General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements: Solutions

Chapter 17
General Principles and Processes of

Isolation of Elements
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Occurrence of metals and thermodynamical principles of metallurgy)
1. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Chalcopyrites  CuFeS2
(2) Smithsonite  ZnCO3
(3) Magnetite  Fe3O4
(4) Argentite  Na3AlF6
Sol. Answer (4)
Argentite is Ag2S whereas Na3AlF6 is cryolite. Therefore option (4) is not correctly matched.
2. Which of the following is not a mineral of aluminium?

(1) Bauxite (2) Cryolite (3) China clay (4) Malachite
Sol. Answer (4)
Malachite is not a mineral of aluminium. Malachite is CuCO3Cu(OH)2, an are of copper.
3. Which of the following is acidic flux?

(1) CaO (2) MgO (3) SiO2 (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
SiO2 is an acidic oxide and used as an acidic flux to remove basic impurities in the form of slag.
FeO + SiO 2 
 FeSiO 2
slag
SiO2 is used in metallurgy of Cu to remove FeO.
4. In the metallurgy of iron, the slag is

(1) FeSiO3 (2) CaCO3 (3) CaSiO3 (4) CaO
Sol. Answer (3)
In the metallurgy of iron, the impurity is SiO2 and it is removed as CaSiO3 by using CaO.
SiO 2 + CaO 
 CaSiO 3
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2 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Solutions of Assignment
5. Which of the following is concentrated by magnetic separation method?

(1) Pyrolusite MnO2 (2) Chromite ore FeOCr2O3
(3) Magnetite Fe3O4 (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Pyrolusite (MnO2), Chromite ore (FeOCr2O3) and Magnetite (Fe3O4) are magnetic in nature and can be
concentrated by magnetic separation method.
6. Which of the following is commonly used to produce foam in froth floatation process?
(1) Pine oil (2) Cresol (3) NaCN (4) Xanthate
Sol. Answer (1)
In froth floatation process, pine oil is used to produce foam and work as collector/transforming agent.
7. Serpeck’s method involves the heating of bauxite with

(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3 (3) N2 + C (4) CaCO3
Sol. Answer (3)
In Serpeck's method white bauxite is heated with coke in presence of N2 gas.

Al 2O 3 + N 2 + 3C   3CO + 2AlN
 NH3 + 2Al  OH 3

AlN + 3H 2O 
Aluminium nitride formed in 1st step is reacted with water to produce Al(OH)3 which gives Al2O3 on ignition.
8. Sulphide ore is converted to oxide form by using the process

(1) Calcination (2) Roasting (3) Smelting (4) Leaching
Sol. Answer (2)
Sulphide ores are generally roasted in free supply of air below their melting point
2ZnS + 3O 2 
 2ZnO + 2SO 2
9. Which of the following has the lowest percentage of carbon in it?

(1) Pig iron (2) Cast iron (3) Wrought iron (4) Haematite
Sol. Answer (3)
Wrought iron is the purest form of iron and contains least amount of carbon (upto 0.5%).
10. Roasting of sulphide ore is generally performed in

(1) Muffle furnace (2) Bessemer converter (3) Blast furnace (4) Reverberatory furnace
Sol. Answer (4)
Roasting of sulphide ore is generally performed in reverberatory furnace.
11. Which of the following is leached with NaCN?

(1) Ore of Al (2) Ore of Cu (3) Ore of Ag (4) Ore of Zn
Sol. Answer (3)
Ore of Ag is leached with NaCN during extraction of Ag
 4  Au  CN 2   aq + 4OH –aq

4Au(s) + 8CN –aq + 2H 2O  aq + O 2  g 
–
Solutions of Assignment General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 3
(Ellingham diagrams)
12. Ellingham diagrams are plots of G°f Vs T for the formation of

(1) Oxides (2) Halides (3) Sulphides (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Ellingham diagram is plotted graphs of formation of oxides, sulphides and halides versus temperature.
13. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. the following graph?
2Mg + O2  2MgO
0
–900 4 Al + O  2 Al O
3 2 3 2 3
G° –1000
–1
kJ mol
–1100
T 1623 K
(1) Below 1623 K, Mg reduces Al2O3 (2) Above 1623 K, Al reduces MgO
(3) Both (1) & (2) are correct (4) Both (1) & (2) are wrong
Sol. Answer (3)
The Ellingham diagram, the element which is present below can reduce the metal which is present above
it. Below 1623 K, Mg can reduce Al2O3 since curve of Mg lies below the curve of Al2O3 below 1623 K but
after 1623 K curve of Al2O3 is present below the slope of Mg, so after 1623 K, Al can reduce MgO.
14. In Ellingham diagrams of fG oxide formation Vs T, which of the following graphs has negative slope?
(1) C  CO (2) Fe  Fe2O3 (3) Mg  MgO (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
In Ellingham diagram the slope of C  CO is negative because entropy change is negative. Therefore, G
becomes more negative with increase in temperature.
15. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. metallurgy of iron in the blast furnace?
(1) Zone of combustion : C + O2  CO2 (2) Zone of heat absorbtion : CO2  C + O2
(3) Zone of slag formation : CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3 (4) Zone of reduction : Fe2O3 + 3C  3CO + 2Fe
Sol. Answer (2)
Zone of heat absorbtion : CO2  C + O2
In zone of heat absorption CO2 reacts with coke to reduce the temperature
C + CO2  2CO.
(Electrochemical principles of metallurgy)
16. Which metal is used for extraction of Au and Ag and also for galvanisation of iron objects?
(1) Mg (2) Zn (3) Cr (4) Co
Sol. Answer (2)
Zinc is used as reducing agent for the extraction of Au and Ag.
Zn(s) + 2  Au  CN 2  aq 
 2Au(s) +  Zn  CN 4  aq
– 2–
Zinc being a more electropositive metal used for the galvanization of iron to prevent it from rusting.
17. Which of the following oxides cannot be reduced by auto or self reduction?
(1) HgO (2) Cu2O (3) PbO (4) Al2O3
Sol. Answer (4)
Less reactive metals like Cu, Hg and Pb form unstable sulphides which can undergo auto-oxidation. Al is
reactive metal and does not undergo auto-oxidation.
18. Which of the following is used as reducing agent in Gold schmidt method?
(1) Al (2) K (3) C (4) Mg
Sol. Answer (1)
In Gold Schmidt method, aluminium is used as reducing agent
3Mn 3O 4 + 8Al 
 4Al 2O 3 + 9Mn
19. Which of the following is used to reduce TiCl4 to Ti?

(1) C (2) Al (3) Mg (4) H2
Sol. Answer (3)
In Kroll's process for titanium, Mg is used as reducing agent
TiCl 4 + 2Mg 
 2MgCl 2 + Ti
20. Zinc is extracted from zinc blende by

(1) Carbon reduction process (2) Nitrogen reduction process
(3) Oxygen reduction process (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Zinc is extracted from zinc blende by carbon reduction process
2ZnS + 3O 2 
 2ZnO + 2SO 2
1673 K
ZnO + C   Zn + CO
21. Hall Heroult method is used for the extraction of

(1) Ti (2) Al (3) Au (4) Zn
Sol. Answer (2)
Hall Heroult method is used for the extraction of aluminium. The overall reaction is
2Al 2O 3 + 3C 
 4Al + 3CO 2
22. The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous alumina is called
(1) Roasting (2) Calcination (3) Dressing (4) Smelting
Sol. Answer (2)
The conservation of hydrated oxides ores to their oxides by heating in the absence of O2 below their melting
point is called calcination. For example,

Al 2O 3  xH 2O   Al 2O 3 +xH 2O
23. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by

(1) Electrolytic reduction (2) Roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(3) Roasting followed by reduction with another metal (4) Roasting followed by self reduction
Sol. Answer (2)
Zinc is first roasted to form ZnO
 1
ZnS + 2O 2   ZnO + SO 2 + O
2 2
The zinc oxide formed is reduced by using carbon
1673 K
ZnO + C   Zn + CO
24. Which of the following gives metal by electrolytic reduction conveniently and profitably?
(1) PbO (2) Fe2O3 (3) Cr2O3 (4) Al2O3
Sol. Answer (4)
Aluminium can be profitabily and conveniently obtained by electrolytic reduction process.
25. Which of the following metal can be extracted by self reduction process?
(1) Pb (2) Hg (3) Cu (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Oxides of less reactive metal can undergo self reduction to produce metal. Oxides of Cu, Pb and Hg can
undergo self reduction or auto reduction.
(Refining)
26. Poling is used for purification of metals having impurities of

(1) Metal sulphides (2) Metal carbonates
(3) Metal bicarbonates (4) Metal oxides
Sol. Answer (4)
Poling method is used to purify a metal that has its oxide as impurity used for refining of Cu and Sn.
27. Impure zinc, as collected from earthen clay retort, is called

(1) Blister zinc (2) Pig zinc (3) Zinc spelter (4) Cast zinc
Sol. Answer (3)
During extraction of zinc when Zn metal is distilled off and collected by rapid chilling, the impure zinc is called
spelter and contains Cd, Pb and Fe as major impurities.
28. Which of the following metal is purified by distillation process?

(1) Zn (2) Fe (3) Al (4) Cu
Sol. Answer (1)
Zn is distilled in horizontal earthen clay retort or vertical retort.
29. Vapour phase refining can be carried out in case of

(1) Ni (2) Zr (3) Ti (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Vapour phase refining is used for the purification of Ti, Zr and Ni. These metals form stable volatile compounds
which on strong heating produces pure metal.
1700 K
Til 4 (g)   Ti + 2I 2
2070 K
ZrI 4 (g)   Zr(s) + 2I 2 (g)
Ni  CO 4 (g) 

450 – 470 K
 Ni + 4CO
30. Which of the following is not a method of purification of metals?

(1) Liquation (2) Distillation (3) Zone refining (4) Galvanisation
Sol. Answer (4)
In galvanisation process, Zn is used to protect iron from rusting. It is not a method of purification of metal.
SECTION - B
(Occurrence of metals and thermodynamical principles of metallurgy)
1. A substance which reacts with gangue to form fusible material is called

(1) Flux (2) Catalyst (3) Ore (4) Slag
Sol. Answer (1)
Flux is a substance used to react with impurities to form fusible substance. For example, SiO2, CaO etc.
2. Cyanide process is used for the extraction of

(1) Au (2) Cu (3) Zn (4) Fe
Sol. Answer (1)
Cyanide process is used for the extraction of Au and Ag
 4  Au  CN 2   aq + 4OH –

–
4Au(s) + 8CN –aq + 2H 2O(aq) + O 2 (g) 
Zn(s) + 2  Au(CN) 2   aq 

 2Au(s) +  Zn  CN 4   aq
– 2–
3. Calcination is the process in which

(1) Heating the ore in presence of air (2) Heating the ore in absence of air
(3) Heating in vacuum (4) Heating of ore in presence of N2
Sol. Answer (2)
Calcination process is heating of hydrated oxides, carbonate to convert them into oxides, in the absence of
oxygen

Fe 2O 3  XH 2O(s)   Fe 2O 3 (s) + xH 2O 
4. Which of the following is not a concentration technique?

(1) Levigation (2) Froth- flotation (3) Leaching (4) Calcination
Sol. Answer (4)
Calcination is not a method of concentration of ore. It is used for the conversion of carbonate, hydroxides,
hydrated oxides into corresponding oxide.
5. The ores that are concentrated by Froth flotation method are

(1) Carbonate (2) Sulphides (3) Oxides (4) Phosphates
Sol. Answer (2)
Froath floatation process is used for the concentration of sulphide ores.
6. In blast furnace, iron oxide is reduced by

(1) Silica (2) CO (3) H2S (4) Lime stone
Sol. Answer (2)
In blast furnace iron oxide is reduced by carbon monoxide
Fe 3O 4 + CO 
 3FeO + CO 2
FeO + CO 
 Fe + CO 2
7. The silver complex formed during cyanide process is

(1) Na2[Ag(CN)] (2) Na[AgCN] (3) Na2[Ag(CN)2] (4) Na[Ag(CN)2]
Sol. Answer (4)
During cyanide process Na[Ag(CN)2] is formed
 4Na  Ag  CN 2  + 4NaOH

4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H 2O + O 2 
8. Zincite and calamine respectively are

(1) Oxide and carbonate ore of Zn (2) Carbonate and oxide ore of Zn
(3) Oxide and sulphate ore of Zn (4) Sulphate and sulphite ore of Zn
Sol. Answer (1)
Zincite 
 ZnO (zinc Oxide)
Calamine 
 ZnCO 3 (zinc Carbonate)
9. Which of the following is chalcopyrite?

(1) CuFeS2 (2) FeS2 (3) KMgCl3.6H2O (4) Al2O3.2H2O
Sol. Answer (1)
CuFeS2 is called chalcopyrites. Also known as copper pyrites and Fool's gold.
10. The alloy used in dental filling contains

(1) Ag and Sn (2) Ag and Sb (3) Hg, Ag and Sn (4) Hg, Ag and Sb
Sol. Answer (3)
In dental filling, the alloy used consist of (50%) Hg, Ag (22.23%) and Sn (~ 14%).
11. What is the slag formed from P2O5 impurity in metallurgy of iron?
(1) Ca3(PO4)2 (2) CaSiO3 (3) Fe3(PO4)2 (4) FeSiO3
Sol. Answer (1)
In the metallurgy of iron, slag formed P2O5 is Ca3(PO4)2
 Ca 3  PO 4  2
P2O 5 + 3CaO 
12. Which of the following oxide is thermally least stable?

