fuzzy subset.
I ii. HEIGHT is usually the fuzzy set.
iii. PEOPLE is usually the universe of discourse.
C
Which are correct sentences?
T a) i, ii & iii
b) i& ii only
E c) i, iii only
d) ii & iii.
118. Which one of the following factors is more relevant to represent complete solubility of two
metals in each other?
a) Chemical affinity
A
b) Valency factor
I c) Crystal structure factor
d) Relative size factor
C
T
E
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A 119. What is the planar density of (100) plane in FCC (face centred cubic) crystal with unit cell
side equal to
I 1.484
a)
a2
C
2
b) 2
T a
1
E c) 2
a
2
d) 2
a
120. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A
I Space Lattice Relation between atomic Radius r and
edge element a
C a) Simple Cubic structure a2=4r2
b) Body centered cubic structure 3a2=16r2
T
c) Triclinic 2a2=3r2
E d) Face centered cubic structure a2=8r2
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 22 of 22
PG2ME E60
ANSWER KEY 1
Subject: Mechanical Engineering
Paper: II

1. a 41 c 81. a
2. c 42 d 82. b
3. d 43 d 83. b
4. a 44 a 84. d
5. d 45 d 85. b
6. c 46 d 86. c
7. d 47 d 87. a
8. a 48 c 88. a
9. d 49 a 89. c
10. c 50 a 90. a
11. a 51 d 91. a
12. a 52 c 92. b
13. a 53 c 93. a
14. c 54 a 94. d
15. c 55 c 95. b
16. a 56 a 96. b
17. b 57 a 97. c
18. a 58 b 98. a
19. a 59 a 99. b
20. b 60 a 100. b
21. a 61 b 101. c
22. c 62 d 102. d
23. b 63 b 103. c
24. a 64 c 104. b
25. c 65 b 105. b
26. c 66 c 106. c
27. a 67 b 107. a
28. a 68 a 108. d
29. b 69 d 109. a
30. a 70 a 110. d
31. c 71 d 111. c
32. a 72 a 112. d
33. c 73 b 113. b
34. c 74 a 114. c
35. b 75 a 115. a
36. b 76 b 116. d
37. c 77 b 117. b
38. a 78 c 118. d
39. c 79 b 119. b
40. b 80 a 120. a
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A MECHANICAL DESIGN
I
C
PAPER-I
T
Instructions:
the wrong answer.
I
E
1. A material with identical properties in all directions is known as

(a) homogeneous
A (b) isotropic
(c) elastic
I (d) none of these
C 2. The resistance of deformation of a body per unit area is known as
T (a) stress
(b) strain
E (c) modulus of elasticity
(d) modulus of rigidity
3. The ratio of modulus of rigidity to modulus of elasticity for most of the material is
(a) 0.5
(b) greater than 0.5
(c) less than 0.5
(d) 1.0
A
4. Temperature stress is a function of
I (a) modulus of elasticity
C (b) coefficient of linear expression
(c) change in temperature
T (d) all of these
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 5. The ratio of collapse load to the working load is termed as

(a) load factor
I (b) shape factor
(c) yield factor
C (d) factor of safety
T 6. For a circular shaft transmitting torque, the shape factor is
E (a) 1.5
(b) 1.33
(c) 1
(d) 0.5
7. For a rectangular section, the value of shape factor is

(a) 0.5
(b) 1
A
(c) 1.5
I (d) 2
C 8. Load factor of a build in beam with uniformly distributed load is --------- times over
the simply supported beam for the same working conditions
T (a) 4/5
E (b) 5/4
(c) 8/9
(d) 9/8
9. In case of bi-axial stresses, the shear stress is maximum on a plane at ------- degree to
the given plane
(a) 1800
(b) 1350
A (c) 900
(d) 450
I
C 10. In a Mohr circle, the radius gives the value of
(a) maximum normal stress
T (b) minimum normal stress
(c) maximum shear stress
E (d) minimum shear stress
11. The modulus of elasticity in terms of bulk modulus is given by

(a) 3k/ (1+2 𝛾)
(b) 3k (1-2 𝛾)
(c) 3k/ (1-2 𝛾)
(d) 3k (1+2 𝛾)
A
12. If the radius of a wire stretched by a load is increased 1.5 times, then its Young
I modulus
(a) remains same
C (b) will be 9/4 times
T (c) will be 4/9 times
(d) will be 3/2 times
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 13. Maximum principal stress theory of failure was postulatedby

(a) Castigliano
I (b) Rankine
(c) Tresca
C (d) St. Venant
T 14. Maximum shear stress theory is also known as
E (a) Rankine theory
(b) St. Venant theory
(c) Guest & Tressa Theory
(d) Mises & Henkey’s theory
15. If the planes at right angles carry only shear stresses of magnitude q, then which of
the following statement is true
(a) diameter of Mohr’s circle will be 2q
A
(b) centre of Mohr circle will line on the origin
I (c) principal stresses will be unlike and have magnitude q
C
16. If a solid shaft is subjected to torsion, the shear stress inducedin the shaft at the centre
T will be
E (a) zero
(b) maximum
(c) minimum
(d) can’t predict
17. The metal suitable for hearing subjected to light load is

(a) phosphor bronze
(b) silicon bronze
A (c) white metal
(d) monel metal
I
C 18. Which of the following materials has the maximum ductility?
(a) mild steel
T (b) copper
(c) zinc
E (d) aluminium
19. Passion’s ratio for steel varies from

(a) 0.2 to 0.25
(b) 0.25 to 0.33
(c) 0.33 to 0.38
(d) 0.38 to 0.45
A
20. A point on stress-strain curve beyond which a wire elongates continuously without
I addition of any load is called
(a) ultimate point
C (b) yield point
(c) strain hardening
T
(d) proportional limit
E
Page 3 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 21. Connecting rod is designed as

(a) long column
I (b) short column
(c) strut
C (d) none of these
T 22. Ratio of maximum to average shear stress in a rectangular section is
(a) 2.5
E (b) 2.0
(c) 1.5
(d) 1
23. A beam under pure bending will have shear stress
(a) very high
(b) high
A (c) 0 to1
(d) zero
I
24. Three moment theorem for continuous beams was forwarded by
C (a) Bernoulli
(b) Castigliano
T (c) Maxwell
E (d) clapeyron
25. A cantilever beam of length ℓ is loaded at the centre, maximum deflection would
occur at
(a) free end
(b) fixed end
(c) under the load
(d) none of these
A
26. The principal stress at a point in a bar are 160 MPa tensile, and 80 MPa compressive.
I The accompanying maximum stress intensity is
(a) 100 MPa
C (b) 120 MPa
(c) 160 MPa
T
(d) 40 MPa
E
27. Independent elastic constant for homogeneous, isotropic material are
(a) E, C, K, V
(b) E, G, K
(c) E, G, V
(d) E, G
28. Substance that elongates considerably and undergo plastic deformation before they
A break are known as
(a) Brittle material
I (b) Breakable material
(c) Elastic substance
C (d) Ductile material
T
E
Page 4 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 29. A simply supported beam has clockwise bending moment acting at its centre, its shear
force diagram will be
I (a) triangle
(b) straight line
C (c) rectangle
(d) none of these
T
30. The number of simultaneous equations to be solved on the slope deflection method is
E equal to
(a) the degree of static indeterminacy
(b) the degree of kinematic indeterminacy
(c) the number of joints in the structure
(d) none of these
31. A beam fixed at its ends and subjected to lateral loads only is statically indeterminate
and the degree of indeterminacy is
A
(a) two
I (b) three
(c) four
C (d) one
T 32. When column is fixed at both ends, corresponding Euler’s formula is
𝜋𝐸𝐼
E (a) 𝑙2
2𝜋 2 𝐸𝐼
(b) 𝑙2
3𝜋 2 𝐸𝐼
(c) 𝑙2
4𝜋 2 𝐸𝐼
(d) 𝑙2
33. The screw of a lathe with nut is

A (a) sliding pair
(b) turning pair
I (c) rolling pair
(d) screw pair
C
34. Which of the following is an open pair?
T (a) journal bearing
(b) lead screw and nut
E
(c) cam and follower
(d) ball and socket joint
35. Oldham’s coupling is used to connect two shafts which are

(a) intersecting
(b) parallel
(c) perpendicular
A (d) co-axial
I 36. A quick return mechanism is an inversion of

(a) single crank chain
C (b) double slider crank chain
T (c) four bar chain
(d) crossed slider crank chain
E
Page 5 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 37. The total number of instantaneous centre of a mechanism having 𝓃link is

𝑛 𝑛 −1
I (a) 2
𝑛 −1
C (b) 2
T 𝑛 𝑛 +1
(c) 2
E 𝑛 +1
(d) 2
38. Cairoli’s component of acceleration is taken into account for a ----- mechanism
(a) double slider crank
(b) four bar mechanism
(c) scotch Yoke
A
(d) crank and slotted quick return mechanism
I
39. An any instant, if the angular velocity of a link is clockwise, then the angular
C deceleration will be
(a) clockwise
T (b) counter clockwise
E (c) in any direction (clockwise or counter clockwise)
(d) none of these
40. Relative pole of moving link is its centre of rotation relative to a ------ link
(a) fixed link
(b) moving link
(c) any link
(d) none of these
A
41. The instantaneous centre of rotation of rigid thin disc rolling on a plane rigid surface
I
is located at
C (a) an infinite distance on plane surface
(b) the centre of disc
T (c) the point of contact
(d) none of these
E
42. Which mechanism generates intermittent motion from continuous rotary motion?
(a) Elliptical trammel
(b) Scotch Yoke mechanism
(c) Geneva mechanism
(d) whit worth mechanism
A 43. The centre of gravity of the coupler link in a 4-bar mechanism would experience
(a) no acceleration
I (b) only linear acceleration
C (c) only angular acceleration
(d) both linear and angular acceleration
T
E
Page 6 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 44. The cam follower used in automobile engine is

(a) spherical faced
I (b) roller
(c) flat faced
C (d) knife edged
T
45. The locusof the trace point if the follower is moved around the cam is known in
E (a) pitch curve
(b) cam circle
(c) prime circle
(d) base circle
46. Upon which of the following parameters does the pressure angle of cam depend?
(a) angle of ascent
A (b) cam and follower
(c) lift and type of follower
I (d) offset between centre line
C 47. With which of the followers, surface stresses are minimum in a cam-follower
arrangement?
T
(a) roller follower
E (b) mushroom flower with flat face
(c) knife edge follower
(d) mushroom follower with spherical face
48. For the purpose of tracing the cam profile, the reference point on the follower is
(a) Base point
(b) pitch point
(c) trace point
A (d) cam centre
I
49. What is the maximum value of the pressure angle of a cam?
C (a) 80
(b) 200
T (c) 300
(d) 400
E
50. Which of the following motions is imparted by cam?
(a) reciprocating
(b) oscillating
(c) rotating
(d) all of these
A 51. Contact ratio of gears is always

(a) more than 1
I
(b) one
C (c) less than 1
(d) zero
T
E
Page 7 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 52. To have a velocity ratio of 50, the appropriate gear will be

(a) bevel gears
I (b) worm and worm wheel
(c) spur gears
C (d) helical gears
T
53. The ratio of circular pitch to module is
E (a) 𝜋
1
(b) 𝜋
(c) 𝜋 2
(d) 1/π2
A 54. Interference occurs in case of

(a) cycloidal teeth
I (b) involute profile teeth
C (d) none of these
T 55. In involute gears, the pressure angle is
(a) dependent on the size of teeth
E (b) dependent on size of gears
(c) always constant
(d) always variable
56. Minimum number of teeth in rack and pinion for200 pair angle teeth is
(a) 24
(b) 22
A (c) 20
(d) 18
I
57. In revered gear train, the axes of the first and last gear are
C (a) parallel
T (b) perpendicular
(c) skew
E (d) co-axial
58. A differential uses ------ gear train
(a) simple
(b) compound
(c) epicyclic
(d) reverted
A 59. The two gears A and B of an epicyclic gear train of equal size. Gear A is fixed. The
arm revolves about the centre of gear A with an angular velocity of 3 rad/s. the
I angular velocity of gear B in rad/s is
(a) 3
C
(b) 6
T (c) 9
(d) 12
E
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 60. When a shaft transmits power through gear, the shaft experiences
(a) bending stress alone
I (b) torsional stressalone
(c) constant bending and varying torsionalstresses
C (d) varying bending and constant torsional stresses
T 61. There are six gears A, B, C, D, E F in a compound gear train. The number of the
E teeth in the gears is 20, 60, 30, 80, 25, 75 respectively. The ratio of angular speed of
driven (F) to the driver (A) of the drive is
(a) 1:24
(b) 1:8
(c) 4:15
(d) 12:1
62. The plane of spin, gyroscopic couple and procession, in case of gyroscopic effect, are
A
(a) in same plane
I (b) in different planes
(c) mutually perpendicular planes
T 63. Pitching of a ship produces forces on the bearings
(a) which acts along the axis of bearings
E (b) in the plane of pitching
(c) in the direction of motion of ship
(d) none of these
64. The rotor of a ship rotates in the clockwise direction when viewed from the stern and
the ship takes left hand turn. The effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be
(a) lower the bow and raise the stern
(b) raise the bow and lower the stern
A (c) lower the bow and stern
I (d) raise the bow and stern
65. Klein’s construction can be used when crank has
C
(a) uniform angular velocity
T (b) non-uniform angular velocity
(c) uniform acceleration
66. What is the main disadvantage of the sliding pair?
(a) difficult to manufacture
(b) it is bulky
(c) it wears rapidly
A 67. Which of the following is a higher pair?
(a) belt and pulley
I (b) turning pair
(c) screw pair
C
(d) sliding pair
T
E
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 68. Failure of a material is called fatigue when it fails

(a) at the elastic limit
I (b) below the elastic limit
(c) at the yield point
C (d) below the yield point
T 69. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure is
(a) 0.70
E (b) 0.55
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.25
70. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is more serious in
(a) brittle materials
(b) ductile materials
A (c) brittle as well as ductile materials
(d) elastic materials
I
71. Stress concentration factor is defined as the ratio of
C (a) maximum stress to nominal stress
(b) maximum stress to endurance limit
T
(c) nominal stress to endurance limit
E (d) normal stress to maximum stress
72. The stress which varies from a minimum value to maximum value of the same nature
is called
(a) fluctuating stress
(b) yield stress
(c) alternating stress
(d) repeated stress
A
73. Improvement of fatigue strength using pre-setting is done for
I
(a) ductile materials
C (b) parts subjected to unidirectional variable stress
(c) parts subjected to completely reversible load
T (d) parts subjected to variable load
E 74. For a material 𝑆𝑣𝑡 ≥ 1400 𝑀𝑃𝑎, the endurance limit is
(a) 0.57 𝑆𝑣𝑡
(b) 0.5 𝑆𝑣𝑡
(c) 798 𝑀𝑃𝑎
(d) 700 𝑀𝑃𝑎
75. If the size of a standard specimen for a fatigue testing machine is increased, the
A endurance limit for the material will
(a) have same value as that of standard specimen
I (b) increase
C (c) decrease
(d) decrease in proportion to the size of the specimen
T
E
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 76. Fatigue strength in cold rolled specimen is

(a) more than hot rolled components
I (b) less than hot rolled
(c) more than polished specimen
C (d) less than machine surface
T 77. The component of stress tensor at a point in the plane strain case can be obtained by
E measuring longitudinal strain in following directions:
(a) along any two arbitrary directions
(b) along any three arbitrary directions
(c) along two mutually orthogonal directions
(d) along any arbitrary direction
78. In an involute gear the ratio, pitch circle radius/base circle radius is (∅ is the pressure
angle)
A
(a) sin ∅
I (b) sec ∅
(c) cosec ∅
C (d) cos ∅
T 79. A point on a connecting link (excluding end point) of a double slider crank
E mechanism traces a
(a) straight line path
(b) hyperbolic path
(c) parabolic path
(d) elliptical path
80. In the case of an involute toothed gear, involute starts from

(a) base circle
A (b) pitch circle
(c) addendum circle
I (d) dedundum circle
C
T PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
E
81. Principal stress at a point are 120, -40 and – 20 MPa. What is the maximum shear
stress at that point?
(a) 50 mPa
(b) 70 MPa
(c) 80 MPa
(d) None of these
A
82. Airy’s stress function is ∅=50 x2 – 40xy + 80y2. What is the normal stress σyy?
I (a) 100 MPa
(b) 40 MPa
C (c) 160 MPa
(d) 80 MPa
T
E
Page 11 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 83. Based on static indeterminacy, a structure is analysed using

(a) method of consistent deformation
I (b) stiffness method
(c) slope deflection method
C (d) moment distribution method
T 84. A uniform, slender cylindrical road is made of homogeneous and isotropic material.
The rod rests on a frictionless surface. The rod is heated uniformly. If the radial and
E longitudinal thermal stress are represented by 𝜎𝑟 &𝜎𝑧 respectively, then
(a) 𝜎𝑟 = 0, 𝜎𝑧 = 0
(b) 𝜎𝑟 ≠ 0, 𝜎𝑧 = 0
(c) 𝜎𝑟 = 0, 𝜎𝑧 ≠ 0
(d) 𝜎𝑟 ≠ 0, 𝜎𝑧 ≠ 0
85. The state of plane stress at a point is given by
A 𝜎𝑥 = −200 𝑀𝑃𝑎, 𝜎𝑦 = 100 𝑀𝑃𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜏𝑥𝑦 = 100 𝑀𝑃𝑎. The maximum shear stress
in MPa is
I (a) 111.8
(b) 150.1
C (c) 180.3
T (d) 223.6
86. A cantilever beam of length L, with uniform cross-section and flexural rigidity EI, is
E
loaded uniformly by a vertical load 𝑊 per unit length. The maximum vertical
deflection of the beam is given by
(a) 𝑊𝐿4 /16𝐸𝐼
(b) 𝑊𝐿4 /24𝐸𝐼
(c) 𝑊𝐿4 /48𝐸𝐼
(d) 𝑊𝐿4 /8𝐸𝐼
A 87. In a rectangular beam of width b and depth 𝒽 subjected to bending moment, the
moment of resistance in the fully plastic state is given by
𝑏ℎ
I (a) 6 𝜎𝑦
𝑏ℎ 3
C (b) 𝜎𝑦
4
𝑏ℎ 2
T (c) 𝜎𝑦
4
𝑏ℎ 2
E (d) 𝜎𝑦
6
88. The ratio of MP/My is known

(a) elastic factor
(b) plastic factor
(c) shape factor
(d) resistance factor
A 89. A shaft subjected to pure torsion is to be designed. The yield point stress of the
material is 270 MPa and the Poisson’s ratio is 0.3, which of the following theories
I gives the smallest diameter
(a) maximum principal stress theory
C (b) maximum principal strain theory
T (c) strain energy theory
(d) none of these
E
Page 12 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 90. Which one of the following theories gives conservation design of components?
(a) maximum shear stress theory
I (b) maximum principal strain theory
(c) distortion energy theory
C (d) none of these
T 91. What is the approximate ratio of ESteel/EAluminium?
(a) 2.0
E (b) 3.0
(c) 2.5
(d) none of these
92. A beam of triangular section with base 10mm and height 12 mm. What is minimum
section modulus?
(a) 180 mm3
A (b) 120 mm3
(c) 90 mm3
I (d) 60 mm3
C 93. For a material with E=208 GPa and v=0.3, what is the modulus of rigidity?
(a) 78 GPa
T (b) 80GPa
E (c) 160GPa
(d) 104 GPa
94. A hollow circular column with D=100 mn, d=80 mm, what is radius of gyration?
(a) 64 mm
(b) 48mm
(c) 40 mm
(d) 32 mm
A 95. The ratio of equivalent length of column with one end fixed and other end free to its
I own length is
(a) 2
C (b) 1.5
(c) 1.0
T (d) 0.5
E 96. Consider the following statements:
Coriolis component of acceleration depends
1. Angular acceleration of link 2. Velocity of slider
3. Acceleration of slider 4. Angular velocity of link
Of these statements, which are correct?
A (c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
I
97. In gears, interference takes, place when
C (a) the tip of a tooth of mating gear digs into the portion base and root circles
(b) gears do not move smoothly in the absence of lubrication
T (c) pitch of the gear is not same
(d) gear teeth are undercut
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 98. In a circular arc cam with roller follower, the acceleration in any position of the lift
would depend only upon
I (a) Total lift, total angle of lift, minimum radius of cam and cam speed
(b) radius of circular arc cam speed, location of centre of circular arc and roller
C diameter
(c) weight of cam follower linkage, spring stiffness and cam speed
T (d) total lift, centre of gravity of the cam and cam speed
E
99. The Klein’s method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism
(a) it is a simplified method of instantaneous centre method
(b) utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating
engine
(c) enables determination of Coriolis component
(d) is based on acceleration diagram
A
100. The gear train usually employed in clock is
I (a) simple gear train
(b) sun and planet gear
C (c) differential gear
(d) reverted gear train
T
101. Which one of the following is true for involute gears?
E (a) interference is inherently absent
(b) variation in centre distance of shafts increases radial force
(c) a convex flank is always in contact with concave flank
(d) pressure angle is constant throughout the teeth engagement
102. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having 50 teeth. The two
gears are connected by an arm. The number of turns made by smaller gear for one
revolution of arm about the centre of the bigger gear is
A (a) 2/4
I (b) 3
(c) 4
C (d) 5
T 103. The form factor of a spur gear tooth depends upon

1. Number of teeth 2. Pressure angle
E 3. Circular pitch
Of these, which statements are correct?
(b) only 2 is correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
A 104. The relative acceleration of two points which are at variable distance apart on a
moving link can be determined by using
I (a) Three centres in line theorem
(b) instantaneous centre of rotation
C (c) Coriolis components of acceleration
T (d) Klein’s construction
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 105. The motion transmitted between tooth of two spur gear in mesh is generally
(a) sliding
I (b) rolling
(c) rotary
C (d) partly sliding and partly rolling
T 106. In a slider four bar linkage, when the slider is fixed, it forms a mechanism of
(a) quick return
E (b) oscillating cylinder
(c) hand pump
(d) rolling
107. Consider the following statement:
A pinion of 14½ pressure angle and 48 involute teeth has a pitch circular diameter of
288 mm. It has
A 1. module of 6mm 2. circular pitch of 18 mm
3. addendum of 6mm
I which of these are correct
(a) 2 and 3
C (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only
T
(d) 2 only
E 108. An epicyclic gear train has three shafts A, B and C. A is an input shaft running at 100
rpm clockwise. B is an output shaft running at 250 rpm clockwise. Torque on A is 50
KN-m. C is a fixed shaft. The torque to fix C is
(a) 20 KN-m clockwise
(b) 30 KN-m anticlockwise
(c) 30 KN-m clockwise
(d) cannot be determined as the data is insufficient
A 109. The sense of Coriolis’s component is the same as that of relative velocity V rotated
(a) 450 in the direction of the link containing the path
I
(b) 450 in the direction oppositeto the rotation of the link containing the path
C (c) 900 in the direction of the rotation of the link containing the path
(d) 1800 in the direction oppositeto the rotation of the link containing the path
T
110. The most suitable follower motion programme for high speed engine is
E (a) uniform acceleration and deceleration
(b) uniform velocity
(c) simple harmonic motion
(d) cycloidal
111. A cam in which the follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of
the cam is known as ----- cam
A (a) tangent
(b) reciprocating
I (c) cylindrical
(d) circular
C
T
E
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG1MED61
A 112. What is the angle of descent of cam?

(a) It is the angle moved by cam from beginning of ascent to termination of descent
I (b) it is angle through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower
remains in the highest position
C (c) it is the angle during which follower returns to its initial position
T
E 113. For a ship which of the following effects is more dangerous?
(a) steering
(b) pitching
(c) rolling
(d) waving
114. In automobile, where is the gear box placed?

A (a) between the engine and the clutch
(b) between the clutch and hook joint
I (c) between the clutch and differential
(d) between the steering and engine
C
115. The kern area of a solid circular section column of diameter D, is a concentric circle
T
of diameter, equal to
𝐷
E (a) 8
𝐷
(b) 6
𝐷
(c) 4
𝐷
(d) 2
A
116. Auto fretting is
I
(a) type of heat treatment
C (b) type of corrosion
(c) type of pre setting
T (d) method to reduce stress concentration
E 117. The residential compressive stress by way of surface treatment of a machine members
subjected to fatigue loading
(a) improve the fatigue life
(b) deteriorates the fatigue life
(c) does not affect the fatigue life
(d) immediately fractures the specimen
A 118. Endurance strength is maximum for a component having

(a) ground finish
I
(b) mirror finish
C (c) machined surface
(d) hot rolled surface
T
E
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A 119. Consider the following statements

For increasing the fatigue strength of welded joints, it is necessary to employ
I 1. grinding 2. coating 3. hammer peening
of the above statements, which are correct?
C (a) 1 and 2 are correct
T (c) 1 and 3 are correct
E (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
120. Fatigue factor for torsion, for rotating shaft subjected to sudden torque with minor
shock, is taken as
(a) 1.0 to 1.2
(b) 1.2 to 1.5
(c) 1.6 to 2.1
(d) more than 3
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
PG1MED61
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Mechanical Design
Paper: 1

1. b 41 c 81. c
2. a 42 c 82. a
3. c 43 d 83. a
4. d 44 a 84. a
5. a 45 a 85. c
6. b 46 b 86. d
7. c 47 d 87. b
8. d 48 c 88. c
9. d 49 c 89. a
10. c 50 d 90. a
11. b 51 a 91. b
12. a 52 b 92. b
13. b 53 a 93. b
14. c 54 b 94. d
15. d 55 c 95. a
16. a 56 d 96. c
17. a 57 d 97. a
18. a 58 c 98. b
19. b 59 b 99. b
20. c 60 c 100. d
21. b 61 a 101. d
22. c 62 c 102. d
23. d 63 a 103. c
24. d 64 b 104. b
25. a 65 a 105. a
26. b 66 d 106. c
27. c 67 a 107. b
28. d 68 d 108. b
29. c 69 b 109. c
30. b 70 b 110. d
31. a 71 a 111. c
32. d 72 d 112. c
33. d 73 c 113. b
34. c 74 d 114. a
35. b 75 c 115. a
36. a 76 a 116. b
37. a 77 b 117. a
38. d 78 d 118. b
39. b 79 d 119. c
40. b 80 a 120. b
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A MECHANICAL DESIGN
I Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
C
PAPER-II
T
Instructions:
E
the wrong answer.
E
1. In a free vibration, the velocity vector leads the displacement vector by

A (a) 1800
(b) 900
I (c) 600
(d) 1200
C
2. In a spring mass system, if the mass is halved and the spring stiffness is doubled, the
T
natural frequency is
E (a) halved
(b) doubled
(c) unchanged
(d) quadrupled
3. Which type of damping is realised by a hydraulic dash pot shock absorber?

(a) coulomb
(b) spring
(c) structural
A (d) viscous
I 4. The frequency of dumped vibrations is always _________ the natural frequency

(a) equal to
C (b) more than
(c) less than
T (d) double
E
Page 1 of 17
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A 5. The critical speed of rotating shaft depends upon

(a) mass
I (b) stiffness
(c) mass and stiffness
C (d) mass, stiffness and eccentricity
T 6. In case of free vibration with viscous damping, the damping force is proportional to
E (a) velocity
(b) displacement
(c) acceleration
(d) natural frequency
𝑑2𝑥
7. with usual rotation, for a single degree of freedom system, the equation𝑚 𝑑𝑡 2 +
36 𝜋 2 𝑥 = 0 represent a natural frequency of
A (a) 3Hz
I (b) 3π Hz
(c) 6 Hz
C (d) 6π Hz
T 8. The critical damping coefficient of a system with a mass of 1 Kg attached at the end
of a spring with stiffness 0.9 Ν/𝑚𝑚 is
E
(a) 60 N/m/s
(b) 120 N/m/s
(c) 300 N/m/s
(d) 600 N/m/s
A 9. The critical speed of a uniform shaft with rotor at the centerof the span can be reduced
by
I (a) increasing the rotor mass
(b) reducing the shaft length
C (c) increasing the shaft diameter
T (d) reducing the rotor mass
E 10. The ratio of the amplitude of the steady state response of forced vibrations to the
static deflection under the action of static force is known as
(a) damped ratio
(b) damping factor
(c) transmissibility
(d) magnification factor
11. At a certain speed, revolving shafts tend to rotate violently in transverse directions.
The speed is known as
A (a) whirling speed
(b) critical speed
I (c) whipping speed
(d) all of these
C
T
E
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A 12. A point mass is executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 10 mm and
frequency of 4 Hz. The maximum acceleration (m/sec2) of the mass is
I (a) 8 π m/sec2
(b) 0.8 π m/sec2
C (c) 6.317 m/sec2
(d) 12.634 m/sec2
T
𝑤
E 13. If 𝓌 = 2, where 𝓌 is the natural frequency of excitation and 𝓌𝓃 is the natural
𝓃
frequency of vibrations, then the transmissibility of vibrations will be
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.0
(c) 1.5
(d) 2.0
A 14. Which of the following methods can be used to determine the damping of machine
element?
I 1. Logarithmic method 2. Band width method
2. Rayleigh method 4. Holzar method
C
T Select the correct answer using codes below
(a) 1 and 3
E (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1,3, and 4
15. The motion is aperiodic, when the value of damping factor is

(a) 0.25
A (b) 0.5
(c) 0.867
I
(d) 1 or above
C
16. The value of the natural frequency obtained by Rayleigh method
T (a) is always greater than the actual fundamental frequency
(b) is always less than the actual fundamental frequency
E (c) depends upon the initial deflection curve chosen and may be greater than or less
than the actual fundamental frequency
(d) is independent of the initial deflection curve chosen
17. During torsional vibration, the node is characterized by the

(a) a maximum angular velocity
(b) maximum angular displacement
(c) maximum angular acceleration
(d) zero angular deflection
A
18. A torsional vibrating system having three rotors connected by a shaft has
I (a) one node
C (b) two nodes
(c) three nodes
T (d) no node
E
Page 3 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 19. Rotor of a turbine usually rotated at

(a) critical speed
I (b) a little above or below the critical speed
(c) much below the critical speed
C (d) much above the critical speed
T 20. The natural frequency of a spring mass system on the earth is Wn. The natural
E frequency of the system on the moon (gmoon= gearth/6)
(a) Wn
(b) 0.408 Wn
(c) 0.204 Wn
(d) 0.167 Wn
21. A uniform rigid rod of mass = 1kg and length L=1m is hinged at its centre and
laterally supported at one end by a spring of K=300 𝒩/m. The natural frequency
A Wnin rad/s is
I (a) 40
(b) 30
C (c) 15
(d) 10
T
22. A compression coil spring is cut into two equal halves and each half is joined in
E parallel, the ratio of spring stiffness will be now __________ times of the original
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) ¼
A
23. In vibration isolation, which one of the following statement is not regarding
I transmissibility T?
C (a) T is nearly unity at small excitation frequency
(b) T can always be reduced by using higher damping at any excitation frequency
T (c) T is unity at the frequency ratio of 2
(d) T is unity at resonance for undamped system
E
24. Under logarithmic decrement, the amplitude of successive vibrations is
(a) constant
(b) in arithmetic progression
(c) in geometric progression
(d) in logarithmic progression
25. The mass moment of inertia of the two rotors in a two rotor system are 100 kgm2 and
10 kgm2. The length of the shaft of uniform diameter between the rotors is 1.10m.
A The distance of node from the rotor of lower moment of inertia is
(a) 0.80 m
I (b) 0.90 m
(c) 1.0 m
C
(d) 1.1 m
T
E
Page 4 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 26. The rolling contact bearing are known as

(a) thick lubrication bearing
I (b) plastic bearing
(c) thin lubricated bearing
C (d) anti-friction bearing
T
27. The listed life of a rolling bearing in a catalogue is the
E (a) minimum expected life
(b) maximum expected life
(c) average life
(d) none of these
28. In thrust bearing, the load acts

(a) along the axis of rotation
(b) parallel to the axis of rotation
A
(c) perpendicular to the axis of rotation
I (d) any of these
C 29. The most suitable bearing for carrying very heavy load with slow speed is
(a) ball bearing
T (b) hydro-dynamic bearing
E (c) hydrostatic bearing
(d) roller bearing
30. Deep groove ball bearings are used for

(a) heavy thrust loads only
(b) radial load at high speed
A (c) combined thrust and radial loads at high speed
(d) small angular displacement of shaft
I
C 31. The bearing characteristics number in a hydrodynamic bearing depends on
(a) length width and load
T (b) viscosity speed and load
(c) length, width and speed
E (d) viscosity, speed and bearing pressure
32. In thick film hydrodynamic bearing, the coefficient of friction

(a) increase with increase in load
(b) decrease with increase in load
(c) is independent of friction
(d) may increase or decrease with increase in load
33. To restore stable operation conditions in a hydrodynamic general bearing when

A encountered higher magnitude loads
(a) oil viscosity index is to be increased
I (b) oil viscosity is to be decreased
(c) oil viscosity is to be increased
C
(d) oil viscosity index is to be decreased
T
E
Page 5 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 34. Babbitt lining is used on brass/bronze bearing to

(a) increase bearing resistance
I (b) increase compressive resistance
(c) provide anti-friction properties
C (d) increase wear resistance
T 35. Removal of metal pieces from the raceway of rolling bearing is a kind of failure of
bearing known as
E (a) pitting
(b) wearing
(c) spalling
(d) snuffing
36. Which bearing is preferred for oscillating conditions?

(a) double row roller bearing
A (b) taper roller bearing
(c) angular contact single row bearing
I (d) needle roller bearing
C 37. In the design of connecting rod small end bearing, the value of permissible bearing
T pressure to be used is
(a) less than that used for big end bearing
E (b) more than that used for big end bearing
(c) equal to that used for big end bearing
(d) none of the these.
38. The equation of motion for laminar flow of a real fluid are known as
(a) Euler’s equation
A (b) Bernoulli equation
(c) Naiver-Stokes equation
I
(d) Hagen Poisenille equation
C
39. The momentum correction factor β for laminar flow through a circular pipe is
T (a) 1.5
(b) 2.0
E (c) 1.67
(d) 1.33
40. The minimum value of friction factor f that can occur in laminar flow is
(a) 0.025
(b) zero
(c) 0.064
(d) 0.032
A 41. The creeping motion obeys Stokes Law up to a critical Reynolds number of value
(a) 0.001
I (b) 1.0
C (c) 100
(d) 2000
T
E
Page 6 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 42. In a laminar boundary layer, the nominal thickness varies with the longitudinal
distance ‘x’as
I (a) x-1/5
(b) x-1/2
C (c) x
(d) x1/2
T
E 43. Laminar sub-layer exists
(a) only in laminar boundary layers
(b) in all turbulent boundary layers
(c) only in smooth turbulent boundary layers
(d) only in rough fully developed turbulent boundary layers
44. Separation of boundary layer takes place when the pressure gradient is
(a) negative
A (b) positive
I (c) zero
(d) none of these
C
45. In a turbulent flow through a pipe of radius 𝔯o, the radial distance at which the local
T velocity is equal to mean velocity is
(a) 0.1 𝔯o
E
(b) 0.223 𝔯o
(c) 0.707 𝔯o
(d) 0.5 𝔯o
46. In turbulent flow through a pipe, the centre line velocity is 3.61 m/s and the friction
A factor f=0.02. The mean velocity of flow in m/s is
(a) 4.80
I (b) 3.00
(c) 2.21
C (d) 0.96
T 𝑦
47. A laminar boundary layer has a velocity distribution given by 𝑣 𝑉 = 𝛿 . The
E displacement thickness 𝛿 for this boundary layer is
(a) 𝛿
(b) 𝛿 2
(c) 𝛿 4
(d) 𝛿 6
A 48. The reliability of ball bearing selected from manufacturer’s catalogue is

(a) 90%
I (b) 50%
(c) 99%
C (d) none of these
T
E
Page 7 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 49. Property of the bearing material to yield and adopt its shape to that of journal is called
(a) embeddability
I (b) conformability
(c) viscosity
C (d) endurance limit stress
T 50. In most of internal combustion engines, crankshaft bearing is
(a) hydrodynamic bearing
E (b) hydrostatic journal bearing
(c) ball bearing
(d) roller bearing
51. Drilling is an example of __________ cutting
(a) simple
(b) orthogonal
A (c) oblique
(d) none of these
I
52. ------------- is the tool used to withdraw a drill from the sleeve
C (a) drill meter
(b) drill puller
T (c) key
(d) drift
E
53. In case of drilling, the intermediate speeds are chosen in
(a) logarithmic series
(b) arithmetic progression series
(c) geometrical progression series
(d) all of these
A
54. In grinding wheel, crack is developed
I (a) due to hard work
(b) due to higher speed
C
(c) due to generation of heat
T (d) due to slower speed
E 55. An open structure of grinding wheel is used for

(a) heavy cuts
(b) tough materials
(c) soft materials
(d) all of these
56. In a grinding wheel code, the first symbol is the
(a) abrasive type
(b) bond grade
(c) structure
A (d) grain size
I 57. The cutter, teeth and work piece, in down milling, move in
(a) perpendicular direction
C (b) same direction
(c) opposite direction
T
(d) any of the above
E
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 58. Dovetail milling cutter fall in the category of

(a) a shaping tool
I (b) a plain milling cutter
(c) an end milling cutter
C (d) a side milling cutter
T 59. On which of the following is the chemical milling operation carried out?
E (a) surface table
(b) grinder
(c) milling machine
(d) tank containing etching solution
60. Helical gears can be cut on

(a) universal milling machine
(b) horizontal milling machine
A (c) vertical milling machine
I (d) drum type milling machine
C 61. Material used for self-lubricated bearing is

(a) acetal
T (b) polyurethane
(c) Teflon
E (d) any one of the above
62. When diameter of the shaft is doubled, its torque transmitting capacity will increase
by
(a) 8 times
A (b) 2 times
(c) 4 times
I (d) 16 times
C 63. Rankine theory of failure is applicable to
(a) ductile materials
T
(b) brittle materials
E (c) elastic materials
(d) bearing pressure
64. For maximum shear stress theory, the shape of the region of safety on ϭ1 and ϭ2
coordinate system is
(a) square
(b) hexagon
(c) ellipse
(d) circle
A
65. Which of the following screw thread is used for transmitting power in either
I direction?
(a) square threads
C (b) trapezoidal threads
(c) buttress threads
E
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 66. Multiple threads are used for

(a) high efficiency
I (b) high mechanical advantage
(c) low efficiency for self-locking
C (d) higher load carrying capacity
T 67. A transmission shaft is subjected to bending moment (Mb) and torsional moment
E (Mt). The equivalent bending moment is given by
𝑀𝑏 + 𝑀𝑡
(a)
2
(b)
𝑀 2𝑏 + 𝑀 𝑡
(c) 𝑀𝑏 + 𝑀𝑡
A 1 2 2
(d) 2 𝑀𝑏 + (𝑀𝑏 ) + (𝑀𝑡 )
I
68. The condition for maximum power transmission is that maximum tension in the belt
C should be equal to
T (a) 3 Tc
(b) Tc
E (c) Tc /3
(d) 2 Tc
69. The included angle between the sides of V-belt is

(a) 400
(b) 450
A (c) 380
I (d) 420
C 70. The belt slip occurs to

(a) heavy loads
T (b) loose belt
E (c) driving pulley too small
(d) any one of the above
71. When the axes of two shafts are perpendicular and non-intersecting, use
(a) spur gears
(b) bevel gears
(c) worm gears
(d) helical gears
72. Cycloidal tooth gears are used in

A
(a) automobile
I (b) machine tool gear box
(c) spring driven watches and clocks
C (d) material handling equipment
T
E
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A
73. Maximum efficiency of a pair of spur gear is
I (a) 99%
(b) 92%
C (c) 80%
(d) 50%
T
E 74. In Lewis equation, gear tooth is considered as
(a) simply supported beam
(b) cantilever beam
(c) curved beam
75. Compared with spur gears, helical gears

(a) run more smoothly
A (b) run with noise and vibration
I (c) consume less power
(d) run exactly alike
C
76. In a concrete mixer, the bevel gears for rotating the drum are generally made by
T (a) casting
(b) forging
E (c) hobbing
(d) shaping
77. A pair of worm gears is designated as (1/30/10/8). The velocity ratio is

(a) 160
A (b) 30
(c) 80
I (d) 96
C 78. The part of oil seal which prevents leakage of fluid is
(a) casing
T
(b) garter spring
E (c) lip
79. The length to diameter ratio for a shorter bearing is

(a) more than 1
(b) less than 1
(c) ∞
(d) 1
A 80. Which of the following screw thread is stronger than other threads?
(a) square
I (b) trapezoidal
(c) buttress
C (d) V-threads
T
E
Page 11 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
I
81. A mass is suspended at bottom of the springs in series having stiffness 10 N/mm and
C 5N/mm. The equivalent spring stiffness of the two springs is nearly
(a) 0.3 N/mm
T (b) 3.3 N/mm
(c) 5 N/mm
E
(d) 15 N/mm
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
82. The equation of motion for a damped viscous vibration is 3 𝑥 9 𝑑𝑡 + 27𝑥 = 0
𝑑𝑡 2
The damping factor is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.50
A (c) 0.75
(d) 1.00
I
83. A machine of 100 kg mass has a 20 kg rotor with 0.5 mm eccentricity. The mounting
C spring have stiffness 8.5 KN/m and damping is negligible. If the operating speed is
T 20πrad/s and the unit is constrained to move vertically, the dynamic amplitude of the
machine will be
E (a) 0.470 x 10-4m
(b) 1.000 x 10-4m
(c) 1.270 x 10-4m
(d) 2.540x 10-4m
84. A mass of 1 Kg is attached to the end of a spring with a stiffness 0.7N/mm. The
A critical damping coefficient of this system is
I (a) 1.40 Ns/m
(b) 52.22 Ns/m
C (c) 52.92 N/s/m
(d) 529.20 Ns/m
T
85. Match List I (force transmissibility) with List II (frequency ratio) and select the
E correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
A. 1 1. w/Wn> 2
B. Less than 1 2. w/Wn= 2
C. Greater than 1 3. w/Wn>> 2
D. Tending to zero 4. w/Wn< 2
A B C D
A (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
I (c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
C
T
E
Page 12 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 86. Two heavy rotating masses connected by shafts of lengths ℓ1, ℓ2and ℓ3 and the
corresponding diameters d1, d2 and d3. this system is reduced to a torsionally
I equivalent system having uniform diameter d of the shaft. The equivalent length of
the shaft is
C
𝑙 1 +𝑙 2 +𝑙 3
T (a) 4
E 3 3
𝑑1 𝑑1
(b) ℓ1+ℓ2+ + ℓ3
𝑑2 𝑑3
4 4
𝑑1 𝑑1
(c) ℓ1 +ℓ2+ + ℓ3
𝑑2 𝑑3
(d) ℓ1 +ℓ2+ ℓ3
A
87. A slender shaft supported on two bearing at its ends carries a disc with an eccentricity
I e from the axis of rotation. The critical speed of the shaft is N. If the disc is replaced
by a second one of the same weight but mounted with an eccentricity 2e, critical
C speed of the shaft in the second case is
(a) 1/2N
T
(b) 1/ 2 N
E (c) N
(d) 2 N
88. When the mass of a critically damped single degree of freedom system is deflected
from its equilibrium position and released, it will
(a) return to equilibrium position without oscillations
A (b) Oscillate with increasing time period
(c) Oscillates with decreasing amplitude
I (d) Oscillate with constant amplitude
C 89. A reduction in amplitude of successive oscillations indicate ________ vibration
(a) free
T (b) force
(c) damped
E
(d) natural
90. A vibrating system consists of a mass of 50 kg, a spring with stiffness of 30KN/m and
a damper. The damping provided is only 20% of the critical value. Determine the
critical damping coefficient
(a) 2.45 N/m/s
(b) 0.2 N/m/s
(c) 24.5 N/m/s
(d) 24 N/m/s
A
91. If the nodes are observed at a frequency of 1800 r.p.m. during whirling of a simply
I supported long rotating shaft, the first critical speed of the shaft is
(a) 200
C (b) 450
T (c) 600
(d) 800
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A
92. Large field guns which come to initial position after firing in shortest possible time
I are
(a) under damped
C (b) critically damped
(c) over damped
T (d) undamped
E
93. In a journal beaming, the radius of the friction circle increases with the increase in
(a) load
(b) radius of the journal
(c) speed of the journal
(d) viscosity of the lubricant
94. Tapered roller bearing can take

A (a) radial load only
I (b) axial load only
(c) both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these loads being greater than unity
C (d) both radial and axial loads and ratio of these loads being less than unity
T 95. These dynamic load capacity of a 6306 bearing is 22 KN. The maximum radial load
it can sustain to operate at 600 r.p.m., for 2000 hours is
E (a) 4.16 KN
(b) 3.6 KN
(c) 6.25 KN
(d) 5.29 KN
96. The life of a ball bearing is universally proportional to
A (a) (load)1/3
I (b) (load)3
(c) (load)1/2
C (d) (load)2
T 97. The roller contact bearing is known as

(a) sleeve bearing
E (b) thin film bearing
(c) bush bearing
(d) anti-friction bearing
98. In an application, there is misalignment between the axes of journal and housing bore.
Which type of rolling contact bearing would you suggest?
(a) spherical roller bearing
(b) self-alignment bearing
(c) angular contact bearing
A (d) both (a) and (b)
99. In case of full journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bushing with the journal is
I
(a) 3600
C (b) 1800
(c) 900
T (d) 600
E
Page 14 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 100. The velocity distribution in laminar flow through a circular pipe follow the
(a) parabolic
I
(b) linear
C (c) logarithmic law
(d) none of these
T
101. Boundary layer on a flat plate is called turbulent boundary layer if
E (a) Reynold number is more than 5 x 105
(b) Reynold number is less than 5 x 105
(c) Reynold number is between 2000 & 4000
(d) Reynold number is less than 2000
102. For the laminar flow between two parallel plates

(a) maximum velocity = 2.0 times the average velocity
A (b) maximum velocity = 2.5 times the average velocity
(c) maximum velocity = 1.33 times the average velocity
I (d) maximum velocity is equal toaverage velocity
C
103. The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance x from the leading edge over a
T flat plate varies as
(a) x0.8
E (b) x0.5
(c) x0.2
(d) x0.6
104. Von Karman momentum integral equation is given by

𝜏 𝜕𝜃
A (a) 𝑜 2 =
𝜌𝑣 𝜕𝑥
I 𝜏𝑜 𝜕𝜃
(b) 1 = 𝜕𝑥
𝜌𝑣 2
2
C
𝜏𝑜 𝜕𝜃
(c) 2 =
2𝜌𝑣 𝜕𝑥
T
𝜏𝑜 𝜕𝜃
E (d) =
2𝜌𝑣 𝜕𝑥
105. Which of the following strength has least significance in machine design?
(a) yield strength
(b) fracture strength
(c) ultimate strength
(d) proof stress
106. A circular shaft can transmit a torque of 5KNm. If the torque is reduced to 4 KNm,
A then the maximum value of bending moment that can be applied to the shaft is
(a) 1 KNm
I
(b) 2 KNm
C (c) 3 KNm
(d) 4 KNm
T
E
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 107. Acme threads are preferred over square threads for power screw because
(a) their efficiency is high
I (b) they can be manufactured using die
(c) they have higher co-efficient of friction
T 108. Differential screw is used in a
E (a) Turn buckle
(b) micrometer
(c) Vernier calliper
(d) coupler
109. The difference between belt tensions on the tight side and slack side of the belt drives
is 3 KN. If the belt speed is 15 m/s, the transmitting power in KW is
(a) 45
A (b) 90
I (c) 100
(d) 22.5
C
110. Total slip occurs in belt drive when
T (a) angle of rest is zero
(b) angle of creep is zero
E (c) angle of rest is greater than angle of creep
(d) angle of creep is greater than angle of rest
111. Form factor of a spur gear tooth depends

(a) circular pitch
A (b) pressure angle only
(c) number of teeth and circular pitch
I (d) number of teeth and system of teeth
C 112. A spur gear has a module of 3mm, number of teeth 16, a face width of 36 mm and
pressure angle of 200. It is transmitting a power of 3 KW at 20 rev/s. Taking a
T
velocity factor of 1.5, and a form factor of 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is about
E (a) 32 M Pa
(b) 46 M Pa
(c) 58 M Pa
(d) 70 M Pa
113. The number of start on the worm for a velocity ratio of 40 should be
(a) single
(b) double
(c) triple
(d) quadruple
A
114. Which of the following is used to convert a rotational motion into a translation
I motion?
(a) bevel gears
C
(b) double helical gears
T (c) worm gears
(d) rack and pinion gears
E
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2MED61
A 115. In a 14½o involute systemteeth, when a pinion meets with a rack, to avoid
interference, the minimum number of teeth on pinion is
I (a) 32
(b) 25
C (c) 20
(d) 16
T
E 116. Which of the following operations can produce chips of very small size?
(a) boring
(b) grinding
(c) milling
(d) turning
117. Consider the following operations

1. Reaming
A 2. Lapping
I 3. Milling
4. Honing
C
Of these operations, which can be regarded as micro finishing
T (a) 1, 2 &4
(b) 2, 3 & 4
E (c) 1, 3 & 4
(d) 2 & 4
118. Self-locking screw has

(a) fine threads
A (b) course threads
(c) coefficient of friction more than tangent of lead angle
I (d) two nuts
C 119. The last two digits of the bearing designation give the bore diameter of rolling contact
bearing when multiply by
T
(a) 10
E (b) 5
(c) π
(d) 100
120. Stub teeth are provided for

(a) high velocity ratio
(b) high power transmitting capacity
(c) low noise
(d) reducing number of teeth for compact construction
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
PG2ME D61
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Mechanical Design
Paper: 2

1. b 41 b 81. b
2. b 42 d 82. d
3. d 43 b 83. c
4. c 44 b 84. c
5. c 45 c 85. b
6. a 46 b 86. c
7. d 47 b 87. c
8. a 48 a 88. a
9. a 49 a 89. c
10. d 50 b 90. a
11. d 51 c 91. a
12. c 52 d 92. b
13. b 53 c 93. b
14. a 54 b 94. d
15. c 55 d 95. d
16. a 56 a 96. b
17. d 57 b 97. d
18. b 58 c 98. d
19. d 59 d 99. a
20. a 60 a 100. a
21. b 61 d 101. a
22. c 62 a 102. c
23. a 63 b 103. a
24. c 64 c 104. b
25. c 65 d 105. b
26. d 66 a 106. c
27. a 67 d 107. b
28. d 68 a 108. b
29. c 69 a 109. a
30. c 70 d 110. a
31. b 71 b 111. d
32. b 72 c 112. b
33. a 73 a 113. a
34. d 74 b 114. b
35. a 75 a 115. a
36. b 76 a 116. b
37. b 77 b 117. d
38. c 78 c 118. c
39. d 79 b 119. b
40. d 80 c 120. a
ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A POWER ENGINEERING/POWER SYSTEMS/ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEM

PAPER-I
C
Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
I
ball point pen.
1. Which among the following quantities are to be determined in voltage controlled bus?
a) P and Q
A b) Q and |V|
c) |V| and δ
I d) Q and δ
C 2. Which among the following buses constitute the maximum number in a power system?
T a) Slack bus
b) P Q bus
E c) P V bus
d) All of above
3. Why are load flow studies carried out?

a) To study of stability of the system
b) For fault calculations
A
c) For planning the power system
I d) None of above
C 4. Which among these is related to the critical clearing time of a fault in a power system?
a) Transient stability limit
T b) Steady state stability limit
E c) Frequency limit
d) None of above
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A
5. What is the fault current expression in case of LLG faults?
I a) If = 3 Ia1
b) If = 0
C c) If = 3 Ia0
T d) If = Ia1
E 6. Which among the following methods are highly accurate?

a) Gauss Seidel method
b) Newton Raphson method
c) Decoupled low flow method
d) Fast decoupled low flow method
A
7. What type of convergence takes place in NR method?
I a) Linear
b) Geometric
C c) Quadratic
d) Can’t say
T
E 8. What is the value of zero sequence impedance in line to line faults?
a) Z0 = 0
b) Z0 = 1
c) Z0 = ∞
d) Z0 = 3 Zn
A 9. What is the main drawback in NR method?

a) Slow to converge
I b) A large memory allocation is required to store the jacobian matrix
c) The number of iterations is more
C
d) All of the above
T
10. What is the value of acceleration factor used in the GS method?
E a) 2.4 – 2.9
b) 2.3 – 2.7
c) 1.6 – 2.0
d) 1.2 – 1.5
A 11. Which among the following is the main assumption to solve a load flow problem by GS
method?
I a) All the buses are to be considered as PQ bus excluding the slack bus
b) All the buses are to be considered as PV bus excluding the slack bus
C c) All the buses are to be considered as PQ bus including the slack bus
d) All the buses are to be considered as PV bus including the slack bus
T
E
12. What happens to the value of the fault current in case of SLG fault, if fault impedance is
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A introduced?
a) The fault current is reduced
I b) The fault current becomes zero
c) The fault current increases
C d) The fault current remains same
T
13. What happens if the neutral is not grounded in case of the single line to ground fault?
E a) Only the zero sequence impedance will be zero
b) The zero sequence impedance will be infinite
c) Fault current will be zero
d) Both (b) and (c)
14. What are cross country faults?

