Commercial Pilots License - Radio Aids (Typical Questions)

COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – RADIO AIDS (Typical Questions)
RADIO AIDS
TYPICAL QUESTIONS
JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – RADIO AIDS PAGE 1 of 60

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1. In which frequency does the VOR operate?
a) VHF.
b) UHF.
c) VLF.
2. What does the relative bearing indicator of an ADF indicate?
a) The bearing of the NDB relative to True North.

b) The bearing of the NDB relative to Magnetic North.
c) The bearing of the NDB to the nose of the aircraft.
3. The international distress frequencies are:
a) 500 kHz 121.5 MHz 8364 MHz

b) 243 kHz 121.5 MHz 8364 kHz
c) 500 kHz 121.5 MHz 8364 kHz
4. From where can ATIS information be received?
a) From the ILS transmission.

b) At all times from any VOR transmission.
c) At certain times from airfield’s VOR’s.
5. AT what height above ILS reference point does CAT 1 ILS cease to give accurate
guidance?
a) 100 feet.
b) 150 feet.
c) 200 feet.
6. During an ILS approach, having passed the outer marker, the glide slope shows
2 dots fly up on a 5-dot indicator. What would your immediate reaction be?
a) Execute the missed approach procedure.

b) Fly up.
c) Fly level until the glide path is regained, then continue descending.
7. The rate of descend required to stay on the ILS glide path:
a) Will be determined by the TAS.

b) Must be increased if the ground speed decreases.
c) Decreases if the ground speed decreases.
8. The “squelch” control on a VHF communication receiver:
a) Extends the range of the receiver.

b) Prevents feedback.
c) Disables receiver output when no signals are being received so preventing
noise being fed to crew headsets.

9. What is the result of flying towards an NDB with a 000-degree relative bearing and a
crosswind?
a) The heading remains constant.

b) The aircraft’s track curves to the downwind side of the NDB.
c) The aircraft’s track curves to the upwind side of the NDB.
10. No.1 Pointer of a RMI is tuned to a VOR; No. 2 Pointer is tuned to a co-located
NDB.
a) Point in exactly the same direction.

b) Point in different directions, due to the difference in variation between the
aircraft and the transmitters.
c) Point in different 5 directions because VOR uses the VHF band and the NDB
uses LF/MF.
11. When using HF communication at night the pilot should select a frequency which is:
a) Half the day frequency.

b) Twice the day frequency.
c) Same frequency for day and night operation.
12. Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
a) Slant range, distance in nautical miles.

b) Slant range, distance in statute miles.
c) Line of sight, direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in statute miles.
13. How many Omega stations are used for world coverage and how long is the
transmission cycle?
a) 9 stations and 10 seconds.

b) 8 stations and 10 seconds.
c) 10 stations and 8 seconds.
14. With reference to the ILS, false glide paths are:
a) Extremely dangerous to the pilot.

b) Not dangerous to the pilot.
c) Do not exist.
15. With reference to ATC transponders, Mode C is used for:
a) Automatic Altitude reporting.

b) Identification.
c) Automatic airspeed reporting.

16. What should the length of a transmitter and receiver aerial be ideally?
a) Equal to the power.

b) At least 10 meters.
c) Equal to the wavelength.
17. Up to what range are ILS localiser signals protected from interference?
a) 10 NM and 6250 feet Alt.

b) 25 NM and 35 degrees.
c) 25 NM and 6250 feet Alt.
18. The outer marker of the ILS system is keyed to transmit which of the following
identification signals:
a) A series of dots.
b) A series of dashes.
c) Alternate dots and dashes.
19. When on the approach to a runway equipped with an ILS facility, what colour light
will flash when passing over the outer marker?
a) Blue.
b) White.
c) Amber.
20. What minimum angular displacement, below or above an ILS glide path would
produce full-scale deflection on an ILS indicator?
a) 0.35 degrees.
b) 0.7 degrees.
c) 1.05 degrees.
21. Ground wave attenuation is greatest on:
a) VLF.
b) MF.
c) HF.
22. What rate of descent is required to maintain a 3-degree glide path of TAS is 130 kts
and there is a wind component of 10 kts?
a) 400 ft/min.
b) 500 ft/min.
c) 600 ft/min.

23. An ILS glide path can be between:
a) 2-4 degrees.
b) 2.3-3.7 degrees.
c) Above 6 degrees.
24. At 1600 UTC, NDB SL bears 091° Relative by ADF.

At 1604 UTC, NDB SL bears 103° Relative by ADF.
If the heading is altered at 1604 GMT to fly direct to SL, what will the ETA be if
TAS is 150?
a) 1616 UTC.
b) 1620 UTC.
c) 1624 UTC.
25. With reference to Q24, what is the distance of the aircraft from SL at 1604 GMT?
a) 66 NM.
b) 58 NM.
c) 50 NM.
26. If the transmission frequency is 95 MHz, what is the wavelength in metres?
a) 2.75
b) 3.15
c) 4.10
27. On an ILS approach to RWY 28 using a CDI, you are overhead the outer marker
inbound. The OBS is set to 250°. What left/right indication would you expect on the
CDI?
a) Fly left.
b) Needle central.
c) Fly right.
28. Which transponder codes should you take caution not to switch through while
changing codes?
a) 0700 7700 7600

b) 7700 7600 7500
c) 0000 3100 7700
29. Which DME indication would you expect when you are overhead a VORTAC at 6
000 feet?
a) 0 NM.
b) 1 NM.
c) 1.3 NM.

30. The DME frequency band is:
a) VLF
b) VHF
c) UHF
31. A VOR station has the IDENT POV.

A frequency paired DME station has the IDENT POZ.
a) They are co-located and may be used tighter.

b) They serve the same location and may be used together.
c) They are at entirely different locations.
32. A DME transponder becomes saturated:
a) When it is raining.
b) When it is interrogated by more than 85 aircraft.
c) When it is interrogated by more than 100 aircraft.
33. With reference to ASR weather radar, the conical pencil beam gives a greater range
than the mapping beam. This statement is:
a) False.
b) Both beams give the same range.
c) True.
34. Operation of the weather radar on the ground is:
a) Totally prohibited.
b) Can be used in maintenance areas only.
c) Permitted with extreme caution.
35. ASR weather radar operates at Super High Frequencies because:
a) Short wavelengths give good reflections from large water drops.

b) It enables the equipment to be small enough to fit into the nose cone of an
aircraft.
c) Narrow beams can be produced at SHF.
36. An aircraft DME receiver rejects pulses meant for other aircraft because:
a) The transmission and reply frequencies are 63 MHz apart.

b) The random PRF is unique to each aircraft.
c) The pulses are transmitted in pairs.
37. The iso-echo contour system is used by weather radar to:
a) Enable all clouds to be painted the same brightness regardless of range.

b) To enable the pilot to avoid dangerous areas in clouds.
c) Reduces receiver sensitivity as a transmission pulse leaves the aircraft.

38. The weather beam of ASR weather radar is:
a) A conical pencil beam.

b) A cosecant beam.
c) A cosecant pencil beam.
39. The mapping beam of ASR weather radar is:
a) A conical pencil beam.

b) A cosecant beam.
c) A cosecant pencil beam.
40. With reference to SSR, the spacing of the interrogation pulses of Modes A, B and C
are:
a) 8 µs 17 µs 25 µs
b) 8 µs 17 µs 21 µs
c) 17 µs 21 µs 25 µs
41. The frequencies used by SSR are:
a) Interrogation 1090 MHz Replay 1030 MHz

b) Interrogation 1030 MHz Replay 1213 kHz
c) Interrogation 1030 MHz Replay 1090 MHz
42. The conical pencil beam of a weather radar is 5 degrees and the beam is tilted 4
degrees up. At this setting the tops of a cloud at range 70 NM just disappear. What
is the approximate height of the cloud tops above the aircraft’s altitude?
a) 7 800 feet.
b) 9 400 feet.
c) 10 800 feet.
43. The length of an ATC transponder framing pulse is:
a) 4.35 µs
b) 20.3 µs
c) 25 µs
44. The transponder IDENT button is used:
a) On initial contact with ATC.

b) When requested by ATC only.
c) When changing codes.

45. Radio Altimeter errors are:
a) Mushing and Phase errors.

b) Fixed and Mushing errors.
c) Fixed and Phase errors.
46. The main weather radar transmission is:
a) Narrow beam vertically, wide beam horizontally.

b) Wide beam vertically, narrow beam horizontally.
c) A narrow beam in both planes.
47. The ILS localiser pattern consists of two overlapping lobes:
a) On the same UHF frequency but with different modulations.

b) On the same VHF frequency but with different modulations.
c) On different UHF frequencies but with the same modulations.
48. Why is it that DME airborne equipment is unaffected by the primary echoes of its
own transmissions?
a) Primary echoes are not vertically polarized.

b) Each aircraft transmits a unique PRF.
c) Primary echoes are not at the receiver frequency.
49. Night effect which causes problems when using ADF at night:
a) Results from sky wave interference from other NDB’s.

b) Can be reduced by narrowing the pass band of the receiver.
c) Is caused by contamination of the ground wave by the sky wave.
50. Radio altimeter, operating by means of FMCW, measure height above the ground
from:
a) The difference between transmitted and received frequencies.

b) The time interval between the transmission of the pulses and the reception of
their reflections from the ground.
c) The change of frequency, using Doppler principles.
51. The frequency used by the DME transponder when compared with the frequency of
interrogation:
a) Is always 63 MHz lower.

b) Is always 63 MHz higher.
c) May be higher or lower by 63 MHz.

52. A radar installation transmits on a carrier frequency of 1030 MHz.

If the pulse width is 2 micro-seconds the number of cycles of the carrier frequency
that will be transmitted in each pulse is:
a) 2060 cycles.
b) 3090 cycles.
c) 3250 cycles.
53. Primary radar operates at a PRF of 600 PPS (pulses per second).
The maximum range of the radar is:
a) 135 NM.
b) 250 NM.
c) 500 NM.
54. An airfield Surveillance radar is required to operate at a minimum range of

0.125 nms. The maximum pulse width of the transmission is:
a) 3 µs.
b) 2 µs.
c) 1µs.
55. An aircraft receives a reply from a DME (fixed delay 50 us) 795 us after transmission
of the interrogation pulse. The slant range of the aircraft is:
a) 60 NM.
b) 112 NM.
c) 120 Nm.
56. A Radio Altimeter is frequency modulated at 20 Hz per nano-second. If the

transmitted frequency is 4332.295975 MHz and the received frequency is
4332.274825 MHz, the absolute altitude of the aircraft is:
a) 520 ft.
b) 740 ft.
c) 1040 ft.
57. A radio altimeter is frequency modulated at 20 HZ per nano-second. If the height of

the aircraft is 450 ft above the ground the difference between the transmitted and
received frequencies is:
a) 18 293 Hz
b) 25 626 Hz.
c) 9 150 Hz.