(1) CaO (2) Al2O3 (3) Fe2O3 (4) Ag2O
Sol. Answer (4)
Due to small size of Ag2+, it has very small size. This small size of Ag2+ gives Ag2O more covalent character
than CaO, Al2O3 and Fe2O3. Since covalent oxides are thermally stable than ionic oxides, Ag2O is thermally
least stable.
13. Thomas slag is

(1) Calcium silicate (2) Anode mud (3) FeSiO3 (4) Calcium phosphate
Sol. Answer (4)
Thomas slag is Ca3(PO4)2, a by-product of steel industry.
(Electrochemical principles of metallurgy)
14. Which of the following metal can be extracted without using reducing agent?
(1) Sn (2) Pb (3) Fe (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxides of less reactive metals like Pb can undergo auto reduction and the metal can be extracted without
using reducing agent.
15. Which of the following metal is extracted by using coke and carbon monoxide as reducing agent?
(1) Na (2) Cu (3) Fe (4) Al
Sol. Answer (3)
Fe 2O 3 + C 
 3CO + Fe
Fe 2O 4 + C 
 3FeO + CO 2
FeO + CO 
 Fe + CO 2
Fe can be extracted by using coke and carbon monoxide.
16. Which of the following metal is extracted by the use of cyanide solution?
(1) Pb (2) Zn (3) Mn (4) Ag
Sol. Answer (4)
Ag can be extracted by using solution of cyanide ion
 4  AgCN 2   aq + 4OH –

4Ag(s) + 8CN –aq + 2H 2O  aq + O 2  g 
–
Zn(s) + 2  Ag  CN 2   aq 

 2Ag(s) +  Zn  CN 4   aq
– 2–
17. Electrolytic reduction method is used for extraction of

(1) Highly electronegative elements (2) Transition metals
(3) Highly electropositive elements (4) Metalloids
Sol. Answer (3)
Electrolytic reduction method is used for extraction of highly electropositive elements because they are highly
reactive and very difficult to extract from other processes.
18. Which of the following metals cannot be extracted by carbon reduction process?
(1) Pb (2) Al (3) Hg (4) Zn
Sol. Answer (2)
Aluminium cannot be extracted by carbon reduction process because reduction of oxides of aluminium with
carbon requires a very high temperature of about 2000°C as shown in Ellingham diagram.
19. What will happen, if anode is made of nickel instead of graphite in the extraction of aluminium from AlCl3?
(1) Nickel will be affected by high temperature (2) Nickel will combine with Cl2
(3) Nickel is insulator (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Nickel combines with Cl2
2AlCl 3 + 3Ni 
 2Al + 3NiCl 2
At cathode, Al 3+ melt  + 3e – 
 Al(l)
At anode, Ni(s) + 2Cl – 

 NiCl 2 + 2e –
20. When molten NaCl is electrolysed by using inert electrode, the product obtained at cathode is
(1) Na (2) Cl2 (3) H2 (4) Na-Hg amalgam
Sol. Answer (1)
When molten NaCl is used in electrolysis, the product obtained at cathode is sodium (Na)
At cathode, Na + (melt) + e – 
 Na(l)
21. Which of the following give respective metal by self reduction?

(1) Galena PbS (2) HgS (3) ZnS (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Both PbS and HgS on roasting undergo auto reduction to give respective metal
 
PbS + O 2 
– SO 2
 PbO + PbS   Pb + SO 2
 
HgS + O 2 
– SO 2
 HgO + HgS   Hg + SO 2
22. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Al2O3 cannot be reduced into Al by Cr2O3 (2) Ca is stronger reducing agent than Mg
(3) At 673 K, CO is poor reducing agent than carbon (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
At higher temperature Al2O3 can be reduced by Cr.
23. By which process zinc is extracted from zinc blende?

(1) Electrolytic reduction (2) Roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(3) Calcination followed by reduction with carbon (4) Roasting followed by self reduction
Sol. Answer (2)
Roasting followed by reduction with carbon

2ZnS + 3O 2   2ZnO + 2SO 2  Roasting
1400 C
ZnO + C   Zn + CO Reduction with CO
(Refining)
24. Which of the following is not a refining process?

(1) Mond’s process (2) Van-Arkel process (3) Poling (4) Leaching
Sol. Answer (4)

Leaching is a method of extraction of metal. Mond's process, Van-Arkel process and poling are used for refining
of metals.
25. From gold amalgam, gold may be recovered by

(1) Distillation (2) Oxidation
(3) Electrolytic refining (4) Dissolving in HNO3
Sol. Answer (1)
From gold amalgam, gold may be recovered by distillation process since Hg is as metal with low BP, it will
boil first and will separate out from gold.
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina? [NEET-2018]
(1) Fe (2) Zn (3) Cu (4) Mg
Sol. Answer (4)
The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the correct option.
2. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN– ion. Silver is later recovered by [NEET-2017]
(1) Liquation (2) Distillation (3) Zone refining (4) Displacement with Zn
Sol. Answer (4)
Zn being more reactive than Ag and Au, displaces them.
From Native ore,
Leaching
4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2  4Na[Ag(CN)2 ]  4NaOH
Soluble
Sodium dicyanoargentate(I)
Displacement
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn   Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Ag
3. Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct option: [NEET-2016]
Column I Column II
(a) Cyanide process (i) Ultrapure Ge
(b) Froth floatation (ii) Dressing of ZnS
process
(c) Electrolytic (iii) Extraction of Al
reduction
(d) Zone refining (iv) Extraction of Au
(v) Purification of Ni
(1) a(iii)b(iv)c(v)d(i) (2) a(iv)b(ii)c(iii)d(i) (3) a(ii)b(iii)c(i)d(v) (4) a(i)b(ii)c(iii)d(iv)

Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
4. Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al2O3) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Al2O3 + Na3AIF6 + CaF2 (2) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AIF6
(3) Al2O3 + HF + NaAIF4 (4) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAIF4
Sol. Answer (1)
During extraction of aluminium by electrolysis, a molten mixture of Al2O3, Na3AlF6, CaF2 is used. CaF2 is used
as flux and Na3AlF6 is the main electrolyte.
The overall reaction is 2Al 2O 3 + 3C 

 4Al + 3CO 2
5. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Iron sulphide (FeS) (2) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(3) Copper () sulphide (Cu2S) (4) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
Sol. Answer (3)
In the final step of extraction of copper, Cu2O is reduced with the help of Cu2S.
CU 2S + 2Cu 2O 
 6Cu + SO 2 .
6. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Bell metal (2) Bronze (3) Invar (4) Steel
Sol. Answer (4)
7. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Pyrolusite (2) Magnetite (3) Malachite (4) Cassiterite
Sol. Answer (2)
Magnetite (Fe3O4) is a mineral of iron.
8. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by Van Arkel method? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Ni and Fe (2) Ga and In (3) Zr and Ti (4) Ag and Au
Sol. Answer (3)
Van Arkel method is used to collect ultra pure titanium and zirconium by using I2 as specific reagent.
9. Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?
(1) Phosphorus (2) Manganese (3) Carbon (4) Silicon
Sol. Answer (3)
Carbon is the major impurity in the pig iron. Pig iron contains about 4% carbon.
10. The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction
pertaining to the formation of the slag [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) CaO(s) + SiO2(s)  CaSiO3(s)
(2) 2C(s) + O2(g)  2CO(g)
(3) Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g)  2Fe(l) + 3CO2(g)
(4) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Sol. Answer (1)
In the blast furnace during the extraction of iron SiO2 is present as impurity and CaO is used as flux to remove
SiO2 in the form of CaSiO3 (slag).
11. Match List-I (substances) with List-II (process) employed in the manufacture of the substances and select the
correct option
List - I (Substances) List - II (Processes)
a. Sulphuric acid (i) Haber's process
b. Steel (ii) Bessemer's process
c. Sodium hydroxide (iii) Leblanc process
d. Ammonia (iv) Contact process [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (4)
12. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting sulphide ore before reduction is not true?
(1) Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible
(2) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides
(3) The fG of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2 and H2S
(4) The fG is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
Sol. Answer (2)
13. Sulphides ores of metals are usually concentrated by Froth Floatation process. Which one of the following
sulphides ores offers an exception and is concentrated by chemical leaching ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Sphalerite (2) Argentite (3) Galena (4) Copper pyrite
Sol. Answer (2)
14. The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbondioxide) in the production of 270 kg of aluminium metal
from bauxite by the Hall process is (Atomic mass Al= 27) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) 180 kg (2) 270 kg (3) 540 kg (4) 90 kg
Sol. Answer (4)
15. In which of the following process fused sodium chloride is electrolysed for extraction of sodium?
(1) Castner process (2) Cyanide process (3) Down's process (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (3)
Na is extracted by the electrolysis of fused sodium chloride by Down's process in which Na is collected at
cathode.
16. Which of the following does not contain aluminium?
(1) Cryolite (2) Fluorspar (3) Feldspar (4) Mica
Sol. Answer (2)
Fluorspar is CaF2. Also known as fluorite and does not contain aluminium.
17. Which of the following does not contain Mg?
(1) Magnetite (2) Asbestos (3) Magnesite (4) Carnalite
Sol. Answer (1)
Magnetite is Fe3O4, an are of iron and it does not contain magnesium.
18. Carborundum is
(1) CaC2 (2) CaCO3 (3) Fe3C (4) SiC
Sol. Answer (4)
Carborundum is SiC, silicon carbide. It is a very hard substance which is used as abrasive.
19. Bessemer converter is used for manufacture of
(1) Steel (2) Wrought iron (3) Pig iron (4) Cast iron
Sol. Answer (1)
Steel is commonly prepared in Bessemer converter. Steel contains 0.1 to 1.7% carbon.
20. Mond's process is used for
(1) Ni (2) Al (3) Fe (4) Cu
Sol. Answer (1)
Mond's process is used for refining of Ni
330–350 K
Ni + 4CO   Ni  CO 4
Impure Volatile
Ni  CO 4 
450–470 K
 NI + 4CO
Pure
21. Which process of purification is represented by following scheme?

250ºC 1400ºC
Ti  2I2   TiI4   Ti  2I2
(Impure) (Pure)
(1) Poling (2) Electro refining (3) Zone refining (4) van Arkel process
Sol. Answer (4)
In Van Arkel process titanium and zirconium are purified by using I2 as specific reagent.
22. Which of the following sulphides when heated strongly in air gives the corresponding metal?
(1) CuS (2) Fe2S3 (3) FeS (4) HgS
Sol. Answer (4)
HgS undergo auto reduction and gives the Hg metal on strong heating.
O 2 / 
HgS 
– SO 2
 HgO + HgS   Hg + SO 2
23. Most important ore of tin is
(1) Cassiterite (2) Cryolite (3) Malachite (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
The most important ore of tin is cassiterite (SnO2).
24. Heating of ore in presence of air to remove sulphur impurities is called
(1) Calcination (2) Roasting (3) Smelting (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Heating of sulphide ore in presence of air to get corresponding oxide is called roasting

For example, 2ZnS + 3O 2   2ZnO + 2SO 2 .
25. Sodium is extracted from
(1) NaCl(aq) (2) NaCl(l) (3) NaOH(aq) (4) NaNO3(aq)
Sol. Answer (2)
Sodium is extracted by electrolysis of molten NaCl. Na metal is collected at cathode and gives Cl2 at anode.
26. Among the metals, the one that cannot be obtained by reduction of its metal oxide
(1) Cr (2) Fe (3) Mn (4) Mg
Sol. Answer (4)
In Ellingham diagram, the slope of Mg  MgO lies well below the slope of C  CO. A very high
temperature is required for the reduction of Mg. Therefore, Mg cannot be obtained by its reduction.
27. Which of the following is used as depressant in the separation of mixture of PbS and ZnS?
(1) NaCN (2) NaCl (3) AgCl (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
During the concentration of sulphide ores using froath floatation process, NaCN is used to separate PbS and
ZnS. NaCN reacts with ZnS and forms Na2[Zn(CN)4] therefore, acts as depressants.
28. Which contains both iron and copper?
(1) Cuprite (2) Chalcocite (3) Chalcopyrite (4) Malachite
Sol. Answer (3)
Chalcopyrite contains both Cu and Fe. Chalcopyrite is CuFeS2.
29. To dissolve argentite ore which of the following is used?
(1) Na[Ag(CN)2] (2) NaCN (3) NaCl (4) HCl
Sol. Answer (2)
Argentite is dissolved using NaCN
 Na 2SO 4 + 2Na  Ag  CN 2 

Ag 2S + 4NaCN + 2O 2 
Argentite
30. Iron obtained from blast furnace is

(1) Wrought iron (2) Cast iron (3) Pig iron (4) Steel
Sol. Answer (3)
Iron obtained from blast furnace is pig iron. It contains about 4% carbon with many other impurities like S,
P, S8, Mn etc.
31. Elements used as semiconductor are purified by
(1) Van Arkel method (2) Mond process (3) Distillation (4) Zone refining
Sol. Answer (4)
Semiconductor like Si, Ge, Ga etc can be purified by using zone refining method.
32. Which of the following oxide is least stable?
(1) CO2 (2) CO (3) MgO (4) HgO
Sol. Answer (4)
HgO is least stable oxide because +1 oxidation state of Hg is more stable.
33. The inner layer of a blast furnace is made of
(1) Graphite bricks (2) Silica bricks (3) Basic bricks (4) Fireclay bricks
Sol. Answer (4)
The inner layer of blast furnace is made up of fire clay bricks which can withstand high temperature.
34. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a by- product. This is a colorless gas with choking smell of burnt
sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic
acts as a reducing agent and its acid is known only in solution. The gas X is
(1) SO2 (2) CO2 (3) SO3 (4) H2S
Sol. Answer (1)
Sulphur dioxide is a colourless gas which can cause damage to respiratory organs. Its aqueous solution is
acidic
SO 2 + H 2O 
 H 2SO 3
H2SO3 is sulphurous acid and it is known only in solution.
35. Which of the following mineral contains calcium as well as magnesium?
(1) Tridymite (2) Aragonite (3) Dolomite (4) Carnalite
Sol. Answer (3)
Dolomite is CaCO3MgCO3 which contains Ca as well as Mg.
SECTION - D
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
1. A : Cuprite is concentrated by froth floatation process.
R : Cuprite is the sulphide ore.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is incorrect because sulphide ores are concentrated by froath floatation process and cuprite is not
a sulphide ore, Hence reason is also false.
2. A : Bauxite is purified by leaching process.
R : Aluminium oxide reacts with NaOH to form soluble sodium meta aluminate.
Sol. Answer (1)
Bauxite (Al2O32H2O) is purified by leaching process. In this process bauxite is treated with NaOH to form
sodium meta aluminate
Al 2O 3  2H 2O + 2NaOH 
45% NaOH
200–250°C
 2NaAlO 2 + 3H 2O
Sodium Meta
sulphate
Hence, both Assertion and Reason are true.