A a) A fault occurring at any point of the power system
b) Two or more faults occurring simultaneously on the power system
I
c) Line to line fault
T 15. Which one of the following is an unsymmetrical fault?

a) Single line to ground fault
E b) Double line to ground fault
d) All of the above
16. If the neutral in the Y connection is absent, the zero sequence current shall be
A a) Minimum
b) Zero
I c) Maximum
d) Infinite
C
17. What is the value of the zero sequence impedance?
T
a) Z 0 = 0
E b) Z 0 = Z
c) Z 0 = Z + 2 Zn
d) Z 0 = Z + 3 Zn
18. What is the value of the zero sequence current?

a) Equal to the current in the neutral wire
A b) √3 times the current in the neutral wire
I c) 3 times the current in the neutral wire
d) 1/3 times the current in the neutral wire
C
19. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding HVDC?
T a) There is no skin effect in dc line
b) HVDC can utilize earth for its return path
E
c) Corona loss is very much reduced in the dc line
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
I 20. If all the sequence voltages at the fault point in a power system are equal, then the fault
is
C a) Three phase fault
b) Double line to ground fault
T
E d) Line to ground fault
21. What will happen if a short circuit fault occurs in a switched capacitor-controlled
reactor?
a) Oscillation
b) Capacitor discharge
A c) Over voltage
d) Noise
I
C 22. Zero sequence currents can flow from a line into a transformer bank, if the winding are
in
T a) Ground star/delta
b) Delta/star
E c) Star/ground star
d) Delta/delta
23. If the positive, negative and zero sequence reactance of a power system are 0.3, 0.3 and
0.9 respectively. Then, the element would be a
A a) Synchronous generator
b) Synchronous motor
I c) Static load
d) Transmission line
C
24. Short circuit currents are not due to
T
a) Phase to phase fault
E b) Open conductor faults
c) Single phase to ground faults
d) Three phase faults
25. The most common type of unsymmetrical fault in a three-phase system

a) Single line to ground fault
A b) Line to line fault
I c) Double line to ground fault
d) Three phase faults
C
26. In a three-phase system, the phasor sum of current is zero. Then, there will be no
T a) Positive sequence component
b) Negative sequence component
E
c) Zero sequence component
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
I 27. Identify the correct relation

a) YBUS = [Bt][y][B]
C b) YLOOP = [Ct][y][C]
c) YBR=[B]t[y][B]
T
d) YLOOP=[At][y][A]
E
28. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) n
Pi  jQi  Vi*  YijV j
j 1
b) Vi | Vi |  cos  i  j sin  i 
A
c) n N N
I Real Power Loss = i 1

 i  gi  Pdi
P  P 
i 1 i 1
C (Total Generation ) - (Total Load )

d) N
T Qi   |YijViV j | Cos  i   j  ij 
j 1
E
29. The advantage of using sensitivity method over AC power flow method for sensitivity
analysis is
a) It is faster
b) It provides information about the voltage magnitudes
A c) It provides information about the VAR flows
d) All of the above
I
30. In load flow studies, the state variables are
C a) P and Q
b) |V| and δ
T
c) P and |V|
E d) P and δ
31. The positive sequence impedance component of three unequal impedances Za, Zb, and
Zc is
a) 1
3

Z a  aZb  a 2 Z c 
A b) 1
3

Z a  a 2 Zb  aZ c 
I
c) Z  aZ  a 2 Z
a b c
 
C
d) Z  a Z  aZ
2
a b c
T
32. At slack bus the quantities specified are
E a) P and Q
b) P and |V|
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ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A c) |V| and δ
d) P and δ
I
33. Which amongst the following is incorrect related to Gauss Seidel load flow method?
C a) Unreliable convergence
b) Slow convergence
T
c) Choice of slack bus affects convergence
E d) A good initial guess for voltages is essential for convergence
34. Which among the following quantities are specified at the load bus?
a) P and Q
b) P and |V|
c) Q and |V|
A d) P and δ
I
35. Thyristor Controlled Series Capacitor (TCSC) is used for
C a) Discrete control of the capacitive reactance
b) Discrete control of the capacitive as well as inductive reactance
T c) Continuous control of the capacitive reactance
d) Continuous control of the capacitive as well as inductive reactance
E
36. Static synchronous series compensator (SSSC) injects voltage in the transmission line
which could be considered as
a) An inductive voltage
b) A capacitive voltage
A c) Any of (a) and (b)
d) Does not inject any voltage
I
37. In a transmission line, the SSSC has the ability to
C a) Feed reactive compensating current
b) Reverse the power flow
T
c) Vary the resistance of the line
38. SSSC in a transmission line is a series connected system having

a) A Transformer coupled with a voltage source inverter
b) A Transformer coupled with a Capacitor
c) A STATCOM
I
39. Basic principle of series compensation is
C a) Series injection of current in line
b) Series injection of voltage in line
T c) Series injection of harmonic frequencies in line
E
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A
I 40. FACTS devices cannot be used for which one of the following
a) Power quality improvement
C b) VAR compensation
c) Line loss reduction
T
E
41. What stands for UPFC?
a) Unity power factor controller
b) Unity power factor converter
c) Unified power flow controller
d) Unified power flow converter
A
42. UPFC controls
I
a) Voltage magnitude and angle
C b) Real power flow
c) Reactive power flow
E 43. Thyristor controlled reactor (TCR) operates for
a) Phase controlled current in the circuit
b) Only on/off control of the reactor
c) Thyristor operation without firing control
d) All of the above
A
44. Thyristor switched reactor (TSR) operates for
I a) Phase controlled current in the circuit
b) Only on/off control of the reactor
C c) Thyristor operation without firing control
d) Both (b) and (c)
T
E 45. Harmonics in a power system can be controlled by
a) STATCOM
b) UPFC
c) TSR
d) All of the above
A 46. HVDC transmission is used for
I a) Long distance bulk power transmission
b) Underground or under water cables
C c) Asynchronous interconnection of AC systems operating at different frequencies
d) All of the above
T
47. In power system, presence of earth wire results
E a) increase in line capacitance
b) increase in line inductance
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A c) decrease in line capacitance

d) decrease in line inductance
I
48. What is the probability of an impossible event?
C a) 1
b) 0
T
c) Not defined
E d) Insufficient data
49. In a discrete system, changes are

a) Predominantly discrete
b) Predominantly continuous
c) Depend on the system
I
50. Aggregation is
C a) The extent to which the number of individual entities can be grouped together
into larger entities
T b) Combining infinite objects to form system
51. System is defined as

a) Aggregation or assemblage of objects
b) Proper combination of objects
A c) Definition of objects
I
52. Fuzzy logic is a form of
C a) Two-valued logic
b) Crisp set logic
T
c) Many-valued logic
E d) Binary set logic
represented by
a) Crisp Set
b) Fuzzy Set
A c) Crisp & Fuzzy Set
I d) None of the mentioned
C 54. The values of the set membership are represented by

a) Degree of truth
T b) Probabilities
c) Both (a) and (b)
E
d) Discrete Set
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ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A
I 55. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as
a) IF-THEN rules
C b) IF-THEN-ELSE rules
c) Both (a) and (b)
T
E
56. A perceptron is
a) a neural network that contains feedback
b) a double layer auto-associative neural network
c) a single layer feed-forward neural network with pre-processing
d) an auto-associative neural network
A
57. An auto-associative network is
I
a) a neural network that contains no loops
C b) a neural network that has only one loop
c) a neural network that contains feedback
T d) a single layer feed-forward neural network with pre-processing
E 58. Which is true for neural networks?
a) It has set of nodes and connections
b) Each node computes it’s weighted input
c) Node could be in excited state or non-excited state
d) All of the above
A
59. Artificial Intelligence (AI) software is
I a) A software used to analyze neurons
b) It is powerful and easy neural network
C c) Designed to aid experts in real world for problem solution
d) It is software used by Neuro surgeon
T
E 60. Which of the following is simulation software for power systems?
a) PSCAD
b) MATLAB
c) Open DSS
d) All of the above
A 61. The most economic load on an overhead line is
I a) Greater than the natural load
b) Less than the natural load
C c) Equal to the natural load
d) None of the above is necessary.
T
62. If the loading of the line corresponds to the surge impedance loading the voltage at the
E
receiving end is
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A a) Greater than sending end

b) Less than sending end
I c) Equal to the sending end
C
63. The diagonal elements of a nodal admittance matrix are strengthened by adding
T
a) Shunt inductances
E b) Shunt capacitors
c) Loads
d) Generators
64. For certain geometry and operating voltage of the uncompensated transmission line the
ratio of power transfer capability to the surge impedance loading with increase in length
A a) Increases
b) Remains unchanged
I
c) Decreases
C d) No fixed criterion
T 65. With the help of a reactive compensator it is possible to have

a) Constant voltage operation only
E b) Unity p.f. operation only
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) Either constant voltage or unity p.f.
66. The effect of increasing gating angle in a thyristor controlled reactor (TCR) is
A a) To decrease power loss in thyristor controller
b) To decrease power loss in the reactor
I c) To make current wave form less sinusoidal
C
67. The effect of series capacitance compensation is
T
a) To decrease the virtual surge impedance
E b) To decrease the effective length of the line
c) To increase virtual surge impedance loading
68. For any fixed degree of series compensation additional capacitive shunt compensation
a) Increases the effective length of line
A b) Increases virtual surge impedance of line
I c) Decreases virtual surge impedance loading of the line
d) Both (b) and (c).
C
69. With 100% inductive shunt compensation the voltage profile is flat for
T a) 100% loading of line
b) 50% loading of line
E
c) Zero loading of line
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ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A d) None of the above.
I 70. In a high voltage dc transmission scheme, reactive power is needed both for the rectifier
at the sending-end and, for the inverter at the receiving-end. During the operation of
C such a dc link the rectifier receives
a) Lagging reactive power and the inverter supplies leading reactive power
T
b) Leading reactive power and the inverter supplies lagging reactive power
E c) Lagging reactive power and the inverter supplies lagging reactive power
d) Leading reactive power and the inverter supplies leading reactive power.
71. Which of the following is not a function of Static VAR compensator?

a) Increased transient stability margins
b) Increased damping of power oscillations
A c) Increased temporary over voltages
d) Damping of sub-synchronous resonance
I
72. In a weak power system, which one of the following shall result in voltage instability?
C a) The load change
b) The switching of transmission lines
T c) The switching of large capacitor and reactor banks
d) All of the above
E
73. Which of the following is a static VAR compensator?
a) Thyristor Switched Capacitor (TSC)
b) Saturable Reactor (SR) compensator
c) Thyristor Controlled Reactor (TCR)
I 74. Full conduction of a TCR is obtained at firing angle of

a) 0°
C b) 30°
c) 90°
T
d) 180°
E
75. STATCOM does not operate in following mode
a) Fixed mode
b) Floating mode
c) Capacitive mode
d) Inductive mode
A
I 76. Which of the following is not a function of STATCOM?
a) Increased transient stability margins
C b) Increased power transmission capability
c) Improved power quality of the system
T d) Dynamic voltage regulation
E
77. In power systems, the SCADA system is used for
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ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A a) Operation planning and control

b) Fuel resource scheduling
I c) Optimal power flow
d) All of the above
C
78. In India, which organization performs the role of Independent System Operator (ISO)?
T
a) CEA
E b) PGCIL
c) POSOCO
d) CERC
79. Harmonics are generated in an electrical system due to following load.

a) Electric Geysers
A b) Power electronic devices
c) v/f controlled Induction motors
I
d) Both (b) and (c)
C
80. Following parameter of Induction motors is controlled using intelligent digital controllers
T for desired speed.
a) Current
E b) Power
c) Voltage
d) Power factor
PART-B (40X2 = 80 Marks)

A
I 81. In a network with b, branches and n nodes, the number of independent equations
required to solve the network are,
C a) n-1
b) b+(n-1)
T c) b-(n-1)
d) b/ n-1
E
82. How many fundamental cut sets will be generated for a graph with 'n' number of nodes?
a) n+1
b) n-1
c) n2(n-1)
A d) n/ n-1
I 83. For load-flow problems, Newton-Raphson (NR) method is better than the Gauss-Siedel
(GS) method, because
C
a) The time taken for one iteration in the NR method is less than the GS method
T b) The number of iteration required in the NR method is more than the GS method
c) The number of iterations required is dependent of the size of the system in the
E NR method
d) The convergence characteristic of the NR method is unaffected by the selection
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A of slack bus
I 84. The number of iterations required for an n-bus system in Gauss-Seidel method and
Newton-Raphson method, respectively, shall be approximately equal to
C a) n, n
b) n2, n2
T
c) n(n  1)
E n, 2
d) n(n  1) n(n  1)
2 , 2
A 85. In an electrical power system, the steady state stability is improved by

a) Reducing fault clearing time
I b) Using double circuit line instead of single circuit line
c) Single pole switching
C
d) Decreasing generator inertia
T
86. Transient state stability of an electrical power system is improved by
E a) Using high speed governors on machines
b) Using low inertia machines
c) Dispensing with neutral grounding
d) Any of the above
87. The critical clearing time for a fault in a power system is related to
A a) Reactive power limit
I b) Transient stability limit
c) Short circuit current limit
C d) Steady state stability limit
T 88. The equal area criterion of stability is applicable for

a) Three phase synchronous motor
E
b) Three phase induction motor
c) D.C. series motor
d) D.C. compound motor
89. Which one of the following is part of HVDC transmission?

A a) Converters
b) Earth electrodes
I c) Bipolar DC lines
d) All of the above
C
T 90. For lines above 33 kV, the shunt capacitors are installed
a) Near Motors
E b) At distribution substations
c) Both (a) and (b)
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A d) None of above
I 91. The erection of HVDC transmission line as compared to HVAC line, is

a) Very difficult
C b) More expensive for long distances
c) Less expensive for long distances
T
d) Less expensive for short distances
E
92. In Fast Decoupled Load Flow method the convergence is
a) Linear
b) Geometric
c) Quadratic
d) Approximately same as Newton-Raphson (NR) method
A
93. Which among the following is / are used for the solution of load flow using FDLF
I
method?
C a) [(Δ P) / E] = [B' ] [Δ δ]
b) [(Δ Q) / E] = [B" ] [ Δ E]
T c) [(Δ P) / E] = [B" ] [ Δ δ]
d) Both (a) and (b)
E
94. What is the size of the sub matrix “H “of the jacobian, if n1 is the number of PV buses
and n2 the number of PQ buses?
a) (n1 + n2)2
b) n1 * n2
A c) (n1 + n2) n1
d) (n1 + n2) n2
I
95. How are the zero sequence and negative sequence networks connected in case of LLG
C faults?
a) Series
T
b) Parallel
E c) Can be connected in either way
d) Such type of connection does not exist
96. What is the expression for fault current in line to line fault?
a) If = √3 * (Ea / Z1 + Z2)
b) If = 3 * (Ea / Z1 + Z2)
A c) If = √3 * (Ea / Z1 + Z2 + Z0)
I d) If = 3 * (Ea / Z1 + Z2 + Z0)
C 97. What will be the sum of (IB + IY) in case of line to line fault, if the fault is occurring in
the B and Y lines?
T a) ∞
b) 0
E
c) 1
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A d) IR
I 98. If the base impedance and line to line base voltage are 100 Ω and 100 kV respectively,
then the real power (in MW) delivered by the generator connected at the slack bus is
C a) -10
b) 0
T
c) 10
E d) 20
99. Various power system faults in increasing order of severity are

a) LG, LL, LLG, LLLG
b) LLLG, LLG, LG, LL
c) LLG, LLLG, LL, LG
A d) LL, LG, LLLG, LLG
I
100. A balanced 3-phase system consists of
C a) zero sequence currents only
b) positive sequence currents only
T c) negative and zero sequence currents
d) zero, negative and positive sequence currents
E
101. Percent bias for a generator protection lies between
a) 5 to 40
b) 40 to 45
c) 45 to 20
I 102. The HVDC converter

a) Does not consume reactive power
C b) Consumes as much reactive power as real power
c) Consumes 50% of the real power
T
d) None of these
E
103. If A and B are two mutually exclusive events with P(a) > 0 and P(b) > 0 then it implies
they are also independent
a) True
b) False
c) Can’t Say
I
104. If A is a perfect subset of B and P(A) < P(B), then P(B – A) is equal to
C a) P(A) / P(B)
b) P(A)P(B)
T c) P(A) + P(B)
d) P(B) – P(A)
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A
I 105. Which of the following can be selected as Fuzzy set theory defined fuzzy operators?
a) AND
C b) OR
c) NOT
T
d) All of the above
E
106. A 3-input neuron is trained to output a zero when the input is 110 and a one when the
input is 111. After generalization, the output will be zero, if and only if the input is
a) 000 or 110 or 011 or 101
b) 010 or 100 or 110 or 101
c) 000 or 010 or 110 or 100
A d) 100 or 111 or 101 or 001
I
107. A 4-input neuron has weights 1, 2, 3 and 4. The transfer function is linear with the
C constant of proportionality being equal to 2. The inputs are 4, 10, 5 and 20 respectively.
The output will be
T a) 238
b) 76
E c) 119
d) 123
108. Flexible AC Transmission Systems (FACTS) has following objective

a) Fast supply of reactive power
A b) Better controllability
c) Use of power electronic controllers
C 109. A static VAR compensator (SVC) consists of
a) TCRs in parallel with one or more TSCs
T
b) TCRs in series with one or more TSCs
E c) TCRs either in series or parallel with one or more TSCs
110. STATCOM does not have following capability

a) Small active power supply capability
b) Voltage source behind a capacitor
A c) Fast response as compared to a static VAR compensator (SVC)
I d) Maintains rated current even at low AC voltages
C 111. Static VAR compensator is

a) A shunt connected device.
T b) Used for reactive power injection in the system.
E c) Used for reactive power absorption from the system
d) All of the above
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A
I 112. Static VAR compensation is required for
a) Voltage control under heavy load fluctuation
C b) Improvement of steady state stability
c) Both (a) and (b)
T
d) .None of the above
E
113. Prime objective of a Static VAR compensator is
a) Absorption of real power
b) Maximize power transmission from generating stations to loads
c) Both (a) and (b)
A
114. The response time of STATCOM is about
I
a) One cycle
C b) Five cycle
c) One second
T d) Five second
E 115. Current source converter (CSC) based STATCOM has following advantage over voltage
source converter (VSC) based STATCOM
a) Small response time while operating at a high switching frequency
b) Small response time while operating at a low switching frequency
c) Large response time while operating at a low switching frequency
A d) large response time while operating at a high switching frequency
I 116. Which of the following statement is false about genetic algorithm (GA)
a) GAs cannot effectively solve problems in which the only fitness measure is a
C single right/wrong measure
b) GAs are more efficient in terms of speed of convergence
T
c) GAs require larger memory space for execution
E d) GAs have a tendency to converge towards local optima
117. Genetic algorithm (GA) does not use following operator

a) Mutation
b) Crossover
c) Regeneration
A d) Reproduction
I
118. The fuel cost of two power plants:
C Plant P1: C1=0.05Pg12+A Pg1 +B
Plant P2: C2=0.10Pg22+3A Pg2 +2B
T Where Pg1 and Pg2 are the generated power of two plants, and A and B are constants. If
the two plants optimally share 1000 MW load at an international fuel cost of 100
E
Rs/MWh, the ratio of load shared by plant P1 and P2 is
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ROLL NO.: PG1POE53
A a) 1:4
b) 2:3
I c) 3:2
d) 4:1
C
119. Three generators rated at 300 MW, 500 MW and 600 MW have speed droop
T
characteristics of 5%, 4% and 3% respectively. They are operating in parallel at 60 Hz
E frequency. What shall be the change in the system load in MW, if the system frequency
increases by 0.3Hz due to change in load?
a) -192.5 MW
b) -202.5 MW
c) +192.5 MW
d) +202.5 MW
A
120. For the synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus through a transmission line,
I
how are the change of voltage (∆V) and change of frequency (∆f) related to the active
C power (P) and the reactive power (Q)?
a) ∆V is proportional to P and ∆f to Q
T b) ∆V is proportional to Q and ∆f to P
c) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to P
E d) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to Q
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG1CVE 41
ANSWER KEY
Subject:Power Engg/Power Systems/Electrical Power System
Paper:1

1. d 41 c 81. c
2. b 42 d 82. b
3. c 43 a 83. d
4. a 44 d 84. c
5. c 45 d 85. b
6. c 46 d 86. a
7. c 47 a 87. b
8. a 48 b 88. a
9. b 49 a 89. d
10. c 50 b 90. b
11. a 51 b 91. c
12. a 52 a 92. b
13. d 53 b 93. d
14. b 54 d 94. a
15. d 55 b 95. b
16. b 56 c 96. a
17. d 57 a 97. b
18. d 58 b 98. c
19. d 59 c 99. a
20. b 60 d 100. b
21. a 61 a 101. a
22. a 62 c 102. c
23. d 63 a 103. b
24. b 64 c 104. d
25. a 65 d 105. d
26. c 66 d 106. c
27. c 67 d 107. a
28. d 68 a 108. d
29. a 69 c 109. a
30. b 70 a 110. b
31. b 71 c 111. d
32. c 72 d 112. a
33. a 73 d 113. b
34. a 74 c 114. a
35. d 75 a 115. b
36. c 76 a 116. b
37. b 77 d 117. c
38. a 78 c 118. d
39. b 79 d 119. a
40. d 80 c 120. b
ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A POWER ENGINEERING/POWER SYSTEMS/ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEM
C
PAPER-II
T
Instructions:
wrong answer.
I
C ball point pen.
E
1. On what factor does the operating speed of the relay depend?

a) Rate of flux built up
A b) Armature core air gap
c) Spring tension
C 2. Protective relays can be designed to respond to
a) Light intensity, impedance
T
b) Temperature, resistance, reactance
E c) Voltage and current
d) All of the above
3. The most efficient torque producing actuating structure for the induction type relays is
a) Shaded pole structure
b) Watt hour meter structure
A c) Induction cup structure
I d) Single induction loop structure
C 4. For which among the following the current ratings are not required?
a) Circuit breakers
T b) Isolators
c) Relays
E
d) Load break switch
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ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A
5. A thermal protection switch provides protection against what?
I a) Overload
b) Temperature
C c) Short circuit
d) Over voltage
T
E 6. Plug setting of a electromagnetic relay can be altered by varying
a) Number of ampere turns
b) Air gap of magnetic path
c) Adjustable back stop
d) Cannot be altered
A 7. What does protective relay do?

a) Provide additional safety to the circuit breaker in its operation
I
b) Close the contacts when the actuating quantity attains a predetermined value
C c) Limit the arcing current during the circuit breaker operation
d) Earth or ground any stray voltage
T
8. How is the restriking voltage measured?
E a) Peak value
b) Instantaneous value
c) RMS value
d) Average value
A 9. Which one of the following relays has the capability of anticipating the possible major
fault in a transformer?
I a) Over current relay
b) Differential relay
C c) Buchholz relay
d) Over fluxing relay
T
E 10. In a relay coil which of the following is used?
a) Potential transformer
b) Current transformer
c) Power transformer
d) Distribution transformer
A 11. In an induction relay the operating time 4 sec for a particular current setting, when the
I time multiplier setting is 0.8. If the time multiplier setting is reset to 1 the operating
time shall be
C a) Unchanged
b) 1 sec
T c) 5 sec
d) 10 sec
E
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A 12. In a biased differential relay the bias is defined as the ratio of

a) Fault current and operating coil current
I b) Operating coil current and restraining coil current
c) Number of turns of restraining and operating coil
C d) Fault current and restraining coil current
T
13. Merze price current scheme protection is used in
E a) Transformer
b) Alternator
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Bus bars
14. If X(ω) is the Fourier transform of the signal x(n), then what is the Fourier transform of
A the signal x(n-k)?
a) ejωk. X(-ω)
I
b) ejωk. X(ω)
C c) e-jωk. X(-ω)
d) e-jωk. X(ω)
T
15. DFT is applied to
E a) Infinite sequences
b) Finite discrete sequences
c) Continuous infinite signals
d) Continuous finite sequences
A 16. DTFT is the representation of

a) Periodic Discrete time signals
I b) Aperiodic Discrete time signals
c) Periodic continuous signals
C d) Aperiodic continuous signals
T
17. Wavelet series equation is sum of
E a) Scaling coefficient
b) Detail coefficient
c) Span coefficient
d) Both (a) and (b)
18. Scaling vectors are taken as

A a) Heights
I b) Sharpness
c) Intensity
C d) Weights
T 19. Narrow wavelets represent

a) Sharp details
E
b) Finer details
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ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A c) Blur details
d) Edge details
I
20. The protection against direct lightening strokes and high voltage steep waves is
C provided by
a) Earthing of neutral
T
b) Lightening arresters
E c) Ground wires
d) Both (b) and (c)
21. In outdoor substation, the lightening arresters is placed nearer to

a) The isolator
b) The current transformer
A c) The power transformer
d) The current breaker
I
C 22. An efficient and a well-designed protective relaying should have
a) good selectivity and reliability
T b) economy and simplicity
c) high speed and selectivity
E d) all of the above
23. What is the purpose of back up protection?

a) To leave no blind spot
b) To guard against failure of primary
A c) To increase the speed
d) To increase the reach
I
24. What is the actuating quantity for the relays?
C a) Magnitude
b) Frequency
T
c) Phase angle
25. A reactance relay is

a) Voltage restrained directional relay.
b) Directional restrained over-current relay
c) Voltage restrained over-current relay
I
26. Burden of a protective relay is the power
C a) Required to operate the circuit breaker
b) Absorbed by the circuit of relay
T c) Developed by the relay circuit
E
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A 27. When a line-to-line fault occurs, the short circuit current of an alternator depends upon
its
I a) Sub-transient reactance
b) Transient reactance
C c) Synchronous reactance
d) Short circuit reactance
T
E 28. Which type of protection is provided on a generator to protect against stator insulation
failure?
a) Differential protection
b) Thermocouple actuated alarm
c) Over current relay
d) Reverse power relay
A
29. Fault diverters are basically
I
a) Fuses
C b) Relays
c) Fast switches
T d) Circuit breakers
E 30. A transmission line uses following protection
a) Inrush protection
b) Distance protection
c) Time graded and current graded over current protection
d) Both (b) and (c)
A
31. Large internal faults are protected by
I a) Merz price percentage differential protection
b) Mho and ohm relays
C c) Horn gaps and temperature relays
d) Earth fault and positive sequence relays
T
E 32. Short-circuit currents are due to
a) Single phase to ground faults
b) Phase to phase faults
c) Three phase faults
d) Any of the above
A 33. For which of the following ratings of the transformer differential protection is
I recommended?
a) Above 30 kVA
C b) Equal to and above 5 MVA
c) Equal to and above 25 MVA
E
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A 34. Overfluxing protection is recommended for

a) Distribution transformer
I b) Generator transformer of the power plant
c) Auto-transformer of the power plant
C d) Station transformer of the power plant
T
35. The protection against over-voltage due to lightening is provided by
E a) Use of surge diverters
b) Low tower footing resistance
c) Use of overhead ground wires
d) Any of the above
36. In an alternator, relay protection is absolutely necessary against

A a) Over current
b) Field failure
I
c) Stator winding faults
T 37. Balanced earth-fault protection is generally provided for

a) Small-size alternators
E b) Medium-size alternators
c) Large-size alternators
38. The positive, negative and zero sequence impedances of a solidly grounded system
A under
steady state condition always follow the relations
I a) Z1> Z2> Z0
b) Z1  Z 2  Z 0
C
c) Z 0  Z1  Z 2
E
39. Carrier current protection scheme is normally used for
a) HV cables only
b) HV transmission lines only
c) HV transmission and cables.
d) None of above
A
40. For protection of parallel feeders fed from one end the relays required are
I a) Directional relays at the source end and non-directional at the load end
C b) Non-directional relays at both the ends
c) Non-directional relays at the source end and directional relays at the load end
T d) Directional relays at both the ends.
E 41. An overhead line with series compensation is protected using

a) Impedance relay
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ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A b) Reactance relay
c) Mho relay
I d) None of the above.
C 42. The positive sequence component of voltage at the point of fault is zero when it is a
a) 3-phase fault
T
b) L-L fault
E c) L-L-G fault
d) L-G fault.
43. For complete protection of a 3-phase line

a) Three phase and three earth fault relays are required
b) Three phase and two earth fault relays are required
A c) Two phase and two earth fault relays are required
d) Two phase and one earth fault relays are required.
I
C 44. The phase comparators in case of static relays and electro-mechanical relays normally
are
T a) Sine and cosine comparators respectively
b) Cosine and sine comparators respectively
E c) Both are cosine comparators
d) Both are sine comparators.
45. A distance relay is said to be inherently directional if its characteristic on R-X diagram
a) is a straight line off-set from the origin
A b) is a circle that passes through the origin
c) is a circle that encloses the origin
I d) always a separate directional relay is required.
C 46. The frequency of the carrier in the case of carrier current-pilot scheme is in the range of
a) 1 KHz to 10 KHz
T
b) 15 KHz to 25 KHz
E c) 25 KHz to 50 KHz
d) 50 KHz to 500 KHz.
47. The unit protection scheme provides

a) primary protection
b) Back up protection
A c) simultaneous protection
I d) remote protection.
C 48. For a long uncompensated line the limit to the line loading is governed by
a) Thermal limit
T b) Voltage drop
c) Stability limit
E
d) Corona loss.
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ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A
49. The line trap unit employed in carrier current relaying
I a) offers high impedance to 50 Hz power frequency signals
b) offers high impedance to carrier frequency signals
C c) offers low impedance to carrier frequency signals
T
E 50. To prevent maloperation of differentially connected relay while energising a
transformer,
the relay restraining coil is biased with
a) second harmonic current
b) third harmonic current
c) fifth harmonic current
A d) seventh harmonic current.
I
51. A long overhead transmission line is terminated by its characteristic impedance. Under
C this operating condition, the ratio of the voltage to the current at different points along
the line will
T a) progressively increase from the sending-end to the receiving-end
b) progressively increase from the receiving-end to the sending-end
E c) remain the same at the two ends, but is higher between the two end being
maximum at the centre of the line
d) remain the same at all points.
52. For which of the following reasons is a differential relay biased to avoid maloperation
A when used for transformer protection?
1. Saturation of CTs.
I 2. Mismatch to CT ratios.
3. Difference in connection of both sides.
C 4. Current setting multiplier.
T
a) 1 and 4
E b) 1 and 2
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3.
53. A single line to ground fault occurs on a three-phase isolated neutral system with a line
to neutral voltage of V kV. The potentials on the healthy phases rise to a value equal to
A a) 2V kV
I b) √3 V kV
c) 3V kV
C
d) 1
V kV
T 3
E 54. Differential protection of a generator makes use of the principle that, under normal
conditions, the current/currents
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ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A a) at the neutral end of a phase winding is zero

b) in each of the phase winding is identical
I c) at both ends of the phase winding are equal
d) at the two ends of the phase winding are unequal.
C
55. The power angle characteristic of machine-infinite bus system is
T
Pc  Sin pu
E It is operating at δ = 30°. Which one of the following is the synchronizing power
coefficient at the operating point?
a) 1.0
b) √3
c) 2.0
A d) 1
3
I
C 56. Mho relay is normally used for the protection of
a) Long transmission lines
T b) Medium length lines
c) Short length lines
E d) No length criterion.
57. Reactance relay is normally preferred for protection against:

a) Earth faults only
b) Phase faults only
c) Both (a) and (b)
A
d) None of the above.
I
58. For measuring positive, negative and zero sequence voltages in a system, the reference
C is taken as
a) Neutral of the system only
T b) Ground only
E c) For zero sequence neutral and for positive and negative the ground
59. Which one of the following is faster?

a) Automatic load frequency controller (ALFC)
b) Automatic voltage regulator (AVR)
A c) Both are equally fast
d) None of these
I
C 60. Square of standard deviation is called
a) Variance
T b) Noise
c) Restoration
E d) Power
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A
I 61. Aliasing is caused when
a) Sampling frequency is equal to the message signal
C b) Sampling frequency is greater to the message signal
c) Sampling frequency is less to the message signal
T
d) Both (a) and (b)
E
62. Sampling is necessary
a) In complex control systems
b) Where high accuracy is required
c) Non-automated control systems
d) Automated control system
A
63. For the successful reconstruction of signals
I
a) Sampling frequency must be equal to the message signal
C b) Sampling frequency must be greater to the message signal
c) Sampling frequency must be less to the message signal
T d) Sampling frequency must be greater than or equal to the message signal
E 64. The first step required to convert analog signal to digital is
a) Sampling
b) Holding
c) Reconstruction
d) Quantization
A
65. In a digital control system, selection of a large sampling interval
I a) improves the steady –state performance
b) deteriorates the steady state performance
C c) has no effects on steady state performance
d) has an effect on steady state performance that depends on plant parameters
T
E 66. The angle δ in the swing equation of a synchronous generator is the
a) angle between stator voltage and current
b) angular displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator
c) angular displacement of the stator mmf with respect to a synchronously rotating
axis
d) angular displacement of an axis fixed to the rotor with respect to a
A synchronously rotating axis
I
67. The transient stability limit of a power system can be appreciably increased by
C introducing which of the following
a) Series inductance
T b) Shunt inductance
c) Series capacitance
E
d) Shunt capacitance
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A
I 68. What is / are the cause(s) for transient disturbance?
a) Sudden load changes
C b) Faults in the power system
c) Switching operations
T
d) All of the above
E
69. Which among the following phenomenon is generally associated with voltage stability?
a) Temporary load reduction
b) Voltage Reduction
c) Voltage collapse
d) All of the above
A
70. What is frequency stability?
I
a) To maintain steady frequency following severe disturbance resulting in the
C imbalance between transformer and load
b) To maintain steady frequency following severe disturbances resulting in the
T imbalance between generators and load
c) To maintain a steady frequency in all the protection components and the
E transmission lines
d) Both (a) and (b)
71. What is the result of frequency instability?

a) Voltage collapse
A b) Frequency swings
c) Tripping of generating units
I d) Both (b) and (c)
C 72. What kind of differential equation is swing equation?
a) Linear first order
T
b) Non-linear first order
E c) Linear second order
d) Non-linear second order
73. What are the main applications of the swing curves?

a) Designing the rotor field windings
b) Designing the protective devices
A c) Used to limit the size of the machine
I d) None of above
C 74. What is the range of ‘δ’ for stable operation?

a) 0° < δ < 45°
T b) 45° < δ < 90°
c) 0° < δ < 90°
E
d) 0° < δ < 120°
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A
I 75. Why are the series capacitors used?
a) Improve the voltage
C b) Reduce the fault level
c) Improves the power factor
T
d) Compensate for line inductive reactance and improve the stability of the power
E system
76. Under what condition is the system stable under equal area criterion?
a) The area under the curve Pa – δ curve must increase to ∞
b) The area under the curve Pa – δ curve must become equal to 1
c) The area under the curve Pa – δ curve must reduce to zero
A d) None
I
77. Which among these cannot be determined from equal area criterion?
C a) Critical clearing time
b) Critical clearing angle
T c) Transient stability limit
d) All of the above
E
78. With the use of high speed circuit breakers, which among the following stability is
increased?
a) Steady state stability
b) Transient stability
A c) Frequency stability
d) All of the above
I
79. What will be the penalty factor for a unit, if the generating station is located very close
C to load centre?
a) Very high positive value
T
b) Almost equal to unity
E c) Zero
d) A negative value
80. How is the voltage and frequency controlled in automatic generation control?
a) By controlling the excitation
b) By controlling the turbine action
A c) Turbine speed control for voltage and excitation control for frequency
I d) Excitation control for voltage and turbine speed control for voltage
C
T
E
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A
I PART- B (40 X 2 = 80 Marks)
C 81. When a fault occurs in a high voltage transmission line, what happens first?
a) Circuit breaker operates then the relay
T
b) Relay operates, then successively the isolator and the circuit breaker
E c) Relay operates and then the circuit breaker
d) Isolator operates, then successively the relay and the circuit breaker
82. Why is it difficult to interrupt a capacitive circuit?

a) The current has a leading power factor
b) The restriking voltage can be high
A c) Current magnitude is very small
d) Stored energy in the capacitor is very high
I
83. An over current relay, having a current setting of 125% connected to a supply circuit
C through a current transformer of ratio 500/5. The plug setting multiplier for a fault
current of 5 kA is
T a) 2
E b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
84. Which of the following relations are true if x(n) is real?
a) X(ω)=X(-ω)
A b) X(ω)=-X(-ω)
c) X*(ω)=X(ω)
I d) X*(ω)=X(-ω)
C 85. What is the value of |X(ω)| given X(ω)=1/(1-ae-jω ) ,|a|<1?

a) 1/√(1-2acosω+a2 )
T b) 1/√(1+2acosω+a2 )
c) 1/(1-2acosω+a2 )
E d) 1/(1+2acosω+a2 )
86. The circular convolution of two sequences in time domain is equivalent to
a) Multiplication of DFTs of two sequences
b) Summation of DFTs of two sequences
c) Difference of DFTs of two sequences
A
d) Square of multiplication of DFTs of two sequences
I 87. The basic properties of DFT includes
C 1) Linearity
2) Periodicity
T 3) Circular symmetry
4) Summation
E a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
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ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A c) 1 and 3 are correct

d) All are correct
I
88. The DFT is preferred for
C 1) Its ability to determine the frequency component of the signal
2) Removal of noise
T
3) Filter design
E 4) Quantization of signal
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) All are correct
A 89. Orthonormal filter is developed around filter called

a) Prototype
I
b) Up-sampling
C c) Filtering
d) Digital segment filtering
T
90. Correction of power law response in wavelet transform is called
E a) Alpha correction
b) Beta correction
c) Gamma Correction
d) Pixel correction
A 91. A differential relay measures the vector difference between

a) Two currents
I b) Two voltages
c) Two or more similar electrical quantities
T
92. In an impedance relay, fault current is maximum if fault occurs near the
E a) Relay
b) Center of the line
c) Transformer
93. Actual tripping of a static relay is obtained by

A a) IGBTs
I b) Thyristors
c) UJTs
T 94. The relation between traveling voltage wave and current wave is
a) e = i (L/C) ½
E
b) e = i (C/L) ½
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ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A c) e = i (iL/C) ½
d) e = (L/iC) ½
I
95. Steepness of the traveling waves is attenuated by
C a) Resistance of the line
b) Capacitance of the line
T
c) inductance of the line
96. Shunt compensation in an EHV line is used to

a) Improve stability
b) Reduce fault level
c) Improve the voltage profile
A d) Substitute for synchronous phase modifier
I
97. A power system network with a capacity of 100 MVA has a source impedance of 10%
C at a point. Calculate the fault level at that point
a) 10 MAV
T b) 30 MVA
c) 1000 MVA
E d) 3000 MVA
98. An alternator having an induced e.m.f of 1.6 pu is connected to an infinite bus of 1.0
pu. If the bus bar has reactance of 0.2 pu, what is the maximum power that can be
transferred?
A a) 2 pu
b) 2.6 pu
I c) 5 pu
d) 6 pu
C
99. The stored energy of a 50 MVA generator with inertia constant H = 8 MJ/MVA
T
a) 6.25 MJ
E b) 8 MJ
c) 50 MJ
d) 400 MJ
100. The most efficient torque producing actuating structure for the induction type relays is
a) shaded pole structure
A b) watt hour meter structure
I c) induction cup structure
d) single induction loop structure
C
101. Find the error voltage of phase comparator whose input signal is Vs= VsSin(2πfst) and
T the output signal Vo= VoSin(2πfot+φ)
a) Ve=[k×(Vs/2)]×[cos(-φ)-cos(2πfot+φ)]
E
b) Ve=[k×Vs×(Vo/2)]×[cos(-φ)-cos(2πfot+φ)]
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A c) Ve=[k×Vs×(Vo/2)]×[cos(-φ)+cos(2πfot+φ)]
d) Ve=[k×Vs×Vo]×[cos(-φ)-cos(2πfot+φ)]
I
102. For the protection of power system against travelling waves, following is used
C a) Earthing screens
b) Surge diverters
T
c) Overhead ground wires
E d) None of above
103. The automatic relay protection is usually not provided for the following alternator fault
a) Failure of field
b) Over current
c) Over speed
A d) All the above
I
104. The inverse definite mean time relays are used for over current and earth fault
C protection of transformer against
a) Heavy loads
T b) Internal short-circuits
c) External short-circuits
105. If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the V/I ratio will be
a) Constant for all distances
b) Lower than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
A c) Higher than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
I
106. The most important stator winding fault in an alternator is
C a) Fault between phase and ground
b) Fault between phases
T
c) Inter-turn fault in one phase
E d) None of above
107. The Merz-Price circulating current scheme is uneconomical for the protection of
a) Overhead lines
b) Alternators
c) Transformers
A d) None of above
I
108. The dq0 transformation is
C a) Product of the Clarke transform and the Park transform
b) A tensor that rotates the reference frame of a three-element vector
T c) Used to rotate the reference frames of ac waveforms such that they become dc
signals
E
d) All of the above
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A
I 109. Automatic voltage regulator (AVR) control loop must have
a) Strict regulation of terminal |V| within required static accuracy limit
C b) Good speed of response
c) Stable operation
T
d) All of the above
E
110. Which one of the following is not a function of automatic load frequency controller.
a) To maintain desired MW output of a generator unit
b) To assist in controlling the frequency of large interconnection
c) To maintain net interchange of power between pool members at predetermined
values
I
111. Which function is not important for a load control center?
C a) System monitoring
b) Contingency analysis
T c) Harmonic analysis
d) Optimal power flow
E
112. The state variables of State estimation are
a) The current and power factor
b) The voltage magnitude and phase angle
c) The power in the system
A d) The power factor and reactance
I 113. The major functions of the power system security are

a) System monitoring
C b) Contingency analysis
c) Security-constrained optimal power flow
T
d) All of the above
E
114. Equal area criterion gives the information regarding which of the following
a) Absolute stability
b) Relative stability
c) Stability region
d) Swing curves
A
I 115. A synchronous generator is connected to an 11 KV infinite bus through a transmission
line. The reactance of the generator and transmission line are 1.2 Ω and 0.8 Ω
C respectively. The internal voltage of the synchronous generator is 15 KV. If the
generator delivers 70 MW power to the infinite bus. Then, calculate the load angle (𝛿)
T in degree
a) 58.05
E
b) 19.84
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2POE53
A c) 26.3
d) 29.2
I
116. Given the state variable model  A, B, C of a single-input, single-output system. The
C asymptotic stability is determined from
T a) A, B and C matrices
b) A and B matrices
E c) A and C matrices
d) A matrix
117. A three-phase, 4-pole, self-excited induction generator is feeding power to a load at a

frequency f1. If the load is partially removed, the frequency becomes f2. If the speed of
the generator is maintained at 1500 rpm in both the cases, then
A
a) f1, f2> 50 Hz and f1 >f2
I b) f1 < 50 Hz and f2 > 50 Hz
c) f1, f2 < 50 Hz and f2 >f1
C d) f1 > 50 Hz and f2 < 50 Hz
T 118. For which control among the following, is the regulating transformer used in a power
E system?
a) Power flows
b) Frequency
c) Voltage
d) Power factor
A 119. The stability of the power system is not affected by which among these?
a) Generator reactance
I b) Excitation of generators
c) Line losses
C
d) None
T
120. What is the value of transient stability limit?
E a) Lower than steady state stability limit
b) Higher than steady state stability limit
c) Depending upon the severity of load
d) All of the above
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG2CVE 41
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Power Engg/Power Systems/Electrical Power System
Paper: 2

1. d 41 d 81. c
2. d 42 a 82. b
3. c 43 d 83. d
4. b 44 b 84. d
5. a 45 b 85. a
6. a 46 d 86. a
7. b 47 a 87. a
8. a 48 c 88. c
9. c 49 b 89. a
10. b 50 a 90. c
11. c 51 d 91. c
12. c 52 b 92. a
13. c 53 b 93. d
14. d 54 c 94. a
15. b 55 b 95. a
16. b 56 a 96. c
17. d 57 a 97. c
18. d 58 d 98. a
19. b 59 b 99. d
20. d 60 a 100. c
21. c 61 c 101. b
22. d 62 b 102. b
23. b 63 d 103. d
24. d 64 a 104. b
25. b 65 c 105. b
26. b 66 d 106. a
27. c 67 c 107. a
28. a 68 d 108. d
29. c 69 d 109. d
30. d 70 b 110. d
31. a 71 d 111. c
32. d 72 d 112. b
33. b 73 b 113. a
34. b 74 c 114. c
35. d 75 d 115. a
36. c 76 c 116. d
37. a 77 a 117. c
38. a 78 b 118. a
39. b 79 b 119. c
40. c 80 c 120. a
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A POWER ELECTRONICS & DRIVES

PAPER-I
C
Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
I
ball point pen.
1. The static V-I curve for the SCR is plotted for

a) Ia (anode current) vsIg (gate current), Va (anode – cathode voltage) as a parameter
b) IavsVa with Ig as a parameter
A c) VavsIg with Ia as a parameter
d) Igvs Vg with Ia as a parameter
I
C 2. If the cathode of an SCR is made positive with respect to the anode & no gate current is applied
then
T a) all the junctions are reversed biased
b) all the junctions are forward biased
E
c) only the middle junction is forward biased
d) only the middle junction is reversed biased
3. Which among the following devices is the most suited for high frequency applications?
a) BJT
A
b) IGBT
I c) MOSFET
d) SCR
C
4. Choose the correct statement
T
a) MOSFET has a positive temperature co-efficient
E b) MOSFET has a high gate circuit impedance
Page 1 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A c) MOSFET is a voltage controlled device

I
5. The N-channel MOSFET is considered better than the P-channel MOSFET due to its
C a) low noise levels
b) TTL compatibility
T
c) lower input impedance
E d) faster operation
6. The value of anode current required to maintain the conduction of an SCR even though the gate
signal is removed is called as the
a) holding current
A b) latching current
c) switching current
I d) peak anode current
C
7. For effective turning off of the SCR after the anode current has reached zero value.
T a) chargers are injected by applying reverse anode-cathode voltage
b) chargers are removed by applying reverse anode-cathode voltage
E
c) chargers are injected by applying gate signal
d) chargers are removed by applying gate signal
8. An SCR has half cycle surge current rating of 3000 A for 50 Hz. Calculate its one-cycle surge
current rating
A a) 3121.32 A
I b) 2121.32 A
c) 3131.32 A
C d) 2131.32 A
T 9. di/dt protection is provided to the thryistor by
E a) connecting an inductor in parallel across the load
b) connecting an inductor in series with the load
c) connecting an inductor in parallel across the gate terminal
d) connecting an inductor in series with the gate
10. In the below given circuit, the SCR is triggered at a certain firing angle α. The load current falls
A to zero at ωt equal to
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A
I
C
T
E
a) α
A b) α/2
c) π
I d) π/2
C 11. For the below given circuit with firing angle α & angular frequency of ω, the circuit turn-off
T time in secs can be given by
A
I
C a) α/π
b) π/α
T
c) ω/π
E d) π/ω
12. Choose the correct statement with respect to the below given circuit.
A
I
C
T
E
Page 3 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A a) The load current can never be zero

b) The source current can never be zero
I c) The load voltage can never be zero
d) All the given statements are false
C
T 13. For the below shown circuit has discontinuous load current waveform
A
I
C
Each thyristor pair conducts for
T
a) π radians
E b) 2π radians
c) < π radians
d) > π radians
14. A single-phase full controlled converted with RLE load will act like a line-commutated inverter
A when the firing angle α
a) α > 180°
I b) α > 90°
c) α < 90°
C
d) α = 90°
T
15. In the below given circuit, from ωt = π to α+π and continuous load current configuration
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 4 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A a) T1 and T2 conduct
b) T2 and D1 conduct
I c) T1 and D2 conduct
d) T1 and D1 conduct
C
T 16. A single-phase semi-converter is having continuous conduction, as such each thyristor will
conduct for an angle of
E a) α
b) π
c) α+π
d) π-α
A 17. Consider the following statements regarding phase controlled converters:

i) They do not provide smooth variation of output voltage.
I
ii) They inject harmonics into the power system.
C iii) They draw non-unity power factor current for finite firing angles.
Which of the above statements are correct?
T
a) All the three
E b) i and ii only
c) i and iii only
d) ii and iii only
18. Consider the following statement:

The overlap angle of a phase controlled converter will increase ____
A
i) if the firing angle is increased
I ii) if the supply frequency is increased
ii) if the supply voltage magnitude is lowered
C Of these statements
T a) all are correct
b) only the first and the last one are correct
E c) only the first one is incorrect
d) all are incorrect
19. A three-phase three-pulse converter would operate as a line commutated inverter when
a) 30° < α < 60°
A b) 90° < α <180°
c) 90° > α
I
d) it can never operate as a line commutated inverter
C
20. A three-phase full converter is driving a DC motor. If a continuous current of Imis flowing
T through the motor load, then find the rms value of supply current drawn by the converter to
E drive the motor
a) Im/√2
Page 5 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A b) Im2/3
c) √2Im/√3
I d) √2Im/3
C
21. The effect of source inductance on the performance of a 3-phase controlled converter is to
T a) increase the average load voltage
b) reduce the average load voltage
E c) make the load current continuous
d) remove ripples from the load current
22. Semi-converters are

a) single quadrant converters
A b) double quadrant converters
c) three quadrant converters
I
C
23. In case of the 120° mode of operation of an inverter circuit, number of devices in conduction at
T a time is
E a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
24. Dual converters provide