58. An aircraft flying towards a stationary transmitter measures a frequency shift of 2015
Hz. If the transmission frequency is 4.75 GHz, the aircraft’s GS is:
a) 215 knots.
b) 248 knots.
c) 264 knots.
59. An increase in frequency in the HF band will cause the critical angle to ……… and
the skip distance to………….:
CRITICAL ANGLE: SKIP DISTANCE:
a) INCREASE INCREASE
b) INCREASE DECREASE
c) DECREASE DECREASE
60. The weather radar is operating with the gyrostabiliser on. The aircraft is climbing
through 4 000 ft at a deck angle of 6°. If the beam width is 3.5° and a cloud top is
detected at 23 NM at a scanner tilt of 4° up, the cloud top will be at approximately:
a) 9 000 feet AMSL.

b) 13 000 feet AMSL.
c) 20 000 feet AMSL.
61. Surface attenuation:
a) Is lower in the HF range than in the VHF range.

b) Is lower in the VLF range than in the LF range.
c) Is very high in the UHF range.
62. The error in ADF bearings due to coastal refraction increases:
i) At low altitude
ii) When the radio wave crosses the coast at a shallow angle
iii) When the NDB is close to the coast
a) (i) and (ii) only are true

b) (ii) and (iii) only are true.
c) All are true.
63. Pulse width determines:
a) PRF
b) Minimum range.
c) Azimuth resolution.

64. The tilt angle of weather radar is +3.5°, beam width 5° and the range to the cloud
base is 70 NM. The approximate height of the cloud above the aircrafts level is:
a) 5 300 ft.
b) 7 296 ft.
c) 7 429 ft.
65. An aircraft at 36 000 feet is at DME 16 from a station situated at sea level. The
ground distance to the station is:
a) 14.86 NM.
b) 15.24 NM.
c) 16.45 NM.
66. An aircraft which is SW of a VOR transmitter is heading 215° (M). The OBS is set to
030°. The CDI indicates 2 dots “fly right”. The flag indicates “TO”. The aircraft is on
the:
a) 206° radial.
b) 211° radial.
c) 214° radial.
67. An ILS category 1 localiser coverage extends from the transmitter and 10° either
side of the centre line up to a distance of:
a) 17 NM,
b) 25 NM.
c) 35 NM.
68. The ability of a weather radar to show separately clouds in azimuth will depend on:
a) The range of the clouds.

b) The pulse length.
c) The PRF.
69. Ionosphere attenuation is greater at:
a) Low frequencies at mid-day.

b) High frequencies at mid-night.
c) Low frequencies at mid-night.
70. At what range would an aircraft at FL 225 expect first to be in communication with a
VHF station at 400 feet Above Mean Sea Level?
a) 190 NM.
b) 212 NM.
c) 230 NM.

71. Single side band (suppressed carrier) transmission have the following advantages
when compared with double sideband:
a) Narrower bandwidth and greater range for the same power.

b) Broader bandwidth, reduced interference and increase power.
c) Narrower bandwidth and many times greater power.
72. VHF communication frequencies are:
a) 118 to 136 MHz.

b) 108 to 112 MHz.
c) 108 to 117.95 MHz.
73. What are the indications at the ILS outer marker?
a) Blue light, low pitch and dashes.

b) Amber light, high pitch and dashes.
c) Amber light, low pitch and dashes.
74. While on a heading of 210° (M) and turned to a VOR, with 235 on the OBS, the
TO/FROM indicator reads TO and the left/right needle is displaced close to the
maximum left deflection position. The approximate position of the aircraft in relation
to the VOR is on radial:
a) 045°
b) 235°
c) 055°
75. A radio facility transmits on a frequency of 75 MHz. The wavelength and frequency
band are:
a) 4 metres HF.
b) 40 metres VHF.
c) 4 metres VHF.
76. The coverage of an ILS Localizer in the UK extends to …….. degrees either side of
the on course line to a range of ………. nautical miles.
a) 10 degrees 35 NM.
b) 35 degrees 10 NM.
c) 35 degrees 17 NM.
77. An ILS Glide Path with a 3.5° glide angle will have lower and upper limits of:
a) 1.575 degrees and 6.125 degrees.

b) 3.150 degrees and 3.850 degrees.
c) 1.225 degrees and 7.700 degrees.

78. The special Mode A codes 7500, 7600 and 7700 are used respectively for the
following situations:
a) Distress, Radio Failure, Hi-jack.

b) Unlawful Interference, Radio Failure, Aircraft Emergency.
c) Radio Failure, Unlawful Interference, Distress.
79. Secondary Surveillance Radar operates in the ……….. frequency band.
a) VHF.
b) UHF.
c) SHF.
80. Mode C replies are based on what datum?
a) Ground level.
b) Mean Sea Level.
c) 1013.25 hPa.
81. What OBS selection should be made to fly the aircraft from the present position to
overhead the VOR?
a) 314°
b) 122°
c) 302°
82. When using a Non A2A type NDB, the BFO should be ……….. for tuning and
……….. for identification.
TUNING: IDENTIFICATION:
a) OFF OFF
b) ON OFF
c) ON ON
83. The frequency band normally associated with an ILS localiser is:
a) 108,0 – 119,0 MHz;

b) 118,0 – 135,975 MHz;
c) 108,1 – 111,95 MHz.

84. Marker beacons associated with ILS have the following characteristics:
i) They transmit a conical beam of radio energy upwards.

ii) They all transmit on a frequency of 75 MHz.
iii) They carry an audio signal by frequency modulation.
iv) They cause the marker lights to flash simultaneously with the audio signal.
a) (i) and (iii) are true.

b) (ii) and (iii) are true.
c) (ii) and (iv) are true.
85. Which radio navigation aids use pulse modulation?
a) DME and SSR.

b) AWR and DME.
c) SSR and VOR.
86. The maximum power output of an NDB is about ………….., giving a maximum range
of about………
POWER: RANGE:
a) 300 watts 200 NM

b) 10 kilowatts 500 NM
c) 1 kilowatt Depends on aircraft height.
87. Sky waves occur in the LF and MF bands by night but not by day. This is because:
a) The D layer is stronger by night than by day.

b) The E layer is stronger by night than by day.
c) There is no D layer by night.
88. On an electrostatic CRT, focus control is achieved by varying the voltage at the
……… and brilliance control is achieved by varying the voltage at the ……….
FOCUS: BRILLIANCE:
a) 2nd anode X plates

b) Grid Cathode
c) 2nd anode Grid
89. Modern CW radio altimeters operate by means of ………. modulation and indicate
height up to ………… AGL.
a) Pulse, 50 000 feet.

b) Frequency, 5 000 feet.
c) Pulse, 10 000 feet.

90. International DME operates in the ………………. frequency band and

uses………..radar principles.
a) VHF, Primary.
b) UHF, Secondary.
c) SHF, Secondary.
91. The total system error of DME is designed to be no greater than:
a) + ½ Nm or + 3% of distance measured.
b) +1 NM or + 1% of distance measured.
c) +2 NM or + 2 % of distance measured.
92. Reports of GPWS Alerts and Warnings should state whether they are False,
Nuisance or Genuine. A warning is false if:
a) It is accordance with GPWS technical specifications but the pilot is flying an

accepted safe procedure.
b) It is not in accordance with GPWS technical specifications.
c) In the opinion of the pilot the warning is unnecessary.
93. A radar installation is designed to operate at a maximum range of 250 NM. Three
tenths of the CRT cycle is required for fly back. The Pulse Recurrence Frequency
is:
a) 463 pulses per second.

b) 454 pulses per second.
c) 227 pulses per second.
94. An airborne weather radar has the following characteristics:
Wavelength 3.2 cm.

Pulse width 2.2 microseconds.
Pulse recurrence frequency 400 pulses per second.
The theoretical minimum range of the radar is:
a) 330 metres.
b) 480 meters.
c) 660 meters.
95. An airborne weather radar has a Pulse Recurrence Frequency of 295 pulses per
second. If the pulse width is 2.2 micro-second, the maximum effective range is:
a) 275 NM
b) 260 NM
c) 245 NM

96. A radio altimeter is Frequency Modulated at 20 Hz per nano-seconds. The

transmission frequency is 4320.875358 MHz and the received frequency is
4320.867284 MHz.
The height of the aeroplane above the ground is:
a) 198.5 ft
b) 297.9 ft.
c) 397.2 ft.
97. An aeroplane heading 030°(M) intercepts the 053°(M) outbound track from an NDB,
drift 5° left. The relative bearing of the NDB at track interception is:
a) 198°
b) 203°
c) 208°
98. Full scale deflection of an ILS CDI glide slope needle occurs when the aeroplane is
above or below the glide path by at least:
a) 0.35 degrees.
b) 0.07 degrees.
c) 2.50 degrees.
99. The time spent flying through the cone of ambiguity of a VOR or NDB depends on
the aircraft’s:
a) Heading and TAS.

b) Track and ground speed.
c) Altitude and ground speed.
100. An aeroplane is en route from Waypoint 5 to Waypoint 6, track 210°(M) distance 155
NM.
Waypoint 6 is POL VORTAC radial 158 at 160 DME.
At 1547Z the aeroplane is on POL VORTAC radial 120 at 122 DME.
The RNAV CDI (5 DOT) indication would be:
a) 4 Dots left of centre.

b) 1 Dot right of centre.
c) 4 Dot right of centre.
101. An aeroplane receives a reply pulse from a DME transmitter

563 micro-seconds after transmission of the interrogation pulse. If the DME station
has a fixed delay of 50 micro-seconds the slant of the aeroplane is:
a) 21 NM.
b) 42 NM.
c) 83 NM.