3. A : Calamine and Dolomite are the carbonate ores.
R : Calamine is ZnCO3 whereas Dolomite is MgCO3.ZnCO3.
Sol. Answer (3)
Calamine is ZnCO3 whereas Dolomite is CaCO3MgCO3. Therefore, Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. A : Roasting process is involved in the metallurgy of Cu from Malachite ore.
R : Roasting is the process of heating the ore in absence of air.
Sol. Answer (4)
Roasting process is used for sulphide ores. Malachite is CaCO3Cu(OH)2 which can be converted into oxide
by calcination process. Roasting is done in presence of air. Therefore, both Assertion and Reason are false.
5. A : Metallurgy of Ag from Argentite is known as hydro-metallurgy.
R : Argentite is Ag2S.
Sol. Answer (2)
In the extraction of Ag from argentite, leaching is done with the help of NaCN and Zn dust. This process is
called hydrometallurgy. Argentite is Ag2S but this reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
6. A : In the manufacturing of iron from haematite, silicon dioxide is added as flux.
R : Lime stone is also used as acidic flux in many case.
Sol. Answer (4)
In the metallurgy of Iron CaO is used as flux and SiO2 is present as impurity. Limestone is not used as acidic
flux.
Hence, both Assertion and Reason are false.
7. A : Ultrapure metals are obtained by zone refining.
R : Van arkel method is used for purification of titanium.
Sol. Answer (2)
Zone refining method is used for purification of semiconductors and this method gives metals of very high purity.
Van Arkel method is used for purification titanium. Hence, Reason and Assertion are true but Reason is not
the correct explanation.
8. A : Wrought iron is purest form of iron with respect to other forms.

R : It has less than 0.5% carbon.
Sol. Answer (1)
The percentage of impurities in wrought iron is minimum and it contains less than 5% carbon. Therefore, both
Assertion and Reason are true.
9. A : Magnesium oxide is used for the lining in steel making furnace.
R : Magnesium oxides acts as flux.
Sol. Answer (1)
In the steel industry, MgO is used for lining the surface of furnace. MgO is a basic oxide and reacts with SiO2
which is present in the iron ore as impurity to form slag. Hence MgO acts as a flux. Therefore, both Assertion
and Reason are true.
10. A : Aluminium metal is used as a reducing agent for the extraction of metals.
R : Aluminium has great affinity for oxygen.
Sol. Answer (1)
Aluminium metal has great affinity for oxygen and it readily combines with oxygen. This property of aluminium
makes it a suitable reducing agent for the extraction of other metals. Hence, both assertion and reason are
true.
11. A : Zinc but not copper is used for recovery of Ag from the complex [Ag(CN)2]–.
R : Zinc is more powerful reducing agent in comparison to copper.
Sol. Answer (1)
During the extraction of Ag, Zn is used for the reduction. Cu is a less electropositive metal and less reactive
than Zn. Due to high electropositive nature of Zn, zinc dust is used for the recovery of Ag from the complex
[Ag(CN)2]–.
12. A : Hydrometallurgy is used for extraction of Ag and Au.
R : Hydrometallurgy is different from pyrometallurgy.
Sol. Answer (2)
Hydrometallurgy is used for the extraction of Ag and Au in which they are treated with NaCN solution. This
process is known as leaching. Pyrometallurgy is thermal treatment of minerals and is different from
hydrometallurgy.
Therefore Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
13. A : Pure silver is obtained by electrolysis of AgNO3 solution.
R : In electrolysis impure silver is taken as cathode and pure silver is taken as anode.
Sol. Answer (3)
Pure silver can be obtained by electrolysis of AgNO3 solution. During its electrolysis, pure silver is taken as
cathode so the impure silver from the anode dissolves and pure silver is deposited at cathode made up of pure
silver.
Hence Assertion is true, Reason is false.
14. A : Carbon is used in blast furnace for reduction of Fe2O3.
R : This process is called smelting.
Sol. Answer (2)
Carbon is used as a reducing agent in the blast furnace for the reduction of Fe2O3 to obtain Fe. This process
of reduction is known as smelting. Reason is true but not the correct explanation of Assertion.
15. A : In Hall’s process Aluminium is purified.
R : Al2O3 (aq) is used in Hall’s process.
Sol. Answer (4)
Hall's process is a method of extraction of aluminium not of purification, Also in Hall's process molten Al2O3
is used. Therefore, both Assertion and Reason are false.

Chapter 18
The d and f-Block Elements
Solutions
SECTION - A
(The d-Block elements)
1. Which of the following does not have abnormal electronic configuration?
(1) Cr (2) Pd (3) Pt (4) Hg
Sol. Answer (4)
Hg does not have abnormal electronic configuration.
2. The trend in ionisation enthalpy of a transition element is not regular because

(1) Removal of one electron alters the relative energies of 4s and 3d orbitals
(2) Due to different E.C. (stability)
(3) Poor screening of 3p orbital
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
3. The element having lowest IE1

(1) Fe (2) Co (3) Ni (4) Cu
Sol. Answer (3)
Ni has the lowest IE1 value because of the sheilding of 3d electrons.
4. Choose the correct pair regarding IE3.

(1) Mn > Cr (2) Mn > Fe (3) Zn > Cu (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
All the given options are correct.
5. Which of the following element does not show the variable oxidation state?
(1) Fe (2) Mn (3) Cu (4) Zn
Sol. Answer (4)
Zn does not show variable oxidation state due to 3d104s2 configuration (i.e. very stable).
18 The d and f-Block Elements Solutions of Assignment
6. With F highest stable oxidation state of Mn is

(1) +6 (2) +4 (3) +7 (4) +3
Sol. Answer (2)
The highest oxidation state of Mn with F is +4. Because F is very highly electronegative eg. MnF4.
7. With O highest possible oxidation state of Mn is

(1) +7 (2) +4 (3) +5 (4) +3
Sol. Answer (1)
KMnO4  Oxidation state of Mn = +7.
8. Oxygen stabilises higher oxidation state because

(1) It is electronegative (2) Of its tendency to form double bond
(3) Of small size (4) Of large size
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxygen stabilisers higher oxidation states because of its tendency to form double bonds.
9. Which of the following have highest magnetic moment?

(1) Fe2+ (2) Mn+ (3) Fe3+ (4) Fe+
Sol. Answer (2)
Mn+  3d54s1 
 5 unpaired electrons
   5  5  2 BM = 35  5.92 BM .
10. Reduction potential of M2+/M will depend on

(1) IE1 + IE2 (2) Hatomisation (3) Hydration energy (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
E° M2+/M depends on all the given factors (fact).
11. Amongst the following ions, which is considered as most stable in M2+ state?
(1) Ti2+/Ti (–1.63 V) (2) V2+/V (–1.11 V) (3) Cr2+/Cr (–0.90 V) (4) Mn2+/Mn (1.18 V)
Sol. Answer (1)

Higher the E red value, higher stability.
12. Electrode potential of M2+/M for Ni is abnormal because of

(1) High IE1 + IE2 (2) High hydration energy
(3) Hatomisation (4) Electronic configuration of Ni2+
Sol. Answer (2)
Electrode potential of M2+/M for Ni is abnormal because of high hydration energy (fact).
13. The species which is paramagnetic

(1) Cr+ (2) Zn2+ (3) Cu+ (4) MnO4–
Solutions of Assignment The d and f-Block Elements 19
Sol. Answer (1)
Cr+  3d5  = 5.92 BM.
14. When intimate mixture of potassium dichromate and potassium chloride is heated with conc. H2SO4 which
of the following is produced in the form of red vapours?
(1) CrO3 (2) Cr2O3 (3) CrO2Cl2 (4) CrCl2
Sol. Answer (3)
K 2Cr2O 7 + 4KCl + 6H 2SO 4 

 2CrO 2Cl 2 + 6KHSO 4 + 3H 2O
red
 CrO2Cl2 is produced.
15. Which one of the following pairs of ions have same electronic configuration?
(1) Cr3+ Fe3+ (2) Mn2+, Fe3+ (3) Fe3+ Co3+ (4) Sc3+, Cr3+
Sol. Answer (2)
Mn2+  3d5
Fe3+  3d5
16. The reducing nature of any metal in aqueous solution depends upon
a. Enthalpy of atomisation
b. Ionisation enthalpies
c. Hydration energy
(1) a & b only (2) Only b (3) b & c only (4) a, b & c
Sol. Answer (4)
Reducing nature of metal depends on
Enthalpy of atomisation
Ionization enthalpies
Hydration energy (fact).
17. The magnetic moment of a transition metal ion is found to be 5.92 BM. The number of unpaired electrons
present in it is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
Sol. Answer (4)
  5.92 BM (Given)
  n(n + 2) BM
5.92  n(n + 2)
n(n + 2) = 35
n 2 + 2n – 35 = 0
 n=5
18. Which of the following is non-typical transition element?

(1) Ti (2) Cr (3) Fe (4) Sc
Sol. Answer (4)
Sc is non typical transition element because in +3 state, there is no d-electron.
19. n-Factor of KMnO4 in neutral medium is

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3
Sol. Answer (4)
KMnO4 is neutral medium
KMnO 4 + 2H 2O 
 MnO 2
7 4
 n-factor = 7 – 4 = 3
20. K2Cr2O7 + I– + H+  Oxidized product. The product is

(1) KIO3 (2) I2 (3) I3– (4) Cr2O3
Sol. Answer (2)
I2 is the reduced product.
21. Which of the following is coloured due to charge transfer?

(1) MnO4– (2) CrO42– (3) Cu2O (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
All the changes in colour are due to charge transfer.
H
22. Cr2O72– + X 
 Cr3+ + H2O + oxidised product of X. X in the above reaction cannot be
(1) C 2O 24 (2) Fe2+ (3) SO 24 (4) S2–
Sol. Answer (3)

+
7 + X  Cr
H
Cr2O 2– 3+
+ H 2O + Oxidized product of X
X is SO 2–
4
and the oxidized product of X is HSO 4– .
23. Which of the following oxide is basic?

(1) CrO (2) Cr2O3 (3) CrO3 (4) Cr2O4
Sol. Answer (1)
CrO is basic because it is in the least oxidation state of Cr.
(The f-Block elements)
24. The inner transition element that is radioactive is

(1) Pm (2) Gd (3) Lu (4) Sm
Sol. Answer (1)
Pm is radioactive (fact).
25. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that

(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius (2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius (4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
Sol. Answer (3)
Zr and Hf have about the same radius due to lanthanide contraction.
26. Size of lanthanide decrease because of poor screening of

(1) 4f (2) 3d (3) 5f (4) 4d
Sol. Answer (1)
Size of lanthanide decrease because of poor screening of 4f electrons.
27. The strongest base is

(1) Ce(OH)3 (2) Lu(OH)3 (3) Yb(OH)3 (4) Pm(OH)3
Sol. Answer (1)
As we go right in a period, basic nature of the hydroxides decreases.
 Ce(OH)3 is most basic among the given.
28. The element that is not present in misch metal is

(1) La (2) Iron (3) Na (4) Ce
Sol. Answer (3)
Misch metal composition – (50% Ce, 25% La, small amount of Nd and Pr blended with iron oxide).
29. Most stable oxidation state of Lanthanides

(1) +2 (2) +3 (3) +4 (4) +1
Sol. Answer (2)
Most stable oxidation state is +3 (fact).
30. Which of the following is the consequences of lanthanide contraction?

(1) Separation of mixture of lanthanides is difficult
(2) Basic nature of hydroxides decrease from first member to last member of lanthanides
(3) Size of Hf and Zr is different
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Both (1) & (2) are correct (fact).
SECTION - B
(The d-Block elements)
1. Coinage metals are
(1) Normal metals (2) Transition metals (3) Active metals (4) Highly electropositive
Sol. Answer (2)
Generally, we consider Cu, Ag, Au as coinage metals and they come under transition metals.
X Y
2. Pyrolusite is used to prepare potassium permanganate MnO2   MnO42   MnO4
X and Y are
(1) Fuse with KOH/air, electrolytic reduction (2) Fuse with KOH/air, electrolytic oxidation
(3) Fuse with con. HNO3/air, electrolytic reduction (4) All are correct
Sol. Answer (2)
MnO 2 
KOH / Air
 MnO 2–
4 
Electrolytic
Oxidation
MnO 4–
3. Which one of the following exhibits highest oxidation state?

(1) Zr (2) V (3) Mn (4) Ni
Sol. Answer (3)
Among the given, Mn exhibit highest oxidation state, i.e. +7.
4. A purple coloured solution is made alkaline with KOH and is treated with KI forming potassium iodate. The
same solution is acidified with H2SO4 and again it is treated with KI. However this time instead of potassium
iodate, iodine gas is released. The purple coloured solution is of
(1) K2Cr2O7 (2) K2Cr2O4 (3) KMnO4 (4) K2MnO4
Sol. Answer (3)
2KMnO 4 + H 2O + I – 
Alkaline
 2MnO 2 + 2OH – + KIO 3
KMnO 4 + H 2SO 4 + KI 
 Mn 2+ + 8H 2O + 5I 2
 KMnO4 is the required solution.
5. Acidified solution of chromic acid on treatment with H2O2 gives blue colour which is due to
(1) CrO3 + H2O + O2 (2) Cr2O3 + H2O + O2
(3) CrO5 + H2O (4) H2Cr2O7 + H2O + CO2
Sol. Answer (3)
K 2Cr2O 7 + H 2SO 4 + 4H 2O 2 
 2CrO 5 + 5H 2O + K 2SO 4
Blue
6. FeSO4 on heating gives

(1) SO2 and SO3 (2) SO2 only (3) SO3 only (4) SO2 and O2
Sol. Answer (1)

FeSO 4   Fe 3O 4 + 2SO 3 + SO 2
7. What are the species X and Y in the following?


OH
X  H2 O  H2 Cr2 O7  Y
(1) CrO4–2, Cr2O7–2 (2) CrO3, Cr2O3 (3) H2CrO4, H2Cr2O7 (4) CrO3, CrO4–2
Sol. Answer (4)
–
CrO 3 + H 2O  OH
 H 2Cr2O 7   CrO 4–
 X Y
8. The correct statement

(1) Green vitriol and blue vitriol are isomorphus
(2) KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 are coloured due to d-d transitions
(3) Cu2Cl2 and Ag2S are coloured
(4) Upon strong heating paramagnetic gases are evolved by NaNO3 and AgNO3
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
9. Which oxide of manganese is acidic in nature?