A
a) two quadrant operation
I b) three quadrant operation
c) four quadrant operation
T
25. The below given figure is that of a _________ (IGBT is used as a chopper switch)
E
A
I
C
T a) step-up/step-down chopper
b) step-down chopper
E
Page 6 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A c) step-up chopper
I
26. In the below given circuit, when switch (SW) is first switched closed and then opened the
C
T
E
A
I
a) voltage is non-zero and current is rising
C b) voltage is zero and current is decaying
c) voltage is non-zero and current is decaying
T d) voltage is zero and current is rising
E
27. Identify the given circuit
A
I
C
T
E
a) Type D chopper
A b) Two quadrant type C chopper
c) Type E chopper
I d) Type F chopper
C 28. In a step-down chopper the load current ripple can be reduced by
T a) Increasing L
b) Increasing the switching frequency of the switch
E c) Both the above
Page 7 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A
29. A dc chopper operating at fixed frequency is feeding to an R-L load. As the duty ratio of the
I chopper is increased from 25% to 75%, the ripple in the load current
a) Remains constant
C
b) Decreases, reaches a minimum at 50% duty ratio and then increases
T c) Increases, reaches a maximum at 50% duty ratio and then decreases
d) Keeps on increasing as the duty ratio is increased
E
30. In a dc-dc boost converter, peak-to-peak ripple voltage of the capacitor depends on
a) Load current
b) Switching frequency
A c) The capacitance of the capacitor
d) All of the above
I
C
31. In a buck-boost dc-dc converter, the nature of input current for continuous output current is
T a) Discontinuous
E b) Continuous
c) It can be continuous or discontinuous depending on the switching frequency
d) The input current is always constant
32. For a forward converter, which of the following is permanently connected at the output in order
A to limit the output voltage
a) A resistor
I
b) An inductor
C c) A capacitor
d) A transistor
T
E 33. A push-pull converter is driven by
a) A constant voltage source
b) A constant current source
c) Either (a) or (b)
A
I 34. In a fly-back converter, the inductor of the buck-boost converter is replaced by a
a) Fly-back capacitor
C b) Fly-back resistor
c) Fly-back transformer
T d) Fly-back transistor
E 35. The isolated dc sources are required for
Page 8 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A a) Diode-clamped multilevel inverter

b) Flying capacitors multilevel inverter
I c) Cascaded multilevel inverter
C d) Hybrid multilevel inverter
T 36. Harmonics in 3 phase inverters can be reduced by using

a) Passive filter
E b) Active filter
c) Both passive and active filters
d) None of these
37. The multilevel inverters were developed for the applications in the areas having
A a) High voltage and high current
b) Low voltage and highcurrent
I c) Low voltage and low current
C d) High voltage and low current
T 38. A single phase half bridge inverter has load R = 2 Ω and a dc voltage source Vs/2 = 115 V. Find
the power delivered to the load due to the fundamental component.
E
a) 536 kW
b) 53.61 kW
c) 5.361 kW
d) 536 W
A 39. In VSI (voltage source inverters)

I a) both voltage and current depend on the load impedance
b) only voltage depends on the load impedance
C c) only current depends on the load impedance
T
E 40. The Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) is the ratio of
a) rms value of all the harmonic components to the rms value of the fundamental component
b) average value of all the harmonic components to the rms value of the fundamental component
c) rms value of all the third harmonic component to the rms value of the fundamental
component
A d) rms value of all the fundamental component to the rms value of all the harmonic components
I 41. The magnitude of electromagnetic or interaction torque (Te), in all rotating machines, is given
C by (δ being angle between rotor and stator field axes)
a) Te ∝(stator field strength)sin δ
T b) Te ∝(rotor field strength)sin δ
c) Te ∝(stator field strength)x(rotor field strength)sin δ
E
d) Te ∝sin δ
Page 9 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A
42. Statically induced emf is maximum when two coils are placed in
I a) Same axis
b) Quadrature with each other
C
c) At an angle of 45º
T d) At an angle of 180º
E 43. Rotor flux vector angle can be evaluated using

a) Direct vector control
b) Indirect vector control
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
A
44. Rotor flux of an induction motor can be estimated using
I a) Voltage based estimation
C b) Current based estimation
c) Both (a) and (b)
T d) None of these
E 45. Voltage control mode in VSI is preferred to current control mode in an induction motor for its torque
control
a) Due to constant switching frequency
b) Due to variable switching frequency
c) Both (a) and (b)
A d) None of these
I 46. The stator frame in an induction motor is used to

a) Provide return path for the flux
C
b) Protect the whole machine
T c) Hold armature stampings in position
d) Ventilate the armature
E
47. While transforming the mutual inductance(Lms) to rotor side, the transformed inductance is equals to (Nr
and Ns are number of turns of rotor and stator windings)
a) Lms
b) (Nr/Ns)xLms
A c) (Nr/Ns)2xLms
d) (Ns/Nr)2xLms
I
C 48. When an induction motor is modelled in d-q variables, number of turns in d and q axes windings are------
actual motor winding
T a) Less than
b) Greater than
E c) Equal to
d) None of these
Page 10 of 26
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A
49. When brush axis is shifted at an angle of α from MNA then torque produced
I a) Increases
b) Decreases
C c) Remains constant
T d) It does not depend on α
E 50. Linear transformation is used in electrical machines to transform----------

a) Primitive variables to actual variables
b) Actual variables to primitive variables
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
A
I 51. For a linear lossless system, co-energy is-------- stored energy
a) Less than
C b) Greater than
T c) equal to
d) Not related with
E
52. Dynamically or Rotating induced emf is ----------with flux
a) Same in both time and space phase
b) Same in time phase but 90 degree lagging in space phase
c) 90º lagging in time phase but same in space phase
A d) 90º lagging in both time and space phase
I
53. In the single-pulse width modulation method, the output voltage waveform is symmetrical about
C _____in the negative half cycle.
a) 2π
T
b) 3π/2
E c) π/2
d) 3π/4
54. Krons Primitive model represents a machine as

a) 2-axis model
A b) 3-axis model
c) 4-axis model
I
d) 1-axis model
C
55. A single-phase rectifier in which extinction angle control is used for improving the power
T
factor, if the extinction angle is 60°, the fundamental power factor is
E a) 0.5 (leading)
b) 0.87 (leading)
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A c) 0.87 (lagging)
d) 0.5 (lagging)
I
C 56. A single-phase rectifier is operated with symmetric angle control. If the conduction angle is 60°,
the input fundamental power factor is
T a) 1
b) Zero
E
c) 0.78 (lagging)
d) 0.785 (leading)
57. Which of the following is/are used in synchronous machines to maintain mechanical stability?
A a) Damper winding
b) Interpole winding
I c) Compensating winding
d) Equalizer rings
C
T 58. Which of the following are main elements of static Kramer system?
a) Diode rectifier
E b) Line commuted inverter
c) Forced commuted inverter
d) Both (a) and (b)
59. In a Static Scherbius control method of induction motor, the power electronic circuit used is
A
a) Voltage source inverter
I b) Current source inverter
c) AC voltage regulator
C
d) Cycloconverter
T
60. Which of the following quantity remains constant in an induction motor for a constant E/f
E control scheme?
a) Power
b) Torque
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Supply voltage
A
I 61. The range of speed control of a synchronous motor fed from a cycloconverter is
a) 0-3/4 of base speed
C
b) 0-1/2 of base speed
T c) 0-1/3 of base speed
d) 0-5/4 of base speed
E
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A 62. Which of the following motor would suit applications where constant speed is absolutely
essential to ensure a consistent product?
I a) Brushless dc motor
b) Single-phase induction motor
C c) Permanent-magnet synchronous motor
d) Stepper motor.
T
E 63. The typical applications of a brushless dc motor is
a) High starting torque
b) Good efficiency at low speed
c) Continuous speed variation from zero to rated value
d) All of the above
A
64. A switched reluctance motor differs from a variable reluctance stepper motor in the sense that it
I
a) Has rotor poles of ferromagnetic material
C b) Rotates continuously
c) Is designed for open-loop operation only
T
d) Has lower efficiency.
E
65. Which of the following motor runs from a low dc supply and has permanently magnetized
salient poles on its rotor?
a) Permanent-magnet dc motor
b) Disk dc motor
A c) Permanent-magnet synchronous motor
d) Brushless dc motor
I
C 66. A machine operating as motor may go into regenerative braking mode if its speed becomes
a)Sufficiently high to make back emf greater than supply voltage
T b) Sufficiently low to make back emf greater than supply voltage
E c) Sufficiently high to make back emf half of the supply voltage
d) Sufficiently low to make back emf half of the supply voltage
67. The nature of power supply fed to stator of a 3-phase brushless dc motor is
a) Variable dc
A b) Fixed dc
c) Fixed frequency ac
I d) Variable frequency ac
C
68. PLL control system of a dc motor has advantage of
T a) Better speed regulation
E b) Better efficiency
c) Simplicity of the control scheme
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A d) Low cost for implementation of control scheme
I 69. The main component(s) of PLL control system of a dc motor is/are

C a) Phase detector
b) Low pass filter
T c) Speed encoder
d) All of the above
E
70. Stator voltage control of an induction motor consists of

a) Speed controller
b) Current controller
A c) Voltage controller
d) Both (a) and (b)
I
C 71. Generalized theory of electrical machines is also called
a) Unified theory of electrical machines
T b) Two-axis theory of electrical machines
E c) Primitive theory of electrical machines
d) Either (a) or (b)
72. The axis of poles around which field winding is wound is called
a) q-axis
b) d-axis
A
c) Interpolar axis
I d) Horizontal axis
C 73. Generalized model of rotating electrical machines is also called

T a) Two-axis model
b) Generalized machine diagram
E c) Kron’s primitive machine diagram
d) All of these
74. The advantage of using transformations in electrical machines is to

a) Obtain lesser number of equations
A b) Get a simpler solution
c) Either (a) or (b)
I
d) Both (a) and (b)
C
75. The number of time constants in the transfer function relating the output current and the field
T voltage for a cross-field machine are
E a) 1
b) 2
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A c) 3
d) 4
I
76. A 3-phase synchronous motor can be braked electrically by
C
a) Rheostatic braking
T b) Regenerative braking
c) Plugging
E d) All of these
77. If the supply voltage decreases by 4%, the torque in a 3-phase induction motor would decrease
by
a) 4%
A b) 16%
c) 8%
I
d) 7.84%
C
78. Line voltage control for the speed regulation of a 3-phase induction motor is not so important
T
because this method offers
E a) Limited range of speed control
b) Low operating frequency
c) Low pull-out torque
d) All of these
79. In a 3-phase, 8/6 VRM, the total time required for exciting the three-phase windings is 30 ms.
A
The rotor velocity in rpm is
I a) 250
b) 333.33
C c) 500
T d) 111.11
E 80. The voltage equation for the electrical system, in an electromechanical energy conversion
device is given as
𝑑𝑖 𝑑𝐿
𝑣𝑡 = 𝑖𝑟 + 𝐿 + 𝑖 𝜔
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝜃𝑟 𝑟
The 2nd and 3rd terms in the above equation represent respectively
A a) Transformer voltage term and speed/rotational voltage term
I b) Speed/rotational voltage term and transformer voltage term
c) Force voltage term and transformer voltage term
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
I
81. In the figure given below, for 180° mode of operation if T1 is fired at 0°. Then SCRs T3 and T5
C
should be fired at _________ and _________ respectively.
T
E
A
I
C
a) 180°, 360°
T
b) 90°, 180°
E c) 120°, 240°
82. Identify the below given circuit.

A
I
C
T
E
a) Three-phase bridge regulator

A b) Three-phase bridge type semi-converter circuit
c) Three-phase bridge thyristor inverter
I
d) Three-phase bridge IGBT inverter
C
T
E
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A 83. _________ SCRs conduct from 300° to 360°.
I
C
T
E
A a) T1, T2, T3
b) T4, T5, T6
I
c) T4, T3, T2
C d) T1, T6, T5
T 84.What is the peak value of phase voltage in case of 3-phase VSI with 180° mode. The supply
side consists of a constant dc voltage source of Vs.
E a) Vs
b) 3Vs/2
c) 2Vs/3
d) 3Vs
A 85. What is the voltage between the B phase and the neutral, when T2, T3 and T4 are conducting?
I
C
T
E
a) -2Vs/3
A b) Vs/3
c) 2Vs/3
I d) -Vs/3
C
T
E
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A 86. What is the R phase voltage and Y phase voltage when only T3 and T4 are conducting?
Consider a star connected balanced R load.
I
C
T
E
A a) Vs, -Vs
I b) Vs/2, -Vs/2
c) –Vs/2, Vs/2
C d) –Vs, Vs
T
87. In case of a single-pulse width modulation with the pulse width = 2d, the peak value of the
E fundamental component of voltage is given by the expression
a) 4Vs/π
b) Vs
c) (4Vs/π) sin 2d
d) (4Vs/π) sin d
A
I 88. In case of a single-pulse width modulation with the pulse width = 2d, to eliminate the
C 3rdharmonic from the output voltage waveform, the value of the pulse width (2d) must be
a) 0°
T b) 60°
E c) 120°
d) 180°
89. In the multiple-pulse width modulation method with two pulses per half cycle of width =d
each and ɣ as the distance between the first pulse and ωt=0, has the Fourier coefficient bn
A a) (8Vs/π) [ cos(ɣπ/2) cos(nd/2) ].
I b) 0
c) (4Vs/nπ) [sin(nɣ) sin(nd/2)].
C d) (8Vs/nπ) [sin(nɣ) sin(nd/2)].
T
E
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A 90. The thyristor has the following specifications

Vs = 400 V, (di/dt)max = 25 A/μs. Find the value of L
I
C
T
E
A
I a) 8 μH
C b) 80 μH
c) 16 μH
T d) 160 Μh
E
91. A single-phase half wave rectifier with a freewheeling diode is supplied by Vs = 240V, 50-
Hz, AC with a load R = 10 Ω, L = 0.5 mH and a firing angle α = 30°. Find the average value
of the load current
a) 10 A
A b) 0.063 A
c) 6.3 A
I d) 0.1 A
C
92. For a certain SCR configuration, the below shown waveform is obtained. Find the value of the
T average output voltage with α = 30° &Vs = 240 V
A
a) 50.27 V
I
b) 100.8 V
C c) 140 V
d) 120 V
T
E
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A 93. In the below shown circuit, considering the load to be purely R load, the thyristor T2 would
conduct from ωt equals to
I
C
T
E
A
a) 0 to π
I b) α to π2
C c) π+α to 2π
d) π to 2π+α
T
E 94. A single-phase full converter bridge is connected to a RLE load. The source has arms voltage
of 230 V and the average load current is 10 A. Find the firing angle for which the power
flows from AC source to the DC load. Consider E = 120 V, R = 0.4 Ω.
a) 26.4°
b) 53.2°
A c) 142°
d) 39°
I
C 95. A single-phase semi-converter circuit is supplying power to a motor load. The average
value of load voltage is 176.72 V and the rms value is 219.3 V. Find the VRF (voltage
T ripple factor).
E a) 0.09
b) 0.735
c) 0.569
d) 2.48
A 96. The below given circuit, the average value of output voltage is 191 V. Find the value of the
power delivered to the voltage source E. Take E = 100 V and R = 5 Ω. Assume that the load
I
current is continuous.
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A
I
C
T
E
a) 1.82 kW
b) 18.2 kW
A c) 0.182 kW
I d) 18.2 W
C 97. A 3-phase full converter delivers a ripple free load current of 10 A with a firing angle
delay of 45°. Find the DF (distortion factor).
T
a) 1.414
E b) Zero
c) 0.707
d) 0.569
98. Find the output voltage for a step-up chopper when it is operated at a duty cycle of
A 50% and Vs = 240 V
a) 240 V
I b) 480 V
C c) 560 V
d) 120 V
T
99. For a step-down chopper shown in the figure below, dc source voltage = 230 V and the
E voltage drop across the chopper = 2 V. Find the value of average output voltage for a duty
cycle of 0.4.
A
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A a) 230 V
b) 92 V
I c) 90 V
C d) 91.2 V
100. A single phase full converter has average & peak voltage values of 133 V and 325 V
T
respectively. The value of the firing angle is
E a) 40°
b) 140°
c) 50°
d) 130°
A 101. A three-phase half-wave controlled converter is fed from a 3-phase, 400 V source and is
connected to a load which takes a constant current of 36 A. Find the value of average output
I voltage and average current rating of SCR for a firing angle of 30°.
C a) 234 V, 36 A
b) 234 V, 12 A
T c) 135 V, 36 A
E d) 135 V, 12 A
102. A single-phase half-controlled rectifier is driving a separately excited dc motor. The dc
motor has a back emf constant of 0.5 V/rpm. The armature current is 5 A without any ripple.
The armature resistance is 2 Ω. The converter is working from a 230 V, single-phase ac
source with a firing angle of 300. Under this operating condition, the speed of the motor will
A be
a) 339 rpm
I b) 359 rpm
c) 366 rpm
C
d) 386 rpm
T
103. A 3–phase , 440 V, 50 Hz ac mains fed thyristor bridge is feeding a 440 V ac, 15 kw, 1500
E rpm separately excited dc motor with a ripple free continuous current in the dc link under all
operating conditions neglecting the losses, the motor is running at 3/4 rated speed. The rms
value of line current is
a) 32.5 A
b) 37.5 A
c) 25 A
A d) 40 A
I
104.A separately excited D.C. motor has the following name plate data 220V, 100A, 2200
C rpm.The armature resistance is 0.1Ω and inductance is 5mH. The motor is fed by a chopper,
whichis operating from a D.C. supply of 250V with duty cycle 80%. The speed at which the
T motor can be operated at rated torque is
a) 1200 rpm
E b) 400 rpm
c) 1900 rpm
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ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A d) 2090 rpm
105.A D.C. motor with armature resistance of 0.2Ω is fed from a step down chopper in
I thecontinuous mode and operates at some known speed and known excitation current.
Themotor current rises from 6A to 10A in the ON period of the chopper and drop from 10A
C to 6A in the off period of the chopper of the same circuit. Both rise and fall of the current
may beassumed linear. The average power loss in the machine armature is
T
a) 27.2 W
E b) 46.67 W
c) 13.07 W
d) 11.02 W
106.An inductor made from a magnetic core (very high permeability) having two air gaps of
equal length of 1 cm, number of turns of exciting coil is 1000, cross-section area of the
A coreis 25cm2. The inductance of the coil is
I a) 0.314H
b) 0.157H
C c) 0.078H
T d) 0.628H
E 107.A 7.5kW, 400V, 50-Hz, 1440 rpm, 4-pole induction motor has following parameters
Stator side: Rs= 0.7384, Lls= 0.003045H; Rotor side: Rr'= 0.7402,Llr'= 0.003045H
Magnetising Inductance: Lms=0.1241 (subscript lstands for leakage). The rated torques is
a) 49.735 Nm
b) 45 Nm
c) 50.05 Nm
A d) 55.55 Nm
I
108.A 7.5kW, 400V, 50-Hz, 1440 rpm, 4-pole induction motor has following parameters
C Stator side: Rs= 0.7384, Lls= 0.003045H; Rotor side: Rr'= 0.7402,Llr'= 0.003045H
T a) 0.18615
b) 0.38
E c) 0.45
d) 0.1665
Stator side: Rs= 0.7384, Lls= 0.003045H; Rotor side: Rr'= 0.7402,Llr'= 0.003045H
A Magnetising Inductance: Lms=0.1241 (subscript lstands for leakage). The rated torques is
a) 0.189195
I b) 0.216573
c) 0.221591
C d) 0.177195
T
E Stator side: Rs= 0.7384, Lls= 0.003045H; Rotor side: Rr'= 0.7402,Llr'= 0.003045H
Page 23 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A
a) 0.032
I b) 0.351
c) 0.331
C d) 0.342
T
111. A single phase full bridge inverter circuit, has load R = 2 Ω and dc source Vs = 230 V.
E Find the value of power delivered to the load in watts only due to the fundamental
component of the load current.
a) 5361.5 W
b) 2142.5 W
c) 21424.5 W
A d) 214.2 W
I 112.The torque constant (Km), of a permanent magnet d.c. motor is 0.25 V s/radian and
C armature resistance is 2 ohm. If the applied armature voltage is 90 V, then its zero speed
torque is
T a)10.45 N-m
E b) 11.25 N-m
c) 13.65 N-m
d) 15.56 N-m
113. A permanent magnet synchronous motor (PMSM) has the following parameters:
Rs = 0.173, Ld = 0.435 pu, Lq = 0.699 pu, Vs = 1.45 pu, Is = 1 pu
A The maximum speed (in pu) of PMSM is
a) 1.90
I b) 2.25
C c) 2.55
d) 2.85
T
114. A three-phase, 460-V, 60-Hz, six-pole, Y-connected cylindrical rotor synchronous motor
E has aXs = 2.5Ω. The load torque, which is proportional to the speed squared, is TL = 398
N-m at 1200 rpm. The PF is maintained at unity by field control and the voltage-to-
frequency ratio is kept constant at the rated value. If the inverter frequency is 36-Hz and
the motor speed is 720 rpm. The input voltage is
a) 120 V
A b) 140 V
c) 160 V
I d) 180 V
C 115. A three-phase, 460-V, 60-Hz, six-pole, Y-connected cylindrical rotor synchronous motor
T has aXs = 2.5Ω. The load torque, which is proportional to the speed squared, is TL = 398
E frequency ratio is kept constant at the rated value. If the inverter frequency is 36-Hz and
the motor speed is 720 rpm.The armature current is
Page 24 of 26
ROLL NO.: PG1PED52
A
a) 12.6 A
I b) 22.6 A
c) 32.6 A
C d) 36.8 A
T
116. A three-phase, 460-V, 60-Hz, six-pole, Y-connected cylindrical rotor synchronous motor
E has aXs = 2.5Ω. The load torque, which is proportional to the speed squared, is TL = 398
frequency ratio is kept constant at the rated value. If the inverter frequency is 36-Hz and
the motor speed is 720 rpm. The torque angle is
a) 9.52°
b) 19.52°
A c) -19.52°
d) 22.52°
I
117. A separately-excited dc motor with the following parameters:
C
Ra = 0.5Ω, La = 0.003H and Kb = 0.8V/rad/s, is driving a load of J = 0.0167kg-m2,
T B1 = 0.01N-m/rad/s with a load torque of 100N-m. Its armature is connected to a dc
supply voltage of 220V and is given the rated filed current. The speed of the motor is
E
a) 185 rad/s
b) 195 rad/s
c) 205 rad/s
A 118. A separately-excited dc motor with the following parameters:
I Ra = 0.5Ω, La = 0.003H and Kb = 0.8V/rad/s, is driving a load of J = 0.0167kg-m2,
B1 = 0.01N-m/rad/s. The transfer function (ratio of speed to voltage) of the motor is
C a) 15968 (𝑠 2 + 167𝑠 + 12874)
T
b) 15968 (𝑠 2 − 167𝑠 + 12874)
E
c) 15968 (𝑠 3 + 167𝑠 + 12874)
d) 15968 (𝑠 2 + 167𝑠)
A 119. The Clarke transformation is given as
I 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
C a) 2/3 1 −1/2 −1/2
0 3/2 − 3/2
T
E
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A 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
b) 2/3 1 1/2 −1/2
I 0 3/2 − 3/2
C
1/ 2 1/ 2 −1/ 2
T c) 2/3 1 −1/2 −1/2
E 0 3/2 − 3/2
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
d) 3/2 1 −1/2 −1/2
0 3/2 − 3/2
A 120.The torque produced in a 4-pole machine is 100Nm. If this machines is re-wound with 6
I poles, other things remaining unchanged, then the torque produced would be
a) 66.67 Nm
C b) 100 Nm
c) 150 Nm
T d) 133.33 Nm
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 26 of 26
M. Tech. in Power Electronics & Drives
Key for Paper – 1
q. no. ans. q. no. ans. q. no. ans. q. no. ans. q. no. ans.
1 b 25 b 49 b 73 d 97 c
2 c 26 c 50 c 74 d 98 b
3 c 27 c 51 c 75 c 99 d
4 d 28 c 52 b 76 a 100 c
5 d 29 a 53 b 77 d 101 b
6 b 30 d 54 a 78 d 102 c
7 b 31 a 55 b 79 b 103 b
8 b 32 a 56 c 80 a 104 c
9 b 33 b 57 a 81 c 105 c
10 c 34 c 58 d 82 c 106 b
11 d 35 c 59 d 83 b 107 a
12 c 36 c 60 b 84 c 108 a
13 c 37 a 61 c 85 d 109 a
14 b 38 c 62 c 86 c 110 a
15 c 39 c 63 d 87 d 111 c
16 d 40 a 64 b 88 c 112 b
17 a 41 c 65 a 89 d 113 c
18 c 42 a 66 a 90 c 114 c
19 b 43 c 67 d 91 a 115 b
20 c 44 c 68 a 92 b 116 c
21 b 45 a 69 d 93 c 117 b
22 a 46 c 70 d 94 b 118 a
23 a 47 b 71 b 95 b 119 a
24 c 48 c 72 b 96 a 120 c
ROLL NO.: PG2PED52
A POWER ELECTRONICS & DRIVES

PAPER-II
C Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
ball point pen.
I
T
E
1. A four quadrant chopper cannot be operated as

a) One quadrant chopper
b) Cycloconverter
A c) Inverter
d) Bidirectional rectifier
I
2. A single-phase voltage source inverter is controlled in a single pulse-width modulated mode
C with a pulse width of 150º in each half cycle. The THD of output ac voltage waveform is
a) 66.65%
T
b) 48.42%
E c) 31.83%
d) 30.49%
3. The armature current of a dc motor fed from a thyristor power converter contains ripple. The
ripple in the armature current affects
a) Commutating capability of the motor
A b) Overload capacity of the motor
I c) Torque capability of the motor
d) Control ability of the speed of the motor
C
4. A single phase, bridge type, full converter can be used for regenerative braking of a dc
T motor drive
a) With change-over switch
E
b) Without any additional device
Page 1 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2PED52
A c) By open-circuiting the field

d) By simply making firing angle equal to π/2
I
5. Which of the following configurations is used for both motoring and regenerative braking?
C a) First quadrant chopper
b) Second quadrant chopper
T
c) Two quadrant chopper
E d) Four quadrant chopper
6. A 3-phase induction motor is used as an adjustable speed drive from zero to 2 p.u. speed
using a variable frequency inverter. In the speed range of 1.0 to 2.0 p.u., in order to ensure
satisfactory operation, which one of the following sets of quantities is to be maintained
approximately constant?
A a) Voltage and power
b) Flux and torque
I
c) Voltage and torque
C d) Flux and power
T 7. In a self-controlled synchronous motor fed from a variable frequency inverter

a) The rotor poles invariably have damper winding
E b) There are stability problems
c) The speed of the rotor decides stator frequency
d) The frequency of the stator decides the rotor speed
8. The transfer function of a three-phase converter is approximated as

A a) Second order with time lag
b) First order with time lag
I c) Second order with time lead
d) First order without time lag
C
9. Minimum possible order of inner current loop for converter controlled dc motor is
T
a) First
E b) Second
c) Zero
d) Third
10. The loop gain transfer function of outer speed control system (for a minimum possible order
of a current loop) for a dc motor drive is of ……order
A a) First order
I b) 2nd order
c) 4th order
C d) 5th order
T 11. Which of the following is first step for simulation of converter controlled dc drive?
a) Plotting the results
E
b) Reading of motor and control parameters
Page 2 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2PED52
A c) Integrating the differential equations

d) Storing results
I
12. The model of a dc chopper (where T =1/frequency of operation) is
C a) First order with time delay equals to T
b) First order with time delay equals to T/2
T c) Second order with time delay equals to T
d) Second order with time delay equals to T/2
E
13. The instantaneous steady-state analysis method as compared to analysis by averaging for
chopper controlled dc motor drive
a) Gives more prices results
b) Less complexity in computation
A c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
I
14. Which one of the following statements regarding chopper based current controller is
C correct?
a) Switching frequency in PWM controller is variable
T b) Ripple current is fixed in hysteresis controller
c) Switching losses are high in PWM controller
E d) Speed of response is fastest in hysteresis current controller
15. Which one is the correct sequence for dynamic simulation of an induction motor?
a) Read motor parameters, initialize time, choose the ref. frame, find the dq0 voltages
b) Initialize time, read motor parameters, choose the ref. frame, find the dq0 voltages
A c) Initialize time, read motor parameters, find the dq0 voltages, choose the ref. Frame
d) Initialize time, choose the ref. frame, read motor parameters, find the dq0 voltages
I
16. The power electronic circuits wherein devices are turned ‘ON’ or turned ‘OFF’ at zero
C voltage or zero current are known as
a) PWM inverters
T b) DC-dc converters
c) Phase controlled converters
E
d) Resonant converters
17. Load resonant converter circuit consists of

a) Unidirectional switches
b) Bidirectional switches
A c) Uncontrolled switches
d) Both (a) and (b)
I
C 18. In a resonant dc-link inverter
a) Resonant circuit is connected between the input voltage and the PWM inverter
T b) Voltage to the PWM inverter oscillates between zero and greater than the dc input voltage
c) Voltage to the PWM inverter oscillates between zero and slightly less than the dc input
E voltage
d) Both (a) and (b)
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A 19. The design inputs for design of an inductor consist of

a) Inductance value L
I b) Rated dc current
c) Operating frequency
T
20. Which one of the following is not used for series compensation?
E a) SSSC
b) TCSC
c) TSSC
d) TSC
21. STATCOM is used for

A a) Damping of power system oscillations
b) Improvement of transiently stability
I
c) Improvement of voltage profile
T 22. Unified Power Flow Controller (UPFC)consists of

a) Shunt-series compensators with common dc link
E b) Shunt-series compensatorswithout common dc link
c) Shunt-shunt compensators
d) Series-series compensators
23. Which of the following compensators can be used for control of power flow among feeders?
A a) SVCs
b) UPFC
I c) TCSC
d) IPFC
C
24. On transformation using z = esT, a point (-1+j2) in the s-plane is placed in z-plane
T
a) Inside the unit circle
E b) Outside the unit circle
c) On the unit circle
d) Cannot be placed in the z-plane
25. In z-plane the unit circle corresponds to

a) Imaginary axis of s-plane
A b) Positive real axis of s-plane
I c) Negative real axis of s-plane
d) Origin of s-plane
C
26. The interface between an analog signal and a digital processor is
T a) D/A converter
b) A/D converter
E c) Modulator
d) Demodulator
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A 27. Non uniform quantization includes

a) Compression
I b) Expansion
c) Compression and Expansion
T 28. Digital control systems are generally superior to analog control systems, but they are always
worse with regard to
E
a) Speed
b) Diagnostics
c) User-friendliness
d) Flexibility
A 29. Resolution refers to in the analog-to-digital conversion portion of a digital control system.
a) The analog signal range
I b) Error in A/D conversion
c) The number of active bits
C d) The speed of analog signal sampling
T 30. Parity bits are used for the purpose of _________ in digital systems.
E a) Power monitoring
b) Error detection
c) Symmetry generation
d) Diagnostic monitoring
31. Which among the following is not an advantage of an open loop system?
A a) Simplicity in construction & design
b) Easy maintenance
I c) Less problems of stability
d) Requirement of system recalibration from time to time
C
32. In the z -plane the ROC of z -transform X(z) consists of a
T a) Strip
E b) Parabola
c) Rectangle
d) Ring
33. The z -transform is used to analyze

a) Discrete time signals and system
A b) Continuous time signals and system
c) Both (a) and (b)
I
d) None
C
34. The ROC of z -transform X(z ) is defined as the range of values of z for which X(z )
T a) Zero
b) Diverges
E c) Converges
d) None
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A 35. Which of the following schemes of system realization uses separate delays for input and
output samples?
I a) Parallel form
b) Cascade form
C c) Direct form-I
d) Direct form-II
T
E 36. The quantization will be finer when
a) Smaller the number of discrete amplitudes
b) Larger the number of discrete amplitudes
c) Does not depend on amplitudes
A 37. Telegraph signals are examples of

a) Digital signals
I
b) Analog signals
C c) Impulse signals
d) Pulse train
T
38. As compared to the analog systems, the digital processing of signals allow
E 1) Programmable operations
2) Flexibility in the system design
3) Cheaper systems
4) More reliability
A b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
I d) All the four are correct
C 39. The ROC of a system is the
a) Range of z for which the z transform converges
T
b) Range of frequency for which the z transform exists
E c) Range of frequency for which the signal gets transmitted
d) Range in which the signal is free of noise
40. The several ways to perform an inverse Z transform are

1) Direct computation
2) Long division
A 3) Partial fraction expansion with table lookup
I 4) Direct inversion
C b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
T d) All the four are correct
E
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A 41. The s plane and z plane are related as

a) z = esT
I b) z = e2sT
c) z = 2esT
C d) z = esT/2
T
42. The method of investigating the stability using Liapunov function is
E a) Direct method
b) Indirect method
c) Not determined
d) Always unstable
43. In IIR Filter design by the Bilinear Transformation, the Bilinear Transformation is a
A mapping from.
a) Z-plane to S-plane
I
b) S-plane to Z-plane
C c) S-plane to J-plane
d) J-plane to Z-plane
T
44. Which of the following statement is not true? An LTI system with rational transfer function
E H (z ) is
a) Causal if the ROC is the exterior of a circle outside the outermost pole.
b) Stable if the ROC of H (z ) includes the unit circle z = 1.
c) Causal and stable if all the poles of H(z) lie inside unit circle.
d) None of above
A
45. The direct form-I and II structures of IIR system will be identical in
I a) All pole system
b) All zero system
C c) Both (a) and (b)
d) First order and second order systems
T
E 46. Which mechanism in control engineering implies an ability to measure the state by taking
measurements at output?
a) Controllability
b) Observability
c) Differentiability
d) Adaptability
A
I 47. State model representation is possible using _________
a) Physical variables
C b) Phase variables
c) Canonical state variables
E
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A 48. A system is said to be_____________ if it is possible to transfer the system state from any
initial state to any desired state in finite interval of time.
I a) Controllable
b) Observable
C c) Cannot be determined
d) Controllable and observable
T
E 49. Kalman’s test is for :
a) Observability
b) Controllability
c) Optimality
d) Observability and controllability
A 50. The z-transform of f(t) = et is

a) z/(z-1)
I
b) z / (z-eT )
C c) z / (z- e –j T )
d) T z / (z-1)2
T
51. Input variables for a state-space averaging model of a buck converter (neglecting equivalent
E series inductance) are
a) Source voltage
b) Load current
c) Duty ratio
d) All of the above
A
52. State space variables for a state-space averaging model of a buck converter (neglecting
I equivalent series inductance) are
a) Capacitor voltage
C b) Inductor current
c) Output voltage
T
d) Both (a) and (b)
E
53. The order of the transfer function of a Boost converter is
a) Zero
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
A
I 54. What kind of output rectifier and filter circuit is used in a fly back converter?
a) A four-diode bridge rectifier followed by a capacitor
C b) A single diode followed by an inductor-capacitor filter
c) A single diode followed by a capacitor
T d) Will require a centre-tapped secondary winding followed by a full wave rectifier and an
output filter capacitor
E
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A 55. For an induction motor to operate in braking region slip should be always
a) Less than zero
I b) Greater than 1
c) Less than 1
C d) Equals to 1
T
56. Which of the following is the correct sequence of implementation of indirect vector
E controlscheme of an induction motor?
(i) Read command inputs,
(ii) calculation of current and synchronous speed,
(iii) computation of d-q component of reference current
(iv) compute stator current command
a) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
A b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
c) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
I
d) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
C
57. The transfer function between the rotor flux linkage and its command for indirect vector
T control scheme of an induction motor is
a) Unity
E b) 1/s
c) 1/(s+1)
d) s/(s2+s+1)
58. The permanent magnet synchronous machine is broadly classified on the basis of
A a) Number of poles
b) The speed range
I c) Size of the machine
d) The direction of field flux
C
59. The expression of torque for a permanent magnet synchronous machine is Notations used
T
are usual)
3𝑃
E a)𝑇𝑒 = 4 (𝜆𝑟𝑑𝑠 𝑖𝑞𝑠
𝑟 𝑟
− 𝜆𝑟𝑞𝑠 𝑖𝑑𝑠 )
3𝑃
b) 𝑇𝑒 = (𝜆𝑟𝑑𝑠 𝑖𝑞𝑠
𝑟 𝑟
+ 𝜆𝑟𝑞𝑠 𝑖𝑑𝑠 )
4
4𝑃
c) 𝑇𝑒 = (𝜆𝑟𝑑𝑠 𝑖𝑞𝑠
𝑟 𝑟
− 𝜆𝑟𝑞𝑠 𝑖𝑑𝑠 )
3
4𝑃
d) 𝑇𝑒 = (𝜆𝑟𝑑𝑠 𝑖𝑞𝑠
𝑟 𝑟
+ 𝜆𝑟𝑞𝑠 𝑖𝑑𝑠 )
3
A
60. The basic concept of vector control of permanent magnet synchronous machine is
I
a) The separation of torque and flux channels its stator-excitation inputs
C b) The separation of torque and current through its stator-excitation inputs
c) Both (a) and (vb)
T d) None of above
E
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A 61. The vector control of permanent magnet synchronous motor drive system consists of
following except
I a) Speed function program
b) Field weakening program
C c) Speed controller
d) Current controller
T
E 62. The key control strategies of permanent magnet synchronous machine are following except
a) Unity power factor control
b) Flux-weakening control
c) Constant power control
d) Constant torque angle control
A 63. Which of the following machines has simple control strategy?

a) PM Brushless dc motor
I
b) PMSM
C c) Induction motor
d) Synchronous motor
T
64. In a 3-phase induction motor, if supply voltage and supply frequency are reduced by the
E same degree, then under maximum torque condition
a) Motor current decreases and power factor is improved
b) Motor current increases and power factor is improved
c) Motor current decreases and power factor is worsened
d) Motor current increases and power factor is worsened
A
65. In a 3-phase induction motor, if supply voltage and supply frequency are reduced by the
I same degree, then slip at which maximum torque occurs
a) Is more and maximum torque remains constant
C b) Is more and maximum torque decreases
c) Is less and maximum torque decreases
T
d) Is less and maximum torque increases
E
66. Condition for aliasing problem
a) fs<fm
b) fs<2fm
c) fs=fm
A d) all of these
I
67. What is the result of taking more samples during the quantization process?
C a) More errors in the analog-to-digital conversion
b) More bit requirements
T
c) More accurate signal representation
E d) More bit requirements and more accurate signal representation
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A 68. The canonical model of dc-dc converters is used to

a) Analyse the converter phenomenon in a general manner
I b) Analyse the converter phenomenon for a specific converter
c) Define and discuss the physical ac properties of converters
C d) Both (a) and (c)
T
69. The effective inductance, Le, in a canonical model of a boost converter depends on
E a) Physical value of inductor L
b) Physical value of inductor and quiescent duty cycle D
c) Physical value of inductor and load resistance
d) Both (a) and (b)
70. The conventional pulse-width modulator circuit has linear gain that depends on
A a) The slope of the saw tooth waveform
b) Peak-to-peak magnitude of the saw tooth waveform
I
c) Both (a) and (b)
C d) None of above
T 71. The small-signal transfer function of a switching converter is

a) A minimum phase system
E b) A Non-minimum phase system
c) A zero on left half of s-plane
72. A properly designed controller for a dc-dc converter should

A a) Maintain constant output voltage
b) Maintain constant duty ratio
d) Either (a) or (b)
C
73. The input filter is used in the circuit of switching converters to
T
a) Attenuate current harmonics
E b) To meet limit on conducted EMI
c) To smoothen the input current waveform
d) All of the above
74. When an input filter is added to a properly designed switching converter circuit
a) The filter improves the performance of the switching converter circuit
A b) The filter degrades the performance of the switching converter circuit
I c) The filter doesn’t affect the performance of the switching converter circuit
C
75. The input filter is damped because it typically introduces…….. into the converter control-to-
T output transfer function at the resonance frequencies of the input filter
a) Complex poles
E
b) RHP zeroes
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A c) LHP Zeroes
d) Both (a) and (b)
I
76. Pulse-width-modulated winding primarily …….. contain significant harmonic distortion
C a) Current
b) Voltage
T
c) Both (a) and (b)
E d) Either (a) or (b)
77. The various steps involved in design of a transformer are

(i) Determination of core size
(ii) Evaluation of peak ac flux density
(iii) Evaluation of wire size
A (iv) Evaluation of primary turns
The correct sequence is
I
a) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)
C b) (i), (iii), (ii) and (iv)
c) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv)
T d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
E 78. Power factor can be improved by using
a) Phase controlled rectifier operating in particular configuration
b) Switching converters
c) Cycloconverter
d) Inverter circuit
A
79. The difference between parameter optimization and optimal control problem is
I a) Optimal design results in a better system
b) Parameter optimisation results in a better system
T
E 80. Following statements are given
(i) The peak switch current follows the control input
(ii) It has simpler control-to-output transfer function
(iii)The line-to-output transfer function of buck converter is reduced
(iv) It is unstable when D > 0.5 regardless of the converter topology
which of the above statements are related with the current-programmed control
A scheme of switching converter?
I a) Only (ii) and (iii)
b) Only (i) and (ii)
C c) Only (iv)
d) All of the above
T
E
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I
81. A three-phase, 440 V, 50-Hz ac mains fed by thyristor bridge is feeding a 440 V dc, 15 kW,
C 1500 rpm separately excited dc motor with a ripple free continuous current in the dc link
under all operating conditions, neglecting the losses, the power factor of the ac mains at half
T
the rated speed is
E a) 0.354
b) 0.372
c) 0.90
d) 0.955
82. A dc-dc converter is used in regenerative braking of a dc series motor. The dc supply
A voltage is 600V. The resistance of armature and field windings is 0.02Ω and 0.03 Ω
respectively. The back emf constant is 15.27x10-3(SI unit). The average armature current
I
(ripple free) is 250 A. The duty cycle of dc-dc convertor is 60%.The value of regenerated
C power is
a) 40kW
T b) 50kW
c) 60kW
E d) 70kW
83. A dc-dc converter is used in regenerative braking of a dc series motor. The dc supply
voltage is 600V. The resistance of armature and field windings is 0.02Ω and 0.03 Ω
respectively. The back emf constant is 15.27x10-3 (SI unit). The average armature current
A (ripple free) is 250 A. The duty cycle of dc-dc convertor is 60%. The approximate difference
between maximum and minimum possible braking speed is
I a) 1500rpm
b) 750rpm
C c) 375rpm
T d) 3000rpm
6f
E 84. The z – transform of the discrete time function ∞𝑘=0 δ(n − k) is
a) (𝑧 − 1)⁄𝑧
b) 𝑧/ (𝑧 − 1)2
c) z ⁄(𝑧 − 1)
d) (𝑧 − 1)2⁄z
A
85. The z – transform F(z) of the function 𝑓(𝑛𝑇) = 𝑎𝑛𝑇 is
I a) 𝑧/ 𝑧−𝑎𝑇
b) 𝑧/ 𝑧+ 𝑎𝑇
C c) 𝑧/ 𝑧− 𝑎-𝑇
d) 𝑧/ 𝑧+ 𝑎-𝑇
T
E 86. The region of convergence of the z – transform of a unit step function is
a) |𝑧| > 1
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A b) |𝑧| < 1
c) (Real part of z) > 0
I d) (Real part of z) < 0
C 87. The z – transform of a system is F(𝑧) = 𝑧/ (𝑧 − 0.2)

If the ROC is |𝑧| < 0.2, then the impulse response of the system is
T
a) (0.2) 𝑛 [𝑛]
E b) (0.2) 2 [−𝑛 − 1]
c) −(0.2) 2𝑢[𝑛]
d) −(0.2)𝑛𝑢[−𝑛 − 1]
88. The ROC offunction f(n)=( 5/ 6 )𝑛𝑢(𝑛) − ( 6/5 )𝑛𝑢(−𝑛 − 1) must be

a) |𝑧| < 5/ 6
A
b) |𝑧| > 5 /6
I c) 5 /6 < |𝑧| < 6/5
d) 5 /6 < |𝑧| < ∞
C
89. Consider the z – transform F (𝑧) = 5𝑧2 + 4𝑧−1 + 3; 0< |𝑧| < ∞. The inverse z – transform f[𝑛]
T is
E a) 5[𝑛 + 2] + 3[𝑛] + 4𝛿[𝑛 − 1]
b) 5𝛿[𝑛 − 2] + 3𝛿[𝑛] + 4𝛿[𝑛 + 1]
c) 5[𝑛 + 2] + 3 [𝑛] + 4 [𝑛 − 1]
d) 5𝑢[𝑛 − 2] + 3 𝑢[𝑛] + 4 𝑢[𝑛 + 1]
90. Let x [𝑛] =x [−𝑛] and X(z) is the z – transform of 𝑥[𝑛]. If 0.5 + 𝑗0.25 is a zero of X(z),
A which one of the following must also be zero of X(z).
a) 0.5 − 𝑗0.25
I b) 1/ (0.5+𝑗0.25)
C c) 1/ (0.5−𝑗0.25)
d) 2 + 𝑗4
T
91. What is the inverse z-transform of X(z)=1/(1-1.5z-1+0.5z-2 ) if ROC is |z|>1?
E a) {1,3/2,7/4,15/8,31/16,….}
b) {1,2/3,4/7,8/15,16/31,….}
c) {1/2,3/4,7/8,15/16,31/32,….}
A 92. What is the inverse z-transform of X(z)=1/(1-1.5z-1+0.5z-2 ) if ROC is |z| < 0.5?
a) {….62,30,14,6,2}
I b) {…..62,30,14,6,2,0,0}
c) {0, 0,2,6,14,30,62…..}
C d) {2,6,14,30,62…..}
T
E
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A
93. The system mode describe by the state variable equations
I 0 1 0 1
X= x+ u, y= x The system is
C 2 −3 1 1
a) Controllable but not observable
T b) Controllable and observable
E c) Neither Controllable nor observable
d) Observable but not Controllable
94. The transfer function Y(s)/U(s) of a system describe by the state equations is
x t = −2x t + 2u t and y t = 0.5x(t)
A The corresponding transfer function is
a) 0.5/(s-2)
I b) 1/(s-2)
c) 0.5/(s+2)
C d) 1/(s+2)
T
95. The state variable equations of a system are
E x1 = −3x1 − x2 + u
x2 = 2x1 y = x1 + u
The system is
a) Controllable but not observable
b) Controllable and observable
A c) Neither Controllable nor observable
I d) Observable but not Controllable
C 96. A first-order dynamic system is represented by the differential equation

5x t + x t = u(t)
T
y(t)=x(t)
E The corresponding transfer function is
a) G(s)= 10/(1+5s)
b) G(s)= 1/(s+5)
c) G(s)= 1/(1+5s)
A 97. A state variable representation of given transfer function T(s) is:
Y(s) 5(s + 10)
I =T s = 3
X(s) s + 10s 2 + 20s + 50
C
−10 −20 1 0
T a) X = x+ u and y = x
0 1 0 5
E
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−10 −20 −50 1 0

A
b) X = 1 0 0 x + 0 u and y = 5 x
I 0 1 0 0 50
−10 −20 −50 1 1
C c) X = 1 0 0 x + 0 u and y = 0 x
0 1 0 0 50
T −10 −20 −50 1 0
d) X = 1 0 0 x + 1 u and y = 5 x
E 0 1 0 0 50
98. The dc gain of a transfer function 𝐺 𝑧 = 0.58(1 + 𝑧)/(𝑧 + 0.16) is

a) Zero
b) Unity
A c) 2
d) -5
I
99. For the difference equation 𝑐 𝑘 + 2 − 5𝑐 𝑘 + 1 + 6𝑐 𝑘 = 𝑢(𝑘), if c(0) = 0 and c(1) =
C 1, c(2) is
a) 4
T b) 6
c) 18
E d) 25
100. For the difference equation 𝑐 𝑘 + 2 − 5𝑐 𝑘 + 1 + 6𝑐 𝑘 = 𝑢(𝑘), if c(0) = 0 and c(1) =
1, c(3) is
a) 4
b) 6
A c) 18
I d) 25
C 101. If F ( z )  ( z 2  z ) ( z 2  2 z  1) is z-transform of sequence f (k ) . The value of f ( 2) is

a) 1
T b) 4
E c) 3
d) 5
102. The transfer function of the ZOH is

a) Unity
b) (1-e-sT)/s
A c) (e-sT-1)/s
d) 1/s
I
103. If two blocks having transfer functions 1/(s+1) and 1/(s+2) are in cascade. If a sampler is
C before the first block, the pulse transfer function is
𝑧 𝑒 −2𝑇 −𝑒 −𝑇
T a) 𝑧−𝑒 −𝑇 (𝑧−𝑒 −2𝑇 )
𝑧 𝑒 −𝑇 −𝑒 −2𝑇
E b) 𝑧−𝑒 −𝑇 (𝑧−𝑒 −2𝑇 )
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𝑧 𝑒 −𝑇 +𝑒 −2𝑇
A c) 𝑧−𝑒 −𝑇 (𝑧−𝑒 −2𝑇 )
𝑧2
I d) 𝑧−𝑒 −𝑇 (𝑧−𝑒 −2𝑇 )
C 104. If two blocks having transfer functions 1/(s+1) and 1(s+2) are in cascade. If a sampler is
before each of the block, the pulse transfer function is
T 𝑧 𝑒 −2𝑇 −𝑒 −𝑇
a) 𝑧−𝑒 −𝑇 (𝑧−𝑒 −2𝑇 )
E 𝑧 𝑒 −𝑇 −𝑒 −2𝑇
b) 𝑧−𝑒 −𝑇 (𝑧−𝑒 −2𝑇 )
𝑧 𝑒 −𝑇 +𝑒 −2𝑇
c) 𝑧−𝑒 −𝑇 (𝑧−𝑒 −2𝑇 )
𝑧2
d) 𝑧−𝑒 −𝑇 (𝑧−𝑒 −2𝑇 )
A
105. If the characteristic equation of a system is 𝑧 2 − 𝑧 11𝑒 −0.5𝑇 − 9 + 𝑒 −0.5𝑇 = 0, for a
I sampling time of 0.5 second, the system is
a) Stable
C
b) Unstable
T c) Marginally stable
d) Insufficient data
E
106. If the characteristic equation of a system is 𝑧 2 − 𝑧 11𝑒 −0.5𝑇 − 9 + 𝑒 −0.5𝑇 = 0, for a
sampling time of 1 second, how many root(s) of the characteristic equation is/are outside the
unit circle
a) Zero
b) 1
A
c) 2
I d) 3
C 107. A system described by the equation 𝑥 𝑘 + 1 = 𝐹𝑥 𝑘 ; 𝐹 = −1 − 2; 1 − 4 , the system is

a) Stable
T b) Unstable
E c) Marginally stable
d) Insufficient data
108. A series resonant inverter with series loaded delivers a load power of PL = 1 kW at
resonance. The load resistance is R = 10 Ω. The resonant frequency is f0 = 20 kHz. The dc
input voltage is
A a) 100 V
b) 110 V
I c) 120 V
C d) 130 V
T 109. A series resonant inverter with series loaded delivers a load power of PL = 1 kW at
resonance. The load resistance is R = 10 Ω. The resonant frequency is f0 = 20 kHz. The
E inductor L is
a) 306 mH
Page 17 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2PED52
A b) 506 mH
c) 306 µH
I d) 506 µH
C 110. A series resonant inverter with series loaded delivers a load power of PL = 1 kW at
resonance. The load resistance is R = 10 Ω. The resonant frequency is f0 = 20 kHz. The
T
capacitor C is
E a) 0.21µF
b) 0.11µF
c) 0.31 µF
d) 0.51 µF
111. A fly-back converter has primary to secondary turns ratio of 15:1. The input voltage is
A constant at 200 volts and the output voltage is maintained at 18 volts. What should be the
snubber capacitor voltage under steady state?
I
a) More than 270 volts
C b) More than 200 volts but less than 270 volts
c) Less than 18 volts
T d) Not related to input or output voltage.
E 112. A fly-back converter is to be designed to operate in just-continuous conduction mode when
the input dc is at its minimum expected voltage of 200 volts and when the load draws
maximum power. The load voltage is regulated at 16 volts. What should be the primary to
secondary turns ratio of the transformer if the switch duty ratio is limited to 80%. Neglect
ON-state voltage drop across switch and diodes
A a) 20 :1
b) 30 :1
I c) 25 :2
d) 50 :1
C
𝛥𝑉0
T 113. A buck converter is required to be designed with the following specifications: =
𝑉0
0.5%, 𝑉𝑖 = 20 𝑉, 𝑃0 = 12 𝑊, 𝑓 = 30 𝑘𝐻𝑧, 𝐷 = 0.4
E
The value of critical inductance for continuous conduction mode is
a) 43.3 µH
b) 53.3 µH
c) 63.3 µH
d) 93.3 µH
A
𝛥𝑉0
114. A buck converter is required to be designed with the following specifications: =
I 𝑉0
0.5%, 𝑉𝑖 = 20 𝑉, 𝑃0 = 12 𝑊, 𝑓 = 30 𝑘𝐻𝑧, 𝐷 = 0.4
C The value of the output resistance is
a) 5.33 Ω
T b) 3.33 Ω
E c) 9.33 Ω
d) 1.33 Ω
Page 18 of 20
ROLL NO.: PG2PED52
A
I 115. A 460 V, 60-Hz, 6-pole, 1180 rpm, Y-connected squirrel-cage induction motor has the
following parameters per phase referred to the stator: Rs =0.19 Ω, Rr’= 0.07 Ω, Xs = 0.75 Ω,
C Xr’= 0.67 Ω and Xm = 20 Ω. The motor is fed by a 6-step inverter, which in is fed by a 6-
pulse fully controlled rectifier. If the rectifier is fed by an ac source of 460 V and 60-Hz, the
T
rectifier firing angle (nearest value) to get the rated fundamental voltage across the motor is
E a) 85°
b) 120°
c) 60°
d) 20°
116. A 460 V, 60-Hz, 6-pole, 1180 rpm , Y-connected squirrel-cage induction motor has the
A following parameters per phase referred to the stator: Rs =0.19 Ω, Rr’= 0.07 Ω, Xs = 0.75
Ω, Xr’= 0.67 Ω and Xm = 20 Ω. The motor is fed by a 6-step inverter. The copper loss of the
I
motor when fed by inverter as compared to when fed by sinusoidal supply
C a) Will increase when fed by inverter
b) Will decrease when fed by inverter
T c) Will remain same
d) It may increase or decrease
E
117. Compensators are added in the forward paths of feedback loops to shape the loop gain, such
that desired performance is obtained
(i) Lead compensators are added to improve the phase margin
(ii) Lead compensators are added to extend the control system bandwidth
A (iii) Lag compensators are used to increase the low-frequency loop gain
(iv) PI controllers are used to improve the rejection of low-frequency disturbances
I (v) PI controllers are used to reduce the steady-state error
which of above statements are correct
C a) Only (i) and (iii)
b) Only (ii), (iii) and (v)
T
c) Only (i), (iv) and (v)
E d) All are correct
118. The particulars of a transmission line with Thyristor Control Reactor (TCR) are V = 220V,
f = 60-Hz, X = 1.2 Ω and PP = 56kW. The maximum current of the TCR is 100 A. The line
current is
a) 175 A
A b) 275 A
I c) 375 A
d) 475 A
C
119. The particulars of a transmission line with Thyristor Control Reactor (TCR) are V = 220V,
T f = 60-Hz, X = 1.2 Ω and PP = 56kW. The maximum current of the TCR is 100 A. The
reactive power of the shunt compensator is
E a) 32 kVAr
b) 45 kVAr
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ROLL NO.: PG2PED52
A c) 56 kVAr
d) 68 kVAr
I 120. The particulars of a transmission line with Thyristor Control Reactor (TCR) are V = 220V,
f = 60-Hz, X = 1.2 Ω and PP = 56kW. The maximum current of the TCR is 100 A. The
C current through the TCR
a) 106 A
T
b) 206 A
E c) 56 A
d) 150A
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 20 of 20
M. Tech. in Power Electronics & Drives
Key for Paper – 2
q. no. ans. q. no. ans. q. no. ans. q. no. ans. q. no. ans.
1 b 25 a 49 d 73 d 97 b
2 c 26 b 50 b 74 b 98 b
3 a 27 c 51 d 75 d 99 b
4 a 28 a 52 d 76 a 100 d
5 c 29 c 53 c 77 a 101 d
6 a 30 b 54 c 78 a 102 b
7 d 31 d 55 b 79 a 103 b
8 b 32 d 56 b 80 d 104 d
9 a 33 a 57 a 81 a 105 a
10 c 34 c 58 d 82 c 106 b
11 b 35 c 59 a 83 a 107 b
12 b 36 b 60 a 84 c 108 b
13 a 37 a 61 d 85 a 109 c
14 d 38 d 62 c 86 a 110 a
15 a 39 a 63 a 87 d 111 c
16 d 40 d 64 a 88 a 112 d
17 d 41 a 65 b 89 a 113 b
18 d 42 a 66 d 90 b 114 a
19 d 43 b 67 d 91 a 115 d
20 d 44 d 68 d 92 b 116 a
21 d 45 c 69 d 93 b 117 d
22 a 46 b 70 c 94 d 118 b
23 d 47 d 71 b 95 b 119 b
24 a 48 a 72 a 96 c 120 b
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A SOFTWARE ENGINEERING