102. An aeroplane is flying directly towards a stationary transmitter at GS 458 knots. If

the transmission frequency is 13 500 MHz, the Doppler frequency shift measured at
the aeroplane is:
a) 9 380 Hz.
b) 10 610 Hz.
c) 11 470 Hz.
103. The brilliance of a CRT (Cathode Ray Tube) display is controlled by the:
a) Grid.
b) 2nd Anode.
c) 1st & 3rd Anodes.
104. The VOR variable of directional signal is:
a) An unmodulated rotating signal.

b) A Limacon.
c) A 9960 Hz sub-carrier amplitude modulated at 30 Hz.
105. An aircraft is flying from VORTAC SLV to VORTAC VWV. The ADF, which is tuned
to NDB SL (co-located with VORTAC SLV), gives a RMI reading of 273°. Both
“NAV” receivers are tuned to VORTAC SLV.
No. 1 CDI OBS set reads 2 DOTS LEFT of centre.
No. 2 CDI OBS 265 set reads 4 DOTS RIGHT of centre. The correct reading is:
a) No. 1.
b) No. 2.
c) Both are correct.
106. The characteristics of the reference signal of a VOR transmitter are:
a) Amplitude modulated at 30 Hz and a rotating figure of eight radiation.

b) Frequency modulated at 150 Hz and a conical radiation.
c) Frequency modulated at 30 Hz and an omni-directional radiation.
107. The VOR indications if the OBS is set on 170° and the reference signal is leading
the variable signal by 354° are:
a) To :2 dots Fly RIGHT.

b) FROM :2 dots Fly LEFT.
c) FROM :5 dots Fly LEFT.
108. An aircraft is heading 135° M in order to maintain the 125 QDR on ADF. After 10
minutes the beacon bears 165°. This indicates that:
a) The pilot has overestimated starboard drift.

b) The pilot has underestimated starboard drift.
c) The pilot has underestimated port drift.

109. An aircraft DME indicates 60.13 NM, while Omega indicates 60 NM. The
approximate height of the aircraft is:
a) 22 000 feet.
b) 24 000 feet.
c) 26 000 feet.
110. An ILS with a 3.25° glideslope has a middle marker 4.6 NM from touchdown. The
height over the NM when on glideslope should be:
a) 1 515 ft.
b) 600 ft.
c) 812 ft.
111. An aircraft has maximum safe fly up deviation at 3.3 NM from the runway threshold
using a 2.9° glideslope. The pilot makes no correction. The height above an
obstacle 132 ft above airfield elevation at 2.6 NM from the runway threshold will be:
a) 724 ft.
b) 669 ft.
c) 540 ft.
112. When a pilot is on an ILS approach the 150 Hz (Blue) sector is:
a) Always on the right hand side of the runway as seen by the pilot on the
approach.
b) Always on the left-hand side of the runway as seen by the pilot on the
approach.
c) Possibly on either side as seen by the pilot on the approach.
113. For a given airspeed, the angle of lead:
a) Decreases as distance from the station increases.

b) Increases as distance from the station increases.
c) Is constant for a constant airspeed regardless of distance.
114. In the Ionosphere the F layer:
a) Is the lowest ionised layer.

b) May be split into two layers by day.
c) Disappears at night.
115. With regard to type of transmission, it is true to say that:
a) Continuous wave transmission varies only in amplitude.

b) Pulse transmission is suitable only for periodic NDB’s.
c) In pulse transmission the frequency is modulated to facilitate range
measurement.

116. An A3E emission is associated with:
a) VOR.
b) HF (communications).
c) VHF (communications).
117. For a long range NDB’s the most common type is:
a) LF NON A1A.
b) LF NON A2A.
c) MF NON A1A.
118. The erratic change in received radio signals known as fading can be caused by:
a) Increasing distance from the transmitter.

b) Rays from the sun heating the ionosphere during the day.
c) Mixed skywave and groundwave reception.
119. A radio wave increases speed when crossing the coast, leaving the land and
passing over the sea. When this happens, there is a change in:
a) The wavelength.
b) The frequency.
c) Neither a or b.
120. The term “Mode” when used in conjunction with ATC Surveillance Radar refers to:
a) An omni-directional framed pulse interrogation at 1030 MHz, having the

ability to trigger a reply from all aircraft within range.
b) Interrogation by a train of 12 pulses, spaced from 8 - 21 micro-seconds apart
at 1030 MHz in order to trigger a reply at 1090 MHz from aircraft with the
code selected.
c) A directional pulsed interrogation at 1030 MHz having a distinct characteristic
the purpose of which is to generate a reply from an airborne unit.
121. The time interval between the transmission of the DME interrogator signal and the
reception of the transponder reply is 1340 micro-seconds. The DME slant range,
taking into account the standard 50 µs delay is:
a) 108.4 NM.
b) 104.4 NM.
c) 112.5 NM.
122. A DME ground station is utilizing 1701 PPS in order to reply to interrogation signals
from aircraft. The number of aircraft which can still be accommodated is:
a) 999.
b) 37.
c) 63.

123. When using HF for communications over a specified distance, transmissions at night
should be made on frequencies almost half of the optimum day frequency because:
a) The ionosphere is lower at night requiring a higher critical angle, which

occurs at a lower frequency.
b) At night the reflection height increases and layer density decreases, using
lower frequencies reduces the skip distance.
c) A lower frequency reduces the attenuation allowing the ground wave have a
greater range, so reducing the dead space.
124. The magnetic component of a radio wave emitted from a vertical aerial, travels in
the:
a) Vertical plane.
b) Horizontal plane.
c) Vertical plane with the electrical component but ninety degrees out of phase.
125. Super High Frequency (SHF) is utilized for:
a) RADAR.
b) Communication.
c) ILS.
126. If the wavelength is 3 cm, the frequency is:
a) 74 MHz.
b) 100 GHz.
c) 10 000 MHz.
127. The E layer in the ionosphere is also known as the:
a) Appleton layer.
b) Kennelly-Heavyside layer.
c) Barrett layer.
128. The following relative bearings are obtained from an NDB.

Relative Bearing no. 1: 075°. Relative Bearing no. 2: 090°. The time between the
bearings is 7.75 minutes, and the GS is 130 KTS.
The time and distance to the beacon is:
a) 31 MIN 67 NM.
b) 25 MIN 54 NM
c) 20 MIN 43 NM.
129. The ICAO NDB frequency band is:
a) 200 kHz – 455 kHz.

b) 200 kHz – 800 MHz.
c) 200 kHz – 1750 kHz.

130. The wavelength of a radio wave transmission is:
a) The number of cycles in one second.

b) The distance travelled during the transmission of one cycle.
c) The complete change of direction current.
131. The Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) indicates:
a) Compass heading.
b) Magnetic heading.
c) True heading.
132. Fading of low frequency and medium frequency at night may be due to:
a) Poor receiver sensitivity and ionospheric attenuation.

b) Simultaneous reception of sky and surface waves.
c) Reception of space waves and atmospheric attenuation.
133. When flying towards an NDB with a 000° relative bearing in a left crosswind, the
result is that:
a) The ground track curves to the downwind side of the NDB.

b) The ground track curves to the upwind side of the NDB.
c) The aircraft makes a slow but continuous turn to the right.
134. The frequency band of VOR equipment is from:
a) 112 to 117.95 MHz.

b) 108 to 117.95 MHz.
c) 109 to 121 MHz.
135. The locator NDB type of emission recommended by ICAO is A2A because:
a) The signal is more stable than A1A.

b) The signal is less affected by night effect.
c) The ADF needle does not wander during transmission of the IDENT.
136. When the aircraft heading agrees approximately with the Omni-bearing selector
setting on a VOR indicator:
a) Fly toward the deviation needle provided FROM indicated.

b) Fly toward the deviation needle regardless of the TO-FROM indication.
c) Fly away from the needle provided FROM is indicated.

137. The VOR selector in an aircraft, heading 150°(M), is tuned to a facility. With 170° on
the OBS and TO indicated, the left/right needle is displaced very close to the
maximum deflection right, indicating that the aircraft’s magnetic orientation
approximately:
a) South of the station.

b) On radial 340 from the facility.
c) North of the VOR.
138. The reference signal of a VOR has a sub-carrier wave. The purpose of the sub-
carrier wave modulation is to:
a) Provide for facility identification.

b) Provide a datum to determine phase difference.
c) Modulate the direction signal.
139. The process of conveying information by a radio wave is called:
a) Morse code.
b) Carrier wave.
c) Modulation.
140. When the main VOR transmitter is switched off and a standby transmitter comes
into operation, bearing information may be unreliable and as a warning:
a) No identification signals are transmitted.

b) Identification signals are transmitted together with voice transmission
warnings.
c) A continues beep is transmitted.
141. An aircraft 4500 ft AGL indicates 15 DME. The ground distance in nautical miles is:
a) 14.96.
b) 14.98.
c) 15.02.
142. DME transmits an IDENT signal in aural Morse code every:
a) 10 seconds.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 37.5 seconds.
143. Passing over the middle marker of an ILS installation is indicated by a 75 MHz
signal:
a) Alternating dots and dashes, and an amber light.

b) Two dashes per second, and an amber light.
c) Two dashes per second and white light.

144. At 115 knots groundspeed, the approximate rate of descent for a 3.3° glideslope is:
a) 325 ft/min.
b) 175 ft/min.
c) 638 ft/min.
145. When on the ILS localizer centre line (on a QDM of 033°) inbound with the OBS set
to 030, the CDI needle indication will be:
a) Fly RIGHT.
b) Needle central.
c) Fly LEFT.
146. The reference signal of the VOR has a sub-carrier wave. The purpose of the sub-
carrier wave modulation is to:

c) Modulate the directional signal.
147. Errors which affect ADF bearings are:
a) Coastal refraction.
b) Night effect.
c) Both a and b.
148. The inbound track to the NDB “RTQ” is 045°(T), Variation is 10°W, and drift is 7°
right. The relative bearing to be maintained on the ADF to reach the NDB is:
a) 353°
b) 000°
c) 007°
149. The principle used by the VOR is:
a) Bearing measurement by phase comparison.

b) Heading determination by phase comparison.
c) Bearing measurement by phase determination.
150. ADF bearings are affected by:
a) Night effect, site and propagation errors.

b) Site propagation and aircraft equipment errors.
c) Coastal refraction and scalloping.