(1) MnO (2) Mn2O7 (3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO2
Sol. Answer (2)
Mn2O7 is acidic in nature (fact).
10. The blue colour produced on adding H2O2 to acidified K2Cr2O7 is due to the formation of
(1) CrO5 (2) Cr2O3 (3) CrO42— (4) CrO3
Sol. Answer (1)
K 2Cr2O 7 + H 2SO 4 + 4H 2O 2 
 2CrO 5 + K 2SO 4 + 5H 2O
Blue
11. 4K2Cr2O7  4K2CrO4 + 3O2 + X, in this reaction X is

(1) CrO3 (2) Cr2O7 (3) Cr2O3 (4) CrO5
Sol. Answer (3)
4K2Cr2O7  4K2CrO4 + 3O2 + 2Cr2O3
12. Which of the following is not coloured?

(1) Mn2+ (2) Cr3+ (3) Zn2+ (4) Cu2+
Sol. Answer (3)
Zn2+ does not show any colour because no any transition is possible there due to 3d10 configuration.
13. Ammonium dichromate is used in fireworks.The green coloured powder blown in the air is
(1) CrO3 (2) Cr2O3 (3) Cr (4) CrO(O)2
Sol. Answer (2)
NH 4  2 Cr2O 7 
 Cr2O 3 + N 2 + 4H 2O
Green
14. Which of the following statement is correct for 3d-transition element?

(1) All the metals except Sc forms 'MO' oxide
(2) All the metals except Zn forms 'MO' oxide
(3) All the metals except Zn and Sc form 'MO' oxide
(4) All the metals except Mn forms 'MO' oxide
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
15. Which of the following belongs to group ‘8’?

(1) Ni, Pd, Pt (2) F, Cl, Br (3) Fe, Ru, Os (4) Xe, Ar, Kr
Sol. Answer (3)
Fe, Ru, Os belong to group 8 due to their electronic configuration.
16. Which one of the following pairs of ions have same electronic configuration?
(1) Cr3+ Fe3+ (2) Mn2+, Fe3+ (3) Fe3+ Co3+ (4) Sc3+, Cr3+
Sol. Answer (2)
Mn2+ : 3d5
Fe3+ : 3d5
17. The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is equal to its molecular weight when it is converted to
(1) Mn2O3 (2) MnO2 (3) MnO4– (4) MnO42–
Sol. Answer (1)
2 3
2MnSO 4 
 Mn 2O 3
n-factor = 1
 Molecular weight = Equivalent weight.
18. Gun metal contains
(1) Cu, Sn, Zn (2) Cu, Ni (3) Cu, Ni, Fe (4) Cu, Sn, P
Sol. Answer (1)
Gun metal contains (Cu, Sn, Zn) casting alloy.
The main alloying constituent is beside copper, tin with 1.5 to 11%, Zn 1 – 9%
Note : Cu, Ni, Fe are monel metal, not gun metal.
19. The colour of K2Cr2O7 and Fe2+ ions are respectively due to
(1) d-d transition and charge transfer spectra (2) Charge transfer spectra and d-d transition
(3) Crystal defects and charge transfer spectra (4) Charge transfer spectra and crystal defects
Sol. Answer (2)
K2Cr2O7  Colour due to charge transfer.
Fe2+ ions  Colour due to d-d transition.
20. The element which does not show d0 configuration in its highest oxidation state
(1) V (2) Mn (3) Cr (4) Fe
Sol. Answer (4)
Highest oxidation state of Fe is +6 and Fe6+  3d2.
21. CrO3 is coloured due to

(1) Crystal defect (2) Unpaired electrons
(3) Charge transfer spectra (4) Low I.E.
Sol. Answer (3)
In CrO3 colour is due to charge transfer (fact).
22. Which of the following occur when AgNO3 becomes, red hot?
(1) 2AgNO3  2Ag + 2NO2 + O2 (2) AgNO3  Ag + NO + O2
(3) 2AgNO3  AgNO2 + O2 (4) 2AgNO3  2Ag + N2 + 3O2
Sol. Answer (1)
If AgNO3 is red hot, it gets decomposed as
2AgNO 3 
 2Ag + 2NO 2 + O 2
23. Which one alloy does not contain copper?
(1) Bronze (2) Brass (3) German silver (4) Mischmetal
Sol. Answer (4)
Misch metal : 50% Ce, 25% La, small amount of Nd and Pr blended with FeO.
24. The metal which can form cation having metal - metal bond
(1) Mercury (2) Copper (3) Osmium (4) Iron
Sol. Answer (1)
Hg forms Hg 22
25. Value of magnetic moment of a divalent metal ion is 5.92 BM. Total number of electron in its atom would
be
(1) 24 (2) 25 (3) 26 (4) 27
Sol. Answer (2)
In divalent state, i.e. M2+
Given that  = 5.92 BM
 Number of unpaired electrons = 5
 3d5 configuration
 Among the given options it should be 25.
26. In black and white photography, the developed film is fixed by washing with
(1) AgBr solution (2) Hypo solution (3) Na2S4O6 solution (4) FeC2O4 solution
Sol. Answer (2)
In black and white photography hypo solution is used.
27. Gold dissolves in aqua regia to give

(1) H[AuCl4] (2) AuNO3 (3) H2[AuCl6] (4) Au(NO3)3
Sol. Answer (1)
 H  AuCl 4  .
Au + Aqua regia 
(The f-Block elements)
28. Ce(Z = 58) and Yb(Z = 70) exhibits stable +4 and +2 oxidation states respectively. This is because
(1) Ce4+ and Yb2+ acquire f 7 configuration (2) Ce4+ and Yb2+ acquire f 0 configuration
(3) Ce4+ and Yb2+ acquire f 0 and f 14 configuration (4) Ce4+ and Yb2+ acquire f 7 and f 14 configuration
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.
29. Transuranic elements begin with

(1) Np (2) Cm (3) Pu (4) U
Sol. Answer (1)
Transuranic elements are the elements, having atomic number greater than 92.
Atomic number of Np = 93
 Transuranic elements begin with Np.
SECTION - C
1. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well? [NEET-2018]
(1) CrO42– (2) Cr2O72– (3) MnO42– (4) MnO4–
Sol. Answer (3)
CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
2. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to [NEET-2017]
(1) The radioactive nature of actinoids
(2) Actinoid contraction
(3) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
(4) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
Sol. Answer (3)
It is a fact.
3. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Europium shows +2 oxidation state
(2) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu
(3) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium
(4) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.
4. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes of [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) d7 (2) d8
(3) d 4 (4) d9
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
5. Which one of the following statements is corrected when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?
[NEET-2016]
(1) Green Cr2(SO4), is formed (2) The solution turns blue
(3) The solution is decolourized (4) SO2 is reduced
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact
6. The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are
[NEET-2016]
(1) [Xe]4f76s2, [Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f96s2 (2) [Xe]4f76s2, [Xe]4f86s2 and [Xe]4f85d16s2
(3) [Xe]4f65d16s2, [Xe]4f75f1 and [Xe]4f96s2 (4) [Xe]4f65d16s2, [Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f85d16s2
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact
7. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic
configuration of gadolinium? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) [Xe]4f75d16s2 (2) [Xe]4f65d26s2 (3) [Xe]4f86d2 (4) [Xe]4f 95s1
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
8. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic radii?
(Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers) [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Zr (40) and Ta (73) (2) Ti (22) and Zr (40)
(3) Zr (40) and Nb (41) (4) Zr (40) and Hf (72)
Sol. Answer (4)
Zr and Hf have same size.
9. The pair of compounds that can exist together is [AIPMT-2014]
(1) FeCl3, SnCl2 (2) HgCl2, SnCl2 (3) FeCl2, SnCl2 (4) FeCl3, KI
Sol. Answer (3)
Both Fe and Sn are in lower oxidation state. Therefore redox is not possible.
10. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic conditions gives [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Mn4+ and O2 (2) Mn2+ and O2 (3) Mn2+ and O3 (4) Mn4+ and MnO2
Sol. Answer (2)
2KMnO4  3H2SO4  5H2O2  K 2SO4  2MnSO4  8H2O  5O2
11. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions ? (At. nos. Ti=22, Cr=24, Mn=25, Ni=28)
[AIPMT-2014]
(1) Ti3+ (2) Ni2+ (3) Cr3+ (4) Mn2+
Sol. Answer (2)
n(n  2)  2.83
n2  2n  (2.83)2
 n=2
Ni2+ = 3d8
i.e., 2 unpaired electrons
12. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals (2) Increasing nuclear charge
(3) Decreasing nuclear charge (4) Decreasing screening effect
Sol. Answer (1)
f-orbitals have poor shielding effect.
13. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic? (At nos. Ce=58, Sm=62, Eu=63, Yb=70) [NEET-2013]
(1) Sm2+ (2) Eu2+ (3) Yb2+ (4) Ce2+
Sol. Answer (3)
14. Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect ? [NEET-2013]
(1) They are chemically reactive
(2) They are much harder than the pure metal
(3) They have higher melting points than the pure metal
(4) They retain metallic conductivity
Sol. Answer (1)
15. Which of the statements is not true ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange
(2) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
(3) On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed
(4) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis
Sol. Answer (4)
Na2Cr2O7 is not preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis. K2Cr2O7 is used as primary standard in volumetric
analysis.
16. Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it ?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation states
(2) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ : increasing magnetic moment
(3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting points
(4) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy
Sol. Answer (3)
The incorrect order of increasing melting point is
Ti < V < Cr < Mn
Melting point increases from T1 to chromium but decreases in case of Mn. Mn has melting point even lower
than that of Ti.
17. Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) U (2) Th (3) Ac (4) Pa
Sol. Answer (3)
18. Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which one of them the
standard potential (EM2+/M) value has a positive sign ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Co (Z = 27) (2) Ni (Z = 28) (3) Cu (Z = 29) (4) Fe (Z = 26)
Sol. Answer (3)
19. Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the formation of
(1) CrSO4 (2) Cr2(SO4)3 (3) CrO42– (4) Cr2(SO3)3
Sol. Answer (2)
20. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there
in which of the following order? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(At nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
(1) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe (2) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
(3) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr (4) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
Sol. Answer (2)
More the number of unpaired electrons more will be the stability.
Hence, the correct order is, Mn > Fe > Cr > Co.
21. Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) La3+ (Z = 57) (2) Ti3+ (Z = 22) (3) Lu3+ (Z = 71) (4) Sc3+ (Z = 21)
Sol. Answer (2)
22. Which one of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar] 3d6 ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Ni3+ (2) Mn3+ (3) Fe3+ (4) Co3+
Sol. Answer (4)
23. Which of the following pairs has the same size ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Fe2+, Ni2+ (2) Zr4+, Ti4+ (3) Zr4+, Hf4+ (4) Zn2+, Hf4+
Sol. Answer (3)
24. Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 3
Sol. Answer (4)
Lanthanides show 3+ oxidation state generally.
25. The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) and Mn(25) is
(1) Ti > V > Cr > Mn (2) Cr > Mn > V > Ti (3) V > Mn > Cr > Ti (4) Mn > Cr > Ti > V
Sol. Answer (2)
Cr > Mn > V > Ti
This is the order of the decreasing second ionization enthalpy of above elements. After loosing an electron
Cr gains stable 3d5 configuration which describes it high 2nd ionization enthalpy. Mn also loses an electron
and form stable half filled Mn+(3d54s1). Vanadium due to smaller size posses higher 2nd ionization enthalpy
that Ti.
26. Number of moles of MnO4– required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic medium will be
(1) 0.2 moles (2) 0.6 moles (3) 0.4 moles (4) 7.5 moles
Sol. Answer (2)
27. Identify the incorrect statement among the following [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
(2) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu
(3) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages
(4) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities
with the 5d series of elements
Sol. Answer (4)
28. Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution? (Atomic number. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24,
Mn = 25) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Mn2+ (2) Cr3+ (3) V3+ (4) Ti3+
Sol. Answer (2)
Cr3+  d3 configuration
i.e. t2g orbitals is half filled  Stable aqueous compound.
29. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main reason for this
is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(2) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(3) Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids
(4) More active nature of the actinoids
Sol. Answer (2)
30. Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) CuCN (2) [Cu(CN)4]3–
(3) [Cu(CN)4]2– (4) Cu(CN)2
Sol. Answer (2)
 K 3  Cu(CN) 4 
CuSO 4 + KCN 
(excess)
31. In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution?(At. no.: Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28,
Cu = 29, Co = 27) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Ni2+, Ti3+ (2) Sc3+, Ti3+ (3) Sc3+, Co2+ (4) Ni2+, Cu+
Sol. Answer (1)
Ti3+ (3d1) and Ni2+ (3d8) have unpaired electrons.
 Both Ti3+ and Ni2+ ions are coloured in aqueous solution.
32. The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced one mole of Kl in alkaline medium is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) One fifth (2) Five (3) One (4) Two
Sol. Answer (4)
In alkaline medium
2MnO 4 – + H 2O + I – 
 2MnO 2 + 2OH – + IO 3–
 2 moles of KMnO4 are reduced by 1 mole of KI.
33. The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless? (Atomic no. Sc = 21, Fe = 26,
Ti = 22, Mn = 25) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Sc 3+ (2) Fe2+ (3) Ti3+ (4) Mn2+
Sol. Answer (1)
Sc3+ has 3d0 configuration with no unpaired electron. Therefore Sc3+ is colourless in its aqueous solution.
34. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which
one of them expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Vanadium (Z = 23) (2) Chromium (Z = 24) (3) Iron (Z = 26) (4) Manganese (Z = 25)
Sol. Answer (4)
35. The main reason for larger number of oxidation states exhibited by the actinides than the corresponding lanthanides,
is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(2) Larger atomic size of actinides than the lanthanides
(3) More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(4) Greater reactive nature of the actinides than the lanthanides
Sol. Answer (1)
Because of the lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals as compared to that of 4f and 5d orbitals,
achnoids exhibits more number of oxidation states.
36. The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to
(1) Their magnetic behaviour (2) Their unfilled d-orbitals
(3) Their ability to adopt variable oxidation states (4) Their chemical reactivity
Sol. Answer (3)
The ability to adopt variable oxidation state is the main reason which explains the catalytic activity of transition
metals.
37. Which one of the following elements shows maximum number of different oxidation states in its compounds?
(1) Gd (2) La (3) Eu (4) Am
Sol. Answer (4)
Americium (Am) being an actinide exhibits more number of oxidation states than lanthanides. It exhibits +3,
+4, +6, and +5 oxidation states.
38. Without losing its concentration ZnCl2 solution cannot be kept in contact with
(1) Pb (2) Al (3) Au (4) Ag
Sol. Answer (2)
Aluminium (Al) is more reactive than Zn and it can displace Zn from its salt solution.
39. Which ion is colourless?