PAPER-I
C Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
ball point pen.
I
T
E
1. Which of the following is not a Software Project Management Goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Tracking the schedule of delivery of the product
c) Ensuring availability of skilled personnel in the project
A d) Avoiding customer complaints
I
2. Which of the following is not a project managers job responsibility?
C a) Testing
b) Schedule Management
T c) Project Scope Management
d) Handling Project Risk
E
3. CMM in the Software Engineering Context stands for
a) Capacity Maturity Marker
b) Capacity Maturing Model
c) Capability Maturing Model
A d) Coding Maturing Marker
I 4. Boehm‟s Spiral model is

a) Phase-driven model
C b) Risk-driven model
T c) Process Oriented Model
d) Random Application Development Model
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 5. The most important use of a PERT (Program Evaluation Review Technique) chart is
a) To represent start and ends dates of each task
I b) To determine critical path
c) To display amount of work completed
C d) To display collaboration among team members
T
6. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?
E a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed
d) Optimized
7. Control chart is a
A a) Process monitoring tool
b) Process control tool
C
T 8. If requirements are easily understandable and defined then which model is best suited?
a) Spiral model
E b) Waterfall model
c) Prototyping model
9. If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only
one interpretation, SRS is said to be correct_________.
A
a) Unambiguous
I b) Consistent
c) Verifiable
T 10. Line of code (LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity measure
E for_____
a) Extended function point metrics
b) Function point metrics
c) Size oriented metrics
A 11. Why is Software architecture so important?

a) Communication among stakeholders
I b) Early Design decisions
C c) Transferable abstraction of a system
d) All of the above
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 12. Which of the following can be included under observable measure?

a) How well the system during execution satisfy its behavioral requirements
I b) How easy it is to integrate
c) How easy it is to test and modify
T
13. Hazard analysis focuses on the identification and assessment of potential hazards that
E can cause________.
a) External problems
b) Internal problems
c) Both (a) and (b)
A
14. Building an excellent product or system that no one really want a risk is a
I ____________.
a) Technical risk
C b) Schedule risk
c) Business risk
T d) Performance risk
E
15. Which risks identify Potential Design, Implementation, Interface, Verification and
Maintenance Problems?
a) Project risk
b) Business risk
c) Technical risk
A d) Schedule risk
I 16. Universal quantification is a way of making a statement about____________.

a) All the elements of a set
C
b) Particular elements of a set
T c) Quality of an operations input set
d) Use of metrics in the design process
E
17. Process framework activities are populated with ___________________.
a) Milestones
b) Work products
c) QA points
I 18. Which of the following is not considered a stakeholder in the software process?
a) Customers
C b) End-users
c) Project managers
T d) Sales people
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 19. Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project management?
a) Assessing product usability
I b) Defect tracking against quality targets
c) Empirical cost estimation
T
20. Component-level metrics include measures of
E a) Complexity
b) Performance
c) Both (a) and (b)
21. Software project estimation techniques can be broadly classified under which of the
A following headings?
a) Decomposition techniques
I
b) Empirical models
C c) Regression models
d) Both (a) and (b)
T
22. Reusable software components must be
E a) Catalogues for easy reference
b) Standardized for easy application
c) Validated for easy integration
A 23. Which of the following is a part of software engineering environment (SEE)?

a) Customers
I b) Developers
c) Hardware platforms
C d) None of theses
T
24. COCOMO II is an example of a suite of modern empirical estimation models that
E require sizing information expresses as:
a) Function points
b) Lines of code
c) Object points
d) Any of the above
A 25. A task set is a collection of
I a) Engineering work tasks, milestones, work products
b) Task assignments, cost estimates, metrics
C c) Milestones, deliverables, metrics
d) Responsibilities, milestones, documents
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 26. A tool for computing critical path and project completion times form activity networks
are
I a) CPM
b) FPA
C c) DRE
d) Any of the above
T
E 27. In transaction mapping the first level factoring results in the______________
a) Creation of a DFD
b) Derivation of the control hierarchy
c) Distribution of worker modules
d) Refinement of the module view
A 28. Which of the following are areas of concern in the design model?
a) Architecture
I
b) Data
C c) Interfaces
d) All of the above
T
29. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
E a) Accuracy
b) Complexity
c) Efficiency
d) Quality
A 30. What types of abstraction are used in software design?

a) Control
I b) Data
c) Procedural
T
31. Which of the following models can be used to represent the architectural design of a
E piece of software?
a) Dynamic models
b) Functional models
c) Structural models
d) All of the above
A 32. Which design is analogous to the floor plan of a house?
I a) Architectural design
b) Component-level design
C c) Data design
d) Interface design
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 33. Which design model is a analogous to a set of detailed drawings for each room in a
house?
I a) Architectural design
b) Component-level design
C c) Data design
d) Interface design
T
E 34. Which of these is not a valid reasons for measuring software processes, products, and
resources?
a) To characterize them
b) To evaluate them
c) To price them
d) To improve them
A
35. The incremental model of software development is
I
a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
C b) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
T d) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.
E 36. Which of the following items are not measured by software project metrics?
a) Inputs
b) Markets
c) Outputs
d) Results
A
37. Why is it important to measure the process of software engineering and the software it
I produces?
a) It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex
C b) To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set.
c) To determine whether a software group is improving or not.
T
d) To make software engineering more like other engineering processes.
E
38. Quality cost may be divided into costs associated with
a) Prevention, appraisal, and failure
b) People, process, and product
c) Customers, developers, and maintenance
d) All of the above
A
I 39. Which of these activities is not one of the activities recommended to be performed by an
independent SQA group?
C a) Prepare SQA plan for the project
b) Review software engineering activities to verify process compliance
T c) Report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management
d) Serve as the sole test team for any software produced
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 40. Which of the following are objectives for formal technical reviews?
a) Allow senior staff members to correct errors
I b) Assess programmer productivity
c) Determining who introduced an error into a program
C d) Uncover errors in software work products
T
41. Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps
E a) Analyze, improve, control
b) Analyze, design, verify
c) Define, measure, analyze
d) Define, measure, control
42. Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that
A a) Affect the reliability of a software component
b) May cause an entire system to fail
I
c) May result from user input errors
C d) Prevent profitable marketing of the final product
T 43. Which of the following is not a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by
IEEE?
E a) Budget
b) Documentation
c) Reviews and audits
d) Test
A 44. Context diagram explains

a) The internal view of the system
I b) The overview of the system
c) The entities of the system
T
45. The process through which an existing system undergoes an alternation, to be
E reconstituted in a new form, is called
a) Engineering
b) Prototyping
c) Re-Engineering
d) Debugging
A 46. A group technique that may be used during requirement elicitation to understand the
I requirements is
a) System prototyping
C b) Software reengineering
c) Brainstorming
T d) System designing
E
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 47. Which of the following is not a deliverable of the structured system analysis?
a) Data flow diagram
I b) Prototype model
c) Entity Relationship diagram
C d) Data dictionary
T 48. The prototyping model of software development is:
E a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well-defined
b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly
c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product
49. Which level is called as “defined” in capability maturity model?
A a) Level 1
b) Level 2
I c) Level 3
d) Level 4
C
50. Which one of the following is not a source code metric?
T a) Halstead metric
b) Function point metric
E
c) Complexity metric
d) Length metric
51. Successive layer of design in software using bottom-up design is called:

a) Layer of Refinement
A b) Layer of Abstraction
c) Layer of Construction
I d) None of these
C 52. Reverse engineering is the process which deals with:
a) Size Measurement
T b) Cost Measurement
E c) Design Recovery
d) All of the above
53. In software maintenance tackling the changes in the hardware or software environment
where the software works, is
a) Corrective Maintenance
A b) Perfective Maintenance
c) Adaptive Maintenance
I d) Preventive Maintenance
C 54. Top-down design does not require
a) Stepwise refinement
T b) Loop invariants
E c) Flow charting
d) Modularity
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 55. The extent to which a software tolerates the unexpected problems, is termed as
a) Accuracy
I b) Reliability
c) Correctness
C d) Robustness
T 56. „FANIN‟of a component A is defined as
a) Count of the number of components that can call, or pass control, to a component A
E b) Number of components related to component A
c) Number of components dependent on component A
57. Requirement Development, Organizational Process Focus, Organizational Training, Risk

A Management and Integrated Supplier Management are process areas required to achieve
which maturity level in CMM
I a) Defined
b) Managed
C c) Performed
T d) Optimized
E 58. _________are applied throughout the software process

a) Framework activities
b) Umbrella activities
c) Planning activities
d) Construction activities
A 59. RAD stands for

a) Rapid and Design
I
b) Rapid Aided Development
C c) Rapid Application Development
d) Rapid Application Design
T
60. Are we building the right product? -This statement refers to
E a) Verification
b) Validation
c) Testing
d) Software quality assurance
A 61. Which one of the following is a functional requirement?

a) Maintainability
I b) Portability
c) Robustness
T
E
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 62. While designing the user interface, one should:

a) Use as many short cuts as possible
I b) Use as many defaults as possible
c) Use as many visual layouts as possible
C d) Reduce the demand on short-term memory
T
63. Which of the following types of coupling has the weakest coupling?
E a) Pathological coupling
b) Control coupling
c) Data coupling
d) Message coupling
64. Requirements prioritization and negotiation belongs to

A a) Requirements validation
b) Requirements elicitation
I
c) Feasibility study
C d) Requirements reviews
T 65. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?
E a) User interface issues
b) Non-functional requirements
c) Design specification
d) Interfaces with third party software
A 66. The diagrams that helps in understanding and representing user requirements for a
software project using UML (Unified Modeling Language) is
I a) Entity Relationship Diagram
b) Deployment Diagram
C c) Data Flow Diagram
d) Use Case Diagram
T
E 67. People who perform software quality assurance must look at the software from ______
perspective.
a) Analyst
b) Customer
c) Developer
d) Tester
A
I 68. A review summary report answers which three questions?
a) Terminate project, replace producer, request a time extension
C b) What defects were found, what caused defects, who was responsible
c) What was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings
E
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 69. Requirements elicitation becomes difficult due to issue/s with

a) Budgeting
I b) Scope
c) Understanding
T
70. The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the
E a) Classical life cycle model
b) Fountain model
c) Spiral model
d) Waterfall model
71. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for
A software development?
a) Inception phase
I b) Elaboration phase
C c) Construction phase
d) Validation phase
T
72. What is used to describe the structure of a software system at a level of abstraction that
E is more closest to the intuition of a system designer?
a) Module Interconnection Language (MIL)
b) Interface Definition Language (IDL)
c) Architectural Description Language (ADL)
d) None of these
A 73. Which is the architectural style that is based on data abstraction and object-oriented
organization where data representation and primitive operations are encapsulated in an
I
abstract data type? In this style objects are components and method invocations on
C objects are connectors.
a) Pipe and Filter
T b) Object Invocation
c) Implicit Invocation
E d) Repository
74. The technical requirements set by management in response to customers „needs and
expectations are known as
a) Process Variation
A b) Process Capability
c) Tampering
I d) Specification Limits
C 75. Which of the following types of charts are used for categorical or discrete variables?
T a) Control chart
b) R chart
E c) Bar chart
d) Attribute chart
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 76. Large fluctuations or patterns in the data that are not inherent to a process are known as
a) Chance causes of variation
I b) Six sigma management
c) Special causes of variation
C d) Common causes of variation
T
77. Six Sigma is a managerial approach designed to create processes resulting in at most
E how many defects?
a) 34 defects out of 10,000
b) 340 defects per million
c) 3.4 defects per million
d) 34 defects per 100,000
A 78. _______is a structured software development process that is intended (planned) to help
I software engineers better understand and improve their performance by tracking their
predicted and actual development of code.
C a) TSP
b) PSP
T c) PMP
E
79. A data model contains
a) Data object
b) Attributes
c) Relationships
A
I 80. Which diagram indicates the behavior of the system as a consequence of external
events?
C a) Data flow diagram
b) State transition diagram
T c) Control specification diagram
E d) Workflow diagram
PART - B (40x2 = 80 Marks)
81. Six Sigma is a business-driven, multi-dimensional structured approach to:

a) Reducing process variability
A b) Improving Processes
c) Lowering Defects
I
d) All of the above
C
82. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is terms as
T a) Compartmentalization
b) Milestones
E c) Outcomes
d) Responsibilities
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 83. The name given by Halstead to the minimal implementation of any algorithm is
a) Volume
I b) Potential Volume
c) Effective Volume
T
84. Where is the prototyping model of software development well suited?
E a) When requirements are well defined
b) For projects with large development teams
c) When a customer cannot define requirements clearly
85. Quality of the product comes under which type of measures?
A a) Indirect measures
b) Direct measures
I c) Coding
T 86. Measure of reliability is given by_______________

a) Mean Time Between Success (MTBS)
E b) Mean Square Reliability (MSR)
c) Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)
87. Effective software project management focuses on the four P‟s. What are those four P‟s?
a) People, Performance, Payment, Product
A b) People, Product, Process, Project
c) People, Product, Performance, Project
C 88. What is tested to uncover errors that indicate lack of conformance to customer
requirements in the dimensions of quality?
T
a) Navigation
E b) Functionality
c) Structure
d) Usability
89. Which condition defines the circumstances for a particular operation is valid?
a) Postcondition
A b) Precondition
c) Invariant
I
C 90. Which structure‟s view shows the mapping of software onto hardware?
T a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure
E c) Physical Structure
d) Class Structure
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 91. Which of the following is a correct statement?

a) A highly modifiable system produces correct results
I b) A highly modifiable system does not produces correct results
c) A highly modifiable system may or may not produces correct results
T 92. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?
a) Isolate system dependency
E b) Increase the overall performance
c) Independent platform dependency
93. Which architectural style‟s goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A a) Data Flow Architecture
b) Call and Return Architecture
I c) Virtual Machine Architecture
C
T 94. Which architectural style‟s goal is to achieve Portability?
a) Data Flow Architecture
E b) Call and Return Architecture
c) Virtual Machine Architecture
95. Data Centered architecture is subdivided into which of the following subtypes?
a) Repository and Blackboard
A b) Batch Sequential, Pipes and Filters
c) All of the mentioned
I
C
96. Which of the following architecture consists of independent processes or objects that
T communicate through messages?
a) Independent Component architecture
E b) Heterogeneous Architectures
c) Layered Architecture
97. In which of the architecture style main program and subroutine systems are decomposed
A into parts that live on computers connected via a network?
a) Main program and subroutine Architecture
I b) Remote Procedure Call system
c) Object Oriented system
T
E
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 98. Which of the heterogeneous style means that component of one style, when decomposed
is structural according to the rules of different style?
I a) Locality
b) Hierarchical
C c) Simultaneous
d) All of the above
T
E 99. In some formal languages, stored data that the system accesses and alters is called
a/an_____
a) Attribute
b) Data structure
c) Variant
d) State
A
100. In formal methods work, an action that reads or writes data to a state is called
I
a/an______
C a) Actor
b) Event
T c) Invariant
d) Operation
E
101. Constructive set specification is preferable to enumeration because it___________
a) Allows succinct definition of large sets
b) Only works for software products
c) Uses mathematical notation
I 102. One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to
a) Give team members more control over process and technical decisions
C b) Give team members less control over process and technical decisions
c) Hide bad news from the project team members until things improve
T
d) Reward programmers based on their productivity
E
103. The W5HH principle contains which of the following questions?
a) Why is the system being developed?
b) What will be done by whom?
c) How will they bill the customer?
d) All of the above
A
I 104. Which measurement activity is missing from the list below?
“Formulation, Collection, Analysis, Interpretation”
C a) Design
b) Feedback
T c) Measurement
d) Quantification
E
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 105. Architectural design metrics focus on

a) Data structural relationships
I b) Architectural structure
c) Internal module complexity
T
106. Which of the below statement fall into broad category of Software Testing Metrics
E a) Metrics that focus on defect removal effectiveness
b) Metrics that focus on test coverage
c) Metrics that estimate the duration of the testing process
d) Metrics that predict the number of testers required
A 107. Halstead‟s source code metrics are based on the number of

a) Modules in the program
I b) Operands in the program
c) Volume elements in the program
C d) Operators in the program
T
108. LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on
E a) Information domain values
b) Project schedule
c) Software functions
d) Process activities
109. Empirical estimation models are typically based on

A a) Expert judgement based on past project experiences
b) Refinement of expected value estimation
I c) Regression models derived from historical project data
C d) Trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients
T 110. Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of software project
scheduling?
E a) Compartmentalization
b) Market assessment
c) Time allocation
d) Effort validation
A 111. To determine the architectural style or combination of styles that best fits the proposed
system, requirements engineering is used to uncover
I a) Algorithmic complexity
b) Characteristics and constraints
C c) Control and data
T d) Design patterns
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ROLL NO.: PG1SWE50
A 112. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

a) Can be written more compactly
I b) Focuses on just one thing
c) Is able to complete its function in a timely manner
C d) Is connected to other modules and the outside world
T
113. Which of the following statements is true?
E a) Design patterns are best thought of as coding patterns
b) Frameworks and design patterns are the same thing as far as designers are
concerned
c) Software designs are refactored to allow the creation of software that is easier to
integrate, easier to test, and easier to maintain.
d) Design Patterns help you automate design process
A
114. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?
I a) Correctness, business relevance, integrity, usability
C b) Reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
c) Correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
T d) Correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability
E 115. A simple stand - alone software utility is to be developed in „C‟ programming by a team
of software experts for a computer running Linux and the overall size of this software is
estimated to be 20,000 lines of code. Considering (a, b) = (2.4, 1.05) as multiplicative
and exponential factor for the basic COCOMO effort estimation equation and (c, d) =
2.5, 0.38) as multiplicative and exponential factor for the basic COCOMO development
time estimation equation, approximately how long does the software project take to
A
complete?
I a) 10.52 months
b) 11.52 months
C c) 12.52 months
T
116. In the context of modular software design, which one of the following combinations is
E desirable?
a) High cohesion and high coupling
b) High cohesion and low coupling
c) Low cohesion and high coupling
d) Low cohesion and low coupling
A
117. Recorded software attributes can be used in the following endeavours:
I i) Cost and schedule estimates
ii) Software product reliability predictions
C
iii) Managing the development process
T iv) Nowhere
a) (i) (ii) (iv)
E b) (i) (ii) (iii)
c) (iv)
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I 118. The availability of a complex software is 90%. Its Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)
is 200 days. Because of the critical nature of the usage, the organization deploying the
C software further enhanced it to obtain an availability of 95%. In the process, the Mean
Time To Repair (MTTR) increased by 5 days. What is the MTBF of the enhanced
T
software?
E a) 205 days
b) 300 days
c) 500 days
d) 700 days
119. What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures?
A Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)= 6 hours
I
a) 1%
C b) 24%
c) 99%
T d) 99.009%
E 120. What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP)
process model?
a) Analysis, design, coding, testing
b) Planning, analysis, design, coding
c) Planning, analysis, coding, testing
A d) Planning, design, coding, testing.
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG1SWE50
ANSWER KEY 41
Subject: Software Engineering
Paper: 1

1. d 41 c 81. d
2. a 42 b 82. d
3. b 43 a 83. b
4. b 44 b 84. c
5. b 45 c 85. a
6. a 46 c 86. c
7. c 47 b 87. c
8. b 48 b 88. b
9. a 49 c 89. b
10. c 50 b 90. c
11. c 51 b 91. c
12. a 52 c 92. a
13. a 53 c 93. b
14. c 54 b 94. c
15. c 55 d 95. a
16. a 56 a 96. a
17. d 57 a 97. b
18. d 58 b 98. b
19. d 59 c 99. d
20. a 60 b 100. d
21. d 61 d 101. a
22. d 62 d 102. a
23. c 63 b 103. a
24. d 64 b 104. b
25. a 65 c 105. b
26. a 66 d 106. b
27. b 67 d 107. c
28. d 68 c 108. c
29. d 69 d 109. c
30. d 70 d 110. b
31. d 71 d 111. b
32. a 72 c 112. b
33. b 73 b 113. c
34. c 74 d 114. d
35. b 75 d 115. b
36. b 76 c 116. b
37. c 77 c 117. b
38. a 78 b 118. c
39. d 79 c 119. d
40. d 80 b 120. d
ROLL NO.: PG2SWE50
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
A
I PAPER-II
Instructions:
C i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
T
E iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
wrong answer.
A ball point pen.
C examination before leaving the examination hall.
T PART-A (80x1 = 80 Marks)

E 1. Which of the following techniques increase reliability of a software system?
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault detection
c) Fault tolerance
d) All of the above
A 2. Configuration management systems and modular design approaches help to achieve:
a) Fault avoidance
I b) Fault detection
C c) Fault tolerance
d) All of the above
T
3. Path testing is an example of
E a) Equivalence testing
b) Black box testing
c) White box testing
4. For the control flow graph of a single program (or subroutine or method)
A a) The number of edges will always be even
b) The number of nodes will always be odd
I c) The number of connected components will be one
C d) The sum of edges and nodes will always be less than ten
T
E
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5. The following approach helps both testers and developers to challenge each other on
A their respective responsibilities.
a) Unit Testing
I b) Error Seeding
c) Bug Fixing
T 6. In Error Seeding technique, the most important thing to remember is
a) To ensure that difficult errors are introduced
E
b) To remove the seeded errors once the testing is completed
c) To avoid repeating the same kind of errors
d) To change one type of error into another type
7. Which of the following statements is/are true about Statistical Quality Assurance?
A a) Survey customers to get their feedback statistics
b) Survey developers to get their productivity statistics
I c) Trace each defect to its underlying cause
T 8. Testing using equivalence partitioning approach is related to

a) White Box testing
E b) Black Box testing
c) Grey Box testing
d) Both Black box and Grey box testing
9. Which of the following testing approaches is best suited for identifying omissions and
ambiguities in specification?
A
a) Regression Testing
I b) State Transition based Testing
c) Decision Table based Testing
C d) Recursive Testing
T 10. Code inspection and Code walkthroughs are good examples of
E a) Sanity Testing
b) Smoke Testing
c) Static Testing
d) Dynamic Testing
11. White box testing is also known as

A a) Behavioral Testing
b) Structural Testing
I c) Functional Testing
C d) Closed Box
T
E
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12. In Data Flow testing, p-use and c-use stand for

A a) Predicate use and Control use respectively
b) Path use and Control use respectively
I c) Package use and Control use respectively
d) Predicate use and Computation use respectively
C
13. Scenarios test and Porotype test are classic examples of
T
a) Unit Testing
E b) Usability Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Acceptance Testing
14. Sandwich testing strategy combines the following two strategies

a) Bottom-up Testing and Top-down Testing
A b) Horizontal Testing and Vertical Testing
c) Unit Testing and User Acceptance Testing
I d) Unit Testing and Regression Testing
C
15. Which of the following descriptions best relate to Smoke Testing?
T a) Regression Testing of small software
b) Rolling Integration Testing
E c) Testing that hides specification errors
d) Regression Testing of complex software
16. The type of testing to ensure that the system performs as expected under high volumes of
transactions and large number of users is best described by
A a) Integration Testing
b) Regression Testing
I c) Stress Testing
d) Method Testing
C
T 17. Complete test coverage of a class involves
a) Testing all operations associated with an object of the class
E b) Setting and interrogating all object attributes
c) Exercising the object in all possible states
d) All of the above
18. Validation testing in Object Oriented development context is best based on which of the
following diagrams?
A a) Activity Diagram
I b) Deployment Diagram
c) Collaboration Diagram
C d) Use Case Diagram
T
E
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19. ____________ testing is testing performed by the use/client in their normal work
A environment.
a) Alpha
I b) Beta
c) Gamma
C d) Delta
T 20. The cron software utility in unix based software systems will help mostly in
a) Consolidating Software Specification
E
b) Code Inspection Process
c) Automating Test Execution
d) All of the above
21. Which of the following statements is false?

A a) Functional testing is not effective for object oriented software
b) Control Flow Diagram is not an effective representation of Object Oriented Software
I c) Structural testing is appropriate for Object Oriented Software
C
22. If a program has two integer inputs and each can be a 4-bit integer, how many possible
T inputs does this program have?
E a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) 256
A a) Path testing subsumes statement coverage
b) Statement coverage subsumes path testing
I c) Regression testing subsumes statement coverage
C
24. Stopping criteria for software testing can be based on
T a) Coverage Criterion
b) Behaviour Criterion
E
c) Both Coverage and Behaviour criteria
25. Every path testing is not really practical because
a) Programs with loops can have infinite paths
b) Many paths will be infeasible in a given program
A
c) It can be difficult to identify whether a path is infeasible or not
C 26. For data flow testing, we use_____________ representation of the program

a) Common Flow Graph
T b) Control Flow Graph
c) Context Free Graph
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27. The terms on tests and off tests appear mostly in the context of
A a) Regression Testing
b) Random Testing
I c) Boundary Testing
C
28. Which of the following is not directly related to bug/defect triage?
T
a) Bug severity
E b) Bug priority
c) Bug detector
d) All of the above
29. In the term “CRUD “testing, what does U stand for?

a) User
A b) Use case
c) Update
I
d) Unique
C
30. Requirements Traceability Matrix is ideally created in _________ phases of a project
T a) Initial
b) Middle
E c) Final
d) Maintenance
31. Tools like “Load Runner”, “Web Load “mainly aid in

a) Path Coverage Testing
A b) Performance Testing
c) Branch Coverage Testing
I d) Statement Coverage Testing
C 32. Impact analysis is most significant in
T a) Requirements phase
b) Design phase
E c) Deployment phase
d) Maintenance phase
33. Non-functional system testing will mainly have

a) Tests to ensure that system does not perform more functions than necessary
b) Tests to ensure that the administrator login is working correctly
A c) Tests to execute all the logical operations in the software
d) Tests to ensure that the system meets quality attributes like performance, usability
I
C 34. Regression testing should be performed
a) Once in a week
T b) Daily
c) When any part of the software has changed
E d) As often as possible
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35. Exhaustive testing is

A a) Impossible
b) Impractical but may be possible
I c) Impractical and never possible
d) Practically easy to complete
C
36. Major object to look at in static analysis is
T
a) Test Plans
E b) Source Code
c) SRS Document
37. A professional decision to stop testing arises when
a) It is time to ship the product
A b) The number of bugs which the client will find out quickly is zero
c) The required level of confidence has been achieved
I d) The last 10 test cases did not find any error
C 38. Observed or perceived data generally forms part of
T a) Subjective measurement
b) Objective measurement
E c) Cumulative measurement
d) All of the above
39. The data which permits only categorization is

a) Ratio
b) Interval
A c) Ordinal
d) Nominal
I
40. How many information domain values are generally used for function point
C
computation?
T a) Three
b) Four
E c) Five
d) Six
41. The level of severity of a bug is best normally expressed in
a) Radio scale
b) Interval scale
A c) Ordinal scale
d) Nominal scale
I
C 42. Which of the following is not a characteristic of good data for software metrics?
a) Correctness
T b) Consistency
c) Completeness
E d) Reproducibility
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43. Number of defects divided by the size of the module provides

A a) Defects detection efficiency
b) Defects density
I c) Test efficiency
C
T 44. SMI stands for
a) Software Maturity Index
E b) Software Metric Index
c) System Maturing Index
d) System Metric Index
45. In the objected oriented design metric suite NOC (number of children), is the number
of______________ subordinated to a class in the inheritance hierarchy.
A
a) Abstract subclasses
I b) Immediate subclasses
c) Abstract super classes
T 46. Which of the following attribute is not measured in the MOOD metric?
E a) Encapsulation
b) Inheritance
c) LOC
d) Polymorphism
47. The coupling factor (CF) in MOOD metric context measures the coupling between
A classes___________ coupling due to inheritance
a) Including
I b) Excluding
c) Analysing
C
T
48. For measuring inheritance, two of the most common measures are MIF and AIF. MIF
E stands for Method Inheritance Factor while AIF stands for ________Inheritance Factor.
a) Availability
b) Access
c) Attribute
A
49. Which of the following best captures Software System Availability?
I a) MTTF/MTBF
b) MTBF/MTTF
C c) MTTR/MTBF
d) MTBF/MTTR
T
E
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50. Software Reliability Growth Model is best associated with_________ phase of Software
A Development Life Cycle.
a) Requirement
I b) Design
c) Implementation
C d) Testing
T
51. Input Domain Based Models are best associated with _________ phase of Software
E Development Life Cycle.
a) Validation
b) Design
c) Implementation
d) Testing
A 52. For identifying trends in Failure Data, we can use Running Arithmetic Average for
a) Time Between Failures Models only
I
b) Failure Count Models only
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
T
53. Which of the following do not come under “portability” aspects of ISO standard on
E Software Quality?
a) Accuracy
b) Adaptability
c) Installability
d) Replaceability
A
54. As per ISO/IEC 9126 standard, “The non fulfilment of intended usage requirements” is
I termed as
a) Bug
C b) Fault
c) Defect
T d) Non-Conformity
E
55. When we test the functionalities or requirements based on their assigned priority, we are
doing
a) Recovery Testing
b) Risk Based Testing
c) Compatibility Testing
A d) User Acceptance Testing
I
56. We need regression testing as part of integration testing because when we aad a new
C module to an existing system, primarily
a) New control logic gets invoked
T b) New drivers get added
c) New stubs get added
E d) All of the above will happen
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ROLL NO.: PG2SWE50
57. Software Validation is mostly

A a) User acceptance testing at the client site
b) Done at client site by the client after deployment
I c) Testing whether the delivered documents are valid
C
58. For successful testing, which of the following is most important?
T a) Test plan must be prepared after coding is completed
b) Test plan must be prepared only after design is finalized
E c) Specify the requirements in a quantifiable manner
d) Use agile testing methodologies
59. The aim of ______________testing is to remove redundant test cases within a specific
group which generates the same output
A a) Exploratory Partitioning
b) Equivalence Partitioning
I c) Uniform Partitioning
d) Identical Partitioning
C
60. The primary aim of _______ testing is to validate whether the system throws an error of
T invalid input and behaves as expected.
E a) Monkey Testing
b) Mutation Testing
c) Negative Testing
d) Non-Functional Testing
61. Which of the following type of error is missed by black box testing but achieved by
A white box testing?
a) Performance Errors
I b) Control Flow Errors
c) Behaviour Errors
C
d) Both (a) and (b)
T
62. The cyclomatic complexity metric provides us with information regarding:
E a) The number of linearly independent logic paths in the program
b) Structuredness of the program
c) Number of test cases for test coverage
d) All of the above
A 63. Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design
test cases is that they
I a) Rely on basic path testing
b) Perform logic conditions in a program module
C c) Choose test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
d) Focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
T
E
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64. Fault based testing of object oriented systems is best reserved for
A a) Life Cycle Testing
b) Performance Testing
I c) Operations and classes that are suspect
d) Use Case Testing
C
65. Deep structure testing is designed to
T
a) Examine object behaviours
E b) Examine communication mechanisms
c) Examine object dependencies
d) All of the above
66. In the context of Object Oriented Software Metric, the value of PAP is an important
measure. PAP stands for
A a) Percent public and private
b) Percent public and protected
I c) Percent private and protected
T 67. The number of bits required to specify a program is considered very important in
a) CK suite
E b) LK suite
c) Halstead’s Metric
d) MOOD Metric
68. GQM is a well-known approach to software metric. GQM stands for
a) Goal Question Metric
A b) Good Question Metric
c) Goal Quantify Metric
I d) Goal Quantify Measure
C 69. Flexibility, Testability, Maintainability are the three sub aspects of ____________ part
of McCal’s quality model.
T a) Product Revision
b) Product Transition
E
c) Product Scheduling
d) Product Operations
70. Portability, Reusability, Interoperability are the three sub aspects of ________ part of
McCal’s quality model.
A a) Product Revision
b) Product Transition
I c) Product Scheduling
d) Product Operations
C
T
E
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71. Halstead’s source code metrics are based on the number of

A a) Modules and Interfaces in the program
b) Modules and Operators in the program
I c) Operands and Modules in the program
d) Operators and Operands in the program
C
72. Design Structural Quality Index (DSQI) is primarily a/an____________ metric.
T
a) Control Design
E b) Architectural Design
c) Data Design
73. The result of DSQI (Design Structural Quality Index) calculations is

a) A number between - 1 and +1
A b) A number between 0 and 1
c) Any integer between negative infinity and positive infinity
C 74. Which of the charts below provides a statistical technique to assess, monitor, and
T maintain the stability of a process?
a) Bar
E b) Maintenance
c) Control
75. A good risk management plan will need to address which of the following issues?
a) Risk avoidance
A b) Risk monitoring
c) Contingency planning
C
76. The function oriented metric where we compute function points was first proposed by
T a) Boehm
b) Albrecht
E c) Pressman
d) Jalote
77. Statistical quality assurance involves
a) Tracking each defect to its underlying cause
b) Isolating the vital few causes
A c) Correcting the isolated vital causes
d) All of the above
I
C 78. Kilo Lines of Code and Function Points computation both belong to
a) Time Estimation
T b) Cost Estimation
c) Size Estimation
E d) Efforts Estimation
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79. Which type of measures does “quality”of the software product belong to?
A a) Direct
b) Indirect
I c) Top Down
d) Bottom Up
C
80. Inter-Class test case design in Object Oriented development have test cases derived
T
mainly from
E a) Server Models
b) Database Models
c) Control Flow Models
d) Behaviour Models
PART- B (40x2 = 80 Marks)
A 81. The major difference between code inspect and code review is that
I a) Code inspection is formal but code walkthrough is informal
b) Code walkthrough is formal but code inspection is informal
C c) Code walkthrough is part of testing while code inspection is part of review
d) Code walkthrough has a moderator while code inspection has no such role
T
82. Which of the following is not a common type of mutation testing?
E a) Statement
b) Decision
c) Constant
d) Value
83. Which of the following is not an advantage of boundary value testing?
A a) Can be used for both Boolean and logical variables
b) Small number of clear test cases which can be easily created
I
c) Very effective in exposing user input problems
C d) Edges of the equivalence classes can easily suggest the boundaries to be checked for
T 84. “In most software development situations, it is considered good coding practice, when a
bug is located and fixed, to record a test that exposes the bug and re-run that test
E regularly after subsequent changes to the program. “This statement is most appropriate
in the context of
a) Mutation Testing
b) Error Seeding
c) Regression Testing
A d) Random Testing
I 85. Consider the two statements

A: Test driver simulates a component that is called by the tested component
C B: Test stub simulates the part of the system that call the component under test
a) Both A and B are true
T b) Only A is true
c) Only B is true
E d) Both A and B are false
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86. The integration testing in Object Oriented context is best achieved by testing
A a) Operator programs derived from use cases
b) Group of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way
I c) All private methods in all classes
d) All of the above
C 87. If random testing is done by randomly selecting test cases from _______________, then
T the behavior of the software during testing should be the same as its behavior in the
operational environment.
E a) An Operational Profile
b) A Code Inspection Report
c) An Expert Review Report
d) An End-User Profile
88. A program calculates the area of a triangle given three sets of x, y coordinates. Which of
A
the following will appear in functional tests of this program?
I a) All three points are different
b) Two of the three points are same
C c) All three points are same
d) All of the above
T
89. User Acceptance Test cases are best written referring to
E a) Feasibility Report
b) Software Requirements Specification Document
c) Detailed Design Document
d) UML diagrams
90. For a particular job application, the candidate should have a minimum age of 20 and a
A
maximum age of 25. The age values which belong to the same equivalence class are
I a) 24, 25, 26
b) 25, 26, 27
C c) 17, 18, 19
d) 18, 19, 20
T
91. Identify the most testable requirement from the ones given below
E a) The system must be user-friendly
b) The critical parts of the software should have zero defects
c) The response time with 30 simultaneous users should be less than 1 second
d) The system should be portable to new hardware as and when available
A 92. The size of a software program may be measured in LOC (Line of Code). Which of the
following statements is/are true with LOC value?
I a) Larger the LOC, more complex the program is
b) Larger the LOC, more time the program takes to execute
C c) Larger the LOC, more the number of test cases required
d) None of the above statements need to be true
T
E
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93. Which of the following is not a valid information domain value used in function point
A computation?
a) Subsystems
I b) Inquiries
c) Inputs
C d) Outputs
T
94. Which of the following function point measurement parameters will have the highest
E weight across simple/average/complex projects?
a) Interfaces
b) Inputs
c) Outputs
d) Files
A 95. Orthogonal Defect Classification approach is independent of
a) Software process model
I
b) Coding language
C c) Software domain
d) All of the above
T
96. In software design, the number of modules directly invoked by a module X becomes
E a) Fan-in of X
b) Fan-out of X
c) Depth of X
d) Height of X
A 97. _____________ measures the degree to which components of a software product can be
used in constructing other software of similar utility.
I a) Usability
b) Functionality
C c) Maintainability
T d) Reusability
E 98. Defect density is best defined as

a) Number of unknown defects divided by product size
b) Number of known defects divided by total number of defects
c) Number of known defects divided by product size
d) Number of unknown defects divided by total number of defects
A 99. What is the major point in the 5th level of CMM?
I a) Objectivising
b) Optimizing
C c) Self Actualizing
d) Measuring Means
T
E
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100. Gompertz Model for Software Reliability is best described as

A a) Early Prediction Model
b) State Based Model
I c) Software Reliability Growth Model
d) Additive Model
C
101. In C&K suite metrics, LCOM stands for
T
a) Lines Code of Module
E b) Lack of Cohesion of Methods
c) Lines Code of Methods
102. Consider the two statements A and B given below

A: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail in a variety of ways
A and ensures that software produces the correct failure reports each time
B: Stress testing examines the pressures placed on the user during system use in extreme
I environments.
C a) Both A and B are True
b) Both A and B are False
T c) A is True, B is False
d) A is False, B is True
E
103. Which of the following categories does Black-box testing attempt to find errors in?
a) Missing functions
b) Interface errors
c) Both (a) and (b)
A d) Neither (a) nor (b)
I 104. Testing of Object Oriented Systems is more difficult because of

a) Inheritance
C b) Modular design
c) Encapsulation
E 105. Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at the class level?
a) Equivalence class based partitioning
b) Category based partitioning
c) State based partitioning
d) Attribute based partitioning
A
106. Which of the following fields are not included in the typical template while using GQM
I approach to software metric?
a) Purpose
C b) Quality
c) Focus
T d) Stakeholder
E
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107. Which of the following is an approach to debug software applications?

A a) Brute Force
b) Backtracking
I c) Cause Elimination
d) All of the above
C
108. Which of the following aspects is of great importance while moving the software from
T
say, Windows Platform to Linux Platform?
E a) Operational
b) Transitional
c) Rational
d) Directional
109. In the current software engineering industry scenario, priority should be given to
A develop metrics and reliability models for
a) Formal Approaches to Software Development
I b) Agile and Incremental Approaches to Software Development
C c) Waterfall Approaches to Software Development
d) Recursive Approaches to Software Development
T
110. Which of the following is not normally detected during Black Box Testing?
E a) Missing Functions
b) Behavioral Errors
c) Improper Declarations
d) Interface Errors
A 111. Which measurement activity is missing in the list below?

Formulation, Collection, Analysis, Interpretation
I a) Scheduling
b) Metrics
C c) Feedback
d) Quantification
T
E 112. The advantage(s) of using Lines Of Code as a size oriented metric is/are
a) It can be done much earlier in the SDLC
b) It is language dependent
c) It is language independent
d) It can be easily computed
A 113. Putnam-Norden-Rayleigh curve (PNR curve) is an equation specifying the relationship

between ___________ and _____________ for a software project.
I
a) Applied Efforts and Delivery Time
C b) Delivery Time and Debugging Efforts
c) Applied Efforts and Debugging Efforts
T d) Design Efforts and Development Efforts
E
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO.: PG2SWE50
114. As per Putnam-Norden-Rayleigh curve (PNR curve), when the development time is
A reduced.
a) Effort reduces linearly
I b) Effort increases linearly
c) Efforts remains the same
T
115. Which of the following testing approaches focus on categories of faulty logic likely to
E be present in the software component without examining the code?
a) Comparison Testing
b) Boundary Value Testing
c) Orthogonal Array Testing
A 116. Which of the following is not part of software reliability testing?
a) Feature Test
I
b) Load Test
C c) User Acceptance Test
d) Reliability Test
T
117. Suppose T is the total accumulated time for prototyping, n(T) is number of failure from
E start to time T. The graph drawn for n (T)/T is generally expected to be a
a) Rectangular box
b) Square box
c) Straight line
A
118. Consider the overlap between the disciplines of quality engineering and reliability
I engineering. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The overlap will be more in the case of hardware than software
C b) The overlap will be more in the case of software than hardware
c) There will be no overlap in the case of hardware
T d) There will be no overlap in the case of software
E
119. The test execution engine and the test script repository are the two main parts of
a) A Test Case
b) A Test Harness
c) A test Suite
A
120. The Defect Removal Efficiency (DRE) gives a measure of the development team’s
I ability to remove defects
a) Soon after the bugs are reported by the customer
C
b) Soon after the product is released to the customer
T c) Prior to release of the product
E
Page 17 of 17
PG2SWE50
ANSWER KEY 41
Subject: Software Engineering
Paper: II

1. d 41 c 81. a
2. a 42 c 82. c
3. c 43 b 83. a
4. c 44 b 84. c
5. b 45 b 85. d
6. b 46 c 86. b
7. c 47 b 87. a
8. d 48 c 88. d
9. c 49 a 89. b
10. c 50 d 90. c
11. b 51 a 91. c
12. d 52 c 92. d
13. b 53 a 93. a
14. a 54 c 94. d
15. b 55 b 95. d
16. c 56 a 96. b
17. d 57 d 97. d
18. d 58 c 98. c
19. b 59 b 99. b
20. c 60 c 100. d
21. a 61 b 101. b
22. d 62 d 102. b
23. a 63 b 103. b
24. c 64 c 104. a
25. c 65 d 105. a
26. c 66 b 106. b
27. c 67 c 107. d
28. c 68 a 108. b
29. c 69 a 109. b
30. a 70 b 110. c
31. b 71 d 111. c
32. d 72 b 112. d
33. d 73 b 113. a
34. c 74 c 114. d
35. b 75 d 115. c
36. b 76 b 116. c
37. c 77 d 117. c
38. a 78 c 118. b
39. d 79 b 119. b
40. c 80 d 120. c
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
I SOIL MECHANICS
C
T
PAPER-I
E
Instructions:
the wrong answer.
A v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
I vi. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
T viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
1. In aring test on a hollow specimen of rock for tensile strength determination, cracks
initiate
(a) From the top and bottom and propagate towards centre
A
(b) From the top only immediately below the loading
I (c) From bottom only and propagate towards the hole
(d) From the top and bottom of the hole and propagate towards loading points
C
2. Rise of water table above the ground surface causes
T (a) Equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress
E (b) Equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
(c) Increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
(d) Decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
3. Brazilian test on rock specimen is done for the determination of

(a) Durability
A (b) Compressive strength
(c) Shear strength
I (d) Tensile strength
C 4. If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup
containing soilpaste drops is softer than the standard hard rubber, then
T
(a) The liquid limit of soil always increases
E (b) The liquid limit of soil always decreases
(c) The liquid limit of soil may increase
(d) The liquid limit of soil may decrease
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
5. A triaxial shear test is preferred to direct shear test, because
I
(a) It can be performed under all three drainage conditions with complete control
C (b) Precise measurement of pore pressure and change in volume during test, is not
possible
T (c) Stress distribution on the failure plane, is non uniform
(d) None of these
E
6. The average coefficient of permeability of natural deposits
(a) Parallel to stratification is always greater than that perpendicular to stratification
(b) Parallel to stratification is always less than that perpendicular to stratification
(c) Is always same in both directions
(d) Parallel to stratification may or may not be greater than that perpendicular to
stratification
A
7. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
I (a) The dry density increases by addition of water after attaining optimum moisture
C content
(b) The line joining the peak of three moisture content graphs obtained by using three
T compactive energies, is called line of optimus
(c) Fine grained soils can be compacted to a very high density as compared to
E well graded coarse grained soils
(d) Optimum moisture content increases due to increasing compacting effort.
8. The shear strength of a soil

(a) Is directly proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
(b) Is inversely proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
(c) Decreases with increase in normal stress
A (d) Decreases with decrease in normal stress
I 9. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(a) The object of classifying soils is to arrange them into groups according to their
C propertiesand behaviour
(b) A soil classification system is meant to provide an accepted and systematic
T
method of
E describing the various types of soils eliminating personal factors
(c) The first category of soil classification is based on grain size of the soil
(d) All the above
10. Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on cohesive soil is

(a) Less at edges compared to middle
A (b) More at edges compared to middle
(c) Uniform throughout
C 11. A grillage foundation
T (a) Is provided for heavily loaded isolated columns
(b) Is treated as spread foundation
E (c) Consists of two sets of perpendicularly placed steel beams
(d) All the above
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
12. Effective stress on soil
I
(a) Increases voids ratio and decreases permeability
C (b) Increases both voids ratio and permeability
(c) Decreases both voids ratio and permeability
T (d) Decreases voids ratio and increases permeability
E 13. The plasticity index is the numerical difference between
(a) Liquid limit and plastic limit
(b) Plastic limit and shrinkage limit
(c) Liquid limit and shrinkage limit
(d) None of these
14. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a structure resting on a soil

A (a) Decreases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
(b) Decreases with the decrease in the plastic limit
I (c) Increases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
C (d) Increases with the decrease in the porosity of the soil
T 15. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) In a direct shear box test, the plane of shear failure is predetermined
E (b) Better control is achieved on the drainage of the soil in a triaxial compression test
(c) Stress distribution on the failure plane in the case of triaxial compression test is
uniform
(d) Unconfined compression test can be carried out on all types of soils
16. Factor of safety against sliding of a slope, is the ratio of

(a) Actual cohesion to that required to maintain stability of slope
A (b) Shear strength to shear stress along the surface
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
I (d) Both (a) and (b)
C 17. The angle of internal friction, is least for

(a) Angular-grained loose sand
T
(b) Angular -grained dense sand
E (c) Round-grained loose sand
(d) Clays
18. Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having

(a) Face to face or parallel orientation
(b) Edge to edge orientation
A (c) Edge to face orientation
I
19. The neutral stress in a soil mass is
C (a) Force per neutral area
T (b) Force per effective area
(c) Stress taken up by the pore water
E (d) Stress taken up by solid particles
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
20. The coefficient of compressibility of soil, is the ratio of
I
(a) Stress to strain
C (b) Strain to stress
(c) Stress to settlement
T (d) Rate of loading to that of settlement
E 21. A clay subjected to pressure in excess to its present over-burden, is said to be
(a) Pre-compressed
(b) Pre-consolidated
(c) Over-consolidated
(d) All the above
22. Physical properties of a permeant which influence permeability are

A (a) Viscosity only
(b) Unit weight only
I (c) Both viscosity and unit weight
T 23. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(a) The range of water content between the liquid limit and plastic limit is called
E plasticity index
(b) The ratio of the liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index
of soils, iscalled consistency index
(c) The ratio of natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity index
iscalled liquidity index
(d) All the above
A 24. Pile foundations are generally preferred to for

(a) Bridge foundations
I (b) Sky scrapper buildings
(c) Residential buildings
C (d) Runways
T
25. For testing a saturated clay for shear strength, the test recommended, is
E (a) Direct shear test
(b) Triaxial compression test
(c) Unconfined compression test
(d) All the above
26. Coefficient of permeability of soil