151. VOR IDENT, is transmitted at least once every:
a) 10 seconds.
b) 15 seconds.
c) 37.5 seconds.
152. An aircraft leaves a VOR maintaining a radial using a CDI with the OBS set
appropriately. A 180° right turn is made, and the reciprocal of the radial is selected
by the OBS. On completion of the turn the CDI will read:
a) FROM, Fly Left.

b) TO, Fly Right.
c) FROM, Fly Right.
153. The indications on a VOR in an aircraft are 075° TO, needle central. A co-located
NDB shows 012° Relative. The drift and magnetic heading are:
a) 12°R, 087°.
b) 12°L, 063°.
c) 12°R, 063°.
154. A disadvantage of Low Frequency is:
a) Static interference.
b) Heavy equipment.
c) High ground attenuation.
155. Ionosphere density is greatest by:
a) Day, resulting in reduced skip distance.

b) Night, resulting in increased skip distance.
c) Day, resulting in increased skip distance.
156. The outbound track from an NDB is 065°(T), Variation is 10°W, and Drift is 7°
Right. The relative bearing to be maintained on the ADF to maintain track outbound
is:
a) 173° relative.
b) 180° relative.
c) 187° relative.
157. An aircraft heading 220°(M) has the OBS set at 030. A 5-Dot CDI shows the needle
4.5 dots right of centre, with FROM indicated. The aircraft is on radial:
a) 021°.
b) 039°.
c) 211°.

158. The deviation needle of an ILS will be fully deflected by a deviation of:
a) 10°.
b) 5°.
c) Depends on the number of dots in the CDI.
159. The beam of an airborne weather radar is usually a:
a) Conical pencil beam.

b) Cosecant beam.
c) Pencil beam.
160. In 3° climb at 4300 feet on QNH 1010 hPa, a cloud is detected on the weather radar
at a range of 25 NM. With a tilt angle of +3.5° selected and the Stabilizer “off”, the
cloud just disappears from the radar screen. Beam width is 5°. The height of the
cloud tops is:
a) 14 930 ft AGL.
b) 10 630 ft AMSL.
c) 14 930 ft AMSL.
161. An aircraft using an SSR transponder will transmit an IDENT pulse:
a) When changing codes.

b) Then instructed by ATC.
c) On initial contact with ATC.
162. Fading of LF and MF transmissions at night may be caused by:
a) Poor receiver sensitivity and atmospheric attenuation.

b) Reception of space waves and atmospheric attenuation.
c) Simultaneous reception of sky wave and ground waves.
163. Increasing the Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF):
a) Increases operational range.

b) Decreases operational range.
c) Increases pulse width.
164. A Loran C transmission on frequency 10.2 kHz corresponds to a wavelength of:
a) 16 NM.
b) 12 NM.
c) 18 NM.
165. The radio altimeter utilizes the principle of:
a) Frequency difference.
b) Phase difference.
c) Time difference.
166. On an Area Navigation system full scale deflection of the CDI needle, in the
approach mode, represents a deviation from the required track of:
a) 5 NM.
b) 1.25 NM.
c) 5°.
167. If 100 aircraft are simultaneously interrogating a DME station, that station:
a) Is said to be saturated.
b) Is not affected in any way.
c) Will adjust transmission strength to accommodate the high number of
interrogations.
168. Airborne Search Radar (ASR) is a:
a) Primary radar.
b) Secondary radar.
c) Secondary surveillance radar (SSR).
169. The Very High Frequency band is:
a) 300-3000 MHz.
b) 30-300 MHz.
c) 300-3000 kHz.
170. An aircraft is flying from WPT 4 (Radial 218°, DME 116 NM from a station) on a
track of 063°(M) to WPT 5 (Radial 132°, DME 52.5 NM from the same station). At
0915 Z the aircraft is on radial 153 at 52 NM DME from the station. What would the
indication on a 5-Dot CDI be?
a) 3 dots left of centre.

b) 4 dots left of centre.
c) 5 dots left of centre.
171. A DME indicates 60.7 NM. The time interval between the transmission of the
interrogator pulse and the arrival of the reply pulse is:
a) 375.1 microseconds.
b) 750.1 microseconds.
c) 800.1 microseconds.
172. The second anode in a cathode ray tube:
a) Provides brilliance control.

b) Is positively charged to draw the electrons from the cathode.
c) Provides focus control.

173. The SSR interrogator frequency is:
a) 1090 MHz and the transponder frequency will be 63 MHz higher or lower.
b) 1030 MHz.
c) 60 MHz higher than the transponder frequency.
174. The spacing between the pulse in Mode B and C interrogator pulses are
respectively:
a) 13 micro-seconds and 21 micro-seconds.

b) 15 micro-seconds and 25 micro-seconds.
c) 17 micro-seconds and 21 micro-seconds.
175. An ADF is subject to skywave contamination:
a) Which is corrected by the sense aerial.

b) At all places by night.
c) Beyond certain distances by night.
176. A Radar installation transits on a carrier frequency of 1030 MHz. If the pulse width
is 3 µs (micro-seconds) the number of cycles of the carrier frequency that will be
transmitted in each pulse is:
a) 2780 cycles.
b) 3090 cycles.
c) 3250 cycles.
177. Primary Radar operates at a PRF of 400 PPS (Pulse per Second). The maximum
range of the Radar is:
a) 202.5 NM.
b) 315.5 NM.
c) 405.0 NM.
178. Primary Radar operates at a PRF of 1000 PPS. Two-fifths of the cycle is used for
flyback. The maximum range of the Radar is:
a) 48.6 NM.
b) 67.5 NM.
c) 97.2 NM.
179. Primary Radar is designed to operate up to a maximum range of 180 NM. If three
tenths of the cycle is required for flyback the PRF is:
a) 275 PPS.
b) 298 PPS.
c) 315 PPS.

180. An Airborne Weather Radar (ASR) is designed for a maximum range of 250 NM.
The PRF would be:
a) 324 PPS.
b) 375 PPS.
c) 418 PPS.
181. An Airfield Surveillance Radar is required to operate at a minimum range of 500

metres. The maximum pulse width of the transmission is:
a) 3.33 µs.
b) 4.58 µs.
c) 6.66 µs.
182. An Airfield Surveillance Radar is required to operate at a minimum range of 0.25

NM. The maximum pulse width of the transmission is:
a) 5 us.
b) 4 us.
c) 3 us.
183. An Airborne Weather Radar has a 3.5 centimetre wavelength and a pulse width of 2
µs. The number of cycles of the carrier frequency transmitted in each pulse is:
a) 16 638 cycles.
b) 17 143 cycles.
c) 18 752 cycles.
184. A Primary Radar has a pulse width of 3 µs. If 21 000 complete cycles are
transmitted in each pulse the carrier frequency is:
a) 6 000 MHz.
b) 6 500 MHz.
c) 7 000 MHz.
185. An Airborne Weather Radar frequency is 9375 MHz. The pulse width is 2.2 µs and
the PRF is 400 PPS. The minimum range of the ASR is:
a) 330 metres.
b) 440 meters.
c) 550 meters.
186. An aircraft receives a reply from a DME (fixed delay 50 µs) 995 µs after
transmission of the interrogation pulse. The slant range of the aircraft is:
a) 76.54 NM.
b) 82.59 NM.
c) 88.34 NM.

187. An aircraft receives a replay from DME 1.5 milli-seconds after transmission of the
interrogation pulse. If the DME has a fixed delay of 50 µs the range of the aircraft is:
a) 112.85 NM.
b) 117.45 NM.
c) 121.83 NM.
188. A DME with a fixed delay of 50 µs receives an interrogation pulse

315 µs after transmission. The range of the aircraft is:
a) 51 NM.
b) 76 NM.
c) 102 NM.
189. A Radio Altimeter is frequency modulated at 20 Hz per nano-second. If the height of

the aircraft is 1 000 ft above the ground the difference between the transmitted and
received frequency is:
a) 40 650 Hz.
b) 43 525 Hz.
c) 45 875 Hz.

4352.254875 MHz, the absolute altitude of the aircraft is:
a) 478 ft.
b) 518 ft.
c) 553 ft.
191. A Radio Altimeter is frequency modulated at 20 Hz per nano-second. If the height of

the aircraft is 650 ft above the ground the difference between the transmitted and
received frequency is:
a) 24 157 Hz.
b) 25 626 Hz.
c) 26 423 Hz.

4289.760691 MHz the absolute height of the aircraft is:
a) 105 ft.
b) 210 ft.
c) 315 ft.

193. The frequency to which a wavelength of 12 cms corresponds is:
a) 2 500 kHz.
b) 2 500 MHz.
c) 25 MHz.
194. Skip distance is the distance between:
a) Successive skywave touchdown points.

b) The distance between the end of the ground wave and the first skywave
return.
c) The distance between a transmitter and the first skywave return.
195. A radio wave modulated at a single audible frequency (keyed CW) is classified:
a) A1A.
b) A2A.
c) A3E.
196. Reception of HF communication by night is affected by:
a) The lower ionosphere density.

b) The height of the reflective layer is reduced.
c) HF communications are not affected.
197. An aircraft is maintaining the 140° radial inbound to a VOR station with a drift of 8°
left. Variation at the aircraft’s position is 20°W and the VOR position 18°W. The
aircraft’s magnetic heading is:
a) 330°(M).
b) 328°(M).
c) 314°(M).
198. The characteristics of the reference signal of a VOR transmitter are:
a) Amplitude modulated at 30 Hz and a rotation figure of eight radiation.

b) Frequency modulated at 30 Hz and an omni-directional radiation.
c) Frequency modulated at 150 Hz and a conical radiation.
199. Two VOR’s, both at 200 feet and 161 NM apart, are positioned on the centre line of
an airway. The minimum latitude at maximum range that guarantees positive
reception from both VOR’s simultaneously is:
a) 5 052 ft.
b) 2 526 ft.
c) 3 157 ft.

200. An aircraft is on a heading of 280°(M) and on a bearing of 090°(M) from the VOR.
The bearing that should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to
centralize the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with TO on the TO/FROM
indicator, is:
a) 280°.
b) 270°.
c) 090°.
201. Aircraft heading 315°(M), ADF RMI reading 090°.

The quadrantal error of this bearing is:
a) Maximum.
b) Zero.
c) Proportional to sine heading times the signal strength.
202. An aircraft is maintaining track outbound from an NDB with a constant relative
bearing of 184°.
To return to the NDB the relative bearing to maintain is:
a) 356°.
b) 000°.
c) 004°.
203. At 1000Z an aircraft is overhead NDB PE en route to NDB CN.