(1) Cr4+ (2) Sc3+ (3) Ti3+ (4) V3+
Sol. Answer (2)
Sc3+ does not have any unpaired electron, hence it is colourless.
Sc3+ = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6
40. General electronic configuration of lanthanides is
(1) (n – 2) f 1 – 14 (n – 1) d 0 – 1 ns2 (2) (n – 2) f 10 – 14 (n – 1) d 0 – 1 ns2
(3) (n – 2) f 0 – 14 (n – 1) d 10 ns2 (4) (n – 2) d 0 – 1 (n – 1) f 1 – 14 ns2
Sol. Answer (1)
The general electronic configuration of lanthanides is (n – 2) f 1 – 14 (n – 1) d 0 – 1 ns2
41. Which of the following shows maximum number of oxidation states?
(1) Cr (2) Fe (3) Mn (4) V
Sol. Answer (3)
Manganese show maximum number of oxidation states from +2 to +7.
42. In the silver plating of copper, K[Ag(CN)2] is used instead of AgNO3. The reason is
(1) A thin layer of Ag is formed on Cu
(2) More voltage is required
(3) Ag+ ions are completely removed from solution
(4) Less availability of Ag+ ions, as Cu can not displace Ag from [Ag(CN)2]– ion
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
43. CuSO4 when reacts with KCN forms CuCN, which is insoluble in water. It is soluble in excess of KCN, due
to formation of the following complex
(1) K2[Cu(CN)4] (2) K3[Cu(CN)4] (3) CuCN2 (4) Cu[K Cu(CN)4]
Sol. Answer (2)
CuSO 4 + 2KCN 
 CuCN + K 2SO 4
 K 3  Cu(CN) 4 
CuCN + 3KCN 
44. Which of the following is expected to be coloured in solutions?
(1) Cu+ (2) Cu2+ (3) Ti4+ (4) Sc3+
Sol. Answer (2)
Cu2+ = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d9
Cu2+ contains unpaired electron in d-subsheel and hence Cu2+ is coloured in solution.
45. The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order (Atomic nos. Ti = 22, V = 23,
Cr = 24, Fe = 26)
(1) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO (2) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
(3) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO (4) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
Sol. Answer (4)
TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
46. The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+ and Lu3+ is (Atomic nos. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu = 71)
(1) Y3+ < La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ (2) Lu3+ < Y3+< Eu3+ < La3+
(3) Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ < Y3+ (4) La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ < Y3+
Sol. Answer (2)
The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+ and Lu3+ is
Y3+ < Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+
Due to lanthanide contraction, the size of 3+ ion decreases continuously from La to Iu, but Lu+3 ion has ionic
size greater than that of Y+3 which is a d block element.
47. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic
configuration is [At. Nos. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25]
(1) Ti3+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn4+ (2) Ti+, V4+, Cr6+, Mn7+
(3) Ti4+, V3+, Cr2+, Mn3+ (4) Ti2+, V3+, Cr4+, Mn5+
Sol. Answer (4)
Ti = 3d2, 4s2; V = 3d3, 4s2; Cr4+ = 3d5, 4s1; Mn = 3d5, 4s2
 Ti+2, V+3, Cr+4 and Mn+5 have 3d2 configuration.
48. Lanthanides are
(1) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic number 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublevel
(2) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic number = 90 to 103) that are filling 5f sublevel
(3) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic number = 58 to 71) that are filling the 4f sublevel
(4) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic number = 50 to 71) that are filling 4f sublevel
Sol. Answer (3)
Lanthanides are member of 6th period and starts from atomic number 58 to 71. They are 14 element in which
filling of electrons takes place in 4f sublevel.
49. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(1) La(OH)2 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(2) In lanthanide series ionic radius of Lu+3 ion decreases
(3) La is actually an element of transition series rather lanthanides
(4) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction
Sol. Answer (1)
As we go right in a period, the basic character decreases.
50. Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number of
oxidations states?
(1) 3d24s2 (2) 3d34s2
(3) 3d54s1 (4) 3d54s2
Sol. Answer (4)
3d54s2 will show highest numbers of oxidation states.
51. The highest possible oxidation state shown by osmium in its compound is
(1) +4 (2) +8
(3) +6 (4) +10
Sol. Answer (2)
Os shows 8+ oxidation state (maximum).
SECTION - D
1. A : FeO is basic in character.
R : Oxides of Transition metals are basic when metal is in lower oxidation state.
Sol. Answer (1)
Both are correct and correct explanation (fact).
2. A : Ti (IV) complexes are white.
R : Ti (IV) has no electrons in d subshell.
Sol. Answer (1)
Ti4+  3d0  no d-d transition  no colour.
3. A : Ce4+ is a good oxidizing agent.
R : Sm2+ is a good reducing agent.
Sol. Answer (2)
Both the statements are true.
But, reason is not the correct explanation for oxidizing character of Ce4+.
4. A : Equivalent mass of K2Cr2O7 when it acts as an oxidizing agent in acidic medium is M/6.
R : During reduction, oxidation number of chromium changes from +6 to +3.
Sol. Answer (1)
In acidic medium, n-factor of K2Cr2O7 is 6
M
 Equivalent mass =
6
5. A : All Cr–O bond length in K2Cr2O7 are equal.

R : Both the Cr are present in dsp2 hybrid state.
Sol. Answer (4)
In K2Cr2O7, some Cr–O bonds have double bond and some are single bond, so bond lengths are different and
Cr is sp3 hybridized.
6. A : FeCl3 reacts with KCNS to give blood red colour.
R : FeCl3 reacts with KCNS to form potassium ferro-ferricyanide.
Sol. Answer (3)
FeCl 3 + KCNS 
 Fe(CNS) 3 + 3KCl
 Yellow  (Blood red
ferric thiocyanate)
7. A : La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3.

R : Basic character of hydroxides of lanthanides increase on moving from La+3 to Lu+3.
Sol. Answer (4)
As we go right in a period the basic nature of hydroxides decreases.
8. A : KMnO4 is purple in colour due to charge transfer.
R : In MnO4–, Mn is in + 7 oxidation state and thus has no electron present in d orbitals.
Sol. Answer (1)
KMnO4 is purple.
In Mn7+ no any d electron, so d-d transition is not possible. Hence charge transfer.
9. A : CuSO4.5H2O on heating to 250°C losses all the five H2O molecules and becomes anhydrous.
R : All the five H2O molecules are co-ordinated to the central Cu+2 ion.
Sol. Answer (3)

CuSO 4  5H 2O 
250 C
 CuSO 4 + 5H 2O
(anhydrous)
All the 5H2O molecules are not bonded to the central atom.
10. A : Cr2O7–2 is orange in colour.
R : It is due to the presence of unpaired electrons in d-subshell of Cr.
Sol. Answer (3)
Cr2O7–2  orange colour true
Here Cr is in 6+  3d0 4s0  no any unpaired electron in d-subshell.
11. A : Mn shows exceptional M.P. in 3d series.
R : Its outer configuration is 4s2 3d5.
Sol. Answer (1)
Mn shows exceptional MP. Due to its very stable configuration i.e. 3d5 4s2.
12. A : I.E. of 5d elements > 4d elements in general.
R : It is due to lanthanide contraction.
Sol. Answer (1)
I.E. 5d elements > I.E. 4d elements due to lanthanide contraction.
13. A : There is very less gap between the value of radii of 4d and 5d elements.
R : Size of 5d is more than 4d subshell.
Sol. Answer (2)
The gap between radii of 4d and 5d elements is very less due to lanthanide contraction and size of 5d is
greater than size of 4d  True.
14. A : Mn2O7 is acidic in nature.
R : Mn has +7 oxidation state.
Sol. Answer (1)
Mn2O7 acidic in nature  True. In 7+ state Mn has high tendency to accept electron.
15. A : NiCl2 is more stable than PtCl2.
R : K2PtCl6 is more stable than K2NiCl6.
Sol. Answer (2)
NiCl2 is more stable than PtCl2  True
K2PtCl6 is more stable than K2NiCl6  True
Reason is CFSE.
16. A : Cr2O72– becomes equilibrium with CrO42– at PH > 5.

R : Cr2O72– is tetrahedral having Cr – O – Cr angle 109º28.
Sol. Answer (4)
H
P =4
CrO 2–
4

2–
Cr2O 7
In K2 Cr2O7 the Cr–O–Cr angle is 126°.

17. A : In CrO5 oxidation state of Cr is +10.
R : Cr2O72– (aq) is yellow in colour.
Sol. Answer (4)
In CrO5, oxidation state of Cr is 6+.
Cr2O72– (aq) is orange in colour.
18. A : Cu2+ is the only ion (M2+) which has positive Eºred (M2+/M) in 3d series.
R : Cu has lower hydration enthalpy as comparision to its I.E. and Hatm.
Sol. Answer (1)
Both the statements are correct with proper explanation.
19. A : Hg is a liquid transition metal.
R : It has strong metallic bonding.
Sol. Answer (4)
Hg is not a transition metal and there is no any strong metallic bonding that is why it is liquid.
20. A : Lanthanides have +3 as most common oxidation state.
R : Electrons of 4f in lanthanides rarely participate in bonding.
Sol. Answer (1)
Lanthanides, most commonly shows 3+ oxidation state because the 4f electrons do not participate in bonding.

Chapter 19
Coordination Compounds
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Classification of ligands and Nomenclature of coordination compounds)
1. The total number of electrons donated by ligands to platinum ion in [Pt(en)2Cl2] is
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14
Sol. Answer (3)
In [Pt(en)2Cl2], there are 2 monodentate and 2 bidentate ligands.
Hence, electrons donated by ligands = 2  2 + 2  4
=4+8
= 12
2. The IUPAC name of [Ni(CN)4]2– is

(1) Tetracyanonickel (II) ion (2) Tetracyanonickelate (II) ion
(3) Tetracyanonickel (0) ion (4) Tetracyanonickelate (0) ion
Sol. Answer (2)
IUPAC name of [Ni(CN)4]2– = Tetracyanonickelate (II) ion.
3. Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand?

(1) CN– (2) NO2– (3) SCN– (4) NH3
Sol. Answer (4)
NH3 can bind only from N side, so NH3 is not an ambidentate ligand.
4. Primary and secondary valencies of Cu in [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 is

(1) 4, 4 (2) 2, 4 (3) 4, 1 (4) 4, 2
Sol. Answer (2)
[Cu(NH3)4]SO4  [Cu(NH3)4]2+ + SO 2–
4
 Primary valency = 2
Cu is bonded to 4, NH3 ligands.
 Secondary valency = 4
38 Coordination Compounds Solutions of Assignment
5. IUPAC name of K[BF4]

(1) Potassium tetrafluoroborate (2) Tetrafluoroboron (III) potassium
(3) Potassiumtetrafluoridoborate (III) (4) Tetrafluoridoboron (III) potassium
Sol. Answer (3)
IUPAC name of K[BF4] = Potassiumtetrafluoridoborate (III).
6. Aq. solution of KCl  MgCl2  6H2O will give test of

(1) K+ and Mg2+ only (2) K+ and Cl– only (3) K+, Mg2+ and Cl– (4) Mg2+ and H2O only
Sol. Answer (3)
KCl  MgCl2  6H2O is a double salt. So, it will give the test of its constituent ions i.e. K+, Mg2+ and Cl–.
7. Which of the following complex is homoleptic?

(1) H2[PtCl6] (2) Li[AlH4] (3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Homoleptic complexes are the complexes, having all the ligands identical.
 All the given complexes are homoleptic.
8. Structural formula of tetraaquadichloridochromium(III) chloride

(1) [(H2O)4Cl2Cr]Cl2 (2) [Cl2(H2O)4Cr]Cl3 (3) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl (4) [Cr(H2O)4Cl3]
Sol. Answer (3)
Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III) chloride
 4 H2O, 2 Cl– in secondary valency and 1 Cl– in primary valency
 [CrCl2(H2O)4]Cl
9. Which of the following is not a polydentate ligand?

(1) Oxalate ion (2) Ethylenediamine (3) Thiocyanato (4) EDTA
Sol. Answer (3)
NCS– can bind from one side only at a time.
 Mono dentate ligand.
10. Correct order of power ligands in spectrochemical series
(1) I– < Br– < Cl– (2) C2O2–

4  H2 O  NCS
–
(3) NH3 < CN– < CO (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)
The given orders are correct.
(Isomerism in coordination compounds)
11. Oxidation number of platinum in cis-platin

(1) Zero (2) +2 (3) +4 (4) +6
Sol. Answer (2)
cis-platin  cis-[Pt Cl2(NH3)2]
 Oxidation number of Pt = +2
Solutions of Assignment Coordination Compounds 39
12. Aqueous solution of CoCl3  6NH3 upon addition with AgNO3 produces 3 moles white precipitate. Primary and
secondary valency of metal in this complex is
(1) 3, 6 (2) 2, 6 (3) 3, 3 (4) 6, 4
Sol. Answer (1)
3 moles white ppt.  3 moles of AgCl
 3Cl– are outside the coordination sphere
 Primary valency = 3
 6 NH3 are co-ordinated with Co, in the coordination sphere  Secondary valency = 6.
13. The complex [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Br and [Cr(H2O)5Br]Cl shows

(1) Linkage isomerism (2) Ionisation isomerism
(3) Hydrate isomerism (4) Co-ordination isomerism
Sol. Answer (2)
[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Br and [Cr(H2O)5Br]Cl has same molecular formula but in the first one Br is satisfying the primary
valency while in the second one satisfying the secondary valency.
 Ionization isomerism.
14. Which of the following octahedral complexes do not show geometrical isomerism?
(1) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (2) [PtCl2(NH3)4] (3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (4) [Co(en)3]3+
Sol. Answer (4)
[Co(en)3]3+ will not show geometrical isomerism, because only one structure is possible. (en is bidentate ligand).
15. Coordination isomerism exhibited by

(1) [Cr(en)2Cl2]NO2 (2) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 (3) [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] (4) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
Sol. Answer (3)
[Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] & [Cu(NH3)4] [PtCl4] are one of the possible isomers for same chemical formula, having
different co-ordination spheres.
16. Which one of the following complexes will have six isomers?
(1) [Co(en)NH3Cl2]Cl (2) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl (3) [Co(ox)3]3– (4) [Co(en)2Br2]Cl
Sol. Answer (4)
[Co(en)2Br2]Cl will show 6 isomers.
17. Which of the following does not show optical activity?