A (a) Does not depend upon temperature
(b) Increases with the increase in temperature
I (c) Increases with the decrease in temperature
C
T 27. The ratio of volume of air voids to the volume of total voids, is known as
(a) Air content
E (b) Percentage air voids
(c) Percentage voids
(d) Porosity
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
I
28. Porosity in a rock is found to be maximum when grains are
C (a) of same size
(b) of varying size
T (c) In a specified size range
(d) Arranged in parallel array
E
29. The triaxial apparatus is usually used for
(a) Unconsolidated-undrained test
(b) Consolidated-undrained test
(c) Drained test
(d) All the above tests
A 30. Which one of the following clays behaves like a dense sand?
(a) Over-consolidated clay with a high over-consolidation ratio
I (b) Over-consolidated clay with a low over-consolidation ratio
C (c) Normally consolidated clay
(d) Under-consolidated clay
T
31. During seepage through a soil, direction of seepage is always
E (a) Parallel to equipotential lines
(b) Perpendicular to stream lines
(c) Perpendicular to equipotential lines
(d) None of these
32. The seepage force in a soil, is
(a) Perpendicular to the equipotential lines
(b) Proportional to the exit gradient
A (c) Proportional to the head loss
(d) All the above
I
C (a) Coefficient of compressibility is the decrease in void ratio per unit increase of
pressure
T (b) The percent settlement at any time is called degree of consolidation
(c) Time factor is a dimensionless quantity
E (d) All the above
34. Direct measurement of permeability of the specimen at any stage of loading can be
made
(a) Only in fixed ring type consolidometer
(b) Only in floating ring type consolidometer
A
C 35. The property of a soil which allows it to be deformed rapidly without rupture, elastic
rebound andalso a volume change, is known
T (a) Porosity
E (b) Plasticity
(c) Permeability
(d) Ductility
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
36. The average uniaxial compressive strength of an intact rock is found to be 85 MPa.
I
Based on this value rock may be classified as
C (a) Very High strength
(b) High strength
T (c) Medium strength
(d) Low strength
E
37. Equivalent uniaxial compressive strength (MPa) corresponding to point load strength
index of 1 MPa may be approximately
(a) 5 MPa
(b) 15 MPa
(c) 30 MPa
(d) 50 MPa
A
38. With the increase in the amount of compaction energy
I (a) Optimum water content increases but maximum dry density decreases
C (b) Optimum water content decreases but maximum dry density increases
(c) Both optimum water content and maximum dry density increase
T (d) Both optimum water content and maximum dry density decrease
E 39. Soils containing organic matters

(a) Are of spongy nature
(b) Swell with decrease of moisture
(c) Shrink with increase of moisture content
(d) None of these
40. Buoyant unit weight equals the saturated density

A (a) Multiplied by unit weight of water
(b) Divided by unit weight of water
I (c) Plus unit weight of water
(d) Minus unit weight of water
C
41. The change of moisture content of soils, changes the
T
(a) Value of the angle of repose
E (b) Amount of compaction required
(c) Cohesive strength of soil
(d) All the above
42. Skempton's pore pressure coefficient B for saturated soil is

(a) 1
A (b) Zero
(c) Between 0 and 1
I (d) Greater than 1
C 43. The density of soil can be increased
T (a) By reducing the space occupied by air
(b) By elastic compression of soil grains
E (c) By expelling water from pores
(d) All the above
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
I
(a) Kaolinite is most stable clay
C (b) Kaolinite shows a very little sign of swelling on wetting
(c) Kaolinite is also called China clay
T (d) All the above
E 45. In Brazilian test for rocks (IS 10082), the specimen diameter in mm should not be less
than
(a) 45
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 150
A 46. Shear strength of a soil is a unique function of

(a) Effective stress only
I (b) Total stress only
C (c) Both effective stress and total stress
T
47. The maximum water content at which a reduction in water content does not cause a
E decrease involume of a soil mass, is known
(a) Liquid limit
(b) Plastic limit
(c) Shrinkage limit
(d) Permeability limit
48. The specific gravity of sands, is approximately

A (a) 1.6
(b) 2.0
I (c) 2.2
(d) 2.6
C
49. Brinell and Rockwell tests for rocks are performed to determine its property of
T
(a) Hardness
E (b) Durability
(c) Compressive strength
(d) Shear strength
50. The angle that Coulomb's failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called
(a) Cohesion
A (b) Angle of internal friction
(c) Angle of repose
C 51. A flow net may be utilised for the determination of
T (a) Exit gradient
(b) Seepage
E (c) Hydrostatic pressure
(d) All the above
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
52. The compression index of a soil
I
(a) Decreases with an increase in the liquid limit
C (b) Increases with an increase in the liquid limit
(c) Decreases with an increase in the plastic limit
T (d) Is not related with plastic limit
E 53. If drainage is permitted throughout the test, during the application of both normal, and
shearstresses so that full consolidation occurs and no excess pore pressure is set up at
any stage of thetest, is known as
(a) Quick test
(b) Drained test
(c) Consolidated undrained test
(d) None of these
A
54. Sensitivity of a soil can be defined as
I (a) Percentage of volume change of soil under saturated condition
C (b) Ratio of compressive strength of unconfined undisturbed soil to that of soil in a re-
mouldedstate
T (c) Ratio of volume of voids to volume of solids
E
55. A fully saturated soil is said to be
(a) One phase system
(b) Two phase system with soil and air
(c) Two phase system with soil and water
(d) Three phase system
A 56. When drainage is permitted under initially applied normal stress only and full
primarily
I consolidation is allowed to take place, the test is known as
(a) Quick test
C (b) Drained test
(c) Consolidated undrained test
T
(d) None of these
E
57. According to Rankine's formula, the minimum depth of foundation (h)
(a) h = (P/w) [(1 - sinɸ)/ (1 + sinɸ)] ²
(b) h = (w/P) [(1 - sinɸ)/ (1 + sinɸ)] ²
(c) h = (P/w) [(1 - sinɸ)/ (1 + tan)] ²
(d) h = (P/w) [(1 - tan)/ (1 + tan)] ²
A Where P = Applied pressure and w= unit weight of soil
ɸ = Angle of internal friction
I
58. The angle between the directions of the failure and the major principal plane, is equal
C to
T (a) 90° + effective angle of shearing resistance
(b) 90° + half of the angle of shearing resistance
E (c) 45° - half of the angle of shearing resistance
(d) 45° + half of the angle of shearing resistance
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
59. Which test is used to bifurcate the point bearing and skin friction of plie load
I
capacity?
C (a) Pile load test
(b) Cyclic pile load test
T (c) Cyclic plate load test
E
60. Residual soils are formed by
(a) Glaciers
(b) Wind
(c) Water
61. If Cv is the coefficient of consolidation, tis the time elapsed and d is drainage path of
A one dimensionalconsolidation of soil, the time factor Tv, is given by
I (a) 𝑇𝑣 = 𝑑²/𝐶𝑣 𝑡
(b) 𝑇𝑣 = 𝑡²/𝑑 2 𝐶𝑣
C (c) 𝑇𝑣 = 𝐶𝑣3 /𝑑²𝑡
(d) 𝑇𝑣 = 𝐶𝑣 𝑡/𝑑²
T
E (a) Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil
(b) For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight
(c) Unit weight of soil increases due to submergence in water
(d) Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water
63. Under reamed pile foundation is suitable in

(a) Dispersible
(b) Expansive soil
A (c) Collapsible soil
I (d) Alluvial soil
C 64. Pick up incorrect statement from the following:

(a) The void ratio in soils is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the volume
T of solids
(b) The bulk density of a soil is defined as the unit weight of the soil
E (c) The dry density of a soil is defined as weight of solids to the total volume of the
soil
(d) Submerged density of a soil is difference between dry density and density of water
65. If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the
sample is
A (a) Less than specific gravity of soil
(b) Equal to specific gravity of soil
I
(c) Greater than specific gravity of soil
C (d) Independent of specific gravity of soil
T 66. If the rock mass rating (RMR) is calculated as 38%, the rock can be classified as
(a) Good rock
E (b) Fair rock
(c) Poor rock
(d) Very poor rock
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
67. The angle of internal friction of clays, is usually
I
(a) 0° to 5°
C (b) 5° to 20°
(c) 20° to 30°
T (d) 30° to 45°
E 68. Stoke's law is valid only if the size of particle is
(a) Less than 0.0002 mm
(b) Greater than 0.2 mm
(c) Between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm
69. Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to plate load test

(a) Width of the test pit for plate load test is made five times the width of the plate
A
(b) At the centre of the test pit, a hole is dug out whose size is kept equal to the size of
I the testplate
(c) Bottom level of the hole dug at the centre of the test pit, is kept at the level of the
C actualformation
(d) Standard size of plate is 100 cm square.
T
70. If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit,
E
the soil massis said to be in
(a) Liquid state
(b) Plastic state
(c) Semisolid state
(d) Solid state
A (a) A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil
(b) A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non-uniform soil
I (c) Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability
(d) Uniformity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded
C soil
T 72. The water content in a soil sample when it continues to loose weight without loosing
the volume,is called
E
(a) Shrinkage limit
(b) Plastic limit
(c) Liquid limit
(d) Semi-solid limit
73. The angle of internal friction is maximum for
A (a) angular-grained loose sand
(b) angular-grained dense sand
I
(c) round-grained dense sand
C (d) round-grained loose sand
T 74. When a cohesionless soil attains quick condition, it looses

(a) Shear strength
E (b) Bearing capacity
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
I
C (a) The greater the viscosity, the greater is permeability
(b) The greater the unit weight, the greater is permeability
T (c) The greater the unit weight, the smaller is permeability
(d) Unit weight does not affect permeability
E
76. A direct shear test possesses the following disadvantage:
(a) A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick drainage
(b) A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick dissipation of pore pressure
developedduring the test
(c) As the test progresses the area under shear, gradually changes
(d) None of these
A
I 77. The shearing strength of a cohesion-less soil depends upon
(a) Dry density
C (b) Rate of loading
(c) Confining pressure
T (d) Nature of loading
E
78. When the seepage pressure becomes equal to the pressure due to submerged weight of
a soil, theeffective pressure is reduced to zero and the soil particles have a tendency to
move up in thedirection of flow. This phenomenon is generally known
(a) Quick condition
(b) Boiling condition
(c) Quick sand
(d) All the above
A
I 79. The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is
(a) Well point system
C (b) Vacuum method
(c) Deep well system
T (d) Electro-osmosis method
E
80. Which one of the following statements is true for Mohr-Coulomb envelope?
(a) Coulomb suggests that the relationship between shear strength and normal stress,
isadequately represented by the straight line
(b) The generalised Mohr theory suggests that, though the shear stress depends on the
normalstress, the relation is not linear
A (c) Coulomb and Mohr suggest that a definite relationship exists among the principal
stress andthe angle of internal friction
I (d) All the above
C
T
E
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
I
C
T 81. In a liquid limit test, the moisture content at 10 blows was 70% and that at 100 blows
was 20%.The liquid limit of the soil, is approximately
E
(a) 35 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 65 %
(d) None of these
82. A cylindrical specimen of saturated soil failed under an axial vertical stress of
100kN/m² when itwas laterally unconfined. The failure plane was inclined to the
A horizontal plane at an angle of 45°.The values of cohesion and angle of internal
friction for the soil are respectively
I (a) 0.5 N/mm² and 30°
C (b) 0.05 N/mm² and 0°
(c) 0.2 N/mm² and 0°
T (d) 0.05 N/mm² and 45°
E 83. A soil sample of mass specific gravity 1.92 has moisture content 30%. If the specific
gravity ofsolids is 2.75, the void ratio, is
(a) 0.858
(b) 0.860
(c) 0.862
(d) 0.864
A 84. An unsaturated 100 cm3 sample of soil weighs 190 g. If its dried weight is 160 g,
water content ofthe soil, is
I (a) 0.188
(b) 0.288
C (c) 0.388
(d) 0.588
T
E 85. If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two planes is
(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) 135°
(d) 225°
A 86. If voids ratio is 0.67, water content is 0.188 and specific gravity is 2.68, the degree of
saturation ofthe soil, is
I (a) 25 %
(b) 40 %
C
(c) 60 %
T (d) 75 %
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
87. A soil mass coated with a thin layer of paraffin weighs 460 g. When immersed, it
I
displaces 299 ccof water. The weight of paraffin is 10 g. If specific gravity of solids is
C 2.5 and that of paraffin 0.9,the void ratio of soil, is
(a) 0.55
T (b) 0.60
(c) 0.65
E (d) 0.70
88. A soil has bulk density 2.30 g/cm3 and water content 15 per cent, the dry density of
the sample, is
(a) 1.0 g/cm2
(b) 1.5 g/cm3
(c) 2.0 g/cm3
A (d) 2.5 g/cm3
I 89. If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values
of porosityand voids ratio respectively are
C (a) 1.0 and 0.0
(b) 0.0 and 1.0
T
(c) 0.5 and 1.0
E (d) 1.0 and 0.5
90. A moist soil sample weighing 108 g has a volume of 60 cc. If water content is 25%
and value of G =2.52, the void ratio is
(a) 0.55
(b) 0.65
(c) 0.75
(d) 0.80
A
91. A SPT was conducted at a depth of 2 m in a sand deposit with a unit weight of 20
I kN/m3. The water table at this site was 1 m below ground surface. The N value
observed to be 5. What would corrected N value be?
C (a) 7
(b) 10
T
(c) 12
E (d) 17
92. A 300 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in a plate load test on a cohesive soil
when theintensity of loading is 0.2 N/mm². The settlement of a prototype shallow
footing 1 m square underthe same intensity of loading is
(a) 15 mm
A (b) 30 mm
(c) 50 mm
I (d) 167 mm
C 93. The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a
swimming poolare respectively
T (a) Zero and zero
E (b) 0.5 kg/cm² and zero
(c) 0.5 kg/cm² and 0.5 kg/cm²
(d) 1.0 kg/cm² and 0.5 kg/cm²
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
I
In subsoil exploration programme the term ‘significant depth of exploration’ is upto
C 1. Hard rock level
2. The depth where the additional stress intensity is less than 20% of overburden
T pressure
3. The depth where the additional stress intensity is less than 10% of overburden
E pressure
4. The width of foundation
5. Twice the width of foundation
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2 and 5
(c) 3 and 5
A (d) 1, 3 and 4
I 95. During a sampling operation, the drive sampler is advanced 600 mm and the length of
C the sample recovered is 525 mm. What is the recovery ratio of the sample?
(a) 0.345
T (b) 0.875
(c) 0.125
E (d) 0.145
96. Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid
are reducedto 60% and 90% respectively. If other things remain constant, the
coefficient of permeability
(a) Increases by 25 %
(b) Increases by 50 %
A (c) Increases by 33.3 %
(d) Decreases by 33.3 %
I
97. The void ratio of a soil sample decreases from 1.50 to 1.25 when the pressure is
C increased from 25tonnes/m2 to 50 tonnes/m2, the coefficient of compressibility is
(a) 0.01
T (b) 0.02
(c) 0.05
E (d) 0.001
98. A 600 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in plate load test on a cohesion-less
soil under anintensity of loading of 0.2 N/m². The settlement of a prototype shallow
footing 1 m squareunder the same intensity of loading is
(a) 15 mm
A (b) Between 15 mm and 25 mm
I (c) 25 mm
(d) Greater than 25 mm
C
99. A stratum of clay 2 m thick will get consolidated 80% in 10 years. For the 80%
T consolidation of 8 mthick stratum of the same clay, the time required is
(a) 100 years
E (b) 120 years
(c) 140 years
(d) 160 years
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
100. The gross bearing capacity of a footing is 450 kN/m2. If the footing is 1.5 m wide and
I
is at a depth of 1 m in a clayey soil which has a unit weight of 20 kN/m3, then the net
C bearing capacity in kN/m2 is
(a) 420
T (b) 430
(c) 440
E (d) 410
101. A saturated undisturbed sample from a clay strata has moisture content of 22.22% and
specific weight of 2.7. The void ratio and saturated weight of the clay, respectively
are
(a) 0.6 and 16.875 kN/m3
(b) 0.3 and 20.625 kN/m3
A (c) 0.6 and 20.625 kN/m3
(d) 0.3 and 16.975 kN/m3
I
102. A raft of 6m*9m is founded at a depth of 3 meter in a cohesive soil having C=120
C kN/m2. The ultimate net bearing capacity of the soil using the Terzaghi's theory will
T be nearly
(a) 820 kN/m3
E (b) 920 kN/m3
(c) 1036 kN/m3
(d) 1067 kN/m3
103. When degree of consolidation is 50%, the time factor is about

(a) 0.2
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.0
A (d) 2.0
I 104. A 1.2 m layer of soil is subjected to an upward seepage head of 1.8m. A layer of
coarse sand is laid over the soil layer to attain a factor of safety of 2.0 against piping.
C Both the soil and coarse sand have the same values of G=2.67 and e=0.67. There is
T negligible head loss in the sand layer. The required depth of the coarse sand layer is
(a) 0.9
E (b) 1.2
(c) 2.4
(d) 3.6
105. When degree of consolidation is 50%, the time factor is about

(a) 0.2
A (b) 0.5
(c) 1.0
I (d) 2.0
C 106. Due to rise in temperature, the viscosity and unit weight of percolating fluid are
reduced to 70% and 90% respectively. others thing being constant, the change in
T
coefficient of permeability will be
E (a) 20%
(b) 28.6%
(c) 63.0%
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
(d) 77.8%
I
C 107. The initial and final void ratio of a clay sample in a consolidation test are 1 and
0.5respectively. if the initial thickness of the sample is 2.4 cm the its final thickness
T will be
(a) 1.3 cm
E (b) 1.8 cm
(c) 1.9 cm
(d) 2.2 cm
108. A unit volume of a mass of saturated soil is subjected to horizontal seepage. The
saturated unit weight is 22 kN/m3 and the hydraulic gradient is 0.3. The resultant body
force on the soil mass is
A (a) 1.98 kN
(b) 6.6kN
I (c) 12.36 kN
C (d) 22.97kN
T 109. According to Skempton's formula for a surface footing on surface, the ultimate
bearing capacity for a square footing on a purely cohesive soil in saturated condition
E of undrained cohesion C is
(a) 1.4C
(b) 6.0 C
(c) 7.4C
(d) 9.0C
110. In a permeability test conducted on a soil with e=0.50, the discharge velocity was
A found to be 2.4*10^-1 cm/s. The seepage velocity is
(a) 7.2*10^-1 cm/s
I (b) 4.8*10^-1 cm/s
(c) 3.6*10^-1 cm/s
C (d) 1.6*10^-1 cm/s
T
111. Soil samples A and B have void ratios of 0.5 and 0.7 respectively. If 1.5m 3 of soil
E sample A and 1.7m3 of soil sample B are mixed to form sample C having a volume of
3.2 m3, which one of the following correctly represents the porosity of sample C?
(a) 0.375
(b) 0.60
(c) 1.66
(d) 2.66
A
112. Given that for over - consolidated clay soil deposit, the pressure under which the
I deposit has been fully consolidated in the past is 125 kN/m3, and the present
overburden pressure is 75 kN/m2, the over consolidation ratio of soil deposit is
C (a) 75/125
T (b) 50/75
(c) 125/75
E (d) 200/75
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
113. During the first stage of tri-axial test when the cell pressure is increased from
I
0.10N/mm2 to 0.26N/mm2, the pore water pressure increases from 0.07N/mm2 to
C 0.15N/mm2. What is the value of the Skempton's pore pressure parameter B?
(a) 0.50
T (b) -0.50
(c) 2.0
E (d) -2.0
114. The Confining pressure and the deviator stress on a tri-axial sample are, respectively,
100kN/m2 and 300 kN/m2. What is the normal stress acting on the plane of maximum
shear stress?
(a) 150kN/m2
(b) 200kN/m2
A (c) 250kN/m2
(d) 400kN/m2
I
115. A test plate 30 cm x 30cm resting on a sand deposit settles by 10mm under a certain
C loading intensity. A footing 150 cm x 200 cm resting on the same sand deposit and
loaded to the same load intensity settles by
T
(a) 2mm
E (b) 27.8mm
(c) 30.2mm
(d) 50m
116. A direct shear test was conducted on a cohesion less soil (c=0) specimen under a
normal stress of 200 kN/m2. The specimen failed at a shear stress of 100 kN/m2. The
angle of internal friction of the soil (indegrees) is
(a) 26.6
A (b) 29.5
(c) 30.0
I (d) 32.6
C 117. A sand stone core composed of quartz and feldspar grains with calcite cement is 82
T mm in diameter and 169 mm long. On saturation in water, its wet weight is 21.42 kN;
calculate its wet unit weight and dry unit weight.
E (a) 22 kN/m3, 20.76 kN/m3
(b) 24 kN/m3, 22.76 kN/m3
(c) 26 kN/m3, 22.76 kN/m3
(d) 24 kN/m3, 20.76 kN/m3
118. A sand stone core composed of quartz and feldspar grains with calcite cement is 82
A mm in diameter and 169 mm long. On saturation in water, its wet weight is 21.42 kN.
Find the porosity (%) of the sandstone core.
I (a) 12.8
C (b) 10.6
(c) 14.2
T (d) 15.6
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1SOM46
A
119. If a rock has a permeability of 1 millidarcy, how much water will flow through it per
I
unit of time and area under a gradient of unity expressed in cm3/s/cm2 of area?
C (a) 12.63 x 10-7
(b) 7.75 x 10-7
T (c) 10.75 x 10-7
(d) 9.63 x 10-7
E
120. A sandstone with porosity of 15% is composed of a mixture of 70% quartz grains and
30% pyrite grains. What would be its dry density in Mega Newton per cubic meter?
(a) 2.80
(b) 0.28
(c) 0.028
(d) 28.0
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
ANSWERS PAPER 1
PG Soil Mechanics
1. d 21. d 41. d 61. d 81. c 101. c
2. a 22. c 42. a 62. d 82. b 102. a
3. d 23. d 43. d 63. b 83. c 103. a
4. a 24. b 44. d 64. a 84. a 104. c
5. a 25. c 45. d 65. b 85. b 105. a
6. a 26. b 46. a 66. c 86. d 106. b
7. c 27. a 47. c 67. b 87. b 107. b
8. d 28. a 48. d 68. c 88. c 108. c
9. d 29. d 49. a 69. d 89. d 109. b
10. b 30. a 50. b 70. b 90. c 110. a
11. d 31. c 51. d 71. b 91. a 111. a
12. c 32. d 52. b 72. a 92. c 112. c
13. a 33. d 53. b 73. b 93. b 113. a
14. a 34. a 54. b 74. c 94. c 114. c
15. d 35. b 55. c 75. b 95. b 115. b
16. d 36. c 56. c 76. c 96. b 116. a
17. d 37. b 57. a 77. c 97. a 117. b
18. a 38. b 58. d 78. d 98. b 118. a
19. c 39. a 59. b 79. d 99. d 119. d
20. b 40. d 60. d 80. d 100. b 120. c

ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A SOIL MECHANICS
I
C PAPER-II
T
E Instructions:
the wrong answer.
E
1. Which of the following relations is true when two springs with spring constant K1 and
K2 are connected parallelly? (where Ke= equivalent spring stiffness)
(a) Ke = K1 + K2
(b) (1/ Ke) = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
A
(c) Ke = (1/K1) + (1/ K2)
C 2. Which of the following relation stands correct for co-efficient of uniform compression
T (Cu) and base area of machine foundation (A)?
𝐶𝑢 1 𝐴1
E (a) =
𝐶𝑢 2 𝐴2
𝐶𝑢 1 𝐴2
(b) =
𝐶𝑢 2 𝐴1
𝐶𝑢 1 𝐴
(c) = 𝐴1
𝐶𝑢 2 2
𝐶𝑢 1 3 𝐴2
(d) =
𝐶𝑢 2 𝐴1
A
3. In damped free vibrations, which parameters indicate vibrations?
I (a) Natural frequency
C (b) Rate of decay of amplitude
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A 4. What are deterministic vibrations?

(a) Vibrations caused due to known exciting force
I
(b) Vibrations caused due to unknown exciting force
C (c) Vibrations which are aperiodic in nature
T
E 5. Maximum number of degree of freedom in a vibrating body will be
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4
6. In which type of vibrations, amplitude of vibration goes on decreasing every cycle?

(a) Damped vibrations
(b) Undamped vibrations
A
C 7. What is meant by critical damping coefficient?
T (a) Frequency of damped free vibrations is less than zero
(b) The motion is aperiodic in nature
E (c) Both (a) and (b)
8. Eddy current damping is an example of _____

(a) Coulomb damping
(b) Hysteresis damping
(c) Viscous damping
(d) Dry friction damping
A
9. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
I maximum potential energy at extreme position?
C (a) Energy method
(b) Rayleigh's method
T (c) Equilibrium method
E (d) All of the above
10. The material retained or supported by the retaining structure is called__________

(a) Surcharge
(b) Support wall
(c) Backfill
11. The wedge-shaped portion of the backfill tending to move with the wall is
A called_______
I (a) Wedge fall
(b) Active fall
C (c) Failure wedge
E
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A 12. In an active stress, the major principal stress σ acting on the wall will be in
__________ plane.
I
(a) Vertical
C (b) Horizontal
(c) Inclined
T (d) Zero
E
13. The wedge theory of earth pressure is based on the concept of_________
(a) Active earth pressure
(b) Sliding wedge
(c) Wall friction
14. The force acting on a wedge of soil are____________

A (a) Frictional force
(b) Weight of the wedge and Active thrust
I (c) None of the mentioned
C
T 15. Based on the assumptions of the wedge theory, pressure distribution is assumed to
be__________
E (a) Planar
(b) Hydrostatic
(c) Equal
(d) Distributed
16. In Coulomb’s wedge theory, the angle λ is referred as___________

(a) Angle of wall friction
(b) Surcharge angle
A (c) Critical slip angle
I
C 17. The method of Barken is based on the assumption of___________
(a) Equation of motion
T (b) Linear spring theory
E (c) Participation of soil in the vibration
18. The rotation of foundation about longitudinalY axes is known as_________

(a) Yawing
(b) Pitching
(c) Rocking
A
19. Barken’s method is used in___________ places.
I (a) Congested area
(b) Design offices
C
(c) Working area
T (d) All of the mentioned
E
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A 20. If the combined C.G. of the machine and foundation lies in the same vertical line, then
the twisting modes are_________
I
(a) Coupled
C (b) Uncoupled
(c) All of the mentioned
E
21. The possible method adopted for designing of raft foundation is___________
(a) Conventional method
(b) Elastic method
(c) Soil line method
22. In truly elastic foundation, the soil is assumed to be obey____________

(a) Terzaghi’s theory
A (b) Hooke’s law
I (c) Skempton’s theory
C
23. Wale in a braced excavation is subjected to:
T (a) Direct tension
E (b) Axial compression
(c) Bending
(d) Twisting
24. The stability of an anchored bulkhead depends on

(a) Relative stiffness of sheet piling
(b) Depth of penetration
(c) The relative compressibility of soil
A
25. The methods commonly used in the design of anchored bulkheads are
I
(a) Free earth support method
C (b) Fixed earth support method.
T (d) None
E
26. The approaches for analysis of bulkheads with fixed earth support is/are
(a) Elastic line method
(b) Free earth support method
(c) Depth of penetration
27. Steel sheet piling is usually the best choice because
1) Heavy weight
A 2) can be reused several times
3) can resist high driving stresses,
I (a) 1 only
C (b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3
T (d) All are correct
E
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A
28. Which of the following waves can be transmitted through solids, liquids and gases?
I
(a) Transverse waves
C (b) Electromagnetic waves
(c) Mechanical waves
T (d) Longitudinal waves
E
29. Which of the following is also known as pressure waves?
(a) Transverse waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Mechanical waves
(d) Stationary waves
30. In which medium sound travels faster?

(a) Solid
A
(b) Liquid
I (c) Gas
(d) Water vapour
C
T 31. Culmann’s solution can be conveniently used for_____________
(a) Various type of surcharge loads
E (b) Ground surface of any shape
(c) Backfill of different densities
32. Culmann’s solution is based on___________theory.

(a) Coulomb’s
(b) Rebhann’s
(c) Mohr
A (d) Rankine’s
I
33. Earth pressure for retaining walls, of less than 6m are obtained by_______________
C (a) Analytical method
(b) Graphical method
T (c) Considering approximate value
E (d) All of the mentioned
34. All available graphs and tables, used for finding earth pressure is based on_______
(a) Rankine’s theory
(b) Coulomb’s theory
(c) Culmann’s theory
(d) Rebhann’s graphical method
A 35. Which one is the IS code for design and construction for impact type of machine?
(a) IS : 2974 (Part I)
I (b) IS : 2974 (Part II)
(c) IS : 2974 (Part III)
C
(d) IS : 2974 (Part IV)
T
E
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A 36. Which of the following statements is/are true for elastomers?

(a) Elastomers can be used for static deflections up to 12 mm
I
(b) Elastomers can provide natural frequencies below 5 Hz
C (c) Elastomers have good performance at high frequencies
(d) All the above statements are true
T
E 37. Transmissibility is the ratio of ______
(a) force transmitted to the supporting structure and force impressed upon the system
(b) displacement amplitude of mass and displacement amplitude of supporting
structure
(c) both a) and b.
38. What is the function of the controller in active vibration isolation systems?
(a) Detect vibrations to be controlled
A
(b) Reposition the masses
I (c) Interpret detected vibrations and execute commands
C
T 39. The lateral earth pressure coefficient of a soil, Ka for active state, Kp for passive state
and Ko for at rest condition, compare as:
E (a) Ko<Ka<Kp
(b) Ka<Ko<Kp
(c) Ka<Kp<Ko
(d) Kp<Ko<Ka
40. Which of the following methods can be used to reduce excitation level at the source?
(a) Lubrication of joints
(b) Balancing inertia forces
A (c) Both a) and b.
I
C 41. Underground conduits are commonly used for, which of the following purpose?
(a) Sewers
T (b) Gas lines
E (c) Culverts
42. A ditch conduits can be installed in a__________

(a) Shallow bedding
(b) Shallow ditch
(c) Narrow ditch
A
43. Which of the following conduit is installed in shallow bedding?
I (a) Ditch conduits
(b) Positive projecting conduits
C (c) Special conduits
T (d) Negative projecting conduits
E
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A 44. Which of the following conduits are commonly used in highway or railway culverts?
(a) Positive/Negative projecting conduits
I
(b) Negative projecting conduits
C (c) Ditch conduits
T
E 45. The settlement ratio for a negative projecting conduit is__________
(a) Always positive
(b) Always negative
(c) Negative in some cases
46. If the critical plane settles more than the top of the conduit, the settlement ratio is____
(a) Zero
A (b) Negative
(c) Positive
I (d) Unity
C
47. If the plane of settlement does not fall within the embankment, then such a condition
T is called_________
(a) Complete ditch condition and Complete project condition
E (b) Incomplete ditch condition
48. Critical plane in conduit is located at___________

(a) Tangential to the top of the conduit
(b) Tangential to the bottom of the conduit
(c) Centre of the conduit
A (d) All of the mentioned
I
49. The failure of slopes may take place due to___________
C (a) Forces between the soil particle and High water content
(b) Action of gravitational force
T
(c)None of the mentioned
50. Which of the following is an example of slopes extending to infinity?

(a) Inclined face of Earth dams
(b) Embankments
(c) Cuts
A 51. If the soil properties for all identical depths below the surface are constant, it is an___
(a) Finite slope
I (b) Infinite slope
C (c) Planar failure surface
T
E
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A 52. The stability of a finite slope can be investigated by which of the following method?
(a) Bishop’s method
I
(b) Swedish circle method
C (c) Friction circle method
T
E 53. According to Bennet, non-circular slip surface may arise in___________
(a) Non homogeneous dam
(b) Embankment dams
(c) Homogeneous dam
(d) Soil deposit with a specific plane of weakness
54. Rectangular plot method has been suggested by_________

(a) Culmann
A (b) Bishop
(c) Singh
I (d) Terzaghi
C
55. When does the critical condition of d/s slope, occur in reservoir?
T (a) Reservoir is full
(b) Pore pressure is high
E (c) Steady seepage does not occur
56. The transfer of pressure from a yielding part of soil mass to the less yielding part is
defined by the term__________
(a) Arching
(b) Projecting conduits
(c) Stress transfer
A (d) None of the mentioned
I
57. Single acting hammers provide an advantage in__________type of soil.
C (a) Compact soil and Hard soil
(b) Light weight soil
T
58. The process in which the response of the soil influences the motion of the structure
and the motion of the structure influences the response of the soil is termed as
(a) GSI(ground-structure interaction)
(b) SSI(soil-structure interaction)
(c) SSI(structure-structure interaction)
(d) SGI(structure-ground interaction)
A
59. Neglecting Soil Structure Interaction (SSI) effect is reasonable for light structures in
I relatively stiff soil such as
C (a) Nuclear power plants
(b) High-rise buildings
T (c) Simple rigid retaining walls
(d) Elevated-highways on soft soil
E
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A
60. The effect of SSI becomes prominent for heavy structures resting on relatively soft
I
soil
C (a) Nuclear power plants
(b) Low rise buildings
T (c) Simple rigid retaining walls
61. Soil-structure interaction broadly can be divided into two phenomena

(a) Soil foundation flexibility effects and kinematic interaction
(b) Kinematic interaction and inertial interaction
(c) Inertial interaction and soil foundation flexibility effects
62. Earthquake ground motion causes soil displacement known as

A
(a) Fixed-field motion
I (b) Static-field motion
(c) Free-field motion
C (d) Kinematic-field motion
T
63. The foundation embedded into the soil will not follow the free field motion, thus the
E inability of the foundation to match the free field motion causes
(a) Inertial interaction
(b) Soil foundation flexibility effects
(c) Kinematic interaction
(d) Fixed-field motion
64. The mass of the superstructure transmits the inertial force to the soil, causing further
deformation in the soil is termed as
A (a) Inertial interaction
(b) Kinematic interaction
I (c) Foundation displacement
T 65. Which of the following effect is more dominant causing the lengthening of period and
E increase in radiation damping at low level of ground shaking?
(a) Kinematic
(b) Inertial
(c) Soil foundation flexibility
66. Methods for the analysis of soil-structure interaction can be divided into two main
categories
(a) Kinematic and inertial interaction
A (b) Kinematic and direct methods
I (c) Direct and multiple methods
(d) Multiple and inertial interaction
C
T
E
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A 67. Which of the following method uses the principle of superposition in order to isolate
the two primary causes of soil-structure interaction?
I
(a) Multiple method
C (b) Direct method
(c) Kinematic interaction
T (d) Inertial interaction
E
68. Which of the following method model and analyse the entire soil-foundation-structure
system in a single step?
(a) Multiple method
(b) Direct method
(c) Inertial interaction
(d) Kinematic interaction
69. The basic elastic response of the soil from which the solutions for elastic piles in
A
elastic soil was derived by _______.
I (a) Reissner solutions
(b) Hetenyi’s solutions
C (c) Borowicks solutions
T (d) Mindlin’s solutions
E 70. Reese and Matlock (1956) arguments of adoption of a linearly increasing modulus of
subgrade reaction with depth is relevant for ________.
(a) OC clay and sand
(b) NC clay
(c) sand and NC clay
(d) NC clay and OC clay
71. The rigidity of foundation raft relative to soil is of _______ of bending moments in
A relative rigid rafts as compared to those in flexible rafts.
(a) extremely high values
I (b) high values
C (c) extremely low values
(d) low values
T
E 72. Rigidity of superstructure helps in reducing _______.
(a) total settlement
(b) differential settlement
(c) angular distortion
(d) tilt
73. For soil structure interaction analysis, it is very essential to consider the ______.
(a) flexural properties of foundation
(b) deformational characteristic of soil
A (c) flexural properties of foundation and deformational characteristic of soil
I (d) flexural properties of soil and foundation
C
T
E
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A 74. The equation of soil pressure for rigid circular plate supported on elastic- half space
for concentrated load is
I 𝑃
(a) 2 2
2𝜋𝑅 ( 1−𝜌 )
C
𝑃
T (b)
2𝜋 𝑅( 1−𝜌 2 )
E 𝑃
(c)2𝜋𝑅 2 ( 1−𝜇 )
𝑃
(d)
𝜋𝑅 2 ( 1−𝜌 2 )
75. For ACI method of analysis of beam which is based on winkler foundation, the
average column spacing should be such that the value of λL is________.
(a) greater than 1.75
(b) greater than 1.75 and less than 3.5
A (c) less than 1.75
I (d) less than 3.5
C 76. In numerical analysis using finite difference method for beam on elastic foundation
initially the _____________ is assumed for iteration.
T (a) deflection
E (b) contact pressure
(c) loading
(d) can’t say
77. In the plate analysis, the radius of effective stiffness is function of
(a) flexural rigidity of plate and coefficient of subgrade reaction of soil
(b) coefficient of subgrade reaction of soil only
(c) flexural rigidity of plate only
(d) flexural rigidity, coefficient of subgrade reaction of soil and a constant
A
78. In nonlinear winkler model, the k (spring constant) obtained from load-settlement
I curve _________ with P (pressure)
C (a) remains constant
(b) increases
T (c) decreases non linearly
(d) linearly decrease
E
79. The Winkler model is more realistic for _____
(a) sand
(b) clay
(c) silt
(d) clayey sand
80. In interactive analysis the thickness of footing has _____________ influence in

A contact pressure distribution.
I (a)significant
(b) negligible
C (c)zero
(d) minimum
T
E
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A
I
C
81. Calculate coefficient of viscous damper, if the system is critically damped
T Consider the following data:
E Mass of spring mass damper system = 350 kg
Static deflection = 2 x 10–3 m
Natural frequency of the system = 60 rad/sec
(a) 100.5 x 103 N-s/m
(b) 80 x 103 N-s/m
(c) 42 x 103 N-s/m
82. Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of
A 30000 N/m and mass of 20 kg?
I (a) 12.32 Hz
(b) 4.10 Hz
C (c) 6.16 Hz
E 83. Calculate natural frequency of damped vibration, if damping factor is 0.52 and natural
frequency of the system is 30 rad/sec which consists of machine supported on springs
and dashpots.
(a) 25.62 rad/sec
(b) 20.78 rad/sec
(c) 14.4 rad/sec
(d) 15.33 rad/sec
84. The relation between liquefaction resistance of an element of soil in the field
A (CSR)field and that in unidirectional cyclic simple shear tests (CSR)ss is given by
I (a) (CSR)field= 0.6(CSR)ss
(b) (CSR)field= 0.7(CSR)ss
C (c) (CSR)field= 0.8(CSR)ss
T (d) (CSR)field= 0.9(CSR)ss
E 85. According to D' Alembert's principle, m (d2x/ dt2) + c (dx/dt) + Kx =0 is the

differential equation for damped free vibrations having single degree of freedom.
What will be the solution to this differential equation if the system is critically
damped?
(a) x = (A + Bt) e– ωt
(b) x = X e– ξωt (sin ωdt + Φ)
(c) x = (A – Bt) e– ωt
(d) x = X e– ξωt (cos ωdt + Φ)
A
86. What will be the co-efficient of passive earth pressure, at a depth of 8m in
I cohesionless soil sand with an angle of internal friction of 30° when water rises to the
ground level?
C
(a) 4
T (b) 5
E
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A (c) 3
(d) 1
I
C 87. A researcher at soil mechanics laboratory is intended to analyze the swelling pressure
of a clayey soil at an initial compacted density of 1.5 g/cc using a standard Oedometer
T test. The specific gravity of the soil is 2.7 and liquid limit is 1000%. It is known from
E a priori experience that the given soil swells to 50% of its liquid limit upon saturation
from its dry state. Suggest any of the following methods for accurate testing of the
swelling pressure.(The size of the consolidation rings in standard Oedometer cells is
20 mm (thickness)× 60 mm diameter)
(a) Swell-Consolidation test
(b) Method of equilibrium void ratios
(c) Constant volume method
(d) None
A
88. What is the minimum swelling pressure of the backfilling material required in the
I nuclear waste repository located at a depth of 500 m below the ground surface?
(Average overburden unit weight ≈ 1.8 Mg/m3)
C (a) 9 MPa
T (b) 4.5 MPa
(c) 18 MPa
E (d) 20 MPa
89. Statement 1: Both the pore water pressure head and effective stress are variables
during consolidation process.
Statement 2: The unsaturated hydraulic conductivity of sand can be higher than the
clay.
(a) Only Statement 1 is correct.
(b) Only Statement 2 is correct
A (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
(d) Both are incorrect.
I
C 90. Statement 1: Mechanical waves are called elastic waves.
Statement 2: Transverse waves can be formed in fluids
T (a) Only Statement 1 is correct.
E (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
(c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
(d) Both are incorrect.
91. For an aluminium the modulus of rigidity is 2.1×1010 N/m2 and density is
2.7×103 kg/m3. Find the speed of transverse waves in the medium.
(a) 27.9×103 m/s
(b) 2.79×103 m/s
(c) 25.14×103 m/s
A (d) 24.1×103 m/s
I
92. A vibrating machine of 100 kg is mounted on a rubber pad which has stiffness of 500
C N/m. Determine force transmitted to the foundation if the unbalanced force 500 N acts
T on it. The frequency ratio (ω/ωn) is 1.5 and ξ = 0.5
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A (a) 461.62 N
(b) 400.23 N
I
(c) 450 N
C (d) Insufficient data
93. A long natural slope of cohesion-less soil is inclined at 12° to the horizontal. What
T will be the factor of safety of the slope if φ = 30°?
E (a) 1.65
(b) 2.72
(c) 0.13
(d) 0.4
94. For fixed earth support method of sheet pile analysis, it is sufficient to make the
conservative assumption that the point of contraflexure is near the _______ and that
the maximum negative bending moment below the dredge line will be ________the
maximum positive bending moment in the pile above the dredge line.
A
(a) dredge line, greater than
I (b) dredge line, lesser than
(c) dredge line, equal to
C (d) at the base of pile, equal to.
T
95. In the anchored bulk head, the dead mass should be so placed that the ______ wedge
E of the sand ________ wedge of the pile without interference.
(a) passive, active space
(b) active, active space
(c) active, passive space
(d) passive, passive space.
96. Flexible retaining walls which are commonly used for water front structures are
designed by using _________ earth pressure theory. However, earth pressure on
A bracings of excavations does not follow ________ theory.
(a) Coulomb, Rankine
I (b) Rankine, Rankine
C (c) Rankine, Coulomb
(d) Coulomb, Coulomb
T
E 97. In an excavation that is 8 m deep, struts are placed at 1.5 m centers vertically and 3 m
centers horizontally. The bottom of the excavation is above water table. Given soil
properties: unit weight of sand = 19 kN/m3, c’ = 0 and ɸ’ =40ᵒ. Calculate the load
each strutshould be designed to carry.
(a) 148.42 kN
(b) 108.6 kN
(c) 96.47 kN
(d) 444.4 kN
A 98. Determine the stress at top and bottom of a vertical curve , 4.5 m deep in soil with ∅’
I = 16° ceff=1.91 t/m2 and 𝛾 = 1.85 t/m3.
(a) -2.87t/m2, and 1.62t/m2
C (b) 2.87t/m2, and -1.62t/m2
T (c) 3.2 t/m2, and 2.32t/m2
(d) 1.85 t/m2, and 1.75 t/m2
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A
I
C 99. The FOS of an infinite slope in a sand deposit is found to be 1.73. The angle of
shearing resistance of the sand is 30o, the avg. slope of the sand deposit is given by
T (a) sin−1 (0.333)
E (b) cos −1 (0.252)
(c) tan−1 (0.333)
(d) cot −1 0.621
100. Given that damping ratio = 0.10 and damping coefficient =225 kN-sec/m then the
critical damping coefficient in kN-sec/m will be
(a) 22.5
(b) 225
(c) 2250
A (d) 22500
I 101. For a clay slope of ht. 10 m. , the stability no. is 0.05 , 𝛾= 2 t/m3 , c= 2.5 t/m2 the
C critical ht. of the slope of soil is
(a) 4
T (b) 12.5
(c) 25
E
(d) 15
102. A rigid retaining wall of 5 m height has a saturated backfill of soft clay soil.
Theproperties of the clay soil are: γsat= 17.02 kN/m3 and cohesion, c = 20 kN/m2.The
critical height of unsupported cut will be _____________ m.
(a) 4.70
(b) 3
(c) 6.8
A (d) 7.6
I 103. A granular soil possesses saturated density of 21 kN/m3 and effective angle ofinternal
friction is 42°. If the desired factor of safety is 2 and also seepage occursat and
C parallel to the sloped surface, then the safe angle of slope for this soil is___________
degrees. [Use γw = 10 kN/m3]
T
(a) 13.27
E (b) 23
(c) 20.8
(d) 36
104. An unsupported excavation is made to the maximum possible depth in a pureclay soil
having bulk density of 20 kN/m3 and cohesion of 80 kN/m2. The activeearth pressure
at base level of excavation is _______________ kN/m2.
(a) 160
(b) 220
A (c) 104
I (d) 205
105. A wall with smooth vertical back and 10 meters height retains cohessionless material
C
with a horizontal surface. The cohessionless material weighs 4.91 kN/m3 and has an
T angle of internal friction of 30o. The total active earth pressure is
(a) 81.585 kN/m length of wall
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A (b) 91.585 kN/m length of wall

(c) 40.743 kN/m2
I
(d) 8.158 kN/m2
C
106. The total active thrust on a vertical wall 3 m high retaining a horizontal sand backfill
T (unit weight 𝛾 = 20 kN/m3, angle of shearing resistance ∅ = 30𝑜 ) when the water
E table is at the bottom of the wall, will be (in kN/m)
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 40
(d) 45
107. A braced cut 5 m wide and 7.5 m deep is proposed in a cohesionless soil deposit
having effective cohesion C’=0 and effective friction angle ∅′ = 36o . The first row of
struts is to be installed at a depth of 0.5 m below ground surface and spacing between
A
the struts should be 1.5 m. If the horizontal spacing of struts is 3 m. and unit weight of
I the deposit is 20 kN/m3, the maximum strut load will be
(a) 70.87 kN
C (b) 98.72 kN
T (c) 113.90 kN
(d) 151.86 kN
E
108. Using ∅𝑢 =0 analysis and assuming planar failure the minimum FOS against shear
failure of a vertical cut of height 4m in a pure clay having 𝑐𝑢 =120 kN/m2 and 𝛾𝑠𝑎𝑡 =20
kN/m3 is
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 20
A
109. Assertion (A): Passive earth pressure is always greater than the earth pressure at rest
I and active earth pressure.
C Reason (R): In passive state the structure becomes the actuating element and soil
becomes the resisting element to maintain the stability.
T (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
E (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
110. Assertion (A): The state of earth pressure at rest is the state of equilibrium with zero
strain condition.
Reason (R): In rest condition neither the wall nor the soil moves.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A
I (d) A is false but R is true
C 111. At a given depth, during tunneling a _________ relative settlement indicates that the
T soil settlement is ____ than the pile displacement.
(a) + ve, less
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A (b) +ve, more

(c) –ve, more
I
(d) None of the above.
C 112. Material damping is _______ and radiation damping is ________ at low strain
amplitude.
T (a) appreciable, negligible
E (b) negligible, appreciable
(c) very high, very low
(d) very low, very high
113. An important effect of soil-structure interaction is to ________ the natural frequency

of the soil structure system to a value_____ than that of the structure under fixed base
condition.
(a) increase, higher
(b) decrease, higher
A
(c) reduce, lower
I (d) reduce, greater
C 114. In stiff over consolidated clays the soil modulus is generally assumed to be ______
T with depth and the stiffness factor used for analysis is ______.
(a) increase,T
E (b) decrease, T
(c) constant, R
(d) increase, R
115. The total pressure on a retaining structure due to ground water will lie _____ than
from the soil. Inactive case and __________ the soil for passive case.
(a)greater than, lower than
(b) lower than, greater than
(c)lower than, equal to
A
(d) greater than, equal to
I
116. For machine foundation, the minimum diameter of the bars should be _______ and
C the maximum spacing should be _______ in order to take care of any shrinkage in the
concrete.
T
(a) 8mm, 200mm
E (b) 12mm, 150mm
(c) 12mm, 200mm
(d) 8mm, 150mm
117. The design frequency ratio of the important foundation – soil system should be
_______ and ________.
(a)greater than 2, less than 0.5
(b) greater than 2, less than 0.6
(c) greater than 1.5, less than 0.5
A (d) greater than 1.5, less than 0.6
I 118. For dynamic tests on sands, there is ______in bearing capacity in dynamic tests is in
C accordance with the concepts of _________ at fast rates of loading.
(a) decrease, strength
T (b) increase, strength
E
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ROLL NO.: PG2SOM46
A (c) decrease, strain

(d) increase, strain
I
119. The damping natural frequency of forced vibrations with viscous damping and
C frequency dependent exciting force are ________ and ________ respectively.
T (a) ωn√(1-ξ2),ωn/√(1-2ξ2)
E
(b) ωn√(1-2ξ2),ωn/√(1-ξ2)
(c) ωn/√(1-2ξ2),ωn√(1-ξ2)
(d) ωn/√(1-ξ2),ωn√(1-2ξ2)
ωn = Natural frequency
ξ = Damping coefficient
A
120. Find the value of E (inkN/m2) for soil, given, Cu= 6x 104kN/m3, μ = 0.3 and area of
I block = 1.5 m2.
(a) 5.85 x 104
C
(b) 5.91 x 104
T (c) 5.85 x 104
(d) 6.68 x 104
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
Answer Key (Paper II)
PG Soil Mechanics
1. a 21. d 41. d 61. b 81. c 101. c

2. b 22. b 42. c 62. c 82. c 102. a
3. c 23. c 43. b 63. c 83. a 103. a
4. a 24. d 44. a 64. a 84. d 104. a
5. a 25. c 45. b 65. a 85. a 105. a
6. a 26. a 46. c 66. c 86. c 106. a
7. b 27. b 47. a 67. a 87. c 107. c
8. c 28. d 48. b 68. b 88. a 108. b
9. b 29. b 49. d 69. d 89. c 109. a
10. c 30. a 50. d 70. c 90. a 110. a
11. c 31. d 51. b 71. a 91. b 111. a
12. b 32. a 52. d 72. b 92. a 112. b
13. b 33. b 53. c 73. c 93. b 113. c
14. b 34. a 54. c 74. a 94. c 114. c
15. b 35. b 55. a 75. b 95. a 115. a
16. c 36. d 56. a 76. a 96. b 116. a
17. b 37. c 57. a 77. d 97. c 117. a
18. c 38. c 58. b 78. d 98. a 118. a
19. c 39. b 59. c 79. a 99. c 119. a
20. b 40. c 60. a 80. a 100. c 120. b
ROLL NO.: PG1STE43
A STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING/CIVIL STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING

I
T
E PAPER-I
Instructions:
the wrong answer.
I
1. Stress is a tensor of order

(a) 0
(b) 1
A (c) 2
(d) 3
I
C 2. The state of stress at a point in a body under static equilibrium is characterised by ___
number of independent components.
T (a) 3
(b) 6
E
(c) 9
(d) 8
3. Which of the following does not affect the strain components in a body?
(a) Rigid body mass
(b) Rigid body displacement
(c) Relative translation in the body
(d) Relative rotation in the body
A
4. For the validity of principle of superposition which of the following condition needs
I to be satisfied?
C (a) Material is linearly, elastic
(b) Material is non-linearly, elastic
T (c) Material is linearly, non-elastic
E (d) Material is non-linearly, non- elastic
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1STE43
A 5. Poisson's ratio is defined as