Track 075°(M), Heading 082°(M).
At 1029Z NDB PE bears 176° Relative and NDB CN bears
352° Relative.
The heading to steer at 1029 Z to reach NDB CN is:
a) 078°(M).
b) 079°(M).
c) 081°(M).
204. The VOR monitor will warn the control point and possibly switch off the station
radiation with an occurrence of:
a) A change in bearing information in excess of 10 degrees.

b) A reduction of 15 percent in bearing information.
c) A change in bearing information in excess of 1 degree.
205. ILS transmission identification takes place on:
a) Glide path.
b) Localizer.
c) Both the glide part and localizer.

206. The approximate height of an aeroplane maintaining a 3° glideslope when over the
outer marker sited 4.3 NM from the landing threshold, calculated by using the 1:60
rule is:
a) 1 370 feet.
b) 1307.2 feet.
c) 3 186.4 feet.
207. ILS localiser transmissions are protected from interference up to:
a) 10 NM.
b) 18 NM.
c) 25 NM.
208. With reference to Airborne Weather Radar, the object of the iso-echo contour
system is to:
a) Progressively reduce the radar gain as the aircraft approaches a cloud.

b) Indicated the areas in which cloud penetration is advisable.
c) Indicated the areas in a cloud where severe turbulence is present.
209. For good target resolution the Weather radar beam width must be kept as:
a) Constant as possible.
b) Wide as possible.
c) Narrow as possible.
210. An aircraft receives a reply from a DME (Fixed delay 50 µs) 995 µs after
transmission of the interrogation pulse. The slant range of the aircraft is:
a) 76.54 NM.
b) 82.59 NM.
c) 88.34 NM.
211. If single coded identification is received only once every thirty seconds from a
VOR/DME station, it means:
a) VOR/DME components are both operative but voice identification is

inoperative.
b) The DME component is operative.
c) The VOR component is operative.

212. VOR B is situated at a distance of 120 NM from VOR “A” on radial 233°. An aircraft
at GS 300 knots is approaching VOR A on a track of 323°(M) in zero wind, and the
VOR at B indicates 278° on the aircraft’s RMI. Assuming variation is constant, the
time to reach B will be:
a) 24 minutes.
b) 34 minutes.
c) 40 minutes.
213. Basic radar operates on:
a) HF and lower frequencies only.

b) VHF and higher frequencies.
c) Any frequency in the RF band.
214. An aircraft heading 040°(M) has an ADF reading of 060° Relative. The alteration of
heading to intercept the 120° track inbound to the NDB at 50° in zero wind
conditions is:
a) 30° Right.
b) 40° Right.
c) 50° Right.
215. An aircraft heading 135°(M) with 5° Right drift intercepts the 082°(M) track outbound
from an NDB. The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception is:
a) 122° Relative.
b) 127° Relative.
c) 132° Relative.
216. In Airborne Search Radar (ASR), resolution and distortion of clouds and ground
features is related to beam width and pulse length for the following reasons:
a) As the beam widens with range a single object appears to be double its size
at twice the range.
b) An object reflects an echo for the time duration of the pulse and is presented
on a screen measuring range; the time base of which is halved and so is the
size of the image.
c) On the time base, the pulse extends the PPI image by a distance equivalent
to one half of the pulse length.
217. Two advantages of single side band transmission are:
a) Broader bandwidth, and transmitting power concentrated in two frequencies

instead of three.
b) Narrower bandwidth and transmitting power concentrated in one or two
frequencies instead of three.
c) Narrower bandwidth and transmitting power concentrated in three
frequencies instead of two.

218. If a VOR transmitter’s elevation is 100 ft. and an aircraft’s altitude is

12 500 ft, the maximum range that the aircraft can receive the VOR signals is:
a) 152 NM.
b) 170 NM.
c) 185 NM.
219. At a given position the variable phase of a VOR transmission lags the reference
phase by 60°, making the bearing to the facility:
a) 060°
b) 240°
c) 300°
220. A VOR frequency is selected and VOR and DME indications are received on the
appropriate indicators. The VOR IDENT is GDV and DME MFT.
This indicates that VOR and DME transmitters are:
a) Co-located, and the bearing and range can be plotted from the VOR position.
b) Serving the same location and may be plotted after checking the two
positions.
c) At two independent positions and are not related.
221. When using airborne search radar (ASR), the distortion of shapes and sizes
portrayed on the radar screen due to:
a) The use of the cosecant beam for mapping.

b) The radial beam being portrayed on a linear screen.
c) The beam adding one half of the beam width distance to either side of the
portrayed object.
222. An airborne SSR transponder recognizes an invalid interrogation by a side lobe of

the main transmission by comparing the:
a) Time intervals between the P1, P2 and P3 pulses.

b) Time intervals between the P1 and P3 pulses.
c) Relative amplitude of the P1, P2 and P3 pulses.
223. An airborne SSR transponder recognizes an altitude reporting request by the ground
transmitter by comparing the:
a) Time intervals between the P1, P2 and P3 pulses.

b) Time intervals between the P1 and P3 pulses.
c) Relative amplitude of the P1, P2 and P3 pulses.

224. An aircraft heading 045°(M) is on a true bearing of 135° from a VOR, variation 8°E.
If the OBS is set at 315 the indication on a 5 dot CDI would be:
a) TO 4 dots left of centre.

b) TO needle central.
c) TO 4 dots right of centre.
225. The HF frequency used at night for communication are:
a) Twice the day frequency.

b) Half the day frequency.
c) The same as the day frequency.
226. The wavelength of a radio wave is:
a) The number of complete cycles transmitted in one second.

b) The distance travelled by a radio wave in one second.
c) The distance travelled by a radio wave in one cycle.
227. Static interference is most pronounced on:
a) MF.
b) HF.
c) VHF.
228. The ionosphere density of the E Layer of the ionosphere is at its greatest at:
a) Midday in summer.
b) Midday in winter.
c) Midnight in summer.
229. What is the maximum theoretical VHF communication range between an aircraft
flying at FL 200 and a control tower 255 feet AMSL?
a) 197 SM.
b) 226 NM.
c) 364 KM.
230. A horizontally polarized radio wave has its:
a) Electrical field in the horizontal plane.

b) Electrical field in the vertical plane.
c) Magnetic field in the horizontal plane.
231. The F layer of the ionosphere:
a) May split into two layers.

b) Is weaker than the other layers.
c) Is the lowest layer of the ionosphere.

232. The critical angle of a radio wave:
a) Varies with frequency.

b) Varies with phase angle.
c) Is constant for all frequencies.
233. Bending of a radio wave by the Earth’s surface is greatest on:
a) VLF.
b) MF.
c) HF.
234. The F layer of the ionosphere is called the:
a) Kennelly-Heavyside layer.
b) Appleton layer.
c) Gauss layer.
235. VHF voice communication frequencies are:
a) 108 to 112 MHz.

b) 108 to 117.9 MHz.
c) 118 to 136 MHz.
236. What is the result of flying towards an NDB with a 000-degree relative bearing and a
crosswind?
a) The heading remains constant.

b) The aircraft’s track curves to the downwind of the NDB.
c) The aircraft’s track curves to the upwind side of the NDB.
237. A radio wave increases speed when crossing the coast, leaving the land and
passing over the sea. When this happens:
a) The frequency changes.

b) The wavelength changes.
c) No change in either.
238. The inbound track to NDB OLD is 045°(T), variation 10°W,

drift 7° Right. What relative bearing must be maintained on the radio compass to
reach OLD?
a) 353° Relative.
b) 000° Relative.
c) 007° Relative.

239. With reference to Q 243, what is the magnetic heading to steer?
a) 048°(M).
b) 055°(M).
c) 062°(M).
240. With reference to Q 243, what would be the RMI reading?
a) 038°.
b) 048°.
c) 055°.
241. An aircraft leaves NDB ABC, track 075°(M), drift 6° Left. NDB XYZ bears 235°
Relative from the aircraft.
What bearings from both NDB’s would be shown on the RMI?
a) 255° & 316°.

b) 261° & 316°.
c) 255° & 136°.
242. If a radio wave is horizontally polarized the:
a) Electrical component is in the vertical plane and the magnetic component is

horizontal.
b) Electrical component is in the horizontal plane and the magnetic component
is vertical.
c) Magnetic component is horizontal with the electrical component 180° out of
phase.
243. The principle factors affecting the accuracy of VOR radials as indicated by the
aircraft’s equipment are:
a) Aircraft equipment error, site error, refraction error and propagation error.
b) Propagation error, site error, aircraft equipment error and night effect.
c) Site error, interference error, propagation error and aircraft equipment error.
244. Airborne Search Radar (ASR) is a:
a) Primary radar.
b) Secondary radar.
c) SSR.
245. The accuracy of VOR radials is better than:
a) +/- 1°.
b) +/- 4°.
c) +/- 6°.

246. The principle of VOR is bearing measurement by:
a) Wave transmissions.
b) Phase comparison.
c) Limacon positions.
247. The type of emission used for ILS localizer and glidepath transmissions is:
a) A1A.
b) A2A.
c) A3E.
248. An aircraft heading 065°(M) has the VOR CDI OBS set at 095°. The left/right
needle of a 5 dot CDI is 3 dots left of centre with TO indicate. The aircraft is on
radial:
a) 101°.
b) 269°.
c) 281°.
249. The frequency band normally associated with an ILS localizer is:
a) 108.0 - 119.0 MHz.

b) 118.0 - 135.975 MHz.
c) 108.1 - 111.95 MHz.
250. The reference signal of a VOR has a sub-carrier wave.

The purpose of the sub-carrier wave modulation is to:

c) Modulate the directional signal.
a) No identification signal is transmitted.

warnings.
c) A continues bleep is transmitted.
252. An aircraft’s heading is 070°(M), variation 10°E. An NDB bears

200° relative.
The RMI will indicate:
a) 260°.
b) 280°.
c) 270°.