(1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] (2) [Cr(ox)3]3–
(3) [Co(ox)2(NH3)2]Cl (4) [Co(en)(NH3)2(H2O)2]Cl2
Sol. Answer (1)
[Co(NH3)4Cl2] has symmetrical structure
 Will not show optical activity.
18. How many isomers are possible in [Cr(en)2Br2]?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (2)
[Cr(en)2Br2]  Br
en Cr en
Br
en en
Br Br
Cr Cr
Br Br
en en
 3
(Bonding in coordination compounds)
19. The hybridisation of Ni in [Ni(CO)4] is
(1) sp3 (2) dsp2 (3) sp2 (4) sp3d
Sol. Answer (1)
CO
Ni (CO)4  Ni sp3 hybridization.

CO CO
CO
20. Which of the following is/are inner orbital complex?

(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– (2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (3) [Mn(CN)6]3– (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
CN & NH3 are ligands and strong enough to pair electrons. Hence, they form inner orbital complexes.
21. Which one of the following is paramagnetic in nature?

(1) Ni(CO)4 (2) [Ni(CN)4]2– (3) K4[Fe(CN)6] (4) [FeF6]4–
Sol. Answer (4)
[FeF6]4–  Fe2+  ⇒ Unpaired electrons

⇓
(F– is a weak field ligand) Paramagnetic
22. Number of unpaired electrons present in [Ni(H2O)6]2+

(1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three
Sol. Answer (1)
[Ni(H2O)6]2+  Ni2+  3d8 

⇓
Two unpaired electrons
23. The spin magnetic moment of iron in K3[Fe(CN)6]
(1) 3 BM (2) 5 BM (3) 15 BM (4) 24 BM
Sol. Answer (1)

K3[Fe(CN)6]  [Fe(CN)6]3–  Fe3+
Fe3+  3d5  (∵ CN– is strong field ligand)
 One unpaired electron
   n(n + 2)  1(1 + 2)  3 BM
24. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ and [Fe(CN)6]3– differ in

(1) Oxidation number (2) Coordination number (3) Structure (4) Magnetic nature
Sol. Answer (4)
In [Fe(H2O)6]3+  Fe3+  3d5  (H2O is moderate field ligand)
In [Fe(CN)6]3+  Fe3+  3d5  (CN– is strong field ligand)
Different number of unpaired electrons, different magnetic behaviour.
25. The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2– is 5.9 B.M. Geometry of the complex ion is
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Octahedral (3) Square planar (4) Pentagonal pyramidal
Sol. Answer (1)
[MnBr4]2– Mn2+ 3d5
Given that M = 5.9 BM
Let the number of unpaired electrons be n
 n(n + 2)  5.9
 n=5
 sp3 hybridization Tetrahedral
26. In the formation of octahedral complex, ligands approach towards _______ and _______ orbital of central metal.
(1) d xy , d 2 2
x –y
(2) dx2 – y 2 ,dz2 (3) dxy, dyz (4) dz 2 , d xz
Sol. Answer (2)

In formation of octahedral complexes, ligand approaches the metal ion along the coordinate axes.
 The orbitals are d x 2 –y 2 and d z 2 .
27. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(1) If 0 < P, high spin state is more stable
(2) NO2 is a strong ligand
(3) Colour of a complex depends upon nature of metal ion only
(4) 0 > t
Sol. Answer (3)
Colour of complex ion depends upon the nature of metal ion as well as the nature of ligand too.
 Statement (3) is incorrect.
28. Which of the following complex is most stable?

(1) [M(NH3)6]2+ (2) [M(NH3)6]3+ (3) [Men2(NH3)2]3+ (4) [M(en)3]3+
Sol. Answer (4)
∵ en is a chelating ligand.
Hence, it will form the most stable complex [M(en)3]3+.
29. According to crystal field theory, five d-orbitals of an octahedral complex split to give
(1) Two orbitals with lower energy and three orbitals with higher energy
(2) Three orbitals with lower energy and two orbitals with higher energy
(3) One orbital with lower energy and four orbitals with higher energy
(4) Four orbitals with lower energy and one orbital with higher energy
Sol. Answer (2)
d-orbital splits in 2 energy levels i.e. t2g and eg. eg is higher (2), t2g is lower (3).
30. Which reagent can be used to identify Ni2+ ion?

(1) Resorcinol (2) Dimethyl glyoxime
(3) Diphenyl benzidine (4) Potassium ferrocyanide
Sol. Answer (2)
Ni2+ forms Ni(DMG)2 (Red coloured) complex.
(Bonding in metal carbonyls, stability of coordination compounds)
31. Out of following which ligand is a  acid ligand?

(1) CO (2) NH3 (3) Cl– (4) H2O
Sol. Answer (1)
CO is a -acid ligand.
32. Which of the following is not organometallic complex?

(1) Grignard reagent (2) Ferrocene (3) Trans-platin (4) Diethyl zinc
Sol. Answer (3)
Cl NH3
Trans platin ⇒ Pt
NH3 Cl
It is not an organometallic complex.
33. Wilklinson catalyst is
(1) NiCl4 (2) (Ph3P)3RhCl (3) AlCl3 + TiCl4 (4) Fe(CO)5
Sol. Answer (2)
Wilklinson catalyst  (Ph3P)3RhCl.
34. Stability of the complex depends on

(1) Oxidation state (2) Nature of ligand
(3) Geometry of complex (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Stability of the complex depends on all the given factors.
35.  bonding is not involved in

(1) Ferrocene (2) Dibenzene chromium
(3) Zeise’s salt (4) Grignard reagent
Sol. Answer (4)
In Grignard reagent, there is no any involvement of  bonds.
SECTION - B
(Classification of ligands and Nomenclature of coordination compounds)
1. IUPAC name of H2[PtCl6] is

(1) Dihydrogen hexachloridoplatinum (IV) (2) Hexachloridoplatinic (IV) acid
(3) Dihydrogen hexachloridoplatinic (IV) acid (4) Hexachloridoplatinum (IV) acid
Sol. Answer (2)
IUPAC name of H2[PtCl6]  Hexachloridoplatinate (IV) acid.
2. Naming of ligand in [M(en)2]n+ starts with

(1) Di (2) Bi (3) Bis (4) Any of these
Sol. Answer (3)
en is ethylene diamine  an organic compound. Here it is used as a ligand so ‘bis’ will be used.
3. Which of the following has primary valency “2”?

(1) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl (2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (4) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl
Sol. Answer (1)
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl  [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl+  Co2+
4. Ligand to form a complex which is used to treat hard water

(1) NH3 (2) ox (3) en (4) EDTA
Sol. Answer (4)
EDTA is used to treat hard water. Because EDTA is a chelating ligand and forms stable complexes with Ca2+
and Mg2+ present in the hard water.
5. Which of the following is not bidentate ligand?

(1) acac (2) ox (3) en (4) dien
Sol. Answer (4)
Dien is not a bidentate ligand.
6. Which of the following is flexidentate?

(1) CO (2) en (3) EDTA (4) Cl–
Sol. Answer (3)
EDTA is a flexidentate because it has 6 binding sites.
(Isomerism in coordination compounds)
7. Which of the following will show optical activity?

(1) Cis  [Co(NH3 )2 (en)2 ]3  (2) Trans  [Co(NH3 )2 (en)2 ]3
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) Trans  [Co(H2O)4 Cl2 ]

Sol. Answer (1)
en
NH3
Cis  [Co(NH3 )2 (en)2 ]3   Co  Will show optical activity.
NH3
en
8. How many optical isomers are possible for [MABCD]?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) Zero
Sol. Answer (4)
A B
[MABCD] ⇒ M  No any optical isomers.

D C
9. Number of geometrical isomers possible for [MABCDEF] is
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 12
Sol. Answer (3)
[MABCDEF]  6 different ligands
6!
6
Possbile geometrical isomers = C 4 =  15 .
4!2!
10. [Ni(gly)2] shows two stereoisomers. Those are

(1) Geometrical (2) Optical
(3) Does not show isomerism (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (2)
11. Which octahedral coordination compound will show maximum conductivity in aqueous solution if all NH3 act as
ligands?
(1) CoCl3.6NH3
(2) CoCl3.5NH3
(3) CoCl3.4NH3
(4) All will have same conductivity as every compound has got 3Cl
Sol. Answer (1)
If all NH3 acts as ligand, then in case of CaCl36NH3, 3 Cl– ions will be outside the co-ordination sphere and
participate in the enhancement of conductivity.
(Bonding in coordination compounds)
12. Which is a diamagnetic complex?
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
Sol. Answer (4)
[Fe(CN)6]4–  Fe2+  3d6   Zero unpaired electron
(∵ CN– is a strong field ligand)

 Magnetic moment is zero
 Diamagnetic.
13. The hybridization of 'Cr' in the complex [Cr(NO2 )4 (NH3 )2 ] is

(1) sp3d2 (2) sp3d (3) d2sp3 (4) sp3
Sol. Answer (3)
[Cr(NO2 )4 (NH3 )2 ]  Cr3+  3d3
 d2sp3.
14. The geometry of [Ni(CO)4] and [PdCl4]2– respectively are

(1) Both are tetrahedral (2) Both are square planar
(3) Square planar and tetrahedral (4) Tetrahedral and square planar
Sol. Answer (4)
[Ni(CO)4]  sp3  Tetrahedral
[PdCl4]2–  dsp2  Square planar
15. Write the increasing order of the value is CFSES (0) for the following species
I. [Co(NH3)6]3+
II. [Rh(NH3)6]3+
III. [Ir(NH3)6]3+
(1) III < II < I (2) I < II < III (3) II < I < III (4) I < III < II
Sol. Answer (2)
With the increase of the size of central metal ion, d-d splitting increases.
 CFSE increases
 The correct order should be
| < || < |||
16. Which of the following is correct statement?

(1) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured complex
(2) [Si(H2O)6]4+ is colourless complex
(3) d - d transition is not possible in [Si(H2O)6]4+ complex
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)

[Ti(H2O)6]3+  Purple coloured complex
[Si(H2O)6]4+  Colourless, because no any transition
 All the statements are correct.
17. Which of the following will have greatest molar conductance at infinite dilution?
(1) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 (2) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 (3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] (4) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
Sol. Answer (4)
[Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 has highest conductance because there are 4 Cl– ions in the primary valency and they are
responsible for the enhanced molar conductance.
18. Which of the following is the high spin complex?

(1) [Cr(gly)3] (2) [CoBr2Cl2(SCN)2]3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) Na[PtBrCl(NO2)2(NH3)2]
Sol. Answer (2)
[CoBr2Cl2(SCN)2]3– will form spin complex because Br– and Cl– are weak field ligands and they will not compell
the d-electrons to be paired.
19. The coordination number and magnetic moment of the complex [Cr(C2O4)2(NH3)2]– respectively is
(1) 6, 3.87 BM (2) 4, 3.87 BM (3) 6, 3.46 BM (4) 4, 1.73 BM
Sol. Answer (1)
[Cr(C2O4)2(NH3)2]–  Cr3+  3d3
Octahedral complex  Co-ordination number = 6
Magnetic moment = 3(3  2) BM
 3  5 BM
 15 BM = 3.87 BM
20. If the value of C.F.S.E. for “Ni” is 0 then it is for Pd should be

(1) 1.1 0 (2) 0.5 0 (3) 1.5 0 (4) 2 0
Sol. Answer (3)
21. The value of ‘spin only’ magnetic moment, follows the correct order?
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– > [CoCl4]2– > [MnCl4]2– (2) [MnCl4]2– > [Fe(CN)6]4– > [CoCl4]2–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]4– > [MnCl4]2– > [CoCl4]2– (4) [MnCl4]2– > [CoCl4]2– > [Fe(CN)6]4–
Sol. Answer (4)
[MnCl4]2– Mn2+  3d5   Five unpaired electrons
   5(5  2)  35 BM = 5.92 BM
[COCl4]2– Co2+  3d7   Three unpaired electrons
   3(3  2)  15 BM = 3.87 BM
[Fe(CN)6]4– Fe2+  3d6    = 0
The correct order is [MnCl4]2– > [CoCl4]2– > [Fe(CN)6]4–
22. How many hydrogen bonded water molecules are present in blue vitriol?
(1) Zero (2) One (3) Four (4) Five
Sol. Answer (2)
Blue vitriol  CuSO45H2O
In this structure, there is 1 hydrogen bonded water molecule (fect).
23. If 0 is the crystal field stabilisation energy of a ligand and P is the energy required for electron pairing in an orbital,
then ligand is called weak ligand if
(1) 0 > P (2) 0 < P (3) 0 = P (4) Unpredictable
Sol. Answer (2)
If pairing energy (p) is greater than the CFSE (0) then, the ligand would not be able to pair the d-electrons
of metal ion and the ligand is said to be weak field ligand.
24. The complex compound bearing square planar geometry is

(1) Ni(CO)4 (2) [Ni(CN)4]2 – (3) [Mn(CN)6]3– (4) [MnCl4]2–
Sol. Answer (2)
[Ni(CN)4]2 –  3d8 
 dsp2
Square planar
25. The complex compound having maximum magnetic moment is

(1) [CoF6]3– (2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (3) [FeF6]3– (4) [Mn(CN)6]4–
Sol. Answer (3)
[FeF6]3–  Fe3+  3d5  (∵ F– is a weak field ligand)
 Five unpaired electrons
   5(5  2) BM = 35 BM = 5.92 BM
26. CFSE(0) for metal ion in d7 configuration in presence of strong ligand field is
(1) –0.6 0 (2) –0.8 0 (3) –1.6 0 (4) –1.8 0
Sol. Answer (4)
d7 configuration in strong field ligand,
⇒
t2g eg
CFSE = (–0.4  6 + 0.6)0
= (–2.4 + 0.6)0
= –1.8 0
27. In case of high spin situation

(1) 0 = P (2) 0 > P (3) 0 < P (4) 0.P = 1
Sol. Answer (3)
In case of high spin complexes 0 < P.
28. Which is a diamagnetic complex?