(a) Longitudinal stress/Lateral stress
I
(b) Lateral stress/Longitudinal stress
C (c) Longitudinal strain/Lateral strain
(d) Lateral strain/Longitudinal strain
T
E 6. Maximum value of Poisson's ratio can be
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.5
(c) 1
(d) 10
7. In Mohr's circle, the parameter along x-axis and y-axis are ______ & ______
respectively.
A (a) Normal stress & Normal strain
(b) Tangential stress & Tangential strain
I (c) Normal stress & Tangential stress
(d) Normal stress & Tangential strain
C
T 8. In plane stress problem, if x, y are the axis of the plane and z is the axis perpendicular
to the plane, then
E (a) σx=0
(b) σxy=0
(c) Ɛyz=0
(d) σyz=0
where 'σ' denotes stress and 'Ɛ' denotes strain
9. In plane strain problem, if x, y are the axis of the plane and z is the axis perpendicular
to the plane, then
A (a) σx=0
(b) Ɛx=0
I (c) σyz=0
C (d) Ɛyz=0
where 'σ' denotes stress and 'Ɛ' denotes strain
T
E 10. Lame's theory deals with determining stresses in a
(a) Thin plate
(b) Thick plate
(c) Thin cylinder
(d) Thick cylinder
11. A matrix is said to be orthogonal if

(a) Its determinant is equal to unity
(b) Its transpose is equal to its inverse
A (c) Its transpose is equal to itself
I (d) Its determinant is equal to zero
C
T
E
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1STE43
A 12. Principal planes and planes of maximum shear stress are always inclined at ___
degree with each other
I
(a) 30°
C (b) 45°
(c) 60°
T (d) 90°
E
13. Tresca criterion is that plastic deformation of a bar begins when the
(a) maximum and minimum principal stresses differ by the yield stress of the bar
(b) maximum and minimum principal stresses differ by twice the yield stress of the
bar
(c) maximum and minimum principal stresses differ by one half of the yield stress of
the bar
(d) minimum principal stress is zero
A
14. Deviatoric stress controls
I (a) Body displacement
(b) Body distortion
C (c) Body rotation
T (d) Body dilation
E 15. Von Mises stress is mostly used for

(a) Brittle materials
(b) Ductile materials
(c) Non-metals
(d) Fluids
16. How many unique compatibility conditions are required to be imposed on the strain
component in order to establish the unique values of strains and assuring continuity?
A (a) 2
(b) 3
I (c) 6
C (d) 9
T 17. Airy's stress function is same for plane strain and plane stress in case of
E (a) Zero body forces
(b) Zero body displacement
(c) Uniform body forces
(d) Non-uniform body forces
18. At top surface of the fixed end of a cantilever beam having rectangular cross section
of unit width
(a) Shear stress is zero
(b) Shear stress is maximum
A (c) Tensile stress is zero
I (d) Compressive stress is zero
C
T
E
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1STE43
A 19. In semi inverse method for analysis of stress:

(a) Displacement/stresses are obtained by direct integration of the field equations.
I
(b) Displacement/stresses are first selected to satisfy the field equations and then the
C problem is identified for that.
(c) Part displacement/stresses are specified and remaining are determined by solution
T of fundamental field equations.
20. Castigliano's Theorem-I states that partial derivative of total strain energy stored in a
structure under static equilibrium with respect to a force gives
(a) Deformation anywhere in the structure
(b) Deformation along the force
(c) Deformation perpendicular to the force
A
21. Polar co-ordinate system is used to analyse the stress in a
I (a) Cube
C (b) Parallelepiped
(c) Cylinder
T (d) Rectangular Plate
E
22. A cylindrical shell is considered to be thick, if the thickness is more than ____ times
the diameter of the shell
(a) 1 / 10
(b) 1 / 20
(c) 1 / 30
(d) 1 / 40
A 23. In a beam subjected to equal and opposite axial forces at two ends, Saint Venant’s
principle is valid in the region
I
(a) at the extreme ends of the beam.
C (b) at distance b/2 from the ends of the beam.
(c) at distance b from the ends of the beam.
T (d) at distance 3b/2 from the ends of the beam.
E
24. Which of the following sections (having same cross-sectional area) of the shaft has
maximum torsional capacity?
(a) Solid circular section
(b) Hollow circular section
(c) Solid tubular section
(d) Hollow tubular section
A 25. The cross-section of a circular shaft subjected to pure torque carries

(a) Shear stress
I
(b) Tensile stress
C (c) Compressive stress
T
E
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1STE43
A 26. St. Venant's theory of rupture is

(a) Maximum principal stress theory
I
(b) Maximum principal strain theory
C (c) Maximum shear stress theory
(d) Maximum strain energy theory
T
27. Strain energy stored in an arch is primarily due to
E
(a) Bending moment
(b) Normal thrust
(c) Radial shear
(d) Axial force
28. Which limit state of collapse from the following is not considered in the design of
concrete structures?
(a) Limit state of collapse in flexure
A (b) Limit state of collapse in torsion
I (c) Limit state of collapse in compression
(d) Limit state of collapse in buckling
C
29. For the limit state of design of RCC beam, the maximum strain in the tension
T
reinforcement in the section at failure shall not be less than
E (a) fy/Es + 0.02
(b) fy/1.15Es + 0.002
(c) fy/Es + 0.002
(d) fy/1.15Es + 0.02
where fy is characteristic strength of steel and Es is modulus of elasticity of steel
30. An RCC column is considered to be long, if its ratio of effective length to least lateral
dimension is more than
A (a) 10
(b) 12
I (c) 14
(d) 20
C
T 31. Into how many regions, the interaction curve for design of RCC column is divided?
(a) 2
E (b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
32. The point where the interaction curve for design of RCC columns intersects with the
x-axis denotes
(a) Axial loading with zero eccentricity
(b) Axial loading with minimum eccentricity
A (c) Axial loading with large eccentricity
(d) Pure bending
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1STE43
A 33. As per IS 456-2000, columns shall be designed for minimum eccentricity of

(a) l/500 + b/30 but not less than 20 mm
I
(b) l/300 + b/50 but not less than 20 mm
C (c) l/500 + b/30 but not less than 30 mm
(d) l/300 + b/50 but not less than 30 mm
T where l = unsupported length of the column and b = lateral dimension
E
34. As per IS 456-2000, the acceptable limits of cracking for concrete structures subjected
to ''mild'' exposure is
(a) 0.1 mm
(b) 0.2 mm
(c) 0.3 mm
(d) 0.4 mm
A 35. For limit state of serviceability, in the load combination of dead load and live load, the
safety factor applied to dead load and live load, respectively are
I (a) 1 and 1
(b) 1.5 and 1.5
C (c) 1.2 and 1.2
T (d) 1.5 and 1.2
E 36. When a support reaction introduces transverse tension in the end span of the beam, the
critical section for shear (as per IS 456) lies
(a) at a distance of d from the face of support
(b) at a distance of d/2 from the face of support
(c) at a distance of 2d from the face of support
(d) at the face of support
37. When bent up bars are provided in a beam, their contribution towards shear resistance
A shall be (as per IS 456-2000)
(a) Not more than half of the total shear reinforcement
I (b) Not more than one third of the total shear reinforcement
C (c) Not more than one fourth of the total shear reinforcement
(d) Not more than one sixth of the total shear reinforcement
T
E 38. Shear span is defined as
(a) The zone where shear force is zero
(b) The zone where shear force is constant
(c) The zone where bending moment is zero
(d) The zone where bending moment is constant
39. The design shear strength of concrete is related to the percentage of tensile steel
because
(a) Shear causes diagonal tension
A (b) Tensile steel has shear strength as well
I (c) Shear causes diagonal compression
(d) There is not bond between steel and concrete
C
T
E
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1STE43
A
40. Pre-stressed concrete beam fails suddenly without warning due to
I
(a) Failure of concrete in compression zone
C (b) Failure of concrete in tension zone
(c) Failure of steel in tension zone
T (d) Failure of concrete in shear
E
41. Equilibrium torsion is included by virtue of
(a) Equilibrium condition
(b) Compatibility condition
(c) No crack condition
(d) Cracked condition
42. Equilibrium torsional moment does not depend upon

A (a) Acting torque on the member
(b) Torsional stiffness of the member
I (c) Support condition of the member
(d) Eccentricity of the loading on the member
C
T 43. The space truss model of a beam is used to explain
(a) Only flexural resistance of the beam
E (b) Only shear resistance of the beam
(c) Cracking behaviour of the beam
(d) Flexural shear resistance of the beam
44. In an RCC frame, the stiffness of the beam within the column width is assumed to be
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) Same as of at any other section
A (d) Twice to that at the mid span
I 45. Confinement of concrete is done to
C (a) Increase tensile strength of concrete
(b) Increase ductility of concrete
T (c) Increase stiffness of concrete
E (d) Increase durability of concrete
46. The number of plastic hinges required in a structure to convert it into a mechanism are
(a) Degree of static indeterminacy of the structure
(b) Degree of static indeterminacy of the structure + 1
(c) Degree of static indeterminacy of the structure +2
(d) Degree of static indeterminacy of the structure - 1
47. In case of a typical beam-column joint in a RC building, the plastic hinge, if formed,
A should preferably be formed at
I (a) Midpoint of beam
(b) End point of beam
C (c) Midpoint of column
(d) End point of column
T
E
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1STE43
A
I
C 48. The creep coefficient is defined as
(a) Ratio of initial elastic strain to ultimate strain
T (b) Ratio of ultimate strain to initial elastic strain
(c) Ratio of elastic deflection to creep deflection
E
(d) Ratio of creep deflection to elastic deflection
49. Struct-Tie model concept is generally not used for the design of following types of
member
(a) Corbels
(b) Deep beam
(c) Arches
(d) Flat Slabs
A
50. A corbel is a cantilever projection which supports a load such that the distance
I between the line of the reaction to the supported load and the root of the corbel is
C (a) Equal to d
(b) Less than d
T (c) More than d
(d) Less than d/2
E
where d is the effective depth of the root of the corbel
51. B-region and D-region in strut-tie model respectively means

(a) Bernoulli region and Darcy region
(b) Balanced region and Darcy region
(c) Bernoulli region and disturbed region
(d) Balanced region and disturbed region
A 52. Which of the following loss in prestress is absent in pre-tensioning?

I (a) Relaxation of stress in steel
(b) Shrinkage of concrete
C (c) Creep of concrete
(d) Friction/Anchorage slip
T
E 53. Concordant cable profile in a prestressed indeterminant beam is that which do not
introduce
(a) Moments due to dead load
(b) Moments due to prestressing load
(c) Moments due to live load
(d) Moments due to dead load and live load both
54. In a prestressed beam with bonded tendons, the value of tensile stress in steel at
A failure stage of beam is influenced by
(a) The compressive stress in concrete
I (b) Effective reinforcement ratio
(c) Neutral axis depth
C
T
E
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A
I 55. At the stage of 'cracking moment' in pre-stressed concrete members, the crack width is
C of the order of
(a) 0.01 mm to 0.02 mm
T (b) 0.05 mm to 0.1 mm
(c) 0.1 mm to 0.2 mm
E
(d) 0.2 mm to 0.3 mm
56. Proof stress is the tensile stress in steel which produces a residual strain of
(a) 0.10%
(b) 0.20%
(c) 0.05%
(d) 0.15%
A 57. Response Spectrum is a plot between

(a) Time and base shear
I (b) Time and maximum displacement
C (c) Time period and maximum displacement
(d) Time period and base shear
T
58. A building with 280 degrees of freedom will have how many mode shapes?
E (a) 140
(b) 280
(c) 560
(d) 281
59. A rigid body mode is when

(a) Time period of the mode is zero.
(b) Time period of the mode is unity.
A (c) Time period of the mode is infinite.
(d) Time period of the mode is less than unity.
I
C 60. Closely spaced modes of a structure are those of the natural modes of oscillation of a
structure whose natural frequencies differ from each other by
T (a) 1% or less of the lower frequency
(b) 1% or more of the higher frequency
E
(c) 10% or less of the lower frequency
(d) 10% or more of the higher frequency
61. The number of modes to be used in the analysis for earthquake shaking along a
considered direction should be such that the sum total of modal masses of these
modes is at least
(a) 80% of the total seismic mass
(b) 90% of the total seismic mass
A (c) 85% of the total seismic mass
I (d) 98% of the total seismic mass
C
T
E
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A
I 62. If a building with classic damping does not have closely spaced modes, the preferable
C method for combination of modes is
(a) Average of the sum method
T (b) Square root of sum of the square’s method
(c) Complete quadratic combination method
E
(d) Complex complete quadratic combination method
63. Lagrange’s equation deals with
(a) Forces and displacement
(b) Kinetic energy and potential energy
(c) Viscosity and velocity
(d) Mass and acceleration
A 64. The mechanism of base isolation in a building during an earthquake excitation

(a) Reduces its time period
I (b) Increases its time period
C (c) Decreases the displacement of the structure
(d) Increases the base shear of the building
T
65. A shear building is defined as a structure in which
E (a) Shear walls are present
(b) Horizontal members are restrained against rotation
(c) Vertical members are restrained against rotation
(d) Vertical members are placed symmetrically
66. In determining the response of a structure subjected to impulsive loads, following
parameter can be neglected
(a) Stiffness of structure
(b) Mass of structure
A (c) Damping of structure
I (d) Amplitude of loading
C 67. Mass matrix in dynamic analysis of multiple degree of freedom of a system is a

T (a) Square Matrix
(b) Unit Matrix
E (c) Diagonal Matrix
(d) Orthogonal Matrix
68. Phenomenon of resonance is exhibited by the structure if frequency of the applied

loading
(a) is one third of the undamped natural frequency of the system
(b) is more than the undamped natural frequency of the system
(c) is equal to the undamped natural frequency of the system
A (d) is one half of the undamped natural frequency of the system
I 69. Which of the following methods is best suited for analysing continuous structures
with non-uniform mass / stiffness properties?
C (a) Rayleigh's Method
T (b) Rayleigh's-Ritz Method
(c) Stodola’s Method
E
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ROLL NO.: PG1STE43
A (d) Matrix Iteration Method

I 70. In dynamic analysis, central difference method is based on finite difference
C approximation of derivatives of displacement with
(a) Time
T (b) Frequency
(c) Mass
E
(d) Velocity
71. To measure the acceleration due to the earthquake excitation, ideally the time period
of seismograph equipment needs to be
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) Unity
(d) It can be any
A
72. The pseudo acceleration of the structure subjected to seismic excitation can be
I reduced by
(a) Decreasing the time period of the structure
C (b) Increasing the time period of the structure
T (c) Increasing the stiffness of the structure
(d) Decreasing the damping of the structure
E
73. The damping ratio
(a) Increases linearly with the natural frequency
(b) Decreases linearly with the natural frequency
(c) Increases parabolically with the natural frequency
(d) Decreases parabolically with the natural frequency
74. Which property of eigen vector facilitates the modal analysis?

(a) Eigen values are linearly independent
A (b) Eigen values are linearly dependent
I (c) Eigen values are non-linearly dependent
(d) Eigen values are non-linearly independent
C
75. The degrees of freedom for a two bay, two storeyed frame, fixed at the base are
T
(a) 6
E (b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24
76. The system under free vibration means

(a) The system is free to vibrate.
(b) The vibrating force has been removed.
(c) The vibrating force has been minimised.
A (d) The vibrating force is constant.
I 77. The range of natural co-ordinates is

C (a) -1 to +1
(b) 0 to +1
T (c) - 0.5 to + 0.5
(d) - infinity to + infinity
E
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A
78. Fourier series are used to represent
I
(a) Periodic loading
C (b) Rectangular impulse loading
(c) Triangular impulse loading
T (d) Static loading
E
79. Transmissibility ratio is defined as ratio of
(a) Minimum amplitude of motion of oscillation to amplitude of support motion
(b) Amplitude of motion of oscillation to maximum amplitude of support motion
(c) Amplitude of motion of oscillation to minimum amplitude of support motion
(d) Maximum amplitude of motion of oscillation to amplitude of support motion
80. In Coulomb’s damping

A (a) Damping varies linearly with relative velocity
(b) Damping is independent of relative velocity
I (c) Damping varies parabolically with relative velocity
(d) Damping is independent of stiffness of the system
C
T
E
81. A point in a 2-D element, is acted upon by pure shear of 10 N/mm². Determine the
principal stresses in the element.
(a) + 10 N/mm2
(b) + 5 N/mm2
A (c) + 20 N/mm2
(d) + 20√2 N/mm2
I
C 82. The state of stress at a particular point relative to the xyz coordinates system is given
by the stress matrix given below. Determine the principal stress vector (σ) on a plane
T with unit normal n = (0,1,1) /√2
E 311
102
120
(a) σ = (4, 1, -2)

(b) σ = (2, -1, -4)
(c) σ = (4, -2, -1)
(d) σ = (2, 1, -4)
A 83. The two parts of a general stress tensor are
I (a) linear and deviatorial
(b) one dimensional and three dimensional
C (c) spherical and deviatorial
T (d) spherical and diagonal
E
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A
84. The stress function for the torsion problem has analogy with
I
(a) strain function of irrotational motion of real fluid
C (b) strain function of rotational motion of real fluid
(c) strain function of irrotational motion of ideal fluid
T (d) strain function of rotational motion of ideal fluid
E
85. Shear centre of a channel section as shown in the figure below lies at
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
A
86. First boundary problems are those
I (a) Where normal stresses are prescribed on the whole boundary of the body
(b) Where only displacements are prescribed on the whole boundary of the body
C (c) Where both stresses and displacements are prescribed on the whole boundary of
T the body
(d) Where stresses are prescribed on some parts and displacements are prescribed on
E the other parts of the boundary
87. Strain energy per unit volume is given by

(a) ½ stress2 x strain
(b) stress2 x strain
(c) ½ stress x strain
(d) stress x strain
A 88. To eliminate strains in general constitutive law the most convenient method is to use
(a) Navier’s equation
I (b) Saint Venant’s compatibility equation
C (c) Betrami Michell’s equation
(d) Stroke’s equation
T
89. Long retaining wall subjected to lateral earth pressure is a
E
(a) Plane stress problem
(b) Plane strain problem
(c) 3D problem
(d) 2D problem
90. Membrane analogy

(a) is also known as soap - film analogy
(b) describes the stress distribution of a long bar in torsion
A (c) describes the stress distribution for a non-circular bar in torsion
I
C 91. Warping function deals with
(a) Circular shafts under torsion
T (b) Circular shafts under bending
E (c) Non-Circular shafts under torsion
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A (d) Non-Circular shafts under bending

92. If F is the force applied on a block at an angle α with the horizontal and the block
I
moves horizontally by distance ‘s’. The virtual work done by the force is equal to
C (a) F.s cos α
(b) F.s sin α
T (c) ½ F.s cos α
E (d) ½ F.s sin α
93. Which of the following is not an example of uniqueness theorem?

(a) Poisson’s equation
(b) Alexandrov’s theorem
(c) Black hole theorem
(d) Castigliano’s theorem
A 94. A short RCC column of M20 grade concrete of size 300 mm x 300 mm is having 1%
steel of Fe415 grade. What will be the ultimate axial load capacity of the member?
I (a) 898 kN
(b) 970 kN
C (c) 1047 kN
T (d) 1403 kN
E 95. The IS code permits larger load in columns with helical reinforcement as compared to
columns with circular rings because
(a) helical reinforcement can be provided in circular columns only
(b) helical reinforcement requires higher diameter bars
(c) helical reinforcement is difficult to be placed
(d) helical reinforcement has greater ductility
96. As per IS code the shape of the stress block for concrete in limit state design is
A (a) wholly parabolic
(b) wholly triangular
I (c) parabolic first and then rectangular
C (d) triangular first and then rectangular
T 97. T-beam action of RCC continuous beam built monolithically with the slab and
E subjected to vertical load, cannot be taken at the supports because
(a) At the supports the beam is in sagging
(b) At the supports the beam is in hogging
(c) The joint between slab and the beam is not proper at the supports
(d) The shear is maximum at the supports
98. The analysis of two-way slab subjected to uniformly distributed load over its part area
can be done by
(a) IS code Method
A (b) Maxwell’s Method
I (c) Pigeaud’s Method
C
T
E
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A 99. As per yield line theory, what is the ultimate uniformly distributed load carrying
capacity of a square slab, simply supported on its all edges. The length of a side of the
I
slab being ‘a’.
C (a) 12 mu/a
(b) 12 mu/a2
T (c) 24 mu/a
E (d) 24 mu/a2
where mu is the moment carrying capacity of the reinforcing steel per unit length.
100. Which of the following is not a prestressing system?

(a) Freyssinet system
(b) Magnel Blaton system
(c) Giffard Udall system
(d) Quadros system
A
101. Which of the following is not a requirement for prestressed concrete?
I (a) High tensile steel
(b) High strength cement
C (c) High strength concrete
T (d) Cement grout
E 102. Critical span for prestressed slabs and beams is that span upto which the
(a) dead load does not cause additional stress in the member
(b) prestressing load does not additional stress in the member
(c) shear force is zero
(d) shear force is constant
103. Anchorage devices are required in which type of prestressing?

(a) Pre-tensioning
A (b) Post tensioning
(c) Electric Prestressing
C
104. The assumption made in bending theory that plane sections remain plane after
T bending is not true for
E (a) Mid span of a simply supported beam
(b) fixed end of a cantilever
(c) free end of a cantilever
105. A beam is prestressed by a cable carrying an initial prestress of 500 N/mm2. Calculate
the percentage loss of prestress due to shrinkage of concrete if the beam is
pretensioned. Age of concrete at transfer = 7 days. Shrinkage strain at 7 days for
pretensioned members is .0003.
A (a) 12%
I (b) 8.4%
(c) 10.6%
C (d) 6%
T
E
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A 106. In truss analogy, the diagonals of the truss are constituted in RCC beam as follows
(a) Reinforcement as diagonal in tension and concrete as diagonal in compression
I
(b) Reinforcement as diagonal in compression and concrete as diagonal in tension
C (c) Reinforcement as diagonal in bending and concrete as diagonal in shear
(d) Reinforcement as diagonal in shear and concrete as diagonal in bending
T
E 107. A special moment resisting frame is that which is having
(a) increased moment resisting capacity
(b) increased stiffness
(c) increased ductility
(d) increased durability
108. Calculate the coefficient of viscosity for the damper, if the system is critically damped
with following data:
A Mass of spring damper system = 350 kg
Static deflection = 2x10-3 m
I Natural frequency of the system = 60 rad/sec
C (a) 21 x 103 Ns/m
T (b) 42 x 103 Ns/m
(c) 21 x 102 Ns/m
E (d) 42 x 104 Ns/m
109. Find time period of the portal frame consisting of a beam resting on two columns
having fixed base. Cross section of the columns is circular having 50 mm diameter
made of steel and length as 2 m. Take length of beam as 4 m and total mass on each
column is 100 kg. Take Es = 2 x 105 N/mm2.
(a) 1.15 sec
(b) 1.72 sec
A (c) 6.96 sec
(d) 3.48 sec
I
C 110. Determine logarithmic decrement, if the amplitude of a vibrating body reduces to
1/6th in two cycles.
T (a) 3.580
E (b) 0.895
(c) 0.447
(d) 2.530
111. A harmonic motion has a time period of 0.2 seconds and an amplitude of 0.4 cm. Find
the maximum velocity and acceleration?
(a) Max. Velocity = 5.028 cm/s, Max. Acc. = 394.9 cm/s²
(b) Max. Velocity = 12.57 cm/s, Max. Acc. = 394.9 cm/s²
(c) Max. Velocity = 12.57 cm/s, Max. Acc. = 157.96 cm/s²
A (d) Max. Velocity = 5.028 cm/s, Max. Acc. = 157.96 cm/s²
I
C
T
E
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A 112. A damper offers resistance 0.08N at a constant velocity 0.06 m/s. The damper is used
with a spring of stiffness equal to 12 N/m. Determine the damping ratio of the system
I
when the mass of the system is 0.3 kg.
C (a) 0.35
(b) 0.7
T (c) 0.175
E (d) 0.5
113. A pendulum is having a mass of 5 kg and it is subjected to a simple harmonic force
having frequency 5 Hz. What length of the string of the pendulum will cause
resonance in the pendulum? Assume zero damping.
(a) 10 cm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 5 cm
A
114. A vibrating system consists of mass 2 kg, spring of stiffness 120 N/m and a damper
I with a damping coefficient of 5 N-s/m. The system is a
C (a) undamped system
(b) critically damped system
T (c) underdamped system
E (d) overdamped system
115. A simply supported rectangular beam has a span of 1 m. It is 100 mm wide and 10
mm deep. It is connected at mid span of the beam by means of a linear spring having a
stiffness of 100 kg/cm and a mass of 300 kg is attached at the other end of the spring.
Determine the natural frequency of the system. Take E = 2.1 x 106 kg/cm²
(a) 24.52 rad/sec
(b) 12.22 rad/sec
(c) 0.39 rad/sec
A (d) 0.61 rad/sec
I 116. Normalisation of modes is done to
(a) determine the higher modes in relation to the fundamental mode
C (b) determine the fundamental mode in relation to the higher modes
T (c) determine the higher modes in absolute form
(d) determine the fundamental mode in absolute form
E
117. Ductility in the structure can be increased by
(a) introducing soft storey
(b) decreasing the redundancy of the structure
(c) adopting strong column and weak beam design
118. For the success of Rayleigh’s Ritz method, the selected Ritz vector should
A (a) depend upon physical visualisation of the natural modes in one dimension.
(b) not depend upon physical visualisation of the natural modes in one dimension.
I (c) depend upon physical visualisation of the natural modes in all the three
C dimensions.
(d) not depend upon physical visualisation of the natural modes in all the three
T dimensions.
E
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A
119. A harmonic motion has a maximum velocity of 6 m/s and it has a frequency of 12 Hz.
I
Determine its amplitude.
C (a) 79.6 mm
(b) 0.796 m
T (c) 796 cm
E (d) 7.96 mm
120. A mass of one kg is suspended by a spring having a stiffness of 600 N/m. The mass is
displaced downwards from its equilibrium position by a distance of 0.01 m. Find total
energy of the system.
(a) 0.006 N-m
(b) 0.015 N-m
(c) 0.06 N-m
A (d) 0.03 N-m
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG1ST E43
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Structural Engineering/Civil Structural Engineering
PG:
Paper: I
Set:
Answer Key (Paper 1) Que 40 c

Que 41 a
Que 1 c
Que 42 b
Que 2 b
Que 43 d
Que 3 b
Que 44 b
Que 4 a
Que 45 b
Que 5 d
Que 46 b
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Que 7 c
Que 48 b
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Que 49 d
Que 9 d
Que 50 b
Que 10 d
Que 51 c
Que 11 b
Que 52 d
Que 12 b
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Que 13 a
Que 54 b
Que 14 b
Que 55 a
Que 15 b
Que 56 b
Que 16 c
Que 57 c
Que 17 a
Que 58 b
Que 18 a
Que 59 c
Que 19 c
Que 60 c
Que 20 b
Que 61 b
Que 21 c
Que 62 d
Que 22 a
Que 63 b
Que 23 d
Que 64 b
Que 24 b
Que 65 b
Que 25 a
Que 66 c
Que 26 b
Que 67 c
Que 27 a
Que 68 c
Que 28 d
Que 69 b
Que 29 b
Que 70 a
Que 30 b
Que 71 a
Que 31 b
Que 72 b
Que 32 d
Que 73 a
Que 33 a
Que 74 a
Que 34 b
Que 75 c
Que 35 a
Que 76 b
Que 36 d
Que 77 a
Que 37 a
Que 78 a
Que 38 b
Que 79 d
Que 39 a
Que 80 b
Que 81 a
Que 82 a
Que 83 c
Que 84 c
Que 85 d
Que 86 a
Que 87 c
Que 88 b
Que 89 b
Que 90 d
Que 91 c
Que 92 a
Que 93 d
Que 94 a
Que 95 d
Que 96 c
Que 97 b
Que 98 c
Que 99 d
Que 100 d
Que 101 b
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Que 107 c
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Que 114 c
Que 115 b
Que 116 a
Que 117 c
Que 118 d
Que 119 a
Que 120 d
ROLL NO.: PG2STE43
A STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING/CIVIL STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING

I
T
E PAPER-II
Instructions:
the wrong answer.
A v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
I programmable scientific calculator.
C vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
T
E ix. Hand over your OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of examination
A 1. The higher critical loads than the first mode buckling load can be reached in the
column
I (a) by artificial restraints
C (b) increasing the length of the column
(c) reducing the stiffness of the column
T (d) decreasing the mass of the column
E
2. In inelastic buckling of an intermediate column, the stress in the column material is
(a) equal to the proportional limit
(b) equal to the ultimate stress
(c) more than the proportional limit but less than the ultimate stress
(d) less than the yield stress
3. Which column section from the following sections with same cross-sectional area and
length shall have maximum buckling load
A
(a) solid circular section
I (b) solid square section
(c) Two channels placed back to back
C (d) Two channels placed front to front
T
E
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A 4. The critical length of the column undergoing self-buckling is how much times taller
than a similar cross-section column loaded at its tip.
I
(a) 2 times
C (b) 1.78 times
(c) 1.5 times
T (d) 1.67 times
E
5. Buckling load for a column hinged at one end and fixed at the other end is given by
(a) 2EI/L2
(b) 22EI/L2
(c) 42EI/L2
(d) 2EI/(4L2)
where E = modulus of elasticity of the column material
I = moment of inertia of the column
A L = actual length of the column
I 6. For a 30-storey commercial building with a central core, which of the following is the
C most common lateral force resisting system?
(a) Bearing- and shear-wall system
T (b) Truss-wall frame
(c) Tubular frame
E
(d) Core and frame
7. Eigen vector of a matrix A is a vector represented by a matrix X such that when X is
multiplied with matrix A
(a) then the direction of the resultant matrix remains same as vector X.
(b) then the direction of the resultant matrix is reversed as that of vector X.
(c) then the direction of the resultant matrix gets rotated by 90o
A
8. The characteristic equation of a matrix A is
I (a) |A + λI| = 0
(b) |A – λI| = 0
C (c) |A – λI| ≠ 0
T (d) |A +λI| ≠ 0
where 'I' denotes identity matrix and 'λ' denotes a positive scalar quantity
E
9. The point of difference between the torsion in thin walled sections as compared to that
in solid sections is that
(a) In thin walled sections warping deformations are significant.
(b) In solid sections warping deformations are significant.
(c) Bending moment resistance is less in solid sections as compared to the thin walled
sections
(d) Post buckling strength is insignificant in thin walled sections.
A 10. Which of the following is not a case of no uniform torsion?
I (a) constant torque through circular shaft with sudden change in diameter.
(b) constant torque through circular shaft with continuously varying cross section.
C (c) continuously varying torque through circular shaft with sudden change in
diameter.
T
(d) constant torque through circular shaft with constant diameter.
E
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A
11. The buckling load in steel column is
I
(a) related to length
C (b) directly proportional to the slenderness ratio
(c) inversely proportional to the slenderness ratio
T (d) related to non-linearity of the slenderness ratio
E
12. When a beam is subjected to lateral load then optimum section is
(a) I section with channel section at bottom flange
(b) I section with channel section at top flange
(c) H section
(d) I section
13. In case of buckling, dispersion of load from bearing plate to neutral axis takes place at
(a) 30o
A
(b) 60o
I (c) 45o
(d) 10o
C
T 14. The problem of lateral buckling can arise only in those beams which has
(a) moment of inertia about the bending axis larger than the other axis
E (b) moment of inertia about the bending axis smaller than the other axis
(c) fully supported compression flange
15. In portal frame rigid connection between beam and column is useful
(a) to increase stability
(b) to reduce bending moment in beam
(c) to increase stability and to reduce bending moment in beam
A (d) to reduce bending moment in slab
I 16. A section in which both tension and compression flange attains the yield stress at
C every section is known as
(a) compact section
T (b) non-compact section
E (c) slender section
(d) plastic section
17. Gaussian curvature is

(a) the sum of two principal curvatures at a point
(b) the difference of two principal curvatures at a point
(c) the product of two principal curvatures at a point
(d) the average of two principal curvatures at a point
A 18. Bifurcation point in the buckling of shells is the point
I (a) the curvature of the shell starts changing
(b) where buckling starts
C (c) where shell collapses
T (d) where equilibrium paths intersect
E
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A 19. A thin-walled structure can absorb great deal of _________________ without

deforming too much.
I
(a) membrane strain energy
C (b) membrane potential energy
(c) axial strain energy.
T (d) bending strain energy
E
20. The knockdown factor for a shell is defined as
(a) ratio of experimental buckling load to experimental yielding load
(b) ratio of theoretical buckling load to theoretical ultimate load
(c) ratio of experimental buckling load to theoretical buckling load
(d) ratio of theoretical buckling load to experimental buckling load
21. In buckling of simply supported rectangular plate of sides a and b such that a ≥ b,
subjected to compression in the direction of the longer side, approximately the
A
halfwave length of the compression waves formed is
I (a) equal to ‘a’
(b) equal to ‘b’
C (c) less than ‘a’
T (d) less than ‘b’
E 22. In torsion, a ductile material will break along the

(a) plane of maximum shear
(b) plane of maximum compressive stress
(c) plane of maximum tensile stress
(d) plane of rotation
23. Which of the following is not based on energy concept?
(a) Castigliano’s theorem
(b) Lagrange theory
A (c) Kirchoff’s theory
I (d) Equilibrium method
C 24. In an unstiffened cylinder of radius r and thickness t, subjected to lateral pressure ’p’,
the circumferential stress is equal to
T (a) p r /t
(b) 2 p r / t
E
(c) p r / (2t)
(d) p t / r
25. The shear stress in a thin-walled cylindrical bar having thickness t and area enclosed
by the median line as Ao, subjected to a twisting moment T is equal to
(a) T / (2 t Ao)
(b) T / (t Ao)
(c) 2T / (t Ao)
A (d) T / (4 t Ao)
I 26. An anisotropic material has how many elastic constants?
(a) 2
C
(b) 6
T (c) 9
(d) 81
E
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A 27. In area coordinate system, a point in a plane is represented by how many numbers of
coordinates?
I
(a) 2
C (b) 3
(c) 4
T (d) 5
E
28. A triangular plane stress element has ………degrees of freedom
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
29. In weighted residual technique, the methods adopted are

(a) Point collocation method
A
(b) Least squares method
I (c) Galerkin’s method
C
T 30. The eight noded quadrilateral element belongs to…………. family of elements
(a) Serendipity
E (b) Interdipity
(c) Lagrange
(d) Hermitian
31. The displacement function for 1-D, two noded linear element will be
(a) u = N1u2 + N2u1
(b) u = N2 u1 + N1u2
(c) u = N1u1+N2u2
(d) u = N1u1+N1u2
A
where N represents shape functions and u represent displacements.
I
32. A six noded triangular element is a
C (a) linear strain triangular element
(b) constant strain triangular element
T (c) variable strain triangular element
E (d) parabolic strain triangular element
33. Sum of the shape functions of an element at a point is always equal to

(a) Zero
(b) -1
(c) +1
(d) 2
34. If you had steel, aluminium and wooden cylinders of equal cross-sectional areas (50
A mm2) and both cylinders are loaded with a force of 10 kN, which cylinder will have
I the highest stress?
(a) Aluminium
C (b) Steel
(c) wooden
T
(d) All of the cylinders will have same stress.
E
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A 35. What boundary conditions are applied to model symmetry in a thermal analysis?
(a) free surface
I
(b) restrained in translation
C (c) restrained against rotation
(d) restrained against both rotation and translation
T
E 36. What is the minimal number of Timonshenko or Euler-Bernoulli type beam elements
that is necessary to model a simply supported beam?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
37. Stiffness matrix S and flexibility matrix F are related to each other by the formula
(a) S + F = 0
A
(b) S – F = 0
I (c) S = F -1
(d) S = F 2
C
T 38. Flexibility matrix is a
(a) Square, symmetric matrix
E (b) Square, may or may not be symmetric matrix
(c) symmetric but may or may not be square matrix
(d) diagonal matrix
39. The order of flexibility matrix is equal to

(a) the degree of static indeterminacy of the structure
(b) degrees of freedom of the structure
(c) number of members in the structure
A (d) number of joints in the structure
I 40. Rotation of stiffness matrix is required for
C (a) members oriented along the global axis
(b) members inclined with the global axis
T (c) members having varying cross section
E (d) members in torsion
41. In stiffness method of analysis, the parameter that is determined first is

(a) displacements
(b) support reactions
(c) bending moments
(d) shear forces
42. A fixed beam having an internal hinge is subjected to transverse loading. What is the
A static indeterminacy of the beam?
I (a) 0
(b) 1
C (c) 2
T (d) 3
E
Page 6 of 18
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A 43. In the banded matrix, the half band width is defined as

(a) maximum number of non-zero off-diagonal elements
I
(b) maximum number of non-zero off-diagonal elements plus one for the diagonal
C term
(c) maximum number of zero off-diagonal elements
T (d) maximum number of zero off-diagonal elements plus one for the diagonal term
E
44. The node numbering in the matrix analysis should preferably be done in the following
order
(a) Members carrying heavy loads to be numbered first.
(b) Members with large spans to be numbered first.
(c) Restraint nodes to be numbered before the free nodes
(d) Free nodes to be numbered before the restraint nodes
45. The order of stiffness matrix for a 2-D beam element is

A
(a) 2 x 2
I (b) 3 x 3
(c) 4 x 4
C (d) 6 x 6
T
46. The order of stiffness matrix for a 3-D truss element is
E (a) 3 x 3
(b) 6 x 6
(c) 8 x 8
(d) 12 x 12
47. A 4-noded rectangular element has

(a) linear interpolation
(b) bi-linear interpolation
A (c) bi-parabolic interpolation
(d) quartic interpolation
I
C 48. Selecting shape functions from Pascal’s triangle assures
(a) continuity
T (b) geometric invariance
E (c) convergence
49. How many degrees of freedom are there in CST Element?

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
A 50. The range of natural coordinates is
I (a) 0 to 1
(b) -1 to +1
C (c) 0 to infinity
T (d) -infinity to + infinity
E
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A 51. Which type of numerical integration method is used to calculate the definite integrals?
(a) Gaussian curvature method
I
(b) Substitution method
C (c) Double exponential sync method
(d) Stochastic theta method
T
E 52. Patch test is applied in finite element method on
(a) nodes
(b) shape functions
(c) stresses and strains
(d) material properties
53. Thick-walled pressure vessels are analysed by using

(a) isoparametric elements
(b) boundary elements
A
(c) beam elements
I (d) axisymmetric elements
C 54. If the number of nodes used for defining the geometry is less than number of nodes
T used for defining the displacements, then it is known as
(a) isoparametric
E (b) parametric
(c) Sub parametric
(d) nonparametric
55. In a thin plate, the maximum deflection is ___________of its thickness.

(a) one-half
(b) one-fourth
(c) one-tenth
A (d) one-twentieth
I 56. Which theory is used for thick plates?
C (a) Mindlin’s Theory
(b) Kirchoff’s Theory
T (c) Griffith’s Theory
E (d) Love - Kirchoffs
57. In thick plate the ratio of thickness to width of the plate is more than
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
58. In a thin shell, the thickness of the shell to the radius of curvature is less than
A (a) 0.05
I (b) 0.10
(c) 0.15
C (d) 0.20
T
E
Page 8 of 18
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A 59. Which element is the first order element in which highest order of derivative is one.
(a) Co continuity
I
(b) C1 continuity
C (c) C2 continuity
(d) C3 continuity
T
E 60. A rectangular plate bending element has how many degrees of freedom?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
61. Which theory is followed for Shell element?

(a) Mindlin’s Theory
(b) Kirchoff’s Theory
A
(c) Griffith’s Theory
I (d) Love - Kirchoffs
C 62. How many nodes are there in degenerated shell element?
T (a) 4
(b) 6
E (c) 8
(d) 10
63. The family of elements involving curved boundaries is known as

(a) isoparametric
(b) parametric
(c) Sub parametric
(d) nonparametric
A
64. Which stress is the least in a thin shell?
I (a) Longitudinal stress
C (b) Hoop stress
(c) Radial stress
T (d) bending stress
E
65. Among the cylindrical and spherical thin vessels of same material, diameter and
pressure which has the lesser thickness
(a) Cylindrical shell
(b) Spherical shell
(c) Cylindrical shell with semi spherical heads
(d) None
66. In thin plate theory

A (a) The transverse shearing strains are significant.
I (b) The thickness of the plate can change after bending.
(c) The normal stress in thickness direction is zero.
C (d) The normal strain in thickness direction is zero.
T
E
Page 9 of 18
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A 67. In Love’s first approximation theory

(a) effects of transverse shear and normal strain are neglected.
I
(b) effects of transverse shear and normal strain are significant.
C (c) normal strain is zero
(d) stresses are independent of boundary conditions
T
E 68. Membrane stresses in shells have deep relationship with the
(a) thickness of the shell
(b) material properties of the shell
(c) curvature of the shell
69. Gaussian curvature of a cylindrical shell is

(a) 0
(b) +1
A
(c) -1
I (d) infinity
C 70. North lighting is preferred in industries because
T (a) It comes directly from the sun.
(b) It does not come directly from the sun.
E (c) North direction is the auspicious direction.
71. Folded plates are better than the flat plates because of their
(a) better look
(b) increased stiffness
(c) more ductile
A
72. The two action of a folded plate structure is that of
I (a) beam and slab action
C (b) beam and column action
(c) beam and plate action
T (d) plate and slab action
E
73. Three shear operation is done to analyse
(a) orthogonal transformation
(b) rotation
(c) translation
74. Simpson’s and Whitney’s methods are used for analysis of

(a) cylindrical shells
A (b) spherical shells
I (c) rectangular plates
(d) folded plates
C
T
E
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A 75. Schorer’s approach gives ______ order partial differential form of equations.
(a) 4
I
(b) 6
C (c) 8
(d) 10
T
E 76. Schorer’s theory gives reliable results for
(a) spherical shells
(b) short cylindrical shells
(c) long cylindrical shells
(d) folded plates
77. In a rectangular plate the differential equation for the deflection surface of the plate is
given by the expression
(a) ∂4w/∂x4 + 2 ∂4w/∂x2 ∂y2 + ∂4w/∂y4
A
(b) ∂2w/∂x2 + 2 ∂2w/∂x∂y + ∂2w/∂y2
I
(c) ∂3w/∂x3 + 2 ∂3w/∂x2 ∂y + ∂3w/∂y3
C
(d) ∂3w/∂x3 + 2 ∂3w/∂x∂y2 + ∂3w/∂y3
T
where w represents transverse deflection of the plate
E
78. The boundary condition for a simply supported edge of a plate shall be
(a) ∂w/∂x = 0
(b) ∂2w/∂x2 = 0
(c) ∂3w/∂x3 = 0
(d) ∂4w/∂x4 = 0
where w represents transverse deflection of the plate
A
79. For a simply supported rectangular plate of size (axb), following expression for w
I satisfies all the boundary conditions
(a) w = k * tan x/a * tan y/b
C
(b) w = k * cos x/a * sin y/b
T (c) w = k * sin x/a * cos y/b
(d) w = k * sin x/a * sin y/b
E
80. Maximum deflection at the centre of a uniformly loaded circular plate of radius a is
equal to
(a) q a4/D
(b) q a4/ (16 D)
(c) q a4/ (32 D)
(d) q a4/ (64 D)
where q is the intensity of loading and D is the flexural rigidity of the plate.
A
I
C
T
E
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2STE43
A
I
C
81. Euler's formula is applicable
T (i) for short columns
(ii) for long columns
E (iii) if slenderness ratio is greater than √ (π2 E / σc)
(iv) if crushing stress < buckling stress
(v) if crushing stress ≥ buckling stress

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
A
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
I
82. What is the safe load acting on a long column of length 2 m and having diameter of
C 40 mm? The column is fixed at both the ends and modulus of elasticity is 2
T x105 N/mm2? (Take Factor of safety = 2)
(a) 120 kN
E (b) 124 kN
(c) 130 kN
(d) 150 kN
83. For stable structures, one of the important properties of flexibility and stiffness
matrices is that the elements on the main diagonal
(i) of a stiffness matrix must be positive
(ii) of a stiffness matrix must be negative
A (iii) of a flexibility matrix must be positive
(iv) of a flexibility matrix must be negative
I
C (a) (i) and (iii)
T (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
E (d) (ii) and (iv)
84. Factors affecting buckling of a column are

(i)end connections of the column
(ii)eccentricity of loading in the column
(iii)residual stresses in the column
(iv)initial curvature of the column
A Which of the statements are correct?

(a) (i) and (iii)
I (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c)(i) and (iv)
C
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
T
E
Page 12 of 18
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A 85. A steel tubular mast is solidly built-in the foundation and is free on its top. The
cylinder is 3 mm thick and has a radius of 50 mm. What is the critical length of the
I
mast to buckle under its own weight?
C (a) 30 m
(b) 80 m
T (c) 105 m
E (d) 60 m
86. The properties of eigen values are

i) Eigen values of real symmetric matrices are real
ii) Eigen values of real skew symmetric are either pure imaginary or zero
iii) Eigen values of A = Eigen Values of AT
iv) Product of Eigen Values = |A|
where A denotes a matrix
A Which of the statements are correct?
I (a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
C (c) (i) (ii) and (iii)
T
E 87. A tapered bar AB of solid circular cross section with diameter increasing from d1 to d2
in a length l, is twisted by torque T. Determine maximum shear stress in the bar.
(a) 32 T/(d13)
(b) 32 T/(d23)
(c) 16 T/(d13)
(d) 16 T/(d23)
88. Axisymmetric buckling mode of shells is that in which

A (i) no buckling exists in the axial direction
(ii) no buckling exists in the circumferential direction
I (iii) buckling mode is sinusoidal in the axial direction
C (iv) buckling mode is sinusoidal in the circumferential direction
T Which of the statements are correct?

(a) (i) and (iv)
E (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) (ii) and (iii)
89. What material property data is required for linear, elastic static analysis?
(i) Modulus of elasticity
(ii) Poisson’s ratio
(iii) Density
A (iv) Permeability
I Which of the statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv)
C
(b) (ii) and (iii)
T (c) (i) (ii) and (iii)
E
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2STE43
A
90. For a fixed downward displacement at the end of a steel beam, the peak stress in the
I
beam can be lowered by
C i) Increasing the thickness of the beam
ii) Decreasing the thickness of the beam
T iii) Changing the material of the beam to aluminium
E iv) Changing the support conditions of the beam
Answer is
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
91. A trussed structure is having hinged supports at its two ends. The number of members
in the truss are 15 and number of joints are 8. Determine the total static indeterminacy
A
of the truss.
I (a) 0
(b) 1
C (c) 2
T (d) 3
E 92. Are the following statements true?

Statement 1: The matrix sum of two tensors is a tensor.
Statement 2: The matrix product of two tensors is a tensor.
(a) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(b) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(c) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true
(d) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is false
A 93. The assumptions made in Kirchoff’’s theory are:

(i) straight lines normal to the mid-surface remain straight after deformation.
I (ii) straight lines normal to the mid-surface remain normal to the mid-surface after
C deformation
(iii) the thickness of the plate may change during a deformation.
T (iv) mid-surface plane can be used to represent a three-dimensional plate in two-
E dimensional form.
The true statements are:
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) (ii) and (iv)
d) (i) (iii) and (iv)
94. Lame’s first parameter is

(a) Elastic modulus
A (b) Shear modulus
I (c) Bulk modulus
(d) Poisson’s ratio
C
T
E
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2STE43
A
95. For a pure rotation,
I
(a) partial derivative of ux with respect to y is equal to partial derivative of uy with
C respect to x.
(b) partial derivative of ux with respect to y is equal to negative of partial derivative of
T uy with respect to x.
E (c) sum of partial derivative of ux with respect to y and partial derivative of uy with
respect to x is equal to 1
(d) difference of partial derivative of ux with respect to y and partial derivative of uy
with respect to x is equal to 1
where u represents deformation.
96. To compress a liquid by 10% of its original volume, the pressure required is 2 × 105
N/m2, the bulk modulus of the liquid is
A (a) 2 × 104 N/m2
I (b) 2 × 105 N/m2
(c) 2 × 107 N/m2
C (d) 2 × 106 N/m2
T 97. What is the energy stored per unit volume in a copper wire, which produces
E longitudinal strain of 0.1%? Young’s Modulus = 1.1 × 1011 N/m2
(a) 11 × 103 J/m3
(b) 5.5 × 103 J/m3
(c) 11 × 104 J/m3
(d) 5.5 × 104 J/m3
98. Which of the following have highest elasticity?
(a) Steel
(b) Copper
A (c) Rubber
(d) Aluminium
I
99. There is no change in the volume of a wire due to change in its length on stretching.
C
The Poisson’s ratio of the material of the wire is
T (a) 0.50
(b) 1.05
E (c) 0.25
(d) -1.25
100. The Young’s modulus for a plastic body is
(a) one
(b) zero
(c) less than one
(d) infinity
A 101. The Euler-Lagrangian approach to classical mechanics stems from a deep
I philosophical belief that the laws of nature are based on
(a) principle of uniformity
C (b) principle of balance
T (c) principle of speed
(d) principle of economy
E
Page 15 of 18
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A
102. Standard Lagrangian‘L’ is defined as
I
(a) Difference of total energy and potential energy
C (b) Difference of total energy and kinetic energy
(c) Difference of kinetic energy and potential energy
T (d) Sum of kinetic energy and potential energy
E
103. The typical Neumann boundary condition, is that the directional derivative normal to
some boundary surface is
(a) one
(b) zero
(c) less than one
(d) infinity
104. Bending stresses in a clamped circular plate having radius ‘a’ and thickness ‘h’
A
subjected to uniformly distributed load ‘q’ is equal to
I (a) 0.75 q a2/h2
(b) 0.5 q a2/h2
C (c) q a2/h2
T (d) 1.5 q a2/h2
E 105. Batdorf parameters are

(i) curvature parameter
(ii) material parameter
(iii) characteristic of buckling
(iv) load parameter
(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)
A (c) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) (iii) and (iv)
I
C 106. The buckling coefficient kc is a function of
(a) plate aspect ratio
T (b) wavelength parameter
E (c) botha) and b)
(d) material of the plate
107. Open thin-walled steel sections subjected to twisting moments are generally prone to
(i) large warping stresses
(ii) increased axial stresses
(iii) decreased angle of twist
(iv) excessive angle of twist
A The true statements are:
I (a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
C (c) (i) (ii) and (iii)
T (d) (i) (ii) and (iv)
E
Page 16 of 18
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A 108. Vlasov formulation is based on following assumptions:

(i) shear strains along the section surface are negligible.
I
(ii) shear strains along the section mid-surface are negligible.
C (iii) In-plane deformations of the section are negligible
(iv) In-plane deformations of the section are considered
T
E The true statements are:
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) (ii) and (iv)
109. Quadratic shape functions for bar elements are

(a) N1= x(x-1)/2, N2= (x+1) (x-1), N3= x(x+1)/2
(b) N1= (x-1)/2, N2= (x+1), N3= x/2
A
(c) N1= x(x-1), N2= (x+1) (x-1), N3= x(x+1)
I (d) N1= x(x-1)/4, N2= (x+1) (x-1), N3= x(x+1)/4
C 110. Of the following, which is the correct polynomial to be used as the displacement
T function
(a) u = a1+ a2x + a3xy
E (b) u = a1+ a2x + a3xy + a4y
(c) u = a1+ a2x + a3xy + a4y + a5x2
(d) u = a1+ a2y+ a3xy
111 Mid nodes are marked for __________ family of elements.

(a) Serendipity
(b) Interdipity
(c) Lagrange
A (d) Hermitian
I 112. The shape function N = (1-) (1+)/4 shows
C (a) linear interpolation
(b) bilinear interpolation
T (c) parabolic interpolation
E (d) cubic interpolation
113. The locus of points which lie at equal distances from the two surfaces of revolution of
a shell is called
(a) the normal surface
(b) the flat surface
(c) the curved surface
(d) the middle surface
A 114. If at a point on the shell, the two curvatures have same signs, then the surface is a
I (a) Elliptic
(b) Hyperbolic
C (c) Parabolic
E
Page 17 of 18
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A 115. If, through every point on a surface, there is a straight line that lies on the surface,
then the surface is a
I
(a) quartic surface
C (b) surface of revolution
(c) ruled surface
T (d) surface of translation
E
116. In Simpson’s 1/3 rule, the integrand is approximated by a ______ order polynomial.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
117. Methods to analyse folded plates are

(i) Beam method
A
(ii) Whitney’s method
I (iii) Slab method
(iv) force method
C The correct statements are:
T (a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
E (c) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) (ii) and (iv)
118. When do we add shape imperfections to shell finite element models?