253. The ILS localizer is calibrated for accuracy up to and inclusive of a distance of:
a) 25 NM.
b) 18 NM.
c) 35 NM.
254. The normal glidepath angle of an ILS is:
a) 5°.
b) 3°.
c) 4°.
255. An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8° left drift and is making a good track
parallel to the centre line of an airway, but 5 NM off to the left of the centre line. The
ADF reading while 30 NM short of an NDB on the airway, is:
a) 002°.
b) 010°.
c) 358°.
256. Radio Magnetic Indicators (RMI) combine ands indicated information from separate
sources on one dial, namely:
a) Only bearings from VOR and NDB facilities.

b) The aircraft heading from a remote-reading compass, bearings from VOR
facilities and bearings from NDB facilities.
c) The true heading from a remote-reading compass, a bearing from a VOR
facility and a bearing from an NDB facility.
257. While on a heading of 210°(M) and tuned to a VOR, with 235° on the OBS, the
TO/FROM indicator reads TO and the Left/Right needle is displaced close to the
a) 045°.
b) 235°.
c) 055°.
258. A VOR and a NDB are co-located on an aerodrome where the variation is 17°W. An
aircraft is flying where the variation is 19°W on a true bearing of 315° from the
aerodrome. The VOR and ADF readings on a twin pointer RMI would be:
a) VOR 152° ADF 154°

b) VOR 152° ADF 152°
c) VOR 154° ADF 152°

259. Outbound from Upington on track for VWV with 7° right drift. In order to maintain the
required QDR the ADF, which is tuned to UP, will indicate:
a) 187°.
b) 180°.
c) 173°.
260. The glide path angle for an ILS is 2.7°. The aeroplane’s groundspeed is 115 KTS,
IAS 110 KTS and TAS is 120 KTS. Using the 1:60 rule the rate of descent for the
ILS is:
a) 517 FT/MIN.
b) 495 FT/MIN.
c) 540 FT/MIN.
261. A DME transponder with a fixed delay of 50 micro-seconds, receives an

interrogating signal from an aircraft 285 micro-seconds after transmission, making
the slant range to the aircraft read:
a) 23 NM.
b) 46 NM.
c) 42 NM.
262. ILS middle marker indications are:
a) Amber light coding alternate dots and dashes.

b) White light coding six dots per second.
c) Blue light coding two dashes per second.
263. The maximum safe deviation from the ILS glide path during an approach using a 5
dot CDI is:
a) 2 dots fly up.

b) 2 ½ dots fly up.
c) 3 dots fly up.
264. The DME automatic standby will activate the DME interrogator when:
a) Random filler pulses from the transponder are received.

b) A VOR frequency that has a frequency paired DME is selected.
c) The DME IDENT signal is received.

265. A bearing accuracy of ± 3.5° is guaranteed from each of two VOR’s sited on the
centre line of an airway 10 NM wide. In order to ensure that aircraft correctly using
these facilities remain within the airway at midpoint, the facilities may not be further
apart than:
a) 84 NM.
b) 168 NM.
c) 210 NM.
266. Between Upington and Victoria West the aircraft is on radial 252° KMV where
variation is 20°W. At the aircraft variation is 21°W. From the aircraft’s position the
heading to steer towards KMV (zero wind) is:
a) 072°(T).
b) 052°(T).
c) 051°(T).
267. A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is confirmed by:
a) Transmitting a series of dots after each identification signal.

b) The removal of the navigational feature.
c) The removal of the identification signal.
268. On a VOR the full scale deflection of the deviation needle left or right represents a
departure from the selected radial of:
a) 5°.
b) 10°.
c) 2.5°.
269. Rho-theta navigation is the basis of:
a) VOR/DME.
b) Omega/VLF.
c) ADF.
270. A VOR frequency is selected and VOR and DME indications are received on the
appropriate indicators. The VOR IDENT is CPL and the DME CPZ. This indicates
that VOR and DME transmitters are:
a) Co-located, and the bearing and range can be plotted from the VOR position.
b) Serving the same location and may be plotted after checking the two
positions.
c) At two independent position and are not related.

271. If a signal of two hertz was transmitted for one second, the physical space occupied
by the signal would be:
a) 300 000 000 Metres.

b) 150 000 000 Metres.
c) 600 000 000 Metres.
272. When using a VOR facility with 050° set on the OBS, the CDI needle is central, but
the TO/FROM indication is inoperative. If the OBS is now set to 060° and the
needle is deflected to the right, the aircraft is on the:
a) 050° radial.
b) 230° radial.
c) Either the 050° or 230° radial.
273. Two radio aids to navigation that may share a common receiving aerial, are:
a) VOR and ADF.

b) ADF and Loran C.
c) ILS and ADF.
274. Full scale deviation of a RNAV CDI in the approach mode is:
a) 1.25 NM.
b) 2.50 NM.
c) 5.00 NM.
275. When using RNAV in the approach mode, the distance between the parent
VOR/DME and the final approach waypoint should not be greater than:
a) 10 NM.
b) 25 NM
c) 50 NM.
276. The maximum range of search radar is dependent on the:
a) Radio frequency.
b) Pulse recurrence frequency.
c) Pulse width.
277. The minimum range of search radar is dependant on the:
a) Radio frequency.
b) Pulse recurrence frequency.
c) Pulse width.

278. The use of weather radar (ASR) when the aeroplane is on the ground, is:
a) Prohibited.
b) Permitted but used with extreme caution.
c) Permitted in maintenance area only.
279. The brilliance of a Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) display is controlled by the:
a) 1st and 3rd anodes.

b) 2nd anode.
c) Grid.
280. On a Cathode Ray Tube using a horizontal time base, unwanted echoes or “grass”
can be reduced or removed from the screen by the:
a) Graphite coating.
b) X-plates.
c) Gain control.
281. An X-channel DME transponder will not reply to a Y-channel interrogation on the
same frequency because the:
a) Spacing between the interrogation pulses is different.

b) Interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 MHz apart.
c) Random PRF, which is unique to each aircraft.
282. The frequency band in which Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) operates, is:
a) VHF.
b) UHF.
c) SHF.
283. A carrier wave with amplitude of 5 V is modulated by an audio frequency with

amplitude of 3 V. The depth of modulation is:
a) 40%.
b) 60%.
c) 167%.
284. To double the range of an NDB the transmission power must be increased by a
factor of:
a) 2.
b) 4.
c) 8.
285. Selecting a lower HF/RT frequency results in:
a) An increase of the critical angle.

b) An increase of the dead space.
c) A decrease of the skip distance.

286. Static interference increases with an:
a) Increase in frequency.
b) Decrease in frequency.
c) Decrease in wavelength.
287. The bending of a radio wave by the Earth’s surface is greatest on:
a) VLF.
b) LF.
c) MF.
288. With frequency modulated transmissions the:
a) Amplitude is constant and the frequency varies.

b) Frequency is constant and the amplitude varies.
c) Amplitude and frequency vary.
289. With amplitude modulated transmissions the:
a) Amplitude is constant and the frequency varies.

b) Frequency is constant and the amplitude varies.
c) Amplitude and frequency vary.
290. An aircraft’s DME receiver will not accept replies to its own interrogations that are
reflected from the ground or clouds, because of the:
a) Random PRF, which is unique to each aircraft.

b) Interrogation and reply frequencies being 63 MHz apart.
c) Interrogation pulse being transmitted in pairs.
291. An aircraft is climbing though 6500 feet.

Attitude director 4° pitch up.
Weather radar 27 NM.
Cloud range 27 NM.
Tilt control 3° up, Beam width 5°.
The height of the top of the cloud is:
a) 15 000 feet.
b) 17 000 feet.
c) 19 000 feet.
292. Side lobe suppression in SSR is accomplished by:
a) Defruiting, which removes unwanted replies from aircraft by the use of killer
circuits?
b) Aircraft close to the transmitter selection LO sense on the receiver.
c) Transmission of a third omni-directional pulse weaker than the main pulses
but stronger than the side lobe pulses.

293. What is the maximum allowable tolerance of the OBS (CDI left/right deviation needle
centred) when checking a VOR receiver by use of a VOT?
a) 178° to 182° FROM.

b) 176° to 184° TO.
c) 356° to 004° TO.
294. The OBS of each aircraft is set to 360°. Which aircraft would have FROM indicated
and the LEFT/RIGHT needle left of centre?
a) A.
b) B.
c) C.
295. When the VOR OBS meter indicates TO and the LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle of
the CDI is central, the aircraft will be:
a) Outbound from the VOR.

b) On the radial shown by the course selector.
c) On the reciprocal of the radial shown by the course selector.
296. When the course selector is set to 105° the LEFT/RIGHT is centred and the
TO/FROM indicator shows TO. This means:
a) The aircraft bears 105°(M) from the VOR.

b) The magnetic track to the VOR is 105°.
c) The true bearing of the aircraft from the VOR is 105°.
297. The VOR reference signal is:
a) A rotating signal Amplitude Modulated at 30 Hz.

b) A Limacon.
c) A 9960 Hz sub-carrier Amplitude Modulated at 30 Hz.
298. The VOR directional signal is:
a) A rotating signal Frequency Modulated at 30 HZ.

b) A Limacon.
c) A 9960 Hz sub-carrier Amplitude Modulated at 30 Hz.
299. The accuracy of VOR Radials is:
a) + 4 degrees.
b) + 6 degrees.
c) + 8 degrees.

300. A twin pointer RMI has both VOR needles tuned to the same VOR. The maximum
allowable spread between the needles is:
a) 4°.
b) 6°.
c) 8°.
301. No. 1 pointer of a RMI is tuned to a VOR.

No. 2 pointer is tuned to a co-located NDB.
The pointers will:
a) Point exactly in the same direction.

b) Point in different directions due to the difference in variation between the
aircraft and the transmitters.
c) Point in different directions because VOR uses the VHF band and the NDB
uses LF/MF.
302. An aircraft heading 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. What OBS
setting should be selected in order to centralize LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle with
TO indicate?
a) 280°.
b) 270°.
c) 100°.
303. VOR frequencies are:
a) 108 to 117.95 MHz.

b) 118 to 136 MHz.
c) 108 to 112 MHz.
304. An aircraft heading 220°(M) has the OBS set at 030°. A 5 DOT CDI shows the
LEFT/RIGHT needle 4.5 DOTS RIGHT of centre with FROM indicated. The aircraft
is on Radial:
a) 021°.
b) 039°.
c) 201°.
305. An aircraft is maintaining Radial 090° outbound from VOR XYZ. After flying for 35
minutes the aircraft returns to NDB XYZ, which is co-located with VOR XYZ. Aircraft
variation 22°W, VOR variation 20°W. The QDM to the NDB is:
a) 268°.
b) 270°.
c) 272°.