(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
Sol. Answer (4)
[Fe(CN)6]4–  Fe2+  3d6  (∵ CN– is a strong field ligand)
 No unpaired electron
 Zero magnetic moment
 Diamagnetic in nature
29. Which of the following is not -acid ligand?

(1) CO (2) F– (3) C2H4 (4) NO+
Sol. Answer (2)
F– is not -acid ligand.
30. The complex compound in which metal is not present in zero oxidation state?
(1) Mn2(CO)10 (2) [Ni(CO)4] (3) [Cr(C6H6)2] (4) K[PtCl3(C2H4)]
Sol. Answer (4)
In K[PtCl3(C2H4)], Cl– is in –1 oxidation state and here Pt is in +4 state.
SECTION - C
1. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is [NEET-2018]
(1) Tetranuclear (2) Mononuclear (3) Dinuclear (4) Trinuclear
Sol. Answer (2)
Based on the number of metal atoms present in a complex, they are classified into mononuclear, dinuclear,
trinuclear and so on.
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
Hence, option (2) should be the right answer.
2. The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is [NEET-2018]
(1) Geometrical isomerism (2) Coordination isomerism
(3) Linkage isomerism (4) Ionization isomerism
Sol. Answer (1)
In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co is 6 and this compound has octahedral geometry.
• As per given option, type of isomerism is geometrical isomerism.
3. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are [NEET-2018]
(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic (2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic (4) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic
Sol. Answer (2)
Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
∵ CO is a strong field ligand

Configuration would be :
3
sp -hybridisation
×× ×× ×× ××
CO CO CO CO
For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be sp3 and thus the complex would be diamagnetic and of tetrahedral
geometry.
CO
Ni
CO
OC
CO
4. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and
assign the correct code. [NEET-2018]
Column I Column II
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
v. 15 BM
a b c d
(1) iv v ii i
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii v i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
Sol. Answer (1)
Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5
Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2
5. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co3+ is
[NEET-2017]
(1) [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+
(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+ (4) [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
Sol. Answer (1)
The order of the ligand in the spectrochemical series H2O < NH3 < en
Hence, the wavelength of the light observed will be in the order [Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(en)3]3+
Thus, wavelength absorbed will be in the opposite order i.e.,[Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
6. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes
: CoCl36NH3, CoCl35NH3, CoCl34NH3 respectively is [NEET-2017]
(1) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl (2) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
(3) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl (4) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
Sol. Answer (3)
Complexes are respectively [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
7. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is [NEET-2017]
(1) Ruthenocene (2) Grignard's reagent (3) Ferrocene (4) Cobaltocene
Sol. Answer (2)
Grignard's reagent i.e., RMgX is -bonded organometallic compound.
8. Pick out the correct statement with respect [Mn(CN)6]3– [NEET-2017]
(1) It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral (2) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
(3) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral (4) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
Sol. Answer (3)
[Mn(CN)6]3–
Mn(III) = [Ar]3d4
CN– being strong field ligand forces pairing of electrons
4 0
This gives t2g eg
 Mn(III) = [Ar]
3d 4s 4p
2 3
d sp
∵ Coordination number of Mn = 6
 Structure = octahedral
[Mn(CN)6]3– =
[Ar]      
2 3
d sp
9. The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) NH3  CN  Br   C6H5 (2) CN  C6H5  Br   NH3
(3) Br   CN  NH3  C6H5 (4) CN  Br   C6H5  NH3
Sol. Answer (2)

Fact.
10. Which of the following has longest C – O bond length? (Free C – O bond length CO is 1.128 Å) [NEET-2016]
(1) [Mn(CO)6]+ (2) Ni(CO)4
(3) [Co(CO)4] (4) [Fe(CO)4]2–
Sol. Answer (4)

Due to increase in –ve charge on metal atom bond length of C – O bond increases.
11. The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN)6]3– is [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Tricyanoferrate (III) ion (2) Hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
(3) Hexacyanoiron (III) ion (4) Hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion
Sol. Answer (2)
[Fe(CN)6]3– : Hexacyanidoferrate(III) ion.
12. The hybridization involved in complex [Ni(CN)4]2– is (At. No. Ni = 28) [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) d2sp2 (2) d2sp3 (3) dsp2 (4) sp3
Sol. Answer (3)
The shape of [Ni(CN)4]2– is square planar, where CN– is a strong ligand and the hybridisation of Ni is dsp 2.
13. The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex [M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl (where
en is ethylenediamine) is [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 6
Sol. Answer (3)
ox
M en
en
Coordination number of M is 6.
Oxidation state of M is 3.
 Sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M is 9.
14. Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl will be (en = ethylenediamine) [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (1)
dextro
Cis
laevo
[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
trans
15. Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6]3– is true? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) [Co(CN)6]3– has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
(2) [Co(CN)6]3– has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration
(3) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration
(4) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
Sol. Answer (2)
Co3+ ⇒
[Co(CN)6]3– ⇒
16. Cobalt(III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following will not give test
for chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25°C? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) CoCl3.6NH3 (2) CoCl3.3NH3 (3) CoCl3.4NH3 (4) CoCl3.5NH3
Sol. Answer (2)
The compound will be [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
17. Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by (At. nos, Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27) [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Co2+ (2) Ni2+ (3) Ti3+ (4) Cr2+
Sol. Answer (2)
Magnetic moment   n(n  2) B.M.
2+
Ni :
3d 4s 4p
It has two unpaired electrons.
18. Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is
[AIPMT-2014]
(1) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (3) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]3+
Sol. Answer (2)
Fe+3 = d5 = t32geg2 , CFSE = 0.
19. Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) mer - [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (2) cis - [PtCl2(NH3)2] (3) cis - K2[PtCl2Br2] (4) Na2CoCl4
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
20. A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following [NEET-2013]
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) TiCl4 (3) [CoCl6]4– (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
Sol. Answer (4)
Magnetic moment   n(n + 2) [n = number of unpaired electrons]
 n(n + 2)  1.732
 n=1
In case of [Cu(NH3)4]2+  Cu2+  3d9   One unpaired electron  n = 1   = 1.73 BM
21. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100mL of a 0.01M solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium(III) chloride. The
number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be [NEET-2013]
(1) 0.002 (2) 0.003 (3) 0.01 (4) 0.001
Sol. Answer (4)
22. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour ?
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (3) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (4) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
Sol. Answer (3)
[Ni(NH3)6]2+  Ni2+  3d8  forms outer orbital complex
 Two unpaired electrons  Paramagnetic behaviour
23. Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni(II). Which of the
following statements is not true ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Red complex has a square planar geometry (2) Complex has symmetrical H-bonding
(3) Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry (4) Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand
OH
H C–C = N
dimethylglyoxime = 3
H3C–C = N
OH
Sol. Answer (3)
In this process [Ni(DMG)2] complex is formed and the structure of this complex is square planar due to dsp2
hybridization
 Statement (3) is incorrect.
24. Low spin complex of d6–cation in an octahedal field will have the following energy
(o = crystal field splitting energy in an octahedral field, P = electron pairing energy) [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
12 12 2 2
(1)   P (2)    3P (3)    2P (4)   P
5 5 5 5
Sol. Answer (2)
t2g eg
Low spin d6 
There are 3 pairs  Pairing energy = 3P

2 12
CFSE = –  6  – 0
5 5
12
 Total energy  –   3P
5 0
25. The complex, [Pt (Py) (NH3) Br Cl] will have how many geometrical isomers? (AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 0
Sol. Answer (2)
Geometrical isomers, possible for the complex, [Pt (Py) (NH3) Br Cl ]
Py NH3 Py NH3 Py Br
Pt Pt Pt
Cl Br Br Cl Cl NH3
 3
26. The complexes [Co(NH3)6][Cr (CN)6] and [Cr (NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism?
(1) Geometrical isomerism (2) Linkage isomerism
(3) Ionization isomerism (4) Coordination isomerism
Sol. Answer (4)
The given species have co-ordination isomerism.
27. The d-electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ and Co2+ are d4, d5, d6 and d7 respectively. Which one of the
following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour? (At. Nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
(1) [Cr (H2O)6]2+ (2) [Mn (H2O)6]2+ (3) [Fe (H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]2+
Sol. Answer (4)
H2O is a moderate field ligand
Cr2+  3d4   Four unpaired electrons
Mn2+  3d5   Five unpaired electrons
Fe2+  3d6   Four unpaired electrons
Co2+  3d7   Three unpaired electrons

More magnetic moment more paramagnetic behaviour
 Co2+ state will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour.
28. Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) [Co F6]3– (2) [Ni Cl4]2– (3) [Ni (CN)4]2– (4) [Cu Cl4]2–
Sol. Answer (3)
[Ni(CN)4]2–  Ni2+  3d8 
 Completely paired
 Diamagnetic in nature.
29. Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour ? (At. no. Ti = 22, Cr = 24,
Co = 27, Zn = 30) [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (3) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
Sol. Answer (4)
Co3+  3d6  0 0 (pairing takes place)
Zn2+  3d10  completely paired  Zero unpaired electrons
Ti3+  3d1 
Cr3+  3d3   Three unpaired electron  Highest paramagnetic behaviour.
30. Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C – O bond ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) [ V(CO)6 ]– (2) [Fe(CO) ] 5 (3) [ Mn(CO)6 ]+ (4) [Cr(CO)6 ]
Sol. Answer (3)
Mn(CO)6+ will have the strongest C–O bond because in this case C–O bond has the highest bond order.
31. Which of the following complex ion is not expected to absorb visible light ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 (3) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
Sol. Answer (1)
In [Ni(CN)4]2–, the scenario is like Ni2+  3d8 
 No possibility of transition
 Will not absorb visible light
32. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) –1.8 0 (2) –1.6 0+P (3) –1.2 0 (4) –0.6 0
Sol. Answer (4)
t2g eg
High spin d4 configuration 
 CFSE = 3  (–0.4) + 1  0.6 0

= – 1.2 + 0.6 0
= – 0.6 0
33. The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH3)4Cl2] + is due to
(1) Linkage isomerism (2) Geometrical isomerism
(3) Coordination isomerism (4) Ionization isomerism
Sol. Answer (2)
34. Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)4 (H2O)2] (2) [Pt (NH3)2 Cl2] (3) [Ni (NH3)2Cl2] (4) [Ni(en)3]2+
Sol. Answer (3)
35. Out of TiF62 , COF63 , Cu2Cl2 and NiCl24 (Z of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the colourless species are
(1) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl24 (2) TiF62 and Cu2Cl2 (3) CoF63  and NiCl24 (4) TiF62 and CoF63 
Sol. Answer (2)

36. Which of the following does not show optical isomeism ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
0 +
(1) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (2) [Co(en)Cl2(NH3)2]
(3) [Co(en)3]3+ (4) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (en=ethylenediamine)
Sol. Answer (1)
[MA3B3] type complexes do not show optical isomerism.
37. Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light ? (At. No. Zn=30, SC=21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)
4+ 3+ 2+
(1) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2] (2) [Cr(NH3)6] (3) [Zn(NH3)6] (4) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+
Sol. Answer (2)
In Zn2+, the t2g and eg orbitals are completely filled  no transition  no absorption of visible light while in
case of
Cr3+  3d3  transition will take place.
38. Which of the following complexes exhibits the highest paramagnetic behaviour ? (Where gly = glycine,
en = ethylenediamine and bpy = bipyridyl moities). (At. number Ti = 22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
(1) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ (2) [V(gly)2(OH)2(NH3)2]+
(3) [Fe(en)(bpy)(NH3)2]2+ (4) [Co(OX)2(OH)2]–
Sol. Answer (4)
39. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of o(CFSE in octahedral field) will be maximum (at.
no. Co = 27)? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co(CN)6]3–
Sol. Answer (4)
t2g eg
[Co(CN)6]3–  Co3+  3d6 
CFSE = – 0.4  6 0
= – 2.4 0
40. Which one of the following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour? Atomic number.
Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (3) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
Sol. Answer (4)
41. Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6] (2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2
(3) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] (4) [Co(en)2 Cl2]Cl (en = NH2CH2CH2NH2)
Sol. Answer (4)
en en
Cl Cl
Co Co
Cl Cl
en en
42. [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical isomerism
(2) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and geometrical isomerism
(3) Ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism
(4) Linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism
Sol. Answer (2)
[Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl can show linkage, ionization and geometrical isomerism.
43. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (at. no of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 BM, the correct distribution of 3d electrons in the
chromium of the complex is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
1 1 1
(1) 3dx2 – y 2 , 3dz2 ,3dxz (2) 3d1xy, 3d1x2 –y 2 , 3d1yz (3) 3d1xy, 3d1zy, 3d1xz (4) 3d1xy, 3d1yz, 3d1z2
Sol. Answer (3)

 = 3.83 BM  Number of unpaired electrons = 3
In [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3  Cr3+  3d3 

dxy dyz dxz
44. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex as well as diamagnetic in behaviour? (Atomic No. : Zn = 30,
Cr = 24, Co = 27, Ni = 28) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
Sol. Answer (3)
[Co(NH3)6]3+  Co3+  3d6 

NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3
 Zero unpaired electrons  Diamagnetic

 Low spin inner-orbital complex
45. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical isomerism ? (en = ethylenediamine)
+
(1) cis -[Pt (NH3)2Cl2] (2) trans -[Co (en)2 Cl2]
(3) trans -[Pt (NH3)2 Cl2] (4) cis -[Co(en)2 Cl2]+
Sol. Answer (4)
en en
Cl Cl
Co Co
Cl Cl
en en
46. A co-ordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formula containing five ammonia molecules,
one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of this compound produces three mole
ions in an aqueous solution. On reacting this solution with excess of AgNO3 solution, we get two moles of
AgCl as precipitate. The ionic formula for this complex would be
(1) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)] Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl] [Cl(NO2)]
(3) [Co(NH3)4(NO2)Cl] (NH2) Cl (4) [Co(NH3)5] [ (NO2)2Cl2]
Sol. Answer (1)
2 moles of AgCl means there are 2Cl– ions in the primary valency.
S, [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2.
47. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3 (Br) (NO2)Cl] Cl is
(1) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride (2) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum (IV) chloride
(3) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV) chloride (4) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride
Sol. Answer (1)
IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3 (Br) (NO2)Cl] Cl = Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride.
48. Shape of Fe(CO)5 is
(1) Octahedral (2) Square planar
(3) Trigonal bipyramidal (4) Square pyramidal
Sol. Answer (3)
CO
CO
Fe(CO)5  Fe CO  Trigonal bipyramidal
CO
CO
49. Which of the following will give maximum number of isomers?
(1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] (2) [Ni(en) (NH3)4]2+ (3) [Ni (C2O4) (en)2]2– (4) [Cr (SCN)2 (NH3)4]+
Sol. Answer (4)
[Cr (SCN)2 (NH3)4]+ is [MA2B4] type complex and here SCN– is an ambidentate ligand. So, this will give
maximum number of isomers.
50. Coordination number of Ni in [Ni (C2O4)3]4– is
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
Sol. Answer (2)
[Ni (C2O4)3]4–, C 2 O 2–
4
is a bidentate ligand. So, it forms octahedral complex with co-ordination number 6.
51. Which of the following organometallic compounds is  and  bonded?