(a) before performing natural frequency analysis.
(b) before performing linear buckling analysis.
(c) before performing nonlinear analysis.
(d) after linear analysis and before post processing the stresses
A
119. A thick cylinder is subjected to an internal pressure of 60 MPa. If the hoop stress on
I the outer surface is 150 MPa, then the hoop stress on the internal surface is
C (a) 105 MPa
(b) 180 MPa
T (c) 210 MPa
E (d) 135 MPa.
120. A curved shell can behave as a plate. What is the name of this phenomenon?
(a) Vander Neut effect
(b) Imperfection sensitivity
(c) Inextensional deformation
(d) middle third rule
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG2STE43
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Structural Engineering/Civil Structural Engineering
Paper: II
Answer Key (Paper II) Que 43 b
Que 44 d
Que 1 a
Que 45 d
Que 2 c
Que 46 b
Que 3 d
Que 47 b
Que 4 b
Que 48 d
Que 5 b
Que 49 c
Que 6 d
Que 50 b
Que 7 a
Que 51 a
Que 8 b
Que 52 b
Que 9 a
Que 53 d
Que 10 d
Que 54 c
Que 11 a
Que 55 c
Que 12 b
Que 56 a
Que 13 c
Que 57 b
Que 14 a
Que 58 a
Que 15 c
Que 59 b
Que 16 a
Que 60 a
Que 17 c
Que 61 d
Que 18 d
Que 62 c
Que 19 a
Que 63 a
Que 20 c
Que 64 c
Que 21 b
Que 65 b
Que 22 a
Que 66 c
Que 23 d
Que 67 a
Que 24 a
Que 68 c
Que 25 a
Que 69 a
Que 26 d
Que 70 b
Que 27 b
Que 71 b
Que 28 d
Que 72 d
Que 29 d
Que 73 b
Que 30 a
Que 74 d
Que 31 c
Que 75 c
Que 32 b
Que 76 c
Que 33 c
Que 77 a
Que 34 d
Que 78 b
Que 35 a
Que 79 d
Que 36 a
Que 80 d
Que 37 c
Que 81 b
Que 38 a
Que 39 a Que 82 b
Que 40 b Que 83 a
Que 41 a Que 84 d
Que 42 b Que 85 a
Que 86 d Que 104 a
Que 87 c Que 105 c
Que 88 b Que 106 c
Que 89 c Que 107 a
Que 90 d Que 108 b
Que 91 d Que 109 a
Que 92 c Que 110 b
Que 93 c Que 111 c
Que 94 a Que 112 b
Que 95 b
Que 113 d
Que 96 d
Que 114 a
Que 97 d
Que 98 a Que 115 c
Que 99 a Que 116 b
Que 100 b Que 117 a
Que 118 c
Que 101 d
Que 119 c
Que 102 c Que 120 c
Que 103 b
ROLL NO.: PG1THE66
A THERMAL ENGINEERING
I
T PAPER -I
E
Instructions:
the wrong answer.
I vi. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise specified.
T
1. In current carrying conductors, if the radius of the conductor is less than the critical
radius, then addition of electrical insulation is desirable, as
A
(a) It reduces the heat loss from the conductor and thereby enables the conductor to
I carry a higher current.
(b) It increases the heat loss from the conductor and thereby enables the conductor to
C carry a higher current.
T (c) It increases the thermal resistance of the insulation and thereby enables the
conductor to carry a higher current.
E (d) It reduces the thermal resistance of the insulation and thereby enables the
conductor to carry a higher current.
2. Heat transfer takes place according to

(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) First Law of thermodynamics
(c) Second Law of thermodynamics
(d) Third Law of thermodynamics.
A
3. Heat is mainly transferred by conduction, convection and radiation in
I
(a) Insulated pipes carrying hot water
C (b) Refrigerator freezer coil
(c) Boiler furnaces
T (d) Condensation of stream in a condenser.
E
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A
4. What will be the geometric radius of heat transfer for a hollow sphere of inner and
I
outer radii r1 and r2?
C (a) √(r1.r2)
(b) r1.r2
T (c) r2/ r1
E (d) r2 – r1
5. Up to the critical radius of insulation

(a) Added insulation increases heat loss
(b) Added insulation decreases heat loss
(c) Convection heat loss is less than conduction heat loss.
(d) Heat flux decreases.
6. In which one of the following materials, is the heat energy propagation minimum due
A
to conduction heat transfer?
I (a) Lead
(b) Copper
C (c) Water
T (d) Air
E 7. The critical radius of insulation for a sphere of thermal conductivity ‘k’ W/mK and
heat transfer coefficient ‘h’ W/m2K is equal to
(a) 2 k h
(b) 2k/h
(c) k/h
(d) 2𝑘ℎ
8. The unit of a following parameter is not m2/s
A (a) Thermal diffusivity
(b) Kinematic viscosity
I (c) Mass diffusivity
(d) Dynamic viscosity
C
9. The Poisson’s equation of general conduction heat transfer applies to the case
T
(a) Steady state heat conduction with heat generation
E (b) Steady state heat conduction without heat generation
(c) Unsteady state heat conduction without heat generation
(d) Unsteady state heat conduction with heat generation
10. The time constant of a thermocouple is the time taken to attain
(a) The final value to be measured
(b) 50% of the value of the initial temperature difference
(c) 63.2% of the value of the initial temperature difference
(d) 98.8% of the value of the initial temperature difference
A
11. What is the condition that transient heat transfer problem consider as a lump capacity
I problem?
C (a) The internal resistance of the object is negative.
(b) The internal resistance of the object is zero.
T (c) The internal resistance of the object is infinite.
E (d) The internal resistance of the object is negligible.
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A
12. Fins are used to increase the heat transfer from surface by
I
(a) Increasing the temperature difference.
C (b) Increasing the effective surface area.
(c) Increasing the convective heat transfer coefficient.
T (d) None of the above.
E
13. Fins are made as thin as possible to
(a) Reduce the total weight
(b) Accommodate more number of fins
(c) Increase the width of the same profile area
(d) Improve flow of coolant around the fin.
14. If the temperature of the solid surface changes from 270C to 6270C, then its emissive
power will increases in the ratio of
A
(a) 3
I (b) 9
(c) 27
C (d) 81
T
15. Fraction of radiative energy leaving one surface that strikes the other surface is called
E (a) Radiative flux
(b) Emissive power of the first surface
(c) View factor
(d) Reradiation flux.
16. What is the shape factor of a hemispherical body placed on a flat surface with respect
to itself?
(a) Zero
A (b) 0.25
(c) 0.5
I (d) 1.0
C 17. Two radiating surfaces A1 = 6m2 and A2 = 4 m2 have the shape factor F1-2 = 0.1; the
T shape factor F2-1 will be
(a) 0.18
E (b) 0.15
(c) 0.12
(d) 0.10
18. For a current carrying wire of 20 mm diameter exposed to air (h = 20 W/m 2K),
maximum heat dissipation occurs when thickness of insulation (0.5 W/mK) is
(a) 30 mm
(b) 25 mm
(c) 20 mm
A
(d) 15 mm
I
19. As the temperature increases, the thermal conductivity of a gas
C (a) increases
(b) decreases
T (c) remain constant
E
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A (d) increase up to a certain temperature and then decreases

20. What is the value of the view factor for two inclined flat plates having common edge
I
of equal length and with an angle of 20 degrees?
C (a) 0.83
(b) 1.17
T (c) 0.66
E (d) 1.34
21. Lumped heat transfer analysis of a solid object suddenly exposed to a fluid medium at
a different temperature is valid when
(a) Biot number < 0.1
(b) Biot number > 0.1
(c) Fourier number < 0.1
(d) Fourier number > 0.1
A
22. The heat loss from a fin is 6 W. The effectiveness and efficiency of the fin are 3 and
I 0.75 respectively. The heat loss (in W) from the fin keeping the entire fin surface at
base temperature will be
C (a) 6
T (b) 8
(c) 10
E (d) 12
23. With rise in temperature, thermal conductivity of solid metals

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remain constant
(d) first increases then decreases
A 24. The absorptivity of thermal radiation by a solid surface can be enhanced

(a) by polishing the surface
I (b) by roughening the surface
C (c) by increasing the surface area
(d) by decreasing the surface area
T
E 25. At room temperature, the ratio of radiation heat transfer coefficient and the surface
emissivity is about
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.0
(c) 3.0
(d) 6.0
26. There is no mass transfer analog to

(a) conduction heat transfer
A (b) convection heat transfer
I (c) radiation heat transfer
(d) heat exchanger
C
T
E
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A
27. If k is the thermal conductivity, ρ is the mass density and c is the specific heat of a
I
substance, then its thermal diffusivity is given by
𝜌𝑐
C (a) 𝑘
𝑘
T (b) 𝜌𝑐
𝑘𝑐
E (c) 𝜌
𝑘𝜌
(d) 𝑐
28. Transient heat conduction means

(a) heat conduction for a short time
(b) conduction when the temperature at a point varies with time
(c) very little heat transfer
A (d) heat conduction with a very small temperature difference
I 29. The temperature profile for heat conduction through a wall of constant thermal
conductivity in the presence of a heat source is
C
(a) a straight line
T (b) parabolic
(c) logarithmic
E (d) hyperbolic
30. A surface that reflects all the incident radiation appears

(a) yellow
(b) white
(c) black
(d) red
A 31. A grey body is the one whose absorptivity

(a) varies with temperature
I (b) varies with the wavelength of incident ray
C (c) varies with temperature and wavelength of incident ray
(d) does not vary with temperature and wavelength of incident ray
T
E 32. The emissivity of a real surface varies with
(a) the temperature
(b) the wavelength
(c) the direction of emitted radiation
33. The radiant energy emitted by a body per unit time and per unit surface area at a
perpendicular wavelength and temperature is called
(a) intensity of radiation
A
(b) monochromatic emissive power
I (c) total emissive power
C
T
E
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A 34. For two black parallel planes of equal areas connected by reradiating walls at a
constant temperature the view factor F12 is given by
I
(a) 1 + F12
C (b) (1 + F12) / 2
(c) F12 / 2
T (d) (1 – F12) / 2
E
35. A radiation shield of emissivity ε on both sides is placed between two infinite parallel
planes of emissivity ε and temperature T1 and T2. The ratio of radiant energy flux with
shield and without shield would be
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.75
(d) 1.0
A
36. How can radiation heat transfer between two surfaces be reduced?
I (a) by bringing the surfaces closer
(b) by introducing radiation shield between them
C (c) by polishing the surfaces
T (d) by roughening the surfaces
E 37. A body at 500 K cools down to 400 K by radiation to atmosphere at 300 K. What will
be the ratio of heat loss rate at 500 K to the heat loss rate at 400 K?
(a) 3.11
(b) 4.02
(c) 5.1
(d) 2.78
38. The NTU (Number of Transfer Units) in a heat exchanger is given by which one of
A the following? Given: U = Overall heat transfer coefficient; C = Heat capacity; E =
Effectiveness; A = Heat exchange area.
I (a) UA / Cmin
C (b) UA/ Cmax
(c) UA/ E
T (d) Cmax / Cmin
E
39. In a balanced counter flow heat exchanger with ṁhch = ṁccc, the NTU is equal to
1.0. What is the effectiveness of the heat exchanger?
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.5
(c) 0.33
(d) 0.2
40. For a balanced counter flow heat exchanger, the temperature profiles of the two fluids
A
are
I (a) Parallel and non-linear
(b) Parallel and linear
C (c) Linear but non parallel
T (d) Divergent from one another
E
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A 41. Assertion (A): The LMTD for counter flow is larger than that of parallel flow for a
given temperature of inlet and outlet.
I
Reason (R): The definition of LMTD is the same for both counter flow and parallel
C flow.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
T (b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
E (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
42. In the laminar flow of air (Pr = 0.7) over a heated plate, if δ and δT denote
respectively, the hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layer thickness, then
(a) δ = δT
(b) δ >δT
(c)δ <δT
(d) δ = 0 but δT≠ 0
A
I 43. The ratio of momentum diffusivity (v) to thermal diffusivity (α), is called
(a) Prandtl number
C (b) Nusselt number
T (c) Biot number
(d) Lewis number
E
44. Grashof number signifies the ratio of
(a) Inertia force to viscous force
(b) Buoyancy force to viscous force
(c)Buoyancy force to inertia force
(d) Inertia force to surface tension force
45. For a glass plate transmissivity and reflectivity are specified as 0.86 and 0.08
respectively, the absorptivity of the glass plate is
A (a) 0.86
(b) 0.08
I
(c) 1.00
C (d) 0.06
T 46. Fick’s law of diffusion in terms of mass fraction can be written as
𝜕𝐶𝐴
E (a) Mass flux = D 𝜕𝑥
𝜕𝐶𝐴
(b) Mass flux = - 𝜌D 𝜕𝑥
𝜕𝐶𝐴
(c) Mass flux = 𝜌D 𝜕𝑥
𝐷 𝜕𝐶𝐴
(d) Mass flux = 𝜌 𝜕𝑥
Where, CA is the mass fraction of diffusing species A and 𝜌 is the mass density.
A 47. The diffusion coefficient is a property of the system. Its value depends upon the
system’s
I
(a) Pressure
C (b) Temperature
(c) Composition
T (d) All of the above
E
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A 48. The unit of mass transfer coefficient is

(a) m/s
I
(b) m2/s
C (c) kg mol/m2s
(d) kg mol/m2 h atm
T
E 49. The counterpart of equimolar counter diffusion in heat transfer is
(a) Heat conduction
(b) Natural Convection
(c) Forced convection
(d) None
50. A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. To make another plate above the flat plate at a
distance y with a velocity uo, a force is necessary, which is proportional to
(a) The velocity uo
A
(b) The inverse of y
I (c) The dynamic viscosity of the fluid
C
T 51. A fluid is flowing along a plate having a high uniform wall temperature. The heat
transfer coefficient along the length
E (a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) First decreases then increases
52. When a hot fluid is flowing over a cold flat plate, the temperature gradient
(a) is zero at the surface
(b) is negative at the surface
A (c) is zero at the edge of the thermal boundary layer
(d) is positive at the edge of the thermal boundary layer
I
C 53. In natural convection heat transfer, the Nusselt number is a function of
(a) Re and Pr
T (b) Re and Gr
E (c) Gr and Pr
(d) Gr and Bi
Above used Re, Pr, Gr, Bi defined as usual notations.
54. For combined forced and natural convection, the relative magnitude of the following
dimensionless parameter governs the relative importance of natural convection in
relation to forced convection
(a) Gr/Re
(b) Gr/Re2
A (c) Gr.Pr/Re
I (d) Re/Gr2
Above used Re, Pr, Gr defined as usual notations.
C
T
E
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A ℎ𝑃
55. When the convective heat transfer coefficient h = mk, where, m = ; A = surface
𝑘𝐴
I
area, P = perimeter, the incorporation of an extended surface will
C (a) increase the rate of heat transfer
(b) decrease the rate of heat transfer
T (c) not alter the rate of heat transfer
E (d) only increase the rate of heat transfer when the length of the fin is very large
56. Free convection flow depends on all of the following except

(a) density
(b) coefficient of viscosity
(c) gravitational force
(d) velocity
57. When energy transfer take place between a solid surface and a fluid system in motion,
A the fluid motion is impressed by a compressor, the process is known as
I (a) free convection
(b) forced convection
C (c) natural convection
T (d) all of the above
E 58. Viscus effect of a fluid

(a) is found in the turbulent core
(b) is confined outside the boundary layer
(c) is confined in the boundary layer
(d) is confined in the potential flow
59. Two pipes of uniform section but different diameters carry water at same flow rate.
Water properties are the same in the two pipes. The Reynolds number, based on the
pipe diameter
A (a) is the same in the both pipes
I (b) is large in the narrow pipe
(c) is smaller in the narrower pipe
C (d) depends on the pipe material
T 60. The parameters which determine the friction for turbulent flow in a rough pipe are
E (a) Froude number and relative roughness
(b) Froude number and Mach number
(c) Reynolds number and relative roughness
(d) Mach number and relative roughness
61. Shear stress in a turbulent flow is due to

(a) The viscous property of the fluid
(b) The fluid density
(c) Fluctuation of velocity in the direction of flow
A (d) Fluctuation of velocity in the direction of flow as well as transverse to it.
I 62. Flow separation is caused by
C (a) reduction of pressure to local vapour pressure
(b) a negative pressure gradient
T (c) a positive pressure gradient
E (d) thinning of boundary layer thickness to zero
Page 9 of 19
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A
63. Prandlt’s mixing length in turbulent flow signifies
I
(a) the average distance perpendicular to the mean flow covered by the mixing
C particles
(b) the ratio of mean free path to characteristics length of the flow field
T (c) the wavelength corresponding to the lowest frequency present in the flow field
E (d) the magnitude of turbulent kinetic energy
64. If x is the distance measured from the leading edge of a flat plate, then laminar
boundary layer thickness varies as
(a) 1/x
(b) x4/5
(c) x2
(d) x1/2
A
65. For a flow, if the stream function Ψ exists and satisfies the Laplace equation, then
I which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The continuity equation is satisfied and the flow is irrotational.
C (b) The continuity equation is satisfied and the flow is rotational
T (c) The flow is irrotational but does not satisfy the continuity equation
(d) The flow is rotational
E
66. The velocity potential function in a two dimensional flow field is given by θ = x2 - y
2
.The magnitude of velocity at point P(1,1) is
(a)zero
(b)2
(c)2√2
(d)8
67. A velocity potential function exists only for
A (a)Steady flow
I (b)Uniform flow
(c)Irrotational flow
C (d) Compressible flow
T 68. The parameter for ideal fluid flow around a rotating circular cylinder can be obtained
E by superposition of some elementary flows. Which one of the following sets would
describe the flow around a rotating circular cylinder?
(a) Doublet,vortex and uniform flow
(b) Source, vortex and uniform flow
(c) Sink,vortex and uniform flow
(d) Vortex and uniform flow
69. The flow past the cylinder with the vortex motion causes a net transverse motion. This
transverse force is known as
A (a) Magnus effect
(b) Robin effect
I
(c) D’Alembert’s Paradox
C (d) Rankine doublet
T
E
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A 70. Laminar developed flow at an average velocity of 5 m/s occurs in a pipe of 10 cm

radius. The velocity at 5 cm radius is
I
(a) 7.5m/s
C (b) 10m/s
(c) 2.5m/s
T (d)5m/s
E
71. The correct sequence in ascending order of the magnitude of the given parameter is
(a)Boundary layer thickness, momentum thickness, displacement thickness
(b) Displacement thickness, boundary layer thickness,momentum thickness
(c)Momentum thickness, displacement thickness, boundary layer thickness
(d)Momentum thickness, boundary layer thickness,displacement thickness
72. The hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness is defined as that distance from the
boundary in which the
A
(a) Velocity equals to the local external velocity
I (b) Velocity equals to the approach velocity
(c) Momentum reaches 99% of the momentum of the main stream
C (d) Velocity reaches 99% of the main stream velocity
T
73. The application of Navier-Stokes equations
E (a) Laminar uni-directional flow between stationary parallel plates
(b) Laminar uni-directional flow between parallel plates having relative motion
(c) Laminar flow in circular pipes
74. In fluid flow the shear stress is confined in the
(a) boundary layer
(b) inviscid, incompressible flow region
(c) free stream flow
A
(d) turbulent flow
I
75. The flow of fluid through a pipe is laminar when
C (a) the fluid is ideal
T (b) the fluid is viscous
(c) the Reynolds number is less than 2000
E (d) there is a considerable lateral dispersion of smoke or dye injected into the flow
stream.
76. The equations of motion for a viscous fluid are known as
(a) Euler’s equation
(b) Reynolds equation
(c) Navier-Stokes equations
(d) Hagen-Poiseuille equations
A 77. Pressure loss for laminar flow through pipeline is dependent
(a) Directly on square of flow velocity
I (b) Directly on square of pipe radius
(c) Directly as length of pipe
C
(d) Inversely on viscosity of flowing medium
T
E
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A 78. The turbulent flow has

(a) Streak line motion
I
(b) Parabolic velocity distribution
C (c) Random orientation of fluid particles
(d) Small slope of velocity profile at the wall
T
79. The area velocity relationship for compressible fluid flow is
E 𝑑𝐴 𝑑𝑉
(a) 𝐴 = 𝑉 (𝑀2 − 1)
𝑑𝐴 𝑑𝑉
(b) = (𝐶 2 − 1)
𝐴 𝑉
𝑑𝐴 𝑑𝑉
(c) = (1 − 𝑀2 )
𝐴 𝑉
𝑑𝐴 𝑑𝑉
(d) = (1 − 𝑉 2 )
𝐴 𝑉
Where, M is the Mach number and C is sonic speed.

A 80. A boundary layer
(a) Is set up near any boundary, wall or centre line
I
(b) Exists only near a solid boundary
C (c) May or may not grow along the flow direction
(d) May not form for some fluids
T
E
81. Two insulating material of thermal conductivity K and 2K are available for lagging a
pipe carrying a hot fluid. If the radial thickness of each material is same
(a) Material with higher thermal conductivity should be used for inner layer and one
with lower thermal conductivity for the outer.
A (b) Material with lower thermal conductivity should be used for inner layer and one
I with higher thermal conductivity for the outer.
(c) It is immaterial in which sequence the insulating material are used.
C (d) It is not possible to judge unless numerical values of dimensions are given.
T 82. With an increase in the thickness of insulation around a circular pipe, heat loss to
surroundings due to
E
(a) convection increases, while that due to conduction decrease
(b) convection decreases, while that due to conduction increases
(c) convection and conduction decreases
(d) convection and conduction increases
83. Consider one dimensional steady state heat conducting along x-axis (0 ≤ x ≤ L),
through a plane wall with the boundary surfaces (x = 0 and x = L) maintained at
temperature of 0oC and 100oC. Heat is generated uniformly throughout the wall.
A Choose the correct statement
(a) The direction of heat transfer will be from the surface at 100OC to the surface of
I 0OC.
C (b) The maximum temperature inside the wall must be greater than 1000C
(c) The temperature distribution is linear within the wall
T (d) The temperature distribution is symmetric about the mid-plane of the wall
E
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A 84. A plane wall has a thermal conductivity of 1.15W/mK. If the inner surface is at
1100oC and the outer surface is at 350oC, then the design thickness (in meter) of the
I
wall to maintain a steady heat flux of 2500W/m2 is (in m)
C (a) 0.245
(b) 0.345
T (c) 0.445
E (d) 0.145
85. A 10 mm diameter electrical conductor is covered by an insulation of 2 mm thickness.

The conductivity of the insulation is 0.08W/mK and the convection coefficient at the
insulation surface is 10W/m2K. Addition of further insulation of the same material
will
(a) Increase heat loss continuously
(b) Decrease heat loss continuously
(c) Increase heat loss to a maximum and then decrease heat loss
A
(d) Decrease heat loss to a minimum and then increase heat loss
I
86. A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706 mm is to be used for the
C measurement of temperature of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer coefficient
T on bead surface is 400 W/m2K. Thermo-physical properties of thermocouple materials
are K = 20 W/mK, c = 400 J/kgK and ρ = 8500 kg/m3. If the thermocouple initially at
E 30oC is placed in a hot stream of 300oC, the time taken by a bead to reach 298oC, is
(a) 2.35 s
(b) 4.9 s
(c) 14.7 s
(d) 29.4 s
87. The radiative heat transfer rate per unit area (W/m2) between two plane parallel grey
surfaces (emissivity = 0.9) maintained at 400 K and 300 K is (ζp = Stefan Boltzmann
A constant = 5.67 x 10-8 W/m2K4)
(a) 992
I (b) 812
C (c) 464
(d) 567
T
E 88. A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the centre of a hollow sphere (surface 1). The
diameter of the sphere is 1 m, while the cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m
each. The radiation configuration factor F11 is
(a) 0.375
(b) 0.625
(c) 0.75
(d) 1
89. Two large diffuse grey parallel plates, separated by a small distance, have surface
A temperature of 400 K and 300 K. If the emissivity of the surfaces are 0.8 and the
I Stefan-Boltzmann constant is 5.67x10-8 W/m2K4, the net radiation heat exchange rate
in KW/m2 between the two plates is
C (a) 0.66
T (b) 0.79
(c) 0.99
E
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A (d) 3.96
90. For an opaque surface, the absorptivity (α), and transmissivity (η) and reflectivity (ρ)
I
are related by the equation
C (a) Α + ρ = η
(b) α+ρ+ η =0
T (c) α+ρ=1
E (d) α+ρ=0
91. A composite wall consists of two layers of different materials having conductivities
K1 and K2. For equal thickness of two layers, the equivalent thermal conductivity of
the slab will be
(a) K1 + K2
(b) K1K2
(c) 2K1K2/(K1+K2)
(d) (K1+K2)/(K1K2)
A
I 92. A copper block and an air mass block having similar dimensions are subjected to
symmetrical heat transfer from one face of each block. The other face of the block
C will be reaching to the same temperature at a rate
T (a) Faster in air block
(b) Faster in copper block
E (c) Equal in air as well as copper block
(d) Cannot be predicted with the given information
93. A composite wall of a furnace has 3 layers of equal thickness having thermal
conductivities in the ratio of 1:2:4. What will be the temperature drop ratio across the
three respective layers?
(a) 1:2:4
(b) 4:2:1
A (c) 1:1:1
(d) log4:log2:log1
I
C 94. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Fins should be attached on the side where heat transfer coefficients are high
T (b) Effectiveness of fins depends on thermal conductivity only
E (c) Fins must have small thickness for better heat dissipation
(d) In boiling heat transfer appliances, fins will be very effective
95. For laminar flow over a flat plate, the local heat transfer coefficient hx varies as x-1/2,
where x is the distance from the leading edge (x = 0) of the plate. The ratio of the
average coefficient ha between the leading edge and some location A at x = x on the
plate to the local heat transfer coefficient hx at A is
(a) 1
(b) 2
A (c) 4
I (d) 8
C
T
E
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A 96. A fluid of thermal conductivity 1.0W/mK flows in fully developed flow with
Reynolds number 1500 through pipe of diameter 10 cm. The heat transfer coefficient
I
for uniform heat flux and uniform wall temperature boundary conditions are
C respectively
(a) 36.57 and 43.65 W/m2K
T (b) 43.64 and 36.57 W/m2K
E (c) 43.64 W/m2K for both the cases
(d) 36.57 W/m2Kfor both the cases
97. What is hydraulic diameter used in place of diameter for non-circular ducts equal to?
(a) A/m
(b) 4 A/m
(c) A/(4m)
(d) 4 m/A
Where A = area of flow and m = perimeter
A
I 98. Air at 200C blows over a hot plate of 50 x 60 cm made of carbon steel maintained at
2200C. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 25 W/m2K. What will be the heat
C loss from the plate?
T (a) 1500 W
(b) 2500 W
E (c) 3000 W
(d) 4000 W
99. The correct sequence for different types of heat exchangers in the decreasing order of
effectiveness is
(a) parallel-flow, counter flow, shell and tube and cross-flow
(b)cross-flow, counter flow, shell and tube and parallel-flow
(c) counter flow, shell and tube,cross-flow and parallel-flow
A (d) counter flow, cross-flow, shell and tubeand parallel-flow
I 100. A counter flow shell and tube exchanger having an area of 32.5m2, is used to heat
C water with hot exhaust gases. The water (Cp = 4.16 kJ/kgK) flows at a rate of 2 kg/sec
while the exhaust gases (Cp = 1.03kJ/kgK) flow at 5.15 kg/s. If the overall heat
T transfer surface coefficient is 200 W/m2K, the NTU for the heat exchanger is
E (a) 1.2
(b) 2.4
(c) 3.6
(d) 4.8
101. A thin flat plate 2 m x 2 m is hanging freely in air. The temperature of the
surrounding is 250C. Solar radiation is falling on one side of the plate at the rate of
500 W/m2. What should be the convection heat transfer coefficient in W/m2-0C, if the
temperature of the plate is to remain constant at 300C?
A (a) 25
I (b) 50
(c) 100
C (d) 200
T
E
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1THE66
A 102. Hot air at 1500C flows over a flat plate maintained at 500C. If the forced convection
heat transfer coefficient is 75 W/m2k, the heat gain rate by the plate through an area of
I
2 m2 will be
C (a) 15 kW
(b) 22.5 kJ/S
T (c) 7.4 kJ/S
103. The properties of mercury at 300 K are: Density = 13529 kg/m3, Cp = 0.1393 kJ/kgK,
dynamic viscosity = 0.1523 x 10-2 Ns/m2 and thermal conductivity = 8.540 W/mk.
The Prandtl number of mercury at 300 K is
(a) 0.0248
(b) 2.48
(c) 24.8
(d) 248
A
I 104. A fluid (Prandtl number, Pr = 1) at 500 K flows over flat plat of 1.5 m length,
maintained at 300 K. The velocity of the fluid is 10 m/s. Assuming kinematic
C viscosity, v = 30 x 10-6 m2/s, the thermal boundary layer thickness (in mm) at 0.5m
T from the leading edge is
(a) 4.1254
E (b) 5.1234
(c) 6.1237
(d) 7.1237
105. Water flows through a tube of diameter 25 mm at an average velocity of 1.0 m/s. The
properties of water are ρ = 1000 kg/m3, μ = 7.25 x 10-4 Ns/m2, k = 0.625 W/mK, Pr =
4.85. Using Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.4, the convective heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2K)
is
A (a) 4213.56
(b) 4613.66
I (c) 4513.55
C (d) 4423.46
T 106. In certain heat exchanger, both the fluids have identical mass flow rate specific heat
E product. The hot fluid enters at 760C and leaves at 470C, and cold fluid entering at
280C leave at 550C, the effectiveness of the heat exchanger (HE) is
(a) 0.16
(b) 0.60
(c) 0.72
(d) 1.0
107. For the same inlet and exit temperature of the hot and cold fluids, the log mean
temperature difference (LMTD) is
A (a) Greater for the parallel flow heat exchanger than the counter flow heat exchanger
I (b) Greater for the counter flow heat exchanger than the parallel and cross flow heat
exchanger
C (c) Same for both parallel and counter flow heat exchangers
T (d) Depending on the properties of fluid
E
Page 16 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1THE66
A 108. In a counter flow heat exchanger, for the hot fluid the heat capacity = 2 kJ/kgK, mass
flow rate = 5 kg/s. inlet temperature = 1500C, outlet temperature = 1000C. For the
I
cold fluid, heat capacity = 4 kJ/kgK, mass flow rate = 10 kg/s, inlet temperature =
C 200C. Neglecting heat transfer to the surroundings, the outlet temperature of the cold
fluid in 0C is
T (a) 7.5
E (b) 32.5
(c) 45.5
(d) 70.0
109. A metal ball of diameter 60 mm is initially at 2200C. The ball is suddenly cooled by
an air jet of 200C. The heat transfer coefficient is 200 W/m2K. The specific heat,
thermal conductivity and density of the metal ball are 400 J/kgK, 400 W/mK and
9000 kg/m3 respectively. The ball temperature (in 0C) after 90 seconds will be
approximately
A (a) 141
I (b) 163
(c) 189
C (d) 210
T 110. For a certain two-dimensional incompressible flow, velocity field is given by
E 2xy𝑖 - y2𝑗. The streamlines for this flow are given by the family of curves
(a) x2y2 = constant
(b) xy2 = constant
(c) 2xy – y2 = constant
(d) xy = constant
111. A cylindrical wire has 5 mm diameter and 100 mm length. One end of the cylindrical
wire is in a hot fluid maintained at 1300 C and its surface is exposed to atmospheric air
of 300 C. The thermal conductivity of the cylindrical wire material is 400 W/mk. If the
A convective heat transfer coefficient is 40 W/m2K, the heat loss (in W) from the
I cylindrical wire is
(a) 0.08
C (b) 5.0
(c) 7.0
T (d) 7.8
E
112. Water is flowing through the horizontal pipe of constant diameter and the flow is
laminar. If the diameter of the pipe is increased by 50% keeping the volume flow rate
constant, then the pressure drop in the pipe due to friction will decrease by
(a) 33%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
A 113. An incompressible fluid flows over a flat plate with zero pressure gradient. The
boundary layer thickness is 1mm at a location where the Reynolds number is 1000. If
I the velocity of the fluid alone is increased by a factor 4, then the boundary layer
C thickness (in mm) at the same location will be
(a) 4
T (b) 2
(c) 0.5
E
Page 17 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1THE66
A (d) 0.25
I
114. Match the following
C P: Compressible flow U: Reynolds number
Q: Free surface flow V: Nusselt number
T R: Boundary layer flow W: Weber number
E S: Pipe flow X: Froude number
T: Heat convection Y: Mach number
Z: Skin friction coefficient
(a) P-U, Q-X, R-V, S-Z, T-W

(b) P-W, Q-X, R-Z, S-U, T-V
(c) P-Y ,Q-W, R-Z, S-U, T-X
(d) P-Y, Q-X, R-Z, S-U, T-V
A
115. The head loss for a laminar incompressible flow through a horizontal circular pipe is
I h1. Pipe length and fluid remaining the same, if the average flow velocity doubles and
C the pipe diameter reduces to half its previous value, the head loss is h2. The ratio of
h2/h1 is
T (a) 1
(b) 4
E
(c) 8
(d) 16
116. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I
A.flow in a straight long pipe with varying flow rate
B. flow of gas through the nozzle of a jet engine
A C. flow of water through the hose of a fire fighting pump
I D. flow in a river during tidal bore
C List-II
1. uniform,steady
T 2. non-uniform,steady
E 3.uniform,unsteady
4. non-uniform,unsteady
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
A (d) 3 4 1 2
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: PG1THE66
A 117. The discharge in m3/s for laminar flow through a pipe of diameter 0.04 m having a
centre line velocity of 1.5 m/s is
I
3𝜋
C (a) 50
T 3𝜋
(b) 2500
E 3𝜋
(c) 5000
3𝜋
(d) 10000
118. Consider laminar flow of real fluid over a flat plate of length 1 m. If the boundary
layer thickness at a distance of 0.25 m from the leading edge of the plate is 8 mm, the
A boundary layer thickness (in mm) at a distance of 0.75 m is
(a) 13.85
I (b) 12.65
C (c) 8.86
(d) 16.84
T
E 119. An ideal fluid flow normal to the flat plate through a jet of orifice and strikes the plate
normally with 0.05 m3/s flow rate and exerts a force of 1150 N. Consider the density
of the fluid is 1150 kg/m3 . The orifice diameter (in mm) is
(a) 56.43
(b) 47.43
(c) 25.40
(d) 26.24
120. A fluid flowing over a heated flat plate has the following properties: viscosity = 0.001
A Pa.s; specific heat at constant pressure = 1kJ/kgK; thermal conductivity = 1W/mK.
I The hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness at a specific location on the plate is 1
mm. The thermal boundary layer thickness at the same location is
C (a) 0.001 mm
T (b) 0.01 mm
(c) 1 mm
E (d) 1000 mm
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
PG1THE66
ANSWER KEY
Subject:Thermal Engineering
PG:
Paper: I
Set:
01 Mark questions answer 02 Marks question answer
1. (b) 41. (b) 81. (b)
2. (c) 42. (c) 82. (a)
3. (c) 43. (a) 83. (b)
4. (a) 44. (b) 84. (b)
5. (a) 45. (d) 85. (c)
6. (d) 46. (b) 86. (b)
7. (b) 47. (d) 87. (b)
8. (d) 48. (a) 88. (b)
9. (a) 49. (d) 89. (a)
10. (c) 50. (d) 90. (c)
11. (d) 51. (a) 91. (c)
12. (b) 52. (c) 92. (b)
13. (b) 53. (c) 93. (b)
14. (d) 54. (b) 94. (c)
15. (c) 55. (c) 95. (b)
16. (c) 56. (a) 96. (b)
17. (b) 57. (b) 97. (b)
18. (d) 58. (c) 98. (a)
19. (a) 59. (b) 99. (c)
20. (a) 60. (c) 100. (a)
21. (a) 61. (d) 101. (b)
22. (b) 62. (c) 102. (a)
23. (b) 63. (a) 103. (a)
24. (b) 64. (d) 104. (c)
25. (d) 65. (a) 105. (b)
26. (c) 66. (c) 106. (b)
27. (b) 67. (c) 107. (b)
28. (b) 68. (a) 108. (b)
29. (b) 69. (a) 109. (a)
30. (b) 70. (a) 110. (b)
31. (d) 71. (c) 111. (b)
32. (d) 72. (d) 112. (d)
33. (b) 113. (c)
73. (d)
34. (b) 114. (d)
74. (a)
35. (b) 115. (c)
75. (c)
36. (b) 116. (b)
76. (c)
37. (a) 117. (d)
77. (c)
38. (a) 118. (a)
39. (a)
78. (c) 119. (a)
40. (b) 79. (a) 120. (c)
80. (a)
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A THERMAL ENGINEERING
I
C
T PAPER-II
E
Instructions:
A the wrong answer.
I v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
T
E viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
A 1. CFD is method to calculate heat transfer and fluid flow

(a) numerically
I (b) experimentally
C (c) instantaneously
(d) None of these
T
E 2. Reynolds number and velocity are
(a) directly proportional to each other
(b) inversely proportional to each other
(c) equal to each other
(d) None of these
3. In steady flow of a fluid, acceleration of any fluid particle is

A (a) constant
(b) zero
I
(c) variable
C (d) non zero
T 4. Discretization technique is
E (a) Finite volume
(b) Finite difference
(c) Finite element
(d) All of these
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 5. When Mach number > 0.3, flow is

(a) Incompressible
I
(b) Compressible
C (c) Either compressible either incompressible
(d) None of these
T
E 6. Fluid flow with no energy loss is
(a) viscous flow
(b) non viscous flow
(c) either viscous either non viscous
(d) None of these
7. Navier-stokes equation is useful in analysis of

A (a) viscous flow
I (b) non viscous flow
(c) Turbulent flow
C (d) None of these
T
8. Fluid in which resistance to flow takes place is
E (a) viscous fluid
(b) non viscous fluid
(c) either viscous either non viscous
(d) None of these
9. When an ideal fluid flows past a sphere,

(a)highest intensity of pressure occurs around the circumference at right angles to
flow
A (b)lowest pressure intensity occurs at front stagnation point
(c)lowest pressure intensity occurs at rear stagnation point
I (d)total drag is zero
C 10. Stanton diagram is a
T (a)log-log plot of friction factor against Reynolds number
(b)log-log plot of relative roughness against Reynolds number
E (c)semi-log plot of friction factor against Reynolds number
(d)semi-log plot of friction factor against relative roughness
11. Which of the following velocity potentials satisfies continuity equation?

(a)x2y
(b)x2-y2
A (c)cos x
(d)x2 + y2
I
12. A partial differential equation (PDE) has
C
(a) one independent variable
T (b) two or more independent variables
(c) more than one dependent variable
E (d) equal number of dependent and independent variables
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 13. For partial differential equation, if b² - 4ac = 0 then equation is called

(a) hyperbolic
I
(b) parabolic
C (c) elliptic
(d) None of these
T
E 14. Neumann boundary condition is also known as
(a) first-type boundary condition
(b) second-type boundary condition
(c) zero-type boundary condition
(d) third-type boundary condition
15. Region of flow trailing a body where effect of that body is felt on velocity field is
A called
I (a) flow region
(b) wake
C (c) trailing region
(d) velocity region
T
E 16. Measure of circulation of fluid is called
(a) stability
(b) vorticity
(c) viscosity
(d) None of these
17. Flow in which each particle of fluid follows an irregular path is called
(a) laminar flow
(b) turbulent flow
A (c) mixed flow
(d) None of these
I
C 18. The velocity profile of the hydrodynamic boundary layer is dependent upon
(a) Time
T (b) Viscosity
(c) Temperature
E
(d) Mass
19. Truncation error becomes zero as mesh spacing tends to

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
A (d) None of these
I 20. Difference between exact solution to mathematical model and discretized equations
C used to approximate it is called
(a) modeling error
T (b) discretization error
E (c) convergence error
(d) None of these
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 21. Euler number indicates relationship between

(a) pressure drop
I
(b) temperature drop
C (c) velocity drop
(d) viscosity drop
T
E 22. Meshes which only requires element size on lines and surfaces that define geometry
as input.
(a) Structured mesh
(b) unstructured mesh
(c) Dirichlet mesh
(d) None of these
A 23. When a direct computation of dependent variables can be made in terms of known
I quantities, computation is said to be
(a) implicit
C (b) explicit
(c) unique
T
(d) dependent
E
24. Incompressible flow is limiting case of subsonic flow where Mach number is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) constant
25. Ratio of momentum diffusivity and thermal diffusivity is called

A (a) Reynolds number
(b) Mach number
I (c) Ruark number
(d) Pandtl number
C
T 26. Ratio between longest side and shortest side of mesh is called
(a) mesh orthogonality
E (b) mesh skewness
(c) mesh aspect ratio
(d) mesh smoothness
27. Path of fluid particles cannot be tracked in

(a) turbulent flow
A (b) laminar flow
(c) mixed flow
I (d) none of the above
C
28. Artificial node is added for
T (a) Dirichlet boundary condition
(b) Neumann boundary condition
E (c) forced boundary condition
(d) discrete boundary condition
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 29. When fluid properties do not change with time, flow is called
(a) steady
I
(b) unsteady
C (c) viscous
(d) non viscous
T
E 30. Mesh requires blocking as input called
(a) Structured mesh
(b) unstructured mesh
(c) Dirichlet mesh
(d) None of these
31. For highly refined mesh, computational time required is

A (a) low
I (b) high
(c) near to zero
C (d) None of these
T
32. Difference between mathematical model and real world it is trying to represent is
E called
(a) modeling error
(b) discretization error
(c) convergence error
(d) None of these
33. Finite difference method is

(a) exact solution method
(b) approximate solution method
A
(c) unique solution method
I (d) None of these
C 34. Error occurred by approximating infinite sum by finite sum is called
T (a) finite error
(b) infinite error
E (c) truncation error
(d) zero error
35. In flow through nozzle, convergent nozzle

(a) accelerate the subsonic flow
(b) decelerate the subsonic flow
(c) has no effect on subsonic flow
A
(d) None of these
I
36. Smallest section of nozzle is called
C (a) venturi
T (b) duct
(c) throat
E (d) divergent
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 37. Solution of Nervier stroke equation is

(a) flow velocity
I
(b) force
C (c) area
(d) None of these
T
E 38. A dimensionless quantity used to measure resistance of an object is called
(a) lift coefficient
(b) flow coefficient
(c) Drag coefficient
(d) None of these
39. Which field is set up when a fluid flows past a heated or cold surface?
A (a) Energy
I (b) Temperature
(c) Mass
C (d) Time
T 40. Formula of central differencing for 2nd order is
(a) Δhf(x) = f(x+h) – f(x)
E
(b) Δh²f(x) = f(x+h) – f(x-h)
(c) Δhf(x) = f(x) - f(x+h)
(d) 2Δhf(x) = f(x+h) – f(x-h)
41. Formula of backward differencing is
(a) Δhf(x) = f(x+h) - f(x)
(b) 2Δhf(x) = f(x+h) - f(x-h)
(c) Δhf(x) = f(x) - f(x+h)
A (d) Δhf(x) = f(x+h) + f(x-h)
I 42. Test used to check accuracy of solution is called

(a) grid independence test
C (b) solution test
T (c) optimal test
(d) aspect test
E
43. Numerical method for solving differential equations by approximating them with
difference equations is called
(a) Finite volume
(b) Finite difference
(c) Finite element
A (d) None of these
I 44. Shock wave is produced during flow at convergent divergent nozzle when velocity of
fluid suddenly
C
(a) reduced
T (b) increased
(c) either increase or decrease
E (d) None of these
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 45. Representation of finite difference derivative is based on

(a) Taylor series expansion
I
(b) Newton's 2nd law
C (c) Fredrick law
(d) None of these
T
E 46. Fluid properties are determined at fixed points in space as fluid flows. This approach
is called
(a) Lagrangian approach
(b) Eulerian approach
(c) Navier approach
(d) None of these
A 47. CFD is based on fundamental governing equations of

I (a) continuity
(b) energy
C (c) momentum
(d) All of these
T
E 48. Forces which act directly on surface of fluid element called
(a) fluid forces
(b) body forces
(c) direct forces
(d) fluid forces
49. The instruments used for the measurement of pressure is/are

(a) Bellows
A (b) Diaphragms
(c) Fiber optic pressure sensors
I (d) All of these
C 50. Bourdon tube is used for the measurement of gauge pressure of
T (a) Gas
(b) Liquid fluid
E (c) Solid
51. The ionization gauge an instrument used for the measurement of

(a) Very low pressure
(b) Medium pressure
A (c) High pressure
I (d) Very high pressure
C 52. For the measurement of flow rate of liquid, the method used is
(a) Conveyor-based methods
T
(b) Bourdon tube
E (c) Coriolis method
(d) Thermal mass flow measurement
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 53. The device which is used for making temporary measurements of flow is
(a) Venturi
I
(b) Dull flow tube
C (c) Orifice plate
(d) Pitot static tube
T
E 54. Example for positive displacement meter is
(a) Variable area flow meter
(b) Turbine meters
(c) Rotary piston meter
(d) Venturi
55. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I.unit is

A
(a) J/m2 K sec
I (b) J/m K sec
(c) W/m K
C (d) both (b) and (c)
T
56. Thermal conductivity can be measured by
E (a) Guarded hot plate apparatus
(b) bellow gage
(c) piotot static tube
57. The thermocouple circuit which is used to measure temperature works on
(a) Seebeck effect
(b) Peltier effect
(c) Thomson effect
A
I
58. The negative lead of a thermocouple is always colored
C (a) Blue
T (b) Yellow
(c) Red
E (d) White
59. The most rugged temperature sensing element listed here is a/an
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Orifice plate
(c) RTD
A (d) Filled bulb
I 60. Thermocouple extension wire may be readily distinguished from regular

thermocouple-grade wire by
C
(a) Different metal types
T (b) Outer sheath color
(c) Special markings on the wire’s insulation
E (d) Thickness
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 61. Which one of these thermometers is portable as well as simple to use?

(a) Constant-volume gas thermometer
I
(b) resistance thermometer
C (c) Thermocouple
(d) Mercury-in-glass thermometer
T
E 62. Discrete Fourier series is applied to
(a) Infinite sequences
(b) Finite discrete sequences
(c) Continuous infinite signals
(d) Continuous finite sequences
63. In computational fluid dynamicsanalysis

A (a) The domain isdiscrete
I (b) The domain iscontinuous
(c) The domain is continuous anddiscrete
C (d) The domain is not continuous and notdiscrete
T
64. Neumann condition specifies
E (a) Value of the variable atboundary
(b) Derivative of variable atboundary
(d) Force terms atboundary
65. Implicit schemeuses

(a) Initial slope of thecurve
(b) Final slope of thecurve
A (c) Average of initial and finalslopes
(d) Different of initial and finalslopes
I
𝜕2𝜃 𝜕2𝜃
C 66. The equation + + 𝑆 = 0 represents
𝑑𝑥 2 𝜕𝑦 2
T (a) Eulerequation
(b) Laplaceequation
E (c) Poissonequation
(d) Bernouli’sequation
67. Hot wire anemometers are used tomeasure

(a) pressure
(b) force
(c) velocity
A
(d) viscosity
I
68. What type of data do you need for a Chi-Square test?
C (a) Scales
T (b) Interval
(c) Parametric
E (d) Categorical
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 69. What does a significant result in a Chi-Square test imply?