306. An aircraft heading 115°(M), TAS 260 KTS, obtains the following information from a
VORTAC.
0743 Z Radial 253°
0748 Z Radial 208° DME 21 NM.
0753 Z Radial 163°
The W/V is:
a) 058/20.
b) 051/15.
c) 258/15.
307. An aircraft is established on Radial 135° inbound to VOR ABC. VOR CPL is 120 NM
from VOR ABC on Radial 225°. At 1015 Z the aircraft receives QDM 270° from
VOR CPL. TAS 300 KTS, Zero wind conditions. What is the ETA at CPL if heading
is altered at 1015 Z?
a) 1039 Z.
b) 1049 Z.
c) 1059 Z.
308. An aircraft passes overhead VORTAC EPS at 0913 Z maintaining Radial 252°,
heading 244°(M), TAS 230 KTS, variation 15W. At 0928 Z VORTAC EPS indicates
DME 63 NM. The W/V is:
a) 080/40.
b) 095/40.
c) 110/40.
309. Two VOR stations are to be sited on the centre line of an airway 10 NM wide. If the
bearing accuracy of +5° is required from the two VOR’s what would be the
maximum distance apart that the two transmitters could be sited.
a) 120 NM.
b) 180 NM.
c) 240 NM.
310. What is the maximum range you would expect from a VORTAC 800 feet AMSL if the
aircraft was flying at FL 210?
a) 216 SM.
b) 228 NM.
c) 400 KM.

311. A VORTAC defines the centre line of a 10 NM wide airway. An aircraft at DME 180
NM has a 2 dot fly LEFT indication on a 5 dot CDI with the centre line radial
correctly set. What distance is the aircraft from the boundary of the airway?
a) 2 NM.
b) 7 NM.
c) 12 NM.
312. VOR GGV and VOR PEV are 161 NM apart. Both VOR’s are 200 feet AMSL. At
what minimum altitude would an aircraft be able to receive both VOR’s?
a) 4176 feet.
b) 3289 feet.
c) 2526 feet.
313. An aircraft heading 320°(M) is 45 NM from VORTAC NEV on

Radial 136°. If 140° is selected on the OBS and FROM appears in the window what
will be the LEFT/RIGHT indication on a 5 dot CDI?
a) LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle 2 DOTS RIGHT of centre.

b) LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle 2 DOTS LEFT of centre.
c) LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle central.
314. When making an ILS approach, the localizer needle will always be deflected in the
colour area in which the aircraft is flying, regardless of the position or heading of the
aircraft.
a) The above statement is true.

b) If the needle indicates that the aircraft is in the BLUE sector before reaching
the localizer transmitter it will give an opposite indication when the station is
passed.
c) The above statement is false.
315. Gives: ILS GP 2.7°, IAS 117, TAS 130, GS 120. What is the rate of descent
required to maintain the glide path?
a) 350 ft/min.
b) 450 ft/min.
c) 550 ft/min.
316. An aircraft passes the outer marker, which is 4 NM from the threshold of the runway.
The CDI shows a 3-dot fly LEFT indication on a 4-dot scale. How for is the aircraft
from the localizer centre line?
a) 360 feet.
b) 780 feet.
c) 870 feet.

317. An ILS has a 3° glideslope. The outer marker is 4 NM from the runway threshold. If
an aircraft passes the outer marker at 1500 feet above airfield elevation, what
glideslope indication would be shown on a 5-dot indicator?
a) On glide path.
b) 2 Dot fly down.
c) 4 Dot fly down.
318. What is the approximate height of an aircraft above airfield elevation when on a 3°
glidepath and 3.8 NM from the ILS reference point?
a) 1200 feet.
b) 1500 feet.
c) 1800 feet.
319. Which of the ILS transmitters carries the IDENT?
a) Localizer.
b) Glide Path.
c) Both.
320. What rate of descent is required to maintain a 2.7° GP at GS 130 KTS?
a) 580 ft/min.
b) 620 ft/min.
c) 660 ft/min.
321. The ILS fan marker beacon frequency is:
a) 75 MHz.
b) 75 kHz.
c) 400 kHz.
322. The ILS localizer has its transmission checked for accuracy at:
a) 10 NM.
b) 17 NM.
c) 25 NM.
323. Which two radio aids to navigation may share a common aerial system?
a) VOR and DME.

b) VOR and ADF.
c) ADF and Omega.

324. An aircraft receives a reply pulse from a DME 1200 µs after transmission of the
interrogation pulse. The DME has a fixed delay of 50 µs. What is the slant range of
the aircraft from the DME station?
a) 47 NM.
b) 72 NM.
c) 93 NM.
325. A DME with a fixed delay of 50 µs receives and interrogation pulse from an aircraft
285 µs after transmission. The slant range of the aircraft from the DME station is:
a) 29 NM.
b) 46 NM.
c) 63 NM.
326. A CAT 1 ILS with a 3° glide slope will not be used if there is a change in the glide
path angle of:
a) 0.075°.
b) 0.125°.
c) 0.225°.
327. The “squelch” control on a VHF communication receiver:
a) Extends the range of the receiver.

b) Prevents feedback.
c) Disables receiver output when no signals are being received so preventing
noise being fed to crew headsets.
328. Distortion of shapes and sizes on a weather radar screen are due to:
a) Use of a non-linear time base.

b) A very short wavelength.
c) The beam adding one half of the beam width distance on either side of the
reflecting object.
329. A VOR CDI has the OBS set at 090. The variable phase signal lags behind the
reference signal by 280 degrees. The CDI indication will be:
a) Deviation needle LEFT of centre, TO indicated.

b) Deviation needle RIGHT of centre, TO indicated.
c) Deviation needle RIGHT of centre, FROM indicated.
330. De-fruiting of a SSR PPI screen is accomplished by:
a) Use of slightly different PRP by adjacent ground stations.

b) The side-lobe suppression pulse.
c) Killer circuits at the receiver.

331. The aircraft DME transmitter on auto-standby will be activated when:
a) Random filler pulses of the DME ground transmitter are received by the
aircraft.
b) The frequency paired VOR signal is received.
c) Interrogation is selected by the pilot.
332. Distortion of shapes and sizes on a weather radar screen may be due to:
a) The pulse length extending the PPI image in range by one half of the pulse
length.
b) Receiver gain being reduced after transmission of a pulse.
c) Slant range being measured.
333. The modern ADF uses a:
a) Horizontal crossed loop aerial with an orthogonal pair of coils would on a

ferrite core fed to a goniometer.
b) Horizontal crossed loop aerial with an orthogonal pair of coils would on a
ferrite core fed to a goniometric and combined with the signal from a sense
aerial.
c) A pair of coils, which rotate about a ferrite core, combined with the signal
from a sense aerial.
334. The HF/RT Selcal transmission uses:
a) The keyed CW principle.

b) Pulse transmission.
c) Modulating tones.
335. Aircraft heading 325°(M), ADF reads 330° Relative, Track to intercept 280°(M)
Inbound, Interception angle 50°.
Calculate the interception heading, the alteration of heading required and the
relative bearing at interception.
a) 230° / 95° Left / 050°Relative.

b) 050° / 95° Right / 310°Relative.
c) 000° / 95° Left / 050°Relative.
a) 230° / 95° Left / 050°Relative.

c) 230° / 95° Right / 310°Relative.

a) 230° / 95° Left / 060°Relative.

c) 280° / 180° Left or Right / 060°Relative.
Outbound, Interception angle 30°.
a) 230° / 95° Left / 060°Relative.

Outbound, Interception angle 30°.
a) 200° / 70° Left / 150°Relative.

340. The accuracy of VOR is better than:
a) ±1°.
b) ±4°.
c) ±6°.
341. An aircraft heading 065° (M) has the VOR CDI OBS set a t 095. The left/right
needle of a 5 dot CDI is 3 dots left of centre with TO indicated. The aircraft is on a
radial:
a) 101°.
b) 269°.
c) 281°.

342. An aircraft’s heading is 070° (M) Variation 10°E. An NDB bears 200 relative. The
RMI will indicate:
a) 260°.
b) 280°.
c) 270°.
343. An aircraft flying a constant heading with 8° left drift and is making good a track
parallel to the centre line of an airway, but 15 NM off to the left of the centre line.
The ADF reading while 90 NM short of a NDB on the airway, is:
a) 002°.
b) 010°.
c) 358°.
344. While on a heading of 210° (M) and turned to a VOR, with 235 on the OBS, the
TO/FROM indicator reads TO and the left/right needle is displaced close to the
a) 045°.
b) 235°.
c) 055°.
345. Outbound from Upington on track for VWV with 7 degrees right drift. In order to
maintain the required QDR the ADF, which is tuned to UP, will indicate:
a) 187°.
b) 180°.
c) 173°.
346. The glide path angle for an ILS is 2,7 degrees. The aeroplane’s ground speed is
115 KTS, IAS 110 KTS and the TAS is 120 KTS. Using the 1:60 rule the rate of
decent of the ILS is:
a) 517 ft/min.
b) 495 ft/min.
c) 540 ft/min.
347. A DME transponder with a fixed delay of 50 micro-seconds, receives an

interrogating signal from an aircraft 285 micro-seconds after transmission, making
the slant range to the aircraft read:
a) 23nms.
b) 46nms.
c) 42nms.

348. If a signal of two hertz was transmitted for one second, the physical space occupied
by the signal would be:
a) 300 000 000 Metres.

b) 150 000 000 Metres.
c) 600 000 000 Metres.
349. When using a VOR facility with 050 set on the OBS, the CDI needle is central, but
the TO/FROM indication is inoperative. If the OBS is now set to 060 and the needle
is deflected to the right, the aircraft is on the:
a) 050 radial.
b) 230 radial.
c) Either the 050 or 230 radial.
350. When using RNAV in the approach mode, the distance between the parent
VOR/DME and the final approach waypoint should not be greater than:
a) 10nms.
b) 25nms.
c) 50nms.
351. On a Cathode Ray Tube using a horizontal time base, unwanted echoes or “grass”
can be reduced or removed from the screen by the:
a) Graphite coating.
b) X plates.
c) Gain control.
352. An aircraft climbing through 6500 feet:
Altitude director 4° pitch up, weather radar stabiliser off

Cloud range 27 nautical miles, tilt control 3° up
Beam width 5°
a) 15 000 ft.
b) 17 000 ft.
c) 19 000 ft.
353. An X channel DME transponder will not reply to a Y channel interrogation on the
same frequency because the:
a) Random PRF, which is unique to each aircraft.

b) Interrogation and reply frequencies being 63 MHz apart.
c) Interrogation pulses being transmitted in pairs.