(1) [Fe(5 – C5H5)2] (2) K[PtCl3(n2 – C2H4)] (3) [Co(CO)5NH3]2+ (4) Fe(CH3)3
Sol. Answer (3)
[Co(CO)5NH3]2+ forms  and  bonded complexes (structure).
52. Which statement is incorrect?
(1) Ni(CO)4 - tetrahedral, paramagnetic (2) Ni(CN)4–2 - square planar, diamagnetic
(3) Ni(CO)4 – tetrahedral, diamagnetic (4) [Ni(Cl)4]–2 – tetrahedral, paramagnetic
Sol. Answer (1)
Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic in nature.
53. Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively 24 and 26, which of the following is paramagnetic?
(1) [Cr(CO)6] (2) [Fe(CO)5] (3) [Fe(CN)6]4– (4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
Sol. Answer (4)
[Cr(NH3)6]3+  Cr3+  3d3  Three unpaired electrons  Paramagnetic.
54. The hypothetical complex chloro diaquatriammine cobalt (III) chloride can be represented as
(1) [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)Cl3]
(3) [Co(NH2)3(H2O)2Cl] (4) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
Sol. Answer (1)
Chloro diaquatriammine cobalt (III) chloride  [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2
55. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside is named as
(1) Sodium nitroferricyanide (2) Sodium nitroferrocyanide
(3) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II) (4) Sodium pentancyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
Sol. Answer (3)
Sodium nitroprusside  Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)]  Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II).
56. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion [CoF6]3– is (Atomic no. : Co = 27)
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) Zero
Sol. Answer (3)
[CoF6]3–  Co3+  3d6 
 Four unpaired electrons

57. The anion of acetylacetone (acac) forms Co(acac)3 chelate with Co3+. The rings of the chelate are
(1) Three membered (2) Five membered (3) Four membered (4) Six membered
Sol. Answer (4)
(acac) forms six membered complex (structure).
58. Which one of the following octahedral complexes will not show geometric isomerism? (A and B are
monodentate ligands)
(1) [MA2B4] (2) [MA3B3] (3) [MA4B2] (4) [MA5B]
Sol. Answer (4)
[MA5B] will not show geometrical isomerism.
59. Which of the following is considered to be an anticancer species?
CH2 Cl
Cl Cl Cl H3N Cl H3N
Pt CH2 Pt Pt Pt
(1) Cl (2) Cl Cl (3) H3N Cl (4) Cl NH3
Cl
Sol. Answer (3)

Cis-platin is considered to be an anticancer species.
60. Which of the following coordination compounds would exhibit optical isomerism?
(1) Pentaamminenitrocobalt (III) iodide
(2) Diamminedichloroplatinum (II)
(3) Trans dicyanobis (ethylenediamine) chromium (III) chloride
(4) Tris-(ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) bromide
Sol. Answer (4)
en en
Co en en Co
en en
61. Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2–, [NiCl4]2– species, the hybridization states at the Ni atom are, respectively [Atomic
number of Ni = 28]
(1) sp3, dsp2, dsp2 (2) sp3, dsp2, sp3 (3) sp3, sp3, dsp2 (4) dsp2, sp3, sp3
Sol. Answer (2)
[Ni(CO)4]  sp3
[Ni(CN)4]2–  dsp2
[NiCl4]2–  sp3
62. Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6]2+ will be (atomic number
of Mn = 25)
(1) Three (2) Five (3) Two (4) Four
Sol. Answer (2)
[Mn(H2O)6]2+  Mn2+  3d5 
 Five unpaired electrons.
63. Which of the following does not have a metal carbon bond?
(1) Al(OC2H5)3 (2) C2H5MgBr (3) K[Pt(C2H4)Cl3] (4) Ni(CO)4
Sol. Answer (1)
C2H5
O
Al(OC2H5)3 
Al
H5C2 O O
C2H5
64. The d electron configuration of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ and Ni2+ are 3d 4, 3d 5, 3d 6 and 3d 8 respectively. Which one of the
following aqua complexes will exhibit the maximum paramagnetic behaviour? (At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26,
Ni = 28)
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (3) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
Sol. Answer (4)
H2O is a weak field ligand and Mn2+ has maximum numbers of unpaired electrons i.e., 5. So, [Mn(H2O)6]2+
will exhibit the maximum paramagnetic behaviour.
SECTION - D
1. A : The complex [Co(NH3)3Cl3] gives white ppt. with AgNO3 solution.
R : Chlorine always gives white ppt with AgNO3 solution.
Sol. Answer (4)
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] will not give while ppt. with AgNO3 solution. Because there is no any Cl– in the primary valency
i.e. outside the co-ordination sphere.
Chlorine does not give white ppt. with AgNO3 always.
2. A : Glycinate ion is an unsymmetrical bidentate ligand.

R : Glycinate ion is a conjugate base of glycine.
Sol. Answer (2)
Glycinate ion  NH2–CH2–COO–  unsymmetrical
–H+ –
NH2–CH2–COOH NH2–CH2–COO
Glycine Conjugate base
But the reason is not any explanation.
3. A : K4[Fe(CN)6] is less stable than K3[Fe(CN)6].

R : In K4[Fe(CN)6], the EAN of Fe is 36.
Sol. Answer (2)
K4[Fe(CN)6]  Fe2+  3d6
 CFSE = – 2.4 0
K4[Fe(CN)6]  Fe3+  3d5

 CFSE = – 2.0 0
 K3[Fe(CN)6] is less stable then K4[Fe(CN)6]
K4[Fe(CN)6]  Fe2+  24 electrons
 EAN = 24 + 2  6 = 36  But not the correct explanation.
4. A : All square planar complexes can exhibit geometrical isomerism.

R : In square planar complexes metal assumes sp3 hybridisation.
Sol. Answer (4)
Square planar complexes of type [MA4] and [MA3B] can not exhibit geometrical isomerism.
In square planar complexes, metal is dsp2 hybridized.
5. A : K4[Fe(CN6)] and K3[Fe(CN6)] have different magnetic moment.

R : Magnetic moment is decided by the number of unpaired electron and both have different number of unpaired
electrons.
Sol. Answer (1)
K4[Fe(CN6)]  Fe2+  3d6    = 0 BM
K3[Fe(CN6)]  Fe3+  3d5    = 1.73 BM
6. A : The degeneracy of d-orbitals is lost under strong field ligand.

R : The degeneracy of d-orbitals does not get lost under chelated ligand field.
Sol. Answer (3)
In strong field, the d-orbital splits into t2g and eg orbitals. t2g and eg have different energies.
Chelated ligand fields are generally strong
 Statement (2) is false.
7. A : Transition metal ion forming octahedral complex having d2sp3 or sp3d2 hybridisation.
R : Under the influence of strong field ligand inner d-orbitals take part in the hybridisation.
Sol. Answer (2)
Octahedral  d2sp3 or sp3d2
Under strong field, electrons of d-orbital get paired and the orbital takes part in hybridization. But it is not the
correct explanation for hybridization.
8. A : Higher the charge density on the central ion, greater will be stability of the complex.
R : Hard acid show a greater tendency for forming complexes with hard ligands such as F–.
Sol. Answer (2)
Both the statements are facts. But 2nd one is not giving the reason, why charge density on metal ion is
responsible for stability.
9. A : Al2(CH3)6 is a dimeric compound and has similar structure to diborane.
R : Al2(CH3)6 in a sigma bonded complex.
Sol. Answer (2)
Both are true as per the structure of Al2(CH3)6 but not the correct explanation.
10. A : Ferrocene may prepared by the reaction of Grignard reagent ferrous chloride.
R : Ferrocene is a  and -bonded complex.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is correct (fact). But reason is wrong, because Ferrocen forms -bonded complex.
Fe Ferrocene
11. A : dien is bidentate ligand.
R : dien donates two pairs of electron.
Sol. Answer (4)
Dien is not a bidentate ligand and does not donate two pairs of electrons.
12. A : CN– is an acid ligand.
R : CN– accepts electron pair also.
Sol. Answer (4)
CN– donates electron to the metal ion.
13. A : Coordination number of Fe2+ in ferrocene is 10.
R : Ferrocene is  bonded complex.
Sol. Answer (2)
2+
Ferrocene ⇒ Fe
 Co-ordination number of Fe2+ is 10
 -bonded complex
But not the correct explanation.
14. A : [MA3B3]n+ shows optical isomerism.
R : [MA3B3]n+ deviates plane polarized light.
Sol. Answer (4)
[MA3B3] type complexes do not show optical isomerism.
15. A : [Fe(CN)6]4– follows EAN rule.
R : Number of electrons in Fe in this complex ion is 36.
Sol. Answer (1)
[Fe(CN)6]4–  Fe2+  24 electrons
6 CN– ligands  6  2 = 12 electrons
 Total 24 + 12 = 36 electrons in the complex ion.
16. A : According to C.F.T. complex compound contain point charges.
R : The bonding between central metal ion and ligand is electrostatic.
Sol. Answer (2)
Both the statements are true. But not the correct explanation.
17. A : [Cr(H2O)6]3+ is inner orbital complex.

R : H2O is strong ligand generally.
Sol. Answer (4)
H2O is a moderate field ligand.
[Cr(H2O)6]3+  Cr3+  3d3  forms outer orbital complex.
18. A : [Ni(CO)4] is organometallic compound.

R : CO is organic and Ni is metal.
Sol. Answer (3)
19. A : CH3COONa is an organometallic compound.

R : CH3COOH is organic compound and Na is transition metal.
Sol. Answer (4)
Na is a metal. CH3COONa is a salt.
4
20. A : The energy gap 0  t .
9
R : 0 is always greater than t for same metal ion and ligand.
Sol. Answer (2)
Both the statements are true. But not the correct explanation.


General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements: Solutions

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Chapter 17

General Principles and Processes of

1. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

2. Which of the following is not a mineral of aluminium?

3. Which of the following is acidic flux?

SiO2 is used in metallurgy of Cu to remove FeO.

4. In the metallurgy of iron, the slag is

5. Which of the following is concentrated by magnetic separation method?

7. Serpeck’s method involves the heating of bauxite with

 NH3 + 2Al  OH 3

8. Sulphide ore is converted to oxide form by using the process

9. Which of the following has the lowest percentage of carbon in it?

10. Roasting of sulphide ore is generally performed in

11. Which of the following is leached with NaCN?

 4  Au  CN 2   aq + 4OH –aq

12. Ellingham diagrams are plots of G°f Vs T for the formation of

19. Which of the following is used to reduce TiCl4 to Ti?

20. Zinc is extracted from zinc blende by

21. Hall Heroult method is used for the extraction of

23. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by

26. Poling is used for purification of metals having impurities of

27. Impure zinc, as collected from earthen clay retort, is called

28. Which of the following metal is purified by distillation process?

29. Vapour phase refining can be carried out in case of

Ni  CO 4 (g) 

30. Which of the following is not a method of purification of metals?

1. A substance which reacts with gangue to form fusible material is called

2. Cyanide process is used for the extraction of

 4  Au  CN 2   aq + 4OH –

Zn(s) + 2  Au(CN) 2   aq 

3. Calcination is the process in which

4. Which of the following is not a concentration technique?

5. The ores that are concentrated by Froth flotation method are

6. In blast furnace, iron oxide is reduced by

7. The silver complex formed during cyanide process is

 4Na  Ag  CN 2  + 4NaOH

8. Zincite and calamine respectively are

9. Which of the following is chalcopyrite?

10. The alloy used in dental filling contains

12. Which of the following oxide is thermally least stable?

13. Thomas slag is

 4  AgCN 2   aq + 4OH –

Zn(s) + 2  Ag  CN 2   aq 

17. Electrolytic reduction method is used for extraction of

At anode, Ni(s) + 2Cl – 

21. Which of the following give respective metal by self reduction?

22. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

23. By which process zinc is extracted from zinc blende?

24. Which of the following is not a refining process?

Sol. Answer (4)

25. From gold amalgam, gold may be recovered by

(1) a(iii)b(iv)c(v)d(i) (2) a(iv)b(ii)c(iii)d(i) (3) a(ii)b(iii)c(i)d(v) (4) a(i)b(ii)c(iii)d(iv)

The overall reaction is 2Al 2O 3 + 3C 

6. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

21. Which process of purification is represented by following scheme?

 Na 2SO 4 + 2Na  Ag  CN 2 

30. Iron obtained from blast furnace is

H2SO3 is sulphurous acid and it is known only in solution.

Hence, both Assertion and Reason are true.

8. A : Wrought iron is purest form of iron with respect to other forms.

The d and f-Block Elements

2. The trend in ionisation enthalpy of a transition element is not regular because