(a) That there is a significant difference between the three categorical variables
I
included in the analysis
C (b) It implies that the sample is not representative of the population
(c) That there is a significant negative relationship
T (d) That there is a significant positive relationship
E
70. Normal Distribution is also known as
(a) Cauchy’s Distribution
(b) Laplacian Distribution
(c) Gaussian Distribution
(d) Lagrangian Distribution
A 71. Normal Distribution is applied for

I (a) Continuous Random Distribution
(b) Discrete Random Variable
C (c) Irregular Random Variable
(d) Uncertain Random Variable
T
E 72. In Normal distribution, the highest value of ordinate occurs at
(a) Mean
(b) Variance
(c) Extremes
(d) Same value occurs at all points
73. The free stream undisturbed flow has a uniform velocity U INFINITY in the
(a) X-direction
A (b) Y-direction
(c) Z-direction
I (d) Any direction
C 74. Which one of the following is measured by a rotameter?
T (a) Velocity of fluids
(b) Discharge of fluids
E (c) Viscosity of fluids
(d) Rotational speed of solid shafts
75. The velocity of a water stream is being measured by L-shaped Pitot tube and the
reading is 20 cm. Then, what is the approximate value of velocity?
(a) 19.6 m/s
A (b) 2.0 m/s
(c) 9.8 m/s
I (d) 20 m/s
C
76. The curl of a given velocity field (∇ 𝑋 𝑉) indicates the rate of
T (a) increase or decrease of flow at a point
(b) twisting of the lines of flow
E
(c) deformation
(d) translation
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 77. A velocity potential function exits only

(a) Steady flow
I
(b) Uniform flow
C (c) Irrotational flow
(d) Compressible flow
T
E 78. The stream function of a two-dimensional flow is ψ = 2xy. The flow is
(a) Rotational
(b) Irrotational
(c) Vortex flow
(d) Unsteady pulsating flow
79. In unsteady-state flow conduction for bodied with negligible temperature gradients,
A the time temperature variation curve is
I (a) linear
(b) parabolic
C (c) sinusoidal
(d) exponential
T
E 80. Dimensionless quantity that connects the link between velocity flow field and the
temperature field is
(a) Nusselt number
(b) Prandtl number
(c) Reynolds number
(d) Grashof number
A PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
I
C 81. Surge wave in a rectangular channel is an example of
(i) steady flow
T (ii) unsteady flow
E (iii)uniform flow
(iv)non-uniform flow
The correct answer is
(a)(i) and (iii)
(b)(ii) and (iii)
(c)(i) and (:v)
(d)(ii) and (iv)
A
82. The partial differential equation
I
𝜕2𝑧 𝜕2𝑧
C 5 2+6 = 𝑥𝑦
𝑑𝑥 𝜕𝑦 2
T is classified as
(a) elliptic
E (b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) none of the above Solution
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 𝜕𝑧 𝜕2𝑧
83. The partial differential equation 𝑥𝑦 =5 is classified as
𝜕𝑥 𝑑𝑦 2
I (a) elliptic
C (b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
E 84. The partial differential equation
𝜕2𝑧 𝜕2𝑧
−5 = 0is classified as
𝑑𝑥 2 𝜕𝑦 2
(a) elliptic
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
A
I 85. In McLeod gauge,
(a) High pressure fluid is expanded to a low pressure which is read by the monometer
C technique
(b) Low pressure fluid is compressed to a high pressure which is read by the bourdon
T technique
E (c) High pressure fluid is expanded to a low pressure which is read by the bourdon
technique
(d) Low pressure fluid is compressed to a high pressure which is read by the
monometer technique
86. A platinum resistance thermometer has a resistance of 2 ohms at 0°C and 3 ohms at
100°C. What will be the temperature when resistance indicates 5 ohm?
(a) 300° C
(b) 200° C
A (c) 350° C
(d) 400° C
I
87. When the reference junction is the same temperature as the measurement junction in a
C
thermocouple circuit, the output voltage (measured by the sensing instrument) is
T (a) Zero
(b) Reverse polarity
E (c) Noisy
(d) AC instead of DC
88. Reference junction compensation is necessary in thermocouple-based temperature
instruments because
(a) Copper extension wire has a tendency to corrode
(b) Thermocouples are inherently nonlinear
A (c) The reference junction generates a temperature-dependent voltage
I (d) Electrical noise may interfere with the measurement otherwise
C 89. Every temperature measuring instrument makes use of a physical property of a

substance in order to measure temperature objectively, which physical property is
T used by Mercury-in-glass thermometer?
E (a) Electromotive force
(b) Volume of a fixed mass of liquid
(c) resistance of a piece of metal
(d) Pressure of a fixed mass of gas at constant volume
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 90. The basic properties of Discrete Fourier series includes

1. Linearity
I
2. Periodicity
C 3. Circular symmetry
4. Summation
T
E The correct answer is / are
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above four are correct
91. The assumptions for thermal boundary layer are

A (i) Steady compressible flow
I (ii) Negligible body forces, viscous heating and conduction in the flow direction
(iii) Constant fluid properties evaluated at the film temperature
C Identify the correct option
(a) (i) and (iii)
T
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
E (c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)
92. If value of x for normal distribution is 35, mean of normal distribution is 65 and
standard deviation is 25 then standardized random variable is
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.2
(c) 1.7
(d) 4.0
A
I 93. If z-score of normal distribution is 2.5, mean of distribution is 45 and standard
deviation of normal distribution is 3 then value of x for a normal distribution is
C (a) 97.5
T (b) 47.5
(c) 37.5
E (d) 67.5
94. While measuring the velocity of air (ρ = 1.2 kg/m3), the difference in the stagnation
and static pressure of a pitot static tube was found to be 380 Pa. The velocity at that
location is
(a) 23.03 m/s
(b) 4.02 m/s
A
(c) 17.8 m/s
I (d) 25.17 m/s
C 95. The 2-D flow with velocity
T 𝑉 = 𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 2𝑦 î + 4 − 𝑦 ĵ 𝑖𝑠
(a) compressible and irrotational
E (b) incompressible and irrotational
(c) incompressible and not irrotational
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 96. When the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness (δ), which is the distance from the
surface at which the local velocity (u) reaches 99% of the free-stream velocity, then
I
(a) (δ / x) = 5 / (Rex)(1/2)
C (b) (δ / x) = 5 / (Rex)(2)
(c) (δ / x) = 10 / (Rex)(1/2)
T (d) (δ / x) = 10 / (Rex)(2)
E
97. A stream function is given by (x2 – y2). The potential function of the flow will be
(a) 2xy + f(x)
(b) 2xy + constant
(c) 2(x2-y2)
(d) 2xy + f(y)
A 98. The streamline equation passing through the point (2, 3) will be (the two dimensional
I flow is given by u = a and v = a)
(a) x + y = 1
C (b) y = x +1
(c) 2x + y = 1
T
(d) None of these
E
99. The maximum velocity of a one dimensional incompressible fully developed viscous
flow between two fixed parallel plates is 6 m/s. The mean velocity (in m/s) of the
flow is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
A 100. Heat is conducted through 10 cm thick wall at the rate of 30 W/m2 when the
I temperature difference across the wall is 10 0C. What is the thermal conductivity of
the wall?
C (a) 0.03 W/mk
(b) 0.3 W/mk
T (c) 3.0 W/mk
E (d) 30.0 W/mk
101. Two walls of same thickness and cross sectional area have thermal conductivities in
the ratio 1: 2. If the same temperature difference is maintained across the two faces of
both of the walls, what is the ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2?
(a) ½
(b) 1
A (C) 2
(d) 4
I
102. Heat is lost form a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient at 30
C 0
C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and thermal conductivity of air is 0.03 W/mk, then the
T heat transfer coefficient will be
(a) 7.5 W/m2K
E (b) 16.2 W/m2K
(c) 25.2 W/m2K
(d) 30 W/m2K
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 103. In laminar flow over a plate, the convective heat transfer coefficient is proportional to
(x is the distance from the leading edge)
I
(a) x1/2
C (b) x - 1/2
(c) x1/3
T (d) x - 1/5
E
104. The differential form of continuity equation for two dimensional flow of fluid may be
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣
written in the following form 𝜌 𝜕𝑥 + 𝜌 𝜕𝑦 = 0 in which u and v are velocities in the x
and y direction and 𝜌 is the density. This is valid for
(a) compressible, steady flow
(b) compressible, unsteady flow
A (c) incompressible, unsteady flow
(d) incompressible, steady flow
I
105. If u = velocity in the x-direction and v = velocity in the y-direction, then for a two-
C dimensional flow in x-y plane is irrotational if
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣
T (a) 𝜕𝑥 = 𝜕𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
E (b) 𝜕𝑥 = 𝜕𝑦
𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑢
(c) 𝜕𝑥 = 𝜕𝑦
𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑣
(d) 𝜕𝑥 = 𝜕𝑦
𝜕2∅ 𝜕2∅
106. The relation 𝑑𝑥 2 + = 0 for an irrotational flow is known as which one of the
𝜕𝑦 2
following?
(a) Navier-Stokes equation
A (b) Laplace equation
I (c) Reynolds equation
(d) Euler’s equation
C
T 107. Consider the following statements and select the correctanswer:
1. The physical validity of CFD solution always improves as the grid isrefined
E 2. The x-component of the Navier Stokes equation is an example oftransport
equation
3. For the same number of nodes in a two dimensional mesh, a structured grid
typically has fewer cells than an unstructured triangulargrid
(a) 1 and2
(b) 1 and3
(c) 2 and3
A
(d) 1, 2 and3
I
108. Gauss-Seidel method which when applied to PDEs is also referred toas
C (a) Crank Nicholsonmethod
T (b) Liebmann'smethod
(c) Gauss Jacobi method
E (d) None of theabove
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 109. Consider the following statements pertaining to the act of temperaturemeasurement.

1. Bi-metallic thermometer is unsuitable if the temperature changes arerapid
I
2. Optical pyrometer is the most suitable thermometer for the measurementof
C temperature of the wire of an uncandsentbulb
3. Response and sensitivity of a thermocouple is improved by using thickwires.
T
E Select the correct answer using the codesbelow:
(a) 1 and2
(b) 2 and3
(c) 1 and3
(d) 1, 2and 3
110. For a consistent finite difference method for a well-posed linear initial value problem,
A the method is convergent if and only if it is stable. Then it is
I (a) Stabilitytheorem
(b) Von-Neumann condition
C (c) Lax-Richtmyer equivalencetheorem
(d) None of theabove
T
E 111. In a free vortex motion, tangential velocity of the water particles is proportional to
(where, r = distance from the centre)
(a) r
(b) r2
1
(c)
r
1
(d) 2
r
A
112. A perfect gas flows through a nozzle where it expands in a reversible adiabatic
I
manner. The inlet conditions are 22 bar, 5000C, 38 m/s. At exit the pressure is 2 bar.
C Given R = 190 J/kg K and γ = 1.35. Then the exit velocity will be
(a) 700 m/s
T (b) 726 m/s
E (c) 801 m/s
(d) 701 m/s
113. The area-velocity relationship for compressible fluid flow is

dA dV
(a)  ( M 2  1)
A V
dA dV 2
A (b)  (C  1)
A V
I dA dV
(c)  (1  M 2 )
C A V
dA dV
T (d)  (1  V 2 )
A V
E Where, M is the Mach number and C is the sonic speed.
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 114. An oil of specific gravity 0.85 and kinematic viscosity 0.125 cm2/s flows in a 30 cm
diameter smooth pipe at the rate of 0.1 m3/s and friction coefficient 4f = 0.023, then
I
what will be the flow velocity at a point 10 cm from the pipe centre?
C (a) 1.21 m/s
(b) 1.51 m/s
T (c) 1.01 m/s
E (d) 2.21 m/s
115. For laminar forced convection over a flat plate, if the free stream velocity increases by
a factor of 2, the average heat transfer coefficient
(a) Remains same
(b) Decreases by factor of 2
A (c) Rises by a factor of 2
(d) Rises by a factor of 4
I
116. Water flows through a tube of diameter 25 mm at an average velocity of 1.00 m/s.
C
The properties of water are ρ = 1000 kg/m3, µ = 7.25 x 10-4 Ns/m2, k = 0.625 W/mK,
T Pr = 4.85. Using Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.4, (all notations used are as usual) the convective
heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2K) is
E (a) 2645.64 W/m2K
(b) 3655.65 W/m2K
(c) 4613.66 W/m2K
(d) 5635.67 W/m2K
117. Lumped heat transfer analysis of a solid object suddenly exposed to a fluid medium at
a different temperature is valid when
(a) Biot number < 0.1
A (b) Biot number > 0.1
(c) Fourier number < 0.1
I
(d) Fourier number > 0.1
C
118. If k is the thermal conductivity, ρ is the mass density and c is the specific heat of a
T substance, then its thermal diffusivity is given by
𝜌𝑐
E (a) 𝑘
𝑘
(b) 𝜌𝑐
𝑘𝑐
(c) 𝜌
𝑘𝜌
(d) 𝑐
A 119. A pilot static tube with C=1 is used to measure the velocity of water. The differential
I manometer reading is 10 mm of liquid column with a relative density of 10.
Assuming g=9.8 m/s2, the velocity of water (in m/s) is
C (a) 1.328 m/s
(b) 1.825 m/s
T
(c) 2.513 m/s
E (d) 3.128 m/s
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG2THE66
A 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕2𝑢
120. The partial differential equation + 𝑢 = is a
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑥 2
I (a) linear equation of order 2
(b) non-linear equation of order 1
C
(c) linear equation of order 1
T (d) non-linear equation of order 2
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG2THE66
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Thermal Engineering
Paper: II
01 Mark questions answer 02 Marks question answer

1. (a) 41. (c) 81. (d)
2. (a) 42. (a) 82. (a)
3. (b) 43. (b) 83. (b)
4. (d) 44. (a) 84. (c)
5. (b) 45. (a) 85. (d)
6. (b) 46. (b) 86. (a)
7. (a) 47. (d) 87. (a)
8. (a) 48. (d) 88. (c)
9. (d) 49. (d) 89. (b)
10. (a) 50. (d) 90. (a)
11. (b) 51. (a) 91. (c)
12. (b) 52. (c) 92. (b)
13. (b) 53. (c) 93. (c)
14. (b) 54. (c) 94. (d)
15. (b) 55. (d) 95. (c)
16. (b) 56. (a) 96. (a)
17. (b) 57. (a) 97. (b)
18. (b) 58. (c) 98. (b)
19. (c) 59. (a) 99. (c)
20. (b) 60. (b) 100. (b)
21. (a) 61. (d) 101. (a)
22. (b) 62. (b) 102. (a)
23. (b) 63. (a) 103. (b)
24. (c) 64. (c) 104. (d)
25. (d) 65. (b) 105. (c)
26. (c) 66. (c) 106. (b)
27. (a) 67. (c) 107. (c)
28. (b) 68. (d) 108. (b)
29. (a) 69. (b) 109. (a)
30. (a) 70. (c) 110. (c)
31. (b) 71. (a) 111. (c)
32. (a) 72. (a) 112. (b)
33. (b) 73. (a) 113. (a)
34. (c) 74. (b) 114. (b)
35. (a) 75. (b) 115. (c)
36. (c) 76. (c) 116. (c)
37. (a) 77. (c) 117. (a)
38. (c) 78. (b) 118. (b)
39. (b) 79. (d) 119. (a)
40. (b) 80. (b) 120. (d)
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A VLSI DESIGN

PAPER-I
C
Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
I
ball point pen.
1. MOS stands for

a) metal oxide semiconductor
b) metal oxide segment
A c) material oxide semiconductor
d) material oxide segment
I
2. When a polysilicon crosses a diffusion _____ will be formed
C a) via
b) transistor
T
c) switch
E d) short circuit
3. Design gives the detailed

a) logic circuit design
b) topology of communication
c) colour codes of the layers
A d) functions of layers
I
4. Regularity is the ratio of
C a) total transistors in the chip to total transistors that must be designed in detail
b) total transistors that must be designed in detail to total transistors in chip
T c) total transistors to total components
d) total charge storage components to charge dissipating components
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 5. In the adder, sum is stored in

a) series
I b) cascade
c) parallel
C d) registers
T
6. Which design is preferred in n-bit adder?
E a) many pass transistors in series
b) many pass transistors with suitable buffer
c) many pass transistors without suitable buffer
d) many pass transistors in parallel
7. Multiple output domino logic has

A a) two cell manchester carry chain
b) three cell manchester carry chain
I
c) four cell manchester carry chain
C d) four cell manchester carry look ahead
T 8. Multipliers are built using

a) binary adders
E b) binary subtractors
c) dividers
d) multiplexers
9. Which method uses reduced number of partial products?

A a) baugh-wooley algorithm
b) wallace trees
I c) dadda multipliers
d) modified booth encoding
C
10. Which method is easier to manipulate accumulator content?
T
a) left shifting
E b) right shifting
c) serial shifting
d) parallel shifting
11. Which multiplier is very well suited for twos complement numbers?
a) baugh-wooley algorithm
A b) wallace trees
C
T
E
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 12. What is the delay required to perform a single operation in pipelined structure?
a) 2n
I b) 3n
c) 4n
C d) n
T
13. Latches chosen are
E a) static shift registers
b) any flip-flop
c) dynamic shift register
d) multiplexers
14. Which method reduces number of cycles of operation?

b) wallace trees
I
c) dadda multipliers
C d) modified booth encoding
T 15. The completion time for multiplication time in baugh-wooley method is

a) n
E b) 2n
c) 3n
d) 4n
16. In which method minimum number of adder cells is used?

b) wallace trees
C
17. Which method is suitable for larger operands?
T
a) baugh-wooley algorithm
E b) wallace trees
c) dadda multipliers
18. If the level of fan-out is beyond a limit in synthesis, it results in an insertion of buffer by
ultimate effect of _____ the speed.
A a) Enhancing
I b) Reducing
c) Stabilizing
T
E
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 19. Which among the following constraint/s is/are involved in a state-machine description?
a) State variable & clock
I b) State transitions & output specifications
c) Reset condition
T 20. Which among the following is/are identical in Mealy & Moore machines?
a) Combinational output signal
E
b) Clocked Process
c) Both a and b
21. Which method/s is/are adopted for acquiring spike-free outputs?

A a) Moore machine with clocked outputs
b) Mealy machine with clocked outputs
I c) Output-state machine
T 22. In SM chart for UART transmitter, which state/s indicate/s the waiting of sequential machine
for the rising edge of bit clock and the consequent clearing of low order bit of TSR in order to
E transmit logic ‘0’ for one bit time?
a) IDLE State
b) Sync State
c) Transmit_Data_State
d) All of the above
A
23. The devices which are based on fusible link or antifuse are _________time/s programmable.
I a) one
b) two
C c) four
d) infinite
T
E 24. Which among the following is/are not suitable for in-system programming?
a) EPROM
b) EEPROM
c) Flash
d) All of the above
A 25. Simple Programmable Logic Devices (SPLDs) are also regarded as _____________.
a) Programmable Array Logic (PAL)
I
b) Generic Array Logic (GAL)
C c) Programmable Logic Array (PLA)
d) All of the above
T
E
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 26. In signal integrity, which noise/s occur/s due to impedance mismatch, stubs, vias and other
interconnection discontinuities?
I a) Power/Ground Noise
b) Crosstalk Noise
C c) Reflection Noise
d) All of the above
T
E 27. In floor planning, placement and routing are __________ tools.
a) Front end
b) Back end
c) Both a and b
A 28. In floor planning, which phase/s play/s a crucial role in minimizing the ASIC area and the
interconnection density?
I a) Placement
b) Global Routing
C
c) Detailed Routing
E 29. In CMOS inverter, the propagation delay of a gate is the/an _________ transition delay time
for the signal during propagation from input to output especially when the signal changes its
value.
a) Highest
b) Average
c) Lowest
I 30. In pull-up network, PMOS transistors of CMOS are connected in parallel with the provision of
conducting path between output node & Vdd yielding _____ output.
C
a) 1
T b) 0
c) Both a and b
31. For complex gate design in CMOS, OR function needs to be implemented by _______
connection/s of MOS.
a) Series
b) Parallel
A c) Both series and parallel
I
C 32. In MOS devices, the current at any instant of time is ______of the voltage across their
terminals.
T a) constant & dependent
b) constant & independent
E c) variable & dependent
d) variable & independent
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 33. On the basis of an active load, which type of inverting CMOS amplifier represents low gain
with highly predictable small and large signal characteristics?
I a) Active PMOS load inverter
b) Current source load inverter
C c) Push-pull inverter
T
E 34. An ideal op-amp has ________
a) Infinite input resistance
b) Infinite differential voltage gain
c) Zero output resistance
d) All of the above
A 35. Stuck open (off) fault occur/s due to _________

a) An incomplete contact (open) of source to drain node
I
b) Large separation of drain or source diffusion from the gate
C c) Both a and b
T
36. Which type/s of stuck at fault model exhibit/s the reduced complexity level of test generation?
E a) Single
b) Multiple
c) Both a and b
A 37. Why is multiple stuck-at fault model preferred for DUT?

a) Because single stuck-at fault model is independent of design style & technology
I b) Because single stuck-at tests cover major % of multiple stuck-at faults & unmodeled
physical defects
C c) Because complexity of test generation is reduced to greater extent in multiple stuck-at fault
models
T
d) All of the above
E
38. Which among the following functions are performed by MSI category of IC technology?
a) Gates, Op-amps
b) Microprocessor/A/D
c) Filters
d) Memory/DSP
A
I 39. The ‘next’ statements skip the remaining statement in the ________ iteration of loop and
execution starts from first statement of next iteration of loop.
C a) Previous
b) Next
T c) Current
E
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 40. An Assert is ______ command.

a) Sequential
I b) Concurrent
c) Both a and b
T
41. Timing analysis is more efficient with synchronous systems whose maximum operating
E frequency is evaluated by the _________path delay between consecutive flip-flops.
a) shortest
b) average
c) longest
d) unpredictable
A 42. What is/are the necessity/ies of Simulation Process in VHDL?

a) Requirement to test designs before implementation & usage
I
b) Reduction of development time
C c) Decrease the time to market
d) All of the above
T
43. Why is the use of mode buffer prohibited in the design process of synthesizer?
E a) To avoid mixing of clock edges
b) To prevent the occurrence of glitches & metastability
c) Because critical path has preference in placement
d) Because Maximum ASIC vendors fail to support mode buffer in library
A 44. If a port is declared as buffer, then which problem is generated in hierarchical design due to
mapping with port of buffer mode of other entities only?
I a) Structural Modelling
b) Functional Modelling
C c) Behavioural Modelling
d) Data Flow Modelling
T
E 45. Which UART component/s divide/s the system clock to provide the bit clock with the period
equal to one bit time and Bclock x 8?
a) Baud Rate Generator
b) Transmitter Section
c) Receiver Section
d) All of the above
A
I 46. In Gray coding, when the state machine changes state, ______ bit/s in the state vector changes
the value.
C a) one
b) two
T c) four
d) eight
E
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 47. Which type of CPLD packaging comprises pins on all four sides that wrap around the edges of
chip?
I a) Plastic-Leaded Chip Carrier (PLCC)
b) Quad Flat Pack (QFP)
C c) Ceramic Pin Grid Array (PGA)
d) Ball Grid Array (BGA)
T
E 48. An antifuse element initial provides ______ between two conductors in absence of the
application of sufficient programming voltage.
a) Conduction
b) Insulation
c)Both a and b
A
49. In spartan-3 family architecture, which programmable functional element accepts two 18 bit
I
binary numbers as inputs and computes the product?
C a) Configurable Logic Blocks
b) Input Output Blocks
T c) Block RAM
d) Multiplier Blocks
E
50. Which level of routing resources are supposed to be the dedicated lines allowing output of each
tile to connect directly to every input of eight surrounding tiles?
a) Ultra-fast local resources
b) Efficient long-line resources
A c) High speed, very long-line resources
d) High performance global networks
I
51. Maze routing is also known as ________
C a) Viterbi’s algorithm
b) Lee/Moore algorithm
T
c) Prim’s algorithm
E d) Quine-McCluskey algorithm
52 Maze routing is used to determine the _______path for a single wire between a set of points, if
any path exists.
a) Shortest
b) Average
A c) Longest
C 53 In a chip, which type/s of pad design/s is/are adopted to solve the problem of pin count?
a) Input pad design
T b) Output pad design
c) Three state pad design
E
d) All of the above
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 54 The power consumption of static CMOS gates varies with the _____ of power supply voltage.
a) square
I b) cube
c) fourth power
C d) 1/8 th power
T
55 Which factor/s play/s a crucial role in determining the speed of CMOS logic gate?
E a) Load capacitance
b) Supply voltage
c) Gain factor of MOS
d) All of the above
56 In high noise margin (NMH), the difference in magnitude between the maximum HIGH output
A voltage of driving gate and the maximum HIGH voltage is recognized by the _________gate.
a) Driven
I
b) Receiving
C c) Both a and b
T
57 In CMOS circuits, which type of power dissipation occurs due to switching of transient current
E and charging & discharging of load capacitance?
a) Static dissipation
b) Dynamic dissipation
c) Both a and b
A
58 In accordance to the scaling technology, the total delay of the logic circuit depends on ______
I a) The capacitor to be charged
b) The voltage through which capacitance must be charged
C c) Available current
d) All of the above
T
E 59 In two-stage op-amp, what is the purpose of compensation circuitry?
a) To provide high gain
b) To lower output resistance & maintain large signal swing
c) To establish proper operating point for each transistor in its quiescent state
d) To achieve stable closed-loop performance
A 60 According to the principle of current mirror, if gate-source potentials of two identical MOS
I transistors are equal, then the channel currents should be _______
a) Equal
C b) Different
c) Both a and b
E
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 61 PSSR can be defined as the product of the ratio of change in supply voltage to change in output
voltage of op-amp caused by the change in power supply & _______ of op-amp.
I a) Open-loop gain
b) Closed-loop gain
C c) Both a and b
T
62 Which among the following serves as an input stage to most of the op-amps due to its
E compatibility with IC technology?
a) Differential amplifier
b) Cascode amplifier
c) Operational transconductance amplifiers (OTAs)
d) Voltage operational amplifier
A
63 Which among the following is/are responsible for the occurrence of ‘Delay Faults’?
I a) Variations in circuit delays & clock skews
b) Improper estimation of on-chip interconnect & routing delays
C c) Aging effects & opens in metal lines connecting parallel transistors
E 64 Due to the limitations of the testers, the functional test is usually performed at speed
_______the target speed.
a) Lower than
b) Equal to
c) Greater than
A
I 65 High observability indicates that ________number of cycles are required to measure the output
node value.
C a) More
b) Equal
T c) Less
E
66 Basically, an observability of an internal circuit node is a degree to which one can observe that
node at the _______ of an integrated circuit.
a) Inputs
b) Outputs
A c) Both a and b
I
67 Which of the following logic families has the shortest propagation delay?
C
a) S-TTL
T b) AS-TTL
c) HS-TTL
E d) HCMOS
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 68 An IC has …………….. size

a) Very large
I b) Large
c) Extremely small
T 69 ICs are generally made of ………………
a) Silicon
E
b) Germanium
c) Copper
70…………… ICs are the most commonly used

A a) Thin films
b) Monolithic
I c) Hybrid
C
71 The most popular form of IC package is ……………..
T
a) DIL
E b) Flat pack
c) TO-5
72 ………. cannot be fabricated on an IC

a) Transistors
A b) Diodes
c) Resistors
I d) Large inductors and transformers
C
73 An audio amplifier is an example of ………………
T a) Digital IC
b) Linear IC
E c) Both digital and linear IC
74 The active components in an IC are ………….

a) Resistors
A b) Capacitors
c) Transistors and diodes
C 75 ……………….. ICs are used in computers.
T a) Digital
b) Linear
E c) Both digital and linear
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 76 The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as ………….

a) A resistor
I b) An insulating layer
c) Mechanical output
T
77 ICs are used in ……………
E a) Linear devices only
b) Digital devices only
c) Both linear and digital devices
78 A transistor takes …………… inductor on a silicon IC chip

A a) Less space than
b) More space than
I
c) Same space as
T 79 The most popular types of ICs are …………..

a) Thin-film
E b) Hybrid
c) Thick-film
d) Monolithic
80 Digital ICs process …………….

A a) Linear signals only
b) Digital signals only
I c) Both digital and linear signals
C
T
E
81. High level of system integration, _____ interconnections
a) reduces
b) increases
c) does not affect
d) doubles
A
82. Performance is better if power speed product is
I
a) low
C b) high
c) very low
T d) very high
E
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 83. VLSI design is done in ____ approach

a) top-down
I b) bottom-up
c) random
C d) semi random
T
84. Components operating in high frequency should be
E a) far apart
b) closely spaced
c) randomly spaced
d) can be placed in straight manner
85. Approach used for design process are

A a) circuit symbols
b) logic symbols
I
c) stick diagrams
T 86. Which approach is used to show the relative disposition of subunits?

a) architectural block diagram
E b) stick diagram
c) layout diagram
d) floor plan
87. Two metal layers can be joined by using

A a) contact cut
b) wire
I c) via
d) glass
C
88. Which must be given the highest priority in design process?
T
a) architecture
E b) communication
c) colour
d) thickness
89. To minimize the design effort, regularity should be

a) low
A b) high
I c) very low
d) very high
C
T
E
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 90. Good design system has regularity in the range of

a) 10-25
I b) 25-50
c) 50-75
C d) 50-100
T
91. The shifter must be connected to
E a) 2-shift data line
b) 2-shift control line
c) 4-shift data line
d) 4-shift control line
92. Adder using ____ technology can be used for speed improvement
A a) CMOS
b) BiCMOS
I
c) nMOS
C d) pMOS
T 93. Multipliers are built using

a) binary adders
E b) binary subtractors
c) dividers
d) multiplexers
94. Which among the following is a process of transforming design entry information of the circuit
A into a set of logic equations?
a) Simulation
I b) Optimization
c) Synthesis
C d) Verification
T
95. In VLSI design, which process deals with the determination of resistance & capacitance of
E interconnections?
a) Floor planning
b) Placement & Routing
c) Testing
d) Extraction
A 96. In Net-list language, the net-list is generated _______synthesizing VHDL code.
I a) Before
b) During
C c) After
T
E
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 97. Which data type in VHDL is non synthesizable & allows the designer to model the objects of
dynamic nature?
I a) Scalar
b) Access
C c) Composite
d) File
T
E 98. In the simulation process, which step specifies the conversion of VHDL intermediate code so
that it can be used by the simulator?
a) Compilation
b) Elaboration
c) Initialization
d) Execution
A
99. Which among the following is an output generated by synthesis process?
I
a) Attributes & Library
C b) RTL VHDL description
c) Circuit constraints
T d) Gate-level net list
E 100. Which type of digital systems exhibit the necessity for the existence of at least one
feedback path from output to input?
a) Combinational System
b) Sequential system
c) Both a and b
I 101. The time required for an input data to settle _____ the triggering edge of clock is known as
‘Setup Time’.
C a) Before
b) During
T
c) After
102. Before the commencement of design, the clocking strategy determine/s __________
a) Number of clock signals necessary for routing throughout the chip
b) Number of transistors used per storage requirement
c) Power dissipated by chip & the size of chip
I
103. Which type of MOSFET exhibits no current at zero gate voltage?
C a) Depletion MOSFET
b) Enhancement MOSFET
T c) Both a and b
E
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 104. In DIBL, which among the following is/are regarded as the source/s of leakage?
a) Subthreshold conduction
I b) Gate leakage
c) Junction leakage
T
105. In testability, which terminology is used to represent or indicate the formal evidences of
E correctness?
a) Validation
b) Verification
c) Simulation
d) Integration
A 106. Which among the following faults occur/s due to physical defects?
a) Process variations & abnormalities
I
b) Defects in silicon substrate
C c) Photolithographic defects
d) All of the above
T
107. Which level of system implementation includes the specific function oriented registers,
E counters & multiplexers?
a) Module level
b) Logical level
c) Physical level
d) All of the above
A
108. Which among the following is/are taken into account for post-layout simulation?
I a) Interconnect delays
b) Propagation delays
C c) Logic cells
d) All of the above
T
E 109. Which among the following operation/s is/are executed in physical design or layout
synthesis stage?
a) Placement of logic functions in optimized circuit in target chip
b) Interconnection of components in the chip
c) Both a and b
A
I 110. In VHDL, which class of scalar data type represents the values necessary for a specific
operation?
C a) Integer types
b) Real types
T c) Physical types
d) Enumerated types
E
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 111. Common emitter transistors are

a) NPN
I b) PNP
c) RTL
C d) CMOS
T
112. Maximum number of inputs connected to gate is called
E a) fan
b) fan in
c) fan out
d) out come
113. Exceeding maximum load on circuit causes

A a) malfunction
b) high performance
I
c) low performance
C d) out come
T 114. Bipolar are constructed with

a) germanium
E b) silicon
c) copper
d) both a and b
115. Delay is measured with unit

A a) nW
b) ns
I c) mW
d) mm
C
116. No current flow in transistor is called
T
a) malfunction
E b) cut off
c) low performance
d) out come
117. Behaviour of a positive logical NAND gate in terms of low input produces a
a) low output
A b) medium output
I c) high output
d) both a and b
C
T
E
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: PG1VLS58
A 118. DTL stands for

a) Digital transistor logic
I b) Diode transistor logic
c) Digital transistor league
C d) Diode transistor league
T
119. Voltage between Vcc and Voh is referred as
E a) low level state
b) high level state
c) mid-level state
d) transition
120. ECL stands for

A a) Emitter collector league
b) Emitter coupled league
I
c) Emitter collector logic
C d) Emitter coupled logic
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
PG1VL S58
ANSWER KEY
Subject: VLSI DESIGN
Paper: 1

1. a 41 c 81. a
2. b 42 d 82. b
3. b 43 d 83. a
4. a 44 a 84. b
5. c 45 a 85. d
6. b 46 a 86. d
7. c 47 a 87. c
8. a 48 a 88. b
9. d 49 d 89. b
10. b 50 a 90. d
11. a 51 b 91. d
12. b 52 a 92. b
13. c 53 c 93. a
14. d 54 a 94. c
15. b 55 d 95. d
16. c 56 b 96. c
17. b 57 b 97. b
18. b 58 d 98. b
19. d 59 d 99. d
20. b 60 a 100. b
21. d 61 a 101. a
22. b 62 a 102. d
23. a 63 d 103. b
24. a 64 a 104. d
25. d 65 c 105. b
26. c 66 b 106. d
27. b 67 b 107. a
28. a 68 c 108. d
29. b 69 a 109. c
30. a 70 b 110. d
31. b 71 b 111. a
32. b 72 d 112. c
33. a 73 b 113. a
34. d 74 c 114. d
35. c 75 a 115. b
36. b 76 b 116. b
37. d 77 c 117. c
38. c 78 a 118. b
39. c 79 d 119. b
40. c 80 c 120. d
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A VLSI DESIGN

PAPER-II
C
Instructions:
T
wrong answer.
I
ball point pen.
1. Input offset current is basically defined as the algebraic ______ the base current of two
transistors.
a) sum of
A b) difference between
c) product of
I d) division of
C 2.Which among the following are regarded as three-pin voltage regulator ICs?
a) Fixed voltage regulators
T b) Adjustable voltage regulators
c) Both a and b
E
3In LM317 voltage regulator, what is the minimum value of voltage required between its input &
output in order to supply power to an internal circuit?
a) 1V
A b) 3V
c) 5V
I d) 10V
C 4. In LM317 voltage regulator, the protective diodes do not allow the filter capacitors to discharge
through ______current points.
T a) High
b) Low
E c) Both a and b
Page 1 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 5. In VCO IC 566, the value of charging & discharging is dependent on the voltage applied at
______.
I a) Triangular wave output
b) Square wave output
C c) Modulating input
d) All of the above
T
6. In ADC 0809 acting as a CMOS device, how many analog inputs & channel multiplexers are
E present?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
A
7.In ADCs, it is possible to reduce the quantization error by _______the number of bits.
I a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
C c) Maintaining consistency in
d) All of the above
T
8.In dual slope type of ADCs, an input hold time is _______.
E a) Almost zero
b) Higher than that of flash type ADCs
c) Longest
d) All of the above
9.Which among the following types of ADCs require/s the shortest conversion time?
A a) Flash type
b) Successive Approximation
I c) Dual Slope
10.In DACs, gain error occurs due to _________.
T
a) offset voltages of op-amps
E b) leakage current in the switches
c) error in feedback resistor value
d) error in current source resistance values
11. Now a days, MOSFETS are fabricated using a process called
a) silicon-drain technology
A b) silicon-source technology
c) silicon-body technology
I d) silicon-gate technology
C 12. Time, during transition, when output switches from 10% to 90% of maximum value is
a) fall time
T b) rise time
E c) constant time
d) pulse time
Page 2 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 13. First integrated circuits contained only a few transistors known as

a) SSI
I b) MSI
c) LSI
C d) VLSI
T 14. Drain current is proportional to charge traveling from
a) gate to source
E b) gate to drain
c) source to gate
d) source to drain
15. IN CMOS, zero gate-to-source voltage turns transistor
a) ON
A b) OFF
c) in saturation state
I
d) In infinite state
C
16. Sio2 is an excellent
T a) conductor
b) semiconductor
E c) insulator
d) photoconductor
17. CMOS gates were first invented in

a) 1947
b) 1958
A c) 1963
d) 1970
I
18. A semiconductor diode formed by junction of a semiconductor with a metal is
C
a) Zener Diode
T b) Schottky Diode
c) Shockley Diode
E d) Light Emitting Diode
19.A type of software used for IC design is

a) MATLAB
b) EAGLE
c) MICROWIND
A d) SIMULINK
I
20. Usual use of a clock signal in dynamic CMOS logic in sequential circuits is to
C a) asynchronous transitions
b) limit transitions
T c) synchronize transitions
d) constant transitions
E
Page 3 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 21. A continuous signal that contains time-varying quantities is referred as

a) Digital signal
I b) DC signal
c) AC signal
C d) Analog signal
T 22. Process in which charge particles move because of an electric field is called
a) allusion
E b) drift
c) diffusion
d) cluster
23. Digital circuits are less susceptible to noise or degradation in quality than
a) State Circuit
A b) Analog circuits
c) Discrete circuits
I
d) Power circuits
C
24.Which errors are detected using duplication codes?
T a) single errors
b) unidirectional errors
E c) bidirectional errors
d) multiple errors
25.Practical guidelines for testability aims at
a) facilitating test generation
b) facilitating test application
A c) avoiding timing problems
I
26. When a node is difficult to access
C a) sub nodes are formed
b) internal pads are added
T
c) external pads are added
E d) circuit is sub divided
27. The additional pads are accessed using
a) probers
b) selectors
c) multiplexers
A d) buffers
I 28. Which provides links between blocks of a circuit?

a) combiners
C b) wires
c) pads
T d) nodes
E
Page 4 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 29. To improve controllability and observability ______ is used

a) three pads
I b) eight transistors
c) three pads and eight transistors
C d) four pads and eight transistors
T 30. The addition of ______ improves the observability
a) adders
E b) multiplexers
c) multipliers
d) demultiplexers
31. How to reduce test time?
a) by reducing multiplexers
A
b) by reducing adders
I c) by dividing circuit into subcircuits
d) by using the whole circuit as a single system
C
32. Test generation effort for n gate circuit is proportional to
T a) n
b) n2
E c) n3
d) n2 and n3
33. Partitioning should be made on a
a) logical basis
b) functional basis
A c) time basis
I d) structural basis
34.Isolation and control is achieved using
C
a) adders
T b) buffers
c) multiplexers
E d) multipliers
35. _______ is used to start the initial sequence correctly

a) preset
b) clear
c) preset and clear
A d) clock
I 36. Preset and clear is used to
a) initialize only first sequence
C
b) correct first two sequences
T c) correct first and last sequence
d) correct alternative sequences
E
Page 5 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 37. How can over-riding the normal initialization state be achieved?

a) by adding preset
I b) by adding reset
c) by adding gating in initialize control line
C d) by adding sourcing in initialize control line
T 38. Asynchronous logic is driven by
a) clock
E b) gating circuit
c) self-clock
d) self timing
39. Which is better in terms of memory storage?
a) synchronous circuits
A b) asynchronous circuits
I c) sequential circuits
d) clocked circuits
C
40. Which circuit is faster?
T a) synchronous circuits
b) asynchronous circuits
E c) sequential circuits
d) clocked circuits
41. Which is more sensitive logic?
a) synchronous circuits
A c) sequential circuits
d) clocked circuits
I
42. Which logic is difficult to design?
C a) synchronous circuits
T
c) sequential circuits
E d) clocked circuits
43. Automatic test pattern generators depend on
a) map design
b) layout design
c) logic domain
A d) testing domain
I 44. LSSD stands for:

a) Linear system synchronous detection
C b) Level sensitive system detection
c) Level sensitive scan design
T d) Level sensitive scan detection
E
Page 6 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 45.Counters are
a) sequential circuits
I b) synchronous circuits
c) asynchronous circuits
C d) buffer circuits
T 46.Wrong readings are recorded due to reset input being
a) dependent of clock signal
E b) independent of clock signal
c) dependent of gate signal
d) independent of gate signal
47.To avoid self resetting, the tester can be over riden by adding
a) an AND gate
A b) an OR gate
I c) an EX-OR gate
d) shift registers
C
48.The fast rise and fall times give cross-talk problems if
T a) they are in close proximity
b) if they are far away
E c) it always gives rise to croo-talk problems
d) does not allow croo-talk problems
49.To route digital signals near analog signals, _______ must be done
a) balancing
b) shielding digital signals
A c) balancing and shielding
d) crossing
I
50.To access directly another system, ______ is done
C a) skipping
b) alternating
T c) by-passing
E d) by-setting
51.With partitioning, bypassing is performed using

a) buffers
b) multiplexers
c) multipliers
A d) dividers
I 52.Bypassing technique works well with

a) dividers
C b) counters
c) RAM
T d) all of the mentioned
E
Page 7 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 53.In the bypassing approach, subsystem can be tested

a) exhaustively
I b) pseudo-exhaustively
c) repeatedly
C d) selectively
T 54.Design for testability is considered in production for chips because:
a) Manufactured chips are faulty and are required to be tested
E b) The design of chips are required to be tested
c) Many chips are required to be tested within short interval of time which yields timely delivery
for the customers.
55.The functions performed during chip testing are:
A a) Detect faults in fabrication.
I b) Detect faults in design
c) Failures in functionality
T 56.ATPG stands for:

a) Attenuated Transverse wave Pattern Generation
E b) Automatic Test Pattern Generator
c) Aligned Test Parity Generator
57.Delay fault is considered as:
a) Electrical fault
A b) Logical fault
c) Physical defect
I d) None of the Mentioned
C 58.A metallic blob present between drain and the ground of the n-MOSFET inverter acts as:
T a) Physical defect
b) Logical fault as output is stuck on zero
E c) Electrical fault as resistor short
59.High resistance short present between drain and ground of n-MOSFET inverter acts as:
a) Pull up delay error
b) Logical fault as output is stuck at 1
A c) Electrical fault as transistor stuck on
I
60.The fault simulation detects faults by:
C
a) Test generation
T b) Construction of fault Dictionaries
c) Design analysis under faults
E d) All of the mentioned
Page 8 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 61.The ease with which the controller establish specific signal value at each node by setting input
values is known as:
I a) Testability
b) Observability
C c) Controllability
d) Manufacturability
T
62.The ease with which the controller determines signal value at any node by setting input values is
E known as:
a) Testability
b) Observability
c) Controllability
d) Manufacturability
A
63.The poor controllability circuits are:
I a) Decoders
b) Clock generators
C c) Circuits with feedback
T
64.The circuits with poor observability are:
E a) ROM
b) PLA
c) Sequential circuits with long feedback loops
65. Large number of input vectors are used to set a particular node (1) or (0), to propagate an error
A
at the node to output makes the circuit low on:
I a) Testability
b) Observability
C c) Controllability
T
66. Divide and Conquer approach to large and complex circuits for testing is found in:
E a) Partition and Mux Technique
b) Simplified automatic test pattern generation technique
c) Scan based technique
67.The set of design rules does not give
A
a) widths
I b) spacing
c) colours
C d) overlaps
T 68.The type of systems which are characterized by input and the output quantized at certain levels
E are called as
a) analog
Page 9 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A b) discrete
c) continuous
I d) digital
C 69.The type of systems which are characterized by input and the output capable of taking any value
in a particular set of values are called as
T a) analog
b) discrete
E c) digital
d) continuous
70. DRC stands for
a) Design Rule Checking
b) Design Random Checking
A c) Design Relocation Checking
d) Design Register Checking
I
71.A type of analog electronic filter that uses active components such as an amplifier to avoid use
C
of inductor is known as
T a) Active filter
b) Passive filter
E c) Accurate filter
d) Continuous filter
72. Characteristic which gives response of inverter circuit to specific input voltages is
a) current transfer characteristics
b) voltage transfer characteristics
A c) power transfer characteristics
d) resistance transfer characteristics
I
73.SoC' stands for
C a) System on chip
b) System on capacitor
T c) Synthesis on chip
E d) System of chip
74. Wafer is also called slice or
a) substrate
b) silicon
c) disk
A d) crisp
I 75. To create logic gates, digital circuits use

a) transistors
C b) resistors
c) capacitors
T d) inductors
E
Page 10 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 76. Technology in which use of a layered silicon-insulator-silicon substrate in place of

conventional silicon substrates in semiconductor manufacturing is referred as
I a) SOI
b) SOS
C c) IOI
d) SiO
T
77. Clock that transmit all clock signals on (effectively) 1 wire is
E a) Single phase clock
b) Two phase clock
c) Three phase clock
d) Four phase clock
A 78. Components incapable of controlling current by means of another electrical signal are called
a) Active devices
I b) Passive devices
c) Accurate devices
C d) Continuous devices
T 79. An example of a discrete set of information/system is
a) the trajectory of the Sun
E b) data on a CD
c)universe time scale
d)movement of water through a pipe
80. A system which is linear is said to obey the rules of

a) scaling
A
b) additivity
I c) both scaling and additivity
d) homogeneity
C
PART - B (40 x 2= 80 Marks)
T
E 81.Which among the following serves as an input stage to most of the op-amps due to its
compatibility with IC technology?
a) Differential amplifier
b) Cascode amplifier
c) Operational transconductance amplifiers (OTAs)
d) Voltage operational amplifier
A
82. PSSR can be defined as the product of the ratio of change in supply voltage to change in output
I voltage of op-amp caused by the change in power supply & _______ of op-amp.
a) Open-loop gain
C
b) Closed-loop gain
T c) Both a and b
E
Page 11 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 83. According to the principle of current mirror, if gate-source potentials of two identical MOS
transistors are equal, then the channel currents should be _______
I a) Equal
b) Different
C c) Both a and b
T
84. In two-stage op-amp, what is the purpose of compensation circuitry?
E a) To provide high gain
b) To lower output resistance & maintain large signal swing
c) To establish proper operating point for each transistor in its quiescent state
d) To achieve stable closed-loop performance
85.An ideal op-amp has ________
A a) Infinite input resistance
I b) Infinite differential voltage gain
c) Zero output resistance
T 86. On the basis of an active load, which type of inverting CMOS amplifier represents low gain
with highly predictable small and large signal characteristics?
E a) Active PMOS load inverter
b) Current source load inverter
c) Push-pull inverter
87. In MOS devices, the current at any instant of time is ______of the voltage across their
A terminals.
a) constant & dependent
I b) constant & independent
C c) variable & dependent
d) variable & independent
T
88.Which among the following is/are regarded as an/the active resistor/s?
E a) MOS diode
b) MOS transistor
c) MOS switch
d) All of the above
89.Which among the following can be regarded as an/the application/s of MOS switch in an IC
A design?
a) Multiplexing & Modulation
I
b) Transmission gate in digital circuits
C c) Simulation of a resistor
d) All of the above
T
E
Page 12 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 90.Unipolar belongs to ________technology/ies of integrated circuits.

a) Hybrid
I b) Monolithic
c) Both a and b
T 91.Which among the following is/are the feature/s characteristic/s of an integrated op-amp?
a) Small size
E b) High reliability
c) Low cost & less power consumption
d) All of the above
92. In a typical op-amp, which stage is supposed to be a dual-input unbalanced output or single-
ended output differential amplifier?
A a) Input stage
b) Intermediate stage
I
c) Output stage
C d) Level shifting stage
93.The serial shift register is driven using
T a) one over-lapping clock
E b) two over-lapping clock
c) one non over-lapping clock
d) two non over-lapping clock
94.Which is used to control the scan path movement?
a) clock signals
b) input signals
A
c) output signals
I d) delay signals
95.The circuit operation is independent of
C
a) rise time
T b) fall time
c) propagation delays
E d) all of the mentioned
96.Which is not the function of LSSD method?
a) eliminates hazards
b) eliminates races
c) simplifies fault generation
A d) stores the data
I 97. Boundary scan test is used to test
a) pins
C b) multipliers
T c) boards
d) wires
E
Page 13 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 98.The boundary scan path is provided with

a) serial input pads
I b) parallel input pads
c) parallel output pads
C d) buffer pads
T 99.The boundary scan path tests the
a) input nodes
E b) output nodes
c) buffer nodes
d) interconnection points
100. The partial scan approach scan
a) all input node faults
A b) all output node faults
I c) faults not detected by designer functional vector
d) all faults
C 101. In scan/set method, __________ is used to implement a scan path
T a) serial registers
b) storage elements
E c) parallel registers
d) separate register
102. Built-in self test aims to
a) reduce test pattern generation cost
b) reduce volume of test data
A c) reduce test time
I
103. In data compression technique, comparison is done on
C a) test response
b) entire test data
T c) data inputs
d) output sequences
E
104. Signature analysis performs
a) addition
b) multiplication
c) polynomial division
d) amplifies
A
105. In which mode, storage elements are used independently?
I a) normal mode
C b) test 1 mode
c) test 2 mode
T d) final mode
Page 14 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 106.Self-checking technique consists of

a) supplying coded input data
I b) receiving coded output data
c) supplying all possible input sequence
T 107.The type of error in self-checking technique are
a) simple error
E b) unidirectional error
c) multiple error
108.The parity check detection is done using
a) OR gate
A b) AND gate
c) XOR gate
I
d) NOR gate
C 109.What is the value for peripheral capacitance for 5 micron technology?
T a) 4 x 10(-4) pf/µm2
b) 5 x 10(-4) pf/µm2
E c) 8 x 10(-4) pf/µm2
d) 12 x 10(-4) pf/µm2
110.1 square Cg is ______ of MOS transistor
a) gate to source capacitance
b) gate to drain capacitance
A c) source to drain capacitance
d) gate to channel capacitance
I
111.What is the delay value Ʈ for 1.2 micron technology?
C a) 0.1 nsec
b) 0.12 nsec
T
c) 0.046 nsec
E d) 0.064 nsec
112.Which is used to increase Ʈ?
a) parasitic capacitance
b) peripheral capacitance
c) area capacitance
A d) load capacitance
I 113.The impedance ratio for pseudo - nMOS is

a) 4:1
C b) 3:1
c) 1:4
T d) 1:3
E
Page 15 of 16
ROLL NO.: PG2VLS58
A 114.Propogation delay is given by

a) nrcƮ
I b) n2rcƮ
c) nr2cƮ
C d) n2Cʈ
T 115. In which design all circuitry and all interconnections are designed?
a) full custom design
E b) semi-custom design
c) gate array design
d) transistor design
116. Which design contains only the interconnections designed?
a) full custom design
A b) semi-custom design
c) gate array design
I
C 117.In which method regularity is used to reduce complexity?
a) random approach
T
b) hierarchical approach
E c) algorithmic approach
d) semi-design approach
118.Size of the die is determined using
a) transistor size
b) inverter size
A c) area of the circuitry
d) length of the circuitry
I
119.Which design is faster?
C a) full custom design
b) semi-custom design
T c) gate array design
E
120.Which has relatively low-level capabilities?
a) hand-crafted designs
b) computer assisted textual entry
c) computer assisted graphical entry
A d) silicon compiler-based design
I
C
T
E
Page 16 of 16
PG2VLS58
ANSWER KEY
Subject: VLSI DESIGN
Paper: 2

1. b 41 b 81. a
2. c 42 b 82. a
3. b 43 c 83. a
4. b 44 c 84. d
5. c 45 a 85. d
6. c 46 b 86. a
7. a 47 b 87. b
8. b 48 a 88. a
9. a 49 c 89. d
10. c 50 c 90. b
11. d 51 b 91. d
12. b 52 d 92. b
13. a 53 a 93. d
14. d 54 c 94. a
15. a 55 d 95. d
16. c 56 b 96. d
17. c 57 b 97. c
18. b 58 d 98. a
19. c 59 a 99. d
20. c 60 d 100. c
21. d 61 c 101. d
22. b 62 b 102. d
23. b 63 d 103. a
24. d 64 c 104. c
25. d 65 a 105. a
26. b 66 a 106. a
27. a 67 c 107. d
28. d 68 b 108. c
29. c 69 d 109. c
30. d 70 a 110. d
31. c 71 a 111. c
32. d 72 b 112. a
33. a 73 a 113. b
34. c 74 a 114. b
35. c 75 a 115. a
36. a 76 a 116. c
37. c 77 a 117. b
38. d 78 b 118. c
39. a 79 b 119. c
40. b 80 c 120. b

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ROLL NO.

BIO MEDICAL ENGINEERING

8. The process of converting discrete-time continuous valued signal into discrete-time

10. Which of the following series has an ROC as mentioned below?

11. Which of the following is a method for implementing an FIR system?

18. Wavelet series equation is sum of

21. What is the next step in image processing after compression?

26. Of the following, _________ has the maximum frequency.

31. Which of the following is a second-order derivative operator?

T 33. What is the difference between Convolution and Correlation?

42. Which of the following filtering is done in frequency domain corresponding to

T 43. Which of the following fact is true for an image?

63. True error is defined as

E 65. The number 0.01850×10-3has ________ significant digits

66. Truncation error is caused by approximating

73. In Simpson’s 1/3 rule, the number of interval’s must be

I 77. In Runge-Kutta Method of second order the value of y= _________ .

E 78. Sources of secondary data are:

79. Classifying the data on time basis is known as:

I 80. Standard Deviation is used to know the _________

Part-B (40x2 = 80Marks)

85. What is the nyquist rate of the signal x(t)=3cos(50*pi*t)+10sin(300*pi*t)-

A 87. What is the ROC of the signal x(n)=δ(n-k), k>0?

98. Which of the following is impractical to measure?

99. Region of Interest (ROI) operations is commonly called as ___________

(a) Sharpening spatial filter

103. Dark characteristics in an image are better solved using ___________

E 107. Nearest neighbor Interpolation has an undesirable feature, that is _________

117. If h = interval on x-axis, the order of error in trapezoidal formula is:

118. Difference between Taylor and Runge Kutta method is

120. Double integration in variables x and y

BIO MEDICAL ENGINEERING

5. Which is not a method to improve signal to noise ratio?

8. LVDT stands for _________

10. Which of the following is a material employed making diaphragm to measure

13. The lower temperature junction in thermocouple is maintained at ________

15. Optical fibers are not immune to ________

18. Home blood glucose sensor works on which principle?

21. Which of the following component is not a part of passive filter?

26. Closeness of a calibration curve to a specified curve for an inherently nonlinear

E 28. Which of the following is not a dynamic property?

31. Which of the following is not a piezo-electric material?

42. Threshold of Perception of ac mains electric shock is of the order of

43. The organ most affected by electric currents is

45. Leakage current flows due to finite amount of insulation _____________

T 49. Hospital situation is different from normal situation because in hospital

53. Above the Let Go current the patient

56. The threshold of perception depends greatly on

58. Fatal electric accidents in hospitals result due to

59. A cardiac catheter may lead to

70. A type of biopolymer with short polymers of amino acids is

A 75. Type of biocomposites that consists of a matrix reinforced by a dispersed phase in

C 78. A type of biopolymer with long polymers composed of 13 or more nucleotide

PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)

E 82. What is most difficult in development of a medical instrument?

83. A medical instrument has the prime requirement of

86. What is the principle behind photoelectric transducers?

85. What is the nyquist rate of the signal x(t)=3cos(50pit)+10sin(300pit)-