354. What is meant by the GPWS voice message “Sink Rate”?
a) Altitude is being lost after take-off or on go-around.

b) The flight is over rising terrain.
c) The aircraft is descending too fast considering its height above the ground.
355. Which of the following statements is true when describing MLS?
a) The scanning beams in azimuth and elevation operate on the same

frequency.
b) There is no back beam.
c) Transmissions are vulnerable to reflections from terrain and buildings.
356. The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075°T, Variation 10°W and the Drift 7°Right. The
RMI ADF bearing to maintain to reach GDV is:
a) 085°.
b) 078°.
c) 092°.
357. An aircraft is flying towards a stationary transmitter at a GS of 375 KTS. If the

transmission frequency is 4750 MHz the Doppler frequency shift is:
a) 3051 Hz.
b) 3865 Hz.
c) 3952 Hz.
358. A typical wavelength of a VLF transmission is:
a) 50 cm.
b) 30 km.
c) 100 m.
359. The special codes allocated to SSR are 7500, 7600 and 7700. These codes
respectively indicate:
a) Hijack, Coms failure, Mayday.

b) Mayday, hijack, Coms failure.
c) Coms failure, hijack, mayday.

360. Select the true statement concerning SSR:
a) Reply signals give range, bearing and height positively and automatically.
b) High power in needed for long range.
c) Neither a or b is correct.
361. When considering ADF range, the height of the aircraft:
a) Has no significant effect on range.

b) Increase range.
c) Can be significant when in mountainous or coastal areas.
362. In establishing, bearing a VOR makes use of:
a) Amplitude modulation of a VHF carrier.

b) Both frequency and amplitude modulations.
c) Phase comparison of the two carrier waves.
363. When a VOR is selected but no IDENT is received although VOR indications is
normal, it means:
a) The reference signal has failed and the VOR is not to be used.
b) The VOR is undergoing maintenance, but bearings can be used.
c) The VOR is undergoing maintenance, the bearings are not to be used.
364. During the missed approach, after the aircraft has passed over the localizer
transmitter, the localizer command needle lies in the blue sector of the face of the
indicator. The localiser course is 225°. The aircraft is to the:
a) South of the runway.

b) North of the runway.
c) North of the runway if the back bearing switch has been selected.
365. The inbound localizer course at an ILS facility is 090°. An aircraft is closing on the
localizer centre line on a heading of 045°(M). The pilot can expect an initial localizer
indication as he crosses:
a) 235° radial at 25 DME.

b) 260° radial at 20 DME.
c) 280° radial at 17 DME.
366. A pilot is about to begin an ILS approach and selects frequency

109.45 cms. on the ILS receiver. When turning up the audio volume the IDENT
signal “DFV” is heard. The localizer needle gives the expected command indication,
but the glideslope warning flag remains on. The most likely reason for this is that:
a) The glideslope transmitter is not operational.

b) The aircraft is out of the glideslope area coverage.
c) The selected frequency is incorrect.

367. The maximum range of SSR equipment is:
a) 50 NM.
b) 200 NM.
c) 120 NM.
368. An aircraft is on the localizer centre line (QDM 033) Inbound with the OBS set at
030. The CDI indication will be:
a) Fly Right.
b) Needle central.
c) Fly Left.
369. DME transmits an IDENT at least once every:
a) 10 seconds.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 37.5 seconds.
370. The factors affecting the accuracy of a VOR reading are:
a) Airborne equipment, Site error, Propagation error, Refraction error.
b) Airborne equipment, Site error, Propagation error, Conduction error.
c) Airborne equipment, Site error, Propagation error, Interference error.
371. The principle of VOR is bearing measurement by:
a) Wave transmission.
b) Phase comparison.
c) Limacon positions.
372. A VOR cardiod is also called a:
a) Limacon.
b) Rotating signal.
c) Result of the loop aerial.
a) No identification signal is transmitted.

warnings.
c) A continuous bleep is transmitted.

ANSWERS:
1 A 48 B 95 A
2 C 49 C 96 A
3 C 50 C 97 B
4 C 51 C 98 B
5 C 52 A 99 C
6 B 53 A 100 A
7 C 54 B 101 B
8 C 55 A 102 B
9 B 56 A 103 A
10 B 57 A 104 B
11 A 58 C 105 B
12 A 59 A 106 C
13 B 60 A 107 A
14 B 61 B 108 B
15 A 62 A 109 B
16 C 63 B 110 A
17 C 64 B 111 B
18 B 65 A 112 C
19 A 66 C 113 B
20 B 67 B 114 B
21 C 68 A 115 C
22 C 69 B 116 C
23 A 70 B 117 A
24 C 71 A 118 C
25 C 72 A 119 A
26 B 73 A 120 B
27 B 74 A 121 B
28 B 75 C 122 B
29 B 76 C 123 B
30 C 77 A 124 B
31 B 78 B 125 A
32 C 79 B 126 C
33 C 80 C 127 B
34 C 81 A 128 A
35 A 82 C 129 C
36 B 83 C 130 B
37 B 84 C 131 A
38 B 85 A 132 B
39 A 86 A 133 A
40 B 87 C 134 B
41 C 88 C 135 C
42 C 89 B 136 B
43 B 90 B 137 C
44 B 91 A 138 B
45 B 92 B 139 C
46 C 93 C 140 A
47 B 94 A 141 B

142 C 190 C 238 C

143 A 191 C 239 A
144 C 192 A 240 C
145 A 193 B 241 A
146 B 194 C 242 B
147 C 195 B 243 C
148 C 196 A 244 A
149 A 197 A 245 A
150 B 198 B 246 B
151 A 199 B 247 B
152 B 200 B 248 B
153 C 201 A 249 C
154 A 202 A 250 B
155 A 203 A 251 A
156 C 204 C 252 C
157 A 205 B 253 B
158 B 206 B 254 B
159 A 207 C 255 A
160 C 208 C 256 B
161 B 209 C 257 A
162 C 210 A 258 A
163 B 211 B 259 A
164 A 212 B 260 A
165 A 213 B 261 B
166 B 214 A 262 A
167 A 215 B 263 B
168 A 216 C 264 A
169 B 217 B 265 B
170 A 218 A 266 B
171 C 219 B 267 C
172 C 220 C 268 B
173 B 221 C 269 A
174 C 222 C 270 B
175 C 223 B 271 A
176 B 224 A 272 A
177 A 225 B 273 B
178 B 226 C 274 A
179 A 227 A 275 B
180 A 228 A 276 B
181 A 229 C 277 C
182 C 230 A 278 B
183 B 231 A 279 C
184 C 232 A 280 C
185 A 233 A 281 A
186 A 234 B 282 B
187 B 235 C 283 B
188 A 236 B 284 B
189 A 237 B 285 C

286 B 325 B 364 B

287 A 326 C 365 B
288 A 327 C 366 C
289 B 328 C 367 B
290 B 329 B 368 B
291 C 330 A 369 C
292 C 331 A 370 C
293 B 332 A 371 B
294 B 333 B 372 A
295 C 334 C 373 A
296 B 335 A
297 C 336 B
298 B 337 C
299 A 338 C
300 B 339 A
301 B 340 A
302 B 341 B
303 A 342 C
304 A 343 A
305 C 344 A
306 C 345 A
307 B 346 A
308 C 347 B
309 A 348 B
310 C 349 A
311 B 350 B
312 C 351 C
313 A 352 C
314 A 353 A
315 C 354 C
316 B 355 A
317 C 356 A
318 A 357 A
319 A 358 B
320 A 359 A
321 A 360 A
322 A 361 C
323 C 362 C
324 C 363 A


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COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – RADIO AIDS (Typical Questions)

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – RADIO AIDS PAGE 1 of 60

1. In which frequency does the VOR operate?

2. What does the relative bearing indicator of an ADF indicate?

a) The bearing of the NDB relative to True North.

3. The international distress frequencies are:

a) 500 kHz 121.5 MHz 8364 MHz

4. From where can ATIS information be received?

a) From the ILS transmission.

a) Execute the missed approach procedure.

7. The rate of descend required to stay on the ILS glide path:

a) Will be determined by the TAS.

8. The “squelch” control on a VHF communication receiver:

a) Extends the range of the receiver.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – RADIO AIDS PAGE 2 of 60

a) The heading remains constant.

a) Point in exactly the same direction.

a) Half the day frequency.

12. Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

a) Slant range, distance in nautical miles.

a) 9 stations and 10 seconds.

14. With reference to the ILS, false glide paths are:

a) Extremely dangerous to the pilot.

15. With reference to ATC transponders, Mode C is used for:

a) Automatic Altitude reporting.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – RADIO AIDS PAGE 3 of 60

a) Equal to the power.

a) 10 NM and 6250 feet Alt.

21. Ground wave attenuation is greatest on:

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – RADIO AIDS PAGE 4 of 60

23. An ILS glide path can be between:

24. At 1600 UTC, NDB SL bears 091° Relative by ADF.

26. If the transmission frequency is 95 MHz, what is the wavelength in metres?

a) 0700 7700 7600

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – RADIO AIDS PAGE 5 of 60

30. The DME frequency band is:

31. A VOR station has the IDENT POV.

a) They are co-located and may be used tighter.

32. A DME transponder becomes saturated:

34. Operation of the weather radar on the ground is:

35. ASR weather radar operates at Super High Frequencies because:

a) Short wavelengths give good reflections from large water drops.

a) The transmission and reply frequencies are 63 MHz apart.

37. The iso-echo contour system is used by weather radar to:

a) Enable all clouds to be painted the same brightness regardless of range.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – RADIO AIDS PAGE 6 of 60

38. The weather beam of ASR weather radar is:

a) A conical pencil beam.

39. The mapping beam of ASR weather radar is:

a) A conical pencil beam.

41. The frequencies used by SSR are:

a) Interrogation 1090 MHz Replay 1030 MHz

43. The length of an ATC transponder framing pulse is:

44. The transponder IDENT button is used:

a) On initial contact with ATC.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – RADIO AIDS PAGE 7 of 60

45. Radio Altimeter errors are:

a) Mushing and Phase errors.